Bill Text: OH HB59 | 2013-2014 | 130th General Assembly | Engrossed

NOTE: There are more recent revisions of this legislation. Read Latest Draft
Bill Title: On July 1, 2018, to terminate the operation of that section on that date.

Spectrum: Partisan Bill (Republican 34-1)

Status: (Passed) 2013-06-30 - Effective Date [HB59 Detail]

Download: Ohio-2013-HB59-Engrossed.html
As Passed by the House

130th General Assembly
Regular Session
2013-2014
Am. Sub. H. B. No. 59


Representative Amstutz 

Cosponsors: Representatives Anielski, Baker, Beck, Blair, Boose, Brown, Burkley, Conditt, Dovilla, Grossman, Hackett, Hagan, C., Hayes, Lynch, McClain, McGregor, Pelanda, Rosenberger, Ruhl, Sears, Sprague, Stebelton, Thompson 



A BILL
To amend sections 9.03, 9.15, 9.231, 9.239, 9.24, 1
9.833, 9.90, 9.901, 101.39, 101.391, 103.144, 2
105.41, 107.033, 107.12, 109.06, 109.36, 109.57, 3
109.572, 109.71, 109.746, 109.77, 109.85, 109.86, 4
109.90, 111.02, 111.15, 111.28, 113.02, 113.061, 5
117.03, 117.10, 117.20, 119.01, 120.06, 121.02, 6
121.03, 121.11, 121.22, 121.35, 121.37, 121.372, 7
122.075, 122.083, 122.17, 122.28, 122.30, 122.31, 8
122.32, 122.33, 122.34, 122.35, 122.36, 122.657, 9
122.658, 122.66, 122.67, 122.68, 122.69, 122.70, 10
122.701, 122.76, 122.861, 123.01, 123.10, 123.11, 11
123.201, 123.21, 123.27, 124.11, 124.14, 124.18, 12
124.30, 124.341, 124.381, 124.57, 125.05, 125.21, 13
125.212, 125.28, 125.602, 125.603, 125.832, 14
125.836, 126.07, 126.14, 126.32, 126.35, 126.45, 15
126.46, 126.47, 126.48, 127.14, 127.16, 133.01, 16
133.06, 135.80, 140.01, 140.03, 140.05, 145.01, 17
145.012, 145.22, 149.01, 149.311, 149.43, 151.11, 18
152.09, 153.692, 154.01, 154.17, 154.20, 154.22, 19
154.23, 154.25, 156.02, 156.03, 156.04, 156.05, 20
164.27, 166.02, 166.03, 166.04, 166.08, 166.25, 21
169.02, 173.03, 173.14, 173.17, 173.19, 173.20, 22
173.21, 173.23, 173.25, 173.26, 173.27, 173.28, 23
173.39, 173.391, 173.392, 173.394, 173.40, 24
173.401, 173.402, 173.403, 173.404, 173.42, 25
173.43, 173.431, 173.432, 173.434, 173.45, 173.47, 26
173.48, 173.50, 173.501, 173.99, 189.04, 189.06, 27
191.01, 191.02, 191.04, 191.06, 301.28, 305.23, 28
307.07, 307.673, 307.674, 307.86, 309.09, 317.08, 29
317.32, 317.321, 317.36, 321.35, 321.44, 329.04, 30
329.051, 329.06, 329.14, 339.02, 339.05, 339.06, 31
339.07, 340.01, 340.011, 340.02, 340.021, 340.03, 32
340.031, 340.032, 340.04, 340.05, 340.07, 340.09, 33
340.091, 340.10, 340.11, 340.12, 340.13, 340.15, 34
340.16, 341.192, 351.021, 715.691, 721.01, 35
721.03, 731.091, 737.41, 742.14, 755.06, 901.21, 36
901.22, 901.23, 903.11, 903.99, 905.06, 909.15, 37
924.06, 927.54, 955.201, 956.07, 956.18, 991.03, 38
991.04, 991.06, 1332.26, 1337.11, 1347.08, 39
1501.011, 1501.45, 1509.01, 1509.02, 1509.062, 40
1509.10, 1509.11, 1509.50, 1509.73, 1511.02, 41
1511.022, 1519.05, 1531.06, 1531.17, 1545.071, 42
1547.99, 1548.02, 1551.33, 1551.35, 1555.15, 43
1711.07, 1724.03, 1739.061, 1751.01, 1751.11, 44
1751.12, 1751.14, 1751.271, 1751.31, 1751.60, 45
1923.14, 2101.24, 2108.05, 2113.041, 2113.06, 46
2117.061, 2117.25, 2133.01, 2133.25, 2151.011, 47
2151.3514, 2151.362, 2151.86, 2152.54, 2152.59, 48
2301.02, 2301.03, 2303.201, 2305.234, 2307.65, 49
2317.02, 2317.422, 2505.02, 2743.02, 2744.05, 50
2901.13, 2901.30, 2903.13, 2903.33, 2907.22, 51
2913.40, 2913.401, 2919.271, 2921.01, 2921.13, 52
2921.22, 2921.36, 2921.38, 2923.125, 2923.126, 53
2925.03, 2929.13, 2929.15, 2930.01, 2935.03, 54
2935.33, 2945.37, 2945.371, 2945.38, 2945.39, 55
2945.40, 2945.401, 2951.041, 2967.22, 2981.01, 56
2981.12, 2981.13, 3101.051, 3107.083, 3109.15, 57
3111.04, 3111.72, 3119.29, 3119.54, 3121.441, 58
3121.89, 3121.891, 3121.892, 3121.893, 3121.898, 59
3123.958, 3125.18, 3125.36, 3301.07, 3301.0714, 60
3301.0715, 3301.0723, 3301.15, 3302.01, 3302.03, 61
3302.22, 3304.231, 3305.03, 3307.51, 3309.21, 62
3310.01, 3310.02, 3310.03, 3310.05, 3310.06, 63
3310.08, 3310.56, 3311.0510, 3311.22, 3311.231, 64
3311.38, 3311.78, 3312.08, 3313.372, 3313.376, 65
3313.42, 3313.48, 3313.483, 3313.484, 3313.488, 66
3313.4810, 3313.533, 3313.539, 3313.603, 67
3313.6013, 3313.62, 3313.64, 3313.646, 3313.65, 68
3313.714, 3313.715, 3313.83, 3313.841, 3313.843, 69
3313.845, 3313.847, 3313.88, 3313.978, 3313.98, 70
3313.981, 3314.015, 3314.017, 3314.029, 3314.03, 71
3314.05, 3314.06, 3314.072, 3314.074, 3314.08, 72
3314.083, 3314.084, 3314.087, 3314.09, 3314.091, 73
3314.11, 3314.26, 3315.40, 3315.42, 3316.041, 74
3316.06, 3317.01, 3317.013, 3317.021, 3317.023, 75
3317.0212, 3317.03, 3317.032, 3317.05, 3317.06, 76
3317.08, 3317.10, 3317.12, 3317.14, 3317.141, 77
3317.18, 3317.19, 3317.20, 3317.50, 3317.51, 78
3318.011, 3318.031, 3318.08, 3318.31, 3318.36, 79
3318.363, 3319.07, 3319.073, 3319.17, 3319.22, 80
3319.235, 3319.57, 3321.01, 3321.05, 3323.021, 81
3323.03, 3323.04, 3323.07, 3323.08, 3323.09, 82
3323.091, 3323.13, 3323.14, 3323.141, 3323.142, 83
3326.11, 3326.20, 3326.31, 3326.32, 3326.33, 84
3326.34, 3326.38, 3326.45, 3327.01, 3333.041, 85
3333.31, 3333.82, 3335.35, 3335.36, 3335.37, 86
3335.38, 3345.05, 3345.12, 3353.01, 3353.02, 87
3353.03, 3353.04, 3353.06, 3353.07, 3365.01, 88
3365.02, 3365.07, 3365.12, 3383.01, 3383.07, 89
3501.01, 3599.45, 3701.023, 3701.024, 3701.027, 90
3701.13, 3701.132, 3701.243, 3701.261, 3701.262, 91
3701.264, 3701.342, 3701.344, 3701.507, 3701.74, 92
3701.741, 3701.742, 3701.78, 3701.83, 3701.881, 93
3701.921, 3701.922, 3701.99, 3702.30, 3702.51, 94
3702.521, 3702.55, 3702.62, 3702.74, 3702.91, 95
3704.144, 3706.01, 3707.511, 3709.01, 3709.051, 96
3709.10, 3712.051, 3712.07, 3712.09, 3713.06, 97
3714.07, 3717.08, 3718.06, 3719.61, 3721.01, 98
3721.011, 3721.02, 3721.022, 3721.024, 3721.027, 99
3721.042, 3721.071, 3721.08, 3721.10, 3721.12, 100
3721.121, 3721.13, 3721.14, 3721.15, 3721.16, 101
3721.17, 3721.19, 3721.50, 3721.51, 3721.511, 102
3721.512, 3721.513, 3721.52, 3721.53, 3721.531, 103
3721.532, 3721.533, 3721.54, 3721.541, 3721.55, 104
3721.56, 3721.57, 3721.58, 3727.01, 3734.28, 105
3734.57, 3734.901, 3734.907, 3735.58, 3737.02, 106
3737.83, 3737.841, 3737.88, 3742.30, 3742.31, 107
3742.32, 3742.51, 3745.11, 3745.113, 3769.08, 108
3769.088, 3770.02, 3770.03, 3770.06, 3772.03, 109
3772.062, 3772.091, 3781.112, 3793.01, 3793.031, 110
3793.032, 3793.051, 3793.10, 3793.11, 3793.12, 111
3793.13, 3793.14, 3793.15, 3793.16, 3793.18, 112
3793.22, 3793.31, 3793.32, 3793.33, 3793.34, 113
3793.35, 3793.36, 3793.37, 3793.38, 3793.39, 114
3798.01, 3901.3814, 3903.14, 3905.40, 3905.483, 115
3905.862, 3916.06, 3923.24, 3923.241, 3923.281, 116
3923.443, 3923.49, 3923.50, 3923.601, 3923.83, 117
3924.41, 3924.42, 3963.01, 3963.04, 4104.33, 118
4112.02, 4112.12, 4112.31, 4115.034, 4115.32, 119
4117.06, 4117.14, 4117.15, 4121.50, 4123.32, 120
4131.03, 4141.162, 4301.10, 4301.30, 4301.43, 121
4305.131, 4501.01, 4501.21, 4503.62, 4505.02, 122
4505.09, 4505.101, 4506.07, 4507.03, 4507.06, 123
4507.51, 4510.038, 4510.45, 4511.19, 4511.191, 124
4511.69, 4513.60, 4513.61, 4513.62, 4701.03, 125
4707.02, 4707.073, 4707.10, 4709.11, 4715.36, 126
4715.372, 4717.03, 4717.06, 4717.07, 4717.10, 127
4717.14, 4717.15, 4719.01, 4723.18, 4723.35, 128
4723.481, 4725.03, 4725.16, 4729.51, 4729.54, 129
4729.69, 4729.80, 4729.81, 4729.99, 4730.411, 130
4731.151, 4731.23, 4731.65, 4731.71, 4734.41, 131
4745.01, 4751.01, 4751.02, 4751.03, 4751.04, 132
4751.041, 4751.05, 4751.06, 4751.07, 4751.08, 133
4751.10, 4751.11, 4751.12, 4751.13, 4753.071, 134
4755.481, 4758.10, 4758.11, 4761.01, 4906.20, 135
5101.01, 5101.11, 5101.141, 5101.16, 5101.162, 136
5101.18, 5101.181, 5101.183, 5101.184, 5101.26, 137
5101.271, 5101.272, 5101.273, 5101.30, 5101.31, 138
5101.34, 5101.35, 5101.36, 5101.46, 5101.461, 139
5101.47, 5101.49, 5101.50, 5101.501, 5101.502, 140
5101.51, 5101.511, 5101.512, 5101.513, 5101.516, 141
5101.517, 5101.519, 5101.5110, 5101.52, 5101.521, 142
5101.522, 5101.524, 5101.527, 5101.571, 5101.572, 143
5101.573, 5101.574, 5101.575, 5101.58, 5101.59, 144
5101.591, 5101.60, 5101.61, 5101.80, 5101.801, 145
5101.803, 5103.02, 5103.0323, 5103.13, 5103.42, 146
5104.012, 5104.013, 5104.02, 5104.021, 5104.03, 147
5104.08, 5104.11, 5104.12, 5104.32, 5107.10, 148
5107.14, 5107.16, 5107.20, 5107.24, 5107.26, 149
5107.42, 5107.64, 5111.01, 5111.011, 5111.013, 150
5111.016, 5111.018, 5111.0112, 5111.0114, 151
5111.0116, 5111.0117, 5111.0118, 5111.0119, 152
5111.02, 5111.021, 5111.022, 5111.023, 5111.024, 153
5111.025, 5111.027, 5111.028, 5111.029, 5111.0210, 154
5111.0211, 5111.0212, 5111.0213, 5111.0214, 155
5111.0215, 5111.03, 5111.031, 5111.032, 5111.033, 156
5111.034, 5111.035, 5111.04, 5111.042, 5111.05, 157
5111.051, 5111.052, 5111.053, 5111.054, 5111.06, 158
5111.061, 5111.062, 5111.063, 5111.07, 5111.071, 159
5111.08, 5111.081, 5111.082, 5111.083, 5111.084, 160
5111.085, 5111.086, 5111.09, 5111.091, 5111.092, 161
5111.10, 5111.101, 5111.102, 5111.11, 5111.111, 162
5111.112, 5111.113, 5111.114, 5111.12, 5111.121, 163
5111.13, 5111.14, 5111.141, 5111.15, 5111.151, 164
5111.16, 5111.161, 5111.162, 5111.163, 5111.17, 165
5111.171, 5111.172, 5111.173, 5111.174, 5111.175, 166
5111.177, 5111.178, 5111.179, 5111.1710, 167
5111.1711, 5111.18, 5111.181, 5111.19, 5111.191, 168
5111.20, 5111.201, 5111.202, 5111.203, 5111.204, 169
5111.21, 5111.212, 5111.22, 5111.221, 5111.222, 170
5111.223, 5111.224, 5111.225, 5111.226, 5111.23, 171
5111.231, 5111.232, 5111.233, 5111.235, 5111.24, 172
5111.241, 5111.242, 5111.244, 5111.245, 5111.246, 173
5111.25, 5111.251, 5111.254, 5111.255, 5111.257, 174
5111.258, 5111.259, 5111.26, 5111.261, 5111.262, 175
5111.263, 5111.264, 5111.265, 5111.266, 5111.27, 176
5111.271, 5111.28, 5111.29, 5111.291, 5111.30, 177
5111.31, 5111.32, 5111.33, 5111.331, 5111.35, 178
5111.36, 5111.37, 5111.38, 5111.39, 5111.41, 179
5111.411, 5111.42, 5111.43, 5111.44, 5111.45, 180
5111.46, 5111.47, 5111.48, 5111.49, 5111.50, 181
5111.51, 5111.511, 5111.52, 5111.53, 5111.54, 182
5111.55, 5111.56, 5111.57, 5111.58, 5111.59, 183
5111.60, 5111.61, 5111.62, 5111.63, 5111.66, 184
5111.661, 5111.67, 5111.671, 5111.672, 5111.673, 185
5111.674, 5111.675, 5111.676, 5111.677, 5111.68, 186
5111.681, 5111.682, 5111.683, 5111.684, 5111.685, 187
5111.686, 5111.687, 5111.688, 5111.689, 5111.71, 188
5111.711, 5111.712, 5111.713, 5111.714, 5111.715, 189
5111.84, 5111.85, 5111.851, 5111.852, 5111.853, 190
5111.854, 5111.855, 5111.856, 5111.86, 5111.861, 191
5111.862, 5111.863, 5111.864, 5111.865, 5111.87, 192
5111.871, 5111.872, 5111.873, 5111.874, 5111.875, 193
5111.876, 5111.877, 5111.878, 5111.879, 5111.88, 194
5111.881, 5111.882, 5111.885, 5111.886, 5111.887, 195
5111.888, 5111.889, 5111.8810, 5111.89, 5111.891, 196
5111.892, 5111.894, 5111.90, 5111.91, 5111.911, 197
5111.912, 5111.914, 5111.915, 5111.92, 5111.93, 198
5111.94, 5111.941, 5111.943, 5111.944, 5111.945, 199
5111.96, 5111.97, 5111.98, 5111.981, 5111.982, 200
5111.99, 5112.01, 5112.03, 5112.04, 5112.05, 201
5112.06, 5112.07, 5112.08, 5112.09, 5112.10, 202
5112.11, 5112.17, 5112.18, 5112.19, 5112.21, 203
5112.30, 5112.31, 5112.32, 5112.33, 5112.331, 204
5112.34, 5112.341, 5112.35, 5112.37, 5112.371, 205
5112.38, 5112.39, 5112.40, 5112.41, 5112.42, 206
5112.43, 5112.44, 5112.45, 5112.46, 5112.47, 207
5112.48, 5112.99, 5112.991, 5115.20, 5117.10, 208
5119.01, 5119.012, 5119.02, 5119.04, 5119.06, 209
5119.061, 5119.07, 5119.071, 5119.072, 5119.08, 210
5119.10, 5119.101, 5119.11, 5119.12, 5119.14, 211
5119.16, 5119.161, 5119.17, 5119.18, 5119.20, 212
5119.201, 5119.202, 5119.21, 5119.22, 5119.221, 213
5119.23, 5119.24, 5119.27, 5119.30, 5119.33, 214
5119.34, 5119.35, 5119.351, 5119.36, 5119.42, 215
5119.43, 5119.44, 5119.46, 5119.51, 5119.52, 216
5119.53, 5119.57, 5119.60, 5119.61, 5119.611, 217
5119.612, 5119.613, 5119.62, 5119.621, 5119.622, 218
5119.63, 5119.631, 5119.69, 5119.691, 5119.99, 219
5120.07, 5120.09, 5120.135, 5120.17, 5120.171, 220
5120.652, 5120.654, 5121.051, 5121.30, 5121.32, 221
5121.33, 5121.34, 5121.35, 5121.36, 5121.37, 222
5121.38, 5121.40, 5121.42, 5121.43, 5121.44, 223
5121.45, 5121.46, 5121.47, 5121.49, 5121.50, 224
5121.51, 5121.52, 5121.55, 5122.01, 5122.03, 225
5122.10, 5122.11, 5122.12, 5122.13, 5122.15, 226
5122.17, 5122.18, 5122.19, 5122.20, 5122.21, 227
5122.23, 5122.25, 5122.26, 5122.27, 5122.271, 228
5122.31, 5122.311, 5122.32, 5122.33, 5122.34, 229
5122.341, 5122.39, 5122.43, 5122.44, 5122.45, 230
5122.46, 5122.47, 5123.01, 5123.021, 5123.022, 231
5123.03, 5123.0412, 5123.0417, 5123.09, 5123.171, 232
5123.19, 5123.192, 5123.197, 5123.198, 5123.38, 233
5123.61, 5123.86, 5126.01, 5126.026, 5126.05, 234
5126.051, 5126.054, 5126.055, 5126.24, 5139.03, 235
5139.04, 5139.08, 5139.34, 5145.162, 5145.18, 236
5153.16, 5302.221, 5309.082, 5505.12, 5507.46, 237
5511.03, 5701.13, 5703.052, 5703.059, 5703.21, 238
5703.37, 5703.82, 5705.01, 5705.19, 5705.192, 239
5705.217, 5705.218, 5705.221, 5705.25, 5705.412, 240
5709.17, 5709.212, 5709.75, 5725.18, 5725.34, 241
5726.20, 5726.52, 5727.26, 5727.75, 5727.84, 242
5727.89, 5728.10, 5729.03, 5729.17, 5731.39, 243
5733.01, 5733.06, 5733.11, 5733.98, 5735.012, 244
5735.12, 5735.34, 5739.01, 5739.02, 5739.026, 245
5739.09, 5739.12, 5739.13, 5741.01, 5741.03, 246
5741.12, 5741.17, 5743.081, 5743.15, 5743.56, 247
5745.12, 5747.01, 5747.02, 5747.022, 5747.025, 248
5747.08, 5747.10, 5747.11, 5747.113, 5747.122, 249
5747.13, 5747.21, 5747.47, 5747.501, 5747.76, 250
5747.98, 5749.02, 5749.06, 5749.07, 5749.17, 251
5751.01, 5751.014, 5751.07, 5751.081, 5751.09, 252
5751.20, 5751.21, 5753.01, 5753.03, 5753.07, 253
5815.28, 5905.02, 5910.02, 5910.07, 5919.34, 254
5924.502, 5924.503, 5924.504, 5924.506, 6109.21, 255
and 6111.037; to amend, for the purpose of 256
adopting new section numbers as indicated in 257
parentheses, sections 173.394 (173.38), 173.40 258
(173.52), 173.401 (173.521), 173.402 (173.524), 259
173.403 (173.53), 173.404 (173.55), 3313.847 260
(3317.30), 3333.90 (3333.59), 3383.01 (123.28), 261
3383.07 (123.281), 3721.50 (5168.40), 3721.51 262
(5168.42), 3721.511 (5168.43), 3721.512 (5168.44), 263
3721.513 (5168.45), 3721.52 (5168.46), 3721.53 264
(5168.47), 3721.531 (5168.48), 3721.532 (5168.49), 265
3721.533 (5168.50), 3721.54 (5168.51), 3721.541 266
(5168.52), 3721.55 (5168.53), 3721.56 (5168.54), 267
3721.57 (5168.55), 3721.58 (5168.56), 3737.883 268
(3737.884), 3793.01 (5119.01), 3793.031 269
(5119.201), 3793.032 (5119.47), 3793.051 270
(5119.161), 3793.10 (5119.38), 3793.11 (5119.39), 271
3793.12 (5119.61), 3793.13 (5119.27), 3793.14 272
(5119.26), 3793.15 (5119.17), 3793.16 (5119.188), 273
3793.18 (5119.30), 3793.22 (5119.49), 3793.31 274
(5119.90), 3793.32 (5119.91), 3793.33 (5119.92), 275
3793.34 (5119.93), 3793.35 (5119.94), 3793.36 276
(5119.95), 3793.37 (5119.96), 3793.38 (5119.97), 277
3793.39 (5119.98), 5101.271 (5160.45), 5101.31 278
(5164.756), 5101.50 (5161.05), 5101.501 (5161.06), 279
5101.502 (5161.02), 5101.51 (5161.10), 5101.511 280
(5161.11), 5101.5110 (5161.35), 5101.512 281
(5161.12), 5101.513 (5161.30), 5101.516 (5161.22), 282
5101.517 (5161.24), 5101.519 (5161.27), 5101.52 283
(5161.15), 5101.521 (5161.16), 5101.522 (5161.17), 284
5101.524 (5161.20), 5101.527 (5161.25), 5101.571 285
(5160.35), 5101.572 (5160.39), 5101.573 (5160.40), 286
5101.574 (5160.41), 5101.575 (5160.42), 5101.58 287
(5160.37), 5101.59 (5160.38), 5101.591 (5160.43), 288
5111.01 (5162.03), 5111.011 (5163.02), 5111.013 289
(5163.40), 5111.016 (5164.26), 5111.018 (5164.07), 290
5111.0112 (5162.20), 5111.0114 (5164.754), 291
5111.0116 (5163.30), 5111.0117 (5163.31), 292
5111.0118 (5163.32), 5111.0119 (5163.45), 5111.02 293
(5164.02), 5111.021 (5164.70), 5111.022 (5164.56), 294
5111.023 (5164.15), 5111.024 (5164.08), 5111.025 295
(5164.76), 5111.027 (5164.20), 5111.028 (5164.32), 296
5111.029 (5164.06), 5111.0210 (5164.92), 5111.0211 297
(5165.48), 5111.0212 (5164.80), 5111.0213 298
(5164.77), 5111.0214 (5164.82), 5111.0215 299
(5164.93), 5111.03 (5164.35), 5111.031 (5164.37), 300
5111.032 (5164.34), 5111.033 (5164.342), 5111.034 301
(5164.341), 5111.035 (5164.36), 5111.04 (5164.05), 302
5111.042 (5164.25), 5111.05 (5164.45), 5111.051 303
(5164.48), 5111.052 (5164.46), 5111.053 304
(5164.301), 5111.054 (5164.47), 5111.06 (5164.38), 305
5111.061 (5164.57), 5111.062 (5164.39), 5111.063 306
(5164.31), 5111.07 (5164.752), 5111.071 307
(5164.753), 5111.08 (5164.759), 5111.081 308
(5164.755), 5111.082 (5164.751), 5111.083 309
(5164.757), 5111.084 (5164.7510), 5111.085 310
(5164.758), 5111.086 (5164.75), 5111.09 (5162.13), 311
5111.091 (5162.131), 5111.092 (5162.132), 5111.10 312
(5162.10), 5111.101 (5162.15), 5111.102 (5162.04), 313
5111.11 (5162.21), 5111.111 (5162.211), 5111.112 314
(5162.212), 5111.113 (5162.22), 5111.114 315
(5163.33), 5111.12 (5162.23), 5111.121 (5162.24), 316
5111.13 (5164.85), 5111.14 (5164.88), 5111.141 317
(5164.89), 5111.15 (5163.20), 5111.151 (5163.21), 318
5111.16 (5167.03), 5111.161 (5167.031), 5111.162 319
(5167.20), 5111.163 (5167.201), 5111.17 (5167.10), 320
5111.1710 (5167.14), 5111.171 (5167.31), 5111.1711 321
(5167.30), 5111.172 (5167.12), 5111.173 (5167.40), 322
5111.174 (5167.41), 5111.175 (5167.26), 5111.177 323
(5167.11), 5111.178 (5167.25), 5111.179 (5167.13), 324
5111.18 (5164.86), 5111.181 (5163.22), 5111.19 325
(5164.74), 5111.191 (5164.741), 5111.20 (5165.01), 326
5111.201 (5165.011), 5111.202 (5165.03), 5111.203 327
(5165.031), 5111.204 (5165.04), 5111.21 (5165.06), 328
5111.212 (5165.35), 5111.22 (5165.07), 5111.221 329
(5165.37), 5111.222 (5165.15), 5111.223 330
(5165.071), 5111.224 (5124.15), 5111.225 331
(5165.155), 5111.226 (5124.02), 5111.23 (5124.19), 332
5111.231 (5165.19), 5111.232 (5165.192), 5111.233 333
(5124.194), 5111.235 (5124.23), 5111.24 (5165.16), 334
5111.241 (5124.21), 5111.242 (5165.21), 5111.244 335
(5165.25), 5111.245 (5165.26), 5111.246 (5165.23), 336
5111.25 (5165.17), 5111.251 (5124.17), 5111.254 337
(5165.151), 5111.255 (5124.151), 5111.257 338
(5165.28), 5111.258 (5165.153), 5111.259 339
(5165.156), 5111.26 (5165.10), 5111.261 340
(5165.107), 5111.262 (5165.47), 5111.263 341
(5124.29), 5111.264 (5165.30), 5111.265 (5165.29), 342
5111.266 (5165.101), 5111.27 (5165.108), 5111.271 343
(5165.1010), 5111.28 (5165.40), 5111.29 (5165.38), 344
5111.291 (5124.155), 5111.30 (5165.073), 5111.31 345
(5165.08), 5111.32 (5165.081), 5111.33 (5124.34), 346
5111.331 (5165.34), 5111.35 (5165.60), 5111.36 347
(5165.61), 5111.37 (5165.62), 5111.38 (5165.63), 348
5111.39 (5165.64), 5111.40 (5165.65), 5111.41 349
(5165.66), 5111.411 (5165.67), 5111.42 (5165.68), 350
5111.43 (5165.69), 5111.44 (5165.70), 5111.45 351
(5165.71), 5111.46 (5165.72), 5111.47 (5165.73), 352
5111.48 (5165.74), 5111.49 (5165.75), 5111.50 353
(5165.76), 5111.51 (5165.77), 5111.511 (5165.78), 354
5111.52 (5165.79), 5111.53 (5165.80), 5111.54 355
(5165.81), 5111.55 (5165.82), 5111.56 (5165.83), 356
5111.57 (5165.84), 5111.58 (5165.85), 5111.59 357
(5165.86), 5111.60 (5165.87), 5111.61 (5165.88), 358
5111.62 (5162.66), 5111.63 (5165.89), 5111.66 359
(5165.50), 5111.661 (5165.501), 5111.67 (5165.51), 360
5111.671 (5165.511), 5111.672 (5165.512), 5111.673 361
(5165.513), 5111.674 (5165.514), 5111.675 362
(5165.515), 5111.676 (5165.516), 5111.677 363
(5165.517), 5111.68 (5165.52), 5111.681 364
(5165.521), 5111.682 (5165.522), 5111.683 365
(5165.523), 5111.684 (5165.524), 5111.685 366
(5165.525), 5111.686 (5165.526), 5111.687 367
(5165.527), 5111.688 (5165.528), 5111.689 368
(5165.53), 5111.71 (5162.36), 5111.711 (5162.361), 369
5111.712 (5162.362), 5111.713 (5162.363), 5111.714 370
(5162.64), 5111.715 (5162.364), 5111.84 (5166.03), 371
5111.85 (5166.02), 5111.851 (5166.04), 5111.852 372
(5166.05), 5111.853 (5166.06), 5111.854 (5166.07), 373
5111.855 (5166.08), 5111.856 (5166.10), 5111.86 374
(5166.11), 5111.861 (5166.12), 5111.862 375
(5166.121), 5111.863 (5166.13), 5111.864 376
(5166.14), 5111.865 (5166.141), 5111.87 (5166.20), 377
5111.871 (5166.21), 5111.872 (5166.22), 5111.873 378
(5166.23), 5111.874 (5124.60), 5111.875 (5124.61), 379
5111.876 (5124.62), 5111.877 (5124.63), 5111.878 380
(5124.64), 5111.879 (5124.65), 5111.88 (5166.30), 381
5111.881 (5166.301), 5111.882 (5166.302), 5111.883 382
(5166.303), 5111.884 (5166.304), 5111.885 383
(5166.305), 5111.886 (5166.306), 5111.887 384
(5166.307), 5111.888 (5166.308), 5111.889 385
(5166.309), 5111.8810 (5166.3010), 5111.89 386
(173.54), 5111.891 (173.541), 5111.892 (173.544), 387
5111.893 (173.547), 5111.894 (173.542), 5111.90 388
(5162.32), 5111.91 (5162.35), 5111.911 (5162.37), 389
5111.912 (5162.371), 5111.914 (5164.58), 5111.915 390
(5162.11), 5111.92 (5162.40), 5111.93 (5162.41), 391
5111.94 (5162.54), 5111.941 (5162.52), 5111.943 392
(5162.50), 5111.944 (5162.58), 5111.945 (5162.56), 393
5111.96 (5164.90), 5111.97 (5166.35), 5111.98 394
(5162.031), 5111.981 (5164.91), 5111.982 395
(5167.21), 5111.99 (5165.99), 5112.01 (5168.01), 396
5112.03 (5168.02), 5112.04 (5168.05), 5112.05 397
(5168.03), 5112.06 (5168.06), 5112.07 (5168.07), 398
5112.08 (5168.09), 5112.09 (5168.08), 5112.10 399
(5168.04), 5112.11 (5168.10), 5112.17 (5168.14), 400
5112.18 (5168.11), 5112.19 (5168.12), 5112.21 401
(5168.13), 5112.30 (5168.60), 5112.31 (5168.61), 402
5112.32 (5168.62), 5112.33 (5168.63), 5112.331 403
(5168.64), 5112.34 (5168.65), 5112.341 (5168.66), 404
5112.35 (5168.67), 5112.37 (5168.68), 5112.371 405
(5168.69), 5112.38 (5168.70), 5112.39 (5168.71), 406
5112.40 (5168.20), 5112.41 (5168.21), 5112.42 407
(5168.22), 5112.43 (5168.23), 5112.44 (5168.24), 408
5112.45 (5168.25), 5112.46 (5168.26), 5112.47 409
(5168.27), 5112.48 (5168.28), 5112.99 (5168.99), 410
5112.991 (5168.991), 5119.01 (5119.10), 5119.012 411
(5119.141), 5119.02 (5119.14), 5119.06 (5119.21), 412
5119.061 (5119.40), 5119.07 (5119.11), 5119.071 413
(5119.18), 5119.072 (5119.181), 5119.08 414
(5119.182), 5119.10 (5119.184), 5119.101 415
(5191.185), 5119.11 (5119.186), 5119.12 416
(5119.187), 5119.14 (5119.08), 5119.16 (5119.44), 417
5119.161 (5119.45), 5119.17 (5119.51), 5119.18 418
(5119.46), 5119.20 (5119.33), 5119.201 (5119.331), 419
5119.202 (5119.332), 5119.21 (5119.333), 5119.22 420
(5119.34), 5119.221 (5119.342), 5119.23 (5119.31), 421
5119.24 (5119.15), 5119.27 (5119.05), 5119.30 422
(5119.09), 5119.33 (5119.54), 5119.34 (5119.50), 423
5119.35 (5119.56), 5119.351 (5119.55), 5119.36 424
(5119.52), 5119.42 (5119.07), 5119.43 (5119.06), 425
5119.44 (5119.051), 5119.46 (5119.60), 5119.50 426
(5119.70), 5119.51 (5119.71), 5119.52 (5119.72), 427
5119.53 (5119.73), 5119.57 (5119.29), 5119.60 428
(5119.32), 5119.61 (5119.22), 5119.611 (5119.36), 429
5119.612 (5119.37), 5119.613 (5119.361), 5119.62 430
(5119.23), 5119.621 (5119.24), 5119.622 (5119.25), 431
5119.63 (5119.42), 5119.631 (5119.421), 5119.69 432
(5119.41), and 5119.691 (5119.411); to enact new 433
sections 3313.481, 3317.014, 3317.02, 3317.022, 434
3317.0217, 3317.051, 3317.16, 3327.02, 3345.81, 435
and 3737.883, and sections 1.611, 101.392, 436
121.483, 122.681, 123.19, 125.27, 149.60, 149.63, 437
151.50, 173.51, 173.522, 173.523, 173.543, 438
173.545, 173.546, 173.56, 173.60, 191.061, 340.08, 439
353.01 to 353.16, 511.261, 517.271, 721.29, 440
903.30, 991.041, 1545.23, 2329.192, 3301.80, 441
3302.26, 3310.032, 3310.035, 3313.5311, 3313.5312, 442
3313.848, 3314.042, 3314.082, 3314.086, 3314.092, 443
3314.29, 3317.016, 3317.017, 3317.0213, 3317.0214, 444
3317.161, 3317.40, 3319.031, 3326.112, 3327.07, 445
3328.27, 3333.049, 3333.124, 3333.342, 3333.613, 446
3345.48, 3350.15, 3365.022, 3701.033, 3701.5010, 447
3701.541, 3701.94, 3701.941, 3701.942, 3701.943, 448
3701.944, 3701.95, 3702.302, 3702.303, 3702.304, 449
3702.305, 3702.306, 3702.307, 3714.074, 3721.072, 450
3735.661, 3772.092, 3772.36, 4143.01, 4143.02, 451
4143.03, 4143.04, 4143.05, 4143.06, 4143.07, 452
4143.08, 4143.09, 4143.99, 4503.524, 4503.732, 453
4507.021, 4729.542, 4751.042, 4751.14, 5101.101, 454
5101.804, 5119.28, 5119.341, 5123.023, 5124.01, 455
5124.03, 5124.05, 5124.06, 5124.07, 5124.071, 456
5124.072, 5124.08, 5124.081, 5124.10, 5124.101, 457
5124.102, 5124.103, 5124.104, 5124.105, 5124.106, 458
5124.107, 5124.108, 5124.109, 5124.152, 5124.153, 459
5124.154, 5124.191, 5124.192, 5124.193, 5124.25, 460
5124.28, 5124.30, 5124.31, 5124.32, 5124.33, 461
5124.35, 5124.37, 5124.38, 5124.40, 5124.41, 462
5124.42, 5124.43, 5124.44, 5124.45, 5124.46, 463
5124.50, 5124.51, 5124.511, 5124.512, 5124.513, 464
5124.514, 5124.515, 5124.516, 5124.517, 5124.52, 465
5124.521, 5124.522, 5124.523, 5124.524, 5124.525, 466
5124.526, 5124.527, 5124.528, 5124.53, 5124.99, 467
5126.131, 5160.01, 5160.011, 5160.02, 5160.021, 468
5160.03, 5160.04, 5160.05, 5160.051, 5160.052, 469
5160.06, 5160.10, 5160.11, 5160.12, 5160.13, 470
5160.16, 5160.20, 5160.21, 5160.22, 5160.23, 471
5160.30, 5160.31, 5160.36, 5160.371, 5160.46, 472
5160.47, 5160.48, 5160.481, 5160.50, 5160.52, 473
5160.99, 5161.01, 5162.01, 5162.02, 5162.021, 474
5162.022, 5162.05, 5162.06, 5162.07, 5162.12, 475
5162.31, 5162.60, 5162.62, 5163.01, 5163.03, 476
5163.04, 5163.05, 5163.06, 5163.061, 5163.07, 477
5163.08, 5164.01, 5164.03, 5164.30, 5164.33, 478
5164.55, 5164.59, 5164.60, 5164.61, 5164.71, 479
5164.72, 5164.73, 5164.83, 5165.02, 5165.072, 480
5165.082, 5165.102, 5165.103, 5165.104, 5165.105, 481
5165.106, 5165.109, 5165.152, 5165.154, 5165.191, 482
5165.193, 5165.32, 5165.33, 5165.41, 5165.42, 483
5165.43, 5165.44, 5165.45, 5165.46, 5165.49, 484
5165.771, 5166.01, 5166.16, 5167.01, 5167.02, 485
5167.032, 5167.121, 5168.41, 5703.75, 5703.76, 486
5703.90, 5705.55, 5735.013, 5739.081, 5741.032, 487
5910.08, and 5919.342; and to repeal sections 488
122.076, 122.15, 122.151, 122.152, 122.153, 489
122.154, 122.29, 122.97, 123.23, 125.837, 125.838, 490
166.22, 166.28, 173.425, 173.433, 183.28, 184.04, 491
340.022, 340.033, 340.06, 340.14, 1513.371, 492
1531.34, 1547.721, 1547.722, 1547.723, 1547.724, 493
1547.725, 1547.726, 3302.043, 3313.481, 3313.482, 494
3313.4811, 3314.088, 3314.13, 3317.012, 3317.014, 495
3317.018, 3317.02, 3317.022, 3317.029, 3317.0217, 496
3317.051, 3317.052, 3317.053, 3317.11, 3317.13, 497
3317.16, 3317.62, 3317.63, 3317.64, 3318.023, 498
3323.16, 3326.39, 3327.02, 3345.81, 3353.09, 499
3353.15, 3353.20, 3383.02, 3383.03, 3383.04, 500
3383.05, 3383.06, 3383.08, 3383.09, 3701.072, 501
3701.263, 3701.343, 3701.90, 3701.901, 3701.902, 502
3701.903, 3701.904, 3701.905, 3701.906, 3701.907, 503
3721.026, 3793.02, 3793.03, 3793.04, 3793.041, 504
3793.05, 3793.06, 3793.061, 3793.08, 3793.09, 505
3793.19, 3793.20, 3793.21, 3793.99, 5101.503, 506
5101.514, 5101.515, 5101.518, 5101.523, 5101.525, 507
5101.526, 5101.528, 5101.529, 5111.012, 5111.014, 508
5111.015, 5111.0110, 5111.0111, 5111.0113, 509
5111.0115, 5111.0120, 5111.0121, 5111.0122, 510
5111.0123, 5111.0124, 5111.0125, 5111.176, 511
5111.211, 5111.236, 5111.65, 5111.70, 5111.701, 512
5111.702, 5111.703, 5111.704, 5111.705, 5111.706, 513
5111.707, 5111.708, 5111.709, 5111.7011, 5111.83, 514
5111.8710, 5111.8811, 5111.913, 5111.942, 515
5111.946, 5119.011, 5119.013, 5119.03, 5119.05, 516
5119.47, 5119.623, 5119.64, 5119.65, 5119.66, 517
5119.67, 5119.68, 5707.05, 5727.41, 5733.35, 518
5747.211, 5747.33, 6101.451, and 6111.029 of the 519
Revised Code; to amend Section 205.10 of Am. Sub. 520
H.B. 51 of the 130th General Assembly; to amend 521
Sections 201.80, 205.83, and 509.40 of Sub. H.B. 522
482 of the 129th General Assembly; to amend 523
Sections 301.11, 301.12, and 301.13 of Am. Sub. 524
H.B. 487 of the 129th General Assembly; to amend 525
Section 205.80 of Sub. H.B. 482 of the 129th 526
General Assembly, as subsequently amended; to 527
amend Section 4 of Sub. S.B. 171 of the 129th 528
General Assembly, as subsequently amended; to 529
amend Section 105.05 of Am. Sub. H.B. 2 of the 530
128th General Assembly; to repeal Section 531
267.60.31 of Am. Sub. H.B. 153 of the 129th 532
General Assembly; to repeal Section 125.10 of Am. 533
Sub. H.B. 1 of the 128th General Assembly as 534
subsequently amended; to repeal Section 153 of Am. 535
Sub. H.B. 117 of the 121st General Assembly as 536
subsequently amended; to amend Sections 203.90.10 537
and 203.90.20 of Sub. S.B. 312 of the 129th 538
General Assembly; to amend the versions of 539
sections 109.57, 2151.011, 2923.126, 5104.012, 540
5104.013, 5104.03, 5104.08, and 5104.32 of the 541
Revised Code that are scheduled to take effect 542
January 1, 2014, to continue the provisions of 543
this act on and after that effective date; to 544
amend the versions of sections 4501.01 and 4507.06 545
of the Revised Code that are scheduled to take 546
effect January 1, 2017, to continue the provisions 547
of this act on and after that effective date; to 548
amend section 3313.88 of the Revised Code as it 549
results from Section 101.01 of this act for the 550
purpose of adopting new section number 3313.482 on 551
July 1, 2014; to make operating appropriations for 552
the biennium beginning July 1, 2013, and ending 553
June 30, 2015; to provide authorization and 554
conditions for the operation of state programs; to 555
repeal sections 5168.20, 5168.21, 5168.22, 556
5168.23, 5168.24, 5168.25, 5168.26, 5168.27, and 557
5168.28 of the Revised Code on October 1, 2015, to 558
terminate the operation of those sections on that 559
date; and to repeal sections 5168.01, 5168.02, 560
5168.03, 5168.04, 5168.05, 5168.06, 5168.07, 561
5168.08, 5168.09, 5168.10, 5168.11, 5168.12, 562
5168.13, 5168.99, and 5168.991 of the Revised Code 563
on October 16, 2015, to terminate the operation of 564
those sections on that date.565


BE IT ENACTED BY THE GENERAL ASSEMBLY OF THE STATE OF OHIO:

       Section 101.01. That sections 9.03, 9.15, 9.231, 9.239, 9.24, 566
9.833, 9.90, 9.901, 101.39, 101.391, 103.144, 105.41, 107.033, 567
107.12, 109.06, 109.36, 109.57, 109.572, 109.71, 109.746, 109.77, 568
109.85, 109.86, 109.90, 111.02, 111.15, 111.28, 113.02, 113.061, 569
117.03, 117.10, 117.20, 119.01, 120.06, 121.02, 121.03, 121.11, 570
121.22, 121.35, 121.37, 121.372, 122.075, 122.083, 122.17, 122.28, 571
122.30, 122.31, 122.32, 122.33, 122.34, 122.35, 122.36, 122.657, 572
122.658, 122.66, 122.67, 122.68, 122.69, 122.70, 122.701, 122.76, 573
122.861, 123.01, 123.10, 123.11, 123.201, 123.21, 123.27, 124.11, 574
124.14, 124.18, 124.30, 124.341, 124.381, 124.57, 125.05, 125.21, 575
125.212, 125.28, 125.602, 125.603, 125.832, 125.836, 126.07, 576
126.14, 126.32, 126.35, 126.45, 126.46, 126.47, 126.48, 127.14, 577
127.16, 133.01, 133.06, 135.80, 140.01, 140.03, 140.05, 145.01, 578
145.012, 145.22, 149.01, 149.311, 149.43, 151.11, 152.09, 153.692, 579
154.01, 154.17, 154.20, 154.22, 154.23, 154.25, 156.02, 156.03, 580
156.04, 156.05, 164.27, 166.02, 166.03, 166.04, 166.08, 166.25, 581
169.02, 173.03, 173.14, 173.17, 173.19, 173.20, 173.21, 173.23, 582
173.25, 173.26, 173.27, 173.28, 173.39, 173.391, 173.392, 173.394, 583
173.40, 173.401, 173.402, 173.403, 173.404, 173.42, 173.43, 584
173.431, 173.432, 173.434, 173.45, 173.47, 173.48, 173.50, 585
173.501, 173.99, 189.04, 189.06, 191.01, 191.02, 191.04, 191.06, 586
301.28, 305.23, 307.07, 307.673, 307.674, 307.86, 309.09, 317.08, 587
317.32, 317.321, 317.36, 321.35, 321.44, 329.04, 329.051, 329.06, 588
329.14, 339.02, 339.05, 339.06, 339.07, 340.01, 340.011, 340.02, 589
340.021, 340.03, 340.031, 340.032, 340.04, 340.05, 340.07, 340.09, 590
340.091, 340.10, 340.11, 340.12, 340.13, 340.15, 340.16, 341.192, 591
351.021, 715.691, 721.01, 721.03, 731.091, 737.41, 742.14, 755.06, 592
901.21, 901.22, 901.23, 903.11, 903.99, 905.06, 909.15, 924.06, 593
927.54, 955.201, 956.07, 956.18, 991.03, 991.04, 991.06, 1332.26, 594
1337.11, 1347.08, 1501.011, 1501.45, 1509.01, 1509.02, 1509.062, 595
1509.10, 1509.11, 1509.50, 1509.73, 1511.02, 1511.022, 1519.05, 596
1531.06, 1531.17, 1545.071, 1547.99, 1548.02, 1551.33, 1551.35, 597
1555.15, 1711.07, 1724.03, 1739.061, 1751.01, 1751.11, 1751.12, 598
1751.14, 1751.271, 1751.31, 1751.60, 1923.14, 2101.24, 2108.05, 599
2113.041, 2113.06, 2117.061, 2117.25, 2133.01, 2133.25, 2151.011, 600
2151.3514, 2151.362, 2151.86, 2152.54, 2152.59, 2301.02, 2301.03, 601
2303.201, 2305.234, 2307.65, 2317.02, 2317.422, 2505.02, 2743.02, 602
2744.05, 2901.13, 2901.30, 2903.13, 2903.33, 2907.22, 2913.40, 603
2913.401, 2919.271, 2921.01, 2921.13, 2921.22, 2921.36, 2921.38, 604
2923.125, 2923.126, 2925.03, 2929.13, 2929.15, 2930.01, 2935.03, 605
2935.33, 2945.37, 2945.371, 2945.38, 2945.39, 2945.40, 2945.401, 606
2951.041, 2967.22, 2981.01, 2981.12, 2981.13, 3101.051, 3107.083, 607
3109.15, 3111.04, 3111.72, 3119.29, 3119.54, 3121.441, 3121.89, 608
3121.891, 3121.892, 3121.893, 3121.898, 3123.958, 3125.18, 609
3125.36, 3301.07, 3301.0714, 3301.0715, 3301.0723, 3301.15, 610
3302.01, 3302.03, 3302.22, 3304.231, 3305.03, 3307.51, 3309.21, 611
3310.01, 3310.02, 3310.03, 3310.05, 3310.06, 3310.08, 3310.56, 612
3311.0510, 3311.22, 3311.231, 3311.38, 3311.78, 3312.08, 3313.372, 613
3313.376, 3313.42, 3313.48, 3313.483, 3313.484, 3313.488, 614
3313.4810, 3313.533, 3313.539, 3313.603, 3313.6013, 3313.62, 615
3313.64, 3313.646, 3313.65, 3313.714, 3313.715, 3313.83, 3313.841, 616
3313.843, 3313.845, 3313.847, 3313.88, 3313.978, 3313.98, 617
3313.981, 3314.015, 3314.017, 3314.029, 3314.03, 3314.05, 3314.06, 618
3314.072, 3314.074, 3314.08, 3314.083, 3314.084, 3314.087, 619
3314.09, 3314.091, 3314.11, 3314.26, 3315.40, 3315.42, 3316.041, 620
3316.06, 3317.01, 3317.013, 3317.021, 3317.023, 3317.0212, 621
3317.03, 3317.032, 3317.05, 3317.06, 3317.08, 3317.10, 3317.12, 622
3317.14, 3317.141, 3317.18, 3317.19, 3317.20, 3317.50, 3317.51, 623
3318.011, 3318.031, 3318.08, 3318.31, 3318.36, 3318.363, 3319.07, 624
3319.073, 3319.17, 3319.22, 3319.235, 3319.57, 3321.01, 3321.05, 625
3323.021, 3323.03, 3323.04, 3323.07, 3323.08, 3323.09, 3323.091, 626
3323.13, 3323.14, 3323.141, 3323.142, 3326.11, 3326.20, 3326.31, 627
3326.32, 3326.33, 3326.34, 3326.38, 3326.45, 3327.01, 3333.041, 628
3333.31, 3333.82, 3335.35, 3335.36, 3335.37, 3335.38, 3345.05, 629
3345.12, 3353.01, 3353.02, 3353.03, 3353.04, 3353.06, 3353.07, 630
3365.01, 3365.02, 3365.07, 3365.12, 3383.01, 3383.07, 3501.01, 631
3599.45, 3701.023, 3701.024, 3701.027, 3701.13, 3701.132, 632
3701.243, 3701.261, 3701.262, 3701.264, 3701.342, 3701.344, 633
3701.507, 3701.74, 3701.741, 3701.742, 3701.78, 3701.83, 3701.881, 634
3701.921, 3701.922, 3701.99, 3702.30, 3702.51, 3702.521, 3702.55, 635
3702.62, 3702.74, 3702.91, 3704.144, 3706.01, 3707.511, 3709.01, 636
3709.051, 3709.10, 3712.051, 3712.07, 3712.09, 3713.06, 3714.07, 637
3717.08, 3718.06, 3719.61, 3721.01, 3721.011, 3721.02, 3721.022, 638
3721.024, 3721.027, 3721.042, 3721.071, 3721.08, 3721.10, 3721.12, 639
3721.121, 3721.13, 3721.14, 3721.15, 3721.16, 3721.17, 3721.19, 640
3721.50, 3721.51, 3721.511, 3721.512, 3721.513, 3721.52, 3721.53, 641
3721.531, 3721.532, 3721.533, 3721.54, 3721.541, 3721.55, 3721.56, 642
3721.57, 3721.58, 3727.01, 3734.28, 3734.57, 3734.901, 3734.907, 643
3735.58, 3737.02, 3737.83, 3737.841, 3737.88, 3742.30, 3742.31, 644
3742.32, 3742.51, 3745.11, 3745.113, 3769.08, 3769.088, 3770.02, 645
3770.03, 3770.06, 3772.03, 3772.062, 3772.091, 3781.112, 3793.01, 646
3793.031, 3793.032, 3793.051, 3793.10, 3793.11, 3793.12, 3793.13, 647
3793.14, 3793.15, 3793.16, 3793.18, 3793.22, 3793.31, 3793.32, 648
3793.33, 3793.34, 3793.35, 3793.36, 3793.37, 3793.38, 3793.39, 649
3798.01, 3901.3814, 3903.14, 3905.40, 3905.483, 3905.862, 3916.06, 650
3923.24, 3923.241, 3923.281, 3923.443, 3923.49, 3923.50, 3923.601, 651
3923.83, 3924.41, 3924.42, 3963.01, 3963.04, 4104.33, 4112.02, 652
4112.12, 4112.31, 4115.034, 4115.32, 4117.06, 4117.14, 4117.15, 653
4121.50, 4123.32, 4131.03, 4141.162, 4301.10, 4301.30, 4301.43, 654
4305.131, 4501.01, 4501.21, 4503.62, 4505.02, 4505.09, 4505.101, 655
4506.07, 4507.03, 4507.06, 4507.51, 4510.038, 4510.45, 4511.19, 656
4511.191, 4511.69, 4513.60, 4513.61, 4513.62, 4701.03, 4707.02, 657
4707.073, 4707.10, 4709.11, 4715.36, 4715.372, 4717.03, 4717.06, 658
4717.07, 4717.10, 4717.14, 4717.15, 4719.01, 4723.18, 4723.35, 659
4723.481, 4725.03, 4725.16, 4729.51, 4729.54, 4729.69, 4729.80, 660
4729.81, 4729.99, 4730.411, 4731.151, 4731.23, 4731.65, 4731.71, 661
4734.41, 4745.01, 4751.01, 4751.02, 4751.03, 4751.04, 4751.041, 662
4751.05, 4751.06, 4751.07, 4751.08, 4751.10, 4751.11, 4751.12, 663
4751.13, 4753.071, 4755.481, 4758.10, 4758.11, 4761.01, 4906.20, 664
5101.01, 5101.11, 5101.141, 5101.16, 5101.162, 5101.18, 5101.181, 665
5101.183, 5101.184, 5101.26, 5101.271, 5101.272, 5101.273, 666
5101.30, 5101.31, 5101.34, 5101.35, 5101.36, 5101.46, 5101.461, 667
5101.47, 5101.49, 5101.50, 5101.501, 5101.502, 5101.51, 5101.511, 668
5101.512, 5101.513, 5101.516, 5101.517, 5101.519, 5101.5110, 669
5101.52, 5101.521, 5101.522, 5101.524, 5101.527, 5101.571, 670
5101.572, 5101.573, 5101.574, 5101.575, 5101.58, 5101.59, 671
5101.591, 5101.60, 5101.61, 5101.80, 5101.801, 5101.803, 5103.02, 672
5103.0323, 5103.13, 5103.42, 5104.012, 5104.013, 5104.02, 673
5104.021, 5104.03, 5104.08, 5104.11, 5104.12, 5104.32, 5107.10, 674
5107.14, 5107.16, 5107.20, 5107.24, 5107.26, 5107.42, 5107.64, 675
5111.01, 5111.011, 5111.013, 5111.016, 5111.018, 5111.0112, 676
5111.0114, 5111.0116, 5111.0117, 5111.0118, 5111.0119, 5111.02, 677
5111.021, 5111.022, 5111.023, 5111.024, 5111.025, 5111.027, 678
5111.028, 5111.029, 5111.0210, 5111.0211, 5111.0212, 5111.0213, 679
5111.0214, 5111.0215, 5111.03, 5111.031, 5111.032, 5111.033, 680
5111.034, 5111.035, 5111.04, 5111.042, 5111.05, 5111.051, 681
5111.052, 5111.053, 5111.054, 5111.06, 5111.061, 5111.062, 682
5111.063, 5111.07, 5111.071, 5111.08, 5111.081, 5111.082, 683
5111.083, 5111.084, 5111.085, 5111.086, 5111.09, 5111.091, 684
5111.092, 5111.10, 5111.101, 5111.102, 5111.11, 5111.111, 685
5111.112, 5111.113, 5111.114, 5111.12, 5111.121, 5111.13, 5111.14, 686
5111.141, 5111.15, 5111.151, 5111.16, 5111.161, 5111.162, 687
5111.163, 5111.17, 5111.171, 5111.172, 5111.173, 5111.174, 688
5111.175, 5111.177, 5111.178, 5111.179, 5111.1710, 5111.1711, 689
5111.18, 5111.181, 5111.19, 5111.191, 5111.20, 5111.201, 5111.202, 690
5111.203, 5111.204, 5111.21, 5111.212, 5111.22, 5111.221, 691
5111.222, 5111.223, 5111.224, 5111.225, 5111.226, 5111.23, 692
5111.231, 5111.232, 5111.233, 5111.235, 5111.24, 5111.241, 693
5111.242, 5111.244, 5111.245, 5111.246, 5111.25, 5111.251, 694
5111.254, 5111.255, 5111.257, 5111.258, 5111.259, 5111.26, 695
5111.261, 5111.262, 5111.263, 5111.264, 5111.265, 5111.266, 696
5111.27, 5111.271, 5111.28, 5111.29, 5111.291, 5111.30, 5111.31, 697
5111.32, 5111.33, 5111.331, 5111.35, 5111.36, 5111.37, 5111.38, 698
5111.39, 5111.41, 5111.411, 5111.42, 5111.43, 5111.44, 5111.45, 699
5111.46, 5111.47, 5111.48, 5111.49, 5111.50, 5111.51, 5111.511, 700
5111.52, 5111.53, 5111.54, 5111.55, 5111.56, 5111.57, 5111.58, 701
5111.59, 5111.60, 5111.61, 5111.62, 5111.63, 5111.66, 5111.661, 702
5111.67, 5111.671, 5111.672, 5111.673, 5111.674, 5111.675, 703
5111.676, 5111.677, 5111.68, 5111.681, 5111.682, 5111.683, 704
5111.684, 5111.685, 5111.686, 5111.687, 5111.688, 5111.689, 705
5111.71, 5111.711, 5111.712, 5111.713, 5111.714, 5111.715, 706
5111.84, 5111.85, 5111.851, 5111.852, 5111.853, 5111.854, 707
5111.855, 5111.856, 5111.86, 5111.861, 5111.862, 5111.863, 708
5111.864, 5111.865, 5111.87, 5111.871, 5111.872, 5111.873, 709
5111.874, 5111.875, 5111.876, 5111.877, 5111.878, 5111.879, 710
5111.88, 5111.881, 5111.882, 5111.885, 5111.886, 5111.887, 711
5111.888, 5111.889, 5111.8810, 5111.89, 5111.891, 5111.892, 712
5111.894, 5111.90, 5111.91, 5111.911, 5111.912, 5111.914, 713
5111.915, 5111.92, 5111.93, 5111.94, 5111.941, 5111.943, 5111.944, 714
5111.945, 5111.96, 5111.97, 5111.98, 5111.981, 5111.982, 5111.99, 715
5112.01, 5112.03, 5112.04, 5112.05, 5112.06, 5112.07, 5112.08, 716
5112.09, 5112.10, 5112.11, 5112.17, 5112.18, 5112.19, 5112.21, 717
5112.30, 5112.31, 5112.32, 5112.33, 5112.331, 5112.34, 5112.341, 718
5112.35, 5112.37, 5112.371, 5112.38, 5112.39, 5112.40, 5112.41, 719
5112.42, 5112.43, 5112.44, 5112.45, 5112.46, 5112.47, 5112.48, 720
5112.99, 5112.991, 5115.20, 5117.10, 5119.01, 5119.012, 5119.02, 721
5119.04, 5119.06, 5119.061, 5119.07, 5119.071, 5119.072, 5119.08, 722
5119.10, 5119.101, 5119.11, 5119.12, 5119.14, 5119.16, 5119.161, 723
5119.17, 5119.18, 5119.20, 5119.201, 5119.202, 5119.21, 5119.22, 724
5119.221, 5119.23, 5119.24, 5119.27, 5119.30, 5119.33, 5119.34, 725
5119.35, 5119.351, 5119.36, 5119.42, 5119.43, 5119.44, 5119.46, 726
5119.51, 5119.52, 5119.53, 5119.57, 5119.60, 5119.61, 5119.611, 727
5119.612, 5119.613, 5119.62, 5119.621, 5119.622, 5119.63, 728
5119.631, 5119.69, 5119.691, 5119.99, 5120.07, 5120.09, 5120.135, 729
5120.17, 5120.171, 5120.652, 5120.654, 5121.051, 5121.30, 5121.32, 730
5121.33, 5121.34, 5121.35, 5121.36, 5121.37, 5121.38, 5121.40, 731
5121.42, 5121.43, 5121.44, 5121.45, 5121.46, 5121.47, 5121.49, 732
5121.50, 5121.51, 5121.52, 5121.55, 5122.01, 5122.03, 5122.10, 733
5122.11, 5122.12, 5122.13, 5122.15, 5122.17, 5122.18, 5122.19, 734
5122.20, 5122.21, 5122.23, 5122.25, 5122.26, 5122.27, 5122.271, 735
5122.31, 5122.311, 5122.32, 5122.33, 5122.34, 5122.341, 5122.39, 736
5122.43, 5122.44, 5122.45, 5122.46, 5122.47, 5123.01, 5123.021, 737
5123.022, 5123.03, 5123.0412, 5123.0417, 5123.09, 5123.171, 738
5123.19, 5123.192, 5123.197, 5123.198, 5123.38, 5123.61, 5123.86, 739
5126.01, 5126.026, 5126.05, 5126.051, 5126.054, 5126.055, 5126.24, 740
5139.03, 5139.04, 5139.08, 5139.34, 5145.162, 5145.18, 5153.16, 741
5302.221, 5309.082, 5505.12, 5507.46, 5511.03, 5701.13, 5703.052, 742
5703.059, 5703.21, 5703.37, 5703.82, 5705.01, 5705.19, 5705.192, 743
5705.217, 5705.218, 5705.221, 5705.25, 5705.412, 5709.17, 744
5709.212, 5709.75, 5725.18, 5725.34, 5726.20, 5726.52, 5727.26, 745
5727.75, 5727.84, 5727.89, 5728.10, 5729.03, 5729.17, 5731.39, 746
5733.01, 5733.06, 5733.11, 5733.98, 5735.012, 5735.12, 5735.34, 747
5739.01, 5739.02, 5739.026, 5739.09, 5739.12, 5739.13, 5741.01, 748
5741.03, 5741.12, 5741.17, 5743.081, 5743.15, 5743.56, 5745.12, 749
5747.01, 5747.02, 5747.022, 5747.025, 5747.08, 5747.10, 5747.11, 750
5747.113, 5747.122, 5747.13, 5747.21, 5747.47, 5747.501, 5747.76, 751
5747.98, 5749.02, 5749.06, 5749.07, 5749.17, 5751.01, 5751.014, 752
5751.07, 5751.081, 5751.09, 5751.20, 5751.21, 5753.01, 5753.03, 753
5753.07, 5815.28, 5905.02, 5910.02, 5910.07, 5919.34, 5924.502, 754
5924.503, 5924.504, 5924.506, 6109.21, and 6111.037 be amended; 755
sections 173.394 (173.38), 173.40 (173.52), 173.401 (173.521), 756
173.402 (173.523), 173.403 (173.53), 173.404 (173.55), 3313.847 757
(3317.30), 3333.90 (3333.59), 3383.01 (123.28), 3383.07 (123.281), 758
3721.50 (5168.40), 3721.51 (5168.42), 3721.511 (5168.43), 3721.512 759
(5168.44), 3721.513 (5168.45), 3721.52 (5168.46), 3721.53 760
(5168.47), 3721.531 (5168.48), 3721.532 (5168.49), 3721.533 761
(5168.50), 3721.54 (5168.51), 3721.541 (5168.52), 3721.55 762
(5168.53), 3721.56 (5168.54), 3721.57 (5168.55), 3721.58 763
(5168.56), 3737.883 (3737.884), 3793.01 (5119.01), 3793.031 764
(5119.201), 3793.032 (5119.47), 3793.051 (5119.161), 3793.10 765
(5119.38), 3793.11 (5119.39), 3793.12 (5119.61), 3793.13 766
(5119.27), 3793.14 (5119.26), 3793.15 (5119.17), 3793.16 767
(5119.188), 3793.18 (5119.30), 3793.22 (5119.49), 3793.31 768
(5119.90), 3793.32 (5119.91), 3793.33 (5119.92), 3793.34 769
(5119.93), 3793.35 (5119.94), 3793.36 (5119.95), 3793.37 770
(5119.96), 3793.38 (5119.97), 3793.39 (5119.98), 5101.271 771
(5160.45), 5101.31 (5164.756), 5101.50 (5161.05), 5101.501 772
(5161.06), 5101.502 (5161.02), 5101.51 (5161.10), 5101.511 773
(5161.11), 5101.5110 (5161.35), 5101.512 (5161.12), 5101.513 774
(5161.30), 5101.516 (5161.22), 5101.517 (5161.24), 5101.519 775
(5161.27), 5101.52 (5161.15), 5101.521 (5161.16), 5101.522 776
(5161.17), 5101.524 (5161.20), 5101.527 (5161.25), 5101.571 777
(5160.35), 5101.572 (5160.39), 5101.573 (5160.40), 5101.574 778
(5160.41), 5101.575 (5160.42), 5101.58 (5160.37), 5101.59 779
(5160.38), 5101.591 (5160.43), 5111.01 (5162.03), 5111.011 780
(5163.02), 5111.013 (5163.40), 5111.016 (5164.26), 5111.018 781
(5164.07), 5111.0112 (5162.20), 5111.0114 (5164.754), 5111.0116 782
(5163.30), 5111.0117 (5163.31), 5111.0118 (5163.32), 5111.0119 783
(5163.45), 5111.02 (5164.02), 5111.021 (5164.70), 5111.022 784
(5164.56), 5111.023 (5164.15), 5111.024 (5164.08), 5111.025 785
(5164.76), 5111.027 (5164.20), 5111.028 (5164.32), 5111.029 786
(5164.06), 5111.0210 (5164.92), 5111.0211 (5165.48), 5111.0212 787
(5164.80), 5111.0213 (5164.77), 5111.0214 (5164.82), 5111.0215 788
(5164.93), 5111.03 (5164.35), 5111.031 (5164.37), 5111.032 789
(5164.34), 5111.033 (5164.342), 5111.034 (5164.341), 5111.035 790
(5164.36), 5111.04 (5164.05), 5111.042 (5164.25), 5111.05 791
(5164.45), 5111.051 (5164.48), 5111.052 (5164.46), 5111.053 792
(5164.301), 5111.054 (5164.47), 5111.06 (5164.38), 5111.061 793
(5164.57), 5111.062 (5164.39), 5111.063 (5164.31), 5111.07 794
(5164.752), 5111.071 (5164.753), 5111.08 (5164.759), 5111.081 795
(5164.755), 5111.082 (5164.751), 5111.083 (5164.757), 5111.084 796
(5164.7510), 5111.085 (5164.758), 5111.086 (5164.75), 5111.09 797
(5162.13), 5111.091 (5162.131), 5111.092 (5162.132), 5111.10 798
(5162.10), 5111.101 (5162.15), 5111.102 (5162.04), 5111.11 799
(5162.21), 5111.111 (5162.211), 5111.112 (5162.212), 5111.113 800
(5162.22), 5111.114 (5163.33), 5111.12 (5162.23), 5111.121 801
(5162.24), 5111.13 (5164.85), 5111.14 (5164.88), 5111.141 802
(5164.89), 5111.15 (5163.20), 5111.151 (5163.21), 5111.16 803
(5167.03), 5111.161 (5167.031), 5111.162 (5167.20), 5111.163 804
(5167.201), 5111.17 (5167.10), 5111.1710 (5167.14), 5111.171 805
(5167.31), 5111.1711 (5167.30), 5111.172 (5167.12), 5111.173 806
(5167.40), 5111.174 (5167.41), 5111.175 (5167.26), 5111.177 807
(5167.11), 5111.178 (5167.25), 5111.179 (5167.13), 5111.18 808
(5164.86), 5111.181 (5163.22), 5111.19 (5164.74), 5111.191 809
(5164.741), 5111.20 (5165.01), 5111.201 (5165.011), 5111.202 810
(5165.03), 5111.203 (5165.031), 5111.204 (5165.04), 5111.21 811
(5165.06), 5111.212 (5165.35), 5111.22 (5165.07), 5111.221 812
(5165.37), 5111.222 (5165.15), 5111.223 (5165.071), 5111.224 813
(5124.15), 5111.225 (5165.155), 5111.226 (5124.02), 5111.23 814
(5124.19), 5111.231 (5165.19), 5111.232 (5165.192), 5111.233 815
(5124.194), 5111.235 (5124.23), 5111.24 (5165.16), 5111.241 816
(5124.21), 5111.242 (5165.21), 5111.244 (5165.25), 5111.245 817
(5165.26), 5111.246 (5165.23), 5111.25 (5165.17), 5111.251 818
(5124.17), 5111.254 (5165.151), 5111.255 (5124.151), 5111.257 819
(5165.28), 5111.258 (5165.153), 5111.259 (5165.156), 5111.26 820
(5165.10), 5111.261 (5165.107), 5111.262 (5165.47), 5111.263 821
(5124.29), 5111.264 (5165.30), 5111.265 (5165.29), 5111.266 822
(5165.101), 5111.27 (5165.108), 5111.271 (5165.1010), 5111.28 823
(5165.40), 5111.29 (5165.38), 5111.291 (5124.155), 5111.30 824
(5165.073), 5111.31 (5165.08), 5111.32 (5165.081), 5111.33 825
(5124.34), 5111.331 (5165.34), 5111.35 (5165.60), 5111.36 826
(5165.61), 5111.37 (5165.62), 5111.38 (5165.63), 5111.39 827
(5165.64), 5111.40 (5165.65), 5111.41 (5165.66), 5111.411 828
(5165.67), 5111.42 (5165.68), 5111.43 (5165.69), 5111.44 829
(5165.70), 5111.45 (5165.71), 5111.46 (5165.72), 5111.47 830
(5165.73), 5111.48 (5165.74), 5111.49 (5165.75), 5111.50 831
(5165.76), 5111.51 (5165.77), 5111.511 (5165.78), 5111.52 832
(5165.79), 5111.53 (5165.80), 5111.54 (5165.81), 5111.55 833
(5165.82), 5111.56 (5165.83), 5111.57 (5165.84), 5111.58 834
(5165.85), 5111.59 (5165.86), 5111.60 (5165.87), 5111.61 835
(5165.88), 5111.62 (5162.66), 5111.63 (5165.89), 5111.66 836
(5165.50), 5111.661 (5165.501), 5111.67 (5165.51), 5111.671 837
(5165.511), 5111.672 (5165.512), 5111.673 (5165.513), 5111.674 838
(5165.514), 5111.675 (5165.515), 5111.676 (5165.516), 5111.677 839
(5165.517), 5111.68 (5165.52), 5111.681 (5165.521), 5111.682 840
(5165.522), 5111.683 (5165.523), 5111.684 (5165.524), 5111.685 841
(5165.525), 5111.686 (5165.526), 5111.687 (5165.527), 5111.688 842
(5165.528), 5111.689 (5165.53), 5111.71 (5162.36), 5111.711 843
(5162.361), 5111.712 (5162.362), 5111.713 (5162.363), 5111.714 844
(5162.64), 5111.715 (5162.364), 5111.84 (5166.03), 5111.85 845
(5166.02), 5111.851 (5166.04), 5111.852 (5166.05), 5111.853 846
(5166.06), 5111.854 (5166.07), 5111.855 (5166.08), 5111.856 847
(5166.10), 5111.86 (5166.11), 5111.861 (5166.12), 5111.862 848
(5166.121), 5111.863 (5166.13), 5111.864 (5166.14), 5111.865 849
(5166.141), 5111.87 (5166.20), 5111.871 (5166.21), 5111.872 850
(5166.22), 5111.873 (5166.23), 5111.874 (5124.60), 5111.875 851
(5124.61), 5111.876 (5124.62), 5111.877 (5124.63), 5111.878 852
(5124.64), 5111.879 (5124.65), 5111.88 (5166.30), 5111.881 853
(5166.301), 5111.882 (5166.302), 5111.883 (5166.303), 5111.884 854
(5166.304), 5111.885 (5166.305), 5111.886 (5166.306), 5111.887 855
(5166.307), 5111.888 (5166.308), 5111.889 (5166.309), 5111.8810 856
(5166.3010), 5111.89 (173.54), 5111.891 (173.541), 5111.892 857
(173.544), 5111.893 (173.547), 5111.894 (173.542), 5111.90 858
(5162.32), 5111.91 (5162.35), 5111.911 (5162.37), 5111.912 859
(5162.371), 5111.914 (5164.58), 5111.915 (5162.11), 5111.92 860
(5162.40), 5111.93 (5162.41), 5111.94 (5162.54), 5111.941 861
(5162.52), 5111.943 (5162.50), 5111.944 (5162.58), 5111.945 862
(5162.56), 5111.96 (5164.90), 5111.97 (5166.35), 5111.98 863
(5162.031), 5111.981 (5164.91), 5111.982 (5167.21), 5111.99 864
(5165.99), 5112.01 (5168.01), 5112.03 (5168.02), 5112.04 865
(5168.05), 5112.05 (5168.03), 5112.06 (5168.06), 5112.07 866
(5168.07), 5112.08 (5168.09), 5112.09 (5168.08), 5112.10 867
(5168.04), 5112.11 (5168.10), 5112.17 (5168.14), 5112.18 868
(5168.11), 5112.19 (5168.12), 5112.21 (5168.13), 5112.30 869
(5168.60), 5112.31 (5168.61), 5112.32 (5168.62), 5112.33 870
(5168.63), 5112.331 (5168.64), 5112.34 (5168.65), 5112.341 871
(5168.66), 5112.35 (5168.67), 5112.37 (5168.68), 5112.371 872
(5168.69), 5112.38 (5168.70), 5112.39 (5168.71), 5112.40 873
(5168.20), 5112.41 (5168.21), 5112.42 (5168.22), 5112.43 874
(5168.23), 5112.44 (5168.24), 5112.45 (5168.25), 5112.46 875
(5168.26), 5112.47 (5168.27), 5112.48 (5168.28), 5112.99 876
(5168.99), 5112.991 (5168.991), 5119.01 (5119.10), 5119.012 877
(5119.141), 5119.02 (5119.14), 5119.06 (5119.21), 5119.061 878
(5119.40), 5119.07 (5119.11), 5119.071 (5119.18), 5119.072 879
(5119.181), 5119.08 (5119.182), 5119.10 (5119.184), 5119.101 880
(5191.185), 5119.11 (5119.186), 5119.12 (5119.187), 5119.14 881
(5119.08), 5119.16 (5119.44), 5119.161 (5119.45), 5119.17 882
(5119.51), 5119.18 (5119.46), 5119.20 (5119.33), 5119.201 883
(5119.331), 5119.202 (5119.332), 5119.21 (5119.333), 5119.22 884
(5119.34), 5119.221 (5119.342), 5119.23 (5119.31), 5119.24 885
(5119.15), 5119.27 (5119.05), 5119.30 (5119.09), 5119.33 886
(5119.54), 5119.34 (5119.50), 5119.35 (5119.56), 5119.351 887
(5119.55), 5119.36 (5119.52), 5119.42 (5119.07), 5119.43 888
(5119.06), 5119.44 (5119.051), 5119.46 (5119.60), 5119.50 889
(5119.70), 5119.51 (5119.71), 5119.52 (5119.72), 5119.53 890
(5119.73), 5119.57 (5119.29), 5119.60 (5119.32), 5119.61 891
(5119.22), 5119.611 (5119.36), 5119.612 (5119.37), 5119.613 892
(5119.361), 5119.62 (5119.23), 5119.621 (5119.24), 5119.622 893
(5119.25), 5119.63 (5119.42), 5119.631 (5119.421), 5119.69 894
(5119.41), and 5119.691 (5119.411) be amended for the purpose of 895
adopting new section numbers as indicated in parentheses; new 896
sections 3313.481, 3317.014, 3317.02, 3317.022, 3317.0217, 897
3317.051, 3317.16, 3327.02, 3345.81, and 3737.883 and sections 898
1.611, 101.392, 121.483, 122.681, 123.19, 125.27, 149.60, 149.63, 899
151.50, 173.51, 173.522, 173.523, 173.543, 173.545, 173.546, 900
173.56, 173.60, 191.061, 340.08, 353.01, 353.02, 353.03, 353.04, 901
353.05, 353.06, 353.07, 353.08, 353.09, 353.10, 353.11, 353.12, 902
353.13, 353.14, 353.15, 353.16, 511.261, 517.271, 721.29, 903.30, 903
991.041, 1545.23, 2329.192, 3301.80, 3302.26, 3310.032, 3310.035, 904
3313.5311, 3313.5312, 3313.848, 3314.042, 3314.082, 3314.086, 905
3314.092, 3314.29, 3317.016, 3317.017, 3317.0213, 3317.0214, 906
3317.161, 3317.40, 3319.031, 3326.112, 3327.07, 3328.27, 3333.049, 907
3333.124, 3333.342, 3333.613, 3345.48, 3350.15, 3365.022, 908
3701.033, 3701.5010, 3701.541, 3701.94, 3701.941, 3701.942, 909
3701.943, 3701.944, 3701.95, 3702.302, 3702.303, 3702.304, 910
3702.305, 3702.306, 3702.307, 3714.074, 3721.072, 3735.661, 911
3772.092, 3772.36, 4143.01, 4143.02, 4143.03, 4143.04, 4143.05, 912
4143.06, 4143.07, 4143.08, 4143.09, 4143.99, 4503.524, 4503.732, 913
4507.021, 4729.542, 4751.042, 4751.14, 5101.101, 5101.804, 914
5119.28, 5119.341, 5123.023, 5124.01, 5124.03, 5124.05, 5124.06, 915
5124.07, 5124.071, 5124.072, 5124.08, 5124.081, 5124.10, 5124.101, 916
5124.102, 5124.103, 5124.104, 5124.105, 5124.106, 5124.107, 917
5124.108, 5124.109, 5124.152, 5124.153, 5124.154, 5124.191, 918
5124.192, 5124.193, 5124.25, 5124.28, 5124.30, 5124.31, 5124.32, 919
5124.33, 5124.35, 5124.37, 5124.38, 5124.40, 5124.41, 5124.42, 920
5124.43, 5124.44, 5124.45, 5124.46, 5124.50, 5124.51, 5124.511, 921
5124.512, 5124.513, 5124.514, 5124.515, 5124.516, 5124.517, 922
5124.52, 5124.521, 5124.522, 5124.523, 5124.524, 5124.525, 923
5124.526, 5124.527, 5124.528, 5124.53, 5124.99, 5126.131, 5160.01, 924
5160.011, 5160.02, 5160.021, 5160.03, 5160.04, 5160.05, 5160.051, 925
5160.052, 5160.06, 5160.10, 5160.11, 5160.12, 5160.13, 5160.16, 926
5160.20, 5160.21, 5160.22, 5160.23, 5160.30, 5160.31, 5160.36, 927
5160.371, 5160.46, 5160.47, 5160.48, 5160.481, 5160.50, 5160.52, 928
5160.99, 5161.01, 5162.01, 5162.02, 5162.021, 5162.022, 5162.05, 929
5162.06, 5162.07, 5162.12, 5162.31, 5162.60, 5162.62, 5163.01, 930
5163.03, 5163.04, 5163.05, 5163.06, 5163.061, 5163.07, 5163.08, 931
5164.01, 5164.03, 5164.30, 5164.33, 5164.55, 5164.59, 5164.60, 932
5164.61, 5164.71, 5164.72, 5164.73, 5164.83, 5165.02, 5165.072, 933
5165.082, 5165.102, 5165.103, 5165.104, 5165.105, 5165.106, 934
5165.109, 5165.152, 5165.154, 5165.191, 5165.193, 5165.32, 935
5165.33, 5165.41, 5165.42, 5165.43, 5165.44, 5165.45, 5165.46, 936
5165.49, 5165.771, 5166.01, 5166.16, 5167.01, 5167.02, 5167.032, 937
5167.121, 5168.41, 5703.75, 5703.76, 5703.90, 5705.55, 5735.013, 938
5739.081, 5741.032, 5910.08, and 5919.342 of the Revised Code be 939
enacted to read as follows:940

       Sec. 1.611. As used in the Revised Code, "OSU extension" 941
means the cooperative extension service that was established by 942
the "Smith-Lever Act," 38 Stat. 372 (1914), 7 U.S.C. 341 et seq., 943
and is administered in this state by the Ohio state university.944

       Sec. 9.03.  (A) As used in this section:945

       (1) "Political subdivision" means any body corporate and 946
politic, except a municipal corporation that has adopted a charter 947
under Section 7 of Article XVIII, Ohio Constitution, and except a 948
county that has adopted a charter under Sections 3 and 4 of 949
Article X, Ohio Constitution, to which both of the following 950
apply:951

       (a) It is responsible for governmental activities only in a 952
geographic area smaller than the state.953

       (b) It is subject to the sovereign immunity of the state.954

       (2) "Cigarettes" and "tobacco product" have the same meanings 955
as in section 5743.01 of the Revised Code.956

       (3) "Transaction" has the same meaning as in section 1315.51 957
of the Revised Code.958

       (4) "Campaign committee," "campaign fund," "candidate," 959
"legislative campaign fund," "political action committee," 960
"political committee," "political party," and "separate segregated 961
fund" have the same meanings as in section 3517.01 of the Revised 962
Code.963

       (B) Except as otherwise provided in division (C) of this 964
section, the governing body of a political subdivision may use 965
public funds to publish and distribute newsletters, or to use any 966
other means, to communicate information about the plans, policies, 967
and operations of the political subdivision to members of the 968
public within the political subdivision and to other persons who 969
may be affected by the political subdivision.970

       (C) Except as otherwise provided in division (A)(7) of 971
section 340.03 or division (A)(12) of section 340.033 of the 972
Revised Code, no governing body of a political subdivision shall 973
use public funds to do any of the following:974

       (1) Publish, distribute, or otherwise communicate information 975
that does any of the following:976

       (a) Contains defamatory, libelous, or obscene matter;977

       (b) Promotes alcoholic beverages, cigarettes or other tobacco 978
products, or any illegal product, service, or activity;979

       (c) Promotes illegal discrimination on the basis of race, 980
color, religion, national origin, handicap, age, or ancestry;981

       (d) Supports or opposes any labor organization or any action 982
by, on behalf of, or against any labor organization;983

       (e) Supports or opposes the nomination or election of a 984
candidate for public office, the investigation, prosecution, or 985
recall of a public official, or the passage of a levy or bond 986
issue.987

       (2) Compensate any employee of the political subdivision for 988
time spent on any activity to influence the outcome of an election 989
for any of the purposes described in division (C)(1)(e) of this 990
section. Division (C)(2) of this section does not prohibit the use 991
of public funds to compensate an employee of a political 992
subdivision for attending a public meeting to present information 993
about the political subdivision's finances, activities, and 994
governmental actions in a manner that is not designed to influence 995
the outcome of an election or the passage of a levy or bond issue, 996
even though the election, levy, or bond issue is discussed or 997
debated at the meeting.998

       (D) Except as otherwise provided in division (A)(7) of 999
section 340.03 or division (A)(12) of section 340.033 of the 1000
Revised Code or in division (E) of this section, no person shall 1001
knowingly conduct a direct or indirect transaction of public funds 1002
to the benefit of any of the following:1003

       (1) A campaign committee;1004

       (2) A political action committee;1005

       (3) A legislative campaign fund;1006

       (4) A political party;1007

       (5) A campaign fund;1008

       (6) A political committee;1009

       (7) A separate segregated fund;1010

       (8) A candidate.1011

        (E) Division (D) of this section does not prohibit the 1012
utilization of any person's own time to speak in support of or in 1013
opposition to any candidate, recall, referendum, levy, or bond 1014
issue unless prohibited by any other section of the Revised Code.1015

       (F) Nothing in this section prohibits or restricts any 1016
political subdivision from sponsoring, participating in, or doing 1017
any of the following:1018

       (1) Charitable or public service advertising that is not 1019
commercial in nature;1020

       (2) Advertising of exhibitions, performances, programs, 1021
products, or services that are provided by employees of a 1022
political subdivision or are provided at or through premises owned 1023
or operated by a political subdivision;1024

       (3) Licensing an interest in a name or mark that is owned or 1025
controlled by the political subdivision.1026

       (G) Whoever violates division (D) of this section shall be 1027
punished as provided in section 3599.40 of the Revised Code.1028

       Sec. 9.15.  When the body of a dead person is found in a 1029
township or municipal corporation, and such person was not an 1030
inmate of a correctional, benevolent, or charitable institution of 1031
this state, and the body is not claimed by any person for private 1032
interment or cremation at the person's own expense, or delivered 1033
for the purpose of medical or surgical study or dissection in 1034
accordance with section 1713.34 of the Revised Code, it shall be 1035
disposed of as follows:1036

       (A) If the person was a legal resident of the county, the 1037
proper officers of the township or municipal corporation in which 1038
the person's body was found shall cause it to be buried or 1039
cremated at the expense of the township or municipal corporation 1040
in which the person had a legal residence at the time of death.1041

       (B) If the person had a legal residence in any other county 1042
of the state at the time of death, the superintendent of the 1043
county home of the county in which such body was found shall cause 1044
it to be buried or cremated at the expense of the township or 1045
municipal corporation in which the person had a legal residence at 1046
the time of death.1047

       (C) If the person was an inmate of a correctional institution 1048
of the county or a patient or resident of a benevolent institution 1049
of the county, the person had no legal residence in the state, or 1050
the person's legal residence is unknown, the superintendent shall 1051
cause the person to be buried or cremated at the expense of the 1052
county.1053

       Such officials shall provide, at the grave of the person or, 1054
if the person's cremated remains are buried, at the grave of the 1055
person's cremated remains, a metal, stone, or concrete marker on 1056
which the person's name and age, if known, and date of death shall 1057
be inscribed.1058

       A political subdivision is not relieved of its duty to bury 1059
or cremate a person at its expense under this section when the 1060
body is claimed by an indigent person. As used in this section, 1061
"indigent person" means a person whose income does not exceed one 1062
hundred fifty per cent of the federal poverty line, as revised 1063
annually by the United States department of health and human 1064
services in accordance with section 673(2) of the "Omnibus Budget 1065
Reconciliation Act of 1981," 95 Stat. 511, 42 U.S.C. 9902, as 1066
amended, for a family size equal to the size of the person's 1067
family.1068

       Sec. 9.231. (A)(1) Subject to divisions (A)(2) and (3) of 1069
this section, a governmental entity shall not disburse money 1070
totaling twenty-five thousand dollars or more to any person for 1071
the provision of services for the primary benefit of individuals 1072
or the public and not for the primary benefit of a governmental 1073
entity or the employees of a governmental entity, unless the 1074
contracting authority of the governmental entity first enters into 1075
a written contract with the person that is signed by the person or 1076
by an officer or agent of the person authorized to legally bind 1077
the person and that embodies all of the requirements and 1078
conditions set forth in sections 9.23 to 9.236 of the Revised 1079
Code. If the disbursement of money occurs over the course of a 1080
governmental entity's fiscal year, rather than in a lump sum, the 1081
contracting authority of the governmental entity shall enter into 1082
the written contract with the person at the point during the 1083
governmental entity's fiscal year that at least seventy-five 1084
thousand dollars has been disbursed by the governmental entity to 1085
the person. Thereafter, the contracting authority of the 1086
governmental entity shall enter into the written contract with the 1087
person at the beginning of the governmental entity's fiscal year, 1088
if, during the immediately preceding fiscal year, the governmental 1089
entity disbursed to that person an aggregate amount totaling at 1090
least seventy-five thousand dollars.1091

       (2) If the money referred to in division (A)(1) of this 1092
section is disbursed by or through more than one state agency to 1093
the person for the provision of services to the same population, 1094
the contracting authorities of those agencies shall determine 1095
which one of them will enter into the written contract with the 1096
person.1097

       (3) The requirements and conditions set forth in divisions 1098
(A), (B), (C), and (F) of section 9.232, divisions (A)(1) and (2) 1099
and (B) of section 9.234, divisions (A)(2) and (B) of section 1100
9.235, and sections 9.233 and 9.236 of the Revised Code do not 1101
apply with respect to the following:1102

       (a) Contracts to which all of the following apply: 1103

       (i) The amount received for the services is a set fee for 1104
each time the services are provided, is determined in accordance 1105
with a fixed rate per unit of time or per service, or is a 1106
capitated rate, and the fee or rate is established by competitive 1107
bidding or by a market rate survey of similar services provided in 1108
a defined market area. The market rate survey may be one conducted 1109
by or on behalf of the governmental entity or an independent 1110
survey accepted by the governmental entity as statistically valid 1111
and reliable.1112

       (ii) The services are provided in accordance with standards 1113
established by state or federal law, or by rules or regulations 1114
adopted thereunder, for their delivery, which standards are 1115
enforced by the federal government, a governmental entity, or an 1116
accrediting organization recognized by the federal government or a 1117
governmental entity.1118

       (iii) Payment for the services is made after the services are 1119
delivered and upon submission to the governmental entity of an 1120
invoice or other claim for payment as required by any applicable 1121
local, state, or federal law or, if no such law applies, by the 1122
terms of the contract. 1123

       (b) Contracts under which the services are reimbursed through 1124
or in a manner consistent with a federal program that meets all of 1125
the following requirements:1126

       (i) The program calculates the reimbursement rate on the 1127
basis of the previous year's experience or in accordance with an 1128
alternative method set forth in rules adopted by the Ohio 1129
department of job and family services.1130

       (ii) The reimbursement rate is derived from a breakdown of 1131
direct and indirect costs.1132

       (iii) The program's guidelines describe types of expenditures 1133
that are allowable and not allowable under the program and 1134
delineate which costs are acceptable as direct costs for purposes 1135
of calculating the reimbursement rate.1136

       (iv) The program includes a uniform cost reporting system 1137
with specific audit requirements.1138

       (c) Contracts under which the services are reimbursed through 1139
or in a manner consistent with a federal program that calculates 1140
the reimbursement rate on a fee for service basis in compliance 1141
with United States office of management and budget Circular A-87, 1142
as revised May 10, 2004. 1143

       (d) Contracts for services that are paid pursuant to the 1144
earmarking of an appropriation made by the general assembly for 1145
that purpose.1146

       (B) Division (A) of this section does not apply if the money 1147
is disbursed to a person pursuant to a contract with the United 1148
States or a governmental entity under any of the following 1149
circumstances:1150

       (1) The person receives the money directly or indirectly from 1151
the United States, and no governmental entity exercises any 1152
oversight or control over the use of the money.1153

       (2) The person receives the money solely in return for the 1154
performance of one or more of the following types of services:1155

       (a) Medical, therapeutic, or other health-related services 1156
provided by a person if the amount received is a set fee for each 1157
time the person provides the services, is determined in accordance 1158
with a fixed rate per unit of time, or is a capitated rate, and 1159
the fee or rate is reasonable and customary in the person's trade 1160
or profession;1161

       (b) Medicaid-funded services, including administrative and 1162
management services, provided pursuant to a contract or medicaid 1163
provider agreement that meets the requirements of the medicaid 1164
program established under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code. 1165

       (c) Services, other than administrative or management 1166
services or any of the services described in division (B)(2)(a) or 1167
(b) of this section, that are commonly purchased by the public at 1168
an hourly rate or at a set fee for each time the services are 1169
provided, unless the services are performed for the benefit of 1170
children, persons who are eligible for the services by reason of 1171
advanced age, medical condition, or financial need, or persons who 1172
are confined in a detention facility as defined in section 2921.01 1173
of the Revised Code, and the services are intended to help promote 1174
the health, safety, or welfare of those children or persons;1175

       (d) Educational services provided by a school to children 1176
eligible to attend that school. For purposes of division (B)(2)(d) 1177
of this section, "school" means any school operated by a school 1178
district board of education, any community school established 1179
under Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code, or any nonpublic school 1180
for which the state board of education prescribes minimum 1181
education standards under section 3301.07 of the Revised Code.1182

       (e) Services provided by a foster home as defined in section 1183
5103.02 of the Revised Code;1184

       (f) "Routine business services other than administrative or 1185
management services," as that term is defined by the attorney 1186
general by rule adopted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 1187
Revised Code;1188

       (g) Services to protect the environment or promote 1189
environmental education that are provided by a nonprofit entity or 1190
services to protect the environment that are funded with federal 1191
grants or revolving loan funds and administered in accordance with 1192
federal law.1193

       (3) The person receives the money solely in return for the 1194
performance of services intended to help preserve public health or 1195
safety under circumstances requiring immediate action as a result 1196
of a natural or man-made emergency.1197

       (C) With respect to an unincorporated nonprofit association, 1198
corporation, or organization established for the purpose of 1199
providing educational, technical, consulting, training, financial, 1200
or other services to its members in exchange for membership dues 1201
and other fees, any of the services provided to a member that is a 1202
governmental entity shall, for purposes of this section, be 1203
considered services "for the primary benefit of a governmental 1204
entity or the employees of a governmental entity."1205

       Sec. 9.239. (A) There is hereby created the government 1206
contracting advisory council. The attorney general and auditor of 1207
state shall consult with the council on the performance of their 1208
rule-making functions under sections 9.237 and 9.238 of the 1209
Revised Code and shall consider any recommendations of the 1210
council. The medicaid director of job and family services shall 1211
annually report to the council the cost methodology of the 1212
medicaid-funded services described in division (A)(3)(d) of 1213
section 9.231 of the Revised Code. The council shall consist of 1214
the following members or their designees:1215

       (1) The attorney general;1216

       (2) The auditor of state;1217

       (3) The director of administrative services;1218

        (4) The director of aging;1219

       (5) The director of alcohol and drug addiction servicesThe 1220
medicaid director;1221

       (6) The director of budget and management;1222

       (7) The director of development services;1223

       (8) The director of job and family services;1224

       (9) The director of mental healthmental health and addiction 1225
services;1226

       (10) The director of developmental disabilities;1227

       (11) The director of rehabilitation and correction;1228

       (12) The administrator of workers' compensation;1229

       (13) The executive director of the county commissioners' 1230
association of Ohio;1231

       (14) The president of the Ohio grantmakers forum;1232

       (15) The president of the Ohio chamber of commerce;1233

       (16) The president of the Ohio state bar association;1234

       (17) The president of the Ohio society of certified public 1235
accountants;1236

       (18) The executive director of the Ohio association of 1237
nonprofit organizations;1238

       (19) The president of the Ohio united way;1239

       (20) One additional member appointed by the attorney general;1240

       (21) One additional member appointed by the auditor of state.1241

       (B) If an agency or organization represented on the council 1242
ceases to exist in the form it has on September 29, 2005, the 1243
successor agency or organization shall be represented in its 1244
place. If there is no successor agency or organization, or if it 1245
is not clear what agency or organization is the successor, the 1246
attorney general shall designate an agency or organization to be 1247
represented in place of the agency or organization originally 1248
represented on the council.1249

       (C) The two members appointed to the council shall serve 1250
three-year terms. Original appointments shall be made not later 1251
than sixty days after September 29, 2005. Vacancies on the council 1252
shall be filled in the same manner as the original appointment.1253

       (D) The attorney general or the attorney general's designee 1254
shall be the chairperson of the council. The council shall meet at 1255
least once every two years to review the rules adopted under 1256
sections 9.237 and 9.238 of the Revised Code and to make 1257
recommendations to the attorney general and auditor of state 1258
regarding the adoption, amendment, or repeal of those rules. The 1259
council shall also meet at other times as requested by the 1260
attorney general or auditor of state.1261

       (E) Members of the council shall serve without compensation 1262
or reimbursement.1263

       (F) The office of the attorney general shall provide 1264
necessary staff, facilities, supplies, and services to the 1265
council.1266

       (G) Sections 101.82 to 101.87 of the Revised Code do not 1267
apply to the council.1268

       Sec. 9.24. (A) Except as may be allowed under division (F) of 1269
this section, no state agency and no political subdivision shall 1270
award a contract as described in division (G)(1) of this section 1271
for goods, services, or construction, paid for in whole or in part 1272
with state funds, to a person against whom a finding for recovery 1273
has been issued by the auditor of state on and after January 1, 1274
2001, if the finding for recovery is unresolved.1275

       A contract is considered to be awarded when it is entered 1276
into or executed, irrespective of whether the parties to the 1277
contract have exchanged any money.1278

        (B) For purposes of this section, a finding for recovery is 1279
unresolved unless one of the following criteria applies:1280

        (1) The money identified in the finding for recovery is paid 1281
in full to the state agency or political subdivision to whom the 1282
money was owed;1283

        (2) The debtor has entered into a repayment plan that is 1284
approved by the attorney general and the state agency or political 1285
subdivision to whom the money identified in the finding for 1286
recovery is owed. A repayment plan may include a provision 1287
permitting a state agency or political subdivision to withhold 1288
payment to a debtor for goods, services, or construction provided 1289
to or for the state agency or political subdivision pursuant to a 1290
contract that is entered into with the debtor after the date the 1291
finding for recovery was issued.1292

        (3) The attorney general waives a repayment plan described in 1293
division (B)(2) of this section for good cause;1294

        (4) The debtor and state agency or political subdivision to 1295
whom the money identified in the finding for recovery is owed have 1296
agreed to a payment plan established through an enforceable 1297
settlement agreement.1298

        (5) The state agency or political subdivision desiring to 1299
enter into a contract with a debtor certifies, and the attorney 1300
general concurs, that all of the following are true:1301

        (a) Essential services the state agency or political 1302
subdivision is seeking to obtain from the debtor cannot be 1303
provided by any other person besides the debtor;1304

        (b) Awarding a contract to the debtor for the essential 1305
services described in division (B)(5)(a) of this section is in the 1306
best interest of the state;1307

        (c) Good faith efforts have been made to collect the money 1308
identified in the finding of recovery.1309

       (6) The debtor has commenced an action to contest the finding 1310
for recovery and a final determination on the action has not yet 1311
been reached.1312

        (C) The attorney general shall submit an initial report to 1313
the auditor of state, not later than December 1, 2003, indicating 1314
the status of collection for all findings for recovery issued by 1315
the auditor of state for calendar years 2001, 2002, and 2003. 1316
Beginning on January 1, 2004, the attorney general shall submit to 1317
the auditor of state, on the first day of every January, April, 1318
July, and October, a list of all findings for recovery that have 1319
been resolved in accordance with division (B) of this section 1320
during the calendar quarter preceding the submission of the list 1321
and a description of the means of resolution. The attorney general 1322
shall notify the auditor of state when a judgment is issued 1323
against an entity described in division (F)(1) of this section.1324

       (D) The auditor of state shall maintain a database, 1325
accessible to the public, listing persons against whom an 1326
unresolved finding for recovery has been issued, and the amount of 1327
the money identified in the unresolved finding for recovery. The 1328
auditor of state shall have this database operational on or before 1329
January 1, 2004. The initial database shall contain the 1330
information required under this division for calendar years 2001, 1331
2002, and 2003.1332

       Beginning January 15, 2004, the auditor of state shall update 1333
the database by the fifteenth day of every January, April, July, 1334
and October to reflect resolved findings for recovery that are 1335
reported to the auditor of state by the attorney general on the 1336
first day of the same month pursuant to division (C) of this 1337
section.1338

        (E) Before awarding a contract as described in division 1339
(G)(1) of this section for goods, services, or construction, paid 1340
for in whole or in part with state funds, a state agency or 1341
political subdivision shall verify that the person to whom the 1342
state agency or political subdivision plans to award the contract 1343
has no unresolved finding for recovery issued against the person. 1344
A state agency or political subdivision shall verify that the 1345
person does not appear in the database described in division (D) 1346
of this section or shall obtain other proof that the person has no 1347
unresolved finding for recovery issued against the person.1348

        (F) The prohibition of division (A) of this section and the 1349
requirement of division (E) of this section do not apply with 1350
respect to the companies, payments, or agreements described in 1351
divisions (F)(1) and (2) of this section, or in the circumstance 1352
described in division (F)(3) of this section.1353

       (1) A bonding company or a company authorized to transact the 1354
business of insurance in this state, a self-insurance pool, joint 1355
self-insurance pool, risk management program, or joint risk 1356
management program, unless a court has entered a final judgment 1357
against the company and the company has not yet satisfied the 1358
final judgment.1359

       (2) To medicaid provider agreements under Chapter 5111. of1360
the Revised Codemedicaid program.1361

       (3) When federal law dictates that a specified entity provide 1362
the goods, services, or construction for which a contract is being 1363
awarded, regardless of whether that entity would otherwise be 1364
prohibited from entering into the contract pursuant to this 1365
section.1366

       (G)(1) This section applies only to contracts for goods, 1367
services, or construction that satisfy the criteria in either 1368
division (G)(1)(a) or (b) of this section. This section may apply 1369
to contracts for goods, services, or construction that satisfy the 1370
criteria in division (G)(1)(c) of this section, provided that the 1371
contracts also satisfy the criteria in either division (G)(1)(a) 1372
or (b) of this section.1373

       (a) The cost for the goods, services, or construction 1374
provided under the contract is estimated to exceed twenty-five 1375
thousand dollars.1376

       (b) The aggregate cost for the goods, services, or 1377
construction provided under multiple contracts entered into by the 1378
particular state agency and a single person or the particular 1379
political subdivision and a single person within the fiscal year 1380
preceding the fiscal year within which a contract is being entered 1381
into by that same state agency and the same single person or the 1382
same political subdivision and the same single person, exceeded 1383
fifty thousand dollars.1384

       (c) The contract is a renewal of a contract previously 1385
entered into and renewed pursuant to that preceding contract.1386

       (2) This section does not apply to employment contracts.1387

       (H) As used in this section:1388

       (1) "State agency" has the same meaning as in section 9.66 of 1389
the Revised Code.1390

       (2) "Political subdivision" means a political subdivision as 1391
defined in section 9.82 of the Revised Code that has received more 1392
than fifty thousand dollars of state money in the current fiscal 1393
year or the preceding fiscal year.1394

       (3) "Finding for recovery" means a determination issued by 1395
the auditor of state, contained in a report the auditor of state 1396
gives to the attorney general pursuant to section 117.28 of the 1397
Revised Code, that public money has been illegally expended, 1398
public money has been collected but not been accounted for, public 1399
money is due but has not been collected, or public property has 1400
been converted or misappropriated.1401

        (4) "Debtor" means a person against whom a finding for 1402
recovery has been issued.1403

       (5) "Person" means the person named in the finding for 1404
recovery.1405

       (6) "State money" does not include funds the state receives 1406
from another source and passes through to a political subdivision.1407

       Sec. 9.833.  (A) As used in this section, "political 1408
subdivision" has the meaning defined in sections 2744.01 and 1409
3905.36 of the Revised Code. For purposes of this section, 1410
"political subdivision" includes municipal corporations as defined 1411
in section 5705.01 of the Revised Code. 1412

       (B) Political subdivisions that provide health care benefits 1413
for their officers or employees may do any of the following:1414

       (1) Establish and maintain an individual self-insurance 1415
program with public moneys to provide authorized health care 1416
benefits, including but not limited to, health care, prescription 1417
drugs, dental care, and vision care, in accordance with division 1418
(C) of this section;1419

       (2) Establish and maintain a health savings account program 1420
whereby employees or officers may establish and maintain health 1421
savings accounts in accordance with section 223 of the Internal 1422
Revenue Code. Public moneys may be used to pay for or fund 1423
federally qualified high deductible health plans that are linked 1424
to health savings accounts or to make contributions to health 1425
savings accounts. A health savings account program may be a part 1426
of a self-insurance program.1427

       (3) After establishing an individual self-insurance program, 1428
agree with other political subdivisions that have established 1429
individual self-insurance programs for health care benefits, that 1430
their programs will be jointly administered in a manner specified 1431
in the agreement;1432

       (4) Pursuant to a written agreement and in accordance with 1433
division (C) of this section, join in any combination with other 1434
political subdivisions to establish and maintain a joint 1435
self-insurance program to provide health care benefits;1436

       (5) Pursuant to a written agreement, join in any combination 1437
with other political subdivisions to procure or contract for 1438
policies, contracts, or plans of insurance to provide health care 1439
benefits, which may include a health savings account program for 1440
their officers and employees subject to the agreement;1441

       (6) Use in any combination any of the policies, contracts, 1442
plans, or programs authorized under this division.1443

       (7) Any agreement made under division (B)(3), (4), (5), or 1444
(6) of this section shall be in writing, comply with division (C) 1445
of this section, and contain best practices established in 1446
consultation with and approved by the department of administrative 1447
services. The best practices may be reviewed and amended at the 1448
discretion of the political subdivisions in consultation with the 1449
department. Detailed information regarding the best practices 1450
shall be made available to any employee upon that employee's 1451
request.1452

       (8) Purchase plans approvedcontaining best practices 1453
established by the department of administrative services under 1454
section 9.901 of the Revised Code.1455

       (C) Except as otherwise provided in division (E) of this 1456
section, the following apply to individual or joint self-insurance 1457
programs established pursuant to this section:1458

       (1) Such funds shall be reserved as are necessary, in the 1459
exercise of sound and prudent actuarial judgment, to cover 1460
potential cost of health care benefits for the officers and 1461
employees of the political subdivision. A certified audited 1462
financial statement and a report of aggregate amounts so reserved 1463
and aggregate disbursements made from such funds, together with a 1464
written report of a member of the American academy of actuaries 1465
certifying whether the amounts reserved conform to the 1466
requirements of this division, are computed in accordance with 1467
accepted loss reserving standards, and are fairly stated in 1468
accordance with sound loss reserving principles, shall be prepared 1469
and maintained, within ninety days after the last day of the 1470
fiscal year of the entity for which the report is provided for 1471
that fiscal year, in the office of the program administrator 1472
described in division (C)(3) of this section.1473

       The report required by division (C)(1) of this section shall 1474
include, but not be limited to, the aggregate of disbursements 1475
made for the administration of the program, including claims paid, 1476
costs of the legal representation of political subdivisions and 1477
employees, and fees paid to consultants. 1478

       The program administrator described in division (C)(3) of 1479
this section shall make the report required by this division 1480
available for inspection by any person at all reasonable times 1481
during regular business hours, and, upon the request of such 1482
person, shall make copies of the report available at cost within a 1483
reasonable period of time. The program administrator shall further 1484
provide the report to the auditor of state under Chapter 117. of 1485
the Revised Code. The report required by this division is in lieu 1486
of the records required by division (A) of section 149.431 of the 1487
Revised Code.1488

       (2) Each political subdivision shall reserve funds necessary 1489
for an individual or joint self-insurance program in a special 1490
fund that may be established for political subdivisions other than 1491
an agency or instrumentality pursuant to an ordinance or 1492
resolution of the political subdivision and not subject to section 1493
5705.12 of the Revised Code. An agency or instrumentality shall 1494
reserve the funds necessary for an individual or joint 1495
self-insurance program in a special fund established pursuant to a 1496
resolution duly adopted by the agency's or instrumentality's 1497
governing board. The political subdivision may allocate the costs 1498
of insurance or any self-insurance program, or both, among the 1499
funds or accounts established under this division on the basis of 1500
relative exposure and loss experience.1501

       (3) A contract may be awarded, without the necessity of 1502
competitive bidding, to any person, political subdivision, 1503
nonprofit corporation organized under Chapter 1702. of the Revised 1504
Code, or regional council of governments created under Chapter 1505
167. of the Revised Code for purposes of administration of an 1506
individual or joint self-insurance program. No such contract shall 1507
be entered into without full, prior, public disclosure of all 1508
terms and conditions. The disclosure shall include, at a minimum, 1509
a statement listing all representations made in connection with 1510
any possible savings and losses resulting from the contract, and 1511
potential liability of any political subdivision or employee. The 1512
proposed contract and statement shall be disclosed and presented 1513
at a meeting of the political subdivision not less than one week 1514
prior to the meeting at which the political subdivision authorizes 1515
the contract.1516

       A contract awarded to a nonprofit corporation or a regional 1517
council of governments under this division may provide that all 1518
employees of the nonprofit corporation or regional council of 1519
governments, the employees of all entities related to the 1520
nonprofit corporation or regional council of governments, and the 1521
employees of other nonprofit corporations that have fifty or fewer 1522
employees and have been organized for the primary purpose of 1523
representing the interests of political subdivisions, may be 1524
covered by the individual or joint self-insurance program under 1525
the terms and conditions set forth in the contract.1526

       (4) The individual or joint self-insurance program shall 1527
include a contract with a certified public accountant and a member 1528
of the American academy of actuaries for the preparation of the 1529
written evaluations required under division (C)(1) of this 1530
section.1531

       (5) A joint self-insurance program may allocate the costs of 1532
funding the program among the funds or accounts established under 1533
this division to the participating political subdivisions on the 1534
basis of their relative exposure and loss experience.1535

       (6) An individual self-insurance program may allocate the 1536
costs of funding the program among the funds or accounts 1537
established under this division to the political subdivision that 1538
established the program.1539

       (7) Two or more political subdivisions may also authorize the 1540
establishment and maintenance of a joint health care cost 1541
containment program, including, but not limited to, the employment 1542
of risk managers, health care cost containment specialists, and 1543
consultants, for the purpose of preventing and reducing health 1544
care costs covered by insurance, individual self-insurance, or 1545
joint self-insurance programs.1546

       (8) A political subdivision is not liable under a joint 1547
self-insurance program for any amount in excess of amounts payable 1548
pursuant to the written agreement for the participation of the 1549
political subdivision in the joint self-insurance program. Under a 1550
joint self-insurance program agreement, a political subdivision 1551
may, to the extent permitted under the written agreement, assume 1552
the risks of any other political subdivision. A joint 1553
self-insurance program established under this section is deemed a 1554
separate legal entity for the public purpose of enabling the 1555
members of the joint self-insurance program to obtain insurance or 1556
to provide for a formalized, jointly administered self-insurance 1557
fund for its members. An entity created pursuant to this section 1558
is exempt from all state and local taxes.1559

       (9) Any political subdivision, other than an agency or 1560
instrumentality, may issue general obligation bonds, or special 1561
obligation bonds that are not payable from real or personal 1562
property taxes, and may also issue notes in anticipation of such 1563
bonds, pursuant to an ordinance or resolution of its legislative 1564
authority or other governing body for the purpose of providing 1565
funds to pay expenses associated with the settlement of claims, 1566
whether by way of a reserve or otherwise, and to pay the political 1567
subdivision's portion of the cost of establishing and maintaining 1568
an individual or joint self-insurance program or to provide for 1569
the reserve in the special fund authorized by division (C)(2) of 1570
this section.1571

       In its ordinance or resolution authorizing bonds or notes 1572
under this section, a political subdivision may elect to issue 1573
such bonds or notes under the procedures set forth in Chapter 133. 1574
of the Revised Code. In the event of such an election, 1575
notwithstanding Chapter 133. of the Revised Code, the maturity of 1576
the bonds may be for any period authorized in the ordinance or 1577
resolution not exceeding twenty years, which period shall be the 1578
maximum maturity of the bonds for purposes of section 133.22 of 1579
the Revised Code.1580

       Bonds and notes issued under this section shall not be 1581
considered in calculating the net indebtedness of the political 1582
subdivision under sections 133.04, 133.05, 133.06, and 133.07 of 1583
the Revised Code. Sections 9.98 to 9.983 of the Revised Code are 1584
hereby made applicable to bonds or notes authorized under this 1585
section.1586

       (10) A joint self-insurance program is not an insurance 1587
company. Its operation does not constitute doing an insurance 1588
business and is not subject to the insurance laws of this state.1589

       (D) A political subdivision may procure group life insurance 1590
for its employees in conjunction with an individual or joint 1591
self-insurance program authorized by this section, provided that 1592
the policy of group life insurance is not self-insured.1593

       (E) This section does not apply to individual self-insurance 1594
programs created solely by municipal corporations as defined in 1595
section 5705.01 of the Revised Code.1596

       (F) A public official or employee of a political subdivision 1597
who is or becomes a member of the governing body of the program 1598
administrator of a joint self-insurance program in which the 1599
political subdivision participates is not in violation of division 1600
(D) or (E) of section 102.03, division (C) of section 102.04, or 1601
section 2921.42 of the Revised Code as a result of either of the 1602
following:1603

       (1) The political subdivision's entering under this section 1604
into the written agreement to participate in the joint 1605
self-insurance program;1606

       (2) The political subdivision's entering under this section 1607
into any other contract with the joint self-insurance program.1608

       Sec. 9.90.  (A) The following applies until the department of 1609
administrative services implements healthcare plans designed under 1610
section 9.901 of the Revised Code. If those plans do not include 1611
or address any benefits listed in this section, or if the board of 1612
trustees or other governing body of a state institution of higher 1613
education, as defined in section 3345.011 of the Revised Code, 1614
board of education of a school district, or governing board of an 1615
educational service center do not elect to be covered under a plan 1616
offered by the department of administrative services under section 1617
9.901 of the Revised Code, the following provisions continue in 1618
effect for those benefits. The board of trustees or other 1619
governing body of a state institution of higher education, as 1620
defined in section 3345.011 of the Revised Code, board of 1621
education of a school district, or governing board of an 1622
educational service center may, in addition to all other powers 1623
provided in the Revised Code:1624

       (1) Contract for, purchase, or otherwise procure from an 1625
insurer or insurers licensed to do business by the state of Ohio 1626
for or on behalf of such of its employees as it may determine, 1627
life insurance, or sickness, accident, annuity, endowment, health, 1628
medical, hospital, dental, or surgical coverage and benefits, or 1629
any combination thereof, by means of insurance plans or other 1630
types of coverage, family, group or otherwise, and may pay from 1631
funds under its control and available for such purpose all or any 1632
portion of the cost, premium, or charge for such insurance, 1633
coverage, or benefits. However, the governing board, in addition 1634
to or as an alternative to the authority otherwise granted by 1635
division (A)(1) of this section, may elect to procure coverage for 1636
health care services, for or on behalf of such of its employees as 1637
it may determine, by means of policies, contracts, certificates, 1638
or agreements issued by at least two health insuring corporations 1639
holding a certificate of authority under Chapter 1751. of the 1640
Revised Code and may pay from funds under the governing board's 1641
control and available for such purpose all or any portion of the 1642
cost of such coverage.1643

       (2) Make payments to a custodial account for investment in 1644
regulated investment company stock for the purpose of providing 1645
retirement benefits as described in section 403(b)(7) of the 1646
Internal Revenue Code of 1954, as amended. Such stock shall be 1647
purchased only from persons authorized to sell such stock in this 1648
state.1649

       Any income of an employee deferred under divisions (A)(1) and 1650
(2) of this section in a deferred compensation program eligible 1651
for favorable tax treatment under the Internal Revenue Code of 1652
1954, as amended, shall continue to be included as regular 1653
compensation for the purpose of computing the contributions to and 1654
benefits from the retirement system of such employee. Any sum so 1655
deferred shall not be included in the computation of any federal 1656
and state income taxes withheld on behalf of any such employee.1657

       (B) All or any portion of the cost, premium, or charge 1658
therefor may be paid in such other manner or combination of 1659
manners as the board or governing body may determine, including 1660
direct payment by the employee in cases under division (A)(1) of 1661
this section, and, if authorized in writing by the employee in 1662
cases under division (A)(1) or (2) of this section, by the board 1663
or governing body with moneys made available by deduction from or 1664
reduction in salary or wages or by the foregoing of a salary or 1665
wage increase. Nothing in section 3917.01 or section 3917.06 of 1666
the Revised Code shall prohibit the issuance or purchase of group 1667
life insurance authorized by this section by reason of payment of 1668
premiums therefor by the board or governing body from its funds, 1669
and such group life insurance may be so issued and purchased if 1670
otherwise consistent with the provisions of sections 3917.01 to 1671
3917.07 of the Revised Code.1672

       (C) The board of education of any school district may 1673
exercise any of the powers granted to the governing boards of 1674
public institutions of higher education under divisions (A) and 1675
(B) of this section. All health care benefits provided to persons 1676
employed by the public schools of this state shall be through 1677
health care plans that contain best practices established by the 1678
department of administrative services pursuant to section 9.901 of 1679
the Revised Code.1680

       (D) Once the department of administrative services releases 1681
in final form health care plans designed under section 9.901 of 1682
the Revised Code, all health care benefits provided to persons 1683
employed by state institutions of higher education, school 1684
districts, or educational service centers may be through those 1685
plans.1686

       Sec. 9.901.  (A)(1) All health care benefits provided to 1687
persons employed by the political subdivisions and public school 1688
districts ofemployers as defined by this statesection shall be 1689
provided by health care plans that contain best practices 1690
established pursuant to this section by the former school 1691
employees health care board or the department of administrative 1692
services. Twelve months after the release of best practices by the 1693
board allAll policies or contracts for health care benefits 1694
provided to public school district employees that are issued or 1695
renewed after the expiration of any applicable collective 1696
bargaining agreement must contain all best practices established 1697
pursuant to this section by the boardat the time of renewal. Any 1698
or all of the healthHealth care plans that contain the best 1699
practices specified by the board may be self-insured. 1700

       (2) Upon completion of the consultant's report under division 1701
(E) of this section and once the plans are released in final form 1702
by the department, all health care benefits provided to persons 1703
employed by political subdivisions, public school districts, and 1704
state institutions of higher education may be provided by health 1705
care plans designed under this section by the department. The 1706
department, in consultation with the superintendent of insurance, 1707
may negotiate with and, in accordance with the competitive 1708
selection procedures of Chapter 125. of the Revised Code, contract 1709
with one or more insurance companies authorized to do business in 1710
this state for the issuance of the plans. Any or all of the health 1711
care plans designed by the department may be self-insured. All 1712
self-insured plans adopted shall be administered by the department 1713
in accordance with this section. The plans shall incorporate the 1714
best practices adopted by the department under division (C)(3) of 1715
this sectionconsulting with the department of administrative 1716
services, a political subdivision may adopt a delivery system of 1717
benefits that is not in accordance with the department's adopted 1718
best practices if it is considered by the department to be most 1719
financially advantageous to the political subdivision.1720

       (3) Before soliciting proposals from insurance companies for 1721
the issuance of health care plans, the department, in consultation 1722
with the superintendent of insurance, shall determine what 1723
geographic regions exist in the state based on the availability of 1724
providers, networks, costs, and other factors relating to 1725
providing health care benefits. The department shall then 1726
determine what health care plans offered by political 1727
subdivisions, public school districts, state institutions, and 1728
existing consortiums in the region offer the most cost-effective 1729
plan.1730

       (4) The department, in consultation with the superintendent 1731
of insurance, shall develop a request for proposals and solicit 1732
bids for health care plans for political subdivisions, public 1733
school districts, and state institutions in a region similar to 1734
the existing plans. The department shall also determine the 1735
benefits offered by existing health care plans, the employees' 1736
costs, and the cost-sharing arrangements used by political 1737
subdivisions, schools, and institutions participating in a 1738
consortium. The department shall determine what strategies are 1739
used by the existing plans to manage health care costs and shall 1740
study the potential benefits of state or regional consortiums 1741
offering multiple health care plans. When options exist in a 1742
defined regional service area that meet the benchmarks or best 1743
practices prescribed by the department, public employees shall be 1744
given the option of selecting from two or more health plans.1745

       (5) No political subdivision, public school district, or 1746
state institution may be required to offer the health care plans 1747
designed under this section until action is taken under division 1748
(E) of this section.1749

       In addition, political subdivisions, public school districts, 1750
or state institutions offering employee health care benefits 1751
through a plan offered by a consortium of two or more political 1752
subdivisions, districts, or state institutions, or a consortium of 1753
one or more political subdivisions, districts, or state 1754
institutions and one or more other political subdivisions may 1755
continue offering consortium plans to the political subdivisions', 1756
districts', or institutions' employees if plans contain best 1757
practices required under this section.1758

       (6) As used in this section:1759

       (a) "Public employer" means political subdivisions, public 1760
school districts, or state institutions of higher education.1761

       (b) "Public school district" means a city, local, exempted 1762
village, or joint vocational school district; a STEM school 1763
established under Chapter 3326. of the Revised Code; or an 1764
educational service center. "Public school district" does not mean 1765
a community school established under Chapter 3314. of the Revised 1766
Code.1767

       (b)(c) "State institution of higher education" or "state 1768
institution" means a state institution of higher education as 1769
defined in section 3345.011 of the Revised Code.1770

       (c)(d) "Political subdivision" has the same meaning as 1771
defined in section 9.833 of the Revised Code.1772

       (d)(e) A "health care plan" includes group policies, 1773
contracts, and agreements that provide hospital, surgical, or 1774
medical expense coverage, including self-insured plans. A "health 1775
care plan" does not include an individual plan offered to the 1776
employees of a political subdivision, public school district, or 1777
state institution, or a plan that provides coverage only for 1778
specific disease or accidents, or a hospital indemnity, medicare 1779
supplement, or other plan that provides only supplemental 1780
benefits, paid for by the employees of a political subdivision, 1781
public school district, or state institution.1782

       (e)(f) A "health plan sponsor" means a political subdivision, 1783
public school district, a state institution of higher education, a 1784
consortium of political subdivisions, public school districts, or 1785
state institutions, or a council of governments.1786

       (B)(4) The political subdivisions and public employees health 1787
care fund is hereby created in the state treasury. The department 1788
shall use all funds in the political subdivisions and public 1789
employees health care fund solely to carry out the provisions of 1790
this section and related administrative costs. 1791

       (C)(B) The department of administrative services shall do all 1792
of the following:1793

       (1) Include disease management and consumer education 1794
programs, which programs shall include, but are not limited to, 1795
wellness programs and other measures designed to encourage the 1796
wise use of medical plan coverage. These programs are not services 1797
or treatments for purposes of section 3901.71 of the Revised Code.1798

       (2) After action is taken under division (E) of this section, 1799
design health care plans for political subdivisions, public school 1800
districts, and state institutions of higher education in 1801
accordance with division (A) of this section separate from the 1802
plans for state agencies;1803

       (3) Adopt and release a set of standards that shall be 1804
considered the best practices for health care plans offered to 1805
employees of political subdivisions, public school districts, and 1806
state institutions.1807

       (4) Require that the plans the health plan sponsors 1808
administer make readily available to the public all cost and 1809
design elements of the plan;1810

       (5) Set employee and employer health care plan premiums for 1811
the plans designed under division (C)(2) of this section;1812

       (6) Promote cooperation among all organizations affected by 1813
this section in identifying the elements for the successful 1814
implementation of this section;1815

       (7) Promote cost containment measures aligned with patient, 1816
plan, and provider management strategies in developing and 1817
managing health care plans;1818

       (8) Prepare and disseminate to the public an annual report on 1819
the status of health plan sponsors' effectiveness in making 1820
progress to reduce the rate of increase in insurance premiums and 1821
employee out of pocket expenses, as well as progress in improving 1822
the health status of political subdivision, public school 1823
district, and state institution employees and their families.1824

       (D) The sections in Chapter 3923. of the Revised Code 1825
regulating public employee benefit plans are not applicable to the 1826
health care plans designed pursuant to this section.1827

        (E) Before the department's release of the initial health 1828
care plans, the department shall contract with an independent 1829
consultant to analyze costs related to employee health care 1830
benefits provided by existing political subdivision, public school 1831
district, and state institution plans. All political subdivisions 1832
shall provide information requested by the department that the 1833
department determines is needed to complete this study. The 1834
information requested shall be held confidentially by the 1835
department and shall not be considered a public record under 1836
Chapter 149. of the Revised Code. The department may release the 1837
information after redacting all personally identifiable 1838
information. The consultant shall determine the benefits offered 1839
by existing plans, the employees' costs, and the cost-sharing 1840
arrangements used by political subdivisions, schools, and 1841
institutions participating in a consortium. The consultant shall 1842
determine what strategies are used by the existing plans to manage 1843
health care costs and shall study the potential benefits of state 1844
or regional consortiums of political subdivisions, public schools, 1845
and institutions offering multiple health care plans. Based on the 1846
findings of the analysis, the consultant shall submit written 1847
recommendations to the department for the development and 1848
implementation of a successful program for pooling purchasing 1849
power for the acquisition of employee health care plans. The 1850
consultant's recommendations shall address, at a minimum, all of 1851
the following issues:1852

       (1) The development of a plan for regional coordination of 1853
the health care plans;1854

       (2) The establishment of regions for the provision of health 1855
care plans, based on the availability of providers and plans in 1856
the state at the time;1857

       (3) The viability of voluntary and mandatory participation by 1858
political subdivisions, public schools, and institutions of higher 1859
education;1860

       (4) The use of regional preferred provider and closed panel 1861
plans, health savings accounts, and alternative health care plans, 1862
to stabilize both costs and the premiums charged to political 1863
subdivisions, public school districts, and state institutions and 1864
their employees;1865

       (5) The use of the competitive bidding process for regional 1866
health care plans;1867

       (6) The use of information on claims and costs and of 1868
information reported by political subdivisions, public school 1869
districts, and state institutions pursuant to the Consolidated 1870
Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (COBRA) 100 Stat. 227, 29 U.S.C. 1871
1161, as amended in analyzing administrative and premium costs;1872

       (7) The experience of states that have statewide health care 1873
plans for political subdivision, public school district, and state 1874
institution employees, including the implementation strategies 1875
used by those states;1876

       (8) Recommended strategies for the use of first-year roll-in 1877
premiums in the transition from political subdivision, district, 1878
and state institution health care plans to department plans;1879

       (9) The option of allowing political subdivisions, public 1880
school districts, and state institutions to join an existing 1881
regional consortium as an alternative to department plans;1882

       (10) Mandatory and optional coverages to be offered by the 1883
department's plans;1884

       (11) Potential risks to the state from the use of plans 1885
developed under this section;1886

       (12) Any legislation needed to ensure the long-term financial 1887
solvency and stability of a health care purchasing system;1888

       (13) The potential impacts of any changes to the existing 1889
purchasing structure on all of the following:1890

       (a) Existing health care pooling and consortiums;1891

       (b) Political subdivision, school district, and state 1892
institution employees;1893

       (c) Individual political subdivisions, school districts, and 1894
state institutions.1895

       (14) Issues that could arise when political subdivisions, 1896
school districts, and state institutions transition from the 1897
existing purchasing structure to a new purchasing structure;1898

       (15) Strategies available to the department in the creation 1899
of fund reserves and the need for stop-loss insurance coverage for 1900
catastrophic losses;1901

       (16) Impact on eliminating the premium tax or excise 1902
currently received on behalf of a public employer under division 1903
(A) of section 5725.18 and division (A) of 5729.03 of the Revised 1904
Code;1905

       (17) How development of the federal health exchange in Ohio 1906
may impact public employees;1907

       (18) Impact of joint health insurance regional program on 1908
insurance carriers and agents;1909

       (19) The benefits, including any cost savings to the state of 1910
establishing a benchmark for public employers to meet in lieu of 1911
establishing new plans administered by the department.1912

       (F) TheIdentify strategies to manage health care costs;1913

       (2) Study the potential benefits of state or regional 1914
consortiums of public employers' health care plans;1915

       (3) Publish information regarding the health care plans 1916
offered by political subdivisions, public school districts, state 1917
institutions, and existing consortiums;1918

       (4) Assist in the design of health care plans for political 1919
subdivisions, public school districts, and state institutions of 1920
higher education in accordance with division (A) of this section 1921
separate from the plans for state agencies;1922

       (5) Adopt and release a set of standards that shall be 1923
considered the best practices for health care plans offered to 1924
employees of political subdivisions, public school districts, and 1925
state institutions;1926

       (6) Require that plans the health plan sponsors administer 1927
make readily available to the public all cost and design elements 1928
of the plan;1929

       (7) Promote cooperation among all organizations affected by 1930
this section in identifying the elements for successful 1931
implementation of this section;1932

       (8) Promote cost containment measures aligned with patient, 1933
plan, and provider management strategies in developing and 1934
managing health care plans; and1935

       (9) Prepare and disseminate to the public an annual report on 1936
the status of health plan sponsors' effectiveness in complying 1937
with best practices and making progress to reduce the rate of 1938
increase in insurance premiums and employee out-of-pocket 1939
expenses, as well as progress in improving the health status of 1940
employees and their families. 1941

       (C) The director of administrative services may convene a1942
public health care advisory committee is hereby created under the 1943
department of administrative services. The committee shall make 1944
recommendations to the director of administrative services or the 1945
director's designee on the development and adoption of best 1946
practices under this section. The committee shall consist of 1947
fifteen members: five members appointed by the speaker of the 1948
house of representatives,; five members appointed by the president 1949
of the senate,; and five members appointed by the governor and 1950
shall include representatives from state and local government 1951
employers, state and local government employees, insurance agents, 1952
health insurance companies, and joint purchasing arrangements 1953
currently in existence. Nothing in this section prohibits a 1954
political subdivision from adopting a delivery system of benefits 1955
that is not in accordance with the department's adopted best 1956
practices if it is considered to be most financially advantageous 1957
to the political subdivision. Members shall serve without 1958
compensation.1959

       (G)(D) The department may adopt rules for the enforcement of 1960
health plan sponsors' compliance with the best practices standards 1961
adopted by the department pursuant to this section.1962

        (H)(E) Any health care plan providing coverage for the 1963
employees of political subdivisions, public school districts, or 1964
state institutions of higher education, or that have provided 1965
coverage within two years before the effective date of this 1966
amendment, shall provide nonidentifiable aggregate claims and 1967
administrative data for the coverage provided as required by the 1968
department, without charge, within thirty days after receiving a 1969
written request from the department. The claims data shall include 1970
data relating to employee group benefit sets, demographics, and 1971
claims experience.1972

       (I)(1)(F) The department may contractwork with other state 1973
agencies forto obtain services as the department deems necessary 1974
for the implementation and operation of this section, based on 1975
demonstrated experience and expertise in administration, 1976
management, data handling, actuarial studies, quality assurance, 1977
or for other needed services. 1978

       (2)(G) The department shall hire staff as necessary to 1979
provide administrative support to the department and the public 1980
employee health care plan program established by this section.1981

       (J) Not more than ninety days before coverage begins for 1982
political subdivision, public school district, and state 1983
institution employees under health care plans designed by the 1984
department, a political subdivision's governing body, public 1985
school district's board of education, and a state institution's 1986
board of trustees or managing authority shall provide detailed 1987
information about the health care plans to the employees.1988

       (K)(H) Nothing in this section shall be construed as 1989
prohibiting political subdivisions, public school districts, or 1990
state institutions from consulting with and compensating insurance 1991
agents and brokers for professional services or from establishing 1992
a self-insurance program.1993

       (L)(I) Pursuant to Chapter 117. of the Revised Code, the 1994
auditor of state shall conduct all necessary and required audits 1995
of the department. The auditor of state, upon request, also shall 1996
furnish to the department copies of audits of political 1997
subdivisions, public school districts, or consortia performed by 1998
the auditor of state.1999

       Sec. 101.39.  (A) There is hereby created the joint 2000
legislative committee on health care oversight. The committee may 2001
review or study any matter related to the provision of health care 2002
services that it considers of significance to the citizens of this 2003
state, including the availability of health care, the quality of 2004
health care, the effectiveness and efficiency of managed care 2005
systems, and the operation of the medical assistancemedicaid2006
program established under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code or 2007
other government health programs.2008

       The department of job and family servicesmedicaid, 2009
department of health, department of aging, department of mental 2010
healthmental health and addiction services, department of 2011
developmental disabilities, department of alcohol and drug 2012
addiction services, and other state agencies shall cooperate with 2013
the committee in its study and review of health care issues. On 2014
request, the departments shall provide the committee with reports 2015
and other information sufficient for the committee to fulfill its 2016
duties.2017

       The committee may issue recommendations as it determines 2018
appropriate. The recommendations may be made to the general 2019
assembly, state agencies, private industry, or any other entity.2020

       (B) The committee shall consist of the following members of 2021
the general assembly: the chairperson of the senate's standing 2022
committee with primary responsibility for health legislation, the 2023
chairperson of the house of representatives' standing committee 2024
with primary responsibility for health legislation, four members 2025
of the house of representatives appointed by the speaker of the 2026
house of representatives, and four members of the senate appointed 2027
by the president of the senate. Not more than two members 2028
appointed by the speaker of the house of representatives and not 2029
more than two members appointed by the president of the senate may 2030
be of the same political party. Except in 1995, appointments shall 2031
be made not later than fifteen days after the commencement of the 2032
first regular session of each general assembly. The chairpersons 2033
of the standing committees with primary responsibility for health 2034
legislation shall serve as co-chairpersons of the committee.2035

       Each member of the committee shall hold office during the 2036
general assembly in which the member is appointed and until a 2037
successor has been appointed, notwithstanding the adjournment sine 2038
die of the general assembly in which the member was appointed or 2039
the expiration of the member's term as a member of the general 2040
assembly. Any vacancies occurring among the members of the 2041
committee shall be filled in the manner of the original 2042
appointment.2043

       The committee shall meet at least quarterly and at the call 2044
of the co-chairpersons. The co-chairpersons shall determine the 2045
time, place, and agenda for each meeting of the committee.2046

       The committee has the same powers as other standing or select 2047
committees of the general assembly. The committee may request 2048
assistance from the legislative service commission.2049

       Sec. 101.391.  (A) There is hereby created the joint 2050
legislative committee on medicaid technology and reform. The 2051
committee may review or study any matter that it considers 2052
relevant to the operation of the medicaid program established 2053
under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code, with priority given to 2054
the study or review of mechanisms to enhance the program's 2055
effectiveness through improved technology systems and program 2056
reform.2057

       (B) The committee shall consist of five members of the house 2058
of representatives appointed by the speaker of the house of 2059
representatives and five members of the senate appointed by the 2060
president of the senate. Not more than three members appointed by 2061
the speaker of the house of representatives and not more than 2062
three members appointed by the president of the senate may be of 2063
the same political party.2064

       Each member of the committee shall hold office during the 2065
general assembly in which the member is appointed and until a 2066
successor has been appointed, notwithstanding the adjournment sine 2067
die of the general assembly in which the member was appointed or 2068
the expiration of the member's term as a member of the general 2069
assembly. Any vacancies occurring among the members of the 2070
committee shall be filled in the manner of the original 2071
appointment.2072

       (C) The committee has the same powers as other standing or 2073
select committees of the general assembly. The committee may 2074
employ an executive director.2075

       Sec. 101.392.  (A) As used in this section, "Affordable Care 2076
Act" means the federal "Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act 2077
of 2010," Pub. L. 111-148, 124 Stat. 119, as amended by the 2078
federal "Health Care and Education Reconciliation Act of 2010," 2079
Pub. L. 111-152, 124 Stat. 1029, and any amendments to those acts, 2080
or any regulations or guidance issued under those acts.2081

       (B) There is hereby created the joint legislative committee 2082
on the Affordable Care Act. The committee may review or study any 2083
matter that it considers relevant to the operation and impact of 2084
the Affordable Care Act in this state.2085

       (C) The committee shall consist of three members of the house 2086
of representatives appointed by the speaker of the house of 2087
representatives, and three members of the senate appointed by the 2088
president of the senate. Two members appointed by the speaker of 2089
the house of representatives shall be from the majority party and 2090
one member shall be from the minority party, and two members 2091
appointed by the president of the senate shall be from the 2092
majority party and one member shall be from the minority party.2093

       Each member of the committee shall hold office during the 2094
general assembly in which the member is appointed and until a 2095
successor has been appointed, notwithstanding the adjournment sine 2096
die of the general assembly in which the member was appointed or 2097
the expiration of the member's term as a member of the general 2098
assembly. Any vacancies occurring among the members of the 2099
committee shall be filled in the manner of the original 2100
appointment.2101

       (D) The committee has the same powers as other standing or 2102
select committees of the general assembly. The committee may 2103
request assistance from the legislative service commission.2104

       Sec. 103.144.  As used in sections 103.144 to 103.146 of the 2105
Revised Code:2106

       (A) "Mandated benefit" means the following, when considered 2107
in the context of a sickness and accident insurance policy or a 2108
health insuring corporation policy, contract, or agreement:2109

       (1) Any required coverage for a specific medical or 2110
health-related service, treatment, medication, or practice;2111

       (2) Any required coverage for the services of specific health 2112
care providers;2113

       (3) Any requirement that an insurer or health insuring 2114
corporation offer coverage to specific individuals or groups;2115

       (4) Any requirement that an insurer or health insuring 2116
corporation offer specific medical or health-related services, 2117
treatments, medications, or practices to existing insureds or 2118
enrollees;2119

       (5) Any required expansion of, or addition to, existing 2120
coverage;2121

       (6) Any mandated reimbursement amount to specific health care 2122
providers.2123

       (B) "Mandated benefit" does not include any required coverage 2124
or offer of coverage, any required expansion of, or addition to, 2125
existing coverage, or any mandated reimbursement amount to 2126
specific providers, as described in division (A) of this section, 2127
within the context of any public health benefits arrangement, 2128
including but not limited to, the coverage of beneficiaries 2129
enrolled in Title XVIII of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 2130
(1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended,medicare pursuant to a 2131
medicare risk contract or medicare cost contract, or to the 2132
coverage of beneficiaries enrolled in Title XIX of the "Social 2133
Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended, 2134
known as the medical assistance program or medicaid, provided by 2135
the Ohio department of job and family services under Chapter 5111. 2136
of the Revised Code.2137

       Sec. 105.41.  (A) There is hereby created in the legislative 2138
branch of government the capitol square review and advisory board, 2139
consisting of twelve members as follows:2140

       (1) Two members of the senate, appointed by the president of 2141
the senate, both of whom shall not be members of the same 2142
political party;2143

       (2) Two members of the house of representatives, appointed by 2144
the speaker of the house of representatives, both of whom shall 2145
not be members of the same political party;2146

       (3) Four members appointed by the governor, with the advice 2147
and consent of the senate, not more than three of whom shall be 2148
members of the same political party, one of whom shall be the 2149
chief of staff of the governor's office, one of whom shall 2150
represent the Ohio arts council, one of whom shall represent the 2151
Ohio historical society, and one of whom shall represent the 2152
public at large;2153

       (4) One member, who shall be a former president of the 2154
senate, appointed by the current president of the senate. If the 2155
current president of the senate, in the current president's 2156
discretion, decides for any reason not to make the appointment or 2157
if no person is eligible or available to serve, the seat shall 2158
remain vacant.2159

       (5) One member, who shall be a former speaker of the house of 2160
representatives, appointed by the current speaker of the house of 2161
representatives. If the current speaker of the house of 2162
representatives, in the current speaker's discretion, decides for 2163
any reason not to make the appointment or if no person is eligible 2164
or available to serve, the seat shall remain vacant.2165

       (6) The clerk of the senate and the clerk of the house of 2166
representatives.2167

       (B) Terms of office of each appointed member of the board 2168
shall be for three years, except that members of the general 2169
assembly appointed to the board shall be members of the board only 2170
so long as they are members of the general assembly and the chief 2171
of staff of the governor's office shall be a member of the board 2172
only so long as the appointing governor remains in office. Each 2173
member shall hold office from the date of the member's appointment 2174
until the end of the term for which the member was appointed. In 2175
case of a vacancy occurring on the board, the president of the 2176
senate, the speaker of the house of representatives, or the 2177
governor, as the case may be, shall in the same manner prescribed 2178
for the regular appointment to the commission, fill the vacancy by 2179
appointing a member. Any member appointed to fill a vacancy 2180
occurring prior to the expiration of the term for which the 2181
member's predecessor was appointed shall hold office for the 2182
remainder of the term. Any appointed member shall continue in 2183
office subsequent to the expiration date of the member's term 2184
until the member's successor takes office, or until a period of 2185
sixty days has elapsed, whichever occurs first.2186

       (C) The board shall hold meetings in a manner and at times 2187
prescribed by the rules adopted by the board. A majority of the 2188
board constitutes a quorum, and no action shall be taken by the 2189
board unless approved by at least six members or by at least seven 2190
members if a person is appointed under division (A)(4) or (5) of 2191
this section. At its first meeting, the board shall adopt rules 2192
for the conduct of its business and the election of its officers, 2193
and shall organize by selecting a chairperson and other officers 2194
as it considers necessary. Board members shall serve without 2195
compensation but shall be reimbursed for actual and necessary 2196
expenses incurred in the performance of their duties.2197

       (D) The board may do any of the following:2198

       (1) Employ or hire on a consulting basis professional, 2199
technical, and clerical employees as are necessary for the 2200
performance of its duties. All employees of the board are in the 2201
unclassified service and serve at the pleasure of the board. For 2202
purposes of section 4117.01 of the Revised Code, employees of the 2203
board shall be considered employees of the general assembly, 2204
except that employees who are covered by a collective bargaining 2205
agreement on September 29, 2011, shall remain subject to the 2206
agreement until the agreement expires on its terms, and the 2207
agreement shall not be extended or renewed. Upon expiration of the 2208
agreement, the employees are considered employees of the general 2209
assembly for purposes of section 4117.01 of the Revised Code and 2210
are in the unclassified service and serve at the pleasure of the 2211
board.2212

       (2) Hold public hearings at times and places as determined by 2213
the board;2214

       (3) Adopt, amend, or rescind rules necessary to accomplish 2215
the duties of the board as set forth in this section;2216

       (4) Sponsor, conduct, and support such social events as the 2217
board may authorize and consider appropriate for the employees of 2218
the board, employees and members of the general assembly, 2219
employees of persons under contract with the board or otherwise 2220
engaged to perform services on the premises of capitol square, or 2221
other persons as the board may consider appropriate. Subject to 2222
the requirements of Chapter 4303. of the Revised Code, the board 2223
may provide beer, wine, and intoxicating liquor, with or without 2224
charge, for those events and may use funds only from the sale of 2225
goods and services fund to purchase the beer, wine, and 2226
intoxicating liquor the board provides;2227

       (5) Purchase a warehouse in which to store items of the 2228
capitol collection trust and, whenever necessary, equipment or 2229
other property of the board.2230

       (E) The board shall do all of the following:2231

       (1) Have sole authority to coordinate and approve any 2232
improvements, additions, and renovations that are made to the 2233
capitol square. The improvements shall include, but not be limited 2234
to, the placement of monuments and sculpture on the capitol 2235
grounds.2236

       (2) Subject to section 3353.07 of the Revised Code, operate 2237
the capitol square, and have sole authority to regulate all uses 2238
of the capitol square. The uses shall include, but not be limited 2239
to, the casual and recreational use of the capitol square.2240

       (3) Employ, fix the compensation of, and prescribe the duties 2241
of the executive director of the board and other employees the 2242
board considers necessary for the performance of its powers and 2243
duties;2244

       (4) Establish and maintain the capitol collection trust. The 2245
capitol collection trust shall consist of furniture, antiques, and 2246
other items of personal property that the board shall store in 2247
suitable facilities until they are ready to be displayed in the 2248
capitol square.2249

       (5) Perform repair, construction, contracting, purchasing, 2250
maintenance, supervisory, and operating activities the board 2251
determines are necessary for the operation and maintenance of the 2252
capitol square;2253

       (6) Maintain and preserve the capitol square, in accordance 2254
with guidelines issued by the United States secretary of the 2255
interior for application of the secretary's standards for 2256
rehabilitation adopted in 36 C.F.R. part 67;2257

       (7) Plan and develop a center at the capitol building for the 2258
purpose of educating visitors about the history of Ohio, including 2259
its political, economic, and social development and the design and 2260
erection of the capitol building and its grounds.2261

       (F)(1) The board shall lease capital facilities improved or 2262
financed by the Ohio building authority pursuant to Chapter 152. 2263
of the Revised Code for the use of the board, and may enter into 2264
any other agreements with the authority ancillary to improvement, 2265
financing, or leasing of those capital facilities, including, but 2266
not limited to, any agreement required by the applicable bond 2267
proceedings authorized by Chapter 152. of the Revised Code. Any 2268
lease of capital facilities authorized by this section shall be 2269
governed by division (D) of section 152.24 of the Revised Code.2270

       (2) Fees, receipts, and revenues received by the board from 2271
the state underground parking garage constitute available receipts 2272
as defined in section 152.09 of the Revised Code, and may be 2273
pledged to the payment of bond service charges on obligations 2274
issued by the Ohio building authority pursuant to Chapter 152. of 2275
the Revised Code to improve, finance, or purchase capital 2276
facilities useful to the board. The authority may, with the 2277
consent of the board, provide in the bond proceedings for a pledge 2278
of all or a portion of those fees, receipts, and revenues as the 2279
authority determines. The authority may provide in the bond 2280
proceedings or by separate agreement with the board for the 2281
transfer of those fees, receipts, and revenues to the appropriate 2282
bond service fund or bond service reserve fund as required to pay 2283
the bond service charges when due, and any such provision for the 2284
transfer of those fees, receipts, and revenues shall be 2285
controlling notwithstanding any other provision of law pertaining 2286
to those fees, receipts, and revenues.2287

       (3) All moneys received by the treasurer of state on account 2288
of the board and required by the applicable bond proceedings or by 2289
separate agreement with the board to be deposited, transferred, or 2290
credited to the bond service fund or bond service reserve fund 2291
established by the bond proceedings shall be transferred by the 2292
treasurer of state to such fund, whether or not it is in the 2293
custody of the treasurer of state, without necessity for further 2294
appropriation, upon receipt of notice from the Ohio building 2295
authority as prescribed in the bond proceedings.2296

       (G)(1) Except as otherwise provided in division (G)(2) of 2297
this section, all fees, receipts, and revenues received by the 2298
board from the state underground parking garage shall be deposited 2299
into the state treasury to the credit of the underground parking 2300
garage operating fund, which is hereby created, to be used for the 2301
purposes specified in division (F) of this section and for the 2302
operation and maintenance of the garage. All investment earnings 2303
of the fund shall be credited to the fund.2304

       (2) There is hereby created the parking garage automated 2305
equipment fund, which shall be in the custody of the treasurer of 2306
state but shall not be part of the state treasury. Money in the 2307
fund shall be used to purchase the automated teller machine 2308
quality dollar bills needed for operation of the parking garage 2309
automated equipment. The fund shall consist of fees, receipts, or 2310
revenues received by the board from the state underground parking 2311
garage; provided, however, that the total amount deposited into 2312
the fund at any one time shall not exceed ten thousand dollars. 2313
All investment earnings of the fund shall be credited to the fund.2314

       (H) All donations received by the board shall be deposited 2315
into the state treasury to the credit of the capitol square 2316
renovation gift fund, which is hereby created. The fund shall be 2317
used by the board as follows:2318

       (1) To provide part or all of the funding related to 2319
construction, goods, or services for the renovation of the capitol 2320
square;2321

       (2) To purchase art, antiques, and artifacts for display at 2322
the capitol square;2323

       (3) To award contracts or make grants to organizations for 2324
educating the public regarding the historical background and 2325
governmental functions of the capitol square. Chapters 125., 127., 2326
and 153. and section 3517.13 of the Revised Code do not apply to 2327
purchases made exclusively from the fund, notwithstanding anything 2328
to the contrary in those chapters or that section. All investment 2329
earnings of the fund shall be credited to the fund.2330

       (I) Except as provided in divisions (G), (H), and (J) of this 2331
section, all fees, receipts, and revenues received by the board 2332
shall be deposited into the state treasury to the credit of the 2333
sale of goods and services fund, which is hereby created. Money 2334
credited to the fund shall be used solely to pay costs of the 2335
board other than those specified in divisions (F) and (G) of this 2336
section. All investment earnings of the fund shall be credited to 2337
the fund.2338

       (J) There is hereby created in the state treasury the capitol 2339
square improvement fund, to be used by the board to pay 2340
construction, renovation, and other costs related to the capitol 2341
square for which money is not otherwise available to the board. 2342
Whenever the board determines that there is a need to incur those 2343
costs and that the unencumbered, unobligated balance to the credit 2344
of the underground parking garage operating fund exceeds the 2345
amount needed for the purposes specified in division (F) of this 2346
section and for the operation and maintenance of the garage, the 2347
board may request the director of budget and management to 2348
transfer from the underground parking garage operating fund to the 2349
capitol square improvement fund the amount needed to pay such 2350
construction, renovation, or other costs. The director then shall 2351
transfer the amount needed from the excess balance of the 2352
underground parking garage operating fund.2353

       (K) As the operation and maintenance of the capitol square 2354
constitute essential government functions of a public purpose, the 2355
board shall not be required to pay taxes or assessments upon the 2356
square, upon any property acquired or used by the board under this 2357
section, or upon any income generated by the operation of the 2358
square.2359

       (L) As used in this section, "capitol square" means the 2360
capitol building, senate building, capitol atrium, capitol 2361
grounds, the state underground parking garage, and the warehouse 2362
owned by the board.2363

       (M) The capitol annex shall be known as the senate building.2364

       (N) Any person may possess a firearm in a motor vehicle in 2365
the state underground parking garage at the state capitol 2366
building, if the person's possession of the firearm in the motor 2367
vehicle is not in violation of section 2923.16 of the Revised Code 2368
or any other provision of the Revised Code. Any person may store 2369
or leave a firearm in a locked motor vehicle that is parked in the 2370
state underground parking garage at the state capitol building, if 2371
the person's transportation and possession of the firearm in the 2372
motor vehicle while traveling to the garage was not in violation 2373
of section 2923.16 of the Revised Code or any other provision of 2374
the Revised Code.2375

       Sec. 107.033. As part of the state budget the governor 2376
submits to the general assembly under section 107.03 of the 2377
Revised Code, the governor shall include the state appropriation 2378
limitations the general assembly shall not exceed when making 2379
aggregate general revenue fund appropriations for each respective 2380
fiscal year of the biennium covered by that budget. The aggregate 2381
general revenue fund appropriations the governor proposes in the 2382
state budget also shall not exceed those limitations for each 2383
respective fiscal year of the biennium covered by that budget.2384

        (A) For fiscal year 2008, the state appropriation limitation 2385
is the sum of the following:2386

        (1) The aggregate general revenue fund appropriations for 2387
fiscal year 2007; plus2388

       (2) The aggregate general revenue fund appropriations for 2389
fiscal year 2007 multiplied by either three and one-half per cent, 2390
or the sum of the rate of inflation plus the rate of population 2391
change, whichever is greater.2392

       (B) For each fiscal year thereafter that is not a recast 2393
fiscal year, the state appropriation limitation is the sum of the 2394
following:2395

       (1) The state appropriation limitation for the previous 2396
fiscal year; plus2397

       (2) The state appropriation limitation for the previous 2398
fiscal year multiplied by either three and one-half per cent, or 2399
the sum of the rate of inflation plus the rate of population 2400
change, whichever is greater.2401

       (C) For each recast fiscal year, the state appropriation 2402
limitation is the sum of the following:2403

       (1) The aggregate general revenue fund appropriations for the 2404
previous fiscal year; plus2405

       (2) The aggregate general revenue fund appropriations for the 2406
previous fiscal year multiplied by either three and one-half per 2407
cent, or the sum of the rate of inflation plus the rate of 2408
population change, whichever is greater.2409

       (D) The state appropriation limitation for a fiscal year 2410
shall be increased by the amount of a nongeneral revenue fund 2411
appropriation made in the immediately preceding fiscal year, if 2412
all of the following apply to the nongeneral revenue fund 2413
appropriation:2414

       (1) It was made on or after July 1, 2013.2415

       (2) It is included in the aggregate general revenue fund 2416
appropriations proposed for that fiscal year.2417

       (3) It is being made for the first time from the general 2418
revenue fund.2419

       Sec. 107.12. (A) As used in this section, "organization" 2420
means a faith-based or other organization that is exempt from 2421
federal income taxation under section 501(c)(3) of the "Internal 2422
Revenue Code of 1986," 100 Stat. 2085, 26 U.S.C. 1, as amended, 2423
and provides charitable services to needy residents of this state.2424

       (B) There is hereby established within the office of the 2425
governor the governor's office of faith-based and community 2426
initiatives. The office shall:2427

       (1) Serve as a clearinghouse of information on federal, 2428
state, and local funding for charitable services performed by 2429
organizations;2430

       (2) Encourage organizations to seek public funding for their 2431
charitable services;2432

       (3) Assist local, state, and federal agencies in coordinating 2433
their activities to secure maximum use of funds and efforts that 2434
benefit people receiving charitable services from organizations;2435

       (4) Advise the governor, general assembly, and the advisory 2436
board of the governor's office of faith-based and community 2437
initiatives on the barriers that exist to collaboration between 2438
organizations and governmental entities and on ways to remove the 2439
barriers.2440

       (C) The governor shall appoint an executive director and such 2441
other staff as may be necessary to manage the office and perform 2442
or oversee the performance of the duties of the office. Within 2443
sixty days after being appointed, and every twelve months 2444
thereafter, the executive director shall distribute to the 2445
advisory board and review with the board a strategic plan. The 2446
executive director shall report to the board at least quarterly on 2447
proposed initiatives and policies. A report shall include the 2448
condition of the budget and the finances of the office.2449

       (D)(1) There is hereby created the advisory board of the 2450
governor's office of faith-based and community initiatives. The 2451
board shall consist of the following members:2452

       (a) The directors of aging, alcohol and drug addiction 2453
services, rehabilitation and correction, health, job and family 2454
services, developmental disabilities, mental healthmental health 2455
and addiction services, and youth services, or their designees;2456

       (b) The speaker of the house of representatives shall appoint 2457
to the board two members of the house of representatives, not more 2458
than one of whom shall be from the same political party and at 2459
least one of whom shall be from the legislative black caucus. The 2460
president of the senate shall appoint to the board two members of 2461
the senate, not more than one of whom shall be from the same 2462
political party.2463

       (c) The governor, the speaker of the house of 2464
representatives, and the president of the senate shall each 2465
appoint to the board three representatives of the nonprofit, 2466
faith-based and other nonprofit community.2467

       (2) Terms of the office shall be one year. Any vacancy that 2468
occurs on the board shall be filled in the same manner as the 2469
original appointment. 2470

       (3) Members of the board are not entitled to compensation, 2471
but the members appointed by the governor, the speaker of the 2472
house of representatives, and the president of the senate who are 2473
representatives of the nonprofit, faith-based and other nonprofit 2474
community shall be reimbursed for their actual and necessary 2475
expenses that are incurred in relation to board meetings.2476

       (4) The board shall be presided over by a chairperson and a 2477
vice-chairperson, who shall be the members of the board who are 2478
also members of the house of representatives or the senate. 2479
Annually on the first day of January, the chairpersonship and 2480
vice-chairpersonship shall alternate between the members of the 2481
house of representatives and the senate.2482

       (E) The board shall have the following duties:2483

       (1) Provide direction, guidance, and oversight to the office;2484

       (2) Assist in the dissemination of information about, and in 2485
the stimulation of public awareness of, the service programs 2486
supported by the office;2487

       (3) Review the budget and finances of the office, proposed 2488
initiatives and policies, and the executive director's annual 2489
strategic plan at board meetings;2490

       (4) Provide feedback for and proposed modifications of the 2491
executive director's strategic plan. Within forty-five days after 2492
submitting a strategic plan, the executive director shall contact 2493
each advisory board member to obtain feedback. With the approval 2494
of the advisory board chairperson, the executive director shall 2495
lead a strategic plan discussion at the first board meeting 2496
following the distribution of the strategic plan.2497

       (5) Publish a report of its activities and accomplishments on 2498
or before the first day of August of each year, and deliver copies 2499
of the report to the governor, the speaker and minority leader of 2500
the house of representatives, and the president and minority 2501
leader of the senate.2502

       (F) No member of the board or organization that the member is 2503
affiliated or involved with is eligible to receive any grant that 2504
the office administers or assists in administering.2505

       Sec. 109.06.  Before entering upon the discharge of the 2506
duties of his office, the attorney general shall give a bond to 2507
the state in the sum of five thousand dollars, with two or more 2508
sureties approved by the governora surety authorized to do 2509
business in the state, conditioned for the faithful discharge of 2510
the duties of histhe office of attorney general. Such bond, with 2511
the approval of the governor and the oath of office indorsed 2512
thereon, shall be deposited with and kept by the secretary of 2513
state and kept in histhe secretary of state's office.2514

       The first assistant attorney general shall give a bond to the 2515
state in the sum of five thousand dollars, and such other 2516
employees as are designated by the attorney general shall give a 2517
bond to the state in such amounts as the attorney general 2518
determines. Such bonds shall be approved by the attorney general, 2519
conditioned for the faithful discharge of the duties of their 2520
offices, and shall be deposited with and kept by the secretary of 2521
state and kept in histhe secretary of state's office.2522

       Sec. 109.36.  As used in this section and sections 109.361 to 2523
109.366 of the Revised Code:2524

       (A)(1) "Officer or employee" means any of the following:2525

       (a) A person who, at the time a cause of action against the 2526
person arises, is serving in an elected or appointed office or 2527
position with the state or is employed by the state.2528

       (b) A person that, at the time a cause of action against the 2529
person, partnership, or corporation arises, is rendering medical, 2530
nursing, dental, podiatric, optometric, physical therapeutic, 2531
psychiatric, or psychological services pursuant to a personal 2532
services contract or purchased service contract with a department, 2533
agency, or institution of the state.2534

       (c) A person that, at the time a cause of action against the 2535
person, partnership, or corporation arises, is rendering peer 2536
review, utilization review, or drug utilization review services in 2537
relation to medical, nursing, dental, podiatric, optometric, 2538
physical therapeutic, psychiatric, or psychological services 2539
pursuant to a personal services contract or purchased service 2540
contract with a department, agency, or institution of the state.2541

       (d) A person who, at the time a cause of action against the 2542
person arises, is rendering medical, nursing, dental, podiatric, 2543
optometric, physical therapeutic, psychiatric, or psychological 2544
services to patients in a state institution operated by the 2545
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services2546
pursuant to an agreement with the department.2547

       (2) "Officer or employee" does not include any person 2548
elected, appointed, or employed by any political subdivision of 2549
the state.2550

       (B) "State" means the state of Ohio, including but not 2551
limited to, the general assembly, the supreme court, courts of 2552
appeals, the offices of all elected state officers, and all 2553
departments, boards, offices, commissions, agencies, institutions, 2554
and other instrumentalities of the state of Ohio. "State" does not 2555
include political subdivisions.2556

       (C) "Political subdivisions" of the state means municipal 2557
corporations, townships, counties, school districts, and all other 2558
bodies corporate and politic responsible for governmental 2559
activities only in geographical areas smaller than that of the 2560
state.2561

       (D) "Employer" means the general assembly, the supreme court, 2562
courts of appeals, any office of an elected state officer, or any 2563
department, board, office, commission, agency, institution, or 2564
other instrumentality of the state of Ohio that employs or 2565
contracts with an officer or employee or to which an officer or 2566
employee is elected or appointed.2567

       Sec. 109.57.  (A)(1) The superintendent of the bureau of 2568
criminal identification and investigation shall procure from 2569
wherever procurable and file for record photographs, pictures, 2570
descriptions, fingerprints, measurements, and other information 2571
that may be pertinent of all persons who have been convicted of 2572
committing within this state a felony, any crime constituting a 2573
misdemeanor on the first offense and a felony on subsequent 2574
offenses, or any misdemeanor described in division (A)(1)(a), 2575
(A)(5)(a), or (A)(7)(a) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code, of 2576
all children under eighteen years of age who have been adjudicated 2577
delinquent children for committing within this state an act that 2578
would be a felony or an offense of violence if committed by an 2579
adult or who have been convicted of or pleaded guilty to 2580
committing within this state a felony or an offense of violence, 2581
and of all well-known and habitual criminals. The person in charge 2582
of any county, multicounty, municipal, municipal-county, or 2583
multicounty-municipal jail or workhouse, community-based 2584
correctional facility, halfway house, alternative residential 2585
facility, or state correctional institution and the person in 2586
charge of any state institution having custody of a person 2587
suspected of having committed a felony, any crime constituting a 2588
misdemeanor on the first offense and a felony on subsequent 2589
offenses, or any misdemeanor described in division (A)(1)(a), 2590
(A)(5)(a), or (A)(7)(a) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code or 2591
having custody of a child under eighteen years of age with respect 2592
to whom there is probable cause to believe that the child may have 2593
committed an act that would be a felony or an offense of violence 2594
if committed by an adult shall furnish such material to the 2595
superintendent of the bureau. Fingerprints, photographs, or other 2596
descriptive information of a child who is under eighteen years of 2597
age, has not been arrested or otherwise taken into custody for 2598
committing an act that would be a felony or an offense of violence 2599
who is not in any other category of child specified in this 2600
division, if committed by an adult, has not been adjudicated a 2601
delinquent child for committing an act that would be a felony or 2602
an offense of violence if committed by an adult, has not been 2603
convicted of or pleaded guilty to committing a felony or an 2604
offense of violence, and is not a child with respect to whom there 2605
is probable cause to believe that the child may have committed an 2606
act that would be a felony or an offense of violence if committed 2607
by an adult shall not be procured by the superintendent or 2608
furnished by any person in charge of any county, multicounty, 2609
municipal, municipal-county, or multicounty-municipal jail or 2610
workhouse, community-based correctional facility, halfway house, 2611
alternative residential facility, or state correctional 2612
institution, except as authorized in section 2151.313 of the 2613
Revised Code. 2614

       (2) Every clerk of a court of record in this state, other 2615
than the supreme court or a court of appeals, shall send to the 2616
superintendent of the bureau a weekly report containing a summary 2617
of each case involving a felony, involving any crime constituting 2618
a misdemeanor on the first offense and a felony on subsequent 2619
offenses, involving a misdemeanor described in division (A)(1)(a), 2620
(A)(5)(a), or (A)(7)(a) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code, or 2621
involving an adjudication in a case in which a child under 2622
eighteen years of age was alleged to be a delinquent child for 2623
committing an act that would be a felony or an offense of violence 2624
if committed by an adult. The clerk of the court of common pleas 2625
shall include in the report and summary the clerk sends under this 2626
division all information described in divisions (A)(2)(a) to (f) 2627
of this section regarding a case before the court of appeals that 2628
is served by that clerk. The summary shall be written on the 2629
standard forms furnished by the superintendent pursuant to 2630
division (B) of this section and shall include the following 2631
information: 2632

       (a) The incident tracking number contained on the standard 2633
forms furnished by the superintendent pursuant to division (B) of 2634
this section; 2635

       (b) The style and number of the case; 2636

       (c) The date of arrest, offense, summons, or arraignment; 2637

       (d) The date that the person was convicted of or pleaded 2638
guilty to the offense, adjudicated a delinquent child for 2639
committing the act that would be a felony or an offense of 2640
violence if committed by an adult, found not guilty of the 2641
offense, or found not to be a delinquent child for committing an 2642
act that would be a felony or an offense of violence if committed 2643
by an adult, the date of an entry dismissing the charge, an entry 2644
declaring a mistrial of the offense in which the person is 2645
discharged, an entry finding that the person or child is not 2646
competent to stand trial, or an entry of a nolle prosequi, or the 2647
date of any other determination that constitutes final resolution 2648
of the case; 2649

       (e) A statement of the original charge with the section of 2650
the Revised Code that was alleged to be violated; 2651

       (f) If the person or child was convicted, pleaded guilty, or 2652
was adjudicated a delinquent child, the sentence or terms of 2653
probation imposed or any other disposition of the offender or the 2654
delinquent child. 2655

       If the offense involved the disarming of a law enforcement 2656
officer or an attempt to disarm a law enforcement officer, the 2657
clerk shall clearly state that fact in the summary, and the 2658
superintendent shall ensure that a clear statement of that fact is 2659
placed in the bureau's records. 2660

       (3) The superintendent shall cooperate with and assist 2661
sheriffs, chiefs of police, and other law enforcement officers in 2662
the establishment of a complete system of criminal identification 2663
and in obtaining fingerprints and other means of identification of 2664
all persons arrested on a charge of a felony, any crime 2665
constituting a misdemeanor on the first offense and a felony on 2666
subsequent offenses, or a misdemeanor described in division 2667
(A)(1)(a), (A)(5)(a), or (A)(7)(a) of section 109.572 of the 2668
Revised Code and of all children under eighteen years of age 2669
arrested or otherwise taken into custody for committing an act 2670
that would be a felony or an offense of violence if committed by 2671
an adult. The superintendent also shall file for record the 2672
fingerprint impressions of all persons confined in a county, 2673
multicounty, municipal, municipal-county, or multicounty-municipal 2674
jail or workhouse, community-based correctional facility, halfway 2675
house, alternative residential facility, or state correctional 2676
institution for the violation of state laws and of all children 2677
under eighteen years of age who are confined in a county, 2678
multicounty, municipal, municipal-county, or multicounty-municipal 2679
jail or workhouse, community-based correctional facility, halfway 2680
house, alternative residential facility, or state correctional 2681
institution or in any facility for delinquent children for 2682
committing an act that would be a felony or an offense of violence 2683
if committed by an adult, and any other information that the 2684
superintendent may receive from law enforcement officials of the 2685
state and its political subdivisions. 2686

       (4) The superintendent shall carry out Chapter 2950. of the 2687
Revised Code with respect to the registration of persons who are 2688
convicted of or plead guilty to a sexually oriented offense or a 2689
child-victim oriented offense and with respect to all other duties 2690
imposed on the bureau under that chapter. 2691

       (5) The bureau shall perform centralized recordkeeping 2692
functions for criminal history records and services in this state 2693
for purposes of the national crime prevention and privacy compact 2694
set forth in section 109.571 of the Revised Code and is the 2695
criminal history record repository as defined in that section for 2696
purposes of that compact. The superintendent or the 2697
superintendent's designee is the compact officer for purposes of 2698
that compact and shall carry out the responsibilities of the 2699
compact officer specified in that compact. 2700

       (B) The superintendent shall prepare and furnish to every 2701
county, multicounty, municipal, municipal-county, or 2702
multicounty-municipal jail or workhouse, community-based 2703
correctional facility, halfway house, alternative residential 2704
facility, or state correctional institution and to every clerk of 2705
a court in this state specified in division (A)(2) of this section 2706
standard forms for reporting the information required under 2707
division (A) of this section. The standard forms that the 2708
superintendent prepares pursuant to this division may be in a 2709
tangible format, in an electronic format, or in both tangible 2710
formats and electronic formats. 2711

       (C)(1) The superintendent may operate a center for 2712
electronic, automated, or other data processing for the storage 2713
and retrieval of information, data, and statistics pertaining to 2714
criminals and to children under eighteen years of age who are 2715
adjudicated delinquent children for committing an act that would 2716
be a felony or an offense of violence if committed by an adult, 2717
criminal activity, crime prevention, law enforcement, and criminal 2718
justice, and may establish and operate a statewide communications 2719
network to be known as the Ohio law enforcement gateway to gather 2720
and disseminate information, data, and statistics for the use of 2721
law enforcement agencies and for other uses specified in this 2722
division. The superintendent may gather, store, retrieve, and 2723
disseminate information, data, and statistics that pertain to 2724
children who are under eighteen years of age and that are gathered 2725
pursuant to sections 109.57 to 109.61 of the Revised Code together 2726
with information, data, and statistics that pertain to adults and 2727
that are gathered pursuant to those sections. 2728

       (2) The superintendent or the superintendent's designee shall 2729
gather information of the nature described in division (C)(1) of 2730
this section that pertains to the offense and delinquency history 2731
of a person who has been convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or been 2732
adjudicated a delinquent child for committing a sexually oriented 2733
offense or a child-victim oriented offense for inclusion in the 2734
state registry of sex offenders and child-victim offenders 2735
maintained pursuant to division (A)(1) of section 2950.13 of the 2736
Revised Code and in the internet database operated pursuant to 2737
division (A)(13) of that section and for possible inclusion in the 2738
internet database operated pursuant to division (A)(11) of that 2739
section. 2740

        (3) In addition to any other authorized use of information, 2741
data, and statistics of the nature described in division (C)(1) of 2742
this section, the superintendent or the superintendent's designee 2743
may provide and exchange the information, data, and statistics 2744
pursuant to the national crime prevention and privacy compact as 2745
described in division (A)(5) of this section. 2746

       (4) The attorney general may adopt rules under Chapter 119. 2747
of the Revised Code establishing guidelines for the operation of 2748
and participation in the Ohio law enforcement gateway. The rules 2749
may include criteria for granting and restricting access to 2750
information gathered and disseminated through the Ohio law 2751
enforcement gateway. The attorney general shall permit the state 2752
medical board and board of nursing to access and view, but not 2753
alter, information gathered and disseminated through the Ohio law 2754
enforcement gateway.2755

       The attorney general may appoint a steering committee to 2756
advise the attorney general in the operation of the Ohio law 2757
enforcement gateway that is comprised of persons who are 2758
representatives of the criminal justice agencies in this state 2759
that use the Ohio law enforcement gateway and is chaired by the 2760
superintendent or the superintendent's designee.2761

       (D)(1) The following are not public records under section 2762
149.43 of the Revised Code:2763

       (a) Information and materials furnished to the superintendent 2764
pursuant to division (A) of this section;2765

       (b) Information, data, and statistics gathered or 2766
disseminated through the Ohio law enforcement gateway pursuant to 2767
division (C)(1) of this section;2768

       (c) Information and materials furnished to any board or 2769
person under division (F) or (G) of this section.2770

       (2) The superintendent or the superintendent's designee shall 2771
gather and retain information so furnished under division (A) of 2772
this section that pertains to the offense and delinquency history 2773
of a person who has been convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or been 2774
adjudicated a delinquent child for committing a sexually oriented 2775
offense or a child-victim oriented offense for the purposes 2776
described in division (C)(2) of this section. 2777

       (E)(1) The attorney general shall adopt rules, in accordance 2778
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code and subject to division 2779
(E)(2) of this section, setting forth the procedure by which a 2780
person may receive or release information gathered by the 2781
superintendent pursuant to division (A) of this section. A 2782
reasonable fee may be charged for this service. If a temporary 2783
employment service submits a request for a determination of 2784
whether a person the service plans to refer to an employment 2785
position has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to an offense 2786
listed or described in division (A)(1), (2), or (3) of section 2787
109.572 of the Revised Code, the request shall be treated as a 2788
single request and only one fee shall be charged. 2789

       (2) Except as otherwise provided in this division, a rule 2790
adopted under division (E)(1) of this section may provide only for 2791
the release of information gathered pursuant to division (A) of 2792
this section that relates to the conviction of a person, or a 2793
person's plea of guilty to, a criminal offense. The superintendent 2794
shall not release, and the attorney general shall not adopt any 2795
rule under division (E)(1) of this section that permits the 2796
release of, any information gathered pursuant to division (A) of 2797
this section that relates to an adjudication of a child as a 2798
delinquent child, or that relates to a criminal conviction of a 2799
person under eighteen years of age if the person's case was 2800
transferred back to a juvenile court under division (B)(2) or (3) 2801
of section 2152.121 of the Revised Code and the juvenile court 2802
imposed a disposition or serious youthful offender disposition 2803
upon the person under either division, unless either of the 2804
following applies with respect to the adjudication or conviction:2805

       (a) The adjudication or conviction was for a violation of 2806
section 2903.01 or 2903.02 of the Revised Code.2807

       (b) The adjudication or conviction was for a sexually 2808
oriented offense, the juvenile court was required to classify the 2809
child a juvenile offender registrant for that offense under 2810
section 2152.82, 2152.83, or 2152.86 of the Revised Code, and that 2811
classification has not been removed.2812

       (F)(1) As used in division (F)(2) of this section, "head 2813
start agency" means an entity in this state that has been approved 2814
to be an agency for purposes of subchapter II of the "Community 2815
Economic Development Act," 95 Stat. 489 (1981), 42 U.S.C.A. 9831, 2816
as amended. 2817

       (2)(a) In addition to or in conjunction with any request that 2818
is required to be made under section 109.572, 2151.86, 3301.32, 2819
3301.541, division (C) of section 3310.58, or section 3319.39, 2820
3319.391, 3327.10, 3701.881, 5104.012, 5104.013, 5123.081, or 2821
5153.111 of the Revised Code or that is made under section 2822
3314.41, 3319.392, 3326.25, or 3328.20 of the Revised Code, the 2823
board of education of any school district; the director of 2824
developmental disabilities; any county board of developmental 2825
disabilities; any provider or subcontractor as defined in section 2826
5123.081 of the Revised Code; the chief administrator of any 2827
chartered nonpublic school; the chief administrator of a 2828
registered private provider that is not also a chartered nonpublic 2829
school; the chief administrator of any home health agency; the 2830
chief administrator of or person operating any child day-care 2831
center, type A family day-care home, or type B family day-care 2832
home licensed or certified under Chapter 5104. of the Revised 2833
Code; the administrator of any type C family day-care home 2834
certified pursuant to Section 1 of Sub. H.B. 62 of the 121st 2835
general assembly or Section 5 of Am. Sub. S.B. 160 of the 121st 2836
general assembly; the chief administrator of any head start 2837
agency; the executive director of a public children services 2838
agency; a private company described in section 3314.41, 3319.392, 2839
3326.25, or 3328.20 of the Revised Code; or an employer described 2840
in division (J)(2) of section 3327.10 of the Revised Code may 2841
request that the superintendent of the bureau investigate and 2842
determine, with respect to any individual who has applied for 2843
employment in any position after October 2, 1989, or any 2844
individual wishing to apply for employment with a board of 2845
education may request, with regard to the individual, whether the 2846
bureau has any information gathered under division (A) of this 2847
section that pertains to that individual. On receipt of the 2848
request, subject to division (E)(2) of this section, the 2849
superintendent shall determine whether that information exists 2850
and, upon request of the person, board, or entity requesting 2851
information, also shall request from the federal bureau of 2852
investigation any criminal records it has pertaining to that 2853
individual. The superintendent or the superintendent's designee 2854
also may request criminal history records from other states or the 2855
federal government pursuant to the national crime prevention and 2856
privacy compact set forth in section 109.571 of the Revised Code. 2857
Within thirty days of the date that the superintendent receives a 2858
request, subject to division (E)(2) of this section, the 2859
superintendent shall send to the board, entity, or person a report 2860
of any information that the superintendent determines exists, 2861
including information contained in records that have been sealed 2862
under section 2953.32 of the Revised Code, and, within thirty days 2863
of its receipt, subject to division (E)(2) of this section, shall 2864
send the board, entity, or person a report of any information 2865
received from the federal bureau of investigation, other than 2866
information the dissemination of which is prohibited by federal 2867
law. 2868

       (b) When a board of education or a registered private 2869
provider is required to receive information under this section as 2870
a prerequisite to employment of an individual pursuant to division 2871
(C) of section 3310.58 or section 3319.39 of the Revised Code, it 2872
may accept a certified copy of records that were issued by the 2873
bureau of criminal identification and investigation and that are 2874
presented by an individual applying for employment with the 2875
district in lieu of requesting that information itself. In such a 2876
case, the board shall accept the certified copy issued by the 2877
bureau in order to make a photocopy of it for that individual's 2878
employment application documents and shall return the certified 2879
copy to the individual. In a case of that nature, a district or 2880
provider only shall accept a certified copy of records of that 2881
nature within one year after the date of their issuance by the 2882
bureau. 2883

       (c) Notwithstanding division (F)(2)(a) of this section, in 2884
the case of a request under section 3319.39, 3319.391, or 3327.10 2885
of the Revised Code only for criminal records maintained by the 2886
federal bureau of investigation, the superintendent shall not 2887
determine whether any information gathered under division (A) of 2888
this section exists on the person for whom the request is made.2889

       (3) The state board of education may request, with respect to 2890
any individual who has applied for employment after October 2, 2891
1989, in any position with the state board or the department of 2892
education, any information that a school district board of 2893
education is authorized to request under division (F)(2) of this 2894
section, and the superintendent of the bureau shall proceed as if 2895
the request has been received from a school district board of 2896
education under division (F)(2) of this section. 2897

       (4) When the superintendent of the bureau receives a request 2898
for information under section 3319.291 of the Revised Code, the 2899
superintendent shall proceed as if the request has been received 2900
from a school district board of education and shall comply with 2901
divisions (F)(2)(a) and (c) of this section. 2902

       (5) When a recipient of a classroom reading improvement grant 2903
paid under section 3301.86 of the Revised Code requests, with 2904
respect to any individual who applies to participate in providing 2905
any program or service funded in whole or in part by the grant, 2906
the information that a school district board of education is 2907
authorized to request under division (F)(2)(a) of this section, 2908
the superintendent of the bureau shall proceed as if the request 2909
has been received from a school district board of education under 2910
division (F)(2)(a) of this section. 2911

       (G) In addition to or in conjunction with any request that is 2912
required to be made under section 3701.881, 3712.09, or 3721.121 2913
of the Revised Code with respect to an individual who has applied 2914
for employment in a position that involves providing direct care 2915
to an older adult or adult resident, the chief administrator of a 2916
home health agency, hospice care program, home licensed under 2917
Chapter 3721. of the Revised Code, or adult day-care program 2918
operated pursuant to rules adopted under section 3721.04 of the 2919
Revised Code may request that the superintendent of the bureau 2920
investigate and determine, with respect to any individual who has 2921
applied after January 27, 1997, for employment in a position that 2922
does not involve providing direct care to an older adult or adult 2923
resident, whether the bureau has any information gathered under 2924
division (A) of this section that pertains to that individual. 2925

       In addition to or in conjunction with any request that is 2926
required to be made under section 173.27 of the Revised Code with 2927
respect to an individual who has applied for employment in a 2928
position that involves providing ombudsperson services to 2929
residents of long-term care facilities or recipients of 2930
community-based long-term care services, the state long-term care 2931
ombudsperson, ombudsperson's designee, orthe director of health2932
aging, a regional long-term care ombudsperson, or the designee of 2933
the ombudsperson, director, or program may request that the 2934
superintendent investigate and determine, with respect to any 2935
individual who has applied for employment in a position that does 2936
not involve providing such ombudsperson services, whether the 2937
bureau has any information gathered under division (A) of this 2938
section that pertains to that applicant. 2939

       In addition to or in conjunction with any request that is 2940
required to be made under section 173.394173.38 of the Revised 2941
Code with respect to an individual who has applied for employment 2942
in a direct-care position that involves providing direct care to 2943
an individual, the chief administrator of a community-based 2944
long-term care agencyprovider, as defined in section 173.39 of 2945
the Revised Code, may request that the superintendent investigate 2946
and determine, with respect to any individual who has applied for 2947
employment in a position that doesis not involve providing direct 2948
carea direct-care position, whether the bureau has any 2949
information gathered under division (A) of this section that 2950
pertains to that applicant. 2951

        In addition to or in conjunction with any request that is 2952
required to be made under section 3712.09 of the Revised Code with 2953
respect to an individual who has applied for employment in a 2954
position that involves providing direct care to a pediatric 2955
respite care patient, the chief administrator of a pediatric 2956
respite care program may request that the superintendent of the 2957
bureau investigate and determine, with respect to any individual 2958
who has applied for employment in a position that does not involve 2959
providing direct care to a pediatric respite care patient, whether 2960
the bureau has any information gathered under division (A) of this 2961
section that pertains to that individual.2962

       On receipt of a request under this division, the 2963
superintendent shall determine whether that information exists 2964
and, on request of the individual requesting information, shall 2965
also request from the federal bureau of investigation any criminal 2966
records it has pertaining to the applicant. The superintendent or 2967
the superintendent's designee also may request criminal history 2968
records from other states or the federal government pursuant to 2969
the national crime prevention and privacy compact set forth in 2970
section 109.571 of the Revised Code. Within thirty days of the 2971
date a request is received, subject to division (E)(2) of this 2972
section, the superintendent shall send to the requester a report 2973
of any information determined to exist, including information 2974
contained in records that have been sealed under section 2953.32 2975
of the Revised Code, and, within thirty days of its receipt, shall 2976
send the requester a report of any information received from the 2977
federal bureau of investigation, other than information the 2978
dissemination of which is prohibited by federal law. 2979

       (H) Information obtained by a government entity or person 2980
under this section is confidential and shall not be released or 2981
disseminated. 2982

       (I) The superintendent may charge a reasonable fee for 2983
providing information or criminal records under division (F)(2) or 2984
(G) of this section. 2985

       (J) As used in this section:2986

       (1) "Pediatric respite care program" and "pediatric respite 2987
care patient" have the same meanings as in section 3712.01 of the 2988
Revised Code.2989

       (2) "Sexually oriented offense" and "child-victim oriented 2990
offense" have the same meanings as in section 2950.01 of the 2991
Revised Code.2992

       (3) "Registered private provider" means a nonpublic school or 2993
entity registered with the superintendent of public instruction 2994
under section 3310.41 of the Revised Code to participate in the 2995
autism scholarship program or section 3310.58 of the Revised Code 2996
to participate in the Jon Peterson special needs scholarship 2997
program.2998

       Sec. 109.572. (A)(1) Upon receipt of a request pursuant to 2999
section 121.08, 3301.32, 3301.541, or 3319.39 of the Revised Code, 3000
a completed form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of this 3001
section, and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the 3002
manner described in division (C)(2) of this section, the 3003
superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and 3004
investigation shall conduct a criminal records check in the manner 3005
described in division (B) of this section to determine whether any 3006
information exists that indicates that the person who is the 3007
subject of the request previously has been convicted of or pleaded 3008
guilty to any of the following:3009

       (a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 3010
2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.34, 3011
2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.05, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.04, 2907.05, 3012
2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.21, 2907.22, 2907.23, 3013
2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2911.01, 3014
2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2919.12, 2919.22, 2919.24, 2919.25, 3015
2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.04, 2925.05, 3016
2925.06, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code, felonious sexual 3017
penetration in violation of former section 2907.12 of the Revised 3018
Code, a violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it 3019
existed prior to July 1, 1996, a violation of section 2919.23 of 3020
the Revised Code that would have been a violation of section 3021
2905.04 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996, 3022
had the violation been committed prior to that date, or a 3023
violation of section 2925.11 of the Revised Code that is not a 3024
minor drug possession offense;3025

       (b) A violation of an existing or former law of this state, 3026
any other state, or the United States that is substantially 3027
equivalent to any of the offenses listed in division (A)(1)(a) of 3028
this section;3029

       (c) If the request is made pursuant to section 3319.39 of the 3030
Revised Code for an applicant who is a teacher, any offense 3031
specified in section 3319.31 of the Revised Code.3032

       (2) On receipt of a request pursuant to section 3712.09 or 3033
3721.121 of the Revised Code, a completed form prescribed pursuant 3034
to division (C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint 3035
impressions obtained in the manner described in division (C)(2) of 3036
this section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal 3037
identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records 3038
check with respect to any person who has applied for employment in 3039
a position for which a criminal records check is required by those 3040
sections. The superintendent shall conduct the criminal records 3041
check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to 3042
determine whether any information exists that indicates that the 3043
person who is the subject of the request previously has been 3044
convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the following:3045

       (a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 3046
2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.34, 3047
2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.11, 2905.12, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.05, 3048
2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.12, 2907.25, 2907.31, 3049
2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 3050
2911.12, 2911.13, 2913.02, 2913.03, 2913.04, 2913.11, 2913.21, 3051
2913.31, 2913.40, 2913.43, 2913.47, 2913.51, 2919.25, 2921.36, 3052
2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.11, 2925.13, 3053
2925.22, 2925.23, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code;3054

       (b) An existing or former law of this state, any other state, 3055
or the United States that is substantially equivalent to any of 3056
the offenses listed in division (A)(2)(a) of this section.3057

       (3) On receipt of a request pursuant to section 173.27, 3058
173.394173.38, 3701.881, 5111.0325164.34, 5111.0335164.341, 3059
5111.0345164.342, 5123.081, or 5123.169 of the Revised Code, a 3060
completed form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of this 3061
section, and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the 3062
manner described in division (C)(2) of this section, the 3063
superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and 3064
investigation shall conduct a criminal records check of the person 3065
for whom the request is made. The superintendent shall conduct the 3066
criminal records check in the manner described in division (B) of 3067
this section to determine whether any information exists that 3068
indicates that the person who is the subject of the request 3069
previously has been convicted of, has pleaded guilty to, or 3070
(except in the case of a request pursuant to section 5164.34, 3071
5164.341, or 5164.342 of the Revised Code) has been found eligible 3072
for intervention in lieu of conviction for any of the following, 3073
regardless of the date of the conviction, the date of entry of the 3074
guilty plea, or (except in the case of a request pursuant to 3075
section 5164.34, 5164.341, or 5164.342 of the Revised Code) the 3076
date the person was found eligible for intervention in lieu of 3077
conviction:3078

       (a) A violation of section 959.13, 959.131, 2903.01, 2903.02, 3079
2903.03, 2903.04, 2903.041, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.15, 3080
2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.211, 2903.22, 2903.34, 2903.341, 2905.01, 3081
2905.02, 2905.05, 2905.11, 2905.12, 2905.32, 2905.33, 2907.02, 3082
2907.03, 2907.04, 2907.05, 2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 3083
2907.21, 2907.22, 2907.23, 2907.24, 2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 3084
2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2907.33, 2909.02, 2909.03, 2909.04, 3085
2909.22, 2909.23, 2909.24, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 3086
2911.13, 2913.02, 2913.03, 2913.04, 2913.05, 2913.11, 2913.21, 3087
2913.31, 2913.32, 2913.40, 2913.41, 2913.42, 2913.43, 2913.44, 3088
2913.441, 2913.45, 2913.46, 2913.47, 2913.48, 2913.49, 2913.51, 3089
2917.01, 2917.02, 2917.03, 2917.31, 2919.12, 2919.121, 2919.123, 3090
2919.22, 2919.23, 2919.24, 2919.25, 2921.03, 2921.11, 2921.12, 3091
2921.13, 2921.21, 2921.24, 2921.32, 2921.321, 2921.34, 2921.35, 3092
2921.36, 2921.51, 2923.12, 2923.122, 2923.123, 2923.13, 2923.161, 3093
2923.162, 2923.21, 2923.32, 2923.42, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.04, 3094
2925.041, 2925.05, 2925.06, 2925.09, 2925.11, 2925.13, 2925.14, 3095
2925.141, 2925.22, 2925.23, 2925.24, 2925.36, 2925.55, 2925.56, 3096
2927.12, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code;3097

       (b) Felonious sexual penetration in violation of former 3098
section 2907.12 of the Revised Code;3099

       (c) A violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it 3100
existed prior to July 1, 1996;3101

       (d) A violation of section 2923.01, 2923.02, or 2923.03 of 3102
the Revised Code when the underlying offense that is the object of 3103
the conspiracy, attempt, or complicity is one of the offenses 3104
listed in divisions (A)(3)(a) to (c) of this section;3105

       (e) A violation of an existing or former municipal ordinance 3106
or law of this state, any other state, or the United States that 3107
is substantially equivalent to any of the offenses listed in 3108
divisions (A)(3)(a) to (d) of this section.3109

       (4) On receipt of a request pursuant to section 2151.86 of 3110
the Revised Code, a completed form prescribed pursuant to division 3111
(C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions 3112
obtained in the manner described in division (C)(2) of this 3113
section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal 3114
identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records 3115
check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to 3116
determine whether any information exists that indicates that the 3117
person who is the subject of the request previously has been 3118
convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the following:3119

       (a) A violation of section 959.13, 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 3120
2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.15, 2903.16, 2903.21, 3121
2903.211, 2903.22, 2903.34, 2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.05, 2907.02, 3122
2907.03, 2907.04, 2907.05, 2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 3123
2907.21, 2907.22, 2907.23, 2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 3124
2907.322, 2907.323, 2909.02, 2909.03, 2909.22, 2909.23, 2909.24, 3125
2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2913.49, 2917.01, 2917.02, 3126
2919.12, 2919.22, 2919.24, 2919.25, 2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 3127
2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.04, 2925.05, 2925.06, 2927.12, or 3716.11 3128
of the Revised Code, a violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised 3129
Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996, a violation of section 3130
2919.23 of the Revised Code that would have been a violation of 3131
section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 3132
1996, had the violation been committed prior to that date, a 3133
violation of section 2925.11 of the Revised Code that is not a 3134
minor drug possession offense, two or more OVI or OVUAC violations 3135
committed within the three years immediately preceding the 3136
submission of the application or petition that is the basis of the 3137
request, or felonious sexual penetration in violation of former 3138
section 2907.12 of the Revised Code;3139

       (b) A violation of an existing or former law of this state, 3140
any other state, or the United States that is substantially 3141
equivalent to any of the offenses listed in division (A)(4)(a) of 3142
this section.3143

       (5) Upon receipt of a request pursuant to section 5104.012 or 3144
5104.013 of the Revised Code, a completed form prescribed pursuant 3145
to division (C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint 3146
impressions obtained in the manner described in division (C)(2) of 3147
this section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal 3148
identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records 3149
check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to 3150
determine whether any information exists that indicates that the 3151
person who is the subject of the request has been convicted of or 3152
pleaded guilty to any of the following:3153

       (a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 3154
2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.22, 3155
2903.34, 2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.05, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.04, 3156
2907.05, 2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.21, 2907.22, 3157
2907.23, 2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 3158
2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2913.02, 2913.03, 2913.04, 3159
2913.041, 2913.05, 2913.06, 2913.11, 2913.21, 2913.31, 2913.32, 3160
2913.33, 2913.34, 2913.40, 2913.41, 2913.42, 2913.43, 2913.44, 3161
2913.441, 2913.45, 2913.46, 2913.47, 2913.48, 2913.49, 2919.12, 3162
2919.22, 2919.24, 2919.25, 2921.11, 2921.13, 2923.01, 2923.12, 3163
2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.04, 2925.05, 2925.06, or 3164
3716.11 of the Revised Code, felonious sexual penetration in 3165
violation of former section 2907.12 of the Revised Code, a 3166
violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it existed 3167
prior to July 1, 1996, a violation of section 2919.23 of the 3168
Revised Code that would have been a violation of section 2905.04 3169
of the Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996, had the 3170
violation been committed prior to that date, a violation of 3171
section 2925.11 of the Revised Code that is not a minor drug 3172
possession offense, a violation of section 2923.02 or 2923.03 of 3173
the Revised Code that relates to a crime specified in this 3174
division, or a second violation of section 4511.19 of the Revised 3175
Code within five years of the date of application for licensure or 3176
certification.3177

       (b) A violation of an existing or former law of this state, 3178
any other state, or the United States that is substantially 3179
equivalent to any of the offenses or violations described in 3180
division (A)(5)(a) of this section.3181

       (6) Upon receipt of a request pursuant to section 5153.111 of 3182
the Revised Code, a completed form prescribed pursuant to division 3183
(C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions 3184
obtained in the manner described in division (C)(2) of this 3185
section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal 3186
identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records 3187
check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to 3188
determine whether any information exists that indicates that the 3189
person who is the subject of the request previously has been 3190
convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the following:3191

       (a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 3192
2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.34, 3193
2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.05, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.04, 2907.05, 3194
2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.21, 2907.22, 2907.23, 3195
2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2909.02, 3196
2909.03, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2919.12, 2919.22, 3197
2919.24, 2919.25, 2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, 3198
2925.04, 2925.05, 2925.06, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code, 3199
felonious sexual penetration in violation of former section 3200
2907.12 of the Revised Code, a violation of section 2905.04 of the 3201
Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996, a violation of 3202
section 2919.23 of the Revised Code that would have been a 3203
violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it existed 3204
prior to July 1, 1996, had the violation been committed prior to 3205
that date, or a violation of section 2925.11 of the Revised Code 3206
that is not a minor drug possession offense;3207

       (b) A violation of an existing or former law of this state, 3208
any other state, or the United States that is substantially 3209
equivalent to any of the offenses listed in division (A)(6)(a) of 3210
this section.3211

       (7) On receipt of a request for a criminal records check from 3212
an individual pursuant to section 4749.03 or 4749.06 of the 3213
Revised Code, accompanied by a completed copy of the form 3214
prescribed in division (C)(1) of this section and a set of 3215
fingerprint impressions obtained in a manner described in division 3216
(C)(2) of this section, the superintendent of the bureau of 3217
criminal identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal 3218
records check in the manner described in division (B) of this 3219
section to determine whether any information exists indicating 3220
that the person who is the subject of the request has been 3221
convicted of or pleaded guilty to a felony in this state or in any 3222
other state. If the individual indicates that a firearm will be 3223
carried in the course of business, the superintendent shall 3224
require information from the federal bureau of investigation as 3225
described in division (B)(2) of this section. Subject to division 3226
(F) of this section, the superintendent shall report the findings 3227
of the criminal records check and any information the federal 3228
bureau of investigation provides to the director of public safety.3229

       (8) On receipt of a request pursuant to section 1321.37, 3230
1321.53, 1321.531, 1322.03, 1322.031, or 4763.05 of the Revised 3231
Code, a completed form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of 3232
this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the 3233
manner described in division (C)(2) of this section, the 3234
superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and 3235
investigation shall conduct a criminal records check with respect 3236
to any person who has applied for a license, permit, or 3237
certification from the department of commerce or a division in the 3238
department. The superintendent shall conduct the criminal records 3239
check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to 3240
determine whether any information exists that indicates that the 3241
person who is the subject of the request previously has been 3242
convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the following: a 3243
violation of section 2913.02, 2913.11, 2913.31, 2913.51, or 3244
2925.03 of the Revised Code; any other criminal offense involving 3245
theft, receiving stolen property, embezzlement, forgery, fraud, 3246
passing bad checks, money laundering, or drug trafficking, or any 3247
criminal offense involving money or securities, as set forth in 3248
Chapters 2909., 2911., 2913., 2915., 2921., 2923., and 2925. of 3249
the Revised Code; or any existing or former law of this state, any 3250
other state, or the United States that is substantially equivalent 3251
to those offenses.3252

       (9) On receipt of a request for a criminal records check from 3253
the treasurer of state under section 113.041 of the Revised Code 3254
or from an individual under section 4701.08, 4715.101, 4717.061, 3255
4725.121, 4725.501, 4729.071, 4730.101, 4730.14, 4730.28, 3256
4731.081, 4731.15, 4731.171, 4731.222, 4731.281, 4731.296, 3257
4731.531, 4732.091, 4734.202, 4740.061, 4741.10, 4755.70, 3258
4757.101, 4759.061, 4760.032, 4760.06, 4761.051, 4762.031, 3259
4762.06, 4776.021, or 4779.091 of the Revised Code, accompanied by 3260
a completed form prescribed under division (C)(1) of this section 3261
and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the manner 3262
described in division (C)(2) of this section, the superintendent 3263
of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation shall 3264
conduct a criminal records check in the manner described in 3265
division (B) of this section to determine whether any information 3266
exists that indicates that the person who is the subject of the 3267
request has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any criminal 3268
offense in this state or any other state. Subject to division (F) 3269
of this section, the superintendent shall send the results of a 3270
check requested under section 113.041 of the Revised Code to the 3271
treasurer of state and shall send the results of a check requested 3272
under any of the other listed sections to the licensing board 3273
specified by the individual in the request.3274

       (10) On receipt of a request pursuant to section 1121.23, 3275
1155.03, 1163.05, 1315.141, 1733.47, or 1761.26 of the Revised 3276
Code, a completed form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of 3277
this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the 3278
manner described in division (C)(2) of this section, the 3279
superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and 3280
investigation shall conduct a criminal records check in the manner 3281
described in division (B) of this section to determine whether any 3282
information exists that indicates that the person who is the 3283
subject of the request previously has been convicted of or pleaded 3284
guilty to any criminal offense under any existing or former law of 3285
this state, any other state, or the United States.3286

       (11) On receipt of a request for a criminal records check 3287
from an appointing or licensing authority under section 3772.07 of 3288
the Revised Code, a completed form prescribed under division 3289
(C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions 3290
obtained in the manner prescribed in division (C)(2) of this 3291
section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal 3292
identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records 3293
check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to 3294
determine whether any information exists that indicates that the 3295
person who is the subject of the request previously has been 3296
convicted of or pleaded guilty or no contest to any offense under 3297
any existing or former law of this state, any other state, or the 3298
United States that is a disqualifying offense as defined in 3299
section 3772.07 of the Revised Code or substantially equivalent to 3300
such an offense.3301

       (12) On receipt of a request pursuant to section 2151.33 or 3302
2151.412 of the Revised Code, a completed form prescribed pursuant 3303
to division (C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint 3304
impressions obtained in the manner described in division (C)(2) of 3305
this section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal 3306
identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records 3307
check with respect to any person for whom a criminal records check 3308
is required by that section. The superintendent shall conduct the 3309
criminal records check in the manner described in division (B) of 3310
this section to determine whether any information exists that 3311
indicates that the person who is the subject of the request 3312
previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the 3313
following:3314

       (a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 3315
2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.34, 3316
2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.11, 2905.12, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.05, 3317
2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.12, 2907.25, 2907.31, 3318
2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 3319
2911.12, 2911.13, 2913.02, 2913.03, 2913.04, 2913.11, 2913.21, 3320
2913.31, 2913.40, 2913.43, 2913.47, 2913.51, 2919.25, 2921.36, 3321
2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.11, 2925.13, 3322
2925.22, 2925.23, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code;3323

       (b) An existing or former law of this state, any other state, 3324
or the United States that is substantially equivalent to any of 3325
the offenses listed in division (A)(12)(a) of this section.3326

       (B) Subject to division (F) of this section, the 3327
superintendent shall conduct any criminal records check to be 3328
conducted under this section as follows:3329

       (1) The superintendent shall review or cause to be reviewed 3330
any relevant information gathered and compiled by the bureau under 3331
division (A) of section 109.57 of the Revised Code that relates to 3332
the person who is the subject of the criminal records check, 3333
including, if the criminal records check was requested under 3334
section 113.041, 121.08, 173.27, 173.394173.38, 1121.23, 1155.03, 3335
1163.05, 1315.141, 1321.37, 1321.53, 1321.531, 1322.03, 1322.031, 3336
1733.47, 1761.26, 2151.86, 3301.32, 3301.541, 3319.39, 3701.881, 3337
3712.09, 3721.121, 3772.07, 4749.03, 4749.06, 4763.05, 5104.012, 3338
5104.013, 5111.0325164.34, 5111.0335164.341, 5111.0345164.342, 3339
5123.081, 5123.169, or 5153.111 of the Revised Code, any relevant 3340
information contained in records that have been sealed under 3341
section 2953.32 of the Revised Code;3342

       (2) If the request received by the superintendent asks for 3343
information from the federal bureau of investigation, the 3344
superintendent shall request from the federal bureau of 3345
investigation any information it has with respect to the person 3346
who is the subject of the criminal records check, including 3347
fingerprint-based checks of national crime information databases 3348
as described in 42 U.S.C. 671 if the request is made pursuant to 3349
section 2151.86, 5104.012, or 5104.013 of the Revised Code or if 3350
any other Revised Code section requires fingerprint-based checks 3351
of that nature, and shall review or cause to be reviewed any 3352
information the superintendent receives from that bureau. If a 3353
request under section 3319.39 of the Revised Code asks only for 3354
information from the federal bureau of investigation, the 3355
superintendent shall not conduct the review prescribed by division 3356
(B)(1) of this section.3357

        (3) The superintendent or the superintendent's designee may 3358
request criminal history records from other states or the federal 3359
government pursuant to the national crime prevention and privacy 3360
compact set forth in section 109.571 of the Revised Code.3361

       (4) The superintendent shall include in the results of the 3362
criminal records check a list or description of the offenses 3363
listed or described in division (A)(1), (2), (3), (4), (5), (6), 3364
(7), (8), (9), (10), (11), or (12) of this section, whichever 3365
division requires the superintendent to conduct the criminal 3366
records check. The superintendent shall exclude from the results 3367
any information the dissemination of which is prohibited by 3368
federal law.3369

       (5) The superintendent shall send the results of the criminal 3370
records check to the person to whom it is to be sent not later 3371
than the following number of days after the date the 3372
superintendent receives the request for the criminal records 3373
check, the completed form prescribed under division (C)(1) of this 3374
section, and the set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the 3375
manner described in division (C)(2) of this section:3376

       (a) If the superintendent is required by division (A) of this 3377
section (other than division (A)(3) of this section) to conduct 3378
the criminal records check, thirty;3379

       (b) If the superintendent is required by division (A)(3) of 3380
this section to conduct the criminal records check, sixty.3381

       (C)(1) The superintendent shall prescribe a form to obtain 3382
the information necessary to conduct a criminal records check from 3383
any person for whom a criminal records check is to be conducted 3384
under this section. The form that the superintendent prescribes 3385
pursuant to this division may be in a tangible format, in an 3386
electronic format, or in both tangible and electronic formats.3387

       (2) The superintendent shall prescribe standard impression 3388
sheets to obtain the fingerprint impressions of any person for 3389
whom a criminal records check is to be conducted under this 3390
section. Any person for whom a records check is to be conducted 3391
under this section shall obtain the fingerprint impressions at a 3392
county sheriff's office, municipal police department, or any other 3393
entity with the ability to make fingerprint impressions on the 3394
standard impression sheets prescribed by the superintendent. The 3395
office, department, or entity may charge the person a reasonable 3396
fee for making the impressions. The standard impression sheets the 3397
superintendent prescribes pursuant to this division may be in a 3398
tangible format, in an electronic format, or in both tangible and 3399
electronic formats.3400

       (3) Subject to division (D) of this section, the 3401
superintendent shall prescribe and charge a reasonable fee for 3402
providing a criminal records check under this section. The person 3403
requesting the criminal records check shall pay the fee prescribed 3404
pursuant to this division. In the case of a request under section 3405
1121.23, 1155.03, 1163.05, 1315.141, 1733.47, 1761.26, 2151.33, 3406
2151.412, or 5111.0325164.34 of the Revised Code, the fee shall 3407
be paid in the manner specified in that section.3408

       (4) The superintendent of the bureau of criminal 3409
identification and investigation may prescribe methods of 3410
forwarding fingerprint impressions and information necessary to 3411
conduct a criminal records check, which methods shall include, but 3412
not be limited to, an electronic method.3413

       (D) The results of a criminal records check conducted under 3414
this section, other than a criminal records check specified in 3415
division (A)(7) of this section, are valid for the person who is 3416
the subject of the criminal records check for a period of one year 3417
from the date upon which the superintendent completes the criminal 3418
records check. If during that period the superintendent receives 3419
another request for a criminal records check to be conducted under 3420
this section for that person, the superintendent shall provide the 3421
results from the previous criminal records check of the person at 3422
a lower fee than the fee prescribed for the initial criminal 3423
records check.3424

       (E) When the superintendent receives a request for 3425
information from a registered private provider, the superintendent 3426
shall proceed as if the request was received from a school 3427
district board of education under section 3319.39 of the Revised 3428
Code. The superintendent shall apply division (A)(1)(c) of this 3429
section to any such request for an applicant who is a teacher.3430

       (F)(1) All information regarding the results of a criminal 3431
records check conducted under this section that the superintendent 3432
reports or sends under division (A)(7) or (9) of this section to 3433
the director of public safety, the treasurer of state, or the 3434
person, board, or entity that made the request for the criminal 3435
records check shall relate to the conviction of the subject 3436
person, or the subject person's plea of guilty to, a criminal 3437
offense.3438

       (2) Division (F)(1) of this section does not limit, restrict, 3439
or preclude the superintendent's release of information that 3440
relates to an adjudication of a child as a delinquent child, or 3441
that relates to a criminal conviction of a person under eighteen 3442
years of age if the person's case was transferred back to a 3443
juvenile court under division (B)(2) or (3) of section 2152.121 of 3444
the Revised Code and the juvenile court imposed a disposition or 3445
serious youthful offender disposition upon the person under either 3446
division, if either of the following applies with respect to the 3447
adjudication or conviction:3448

       (a) The adjudication or conviction was for a violation of 3449
section 2903.01 or 2903.02 of the Revised Code.3450

       (b) The adjudication or conviction was for a sexually 3451
oriented offense, as defined in section 2950.01 of the Revised 3452
Code, the juvenile court was required to classify the child a 3453
juvenile offender registrant for that offense under section 3454
2152.82, 2152.83, or 2152.86 of the Revised Code, and that 3455
classification has not been removed.3456

       (G) As used in this section:3457

       (1) "Criminal records check" means any criminal records check 3458
conducted by the superintendent of the bureau of criminal 3459
identification and investigation in accordance with division (B) 3460
of this section.3461

       (2) "Minor drug possession offense" has the same meaning as 3462
in section 2925.01 of the Revised Code.3463

       (3) "OVI or OVUAC violation" means a violation of section 3464
4511.19 of the Revised Code or a violation of an existing or 3465
former law of this state, any other state, or the United States 3466
that is substantially equivalent to section 4511.19 of the Revised 3467
Code.3468

       (4) "Registered private provider" means a nonpublic school or 3469
entity registered with the superintendent of public instruction 3470
under section 3310.41 of the Revised Code to participate in the 3471
autism scholarship program or section 3310.58 of the Revised Code 3472
to participate in the Jon Peterson special needs scholarship 3473
program.3474

       Sec. 109.71.  There is hereby created in the office of the 3475
attorney general the Ohio peace officer training commission. The 3476
commission shall consist of nine members appointed by the governor 3477
with the advice and consent of the senate and selected as follows: 3478
one member representing the public; two members who are incumbent 3479
sheriffs; two members who are incumbent chiefs of police; one 3480
member from the bureau of criminal identification and 3481
investigation; one member from the state highway patrol; one 3482
member who is the special agent in charge of a field office of the 3483
federal bureau of investigation in this state; and one member from 3484
the department of education, trade and industrial education 3485
services, law enforcement training.3486

       This section does not confer any arrest authority or any 3487
ability or authority to detain a person, write or issue any 3488
citation, or provide any disposition alternative, as granted under 3489
Chapter 2935. of the Revised Code.3490

       As used in sections 109.71 to 109.801 of the Revised Code:3491

       (A) "Peace officer" means:3492

       (1) A deputy sheriff, marshal, deputy marshal, member of the 3493
organized police department of a township or municipal 3494
corporation, member of a township police district or joint police 3495
district police force, member of a police force employed by a 3496
metropolitan housing authority under division (D) of section 3497
3735.31 of the Revised Code, or township constable, who is 3498
commissioned and employed as a peace officer by a political 3499
subdivision of this state or by a metropolitan housing authority, 3500
and whose primary duties are to preserve the peace, to protect 3501
life and property, and to enforce the laws of this state, 3502
ordinances of a municipal corporation, resolutions of a township, 3503
or regulations of a board of county commissioners or board of 3504
township trustees, or any of those laws, ordinances, resolutions, 3505
or regulations;3506

       (2) A police officer who is employed by a railroad company 3507
and appointed and commissioned by the secretary of state pursuant 3508
to sections 4973.17 to 4973.22 of the Revised Code;3509

       (3) Employees of the department of taxation engaged in the 3510
enforcement of Chapter 5743. of the Revised Code and designated by 3511
the tax commissioner for peace officer training for purposes of 3512
the delegation of investigation powers under section 5743.45 of 3513
the Revised Code;3514

       (4) An undercover drug agent;3515

       (5) Enforcement agents of the department of public safety 3516
whom the director of public safety designates under section 3517
5502.14 of the Revised Code;3518

       (6) An employee of the department of natural resources who is 3519
a natural resources law enforcement staff officer designated 3520
pursuant to section 1501.013, a park officer designated pursuant 3521
to section 1541.10, a forest officer designated pursuant to 3522
section 1503.29, a preserve officer designated pursuant to section 3523
1517.10, a wildlife officer designated pursuant to section 3524
1531.13, or a state watercraft officer designated pursuant to 3525
section 1547.521 of the Revised Code;3526

       (7) An employee of a park district who is designated pursuant 3527
to section 511.232 or 1545.13 of the Revised Code;3528

       (8) An employee of a conservancy district who is designated 3529
pursuant to section 6101.75 of the Revised Code;3530

       (9) A police officer who is employed by a hospital that 3531
employs and maintains its own proprietary police department or 3532
security department, and who is appointed and commissioned by the 3533
secretary of state pursuant to sections 4973.17 to 4973.22 of the 3534
Revised Code;3535

       (10) Veterans' homes police officers designated under section 3536
5907.02 of the Revised Code;3537

       (11) A police officer who is employed by a qualified 3538
nonprofit corporation police department pursuant to section 3539
1702.80 of the Revised Code;3540

       (12) A state university law enforcement officer appointed 3541
under section 3345.04 of the Revised Code or a person serving as a 3542
state university law enforcement officer on a permanent basis on 3543
June 19, 1978, who has been awarded a certificate by the executive 3544
director of the Ohio peace officer training commission attesting 3545
to the person's satisfactory completion of an approved state, 3546
county, municipal, or department of natural resources peace 3547
officer basic training program;3548

       (13) A special police officer employed by the department of 3549
mental healthmental health and addiction services pursuant to 3550
section 5119.145119.08 of the Revised Code or the department of 3551
developmental disabilities pursuant to section 5123.13 of the 3552
Revised Code;3553

       (14) A member of a campus police department appointed under 3554
section 1713.50 of the Revised Code;3555

       (15) A member of a police force employed by a regional 3556
transit authority under division (Y) of section 306.35 of the 3557
Revised Code;3558

       (16) Investigators appointed by the auditor of state pursuant 3559
to section 117.091 of the Revised Code and engaged in the 3560
enforcement of Chapter 117. of the Revised Code;3561

       (17) A special police officer designated by the 3562
superintendent of the state highway patrol pursuant to section 3563
5503.09 of the Revised Code or a person who was serving as a 3564
special police officer pursuant to that section on a permanent 3565
basis on October 21, 1997, and who has been awarded a certificate 3566
by the executive director of the Ohio peace officer training 3567
commission attesting to the person's satisfactory completion of an 3568
approved state, county, municipal, or department of natural 3569
resources peace officer basic training program;3570

       (18) A special police officer employed by a port authority 3571
under section 4582.04 or 4582.28 of the Revised Code or a person 3572
serving as a special police officer employed by a port authority 3573
on a permanent basis on May 17, 2000, who has been awarded a 3574
certificate by the executive director of the Ohio peace officer 3575
training commission attesting to the person's satisfactory 3576
completion of an approved state, county, municipal, or department 3577
of natural resources peace officer basic training program;3578

       (19) A special police officer employed by a municipal 3579
corporation who has been awarded a certificate by the executive 3580
director of the Ohio peace officer training commission for 3581
satisfactory completion of an approved peace officer basic 3582
training program and who is employed on a permanent basis on or 3583
after March 19, 2003, at a municipal airport, or other municipal 3584
air navigation facility, that has scheduled operations, as defined 3585
in section 119.3 of Title 14 of the Code of Federal Regulations, 3586
14 C.F.R. 119.3, as amended, and that is required to be under a 3587
security program and is governed by aviation security rules of the 3588
transportation security administration of the United States 3589
department of transportation as provided in Parts 1542. and 1544. 3590
of Title 49 of the Code of Federal Regulations, as amended;3591

       (20) A police officer who is employed by an owner or operator 3592
of an amusement park that has an average yearly attendance in 3593
excess of six hundred thousand guests and that employs and 3594
maintains its own proprietary police department or security 3595
department, and who is appointed and commissioned by a judge of 3596
the appropriate municipal court or county court pursuant to 3597
section 4973.17 of the Revised Code;3598

        (21) A police officer who is employed by a bank, savings and 3599
loan association, savings bank, credit union, or association of 3600
banks, savings and loan associations, savings banks, or credit 3601
unions, who has been appointed and commissioned by the secretary 3602
of state pursuant to sections 4973.17 to 4973.22 of the Revised 3603
Code, and who has been awarded a certificate by the executive 3604
director of the Ohio peace officer training commission attesting 3605
to the person's satisfactory completion of a state, county, 3606
municipal, or department of natural resources peace officer basic 3607
training program;3608

       (22) An investigator, as defined in section 109.541 of the 3609
Revised Code, of the bureau of criminal identification and 3610
investigation who is commissioned by the superintendent of the 3611
bureau as a special agent for the purpose of assisting law 3612
enforcement officers or providing emergency assistance to peace 3613
officers pursuant to authority granted under that section;3614

       (23) A state fire marshal law enforcement officer appointed 3615
under section 3737.22 of the Revised Code or a person serving as a 3616
state fire marshal law enforcement officer on a permanent basis on 3617
or after July 1, 1982, who has been awarded a certificate by the 3618
executive director of the Ohio peace officer training commission 3619
attesting to the person's satisfactory completion of an approved 3620
state, county, municipal, or department of natural resources peace 3621
officer basic training program;3622

       (24) A gaming agent employed under section 3772.03 of the 3623
Revised Code.3624

       (25) A deputy inspector general appointed under section 3625
121.48 of the Revised Code who has been awarded a certificate by 3626
the executive director of the Ohio peace officer training 3627
commission attesting to the person's satisfactory completion of an 3628
approved state, county, or municipal peace officer basic training 3629
program.3630

       (B) "Undercover drug agent" has the same meaning as in 3631
division (B)(2) of section 109.79 of the Revised Code.3632

       (C) "Crisis intervention training" means training in the use 3633
of interpersonal and communication skills to most effectively and 3634
sensitively interview victims of rape.3635

       (D) "Missing children" has the same meaning as in section 3636
2901.30 of the Revised Code.3637

       Sec. 109.746.  (A) The attorney general may prepare public 3638
awareness programs that are designed to educate potential victims 3639
of violations of section 2905.32 of the Revised Code and their 3640
families of the risks of becoming a victim of a violation of that 3641
section. The attorney general may prepare these programs with 3642
assistance from the department of health, the department of mental 3643
healthmental health and addiction services, the department of job 3644
and family services, the department of alcohol and drug addiction 3645
services, and the department of education.3646

       (B) Any organization, person, or other governmental agency 3647
with an interest and expertise in trafficking in persons may 3648
submit information or materials to the attorney general regarding 3649
the preparation of the programs and materials permitted under this 3650
section. The attorney general, in developing the programs and 3651
materials permitted by this section, shall consider any 3652
information submitted pursuant to this division.3653

       Sec. 109.77.  (A) As used in this section, "felony" has the 3654
same meaning as in section 109.511 of the Revised Code.3655

       (B)(1) Notwithstanding any general, special, or local law or 3656
charter to the contrary, and except as otherwise provided in this 3657
section, no person shall receive an original appointment on a 3658
permanent basis as any of the following unless the person 3659
previously has been awarded a certificate by the executive 3660
director of the Ohio peace officer training commission attesting 3661
to the person's satisfactory completion of an approved state, 3662
county, municipal, or department of natural resources peace 3663
officer basic training program:3664

       (a) A peace officer of any county, township, municipal 3665
corporation, regional transit authority, or metropolitan housing 3666
authority;3667

       (b) A natural resources law enforcement staff officer, park 3668
officer, forest officer, preserve officer, wildlife officer, or 3669
state watercraft officer of the department of natural resources;3670

       (c) An employee of a park district under section 511.232 or 3671
1545.13 of the Revised Code;3672

       (d) An employee of a conservancy district who is designated 3673
pursuant to section 6101.75 of the Revised Code;3674

       (e) A state university law enforcement officer;3675

       (f) A special police officer employed by the department of 3676
mental healthmental health and addiction services pursuant to 3677
section 5119.145119.08 of the Revised Code or the department of 3678
developmental disabilities pursuant to section 5123.13 of the 3679
Revised Code;3680

       (g) An enforcement agent of the department of public safety 3681
whom the director of public safety designates under section 3682
5502.14 of the Revised Code;3683

       (h) A special police officer employed by a port authority 3684
under section 4582.04 or 4582.28 of the Revised Code;3685

       (i) A special police officer employed by a municipal 3686
corporation at a municipal airport, or other municipal air 3687
navigation facility, that has scheduled operations, as defined in 3688
section 119.3 of Title 14 of the Code of Federal Regulations, 14 3689
C.F.R. 119.3, as amended, and that is required to be under a 3690
security program and is governed by aviation security rules of the 3691
transportation security administration of the United States 3692
department of transportation as provided in Parts 1542. and 1544. 3693
of Title 49 of the Code of Federal Regulations, as amended;3694

       (j) A gaming agent employed under section 3772.03 of the 3695
Revised Code.3696

       (2) Every person who is appointed on a temporary basis or for 3697
a probationary term or on other than a permanent basis as any of 3698
the following shall forfeit the appointed position unless the 3699
person previously has completed satisfactorily or, within the time 3700
prescribed by rules adopted by the attorney general pursuant to 3701
section 109.74 of the Revised Code, satisfactorily completes a 3702
state, county, municipal, or department of natural resources peace 3703
officer basic training program for temporary or probationary 3704
officers and is awarded a certificate by the director attesting to 3705
the satisfactory completion of the program:3706

       (a) A peace officer of any county, township, municipal 3707
corporation, regional transit authority, or metropolitan housing 3708
authority;3709

       (b) A natural resources law enforcement staff officer, park 3710
officer, forest officer, preserve officer, wildlife officer, or 3711
state watercraft officer of the department of natural resources;3712

       (c) An employee of a park district under section 511.232 or 3713
1545.13 of the Revised Code;3714

       (d) An employee of a conservancy district who is designated 3715
pursuant to section 6101.75 of the Revised Code;3716

       (e) A special police officer employed by the department of 3717
mental healthmental health and addiction services pursuant to 3718
section 5119.145119.08 of the Revised Code or the department of 3719
developmental disabilities pursuant to section 5123.13 of the 3720
Revised Code;3721

       (f) An enforcement agent of the department of public safety 3722
whom the director of public safety designates under section 3723
5502.14 of the Revised Code;3724

       (g) A special police officer employed by a port authority 3725
under section 4582.04 or 4582.28 of the Revised Code;3726

       (h) A special police officer employed by a municipal 3727
corporation at a municipal airport, or other municipal air 3728
navigation facility, that has scheduled operations, as defined in 3729
section 119.3 of Title 14 of the Code of Federal Regulations, 14 3730
C.F.R. 119.3, as amended, and that is required to be under a 3731
security program and is governed by aviation security rules of the 3732
transportation security administration of the United States 3733
department of transportation as provided in Parts 1542. and 1544. 3734
of Title 49 of the Code of Federal Regulations, as amended.3735

       (3) For purposes of division (B) of this section, a state, 3736
county, municipal, or department of natural resources peace 3737
officer basic training program, regardless of whether the program 3738
is to be completed by peace officers appointed on a permanent or 3739
temporary, probationary, or other nonpermanent basis, shall 3740
include training in the handling of the offense of domestic 3741
violence, other types of domestic violence-related offenses and 3742
incidents, and protection orders and consent agreements issued or 3743
approved under section 2919.26 or 3113.31 of the Revised Code and 3744
crisis intervention training. The requirement to complete training 3745
in the handling of the offense of domestic violence, other types 3746
of domestic violence-related offenses and incidents, and 3747
protection orders and consent agreements issued or approved under 3748
section 2919.26 or 3113.31 of the Revised Code does not apply to 3749
any person serving as a peace officer on March 27, 1979, and the 3750
requirement to complete training in crisis intervention does not 3751
apply to any person serving as a peace officer on April 4, 1985. 3752
Any person who is serving as a peace officer on April 4, 1985, who 3753
terminates that employment after that date, and who subsequently 3754
is hired as a peace officer by the same or another law enforcement 3755
agency shall complete training in crisis intervention as 3756
prescribed by rules adopted by the attorney general pursuant to 3757
section 109.742 of the Revised Code. No peace officer shall have 3758
employment as a peace officer terminated and then be reinstated 3759
with intent to circumvent this section.3760

       (4) Division (B) of this section does not apply to any person 3761
serving on a permanent basis on March 28, 1985, as a park officer, 3762
forest officer, preserve officer, wildlife officer, or state 3763
watercraft officer of the department of natural resources or as an 3764
employee of a park district under section 511.232 or 1545.13 of 3765
the Revised Code, to any person serving on a permanent basis on 3766
March 6, 1986, as an employee of a conservancy district designated 3767
pursuant to section 6101.75 of the Revised Code, to any person 3768
serving on a permanent basis on January 10, 1991, as a preserve 3769
officer of the department of natural resources, to any person 3770
employed on a permanent basis on July 2, 1992, as a special police 3771
officer by the department of mental healthmental health and 3772
addiction services pursuant to section 5119.145119.08 of the 3773
Revised Code or by the department of developmental disabilities 3774
pursuant to section 5123.13 of the Revised Code, to any person 3775
serving on a permanent basis on May 17, 2000, as a special police 3776
officer employed by a port authority under section 4582.04 or 3777
4582.28 of the Revised Code, to any person serving on a permanent 3778
basis on March 19, 2003, as a special police officer employed by a 3779
municipal corporation at a municipal airport or other municipal 3780
air navigation facility described in division (A)(19) of section 3781
109.71 of the Revised Code, to any person serving on a permanent 3782
basis on June 19, 1978, as a state university law enforcement 3783
officer pursuant to section 3345.04 of the Revised Code and who, 3784
immediately prior to June 19, 1978, was serving as a special 3785
police officer designated under authority of that section, or to 3786
any person serving on a permanent basis on September 20, 1984, as 3787
a liquor control investigator, known after June 30, 1999, as an 3788
enforcement agent of the department of public safety, engaged in 3789
the enforcement of Chapters 4301. and 4303. of the Revised Code.3790

       (5) Division (B) of this section does not apply to any person 3791
who is appointed as a regional transit authority police officer 3792
pursuant to division (Y) of section 306.35 of the Revised Code if, 3793
on or before July 1, 1996, the person has completed satisfactorily 3794
an approved state, county, municipal, or department of natural 3795
resources peace officer basic training program and has been 3796
awarded a certificate by the executive director of the Ohio peace 3797
officer training commission attesting to the person's satisfactory 3798
completion of such an approved program and if, on July 1, 1996, 3799
the person is performing peace officer functions for a regional 3800
transit authority.3801

       (C) No person, after September 20, 1984, shall receive an 3802
original appointment on a permanent basis as a veterans' home 3803
police officer designated under section 5907.02 of the Revised 3804
Code unless the person previously has been awarded a certificate 3805
by the executive director of the Ohio peace officer training 3806
commission attesting to the person's satisfactory completion of an 3807
approved police officer basic training program. Every person who 3808
is appointed on a temporary basis or for a probationary term or on 3809
other than a permanent basis as a veterans' home police officer 3810
designated under section 5907.02 of the Revised Code shall forfeit 3811
that position unless the person previously has completed 3812
satisfactorily or, within one year from the time of appointment, 3813
satisfactorily completes an approved police officer basic training 3814
program.3815

       (D) No bailiff or deputy bailiff of a court of record of this 3816
state and no criminal investigator who is employed by the state 3817
public defender shall carry a firearm, as defined in section 3818
2923.11 of the Revised Code, while on duty unless the bailiff, 3819
deputy bailiff, or criminal investigator has done or received one 3820
of the following:3821

       (1) Has been awarded a certificate by the executive director 3822
of the Ohio peace officer training commission, which certificate 3823
attests to satisfactory completion of an approved state, county, 3824
or municipal basic training program for bailiffs and deputy 3825
bailiffs of courts of record and for criminal investigators 3826
employed by the state public defender that has been recommended by 3827
the Ohio peace officer training commission;3828

       (2) Has successfully completed a firearms training program 3829
approved by the Ohio peace officer training commission prior to 3830
employment as a bailiff, deputy bailiff, or criminal investigator;3831

       (3) Prior to June 6, 1986, was authorized to carry a firearm 3832
by the court that employed the bailiff or deputy bailiff or, in 3833
the case of a criminal investigator, by the state public defender 3834
and has received training in the use of firearms that the Ohio 3835
peace officer training commission determines is equivalent to the 3836
training that otherwise is required by division (D) of this 3837
section.3838

       (E)(1) Before a person seeking a certificate completes an 3839
approved peace officer basic training program, the executive 3840
director of the Ohio peace officer training commission shall 3841
request the person to disclose, and the person shall disclose, any 3842
previous criminal conviction of or plea of guilty of that person 3843
to a felony.3844

       (2) Before a person seeking a certificate completes an 3845
approved peace officer basic training program, the executive 3846
director shall request a criminal history records check on the 3847
person. The executive director shall submit the person's 3848
fingerprints to the bureau of criminal identification and 3849
investigation, which shall submit the fingerprints to the federal 3850
bureau of investigation for a national criminal history records 3851
check.3852

       Upon receipt of the executive director's request, the bureau 3853
of criminal identification and investigation and the federal 3854
bureau of investigation shall conduct a criminal history records 3855
check on the person and, upon completion of the check, shall 3856
provide a copy of the criminal history records check to the 3857
executive director. The executive director shall not award any 3858
certificate prescribed in this section unless the executive 3859
director has received a copy of the criminal history records check 3860
on the person to whom the certificate is to be awarded.3861

       (3) The executive director of the commission shall not award 3862
a certificate prescribed in this section to a person who has been 3863
convicted of or has pleaded guilty to a felony or who fails to 3864
disclose any previous criminal conviction of or plea of guilty to 3865
a felony as required under division (E)(1) of this section.3866

       (4) The executive director of the commission shall revoke the 3867
certificate awarded to a person as prescribed in this section, and 3868
that person shall forfeit all of the benefits derived from being 3869
certified as a peace officer under this section, if the person, 3870
before completion of an approved peace officer basic training 3871
program, failed to disclose any previous criminal conviction of or 3872
plea of guilty to a felony as required under division (E)(1) of 3873
this section.3874

       (F)(1) Regardless of whether the person has been awarded the 3875
certificate or has been classified as a peace officer prior to, 3876
on, or after October 16, 1996, the executive director of the Ohio 3877
peace officer training commission shall revoke any certificate 3878
that has been awarded to a person as prescribed in this section if 3879
the person does either of the following:3880

       (a) Pleads guilty to a felony committed on or after January 3881
1, 1997;3882

       (b) Pleads guilty to a misdemeanor committed on or after 3883
January 1, 1997, pursuant to a negotiated plea agreement as 3884
provided in division (D) of section 2929.43 of the Revised Code in 3885
which the person agrees to surrender the certificate awarded to 3886
the person under this section.3887

       (2) The executive director of the commission shall suspend 3888
any certificate that has been awarded to a person as prescribed in 3889
this section if the person is convicted, after trial, of a felony 3890
committed on or after January 1, 1997. The executive director 3891
shall suspend the certificate pursuant to division (F)(2) of this 3892
section pending the outcome of an appeal by the person from that 3893
conviction to the highest court to which the appeal is taken or 3894
until the expiration of the period in which an appeal is required 3895
to be filed. If the person files an appeal that results in that 3896
person's acquittal of the felony or conviction of a misdemeanor, 3897
or in the dismissal of the felony charge against that person, the 3898
executive director shall reinstate the certificate awarded to the 3899
person under this section. If the person files an appeal from that 3900
person's conviction of the felony and the conviction is upheld by 3901
the highest court to which the appeal is taken or if the person 3902
does not file a timely appeal, the executive director shall revoke 3903
the certificate awarded to the person under this section.3904

       (G)(1) If a person is awarded a certificate under this 3905
section and the certificate is revoked pursuant to division (E)(4) 3906
or (F) of this section, the person shall not be eligible to 3907
receive, at any time, a certificate attesting to the person's 3908
satisfactory completion of a peace officer basic training program.3909

       (2) The revocation or suspension of a certificate under 3910
division (E)(4) or (F) of this section shall be in accordance with 3911
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.3912

       (H)(1) A person who was employed as a peace officer of a 3913
county, township, or municipal corporation of the state on January 3914
1, 1966, and who has completed at least sixteen years of full-time 3915
active service as such a peace officer, or equivalent service as 3916
determined by the executive director of the Ohio peace officer 3917
training commission, may receive an original appointment on a 3918
permanent basis and serve as a peace officer of a county, 3919
township, or municipal corporation, or as a state university law 3920
enforcement officer, without complying with the requirements of 3921
division (B) of this section.3922

       (2) Any person who held an appointment as a state highway 3923
trooper on January 1, 1966, may receive an original appointment on 3924
a permanent basis and serve as a peace officer of a county, 3925
township, or municipal corporation, or as a state university law 3926
enforcement officer, without complying with the requirements of 3927
division (B) of this section.3928

       (I) No person who is appointed as a peace officer of a 3929
county, township, or municipal corporation on or after April 9, 3930
1985, shall serve as a peace officer of that county, township, or 3931
municipal corporation unless the person has received training in 3932
the handling of missing children and child abuse and neglect cases 3933
from an approved state, county, township, or municipal police 3934
officer basic training program or receives the training within the 3935
time prescribed by rules adopted by the attorney general pursuant 3936
to section 109.741 of the Revised Code.3937

       (J) No part of any approved state, county, or municipal basic 3938
training program for bailiffs and deputy bailiffs of courts of 3939
record and no part of any approved state, county, or municipal 3940
basic training program for criminal investigators employed by the 3941
state public defender shall be used as credit toward the 3942
completion by a peace officer of any part of the approved state, 3943
county, or municipal peace officer basic training program that the 3944
peace officer is required by this section to complete 3945
satisfactorily.3946

       (K) This section does not apply to any member of the police 3947
department of a municipal corporation in an adjoining state 3948
serving in this state under a contract pursuant to section 737.04 3949
of the Revised Code.3950

       Sec. 109.85.  (A) Upon the written request of the governor, 3951
the general assembly, the auditor of state, the medicaid director 3952
of job and family services, the director of health, or the 3953
director of budget and management, or upon the attorney general's 3954
becoming aware of criminal or improper activity related to Chapter 3955
3721. and the medical assistancemedicaid program established 3956
under section 5111.01 of the Revised Code, the attorney general 3957
shall investigate any criminal or civil violation of law related 3958
to Chapter 3721. of the Revised Code or the medical assistance3959
medicaid program.3960

       (B) When it appears to the attorney general, as a result of 3961
an investigation under division (A) of this section, that there is 3962
cause to prosecute for the commission of a crime or to pursue a 3963
civil remedy, the attorney general may refer the evidence to the 3964
prosecuting attorney having jurisdiction of the matter, or to a 3965
regular grand jury drawn and impaneled pursuant to sections 3966
2939.01 to 2939.24 of the Revised Code, or to a special grand jury 3967
drawn and impaneled pursuant to section 2939.17 of the Revised 3968
Code, or the attorney general may initiate and prosecute any 3969
necessary criminal or civil actions in any court or tribunal of 3970
competent jurisdiction in this state. When proceeding under this 3971
section, the attorney general, and any assistant or special 3972
counsel designated by the attorney general for that purpose, have 3973
all rights, privileges, and powers of prosecuting attorneys. The 3974
attorney general shall have exclusive supervision and control of 3975
all investigations and prosecutions initiated by the attorney 3976
general under this section. The forfeiture provisions of Chapter 3977
2981. of the Revised Code apply in relation to any such criminal 3978
action initiated and prosecuted by the attorney general.3979

       (C) Nothing in this section shall prevent a county 3980
prosecuting attorney from investigating and prosecuting criminal 3981
activity related to Chapter 3721. of the Revised Code and the 3982
medical assistancemedicaid program established under section 3983
5111.01 of the Revised Code. The forfeiture provisions of Chapter 3984
2981. of the Revised Code apply in relation to any prosecution of 3985
criminal activity related to the medical assistancemedicaid3986
program undertaken by the prosecuting attorney.3987

       Sec. 109.86.  (A) The attorney general shall investigate any 3988
activity the attorney general has reasonable cause to believe is 3989
in violation of section 2903.34 of the Revised Code. Upon written 3990
request of the governor, the general assembly, the auditor of 3991
state, or the director of health, job and family services, aging,3992
mental healthmental health and addiction services, or 3993
developmental disabilities, the attorney general shall investigate 3994
any activity these persons believe is in violation of section 3995
2903.34 of the Revised Code. If after an investigation the 3996
attorney general has probable cause to prosecute for the 3997
commission of a crime, the attorney general shall refer the 3998
evidence to the prosecuting attorney, director of law, or other 3999
similar chief legal officer having jurisdiction over the matter. 4000
If the prosecuting attorney decides to present the evidence to a 4001
grand jury, the prosecuting attorney shall notify the attorney 4002
general in writing of the decision within thirty days after 4003
referral of the matter and shall present the evidence prior to the 4004
discharge of the next regular grand jury. If the director of law 4005
or other chief legal officer decides to prosecute the case, the 4006
director or officer shall notify the attorney general in writing 4007
of the decision within thirty days and shall initiate prosecution 4008
within sixty days after the matter was referred to the director or 4009
officer.4010

       (B) If the prosecuting attorney, director of law, or other 4011
chief legal officer fails to notify the attorney general or to 4012
present evidence or initiate prosecution in accordance with 4013
division (A) of this section, the attorney general may present the 4014
evidence to a regular grand jury drawn and impaneled pursuant to 4015
sections 2939.01 to 2939.24 of the Revised Code, or to a special 4016
grand jury drawn and impaneled pursuant to section 2939.17 of the 4017
Revised Code, or the attorney general may initiate and prosecute 4018
any action in any court or tribunal of competent jurisdiction in 4019
this state. The attorney general, and any assistant or special 4020
counsel designated by the attorney general, have all the powers of 4021
a prosecuting attorney, director of law, or other chief legal 4022
officer when proceeding under this section. Nothing in this 4023
section shall limit or prevent a prosecuting attorney, director of 4024
law, or other chief legal officer from investigating and 4025
prosecuting criminal activity committed against a resident or 4026
patient of a care facility.4027

       Sec. 109.90. (A) The attorney general shall collaborate with 4028
the state board of pharmacy and director of alcohol and drug 4029
addiction servicesmental health and addiction services in the 4030
establishment and administration of a drug take-back program, as 4031
provided under section 4729.69 of the Revised Code. The office of 4032
the attorney general is solely responsible for the costs incurred 4033
in the establishment and administration of the program.4034

        (B) The attorney general may accept grants, gifts, or 4035
donations for purposes of the program. Money received under this 4036
division or section 3793.225119.49 or 4729.69 of the Revised Code 4037
shall be deposited into the state treasury to the credit of the 4038
drug take-back program fund, which is hereby created. Money 4039
credited to the fund shall be used solely for purposes of the 4040
program.4041

       Sec. 111.02.  Before entering upon the discharge of the 4042
duties of his office, the secretary of state shall give a bond to 4043
the state in the sum of one hundred thousand dollars, with two or 4044
more sureties approved by the governor, auditor of state, and 4045
attorney generala surety authorized to do business in the state, 4046
conditioned for the faithful discharge of the duties of histhe4047
office of secretary of state. The bond, with the approval of the 4048
proper officials and the oath of office indorsed thereon, shall be 4049
deposited with and kept by the director of administrative services 4050
and kept in histhe director's office.4051

       Sec. 111.15.  (A) As used in this section:4052

       (1) "Rule" includes any rule, regulation, bylaw, or standard 4053
having a general and uniform operation adopted by an agency under 4054
the authority of the laws governing the agency; any appendix to a 4055
rule; and any internal management rule. "Rule" does not include 4056
any guideline adopted pursuant to section 3301.0714 of the Revised 4057
Code, any order respecting the duties of employees, any finding, 4058
any determination of a question of law or fact in a matter 4059
presented to an agency, or any rule promulgated pursuant to 4060
Chapter 119., section 4141.14, division (C)(1) or (2) of section 4061
5117.02, or section 5703.14 of the Revised Code. "Rule" includes 4062
any amendment or rescission of a rule.4063

       (2) "Agency" means any governmental entity of the state and 4064
includes, but is not limited to, any board, department, division, 4065
commission, bureau, society, council, institution, state college 4066
or university, community college district, technical college 4067
district, or state community college. "Agency" does not include 4068
the general assembly, the controlling board, the adjutant 4069
general's department, or any court.4070

       (3) "Internal management rule" means any rule, regulation, 4071
bylaw, or standard governing the day-to-day staff procedures and 4072
operations within an agency.4073

       (4) "Substantive revision" has the same meaning as in 4074
division (J) of section 119.01 of the Revised Code.4075

       (B)(1) Any rule, other than a rule of an emergency nature, 4076
adopted by any agency pursuant to this section shall be effective 4077
on the tenth day after the day on which the rule in final form and 4078
in compliance with division (B)(3) of this section is filed as 4079
follows:4080

       (a) The rule shall be filed in electronic form with both the 4081
secretary of state and the director of the legislative service 4082
commission;4083

       (b) The rule shall be filed in electronic form with the joint 4084
committee on agency rule review. Division (B)(1)(b) of this 4085
section does not apply to any rule to which division (D) of this 4086
section does not apply.4087

       An agency that adopts or amends a rule that is subject to 4088
division (D) of this section shall assign a review date to the 4089
rule that is not later than five years after its effective date. 4090
If no review date is assigned to a rule, or if a review date 4091
assigned to a rule exceeds the five-year maximum, the review date 4092
for the rule is five years after its effective date. A rule with a 4093
review date is subject to review under section 119.032 of the 4094
Revised Code. This paragraph does not apply to a rule of a state 4095
college or university, community college district, technical 4096
college district, or state community college.4097

       If all filings are not completed on the same day, the rule 4098
shall be effective on the tenth day after the day on which the 4099
latest filing is completed. If an agency in adopting a rule 4100
designates an effective date that is later than the effective date 4101
provided for by division (B)(1) of this section, the rule if filed 4102
as required by such division shall become effective on the later 4103
date designated by the agency.4104

       Any rule that is required to be filed under division (B)(1) 4105
of this section is also subject to division (D) of this section if 4106
not exempted by division (D)(1), (2), (3), (4), (5), (6), (7), or 4107
(8) of this section.4108

       If a rule incorporates a text or other material by reference, 4109
the agency shall comply with sections 121.71 to 121.76 of the 4110
Revised Code.4111

       (2) A rule of an emergency nature necessary for the immediate 4112
preservation of the public peace, health, or safety shall state 4113
the reasons for the necessity. The emergency rule, in final form 4114
and in compliance with division (B)(3) of this section, shall be 4115
filed in electronic form with the secretary of state, the director 4116
of the legislative service commission, and the joint committee on 4117
agency rule review. The emergency rule is effective immediately 4118
upon completion of the latest filing, except that if the agency in 4119
adopting the emergency rule designates an effective date, or date 4120
and time of day, that is later than the effective date and time 4121
provided for by division (B)(2) of this section, the emergency 4122
rule if filed as required by such division shall become effective 4123
at the later date, or later date and time of day, designated by 4124
the agency.4125

       An emergency rule becomes invalid at the end of the ninetieth 4126
day it is in effect. Prior to that date, the agency may file the 4127
emergency rule as a nonemergency rule in compliance with division 4128
(B)(1) of this section. The agency may not refile the emergency 4129
rule in compliance with division (B)(2) of this section so that, 4130
upon the emergency rule becoming invalid under such division, the 4131
emergency rule will continue in effect without interruption for 4132
another ninety-day period.4133

       (3) An agency shall file a rule under division (B)(1) or (2) 4134
of this section in compliance with the following standards and 4135
procedures:4136

       (a) The rule shall be numbered in accordance with the 4137
numbering system devised by the director for the Ohio 4138
administrative code.4139

       (b) The rule shall be prepared and submitted in compliance 4140
with the rules of the legislative service commission.4141

       (c) The rule shall clearly state the date on which it is to 4142
be effective and the date on which it will expire, if known.4143

       (d) Each rule that amends or rescinds another rule shall 4144
clearly refer to the rule that is amended or rescinded. Each 4145
amendment shall fully restate the rule as amended.4146

       If the director of the legislative service commission or the 4147
director's designee gives an agency notice pursuant to section 4148
103.05 of the Revised Code that a rule filed by the agency is not 4149
in compliance with the rules of the legislative service 4150
commission, the agency shall within thirty days after receipt of 4151
the notice conform the rule to the rules of the commission as 4152
directed in the notice.4153

       (C) All rules filed pursuant to divisions (B)(1)(a) and (2) 4154
of this section shall be recorded by the secretary of state and 4155
the director under the title of the agency adopting the rule and 4156
shall be numbered according to the numbering system devised by the 4157
director. The secretary of state and the director shall preserve 4158
the rules in an accessible manner. Each such rule shall be a 4159
public record open to public inspection and may be transmitted to 4160
any law publishing company that wishes to reproduce it.4161

       (D) At least sixty-five days before a board, commission, 4162
department, division, or bureau of the government of the state 4163
files a rule under division (B)(1) of this section, it shall file 4164
the full text of the proposed rule in electronic form with the 4165
joint committee on agency rule review, and the proposed rule is 4166
subject to legislative review and invalidation under division (I) 4167
of section 119.03 of the Revised Code. If a state board, 4168
commission, department, division, or bureau makes a substantive 4169
revision in a proposed rule after it is filed with the joint 4170
committee, the state board, commission, department, division, or 4171
bureau shall promptly file the full text of the proposed rule in 4172
its revised form in electronic form with the joint committee. The 4173
latest version of a proposed rule as filed with the joint 4174
committee supersedes each earlier version of the text of the same 4175
proposed rule. Except as provided in division (F) of this section, 4176
aA state board, commission, department, division, or bureau shall 4177
also file the rule summary and fiscal analysis prepared under 4178
section 127.18 of the Revised Code in electronic form along with a 4179
proposed rule, and along with a proposed rule in revised form, 4180
that is filed under this division. If a proposed rule has an 4181
adverse impact on businesses, the state board, commission, 4182
department, division, or bureau also shall file the business 4183
impact analysis, any recommendations received from the common 4184
sense initiative office, and the associated memorandum of 4185
response, if any, in electronic form along with the proposed rule, 4186
or the proposed rule in revised form, that is filed under this 4187
division.4188

       As used in this division, "commission" includes the public 4189
utilities commission when adopting rules under a federal or state 4190
statute.4191

       This division does not apply to any of the following:4192

       (1) A proposed rule of an emergency nature;4193

       (2) A rule proposed under section 1121.05, 1121.06, 1155.18, 4194
1163.22, 1349.33, 1707.201, 1733.412, 4123.29, 4123.34, 4123.341, 4195
4123.342, 4123.40, 4123.411, 4123.44, or 4123.442 of the Revised 4196
Code;4197

       (3) A rule proposed by an agency other than a board, 4198
commission, department, division, or bureau of the government of 4199
the state;4200

       (4) A proposed internal management rule of a board, 4201
commission, department, division, or bureau of the government of 4202
the state;4203

       (5) Any proposed rule that must be adopted verbatim by an 4204
agency pursuant to federal law or rule, to become effective within 4205
sixty days of adoption, in order to continue the operation of a 4206
federally reimbursed program in this state, so long as the 4207
proposed rule contains both of the following:4208

       (a) A statement that it is proposed for the purpose of 4209
complying with a federal law or rule;4210

       (b) A citation to the federal law or rule that requires 4211
verbatim compliance.4212

       (6) An initial rule proposed by the director of health to 4213
impose safety standards and quality-of-care standards with respect 4214
to a health service specified in section 3702.11 of the Revised 4215
Code, or an initial rule proposed by the director to impose 4216
quality standards on a facility listed in division (A)(4) of 4217
section 3702.30 of the Revised Code, if section 3702.12 of the 4218
Revised Code requires that the rule be adopted under this section;4219

       (7) A rule of the state lottery commission pertaining to 4220
instant game rules.4221

       If a rule is exempt from legislative review under division 4222
(D)(5) of this section, and if the federal law or rule pursuant to 4223
which the rule was adopted expires, is repealed or rescinded, or 4224
otherwise terminates, the rule is thereafter subject to 4225
legislative review under division (D) of this section.4226

       (E) Whenever a state board, commission, department, division, 4227
or bureau files a proposed rule or a proposed rule in revised form 4228
under division (D) of this section, it shall also file the full 4229
text of the same proposed rule or proposed rule in revised form in 4230
electronic form with the secretary of state and the director of 4231
the legislative service commission. Except as provided in division 4232
(F) of this section, aA state board, commission, department, 4233
division, or bureau shall file the rule summary and fiscal 4234
analysis prepared under section 127.18 of the Revised Code in 4235
electronic form along with a proposed rule or proposed rule in 4236
revised form that is filed with the secretary of state or the 4237
director of the legislative service commission.4238

       (F) Except as otherwise provided in this division, the 4239
auditor of state or the auditor of state's designee is not 4240
required to file a rule summary and fiscal analysis along with a 4241
proposed rule, or proposed rule in revised form, that the auditor 4242
of state proposes under section 117.12, 117.19, 117.38, or 117.43 4243
of the Revised Code and files under division (D) or (E) of this 4244
section.4245

       Sec. 111.28.  (A) There is hereby created in the state 4246
treasury the help America vote act (HAVA) fund. All moneys 4247
received by the secretary of state from the United States election 4248
assistance commission shall be credited to the fund. The secretary 4249
of state shall use the moneys credited to the fund for activities 4250
conducted pursuant to the "Help America Vote Act of 2002," Pub. L. 4251
No. 107-252, 116 Stat. 1666. All investment earnings of the fund 4252
shall be credited to the fund.4253

       (B) There is hereby created in the state treasury the 4254
election reform/health and human services fund. All moneys 4255
received by the secretary of state from the United States 4256
department of health and human services shall be credited to the 4257
fund. The secretary of state shall use the moneys credited to the 4258
fund for activities conducted pursuant to grants awarded to the 4259
state under Title II, Subtitle D, Sections 261 to 265 of the Help 4260
America Vote Act of 2002 to assure access for individuals with 4261
disabilities. All investment earnings of the fund shall be 4262
credited to the fund.4263

       (C) There is hereby created in the state treasury the 4264
miscellaneous federal grants fund. All moneys the secretary of 4265
state receives as grants from federal sources that are not 4266
otherwise designated shall be credited to the fund. The secretary 4267
of state shall use the moneys credited to the fund for the 4268
purposes and activities required by the applicable federal grant 4269
agreements. All investment earnings of the fund shall be credited 4270
to the fund.4271

       Sec. 113.02.  Before entering upon the discharge of the 4272
duties of his office, the treasurer of state shall give a bond to 4273
the state in the sum of one million dollars, with sureties 4274
approved by the governora surety authorized to do business in the 4275
state, conditioned for the faithful discharge of the duties of his4276
the office of treasurer of state. The bond, with the approval of 4277
the governor and the oath of office endorsed thereon, shall be 4278
deposited with and kept by the secretary of state and kept in his4279
the secretary of state's office.4280

       Sec. 113.061.  The treasurer of state shall adopt rules in 4281
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code governing the 4282
remittance of taxes by electronic funds transfer as required under 4283
sections 5726.03, 5727.311, 5727.83, 5733.022, 5735.062, 5739.032, 4284
5745.04, and 5747.072, 5749.06, and 5751.07 of the Revised Code 4285
and any other section of the Revised Code under which a person is 4286
required to remit taxes by electronic funds transfer. The rules 4287
shall govern the modes of electronic funds transfer acceptable to 4288
the treasurer of state and under what circumstances each mode is 4289
acceptable, the content and format of electronic funds transfers, 4290
the coordination of payment by electronic funds transfer and 4291
filing of associated tax reports and returns, the remittance of 4292
taxes by means other than electronic funds transfer by persons 4293
otherwise required to do so but relieved of the requirement by the 4294
treasurer of state, and any other matter that in the opinion of 4295
the treasurer of state facilitates payment by electronic funds 4296
transfer in a manner consistent with those sections.4297

       Upon failure by a person, if so required, to remit taxes by 4298
electronic funds transfer in the manner prescribed under section4299
5726.03, 5727.83, 5733.022, 5735.062, 5739.032, 5745.04, or4300
5747.072, 5749.06, or 5751.07 of the Revised Code and rules 4301
adopted under this section, the treasurer of state shall notify 4302
the tax commissioner of such failure if the treasurer of state 4303
determines that such failure was not due to reasonable cause or 4304
was due to willful neglect, and shall provide the tax commissioner 4305
with any information used in making that determination. The tax 4306
commissioner may assess an additional charge as specified in the 4307
respective section of the Revised Code governing the requirement 4308
to remit taxes by electronic funds transfer.4309

       The treasurer of state may implement means of acknowledging, 4310
upon the request of a taxpayer, receipt of tax remittances made by 4311
electronic funds transfer, and may adopt rules governing 4312
acknowledgments. The cost of acknowledging receipt of electronic 4313
remittances shall be paid by the person requesting acknowledgment.4314

       The treasurer of state, not the tax commissioner, is 4315
responsible for resolving any problems involving electronic funds 4316
transfer transmissions.4317

       Sec. 117.03.  Before entering upon the discharge of the 4318
duties of his office, the auditor of state shall give a bond to 4319
the state in the sum of twenty thousand dollars, with a surety 4320
approved by the governorauthorized to do business in the state, 4321
conditioned for the faithful discharge of the duties of histhe4322
office of auditor of state. The bond, with the approval of the 4323
governor and the oath of office endorsed thereon, shall be 4324
deposited with and kept by the secretary of state and kept in his4325
the secretary of state's office.4326

       Sec. 117.10.  The auditor of state shall audit all public 4327
offices as provided in this chapter. The auditor of state also may 4328
audit the accounts of private institutions, associations, boards, 4329
and corporations receiving public money for their use and may 4330
require of them annual reports in such form as the auditor of 4331
state prescribes.4332

       If the auditor of state performs or contracts for the 4333
performance of an audit, including a special audit, of the public 4334
employees retirement system, school employees retirement system, 4335
state teachers retirement system, state highway patrol retirement 4336
system, or Ohio police and fire pension fund, the auditor of state 4337
shall make a timely report of the results of the audit to the Ohio 4338
retirement study council.4339

       The auditor of state may audit the accounts of any medicaid4340
provider, as defined in section 5111.065164.01 of the Revised 4341
Code.4342

       If a public office has been audited by an agency of the 4343
United States government, the auditor of state may, if satisfied 4344
that the federal audit has been conducted according to principles 4345
and procedures not contrary to those of the auditor of state, use 4346
and adopt the federal audit and report in lieu of an audit by the 4347
auditor of state's own office.4348

       Within thirty days after the creation or dissolution or the 4349
winding up of the affairs of any public office, that public office 4350
shall notify the auditor of state in writing that this action has 4351
occurred.4352

       Sec. 117.20.  (A) In adopting rules pursuant to Chapter 117. 4353
of the Revised Code, the auditor of state or the auditor of 4354
state's designee shall do both of the following:4355

       (1) Before adopting any such rule, except a rule of an 4356
emergency nature, do each of the following:4357

       (a) At least thirty-five days before any public hearing on 4358
the proposed rule-making action, mail or send by electronic mail4359
notice of the hearing to each public office and to each statewide 4360
organization that the auditor of state or designee determines will 4361
be affected or represents persons who will be affected by the 4362
proposed rule-making action;4363

       (b) Mail or send by electronic mail a copy of the proposed 4364
rule to any person or organization that requests a copy within 4365
five days after receipt of the request;4366

       (c) Consult with appropriate state and local government 4367
agencies, or with persons representative of their interests, 4368
including statewide organizations of local government officials, 4369
and consult with accounting professionals and other interested 4370
persons;4371

       (d) Conduct, on the date and at the time and place designated 4372
in the notice, a public hearing at which any person affected by 4373
the proposed rule, including statewide organizations of local 4374
government officials, may appear and be heard in person, by 4375
attorney, or both, and may present the person's or organization's 4376
position or contentions orally or in writing.4377

       (2) Except as otherwise provided in division (A)(2) of this 4378
section, complyComply with divisions (B) to (E) of section 111.15 4379
of the Revised Code. The auditor of state is not required to file 4380
a rule summary and fiscal analysis along with any copy of a 4381
proposed rule, or proposed rule in revised form, that is filed 4382
with the joint committee on agency rule review, the secretary of 4383
state, or the director of the legislative service commission under 4384
division (D) or (E) of section 111.15 of the Revised Code.4385

       (B) The auditor of state shall diligently discharge the 4386
duties imposed by divisions (A)(1)(a), (b), and (c) of this 4387
section, but failure to mail or send by electronic mail any notice 4388
or copy of a proposed rule, or to consult with any person or 4389
organization, shall not invalidate any rule.4390

       (C) Notwithstanding any contrary provision of the Revised 4391
Code, the auditor of state may prepare and disseminate, to public 4392
offices and other interested persons and organizations, advisory 4393
bulletins, directives, and instructions relating to accounting and 4394
financial reporting systems, budgeting procedures, fiscal 4395
controls, and the constructions by the auditor of state of 4396
constitutional and statutory provisions, court decisions, and 4397
opinions of the attorney general. The bulletins, directives, and 4398
instructions shall be of an advisory nature only.4399

       (D) As used in this section, "rule" includes the adoption, 4400
amendment, or rescission of a rule.4401

       Sec. 119.01.  As used in sections 119.01 to 119.13 of the 4402
Revised Code:4403

       (A)(1) "Agency" means, except as limited by this division, 4404
any official, board, or commission having authority to promulgate 4405
rules or make adjudications in the civil service commission, the 4406
division of liquor control, the department of taxation, the 4407
industrial commission, the bureau of workers' compensation, the 4408
functions of any administrative or executive officer, department, 4409
division, bureau, board, or commission of the government of the 4410
state specifically made subject to sections 119.01 to 119.13 of 4411
the Revised Code, and the licensing functions of any 4412
administrative or executive officer, department, division, bureau, 4413
board, or commission of the government of the state having the 4414
authority or responsibility of issuing, suspending, revoking, or 4415
canceling licenses.4416

       Except as otherwise provided in division (I) of this section, 4417
sections 119.01 to 119.13 of the Revised Code do not apply to the 4418
public utilities commission. Sections 119.01 to 119.13 of the 4419
Revised Code do not apply to the utility radiological safety 4420
board; to the controlling board; to actions of the superintendent 4421
of financial institutions and the superintendent of insurance in 4422
the taking possession of, and rehabilitation or liquidation of, 4423
the business and property of banks, savings and loan associations, 4424
savings banks, credit unions, insurance companies, associations, 4425
reciprocal fraternal benefit societies, and bond investment 4426
companies; to any action taken by the division of securities under 4427
section 1707.201 of the Revised Code; or to any action that may be 4428
taken by the superintendent of financial institutions under 4429
section 1113.03, 1121.06, 1121.10, 1125.09, 1125.12, 1125.18, 4430
1157.09, 1157.12, 1157.18, 1165.09, 1165.12, 1165.18, 1349.33, 4431
1733.35, 1733.361, 1733.37, or 1761.03 of the Revised Code.4432

       Sections 119.01 to 119.13 of the Revised Code do not apply to 4433
actions of the industrial commission or the bureau of workers' 4434
compensation under sections 4123.01 to 4123.94 of the Revised Code 4435
with respect to all matters of adjudication, or to the actions of 4436
the industrial commission, bureau of workers' compensation board 4437
of directors, and bureau of workers' compensation under division 4438
(D) of section 4121.32, sections 4123.29, 4123.34, 4123.341, 4439
4123.342, 4123.40, 4123.411, 4123.44, 4123.442, 4127.07, divisions 4440
(B), (C), and (E) of section 4131.04, and divisions (B), (C), and 4441
(E) of section 4131.14 of the Revised Code with respect to all 4442
matters concerning the establishment of premium, contribution, and 4443
assessment rates.4444

       (2) "Agency" also means any official or work unit having 4445
authority to promulgate rules or make adjudications in the 4446
department of job and family services, but only with respect to 4447
both of the following:4448

       (a) The adoption, amendment, or rescission of rules that 4449
section 5101.09 of the Revised Code requires be adopted in 4450
accordance with this chapter;4451

       (b) The issuance, suspension, revocation, or cancellation of 4452
licenses.4453

       (B) "License" means any license, permit, certificate, 4454
commission, or charter issued by any agency. "License" does not 4455
include any arrangement whereby a person, institution, or 4456
government entity furnishes medicaid services under a provider 4457
agreement with the department of job and family services pursuant 4458
to Title XIX of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 4459
U.S.C. 301, as amendedmedicaid.4460

       (C) "Rule" means any rule, regulation, or standard, having a 4461
general and uniform operation, adopted, promulgated, and enforced 4462
by any agency under the authority of the laws governing such 4463
agency, and includes any appendix to a rule. "Rule" does not 4464
include any internal management rule of an agency unless the 4465
internal management rule affects private rights and does not 4466
include any guideline adopted pursuant to section 3301.0714 of the 4467
Revised Code.4468

       (D) "Adjudication" means the determination by the highest or 4469
ultimate authority of an agency of the rights, duties, privileges, 4470
benefits, or legal relationships of a specified person, but does 4471
not include the issuance of a license in response to an 4472
application with respect to which no question is raised, nor other 4473
acts of a ministerial nature.4474

       (E) "Hearing" means a public hearing by any agency in 4475
compliance with procedural safeguards afforded by sections 119.01 4476
to 119.13 of the Revised Code.4477

       (F) "Person" means a person, firm, corporation, association, 4478
or partnership.4479

       (G) "Party" means the person whose interests are the subject 4480
of an adjudication by an agency.4481

       (H) "Appeal" means the procedure by which a person, aggrieved 4482
by a finding, decision, order, or adjudication of any agency, 4483
invokes the jurisdiction of a court.4484

       (I) "Rule-making agency" means any board, commission, 4485
department, division, or bureau of the government of the state 4486
that is required to file proposed rules, amendments, or 4487
rescissions under division (D) of section 111.15 of the Revised 4488
Code and any agency that is required to file proposed rules, 4489
amendments, or rescissions under divisions (B) and (H) of section 4490
119.03 of the Revised Code. "Rule-making agency" includes the 4491
public utilities commission. "Rule-making agency" does not include 4492
any state-supported college or university.4493

       (J) "Substantive revision" means any addition to, elimination 4494
from, or other change in a rule, an amendment of a rule, or a 4495
rescission of a rule, whether of a substantive or procedural 4496
nature, that changes any of the following:4497

       (1) That which the rule, amendment, or rescission permits, 4498
authorizes, regulates, requires, prohibits, penalizes, rewards, or 4499
otherwise affects;4500

       (2) The scope or application of the rule, amendment, or 4501
rescission.4502

       (K) "Internal management rule" means any rule, regulation, or 4503
standard governing the day-to-day staff procedures and operations 4504
within an agency.4505

       Sec. 120.06.  (A)(1) The state public defender, when 4506
designated by the court or requested by a county public defender 4507
or joint county public defender, may provide legal representation 4508
in all courts throughout the state to indigent adults and 4509
juveniles who are charged with the commission of an offense or act 4510
for which the penalty or any possible adjudication includes the 4511
potential loss of liberty.4512

       (2) The state public defender may provide legal 4513
representation to any indigent person who, while incarcerated in 4514
any state correctional institution, is charged with a felony 4515
offense, for which the penalty or any possible adjudication that 4516
may be imposed by a court upon conviction includes the potential 4517
loss of liberty.4518

       (3) The state public defender may provide legal 4519
representation to any person incarcerated in any correctional 4520
institution of the state, in any matter in which the person 4521
asserts the person is unlawfully imprisoned or detained.4522

       (4) The state public defender, in any case in which the state 4523
public defender has provided legal representation or is requested 4524
to do so by a county public defender or joint county public 4525
defender, may provide legal representation on appeal.4526

       (5) The state public defender, when designated by the court 4527
or requested by a county public defender, joint county public 4528
defender, or the director of rehabilitation and correction, shall 4529
provide legal representation in parole and probation revocation 4530
matters or matters relating to the revocation of community control 4531
or post-release control under a community control sanction or 4532
post-release control sanction, unless the state public defender 4533
finds that the alleged parole or probation violator or alleged 4534
violator of a community control sanction or post-release control 4535
sanction has the financial capacity to retain the alleged 4536
violator's own counsel.4537

       (6) If the state public defender contracts with a county 4538
public defender commission, a joint county public defender 4539
commission, or a board of county commissioners for the provision 4540
of services, under authority of division (C)(7) of section 120.04 4541
of the Revised Code, the state public defender shall provide legal 4542
representation in accordance with the contract.4543

       (B) The state public defender shall not be required to 4544
prosecute any appeal, postconviction remedy, or other proceeding 4545
pursuant to division (A)(3), (4), or (5) of this section, unless 4546
the state public defender first is satisfied that there is 4547
arguable merit to the proceeding.4548

       (C) A court may appoint counsel or allow an indigent person 4549
to select the indigent's own personal counsel to assist the state 4550
public defender as co-counsel when the interests of justice so 4551
require. When co-counsel is appointed to assist the state public 4552
defender, the co-counsel shall receive any compensation that the 4553
court may approve, not to exceed the amounts provided for in 4554
section 2941.51 of the Revised Code.4555

       (D)(1) When the state public defender is designated by the 4556
court or requested by a county public defender or joint county 4557
public defender to provide legal representation for an indigent 4558
person in any case, other than pursuant to a contract entered into 4559
under authority of division (C)(7) of section 120.04 of the 4560
Revised Code, the state public defender shall send to the county 4561
in which the case is filed a bill detailing the actual cost of the 4562
representation that separately itemizes legal fees and expenses. 4563
The county, upon receipt of an itemized bill from the state public 4564
defender pursuant to this division, shall pay the state public 4565
defender each of the following amounts:4566

       (a) For the amount identified as legal fees in the itemized 4567
bill, one hundred per cent of the amount identified as legal fees 4568
less the state reimbursement rate as calculated by the state 4569
public defender pursuant to section 120.34 of the Revised Code for 4570
the month the case terminated, as set forth in the itemized bill;4571

       (b) For the amount identified as expenses in the itemized 4572
bill, one hundred per cent.4573

       (2) Upon payment of the itemized bill under division (D)(1) 4574
of this section, the county may submit the cost of the expenses, 4575
excluding legal fees, to the state public defender for 4576
reimbursement pursuant to section 120.33 of the Revised Code.4577

       (3) When the state public defender provides investigation or 4578
mitigation services to private appointed counsel or to a county or 4579
joint county public defender as approved by the appointing court, 4580
other than pursuant to a contract entered into under authority of 4581
division (C)(7) of section 120.04 of the Revised Code, the state 4582
public defender shall send to the county in which the case is 4583
filed a bill itemizing the actual cost of the services provided. 4584
The county, upon receipt of an itemized bill from the state public 4585
defender pursuant to this division, shall pay one hundred per cent 4586
of the amount as set forth in the itemized bill. Upon payment of 4587
the itemized bill received pursuant to this division, the county 4588
may submit the cost of the investigation and mitigation services 4589
to the state public defender for reimbursement pursuant to section 4590
120.33 of the Revised Code.4591

       (4) There is hereby created in the state treasury the county 4592
representation fund for the deposit of moneys received from 4593
counties under this division. All moneys credited to the fund 4594
shall be used by the state public defender to provide legal 4595
representation for indigent persons when designated by the court 4596
or requested by a county or joint county public defender or to 4597
provide investigation or mitigation services, including 4598
investigation or mitigation services to private appointed counsel 4599
or a county or joint county public defender, as approved by the 4600
court.4601

       (E)(1) Notwithstanding any contrary provision of sections 4602
109.02, 109.07, 109.361 to 109.366, and 120.03 of the Revised Code 4603
that pertains to representation by the attorney general, an 4604
assistant attorney general, or special counsel of an officer or 4605
employee, as defined in section 109.36 of the Revised Code, or of 4606
an entity of state government, the state public defender may elect 4607
to contract with, and to have the state pay pursuant to division 4608
(E)(2) of this section for the services of, private legal counsel 4609
to represent the Ohio public defender commission, the state public 4610
defender, assistant state public defenders, other employees of the 4611
commission or the state public defender, and attorneys described 4612
in division (C) of section 120.41 of the Revised Code in a 4613
malpractice or other civil action or proceeding that arises from 4614
alleged actions or omissions related to responsibilities derived 4615
pursuant to this chapter, or in a civil action that is based upon 4616
alleged violations of the constitution or statutes of the United 4617
States, including section 1983 of Title 42 of the United States 4618
Code, 93 Stat. 1284 (1979), 42 U.S.C.A. 1983, as amended, and that 4619
arises from alleged actions or omissions related to 4620
responsibilities derived pursuant to this chapter, if the state 4621
public defender determines, in good faith, that the defendant in 4622
the civil action or proceeding did not act manifestly outside the 4623
scope of the defendant's employment or official responsibilities, 4624
with malicious purpose, in bad faith, or in a wanton or reckless 4625
manner. If the state public defender elects not to contract 4626
pursuant to this division for private legal counsel in a civil 4627
action or proceeding, then, in accordance with sections 109.02, 4628
109.07, 109.361 to 109.366, and 120.03 of the Revised Code, the 4629
attorney general shall represent or provide for the representation 4630
of the Ohio public defender commission, the state public defender, 4631
assistant state public defenders, other employees of the 4632
commission or the state public defender, or attorneys described in 4633
division (C) of section 120.41 of the Revised Code in the civil 4634
action or proceeding.4635

       (2)(a) Subject to division (E)(2)(b) of this section, payment 4636
from the state treasury for the services of private legal counsel 4637
with whom the state public defender has contracted pursuant to 4638
division (E)(1) of this section shall be accomplished only through 4639
the following procedure:4640

       (i) The private legal counsel shall file with the attorney 4641
general a copy of the contract; a request for an award of legal 4642
fees, court costs, and expenses earned or incurred in connection 4643
with the defense of the Ohio public defender commission, the state 4644
public defender, an assistant state public defender, an employee, 4645
or an attorney in a specified civil action or proceeding; a 4646
written itemization of those fees, costs, and expenses, including 4647
the signature of the state public defender and the state public 4648
defender's attestation that the fees, costs, and expenses were 4649
earned or incurred pursuant to division (E)(1) of this section to 4650
the best of the state public defender's knowledge and information; 4651
a written statement whether the fees, costs, and expenses are for 4652
all legal services to be rendered in connection with that defense, 4653
are only for legal services rendered to the date of the request 4654
and additional legal services likely will have to be provided in 4655
connection with that defense, or are for the final legal services 4656
rendered in connection with that defense; a written statement 4657
indicating whether the private legal counsel previously submitted 4658
a request for an award under division (E)(2) of this section in 4659
connection with that defense and, if so, the date and the amount 4660
of each award granted; and, if the fees, costs, and expenses are 4661
for all legal services to be rendered in connection with that 4662
defense or are for the final legal services rendered in connection 4663
with that defense, a certified copy of any judgment entry in the 4664
civil action or proceeding or a signed copy of any settlement 4665
agreement entered into between the parties to the civil action or 4666
proceeding.4667

       (ii) Upon receipt of a request for an award of legal fees, 4668
court costs, and expenses and the requisite supportive 4669
documentation described in division (E)(2)(a)(i) of this section, 4670
the attorney general shall review the request and documentation; 4671
determine whether any of the limitations specified in division 4672
(E)(2)(b) of this section apply to the request; and, if an award 4673
of legal fees, court costs, or expenses is permissible after 4674
applying the limitations, prepare a document awarding legal fees, 4675
court costs, or expenses to the private legal counsel. The 4676
document shall name the private legal counsel as the recipient of 4677
the award; specify the total amount of the award as determined by 4678
the attorney general; itemize the portions of the award that 4679
represent legal fees, court costs, and expenses; specify any 4680
limitation applied pursuant to division (E)(2)(b) of this section 4681
to reduce the amount of the award sought by the private legal 4682
counsel; state that the award is payable from the state treasury 4683
pursuant to division (E)(2)(a)(iii) of this section; and be 4684
approved by the inclusion of the signatures of the attorney 4685
general, the state public defender, and the private legal counsel.4686

       (iii) The attorney general shall forward a copy of the 4687
document prepared pursuant to division (E)(2)(a)(ii) of this 4688
section to the director of budget and management. The award of 4689
legal fees, court costs, or expenses shall be paid out of the 4690
state public defender's appropriations, to the extent there is a 4691
sufficient available balance in those appropriations. If the state 4692
public defender does not have a sufficient available balance in 4693
the state public defender's appropriations to pay the entire award 4694
of legal fees, court costs, or expenses, the director shall make 4695
application for a transfer of appropriations out of the emergency 4696
purposes account or any other appropriation for emergencies or 4697
contingencies in an amount equal to the portion of the award that 4698
exceeds the sufficient available balance in the state public 4699
defender's appropriations. A transfer of appropriations out of the 4700
emergency purposes account or any other appropriation for 4701
emergencies or contingencies shall be authorized if there are 4702
sufficient moneys greater than the sum total of then pending 4703
emergency purposes account requests, or requests for releases from 4704
the other appropriation. If a transfer of appropriations out of 4705
the emergency purposes account or other appropriation for 4706
emergencies or contingencies is made to pay an amount equal to the 4707
portion of the award that exceeds the sufficient available balance 4708
in the state public defender's appropriations, the director shall 4709
cause the payment to be made to the private legal counsel. If 4710
sufficient moneys do not exist in the emergency purposes account 4711
or other appropriation for emergencies or contingencies to pay an 4712
amount equal to the portion of the award that exceeds the 4713
sufficient available balance in the state public defender's 4714
appropriations, the private legal counsel shall request the 4715
general assembly to make an appropriation sufficient to pay an 4716
amount equal to the portion of the award that exceeds the 4717
sufficient available balance in the state public defender's 4718
appropriations, and no payment in that amount shall be made until 4719
the appropriation has been made. The private legal counsel shall 4720
make the request during the current biennium and during each 4721
succeeding biennium until a sufficient appropriation is made.4722

       (b) An award of legal fees, court costs, and expenses 4723
pursuant to division (E) of this section is subject to the 4724
following limitations:4725

       (i) The maximum award or maximum aggregate of a series of 4726
awards of legal fees, court costs, and expenses to the private 4727
legal counsel in connection with the defense of the Ohio public 4728
defender commission, the state public defender, an assistant state 4729
public defender, an employee, or an attorney in a specified civil 4730
action or proceeding shall not exceed fifty thousand dollars.4731

       (ii) The private legal counsel shall not be awarded legal 4732
fees, court costs, or expenses to the extent the fees, costs, or 4733
expenses are covered by a policy of malpractice or other 4734
insurance.4735

       (iii) The private legal counsel shall be awarded legal fees 4736
and expenses only to the extent that the fees and expenses are 4737
reasonable in light of the legal services rendered by the private 4738
legal counsel in connection with the defense of the Ohio public 4739
defender commission, the state public defender, an assistant state 4740
public defender, an employee, or an attorney in a specified civil 4741
action or proceeding.4742

       (c) If, pursuant to division (E)(2)(a) of this section, the 4743
attorney general denies a request for an award of legal fees, 4744
court costs, or expenses to private legal counsel because of the 4745
application of a limitation specified in division (E)(2)(b) of 4746
this section, the attorney general shall notify the private legal 4747
counsel in writing of the denial and of the limitation applied.4748

       (d) If, pursuant to division (E)(2)(c) of this section, a 4749
private legal counsel receives a denial of an award notification 4750
or if a private legal counsel refuses to approve a document under 4751
division (E)(2)(a)(ii) of this section because of the proposed 4752
application of a limitation specified in division (E)(2)(b) of 4753
this section, the private legal counsel may commence a civil 4754
action against the attorney general in the court of claims to 4755
prove the private legal counsel's entitlement to the award sought, 4756
to prove that division (E)(2)(b) of this section does not prohibit 4757
or otherwise limit the award sought, and to recover a judgment for 4758
the amount of the award sought. A civil action under division 4759
(E)(2)(d) of this section shall be commenced no later than two 4760
years after receipt of a denial of award notification or, if the 4761
private legal counsel refused to approve a document under division 4762
(E)(2)(a)(ii) of this section because of the proposed application 4763
of a limitation specified in division (E)(2)(b) of this section, 4764
no later than two years after the refusal. Any judgment of the 4765
court of claims in favor of the private legal counsel shall be 4766
paid from the state treasury in accordance with division (E)(2)(a) 4767
of this section.4768

       (F) If a court appoints the office of the state public 4769
defender to represent a petitioner in a postconviction relief 4770
proceeding under section 2953.21 of the Revised Code, the 4771
petitioner has received a sentence of death, and the proceeding 4772
relates to that sentence, all of the attorneys who represent the 4773
petitioner in the proceeding pursuant to the appointment, whether 4774
an assistant state public defender, the state public defender, or 4775
another attorney, shall be certified under Rule 20 of the Rules of 4776
Superintendence for the Courts of Ohio to represent indigent 4777
defendants charged with or convicted of an offense for which the 4778
death penalty can be or has been imposed.4779

       (G)(1) The state public defender may provide legal 4780
representation and services to a child committed to the department 4781
of youth services relative to either of the following:4782

        (a) The fact or duration of the child's confinement, 4783
including, but not limited to, appeals, post-conviction relief, 4784
petitions for habeas corpus, and administrative issues that may 4785
extend the period of confinement;4786

        (b) Conditions of the child's confinement.4787

        (2) Division (G)(1) of this section does not authorize the 4788
state public defender to represent a child committed to the 4789
department of youth services in general civil matters arising 4790
solely out of state law. 4791

       (H) A child's right to representation or services under this 4792
section is not affected by the child, or another person on behalf 4793
of the child, previously having paid for similar representation or 4794
services or having waived legal representation.4795

        (I) The state public defender shall have access to any child 4796
committed to the department of youth services, department of youth 4797
services institution, and department of youth services record as 4798
needed to implement this section.4799

        (J) As used in this section:4800

       (1) "Community control sanction" has the same meaning as in 4801
section 2929.01 of the Revised Code.4802

       (2) "Conditions of confinement" means any issue involving a 4803
constitutional right or other civil right related to a child's 4804
incarceration, including, but not limited to, actions cognizable 4805
under 42 U.S.C. 1983.4806

        (3) "Post-release control sanction" has the same meaning as 4807
in section 2967.01 of the Revised Code.4808

       Sec. 121.02.  The following administrative departments and 4809
their respective directors are hereby created:4810

       (A) The office of budget and management, which shall be 4811
administered by the director of budget and management;4812

       (B) The department of commerce, which shall be administered 4813
by the director of commerce;4814

       (C) The department of administrative services, which shall be 4815
administered by the director of administrative services;4816

       (D) The department of transportation, which shall be 4817
administered by the director of transportation;4818

       (E) The department of agriculture, which shall be 4819
administered by the director of agriculture;4820

       (F) The department of natural resources, which shall be 4821
administered by the director of natural resources;4822

       (G) The department of health, which shall be administered by 4823
the director of health;4824

       (H) The department of job and family services, which shall be 4825
administered by the director of job and family services;4826

       (I) Until July 1, 1997, the department of liquor control, 4827
which shall be administered by the director of liquor control;4828

       (J) The department of public safety, which shall be 4829
administered by the director of public safety;4830

       (K) The department of mental healthmental health and 4831
addiction services, which shall be administered by the director of 4832
mental healthmental health and addiction services;4833

       (L) The department of developmental disabilities, which shall 4834
be administered by the director of developmental disabilities;4835

       (M) The department of insurance, which shall be administered 4836
by the superintendent of insurance as director thereof;4837

       (N) The development services agency, which shall be 4838
administered by the director of development services;4839

       (O) The department of youth services, which shall be 4840
administered by the director of youth services;4841

       (P) The department of rehabilitation and correction, which 4842
shall be administered by the director of rehabilitation and 4843
correction;4844

       (Q) The environmental protection agency, which shall be 4845
administered by the director of environmental protection;4846

       (R) The department of aging, which shall be administered by 4847
the director of aging;4848

       (S) The department of alcohol and drug addiction services, 4849
which shall be administered by the director of alcohol and drug 4850
addiction services;4851

       (T) The department of veterans services, which shall be 4852
administered by the director of veterans services;4853

       (T) The department of medicaid, which shall be administered 4854
by the medicaid director.4855

       The director of each department shall exercise the powers and 4856
perform the duties vested by law in such department.4857

       Sec. 121.03.  The following administrative department heads 4858
shall be appointed by the governor, with the advice and consent of 4859
the senate, and shall hold their offices during the term of the 4860
appointing governor, and are subject to removal at the pleasure of 4861
the governor.4862

       (A) The director of budget and management;4863

       (B) The director of commerce;4864

       (C) The director of transportation;4865

       (D) The director of agriculture;4866

       (E) The director of job and family services;4867

       (F) Until July 1, 1997, the director of liquor control;4868

       (G) The director of public safety;4869

       (H) The superintendent of insurance;4870

       (I) The director of development services;4871

       (J) The tax commissioner;4872

       (K) The director of administrative services;4873

       (L) The director of natural resources;4874

       (M) The director of mental healthmental health and addiction 4875
services;4876

       (N) The director of developmental disabilities;4877

       (O) The director of health;4878

       (P) The director of youth services;4879

       (Q) The director of rehabilitation and correction;4880

       (R) The director of environmental protection;4881

       (S) The director of aging;4882

       (T) The director of alcohol and drug addiction services;4883

       (U) The administrator of workers' compensation who meets the 4884
qualifications required under division (A) of section 4121.121 of 4885
the Revised Code;4886

       (V)(U) The director of veterans services who meets the 4887
qualifications required under section 5902.01 of the Revised Code;4888

       (W)(V) The chancellor of the Ohio board of regents;4889

       (W) The medicaid director.4890

       Sec. 121.11.  (A) Each officer whose office is created by 4891
sections 121.02, 121.04, and 121.05 of the Revised Code, before 4892
entering upon the duties of office, shall take and subscribe an 4893
oath of office as provided by law and give bond, conditioned 4894
according to law, with security to be approved by the governor in 4895
the penal sum, not less than ten thousand dollars, fixed by the 4896
governor. The department of administrative services may procure 4897
from any duly authorized corporate surety authorized to do 4898
business in the state a schedule or blanket bond covering the 4899
officers described in those sections and any other officers the 4900
governor designates. The bond and oath of the officers described 4901
in those sections shall be filed in the office of the secretary of 4902
state.4903

       (B) The director of each department, with the approval of the 4904
governor, may require any chief of a division, or any officer or 4905
employee in the director's department, to give bond in the amount 4906
the governor prescribes. The bond or bonds may, in the discretion 4907
of the director, be individual, schedule, or blanket bonds.4908

       (C) The premium on any bond required or authorized by this 4909
section may be paid from the state treasury.4910

       Sec. 121.22.  (A) This section shall be liberally construed 4911
to require public officials to take official action and to conduct 4912
all deliberations upon official business only in open meetings 4913
unless the subject matter is specifically excepted by law.4914

       (B) As used in this section:4915

       (1) "Public body" means any of the following:4916

       (a) Any board, commission, committee, council, or similar 4917
decision-making body of a state agency, institution, or authority, 4918
and any legislative authority or board, commission, committee, 4919
council, agency, authority, or similar decision-making body of any 4920
county, township, municipal corporation, school district, or other 4921
political subdivision or local public institution;4922

       (b) Any committee or subcommittee of a body described in 4923
division (B)(1)(a) of this section;4924

       (c) A court of jurisdiction of a sanitary district organized 4925
wholly for the purpose of providing a water supply for domestic, 4926
municipal, and public use when meeting for the purpose of the 4927
appointment, removal, or reappointment of a member of the board of 4928
directors of such a district pursuant to section 6115.10 of the 4929
Revised Code, if applicable, or for any other matter related to 4930
such a district other than litigation involving the district. As 4931
used in division (B)(1)(c) of this section, "court of 4932
jurisdiction" has the same meaning as "court" in section 6115.01 4933
of the Revised Code.4934

       (2) "Meeting" means any prearranged discussion of the public 4935
business of the public body by a majority of its members.4936

       (3) "Regulated individual" means either of the following:4937

       (a) A student in a state or local public educational 4938
institution;4939

       (b) A person who is, voluntarily or involuntarily, an inmate, 4940
patient, or resident of a state or local institution because of 4941
criminal behavior, mental illness or retardation, disease, 4942
disability, age, or other condition requiring custodial care.4943

       (4) "Public office" has the same meaning as in section 4944
149.011 of the Revised Code.4945

       (C) All meetings of any public body are declared to be public 4946
meetings open to the public at all times. A member of a public 4947
body shall be present in person at a meeting open to the public to 4948
be considered present or to vote at the meeting and for purposes 4949
of determining whether a quorum is present at the meeting.4950

       The minutes of a regular or special meeting of any public 4951
body shall be promptly prepared, filed, and maintained and shall 4952
be open to public inspection. The minutes need only reflect the 4953
general subject matter of discussions in executive sessions 4954
authorized under division (G) or (J) of this section.4955

       (D) This section does not apply to any of the following:4956

       (1) A grand jury;4957

       (2) An audit conference conducted by the auditor of state or 4958
independent certified public accountants with officials of the 4959
public office that is the subject of the audit;4960

       (3) The adult parole authority when its hearings are 4961
conducted at a correctional institution for the sole purpose of 4962
interviewing inmates to determine parole or pardon;4963

       (4) The organized crime investigations commission established 4964
under section 177.01 of the Revised Code;4965

       (5) Meetings of a child fatality review board established 4966
under section 307.621 of the Revised Code and meetings conducted 4967
pursuant to sections 5153.171 to 5153.173 of the Revised Code;4968

       (6) The state medical board when determining whether to 4969
suspend a certificate without a prior hearing pursuant to division 4970
(G) of either section 4730.25 or 4731.22 of the Revised Code;4971

       (7) The board of nursing when determining whether to suspend 4972
a license or certificate without a prior hearing pursuant to 4973
division (B) of section 4723.281 of the Revised Code;4974

       (8) The state board of pharmacy when determining whether to 4975
suspend a license without a prior hearing pursuant to division (D) 4976
of section 4729.16 of the Revised Code;4977

       (9) The state chiropractic board when determining whether to 4978
suspend a license without a hearing pursuant to section 4734.37 of 4979
the Revised Code;4980

       (10) The executive committee of the emergency response 4981
commission when determining whether to issue an enforcement order 4982
or request that a civil action, civil penalty action, or criminal 4983
action be brought to enforce Chapter 3750. of the Revised Code;4984

       (11) The board of directors of the nonprofit corporation 4985
formed under section 187.01 of the Revised Code or any committee 4986
thereof, and the board of directors of any subsidiary of that 4987
corporation or a committee thereof;4988

       (12) An audit conference conducted by the audit staff of the 4989
department of job and family services with officials of the public 4990
office that is the subject of that audit under section 5101.37 of 4991
the Revised Code.4992

       (E) The controlling board, the industrial technology and 4993
enterprise advisory council, the tax credit authority, or the 4994
minority development financing advisory board, when meeting to 4995
consider granting assistance pursuant to Chapter 122. or 166. of 4996
the Revised Code, in order to protect the interest of the 4997
applicant or the possible investment of public funds, by unanimous 4998
vote of all board, council, or authority members present, may 4999
close the meeting during consideration of the following 5000
information confidentially received by the authority, council, or 5001
board from the applicant:5002

       (1) Marketing plans;5003

       (2) Specific business strategy;5004

       (3) Production techniques and trade secrets;5005

       (4) Financial projections;5006

       (5) Personal financial statements of the applicant or members 5007
of the applicant's immediate family, including, but not limited 5008
to, tax records or other similar information not open to public 5009
inspection.5010

       The vote by the authority, council, or board to accept or 5011
reject the application, as well as all proceedings of the 5012
authority, council, or board not subject to this division, shall 5013
be open to the public and governed by this section.5014

       (F) Every public body, by rule, shall establish a reasonable 5015
method whereby any person may determine the time and place of all 5016
regularly scheduled meetings and the time, place, and purpose of 5017
all special meetings. A public body shall not hold a special 5018
meeting unless it gives at least twenty-four hours' advance notice 5019
to the news media that have requested notification, except in the 5020
event of an emergency requiring immediate official action. In the 5021
event of an emergency, the member or members calling the meeting 5022
shall notify the news media that have requested notification 5023
immediately of the time, place, and purpose of the meeting.5024

       The rule shall provide that any person, upon request and 5025
payment of a reasonable fee, may obtain reasonable advance 5026
notification of all meetings at which any specific type of public 5027
business is to be discussed. Provisions for advance notification 5028
may include, but are not limited to, mailing the agenda of 5029
meetings to all subscribers on a mailing list or mailing notices 5030
in self-addressed, stamped envelopes provided by the person.5031

       (G) Except as provided in division (J) of this section, the 5032
members of a public body may hold an executive session only after 5033
a majority of a quorum of the public body determines, by a roll 5034
call vote, to hold an executive session and only at a regular or 5035
special meeting for the sole purpose of the consideration of any 5036
of the following matters:5037

       (1) To consider the appointment, employment, dismissal, 5038
discipline, promotion, demotion, or compensation of a public 5039
employee or official, or the investigation of charges or 5040
complaints against a public employee, official, licensee, or 5041
regulated individual, unless the public employee, official, 5042
licensee, or regulated individual requests a public hearing. 5043
Except as otherwise provided by law, no public body shall hold an 5044
executive session for the discipline of an elected official for 5045
conduct related to the performance of the elected official's 5046
official duties or for the elected official's removal from office. 5047
If a public body holds an executive session pursuant to division 5048
(G)(1) of this section, the motion and vote to hold that executive 5049
session shall state which one or more of the approved purposes 5050
listed in division (G)(1) of this section are the purposes for 5051
which the executive session is to be held, but need not include 5052
the name of any person to be considered at the meeting.5053

       (2) To consider the purchase of property for public purposes, 5054
or for the sale of property at competitive bidding, if premature 5055
disclosure of information would give an unfair competitive or 5056
bargaining advantage to a person whose personal, private interest 5057
is adverse to the general public interest. No member of a public 5058
body shall use division (G)(2) of this section as a subterfuge for 5059
providing covert information to prospective buyers or sellers. A 5060
purchase or sale of public property is void if the seller or buyer 5061
of the public property has received covert information from a 5062
member of a public body that has not been disclosed to the general 5063
public in sufficient time for other prospective buyers and sellers 5064
to prepare and submit offers.5065

       If the minutes of the public body show that all meetings and 5066
deliberations of the public body have been conducted in compliance 5067
with this section, any instrument executed by the public body 5068
purporting to convey, lease, or otherwise dispose of any right, 5069
title, or interest in any public property shall be conclusively 5070
presumed to have been executed in compliance with this section 5071
insofar as title or other interest of any bona fide purchasers, 5072
lessees, or transferees of the property is concerned.5073

       (3) Conferences with an attorney for the public body 5074
concerning disputes involving the public body that are the subject 5075
of pending or imminent court action;5076

       (4) Preparing for, conducting, or reviewing negotiations or 5077
bargaining sessions with public employees concerning their 5078
compensation or other terms and conditions of their employment;5079

       (5) Matters required to be kept confidential by federal law 5080
or regulations or state statutes;5081

       (6) Details relative to the security arrangements and 5082
emergency response protocols for a public body or a public office, 5083
if disclosure of the matters discussed could reasonably be 5084
expected to jeopardize the security of the public body or public 5085
office;5086

       (7) In the case of a county hospital operated pursuant to 5087
Chapter 339. of the Revised Code, a joint township hospital 5088
operated pursuant to Chapter 513. of the Revised Code, or a 5089
municipal hospital operated pursuant to Chapter 749. of the 5090
Revised Code, to consider trade secrets, as defined in section 5091
1333.61 of the Revised Code.5092

       If a public body holds an executive session to consider any 5093
of the matters listed in divisions (G)(2) to (7) of this section, 5094
the motion and vote to hold that executive session shall state 5095
which one or more of the approved matters listed in those 5096
divisions are to be considered at the executive session.5097

       A public body specified in division (B)(1)(c) of this section 5098
shall not hold an executive session when meeting for the purposes 5099
specified in that division.5100

       (H) A resolution, rule, or formal action of any kind is 5101
invalid unless adopted in an open meeting of the public body. A 5102
resolution, rule, or formal action adopted in an open meeting that 5103
results from deliberations in a meeting not open to the public is 5104
invalid unless the deliberations were for a purpose specifically 5105
authorized in division (G) or (J) of this section and conducted at 5106
an executive session held in compliance with this section. A 5107
resolution, rule, or formal action adopted in an open meeting is 5108
invalid if the public body that adopted the resolution, rule, or 5109
formal action violated division (F) of this section.5110

       (I)(1) Any person may bring an action to enforce this 5111
section. An action under division (I)(1) of this section shall be 5112
brought within two years after the date of the alleged violation 5113
or threatened violation. Upon proof of a violation or threatened 5114
violation of this section in an action brought by any person, the 5115
court of common pleas shall issue an injunction to compel the 5116
members of the public body to comply with its provisions.5117

       (2)(a) If the court of common pleas issues an injunction 5118
pursuant to division (I)(1) of this section, the court shall order 5119
the public body that it enjoins to pay a civil forfeiture of five 5120
hundred dollars to the party that sought the injunction and shall 5121
award to that party all court costs and, subject to reduction as 5122
described in division (I)(2) of this section, reasonable 5123
attorney's fees. The court, in its discretion, may reduce an award 5124
of attorney's fees to the party that sought the injunction or not 5125
award attorney's fees to that party if the court determines both 5126
of the following:5127

       (i) That, based on the ordinary application of statutory law 5128
and case law as it existed at the time of violation or threatened 5129
violation that was the basis of the injunction, a well-informed 5130
public body reasonably would believe that the public body was not 5131
violating or threatening to violate this section;5132

       (ii) That a well-informed public body reasonably would 5133
believe that the conduct or threatened conduct that was the basis 5134
of the injunction would serve the public policy that underlies the 5135
authority that is asserted as permitting that conduct or 5136
threatened conduct.5137

       (b) If the court of common pleas does not issue an injunction 5138
pursuant to division (I)(1) of this section and the court 5139
determines at that time that the bringing of the action was 5140
frivolous conduct, as defined in division (A) of section 2323.51 5141
of the Revised Code, the court shall award to the public body all 5142
court costs and reasonable attorney's fees, as determined by the 5143
court.5144

       (3) Irreparable harm and prejudice to the party that sought 5145
the injunction shall be conclusively and irrebuttably presumed 5146
upon proof of a violation or threatened violation of this section.5147

       (4) A member of a public body who knowingly violates an 5148
injunction issued pursuant to division (I)(1) of this section may 5149
be removed from office by an action brought in the court of common 5150
pleas for that purpose by the prosecuting attorney or the attorney 5151
general.5152

       (J)(1) Pursuant to division (C) of section 5901.09 of the 5153
Revised Code, a veterans service commission shall hold an 5154
executive session for one or more of the following purposes unless 5155
an applicant requests a public hearing:5156

       (a) Interviewing an applicant for financial assistance under 5157
sections 5901.01 to 5901.15 of the Revised Code;5158

       (b) Discussing applications, statements, and other documents 5159
described in division (B) of section 5901.09 of the Revised Code;5160

       (c) Reviewing matters relating to an applicant's request for 5161
financial assistance under sections 5901.01 to 5901.15 of the 5162
Revised Code.5163

       (2) A veterans service commission shall not exclude an 5164
applicant for, recipient of, or former recipient of financial 5165
assistance under sections 5901.01 to 5901.15 of the Revised Code, 5166
and shall not exclude representatives selected by the applicant, 5167
recipient, or former recipient, from a meeting that the commission 5168
conducts as an executive session that pertains to the applicant's, 5169
recipient's, or former recipient's application for financial 5170
assistance.5171

       (3) A veterans service commission shall vote on the grant or 5172
denial of financial assistance under sections 5901.01 to 5901.15 5173
of the Revised Code only in an open meeting of the commission. The 5174
minutes of the meeting shall indicate the name, address, and 5175
occupation of the applicant, whether the assistance was granted or 5176
denied, the amount of the assistance if assistance is granted, and 5177
the votes for and against the granting of assistance.5178

       Sec. 121.35.  (A) Subject to division (B) of this section, 5179
the following state agencies shall collaborate to revise and make 5180
more uniform the eligibility standards and eligibility 5181
determination procedures of programs the state agencies 5182
administer:5183

       (1) The department of aging; 5184

       (2) The department of alcohol and drug addiction services;5185

       (3) The department of development services agency;5186

       (4)(3) The department of developmental disabilities;5187

       (5)(4) The department of education;5188

       (6)(5) The department of health;5189

       (7)(6) The department of job and family services;5190

       (8)(7) The department of medicaid;5191

       (8) The department of mental healthmental health and 5192
addiction services;5193

       (9) The rehabilitation services commission.5194

       (B) In revising eligibility standards and eligibility 5195
determination procedures, a state agency shall not make any 5196
program's eligibility standards or eligibility determination 5197
procedures inconsistent with state or federal law. To the extent 5198
authorized by state and federal law, the revisions may provide for 5199
the state agencies to share administrative operations.5200

       Sec. 121.37.  (A)(1) There is hereby created the Ohio family 5201
and children first cabinet council. The council shall be composed 5202
of the superintendent of public instruction, the administrator of 5203
the rehabilitation services commission, the medicaid director, and 5204
the directors of youth services, job and family services, mental 5205
healthmental health and addiction services, health, alcohol and 5206
drug addiction services, developmental disabilities, aging, 5207
rehabilitation and correction, and budget and management. The 5208
chairperson of the council shall be the governor or the governor's 5209
designee and shall establish procedures for the council's internal 5210
control and management.5211

        The purpose of the cabinet council is to help families 5212
seeking government services. This section shall not be interpreted 5213
or applied to usurp the role of parents, but solely to streamline 5214
and coordinate existing government services for families seeking 5215
assistance for their children.5216

       (2) In seeking to fulfill its purpose, the council may do any 5217
of the following:5218

       (a) Advise and make recommendations to the governor and 5219
general assembly regarding the provision of services to children;5220

       (b) Advise and assess local governments on the coordination 5221
of service delivery to children;5222

       (c) Hold meetings at such times and places as may be 5223
prescribed by the council's procedures and maintain records of the 5224
meetings, except that records identifying individual children are 5225
confidential and shall be disclosed only as provided by law;5226

       (d) Develop programs and projects, including pilot projects, 5227
to encourage coordinated efforts at the state and local level to 5228
improve the state's social service delivery system;5229

       (e) Enter into contracts with and administer grants to county 5230
family and children first councils, as well as other county or 5231
multicounty organizations to plan and coordinate service delivery 5232
between state agencies and local service providers for families 5233
and children;5234

       (f) Enter into contracts with and apply for grants from 5235
federal agencies or private organizations;5236

       (g) Enter into interagency agreements to encourage 5237
coordinated efforts at the state and local level to improve the 5238
state's social service delivery system. The agreements may include 5239
provisions regarding the receipt, transfer, and expenditure of 5240
funds;5241

       (h) Identify public and private funding sources for services 5242
provided to alleged or adjudicated unruly children and children 5243
who are at risk of being alleged or adjudicated unruly children, 5244
including regulations governing access to and use of the services;5245

       (i) Collect information provided by local communities 5246
regarding successful programs for prevention, intervention, and 5247
treatment of unruly behavior, including evaluations of the 5248
programs;5249

       (j) Identify and disseminate publications regarding alleged 5250
or adjudicated unruly children and children who are at risk of 5251
being alleged or adjudicated unruly children and regarding 5252
programs serving those types of children;5253

       (k) Maintain an inventory of strategic planning facilitators 5254
for use by government or nonprofit entities that serve alleged or 5255
adjudicated unruly children or children who are at risk of being 5256
alleged or adjudicated unruly children.5257

       (3) The cabinet council shall provide for the following:5258

       (a) Reviews of service and treatment plans for children for 5259
which such reviews are requested;5260

       (b) Assistance as the council determines to be necessary to 5261
meet the needs of children referred by county family and children 5262
first councils;5263

       (c) Monitoring and supervision of a statewide, comprehensive, 5264
coordinated, multi-disciplinary, interagency system for infants 5265
and toddlers with developmental disabilities or delays and their 5266
families, as established pursuant to federal grants received and 5267
administered by the department of health for early intervention 5268
services under the "Individuals with Disabilities Education Act of 5269
2004," 118 Stat. 2744, 20 U.S.C.A. 1400, as amended.5270

       (4) The cabinet council shall develop and implement the 5271
following:5272

       (a) An interagency process to select the indicators that will 5273
be used to measure progress toward increasing child well-being in 5274
the state and to update the indicators on an annual basis. The 5275
indicators shall focus on expectant parents and newborns thriving; 5276
infants and toddlers thriving; children being ready for school; 5277
children and youth succeeding in school; youth choosing healthy 5278
behaviors; and youth successfully transitioning into adulthood.5279

       (b) An interagency system to offer guidance and monitor 5280
progress toward increasing child well-being in the state and in 5281
each county;5282

       (c) An annual plan that identifies state-level agency efforts 5283
taken to ensure progress towards increasing child well-being in 5284
the state.5285

       On an annual basis, the cabinet council shall submit to the 5286
governor and the general assembly a report on the status of 5287
efforts to increase child well-being in the state. This report 5288
shall be made available to any other person on request.5289

       (B)(1) Each board of county commissioners shall establish a 5290
county family and children first council. The board may invite any 5291
local public or private agency or group that funds, advocates, or 5292
provides services to children and families to have a 5293
representative become a permanent or temporary member of its 5294
county council. Each county council must include the following 5295
individuals:5296

       (a) At least three individuals who are not employed by an 5297
agency represented on the council and whose families are or have 5298
received services from an agency represented on the council or 5299
another county's council. Where possible, the number of members 5300
representing families shall be equal to twenty per cent of the 5301
council's membership.5302

       (b) The director of the board of alcohol, drug addiction, and 5303
mental health services that serves the county, or, in the case of 5304
a county that has a board of alcohol and drug addiction services 5305
and a community mental health board, the directors of both boards. 5306
If a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services 5307
covers more than one county, the director may designate a person 5308
to participate on the county's council.5309

       (c) The health commissioner, or the commissioner's designee, 5310
of the board of health of each city and general health district in 5311
the county. If the county has two or more health districts, the 5312
health commissioner membership may be limited to the commissioners 5313
of the two districts with the largest populations.5314

       (d) The director of the county department of job and family 5315
services;5316

       (e) The executive director of the public children services 5317
agency;5318

       (f) The superintendent of the county board of developmental 5319
disabilities or, if the superintendent serves as superintendent of 5320
more than one county board of developmental disabilities, the 5321
superintendent's designee;5322

       (g) The superintendent of the city, exempted village, or 5323
local school district with the largest number of pupils residing 5324
in the county, as determined by the department of education, which 5325
shall notify each board of county commissioners of its 5326
determination at least biennially;5327

       (h) A school superintendent representing all other school 5328
districts with territory in the county, as designated at a 5329
biennial meeting of the superintendents of those districts;5330

       (i) A representative of the municipal corporation with the 5331
largest population in the county;5332

       (j) The president of the board of county commissioners or an 5333
individual designated by the board;5334

       (k) A representative of the regional office of the department 5335
of youth services;5336

       (l) A representative of the county's head start agencies, as 5337
defined in section 3301.32 of the Revised Code;5338

       (m) A representative of the county's early intervention 5339
collaborative established pursuant to the federal early 5340
intervention program operated under the "Individuals with 5341
Disabilities Education Act of 2004";5342

       (n) A representative of a local nonprofit entity that funds, 5343
advocates, or provides services to children and families.5344

       Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the public 5345
members of a county council are not prohibited from serving on the 5346
council and making decisions regarding the duties of the council, 5347
including those involving the funding of joint projects and those 5348
outlined in the county's service coordination mechanism 5349
implemented pursuant to division (C) of this section.5350

       The cabinet council shall establish a state appeals process 5351
to resolve disputes among the members of a county council 5352
concerning whether reasonable responsibilities as members are 5353
being shared. The appeals process may be accessed only by a 5354
majority vote of the council members who are required to serve on 5355
the council. Upon appeal, the cabinet council may order that state 5356
funds for services to children and families be redirected to a 5357
county's board of county commissioners.5358

       The county's juvenile court judge senior in service or 5359
another judge of the juvenile court designated by the 5360
administrative judge or, where there is no administrative judge, 5361
by the judge senior in service shall serve as the judicial advisor 5362
to the county family and children first council. The judge may 5363
advise the county council on the court's utilization of resources, 5364
services, or programs provided by the entities represented by the 5365
members of the county council and how those resources, services, 5366
or programs assist the court in its administration of justice. 5367
Service of a judge as a judicial advisor pursuant to this section 5368
is a judicial function.5369

       (2) The purpose of the county council is to streamline and 5370
coordinate existing government services for families seeking 5371
services for their children. In seeking to fulfill its purpose, a 5372
county council shall provide for the following:5373

       (a) Referrals to the cabinet council of those children for 5374
whom the county council cannot provide adequate services;5375

       (b) Development and implementation of a process that annually 5376
evaluates and prioritizes services, fills service gaps where 5377
possible, and invents new approaches to achieve better results for 5378
families and children;5379

       (c) Participation in the development of a countywide, 5380
comprehensive, coordinated, multi-disciplinary, interagency system 5381
for infants and toddlers with developmental disabilities or delays 5382
and their families, as established pursuant to federal grants 5383
received and administered by the department of health for early 5384
intervention services under the "Individuals with Disabilities 5385
Education Act of 2004";5386

       (d) Maintenance of an accountability system to monitor the 5387
county council's progress in achieving results for families and 5388
children;5389

       (e) Establishment of a mechanism to ensure ongoing input from 5390
a broad representation of families who are receiving services 5391
within the county system.5392

       (3) A county council shall develop and implement the 5393
following:5394

       (a) An interagency process to establish local indicators and 5395
monitor the county's progress toward increasing child well-being 5396
in the county;5397

       (b) An interagency process to identify local priorities to 5398
increase child well-being. The local priorities shall focus on 5399
expectant parents and newborns thriving; infants and toddlers 5400
thriving; children being ready for school; children and youth 5401
succeeding in school; youth choosing healthy behaviors; and youth 5402
successfully transitioning into adulthood and take into account 5403
the indicators established by the cabinet council under division 5404
(A)(4)(a) of this section.5405

       (c) An annual plan that identifies the county's interagency 5406
efforts to increase child well-being in the county.5407

       On an annual basis, the county council shall submit a report 5408
on the status of efforts by the county to increase child 5409
well-being in the county to the county's board of county 5410
commissioners and the cabinet council. This report shall be made 5411
available to any other person on request.5412

       (4)(a) Except as provided in division (B)(4)(b) of this 5413
section, a county council shall comply with the policies, 5414
procedures, and activities prescribed by the rules or interagency 5415
agreements of a state department participating on the cabinet 5416
council whenever the county council performs a function subject to 5417
those rules or agreements.5418

       (b) On application of a county council, the cabinet council 5419
may grant an exemption from any rules or interagency agreements of 5420
a state department participating on the council if an exemption is 5421
necessary for the council to implement an alternative program or 5422
approach for service delivery to families and children. The 5423
application shall describe the proposed program or approach and 5424
specify the rules or interagency agreements from which an 5425
exemption is necessary. The cabinet council shall approve or 5426
disapprove the application in accordance with standards and 5427
procedures it shall adopt. If an application is approved, the 5428
exemption is effective only while the program or approach is being 5429
implemented, including a reasonable period during which the 5430
program or approach is being evaluated for effectiveness.5431

       (5)(a) Each county council shall designate an administrative 5432
agent for the council from among the following public entities: 5433
the board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services, 5434
including a board of alcohol and drug addiction or a community 5435
mental health board if the county is served by separate boards; 5436
the board of county commissioners; any board of health of the 5437
county's city and general health districts; the county department 5438
of job and family services; the county agency responsible for the 5439
administration of children services pursuant to section 5153.15 of 5440
the Revised Code; the county board of developmental disabilities; 5441
any of the county's boards of education or governing boards of 5442
educational service centers; or the county's juvenile court. Any 5443
of the foregoing public entities, other than the board of county 5444
commissioners, may decline to serve as the council's 5445
administrative agent.5446

       A county council's administrative agent shall serve as the 5447
council's appointing authority for any employees of the council. 5448
The council shall file an annual budget with its administrative 5449
agent, with copies filed with the county auditor and with the 5450
board of county commissioners, unless the board is serving as the 5451
council's administrative agent. The council's administrative agent 5452
shall ensure that all expenditures are handled in accordance with 5453
policies, procedures, and activities prescribed by state 5454
departments in rules or interagency agreements that are applicable 5455
to the council's functions.5456

       The administrative agent of a county council shall send 5457
notice of a member's absence if a member listed in division (B)(1) 5458
of this section has been absent from either three consecutive 5459
meetings of the county council or a county council subcommittee, 5460
or from one-quarter of such meetings in a calendar year, whichever 5461
is less. The notice shall be sent to the board of county 5462
commissioners that establishes the county council and, for the 5463
members listed in divisions (B)(1)(b), (c), (e), and (l) of this 5464
section, to the governing board overseeing the respective entity; 5465
for the member listed in division (B)(1)(f) of this section, to 5466
the county board of developmental disabilities that employs the 5467
superintendent; for a member listed in division (B)(1)(g) or (h) 5468
of this section, to the school board that employs the 5469
superintendent; for the member listed in division (B)(1)(i) of 5470
this section, to the mayor of the municipal corporation; for the 5471
member listed in division (B)(1)(k) of this section, to the 5472
director of youth services; and for the member listed in division 5473
(B)(1)(n) of this section, to that member's board of trustees.5474

       The administrative agent for a county council may do any of 5475
the following on behalf of the council:5476

       (i) Enter into agreements or administer contracts with public 5477
or private entities to fulfill specific council business. Such 5478
agreements and contracts are exempt from the competitive bidding 5479
requirements of section 307.86 of the Revised Code if they have 5480
been approved by the county council and they are for the purchase 5481
of family and child welfare or child protection services or other 5482
social or job and family services for families and children. The 5483
approval of the county council is not required to exempt 5484
agreements or contracts entered into under section 5139.34, 5485
5139.41, or 5139.43 of the Revised Code from the competitive 5486
bidding requirements of section 307.86 of the Revised Code.5487

       (ii) As determined by the council, provide financial 5488
stipends, reimbursements, or both, to family representatives for 5489
expenses related to council activity;5490

       (iii) Receive by gift, grant, devise, or bequest any moneys, 5491
lands, or other property for the purposes for which the council is 5492
established. The agent shall hold, apply, and dispose of the 5493
moneys, lands, or other property according to the terms of the 5494
gift, grant, devise, or bequest. Any interest or earnings shall be 5495
treated in the same manner and are subject to the same terms as 5496
the gift, grant, devise, or bequest from which it accrues.5497

       (b)(i) If the county council designates the board of county 5498
commissioners as its administrative agent, the board may, by 5499
resolution, delegate any of its powers and duties as 5500
administrative agent to an executive committee the board 5501
establishes from the membership of the county council. The board 5502
shall name to the executive committee at least the individuals 5503
described in divisions (B)(1)(b) to (h) of this section and may 5504
appoint the president of the board or another individual as the 5505
chair of the executive committee. The executive committee must 5506
include at least one family county council representative who does 5507
not have a family member employed by an agency represented on the 5508
council.5509

       (ii) The executive committee may, with the approval of the 5510
board, hire an executive director to assist the county council in 5511
administering its powers and duties. The executive director shall 5512
serve in the unclassified civil service at the pleasure of the 5513
executive committee. The executive director may, with the approval 5514
of the executive committee, hire other employees as necessary to 5515
properly conduct the county council's business.5516

       (iii) The board may require the executive committee to submit 5517
an annual budget to the board for approval and may amend or repeal 5518
the resolution that delegated to the executive committee its 5519
authority as the county council's administrative agent.5520

       (6) Two or more county councils may enter into an agreement 5521
to administer their county councils jointly by creating a regional 5522
family and children first council. A regional council possesses 5523
the same duties and authority possessed by a county council, 5524
except that the duties and authority apply regionally rather than 5525
to individual counties. Prior to entering into an agreement to 5526
create a regional council, the members of each county council to 5527
be part of the regional council shall meet to determine whether 5528
all or part of the members of each county council will serve as 5529
members of the regional council.5530

       (7) A board of county commissioners may approve a resolution 5531
by a majority vote of the board's members that requires the county 5532
council to submit a statement to the board each time the council 5533
proposes to enter into an agreement, adopt a plan, or make a 5534
decision, other than a decision pursuant to section 121.38 of the 5535
Revised Code, that requires the expenditure of funds for two or 5536
more families. The statement shall describe the proposed 5537
agreement, plan, or decision.5538

       Not later than fifteen days after the board receives the 5539
statement, it shall, by resolution approved by a majority of its 5540
members, approve or disapprove the agreement, plan, or decision. 5541
Failure of the board to pass a resolution during that time period 5542
shall be considered approval of the agreement, plan, or decision.5543

       An agreement, plan, or decision for which a statement is 5544
required to be submitted to the board shall be implemented only if 5545
it is approved by the board.5546

       (C) Each county shall develop a county service coordination 5547
mechanism. The county service coordination mechanism shall serve 5548
as the guiding document for coordination of services in the 5549
county. For children who also receive services under the help me 5550
grow program, the service coordination mechanism shall be 5551
consistent with rules adopted by the department of health under 5552
section 3701.61 of the Revised Code. All family service 5553
coordination plans shall be developed in accordance with the 5554
county service coordination mechanism. The mechanism shall be 5555
developed and approved with the participation of the county 5556
entities representing child welfare; mental retardation and 5557
developmental disabilities; alcohol, drug addiction, and mental 5558
health services; health; juvenile judges; education; the county 5559
family and children first council; and the county early 5560
intervention collaborative established pursuant to the federal 5561
early intervention program operated under the "Individuals with 5562
Disabilities Education Act of 2004." The county shall establish an 5563
implementation schedule for the mechanism. The cabinet council may 5564
monitor the implementation and administration of each county's 5565
service coordination mechanism.5566

       Each mechanism shall include all of the following:5567

       (1) A procedure for an agency, including a juvenile court, or 5568
a family voluntarily seeking service coordination, to refer the 5569
child and family to the county council for service coordination in 5570
accordance with the mechanism;5571

       (2) A procedure ensuring that a family and all appropriate 5572
staff from involved agencies, including a representative from the 5573
appropriate school district, are notified of and invited to 5574
participate in all family service coordination plan meetings;5575

        (3) A procedure that permits a family to initiate a meeting 5576
to develop or review the family's service coordination plan and 5577
allows the family to invite a family advocate, mentor, or support 5578
person of the family's choice to participate in any such meeting;5579

        (4) A procedure for ensuring that a family service 5580
coordination plan meeting is conducted for each child who receives 5581
service coordination under the mechanism and for whom an emergency 5582
out-of-home placement has been made or for whom a nonemergency 5583
out-of-home placement is being considered. The meeting shall be 5584
conducted within ten days of an emergency out-of-home placement. 5585
The meeting shall be conducted before a nonemergency out-of-home 5586
placement. The family service coordination plan shall outline how 5587
the county council members will jointly pay for services, where 5588
applicable, and provide services in the least restrictive 5589
environment.5590

        (5) A procedure for monitoring the progress and tracking the 5591
outcomes of each service coordination plan requested in the county 5592
including monitoring and tracking children in out-of-home 5593
placements to assure continued progress, appropriateness of 5594
placement, and continuity of care after discharge from placement 5595
with appropriate arrangements for housing, treatment, and 5596
education.;5597

        (6) A procedure for protecting the confidentiality of all 5598
personal family information disclosed during service coordination 5599
meetings or contained in the comprehensive family service 5600
coordination plan.5601

        (7) A procedure for assessing the needs and strengths of any 5602
child or family that has been referred to the council for service 5603
coordination, including a child whose parent or custodian is 5604
voluntarily seeking services, and for ensuring that parents and 5605
custodians are afforded the opportunity to participate;5606

       (8) A procedure for development of a family service 5607
coordination plan described in division (D) of this section;5608

       (9) A local dispute resolution process to serve as the 5609
process that must be used first to resolve disputes among the 5610
agencies represented on the county council concerning the 5611
provision of services to children, including children who are 5612
abused, neglected, dependent, unruly, alleged unruly, or 5613
delinquent children and under the jurisdiction of the juvenile 5614
court and children whose parents or custodians are voluntarily 5615
seeking services. The local dispute resolution process shall 5616
comply with sections 121.38, 121.381, and 121.382 of the Revised 5617
Code. The local dispute resolution process shall be used to 5618
resolve disputes between a child's parents or custodians and the 5619
county council regarding service coordination. The county council 5620
shall inform the parents or custodians of their right to use the 5621
dispute resolution process. Parents or custodians shall use 5622
existing local agency grievance procedures to address disputes not 5623
involving service coordination. The dispute resolution process is 5624
in addition to and does not replace other rights or procedures 5625
that parents or custodians may have under other sections of the 5626
Revised Code.5627

       The cabinet council shall adopt rules in accordance with 5628
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code establishing an administrative 5629
review process to address problems that arise concerning the 5630
operation of a local dispute resolution process.5631

        Nothing in division (C)(4) of this section shall be 5632
interpreted as overriding or affecting decisions of a juvenile 5633
court regarding an out-of-home placement, long-term placement, or 5634
emergency out-of-home placement.5635

       (D) Each county shall develop a family service coordination 5636
plan that does all of the following:5637

       (1) Designates service responsibilities among the various 5638
state and local agencies that provide services to children and 5639
their families, including children who are abused, neglected, 5640
dependent, unruly, or delinquent children and under the 5641
jurisdiction of the juvenile court and children whose parents or 5642
custodians are voluntarily seeking services;5643

       (2) Designates an individual, approved by the family, to 5644
track the progress of the family service coordination plan, 5645
schedule reviews as necessary, and facilitate the family service 5646
coordination plan meeting process;5647

        (3) Ensures that assistance and services to be provided are 5648
responsive to the strengths and needs of the family, as well as 5649
the family's culture, race, and ethnic group, by allowing the 5650
family to offer information and suggestions and participate in 5651
decisions. Identified assistance and services shall be provided in 5652
the least restrictive environment possible.5653

        (4) Includes a process for dealing with a child who is 5654
alleged to be an unruly child. The process shall include methods 5655
to divert the child from the juvenile court system;5656

       (5) Includes timelines for completion of goals specified in 5657
the plan with regular reviews scheduled to monitor progress toward 5658
those goals;5659

        (6) Includes a plan for dealing with short-term crisis 5660
situations and safety concerns.5661

       (E)(1) The process provided for under division (D)(4) of this 5662
section may include, but is not limited to, the following:5663

        (a) Designation of the person or agency to conduct the 5664
assessment of the child and the child's family as described in 5665
division (C)(7) of this section and designation of the instrument 5666
or instruments to be used to conduct the assessment;5667

       (b) An emphasis on the personal responsibilities of the child 5668
and the parental responsibilities of the parents, guardian, or 5669
custodian of the child;5670

       (c) Involvement of local law enforcement agencies and 5671
officials.5672

       (2) The method to divert a child from the juvenile court 5673
system that must be included in the service coordination process 5674
may include, but is not limited to, the following:5675

       (a) The preparation of a complaint under section 2151.27 of 5676
the Revised Code alleging that the child is an unruly child and 5677
notifying the child and the parents, guardian, or custodian that 5678
the complaint has been prepared to encourage the child and the 5679
parents, guardian, or custodian to comply with other methods to 5680
divert the child from the juvenile court system;5681

       (b) Conducting a meeting with the child, the parents, 5682
guardian, or custodian, and other interested parties to determine 5683
the appropriate methods to divert the child from the juvenile 5684
court system;5685

        (c) A method to provide to the child and the child's family a 5686
short-term respite from a short-term crisis situation involving a 5687
confrontation between the child and the parents, guardian, or 5688
custodian;5689

       (d) A program to provide a mentor to the child or the 5690
parents, guardian, or custodian;5691

       (e) A program to provide parenting education to the parents, 5692
guardian, or custodian;5693

       (f) An alternative school program for children who are truant 5694
from school, repeatedly disruptive in school, or suspended or 5695
expelled from school;5696

       (g) Other appropriate measures, including, but not limited 5697
to, any alternative methods to divert a child from the juvenile 5698
court system that are identified by the Ohio family and children 5699
first cabinet council.5700

       (F) Each county may review and revise the service 5701
coordination process described in division (D) of this section 5702
based on the availability of funds under Title IV-A of the "Social 5703
Security Act," 110 Stat. 2113 (1996), 42 U.S.C.A. 601, as amended, 5704
or to the extent resources are available from any other federal, 5705
state, or local funds.5706

       Sec. 121.372.  (A) As used in this section, "substitute care 5707
provider" means any of the following:5708

       (1) An alcohol and drugA community addiction program5709
services provider subject to certification under section 3793.065710
5119.36 of the Revised Code;5711

       (2) An institution or association subject to certification 5712
under section 5103.03 of the Revised Code;5713

       (3) A residential facility subject to licensure under section 5714
5119.225119.34 of the Revised Code;5715

       (4) A residential facility subject to licensure under section 5716
5123.19 of the Revised Code.5717

       (B) Not later than ninety days after the effective date of 5718
this sectionMarch 18, 1999, the members of the Ohio family and 5719
children first cabinet council, other than the director of budget 5720
and management, shall enter into an agreement to establish an 5721
office to perform the duties prescribed by division (C) of this 5722
section. The agreement shall specify one of the departments 5723
represented on the council as the department responsible for 5724
housing and supervising the office. The agreement shall include 5725
the recommendation of the council for funding the office.5726

       (C) The office established pursuant to the agreement entered 5727
into under this section shall review rules governing the 5728
certification and licensure of substitute care providers and 5729
determine which of the rules can be made substantively identical 5730
or more similar in order to minimize the number of differing 5731
certification and licensure standards and simplify the 5732
certification or licensure process for substitute care providers 5733
seeking certification or licensure from two or more of the 5734
departments represented on the council. The office shall provide 5735
county family and children first councils, substitute care 5736
providers, and persons interested in substitute care providers the 5737
opportunity to help the office with the review and determination. 5738
The office shall report its findings to the council. Each of the 5739
departments represented on the council that has adopted rules 5740
governing the certification or licensure of substitute care 5741
providers shall review the report and amend the rules as that 5742
department considers appropriate, except that no rule shall be 5743
amended so as to make it inconsistent with substitute care 5744
provider certification or licensure procedures and standards 5745
established by federal or state law. A department shall give 5746
priority to amendments that will not increase the department's 5747
administrative costs. In amending a rule, a department shall 5748
comply with Chapter 119. or section 111.15 of the Revised Code, as 5749
required by the Revised Code section governing the adoption of the 5750
particular rule. 5751

       (D) In accordance with section 124.27 of the Revised Code, 5752
the council shall select a coordinator to oversee the office 5753
established pursuant to the agreement entered into under this 5754
section. The coordinator shall be in the classified service. In 5755
addition to overseeing the office, the coordinator shall perform 5756
any other duties the council assigns to the coordinator. The 5757
duties the council assigns to the coordinator shall be related to 5758
the duties of the office under division (C) of this section.5759

       Sec. 121.483. A deputy inspector general appointed under 5760
section 121.48 of the Revised Code, who has been awarded a 5761
certificate by the executive director of the Ohio peace officer 5762
training commission attesting to the person's satisfactory 5763
completion of an approved state, county, or municipal peace 5764
officer basic training program, shall have the power and authority 5765
of a peace officer under the laws of this state while engaged in 5766
the scope of the deputy inspector general's duties.5767

       Sec. 122.075. (A) As used in this section:5768

       (1) "Alternative fuel" has the same meaning as in section 5769
125.831 of the Revised Code.5770

       (2) "Biodiesel" means a mono-alkyl ester combustible liquid 5771
fuel that is derived from vegetable oils or animal fats, or any 5772
combination of those reagents, and that meets American society for 5773
testing and materials specification D6751-03a for biodiesel fuel 5774
(B100) blend stock distillate fuels.5775

       (3) "Diesel fuel" and "gasoline" have the same meanings as in 5776
section 5735.01 of the Revised Code.5777

       (4) "Ethanol" has the same meaning as in section 5733.46 of 5778
the Revised Code.5779

       (5) "Blended biodiesel" means diesel fuel containing at least 5780
twenty per cent biodiesel by volume.5781

       (6) "Blended gasoline" means gasoline containing at least 5782
eighty-five per cent ethanol by volume.5783

       (7) "Incremental cost" means either of the following:5784

       (a) The difference in cost between blended gasoline and 5785
gasoline containing ten per cent or less ethanol at the time that 5786
the blended gasoline is purchased;5787

       (b) The difference in cost between blended biodiesel and 5788
diesel fuel containing two per cent or less biodiesel at the time 5789
that the blended biodiesel is purchased.5790

       (B) For the purpose of improving the air quality in this 5791
state, the director of development services shall establish an 5792
alternative fuel transportation program under which the director 5793
may make grants and loans to businesses, nonprofit organizations, 5794
public school systems, or local governments for the purchase and 5795
installation of alternative fuel refueling or distribution 5796
facilities and terminals, for the purchase and use of alternative 5797
fuel, to pay the cost of fleet conversion, and to pay the costs of 5798
educational and promotional materials and activities intended for 5799
prospective alternative fuel consumers, fuel marketers, and others 5800
in order to increase the availability and use of alternative fuel.5801

       (C) The director, in consultation with the director of 5802
agriculture, shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of 5803
the Revised Code that are necessary for the administration of the 5804
alternative fuel transportation program. The rules shall establish 5805
at least all of the following:5806

       (1) An application form and procedures governing the 5807
application process for receiving funds under the program;5808

       (2) A procedure for prioritizing the award of grants and 5809
loans under the program. The procedures shall give preference to 5810
all of the following:5811

       (a) Publicly accessible refueling facilities;5812

       (b) Entities applying to the program that have secured 5813
funding from other sources, including, but not limited to, private 5814
or federal incentives;5815

       (c) Entities that have presented compelling evidence of 5816
demand in the market in which the facilities or terminals will be 5817
located;5818

       (d) Entities that have committed to utilizing purchased or 5819
installed facilities or terminals for the greatest number of 5820
years;5821

       (e) Entities that will be purchasing or installing facilities 5822
or terminals for any type of alternative fuel.5823

       (3) A requirement that the maximum incentive for the purchase 5824
and installation of an alternative fuel refueling or distribution 5825
facility or terminal be eighty per cent of the cost of the 5826
facility or terminal, except that at least twenty per cent of the 5827
total net cost of the facility or terminal shall be incurred by 5828
the recipient and not compensated for by any other source;5829

       (4) A requirement that the maximum incentive for the purchase 5830
of alternative fuel be eighty per cent of the cost of the fuel or, 5831
in the case of blended biodiesel or blended gasoline, eighty per 5832
cent of the incremental cost of the blended biodiesel or blended 5833
gasoline;5834

       (5) Any other criteria, procedures, or guidelines that the 5835
director determines are necessary to administer the program, 5836
including fees, charges, interest rates, and payment schedules.5837

       (D) An applicant for a grant or loan under this section that 5838
sells motor vehicle fuel at retail shall agree that if the 5839
applicant receives funding, the applicant will report to the 5840
director the gallon or gallon equivalent amounts of alternative 5841
fuel the applicant sells at retail in this state for a period of 5842
three years after the project is completed.5843

       The director shall enter into a written confidentiality 5844
agreement with the applicant regarding the gallon or gallon 5845
equivalent amounts sold as described in this division, and upon 5846
execution of the agreement this information is not a public 5847
record.5848

       (E) There is hereby created in the state treasury the 5849
alternative fuel transportation fund. The fund shall consist of 5850
money transferred to the fund under division (C)(B) of section 5851
125.836 and under division (B)(2) of section 3706.27 of the 5852
Revised Code, money that is appropriated to it by the general 5853
assembly, and money as may be specified by the general assembly 5854
from the advanced energy fund created by section 4928.61 of the 5855
Revised Code, and all money received from the repayment of loans 5856
made from the fund or in the event of a default on any such loan. 5857
Money in the fund shall be used to make grants and loans under the 5858
alternative fuel transportation program and by the director in the 5859
administration of that program.5860

       Sec. 122.083. (A) The director of development shall 5861
administer a shovel ready sites program to provide grants for 5862
projects to port authorities and development entities approved by 5863
the director. Grants may be used to pay the costs of any or all of 5864
the following:5865

        (1) Acquisition of property, including options;5866

        (2) Preparation of sites, including brownfield clean-up 5867
activities;5868

        (3) Construction of road, water, telecommunication, and 5869
utility infrastructure;5870

        (4) Payment of professional fees the amount of which shall 5871
not exceed twenty per cent of the grant amount for a project.5872

        (B) The director shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 5873
119. of the Revised Code that establish procedures and 5874
requirements necessary for the administration of the program, 5875
including a requirement that a recipient of a grant enter into an 5876
agreement with the director governing the use of the grant.5877

       (C) There is hereby created in the state treasury the shovel 5878
ready sites fund consisting of money appropriated to it. Money in 5879
the fund shall be used solely for the purposes of this section.5880

       Sec. 122.17.  (A) As used in this section:5881

       (1) "Income tax revenue" means the total amount withheld 5882
under section 5747.06 of the Revised Code by the taxpayer during 5883
the taxable year, or during the calendar year that includes the 5884
tax period, from the compensation of each employee or each 5885
home-based employee employed in the project to the extent the 5886
employee's withholdings are not used to determine the credit under 5887
section 122.171 of the Revised Code. "Income tax revenue" excludes 5888
amounts withheld before the day the taxpayer becomes eligible for 5889
the credit.5890

       (2) "Baseline income tax revenue" means income tax revenue 5891
except that the applicable withholding period is the twelve months 5892
immediately preceding the date the tax credit authority approves 5893
the taxpayer's application or the date the tax credit authority 5894
receives the recommendation described in division (C)(2)(a) of 5895
this section, whichever occurs first, multiplied by the sum of one 5896
plus an annual pay increase factor to be determined by the tax 5897
credit authority. If the taxpayer becomes eligible for the credit 5898
after the first day of the taxpayer's taxable year or after the 5899
first day of the calendar year that includes the tax period, the 5900
taxpayer's baseline income tax revenue for the first such taxable 5901
or calendar year of credit eligibility shall be reduced in 5902
proportion to the number of days during the taxable or calendar 5903
year for which the taxpayer was not eligible for the credit. For 5904
subsequent taxable or calendar years, "baseline income tax 5905
revenue" equals the unreduced baseline income tax revenue for the 5906
preceding taxable or calendar year multiplied by the sum of one 5907
plus the pay increase factor.5908

       (3) "Excess income tax revenue" means income tax revenue 5909
minus baseline income tax revenue.5910

       (4) "Home-based employee" means an employee whose services 5911
are performed primarily from the employee's residence in this 5912
state exclusively for the benefit of the project and whose rate of 5913
pay is at least one hundred thirty-one per cent of the federal 5914
minimum wage under 29 U.S.C. 206. 5915

       (B) The tax credit authority may make grants under this 5916
section to foster job creation in this state. Such a grant shall 5917
take the form of a refundable credit allowed against the tax 5918
imposed by section 5725.18, 5726.02, 5729.03, 5733.06, or 5747.02 5919
or levied under Chapter 5751. of the Revised Code. The credit 5920
shall be claimed for the taxable years or tax periods specified in 5921
the taxpayer's agreement with the tax credit authority under 5922
division (D) of this section. With respect to taxes imposed under 5923
section 5726.02, 5733.06, or 5747.02 or Chapter 5751. of the 5924
Revised Code, the credit shall be claimed in the order required 5925
under section 5726.98, 5733.98, 5747.98, or 5751.98 of the Revised 5926
Code. The amount of the credit available for a taxable year or for 5927
a calendar year that includes a tax period equals the excess 5928
income tax revenue for that year multiplied by the percentage 5929
specified in the agreement with the tax credit authority. Any 5930
credit granted under this section against the tax imposed by 5931
section 5733.06 or 5747.02 of the Revised Code, to the extent not 5932
fully utilized against such tax for taxable years ending prior to 5933
2008, shall automatically be converted without any action taken by 5934
the tax credit authority to a credit against the tax levied under 5935
Chapter 5751. of the Revised Code for tax periods beginning on or 5936
after July 1, 2008, provided that the person to whom the credit 5937
was granted is subject to such tax. The converted credit shall 5938
apply to those calendar years in which the remaining taxable years 5939
specified in the agreement end.5940

       (C)(1) A taxpayer or potential taxpayer who proposes a 5941
project to create new jobs in this state may apply to the tax 5942
credit authority to enter into an agreement for a tax credit under 5943
this section. 5944

       An application shall not propose to include both home-based 5945
employees and employees who are not home-based employees in the 5946
computation of income tax revenue for the purposes of the same tax 5947
credit agreement. If a taxpayer or potential taxpayer employs both 5948
home-based employees and employees who are not home-based 5949
employees in a project, the taxpayer shall submit separate 5950
applications for separate tax credit agreements for the project, 5951
one of which shall include home-based employees in the computation 5952
of income tax revenue and one of which shall include all other 5953
employees in the computation of income tax revenue.5954

       The director of development services shall prescribe the form 5955
of the application. After receipt of an application, the authority 5956
may enter into an agreement with the taxpayer for a credit under 5957
this section if it determines all of the following:5958

       (a) The taxpayer's project will increase payroll and income 5959
tax revenue;5960

       (b) The taxpayer's project is economically sound and will 5961
benefit the people of this state by increasing opportunities for 5962
employment and strengthening the economy of this state;5963

       (c) Receiving the tax credit is a major factor in the 5964
taxpayer's decision to go forward with the project.5965

       (2)(a) A taxpayer that chooses to begin the project prior to 5966
receiving the determination of the authority may, upon submitting 5967
the taxpayer's application to the authority, request that the 5968
chief investment officer of the nonprofit corporation formed under 5969
section 187.01 of the Revised Code and the director review the 5970
taxpayer's application and recommend to the authority that the 5971
taxpayer's application be considered. As soon as possible after 5972
receiving such a request, the chief investment officer and the 5973
director shall review the taxpayer's application and, if they 5974
determine that the application warrants consideration by the 5975
authority, make that recommendation to the authority not later 5976
than six months after the application is received by the 5977
authority.5978

       (b) The authority shall consider any taxpayer's application 5979
for which it receives a recommendation under division (C)(2)(a) of 5980
this section. If the authority determines that the taxpayer does 5981
not meet all of the criteria set forth in division (C)(1) of this 5982
section, the authority and the development services agency shall 5983
proceed in accordance with rules adopted by the director pursuant 5984
to division (I) of this section.5985

       (D) An agreement under this section shall include all of the 5986
following:5987

       (1) A detailed description of the project that is the subject 5988
of the agreement;5989

       (2)(a) The term of the tax credit, which, except as provided 5990
in division (D)(2)(b) of this section, shall not exceed fifteen 5991
years, and the first taxable year, or first calendar year that 5992
includes a tax period, for which the credit may be claimed;5993

       (b) If the tax credit is computed on the basis of home-based 5994
employees, the term of the credit shall expire on or before the 5995
last day of the taxable or calendar year ending before the 5996
beginning of the seventh year after September 6, 2012, the 5997
effective date of H.B. 327 of the 129th general assembly;.5998

       (3) A requirement that the taxpayer shall maintain operations 5999
at the project location for at least the greater of seven years or 6000
the term of the credit plus three years;6001

       (4) The percentage, as determined by the tax credit 6002
authority, of excess income tax revenue that will be allowed as 6003
the amount of the credit for each taxable year or for each 6004
calendar year that includes a tax period;6005

       (5) The pay increase factor to be applied to the taxpayer's 6006
baseline income tax revenue;6007

       (6) A requirement that the taxpayer annually shall report to 6008
the director of development services employment, tax withholding, 6009
investment, the provision of health care benefits and tuition 6010
reimbursement if required in the agreement, and other information 6011
the director needs to perform the director's duties under this 6012
section;6013

       (7) A requirement that the director of development services 6014
annually review the information reported under division (D)(6) of 6015
this section and verify compliance with the agreement; if the 6016
taxpayer is in compliance, a requirement that the director issue a 6017
certificate to the taxpayer stating that the information has been 6018
verified and identifying the amount of the credit that may be 6019
claimed for the taxable or calendar year;6020

       (8) A provision providing that the taxpayer may not relocate 6021
a substantial number of employment positions from elsewhere in 6022
this state to the project location unless the director of 6023
development services determines that the legislative authority of 6024
the county, township, or municipal corporation from which the 6025
employment positions would be relocated has been notified by the 6026
taxpayer of the relocation.6027

       For purposes of this section, the movement of an employment 6028
position from one political subdivision to another political 6029
subdivision shall be considered a relocation of an employment 6030
position unless the employment position in the first political 6031
subdivision is replaced.6032

       (9) If the tax credit is computed on the basis of home-based 6033
employees, that the tax credit may not be claimed by the taxpayer 6034
until the taxable year or tax period in which the taxpayer employs 6035
at least two hundred employees more than the number of employees 6036
the taxpayer employed on June 30, 2011.6037

       (E) If a taxpayer fails to meet or comply with any condition 6038
or requirement set forth in a tax credit agreement, the tax credit 6039
authority may amend the agreement to reduce the percentage or term 6040
of the tax credit. The reduction of the percentage or term may 6041
take effect in the current taxable or calendar year.6042

       (F) Projects that consist solely of point-of-final-purchase 6043
retail facilities are not eligible for a tax credit under this 6044
section. If a project consists of both point-of-final-purchase 6045
retail facilities and nonretail facilities, only the portion of 6046
the project consisting of the nonretail facilities is eligible for 6047
a tax credit and only the excess income tax revenue from the 6048
nonretail facilities shall be considered when computing the amount 6049
of the tax credit. If a warehouse facility is part of a 6050
point-of-final-purchase retail facility and supplies only that 6051
facility, the warehouse facility is not eligible for a tax credit. 6052
Catalog distribution centers are not considered 6053
point-of-final-purchase retail facilities for the purposes of this 6054
division, and are eligible for tax credits under this section.6055

       (G) Financial statements and other information submitted to 6056
the development services agency or the tax credit authority by an 6057
applicant or recipient of a tax credit under this section, and any 6058
information taken for any purpose from such statements or 6059
information, are not public records subject to section 149.43 of 6060
the Revised Code. However, the chairperson of the authority may 6061
make use of the statements and other information for purposes of 6062
issuing public reports or in connection with court proceedings 6063
concerning tax credit agreements under this section. Upon the 6064
request of the tax commissioner or, if the applicant or recipient 6065
is an insurance company, upon the request of the superintendent of 6066
insurance, the chairperson of the authority shall provide to the 6067
commissioner or superintendent any statement or information 6068
submitted by an applicant or recipient of a tax credit in 6069
connection with the credit. The commissioner or superintendent 6070
shall preserve the confidentiality of the statement or 6071
information.6072

       (H) A taxpayer claiming a credit under this section shall 6073
submit to the tax commissioner or, if the taxpayer is an insurance 6074
company, to the superintendent of insurance, a copy of the 6075
director of development services' certificate of verification 6076
under division (D)(7) of this section with the taxpayer's tax 6077
report or return for the taxable year or for the calendar year 6078
that includes the tax period. Failure to submit a copy of the 6079
certificate with the report or return does not invalidate a claim 6080
for a credit if the taxpayer submits a copy of the certificate to 6081
the commissioner or superintendent within sixty days after the 6082
commissioner or superintendent requests it.6083

       (I) The director of development services, after consultation 6084
with the tax commissioner and the superintendent of insurance and 6085
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, shall adopt 6086
rules necessary to implement this section, including rules that 6087
establish a procedure to be followed by the tax credit authority 6088
and the development services agency in the event the authority 6089
considers a taxpayer's application for which it receives a 6090
recommendation under division (C)(2)(a) of this section but does 6091
not approve it. The rules may provide for recipients of tax 6092
credits under this section to be charged fees to cover 6093
administrative costs of the tax credit program. The fees collected 6094
shall be credited to the business assistance fund created in 6095
section 122.174 of the Revised Code. At the time the director 6096
gives public notice under division (A) of section 119.03 of the 6097
Revised Code of the adoption of the rules, the director shall 6098
submit copies of the proposed rules to the chairpersons of the 6099
standing committees on economic development in the senate and the 6100
house of representatives.6101

       (J) For the purposes of this section, a taxpayer may include 6102
a partnership, a corporation that has made an election under 6103
subchapter S of chapter one of subtitle A of the Internal Revenue 6104
Code, or any other business entity through which income flows as a 6105
distributive share to its owners. A partnership, S-corporation, or 6106
other such business entity may elect to pass the credit received 6107
under this section through to the persons to whom the income or 6108
profit of the partnership, S-corporation, or other entity is 6109
distributed. The election shall be made on the annual report 6110
required under division (D)(6) of this section. The election 6111
applies to and is irrevocable for the credit for which the report 6112
is submitted. If the election is made, the credit shall be 6113
apportioned among those persons in the same proportions as those 6114
in which the income or profit is distributed.6115

       (K) If the director of development services determines that a 6116
taxpayer who has received a credit under this section is not 6117
complying with the requirement under division (D)(3) of this 6118
section, the director shall notify the tax credit authority of the 6119
noncompliance. After receiving such a notice, and after giving the 6120
taxpayer an opportunity to explain the noncompliance, the tax 6121
credit authority may require the taxpayer to refund to this state 6122
a portion of the credit in accordance with the following:6123

       (1) If the taxpayer maintained operations at the project 6124
location for a period less than or equal to the term of the 6125
credit, an amount not exceeding one hundred per cent of the sum of 6126
any credits allowed and received under this section;6127

       (2) If the taxpayer maintained operations at the project 6128
location for a period longer than the term of the credit, but less 6129
than the greater of seven years or the term of the credit plus 6130
three years, an amount not exceeding seventy-five per cent of the 6131
sum of any credits allowed and received under this section.6132

       In determining the portion of the tax credit to be refunded 6133
to this state, the tax credit authority shall consider the effect 6134
of market conditions on the taxpayer's project and whether the 6135
taxpayer continues to maintain other operations in this state. 6136
After making the determination, the authority shall certify the 6137
amount to be refunded to the tax commissioner or superintendent of 6138
insurance, as appropriate. If the amount is certified to the 6139
commissioner, the commissioner shall make an assessment for that 6140
amount against the taxpayer under Chapter 5726., 5733., 5747., or 6141
5751. of the Revised Code. If the amount is certified to the 6142
superintendent, the superintendent shall make an assessment for 6143
that amount against the taxpayer under Chapter 5725. or 5729. of 6144
the Revised Code. The time limitations on assessments under those 6145
chapters do not apply to an assessment under this division, but 6146
the commissioner or superintendent, as appropriate, shall make the 6147
assessment within one year after the date the authority certifies 6148
to the commissioner or superintendent the amount to be refunded.6149

       (L) On or before the first day of August each year, the 6150
director of development services shall submit a report to the 6151
governor, the president of the senate, and the speaker of the 6152
house of representatives on the tax credit program under this 6153
section. The report shall include information on the number of 6154
agreements that were entered into under this section during the 6155
preceding calendar year, a description of the project that is the 6156
subject of each such agreement, and an update on the status of 6157
projects under agreements entered into before the preceding 6158
calendar year.6159

       (M) There is hereby created the tax credit authority, which 6160
consists of the director of development services and four other 6161
members appointed as follows: the governor, the president of the 6162
senate, and the speaker of the house of representatives each shall 6163
appoint one member who shall be a specialist in economic 6164
development; the governor also shall appoint a member who is a 6165
specialist in taxation. Of the initial appointees, the members 6166
appointed by the governor shall serve a term of two years; the 6167
members appointed by the president of the senate and the speaker 6168
of the house of representatives shall serve a term of four years. 6169
Thereafter, terms of office shall be for four years. Initial 6170
appointments to the authority shall be made within thirty days 6171
after January 13, 1993. Each member shall serve on the authority 6172
until the end of the term for which the member was appointed. 6173
Vacancies shall be filled in the same manner provided for original 6174
appointments. Any member appointed to fill a vacancy occurring 6175
prior to the expiration of the term for which the member's 6176
predecessor was appointed shall hold office for the remainder of 6177
that term. Members may be reappointed to the authority. Members of 6178
the authority shall receive their necessary and actual expenses 6179
while engaged in the business of the authority. The director of 6180
development services shall serve as chairperson of the authority, 6181
and the members annually shall elect a vice-chairperson from among 6182
themselves. Three members of the authority constitute a quorum to 6183
transact and vote on the business of the authority. The majority 6184
vote of the membership of the authority is necessary to approve 6185
any such business, including the election of the vice-chairperson.6186

       The director of development services may appoint a 6187
professional employee of the development services agency to serve 6188
as the director's substitute at a meeting of the authority. The 6189
director shall make the appointment in writing. In the absence of 6190
the director from a meeting of the authority, the appointed 6191
substitute shall serve as chairperson. In the absence of both the 6192
director and the director's substitute from a meeting, the 6193
vice-chairperson shall serve as chairperson.6194

       (N) For purposes of the credits granted by this section 6195
against the taxes imposed under sections 5725.18 and 5729.03 of 6196
the Revised Code, "taxable year" means the period covered by the 6197
taxpayer's annual statement to the superintendent of insurance.6198

       (O) On or before the first day of JanuaryMarch of each of 6199
the sixfive calendar years following the year in which H.B. 327 6200
of the 129th general assembly becomeseffectivebeginning with 6201
2014, each taxpayer subject to an agreement with the tax credit 6202
authority under this section on the basis of home-based employees 6203
shall report the number of home-based employees and other 6204
employees employed by the taxpayer in this state to the department 6205
of development services agency.6206

       (P) On or before the first day of January of the seventh 6207
calendar year following the year in which H.B. 327 of the 129th 6208
general assembly became effective2019, the director of 6209
development services shall submit a report to the governor, the 6210
president of the senate, and the speaker of the house of 6211
representatives on the effect of agreements entered into under 6212
this section in which the taxpayer included home-based employees 6213
in the computation of income tax revenue. The report shall include 6214
information on the number of such agreements that were entered 6215
into in the preceding six years, a description of the projects 6216
that were the subjects of such agreements, and an analysis of 6217
nationwide home-based employment trends, including the number of 6218
home-based jobs created from July 1, 2011, through June 30, 2017, 6219
and a description of any home-based employment tax incentives 6220
provided by other states during that time.6221

       (Q) The director of development services may require any 6222
agreement entered into under this section for a tax credit 6223
computed on the basis of home-based employees to contain a 6224
provision that the taxpayer makes available health care benefits 6225
and tuition reimbursement to all employees.6226

       Sec. 122.28.  As used in sections 122.28 and 122.30 to 122.36 6227
of the Revised Code:6228

       (A) "New technology" means the development through science or 6229
research of methods, processes, and procedures, including but not 6230
limited to those involving the processing and utilization of coal, 6231
for practical application in industrial or agribusiness 6232
situations.6233

       (B) "Industrial research" means study and investigation in 6234
giving new shapes, new qualities or new combinations to matter or 6235
material products by the application of labor thereto or the 6236
rehabilitation of an existing matter or material product.6237

       (C) "Enterprise" means a business with its principal place of 6238
business in this state or which proposes to be engaged in this 6239
state in research and development or in the provision of products 6240
or services involving a significant amount of new technology.6241

       (D) "Educational institutions" means nonprofit public and 6242
private colleges and universities, incorporated or unincorporated, 6243
in the state.6244

       (E) "Small business" means an enterprise with less than four 6245
hundred employees, including corporations, partnerships, 6246
unincorporated entities, proprietorships, and joint enterprises.6247

       (F) "Applied research" means the application of basic 6248
research for the development of new technology.6249

       Sec. 122.30.  The industrial technology and enterprise 6250
advisory council and the director of development areservices is6251
vested with the powers and duties provided in sections 122.28 and 6252
122.30 to 122.36 of the Revised Code, to promote the welfare of 6253
the people of the state through the interaction of the business 6254
and industrial community and educational institutions in the 6255
development of new technology and enterprise.6256

       (A) It is necessary for the state to establish the industrial 6257
technology and enterprise advisory council and the programs 6258
created pursuant to sections 122.28 and 122.30 to 122.36 of the 6259
Revised Code to accomplish the following purposes which are 6260
determined to be essential:6261

       (1) Improve the existing industrial and agricultural base of 6262
the state;6263

       (2) Improve the economy of the state by providing employment, 6264
increasing productivity, and slowing the rate of inflation;6265

       (3) Develop markets worldwide for the products of the state's 6266
natural resources and agricultural and manufacturing industries;6267

       (4) Maintain a high standard of living for the people of the 6268
state.6269

       (B) The industrial technology and enterprise advisory council 6270
shall do all of the following:6271

       (1) Make recommendations to the director of development as to 6272
applications for assistance pursuant to sections 122.28 to 122.36 6273
of the Revised Code. The council may revise its recommendations to 6274
reflect any changes in the proposed assistance made by the 6275
director.6276

       (2) Advise the director in the administration of sections 6277
122.28 to 122.36 of the Revised Code;6278

       (3) Adopt bylaws to govern the conduct of the council's 6279
business.6280

       (C) The director of development shall do all of the 6281
following:6282

       (1) Receive applications for assistance under sections 122.28 6283
and 122.30 to 122.36 of the Revised Code and, after processing, 6284
forward them to the council together with necessary supporting 6285
information;6286

       (2) Receive the recommendations of the council and makeMake6287
a final determination whether to approve the application for 6288
assistance;6289

       (3) Transmit determinations to approve assistance exceeding 6290
forty thousand dollars to the controlling board, together with any 6291
information the controlling board requires, for the board's review 6292
and decision as to whether to approve the assistance;6293

       (4) Gather and disseminate information and conduct hearings, 6294
conferences, seminars, investigations, and special studies on 6295
problems and programs concerning industrial research and new 6296
technology and their commercial applications in the state;6297

       (5) Establish an annual program to recognize the 6298
accomplishments and contributions of individuals and organizations 6299
in the development of industrial research and new technology in 6300
the state;6301

       (6) Stimulate both public and industrial awareness and 6302
interest in industrial research and development of new technology 6303
primarily in the areas of industrial processes, implementation, 6304
energy, agribusiness, medical technology, avionics, and food 6305
processing;6306

       (7) Develop and implement comprehensive and coordinated 6307
policies, programs, and procedures promoting industrial research 6308
and new technology;6309

       (8) Propose appropriate legislation or executive actions to 6310
stimulate the development of industrial research and new 6311
technology by enterprises and individuals;6312

       (9) Encourage and facilitate contracts between industry, 6313
agriculture, educational institutions, federal agencies, and state 6314
agencies, with special emphasis on industrial research and new 6315
technology by small businesses and agribusiness;6316

       (10) Participate with any state agency in developing specific 6317
programs and goals to assist in the development of industrial 6318
research and new technology and monitor performance;6319

       (11) Assist enterprises in obtaining alternative forms of 6320
governmental or commercial financing for industrial research and 6321
new technology;6322

       (12) Assist enterprises or individuals in the implementation 6323
of new programs and policies and the expansion of existing 6324
programs to provide an atmosphere conducive to increased 6325
cooperation among and participation by individuals, enterprises, 6326
and educational institutions engaged in industrial research and 6327
the development of new technology;6328

       (13) Advertise, prepare, print, and distribute books, maps, 6329
pamphlets, and other information which in the judgment of the 6330
director will further its purposes;6331

       (14) Include in the director's annual report to the governor 6332
and the general assembly a report on the activities for the 6333
preceding calendar year under sections 122.28 and 122.30 to 122.36 6334
of the Revised Code;6335

       (15) Approve the expenditure of money appropriated by the 6336
general assembly for the purpose of sections 122.28 and 122.30 to 6337
122.36 of the Revised Code;6338

       (16) Identify and implement federal research and development 6339
programs which would link Ohio's industrial base, research 6340
facilities, and natural resources;6341

       (17) Employ and fix the compensation of technical and 6342
professional personnel, who shall be in the unclassified civil 6343
service, and employ other personnel, who shall be in the 6344
classified civil service, as necessary to carry out the provisions 6345
of sections 122.28 and 122.30 to 122.36 of the Revised Code.6346

       Sec. 122.31.  All expenses and obligations incurred by the 6347
director of development and the industrial technology and 6348
enterprise advisory councilservices in carrying out theirthe 6349
director's powers and in exercising their duties under sections 6350
122.28 and 122.30 to 122.36 of the Revised Code, are payable from 6351
revenues or other receipts or income from grants, gifts, 6352
contributions, compensation, reimbursement, and funds established 6353
in accordance with those sections or general revenue funds 6354
appropriated by the general assembly for operating expenses of the 6355
director or council.6356

       Sec. 122.32.  The director of development services, on behalf 6357
of the programs authorized pursuant to sections 122.28 and 122.306358
to 122.36 of the Revised Code, may receive and accept grants, 6359
gifts, and contributions of money, property, labor, and other 6360
things of value to be held, used, and applied only for the purpose 6361
for which the grants, gifts, and contributions are made, from 6362
individuals, private and public corporations, from the United 6363
States or any agency of the United States, and from any political 6364
subdivision of the state. The director may agree to repay any 6365
contribution of money or to return any property contributed or its 6366
value at times, in amounts, and on terms and conditions excluding 6367
the payment of interest as the director determines at the time the 6368
contribution is made. The director may evidence the obligation by 6369
written contracts, subject to section 122.31 of the Revised Code, 6370
provided that the director shall not thereby incur indebtedness of 6371
or impose liability upon the state or any political subdivision.6372

       Sec. 122.33.  The director of development services shall 6373
administer the following programs:6374

       (A) The industrial technology and enterprise development 6375
grant program, to provide capital to acquire, construct, enlarge, 6376
improve, or equip and to sell, lease, exchange, and otherwise 6377
dispose of property, structures, equipment, and facilities within 6378
the state.6379

       Such funding may be made to enterprises that propose to 6380
develop new products or technologies when the director finds all 6381
of the following factors to be present:6382

       (1) The undertaking will benefit the people of the state by 6383
creating or preserving jobs and employment opportunities or 6384
improving the economic welfare of the people of the state, and 6385
promoting the development of new technology.6386

       (2) There is reasonable assurance that the potential 6387
royalties to be derived from the sale of the product or process 6388
described in the proposal will be sufficient to repay the funding 6389
pursuant to sections 122.28 and 122.30 to 122.36 of the Revised 6390
Code and that, in making the agreement, as it relates to patents, 6391
copyrights, and other ownership rights, there is reasonable 6392
assurance that the resulting new technology will be utilized to 6393
the maximum extent possible in facilities located in Ohio.6394

       (3) The technology and research to be undertaken will allow 6395
enterprises to compete more effectively in the marketplace. Grants 6396
of capital may be in such form and conditioned upon such terms as 6397
the boarddirector deems appropriate.6398

       (B) The industrial technology and enterprise resources 6399
program to provide for the collection, dissemination, and exchange 6400
of information regarding equipment, facilities, and business 6401
planning consultation resources available in business, industry, 6402
and educational institutions and to establish methods by which 6403
small businesses may use available facilities and resources. The 6404
methods may include, but need not be limited to, leases 6405
reimbursing the educational institutions for their actual costs 6406
incurred in maintaining the facilities and agreements assigning 6407
royalties from development of successful products or processes 6408
through the use of the facilities and resources. The director 6409
shall operate this program in conjunction with the board of 6410
regents.6411

       (C) The Thomas Alva Edison grant program to provide grants to 6412
foster research, development, or technology transfer efforts 6413
involving enterprises and educational institutions that will lead 6414
to the creation of jobs. The director shall utilize the Edison 6415
center network in carrying out the goals and objectives of this 6416
program. For the purposes of this division, "Edison center 6417
network" means the six cooperative research and development 6418
facilities in this state that receive funding under this division, 6419
are nonprofit organizations, have been in existence at least 6420
eighteen years as of the effective date of this amendment, and 6421
have experience in delivering manufacturing extension partnership 6422
program services to companies in this state.6423

       (1) Grants may be made to a nonprofit organization or a 6424
public or private educational institution, department, college, 6425
institute, faculty member, or other administrative subdivision or 6426
related entity of an educational institution when the director 6427
finds that the undertaking will benefit the people of the state by 6428
supporting research in advanced technology areas likely to improve 6429
the economic welfare of the people of the state through promoting 6430
the development of new commercial technology.6431

       (2) Grants may be made in a form and conditioned upon terms 6432
as the director considers appropriate.6433

       (3) Grants made under this program shall in all instances be 6434
in conjunction with a contribution to the project by a cooperating 6435
enterprise which maintains or proposes to maintain a relevant 6436
research, development, or manufacturing facility in the state, by 6437
a nonprofit organization, or by an educational institution or 6438
related entity; however, funding provided by an educational 6439
institution or related entity shall not be from general revenue 6440
funds appropriated by the Ohio general assembly. No grant made 6441
under this program shall exceed the contribution made by the 6442
cooperating enterprise, nonprofit organization, or educational 6443
institution or related entity. The director may consider 6444
cooperating contributions in the form of state of the art new 6445
equipment or in other forms provided the director determines that 6446
the contribution is essential to the successful implementation of 6447
the project. The director may adopt rules or guidelines for the 6448
valuation of contributions of equipment or other property.6449

       (4) The director may determine fields of research from which 6450
grant applications will be accepted under this program.6451

       Sec. 122.34.  The exercise of the powers granted by sections 6452
122.28 and 122.30 to 122.36 of the Revised Code will be in all 6453
respects for the benefit of the people of the state, for the 6454
improvement of commerce and prosperity, improvement of employment 6455
conditions, and will constitute the performance of essential 6456
governmental functions.6457

       Sec. 122.35.  All moneys received under sections 122.28 and 6458
122.30 to 122.36 of the Revised Code are trust funds to be held 6459
and applied solely as provided in those sections and section 6460
166.03 of the Revised Code. All moneys, except when deposited with 6461
the treasurer of the state, shall be kept and secured in 6462
depositories as selected by the director of development services6463
in the manner provided in sections 135.01 to 135.21 of the Revised 6464
Code, insofar as those sections are applicable. All moneys held by 6465
the director in trust to carry out the purposes of sections 122.28 6466
and 122.30 to 122.36 of the Revised Code shall be used as provided 6467
in sections 122.28 and 122.30 to 122.36 of the Revised Code and at 6468
no time be part of other public funds.6469

       Sec. 122.36.  Any materials or data submitted to, made 6470
available to, or received by the director of development, the 6471
industrial technology and enterprise advisory council,services or 6472
the controlling board, to the extent that the material or data 6473
consist of trade secrets, as defined in section 1333.61 of the 6474
Revised Code, or commercial or financial information, regarding 6475
projects are not public records for the purposes of section 149.43 6476
of the Revised Code.6477

       Sec. 122.657.  For the purposes of sections 122.65 to 122.658 6478
of the Revised Code, the director of development shall establish 6479
policies and requirements regarding all of the following:6480

       (A) The form and content of applications for grants or loans 6481
from the clean Ohio revitalization fund under section 122.652 of 6482
the Revised Code. The policies and requirements shall require that 6483
each application include, at a minimum, all of the following:6484

       (1) The name, address, and telephone number of the applicant;6485

       (2) The legal description of the property for which the grant 6486
or loan is requested;6487

       (3) A summary description of the hazardous substances or 6488
petroleum present at the brownfield and a certified copy of the 6489
results of an assessment;6490

       (4) A detailed explanation of the proposed cleanup or 6491
remediation of the brownfield, including an identification of the 6492
applicable cleanup standards, and a detailed description of the 6493
proposed use of the brownfield after completion of the cleanup or 6494
remediation;6495

       (5) An estimate of the total cost to clean up or remediate 6496
the brownfield in order to comply with the applicable cleanup 6497
standards. The total cost shall include the cost of employing a 6498
certified professional under section 122.654 of the Revised Code.6499

       (6) A detailed explanation of the portion of the estimated 6500
total cost of the cleanup or remediation of the brownfield that 6501
the applicant proposes to provide as required under sections 6502
122.653 and 122.658 of the Revised Code and financial records 6503
supporting the proposal;6504

       (7) A certified copy of a resolution or ordinance approving 6505
the project that the applicant shall obtain from the board of 6506
township trustees of the township or the legislative authority of 6507
the municipal corporation in which the property is located, 6508
whichever is applicable;6509

       (8) A description of the estimated economic benefit that will 6510
result from a cleanup or remediation of the brownfield;6511

       (9) An application summary for purposes of review by an 6512
integrating committee or, if applicable, the executive committee 6513
of an integrating committee under division (B) of section 122.652 6514
of the Revised Code;6515

       (10) With respect to applications for loans, information 6516
demonstrating that the applicant will implement a financial 6517
management plan that includes, without limitation, provisions for 6518
the satisfactory repayment of the loan;6519

       (11) Any other provisions that the director determines should 6520
be included in an application.6521

       (B) Procedures for conducting public meetings and providing 6522
public notice under division (A) of section 122.652 of the Revised 6523
Code;6524

       (C) Criteria to be used by integrating committees or, if 6525
required under division (C) of section 122.652 of the Revised 6526
Code, executive committees of integrating committees when 6527
prioritizing projects under division (B) of section 122.652 of the 6528
Revised Code. The policies and requirements also shall establish 6529
procedures that integrating committees or, if required under 6530
division (C) of section 122.652 of the Revised Code, executive 6531
committees of integrating committees shall use in applying the 6532
criteria.6533

       (D) A selection process that provides for the prioritization 6534
of brownfield cleanup or remediation projects for which grant or 6535
loan applications are submitted under section 122.652 of the 6536
Revised Code. The policies and requirements shall require the 6537
selection process to give priority to projects in which the 6538
post-cleanup or remediation use will be for a combination of 6539
residential, commercial, or industrial purposes, which may include 6540
the conversion of a portion of a brownfield to a recreation, park, 6541
or natural area that is integrated with the residential, 6542
commercial, or industrial use of the brownfield after cleanup or 6543
remediation, or will incorporate projects that are funded by 6544
grants awarded under sections 164.20 to 164.27 of the Revised 6545
Code. The policies and requirements shall require the selection 6546
process to incorporate and emphasize all of the following factors:6547

       (1) The potential economic benefit that will result from the 6548
cleanup or remediation of a brownfield;6549

       (2) The potential environmental improvement that will result 6550
from the cleanup or remediation of a brownfield;6551

       (3) The amount and nature of the match provided by an 6552
applicant as required under sections 122.653 and 122.658 of the 6553
Revised Code;6554

       (4) Funding priorities recommended by integrating committees 6555
or, if required under division (C) of section 122.652 of the 6556
Revised Code, executive committees of integrating committees under 6557
division (B) of section 122.652 of the Revised Code;6558

       (5) The potential benefit to low-income communities, 6559
including minority communities, that will result from the cleanup 6560
or remediation of a brownfield;6561

       (6) Any other factors that the director considers 6562
appropriate.6563

       (E) The development of criteria that the director shall use 6564
when awarding grants under section 122.656 of the Revised Code. 6565
The criteria shall give priority to public health projects. In 6566
addition, the director, in consultation with the director of 6567
environmental protection, shall establish policies and 6568
requirements that require the criteria to include a public health 6569
project selection process that incorporates and emphasizes all of 6570
the following factors:6571

       (1) The potential environmental improvement that will result 6572
from the cleanup or remediation;6573

       (2) The ability of an applicant to access the property for 6574
purposes of the cleanup or remediation;6575

       (3) The name and qualifications of the cleanup or remediation 6576
contractor;6577

       (4) Any other factors that the director of development 6578
considers appropriate.6579

       The director of development may develop any other policies 6580
and requirements that the director determines are necessary for 6581
the administration of section 122.656 of the Revised Code.6582

       (F) The development of a brownfield cleanup and remediation 6583
oversight program to ensure compliance with sections 122.65 to 6584
122.658 of the Revised Code and policies and requirements 6585
established under this section. The policies and requirements 6586
shall require the program to include, at a minimum, both of the 6587
following:6588

       (1) Procedures for the accounting of invoices and receipts 6589
and any other documents that are necessary to demonstrate that a 6590
cleanup or remediation was properly performed;6591

       (2) Procedures that are necessary to provide a detailed 6592
explanation of the status of the property five years after the 6593
completed cleanup or remediation.6594

       (G) A delineation of what constitutes administrative costs 6595
for purposes of divisions (D) and (F) of section 122.658 of the 6596
Revised Code;6597

       (H) Procedures and requirements for making loans and loan 6598
agreements that include at least all of the following:6599

       (1) Not more than fifteen per cent of moneys annually 6600
allocated to the clean Ohio revitalization fund shall be used for 6601
loans.6602

       (2) The loans shall be made at or below market rates of 6603
interest, including, without limitation, interest-free loans.6604

       (3) The recipient of a loan shall identify a source of 6605
security and a source of repayment of the loan.6606

       (4) All payments of principal and interest on a loan shall be 6607
deposited in the state treasury and credited to the clean Ohio 6608
revitalization revolving loan fund.6609

       (5) The clean Ohio council may accept notes and other forms 6610
of obligation to evidence indebtedness, accept mortgages, liens, 6611
pledges, assignments, and other security interests to secure such 6612
indebtedness, and take any actions that are considered by the 6613
council to be appropriate to protect such security and safeguard 6614
against losses, including, without limitation, foreclosure and 6615
bidding on the purchase of property upon foreclosure or other 6616
sale.6617

       (I) Any other policies and requirements that the director 6618
determines are necessary for the administration of sections 122.65 6619
to 122.658 of the Revised Code.6620

       Sec. 122.658. (A) The clean Ohio revitalization fund is 6621
hereby created in the state treasury. The fund shall consist of 6622
moneys credited to it pursuant to section 151.40 of the Revised 6623
Code. Moneys in the fund shall be used to make grants or loans for 6624
projects that have been approved by the clean Ohio council in 6625
accordance with section 122.653 of the Revised Code, except that 6626
the council annually shall devote twenty per cent of the net 6627
proceeds of obligations deposited in the clean Ohio revitalization 6628
fund for the purposes of section 122.656 of the Revised Code.6629

       Moneys in the clean Ohio revitalization fund may be used to 6630
pay reasonable costs incurred by the department of development and 6631
the environmental protection agency in administering sections 6632
122.65 to 122.658 of the Revised Code. All investment earnings of 6633
the fund shall be credited to the fund. Investment earnings 6634
credited to the clean Ohio revitalization fund may be used to pay 6635
costs incurred by the department of development and the 6636
environmental protection agency pursuant to sections 122.65 to 6637
122.658 of the Revised Code.6638

       The department of development shall administer the clean Ohio 6639
revitalization fund in accordance with this section, policies and 6640
requirements established under section 122.657 of the Revised 6641
Code, and the terms of agreements entered into by the council 6642
under section 122.653 of the Revised Code.6643

       (B) Grants awarded and loans made under section 122.653 of 6644
the Revised Code shall provide not more than seventy-five per cent 6645
of the estimated total cost of a project. A grant or loan to any 6646
one project shall not exceed three million dollars. An applicant 6647
shall provide at least twenty-five per cent of the estimated total 6648
cost of a project. The applicant's share may consist of one or a 6649
combination of any of the following:6650

       (1) Payment of the cost of acquiring the property for the 6651
purposes of sections 122.65 to 122.658 of the Revised Code;6652

       (2) Payment of the reasonable cost of an assessment at the 6653
property;6654

       (3) The reasonable value, as determined by the council, of 6655
labor and materials that will be contributed by the applicant in 6656
performing the cleanup or remediation;6657

       (4) Moneys received by the applicant in any form for use in 6658
performing the cleanup or remediation;6659

       (5) Loans secured by the applicant for the purpose of the 6660
cleanup or remediation of the brownfield.6661

       Costs that were incurred more than two years prior to the 6662
submission of an application to the clean Ohio council for the 6663
acquisition of property, assessments, and labor and materials 6664
shall not be used as part of the applicant's matching share.6665

       (C) The department of development shall not make any payment 6666
to an applicant from the clean Ohio revitalization fund to pay 6667
costs of the applicant that were not included in an application 6668
for a grant or loan under section 122.653 of the Revised Code or 6669
that exceed the amount of the estimated total cost of the project 6670
included in the application. If, upon completion of a project, the 6671
costs of the project are less than the amounts included in the 6672
application, the amounts included in the application less the 6673
amounts of the actual costs of the project shall be credited to 6674
the clean Ohio revitalization fund. However, the amounts credited 6675
shall be equivalent in percentage to the percentage of the costs 6676
of the project that were to be funded by the grant or loan from 6677
the fund.6678

       (D) Grants awarded or loans made under section 122.653 of the 6679
Revised Code from the clean Ohio revitalization fund shall be used 6680
by an applicant only to pay the costs of the actual cleanup or 6681
remediation of a brownfield and shall not be used by an applicant 6682
to pay any administrative costs incurred by the applicant. Costs 6683
related to the use of a certified professional for purposes of 6684
section 122.654 of the Revised Code are not administrative costs 6685
and may be paid with moneys from grants awarded or loans made 6686
under section 122.653 of the Revised Code.6687

       (E) The portion of net proceeds of obligations devoted under 6688
division (A) of this section for the purposes of section 122.656 6689
of the Revised Code shall be used to make grants for assessments, 6690
cleanup or remediation of brownfields, and public health projects 6691
that have been approved by the director of development under that 6692
section. The department of development shall administer section 6693
122.656 of the Revised Code in accordance with this section, 6694
policies and requirements established under section 122.657 of the 6695
Revised Code, and the terms of agreements entered into by the 6696
director under section 122.656 of the Revised Code. The director 6697
shall not grant more than twenty-five million dollars for public 6698
health projects under section 122.656 of the Revised Code.6699

       (F) Grants awarded under section 122.656 of the Revised Code 6700
shall be used by an applicant only to pay the costs of actually 6701
conducting an assessment, a cleanup or remediation of a 6702
brownfield, or a public health project and shall not be used by an 6703
applicant to pay any administrative costs incurred by the 6704
applicant. Costs related to the use of a certified professional 6705
for purposes of section 122.654 of the Revised Code are not 6706
administrative costs and may be paid with moneys from grants 6707
awarded under section 122.656 of the Revised Code.6708

       (G)(1) The clean Ohio revitalization revolving loan fund is 6709
hereby created in the state treasury. Payments of principal and 6710
interest on loans made from the clean Ohio revitalization fund 6711
shall be credited to this revolving loan fund, as shall payments 6712
of principal and interest on loans made from the revolving loan 6713
fund itself. The revolving loan fund's investment earnings shall 6714
be credited to it.6715

       (2) The clean Ohio revitalization revolving loan fund shall 6716
be used to make loans for the same purposes and subject to the 6717
same policies, requirements, criteria, and application procedures 6718
as loans made from the clean Ohio revitalization fund.6719

       Sec. 122.66.  As used in sections 122.66 to 122.702 of the 6720
Revised Code:6721

       (A) "Poverty line" means the official poverty line 6722
established by the director of the United States office of 6723
management and budget and as revised by the directorsecretary of 6724
the office of communityhealth and human services in accordance 6725
with section 673(2) of the "Community Services Block Grant Act," 6726
95 Stat. 1609, 42 U.S.C.A. 9902.6727

       (B) "Low-income person" means a person whose adjusted gross 6728
income as defined in division (A) of section 5747.01 of the 6729
Revised Code is below the poverty line as defined in division (A) 6730
of this section.6731

       (C) "Advocacy" means the act of pleading for, supporting, or 6732
recommending actions on behalf of low-income persons.6733

       (D) "Community action agency" means a community-based and 6734
operated private nonprofit agency or organization that includes or 6735
is designed to include a sufficient number of projects or 6736
components to provide a range of services and activities having a 6737
measurable and potentially major impact on the causes of poverty 6738
in the community or those areas of the community where poverty is 6739
a particularly acute problem and is designated as a community 6740
action agency by the office of community services division6741
pursuant to sections 122.68 and 122.69 of the Revised Code.6742

       (E) "Community" means a city, village, county, multicity or 6743
multicounty unit, a neighborhood or other area, disregarding 6744
boundaries or political subdivisions, which provides a suitable 6745
organizational base and possesses a commonality of needs and 6746
interests for a community action program suitable to be served by 6747
a community action agency.6748

       (F) "Service area" means the geographical area served by a 6749
community action agency.6750

       Sec. 122.67.  There is hereby created in the department of6751
development services agency the office of community services 6752
division. The director of development services shall employ and 6753
fix the compensation of professional and technical unclassified 6754
personnel as necessary to carry out the provisions of sections 6755
122.66 to 122.701 of the Revised Code.6756

       Sec. 122.68.  The office of community services division6757
shall:6758

       (A) Administer all federal funds appropriated to the state 6759
from the "Community Services Block Grant Act," 95 Stat. 511, 42 6760
U.S.C.A. 9901, and comply with requirements imposed by that act in 6761
its application for, and administration of, the funds;6762

       (B) Designate community action agencies to receive community 6763
services block grant funds;6764

       (C) Disburse at least ninety-five per cent or such other 6765
higher maximum amount as may from time to time be designated by 6766
congress of the funds received in the state from the "Community 6767
Services Block Grant Act" to community action agencies that comply 6768
with the requirements of section 122.69 of the Revised Code and 6769
migrant and seasonal farm worker organizations that are not 6770
designated community action agencies but which provide the 6771
services described in division (B)(1) of section 122.69 of the 6772
Revised Code.6773

       (D) Provide technical assistance to community action agencies 6774
to improve program planning, development, and administration;6775

       (E) Conduct yearly performance assessments, according to 6776
criteria determined by department of development services agency6777
rule, to determine whether community action agencies are in 6778
compliance with section 122.69 of the Revised Code;6779

       (F) Annually prepare and submit to the United States 6780
secretary of health and human services, the governor, the 6781
president of the Ohio senate, and the speaker of the Ohio house of 6782
representatives, a comprehensive report that includes:6783

       (1) Certification that all community action agencies 6784
designated to receive funds from the "Community Services Block 6785
Grant Act" are in compliance with section 122.69 of the Revised 6786
Code;6787

       (2) A program plan for the next federal fiscal year that has 6788
been made available for public inspection and that details how 6789
community services block grant funds will be disbursed and used 6790
during that fiscal year;6791

       (3) Information detailing how funds were expended for the 6792
current fiscal year;6793

       (4) An audit of community services block grant expenditures 6794
for the preceding federal fiscal year that is conducted in 6795
accordance with generally accepted accounting principles by an 6796
independent auditing firm that has no connection with any 6797
community action agency receiving community services block grant 6798
funds or with any employee of the officedivision.6799

       (G) Serve as a statewide advocate for social and economic 6800
opportunities for low-income persons.6801

       Sec. 122.681.  (A) Except as permitted by this section, or 6802
when required by federal law, no person or government entity shall 6803
solicit, release, disclose, receive, use, or knowingly permit or 6804
participate in the use of any information regarding an individual 6805
receiving assistance pursuant to a community services division 6806
program under sections 122.66 to 122.702 of the Revised Code for 6807
any purpose not directly related to the administration of a 6808
division assistance program.6809

       (B) To the extent permitted by federal law, the division, and 6810
any entity that receives division funds to administer a division 6811
program to assist individuals, shall release information regarding 6812
an individual assistance recipient to the following: 6813

       (1) A government entity responsible for administering the 6814
assistance program for purposes directly related to the 6815
administration of the program;6816

       (2) A law enforcement agency for the purpose of any 6817
investigation, prosecution, or criminal or civil proceeding 6818
relating to the administration of the assistance program;6819

       (3) A government entity responsible for administering a 6820
children's protective services program, for the purpose of 6821
protecting children.6822

       (C) To the extent permitted by federal law and section 6823
1347.08 of the Revised Code, the division, and any entity 6824
administering a division program, shall provide access to 6825
information regarding an individual assistance recipient to all of 6826
the following:6827

       (1) The individual assistance recipient;6828

       (2) The authorized representative of the individual 6829
assistance recipient;6830

       (3) The legal guardian of the individual assistance 6831
recipient;6832

       (4) The attorney of the individual assistance recipient.6833

       (D) To the extent permitted by federal law, the division, and 6834
any entity administering a division program, may do either of the 6835
following:6836

       (1) Release information about an individual assistance 6837
recipient if the recipient gives voluntary, written authorization;6838

       (2) Release information regarding an individual assistance 6839
recipient to a state, federal, or federally assisted program that 6840
provides cash or in-kind assistance or services directly to 6841
individuals based on need.6842

       (E) The community services division, or an entity 6843
administering a division program, shall provide, at no cost, a 6844
copy of each written authorization to the individual who signed 6845
it.6846

       (F) The development services agency may adopt rules defining 6847
who may serve as an individual assistance recipient's authorized 6848
representative for purposes of division (C)(2) of this section.6849

       Sec. 122.69.  (A) Any nonprofit agency or organization 6850
seeking designation as a community action agency by the office of6851
community services division shall obtain the endorsement of the 6852
chief elected officials of at least two-thirds of the municipal 6853
corporations and the counties within the community to be served by 6854
the agency or organization.6855

       (B) Any nonprofit agency or organization that receives the 6856
endorsement provided for in division (A) of this section shall be 6857
designated by the officedivision as the community action agency 6858
for the community it serves and shall receive community services 6859
block grant funds for any period of time that the nonprofit agency 6860
or organization:6861

       (1) Provides a range of services and opportunities having a 6862
measurable and potentially major impact on the causes of poverty 6863
in the community or those areas of the community where poverty is 6864
a particularly acute problem. These activities may include but 6865
shall not be limited to:6866

       (a) Providing activities designed to assist low-income 6867
persons, including elderly and handicapped low-income persons, to:6868

       (i) Secure and maintain meaningful employment, training, work 6869
experience, and unsubsidized employment;6870

       (ii) Attain an adequate education;6871

       (iii) Make better use of available income;6872

       (iv) Obtain and maintain adequate housing and a suitable 6873
living environment;6874

       (v) Obtain emergency assistance through loans or grants to 6875
meet immediate and urgent individual and family needs, including 6876
the need for health services, nutritious food, housing, and 6877
employment-related assistance;6878

       (vi) Remove obstacles and solve personal and family problems 6879
that block the achievement of self-sufficiency;6880

       (vii) Achieve greater participation in the affairs of the 6881
community;6882

       (viii) Undertake family planning, consistent with personal 6883
and family goals and religious and moral convictions;6884

       (ix) Obtain energy assistance, conservation, and 6885
weatherization services.6886

       (b) Providing, on an emergency basis, supplies and services, 6887
nutritious foodstuffs, and related services necessary to 6888
counteract conditions of starvation and malnutrition among 6889
low-income persons;6890

       (c) Coordinating and establishing links between government 6891
and other social services programs to assure the effective 6892
delivery of services to low-income individuals;6893

       (d) Providing child care services, nutrition and health 6894
services, transportation services, alcoholism and narcotic 6895
addiction prevention and rehabilitation services, youth 6896
development services, and community services to elderly and 6897
handicapped persons;6898

       (e) Encouraging entities in the private sector to participate 6899
in efforts to ameliorate poverty in the community.6900

       (2) Annually submits to the office of community services6901
division a program plan and budget for use of community services 6902
block grant funds for the next federal fiscal year. At least ten 6903
days prior to its submission to the office of community services6904
division, a copy of the program plan and budget shall be made 6905
available to the chief elected officials of the municipal 6906
corporations and counties within the service area in order to 6907
provide them the opportunity to review and comment upon such plan 6908
and budget.6909

       (3) Composes its board of directors in compliance with 6910
section (c)(3) of section 675 of the the "Community Services Block 6911
Grant Act," 95 Stat. 1609, 42 U.S.C.A. 9904, except that the board 6912
shall consist of not less than fifteen nor more than thirty-three 6913
members;6914

       (4) Complies with the prohibitions against discrimination and 6915
political activity, as provided in the "Community Services Block 6916
Grant Act";6917

       (5) Complies with fiscal and program requirements established 6918
by department of development services agency rule.6919

       Sec. 122.70.  The board of directors of a community action 6920
agency shall:6921

       (A) Select, appoint, and may remove the executive director of 6922
the community action agency;6923

       (B) Approve contracts, annual program budgets, and policies 6924
of the community action agency;6925

       (C) Advise the elected officials of any political subdivision 6926
located within its service area, and state and federal elected 6927
officials who represent its service area, of the nature and extent 6928
of poverty within its community, and advise them of any needed 6929
changes;6930

       (D) Convene public meetings to provide community members the 6931
opportunity to comment on public policies and programs to reduce 6932
poverty;6933

       (E) Annually evaluate the policies and programs of the 6934
community action agency according to criteria determined by 6935
department of development services agency rule;6936

       (F) Submit the results of the evaluation required by division 6937
(E) of this section, along with recommendations for improved 6938
administration of the community action agency, to the office of6939
community services division;6940

       (G) Adopt a code of ethics for the board of directors and the 6941
employees of the community action agency;6942

       (H) Adopt written policies describing all of the following:6943

       (1) How the community action agency is to expend and 6944
distribute the community services block grant funds that it 6945
receives from the office of community servicesdivision under 6946
sections 122.68 and 122.69 of the Revised Code;6947

       (2) The salary, benefits, travel expenses, and any other 6948
compensation that persons are to receive for serving on the 6949
community action agency's board of directors;6950

       (3) The operating procedures to be used by the board to 6951
conduct its meetings, to vote on all official business it 6952
considers, and to provide notice of its meetings.6953

       (I) Provide for the posting of notices in a conspicuous place 6954
indicating that the code of ethics described in division (G) of 6955
this section and the policies described in division (H) of this 6956
section are available for public inspection at the community 6957
action agency during normal business hours.6958

       Sec. 122.701.  (A) Prior to designating a new community 6959
action agency or rescinding a community action agency's 6960
designation, the office of community services division shall:6961

       (1) Determine whether a community action agency is in 6962
compliance with section 122.69 of the Revised Code;6963

       (2) Consult with the chief elected officials of political 6964
subdivisions located within a community action agency's service 6965
area, and, in designating a new community action agency, obtain 6966
their endorsement of the agency in accordance with division (A) of 6967
section 122.69 of the Revised Code;6968

       (3) Hold at least one public meeting within a community 6969
action agency's service area for the purpose of allowing citizens 6970
to comment on the community action agency's delivery of services;6971

       (4) Evaluate the proposed service area of the community 6972
action agency, and, as may be necessary, modify the boundaries of 6973
the service area so that low-income persons in the area are 6974
adequately and efficiently served.6975

       (B) After providing notice and hearing pursuant to sections 6976
119.01 to 119.13 of the Revised Code, the director of development 6977
services:6978

       (1) May rescind the designation of a community action agency 6979
if he findsafter finding that the agency is not in compliance 6980
with any or all of the provisions of section 122.69 of the Revised 6981
Code;6982

       (2) Shall rescind the designation of a community action 6983
agency upon notification from the chief elected officials of more 6984
than one-half of the municipal corporations and the counties 6985
within a community currently served by a community action agency 6986
that such agency is not endorsed by them and upon aafter finding 6987
by him that the agency is not in compliance with section 122.69 of 6988
the Revised Code.6989

       Any agency whose designation is rescinded pursuant to this 6990
section may appeal from an order rescinding such designation 6991
pursuant to section 119.12 of the Revised Code.6992

       Sec. 122.76.  (A) The director of development services, with 6993
controlling board approval, may lend funds to minority business 6994
enterprises and to community improvement corporations, Ohio 6995
development corporations, minority contractors business assistance 6996
organizations, and minority business supplier development councils 6997
for the purpose of loaning funds to minority business enterprises 6998
and, for the purpose of procuring or improving real or personal 6999
property, or both, for the establishment, location, or expansion 7000
of industrial, distribution, commercial, or research facilities in 7001
the state, and for the purpose of contract financing, and to 7002
community development corporations that predominantly benefit 7003
minority business enterprises or are located in a census tract 7004
that has a population that is sixty per cent or more minority, if 7005
the director determines, in the director's sole discretion, that 7006
all of the following apply:7007

       (1) The project is economically sound and will benefit the 7008
people of the state by increasing opportunities for employment, by 7009
strengthening the economy of the state, or expanding minority 7010
business enterprises.7011

       (2) The proposed minority business enterprise borrower is 7012
unable to finance the proposed project through ordinary financial 7013
channels at comparable terms.7014

       (3) The value of the project is or, upon completion, will be 7015
at least equal to the total amount of the money expended in the 7016
procurement or improvement of the project.7017

       (4) The amount to be loaned by the director will not exceed 7018
seventy-five per cent of the total amount expended in the 7019
procurement or improvement of the project.7020

       (5) The amount to be loaned by the director will be 7021
adequately secured by a first or second mortgage upon the project 7022
or by mortgages, leases, liens, assignments, or pledges on or of 7023
other property or contracts as the director requires, and such 7024
mortgage will not be subordinate to any other liens or mortgages 7025
except the liens securing loans or investments made by financial 7026
institutions referred to in division (A)(3) of this section, and 7027
the liens securing loans previously made by any financial 7028
institution in connection with the procurement or expansion of all 7029
or part of a project.7030

       (B) Any proposed minority business enterprise borrower 7031
submitting an application for assistance under this section shall 7032
not have defaulted on a previous loan from the director, and no 7033
full or limited partner, major shareholder, or holder of an equity 7034
interest of the proposed minority business enterprise borrower 7035
shall have defaulted on a loan from the director.7036

       (C) The proposed minority business enterprise borrower shall 7037
demonstrate to the satisfaction of the director that it is able to 7038
successfully compete in the private sector if it obtains the 7039
necessary financial, technical, or managerial support and that 7040
support is available through the director, the minority business 7041
development office of the department of development services 7042
agency, or other identified and acceptable sources. In determining 7043
whether a minority business enterprise borrower will be able to 7044
successfully compete, the director may give consideration to such 7045
factors as the successful completion of or participation in 7046
courses of study, recognized by the board of regents as providing 7047
financial, technical, or managerial skills related to the 7048
operation of the business, by the economically disadvantaged 7049
individual, owner, or partner, and the prior success of the 7050
individual, owner, or partner in personal, career, or business 7051
activities, as well as to other factors identified by the 7052
director.7053

       (D) The director shall not lend funds for the purpose of 7054
procuring or improving motor vehicles or accounts receivable.7055

       Sec. 122.861.  (A) As used in this section:7056

        (1) "Certified engine configuration" means a new, rebuilt, or 7057
remanufactured engine configuration that satisfies divisions 7058
(A)(1)(a) and (b) and, if applicable, division (A)(1)(c) of this 7059
section:7060

        (a) It has been certified by the administrator of the United 7061
States environmental protection agency or the California air 7062
resources board.7063

        (b) It meets or is rebuilt or remanufactured to a more 7064
stringent set of engine emission standards than when originally 7065
manufactured, as determined pursuant to Subtitle G of Title VII of 7066
the Energy Policy Act of 2005, Pub. L. No. 109-58, 119 Stat. 838, 7067
et seq.7068

        (c) In the case of a certified engine configuration involving 7069
the replacement of an existing engine, an engine configuration 7070
that replaced an engine that was removed from the vehicle and 7071
returned to the supplier for remanufacturing to a more stringent 7072
set of engine emissions standards or for scrappage.7073

        (2) "Section 793" means section 793 of the Energy Policy Act 7074
of 2005, Pub. L. No. 109-58, 119 Stat. 841, et seq.7075

        (3) "Verified technology" means a pollution control 7076
technology, including a retrofit technology, advanced truckstop 7077
electrification system, or auxiliary power unit, that has been 7078
verified by the administrator of the United States environmental 7079
protection agency or the California air resources board.7080

        (B) For the purpose of reducing emissions from diesel 7081
engines, the director of environmental protection shall administer 7082
a diesel emissions reduction grant program and a diesel emissions 7083
reduction revolving loan program. The programs shall provide for 7084
the implementation in this state of section 793 and shall 7085
otherwise be administered in compliance with the requirements of 7086
section 793, and any regulations issued pursuant to that section.7087

        The director shall apply to the administrator of the United 7088
States environmental protection agency for grant or loan funds 7089
available under section 793 to help fund the diesel emissions 7090
reduction grant program and the diesel emissions reduction 7091
revolving loan program. 7092

        (C) There is hereby created in the state treasury the diesel 7093
emissions grant fund consisting of money appropriated to it by the 7094
general assembly, any grants obtained from the federal government 7095
under section 793, and any other grants, gifts, or other 7096
contributions of money made to the credit of the fund. Money in 7097
the fund shall be used for the purpose of making grants for 7098
projects relating to certified engine configurations and verified 7099
technologies in a manner consistent with the requirements of 7100
section 793 and any regulations issued under that section. 7101
Interest earned from moneys in the fund shall be used to 7102
administer the diesel emissions reduction grant program.7103

       (D) There is hereby created in the state treasury the diesel 7104
emissions reduction revolving loan fund consisting of money 7105
appropriated to it by the general assembly, any grants obtained 7106
from the federal government under section 793, and any other 7107
grants, gifts, or other contributions of money made to the credit 7108
of the fund. Money in the fund shall be used for the purpose of 7109
making loans for projects relating to certified engine 7110
configurations and verified technologies in a manner consistent 7111
with the requirements of section 793 and any regulations issued 7112
pursuant to that section. Interest earned from moneys in the fund 7113
shall be used to administer the diesel emissions reduction 7114
revolving loan program.7115

       Sec. 123.01.  (A) The department of administrative services, 7116
in addition to those powers enumerated in Chapters 124. and 125. 7117
of the Revised Code and provided elsewhere by law, shall exercise 7118
the following powers:7119

       (1) To prepare and suggest comprehensive plans for the 7120
development of grounds and buildings under the control of a state 7121
agency;7122

       (2) To acquire, by purchase, gift, devise, lease, or grant, 7123
all real estate required by a state agency, in the exercise of 7124
which power the department may exercise the power of eminent 7125
domain, in the manner provided by sections 163.01 to 163.22 of the 7126
Revised Code;7127

       (3) To erect, supervise, and maintain all public monuments 7128
and memorials erected by the state, except where the supervision 7129
and maintenance is otherwise provided by law;7130

       (4) To procure, by lease, storage accommodations for a state 7131
agency;7132

       (5) To lease or grant easements or licenses for unproductive 7133
and unused lands or other property under the control of a state 7134
agency. Such leases, easements, or licenses may be granted to any 7135
person or entity, shall be for a period not to exceed fifteen 7136
years, and shall be executed for the state by the director of 7137
administrative services, provided that the director shall grant 7138
leases, easements, or licenses of university land for periods not 7139
to exceed twenty-five years for purposes approved by the 7140
respective university's board of trustees wherein the uses are 7141
compatible with the uses and needs of the university and may grant 7142
leases of university land for periods not to exceed forty years 7143
for purposes approved by the respective university's board of 7144
trustees pursuant to section 123.17 of the Revised Code.7145

       (6) To lease space for the use of a state agency;7146

       (7) To have general supervision and care of the storerooms, 7147
offices, and buildings leased for the use of a state agency;7148

       (8) To exercise general custodial care of all real property 7149
of the state;7150

       (9) To assign and group together state offices in any city in 7151
the state and to establish, in cooperation with the state agencies 7152
involved, rules governing space requirements for office or storage 7153
use;7154

       (10) To lease for a period not to exceed forty years, 7155
pursuant to a contract providing for the construction thereof 7156
under a lease-purchase plan, buildings, structures, and other 7157
improvements for any public purpose, and, in conjunction 7158
therewith, to grant leases, easements, or licenses for lands under 7159
the control of a state agency for a period not to exceed forty 7160
years. The lease-purchase plan shall provide that at the end of 7161
the lease period, the buildings, structures, and related 7162
improvements, together with the land on which they are situated, 7163
shall become the property of the state without cost.7164

       (a) Whenever any building, structure, or other improvement is 7165
to be so leased by a state agency, the department shall retain 7166
either basic plans, specifications, bills of materials, and 7167
estimates of cost with sufficient detail to afford bidders all 7168
needed information or, alternatively, all of the following plans, 7169
details, bills of materials, and specifications:7170

       (i) Full and accurate plans suitable for the use of mechanics 7171
and other builders in the improvement;7172

       (ii) Details to scale and full sized, so drawn and 7173
represented as to be easily understood;7174

       (iii) Accurate bills showing the exact quantity of different 7175
kinds of material necessary to the construction;7176

       (iv) Definite and complete specifications of the work to be 7177
performed, together with such directions as will enable a 7178
competent mechanic or other builder to carry them out and afford 7179
bidders all needed information;7180

       (v) A full and accurate estimate of each item of expense and 7181
of the aggregate cost thereof.7182

       (b) The department shall give public notice, in such 7183
newspaper, in such form, and with such phraseology as the director 7184
of administrative services prescribes, published once each week 7185
for four consecutive weeks, of the time when and place where bids 7186
will be received for entering into an agreement to lease to a 7187
state agency a building, structure, or other improvement. The last 7188
publication shall be at least eight days preceding the day for 7189
opening the bids. The bids shall contain the terms upon which the 7190
builder would propose to lease the building, structure, or other 7191
improvement to the state agency. The form of the bid approved by 7192
the department shall be used, and a bid is invalid and shall not 7193
be considered unless that form is used without change, alteration, 7194
or addition. Before submitting bids pursuant to this section, any 7195
builder shall comply with Chapter 153. of the Revised Code.7196

       (c) On the day and at the place named for receiving bids for 7197
entering into lease agreements with a state agency, the director 7198
of administrative services shall open the bids and shall publicly 7199
proceed immediately to tabulate the bids upon duplicate sheets. No 7200
lease agreement shall be entered into until the bureau of workers' 7201
compensation has certified that the person to be awarded the lease 7202
agreement has complied with Chapter 4123. of the Revised Code, 7203
until, if the builder submitting the lowest and best bid is a 7204
foreign corporation, the secretary of state has certified that the 7205
corporation is authorized to do business in this state, until, if 7206
the builder submitting the lowest and best bid is a person 7207
nonresident of this state, the person has filed with the secretary 7208
of state a power of attorney designating the secretary of state as 7209
its agent for the purpose of accepting service of summons in any 7210
action brought under Chapter 4123. of the Revised Code, and until 7211
the agreement is submitted to the attorney general and the 7212
attorney general's approval is certified thereon. Within thirty 7213
days after the day on which the bids are received, the department 7214
shall investigate the bids received and shall determine that the 7215
bureau and the secretary of state have made the certifications 7216
required by this section of the builder who has submitted the 7217
lowest and best bid. Within ten days of the completion of the 7218
investigation of the bids, the department shall award the lease 7219
agreement to the builder who has submitted the lowest and best bid 7220
and who has been certified by the bureau and secretary of state as 7221
required by this section. If bidding for the lease agreement has 7222
been conducted upon the basis of basic plans, specifications, 7223
bills of materials, and estimates of costs, upon the award to the 7224
builder the department, or the builder with the approval of the 7225
department, shall appoint an architect or engineer licensed in 7226
this state to prepare such further detailed plans, specifications, 7227
and bills of materials as are required to construct the building, 7228
structure, or improvement. The department shall adopt such rules 7229
as are necessary to give effect to this section. The department 7230
may reject any bid. Where there is reason to believe there is 7231
collusion or combination among bidders, the bids of those 7232
concerned therein shall be rejected.7233

       (11) To acquire by purchase, gift, devise, or grant and to 7234
transfer, lease, or otherwise dispose of all real property 7235
required to assist in the development of a conversion facility as 7236
defined in section 5709.30 of the Revised Code as that section 7237
existed before its repeal by Amended Substitute House Bill 95 of 7238
the 125th general assembly;7239

       (12) To lease for a period not to exceed forty years, 7240
notwithstanding any other division of this section, the 7241
state-owned property located at 408-450 East Town Street, 7242
Columbus, Ohio, formerly the state school for the deaf, to a 7243
developer in accordance with this section. "Developer," as used in 7244
this section, has the same meaning as in section 123.77 of the 7245
Revised Code.7246

       Such a lease shall be for the purpose of development of the 7247
land for use by senior citizens by constructing, altering, 7248
renovating, repairing, expanding, and improving the site as it 7249
existed on June 25, 1982. A developer desiring to lease the land 7250
shall prepare for submission to the department a plan for 7251
development. Plans shall include provisions for roads, sewers, 7252
water lines, waste disposal, water supply, and similar matters to 7253
meet the requirements of state and local laws. The plans shall 7254
also include provision for protection of the property by insurance 7255
or otherwise, and plans for financing the development, and shall 7256
set forth details of the developer's financial responsibility.7257

       The department may employ, as employees or consultants, 7258
persons needed to assist in reviewing the development plans. Those 7259
persons may include attorneys, financial experts, engineers, and 7260
other necessary experts. The department shall review the 7261
development plans and may enter into a lease if it finds all of 7262
the following:7263

       (a) The best interests of the state will be promoted by 7264
entering into a lease with the developer;7265

       (b) The development plans are satisfactory;7266

       (c) The developer has established the developer's financial 7267
responsibility and satisfactory plans for financing the 7268
development.7269

       The lease shall contain a provision that construction or 7270
renovation of the buildings, roads, structures, and other 7271
necessary facilities shall begin within one year after the date of 7272
the lease and shall proceed according to a schedule agreed to 7273
between the department and the developer or the lease will be 7274
terminated. The lease shall contain such conditions and 7275
stipulations as the director considers necessary to preserve the 7276
best interest of the state. Moneys received by the state pursuant 7277
to this lease shall be paid into the general revenue fund. The 7278
lease shall provide that at the end of the lease period the 7279
buildings, structures, and related improvements shall become the 7280
property of the state without cost.7281

       (13) To manage the use of space owned and controlled by the 7282
department, including space in property under the jurisdiction of 7283
the Ohio building authority, by doing all of the following:7284

       (a) Biennially implementing, by state agency location, a 7285
census of agency employees assigned space;7286

        (b) Periodically in the discretion of the director of 7287
administrative services:7288

       (i) Requiring each state agency to categorize the use of 7289
space allotted to the agency between office space, common areas, 7290
storage space, and other uses, and to report its findings to the 7291
department;7292

        (ii) Creating and updating a master space utilization plan 7293
for all space allotted to state agencies. The plan shall 7294
incorporate space utilization metrics.7295

        (iii) Conducting a cost-benefit analysis to determine the 7296
effectiveness of state-owned buildings;7297

        (iv) Assessing the alternatives associated with consolidating 7298
the commercial leases for buildings located in Columbus.7299

        (c) Commissioning a comprehensive space utilization and 7300
capacity study in order to determine the feasibility of 7301
consolidating existing commercially leased space used by state 7302
agencies into a new state-owned facility.7303

       (14) To adopt rules to ensure that energy efficiency and 7304
conservation is considered in the purchase of products and 7305
equipment, except motor vehicles, by any state agency, department, 7306
division, bureau, office, unit, board, commission, authority, 7307
quasi-governmental entity, or institution. The department may 7308
require minimum energy efficiency standards for purchased products 7309
and equipment based on federal testing and labeling if available 7310
or on standards developed by the department. When possible, the 7311
rules shall apply to the competitive selection of energy consuming 7312
systems, components, and equipment under Chapter 125. of the 7313
Revised Code.7314

       (15) To ensure energy efficient and energy conserving 7315
purchasing practices by doing all of the following:7316

       (a) Identifying available energy efficiency and conservation 7317
opportunities;7318

       (b) Providing for interchange of information among purchasing 7319
agencies;7320

       (c) Identifying laws, policies, rules, and procedures that 7321
should be modified;7322

       (d) Monitoring experience with and the cost-effectiveness of 7323
this state's purchase and use of motor vehicles and of major 7324
energy-consuming systems, components, equipment, and products 7325
having a significant impact on energy consumption by the 7326
government;7327

       (e) Providing technical assistance and training to state 7328
employees involved in the purchasing process;7329

       (f) Working with the department of development services 7330
agency to make recommendations regarding planning and 7331
implementation of purchasing policies and procedures that are 7332
supportive of energy efficiency and conservation.7333

       (16) To require all state agencies, departments, divisions, 7334
bureaus, offices, units, commissions, boards, authorities, 7335
quasi-governmental entities, institutions, and state institutions 7336
of higher education to implement procedures to ensure that all of 7337
the passenger automobiles they acquire in each fiscal year, except 7338
for those passenger automobiles acquired for use in law 7339
enforcement or emergency rescue work, achieve a fleet average fuel 7340
economy of not less than the fleet average fuel economy for that 7341
fiscal year as the department shall prescribe by rule. The 7342
department shall adopt the rule prior to the beginning of the 7343
fiscal year, in accordance with the average fuel economy standards 7344
established by federal law for passenger automobiles manufactured 7345
during the model year that begins during the fiscal year.7346

       Each state agency, department, division, bureau, office, 7347
unit, commission, board, authority, quasi-governmental entity, 7348
institution, and state institution of higher education shall 7349
determine its fleet average fuel economy by dividing the total 7350
number of passenger vehicles acquired during the fiscal year, 7351
except for those passenger vehicles acquired for use in law 7352
enforcement or emergency rescue work, by a sum of terms, each of 7353
which is a fraction created by dividing the number of passenger 7354
vehicles of a given make, model, and year, except for passenger 7355
vehicles acquired for use in law enforcement or emergency rescue 7356
work, acquired during the fiscal year by the fuel economy measured 7357
by the administrator of the United States environmental protection 7358
agency, for the given make, model, and year of vehicle, that 7359
constitutes an average fuel economy for combined city and highway 7360
driving.7361

       As used in division (A)(16) of this section, "acquired" means 7362
leased for a period of sixty continuous days or more, or 7363
purchased.7364

       (B) This section and section 125.02 of the Revised Code shall 7365
not interfere with any of the following:7366

       (1) The power of the adjutant general to purchase military 7367
supplies, or with the custody of the adjutant general of property 7368
leased, purchased, or constructed by the state and used for 7369
military purposes, or with the functions of the adjutant general 7370
as director of state armories;7371

       (2) The power of the director of transportation in acquiring 7372
rights-of-way for the state highway system, or the leasing of 7373
lands for division or resident district offices, or the leasing of 7374
lands or buildings required in the maintenance operations of the 7375
department of transportation, or the purchase of real property for 7376
garage sites or division or resident district offices, or in 7377
preparing plans and specifications for and constructing such 7378
buildings as the director may require in the administration of the 7379
department;7380

       (3) The power of the director of public safety and the 7381
registrar of motor vehicles to purchase or lease real property and 7382
buildings to be used solely as locations to which a deputy 7383
registrar is assigned pursuant to division (B) of section 4507.011 7384
of the Revised Code and from which the deputy registrar is to 7385
conduct the deputy registrar's business, the power of the director 7386
of public safety to purchase or lease real property and buildings 7387
to be used as locations for division or district offices as 7388
required in the maintenance of operations of the department of 7389
public safety, and the power of the superintendent of the state 7390
highway patrol in the purchase or leasing of real property and 7391
buildings needed by the patrol, to negotiate the sale of real 7392
property owned by the patrol, to rent or lease real property owned 7393
or leased by the patrol, and to make or cause to be made repairs 7394
to all property owned or under the control of the patrol;7395

       (4) The power of the division of liquor control in the 7396
leasing or purchasing of retail outlets and warehouse facilities 7397
for the use of the division;7398

       (5) The power of the director of development services to 7399
enter into leases of real property, buildings, and office space to 7400
be used solely as locations for the state's foreign offices to 7401
carry out the purposes of section 122.05 of the Revised Code;7402

       (6) The power of the director of environmental protection to 7403
enter into environmental covenants, to grant and accept easements, 7404
or to sell property pursuant to division (G) of section 3745.01 of 7405
the Revised Code.7406

       (C) Purchases for, and the custody and repair of, buildings 7407
under the management and control of the capitol square review and 7408
advisory board, the rehabilitation services commission, the bureau 7409
of workers' compensation, or the departments of public safety, job 7410
and family services, mental healthmental health and addiction 7411
services, developmental disabilities, and rehabilitation and 7412
correction; buildings of educational and benevolent institutions 7413
under the management and control of boards of trustees; and 7414
purchases or leases for, and the custody and repair of, office 7415
space used for the purposes of the joint legislative ethics 7416
committee are not subject to the control and jurisdiction of the 7417
department of administrative services.7418

       If the joint legislative ethics committee so requests, the 7419
committee and the director of administrative services may enter 7420
into a contract under which the department of administrative 7421
services agrees to perform any services requested by the committee 7422
that the department is authorized under this section to perform.7423

       (D) Unless the house of representatives notifies the 7424
department of administrative services that the house of 7425
representatives opts out, purchases for the maintenance, care, 7426
custodial care, utility costs, and repair of office space used by 7427
the house of representatives are subject to the control and 7428
jurisdiction of the department. If the house of representatives 7429
opts out, the house of representatives may enter into a contract 7430
for the purchase of any such services as is permitted under 7431
sections 125.02 and 125.04 of the Revised Code and the department 7432
shall pay the costs of the purchase and shall not charge the house 7433
of representatives service fees related to the purchase.7434

       (E) Any instrument by which real property is acquired 7435
pursuant to this section shall identify the agency of the state 7436
that has the use and benefit of the real property as specified in 7437
section 5301.012 of the Revised Code.7438

       Sec. 123.10.  (A) As used in this section and section 123.11 7439
of the Revised Code, "public exigency" means an injury or 7440
obstruction that occurs in any public works of the state 7441
maintained by the director of administrative services and that 7442
materially impairs its immediate use or places in jeopardy 7443
property adjacent to it; an immediate danger of such an injury or 7444
obstruction; or an injury or obstruction, or an immediate danger 7445
of an injury or obstruction, that occurs in any public works of 7446
the state maintained by the director of administrative services 7447
and that materially impairs its immediate use or places in 7448
jeopardy property adjacent to it.7449

       (B) When a declaration of public exigency is issued pursuant 7450
to division (C) of this section, the director of administrative 7451
services may request the Ohio facilities construction commission 7452
toshall enter into contracts with proper persons for the 7453
performance of labor, the furnishing of materials, or the 7454
construction of any structures and buildings necessary to the 7455
maintenance, control, and management of the public works of the 7456
state or any part of those public works. Any contracts awarded for 7457
the work performed pursuant to the declaration of a public 7458
exigency may be awarded without competitive bidding or selection 7459
as set forth in Chapter 153. of the Revised Code.7460

       (C) The executive director of administrative servicesthe 7461
Ohio facilities construction commission may issue a declaration of 7462
a public exigency on the executive director's own initiative or 7463
upon the request of the director of any state agency. The 7464
executive director's declaration shall identify the specific 7465
injury, obstruction, or danger that is the subject of the 7466
declaration and shall set forth a dollar limitation for the 7467
repair, removal, or prevention of that exigency under the 7468
declaration.7469

       Before any project to repair, remove, or prevent a public 7470
exigency under the executive director's declaration may begin, the 7471
executive director shall send notice of the project, in writing, 7472
to the director of budget and management and to the members of the 7473
controlling board. That notice shall detail the project to be 7474
undertaken to address the public exigency and shall include a copy 7475
of the executive director's declaration that establishes the 7476
monetary limitations on that project.7477

       Sec. 123.11.  When a public exigency, as defined in division 7478
(A) of section 123.10 of the Revised Code, exists, the executive7479
director of administrative servicesthe Ohio facilities 7480
construction commission may take possession of lands and use them, 7481
or materials and other property necessary for the maintenance, 7482
protection, or repair of the public works, in accordance with 7483
sections 163.01 to 163.22 of the Revised Code.7484

       Sec. 123.19. There is hereby established in the state 7485
treasury the theater equipment maintenance fund. All appropriate 7486
theater-related revenues of the department of administrative 7487
services, as determined by the department, shall be credited to 7488
that fund and to any accounts created in that fund with the 7489
department's approval. All appropriate theater-related expenses of 7490
the department, as determined by the department, including 7491
reimbursement of, or payment to, any other fund or any 7492
governmental agency for advances made or services rendered to or 7493
on behalf of the department, shall be paid from that fund as 7494
determined by or pursuant to directions of the department. All 7495
investment earnings of that fund shall be credited to it and shall 7496
be allocated among any accounts created in the fund in the manner 7497
determined by the department.7498

       Sec. 123.201. (A) There is hereby created in the state 7499
treasury the Ohio facilities construction commission fund, 7500
consisting of transfers of moneys authorized by the general 7501
assembly and revenues received by the Ohio facilities construction 7502
commission under section 123.21 of the Revised Code. Investment 7503
earnings on moneys in the fund shall be credited to the fund. 7504
Moneys in the fund may be used by the commission, in performing 7505
its duties under this chapter, to pay personnel and other 7506
administrative expenses, to pay the cost of preparing building 7507
design specifications, to pay the cost of providing project 7508
management services, and for other purposes determined by the 7509
commission to be necessary to fulfill its duties under this 7510
chapter.7511

       (B)(1) There is hereby created in the state treasury the 7512
cultural and sports facilities building fund, consisting of 7513
proceeds of obligations authorized to pay costs of Ohio cultural 7514
facilities and Ohio sports facilities for which appropriations are 7515
made by the general assembly. All investment earnings of the fund 7516
shall be credited to the fund.7517

       (2) Upon the request of the executive director of the Ohio 7518
facilities construction commission and subject to applicable tax 7519
law limitations, the director of budget and management may 7520
transfer to the Ohio cultural facilities administration fund 7521
moneys credited to the cultural and sports facilities building 7522
fund to pay the costs of administering projects funded through the 7523
cultural and sports facilities building fund.7524

       (C) There is hereby created in the state treasury the Ohio 7525
cultural facilities administration fund, consisting of transfers 7526
of money authorized by the general assembly and revenues received 7527
by the commission under division (A)(9) of section 123.21 of the 7528
Revised Code. Moneys in the fund may be used by the Ohio 7529
facilities construction commission in administering projects 7530
funded through the cultural and sports facilities building fund 7531
pursuant to sections 123.28 and 128.281 of the Revised Code. All 7532
investment earnings of that fund shall be credited to it and shall 7533
be allocated among any accounts created in the fund in the manner 7534
determined by the commission.7535

       (D)(1) There is hereby created in the state treasury the 7536
capital donations fund, which shall be administered by the Ohio 7537
facilities construction commission. The fund consists of gifts, 7538
grants, devises, bequests, and other financial contributions made 7539
to the commission for the construction or improvement of cultural 7540
and sports facilities and shall be used in accordance with the 7541
specific purposes for which the gifts, grants, devises, bequests, 7542
or other financial contributions are made. All investment earnings 7543
of the fund shall be credited to the fund. Chapters 123., 125., 7544
127., and 153. and section 3517.13 of the Revised Code do not 7545
apply to contract obligations paid from the fund, notwithstanding 7546
anything to the contrary in those chapters or that section.7547

       (2) Not later than one month following the end of each 7548
quarter of the fiscal year, the commission shall allocate the 7549
amounts credited to the fund from investment earnings during that 7550
preceding quarter of the fiscal year among the specific projects 7551
for which they are to be used and shall certify this information 7552
to the director of budget and management.7553

       (3) If the amounts credited to the fund for a particular 7554
project exceed what is required to complete that project, the 7555
commission may refund any of those excess amounts, including 7556
unexpended investment earnings attributable to those amounts, to 7557
the entity from which they were received.7558

       Sec. 123.21.  (A) The Ohio facilities construction commission 7559
may perform any act and ensure the performance of any function 7560
necessary or appropriate to carry out the purposes of, and 7561
exercise the powers granted under this chapter or any other 7562
provision of the Revised Code, including any of the following:7563

       (1) Prepare, or contract to be prepared, by licensed 7564
engineers or architects, surveys, general and detailed plans, 7565
specifications, bills of materials, and estimates of cost for any 7566
projects, improvements, or public buildings to be constructed by 7567
state agencies that may be authorized by legislative 7568
appropriations or any other funds made available therefor, 7569
provided that the construction of the projects, improvements, or 7570
public buildings is a statutory duty of the commission. This 7571
section does not require the independent employment of an 7572
architect or engineer as provided by section 153.01 of the Revised 7573
Code in the cases to which section 153.01 of the Revised Code 7574
applies. This section does not affect or alter the existing powers 7575
of the director of transportation.7576

       (2) Have general supervision over the construction of any 7577
projects, improvements, or public buildings constructed for a 7578
state agency and over the inspection of materials prior to their 7579
incorporation into those projects, improvements, or buildings.7580

       (3) Make contracts for and supervise the design and 7581
construction of any projects and improvements or the construction 7582
and repair of buildings under the control of a state agency. All 7583
such contracts may be based in whole or in part on the unit price 7584
or maximum estimated cost, with payment computed and made upon 7585
actual quantities or units.7586

       (4) Adopt, amend, and rescind rules pertaining to the 7587
administration of the construction of the public works of the 7588
state as required by law, in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 7589
Revised Code.7590

       (5) Contract with, retain the services of, or designate, and 7591
fix the compensation of, such agents, accountants, consultants, 7592
advisers, and other independent contractors as may be necessary or 7593
desirable to carry out the programs authorized under this chapter, 7594
or authorize the executive director to perform such powers and 7595
duties.7596

       (6) Receive and accept any gifts, grants, donations, and 7597
pledges, and receipts therefrom, to be used for the programs 7598
authorized under this chapter.7599

       (7) Make and enter into all contracts, commitments, and 7600
agreements, and execute all instruments, necessary or incidental 7601
to the performance of its duties and the execution of its rights 7602
and powers under this chapter, or authorize the executive director 7603
to perform such powers and duties.7604

        (8) Debar a contractor as provided in section 153.02 of the 7605
Revised Code.7606

       (9) Enter into and administer cooperative agreements for 7607
cultural projects, as provided in sections 123.28 and 123.281 of 7608
the Revised Code.7609

       (B) The commission shall appoint and fix the compensation of 7610
an executive director who shall serve at the pleasure of the 7611
commission. The executive director shall exercise all powers that 7612
the commission possesses, supervise the operations of the 7613
commission, and perform such other duties as delegated by the 7614
commission. The executive director also shall employ and fix the 7615
compensation of such employees as will facilitate the activities 7616
and purposes of the commission, who shall serve at the pleasure of 7617
the executive director. The employees of the commission are exempt 7618
from Chapter 4117. of the Revised Code and are not considered 7619
public employees as defined in section 4117.01 of the Revised 7620
Code. Any agreement entered into prior to July 1, 2012, between 7621
the office of collective bargaining and the exclusive 7622
representative for employees of the commission is binding and 7623
shall continue to have effect.7624

       (C) The attorney general shall serve as the legal 7625
representative for the commission and may appoint other counsel as 7626
necessary for that purpose in accordance with section 109.07 of 7627
the Revised Code.7628

       Sec. 123.27.  (A) As used in this section:7629

       "Capital facilities project" means the construction, 7630
reconstruction, improvement, enlargement, alteration, or repair of 7631
a building by a public entity.7632

       "Public entity" includes a state agency and a state 7633
institution of higher education. 7634

       "State institution of higher education" has the same meaning 7635
as in section 3345.011 of the Revised Code.7636

       (B) Commencing not later than July 1, 2012, and upon 7637
completion of a capital facilities project that is funded wholly 7638
or in part using state funds, each public entity shall submit a 7639
report about the project to the executive director of the Ohio 7640
facilities construction commission. The report shall be submitted 7641
in Ohio administrative knowledge system capital improvement format 7642
or in a manner determined by the executive director and not later 7643
than thirty days after the project is complete. The report shall 7644
provide the total original contract bid, total cost of change 7645
orders, total actual cost of the project, total costs incurred for 7646
mediation and litigation services, and any other data requested by 7647
the executive director. The first report submitted pursuant to 7648
this division shall include information about any capital 7649
facilities project completed on or after July 1, 2011. Any capital 7650
facilities project that is funded wholly or in part through 7651
appropriations made to the Ohio school facilities commission,or7652
the Ohio public works commission, or the Ohio cultural facilities 7653
commission, or for which a joint use agreement has been entered 7654
into with any public entity, is exempt from the reporting 7655
requirement prescribed under this division.7656

       (C) Commencing not later than July 1, 2012, and annually 7657
thereafter, the attorney general shall report to the executive 7658
director of the Ohio facilities construction commission on any 7659
mediation and litigation costs associated with capital facilities 7660
projects for which a judgment has been rendered. The report shall 7661
be submitted in a manner prescribed by the executive director and 7662
shall contain any information requested by the executive director 7663
related to capital facilities project mediation and litigation 7664
costs.7665

       (D) As soon as practicable after such information is made 7666
available, the executive director of the Ohio facilities 7667
construction commission shall incorporate the information reported 7668
pursuant to divisions (B) and (C) of this section into the Ohio 7669
administrative knowledge system.7670

       Sec. 3383.01.        Sec. 123.28.  As used in this chaptersection and in 7671
section 123.281 of the Revised Code:7672

       (A) "Culture" means any of the following:7673

       (1) Visual, musical, dramatic, graphic, design, and other 7674
arts, including, but not limited to, architecture, dance, 7675
literature, motion pictures, music, painting, photography, 7676
sculpture, and theater, and the provision of training or education 7677
in these arts;7678

       (2) The presentation or making available, in museums or other 7679
indoor or outdoor facilities, of principles of science and their 7680
development, use, or application in business, industry, or 7681
commerce or of the history, heritage, development, presentation, 7682
and uses of the arts described in division (A)(1) of this section 7683
and of transportation;7684

       (3) The preservation, presentation, or making available of 7685
features of archaeological, architectural, environmental, or 7686
historical interest or significance in a state historical facility 7687
or a local historical facility.7688

       (B) "Cultural organization" means either of the following:7689

       (1) A governmental agency or Ohio nonprofit corporation, 7690
including the Ohio historical society, that provides programs or 7691
activities in areas directly concerned with culture;7692

       (2) A regional arts and cultural district as defined in 7693
section 3381.01 of the Revised Code.7694

       (C) "Cultural project" means all or any portion of an Ohio 7695
cultural facility for which the general assembly has specifically 7696
authorized the spending of money, or made an appropriation, 7697
pursuant to division (D)(3) or (E) of section 3383.07 of the 7698
Revised Codeor has specifically authorized the spending of money 7699
or the making of rental payments relating to the financing of 7700
construction.7701

       (D) "Cooperative contract" means a contract between the Ohio 7702
cultural facilities construction commission and a cultural 7703
organization providing the terms and conditions of the cooperative 7704
use of an Ohio cultural facility.7705

       (E) "Costs of operation" means amounts required to manage an 7706
Ohio cultural facility that are incurred following the completion 7707
of construction of its cultural project, provided that both of the 7708
following apply:7709

       (1) Those amounts either:7710

       (a) Have been committed to a fund dedicated to that purpose;7711

       (b) Equal the principal of any endowment fund, the income 7712
from which is dedicated to that purpose.7713

       (2) The commission and the cultural organization have 7714
executed an agreement with respect to either of those funds.7715

       (F) "General building services" means general building 7716
services for an Ohio cultural facility or an Ohio sports facility, 7717
including, but not limited to, general custodial care, security, 7718
maintenance, repair, painting, decoration, cleaning, utilities, 7719
fire safety, grounds and site maintenance and upkeep, and 7720
plumbing.7721

       (G) "Governmental agency" means a state agency, a 7722
state-supported or state-assisted institution of higher education,7723
a municipal corporation, county, township, or school district, a 7724
port authority created under Chapter 4582. of the Revised Code, 7725
any other political subdivision or special district in this state 7726
established by or pursuant to law, or any combination of these 7727
entities; except where otherwise indicated, the United States or 7728
any department, division, or agency of the United States, or any 7729
agency, commission, or authority established pursuant to an 7730
interstate compact or agreement.7731

       (H)(G) "Local contributions" means the value of an asset 7732
provided by or on behalf of a cultural organization from sources 7733
other than the state, the value and nature of which shall be 7734
approved by the Ohio cultural facilities construction commission, 7735
in its sole discretion. "Local contributions" may include the 7736
value of the site where a cultural project is to be constructed. 7737
All "local contributions," except a contribution attributable to 7738
such a site, shall be for the costs of construction of a cultural 7739
project or the creation or expansion of an endowment for the costs 7740
of operation of a cultural facility.7741

       (I)(H) "Local historical facility" means a site or facility, 7742
other than a state historical facility, of archaeological, 7743
architectural, environmental, or historical interest or 7744
significance, or a facility, including a storage facility, 7745
appurtenant to the operations of such a site or facility, that is 7746
owned by a cultural organization, provided the facility meets the 7747
requirements of division (K)(2)(b) of this section, is managed by 7748
or pursuant to a contract with the Ohio cultural facilities 7749
commission, and is used for or in connection with thecultural7750
activities of the commission, including the presentation or making 7751
available of culture to the public.7752

       (J)(I) "Manage," "operate," or "management" means the 7753
provision of, or the exercise of control over the provision of, 7754
activities:7755

       (1) Relating to culture for an Ohio cultural facility, 7756
including as applicable, but not limited to, providing for 7757
displays, exhibitions, specimens, and models; booking of artists, 7758
performances, or presentations; scheduling; and hiring or 7759
contracting for directors, curators, technical and scientific 7760
staff, ushers, stage managers, and others directly related to the 7761
cultural activities in the facility; but not including general 7762
building services;7763

       (2) Relating to sports and athletic events for an Ohio sports 7764
facility, including as applicable, but not limited to, providing 7765
for booking of athletes, teams, and events; scheduling; and hiring 7766
or contracting for staff, ushers, managers, and others directly 7767
related to the sports and athletic events in the facility; but not 7768
including general building services.7769

       (K)(J) "Ohio cultural facility" means any of the following:7770

       (1) The theaters located in the state office tower at 77 7771
South High street in Columbus;7772

       (2) Any capitalcultural facility in this state to which both 7773
of the following apply:7774

       (a) The construction of a cultural project related to the 7775
facility was authorized or funded by the general assembly pursuant 7776
to division (D)(3) of section 3383.07 of the Revised Code and 7777
proceeds of state bonds are used for costs of the cultural 7778
project.7779

       (b) The facilitythat is managed directly by, or is subject 7780
to a cooperative or management contract with, the Ohio cultural7781
facilities construction commission, and is used for or in 7782
connection with the activities of the commission, including the 7783
presentation or making available of culture to the public and the 7784
provision of training or education in culture.7785

       (3) A state historical facility or a local historical 7786
facility.7787

       (L) "State agency" means the state or any of its branches, 7788
officers, boards, commissions, authorities, departments, 7789
divisions, or other units or agencies.7790

       (M)(K) "Construction" includes acquisition, including 7791
acquisition by lease-purchase, demolition, reconstruction, 7792
alteration, renovation, remodeling, enlargement, improvement, site 7793
improvements, and related equipping and furnishing.7794

       (N)(L) "State historical facility" means a site or facility 7795
that has all of the following characteristics:7796

       (1) It is created, supervised, operated, protected, 7797
maintained, and promoted by the Ohio historical society pursuant 7798
to the society's performance of public functions under sections 7799
149.30 and 149.302 of the Revised Code.7800

       (2) Its title must reside wholly or in part with the state, 7801
the society, or both the state and the society.7802

       (3) It is managed directly by or is subject to a cooperative 7803
or management contract with the Ohio cultural facilities 7804
construction commission and is used for or in connection with the7805
cultural activities of the commission, including the presentation 7806
or making available of culture to the public.7807

       (O)(M) "Ohio sports facility" means all or a portion of a 7808
stadium, arena, tennis facility, motorsports complex, or other 7809
capital facility in this state. A primary purpose of the facility 7810
shall be to provide a site or venue for the presentation to the 7811
public of motorsports events, professional tennis tournaments, or 7812
events of one or more major or minor league professional athletic 7813
or sports teams that are associated with the state or with a city 7814
or region of the state. The facility shall be, in the case of a 7815
motorsports complex, owned by the state or governmental agency, or 7816
in all other instances, owned by or located on real property owned 7817
by the state or a governmental agency, and includes all parking 7818
facilities, walkways, and other auxiliary facilities, equipment, 7819
furnishings, and real and personal property and interests and 7820
rights therein, that may be appropriate for or used for or in 7821
connection with the facility or its operation, for capital costs 7822
of which state funds are spent pursuant to this chapterthis 7823
section and section 123.281 of the Revised Code. A facility 7824
constructed as an Ohio sports facility may be both an Ohio 7825
cultural facility and an Ohio sports facility.7826

       (P)(N) "Motorsports" means sporting events in which motor 7827
vehicles are driven on a clearly demarcated tracked surface.7828

       Sec. 3383.07.        Sec. 123.281.  (A) The Ohio facilities construction 7829
commission shall provide for the construction of a cultural 7830
project in conformity with Chapter 153. of the Revised Code, 7831
except as follows:7832

       (1) For a cultural project other than a state historical 7833
facility, construction services may be provided on behalf of the 7834
state by the Ohio cultural facilities commission, or byfor 7835
construction services provided on behalf of the state by a 7836
governmental agency or a cultural organization in accordance with 7837
divisions (B) and (C) of this section.7838

       (B) In order for a governmental agency or a cultural 7839
organization that occupies, will occupy, or is responsible for the 7840
Ohio cultural facility, as determined by the Ohio cultural 7841
facilities commission. For a project receiving a state 7842
appropriation of fifty thousand dollars or less, the Ohio cultural 7843
facilities commission may delegate to its executive director the 7844
authority to approve the provision of construction services by 7845
such an agency or organization, but not the authority to 7846
disapprove that provision. Construction services to be provided by 7847
a governmental agency or a cultural organization shall be 7848
specified in an agreement between the Ohio cultural facilities 7849
commission and the governmental agency or cultural organization. 7850
The agreement, or any actions taken under it, are not subject to 7851
Chapter 123. or 153. of the Revised Code, except for sections 7852
123.081 and 153.011 of the Revised Code, and shall be subject to 7853
Chapter 4115. of the Revised Code.7854

       (2) For a cultural project that isto provide construction 7855
services on behalf of the state for a cultural project, other than 7856
a state historical facility, for which the general assembly has 7857
made an appropriation or specifically authorized the spending of 7858
money or the making of rental payments relating to the financing 7859
of the construction, the governmental agency or cultural 7860
organization shall submit to the Ohio facilities construction 7861
commission a cooperative agreement that includes, but is not 7862
limited to, provisions that:7863

       (1) Specify how the proposed project will support culture, as 7864
defined in section 123.28 of the Revised Code;7865

       (2) Specify that the governmental agency or cultural 7866
organization has local contributions amounting to not less than 7867
fifty per cent of the total state funding for the cultural 7868
project;7869

       (3) Specify that the funds shall be used only for 7870
construction, as defined in section 123.28 of the Revised Code;7871

       (4) Identify the facility to be constructed, renovated, 7872
remodeled, or improved;7873

       (5) Specify that the project scope meets the intent and 7874
purpose of the project appropriation and that the project can be 7875
completed and ready for full occupancy without exceeding 7876
appropriated funds;7877

       (6) Specify that the governmental agency or cultural 7878
organization shall hold the Ohio facilities construction 7879
commission harmless from all liability for the operation and 7880
maintenance costs of the facility;7881

       (7) Specify that the agreement or any actions taken under it 7882
are not subject to Chapters 123. or 153. of the Revised Code, 7883
except for section 153.011 of the Revised Code, and are subject to 7884
Chapter 4115. of the Revised Code; and7885

       (8) Provide that amendments to the agreement shall require 7886
the approval of the Ohio facilities construction commission.7887

       (C) In order for a cultural organization to provide 7888
construction services on behalf of the state for a state 7889
historical facility, construction services may be provided by the 7890
Ohio cultural facilities commission or by a cultural organization 7891
that occupies, will occupy, or is responsible for the facility, as 7892
determined by the Ohio cultural facilities commission. For a 7893
facility receiving a state appropriation of fifty thousand dollars 7894
or less, the Ohio cultural facilities commission may delegate to 7895
its executive director the authority to approve the provision of 7896
construction services by such an organization, but not the 7897
authority to disapprove that provision. The construction services 7898
to be provided by the cultural organization shall be specified in 7899
an agreement between the Ohio cultural facilities commission and 7900
the cultural organization. That agreement, and any actions taken 7901
under it, are not subject to Chapter 123., 153., or 4115. of the 7902
Revised Code.7903

       (B) For an Ohio sports facility that is financed in part by 7904
obligations issued pursuant to Chapter 154. of the Revised Code, 7905
construction services shall be provided on behalf of the state by 7906
or at the direction of the governmental agency or nonprofit 7907
corporation that will own or be responsible for the management of 7908
the facility, all as determined by the Ohio cultural facilities 7909
commission. For a facility receiving a state appropriation of 7910
fifty thousand dollars or less, the Ohio cultural facilities 7911
commission may delegate to its executive director the authority to 7912
approve the provision of construction services by or at the 7913
direction of the agency or corporation, but not the authority to 7914
disapprove that provision. Any construction services to be 7915
provided by a governmental agency or nonprofit corporation shall 7916
be specified in an agreement between the Ohio cultural facilities 7917
commission and the governmental agency or nonprofit corporation. 7918
That agreement, and any actions taken under it, are not subject to 7919
Chapter 123. or 153. of the Revised Code, except for sections 7920
123.081 and 153.011 of the Revised Code, and shall be subject to 7921
Chapter 4115. of the Revised Code.7922

       (C) General building services for an Ohio cultural facility 7923
shall be provided by the Ohio cultural facilities commission or by 7924
a cultural organization that occupies, will occupy, or is 7925
responsible for the facility, as determined by the Ohio cultural 7926
facilities commission. For a facility receiving a state 7927
appropriation of fifty thousand dollars or less, the Ohio cultural 7928
facilities commission may delegate to its executive director the 7929
authority to approve the provision of general building services by 7930
such an organization, but not the authority to disapprove that 7931
provision. Alternatively, the Ohio building authority may elect to 7932
provide those services for Ohio cultural facilities financed with 7933
proceeds of state bonds issued by the authority. The costs of 7934
management and general building services shall be paid by the 7935
cultural organization that occupies, will occupy, or is 7936
responsible for the facility as provided in an agreement between 7937
the Ohio cultural facilities commission and the cultural 7938
organization, except that the state may pay for general building 7939
services for state-owned cultural facilities constructed on 7940
state-owned land.7941

       General building services for an Ohio sports facility shall 7942
be provided by or at the direction of the governmental agency or 7943
nonprofit corporation that will be responsible for the management 7944
of the facility, all as determined by the Ohio cultural facilities 7945
commission. For a facility receiving a state appropriation of 7946
fifty thousand dollars or less, the Ohio cultural facilities 7947
commission may delegate to its executive director the authority to 7948
approve the provision of general building services by or at the 7949
direction of the agency or corporation, but not the authority to 7950
disapprove that provision. Any general building services to be 7951
provided by a governmental agency or nonprofit corporation for an 7952
Ohio sports facility shall be specified in an agreement between 7953
the Ohio cultural facilities commission and the governmental 7954
agency or nonprofit corporation. That agreement, and any actions 7955
taken under it, are not subject to Chapter 123. or 153. of the 7956
Revised Code, except for sections 123.081 and 153.011 of the 7957
Revised Code, and shall be subject to Chapter 4115. of the Revised 7958
Code.7959

       (D) This division does not apply to a state historical 7960
facility. No state funds, including any state bond proceeds, shall 7961
be spent on the construction of any cultural project under this 7962
chapter unless, with respect to the cultural project and to the 7963
Ohio cultural facility related to the project, all of the 7964
following apply:7965

       (1) The Ohio cultural facilities commission has determined 7966
that there is a need for the cultural project and the Ohio 7967
cultural facility related to the project in the region of the 7968
state in which the Ohio cultural facility is located or for which 7969
the facility is proposed. For a project receiving a state 7970
appropriation of fifty thousand dollars or less, the Ohio cultural 7971
facilities commission may delegate to its executive director the 7972
authority to determine need but only in the affirmative.7973

       (2) The Ohio cultural facilities commission has determined 7974
that, as an indication of substantial regional support for the 7975
cultural project, the cultural organization has made provision 7976
satisfactory to the Ohio cultural facilities commission, in its 7977
sole discretion, for local contributions amounting to not less 7978
than fifty per cent of the total state funding for the cultural 7979
project. For a project receiving a state appropriation of fifty 7980
thousand dollars or less, the Ohio cultural facilities commission 7981
may delegate to its executive director the authority to determine 7982
the adequacy of the regional support but only in the affirmative.7983

       (3) The general assembly has specifically authorized the 7984
spending of money on, or made an appropriation for, the 7985
construction of the cultural project, or for rental payments 7986
relating to the financing of the construction of the cultural 7987
project. Authorization to spend money, or an appropriation, for 7988
planning the cultural project does not constitute authorization to 7989
spend money on, or an appropriation for, construction of the 7990
cultural project.7991

       (E) No state funds, including any state bond proceeds, shall 7992
be spent on the construction of any state historical facility 7993
under this chapter unless the general assembly has specifically 7994
authorized the spending of money on, or made an appropriation for, 7995
the construction of the state historical project related to the 7996
facility, or for rental payments relating to the financing of the 7997
construction of the state historical project. Authorization to 7998
spend money, or an appropriation, for planning the state 7999
historical project does not constitute authorization to spend 8000
money on, or an appropriation for, the construction of the state 8001
historical project.8002

       (F)for which the general assembly has made an appropriation 8003
or specifically authorized the spending of money or the making of 8004
rental payments relating to the financing of the construction, the 8005
cultural organization shall submit to the Ohio facilities 8006
construction commission a cooperative agreement that includes, but 8007
is not limited to, provisions that:8008

       (1) Specify how the proposed project will support culture, as 8009
defined in section 123.28 of the Revised Code;8010

       (2) Specify that the funds shall be used only for 8011
construction, as defined in section 123.28 of the Revised Code;8012

       (3) Identify the facility to be constructed, renovated, 8013
remodeled, or improved;8014

       (4) Specify that the project scope meets the intent and 8015
purpose of the project appropriation and that the project can be 8016
completed and ready for full occupancy without exceeding 8017
appropriated funds;8018

       (5) Specify that the cultural organization shall hold the 8019
Ohio facilities construction commission harmless from all 8020
liability for the operation and maintenance costs of the facility;8021

       (6) Specify that the agreement or any actions taken under it 8022
are not subject to Chapters 123., 153., or 4115. of the Revised 8023
Code; and8024

       (7) Provide that amendments to the agreement shall require 8025
the approval of the Ohio facilities construction commission.8026

       (D) State funds shall not be used to pay or reimburse more 8027
than fifteen per cent of the initial estimated construction cost 8028
of an Ohio sports facility, excluding any site acquisition cost, 8029
and no state funds, including any state bond proceeds, shall be 8030
spent on any Ohio sports facility under this chapter unless, with 8031
respect to that facility, all of the following apply:8032

       (1) The Ohio cultural facilities construction commission has 8033
determined that there is a need for the facility in the region of 8034
the state for which the facility is proposed to provide the 8035
function of an Ohio sports facility as provided for in this 8036
chapter. For a facility receiving a state appropriation of fifty 8037
thousand dollars or less, the Ohio cultural facilities commission 8038
may delegate to its executive director the authority to determine 8039
need but only in the affirmative.8040

       (2) As an indication of substantial local support for the 8041
facility, the Ohio cultural facilities commission has received a 8042
financial and development plan satisfactory to it, and provision 8043
has been made, by agreement or otherwise, satisfactory to the Ohio 8044
cultural facilities commission, for a contribution amounting to 8045
not less than eighty-five per cent of the total estimated 8046
construction cost of the facility, excluding any site acquisition 8047
cost, from sources other than the state. For a facility receiving 8048
a state appropriation of fifty thousand dollars or less, the Ohio 8049
cultural facilities commission may delegate to its executive 8050
director the authority to evaluate the financial and development 8051
plan and the contribution and to determine their adequacy but only 8052
in the affirmative.8053

       (3)(2) The general assembly has specifically authorized the 8054
spending of money on, or made an appropriation for, the 8055
construction of the facility, or for rental payments relating to 8056
state financing of all or a portion of the costs of constructing 8057
the facility. Authorization to spend money, or an appropriation, 8058
for planning or determining the feasibility of or need for the 8059
facility does not constitute authorization to spend money on, or 8060
an appropriation for, costs of constructing the facility.8061

       (4)(3) If state bond proceeds are being used for the Ohio 8062
sports facility, the state or a governmental agency owns or has 8063
sufficient property interests in the facility or in the site of 8064
the facility or in the portion or portions of the facility 8065
financed from proceeds of state bonds, which may include, but is 8066
not limited to, the right to use or to require the use of the 8067
facility for the presentation of sport and athletic events to the 8068
public at the facility.8069

       (G)(E) In addition to the requirements of division (F)(D) of 8070
this section, no state funds, including any state bond proceeds, 8071
shall be spent on any Ohio sports facility that is a motorsports 8072
complex, unless, with respect to that facility, both of the 8073
following apply:8074

       (1) Motorsports events shall be presented at the facility 8075
pursuant to a lease entered into with the owner of the facility. 8076
The term of the lease shall be for a period of not less than the 8077
greater of the useful life of the portion of the facility financed 8078
from proceeds of state bonds as determined using the guidelines 8079
for maximum maturities as provided under divisions (B) and (C) of 8080
section 133.20 of the Revised Code, or the period of time 8081
remaining to the date of payment or provision for payment of 8082
outstanding state bonds allocable to costs of the facility, all as 8083
determined by the director of budget and management and certified 8084
by the executive director toof the Ohio cultural facilities 8085
construction commission and to the treasurer of state. 8086

       (2) Any motorsports organization that commits to using the 8087
facility for an established period of time shall give the 8088
political subdivision in which the facility is located not less 8089
than six months' advance notice if the organization intends to 8090
cease utilizing the facility prior to the expiration of that 8091
established period. Such a motorsports organization shall be 8092
liable to the state for any state funds used on the construction 8093
costs of the facility.8094

       (H)(F) In addition to the requirements of division (F)(D) of 8095
this section, no state bond proceeds shall be spent on any Ohio 8096
sports facility that is a tennis facility, unless the owner or 8097
manager of the facility provides contractual commitments from a 8098
national or international professional tennis organization in a 8099
form acceptable to the culturalOhio facilities construction8100
commission that assures that one or more sanctioned professional 8101
tennis events will be presented at the facility during each year 8102
that the bonds remain outstanding.8103

       Sec. 124.11.  The civil service of the state and the several 8104
counties, cities, civil service townships, city health districts, 8105
general health districts, and city school districts of the state 8106
shall be divided into the unclassified service and the classified 8107
service.8108

       (A) The unclassified service shall comprise the following 8109
positions, which shall not be included in the classified service, 8110
and which shall be exempt from all examinations required by this 8111
chapter:8112

       (1) All officers elected by popular vote or persons appointed 8113
to fill vacancies in those offices;8114

       (2) All election officers as defined in section 3501.01 of 8115
the Revised Code;8116

       (3)(a) The members of all boards and commissions, and heads 8117
of principal departments, boards, and commissions appointed by the 8118
governor or by and with the governor's consent; 8119

       (b) The heads of all departments appointed by a board of 8120
county commissioners;8121

       (c) The members of all boards and commissions and all heads 8122
of departments appointed by the mayor, or, if there is no mayor, 8123
such other similar chief appointing authority of any city or city 8124
school district;8125

       Except as otherwise provided in division (A)(17) or (C) of 8126
this section, this chapter does not exempt the chiefs of police 8127
departments and chiefs of fire departments of cities or civil 8128
service townships from the competitive classified service.8129

       (4) The members of county or district licensing boards or 8130
commissions and boards of revision, and not more than five deputy 8131
county auditors;8132

       (5) All officers and employees elected or appointed by either 8133
or both branches of the general assembly, and employees of the 8134
city legislative authority engaged in legislative duties;8135

       (6) All commissioned, warrant, and noncommissioned officers 8136
and enlisted persons in the Ohio organized militia, including 8137
military appointees in the adjutant general's department;8138

       (7)(a) All presidents, business managers, administrative 8139
officers, superintendents, assistant superintendents, principals, 8140
deans, assistant deans, instructors, teachers, and such employees 8141
as are engaged in educational or research duties connected with 8142
the public school system, colleges, and universities, as 8143
determined by the governing body of the public school system, 8144
colleges, and universities;8145

       (b) The library staff of any library in the state supported 8146
wholly or in part at public expense.8147

       (8) Four clerical and administrative support employees for 8148
each of the elective state officers, four clerical and 8149
administrative support employees for each board of county 8150
commissioners and one such employee for each county commissioner, 8151
and four clerical and administrative support employees for other 8152
elective officers and each of the principal appointive executive 8153
officers, boards, or commissions, except for civil service 8154
commissions, that are authorized to appoint such clerical and 8155
administrative support employees;8156

       (9) The deputies and assistants of state agencies authorized 8157
to act for and on behalf of the agency, or holding a fiduciary or 8158
administrative relation to that agency and those persons employed 8159
by and directly responsible to elected county officials or a 8160
county administrator and holding a fiduciary or administrative 8161
relationship to such elected county officials or county 8162
administrator, and the employees of such county officials whose 8163
fitness would be impracticable to determine by competitive 8164
examination, provided that division (A)(9) of this section shall 8165
not affect those persons in county employment in the classified 8166
service as of September 19, 1961. Nothing in division (A)(9) of 8167
this section applies to any position in a county department of job 8168
and family services created pursuant to Chapter 329. of the 8169
Revised Code.8170

       (10) Bailiffs, constables, official stenographers, and 8171
commissioners of courts of record, deputies of clerks of the 8172
courts of common pleas who supervise or who handle public moneys 8173
or secured documents, and such officers and employees of courts of 8174
record and such deputies of clerks of the courts of common pleas 8175
as the appointing authority finds it impracticable to determine 8176
their fitness by competitive examination;8177

       (11) Assistants to the attorney general, special counsel 8178
appointed or employed by the attorney general, assistants to 8179
county prosecuting attorneys, and assistants to city directors of 8180
law;8181

       (12) Such teachers and employees in the agricultural 8182
experiment stations; such students in normal schools, colleges, 8183
and universities of the state who are employed by the state or a 8184
political subdivision of the state in student or intern 8185
classifications; and such unskilled labor positions as the 8186
director of administrative services, with respect to positions in 8187
the service of the state, or any municipal civil service 8188
commission may find it impracticable to include in the competitive 8189
classified service; provided such exemptions shall be by order of 8190
the commission or the director, duly entered on the record of the 8191
commission or the director with the reasons for each such 8192
exemption;8193

       (13) Any physician or dentist who is a full-time employee of 8194
the department of mental healthmental health and addiction 8195
services, the department of developmental disabilities, or an 8196
institution under the jurisdiction of either department; and 8197
physicians who are in residency programs at the institutions;8198

       (14) Up to twenty positions at each institution under the 8199
jurisdiction of the department of mental healthmental health and 8200
addiction services or the department of developmental disabilities 8201
that the department director determines to be primarily 8202
administrative or managerial; and up to fifteen positions in any 8203
division of either department, excluding administrative assistants 8204
to the director and division chiefs, which are within the 8205
immediate staff of a division chief and which the director 8206
determines to be primarily and distinctively administrative and 8207
managerial;8208

       (15) Noncitizens of the United States employed by the state, 8209
or its counties or cities, as physicians or nurses who are duly 8210
licensed to practice their respective professions under the laws 8211
of this state, or medical assistants, in mental or chronic disease 8212
hospitals, or institutions;8213

       (16) Employees of the governor's office;8214

       (17) Fire chiefs and chiefs of police in civil service 8215
townships appointed by boards of township trustees under section 8216
505.38 or 505.49 of the Revised Code;8217

       (18) Executive directors, deputy directors, and program 8218
directors employed by boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and 8219
mental health services under Chapter 340. of the Revised Code, and 8220
secretaries of the executive directors, deputy directors, and 8221
program directors;8222

       (19) Superintendents, and management employees as defined in 8223
section 5126.20 of the Revised Code, of county boards of 8224
developmental disabilities;8225

       (20) Physicians, nurses, and other employees of a county 8226
hospital who are appointed pursuant to sections 339.03 and 339.06 8227
of the Revised Code;8228

       (21) The executive director of the state medical board, who 8229
is appointed pursuant to division (B) of section 4731.05 of the 8230
Revised Code;8231

       (22) County directors of job and family services as provided 8232
in section 329.02 of the Revised Code and administrators appointed 8233
under section 329.021 of the Revised Code;8234

       (23) A director of economic development who is hired pursuant 8235
to division (A) of section 307.07 of the Revised Code;8236

       (24) Chiefs of construction and compliance, of operations and 8237
maintenance, of worker protection, and of licensing and 8238
certification in the division of industrial compliance in the 8239
department of commerce;8240

       (25) The executive director of a county transit system 8241
appointed under division (A) of section 306.04 of the Revised 8242
Code;8243

       (26) Up to five positions at each of the administrative 8244
departments listed in section 121.02 of the Revised Code and at 8245
the department of taxation, department of the adjutant general, 8246
department of education, Ohio board of regents, bureau of workers' 8247
compensation, industrial commission, state lottery commission, and 8248
public utilities commission of Ohio that the head of that 8249
administrative department or of that other state agency determines 8250
to be involved in policy development and implementation. The head 8251
of the administrative department or other state agency shall set 8252
the compensation for employees in these positions at a rate that 8253
is not less than the minimum compensation specified in pay range 8254
41 but not more than the maximum compensation specified in pay 8255
range 4447 of salary schedule E-2 in section 124.152 of the 8256
Revised Code. The authority to establish positions in the 8257
unclassified service under division (A)(26) of this section is in 8258
addition to and does not limit any other authority that an 8259
administrative department or state agency has under the Revised 8260
Code to establish positions, appoint employees, or set 8261
compensation.8262

       (27) Employees of the department of agriculture employed 8263
under section 901.09 of the Revised Code;8264

       (28) For cities, counties, civil service townships, city 8265
health districts, general health districts, and city school 8266
districts, the deputies and assistants of elective or principal 8267
executive officers authorized to act for and in the place of their 8268
principals or holding a fiduciary relation to their principals;8269

       (29) Employees who receive intermittent or temporary 8270
appointments under division (B) of section 124.30 of the Revised 8271
Code;8272

       (30) Employees appointed to administrative staff positions 8273
for which an appointing authority is given specific statutory 8274
authority to set compensation;8275

       (31) Employees appointed to highway patrol cadet or highway 8276
patrol cadet candidate classifications;8277

       (32) Employees placed in the unclassified service by another 8278
section of the Revised Code.8279

       (B) The classified service shall comprise all persons in the 8280
employ of the state and the several counties, cities, city health 8281
districts, general health districts, and city school districts of 8282
the state, not specifically included in the unclassified service. 8283
Upon the creation by the board of trustees of a civil service 8284
township civil service commission, the classified service shall 8285
also comprise, except as otherwise provided in division (A)(17) or 8286
(C) of this section, all persons in the employ of a civil service 8287
township police or fire department having ten or more full-time 8288
paid employees. The classified service consists of two classes, 8289
which shall be designated as the competitive class and the 8290
unskilled labor class.8291

       (1) The competitive class shall include all positions and 8292
employments in the state and the counties, cities, city health 8293
districts, general health districts, and city school districts of 8294
the state, and, upon the creation by the board of trustees of a 8295
civil service township of a township civil service commission, all 8296
positions in a civil service township police or fire department 8297
having ten or more full-time paid employees, for which it is 8298
practicable to determine the merit and fitness of applicants by 8299
competitive examinations. Appointments shall be made to, or 8300
employment shall be given in, all positions in the competitive 8301
class that are not filled by promotion, reinstatement, transfer, 8302
or reduction, as provided in this chapter, and the rules of the 8303
director of administrative services, by appointment from those 8304
certified to the appointing officer in accordance with this 8305
chapter.8306

       (2) The unskilled labor class shall include ordinary 8307
unskilled laborers. Vacancies in the labor class for positions in 8308
service of the state shall be filled by appointment from lists of 8309
applicants registered by the director or the director's designee. 8310
Vacancies in the labor class for all other positions shall be 8311
filled by appointment from lists of applicants registered by a 8312
commission. The director or the commission, as applicable, by 8313
rule, shall require an applicant for registration in the labor 8314
class to furnish evidence or take tests as the director or 8315
commission considers proper with respect to age, residence, 8316
physical condition, ability to labor, honesty, sobriety, industry, 8317
capacity, and experience in the work or employment for which 8318
application is made. Laborers who fulfill the requirements shall 8319
be placed on the eligible list for the kind of labor or employment 8320
sought, and preference shall be given in employment in accordance 8321
with the rating received from that evidence or in those tests. 8322
Upon the request of an appointing officer, stating the kind of 8323
labor needed, the pay and probable length of employment, and the 8324
number to be employed, the director or commission, as applicable, 8325
shall certify from the highest on the list double the number to be 8326
employed; from this number, the appointing officer shall appoint 8327
the number actually needed for the particular work. If more than 8328
one applicant receives the same rating, priority in time of 8329
application shall determine the order in which their names shall 8330
be certified for appointment.8331

       (C) A municipal or civil service township civil service 8332
commission may place volunteer firefighters who are paid on a 8333
fee-for-service basis in either the classified or the unclassified 8334
civil service.8335

       (D)(1) This division does not apply to persons in the 8336
unclassified service who have the right to resume positions in the 8337
classified service under sections 4121.121, 5119.0715119.18, 8338
5120.38, 5120.381, 5120.382, 5123.08, 5139.02, and 5501.19 of the 8339
Revised Code or to cities, counties, or political subdivisions of 8340
the state.8341

        (2) A person who holds a position in the classified service 8342
of the state and who is appointed to a position in the 8343
unclassified service shall retain the right to resume the position 8344
and status held by the person in the classified service 8345
immediately prior to the person's appointment to the position in 8346
the unclassified service, regardless of the number of positions 8347
the person held in the unclassified service. An employee's right 8348
to resume a position in the classified service may only be 8349
exercised when an appointing authority demotes the employee to a 8350
pay range lower than the employee's current pay range or revokes 8351
the employee's appointment to the unclassified service and:8352

        (a) That person held a certified position prior to July 1, 8353
2007, in the classified service within the appointing authority's 8354
agency; or8355

        (b) That person held a permanent position on or after July 1, 8356
2007, in the classified service within the appointing authority's 8357
agency.8358

        (3) An employee forfeits the right to resume a position in 8359
the classified service when:8360

       (a) The employee is removed from the position in the 8361
unclassified service due to incompetence, inefficiency, 8362
dishonesty, drunkenness, immoral conduct, insubordination, 8363
discourteous treatment of the public, neglect of duty, violation 8364
of this chapter or the rules of the director of administrative 8365
services, any other failure of good behavior, any other acts of 8366
misfeasance, malfeasance, or nonfeasance in office, or conviction 8367
of a felony; or8368

       (b) Upon transfer to a different agency.8369

       (4) Reinstatement to a position in the classified service 8370
shall be to a position substantially equal to that position in the 8371
classified service held previously, as certified by the director 8372
of administrative services. If the position the person previously 8373
held in the classified service has been placed in the unclassified 8374
service or is otherwise unavailable, the person shall be appointed 8375
to a position in the classified service within the appointing 8376
authority's agency that the director of administrative services 8377
certifies is comparable in compensation to the position the person 8378
previously held in the classified service. Service in the position 8379
in the unclassified service shall be counted as service in the 8380
position in the classified service held by the person immediately 8381
prior to the person's appointment to the position in the 8382
unclassified service. When a person is reinstated to a position in 8383
the classified service as provided in this division, the person is 8384
entitled to all rights, status, and benefits accruing to the 8385
position in the classified service during the person's time of 8386
service in the position in the unclassified service.8387

       Sec. 124.14.  (A)(1) The director of administrative services 8388
shall establish, and may modify or rescind, by rule, a job 8389
classification plan for all positions, offices, and employments 8390
the salaries of which are paid in whole or in part byin the 8391
service of the state. The director shall group jobs within a 8392
classification so that the positions are similar enough in duties 8393
and responsibilities to be described by the same title, to have 8394
the same pay assigned with equity, and to have the same 8395
qualifications for selection applied. The director shall, by rule, 8396
assign a classification title to each classification within the 8397
classification plan. However, the director shall consider in 8398
establishing classifications, including classifications with 8399
parenthetical titles, and assigning pay ranges such factors as 8400
duties performed only on one shift, special skills in short supply 8401
in the labor market, recruitment problems, separation rates, 8402
comparative salary rates, the amount of training required, and 8403
other conditions affecting employment. The director shall describe 8404
the duties and responsibilities of the class, establish the 8405
qualifications for being employed in each position in the class, 8406
and file with the secretary of state a copy of specifications for 8407
all of the classifications. The director shall file new, 8408
additional, or revised specifications with the secretary of state 8409
before they are used. 8410

       The director shall, by rule, assign each classification, 8411
either on a statewide basis or in particular counties or state 8412
institutions, to a pay range established under section 124.15 or 8413
section 124.152 of the Revised Code. The director may assign a 8414
classification to a pay range on a temporary basis for a period of 8415
six months. The director may establish, by rule adopted under 8416
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, experimental classification 8417
plans for some or all employees paid directly by warrant of the 8418
director of budget and management. The rule shall include 8419
specifications for each classification within the plan and shall 8420
specifically address compensation ranges, and methods for 8421
advancing within the ranges, for the classifications, which may be 8422
assigned to pay ranges other than the pay ranges established under 8423
section 124.15 or 124.152 of the Revised Code.8424

       (2) The director of administrative services may reassign to a 8425
proper classification those positions that have been assigned to 8426
an improper classification. If the compensation of an employee in 8427
such a reassigned position exceeds the maximum rate of pay for the 8428
employee's new classification, the employee shall be placed in pay 8429
step X and shall not receive an increase in compensation until the 8430
maximum rate of pay for that classification exceeds the employee's 8431
compensation.8432

       (3) The director may reassign an exempt employee, as defined 8433
in section 124.152 of the Revised Code, to a bargaining unit 8434
classification if the director determines that the bargaining unit 8435
classification is the proper classification for that employee. 8436
Notwithstanding Chapter 4117. of the Revised Code or instruments 8437
and contracts negotiated under it, these placements are at the 8438
director's discretion.8439

       (4) The director shall, by rule, assign related 8440
classifications, which form a career progression, to a 8441
classification series. The director shall, by rule, assign each 8442
classification in the classification plan a five-digit number, the 8443
first four digits of which shall denote the classification series 8444
to which the classification is assigned. When a career progression 8445
encompasses more than ten classifications, the director shall, by 8446
rule, identify the additional classifications belonging to a 8447
classification series. The additional classifications shall be 8448
part of the classification series, notwithstanding the fact that 8449
the first four digits of the number assigned to the additional 8450
classifications do not correspond to the first four digits of the 8451
numbers assigned to other classifications in the classification 8452
series.8453

       (B) Division (A) of this section and sections 124.15 and 8454
124.152 of the Revised Code do not apply to the following persons, 8455
positions, offices, and employments:8456

       (1) Elected officials;8457

       (2) Legislative employees, employees of the legislative 8458
service commission, employees in the office of the governor, 8459
employees who are in the unclassified civil service and exempt 8460
from collective bargaining coverage in the office of the secretary 8461
of state, auditor of state, treasurer of state, and attorney 8462
general, and employees of the supreme court;8463

       (3) Any position for which the authority to determine 8464
compensation is given by law to another individual or entity;8465

       (4) Employees of the bureau of workers' compensation whose 8466
compensation the administrator of workers' compensation 8467
establishes under division (B) of section 4121.121 of the Revised 8468
Code.8469

       (C) The director may employ a consulting agency to aid and 8470
assist the director in carrying out this section.8471

       (D)(1) When the director proposes to modify a classification 8472
or the assignment of classes to appropriate pay ranges, the 8473
director shall send written notice of the proposed rule to the 8474
appointing authorities of the affected employees thirty days 8475
before a hearing on the proposed rule. The appointing authorities 8476
shall notify the affected employees regarding the proposed rule. 8477
The director also shall send those appointing authorities notice 8478
of any final rule that is adopted within ten days after adoption.8479

       (2) When the director proposes to reclassify any employee in 8480
the service of the state so that the employee is adversely 8481
affected, the director shall give to the employee affected and to 8482
the employee's appointing authority a written notice setting forth 8483
the proposed new classification, pay range, and salary. Upon the 8484
request of any classified employee in the service of the state who 8485
is not serving in a probationary period, the director shall 8486
perform a job audit to review the classification of the employee's 8487
position to determine whether the position is properly classified. 8488
The director shall give to the employee affected and to the 8489
employee's appointing authority a written notice of the director's 8490
determination whether or not to reclassify the position or to 8491
reassign the employee to another classification. An employee or 8492
appointing authority desiring a hearing shall file a written 8493
request for the hearing with the state personnel board of review 8494
within thirty days after receiving the notice. The board shall set 8495
the matter for a hearing and notify the employee and appointing 8496
authority of the time and place of the hearing. The employee, the 8497
appointing authority, or any authorized representative of the 8498
employee who wishes to submit facts for the consideration of the 8499
board shall be afforded reasonable opportunity to do so. After the 8500
hearing, the board shall consider anew the reclassification and 8501
may order the reclassification of the employee and require the 8502
director to assign the employee to such appropriate classification 8503
as the facts and evidence warrant. As provided in division (A)(1) 8504
of section 124.03 of the Revised Code, the board may determine the 8505
most appropriate classification for the position of any employee 8506
coming before the board, with or without a job audit. The board 8507
shall disallow any reclassification or reassignment classification 8508
of any employee when it finds that changes have been made in the 8509
duties and responsibilities of any particular employee for 8510
political, religious, or other unjust reasons.8511

       (E)(1) Employees of each county department of job and family 8512
services shall be paid a salary or wage established by the board 8513
of county commissioners. The provisions of section 124.18 of the 8514
Revised Code concerning the standard work week apply to employees 8515
of county departments of job and family services. A board of 8516
county commissioners may do either of the following:8517

       (a) Notwithstanding any other section of the Revised Code, 8518
supplement the sick leave, vacation leave, personal leave, and 8519
other benefits of any employee of the county department of job and 8520
family services of that county, if the employee is eligible for 8521
the supplement under a written policy providing for the 8522
supplement;8523

       (b) Notwithstanding any other section of the Revised Code, 8524
establish alternative schedules of sick leave, vacation leave, 8525
personal leave, or other benefits for employees not inconsistent 8526
with the provisions of a collective bargaining agreement covering 8527
the affected employees.8528

       (2) Division (E)(1) of this section does not apply to 8529
employees for whom the state employment relations board 8530
establishes appropriate bargaining units pursuant to section 8531
4117.06 of the Revised Code, except in either of the following 8532
situations:8533

       (a) The employees for whom the state employment relations 8534
board establishes appropriate bargaining units elect no 8535
representative in a board-conducted representation election.8536

       (b) After the state employment relations board establishes 8537
appropriate bargaining units for such employees, all employee 8538
organizations withdraw from a representation election.8539

       (F)(1) Notwithstanding any contrary provision of sections 8540
124.01 to 124.64 of the Revised Code, the board of trustees of 8541
each state university or college, as defined in section 3345.12 of 8542
the Revised Code, shall carry out all matters of governance 8543
involving the officers and employees of the university or college, 8544
including, but not limited to, the powers, duties, and functions 8545
of the department of administrative services and the director of 8546
administrative services specified in this chapter. Officers and 8547
employees of a state university or college shall have the right of 8548
appeal to the state personnel board of review as provided in this 8549
chapter.8550

       (2) Each board of trustees shall adopt rules under section 8551
111.15 of the Revised Code to carry out the matters of governance 8552
described in division (F)(1) of this section. Until the board of 8553
trustees adopts those rules, a state university or college shall 8554
continue to operate pursuant to the applicable rules adopted by 8555
the director of administrative services under this chapter.8556

       (G)(1) Each board of county commissioners may, by a 8557
resolution adopted by a majority of its members, establish a 8558
county personnel department to exercise the powers, duties, and 8559
functions specified in division (G) of this section. As used in 8560
division (G) of this section, "county personnel department" means 8561
a county personnel department established by a board of county 8562
commissioners under division (G)(1) of this section.8563

       (2)(a) Each board of county commissioners, by a resolution 8564
adopted by a majority of its members, may designate the county 8565
personnel department of the county to exercise the powers, duties, 8566
and functions specified in sections 124.01 to 124.64 and Chapter 8567
325. of the Revised Code with regard to employees in the service 8568
of the county, except for the powers and duties of the state 8569
personnel board of review, which powers and duties shall not be 8570
construed as having been modified or diminished in any manner by 8571
division (G)(2) of this section, with respect to the employees for 8572
whom the board of county commissioners is the appointing authority 8573
or co-appointing authority. 8574

       (b) Nothing in division (G)(2) of this section shall be 8575
construed to limit the right of any employee who possesses the 8576
right of appeal to the state personnel board of review to continue 8577
to possess that right of appeal.8578

       (c) Any board of county commissioners that has established a 8579
county personnel department may contract with the department of 8580
administrative services, in accordance with division (H) of this 8581
section, another political subdivision, or an appropriate public 8582
or private entity to provide competitive testing services or other 8583
appropriate services.8584

       (3) After the county personnel department of a county has 8585
been established as described in division (G)(2) of this section, 8586
any elected official, board, agency, or other appointing authority 8587
of that county, upon written notification to the county personnel 8588
department, may elect to use the services and facilities of the 8589
county personnel department. Upon receipt of the notification by 8590
the county personnel department, the county personnel department 8591
shall exercise the powers, duties, and functions as described in 8592
division (G)(2) of this section with respect to the employees of 8593
that elected official, board, agency, or other appointing 8594
authority. 8595

       (4) Each board of county commissioners, by a resolution 8596
adopted by a majority of its members, may disband the county 8597
personnel department. 8598

       (5) Any elected official, board, agency, or appointing 8599
authority of a county may end its involvement with a county 8600
personnel department upon actual receipt by the department of a 8601
certified copy of the notification that contains the decision to 8602
no longer participate.8603

       (6) A county personnel department, in carrying out its 8604
duties, shall adhere to merit system principles with regard to 8605
employees of county departments of job and family services, child 8606
support enforcement agencies, and public child welfare agencies so 8607
that there is no threatened loss of federal funding for these 8608
agencies, and the county is financially liable to the state for 8609
any loss of federal funds due to the action or inaction of the 8610
county personnel department. 8611

       (H) County agencies may contract with the department of 8612
administrative services for any human resources services, 8613
including, but not limited to, establishment and modification of 8614
job classification plans, competitive testing services, and 8615
periodic audits and reviews of the county's uniform application of 8616
the powers, duties, and functions specified in sections 124.01 to 8617
124.64 and Chapter 325. of the Revised Code with regard to 8618
employees in the service of the county. Nothing in this division 8619
modifies the powers and duties of the state personnel board of 8620
review with respect to employees in the service of the county. 8621
Nothing in this division limits the right of any employee who 8622
possesses the right of appeal to the state personnel board of 8623
review to continue to possess that right of appeal.8624

       (I) The director of administrative services shall establish 8625
the rate and method of compensation for all employees who are paid 8626
directly by warrant of the director of budget and management and 8627
who are serving in positions that the director of administrative 8628
services has determined impracticable to include in the state job 8629
classification plan. This division does not apply to elected 8630
officials, legislative employees, employees of the legislative 8631
service commission, employees who are in the unclassified civil 8632
service and exempt from collective bargaining coverage in the 8633
office of the secretary of state, auditor of state, treasurer of 8634
state, and attorney general, employees of the courts, employees of 8635
the bureau of workers' compensation whose compensation the 8636
administrator of workers' compensation establishes under division 8637
(B) of section 4121.121 of the Revised Code, or employees of an 8638
appointing authority authorized by law to fix the compensation of 8639
those employees.8640

       (J) The director of administrative services shall set the 8641
rate of compensation for all intermittent, seasonal, temporary, 8642
emergency, and casual employees in the service of the state who 8643
are not considered public employees under section 4117.01 of the 8644
Revised Code. Those employees are not entitled to receive employee 8645
benefits. This rate of compensation shall be equitable in terms of 8646
the rate of employees serving in the same or similar 8647
classifications. This division does not apply to elected 8648
officials, legislative employees, employees of the legislative 8649
service commission, employees who are in the unclassified civil 8650
service and exempt from collective bargaining coverage in the 8651
office of the secretary of state, auditor of state, treasurer of 8652
state, and attorney general, employees of the courts, employees of 8653
the bureau of workers' compensation whose compensation the 8654
administrator establishes under division (B) of section 4121.121 8655
of the Revised Code, or employees of an appointing authority 8656
authorized by law to fix the compensation of those employees.8657

       Sec. 124.18.  (A) Forty hours shall be the standard work week 8658
for all employees whose salary or wage is paid in whole or in part 8659
by the state or by any state-supported college or university. When 8660
any employee whose salary or wage is paid in whole or in part by 8661
the state or by any state-supported college or university is 8662
required by an authorized administrative authority to be in an 8663
active pay status more than forty hours in any calendar week, the 8664
employee shall be compensated for such time over forty hours, 8665
except as otherwise provided in this section, at one and one-half 8666
times the employee's regular rate of pay. The use of sick leave or 8667
any leave used in lieu of sick leave shall not be considered to be 8668
active pay status for the purposes of earning overtime or 8669
compensatory time by employees whose wages are paid directly by 8670
warrant of the director of budget and management. A flexible-hours 8671
employee is not entitled to compensation for overtime work unless 8672
the employee's authorized administrative authority required the 8673
employee to be in active pay status for more than forty hours in a 8674
calendar week, regardless of the number of hours the employee 8675
works on any day in the same calendar week.8676

       Such compensation for overtime work shall be paid no later 8677
than at the conclusion of the next succeeding pay period.8678

       If the employee elects to take compensatory time off in lieu 8679
of overtime pay for any overtime worked, such compensatory time 8680
shall be granted by the employee's administrative superior, on a 8681
time and one-half basis, at a time mutually convenient to the 8682
employee and the administrative superior. Compensatory time is not 8683
available for use until it appears on the employee's earning 8684
statement and the compensation described in the earning statement 8685
is available to the employee.8686

       An employee may accrue compensatory time to a maximum of two 8687
hundred forty hours, except that public safety employees and other 8688
employees who meet the criteria established in the "Federal Fair 8689
Labor Standards Act of 1938," 52 Stat. 1060, 29 U.S.C.A. 207, 213, 8690
as amended, may accrue a maximum of four hundred eighty hours of 8691
compensatory time. An employee shall be paid at the employee's 8692
regular rate of pay for any hours of compensatory time accrued in 8693
excess of these maximum amounts if the employee has not used the 8694
compensatory time within three hundred sixty-five days after it is 8695
granted, if the employee transfers to another agency of the state, 8696
or if a change in the employee's status exempts the employee from 8697
the payment of overtime compensation. Upon the termination of 8698
employment, any employee with accrued but unused compensatory time 8699
shall be paid for that time at a rate that is the greater of the 8700
employee's final regular rate of pay or the employee's average 8701
regular rate of pay during the employee's last three years of 8702
employment with the state.8703

       No overtime, as described in this section, can be paid unless 8704
it has been authorized by the authorized administrative authority. 8705
Employees may be exempted from the payment of compensation as 8706
required by this section only under the criteria for exemption 8707
from the payment of overtime compensation established in the 8708
"Federal Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938," 52 Stat. 1060, 29 8709
U.S.C.A. 207, 213, as amended. With the approval of the director 8710
of administrative services, the appointing authority may establish 8711
a policy to grant compensatory time or to pay compensation to 8712
state employees in the service of the state who are exempt from 8713
overtime compensation. With the approval of the board of county 8714
commissioners, a county human services department may establish a 8715
policy to grant compensatory time or to pay compensation to 8716
employees of the department who are exempt from overtime 8717
compensation.8718

       (B)(1) An employee, whose salary or wage is paid in whole or 8719
in part by the state, shall be paid for the holidays declared in 8720
section 124.19 of the Revised Code and shall not be required to 8721
work on those holidays, unless, in the opinion of the employee's 8722
responsible administrative authority, failure to work on those 8723
holidays would impair the public service. 8724

       (2) An employee paid directly by warrant of the director of 8725
budget and management who is scheduled to work on the first day of 8726
January, the commemoration of memorial day, the fourth day of 8727
July, the fourth Thursday in November, or the twenty-fifth day of 8728
December and who does not report to work the day before, the day 8729
of, or the day after the holiday due to an illness of the employee 8730
or of a member of the employee's immediate family shall not 8731
receive holiday pay as provided by this division, unless the 8732
employee can provide documentation of extenuating circumstances 8733
that prohibited the employee from so reporting to work. If the 8734
employee works a shift between the employee's scheduled shift and 8735
the holiday, the employee shall be paid for the holiday.8736

       (3) An employee also shall not be paid for a holiday unless 8737
the employee was in active pay status on the scheduled work day 8738
immediately preceding the holiday, except that an employee need 8739
not be in active pay status on that work day in order to be paid 8740
for the holiday if the employee is participating in a mandatory or 8741
voluntary cost savings day under section 124.392 of the Revised 8742
Code. 8743

       (4) If any of the holidays declared in section 124.19 of the 8744
Revised Code falls on Saturday, the Friday immediately preceding 8745
shall be observed as the holiday. If any of the holidays declared 8746
in section 124.19 of the Revised Code falls on Sunday, the Monday 8747
immediately succeeding shall be observed as the holiday. Employees 8748
whose work schedules are based on the requirements of a 8749
seven-days-a-week work operation shall observe holidays on the 8750
actual days specified in section 124.19 of the Revised Code.8751

       (5) If an employee's work schedule is other than Monday 8752
through Friday, the employee shall be entitled to eight hours of 8753
holiday pay for holidays observed on the employee's day off 8754
regardless of the day of the week on which they are observed. 8755

       (6) A full-time permanent employee is entitled to a minimum 8756
of eight hours of pay for each holiday regardless of the 8757
employee's work shift and work schedule. A flexible-hours 8758
employee, who is normally scheduled to work in excess of eight 8759
hours on a day on which a holiday falls, either shall be required 8760
to work an alternate schedule for that week or shall receive 8761
additional holiday pay for the hours the employee is normally 8762
scheduled to work. Such an alternate schedule may require a 8763
flexible-hours employee to work five shifts consisting of eight 8764
hours each during the week including the holiday, and, in that 8765
case, the employee shall receive eight hours of holiday pay for 8766
the day the holiday is observed. 8767

        (7) Except as provided under section 124.392 of the Revised 8768
Code, part-time permanent employees shall receive four hours of 8769
holiday pay regardless of the employee's work shift and work 8770
schedule. 8771

       (8) When an employee who is eligible for overtime pay under 8772
this section is required by the employee's responsible 8773
administrative authority to work on the day observed as a holiday, 8774
the employee shall be entitled to pay for such time worked at one 8775
and one-half times the employee's regular rate of pay in addition 8776
to the employee's regular pay, or to be granted compensatory time 8777
off at time and one-half thereafter, at the employee's option. 8778
Payment at such rate shall be excluded in the calculation of hours 8779
in active pay status.8780

       (C) Each appointing authority may designate the number of 8781
employees in an agency who are flexible-hours employees. The 8782
appointing authority may establish for each flexible-hours 8783
employee a specified minimum number of hours to be worked each day 8784
that is consistent with the "Federal Fair Labor Standards Act of 8785
1938," 52 Stat. 1060, 29 U.S.C.A. 207, 213, as amended.8786

       (D) This section shall be uniformly administered for 8787
employees as defined in section 124.01 of the Revised Code and by 8788
the personnel departments of state-supported colleges and 8789
universities for employees of state-supported colleges and 8790
universities. If employees are not paid directly by warrant of the 8791
director of budget and management, the political subdivision shall 8792
determine whether the use of sick leave shall be considered to be 8793
active pay status for purposes of those employees earning overtime 8794
or compensatory time.8795

       (E) Policies relating to the payment of overtime pay or the 8796
granting of compensatory time off shall be adopted by the chief 8797
administrative officer of the house of representatives for 8798
employees of the house of representatives, by the clerk of the 8799
senate for employees of the senate, and by the director of the 8800
legislative service commission for all other legislative 8801
employees.8802

       (F) As used in this section, "regular rate of pay" means the 8803
base rate of pay an employee receives plus any pay supplements 8804
received pursuant to section 124.181 of the Revised Code.8805

       Sec. 124.30.  (A) Classified positions in the civil service 8806
may be filled without competition as follows:8807

       (1) Whenever there are urgent reasons for filling a vacancy 8808
in any position in the classified civil service and the director 8809
of administrative services is unable to certify to the appointing 8810
authority, upon its request, a list of persons eligible for 8811
appointment to the position after a competitive examination, the 8812
appointing authority may fill the position by noncompetitive 8813
examination.8814

        A temporary appointment may be made without regard to the 8815
rules of sections 124.01 to 124.64 of the Revised Code. Except as 8816
otherwise provided in this division, the temporary appointment may 8817
not continue longer than one hundred twenty days, and in no case 8818
shall successive temporary appointments be made. A temporary 8819
appointment longer than one hundred twenty days may be made if 8820
necessary by reason of sickness, disability, or other approved 8821
leave of absence of regular officers or employees, in which case 8822
it may continue during the period of sickness, disability, or 8823
other approved leave of absence, subject to the rules of the 8824
director.8825

       (2) In case of a vacancy in a position in the classified 8826
civil service where peculiar and exceptional qualifications of a 8827
scientific, managerial, professional, or educational character are 8828
required, and upon satisfactory evidence that for specified 8829
reasons competition in this special case is impracticable and that 8830
the position can best be filled by a selection of some designated 8831
person of high and recognized attainments in those qualities, the 8832
director may suspend the provisions of sections 124.01 to 124.64 8833
of the Revised Code that require competition in this special case, 8834
but no suspension shall be general in its application. All such 8835
cases of suspension shall be reported in the annual report of the 8836
director with the reasons for each suspension. The director shall 8837
suspend the provisions when theeither of the following applies:8838

       (a) The director of job and family services provides the 8839
certification under section 5101.051 of the Revised Code that a 8840
position with the department of job and family services can best 8841
be filled if the provisions are suspended;8842

       (b) The medicaid director provides the certification under 8843
section 5160.051 of the Revised Code that a position with the 8844
department of medicaid can best be filled if the provisions are 8845
suspended.8846

       (3) The acceptance or refusal by an eligible person of a 8847
temporary appointment shall not affect the person's standing on 8848
the eligible list for permanent appointment, nor shall the period 8849
of temporary service be counted as a part of the probationary 8850
service in case of subsequent appointment to a permanent position.8851

       (B) Persons who receive temporary or intermittent 8852
appointments are in the unclassified civil service and serve at 8853
the pleasure of their appointing authority.8854

       Sec. 124.341.  (A) If an employee in the classified or 8855
unclassified civil service becomes aware in the course of 8856
employment of a violation of state or federal statutes, rules, or 8857
regulations or the misuse of public resources, and the employee's 8858
supervisor or appointing authority has authority to correct the 8859
violation or misuse, the employee may file a written report 8860
identifying the violation or misuse with the supervisor or 8861
appointing authority. In addition to or instead of filing a 8862
written report with the supervisor or appointing authority, the 8863
employee may file a written report with the office of internal 8864
auditingaudit created under section 126.45 of the Revised Code or 8865
file a complaint with the auditor of state's fraud-reporting 8866
system under section 117.103 of the Revised Code.8867

       If the employee reasonably believes that a violation or 8868
misuse of public resources is a criminal offense, the employee, in 8869
addition to or instead of filing a written report or complaint 8870
with the supervisor, appointing authority, the office of internal 8871
auditingaudit, or the auditor of state's fraud-reporting system, 8872
may report it to a prosecuting attorney, director of law, village 8873
solicitor, or similar chief legal officer of a municipal 8874
corporation, to a peace officer, as defined in section 2935.01 of 8875
the Revised Code, or, if the violation or misuse of public 8876
resources is within the jurisdiction of the inspector general, to 8877
the inspector general in accordance with section 121.46 of the 8878
Revised Code. In addition to that report, if the employee 8879
reasonably believes the violation or misuse is also a violation of 8880
Chapter 102., section 2921.42, or section 2921.43 of the Revised 8881
Code, the employee may report it to the appropriate ethics 8882
commission.8883

       (B) Except as otherwise provided in division (C) of this 8884
section, no officer or employee in the classified or unclassified 8885
civil service shall take any disciplinary action against an 8886
employee in the classified or unclassified civil service for 8887
making any report or filing a complaint as authorized by division 8888
(A) of this section, including, without limitation, doing any of 8889
the following:8890

       (1) Removing or suspending the employee from employment;8891

       (2) Withholding from the employee salary increases or 8892
employee benefits to which the employee is otherwise entitled;8893

       (3) Transferring or reassigning the employee;8894

       (4) Denying the employee promotion that otherwise would have 8895
been received;8896

       (5) Reducing the employee in pay or position.8897

       (C) An employee in the classified or unclassified civil 8898
service shall make a reasonable effort to determine the accuracy 8899
of any information reported under division (A) of this section. 8900
The employee is subject to disciplinary action, including 8901
suspension or removal, as determined by the employee's appointing 8902
authority, for purposely, knowingly, or recklessly reporting false 8903
information under division (A) of this section.8904

       (D) If an appointing authority takes any disciplinary or 8905
retaliatory action against a classified or unclassified employee 8906
as a result of the employee's having filed a report or complaint 8907
under division (A) of this section, the employee's sole and 8908
exclusive remedy, notwithstanding any other provision of law, is 8909
to file an appeal with the state personnel board of review within 8910
thirty days after receiving actual notice of the appointing 8911
authority's action. If the employee files such an appeal, the 8912
board shall immediately notify the employee's appointing authority 8913
and shall hear the appeal. The board may affirm or disaffirm the 8914
action of the appointing authority or may issue any other order as 8915
is appropriate. The order of the board is appealable in accordance 8916
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.8917

       (E) As used in this section:8918

       (1) "Purposely," "knowingly," and "recklessly" have the same 8919
meanings as in section 2901.22 of the Revised Code.8920

       (2) "Appropriate ethics commission" has the same meaning as 8921
in section 102.01 of the Revised Code.8922

       (3) "Inspector general" means the inspector general appointed 8923
under section 121.48 of the Revised Code.8924

       Sec. 124.381.  (A)(1)(a) An employee in the service of the 8925
state may be eligible to receive salary continuation not to exceed 8926
four hundred eighty hours at the employee's total rate of pay for 8927
absence as a result of injury incurred during the performance of, 8928
or arising out of, state employment. When an eligible employee's 8929
absence as a result of such an injury extends beyond four hundred 8930
eighty hours, the employee immediately becomes subject to sections 8931
124.382 and 124.385 of the Revised Code regarding sick leave and 8932
disability leave benefits.8933

       An employee is ineligible to receive salary continuation 8934
until the date of implementation is established in the rules 8935
adopted under division (C)(1) of this section.8936

       (b) Employees of the secretary of state, auditor of state, 8937
treasurer of state, attorney general, supreme court, general 8938
assembly, or legislative service commission are not subject to 8939
division (A)(1)(a) of this section unless the relevant appointing 8940
authority notifies the director of administrative services in 8941
writing of the intent to have all of the appointing authority's 8942
employees participate in salary continuation. The relevant 8943
appointing authority also may discontinue salary continuation for 8944
all of its employees by providing written notice of the 8945
discontinuation to the director.8946

       Participation in salary continuation is subject to rules 8947
adopted under division (C)(1) of this section.8948

        (2) Each employee of the department of rehabilitation and 8949
correction, the department of mental healthmental health and 8950
addiction services, the department of developmental disabilities, 8951
the department of veterans services, or the Ohio schools for the 8952
deaf and blind, and each employee of the department of youth 8953
services as established in division (A) of section 124.14 of the 8954
Revised Code who sustains a qualifying physical condition 8955
inflicted by a ward of these agencies during the time the employee 8956
is lawfully carrying out the assigned duties of the employee's 8957
position shall be paid occupational injury leave at the employee's 8958
total rate of pay during the period the employee is disabled as a 8959
result of that qualifying physical condition, but in no case to 8960
exceed nine hundred sixty hours, in lieu of workers' compensation. 8961
Pay made according to this division shall not be charged to the 8962
employee's accumulation of sick leave credit. In any case when an 8963
employee's disability as a result of such a qualifying physical 8964
condition extends beyond nine hundred sixty hours, the employee 8965
immediately becomes subject to sections 124.382 and 124.385 of the 8966
Revised Code regarding sick leave and disability leave benefits.8967

        (B) An employee who is receiving salary continuation or 8968
occupational injury leave under division (A)(1) or (2) of this 8969
section is not eligible for other paid leave, including holiday 8970
pay, while receiving benefits under either division. While an 8971
employee is receiving salary continuation or occupational injury 8972
leave under division (A)(1) or (2) of this section, vacation leave 8973
credit ceases to accrue to the employee under section 124.134 of 8974
the Revised Code, but sick leave credit and personal leave credit 8975
continue to accrue to the employee under sections 124.382 and 8976
124.386 of the Revised Code.8977

       (C)(1) The director of administrative services shall adopt 8978
rules for the administration of both the salary continuation 8979
program and the occupational injury leave program. The rules shall 8980
include, but not be limited to, provisions for determining a 8981
disability, for filing a claim for leave under this section, and 8982
for allowing or denying claims for the leave.8983

       (2) The director also may adopt rules for the payment of 8984
health benefits while an employee is on workers' compensation 8985
leave.8986

       (D) An appointing authority may apply to the director of 8987
administrative services to grant salary continuation under 8988
division (A)(1) of this section or occupational injury leave under 8989
division (A)(2) of this section to law enforcement personnel 8990
employed by the agency.8991

       Sec. 124.57.  (A) No officer or employee in the classified 8992
service of the state, the several counties, cities, and city 8993
school districts of the state, or the civil service townships of 8994
the state shall directly or indirectly, orally or by letter, 8995
solicit or receive, or be in any manner concerned in soliciting or 8996
receiving, any assessment, subscription, or contribution for any 8997
political party or for any candidate for public office; nor shall 8998
any person solicit directly or indirectly, orally or by letter, or 8999
be in any manner concerned in soliciting, any such assessment, 9000
contribution, or payment from any officer or employee in the 9001
classified service of the state, the several counties, cities, or 9002
city school districts of the state, or the civil service townships 9003
of the state; nor shall any officer or employee in the classified 9004
service of the state, the several counties, cities, and city 9005
school districts of the state, or the civil service townships of 9006
the state be an officer in any political organization or take part 9007
in politics other than to vote as the officer or employee pleases 9008
and to express freely political opinions.9009

       (B)(1) Nothing in division (A) of this section prohibits an 9010
officer or employee described in that division from serving as a 9011
precinct election official under section 3501.22 of the Revised 9012
Code.9013

       (2) Nothing in division (A) of this section prohibits an 9014
employee of the Ohio cooperativeOSU extension service whose 9015
position is transferred from the unclassified civil service to the 9016
classified civil service and who also holds the office of 9017
president of a city legislative authority from completing the 9018
existing term of office as president.9019

       Sec. 125.05.  Except as provided in division (F) of this 9020
section, no state agency shall purchase any supplies or services 9021
except as provided in divisions (A) to (D) of this section.9022

       (A) Subject to division (E) of this section, a state agency 9023
may, without competitive selection, make any purchase of supplies 9024
or services that cost twenty-five thousand dollars or less. The 9025
agency may make the purchase directly or may make the purchase 9026
from or through the department of administrative services, 9027
whichever the agency determines. The agency shall adopt written 9028
procedures consistent with the department's purchasing procedures 9029
and shall use those procedures when making purchases under this 9030
division.9031

       (B) Subject to division (E) of this section and in accordance 9032
with section 125.051 of the Revised Code, a state agency may make 9033
purchases of supplies and services that cost more than twenty-five 9034
thousand dollars but less than fifty thousand dollars if the 9035
purchases are made under the direction of an employee of the 9036
agency who is certified by the department to make purchases and if 9037
the purchases comply with the department's purchasing procedures. 9038
Section 127.16 of the Revised Code does not apply to purchases 9039
made under this division. Until the certification effective date 9040
established by the department in rules adopted under section 9041
125.051 of the Revised Code, state agencies may make purchases of 9042
supplies and services that cost more than twenty-five thousand 9043
dollars but less than fifty thousand dollars in the same manner as 9044
provided in division (A) of this section.9045

       (C) Subject to division (E) of this section, a state agency 9046
wanting to purchase supplies or services that cost more than 9047
twenty-five thousand dollars shall, unless otherwise authorized by 9048
law, make the purchase from or through the department. The 9049
department shall make the purchase by competitive selection. If 9050
the director of administrative services determines that it is not 9051
possible or not advantageous to the state for the department to 9052
make the purchase, the department shall grant the agency a release 9053
and permit under section 125.06 of the Revised Code to make the 9054
purchase. Section 127.16 of the Revised Code does not apply to 9055
purchases the department makes under this section.9056

       (D) An agency that has been granted a release and permit to 9057
make a purchase may make the purchase without competitive 9058
selection if after making the purchase the cumulative purchase 9059
threshold as computed under division (E) of section 127.16 of the 9060
Revised Code would:9061

       (1) Be exceeded and the controlling board approves the 9062
purchase;9063

       (2) Not be exceeded and the department of administrative 9064
services approves the purchase.9065

       (E) Not later than the thirty-first day of January of each 9066
even-numbered year, the directors of administrative services and 9067
budget and management shall review and recommend to the general 9068
assembly, if necessary, adjustments to the amounts specified in 9069
divisions (A) to (C) of this section and division (B) of section 9070
127.16 of the Revised Code.9071

       (F) If the eTech Ohio commission, the department of 9072
education, or the Ohio education computer network determines that 9073
it can purchase software services or supplies for specified school 9074
districts at a price less than the price for which the districts 9075
could purchase the same software services or supplies for 9076
themselves, the commission, department, or network shall certify 9077
that fact to the department of administrative services and, acting 9078
as an agent for the specified school districts, shall make that 9079
purchase without following the provisions in divisions (A) to (D) 9080
of this section.9081

       Sec. 125.21.  The director of administrative services shall 9082
process payroll information for the purpose of payment for 9083
personal services of state officials and employees on the basis of 9084
rates of pay determined by pertinent law, the director, or other 9085
competent authority.9086

       Calculation of payrolls may be made after the conclusion of 9087
each pay period based upon the amount of time served as certified 9088
by the appropriate appointing authority. Payment for personal 9089
service rendered by an official or employee during any pay period 9090
shall be made no later than at the conclusion of the official's or 9091
employee's next succeeding pay period.9092

       The director of administrative services shall furnish to the 9093
director of budget and management all necessary data for drawing 9094
state official and employee pay warrants and preparing earning 9095
statements. These data shall include the rate at which paid; the 9096
time for which paid, including overtime and any other adjustments 9097
affecting the official's or employee's gross pay; all taxes 9098
withheld, including, whenever practicable, year-to-date figures on 9099
all taxes withheld; the amount of contribution to the appropriate 9100
retirement system; any voluntary deductions made in accordance 9101
with authorizations filed by the official or employee; and whether 9102
a direct deposit is to be made in accordance with an authorization 9103
filed by the official or employee.9104

       Amounts deducted from the salaries or wages of all officials 9105
and employees shall be transferred to the payroll withholding9106
deduction fund, which is hereby created in the state treasury for 9107
the purpose of consolidating all such deductions made in any 9108
month. Payments from this fund shall be made at intervals for the 9109
intended purpose of the deduction or for refund where it is 9110
determined that deductions were made in error.9111

       Sec. 125.212.  The life insurance investment fund is hereby 9112
created in the state treasury. The fund shall consist of amounts 9113
from the payroll withholding fund created by section 125.21 of 9114
the Revised Codestate agencies, life insurance premium refunds 9115
received by the state, and other receipts related to the state's 9116
life insurance benefit program. The fund shall be used to pay the 9117
costs of the state's life insurance benefit program. All 9118
investment earnings of the life insurance investment fund shall be 9119
credited to the fund.9120

       Sec. 125.27. (A) There is hereby created in the state 9121
treasury the building improvement fund. The fund shall retain the 9122
interest earned.9123

       (B) The fund shall consist of any payments made by intrastate 9124
transfer voucher from the appropriation item for office building 9125
operating payments.9126

       (C) The fund shall be used for major maintenance or 9127
improvements required in the James A. Rhodes or Frank J. Lausche 9128
state office tower, Toledo government center, Senator Oliver R. 9129
Ocasek government office building, and Vern Riffe center for 9130
government and the arts.9131

       Sec. 125.28. (A)(1) Each state agency that is supported in 9132
whole or in part by nongeneral revenue fund money and that 9133
occupies space in the James A. Rhodes or Frank J. Lausche state 9134
office tower, Toledo government center, Senator Oliver R. Ocasek 9135
government office building, Vern Riffe center for government and 9136
the arts, capitol square, or governor's mansion shall reimburse 9137
the general revenue fund for the cost of occupying the space in 9138
the ratio that the occupied space in each facility attributable to 9139
the nongeneral revenue fund money bears to the total space 9140
occupied by the state agency in the facility.9141

       (2) All agencies that occupy space in the old blind school 9142
or that occupy warehouse space in the general services facility 9143
shall reimburse the department of administrative services for the 9144
cost of occupying the space. The director of administrative 9145
services shall determine the amount of debt service, if any, to be 9146
charged to building tenants and shall collect reimbursements for 9147
it.9148

       (3) Each agency that is supported in whole or in part by 9149
nongeneral revenue fund money and that occupies space in any other 9150
facility or facilities owned and maintained by the department of 9151
administrative services or space in the general services facility 9152
other than warehouse space shall reimburse the department for the 9153
cost of occupying the space, including debt service, if any, in 9154
the ratio that the occupied space in each facility attributable to 9155
the nongeneral revenue fund money bears to the total space 9156
occupied by the state agency in the facility.9157

       (B) The director of administrative services may provide 9158
building maintenance services and skilled tradesminor 9159
construction project management services to any state agency 9160
occupying space in a facility that is not owned by the department 9161
of administrative services and may collect reimbursements for the 9162
cost of providing those services.9163

       (C) All money collected by the department of administrative 9164
services for operating expenses of facilities owned or maintained 9165
by the department shall be deposited into the state treasury to 9166
the credit of the building management fund, which is hereby 9167
created, or to the credit of the building operation fund, which is 9168
hereby created. All money collected by the department for skilled 9169
tradesminor construction project management services shall be 9170
deposited into the state treasury to the credit of the skilled 9171
tradesminor construction project management fund, which is hereby 9172
created. All money collected for debt service shall be deposited 9173
into the general revenue fund.9174

       (D) The director of administrative services shall determine 9175
the reimbursable cost of space in state-owned or state-leased 9176
facilities and shall collect reimbursements for that cost.9177

       Sec. 125.602. (A) The department of developmental 9178
disabilities, the department of mental healthmental health and 9179
addiction services, the department of job and family services, the 9180
rehabilitation services commission, and any other state or 9181
governmental agency or community rehabilitation program 9182
responsible for the provision of rehabilitation and vocational 9183
educational services to persons with work-limiting disabilities 9184
may, through written agreement, cooperate in providing resources 9185
to the department of administrative services for the operation of 9186
the office of procurement from community rehabilitation programs. 9187
These resources may include, but are not limited to, leadership 9188
and assistance in dealing with the societal aspects of meeting the 9189
needs of persons with work-limiting disabilities.9190

       (B) The office and all governmental entities that administer 9191
socioeconomic programs may enter into contractual agreements, 9192
cooperative working relationships, or other arrangements that are 9193
necessary for effective coordination and realization of the 9194
objectives of these entities.9195

       Sec. 125.603. (A) The office of procurement from community 9196
rehabilitation programs shall do the following in addition to 9197
other duties specified in sections 125.60 to 125.6012 of the 9198
Revised Code:9199

       (1) Establish, maintain, and periodically update a 9200
procurement list of approved supplies and services available from 9201
qualified nonprofit agencies;9202

       (2) Monitor the procurement practices of government ordering 9203
offices to ensure compliance with sections 125.60 to 125.6012 of 9204
the Revised Code;9205

       (3) In cooperation with qualified nonprofit agencies, 9206
government ordering offices, the department of developmental 9207
disabilities, the department of mental healthmental health and 9208
addiction services, the department of job and family services, and 9209
the rehabilitation services commission, develop and recommend to 9210
the director of administrative services rules the director shall 9211
adopt in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code for the 9212
effective and efficient administration of sections 125.60 to 9213
125.6012 of the Revised Code;9214

       (4) Prepare a report of its activities by the last day of 9215
December of each year. The report shall be posted electronically 9216
on the office's web site.9217

       (B) The office of procurement from community rehabilitation 9218
programs may enter into contractual agreements and establish pilot 9219
programs to further the objectives of sections 125.60 to 125.6012 9220
of the Revised Code.9221

       Sec. 125.832. (A) The department of administrative services 9222
is granted exclusive authority over the acquisition and management 9223
of all motor vehicles used by state agencies. In carrying out this 9224
authority, the department shall do both of the following:9225

       (1) Approve the purchase or lease of each motor vehicle for 9226
use by a state agency. The department shall decide if a motor 9227
vehicle shall be leased or purchased for that use.9228

       Except as otherwise provided in division (A)(1) of this 9229
section, on and after July 1, 2005, each state agency shall 9230
acquire all passenger motor vehicles under the department's master 9231
leasing program. If the department determines that acquisition 9232
under that program is not the most economical method and if the 9233
department and the state agency acquiring the passenger motor 9234
vehicle can provide economic justification for doing so, the 9235
department may approve the purchase, rather than the lease, of a 9236
passenger motor vehicle for the acquiring state agency.9237

       (2) Direct and approve all funds that are expended for the 9238
purchase, lease, repair, maintenance, registration, insuring, and 9239
other costs related to the possession and operation of motor 9240
vehicles for the use of state agencies.9241

       (B) The director of administrative services shall establish 9242
and operate a fleet management program. The director shall operate 9243
the program for purposes including, but not limited to, 9244
cost-effective acquisition, maintenance, management, analysis, and 9245
disposal of all motor vehicles owned or leased by the state. All 9246
state agencies shall comply with statewide fleet management 9247
policies and procedures established by the director for the 9248
program, including, but not limited to, motor vehicle assignments, 9249
additions of motor vehicles to fleets or motor vehicle 9250
replacements, motor vehicle fueling, and motor vehicle repairs.9251

       (C) The director shall establish and maintain a fleet 9252
reporting system and shall require state agencies to submit to the 9253
department information relative to state motor vehicles, including 9254
motor vehicles described in division (G)(2) of section 125.831 of 9255
the Revised Code, to be used in operating the fleet management 9256
program. State agencies shall provide to the department fleet data 9257
and other information, including, but not limited to, mileage and 9258
costs. The data and other information shall be submitted in 9259
formats and in a manner determined by the department.9260

       (D) All state agency purchases or leases of motor vehicles 9261
are subject to the prior approval of the director under division 9262
(A)(1) of this section.9263

       (E) State agencies that utilize state motor vehicles or pay 9264
mileage reimbursements to employees shall provide a fleet plan to 9265
the department as directed by the department.9266

       (F)(1) The fleets of state agencies that consist of one 9267
hundred or less vehicles on July 1, 2004, shall be managed by the 9268
department's fleet management program on a time schedule 9269
determined by the department, unless the state agency has received 9270
delegated authority as described in division (G) of this section.9271

       (2) The fleets of state agencies that consist of greater than 9272
one hundred motor vehicles, but less than five hundred motor 9273
vehicles, on July 1, 2005, also shall be managed by the 9274
department's fleet management program on a time schedule 9275
determined by the department, unless the state agency has received 9276
delegated authority as described in division (G) of this section.9277

       (G)(1) The department may delegate any or all of its duties 9278
regarding fleet management to a state agency, if the state agency 9279
demonstrates to the satisfaction of the department both of the 9280
following:9281

       (a) Capabilities to institute and manage a fleet management 9282
program, including, but not limited to, the presence of a 9283
certified fleet manager;9284

       (b) Fleet management performance, as demonstrated by fleet 9285
data and other information submitted pursuant to annual reporting 9286
requirements and any other criteria the department considers 9287
necessary in evaluating the performance.9288

       (2) The department may determine that a state agency is not 9289
in compliance with this section and direct that the agency's fleet 9290
management duties be transferred to the department.9291

       (H) The proceeds derived from the disposition of any motor 9292
vehicles under this section shall be paid to whichever of the 9293
following applies:9294

       (1) The fund that originally provided moneys for the purchase 9295
or lease of the motor vehicles;9296

       (2) If the motor vehicles were originally purchased with 9297
moneys derived from the general revenue fund, the proceeds shall 9298
be deposited, in the director's discretion, into the state 9299
treasury to the credit of either the fleet management fund created 9300
by section 125.83 of the Revised Code or the investment recovery 9301
fund created by section 125.14 of the Revised Code.9302

       (I)(1) The department shall create and maintain a certified 9303
fleet manager program.9304

       (2) State agencies that have received delegated authority as 9305
described in division (G) of this section shall have a certified 9306
fleet manager.9307

       (J) The department annually shall prepare and submit a 9308
statewide fleet report to the governor, the speaker of the house 9309
of representatives, and the president of the senate. The report 9310
shall be submitted not later than the thirty-first day of January 9311
following the end of each fiscal year. It may include, but is not 9312
limited to, the numbers and types of motor vehicles, their 9313
mileage, miles per gallon, and cost per mile, mileage 9314
reimbursements, accident and insurance data, and information 9315
regarding compliance by state agencies having delegated authority 9316
under division (G) of this section with applicable fleet 9317
management requirements.9318

       (K) The director shall adopt rules for implementing the fleet 9319
management program that are consistent with recognized best 9320
practices. The program shall be supported by reasonable fee 9321
charges for the services provided. The director shall collect 9322
these fees and deposit them into the state treasury to the credit 9323
for the fleet management fund created by section 125.83 of the 9324
Revised Code. The setting and collection of fees under this 9325
division is not subject to any restriction imposed by law upon the 9326
director's or the department's authority to set or collect fees.9327

       (L) The director also shall adopt rules that prohibit, except 9328
in very limited circumstances, the exclusive assignment of 9329
state-owned, leased, or pooled motor vehicles to state employees 9330
and that prohibit the reimbursement under section 126.31 of the 9331
Revised Code of state employees who use their own motor vehicles 9332
for any mileage they incur above an amount that the department 9333
shall determine annually unless reimbursement for the excess 9334
mileage is approved by the department in accordance with standards 9335
for that approval the director shall establish in those rules. 9336
Beginning on September 26, 2003, no state-owned, leased, or pooled 9337
motor vehicle shall be personally assigned as any form of 9338
compensation or benefit of state employment, and no state-owned, 9339
leased, or pooled motor vehicle shall be assigned to an employee 9340
solely for commuting to and from home and work.9341

       (M) The director shall do both of the following:9342

       (1) Implement to the greatest extent possible the 9343
recommendations from the 2002 report entitled "Administrative 9344
Analysis of the Ohio Fleet Management Program" in connection with 9345
the authority granted to the department by this section;9346

       (2) Attempt to reduce the number of passenger vehicles used 9347
by state agencies during the fiscal years ending on June 30, 2004, 9348
and June 30, 2005.9349

       (N) Each state agency shall reimburse the department for all 9350
costs incurred in the assignment of motor vehicles to the state 9351
agency.9352

       (O) The director shall do all of the following in managing 9353
the fleet management program:9354

       (1) Determine how motor vehicles will be maintained, insured, 9355
operated, financed, and licensed;9356

       (2) Pursuant to the formula in division (O)(3) of this 9357
section, annually establish the minimum number of business miles 9358
per year an employee of a state agency must drive in order to 9359
qualify for approval by the department to receive a motor vehicle 9360
for business use;9361

       (3) Establish the minimum number of business miles per year 9362
at an amount that results when the annual motor vehicle cost is 9363
divided by the amount that is the reimbursement rate per mile 9364
minus the amount that is the sum of the fuel cost, the operating 9365
cost, and the insurance cost. As used in this division:9366

       (a) "Annual motor vehicle cost" means the price of a motor 9367
vehicle divided by the number of years an average motor vehicle is 9368
used.9369

       (b) "Fuel cost" means the average price per gallon of motor 9370
fuel divided by the miles per gallon fuel efficiency of a motor 9371
vehicle.9372

       (c) "Insurance cost" means the cost of insuring a motor 9373
vehicle per year divided by the number of miles an average motor 9374
vehicle is driven per year.9375

       (d) "Operating cost" means the maintenance cost of a motor 9376
vehicle per year divided by the product resulting when the number 9377
of miles an average motor vehicle is driven per year is multiplied 9378
by the number of years an average motor vehicle is used.9379

       (e) "Reimbursement rate per mile" means the reimbursement per 9380
mile rate for travel expenses as provided by rule of the director 9381
of budget and management adopted under division (B) of section 9382
126.31 of the Revised Code.9383

       (P)(1) Not later than the fifteenth day of September of each 9384
year, each state institution of higher education shall report to 9385
the department on all of the following topics relating to motor 9386
vehicles that the institution acquires and manages:9387

       (a) The methods it uses to track the motor vehicles;9388

       (b) Whether or not it uses a fuel card program to purchase 9389
fuel for, or to pay for the maintenance of, the motor vehicles;9390

       (c) Whether or not it makes bulk purchases of fuel for the 9391
motor vehicles.9392

       (2) Assuming it does not use the fleet management tracking, 9393
fuel card program, and bulk fuel purchases tools and services that 9394
the department provides, the report of a state institution of 9395
higher education required by division (P)(1) of this section also 9396
shall include both of the following:9397

       (a) An analysis of the amount the institution would save, if 9398
any, if it were to use the fleet management tracking, fuel card 9399
program, and bulk fuel purchases tools and services that the 9400
department provides instead of the fleet management system the 9401
institution regularly uses;9402

       (b) A rationale for either continuing with the fleet 9403
management system that the institution regularly uses or changing 9404
to the use of those tools and services that the department 9405
provides.9406

       (3) The department shall certify within ninety days after 9407
receipt of all reports under division (P)(1) of this section a 9408
list of those state institutions of higher education that the 9409
department determines would save amounts if they were to use the 9410
fleet management tracking, fuel card program, and bulk fuel 9411
purchases tools and services that the department provides. The 9412
institutions so certified then shall use those tools and services 9413
that the department provides until the department next certifies 9414
institutions under division (P)(3) of this section.9415

       Sec. 125.836.  (A) As used in this section:9416

       (1) "Biodiesel," "blended biodiesel," and "diesel fuel" have 9417
the same meanings as in section 125.831 of the Revised Code.9418

       (2) "Credit" means a credit generated by the acquisition of 9419
alternative fueled vehicles in accordance with the "Energy Policy 9420
Act of 1992," 106 Stat. 2897, 42 U.S.C. 13257.9421

       (3) "Incremental cost" means the difference in cost between 9422
blended biodiesel and conventional petroleum-based diesel fuel at 9423
the time the blended biodiesel is purchased.9424

       (B) The department of administrative services shall establish 9425
and administer a credit banking and selling program. The 9426
department may sell or trade credits in accordance with procedures 9427
established pursuant to the "Energy Policy Act of 1992," 106 Stat. 9428
2897, 42 U.S.C. 13258.9429

       (C) There is hereby created in the state treasury the 9430
"biodiesel revolving fund," to which shall be credited moneys 9431
received from the sale of credits under this section, any moneys 9432
appropriated to the fund by the general assembly, and any other 9433
moneys obtained or accepted by the departmentdevelopment services 9434
agency for crediting to the fund. Moneys credited to the fund 9435
shall be used to pay for the incremental cost of biodiesel for use 9436
in vehicles owned or leased by the state that use diesel fuel. The 9437
director of administrative services, after consultation with the 9438
director of development,services may direct the director of 9439
budget and management to transfer available moneys in the 9440
biodiesel revolving fund to the alternative fuel transportation 9441
fund created in section 122.075 of the Revised Code to be used by 9442
the department of development services agency for the purposes 9443
specified in that section.9444

        (D) The director of administrative services shall adopt rules 9445
under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code that are necessary for the 9446
administration of the credit banking and selling program. 9447

       Sec. 126.07.  Except as provided in division (B) of section 9448
126.21 of the Revised Code, no contract, agreement, or obligation 9449
involving the expenditure of money chargeable to an appropriation, 9450
nor any resolution or order for the expenditure of money 9451
chargeable to an appropriation, shall be valid and enforceable 9452
unless the director of budget and management first certifies that 9453
there is a balance in the appropriation not already obligated to 9454
pay existing obligations, in an amount at least equal to the 9455
portion of the contract, agreement, obligation, resolution, or 9456
order to be performed in the current fiscal year. Any written 9457
contract or agreement entered into by the state shall contain a 9458
clause stating that the obligations of the state are subject to 9459
this section.9460

       The chief administrative officer of a state agency is 9461
responsible for the preaudit and approval of expenditures and 9462
other transactions of the agency. In order to initiate the making 9463
of a payment from the state treasury, the person in a state agency 9464
who requests that the payment be made shall first submit to the 9465
chief administrative officer of the agency all invoices, claims, 9466
vouchers, and other documentation related to the payment. The 9467
chief administrative officer shall examine each voucher and all 9468
other documentation required to support the voucher and determine 9469
whether they meet all the requirements established by the director 9470
of budget and management for making the payment. If they do meet 9471
those requirements, the chief administrative officer shall certify 9472
to the director the approval of the chief administrative officer 9473
for payment.9474

        Prior to drawing a warrant or processing an electronic funds 9475
transfer as provided in section 126.35 of the Revised Code, the 9476
director may review and audit the voucher, any documentation 9477
accompanying the voucher, and any other documentation related to 9478
the transaction that the director may require to determine if the 9479
transaction is in accordance with law. The director shall not 9480
approve payment to be made if the director finds that there is not 9481
an unobligated balance in the appropriation for the payment, that 9482
the payment is not for a valid claim against the state that is 9483
legally due, or that insufficient documentation has been 9484
submitted. If the director does not approve payment, the director 9485
shall notify the agency of the reasons the director has not given 9486
approval.9487

       In approving payments to be made under this section, the 9488
director, upon receipt of certification from the director of job 9489
and family services pursuant to section 4141.231 of the Revised 9490
Code, shall withhold from amounts otherwise payable to a person 9491
who is the subject of the director of jobs and family services' 9492
certification, the amount certified to be due and unpaid to the 9493
director of job and family services, and shall approve for payment 9494
to the director of job and family services, the amount withheld.9495

       As used in this section and in section 126.21 of the Revised 9496
Code, "chief administrative officer" means either of the 9497
following:9498

       (A) The director of the agency or, in the case of a state 9499
agency without a director, the equivalent officer of that agency;9500

       (B) The designee of the chief administrative officer for the 9501
purposes of such sections.9502

       Sec. 126.14.  The release of any money appropriated for the 9503
purchase of real estate shall be approved by the controlling 9504
board. The release of money appropriated for all other capital 9505
projects is also subject to the approval of the controlling board, 9506
except that the director of budget and management may approve the 9507
release of money appropriated for specific projects in accordance 9508
with the requirements of this section and except that the director 9509
of budget and management may approve the release of unencumbered 9510
capital balances, for a project to repair, remove, or prevent a 9511
public exigency declared to exist by the executive director of 9512
administrative servicesthe Ohio facilities construction 9513
commission under section 123.10 of the Revised Code, or by the 9514
executive director of the Ohio facilities construction commission 9515
under section 123.23 of the Revised Code, in the amount designated 9516
in that declaration.9517

       Within sixty days after the effective date of any act 9518
appropriating money for capital projects, the director shall 9519
determine which appropriations are for general projects and which 9520
are for specific projects. Specific projects may include specific 9521
higher education projects that are to be funded from general 9522
purpose appropriations from the higher education improvement fund 9523
or the higher education improvement taxable fund created in 9524
section 154.21 of the Revised Code. Upon determining which 9525
projects are general and which are specific, the director shall 9526
submit to the controlling board a list that includes a brief 9527
description of and the estimated expenditures for each specific 9528
project. The release of money for any specific higher education 9529
projects that are to be funded from general purpose appropriations 9530
from the higher education improvement fund or the higher education 9531
improvement taxable fund but that are not included on the list, 9532
and the release of money for any specific higher education 9533
projects included on the list that will exceed the estimated 9534
expenditures by more than ten per cent, are subject to the 9535
approval of the controlling board. 9536

       The director may create new appropriation items and make 9537
transfers of appropriations to them for specific higher education 9538
projects included on the list that are to be funded from general 9539
purpose appropriations for basic renovations that are made from 9540
the higher education improvement fund or the higher education 9541
improvement taxable fund.9542

       Sec. 126.32.  (A) Any officer of any state agency may 9543
authorize reimbursement for travel, including the costs of 9544
transportation, for lodging, and for meals to any person who is 9545
interviewing for a position that is classified in pay range 13 or 9546
above in schedule E-1 or schedule E-1 for step seven only, or is 9547
classified in schedule E-2, of section 124.152 of the Revised 9548
Code.9549

       (B) If a person is appointed to a position listed in section 9550
121.03 of the Revised Code, to the position of chairperson of the 9551
industrial commission, adjutant general, chancellor of the Ohio 9552
board of regents, superintendent of public instruction, 9553
chairperson of the public utilities commission of Ohio, or 9554
director of the state lottery commission, to a position holding a 9555
fiduciary relationship to the governor, to a position of an 9556
appointing authority of the department of mental healthmental 9557
health and addiction services, developmental disabilities, or 9558
rehabilitation and correction, to a position of superintendent in 9559
the department of youth services, or to a position under section 9560
122.05 of the Revised Code, and if that appointment requires a 9561
permanent change of residence, the appropriate state agency may 9562
reimburse the person for the person's actual and necessary 9563
expenses, including the cost of in-transit storage of household 9564
goods and personal effects, of moving the person and members of 9565
the person's immediate family residing in the person's household, 9566
and of moving their household goods and personal effects, to the 9567
person's new location.9568

       Until that person moves the person's permanent residence to 9569
the new location, but not for a period that exceeds thirty 9570
consecutive days, the state agency may reimburse the person for 9571
the person's temporary living expenses at the new location that 9572
the person has incurred on behalf of the person and members of the 9573
person's immediate family residing in the person's household. In 9574
addition, the state agency may reimburse that person for the 9575
person's travel expenses between the new location and the person's 9576
former residence during this period for a maximum number of trips 9577
specified by rule of the director of budget and management, but 9578
the state agency shall not reimburse the person for travel 9579
expenses incurred for those trips by members of the person's 9580
immediate family. With the prior written approval of the director, 9581
the maximum thirty-day period for temporary living expenses may be 9582
extended for a person appointed to a position under section 122.05 9583
of the Revised Code.9584

       The director of development services may reimburse a person 9585
appointed to a position under section 122.05 of the Revised Code 9586
for the person's actual and necessary expenses of moving the 9587
person and members of the person's immediate family residing in 9588
the person's household back to the United States and may reimburse 9589
a person appointed to such a position for the cost of storage of 9590
household goods and personal effects of the person and the 9591
person's immediate family while the person is serving outside the 9592
United States, if the person's office outside the United States is 9593
the person's primary job location.9594

       (C) All reimbursement under division (A) or (B) of this 9595
section shall be made in the manner, and at rates that do not 9596
exceed those, provided by rule of the director of budget and 9597
management in accordance with section 111.15 of the Revised Code. 9598
Reimbursements may be made under division (B) of this section 9599
directly to the persons who incurred the expenses or directly to 9600
the providers of goods or services the persons receive, as 9601
determined by the director of budget and management.9602

       Sec. 126.35.  (A) The director of budget and management shall 9603
draw warrants or process electronic funds transfers against the 9604
treasurer of state pursuant to all requests for payment that the 9605
director has approved under section 126.07 of the Revised Code.9606

       (B) Unless a cash assistance payment is to be made by 9607
electronic benefit transfer, payment by the director of budget and 9608
management to a participant in the Ohio works first program 9609
pursuant to Chapter 5107. of the Revised Code, a recipient of 9610
disability financial assistance pursuant to Chapter 5115. of the 9611
Revised Code, or a recipient of cash assistance provided under the 9612
refugee assistance program established under section 5101.49 of 9613
the Revised Code shall be made by direct deposit to the account of 9614
the participant or recipient in the financial institution 9615
designated under section 329.03 of the Revised Code. Payment by 9616
the director of budget and management to a recipient of benefits 9617
distributed through the medium of electronic benefit transfer 9618
pursuant to section 5101.33 of the Revised Code shall be by 9619
electronic benefit transfer. Payment by the director of budget and 9620
management as compensation to an employee of the state who has, 9621
pursuant to section 124.151 of the Revised Code, designated a 9622
financial institution and account for the direct deposit of such 9623
payments shall be made by direct deposit to the account of the 9624
employee. Payment to any other payee who has designated a 9625
financial institution and account for the direct deposit of such 9626
payment may be made by direct deposit to the account of the payee 9627
in the financial institution as provided in section 9.37 of the 9628
Revised Code. Accounts maintained by the director of budget and 9629
management or the director's agent in a financial institution for 9630
the purpose of effectuating payment by direct deposit or 9631
electronic benefit transfer shall be maintained in accordance with 9632
section 135.18 of the Revised Code.9633

       (C) All other payments from the state treasury shall be made 9634
by paper warrants, electronic funds transfers, or by direct 9635
deposit payable to the respective payees. The director of budget 9636
and management may mail the paper warrants to the respective 9637
payees or distribute them through other state agencies, whichever 9638
the director determines to be the better procedure.9639

       (D) If the average per transaction cost the director of 9640
budget and management incurs in making direct deposits for a state 9641
agency exceeds the average per transaction cost the director 9642
incurs in drawing paper warrants for all public offices during the 9643
same period of time, the director may certify the difference in 9644
cost and the number of direct deposits for the agency to the 9645
director of administrative services. The director of 9646
administrative services shall reimburse the director of budget and 9647
management for such additional costs and add the amount to the 9648
processing charge assessed upon the state agency.9649

       Sec. 126.45.  (A) As used in sections 126.45 to 126.48 of the 9650
Revised Code, "state agency" means the administrative departments 9651
listed in section 121.02 of the Revised Code, the department of 9652
taxation, the bureau of workers' compensation, and the Ohio board 9653
of regents, the rehabilitation services commission, the public 9654
utilities commission of Ohio, the adjutant general, and the state 9655
lottery commission.9656

       (B) The office of internal auditingaudit is hereby created 9657
in the office of budget and management to conductdirect internal 9658
audits of state agencies or divisions of state agencies to improve 9659
their operations in the areas of risk management, internal 9660
controls, and governance. The director of budget and management, 9661
with the approval of the governor, shall appoint for the office of 9662
internal auditingaudit a chief internal auditor who meets the 9663
qualifications specified in division (C)(E) of this section. The 9664
chief internal auditor shall serve at the director's pleasure and 9665
be responsible for the administration of the office of internal 9666
auditingaudit consistent with sections 126.45 to 126.48 of the 9667
Revised Code.9668

       (C) The office of internal auditingaudit shall conduct 9669
programs for the internal auditing of state agencies. The programs 9670
shall include an annual internal audit plan, reviewed by the state 9671
audit committee, that utilizes risk assessment techniques and 9672
identifies the specific audits to be conducteddirected during the 9673
year. The programs also shall include periodic audits of each 9674
state agency's major systems and controls, including those systems 9675
and controls pertaining to accounting, administration, and 9676
electronic data processinginformation technology. Upon the 9677
request of the office of internal auditingaudit, each state 9678
agency shall provide office employees access to all records and 9679
documents necessary for the performance of an internal audit.9680

       The director of budget and management shall assess a charge 9681
against each state agency for which the office of internal 9682
auditingaudit conducts internal auditing programs under sections 9683
126.45 to 126.48 of the Revised Code so that the total amount of 9684
these charges is sufficient to cover the costs of the operation of 9685
the office of internal auditingaudit.9686

       (D) At the request of any other organized body, office, or 9687
agency established by the laws of the state for the exercise of 9688
any function of state government that is not described in division 9689
(A) of this section, the office of internal audit may direct an 9690
internal audit of all or part of that body, office, or agency. The 9691
office of internal audit shall charge an amount sufficient to 9692
cover the costs it incurs in relation to the requested audit.9693

       (C)(E) The chief internal auditor of the office of internal 9694
auditingaudit shall hold at least a bachelor's degree and be one 9695
of the following:9696

       (1) A certified internal auditor, a certified government 9697
auditing professional, or a certified public accountant, who also 9698
has held a PA registration or a CPA certificate authorized by 9699
Chapter 4701. of the Revised Code for at least four years and has 9700
at least six years of auditing experience; 9701

       (2) An auditor who has held a PA registration or a CPA 9702
certificate authorized by Chapter 4701. of the Revised Code for at 9703
least four years and has at least ten years of auditing 9704
experience.9705

       (D)(F) The chief internal auditor, subject to the direction 9706
and control of the director of budget and management, may appoint 9707
and maintain any staff necessary to carry out the duties assigned 9708
by sections 126.45 to 126.48 of the Revised Code to the office of 9709
internal auditingaudit or to the chief internal auditor.9710

       Sec. 126.46.  (A)(1) There is hereby created the state audit 9711
committee, consisting of the following five members: one public 9712
member appointed by the governor; two public members appointed by 9713
the speaker of the house of representatives, one of which may be a 9714
person who is recommended by the minority leader of the house of 9715
representatives; and two public members appointed by the president 9716
of the senate, one of which may be a person who is recommended by 9717
the minority leader of the senate. Not more than two of the four 9718
members appointed by the speaker of the house of representatives 9719
and the president of the senate shall belong to or be affiliated 9720
with the same political party. The member appointed by the 9721
governor shall have the program and management expertise required 9722
to perform the duties of the committee's chairperson.9723

       Each member of the committee shall be external to the 9724
management structure of state government and shall serve a 9725
three-year term. Each term shall commence on the first day of July 9726
and end on the thirtieth day of June. Any member may continue in 9727
office subsequent to the expiration date of the member's term 9728
until the member's successor takes office or until a period of 9729
ninety days has elapsed, whichever occurs first. Members may be 9730
reappointed to serve one additional term.9731

       On the effective date of the amendment of this section by 9732
H.B. 153 of the 129th general assemblySeptember 29, 2011, the 9733
terms of the members shall be altered as follows: 9734

       (a) The terms of the members appointed by the president shall 9735
expire on June 30, 2012.9736

        (b) The term of the member appointed by the speaker scheduled 9737
to expire on November 17, 2012, shall expire on June 30, 2013.9738

        (c) The term of the other member appointed by the speaker 9739
shall expire on June 30, 2014.9740

        (d) The term of the member appointed by the governor shall 9741
expire on June 30, 2014.9742

       The committee shall include at least one member who is a 9743
financial expert; at least one member who is an active, inactive, 9744
or retired certified public accountant; at least one member who is 9745
familiar with governmental financial accounting; at least one 9746
member who is familiar with information technology systems and 9747
services; and at least one member who is a representative of the 9748
public.9749

       Any vacancy on the committee shall be filled in the same 9750
manner as provided in this division, and, when applicable, the 9751
person appointed to fill a vacancy shall serve the remainder of 9752
the predecessor's term.9753

       (2) Members of the committee shall receive reimbursement for 9754
actual and necessary expenses incurred in the discharge of their 9755
duties.9756

       (3) The member of the committee appointed by the governor 9757
shall serve as the committee's chairperson.9758

       (4) Members of the committee shall be subject to the 9759
disclosure statement requirements of section 102.02 of the Revised 9760
Code.9761

       (B) The state audit committee shall do all of the following:9762

       (1) Ensure thatEvaluate whether the internal audits 9763
conducteddirected by the office of internal auditingaudit in the 9764
office of budget and management conform to the institute of 9765
internal auditors' international standards for the professional 9766
practice ofpractices framework for internal auditing and to the 9767
institute of internal auditors' code of ethics;9768

       (2) Review and comment on the process used by the office of 9769
budget and management to prepare its annual budgetary financial 9770
report and the state's comprehensive annual financial report 9771
required under division (A)(9) of section 126.21 of the Revised 9772
Code; 9773

       (3) Review and comment on unaudited financial statements 9774
submitted to the auditor of state and communicate with external 9775
auditors as required by government auditing standards;9776

       (4) Perform the additional functions imposed upon it by 9777
section 126.47 of the Revised Code.9778

       (C) As used in this section, "financial expert" means a 9779
person who has all of the following:9780

        (1) An understanding of generally accepted accounting 9781
principles and financial statements;9782

        (2) The ability to assess the general application of those 9783
principles in connection with accounting for estimates, accruals, 9784
and reserves;9785

        (3) Experience preparing, auditing, analyzing, or evaluating 9786
financial statements presenting accounting issues that generally 9787
are of comparable breadth and level of complexity to those likely 9788
to be presented by a state agency's financial statements, or 9789
experience actively supervising one or more persons engaged in 9790
those activities;9791

        (4) An understanding of internal controls and procedures for 9792
financial reporting; and9793

        (5) An understanding of audit committee functions.9794

       Sec. 126.47.  (A) The state audit committee created by 9795
section 126.46 of the Revised Code shall ensure that the office of 9796
internal auditingaudit in the office of budget and management has 9797
an annual internal audit plan that identifies the internal audits 9798
of state agencies or divisions of state agencies scheduled for the 9799
next fiscal year. The chief internal auditor of the office of 9800
internal auditingaudit shall submit the plan to the state audit 9801
committee for review and comment before the beginning of each 9802
fiscal year. The chief internal auditor may submit a revised 9803
internal audit plan for review and comment at any time the 9804
director of budget and management believes there is reason to 9805
modify the previously submitted plan for a fiscal year.9806

       (B) To determine the state agencies or divisions of state 9807
agencies that are to be internally audited, the office of internal 9808
auditingaudit, in the formulation of an annual or revised 9809
internal audit plan, and the state audit committee, in reviewing a 9810
submitted annual or revised internal audit plan, shall consider 9811
the following factors:9812

       (1) The risk for fraud, waste, or abuse of public money 9813
within an agency or division;9814

       (2) The length of time since an agency or division was last 9815
subject to an internal audit;9816

       (3) The size of an agency or division, and the amount of time 9817
and resources necessary to audit it;9818

       (4) Any other factor the state audit committee determines to 9819
be relevant.9820

       (C) All internal audits shall be conducted onlydirected by 9821
employees of the office of internal auditingaudit.9822

       (D) After the conclusion of an internal audit, the chief 9823
internal auditor shall submit a preliminary report of the internal 9824
audit's findings and recommendations to the state audit committee 9825
and to the director of the state agency involved. The state agency 9826
or division of the state agency covered by the preliminary report 9827
shall be provided an opportunity to respond within thirty days 9828
after receipt of the preliminary report. The response shall 9829
include a corrective action plan for any recommendations in the 9830
preliminary report that are not disputed by the agency or 9831
division. Any response received by the office of internal auditing9832
audit within that thirty-day period shall be included in the 9833
office's final report of the internal audit's findings and 9834
recommendations. The final report shall be issued by the office of 9835
internal auditingaudit within thirty days after the termination 9836
of the thirty-day response period. Copies of the final report 9837
shall be submitted to the state audit committee, the governor, and 9838
the director of the state agency involved. The state audit 9839
committee shall determine an appropriate method for making the 9840
preliminary and final reports available for public inspection in a 9841
timely manner.9842

       Any suspected fraud or other illegal activity discovered by 9843
the office of internal auditingaudit during the conduct of an 9844
internal audit shall be reported immediately to the state audit 9845
committee, the director of the state agency in which the fraud or 9846
illegal activity is suspected to have occurred, and the auditor of 9847
state.9848

       (E) The chief internal auditor shall prepare an annual report 9849
and submit the report to the governor, the president of the 9850
senate, the speaker of the house of representatives, and the 9851
auditor of state. The office of budget and management shall make 9852
the report available to the public by posting it on the office's 9853
web site before the first of JulyAugust of each year.9854

       Sec. 126.48. Any(A) Except as provided in division (B) of 9855
this section, any preliminary or final report of an internal 9856
audit's findings and recommendations which is produced by the 9857
office of internal auditingaudit in the office of budget and 9858
management and all work papers of the internal audit are 9859
confidential and are not public records under section 149.43 of 9860
the Revised Code until the final report of an internal audit's 9861
findings and recommendations is submitted to the state audit 9862
committee, the governor, and the director of the state agency 9863
involved.9864

       (B) The following are not public records under section 149.43 9865
of the Revised Code:9866

        (1) An internal audit report that meets the definition of a 9867
security record under section 149.433 of the Revised Code;9868

        (2) Any information derived from a state tax return or state 9869
tax return information as permitted to be used by the office of 9870
internal audit under section 5703.21 of the Revised Code. 9871

       Sec. 127.14.  The controlling board may, at the request of 9872
any state agency or the director of budget and management, 9873
authorize, with respect to the provisions of any appropriation 9874
act:9875

       (A) Transfers of all or part of an appropriation within but 9876
not between state agencies, except such transfers as the director 9877
of budget and management is authorized by law to make, provided 9878
that no transfer shall be made by the director for the purpose of 9879
effecting new or changed levels of program service not authorized 9880
by the general assembly;9881

       (B) Transfers of all or part of an appropriation from one 9882
fiscal year to another;9883

       (C) Transfers of all or part of an appropriation within or 9884
between state agencies made necessary by administrative 9885
reorganization or by the abolition of an agency or part of an 9886
agency;9887

       (D) Transfers of all or part of cash balances in excess of 9888
needs from any fund of the state to the general revenue fund or to 9889
such other fund of the state to which the money would have been 9890
credited in the absence of the fund from which the transfers are 9891
authorized to be made, except that the controlling board may not 9892
authorize such transfers from the accrued leave liability fund, 9893
auto registration distribution fund, local motor vehicle license 9894
tax fund, budget stabilization fund, building improvement fund,9895
development bond retirement fund, facilities establishment fund, 9896
gasoline excise tax fund, general revenue fund, higher education 9897
improvement fund, highway improvement bond retirement fund, 9898
highway obligations bond retirement fund, highway capital 9899
improvement fund, highway operating fund, horse racing tax fund, 9900
improvements bond retirement fund, public library fund, liquor 9901
control fund, local government fund, local transportation 9902
improvement program fund, mental health facilities improvement 9903
fund, Ohio fairs fund, parks and recreation improvement fund, 9904
public improvements bond retirement fund, school district income 9905
tax fund, state agency facilities improvement fund, state and 9906
local government highway distribution fund, state highway safety 9907
fund, state lottery fund, undivided liquor permit fund, Vietnam 9908
conflict compensation bond retirement fund, volunteer fire 9909
fighters' dependents fund, waterways safety fund, wildlife fund, 9910
workers' compensation fund, or any fund not specified in this 9911
division that the director of budget and management determines to 9912
be a bond fund or bond retirement fund;9913

       (E) Transfers of all or part of those appropriations included 9914
in the emergency purposes account of the controlling board;9915

       (F) Temporary transfers of all or part of an appropriation or 9916
other moneys into and between existing funds, or new funds, as may 9917
be established by law when needed for capital outlays for which 9918
notes or bonds will be issued;9919

       (G) Transfer or release of all or part of an appropriation to 9920
a state agency requiring controlling board approval of such 9921
transfer or release as provided by law;9922

       (H) Temporary transfer of funds included in the emergency 9923
purposes appropriation of the controlling board. Such temporary 9924
transfers may be made subject to conditions specified by the 9925
controlling board at the time temporary transfers are authorized. 9926
No transfers shall be made under this division for the purpose of 9927
effecting new or changed levels of program service not authorized 9928
by the general assembly.9929

       As used in this section, "request" means an application by a 9930
state agency or the director of budget and management seeking some 9931
action by the controlling board.9932

       When authorizing the transfer of all or part of an 9933
appropriation under this section, the controlling board may 9934
authorize the transfer to an existing appropriation item and the 9935
creation of and transfer to a new appropriation item.9936

       Whenever there is a transfer of all or part of funds included 9937
in the emergency purposes appropriation by the controlling board, 9938
pursuant to division (E) of this section, the state agency or the 9939
director of budget and management receiving such transfer shall 9940
keep a detailed record of the use of the transferred funds. At the 9941
earliest scheduled meeting of the controlling board following the 9942
accomplishment of the purposes specified in the request originally 9943
seeking the transfer, or following the total expenditure of the 9944
transferred funds for the specified purposes, the state agency or 9945
the director of budget and management shall submit a report on the 9946
expenditure of such funds to the board. The portion of any 9947
appropriation so transferred which is not required to accomplish 9948
the purposes designated in the original request to the controlling 9949
board shall be returned to the proper appropriation of the 9950
controlling board at this time.9951

       Notwithstanding any provisions of law providing for the 9952
deposit of revenues received by a state agency to the credit of a 9953
particular fund in the state treasury, whenever there is a 9954
temporary transfer of funds included in the emergency purposes 9955
appropriation of the controlling board pursuant to division (H) of 9956
this section, revenues received by any state agency receiving such 9957
a temporary transfer of funds shall, as directed by the 9958
controlling board, be transferred back to the emergency purposes 9959
appropriation.9960

       The board may delegate to the director of budget and 9961
management authority to approve transfers among items of 9962
appropriation under division (A) of this section.9963

       Sec. 127.16.  (A) Upon the request of either a state agency 9964
or the director of budget and management and after the controlling 9965
board determines that an emergency or a sufficient economic reason 9966
exists, the controlling board may approve the making of a purchase 9967
without competitive selection as provided in division (B) of this 9968
section.9969

       (B) Except as otherwise provided in this section, no state 9970
agency, using money that has been appropriated to it directly, 9971
shall:9972

       (1) Make any purchase from a particular supplier, that would 9973
amount to fifty thousand dollars or more when combined with both 9974
the amount of all disbursements to the supplier during the fiscal 9975
year for purchases made by the agency and the amount of all 9976
outstanding encumbrances for purchases made by the agency from the 9977
supplier, unless the purchase is made by competitive selection or 9978
with the approval of the controlling board;9979

       (2) Lease real estate from a particular supplier, if the 9980
lease would amount to seventy-five thousand dollars or more when 9981
combined with both the amount of all disbursements to the supplier 9982
during the fiscal year for real estate leases made by the agency 9983
and the amount of all outstanding encumbrances for real estate 9984
leases made by the agency from the supplier, unless the lease is 9985
made by competitive selection or with the approval of the 9986
controlling board.9987

       (C) Any person who authorizes a purchase in violation of 9988
division (B) of this section shall be liable to the state for any 9989
state funds spent on the purchase, and the attorney general shall 9990
collect the amount from the person.9991

       (D) Nothing in division (B) of this section shall be 9992
construed as:9993

       (1) A limitation upon the authority of the director of 9994
transportation as granted in sections 5501.17, 5517.02, and 9995
5525.14 of the Revised Code;9996

       (2) Applying to medicaid provider agreements under Chapter 9997
5111. of the Revised Codemedicaid program;9998

       (3) Applying to the purchase of examinations from a sole 9999
supplier by a state licensing board under Title XLVII of the 10000
Revised Code;10001

       (4) Applying to entertainment contracts for the Ohio state 10002
fair entered into by the Ohio expositions commission, provided 10003
that the controlling board has given its approval to the 10004
commission to enter into such contracts and has approved a total 10005
budget amount for such contracts as agreed upon by commission 10006
action, and that the commission causes to be kept itemized records 10007
of the amounts of money spent under each contract and annually 10008
files those records with the clerk of the house of representatives 10009
and the clerk of the senate following the close of the fair;10010

       (5) Limiting the authority of the chief of the division of 10011
mineral resources management to contract for reclamation work with 10012
an operator mining adjacent land as provided in section 1513.27 of 10013
the Revised Code;10014

       (6) Applying to investment transactions and procedures of any 10015
state agency, except that the agency shall file with the board the 10016
name of any person with whom the agency contracts to make, broker, 10017
service, or otherwise manage its investments, as well as the 10018
commission, rate, or schedule of charges of such person with 10019
respect to any investment transactions to be undertaken on behalf 10020
of the agency. The filing shall be in a form and at such times as 10021
the board considers appropriate.10022

       (7) Applying to purchases made with money for the per cent 10023
for arts program established by section 3379.10 of the Revised 10024
Code;10025

       (8) Applying to purchases made by the rehabilitation services 10026
commission of services, or supplies, that are provided to persons 10027
with disabilities, or to purchases made by the commission in 10028
connection with the eligibility determinations it makes for 10029
applicants of programs administered by the social security 10030
administration;10031

       (9) Applying to payments by the department of job and family 10032
servicesmedicaid under section 5111.135164.85 of the Revised 10033
Code for group health plan premiums, deductibles, coinsurance, and 10034
other cost-sharing expenses;10035

       (10) Applying to any agency of the legislative branch of the 10036
state government;10037

       (11) Applying to agreements or contracts entered into under 10038
section 5101.11, 5101.20, 5101.201, 5101.21, or 5101.214 of the 10039
Revised Code;10040

       (12) Applying to purchases of services by the adult parole 10041
authority under section 2967.14 of the Revised Code or by the 10042
department of youth services under section 5139.08 of the Revised 10043
Code;10044

       (13) Applying to dues or fees paid for membership in an 10045
organization or association;10046

       (14) Applying to purchases of utility services pursuant to 10047
section 9.30 of the Revised Code;10048

       (15) Applying to purchases made in accordance with rules 10049
adopted by the department of administrative services of motor 10050
vehicle, aviation, or watercraft fuel, or emergency repairs of 10051
such vehicles;10052

       (16) Applying to purchases of tickets for passenger air 10053
transportation;10054

       (17) Applying to purchases necessary to provide public 10055
notifications required by law or to provide notifications of job 10056
openings;10057

       (18) Applying to the judicial branch of state government;10058

       (19) Applying to purchases of liquor for resale by the 10059
division of liquor control;10060

       (20) Applying to purchases of motor courier and freight 10061
services made in accordance with department of administrative 10062
services rules;10063

       (21) Applying to purchases from the United States postal 10064
service and purchases of stamps and postal meter replenishment 10065
from vendors at rates established by the United States postal 10066
service;10067

       (22) Applying to purchases of books, periodicals, pamphlets, 10068
newspapers, maintenance subscriptions, and other published 10069
materials;10070

       (23) Applying to purchases from other state agencies, 10071
including state-assisted institutions of higher education;10072

       (24) Limiting the authority of the director of environmental 10073
protection to enter into contracts under division (D) of section 10074
3745.14 of the Revised Code to conduct compliance reviews, as 10075
defined in division (A) of that section;10076

       (25) Applying to purchases from a qualified nonprofit agency 10077
pursuant to sections 125.60 to 125.6012 or 4115.31 to 4115.35 of 10078
the Revised Code;10079

       (26) Applying to payments by the department of job and family 10080
services to the United States department of health and human 10081
services for printing and mailing notices pertaining to the tax 10082
refund offset program of the internal revenue service of the 10083
United States department of the treasury;10084

       (27) Applying to contracts entered into by the department of 10085
developmental disabilities under section 5123.18 of the Revised 10086
Code;10087

       (28) Applying to payments made by the department of mental 10088
healthmental health and addiction services under a physician 10089
recruitment program authorized by section 5119.1015119.185 of 10090
the Revised Code;10091

       (29) Applying to contracts entered into with persons by the 10092
director of commerce for unclaimed funds collection and remittance 10093
efforts as provided in division (F) of section 169.03 of the 10094
Revised Code. The director shall keep an itemized accounting of 10095
unclaimed funds collected by those persons and amounts paid to 10096
them for their services.10097

       (30) Applying to purchases made by a state institution of 10098
higher education in accordance with the terms of a contract 10099
between the vendor and an inter-university purchasing group 10100
comprised of purchasing officers of state institutions of higher 10101
education;10102

       (31) Applying to the department of job and family services'10103
medicaid's purchases of health assistance services under the 10104
children's health insurance program part I provided for under 10105
section 5101.50 of the Revised Code, the children's health 10106
insurance program part II provided for under section 5101.51 of 10107
the Revised Code, or the children's health insurance program part 10108
III provided for under section 5101.52 of the Revised Code;10109

       (32) Applying to payments by the attorney general from the 10110
reparations fund to hospitals and other emergency medical 10111
facilities for performing medical examinations to collect physical 10112
evidence pursuant to section 2907.28 of the Revised Code;10113

       (33) Applying to contracts with a contracting authority or 10114
administrative receiver under division (B) of section 5126.056 of 10115
the Revised Code;10116

       (34) Applying to purchases of goods and services by the 10117
department of veterans services in accordance with the terms of 10118
contracts entered into by the United States department of veterans 10119
affairs;10120

       (35) Applying to payments by the superintendent of the bureau 10121
of criminal identification and investigation to the federal bureau 10122
of investigation for criminal records checks pursuant to section 10123
109.572 of the Revised Code;10124

       (36) Applying to contracts entered into by the department of 10125
job and family servicesmedicaid under section 5111.0545164.47 of 10126
the Revised Code;10127

       (37) Applying to contracts entered into under section 5160.12 10128
of the Revised Code.10129

       (E) When determining whether a state agency has reached the 10130
cumulative purchase thresholds established in divisions (B)(1) and 10131
(2) of this section, all of the following purchases by such agency 10132
shall not be considered:10133

       (1) Purchases made through competitive selection or with 10134
controlling board approval;10135

       (2) Purchases listed in division (D) of this section;10136

       (3) For the purposes of the threshold of division (B)(1) of 10137
this section only, leases of real estate.10138

       (F) As used in this section, "competitive selection," 10139
"purchase," "supplies," and "services" have the same meanings as 10140
in section 125.01 of the Revised Code.10141

       Sec. 133.01.  As used in this chapter, in sections 9.95, 10142
9.96, and 2151.655 of the Revised Code, in other sections of the 10143
Revised Code that make reference to this chapter unless the 10144
context does not permit, and in related proceedings, unless 10145
otherwise expressly provided:10146

       (A) "Acquisition" as applied to real or personal property 10147
includes, among other forms of acquisition, acquisition by 10148
exercise of a purchase option, and acquisition of interests in 10149
property, including, without limitation, easements and 10150
rights-of-way, and leasehold and other lease interests initially 10151
extending or extendable for a period of at least sixty months.10152

       (B) "Anticipatory securities" means securities, including 10153
notes, issued in anticipation of the issuance of other securities.10154

       (C) "Board of elections" means the county board of elections 10155
of the county in which the subdivision is located. If the 10156
subdivision is located in more than one county, "board of 10157
elections" means the county board of elections of the county that 10158
contains the largest portion of the population of the subdivision 10159
or that otherwise has jurisdiction in practice over and 10160
customarily handles election matters relating to the subdivision.10161

       (D) "Bond retirement fund" means the bond retirement fund 10162
provided for in section 5705.09 of the Revised Code, and also 10163
means a sinking fund or any other special fund, regardless of the 10164
name applied to it, established by or pursuant to law or the 10165
proceedings for the payment of debt charges. Provision may be made 10166
in the applicable proceedings for the establishment in a bond 10167
retirement fund of separate accounts relating to debt charges on 10168
particular securities, or on securities payable from the same or 10169
common sources, and for the application of moneys in those 10170
accounts only to specified debt charges on specified securities or 10171
categories of securities. Subject to law and any provisions in the 10172
applicable proceedings, moneys in a bond retirement fund or 10173
separate account in a bond retirement fund may be transferred to 10174
other funds and accounts.10175

       (E) "Capitalized interest" means all or a portion of the 10176
interest payable on securities from their date to a date stated or 10177
provided for in the applicable legislation, which interest is to 10178
be paid from the proceeds of the securities.10179

       (F) "Chapter 133. securities" means securities authorized by 10180
or issued pursuant to or in accordance with this chapter.10181

       (G) "County auditor" means the county auditor of the county 10182
in which the subdivision is located. If the subdivision is located 10183
in more than one county, "county auditor" means the county auditor 10184
of the county that contains the highest amount of the tax 10185
valuation of the subdivision or that otherwise has jurisdiction in 10186
practice over and customarily handles property tax matters 10187
relating to the subdivision. In the case of a county that has 10188
adopted a charter, "county auditor" means the officer who 10189
generally has the duties and functions provided in the Revised 10190
Code for a county auditor.10191

       (H) "Credit enhancement facilities" means letters of credit, 10192
lines of credit, stand-by, contingent, or firm securities purchase 10193
agreements, insurance, or surety arrangements, guarantees, and 10194
other arrangements that provide for direct or contingent payment 10195
of debt charges, for security or additional security in the event 10196
of nonpayment or default in respect of securities, or for making 10197
payment of debt charges to and at the option and on demand of 10198
securities holders or at the option of the issuer or upon certain 10199
conditions occurring under put or similar arrangements, or for 10200
otherwise supporting the credit or liquidity of the securities, 10201
and includes credit, reimbursement, marketing, remarketing, 10202
indexing, carrying, interest rate hedge, and subrogation 10203
agreements, and other agreements and arrangements for payment and 10204
reimbursement of the person providing the credit enhancement 10205
facility and the security for that payment and reimbursement.10206

       (I) "Current operating expenses" or "current expenses" means 10207
the lawful expenditures of a subdivision, except those for 10208
permanent improvements and for payments of debt charges of the 10209
subdivision.10210

       (J) "Debt charges" means the principal, including any 10211
mandatory sinking fund deposits and mandatory redemption payments, 10212
interest, and any redemption premium, payable on securities as 10213
those payments come due and are payable. The use of "debt charges" 10214
for this purpose does not imply that any particular securities 10215
constitute debt within the meaning of the Ohio Constitution or 10216
other laws.10217

       (K) "Financing costs" means all costs and expenses relating 10218
to the authorization, including any required election, issuance, 10219
sale, delivery, authentication, deposit, custody, clearing, 10220
registration, transfer, exchange, fractionalization, replacement, 10221
payment, and servicing of securities, including, without 10222
limitation, costs and expenses for or relating to publication and 10223
printing, postage, delivery, preliminary and final official 10224
statements, offering circulars, and informational statements, 10225
travel and transportation, underwriters, placement agents, 10226
investment bankers, paying agents, registrars, authenticating 10227
agents, remarketing agents, custodians, clearing agencies or 10228
corporations, securities depositories, financial advisory 10229
services, certifications, audits, federal or state regulatory 10230
agencies, accounting and computation services, legal services and 10231
obtaining approving legal opinions and other legal opinions, 10232
credit ratings, redemption premiums, and credit enhancement 10233
facilities. Financing costs may be paid from any moneys available 10234
for the purpose, including, unless otherwise provided in the 10235
proceedings, from the proceeds of the securities to which they 10236
relate and, as to future financing costs, from the same sources 10237
from which debt charges on the securities are paid and as though 10238
debt charges.10239

       (L) "Fiscal officer" means the following, or, in the case of 10240
absence or vacancy in the office, a deputy or assistant authorized 10241
by law or charter to act in the place of the named officer, or if 10242
there is no such authorization then the deputy or assistant 10243
authorized by legislation to act in the place of the named officer 10244
for purposes of this chapter, in the case of the following 10245
subdivisions:10246

       (1) A county, the county auditor;10247

       (2) A municipal corporation, the city auditor or village 10248
clerk or clerk-treasurer, or the officer who, by virtue of a 10249
charter, has the duties and functions provided in the Revised Code 10250
for the city auditor or village clerk or clerk-treasurer;10251

       (3) A school district, the treasurer of the board of 10252
education;10253

       (4) A regional water and sewer district, the secretary of the 10254
board of trustees;10255

       (5) A joint township hospital district, the treasurer of the 10256
district;10257

       (6) A joint ambulance district, the clerk of the board of 10258
trustees;10259

       (7) A joint recreation district, the person designated 10260
pursuant to section 755.15 of the Revised Code;10261

       (8) A detention facility district or a district organized 10262
under section 2151.65 of the Revised Code or a combined district 10263
organized under sections 2152.41 and 2151.65 of the Revised Code, 10264
the county auditor of the county designated by law to act as the 10265
auditor of the district;10266

       (9) A township, a fire district organized under division (C) 10267
of section 505.37 of the Revised Code, or a township police 10268
district, the fiscal officer of the township;10269

       (10) A joint fire district, the clerk of the board of 10270
trustees of that district;10271

       (11) A regional or county library district, the person 10272
responsible for the financial affairs of that district;10273

       (12) A joint solid waste management district, the fiscal 10274
officer appointed by the board of directors of the district under 10275
section 343.01 of the Revised Code;10276

       (13) A joint emergency medical services district, the person 10277
appointed as fiscal officer pursuant to division (D) of section 10278
307.053 of the Revised Code;10279

       (14) A fire and ambulance district, the person appointed as 10280
fiscal officer under division (B) of section 505.375 of the 10281
Revised Code;10282

       (15) A subdivision described in division (MM)(18)(19) of this 10283
section, the officer who is designated by law as or performs the 10284
functions of its chief fiscal officer;10285

       (16) A joint police district, the treasurer of the district;10286

       (17) A lake facilities authority, the fiscal officer 10287
designated under section 353.02 of the Revised Code.10288

       (M) "Fiscal year" has the same meaning as in section 9.34 of 10289
the Revised Code.10290

       (N) "Fractionalized interests in public obligations" means 10291
participations, certificates of participation, shares, or other 10292
instruments or agreements, separate from the public obligations 10293
themselves, evidencing ownership of interests in public 10294
obligations or of rights to receive payments of, or on account of, 10295
principal or interest or their equivalents payable by or on behalf 10296
of an obligor pursuant to public obligations.10297

       (O) "Fully registered securities" means securities in 10298
certificated or uncertificated form, registered as to both 10299
principal and interest in the name of the owner.10300

       (P) "Fund" means to provide for the payment of debt charges 10301
and expenses related to that payment at or prior to retirement by 10302
purchase, call for redemption, payment at maturity, or otherwise.10303

       (Q) "General obligation" means securities to the payment of 10304
debt charges on which the full faith and credit and the general 10305
property taxing power, including taxes within the tax limitation 10306
if available to the subdivision, of the subdivision are pledged.10307

       (R) "Interest" or "interest equivalent" means those payments 10308
or portions of payments, however denominated, that constitute or 10309
represent consideration for forbearing the collection of money, or 10310
for deferring the receipt of payment of money to a future time.10311

       (S) "Internal Revenue Code" means the "Internal Revenue Code 10312
of 1986," 100 Stat. 2085, 26 U.S.C.A. 1 et seq., as amended, and 10313
includes any laws of the United States providing for application 10314
of that code.10315

       (T) "Issuer" means any public issuer and any nonprofit 10316
corporation authorized to issue securities for or on behalf of any 10317
public issuer.10318

       (U) "Legislation" means an ordinance or resolution passed by 10319
a majority affirmative vote of the then members of the taxing 10320
authority unless a different vote is required by charter 10321
provisions governing the passage of the particular legislation by 10322
the taxing authority.10323

       (V) "Mandatory sinking fund redemption requirements" means 10324
amounts required by proceedings to be deposited in a bond 10325
retirement fund for the purpose of paying in any year or fiscal 10326
year by mandatory redemption prior to stated maturity the 10327
principal of securities that is due and payable, except for 10328
mandatory prior redemption requirements as provided in those 10329
proceedings, in a subsequent year or fiscal year.10330

       (W) "Mandatory sinking fund requirements" means amounts 10331
required by proceedings to be deposited in a year or fiscal year 10332
in a bond retirement fund for the purpose of paying the principal 10333
of securities that is due and payable in a subsequent year or 10334
fiscal year.10335

       (X) "Net indebtedness" has the same meaning as in division 10336
(A) of section 133.04 of the Revised Code.10337

       (Y) "Obligor," in the case of securities or fractionalized 10338
interests in public obligations issued by another person the debt 10339
charges or their equivalents on which are payable from payments 10340
made by a public issuer, means that public issuer.10341

       (Z) "One purpose" relating to permanent improvements means 10342
any one permanent improvement or group or category of permanent 10343
improvements for the same utility, enterprise, system, or project, 10344
development or redevelopment project, or for or devoted to the 10345
same general purpose, function, or use or for which 10346
self-supporting securities, based on the same or different sources 10347
of revenues, may be issued or for which special assessments may be 10348
levied by a single ordinance or resolution. "One purpose" 10349
includes, but is not limited to, in any case any off-street 10350
parking facilities relating to another permanent improvement, and:10351

       (1) Any number of roads, highways, streets, bridges, 10352
sidewalks, and viaducts;10353

       (2) Any number of off-street parking facilities;10354

       (3) In the case of a county, any number of permanent 10355
improvements for courthouse, jail, county offices, and other 10356
county buildings, and related facilities;10357

       (4) In the case of a school district, any number of 10358
facilities and buildings for school district purposes, and related 10359
facilities.10360

       (AA) "Outstanding," referring to securities, means securities 10361
that have been issued, delivered, and paid for, except any of the 10362
following:10363

       (1) Securities canceled upon surrender, exchange, or 10364
transfer, or upon payment or redemption;10365

       (2) Securities in replacement of which or in exchange for 10366
which other securities have been issued;10367

       (3) Securities for the payment, or redemption or purchase for 10368
cancellation prior to maturity, of which sufficient moneys or 10369
investments, in accordance with the applicable legislation or 10370
other proceedings or any applicable law, by mandatory sinking fund 10371
redemption requirements, mandatory sinking fund requirements, or 10372
otherwise, have been deposited, and credited for the purpose in a 10373
bond retirement fund or with a trustee or paying or escrow agent, 10374
whether at or prior to their maturity or redemption, and, in the 10375
case of securities to be redeemed prior to their stated maturity, 10376
notice of redemption has been given or satisfactory arrangements 10377
have been made for giving notice of that redemption, or waiver of 10378
that notice by or on behalf of the affected security holders has 10379
been filed with the subdivision or its agent for the purpose.10380

       (BB) "Paying agent" means the one or more banks, trust 10381
companies, or other financial institutions or qualified persons, 10382
including an appropriate office or officer of the subdivision, 10383
designated as a paying agent or place of payment of debt charges 10384
on the particular securities.10385

       (CC) "Permanent improvement" or "improvement" means any 10386
property, asset, or improvement certified by the fiscal officer, 10387
which certification is conclusive, as having an estimated life or 10388
period of usefulness of five years or more, and includes, but is 10389
not limited to, real estate, buildings, and personal property and 10390
interests in real estate, buildings, and personal property, 10391
equipment, furnishings, and site improvements, and reconstruction, 10392
rehabilitation, renovation, installation, improvement, 10393
enlargement, and extension of property, assets, or improvements so 10394
certified as having an estimated life or period of usefulness of 10395
five years or more. The acquisition of all the stock ownership of 10396
a corporation is the acquisition of a permanent improvement to the 10397
extent that the value of that stock is represented by permanent 10398
improvements. A permanent improvement for parking, highway, road, 10399
and street purposes includes resurfacing, but does not include 10400
ordinary repair.10401

       (DD) "Person" has the same meaning as in section 1.59 of the 10402
Revised Code and also includes any federal, state, interstate, 10403
regional, or local governmental agency, any subdivision, and any 10404
combination of those persons.10405

       (EE) "Proceedings" means the legislation, certifications, 10406
notices, orders, sale proceedings, trust agreement or indenture, 10407
mortgage, lease, lease-purchase agreement, assignment, credit 10408
enhancement facility agreements, and other agreements, 10409
instruments, and documents, as amended and supplemented, and any 10410
election proceedings, authorizing, or providing for the terms and 10411
conditions applicable to, or providing for the security or sale or 10412
award of, public obligations, and includes the provisions set 10413
forth or incorporated in those public obligations and proceedings.10414

       (FF) "Public issuer" means any of the following that is 10415
authorized by law to issue securities or enter into public 10416
obligations:10417

       (1) The state, including an agency, commission, officer, 10418
institution, board, authority, or other instrumentality of the 10419
state;10420

       (2) A taxing authority, subdivision, district, or other local 10421
public or governmental entity, and any combination or consortium, 10422
or public division, district, commission, authority, department, 10423
board, officer, or institution, thereof;10424

       (3) Any other body corporate and politic, or other public 10425
entity.10426

       (GG) "Public obligations" means both of the following:10427

       (1) Securities;10428

       (2) Obligations of a public issuer to make payments under 10429
installment sale, lease, lease purchase, or similar agreements, 10430
which obligations may bear interest or interest equivalent.10431

       (HH) "Refund" means to fund and retire outstanding 10432
securities, including advance refunding with or without payment or 10433
redemption prior to maturity.10434

       (II) "Register" means the books kept and maintained by the 10435
registrar for registration, exchange, and transfer of registered 10436
securities.10437

       (JJ) "Registrar" means the person responsible for keeping the 10438
register for the particular registered securities, designated by 10439
or pursuant to the proceedings.10440

       (KK) "Securities" means bonds, notes, certificates of 10441
indebtedness, commercial paper, and other instruments in writing, 10442
including, unless the context does not admit, anticipatory 10443
securities, issued by an issuer to evidence its obligation to 10444
repay money borrowed, or to pay interest, by, or to pay at any 10445
future time other money obligations of, the issuer of the 10446
securities, but not including public obligations described in 10447
division (GG)(2) of this section.10448

       (LL) "Self-supporting securities" means securities or 10449
portions of securities issued for the purpose of paying costs of 10450
permanent improvements to the extent that receipts of the 10451
subdivision, other than the proceeds of taxes levied by that 10452
subdivision, derived from or with respect to the improvements or 10453
the operation of the improvements being financed, or the 10454
enterprise, system, project, or category of improvements of which 10455
the improvements being financed are part, are estimated by the 10456
fiscal officer to be sufficient to pay the current expenses of 10457
that operation or of those improvements or enterprise, system, 10458
project, or categories of improvements and the debt charges 10459
payable from those receipts on securities issued for the purpose. 10460
Until such time as the improvements or increases in rates and 10461
charges have been in operation or effect for a period of at least 10462
six months, the receipts therefrom, for purposes of this 10463
definition, shall be those estimated by the fiscal officer, except 10464
that those receipts may include, without limitation, payments made 10465
and to be made to the subdivision under leases or agreements in 10466
effect at the time the estimate is made. In the case of an 10467
operation, improvements, or enterprise, system, project, or 10468
category of improvements without at least a six-month history of 10469
receipts, the estimate of receipts by the fiscal officer, other 10470
than those to be derived under leases and agreements then in 10471
effect, shall be confirmed by the taxing authority.10472

       (MM) "Subdivision" means any of the following:10473

       (1) A county, including a county that has adopted a charter 10474
under Article X, Ohio Constitution;10475

       (2) A municipal corporation, including a municipal 10476
corporation that has adopted a charter under Article XVIII, Ohio 10477
Constitution;10478

       (3) A school district;10479

       (4) A regional water and sewer district organized under 10480
Chapter 6119. of the Revised Code;10481

       (5) A joint township hospital district organized under 10482
section 513.07 of the Revised Code;10483

       (6) A joint ambulance district organized under section 505.71 10484
of the Revised Code;10485

       (7) A joint recreation district organized under division (C) 10486
of section 755.14 of the Revised Code;10487

       (8) A detention facility district organized under section 10488
2152.41, a district organized under section 2151.65, or a combined 10489
district organized under sections 2152.41 and 2151.65 of the 10490
Revised Code;10491

       (9) A township police district organized under section 505.48 10492
of the Revised Code;10493

       (10) A township;10494

       (11) A joint fire district organized under section 505.371 of 10495
the Revised Code;10496

       (12) A county library district created under section 3375.19 10497
or a regional library district created under section 3375.28 of 10498
the Revised Code;10499

       (13) A joint solid waste management district organized under 10500
section 343.01 or 343.012 of the Revised Code;10501

       (14) A joint emergency medical services district organized 10502
under section 307.052 of the Revised Code;10503

       (15) A fire and ambulance district organized under section 10504
505.375 of the Revised Code;10505

       (16) A fire district organized under division (C) of section 10506
505.37 of the Revised Code;10507

       (17) A joint police district organized under section 505.482 10508
of the Revised Code;10509

       (18) A lake facilities authority created under Chapter 353. 10510
of the Revised Code;10511

       (19) Any other political subdivision or taxing district or 10512
other local public body or agency authorized by this chapter or 10513
other laws to issue Chapter 133. securities.10514

       (NN) "Taxing authority" means in the case of the following 10515
subdivisions:10516

       (1) A county, a county library district, or a regional 10517
library district, the board or boards of county commissioners, or 10518
other legislative authority of a county that has adopted a charter 10519
under Article X, Ohio Constitution, but with respect to such a 10520
library district acting solely as agent for the board of trustees 10521
of that district;10522

       (2) A municipal corporation, the legislative authority;10523

       (3) A school district, the board of education;10524

       (4) A regional water and sewer district, a joint ambulance 10525
district, a joint recreation district, a fire and ambulance 10526
district, or a joint fire district, the board of trustees of the 10527
district;10528

       (5) A joint township hospital district, the joint township 10529
hospital board;10530

       (6) A detention facility district or a district organized 10531
under section 2151.65 of the Revised Code, a combined district 10532
organized under sections 2152.41 and 2151.65 of the Revised Code, 10533
or a joint emergency medical services district, the joint board of 10534
county commissioners;10535

       (7) A township, a fire district organized under division (C) 10536
of section 505.37 of the Revised Code, or a township police 10537
district, the board of township trustees;10538

       (8) A joint solid waste management district organized under 10539
section 343.01 or 343.012 of the Revised Code, the board of 10540
directors of the district;10541

       (9) A subdivision described in division (MM)(18)(19) of this 10542
section, the legislative or governing body or official;10543

       (10) A joint police district, the joint police district 10544
board;10545

       (11) A lake facilities authority, the board of directors.10546

       (OO) "Tax limitation" means the "ten-mill limitation" as 10547
defined in section 5705.02 of the Revised Code without diminution 10548
by reason of section 5705.313 of the Revised Code or otherwise, 10549
or, in the case of a municipal corporation or county with a 10550
different charter limitation on property taxes levied to pay debt 10551
charges on unvoted securities, that charter limitation. Those 10552
limitations shall be respectively referred to as the "ten-mill 10553
limitation" and the "charter tax limitation."10554

       (PP) "Tax valuation" means the aggregate of the valuations of 10555
property subject to ad valorem property taxation by the 10556
subdivision on the real property, personal property, and public 10557
utility property tax lists and duplicates most recently certified 10558
for collection, and shall be calculated without deductions of the 10559
valuations of otherwise taxable property exempt in whole or in 10560
part from taxation by reason of exemptions of certain amounts of 10561
taxable value under division (C) of section 5709.01, tax 10562
reductions under section 323.152 of the Revised Code, or similar 10563
laws now or in the future in effect.10564

       For purposes of section 133.06 of the Revised Code, "tax 10565
valuation" shall not include the valuation of tangible personal 10566
property used in business, telephone or telegraph property, 10567
interexchange telecommunications company property, or personal 10568
property owned or leased by a railroad company and used in 10569
railroad operations listed under or described in section 5711.22, 10570
division (B) or (F) of section 5727.111, or section 5727.12 of the 10571
Revised Code.10572

       (QQ) "Year" means the calendar year.10573

       (RR) "Administrative agent," "agent," "commercial paper," 10574
"floating rate interest structure," "indexing agent," "interest 10575
rate hedge," "interest rate period," "put arrangement," and 10576
"remarketing agent" have the same meanings as in section 9.98 of 10577
the Revised Code.10578

       (SS) "Sales tax supported" means obligations to the payment 10579
of debt charges on which an additional sales tax or additional 10580
sales taxes have been pledged by the taxing authority of a county 10581
pursuant to section 133.081 of the Revised Code.10582

       Sec. 133.06.  (A) A school district shall not incur, without 10583
a vote of the electors, net indebtedness that exceeds an amount 10584
equal to one-tenth of one per cent of its tax valuation, except as 10585
provided in divisions (G) and (H) of this section and in division 10586
(C) of section 3313.372 of the Revised Code, or as prescribed in 10587
section 3318.052 or 3318.44 of the Revised Code, or as provided in 10588
division (J) of this section.10589

       (B) Except as provided in divisions (E), (F), and (I) of this 10590
section, a school district shall not incur net indebtedness that 10591
exceeds an amount equal to nine per cent of its tax valuation.10592

       (C) A school district shall not submit to a vote of the 10593
electors the question of the issuance of securities in an amount 10594
that will make the district's net indebtedness after the issuance 10595
of the securities exceed an amount equal to four per cent of its 10596
tax valuation, unless the superintendent of public instruction, 10597
acting under policies adopted by the state board of education, and 10598
the tax commissioner, acting under written policies of the 10599
commissioner, consent to the submission. A request for the 10600
consents shall be made at least one hundred twenty days prior to 10601
the election at which the question is to be submitted.10602

       The superintendent of public instruction shall certify to the 10603
district the superintendent's and the tax commissioner's decisions 10604
within thirty days after receipt of the request for consents.10605

       If the electors do not approve the issuance of securities at 10606
the election for which the superintendent of public instruction 10607
and tax commissioner consented to the submission of the question, 10608
the school district may submit the same question to the electors 10609
on the date that the next special election may be held under 10610
section 3501.01 of the Revised Code without submitting a new 10611
request for consent. If the school district seeks to submit the 10612
same question at any other subsequent election, the district shall 10613
first submit a new request for consent in accordance with this 10614
division.10615

       (D) In calculating the net indebtedness of a school district, 10616
none of the following shall be considered:10617

       (1) Securities issued to acquire school buses and other 10618
equipment used in transporting pupils or issued pursuant to 10619
division (D) of section 133.10 of the Revised Code;10620

       (2) Securities issued under division (F) of this section, 10621
under section 133.301 of the Revised Code, and, to the extent in 10622
excess of the limitation stated in division (B) of this section, 10623
under division (E) of this section;10624

       (3) Indebtedness resulting from the dissolution of a joint 10625
vocational school district under section 3311.217 of the Revised 10626
Code, evidenced by outstanding securities of that joint vocational 10627
school district;10628

       (4) Loans, evidenced by any securities, received under 10629
sections 3313.483, 3317.0210, and 3317.0211, and 3317.64 of the 10630
Revised Code;10631

       (5) Debt incurred under section 3313.374 of the Revised Code;10632

       (6) Debt incurred pursuant to division (B)(5) of section 10633
3313.37 of the Revised Code to acquire computers and related 10634
hardware;10635

       (7) Debt incurred under section 3318.042 of the Revised Code.10636

       (E) A school district may become a special needs district as 10637
to certain securities as provided in division (E) of this section.10638

       (1) A board of education, by resolution, may declare its 10639
school district to be a special needs district by determining both 10640
of the following:10641

       (a) The student population is not being adequately serviced 10642
by the existing permanent improvements of the district.10643

       (b) The district cannot obtain sufficient funds by the 10644
issuance of securities within the limitation of division (B) of 10645
this section to provide additional or improved needed permanent 10646
improvements in time to meet the needs.10647

       (2) The board of education shall certify a copy of that 10648
resolution to the superintendent of public instruction with a 10649
statistical report showing all of the following:10650

       (a) The history of and a projection of the growth of the tax 10651
valuation;10652

       (b) The projected needs;10653

       (c) The estimated cost of permanent improvements proposed to 10654
meet such projected needs.10655

       (3) The superintendent of public instruction shall certify 10656
the district as an approved special needs district if the 10657
superintendent finds both of the following:10658

       (a) The district does not have available sufficient 10659
additional funds from state or federal sources to meet the 10660
projected needs.10661

       (b) The projection of the potential average growth of tax 10662
valuation during the next five years, according to the information 10663
certified to the superintendent and any other information the 10664
superintendent obtains, indicates a likelihood of potential 10665
average growth of tax valuation of the district during the next 10666
five years of an average of not less than one and one-half per 10667
cent per year. The findings and certification of the 10668
superintendent shall be conclusive.10669

       (4) An approved special needs district may incur net 10670
indebtedness by the issuance of securities in accordance with the 10671
provisions of this chapter in an amount that does not exceed an 10672
amount equal to the greater of the following:10673

       (a) Twelve per cent of the sum of its tax valuation plus an 10674
amount that is the product of multiplying that tax valuation by 10675
the percentage by which the tax valuation has increased over the 10676
tax valuation on the first day of the sixtieth month preceding the 10677
month in which its board determines to submit to the electors the 10678
question of issuing the proposed securities;10679

       (b) Twelve per cent of the sum of its tax valuation plus an 10680
amount that is the product of multiplying that tax valuation by 10681
the percentage, determined by the superintendent of public 10682
instruction, by which that tax valuation is projected to increase 10683
during the next ten years.10684

       (F) A school district may issue securities for emergency 10685
purposes, in a principal amount that does not exceed an amount 10686
equal to three per cent of its tax valuation, as provided in this 10687
division.10688

       (1) A board of education, by resolution, may declare an 10689
emergency if it determines both of the following:10690

       (a) School buildings or other necessary school facilities in 10691
the district have been wholly or partially destroyed, or condemned 10692
by a constituted public authority, or that such buildings or 10693
facilities are partially constructed, or so constructed or planned 10694
as to require additions and improvements to them before the 10695
buildings or facilities are usable for their intended purpose, or 10696
that corrections to permanent improvements are necessary to remove 10697
or prevent health or safety hazards.10698

       (b) Existing fiscal and net indebtedness limitations make 10699
adequate replacement, additions, or improvements impossible.10700

       (2) Upon the declaration of an emergency, the board of 10701
education may, by resolution, submit to the electors of the 10702
district pursuant to section 133.18 of the Revised Code the 10703
question of issuing securities for the purpose of paying the cost, 10704
in excess of any insurance or condemnation proceeds received by 10705
the district, of permanent improvements to respond to the 10706
emergency need.10707

       (3) The procedures for the election shall be as provided in 10708
section 133.18 of the Revised Code, except that:10709

       (a) The form of the ballot shall describe the emergency 10710
existing, refer to this division as the authority under which the 10711
emergency is declared, and state that the amount of the proposed 10712
securities exceeds the limitations prescribed by division (B) of 10713
this section;10714

       (b) The resolution required by division (B) of section 133.18 10715
of the Revised Code shall be certified to the county auditor and 10716
the board of elections at least one hundred days prior to the 10717
election;10718

       (c) The county auditor shall advise and, not later than 10719
ninety-five days before the election, confirm that advice by 10720
certification to, the board of education of the information 10721
required by division (C) of section 133.18 of the Revised Code;10722

       (d) The board of education shall then certify its resolution 10723
and the information required by division (D) of section 133.18 of 10724
the Revised Code to the board of elections not less than ninety 10725
days prior to the election.10726

       (4) Notwithstanding division (B) of section 133.21 of the 10727
Revised Code, the first principal payment of securities issued 10728
under this division may be set at any date not later than sixty 10729
months after the earliest possible principal payment otherwise 10730
provided for in that division.10731

       (G)(1) The board of education may contract with an architect, 10732
professional engineer, or other person experienced in the design 10733
and implementation of energy conservation measures for an analysis 10734
and recommendations pertaining to installations, modifications of 10735
installations, or remodeling that would significantly reduce 10736
energy consumption in buildings owned by the district. The report 10737
shall include estimates of all costs of such installations, 10738
modifications, or remodeling, including costs of design, 10739
engineering, installation, maintenance, repairs, and debt service, 10740
forgone residual value of materials or equipment replaced by the 10741
energy conservation measure, as defined by the Ohio school 10742
facilities commission, a baseline analysis of actual energy 10743
consumption data for the preceding three years with the utility 10744
baseline based on only the actual energy consumption data for the 10745
preceding twelve months, and estimates of the amounts by which 10746
energy consumption and resultant operational and maintenance 10747
costs, as defined by the commission, would be reduced.10748

       If the board finds after receiving the report that the amount 10749
of money the district would spend on such installations, 10750
modifications, or remodeling is not likely to exceed the amount of 10751
money it would save in energy and resultant operational and 10752
maintenance costs over the ensuing fifteen years, the board may 10753
submit to the commission a copy of its findings and a request for 10754
approval to incur indebtedness to finance the making or 10755
modification of installations or the remodeling of buildings for 10756
the purpose of significantly reducing energy consumption.10757

       If the commission determines that the board's findings are 10758
reasonable, itThe school facilities commission, in consultation 10759
with the auditor of state, may deny a request under this division 10760
by the board of education any school district is in a state of 10761
fiscal watch pursuant to division (A) of section 3316.03 of the 10762
Revised Code, if it determines that the expenditure of funds is 10763
not in the best interest of the school district.10764

       No district board of education of a school district that is 10765
in a state of fiscal emergency pursuant to division (B) of section 10766
3316.03 of the Revised Code shall submit a request without 10767
submitting evidence that the installations, modifications, or 10768
remodeling have been approved by the district's financial planning 10769
and supervision commission established under section 3316.05 of 10770
the Revised Code.10771

       No board of education of a school district that, for three or 10772
more consecutive years, has been declared to be in a state of 10773
academic emergency under section 3302.03 of the Revised Code, as 10774
that section existed prior to March 22, 2013, and has failed to 10775
meet adequate yearly progress, or has met any condition set forth 10776
in division (A)(2), (3), or (4) of section 3302.10 of the Revised 10777
Code shall submit a request without first receiving approval to 10778
incur indebtedness from the district's academic distress 10779
commission established under that section, for so long as such 10780
commission continues to be required for the district.10781

       (2) The school facilities commission shall approve the 10782
board's request. Uponprovided that the following conditions are 10783
satisfied:10784

       (a) The commission determines that the board's findings are 10785
reasonable.10786

       (b) The request for approval is complete.10787

       (c) The installations, modifications, or remodeling are 10788
consistent with any project to construct or acquire classroom 10789
facilities, or to reconstruct or make additions to existing 10790
classroom facilities under sections 3318.01 to 3318.20 or sections 10791
3318.40 to 3318.45 of the Revised Code.10792

       Upon receipt of the commission's approval, the district may 10793
issue securities without a vote of the electors in a principal 10794
amount not to exceed nine-tenths of one per cent of its tax 10795
valuation for the purpose of making such installations, 10796
modifications, or remodeling, but the total net indebtedness of 10797
the district without a vote of the electors incurred under this 10798
and all other sections of the Revised Code, except section 10799
3318.052 of the Revised Code, shall not exceed one per cent of the 10800
district's tax valuation.10801

       (3) So long as any securities issued under division (G) of10802
this sectiondivision remain outstanding, the board of education 10803
shall monitor the energy consumption and resultant operational and 10804
maintenance costs of buildings in which installations or 10805
modifications have been made or remodeling has been done pursuant 10806
to division (G) of this sectiondivision and shall maintain and 10807
annually update a report documenting the reductions in energy 10808
consumption and resultant operational and maintenance cost savings 10809
attributable to such installations, modifications, or remodeling. 10810
The report shall be certified by an architect or engineer 10811
independent of any person that provided goods or services to the 10812
board in connection with the energy conservation measures that are 10813
the subject of the report. The resultant operational and 10814
maintenance cost savings shall be certified by the school district 10815
treasurer. The report shall be submitted annually to the 10816
commission.10817

       (H) With the consent of the superintendent of public 10818
instruction, a school district may incur without a vote of the 10819
electors net indebtedness that exceeds the amounts stated in 10820
divisions (A) and (G) of this section for the purpose of paying 10821
costs of permanent improvements, if and to the extent that both of 10822
the following conditions are satisfied:10823

       (1) The fiscal officer of the school district estimates that 10824
receipts of the school district from payments made under or 10825
pursuant to agreements entered into pursuant to section 725.02, 10826
1728.10, 3735.671, 5709.081, 5709.082, 5709.40, 5709.41, 5709.62, 10827
5709.63, 5709.632, 5709.73, 5709.78, or 5709.82 of the Revised 10828
Code, or distributions under division (C) of section 5709.43 of 10829
the Revised Code, or any combination thereof, are, after 10830
accounting for any appropriate coverage requirements, sufficient 10831
in time and amount, and are committed by the proceedings, to pay 10832
the debt charges on the securities issued to evidence that 10833
indebtedness and payable from those receipts, and the taxing 10834
authority of the district confirms the fiscal officer's estimate, 10835
which confirmation is approved by the superintendent of public 10836
instruction;10837

       (2) The fiscal officer of the school district certifies, and 10838
the taxing authority of the district confirms, that the district, 10839
at the time of the certification and confirmation, reasonably 10840
expects to have sufficient revenue available for the purpose of 10841
operating such permanent improvements for their intended purpose 10842
upon acquisition or completion thereof, and the superintendent of 10843
public instruction approves the taxing authority's confirmation.10844

       The maximum maturity of securities issued under division (H) 10845
of this section shall be the lesser of twenty years or the maximum 10846
maturity calculated under section 133.20 of the Revised Code.10847

       (I) A school district may incur net indebtedness by the 10848
issuance of securities in accordance with the provisions of this 10849
chapter in excess of the limit specified in division (B) or (C) of 10850
this section when necessary to raise the school district portion 10851
of the basic project cost and any additional funds necessary to 10852
participate in a project under Chapter 3318. of the Revised Code, 10853
including the cost of items designated by the Ohio school 10854
facilities commission as required locally funded initiatives, the 10855
cost of other locally funded initiatives in an amount that does 10856
not exceed fifty per cent of the district's portion of the basic 10857
project cost, and the cost for site acquisition. The school 10858
facilities commission shall notify the superintendent of public 10859
instruction whenever a school district will exceed either limit 10860
pursuant to this division.10861

       (J) A school district whose portion of the basic project cost 10862
of its classroom facilities project under sections 3318.01 to 10863
3318.20 of the Revised Code is greater than or equal to one 10864
hundred million dollars may incur without a vote of the electors 10865
net indebtedness in an amount up to two per cent of its tax 10866
valuation through the issuance of general obligation securities in 10867
order to generate all or part of the amount of its portion of the 10868
basic project cost if the controlling board has approved the 10869
school facilities commission's conditional approval of the project 10870
under section 3318.04 of the Revised Code. The school district 10871
board and the Ohio school facilities commission shall include the 10872
dedication of the proceeds of such securities in the agreement 10873
entered into under section 3318.08 of the Revised Code. No state 10874
moneys shall be released for a project to which this section 10875
applies until the proceeds of any bonds issued under this section 10876
that are dedicated for the payment of the school district portion 10877
of the project are first deposited into the school district's 10878
project construction fund.10879

       Sec. 135.80.  (A) The legislative authority of a municipal 10880
corporation, by ordinance; the board of directors of a port 10881
authority or a lake facilities authority, by resolution; or the 10882
board of county commissioners, by resolution, may establish a 10883
linked deposit program authorizing the treasurer or governing 10884
board of the municipal corporation, the board of directors of the 10885
port authority or lake facilities authority, or the investing 10886
authority of the county, as created or designated by the ordinance 10887
or resolution, to place certificates of deposit at up to three per 10888
cent below market rates with an eligible lending institution 10889
applying for interim moneys as provided in section 135.08 of the 10890
Revised Code, selected to invest port authority or lake facilities 10891
authority moneys in linked deposit programs pursuant to section 10892
4582.54 or 353.15 of the Revised Code, or applying for inactive 10893
moneys as provided in section 135.32 of the Revised Code, provided 10894
the institution agrees to lend the value of such deposit to 10895
eligible borrowers at up to three per cent below the present 10896
borrowing rate applicable to each borrower. The ordinance or 10897
resolution shall include requirements and provisions that are 10898
necessary to establish the program, including, but not limited to:10899

       (1) Eligibility requirements for borrowers who may receive 10900
reduced rate loans under the program;10901

       (2) Application procedures for borrowers and institutions 10902
wishing to participate in the program;10903

       (3) Review procedures for applications and criteria for 10904
acceptance or rejection of applications for reduced rate loans;10905

       (4) Necessary agreements between the eligible lending 10906
institution and the treasurer or governing board of the municipal 10907
corporation, the board of directors of the port authority or lake 10908
facilities authority, or the investing authority of the county to 10909
carry out the purposes of the linked deposit program;10910

       (5) Annual reports regarding the operation of the program to 10911
be made by the treasurer or governing board to the legislative 10912
authority, the eligible lending institution to the board of 10913
directors of the port authority or lake facilities authority, or 10914
the investing authority to the board of county commissioners.10915

       (B) The municipal corporation and the treasurer or governing 10916
board, the port authority or lake facilities authority and the 10917
board of directors, and the county and the investing authority or 10918
the board of county commissioners, are not liable to any eligible 10919
lending institution in any manner for the payment of the principal 10920
or interest on any reduced rate loan made under the program, and 10921
any delay in payment or default on the part of any borrower does 10922
not in any manner affect the deposit agreement between the 10923
eligible lending institution and the treasurer or governing board, 10924
the board of directors, or the investing authority or board of 10925
county commissioners.10926

       (C) For purposes of this section, both of the following 10927
apply:10928

       (1) "Investing authority" has the same meaning as in section 10929
135.31 of the Revised Code.10930

       (2) "Port authority" means a port authority created in 10931
accordance with section 4582.22 of the Revised Code.10932

       (3) "Lake facilities authority" means a lake facilities 10933
authority created in accordance with section 353.02 of the Revised 10934
Code.10935

       Sec. 140.01.  As used in this chapter:10936

       (A) "Hospital agency" means any public hospital agency or any 10937
nonprofit hospital agency.10938

       (B) "Public hospital agency" means any county, board of 10939
county hospital trustees established pursuant to section 339.02 of 10940
the Revised Code, county hospital commission established pursuant 10941
to section 339.14 of the Revised Code, municipal corporation, new 10942
community authority organized under Chapter 349. of the Revised 10943
Code, joint township hospital district, state or municipal 10944
university or college operating or authorized to operate a 10945
hospital facility, or the state.10946

       (C) "Nonprofit hospital agency" means a corporation or 10947
association not for profit, no part of the net earnings of which 10948
inures or may lawfully inure to the benefit of any private 10949
shareholder or individual, that has authority to own or operate a 10950
hospital facility or provides or is to provide services to one or 10951
more other hospital agencies.10952

       (D) "Governing body" means, in the case of a county, the 10953
board of county commissioners or other legislative body; in the 10954
case of a board of county hospital trustees, the board; in the 10955
case of a county hospital commission, the commission; in the case 10956
of a municipal corporation, the council or other legislative 10957
authority; in the case of a new community authority, its board of 10958
trustees; in the case of a joint township hospital district, the 10959
joint township district hospital board; in the case of a state or 10960
municipal university or college, its board of trustees or board of 10961
directors; in the case of a nonprofit hospital agency, the board 10962
of trustees or other body having general management of the agency; 10963
and, in the case of the state, the director of development 10964
services or the Ohio higher educational facility commission.10965

       (E) "Hospital facilities" means buildings, structures and 10966
other improvements, additions thereto and extensions thereof, 10967
furnishings, equipment, and real estate and interests in real 10968
estate, used or to be used for or in connection with one or more 10969
hospitals, emergency, intensive, intermediate, extended, 10970
long-term, or self-care facilities, diagnostic and treatment and 10971
out-patient facilities, facilities related to programs for home 10972
health services, clinics, laboratories, public health centers, 10973
research facilities, and rehabilitation facilities, for or 10974
pertaining to diagnosis, treatment, care, or rehabilitation of 10975
sick, ill, injured, infirm, impaired, disabled, or handicapped 10976
persons, or the prevention, detection, and control of disease, and 10977
also includes education, training, and food service facilities for 10978
health professions personnel, housing facilities for such 10979
personnel and their families, and parking and service facilities 10980
in connection with any of the foregoing; and includes any one, 10981
part of, or any combination of the foregoing; and further includes 10982
site improvements, utilities, machinery, facilities, furnishings, 10983
and any separate or connected buildings, structures, improvements, 10984
sites, utilities, facilities, or equipment to be used in, or in 10985
connection with the operation or maintenance of, or supplementing 10986
or otherwise related to the services or facilities to be provided 10987
by, any one or more of such hospital facilities.10988

       (F) "Costs of hospital facilities" means the costs of 10989
acquiring hospital facilities or interests in hospital facilities, 10990
including membership interests in nonprofit hospital agencies, 10991
costs of constructing hospital facilities, costs of improving one 10992
or more hospital facilities, including reconstructing, 10993
rehabilitating, remodeling, renovating, and enlarging, costs of 10994
equipping and furnishing such facilities, and all financing costs 10995
pertaining thereto, including, without limitation thereto, costs 10996
of engineering, architectural, and other professional services, 10997
designs, plans, specifications and surveys, and estimates of cost, 10998
costs of tests and inspections, the costs of any indemnity or 10999
surety bonds and premiums on insurance, all related direct or 11000
allocable administrative expenses pertaining thereto, fees and 11001
expenses of trustees, depositories, and paying agents for the 11002
obligations, cost of issuance of the obligations and financing 11003
charges and fees and expenses of financial advisors, attorneys, 11004
accountants, consultants and rating services in connection 11005
therewith, capitalized interest on the obligations, amounts 11006
necessary to establish reserves as required by the bond 11007
proceedings, the reimbursement of all moneys advanced or applied 11008
by the hospital agency or others or borrowed from others for the 11009
payment of any item or items of costs of such facilities, and all 11010
other expenses necessary or incident to planning or determining 11011
feasibility or practicability with respect to such facilities, and 11012
such other expenses as may be necessary or incident to the 11013
acquisition, construction, reconstruction, rehabilitation, 11014
remodeling, renovation, enlargement, improvement, equipment, and 11015
furnishing of such facilities, the financing thereof, and the 11016
placing of the same in use and operation, including any one, part 11017
of, or combination of such classes of costs and expenses, and 11018
means the costs of refinancing obligations issued by, or 11019
reimbursement of money advanced by, nonprofit hospital agencies or 11020
others the proceeds of which were used for the payment of costs of 11021
hospital facilities, if the governing body of the public hospital 11022
agency determines that the refinancing or reimbursement advances 11023
the purposes of this chapter, whether or not the refinancing or 11024
reimbursement is in conjunction with the acquisition or 11025
construction of additional hospital facilities.11026

       (G) "Hospital receipts" means all moneys received by or on 11027
behalf of a hospital agency from or in connection with the 11028
ownership, operation, acquisition, construction, improvement, 11029
equipping, or financing of any hospital facilities, including, 11030
without limitation thereto, any rentals and other moneys received 11031
from the lease, sale, or other disposition of hospital facilities, 11032
and any gifts, grants, interest subsidies, or other moneys 11033
received under any federal program for assistance in financing the 11034
costs of hospital facilities, and any other gifts, grants, and 11035
donations, and receipts therefrom, available for financing the 11036
costs of hospital facilities.11037

       (H) "Obligations" means bonds, notes, or other evidences of 11038
indebtedness or obligation, including interest coupons pertaining 11039
thereto, issued or issuable by a public hospital agency to pay 11040
costs of hospital facilities.11041

       (I) "Bond service charges" means principal, interest, and 11042
call premium, if any, required to be paid on obligations.11043

       (J) "Bond proceedings" means one or more ordinances, 11044
resolutions, trust agreements, indentures, and other agreements or 11045
documents, and amendments and supplements to the foregoing, or any 11046
combination thereof, authorizing or providing for the terms, 11047
including any variable interest rates, and conditions applicable 11048
to, or providing for the security of, obligations and the 11049
provisions contained in such obligations.11050

       (K) "Nursing home" has the same meaning as in division (A)(1) 11051
of section 5701.13 of the Revised Code.11052

       (L) "Residential care facility" has the same meaning as in 11053
division (A)(2) of section 5701.13 of the Revised Code.11054

       (M) "Independent living facility" means any self-care 11055
facility or other housing facility designed or used as a residence 11056
for elderly persons. An "independent living facility" does not 11057
include a residential facility, or that part of a residential 11058
facility, that is any of the following:11059

       (1) A hospital required to be certified by section 3727.02 of 11060
the Revised Code;11061

       (2) A nursing home or residential care facility;11062

       (3) A facility operated by a hospice care program licensed 11063
under section 3712.04 of the Revised Code and used for the 11064
program's hospice patients;11065

        (4) A residential facility licensed by the department of 11066
mental healthmental health and addiction services under section 11067
5119.225119.34 of the Revised Code that provides accommodations, 11068
supervision, and personal care services for three to sixteen 11069
unrelated adults;11070

       (5) A residential facility licensed by the department of 11071
mental healthmental health and addiction services under section 11072
5119.225119.34 of the Revised Code that is not a residential 11073
facility described in division (M)(4) of this section;11074

       (6) A facility licensed to provide methadone treatment under 11075
section 3793.115119.39 of the Revised Code;11076

       (7) A facility certified as an alcohol and druga community11077
addiction programservices provider under section 3793.065119.3611078
of the Revised Code;11079

       (8) A residential facility licensed under section 5123.19 of 11080
the Revised Code or a facility providing services under a contract 11081
with the department of developmental disabilities under section 11082
5123.18 of the Revised Code;11083

       (9) A residential facility used as part of a hospital to 11084
provide housing for staff of the hospital or students pursuing a 11085
course of study at the hospital.11086

       Sec. 140.03.  (A) Two or more hospital agencies may enter 11087
into agreements for the acquisition, construction, reconstruction, 11088
rehabilitation, remodeling, renovating, enlarging, equipping, and 11089
furnishing of hospital facilities, or the management, operation, 11090
occupancy, use, maintenance, and repair of hospital facilities, or 11091
for participation in programs, projects, activities, and services 11092
useful to, connected with, supplementing, or otherwise related to 11093
the services provided by, or the operation of, hospital facilities 11094
operated by one or more participating hospital agencies, including 11095
any combination of such purposes, all in such manner as to promote 11096
the public purpose stated in section 140.02 of the Revised Code. A 11097
city health district; general health district; board of alcohol, 11098
drug addiction, and mental health services; county board of 11099
developmental disabilities; the department of mental healthmental 11100
health and addiction services; the department of developmental 11101
disabilities; or any public body engaged in the education or 11102
training of health professions personnel may join in any such 11103
agreement for purposes related to its authority under laws 11104
applicable to it, and as such a participant shall be considered a 11105
public hospital agency or hospital agency for the purposes of this 11106
section.11107

       (B) An agreement entered into under authority of this section 11108
shall, where appropriate, provide for:11109

       (1) The manner in which the title to the hospital facilities, 11110
including the sites and interest in real estate pertaining 11111
thereto, is to be held, transferred, or disposed of;11112

       (2) Unless provided for by lease pursuant to section 140.05 11113
of the Revised Code, the method by which such hospital facilities 11114
are to be acquired, constructed, or otherwise improved and by 11115
which they shall be managed, occupied, maintained, and repaired, 11116
including the designation of one of the hospital agencies to have 11117
charge of the details of acquisition, construction, or improvement 11118
pursuant to the contracting procedures prescribed under the law 11119
applicable to one of the participating public hospital agencies;11120

       (3) The management or administration of any such programs, 11121
projects, activities, or services, which may include management or 11122
administration by one of said hospital agencies or a board or 11123
agency thereof;11124

       (4) Annual, or more frequent, reports to the participating 11125
hospital agencies as to the revenues and receipts pertaining to 11126
the subject of the agreement, the expenditures thereof, the status 11127
and application of other funds contributed under such agreement, 11128
and such other matters as may be specified by or pursuant to such 11129
agreement;11130

       (5) The manner of apportionment or sharing of costs of 11131
hospital facilities, any other applicable costs of management, 11132
operation, maintenance, and repair of hospital facilities, and 11133
costs for the programs, projects, activities, and services forming 11134
the subject of the agreement, which apportionment or sharing may 11135
be prescribed in fixed amounts, or determined by ratios, formulas, 11136
or otherwise, and paid as service charges, rentals, or in such 11137
other manner as provided in the agreement, and may include amounts 11138
sufficient to meet the bond service charges and other payments and 11139
deposits required under the bond proceedings for obligations 11140
issued to pay costs of hospital facilities. A hospital agency may 11141
commit itself to make such payments at least for so long as any 11142
such obligations are outstanding. In the apportionment, different 11143
classes of costs or expenses may be apportioned to one or more, 11144
all or less than all, of the participating hospital agencies as 11145
determined under such agreement.11146

       (C) An agreement entered into under authority of this section 11147
may provide for:11148

       (1) An orderly process for making determinations or advising 11149
as to planning, execution, implementation, and operation, which 11150
may include designating one of the hospital agencies, or a board 11151
thereof, for any of such purposes, provisions for a committee, 11152
board, or commission, and for representation thereon, or as may 11153
otherwise be provided;11154

       (2) Securing necessary personnel, including participation of 11155
personnel from the respective hospital agencies;11156

       (3) Standards or conditions for the admission or 11157
participation of patients and physicians;11158

       (4) Conditions for admittance of other hospital agencies to 11159
participation under the agreement;11160

       (5) Fixing or establishing the method of determining charges 11161
to be made for particular services;11162

       (6) The manner of amending, supplementing, terminating, or 11163
withdrawal or removal of any party from, the agreement, and the 11164
term of the agreement, or an indefinite term;11165

       (7) Designation of the applicants for or recipients of any 11166
federal, state, or other aid, assistance, or loans available by 11167
reason of any activities conducted under the agreement;11168

       (8) Designation of one or more of the participating hospital 11169
agencies to maintain, prepare, and submit, on behalf of all 11170
parties to the agreement, any or all records and reports with 11171
regard to the activities conducted under the agreement;11172

       (9) Any incidental use of the hospital facilities, or 11173
services thereof, by participating public hospital agencies for 11174
any of their lawful purposes, which incidental use does not impair 11175
the character of the facilities as hospital facilities for any 11176
purpose of this chapter;11177

       (10) Such other matters as the parties thereto may agree upon 11178
for the purposes of division (A) of this section.11179

       (D) For the purpose of paying or contributing its share under 11180
an agreement made under this section, a public hospital agency 11181
may:11182

       (1) Expend any moneys from its general fund, and from any 11183
other funds not otherwise restricted by law, but including funds 11184
for permanent improvements of hospital facilities of such public 11185
hospital agency where the contribution is to be made toward the 11186
costs of hospital facilities under the agreement, and including 11187
funds derived from levies for, or receipts available for, 11188
operating expenses of hospital facilities or services of such 11189
public hospital agency where the contribution or payment is to be 11190
made toward operating expenses of the hospital facilities or 11191
services under the agreement or for the services provided thereby;11192

       (2) Issue obligations under Chapter 133. or section 140.06, 11193
339.14, 339.15, 513.12, or 3345.12 of the Revised Code, or Section 11194
3 of Article XVIII, Ohio Constitution, if applicable to such 11195
public hospital agency, to pay costs of hospital facilities, or 11196
issue obligations under any other provision of law authorizing 11197
such public hospital agency to issue obligations for any costs of 11198
hospital facilities;11199

       (3) Levy taxes under Chapter 5705. or section 513.13 or 11200
3709.29 of the Revised Code, if applicable to such public hospital 11201
agency, provided that the purpose of such levy may include the 11202
provision of funds for either or both permanent improvements and 11203
current expenses if required for the contribution or payment of 11204
such hospital agency under such agreement, and each such public 11205
hospital agency may issue notes in anticipation of any such levy, 11206
pursuant to the procedures provided in section 5705.191 of the 11207
Revised Code if the levy is solely for current expenses, and in 11208
section 5705.193 of the Revised Code if the levy is all or in part 11209
for permanent improvements;11210

       (4) Contribute real and personal property or interest therein 11211
without necessity for competitive bidding or public auction on 11212
disposition of such property.11213

       (E) Any funds provided by public hospital agencies that are 11214
parties to an agreement entered into under this section shall be 11215
transferred to and placed in a separate fund or funds of such 11216
participating public hospital agency as is designated under the 11217
agreement. The funds shall be applied for the purposes provided in 11218
such agreement and are subject to audit. Pursuant to any 11219
determinations to be made under such agreement, the funds shall be 11220
deposited, invested, and disbursed under the provisions of law 11221
applicable to the public hospital agency in whose custody the 11222
funds are held. This division is subject to the provisions of any 11223
applicable bond proceedings under section 133.08, 140.06, 339.15, 11224
or 3345.12 of the Revised Code or Section 3 of Article XVIII, Ohio 11225
Constitution. The records and reports of such public hospital 11226
agency under Chapter 117. of the Revised Code and sections 3702.51 11227
to 3702.62 of the Revised Code, with respect to the funds shall be 11228
sufficient without necessity for reports thereon by the other 11229
public hospital agencies participating under such agreement.11230

       (F)(1) Prior to its entry into any such agreement, the public 11231
hospital agency must determine, and set forth in a resolution or 11232
ordinance, that the contribution to be made by it under such 11233
agreement will be fair consideration for value and benefit to be 11234
derived by it under such agreement and that the agreement will 11235
promote the public purpose stated in section 140.02 of the Revised 11236
Code.11237

       (2) If the agreement is with a board of county commissioners, 11238
board of county hospital trustees, or county hospital commission 11239
and is an initial agreement for the acquisition or operation of a 11240
county hospital operated by a board of county hospital trustees 11241
under section 339.06 of the Revised Code, the governing body of 11242
the public hospital agency shall submit the agreement, accompanied 11243
by the resolution or ordinance, to the board of county 11244
commissioners for review pursuant to section 339.091 of the 11245
Revised Code. The agreement may be entered into only if the board 11246
of county commissioners adopts a resolution under that section. 11247
The requirements of division (F)(2) of this section do not apply 11248
to the agreement if one or more hospitals classified as general 11249
hospitals by the director of health under section 3701.07 of the 11250
Revised Code are operating in the same county as the county 11251
hospital.11252

       Sec. 140.05.  (A)(1) A public hospital agency may lease any 11253
hospital facility to one or more hospital agencies for use as a 11254
hospital facility, or to one or more city or general health 11255
districts; boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 11256
services; county boards of developmental disabilities; the 11257
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services; 11258
or the department of developmental disabilities, for uses which 11259
they are authorized to make thereof under the laws applicable to 11260
them, or any combination of them, and they may lease such 11261
facilities to or from a hospital agency for such uses, upon such 11262
terms and conditions as are agreed upon by the parties. Such lease 11263
may be for a term of fifty years or less and may provide for an 11264
option of the lessee to renew for a term of fifty years or less, 11265
as therein set forth. Prior to entering into such lease, the 11266
governing body of any public hospital agency granting such lease 11267
must determine, and set forth in a resolution or ordinance, that 11268
such lease will promote the public purpose stated in section 11269
140.02 of the Revised Code and that the lessor public hospital 11270
agency will be duly benefited thereby.11271

       (2) If the lease is with a board of county commissioners, 11272
board of county hospital trustees, or county hospital commission 11273
and is an agreement for the initial lease of a county hospital 11274
operated by a board of county hospital trustees under section 11275
339.06 of the Revised Code, the governing body of the public 11276
hospital agency shall submit the agreement, accompanied by the 11277
resolution or ordinance, to the board of county commissioners for 11278
review pursuant to section 339.091 of the Revised Code. The 11279
agreement may be entered into only if the board of county 11280
commissioners adopts a resolution under that section. The 11281
requirements of division (A)(2) of this section do not apply to 11282
the lease if one or more hospitals classified as general hospitals 11283
by the director of health under section 3701.07 of the Revised 11284
Code are operating in the same county as the county hospital.11285

       (B) Any lease entered into pursuant to this section shall 11286
provide that in the event that the lessee fails faithfully and 11287
efficiently to administer, maintain, and operate such leased 11288
facilities as hospital facilities, or fails to provide the 11289
services thereof without regard to race, creed, color, or national 11290
origin, or fails to require that any hospital agency using such 11291
facilities or the services thereof shall not discriminate by 11292
reason of race, creed, color, or national origin, after an 11293
opportunity to be heard upon written charges, said lease may be 11294
terminated at the time, in the manner and with consequences 11295
therein provided. If any such lease does not contain terms to the 11296
effect provided in this division, it shall nevertheless be deemed 11297
to contain such terms which shall be implemented as determined by 11298
the governing body of the lessor.11299

       (C) Such lease may provide for rentals commencing at any time 11300
agreed upon, or advance rental, and continuing for such period 11301
therein provided, notwithstanding and without diminution, rebate, 11302
or setoff by reason of time of availability of the hospital 11303
facility for use, delays in construction, failure of completion, 11304
damage or destruction of the hospital facilities, or for any other 11305
reason.11306

       (D) Such lease may provide for the sale or transfer of title 11307
of the leased facilities pursuant to an option to purchase, 11308
lease-purchase, or installment purchase upon terms therein 11309
provided or to be determined as therein provided, which may 11310
include provision for the continued use thereof as a hospital 11311
facility for some reasonable period, taking into account efficient 11312
useful life and other factors, as is provided therein.11313

       (E) Such lease may be entered as part of or in connection 11314
with an agreement pursuant to section 140.03 of the Revised Code. 11315
Any hospital facilities which are the subject of an agreement 11316
entered into under section 140.03 of the Revised Code may be 11317
leased pursuant to this section.11318

       (F) If land acquired by a public hospital agency for a 11319
hospital facility is adjacent to an existing hospital facility 11320
owned by another hospital agency, the public hospital agency may, 11321
in connection with such acquisition or the leasing of such land 11322
and hospital facilities thereon to one or more hospital agencies, 11323
enter into an agreement with the hospital agency which owns such 11324
adjacent hospital facility for the use of common walls in the 11325
construction, operation, or maintenance of hospital facilities of 11326
the public hospital agency. For the purpose of construction, 11327
operation, or maintenance of hospital facilities, a public 11328
hospital agency may acquire by purchase, gift, lease, lease with 11329
option to purchase, lease-purchase, or installment purchase, 11330
easement deed, or other agreement, real estate and interests in 11331
real estate, including rights to use space over, under or upon 11332
real property owned by others, and support, access, common wall, 11333
and other rights in connection therewith. Any public hospital 11334
agency or other political subdivision or any public agency, board, 11335
commission, institution, body, or instrumentality may grant such 11336
real estate, interests, or rights to any hospital agency upon such 11337
terms as are agreed upon without necessity for competitive bidding 11338
or public auction.11339

       Sec. 145.01.  As used in this chapter:11340

       (A) "Public employee" means:11341

       (1) Any person holding an office, not elective, under the 11342
state or any county, township, municipal corporation, park 11343
district, conservancy district, sanitary district, health 11344
district, metropolitan housing authority, state retirement board, 11345
Ohio historical society, public library, county law library, union 11346
cemetery, joint hospital, institutional commissary, state 11347
university, or board, bureau, commission, council, committee, 11348
authority, or administrative body as the same are, or have been, 11349
created by action of the general assembly or by the legislative 11350
authority of any of the units of local government named in 11351
division (A)(1) of this section, or employed and paid in whole or 11352
in part by the state or any of the authorities named in division 11353
(A)(1) of this section in any capacity not covered by section 11354
742.01, 3307.01, 3309.01, or 5505.01 of the Revised Code.11355

       (2) A person who is a member of the public employees 11356
retirement system and who continues to perform the same or similar 11357
duties under the direction of a contractor who has contracted to 11358
take over what before the date of the contract was a publicly 11359
operated function. The governmental unit with which the contract 11360
has been made shall be deemed the employer for the purposes of 11361
administering this chapter.11362

       (3) Any person who is an employee of a public employer, 11363
notwithstanding that the person's compensation for that employment 11364
is derived from funds of a person or entity other than the 11365
employer. Credit for such service shall be included as total 11366
service credit, provided that the employee makes the payments 11367
required by this chapter, and the employer makes the payments 11368
required by sections 145.48 and 145.51 of the Revised Code.11369

       (4) A person who elects in accordance with section 145.015 of 11370
the Revised Code to remain a contributing member of the public 11371
employees retirement system.11372

       (5) A person who is an employee of the legal rights service 11373
on September 30, 2012, and continues to be employed by the 11374
nonprofit entity established under Section 319.20 of Am. Sub. H.B. 11375
153 of the 129th general assembly. The nonprofit entity is the 11376
employer for the purpose of this chapter.11377

       In all cases of doubt, the public employees retirement board 11378
shall determine under section 145.036, 145.037, or 145.038 of the 11379
Revised Code whether any person is a public employee, and its 11380
decision is final.11381

       (B) "Member" means any public employee, other than a public 11382
employee excluded or exempted from membership in the retirement 11383
system by section 145.03, 145.031, 145.032, 145.033, 145.034, 11384
145.035, or 145.38 of the Revised Code. "Member" includes a PERS 11385
retirant who becomes a member under division (C) of section 145.38 11386
of the Revised Code. "Member" also includes a disability benefit 11387
recipient.11388

       (C) "Head of the department" means the elective or appointive 11389
head of the several executive, judicial, and administrative 11390
departments, institutions, boards, and commissions of the state 11391
and local government as the same are created and defined by the 11392
laws of this state or, in case of a charter government, by that 11393
charter.11394

       (D) "Employer" or "public employer" means the state or any 11395
county, township, municipal corporation, park district, 11396
conservancy district, sanitary district, health district, 11397
metropolitan housing authority, state retirement board, Ohio 11398
historical society, public library, county law library, union 11399
cemetery, joint hospital, institutional commissary, state medical 11400
university, state university, or board, bureau, commission, 11401
council, committee, authority, or administrative body as the same 11402
are, or have been, created by action of the general assembly or by 11403
the legislative authority of any of the units of local government 11404
named in this division not covered by section 742.01, 3307.01, 11405
3309.01, or 5505.01 of the Revised Code. In addition, "employer" 11406
means the employer of any public employee.11407

       (E) "Prior military service" also means all service credited 11408
for active duty with the armed forces of the United States as 11409
provided in section 145.30 of the Revised Code.11410

       (F) "Contributor" means any person who has an account in the 11411
employees' savings fund created by section 145.23 of the Revised 11412
Code. When used in the sections listed in division (B) of section 11413
145.82 of the Revised Code, "contributor" includes any person 11414
participating in a PERS defined contribution plan.11415

       (G) "Beneficiary" or "beneficiaries" means the estate or a 11416
person or persons who, as the result of the death of a member, 11417
contributor, or retirant, qualify for or are receiving some right 11418
or benefit under this chapter.11419

       (H)(1) "Total service credit," except as provided in section 11420
145.37 of the Revised Code, means all service credited to a member 11421
of the retirement system since last becoming a member, including 11422
restored service credit as provided by section 145.31 of the 11423
Revised Code; credit purchased under sections 145.293 and 145.299 11424
of the Revised Code; all the member's military service credit 11425
computed as provided in this chapter; all service credit 11426
established pursuant to section 145.297 of the Revised Code; and 11427
any other service credited under this chapter. For the exclusive 11428
purpose of satisfying the service credit requirement and of 11429
determining eligibility for benefits under sections 145.32, 11430
145.33, 145.331, 145.332, 145.35, 145.36, and 145.361 of the 11431
Revised Code, "five or more years of total service credit" means 11432
sixty or more calendar months of contributing service in this 11433
system.11434

       (2) "One and one-half years of contributing service credit," 11435
as used in division (B) of section 145.45 of the Revised Code, 11436
also means eighteen or more calendar months of employment by a 11437
municipal corporation that formerly operated its own retirement 11438
plan for its employees or a part of its employees, provided that 11439
all employees of that municipal retirement plan who have eighteen 11440
or more months of such employment, upon establishing membership in 11441
the public employees retirement system, shall make a payment of 11442
the contributions they would have paid had they been members of 11443
this system for the eighteen months of employment preceding the 11444
date membership was established. When that payment has been made 11445
by all such employee members, a corresponding payment shall be 11446
paid into the employers' accumulation fund by that municipal 11447
corporation as the employer of the employees.11448

       (3) Where a member also is a member of the state teachers 11449
retirement system or the school employees retirement system, or 11450
both, except in cases of retirement on a combined basis pursuant 11451
to section 145.37 of the Revised Code or as provided in section 11452
145.383 of the Revised Code, service credit for any period shall 11453
be credited on the basis of the ratio that contributions to the 11454
public employees retirement system bear to total contributions in 11455
all state retirement systems.11456

       (4) Not more than one year of credit may be given for any 11457
period of twelve months.11458

       (5) "Ohio service credit" means credit for service that was 11459
rendered to the state or any of its political subdivisions or any 11460
employer.11461

       (I) "Regular interest" means interest at any rates for the 11462
respective funds and accounts as the public employees retirement 11463
board may determine from time to time.11464

       (J) "Accumulated contributions" means the sum of all amounts 11465
credited to a contributor's individual account in the employees' 11466
savings fund together with any interest credited to the 11467
contributor's account under section 145.471 or 145.472 of the 11468
Revised Code.11469

       (K)(1) "Final average salary" means the greater of the 11470
following:11471

       (a) The sum of the member's earnable salaries for the 11472
appropriate number of calendar years of contributing service, 11473
determined under section 145.017 of the Revised Code, in which the 11474
member's earnable salary was highest, divided by the same number 11475
of calendar years or, if the member has fewer than the appropriate 11476
number of calendar years of contributing service, the total of the 11477
member's earnable salary for all years of contributing service 11478
divided by the number of calendar years of the member's 11479
contributing service;11480

       (b) The sum of a member's earnable salaries for the 11481
appropriate number of consecutive months, determined under section 11482
145.017 of the Revised Code, that were the member's last months of 11483
service, up to and including the last month, divided by the 11484
appropriate number of years or, if the time between the first and 11485
final months of service is less than the appropriate number of 11486
consecutive months, the total of the member's earnable salary for 11487
all months of contributing service divided by the number of years 11488
between the first and final months of contributing service, 11489
including any fraction of a year, except that the member's final 11490
average salary shall not exceed the member's highest earnable 11491
salary for any twelve consecutive months.11492

        (2) If contributions were made in only one calendar year, 11493
"final average salary" means the member's total earnable salary.11494

       (L) "Annuity" means payments for life derived from 11495
contributions made by a contributor and paid from the annuity and 11496
pension reserve fund as provided in this chapter. All annuities 11497
shall be paid in twelve equal monthly installments.11498

       (M) "Annuity reserve" means the present value, computed upon 11499
the basis of the mortality and other tables adopted by the board, 11500
of all payments to be made on account of any annuity, or benefit 11501
in lieu of any annuity, granted to a retirant as provided in this 11502
chapter.11503

       (N)(1) "Disability retirement" means retirement as provided 11504
in section 145.36 of the Revised Code.11505

       (2) "Disability allowance" means an allowance paid on account 11506
of disability under section 145.361 of the Revised Code.11507

       (3) "Disability benefit" means a benefit paid as disability 11508
retirement under section 145.36 of the Revised Code, as a 11509
disability allowance under section 145.361 of the Revised Code, or 11510
as a disability benefit under section 145.37 of the Revised Code.11511

       (4) "Disability benefit recipient" means a member who is 11512
receiving a disability benefit.11513

       (O) "Age and service retirement" means retirement as provided 11514
in sections 145.32, 145.33, 145.331, 145.332, 145.37, and 145.46 11515
and former section 145.34 of the Revised Code.11516

       (P) "Pensions" means annual payments for life derived from 11517
contributions made by the employer that at the time of retirement 11518
are credited into the annuity and pension reserve fund from the 11519
employers' accumulation fund and paid from the annuity and pension 11520
reserve fund as provided in this chapter. All pensions shall be 11521
paid in twelve equal monthly installments.11522

       (Q) "Retirement allowance" means the pension plus that 11523
portion of the benefit derived from contributions made by the 11524
member.11525

       (R)(1) Except as otherwise provided in division (R) of this 11526
section, "earnable salary" means all salary, wages, and other 11527
earnings paid to a contributor by reason of employment in a 11528
position covered by the retirement system. The salary, wages, and 11529
other earnings shall be determined prior to determination of the 11530
amount required to be contributed to the employees' savings fund 11531
under section 145.47 of the Revised Code and without regard to 11532
whether any of the salary, wages, or other earnings are treated as 11533
deferred income for federal income tax purposes. "Earnable salary" 11534
includes the following:11535

       (a) Payments made by the employer in lieu of salary, wages, 11536
or other earnings for sick leave, personal leave, or vacation used 11537
by the contributor;11538

       (b) Payments made by the employer for the conversion of sick 11539
leave, personal leave, and vacation leave accrued, but not used if 11540
the payment is made during the year in which the leave is accrued, 11541
except that payments made pursuant to section 124.383 or 124.386 11542
of the Revised Code are not earnable salary;11543

       (c) Allowances paid by the employer for maintenance, 11544
consisting of housing, laundry, and meals, as certified to the 11545
retirement board by the employer or the head of the department 11546
that employs the contributor;11547

       (d) Fees and commissions paid under section 507.09 of the 11548
Revised Code;11549

       (e) Payments that are made under a disability leave program 11550
sponsored by the employer and for which the employer is required 11551
by section 145.296 of the Revised Code to make periodic employer 11552
and employee contributions;11553

       (f) Amounts included pursuant to former division (K)(3) and 11554
former division (Y) of this section and section 145.2916 of the 11555
Revised Code.11556

       (2) "Earnable salary" does not include any of the following:11557

       (a) Fees and commissions, other than those paid under section 11558
507.09 of the Revised Code, paid as sole compensation for personal 11559
services and fees and commissions for special services over and 11560
above services for which the contributor receives a salary;11561

       (b) Amounts paid by the employer to provide life insurance, 11562
sickness, accident, endowment, health, medical, hospital, dental, 11563
or surgical coverage, or other insurance for the contributor or 11564
the contributor's family, or amounts paid by the employer to the 11565
contributor in lieu of providing the insurance;11566

       (c) Incidental benefits, including lodging, food, laundry, 11567
parking, or services furnished by the employer, or use of the 11568
employer's property or equipment, or amounts paid by the employer 11569
to the contributor in lieu of providing the incidental benefits;11570

       (d) Reimbursement for job-related expenses authorized by the 11571
employer, including moving and travel expenses and expenses 11572
related to professional development;11573

       (e) Payments for accrued but unused sick leave, personal 11574
leave, or vacation that are made at any time other than in the 11575
year in which the sick leave, personal leave, or vacation was 11576
accrued;11577

       (f) Payments made to or on behalf of a contributor that are 11578
in excess of the annual compensation that may be taken into 11579
account by the retirement system under division (a)(17) of section 11580
401 of the "Internal Revenue Code of 1986," 100 Stat. 2085, 26 11581
U.S.C.A. 401(a)(17), as amended;11582

       (g) Payments made under division (B), (C), or (E) of section 11583
5923.05 of the Revised Code, Section 4 of Substitute Senate Bill 11584
No. 3 of the 119th general assembly, Section 3 of Amended 11585
Substitute Senate Bill No. 164 of the 124th general assembly, or 11586
Amended Substitute House Bill No. 405 of the 124th general 11587
assembly;11588

       (h) Anything of value received by the contributor that is 11589
based on or attributable to retirement or an agreement to retire, 11590
except that payments made on or before January 1, 1989, that are 11591
based on or attributable to an agreement to retire shall be 11592
included in earnable salary if both of the following apply:11593

       (i) The payments are made in accordance with contract 11594
provisions that were in effect prior to January 1, 1986;11595

       (ii) The employer pays the retirement system an amount 11596
specified by the retirement board equal to the additional 11597
liability resulting from the payments.11598

       (i) The portion of any amount included in section 145.2916 of 11599
the Revised Code that represents employer contributions.11600

       (3) The retirement board shall determine by rule whether any 11601
compensation not enumerated in division (R) of this section is 11602
earnable salary, and its decision shall be final.11603

       (S) "Pension reserve" means the present value, computed upon 11604
the basis of the mortality and other tables adopted by the board, 11605
of all payments to be made on account of any retirement allowance 11606
or benefit in lieu of any retirement allowance, granted to a 11607
member or beneficiary under this chapter.11608

       (T) "Contributing service" means both of the following:11609

       (1) All service credited to a member of the system since 11610
January 1, 1935, for which contributions are made as required by 11611
sections 145.47, 145.48, and 145.483 of the Revised Code. In any 11612
year subsequent to 1934, credit for any service shall be allowed 11613
in accordance with section 145.016 of the Revised Code.11614

       (2) Service credit received by election of the member under 11615
section 145.814 of the Revised Code.11616

       (U) "State retirement board" means the public employees 11617
retirement board, the school employees retirement board, or the 11618
state teachers retirement board.11619

       (V) "Retirant" means any former member who retires and is 11620
receiving a monthly allowance as provided in sections 145.32, 11621
145.33, 145.331, 145.332, and 145.46 and former section 145.34 of 11622
the Revised Code.11623

       (W) "Employer contribution" means the amount paid by an 11624
employer as determined under section 145.48 of the Revised Code.11625

       (X) "Public service terminates" means the last day for which 11626
a public employee is compensated for services performed for an 11627
employer or the date of the employee's death, whichever occurs 11628
first.11629

       (Y) "Five years of service credit," for the exclusive purpose 11630
of satisfying the service credit requirements and of determining 11631
eligibility under section 145.33 or 145.332 of the Revised Code, 11632
means employment covered under this chapter or under a former 11633
retirement plan operated, recognized, or endorsed by the employer 11634
prior to coverage under this chapter or under a combination of the 11635
coverage.11636

       (Z) "Deputy sheriff" means any person who is commissioned and 11637
employed as a full-time peace officer by the sheriff of any 11638
county, and has been so employed since on or before December 31, 11639
1965; any person who is or has been commissioned and employed as a 11640
peace officer by the sheriff of any county since January 1, 1966, 11641
and who has received a certificate attesting to the person's 11642
satisfactory completion of the peace officer training school as 11643
required by section 109.77 of the Revised Code; or any person 11644
deputized by the sheriff of any county and employed pursuant to 11645
section 2301.12 of the Revised Code as a criminal bailiff or court 11646
constable who has received a certificate attesting to the person's 11647
satisfactory completion of the peace officer training school as 11648
required by section 109.77 of the Revised Code.11649

       (AA) "Township constable or police officer in a township 11650
police department or district" means any person who is 11651
commissioned and employed as a full-time peace officer pursuant to 11652
Chapter 505. or 509. of the Revised Code, who has received a 11653
certificate attesting to the person's satisfactory completion of 11654
the peace officer training school as required by section 109.77 of 11655
the Revised Code.11656

       (BB) "Drug agent" means any person who is either of the 11657
following:11658

       (1) Employed full time as a narcotics agent by a county 11659
narcotics agency created pursuant to section 307.15 of the Revised 11660
Code and has received a certificate attesting to the satisfactory 11661
completion of the peace officer training school as required by 11662
section 109.77 of the Revised Code;11663

       (2) Employed full time as an undercover drug agent as defined 11664
in section 109.79 of the Revised Code and is in compliance with 11665
section 109.77 of the Revised Code.11666

       (CC) "Department of public safety enforcement agent" means a 11667
full-time employee of the department of public safety who is 11668
designated under section 5502.14 of the Revised Code as an 11669
enforcement agent and who is in compliance with section 109.77 of 11670
the Revised Code.11671

       (DD) "Natural resources law enforcement staff officer" means 11672
a full-time employee of the department of natural resources who is 11673
designated a natural resources law enforcement staff officer under 11674
section 1501.013 of the Revised Code and is in compliance with 11675
section 109.77 of the Revised Code.11676

       (EE) "Park officer" means a full-time employee of the 11677
department of natural resources who is designated a park officer 11678
under section 1541.10 of the Revised Code and is in compliance 11679
with section 109.77 of the Revised Code.11680

       (FF) "Forest officer" means a full-time employee of the 11681
department of natural resources who is designated a forest officer 11682
under section 1503.29 of the Revised Code and is in compliance 11683
with section 109.77 of the Revised Code.11684

       (GG) "Preserve officer" means a full-time employee of the 11685
department of natural resources who is designated a preserve 11686
officer under section 1517.10 of the Revised Code and is in 11687
compliance with section 109.77 of the Revised Code.11688

       (HH) "Wildlife officer" means a full-time employee of the 11689
department of natural resources who is designated a wildlife 11690
officer under section 1531.13 of the Revised Code and is in 11691
compliance with section 109.77 of the Revised Code.11692

       (II) "State watercraft officer" means a full-time employee of 11693
the department of natural resources who is designated a state 11694
watercraft officer under section 1547.521 of the Revised Code and 11695
is in compliance with section 109.77 of the Revised Code.11696

       (JJ) "Park district police officer" means a full-time 11697
employee of a park district who is designated pursuant to section 11698
511.232 or 1545.13 of the Revised Code and is in compliance with 11699
section 109.77 of the Revised Code.11700

       (KK) "Conservancy district officer" means a full-time 11701
employee of a conservancy district who is designated pursuant to 11702
section 6101.75 of the Revised Code and is in compliance with 11703
section 109.77 of the Revised Code.11704

       (LL) "Municipal police officer" means a member of the 11705
organized police department of a municipal corporation who is 11706
employed full time, is in compliance with section 109.77 of the 11707
Revised Code, and is not a member of the Ohio police and fire 11708
pension fund.11709

       (MM) "Veterans' home police officer" means any person who is 11710
employed at a veterans' home as a police officer pursuant to 11711
section 5907.02 of the Revised Code and is in compliance with 11712
section 109.77 of the Revised Code.11713

       (NN) "Special police officer for a mental health institution" 11714
means any person who is designated as such pursuant to section 11715
5119.145119.08 of the Revised Code and is in compliance with 11716
section 109.77 of the Revised Code.11717

       (OO) "Special police officer for an institution for the 11718
developmentally disabled" means any person who is designated as 11719
such pursuant to section 5123.13 of the Revised Code and is in 11720
compliance with section 109.77 of the Revised Code.11721

       (PP) "State university law enforcement officer" means any 11722
person who is employed full time as a state university law 11723
enforcement officer pursuant to section 3345.04 of the Revised 11724
Code and who is in compliance with section 109.77 of the Revised 11725
Code.11726

       (QQ) "House sergeant at arms" means any person appointed by 11727
the speaker of the house of representatives under division (B)(1) 11728
of section 101.311 of the Revised Code who has arrest authority 11729
under division (E)(1) of that section.11730

       (RR) "Assistant house sergeant at arms" means any person 11731
appointed by the house sergeant at arms under division (C)(1) of 11732
section 101.311 of the Revised Code.11733

       (SS) "Regional transit authority police officer" means a 11734
person who is employed full time as a regional transit authority 11735
police officer under division (Y) of section 306.35 of the Revised 11736
Code and is in compliance with section 109.77 of the Revised Code.11737

       (TT) "State highway patrol police officer" means a special 11738
police officer employed full time and designated by the 11739
superintendent of the state highway patrol pursuant to section 11740
5503.09 of the Revised Code or a person serving full time as a 11741
special police officer pursuant to that section on a permanent 11742
basis on October 21, 1997, who is in compliance with section 11743
109.77 of the Revised Code.11744

       (UU) "Municipal public safety director" means a person who 11745
serves full time as the public safety director of a municipal 11746
corporation with the duty of directing the activities of the 11747
municipal corporation's police department and fire department.11748

        (VV) Notwithstanding section 2901.01 of the Revised Code, 11749
"PERS law enforcement officer" means a sheriff or any of the 11750
following whose primary duties are to preserve the peace, protect 11751
life and property, and enforce the laws of this state: a deputy 11752
sheriff, township constable or police officer in a township police 11753
department or district, drug agent, department of public safety 11754
enforcement agent, natural resources law enforcement staff 11755
officer, park officer, forest officer, preserve officer, wildlife 11756
officer, state watercraft officer, park district police officer, 11757
conservancy district officer, veterans' home police officer, 11758
special police officer for a mental health institution, special 11759
police officer for an institution for the developmentally 11760
disabled, state university law enforcement officer, municipal 11761
police officer, house sergeant at arms, assistant house sergeant 11762
at arms, regional transit authority police officer, or state 11763
highway patrol police officer. "PERS law enforcement officer" also 11764
includes a person serving as a municipal public safety director at 11765
any time during the period from September 29, 2005, to March 24, 11766
2009, if the duties of that service were to preserve the peace, 11767
protect life and property, and enforce the laws of this state.11768

       (WW) "Hamilton county municipal court bailiff" means a person 11769
appointed by the clerk of courts of the Hamilton county municipal 11770
court under division (A)(3) of section 1901.32 of the Revised Code 11771
who is employed full time as a bailiff or deputy bailiff, who has 11772
received a certificate attesting to the person's satisfactory 11773
completion of the peace officer basic training described in 11774
division (D)(1) of section 109.77 of the Revised Code.11775

       (XX) "PERS public safety officer" means a Hamilton county 11776
municipal court bailiff, or any of the following whose primary 11777
duties are other than to preserve the peace, protect life and 11778
property, and enforce the laws of this state: a deputy sheriff, 11779
township constable or police officer in a township police 11780
department or district, drug agent, department of public safety 11781
enforcement agent, natural resources law enforcement staff 11782
officer, park officer, forest officer, preserve officer, wildlife 11783
officer, state watercraft officer, park district police officer, 11784
conservancy district officer, veterans' home police officer, 11785
special police officer for a mental health institution, special 11786
police officer for an institution for the mentally retarded and11787
developmentally disabled, state university law enforcement 11788
officer, municipal police officer, house sergeant at arms, 11789
assistant house sergeant at arms, regional transit authority 11790
police officer, or state highway patrol police officer. "PERS 11791
public safety officer" also includes a person serving as a 11792
municipal public safety director at any time during the period 11793
from September 29, 2005, to March 24, 2009, if the duties of that 11794
service were other than to preserve the peace, protect life and 11795
property, and enforce the laws of this state.11796

       (YY) "Fiduciary" means a person who does any of the 11797
following:11798

       (1) Exercises any discretionary authority or control with 11799
respect to the management of the system or with respect to the 11800
management or disposition of its assets;11801

       (2) Renders investment advice for a fee, direct or indirect, 11802
with respect to money or property of the system;11803

       (3) Has any discretionary authority or responsibility in the 11804
administration of the system.11805

       (ZZ) "Actuary" means an individual who satisfies all of the 11806
following requirements:11807

       (1) Is a member of the American academy of actuaries;11808

       (2) Is an associate or fellow of the society of actuaries;11809

       (3) Has a minimum of five years' experience in providing 11810
actuarial services to public retirement plans.11811

       (AAA) "PERS defined benefit plan" means the plan described in 11812
sections 145.201 to 145.79 of the Revised Code.11813

       (BBB) "PERS defined contribution plans" means the plan or 11814
plans established under section 145.81 of the Revised Code.11815

       Sec. 145.012.  (A) "Public employee," as defined in division 11816
(A) of section 145.01 of the Revised Code, does not include any 11817
person:11818

       (1) Who is employed by a private, temporary-help service and 11819
performs services under the direction of a public employer or is 11820
employed on a contractual basis as an independent contractor under 11821
a personal service contract with a public employer;11822

       (2) Who is an emergency employee serving on a temporary basis 11823
in case of fire, snow, earthquake, flood, or other similar 11824
emergency;11825

       (3) Who is employed in a program established pursuant to the 11826
"Job Training Partnership Act," 96 Stat. 1322 (1982), 29 U.S.C.A. 11827
1501;11828

       (4) Who is an appointed member of either the motor vehicle 11829
salvage dealers board or the motor vehicle dealer's board whose 11830
rate and method of payment are determined pursuant to division (J) 11831
of section 124.15 of the Revised Code;11832

       (5) Who is employed as an election worker and paid less than 11833
five hundred dollars per calendar year for that service;11834

       (6) Who is employed as a firefighter in a position requiring 11835
satisfactory completion of a firefighter training course approved 11836
under former section 3303.07 or section 4765.55 of the Revised 11837
Code or conducted under section 3737.33 of the Revised Code except 11838
for the following:11839

       (a) Any firefighter who has elected under section 145.013 of 11840
the Revised Code to remain a contributing member of the public 11841
employees retirement system;11842

       (b) Any firefighter who was eligible to transfer from the 11843
public employees retirement system to the Ohio police and fire 11844
pension fund under section 742.51 or 742.515 of the Revised Code 11845
and did not elect to transfer;11846

       (c) Any firefighter who has elected under section 742.516 of 11847
the Revised Code to transfer from the Ohio police and fire pension 11848
fund to the public employees retirement system.11849

       (7) Who is a member of the board of health of a city or 11850
general health district, which pursuant to sections 3709.051 and 11851
3709.07 of the Revised Code includes a combined health district, 11852
and whose compensation for attendance at meetings of the board is 11853
set forth in division (B) of section 3709.02 or division (B) of 11854
section 3709.05 of the Revised Code, as appropriate;11855

       (8) Who participates in an alternative retirement plan 11856
established under Chapter 3305. of the Revised Code;11857

       (9) Who is a member of the board of directors of a sanitary 11858
district established under Chapter 6115. of the Revised Code;11859

       (10) Who is a member of the unemployment compensation 11860
advisory council;11861

       (11) Who is an employee, officer, or governor-appointed 11862
member of the board of directors of the nonprofit corporation 11863
formed under section 187.01 of the Revised Code;11864

       (12) Who is employed by the nonprofit entity established to 11865
provide advocacy services and a client assistance program for 11866
people with disabilities under Section 319.20 of Am. Sub. H.B. 153 11867
of the 129th general assembly and whose employment begins on or 11868
after October 1, 2012.11869

       (B) No inmate of a correctional institution operated by the 11870
department of rehabilitation and correction, no patient in a 11871
hospital for the mentally ill or criminally insane operated by the 11872
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services, 11873
no resident in an institution for the mentally retarded operated 11874
by the department of developmental disabilities, no resident 11875
admitted as a patient of a veterans' home operated under Chapter 11876
5907. of the Revised Code, and no resident of a county home shall 11877
be considered as a public employee for the purpose of establishing 11878
membership or calculating service credit or benefits under this 11879
chapter. Nothing in this division shall be construed to affect any 11880
service credit attained by any person who was a public employee 11881
before becoming an inmate, patient, or resident at any institution 11882
listed in this division, or the payment of any benefit for which 11883
such a person or such a person's beneficiaries otherwise would be 11884
eligible.11885

       Sec. 145.22.  (A) The public employees retirement board shall 11886
have prepared annually by or under the supervision of an actuary 11887
an actuarial valuation of the pension assets, liabilities, and 11888
funding requirements of the public employees retirement system as 11889
established pursuant to this chapter. The actuary shall complete 11890
the valuation in accordance with actuarial standards of practice 11891
promulgated by the actuarial standards board of the American 11892
academy of actuaries and prepare a report of the valuation. The 11893
report shall include all of the following:11894

       (1) A summary of the benefit provisions evaluated;11895

       (2) A summary of the census data and financial information 11896
used in the valuation;11897

       (3) A description of the actuarial assumptions, actuarial 11898
cost method, and asset valuation method used in the valuation, 11899
including a statement of the assumed rate of payroll growth and 11900
assumed rate of growth or decline in the number of members 11901
contributing to the retirement system;11902

       (4) A summary of findings that includes a statement of the 11903
actuarial accrued pension liabilities and unfunded actuarial 11904
accrued pension liabilities;11905

       (5) A schedule showing the effect of any changes in the 11906
benefit provisions, actuarial assumptions, or cost methods since 11907
the last annual actuarial valuation;11908

       (6) A statement of whether contributions to the retirement 11909
system are expected to be sufficient to satisfy the funding 11910
objectives established by the board.11911

       The board shall submit the report to the Ohio retirement 11912
study council, the director of budget and management, and the 11913
standing committees of the house of representatives and the senate 11914
with primary responsibility for retirement legislation immediately 11915
upon its availability and not later than the first day of 11916
September following the year for which the valuation was made.11917

       (B) At such time as the public employees retirement board 11918
determines, and at least once in each five-year period, the board 11919
shall have prepared by or under the supervision of an actuary an 11920
actuarial investigation of the mortality, service, and other 11921
experience of the members, retirants, contributors, and 11922
beneficiaries of the system to update the actuarial assumptions 11923
used in the actuarial valuation required by division (A) of this 11924
section. The actuary shall prepare a report of the actuarial 11925
investigation. The report shall be prepared and any recommended 11926
changes in actuarial assumptions shall be made in accordance with 11927
the actuarial standards of practice promulgated by the actuarial 11928
standards board of the American academy of actuaries. The report 11929
shall include all of the following:11930

       (1) A summary of relevant decrement and economic assumption 11931
experience observed over the period of the investigation;11932

       (2) Recommended changes in actuarial assumptions to be used 11933
in subsequent actuarial valuations required by division (A) of 11934
this section;11935

       (3) A measurement of the financial effect of the recommended 11936
changes in actuarial assumptions.11937

       The board shall submit the report to the Ohio retirement 11938
study council and the standing committees of the house of 11939
representatives and the senate with primary responsibility for 11940
retirement legislation not later than the first day of November 11941
following the last fiscal year of the period the report covers.11942

       (C) The board may at any time request the actuary to make any 11943
studies or actuarial valuations to determine the adequacy of the 11944
contribution rate determined under section 145.48 of the Revised 11945
Code, and those rates may be adjusted by the board, as recommended 11946
by the actuary, effective as of the first of any year thereafter.11947

       (D) The board shall have prepared by or under the supervision 11948
of an actuary an actuarial analysis of any introduced legislation 11949
expected to have a measurable financial impact on the retirement 11950
system. The actuarial analysis shall be completed in accordance 11951
with the actuarial standards of practice promulgated by the 11952
actuarial standards board of the American academy of actuaries. 11953
The actuary shall prepare a report of the actuarial analysis, 11954
which shall include all of the following:11955

       (1) A summary of the statutory changes that are being 11956
evaluated;11957

       (2) A description of or reference to the actuarial 11958
assumptions and actuarial cost method used in the report;11959

       (3) A description of the participant group or groups included 11960
in the report;11961

       (4) A statement of the financial impact of the legislation, 11962
including the resulting increase, if any, in the employer normal 11963
cost percentage; the increase, if any, in actuarial accrued 11964
liabilities; and the per cent of payroll that would be required to 11965
amortize the increase in actuarial accrued liabilities as a level 11966
per cent of covered payroll for all active members over a period 11967
not to exceed thirty years;11968

       (5) A statement of whether the scheduled contributions to the 11969
system after the proposed change is enacted are expected to be 11970
sufficient to satisfy the funding objectives established by the 11971
board.11972

       Not later than sixty days from the date of introduction of 11973
the legislation, the board shall submit a copy of the actuarial 11974
analysis to the legislative service commission, the standing 11975
committees of the house of representatives and the senate with 11976
primary responsibility for retirement legislation, and the Ohio 11977
retirement study council.11978

       (E) The board shall have prepared annually a report giving a 11979
full accounting of the revenues and costs relating to the 11980
provision of benefits under sections 145.58 and 145.584 of the 11981
Revised Code. The report shall be made as of December 31, 1997, 11982
and the thirty-first day of December of each year thereafter. The 11983
report shall include the following:11984

       (1) A description of the statutory authority for the benefits 11985
provided;11986

       (2) A summary of the benefits;11987

       (3) A summary of the eligibility requirements for the 11988
benefits;11989

       (4) A statement of the number of participants eligible for 11990
the benefits;11991

       (5) A description of the accounting, asset valuation, and 11992
funding method used to provide the benefits;11993

       (6) A statement of the net assets available for the provision 11994
of the benefits as of the last day of the fiscal year;11995

       (7) A statement of any changes in the net assets available 11996
for the provision of benefits, including participant and employer 11997
contributions, net investment income, administrative expenses, and 11998
benefits provided to participants, as of the last day of the 11999
fiscal year;12000

       (8) For the last six consecutive fiscal years, a schedule of 12001
the net assets available for the benefits, the annual cost of 12002
benefits, administrative expenses incurred, and annual employer 12003
contributions allocated for the provision of benefits;12004

       (9) A description of any significant changes that affect the 12005
comparability of the report required under this division;12006

       (10) A statement of the amount paid under division (C) of 12007
section 145.58 of the Revised Code.12008

       The board shall submit the report to the Ohio retirement 12009
study council, the director of budget and management, and the 12010
standing committees of the house of representatives and the senate 12011
with primary responsibility for retirement legislation immediately 12012
upon its availability and not later than the thirtieth day of June 12013
following the year for which the report was made.12014

       Sec. 149.01.  Each elective state officer, the adjutant 12015
general, the adult parole authority, the department of 12016
agriculture, the director of administrative services, the public 12017
utilities commission, the superintendent of insurance, the 12018
superintendent of financial institutions, the superintendent of 12019
purchases and printing, the fire marshal, the industrial 12020
commission, the administrator of workers' compensation, the state 12021
department of transportation, the department of health, the state 12022
medical board, the state dental board, the board of embalmers and 12023
funeral directors, the Ohio commission for the blind, the 12024
accountancy board of Ohio, the state council of uniform state 12025
laws, the board of commissioners of the sinking fund, the 12026
department of taxation, the board of tax appeals, the division of 12027
liquor control, the director of state armories, the trustees of 12028
the Ohio state university, and every private or quasi-public 12029
institution, association, board, or corporation receiving state 12030
money for its use and purpose shall make annually, at the end of 12031
each fiscal year, in quadruplicate, a report of the transactions 12032
and proceedings of that office or department for that fiscal year, 12033
excepting receipts and disbursements unless otherwise specifically 12034
required by law. The report shall contain a summary of the 12035
official acts of the officer, board, council, commission, 12036
institution, association, or corporation and any suggestions and 12037
recommendations that are proper. On the first day of August of 12038
each year, one12039

       One of the reports shall be filed with the governor, one with 12040
the secretary of state, and one with the state library, and one 12041
shall be kept on file in the office of the officer, board, 12042
council, commission, institution, association, or corporation. The 12043
reports shall be so filed by the first day of August, except that 12044
the report of the treasurer of state shall be so filed by the 12045
thirty-first day of December.12046

       Sec. 149.311.  (A) As used in this section:12047

       (1) "Historic building" means a building, including its 12048
structural components, that is located in this state and that is 12049
either individually listed on the national register of historic 12050
places under 16 U.S.C. 470a, located in a registered historic 12051
district, and certified by the state historic preservation officer 12052
as being of historic significance to the district, or is 12053
individually listed as an historic landmark designated by a local 12054
government certified under 16 U.S.C. 470a(c).12055

       (2) "Qualified rehabilitation expenditures" means 12056
expenditures paid or incurred during the rehabilitation period, 12057
and before and after that period as determined under 26 U.S.C. 47, 12058
by an owner or qualified lessee of an historic building to 12059
rehabilitate the building. "Qualified rehabilitation expenditures" 12060
includes architectural or engineering fees paid or incurred in 12061
connection with the rehabilitation, and expenses incurred in the 12062
preparation of nomination forms for listing on the national 12063
register of historic places. "Qualified rehabilitation 12064
expenditures" does not include any of the following:12065

       (a) The cost of acquiring, expanding, or enlarging an 12066
historic building;12067

       (b) Expenditures attributable to work done to facilities 12068
related to the building, such as parking lots, sidewalks, and 12069
landscaping;12070

       (c) New building construction costs.12071

       (3) "Owner" of an historic building means a person holding 12072
the fee simple interest in the building. "Owner" does not include 12073
the state or a state agency, or any political subdivision as 12074
defined in section 9.23 of the Revised Code.12075

       (4) "Qualified lessee" means a person subject to a lease 12076
agreement for aan historic building and eligible for the federal 12077
rehabilitation tax credit under 26 U.S.C. 47. "Qualified lessee" 12078
does not include the state or a state agency or political 12079
subdivision as defined in section 9.23 of the Revised Code.12080

       (5) "Certificate owner" means the owner or qualified lessee 12081
of an historic building to which a rehabilitation tax credit 12082
certificate was issued under this section.12083

       (6) "Registered historic district" means an historic district 12084
listed in the national register of historic places under 16 U.S.C. 12085
470a, an historic district designated by a local government 12086
certified under 16 U.S.C. 470a(c), or a local historic district 12087
certified under 36 C.F.R. 67.8 and 67.9.12088

       (7) "Rehabilitation" means the process of repairing or 12089
altering an historic building or buildings, making possible an 12090
efficient use while preserving those portions and features of the 12091
building and its site and environment that are significant to its 12092
historic, architectural, and cultural values.12093

       (8) "Rehabilitation period" means one of the following:12094

       (a) If the rehabilitation initially was not planned to be 12095
completed in stages, a period chosen by the owner or qualified 12096
lessee not to exceed twenty-four months during which 12097
rehabilitation occurs;12098

       (b) If the rehabilitation initially was planned to be 12099
completed in stages, a period chosen by the owner or qualified 12100
lessee not to exceed sixty months during which rehabilitation 12101
occurs. Each stage shall be reviewed as a phase of a 12102
rehabilitation as determined under 26 C.F.R. 1.48-12 or a 12103
successor to that section.12104

       (9) "State historic preservation officer" or "officer" means 12105
the state historic preservation officer appointed by the governor 12106
under 16 U.S.C. 470a.12107

       (B) The owner or qualified lessee of an historic building may 12108
apply to the director of development services for a rehabilitation 12109
tax credit certificate for qualified rehabilitation expenditures 12110
paid or incurred by such owner or qualified lessee after April 4, 12111
2007, for rehabilitation of an historic building. If the owner of 12112
aan historic building enters a pass-through agreement with a 12113
qualified lessee for the purposes of the federal rehabilitation 12114
tax credit under 26 U.S.C. 47, the qualified rehabilitation 12115
expenditures paid or incurred by the owner after April 4, 2007, 12116
shallmay be attributed to the qualified lessee.12117

       The form and manner of filing such applications shall be 12118
prescribed by rule of the director. Each application shall state 12119
the amount of qualified rehabilitation expenditures the applicant 12120
estimates will be paid or incurred. The director may require 12121
applicants to furnish documentation of such estimates.12122

       The director, after consultation with the tax commissioner 12123
and in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, shall 12124
adopt rules that establish all of the following:12125

        (1) Forms and procedures by which applicants may apply for 12126
rehabilitation tax credit certificates;12127

        (2) Criteria for reviewing, evaluating, and approving 12128
applications for certificates within the limitations under 12129
division (D) of this section, criteria for assuring that the 12130
certificates issued encompass a mixture of high and low qualified 12131
rehabilitation expenditures, and criteria for issuing certificates 12132
under division (C)(3)(b) of this section;12133

        (3) Eligibility requirements for obtaining a certificate 12134
under this section;12135

        (4) The form of rehabilitation tax credit certificates;12136

        (5) Reporting requirements and monitoring procedures;12137

        (6) Procedures and criteria for conducting cost-benefit 12138
analyses of historic buildings that are the subjects of 12139
applications filed under this section. The purpose of a 12140
cost-benefit analysis shall be to determine whether rehabilitation 12141
of the historic building will result in a net revenue gain in 12142
state and local taxes once the building is used.12143

       (7) Any other rules necessary to implement and administer 12144
this section.12145

       (C) The director of development services shall review the 12146
applications with the assistance of the state historic 12147
preservation officer and determine whether all of the following 12148
criteria are met:12149

       (1) That the building that is the subject of the application 12150
is an historic building and the applicant is the owner or 12151
qualified lessee of the building;12152

       (2) That the rehabilitation will satisfy standards prescribed 12153
by the United States secretary of the interior under 16 U.S.C. 12154
470, et seq., as amended, and 36 C.F.R. 67.7 or a successor to 12155
that section;12156

       (3) That receiving a rehabilitation tax credit certificate 12157
under this section is a major factor in:12158

       (a) The applicant's decision to rehabilitate the historic 12159
building; or12160

       (b) To increase the level of investment in such 12161
rehabilitation.12162

       An applicant shall demonstrate to the satisfaction of the 12163
state historic preservation officer and director of development 12164
services that the rehabilitation will satisfy the standards 12165
described in division (C)(2) of this section before the applicant 12166
begins the physical rehabilitation of the historic building.12167

       (D)(1) If the director of development services determines 12168
that an application meets the criteria in divisions (C)(1), (2), 12169
and (3) of this section, the director shall conduct a cost-benefit 12170
analysis for the historic building that is the subject of the 12171
application to determine whether rehabilitation of the historic 12172
building will result in a net revenue gain in state and local 12173
taxes once the building is used. The director shall consider the 12174
results of the cost-benefit analysis in determining whether to 12175
approve the application. The director shall also consider the 12176
potential economic impact and the regional distributive balance of 12177
the credits throughout the state. The director may approve an 12178
application only after completion of the cost-benefit analysis.12179

       (2) A rehabilitation tax credit certificate shall not be 12180
issued for an amount greater than the estimated amount furnished 12181
by the applicant on the application for such certificate and 12182
approved by the director. The director shall not approve more than 12183
a total of sixty million dollars of rehabilitation tax credits per 12184
fiscal year but the director may reallocate unused tax credits 12185
from a prior fiscal year for new applicants and such reallocated 12186
credits shall not apply toward the dollar limit of this division.12187

       (3) For rehabilitations with a rehabilitation period not 12188
exceeding twenty-four months as provided in division (A)(7)(a) of 12189
this section, a rehabilitation tax credit certificate shall not be 12190
issued before the rehabilitation of the historic building is 12191
completed.12192

       (4) For rehabilitations with a rehabilitation period not 12193
exceeding sixty months as provided in division (A)(7)(b) of this 12194
section, a rehabilitation tax credit certificate shall not be 12195
issued before a stage of rehabilitation is completed. After all 12196
stages of rehabilitation are completed, if the director cannot 12197
determine that the criteria in division (C) of this section are 12198
satisfied for all stages of rehabilitations, the director shall 12199
certify this finding to the tax commissioner, and any 12200
rehabilitation tax credits received by the applicant shall be 12201
repaid by the applicant and may be collected by assessment as 12202
unpaid tax by the commissioner.12203

        (5) The director of development services shall require the 12204
applicant to provide a third-party cost certification by a 12205
certified public accountant of the actual costs attributed to the 12206
rehabilitation of the historic building when qualified 12207
rehabilitation expenditures exceed two hundred thousand dollars.12208

        If an applicant whose application is approved for receipt of 12209
a rehabilitation tax credit certificate fails to provide to the 12210
director sufficient evidence of reviewable progress, including a 12211
viable financial plan, copies of final construction drawings, and 12212
evidence that the applicant has obtained all historic approvals 12213
within twelve months after the date the applicant received 12214
notification of approval, and if the applicant fails to provide 12215
evidence to the director that the applicant has secured and closed 12216
on financing for the rehabilitation within eighteen months after 12217
receiving notification of approval, the director may rescind the 12218
approval of the application. The director shall notify the 12219
applicant if the approval has been rescinded. Credits that would 12220
have been available to an applicant whose approval was rescinded 12221
shall be available for other qualified applicants. Nothing in this 12222
division prohibits an applicant whose approval has been rescinded 12223
from submitting a new application for a rehabilitation tax credit 12224
certificate.12225

        (E) Issuance of a certificate represents a finding by the 12226
director of development services of the matters described in 12227
divisions (C)(1), (2), and (3) of this section only; issuance of a 12228
certificate does not represent a verification or certification by 12229
the director of the amount of qualified rehabilitation 12230
expenditures for which a tax credit may be claimed under section 12231
5725.151, 5725.34, 5726.52, 5729.17, 5733.47, or 5747.76 of the 12232
Revised Code. The amount of qualified rehabilitation expenditures 12233
for which a tax credit may be claimed is subject to inspection and 12234
examination by the tax commissioner or employees of the 12235
commissioner under section 5703.19 of the Revised Code and any 12236
other applicable law. Upon the issuance of a certificate, the 12237
director shall certify to the tax commissioner, in the form and 12238
manner requested by the tax commissioner, the name of the 12239
applicant, the amount of qualified rehabilitation expenditures 12240
shown on the certificate, and any other information required by 12241
the rules adopted under this section.12242

       (F)(1) On or before the first day of April each year, the 12243
director of development services and tax commissioner jointly 12244
shall submit to the president of the senate and the speaker of the 12245
house of representatives a report on the tax credit program 12246
established under this section and sections 5725.151, 5725.34, 12247
5726.52, 5729.17, 5733.47, and 5747.76 of the Revised Code. The 12248
report shall present an overview of the program and shall include 12249
information on the number of rehabilitation tax credit 12250
certificates issued under this section during the preceding fiscal 12251
year, an update on the status of each historic building for which 12252
an application was approved under this section, the dollar amount 12253
of the tax credits granted under sections 5725.151, 5725.34, 12254
5726.52, 5729.17, 5733.47, and 5747.76 of the Revised Code, and 12255
any other information the director and commissioner consider 12256
relevant to the topics addressed in the report.12257

        (2) On or before December 1, 2015, the director of 12258
development services and tax commissioner jointly shall submit to 12259
the president of the senate and the speaker of the house of 12260
representatives a comprehensive report that includes the 12261
information required by division (F)(1) of this section and a 12262
detailed analysis of the effectiveness of issuing tax credits for 12263
rehabilitating historic buildings. The report shall be prepared 12264
with the assistance of an economic research organization jointly 12265
chosen by the director and commissioner.12266

       (G) There is hereby created in the state treasury the 12267
historic rehabilitation tax credit operating fund. The director of 12268
development services is authorized to charge reasonable 12269
application and other fees in connection with the administration 12270
of tax credits authorized by this section and sections 5725.151, 12271
5725.34, 5726.52, 5729.17, 5733.44, and 5747.76 of the Revised 12272
Code. Any such fees collected shall be credited to the fund and 12273
used to pay reasonable costs incurred by the department of 12274
development services in administering this section and sections 12275
5725.151, 5725.34, 5726.52, 5729.17, 5733.44, and 5747.76 of the 12276
Revised Code.12277

       The Ohio historic preservation office is authorized to charge 12278
reasonable fees in connection with its review and approval of 12279
applications under this section. Any such fees collected shall be 12280
credited to the fund and used to pay administrative costs incurred 12281
by the Ohio historic preservation office pursuant to this section.12282

       Sec. 149.43.  (A) As used in this section:12283

       (1) "Public record" means records kept by any public office, 12284
including, but not limited to, state, county, city, village, 12285
township, and school district units, and records pertaining to the 12286
delivery of educational services by an alternative school in this 12287
state kept by the nonprofit or for-profit entity operating the 12288
alternative school pursuant to section 3313.533 of the Revised 12289
Code. "Public record" does not mean any of the following:12290

       (a) Medical records;12291

       (b) Records pertaining to probation and parole proceedings or 12292
to proceedings related to the imposition of community control 12293
sanctions and post-release control sanctions;12294

       (c) Records pertaining to actions under section 2151.85 and 12295
division (C) of section 2919.121 of the Revised Code and to 12296
appeals of actions arising under those sections;12297

       (d) Records pertaining to adoption proceedings, including the 12298
contents of an adoption file maintained by the department of 12299
health under section 3705.12 of the Revised Code;12300

       (e) Information in a record contained in the putative father 12301
registry established by section 3107.062 of the Revised Code, 12302
regardless of whether the information is held by the department of 12303
job and family services or, pursuant to section 3111.69 of the 12304
Revised Code, the office of child support in the department or a 12305
child support enforcement agency;12306

       (f) Records listed in division (A) of section 3107.42 of the 12307
Revised Code or specified in division (A) of section 3107.52 of 12308
the Revised Code;12309

       (g) Trial preparation records;12310

       (h) Confidential law enforcement investigatory records;12311

       (i) Records containing information that is confidential under 12312
section 2710.03 or 4112.05 of the Revised Code;12313

       (j) DNA records stored in the DNA database pursuant to 12314
section 109.573 of the Revised Code;12315

       (k) Inmate records released by the department of 12316
rehabilitation and correction to the department of youth services 12317
or a court of record pursuant to division (E) of section 5120.21 12318
of the Revised Code;12319

       (l) Records maintained by the department of youth services 12320
pertaining to children in its custody released by the department 12321
of youth services to the department of rehabilitation and 12322
correction pursuant to section 5139.05 of the Revised Code;12323

       (m) Intellectual property records;12324

       (n) Donor profile records;12325

       (o) Records maintained by the department of job and family 12326
services pursuant to section 3121.894 of the Revised Code;12327

       (p) Peace officer, parole officer, probation officer, 12328
bailiff, prosecuting attorney, assistant prosecuting attorney, 12329
correctional employee, community-based correctional facility 12330
employee, youth services employee, firefighter, EMT, or 12331
investigator of the bureau of criminal identification and 12332
investigation residential and familial information;12333

       (q) In the case of a county hospital operated pursuant to 12334
Chapter 339. of the Revised Code or a municipal hospital operated 12335
pursuant to Chapter 749. of the Revised Code, information that 12336
constitutes a trade secret, as defined in section 1333.61 of the 12337
Revised Code;12338

       (r) Information pertaining to the recreational activities of 12339
a person under the age of eighteen;12340

       (s) Records provided to, statements made by review board 12341
members during meetings of, and all work products of a child 12342
fatality review board acting under sections 307.621 to 307.629 of 12343
the Revised Code, and child fatality review data submitted by the 12344
child fatality review board to the department of health or a 12345
national child death review database, other than the report 12346
prepared pursuant to division (A) of section 307.626 of the 12347
Revised Code;12348

       (t) Records provided to and statements made by the executive 12349
director of a public children services agency or a prosecuting 12350
attorney acting pursuant to section 5153.171 of the Revised Code 12351
other than the information released under that section;12352

       (u) Test materials, examinations, or evaluation tools used in 12353
an examination for licensure as a nursing home administrator that 12354
the board of examinersexecutives of nursing home administrators12355
long-term services and supports administers under section 4751.04 12356
of the Revised Code or contracts under that section with a private 12357
or government entity to administer;12358

       (v) Records the release of which is prohibited by state or 12359
federal law;12360

       (w) Proprietary information of or relating to any person that 12361
is submitted to or compiled by the Ohio venture capital authority 12362
created under section 150.01 of the Revised Code;12363

       (x) Information reported and evaluations conducted pursuant 12364
to section 3701.072 of the Revised Code;12365

       (y) Financial statements and data any person submits for any 12366
purpose to the Ohio housing finance agency or the controlling 12367
board in connection with applying for, receiving, or accounting 12368
for financial assistance from the agency, and information that 12369
identifies any individual who benefits directly or indirectly from 12370
financial assistance from the agency;12371

       (z)(y) Records listed in section 5101.29 of the Revised Code;12372

       (aa)(z) Discharges recorded with a county recorder under 12373
section 317.24 of the Revised Code, as specified in division 12374
(B)(2) of that section;12375

       (bb)(aa) Usage information including names and addresses of 12376
specific residential and commercial customers of a municipally 12377
owned or operated public utility;12378

       (cc)(bb) Records described in division (C) of section 187.04 12379
of the Revised Code that are not designated to be made available 12380
to the public as provided in that division.12381

       (2) "Confidential law enforcement investigatory record" means 12382
any record that pertains to a law enforcement matter of a 12383
criminal, quasi-criminal, civil, or administrative nature, but 12384
only to the extent that the release of the record would create a 12385
high probability of disclosure of any of the following:12386

       (a) The identity of a suspect who has not been charged with 12387
the offense to which the record pertains, or of an information 12388
source or witness to whom confidentiality has been reasonably 12389
promised;12390

       (b) Information provided by an information source or witness 12391
to whom confidentiality has been reasonably promised, which 12392
information would reasonably tend to disclose the source's or 12393
witness's identity;12394

       (c) Specific confidential investigatory techniques or 12395
procedures or specific investigatory work product;12396

       (d) Information that would endanger the life or physical 12397
safety of law enforcement personnel, a crime victim, a witness, or 12398
a confidential information source.12399

       (3) "Medical record" means any document or combination of 12400
documents, except births, deaths, and the fact of admission to or 12401
discharge from a hospital, that pertains to the medical history, 12402
diagnosis, prognosis, or medical condition of a patient and that 12403
is generated and maintained in the process of medical treatment.12404

       (4) "Trial preparation record" means any record that contains 12405
information that is specifically compiled in reasonable 12406
anticipation of, or in defense of, a civil or criminal action or 12407
proceeding, including the independent thought processes and 12408
personal trial preparation of an attorney.12409

       (5) "Intellectual property record" means a record, other than 12410
a financial or administrative record, that is produced or 12411
collected by or for faculty or staff of a state institution of 12412
higher learning in the conduct of or as a result of study or 12413
research on an educational, commercial, scientific, artistic, 12414
technical, or scholarly issue, regardless of whether the study or 12415
research was sponsored by the institution alone or in conjunction 12416
with a governmental body or private concern, and that has not been 12417
publicly released, published, or patented.12418

       (6) "Donor profile record" means all records about donors or 12419
potential donors to a public institution of higher education 12420
except the names and reported addresses of the actual donors and 12421
the date, amount, and conditions of the actual donation.12422

       (7) "Peace officer, parole officer, probation officer, 12423
bailiff, prosecuting attorney, assistant prosecuting attorney, 12424
correctional employee, community-based correctional facility 12425
employee, youth services employee, firefighter, EMT, or 12426
investigator of the bureau of criminal identification and 12427
investigation residential and familial information" means any 12428
information that discloses any of the following about a peace 12429
officer, parole officer, probation officer, bailiff, prosecuting 12430
attorney, assistant prosecuting attorney, correctional employee, 12431
community-based correctional facility employee, youth services 12432
employee, firefighter, EMT, or investigator of the bureau of 12433
criminal identification and investigation:12434

       (a) The address of the actual personal residence of a peace 12435
officer, parole officer, probation officer, bailiff, assistant 12436
prosecuting attorney, correctional employee, community-based 12437
correctional facility employee, youth services employee, 12438
firefighter, EMT, or an investigator of the bureau of criminal 12439
identification and investigation, except for the state or 12440
political subdivision in which the peace officer, parole officer, 12441
probation officer, bailiff, assistant prosecuting attorney, 12442
correctional employee, community-based correctional facility 12443
employee, youth services employee, firefighter, EMT, or 12444
investigator of the bureau of criminal identification and 12445
investigation resides;12446

       (b) Information compiled from referral to or participation in 12447
an employee assistance program;12448

       (c) The social security number, the residential telephone 12449
number, any bank account, debit card, charge card, or credit card 12450
number, or the emergency telephone number of, or any medical 12451
information pertaining to, a peace officer, parole officer, 12452
probation officer, bailiff, prosecuting attorney, assistant 12453
prosecuting attorney, correctional employee, community-based 12454
correctional facility employee, youth services employee, 12455
firefighter, EMT, or investigator of the bureau of criminal 12456
identification and investigation;12457

       (d) The name of any beneficiary of employment benefits, 12458
including, but not limited to, life insurance benefits, provided 12459
to a peace officer, parole officer, probation officer, bailiff, 12460
prosecuting attorney, assistant prosecuting attorney, correctional 12461
employee, community-based correctional facility employee, youth 12462
services employee, firefighter, EMT, or investigator of the bureau 12463
of criminal identification and investigation by the peace 12464
officer's, parole officer's, probation officer's, bailiff's, 12465
prosecuting attorney's, assistant prosecuting attorney's, 12466
correctional employee's, community-based correctional facility 12467
employee's, youth services employee's, firefighter's, EMT's, or 12468
investigator of the bureau of criminal identification and 12469
investigation's employer;12470

       (e) The identity and amount of any charitable or employment 12471
benefit deduction made by the peace officer's, parole officer's, 12472
probation officer's, bailiff's, prosecuting attorney's, assistant 12473
prosecuting attorney's, correctional employee's, community-based 12474
correctional facility employee's, youth services employee's, 12475
firefighter's, EMT's, or investigator of the bureau of criminal 12476
identification and investigation's employer from the peace 12477
officer's, parole officer's, probation officer's, bailiff's, 12478
prosecuting attorney's, assistant prosecuting attorney's, 12479
correctional employee's, community-based correctional facility 12480
employee's, youth services employee's, firefighter's, EMT's, or 12481
investigator of the bureau of criminal identification and 12482
investigation's compensation unless the amount of the deduction is 12483
required by state or federal law;12484

       (f) The name, the residential address, the name of the 12485
employer, the address of the employer, the social security number, 12486
the residential telephone number, any bank account, debit card, 12487
charge card, or credit card number, or the emergency telephone 12488
number of the spouse, a former spouse, or any child of a peace 12489
officer, parole officer, probation officer, bailiff, prosecuting 12490
attorney, assistant prosecuting attorney, correctional employee, 12491
community-based correctional facility employee, youth services 12492
employee, firefighter, EMT, or investigator of the bureau of 12493
criminal identification and investigation;12494

       (g) A photograph of a peace officer who holds a position or 12495
has an assignment that may include undercover or plain clothes 12496
positions or assignments as determined by the peace officer's 12497
appointing authority.12498

       As used in divisions (A)(7) and (B)(9) of this section, 12499
"peace officer" has the same meaning as in section 109.71 of the 12500
Revised Code and also includes the superintendent and troopers of 12501
the state highway patrol; it does not include the sheriff of a 12502
county or a supervisory employee who, in the absence of the 12503
sheriff, is authorized to stand in for, exercise the authority of, 12504
and perform the duties of the sheriff.12505

       As used in divisions (A)(7) and (B)(5) of this section, 12506
"correctional employee" means any employee of the department of 12507
rehabilitation and correction who in the course of performing the 12508
employee's job duties has or has had contact with inmates and 12509
persons under supervision.12510

        As used in divisions (A)(7) and (B)(5) of this section, 12511
"youth services employee" means any employee of the department of 12512
youth services who in the course of performing the employee's job 12513
duties has or has had contact with children committed to the 12514
custody of the department of youth services.12515

       As used in divisions (A)(7) and (B)(9) of this section, 12516
"firefighter" means any regular, paid or volunteer, member of a 12517
lawfully constituted fire department of a municipal corporation, 12518
township, fire district, or village.12519

       As used in divisions (A)(7) and (B)(9) of this section, "EMT" 12520
means EMTs-basic, EMTs-I, and paramedics that provide emergency 12521
medical services for a public emergency medical service 12522
organization. "Emergency medical service organization," 12523
"EMT-basic," "EMT-I," and "paramedic" have the same meanings as in 12524
section 4765.01 of the Revised Code.12525

       As used in divisions (A)(7) and (B)(9) of this section, 12526
"investigator of the bureau of criminal identification and 12527
investigation" has the meaning defined in section 2903.11 of the 12528
Revised Code.12529

       (8) "Information pertaining to the recreational activities of 12530
a person under the age of eighteen" means information that is kept 12531
in the ordinary course of business by a public office, that 12532
pertains to the recreational activities of a person under the age 12533
of eighteen years, and that discloses any of the following:12534

       (a) The address or telephone number of a person under the age 12535
of eighteen or the address or telephone number of that person's 12536
parent, guardian, custodian, or emergency contact person;12537

       (b) The social security number, birth date, or photographic 12538
image of a person under the age of eighteen;12539

       (c) Any medical record, history, or information pertaining to 12540
a person under the age of eighteen;12541

       (d) Any additional information sought or required about a 12542
person under the age of eighteen for the purpose of allowing that 12543
person to participate in any recreational activity conducted or 12544
sponsored by a public office or to use or obtain admission 12545
privileges to any recreational facility owned or operated by a 12546
public office.12547

       (9) "Community control sanction" has the same meaning as in 12548
section 2929.01 of the Revised Code.12549

       (10) "Post-release control sanction" has the same meaning as 12550
in section 2967.01 of the Revised Code.12551

        (11) "Redaction" means obscuring or deleting any information 12552
that is exempt from the duty to permit public inspection or 12553
copying from an item that otherwise meets the definition of a 12554
"record" in section 149.011 of the Revised Code.12555

       (12) "Designee" and "elected official" have the same meanings 12556
as in section 109.43 of the Revised Code.12557

       (B)(1) Upon request and subject to division (B)(8) of this 12558
section, all public records responsive to the request shall be 12559
promptly prepared and made available for inspection to any person 12560
at all reasonable times during regular business hours. Subject to 12561
division (B)(8) of this section, upon request, a public office or 12562
person responsible for public records shall make copies of the 12563
requested public record available at cost and within a reasonable 12564
period of time. If a public record contains information that is 12565
exempt from the duty to permit public inspection or to copy the 12566
public record, the public office or the person responsible for the 12567
public record shall make available all of the information within 12568
the public record that is not exempt. When making that public 12569
record available for public inspection or copying that public 12570
record, the public office or the person responsible for the public 12571
record shall notify the requester of any redaction or make the 12572
redaction plainly visible. A redaction shall be deemed a denial of 12573
a request to inspect or copy the redacted information, except if 12574
federal or state law authorizes or requires a public office to 12575
make the redaction.12576

       (2) To facilitate broader access to public records, a public 12577
office or the person responsible for public records shall organize 12578
and maintain public records in a manner that they can be made 12579
available for inspection or copying in accordance with division 12580
(B) of this section. A public office also shall have available a 12581
copy of its current records retention schedule at a location 12582
readily available to the public. If a requester makes an ambiguous 12583
or overly broad request or has difficulty in making a request for 12584
copies or inspection of public records under this section such 12585
that the public office or the person responsible for the requested 12586
public record cannot reasonably identify what public records are 12587
being requested, the public office or the person responsible for 12588
the requested public record may deny the request but shall provide 12589
the requester with an opportunity to revise the request by 12590
informing the requester of the manner in which records are 12591
maintained by the public office and accessed in the ordinary 12592
course of the public office's or person's duties.12593

       (3) If a request is ultimately denied, in part or in whole, 12594
the public office or the person responsible for the requested 12595
public record shall provide the requester with an explanation, 12596
including legal authority, setting forth why the request was 12597
denied. If the initial request was provided in writing, the 12598
explanation also shall be provided to the requester in writing. 12599
The explanation shall not preclude the public office or the person 12600
responsible for the requested public record from relying upon 12601
additional reasons or legal authority in defending an action 12602
commenced under division (C) of this section.12603

       (4) Unless specifically required or authorized by state or 12604
federal law or in accordance with division (B) of this section, no 12605
public office or person responsible for public records may limit 12606
or condition the availability of public records by requiring 12607
disclosure of the requester's identity or the intended use of the 12608
requested public record. Any requirement that the requester 12609
disclose the requestor's identity or the intended use of the 12610
requested public record constitutes a denial of the request.12611

       (5) A public office or person responsible for public records 12612
may ask a requester to make the request in writing, may ask for 12613
the requester's identity, and may inquire about the intended use 12614
of the information requested, but may do so only after disclosing 12615
to the requester that a written request is not mandatory and that 12616
the requester may decline to reveal the requester's identity or 12617
the intended use and when a written request or disclosure of the 12618
identity or intended use would benefit the requester by enhancing 12619
the ability of the public office or person responsible for public 12620
records to identify, locate, or deliver the public records sought 12621
by the requester.12622

       (6) If any person chooses to obtain a copy of a public record 12623
in accordance with division (B) of this section, the public office 12624
or person responsible for the public record may require that 12625
person to pay in advance the cost involved in providing the copy 12626
of the public record in accordance with the choice made by the 12627
person seeking the copy under this division. The public office or 12628
the person responsible for the public record shall permit that 12629
person to choose to have the public record duplicated upon paper, 12630
upon the same medium upon which the public office or person 12631
responsible for the public record keeps it, or upon any other 12632
medium upon which the public office or person responsible for the 12633
public record determines that it reasonably can be duplicated as 12634
an integral part of the normal operations of the public office or 12635
person responsible for the public record. When the person seeking 12636
the copy makes a choice under this division, the public office or 12637
person responsible for the public record shall provide a copy of 12638
it in accordance with the choice made by the person seeking the 12639
copy. Nothing in this section requires a public office or person 12640
responsible for the public record to allow the person seeking a 12641
copy of the public record to make the copies of the public record.12642

       (7) Upon a request made in accordance with division (B) of 12643
this section and subject to division (B)(6) of this section, a 12644
public office or person responsible for public records shall 12645
transmit a copy of a public record to any person by United States 12646
mail or by any other means of delivery or transmission within a 12647
reasonable period of time after receiving the request for the 12648
copy. The public office or person responsible for the public 12649
record may require the person making the request to pay in advance 12650
the cost of postage if the copy is transmitted by United States 12651
mail or the cost of delivery if the copy is transmitted other than 12652
by United States mail, and to pay in advance the costs incurred 12653
for other supplies used in the mailing, delivery, or transmission.12654

       Any public office may adopt a policy and procedures that it 12655
will follow in transmitting, within a reasonable period of time 12656
after receiving a request, copies of public records by United 12657
States mail or by any other means of delivery or transmission 12658
pursuant to this division. A public office that adopts a policy 12659
and procedures under this division shall comply with them in 12660
performing its duties under this division.12661

       In any policy and procedures adopted under this division, a 12662
public office may limit the number of records requested by a 12663
person that the office will transmit by United States mail to ten 12664
per month, unless the person certifies to the office in writing 12665
that the person does not intend to use or forward the requested 12666
records, or the information contained in them, for commercial 12667
purposes. For purposes of this division, "commercial" shall be 12668
narrowly construed and does not include reporting or gathering 12669
news, reporting or gathering information to assist citizen 12670
oversight or understanding of the operation or activities of 12671
government, or nonprofit educational research.12672

       (8) A public office or person responsible for public records 12673
is not required to permit a person who is incarcerated pursuant to 12674
a criminal conviction or a juvenile adjudication to inspect or to 12675
obtain a copy of any public record concerning a criminal 12676
investigation or prosecution or concerning what would be a 12677
criminal investigation or prosecution if the subject of the 12678
investigation or prosecution were an adult, unless the request to 12679
inspect or to obtain a copy of the record is for the purpose of 12680
acquiring information that is subject to release as a public 12681
record under this section and the judge who imposed the sentence 12682
or made the adjudication with respect to the person, or the 12683
judge's successor in office, finds that the information sought in 12684
the public record is necessary to support what appears to be a 12685
justiciable claim of the person.12686

       (9)(a) Upon written request made and signed by a journalist 12687
on or after December 16, 1999, a public office, or person 12688
responsible for public records, having custody of the records of 12689
the agency employing a specified peace officer, parole officer, 12690
probation officer, bailiff, prosecuting attorney, assistant 12691
prosecuting attorney, correctional employee, community-based 12692
correctional facility employee, youth services employee, 12693
firefighter, EMT, or investigator of the bureau of criminal 12694
identification and investigation shall disclose to the journalist 12695
the address of the actual personal residence of the peace officer, 12696
parole officer, probation officer, bailiff, prosecuting attorney, 12697
assistant prosecuting attorney, correctional employee, 12698
community-based correctional facility employee, youth services 12699
employee, firefighter, EMT, or investigator of the bureau of 12700
criminal identification and investigation and, if the peace 12701
officer's, parole officer's, probation officer's, bailiff's, 12702
prosecuting attorney's, assistant prosecuting attorney's, 12703
correctional employee's, community-based correctional facility 12704
employee's, youth services employee's, firefighter's, EMT's, or 12705
investigator of the bureau of criminal identification and 12706
investigation's spouse, former spouse, or child is employed by a 12707
public office, the name and address of the employer of the peace 12708
officer's, parole officer's, probation officer's, bailiff's, 12709
prosecuting attorney's, assistant prosecuting attorney's, 12710
correctional employee's, community-based correctional facility 12711
employee's, youth services employee's, firefighter's, EMT's, or 12712
investigator of the bureau of criminal identification and 12713
investigation's spouse, former spouse, or child. The request shall 12714
include the journalist's name and title and the name and address 12715
of the journalist's employer and shall state that disclosure of 12716
the information sought would be in the public interest.12717

       (b) Division (B)(9)(a) of this section also applies to 12718
journalist requests for customer information maintained by a 12719
municipally owned or operated public utility, other than social 12720
security numbers and any private financial information such as 12721
credit reports, payment methods, credit card numbers, and bank 12722
account information.12723

       (c) As used in division (B)(9) of this section, "journalist" 12724
means a person engaged in, connected with, or employed by any news 12725
medium, including a newspaper, magazine, press association, news 12726
agency, or wire service, a radio or television station, or a 12727
similar medium, for the purpose of gathering, processing, 12728
transmitting, compiling, editing, or disseminating information for 12729
the general public.12730

       (C)(1) If a person allegedly is aggrieved by the failure of a 12731
public office or the person responsible for public records to 12732
promptly prepare a public record and to make it available to the 12733
person for inspection in accordance with division (B) of this 12734
section or by any other failure of a public office or the person 12735
responsible for public records to comply with an obligation in 12736
accordance with division (B) of this section, the person allegedly 12737
aggrieved may commence a mandamus action to obtain a judgment that 12738
orders the public office or the person responsible for the public 12739
record to comply with division (B) of this section, that awards 12740
court costs and reasonable attorney's fees to the person that 12741
instituted the mandamus action, and, if applicable, that includes 12742
an order fixing statutory damages under division (C)(1) of this 12743
section. The mandamus action may be commenced in the court of 12744
common pleas of the county in which division (B) of this section 12745
allegedly was not complied with, in the supreme court pursuant to 12746
its original jurisdiction under Section 2 of Article IV, Ohio 12747
Constitution, or in the court of appeals for the appellate 12748
district in which division (B) of this section allegedly was not 12749
complied with pursuant to its original jurisdiction under Section 12750
3 of Article IV, Ohio Constitution.12751

       If a requestor transmits a written request by hand delivery 12752
or certified mail to inspect or receive copies of any public 12753
record in a manner that fairly describes the public record or 12754
class of public records to the public office or person responsible 12755
for the requested public records, except as otherwise provided in 12756
this section, the requestor shall be entitled to recover the 12757
amount of statutory damages set forth in this division if a court 12758
determines that the public office or the person responsible for 12759
public records failed to comply with an obligation in accordance 12760
with division (B) of this section.12761

       The amount of statutory damages shall be fixed at one hundred 12762
dollars for each business day during which the public office or 12763
person responsible for the requested public records failed to 12764
comply with an obligation in accordance with division (B) of this 12765
section, beginning with the day on which the requester files a 12766
mandamus action to recover statutory damages, up to a maximum of 12767
one thousand dollars. The award of statutory damages shall not be 12768
construed as a penalty, but as compensation for injury arising 12769
from lost use of the requested information. The existence of this 12770
injury shall be conclusively presumed. The award of statutory 12771
damages shall be in addition to all other remedies authorized by 12772
this section.12773

       The court may reduce an award of statutory damages or not 12774
award statutory damages if the court determines both of the 12775
following:12776

       (a) That, based on the ordinary application of statutory law 12777
and case law as it existed at the time of the conduct or 12778
threatened conduct of the public office or person responsible for 12779
the requested public records that allegedly constitutes a failure 12780
to comply with an obligation in accordance with division (B) of 12781
this section and that was the basis of the mandamus action, a 12782
well-informed public office or person responsible for the 12783
requested public records reasonably would believe that the conduct 12784
or threatened conduct of the public office or person responsible 12785
for the requested public records did not constitute a failure to 12786
comply with an obligation in accordance with division (B) of this 12787
section;12788

       (b) That a well-informed public office or person responsible 12789
for the requested public records reasonably would believe that the 12790
conduct or threatened conduct of the public office or person 12791
responsible for the requested public records would serve the 12792
public policy that underlies the authority that is asserted as 12793
permitting that conduct or threatened conduct.12794

       (2)(a) If the court issues a writ of mandamus that orders the 12795
public office or the person responsible for the public record to 12796
comply with division (B) of this section and determines that the 12797
circumstances described in division (C)(1) of this section exist, 12798
the court shall determine and award to the relator all court 12799
costs.12800

       (b) If the court renders a judgment that orders the public 12801
office or the person responsible for the public record to comply 12802
with division (B) of this section, the court may award reasonable 12803
attorney's fees subject to reduction as described in division 12804
(C)(2)(c) of this section. The court shall award reasonable 12805
attorney's fees, subject to reduction as described in division 12806
(C)(2)(c) of this section when either of the following applies:12807

        (i) The public office or the person responsible for the 12808
public records failed to respond affirmatively or negatively to 12809
the public records request in accordance with the time allowed 12810
under division (B) of this section.12811

        (ii) The public office or the person responsible for the 12812
public records promised to permit the relator to inspect or 12813
receive copies of the public records requested within a specified 12814
period of time but failed to fulfill that promise within that 12815
specified period of time.12816

       (c) Court costs and reasonable attorney's fees awarded under 12817
this section shall be construed as remedial and not punitive. 12818
Reasonable attorney's fees shall include reasonable fees incurred 12819
to produce proof of the reasonableness and amount of the fees and 12820
to otherwise litigate entitlement to the fees. The court may 12821
reduce an award of attorney's fees to the relator or not award 12822
attorney's fees to the relator if the court determines both of the 12823
following:12824

       (i) That, based on the ordinary application of statutory law 12825
and case law as it existed at the time of the conduct or 12826
threatened conduct of the public office or person responsible for 12827
the requested public records that allegedly constitutes a failure 12828
to comply with an obligation in accordance with division (B) of 12829
this section and that was the basis of the mandamus action, a 12830
well-informed public office or person responsible for the 12831
requested public records reasonably would believe that the conduct 12832
or threatened conduct of the public office or person responsible 12833
for the requested public records did not constitute a failure to 12834
comply with an obligation in accordance with division (B) of this 12835
section;12836

       (ii) That a well-informed public office or person responsible 12837
for the requested public records reasonably would believe that the 12838
conduct or threatened conduct of the public office or person 12839
responsible for the requested public records as described in 12840
division (C)(2)(c)(i) of this section would serve the public 12841
policy that underlies the authority that is asserted as permitting 12842
that conduct or threatened conduct.12843

       (D) Chapter 1347. of the Revised Code does not limit the 12844
provisions of this section.12845

       (E)(1) To ensure that all employees of public offices are 12846
appropriately educated about a public office's obligations under 12847
division (B) of this section, all elected officials or their 12848
appropriate designees shall attend training approved by the 12849
attorney general as provided in section 109.43 of the Revised 12850
Code. In addition, all public offices shall adopt a public records 12851
policy in compliance with this section for responding to public 12852
records requests. In adopting a public records policy under this 12853
division, a public office may obtain guidance from the model 12854
public records policy developed and provided to the public office 12855
by the attorney general under section 109.43 of the Revised Code. 12856
Except as otherwise provided in this section, the policy may not 12857
limit the number of public records that the public office will 12858
make available to a single person, may not limit the number of 12859
public records that it will make available during a fixed period 12860
of time, and may not establish a fixed period of time before it 12861
will respond to a request for inspection or copying of public 12862
records, unless that period is less than eight hours.12863

       (2) The public office shall distribute the public records 12864
policy adopted by the public office under division (E)(1) of this 12865
section to the employee of the public office who is the records 12866
custodian or records manager or otherwise has custody of the 12867
records of that office. The public office shall require that 12868
employee to acknowledge receipt of the copy of the public records 12869
policy. The public office shall create a poster that describes its 12870
public records policy and shall post the poster in a conspicuous 12871
place in the public office and in all locations where the public 12872
office has branch offices. The public office may post its public 12873
records policy on the internet web site of the public office if 12874
the public office maintains an internet web site. A public office 12875
that has established a manual or handbook of its general policies 12876
and procedures for all employees of the public office shall 12877
include the public records policy of the public office in the 12878
manual or handbook.12879

       (F)(1) The bureau of motor vehicles may adopt rules pursuant 12880
to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to reasonably limit the number 12881
of bulk commercial special extraction requests made by a person 12882
for the same records or for updated records during a calendar 12883
year. The rules may include provisions for charges to be made for 12884
bulk commercial special extraction requests for the actual cost of 12885
the bureau, plus special extraction costs, plus ten per cent. The 12886
bureau may charge for expenses for redacting information, the 12887
release of which is prohibited by law.12888

       (2) As used in division (F)(1) of this section:12889

       (a) "Actual cost" means the cost of depleted supplies, 12890
records storage media costs, actual mailing and alternative 12891
delivery costs, or other transmitting costs, and any direct 12892
equipment operating and maintenance costs, including actual costs 12893
paid to private contractors for copying services.12894

       (b) "Bulk commercial special extraction request" means a 12895
request for copies of a record for information in a format other 12896
than the format already available, or information that cannot be 12897
extracted without examination of all items in a records series, 12898
class of records, or data basedatabase by a person who intends to 12899
use or forward the copies for surveys, marketing, solicitation, or 12900
resale for commercial purposes. "Bulk commercial special 12901
extraction request" does not include a request by a person who 12902
gives assurance to the bureau that the person making the request 12903
does not intend to use or forward the requested copies for 12904
surveys, marketing, solicitation, or resale for commercial 12905
purposes.12906

       (c) "Commercial" means profit-seeking production, buying, or 12907
selling of any good, service, or other product.12908

       (d) "Special extraction costs" means the cost of the time 12909
spent by the lowest paid employee competent to perform the task, 12910
the actual amount paid to outside private contractors employed by 12911
the bureau, or the actual cost incurred to create computer 12912
programs to make the special extraction. "Special extraction 12913
costs" include any charges paid to a public agency for computer or 12914
records services.12915

       (3) For purposes of divisions (F)(1) and (2) of this section, 12916
"surveys, marketing, solicitation, or resale for commercial 12917
purposes" shall be narrowly construed and does not include 12918
reporting or gathering news, reporting or gathering information to 12919
assist citizen oversight or understanding of the operation or 12920
activities of government, or nonprofit educational research.12921

       Sec. 149.60. (A) There is the local government information 12922
exchange grant program in the department of administrative 12923
services. The program shall be administered by the director of 12924
administrative services. The director shall adopt rules under 12925
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code as are necessary to administer 12926
the program. The rules shall include all of the following:12927

       (1) Grant eligibility criteria;12928

       (2) A requirement that exchange-related electronic data be 12929
posted on the internet in an open format in such a manner that the 12930
data is searchable and downloadable through the internet by the 12931
public;12932

       (3) Specifications for consistent formatting of, and 12933
specifications for accounting and technology standards for, 12934
information provided by participating local governments for 12935
inclusion in the exchange; and12936

       (4) Specifications for data that must be included by 12937
participating local governments in the information they provide, 12938
which must include budgetary data, revenues, expenditures, 12939
staffing information, and employee compensation.12940

       (B) The director shall disburse a grant of ten thousand 12941
dollars to each local government that meets the grant eligibility 12942
criteria established by the director. Grants shall be awarded to 12943
local governments in the order in which the local governments have 12944
met the grant eligibility criteria. The total amount of grants 12945
awarded shall not exceed the amount that can be funded with 12946
appropriations made by the general assembly for this purpose.12947

       (C) Not later than July 1, 2014, the director shall prepare 12948
and issue to members of the general assembly a demonstration 12949
report that does all of the following:12950

       (1) Demonstrates how the information exchange may provide 12951
local governments with insights regarding efficiency and 12952
productivity;12953

       (2) Demonstrates how the information exchange may help local 12954
governments improve services to vulnerable populations by 12955
providing insights regarding programs that benefit the poor, 12956
including general welfare support programs; and12957

       (3) Demonstrates how information exchange data may create 12958
opportunities for private sector and research institutions to 12959
provide value-added products or services that may be 12960
commercialized or create jobs, and thereby contribute to the state 12961
economy.12962

       Sec. 149.63. A public office that posts a public record on 12963
its web site, or on a public web site maintained by the state, 12964
shall post the record in such a way that the public record, or the 12965
data contained in the public record, is capable of being searched 12966
and downloaded by the public, and is in a format that is machine 12967
readable.12968

       This section does not apply to public records that were 12969
posted on a public web site prior to the effective date of this 12970
section.12971

       Sec. 151.11.  (A) As used in this section:12972

       (1) "Costs of sites and facilities" includes related direct 12973
administrative expenses and allocable portions of the direct costs 12974
of those projects. "Costs of sites and facilities" includes 12975
"allowable costs" as defined in section 122.085 of the Revised 12976
Code.12977

       (2) "Obligations" means obligations as defined in section 12978
151.01 of the Revised Code issued to pay costs of sites and 12979
facilities in Ohio for and in support of industry, commerce, 12980
distribution, and research and development purposes as referred to 12981
in division (A)(3) of Section 2p of Article VIII, Ohio 12982
Constitution.12983

       (B) The issuing authority shall issue general obligations of 12984
the state to pay costs of sites and facilities pursuant to 12985
division (B)(3) of Section 2p of Article VIII, Ohio Constitution, 12986
section 151.01 of the Revised Code, and this section. The issuing 12987
authority shall issue obligations in the amount determined by the 12988
issuing authority to be required for those purposes. The total 12989
principal amount of obligations issued under this section shall 12990
not exceed one hundred fifty million dollars.12991

       (C) Net proceeds of obligations shall be deposited into the 12992
job ready site development fund created by section 122.0820 of the 12993
Revised Code.12994

       (D) There is hereby created in the state treasury the job 12995
ready site development bond service fund. All moneys received by 12996
the state and required by the bond proceedings, consistent with 12997
section 151.01 of the Revised Code and this section, to be 12998
deposited, transferred, or credited to the bond service fund, and 12999
all other moneys transferred or allocated to or received for the 13000
purposes of that fund, shall be deposited and credited to the bond 13001
service fund, subject to any applicable provisions of the bond 13002
proceedings, but without necessity for any act of appropriation. 13003
During the period beginning with the date of the first issuance of 13004
obligations and continuing during the time that any obligations 13005
are outstanding in accordance with their terms, so long as moneys 13006
in the bond service fund are insufficient to pay debt service when 13007
due on those obligations payable from that fund, except the 13008
principal amounts of bond anticipation notes payable from the 13009
proceeds of renewal notes or bonds anticipated, and due in the 13010
particular fiscal year, a sufficient amount of revenues of the 13011
state is committed and, without necessity for further act of 13012
appropriation, shall be paid to the bond service fund for the 13013
purpose of paying that debt service when due. All investment 13014
earnings on the cash balance in the fund shall be credited to the 13015
fund.13016

       Sec. 151.50.  (A) There is hereby created in the state 13017
treasury the clean Ohio distribution fund. The fund shall consist 13018
of money credited to it under section 1509.73 of the Revised Code.13019

       (B) Not later than the fifth day of October each year, the 13020
director of budget and management shall determine the balance of 13021
the fund. If the balance of the fund is twenty-five million 13022
dollars or more, the director shall transfer the total balance of 13023
the fund as follows:13024

       (1) Seventy-five per cent of the money shall be credited to 13025
the clean Ohio conservation fund created in section 164.27 of the 13026
Revised Code.13027

       (2) Twelve and one-half per cent of the money shall be 13028
credited to the clean Ohio agricultural easement fund created in 13029
section 901.21 of the Revised Code.13030

       (3) Twelve and one-half per cent of the money shall be 13031
credited to the clean Ohio trail fund created in section 1519.05 13032
of the Revised Code.13033

       Sec. 152.09.  (A) As used in sections 152.06 and 152.09 to 13034
152.33 of the Revised Code:13035

       (1) "Obligations" means bonds, notes, or other evidences of 13036
obligation, including interest coupons pertaining thereto, issued 13037
pursuant to sections 152.09 to 152.33 of the Revised Code.13038

       (2) "State agencies" means the state of Ohio and branches, 13039
officers, boards, commissions, authorities, departments, 13040
divisions, courts, general assembly, or other units or agencies of 13041
the state. "State agency" also includes counties, municipal 13042
corporations, and governmental entities of this state that enter 13043
into leases with the Ohio building authority pursuant to section 13044
152.31 of the Revised Code or that are designated by law as state 13045
agencies for the purpose of performing a state function that is to 13046
be housed by a capital facility for which the Ohio building 13047
authority is authorized to issue revenue obligations pursuant to 13048
sections 152.09 to 152.33 of the Revised Code.13049

       (3) "Bond service charges" means principal, including 13050
mandatory sinking fund requirements for retirement of obligations, 13051
and interest, and redemption premium, if any, required to be paid 13052
by the Ohio building authority on obligations.13053

       (4) "Capital facilities" means buildings, structures, and 13054
other improvements, and equipment, real estate, and interests in 13055
real estate therefor, within the state, and any one, part of, or 13056
combination of the foregoing, for housing of branches and agencies 13057
of state government, including capital facilities for the purpose 13058
of housing personnel, equipment, or functions, or any combination 13059
thereof that the state agencies are responsible for housing, for 13060
which the Ohio building authority is authorized to issue 13061
obligations pursuant to Chapter 152. of the Revised Code, and 13062
includes storage and parking facilities related to such capital 13063
facilities. For purposes of sections 152.10 to 152.15 of the 13064
Revised Code, "capital facilities" includes community or technical 13065
college capital facilities.13066

       (5) "Cost of capital facilities" means the costs of 13067
assessing, planning, acquiring, constructing, reconstructing, 13068
rehabilitating, remodeling, renovating, enlarging, improving, 13069
altering, maintaining, equipping, furnishing, repairing, painting, 13070
decorating, managing, or operating capital facilities, and the 13071
financing thereof, including the cost of clearance and preparation 13072
of the site and of any land to be used in connection with capital 13073
facilities, the cost of participating in capital facilities 13074
pursuant to section 152.33 of the Revised Code, the cost of any 13075
indemnity and surety bonds and premiums on insurance, all related 13076
direct administrative expenses and allocable portions of direct 13077
costs of the authority and lessee state agencies, cost of 13078
engineering and architectural services, designs, plans, 13079
specifications, surveys, and estimates of cost, legal fees, fees 13080
and expenses of trustees, depositories, and paying agents for the 13081
obligations, cost of issuance of the obligations and financing 13082
charges and fees and expenses of financial advisers and 13083
consultants in connection therewith, interest on obligations from 13084
the date thereof to the time when interest is to be covered from 13085
sources other than proceeds of obligations, amounts that represent 13086
the portion of investment earnings to be rebated or to be paid to 13087
the federal government in order to maintain the exclusion from 13088
gross income for federal income tax purposes of interest on those 13089
obligations pursuant to section 148(f) of the Internal Revenue 13090
Code, amounts necessary to establish reserves as required by the 13091
resolutions or the obligations, trust agreements, or indentures, 13092
costs of audits, the reimbursement of all moneys advanced or 13093
applied by or borrowed from any governmental entity, whether to or 13094
by the authority or others, from whatever source provided, for the 13095
payment of any item or items of cost of the capital facilities, 13096
any share of the cost undertaken by the authority pursuant to 13097
arrangements made with governmental entities under division (J) of 13098
section 152.21 of the Revised Code, and all other expenses 13099
necessary or incident to assessing, planning, or determining the 13100
feasibility or practicability with respect to capital facilities, 13101
and such other expenses as may be necessary or incident to the 13102
assessment, planning, acquisition, construction, reconstruction, 13103
rehabilitation, remodeling, renovation, enlargement, improvement, 13104
alteration, maintenance, equipment, furnishing, repair, painting, 13105
decoration, management, or operation of capital facilities, the 13106
financing thereof and the placing of the same in use and 13107
operation, including any one, part of, or combination of such 13108
classes of costs and expenses.13109

       (6) "Governmental entity" means any state agency, municipal 13110
corporation, county, township, school district, and any other 13111
political subdivision or special district in this state 13112
established pursuant to law, and, except where otherwise 13113
indicated, also means the United States or any of the states or 13114
any department, division, or agency thereof, and any agency, 13115
commission, or authority established pursuant to an interstate 13116
compact or agreement.13117

       (7) "Governing body" means:13118

       (a) In the case of a county, the board of county 13119
commissioners or other legislative authority; in the case of a 13120
municipal corporation, the legislative authority; in the case of a 13121
township, the board of township trustees; in the case of a school 13122
district, the board of education;13123

       (b) In the case of any other governmental entity, the 13124
officer, board, commission, authority, or other body having the 13125
general management of the entity or having jurisdiction or 13126
authority in the particular circumstances.13127

       (8) "Available receipts" means fees, charges, revenues, 13128
grants, subsidies, income from the investment of moneys, proceeds 13129
from the sale of goods or services, and all other revenues or 13130
receipts received by or on behalf of any state agency for which 13131
capital facilities are financed with obligations issued under 13132
Chapter 152. of the Revised Code, any state agency participating 13133
in capital facilities pursuant to section 152.33 of the Revised 13134
Code, or any state agency by which the capital facilities are 13135
constructed or financed; revenues or receipts derived by the 13136
authority from the operation, leasing, or other disposition of 13137
capital facilities, and the proceeds of obligations issued under 13138
Chapter 152. of the Revised Code; and also any moneys appropriated 13139
by a governmental entity, gifts, grants, donations, and pledges, 13140
and receipts therefrom, available for the payment of bond service 13141
charges on such obligations.13142

       (9) "Available community or technical college receipts" means 13143
all money received by a community or technical college or 13144
community or technical college district, including income, 13145
revenues, and receipts from the operation, ownership, or control 13146
of facilities, grants, gifts, donations, and pledges and receipts 13147
therefrom, receipts from fees and charges, the allocated state 13148
share of instruction as defined in section 3333.903333.59 of the 13149
Revised Code, and the proceeds of the sale of obligations, 13150
including proceeds of obligations issued to refund obligations 13151
previously issued, but excluding any special fee, and receipts 13152
therefrom, charged pursuant to division (D) of section 154.21 of 13153
the Revised Code.13154

        (10) "Community or technical college," "college," "community 13155
or technical college district," and "district" have the same 13156
meanings as in section 3333.903333.59 of the Revised Code.13157

       (11) "Community or technical college capital facilities" 13158
means auxiliary facilities, education facilities, and housing and 13159
dining facilities, as those terms are defined in section 3345.12 13160
of the Revised Code, to the extent permitted to be financed by the 13161
issuance of obligations under division (A)(2) of section 3357.112 13162
of the Revised Code, that are authorized by sections 3354.121, 13163
3357.112, and 3358.10 of the Revised Code to be financed by 13164
obligations issued by a community or technical college district, 13165
and for which the Ohio building authority is authorized to issue 13166
obligations pursuant to Chapter 152. of the Revised Code, and 13167
includes any one, part of, or any combination of the foregoing, 13168
and further includes site improvements, utilities, machinery, 13169
furnishings, and any separate or connected buildings, structures, 13170
improvements, sites, open space and green space areas, utilities, 13171
or equipment to be used in, or in connection with the operation or 13172
maintenance of, or supplementing or otherwise related to the 13173
services or facilities to be provided by, such facilities.13174

        (12) "Cost of community or technical college capital 13175
facilities" means the costs of acquiring, constructing, 13176
reconstructing, rehabilitating, remodeling, renovating, enlarging, 13177
improving, equipping, or furnishing community or technical college 13178
capital facilities, and the financing thereof, including the cost 13179
of clearance and preparation of the site and of any land to be 13180
used in connection with community or technical college capital 13181
facilities, the cost of any indemnity and surety bonds and 13182
premiums on insurance, all related direct administrative expenses 13183
and allocable portions of direct costs of the authority, community 13184
or technical college or community or technical college district, 13185
cost of engineering, architectural services, design, plans, 13186
specifications and surveys, estimates of cost, legal fees, fees 13187
and expenses of trustees, depositories, bond registrars, and 13188
paying agents for the obligations, cost of issuance of the 13189
obligations and financing costs and fees and expenses of financial 13190
advisers and consultants in connection therewith, interest on the 13191
obligations from the date thereof to the time when interest is to 13192
be covered by available receipts or other sources other than 13193
proceeds of the obligations, amounts that represent the portion of 13194
investment earnings to be rebated or to be paid to the federal 13195
government in order to maintain the exclusion from gross income 13196
for federal income tax purposes of interest on those obligations 13197
pursuant to section 148(f) of the Internal Revenue Code, amounts 13198
necessary to establish reserves as required by the bond 13199
proceedings, costs of audits, the reimbursements of all moneys 13200
advanced or applied by or borrowed from the community or technical 13201
college, community or technical college district, or others, from 13202
whatever source provided, including any temporary advances from 13203
state appropriations, for the payment of any item or items of cost 13204
of community or technical college facilities, and all other 13205
expenses necessary or incident to planning or determining 13206
feasibility or practicability with respect to such facilities, and 13207
such other expenses as may be necessary or incident to the 13208
acquisition, construction, reconstruction, rehabilitation, 13209
remodeling, renovation, enlargement, improvement, equipment, and 13210
furnishing of community or technical college capital facilities, 13211
the financing thereof and the placing of them in use and 13212
operation, including any one, part of, or combination of such 13213
classes of costs and expenses.13214

       (B) Pursuant to the powers granted to the general assembly 13215
under Section 2i of Article VIII, Ohio Constitution, to authorize 13216
the issuance of revenue obligations and other obligations, the 13217
owners or holders of which are not given the right to have excises 13218
or taxes levied by the general assembly for the payment of 13219
principal thereof or interest thereon, the Ohio building authority 13220
may issue obligations, in accordance with Chapter 152. of the 13221
Revised Code, and shall cause the net proceeds thereof, after any 13222
deposits of accrued interest for the payment of bond service 13223
charges and after any deposit of all or such lesser portion as the 13224
authority may direct of the premium received upon the sale of 13225
those obligations for the payment of the bond service charges, to 13226
be applied to the costs of capital facilities designated by or 13227
pursuant to act of the general assembly for housing state agencies 13228
as authorized by Chapter 152. of the Revised Code. The authority 13229
shall provide by resolution for the issuance of such obligations. 13230
The bond service charges and all other payments required to be 13231
made by the trust agreement or indenture securing such obligations 13232
shall be payable solely from available receipts of the authority 13233
pledged thereto as provided in such resolution. The available 13234
receipts pledged and thereafter received by the authority are 13235
immediately subject to the lien of such pledge without any 13236
physical delivery thereof or further act, and the lien of any such 13237
pledge is valid and binding against all parties having claims of 13238
any kind against the authority, irrespective of whether those 13239
parties have notice thereof, and creates a perfected security 13240
interest for all purposes of Chapter 1309. of the Revised Code and 13241
a perfected lien for purposes of any real property interest, all 13242
without the necessity for separation or delivery of funds or for 13243
the filing or recording of the resolution, trust agreement, 13244
indenture, or other agreement by which such pledge is created or 13245
any certificate, statement, or other document with respect 13246
thereto; and the pledge of such available receipts is effective 13247
and the money therefrom and thereof may be applied to the purposes 13248
for which pledged. Every pledge, and every covenant and agreement 13249
made with respect to the pledge, made in the resolution may 13250
therein be extended to the benefit of the owners and holders of 13251
obligations authorized by Chapter 152. of the Revised Code, the 13252
net proceeds of which are to be applied to the costs of capital 13253
facilities, and to any trustee therefor, for the further securing 13254
of the payment of the bond service charges, and all or any rights 13255
under any agreement or lease made under this section may be 13256
assigned for such purpose. Obligations may be issued at one time 13257
or from time to time, and each issue shall be dated, shall mature 13258
at such time or times as determined by the authority not exceeding 13259
forty years from the date of issue, and may be redeemable before 13260
maturity at the option of the authority at such price or prices 13261
and under such terms and conditions as are fixed by the authority 13262
prior to the issuance of the obligations. The authority shall 13263
determine the form of the obligations, fix their denominations, 13264
establish their interest rate or rates, which may be a variable 13265
rate or rates, or the maximum interest rate, and establish within 13266
or without this state a place or places of payment of bond service 13267
charges.13268

       (C) The obligations shall be signed by the authority 13269
chairperson, vice-chairperson, and secretary-treasurer, and the 13270
authority seal shall be affixed. The signatures may be facsimile 13271
signatures and the seal affixed may be a facsimile seal, as 13272
provided by resolution of the authority. Any coupons attached may 13273
bear the facsimile signature of the chairperson. In case any 13274
officer who has signed any obligations, or caused the officer's 13275
facsimile signature to be affixed thereto, ceases to be such 13276
officer before such obligations have been delivered, such 13277
obligations may, nevertheless, be issued and delivered as though 13278
the person who had signed the obligations or caused the person's 13279
facsimile signature to be affixed thereto had not ceased to be 13280
such officer.13281

       Any obligations may be executed on behalf of the authority by 13282
an officer who, on the date of execution, is the proper officer 13283
although on the date of such obligations such person was not the 13284
proper officer.13285

       (D) All obligations issued by the authority shall have all 13286
the qualities and incidents of negotiable instruments and may be 13287
issued in coupon or in registered form, or both, as the authority 13288
determines. Provision may be made for the registration of any 13289
obligations with coupons attached thereto as to principal alone or 13290
as to both principal and interest, their exchange for obligations 13291
so registered, and for the conversion or reconversion into 13292
obligations with coupons attached thereto of any obligations 13293
registered as to both principal and interest, and for reasonable 13294
charges for such registration, exchange, conversion, and 13295
reconversion. The authority may sell its obligations in any manner 13296
and for such prices as it determines, except that the authority 13297
shall sell obligations sold at public or private sale in 13298
accordance with section 152.091 of the Revised Code.13299

       (E) The obligations of the authority, principal, interest, 13300
and any proceeds from their sale or transfer, are exempt from all 13301
taxation within this state.13302

       (F) The authority is authorized to issue revenue obligations 13303
and other obligations under Section 2i of Article VIII, Ohio 13304
Constitution, for the purpose of paying the cost of capital 13305
facilities for housing of branches and agencies of state 13306
government, including capital facilities for the purpose of 13307
housing personnel, equipment, or functions, or any combination 13308
thereof that the state agencies are responsible for housing, as 13309
are authorized by Chapter 152. of the Revised Code, and that are 13310
authorized by the general assembly by the appropriation of lease 13311
payments or other moneys for such capital facilities or by any 13312
other act of the general assembly, but not including the 13313
appropriation of moneys for feasibility studies for such capital 13314
facilities. This division does not authorize the authority to 13315
issue obligations pursuant to Section 2i of Article VIII, Ohio 13316
Constitution, to pay the cost of capital facilities for mental 13317
hygiene and retardation, parks and recreation, or state-supported 13318
or state-assisted institutions of higher education.13319

       (G) The authority is authorized to issue revenue obligations 13320
under Section 2i of Article VIII, Ohio Constitution, on behalf of 13321
a community or technical college district and shall cause the net 13322
proceeds thereof, after any deposits of accrued interest for the 13323
payment of bond service charges and after any deposit of all or 13324
such lesser portion as the authority may direct of the premium 13325
received upon the sale of those obligations for the payment of the 13326
bond service charges, to be applied to the cost of community or 13327
technical college capital facilities, provided that the issuance 13328
of such obligations is subject to the execution of a written 13329
agreement in accordance with division (C) of section 3333.9013330
3333.59 of the Revised Code for the withholding and depositing of 13331
funds otherwise due the district, or the college it operates, in 13332
respect of its allocated state share of instruction.13333

        The authority shall provide by resolution for the issuance of 13334
such obligations. The bond service charges and all other payments 13335
required to be made by the trust agreement or indenture securing 13336
the obligations shall be payable solely from available community 13337
or technical college receipts pledged thereto as provided in the 13338
resolution. The available community or technical college receipts 13339
pledged and thereafter received by the authority are immediately 13340
subject to the lien of such pledge without any physical delivery 13341
thereof or further act, and the lien of any such pledge is valid 13342
and binding against all parties having claims of any kind against 13343
the authority, irrespective of whether those parties have notice 13344
thereof, and creates a perfected security interest for all 13345
purposes of Chapter 1309. of the Revised Code and a perfected lien 13346
for purposes of any real property interest, all without the 13347
necessity for separation or delivery of funds or for the filing or 13348
recording of the resolution, trust agreement, indenture, or other 13349
agreement by which such pledge is created or any certificate, 13350
statement, or other document with respect thereto; and the pledge 13351
of such available community or technical college receipts is 13352
effective and the money therefrom and thereof may be applied to 13353
the purposes for which pledged. Every pledge, and every covenant 13354
and agreement made with respect to the pledge, made in the 13355
resolution may therein be extended to the benefit of the owners 13356
and holders of obligations authorized by this division, and to any 13357
trustee therefor, for the further securing of the payment of the 13358
bond service charges, and all or any rights under any agreement or 13359
lease made under this section may be assigned for such purpose. 13360
Obligations may be issued at one time or from time to time, and 13361
each issue shall be dated, shall mature at such time or times as 13362
determined by the authority not exceeding forty years from the 13363
date of issue, and may be redeemable before maturity at the option 13364
of the authority at such price or prices and under such terms and 13365
conditions as are fixed by the authority prior to the issuance of 13366
the obligations. The authority shall determine the form of the 13367
obligations, fix their denominations, establish their interest 13368
rate or rates, which may be a variable rate or rates, or the 13369
maximum interest rate, and establish within or without this state 13370
a place or places of payment of bond service charges.13371

       Sec. 153.692. For every design-build contract, the public 13372
authority planning to contract for design-build services shall 13373
first obtain the services of a criteria architect or engineer by 13374
doing either of the following: 13375

       (A) Contracting for the services consistent with sections 13376
153.65 to 153.70 of the Revised Code;13377

       (B) Obtaining the services through an architect or engineer 13378
who is an employee of the public authority and notifying the 13379
department of administrative servicesOhio facilities construction 13380
commission before the services are performed.13381

       Sec. 154.01.  As used in this chapter:13382

       (A) "Commission" means the Ohio public facilities commission 13383
created in section 151.02 of the Revised Code.13384

       (B) "Obligations" means bonds, notes, or other evidences of 13385
obligation, including interest coupons pertaining thereto, issued 13386
pursuant to Chapter 154. of the Revised Code.13387

       (C) "Bond proceedings" means the order or orders, resolution 13388
or resolutions, trust agreement, indenture, lease, and other 13389
agreements, amendments and supplements to the foregoing, or any 13390
combination thereof, authorizing or providing for the terms and 13391
conditions applicable to, or providing for the security of, 13392
obligations issued pursuant to Chapter 154. of the Revised Code, 13393
and the provisions contained in such obligations.13394

       (D) "State agencies" means the state of Ohio and officers, 13395
boards, commissions, departments, divisions, or other units or 13396
agencies of the state.13397

       (E) "Governmental agency" means state agencies, state 13398
supported and assisted institutions of higher education, municipal 13399
corporations, counties, townships, school districts, and any other 13400
political subdivision or special district in this state 13401
established pursuant to law, and, except where otherwise 13402
indicated, also means the United States or any department, 13403
division, or agency thereof, and any agency, commission, or 13404
authority established pursuant to an interstate compact or 13405
agreement.13406

       (F) "Institutions of higher education" and "state supported 13407
or state assisted institutions of higher education" means the 13408
state universities identified in section 3345.011 of the Revised 13409
Code, the northeast Ohio medical university, state universities or 13410
colleges at any time created, community college districts, 13411
university branch districts, and technical college districts at 13412
any time established or operating under Chapter 3354., 3355., or 13413
3357. of the Revised Code, and other institutions for education, 13414
including technical education, beyond the high school, receiving 13415
state support or assistance for their expenses of operation.13416

       (G) "Governing body" means:13417

       (1) In the case of institutions of higher education, the 13418
board of trustees, board of directors, commission, or other body 13419
vested by law with the general management, conduct, and control of 13420
one or more institutions of higher education;13421

       (2) In the case of a county, the board of county 13422
commissioners or other legislative body; in the case of a 13423
municipal corporation, the council or other legislative body; in 13424
the case of a township, the board of township trustees; in the 13425
case of a school district, the board of education;13426

       (3) In the case of any other governmental agency, the 13427
officer, board, commission, authority or other body having the 13428
general management thereof or having jurisdiction or authority in 13429
the particular circumstances.13430

       (H) "Person" means any person, firm, partnership, 13431
association, or corporation.13432

       (I) "Bond service charges" means principal, including 13433
mandatory sinking fund requirements for retirement of obligations, 13434
and interest, and redemption premium, if any, required to be paid 13435
by the state on obligations. If not prohibited by the applicable 13436
bond proceedings, bond service charges may include costs relating 13437
to credit enhancement facilities that are related to and 13438
represent, or are intended to provide a source of payment of or 13439
limitation on, other bond service charges.13440

       (J) "Capital facilities" means buildings, structures, and 13441
other improvements, and equipment, real estate, and interests in 13442
real estate therefor, within the state, and any one, part of, or 13443
combination of the foregoing, to serve the general purposes for 13444
which the issuing authority is authorized to issue obligations 13445
pursuant to Chapter 154. of the Revised Code, including, but not 13446
limited to, drives, roadways, parking facilities, walks, lighting, 13447
machinery, furnishings, utilities, landscaping, wharves, docks, 13448
piers, reservoirs, dams, tunnels, bridges, retaining walls, 13449
riprap, culverts, ditches, channels, watercourses, retention 13450
basins, standpipes and water storage facilities, waste treatment 13451
and disposal facilities, heating, air conditioning and 13452
communications facilities, inns, lodges, cabins, camping sites, 13453
golf courses, boat and bathing facilities, athletic and 13454
recreational facilities, and site improvements.13455

       (K) "Costs of capital facilities" means the costs of 13456
acquiring, constructing, reconstructing, rehabilitating, 13457
remodeling, renovating, enlarging, improving, equipping, or 13458
furnishing capital facilities, and the financing thereof, 13459
including the cost of clearance and preparation of the site and of 13460
any land to be used in connection with capital facilities, the 13461
cost of any indemnity and surety bonds and premiums on insurance, 13462
all related direct administrative expenses and allocable portions 13463
of direct costs of the commission or issuing authority and 13464
department of administrative services, or other designees of the 13465
commission under section 154.17 of the Revised Code, cost of 13466
engineering and architectural services, designs, plans, 13467
specifications, surveys, and estimates of cost, legal fees, fees 13468
and expenses of trustees, depositories, and paying agents for the 13469
obligations, cost of issuance of the obligations and financing 13470
charges and fees and expenses of financial advisers and 13471
consultants in connection therewith, interest on obligations, 13472
including but not limited to, interest from the date of their 13473
issuance to the time when interest is to be covered from sources 13474
other than proceeds of obligations, amounts necessary to establish 13475
reserves as required by the bond proceedings, costs of audits, the 13476
reimbursement of all moneys advanced or applied by or borrowed 13477
from any governmental agency, whether to or by the commission or 13478
others, from whatever source provided, for the payment of any item 13479
or items of cost of the capital facilities, any share of the cost 13480
undertaken by the commission pursuant to arrangements made with 13481
governmental agencies under division (H) of section 154.06 of the 13482
Revised Code, and all other expenses necessary or incident to 13483
planning or determining feasibility or practicability with respect 13484
to capital facilities, and such other expenses as may be necessary 13485
or incident to the acquisition, construction, reconstruction, 13486
rehabilitation, remodeling, renovation, enlargement, improvement, 13487
equipment, and furnishing of capital facilities, the financing 13488
thereof and the placing of the same in use and operation, 13489
including any one, part of, or combination of such classes of 13490
costs and expenses.13491

       (L) "Public service facilities" means inns, lodges, hotels, 13492
cabins, camping sites, scenic trails, picnic sites, restaurants, 13493
commissaries, golf courses, boating and bathing facilities and 13494
other similar facilities in state parks.13495

       (M) "State parks" means:13496

       (1) State reservoirs described and identified in section 13497
1541.06 of the Revised Code;13498

       (2) All lands or interests therein of the state identified as 13499
administered by the division of parks and recreation in the 13500
"inventory of state owned lands administered by the department of 13501
natural resources as of June 1, 1963," as recorded in the journal 13502
of the director, which inventory was prepared by the real estate 13503
section of the department and is supported by maps now on file in 13504
said real estate section;13505

       (3) All lands or interests in lands of the state designated 13506
after June 1, 1963, as state parks in the journal of the director 13507
with the approval of the recreation and resources council.13508

       State parks do not include any lands or interest in lands of 13509
the state administered jointly by two or more divisions of the 13510
department of natural resources. The designation of lands as state 13511
parks under divisions (M)(1) to (3) of this section is conclusive 13512
and such lands shall be under the control of and administered by 13513
the division of parks and recreation. No order or proceeding 13514
designating lands as state parks or park purchase areas is subject 13515
to any appeal or review by any officer, board, commission, or 13516
court.13517

       (N) "Bond service fund" means the applicable fund created for 13518
and pledged to the payment of bond service charges under section 13519
154.20, 154.21, 154.22, or 154.23 of the Revised Code, including 13520
all moneys and investments, and earnings from investments, 13521
credited and to be credited thereto.13522

       (O) "Improvement fund" means the applicable fund created for 13523
the payment of costs of capital facilities under section 123.201,13524
154.20, 154.21, or 154.22, or 3383.09 of the Revised Code, 13525
including all moneys and investments, and earnings from 13526
investments, credited and to be credited thereto.13527

       (P) "Special funds" or "funds" means, except where the 13528
context does not permit, the bond service funds, the improvements 13529
funds, and any other funds for similar or different purposes 13530
created under bond proceedings, including all moneys and 13531
investments, and earnings from investments, credited and to be 13532
credited thereto.13533

       (Q) "Year" unless the context indicates a different meaning 13534
or intent, means a calendar year beginning on the first day of 13535
January and ending on the thirty-first day of December.13536

       (R) "Fiscal year" means the period of twelve months beginning 13537
on the first day of July and ending on the thirtieth day of June.13538

       (S) "Issuing authority" means the treasurer of state or the 13539
officer or employee who by law performs the functions of that 13540
office.13541

       (T) "Credit enhancement facilities" has the same meaning as 13542
in section 133.01 of the Revised Code.13543

       (U) "Ohio cultural facility" and "Ohio sports facility" have 13544
the same meanings as in section 3383.01123.28 of the Revised 13545
Code.13546

       Sec. 154.17.  The departments of administrative services,13547
mental healthmental health and addiction services, developmental 13548
disabilities, rehabilitation and correction, and natural 13549
resources, the Ohio board of regents, institutions of higher 13550
education, and other state officers and state agencies shall 13551
cooperate with the commission in providing services and 13552
information requested by the commission for purposes of Chapter 13553
154. of the Revised Code, and the commission may make mutually 13554
satisfactory arrangements therefor and may thereunder designate 13555
any governmental agency for the management or performance of 13556
particular functions of the commission, other than the 13557
authorization and issuance of obligations provided for in Chapter 13558
154. of the Revised Code, pursuant to which designation, upon 13559
acceptance thereof by that governmental agency, that function may 13560
be carried out with the full force and effect as if performed by 13561
the commission. Any such designation shall be made only by formal 13562
action or written agreement of the commission. In the management 13563
of capital facilities or performance of other functions with 13564
respect thereto, a governmental agency may exercise all powers 13565
which it has under law with respect to other similar facilities 13566
under its jurisdiction.13567

       Contracts relating to capital facilities shall be made in 13568
accordance with the law pertaining to the governmental agency 13569
designated under authority of this section to perform such 13570
contracting function, and in any other case shall be made in 13571
accordance with Chapter 153. of the Revised Code, for which 13572
purpose the commission shall be considered the owner, provided 13573
that the commission may assign the function of owner to the 13574
department of administrative services or other governmental agency 13575
as it determines. The commission may acquire by assignment from 13576
any governmental agency contracts which are not completed and 13577
which involve acquiring, constructing, reconstructing, 13578
rehabilitating, remodeling, renovating, enlarging, improving, 13579
equipping, or furnishing capital facilities, provided that such 13580
governmental agency has complied with the procedures prescribed by 13581
laws for its letting of such contract.13582

       No contract shall be let or assignment thereof accepted under 13583
this section involving performance in accordance with plans and 13584
specifications until such plans and specifications have been 13585
submitted to and approved by the governmental agency to have 13586
responsibility for the management of the capital facilities 13587
provided for in such plans and specifications, which approval 13588
shall be considered to be given if no approval or disapproval is 13589
communicated in writing to the commission or its designee for such 13590
purpose within sixty days following such submission of plans and 13591
specifications. Approval by such governmental agency of changes in 13592
plans and specifications is not required if the director of 13593
administrative services or the designee of the commission for such 13594
purpose shall certify that such changes do not substantially 13595
change the location, character, or extent of such capital 13596
facilities.13597

       Sec. 154.20.  (A) Subject to authorization by the general 13598
assembly under section 154.02 of the Revised Code, the issuing 13599
authority may issue obligations pursuant to this chapter to pay 13600
costs of capital facilities for mental hygiene and retardation, 13601
including housing for mental hygiene and retardation patients.13602

       (B) Any capital facilities for mental hygiene or retardation, 13603
including housing for mental hygiene and retardation patients, may 13604
be leased by the commission to the department of mental health,13605
mental health and addiction services or the department of 13606
developmental disabilities, or the department of alcohol and drug 13607
addiction services, and other agreements may be made by the 13608
commission and any one or more of these departments with respect 13609
to the use or purchase of such capital facilities or, subject to 13610
the approval of the director of the department, the commission may 13611
lease such capital facilities to, and make or provide for other 13612
agreements with respect to the use or purchase thereof with, any 13613
governmental agency having authority under law to operate such 13614
capital facilities, and the director of the department may 13615
sublease such capital facilities to, and make other agreements 13616
with respect to the use or purchase thereof with, any such 13617
governmental agency, which may include provisions for transmittal 13618
to the mental health bond service trust fund created under 13619
division (E) of this section, by such governmental agency or by a 13620
nonprofit corporation providing mental hygiene and retardation 13621
services for or under contract with or the supervision of that 13622
governmental agency, of receipts of that agency or nonprofit 13623
corporation from charges for the treatment or care of mental 13624
hygiene and retardation patients, all upon such terms and 13625
conditions as the parties may agree upon and pursuant to this 13626
chapter, notwithstanding any other provision of law affecting the 13627
leasing, acquisition, or disposition of capital facilities by the 13628
parties.13629

       (C) For purposes of this section, "available receipts" means 13630
all receipts of the state from charges for the treatment or care 13631
of mental hygiene and retardation patients, including support 13632
payments received under Chapter 5121. of the Revised Code and 13633
moneys required to be transmitted to the mental health bond 13634
service trust fund pursuant to subleases and other agreements 13635
between any of the departments and another governmental agency 13636
pursuant to division (B) of this section as the subleases and 13637
other agreements may be further implemented for internal planning, 13638
budgeting, and accounting purposes pursuant to rules adopted by 13639
the director of mental health,mental health and addiction 13640
services or director of developmental disabilities, or director of 13641
alcohol and drug addiction services, any revenues or receipts 13642
derived by the commission from the operation, leasing, or other 13643
disposition of capital facilities financed under this section, the 13644
proceeds of obligations issued under this section and sections 13645
154.11 and 154.12 of the Revised Code, and also means any gifts, 13646
grants, donations, and pledges, and receipts therefrom, available 13647
for the payment of bond service charges on such obligations. The 13648
issuing authority may pledge all, or such portion as that 13649
authority determines, of the available receipts to the payment of 13650
bond service charges on obligations issued under this section and 13651
under sections 154.11 and 154.12 of the Revised Code and for the 13652
establishment and maintenance of any reserves, as provided in the 13653
bond proceedings, and make other provisions therein with respect 13654
to such available receipts as authorized by this chapter, which 13655
provisions shall be controlling notwithstanding any other 13656
provision of law pertaining thereto.13657

       (D) The issuing authority may covenant in the bond 13658
proceedings that the state and state agencies shall, so long as 13659
any obligations issued under this section are outstanding, cause 13660
to be charged and collected charges for the treatment or care of 13661
mental hygiene and retardation patients sufficient in amount to 13662
provide for the payment of bond service charges on such 13663
obligations and for the establishment and maintenance of any 13664
reserves, as provided in the bond proceedings, and such covenants 13665
shall be controlling notwithstanding any other provision of law 13666
pertaining to such charges.13667

       (E) There is hereby created the mental health bond service 13668
trust fund, which shall be in the custody of the treasurer of 13669
state but shall be separate and apart from and not a part of the 13670
state treasury. All moneys received by or on account of the 13671
commission or issuing authority or state agencies and required by 13672
the applicable bond proceedings to be deposited, transferred, or 13673
credited to the fund, and all other moneys transferred or 13674
allocated to or received for the purposes of the fund, shall be 13675
deposited with the treasurer of state and credited to such fund, 13676
subject to applicable provisions of the bond proceedings, but 13677
without necessity for any act of appropriation. The mental health 13678
bond service trust fund is a trust fund and is hereby pledged to 13679
the payment of bond service charges on the obligations issued 13680
pursuant to this section and sections 154.11 and 154.12 of the 13681
Revised Code to the extent provided in the applicable bond 13682
proceedings, and payment thereof from such fund shall be made or 13683
provided for by the treasurer of state in accordance with such 13684
bond proceedings without necessity for any act of appropriation.13685

       (F) There is hereby created in the state treasury the mental 13686
health facilities improvement fund. Subject to the bond 13687
proceedings therefor, all of the proceeds of the sale of 13688
obligations pursuant to this section shall be credited to the 13689
fund, except that any accrued interest shall be credited to the 13690
mental health bond service fund. The mental health facilities 13691
improvement fund may also be comprised of gifts, grants, 13692
appropriated moneys, and other sums and securities received to the 13693
credit of such fund. All investment earnings on the cash balance 13694
in the fund shall be credited to the fund. The fund shall be 13695
applied only to the following purposes:13696

       (1) Paying costs of capital facilities for mental hygiene and 13697
retardation, including housing for mental hygiene and retardation 13698
patients, under the jurisdiction of the department of mental 13699
health,mental health and addiction services or department of 13700
developmental disabilities, or department of alcohol and drug 13701
addiction services;13702

       (2) Participating in capital facilities for mental hygiene 13703
and retardation, including housing for mental hygiene and 13704
retardation patients, with the federal government, municipal 13705
corporations, counties, or other governmental agencies, or a 13706
nonprofit corporation specifically chartered to provide a mental 13707
health or mental retardation service when such service fulfills a 13708
public purpose, which participation may be by grants or 13709
contributions to them for such capital facilities. Except as 13710
provided in division (G) of this section, the nonprofit 13711
corporation may act in concert with a limited partnership or a 13712
limited liability company eligible to participate in the nonprofit 13713
set-aside described in section 42(h)(5) of the "Internal Revenue 13714
Code of 1986," 100 Stat. 2198, 26 U.S.C. 42, and the Ohio housing 13715
finance agency's housing tax credit program for the purpose of 13716
making use of low-income housing tax credits in support of housing 13717
for mental hygiene and retardation patients.13718

       (G) A nonprofit corporation providing a mental retardation 13719
service must obtain written approval from the director of 13720
developmental disabilities before acting in concert with a limited 13721
partnership or limited liability company as described in division 13722
(F)(2) of this section. However, the director may issue one 13723
blanket approval for all such nonprofit corporations.13724

       (H) This section is to be applied with other applicable 13725
provisions of this chapter.13726

       Sec. 154.22.  (A) Subject to authorization by the general 13727
assembly under section 154.02 of the Revised Code, the issuing 13728
authority may authorize and issue obligations pursuant to this 13729
chapter to pay costs of capital facilities for parks and 13730
recreation.13731

       (B) Any capital facilities for parks and recreation may be 13732
leased by the commission to the department of natural resources 13733
and other agreements may be made by the commission and such 13734
department with respect to the use or purchase of such capital 13735
facilities or, subject to the approval of the director of such 13736
department, the commission may lease such capital facilities to, 13737
and make other agreements with respect to their use or purchase 13738
with, any governmental agency having authority under law to 13739
operate such capital facilities, and the director of such 13740
department may sublease such capital facilities to, and make other 13741
agreements with respect to the use or purchase thereof with, any 13742
such governmental agency, or such director may sublease or 13743
contract for the operation of such capital facilities in 13744
accordance with the applicable provisions of sections 1501.09, 13745
1501.091, and 1501.10 of the Revised Code, all upon such terms and 13746
conditions as the parties may agree upon and pursuant to this 13747
chapter, notwithstanding any other provisions of law affecting the 13748
leasing, acquisition, or disposition of capital facilities by such 13749
parties.13750

       (C) For purposes of this section, "available receipts" means 13751
all receipts, including fees, charges, and rentals, derived or to 13752
be derived from state parks and public service facilities in any 13753
state park or parks, any other receipts of state agencies with 13754
respect to parks and recreational facilities, any revenues or 13755
receipts derived by the commission from the operation, leasing, or 13756
other disposition of capital facilities financed under this 13757
section, the proceeds of obligations issued under this section and 13758
sections 154.11 and 154.12 of the Revised Code, and also means any 13759
gifts, grants, donations, and pledges, and receipts thereon, 13760
available for the payment of bond service charges on obligations 13761
issued under this section. The issuing authority may pledge all, 13762
or such portion as it determines, of the available receipts to the 13763
payment of bond service charges on obligations issued under this 13764
section and sections 154.11 and 154.12 of the Revised Code and for 13765
the establishment and maintenance of any reserves, as provided in 13766
the bond proceedings, and make other provisions therein with 13767
respect to such available receipts as authorized by this chapter, 13768
which provisions shall be controlling notwithstanding any other 13769
provision of law pertaining thereto.13770

       (D) The issuing authority may covenant in the bond proceeding 13771
that the state and state agencies shall, so long as any 13772
obligations issued under this section are outstanding, cause to be 13773
charged and collected fees, charges, and rentals for the use of 13774
state parks and public service facilities and other fees and 13775
charges with respect to parks and recreation sufficient in amount 13776
to provide for the payment of bond service charges on such 13777
obligations and for the establishment and maintenance of any 13778
reserves as provided in the bond proceedings, and such covenants 13779
shall be controlling notwithstanding any other provision of law 13780
pertaining to such charges except any provision of law prohibiting 13781
or limiting charges for the use of swimming facilities of state 13782
parks and public service facilities by persons under sixteen years 13783
of age.13784

       (E) There is hereby created the parks and recreation bond 13785
service trust fund, which shall be in the custody of the treasurer 13786
of state but shall be separate and apart from and not a part of 13787
the state treasury. All moneys received by or on account of the 13788
commission or issuing authority or state agencies and required by 13789
the applicable bond proceedings to be deposited, transferred, or 13790
allocated to or received for the purposes of the trust fund shall 13791
be deposited with the treasurer of state and credited to such 13792
fund, subject to applicable provisions of the bond proceedings but 13793
without necessity for any act of appropriation. The trust fund is 13794
hereby pledged to the payment of bond service charges on the 13795
obligations issued pursuant to this section and sections 154.11 13796
and 154.12 of the Revised Code to the extent provided in the 13797
applicable bond proceedings, and payment thereof from such fund 13798
shall be made or provided for by the treasurer of state in 13799
accordance with such bond proceedings without necessity for any 13800
act of appropriation.13801

       (F) There is hereby created in the state treasury the parks 13802
and recreation improvement fund. Subject to the bond proceedings 13803
therefor, all of the proceeds of the sale of obligations issued 13804
pursuant to this section shall be credited to such fund, except 13805
that any accrued interest received shall be credited to the parks 13806
and recreation bond service trust fund. The parks and recreation 13807
improvement fund may also be comprised of gifts, grants, 13808
appropriated moneys, and other sums and securities received to the 13809
credit of such fund. Such fund shall be applied only to the 13810
purpose of paying costs of capital facilities for parks and 13811
recreation under the jurisdiction of the department of natural 13812
resources or for participation in capital facilities for parks and 13813
recreation with the federal government, municipal corporations, 13814
counties, or other governmental agencies, or any one or more of 13815
them, which participation may be by grants or contributions to 13816
them for such capital facilities. All investment earnings on the 13817
cash balance in the fund shall be credited to the fund.13818

       (G) All state parks shall be exclusively under the control 13819
and administration of the division of parks and recreation. With 13820
the approval of the recreation and resources council, the director 13821
of natural resources may by order remove from the classification 13822
as state parks any of the lands or interests therein referred to 13823
in divisions (M)(2) and (3) of section 154.01 of the Revised Code, 13824
subject to the limitations, provisions, and conditions in any 13825
order authorizing state park revenue bonds, in any trust agreement 13826
securing such bonds, or in bond proceedings with respect to 13827
obligations issued pursuant to this section. Lands or interests 13828
therein so removed shall be transferred to other divisions of the 13829
department for administration or may be sold as provided by law. 13830
Proceeds of any sale shall be used or transferred as provided in 13831
the order authorizing state park revenue bonds or in such trust 13832
agreement, or in bond proceedings with respect to obligations 13833
issued pursuant to this section, and if no such provision is made 13834
shall be transferred to the state park fund created by section 13835
1541.22 of the Revised Code.13836

       (H) This section shall be applied with other applicable 13837
provisions of this chapter.13838

       (I) Any instrument by which real property is acquired 13839
pursuant to this section shall identify the agency of the state 13840
that has the use and benefit of the real property as specified in 13841
section 5301.012 of the Revised Code.13842

       Sec. 154.23.  (A) Subject to authorization by the general 13843
assembly under section 154.02 of the Revised Code, the issuing 13844
authority may issue obligations pursuant to this chapter to pay 13845
costs of capital facilities for Ohio cultural facilities and Ohio 13846
sports facilities.13847

       (B) The Ohio public facilities commission may lease any 13848
capital facilities for Ohio cultural facilities or Ohio sports 13849
facilities to, and make or provide for other agreements with 13850
respect to the use or purchase of such capital facilities with, 13851
the Ohio cultural facilities construction commission and, with the 13852
Ohio cultural facilities construction commission's approval, any 13853
governmental agency having authority under law to operate such 13854
capital facilities. Any lease or agreement shall be subject to 13855
Chapter 3383. of the Revised Code.13856

       (C) For purposes of this section, "available receipts" means 13857
any revenues or receipts derived by the Ohio public facilities 13858
commission from the operation, leasing, or other disposition of 13859
capital facilities financed under this section, the proceeds of 13860
obligations issued under this section and section 154.11 or 154.12 13861
of the Revised Code, and also means any gifts, grants, donations, 13862
and pledges, and receipts thereon, available for the payment of 13863
bond service charges on obligations issued under this section. The 13864
issuing authority may pledge all, or such portion as it 13865
determines, of the available receipts to the payment of bond 13866
service charges on obligations issued under this section and 13867
section 154.11 or 154.12 of the Revised Code and for the 13868
establishment and maintenance of any reserves, as provided in the 13869
bond proceedings, and make other provisions therein with respect 13870
to such available receipts as authorized by this chapter, which 13871
provisions shall be controlling notwithstanding any other 13872
provision of law pertaining thereto.13873

       (D) There is hereby created one or more funds, as determined 13874
by the issuing authority in the bond proceedings, designated as 13875
the "Ohio cultural facilities commission bond service fund" with, 13876
if more than one such fund, such further identifying name as the 13877
issuing authority determines, which shall be in the custody of the 13878
treasurer of state but shall be separate and apart from and not a 13879
part of the state treasury. All money received by or on account of 13880
the issuing authority or the Ohio cultural facilities construction13881
commission and required by the applicable bond proceedings to be 13882
deposited, transferred, or credited to the Ohio cultural 13883
facilities commission bond service fund, and all other money 13884
transferred or allocated to or received for the purposes of that 13885
fund shall be deposited with the treasurer of state and credited 13886
to the applicable fund, subject to applicable provisions of the 13887
bond proceedings, but without necessity of any act or 13888
appropriation. The Ohio cultural facilities commission bond 13889
service funds are trust funds and are hereby pledged to the 13890
payment of bond service charges on the applicable obligations 13891
issued pursuant to this section and section 154.11 or 154.12 of 13892
the Revised Code to the extent provided in the applicable bond 13893
proceedings, and payment thereof from such funds shall be made or 13894
provided for by the treasurer of state in accordance with the 13895
applicable bond proceedings without necessity for any act or 13896
appropriation.13897

       (E) This section is to be applied with other applicable 13898
provisions of this chapter.13899

       Sec. 154.25. (A) As used in this section:13900

       (1) "Available community or technical college receipts" means 13901
all money received by a community or technical college or 13902
community or technical college district, including income, 13903
revenues, and receipts from the operation, ownership, or control 13904
of facilities, grants, gifts, donations, and pledges and receipts 13905
therefrom, receipts from fees and charges, the allocated state 13906
share of instruction as defined in section 3333.903333.59 of the 13907
Revised Code, and the proceeds of the sale of obligations, 13908
including proceeds of obligations issued to refund obligations 13909
previously issued, but excluding any special fee, and receipts 13910
therefrom, charged pursuant to division (D) of section 154.21 of 13911
the Revised Code.13912

       (2) "Community or technical college," "college," "community 13913
or technical college district," and "district" have the same 13914
meanings as in section 3333.903333.59 of the Revised Code.13915

       (3) "Community or technical college capital facilities" means 13916
auxiliary facilities, education facilities, and housing and dining 13917
facilities, as those terms are defined in section 3345.12 of the 13918
Revised Code, to the extent permitted to be financed by the 13919
issuance of obligations under division (A)(2) of section 3357.112 13920
of the Revised Code, that are authorized by sections 3354.121, 13921
3357.112, and 3358.10 of the Revised Code to be financed by 13922
obligations issued by a community or technical college district, 13923
and for which the issuing authority is authorized to issue 13924
obligations pursuant to this section, and includes any one, part 13925
of, or any combination of the foregoing, and further includes site 13926
improvements, utilities, machinery, furnishings, and any separate 13927
or connected buildings, structures, improvements, sites, open 13928
space and green space areas, utilities, or equipment to be used 13929
in, or in connection with the operation or maintenance of, or 13930
supplementing or otherwise related to the services or facilities 13931
to be provided by, such facilities.13932

       (4) "Cost of community or technical college capital 13933
facilities" means the costs of acquiring, constructing, 13934
reconstructing, rehabilitating, remodeling, renovating, enlarging, 13935
improving, equipping, or furnishing community or technical college 13936
capital facilities, and the financing thereof, including the cost 13937
of clearance and preparation of the site and of any land to be 13938
used in connection with community or technical college capital 13939
facilities, the cost of any indemnity and surety bonds and 13940
premiums on insurance, all related direct administrative expenses 13941
and allocable portions of direct costs of the commission and the 13942
issuing authority, community or technical college or community or 13943
technical college district, cost of engineering, architectural 13944
services, design, plans, specifications and surveys, estimates of 13945
cost, legal fees, fees and expenses of trustees, depositories, 13946
bond registrars, and paying agents for obligations, cost of 13947
issuance of obligations and financing costs and fees and expenses 13948
of financial advisers and consultants in connection therewith, 13949
interest on obligations from the date thereof to the time when 13950
interest is to be covered by available receipts or other sources 13951
other than proceeds of those obligations, amounts necessary to 13952
establish reserves as required by the bond proceedings, costs of 13953
audits, the reimbursements of all moneys advanced or applied by or 13954
borrowed from the community or technical college, community or 13955
technical college district, or others, from whatever source 13956
provided, including any temporary advances from state 13957
appropriations, for the payment of any item or items of cost of 13958
community or technical college facilities, and all other expenses 13959
necessary or incident to planning or determining feasibility or 13960
practicability with respect to such facilities, and such other 13961
expenses as may be necessary or incident to the acquisition, 13962
construction, reconstruction, rehabilitation, remodeling, 13963
renovation, enlargement, improvement, equipment, and furnishing of 13964
community or technical college capital facilities, the financing 13965
thereof and the placing of them in use and operation, including 13966
any one, part of, or combination of such classes of costs and 13967
expenses.13968

       (5) "Capital facilities" includes community or technical 13969
college capital facilities.13970

       (6) "Obligations" has the same meaning as in section 154.01 13971
or 3345.12 of the Revised Code, as the context requires.13972

       (B) The issuing authority is authorized to issue revenue 13973
obligations under Section 2i of Article VIII, Ohio Constitution, 13974
on behalf of a community or technical college district and shall 13975
cause the net proceeds thereof, after any deposits of accrued 13976
interest for the payment of bond service charges and after any 13977
deposit of all or such lesser portion as the issuing authority may 13978
direct of the premium received upon the sale of those obligations 13979
for the payment of the bond service charges, to be applied to the 13980
cost of community or technical college capital facilities, 13981
provided that the issuance of such obligations is subject to the 13982
execution of a written agreement in accordance with division (C) 13983
of section 3333.903333.59 of the Revised Code for the withholding 13984
and depositing of funds otherwise due the district, or the college 13985
it operates, in respect of its allocated state share of 13986
instruction.13987

       (C) The bond service charges and all other payments required 13988
to be made by the trust agreement or indenture securing the 13989
obligations shall be payable solely from available community or 13990
technical college receipts pledged thereto as provided in the 13991
resolution. The available community or technical college receipts 13992
pledged and thereafter received by the commission are immediately 13993
subject to the lien of such pledge without any physical delivery 13994
thereof or further act, and the lien of any such pledge is valid 13995
and binding against all parties having claims of any kind against 13996
the authority, irrespective of whether those parties have notice 13997
thereof, and creates a perfected security interest for all 13998
purposes of Chapter 1309. of the Revised Code and a perfected lien 13999
for purposes of any real property interest, all without the 14000
necessity for separation or delivery of funds or for the filing or 14001
recording of the resolution, trust agreement, indenture, or other 14002
agreement by which such pledge is created or any certificate, 14003
statement, or other document with respect thereto; and the pledge 14004
of such available community or technical college receipts is 14005
effective and the money therefrom and thereof may be applied to 14006
the purposes for which pledged. Every pledge, and every covenant 14007
and agreement made with respect to the pledge, made in the 14008
resolution may therein be extended to the benefit of the owners 14009
and holders of obligations authorized by this section, and to any 14010
trustee therefor, for the further securing of the payment of the 14011
bond service charges, and all or any rights under any agreement or 14012
lease made under this section may be assigned for such purpose.14013

       (D) This section is to be applied with other applicable 14014
provisions of this chapter.14015

       Sec. 156.02.  The executive director of administrative 14016
servicesthe Ohio facilities construction commission may contract 14017
with an energy or a water services company, architect, 14018
professional engineer, contractor, or other person experienced in 14019
the design and implementation of energy or water conservation 14020
measures for a report containing an analysis and recommendations 14021
pertaining to the implementation of energy or water conservation 14022
measures that result in energy, water, or wastewater cost savings, 14023
operating cost savings, or avoided capital costs for the 14024
institution. The report shall include estimates of all costs of 14025
such installations, including the costs of design, engineering, 14026
installation, maintenance, repairs, and debt service, and 14027
estimates of the energy, water, or wastewater cost savings, 14028
operating cost savings, and avoided capital costs created.14029

       Sec. 156.03.  (A) If the executive director of administrative 14030
servicesthe Ohio facilities construction commission wishes to 14031
enter into an installment payment contract pursuant to section 14032
156.04 of the Revised Code or any other contract to implement one 14033
or more energy or water saving measures, the executive director 14034
may proceed under Chapter 153. of the Revised Code, or, 14035
alternatively, the executive director may request the controlling 14036
board to exempt the contract from Chapter 153. of the Revised 14037
Code.14038

       If the controlling board by a majority vote approves an 14039
exemption, that chapter shall not apply to the contract and 14040
instead the executive director shall request proposals from at 14041
least three parties for the implementation of the energy or water 14042
saving measures. Prior to providing any interested party a copy of 14043
any such request, the executive director shall advertise, in a 14044
newspaper of general circulation in the county where the contract 14045
is to be performed, and may advertise by electronic means pursuant 14046
to rules adopted by the executive director, the executive14047
director's intent to request proposals for the implementation of 14048
the energy or water saving measures. The notice shall invite 14049
interested parties to submit proposals for consideration and shall 14050
be published at least thirty days prior to the date for accepting 14051
proposals.14052

       (B) Upon receiving the proposals, the executive director 14053
shall analyze them and, after considering the cost estimates of 14054
each proposal and the availability of funds to pay for each with 14055
current appropriations or by financing the cost of each through an 14056
installment payment contract under section 156.04 of the Revised 14057
Code, may select one or more proposals or reject all proposals. In 14058
selecting proposals, the executive director shall select the one 14059
or more proposals most likely to result in the greatest energy, 14060
water, or wastewater savings, operating costs savings, and avoided 14061
capital costs created.14062

       (C) No contract shall be awarded to implement energy or water 14063
saving measures under this section, unless the executive director 14064
finds that both of the following circumstances exists:14065

       (1) Not less than one-fifteenth of the costs of the contract 14066
shall be paid within two years from the date of purchase;14067

        (2) In the case of a contract for a cogeneration system 14068
described in division (B)(8) of section 156.01 of the Revised 14069
Code, the remaining balance of the cost of the contract shall be 14070
paid within twenty years from the date of purchase, and, in the 14071
case of all other contracts, fifteen years.14072

       Sec. 156.04.  (A) In accordance with this section and section 14073
156.03 of the Revised Code, the executive director of 14074
administrative servicesthe Ohio facilities construction 14075
commission may enter into an installment payment contract for the 14076
implementation of one or more energy or water saving measures. If 14077
the executive director wishes an installment payment contract to 14078
be exempted from Chapter 153. of the Revised Code, the executive14079
director shall proceed pursuant to section 156.03 of the Revised 14080
Code.14081

       (B) Any installment payment contract under this section shall 14082
provide that all payments, except payments for repairs and 14083
obligations on termination of the contract prior to its 14084
expiration, are to be a stated percentage of calculated energy, 14085
water, or wastewater cost savings, operating costs, and avoided 14086
capital costs attributable to the one or more measures over a 14087
defined period of time and are to be made only to the extent that 14088
those calculated amounts actually occur. No such contract shall 14089
contain either of the following:14090

       (1) A requirement of any additional capital investment or 14091
contribution of funds, other than funds available from state or 14092
federal grants;14093

        (2) In the case of a contract for a cogeneration system 14094
described in division (B)(8) of section 156.01 of the Revised 14095
Code, a payment term longer than twenty years, and, in the case of 14096
all other contracts, a payment term longer than fifteen years.14097

       (C) Any installment payment contract entered into under this 14098
section shall terminate no later than the last day of the fiscal 14099
biennium for which funds have been appropriated to the department 14100
of administrative servicesOhio facilities construction commission14101
by the general assembly and shall be renewed in each succeeding 14102
fiscal biennium in which any balance of the contract remains 14103
unpaid, provided that both an appropriation for that succeeding 14104
fiscal biennium and the certification required by section 126.07 14105
of the Revised Code are made.14106

       (D) Any installment payment contract entered into under this 14107
section shall be eligible for financing provided through the Ohio 14108
air quality development authority under Chapter 3706. of the 14109
Revised Code.14110

       Sec. 156.05.  In accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised 14111
Code, the executive director of administrative servicesthe Ohio 14112
facilities construction commission shall adopt, and enforce rules 14113
necessary to administer sections 156.01 to 156.04 of the Revised 14114
Code. Rules adopted under this section shall establish procedures 14115
by which the executive director may authorize in histhe executive 14116
director's stead the manager of any building owned by the state to 14117
enter into contracts authorized under sections 156.01 to 156.04 of 14118
the Revised Code.14119

       Sec. 164.27. (A) The clean Ohio conservation fund is hereby 14120
created in the state treasury. Seventy-five per cent of the net 14121
proceeds of obligations issued and sold by the issuing authority 14122
pursuant to sections 151.01 and 151.09 of the Revised Code shall 14123
be deposited into the fund. The fund also shall consist of money 14124
credited to it under section 151.50 of the Revised Code.14125
Investment earnings of the fund shall be credited to the fund and 14126
may be used to pay costs incurred by the Ohio public works 14127
commission in administering sections 164.20 to 164.27 of the 14128
Revised Code. Moneys in the clean Ohio conservation fund shall be 14129
used to make grants to local political subdivisions and nonprofit 14130
organizations for projects that have been approved for grants 14131
under sections 164.20 to 164.27 of the Revised Code.14132

       The clean Ohio conservation fund shall be administered by the 14133
Ohio public works commission.14134

       (B) For the purpose of grants issued under sections 164.20 to 14135
164.27 of the Revised Code, moneys shall be allocated on an annual 14136
basis from the clean Ohio conservation fund to districts 14137
represented by natural resources assistance councils as follows:14138

       (1) Each district shall receive an amount that is equal to 14139
one-fourth of one per cent of the total annual amount allocated to 14140
all districts each year for each county that is represented by the 14141
district.14142

       (2) The remaining moneys shall be allocated to each district 14143
annually on a per capita basis.14144

       (C) A grant that is awarded under sections 164.20 to 164.27 14145
of the Revised Code may provide up to seventy-five per cent of the 14146
estimated cost of a project. Matching funds from a grant recipient 14147
may consist of contributions of money by any person, any local 14148
political subdivision, or the federal government or of 14149
contributions in-kind by such entities through the purchase or 14150
donation of equipment, land, easements, interest in land, labor, 14151
or materials necessary to complete the project.14152

       (D) The director of the Ohio public works commission shall 14153
notify the director of budget and management of the amounts 14154
allocated pursuant to this section, and that information shall be 14155
entered in the state accounting system. The director of budget and 14156
management may establish appropriate line items or other 14157
mechanisms that are needed to track the allocations.14158

       (E) Grants awarded under sections 164.20 to 164.27 of the 14159
Revised Code from the clean Ohio conservation fund shall be used 14160
by a local political subdivision or nonprofit organization only to 14161
pay the costs related to the purposes for which grants may be 14162
issued under section 164.22 of the Revised Code and shall not be 14163
used by a local political subdivision or nonprofit organization to 14164
pay any administrative costs incurred by the local political 14165
subdivision or nonprofit organization.14166

       Sec. 166.02.  (A) The general assembly finds that many local 14167
areas throughout the state are experiencing economic stagnation or 14168
decline, and that the economic development programs provided for 14169
in this chapter will constitute deserved, necessary reinvestment 14170
by the state in those areas, materially contribute to their 14171
economic revitalization, and result in improving the economic 14172
welfare of all the people of the state. Accordingly, it is 14173
declared to be the public policy of the state, through the 14174
operations of this chapter and other applicable laws adopted 14175
pursuant to Section 2p or 13 of Article VIII, Ohio Constitution, 14176
and other authority vested in the general assembly, to assist in 14177
and facilitate the establishment or development of eligible 14178
projects or assist and cooperate with any governmental agency in 14179
achieving such purpose.14180

       (B) In furtherance of such public policy and to implement 14181
such purpose, the director of development may:14182

       (1) After consultation with appropriate governmental 14183
agencies, enter into agreements with persons engaged in industry, 14184
commerce, distribution, or research and with governmental agencies 14185
to induce such persons to acquire, construct, reconstruct, 14186
rehabilitate, renovate, enlarge, improve, equip, or furnish, or 14187
otherwise develop, eligible projects and make provision therein 14188
for project facilities and governmental actions, as authorized by 14189
this chapter and other applicable laws, subject to any required 14190
actions by the general assembly or the controlling board and 14191
subject to applicable local government laws and regulations;14192

       (2) Provide for the guarantees and loans as provided for in 14193
sections 166.06 and 166.07 of the Revised Code;14194

       (3) Subject to release of such moneys by the controlling 14195
board, contract for labor and materials needed for, or contract 14196
with others, including governmental agencies, to provide, project 14197
facilities the allowable costs of which are to be paid for or 14198
reimbursed from moneys in the facilities establishment fund, and 14199
contract for the operation of such project facilities;14200

       (4) Subject to release thereof by the controlling board, from 14201
moneys in the facilities establishment fund acquire or contract to 14202
acquire by gift, exchange, or purchase, including the obtaining 14203
and exercise of purchase options, property, and convey or 14204
otherwise dispose of, or provide for the conveyance or disposition 14205
of, property so acquired or contracted to be acquired by sale, 14206
exchange, lease, lease purchase, conditional or installment sale, 14207
transfer, or other disposition, including the grant of an option 14208
to purchase, to any governmental agency or to any other person 14209
without necessity for competitive bidding and upon such terms and 14210
conditions and manner of consideration pursuant to and as the 14211
director determines to be appropriate to satisfy the objectives of 14212
sections 166.01 to 166.11 of the Revised Code;14213

       (5) Retain the services of or employ financial consultants, 14214
appraisers, consulting engineers, superintendents, managers, 14215
construction and accounting experts, attorneys, and employees, 14216
agents, and independent contractors as are necessary in the 14217
director's judgment and fix the compensation for their services;14218

       (6) Receive and accept from any person grants, gifts, and 14219
contributions of money, property, labor, and other things of 14220
value, to be held, used and applied only for the purpose for which 14221
such grants, gifts, and contributions are made;14222

       (7) Enter into appropriate arrangements and agreements with 14223
any governmental agency for the taking or provision by that 14224
governmental agency of any governmental action;14225

       (8) Do all other acts and enter into contracts and execute 14226
all instruments necessary or appropriate to carry out the 14227
provisions of this chapter;14228

       (9) Adopt rules to implement any of the provisions of this 14229
chapter applicable to the director.14230

       (C) The determinations by the director that facilities 14231
constitute eligible projects, that facilities are project 14232
facilities, that costs of such facilities are allowable costs, and 14233
all other determinations relevant thereto or to an action taken or 14234
agreement entered into shall be conclusive for purposes of the 14235
validity and enforceability of rights of parties arising from 14236
actions taken and agreements entered into under this chapter.14237

       (D) Except as otherwise prescribed in this chapter, all 14238
expenses and obligations incurred by the director in carrying out 14239
the director's powers and in exercising the director's duties 14240
under this chapter, shall be payable solely from, as appropriate, 14241
moneys in the facilities establishment fund, the loan guarantee 14242
fund, the innovation Ohio loan guarantee fund, the innovation Ohio 14243
loan fund, the research and development loan fund, the logistics 14244
and distribution infrastructure fund, the logistics and 14245
distribution infrastructure taxable bond fund, or moneys 14246
appropriated for such purpose by the general assembly. This 14247
chapter does not authorize the director or the issuing authority 14248
under section 166.08 of the Revised Code to incur bonded 14249
indebtedness of the state or any political subdivision thereof, or 14250
to obligate or pledge moneys raised by taxation for the payment of 14251
any bonds or notes issued or guarantees made pursuant to this 14252
chapter.14253

       (E) Any governmental agency may enter into an agreement with 14254
the director, any other governmental agency, or a person to be 14255
assisted under this chapter, to take or provide for the purposes 14256
of this chapter any governmental action it is authorized to take 14257
or provide, and to undertake on behalf and at the request of the 14258
director any action which the director is authorized to undertake 14259
pursuant to divisions (B)(3), (4), and (5) of this section or 14260
divisions (B)(3), (4), and (5) of section 166.12 of the Revised 14261
Code. Governmental agencies of the state shall cooperate with and 14262
provide assistance to the director of development and the 14263
controlling board in the exercise of their respective functions 14264
under this chapter.14265

       Sec. 166.03.  (A) There is hereby created the facilities 14266
establishment fund within the state treasury, consisting of 14267
proceeds from the issuance of obligations as specified under 14268
section 166.08 of the Revised Code; the moneys received by the 14269
state from the sources specified in section 166.09 of the Revised 14270
Code; service charges imposed under sections 166.06 and 166.07 of 14271
the Revised Code; any grants, gifts, or contributions of moneys 14272
received by the director of development services to be used for 14273
loans made under section 166.07 of the Revised Code or for the 14274
payment of the allowable costs of project facilities; and all 14275
other moneys appropriated or transferred to the fund. Moneys in 14276
the loan guarantee fund in excess of the loan guarantee reserve 14277
requirement, but subject to the provisions and requirements of any 14278
guarantee contracts, may be transferred to the facilities 14279
establishment fund by the treasurer of state upon the order of the 14280
director of development services. Moneys received by the state 14281
under Chapter 122. of the Revised Code, to the extent allocable to 14282
the utilization of moneys derived from proceeds of the sale of 14283
obligations pursuant to section 166.08 of the Revised Code, shall 14284
be credited to the facilities establishment fund. All investment 14285
earnings on the cash balance in the fund shall be credited to the 14286
fund.14287

       (B) All moneys appropriated or transferred to the facilities 14288
establishment fund may be released at the request of the director 14289
of development services for payment of allowable costs or the 14290
making of loans under section 166.07 of the Revised Code, for 14291
transfer to the loan guarantee fund established in section 166.06 14292
of the Revised Code, or for use for the purpose of or transfer to 14293
the funds established by sections 122.35, 122.42, 122.54, 122.55, 14294
122.56, 122.561, 122.57, 122.601, and 122.80 of the Revised Code 14295
and, until July 1, 2003, the fund established by section 166.031 14296
of the Revised Code, and, until July 1, 2007, the fund established 14297
by section 122.26 of the Revised Code, but only for such of those 14298
purposes as are within the authorization of Section 13 of Article 14299
VIII, Ohio Constitution, in all cases subject to the approval of 14300
the controlling board.14301

       (C) The department of development services agency, in the 14302
administration of the facilities establishment fund, is encouraged 14303
to utilize and promote the utilization of, to the maximum 14304
practicable extent, the other existing programs, business 14305
incentives, and tax incentives that department is required or 14306
authorized to administer or supervise.14307

       Sec. 166.04.  (A) Prior to entering into each agreement to 14308
provide assistance under sections 166.02, 166.06, and 166.07 of 14309
the Revised Code, the director of development services shall 14310
determine whether the assistance will conform to the requirements 14311
of sections 166.01 to 166.11 of the Revised Code. Such 14312
determination, and the facts upon which it is based, shall be set 14313
forth, where required, by the director in submissions made to the 14314
controlling board when the director seeks a release of moneys 14315
under section 166.02 of the Revised Code. An agreement to provide 14316
assistance under sections 166.02, 166.06, and 166.07 of the 14317
Revised Code shall set forth such determination, which shall be 14318
conclusive for purposes of the validity and enforceability of such 14319
agreement and any loan guarantees, loans, or other agreements 14320
entered into pursuant to such agreement to provide assistance.14321

       (B) Whenever a person applies for financial assistance under 14322
sections 166.02, 166.06, and 166.07 of the Revised Code and the 14323
project for which assistance is requested is to relocate 14324
facilities that are currently being operated by the person and 14325
that are located in another county, municipal corporation, or 14326
township, the directorperson shall provide written notification 14327
of the relocation to the appropriate local governmental bodies and 14328
state officials. ThePrior to entering into an agreement to 14329
provide the assistance, the director shall verify that such14330
notification shall contain the following information: 14331

       (1) The name of the person applying for financial assistance; 14332

       (2) The county, and the municipal corporation or township, in 14333
which the project for which assistance is requested is located; 14334
and 14335

       (3) The county, and the municipal corporation or township, in 14336
which the facility to be replaced is locatedhas been provided.14337

       (C) As used in division (B) of this section:14338

       (1), "Appropriateappropriate local governmental bodies" 14339
means:14340

       (a)(1) The boardsboard of county commissioners or 14341
legislative authoritiesauthority of the county in which the 14342
project for which assistance is requested is located and of the 14343
county in which the facility to be replaced is located;14344

       (b)(2) The legislative authority of the municipal corporation 14345
or the board of township trustees of the township in which the 14346
project for which assistance is requested is located; and 14347

       (c) The legislative authority of the municipal corporation or 14348
the board of township trustees of the township in which the14349
facility to be replaced is located.14350

       (2) "State officials" means: 14351

       (a) The state representative and state senator in whose 14352
districts the project for which assistance is requested is 14353
located;14354

       (b) The state representative and state senator in whose 14355
districts the facility to be replaced is located. 14356

       Sec. 166.08.  (A) As used in this chapter:14357

       (1) "Bond proceedings" means the resolution, order, trust 14358
agreement, indenture, lease, and other agreements, amendments and 14359
supplements to the foregoing, or any one or more or combination 14360
thereof, authorizing or providing for the terms and conditions 14361
applicable to, or providing for the security or liquidity of, 14362
obligations issued pursuant to this section, and the provisions 14363
contained in such obligations.14364

       (2) "Bond service charges" means principal, including 14365
mandatory sinking fund requirements for retirement of obligations, 14366
and interest, and redemption premium, if any, required to be paid 14367
by the state on obligations.14368

       (3) "Bond service fund" means the applicable fund and 14369
accounts therein created for and pledged to the payment of bond 14370
service charges, which may be, or may be part of, the economic 14371
development bond service fund created by division (S) of this 14372
section including all moneys and investments, and earnings from 14373
investments, credited and to be credited thereto.14374

       (4) "Issuing authority" means the treasurer of state, or the 14375
officer who by law performs the functions of such officer.14376

       (5) "Obligations" means bonds, notes, or other evidence of 14377
obligation including interest coupons pertaining thereto, issued 14378
pursuant to this section.14379

       (6) "Pledged receipts" means all receipts of the state 14380
representing the gross profit on the sale of spirituous liquor, as 14381
referred to in division (B)(4) of section 4301.10 of the Revised 14382
Code, after paying all costs and expenses of the division of 14383
liquor control and providing an adequate working capital reserve 14384
for the division of liquor control as provided in that division, 14385
but excluding the sum required by the second paragraph of section 14386
4301.12 of the Revised Code, as in effect on May 2, 1980, to be 14387
paid into the state treasury; moneys accruing to the state from 14388
the lease, sale, or other disposition, or use, of project 14389
facilities, and from the repayment, including interest, of loans 14390
made from proceeds received from the sale of obligations; accrued 14391
interest received from the sale of obligations; income from the 14392
investment of the special funds; and any gifts, grants, donations, 14393
and pledges, and receipts therefrom, available for the payment of 14394
bond service charges.14395

       (7) "Special funds" or "funds" means, except where the 14396
context does not permit, the bond service fund, and any other 14397
funds, including reserve funds, created under the bond 14398
proceedings, and the economic development bond service fund 14399
created by division (S) of this section to the extent provided in 14400
the bond proceedings, including all moneys and investments, and 14401
earnings from investment, credited and to be credited thereto.14402

       (B) Subject to the limitations provided in section 166.11 of 14403
the Revised Code, the issuing authority, upon the certification by 14404
the director of development or, with respect to eligible advanced 14405
energy projects, the Ohio air quality development authority to the 14406
issuing authority of the amount of moneys or additional moneys 14407
needed in the facilities establishment fund, the loan guarantee 14408
fund, the innovation Ohio loan fund, the innovation Ohio loan 14409
guarantee fund, the research and development loan fund, the 14410
logistics and distribution infrastructure fund, the logistics and 14411
distribution infrastructure taxable bond fund, the advanced energy 14412
research and development fund, or the advanced energy research and 14413
development taxable fund, as applicable, for the purpose of 14414
paying, or making loans for, allowable costs from the facilities 14415
establishment fund, allowable innovation costs from the innovation 14416
Ohio loan fund, allowable costs from the research and development 14417
loan fund, allowable costs from the logistics and distribution 14418
infrastructure fund, allowable costs from the logistics and 14419
distribution infrastructure taxable bond fund, allowable costs 14420
from the advanced energy research and development fund, or 14421
allowable costs from the advanced energy research and development 14422
taxable fund, as applicable, or needed for capitalized interest, 14423
for funding reserves, and for paying costs and expenses incurred 14424
in connection with the issuance, carrying, securing, paying, 14425
redeeming, or retirement of the obligations or any obligations 14426
refunded thereby, including payment of costs and expenses relating 14427
to letters of credit, lines of credit, insurance, put agreements, 14428
standby purchase agreements, indexing, marketing, remarketing and 14429
administrative arrangements, interest swap or hedging agreements, 14430
and any other credit enhancement, liquidity, remarketing, renewal, 14431
or refunding arrangements, all of which are authorized by this 14432
section, or providing moneys for the loan guarantee fund or the 14433
innovation Ohio loan guarantee fund, as provided in this chapter 14434
or needed for the purposes of funds established in accordance with 14435
or pursuant to sections 122.35, 122.42, 122.54, 122.55, 122.56, 14436
122.561, 122.57, and 122.80 of the Revised Code which are within 14437
the authorization of Section 13 of Article VIII, Ohio 14438
Constitution, or, with respect to certain eligible advanced energy 14439
projects, Section 2p of Article VIII, Ohio Constitution, shall 14440
issue obligations of the state under this section in the required 14441
amount; provided that such obligations may be issued to satisfy 14442
the covenants in contracts of guarantee made under section 166.06 14443
or 166.15 of the Revised Code, notwithstanding limitations 14444
otherwise applicable to the issuance of obligations under this 14445
section. The proceeds of such obligations, except for the portion 14446
to be deposited in special funds, including reserve funds, as may 14447
be provided in the bond proceedings, shall as provided in the bond 14448
proceedings be deposited by the director of development to the 14449
facilities establishment fund, the loan guarantee fund, the 14450
innovation Ohio loan guarantee fund, the innovation Ohio loan 14451
fund, the research and development loan fund, or the logistics and 14452
distribution infrastructure fund, or the logistics and 14453
distribution infrastructure taxable bond fund, or be deposited by 14454
the Ohio air quality development authority to the advanced energy 14455
research and development fund or the advanced energy research and 14456
development taxable fund. Bond proceedings for project financing 14457
obligations may provide that the proceeds derived from the 14458
issuance of such obligations shall be deposited into such fund or 14459
funds provided for in the bond proceedings and, to the extent 14460
provided for in the bond proceedings, such proceeds shall be 14461
deemed to have been deposited into the facilities establishment 14462
fund and transferred to such fund or funds. The issuing authority 14463
may appoint trustees, paying agents, and transfer agents and may 14464
retain the services of financial advisors, accounting experts, and 14465
attorneys, and retain or contract for the services of marketing, 14466
remarketing, indexing, and administrative agents, other 14467
consultants, and independent contractors, including printing 14468
services, as are necessary in the issuing authority's judgment to 14469
carry out this section. The costs of such services are allowable 14470
costs payable from the facilities establishment fund or the 14471
research and development loan fund, allowable innovation costs 14472
payable from the innovation Ohio loan fund, or allowable costs 14473
payable from the logistics and distribution infrastructure fund, 14474
the logistics and distribution infrastructure taxable bond fund,14475
the advanced energy research and development fund, or the advanced 14476
energy research and development taxable fund, as applicable.14477

       (C) The holders or owners of such obligations shall have no 14478
right to have moneys raised by taxation obligated or pledged, and 14479
moneys raised by taxation shall not be obligated or pledged, for 14480
the payment of bond service charges. Such holders or owners shall 14481
have no rights to payment of bond service charges from any moneys 14482
accruing to the state from the lease, sale, or other disposition, 14483
or use, of project facilities, or from payment of the principal of 14484
or interest on loans made, or fees charged for guarantees made, or 14485
from any money or property received by the director, treasurer of 14486
state, or the state under Chapter 122. of the Revised Code, or 14487
from any other use of the proceeds of the sale of the obligations, 14488
and no such moneys may be used for the payment of bond service 14489
charges, except for accrued interest, capitalized interest, and 14490
reserves funded from proceeds received upon the sale of the 14491
obligations and except as otherwise expressly provided in the 14492
applicable bond proceedings pursuant to written directions by the 14493
director. The right of such holders and owners to payment of bond 14494
service charges is limited to all or that portion of the pledged 14495
receipts and those special funds pledged thereto pursuant to the 14496
bond proceedings in accordance with this section, and each such 14497
obligation shall bear on its face a statement to that effect.14498

       (D) Obligations shall be authorized by resolution or order of 14499
the issuing authority and the bond proceedings shall provide for 14500
the purpose thereof and the principal amount or amounts, and shall 14501
provide for or authorize the manner or agency for determining the 14502
principal maturity or maturities, not exceeding twenty-five years 14503
from the date of issuance, the interest rate or rates or the 14504
maximum interest rate, the date of the obligations and the dates 14505
of payment of interest thereon, their denomination, and the 14506
establishment within or without the state of a place or places of 14507
payment of bond service charges. Sections 9.98 to 9.983 of the 14508
Revised Code are applicable to obligations issued under this 14509
section, subject to any applicable limitation under section 166.11 14510
of the Revised Code. The purpose of such obligations may be stated 14511
in the bond proceedings in terms describing the general purpose or 14512
purposes to be served. The bond proceedings also shall provide, 14513
subject to the provisions of any other applicable bond 14514
proceedings, for the pledge of all, or such part as the issuing 14515
authority may determine, of the pledged receipts and the 14516
applicable special fund or funds to the payment of bond service 14517
charges, which pledges may be made either prior or subordinate to 14518
other expenses, claims, or payments, and may be made to secure the 14519
obligations on a parity with obligations theretofore or thereafter 14520
issued, if and to the extent provided in the bond proceedings. The 14521
pledged receipts and special funds so pledged and thereafter 14522
received by the state are immediately subject to the lien of such 14523
pledge without any physical delivery thereof or further act, and 14524
the lien of any such pledges is valid and binding against all 14525
parties having claims of any kind against the state or any 14526
governmental agency of the state, irrespective of whether such 14527
parties have notice thereof, and shall create a perfected security 14528
interest for all purposes of Chapter 1309. of the Revised Code, 14529
without the necessity for separation or delivery of funds or for 14530
the filing or recording of the bond proceedings by which such 14531
pledge is created or any certificate, statement or other document 14532
with respect thereto; and the pledge of such pledged receipts and 14533
special funds is effective and the money therefrom and thereof may 14534
be applied to the purposes for which pledged without necessity for 14535
any act of appropriation. Every pledge, and every covenant and 14536
agreement made with respect thereto, made in the bond proceedings 14537
may therein be extended to the benefit of the owners and holders 14538
of obligations authorized by this section, and to any trustee 14539
therefor, for the further security of the payment of the bond 14540
service charges.14541

       (E) The bond proceedings may contain additional provisions as 14542
to:14543

       (1) The redemption of obligations prior to maturity at the 14544
option of the issuing authority at such price or prices and under 14545
such terms and conditions as are provided in the bond proceedings;14546

       (2) Other terms of the obligations;14547

       (3) Limitations on the issuance of additional obligations;14548

       (4) The terms of any trust agreement or indenture securing 14549
the obligations or under which the same may be issued;14550

       (5) The deposit, investment and application of special funds, 14551
and the safeguarding of moneys on hand or on deposit, without 14552
regard to Chapter 131. or 135. of the Revised Code, but subject to 14553
any special provisions of this chapter, with respect to particular 14554
funds or moneys, provided that any bank or trust company which 14555
acts as depository of any moneys in the special funds may furnish 14556
such indemnifying bonds or may pledge such securities as required 14557
by the issuing authority;14558

       (6) Any or every provision of the bond proceedings being 14559
binding upon such officer, board, commission, authority, agency, 14560
department, or other person or body as may from time to time have 14561
the authority under law to take such actions as may be necessary 14562
to perform all or any part of the duty required by such provision;14563

       (7) Any provision that may be made in a trust agreement or 14564
indenture;14565

       (8) Any other or additional agreements with the holders of 14566
the obligations, or the trustee therefor, relating to the 14567
obligations or the security therefor, including the assignment of 14568
mortgages or other security obtained or to be obtained for loans 14569
under section 122.43, 166.07, or 166.16 of the Revised Code.14570

       (F) The obligations may have the great seal of the state or a 14571
facsimile thereof affixed thereto or printed thereon. The 14572
obligations and any coupons pertaining to obligations shall be 14573
signed or bear the facsimile signature of the issuing authority. 14574
Any obligations or coupons may be executed by the person who, on 14575
the date of execution, is the proper issuing authority although on 14576
the date of such bonds or coupons such person was not the issuing 14577
authority. If the issuing authority whose signature or a facsimile 14578
of whose signature appears on any such obligation or coupon ceases 14579
to be the issuing authority before delivery thereof, such 14580
signature or facsimile is nevertheless valid and sufficient for 14581
all purposes as if the former issuing authority had remained the 14582
issuing authority until such delivery; and if the seal to be 14583
affixed to obligations has been changed after a facsimile of the 14584
seal has been imprinted on such obligations, such facsimile seal 14585
shall continue to be sufficient as to such obligations and 14586
obligations issued in substitution or exchange therefor.14587

       (G) All obligations are negotiable instruments and securities 14588
under Chapter 1308. of the Revised Code, subject to the provisions 14589
of the bond proceedings as to registration. The obligations may be 14590
issued in coupon or in registered form, or both, as the issuing 14591
authority determines. Provision may be made for the registration 14592
of any obligations with coupons attached thereto as to principal 14593
alone or as to both principal and interest, their exchange for 14594
obligations so registered, and for the conversion or reconversion 14595
into obligations with coupons attached thereto of any obligations 14596
registered as to both principal and interest, and for reasonable 14597
charges for such registration, exchange, conversion, and 14598
reconversion.14599

       (H) Obligations may be sold at public sale or at private 14600
sale, as determined in the bond proceedings.14601

       Obligations issued to provide moneys for the loan guarantee 14602
fund or the innovation Ohio loan guarantee fund may, as determined 14603
by the issuing authority, be sold at private sale, and without 14604
publication of a notice of sale.14605

       (I) Pending preparation of definitive obligations, the 14606
issuing authority may issue interim receipts or certificates which 14607
shall be exchanged for such definitive obligations.14608

       (J) In the discretion of the issuing authority, obligations 14609
may be secured additionally by a trust agreement or indenture 14610
between the issuing authority and a corporate trustee which may be 14611
any trust company or bank having a place of business within the 14612
state. Any such agreement or indenture may contain the resolution 14613
or order authorizing the issuance of the obligations, any 14614
provisions that may be contained in any bond proceedings, and 14615
other provisions which are customary or appropriate in an 14616
agreement or indenture of such type, including, but not limited 14617
to:14618

       (1) Maintenance of each pledge, trust agreement, indenture, 14619
or other instrument comprising part of the bond proceedings until 14620
the state has fully paid the bond service charges on the 14621
obligations secured thereby, or provision therefor has been made;14622

       (2) In the event of default in any payments required to be 14623
made by the bond proceedings, or any other agreement of the 14624
issuing authority made as a part of the contract under which the 14625
obligations were issued, enforcement of such payments or agreement 14626
by mandamus, the appointment of a receiver, suit in equity, action 14627
at law, or any combination of the foregoing;14628

       (3) The rights and remedies of the holders of obligations and 14629
of the trustee, and provisions for protecting and enforcing them, 14630
including limitations on rights of individual holders of 14631
obligations;14632

       (4) The replacement of any obligations that become mutilated 14633
or are destroyed, lost, or stolen;14634

       (5) Such other provisions as the trustee and the issuing 14635
authority agree upon, including limitations, conditions, or 14636
qualifications relating to any of the foregoing.14637

       (K) Any holders of obligations or trustees under the bond 14638
proceedings, except to the extent that their rights are restricted 14639
by the bond proceedings, may by any suitable form of legal 14640
proceedings, protect and enforce any rights under the laws of this 14641
state or granted by such bond proceedings. Such rights include the 14642
right to compel the performance of all duties of the issuing 14643
authority, the director of development, the Ohio air quality 14644
development authority, or the division of liquor control required 14645
by this chapter or the bond proceedings; to enjoin unlawful 14646
activities; and in the event of default with respect to the 14647
payment of any bond service charges on any obligations or in the 14648
performance of any covenant or agreement on the part of the 14649
issuing authority, the director of development, the Ohio air 14650
quality development authority, or the division of liquor control 14651
in the bond proceedings, to apply to a court having jurisdiction 14652
of the cause to appoint a receiver to receive and administer the 14653
pledged receipts and special funds, other than those in the 14654
custody of the treasurer of state, which are pledged to the 14655
payment of the bond service charges on such obligations or which 14656
are the subject of the covenant or agreement, with full power to 14657
pay, and to provide for payment of bond service charges on, such 14658
obligations, and with such powers, subject to the direction of the 14659
court, as are accorded receivers in general equity cases, 14660
excluding any power to pledge additional revenues or receipts or 14661
other income or moneys of the issuing authority or the state or 14662
governmental agencies of the state to the payment of such 14663
principal and interest and excluding the power to take possession 14664
of, mortgage, or cause the sale or otherwise dispose of any 14665
project facilities.14666

       Each duty of the issuing authority and the issuing 14667
authority's officers and employees, and of each governmental 14668
agency and its officers, members, or employees, undertaken 14669
pursuant to the bond proceedings or any agreement or lease, 14670
lease-purchase agreement, or loan made under authority of this 14671
chapter, and in every agreement by or with the issuing authority, 14672
is hereby established as a duty of the issuing authority, and of 14673
each such officer, member, or employee having authority to perform 14674
such duty, specifically enjoined by the law resulting from an 14675
office, trust, or station within the meaning of section 2731.01 of 14676
the Revised Code.14677

       The person who is at the time the issuing authority, or the 14678
issuing authority's officers or employees, are not liable in their 14679
personal capacities on any obligations issued by the issuing 14680
authority or any agreements of or with the issuing authority.14681

       (L) The issuing authority may authorize and issue obligations 14682
for the refunding, including funding and retirement, and advance 14683
refunding with or without payment or redemption prior to maturity, 14684
of any obligations previously issued by the issuing authority. 14685
Such obligations may be issued in amounts sufficient for payment 14686
of the principal amount of the prior obligations, any redemption 14687
premiums thereon, principal maturities of any such obligations 14688
maturing prior to the redemption of the remaining obligations on a 14689
parity therewith, interest accrued or to accrue to the maturity 14690
dates or dates of redemption of such obligations, and any 14691
allowable costs including expenses incurred or to be incurred in 14692
connection with such issuance and such refunding, funding, and 14693
retirement. Subject to the bond proceedings therefor, the portion 14694
of proceeds of the sale of obligations issued under this division 14695
to be applied to bond service charges on the prior obligations 14696
shall be credited to an appropriate account held by the trustee 14697
for such prior or new obligations or to the appropriate account in 14698
the bond service fund for such obligations. Obligations authorized 14699
under this division shall be deemed to be issued for those 14700
purposes for which such prior obligations were issued and are 14701
subject to the provisions of this section pertaining to other 14702
obligations, except as otherwise provided in this section; 14703
provided that, unless otherwise authorized by the general 14704
assembly, any limitations imposed by the general assembly pursuant 14705
to this section with respect to bond service charges applicable to 14706
the prior obligations shall be applicable to the obligations 14707
issued under this division to refund, fund, advance refund or 14708
retire such prior obligations.14709

       (M) The authority to issue obligations under this section 14710
includes authority to issue obligations in the form of bond 14711
anticipation notes and to renew the same from time to time by the 14712
issuance of new notes. The holders of such notes or interest 14713
coupons pertaining thereto shall have a right to be paid solely 14714
from the pledged receipts and special funds that may be pledged to 14715
the payment of the bonds anticipated, or from the proceeds of such 14716
bonds or renewal notes, or both, as the issuing authority provides 14717
in the resolution or order authorizing such notes. Such notes may 14718
be additionally secured by covenants of the issuing authority to 14719
the effect that the issuing authority and the state will do such 14720
or all things necessary for the issuance of such bonds or renewal 14721
notes in appropriate amount, and apply the proceeds thereof to the 14722
extent necessary, to make full payment of the principal of and 14723
interest on such notes at the time or times contemplated, as 14724
provided in such resolution or order. For such purpose, the 14725
issuing authority may issue bonds or renewal notes in such 14726
principal amount and upon such terms as may be necessary to 14727
provide funds to pay when required the principal of and interest 14728
on such notes, notwithstanding any limitations prescribed by or 14729
for purposes of this section. Subject to this division, all 14730
provisions for and references to obligations in this section are 14731
applicable to notes authorized under this division.14732

       The issuing authority in the bond proceedings authorizing the 14733
issuance of bond anticipation notes shall set forth for such bonds 14734
an estimated interest rate and a schedule of principal payments 14735
for such bonds and the annual maturity dates thereof, and for 14736
purposes of any limitation on bond service charges prescribed 14737
under division (A) of section 166.11 of the Revised Code, the 14738
amount of bond service charges on such bond anticipation notes is 14739
deemed to be the bond service charges for the bonds anticipated 14740
thereby as set forth in the bond proceedings applicable to such 14741
notes, but this provision does not modify any authority in this 14742
section to pledge receipts and special funds to, and covenant to 14743
issue bonds to fund, the payment of principal of and interest and 14744
any premium on such notes.14745

       (N) Obligations issued under this section are lawful 14746
investments for banks, societies for savings, savings and loan 14747
associations, deposit guarantee associations, trust companies, 14748
trustees, fiduciaries, insurance companies, including domestic for 14749
life and domestic not for life, trustees or other officers having 14750
charge of sinking and bond retirement or other special funds of 14751
political subdivisions and taxing districts of this state, the 14752
commissioners of the sinking fund of the state, the administrator 14753
of workers' compensation, the state teachers retirement system, 14754
the public employees retirement system, the school employees 14755
retirement system, and the Ohio police and fire pension fund, 14756
notwithstanding any other provisions of the Revised Code or rules 14757
adopted pursuant thereto by any governmental agency of the state 14758
with respect to investments by them, and are also acceptable as 14759
security for the deposit of public moneys.14760

       (O) Unless otherwise provided in any applicable bond 14761
proceedings, moneys to the credit of or in the special funds 14762
established by or pursuant to this section may be invested by or 14763
on behalf of the issuing authority only in notes, bonds, or other 14764
obligations of the United States, or of any agency or 14765
instrumentality of the United States, obligations guaranteed as to 14766
principal and interest by the United States, obligations of this 14767
state or any political subdivision of this state, and certificates 14768
of deposit of any national bank located in this state and any 14769
bank, as defined in section 1101.01 of the Revised Code, subject 14770
to inspection by the superintendent of banks. If the law or the 14771
instrument creating a trust pursuant to division (J) of this 14772
section expressly permits investment in direct obligations of the 14773
United States or an agency of the United States, unless expressly 14774
prohibited by the instrument, such moneys also may be invested in 14775
no-front-end-load money market mutual funds consisting exclusively 14776
of obligations of the United States or an agency of the United 14777
States and in repurchase agreements, including those issued by the 14778
fiduciary itself, secured by obligations of the United States or 14779
an agency of the United States; and in common trust funds 14780
established in accordance with section 1111.20 of the Revised Code 14781
and consisting exclusively of any such securities, notwithstanding 14782
division (A)(4) of that section. The income from such investments 14783
shall be credited to such funds as the issuing authority 14784
determines, and such investments may be sold at such times as the 14785
issuing authority determines or authorizes.14786

       (P) Provision may be made in the applicable bond proceedings 14787
for the establishment of separate accounts in the bond service 14788
fund and for the application of such accounts only to the 14789
specified bond service charges on obligations pertinent to such 14790
accounts and bond service fund and for other accounts therein 14791
within the general purposes of such fund. Unless otherwise 14792
provided in any applicable bond proceedings, moneys to the credit 14793
of or in the several special funds established pursuant to this 14794
section shall be disbursed on the order of the treasurer of state, 14795
provided that no such order is required for the payment from the 14796
bond service fund when due of bond service charges on obligations.14797

       (Q) The issuing authority may pledge all, or such portion as 14798
the issuing authority determines, of the pledged receipts to the 14799
payment of bond service charges on obligations issued under this 14800
section, and for the establishment and maintenance of any 14801
reserves, as provided in the bond proceedings, and make other 14802
provisions therein with respect to pledged receipts as authorized 14803
by this chapter, which provisions are controlling notwithstanding 14804
any other provisions of law pertaining thereto.14805

       (R) The issuing authority may covenant in the bond 14806
proceedings, and any such covenants are controlling 14807
notwithstanding any other provision of law, that the state and 14808
applicable officers and governmental agencies of the state, 14809
including the general assembly, so long as any obligations are 14810
outstanding, shall:14811

       (1) Maintain statutory authority for and cause to be charged 14812
and collected wholesale and retail prices for spirituous liquor 14813
sold by the state or its agents so that the pledged receipts are 14814
sufficient in amount to meet bond service charges, and the 14815
establishment and maintenance of any reserves and other 14816
requirements provided for in the bond proceedings, and, as 14817
necessary, to meet covenants contained in contracts of guarantee 14818
made under section 166.06 of the Revised Code;14819

       (2) Take or permit no action, by statute or otherwise, that 14820
would impair the exemption from federal income taxation of the 14821
interest on the obligations.14822

       (S) There is hereby created the economic development bond 14823
service fund, which shall be in the custody of the treasurer of 14824
state but shall be separate and apart from and not a part of the 14825
state treasury. All moneys received by or on account of the 14826
issuing authority or state agencies and required by the applicable 14827
bond proceedings, consistent with this section, to be deposited, 14828
transferred, or credited to a bond service fund or the economic 14829
development bond service fund, and all other moneys transferred or 14830
allocated to or received for the purposes of the fund, shall be 14831
deposited and credited to such fund and to any separate accounts 14832
therein, subject to applicable provisions of the bond proceedings, 14833
but without necessity for any act of appropriation. During the 14834
period beginning with the date of the first issuance of 14835
obligations and continuing during such time as any such 14836
obligations are outstanding, and so long as moneys in the 14837
pertinent bond service funds are insufficient to pay all bond 14838
services charges on such obligations becoming due in each year, a 14839
sufficient amount of the gross profit on the sale of spirituous 14840
liquor included in pledged receipts are committed and shall be 14841
paid to the bond service fund or economic development bond service 14842
fund in each year for the purpose of paying the bond service 14843
charges becoming due in that year without necessity for further 14844
act of appropriation for such purpose and notwithstanding anything 14845
to the contrary in Chapter 4301. of the Revised Code. The economic 14846
development bond service fund is a trust fund and is hereby 14847
pledged to the payment of bond service charges to the extent 14848
provided in the applicable bond proceedings, and payment thereof 14849
from such fund shall be made or provided for by the treasurer of 14850
state in accordance with such bond proceedings without necessity 14851
for any act of appropriation.14852

       (T) The obligations, the transfer thereof, and the income 14853
therefrom, including any profit made on the sale thereof, shall at 14854
all times be free from taxation within the state.14855

       Sec. 166.25. (A) The director of development services, with 14856
the approval of the controlling board and subject to the other 14857
applicable provisions of this chapter, may lend money in the 14858
logistics and distribution infrastructure fund and the logistics 14859
and distribution infrastructure taxable bond fund to persons for 14860
the purpose of paying allowable costs of eligible logistics and 14861
distribution projects.14862

       (B) In determining the eligible logistics and distribution 14863
projects to be assisted and the nature, amount, and terms of 14864
assistance to be provided for an eligible logistics and 14865
distribution project, the director shall consult with appropriate 14866
governmental agencies, including the department of transportation 14867
and the Ohio rail development commission.14868

       (C) Any loan made pursuant to this section shall be evidenced 14869
by a loan agreement, which shall contain such terms as the 14870
director determines necessary or appropriate, including 14871
performance measures and reporting requirements. The director may 14872
take actions necessary or appropriate to collect or otherwise deal 14873
with any loan made under this section, including requiring a loan 14874
recipient to repay the amount of the loan plus interest at a rate 14875
of three per cent above the federal short term interest rate or 14876
any other rate determined by the director.14877

       Sec. 169.02.  Subject to division (B) of section 169.01 of 14878
the Revised Code, the following constitute unclaimed funds:14879

       (A) Except as provided in division (R) of this section, any 14880
demand, savings, or matured time deposit account, or matured 14881
certificate of deposit, together with any interest or dividend on 14882
it, less any lawful claims, that is held or owed by a holder which 14883
is a financial organization, unclaimed for a period of five years;14884

       (B) Any funds paid toward the purchase of withdrawable shares 14885
or other interest in a financial organization, and any interest or 14886
dividends on them, less any lawful claims, that is held or owed by 14887
a holder which is a financial organization, unclaimed for a period 14888
of five years;14889

       (C) Except as provided in division (A) of section 3903.45 of 14890
the Revised Code, moneys held or owed by a holder, including a 14891
fraternal association, providing life insurance, including annuity 14892
or endowment coverage, unclaimed for three years after becoming 14893
payable as established from the records of such holder under any 14894
life or endowment insurance policy or annuity contract that has 14895
matured or terminated. An insurance policy, the proceeds of which 14896
are payable on the death of the insured, not matured by proof of 14897
death of the insured is deemed matured and the proceeds payable if 14898
such policy was in force when the insured attained the limiting 14899
age under the mortality table on which the reserve is based.14900

       Moneys otherwise payable according to the records of such 14901
holder are deemed payable although the policy or contract has not 14902
been surrendered as required.14903

       (D) Any deposit made to secure payment or any sum paid in 14904
advance for utility services of a public utility and any amount 14905
refundable from rates or charges collected by a public utility for 14906
utility services held or owed by a holder, less any lawful claims, 14907
that has remained unclaimed for one year after the termination of 14908
the services for which the deposit or advance payment was made or 14909
one year from the date the refund was payable, whichever is 14910
earlier;14911

       (E) Except as provided in division (R) of this section, any 14912
certificates, securities as defined in section 1707.01 of the 14913
Revised Code, nonwithdrawable shares, other instruments evidencing 14914
ownership, or rights to them or funds paid toward the purchase of 14915
them, or any dividend, capital credit, profit, distribution, 14916
interest, or payment on principal or other sum, held or owed by a 14917
holder, including funds deposited with a fiscal agent or fiduciary 14918
for payment of them, and instruments representing an ownership 14919
interest, unclaimed for five years. Any underlying share or other 14920
intangible instrument representing an ownership interest in a 14921
business association, in which the issuer has recorded on its 14922
books the issuance of the share but has been unable to deliver the 14923
certificate to the shareholder, constitutes unclaimed funds if 14924
such underlying share is unclaimed for five years. In addition, an 14925
underlying share constitutes unclaimed funds if a dividend, 14926
distribution, or other sum payable as a result of the underlying 14927
share has remained unclaimed by the owner for five years.14928

       This division shall not prejudice the rights of fiscal agents 14929
or fiduciaries for payment to return the items described in this 14930
division to their principals, according to the terms of an agency 14931
or fiduciary agreement, but such a return shall constitute the 14932
principal as the holder of the items and shall not interrupt the 14933
period for computing the time for which the items have remained 14934
unclaimed.14935

       In the case of any such funds accruing and held or owed by a 14936
corporation under division (E) of section 1701.24 of the Revised 14937
Code, such corporation shall comply with this chapter, subject to 14938
the limitation contained in section 1701.34 of the Revised Code. 14939
The period of time for which such funds have gone unclaimed 14940
specified in section 1701.34 of the Revised Code shall be 14941
computed, with respect to dividends or distributions, commencing 14942
as of the dates when such dividends or distributions would have 14943
been payable to the shareholder had such shareholder surrendered 14944
the certificates for cancellation and exchange by the date 14945
specified in the order relating to them.14946

       Capital credits of a cooperative which after January 1, 1972, 14947
have been allocated to members and which by agreement are 14948
expressly required to be paid if claimed after death of the owner 14949
are deemed payable, for the purpose of this chapter, fifteen years 14950
after either the termination of service by the cooperative to the 14951
owner or upon the nonactivity as provided in division (B) of 14952
section 169.01 of the Revised Code, whichever occurs later, 14953
provided that this provision does not apply if the payment is not 14954
mandatory.14955

       (F) Any sum payable on certified checks or other written 14956
instruments certified or issued and representing funds held or 14957
owed by a holder, less any lawful claims, that are unclaimed for 14958
five years from the date payable or from the date of issuance if 14959
payable on demand; except that the unclaimed period for money 14960
orders that are not third party bank checks is seven years, and 14961
the unclaimed period for traveler's checks is fifteen years, from 14962
the date payable or from the date of issuance if payable on 14963
demand.14964

       As used in this division, "written instruments" include, but 14965
are not limited to, certified checks, cashier's checks, bills of 14966
exchange, letters of credit, drafts, money orders, and traveler's 14967
checks.14968

       If there is no address of record for the owner or other 14969
person entitled to the funds, such address is presumed to be the 14970
address where the instrument was certified or issued.14971

       (G) Except as provided in division (R) of this section, all 14972
moneys, rights to moneys, or other intangible property, arising 14973
out of the business of engaging in the purchase or sale of 14974
securities, or otherwise dealing in intangibles, less any lawful 14975
claims, that are held or owed by a holder and are unclaimed for 14976
five years from the date of transaction.14977

       (H) Except as provided in division (A) of section 3903.45 of 14978
the Revised Code, all moneys, rights to moneys, and other 14979
intangible property distributable in the course of dissolution or 14980
liquidation of a holder that are unclaimed for one year after the 14981
date set by the holder for distribution;14982

       (I) All moneys, rights to moneys, or other intangible 14983
property removed from a safe-deposit box or other safekeeping 14984
repository located in this state or removed from a safe-deposit 14985
box or other safekeeping repository of a holder, on which the 14986
lease or rental period has expired, or any amount arising from the 14987
sale of such property, less any lawful claims, that are unclaimed 14988
for three years from the date on which the lease or rental period 14989
expired;14990

       (J) Subject to division (M)(2) of this section, all moneys, 14991
rights to moneys, or other intangible property, and any income or 14992
increment on them, held or owed by a holder which is a fiduciary 14993
for the benefit of another, or a fiduciary or custodian of a 14994
qualified retirement plan or individual retirement arrangement 14995
under section 401 or 408 of the Internal Revenue Code, unclaimed 14996
for three years after the final date for distribution;14997

       (K) All moneys, rights to moneys, or other intangible 14998
property held or owed in this state or held for or owed to an 14999
owner whose last known address is within this state, by the United 15000
States government or any state, as those terms are described in 15001
division (E) of section 169.01 of the Revised Code, unclaimed by 15002
the owner for three years, excluding any property in the control 15003
of any court in a proceeding in which a final adjudication has not 15004
been made;15005

       (L) Amounts payable pursuant to the terms of any policy of 15006
insurance, other than life insurance, or any refund available 15007
under such a policy, held or owed by any holder, unclaimed for 15008
three years from the date payable or distributable;15009

       (M)(1) Subject to division (M)(2) of this section, any funds 15010
constituting rents or lease payments due, any deposit made to 15011
secure payment of rents or leases, or any sum paid in advance for 15012
rents, leases, possible damage to property, unused services, 15013
performance requirements, or any other purpose, held or owed by a 15014
holder unclaimed for one year;15015

       (2) Any escrow funds, security deposits, or other moneys that 15016
are received by a licensed broker in a fiduciary capacity and 15017
that, pursuant to division (A)(26) of section 4735.18 of the 15018
Revised Code, are required to be deposited into and maintained in 15019
a special or trust, noninterest-bearing bank account separate and 15020
distinct from any personal or other account of the licensed 15021
broker, held or owed by the licensed broker unclaimed for two 15022
years.15023

       (N) Any sum greater than fifty dollars payable as wages, any 15024
sum payable as salaries or commissions, any sum payable for 15025
services rendered, funds owed or held as royalties, oil and 15026
mineral proceeds, funds held for or owed to suppliers, and moneys 15027
owed under pension and profit-sharing plans, held or owed by any 15028
holder unclaimed for one year from date payable or distributable, 15029
and all other credits held or owed, or to be refunded to a retail 15030
customer, by any holder unclaimed for three years from date 15031
payable or distributable;15032

       (O) Amounts held in respect of or represented by lay-aways 15033
sold after January 1, 1972, less any lawful claims, when such 15034
lay-aways are unclaimed for three years after the sale of them;15035

       (P) All moneys, rights to moneys, and other intangible 15036
property not otherwise constituted as unclaimed funds by this 15037
section, including any income or increment on them, less any 15038
lawful claims, which are held or owed by any holder, other than a 15039
holder which holds a permit issued pursuant to Chapter 3769. of 15040
the Revised Code, and which have remained unclaimed for three 15041
years after becoming payable or distributable;15042

       (Q) All moneys that arise out of a sale held pursuant to 15043
section 5322.03 of the Revised Code, that are held by a holder for 15044
delivery on demand to the appropriate person pursuant to division 15045
(I) of that section, and that are unclaimed for two years after 15046
the date of the sale.15047

       (R)(1) Any funds that are subject to an agreement between the 15048
holder and owner providing for automatic reinvestment and that 15049
constitute dividends, distributions, or other sums held or owed by 15050
a holder in connection with a security as defined in section 15051
1707.01 of the Revised Code, an ownership interest in an 15052
investment company registered under the "Investment Company Act of 15053
1940," 54 Stat. 789, 15 U.S.C. 80a-1, as amended, or a certificate 15054
of deposit, unclaimed for a period of five years.15055

       (2) The five-year period under division (R)(1) of this 15056
section commences from the date a second shareholder notification 15057
or communication mailing to the owner of the funds is returned to 15058
the holder as undeliverable by the United States postal service or 15059
other carrier. The notification or communication mailing by the 15060
holder shall be no less frequent than quarterly.15061

       All moneys in a personal allowance account, as defined by 15062
rules adopted by the medicaid director of job and family services, 15063
up to and including the maximum resource limitation, of a medicaid 15064
patientrecipient who has died after receiving care in a long-term 15065
care facility, and for whom there is no identifiable heir or 15066
sponsor, are not subject to this chapter.15067

       Sec. 173.03.  (A) There is hereby created the Ohio advisory 15068
council for the aging, which shall consist of twelve members to be 15069
appointed by the governor with the advice and consent of the 15070
senate. Two ex officio members of the council shall be members of 15071
the house of representatives appointed by the speaker of the house 15072
of representatives and shall be members of two different political 15073
parties. Two ex officio members of the council shall be members of 15074
the senate appointed by the president of the senate and shall be 15075
members of two different political parties. The medicaid director 15076
and directors of mental healthmental health and addiction 15077
services, developmental disabilities, health, and job and family 15078
services, or their designees, shall serve as ex officio members of 15079
the council. The council shall carry out its role as defined under 15080
the "Older Americans Act of 1965," 79 Stat. 219, 42 U.S.C. 3001, 15081
as amended.15082

       At the first meeting of the council, and annually thereafter, 15083
the members shall select one of their members to serve as 15084
chairperson and one of their members to serve as vice-chairperson.15085

       (B) Members of the council shall be appointed for a term of 15086
three years, except that for the first appointment members of the 15087
Ohio commission on aging who were serving on the commission 15088
immediately prior to July 26, 1984, shall become members of the 15089
council for the remainder of their unexpired terms. Thereafter, 15090
appointment to the council shall be for a three-year term by the 15091
governor. Each member shall hold office from the date of 15092
appointment until the end of the term for which the member was 15093
appointed. Any member appointed to fill a vacancy occurring prior 15094
to the expiration of the term for which the member's predecessor 15095
was appointed shall hold office for the remainder of the term. No 15096
member shall continue in office subsequent to the expiration date 15097
of the member's term unless reappointed under the provisions of 15098
this section, and no member shall serve more than three 15099
consecutive terms on the council.15100

       (C) Membership of the council shall represent all areas of 15101
Ohio and shall be as follows:15102

       (1) A majority of members of the council shall have attained 15103
the age of sixtyfifty and have a knowledge of and continuing 15104
interest in the affairs and welfare of the older citizens of Ohio. 15105
The fields of business, labor, health, law, and human services 15106
shall be represented in the membership.15107

       (2) No more than seven members shall be of the same political 15108
party.15109

       (D) Any member of the council may be removed from office by 15110
the governor for neglect of duty, misconduct, or malfeasance in 15111
office after being informed in writing of the charges and afforded 15112
an opportunity for a hearing. Two consecutive unexcused absences 15113
from regularly scheduled meetings constitute neglect of duty.15114

       (E) The director of aging may reimburse a member for actual 15115
and necessary traveling and other expenses incurred in the 15116
discharge of official duties. But reimbursement shall be made in 15117
the manner and at rates that do not exceed those prescribed by the 15118
director of budget and management for any officer, member, or 15119
employee of, or consultant to, any state agency.15120

       (F) Council members are not limited as to the number of terms 15121
they may serve.15122

       (G)(1) The department of aging may award grants to or enter 15123
into contracts with a member of the advisory council or an entity 15124
that the member represents if any of the following apply:15125

       (a) The department determines that the member or the entity 15126
the member represents is capable of providing the goods or 15127
services specified under the terms of the grant or contract.15128

       (b) The member has not taken part in any discussion or vote 15129
of the council related to whether the council should recommend 15130
that the department of aging award the grant to or enter into the 15131
contract with the member of the advisory council or the entity 15132
that the member represents.15133

       (2) A member of the advisory council is not in violation of 15134
Chapter 102. or section 2921.42 of the Revised Code with regard to 15135
receiving a grant or entering into a contract under this section 15136
if the conditions of division (G)(1)(a) and (b) of this section 15137
have been met.15138

       Sec. 173.14.  As used in sections 173.14 to 173.27 of the 15139
Revised Code:15140

       (A)(1) Except as otherwise provided in division (A)(2) of 15141
this section, "long-term care facility" includes any residential 15142
facility that provides personal care services for more than 15143
twenty-four hours for one or more unrelated adults, including all 15144
of the following:15145

       (a) A "nursing home," "residential care facility," or "home 15146
for the aging" as defined in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code;15147

       (b) A facility authorized to provide extended care services 15148
under Title XVIII of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 15149
(1935), 42 U.S.C. 301, as amended, including a long-term acute 15150
care hospital that provides medical and rehabilitative care to 15151
patients who require an average length of stay greater than 15152
twenty-five days and is classified by the centers for medicare and 15153
medicaid services as a long-term care hospital pursuant to 42 15154
C.F.R. 412.23(e);15155

       (c) A county home or district home operated pursuant to 15156
Chapter 5155. of the Revised Code;15157

       (d) A residential facility licensed under section 5119.2215158
5119.34 of the Revised Code that provides accommodations, 15159
supervision, and personal care services for three to sixteen 15160
unrelated adults or accommodations and personal care services for 15161
only one or two adults who are recipients under thereceiving15162
residential state supplement program;15163

       (e) A facility approved by the veterans administration under 15164
section 104(a) of the "Veterans Health Care Amendments of 1983," 15165
97 Stat. 993, 38 U.S.C. 630, as amended, and used exclusively for 15166
the placement and care of veterans.15167

       (2) "Long-term care facility" does not include a residential 15168
facility licensed under section 5123.19 of the Revised Code.15169

       (B) "Resident" means a resident of a long-term care facility 15170
and, where appropriate, includes a prospective, previous, or 15171
deceased resident of a long-term care facility.15172

       (C) "Community-based long-term care services" means health 15173
and social services provided to persons in their own homes or in 15174
community care settings, and includes any of the following:15175

       (1) Case management;15176

       (2) Home health care;15177

       (3) Homemaker services;15178

       (4) Chore services;15179

       (5) Respite care;15180

       (6) Adult day care;15181

       (7) Home-delivered meals;15182

       (8) Personal care;15183

       (9) Physical, occupational, and speech therapy;15184

       (10) Transportation;15185

       (11) Any other health and social services provided to persons 15186
that allow them to retain their independence in their own homes or 15187
in community care settings.15188

       (D) "Recipient" means a recipient of community-based 15189
long-term care services and, where appropriate, includes a 15190
prospective, previous, or deceased recipient of community-based 15191
long-term care services.15192

       (E) "Sponsor" means an adult relative, friend, or guardian 15193
who has an interest in or responsibility for the welfare of a 15194
resident or a recipient.15195

       (F) "Personal care services" has the same meaning as in 15196
section 3721.01 of the Revised Code.15197

       (G) "Regional long-term care ombudsperson program" means an 15198
entity, either public or private and nonprofit, designated as a 15199
regional long-term care ombudsperson program by the state 15200
long-term care ombudsperson.15201

       (H) "Representative of the office of the state long-term care 15202
ombudsperson program" means the state long-term care ombudsperson 15203
or a member of the ombudsperson's staff, or a person certified as 15204
a representative of the office under section 173.21 of the Revised 15205
Code.15206

       (I) "Area agency on aging" means an area agency on aging 15207
established under the "Older Americans Act of 1965," 79 Stat. 219, 15208
42 U.S.C.A. 3001, as amended.15209

       Sec. 173.17.  (A) The state long-term care ombudsperson15210
ombudsman shall do all of the following:15211

       (1) Appoint a staff and direct and administer the work of the 15212
staff;15213

       (2) Supervise the nursing home investigative unit established 15214
under division (I) of section 173.01 of the Revised Code;15215

       (3) Oversee the performance and operation of the office of 15216
the state long-term care ombudspersonombudsman program, including 15217
the operation of regional long-term care ombudspersonombudsman15218
programs;15219

       (4) Establish and maintain a statewide uniform reporting 15220
system to collect and analyze information relating to complaints 15221
and conditions in long-term care facilities and complaints 15222
regarding the provision of community-based long-term care services 15223
for the purpose of identifying and resolving significant problems;15224

       (5) Provide for public forums to discuss concerns and 15225
problems relating to action, inaction, or decisions that may 15226
adversely affect the health, safety, welfare, or rights of 15227
residents and recipients of services by providers of long-term 15228
care and their representatives, public agencies and entities, and 15229
social service agencies. This may include any of the following: 15230
conducting public hearings; sponsoring workshops and conferences; 15231
holding meetings for the purpose of obtaining information about 15232
residents and recipients, discussing and publicizing their needs, 15233
and advocating solutions to their problems; and promoting the 15234
development of citizen organizations.15235

       (6) Encourage, cooperate with, and assist in the development 15236
and operation of services to provide current, objective, and 15237
verified information about long-term care;15238

       (7) Develop and implement, with the assistance of regional 15239
programs, a continuing program to publicize, through the media and 15240
civic organizations, the office, its purposes, and its methods of 15241
operation;15242

       (8) Maintain written descriptions of the duties and 15243
qualifications of representatives of the office;15244

       (9) Evaluate and make known concerns and issues regarding 15245
long-term care by doing all of the following:15246

       (a) Preparing an annual report containing information and 15247
findings regarding the types of problems experienced by residents 15248
and recipients and the complaints made by or on behalf of 15249
residents and recipients. The report shall include recommendations 15250
for policy, regulatory, and legislative changes to solve problems, 15251
resolve complaints, and improve the quality of care and life for 15252
residents and recipients and shall be submitted to the governor, 15253
the speaker of the house of representatives, the president of the 15254
senate, the directors of health and of job and family services, 15255
and the commissioner of the administration on aging of the United 15256
States department of health and human services.15257

       (b) Monitoring and analyzing the development and 15258
implementation of federal, state, and local laws, rules, and 15259
policies regarding long-term care services in this state and 15260
recommending to officials changes the office considers appropriate 15261
in these laws, rules, and policies;15262

       (c) Providing information and making recommendations to 15263
public agencies, members of the general assembly, and others 15264
regarding problems and concerns of residents and recipients.15265

       (10) Conduct training for employees and volunteers on15266
ombudsperson'sombudsman's staff and for representatives of the 15267
office employed by regional programs;15268

       (11) Monitor the training of representatives of the office 15269
who provide volunteer services to regional programs, and provide 15270
technical assistance to the regional programs in conducting the 15271
training;15272

       (12) Issue certificates attesting to the successful 15273
completion of training and specifying the level of responsibility 15274
for which a representative of the office who has completed 15275
training is qualified;15276

       (13) Register as a residents' rights advocate with the 15277
department of health under division (B) of section 3701.07 of the 15278
Revised Code;15279

       (14) Perform other duties specified by the department of 15280
aging.15281

       (B) The state ombudspersonombudsman may delegate any of the 15282
ombudsperson'sombudsman's authority or duties under sections 15283
173.14 to 173.26 of the Revised Code to any member of the 15284
ombudsperson'sombudsman's staff. The state ombudspersonombudsman15285
is responsible for any authority or duties the ombudsperson15286
ombudsman delegates.15287

       Sec. 173.19.  (A) The office of the state long-term care15288
ombudspersonombudsman program, through the state long-term care15289
ombudspersonombudsman and the regional long-term care 15290
ombudspersonombudsman programs, shall receive, investigate, and 15291
attempt to resolve complaints made by residents, recipients, 15292
sponsors, providers of long-term care, or any person acting on 15293
behalf of a resident or recipient, relating to either of the 15294
following:15295

       (1) The health, safety, welfare, or civil rights of a 15296
resident or recipient or any violation of a resident's rights 15297
described in sections 3721.10 to 3721.17 of the Revised Code;15298

       (2) Any action or inaction or decision by a provider of 15299
long-term care or representative of a provider, a governmental 15300
entity, or a private social service agency that may adversely 15301
affect the health, safety, welfare, or rights of a resident or 15302
recipient.15303

       (B) The department of aging shall adopt rules in accordance 15304
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code regarding the handling of 15305
complaints received under this section, including procedures for 15306
conducting investigations of complaints. The rules shall include 15307
procedures to ensure that no representative of the office 15308
investigates any complaint involving a provider of long-term care 15309
with which the representative was once employed or associated.15310

       The state ombudspersonombudsman and regional programs shall 15311
establish procedures for handling complaints consistent with the 15312
department's rules. Complaints shall be dealt with in accordance 15313
with the procedures established under this division.15314

       (C) The office of the state long-term care ombudsperson15315
ombudsman program may decline to investigate any complaint if it 15316
determines any of the following:15317

       (1) That the complaint is frivolous, vexatious, or not made 15318
in good faith;15319

       (2) That the complaint was made so long after the occurrence 15320
of the incident on which it is based that it is no longer 15321
reasonable to conduct an investigation;15322

       (3) That an adequate investigation cannot be conducted 15323
because of insufficient funds, insufficient staff, lack of staff 15324
expertise, or any other reasonable factor that would result in an 15325
inadequate investigation despite a good faith effort;15326

       (4) That an investigation by the office would create a real 15327
or apparent conflict of interest.15328

       (D) If a regional long-term care ombudspersonombudsman15329
program declines to investigate a complaint, it shall refer the 15330
complaint to the state long-term care ombudspersonombudsman.15331

       (E) Each complaint to be investigated by a regional program 15332
shall be assigned to a representative of the office of the state 15333
long-term care ombudspersonombudsman program. If the 15334
representative determines that the complaint is valid, the 15335
representative shall assist the parties in attempting to resolve 15336
it. If the representative is unable to resolve it, the 15337
representative shall refer the complaint to the state ombudsperson15338
ombudsman.15339

       In order to carry out the duties of sections 173.14 to 173.26 15340
of the Revised Code, a representative has the right to private 15341
communication with residents and their sponsors and access to 15342
long-term care facilities, including the right to tour resident 15343
areas unescorted and the right to tour facilities unescorted as 15344
reasonably necessary to the investigation of a complaint. Access 15345
to facilities shall be during reasonable hours or, during 15346
investigation of a complaint, at other times appropriate to the 15347
complaint.15348

       When community-based long-term care services are provided at 15349
a location other than the recipient's home, a representative has 15350
the right to private communication with the recipient and the 15351
recipient's sponsors and access to the community-based long-term 15352
care site, including the right to tour the site unescorted. Access 15353
to the site shall be during reasonable hours or, during the 15354
investigation of a complaint, at other times appropriate to the 15355
complaint.15356

       (F) The state ombudspersonombudsman shall determine whether 15357
complaints referred to the ombudspersonombudsman under division 15358
(D) or (E) of this section warrant investigation. The 15359
ombudsperson'sombudsman's determination in this matter is final.15360

       Sec. 173.20.  (A) If consent is given and unless otherwise 15361
prohibited by law, a representative of the office of the state 15362
long-term care ombudsman program shall have access to any records, 15363
including medical records, of a resident or a recipient that are 15364
reasonably necessary for investigation of a complaint. Consent may 15365
be given in any of the following ways:15366

       (1) In writing by the resident or recipient;15367

       (2) Orally by the resident or recipient, witnessed in writing 15368
at the time it is given by one other person, and, if the records 15369
involved are being maintained by a long-term care provider, also 15370
by an employee of the long-term care provider designated under 15371
division (E)(1) of this section;15372

       (3) In writing by the guardian of the resident or recipient;15373

       (4) In writing by the attorney in fact of the resident or 15374
recipient, if the resident or recipient has authorized the 15375
attorney in fact to give such consent;15376

       (5) In writing by the executor or administrator of the estate 15377
of a deceased resident or recipient.15378

       (B) If consent to access to records is not refused by a 15379
resident or recipient or histhe resident's or recipient's legal 15380
representative but cannot be obtained and any of the following 15381
circumstances exist, a representative of the office of the state 15382
long-term care ombudsman program, on approval of the state 15383
long-term care ombudsman, may inspect the records of a resident or 15384
a recipient, including medical records, that are reasonably 15385
necessary for investigation of a complaint:15386

       (1) The resident or recipient is unable to express written or 15387
oral consent and there is no guardian or attorney in fact;15388

       (2) There is a guardian or attorney in fact, but hethe 15389
guardian or attorney in fact cannot be contacted within three 15390
working days;15391

       (3) There is a guardianship or durable power of attorney, but 15392
its existence is unknown by the long-term care provider and the 15393
representative of the office at the time of the investigation;15394

       (4) There is no executor or administrator of the estate of a 15395
deceased resident or recipient.15396

       (C) If a representative of the office of the state long-term 15397
care ombudsman program has been refused access to records by a 15398
guardian or attorney in fact, but has reasonable cause to believe 15399
that the guardian or attorney in fact is not acting in the best 15400
interests of the resident or recipient, the representative may, on 15401
approval of the state long-term care ombudsman, inspect the 15402
records of the resident or recipient, including medical records, 15403
that are reasonably necessary for investigation of a complaint.15404

       (D) A representative of the office of the state long-term 15405
care ombudsman program shall have access to any records of a 15406
long-term care provider reasonably necessary to an investigation 15407
conducted under this section, including but not limited to: 15408
incident reports, dietary records, policies and procedures of a 15409
facility required to be maintained under section 5111.215165.0615410
of the Revised Code, admission agreements, staffing schedules, any 15411
document depicting the actual staffing pattern of the provider, 15412
any financial records that are matters of public record, resident 15413
council and grievance committee minutes, and any waiting list 15414
maintained by a facility in accordance with section 5111.3115415
5165.08 of the Revised Code, or any similar records or lists 15416
maintained by a provider of community-based long-term care 15417
services. Pursuant to division (E)(2) of this section, a 15418
representative shall be permitted to make or obtain copies of any 15419
of these records after giving the long-term care provider 15420
twenty-four hours' notice. A long-term care provider may impose a 15421
charge for providing copies of records under this division that 15422
does not exceed the actual and necessary expense of making the 15423
copies.15424

       The state ombudsman shall take whatever action is necessary 15425
to ensure that any copy of a record made or obtained under this 15426
division is returned to the long-term care provider no later than 15427
three years after the date the investigation for which the copy 15428
was made or obtained is completed.15429

       (E)(1) Each long-term care provider shall designate one or 15430
more of its employees to be responsible for witnessing the giving 15431
of oral consent under division (A) of this section. In the event 15432
that a designated employee is not available when a resident or 15433
recipient attempts to give oral consent, the provider shall 15434
designate another employee to witness the consent.15435

       (2) Each long-term care provider shall designate one or more 15436
of its employees to be responsible for releasing records for 15437
copying to representatives of the office of the long-term care 15438
ombudsman program who request permission to make or obtain copies 15439
of records specified in division (D) of this section. In the event 15440
that a designated employee is not available when a representative 15441
of the office makes the request, the long-term care provider shall 15442
designate another employee to release the records for copying.15443

       (F) A long-term care provider or any employee of such a 15444
provider is immune from civil or criminal liability or action 15445
taken pursuant to a professional disciplinary procedure for the 15446
release or disclosure of records to a representative of the office 15447
pursuant to this section.15448

       (G) A state or local government agency or entity with records 15449
relevant to a complaint or investigation being conducted by a 15450
representative of the office shall provide the representative 15451
access to the records.15452

       (H) The state ombudsman, with the approval of the director of 15453
aging, may issue a subpoena to compel any person hethe ombudsman15454
reasonably believes may be able to provide information to appear 15455
before himthe ombudsman or histhe ombudsman's designee and give 15456
sworn testimony and to produce documents, books, records, papers, 15457
or other evidence the state ombudsman believes is relevant to the 15458
investigation. On the refusal of a witness to be sworn or to 15459
answer any question put to himthe witness, or if a person 15460
disobeys a subpoena, the ombudsman shall apply to the Franklin 15461
county court of common pleas for a contempt order, as in the case 15462
of disobedience of the requirements of a subpoena issued from the 15463
court, or a refusal to testify in the court.15464

       (I) The state ombudsman may petition the court of common 15465
pleas in the county in which a long-term care facility is located 15466
to issue an injunction against any long-term care facility in 15467
violation of sections 3721.10 to 3721.17 of the Revised Code.15468

       (J) Any suspected violation of Chapter 3721. of the Revised 15469
Code discovered during the course of an investigation may be 15470
reported to the department of health. Any suspected criminal 15471
violation discovered during the course of an investigation shall 15472
be reported to the attorney general or other appropriate law 15473
enforcement authorities.15474

       (K) The department of aging shall adopt rules in accordance 15475
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code for referral by the state 15476
ombudsman and regional long-term care ombudsman programs of 15477
complaints to other public agencies or entities. A public agency 15478
or entity to which a complaint is referred shall keep the state 15479
ombudsman or regional program handling the complaint advised and 15480
notified in writing in a timely manner of the disposition of the 15481
complaint to the extent permitted by law.15482

       Sec. 173.21.  (A) The office of the state long-term care 15483
ombudspersonombudsman program, through the state long-term care 15484
ombudspersonombudsman and the regional long-term care 15485
ombudspersonombudsman programs, shall require each representative 15486
of the office to complete a training and certification program in 15487
accordance with this section and to meet the continuing education 15488
requirements established under this section.15489

       (B) The department of aging shall adopt rules under Chapter 15490
119. of the Revised Code specifying the content of training 15491
programs for representatives of the office of the state long-term 15492
care ombudspersonombudsman program. Training for representatives 15493
other than those who are volunteers providing services through 15494
regional long-term care ombudspersonombudsman programs shall 15495
include instruction regarding federal, state, and local laws, 15496
rules, and policies on long-term care facilities and 15497
community-based long-term care services; investigative techniques; 15498
and other topics considered relevant by the department and shall 15499
consist of the following:15500

       (1) A minimum of forty clock hours of basic instruction, 15501
which shall be completed before the trainee is permitted to handle 15502
complaints without the supervision of a representative of the 15503
office certified under this section;15504

       (2) An additional sixty clock hours of instruction, which 15505
shall be completed within the first fifteen months of employment;15506

       (3) An internship of twenty clock hours, which shall be 15507
completed within the first twenty-four months of employment, 15508
including instruction in, and observation of, basic nursing care 15509
and long-term care provider operations and procedures. The 15510
internship shall be performed at a site that has been approved as 15511
an internship site by the state long-term care ombudsperson15512
ombudsman.15513

       (4) One of the following, which shall be completed within the 15514
first twenty-four months of employment:15515

       (a) Observation of a survey conducted by the director of 15516
health to certify a nursing facility to receive funds under 15517
sections 5111.20 to 5111.32 of the Revised Codeparticipate in the 15518
medicaid program;15519

       (b) Observation of an inspection conducted by the director of 15520
mental healthmental health and addiction services to license a 15521
residential facility under section 5119.225119.34 of the Revised 15522
Code that provides accommodations, supervision, and personal care 15523
services for three to sixteen unrelated adults.15524

       (5) Any other training considered appropriate by the 15525
department.15526

       (C) PersonsAny person who for a period of at least six 15527
months prior to June 11, 1990, served as ombudsmenan ombudsman15528
through the long-term care ombudspersonombudsman program 15529
established by the department of aging under division (M) of 15530
section 173.01 of the Revised Code shall not be required to 15531
complete a training program. These personsSuch a person and 15532
persons who complete a training program shall take an examination 15533
administered by the department of aging. On attainment of a 15534
passing score, the person shall be certified by the department as 15535
a representative of the office. The department shall issue the 15536
person an identification card, which the representative shall show 15537
at the request of any person with whom the representative deals 15538
while performing the representative's duties and which shall be 15539
surrendered at the time the representative separates from the 15540
office.15541

       (D) The state ombudspersonombudsman and each regional 15542
program shall conduct training programs for volunteers on their 15543
respective staffs in accordance with the rules of the department 15544
of aging adopted under division (B) of this section. Training 15545
programs may be conducted that train volunteers to complete some, 15546
but not all, of the duties of a representative of the office. Each 15547
regional office shall bear the cost of training its 15548
representatives who are volunteers. On completion of a training 15549
program, the representative shall take an examination administered 15550
by the department of aging. On attainment of a passing score, a 15551
volunteer shall be certified by the department as a representative 15552
authorized to perform services specified in the certification. The 15553
department shall issue an identification card, which the 15554
representative shall show at the request of any person with whom 15555
the representative deals while performing the representative's 15556
duties and which shall be surrendered at the time the 15557
representative separates from the office. Except as a supervised 15558
part of a training program, no volunteer shall perform any duty 15559
unless he is certified as a representative having received 15560
appropriate training for that duty.15561

       (E) The state ombudspersonombudsman shall provide technical 15562
assistance to regional programs conducting training programs for 15563
volunteers and shall monitor the training programs.15564

       (F) Prior to scheduling an observation of a certification 15565
survey or licensing inspection for purposes of division (B)(4) of 15566
this section, the state ombudspersonombudsman shall obtain 15567
permission to have the survey or inspection observed from both the 15568
director of health and the long-term care facility at which the 15569
survey or inspection is to take place.15570

       (G) The department of aging shall establish continuing 15571
education requirements for representatives of the office.15572

       Sec. 173.23.  (A) Representatives of the office of the state 15573
long-term care ombudspersonombudsman program are immune from 15574
civil or criminal liability for any action taken in the good faith 15575
performance of their official duties under sections 173.14 to 15576
173.26 of the Revised Code. 15577

       (B) A person acting in good faith is immune from civil or 15578
criminal liability incident to any of the following: providing 15579
information to the office, participating in registration of a 15580
complaint with the office, participating in investigation of a 15581
complaint by the office, or participating in an administrative or 15582
judicial proceeding resulting from a complaint.15583

       (C) No person shall knowingly register a false complaint with 15584
the office, or knowingly swear or affirm the truth of a false 15585
complaint previously registered, when the statement is made with 15586
purpose to incriminate another.15587

       (D) The attorney general shall provide legal counsel to the 15588
office of the state long-term care ombudspersonombudsman program 15589
and to the regional long-term care ombudspersonombudsman15590
programs. The attorney general shall represent any representative 15591
of the office and any representative of a regional program against 15592
whom any legal action is brought in connection with the 15593
representative's official duties under sections 173.14 to 173.26 15594
of the Revised Code.15595

       Sec. 173.25.  The office of the state long-term care15596
ombudspersonombudsman program shall, in carrying out the 15597
provisions and purposes of sections 173.14 to 173.26 of the 15598
Revised Code, advise, consult, and cooperate with any agency, 15599
program, or other entity related to the purposes of the office. 15600
Any agency, program, or other entity related to the purposes of 15601
the office shall advise, consult, and cooperate with the office.15602

       The office shall attempt to establish effective coordination 15603
with government-sponsored programs that provide legal services to 15604
the elderly and with protective and advocacy programs for 15605
individuals with developmental disabilities, mental retardation, 15606
or mental illness.15607

       Sec. 173.26.  (A) Each of the following facilities shall 15608
annually pay to the department of aging six dollars for each bed 15609
maintained by the facility for use by a residentwas licensed or 15610
otherwise authorized to maintain during any part of the previous 15611
year:15612

       (1) Nursing homes,and residential care facilities, and homes 15613
for the aging as defined in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code;15614

       (2) Facilities authorized to provide extended care services 15615
under Title XVIII of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 15616
(1935), 42 U.S.C. 301, as amended, including a long-term acute 15617
care hospital that provides medical and rehabilitative care to 15618
patients who require an average length of stay greater than 15619
twenty-five days and is classified by the centers for medicare and 15620
medicaid services as a long-term care hospital pursuant to 42 15621
C.F.R. 412.23(e);15622

       (3) County homes and district homes operated pursuant to 15623
Chapter 5155. of the Revised Code;15624

       (4) Residential facilities licensed under section 5119.2215625
5119.34 of the Revised Code that provide accommodations, 15626
supervision, and personal care services for three to sixteen 15627
unrelated adults;15628

       (5) Facilities approved by the Veterans Administration under 15629
Section 104(a) of the "Veterans Health Care Amendments of 1983," 15630
97 Stat. 993, 38 U.S.C. 630, as amended, and used exclusively for 15631
the placement and care of veterans.15632

       The department shall, by rule adopted in accordance with 15633
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, establish deadlines for payments 15634
required by this section. A facility that fails, within ninety 15635
days after the established deadline, to pay a payment required by 15636
this section shall be assessed at two times the original invoiced 15637
payment.15638

       (B) All money collected under this section shall be deposited 15639
in the state treasury to the credit of the office of the state 15640
long-term care ombudspersonombudsman program fund, which is 15641
hereby created. Money credited to the fund shall be used solely to 15642
pay the costs of operating the regional long-term care 15643
ombudspersonombudsman programs.15644

       (C) The state long-term care ombudspersonombudsman and the 15645
regional programs may solicit and receive contributions to support 15646
the operation of the office or a regional program, except that no 15647
contribution shall be solicited or accepted that would interfere 15648
with the independence or objectivity of the office or program.15649

       Sec. 173.27.  (A) As used in this section:15650

       (1) "Applicant" means a person who is under final 15651
consideration for employment with the office of the state 15652
long-term care ombudsperson programby a responsible party in a 15653
full-time, part-time, or temporary position that involves 15654
providing ombudspersonombudsman services to residents and 15655
recipients. "Applicant" includes a person who is under final 15656
consideration for employment as the state long-term care 15657
ombudspersonombudsman or the head of a regional long-term care 15658
ombudspersonombudsman program. "Applicant" does not include a 15659
person seeking to provide ombudspersonombudsman services to 15660
residents and recipients as a volunteer without receiving or 15661
expecting to receive any form of remuneration other than 15662
reimbursement for actual expenses.15663

       (2) "Criminal records check" has the same meaning as in 15664
section 109.572 of the Revised Code.15665

       (3) "Disqualifying offense" means any of the offenses listed 15666
or described in divisions (A)(3)(a) to (e) of section 109.572 of 15667
the Revised Code.15668

       (4) "Employee" means a person employed by the office of the 15669
state long-term care ombudsperson programa responsible party in a 15670
full-time, part-time, or temporary position that involves 15671
providing ombudspersonombudsman services to residents and 15672
recipients. "Employee" includes the person employed as the state 15673
long-term care ombudspersonombudsman and a person employed as the 15674
head of a regional long-term care ombudspersonombudsman program. 15675
"Employee" does not include a person who provides ombudsperson15676
ombudsman services to residents and recipients as a volunteer 15677
without receiving or expecting to receive any form of remuneration 15678
other than reimbursement for actual expenses.15679

       (5) "Responsible entityparty" means the following:15680

       (a) In the case of an applicant who is under final 15681
consideration for employment as the state long-term care 15682
ombudspersonombudsman or the person employed as the state 15683
long-term care ombudspersonombudsman, the director of aging;15684

       (b) In the case of any other applicant who is under final 15685
consideration for employment with the state long-term care 15686
ombudsman program or any other employee of the state long-term 15687
care ombudsman program, the state long-term care ombudsperson or 15688
the ombudsperson's designeeombudsman;15689

        (c) In the case of an applicant who is under final 15690
consideration for employment with a regional long-term care 15691
ombudsman program (including as the head of the regional program) 15692
or an employee of a regional long-term care ombudsman program 15693
(including the head of a regional program), the regional long-term 15694
care ombudsman program.15695

       (B) The office of the state long-term care ombudsperson 15696
programA responsible party may not employ an applicant or 15697
continue to employ an employee in a position that involves 15698
providing ombudspersonombudsman services to residents and 15699
recipients if any of the following apply:15700

       (1) A review of the databases listed in division (D) of this 15701
section reveals any of the following:15702

       (a) That the applicant or employee is included in one or more 15703
of the databases listed in divisions (D)(1) to (5) of this 15704
section;15705

       (b) That there is in the state nurse aide registry 15706
established under section 3721.32 of the Revised Code a statement 15707
detailing findings by the director of health that the applicant or 15708
employee neglected or abused a long-term care facility or 15709
residential care facility resident or misappropriated property of 15710
such a resident;15711

       (c) That the applicant or employee is included in one or more 15712
of the databases, if any, specified in rules adopted under this 15713
section and the rules prohibit the officeresponsible party from 15714
employing an applicant or continuing to employ an employee 15715
included in such a database in a position that involves providing 15716
ombudspersonombudsman services to residents and recipients.15717

       (2) After the applicant or employee is provided, pursuant to 15718
division (E)(2)(a) of this section, a copy of the form prescribed 15719
pursuant to division (C)(1) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code 15720
and the standard impression sheet prescribed pursuant to division 15721
(C)(2) of that section, the applicant or employee fails to 15722
complete the form or provide the applicant's or employee's 15723
fingerprint impressions on the standard impression sheet.15724

       (3) Except as providedUnless the applicant or employee meets 15725
standards specified in rules adopted under this section, the 15726
applicant or employee is found by a criminal records check 15727
required by this section to have been convicted of, pleaded guilty 15728
to, or been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction 15729
for a disqualifying offense.15730

       (C) TheA responsible entityparty or a responsible party's 15731
designee shall inform each applicant of both of the following at 15732
the time of the applicant's initial application for employment in 15733
a position that involves providing ombudspersonombudsman services 15734
to residents and recipients:15735

       (1) That a review of the databases listed in division (D) of 15736
this section will be conducted to determine whether the office of 15737
the state long-term care ombudsperson programresponsible party is 15738
prohibited by division (B)(1) of this section from employing the 15739
applicant in the position;15740

       (2) That, unless the database review reveals that the 15741
applicant may not be employed in the position, a criminal records 15742
check of the applicant will be conducted and the applicant is 15743
required to provide a set of the applicant's fingerprint 15744
impressions as part of the criminal records check.15745

       (D) As a condition of any applicant's being employed by the 15746
office of the state long-term care ombudsperson programa 15747
responsible party in a position that involves providing 15748
ombudspersonombudsman services to residents and recipients, the 15749
responsible entityparty or designee shall conduct a database 15750
review of the applicant in accordance with rules adopted under 15751
this section. If rules adopted under this section so require, the 15752
responsible entityparty or designee shall conduct a database 15753
review of an employee in accordance with the rules as a condition 15754
of the office'sresponsible party continuing to employ the 15755
employee in a position that involves providing ombudsperson15756
ombudsman services to residents and recipients. A database review 15757
shall determine whether the applicant or employee is included in 15758
any of the following:15759

       (1) The excluded parties list system that is maintained by 15760
the United States general services administration pursuant to 15761
subpart 9.4 of the federal acquisition regulation and available at 15762
the federal web site known as the system for award management;15763

       (2) The list of excluded individuals and entities maintained 15764
by the office of inspector general in the United States department 15765
of health and human services pursuant to section 1128 of the 15766
"Social Security Act," 94 Stat. 2619 (1980), 42 U.S.C. 1320a-7, as 15767
amended, and section 1156 of the "Social Security Act," 96 Stat. 15768
388 (1982), 42 U.S.C. 1320c-5, as amended;15769

       (3) The registry of MR/DD employees established under section 15770
5123.52 of the Revised Code;15771

       (4) The internet-based sex offender and child-victim offender 15772
database established under division (A)(11) of section 2950.13 of 15773
the Revised Code;15774

       (5) The internet-based database of inmates established under 15775
section 5120.66 of the Revised Code;15776

       (6) The state nurse aide registry established under section 15777
3721.32 of the Revised Code;15778

       (7) Any other database, if any, specified in rules adopted 15779
under this section.15780

       (E)(1) As a condition of any applicant's being employed by 15781
the office of the state long-term care ombudsperson programa 15782
responsible party in a position that involves providing 15783
ombudspersonombudsman services to residents and recipients, the 15784
responsible entityparty or designee shall request that the 15785
superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and 15786
investigation conduct a criminal records check of the applicant. 15787
If rules adopted under this section so require, the responsible 15788
entityparty or designee shall request that the superintendent 15789
conduct a criminal records check of an employee at times specified 15790
in the rules as a condition of the office'sresponsible party15791
continuing to employ the employee in a position that involves 15792
providing ombudspersonombudsman services to residents and 15793
recipients. However, the responsible entityparty or designee is 15794
not required to request the criminal records check of the 15795
applicant or employee if the officeresponsible party is 15796
prohibited by division (B)(1) of this section from employing the 15797
applicant or continuing to employ the employee in a position that 15798
involves providing ombudspersonombudsman services to residents 15799
and recipients. If an applicant or employee for whom a criminal 15800
records check request is required by this section does not present 15801
proof of having been a resident of this state for the five-year 15802
period immediately prior to the date the criminal records check is 15803
requested or provide evidence that within that five-year period 15804
the superintendent has requested information about the applicant 15805
or employee from the federal bureau of investigation in a criminal 15806
records check, the responsible entityparty or designee shall 15807
request that the superintendent obtain information from the 15808
federal bureau of investigation as part of the criminal records 15809
check. Even if an applicant or employee for whom a criminal 15810
records check request is required by this section presents proof 15811
of having been a resident of this state for the five-year period, 15812
the responsible entityparty or designee may request that the 15813
superintendent include information from the federal bureau of 15814
investigation in the criminal records check.15815

       (2) TheA responsible entityparty or designee shall do all 15816
of the following:15817

       (a) Provide to each applicant and employee for whom a 15818
criminal records check request is required by this section a copy 15819
of the form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of section 15820
109.572 of the Revised Code and a standard impression sheet 15821
prescribed pursuant to division (C)(2) of that section;15822

       (b) Obtain the completed form and standard impression sheet 15823
from the applicant or employee;15824

       (c) Forward the completed form and standard impression sheet 15825
to the superintendent. 15826

       (3) The office of the state long-term care ombudsperson 15827
programA responsible party shall pay to the bureau of criminal 15828
identification and investigation the fee prescribed pursuant to 15829
division (C)(3) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code for each 15830
criminal records check the responsible entityparty or the 15831
responsible party's designee requests under this section. The 15832
officeresponsible party may charge an applicant a fee not 15833
exceeding the amount the officeresponsible party pays to the 15834
bureau under this section if the responsible entityparty or 15835
designee notifies the applicant at the time of initial application 15836
for employment of the amount of the fee.15837

        (F)(1) The office of the state long-term care ombudsperson 15838
programA responsible party may employ conditionally an applicant 15839
for whom a criminal records check is required by this section 15840
prior to obtaining the results of the criminal records check if 15841
both of the officefollowing apply:15842

       (a) The responsible party is not prohibited by division 15843
(B)(1) of this section from employing the applicant in a position 15844
that involves providing ombudspersonombudsman services to 15845
residents and recipients and the;15846

       (b) The responsible entityparty or designee requests the 15847
criminal records check in accordance with division (E) of this 15848
section not later than five business days after the applicant 15849
begins conditional employment.15850

       (2) The office of the state long-term care ombudsperson 15851
programA responsible party shall terminate the employment of an 15852
applicant employed conditionally under division (F)(1) of this 15853
section if the results of the criminal records check, other than 15854
the results of any request for information from the federal bureau 15855
of investigation, are not obtained within the period ending sixty 15856
days after the date the request for the criminal records check is 15857
made. Regardless of when the results of the criminal records check 15858
are obtained, if the results indicate that the applicant has been 15859
convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or been found eligible for 15860
intervention in lieu of conviction for a disqualifying offense, 15861
the officeresponsible party shall terminate the applicant's 15862
employment unless circumstancesthe applicant meets standards15863
specified in rules adopted under this section that permit the 15864
officeresponsible party to employ the applicant exist and the 15865
officeresponsible party chooses to employ the applicant. 15866
Termination of employment under this division shall be considered 15867
just cause for discharge for purposes of division (D)(2) of 15868
section 4141.29 of the Revised Code if the applicant makes any 15869
attempt to deceive the officeresponsible party or designee about 15870
the applicant's criminal record.15871

       (G) The report of any criminal records check conducted 15872
pursuant to a request made under this section is not a public 15873
record for the purposes of section 149.43 of the Revised Code and 15874
shall not be made available to any person other than the 15875
following:15876

       (1) The applicant or employee who is the subject of the 15877
criminal records check or the applicant's or employee's 15878
representative;15879

       (2) The responsible entityparty or the responsible entity's 15880
representativedesignee;15881

       (3) If the state long-term care ombudsperson designates the 15882
head or other employee ofIn the case of a criminal records check 15883
conducted for an applicant who is under final consideration for 15884
employment with a regional long-term care ombudspersonombudsman15885
program to request a criminal records check under this section15886
(including as the head of the regional program) or an employee of 15887
a regional long-term care ombudsman program (including the head of 15888
a regional program), the state long-term care ombudsman or a 15889
representative of the office of the state long-term care 15890
ombudspersonombudsman program who is responsible for monitoring 15891
the regional program's compliance with this section;15892

       (4) A court, hearing officer, or other necessary individual 15893
involved in a case dealing with any of the following:15894

       (a) A denial of employment of the applicant or employee;15895

       (b) Employment or unemployment benefits of the applicant or 15896
employee;15897

       (c) A civil or criminal action regarding the medicaid program 15898
or a program the department of aging administers.15899

       (H) In a tort or other civil action for damages that is 15900
brought as the result of an injury, death, or loss to person or 15901
property caused by an applicant or employee who the office of the 15902
state long-term care ombudsperson programa responsible party15903
employs in a position that involves providing ombudsperson15904
ombudsman services to residents and recipients, all of the 15905
following shall apply:15906

       (1) If the officeresponsible party employed the applicant or 15907
employee in good faith and reasonable reliance on the report of a 15908
criminal records check requested under this section, the office15909
responsible party shall not be found negligent solely because of 15910
its reliance on the report, even if the information in the report 15911
is determined later to have been incomplete or inaccurate.15912

       (2) If the officeresponsible party employed the applicant in 15913
good faith on a conditional basis pursuant to division (F) of this 15914
section, the officeresponsible party shall not be found 15915
negligent solely because it employed the applicant prior to 15916
receiving the report of a criminal records check requested under 15917
this section.15918

       (3) If the officeresponsible party in good faith employed 15919
the applicant or employee according tobecause the personal 15920
characterapplicant or employee meets standards established15921
specified in rules adopted under this section, the office15922
responsible party shall not be found negligent solely because the 15923
applicant or employee has been convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or 15924
been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for a 15925
disqualifying offense.15926

       (I) The state long-term care ombudsman may not act as the 15927
director of aging's designee for the purpose of this section. The 15928
head of a regional long-term care ombudsman program may not act as 15929
the regional program's designee for the purpose of this section if 15930
the head is the employee for whom a database review or criminal 15931
records check is being conducted.15932

       (J) The director of aging shall adopt rules in accordance 15933
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement this section. 15934

       (1) The rules may do the following:15935

       (a) Require employees to undergo database reviews and 15936
criminal records checks under this section;15937

       (b) If the rules require employees to undergo database 15938
reviews and criminal records checks under this section, exempt one 15939
or more classes of employees from the requirements;15940

       (c) For the purpose of division (D)(7) of this section, 15941
specify other databases that are to be checked as part of a 15942
database review conducted under this section.15943

       (2) The rules shall specify all of the following:15944

       (a) The procedures for conducting database reviews under this 15945
section;15946

       (b) If the rules require employees to undergo database 15947
reviews and criminal records checks under this section, the times 15948
at which the database reviews and criminal records checks are to 15949
be conducted;15950

       (c) If the rules specify other databases to be checked as 15951
part of the database reviews, the circumstances under which the 15952
office of the state long-term care ombudsperson programa 15953
responsible party is prohibited from employing an applicant or 15954
continuing to employ an employee who is found by a database review 15955
to be included in one or more of those databases;15956

       (d) Circumstances under which the office of the state 15957
long-term care ombudsperson program may employStandards that an 15958
applicant or employee whomust meet for a responsible party to be 15959
permitted to employ the applicant or continue to employ the 15960
employee in a position that involves providing ombudsman services 15961
to residents and recipients if the applicant or employee is found 15962
by a criminal records check required by this section to have been 15963
convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or been found eligible for 15964
intervention in lieu of conviction for a disqualifying offense 15965
but meets personal character standards.15966

       Sec. 173.28. (A)(1) As used in this division, "incident" 15967
means the occurrence of a violation with respect to a resident or 15968
recipient, as those terms are defined in section 173.14 of the 15969
Revised Code. A violation is a separate incident for each day it 15970
occurs and for each resident who is subject to it.15971

        In lieu of the fine that may be imposed under division (A) of 15972
section 173.99 of the Revised Code, the director of aging may, 15973
under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, fine a long-term care 15974
provider or other entity, or a person employed by a long-term care 15975
provider or other entity, for a violation of division (C) of 15976
section 173.24 of the Revised Code. The fine shall not exceed one 15977
thousand dollars per incident.15978

        (2) In lieu of the fine that may be imposed under division 15979
(C) of section 173.99 of the Revised Code, the director may, under 15980
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, fine a long-term care provider 15981
or other entity, or a person employed by a long-term care provider 15982
or other entity, for violating division (E) of section 173.19 of 15983
the Revised Code by denying a representative of the office of the 15984
state long-term care ombudspersonombudsman program the access 15985
required by that division. The fine shall not exceed five hundred 15986
dollars for each day the violation continued.15987

        (B) On request of the director, the attorney general shall 15988
bring and prosecute to judgment a civil action to collect any fine 15989
imposed under division (A)(1) or (2) of this section that remains 15990
unpaid thirty days after the violator's final appeal is exhausted.15991

        (C) All fines collected under this section shall be deposited 15992
into the state treasury to the credit of the state long-term care 15993
ombudspersonombudsman program fund created under section 173.26 15994
of the Revised Code.15995

       Sec. 173.394.        Sec. 173.38.  (A) As used in this section:15996

       (1) "Applicant" means a person who is under final 15997
consideration for employment with a community-based long-term care 15998
agencyresponsible party in a full-time, part-time, or temporary 15999
direct-care position that involves providing direct care to an 16000
individual or is referred to a community-based long-term care 16001
agencyresponsible party by an employment service for such a 16002
position. "Applicant" does not include a person who provides 16003
direct care to an individualbeing considered for a direct-care 16004
position as a volunteer without receiving or expecting to receive 16005
any form of remuneration other than reimbursement for actual 16006
expenses.16007

       (2) "Area agency on aging" has the same meaning as in section 16008
173.14 of the Revised Code.16009

       (3) "Community-based long-term care services" means 16010
community-based long-term care services, as defined in section 16011
173.14 of the Revised Code, that are provided under a program the 16012
department of aging administers.16013

       (4) "Consumer" means an individual who receives 16014
community-based long-term care services.16015

       (5) "Criminal records check" has the same meaning as in 16016
section 109.572 of the Revised Code.16017

       (6) "Direct-care position" means an employment position in 16018
which an employee has either or both of the following:16019

       (i) In-person contact with one or more consumers;16020

       (ii) Access to one or more consumers' personal property or 16021
records.16022

       (7) "Disqualifying offense" means any of the offenses listed 16023
or described in divisions (A)(3)(a) to (e) of section 109.572 of 16024
the Revised Code.16025

       (8) "Employee" means a person employed by a community-based 16026
long-term care agencyresponsible party in a full-time, part-time, 16027
or temporary direct-care position that involves providing direct 16028
care to an individual and a person who works in such a position 16029
due to being referred to a community-based long-term care agency16030
responsible party by an employment service. "Employee" does not 16031
include a person who provides direct care to an individualworks 16032
in a direct-care position as a volunteer without receiving or 16033
expecting to receive any form of remuneration other than 16034
reimbursement for actual expenses.16035

       (9) "PASSPORT administrative agency" has the same meaning as 16036
in section 173.42 of the Revised Code.16037

       (10) "Provider" has the same meaning as in section 173.39 of 16038
the Revised Code.16039

       (11) "Responsible party" means the following:16040

       (a) An area agency on aging in the case of either of the 16041
following:16042

       (i) A person who is an applicant because the person is under 16043
final consideration for employment with the agency in a full-time, 16044
part-time, or temporary direct-care position or is referred to the 16045
agency by an employment service for such a position;16046

       (ii) A person who is an employee because the person is 16047
employed by the agency in a full-time, part-time, or temporary 16048
direct-care position or works in such a position due to being 16049
referred to the agency by an employment service.16050

       (b) A PASSPORT administrative agency in the case of either of 16051
the following:16052

       (i) A person who is an applicant because the person is under 16053
final consideration for employment with the agency in a full-time, 16054
part-time, or temporary direct-care position or is referred to the 16055
agency by an employment service for such a position;16056

       (ii) A person who is an employee because the person is 16057
employed by the agency in a full-time, part-time, or temporary 16058
direct-care position or works in such a position due to being 16059
referred to the agency by an employment service.16060

       (c) A provider in the case of either of the following:16061

       (i) A person who is an applicant because the person is under 16062
final consideration for employment with the provider in a 16063
full-time, part-time, or temporary direct-care position or is 16064
referred to the provider by an employment service for such a 16065
position;16066

       (ii) A person who is an employee because the person is 16067
employed by the provider in a full-time, part-time, or temporary 16068
direct-care position or works in such a position due to being 16069
referred to the provider by an employment service.16070

       (d) A subcontractor in the case of either of the following:16071

       (i) A person who is an applicant because the person is under 16072
final consideration for employment with the subcontractor in a 16073
full-time, part-time, or temporary direct-care position or is 16074
referred to the subcontractor by an employment service for such a 16075
position;16076

       (ii) A person who is an employee because the person is 16077
employed by the subcontractor in a full-time, part-time, or 16078
temporary direct-care position or works in such a position due to 16079
being referred to the subcontractor by an employment service.16080

       (12) "Subcontractor" has the meaning specified in rules 16081
adopted under this section.16082

       (13) "Volunteer" means a person who serves in a direct-care 16083
position without receiving or expecting to receive any form of 16084
remuneration other than reimbursement for actual expenses.16085

       (14) "Waiver agency" has the same meaning as in section 16086
5111.0335164.342 of the Revised Code.16087

       (B) This section does not apply to any individual who is 16088
subject to a database review or criminal records check under 16089
section 3701.881 of the Revised Code or to any individual who is 16090
subject to a criminal records check under section 3721.121 of the 16091
Revised Code. If a community-based long-term care agencyprovider 16092
or subcontractor also is a waiver agency, the agencyprovider or 16093
subcontractor may provide for applicants and employees to undergo 16094
database reviews and criminal records checks in accordance with 16095
section 5111.0335164.342 of the Revised Code rather than this 16096
section.16097

       (C) No community-based long-term care agencyresponsible 16098
party shall employ an applicant or continue to employ an employee 16099
in a direct-care position that involves providing direct care to 16100
an individual if any of the following apply:16101

       (1) A review of the databases listed in division (E) of this 16102
section reveals any of the following:16103

       (a) That the applicant or employee is included in one or more 16104
of the databases listed in divisions (E)(1) to (5) of this 16105
section;16106

       (b) That there is in the state nurse aide registry 16107
established under section 3721.32 of the Revised Code a statement 16108
detailing findings by the director of health that the applicant or 16109
employee neglected or abused a long-term care facility or 16110
residential care facility resident or misappropriated property of 16111
such a resident;16112

       (c) That the applicant or employee is included in one or more 16113
of the databases, if any, specified in rules adopted under this 16114
section and the rules prohibit the agencyresponsible party from 16115
employing an applicant or continuing to employ an employee 16116
included in such a database in a direct-care position that 16117
involves providing direct care to an individual.16118

       (2) After the applicant or employee is provided, pursuant to 16119
division (F)(2)(a) of this section, a copy of the form prescribed 16120
pursuant to division (C)(1) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code 16121
and the standard impression sheet prescribed pursuant to division 16122
(C)(2) of that section, the applicant or employee fails to 16123
complete the form or provide the applicant's or employee's 16124
fingerprint impressions on the standard impression sheet.16125

       (3) Except as providedUnless the applicant or employee meets 16126
standards specified in rules adopted under this section, the 16127
applicant or employee is found by a criminal records check 16128
required by this section to have been convicted of, pleaded guilty 16129
to, or been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction 16130
for a disqualifying offense.16131

       (D) Except as provided by division (G) of this section, the 16132
chief administrator of a community-based long-term care agency16133
responsible party shall inform each applicant of both of the 16134
following at the time of the applicant's initial application for 16135
employment or referral to the agencyresponsible party by an 16136
employment service for a direct-care position that involves 16137
providing direct care to an individual:16138

       (1) That a review of the databases listed in division (E) of 16139
this section will be conducted to determine whether the agency16140
responsible party is prohibited by division (C)(1) of this section 16141
from employing the applicant in the direct-care position;16142

       (2) That, unless the database review reveals that the 16143
applicant may not be employed in the direct-care position, a 16144
criminal records check of the applicant will be conducted and the 16145
applicant is required to provide a set of the applicant's 16146
fingerprint impressions as part of the criminal records check.16147

       (E) As a condition of employing any applicant in a 16148
direct-care position that involves providing direct care to an 16149
individual, the chief administrator of a community-based long-term 16150
care agencyresponsible party shall conduct a database review of 16151
the applicant in accordance with rules adopted under this section. 16152
If rules adopted under this section so require, the chief 16153
administrator of a community-based long-term care agency16154
responsible party shall conduct a database review of an employee 16155
in accordance with the rules as a condition of continuing to 16156
employ the employee in a direct-care position that involves 16157
providing direct care to an individual. However, a chief 16158
administrator is not required to conduct a database review of an 16159
applicant or employee if division (G) of this section applies. A 16160
database review shall determine whether the applicant or employee 16161
is included in any of the following:16162

       (1) The excluded parties list system that is maintained by 16163
the United States general services administration pursuant to 16164
subpart 9.4 of the federal acquisition regulation and available at 16165
the federal web site known as the system for award management;16166

       (2) The list of excluded individuals and entities maintained 16167
by the office of inspector general in the United States department 16168
of health and human services pursuant to section 1128 of the 16169
"Social Security Act," 94 Stat. 2619 (1980)sections 1128 and 16170
1156, 42 U.S.C. 1320a-7, as amended, and section 1156 of the 16171
"Social Security Act," 96 Stat. 388 (1982), 42 U.S.C. 1320c-5, as 16172
amended;16173

       (3) The registry of MR/DD employees established under section 16174
5123.52 of the Revised Code;16175

       (4) The internet-based sex offender and child-victim offender 16176
database established under division (A)(11) of section 2950.13 of 16177
the Revised Code;16178

       (5) The internet-based database of inmates established under 16179
section 5120.66 of the Revised Code;16180

       (6) The state nurse aide registry established under section 16181
3721.32 of the Revised Code;16182

       (7) Any other database, if any, specified in rules adopted 16183
under this section.16184

       (F)(1) As a condition of employing any applicant in a 16185
direct-care position that involves providing direct care to an 16186
individual, the chief administrator of a community-based long-term 16187
care agencyresponsible party shall request that the 16188
superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and 16189
investigation conduct a criminal records check of the applicant. 16190
If rules adopted under this section so require, the chief 16191
administrator of a community-based long-term care agency16192
responsible party shall request that the superintendent conduct a 16193
criminal records check of an employee at times specified in the 16194
rules as a condition of continuing to employ the employee in a 16195
direct-care position that involves providing direct care to an 16196
individual. However, the chief administrator is not required to 16197
request the criminal records check of the applicant or employee if 16198
division (G) of this section applies or the agencyresponsible 16199
party is prohibited by division (C)(1) of this section from 16200
employing the applicant or continuing to employ the employee in a 16201
direct-care position that involves providing direct care to an 16202
individual. If an applicant or employee for whom a criminal 16203
records check request is required by this section does not present 16204
proof of having been a resident of this state for the five-year 16205
period immediately prior to the date the criminal records check is 16206
requested or provide evidence that within that five-year period 16207
the superintendent has requested information about the applicant 16208
or employee from the federal bureau of investigation in a criminal 16209
records check, the chief administrator shall request that the 16210
superintendent obtain information from the federal bureau of 16211
investigation as part of the criminal records check. Even if an 16212
applicant or employee for whom a criminal records check request is 16213
required by this section presents proof of having been a resident 16214
of this state for the five-year period, the chief administrator 16215
may request that the superintendent include information from the 16216
federal bureau of investigation in the criminal records check.16217

       (2) The chief administrator shall do all of the following:16218

       (a) Provide to each applicant and employee for whom a 16219
criminal records check request is required by this section a copy 16220
of the form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of section 16221
109.572 of the Revised Code and a standard impression sheet 16222
prescribed pursuant to division (C)(2) of that section;16223

       (b) Obtain the completed form and standard impression sheet 16224
from the applicant or employee;16225

       (c) Forward the completed form and standard impression sheet 16226
to the superintendent. 16227

       (3) A community-based long-term care agencyresponsible party16228
shall pay to the bureau of criminal identification and 16229
investigation the fee prescribed pursuant to division (C)(3) of 16230
section 109.572 of the Revised Code for each criminal records 16231
check the agencyresponsible party requests under this section. An 16232
agencyA responsible party may charge an applicant a fee not 16233
exceeding the amount the agencyresponsible party pays to the 16234
bureau under this section if both of the following apply:16235

       (a) The agencyresponsible party notifies the applicant at 16236
the time of initial application for employment of the amount of 16237
the fee and that, unless the fee is paid, the applicant will not 16238
be considered for employment.16239

       (b) The medicaid program established under Chapter 5111. of 16240
the Revised Code does not reimbursepay the agencyresponsible 16241
party for the fee it pays to the bureau under this section.16242

       (G) Divisions (D) to (F) of this section do not apply with 16243
regard to an applicant or employee if the applicant or employee is 16244
referred to a community-based long-term agencyresponsible party16245
by an employment service that supplies full-time, part-time, or 16246
temporary staff for direct-care positions that involve providing 16247
direct care to an individual and both of the following apply:16248

       (1) The chief administrator of the agencyresponsible party16249
receives from the employment service confirmation that a review of 16250
the databases listed in division (E) of this section was conducted 16251
of the applicant or employee.16252

       (2) The chief administrator of the agencyresponsible party16253
receives from the employment service, applicant, or employee a 16254
report of the results of a criminal records check of the applicant 16255
or employee that has been conducted by the superintendent within 16256
the one-year period immediately preceding the following:16257

       (a) In the case of an applicant, the date of the applicant's 16258
referral by the employment service to the agencyresponsible 16259
party;16260

       (b) In the case of an employee, the date by which the agency16261
responsible party would otherwise have to request a criminal 16262
records check of the employee under division (F) of this section.16263

       (H)(1) A community-based long-term care agencyresponsible 16264
party may employ conditionally an applicant for whom a criminal 16265
records check request is required by this section prior to 16266
obtaining the results of the criminal records check if the agency16267
responsible party is not prohibited by division (C)(1) of this 16268
section from employing the applicant in a direct-care position 16269
that involves providing direct care to an individual and either of 16270
the following applies:16271

       (a) The chief administrator of the agencyresponsible party16272
requests the criminal records check in accordance with division 16273
(F) of this section not later than five business days after the 16274
applicant begins conditional employment.16275

       (b) The applicant is referred to the agencyresponsible party16276
by an employment service, the employment service or the applicant 16277
provides the chief administrator of the agencyresponsible party a 16278
letter that is on the letterhead of the employment service, the 16279
letter is dated and signed by a supervisor or another designated 16280
official of the employment service, and the letter states all of 16281
the following:16282

       (i) That the employment service has requested the 16283
superintendent to conduct a criminal records check regarding the 16284
applicant;16285

       (ii) That the requested criminal records check is to include 16286
a determination of whether the applicant has been convicted of, 16287
pleaded guilty to, or been found eligible for intervention in lieu 16288
of conviction for a disqualifying offense;16289

       (iii) That the employment service has not received the 16290
results of the criminal records check as of the date set forth on 16291
the letter;16292

       (iv) That the employment service promptly will send a copy of 16293
the results of the criminal records check to the chief 16294
administrator of the agencyresponsible party when the employment 16295
service receives the results. 16296

       (2) If a community-based long-term care agencyresponsible 16297
party employs an applicant conditionally pursuant to division 16298
(H)(1)(b) of this section, the employment service, on its receipt 16299
of the results of the criminal records check, promptly shall send 16300
a copy of the results to the chief administrator of the agency16301
responsible party.16302

       (3) A community-based long-term care agencyresponsible party16303
that employs an applicant conditionally pursuant to division 16304
(H)(1)(a) or (b) of this section shall terminate the applicant's 16305
employment if the results of the criminal records check, other 16306
than the results of any request for information from the federal 16307
bureau of investigation, are not obtained within the period ending 16308
sixty days after the date the request for the criminal records 16309
check is made. Regardless of when the results of the criminal 16310
records check are obtained, if the results indicate that the 16311
applicant has been convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or been found 16312
eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for a 16313
disqualifying offense, the agencyresponsible party shall 16314
terminate the applicant's employment unless circumstancesthe 16315
applicant meets standards specified in rules adopted under this 16316
section that permit the agencyresponsible party to employ the 16317
applicant exist and the agencyresponsible party chooses to employ 16318
the applicant. Termination of employment under this division shall 16319
be considered just cause for discharge for purposes of division 16320
(D)(2) of section 4141.29 of the Revised Code if the applicant 16321
makes any attempt to deceive the agencyresponsible party about 16322
the applicant's criminal record.16323

       (I) The report of any criminal records check conducted 16324
pursuant to a request made under this section is not a public 16325
record for the purposes of section 149.43 of the Revised Code and 16326
shall not be made available to any person other than the 16327
following:16328

       (1) The applicant or employee who is the subject of the 16329
criminal records check or the applicant's or employee's 16330
representative;16331

       (2) The chief administrator of the community-based long-term 16332
care agencyresponsible party requesting the criminal records 16333
check or the administrator's representative;16334

       (3) The administrator of any other facility, agency, or 16335
program that provides direct care to individualscommunity-based 16336
long-term care services that is owned or operated by the same 16337
entity that owns or operates the community-based long-term care 16338
agencyresponsible party that requested the criminal records 16339
check;16340

       (4) The employment service that requested the criminal 16341
records check;16342

       (5) The director of aging or a person authorized by the 16343
director to monitor a community-based long-term care agency's16344
responsible party's compliance with this section;16345

       (6) The medicaid director of job and family services and the 16346
staff of the department of job and family servicesmedicaid who 16347
are involved in the administration of the medicaid program if 16348
either of the following apply:16349

       (a) In the case of a criminal records check requested by a 16350
community-based long-term care agencyprovider or subcontractor, 16351
the agencyprovider or subcontractor also is a waiver agency;16352

       (b) In the case of a criminal records check requested by an 16353
employment service, the employment service makes the request for 16354
an applicant or employee the employment service refers to a 16355
community-based long-term care agencyprovider or subcontractor16356
that also is a waiver agency.16357

       (7) A court, hearing officer, or other necessary individual 16358
involved in a case dealing with any of the following:16359

       (a) A denial of employment of the applicant or employee;16360

       (b) Employment or unemployment benefits of the applicant or 16361
employee;16362

        (c) A civil or criminal action regarding the medicaid program 16363
or a program the department of aging administers.16364

       (J) In a tort or other civil action for damages that is 16365
brought as the result of an injury, death, or loss to person or 16366
property caused by an applicant or employee who a community-based 16367
long-term care agencyresponsible party employs in a direct-care16368
position that involves providing direct care to individuals, all 16369
of the following shall apply:16370

       (1) If the agencyresponsible party employed the applicant or 16371
employee in good faith and reasonable reliance on the report of a 16372
criminal records check requested under this section, the agency16373
responsible party shall not be found negligent solely because of 16374
its reliance on the report, even if the information in the report 16375
is determined later to have been incomplete or inaccurate.16376

       (2) If the agencyresponsible party employed the applicant in 16377
good faith on a conditional basis pursuant to division (H) of this 16378
section, the agencyresponsible party shall not be found 16379
negligent solely because it employed the applicant prior to 16380
receiving the report of a criminal records check requested under 16381
this section.16382

       (3) If the agencyresponsible party in good faith employed 16383
the applicant or employee according tobecause the personal 16384
characterapplicant or employee meets standards established16385
specified in rules adopted under this section, the agency16386
responsible party shall not be found negligent solely because the 16387
applicant or employee has been convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or 16388
been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for a 16389
disqualifying offense.16390

       (K) The director of aging shall adopt rules in accordance 16391
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement this section.16392

       (1) The rules may do the following:16393

       (a) Require employees to undergo database reviews and 16394
criminal records checks under this section;16395

       (b) If the rules require employees to undergo database 16396
reviews and criminal records checks under this section, exempt one 16397
or more classes of employees from the requirements;16398

       (c) For the purpose of division (E)(7) of this section, 16399
specify other databases that are to be checked as part of a 16400
database review conducted under this section.16401

       (2) The rules shall specify all of the following:16402

       (a) The meaning of the term "subcontractor";16403

       (b) The procedures for conducting database reviews under this 16404
section;16405

       (b)(c) If the rules require employees to undergo database 16406
reviews and criminal records checks under this section, the times 16407
at which the database reviews and criminal records checks are to 16408
be conducted;16409

       (c)(d) If the rules specify other databases to be checked as 16410
part of the database reviews, the circumstances under which a 16411
community-based long-term care agencyresponsible party is 16412
prohibited from employing an applicant or continuing to employ an 16413
employee who is found by a database review to be included in one 16414
or more of those databases;16415

       (d) Circumstances under which a community-based long-term 16416
care agency may employ(e) Standards that an applicant or employee 16417
whomust meet for a responsible party to be permitted to employ 16418
the applicant or continue to employ the employee in a direct-care 16419
position if the applicant or employee is found by a criminal 16420
records check required by this section to have been convicted of, 16421
pleaded guilty to, or been found eligible for intervention in lieu 16422
of conviction for a disqualifying offense but meets personal 16423
character standards.16424

       Sec. 173.39. (A) As used in sections 173.39 to 173.39416425
173.393 of the Revised Code:16426

       (1) "Community-based long-term care agencyProvider" means a 16427
person or governmentgovernmental entity that provides 16428
community-based long-term care services under a program the 16429
department of aging administers, regardless of whether the person 16430
or government entity is certified under section 173.391 or 16431
authorized to receive payment for the services from the department 16432
under section 173.392 of the Revised Code. "Community-based 16433
long-term care agencyProvider" includes a person or government16434
governmental entity that provides home and community-based 16435
services to older adults through the PASSPORT program created 16436
underas defined in section 173.40173.51 of the Revised Code.16437

       (2) "Community-based long-term care services" has the same 16438
meaning as in section 173.14 of the Revised Code.16439

        (B) Except as provided in section 173.392 of the Revised 16440
Code, the department of aging may not pay a person or government 16441
entityprovider for providing community-based long-term care 16442
services under a program the department administers unless the 16443
person or government entityprovider is certified under section 16444
173.391 of the Revised Code and provides the services.16445

       Sec. 173.391. (A) The department of aging or its designee 16446
shall do all of the following in accordance with Chapter 119. of 16447
the Revised Code:16448

        (1) Certify a person or government entityprovider to provide 16449
community-based long-term care services under a program the 16450
department administers if the person or government entityprovider16451
satisfies the requirements for certification established by rules 16452
adopted under division (B) of this section and pays the fee, if 16453
any, established by rules adopted under division (G) of this 16454
section;16455

        (2) When required to do so by rules adopted under division 16456
(B) of this section, take one or more of the following 16457
disciplinary actions against a person or government entity16458
provider certified under division (A)(1) of this section:16459

        (a) Issue a written warning;16460

        (b) Require the submission of a plan of correction or 16461
evidence of compliance with requirements identified by the 16462
department;16463

        (c) Suspend referrals;16464

        (d) Remove clients;16465

        (e) Impose a fiscal sanction such as a civil monetary penalty 16466
or an order that unearned funds be repaid;16467

        (f) Suspend the certification;16468

       (g) Revoke the certification;16469

        (h) Impose another sanction.16470

        (3) Except as provided in division (E) of this section, hold 16471
hearings when there is a dispute between the department or its 16472
designee and a person or government entityprovider concerning 16473
actions the department or its designee takes regarding a decision 16474
not to certify the person or government entityprovider under 16475
division (A)(1) of this section or a disciplinary action under 16476
divisions (A)(2)(e) to (h) of this section.16477

        (B) The director of aging shall adopt rules in accordance 16478
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code establishing certification 16479
requirements and standards for determining which type of 16480
disciplinary action to take under division (A)(2) of this section 16481
in individual situations. The rules shall establish procedures for 16482
all of the following:16483

        (1) Ensuring that community-based long-term care agencies16484
providers comply with section 173.394173.38 of the Revised Code;16485

        (2) Evaluating the services provided by the agencies16486
providers to ensure that the services are provided in a quality 16487
manner advantageous to the individual receiving the services;16488

        (3) Determining when to take disciplinary action under 16489
division (A)(2) of this section and which disciplinary action to 16490
take;16491

       (4) Determining what constitutes another sanction for 16492
purposes of division (A)(2)(h) of this section.16493

        (C) The procedures established in rules adopted under 16494
division (B)(2) of this section shall require that all of the 16495
following be considered as part of an evaluation described in 16496
division (B)(2) of this section:16497

        (1) The community-based long-term care agency'sprovider's16498
experience and financial responsibility;16499

        (2) The agency'sprovider's ability to comply with standards 16500
for the community-based long-term care services that the agency16501
provider provides under a program the department administers;16502

        (3) The agency'sprovider's ability to meet the needs of the 16503
individuals served;16504

        (4) Any other factor the director considers relevant.16505

        (D) The rules adopted under division (B)(3) of this section 16506
shall specify that the reasons disciplinary action may be taken 16507
under division (A)(2) of this section include good cause, 16508
including misfeasance, malfeasance, nonfeasance, confirmed abuse 16509
or neglect, financial irresponsibility, or other conduct the 16510
director determines is injurious, or poses a threat, to the health 16511
or safety of individuals being served.16512

       (E) Subject to division (F) of this section, the department 16513
is not required to hold hearings under division (A)(3) of this 16514
section if any of the following conditions apply:16515

       (1) Rules adopted by the director of aging pursuant to this 16516
chapter require the community-based long-term care agencyprovider16517
to be a party to a provider agreement; hold a license, 16518
certificate, or permit; or maintain a certification, any of which 16519
is required or issued by a state or federal government entity 16520
other than the department of aging, and either of the following is 16521
the case:16522

       (a) The provider agreement has not been entered into or the 16523
license, certificate, permit, or certification has not been 16524
obtained or maintained.16525

       (b) The provider agreement, license, certificate, permit, or 16526
certification has been denied, revoked, not renewed, or suspended 16527
or has been otherwise restricted.16528

        (2) The agency'sprovider's certification under this section 16529
has been denied, suspended, or revoked for any of the following 16530
reasons:16531

       (a) A governmentgovernmental entity of this state, other 16532
than the department of aging, has terminated or refused to renew 16533
any of the following held by, or has denied any of the following 16534
sought by, a community-based long-term care agencyprovider: a 16535
provider agreement, license, certificate, permit, or 16536
certification. Division (E)(2)(a) of this section applies 16537
regardless of whether the agencyprovider has entered into a 16538
provider agreement in, or holds a license, certificate, permit, or 16539
certification issued by, another state.16540

       (b) The agencyprovider or a principal owner or manager of 16541
the agencyprovider who provides direct care has entered a guilty 16542
plea for, or has been convicted of, an offense materially related 16543
to the medicaid program.16544

        (c) The agencyprovider or a principal owner or manager of 16545
the agencyprovider who provides direct care has entered a guilty 16546
plea for, been convicted of, or been found eligible for 16547
intervention in lieu of conviction for an offense listed or 16548
described in divisions (A)(3)(a) to (e) of section 109.572 of the 16549
Revised Code, but only if none of the personal characterthe 16550
provider, principal owner, or manager does not meet standards 16551
establishedspecified by the director in rules adopted under 16552
section 173.394173.38 of the Revised Code apply.16553

       (d) The United States department of health and human services 16554
has taken adverse action against the agencyprovider and that 16555
action impacts the agency'sprovider's participation in the 16556
medicaid program.16557

        (e) The agencyprovider has failed to enter into or renew a 16558
provider agreement with the PASSPORT administrative agency, as 16559
that term is defined in section 173.42 of the Revised Code, that 16560
administers programs on behalf of the department of aging in the 16561
region of the state in which the agencyprovider is certified to 16562
provide services.16563

        (f) The agencyprovider has not billed or otherwise submitted 16564
a claim to the department for payment under the medicaid program 16565
in at least two years.16566

        (g) The agencyprovider denied or failed to provide the 16567
department or its designee access to the agency'sprovider's16568
facilities during the agency'sprovider's normal business hours 16569
for purposes of conducting an audit or structural compliance 16570
review.16571

        (h) The agencyprovider has ceased doing business.16572

        (i) The agencyprovider has voluntarily relinquished its 16573
certification for any reason.16574

        (3) The agency'sprovider's provider agreement with the 16575
department of job and family servicesmedicaid has been suspended 16576
under division (C) of section 5111.0315164.37 of the Revised 16577
Code.16578

        (4) The agency'sprovider's provider agreement with the 16579
department of job and family servicesmedicaid is denied or 16580
revoked because the agencyprovider or its owner, officer, 16581
authorized agent, associate, manager, or employee has been 16582
convicted of an offense that caused the provider agreement to be 16583
suspended under section 5111.0315164.37 of the Revised Code.16584

        (F) If the department does not hold hearings when any 16585
condition described in division (E) of this section applies, the 16586
department may send a notice to the agencyprovider describing a 16587
decision not to certify the agencyprovider under division (A)(1) 16588
of this section or the disciplinary action the department proposes 16589
to take under division (A)(2)(e) to (h) of this section. The 16590
notice shall be sent to the agency'sprovider's address that is on 16591
record with the department and may be sent by regular mail.16592

       (G) The director of aging may adopt rules in accordance with 16593
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code establishing a fee to be charged 16594
by the department of aging or its designee for certification 16595
issued under this section.16596

        All fees collected by the department or its designee under 16597
this section shall be deposited in the state treasury to the 16598
credit of the provider certification fund, which is hereby 16599
created. Money credited to the fund shall be used to pay for 16600
community-based long-term care services, administrative costs 16601
associated with community-based long-term care agencyprovider16602
certification under this section, and administrative costs related 16603
to the publication of the Ohio long-term care consumer guide.16604

       Sec. 173.392. (A) The department of aging may pay a person or 16605
government entityprovider for providing community-based long-term 16606
care services under a program the department administers, even 16607
though the person or government entityprovider is not certified 16608
under section 173.391 of the Revised Code, if all of the following 16609
are the case:16610

        (1) The person or government entityprovider has a contract 16611
with the department of aging or the department's designee to 16612
provide the services in accordance with the contract or has 16613
received a grant from the department or its designee to provide 16614
the services in accordance with a grant agreement;16615

        (2) The contract or grant agreement includes detailed 16616
conditions of participation for providers of services under a 16617
program the department administersthe provider and service 16618
standards that the person or government entityprovider is 16619
required to satisfy;16620

        (3) The person or government entityprovider complies with 16621
the contract or grant agreement;16622

       (4) The contract or grant is not for medicaid-funded 16623
services, other than services provided under the PACE program 16624
administered by the department of aging under section 173.50 of 16625
the Revised Code.16626

       (B) The director of aging shall adopt rules in accordance 16627
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code governing both of the 16628
following:16629

        (1) Contracts and grant agreements between the department of 16630
aging or its designee and persons and government entities 16631
regarding community-based long-term care services provided under a 16632
program the department administersproviders;16633

        (2) The department's payment for community-based long-term 16634
care services under this section.16635

       Sec. 173.42.  (A) As used in sections 173.42 to 173.434 of 16636
the Revised Code:16637

       (1) "Area agency on aging" means a public or private 16638
nonprofit entity designated under section 173.011 of the Revised 16639
Code to administer programs on behalf of the department of aging.16640

       (2) "Department of aging-administered medicaid waiver 16641
component" means each of the following:16642

       (a) The medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program 16643
created under section 173.40173.52 of the Revised Code;16644

       (b) The choices program created under section 173.403173.5316645
of the Revised Code;16646

       (c) The medicaid-funded component of the assisted living 16647
program created under section 5111.89173.54 of the Revised Code;16648

       (d) Any other medicaid waiver component, as defined in 16649
section 5111.855166.01 of the Revised Code, that the department 16650
of aging administers pursuant to an interagency agreement with the 16651
department of job and family servicesmedicaid under section 16652
5111.915162.35 of the Revised Code.16653

       (3) "Home and community-based services covered by medicaid 16654
components the department of aging administers" means all of the 16655
following:16656

       (a) Medicaid waiver services available to a participant in a 16657
department of aging-administered medicaid waiver component;16658

       (b) The following medicaid state plan services available to a 16659
participant in a department of aging-administered medicaid waiver 16660
component as specified in rules adopted under section 5111.0216661
5164.02 of the Revised Code:16662

       (i) Home health services;16663

       (ii) Private duty nursing services;16664

       (iii) Durable medical equipment;16665

       (iv) Services of a clinical nurse specialist;16666

       (v) Services of a certified nurse practitioner.16667

       (c) Services available to a participant of the PACE program.16668

       (4) "Long-term care consultation" or "consultation" means the 16669
consultation service made available by the department of aging or 16670
a program administrator through the long-term care consultation 16671
program established pursuant to this section.16672

       (5) "Medicaid" means the medical assistance program 16673
established under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code.16674

       (6) "Nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 16675
5111.205165.01 of the Revised Code.16676

       (7)(6) "PACE program" means the component of the medicaid 16677
program the department of aging administers pursuant to section 16678
173.50 of the Revised Code.16679

       (8)(7) "PASSPORT administrative agency" means an entity under 16680
contract with the department of aging to provide administrative 16681
services regarding the PASSPORT program. 16682

       (9)(8) "Program administrator" means an area agency on aging 16683
or other entity under contract with the department of aging to 16684
administer the long-term care consultation program in a geographic 16685
region specified in the contract.16686

       (10)(9) "Representative" means a person acting on behalf of 16687
an individual specified in division (G) of this section. A 16688
representative may be a family member, attorney, hospital social 16689
worker, or any other person chosen to act on behalf of the 16690
individual.16691

       (B) The department of aging shall develop a long-term care 16692
consultation program whereby individuals or their representatives 16693
are provided with long-term care consultations and receive through 16694
these professional consultations information about options 16695
available to meet long-term care needs and information about 16696
factors to consider in making long-term care decisions. The 16697
long-term care consultations provided under the program may be 16698
provided at any appropriate time, as permitted or required under 16699
this section and the rules adopted under it, including either 16700
prior to or after the individual who is the subject of a 16701
consultation has been admitted to a nursing facility or granted 16702
assistance in receiving home and community-based services covered 16703
by medicaid components the department of aging administers.16704

        (C) The long-term care consultation program shall be 16705
administered by the department of aging, except that the 16706
department may have the program administered on a regional basis 16707
by one or more program administrators. The department and each 16708
program administrator shall administer the program in such a 16709
manner that all of the following are included:16710

       (1) Coordination and collaboration with respect to all 16711
available funding sources for long-term care services;16712

       (2) Assessments of individuals regarding their long-term care 16713
service needs;16714

       (3) Assessments of individuals regarding their on-going 16715
eligibility for long-term care services;16716

       (4) Procedures for assisting individuals in obtaining access 16717
to, and coordination of, health and supportive services, including 16718
department of aging-administered medicaid waiver components;16719

       (5) Priorities for using available resources efficiently and 16720
effectively.16721

        (D) The program's long-term care consultations shall be 16722
provided by individuals certified by the department under section 16723
173.422 of the Revised Code.16724

        (E) The information provided through a long-term care 16725
consultation shall be appropriate to the individual's needs and 16726
situation and shall address all of the following:16727

       (1) The availability of any long-term care options open to 16728
the individual;16729

       (2) Sources and methods of both public and private payment 16730
for long-term care services;16731

       (3) Factors to consider when choosing among the available 16732
programs, services, and benefits;16733

       (4) Opportunities and methods for maximizing independence and 16734
self-reliance, including support services provided by the 16735
individual's family, friends, and community.16736

       (F) An individual's long-term care consultation may include 16737
an assessment of the individual's functional capabilities. The 16738
consultation may incorporate portions of the determinations 16739
required under sections 5111.202, 5119.0615119.40, and 5123.021, 16740
and 5165.03 of the Revised Code and may be provided concurrently 16741
with the assessment required under section 5111.204173.546 or 16742
5165.04 of the Revised Code.16743

       (G)(1) Unless an exemption specified in division (I) of this 16744
section is applicable, each of the following shall be provided 16745
with a long-term care consultation:16746

       (a) An individual who applies or indicates an intention to 16747
apply for admission to a nursing facility, regardless of the 16748
source of payment to be used for the individual's care in a 16749
nursing facility;16750

       (b) An individual who requests a long-term care consultation;16751

       (c) An individual identified by the department or a program 16752
administrator as being likely to benefit from a long-term care 16753
consultation.16754

       (2) In addition to the individuals specified in division 16755
(G)(1) of this section, a long-term care consultation may be 16756
provided to a nursing facility resident regardless of the source 16757
of payment being used for the resident's care in the nursing 16758
facility. 16759

       (H)(1) Except as provided in division (H)(2) or (3) of this 16760
section, a long-term care consultation provided pursuant to 16761
division (G) of this section shall be provided as follows:16762

       (a) If the individual for whom the consultation is being 16763
provided has applied for medicaid and the consultation is being 16764
provided concurrently with the assessment required under section 16765
5111.2045165.04 of the Revised Code, the consultation shall be 16766
completed in accordance with the applicable time frames specified 16767
in that section for providing a level of care determination based 16768
on the assessment.16769

       (b) In all other cases, the consultation shall be provided 16770
not later than five calendar days after the department or program 16771
administrator receives notice of the reason for which the 16772
consultation is to be provided pursuant to division (G) of this 16773
section.16774

       (2) An individual or the individual's representative may 16775
request that a long-term care consultation be provided on a date 16776
that is later than the date required under division (H)(1)(a) or 16777
(b) of this section.16778

       (3) If a long-term care consultation cannot be completed 16779
within the number of days required by division (H)(1) or (2) of 16780
this section, the department or program administrator may do any 16781
of the following:16782

       (a) In the case of an individual specified in division (G)(1) 16783
of this section, exempt the individual from the consultation 16784
pursuant to rules that may be adopted under division (L) of this 16785
section;16786

       (b) In the case of an applicant for admission to a nursing 16787
facility, provide the consultation after the individual is 16788
admitted to the nursing facility;16789

       (c) In the case of a resident of a nursing facility, provide 16790
the consultation as soon as practicable.16791

       (I) An individual is not required to be provided a long-term 16792
care consultation under division (G)(1) of this section if any of 16793
the following apply:16794

       (1) The department or program administrator has attempted to 16795
provide the consultation, but the individual or the individual's 16796
representative refuses to cooperate;16797

       (2) The individual is to receive care in a nursing facility 16798
under a contract for continuing care as defined in section 173.13 16799
of the Revised Code;16800

       (3) The individual has a contractual right to admission to a 16801
nursing facility operated as part of a system of continuing care 16802
in conjunction with one or more facilities that provide a less 16803
intensive level of services, including a residential care facility 16804
licensed under Chapter 3721. of the Revised Code, a residential 16805
facility licensed under section 5119.225119.34 of the Revised 16806
Code that provides accommodations, supervision, and personal care 16807
services for three to sixteen unrelated adults, or an independent 16808
living arrangement;16809

       (4) The individual is to receive continual care in a home for 16810
the aged exempt from taxation under section 5701.13 of the Revised 16811
Code;16812

       (5) The individual is seeking admission to a facility that is 16813
not a nursing facility with a provider agreement under section 16814
5111.225165.07, 5111.6715165.511, or 5111.6725165.512 of the 16815
Revised Code;16816

       (6) The individual is exempted from the long-term care 16817
consultation requirement by the department or the program 16818
administrator pursuant to rules that may be adopted under division 16819
(L) of this section.16820

        (J) As part of the long-term care consultation program, the 16821
department or program administrator shall assist an individual or 16822
individual's representative in accessing all sources of care and 16823
services that are appropriate for the individual and for which the 16824
individual is eligible, including all available home and 16825
community-based services covered by medicaid components the 16826
department of aging administers. The assistance shall include 16827
providing for the conduct of assessments or other evaluations and 16828
the development of individualized plans of care or services under 16829
section 173.424 of the Revised Code.16830

       (K) No nursing facility for which an operator has a provider 16831
agreement under section 5111.225165.07, 5111.6715165.511, or 16832
5111.6725165.512 of the Revised Code shall admit any individual 16833
as a resident, unless the nursing facility has received evidence 16834
that a long-term care consultation has been completed for the 16835
individual or division (I) of this section is applicable to the 16836
individual.16837

       (L) The director of aging may adopt any rules the director 16838
considers necessary for the implementation and administration of 16839
this section. The rules shall be adopted in accordance with 16840
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code and may specify any or all of the 16841
following:16842

       (1) Procedures for providing long-term care consultations 16843
pursuant to this section;16844

       (2) Information to be provided through long-term care 16845
consultations regarding long-term care services that are 16846
available;16847

       (3) Criteria and procedures to be used to identify and 16848
recommend appropriate service options for an individual receiving 16849
a long-term care consultation;16850

       (4) Criteria for exempting individuals from the long-term 16851
care consultation requirement;16852

       (5) Circumstances under which it may be appropriate to 16853
provide an individual's long-term care consultation after the 16854
individual's admission to a nursing facility rather than before 16855
admission;16856

        (6) Criteria for identifying nursing facility residents who 16857
would benefit from the provision of a long-term care consultation;16858

       (7) A description of the types of information from a nursing 16859
facility that is needed under the long-term care consultation 16860
program to assist a resident with relocation from the facility;16861

       (8) Standards to prevent conflicts of interest relative to 16862
the referrals made by a person who performs a long-term care 16863
consultation, including standards that prohibit the person from 16864
being employed by a provider of long-term care services;16865

       (9) Procedures for providing notice and an opportunity for a 16866
hearing under division (N) of this section.16867

       (M) To assist the department and each program administrator 16868
with identifying individuals who are likely to benefit from a 16869
long-term care consultation, the department and program 16870
administrator may ask to be given access to nursing facility 16871
resident assessment data collected through the use of the resident 16872
assessment instrument specified in rules adopted underauthorized 16873
by section 5111.025165.191 of the Revised Code for purposes of 16874
the medicaid program. Except when prohibited by state or federal 16875
law, the department of health, department of job and family 16876
servicesmedicaid, or nursing facility holding the data shall 16877
grant access to the data on receipt of the request from the 16878
department of aging or program administrator.16879

       (N)(1) The director of aging, after providing notice and an 16880
opportunity for a hearing, may fine a nursing facility an amount 16881
determined by rules the director shall adopt in accordance with 16882
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code for any of the following reasons:16883

       (a) The nursing facility admits an individual, without 16884
evidence that a long-term care consultation has been provided, as 16885
required by this section;16886

       (b) The nursing facility denies a person attempting to 16887
provide a long-term care consultation access to the facility or a 16888
resident of the facility;16889

       (c) The nursing facility denies the department of aging or 16890
program administrator access to the facility or a resident of the 16891
facility, as the department or administrator considers necessary 16892
to administer the program.16893

       (2) In accordance with section 5111.625162.66 of the Revised 16894
Code, all fines collected under division (N)(1) of this section 16895
shall be deposited into the state treasury to the credit of the 16896
residents protection fund.16897

       Sec. 173.43. (A) Subject to section 173.433 of the Revised 16898
Code, theThe department of aging shall enter into an interagency 16899
agreement with the department of job and family servicesmedicaid16900
under section 5111.915162.35 of the Revised Code under which the 16901
department of aging is required to establish for each biennium a 16902
unified long-term care budget for home and community-based 16903
services covered by medicaid components the department of aging 16904
administers. The interagency agreement shall require the 16905
department of aging to do all of the following:16906

       (1) Administer the unified long-term care budget in 16907
accordance with sections 173.43 to 173.434 of the Revised Code and 16908
the general assembly's appropriations for home and community-based 16909
services covered by medicaid components the department of aging 16910
administers for the applicable biennium;16911

       (2) Contract with each PASSPORT administrative agency for 16912
assistance in the administration of the unified long-term care 16913
budget;16914

       (3) Provide individuals who are eligible for home and 16915
community-based services covered by medicaid components the 16916
department of aging administers a choice of services that meet the 16917
individuals' needs and improve their quality of life;16918

       (4) Provide a continuum of services that meet the life-long 16919
needs of individuals who are eligible for home and community-based 16920
services covered by medicaid components the department of aging 16921
administers.16922

       (B) The director of budget and management shall create new 16923
appropriation items as necessary for establishment of the unified 16924
long-term care budget.16925

       Sec. 173.431. Subject to section 173.433 of the Revised 16926
Code, theThe department of aging shall ensure that the unified 16927
long-term care budget established under section 173.43 of the 16928
Revised Code is administered in a manner that provides medicaid 16929
coverage of and expands access to all of the following as 16930
necessary to meet the needs of individuals receiving home and 16931
community-based services covered by medicaid components the 16932
department of aging administers:16933

       (A) To the extent permitted by the medicaid waivers 16934
authorizing department of aging-administered medicaid waiver 16935
components, all of the following medicaid waiver services provided 16936
under department of aging-administered medicaid waiver components:16937

       (1) Personal care services;16938

       (2) Home-delivered meals;16939

       (3) Adult day-care;16940

       (4) Homemaker services;16941

       (5) Emergency response services;16942

       (6) Medical equipment and supplies;16943

       (7) Chore services;16944

       (8) Social work counseling;16945

       (9) Nutritional counseling;16946

       (10) Independent living assistance;16947

       (11) Medical transportation;16948

       (12) Nonmedical transportation;16949

       (13) Home care attendant services;16950

       (14) Assisted living services;16951

       (15) Community transition services;16952

       (16) Enhanced community living services;16953

       (17) All other medicaid waiver services provided under 16954
department of aging-administered medicaid waiver components.16955

       (B) All of the following state medicaid plan services as 16956
specified in rules adopted under section 5111.025164.02 of the 16957
Revised Code:16958

       (1) Home health services;16959

       (2) Private duty nursing services;16960

       (3) Durable medical equipment;16961

       (4) Services of a clinical nurse specialist;16962

       (5) Services of a certified nurse practitioner.16963

       (C) The services that the PACE program provides.16964

       Sec. 173.432. Subject to section 173.433 of the Revised Code, 16965
theThe department of aging or its designee shall provide care 16966
management and authorization services with regard to the state 16967
plan services specified in division (B) of section 173.431 of the 16968
Revised Code that are provided to participants of department of 16969
aging-administered medicaid waiver components. The department or 16970
its designee shall ensure that no person providing the care 16971
management and authorization services performs an activity that 16972
may not be performed without a valid certificate or license issued 16973
by an agency of this state unless the person holds the valid 16974
certificate or license.16975

       Sec. 173.434. The director of job and family services shall 16976
adoptTo the extent authorized by rules underauthorized by16977
section 5111.855162.021 of the Revised Code to authorize, the 16978
director of aging toshall adopt rules that are needed to 16979
implement sections 173.43 to 173.432 of the Revised Code. The 16980
director of aging's rules shall be adopted in accordance with 16981
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.16982

       Sec. 173.45. As used in this section and in sections 173.46 16983
to 173.49 of the Revised Code:16984

        (A) "Residential facility" means a residential facility 16985
licensed under section 5119.225119.34 of the Revised Code that 16986
provides accommodations, supervision, and personal care services 16987
for three to sixteen unrelated adults.16988

       (B) "Community-based long-term care services" has the same 16989
meaning as in section 173.14 of the Revised Code.16990

       (C) "Long-term care facility" means a nursing home or 16991
residential care facility.16992

        (D) "Nursing home" and "residential care facility" have the 16993
same meanings as in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code.16994

        (E) "Nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 16995
5111.205165.01 of the Revised Code.16996

       Sec. 173.47. (A) For purposes of publishing the Ohio 16997
long-term care consumer guide, the department of aging shall 16998
conduct or provide for the conduct of an annual customer 16999
satisfaction survey of each long-term care facility. The results 17000
of the surveys may include information obtained from long-term 17001
care facility residents, their families, or both. A survey that is 17002
to include information obtained from nursing facility residents 17003
shall include the questions specified in divisions (C)(7)(a) and 17004
(b) and (18) and (D)(7)(a) and (b) of section 5111.2445165.25 of 17005
the Revised Code. A survey that is to include information obtained 17006
from the families of nursing facility residents shall include the 17007
questions specified in divisions (C)(8)(a) and (b) and (19) and 17008
(D)(8)(a) and (b) of section 5111.2445165.25 of the Revised Code.17009

        (B) Each long-term care facility shall cooperate in the 17010
conduct of its annual customer satisfaction survey.17011

       Sec. 173.48. (A)(1) The department of aging may charge annual 17012
fees to long-term care facilities for the publication of the Ohio 17013
long-term care consumer guide. The department may contract with 17014
any person or government entity to collect the fees on its behalf. 17015
All fees collected under this section shall be deposited in 17016
accordance with division (B) of this section.17017

        (2) The annual fees charged under this section shall not 17018
exceed the following amounts:17019

       (a) Six hundred fifty dollars for each long-term care 17020
facility that is a nursing home;17021

        (b) Three hundred dollars for each long-term care facility 17022
that is a residential care facility.17023

       (3) Fees paid by a long-term care facility that is a nursing 17024
facility shall be reimbursed through the medicaid program operated 17025
under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code.17026

       (B) There is hereby created in the state treasury the 17027
long-term care consumer guide fund. Money collected from the fees 17028
charged for the publication of the Ohio long-term care consumer 17029
guide under division (A) of this section shall be credited to the 17030
fund. The department shall use money in the fund for costs 17031
associated with publishing the Ohio long-term care consumer guide, 17032
including, but not limited to, costs incurred in conducting or 17033
providing for the conduct of customer satisfaction surveys.17034

       Sec. 173.50. (A) Pursuant to a contract entered into with the 17035
department of job and family servicesmedicaid as an interagency 17036
agreement under section 5111.915162.35 of the Revised Code, the 17037
department of aging shall carry out the day-to-day administration 17038
of the component of the medicaid program established under Chapter 17039
5111. of the Revised Code known as the program of all-inclusive 17040
care for the elderly or PACE. The department of aging shall carry 17041
out its PACE administrative duties in accordance with the 17042
provisions of the interagency agreement and all applicable federal 17043
laws, including the "Social Security Act," 79 Stat. 286 (1965)17044
section 1934, 42 U.S.C. 1396u-4, as amended.17045

       (B) The departmentTo the extent authorized by rules 17046
authorized by section 5162.021 of the Revised Code, the director17047
of aging may adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 17048
Revised Code regarding the PACE program, including rules 17049
establishing priorities for enrolling in the program pursuant to 17050
section 173.501 of the Revised Code. The department's rules are 17051
subject to both of the following:17052

       (1) The rules shall be authorized by rules adopted by the 17053
department of job and family services.17054

       (2) The rules shall address only those issues that are not 17055
addressed in rules adopted by the department of job and family 17056
servicesmedicaid director for the PACE program.17057

       Sec. 173.501.  (A) As used in this section:17058

        "Nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 5111.2017059
5165.01 of the Revised Code.17060

       "PACE provider" has the same meaning as in the "Social 17061
Security Act," section 1934(a)(3), 42 U.S.C. 1396u-4(a)(3).17062

       (B) The department of aging shall establish a home first 17063
component of the PACE program under which eligible individuals may 17064
be enrolled in the PACE program in accordance with this section. 17065
An individual is eligible for the PACE program's home first 17066
component if both of the following apply:17067

       (1) The individual has been determined to be eligible for the 17068
PACE program.17069

       (2) At least one of the following applies:17070

       (a) The individual has been admitted to a nursing facility.17071

       (b) A physician has determined and documented in writing that 17072
the individual has a medical condition that, unless the individual 17073
is enrolled in home and community-based services such as the PACE 17074
program, will require the individual to be admitted to a nursing 17075
facility within thirty days of the physician's determination.17076

       (c) The individual has been hospitalized and a physician has 17077
determined and documented in writing that, unless the individual 17078
is enrolled in home and community-based services such as the PACE 17079
program, the individual is to be transported directly from the 17080
hospital to a nursing facility and admitted.17081

       (d) Both of the following apply:17082

       (i) The individual is the subject of a report made under 17083
section 5101.61 of the Revised Code regarding abuse, neglect, or 17084
exploitation or such a report referred to a county department of 17085
job and family services under section 5126.31 of the Revised Code 17086
or has made a request to a county department for protective 17087
services as defined in section 5101.60 of the Revised Code.17088

       (ii) A county department of job and family services and an 17089
area agency on aging have jointly documented in writing that, 17090
unless the individual is enrolled in home and community-based 17091
services such as the PACE program, the individual should be 17092
admitted to a nursing facility.17093

       (C) Each month, the department of aging shall identify 17094
individuals who are eligible for the home first component of the 17095
PACE program. When the department identifies such an individual, 17096
the department shall notify the PACE provider serving the area in 17097
which the individual resides. The PACE provider shall determine 17098
whether the PACE program is appropriate for the individual and 17099
whether the individual would rather participate in the PACE 17100
program than continue or begin to reside in a nursing facility. If 17101
the PACE provider determines that the PACE program is appropriate 17102
for the individual and the individual would rather participate in 17103
the PACE program than continue or begin to reside in a nursing 17104
facility, the PACE provider shall so notify the department of 17105
aging. On receipt of the notice from the PACE provider, the 17106
department of aging shall approve the individual's enrollment in 17107
the PACE program in accordance with priorities established in 17108
rules adopted under section 173.50 of the Revised Code. 17109

       Sec. 173.51.  As used in sections 173.51 to 173.56 of the 17110
Revised Code:17111

       "Area agency on aging" has the same meaning as in section 17112
173.14 of the Revised Code.17113

       "Assisted living program" means the program that consists of 17114
a medicaid-funded component created under section 173.54 of the 17115
Revised Code and a state-funded component created under section 17116
173.543 of the Revised Code and provides assisted living services 17117
to individuals who meet the program's applicable eligibility 17118
requirements.17119

       "Assisted living services" means the following home and 17120
community-based services: personal care, homemaker, chore, 17121
attendant care, companion, medication oversight, and therapeutic 17122
social and recreational programming.17123

       "Assisted living waiver" means the federal medicaid waiver 17124
granted by the United States secretary of health and human 17125
services that authorizes the medicaid-funded component of the 17126
assisted living program.17127

       "Choices program" means the program created under section 17128
173.53 of the Revised Code.17129

       "County or district home" means a county or district home 17130
operated under Chapter 5155. of the Revised Code.17131

       "Long-term care consultation program" means the program the 17132
department of aging is required to develop under section 173.42 of 17133
the Revised Code.17134

       "Long-term care consultation program administrator" or 17135
"administrator" means the department of aging or, if the 17136
department contracts with an area agency on aging or other entity 17137
to administer the long-term care consultation program for a 17138
particular area, that agency or entity.17139

       "Medicaid waiver component" has the same meaning as in 17140
section 5166.01 of the Revised Code.17141

       "Nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 5165.01 17142
of the Revised Code.17143

       "PASSPORT program" means the preadmission screening system 17144
providing options and resources today program (PASSPORT) that 17145
consists of a medicaid-funded component created under section 17146
173.52 of the Revised Code and a state-funded component created 17147
under section 173.522 of the Revised Code and provides home and 17148
community-based services as an alternative to nursing facility 17149
placement for individuals who are aged and disabled and meet the 17150
program's applicable eligibility requirements.17151

       "PASSPORT waiver" means the federal medicaid waiver granted 17152
by the United States secretary of health and human services that 17153
authorizes the medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program.17154

       "Representative" means a person acting on behalf of an 17155
applicant for the medicaid-funded component or state-funded 17156
component of the assisted living program. A representative may be 17157
a family member, attorney, hospital social worker, or any other 17158
person chosen to act on behalf of an applicant.17159

       "Residential care facility" has the same meaning as in 17160
section 3721.01 of the Revised Code.17161

       "Unified long-term services and support medicaid waiver 17162
component" means the medicaid waiver component authorized by 17163
section 5166.14 of the Revised Code.17164

       Sec. 173.40.        Sec. 173.52.  (A) As used in sections 173.40 to 17165
173.402 of the Revised Code:17166

       "Medicaid waiver component" has the same meaning as in 17167
section 5111.85 of the Revised Code.17168

       "PASSPORT program" means the program created under this 17169
section.17170

       "PASSPORT waiver" means the federal medicaid waiver granted 17171
by the United States secretary of health and human services that 17172
authorizes the medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program.17173

       "Unified long-term services and support medicaid waiver 17174
component" means the medicaid waiver component authorized by 17175
section 5111.864 of the Revised Code.17176

       (B) There is hereby createdThe department of medicaid shall 17177
create the medicaid-funded component of the preadmission screening 17178
system providing options and resources today program, or PASSPORT 17179
program. The PASSPORT program shall provide home and 17180
community-based services as an alternative to nursing facility 17181
placement for individuals who are aged and disabled and meet the 17182
program's applicable eligibility requirements. Subject to division 17183
(C) of this section, the program shall have a medicaid-funded 17184
component and a state-funded component.In creating the 17185
medicaid-funded component, the department of medicaid shall 17186
collaborate with the department of aging.17187

       (C)(1)(B) Unless the medicaid-funded component of the 17188
PASSPORT program is terminated under division (C)(2) of this 17189
section, all of the following apply:17190

       (a)(1) The department of aging shall administer the 17191
medicaid-funded component through a contract entered into with the 17192
department of job and family servicesmedicaid under section 17193
5111.915162.35 of the Revised Code.17194

       (b)(2) The medicaid-funded component shall be operated as a 17195
separate medicaid waiver component. 17196

       (c)(3) For an individual to be eligible for the 17197
medicaid-funded component, the individual must be a medicaid 17198
recipient and meet the additional eligibility requirements 17199
applicable to the individual established in rules adopted under 17200
division (C)(1)(d)(B)(4) of this section.17201

       (d) The director of job and family services shall adopt(4) 17202
To the extent authorized by rules underauthorization by section 17203
5111.855162.021 of the Revised Code and, the director of aging 17204
shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised 17205
Code to implement the medicaid-funded component.17206

       (2)(C) If the unified long-term services and support medicaid 17207
waiver component is created, the departments of aging and job and 17208
family servicesmedicaid shall work together to determine whether 17209
the medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program should 17210
continue to operate as a separate medicaid waiver component or be 17211
terminated. If the departments determine that the medicaid-funded 17212
component of the PASSPORT program should be terminated, the 17213
medicaid-funded component shall cease to exist on a date the 17214
departments shall specify.17215

       (D)(1) The department of aging shall administer the 17216
state-funded component of the PASSPORT program. The state-funded 17217
component shall not be administered as part of the medicaid 17218
program.17219

       (2) For an individual to be eligible for the state-funded 17220
component, the individual must meet one of the following 17221
requirements and meet the additional eligibility requirements 17222
applicable to the individual established in rules adopted under 17223
division (D)(4) of this section:17224

       (a) The individual must have been enrolled in the 17225
state-funded component on September 1, 1991, (as the state-funded 17226
component was authorized by uncodified law in effect at that time) 17227
and have had one or more applications for enrollment in the 17228
medicaid-funded component (or, if the medicaid-funded component is 17229
terminated under division (C)(2) of this section, the unified 17230
long-term services and support medicaid waiver component) denied.17231

       (b) The individual must have had the individual's enrollment 17232
in the medicaid-funded component (or, if the medicaid-funded 17233
component is terminated under division (C)(2) of this section, the 17234
unified long-term services and support medicaid waiver component) 17235
terminated and the individual must still need the home and 17236
community-based services provided under the PASSPORT program to 17237
protect the individual's health and safety.17238

       (c) The individual must have an application for the 17239
medicaid-funded component (or, if the medicaid-funded component is 17240
terminated under division (C)(2) of this section, the unified 17241
long-term services and support medicaid waiver component) pending 17242
and the department or the department's designee must have 17243
determined that the individual meets the nonfinancial eligibility 17244
requirements of the medicaid-funded component (or, if the 17245
medicaid-funded component is terminated under division (C)(2) of 17246
this section, the unified long-term services and support medicaid 17247
waiver component) and not have reason to doubt that the individual 17248
meets the financial eligibility requirements of the 17249
medicaid-funded component (or, if the medicaid-funded component is 17250
terminated under division (C)(2) of this section, the unified 17251
long-term services and support medicaid waiver component).17252

       (3) An individual who is eligible for the state-funded 17253
component because the individual meets the requirement of division 17254
(D)(2)(c) of this section may participate in the component on that 17255
basis for not more than ninety days.17256

       (4) The director of aging shall adopt rules in accordance 17257
with section 111.15 of the Revised Code to implement the 17258
state-funded component. The additional eligibility requirements 17259
established in the rules may vary for the different groups of 17260
individuals specified in divisions (D)(2)(a), (b), and (c) of this 17261
section.17262

       Sec. 173.401.        Sec. 173.521.  (A) As used in this section:17263

        "Area agency on aging" has the same meaning as in section 17264
173.14 of the Revised Code.17265

        "Long-term care consultation program" means the program the 17266
department of aging is required to develop under section 173.42 of 17267
the Revised Code.17268

        "Long-term care consultation program administrator" or 17269
"administrator" means the department of aging or, if the 17270
department contracts with an area agency on aging or other entity 17271
to administer the long-term care consultation program for a 17272
particular area, that agency or entity.17273

        "Nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 5111.20 17274
of the Revised Code.17275

       (B) SubjectUnless the medicaid-funded component of the 17276
PASSPORT program is terminated pursuant to division (C)(2) of 17277
section 173.40173.52 of the Revised Code, the department shall 17278
establish a home first component of the PASSPORT program under 17279
which eligible individuals may be enrolled in the medicaid-funded 17280
component of the PASSPORT program in accordance with this section. 17281
An individual is eligible for the PASSPORT program's home first 17282
component if both of the following apply:17283

       (1) The individual has been determined to be eligible for the 17284
medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program.17285

       (2) At least one of the following applies:17286

       (a) The individual has been admitted to a nursing facility.17287

       (b) A physician has determined and documented in writing that 17288
the individual has a medical condition that, unless the individual 17289
is enrolled in home and community-based services such as the 17290
PASSPORT program, will require the individual to be admitted to a 17291
nursing facility within thirty days of the physician's 17292
determination.17293

       (c) The individual has been hospitalized and a physician has 17294
determined and documented in writing that, unless the individual 17295
is enrolled in home and community-based services such as the 17296
PASSPORT program, the individual is to be transported directly 17297
from the hospital to a nursing facility and admitted.17298

       (d) Both of the following apply:17299

       (i) The individual is the subject of a report made under 17300
section 5101.61 of the Revised Code regarding abuse, neglect, or 17301
exploitation or such a report referred to a county department of 17302
job and family services under section 5126.31 of the Revised Code 17303
or has made a request to a county department for protective 17304
services as defined in section 5101.60 of the Revised Code.17305

       (ii) A county department of job and family services and an 17306
area agency on aging have jointly documented in writing that, 17307
unless the individual is enrolled in home and community-based 17308
services such as the PASSPORT program, the individual should be 17309
admitted to a nursing facility.17310

       (C)(B) Each month, each area agency on aging shall identify 17311
individuals residing in the area that the agency serves who are 17312
eligible for the home first component of the PASSPORT program. 17313
When an area agency on aging identifies such an individual, the 17314
agency shall notify the long-term care consultation program 17315
administrator serving the area in which the individual resides. 17316
The administrator shall determine whether the PASSPORT program is 17317
appropriate for the individual and whether the individual would 17318
rather participate in the PASSPORT program than continue or begin 17319
to reside in a nursing facility. If the administrator determines 17320
that the PASSPORT program is appropriate for the individual and 17321
the individual would rather participate in the PASSPORT program 17322
than continue or begin to reside in a nursing facility, the 17323
administrator shall so notify the department of aging. On receipt 17324
of the notice from the administrator, the department shall approve 17325
the individual's enrollment in the medicaid-funded component of 17326
the PASSPORT program regardless of the unified waiting list 17327
established under section 173.404173.55 of the Revised Code, 17328
unless the enrollment would cause the component to exceed any 17329
limit on the number of individuals who may be enrolled in the 17330
component as set by the United States secretary of health and 17331
human services in the PASSPORT waiver.17332

       Sec. 173.522.  (A) The department of aging shall create and 17333
administer the state-funded component of the PASSPORT program. The 17334
state-funded component shall not be administered as part of the 17335
medicaid program.17336

       (B) For an individual to be eligible for the state-funded 17337
component of the PASSPORT program, the individual must meet one of 17338
the following requirements and meet the additional eligibility 17339
requirements applicable to the individual established in rules 17340
adopted under division (D) of this section:17341

       (1) The individual must have been enrolled in the 17342
state-funded component on September 1, 1991, (as the state-funded 17343
component was authorized by uncodified law in effect at that time) 17344
and have had one or more applications for enrollment in the 17345
medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program (or, if the 17346
medicaid-funded component is terminated under division (C) of 17347
section 173.52 of the Revised Code, the unified long-term services 17348
and support medicaid waiver component) denied.17349

       (2) The individual must have had the individual's enrollment 17350
in the medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program (or, if 17351
the medicaid-funded component is terminated under division (C) of 17352
section 173.52 of the Revised Code, the unified long-term services 17353
and support medicaid waiver component) terminated and the 17354
individual must still need the home and community-based services 17355
provided under the PASSPORT program to protect the individual's 17356
health and safety.17357

       (3) The individual must have an application for the 17358
medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program (or, if the 17359
medicaid-funded component is terminated under division (C) of 17360
section 173.52 of the Revised Code, the unified long-term services 17361
and support medicaid waiver component) pending and the department 17362
or the department's designee must have determined that the 17363
individual meets the nonfinancial eligibility requirements of the 17364
medicaid-funded component (or, if the medicaid-funded component is 17365
terminated under division (C) of section 173.52 of the Revised 17366
Code, the unified long-term services and support medicaid waiver 17367
component) and not have reason to doubt that the individual meets 17368
the financial eligibility requirements of the medicaid-funded 17369
component (or, if the medicaid-funded component is terminated 17370
under division (C) of section 173.52 of the Revised Code, the 17371
unified long-term services and support medicaid waiver component).17372

       (C) An individual who is eligible for the state-funded 17373
component of the PASSPORT program because the individual meets the 17374
requirement of division (B)(3) of this section may participate in 17375
the component on that basis for not more than ninety days.17376

       (D) The director of aging shall adopt rules in accordance 17377
with section 111.15 of the Revised Code to implement the 17378
state-funded component of the PASSPORT program. The additional 17379
eligibility requirements established in the rules may vary for the 17380
different groups of individuals specified in divisions (B)(1), 17381
(2), and (3) of this section.17382

       Sec. 173.523. (A) An individual who is an applicant for or 17383
participant or former participant in the state-funded component of 17384
the PASSPORT program may appeal an adverse action taken or 17385
proposed to be taken by the department of aging or an entity 17386
designated by the department concerning participation in or 17387
services provided under the component if the action will result in 17388
any of the following:17389

       (1) Denial of enrollment or continued enrollment in the 17390
component;17391

       (2) Denial of or reduction in the amount of services 17392
requested by or offered to the individual under the component;17393

       (3) Assessment of any patient liability payment pursuant to 17394
rules adopted by the department under this section.17395

       The appeal shall be made in accordance with section 173.56 of 17396
the Revised Code and rules adopted pursuant to that section.17397

       (B) An individual who is an applicant for or participant or 17398
former participant in the state-funded component of the PASSPORT 17399
program may not bring an appeal under this or any other section of 17400
the Revised Code if any of the following is the case:17401

       (1) The individual has voluntarily withdrawn the application 17402
for enrollment in the component;17403

       (2) The individual has voluntarily terminated enrollment in 17404
the component;17405

       (3) The individual agrees with the action being taken or 17406
proposed;17407

       (4) The individual fails to submit a written request for a 17408
hearing to the director of aging within the time specified in the 17409
rules adopted pursuant to section 173.56 of the Revised Code;17410

       (5) The individual has received services under the component 17411
for the maximum time permitted by this section. 17412

       Sec. 173.402.        Sec. 173.524. An individual enrolled in the PASSPORT 17413
program may request that home-delivered meals provided to the 17414
individual under the PASSPORT program be kosher. If such a request 17415
is made, the department of aging or the department's designee 17416
shall ensure that each home-delivered meal provided to the 17417
individual under the PASSPORT program is kosher. In complying with 17418
this requirement, the department or department's designee shall 17419
require each entity that provides home-delivered meals to the 17420
individual to provide the individual with meals that meet, as much 17421
as possible, the requirements established in rules adopted under 17422
section 173.40sections 173.52 and 173.522 of the Revised Code 17423
governing the home-delivered meal service while complying with 17424
kosher practices for meal preparation and dietary restrictions.17425

       An entity that provides a kosher home-delivered meal to a 17426
PASSPORT program enrollee pursuant to this section shall be 17427
reimbursed for the meal at a rate equal to the rate for 17428
home-delivered meals furnished to PASSPORT program enrollees 17429
requiring a therapeutic diet.17430

       Sec. 173.403.        Sec. 173.53.  (A) As used in this section:17431

       "Choices program" means the program created under this 17432
section.17433

       "Medicaid waiver component" has the same meaning as in 17434
section 5111.85 of the Revised Code.17435

       "Unified long-term services and support medicaid waiver 17436
component" means the medicaid waiver component authorized by 17437
section 5111.864 of the Revised Code.17438

       (B) Subject to division (C) of this section, there is hereby 17439
createdThe department of medicaid shall create the choices 17440
program. In creating the choices program, the department of 17441
medicaid shall collaborate with the department of aging. Subject 17442
to division (B) of this section:17443

       (1) The choices program shall provide home and 17444
community-based services. The;17445

       (2) The department of aging shall administer the choices17446
program through a contract entered into with the department of 17447
job and family servicesmedicaid under section 5111.915162.35 of 17448
the Revised Code. Subject to federal approval, the;17449

       (3) The choices program shall be available statewide.17450

       (C)(B) If the unified long-term services and support medicaid 17451
waiver component is created, the departments of aging and job and 17452
family servicesmedicaid shall work togethercollaborate to 17453
determine whether the choices program should continue to operate 17454
as a separate medicaid waiver component or be terminated. If the 17455
departments determine that the choices program should be 17456
terminated, the program shall cease to exist on a date the 17457
departments shall specify.17458

       (C) If the choices program is terminated pursuant to division 17459
(B) of this section or for another reason, not sooner than six 17460
months before the date on which the program ceases to exist, the 17461
director of aging may do both of the following:17462

       (1) Suspend new enrollments in the choices program;17463

       (2) Transfer participants of the choices program to the 17464
following:17465

       (a) Except as provided in division (C)(2)(b) of this section, 17466
the medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program created 17467
under section 173.52 of the Revised Code;17468

       (b) If the medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program 17469
is terminated pursuant to division (C) of section 173.52 of the 17470
Revised Code, the unified long-term services and support medicaid 17471
waiver component.17472

       Sec. 5111.89.        Sec. 173.54.  (A) As used in sections 5111.89 to 17473
5111.894 of the Revised Code:17474

       "Area agency on aging" has the same meaning as in section 17475
173.14 of the Revised Code.17476

       "Assisted living program" means the program created under 17477
this section.17478

       "Assisted living services" means the following home and 17479
community-based services: personal care, homemaker, chore, 17480
attendant care, companion, medication oversight, and therapeutic 17481
social and recreational programming.17482

       "Assisted living waiver" means the federal medicaid waiver 17483
granted by the United States secretary of health and human 17484
services that authorizes the medicaid-funded component of the 17485
assisted living program.17486

       "County or district home" means a county or district home 17487
operated under Chapter 5155. of the Revised Code.17488

       "Long-term care consultation program" means the program the 17489
department of aging is required to develop under section 173.42 of 17490
the Revised Code.17491

       "Long-term care consultation program administrator" or 17492
"administrator" means the department of aging or, if the 17493
department contracts with an area agency on aging or other entity 17494
to administer the long-term care consultation program for a 17495
particular area, that agency or entity.17496

       "Medicaid waiver component" has the same meaning as in 17497
section 5111.85 of the Revised Code.17498

       "Nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 5111.20 17499
of the Revised Code.17500

       "Residential care facility" has the same meaning as in 17501
section 3721.01 of the Revised Code.17502

       "Unified long-term services and support medicaid waiver 17503
component" means the medicaid waiver component authorized by 17504
section 5111.864 of the Revised Code.17505

       (B) There is hereby createdThe department of medicaid shall 17506
create the medicaid-funded component of the assisted living 17507
program. The program shall provide assisted living services to 17508
individuals who meet the program's applicable eligibility 17509
requirements. Subject to division (C) of this section, the program 17510
shall have a medicaid-funded component and a state-funded 17511
componentIn creating the medicaid-funded component, the 17512
department of medicaid shall collaborate with the department of 17513
aging.17514

       (C)(1)(B) Unless the medicaid-funded component of the 17515
assisted living program is terminated under division (C)(2) of 17516
this section, all of the following apply:17517

       (a)(1) The department of aging shall administer the 17518
medicaid-funded component through a contract entered into with the 17519
department of job and family servicesmedicaid under section 17520
5111.915162.35 of the Revised Code.17521

       (b)(2) The contract shall include an estimate of the 17522
medicaid-funded component's costs. 17523

       (c)(3) The medicaid-funded component shall be operated as a 17524
separate medicaid waiver component. 17525

       (d)(4) The medicaid-funded component may not serve more 17526
individuals than is set by the United States secretary of health 17527
and human services in the assisted living waiver.17528

       (e) The director of job and family services may adopt rules 17529
under section 5111.85 of the Revised Code regarding the 17530
medicaid-funded component.17531

       (f) The(5) To the extent authorized by rules authorized by 17532
section 5162.021 of the Revised Code, the director of aging may 17533
adopt rules under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code regarding the 17534
medicaid-funded component that the rules adopted by the director 17535
of job and family services under division (C)(1)(e) of this 17536
section authorize the director of aging to adopt.17537

       (2)(C) If the unified long-term services and support medicaid 17538
waiver component is created, the departments of aging and job and 17539
family servicesmedicaid shall work togethercollaborate to 17540
determine whether the medicaid-funded component of the assisted 17541
living program should continue to operate as a separate medicaid 17542
waiver component or be terminated. If the departments determine 17543
that the medicaid-funded component of the assisted living program 17544
should be terminated, the medicaid-funded component shall cease to 17545
exist on a date the departments shall specify.17546

       (D) The department of aging shall administer the state-funded 17547
component of the assisted living program. The state-funded 17548
component shall not be administered as part of the medicaid 17549
program.17550

       An individual who is eligible for the state-funded component 17551
may participate in the component for not more than ninety days.17552

       The director of aging shall adopt rules in accordance with 17553
section 111.15 of the Revised Code to implement the state-funded 17554
component.17555

       Sec. 5111.891.        Sec. 173.541.  To be eligible for the 17556
medicaid-funded component of the assisted living program, an 17557
individual must meet all of the following requirements:17558

       (A) Need an intermediate level of care as determined under 17559
rule 5101:3-3-06by an assessment conducted under section 173.54617560
of the AdministrativeRevised Code;17561

       (B) While receiving assisted living services under the 17562
medicaid-funded component, reside in a residential care facility 17563
that is authorized by a valid medicaid provider agreement to 17564
participate in the component, including both of the following: 17565

       (1) A residential care facility that is owned or operated by 17566
a metropolitan housing authority that has a contract with the 17567
United States department of housing and urban development to 17568
receive an operating subsidy or rental assistance for the 17569
residents of the facility;17570

       (2) A county or district home licensed as a residential care 17571
facility. 17572

       (C) Meet all other eligibility requirements for the 17573
medicaid-funded component established in rules adopted pursuant to 17574
division (C) ofunder section 5111.89173.54 of the Revised Code.17575

       Sec. 5111.894.        Sec. 173.542.  (A) SubjectUnless the 17576
medicaid-funded component of the assisted living program is 17577
terminated pursuant to division (C)(2) of section 5111.89173.5417578
of the Revised Code, the department of aging shall establish a 17579
home first component of the assisted living program under which 17580
eligible individuals may be enrolled in the medicaid-funded 17581
component of the assisted living program in accordance with this 17582
section. An individual is eligible for the assisted living 17583
program's home first component if both of the following apply:17584

       (1) The individual has been determined to be eligible for the 17585
medicaid-funded component of the assisted living program.17586

       (2) At least one of the following applies:17587

       (a) The individual has been admitted to a nursing facility.17588

       (b) A physician has determined and documented in writing that 17589
the individual has a medical condition that, unless the individual 17590
is enrolled in home and community-based services such as the 17591
assisted living program, will require the individual to be 17592
admitted to a nursing facility within thirty days of the 17593
physician's determination.17594

       (c) The individual has been hospitalized and a physician has 17595
determined and documented in writing that, unless the individual 17596
is enrolled in home and community-based services such as the 17597
assisted living program, the individual is to be transported 17598
directly from the hospital to a nursing facility and admitted.17599

       (d) Both of the following apply:17600

       (i) The individual is the subject of a report made under 17601
section 5101.61 of the Revised Code regarding abuse, neglect, or 17602
exploitation or such a report referred to a county department of 17603
job and family services under section 5126.31 of the Revised Code 17604
or has made a request to a county department for protective 17605
services as defined in section 5101.60 of the Revised Code.17606

       (ii) A county department of job and family services and an 17607
area agency on aging have jointly documented in writing that, 17608
unless the individual is enrolled in home and community-based 17609
services such as the assisted living program, the individual 17610
should be admitted to a nursing facility.17611

       (B) Each month, each area agency on aging shall identify 17612
individuals residing in the area that the area agency on aging 17613
serves who are eligible for the home first component of the 17614
assisted living program. When an area agency on aging identifies 17615
such an individual and determines that there is a vacancy in a 17616
residential care facility participating in the medicaid-funded 17617
component of the assisted living program that is acceptable to the 17618
individual, the agency shall notify the long-term care 17619
consultation program administrator serving the area in which the 17620
individual resides. The administrator shall determine whether the 17621
assisted living program is appropriate for the individual and 17622
whether the individual would rather participate in the assisted 17623
living program than continue or begin to reside in a nursing 17624
facility. If the administrator determines that the assisted living 17625
program is appropriate for the individual and the individual would 17626
rather participate in the assisted living program than continue or 17627
begin to reside in a nursing facility, the administrator shall so 17628
notify the department of aging. On receipt of the notice from the 17629
administrator, the department shall approve the individual's 17630
enrollment in the medicaid-funded component of the assisted living 17631
program regardless of the unified waiting list established under 17632
section 173.404173.55 of the Revised Code, unless the enrollment 17633
would cause the component to exceed any limit on the number of 17634
individuals who may participate in the component as set by the 17635
United States secretary of health and human services in the 17636
assisted living waiver. 17637

       Sec. 173.543.  The department of aging shall create and 17638
administer the state-funded component of the assisted living 17639
program. The state-funded component shall not be administered as 17640
part of the medicaid program.17641

       An individual who is eligible for the state-funded component 17642
may participate in the component for not more than ninety days.17643

       The director of aging shall adopt rules in accordance with 17644
section 111.15 of the Revised Code to implement the state-funded 17645
component.17646

       Sec. 5111.892.        Sec. 173.544. To be eligible for the state-funded 17647
component of the assisted living program, an individual must meet 17648
all of the following requirements:17649

       (A) The individual must need an intermediate level of care as 17650
determined under rule 5101:3-3-06by an assessment conducted under 17651
section 173.546 of the AdministrativeRevised Code;.17652

       (B) The individual must have an application for the 17653
medicaid-funded component of the assisted living program (or, if 17654
the medicaid-funded component is terminated under division (C)(2)17655
of section 5111.89173.54 of the Revised Code, the unified 17656
long-term services and support medicaid waiver component) pending 17657
and the department or the department's designee must have 17658
determined that the individual meets the nonfinancial eligibility 17659
requirements of the medicaid-funded component (or, if the 17660
medicaid-funded component is terminated under division (C)(2) of 17661
section 5111.89173.54 of the Revised Code, the unified long-term 17662
services and support medicaid waiver component) and not have 17663
reason to doubt that the individual meets the financial 17664
eligibility requirements of the medicaid-funded component (or, if 17665
the medicaid-funded component is terminated under division (C)(2)17666
of section 5111.89173.54 of the Revised Code, the unified 17667
long-term services and support medicaid waiver component).17668

       (C) While receiving assisted living services under the17669
state-funded component, the individual must reside in a 17670
residential care facility that is authorized by a valid provider 17671
agreement to participate in the component, including both of the 17672
following:17673

       (1) A residential care facility that is owned or operated by 17674
a metropolitan housing authority that has a contract with the 17675
United States department of housing and urban development to 17676
receive an operating subsidy or rental assistance for the 17677
residents of the facility;17678

       (2) A county or district home licensed as a residential care 17679
facility.17680

       (D) The individual must meet all other eligibility 17681
requirements for the state-funded component established in rules 17682
adopted under division (D) of section 5111.89173.54 of the 17683
Revised Code.17684

       Sec. 173.545. (A) An individual who is an applicant for or 17685
participant or former participant in the state-funded component of 17686
the assisted living program may appeal an adverse action taken or 17687
proposed to be taken by the department of aging or an entity 17688
designated by the department concerning participation in or 17689
services provided under the component if the action will result in 17690
any of the following:17691

       (1) Denial of enrollment or continued enrollment in the 17692
component; 17693

       (2) Denial of or reduction in the amount of services 17694
requested by or offered to the individual under the component;17695

       (3) Assessment of any patient liability payment pursuant to 17696
rules adopted by the department under this section.17697

       The appeal shall be made in accordance with section 173.56 of 17698
the Revised Code and rules adopted pursuant to that section.17699

       (B) An individual who is an applicant for or participant or 17700
former participant in the state-funded component of the assisted 17701
living program may not bring an appeal under this or any other 17702
section of the Revised Code if any of the following is the case:17703

       (1) The individual has voluntarily withdrawn the application 17704
for enrollment in the component;17705

       (2) The individual has voluntarily terminated enrollment in 17706
the component;17707

       (3) The individual agrees with the action being taken or 17708
proposed; 17709

       (4) The individual fails to submit a written request for a 17710
hearing to the director of aging within the time specified in the 17711
rules adopted pursuant to section 173.56 of the Revised Code;17712

       (5) The individual has received services under the component 17713
for the maximum time permitted by this section.17714

       Sec. 173.546.  (A) Each applicant for the assisted living 17715
program shall undergo an assessment to determine whether the 17716
applicant needs an intermediate level of care. The department of 17717
medicaid or an agency under contract pursuant to division (C) of 17718
this section shall conduct the assessment. The assessment may be 17719
performed concurrently with a long-term care consultation provided 17720
under section 173.42 of the Revised Code.17721

       (B) An applicant or applicant's representative has the right 17722
to appeal an assessment's findings. Section 5160.31 of the Revised 17723
Code applies to appeals regarding the medicaid-funded component of 17724
the assisted living program. The department or an agency under 17725
contract to conduct the assessment shall provide written notice of 17726
this right to the applicant or applicant's representative and the 17727
residential care facility in which the applicant intends to reside 17728
if enrolled in the assisted living program. The notice shall 17729
include an explanation of the appeal procedures. The department or 17730
agency under contract to conduct the assessment shall represent 17731
the state in any appeal of an assessment's findings.17732

       (C) The department may contract with one or more agencies to 17733
perform assessments under this section. A contract shall specify 17734
the agency's responsibilities regarding the assessments.17735

       Sec. 5111.893.        Sec. 173.547.  A residential care facility providing 17736
services covered by the assisted living program to an individual 17737
enrolled in the program shall have staff on-site twenty-four hours 17738
each day who are able to do all of the following:17739

       (A) Meet the scheduled and unpredicted needs of the 17740
individuals enrolled in the assisted living program in a manner 17741
that promotes the individuals' dignity and independence;17742

       (B) Provide supervision services for those individuals;17743

       (C) Help keep the individuals safe and secure.17744

       Sec. 173.404.        Sec. 173.55.  (A) As used in this section:17745

       (1) "Department of aging-administered medicaid waiver 17746
component" means each of the following:17747

       (a) The medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program 17748
created under section 173.40 of the Revised Code;17749

       (b) The choices program created under section 173.403 of the 17750
Revised Code;17751

       (c) The medicaid-funded component of the assisted living 17752
program created under section 5111.89 of the Revised Code.17753

       (2) "PACE program" means the component of the medicaid 17754
program the department of aging administers pursuant to section 17755
173.50 of the Revised Code.17756

       (B) If the department of aging determines that there are 17757
insufficient funds to enroll all individuals who have applied and 17758
been determined eligible for department of aging-administered 17759
medicaid waiver components and the PACE program, the department 17760
shall establish a unified waiting list for the components and 17761
program. Only individuals eligible for a department of 17762
aging-administered medicaid waiver component or the PACE program 17763
may be placed on the unified waiting list. An individual who may 17764
be enrolled in a department of aging-administered medicaid waiver 17765
component or the PACE program through a home first component 17766
established under section 173.401, 173.501, 173.521 or 5111.89417767
173.542 of the Revised Code may be so enrolled without being 17768
placed on the unified waiting list.17769

       Sec. 173.56.  (A) The department of aging shall adopt rules 17770
in accordance with section 111.15 of the Revised Code governing 17771
appeals brought under section 173.523 or 173.545 of the Revised 17772
Code. The rules shall require notice and the opportunity for a 17773
hearing. The rules may allow an appeal hearing to be conducted by 17774
telephone and permit the department to record hearings conducted 17775
by telephone. Chapter 119. of the Revised Code applies to a 17776
hearing under section 173.523 or 173.545 of the Revised Code only 17777
to the extent provided in rules the department adopts under this 17778
section.17779

       (B) An appeal shall be commenced by submission of a written 17780
request for a hearing to the director of aging within the time 17781
specified in the rules adopted under this section. The hearing may 17782
be recorded, but neither the recording nor a transcript of the 17783
recording is part of the official record of the proceeding. The 17784
director shall notify the individual bringing the appeal of the 17785
director's decision and of the procedure for appealing the 17786
decision.17787

       (C) The director's decision may be appealed to a court of 17788
common pleas pursuant to section 119.12 of the Revised Code. The 17789
appeal shall be governed by that section except as follows:17790

       (1) The appeal shall be in the court of common pleas of the 17791
county in which the individual who brings the appeal resides or, 17792
if the individual does not reside in this state, to the Franklin 17793
county court of common pleas.17794

       (2) The notice of appeal must be mailed to the department and 17795
filed with the court not later than thirty days after the 17796
department mails notice of the director's decision. For good cause 17797
shown, the court may extend the time for mailing and filing the 17798
notice of appeal, but the time cannot exceed six months from the 17799
date the department mails the notice of the director's decision.17800

       (3) If an individual applies to the court for designation as 17801
an indigent and the court grants the application, the individual 17802
shall not be required to furnish the costs of the appeal.17803

       (4) The department is required to file a transcript of the 17804
testimony of the state hearing with the court only if the court 17805
orders that the transcript be filed. The court shall make such an 17806
order only if it finds that the department and the individual 17807
bringing the appeal are unable to stipulate to the facts of the 17808
case and that the transcript is essential to a determination of 17809
the appeal. The department shall file the transcript not later 17810
than thirty days after such an order is issued.17811

       Sec. 173.60. (A) As used in this section:17812

       (1) "Nursing home" has the same meaning as in section 3721.01 17813
of the Revised Code.17814

       (2) "Person-centered care" means a relationship-based 17815
approach to care that honors and respects the opinions of 17816
individuals receiving care and those working closely with them.17817

       (B) The department of aging shall implement a nursing home 17818
quality initiative to improve person-centered care that nursing 17819
homes provide. The office of the state long-term care ombudsman 17820
program shall assist the department with the initiative. The 17821
initiative shall include quality improvement projects that provide 17822
nursing homes with resources and on-site education promoting 17823
person-centered strategies and positive resident outcomes, as well 17824
as other assistance designed to improve the quality of nursing 17825
home services.17826

       (C) The department shall make available a list of quality 17827
improvement projects offered by the following entities that may be 17828
used by nursing homes in meeting the requirements of section 17829
3721.072 of the Revised Code:17830

       (1) The department;17831

       (2) A quality improvement organization under contract with 17832
the United States secretary of health and human services to carry 17833
out the state functions described in section 1154 of the "Social 17834
Security Act," 42 U.S.C. 1320c-3;17835

       (3) Other state agencies;17836

       (4) The Ohio person-centered care coalition;17837

       (5) Any other academic, research, or health care entity 17838
identified by the department.17839

       (D) The department shall consult with representatives of 17840
nursing homes when developing the list of quality improvement 17841
projects under division (C) of this section and include projects 17842
that the department and representatives agree should be on the 17843
list.17844

       (E) The director of aging may adopt rules in accordance with 17845
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code as necessary to implement this 17846
section.17847

       Sec. 173.99.  (A) A long-term care provider, person employed 17848
by a long-term care provider, other entity, or employee of such 17849
other entity that violates division (C) of section 173.24 of the 17850
Revised Code is subject to a fine not to exceed one thousand 17851
dollars for each violation.17852

       (B) Whoever violates division (C) of section 173.23 of the 17853
Revised Code is guilty of registering a false complaint, a 17854
misdemeanor of the first degree.17855

       (C) A long-term care provider, other entity, or person 17856
employed by a long-term care provider or other entity that 17857
violates division (E) of section 173.19 of the Revised Code by 17858
denying a representative of the office of the state long-term care 17859
ombudspersonombudsman program the access required by that 17860
division is subject to a fine not to exceed five hundred dollars 17861
for each violation.17862

       (D) Whoever violates division (C) of section 173.44 of the 17863
Revised Code is subject to a fine of one hundred dollars.17864

       Sec. 189.04.  (A) The local government innovation council 17865
shall award loans to a qualified political subdivision or a 17866
qualified group of political subdivisions to be used for the 17867
purchase of equipment, facilities, or systems or for 17868
implementation costs.17869

       Loans made under division (A) of this section shall be repaid 17870
by recipients using savings achieved from the innovation project. 17871

       (B) Up to twenty per cent of the funds in the local 17872
government innovation fund, established in section 189.05 of the 17873
Revised Code, may be awarded by the council as grants to political 17874
subdivisions for use in process improvement or implementation of 17875
innovation project awards. 17876

       (C) The council shall award not more than one hundred 17877
thousand dollars in total grants and not more than one hundred 17878
thousand dollars in total loans to an individual political 17879
subdivision per innovation project under this section. For an 17880
innovation project involving a qualified group of political 17881
subdivisions, the council shall award, in total grants and loans, 17882
not more than five hundred thousand dollars, and the average 17883
amount per political subdivision shall not exceed one hundred 17884
thousand dollars.17885

       (D)(1) On and after July 1, 2013, the council shall not award 17886
grants from the local government innovation fund to any political 17887
subdivision described in division (A) of Section 263.325 of H.B. 17888
59 of the 130th General Assembly.17889

       (2) On and after July 1, 2014, the council shall not award 17890
loans from the local government innovation fund to any political 17891
subdivision described in division (A) of Section 263.325 of H.B. 17892
59 of the 130th General Assembly.17893

       Sec. 189.06.  (A) All political subdivisions of the state are 17894
eligible to apply for awards under the local government innovation 17895
program, except as provided in division (D) of section 189.04 of 17896
the Revised Code. Applications shall be submitted to the 17897
department of development on a form specified by the director of 17898
development. The department shall provide the application to the 17899
local government innovation council for evaluation and selection.17900

       The local government innovation council shall award loans and 17901
grants under the program in accordance with a competitive process 17902
to be developed by the council. 17903

       (B) Not later than December 31, 2011, the council shall 17904
establish criteria for evaluating proposals and making awards to 17905
political subdivisions. The criteria shall be developed in 17906
consultation with nonpublic entities involved in local government 17907
issues, state institutions of higher education, and the department 17908
of development, as determined by the council. The criteria shall 17909
include a requirement that at least one of the political 17910
subdivisions that is a party to the proposal provide matching 17911
funds. The matching funds may be provided by a nonpublic entity. 17912
The criteria for evaluating proposals may include the following 17913
provisions:17914

       (1) The expected return on investment, based on the ratio of 17915
expected savings;17916

       (2) The number of participating entities in the proposal;17917

       (3) The probability of the proposal's success;17918

       (4) The percentage of local matching funds available;17919

       (5) The ability to replicate the proposal in other political 17920
subdivisions;17921

       (6) Whether the proposal is part of a larger consolidation 17922
effort by the applicant or applicants;17923

       (7) Whether the proposal is to implement performance audit or 17924
other audit recommendations under Chapter 117. of the Revised 17925
Code;17926

       (8) Whether the applicant has successfully completed an 17927
innovation project in the past.17928

       Sec. 191.01.  As used in this chapter:17929

       (A) "Administrative safeguards," "availability," 17930
"confidentiality," "integrity," "physical safeguards," and 17931
"technical safeguards" have the same meanings as in 45 C.F.R. 17932
164.304.17933

        (B) "Business associate," "covered entity," "health plan," 17934
"individually identifiable health information," and "protected 17935
health information" have the same meanings as in 45 C.F.R. 17936
160.103.17937

       (C) "Executive director of the office of health 17938
transformation" or "executive director" means the executive 17939
director of the office of health transformation or the chief 17940
administrative officer of a successor governmental entity 17941
responsible for health system oversight in this state.17942

       (D) "Government program providing public benefits" means any 17943
program administered by a state agency that has been identified, 17944
pursuant to section 191.02 of the Revised Code, by the executive 17945
director of the office of health transformation in consultation 17946
with the individuals specified in that section. 17947

       (E) "Office of health transformation" means the office of 17948
health transformation created by executive order 2011-02K.17949

       (F) "Operating protocol" means a protocol adopted by the 17950
executive director of the office of health transformation or the 17951
executive director's designee under division (D) of section 191.06 17952
of the Revised Code.17953

       (G) "Participating agency" means a state agency that 17954
participates in a health transformation initiative as specified in 17955
the one or more operating protocols adopted for the initiative 17956
under division (D) of section 191.06 of the Revised Code.17957

       (H) "Personally identifiable information" means information 17958
that meets both of the following criteria: 17959

       (1) It identifies an individual or there is a reasonable 17960
basis to believe that it may be used to identify an individual;17961

       (2) It relates to an individual's eligibility for, 17962
application for, or receipt of public benefits from a government 17963
program providing public benefits.17964

       (I) "State agency" means each of the following:17965

       (1) The department of aging;17966

       (2) The department of alcohol and drug addiction services;17967

       (3) The department of development services agency;17968

       (4)(3) The department of developmental disabilities;17969

       (5)(4) The department of education;17970

       (6)(5) The department of health;17971

       (7)(6) The department of insurance;17972

       (8)(7) The department of job and family services;17973

       (9)(8) The department of medicaid;17974

       (9) The department of mental healthmental health and 17975
addiction services;17976

       (10) The department of rehabilitation and correction;17977

       (11) The department of taxation;17978

       (12) The department of veterans services;17979

       (13) The department of youth services.17980

       (J) "Unsecured" has the same meaning as in 16 C.F.R. 318.2.17981

       Sec. 191.02.  The executive director of the office of health 17982
transformation, in consultation with all of the following 17983
individuals, shall identify each government program administered 17984
by a state agency that is to be considered a government program 17985
providing public benefits for purposes of section 191.04 of the 17986
Revised Code:17987

       (A) The director of aging;17988

       (B) The director of alcohol and drug addiction services;17989

       (C) The director of development services;17990

       (D)(C) The director of developmental disabilities;17991

       (E)(D) The director of health;17992

       (F)(E) The director of job and family services;17993

       (G)(F) The director of medicaid;17994

       (G) The director of mental healthmental health and addiction 17995
services;17996

       (H) The director of rehabilitation and correction;17997

       (I) The director of veterans services;17998

       (J) The director of youth services;17999

       (K) The administrator of the rehabilitation services 18000
commission;18001

       (L) The administrator of workers' compensation;18002

       (M) The superintendent of insurance;18003

       (N) The superintendent of public instruction;18004

       (O) The tax commissioner.18005

       Sec. 191.04.  (A) In accordance with federal laws governing 18006
the confidentiality of individually identifiable health 18007
information, including the "Health Insurance Portability and 18008
Accountability Act of 1996," 104 Pub. L. No. 191, 110 Stat. 2021, 18009
42 U.S.C. 1320d et seq., as amended, and regulations promulgated 18010
by the United States department of health and human services to 18011
implement the act, a state agency may exchange protected health 18012
information with another state agency relating to eligibility for 18013
or enrollment in a health plan or relating to participation in a 18014
government program providing public benefits if the exchange of 18015
information is necessary for either or both of the following:18016

       (1) Operating a health plan;18017

       (2) Coordinating, or improving the administration or 18018
management of, the health care-related functions of at least one 18019
government program providing public benefits.18020

       (B) For fiscal yearyears 2013, 2014, and 2015 only, a state 18021
agency also may exchange personally identifiable information with 18022
another state agency for purposes related to and in support of a 18023
health transformation initiative identified by the executive 18024
director of the office of health transformation pursuant to 18025
division (C) of section 191.06 of the Revised Code. 18026

       (C) With respect to a state agency that uses or discloses 18027
personally identifiable information, all of the following 18028
conditions apply:18029

       (1) The state agency shall use or disclose the information 18030
only as permitted or required by state and federal law. In 18031
addition, if the information is obtained during fiscal year 2013 18032
from an exchange of personally identifiable information permitted 18033
under division (B) of this section, the agency shall also use or 18034
disclose the information in accordance with all operating 18035
protocols that apply to the use or disclosure. 18036

       (2) If the state agency is a state agency other than the 18037
department of job and family servicesmedicaid and it uses or 18038
discloses protected health information that is related to a 18039
medicaid recipient and obtained from the department of job and 18040
family servicesmedicaid or another agency operating a component 18041
of the medicaid program, the state agency shall comply with all 18042
state and federal laws that apply to the department of job and 18043
family servicesmedicaid when that department, as the state's 18044
single state agency to supervise the medicaid program as specified 18045
in section 5111.01 of the Revised Code, uses or discloses 18046
protected health information. 18047

       (3) A state agency shall implement administrative, physical, 18048
and technical safeguards for the purpose of protecting the 18049
confidentiality, integrity, and availability of personally 18050
identifiable information the creation, receipt, maintenance, or 18051
transmittal of which is affected or governed by this section. 18052

       (4) If a state agency discovers an unauthorized use or 18053
disclosure of unsecured protected health information or unsecured 18054
individually identifiable health information, the state agency 18055
shall, not later than seventy-two hours after the discovery, do 18056
all of the following:18057

       (a) Identify the individuals who are the subject of the 18058
protected health information or individually identifiable health 18059
information;18060

       (b) Report the discovery and the names of all individuals 18061
identified pursuant to division (C)(4)(a) of this section to all 18062
other state agencies and the executive director of the office of 18063
health transformation or the executive director's designee;18064

       (c) Mitigate, to the extent reasonably possible, any 18065
potential adverse effects of the unauthorized use or disclosure.18066

       (5) A state agency shall make available to the executive 18067
director of the office of health transformation or the executive 18068
director's designee, and to any other state or federal 18069
governmental entity required by law to have access on that 18070
entity's request, all internal practices, records, and 18071
documentation relating to personally identifiable information it 18072
receives, uses, or discloses that is affected or governed by this 18073
section.18074

       (6) On termination or expiration of an operating protocol and 18075
if feasible, a state agency shall return or destroy all personally 18076
identifiable information received directly from or received on 18077
behalf of another state agency. If the personally identifiable 18078
information is not returned or destroyed, the state agency 18079
maintaining the information shall extend the protections set forth 18080
in this section for as long as it is maintained.18081

       (7) If a state agency enters into a subcontract or, when 18082
required by 45 C.F.R. 164.502(e)(2), a business associate 18083
agreement, the subcontract or business associate agreement shall 18084
require the subcontractor or business associate to comply with the 18085
terms of this section as if the subcontractor or business 18086
associate were a state agency.18087

       Sec. 191.06.  (A) The provisions of this section shall apply 18088
only for fiscal yearyears 2013, 2014, and 2015.18089

       (B) The executive director of the office of health 18090
transformation or the executive director's designee may facilitate 18091
the coordination of operations and exchange of information between 18092
state agencies. The purpose of the executive director's authority 18093
under this section is to support agency collaboration for health 18094
transformation purposes, including modernization of the medicaid 18095
program, streamlining of health and human services programs in 18096
this state, and improving the quality, continuity, and efficiency 18097
of health care and health care support systems in this state.18098

       (C) In furtherance of the authority of the executive director 18099
of the office of health transformation under division (B) of this 18100
section, the executive director or the executive director's 18101
designee shall identify each health transformation initiative in 18102
this state that involves the participation of two or more state 18103
agencies and that permits or requires an interagency agreement to 18104
be entered into for purposes of specifying each participating 18105
agency's role in coordinating, operating, or funding the 18106
initiative, or facilitating the exchange of data or other 18107
information for the initiative. The executive director shall 18108
publish a list of the identified health transformation initiatives 18109
on the internet web site maintained by the office of health 18110
transformation.18111

       (D) For each health transformation initiative that is 18112
identified under division (C) of this section, the executive 18113
director or the executive director's designee shall, in 18114
consultation with each participating agency, adopt one or more 18115
operating protocols. Notwithstanding any law enacted by the 18116
general assembly or rule adopted by a state agency, the provisions 18117
in a protocol shall supersede any provisions in an interagency 18118
agreement, including an interagency agreement entered into under 18119
section 5101.10 or 5111.915162.35 of the Revised Code, that 18120
differ from the provisions of the protocol.18121

       (E)(1) An operating protocol adopted under division (D) of 18122
this section shall include both of the following:18123

       (a) All terms necessary to meet the requirements of "other 18124
arrangements" between a covered entity and a business associate 18125
that are referenced in 45 C.F.R. 164.314(a)(2)(ii);18126

       (b) If known, the date on which the protocol will terminate 18127
or expire.18128

       (2) In addition, a protocol may specify the extent to which 18129
each participating agency is responsible and accountable for 18130
completing the tasks necessary for successful completion of the 18131
initiative, including tasks relating to the following components 18132
of the initiative: 18133

       (a) Workflow;18134

       (b) Funding;18135

       (c) Exchange of data or other information that is 18136
confidential pursuant to state or federal law. 18137

       (F) An operating protocol adopted under division (D) of this 18138
section shall have the same force and effect as an interagency 18139
agreement or data sharing agreement, and each participating agency 18140
shall comply with it.18141

       (G) The director of job and family services shall determine 18142
whether a waiver of federal medicaid requirements or a medicaid 18143
state plan amendment is necessary to fulfill the requirements of 18144
this section. If the director determines a waiver or medicaid 18145
state plan amendment is necessary, the director shall apply to the 18146
United States secretary of health and human services for the 18147
waiver or amendment.18148

       Sec. 191.061. (A) As used in this section:18149

       (1) "Core competencies" means the minimum standards a direct 18150
care worker must meet when providing direct care services and 18151
engaging in any one or more of the following activities associated 18152
with care for a medicaid recipient: maintaining a clean and safe 18153
environment, ensuring recipient-centered care, promoting the 18154
recipient's development, assisting the recipient with activities 18155
of daily living, communicating with the recipient, completing 18156
administrative tasks, and participating in professional 18157
development activities.18158

       (2) "Direct care services" means health care services, 18159
ancillary services, or services related to or in support of the 18160
provision of health care or ancillary services.18161

       (3) "Direct care worker" means an individual who, for direct 18162
or indirect payment, provides direct care services to a medicaid 18163
recipient in the recipient's home, place of residence, or other 18164
setting as specified in rules adopted under section 5164.02 of the 18165
Revised Code. 18166

       (B) Not later than June 30, 2014, the executive director of 18167
the office of health transformation or the executive director's 18168
designee, in consultation with the medicaid director and the 18169
directors of aging, developmental disabilities, health, and mental 18170
health and addiction services, shall execute an operating protocol 18171
in accordance with division (D) of section 191.06 of the Revised 18172
Code documenting the manner in which each of the directors' 18173
departments determine that direct care workers associated with 18174
programs administered by the departments demonstrate core 18175
competencies. The executive director or the executive director's 18176
designee and any one or more of the directors may decide that core 18177
competencies are demonstrated by a direct care worker attaining 18178
certification through the direct care worker certification program 18179
established by the director of health under section 3701.95 of the 18180
Revised Code. A decision to this effect does not preclude a 18181
director from specifying additional requirements a direct care 18182
worker must meet to participate in a program administered by the 18183
director's department.18184

       Sec. 301.28.  (A) As used in this section:18185

       (1) "Financial transaction device" includes a credit card, 18186
debit card, charge card, or prepaid or stored value card, or 18187
automated clearinghouse network credit, debit, or e-check entry 18188
that includes, but is not limited to, accounts receivable and 18189
internet-initiated, point of purchase, and telephone-initiated 18190
applications or any other device or method for making an 18191
electronic payment or transfer of funds.18192

       (2) "County expenses" includes fees, costs, taxes, 18193
assessments, fines, penalties, payments, or any other expense a 18194
person owes or otherwise pays to a county office under the 18195
authority of a county official, other than dog registration and 18196
kennel fees required to be paid under Chapter 955. of the Revised 18197
Code. "County expenses" includes payment to a county office of 18198
money confiscated during the commitment of an individual to a 18199
county jail, of bail, of money for a prisoner's inmate account, 18200
and of money for goods and services obtained by or for the use of 18201
an individual incarcerated by a county sheriff.18202

       (3) "County official" includes the county auditor, county 18203
treasurer, county engineer, county recorder, county prosecuting 18204
attorney, county sheriff, county coroner, county park district and 18205
board of county commissioners, the clerk of the probate court, the 18206
clerk of the juvenile court, the clerks of court for all divisions 18207
of the courts of common pleas, and the clerk of the court of 18208
common pleas, the clerk of a county-operated municipal court, and 18209
the clerk of a county court.18210

       The term "county expenses" includes county expenses owed to 18211
the board of health of the general health district or a combined 18212
health district in the county. If the board of county 18213
commissioners authorizes county expenses to be paid by financial 18214
transaction devices under this section, then the board of health 18215
and the general health district and the combined health district 18216
may accept payments by financial transaction devices under this 18217
section as if the board were a "county official" and the district 18218
were a county office. However, in the case of a general health 18219
district formed by unification of general health districts under 18220
section 3709.10 of the Revised Code, this entitlement applies only 18221
if all the boards of county commissioners of all counties in the 18222
district have authorized payments to be accepted by financial 18223
transaction devices.18224

       (B) Notwithstanding any other section of the Revised Code and 18225
except as provided in division (D) of this section, a board of 18226
county commissioners may adopt a resolution authorizing the 18227
acceptance of payments by financial transaction devices for county 18228
expenses. The resolution shall include the following:18229

       (1) A specification of those county officials who, and of the 18230
county offices under those county officials that, are authorized 18231
to accept payments by financial transaction devices;18232

       (2) A list of county expenses that may be paid for through 18233
the use of a financial transaction device;18234

       (3) Specific identification of financial transaction devices 18235
that the board authorizes as acceptable means of payment for 18236
county expenses. Uniform acceptance of financial transaction 18237
devices among different types of county expenses is not required.18238

       (4) The amount, if any, authorized as a surcharge or 18239
convenience fee under division (E) of this section for persons 18240
using a financial transaction device. Uniform application of 18241
surcharges or convenience fees among different types of county 18242
expenses is not required.18243

       (5) A specific provision as provided in division (G) of this 18244
section requiring the payment of a penalty if a payment made by 18245
means of a financial transaction device is returned or dishonored 18246
for any reason.18247

       The board's resolution shall also designate the county 18248
treasurer as an administrative agent to solicit proposals, within 18249
guidelines established by the board in the resolution and in 18250
compliance with the procedures provided in division (C) of this 18251
section, from financial institutions, issuers of financial 18252
transaction devices, and processors of financial transaction 18253
devices, to make recommendations about those proposals to the 18254
board, and to assist county offices in implementing the county's 18255
financial transaction devices program. The county treasurer may 18256
decline this responsibility within thirty days after receiving a 18257
copy of the board's resolution by notifying the board in writing 18258
within that period. If the treasurer so notifies the board, the 18259
board shall perform the duties of the administrative agent.18260

       If the county treasurer is the administrative agent and fails 18261
to administer the county financial transaction devices program in 18262
accordance with the guidelines in the board's resolution, the 18263
board shall notify the treasurer in writing of the board's 18264
findings, explain the failures, and give the treasurer six months 18265
to correct the failures. If the treasurer fails to make the 18266
appropriate corrections within that six-month period, the board 18267
may pass a resolution declaring the board to be the administrative 18268
agent. The board may later rescind that resolution at its 18269
discretion.18270

       (C) The county shall follow the procedures provided in this 18271
division whenever it plans to contract with financial 18272
institutions, issuers of financial transaction devices, or 18273
processors of financial transaction devices for the purposes of 18274
this section. The administrative agent shall request proposals 18275
from at least three financial institutions, issuers of financial 18276
transaction devices, or processors of financial transaction 18277
devices, as appropriate in accordance with the resolution adopted 18278
under division (B) of this section. Prior to sending any financial 18279
institution, issuer, or processor a copy of any such request, the 18280
county shall advertise its intent to request proposals in a 18281
newspaper of general circulation in the county once a week for two 18282
consecutive weeks or as provided in section 7.16 of the Revised 18283
Code. The notice shall state that the county intends to request 18284
proposals; specify the purpose of the request; indicate the date, 18285
which shall be at least ten days after the second publication, on 18286
which the request for proposals will be mailed to financial 18287
institutions, issuers, or processors; and require that any 18288
financial institution, issuer, or processor, whichever is 18289
appropriate, interested in receiving the request for proposals 18290
submit written notice of this interest to the county not later 18291
than noon of the day on which the request for proposals will be 18292
mailed.18293

       Upon receiving the proposals, the administrative agent shall 18294
review them and make a recommendation to the board of county 18295
commissioners on which proposals to accept. The board of county 18296
commissioners shall consider the agent's recommendation and review 18297
all proposals submitted, and then may choose to contract with any 18298
or all of the entities submitting proposals, as appropriate. The 18299
board shall provide any financial institution, issuer, or 18300
processor that submitted a proposal, but with which the board does 18301
not enter into a contract, notice that its proposal is rejected. 18302
The notice shall state the reasons for the rejection, indicate 18303
whose proposals were accepted, and provide a copy of the terms and 18304
conditions of the successful bids.18305

       (D) A board of county commissioners adopting a resolution 18306
under this section shall send a copy of the resolution to each 18307
county official in the county who is authorized by the resolution 18308
to accept payments by financial transaction devices. After 18309
receiving the resolution and before accepting payments by 18310
financial transaction devices, a county official shall provide 18311
written notification to the board of county commissioners of the 18312
official's intent to implement the resolution within the 18313
official's office. Each county office subject to the board's 18314
resolution adopted under division (B) of this section may use only 18315
the financial institutions, issuers of financial transaction 18316
devices, and processors of financial transaction devices with 18317
which the board of county commissioners contracts, and each such 18318
office is subject to the terms of those contracts.18319

       If a county office under the authority of a county official 18320
is directly responsible for collecting one or more county expenses 18321
and the county official determines not to accept payments by 18322
financial transaction devices for one or more of those expenses, 18323
the office shall not be required to accept payments by financial 18324
transaction devices, notwithstanding the adoption of a resolution 18325
by the board of county commissioners under this section.18326

       Any office of a clerk of the court of common pleas that 18327
accepts financial transaction devices on or before July 1, 1999, 18328
and any other county office that accepted such devices before 18329
January 1, 1998, may continue to accept such devices without being 18330
subject to any resolution passed by the board of county 18331
commissioners under division (B) of this section, or any other 18332
oversight by the board of the office's financial transaction 18333
devices program. Any such office may use surcharges or convenience 18334
fees in any manner the county official in charge of the office 18335
determines to be appropriate, and, if the county treasurer 18336
consents, may appoint the county treasurer to be the office's 18337
administrative agent for purposes of accepting financial 18338
transaction devices. In order not to be subject to the resolution 18339
of the board of county commissioners adopted under division (B) of 18340
this section, a county office shall notify the board in writing 18341
within thirty days after March 30, 1999, that it accepted 18342
financial transaction devices prior to January 1, 1998, or, in the 18343
case of the office of a clerk of the court of common pleas, the 18344
clerk has accepted or will accept such devices on or before July 18345
1, 1999. Each such notification shall explain how processing costs 18346
associated with financial transaction devices are being paid and 18347
shall indicate whether surcharge or convenience fees are being 18348
passed on to consumers.18349

       (E) A board of county commissioners may establish a surcharge 18350
or convenience fee that may be imposed upon a person making 18351
payment by a financial transaction device. The surcharge or 18352
convenience fee shall not be imposed unless authorized or 18353
otherwise permitted by the rules prescribed by an agreement 18354
governing the use and acceptance of the financial transaction 18355
device.18356

       If a surcharge or convenience fee is imposed, every county 18357
office accepting payment by a financial transaction device, 18358
regardless of whether that office is subject to a resolution 18359
adopted by a board of county commissioners, shall clearly post a 18360
notice in that office and shall notify each person making a 18361
payment by such a device about the surcharge or fee. Notice to 18362
each person making a payment shall be provided regardless of the 18363
medium used to make the payment and in a manner appropriate to 18364
that medium. Each notice shall include all of the following:18365

       (1) A statement that there is a surcharge or convenience fee 18366
for using a financial transaction device;18367

       (2) The total amount of the charge or fee expressed in 18368
dollars and cents for each transaction, or the rate of the charge 18369
or fee expressed as a percentage of the total amount of the 18370
transaction, whichever is applicable;18371

       (3) A clear statement that the surcharge or convenience fee 18372
is nonrefundable.18373

       (F) If a person elects to make a payment to the county by a 18374
financial transaction device and a surcharge or convenience fee is 18375
imposed, the payment of the surcharge or fee shall be considered 18376
voluntary and the surcharge or fee is not refundable.18377

       (G) If a person makes payment by financial transaction device 18378
and the payment is returned or dishonored for any reason, the 18379
person is liable to the county for payment of a penalty over and 18380
above the amount of the expense due. The board of county 18381
commissioners shall determine the amount of the penalty, which may 18382
be either a fee not to exceed twenty dollars or payment of the 18383
amount necessary to reimburse the county for banking charges, 18384
legal fees, or other expenses incurred by the county in collecting 18385
the returned or dishonored payment. The remedies and procedures 18386
provided in this section are in addition to any other available 18387
civil or criminal remedies provided by law.18388

       (H) No person making any payment by financial transaction 18389
device to a county office shall be relieved from liability for the 18390
underlying obligation except to the extent that the county 18391
realizes final payment of the underlying obligation in cash or its 18392
equivalent. If final payment is not made by the financial 18393
transaction device issuer or other guarantor of payment in the 18394
transaction, the underlying obligation shall survive and the 18395
county shall retain all remedies for enforcement that would have 18396
applied if the transaction had not occurred.18397

       (I) A county official or employee who accepts a financial 18398
transaction device payment in accordance with this section and any 18399
applicable state or local policies or rules is immune from 18400
personal liability for the final collection of such payments.18401

       Sec. 305.23.  (A) As used in this section:18402

       (1) "County office" means the offices of the county 18403
commissioner, county auditor, county treasurer, county engineer, 18404
county recorder, county prosecuting attorney, county sheriff, 18405
county coroner, county park district, veterans service commission, 18406
clerk of the juvenile court, clerks of court for all divisions of 18407
the courts of common pleas, including the clerk of the court of 18408
common pleas, clerk of a county-operated municipal court, and 18409
clerk of a county court, and any agency, department, or division 18410
under the authority of, or receiving funding in whole or in part 18411
from, any of those county offices.18412

       (2) "Human resources" means any and all functions relating to 18413
human resource management, including civil service, employee 18414
benefits administration, collective bargaining, labor relations, 18415
risk management, workers' compensation, unemployment compensation, 18416
and any human resource management function required by state or 18417
federal law, but "human resources" does not authorize a board of 18418
county commissioners to adopt a resolution establishing a 18419
centralized human resource service that requires any county office 18420
to conform to any classification and compensation plan, position 18421
descriptions, or organizational structure; to determine the rate 18422
of compensation of any employee appointed by the appointing 18423
authority of a county office or the salary ranges for positions of 18424
a county office within the aggregate limits set in the 18425
appropriation resolution of the board of county commissioners; to 18426
determine the number of or the terms of employment of any employee 18427
appointed by the appointing authority of a county office within 18428
the aggregate limits set in the board's appropriation resolution; 18429
or to exercise powers relating to the hiring, qualifications, 18430
evaluation, suspension, demotion, disciplinary action, layoff, 18431
furloughing, establishment of a modified work-week schedule, or 18432
the termination of any employee appointed by the appointing 18433
authority of any county office.18434

       (B) Subject to division (C) of this section, a board of 18435
county commissioners may adopt a resolution establishing 18436
centralized purchasing, printing, transportation, vehicle 18437
maintenance, human resources, revenue collection, and mail 18438
operation services for a county office. Before adopting a 18439
resolution under this section, the board of county commissioners, 18440
in a written notice, shall inform any other county office that 18441
will be impacted by the resolution of the board's desire to 18442
establish a centralized service or services. The written notice 18443
shall include a statement that provides the rationale and the 18444
estimated savings anticipated for centralizing a service or 18445
services. In addition, the board may request any other county 18446
office to serve as the agent and responsible party for 18447
administering a centralized service or services. That county 18448
office may enter into an agreement with the board of county 18449
commissioners to administer the centralized service or services 18450
under such terms and conditions as are included in the agreement, 18451
but nothing in this section authorizes the board of county 18452
commissioners to require a county office to serve as the agent and 18453
responsible party for administering a centralized service or 18454
services at the board's request.18455

       A resolution establishing a centralized service or services 18456
shall specify all of the following:18457

       (1) The name of the county office that will be the agent and 18458
responsible party for administering a centralized service or 18459
services, and if the agent and responsible party is not the board 18460
of county commissioners, the designation of the county office that 18461
has entered into an agreement under division (B) of this section 18462
with the board to be the agent and responsible party;18463

       (2) Which county offices are required to use the centralized 18464
services;18465

       (3) If not all of the centralized services, which centralized 18466
service each county office must use;18467

       (4) A list of rates and charges the county office shall pay 18468
for the centralized services;18469

       (5) The date upon which each county office specified in the 18470
resolution shall begin using the centralized services.18471

       Not later than ten days after a resolution is adopted under 18472
this section, the clerk of the board of county commissioners shall 18473
send a copy of the resolution to each county office that is 18474
specified in the resolution.18475

       (C) A board of county commissioners shall not adopt a 18476
resolution that establishes a centralized service or services 18477
regarding any of the following:18478

       (1) Purchases made for contract services with moneys from the 18479
special fund designated as "general fund moneys to supplement the 18480
equipmenttechnology needs of the county recorder" under section 18481
317.321 of the Revised Code or from the funds that are paid out of 18482
the general fund of the county under sections 325.071 and 325.12 18483
of the Revised Code;18484

       (2) Purchases made with moneys from the real estate 18485
assessment fund established under section 325.31 of the Revised 18486
Code;18487

       (3) Purchases of financial software used by the county 18488
auditor;18489

       (4) The printing of county property tax bills;18490

       (5) The collection of any taxes, assessments, and fees the 18491
county treasurer is required by law to collect;18492

       (6) Purchases of software used by the county recorder.18493

       (D) Nothing in this section authorizes the board of county 18494
commissioners to have control or authority over funds that are 18495
received directly by a county office under another section of the 18496
Revised Code, or to control, or have authority regarding, the 18497
expenditure or use of such funds.18498

       Sec. 307.07.  (A) The board of county commissioners, by 18499
resolution, may create an office of economic development, to 18500
develop and promote plans and programs designed to assure that 18501
county resources are efficiently used, economic growth is properly 18502
balanced, and that county economic development is coordinated with 18503
that of the state and other local governments. For this purpose, 18504
the board may appropriate moneys from the county general fund, or, 18505
pursuant to section 307.64 of the Revised Code, moneys derived 18506
from a tax levied pursuant to division (EE) of section 5705.19 of 18507
the Revised Code, for the creation and operation of the office 18508
for, any economic development purpose of the office, and to 18509
provide for the establishment and operation of a program of 18510
economic development, including in support of a county land 18511
reutilization corporation organized under Chapter 1724. of the 18512
Revised Code. The board may hire a director of economic 18513
development, who shall be a member of the unclassified civil 18514
service, and fix the director's compensation; or may do any of the 18515
following:18516

       (1) Enter into an agreement with a county planning commission 18517
within the county, created under section 713.22 of the Revised 18518
Code, or a regional planning commission, created under section 18519
713.21 of the Revised Code, regardless of whether the county is a 18520
member of the commission, to carry out all of the functions and 18521
duties of a director of economic development under division (B) of 18522
this section. Any agreement shall set forth the procedure by which 18523
the county or regional planning commission shall gain the approval 18524
of the board of county commissioners for any actions, functions, 18525
and duties under division (B) of this section. Any agreement may 18526
continue in effect for a period of one to three years and may be 18527
renewed with the consent of all parties. The civil service status 18528
of planning commission staff shall not be affected by any 18529
agreement under this division.18530

       (2) Enter into an agreement with the Ohio cooperativeOSU18531
extension service, providing for the use of employees hired by the 18532
Ohio state university under section 3335.36 of the Revised Code to 18533
carry out all of the functions and duties of a director of 18534
economic development under division (B) of this section. Any 18535
agreement shall set forth the procedure by which the Ohio 18536
cooperativeOSU extension service shall gain the approval of the 18537
board of county commissioners for any actions, functions, and 18538
duties under division (B) of this section. Any agreement may 18539
continue in effect for a period of one to three years and may be 18540
renewed with the consent of all parties. The employment 18541
classification of Ohio cooperativeOSU extension service employees 18542
shall not be affected by any agreement under this division.18543

       Any moneys appropriated by the board of county commissioners 18544
to execute an agreement for the provision of services pursuant to 18545
this section by the Ohio cooperativeOSU extension service shall 18546
be paid to the Ohio state university to the credit of the Ohio 18547
cooperativeOSU extension service fund created under section 18548
3335.35 of the Revised Code.18549

       (3) Enter into an agreement with a public or private 18550
nonprofit organization to carry out all of the functions and 18551
duties of a director of economic development under division (B) of 18552
this section. The agreement shall set forth the procedure by which 18553
the nonprofit organization shall gain the approval of the board of 18554
county commissioners for any actions, functions, and duties under 18555
that division. The agreement may continue in effect for a period 18556
of one to three years and may be renewed with the consent of all 18557
parties. The employment classification of the nonprofit 18558
organization's employees shall not be affected by an agreement 18559
under this division.18560

       (B) The director of economic development may:18561

       (1) With the approval of the board, hire such staff and 18562
employ such technical and advisory personnel as the director sees 18563
fit to enable the director to carry out the functions and duties 18564
of the office;18565

       (2) With the approval of the board, contract for services 18566
necessary to enable the director to carry out the functions and 18567
duties of the office;18568

       (3) With the approval of the board, enter into agreements 18569
with federal, state, and local governments and agencies thereof, 18570
and with public, private, or nonprofit organizations to carry out 18571
the functions and duties of the office;18572

       (4) Maintain membership in development organizations;18573

       (5) With the approval of the board, make loans or grants and 18574
provide other forms of financial assistance for the purpose of 18575
economic development, including financial assistance for permanent 18576
public improvements, in compliance with applicable laws of this 18577
state, and fix the rate of interest and charges to be made for 18578
such financial assistance;18579

       (6) With the approval of the board, receive and accept 18580
grants, gifts, and contributions of money, property, labor, and 18581
other things of value, to be held, used, and applied only for the 18582
purpose for which they are made, from individuals, private and 18583
public corporations, the United States government or any agency 18584
thereof, from the state or any agency thereof, or from any 18585
political subdivision or any agency thereof, and may agree to 18586
repay any contribution of money or return any property contributed 18587
or the value thereof in amounts, and on terms and conditions, 18588
excluding the payment of interest, as the director determines, and 18589
may evidence the obligations by written evidence;18590

       (7) Establish with the board any funds that are necessary for 18591
the deposit and disbursement of gifts or contributions of money 18592
accepted for economic development purposes;18593

       (8) With the approval of the board, design, implement, 18594
monitor, oversee, and evaluate economic development plans, 18595
programs, strategies, and policies;18596

       (9) Purchase real property to convey to a county land 18597
reutilization corporation to be used in accordance with its public 18598
purposes;18599

       (10) Perform all acts necessary to fulfill the functions and 18600
duties of the office.18601

       (C) The boards of county commissioners of two or more 18602
counties, by resolution, may create a joint office of economic 18603
development for the purposes set forth in division (A) of this 18604
section. The counties participating in a joint office of economic 18605
development shall enter into an agreement that sets forth the 18606
contribution of funds, services, and property to the joint office 18607
from each participating county; establishes the person, public 18608
agency, or nonprofit organization that shall carry out the 18609
functions and duties of the office; and discloses any other terms 18610
by which the joint office shall operate.18611

       The boards of county commissioners of counties participating 18612
in a joint office of economic development may appropriate moneys 18613
from their respective county general funds, or, pursuant to 18614
section 307.64 of the Revised Code, moneys derived from a tax 18615
levied pursuant to division (EE) of section 5705.19 of the Revised 18616
Code, for the creation and operation of the joint office, for any 18617
economic development purpose of the office, and to provide for the 18618
establishment and operation of a program of economic development. 18619
The participating counties may hire a director of economic 18620
development for the joint office or enter into an agreement with a 18621
public agency or nonprofit organization in a manner set forth in 18622
division (A) of this section to carry out the functions and duties 18623
set forth in division (B) of this section.18624

       Any agreement establishing a joint office of economic 18625
development shall set forth the procedure by which the person, 18626
public agency, or nonprofit organization carrying out the 18627
functions and duties of the office shall gain the approval of the 18628
participating boards of county commissioners for any actions, 18629
functions, and duties under division (B) of this section.18630

       (D) As used in this section, "economic development" has the 18631
same meaning as in section 307.64 of the Revised Code.18632

       Sec. 307.673.  This section applies only in a county in which 18633
a tax is levied under section 307.697, 4301.421, 5743.024, or 18634
5743.323 of the Revised Code on the effective date of this 18635
amendmentJuly 19, 1995.18636

       (A) As used in this section:18637

       (1) "County taxes" means taxes levied by a board of county 18638
commissioners or legislative authority of a charter county under 18639
division (D) of section 307.697, division (B) of section 4301.421, 18640
division (C) of section 5743.024, and section 5743.323 of the 18641
Revised Code.18642

       (2) "Corporation" means a nonprofit corporation organized 18643
under the laws of this state and that includes among the purposes 18644
for which it is incorporated the authority to acquire, construct, 18645
renovate, equip, lease, manage, or operate a sports facility.18646

       (3) "Cooperative agreement" means an agreement entered into 18647
pursuant to this section.18648

       (4) "Cost of a sports facility" means the cost of acquiring, 18649
constructing, renovating, equipping, or improving one or more 18650
sports facilities, including reconstructing, rehabilitating, 18651
remodeling, and enlarging; the cost of equipping and furnishing 18652
such a facility; and all financing costs pertaining thereto, 18653
including the cost of engineering, architectural, and other 18654
professional services, designs, plans, specifications and surveys, 18655
and estimates of costs; the costs of refinancing obligations 18656
issued by, or reimbursement of money advanced by, the parties to 18657
the cooperative agreement or other persons, the proceeds of which 18658
obligations were used to pay the costs of the sports facility; the 18659
cost of tests and inspections; the cost of any indemnity or surety 18660
bonds and premiums on insurance, all related direct and 18661
administrative costs pertaining thereto, fees and expenses of 18662
trustees, depositories, and paying agents for the obligations, 18663
capitalized interest on the obligations, amounts necessary to 18664
establish reserves as required by the obligation proceedings, the 18665
reimbursement of money advanced or applied by the parties to the 18666
cooperative agreement or other persons for the payment of any item 18667
of costs of the sports facility, and all other expenses necessary 18668
or incident to planning or determining the feasibility or 18669
practicability with respect to the sports facility; and any other 18670
such expenses as may be necessary or incident to the acquisition, 18671
construction, reconstruction, rehabilitation, remodeling, 18672
renovation, enlargement, improvement, equipping, and furnishing of 18673
the sports facility, the financing of the sports facility, placing 18674
the sports facility in use and operation, including any one, part 18675
of, or combination of such classes of costs and expenses.18676

       (5) "Financing costs" has the same meaning as in section 18677
133.01 of the Revised Code.18678

       (6) "Obligations" means obligations issued or incurred to pay 18679
the cost of a sports facility, including bonds, notes, 18680
certificates of indebtedness, commercial paper, and other 18681
instruments in writing, anticipatory securities as defined in 18682
section 133.01 of the Revised Code, issued or incurred by an 18683
issuer pursuant to Chapter 133. or 4582. of the Revised Code or 18684
this section, or otherwise, to evidence the issuer's obligation to 18685
repay borrowed money, or to pay interest, by, or to pay at any 18686
future time other money obligations of, the issuer of the 18687
obligations, including obligations of an issuer or lessee to make 18688
payments under an installment sale, lease, lease-purchase, or 18689
similar agreement.18690

       (7) "Owner" means any person that owns or operates a 18691
professional athletic or sports team, that is party to a 18692
cooperative agreement, or that has a lease or other agreement with 18693
a party to a cooperative agreement, and that commits to use the 18694
sports facility that is the subject of the cooperative agreement 18695
for all of the team's home games for the period specified in that 18696
agreement.18697

       (8) "Payments," when used with reference to obligations, 18698
means payments of the principal, including any mandatory sinking 18699
fund deposits and mandatory redemption payments, interest and any 18700
redemption premium, and lease rentals, lease-purchase payments and 18701
other amounts payable under obligations in the form of installment 18702
sale, lease, lease-purchase, or similar agreements.18703

       (9) "Person" has the same meaning as defined in section 18704
133.01 of the Revised Code.18705

       (10) "Port authority" means a port authority created under 18706
Chapter 4582. of the Revised Code.18707

       (11) "Sports facility" means a facility, including a stadium, 18708
that is intended to house or provide a site for one or more major 18709
league professional athletic or sports teams or activities, 18710
together with all spectator facilities, parking facilities, 18711
walkways, and auxiliary facilities, real and personal property, 18712
property rights, easements, leasehold estates, and interests that 18713
may be appropriate for, or used in connection with, the operation 18714
of the sports facility.18715

       (B) The board of county commissioners of a county, the 18716
legislative authority of a municipal corporation, a port 18717
authority, a corporation, and an owner, or any combination 18718
thereof, may enter into one or more cooperative agreements under 18719
which the parties enter into one or more of the agreements 18720
described in divisions (B)(1) to (5) of this section.18721

       (1) The board of county commissioners agrees to do one or 18722
more of the following:18723

       (a) Levy a tax under division (D) of section 307.697, 18724
division (B) of section 4301.421, division (C) of section 18725
5743.024, and section 5743.323 of the Revised Code and make 18726
available all or a portion of the revenue from those taxes for the 18727
payment of the cost of the sports facility or to make payments on 18728
obligations;18729

       (b) Issue or incur obligations of the county pursuant to 18730
Chapter 133. of the Revised Code or this section;18731

       (c) Make available all or a portion of the revenue from those 18732
taxes or of the proceeds from the issuance of those obligations to 18733
the municipal corporation, port authority, corporation, or 18734
otherwise for the payment of the cost of a sports facility or the 18735
payment of obligations;18736

       (d) Acquire, construct, renovate, equip, lease to or from 18737
another person, and operate, directly or by a lease or management 18738
contract with another person, one or more sports facilities;18739

       (e) To the extent provided in the cooperative agreement or a 18740
lease with respect to a sports facility, authorize the municipal 18741
corporation, port authority, corporation, or owner to administer 18742
contracts for designing, planning, acquiring, constructing, 18743
renovating, or equipping a sports facility.18744

       (2) The port authority agrees to do one or more of the 18745
following:18746

       (a) Issue or incur obligations of the port authority pursuant 18747
to Chapter 133. or 4582. of the Revised Code or this section;18748

       (b) Make available all or a portion of the proceeds from the 18749
issuance of those obligations to the municipal corporation, 18750
county, or corporation for the payment of the cost of a sports 18751
facility or the payment of obligations;18752

       (c) Acquire, construct, renovate, equip, lease to or from 18753
another person, and operate, directly or by a lease or management 18754
contract with another person, one or more sports facilities;18755

       (d) To the extent provided in the cooperative agreement or a 18756
lease with respect to a sports facility, authorize the municipal 18757
corporation, county, corporation, or owner to administer contracts 18758
for designing, planning, acquiring, constructing, renovating, or 18759
equipping a sports facility.18760

       (3) The legislative authority of the municipal corporation 18761
agrees to do one or more of the following:18762

       (a) Make available the revenue from taxes levied by the 18763
legislative authority for the payment of the cost of a sports 18764
facility or to make payments on obligations;18765

       (b) Issue or incur obligations of the municipal corporation 18766
pursuant to Chapter 133. of the Revised Code or otherwise;18767

       (c) Make available all or a portion of the proceeds from the 18768
issuance of those obligations to the county, port authority, 18769
corporation, or otherwise for the payment of the cost of a sports 18770
facility or the payment of obligations;18771

       (d) Acquire, construct, renovate, equip, lease to or from 18772
another person, and operate, directly or by a lease or management 18773
contract with another person, one or more sports facilities;18774

       (e) To the extent provided in the cooperative agreement or a 18775
lease with respect to a sports facility, authorize the county, 18776
port authority, corporation, or owner to administer contracts for 18777
designing, planning, acquiring, constructing, renovating, or 18778
equipping a sports facility.18779

       (4) The corporation agrees to do one or more of the 18780
following:18781

       (a) Issue or incur obligations;18782

       (b) Make available all or a portion of the proceeds from the 18783
issuance of those obligations to the county, port authority, 18784
municipal corporation, or otherwise for the payment of the cost of 18785
a sports facility or the payment of obligations;18786

       (c) Acquire, construct, renovate, equip, lease to or from 18787
another person, and operate, directly or by a lease or management 18788
contract with another person, one or more sports facilities;18789

       (d) To the extent provided in the cooperative agreement or a 18790
lease with respect to a sports facility, agree that the 18791
corporation will administer contracts for designing, planning, 18792
acquiring, constructing, renovating, or equipping a sports 18793
facility.18794

       (5) The owner agrees to do one or more of the following:18795

       (a) Use the sports facility that is the subject of the 18796
cooperative agreement for all of the home games of the owner's 18797
professional athletic or sports team for a specified period;18798

       (b) Administer contracts for designing, planning, acquiring, 18799
constructing, renovating, or equipping a sports facility.18800

       (C) Any obligations may be secured by a trust agreement 18801
between the issuer of obligations and a corporate trustee that is 18802
a trust company or bank having the powers of a trust company in or 18803
outside this state and authorized to exercise corporate trust 18804
powers in this state. Proceeds from the issuance of any 18805
obligations or the taxes levied and collected by any party to the 18806
cooperative agreement may be deposited with and administered by a 18807
trustee pursuant to the trust agreement.18808

       (D) Any contract for the acquisition, construction, 18809
renovation, or equipping of a sports facility entered into, 18810
assigned, or assumed under this section shall provide that all 18811
laborers and mechanics employed in the acquisition, construction, 18812
renovation, or equipping of the sports facility shall be paid at 18813
the prevailing rates of wages of laborers and mechanics for the 18814
class of work called for, as those wages are determined in 18815
accordance with Chapter 4115. of the Revised Code.18816

       Sec. 307.674.  (A) As used in this section:18817

       (1) "Bonds" means:18818

       (a) Revenue bonds of the port authority described in division 18819
(B)(2)(a) of this section;18820

       (b) Securities as defined in division (KK) of section 133.01 18821
of the Revised Code issued by the host municipal corporation, 18822
described in division (B)(3)(a) of this section;18823

       (c) Any bonds issued to refund any of those revenue bonds or 18824
securities.18825

       (2) "Corporation" means a nonprofit corporation that is 18826
organized under the laws of this state and that includes within 18827
the purposes for which it is incorporated the authorization to 18828
lease and operate facilities such as a port authority educational 18829
and cultural performing arts facility.18830

       (3) "Cost," as applied to a port authority educational and 18831
cultural performing arts facility, means the cost of acquiring, 18832
constructing, renovating, rehabilitating, equipping, or improving 18833
the facility, or any combination of those purposes, collectively 18834
referred to in this section as "construction," and the cost of 18835
acquisition of all land, rights of way, property rights, 18836
easements, franchise rights, and interests required for those 18837
purposes, the cost of demolishing or removing any buildings or 18838
structures on land so acquired, including the cost of acquiring 18839
any land to which those buildings or structures may be moved, the 18840
cost of public utility and common carrier relocation or 18841
duplication, the cost of all machinery, furnishings, and 18842
equipment, financing charges, interest prior to and during 18843
construction and for not more than three years after completion of 18844
construction, costs arising under guaranty agreements, 18845
reimbursement agreements, or other credit enhancement agreements 18846
relating to bonds, engineering, expenses of research and 18847
development with respect to such facility, legal expenses, plans, 18848
specifications, surveys, studies, estimates of costs and revenues, 18849
other expenses necessary or incident to determining the 18850
feasibility or practicability of acquiring or constructing the 18851
facility, administrative expense, and other expenses as may be 18852
necessary or incident to that acquisition or construction and the 18853
financing of such acquisition or construction, including, with 18854
respect to the revenue bonds of a port authority, amounts to be 18855
paid into any special funds from the proceeds of those bonds, and 18856
repayments to the port authority, host county, host municipal 18857
corporation, or corporation of any amounts advanced for the 18858
foregoing purposes.18859

       (4) "Debt service charges" means, for any period or payable 18860
at any time, the principal of and interest and any premium due on 18861
bonds for that period or payable at that time whether due at 18862
maturity or upon mandatory redemption, together with any required 18863
deposits to reserves for the payment of principal of and interest 18864
on those bonds, and includes any payments required by the port 18865
authority to satisfy any of its obligations under or arising from 18866
any guaranty agreements, reimbursement agreements, or other credit 18867
enhancement agreements described in division (C) of this section.18868

       (5) "Host county" means the county within the boundaries of 18869
which the port authority educational and cultural performing arts 18870
facility is or will be located.18871

       (6) "Host municipal corporation" means the municipal 18872
corporation within the boundaries of which the port authority 18873
educational and cultural performing arts facility is or will be 18874
located.18875

       (7) "Port authority" means a port authority created pursuant 18876
to section 4582.22 of the Revised Code.18877

       (8) "Port authority educational and cultural performing arts 18878
facility" means a facility that consists of a center for music or 18879
other performing arts, a theater or other facilities to provide 18880
programs of an educational, recreational, or cultural nature, or 18881
any combination of those purposes as determined by the parties to 18882
the cooperative agreement for which provision is made in division 18883
(B) of this section to fulfill the public educational, 18884
recreational, and cultural purposes set forth therein, together 18885
with all parking facilities, walkways, and other auxiliary 18886
facilities, real and personal property, property rights, 18887
easements, and interests that may be appropriate for, or used in 18888
connection with, the operation of the facility.18889

       (B) A host county, a host municipal corporation, and a port 18890
authority may enter into a cooperative agreement with a 18891
corporation under which, as further provided for in that 18892
agreement:18893

       (1) The host county may agree to do any or all of the 18894
following:18895

       (a) Levy and collect a tax under division (E) and division 18896
(F) of section 5739.09 of the Revised Code for the purposes, and 18897
in an amount sufficient for those purposes, described in divisions 18898
(B)(1)(b) and (c) of this section;18899

       (b) Pay to the port authority all or such portion as provided 18900
for in the cooperative agreement of the revenue from the tax, 18901
together with any investment earnings on that revenue, to be used 18902
to pay a portion of the costs of acquiring, constructing, 18903
renovating, rehabilitating, equipping, or improving the port 18904
authority educational and cultural performing arts facility;18905

       (c) Pledge and pay to the corporation all or such portion as 18906
provided for in the cooperative agreement of the revenue from the 18907
tax, together with any investment earnings on that revenue, to be 18908
used to pay a portion of the costs to the corporation of leasing 18909
the port authority educational and cultural performing arts 18910
facility from the port authority.18911

       (2) The port authority may agree to do any or all of the 18912
following:18913

       (a) Issue its revenue bonds pursuant to section 4582.48 of 18914
the Revised Code for the purpose of paying all or a portion of the 18915
costs of the port authority educational and cultural performing 18916
arts facility;18917

       (b) Acquire, construct, renovate, rehabilitate, equip, and 18918
improve the port authority educational and cultural performing 18919
arts facility;18920

       (c) Lease the port authority educational and cultural 18921
performing arts facility to the corporation;18922

       (d) To the extent provided for in the cooperative agreement 18923
or the lease to the corporation, authorize the corporation to 18924
administer on behalf of the port authority the contracts for 18925
acquiring, constructing, renovating, rehabilitating, or equipping 18926
the port authority educational and cultural performing arts 18927
facility;18928

       (e) Use the revenue derived from the lease of the port 18929
authority educational and cultural performing arts facility to the 18930
corporation solely to pay debt service charges on revenue bonds of 18931
the port authority issued pursuant to division (B)(2)(a) of this 18932
section and to pay its obligations under or arising from any 18933
guaranty agreements, reimbursement agreements, or other credit 18934
enhancement agreements provided for in this section.18935

       (3) The host municipal corporation may agree to do either or 18936
both of the following:18937

       (a) Issue its bonds for the purpose of paying all or a 18938
portion of the costs of the port authority educational and 18939
cultural performing arts facility, and pay the proceeds from the 18940
issuance to the port authority for that purpose;18941

       (b) Enter into a guaranty agreement, a reimbursement 18942
agreement, or other credit enhancement agreement with the port 18943
authority to provide a guaranty or other credit enhancement of the 18944
port authority revenue bonds referred to in division (B)(2)(a) of 18945
this section pledging taxes, other than ad valorem property taxes, 18946
or other revenues for the purpose of providing the funds required 18947
to satisfy the host municipal corporation's obligations under that 18948
agreement.18949

       The cooperative agreement may provide that the proceeds of 18950
such securities or of such guaranty agreement, reimbursement 18951
agreement, or other credit enhancement agreement be deposited with 18952
and administered by the trustee pursuant to the trust agreement 18953
authorized in division (C) of this section.18954

       (4) The corporation may agree to do any or all of the 18955
following:18956

       (a) Lease the port authority educational and cultural 18957
performing arts facility from the port authority;18958

       (b) Operate and maintain the port authority educational and 18959
cultural performing arts facility pursuant to the lease;18960

       (c) To the extent provided for in the cooperative agreement 18961
or the lease from the port authority, administer on behalf of the 18962
port authority the contracts for acquiring, constructing, 18963
renovating, rehabilitating, or equipping the port authority 18964
educational and cultural performing arts facility.18965

       (C) The pledge and payments referred to in divisions 18966
(B)(1)(b) and (c) of this section and provided for in the 18967
cooperative agreement shall be for the period stated in the 18968
cooperative agreement but shall not extend longer than the period 18969
necessary to provide for the final retirement of the port 18970
authority revenue bonds referred to in division (B)(2)(a) of this 18971
section, and for the satisfaction by the port authority of any of 18972
its obligations under or arising from any guaranty agreements, 18973
reimbursement agreements, or other credit enhancement agreements 18974
relating to those bonds or to the revenues pledged to them. The 18975
cooperative agreement shall provide for the termination of the 18976
cooperative agreement, including the pledge and payment referred 18977
to in division (B)(1)(c) of this section, if the port authority 18978
revenue bonds referred to in division (B)(2)(a) of this section 18979
have not been issued, sold, and delivered within five years of the 18980
effective date of the cooperative agreement.18981

       The cooperative agreement shall provide that any port 18982
authority revenue bonds shall be secured by a trust agreement 18983
between the port authority and a corporate trustee that is a trust 18984
company or bank having the powers of a trust company within or 18985
outside the state but authorized to exercise trust powers within 18986
the state. The host county may be a party to that trust agreement 18987
for the purpose of better securing the pledge by the host county 18988
of its payment to the corporation pursuant to division (B)(1)(c) 18989
of this section. A tax levied pursuant to section 5739.09 of the 18990
Revised Code for the purposes specified in division (B)(1)(b) or 18991
(c) of this section is not subject to diminution by initiative or 18992
referendum or diminution by statute, unless provision is made for 18993
an adequate substitute reasonably satisfactory to the trustee 18994
under the trust agreement that secures the port authority revenue 18995
bonds.18996

       (D) A pledge of money by a host county under this section 18997
shall not be net indebtedness of the host county for purposes of 18998
section 133.07 of the Revised Code. A guaranty or other credit 18999
enhancement by a host municipal corporation under this section 19000
shall not be net indebtedness of the host municipal corporation 19001
for purposes of section 133.05 of the Revised Code.19002

       (E) If the terms of the cooperative agreement so provide, any 19003
contract for the acquisition, construction, renovation, 19004
rehabilitation, equipping, or improving of a port authority 19005
educational and cultural performing arts facility shall be made in 19006
such manner as is determined by the board of directors of the port 19007
authority, and unless the cooperative agreement provides 19008
otherwise, such a contract is not subject to division (R)(2) of 19009
section 4582.31 of the Revised Code. The port authority may take 19010
the assignment of and assume any contracts for the acquisition, 19011
construction, renovation, rehabilitation, equipping, or improving 19012
of a port authority educational and cultural performing arts 19013
facility that had previously been authorized by any of the host 19014
county, the host municipality, or the corporation. Such contracts 19015
are not subject to division (R)(2) of section 4582.31 of the 19016
Revised Code.19017

       Any contract for the acquisition, construction, renovation, 19018
rehabilitation, equipping, or improving of a port authority 19019
educational and cultural performing arts facility entered into, 19020
assigned, or assumed pursuant to this division shall provide that 19021
all laborers and mechanics employed for the acquisition, 19022
construction, renovation, rehabilitation, equipping, or improving 19023
of that facility shall be paid at the prevailing rates of wages of 19024
laborers and mechanics for the class of work called for by the 19025
port authority educational and cultural performing arts facility, 19026
which wages shall be determined in accordance with the 19027
requirements of Chapter 4115. of the Revised Code for the 19028
determination of prevailing wage rates.19029

       Notwithstanding any provisions to the contrary in section19030
3383.07123.281 of the Revised Code, construction services and 19031
general building services for a port authority educational and 19032
cultural performing arts facility funded completely or in part 19033
with money appropriated by the state to the Ohio cultural19034
facilities construction commission may be provided by a port 19035
authority or a corporation that occupies, will occupy, or is 19036
responsible for that facility, as determined by the commission. 19037
The construction services and general building services to be 19038
provided by the port authority or the corporation shall be 19039
specified in an agreement between the commission and the port 19040
authority or corporation. That agreement, or any actions taken 19041
under it, are not subject to Chapters 123. or 153. of the Revised 19042
Code, but are subject to Chapter 4115. of the Revised Code.19043

       Sec. 307.86.  Anything to be purchased, leased, leased with 19044
an option or agreement to purchase, or constructed, including, but 19045
not limited to, any product, structure, construction, 19046
reconstruction, improvement, maintenance, repair, or service, 19047
except the services of an accountant, architect, attorney at law, 19048
physician, professional engineer, construction project manager, 19049
consultant, surveyor, or appraiser, by or on behalf of the county 19050
or contracting authority, as defined in section 307.92 of the 19051
Revised Code, at a cost in excess of fifty thousand dollars, 19052
except as otherwise provided in division (D) of section 713.23 and 19053
in sections 9.48, 125.04, 125.60 to 125.6012, 307.022, 307.041, 19054
307.861, 339.05, 340.03, 340.033, 4115.31 to 4115.35, 5119.1619055
5119.44, 5513.01, 5543.19, 5713.01, and 6137.05 of the Revised 19056
Code, shall be obtained through competitive bidding. However, 19057
competitive bidding is not required when any of the following 19058
applies:19059

       (A) The board of county commissioners, by a unanimous vote of 19060
its members, makes a determination that a real and present 19061
emergency exists, and that determination and the reasons for it 19062
are entered in the minutes of the proceedings of the board, when 19063
either of the following applies:19064

       (1) The estimated cost is less than one hundred thousand 19065
dollars.19066

       (2) There is actual physical disaster to structures, radio 19067
communications equipment, or computers.19068

       For purposes of this division, "unanimous vote" means all 19069
three members of a board of county commissioners when all three 19070
members are present, or two members of the board if only two 19071
members, constituting a quorum, are present.19072

       Whenever a contract of purchase, lease, or construction is 19073
exempted from competitive bidding under division (A)(1) of this 19074
section because the estimated cost is less than one hundred 19075
thousand dollars, but the estimated cost is fifty thousand dollars 19076
or more, the county or contracting authority shall solicit 19077
informal estimates from no fewer than three persons who could 19078
perform the contract, before awarding the contract. With regard to 19079
each such contract, the county or contracting authority shall 19080
maintain a record of such estimates, including the name of each 19081
person from whom an estimate is solicited. The county or 19082
contracting authority shall maintain the record for the longer of 19083
at least one year after the contract is awarded or the amount of 19084
time the federal government requires.19085

       (B)(1) The purchase consists of supplies or a replacement or 19086
supplemental part or parts for a product or equipment owned or 19087
leased by the county, and the only source of supply for the 19088
supplies, part, or parts is limited to a single supplier.19089

       (2) The purchase consists of services related to information 19090
technology, such as programming services, that are proprietary or 19091
limited to a single source.19092

       (C) The purchase is from the federal government, the state, 19093
another county or contracting authority of another county, or a 19094
board of education, educational service center, township, or 19095
municipal corporation.19096

       (D) The purchase is made by a county department of job and 19097
family services under section 329.04 of the Revised Code and 19098
consists of family services duties or workforce development 19099
activities or is made by a county board of developmental 19100
disabilities under section 5126.05 of the Revised Code and 19101
consists of program services, such as direct and ancillary client 19102
services, child care, case management services, residential 19103
services, and family resource services.19104

       (E) The purchase consists of criminal justice services, 19105
social services programs, family services, or workforce 19106
development activities by the board of county commissioners from 19107
nonprofit corporations or associations under programs funded by 19108
the federal government or by state grants.19109

       (F) The purchase consists of any form of an insurance policy 19110
or contract authorized to be issued under Title XXXIX of the 19111
Revised Code or any form of health care plan authorized to be 19112
issued under Chapter 1751. of the Revised Code, or any combination 19113
of such policies, contracts, plans, or services that the 19114
contracting authority is authorized to purchase, and the 19115
contracting authority does all of the following:19116

       (1) Determines that compliance with the requirements of this 19117
section would increase, rather than decrease, the cost of the 19118
purchase;19119

       (2) Requests issuers of the policies, contracts, plans, or 19120
services to submit proposals to the contracting authority, in a 19121
form prescribed by the contracting authority, setting forth the 19122
coverage and cost of the policies, contracts, plans, or services 19123
as the contracting authority desires to purchase;19124

       (3) Negotiates with the issuers for the purpose of purchasing 19125
the policies, contracts, plans, or services at the best and lowest 19126
price reasonably possible.19127

       (G) The purchase consists of computer hardware, software, or 19128
consulting services that are necessary to implement a computerized 19129
case management automation project administered by the Ohio 19130
prosecuting attorneys association and funded by a grant from the 19131
federal government.19132

       (H) Child care services are purchased for provision to county 19133
employees.19134

       (I)(1) Property, including land, buildings, and other real 19135
property, is leased for offices, storage, parking, or other 19136
purposes, and all of the following apply:19137

       (a) The contracting authority is authorized by the Revised 19138
Code to lease the property.19139

       (b) The contracting authority develops requests for proposals 19140
for leasing the property, specifying the criteria that will be 19141
considered prior to leasing the property, including the desired 19142
size and geographic location of the property.19143

       (c) The contracting authority receives responses from 19144
prospective lessors with property meeting the criteria specified 19145
in the requests for proposals by giving notice in a manner 19146
substantially similar to the procedures established for giving 19147
notice under section 307.87 of the Revised Code.19148

       (d) The contracting authority negotiates with the prospective 19149
lessors to obtain a lease at the best and lowest price reasonably 19150
possible considering the fair market value of the property and any 19151
relocation and operational costs that may be incurred during the 19152
period the lease is in effect.19153

       (2) The contracting authority may use the services of a real 19154
estate appraiser to obtain advice, consultations, or other 19155
recommendations regarding the lease of property under this 19156
division.19157

       (J) The purchase is made pursuant to section 5139.34 or 19158
sections 5139.41 to 5139.46 of the Revised Code and is of programs 19159
or services that provide case management, treatment, or prevention 19160
services to any felony or misdemeanant delinquent, unruly youth, 19161
or status offender under the supervision of the juvenile court, 19162
including, but not limited to, community residential care, day 19163
treatment, services to children in their home, or electronic 19164
monitoring.19165

       (K) The purchase is made by a public children services agency 19166
pursuant to section 307.92 or 5153.16 of the Revised Code and 19167
consists of family services, programs, or ancillary services that 19168
provide case management, prevention, or treatment services for 19169
children at risk of being or alleged to be abused, neglected, or 19170
dependent children.19171

       (L) The purchase is to obtain the services of emergency 19172
medical service organizations under a contract made by the board 19173
of county commissioners pursuant to section 307.05 of the Revised 19174
Code with a joint emergency medical services district.19175

       (M) The county contracting authority determines that the use 19176
of competitive sealed proposals would be advantageous to the 19177
county and the contracting authority complies with section 307.862 19178
of the Revised Code.19179

       Any issuer of policies, contracts, plans, or services listed 19180
in division (F) of this section and any prospective lessor under 19181
division (I) of this section may have the issuer's or prospective 19182
lessor's name and address, or the name and address of an agent, 19183
placed on a special notification list to be kept by the 19184
contracting authority, by sending the contracting authority that 19185
name and address. The contracting authority shall send notice to 19186
all persons listed on the special notification list. Notices shall 19187
state the deadline and place for submitting proposals. The 19188
contracting authority shall mail the notices at least six weeks 19189
prior to the deadline set by the contracting authority for 19190
submitting proposals. Every five years the contracting authority 19191
may review this list and remove any person from the list after 19192
mailing the person notification of that action.19193

       Any contracting authority that negotiates a contract under 19194
division (F) of this section shall request proposals and negotiate 19195
with issuers in accordance with that division at least every three 19196
years from the date of the signing of such a contract, unless the 19197
parties agree upon terms for extensions or renewals of the 19198
contract. Such extension or renewal periods shall not exceed six 19199
years from the date the initial contract is signed.19200

       Any real estate appraiser employed pursuant to division (I) 19201
of this section shall disclose any fees or compensation received 19202
from any source in connection with that employment.19203

       Sec. 309.09.  (A) The prosecuting attorney shall be the legal 19204
adviser of the board of county commissioners, board of elections, 19205
all other county officers and boards, and all tax-supported public 19206
libraries, and any of them may require written opinions or 19207
instructions from the prosecuting attorney in matters connected 19208
with their official duties. The prosecuting attorney shall 19209
prosecute and defend all suits and actions that any such officer, 19210
board, or tax-supported public library directs or to which it is a 19211
party, and no county officer may employ any other counsel or 19212
attorney at the expense of the county, except as provided in 19213
section 305.14 of the Revised Code.19214

       (B)(1) The prosecuting attorney shall be the legal adviser 19215
for all township officers, boards, and commissions, unless, 19216
subject to division (B)(2) of this section, the township has 19217
adopted a limited home rule government pursuant to Chapter 504. of 19218
the Revised Code and has not entered into a contract to have the 19219
prosecuting attorney serve as the township law director, in which 19220
case, subject to division (B)(2) of this section, the township law 19221
director, whether serving full-time or part-time, shall be the 19222
legal adviser for all township officers, boards, and commissions. 19223
When the board of township trustees finds it advisable or 19224
necessary to have additional legal counsel, it may employ an 19225
attorney other than the township law director or the prosecuting 19226
attorney of the county, either for a particular matter or on an 19227
annual basis, to represent the township and its officers, boards, 19228
and commissions in their official capacities and to advise them on 19229
legal matters. No such legal counsel may be employed, except on 19230
the order of the board of township trustees, duly entered upon its 19231
journal, in which the compensation to be paid for the legal 19232
services shall be fixed. The compensation shall be paid from the 19233
township fund.19234

       Nothing in this division confers any of the powers or duties 19235
of a prosecuting attorney under section 309.08 of the Revised Code 19236
upon a township law director.19237

       (2)(a) If any township in the county served by the 19238
prosecuting attorney has adopted any resolution regarding the 19239
operation of adult entertainment establishments pursuant to the 19240
authority that is granted under section 503.52 of the Revised Code 19241
or if a resolution of that nature has been adopted under section 19242
503.53 of the Revised Code in a township in the county served by 19243
the prosecuting attorney, all of the following apply:19244

       (i) Upon the request of a township in the county that has 19245
adopted, or in which has been adopted, a resolution of that nature 19246
that is made pursuant to division (E)(1)(c) of section 503.52 of 19247
the Revised Code, the prosecuting attorney shall prosecute and 19248
defend on behalf of the township in the trial and argument in any 19249
court or tribunal of any challenge to the validity of the 19250
resolution. If the challenge to the validity of the resolution is 19251
before a federal court, the prosecuting attorney may request the 19252
attorney general to assist the prosecuting attorney in prosecuting 19253
and defending the challenge and, upon the prosecuting attorney's 19254
making of such a request, the attorney general shall assist the 19255
prosecuting attorney in performing that service if the resolution 19256
was drafted in accordance with legal guidance provided by the 19257
attorney general as described in division (B)(2) of section 503.52 19258
of the Revised Code. The attorney general shall provide this 19259
assistance without charge to the township for which the service is 19260
performed. If a township adopts a resolution without the legal 19261
guidance of the attorney general, the attorney general is not 19262
required to provide assistance as described in this division to a 19263
prosecuting attorney.19264

       (ii) Upon the request of a township in the county that has 19265
adopted, or in which has been adopted, a resolution of that nature 19266
that is made pursuant to division (E)(1)(a) of section 503.52 of 19267
the Revised Code, the prosecuting attorney shall prosecute and 19268
defend on behalf of the township a civil action to enjoin the 19269
violation of the resolution in question.19270

       (iii) Upon the request of a township in the county that has 19271
adopted, or in which has been adopted, a resolution of that nature 19272
that is made pursuant to division (E)(1)(b) of section 503.52 of 19273
the Revised Code, the prosecuting attorney shall prosecute and 19274
defend on behalf of the township a civil action under Chapter 19275
3767. of the Revised Code to abate as a nuisance the place in the 19276
unincorporated area of the township at which the resolution is 19277
being or has been violated. Proceeds from the sale of personal 19278
property or contents seized pursuant to the action shall be 19279
applied and deposited in accordance with division (E)(1)(b) of 19280
section 503.52 of the Revised Code.19281

        (b) The provisions of division (B)(2)(a) of this section 19282
apply regarding all townships, including townships that have 19283
adopted a limited home rule government pursuant to Chapter 504. of 19284
the Revised Code, and regardless of whether a township that has so 19285
adopted a limited home rule government has entered into a contract 19286
with the prosecuting attorney as described in division (B) of 19287
section 504.15 of the Revised Code or has appointed a law director 19288
as described in division (A) of that section.19289

       The prosecuting attorney shall prosecute and defend in the 19290
actions and proceedings described in division (B)(2)(a) of this 19291
section without charge to the township for which the services are 19292
performed.19293

       (C) Whenever the board of county commissioners employs an 19294
attorney other than the prosecuting attorney of the county, 19295
without the authorization of the court of common pleas as provided 19296
in section 305.14 of the Revised Code, either for a particular 19297
matter or on an annual basis, to represent the board in its 19298
official capacity and to advise it on legal matters, the board 19299
shall enter upon its journal an order of the board in which the 19300
compensation to be paid for the legal services shall be fixed. The 19301
compensation shall be paid from the county general fund. The total 19302
compensation paid, in any year, by the board for legal services 19303
under this division shall not exceed the total annual compensation 19304
of the prosecuting attorney for that county.19305

       (D) The prosecuting attorney and the board of county 19306
commissioners jointly may contract with a board of park 19307
commissioners under section 1545.07 of the Revised Code for the 19308
prosecuting attorney to provide legal services to the park 19309
district the board of park commissioners operates.19310

       (E) The prosecuting attorney may be, in the prosecuting 19311
attorney's discretion and with the approval of the board of county 19312
commissioners, the legal adviser of a joint fire district created 19313
under section 505.371 of the Revised Code at no cost to the 19314
district or may be the legal adviser to the district under a 19315
contract that the prosecuting attorney and the district enter 19316
into, and that the board of county commissionercommissioners19317
approves, to authorize the prosecuting attorney to provide legal 19318
services to the district.19319

       (F) The prosecuting attorney may be, in the prosecuting 19320
attorney's discretion and with the approval of the board of county 19321
commissioners, the legal adviser of a joint ambulance district 19322
created under section 505.71 of the Revised Code at no cost to the 19323
district or may be the legal adviser to the district under a 19324
contract that the prosecuting attorney and the district enter 19325
into, and that the board of county commissioners approves, to 19326
authorize the prosecuting attorney to provide legal services to 19327
the district.19328

       (G) The prosecuting attorney may be, in the prosecuting 19329
attorney's discretion and with the approval of the board of county 19330
commissioners, the legal adviser of a joint emergency medical 19331
services district created under section 307.052 of the Revised 19332
Code at no cost to the district or may be the legal adviser to the 19333
district under a contract that the prosecuting attorney and the 19334
district enter into, and that the board of county commissioners 19335
approves, to authorize the prosecuting attorney to provide legal 19336
services to the district.19337

       (H) The prosecuting attorney may be, in the prosecuting 19338
attorney's discretion and with the approval of the board of county 19339
commissioners, the legal adviser of a fire and ambulance district 19340
created under section 505.375 of the Revised Code at no cost to 19341
the district or may be the legal adviser to the district under a 19342
contract that the prosecuting attorney and the district enter 19343
into, and that the board of county commissioners approves, to 19344
authorize the prosecuting attorney to provide legal services to 19345
the district.19346

       (I) All money received pursuant to a contract entered into 19347
under division (D), (E), (F), (G), or (H) of this section shall be 19348
deposited into the prosecuting attorney's legal services fund, 19349
which shall be established in the county treasury of each county 19350
in which such a contract exists. Moneys in that fund may be 19351
appropriated only to the prosecuting attorney for the purpose of 19352
providing legal services to a park district, joint fire district, 19353
joint ambulance district, joint emergency medical services 19354
district, or a fire and ambulance district, as applicable, under a 19355
contract entered into under the applicable division.19356

       (J) The prosecuting attorney shall be the legal advisor of a 19357
lake facilities authority as provided in section 353.02 of the 19358
Revised Code.19359

       Sec. 317.08. (A) Except as provided in divisions (C), (D), 19360
and (E) of this section, the county recorder shall keep six 19361
separate sets of records as follows:19362

       (1) A record of deeds, in which shall be recorded all deeds 19363
and other instruments of writing for the absolute and 19364
unconditional sale or conveyance of lands, tenements, and 19365
hereditaments; all notices as provided in sections 5301.47 to 19366
5301.56 of the Revised Code; all judgments or decrees in actions 19367
brought under section 5303.01 of the Revised Code; all 19368
declarations and bylaws, and all amendments to declarations and 19369
bylaws, as provided in Chapter 5311. of the Revised Code; 19370
affidavits as provided in sections 5301.252 and 5301.56 of the 19371
Revised Code; all certificates as provided in section 5311.17 of 19372
the Revised Code; all articles dedicating archaeological preserves 19373
accepted by the director of the Ohio historical society under 19374
section 149.52 of the Revised Code; all articles dedicating nature 19375
preserves accepted by the director of natural resources under 19376
section 1517.05 of the Revised Code; all agreements for the 19377
registration of lands as archaeological or historic landmarks 19378
under section 149.51 or 149.55 of the Revised Code; all 19379
conveyances of conservation easements and agricultural easements 19380
under section 5301.68 of the Revised Code; all instruments 19381
extinguishing agricultural easements under section 901.21 or 19382
5301.691 of the Revised Code or pursuant to terms of such an 19383
easement granted to a charitable organization under section 19384
5301.68 of the Revised Code; all instruments or orders described 19385
in division (B)(2)(b) of section 5301.56 of the Revised Code; all 19386
no further action letters issued under section 122.654 or 3746.11 19387
of the Revised Code; all covenants not to sue issued under section 19388
3746.12 of the Revised Code, including all covenants not to sue 19389
issued pursuant to section 122.654 of the Revised Code; any 19390
restrictions on the use of property contained in a no further 19391
action letter issued under section 122.654 of the Revised Code, 19392
any restrictions on the use of property identified pursuant to 19393
division (C)(3)(a) of section 3746.10 of the Revised Code, and any 19394
restrictions on the use of property contained in a deed or other 19395
instrument as provided in division (E) or (F) of section 3737.882 19396
of the Revised Code; any easement executed or granted under 19397
section 3734.22, 3734.24, 3734.25, or 3734.26 of the Revised Code; 19398
any environmental covenant entered into in accordance with 19399
sections 5301.80 to 5301.92 of the Revised Code; all memoranda of 19400
trust, as described in division (A) of section 5301.255 of the 19401
Revised Code, that describe specific real property; and all 19402
agreements entered into under division (A) of section 1506.44 of 19403
the Revised Code;19404

       (2) A record of mortgages, in which shall be recorded all of 19405
the following:19406

       (a) All mortgages, including amendments, supplements, 19407
modifications, and extensions of mortgages, or other instruments 19408
of writing by which lands, tenements, or hereditaments are or may 19409
be mortgaged or otherwise conditionally sold, conveyed, affected, 19410
or encumbered;19411

       (b) All executory installment contracts for the sale of land 19412
executed after September 29, 1961, that by their terms are not 19413
required to be fully performed by one or more of the parties to 19414
them within one year of the date of the contracts;19415

       (c) All options to purchase real estate, including 19416
supplements, modifications, and amendments of the options, but no 19417
option of that nature shall be recorded if it does not state a 19418
specific day and year of expiration of its validity;19419

       (d) Any tax certificate sold under section 5721.33 of the 19420
Revised Code, or memorandum of it, that is presented for filing of 19421
record.19422

       (3) A record of powers of attorney, including all memoranda 19423
of trust, as described in division (A) of section 5301.255 of the 19424
Revised Code, that do not describe specific real property;19425

       (4) A record of plats, in which shall be recorded all plats 19426
and maps of town lots, of the subdivision of town lots, and of 19427
other divisions or surveys of lands, any center line survey of a 19428
highway located within the county, the plat of which shall be 19429
furnished by the director of transportation or county engineer, 19430
and all drawings and amendments to drawings, as provided in 19431
Chapter 5311. of the Revised Code;19432

       (5) A record of leases, in which shall be recorded all 19433
leases, memoranda of leases, and supplements, modifications, and 19434
amendments of leases and memoranda of leases;19435

       (6) A record of declarations executed pursuant to section 19436
2133.02 of the Revised Code and durable powers of attorney for 19437
health care executed pursuant to section 1337.12 of the Revised 19438
Code.19439

       (B) All instruments or memoranda of instruments entitled to 19440
record shall be recorded in the proper record in the order in 19441
which they are presented for record. The recorder may index, keep, 19442
and record in one volume unemployment compensation liens, internal 19443
revenue tax liens and other liens in favor of the United States as 19444
described in division (A) of section 317.09 of the Revised Code, 19445
personal tax liens, mechanic's liens, agricultural product liens, 19446
notices of liens, certificates of satisfaction or partial release 19447
of estate tax liens, discharges of recognizances, excise and 19448
franchise tax liens on corporations, broker's liens, and liens 19449
provided for in sections 1513.33, 1513.37, 3752.13, 5111.02219450
5164.56, and 5311.18 of the Revised Code.19451

       The recording of an option to purchase real estate, including 19452
any supplement, modification, and amendment of the option, under 19453
this section shall serve as notice to any purchaser of an interest 19454
in the real estate covered by the option only during the period of 19455
the validity of the option as stated in the option.19456

       (C) In lieu of keeping the six separate sets of records 19457
required in divisions (A)(1) to (6) of this section and the 19458
records required in divisions (D) and (E) of this section, a 19459
county recorder may record all the instruments required to be 19460
recorded by this section in two separate sets of record books. One 19461
set shall be called the "official records" and shall contain the 19462
instruments listed in divisions (A)(1), (2), (3), (5), and (6) and 19463
(D) and (E) of this section. The second set of records shall 19464
contain the instruments listed in division (A)(4) of this section.19465

       (D) Except as provided in division (C) of this section, the 19466
county recorder shall keep a separate set of records containing 19467
all corrupt activity lien notices filed with the recorder pursuant 19468
to section 2923.36 of the Revised Code and a separate set of 19469
records containing all medicaid fraud lien notices filed with the 19470
recorder pursuant to section 2933.75 of the Revised Code.19471

       (E)(1) The county recorder shall keep a separate set of 19472
records containing all transfers, conveyances, or assignments of 19473
any type of tangible or intangible personal property or any rights 19474
or interests in that property if and to the extent that any person 19475
wishes to record that personal property transaction and if the 19476
applicable instrument is acknowledged before a notary public. If 19477
the transferor is a natural person, the notice of personal 19478
property transfer shall be recorded in the county in this state in 19479
which the transferor maintains the transferor's principal 19480
residence. If the transferor is not a natural person, the notice 19481
of personal property transfer shall be recorded in the county in 19482
this state in which the transferor maintains its principal place 19483
of business. If the transferor does not maintain a principal 19484
residence or a principal place of business in this state and the 19485
transfer is to a trustee of a legacy trust formed pursuant to 19486
Chapter 5816. of the Revised Code, the notice of personal property 19487
transfer shall be recorded in the county in this state where that 19488
trustee maintains a principal residence or principal place of 19489
business. In all other instances, the notice of personal property 19490
transfer shall be recorded in the county in this state where the 19491
property described in the notice is located.19492

       (2) The records described in division (E)(1) of this section 19493
shall be maintained in or as part of the "official records" under 19494
division (C) of this section.19495

       Sec. 317.32.  The county recorder shall charge and collect 19496
the following fees, to include, except as otherwise provided in 19497
division (A)(2) of this section, base fees for the recorder's 19498
services and housing trust fund fees collected pursuant to section 19499
317.36 of the Revised Code:19500

       (A)(1) Except as otherwise provided in division (A)(2) of 19501
this section, for recording and indexing an instrument if the 19502
photocopy or any similar process is employed, a base fee of 19503
fourteen dollars for the first two pages and a housing trust fund 19504
fee of fourteen dollars, and a base fee of four dollars and a 19505
housing trust fund fee of four dollars for each subsequent page, 19506
size eight and one-half inches by fourteen inches, or fraction of 19507
a page, including the caption page, of such instrument;19508

       (2) For recording and indexing an instrument described in 19509
division (E)(1) of section 317.08 of the Revised Code if the 19510
photocopy or any similar process is employed, a fee of 19511
twenty-eight dollars for the first two pages to be deposited into 19512
the county treasury to the credit of the special fund designated 19513
as "general fund moneys to supplement the equipmenttechnology19514
needs of the county recorder" under section 317.321 of the Revised 19515
Code, and a fee of eight dollars to be deposited in the same 19516
manner for each subsequent page, size eight and one-half inches by 19517
fourteen inches, or fraction of a page, including the caption 19518
page, of that instrument;19519

       (B) For certifying a photocopy from the record previously 19520
recorded, a base fee of one dollar and a housing trust fund fee of 19521
one dollar per page, size eight and one-half inches by fourteen 19522
inches, or fraction of a page; for each certification if the 19523
recorder's seal is required, except as to instruments issued by 19524
the armed forces of the United States, a base fee of fifty cents 19525
and a housing trust fund fee of fifty cents;19526

       (C) For manual or typewritten recording of assignment or 19527
satisfaction of mortgage or lease or any other marginal entry, a 19528
base fee of four dollars and a housing trust fund fee of four 19529
dollars;19530

       (D) For entering any marginal reference by separate recorded 19531
instrument, a base fee of two dollars and a housing trust fund fee 19532
of two dollars for each marginal reference set out in that 19533
instrument, in addition to the fees set forth in division (A)(1) 19534
of this section;19535

       (E) For indexing in the real estate mortgage records, 19536
pursuant to section 1309.519 of the Revised Code, financing 19537
statements covering crops growing or to be grown, timber to be 19538
cut, minerals or the like, including oil and gas, accounts subject 19539
to section 1309.301 of the Revised Code, or fixture filings made 19540
pursuant to section 1309.334 of the Revised Code, a base fee of 19541
two dollars and a housing trust fund fee of two dollars for each 19542
name indexed;19543

       (F) For recording manually any plat not exceeding six lines, 19544
a base fee of two dollars and a housing trust fund fee of two 19545
dollars, and for each additional line, a base fee of ten cents and 19546
a housing trust fund fee of ten cents;19547

       (G) For filing zoning resolutions, including text and maps, 19548
in the office of the recorder as required under sections 303.11 19549
and 519.11 of the Revised Code, a base fee of twenty-five dollars 19550
and a housing trust fund fee of twenty-five dollars, regardless of 19551
the size or length of the resolutions;19552

       (H) For filing zoning amendments, including text and maps, in 19553
the office of the recorder as required under sections 303.12 and 19554
519.12 of the Revised Code, a base fee of ten dollars and a 19555
housing trust fund fee of ten dollars regardless of the size or 19556
length of the amendments;19557

       (I) For photocopying a document, other than at the time of 19558
recording and indexing as provided for in division (A)(1) or (2) 19559
of this section, a base fee of one dollar and a housing trust fund 19560
fee of one dollar per page, size eight and one-half inches by 19561
fourteen inches, or fraction thereof;19562

       (J) For local facsimile transmission of a document, a base 19563
fee of one dollar and a housing trust fund fee of one dollar per 19564
page, size eight and one-half inches by fourteen inches, or 19565
fraction thereof; for long distance facsimile transmission of a 19566
document, a base fee of two dollars and a housing trust fund fee 19567
of two dollars per page, size eight and one-half inches by 19568
fourteen inches, or fraction thereof;19569

       (K) For recording a declaration executed pursuant to section 19570
2133.02 of the Revised Code or a durable power of attorney for 19571
health care executed pursuant to section 1337.12 of the Revised 19572
Code, or both a declaration and a durable power of attorney for 19573
health care, a base fee of at least fourteen dollars but not more 19574
than twenty dollars and a housing trust fund fee of at least 19575
fourteen dollars but not more than twenty dollars.19576

       In any county in which the recorder employs the photostatic 19577
or any similar process for recording maps, plats, or prints the 19578
recorder shall determine, charge, and collect for the recording or 19579
rerecording of any map, plat, or print, a base fee of five cents 19580
and a housing trust fund fee of five cents per square inch, for 19581
each square inch of the map, plat, or print filed for that 19582
recording or rerecording, with a minimum base fee of twenty 19583
dollars and a minimum housing trust fund fee of twenty dollars; 19584
for certifying a copy from the record, a base fee of two cents and 19585
a housing trust fund fee of two cents per square inch of the 19586
record, with a minimum base fee of two dollars and a minimum 19587
housing trust fund fee of two dollars.19588

       The fees provided in this section shall be paid upon the 19589
presentation of the instruments for record or upon the application 19590
for any certified copy of the record, except that the payment of 19591
fees associated with the filing and recording of, or the copying 19592
of, notices of internal revenue tax liens and notices of other 19593
liens in favor of the United States as described in division (A) 19594
of section 317.09 of the Revised Code and certificates of 19595
discharge or release of those liens, shall be governed by section 19596
317.09 of the Revised Code, and the payment of fees for providing 19597
copies of instruments conveying or extinguishing agricultural 19598
easements to the office of farmland preservation in the department 19599
of agriculture under division (H) of section 5301.691 of the 19600
Revised Code shall be governed by that division.19601

       Sec. 317.321.  (A) Not later than the first day of October of 19602
anyeach year, the county recorder may submit to the board of 19603
county commissioners a proposal for thefunding either or both of 19604
the following:19605

       (1) The acquisition orand maintenance of micrographic or19606
imaging and other technological equipment or for, and associated 19607
expenses and contract services or a proposal totherefor;19608

       (2) To reserve funds for the office's future equipment19609
technology needs if the county recorder has no immediate plans for 19610
the acquisition of imaging and other technological equipment or 19611
services. Either19612

       (B) The proposal shall be in writing and shall include at 19613
least the following:19614

       (1) A request that an amount not to exceed seveneight19615
dollars of the feetotal base fees or total fees collected for 19616
filing or recording a document for which a fee is charged as 19617
required by division (A)(1) of section 317.32 of the Revised Code19618
or by section 1309.525 or 5310.15 of the Revised Code, and the 19619
total amount of the fees collected under division (A)(2) of 19620
section 317.32 of the Revised Code, be placed in the county 19621
treasury andto the credit of the special fund designated as 19622
"general fund moneys to supplement the equipmenttechnology needs 19623
of the county recorder" for a period of one year from the date the 19624
proposal is approved;19625

       (2) The number of years, not to exceed five, for which the 19626
county recorder requests that the amount requested under division 19627
(A)(1) of this section be given the designation specified in that 19628
division;19629

       (3) An estimate of the total amount of fees that will be 19630
generated for filing or recording a document for which a fee is 19631
charged as required by division (A)(1) or (2) of section 317.32 of 19632
the Revised Code or by section 1309.525 or 5310.15 of the Revised 19633
Code;19634

       (4)(3) An estimate of the total amount of fees for filing or 19635
recording a document for which a fee is charged as required by 19636
division (A)(1) or (2) of section 317.32 of the Revised Code or by 19637
section 1309.525 or 5310.15 of the Revised Code that will be 19638
credited to the special fund designated as "general fund moneys to 19639
supplement the equipmenttechnology needs of the county recorder." 19640
if the request submitted under division (A)(1) of this section is 19641
approved by the board of county commissioners.19642

        A proposal for the acquisition or maintenance of micrographic 19643
or other equipment or for contract services mayshall include a 19644
description or summary of the micrographic orimaging and other 19645
technological equipment, or maintenance of the micrographic or 19646
other equipment, that the county recorder proposes to acquire and 19647
maintain, and the associated expenses therefor, or the nature of 19648
the contract services that the county recorder proposes to 19649
utilize, if the proposal is for those purposes. A proposal to 19650
reserve funds for the office's future equipmenttechnology needs 19651
if the county recorder has no immediate plans for the acquisition 19652
of imaging and other technological equipment or services shall 19653
explain the general needs of the office for equipment or services, 19654
if the proposal is for that purpose.19655

       (B)(C) The board of county commissioners shall receive either19656
the proposal and the clerk shall enter it on the journal. At the 19657
same time, the board shall establish a date, not sooner than 19658
fifteen or later than thirty days after the board's receipt of19659
board receives the proposal, on which to meet with the recorder to 19660
review the proposal.19661

       (C)(1)(D) Not later than the fifteenth day of December of any 19662
year in which a proposal for the acquisition or maintenance of 19663
micrographic or other equipment or for contract services is 19664
submitted under division (A) of this section, the board of county 19665
commissioners shall approve, reject, or modify the proposal and, 19666
if the proposal includes the estimates required by divisions 19667
(B)(2) and (3) of this section. Once the board approves the 19668
proposal, the board shall notify the county recorder of its action 19669
on the proposal. If the board rejects or modifies the proposal, it 19670
shall make a written finding that the request is for a purpose 19671
other than for acquiring, leasing, or otherwise obtaining 19672
micrographic or other equipment or contracts for use by the county 19673
recorder or that the amount requested for the acquisition or 19674
maintenance of micrographic or other equipment or for contract 19675
services is excessive as determined by the board. If the board 19676
approves the proposal, itand shall request the establishment of a 19677
special fund under section 5705.12 of the Revised Code for any 19678
fees designated as "general fund moneys to supplement the 19679
equipmenttechnology needs of the county recorder," in which the 19680
fees shall be deposited."19681

       (2) Not later than the fifteenth day of December of any year 19682
in which a proposal to reserve funds for the office's future 19683
equipment needs is submitted under division (A) of this section, 19684
the board of county commissioners shall approve the proposal, 19685
notify the county recorder of its action on the proposal, and 19686
request the establishment of a special fund under section 5705.12 19687
of the Revised Code for any fees designated as "general fund 19688
moneys to supplement the equipment needs of the county recorder."19689

       (D)(E) The acquisition orand maintenance of micrographic or19690
imaging and other technological equipment, and the acquisition of19691
associated expenses and contract services therefor, shall be 19692
specifically governed by sections 307.80 to 307.806, 307.84 to 19693
307.846, 307.86 to 307.92, and 5705.38, and by division (D) of 19694
section 5705.41 of the Revised Code.19695

       (F) Funding provided under this section does not diminish the 19696
duty of the board of county commissioners to provide funding for 19697
the expenses incurred by, and the personnel necessary for, the 19698
county recorder to perform the duties of office set forth in the 19699
Revised Code.19700

       Sec. 317.36. (A) The county recorder shall collect the low- 19701
and moderate-income housing trust fund fee as specified in 19702
sections 317.114, 317.32, 1563.42, 1702.59, 2505.13, 4141.23, 19703
4509.60, 5111.0225164.56, 5310.15, 5719.07, 5727.56, 5733.18, 19704
5733.22, 6101.09, and 6115.09 of the Revised Code. The amount of 19705
any housing trust fund fee the recorder is authorized to collect 19706
is equal to the amount of any base fee the recorder is authorized 19707
to collect for services. The housing trust fund fee shall be 19708
collected in addition to the base fee.19709

       (B) The recorder shall certify the amounts collected as 19710
housing trust fund fees pursuant to division (A) of this section 19711
into the county treasury as housing trust fund fees to be paid to 19712
the treasurer of state pursuant to section 319.63 of the Revised 19713
Code.19714

       Sec. 321.35.  Upon demand of the treasurer of state while 19715
holding a school district, county, township, or municipal 19716
corporation obligation purchased under division (G)(1) of section 19717
135.143 of the Revised Code, in making any payment under section 19718
321.31 or 321.34 of the Revised Code, the county auditor shall 19719
withhold funds of the school district, county, township, or 19720
municipal corporation in an amount sufficient to pay debt service 19721
charges on that obligation and any of the fee for the agreement to 19722
purchase that obligation, less any amount deposited for that 19723
purpose under division (D) of section 3317.18 of the Revised Code. 19724
The county auditor shall promptly pay to the treasurer of state 19725
the amount withheld.19726

       Sec. 321.44.  (A)(1) A county probation services fund shall 19727
be established in the county treasury of each county. The fund a 19728
county establishes under this division shall contain all moneys 19729
paid to the treasurer of the county under section 2951.021 of the 19730
Revised Code for deposit into the fund. The moneys paid into the 19731
fund shall be deposited by the treasurer of the county into the 19732
appropriate account established under divisions (A)(1)(a) to (d) 19733
of this section. Separate accounts shall be maintained in 19734
accordance with the following criteria in the fund a county 19735
establishes under this division:19736

       (a) If a county department of probation is established in the 19737
county, a separate account shall be maintained in the fund for the 19738
county department of probation.19739

       (b) If the judges of the court of common pleas of the county 19740
have affiliated with the judges of the court of common pleas of 19741
one or more other counties and have established a multicounty 19742
department of probation, a separate account shall be maintained in 19743
the fund for the multicounty department of probation.19744

       (c) If a department of probation is established in a 19745
county-operated municipal court that has jurisdiction within the 19746
county, a separate account shall be maintained in the fund for the 19747
municipal court department of probation.19748

       (d) If a county department of probation has not been 19749
established in the county and if the court of common pleas of the 19750
county, pursuant to section 2301.32 of the Revised Code, has 19751
entered into an agreement with the adult parole authority under 19752
which the court may place defendants under a community control 19753
sanction in charge of the authority, a separate account shall be 19754
maintained in the fund for the court of common pleas.19755

       (2) For any county, if a county department of probation is 19756
established in the county or if a department of probation is 19757
established in a county-operated municipal court that has 19758
jurisdiction within the county, the board of county commissioners 19759
of the county shall appropriate to the county department of 19760
probation or municipal court department of probation all money 19761
that is contained in the department's account in the county 19762
probation services fund established in the county for use only for 19763
specialized staff, purchase of equipment, purchase of services, 19764
reconciliation programs for offenders and victims, other treatment 19765
programs, including alcohol and drugcommunity addiction programs19766
services providers certified under section 3793.065119.36 of the 19767
Revised Code, determined to be appropriate by the chief probation 19768
officer of the department of probation, and other similar expenses 19769
related to placing offenders under a community control sanction.19770

       For any county, if the judges of the court of common pleas of 19771
the county have affiliated with the judges of the court of common 19772
pleas of one or more other counties and have established a 19773
multicounty department of probation to serve the counties, the 19774
board of county commissioners of the county shall appropriate and 19775
the county treasurer shall transfer to the multicounty probation 19776
services fund established for the multicounty department of 19777
probation under division (B) of this section all money that is 19778
contained in the multicounty department of probation account in 19779
the county probation services fund established in the county for 19780
use in accordance with that division.19781

       For any county, if a county department of probation has not 19782
been established in the county and if the court of common pleas of 19783
the county, pursuant to section 2301.32 of the Revised Code, has 19784
entered into an agreement with the adult parole authority under 19785
which the court may place defendants under a community control 19786
sanction in charge of the authority, the board of county 19787
commissioners of the county shall appropriate to the court all 19788
money that is contained in the court's account in the county 19789
probation services fund established in the county for use only for 19790
specialized staff, purchase of equipment, purchase of services, 19791
reconciliation programs for offenders and victims, other treatment 19792
and recovery support services, including properly credentialed 19793
treatment and recovery support services program providers or those 19794
certified under section 3793.065119.36 of the Revised Code, 19795
determined to be appropriate by the authority, and other similar 19796
uses related to placing offenders under a community control 19797
sanction.19798

       (B) If the judges of the courts of common pleas of two or 19799
more counties have established a multicounty department of 19800
probation, a multicounty probation services fund shall be 19801
established in the county treasury of the county whose treasurer, 19802
in accordance with section 2301.27 of the Revised Code, is 19803
designated by the judges of the courts of common pleas as the 19804
treasurer to whom monthly supervision fees are to be appropriated 19805
and transferred under division (A)(2) of this section for deposit 19806
into the fund. The fund shall contain all moneys that are paid to 19807
the treasurer of any member county under section 2951.021 of the 19808
Revised Code for deposit into the county's probation services fund 19809
and that subsequently are appropriated and transferred to the 19810
multicounty probation services fund under division (A)(2) of this 19811
section. The board of county commissioners of the county in which 19812
the multicounty probation services fund is established shall 19813
appropriate the money contained in that fund to the multicounty 19814
department of probation, for use only for specialized staff, 19815
purchase of equipment, purchase of services, reconciliation 19816
programs for offenders and victims, other treatment programs, 19817
including alcohol and drugcommunity addiction programsservices 19818
providers certified under section 3793.065119.36 of the Revised 19819
Code, determined to be appropriate by the chief probation officer, 19820
and for other similar expenses related to placing offenders under 19821
a community control sanction.19822

       (C) Any money in a county or multicounty probation services 19823
fund at the end of a fiscal year shall not revert to the general 19824
fund of the county but shall be retained in the fund.19825

       (D) As used in this section:19826

       (1) "County-operated municipal court" has the same meaning as 19827
in section 1901.03 of the Revised Code.19828

       (2) "Multicounty department of probation" means a probation 19829
department established under section 2301.27 of the Revised Code 19830
to serve more than one county.19831

       (3) "Community control sanction" has the same meaning as in 19832
section 2929.01 of the Revised Code.19833

       Sec. 329.04.  (A) The county department of job and family 19834
services shall have, exercise, and perform the following powers 19835
and duties:19836

       (1) Perform any duties assigned by the state department of 19837
job and family services or department of medicaid regarding the 19838
provision of public family services, including the provision of 19839
the following services to prevent or reduce economic or personal 19840
dependency and to strengthen family life:19841

       (a) Services authorized by a Title IV-A program, as defined 19842
in section 5101.80 of the Revised Code;19843

       (b) Social services authorized by Title XX of the "Social 19844
Security Act" and provided for by section 5101.46 or 5101.461 of 19845
the Revised Code;19846

       (c) If the county department is designated as the child 19847
support enforcement agency, services authorized by Title IV-D of 19848
the "Social Security Act" and provided for by Chapter 3125. of the 19849
Revised Code. The county department may perform the services 19850
itself or contract with other government entities, and, pursuant 19851
to division (C) of section 2301.35 and section 2301.42 of the 19852
Revised Code, private entities, to perform the Title IV-D 19853
services.19854

       (d) Duties assigned under section 5111.985162.031 of the 19855
Revised Code.19856

       (2) Administer disability financial assistance, as required 19857
by the state department of job and family services under section 19858
5115.03 of the Revised Code;19859

       (3) Administer burials insofar as the administration of 19860
burials was, prior to September 12, 1947, imposed upon the board 19861
of county commissioners and if otherwise required by state law;19862

       (4) Cooperate with state and federal authorities in any 19863
matter relating to family services and to act as the agent of such 19864
authorities;19865

       (5) Submit an annual account of its work and expenses to the 19866
board of county commissioners and to the state department of job 19867
and family services and department of medicaid at the close of 19868
each fiscal year;19869

       (6) Exercise any powers and duties relating to family 19870
services duties or workforce development activities imposed upon 19871
the county department of job and family services by law, by 19872
resolution of the board of county commissioners, or by order of 19873
the governor, when authorized by law, to meet emergencies during 19874
war or peace;19875

       (7) Determine the eligibility for medical assistance of 19876
recipients of aid under Title XVI of the "Social Security Act";19877

       (8) If assigned by the state director of job and family 19878
services under section 5101.515 or 5101.525 of the Revised Code, 19879
determine applicants' eligibility for health assistance under the 19880
children's health insurance program part II or part III;19881

       (9) Enter into a plan of cooperation with the board of county 19882
commissioners under section 307.983, consult with the board in the 19883
development of the transportation work plan developed under 19884
section 307.985, establish with the board procedures under section 19885
307.986 for providing services to children whose families relocate 19886
frequently, and comply with the contracts the board enters into 19887
under sections 307.981 and 307.982 of the Revised Code that affect 19888
the county department;19889

       (10)(8) For the purpose of complying with a grant agreement 19890
the board of county commissioners enters into under sections 19891
307.98 and 5101.21 of the Revised Code, exercise the powers and 19892
perform the duties the grant agreement assigns to the county 19893
department;19894

       (11)(9) If the county department is designated as the 19895
workforce development agency, provide the workforce development 19896
activities specified in the contract required by section 330.05 of 19897
the Revised Code.19898

       (B) The powers and duties of a county department of job and 19899
family services are, and shall be exercised and performed, under 19900
the control and direction of the board of county commissioners. 19901
The board may assign to the county department any power or duty of 19902
the board regarding family services duties and workforce 19903
development activities. If the new power or duty necessitates the 19904
state department of job and family services or department of 19905
medicaid changing its federal cost allocation plan, the county 19906
department may not implement the power or duty unless the United 19907
States department of health and human services approves the 19908
changes.19909

       Sec. 329.051.  The county department of job and family 19910
services shall make voter registration applications as prescribed 19911
by the secretary of state under section 3503.10 of the Revised 19912
Code available to persons who are applying for, receiving 19913
assistance from, or participating in any of the following:19914

       (A) The disability financial assistance program established 19915
under Chapter 5115. of the Revised Code;19916

       (B) The medical assistancemedicaid program established under 19917
Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code;19918

       (C) The Ohio works first program established under Chapter 19919
5107. of the Revised Code;19920

       (D) The prevention, retention, and contingency program 19921
established under Chapter 5108. of the Revised Code.19922

       Sec. 329.06.  (A) Except as provided in division (C) of this 19923
section and section 6301.08 of the Revised Code, the board of 19924
county commissioners shall establish a county family services 19925
planning committee. The board shall appoint a member to represent 19926
the county department of job and family services; an employee in 19927
the classified civil service of the county department of job and 19928
family services, if there are any such employees; and a member to 19929
represent the public. The board shall appoint other individuals to 19930
the committee in such a manner that the committee's membership is 19931
broadly representative of the groups of individuals and the public 19932
and private entities that have an interest in the family services 19933
provided in the county. The board shall make appointments in a 19934
manner that reflects the ethnic and racial composition of the 19935
county. The following groups and entities may be represented on 19936
the committee:19937

       (1) Consumers of family services;19938

       (2) The public children services agency;19939

       (3) The child support enforcement agency;19940

       (4) The county family and children first council;19941

       (5) Public and private colleges and universities;19942

       (6) Public entities that provide family services, including 19943
boards of health, boards of education, the county board of 19944
developmental disabilities, and the board of alcohol, drug 19945
addiction, and mental health services that serves the county;19946

       (7) Private nonprofit and for-profit entities that provide 19947
family services in the county or that advocate for consumers of 19948
family services in the county, including entities that provide 19949
services to or advocate for victims of domestic violence;19950

       (8) Labor organizations;19951

       (9) Any other group or entity that has an interest in the 19952
family services provided in the county, including groups or 19953
entities that represent any of the county's business, urban, and 19954
rural sectors.19955

       (B) The county family services planning committee shall do 19956
all of the following:19957

       (1) Serve as an advisory body to the board of county 19958
commissioners with regard to the family services provided in the 19959
county, including assistance under Chapters 5107. and 5108. of the 19960
Revised Code, publicly funded child care under Chapter 5104. of 19961
the Revised Code, and social services provided under section 19962
5101.46 of the Revised Code;19963

       (2) At least once a year, review and analyze the county 19964
department of job and family services' implementation of the 19965
programs established under Chapters 5107. and 5108. of the Revised 19966
Code. In its review, the committee shall use information available 19967
to it to examine all of the following:19968

       (a) Return of assistance groups to participation in either 19969
program after ceasing to participate;19970

       (b) Teen pregnancy rates among the programs' participants;19971

       (c) The other types of assistance the programs' participants 19972
receive, including medicaid under Chapter 5111. of the Revised 19973
Code, publicly funded child care under Chapter 5104. of the 19974
Revised Code, supplemental nutrition assistance program benefits 19975
under section 5101.54 of the Revised Code, and energy assistance 19976
under Chapter 5117. of the Revised Code;19977

       (d) Other issues the committee considers appropriate.19978

       The committee shall make recommendations to the board of 19979
county commissioners and county department of job and family 19980
services regarding the committee's findings.19981

       (3) Conduct public hearings on proposed county profiles for 19982
the provision of social services under section 5101.46 of the 19983
Revised Code;19984

       (4) At the request of the board, make recommendations and 19985
provide assistance regarding the family services provided in the 19986
county;19987

       (5) At any other time the committee considers appropriate, 19988
consult with the board and make recommendations regarding the 19989
family services provided in the county. The committee's 19990
recommendations may address the following:19991

       (a) Implementation and administration of family service 19992
programs;19993

       (b) Use of federal, state, and local funds available for 19994
family service programs;19995

       (c) Establishment of goals to be achieved by family service 19996
programs;19997

       (d) Evaluation of the outcomes of family service programs;19998

       (e) Any other matter the board considers relevant to the 19999
provision of family services.20000

       (C) If there is a committee in existence in a county on 20001
October 1, 1997, that the board of county commissioners determines 20002
is capable of fulfilling the responsibilities of a county family 20003
services planning committee, the board may designate the committee 20004
as the county's family services planning committee and the 20005
committee shall serve in that capacity.20006

       Sec. 329.14.  (A) An individual whose household income does 20007
not exceed two hundred per cent of the federal poverty line is 20008
eligible to participate in an individual development account 20009
program established by the county department of job and family 20010
services of the county in which the individual resides. An 20011
eligible individual seeking to be a participant in the program 20012
shall enter into an agreement with the fiduciary organization 20013
administering the program. The agreement shall specify the terms 20014
and conditions of uses of funds deposited, financial documentation 20015
required to be maintained by the participant, expectations and 20016
responsibilities of the participant, and services to be provided 20017
by the fiduciary organization.20018

       (B) A participant may deposit earned income, as defined in 26 20019
U.S.C. 911(d)(2), as amended, into the account. The fiduciary 20020
organization may deposit into the account an amount not exceeding 20021
four times the amount deposited by the participant except that a 20022
fiduciary organization may not, pursuant to an agreement with an 20023
employer, deposit an amount into an account held by a participant 20024
who is employed by the employer. An account may have no more than 20025
ten thousand dollars in it at any time.20026

       (C) Notwithstanding eligibility requirements established in 20027
or pursuant to Chapter 5107.,or 5108., or 5111. of the Revised 20028
Code, to the extent permitted by federal statutes and regulations, 20029
money in an individual development account, including interest, is 20030
exempt from consideration in determining whether the participant 20031
or a member of the participant's assistance group is eligible for 20032
assistance under Chapter 5107.,or 5108., or 5111. of the Revised 20033
Code and the amount of assistance the participant or assistance 20034
group is eligible to receive.20035

       (D)(1) Except as provided in division (D)(2) of this section, 20036
an individual development account program participant may use 20037
money in the account only for the following purposes:20038

       (a) Postsecondary educational expenses paid directly from the 20039
account to an eligible education institution or vendor;20040

       (b) Qualified acquisition expenses of a principal residence, 20041
as defined in 26 U.S.C. 1034, as amended, paid directly from the 20042
account to the person or government entity to which the expenses 20043
are due;20044

       (c) Qualified business capitalization expenses made in 20045
accordance with a qualified business plan that has been approved 20046
by a financial institution or by a nonprofit microenterprise 20047
program having demonstrated business expertise and paid directly 20048
from the account to the person to whom the expenses are due.20049

       (2) A fiduciary organization shall permit a participant to 20050
withdraw money deposited by the participant if it is needed to 20051
deal with a personal emergency of the participant or a member of 20052
the participant's family or household. Withdrawal shall result in 20053
the loss of any matching funds in an amount equal to the amount of 20054
the withdrawal.20055

       (3) Regardless of the reason for the withdrawal, a withdrawal 20056
from an individual development account may be made only with the 20057
approval of the fiduciary organization.20058

       Sec. 339.02.  (A) As used in this section, "area served by 20059
the hospital" means the geographic area, whether or not included 20060
within the county, from which a county hospital regularly draws 20061
patients.20062

       (B) Unless a board of county hospital trustees for the county 20063
is in existence in accordance with this section, such board shall 20064
be created pursuant to this section after the board of county 20065
commissioners first determines by resolution to establish a county 20066
hospital. Copies of such resolution shall be certified to the 20067
probate judge of the county senior in point of service and to the 20068
judge, other than a probate judge, of the court of common pleas of 20069
the county senior in point of service. The board of county 20070
commissioners together with the probate judge of the county senior 20071
in point of service and the judge of the court of common pleas of 20072
the county senior in point of service shall, within ten days after 20073
such certification, appoint a board of county hospital trustees.20074

        (C) In making appointments to a board of county hospital 20075
trustees, allboth of the following apply with respect to the 20076
individuals who may be appointed:20077

       (1) Members shall be electors and representative of the area 20078
served by the hospital, except that not more than two members may 20079
be electors of the area served by the hospital that is outside the 20080
county in which the hospital is located.20081

       (2) In no case shall more than one-half of the members be 20082
independents or be members of any one political party.20083

       (3) A physician may serve as a member, including a physician 20084
who is authorized to admit and treat patients at the hospital, 20085
except as follows:20086

       (a) Not more than two physicians may serve as members at the 20087
same time;20088

       (b) No physician who is employed by the hospital may serve as 20089
a member.20090

       (D) A board of county hospital trustees shall be composed of 20091
six members, unless the board of county commissioners determines 20092
that the board of trustees can more effectively function with 20093
eight or ten members in which case there may be eight or ten 20094
members, as designated by the board of county commissioners.20095

       (E) With respect to the initial appointment of members to a 20096
board of county hospital trustees, all of the following apply:20097

       (1) When the board is composed of six members, their terms of 20098
office shall be one for one year, one for two years, one for three 20099
years, one for four years, one for five years, and one for six 20100
years from the first Monday of March thereafter.20101

       (2) When the board is composed of eight members, their terms 20102
of office shall be one for one year, one for two years, two for 20103
three years, one for four years, one for five years, and two for 20104
six years from the first Monday of March thereafter.20105

       (3) When the board is composed of ten members, their terms of 20106
office shall be two for one year, one for two years, two for three 20107
years, two for four years, one for five years, and two for six 20108
years from the first Monday of March thereafter.20109

       (F) Except as provided in division (G)(2) of this section, 20110
all of the following apply with respect to vacancies on a board of 20111
county hospital trustees:20112

       (1) Annually, on the first Monday of March, the board of 20113
county commissioners together with the probate judge of the county 20114
senior in point of service and the judge of the court of common 20115
pleas of the county senior in point of service shall appoint or 20116
reappoint for a term of six years a sufficient number of members 20117
to replace those members whose terms have expired.20118

       (2) The appointing authority shall fill a vacancy not later 20119
than six months after the vacancy occurs. If the vacancy remains 20120
unfilled on that date, the remaining members of the board, by 20121
majority vote, shall appoint an individual to fill the vacancy.20122

       (3) The appointing authority may fill a vacancy by seeking 20123
nominations from a selection committee consisting of one county 20124
commissioner designated by the board of county commissioners, the 20125
chair of the board of county hospital trustees, and the county 20126
hospital administrator. If nominations for filling a vacancy are 20127
sought from a selection committee, the committee shall nominate at 20128
least three individuals for the vacancy. The appointing authority 20129
may fill the vacancy by appointing one of the nominated 20130
individuals or by appointing another individual selected by the 20131
appointing authority.20132

       (4) Any member appointed to fill a vacancy occurring prior to 20133
the expiration date of the term for which the member's predecessor 20134
was appointed shall hold office as a member for the remainder of 20135
that term.20136

       (G)(1) The board of county commissioners together with the 20137
probate judge senior in point of service and the judge of the 20138
court of common pleas senior in point of service in any county in 20139
which a board of county hospital trustees has been appointed may 20140
expand the number of members to eight or to ten. When the number 20141
of members is increased to eight, one shall be appointed for a 20142
three-year and one for a six-year term from the first Monday of 20143
March thereafter. When the number of members is increased from six 20144
to ten, the term for additional members shall be: one for one 20145
year, one for three years, one for four years, and one for six 20146
years from the first Monday of March thereafter. When the number 20147
of members is increased from eight to ten, the term for additional 20148
members shall be: one for one year and one for four years from the 20149
first Monday of March thereafter. Thereafter except as provided in 20150
division (G)(2) of this section, upon the expiration of the term 20151
of office of each member, the vacancy shall be filled in the 20152
manner specified in division (F) of this section.20153

       (2) The board of county commissioners together with the 20154
probate judge senior in point of service and the judge of the 20155
court of common pleas senior in point of service may reduce the 20156
number of members of a board of county hospital trustees to eight 20157
or to six. The reduction shall occur on expiration of a member's 20158
term of office, at which time no appointment shall be made. While 20159
the board of county commissioners and the judges are in the 20160
process of reducing the number of members, the board of county 20161
hospital trustees may consist of nine or seven members for one 20162
year.20163

       (H) Any member of a board of county hospital trustees may be 20164
removed from office by the appointing authority for neglect of 20165
duty, misconduct, or malfeasance in office. The member shall be 20166
informed in writing of the charges and afforded an opportunity for 20167
a hearing before the appointing authority. The appointing 20168
authority shall not remove a member from office for political 20169
reasons.20170

       (I) The board of county commissioners may provide members of 20171
a board of county hospital trustees shalla stipend for their 20172
service or require the members to serve without compensation, but. 20173
The members shall be allowed their necessary and reasonable 20174
expenses incurred in the performance of their duties, including 20175
the cost of their participation in any continuing education 20176
programs or developmental programs that the members consider 20177
necessary. Allowable stipends and expenses shall be paid out of 20178
the funds provided for the county hospital.20179

        (J) The persons selected to be members of a board of county 20180
hospital trustees shall forthwith be notified, by mail, of their 20181
appointment. When a board is initially appointed, the notice shall 20182
state a time, not more than ten days later, when such board shall 20183
meet at the county seat of such county to organize. On the date 20184
stated, the board shall meet and organize.20185

       (K) A board of county hospital trustees shall organize by 20186
electing one of its number as chairperson and such other officers 20187
as specified in the board's rules. Four members of a six-member 20188
board constitute a quorum, five members constitute a quorum of an 20189
eight-member board, and six members constitute a quorum of a 20190
ten-member board.20191

        A board of county hospital trustees shall hold meetings at 20192
least once a monthquarterly, shall adopt necessary rules of 20193
procedure, and shall keep a record of its proceedings and a strict 20194
account of all its receipts, disbursements, and expenditures. On 20195
completion of the construction and equipping of a county hospital, 20196
the board shall file such account with the board of county 20197
commissioners and make final settlement with the board of county 20198
commissioners for the construction and equipping of the hospital.20199

       Sec. 339.05. (A) A board of county hospital trustees may 20200
adopt, annually, bidding procedures and purchasing or leasing20201
policies for services provided through a joint purchasing 20202
arrangement sponsored by a nonprofit organization, and for 20203
services, supplies, and equipment, that are routinely used in the 20204
operation of the hospital and that cost in excess of the amount 20205
specified in section 307.86 of the Revised Code as the amount 20206
above which purchases must be competitively bid. If a board of 20207
county hospital trustees adopts those policies and procedures, and 20208
if the board of county commissioners approves them, the board of 20209
county hospital trustees may follow those policies and procedures 20210
in lieu of following the competitive bidding procedures of 20211
sections 307.86 to 307.92 of the Revised Code.20212

       (B) Notwithstanding section 307.86 of the Revised Code, the 20213
board of county hospital trustees is exempt from competitive 20214
bidding as required under that section if the board, by a 20215
unanimous vote of its members, makes a determination that a real 20216
and present emergency exists, and either of the following applies:20217

       (1) The estimated cost is less than one hundred thousand 20218
dollars.20219

       (2) There is actual physical damage to structures or 20220
equipment.20221

       The board shall enter the determination of emergency and the 20222
reasons for it in the minutes of its proceedings.20223

       For purposes of this section, a vote is unanimous if all 20224
members of a board of county hospital trustees are present, or a 20225
lesser number of members of the board if not all members are 20226
present, provided that the number of members present constitutes a 20227
quorum.20228

       Whenever a contract of purchase, lease, or construction is 20229
exempted from competitive bidding because the estimated cost is 20230
less than one hundred thousand dollars, but the estimated cost is 20231
fifty thousand dollars or more, the board shall solicit informal 20232
estimates from not fewer than three persons who could perform the 20233
contract, before awarding the contract. With regard to each such 20234
contract, the board shall maintain a record of the informal 20235
estimates, including the name of each person from whom an informal 20236
estimate was solicited. The board shall maintain the record for 20237
the longer of at least one year after the contract is awarded or 20238
an amount of time required by the federal government.20239

       Sec. 339.06.  (A) The board of county hospital trustees, upon 20240
completion of construction or leasing and equipping of a county 20241
hospital, shall assume and continue the operation of the hospital. 20242

       (B) The board of county hospital trustees shall have the 20243
entire management and control of the county hospital. The board 20244
may in writing delegate its management and control of the county 20245
hospital to the administrator of the county hospital employed 20246
under section 339.07 of the Revised Code. The board shall 20247
establish such rules for the hospital's government, management, 20248
control, and the admission of persons as are expedient.20249

        (C) The board of county hospital trustees has control of the 20250
property of the county hospital, including management and disposal 20251
of surplus property other than real estate or an interest in real 20252
estate.20253

       (D) With respect to the use of funds by the board of county 20254
hospital trustees and its accounting for the use of funds, all of 20255
the following apply:20256

       (1) The board of county hospital trustees has control of all 20257
funds used in the county hospital's operation, including moneys 20258
received from the operation of the hospital, moneys appropriated 20259
for its operation by the board of county commissioners, and moneys 20260
resulting from special levies submitted by the board of county 20261
commissioners as provided for in section 5705.22 of the Revised 20262
Code. 20263

       (2) Of the funds used in the county hospital's operation, all 20264
or part of any amount determined not to be necessary to meet 20265
current demands on the hospital may be invested by the board of 20266
county hospital trustees or its designee in any classifications of 20267
securities and obligations eligible for deposit or investment of 20268
county moneys pursuant to section 135.35 of the Revised Code, 20269
subject to the approval of the board's written investment policy 20270
by the county investment advisory committee established pursuant 20271
to section 135.341 of the Revised Code.20272

       (3) Annually, not later than sixty days before the end of the 20273
fiscal year used by the county hospital, the board of county 20274
hospital trustees shall submit its proposed budget for the ensuing 20275
fiscal year to the board of county commissioners for that board's 20276
review. The board of county commissioners shall review and approve 20277
the proposed budget by the first day of the fiscal year to which 20278
the budget applies. If the board of county commissioners has not 20279
approved the budget by the first day of the fiscal year to which 20280
the budget applies, the budget is deemed to have been approved by 20281
the board on the first day of that fiscal year.20282

       (4) The board of county hospital trustees shall not expend 20283
funds received from taxes collected pursuant to any tax levied 20284
under section 5705.22 of the Revised Code or the amount 20285
appropriated to the county hospital by the board of county 20286
commissioners in the annual appropriation measure for the county 20287
until its budget for the applicable fiscal year is approved in 20288
accordance with division (C)(3) of this section. At any time the 20289
amount received from those sources differs from the amount shown 20290
in the approved budget, the board of county commissioners may 20291
require the board of county hospital trustees to revise the county 20292
hospital budget accordingly. 20293

       (5) Funds under the control of the board of county hospital 20294
trustees may be disbursed by the board, consistent with the 20295
approved budget, for the uses and purposes of the county hospital; 20296
for the replacement of necessary equipment; for the acquisition, 20297
leasing, or construction of permanent improvements to county 20298
hospital property; or for making a donation authorized by division 20299
(E) of this section. Each disbursement of funds shall be made on a 20300
voucher signed by signatories designated and approved by the board 20301
of county hospital trustees.20302

       (6) The head of a board of county hospital trustees is not 20303
required to file an estimate of contemplated revenue and 20304
expenditures for the ensuing fiscal year under section 5705.28 of 20305
the Revised Code unless the board of county commissioners levies a 20306
tax for the county hospital, or such a tax is proposed, or the 20307
board of county hospital trustees desires that the board of county 20308
commissioners make an appropriation to the county hospital for the 20309
ensuing fiscal year.20310

       (7) All moneys appropriated by the board of county 20311
commissioners or from special levies by the board of county 20312
commissioners for the operation of the hospital, when collected 20313
shall be paid to the board of county hospital trustees on a 20314
warrant of the county auditor and approved by the board of county 20315
commissioners. 20316

       (8) The board of county hospital trustees shall provide for 20317
the conduct of an annual financial audit of the county hospital. 20318
Not later than thirty days after it receives the final report of 20319
an annual financial audit, the board shall file a copy of the 20320
report with the board of county commissioners.20321

       (E) For the public purpose of improving the health, safety, 20322
and general welfare of the community, the board of county hospital 20323
trustees may donate to a nonprofit entity any of the following:20324

       (1) Moneys and other financial assets determined not to be 20325
necessary to meet current demands on the hospital;20326

       (2) Surplus hospital property, including supplies, equipment, 20327
office facilities, and other property that is not real estate or 20328
an interest in real estate;20329

       (3) Services rendered by the hospital.20330

       (F)(1) For purposes of division (F)(2) of this section:20331

       (a) "Bank" has the same meaning as in section 1101.01 of the 20332
Revised Code.20333

       (b) "Savings and loan association" has the same meaning as in 20334
section 1151.01 of the Revised Code.20335

       (c) "Savings bank" has the same meaning as in section 1161.01 20336
of the Revised Code.20337

       (2) The board of county hospital trustees may enter into a 20338
contract for a secured line of credit with a bank, savings and 20339
loan association, or savings bank if the contract meets all of the 20340
following requirements:20341

       (a) The term of the contract does not exceed one year, except 20342
that the contract may provide for the automatic renewal of the 20343
contract for up to four additional one-year periods if, on the 20344
date of automatic renewal, the aggregate outstanding draws 20345
remaining unpaid under the secured line of credit do not exceed 20346
fifty per cent of the maximum amount that can be drawn under the 20347
secured line of credit.20348

       (b) The contract provides that the bank, savings and loan 20349
association, or savings bank shall not commence a civil action 20350
against the board of county commissioners, any member of the 20351
board, or the county to recover the principal, interest, or any 20352
charges or other amounts that remain outstanding on the secured 20353
line of credit at the time of any default by the board of county 20354
hospital trustees.20355

       (c) The contract provides that no assets other than those of 20356
the county hospital can be used to secure the line of credit.20357

       (d) The terms and conditions of the contract comply with all 20358
state and federal statutes and rules governing the extension of a 20359
secured line of credit.20360

       (3) Any obligation incurred by a board of county hospital 20361
trustees under division (F)(2) of this section is an obligation of 20362
that board only and not a general obligation of the board of 20363
county commissioners or the county within the meaning of division 20364
(Q) of section 133.01 of the Revised Code.20365

       (4) Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in the Revised 20366
Code, the board of county hospital trustees may secure the line of 20367
credit authorized under division (F)(2) of this section by the 20368
grant of a security interest in any part or all of its tangible 20369
personal property and intangible personal property, including its 20370
deposit accounts, accounts receivable, or both.20371

       (5) No board of county hospital trustees shall at any time 20372
have more than one secured line of credit under division (F)(2) of 20373
this section.20374

       (G) The board of county hospital trustees shall establish a 20375
schedule of charges for all services and treatment rendered by the 20376
county hospital. It may provide for the free treatment in the 20377
hospital of soldiers, sailors, and marines of the county, under 20378
such conditions and rules as it prescribes.20379

       (H) The board of county hospital trustees may designate the 20380
amounts and forms of insurance protection to be provided, and the 20381
board of county commissioners shall assist in obtaining such 20382
protection. The expense of providing the protection shall be paid 20383
from hospital operating funds.20384

       (I) The board of county hospital trustees may authorize a 20385
county hospital and each of its units, hospital board members, 20386
designated hospital employees, and medical staff members to be a 20387
member of and maintain membership in any local, state, or national 20388
group or association organized and operated for the promotion of 20389
the public health and welfare or advancement of the efficiency of 20390
hospital administration and in connection therewith to use tax 20391
funds for the payment of dues and fees and related expenses but 20392
nothing in this section prohibits the board from using receipts 20393
from hospital operation, other than tax funds, for the payment of 20394
such dues and fees.20395

       (J) The following apply to the board of county hospital 20396
trustees in relation to its employees and the employees of the 20397
county hospital:20398

       (1) The board shall adopt the wage and salary schedule for 20399
employees.20400

       (2) The board may employ the hospital's administrator 20401
pursuant to section 339.07 of the Revised Code, and the 20402
administrator may employ individuals for the hospital in 20403
accordance with that section.20404

       (3) The board may employ assistants as necessary to perform 20405
its clerical work, superintend properly the construction of the 20406
county hospital, and pay the hospital's expenses. Such employees 20407
may be paid from funds provided for the county hospital.20408

       (4) The board may hire, by contract or as salaried employees, 20409
such management consultants, accountants, attorneys, engineers, 20410
architects, construction managers, and other professional advisors 20411
as it determines are necessary and desirable to assist in the 20412
management of the programs and operation of the county hospital. 20413
Such professional advisors may be paid from county hospital 20414
operating funds.20415

       (5) Notwithstanding section 325.19 of the Revised Code, the 20416
board may grant to employees any fringe benefits the board 20417
determines to be customary and usual in the nonprofit hospital 20418
field in its community, including, but not limited to:20419

       (a) Additional vacation leave with full pay for full-time 20420
employees, including full-time hourly rate employees, after 20421
service of one year;20422

       (b) Vacation leave and holiday pay for part-time employees on 20423
a pro rata basis;20424

       (c) Leave with full pay due to death in the employee's 20425
immediate family, which shall not be deducted from the employee's 20426
accumulated sick leave;20427

       (d) Premium pay for working on holidays listed in section 20428
325.19 of the Revised Code;20429

       (e) Moving expenses for new employees;20430

       (f) Discounts on hospital supplies and services.20431

       (6) The board may provide holiday leave by observing Martin 20432
Luther King day, Washington-Lincoln day, Columbus day, and 20433
Veterans' day on days other than those specified in section 1.14 20434
of the Revised Code.20435

       (7) The board may grant to employees the insurance benefits 20436
authorized by section 339.16 of the Revised Code.20437

       (8) Notwithstanding section 325.19 of the Revised Code, the 20438
board may grant to employees, including hourly rate employees, 20439
such personal holidays as the board determines to be customary and 20440
usual in the hospital field in its community.20441

       (9) The board may provide employee recognition awards and 20442
hold employee recognition dinners.20443

       (10) The board may grant to employees the recruitment and 20444
retention benefits specified under division (K) of this section.20445

       (K) Notwithstanding sections 325.191 and 325.20 of the 20446
Revised Code, the board of county hospital trustees may provide, 20447
without the prior authorization of the board of county 20448
commissioners, scholarships for education in the health care 20449
professions, tuition reimbursement, and other staff development 20450
programs to enhance the skills of health care professionals for 20451
the purpose of recruiting or retaining qualified employees.20452

       The board of county hospital trustees may pay reasonable 20453
expenses for recruiting or retaining physicians and other 20454
appropriate health care practitioners.20455

       (L) The board of county hospital trustees may retain counsel 20456
and institute legal action in its own name for the collection of 20457
delinquent accounts. The board may also employ any other lawful 20458
means for the collection of delinquent accounts.20459

       Sec. 339.07.  (A) The board of county hospital trustees shall 20460
provide for the administration of the county hospital by directly 20461
employing a hospital administrator or by entering into a contract 20462
for the management of the hospital under which an administrator is 20463
provided. When an administrator is employed directly, the board 20464
shall adopt a job description delineating the administrator's 20465
powers and duties and the board may pay the administrator's salary 20466
and other benefits from funds provided for the hospital. 20467

       (B) During the construction and equipping of the hospital, 20468
the administrator shall act in an advisory capacity to the board 20469
of county hospital trustees. After the hospital is completed, the 20470
administrator shall serve as the chief executive officer and shall 20471
carry out the administration of the county hospital according to 20472
the policies set forth by the board and any written delegation.20473

       The administrator shall administer the county hospital, make 20474
reports, and take any other action that the administrator 20475
determines is necessary for the operation of the hospital.20476

       At the end of each fiscal year, the administrator shall 20477
submit to the board a complete financial statement showing the 20478
receipts, revenues, and expenditures in detail for the entire 20479
fiscal year.20480

       The administrator shall ensure that the hospital has such 20481
physicians, nurses, and other employees as are necessary for the 20482
proper care, control, and management of the county hospital and 20483
its patients. The physicians, nurses, and other employees may be 20484
suspended or removed by the administrator at any time the welfare 20485
of the hospital warrants suspension or removal. The administrator 20486
may obtain physicians, nurses, and other employees by direct 20487
employment, entering into contracts, or granting authority to 20488
practice in the hospital. Persons employed directly shall be in 20489
the unclassified civil service, pursuant to section 124.11 of the 20490
Revised Code.20491

       Sec. 340.01.  (A) As used in this chapter, "addiction," 20492
"addiction services," "alcohol and drug addiction services," and20493
"community addiction services provider," "community mental health 20494
services provider," "alcohol and drug addiction programsgambling 20495
addiction services," "mental health services," and "mental 20496
illness" have the same meanings as in section 3793.015119.01 of 20497
the Revised Code.20498

       (B) An alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health service 20499
district shall be established in any county or combination of 20500
counties having a population of at least fifty thousand to provide 20501
alcohol and drug addiction services and mental health services. 20502
With the approval of the directorsdirector of mental health and 20503
alcohol and drug addiction servicesmental health and addiction 20504
services, any county or combination of counties having a 20505
population of less than fifty thousand may establish such a 20506
district. Districts comprising more than one county shall be known 20507
as joint-county districts.20508

       The board of county commissioners of any county participating 20509
in a joint-county district may submit a resolution requesting 20510
withdrawal from the district together with a comprehensive plan or 20511
plans that are in compliance with rules adopted by the director of 20512
mental healthmental health and addiction services under section 20513
5119.61section 5119.22 of the Revised Code and rules adopted by 20514
the department of alcohol and drug addiction services under 20515
section 3793.05 of the Revised Code, and that provide for the 20516
equitable adjustment and division of all services, assets, 20517
property, debts, and obligations, if any, of the joint-county 20518
district to the board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental 20519
health services, to the boards of county commissioners of each 20520
county in the district, and to the directors. No county 20521
participating in a joint-county service district may withdraw from 20522
the district without the consent of the directorsdirector of 20523
mental health and alcohol and drug addiction servicesmental 20524
health and addiction services nor earlier than one year after the 20525
submission of such resolution unless all of the participating 20526
counties agree to an earlier withdrawal. Any county withdrawing 20527
from a joint-county district shall continue to have levied against 20528
its tax list and duplicate any tax levied by the district during 20529
the period in which the county was a member of the district until 20530
such time as the levy expires or is renewed or replaced.20531

       Sec. 340.011.  (A) This chapter shall be interpreted to 20532
accomplish all of the following:20533

       (1) Establish a unified system of treatment for mentally ill 20534
persons and persons with addictions;20535

       (2) Establish a community support system available for every 20536
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health service district;20537

       (3) Protect the personal liberty of mentally ill persons so 20538
that they may be treated in the least restrictive environment;20539

       (4) Encourage the development of high quality, cost 20540
effective, and comprehensive services, including culturally 20541
sensitive services;20542

       (5) Foster the development of comprehensive community mental 20543
health services, based on recognized local needs, especially for 20544
severely mentally disabled children, adolescents, and adults;20545

       (6) Ensure that services provided meet minimum standards 20546
established by the director of mental health or the department of 20547
alcohol and drug addiction servicesmental health and addiction 20548
services;20549

       (7) Promote the delivery of high quality and cost-effective 20550
alcohol and drug addiction and mental health services;20551

       (8) Promote the participation of consumers ofpersons 20552
receiving mental health services and alcohol and drug addiction 20553
services in the planning, delivery, and evaluation of these 20554
services.20555

       (B) Nothing in Chapter 340., 3793., 5119., or 5122. of the 20556
Revised Code shall be construed as requiring a board of county 20557
commissioners to provide resources beyond the total amount set 20558
forth in a communitybudget and statement of services to be 20559
provided by the alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health plan20560
services board, as developed and submitted under section 340.0320561
340.08 of the Revised Code, to provide the services listed in 20562
section 340.09 of the Revised Code, and nothing in those chapters 20563
shall be construed as requiring a board of county commissioners to 20564
provide resources beyond the total amount set forth in a plan for 20565
alcohol and drug addiction services, prepared and submitted in 20566
accordance with sections 340.033 and 3793.05 of the Revised Code, 20567
to provide alcohol and drug addiction services.20568

       Sec. 340.02. As used in this section, "mental health 20569
professional" means a person who is qualified to work with 20570
mentally ill persons, pursuant to standards established by the 20571
director of mental health under section 5119.611 of the Revised 20572
Code.20573

       (A) For each alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 20574
service district, there shall be appointed a board of alcohol, 20575
drug addiction, and mental health services consisting of eighteen 20576
members or fourteen members, at the election of the board. Not 20577
later than January 1, 2014, each board of alcohol, drug addiction, 20578
and mental health services shall notify the department of mental 20579
health and addiction services of its election to continue to 20580
operate as an eighteen-member board or to transition to operation 20581
as a fourteen-member board. The election shall be final. Failure 20582
to provide notice of its election to the department on or before 20583
January 1, 2014, shall constitute an election to continue to 20584
operate as an eighteen-member board. If an existing board provides 20585
timely notice of its election to transition to operate as a 20586
fourteen-member board, the number of board members may decline 20587
from eighteen to fourteen by attrition as current members' terms 20588
expire. However, the composition of the board must reflect the 20589
requirements set forth in this section for fourteen-member boards. 20590
NineFor all boards, half of the members shall be interested in 20591
mental health programs and facilitiesservices and nine other20592
half of the members shall be interested in alcohol or, drug, or 20593
gambling addiction programsservices. All members shall be 20594
residents of the service district. The membership shall, as nearly 20595
as possible, reflect the composition of the population of the 20596
service district as to race and sex.20597

       The(B) For boards operating as eighteen-member boards, the20598
director of mental healthmental health and addiction services20599
shall appoint foureight members of the board, the director of 20600
alcohol and drug addiction services shall appoint four members,20601
and the board of county commissioners shall appoint ten members. 20602
For boards operating as fourteen-member boards, the director of 20603
mental health and addiction services shall appoint six members of 20604
the board and the board of county commissioners shall appoint 20605
eight members. In a joint-county district, the county 20606
commissioners of each participating county shall appoint members 20607
in as nearly as possible the same proportion as that county's 20608
population bears to the total population of the district, except 20609
that at least one member shall be appointed from each 20610
participating county.20611

       (C) The director of mental healthmental health and addiction 20612
services shall ensure that at least one member of the board is a 20613
psychiatrist and one member of the board is a mental health 20614
professional. If the appointment of a psychiatrist is not 20615
possible, as determined under rules adopted by the director, a 20616
licensed physician may be appointed in place of the psychiatrist. 20617
If the appointment of a licensed physician is not possible, the 20618
director of mental health may waive the requirement that the 20619
psychiatrist or licensed physician be a resident of the service 20620
district and appoint a psychiatrist or licensed physician from a 20621
contiguous county. The director of mental health shall ensure that20622
clinician with experience in the delivery of mental health 20623
services, at least one member of the board is a person who has 20624
received or is receiving mental health services paid for by public 20625
funds and, at least one member of the board is a parent or other 20626
relative of such a person.20627

       The director of alcohol and drug addiction services shall 20628
ensure that at least one member of the board is a professional in 20629
the field of alcohol or drug addiction services and one member of 20630
the board is an advocate for persons receiving treatment for 20631
alcohol or drug addiction. Of the members appointed by the 20632
director of alcohol and drug addiction services, at least one 20633
member of the board is a clinician with experience in the delivery 20634
of addiction services, at least one shall bemember of the board 20635
is a person who has received or is receiving services for alcohol 20636
or drug addiction services paid for by public funds, and at least 20637
one shall bemember of the board is a parent or other relative of 20638
such a person. A single member who meets both qualifications may 20639
fulfill the requirement for a clinician with experience in the 20640
delivery of mental health services and a clinician with experience 20641
in the delivery of addiction services.20642

       (D) No member or employee of a board of alcohol, drug 20643
addiction, and mental health services shall serve as a member of 20644
the board of any agencyprovider with which the board of alcohol, 20645
drug addiction, and mental health services has entered into a 20646
contract for the provision of services or facilities. No member of 20647
a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services 20648
shall be an employee of any agencyprovider with which the board 20649
has entered into a contract for the provision of services or 20650
facilities, unless the board member's employment duties with the 20651
agency consist of providing, only outside the district the board 20652
serves, services for which the medicaid program pays. No person 20653
shall be an employee of a board and such an agencya provider20654
unless the board and agencyprovider both agree in writing.20655

       (E) No person shall serve as a member of the board of 20656
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services whose spouse, 20657
child, parent, brother, sister, grandchild, stepparent, stepchild, 20658
stepbrother, stepsister, father-in-law, mother-in-law, son-in-law, 20659
daughter-in-law, brother-in-law, or sister-in-law serves as a 20660
member of the board of any agencyprovider with which the board of 20661
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services has entered 20662
into a contract for the provision of services or facilities. No 20663
person shall serve as a member or employee of the board whose 20664
spouse, child, parent, brother, sister, stepparent, stepchild, 20665
stepbrother, stepsister, father-in-law, mother-in-law, son-in-law, 20666
daughter-in-law, brother-in-law, or sister-in-law serves as a 20667
county commissioner of a county or counties in the alcohol, drug 20668
addiction, and mental health service district.20669

       (F) Each year each board member shall attend at least one 20670
inservice training session provided or approved by the department 20671
of mental health or the department of alcohol and drug addiction 20672
servicesmental health and addiction services. Such training 20673
sessions shall not be considered to be regularly scheduled 20674
meetings of the board.20675

       Each(G) For boards operating as eighteen-member boards, each20676
member shall be appointed for a term of four years, commencing the 20677
first day of July, except that one-third of initial appointments 20678
to a newly established board, and to the extent possible to 20679
expanded boards, shall be for terms of two years, one-third of 20680
initial appointments shall be for terms of three years, and 20681
one-third of initial appointments shall be for terms of four 20682
years. For boards operating as fourteen-member boards, each member 20683
shall be appointed for a term of four years, commencing the first 20684
day of July, except that four of the initial appointments to a 20685
newly established board, and to the extent possible to expanded 20686
boards, shall be for terms of two years, five initial appointments 20687
shall be for terms of three years, and five initial appointments 20688
shall be for terms of four years. No member shall serve more than 20689
two consecutive four-year terms under the same appointing 20690
authority. A member may serve for three consecutive terms under 20691
the same appointing authority only if one of the terms is for less 20692
than two years. A member who has served two consecutive four-year 20693
terms or three consecutive terms totaling less than ten years is 20694
eligible for reappointment by the same appointing authority one 20695
year following the end of the second or third term, respectively.20696

       When a vacancy occurs, appointment for the expired or 20697
unexpired term shall be made in the same manner as an original 20698
appointment. The appointing authority shall be notified by 20699
certified mail of any vacancy and shall fill the vacancy within 20700
sixty days following that notice.20701

       Any member of the board may be removed from office by the 20702
appointing authority for neglect of duty, misconduct, or 20703
malfeasance in office, and shall be removed by the appointing 20704
authority if the member is barred by this section from serving as 20705
a board member. The member shall be informed in writing of the 20706
charges and afforded an opportunity for a hearing. Upon the 20707
absence of a member within one year from either four board 20708
meetings or from two board meetings without prior notice, the 20709
board shall notify the appointing authority, which may vacate the 20710
appointment and appoint another person to complete the member's 20711
term.20712

       Members of the board shall serve without compensation, but 20713
shall be reimbursed for actual and necessary expenses incurred in 20714
the performance of their official duties, as defined by rules of 20715
the departmentsdepartment of mental health and alcohol and drug 20716
addiction servicesmental health and addiction services.20717

       Sec. 340.021.  (A) In an alcohol, drug addiction, and mental 20718
health service district comprised of a county with a population of 20719
two hundred fifty thousand or more on October 10, 1989, the board 20720
of county commissioners shall, within thirty days of October 10, 20721
1989, establish an alcohol and drug addiction services board as 20722
the entity responsible for providing alcohol and drug addiction 20723
services in the county, unless, prior to that date, the board 20724
adopts a resolution providing that the entity responsible for 20725
providing the services is a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and 20726
mental health services. Ifwhere the board of county commissioners 20727
establisheshas established an alcohol and drug addiction services 20728
board, the community mental health board established under former 20729
section 340.02 of the Revised Code shall serve as the entity 20730
responsible for providing mental health services in the county. A 20731
community mental health board has all the powers, duties, and 20732
obligations of a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental 20733
health services with regard to mental health services. An alcohol 20734
and drug addiction services board has all the powers, duties, and 20735
obligations of a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental 20736
health services with regard to alcohol and drug addiction 20737
services. Any provision of the Revised Code that refers to a 20738
board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services with 20739
regard to mental health services also refers to a community mental 20740
health board and any provision that refers to a board of alcohol, 20741
drug addiction, and mental health services with regard to alcohol 20742
and drug addiction services also refers to an alcohol and drug 20743
addiction services board.20744

       An alcohol and drug addiction services board shall consist of 20745
eighteen members or fourteen members, six of whomat the election 20746
of the board. Not later than January 1, 2014, each alcohol and 20747
drug addiction services board shall notify the department of 20748
mental health and addiction services of its election to operate as 20749
an eighteen-member board or to operate as a fourteen-member board. 20750
The election shall be final. Failure to provide notice of its 20751
election to the department on or before January 1, 2014, shall 20752
constitute an election to continue to operate as an 20753
eighteen-member board. If an existing board provides timely notice 20754
of its election to operate as a fourteen-member board, the number 20755
of board members may decline from eighteen to fourteen by 20756
attrition as current members' terms expire. However, the 20757
composition of the board must reflect the requirements set forth 20758
in this section and in applicable provisions of section 340.02 of 20759
the Revised Code for fourteen-member boards. For boards operating 20760
as eighteen-member boards, eight members shall be appointed by the 20761
director of alcohol and drug addiction servicesmental health and 20762
addiction services and twelve of whomten members shall be 20763
appointed by the board of county commissioners. Of the members 20764
appointed by theThe director, one shall beof mental health and 20765
addiction services shall ensure that at least one member of the 20766
board is a person who has received or is receiving services for 20767
alcohol or, drug, or gambling addiction, at least one shall be20768
member is a parent or relative of such a person, and at least one 20769
shall bemember is a professional in the field of alcohol or drug20770
clinician with experience in the delivery of addiction services, 20771
and one shall be an advocate for persons receiving treatment for 20772
alcohol or drug addiction. The membership of the board shall, as 20773
nearly as possible, reflect the composition of the population of 20774
the service district as to race and sex. Members shall be 20775
residents of the service district and shall be interested in 20776
alcohol and, drug, or gambling addiction services. Requirements 20777
for membership, including prohibitions against certain family and 20778
business relationships, and terms of office shall be the same as 20779
those for members of boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental 20780
health services.20781

        A community mental health board shall consist of eighteen 20782
members or fourteen members, at the election of the board. Not 20783
later than January 1, 2014, each community mental health board 20784
shall notify the department of mental health and addiction 20785
services of its election to operate as an eighteen-member board or 20786
to operate as a fourteen-member board. The election shall be 20787
final. Failure to provide notice of its election to the department 20788
on or before January 1, 2014, shall constitute an election to 20789
continue to operate as an eighteen-member board. If an existing 20790
board provides timely notice of its election to operate as a 20791
fourteen-member board, the number of board members may decline 20792
from eighteen to fourteen by attrition as current members' terms 20793
expire. However, the composition of the board must reflect the 20794
requirements set forth in this section and in applicable 20795
provisions of section 340.02 of the Revised Code for 20796
fourteen-member boards. For boards operating as eighteen-member 20797
boards, six of whomeight members shall be appointed by the 20798
director of mental healthmental health and addiction services and 20799
twelve of whomten members shall be appointed by the board of 20800
county commissioners. Of the members appointed by theThe20801
director, one shall beof mental health and addiction services 20802
shall ensure that at least one member of the board is a person who 20803
has received or is receiving mental health services, at least one 20804
shall bemember is a parent or relative of such a person, and at 20805
least one shall bemember is a psychiatrist or a physician, and 20806
one shall be aclinician with experience in the delivery of20807
mental health professionalservices. The membership of the board 20808
as nearly as possible shall reflect the composition of the 20809
population of the service district as to race and sex. Members 20810
shall be residents of the service district and shall be interested 20811
in mental health services. Requirements for membership, including 20812
prohibitions against certain family and business relationships, 20813
and terms of office shall be the same as those for members of 20814
boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services.20815

       (B) If a board of county commissioners subject to division 20816
(A) of this section did not adopt a resolution providing for a 20817
board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services, the 20818
board of county commissioners may establish such a board in 20819
accordance with the following procedures:20820

       (1) Not later than January 1, 2007, the board of county 20821
commissioners shall adopt a resolution expressing its intent to 20822
establish a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 20823
services.20824

       (2) After adopting a resolution under division (B)(1) of this 20825
section, the board of county commissioners shall instruct the 20826
county's community mental health board and alcohol and drug 20827
addiction services board to prepare a report on the feasibility, 20828
process, and proposed plan to establish a board of alcohol, drug 20829
addiction, and mental health services. The board of county 20830
commissioners shall specify the date by which the report must be 20831
submitted to the board for its review.20832

       (3) After reviewing the report prepared under division (B)(2) 20833
of this section, the board may adopt a final resolution 20834
establishing a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 20835
services. A final resolution establishing such a board shall be 20836
adopted not later than July 1, 2007.20837

       (C)(1) If a board of county commissioners subject to division 20838
(A) of this section did not adopt a final resolution providing for 20839
a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services and 20840
did not establish such a board under division (B) of this section20841
on or before July 1, 2007, the board of county commissioners may 20842
establish a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 20843
services on or after the effective date of this amendment. To 20844
establish the board, the board of county commissioners shall adopt 20845
a resolution providing for the board's establishment. The 20846
composition of the board, the procedures for appointing members, 20847
and all other matters related to the board and its members are 20848
subject to section 340.02 of the Revised Code, with the following 20849
exceptions:20850

       (a) For initial appointments to the board, the county's 20851
community mental health board and alcohol and drug addiction 20852
services board shall jointly recommend members of those boards for 20853
reappointment and shall submit the recommendations to the board of 20854
county commissioners, director of mental health, and the director 20855
of alcohol and drug addiction servicesmental health and addiction 20856
services.20857

       (b) To the greatest extent possible, the appointing 20858
authorities shall appoint the initial members from among the 20859
members jointly recommended under division (C)(B)(1)(a) of this 20860
section.20861

       (2) If a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 20862
services is established pursuant to division (C)(B)(1) of this 20863
section, the board has the same rights, privileges, immunities, 20864
powers, and duties that were possessed by the county's community 20865
mental health board and alcohol and drug addiction services board. 20866
When the board is established, all property and obligations of the 20867
community mental health board and alcohol and drug addiction 20868
services board shall be transferred to the board of alcohol, drug 20869
addiction, and mental health services.20870

       Sec. 340.03.  (A) Subject to rules issued by the director of 20871
mental healthmental health and addiction services after 20872
consultation with relevant constituencies as required by division 20873
(L)(A)(10) of section 5119.065119.21 of the Revised Code, with 20874
regard to mental health services, the board of alcohol, drug 20875
addiction, and mental health services shall:20876

       (1) Serve as the community addiction and mental health 20877
services planning agency for the county or counties under its 20878
jurisdiction, and in so doing it shall:20879

       (a) Evaluate the need for facilities and community addiction 20880
and mental health services;20881

       (b) In cooperation with other local and regional planning and 20882
funding bodies and with relevant ethnic organizations, assess the 20883
community addiction and mental health needs, evaluate strengths 20884
and challenges, and set priorities, and develop plans for the 20885
operation of facilities and community addiction and mental health 20886
services, including treatment and prevention. When the board sets 20887
priorities for the operation of addiction services, the board 20888
shall consult with the county commissioners of the counties in the 20889
board's service district regarding the services described in 20890
section 340.15 of the Revised Code and shall give priority to 20891
those services, except that those services shall not have a 20892
priority over services provided to pregnant women under programs 20893
developed in relation to the mandate established in section 20894
5119.17 of the Revised Code;20895

       (c) In accordance with guidelines issued by the director of 20896
mental healthmental health and addiction services after 20897
consultation with board representatives, annually develop and 20898
submit to the department of mental healthmental health and 20899
addiction services a community addiction and mental health 20900
services plan listing community addiction and mental health 20901
services needs, including the needs of all residents of the 20902
district now residing in state mental institutions and severely 20903
mentally disabled adults, children, and adolescents;currently 20904
receiving inpatient services in state-operated hospitals, the 20905
needs of other populations as required by state or federal law or 20906
programs, the needs of all children subject to a determination 20907
made pursuant to section 121.38 of the Revised Code;, and all the20908
priorities for facilities and community addiction and mental 20909
health services that are or will be in operation or provided20910
during the period for which the plan will be in operation in the 20911
service district to meet such needseffect.20912

       In alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health service 20913
districts that have separate alcohol and drug addiction services 20914
and community mental health boards, the alcohol and drug addiction 20915
services board shall submit a community addiction services plan 20916
and the community mental health board shall submit a community 20917
mental health services plan. Each board shall consult with its 20918
counterpart in developing its plan and address the interaction 20919
between the local addiction services and mental health services 20920
systems and populations with regard to needs and priorities in 20921
developing its plan.20922

       The plan shall include, but not be limited to, a statement of 20923
which of the services listed in section 340.09 of the Revised Code 20924
the board intends to make available. The board must include crisis 20925
intervention services for individuals in an emergency situation in 20926
the plan and explain how the board intends to make such services 20927
available. The plan must also include a statement of the inpatient 20928
and community-based services the board proposes that the 20929
department operate, an assessment of the number and types of 20930
residential facilities needed, such other information as the 20931
department requests, and a budget for moneys the board expects to 20932
receive. The department shall approve or disapprove the plan, in 20933
whole or in part, according to the criteria developed pursuant to 20934
section 5119.615119.22 of the Revised Code. The department's 20935
statement of approval or disapproval shall specify the inpatient 20936
and the community-based services that the department will operate 20937
for the board. Eligibility for state and federal funding shall be 20938
contingent upon an approved plan or relevant part of a plan. 20939

       If a board determines that it is necessary to amend a plan or 20940
an allocation request that has been approved under this division 20941
(A)(1)(c) of this section, the board shall submit a proposed 20942
amendment to the director. The director may approve or disapprove 20943
all or part of the amendment. The director shall inform the board 20944
of the reasons for disapproval of all or part of an amendment and 20945
of the criteria that must be met before the amendment may be 20946
approved. The director shall provide the board an opportunity to 20947
present its case on behalf of the amendment. The director shall 20948
give the board a reasonable time in which to meet the criteria, 20949
and shall offer the board technical assistance to help it meet the 20950
criteria.20951

       The board shall implementoperate in accordance with the plan 20952
approved by the department.20953

       (d) Promote, arrange, and implement working agreements with 20954
social agencies, both public and private, and with judicial 20955
agencies.20956

       (2) Investigate, or request another agency to investigate, 20957
any complaint alleging abuse or neglect of any person receiving 20958
services from a community addiction or mental health agency as 20959
defined in section 5122.01 of the Revised Codeservices provider 20960
certified under section 5119.36 of the Revised Code or alleging 20961
abuse or neglect of a personresident receiving addiction services 20962
or with mental illness or severe mental disability residing in a 20963
residential facility licensed under section 5119.225119.34 of the 20964
Revised Code. If the investigation substantiates the charge of 20965
abuse or neglect, the board shall take whatever action it 20966
determines is necessary to correct the situation, including 20967
notification of the appropriate authorities. Upon request, the 20968
board shall provide information about such investigations to the 20969
department.20970

       (3) For the purpose of section 5119.6115119.36 of the 20971
Revised Code, cooperate with the director of mental healthmental 20972
health and addiction services in visiting and evaluating whether 20973
the services of a community addiction or mental health agency20974
services provider satisfy the certification standards established 20975
by rules adopted under that section;20976

       (4) In accordance with criteria established under division 20977
(E) of section 5119.615119.22 of the Revised Code, conduct 20978
program audits that review and evaluate the quality, 20979
effectiveness, and efficiency of services provided through its 20980
community addiction and mental health plancontracted services and 20981
submit its findings and recommendations to the department of 20982
mental healthmental health and addiction services;20983

       (5) In accordance with section 5119.225119.34 of the Revised 20984
Code, review an application for a residential facility license and 20985
provide to the department of mental healthmental health and 20986
addiction services any information about the applicant or facility 20987
that the board would like the department to consider in reviewing 20988
the application;20989

       (6) Audit, in accordance with rules adopted by the auditor of 20990
state pursuant to section 117.20 of the Revised Code, at least 20991
annually all programs and services provided under contract with 20992
the board. In so doing, the board may contract for or employ the 20993
services of private auditors. A copy of the fiscal audit report 20994
shall be provided to the director of mental healthmental health 20995
and addiction services, the auditor of state, and the county 20996
auditor of each county in the board's district.20997

       (7) Recruit and promote local financial support for addiction 20998
and mental health programsservices from private and public 20999
sources;21000

       (8)(a) Enter into contracts with public and private 21001
facilities for the operation of facility services included in the 21002
board's community mental health plan and enter into contracts with 21003
public and private community addiction and mental health agencies21004
service providers for the provision of community addiction and21005
mental health services that are listed in section 340.09 of the 21006
Revised Code and included in the board's community mental health 21007
plan. The board may not contract with a residential facility 21008
subject to section 5119.34 of the Revised Code unless the facility 21009
is licensed by the director of mental health and addiction 21010
services and may not contract with a community addiction or mental 21011
health agencyservices provider to provide community addiction or21012
mental health services included in the board's community mental 21013
health plan unless the services are certified by the director of 21014
mental healthmental health and addiction services under section 21015
5119.6115119.36 of the Revised Code. Section 307.86 of the 21016
Revised Code does not apply to contracts entered into under this 21017
division. In contracting with a community addiction or mental 21018
health agencyservices provider, a board shall consider the cost 21019
effectiveness of services provided by that agencyprovider and 21020
the quality and continuity of care, and may review cost elements, 21021
including salary costs, of the services to be provided. A 21022
utilization review process shallmay be established as part of the 21023
contract for services entered into between a board and a community 21024
addiction or mental health agencyservices provider. The board 21025
may establish this process in a way that is most effective and 21026
efficient in meeting local needs. Until July 1, 2012, a contract 21027
with a community mental health agency or facility, as defined in 21028
section 5111.023 of the Revised Code, to provide services listed 21029
in division (B) of that section shall provide for the agency or 21030
facility to be paid in accordance with the contract entered into 21031
between the departments of job and family services and mental 21032
health under section 5111.91 of the Revised Code and any rules 21033
adopted under division (A) of section 5119.61 of the Revised Code.21034

       If either the board or a facility or community addiction or21035
mental health agencyservices provider with which the board 21036
contracts under this division (A)(8)(a) of this section proposes 21037
not to renew the contract or proposes substantial changes in 21038
contract terms, the other party shall be given written notice at 21039
least one hundred twenty days before the expiration date of the 21040
contract. During the first sixty days of this one hundred 21041
twenty-day period, both parties shall attempt to resolve any 21042
dispute through good faith collaboration and negotiation in order 21043
to continue to provide services to persons in need. If the dispute 21044
has not been resolved sixty days before the expiration date of the 21045
contract, either party may notify the department of mental health21046
mental health and addiction services of the unresolved dispute. 21047
The director may require both parties to submit the dispute to a 21048
third party with the cost to be shared by the board and the 21049
facility or community mental health agencyprovider. The third 21050
party shall issue to the board, the facility or agencyprovider, 21051
and the department recommendations on how the dispute may be 21052
resolved twenty days prior to the expiration date of the contract, 21053
unless both parties agree to a time extension. The director shall 21054
adopt rules establishing the procedures of this dispute resolution 21055
process.21056

       (b) With the prior approval of the director of mental health21057
mental health and addiction services, a board may operate a 21058
facility or provide a community addiction or mental health service 21059
as follows, if there is no other qualified private or public 21060
facility or community addiction or mental health agencyservices 21061
provider that is immediately available and willing to operate such 21062
a facility or provide the service:21063

       (i) In an emergency situation, any board may operate a 21064
facility or provide a community addiction or mental health service 21065
in order to provide essential services for the duration of the 21066
emergency;21067

       (ii) In a service district with a population of at least one 21068
hundred thousand but less than five hundred thousand, a board may 21069
operate a facility or provide a community addiction or mental 21070
health service for no longer than one year;21071

       (iii) In a service district with a population of less than 21072
one hundred thousand, a board may operate a facility or provide a 21073
community addiction or mental health service for no longer than 21074
one year, except that such a board may operate a facility or 21075
provide a community addiction or mental health service for more 21076
than one year with the prior approval of the director and the 21077
prior approval of the board of county commissioners, or of a 21078
majority of the boards of county commissioners if the district is 21079
a joint-county district.21080

       The director shall not give a board approval to operate a 21081
facility or provide a community addiction or mental health service 21082
under division (A)(8)(b)(ii) or (iii) of this section unless the 21083
director determines that it is not feasible to have the department 21084
operate the facility or provide the service.21085

       The director shall not give a board approval to operate a 21086
facility or provide a community addiction or mental health service 21087
under division (A)(8)(b)(iii) of this section unless the director 21088
determines that the board will provide greater administrative 21089
efficiency and more or better services than would be available if 21090
the board contracted with a private or public facility or 21091
community addiction or mental health agencyservices provider.21092

       The director shall not give a board approval to operate a 21093
facility previously operated by a person or other government 21094
entity unless the board has established to the director's 21095
satisfaction that the person or other government entity cannot 21096
effectively operate the facility or that the person or other 21097
government entity has requested the board to take over operation 21098
of the facility. The director shall not give a board approval to 21099
provide a community addiction or mental health service previously 21100
provided by a community addiction or mental health agencyservices 21101
provider unless the board has established to the director's 21102
satisfaction that the agencyprovider cannot effectively provide 21103
the service or that the agencyprovider has requested the board 21104
take over providing the service.21105

       The director shall review and evaluate a board's operation of 21106
a facility and provision of community addiction or mental health 21107
service under division (A)(8)(b) of this section.21108

       Nothing in division (A)(8)(b) of this section authorizes a 21109
board to administer or direct the daily operation of any facility 21110
or community addiction or mental health agencyservices provider, 21111
but a facility or agencyprovider may contract with a board to 21112
receive administrative services or staff direction from the board 21113
under the direction of the governing body of the facility or 21114
agencyprovider.21115

       (9) Approve fee schedules and related charges or adopt a unit 21116
cost schedule or other methods of payment for contract services 21117
provided by community addiction or mental health agenciesservices 21118
providers in accordance with guidelines issued by the department 21119
as necessary to comply with state and federal laws pertaining to 21120
financial assistance;21121

       (10) Submit to the director and the county commissioners of 21122
the county or counties served by the board, and make available to 21123
the public, an annual report of the programsservices under the 21124
jurisdiction of the board, including a fiscal accounting;21125

       (11) Establish, to the extent resources are available, a 21126
community support systemcontinuum of care, which provides for 21127
prevention, treatment, support, and rehabilitation services and 21128
opportunities. The essential elements of the systemcontinuum21129
include, but are not limited to, the following components in 21130
accordance with section 5119.065119.21 of the Revised Code:21131

       (a) To locate persons in need of addiction or mental health 21132
services to inform them of available services and benefits 21133
mechanisms;21134

       (b) Assistance for clientspersons receiving services to 21135
obtain services necessary to meet basic human needs for food, 21136
clothing, shelter, medical care, personal safety, and income;21137

       (c) MentalAddiction and mental health careservices, 21138
including, but not limited to, outpatient, residential, partial 21139
hospitalization, and, where appropriate, inpatient care;21140

       (d) Emergency services and crisis intervention;21141

       (e) Assistance for clientspersons receiving services to 21142
obtain vocational services and opportunities for jobs;21143

       (f) The provision of services designed to develop social, 21144
community, and personal living skills;21145

       (g) Access to a wide range of housing and the provision of 21146
residential treatment and support;21147

       (h) Support, assistance, consultation, and education for 21148
families, friends, consumers ofpersons receiving addiction or21149
mental health services, and others;21150

       (i) Recognition and encouragement of families, friends, 21151
neighborhood networks, especially networks that include racial and 21152
ethnic minorities, churches, community organizations, and 21153
meaningfulcommunity employment as natural supports for consumers 21154
ofpersons receiving addiction or mental health services;21155

       (j) Grievance procedures and protection of the rights of 21156
consumers ofpersons receiving addiction or mental health 21157
services;21158

       (k) Case managementCommunity psychiatric supportive 21159
treatment services, which includes continual individualized 21160
assistance and advocacy to ensure that needed services are offered 21161
and procured.21162

       (12) Establish a method for evaluating referrals for 21163
involuntary commitment and affidavits filed pursuant to section 21164
5122.11 of the Revised Code in order to assist the probate 21165
division of the court of common pleas in determining whether there 21166
is probable cause that a respondent is subject to involuntary 21167
hospitalization and what alternative treatment is available and 21168
appropriate, if any;21169

       (13) Designate the treatment programservices, agency21170
provider, or facility, or other placement for each person 21171
involuntarily committed to the board pursuant to Chapter 5122. of 21172
the Revised Code and authorize payment for such treatment. The 21173
board shall provide the least restrictive and most appropriate 21174
alternative that is available for any person involuntarily 21175
committed to it and shall assure that the listed services listed 21176
insubmitted and approved in accordance with division (B) of21177
section 340.09340.08 of the Revised Code are available to 21178
severely mentally disabled persons residing within its service 21179
district. The board shall establish the procedure for authorizing 21180
payment for services, which may include prior authorization in 21181
appropriate circumstances. The board may provide for services 21182
directly to a severely mentally disabled person when life or 21183
safety is endangered and when no community mental health agency21184
services provider is available to provide the service.21185

       (13) Establish a method for evaluating referrals for 21186
involuntary commitment and affidavits filed pursuant to section 21187
5122.11 of the Revised Code in order to assist the probate 21188
division of the court of common pleas in determining whether there 21189
is probable cause that a respondent is subject to involuntary 21190
hospitalization and what alternative treatment is available and 21191
appropriate, if any;21192

       (14) Ensure that apartments or rooms built, subsidized, 21193
renovated, rented, owned, or leased by the board or a community 21194
addiction or mental health agencyservices provider have been 21195
approved as meeting minimum fire safety standards and that persons 21196
residing in the rooms or apartments are receiving appropriate and 21197
necessary services, including culturally relevant services, from a 21198
community addiction or mental health agencyservices provider. 21199
This division does not apply to residential facilities licensed 21200
pursuant to section 5119.225119.34 of the Revised Code.21201

       (15) Establish a mechanism for obtaining advice and21202
involvement of consumer recommendation and advicepersons 21203
receiving publicly funded addiction or mental health services on 21204
matters pertaining to addiction and mental health services in the 21205
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health service district;21206

       (16) Perform the duties required by rules adopted under 21207
section 5119.615119.22 of the Revised Code regarding referrals by 21208
the board or mental health agenciesservices providers under 21209
contract with the board of individuals with mental illness or 21210
severe mental disability to residential facilities as defined in 21211
division (A)(9)(b)(iii) of section 5119.225119.34 of the Revised 21212
Code and effective arrangements for ongoing mental health services 21213
for the individuals. The board is accountable in the manner 21214
specified in the rules for ensuring that the ongoing mental health 21215
services are effectively arranged for the individuals.21216

       (B) The board shall establish such rules, operating 21217
procedures, standards, and bylaws, and perform such other duties 21218
as may be necessary or proper to carry out the purposes of this 21219
chapter.21220

       (C) A board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 21221
services may receive by gift, grant, devise, or bequest any 21222
moneys, lands, or property for the benefit of the purposes for 21223
which the board is established, and may hold and apply it 21224
according to the terms of the gift, grant, or bequest. All money 21225
received, including accrued interest, by gift, grant, or bequest 21226
shall be deposited in the treasury of the county, the treasurer of 21227
which is custodian of the alcohol, drug addiction, and mental 21228
health services funds to the credit of the board and shall be 21229
available for use by the board for purposes stated by the donor or 21230
grantor.21231

       (D) No board member or employee of a board of alcohol, drug 21232
addiction, and mental health services shall be liable for injury 21233
or damages caused by any action or inaction taken within the scope 21234
of the board member's official duties or the employee's 21235
employment, whether or not such action or inaction is expressly 21236
authorized by this section, section 340.033, or any other section 21237
of the Revised Code, unless such action or inaction constitutes 21238
willful or wanton misconduct. Chapter 2744. of the Revised Code 21239
applies to any action or inaction by a board member or employee of 21240
a board taken within the scope of the board member's official 21241
duties or employee's employment. For the purposes of this 21242
division, the conduct of a board member or employee shall not be 21243
considered willful or wanton misconduct if the board member or 21244
employee acted in good faith and in a manner that the board member 21245
or employee reasonably believed was in or was not opposed to the 21246
best interests of the board and, with respect to any criminal 21247
action or proceeding, had no reasonable cause to believe the 21248
conduct was unlawful.21249

       (E) The meetings held by any committee established by a board 21250
of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services shall be 21251
considered to be meetings of a public body subject to section 21252
121.22 of the Revised Code.21253

       Sec. 340.031.  A board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental 21254
health services may:21255

       (A) Inspect any residential facility licensed under section 21256
5119.225119.34 of the Revised Code and located in its district, 21257
pursuant to a contract with the department of mental health;21258

       (B) Acquire, convey, lease, or enter into a contract to 21259
purchase, lease, or sell property for community addiction and21260
mental health and alcohol and drug addiction services and related 21261
purposes, and enter into loan agreements, including mortgages, for 21262
the acquisition of such property.21263

       Sec. 340.032.  The board of alcohol, drug addiction, and 21264
mental health services shall employ a qualified mental health or 21265
alcohol or drug addiction services professional with experience in 21266
administration or a professional administrator with experience in 21267
mental health or alcohol or drug addiction services to serve as 21268
executive director of the board and shall prescribe the director's 21269
duties.21270

       The board shall fix the compensation of the executive 21271
director. In addition to such compensation, the director shall be 21272
reimbursed for actual and necessary expenses incurred in the 21273
performance of histhe director's official duties. The board, by 21274
majority vote of the full membership, may remove the director for 21275
cause, upon written charges, after an opportunity has been 21276
afforded himthe director for a hearing before the board on 21277
request.21278

       The board may delegate to its executive director the 21279
authority to act in its behalf in the performance of its 21280
administrative duties.21281

       As used in this section, "mental health professional" and 21282
"addiction services professional" mean an individual who is 21283
qualified to work with mentally ill persons or persons receiving 21284
addiction services, pursuant to standards established by the 21285
director of mental health and addiction services under Chapter 21286
5119. of the Revised Code.21287

       Sec. 340.04.  In addition to such other duties as may be 21288
lawfully imposed, the executive director of a board of alcohol, 21289
drug addiction, and mental health services shall:21290

       (A) Serve as executive officer of the board and subject to 21291
the prior approval of the board for each contract, execute 21292
contracts on its behalf;21293

       (B) Supervise services and facilities provided, operated, 21294
contracted, or supported by the board to the extent of determining 21295
that programsservices and facilities are being administered in 21296
conformity with this chapter and rules of the director of mental 21297
health and the department of alcohol and drug addiction services21298
mental health and addiction services;21299

       (C) Provide consultation to agencies, associations, or 21300
individualsaddiction and mental health services providers21301
providing services supported by the board;21302

       (D) Recommend to the board the changes necessary to increase 21303
the effectiveness of addiction and mental health services and 21304
alcohol and drug addiction services and other matters necessary or 21305
desirable to carry out this chapter;21306

       (E) Employ and remove from office such employees and 21307
consultants in the classified civil service and, subject to the 21308
approval of the board, employ and remove from office such other 21309
employees and consultants as may be necessary for the work of the 21310
board, and fix their compensation and reimbursement within the 21311
limits set by the salary schedule and the budget approved by the 21312
board;21313

       (F) Encourage the development and expansion of preventive, 21314
treatment, rehabilitative, and consultative programsservices in 21315
the field of addiction and mental health services with emphasis on 21316
continuity of care;21317

       (G) Prepare for board approval an annual report of the 21318
programsservices and facilities under the jurisdiction of the 21319
board, including a fiscal accounting of all services;21320

       (H) Conduct such studies as may be necessary and practicable 21321
for the promotion of mental health, promotion of addiction 21322
services, and the prevention of mental illness, emotional 21323
disorders, and addiction to alcohol and drugs;21324

       (I) Authorize the county auditor, or in a joint-county 21325
district the county auditor designated as the auditor for the 21326
district, to issue warrants for the payment of board obligations 21327
approved by the board, provided that all payments are in 21328
accordance with the comprehensive community mental health plan21329
budget submitted pursuant to section 340.08 of the Revised Code, 21330
as approved by the department of mental health, or with the 21331
alcohol and drug addiction services plan as approved by the 21332
department of alcohol and drug addiction servicesmental health 21333
and addiction services.21334

       Sec. 340.05.  A community addiction or mental health agency21335
services provider that receives a complaint alleging abuse or 21336
neglect of an individual with mental illness or severe mental 21337
disability, or an individual receiving addiction services, who 21338
resides in a residential facility as defined in division (A)(9)(b) 21339
of section 5119.225119.34 of the Revised Code shall report the 21340
complaint to the board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental 21341
health services serving the alcohol, drug addiction, and mental 21342
health service district in which the residential facility is 21343
located. A board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 21344
services that receives such a complaint or a report from a 21345
community addiction or mental health agencyservices provider of 21346
such a complaint shall report the complaint to the director of 21347
mental healthmental health and addiction services for the 21348
purpose of the director conducting an investigation under section 21349
5119.225119.34 of the Revised Code. The board may enter the 21350
facility with or without the director and, if the health and 21351
safety of a resident is in immediate danger, take any necessary 21352
action to protect the resident. The board's action shall not 21353
violate any resident's rights specified in rules adopted by the 21354
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services21355
under section 5119.225119.34 of the Revised Code. The board shall 21356
immediately report to the director regarding the board's actions 21357
under this section.21358

       Sec. 340.07.  The board of county commissioners of any county 21359
participating in an alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 21360
service district or joint-county district, upon receipt from the 21361
board of alcohol, drug addition, and mental health services of a 21362
resolution so requesting, may appropriate money to such board for 21363
the operation, lease, acquisition, construction, renovation, and 21364
maintenance of addiction or mental health services, programs,21365
providers and facilities for mentally ill and emotionally 21366
disturbed persons in accordance with the comprehensive community 21367
addiction and mental health plan or for alcohol and drug addiction 21368
programs in accordance with the alcohol and drug addiction 21369
services planservices budget approved by the department of mental 21370
health and addiction services pursuant to section 340.08 of the 21371
Revised Code.21372

       Sec. 340.08.  In accordance with rules or guidelines issued 21373
by the director of mental health and addiction services, each 21374
board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services shall 21375
do all of the following:21376

       (A) Submit to the department a report of receipts and 21377
expenditures for all federal, state, and local moneys the board 21378
expects to receive;21379

       (1) The report shall identify funds the board and public 21380
children services agencies in the board's service district have 21381
available to fund jointly the services described in section 340.15 21382
of the Revised Code.21383

       (2) The board's proposed budget for expenditures of state and 21384
federal funds distributed to the board by the department shall be 21385
deemed an application for funds, and the department shall approve 21386
or disapprove the budget for these expenditures. The department 21387
shall inform the board of the reasons for disapproval of the 21388
budget for the expenditure of state and federal funds and of the 21389
criteria that must be met before the budget may be approved. The 21390
director shall provide the board an opportunity to present its 21391
case on behalf of the submitted budget. The director shall give 21392
the board a reasonable time in which to meet the criteria and 21393
shall offer the board technical assistance to help it meet the 21394
criteria.21395

        If a board determines that it is necessary to amend a budget 21396
that has been approved under this section, the board shall submit 21397
a proposed amendment to the director. The director may approve or 21398
disapprove all or part of the amendment. The director shall inform 21399
the board of the reasons for disapproval of all or part of the 21400
amendment and of the criteria that must be met before the 21401
amendment may be approved. The director shall provide the board an 21402
opportunity to present its case on behalf of the amendment. The 21403
director shall give the board a reasonable time in which to meet 21404
the criteria and shall offer the board technical assistance to 21405
help it meet the criteria.21406

       (3) The director of mental health and addiction services, in 21407
whole or in part, may withhold funds otherwise to be allocated to 21408
a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services 21409
under Chapter 5119. of the Revised Code if the board's use of 21410
state and federal funds fails to comply with the approved budget, 21411
as it may be amended with the approval of the department.21412

       (B) Submit to the department a statement identifying the 21413
services described in section 340.09 of the Revised Code the board 21414
intends to make available. The board shall include crisis 21415
intervention services for individuals in emergency situations and 21416
services required pursuant to section 340.15 of the Revised Code, 21417
and the board shall explain the manner in which the board intends 21418
to make such services available. The list of services shall be 21419
compatible with the budget submitted pursuant to division (A) of 21420
this section. The department shall approve or disapprove the 21421
proposed listing of services to be made available. The department 21422
shall inform the board of the reasons for disapproval of the 21423
listing of proposed services and of the criteria that must be met 21424
before listing of proposed services may be approved. The director 21425
shall provide the board an opportunity to present its case on 21426
behalf of the submitted listing of proposed services. The director 21427
shall give the board a reasonable time in which to meet the 21428
criteria and shall offer the board technical assistance to help it 21429
meet the criteria.21430

       (C) Enter into a continuity of care agreement with the state 21431
institution operated by the department of mental health and 21432
addiction services and designated as the institution serving the 21433
district encompassing the board's service district. The continuity 21434
of care agreement shall outline the department's and the board's 21435
responsibilities to plan for and coordinate with each other to 21436
address the needs of board residents who are patients in the 21437
institution, with an emphasis on managing appropriate hospital bed 21438
day use and discharge planning.21439

       (D) In conjunction with the department of mental health and 21440
addiction services, operate a coordinated system for tracking and 21441
monitoring persons found not guilty by reason of insanity and 21442
committed pursuant to section 2945.40 of the Revised Code who have 21443
been granted a conditional release and persons found incompetent 21444
to stand trial and committed pursuant to section 2945.39 of the 21445
Revised Code who have been granted a conditional release. The 21446
system shall do all of the following:21447

       (1) Centralize responsibility for the tracking of those 21448
persons;21449

       (2) Provide for uniformity in monitoring those persons;21450

       (3) Provide a mechanism to allow prompt rehospitalization, 21451
reinstitutionalization, or detention when a violation of the 21452
conditional release or decompensation occurs.21453

       (E) Submit to the department a report summarizing complaints 21454
and grievances received by the board concerning the rights of 21455
persons seeking or receiving services, investigations of 21456
complaints and grievances, and outcomes of the investigations.21457

       (F) Provide to the department information to be submitted to 21458
the community addiction and mental health information system or 21459
systems established by the department under Chapter 5119. of the 21460
Revised Code.21461

       (G) Annually, and upon any change in membership, submit to 21462
the department a list of all current members of the board of 21463
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services, including the 21464
appointing authority for each member, and the member's specific 21465
qualification for appointment pursuant to section 340.02 or 21466
340.021 of the Revised Code, if applicable.21467

       (H) Submit to the department other information as is 21468
reasonably required for purposes of the department's operations, 21469
service evaluation, reporting activities, research, system 21470
administration, and oversight.21471

       Sec. 340.09. (A) The department of mental healthmental 21472
health and addiction services shall provide assistance to any 21473
county for the operation of boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and 21474
mental health services and, the provision of the following21475
services approved by the department within the continuum of care, 21476
and the provision of approved support functions from funds 21477
appropriated for that purpose by the general assembly:.21478

       (A) Outpatient;21479

       (B) Categories in the continuum of care may include all of 21480
the following:21481

       (1) Inpatient;21482

       (C) Partial hospitalization(2) Residential;21483

       (D) Rehabilitation(3) Outpatient treatment;21484

       (E)(4) Intensive and other supports;21485

       (5) Recovery support;21486

       (6) Prevention and wellness management.21487

       (C) Support functions may include all of the following:21488

       (1) Consultation;21489

       (F) Mental health education and other preventive services;21490

       (G) Emergency;21491

       (H) Crisis intervention;21492

       (I)(2) Research;21493

       (J)(3) Administrative;21494

       (K)(4) Referral and information;21495

       (L) Residential;21496

       (M)(5) Training;21497

       (N) Substance abuse;21498

       (O)(6) Service and program evaluation;21499

       (P) Community support system;21500

       (Q) Case management;21501

       (R) Residential housing;21502

       (S) Other services approved by the board and the director of 21503
mental health.21504

       Sec. 340.091.  Each board of alcohol, drug addiction, and 21505
mental health services shall contract with a community mental 21506
health agencyservices provider under division (A)(7)(8)(a) of 21507
section 340.03 of the Revised Code for the agencyprovider to do 21508
all of the following in accordance with rules adopted under 21509
section 5119.615119.22 of the Revised Code for an individual 21510
referred to the agencyprovider under division (D)(2) of section 21511
5119.695119.41 of the Revised Code:21512

       (A) Assess the individual and, if the agencyprovider21513
determines that the environment in which the individual will be 21514
living while receiving residential state supplement payments is 21515
appropriate for the individual's needs, issue a recommendation to 21516
the referring residential state supplement administrative agency 21517
that the referring agency should conclude that the living 21518
environment is appropriate when it makes its determination 21519
regarding the appropriateness of the environment;21520

       (B) Provide ongoing monitoring to ensure that listed services 21521
provided undersubmitted and approved under division (B) of21522
section 340.09340.08 of the Revised Code are available to the 21523
individual;21524

       (C) Provide discharge planning to ensure the individual's 21525
earliest possible transition to a less restrictive environment.21526

       Sec. 340.10.  The county auditor or, in a joint-county 21527
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health service district, the 21528
auditor of the county, the treasurer of which has been designated 21529
in the agreement between the counties of the district as custodian 21530
of the community addiction and mental health services funds and 21531
alcohol and drug addiction services funds, is hereby designated as 21532
the auditor and fiscal officer of an alcohol, drug addiction, and 21533
mental health service district or joint-county district. State 21534
funds allocated for the support of a service district shall be 21535
paid to the county treasurer or, in a joint-county district, to 21536
the treasurer of that county designated in the agreement as 21537
custodian of the community addiction and mental health services21538
funds and authorized to make payments from such funds on order of 21539
the county auditor and on recommendation of the board of alcohol, 21540
drug addiction, and mental health services, or the executive 21541
director of the board when authorized by the board. The auditor 21542
shall submit to the board a detailed monthly statement of all 21543
receipts, disbursements, and ending balances for the community 21544
addiction and mental health services funds.21545

       Sec. 340.11.  A board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental 21546
health services may procure a policy or policies of insurance 21547
insuring board members or employees of the board or agencies21548
providers with which the board contracts against liability arising 21549
from the performance of their official duties. If the liability 21550
insurance is unavailable or the amount a board has procured or is 21551
able to procure is insufficient to cover the amount of a claim, 21552
the board may indemnify a board member or employee as follows:21553

       (A) For any action or inaction in the capacity of board 21554
member or employee or at the request of the board, whether or not 21555
the action or inaction is expressly authorized by this or any 21556
other section of the Revised Code, if both of the following apply:21557

       (1) The board member or employee acted in good faith and in a 21558
manner that the board member or employee reasonably believed was 21559
in or was not opposed to the best interests of the board; and21560

       (2) With respect to any criminal action or proceeding, the 21561
board member or employee had no reason to believe the board 21562
member's or employee's conduct was unlawful.21563

       (B) Against any expenses, including attorneys' fees, the 21564
board member or employee actually and reasonably incurs as a 21565
result of a suit or other proceeding involving the defense of any 21566
action or inaction in the capacity of board member or employee or 21567
at the request of the board, or in defense of any claim, issue, or 21568
matter raised in connection with the defense of such an action or 21569
inaction, to the extent that the board member or employee is 21570
successful on the merits or otherwise.21571

       Sec. 340.12.  No board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental 21572
health services or any agency, corporation, or association21573
addiction or mental health services provider under contract with 21574
such a board shall discriminate in the provision of services under 21575
its authority, in employment, or contract on the basis of race, 21576
color, religion, sex, creedage, ancestry, national origin,21577
disability, or national originsexual orientation, military 21578
status, or genetic information.21579

       Each board,and each community addiction or mental health 21580
agency, and each alcohol and drug addiction programservices 21581
provider shall have a written affirmative action program. The 21582
affirmative action program shall include goals for the employment 21583
and effective utilization of, including contracts with, members of 21584
economically disadvantaged groups as defined in division (E)(1) of 21585
section 122.71 of the Revised Code in percentages reflecting as 21586
nearly as possible the composition of the alcohol, drug addiction, 21587
and mental health service district served by the board. Each 21588
board, agency, and programprovider shall file a description of 21589
the affirmative action program and a progress report on its 21590
implementation with the department of mental health or the 21591
department of alcohol and drug addiction servicesmental health 21592
and addiction services.21593

       Sec. 340.13.  (A) As used in this section, "minority:21594

       (1) "Minority business enterprise" has the same meaning as in 21595
division (E)(1) of section 122.71 of the Revised Code.21596

       (2) "EDGE business enterprise" has the same meaning as in 21597
section 123.152 of the Revised Code.21598

       (B) Any minority business enterprise that desires to bid on a 21599
contract under division (C) or (D) of this section shall first 21600
apply to the equal employment opportunity coordinator in the 21601
department of administrative services for certification as a 21602
minority business enterprise. Any EDGE business enterprise that 21603
desires to bid on a contract under division (D) of this section 21604
shall first apply to the equal employment opportunity coordinator 21605
of the department of administrative services for certification as 21606
an EDGE business enterprise. The coordinator shall approve the 21607
application of any minority business enterprise or EDGE business 21608
enterprise that complies with the rules adopted under section 21609
122.71 or 123.152 of the Revised Code, respectively. The 21610
coordinator shall prepare and maintain a list of minority business 21611
enterprises and EDGE business enterprises certified under this 21612
sectionthose sections.21613

       (C) From the contracts to be awarded for the purchases of 21614
equipment, materials, supplies, or services, other than contracts 21615
entered into under section 340.03 or 340.033 of the Revised Code, 21616
each board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services 21617
shall select a number of contracts with an aggregate value of 21618
approximately fifteen per cent of the total estimated value of 21619
contracts to be awarded in the current fiscal year. The board 21620
shall set aside the contracts so selected for bidding by minority 21621
business enterprises only. The bidding procedures for such 21622
contracts shall be the same as for all other contracts awarded 21623
under section 307.86 of the Revised Code, except that only 21624
minority business enterprises certified and listed underpursuant 21625
to division (B) of this section shall be qualified to submit bids.21626

       (D) To the extent that a board is authorized to enter into 21627
contracts for construction, the board shall set aside a number of 21628
contractsstrive to attain a yearly contract dollar procurement 21629
goal the aggregate value of which equals approximately five per 21630
cent of the aggregate value of construction contracts for the 21631
current fiscal year for bidding by minorityEDGE business 21632
enterprises only. The bidding procedures for the contracts set 21633
aside for minority business enterprises shall be the same as for 21634
all other contracts awarded by the board, except that only 21635
minority business enterprises certified and listed under division 21636
(B) of this section shall be qualified to submit bids.21637

       (E)(1) In the case of contracts set aside under divisions21638
division (C) and (D) of this section, if no bid is submitted by a 21639
minority business enterprise, the contract shall be awarded 21640
according to normal bidding procedures. The board shall from time 21641
to time set aside such additional contracts as are necessary to 21642
replace those contracts previously set aside on which no minority 21643
business enterprise bid.21644

       (2) If a board, after having made a good faith effort, is 21645
unable to comply with the goal of procurement for contracting with 21646
EDGE business enterprises pursuant to division (D) of this 21647
section, the board may apply in writing, on a form prescribed by 21648
the department of administrative services, to the director of 21649
mental health and addiction services for a waiver or modification 21650
of the goal.21651

       (F) This section does not preclude any minority business 21652
enterprise or EDGE business enterprise from bidding on any other 21653
contract not specifically set aside for minority business 21654
enterprises or subject to procurement goals for EDGE business 21655
enterprises.21656

       (G) Within ninety days after the beginning of each fiscal 21657
year, each board shall file a report with the department of mental 21658
healthmental health and addiction services that shows for that 21659
fiscal year the name of each minority business enterprise and EDGE 21660
business enterprise with which the board entered into a contract, 21661
the value and type of each such contract, the total value of 21662
contracts awarded under divisions (C) and (D) of this section, the 21663
total value of contracts awarded for the purchases of equipment, 21664
materials, supplies, or services, other than contracts entered 21665
into under section 340.03 of the Revised Code, and the total value 21666
of contracts entered into for construction.21667

       (H) Any person who intentionally misrepresents himselfself21668
as owning, controlling, operating, or participating in a minority 21669
business enterprise or an EDGE business enterprise for the purpose 21670
of obtaining contracts or any other benefits under this section 21671
shall be guilty of theft by deception as provided for in section 21672
2913.02 of the Revised Code.21673

       Sec. 340.15.  (A) A public children services agency that 21674
identifies a child by a risk assessment conducted pursuant to 21675
section 5153.16 of the Revised Code as being at imminent risk of 21676
being abused or neglected because of an addiction of a parent, 21677
guardian, or custodian of the child to a drug of abuse or alcohol 21678
shall refer the child's addicted parent, guardian, or custodian 21679
and, if the agency determines that the child needs alcohol or 21680
other drug addiction services, the child to an alcohol and druga 21681
community addiction programservices provider certified by the 21682
department of alcohol and drug addiction servicesmental health 21683
and addiction services under section 3793.065119.36 of the 21684
Revised Code. A public children services agency that is sent a 21685
court order issued pursuant to division (B) of section 2151.3514 21686
of the Revised Code shall refer the addicted parent or other 21687
caregiver of the child identified in the court order to an alcohol 21688
and druga community addiction programservices provider21689
certified by the department of alcohol and drug addiction services21690
mental health and addiction services under section 3793.065119.3621691
of the Revised Code. On receipt of a referral under this division 21692
and to the extent funding identified under division (A)(1) of 21693
section 340.033340.08 of the Revised Code is available, the 21694
programprovider shall provide the following services to the 21695
addicted parent, guardian, custodian, or caregiver and child in 21696
need of alcohol or other drugaddiction services:21697

       (1) If it is determined pursuant to an initial screening to 21698
be needed, assessment and appropriate treatment; 21699

       (2) Documentation of progress in accordance with a treatment 21700
plan developed for the addicted parent, guardian, custodian, 21701
caregiver, or child;21702

       (3) If the referral is based on a court order issued pursuant 21703
to division (B) of section 2151.3514 of the Revised Code and the 21704
order requires the specified parent or other caregiver of the 21705
child to submit to alcohol or other drug testing during, after, or 21706
both during and after, treatment, testing in accordance with the 21707
court order.21708

       (B) The services described in division (A) of this section 21709
shall have a priority as provided in the alcohol and drug21710
addiction and mental health services plan and budget established 21711
pursuant to section 340.033sections 340.03 and 340.08 of the 21712
Revised Code. Once a referral has been received pursuant to this 21713
section, the public children services agency and the alcohol or 21714
drug addiction programservices provider shall, in accordance with 21715
42 C.F.R. Part 2, share with each other any information concerning 21716
the persons and services described in that division that the 21717
agency and programprovider determine are necessary to share. If 21718
the referral is based on a court order issued pursuant to division 21719
(B) of section 2151.3514 of the Revised Code, the results and 21720
recommendations of the alcohol and drug addiction program21721
services provider also shall be provided and used as described in 21722
division (D) of that section. Information obtained or maintained 21723
by the agency or programprovider pursuant to this section that 21724
could enable the identification of any person described in 21725
division (A) of this section is not a public record subject to 21726
inspection or copying under section 149.43 of the Revised Code.21727

       Sec. 340.16. Not later than ninety days after September 5, 21728
2001, theThe department of mental healthmental health and 21729
addiction services and the department of job and family services21730
medicaid shall adopt rules that establish requirements and 21731
procedures for prior notification and service coordination between 21732
public children services agencies and boards of alcohol, drug 21733
addiction, and mental health services when a public children 21734
services agency refers a child in its custody to a board for 21735
services funded by the board. The rules shall be adopted in 21736
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.21737

       The department of mental health and department of job and 21738
family services shall collaborate in formulating a plan that 21739
delineates the funding responsibilities of public children 21740
services agencies and boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and 21741
mental health services for services provided under section 21742
5111.023 of the Revised Code to children in the custody of public 21743
children services agencies. The departments shall complete the 21744
plan not later than ninety days after September 5, 2001.21745

       Sec. 341.192. (A) As used in this section:21746

        (1) "Jail" means a county jail, or a multicounty, 21747
municipal-county, or multicounty-municipal correctional center.21748

       (2) "Medical assistance program" has the same meaning as in 21749
section 2913.40 of the Revised Code.21750

       (3) "Medical provider" means a physician, hospital, 21751
laboratory, pharmacy, or other health care provider that is not 21752
employed by or under contract to a county, municipal corporation, 21753
township, the department of youth services, or the department of 21754
rehabilitation and correction to provide medical services to 21755
persons confined in a jail or state correctional institution, or 21756
is in the custody of a law enforcement officer.21757

       (4)(3) "Necessary care" means medical care of a nonelective 21758
nature that cannot be postponed until after the period of 21759
confinement of a person who is confined in a jail or state 21760
correctional institution, or is in the custody of a law 21761
enforcement officer without endangering the life or health of the 21762
person.21763

        (B) If a physician employed by or under contract to a county, 21764
municipal corporation, township, the department of youth services, 21765
or the department of rehabilitation and correction to provide 21766
medical services to persons confined in a jail or state 21767
correctional institution determines that a person who is confined 21768
in the jail or state correctional institution or who is in the 21769
custody of a law enforcement officer prior to the person's 21770
confinement in a jail or state correctional institution requires 21771
necessary care that the physician cannot provide, the necessary 21772
care shall be provided by a medical provider. The county, 21773
municipal corporation, township, the department of youth services, 21774
or the department of rehabilitation and correction shall pay a 21775
medical provider for necessary care an amount not exceeding the 21776
authorized reimbursement rate for the same service established by 21777
the department of job and family servicesmedicaid under the 21778
medical assistancemedicaid program.21779

       Sec. 351.021.  (A) The resolution of the county commissioners 21780
creating a convention facilities authority, or any amendment or 21781
supplement to that resolution, may authorize the authority to levy 21782
one or both of the excise taxes authorized by division (B) of this 21783
section to pay the cost of one or more facilities; to pay 21784
principal, interest, and premium on convention facilities 21785
authority tax anticipation bonds issued to pay those costs; to pay 21786
the operating costs of the authority; to pay operating and 21787
maintenance costs of those facilities; and to pay the costs of 21788
administering the excise tax.21789

       (B) The board of directors of a convention facilities 21790
authority that has been authorized pursuant to resolution adopted, 21791
amended, or supplemented by the board of county commissioners 21792
pursuant to division (A) of this section may levy, by resolution 21793
adopted on or before December 31, 1988, either or both of the 21794
following:21795

       (1) Within the territory of the authority, an additional 21796
excise tax not to exceed four per cent on each transaction. The 21797
excise tax authorized by division (B)(1) of this section shall be 21798
in addition to any excise tax levied pursuant to section 5739.08 21799
or 5739.09 of the Revised Code, or division (B)(2) of this 21800
section.21801

       (2) Within that portion of any municipal corporation that is 21802
located within the territory of the authority or within the 21803
boundaries of any township that is located within the territory of 21804
the authority, which municipal corporation or township is levying 21805
any portion of the excise tax authorized by division (A) of 21806
section 5739.08 of the Revised Code, and with the approval, by 21807
ordinance or resolution, of the legislative authority of that 21808
municipal corporation or township, an additional excise tax not to 21809
exceed nine-tenths of one per cent on each transaction. The excise 21810
tax authorized by division (B)(2) of this section may be levied 21811
only if, on the effective date of the levy specified in the 21812
resolution making the levy, the amount being levied pursuant to 21813
division (A) of section 5739.08 of the Revised Code by each 21814
municipal corporation or township in which the tax authorized by 21815
division (B)(2) of this section will be levied, when added to the 21816
amount levied under division (B)(2) of this section, does not 21817
exceed three per cent on each transaction. The excise tax 21818
authorized by division (B)(2) of this section shall be in addition 21819
to any excise tax that is levied pursuant to section 5739.08 or 21820
5739.09 of the Revised Code, or division (B)(1) of this section.21821

       (C)(1) The board of directors of a convention facilities 21822
authority that is located in an eligible Appalachian county; that 21823
has been authorized pursuant to resolution adopted, amended, or 21824
supplemented by the board of county commissioners pursuant to 21825
division (A) of this section; and that is not levying a tax under 21826
division (B)(1) or (2) of this section may levy within the 21827
territory of the authority, by resolution adopted on or before 21828
December 31, 2005, an additional excise tax not to exceed three 21829
per cent on each transaction. The excise tax authorized under 21830
division (C)(1) of this section shall be in addition to any excise 21831
tax levied pursuant to section 5739.08 or 5739.09 of the Revised 21832
Code.21833

        As used in division (C)(1) of this section, "eligible 21834
Appalachian county" means a county in this state designated as 21835
being in the "Appalachian region" under the "Appalachian Regional 21836
Development Act of 1965," 79 Stat. 4, 40 U.S.C. App. 403, and 21837
having a population less than eighty thousand according to the 21838
most recent federal decennial census.21839

       (2) Division (B)(C)(2) of this section applies only to a 21840
convention facilities authority located in a county with a 21841
population, according to the 2000 federal decennial census, of at 21842
least one hundred thirty-five thousand and not more than one 21843
hundred fifty thousand and containing entirely within its 21844
boundaries the territory of a municipal corporation with a 21845
population according to that census of more than fifty thousand. 21846
The board of directors of such a convention facilities authority, 21847
by resolution adopted on or before November 1, 2009, may levy 21848
within the territory of the authority an excise tax on 21849
transactions by which lodging by a hotel is or is to be furnished 21850
to transient guests at a rate not to exceed three per cent on such 21851
transactions for the same purposes for which a tax may be levied 21852
under division (B) of this section. The resolution may be adopted 21853
only if the board of county commissioners of the county, by 21854
resolution, authorizes the levy of the tax. The resolution of the 21855
board of county commissioners is subject to referendum as 21856
prescribed by sections 305.31 to 305.41 of the Revised Code. If, 21857
pursuant to those procedures, a referendum is to be held, the 21858
board's resolution does not take effect until approved by a 21859
majority of electors voting on the question. The convention 21860
facilities authority may adopt the resolution authorized by 21861
division (C)(2) of this section before the election, but the 21862
authority's resolution shall not take effect if the board of 21863
commissioners' resolution is not approved at the election. A tax 21864
levied under division (C)(2) of this section is in addition to any 21865
tax levied under section 5739.09 of the Revised Code.21866

       (D) The authority shall provide for the administration and 21867
allocation of an excise tax levied pursuant to division (B) or (C) 21868
of this section. All receipts arising from those excise taxes 21869
shall be expended for the purposes provided in, and in accordance 21870
with this section and section 351.141 of the Revised Code. An 21871
excise tax levied under division (B) or (C) of this section shall 21872
remain in effect at the rate at which it is levied for at least 21873
the duration of the period for which the receipts from the tax 21874
have been anticipated and pledged pursuant to section 351.141 of 21875
the Revised Code.21876

       (E) Except as provided in division (B)(2) of this section, 21877
the levy of an excise tax on each transaction pursuant to sections 21878
5739.08 and 5739.09 of the Revised Code does not prevent a 21879
convention facilities authority from levying an excise tax 21880
pursuant to division (B) or (C) of this section.21881

       (F) A convention facilities authority located in a county 21882
with a population greater than eighty thousand but less than 21883
ninety thousand according to the 2010 federal decennial census 21884
that levies a tax under division (B) of this section may amend the 21885
resolution levying the tax to allocate a portion of the revenue 21886
from the tax for support of tourism-related sites or facilities 21887
and programs operated by the county or a municipal corporation 21888
within the county in which the authority is located or for the 21889
purpose of leasing lands for county fairs, erecting buildings for 21890
county fair purposes, making improvements on a county fairground, 21891
or for any purpose connected with the use of a county fairground 21892
or with the management thereof by the county in which the 21893
authority is located. The revenue allocated by the authority for 21894
such purposes in a calendar year shall not exceed fifteen per cent 21895
of the total revenue from the tax in the preceding calendar year.21896

       Sec. 353.01.  For purposes of this chapter:21897

       (A) "Lake facilities authority" means a body corporate and 21898
politic created pursuant to section 353.02 of the Revised Code.21899

       (B) "Watershed" means a watershed as determined by the United 21900
States geological survey.21901

       (C) "Impacted watershed" means a watershed meeting both of 21902
the following conditions:21903

       (1) The watershed contains a natural or man-made lake of at 21904
least one-half square mile that has experienced levels of 21905
microcystin toxins in excess of eighty parts-per-billion, as 21906
measured by the Ohio environmental protection agency, during the 21907
twenty-four month period immediately preceding the date the last 21908
resolution necessary for the creation of a lake facilities 21909
authority under section 353.02 of the Revised Code was adopted.21910

       (2) The watershed is partially or completely located within a 21911
state park, as defined in section 154.01 of the Revised Code, that 21912
has averaged at least four hundred thousand visitors per year for 21913
the four calendar years preceding the calendar year in which the 21914
last resolution necessary for the creation of a lake facilities 21915
authority under section 353.02 of the Revised Code was adopted.21916

       (D) "Impacted lake district" means the territory of all 21917
townships and municipal corporations having territory in an 21918
impacted watershed.21919

       (E) "Cost" as applied to a lake facilities authority facility 21920
means the cost of acquisition or construction of the facility; the 21921
cost of acquisition of all land, rights-of-way, property rights, 21922
easements, franchise rights, and interests required for such 21923
acquisition; the cost of demolishing or removing any buildings or 21924
structures on land so acquired, including the cost of acquiring 21925
any lands to which such buildings or structures may be moved; the 21926
cost of acquiring or constructing and equipping a principal office 21927
of the lake facilities authority; the cost of diverting highways, 21928
interchange of highways, and access roads to private property, 21929
including the cost of land or easements for the access roads, the 21930
cost of public utility and common carrier relocation or 21931
duplication, the cost of all machinery, furnishings, and 21932
equipment, financing charges, interest prior to and during any 21933
construction and for no more than eighteen months after completion 21934
of any construction; engineering; expenses of research and 21935
development with respect to an impacted lake district; legal 21936
expenses; expenses of developing or obtaining plans, 21937
specifications, engineering surveys, studies, and estimates of 21938
cost and revenues; expenses necessary or incident to determining 21939
the feasibility or practicability of acquiring or constructing the 21940
facility or remediating the impacted lake district; administrative 21941
expense; and such other expenses as may be necessary or incident 21942
to the acquisition or construction of the facility, the 21943
remediation of the impacted lake district and other activities 21944
authorized by this chapter, the financing of such acquisition, 21945
construction or remediation, including the amount authorized in 21946
the resolution of the lake facilities authority providing for the 21947
issuance of lake facilities authority revenue bonds to be paid 21948
into any special funds from the proceeds of such bonds and the 21949
financing of the placing of the facility in operation, the cost of 21950
issuing the bonds, and the financing of remediation and other 21951
purposes authorized by this chapter.21952

       (F) "Revenues" means all rentals and other charges received 21953
by the lake facilities authority with respect to an impacted 21954
watershed; any gift or grant received with respect to any impacted 21955
watershed; money received in repayment of, and for interest on, 21956
any loans made by the authority to a person or governmental 21957
agency, whether from the United States or any department, 21958
administration, or agency thereof, or otherwise; proceeds of lake 21959
facilities authority revenue bonds to the extent the use thereof 21960
for payment of principal or of premium, if any, or interest on the 21961
bonds is authorized by the authority; proceeds from any insurance, 21962
appropriation, or guaranty pertaining to an impacted watershed or 21963
property mortgaged to secure bonds or pertaining to the financing 21964
of any activities authorized under this chapter; income and profit 21965
from the investment of the proceeds of lake facilities authority 21966
revenue bonds or of any revenues; and contributions of service 21967
payments in lieu of taxes generated pursuant to section 5709.40, 21968
5709.41, 5709.73, or 5709.78 of the Revised Code, and all other 21969
nontax revenues paid or payable to the lake facilities authority.21970

       (G) "Lake facilities revenue bonds," unless the context 21971
indicates a different meaning or intent, includes revenue notes, 21972
revenue renewal notes, and revenue refunding bonds.21973

       (H) "Authorized purpose" means activities that remediate, 21974
rehabilitate, enhance, foster, aid, improve, provide, or promote 21975
an impacted watershed within the jurisdiction of the lake 21976
facilities authority, including, without limitation, research and 21977
development efforts related thereto.21978

       (I) "Lake facilities authority facility" or "facility" means 21979
real or personal property, or any combination thereof owned, 21980
leased, or otherwise controlled or financed by a lake facilities 21981
authority and directly related to an authorized purpose.21982

       Sec. 353.02.  A lake facilities authority may be created by 21983
the board of county commissioners of a county that contains all of 21984
the territory of an impacted watershed. If the territory of an 21985
impacted watershed is contained within more than one county, a 21986
joint facilities lake authority may be created by resolution of 21987
the board of commissioners of each county in which the impacted 21988
watershed is located. A resolution creating a lake facilities 21989
authority must include a finding that the watershed sought to be 21990
improved or remediated pursuant to this chapter is an impacted 21991
watershed.21992

       A lake facilities authority created pursuant to this section 21993
is a body corporate and politic which may sue and be sued, plead 21994
and be impleaded, and has the powers and jurisdiction enumerated 21995
in this chapter. The exercise by an authority of the powers 21996
conferred upon it shall be deemed to be essential governmental 21997
functions of this state.21998

       Within sixty days after the creation of a lake facilities 21999
authority, the county engineer of each county with territory in 22000
the impacted watershed shall prepare a survey denoting the 22001
boundaries of the impacted watershed in the county. The survey 22002
shall include references to the county auditor's permanent parcel 22003
number designations as those parcel number designations correspond 22004
to the boundaries of the impacted watershed. If requested by the 22005
county engineer of each county with territory in the impacted 22006
watershed, the cost of such surveys shall be paid from the funds 22007
of the lake facilities authority pursuant to an agreement between 22008
the lake facilities authority and the county engineer of each 22009
county. Such funds may be advanced by the board of county 22010
commissioners of any county with territory in the impacted 22011
watershed. 22012

       The county auditor of the county with the greatest amount of 22013
territory in the impacted watershed shall be the fiscal officer 22014
for the lake facilities authority. The county prosecutor of the 22015
county with the greatest amount of territory in the impacted 22016
watershed shall be the legal advisor of the lake facilities 22017
authority and shall prosecute and defend all suits and actions 22018
that the lake facilities authority directs or to which it is a 22019
party. 22020

       Upon the creation of a lake facilities authority, no 22021
authority that is granted by law any powers or duties that are 22022
substantially the same as the powers and duties of a lake 22023
facilities authority may be created if its territorial 22024
jurisdiction includes any territory within the impacted lake 22025
district.22026

       Sec. 353.03.  A lake facilities authority may do all of the 22027
following:22028

       (A) Acquire by purchase, lease, gift, or otherwise, on such 22029
terms and in such manner as it considers proper, real and personal 22030
property necessary for an authorized purpose or any estate, 22031
interest, or right therein, within or without the impacted lake 22032
district;22033

       (B) Improve, remediate, maintain, sell, lease, or otherwise 22034
dispose of real and personal property on such terms and in such 22035
manner as it considers proper;22036

       (C) Adopt, modify, and enforce reasonable rules and 22037
regulations governing impacted watersheds;22038

       (D) Employ such managers, administrative officers, agents, 22039
engineers, architects, attorneys, contractors, subcontractors, and 22040
employees as may be appropriate in the exercise of the rights, 22041
powers, and duties conferred on it, prescribe the duties and 22042
compensation for such persons, require bonds to be given by any 22043
such persons and by officers of the authority for the faithful 22044
performance of their duties, and fix the amount and surety 22045
therefor, and pay the surety;22046

       (E) Sue and be sued in its corporate name;22047

       (F)(1) Make and enter into all contracts and agreements and 22048
execute all instruments relating to the provisions of this 22049
chapter;22050

       (2) Except as provided otherwise under divisions (F)(2) and 22051
(3) of this section, when the cost of a contract for the 22052
construction of any building, structure, or other improvement 22053
undertaken by a lake facilities authority involves an expenditure 22054
exceeding twenty-five thousand dollars, and the lake facilities 22055
authority is the contracting authority, the lake facilities 22056
authority shall make a written contract after notice calling for 22057
bids for the award of the contract has been given by publication 22058
twice, with at least seven days between publications, in a 22059
newspaper of general circulation in the impacted lake district. 22060
Each such contract shall be awarded to the lowest responsive and 22061
responsible bidder in accordance with section 9.312 of the Revised 22062
Code. The board of directors by rule may provide criteria for the 22063
negotiation and award without competitive bidding of any contract 22064
as to which the lake facilities authority is the contracting 22065
authority for the construction of any building or structure or 22066
other improvement under any of the following circumstances:22067

       (a) There exists a real and present emergency that threatens 22068
damage to property or injury to persons of the lake facilities 22069
authority or other persons, provided that a statement specifying 22070
the nature of the emergency that is the basis for the negotiation 22071
and award of a contract without competitive bidding shall be 22072
signed at the time of the contract's execution by the officer of 22073
the lake facilities authority that executes the contract and shall 22074
be attached to the contract.22075

       (b) A commonly recognized industry or other standard or 22076
specification does not exist and cannot objectively be articulated 22077
for the improvement.22078

       (c) The contract is for any energy conservation measure as 22079
defined in section 307.041 of the Revised Code.22080

       (d) With respect to material to be incorporated into the 22081
improvement, only a single source or supplier exists for the 22082
material.22083

       (e) A single bid is received by the lake facilities authority 22084
after complying with the above provisions.22085

       (3) In addition to the exceptions to competitive bidding 22086
requirements under division (F)(2) of this section, a lake 22087
facilities authority may contract for the acquisition or 22088
construction of any property for an authorized purpose and for the 22089
leasing, subleasing, sale, or other disposition of the property in 22090
a manner determined by the lake facilities authority in its sole 22091
discretion, without necessity for competitive bidding or 22092
performance bonds. 22093

       (4) With respect to any public improvement undertaken by, or 22094
under contract for, the lake facilities authority, the authority 22095
may elect to apply sections 4115.03 to 4115.21 of the Revised 22096
Code.22097

       (G) Accept aid or contributions from any source of money, 22098
property, labor, or other things of value, to be held, used, and 22099
applied only for the purposes for which the grants and 22100
contributions are made;22101

       (H) Apply for and accept grants, loans, or commitments of 22102
guarantee or insurance, including any guarantees of lake 22103
facilities authority bonds and notes, from the United States, the 22104
state, or other public body or other sources, and provide any 22105
consideration which may be required in order to obtain such 22106
grants, loans, or contracts of guarantee or insurance; 22107

       (I) Procure insurance against loss to the lake facilities 22108
authority by reason of damage to its properties resulting from 22109
fire, theft, accident, or other casualties, or by reason of its 22110
liability for any damages to persons or property occurring in the 22111
construction or operation of facilities or areas under its 22112
jurisdiction or the conduct of its activities;22113

       (J) Maintain such funds or reserves as it considers necessary 22114
for the efficient performance of its duties;22115

       (K) Enforce any covenants, of which the lake facilities 22116
authority is the beneficiary, running with the land.22117

       (L) Appropriate for its use, under sections 163.01 to 163.22 22118
of the Revised Code, any land, easement, rights, rights-of-way, 22119
franchises, or other property in the impacted watershed necessary 22120
for an authorized purpose;22121

       (M) Issue securities for the remediation of an impacted 22122
watershed and directly related permanent improvements in 22123
compliance with Chapter 133. of the Revised Code, except that such 22124
bonds or notes may be issued only pursuant to a vote of the 22125
electors residing within the impacted lake district. The net 22126
indebtedness incurred by a lake facilities authority pursuant to 22127
this division may not exceed one-tenth of one per cent of the 22128
total value of all property within the territory comprising the 22129
impacted lake district as listed and assessed for taxation.22130

       (N) Issue lake facilities authority revenue bonds beyond the 22131
limit of bonded indebtedness provided by law, payable solely from 22132
revenues as provided in section 353.09 of the Revised Code for the 22133
purpose of providing funds to pay costs of any facility or 22134
facilities or parts thereof;22135

       (O) Advise and provide input to political subdivisions within 22136
the impacted lake district with respect to zoning and land use 22137
planning within the impacted lake district;22138

       (P) Enter into agreements for the management, ownership, 22139
possession, or control of lands or property to be used for wetland 22140
mitigation banking.22141

       Sec. 353.04.  (A) Upon the creation of a lake facilities 22142
authority under section 353.02 of the Revised Code, a board of 22143
directors consisting of the county commissioners of each county 22144
with territory in the impacted lake district shall be created. 22145
Membership on the board is not a direct or indirect interest in a 22146
contract or expenditure of money by the county. Notwithstanding 22147
any provision of law to the contrary, no member of the board shall 22148
be disqualified from holding any public office or employment by 22149
reason of membership on the board. The board is a public body for 22150
the purposes of section 121.22 of the Revised Code and a public 22151
office for the purposes of section 149.43 of the Revised Code. 22152
Notwithstanding those sections, the board may hold closed meetings 22153
and protect the confidentiality of information under the same 22154
circumstances as authorized for a community improvement 22155
corporation under section 1724.11 of the Revised Code. Chapter 22156
2744. of the Revised Code applies to the board. Each year, the 22157
board shall prepare an annual report of its activities and make it 22158
available to the public.22159

       (B) A board of directors shall consult with the advisory 22160
council created under this division in performing the remediation 22161
and other activities authorized by this chapter. 22162

       Not later than sixty days after the creation of the board of 22163
directors, the board shall provide written notice of its creation 22164
to the legislative authority of each political subdivision with 22165
territory in the impacted lake district. The notice shall describe 22166
the process for the appointment of an advisory council. Upon 22167
receipt of such notice, the legislative authority of each 22168
political subdivision with territory in the impacted lake district 22169
shall appoint one representative each to serve on the advisory 22170
council. The representative need not be an elected or appointed 22171
official of the political subdivision. 22172

       Sec. 353.05. The board of directors of a lake facilities 22173
authority, by resolution, may propose the levy of a tax upon the 22174
taxable property in the impacted lake district pursuant to section 22175
5705.55 of the Revised Code.22176

       Sec. 353.06. As used in this section, "hotel" and "transient 22177
guests" have the same meanings as in section 5739.01 of the 22178
Revised Code.22179

        A resolution creating a lake facilities authority under 22180
section 353.02 of the Revised Code, or any amendments or 22181
supplements thereto, may authorize the authority to levy an excise 22182
tax on transactions by which lodging in a hotel is or is to be 22183
furnished to transient guests to pay any costs authorized under 22184
this chapter; to pay principal, interest, and premium on lake 22185
facilities authority tax anticipation bonds issued to pay those 22186
costs; to pay the operating costs of the authority; and to pay the 22187
costs of administering the tax.22188

       Upon the affirmative vote of at least a majority of the 22189
qualified electors in a primary or general election within the 22190
impacted lake district voting at an election held for the purpose 22191
of authorizing the tax, the board of directors of a lake 22192
facilities authority authorized to levy a tax under this section 22193
may, by resolution, levy an additional excise tax within the 22194
territory of the impacted lake district on all transactions by 22195
which lodging in a hotel is or is to be furnished to transient 22196
guests. The rate of the tax, when added to the aggregate rate of 22197
excise taxes levied in the impacted lake district pursuant to 22198
section 351.021, 5739.08, or 5739.09 of the Revised Code, shall 22199
not cause the total aggregate rate to exceed five per cent on any 22200
such transaction.22201

       The lake facilities authority shall provide for the 22202
administration and allocation of a tax levied pursuant to this 22203
section. All receipts arising from the tax shall be expended for 22204
the purposes provided in, and in accordance with, this section. An 22205
excise tax levied under this section shall remain in effect at the 22206
rate at which it is levied for at least the duration of the period 22207
for which the receipts from the tax have been anticipated and 22208
pledged pursuant to section 353.08 of the Revised Code.22209

       The form of the ballot in an election held on the question of 22210
levying a tax proposed pursuant to this section shall be as 22211
follows or in any other form acceptable to the secretary of state:22212

       "An excise tax on all transactions by which lodging in a 22213
hotel is or is to be furnished to transient guests within the 22214
territory of the (name of impacted lake district) ........... for 22215
the purpose of .......... at a rate of ......... for ............ 22216
(number of years the tax is to be levied).22217

        22218

 For the Excise Tax 22219
 Against the Excise Tax  " 22220

       Sec. 353.07. The director of natural resources may transfer 22221
real property owned by the state to a lake facilities authority 22222
for the purpose of promoting wetland banking, wildlife, or 22223
sporting activities. The division of wildlife within the 22224
department of natural resources may enter into an agreement with a 22225
lake facilities authority to establish wetland or natural areas to 22226
benefit wildlife or sporting activities. The agreement may be 22227
entered as part of, or in conjunction with, a mitigation banking 22228
program.22229

       Sec. 353.08.  A lake facilities authority that levies a tax 22230
authorized by sections 353.05 and 5705.55 or section 353.06 of the 22231
Revised Code may, by resolution, anticipate the proceeds of the 22232
tax and issue lake facilities authority anticipation bonds, and 22233
notes anticipating the proceeds or the bonds, in the principal 22234
amount that, in the opinion of the authority, are necessary for 22235
the purpose of paying the cost of an authorized purpose, and that 22236
the authority is able to pay over the term of the issue with the 22237
interest on the bonds or notes, or in the case of notes 22238
anticipating bonds over the term of the bonds, by the estimated 22239
amount of the taxes anticipated. The taxes are determined by the 22240
general assembly to satisfy any applicable requirement of Section 22241
11 of Article XII, Ohio Constitution.22242

       Every issue of outstanding anticipation bonds shall be 22243
payable out of the proceeds of the taxes anticipated and other 22244
revenues of the authority that are pledged for such payment. The 22245
pledge shall be valid and binding from the time the pledge is 22246
made, and the anticipated excise taxes and revenues so pledged and 22247
thereafter received by the authority immediately shall be subject 22248
to the lien of that pledge without any physical delivery of those 22249
taxes and revenues or further act. The lien of any pledge is valid 22250
and binding as against all parties having claims of any kind in 22251
tort, contract, or otherwise against the authority, whether or not 22252
such parties have notice of the lien. Neither the resolution nor 22253
any trust agreement by which a pledge is created need be filed or 22254
recorded except in the authority's records.22255

       The anticipation bonds shall bear such date or dates, and 22256
shall mature at such time or times, in the case of any such notes 22257
or any renewals of such notes not exceeding twenty years from the 22258
date of issue of such original notes and in the case of any such 22259
bonds or any refunding bonds not exceeding forty years from the 22260
date of the original issue of notes or bonds for the purpose, and 22261
shall be executed in the manner that the resolution authorizing 22262
the bonds may provide. The anticipation bonds shall bear interest 22263
at such rates, or at a variable rate or rates changing from time 22264
to time, in accordance with provisions provided in the authorizing 22265
resolution, be in such denominations and form, either coupon or 22266
registered, carry such registration privileges, be payable in such 22267
medium of payment and at such place or places, and be subject to 22268
such terms of redemption, as the authority may authorize or 22269
provide.22270

       Sec. 353.09.  A lake facilities authority at any time may 22271
issue lake facilities authority revenue bonds in such principal 22272
amounts as, in the opinion of the lake facilities authority, are 22273
necessary for the purpose of paying the cost of one or more lake 22274
facilities authority facilities or parts thereof. A lake 22275
facilities authority at any time may issue renewal notes, issue 22276
bonds to retire its notes and, whenever it considers refunding 22277
expedient, refund any bonds by the issuance of lake facilities 22278
authority revenue refunding bonds, whether the bonds to be 22279
refunded have or have not matured, and issue lake facilities 22280
authority revenue bonds partly to refund outstanding bonds and 22281
partly for any other authorized purpose. The lake facilities 22282
authority revenue refunding bonds shall be sold and the proceeds 22283
applied to the purchase, redemption, or payment of the bonds to be 22284
refunded. Lake facilities authority revenue bonds shall be special 22285
obligations of the lake facilities authority payable out of the 22286
revenues of the lake facilities authority that are pledged for 22287
such payment. The pledge shall be valid and binding from the time 22288
the pledge is made and the revenues so pledged and thereafter 22289
received by the lake facilities authority immediately shall be 22290
subject to the lien of the pledge without any physical delivery 22291
thereof or further act, and the lien of the pledge is valid and 22292
binding as against all parties having claims of any kind in tort, 22293
contract, or otherwise against the lake facilities authority, 22294
irrespective of whether those parties have notice thereof. Neither 22295
the resolution nor any trust agreement by which a pledge is 22296
created need be filed or recorded except in the records of the 22297
lake facilities authority.22298

       Whether or not the lake facilities authority revenue bonds 22299
are of such form and character as to be negotiable instruments, 22300
the lake facilities authority revenue bonds shall have all the 22301
qualities and incidents of negotiable instruments, subject only to 22302
the provisions of the bonds for registration.22303

       The lake facilities authority revenue bonds shall be 22304
authorized by resolution of the lake facilities authority, and 22305
shall bear interest at such rate or rates, shall bear such date or 22306
dates, and shall mature at such time or times, and in such number 22307
of installments as may be provided in or pursuant to that 22308
resolution. The final maturity of any lake facilities authority 22309
revenue bond in the form of a note and any renewals thereof shall 22310
not exceed five years from the date of issue of the original note. 22311
The final maturity of any issue of lake facilities authority 22312
revenue bonds shall not be later than forty-five years from the 22313
date of issue of the original issue of bonds. Any such bonds or 22314
notes shall be executed in a manner as the resolution or 22315
resolutions may provide. The lake facilities authority revenue 22316
bonds shall be in such denominations, be in such form, either 22317
coupon or registered, carry such registration privileges, be 22318
payable in such medium of payment, at such place or places, and be 22319
subject to such terms of redemption as may be provided in or 22320
pursuant to the resolution authorizing their issuance. Lake 22321
facilities authority revenue bonds of the lake facilities 22322
authority may be sold by the lake facilities authority, at public 22323
or private sale, at or at not less than a price or prices as the 22324
lake facilities authority determines. In case any officer whose 22325
signature or a facsimile of whose signature appears on any bonds, 22326
notes, or coupons, ceases to be such officer before delivery of 22327
bonds or notes, the signature or facsimile shall nevertheless be 22328
sufficient for all purposes the same as if the officer had 22329
remained in office until such delivery, and in case the seal of 22330
the lake facilities authority has been changed after a facsimile 22331
has been imprinted on such bonds or notes, the facsimile seal will 22332
continue to be sufficient for all purposes.22333

       Any resolution or resolutions authorizing any lake facilities 22334
authority revenue bonds or any issue of bonds may contain 22335
provisions, subject to any agreements with bondholders as may then 22336
exist, which provisions shall be a part of the contract with the 22337
holders of bonds, as to the pledging of all or any part of the 22338
revenues of the lake facilities authority to secure the payment of 22339
the lake facilities authority bonds or of any issue of the bonds; 22340
the use and disposition of revenues of the lake facilities 22341
authority; a covenant to fix, alter, and collect rentals and other 22342
charges so that pledged revenues will be sufficient to pay costs 22343
of operation, maintenance, and repairs, pay principal of and 22344
interest on bonds secured by the pledge of such revenues, and 22345
provide any reserves that may be required by the applicable 22346
resolution or trust agreement; the setting aside of reserve funds, 22347
sinking funds, or replacement and improvement funds and the 22348
regulation and disposition thereof; the crediting of the proceeds 22349
of the sale of bonds to and among the funds referred to or 22350
provided for in or pursuant to the resolution authorizing the 22351
issuance of the bonds or notes; the use, lease, sale, or other 22352
disposition of any lake facilities authority facility or any other 22353
assets of the lake facilities authority; limitations on the 22354
purpose to which the proceeds of sale of bonds may be applied and 22355
the pledging of those proceeds to secure the payment of the bonds 22356
or of any issue of the bonds; as to notes issued in anticipation 22357
of the issuance of bonds, the agreement of the lake facilities 22358
authority to do all things necessary for the authorization, 22359
issuance, and sale of the bonds in amounts that may be necessary 22360
for the timely retirement of the notes; limitations on the 22361
issuance of additional bonds; the terms upon which additional 22362
bonds may be issued and secured; the refunding of outstanding 22363
bonds; the procedure, if any, by which the terms of any contract 22364
with bondholders may be amended or abrogated, the amount of bonds 22365
the holders of which must consent thereto, and the manner in which 22366
such consent may be given; limitations on the amount of moneys to 22367
be expended by the lake facilities authority for operating, 22368
administrative, or other expenses of the lake facilities 22369
authority; securing any bonds or notes by a trust agreement; and 22370
any other matters, of like or different character, that in any way 22371
affect the security or protection of the bonds or notes.22372

       Neither the board of directors of the lake facilities 22373
authority nor any person executing the bonds shall be liable 22374
personally on the bonds or be subject to any personal liability or 22375
accountability by reason of the issuance thereof.22376

       The issuance of lake facilities authority revenue bonds under 22377
this section need not comply with any other law applicable to the 22378
issuance of bonds or notes.22379

       Sec. 353.10.  (A) With respect to facilities, and their 22380
financing, for an authorized purpose, under agreements whereby the 22381
person to whom the facility is to be leased, subleased, or sold, 22382
or to whom a loan is to be made for the facility, is to make 22383
payments sufficient to pay all of the principal of, premium, if 22384
any, and interest on the lake facilities authority revenue bonds 22385
issued for the facility, the lake facilities authority, in 22386
addition to other powers under this chapter, may do any of the 22387
following:22388

       (1) Make loans for the acquisition or construction of the 22389
facility to such person upon such terms as the lake facilities 22390
authority may determine or authorize including secured or 22391
unsecured loans, and, in connection therewith, enter into loan 22392
agreements and other agreements, accept notes and other forms of 22393
obligation to evidence such indebtedness and mortgages, liens, 22394
pledges, assignments, or other security interests to secure such 22395
indebtedness, which may be prior or subordinate to or on a parity 22396
with other indebtedness, obligations, mortgages, pledges, 22397
assignments, other security interests, or liens or encumbrances, 22398
and take actions it considers appropriate to protect such security 22399
and safeguard against losses, including, without limitation, 22400
foreclosure and the bidding upon and purchase of property upon 22401
foreclosure or other sale;22402

       (2) Sell the facility under such terms as it may determine, 22403
including, without limitation, sale by conditional sale or 22404
installment sale, under which title may pass prior to or after 22405
completion of the facility or payment or provisions for payment of 22406
all principal of, premium, if any, and interest on the bonds, or 22407
at any other time provided in the agreement pertaining to the 22408
sale, and including sale under an option to purchase at a price 22409
which may be a nominal amount or less than true value at the time 22410
of purchase;22411

       (3) Grant a mortgage, lien, or other encumbrance on, or 22412
pledge or assignment of, or other security interest with respect 22413
to, all or any part of the facility, revenues, reserve funds, or 22414
other funds established in connection with the bonds, or on, of, 22415
or with respect to any lease, sublease, sale, conditional sale or 22416
installment sale agreement, loan agreement, or other agreement 22417
pertaining to the lease, sublease, sale, or other disposition of a 22418
facility or pertaining to a loan made for a facility, or any 22419
guaranty or insurance agreement made with respect thereto, or any 22420
interest of the lake facilities authority therein, or any other 22421
interest granted, assigned, or released to secure payments of the 22422
principal of, premium, if any, or interest on the bonds or to 22423
secure any other payments to be made by the lake facilities 22424
authority, which mortgage, lien, encumbrance, pledge, assignment, 22425
or other security interest may be prior or subordinate to or on a 22426
parity with any other mortgage, assignment, or other security 22427
interest, or lien or encumbrance;22428

       (4) Provide that the interest on the bonds may be at a 22429
variable rate or rates changing from time to time in accordance 22430
with a base or formula as authorized by the lake facilities 22431
authority;22432

       (5) Contract for the acquisition or construction of the 22433
facility or any part thereof and for the leasing, subleasing, 22434
sale, or other disposition of the facility in a manner determined 22435
by the lake facilities authority in its sole discretion, without 22436
necessity for competitive bidding or performance bonds;22437

       (6) Make appropriate provision for adequate maintenance of 22438
the facility.22439

       (B) With respect to the facilities referred to in this 22440
section, the authority granted by this section is cumulative and 22441
supplementary to all other authority granted in this chapter. The 22442
authority granted by this section does not alter or impair any 22443
similar authority granted elsewhere in this chapter for or with 22444
respect to other facilities.22445

       Sec. 353.11.  In the discretion of the lake facilities 22446
authority, any lake facilities authority revenue bonds issued 22447
under this chapter may be secured by a trust agreement between the 22448
lake facilities authority and a corporate trustee that may be any 22449
trust company or bank having the powers of a trust company within 22450
or without the state.22451

       The trust agreement may pledge or assign revenues of the lake 22452
facilities authority to be received and may convey or mortgage any 22453
facility or any part thereof. The trust agreement or any 22454
resolution providing for the issuance of such bonds may contain 22455
any provisions for protecting and enforcing the rights and 22456
remedies of the bondholders as are reasonable and proper and not 22457
in violation of law, including covenants setting forth the duties 22458
of the lake facilities authority in relation to the acquisition of 22459
property, the construction, improvement, maintenance, repair, 22460
operation, and insurance of the facility in connection with which 22461
the bonds are authorized, the rentals or other charges to be 22462
imposed for the use or services of any facility, the custody, 22463
safeguarding, and application of all moneys, and provisions for 22464
the employment of consulting engineers in connection with the 22465
construction or operation of the facility.22466

        Any bank or trust company incorporated under the laws of this 22467
state that may act as depository of the proceeds of bonds or of 22468
revenues may furnish any indemnifying bonds or may pledge any 22469
securities that are required by the lake facilities authority. The 22470
trust agreement may set forth the rights and remedies of the 22471
bondholders and of the trustee, and may restrict the individual 22472
right of action by bondholders as is customary in trust agreements 22473
or trust indentures securing similar bonds. The trust agreement 22474
may contain any other provisions that the lake facilities 22475
authority determines reasonable and proper for the security of the 22476
bondholders. All expenses incurred in carrying out the provisions 22477
of the trust agreement may be treated as a part of the cost of the 22478
operation of the facility.22479

       Sec. 353.12.  Any holder of lake facilities authority revenue 22480
bonds issued under sections 353.09 to 353.15 of the Revised Code, 22481
or any of the coupons pertaining to those bonds, and the trustee 22482
under any trust agreement, except to the extent the rights given 22483
by those sections may be restricted by the applicable resolution 22484
or that trust agreement, may by suit, action, mandamus, or other 22485
proceedings, protect and enforce any rights under the laws of the 22486
state or granted under those sections, the trust agreement, or the 22487
resolution authorizing the issuance of the bonds, and may enforce 22488
and compel the performance of all duties required by those 22489
sections, or by the trust agreement or resolution, to be performed 22490
by the lake facilities authority or any officer of the lake 22491
facilities authority, including the fixing, charging, and 22492
collecting of rentals or other charges.22493

       Sec. 353.13.  Lake facilities authority revenue bonds issued 22494
under sections 353.09 to 353.15 of the Revised Code do not 22495
constitute a debt, or a pledge of the faith and credit, of the 22496
state or any political subdivision of the state. The holders or 22497
owners of the bonds have no right to have taxes levied by the 22498
general assembly or taxing authority of any political subdivision 22499
of the state for the payment of the principal of or interest on 22500
the bonds. The bonds are payable solely from the revenues and 22501
funds pledged for their payment as authorized by this chapter, 22502
unless the revenue bonds are notes issued in anticipation of the 22503
issuance of the bonds, or the revenue bonds are refunded by 22504
refunding bonds issued under section 353.09 of the Revised Code, 22505
provided that the refunding bonds shall be payable solely from 22506
revenues and funds pledged for their payment as authorized by that 22507
section. All bonds shall contain on the face thereof a statement 22508
to the effect that the bonds, as to both principal and interest, 22509
are not debts of the state or any political subdivision of the 22510
state, but are payable solely from revenues and funds pledged for 22511
their payment.22512

       Sec. 353.14.  All moneys, funds, properties, and assets 22513
acquired by the lake facilities authority under this chapter, 22514
whether as proceeds from the sale of lake facilities authority 22515
revenue bonds or as revenues, or otherwise, shall be held by it in 22516
trust for the purposes of carrying out its powers and duties, 22517
shall be used and reused as provided in this chapter, and shall at 22518
no time be part of other public funds. Such funds, except as 22519
otherwise provided in any resolution authorizing its lake 22520
facilities authority revenue bonds or in any trust agreement 22521
securing those bonds, or except when invested pursuant to section 22522
353.15 of the Revised Code, shall be kept in depositories selected 22523
by the lake facilities authority in the manner provided in Chapter 22524
135. of the Revised Code for the selection of eligible public 22525
depositories, and the deposits shall be secured as provided in 22526
that chapter. The resolution authorizing the issuance of such 22527
bonds or the trust agreement securing the bonds shall provide that 22528
any officer to whom, or any bank or trust company to which, such 22529
money is paid shall act as trustee of the money and hold and apply 22530
the money for the purposes for which the bonds are issued, subject 22531
to such conditions as Chapter 135. of the Revised Code and such 22532
resolutions or trust agreement provide.22533

       Sec. 353.15.  Except as otherwise provided in any resolution 22534
authorizing the issuance of its lake facilities authority revenue 22535
bonds or in any trust agreement securing the bonds, moneys in the 22536
funds of the lake facilities authority in excess of current needs 22537
may be invested as permitted by sections 135.01 to 135.21 of the 22538
Revised Code or invested in linked deposit programs established by 22539
resolution of the board of directors in accordance with section 22540
135.80 of the Revised Code. Income from all investments of moneys 22541
in any fund shall be credited to funds as the lake facilities 22542
authority determines, subject to the provisions of any such 22543
resolution or trust agreement, and the investments may be sold at 22544
any time the lake facilities authority determines.22545

       Sec. 353.16.  Bonds of a lake facilities authority and lake 22546
facilities authority revenue bonds are lawful investments of 22547
banks, societies for savings, trust companies, savings and loan 22548
associations, deposit guaranty associations, trustees, 22549
fiduciaries, trustees or other officers having charge of the bond 22550
retirement funds or sinking funds of port authorities and 22551
political subdivisions, and taxing districts of this state, the 22552
commissioners of the sinking fund of this state, the administrator 22553
of workers' compensation, the state teachers retirement system, 22554
the school employees retirement system, the public employees 22555
retirement system, the Ohio police and fire pension fund, and 22556
insurance companies, including domestic life insurance companies 22557
and domestic insurance companies other than life, and are 22558
acceptable as security for the deposit of public moneys.22559

       Sec. 511.261.  If a township park district enters into an 22560
agreement for the sale or lease of mineral rights regarding a park 22561
within the district, any royalties or other moneys resulting from 22562
the sale or lease shall be deposited into a special fund that the 22563
board of park commissioners shall establish under division (F) of 22564
section 5705.09 of the Revised Code. The fund shall be used 22565
exclusively for maintenance of parks within the district and for 22566
the acquisition of new park lands.22567

       Sec. 517.271.  Notwithstanding section 517.22 of the Revised 22568
Code, the company, association, or religious society that most 22569
recently owned and operated a cemetery currently owned by a board 22570
of township trustees may petition the probate court of the county 22571
in which the cemetery is located to transfer the ownership of the 22572
cemetery to the petitioner.22573

       If the court determines that the petitioner has met all of 22574
the following conditions, the court shall transfer the ownership 22575
of the cemetery to the petitioner and shall order the board to 22576
give the petitioner all necessary records and documents concerning 22577
the cemetery, including records of the board's sale of any lots 22578
pursuant to section 517.07 of the Revised Code:22579

       (A) The petitioner has the financial resources necessary to 22580
operate and maintain the cemetery;22581

       (B) The petitioner is in compliance with all applicable laws 22582
and administrative rules concerning the owners and operators of 22583
cemeteries, including registration under section 4767.02 of the 22584
Revised Code; and22585

       (C) The petitioner owes no delinquent taxes.22586

       Sec. 715.691.  (A) As used in this section:22587

       (1) "Contracting party" means a municipal corporation that 22588
has entered into a joint economic development zone contract or any 22589
party succeeding to the municipal corporation, or a township that 22590
entered into a joint economic development zone contract with a 22591
municipal corporation.22592

       (2) "Zone" means a joint economic development zone designated 22593
under this section.22594

       (B) This section provides alternative procedures and 22595
requirements for creating and operating a joint economic 22596
development zone to those set forth in section 715.69 of the 22597
Revised Code. This section applies only if one of the contracting 22598
parties to the zone does not levy a municipal income tax under 22599
Chapter 718. of the Revised Code. A municipal corporation that 22600
does not levy a municipal income tax may enter into an agreement 22601
to create and operate a joint economic development zone under this 22602
section or under section 715.69 of the Revised Code.22603

       Two or more municipal corporations or one or more townships 22604
and one or more municipal corporations may enter into a contract 22605
whereby they agree to share in the costs of improvements for an 22606
area or areas located in one or more of the contracting parties 22607
that they designate as a joint economic development zone for the 22608
purpose of facilitating new or expanded growth for commercial or 22609
economic development in the state. The contract and zone shall 22610
meet the requirements of divisions (B) to (J) of this section.22611

       (C) The contract shall set forth each contracting party's 22612
contribution to the joint economic development zone. The 22613
contributions may be in any form that the contracting parties 22614
agree to, and may include, but are not limited to, the provision 22615
of services, money, or equipment. The contract may be amended, 22616
renewed, or terminated with the consent of the contracting 22617
parties. The contract shall continue in existence throughout the 22618
term it specifies and shall be binding on the contracting parties 22619
and on any entities succeeding to the contracting parties.22620

       (D) Before the legislative authority of any of the 22621
contracting parties enacts an ordinance or resolution approving a 22622
contract to designate a joint economic development zone, the 22623
legislative authority of each of the contracting parties shall 22624
hold a public hearing concerning the contract and zone. Each 22625
legislative authority shall provide at least thirty days' public 22626
notice of the time and place of the public hearing in a newspaper 22627
of general circulation in the municipal corporation or township. 22628
During the thirty-day period prior to the public hearing, all of 22629
the following documents shall be available for public inspection 22630
in the office of the clerk of the legislative authority of a 22631
municipal corporation that is a contracting party and in the 22632
office of the fiscal officer of a township that is a contracting 22633
party:22634

       (1) A copy of the contract designating the zone;22635

       (2) A description of the area or areas to be included in the 22636
zone, including a map in sufficient detail to denote the specific 22637
boundaries of the area or areas;22638

       (3) An economic development plan for the zone that includes a 22639
schedule for the provision of any new, expanded, or additional 22640
services, facilities, or improvements.22641

       A public hearing held under division (D) of this section 22642
shall allow for public comment and recommendations on the contract 22643
and zone. The contracting parties may include in the contract any 22644
of those recommendations prior to approval of the contract.22645

       (E) After the public hearings required under division (D) of 22646
this section have been held, each contracting party may enact an 22647
ordinance or resolution approving the contract to designate a 22648
joint economic development zone. After each contracting party has 22649
enacted an ordinance or resolution, the clerk of the legislative 22650
authority of a municipal corporation that is a contracting party 22651
and the fiscal officer of a township that is a contracting party 22652
shall file with the board of elections of each county within which 22653
a contracting party is located a copy of the ordinance or 22654
resolution approving the contract and shall direct the board of 22655
elections to submit the ordinance or resolution to the electors of 22656
the contracting party on the day of the next general, primary, or 22657
special election occurring at least ninety days after the 22658
ordinance or resolution is filed with the board of elections. If 22659
any of the contracting parties is a township, however, then only 22660
the township or townships shall submit the resolution to the 22661
electors.22662

       (F)(1) If a vote is required to approve a municipal 22663
corporation as a contracting party to a joint economic development 22664
zone under this section, the ballot shall be in the following 22665
form:22666

       "Shall the ordinance of the legislative authority of the 22667
(city or village) of (name of contracting party) approving the 22668
contract with (name of each other contracting party) for the 22669
designation of a joint economic development zone be approved?22670

        22671

 FOR THE ORDINANCE AND CONTRACT 22672
 AGAINST THE ORDINANCE AND CONTRACT  " 22673

        22674

       (2) If a vote is required to approve a township as a 22675
contracting party to a joint economic development zone under this 22676
section, the ballot shall be in the following form:22677

       "Shall the resolution of the board of township trustees of 22678
the township of (name of contracting party) approving the contract 22679
with (name of each other contracting party) for the designation of 22680
a joint economic development zone be approved?22681

        22682

 FOR THE RESOLUTION AND CONTRACT 22683
 AGAINST THE RESOLUTION AND CONTRACT  " 22684

        22685

       If a majority of the electors of each contracting party 22686
voting on the issue vote for the ordinance or resolution and 22687
contract, the ordinance or resolution shall become effective 22688
immediately and the contract shall go into effect immediately or 22689
in accordance with its terms.22690

       (G)(1) A board of directors shall govern each joint economic 22691
development zone created under section 715.691 of the Revised 22692
Code. The members of the board shall be appointed as provided in 22693
the contract. Each of the contracting parties shall appoint three 22694
members to the board. Terms for each member shall be for two 22695
years, each term ending on the same day of the month of the year 22696
as did the term that it succeeds. A member may be reappointed to 22697
the board.22698

       (2) Membership on the board is not the holding of a public 22699
office or employment within the meaning of any section of the 22700
Revised Code or any charter provision prohibiting the holding of 22701
other public office or employment. Membership on the board is not 22702
a direct or indirect interest in a contract or expenditure of 22703
money by a municipal corporation, township, county, or other 22704
political subdivision with which a member may be affiliated. 22705
Notwithstanding any provision of law or a charter to the contrary, 22706
no member of the board shall forfeit or be disqualified from 22707
holding any public office or employment by reason of membership on 22708
the board.22709

       (3) The board is a public body for the purposes of section 22710
121.22 of the Revised Code. Chapter 2744. of the Revised Code 22711
applies to the board and the zone.22712

       (H) The contract may grant to the board of directors 22713
appointed under division (G) of this section the power to adopt a 22714
resolution to levy an income tax within the zone. The income tax 22715
shall be used for the purposes of the zone and for the purposes of 22716
the contracting municipal corporationsparties pursuant to the 22717
contract. The income tax may be levied in the zone based on income 22718
earned by persons working within the zone and on the net profits 22719
of businesses located in the zone. The income tax is subject to 22720
Chapter 718. of the Revised Code, except that a vote shall be 22721
required by the electors residing in the zone to approve the rate 22722
of income tax unless a majority of the electors residing within 22723
the zone, as determined by the total number of votes cast in the 22724
zone for the office of governor at the most recent general 22725
election for that office, submit a petition to the board 22726
requesting that the election provided for in division (H)(1) of 22727
this section not be held. If no electors reside within the zone, 22728
then division (H)(3) of this section applies. The rate of the 22729
income tax shall be no higher than the highest rate being levied 22730
by a municipal corporation that is a party to the contract.22731

       (1) The board of directors may levy an income tax at a rate 22732
that is not higher than the highest rate being levied by a 22733
municipal corporation that is a party to the contract, provided 22734
that the rate of the income tax is first submitted to and approved 22735
by the electors of the zone at the succeeding regular or primary 22736
election, or a special election called by the board, occurring 22737
subsequent to ninety days after a certified copy of the resolution 22738
levying the income tax and calling for the election is filed with 22739
the board of elections. If the voters approve the levy of the 22740
income tax, the income tax shall be in force for the full period 22741
of the contract establishing the zone. No election shall be held 22742
under this section if a majority of the electors residing within 22743
the zone, determined as specified in division (H) of this section, 22744
submit a petition to that effect to the board of directors. Any 22745
increase in the rate of an income tax by the board of directors 22746
shall be approved by a vote of the electors of the zone and shall 22747
be in force for the remaining period of the contract establishing 22748
the zone.22749

       (2) Whenever a zone is located in the territory of more than 22750
one contracting party, a majority vote of the electors in each of 22751
the several portions of the territory of the contracting parties 22752
constituting the zone approving the levy of the tax is required 22753
before it may be imposed under division (H) of this section.22754

       (3) If no electors reside in the zone, no election for the 22755
approval or rejection of an income tax shall be held under this 22756
section, provided that where no electors reside in the zone, the 22757
rate of the income tax shall be no higher than the highest rate 22758
being levied by a municipal corporation that is a party to the 22759
contract.22760

       (4) The board of directors of a zone levying an income tax 22761
shall enter into an agreement with one of the municipal 22762
corporations that is a party to the contract to administer, 22763
collect, and enforce the income tax on behalf of the zone.22764

       (5) The board of directors of a zone shall publish or post 22765
public notice within the zone of any resolution adopted levying an 22766
income tax in the same manner required of municipal corporations 22767
under sections 731.21 and 731.25 of the Revised Code.22768

       (I)(1) If for any reason a contracting party reverts to or 22769
has its boundaries changed so that it is classified as a township 22770
that is the entity succeeding to that contracting party, the 22771
township is considered to be a municipal corporation for the 22772
purposes of the contract for the full period of the contract 22773
establishing the joint economic development zone, except that if 22774
that contracting party is administering, collecting, and enforcing 22775
the income tax on behalf of the district as provided in division 22776
(H)(4) of this section, the contract shall be amended to allow one 22777
of the other contracting parties to administer, collect, and 22778
enforce that tax.22779

       (2) Notwithstanding any other section of the Revised Code, if 22780
there is any change in the boundaries of a township so that a 22781
municipal corporation once located within the township is no 22782
longer so located, the township shall remain in existence even 22783
though its remaining unincorporated area contains less than 22784
twenty-two square miles, if the township has been or becomes a 22785
party to a contract creating a joint economic development zone 22786
under this section or the contract creating that joint economic 22787
development zone under this section is terminated or repudiated 22788
for any reason by any party or person. The township shall continue 22789
its existing status in all respects, including having the same 22790
form of government and the same elected board of trustees as its 22791
governing body. The township shall continue to receive all of its 22792
tax levies and sources of income as a township in accordance with 22793
any section of the Revised Code, whether the levies and sources of 22794
income generate millage within the ten-mill limitation or in 22795
excess of the ten-mill limitation. The name of the township may be 22796
changed to the name of the contracting party appearing in the 22797
contract creating a joint economic development zone under this 22798
section, so long as the name does not conflict with any other name 22799
in the state that has been certified by the secretary of state. 22800
The township shall have all of the powers set out in sections 22801
715.79, 715.80, and 715.81 of the Revised Code.22802

       (J) If, after creating and operating a joint economic 22803
development zone under this section, a contracting party that did 22804
not levy a municipal income tax under Chapter 718. of the Revised 22805
Code levies such a tax, the tax shall not apply to the zone for 22806
the full period of the contract establishing the zone, if the 22807
board of directors of the zone has levied an income tax as 22808
provided in division (H) of this section.22809

       Sec. 721.01.  Municipal corporations have special power to 22810
sell or lease real estate or to sell personal property belonging 22811
to the municipal corporation, when such real estate or personal 22812
property is not needed for any municipal purpose. Such power shall 22813
be exercised in the manner provided by sections 721.01 to 721.26, 22814
inclusive, of the Revised Codethis chapter.22815

       Sec. 721.03.  No contract, except as provided in section 22816
721.28 of the Revised Code, for the sale or lease of real estate 22817
belonging to a municipal corporation shall be made unless 22818
authorized by an ordinance, approved by a two-thirds vote of the 22819
members of the legislative authority of such municipal 22820
corporation, and by the board or officer having supervision or 22821
management of such real estate. When the contract is so 22822
authorized, it shall be made in writing by such board or officer, 22823
and, except as provided in section 721.27 or 721.29 of the Revised 22824
Code, only with the highest bidder, after advertisement once a 22825
week for five consecutive weeks in a newspaper of general 22826
circulation within the municipal corporation or as provided in 22827
section 7.16 of the Revised Code. Such board or officer may reject 22828
any bids and readvertise until all such real estate is sold or 22829
leased.22830

       Sec. 721.29. The legislative authority of a city may sell to 22831
a board of county commissioners real estate belonging to the city 22832
that is no longer needed for city purposes upon such lawful terms 22833
as are agreed upon between the city and the board of county 22834
commissioners, without competitive bidding as required by section 22835
721.03 of the Revised Code. No such sale shall be made unless the 22836
contract for the sale is authorized by ordinance, approved by a 22837
two-thirds vote of the members of the legislative authority of the 22838
city, and by the board or officer having supervision or management 22839
of the real estate.22840

       Sec. 731.091. (A) The legislative authority of a village may, 22841
by the adoption of an ordinance or resolution to eliminate 22842
staggered terms of office, determine that all members of the 22843
legislative authority shall be elected at the same municipal 22844
election as provided for in this section.22845

       (B) At the regular municipal election occurring not less than 22846
ninety days after the certification of the ordinance or resolution 22847
to the board of elections eliminating staggered terms of office, 22848
the following apply:22849

        (1) If there are six members of the legislative authority, 22850
threethe number of members eligible for election at that regular 22851
municipal election shall be elected at the next regular municipal 22852
election forto two-year nonstaggered terms, and all members of 22853
the legislative authority shall be elected to four-year 22854
nonstaggered terms at all following municipal elections.22855

        (2) If there are five members of the legislative authority, 22856
threea number of members that is one less than the number of 22857
members that would otherwise be eligible for election at that 22858
regular municipal election but for the first-time implementation 22859
of the new membership of five, or, in the case of a village that 22860
has previously reduced its number of members to five, then the 22861
number of members eligible for election at that regular municipal 22862
election shall be elected at the next municipal election forto22863
two-year nonstaggered terms, and all members shall be elected to 22864
four-year nonstaggered terms at all following municipal elections.22865

       Sec. 737.41.  (A) The legislative authority of a municipal 22866
corporation in which is established a municipal court, other than 22867
a county-operated municipal court, that has a department of 22868
probation shall establish in the municipal treasury a municipal 22869
probation services fund. The fund shall contain all moneys paid to 22870
the treasurer of the municipal corporation under section 2951.021 22871
of the Revised Code for deposit into the fund. The treasurer of 22872
the municipal corporation shall disburse the money contained in 22873
the fund at the request of the municipal court department of 22874
probation, for use only by that department for specialized staff, 22875
purchase of equipment, purchase of services, reconciliation 22876
programs for offenders and victims, other treatment programs, 22877
including alcohol and drugcommunity addiction programsservices 22878
providers certified under section 3793.065119.36 of the Revised 22879
Code, determined to be appropriate by the chief probation officer, 22880
and other similar expenses related to placing offenders under a 22881
community control sanction.22882

       (B) Any money in a municipal probation services fund at the 22883
end of a fiscal year shall not revert to the treasury of the 22884
municipal corporation but shall be retained in the fund.22885

       (C) As used in this section:22886

       (1) "County-operated municipal court" has the same meaning as 22887
in section 1901.03 of the Revised Code.22888

       (2) "Community control sanction" has the same meaning as in 22889
section 2929.01 of the Revised Code.22890

       Sec. 742.14.  (A) The board of trustees of the Ohio police 22891
and fire pension fund shall have prepared triennially by or under 22892
the supervision of an actuary an actuarial valuation of the 22893
pension assets, liabilities, and funding requirements of the Ohio 22894
police and fire pension fund as established pursuant to sections 22895
742.01 to 742.61 of the Revised Code. The actuary shall complete 22896
the valuation in accordance with actuarial standards of practice 22897
promulgated by the actuarial standards board of the American 22898
academy of actuaries and prepare a report of the valuation. The 22899
report shall include all of the following:22900

       (1) A summary of the benefit provisions evaluated;22901

       (2) A summary of the census data and financial information 22902
used in the valuation;22903

       (3) A description of the actuarial assumptions, actuarial 22904
cost method, and asset valuation method used in the valuation, 22905
including a statement of the assumed rate of payroll growth and 22906
assumed rate of growth or decline in the number of members of the 22907
fund contributing to the pension fund;22908

       (4) A summary of findings that includes a statement of the 22909
actuarial accrued pension liabilities and unfunded actuarial 22910
accrued pension liabilities;22911

       (5) A schedule showing the effect of any changes in the 22912
benefit provisions, actuarial assumptions, or cost methods since 22913
the last triennial actuarial valuation;22914

       (6) A statement of whether employee and employer 22915
contributions to the pension fund are expected to be sufficient to 22916
satisfy the funding objectives established by the board.22917

       The first triennial report shall be made not later than 22918
November 1, 2013, to the Ohio retirement study council, the 22919
director of budget and management, and the standing committees of 22920
the house of representatives and the senate with primary 22921
responsibility for retirement legislation immediately upon its 22922
availability and thereafter triennially, not later than the first 22923
day of November.22924

       (B) At such times as the board determines, and at least once 22925
in each quinquennial period, the board shall have prepared by or 22926
under the supervision of an actuary an actuarial investigation of 22927
the mortality, service, and other experience of the members of the 22928
fund and of other system retirants, as defined in section 742.26 22929
of the Revised Code, who are members of a police department or a 22930
fire department to update the actuarial assumptions used in the 22931
actuarial valuation required by division (A) of this section. The 22932
actuary shall prepare a report of the actuarial investigation. The 22933
report shall be prepared and any recommended changes in actuarial 22934
assumptions shall be made in accordance with the actuarial 22935
standards of practice promulgated by the actuarial standards board 22936
of the American academy of actuaries. The report shall include all 22937
of the following:22938

       (1) A summary of relevant decrement and economic assumption 22939
experience observed over the period of the investigation;22940

       (2) Recommended changes in actuarial assumptions to be used 22941
in subsequent actuarial valuations required by division (A) of 22942
this section;22943

       (3) A measurement of the financial effect of the recommended 22944
changes in actuarial assumptions;22945

       (4) If the investigation required by this division includes 22946
the investigation required by division (E) of this section, a 22947
report of the result of that investigation.22948

       The board shall submit the report to the Ohio retirement 22949
study council and the standing committees of the house of 22950
representatives and the senate with primary responsibility for 22951
retirement legislation not later than the first day of November 22952
following the last fiscal year of the period the report covers.22953

       (C) The board shall have prepared by or under the supervision 22954
of an actuary an actuarial analysis of any introduced legislation 22955
expected to have a measurable financial impact on the pension 22956
fund. The actuarial analysis shall be completed in accordance with 22957
the actuarial standards of practice promulgated by the actuarial 22958
standards board of the American academy of actuaries. The actuary 22959
shall prepare a report of the actuarial analysis, which shall 22960
include all of the following:22961

       (1) A summary of the statutory changes that are being 22962
evaluated;22963

       (2) A description of or reference to the actuarial 22964
assumptions and actuarial cost method used in the report;22965

       (3) A description of the participant group or groups included 22966
in the report;22967

       (4) A statement of the financial impact of the legislation, 22968
including the resulting increase, if any, in the employer normal 22969
cost percentage; the increase, if any, in actuarial accrued 22970
liabilities; and the per cent of payroll that would be required to 22971
amortize the increase in actuarial accrued liabilities as a level 22972
per cent of covered payroll for all active members of the fund 22973
over a period not to exceed thirty years;22974

       (5) A statement of whether the scheduled contributions to the 22975
system after the proposed change is enacted are expected to be 22976
sufficient to satisfy the funding objectives established by the 22977
board.22978

       Not later than sixty days from the date of introduction of 22979
the legislation, the board shall submit a copy of the actuarial 22980
analysis to the legislative service commission, the standing 22981
committees of the house of representatives and the senate with 22982
primary responsibility for retirement legislation, and the Ohio 22983
retirement study council.22984

       (D) The board shall have prepared triennially a report giving 22985
a full accounting of the revenues and costs relating to the 22986
provision of benefits under section 742.45 of the Revised Code. 22987
The first triennial report shall be made as of December 31, 2013, 22988
and the thirty-first day of December triennially thereafter. The 22989
report shall include the following:22990

       (1) A description of the statutory authority for the benefits 22991
provided;22992

       (2) A summary of the benefits;22993

       (3) A summary of the eligibility requirements for the 22994
benefits;22995

       (4) A statement of the number of participants eligible for 22996
the benefits;22997

       (5) A description of the accounting, asset valuation, and 22998
funding method used to provide the benefits;22999

       (6) A statement of the net assets available for the provision 23000
of the benefits as of the last day of the fiscal year;23001

       (7) A statement of any changes in the net assets available 23002
for the provision of benefits, including participant and employer 23003
contributions, net investment income, administrative expenses, and 23004
benefits provided to participants, as of the last day of the 23005
fiscal year;23006

       (8) For the last six consecutive fiscal years, a schedule of 23007
the net assets available for the benefits, the annual cost of 23008
benefits, administrative expenses incurred, and annual employer 23009
contributions allocated for the provision of benefits;23010

       (9) A description of any significant changes that affect the 23011
comparability of the report required under this division;23012

       (10) A statement of the amount paid under division (B) of 23013
section 742.45 of the Revised Code.23014

       The board shall submit the report to the Ohio retirement 23015
study council, the director of budget and management, and the 23016
standing committees of the house of representatives and the senate 23017
with primary responsibility for retirement legislation immediately 23018
upon its availability and not later than the thirtieth day of June 23019
following the year for which the report was made.23020

       (E) At least once in each quinquennial period, the board 23021
shall have prepared by or under the supervision of an actuary an 23022
actuarial investigation of the deferred retirement option plan 23023
established under section 742.43 of the Revised Code. The 23024
investigation shall include an examination of the financial 23025
impact, if any, on the fund of offering the plan to members.23026

       The actuary shall prepare a report of the actuarial 23027
investigation. The report shall include a determination of whether 23028
the plan, as established or modified, has a negative financial 23029
impact on the fund and, if so, recommendations on how to modify 23030
the plan to eliminate the negative financial impact. If the 23031
actuarial report indicates that the plan has a negative financial 23032
impact on the fund, the board may modify the plan or cease to 23033
allow members who have not already done so to elect to participate 23034
in the plan. The firefighter and police officers employers' 23035
contributions shall not be increased to offset any negative 23036
financial impact of the plan.23037

       If the board ceases to allow members to elect to participate 23038
in the plan, the rights and obligations of members who have 23039
already elected to participate shall not be altered.23040

       The board may include the actuarial investigation required 23041
under this division as part of the actuarial investigation 23042
required under division (B) of this section. If the report of the 23043
actuarial investigation required by this division is not included 23044
in the report required by division (B) of this section, the board 23045
shall submit the report required by this division to the Ohio 23046
retirement study council and the standing committees of the house 23047
of representatives and the senate with primary responsibility for 23048
retirement legislation not later than the first day of November 23049
following the last fiscal year of the period the report covers.23050

       Sec. 755.06. (A) The board of park commissioners shall have 23051
the expenditures of all moneys appropriated by the legislative 23052
authority of the city or received from any other source for the 23053
purchase, acquisition, improvement, maintenance, equipment, or 23054
enjoyment of all property mentioned in section 755.05 of the 23055
Revised Code, but no liability shall be incurred or expenditure 23056
made unless the money required therefor is in the treasury to the 23057
credit of the park fund and not appropriated for any other 23058
purpose.23059

       (B) Notwithstanding division (A) of this section, if the 23060
legislative authority of a municipal corporation enters into an 23061
agreement for the sale or lease of mineral rights regarding lands 23062
that the board of park commissioners manages or controls, any 23063
royalties or other moneys resulting from the sale or lease shall 23064
be deposited into a special fund that the legislative authority 23065
shall establish under division (F) of section 5705.09 of the 23066
Revised Code. The board of park commissioners shall use the fund 23067
exclusively for maintenance of lands that the board manages or 23068
controls and for the acquisition of new park lands.23069

       Sec. 901.21.  (A) As used in this section and section 901.22 23070
of the Revised Code:23071

       (1) "Agricultural easement" has the same meaning as in 23072
section 5301.67 of the Revised Code.23073

       (2) "Agriculture" means those activities occurring on land 23074
devoted exclusively to agricultural use, as defined in section 23075
5713.30 of the Revised Code, or on land that constitutes a 23076
homestead.23077

       (3) "Homestead" means the portion of a farm on which is 23078
located a dwelling house, yard, or outbuildings such as a barn or 23079
garage.23080

       (B) The director of agriculture may acquire real property 23081
used predominantly in agriculture and agricultural easements by 23082
gift, devise, or bequest if, at the time an easement is granted, 23083
such an easement is on land that is valued for purposes of real 23084
property taxation at its current value for agricultural use under 23085
section 5713.31 of the Revised Code or that constitutes a 23086
homestead. Any terms may be included in an agricultural easement 23087
so acquired that are necessary or appropriate to preserve on 23088
behalf of the grantor of the easement the favorable tax 23089
consequences of the gift, devise, or bequest under the "Internal 23090
Revenue Act of 1986," 100 Stat. 2085, 26 U.S.C.A. 1, as amended. 23091
The director, by any such means or by purchase or lease, may 23092
acquire, or acquire the use of, stationary personal property or 23093
equipment that is located on land acquired in fee by the director 23094
under this section and that is necessary or appropriate for the 23095
use of the land predominantly in agriculture.23096

       (C) The director may include, in an agricultural easement 23097
acquired under division (B) of this section, a provision to 23098
preserve a unique natural or physical feature on the land so long 23099
as the use of the land remains predominantly agricultural.23100

       (D) The director may do all things necessary or appropriate 23101
to retain the use of real property acquired in fee under division 23102
(B) of this section predominantly in agriculture, including, 23103
without limitation, performing any of the activities described in 23104
division (A)(1) or (2) of section 5713.30 of the Revised Code or 23105
entering into contracts to lease or rent the real property so 23106
acquired to persons or governmental entities that will use the 23107
land predominantly in agriculture.23108

       (D)(E)(1) When the director considers it to be necessary or 23109
appropriate, the director may sell real property acquired in fee, 23110
and stationary personal property or equipment acquired by gift, 23111
devise, bequest, or purchase, under division (B) of this section 23112
on such terms as the director considers to be advantageous to this 23113
state.23114

       (2) An agricultural easement acquired under division (B) of 23115
this section may be extinguished under the circumstances 23116
prescribed, and in accordance with the terms and conditions set 23117
forth, in the instrument conveying the agricultural easement.23118

       (E)(F) There is hereby created in the state treasury the 23119
agricultural easement purchase fund. The fund shall consist of the 23120
proceeds received from the sale of real and personal property 23121
under division (D)(E) of this section; moneys received due to the 23122
extinguishment of agricultural easements acquired by the director 23123
under division (B) of this section or section 5301.691 of the 23124
Revised Code; moneys received due to the extinguishment of 23125
agricultural easements purchased with the assistance of matching 23126
grants made under section 901.22 of the Revised Code; gifts, 23127
bequests, devises, and contributions received by the director for 23128
the purpose of acquiring agricultural easements; and grants 23129
received from public or private sources for the purpose of 23130
purchasing agricultural easements. The fund shall be administered 23131
by the director, and moneys in the fund shall be used by the 23132
director exclusively to purchase agricultural easements under 23133
division (A) of section 5301.691 of the Revised Code and provide 23134
matching grants under section 901.22 of the Revised Code to 23135
municipal corporations, counties, townships, soil and water 23136
conservation districts established under Chapter 1515. of the 23137
Revised Code, and charitable organizations described in division 23138
(B) of section 5301.69 of the Revised Code for the purchase of 23139
agricultural easements. Money in the fund shall be used only to 23140
purchase agricultural easements on land that is valued for 23141
purposes of real property taxation at its current value for 23142
agricultural use under section 5713.31 of the Revised Code or that 23143
constitutes a homestead when the easement is purchased.23144

       (F)(G) There is hereby created in the state treasury the 23145
clean Ohio agricultural easement fund. Twelve and one-half per 23146
cent of net proceeds of obligations issued and sold pursuant to 23147
sections 151.01 and 151.09 of the Revised Code shall be deposited 23148
into the fund. The fund also shall consist of money credited to it 23149
under section 151.50 of the Revised Code. The fund shall be used 23150
by the director for the purposes of this section, section 901.22 23151
of the Revised Code, and the provisions of sections 5301.67 to 23152
5301.70 of the Revised Code governing agricultural easements. 23153
Investment earnings of the fund shall be credited to the fund and 23154
may be used to pay costs incurred by the director in administering 23155
those sections and provisions.23156

       (G)(H) The term of an agricultural easement purchased wholly 23157
or in part with money from the clean Ohio agricultural easement 23158
fund or the agricultural easement purchase fund shall be perpetual 23159
and shall run with the land.23160

       Sec. 901.22.  (A) The director of agriculture, in accordance 23161
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, shall adopt rules that do 23162
all of the following:23163

       (1) Establish procedures and eligibility criteria for making 23164
matching grants to municipal corporations, counties, townships, 23165
soil and water conservation districts established under Chapter 23166
1515. of the Revised Code, and charitable organizations described 23167
in division (B) of section 5301.69 of the Revised Code for the 23168
purchase of agricultural easements. With respect to agricultural 23169
easements that are purchased or proposed to be purchased with such 23170
matching grants that consist in whole or in part of moneys from 23171
the clean Ohio agricultural easement fund created in section 23172
901.21 of the Revised Code, the rules shall establish all of the 23173
following:23174

       (a) Procedures for all of the following:23175

       (i) Soliciting and accepting applications for matching 23176
grants;23177

       (ii) Participation by local governments and by the public in 23178
the process of making matching grants to charitable organizations;23179

       (iii) Notifying local governments, charitable organizations, 23180
and organizations that represent the interests of farmers of the 23181
ranking system established in rules adopted under division 23182
(A)(1)(b) of this section.23183

       (b) A ranking system for applications for the matching grants 23184
that is based on the soil type, proximity of the land or other 23185
land that is conducive to agriculture as defined by rules adopted 23186
under this section and that is the subject of an application to 23187
other agricultural land or other land that is conducive to 23188
agriculture as defined by rules adopted under this section and 23189
that is already or is in the process of becoming permanently 23190
protected from development, farm stewardship, development 23191
pressure, and, if applicable, a local comprehensive land use plan 23192
involved with a proposed agricultural easement. The rules shall 23193
require that preference be given to proposed agricultural 23194
easements that involve the greatest proportion of all of the 23195
following:23196

       (i) Prime soils, unique or locally important soils, 23197
microclimates, or similar features;23198

       (ii) Land that is adjacent to or that is in close proximity 23199
to other agricultural land or other land that is conducive to 23200
agriculture as defined by rules adopted under this section and 23201
that is already or is in the process of becoming permanently 23202
protected from development, by agricultural easement or otherwise, 23203
so that a buffer would exist between the land involving the 23204
proposed agricultural easement and areas that have been developed 23205
or likely will be developed for purposes other than agriculture;23206

       (iii) The use of best management practices, including 23207
federally or state approved conservation plans, and a history of 23208
substantial compliance with applicable federal and state laws;23209

       (iv) Development pressure that is imminent, but not a result 23210
of current location in the direct path of urban development;23211

       (v) Areas identified for agricultural protection in local 23212
comprehensive land use plans.23213

       (c) Any other criteria that the director determines are 23214
necessary for selecting applications for matching grants;23215

       (d) Requirements regarding the information that must be 23216
included in the annual monitoring report that must be prepared for 23217
an agricultural easement under division (E)(2) of section 5301.691 23218
of the Revised Code, procedures for submitting a copy of the 23219
report to the office of farmland preservation in the department of 23220
agriculture, and requirements and procedures governing corrective 23221
actions that may be necessary to enforce the terms of the 23222
agricultural easement.23223

       (2) Establish provisions that shall be included in the 23224
instrument conveying to a municipal corporation, county, township, 23225
soil and water conservation district, or charitable organization 23226
any agricultural easement purchased with matching grant funds 23227
provided by the director under this section, including, without 23228
limitation, all of the following provisions:23229

       (a) A provision stating that an easement so purchased may be 23230
extinguished only if an unexpected change in the conditions of or 23231
surrounding the land that is subject to the easement makes 23232
impossible or impractical the continued use of the land for the 23233
purposes described in the easement, or if the requirements of the 23234
easement are extinguished by judicial proceedings;23235

       (b) A provision requiring that, upon the sale, exchange, or 23236
involuntary conversion of the land subject to the easement, the 23237
holder of the easement shall be paid an amount of money that is at 23238
least equal to the proportionate value of the easement compared to 23239
the total value of the land at the time the easement was acquired;23240

       (c) A provision requiring that, upon receipt of the portion 23241
of the proceeds of a sale, exchange, or involuntary conversion 23242
described in division (A)(2)(b) of this section, the municipal 23243
corporation, county, township, soil and water conservation 23244
district, or charitable organization remit to the director an 23245
amount of money equal to the percentage of the cost of purchasing 23246
the easement it received as a matching grant under this section.23247

       Moneys received by the director pursuant to rules adopted 23248
under division (A)(2)(c) of this section shall be credited to the 23249
agricultural easement purchase fund created in section 901.21 of 23250
the Revised Code.23251

       (3) Establish a provision that provides a charitable 23252
organization, municipal corporation, township, county, or soil and 23253
water conservation district with the option of purchasing 23254
agricultural easements either in installments or with a lump sum 23255
payment. The rules shall include a requirement that a charitable 23256
organization, municipal corporation, township, county, or soil and 23257
water conservation district negotiate with the seller of the 23258
agricultural easement concerning any installment payment terms, 23259
including the dates and amounts of payments and the interest rate 23260
on the outstanding balance. The rules also shall require the 23261
director to approve any method of payment that is undertaken in 23262
accordance with the rules adopted under division (A)(3) of this 23263
section.23264

       (4) Establish any other requirements that the director 23265
considers to be necessary or appropriate to implement or 23266
administer a program to make matching grants under this section 23267
and monitor those grants.23268

       (B) The director may develop guidelines regarding the 23269
acquisition of agricultural easements by the department of 23270
agriculture and the provisions of instruments conveying those 23271
easements. The director may make the guidelines available to 23272
public and private entities authorized to acquire and hold 23273
agricultural easements.23274

       (C) The director may provide technical assistance in 23275
developing a program for the acquisition and monitoring of 23276
agricultural easements to public and private entities authorized 23277
to hold agricultural easements. The technical assistance may 23278
include, without limitation, reviewing and providing advisory 23279
recommendations regarding draft instruments conveying agricultural 23280
easements.23281

       (D)(1) The director may make matching grants from the 23282
agricultural easement purchase fund and the clean Ohio 23283
agricultural easement fund to municipal corporations, counties, 23284
townships, soil and water conservation districts, and charitable 23285
organizations to assist those political subdivisions and 23286
charitable organizations in purchasing agricultural easements. 23287
Application for a matching grant shall be made on forms prescribed 23288
and provided by the director. The matching grants shall be made in 23289
compliance with the criteria and procedures established in rules 23290
adopted under this section. Instruments conveying agricultural 23291
easements purchased with matching grant funds provided under this 23292
section, at a minimum, shall include the mandatory provisions set 23293
forth in those rules.23294

       Matching grants made under this division using moneys from 23295
the clean Ohio agricultural easement fund created in section 23296
901.21 of the Revised Code may provide up to seventy-five per cent 23297
of the value of an agricultural easement as determined by a 23298
general real estate appraiser who is certified under Chapter 4763. 23299
of the Revised Code or as determined through a points-based 23300
appraisal system established under division (D)(2) of this 23301
section. Not less than twenty-five per cent of the value of the 23302
agricultural easement shall be provided by the recipient of the 23303
matching grant or donated by the person who is transferring the 23304
easement to the grant recipient. The amount of such a matching 23305
grant used for the purchase of a single agricultural easement 23306
shall not exceed one million dollars.23307

       (2) The director shall establish a points-based appraisal 23308
system for the purposes of division (D)(1) of this section. The 23309
director may include any or all of the following factors in the 23310
system:23311

       (a) Whether the applicable county auditor has determined that 23312
the land is land that is devoted exclusively to agriculture for 23313
the purposes of sections 5713.30 to 5713.38 of the Revised Code;23314

       (b) Changes in land values following the completion of the 23315
applicable county auditor's reappraisal or triennial update;23316

       (c) Soil types and productivity;23317

       (d) Proximity of the land to land that is already subject to 23318
an agricultural easement, conservation easement created under 23319
sections 5301.67 to 5301.70 of the Revised Code, or similar 23320
land-use limitation;23321

       (e) Proximity of the land to water and sewer lines, road 23322
interchanges, and nonagricultural development;23323

       (f) Parcel size and roadway frontage of the land;23324

       (g) Existence of an agreement entered into under division (D) 23325
of section 1515.08 of the Revised Code or of an operation and 23326
management plan developed under division (A) of section 1511.021 23327
of the Revised Code;23328

       (h) Existence of a comprehensive plan that is adopted under 23329
section 303.02 or 519.02 of the Revised Code or that is adopted by 23330
the planning commission of a municipal corporation under section 23331
713.06 of the Revised Code;23332

       (i) Any other factors that the director determines are 23333
necessary for inclusion in the system.23334

       (E) An agricultural easement acquired as a result of a 23335
matching grant awarded under division (D) of this section may 23336
include a provision to preserve a unique natural or physical 23337
feature on the land so long as the use of the land remains 23338
predominantly agricultural.23339

       (F) For any agricultural easement purchased with a matching 23340
grant that consists in whole or in part of moneys from the clean 23341
Ohio agricultural easement fund, the director shall be named as a 23342
grantee on the instrument conveying the easement, as shall the 23343
municipal corporation, county, township, soil and water 23344
conservation district, or charitable organization that receives 23345
the grant.23346

       (F)(G)(1) The director shall monitor and evaluate the 23347
effectiveness and efficiency of the agricultural easement program 23348
as a farmland preservation tool. On or before July 1, 1999, and 23349
the first day of July of each year thereafter, the director shall 23350
prepare and submit a report to the chairpersons of the standing 23351
committees of the senate and the house of representatives that 23352
consider legislation regarding agriculture. The report shall 23353
consider and address the following criteria to determine the 23354
program's effectiveness:23355

       (a) The number of agricultural easements purchased during the 23356
preceding year;23357

       (b) The location of those easements;23358

       (c) The number of acres of land preserved for agricultural 23359
use;23360

       (d) The amount of money used by a municipal corporation, 23361
township, county, or soil and water conservation district from any 23362
fund to purchase the agricultural easements;23363

       (e) The number of state matching grants given to purchase the 23364
agricultural easements;23365

       (f) The amount of state matching grant moneys used to 23366
purchase the agricultural easements.23367

       (2) The report also shall consider and include, at a minimum, 23368
the following information for each county to determine the 23369
program's efficiency:23370

       (a) The total number of acres in the county;23371

       (b) The total number of acres in current agricultural use;23372

       (c) The total number of acres preserved for agricultural use 23373
in the preceding year;23374

       (d) The average cost, per acre, of land preserved for 23375
agricultural use in the preceding year.23376

       Sec. 901.23. (A) There is hereby created the farmland 23377
preservation advisory board consisting of twelve voting members 23378
appointed by the director of agriculture as follows:23379

       (1) One member who is a county commissioner or a 23380
representative of a statewide organization that represents county 23381
commissioners;23382

       (2) One member who is a township trustee or a representative 23383
of a statewide organization that represents township trustees;23384

       (3) One representative of the Ohio state university;23385

       (4) One representative of a national nonprofit organization 23386
dedicated to the preservation of farmland;23387

       (5) One representative each of development, environmental, 23388
planning, and soil and water conservation interests;23389

       (6) One farmer from each of the state's four quadrants.23390

        Terms of office shall be staggered and shall be for three 23391
years, with each term ending on the same day of the same month as 23392
did the term that it succeeds. Each member shall hold office from 23393
the date of appointment until the end of the term for which the 23394
member was appointed, except that the term of any member who is a 23395
county commissioner or township trustee shall end when the member 23396
ceases to serve as a county commissioner or township trustee.23397

       Members may be reappointed. Vacancies shall be filled in the 23398
manner provided for original appointments. Any member appointed to 23399
fill a vacancy occurring prior to the expiration date of the term 23400
for which the member was appointed shall serve for the remainder 23401
of that term. A member shall continue to serve subsequent to the 23402
expiration date of the member's term until the member's successor 23403
takes office or until a period of sixty days has elapsed, 23404
whichever occurs first. Members shall serve at the pleasure of the 23405
director.23406

       The executive director of the office of farmland preservation 23407
in the department of agriculture or another employee of the 23408
department who is designated by the director shall serve as the 23409
nonvoting chairperson of the board. The director annually shall 23410
designate one member of the board to serve as its 23411
vice-chairperson. The board may adopt bylaws governing its 23412
operation and shall meet at a time when the director, or the 23413
director's designee, considers it appropriate in order for the 23414
board to provide advice as required under division (B) of this 23415
section.23416

       (B) The board shall provide advice to the director regarding 23417
all of the following:23418

       (1) The design and implementation of an agricultural easement 23419
purchase program;23420

       (2) The selection of applications that will be awarded 23421
matching grants under division (D) of section 901.22 of the 23422
Revised Code for the purchase of agricultural easements;23423

       (3) The design and implementation of any other statewide 23424
farmland protection measures that the director considers 23425
appropriate.23426

       (C) Serving as a member of the board does not constitute 23427
holding a public office or position of employment under the laws 23428
of this state and does not constitute grounds for removal of 23429
public officers or employees from their offices or positions of 23430
employment.23431

       (D) A board member shall be reimbursed for actual and 23432
necessary expenses incurred in the discharge of duties as a board 23433
member.23434

       Sec. 903.11.  (A) The director of agriculture may enter into 23435
contracts or agreements to carry out the purposes of this chapter 23436
with any public or private person, including the Ohio state 23437
universityOSU extension service, the natural resources 23438
conservation service in the United States department of 23439
agriculture, the environmental protection agency, the division of 23440
soil and water resources in the department of natural resources, 23441
and soil and water conservation districts established under 23442
Chapter 1515. of the Revised Code. However, the director shall not 23443
enter into a contract or agreement with a private person for the 23444
review of applications for permits to install, permits to operate, 23445
NPDES permits, or review compliance certificates that are issued 23446
under this chapter or for the inspection of a facility regulated 23447
under this chapter or with any person for the issuance of any of 23448
those permits or certificates or for the enforcement of this 23449
chapter and rules adopted under it.23450

       (B) The director may administer grants and loans using moneys 23451
from the federal government and other sources, public or private, 23452
for carrying out any of the director's functions. Nothing in this 23453
chapter shall be construed to limit the eligibility of owners or 23454
operators of animal feeding facilities or other agricultural 23455
enterprises to receive moneys from the water pollution control 23456
loan fund established under section 6111.036 of the Revised Code 23457
and the nonpoint source pollution management fund established 23458
under section 6111.037 of the Revised Code.23459

       The director of agriculture shall provide the director of 23460
environmental protection with written recommendations for 23461
providing financial assistance from those funds to agricultural 23462
enterprises. The director of environmental protection shall 23463
consider the recommendations in developing priorities for 23464
providing financial assistance from the funds.23465

       Sec. 903.30. (A) No person shall violate division (B)(1), 23466
(C)(1), (K), or (M)(1) or (2) of section 903.08 of the Revised 23467
Code or the NPDES provisions of a permit to operate.23468

        (B) No person shall violate or fail to perform any duty 23469
required by sections 903.01 to 903.07 and 903.12 of the Revised 23470
Code, violate a rule, or violate an order or term or condition of 23471
a permit issued by the director of agriculture under those 23472
sections or rules.23473

        (C) The attorney general, upon the written request of the 23474
director, shall prosecute any person who violates division (A) or 23475
(B) of this section. 23476

       Sec. 903.99.  (A) Whoever negligently violates division 23477
(A)(2) of section 903.02 or division (A)(2) of section 903.0323478
903.30 of the Revised Code is guilty of a misdemeanor of the third 23479
degree on a first offense, a misdemeanor of the second degree on a 23480
second offense, and a misdemeanor of the first degree on a third 23481
or subsequent offense. Each ten-day period that the offense 23482
continuesshall be fined not more than ten thousand dollars or 23483
imprisoned for not more than ninety days, or both. Each day of 23484
violation constitutes a separate offense. For purposes of this 23485
division, notwithstanding division (D) of section 2901.22 of the 23486
Revised Code, a person acts negligently when, because of a lapse 23487
from due care, the person fails to perceive or avoid a risk that 23488
the person's conduct may cause a certain result or may be of a 23489
certain nature. A person is negligent with respect to 23490
circumstances when, because of a lapse from due care, the person 23491
fails to perceive or avoid a risk that such circumstances may 23492
exist.23493

       (B) Whoever recklessly violates the terms and conditions of a 23494
permit to install issued under section 903.02 of the Revised Code 23495
or of a permit to operate issued under section 903.03 of the 23496
Revised Code, division (A) or (B)(1), (C)(1), or (M)(1) or (2) of 23497
section 903.08 of the Revised Code, or the NPDES provisions of a 23498
permit to operate shall be fined not more than twenty-five 23499
thousand dollars.of section 903.30 of the Revised Code shall be 23500
fined not more than ten thousand dollars or imprisoned for not 23501
more than one year, or both. Each day of violation constitutes a 23502
separate offense.23503

       (C) Whoever knowingly violates division (K)(A) or (B) of 23504
section 903.08903.30 of the Revised Code is guilty of a felony 23505
and shall be fined not more than twenty-five thousand dollars or 23506
imprisoned for not more than three years, or both. Each day of 23507
violation constitutes a separate offense.23508

       Sec. 905.06.  The director of agriculture shall:23509

       (A) Gather information on the performance of various 23510
agricultural additives, including distributors' and manufacturers' 23511
claims, the results of investigation or research on additives, and 23512
the conditions when they are useful, and make the information 23513
available to the public;23514

       (B) Provide and distribute, in cooperation with the 23515
agriculturalOSU extension service, information on the use of 23516
agricultural additives;23517

       (C) Provide for the prompt and thorough investigation of 23518
written complaints received concerning agricultural additives.23519

       Sec. 909.15.  All moneys from registration fees and from 23520
fines imposed and recovered under sections 909.01 to 909.18 of the 23521
Revised Code, shall be paid to the director of agriculture, who 23522
shall deposit such moneys in the state treasury to the credit of 23523
the general revenueplant pest program fund created in section 23524
927.54 of the Revised Code.23525

       Sec. 924.06.  (A) Within ninety days after he has approved a 23526
proposed amendment to an agricultural commodity marketing program 23527
established before April 10, 1985, the director of agriculture 23528
shall determine by a referendum whether the eligible producers 23529
favor the proposed amendment to the program. Any proposed 23530
amendment to a marketing program established before April 10, 23531
1985, is favored by the producers of the agricultural commodity 23532
which would be affected by the proposed amendment if either of the 23533
following occurs:23534

       (1) Sixty-six and two-thirds per cent or more, by number, of 23535
the producers who vote in the referendum, vote in favor of the 23536
amendment, and represent a majority of the volume of the affected 23537
commodity that was produced in the preceding marketing year by all 23538
producers who voted in the referendum;23539

       (2) A majority of the producers who vote in the referendum, 23540
vote in favor of the amendment and represent sixty-six and 23541
two-thirds per cent, or more, of the volume of the affected 23542
commodity that was produced in the preceding marketing year by all 23543
the producers who voted in the referendum.23544

       (B) Within ninety days after he has approvedapproving an 23545
agricultural commodity marketing program proposed on or after23546
April 10, 1985the effective date of this amendment, or a proposed 23547
amendment to such aan agricultural commodity marketing program, 23548
the director of agriculture shall determine by a referendum 23549
whether the eligible producers favor the proposed marketing 23550
program or amendment. Any such marketing program or amendment to 23551
such a marketing program is favored by the producers of the 23552
agricultural commodity that would be affected by the proposed 23553
program or amendment if a majority of the producers who vote in 23554
the referendum vote in favor of the program or amendment.23555

       (C)(B) If the producers who vote in any referendum held 23556
pursuant to this section do not favor a proposed marketing 23557
program, or proposed amendment to a program, the director shall 23558
hold no additional referendum on that proposed program or proposed 23559
amendment during the ten months following the close of the 23560
referendum at which the producers did not favor that proposed 23561
program or amendment.23562

       (D)(C) In any referendum held pursuant to this section, each 23563
eligible producer of the Ohio agricultural commodity whichthat23564
would be affected by the proposed marketing program, or amendment 23565
to a program, is entitled to one vote.23566

       (E)(D) In any referendum held on an agricultural commodity 23567
marketing program, or a proposed amendment to such a program, 23568
votes may be cast in person or by mailing a ballot to a polling 23569
place designated by the director. The director shall establish a 23570
three-day period during which eligible producers may vote in 23571
person during normal business hours at polling places designated 23572
by the director. The director or other appropriate person shall 23573
send a mail-in ballot by ordinary first-class mail to any eligible 23574
producer who requests one by calling the toll-free telephone 23575
number or sending in the ballot request form provided for in 23576
division (F)(E) of this section, by calling one of the polling 23577
places designated by the director, or by any additional method 23578
that the director or operating committee may provide. No ballot 23579
returned by mail shall be valid if it is postmarked later than the 23580
third day of the election period established by the director.23581

       (F)(E) For any referendum held on an agricultural commodity 23582
marketing program, or a proposed amendment to such a program, the 23583
director or operating committee shall cause a ballot request form 23584
to be published at least thirty days before the beginning of the 23585
election period established under division (E)(D) of this section 23586
in at least two appropriate periodicals designated by the 23587
director, and shall make the form available for reproduction to 23588
any interested group or association. The director shall provide a 23589
toll-free telephone number that producers may call to request a 23590
ballot.23591

       Sec. 927.54. The plant pest program fund is hereby created in 23592
the state treasury. The fund shall consist of money credited to it 23593
under section 909.15 of the Revised Code and under this chapter 23594
and any rules adopted under it. The director of agriculture shall 23595
use money in the fund to administer this chapter and Chapter 909. 23596
of the Revised Code.23597

        The director shall keep accurate records of all receipts into 23598
and disbursements from the fund and shall prepare, and provide 23599
upon request, an annual report classifying the receipts and 23600
disbursements that pertain to plant pests.23601

       Sec. 955.201. (A) As used in this section and in section 23602
955.202 of the Revised Code, "Ohio pet fund" means a nonprofit 23603
corporation organized by that name under Chapter 1702. of the 23604
Revised Code that consists of humane societies, veterinarians, 23605
animal shelters, companion animal breeders, dog wardens, or 23606
similar individuals and entities.23607

        (B) The Ohio pet fund shall do all of the following:23608

       (1) Establish eligibility criteria for organizations that may 23609
receive financial assistance from the Ohio pet fund. Those 23610
organizations may include any of the following:23611

        (a) An animal shelter as defined in section 4729.01 of the 23612
Revised Code;23613

       (b) A local nonprofit veterinary association that operates a 23614
program for the sterilization of dogs and cats;23615

       (c) A charitable organization that is exempt from federal 23616
income taxation under subsection 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue 23617
Code and a purpose of which is to support programs for the 23618
sterilization of dogs and cats and educational programs concerning 23619
the proper veterinary care of those animals.23620

       (2) Establish procedures for applying for financial 23621
assistance from the Ohio pet fund. Application procedures shall 23622
require eligible organizations to submit detailed proposals that 23623
outline the intended uses of the moneys sought.23624

       (3) Establish eligibility criteria for sterilization and 23625
educational programs for which moneys from the Ohio pet fund may 23626
be used and, consistent with division (C) of this section, 23627
establish eligibility criteria for individuals who seek 23628
sterilization for their dogs and cats from eligible organizations;23629

       (4) Establish procedures for the disbursement of moneys the 23630
Ohio pet fund receives from license plate contributions pursuant 23631
to division (C) of section 4503.551 of the Revised Code;23632

       (5) Advertise or otherwise provide notification of the 23633
availability of financial assistance from the Ohio pet fund for 23634
eligible organizations;23635

       (6) Design markings to be inscribed on "pets" license plates 23636
under section 4503.551 of the Revised Code.23637

       (C)(1) The owner of a dog or cat is eligible for dog or cat 23638
sterilization services from an eligible organization when those 23639
services are subsidized in whole or in part by money from the Ohio 23640
pet fund if any of the following applies:23641

       (a) The income of the owner's family does not exceed one 23642
hundred fifty per cent of the federal poverty guideline.23643

       (b) The owner, or any member of the owner's family who 23644
resides with the owner, is a recipient or beneficiary of one of 23645
the following government assistance programs:23646

       (i) Low-income housing assistance under the "United States 23647
Housing Act of 1937," 42 U.S.C.A. 1437f, as amended, known as the 23648
federal section 8 housing program;23649

       (ii) The Ohio works first program established by Chapter 23650
5107. of the Revised Code;23651

       (iii) Title XIX of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 23652
(1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended, known as the medical 23653
assistanceThe medicaid program or medicaid, provided by the 23654
department of job and family services under Chapter 5111. of the 23655
Revised Code;23656

       (iv) A program or law administered by the United States 23657
department of veterans' affairs or veterans' administration for 23658
any service-connected disability;23659

       (v) The supplemental nutrition assistance program established 23660
under the Food and Nutrition Act of 2008 (7 U.S.C. 2011 et seq.), 23661
administered by the department of job and family services under 23662
section 5101.54 of the Revised Code;23663

       (vi) The "special supplemental nutrition program for women, 23664
infants, and children" established under the "Child Nutrition Act 23665
of 1966," 80 Stat. 885, 42 U.S.C. 1786, as amended, administered 23666
by the department of health under section 3701.132 of the Revised 23667
Code;23668

       (vii) Supplemental security income under Title XVI of the 23669
"Social Security Act," 86 Stat. 1475 (1972), 42 U.S.C.A. 1383, as 23670
amended;23671

       (viii) Social security disability insurance benefits provided 23672
under Title II of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 23673
42 U.S.C.A. 401, as amended.23674

       (c) The owner of the dog or cat submits to the eligible 23675
organization operating the sterilization program either of the 23676
following:23677

       (i) A certificate of adoption showing that the dog or cat was 23678
adopted from a licensed animal shelter, a municipal, county, or 23679
regional pound, or a holding and impoundment facility that 23680
contracts with a municipal corporation;23681

       (ii) A certificate of adoption showing that the dog or cat 23682
was adopted through a nonprofit corporation operating an animal 23683
adoption referral service whose holding facility, if any, is 23684
licensed in accordance with state law or a municipal ordinance.23685

       (2) The Ohio pet fund shall determine the type of documentary 23686
evidence that must be presented by the owner of a dog or cat to 23687
show that the income of the owner's family does not exceed one 23688
hundred fifty per cent of the federal poverty guideline or that 23689
the owner is eligible under division (C)(1)(b) of this section.23690

       (D) As used in division (C) of this section, "federal poverty 23691
guideline" means the official poverty guideline as revised 23692
annually by the United States department of health and human 23693
services in accordance with section 673(2) of the "Omnibus Budget 23694
Reconciliation Act of 1981," 95 Stat. 511, 42 U.S.C.A. 9902, as 23695
amended, for a family size equal to the size of the family of the 23696
person whose income is being determined.23697

       Sec. 956.07. (A) A person who is applying for a license to 23698
operate a high volume breeder or to act as or perform the 23699
functions of a dog retailer under section 956.04 or 956.05 of the 23700
Revised Code, as applicable, shall include with the application 23701
for a license a nonrefundable license application fee. For the 23702
purpose of calculating the application fee for a high volume 23703
breeder, the sale of one dog from a litter constitutes the sale of 23704
a litter. The application fees are as follows:23705

       (1) For a high volume breeder:23706

       (a) One hundred fifty dollars if the high volume breeder 23707
annually sells at least nine, but not more than fifteen litters;23708

       (b) Two hundred fifty dollars if the high volume breeder 23709
annually sells at least sixteen, but not more than twenty-five 23710
litters;23711

       (c) Three hundred fifty dollars if the high volume breeder 23712
annually sells at least twenty-six, but not more than thirty-five 23713
litters;23714

       (d) Five hundred dollars if the high volume breeder annually 23715
sells at least thirty-six, but not more than forty-five litters;23716

       (e) Seven hundred fifty dollars if the high volume breeder 23717
annually sells forty-six or more litters.23718

       (2) For a dog retailer, five hundred dollars.23719

       (B) Money collected by the director of agriculture from each 23720
application fee submitted under this section shall be transmitted 23721
by the director to the treasurer ofdeposited in the state 23722
treasury to be credited tothe credit of the high volume breeder 23723
kennel control license fund created in section 956.18 of the 23724
Revised Code. The treasurer of state shall transfer to the county 23725
auditor of the county in which a high volume breeder is located or 23726
will be locateddirector shall use fifty dollars of the 23727
application fee submitted by thea high volume breeder under this 23728
section or an amount equal to the fee charged in that county for 23729
the registration of a kennel under section 955.14 of the Revised 23730
Code in the county in which the high volume breeder is located or 23731
will be located, whichever is greater, to reimburse that county. 23732
The county auditor shall deposit the transferred money into that 23733
county's dog and kennel fund created under section 955.20 of the 23734
Revised Code.23735

       Sec. 956.18. (A) All money collected by the director of 23736
agriculture from license fees under section 956.08956.07 and 23737
civil penalties assessed under section 956.13 of the Revised Code 23738
shall be deposited in the state treasury to the credit of the high 23739
volume breeder kennel control license fund, which is hereby 23740
created. The fund shall also consist of money appropriated to it.23741

       (B) No money may be released from the fund without 23742
controlling board approval. The director shall request the 23743
controlling board to release money in an amount not to exceed two 23744
million five hundred thousand dollars per biennium.23745

        (C) The director shall use the money in the fund for the 23746
purpose of administering this chapter and rules adopted under it.23747

       Sec. 991.03.  (A) The Ohio expositions commission shall:23748

       (1) Conduct at least one fair or exposition annually;23749

       (2) Maintain and manage property held by the state for the 23750
purpose of conducting fairs, expositions, and exhibits;23751

       (3) As provided in section 109.122 of the Revised Code, 23752
provide notice of or copies of any proposed entertainment or 23753
sponsorship contracts to the attorney general.23754

       (B) The commission may:23755

       (1) Conduct such additional fairs, expositions, or 23756
exhibitions as the commission determines are in the general public 23757
interest;23758

       (2) Accept on behalf of the state conveyances of property for 23759
the purposes of conducting fairs, expositions, and exhibits, 23760
subject to any terms and conditions agreed to by the commission 23761
and approved by the controlling board;23762

       (3) Accept gifts, devises, and bequests of money, lands, and 23763
other property and apply the money, lands, or other property 23764
according to the terms of the gift, devise, or bequest. A 23765
political subdivision as authorized by law may make gifts and 23766
devises to the commission, and the commission shall apply such a 23767
gift or devise according to the terms of the gift or devise. All 23768
gifts and bequests of money accepted under this division shall be 23769
deposited into the state treasury to the credit of the Ohio 23770
expositions support fund.23771

       (4) Enter into contracts that the commission considers 23772
necessary or worthwhile in the conduct of its purposes, provided 23773
that contracts made for a term exceeding two years, other than 23774
those described in division (B)(4) of this section, shall be 23775
subject to the approval of the controlling board and provided that 23776
the attorney general, pursuant to the attorney general's authority 23777
under section 109.122 of the Revised Code, has not disapproved the 23778
proposed contract;23779

       (4)(5) Enter into contracts for the mutual exchange of goods 23780
or services;23781

       (5)(6) Sell or convey all or a portion of the property, land, 23782
or buildings under its management subject to the approval of the 23783
legislature;23784

       (6)(7) Grant leases on all or any part of the property, land, 23785
or buildings under the management of the commission to private or 23786
public organizations, which appear to be in the best interests of 23787
the state, with the approval of the controlling board and director 23788
of administrative services, subject to the following conditions:23789

       (a) The lessees shall make or construct improvements on such 23790
lands or buildings at no cost to the commission or to the state, 23791
subject to prior approval by the director of administrative 23792
services of detailed plans and specifications of such 23793
improvements.23794

       (b) No person, firm, or corporation shall cause a lien to be 23795
filed against any funds or property of the state or of the 23796
commission as a result of a lessee's activities pursuant to 23797
division (B)(6)(7)(a) of this section.23798

       (c) Leases shall be entered into subject to the sale of such 23799
property, lands, or buildings during the term of the lease.23800

       (d) No leases shall be made which interfere with a fair, 23801
exposition, or exhibition on such lands.23802

       (7)(8) Encumber appropriations for the entire amount of a 23803
contract at the time the contract is made, even though the 23804
contract will not be performed in the fiscal year for which the 23805
appropriations were made.23806

       (8)(9) Implement a credit card payment program permitting 23807
payment by means of a credit card of any fees, charges, and 23808
rentals associated with conducting fairs, expositions, and 23809
exhibits. The commission may open an account outside the state 23810
treasury in a financial institution for the purpose of depositing 23811
credit card receipts. By the end of the business day following the 23812
deposit of the receipts, the financial institution shall make 23813
available to the commission funds in the amount of the receipts. 23814
The commission shall then pay these funds into the state treasury 23815
to the credit of the Ohio expositions fund.23816

       The commission shall adopt rules as necessary to carry out 23817
the purposes of division (B)(8)(9) of this section. The rules 23818
shall include standards for determining eligible financial 23819
institutions and the manner in which funds shall be made available 23820
and shall be consistent with the standards contained in sections 23821
135.03, 135.18, and 135.181 of the Revised Code.23822

       The commission shall not adopt or enforce any rules which 23823
will prohibit livestock exhibited at the Ohio state fair from 23824
participating in county and independent fairs in the state.23825

       Sec. 991.04.  There is hereby established in the state 23826
treasury the Ohio expositions fund. AllExcept for gifts and 23827
bequests of money accepted under division (B)(3) of section 991.03 23828
of the Revised Code, all moneys collected by the Ohio expositions 23829
commission pursuant to sections 991.01 to 991.07 of the Revised 23830
Code and any income generated from the investment of those moneys 23831
shall be paid into the fund and may be used to defray the costs of 23832
administration and carrying out the purposes of sections 991.01 to 23833
991.07 of the Revised Code.23834

       With the approval of the director of budget and management, 23835
provisions may be made for a cash fund to be established on the 23836
state fairgrounds during the period of activities related to the 23837
holding of the annual state fair. The purpose of such fund is to 23838
provide for payment of premiums and entertainers and for immediate 23839
payment of small amounts for obligations, including ticket 23840
refunds, of such nature as to require immediate payment.23841

       The expositions commission shall cause to be kept an accurate 23842
record of all transactions, contracts, and proceedings. The 23843
director of budget and management shall prescribe a system of 23844
accounting and reporting. Such system shall include methods and 23845
forms showing the sources from which all revenues of the 23846
expositions commission are received, the amount collected from 23847
each source, and the amount expended for each purpose.23848

       Sec. 991.041. There is in the state treasury the Ohio 23849
expositions support fund. All gifts and bequests of money accepted 23850
under division (B)(3) of section 991.03 of the Revised Code shall 23851
be deposited into the state treasury to the credit of the fund. 23852
Investment earnings of the fund shall be deposited into the fund. 23853
The Ohio expositions commission may use the fund, consistent with 23854
the terms of the gift or bequest, to defray the cost of 23855
administration and of carrying out the purposes of sections 991.01 23856
to 991.07 of the Revised Code.23857

       Sec. 991.06.  Annually on or before the thirtieth day of 23858
September the Ohio expositions commission, through its general 23859
manager, shall prepare and file with the auditor of state a 23860
statement showing the total amount received from each source of 23861
revenue, the total amount disbursed for each class of 23862
expenditures, and the aggregate of all receipts and expenditures 23863
of the commission. This statement shall also include a summary of 23864
each contract for the mutual exchange of goods or services entered 23865
into by the commission under division (B)(4) of section 991.03 of 23866
the Revised Code. Upon receipt of such statement, the auditor of 23867
state shall have it verified and make a report of histhe auditor 23868
of state's findings thereon to the governor.23869

       Assistant auditors of state shall conduct an audit of 23870
activities of the annual Ohio state fair on the Ohio exposition 23871
center during the period when the fair is in progress.23872

       The cost of such audit shall be included in the annual 23873
expenses of the Ohio expositions commission.23874

       Sec. 1332.26. (A) No political subdivision shall require a 23875
video service provider to obtain from it any authority to provide 23876
video service within its boundaries.23877

       (B) Except as authorized under division (C) of this section 23878
and under sections 1332.30 and 1332.32 of the Revised Code, no 23879
political subdivision shall request anything of value from a video 23880
service provider for providing video service; impose any fee, 23881
license, or gross receipt tax on the provision of video service by 23882
such a provider; or impose any franchise or other requirement on 23883
the provision of video service by a video service provider, 23884
including, but not limited to, any provision regulating rates 23885
charged by a video service provider or establishing any build-out 23886
requirement or requirement to deploy any facility or equipment.23887

       (C) When requested to do so, a video service provider shall 23888
assist a municipal corporation or township in addressing video 23889
service subscriber complaints, in a manner consistent with the 23890
provider's complaint handling process set forth in its application 23891
pursuant to division (A)(7) of section 1332.24 of the Revised 23892
Code. Nothing in sections 1332.21 to 1332.34 of the Revised Code 23893
affects any authority granted under sections 1345.01 to 1345.13 of 23894
the Revised Code.23895

       (D) A video service provider shall meet all of the following 23896
customer service standards:23897

       (1) The provider shall restore video service within 23898
seventy-two hours after a subscriber reports a service 23899
interruption or other problem if the cause was not a natural 23900
disaster.23901

       (2) Upon a report by a subscriber of a service interruption 23902
and if the interruption is caused by the video service provider 23903
and lasts for more than fours hours in a given day, the provider 23904
shall give the subscriber a credit in the amount of the cost of 23905
each such day's video service as would be billed to the 23906
subscriber.23907

       (3) Upon a report by a subscriber of a service interruption 23908
and if the interruption is not caused by the video service 23909
provider and lasts for more than twenty-four consecutive hours, 23910
the provider shall give the subscriber, for each hour of service 23911
interruption, a credit in the amount of the cost of per hour video 23912
service as would be billed to the subscriber.23913

       (4) The provider shall give a subscriber at least thirty 23914
days' advance, written notice before removing a channel from the 23915
provider's video service, but no such notice is required if the 23916
provider must remove the channel because of circumstances beyond 23917
its control.23918

       (5) The provider shall give a subscriber at least ten days' 23919
advance, written notice of a disconnection of all or part of the 23920
subscriber's video service, except if the disconnectionany of the 23921
following apply:23922

       (a) Disconnection has been requested by the subscriber,.23923

       (b) Disconnection is necessary to prevent theft of video 23924
service, or.23925

       (c) Disconnection is necessary to prevent the use of video 23926
service through fraud.23927

       (d) Disconnection is necessary to reduce or prevent signal 23928
leakage as described in 47 C.F.R. 76.611. 23929

       (6) The provider shall not establish a due date earlier than 23930
fourteen days after a video service bill is issued.23931

       (7) The provider shall not disconnect all or part of a 23932
subscriber's video service for failure of the subscriber to pay 23933
any amount of its video service bill, until the billamount is at 23934
least forty-fivefourteen days past due.23935

       (7)(8) The provider shall give a subscriber at least thirty 23936
days' advance, written notice before instituting an increase in 23937
video service rates.23938

       Sec. 1337.11.  As used in sections 1337.11 to 1337.17 of the 23939
Revised Code:23940

       (A) "Adult" means a person who is eighteen years of age or 23941
older.23942

       (B) "Attending physician" means the physician to whom a 23943
principal or the family of a principal has assigned primary 23944
responsibility for the treatment or care of the principal or, if 23945
the responsibility has not been assigned, the physician who has 23946
accepted that responsibility.23947

       (C) "Comfort care" means any of the following:23948

       (1) Nutrition when administered to diminish the pain or 23949
discomfort of a principal, but not to postpone death;23950

       (2) Hydration when administered to diminish the pain or 23951
discomfort of a principal, but not to postpone death;23952

       (3) Any other medical or nursing procedure, treatment, 23953
intervention, or other measure that is taken to diminish the pain 23954
or discomfort of a principal, but not to postpone death.23955

       (D) "Consulting physician" means a physician who, in 23956
conjunction with the attending physician of a principal, makes one 23957
or more determinations that are required to be made by the 23958
attending physician, or to be made by the attending physician and 23959
one other physician, by an applicable provision of sections 23960
1337.11 to 1337.17 of the Revised Code, to a reasonable degree of 23961
medical certainty and in accordance with reasonable medical 23962
standards.23963

       (E) "Declaration for mental health treatment" has the same 23964
meaning as in section 2135.01 of the Revised Code.23965

       (F) "Guardian" means a person appointed by a probate court 23966
pursuant to Chapter 2111. of the Revised Code to have the care and 23967
management of the person of an incompetent.23968

       (G) "Health care" means any care, treatment, service, or 23969
procedure to maintain, diagnose, or treat an individual's physical 23970
or mental condition or physical or mental health.23971

       (H) "Health care decision" means informed consent, refusal to 23972
give informed consent, or withdrawal of informed consent to health 23973
care.23974

       (I) "Health care facility" means any of the following:23975

       (1) A hospital;23976

       (2) A hospice care program, pediatric respite care program, 23977
or other institution that specializes in comfort care of patients 23978
in a terminal condition or in a permanently unconscious state;23979

       (3) A nursing home;23980

       (4) A home health agency;23981

       (5) An intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded;23982

       (6) A regulated community mental health organization.23983

       (J) "Health care personnel" means physicians, nurses, 23984
physician assistants, emergency medical technicians-basic, 23985
emergency medical technicians-intermediate, emergency medical 23986
technicians-paramedic, medical technicians, dietitians, other 23987
authorized persons acting under the direction of an attending 23988
physician, and administrators of health care facilities.23989

       (K) "Home health agency" has the same meaning as in section 23990
3701.881 of the Revised Code.23991

       (L) "Hospice care program" and "pediatric respite care 23992
program" have the same meanings as in section 3712.01 of the 23993
Revised Code.23994

       (M) "Hospital" has the same meanings as in sections 3701.01, 23995
3727.01, and 5122.01 of the Revised Code.23996

       (N) "Hydration" means fluids that are artificially or 23997
technologically administered.23998

       (O) "Incompetent" has the same meaning as in section 2111.01 23999
of the Revised Code.24000

       (P) "Intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded" 24001
has the same meaning as in section 5111.205124.01 of the Revised 24002
Code.24003

       (Q) "Life-sustaining treatment" means any medical procedure, 24004
treatment, intervention, or other measure that, when administered 24005
to a principal, will serve principally to prolong the process of 24006
dying.24007

       (R) "Medical claim" has the same meaning as in section 24008
2305.113 of the Revised Code.24009

       (S) "Mental health treatment" has the same meaning as in 24010
section 2135.01 of the Revised Code.24011

       (T) "Nursing home" has the same meaning as in section 3721.01 24012
of the Revised Code.24013

       (U) "Nutrition" means sustenance that is artificially or 24014
technologically administered.24015

       (V) "Permanently unconscious state" means a state of 24016
permanent unconsciousness in a principal that, to a reasonable 24017
degree of medical certainty as determined in accordance with 24018
reasonable medical standards by the principal's attending 24019
physician and one other physician who has examined the principal, 24020
is characterized by both of the following:24021

       (1) Irreversible unawareness of one's being and environment.24022

       (2) Total loss of cerebral cortical functioning, resulting in 24023
the principal having no capacity to experience pain or suffering.24024

       (W) "Person" has the same meaning as in section 1.59 of the 24025
Revised Code and additionally includes political subdivisions and 24026
governmental agencies, boards, commissions, departments, 24027
institutions, offices, and other instrumentalities.24028

       (X) "Physician" means a person who is authorized under 24029
Chapter 4731. of the Revised Code to practice medicine and surgery 24030
or osteopathic medicine and surgery.24031

       (Y) "Political subdivision" and "state" have the same 24032
meanings as in section 2744.01 of the Revised Code.24033

       (Z) "Professional disciplinary action" means action taken by 24034
the board or other entity that regulates the professional conduct 24035
of health care personnel, including the state medical board and 24036
the board of nursing.24037

       (AA) "Regulated community mental health organization" means a 24038
residential facility as defined and licensed under section 5119.2224039
5119.34 of the Revised Code or a community mental health agency24040
services provider as defined in section 5122.01 of the Revised 24041
Code.24042

        (BB) "Terminal condition" means an irreversible, incurable, 24043
and untreatable condition caused by disease, illness, or injury 24044
from which, to a reasonable degree of medical certainty as 24045
determined in accordance with reasonable medical standards by a 24046
principal's attending physician and one other physician who has 24047
examined the principal, both of the following apply:24048

       (1) There can be no recovery.24049

       (2) Death is likely to occur within a relatively short time 24050
if life-sustaining treatment is not administered.24051

       (CC) "Tort action" means a civil action for damages for 24052
injury, death, or loss to person or property, other than a civil 24053
action for damages for a breach of contract or another agreement 24054
between persons.24055

       Sec. 1347.08.  (A) Every state or local agency that maintains 24056
a personal information system, upon the request and the proper 24057
identification of any person who is the subject of personal 24058
information in the system, shall:24059

       (1) Inform the person of the existence of any personal 24060
information in the system of which the person is the subject;24061

       (2) Except as provided in divisions (C) and (E)(2) of this 24062
section, permit the person, the person's legal guardian, or an 24063
attorney who presents a signed written authorization made by the 24064
person, to inspect all personal information in the system of which 24065
the person is the subject;24066

       (3) Inform the person about the types of uses made of the 24067
personal information, including the identity of any users usually 24068
granted access to the system.24069

       (B) Any person who wishes to exercise a right provided by 24070
this section may be accompanied by another individual of the 24071
person's choice.24072

       (C)(1) A state or local agency, upon request, shall disclose 24073
medical, psychiatric, or psychological information to a person who 24074
is the subject of the information or to the person's legal 24075
guardian, unless a physician, psychiatrist, or psychologist 24076
determines for the agency that the disclosure of the information 24077
is likely to have an adverse effect on the person, in which case 24078
the information shall be released to a physician, psychiatrist, or 24079
psychologist who is designated by the person or by the person's 24080
legal guardian.24081

       (2) Upon the signed written request of either a licensed 24082
attorney at law or a licensed physician designated by the inmate, 24083
together with the signed written request of an inmate of a 24084
correctional institution under the administration of the 24085
department of rehabilitation and correction, the department shall 24086
disclose medical information to the designated attorney or 24087
physician as provided in division (C) of section 5120.21 of the 24088
Revised Code.24089

       (D) If an individual who is authorized to inspect personal 24090
information that is maintained in a personal information system 24091
requests the state or local agency that maintains the system to 24092
provide a copy of any personal information that the individual is 24093
authorized to inspect, the agency shall provide a copy of the 24094
personal information to the individual. Each state and local 24095
agency may establish reasonable fees for the service of copying, 24096
upon request, personal information that is maintained by the 24097
agency.24098

       (E)(1) This section regulates access to personal information 24099
that is maintained in a personal information system by persons who 24100
are the subject of the information, but does not limit the 24101
authority of any person, including a person who is the subject of 24102
personal information maintained in a personal information system, 24103
to inspect or have copied, pursuant to section 149.43 of the 24104
Revised Code, a public record as defined in that section.24105

       (2) This section does not provide a person who is the subject 24106
of personal information maintained in a personal information 24107
system, the person's legal guardian, or an attorney authorized by 24108
the person, with a right to inspect or have copied, or require an 24109
agency that maintains a personal information system to permit the 24110
inspection of or to copy, a confidential law enforcement 24111
investigatory record or trial preparation record, as defined in 24112
divisions (A)(2) and (4) of section 149.43 of the Revised Code.24113

       (F) This section does not apply to any of the following:24114

       (1) The contents of an adoption file maintained by the 24115
department of health under section 3705.12 of the Revised Code;24116

       (2) Information contained in the putative father registry 24117
established by section 3107.062 of the Revised Code, regardless of 24118
whether the information is held by the department of job and 24119
family services or, pursuant to section 3111.69 of the Revised 24120
Code, the office of child support in the department or a child 24121
support enforcement agency;24122

       (3) Papers, records, and books that pertain to an adoption 24123
and that are subject to inspection in accordance with section 24124
3107.17 of the Revised Code;24125

       (4) Records listed in division (A) of section 3107.42 of the 24126
Revised Code or specified in division (A) of section 3107.52 of 24127
the Revised Code;24128

       (5) Records that identify an individual described in division 24129
(A)(1) of section 3721.031 of the Revised Code, or that would tend 24130
to identify such an individual;24131

       (6) Files and records that have been expunged under division 24132
(D)(1) or (2) of section 3721.23 of the Revised Code;24133

       (7) Records that identify an individual described in division 24134
(A)(1) of section 3721.25 of the Revised Code, or that would tend 24135
to identify such an individual;24136

       (8) Records that identify an individual described in division 24137
(A)(1) of section 5111.615165.88 of the Revised Code, or that 24138
would tend to identify such an individual;24139

       (9) Test materials, examinations, or evaluation tools used in 24140
an examination for licensure as a nursing home administrator that 24141
the board of examinersexecutives of nursing home administrators24142
long-term services and supports administers under section 4751.04 24143
of the Revised Code or contracts under that section with a private 24144
or government entity to administer;24145

       (10) Information contained in a database established and 24146
maintained pursuant to section 5101.13 of the Revised Code.24147

       Sec. 1501.011. (A) TheExcept as provided in divisions (B), 24148
(C), and (D) of this section, the Ohio facilities construction 24149
commission shall supervise the design and construction of, and 24150
make contracts for the construction, reconstruction, improvement, 24151
enlargement, alteration, repair, or decoration of, any projects or 24152
improvements for the department of natural resources has the 24153
following powers in addition to its other powers: to prepare, or 24154
contract to be prepared, surveys, general and detailed plans, 24155
specifications, bills of materials, and estimates of cost for, to 24156
enter into contracts for, and to supervise the performance of 24157
labor, the furnishing of materials, or the construction, repair, 24158
or maintenance of any projects, improvements, or buildings, on 24159
lands and waters under the control of the department, asthat may 24160
be authorized by legislative appropriations or any other funds 24161
available therefor, the estimated cost of which amounts to two 24162
hundred thousand dollars or more or the amount determined pursuant 24163
to section 153.53 of the Revised Code or more.24164

       (B) Except as provided in division (E) of this section, the 24165
director of natural resources shall publish notice in a newspaper 24166
of general circulation in the region where the activity for which 24167
bids are submitted is to occur and in any other newspapers that 24168
the director determines are appropriate, at least once each week 24169
for four consecutive weeks, the last publication to be at least 24170
eight days preceding the day for opening bids, seeking proposals 24171
on each contract for the performance of labor, the furnishing of 24172
materials, or the construction, repair, or maintenance of 24173
projects, improvements, or buildings, as necessary for compliance 24174
with provisions of the act to make appropriations for capital 24175
improvements or the act to make general appropriations, and the 24176
director may also advertise in such trade journals as will afford 24177
adequate information to the public of the terms of the contract 24178
and the nature of the work to be performed, together with the time 24179
of the letting and place and manner of receiving proposals, and 24180
the places where plans and specifications are on file. A proposal 24181
is invalid and shall not be considered by the department unless 24182
the form for proposals specified by the department is used without 24183
change, alteration, or additionThe department of natural 24184
resources shall administer the construction of improvements under 24185
an agreement with the supervisors of a soil and water conservation 24186
district pursuant to division (I) of section 1515.08 of the 24187
Revised Code.24188

       (C) Each bidder for a contract for the performance of labor, 24189
the furnishing of materials, or the maintenance, construction, 24190
demolition, alteration, repair, or reconstruction of an 24191
improvement shall meet the requirements of section 153.54 of the 24192
Revised Code. The director may require each bidder to furnish 24193
under oath, upon such printed forms as the director may prescribe, 24194
detailed information with respect to the bidder's financial 24195
resources, equipment, past performance record, organization 24196
personnel, and experience, together with such other information as 24197
the director considers necessary.24198

       (D) The director shall award the contract to the lowest 24199
responsive and responsible bidder in accordance with section 9.312 24200
of the Revised Code. The award shall be made within a reasonable 24201
time after the date on which the bids were opened, and the 24202
successful bidder shall enter into a contract within ten days from 24203
the date the successful bidder is notified that the contract has 24204
been awarded, or within any longer period that the director 24205
considers necessary. Nothing in this section shall preclude the 24206
rejection of any bid the acceptance of which is not in the best 24207
interests of the state. No contract shall be entered into until 24208
the bureau of workers' compensation has certified that the 24209
corporation, partnership, or person awarded the contract has 24210
complied with Chapter 4123. of the Revised Code and until, if the 24211
bidder awarded the contract is a foreign corporation, the 24212
secretary of state has certified that the corporation is 24213
authorized to do business in this state, and until, if the bidder 24214
so awarded the contract is a person or partnership nonresident of 24215
this state, the person or partnership has filed with the secretary 24216
of state a power of attorney designating the secretary of state as 24217
its agency for the purpose of accepting service of process.24218

       (E) With respect to the director's entering into a contract 24219
for the performance of labor, the furnishing of materials, or the 24220
construction, repair, or maintenance of any projects, 24221
improvements, or buildings on lands and waters under the control 24222
of the department, both of the following apply:24223

       (1) The director is not required to advertise for and receive 24224
bids if the total estimated cost of the contract is less than 24225
twenty-five thousand dollars.24226

       (2) The director is not required to advertise for bids, 24227
regardless of the cost of the contract, if the(1) The department 24228
of natural resources shall supervise the design and construction 24229
of, and make contracts for the construction, reconstruction, 24230
improvement, enlargement, alteration, repair, or decoration of, 24231
any of the following activities, projects, or improvements:24232

       (a) Dam repairs administered by the division of engineering 24233
under Chapter 1507. of the Revised Code;24234

       (b) Projects or improvements administered by the division of 24235
watercraft and funded through the waterways safety fund 24236
established in section 1547.75 of the Revised Code;24237

       (c) Projects or improvements administered by the division of 24238
wildlife under Chapter 1531. or 1533. of the Revised Code;24239

       (d) Activities conducted by the department pursuant to 24240
section 5511.05 of the Revised Code in order to maintain the 24241
department's roadway inventory.24242

       (2) If a contract to be let under division (C)(1) of this 24243
section involves an exigency that concerns the public health, 24244
safety, or welfare or addresses an emergency situation in which 24245
timeliness is crucial in preventing the cost of the contract from 24246
increasing significantly. Regarding such a contract, the director 24247
may solicit bids by sending a letter to a minimum of three 24248
contractors in the region where the contract is to be let or by 24249
any other means that the director considers appropriate.24250

       (F) The director may insert in any contract awarded under 24251
this section a clause providing for value engineering change 24252
proposals, under which a contractor who has been awarded a 24253
contract may propose a change in the plans and specifications of 24254
the project that saves the department time or money on the project 24255
without impairing any of the essential functions and 24256
characteristics of the project such as service life, reliability, 24257
economy of operation, ease of maintenance, safety, and necessary 24258
standardized features. If the director adopts the value 24259
engineering proposal, the savings from the proposal shall be 24260
divided between the department and the contractor according to 24261
guidelines established by the director, provided that the 24262
contractor shall receive at least fifty per cent of the savings 24263
from the proposal. The adoption of a value engineering proposal 24264
does not invalidate the award of the contract or require the 24265
director to rebid the project.24266

       (G) When in the opinion of the department the work under any 24267
contract made under this section or any law of the state is 24268
neglected by the contractor, the work completed is deficient in 24269
quality or materials, or the work is not prosecuted with the 24270
diligence and force specified or intended in the contract, the 24271
department may require the contractor to provide, at no additional 24272
expense to the department, any additional labor and materials that 24273
are necessary to complete the improvements at the level of quality 24274
and within the time of performance specified in the contract. 24275
Procedures concerning such a requirement together with its format 24276
shall be specified in the contract. If the contractor fails to 24277
comply with the requirement within the period specified in the 24278
contract, the department may take action to complete the work 24279
through other means, up to and including termination of the 24280
contract.24281

       (H) When an exigency occurs or there is immediate danger of 24282
an exigency that would materially impair the successful bidding, 24283
construction, or completion of a project, improvement, or 24284
building, the director may revise related plans and specifications 24285
as necessary to address the exigency through the issuance of an 24286
addendum prior to the opening of bids or, in accordance with 24287
procedures established in section 153.62 of the Revised Code, 24288
through the issuance of a change order after the contract has been 24289
awarded, pursuant to the declaration of a public exigency, the 24290
department may award the contract without competitive bidding or 24291
selection as otherwise required by Chapter 153. of the Revised 24292
Code.24293

       (D) The executive director of the Ohio facilities 24294
construction commission may authorize the department of natural 24295
resources to administer any other project or improvement, the 24296
estimated cost of which, including design fees, construction, 24297
equipment, and contingency amounts, is not more than one million 24298
five hundred thousand dollars.24299

       Sec. 1501.45.  (A) As used in this section:24300

       (1) "Forfeiture laws" means provisions that are established 24301
in Title XXIX of the Revised Code and that govern the forfeiture 24302
and disposition of certain property that is seized pursuant to a 24303
law enforcement investigation.24304

       (2) "Law enforcement division" means the division of 24305
forestry, the division of natural areas and preserves, the 24306
division of wildlife, the division of parks and recreation, or the 24307
division of watercraft in the department of natural resources.24308

       (3) "Law enforcement fund" means a fund created in this 24309
section.24310

       (B) Except as otherwise provided in this section and 24311
notwithstanding any provision of the Revised Code that is not in 24312
Title XV of the Revised Code to the contrary, the forfeiture laws 24313
apply to a law enforcement division that substantially conducts an 24314
investigation that results in the ordered forfeiture of property 24315
and also apply to the involved forfeiture of property, and the law 24316
enforcement division shall comply with those forfeiture laws. 24317
Accordingly, the portion of the forfeiture laws that authorizes 24318
certain proceeds from forfeited property to be distributed to the 24319
law enforcement agency that substantially conducted the 24320
investigation that resulted in the seizure of the subsequently 24321
forfeited property apply to the law enforcement divisions except 24322
as provided in division (C)(2)(a) of this section. If a law 24323
enforcement division is eligible to receive such proceeds, the 24324
proceeds shall be deposited into the state treasury to the credit 24325
of the applicable law enforcement fund.24326

       (C)(1) There are hereby created in the state treasury the 24327
division of forestry law enforcement fund, the division of natural 24328
areas and preserves law enforcement fund, the division of wildlife 24329
law enforcement fund, the division of parks and recreation law 24330
enforcement fund, and the division of watercraft law enforcement 24331
fund. The24332

       (2) The funds shall consist of proceeds from forfeited 24333
property that are deposited in accordance with this section. The24334
as follows:24335

       (a) Proceeds from forfeited property resulting from an 24336
investigation conducted by the division of forestry, the division 24337
of natural areas and preserves, or the division of parks and 24338
recreation shall be deposited in the division of parks and 24339
recreation law enforcement fund.24340

       (b) Proceeds from forfeited property resulting from an 24341
investigation conducted by the division of wildlife shall be 24342
deposited in the division of wildlife law enforcement fund.24343

       (c) Proceeds from forfeited property resulting from an 24344
investigation conducted by the division of watercraft shall be 24345
deposited in the division of watercraft law enforcement fund.24346

       (3) The funds shall be used by the applicable law enforcement 24347
division for law enforcement purposes specified in the forfeiture 24348
laws; however, aas follows:24349

       (a) Money in the division of parks and recreation law 24350
enforcement fund shall be used by the division of parks and 24351
recreation.24352

       (b) Money in the division of wildlife law enforcement fund 24353
shall be used by the division of wildlife.24354

       (c) Money in the division of watercraft law enforcement fund 24355
shall be used by the division of watercraft.24356

       (4) A law enforcement division shall not use such fundsits 24357
fund to pay the salaries of its employees or to provide for any 24358
other remuneration of personnel.24359

       (D) If the forfeiture laws conflict with any provisions that 24360
govern forfeitures and that are established in another section of 24361
Title XV of the Revised Code, the provisions established in the 24362
other section of Title XV apply.24363

       Sec. 1509.01.  As used in this chapter:24364

       (A) "Well" means any borehole, whether drilled or bored, 24365
within the state for production, extraction, or injection of any 24366
gas or liquid mineral, excluding potable water to be used as such, 24367
but including natural or artificial brines and oil field waters.24368

       (B) "Oil" means crude petroleum oil and all other 24369
hydrocarbons, regardless of gravity, that are produced in liquid 24370
form by ordinary production methods, but does not include 24371
hydrocarbons that were originally in a gaseous phase in the 24372
reservoir.24373

       (C) "Gas" means all natural gas and all other fluid 24374
hydrocarbons that are not oil, including condensate.24375

       (D) "Condensate" means liquid hydrocarbons separated at or 24376
near the well pad or along the gas production or gathering system 24377
prior to gas processing.24378

       (E) "Pool" means an underground reservoir containing a common 24379
accumulation of oil or gas, or both, but does not include a gas 24380
storage reservoir. Each zone of a geological structure that is 24381
completely separated from any other zone in the same structure may 24382
contain a separate pool.24383

       (F) "Field" means the general area underlaid by one or more 24384
pools.24385

       (G) "Drilling unit" means the minimum acreage on which one 24386
well may be drilled, but does not apply to a well for injecting 24387
gas into or removing gas from a gas storage reservoir.24388

       (H) "Waste" includes all of the following:24389

       (1) Physical waste, as that term generally is understood in 24390
the oil and gas industry;24391

       (2) Inefficient, excessive, or improper use, or the 24392
unnecessary dissipation, of reservoir energy;24393

       (3) Inefficient storing of oil or gas;24394

       (4) Locating, drilling, equipping, operating, or producing an 24395
oil or gas well in a manner that reduces or tends to reduce the 24396
quantity of oil or gas ultimately recoverable under prudent and 24397
proper operations from the pool into which it is drilled or that 24398
causes or tends to cause unnecessary or excessive surface loss or 24399
destruction of oil or gas;24400

       (5) Other underground or surface waste in the production or 24401
storage of oil, gas, or condensate, however caused.24402

       (I) "Correlative rights" means the reasonable opportunity to 24403
every person entitled thereto to recover and receive the oil and 24404
gas in and under the person's tract or tracts, or the equivalent 24405
thereof, without having to drill unnecessary wells or incur other 24406
unnecessary expense.24407

       (J) "Tract" means a single, individually taxed parcel of land 24408
appearing on the tax list.24409

       (K) "Owner," unless referring to a mine, means the person who 24410
has the right to drill on a tract or drilling unit, to drill into 24411
and produce from a pool, and to appropriate the oil or gas 24412
produced therefrom either for the person or for others, except 24413
that a person ceases to be an owner with respect to a well when 24414
the well has been plugged in accordance with applicable rules 24415
adopted and orders issued under this chapter. "Owner" does not 24416
include a person who obtains a lease of the mineral rights for oil 24417
and gas on a parcel of land if the person does not attempt to 24418
produce or produce oil or gas from a well or obtain a permit under 24419
this chapter for a well or if the entire interest of a well is 24420
transferred to the person in accordance with division (B) of 24421
section 1509.31 of the Revised Code.24422

       (L) "Royalty interest" means the fee holder's share in the 24423
production from a well.24424

       (M) "Discovery well" means the first well capable of 24425
producing oil or gas in commercial quantities from a pool.24426

       (N) "Prepared clay" means a clay that is plastic and is 24427
thoroughly saturated with fresh water to a weight and consistency 24428
great enough to settle through saltwater in the well in which it 24429
is to be used, except as otherwise approved by the chief of the 24430
division of oil and gas resources management.24431

       (O) "Rock sediment" means the combined cutting and residue 24432
from drilling sedimentary rocks and formation.24433

       (P) "Excavations and workings," "mine," and "pillar" have the 24434
same meanings as in section 1561.01 of the Revised Code.24435

       (Q) "Coal bearing township" means a township designated as 24436
such by the chief of the division of mineral resources management 24437
under section 1561.06 of the Revised Code.24438

       (R) "Gas storage reservoir" means a continuous area of a 24439
subterranean porous sand or rock stratum or strata into which gas 24440
is or may be injected for the purpose of storing it therein and 24441
removing it therefrom and includes a gas storage reservoir as 24442
defined in section 1571.01 of the Revised Code.24443

       (S) "Safe Drinking Water Act" means the "Safe Drinking Water 24444
Act," 88 Stat. 1661 (1974), 42 U.S.C.A. 300(f), as amended by the 24445
"Safe Drinking Water Amendments of 1977," 91 Stat. 1393, 42 24446
U.S.C.A. 300(f), the "Safe Drinking Water Act Amendments of 1986," 24447
100 Stat. 642, 42 U.S.C.A. 300(f), and the "Safe Drinking Water 24448
Act Amendments of 1996," 110 Stat. 1613, 42 U.S.C.A. 300(f), and 24449
regulations adopted under those acts.24450

       (T) "Person" includes any political subdivision, department, 24451
agency, or instrumentality of this state; the United States and 24452
any department, agency, or instrumentality thereof; and any legal 24453
entity defined as a person under section 1.59 of the Revised Code.24454

       (U) "Brine" means all saline geological formation water 24455
resulting from, obtained from, or produced in connection with 24456
exploration, drilling, well stimulation, production of oil or gas, 24457
or plugging of a well.24458

       (V) "Waters of the state" means all streams, lakes, ponds, 24459
marshes, watercourses, waterways, springs, irrigation systems, 24460
drainage systems, and other bodies of water, surface or 24461
underground, natural or artificial, that are situated wholly or 24462
partially within this state or within its jurisdiction, except 24463
those private waters that do not combine or effect a junction with 24464
natural surface or underground waters.24465

       (W) "Exempt Mississippian well" means a well that meets all 24466
of the following criteria:24467

       (1) Was drilled and completed before January 1, 1980;24468

       (2) Is located in an unglaciated part of the state;24469

       (3) Was completed in a reservoir no deeper than the 24470
Mississippian Big Injun sandstone in areas underlain by 24471
Pennsylvanian or Permian stratigraphy, or the Mississippian Berea 24472
sandstone in areas directly underlain by Permian stratigraphy;24473

       (4) Is used primarily to provide oil or gas for domestic use.24474

       (X) "Exempt domestic well" means a well that meets all of the 24475
following criteria:24476

       (1) Is owned by the owner of the surface estate of the tract 24477
on which the well is located;24478

       (2) Is used primarily to provide gas for the owner's domestic 24479
use;24480

       (3) Is located more than two hundred feet horizontal distance 24481
from any inhabited private dwelling house other than an inhabited 24482
private dwelling house located on the tract on which the well is 24483
located;24484

       (4) Is located more than two hundred feet horizontal distance 24485
from any public building that may be used as a place of resort, 24486
assembly, education, entertainment, lodging, trade, manufacture, 24487
repair, storage, traffic, or occupancy by the public.24488

       (Y) "Urbanized area" means an area where a well or production 24489
facilities of a well are located within a municipal corporation or 24490
within a township that has an unincorporated population of more 24491
than five thousand in the most recent federal decennial census 24492
prior to the issuance of the permit for the well or production 24493
facilities.24494

       (Z) "Well stimulation" or "stimulation of a well" means the 24495
process of enhancing well productivity, including hydraulic 24496
fracturing operations.24497

       (AA) "Production operation" means all operations and 24498
activities and all related equipment, facilities, and other 24499
structures that may be used in or associated with the exploration 24500
and production of oil, gas, or other mineral resources that are 24501
regulated under this chapter, including operations and activities 24502
associated with site preparation, site construction, access road 24503
construction, well drilling, well completion, well stimulation, 24504
well site activities, reclamation, and plugging. "Production 24505
operation" also includes all of the following:24506

       (1) The piping, equipment, and facilities used for the 24507
production and preparation of hydrocarbon gas or liquids for 24508
transportation or delivery;24509

       (2) The processes of extraction and recovery, lifting, 24510
stabilization, treatment, separation, production processing, 24511
storage, waste disposal, and measurement of hydrocarbon gas and 24512
liquids, including related equipment and facilities;24513

       (3) The processes and related equipment and facilities 24514
associated with production compression, gas lift, gas injection, 24515
fuel gas supply, well drilling, well stimulation, and well 24516
completion activities, including dikes, pits, and earthen and 24517
other impoundments used for the temporary storage of fluids and 24518
waste substances associated with well drilling, well stimulation, 24519
and well completion activities;24520

       (4) Equipment and facilities at a wellpad or other location 24521
that are used for the transportation, handling, recycling, 24522
temporary storage, management, processing, or treatment of any 24523
equipment, material, and by-products or other substances from an 24524
operation at a wellpad that may be used or reused at the same or 24525
another operation at a wellpad or that will be disposed of in 24526
accordance with applicable laws and rules adopted under them.24527

       (BB) "Annular overpressurization" means the accumulation of 24528
fluids within an annulus with sufficient pressure to allow 24529
migration of annular fluids into underground sources of drinking 24530
water.24531

       (CC) "Idle and orphaned well" means a well for which a bond 24532
has been forfeited or an abandoned well for which no money is 24533
available to plug the well in accordance with this chapter and 24534
rules adopted under it.24535

       (DD) "Temporarily inactive well" means a well that has been 24536
granted temporary inactive status under section 1509.062 of the 24537
Revised Code.24538

       (EE) "Material and substantial violation" means any of the 24539
following:24540

       (1) Failure to obtain a permit to drill, reopen, convert, 24541
plugback, or plug a well under this chapter;24542

       (2) Failure to obtain, maintain, update, or submit proof of 24543
insurance coverage that is required under this chapter;24544

       (3) Failure to obtain, maintain, update, or submit proof of a 24545
surety bond that is required under this chapter;24546

       (4) Failure to plug an abandoned well or idle and orphaned 24547
well unless the well has been granted temporary inactive status 24548
under section 1509.062 of the Revised Code or the chief of the 24549
division of oil and gas resources management has approved another 24550
option concerning the abandoned well or idle and orphaned well;24551

       (5) Failure to restore a disturbed land surface as required 24552
by section 1509.072 of the Revised Code;24553

       (6) Failure to reimburse the oil and gas well fund pursuant 24554
to a final order issued under section 1509.071 of the Revised 24555
Code;24556

       (7) Failure to comply with a final nonappealable order of the 24557
chief issued under section 1509.04 of the Revised Code;24558

       (8) Failure to submit a report, test result, fee, or document 24559
that is required in this chapter or rules adopted under it.24560

       (FF) "Severer" has the same meaning as in section 5749.01 of 24561
the Revised Code.24562

       (GG) "Horizontal well" means a well that is drilled for the 24563
production of oil or gas in which the wellbore reaches a 24564
horizontal or near horizontal position in the Point Pleasant, 24565
Utica, or Marcellus formation and the well is stimulated.24566

       (HH) "Well pad" means the area that is cleared or prepared 24567
for the drilling of one or more horizontal wells.24568

       Sec. 1509.02.  There is hereby created in the department of 24569
natural resources the division of oil and gas resources 24570
management, which shall be administered by the chief of the 24571
division of oil and gas resources management. The division has 24572
sole and exclusive authority to regulate the permitting, location, 24573
and spacing of oil and gas wells and production operations within 24574
the state, excepting only those activities regulated under federal 24575
laws for which oversight has been delegated to the environmental 24576
protection agency and activities regulated under sections 6111.02 24577
to 6111.0296111.028 of the Revised Code. The regulation of oil 24578
and gas activities is a matter of general statewide interest that 24579
requires uniform statewide regulation, and this chapter and rules 24580
adopted under it constitute a comprehensive plan with respect to 24581
all aspects of the locating, drilling, well stimulation, 24582
completing, and operating of oil and gas wells within this state, 24583
including site construction and restoration, permitting related to 24584
those activities, and the disposal of wastes from those wells. In 24585
order to assist the division in the furtherance of its sole and 24586
exclusive authority as established in this section, the chief may 24587
enter into cooperative agreements with other state agencies for 24588
advice and consultation, including visitations at the surface 24589
location of a well on behalf of the division. Such cooperative 24590
agreements do not confer on other state agencies any authority to 24591
administer or enforce this chapter and rules adopted under it. In 24592
addition, such cooperative agreements shall not be construed to 24593
dilute or diminish the division's sole and exclusive authority as 24594
established in this section. Nothing in this section affects the 24595
authority granted to the director of transportation and local 24596
authorities in section 723.01 or 4513.34 of the Revised Code, 24597
provided that the authority granted under those sections shall not 24598
be exercised in a manner that discriminates against, unfairly 24599
impedes, or obstructs oil and gas activities and operations 24600
regulated under this chapter.24601

       The chief shall not hold any other public office, nor shall 24602
the chief be engaged in any occupation or business that might 24603
interfere with or be inconsistent with the duties as chief.24604

       All moneys collected by the chief pursuant to sections 24605
1509.06, 1509.061, 1509.062, 1509.071, 1509.13, 1509.22, 1509.222, 24606
1509.28, 1509.34, and 1509.50 of the Revised Code, ninety per cent 24607
of moneys received by the treasurer of state from the tax levied 24608
in divisions (A)(5) and (6) of section 5749.02 of the Revised 24609
Code, all civil penalties paid under section 1509.33 of the 24610
Revised Code, and, notwithstanding any section of the Revised Code 24611
relating to the distribution or crediting of fines for violations 24612
of the Revised Code, all fines imposed under divisions (A) and (B) 24613
of section 1509.99 of the Revised Code and fines imposed under 24614
divisions (C) and (D) of section 1509.99 of the Revised Code for 24615
all violations prosecuted by the attorney general and for 24616
violations prosecuted by prosecuting attorneys that do not involve 24617
the transportation of brine by vehicle shall be deposited into the 24618
state treasury to the credit of the oil and gas well fund, which 24619
is hereby created. Fines imposed under divisions (C) and (D) of 24620
section 1509.99 of the Revised Code for violations prosecuted by 24621
prosecuting attorneys that involve the transportation of brine by 24622
vehicle and penalties associated with a compliance agreement 24623
entered into pursuant to this chapter shall be paid to the county 24624
treasury of the county where the violation occurred.24625

       The fund shall be used solely and exclusively for the 24626
purposes enumerated in division (B) of section 1509.071 of the 24627
Revised Code, for the expenses of the division associated with the 24628
administration of this chapter and Chapter 1571. of the Revised 24629
Code and rules adopted under them, and for expenses that are 24630
critical and necessary for the protection of human health and 24631
safety and the environment related to oil and gas production in 24632
this state. The expenses of the division in excess of the moneys 24633
available in the fund shall be paid from general revenue fund 24634
appropriations to the department.24635

       Sec. 1509.062. (A)(1) The owner of a well that has not been 24636
completed, a well that has not produced within one year after 24637
completion, or an existing well that is not a horizontal well and24638
that has no reported production for two consecutive reporting 24639
periods as reported in accordance with section 1509.11 of the 24640
Revised Code, or an existing horizontal well that has no reported 24641
production for eight consecutive reporting periods as reported in 24642
accordance with section 1509.11 of the Revised Code shall plug the 24643
well in accordance with section 1509.12 of the Revised Code, 24644
obtain temporary inactive well status for the well in accordance 24645
with this section, or perform another activity regarding the well 24646
that is approved by the chief of the division of oil and gas 24647
resources management.24648

       (2) If a well has a reported annual production that is less 24649
than one hundred thousand cubic feet of natural gas or fifteen 24650
barrels of crude oil, or a combination thereof, the chief may 24651
require the owner of the well to submit an application for 24652
temporary inactive well status under this section for the well.24653

       (B) In order for the owner of a well to submit an application 24654
for temporary inactive well status for the well under this 24655
division, the owner and the well shall be in compliance with this 24656
chapter and rules adopted under it, any terms and conditions of 24657
the permit for the well, and applicable orders issued by the 24658
chief. An application for temporary inactive status for a well 24659
shall be submitted to the chief on a form prescribed and provided 24660
by the chief and shall contain all of the following:24661

       (1) The owner's name and address and, if the owner is a 24662
corporation, the name and address of the corporation's statutory 24663
agent;24664

       (2) The signature of the owner or of the owner's authorized 24665
agent. When an authorized agent signs an application, the 24666
application shall be accompanied by a certified copy of the 24667
appointment as such agent.24668

       (3) The permit number assigned to the well. If the well has 24669
not been assigned a permit number, the chief shall assign a permit 24670
number to the well.24671

       (4) A map, on a scale not smaller than four hundred feet to 24672
the inch, that shows the location of the well and the tank 24673
battery, that includes the latitude and longitude of the well, and 24674
that contains all other data that are required by the chief;24675

       (5) A demonstration that the well is of future utility and 24676
that the applicant has a viable plan to utilize the well within a 24677
reasonable period of time;24678

       (6) A demonstration that the well poses no threat to the 24679
health or safety of persons, property, or the environment;24680

       (7) Any other relevant information that the chief prescribes 24681
by rule.24682

       The chief may waive any of the requirements established in 24683
divisions (B)(1) to (6) of this section if the division of oil and 24684
gas resources management possesses a current copy of the 24685
information or document that is required in the applicable 24686
division.24687

       (C) Upon receipt of an application for temporary inactive 24688
well status, the chief shall review the application and shall 24689
either deny the application by issuing an order or approve the 24690
application. The chief shall approve the application only if the 24691
chief determines that the well that is the subject of the 24692
application poses no threat to the health or safety of persons, 24693
property, or the environment. If the chief approves the 24694
application, the chief shall notify the applicant of the chief's 24695
approval. Upon receipt of the chief's approval, the owner shall 24696
shut in the well and empty all liquids and gases from all storage 24697
tanks, pipelines, and other equipment associated with the well. In 24698
addition, the owner shall maintain the well, other equipment 24699
associated with the well, and the surface location of the well in 24700
a manner that prevents hazards to the health and safety of people 24701
and the environment. The owner shall inspect the well at least 24702
every six months and submit to the chief within fourteen days 24703
after the inspection a record of inspection on a form prescribed 24704
and provided by the chief.24705

       (D) Not later than thirty days prior to the expiration of 24706
temporary inactive well status or a renewal of temporary inactive 24707
well status approved by the chief for a well, the owner of the 24708
well may submit to the chief an application for renewal of the 24709
temporary inactive well status on a form prescribed and provided 24710
by the chief. The application shall include a detailed plan that 24711
describes the ultimate disposition of the well, the time frames 24712
for that disposition, and any other information that the chief 24713
determines is necessary. The chief shall either deny an 24714
application by order or approve the application. If the chief 24715
approves the application, the chief shall notify the owner of the 24716
well of the chief's approval.24717

       (E) An application for temporary inactive well status shall 24718
be accompanied by a nonrefundable fee of one hundred dollars. An 24719
application for a renewal of temporary inactive well status shall 24720
be accompanied by a nonrefundable fee of two hundred fifty dollars 24721
for the first renewal and five hundred dollars for each subsequent 24722
renewal.24723

       (F) After a third renewal, the chief may require an owner to 24724
provide a surety bond in an amount not to exceed ten thousand 24725
dollars for each of the owner's wells that has been approved by 24726
the chief for temporary inactive well status.24727

       (G) Temporary inactive well status approved by the chief 24728
expires one year after the date of approval of the application for 24729
temporary inactive well status or production from the well 24730
commences, whichever occurs sooner. In addition, a renewal of a 24731
temporary inactive well status expires one year after the 24732
expiration date of the initial temporary inactive well status or 24733
one year after the expiration date of the previous renewal of the 24734
temporary inactive well status, as applicable, or production from 24735
the well commences, whichever occurs sooner.24736

       (H) The owner of a well that has been approved by the chief 24737
for temporary inactive well status may commence production from 24738
the well at any time. Not later than sixty days after the 24739
commencement of production from such a well, the owner shall 24740
notify the chief of the commencement of production.24741

       (I) This chapter and rules adopted under it, any terms and 24742
conditions of the permit for a well, and applicable orders issued 24743
by the chief apply to a well that has been approved by the chief 24744
for temporary inactive well status or renewal of that status.24745

       Sec. 1509.10.  (A) Any person drilling within the state 24746
shall, within sixty days after the completion of drilling 24747
operations to the proposed total depth or after a determination 24748
that a well is a dry or lost hole, file with the division of oil 24749
and gas resources management all wireline electric logs and an 24750
accurate well completion record on a form that is prescribed by 24751
the chief of the division of oil and gas resources management that 24752
designates:24753

       (1) The purpose for which the well was drilled;24754

       (2) The character, depth, and thickness of geological units 24755
encountered, including coal seams, mineral beds, associated fluids 24756
such as fresh water, brine, and crude oil, natural gas, and sour 24757
gas, if such seams, beds, fluids, or gases are known;24758

       (3) The dates on which drilling operations were commenced and 24759
completed;24760

       (4) The types of drilling tools used and the name of the 24761
person that drilled the well;24762

       (5) The length in feet of the various sizes of casing and 24763
tubing used in drilling the well, the amount removed after 24764
completion, the type and setting depth of each packer, all other 24765
data relating to cementing in the annular space behind such casing 24766
or tubing, and data indicating completion as a dry, gas, oil, 24767
combination oil and gas, brine injection, or artificial brine well 24768
or a stratigraphic test;24769

       (6) The number of perforations in the casing and the 24770
intervals of the perforations;24771

       (7) The elevation above mean sea level of the point from 24772
which the depth measurements were made, stating also the height of 24773
the point above ground level at the well, the total depth of the 24774
well, and the deepest geological unit that was penetrated in the 24775
drilling of the well;24776

       (8) If applicable, the type, volume, and concentration of 24777
acid, and the date on which acid was used in acidizing the well;24778

       (9)(a) If applicable, the trade name and the total amount of 24779
all products, fluids, and substances, and the supplier of each 24780
product, fluid, or substance, not including cement and its 24781
constituents and lost circulation materials, intentionally added 24782
to facilitate the drilling of any portion of the well until the 24783
surface casing is set and properly sealed. The owner shall 24784
identify each additive used and provide a brief description of the 24785
purpose for which the additive is used. In addition, the owner 24786
shall include a list of all chemicals, not including any 24787
information that is designated as a trade secret pursuant to 24788
division (I)(1) of this section, intentionally added to all 24789
products, fluids, or substances and include each chemical's 24790
corresponding chemical abstracts service number and the maximum 24791
concentration of each chemical. The owner shall obtain the 24792
chemical information, not including any information that is 24793
designated as a trade secret pursuant to division (I)(1) of this 24794
section, from the company that drilled the well, provided service 24795
at the well, or supplied the chemicals. If the company that 24796
drilled the well, provided service at the well, or supplied the 24797
chemicals provides incomplete or inaccurate chemical information, 24798
the owner shall make reasonable efforts to obtain the required 24799
information from the company or supplier.24800

       (b) For purposes of division (A)(9)(a) of this section, if 24801
recycled fluid was used, the total volume of recycled fluid and 24802
the well that is the source of the recycled fluid or the 24803
centralized facility that is the source of the recycled fluid.24804

       (10)(a) If applicable, the type and volume of fluid, not 24805
including cement and its constituents or information that is 24806
designated as a trade secret pursuant to division (I)(1) of this 24807
section, used to stimulate the reservoir of the well, the 24808
reservoir breakdown pressure, the method used for the containment 24809
of fluids recovered from the fracturing of the well, the methods 24810
used for the containment of fluids when pulled from the wellbore 24811
from swabbing the well, the average pumping rate of the well, and 24812
the name of the person that performed the well stimulation. In 24813
addition, the owner shall include a copy of the log from the 24814
stimulation of the well, a copy of the invoice for each of the 24815
procedures and methods described in division (A)(10) of this 24816
section that were used on a well, and a copy of the pumping 24817
pressure and rate graphs. However, the owner may redact from the 24818
copy of each invoice that is required to be included under 24819
division (A)(10) of this section the costs of and charges for the 24820
procedures and methods described in division (A)(10) of this 24821
section that were used on a well.24822

       (b) If applicable, the trade name and the total volume of all 24823
products, fluids, and substances, and the supplier of each 24824
product, fluid, or substance used to stimulate the well. The 24825
owner shall identify each additive used, provide a brief 24826
description of the purpose for which the additive is used, and 24827
include the maximum concentration of the additive used. In 24828
addition, the owner shall include a list of all chemicals, not 24829
including any information that is designated as a trade secret 24830
pursuant to division (I)(1) of this section, intentionally added 24831
to all products, fluids, or substances and include each chemical's 24832
corresponding chemical abstracts service number and the maximum 24833
concentration of each chemical. The owner shall obtain the 24834
chemical information, not including any information that is 24835
designated as a trade secret pursuant to division (I)(1) of this 24836
section, from the company that stimulated the well or supplied the 24837
chemicals. If the company that stimulated the well or supplied the 24838
chemicals provides incomplete or inaccurate chemical information, 24839
the owner shall make reasonable efforts to obtain the required 24840
information from the company or supplier.24841

       (c) For purposes of division (A)(10)(b) of this section, if 24842
recycled fluid was used, the total volume of recycled fluid and 24843
the well that is the source of the recycled fluid or the 24844
centralized facility that is the source of the recycled fluid.24845

       (11) The name of the company that performed the logging of 24846
the well and the types of wireline electric logs performed on the 24847
well.24848

       The well completion record shall be submitted in duplicate. 24849
The first copy shall be retained as a permanent record in the 24850
files of the division, and the second copy shall be transmitted by 24851
the chief to the division of geological survey.24852

        (B)(1) Not later than sixty days after the completion of the 24853
drilling operations to the proposed total depth, the owner shall 24854
file all wireline electric logs with the division of oil and gas 24855
resources management and the chief shall transmit such logs 24856
electronically, if available, to the division of geological 24857
survey. Such logs may be retained by the owner for a period of not 24858
more than six months, or such additional time as may be granted by 24859
the chief in writing, after the completion of the well 24860
substantially to the depth shown in the application required by 24861
section 1509.06 of the Revised Code.24862

       (2) If a well is not completed within sixty days after the 24863
completion of drilling operations, the owner shall file with the 24864
division of oil and gas resources management a supplemental well 24865
completion record that includes all of the information required 24866
under this section within sixty days after the completion of the 24867
well.24868

       (3) After a well is initially completed and stimulated and 24869
until the well is plugged, the owner shall report, on a form 24870
prescribed by the chief, all materials placed into the formation 24871
to refracture, restimulate, or newly complete the well. The owner 24872
shall submit the information within sixty days after completing 24873
the refracturing, restimulation, or new completion. In addition, 24874
the owner shall report the information required in divisions 24875
(A)(10)(a) to (c) of this section, as applicable, in a manner 24876
consistent with the requirements established in this section.24877

       (C) Upon request in writing by the chief of the division of 24878
geological survey prior to the beginning of drilling of the well, 24879
the person drilling the well shall make available a complete set 24880
of cuttings accurately identified as to depth.24881

       (D) The form of the well completion record required by this 24882
section shall be one that has been prescribed by the chief of the 24883
division of oil and gas resources management and the chief of the 24884
division of geological survey. The filing of a log as required by 24885
this section fulfills the requirement of filing a log with the 24886
chief of the division of geological survey in section 1505.04 of 24887
the Revised Code.24888

       (E) If a material listed or designated under division (A)(9) 24889
or (10) or (B)(3) of this section is a material for which the 24890
division of oil and gas resources management does not have a 24891
material safety data sheet, the owner shall provide a copy of the 24892
material safety data sheet for the material to the chief.24893

       (F) An owner shall submit to the chief the information that 24894
is required in divisions (A)(10)(b) and (c) and (B)(3) of this 24895
section consistent with the requirements established in this 24896
section using one of the following methods:24897

       (1) On a form prescribed by the chief;24898

       (2) Through the chemical disclosure registry that is 24899
maintained by the ground water protection council and the 24900
interstate oil and gas compact commission;24901

       (3) Any other means approved by the chief.24902

       (G) The chief shall post on the division's web site each 24903
material safety data sheet obtained under division (E) of this 24904
section. In addition, the chief shall make available through the 24905
division's web site the chemical information that is required by 24906
divisions (A)(9) and (10) and (B)(3) of this section.24907

       (H)(1) If a medical professional, in order to assist in the 24908
diagnosis or treatment of an individual who was affected by an 24909
incident associated with the production operations of a well, 24910
requests the exact chemical composition of each product, fluid, or 24911
substance and of each chemical component in a product, fluid, or 24912
substance that is designated as a trade secret pursuant to 24913
division (I) of this section, the person claiming the trade secret 24914
protection pursuant to that division shall provide to the medical 24915
professional the exact chemical composition of the product, fluid, 24916
or substance and of the chemical component in a product, fluid, or 24917
substance that is requested.24918

       (2) A medical professional who receives information pursuant 24919
to division (H)(1) of this section shall keep the information 24920
confidential and shall not disclose the information for any 24921
purpose that is not related to the diagnosis or treatment of an 24922
individual who was affected by an incident associated with the 24923
production operations of a well. Nothing in division (H)(2) of 24924
this section precludes a medical professional from making any 24925
report required by law or professional ethical standards.24926

       (I)(1) The owner of a well who is required to submit a well 24927
completion record under division (A) of this section or a report 24928
under division (B)(3) of this section or a person that provides 24929
information to the owner as described in and for purposes of 24930
division (A)(9) or (10) or (B)(3) of this section may designate 24931
without disclosing on a form prescribed by the chief and withhold 24932
from disclosure to the chief the identity, amount, concentration, 24933
or purpose of a product, fluid, or substance or of a chemical 24934
component in a product, fluid, or substance as a trade secret. The 24935
owner or person may pursue enforcement of any rights or remedies 24936
established in sections 1333.61 to 1333.69 of the Revised Code for 24937
misappropriation, as defined in section 1333.61 of the Revised 24938
Code, with respect to the identity, amount, concentration, or 24939
purpose of a product, fluid, or substance or a chemical component 24940
in a product, fluid, or substance designated as a trade secret 24941
pursuant to division (I)(1) of this section. The division shall 24942
not disclose information regarding the identity, amount, 24943
concentration, or purpose of any product, fluid, or substance or 24944
of any chemical component in a product, fluid, or substance 24945
designated as a trade secret pursuant to division (I)(1) of this 24946
section.24947

       (2) A property owner, an adjacent property owner, or any 24948
person or agency of this state having an interest that is or may 24949
be adversely affected by a product, fluid, or substance or by a 24950
chemical component in a product, fluid, or substance may commence 24951
a civil action in the court of common pleas of Franklin county 24952
against an owner or person described in division (I)(1) of this 24953
section challenging the owner's or person's claim to entitlement 24954
to trade secret protection for the specific identity, amount, 24955
concentration, or purpose of a product, fluid, or substance or of 24956
a chemical component in a product, fluid, or substance pursuant to 24957
division (I)(1) of this section. A person who commences a civil 24958
action pursuant to division (I)(2) of this section shall provide 24959
notice to the chief in a manner prescribed by the chief. In the 24960
civil action, the court shall conduct an in camera review of 24961
information submitted by an owner or person described in division 24962
(I)(1) of this section to determine if the identity, amount, 24963
concentration, or purpose of a product, fluid, or substance or of 24964
a chemical component in a product, fluid, or substance pursuant to 24965
division (I)(1) of this section is entitled to trade secret 24966
protection.24967

       (J)(1) Except for any information that is designated as a 24968
trade secret pursuant to division (I)(1) of this section and 24969
except as provided in division (J)(2) of this section, the owner 24970
of a well shall maintain records of all chemicals placed in a well 24971
for a period of not less than two years after the date on which 24972
each such chemical was placed in the well. The chief may inspect 24973
the records at any time concerning any such chemical.24974

       (2) An owner or person who has designated the identity, 24975
amount, concentration, or purpose of a product, fluid, or 24976
substance or of a chemical component in a product, fluid, or 24977
substance as a trade secret pursuant to division (I)(1) of this 24978
section shall maintain the records for such a product, fluid, or 24979
substance or for a chemical component in a product, fluid, or 24980
substance for a period of not less than two years after the date 24981
on which each such product, fluid, or substance or each such 24982
chemical component in a product, fluid, or substance was placed in 24983
the well. Upon the request of the chief, the owner or person, as 24984
applicable, shall disclose the records to the chief if the 24985
information is necessary to respond to a spill, release, or 24986
investigation. However, the chief shall not disclose the 24987
information that is designated as a trade secret.24988

       (K)(1) For purposes of correcting inaccuracies and 24989
incompleteness in chemical information required by divisions 24990
(A)(9) and (10) and (B)(3) of this section, an owner shall be 24991
considered in substantial compliance if the owner has made 24992
reasonable efforts to obtain the required information from the 24993
supplier.24994

       (2) For purposes of reporting under this section, an owner is 24995
not required to report chemicals that occur incidentally or in 24996
trace amounts.24997

       (L) As used in this section, the term "material safety data 24998
sheet" shall conform to any revision of or change in the term by 24999
the occupational safety and health administration in the United 25000
States department of labor.25001

       Sec. 1509.11. (A)(1) The owner of any well, includingexcept25002
a horizontal well, that is producing or capable of producing oil 25003
or gas shall file with the chief of the division of oil and gas 25004
resources management, on or before the thirty-first day of March, 25005
a statement of production of oil, gas, and brine for the last 25006
preceding calendar year in such form as the chief may prescribe. 25007
An owner that has more than one hundred such wells in this state 25008
shall submit electronically the statement of production in a 25009
format that is approved by the chief. The chief shall include on 25010
the form, at the minimum, a request for the submittal of the 25011
information that a person who is regulated under this chapter is 25012
required to submit under the "Emergency Planning and Community 25013
Right-To-Know Act of 1986," 100 Stat. 1728, 42 U.S.C.A. 11001, and 25014
regulations adopted under it, and that the division of oil and gas 25015
resources management does not obtain through other reporting 25016
mechanisms.25017

       (2) The owner of any horizontal well that is producing or 25018
capable of producing oil or gas shall file with the chief, on the 25019
forty-fifth day following the close of each calendar quarter, a 25020
statement of production of oil, gas, and brine for the preceding 25021
calendar quarter in a form that the chief prescribes. An owner 25022
that has more than one hundred horizontal wells in this state 25023
shall submit electronically the statement of production in a 25024
format that is approved by the chief. The chief shall include on 25025
the form, at a minimum, a request for the submittal of the 25026
information that a person who is regulated under this chapter is 25027
required to submit under the "Emergency Planning and Community 25028
Right-To-Know Act of 1986," 100 Stat. 1728, 42 U.S.C. 11001, and 25029
regulations adopted under it, and that the division does not 25030
obtain through other reporting mechanisms.25031

       (B) The chief shall not disclose information received from 25032
the department of taxation under division (C)(12) of section 25033
5703.21 of the Revised Code until the related statement of 25034
production required by division (A) of this section is filed with 25035
the chief.25036

       Sec. 1509.50.  (A) An oil and gas regulatory cost recovery 25037
assessment is hereby imposed by this section on an owner. An owner 25038
shall pay the assessment in the same manner as a severer who is 25039
required to file a return under section 5749.06 of the Revised 25040
Code. However, an owner may designate a severer who shall pay the 25041
owner's assessment on behalf of the owner on the return that the 25042
severer is required to file under that section. If a severer so 25043
pays an owner's assessment, the severer may recoup from the owner 25044
the amount of the assessment. Except for an exempt domestic well, 25045
the assessment imposed shall be in addition to the taxes levied on 25046
the severance of oil and gas under section 5749.02 of the Revised 25047
Code.25048

       (B)(1) Except for an exempt domestic well, the oil and gas 25049
regulatory cost recovery assessment shall be calculated on a 25050
quarterly basis and shall be one of the following:25051

       (a) If the sum of ten cents per barrel of oil for all of the 25052
wells of the owner, one-half of one cent per one thousand cubic 25053
feet of natural gas for all of the wells of the owner, and the 25054
amount of the severance tax levied on each severer for all of the 25055
wells of the owner under divisions (A)(5) and (6) of section 25056
5749.02 of the Revised Code, as applicable, is greater than the 25057
sum of fifteen dollars for each well owned by the owner, the 25058
amount of the assessment is the sum of ten cents per barrel of oil 25059
for all of the wells of the owner and one-half of one cent per one 25060
thousand cubic feet of natural gas for all of the wells of the 25061
owner.25062

       (b) If the sum of ten cents per barrel of oil for all of the 25063
wells of the owner, one-half of one cent per one thousand cubic 25064
feet of natural gas for all of the wells of the owner, and the 25065
amount of the severance tax levied on each severer for all of the 25066
wells of the owner under divisions (A)(5) and (6) of section 25067
5749.02 of the Revised Code, as applicable, is less than the sum 25068
of fifteen dollars for each well owned by the owner, the amount of 25069
the assessment is the sum of fifteen dollars for each well owned 25070
by the owner less the amount of the tax levied on each severer for 25071
all of the wells of the owner under divisions (A)(5) and (6) of 25072
section 5749.02 of the Revised Code, as applicable.25073

       (2) The oil and gas regulatory cost recovery assessment for a 25074
well that becomes an exempt domestic well on and after June 30, 25075
2010, shall be sixty dollars to be paid to the division of oil and 25076
gas resources management on the first day of July of each year.25077

       (C) All money collected pursuant to this section shall be 25078
deposited in the state treasury to the credit ofcredited to the 25079
severance tax receipts fund. After the director of budget and 25080
management transfers money from the severance tax receipts fund as 25081
required in division (H) of section 5749.06 of the Revised Code, 25082
money in the severance tax receipts fund from amounts collected 25083
pursuant to this section shall be credited to the oil and gas well 25084
fund created in section 1509.02 of the Revised Code.25085

       (D) Except for purposes of revenue distribution as specified 25086
in division (B) of section 5749.02 of the Revised Code, the oil 25087
and gas regulatory cost recovery assessment imposed by this 25088
section shall be treated the same and equivalent for all purposes 25089
as the taxes levied on the severance of oil and gas under that 25090
section. However, the assessment imposed by this section is not a 25091
tax under Chapter 5749. of the Revised Code.25092

       Sec. 1509.73. (A)(1) Beginning on the effective date of this 25093
sectionSeptember 30, 2011, and ending on the effective date of 25094
the rules adopted under section 1509.74 of the Revised Code, a 25095
state agency, in consultation with the oil and gas leasing 25096
commission, may lease a formation within a parcel of land that is 25097
owned or controlled by the state agency for the exploration for 25098
and development and production of oil or natural gas. The state 25099
agency shall establish bid fees, signing fees, rentals, and at 25100
least a one-eighth landowner royalty. On and after the effective 25101
date of the rules adopted under section 1509.74 of the Revised 25102
Code, a formation within a parcel of land that is owned or 25103
controlled by a state agency may be leased for the exploration for 25104
and development and production of oil or natural gas only in 25105
accordance with divisions (A)(2) to (H) of this section and those 25106
rules.25107

       (2) Not earlier than two hundred seventy days after the 25108
effective date of this sectionSeptember 30, 2011, a person that 25109
is an owner and that is interested in leasing a formation within a 25110
parcel of land that is owned or controlled by a state agency for 25111
the exploration for and the development and production of oil or 25112
natural gas may submit to the oil and gas leasing commission a 25113
nomination that identifies the parcel of land. A person submitting 25114
a nomination shall submit it in the manner and form established in 25115
rules adopted under section 1509.74 of the Revised Code and shall 25116
include with the nomination both of the following:25117

       (a) The information required by those rules;25118

       (b) The nomination fee established in those rules.25119

       (B)(1) Not less than thirty days, but not more than one 25120
hundred twenty days following the receipt of a nomination of a 25121
parcel of land, the commission shall conduct a meeting for the 25122
purpose of determining whether to approve or disapprove the 25123
nomination for the purpose of leasing a formation within the 25124
parcel of land that is identified in the nomination. The 25125
commission also shall review the nomination of the parcel of land 25126
and determine if the parcel of land has been classified under 25127
section 1509.72 of the Revised Code. If the parcel of land that is 25128
the subject of the nomination has not been classified, the 25129
commission immediately shall send a copy of the nomination to the 25130
state agency that owns or controls the parcel that is the subject 25131
of the nomination. Not later than fifteen days after receipt of a 25132
copy of the nomination, the state agency shall classify the parcel 25133
of land as a class 1, class 2, class 3, or class 4 property and 25134
submit the classification to the commission. On receipt of the 25135
state agency's classification of the parcel of land, the 25136
commission shall provide the department of natural resources the 25137
information necessary for the department to comply with divisions 25138
(C) and (D) of section 1509.72 of the Revised Code.25139

       After a parcel of land that is the subject of a nomination 25140
has been classified under section 1509.72 of the Revised Code or 25141
division (B)(1) of this section, as applicable, the commission 25142
shall approve or disapprove the nomination. In making its decision 25143
to approve or disapprove the nomination of the parcel of land, the 25144
commission shall consider all of the following:25145

       (a) The economic benefits, including the potential income 25146
from an oil or natural gas operation, that would result if the 25147
lease of a formation that is the subject of the nomination were 25148
approved;25149

       (b) Whether the proposed oil or gas operation is compatible 25150
with the current uses of the parcel of land that is the subject of 25151
the nomination;25152

       (c) The environmental impact that would result if the lease 25153
of a formation that is the subject of the nomination were 25154
approved;25155

       (d) Any potential adverse geological impact that would result 25156
if the lease of a formation that is the subject of the nomination 25157
were approved;25158

       (e) Any potential impact to visitors or users of a parcel of 25159
land that is the subject of the nomination;25160

       (f) Any potential impact to the operations or equipment of a 25161
state agency that is a state university or college if the lease of 25162
a formation within a parcel of land owned or controlled by the 25163
university or college that is the subject of the nomination were 25164
executed;25165

        (g) Any objections to the nomination submitted to the 25166
commission by the state agency that owns or controls the land on 25167
which the proposed oil or natural gas operation would take place;25168

       (h) Any comments or objections to the nomination submitted to 25169
the commission by residents of this state or other users of the 25170
parcel of land that is the subject of the nomination;25171

        (i) Any other factors that the commission establishes in 25172
rules adopted under section 1509.74 of the Revised Code.25173

       (2) The commission shall disapprove a nomination of a parcel 25174
of land that is a class 3 property. The commission shall send 25175
notice of the disapproval by certified mail to the person that 25176
submitted the nomination.25177

       (3) Prior to making its decision to approve or disapprove a 25178
nomination, the commission shall notify the state agency that owns 25179
or controls the land on which the oil or gas operation would take 25180
place.25181

       (4) The commission shall approve or disapprove a nomination 25182
not later than two calendar quarters following the receipt of the 25183
nomination. Notice of the decision of the commission shall be sent 25184
by certified mail to the person that submitted the nomination. 25185

       (5) If the commission approves a nomination, the commission 25186
shall notify the state agency that owns or controls the parcel of 25187
land that is the subject of a nomination of the commission's 25188
approval of the nomination. The notification shall request the 25189
state agency to submit to the commission special terms and 25190
conditions that will apply to the lease of a formation within the 25191
parcel of land because of specific conditions related to the 25192
parcel of land. The state agency shall submit the special terms 25193
and conditions not later than sixty days after receipt of a notice 25194
from the commission.25195

       (6) If the commission approves a nomination for a parcel of 25196
land that is a class 1 property, the commission shall offer for 25197
lease each formation that is within the parcel of land. If the 25198
commission approves a nomination for a parcel of land that is a 25199
class 2 or class 4 property, the commission shall not offer for 25200
lease any formation that is within the parcel of land unless the 25201
state agency that owns or controls the parcel of land notifies the 25202
commission that a formation or formations that are within the 25203
parcel of land may be offered for lease.25204

       (C) Each calendar quarter, the commission shall proceed to 25205
advertise for bids for a lease for a formation within a parcel of 25206
land that was the subject of a nomination approved during the 25207
previous calendar quarter that is a class 1 property or that is a 25208
class 2 or class 4 property for which the commission has received 25209
notice from the state agency that owns or controls the parcel of 25210
land under division (B)(6) of this section that a formation or 25211
formations that are within the parcel of land may be offered for 25212
lease. The advertisement shall be provided to the department of 25213
natural resources, and the department shall publish the 25214
advertisement on its web site for a period of time established by 25215
the commission. The advertisement shall include all of the 25216
following:25217

       (1) The procedure for the submission of a bid to enter into a 25218
lease for a formation within a parcel of land;25219

       (2) A statement that a standard lease form that is consistent 25220
with the practices of the oil and natural gas industries will be 25221
used for the lease of a formation within the parcel of land;25222

       (3) A copy of the standard lease form that will be used for 25223
the lease of a formation within the parcel of land;25224

       (4) Special terms and conditions, if applicable, that apply 25225
to the lease because of specific conditions related to the parcel 25226
of land;25227

       (5) The amount of the bid fee that is required to be 25228
submitted with a bid;25229

       (6) Any other information that the commission considers 25230
pertinent to the advertisement for bids.25231

       (D) A person submitting a bid to enter into a lease under 25232
this section shall pay a bid fee established in rules adopted 25233
under section 1509.74 of the Revised Code.25234

       (E) In order to encourage the submission of bids and the 25235
responsible and reasonable development of the state's natural 25236
resources, the information that is contained in a bid submitted to 25237
the commission under this section shall be confidential and shall 25238
not be disclosed before a person is selected under division (F) of 25239
this section unless the commission determines otherwise.25240

       (F) The commission shall establish a deadline for the 25241
submission of bids for each lease regarding a particular parcel of 25242
land and shall notify the department of the deadline. The 25243
department shall post the deadline for the submission of bids for 25244
each lease on the department's web site. A person shall submit a 25245
bid in accordance with the procedures and requirements established 25246
by the commission in rules adopted under section 1509.74 of the 25247
Revised Code.25248

       The commission shall select the person who submits the 25249
highest and best bid for each formation within that parcel of 25250
land, taking into account the financial responsibility of the 25251
prospective lessee and the ability of the prospective lessee to 25252
perform its obligations under the lease. After the commission 25253
selects a person, the commission shall notify the applicable state 25254
agency and send the person's bid to the agency. The state agency 25255
shall enter into a lease with the person selected by the 25256
commission.25257

       (G)(1) Except as otherwise provided in divisiondivisions25258
(G)(2) and (3) of this section, all money received by a state 25259
agency from signing fees, rentals, and royalty payments for leases 25260
entered into under this section shall be paid by the state agency 25261
into the state treasury to the credit of the state land royalty 25262
fund created in section 131.50 of the Revised Code.25263

       (2) Money received by a state agency from signing fees, 25264
rentals, and royalty payments for leases entered into under this 25265
section on land owned or controlled by the division of forestry,25266
or wildlife, or parks and recreation in the department of natural 25267
resources shall be deposited into one of the following funds, as 25268
applicable:25269

       (a) The forestry mineral royalties fund created in section 25270
1503.012 of the Revised Code if the lease pertains to land owned 25271
or controlled by the division of forestry;25272

       (b) The wildlife habitat fund created in section 1531.33 of 25273
the Revised Code if the lease pertains to land owned or controlled 25274
by the division of wildlife;25275

       (c) The parks mineral royalties fund created in section 25276
1541.26 of the Revised Code if the lease pertains to land owned or 25277
controlled by the division of parks and recreation.25278

       (3) Money received by a state agency from signing fees, 25279
rentals, and royalty payments for leases entered into under this 25280
section on land owned or controlled by the division of parks and 25281
recreation in the department of natural resources shall be 25282
deposited in the state treasury and credited as follows:25283

       (a) Fifty per cent of the money shall be credited to the 25284
parks mineral royalties fund created in section 1541.26 of the 25285
Revised Code.25286

       (b) Fifty per cent of the money shall be credited to the 25287
clean Ohio distribution fund created in section 151.50 of the 25288
Revised Code.25289

       (H) All money received from nomination fees and bid fees 25290
shall be paid into the state treasury to the credit of the oil and 25291
gas leasing commission administration fund created in section 25292
1509.75 of the Revised Code.25293

       (I) Notwithstanding any other provision of this section to 25294
the contrary, a nature preserve as defined in section 1517.01 of 25295
the Revised Code that is owned or controlled by a state agency 25296
shall not be nominated or leased under this section for the 25297
purpose of exploring for and developing and producing oil and 25298
natural gas resources.25299

       Sec. 1511.02.  The chief of the division of soil and water 25300
resources, subject to the approval of the director of natural 25301
resources, shall do all of the following:25302

       (A) Provide administrative leadership to local soil and water 25303
conservation districts in planning, budgeting, staffing, and 25304
administering district programs and the training of district 25305
supervisors and personnel in their duties, responsibilities, and 25306
authorities as prescribed in this chapter and Chapter 1515. of the 25307
Revised Code;25308

       (B) Administer this chapter and Chapter 1515. of the Revised 25309
Code pertaining to state responsibilities and provide staff 25310
assistance to the Ohio soil and water conservation commission in 25311
exercising its statutory responsibilities;25312

       (C) Assist in expediting state responsibilities for watershed 25313
development and other natural resource conservation works of 25314
improvement;25315

       (D) Coordinate the development and implementation of 25316
cooperative programs and working agreements between local soil and 25317
water conservation districts and divisions or sections of the 25318
department of natural resources, or other agencies of local, 25319
state, and federal government;25320

       (E) Subject to the approval of the Ohio soil and water 25321
conservation commission, adopt, amend, or rescind rules pursuant 25322
to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. Rules adopted pursuant to 25323
this section:25324

       (1) Shall establish technically feasible and economically 25325
reasonable standards to achieve a level of management and 25326
conservation practices in farming or silvicultural operations that 25327
will abate wind or water erosion of the soil or abate the 25328
degradation of the waters of the state by animal waste or by soil 25329
sediment including substances attached thereto, and establish 25330
criteria for determination of the acceptability of such management 25331
and conservation practices;25332

       (2) Shall establish technically feasible and economically 25333
reasonable standards to achieve a level of management and 25334
conservation practices that will abate wind or water erosion of 25335
the soil or abate the degradation of the waters of the state by 25336
soil sediment in conjunction with land grading, excavating, 25337
filling, or other soil-disturbing activities on land used or being 25338
developed for nonfarm commercial, industrial, residential, or 25339
other nonfarm purposes, and establish criteria for determination 25340
of the acceptability of such management and conservation 25341
practices. The standards shall be designed to implement applicable 25342
areawide waste treatment management plans prepared under section 25343
208 of the "Federal Water Pollution Control Act," 86 Stat. 816 25344
(1972), 33 U.S.C.A. 1288, as amended. The standards and criteria 25345
shall not apply in any municipal corporation or county that adopts 25346
ordinances or rules pertaining to sediment control, nor to lands 25347
being used in a strip mine operation as defined in section 1513.01 25348
of the Revised Code, nor to lands being used in a surface mining 25349
operation as defined in section 1514.01 of the Revised Code.25350

       (3) May recommend criteria and procedures for the approval of 25351
urban sediment pollution abatement plans and issuance of permits 25352
prior to any grading, excavating, filling, or other whole or 25353
partial disturbance of five or more contiguous acres of land owned 25354
by one person or operated as one development unit and require 25355
implementation of such a plan. Areas of less than five contiguous 25356
acres are not exempt from compliance with other provisions of this 25357
chapter and rules adopted under them.25358

       (4) Shall establish procedures for administration of rules 25359
for agricultural pollution abatement and urban sediment pollution 25360
abatement and for enforcement of rules for agricultural pollution 25361
abatement;25362

       (5) Shall specify the pollution abatement practices eligible 25363
for state cost sharing and determine the conditions for 25364
eligibility, the construction standards and specifications, the 25365
useful life, the maintenance requirements, and the limits of cost 25366
sharing for those practices. Eligible practices shall be limited 25367
to practices that address agricultural or silvicultural operations 25368
and that require expenditures that are likely to exceed the 25369
economic returns to the owner or operator and that abate soil 25370
erosion or degradation of the waters of the state by animal waste 25371
or soil sediment including pollutants attached thereto.25372

       (6) Shall establish procedures for administering grants to 25373
owners or operators of agricultural land or concentrated animal 25374
feeding operations for the implementation of operation and 25375
management plans;25376

       (7) Shall establish procedures for administering grants to 25377
soil and water conservation districts for urban sediment pollution 25378
abatement programs, specify the types of projects eligible for 25379
grants, establish limits on the availability of grants, and 25380
establish requirements governing the execution of projects to 25381
encourage the reduction of erosion and sedimentation associated 25382
with soil-disturbing activities;25383

       (8) Shall do all of the following with regard to composting 25384
conducted in conjunction with agricultural operations:25385

       (a) Provide for the distribution of educational material 25386
concerning composting to the offices of the Ohio cooperativeOSU25387
extension service for the purposes of section 1511.022 of the 25388
Revised Code;25389

       (b) Establish methods, techniques, or practices for 25390
composting dead animals, or particular types of dead animals, that 25391
are to be used at such operations, as the chief considers to be 25392
necessary or appropriate;25393

       (c) Establish requirements and procedures governing the 25394
review and approval or disapproval of composting plans by the 25395
supervisors of soil and water conservation districts under 25396
division (Q) of section 1515.08 of the Revised Code.25397

       (9) Shall be adopted, amended, or rescinded after the chief 25398
does all of the following:25399

       (a) Mails notice to each statewide organization that the 25400
chief determines represents persons or local governmental agencies 25401
who would be affected by the proposed rule, amendment thereto, or 25402
rescission thereof at least thirty-five days before any public 25403
hearing thereon;25404

       (b) Mails a copy of each proposed rule, amendment thereto, or 25405
rescission thereof to any person who requests a copy, within five 25406
days after receipt of the request;25407

       (c) Consults with appropriate state and local governmental 25408
agencies or their representatives, including statewide 25409
organizations of local governmental officials, industrial 25410
representatives, and other interested persons;25411

       (d) If the rule relates to agricultural pollution abatement, 25412
develops an economic impact statement concerning the effect of the 25413
proposed rule or amendment.25414

       (10) Shall not conflict with air or water quality standards 25415
adopted pursuant to section 3704.03 or 6111.041 of the Revised 25416
Code. Compliance with rules adopted pursuant to this section does 25417
not affect liability for noncompliance with air or water quality 25418
standards adopted pursuant to section 3704.03 or 6111.041 of the 25419
Revised Code. The application of a level of management and 25420
conservation practices recommended under this section to control 25421
windblown soil from farming operations creates a presumption of 25422
compliance with section 3704.03 of the Revised Code as that 25423
section applies to windblown soil.25424

       (11) Insofar as the rules relate to urban sediment pollution, 25425
shall not be applicable in a municipal corporation or county that 25426
adopts ordinances or rules for urban sediment control, except that 25427
a municipal corporation or county that adopts such ordinances or 25428
rules may receive moneys for urban sediment control that are 25429
disbursed by the board of supervisors of the applicable soil and 25430
water conservation district under division (N) of section 1515.08 25431
of the Revised Code. The rules shall not exempt any person from 25432
compliance with municipal ordinances enacted pursuant to Section 3 25433
of Article XVIII, Ohio Constitution.25434

       (F) Cost share with landowners on practices established 25435
pursuant to division (E)(5) of this section as moneys are 25436
appropriated and available for that purpose. Any practice for 25437
which cost share is provided shall be maintained for its useful 25438
life. Failure to maintain a cost share practice for its useful 25439
life shall subject the landowner to full repayment to the 25440
division.25441

       (G) Issue orders requiring compliance with any rule adopted 25442
under division (E)(1) of this section or with section 1511.022 of 25443
the Revised Code. Before the chief issues an order, the chief 25444
shall afford each person allegedly liable an adjudication hearing 25445
under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. The chief may require in 25446
an order that a person who has caused agricultural pollution by 25447
failure to comply with the standards established under division 25448
(E)(1) of this section operate under an operation and management 25449
plan approved by the chief under this section. The chief shall 25450
require in an order that a person who has failed to comply with 25451
division (A) of section 1511.022 of the Revised Code prepare a 25452
composting plan in accordance with rules adopted under division 25453
(E)(10)(c) of this section and operate in accordance with that 25454
plan or that a person who has failed to operate in accordance with 25455
such a plan begin to operate in accordance with it. Each order 25456
shall be issued in writing and contain a finding by the chief of 25457
the facts upon which the order is based and the standard that is 25458
not being met.25459

       (H) Employ field assistants and such other employees as are 25460
necessary for the performance of the work prescribed by Chapter 25461
1515. of the Revised Code, for performance of work of the 25462
division, and as agreed to under working agreements or contractual 25463
arrangements with local soil and water conservation districts, 25464
prescribe their duties, and fix their compensation in accordance 25465
with such schedules as are provided by law for the compensation of 25466
state employees.25467

       All employees of the division, unless specifically exempted 25468
by law, shall be employed subject to the classified civil service 25469
laws in force at the time of employment.25470

       (I) In connection with new or relocated projects involving 25471
highways, underground cables, pipelines, railroads, and other 25472
improvements affecting soil and water resources, including surface 25473
and subsurface drainage:25474

       (1) Provide engineering service as is mutually agreeable to 25475
the Ohio soil and water conservation commission and the director 25476
to aid in the design and installation of soil and water 25477
conservation practices as a necessary component of such projects;25478

       (2) Maintain close liaison between the owners of lands on 25479
which the projects are executed, local soil and water conservation 25480
districts, and authorities responsible for such projects;25481

       (3) Review plans for such projects to ensure their compliance 25482
with standards developed under division (E) of this section in 25483
cooperation with the department of transportation or with any 25484
other interested agency that is engaged in soil or water 25485
conservation projects in the state in order to minimize adverse 25486
impacts on soil and water resources adjacent to or otherwise 25487
affected by these projects;25488

       (4) Recommend measures to retard erosion and protect soil and 25489
water resources through the installation of water impoundment or 25490
other soil and water conservation practices;25491

       (5) Cooperate with other agencies and subdivisions of the 25492
state to protect the agricultural status of rural lands adjacent 25493
to such projects and control adverse impacts on soil and water 25494
resources.25495

       (J) Collect, analyze, inventory, and interpret all available 25496
information pertaining to the origin, distribution, extent, use, 25497
and conservation of the soil resources of the state;25498

       (K) Prepare and maintain up-to-date reports, maps, and other 25499
materials pertaining to the soil resources of the state and their 25500
use and make that information available to governmental agencies, 25501
public officials, conservation entities, and the public;25502

       (L) Provide soil and water conservation districts with 25503
technical assistance including on-site soil investigations and 25504
soil interpretation reports on the suitability or limitations of 25505
soil to support a particular use or to plan soil conservation 25506
measures. The assistance shall be upon such terms as are mutually 25507
agreeable to the districts and the department of natural 25508
resources.25509

       (M) Assist local government officials in utilizing land use 25510
planning and zoning, current agricultural use value assessment, 25511
development reviews, and land management activities;25512

       (N) When necessary for the purposes of this chapter or 25513
Chapter 1515. of the Revised Code, develop or approve operation 25514
and management plans.25515

       This section does not restrict the excrement of domestic or 25516
farm animals defecated on land outside a concentrated animal 25517
feeding operation or runoff therefrom into the waters of the 25518
state.25519

       Sec. 1511.022.  (A) Any person who owns or operates an 25520
agricultural operation, or owns the animals raised by the owner or 25521
operator of an agricultural operation, and who wishes to conduct 25522
composting of dead animals resulting from the agricultural 25523
operation shall do both of the following:25524

       (1) Participate in an educational course concerning 25525
composting conducted by the Ohio cooperativeOSU extension service25526
and obtain a certificate of completion for the course;25527

       (2) Use the appropriate method, technique, or practice of 25528
composting established in rules adopted under division (E)(8) of 25529
section 1511.02 of the Revised Code.25530

       (B) Any person who fails to comply with division (A) of this 25531
section shall prepare and operate under a composting plan in 25532
accordance with an order issued by the chief of the division of 25533
soil and water resources under division (G) of section 1511.02 of 25534
the Revised Code. If the person's proposed composting plan is 25535
disapproved by the board of supervisors of the appropriate soil 25536
and water conservation district under division (Q)(3) of section 25537
1515.08 of the Revised Code, the person may appeal the plan 25538
disapproval to the chief, who shall afford the person a hearing. 25539
Following the hearing, the chief shall uphold the plan disapproval 25540
or reverse it. If the chief reverses the disapproval, the plan 25541
shall be deemed approved.25542

       Sec. 1519.05. (A) As used in this section, "local political 25543
subdivision" and "nonprofit organization" have the same meanings 25544
as in section 164.20 of the Revised Code.25545

       (B) There is hereby created in the state treasury the clean 25546
Ohio trail fund. Twelve and one-half per cent of the net proceeds 25547
of obligations issued and sold pursuant to sections 151.01 and 25548
151.09 of the Revised Code shall be deposited into the fund. The 25549
fund also shall consist of money credited to it under section 25550
151.50 of the Revised Code.25551

       Investment earnings of the fund shall be credited to the fund 25552
and may be used to pay costs incurred by the director of natural 25553
resources in administering this section.25554

       Money in the clean Ohio trail fund shall not be used for the 25555
appropriation of land, rights, rights-of-way, franchises, 25556
easements, or other property through the exercise of the right of 25557
eminent domain.25558

       The director shall use moneys in the fund exclusively to 25559
provide matching grants to nonprofit organizations and to local 25560
political subdivisions for the purposes of purchasing land or 25561
interests in land for recreational trails and for the construction 25562
of such trails. A matching grant may provide up to seventy-five 25563
per cent of the cost of a recreational trail project, and the 25564
recipient of the matching grant shall provide not less than 25565
twenty-five per cent of that cost.25566

       (C) The director shall establish policies for the purposes of 25567
this section. The policies shall establish all of the following:25568

       (1) Procedures for providing matching grants to nonprofit 25569
organizations and local political subdivisions for the purposes of 25570
purchasing land or interests in land for recreational trails and 25571
for the construction of such trails, including, without 25572
limitation, procedures for both of the following:25573

       (a) Developing a grant application form and soliciting, 25574
accepting, and approving grant applications;25575

       (b) Participation by nonprofit organizations and local 25576
political subdivisions in the application process.25577

       (2) A requirement that an application for a matching grant 25578
for a recreational trail project include a copy of a resolution 25579
supporting the project from each county in which the proposed 25580
project is to be conducted and whichever of the following is 25581
applicable:25582

       (a) If the proposed project is to be conducted wholly within 25583
the geographical boundaries of one township, a copy of a 25584
resolution supporting the project from the township;25585

       (b) If the proposed project is to be conducted wholly within 25586
the geographical boundaries of one municipal corporation, a copy 25587
of a resolution supporting the project from the municipal 25588
corporation;25589

       (c) If the proposed project is to be conducted in more than 25590
one, but fewer than five townships or municipal corporations, a 25591
copy of a resolution supporting the project from at least one-half 25592
of the total number of townships and municipal corporations in 25593
which the proposed project is to be conducted;25594

       (d) If the proposed project is to be conducted in five or 25595
more municipal corporations, a copy of a resolution supporting the 25596
project from at least three-fifths of the total number of 25597
townships and municipal corporations in which the proposed project 25598
is to be conducted.25599

       (3) Eligibility criteria that must be satisfied by an 25600
applicant in order to receive a matching grant and that emphasize 25601
the following:25602

       (a) Synchronization with the statewide trail plan;25603

       (b) Complete regional systems and links to the statewide 25604
trail system;25605

       (c) A combination of funds from various state agencies;25606

       (d) The provision of links in urban areas that support 25607
commuter access and show economic impact on local communities;25608

       (e) The linkage of population centers with public outdoor 25609
recreation areas and facilities;25610

       (f) The purchase of rail lines that are linked to the 25611
statewide trail plan;25612

       (g) The preservation of natural corridors.25613

       (4) Items of value, such as in-kind contributions of land, 25614
easements or other interests in land, labor, or materials, that 25615
may be considered as contributing toward the percentage of the 25616
cost of a recreational trails project that must be provided by a 25617
matching grant recipient.25618

       Sec. 1531.06.  (A) The chief of the division of wildlife, 25619
with the approval of the director of natural resources, may 25620
acquire by gift, lease, purchase, or otherwise lands or surface 25621
rights upon lands and waters or surface rights upon waters for 25622
wild animals, fish or game management, preservation, propagation, 25623
and protection, outdoor and nature activities, public fishing and 25624
hunting grounds, and flora and fauna preservation. The chief, with 25625
the approval of the director, may receive by grant, devise, 25626
bequest, donation, or assignment evidences of indebtedness, the 25627
proceeds of which are to be used for the purchase of such lands or 25628
surface rights upon lands and waters or surface rights upon 25629
waters.25630

       (B)(1) The chief shall adopt rules for the protection of 25631
state-owned or leased lands and waters and property under the 25632
control of the division of wildlife against wrongful use or 25633
occupancy that will ensure the carrying out of the intent of this 25634
section, protect those lands, waters, and property from 25635
depredations, and preserve them from molestation, spoilation, 25636
destruction, or any improper use or occupancy thereof, including 25637
rules with respect to recreational activities and for the 25638
government and use of such lands, waters, and property.25639

       (2) The chief may adopt rules benefiting wild animals, fish 25640
or game management, preservation, propagation, and protection, 25641
outdoor and nature activities, public fishing and hunting grounds, 25642
and flora and fauna preservation, and regulating the taking and 25643
possession of wild animals on any lands or waters owned or leased 25644
or under the division's supervision and control and, for a 25645
specified period of years, may prohibit or recall the taking and 25646
possession of any wild animal on any portion of such lands or 25647
waters. The division clearly shall define and mark the boundaries 25648
of the lands and waters owned or leased or under its supervision 25649
and control upon which the taking of any wild animal is 25650
prohibited.25651

       (C) The chief, with the approval of the director, may acquire 25652
by gift, lease, or purchase land for the purpose of establishing 25653
state fish hatcheries and game farms and may erect on it buildings 25654
or structures that are necessary.25655

       The title to or lease of such lands and waters shall be taken 25656
by the chief in the name of the state. The lease or purchase price 25657
of all such lands and waters may be paid from hunting and trapping 25658
and fishing licenses and any other funds.25659

       (D) To provide more public recreation, stream and lake 25660
agreements for public fishing only may be obtained under rules 25661
adopted by the chief.25662

       (E) The chief, with the approval of the director, may 25663
establish user fees for the use of special public facilities or 25664
participation in special activities on lands and waters 25665
administered by the division. The special facilities and 25666
activities may include hunting or fishing on special designated 25667
public lands and waters intensively managed or stocked with 25668
artificially propagated game birds or fish, field trial 25669
facilities, wildlife nature centers, firearm ranges, boat mooring 25670
facilities, camping sites, and other similar special facilities 25671
and activities. The chief shall determine whether the user fees 25672
are refundable and shall ensure that that information is provided 25673
at the time the user fees are paid.25674

       (F) The chief, with the approval of the director, may enter 25675
into lease agreements for rental of concessions or other special 25676
projects situated on state-owned or leased lands or waters or 25677
other property under the division's control. The chief shall set 25678
and collect the fees for concession rentals or other special 25679
projects; regulate through contracts between the division and 25680
concessionaires the sale of tangible objects at concessions or 25681
other special projects; and keep a record of all such fee payments 25682
showing the amount received, from whom received, and for what 25683
purpose the fee was collected.25684

       (G) The chief may sell or donate conservation-related items 25685
or items that promote wildlife conservation, including, but not 25686
limited to, stamps, pins, badges, books, bulletins, maps, 25687
publications, calendars, and any other educational article or 25688
artifact pertaining to wild animals; sell confiscated or forfeited 25689
items; and sell surplus structures and equipment, and timber or 25690
crops from lands owned, administered, leased, or controlled by the 25691
division. The chief, with the approval of the director, also may 25692
engage in campaigns and special events that promote wildlife 25693
conservation by selling or donating wildlife-related materials, 25694
memberships, and other items of promotional value.25695

       (H) The chief may sell, lease, or transfer minerals or 25696
mineral rights, with the approval of the director, when the chief 25697
and the director determine it to be in the best interest of the 25698
state. Upon approval of the director, the chief may make, execute, 25699
and deliver contracts, including leases, to mine, drill, or 25700
excavate iron ore, stone, coal, salt, and other minerals, other 25701
than oil or gas, upon and under lands owned by the state and 25702
administered by the division to any person who complies with the 25703
terms of such a contract. No such contract shall be valid for more 25704
than fifty years from its effective date. Consideration for 25705
minerals and mineral rights shall be by rental or royalty basis as 25706
prescribed by the chief and payable as prescribed by contract. 25707
Moneys collected under this division shall be paid into the state 25708
treasury to the credit of the wildlife habitat fund created in 25709
section 1531.33 of the Revised Code. Contracts entered into under 25710
this division also may provide for consideration for minerals or 25711
mineral rights in the form of acquisition of lands as provided 25712
under divisions (A) and (C) of this section.25713

       (I) All moneys received under divisions (E), (F), and (G) of 25714
this section shall be paid into the state treasury to the credit 25715
of a fund that shall be used for the purposes outlined in section 25716
1533.15 of the Revised Code and for the management of other wild 25717
animals for their ecological and nonconsumptive recreational value 25718
or benefit.25719

       (J) The chief, with the approval of the director, may barter 25720
or sell wild animals to other states, state or federal agencies, 25721
and conservation or zoological organizations. Moneys received from 25722
the sale of wild animals shall be deposited into the wild animal25723
wildlife fund created in section 1531.341531.17 of the Revised 25724
Code.25725

       (K) The chief shall adopt rules establishing standards and 25726
guidelines for the administration of contraceptive chemicals to 25727
noncaptive wild animals. The rules may specify chemical delivery 25728
methods and devices and monitoring requirements.25729

       The chief shall establish criteria for the issuance of and 25730
shall issue permits for the administration of contraceptive 25731
chemicals to noncaptive wild animals. No person shall administer 25732
contraceptive chemicals to noncaptive wild animals without a 25733
permit issued by the chief.25734

       (L) All fees set by the chief under this section shall be 25735
approved by the wildlife council.25736

       (M) Information contained in the wildlife diversity database 25737
that is established pursuant to division (B)(2) of this section 25738
and section 1531.25 of the Revised Code may be made available to 25739
any individual or public or private agency for research, 25740
educational, environmental, land management, or other similar 25741
purposes that are not detrimental to the conservation of a species 25742
or feature. Information regarding sensitive site locations of 25743
species that are listed pursuant to section 1531.25 of the Revised 25744
Code and of features that are included in the wildlife diversity 25745
database is not subject to section 149.43 of the Revised Code if 25746
the chief determines that the release of the information could be 25747
detrimental to the conservation of a species or feature.25748

       Sec. 1531.17.  All fines, penalties, and forfeitures arising 25749
from prosecutions, convictions, confiscations, or otherwise under 25750
this chapter and Chapters 1517. and 1533. of the Revised Code, 25751
unless otherwise directed by the director of natural resources, 25752
shall be paid by the officer by whom collected to the director and 25753
by himthe director paid into the state treasury to the credit of 25754
the wildlife fund, which is hereby created, for the use of the 25755
division of wildlife. All moneys received from the sale of wild 25756
animals under division (J) of section 1531.06 shall be paid into 25757
the state treasury to the credit of the wildlife fund for the use 25758
of the division. All moneys collected as license fees on nets in 25759
the Lake Erie fishing district shall be paid by the director into 25760
the state treasury to the credit of the wildlife fund for use only 25761
in the betterment and the propagation of fish therein or in 25762
otherwise propagating fish in such district. All investment 25763
earnings of the fund shall be credited to the fund. The wildlife 25764
fund shall not be used for compensation of personnel employed by 25765
other divisions of the department of natural resources who are 25766
assigned to law enforcement duties in aid of the division of 25767
wildlife or for compensation of division of wildlife personnel for 25768
activities related to the instruction of personnel of other 25769
divisions.25770

       Sec. 1545.071. The following applies until the department of 25771
administrative services implements for park districts the health 25772
care plans under section 9.901 of the Revised Code. If those plans 25773
do not include or address any benefits listed in this section, the 25774
following provisions continue in effect for those benefits.25775

       The board of park commissioners of any park district may 25776
procure and pay all or any part of the cost of group insurance 25777
policies that may provide benefits for hospitalization, surgical 25778
care, major medical care, disability, dental care, eye care, 25779
medical care, hearing aids, or prescription drugs, or sickness and 25780
accident insurance or a combination of any of the foregoing types 25781
of insurance or coverage for park district officers and employees 25782
and their immediate dependents issued by an insurance company duly 25783
authorized to do business in this state.25784

       The board may procure and pay all or any part of the cost of 25785
group life insurance to insure the lives of park district 25786
employees.25787

       The board also may contract for group health care services 25788
with health insuring corporations holding a certificate of 25789
authority under Chapter 1751. of the Revised Code provided that 25790
each officer or employee is permitted to:25791

       (A) Choose between a plan offered by an insurance company and 25792
a plan offered by a health insuring corporation and provided 25793
further that the officer or employee pays any amount by which the 25794
cost of the plan chosen by the officer or employee exceeds the 25795
cost of the plan offered by the board under this section;25796

       (B) Change the choice made under division (A) of this section 25797
at a time each year as determined in advance by the board.25798

       Any appointed member of the board of park commissioners and 25799
the spouse and dependent children of the member may be covered, at 25800
the option and expense of the member, as a noncompensated employee 25801
of the park district under any benefit plan described in division 25802
(A) of this section. The member shall pay to the park district the 25803
amount certified to it by the benefit provider as the provider's 25804
charge for the coverage the member has chosen under division (A) 25805
of this section. Payments for coverage shall be made, in advance, 25806
in a manner prescribed by the board. The member's exercise of an 25807
option to be covered under this section shall be in writing, 25808
announced at a regular public meeting of the board, and recorded 25809
as a public record in the minutes of the board.25810

       The board may provide the benefits authorized in this section 25811
by contributing to a health and welfare trust fund administered 25812
through or in conjunction with a collective bargaining 25813
representative of the park district employees.25814

       The board may provide the benefits described in this section 25815
through an individual self-insurance program or a joint 25816
self-insurance program as provided in section 9.833 of the Revised 25817
Code.25818

       Sec. 1545.23.  If a park district enters into an agreement 25819
for the sale or lease of mineral rights regarding a park within 25820
the district, any royalties or other moneys resulting from the 25821
sale or lease shall be deposited into a special fund that the 25822
board of park commissioners shall create. The fund shall be used 25823
exclusively for maintenance of parks within the district and for 25824
the acquisition of new park lands.25825

       Sec. 1547.99.  (A) Whoever violates section 1547.91 of the 25826
Revised Code is guilty of a felony of the fourth degree.25827

       (B) Whoever violates division (F) of section 1547.08, section 25828
1547.10, division (I) of section 1547.111, section 1547.13, or 25829
section 1547.66 of the Revised Code is guilty of a misdemeanor of 25830
the first degree.25831

       (C) Whoever violates a provision of this chapter or a rule 25832
adopted thereunder, for which no penalty is otherwise provided, is 25833
guilty of a minor misdemeanor.25834

       (D) Whoever violates section 1547.07, 1547.132, or 1547.12 of 25835
the Revised Code without causing injury to persons or damage to 25836
property is guilty of a misdemeanor of the fourth degree.25837

       (E) Whoever violates section 1547.07, 1547.132, or 1547.12 of 25838
the Revised Code causing injury to persons or damage to property 25839
is guilty of a misdemeanor of the third degree.25840

       (F) Whoever violates division (N) of section 1547.54, 25841
division (G) of section 1547.30, or section 1547.131, 1547.25, 25842
1547.33, 1547.38, 1547.39, 1547.40, 1547.65, 1547.69, or 1547.92 25843
of the Revised Code or a rule adopted under division (A)(2) of 25844
section 1547.52 of the Revised Code is guilty of a misdemeanor of 25845
the fourth degree.25846

       (G) Whoever violates section 1547.11 of the Revised Code is 25847
guilty of a misdemeanor of the first degree and shall be punished 25848
as provided in division (G)(1), (2), or (3) of this section.25849

       (1) Except as otherwise provided in division (G)(2) or (3) of 25850
this section, the court shall sentence the offender to a jail term 25851
of three consecutive days and may sentence the offender pursuant 25852
to section 2929.24 of the Revised Code to a longer jail term. In 25853
addition, the court shall impose upon the offender a fine of not 25854
less than one hundred fifty nor more than one thousand dollars.25855

       The court may suspend the execution of the mandatory jail 25856
term of three consecutive days that it is required to impose by 25857
division (G)(1) of this section if the court, in lieu of the 25858
suspended jail term, places the offender under a community control 25859
sanction pursuant to section 2929.25 of the Revised Code and 25860
requires the offender to attend, for three consecutive days, a 25861
drivers' intervention program that is certified pursuant to 25862
section 3793.105119.38 of the Revised Code. The court also may 25863
suspend the execution of any part of the mandatory jail term of 25864
three consecutive days that it is required to impose by division 25865
(G)(1) of this section if the court places the offender under a 25866
community control sanction pursuant to section 2929.25 of the 25867
Revised Code for part of the three consecutive days; requires the 25868
offender to attend, for that part of the three consecutive days, a 25869
drivers' intervention program that is certified pursuant to 25870
section 3793.105119.38 of the Revised Code; and sentences the 25871
offender to a jail term equal to the remainder of the three 25872
consecutive days that the offender does not spend attending the 25873
drivers' intervention program. The court may require the offender, 25874
as a condition of community control, to attend and satisfactorily 25875
complete any treatment or education programs, in addition to the 25876
required attendance at a drivers' intervention program, that the 25877
operators of the drivers' intervention program determine that the 25878
offender should attend and to report periodically to the court on 25879
the offender's progress in the programs. The court also may impose 25880
any other conditions of community control on the offender that it 25881
considers necessary.25882

       (2) If, within six years of the offense, the offender has 25883
been convicted of or pleaded guilty to one violation of section 25884
1547.11 of the Revised Code or one other equivalent offense, the 25885
court shall sentence the offender to a jail term of ten 25886
consecutive days and may sentence the offender pursuant to section 25887
2929.24 of the Revised Code to a longer jail term. In addition, 25888
the court shall impose upon the offender a fine of not less than 25889
one hundred fifty nor more than one thousand dollars.25890

       In addition to any other sentence that it imposes upon the 25891
offender, the court may require the offender to attend a drivers' 25892
intervention program that is certified pursuant to section 3793.1025893
5119.38 of the Revised Code.25894

       (3) If, within six years of the offense, the offender has 25895
been convicted of or pleaded guilty to more than one violation or 25896
offense identified in division (G)(2) of this section, the court 25897
shall sentence the offender to a jail term of thirty consecutive 25898
days and may sentence the offender to a longer jail term of not 25899
more than one year. In addition, the court shall impose upon the 25900
offender a fine of not less than one hundred fifty nor more than 25901
one thousand dollars.25902

       In addition to any other sentence that it imposes upon the 25903
offender, the court may require the offender to attend a drivers' 25904
intervention program that is certified pursuant to section 3793.1025905
5119.38 of the Revised Code.25906

       (4) Upon a showing that serving a jail term would seriously 25907
affect the ability of an offender sentenced pursuant to division 25908
(G)(1), (2), or (3) of this section to continue the offender's 25909
employment, the court may authorize that the offender be granted 25910
work release after the offender has served the mandatory jail term 25911
of three, ten, or thirty consecutive days that the court is 25912
required by division (G)(1), (2), or (3) of this section to 25913
impose. No court shall authorize work release during the mandatory 25914
jail term of three, ten, or thirty consecutive days that the court 25915
is required by division (G)(1), (2), or (3) of this section to 25916
impose. The duration of the work release shall not exceed the time 25917
necessary each day for the offender to commute to and from the 25918
place of employment and the place in which the jail term is served 25919
and the time actually spent under employment.25920

       (5) Notwithstanding any section of the Revised Code that 25921
authorizes the suspension of the imposition or execution of a 25922
sentence or the placement of an offender in any treatment program 25923
in lieu of being imprisoned or serving a jail term, no court shall 25924
suspend the mandatory jail term of ten or thirty consecutive days 25925
required to be imposed by division (G)(2) or (3) of this section 25926
or place an offender who is sentenced pursuant to division (G)(2) 25927
or (3) of this section in any treatment program in lieu of being 25928
imprisoned or serving a jail term until after the offender has 25929
served the mandatory jail term of ten or thirty consecutive days 25930
required to be imposed pursuant to division (G)(2) or (3) of this 25931
section. Notwithstanding any section of the Revised Code that 25932
authorizes the suspension of the imposition or execution of a 25933
sentence or the placement of an offender in any treatment program 25934
in lieu of being imprisoned or serving a jail term, no court, 25935
except as specifically authorized by division (G)(1) of this 25936
section, shall suspend the mandatory jail term of three 25937
consecutive days required to be imposed by division (G)(1) of this 25938
section or place an offender who is sentenced pursuant to division 25939
(G)(1) of this section in any treatment program in lieu of 25940
imprisonment until after the offender has served the mandatory 25941
jail term of three consecutive days required to be imposed 25942
pursuant to division (G)(1) of this section.25943

       (6) As used in division (G) of this section:25944

       (a) "Equivalent offense" has the same meaning as in section 25945
4511.181 of the Revised Code.25946

       (b) "Jail term" and "mandatory jail term" have the same 25947
meanings as in section 2929.01 of the Revised Code.25948

       (H) Whoever violates section 1547.304 of the Revised Code is 25949
guilty of a misdemeanor of the fourth degree and also shall be 25950
assessed any costs incurred by the state or a county, township, 25951
municipal corporation, or other political subdivision in disposing 25952
of an abandoned junk vessel or outboard motor, less any money 25953
accruing to the state, county, township, municipal corporation, or 25954
other political subdivision from that disposal.25955

       (I) Whoever violates division (B) or (C) of section 1547.49 25956
of the Revised Code is guilty of a minor misdemeanor.25957

       (J) Whoever violates section 1547.31 of the Revised Code is 25958
guilty of a misdemeanor of the fourth degree on a first offense. 25959
On each subsequent offense, the person is guilty of a misdemeanor 25960
of the third degree.25961

       (K) Whoever violates section 1547.05 or 1547.051 of the 25962
Revised Code is guilty of a misdemeanor of the fourth degree if 25963
the violation is not related to a collision, injury to a person, 25964
or damage to property and a misdemeanor of the third degree if the 25965
violation is related to a collision, injury to a person, or damage 25966
to property.25967

       (L) The sentencing court, in addition to the penalty provided 25968
under this section for a violation of this chapter or a rule 25969
adopted under it that involves a powercraft powered by more than 25970
ten horsepower and that, in the opinion of the court, involves a 25971
threat to the safety of persons or property, shall order the 25972
offender to complete successfully a boating course approved by the 25973
national association of state boating law administrators before 25974
the offender is allowed to operate a powercraft powered by more 25975
than ten horsepower on the waters in this state. Violation of a 25976
court order entered under this division is punishable as contempt 25977
under Chapter 2705. of the Revised Code.25978

       Sec. 1548.02.  The chief of the division of watercraft shall 25979
adopt such rules as the chief considers necessary to ensure 25980
uniform and orderly operation of this chapter, and the clerks of 25981
the courts of common pleas shall conform to those rules. The chief 25982
shall receive and file in the chief's office all information 25983
forwarded to the chief by the clerks under this chapter and shall 25984
maintain indexes covering the state at large for that information. 25985
These indexes shall be for the state at large and not for 25986
individual counties.25987

       The chief shall check with the chief's record all duplicate 25988
certificates of title received in the chief's office from the 25989
clerks.25990

       If it appears that any certificate of title has been 25991
improperly issued or is no longer required, the chief shall cancel 25992
the certificate. Upon the cancellation of any certificate of 25993
title, the chief shall notify the clerk who issued it, and the 25994
clerk shall enter the cancellation in the clerk's records. The 25995
chief also shall notify the person to whom the certificate of 25996
title was issued, as well as any lienholders appearing on it, of 25997
the cancellation and, if it is a physical certificate of title, 25998
shall demand the surrender of the certificate of title, but the 25999
cancellation shall not affect the validity of any lien noted on 26000
it. The holder of a physical certificate of title shall return it 26001
to the chief immediately.26002

       The clerks shall keep on hand a sufficient supply of blank 26003
forms that, except certificate of title and memorandum certificate 26004
forms, shall be furnished and distributed without charge to 26005
registered manufacturers or dealers or to other persons residing 26006
within the county. The clerks shall provide the certificates of 26007
title, theand ribbons, cartridges, or other devices necessary for 26008
datathe operation of the certificate of title processing, and 26009
removable backup mediaequipment as determined by the automated 26010
title processing board pursuant to division (C) of section 4505.09 26011
of the Revised Code from moneys provided to the clerks from the 26012
automated title processing fund in accordance with division 26013
(B)(3)(b) of section 4505.09 of the Revised Code. The clerks shall 26014
furnish all other supplies from other moneys available to the 26015
clerks.26016

       Sec. 1551.33.  (A) The director of development services shall 26017
appoint and fix the compensation of the director of the Ohio coal 26018
development office. The director shall serve at the pleasure of 26019
the director of development services.26020

       (B) The director of the office shall do all of the following:26021

       (1) Biennially prepare and maintain the Ohio coal development 26022
agenda required under section 1551.34 of the Revised Code;26023

       (2) Propose and support policies for the office consistent 26024
with the Ohio coal development agenda and develop means to 26025
implement the agenda;26026

       (3) Initiate, undertake, and support projects to carry out 26027
the office's purposes and ensure that the projects are consistent 26028
with and meet the selection criteria established by the Ohio coal 26029
development agenda;26030

       (4) Actively encourage joint participation in and, when 26031
feasible, joint funding of the office's projects with governmental 26032
agencies, electric utilities, universities and colleges, other 26033
public or private interests, or any other person;26034

       (5) Establish a table of organization for and employ such 26035
employees and agents as are necessary for the administration and 26036
operation of the office. Any such employees shall be in the 26037
unclassified service and shall serve at the pleasure of the 26038
director of development services.26039

       (6) Appoint specified members of and conveneConvene the 26040
technical advisory committee established under section 1551.35 of 26041
the Revised Code;26042

       (7) Review, with the assistance of the technical advisory 26043
committee, proposed coal research and development projects as 26044
defined in section 1555.01 of the Revised Code, and coal 26045
development projects, submitted to the office by public utilities 26046
for the purpose of section 4905.304 of the Revised Code. If the 26047
director and the advisory committee determine that any such 26048
facility or project has as its purpose the enhanced use of Ohio 26049
coal in an environmentally acceptable, cost effective manner, 26050
promotes energy conservation, is cost effective, and is 26051
environmentally sound, the director shall submit to the public 26052
utilities commission a report recommending that the commission 26053
allow the recovery of costs associated with the facility or 26054
project under section 4905.304 of the Revised Code and including 26055
the reasons for the recommendation.26056

       (8) Establish such policies, procedures, and guidelines as 26057
are necessary to achieve the office's purposes.26058

       (C) With the approval of the director of development 26059
services, the director of the office may exercise any of the 26060
powers and duties that the director of development services26061
considers appropriate or desirable to achieve the office's 26062
purposes, including, but not limited to, the powers and duties 26063
enumerated in sections 1551.11, 1551.12, and 1551.15 of the 26064
Revised Code.26065

       Additionally, the director of the office may make loans to 26066
governmental agencies or persons for projects to carry out the 26067
office's purposes. Fees, charges, rates of interest, times of 26068
payment of interest and principal, and other terms, conditions, 26069
and provisions of the loans shall be such as the director of the 26070
office determines to be appropriate and in furtherance of the 26071
purposes for which the loans are made. The mortgage lien securing 26072
any moneys lent by the director of the office may be subordinate 26073
to the mortgage lien securing any moneys lent or invested by a 26074
financial institution, but shall be superior to that securing any 26075
moneys lent or expended by any other person. The moneys used in 26076
making the loans shall be disbursed upon order of the director of 26077
the office.26078

       Sec. 1551.35.  (A) There is hereby established a technical 26079
advisory committee to assist the director of the Ohio coal 26080
development office in achieving the office's purposes. The 26081
director of development services shall appoint to the committee 26082
one member of the public utilities commission and one 26083
representative each of coal production companies, the united mine 26084
workers of America, electric utilities, manufacturers that use 26085
Ohio coal, and environmental organizations, as well as two people 26086
with a background in coal research and development technology, one 26087
of whom is employed at the time of the member's appointment by a 26088
state university, as defined in section 3345.011 of the Revised 26089
Code. In addition, the committee shall include four legislative 26090
members. The speaker and minority leader of the house of 26091
representatives each shall appoint one member of the house of 26092
representatives, and the president and minority leader of the 26093
senate each shall appoint one member of the senate, to the 26094
committee. The director of environmental protection shall serve on 26095
the committee as an ex officio member. Any member of the committee 26096
may designate in writing a substitute to serve in the member's 26097
absence on the committee. The director of environmental protection 26098
may designate in writing the chief of the air pollution control 26099
division of the agency to represent the agency. Members shall 26100
serve on the committee at the pleasure of their appointing 26101
authority. Members of the committee appointed by the director of 26102
the officedevelopment services and, notwithstanding section 26103
101.26 of the Revised Code, legislative members of the committee, 26104
when engaged in their official duties as members of the committee, 26105
shall be compensated on a per diem basis in accordance with 26106
division (J) of section 124.15 of the Revised Code, except that 26107
the member of the public utilities commission and, while employed 26108
by a state university, the member with a background in coal 26109
research, shall not be so compensated. Members shall receive their 26110
actual and necessary expenses incurred in the performance of their 26111
duties.26112

       (B) The technical advisory committee shall review and make 26113
recommendations concerning the Ohio coal development agenda 26114
required under section 1551.34 of the Revised Code, project 26115
proposals, research and development projects submitted to the 26116
office by public utilities for the purpose of section 4905.304 of 26117
the Revised Code, proposals for grants, loans, and loan guarantees 26118
for purposes of sections 1555.01 to 1555.06 of the Revised Code, 26119
and such other topics as the director of the office considers 26120
appropriate.26121

       (C) The technical advisory committee may hold an executive 26122
session at any regular or special meeting for the purpose of 26123
considering research and development project proposals or 26124
applications for assistance submitted to the Ohio coal development 26125
office under section 1551.33, or sections 1555.01 to 1555.06, of 26126
the Revised Code, to the extent that the proposals or applications 26127
consist of trade secrets or other proprietary information.26128

       Any materials or data submitted to, made available to, or 26129
received by the department of development services agency or the 26130
director of the Ohio coal development office in connection with 26131
agreements for assistance entered into under this chapter or 26132
Chapter 1555. of the Revised Code, or any information taken from 26133
those materials or data for any purpose, to the extent that the 26134
materials or data consist of trade secrets or other proprietary 26135
information, are not public records for the purposes of section 26136
149.43 of the Revised Code.26137

       As used in this division, "trade secrets" has the same 26138
meaning as in section 1333.61 of the Revised Code.26139

       Sec. 1555.15.  There is hereby created in the state treasury 26140
the coal research and development fund. Moneys obtained for coal 26141
research and development projects from federal grants or loans, 26142
private grants, and other sources, and moneys paid into the fund 26143
pursuant to section 151.07 or 1555.08 of the Revised Code, shall 26144
be expended for the purpose of making grants and making or 26145
guaranteeing loans for coal research and development projects that 26146
will encourage the use of Ohio coal, to any individual, 26147
association, or corporation doing business in this state, or to 26148
any educational or scientific institution located in this state as 26149
provided for in Section 15 of Article VIII, Ohio Constitution and 26150
section 1555.08 of the Revised Code, when appropriated for such 26151
purposes by the general assembly. All investment earnings on the 26152
cash balance in the fund shall be credited to the fund.26153

       The director of budget and management shall establish and 26154
maintain records or accounts for or within the coal research and 26155
development fund in such manner as to show the amounts credited to 26156
such fund pursuant to section 1555.08 of the Revised Code and that 26157
the amounts so credited have been expended for the purposes set 26158
forth in Section 15 of Article VIII, Ohio Constitution, and 26159
section 151.07 of the Revised Code. The director of budget and 26160
management may otherwise manage the fund to comply with any 26161
requirements established by federal grants or loans, private 26162
grants, or moneys from other sources.26163

       Sec. 1711.07.  The board of directors of a county or 26164
independent agricultural society shall consist of at least eight 26165
members. An employee of the Ohio state universityOSU extension 26166
service and the county school superintendent shall be members ex 26167
officio. Their terms of office shall be determined by the rules of 26168
the department of agriculture. Any vacancy in the board caused by 26169
death, resignation, refusal to qualify, removal from county, or 26170
other cause may be filled by the board until the society's next 26171
annual election, when a director shall be elected for the 26172
unexpired term. There shall be an annual election of directors by 26173
ballot at a time and a place fixed by the board, but this election 26174
shall not be held later than the first Saturday in December 1994, 26175
and not later than the fifteenth day of November each year 26176
thereafter, beginning in 1995. The secretary of the society shall 26177
give notice of suchthe election, for three weeks prior to the 26178
holding thereof, in a newspaper of general circulation in the 26179
county or as provided in section 7.16 of the Revised Code, or by 26180
letter mailed to each member of the society. Only persons holding 26181
membership certificates at the close of the annual county fair, or 26182
at least fifteen calendar days before the date of election, as may 26183
be fixed by the board, may vote, unless suchthe election is held 26184
on the fairground during the fair, in which case all persons 26185
holding membership certificates on the date and hour of the 26186
election may vote. When the election is to be held during the 26187
fair, notice of suchthe election mustshall be prominently 26188
mentioned in the premium list, in addition to the notice required 26189
in a newspaper. The terms of office of the retiring directors 26190
shall expire, and those of the directors-elect shall begin, not 26191
later than the first Saturday in January 1995, and not later than 26192
the thirtieth day of November each year thereafter, beginning in 26193
1995.26194

       The secretary of suchthe society shall send the name and 26195
address of each member of its board to the director of agriculture 26196
within ten days after the election.26197

       Sec. 1724.03. (A) After the articles of incorporation have 26198
been filed, and at the first meeting of the board of directors of 26199
a county land reutilization corporation, the board shall adopt 26200
regulations for the government of the corporation, the conduct of 26201
its affairs, and the management of its property, consistent with 26202
law and the articles. The content of the regulations shall be 26203
governed by section 1702.11 of the Revised Code to the extent not 26204
inconsistent with this chapter. 26205

       (B) The board of directors of a county land reutilization 26206
corporation shall be composed of five, seven, or nine members, 26207
including the county treasurer, at least two of the members of the 26208
board of county commissioners, one representative of the largest 26209
municipal corporation, based on the population according to the 26210
most recent federal decennial census, that is located in the 26211
county, one representative of a township with a population of at 26212
least ten thousand in the unincorporated area of the township 26213
according to the most recent federal decennial census, if at least 26214
two such townships exist in the county, and any remaining members 26215
selected by the treasurer and the county commissioners who are 26216
members of the corporation's board. The township representative 26217
shall be chosen by a majority of the boards of township trustees 26218
of townships with a population of at least ten thousand in the 26219
unincorporated area of the township according to the most recent 26220
federal decennial census. At least one board member shall have 26221
private sector or nonprofit experience in rehabilitation or real 26222
estate acquisitions. A county treasurer and the county 26223
commissioners each may appoint a representative, as a director of 26224
the corporation, to act for the officer at any of the meetings of 26225
the corporation. Except as may otherwise be authorized by the 26226
regulations of the corporation, all members of the board of 26227
directors shall serve without compensation, but shall be 26228
reimbursed for actual and necessary expenses. 26229

       Sec. 1739.061. (A)(1) This section applies to both of the 26230
following:26231

       (a) A multiple employer welfare arrangement that issues or 26232
requires the use of a standardized identification card or an 26233
electronic technology for submission and routing of prescription 26234
drug claims;26235

        (b) A person or entity that a multiple employer welfare 26236
arrangement contracts with to issue a standardized identification 26237
card or an electronic technology described in division (A)(1)(a) 26238
of this section.26239

       (2) Notwithstanding division (A)(1) of this section, this 26240
section does not apply to the issuance or required use of a 26241
standardized identification card or an electronic technology for 26242
the submission and routing of prescription drug claims in 26243
connection with any of the following:26244

       (a) Any program or arrangement covering only accident, 26245
credit, dental, disability income, long-term care, hospital 26246
indemnity, medicare supplement, medicare, tricare, specified 26247
disease, or vision care; coverage under a 26248
one-time-limited-duration policy of not longer than six months; 26249
coverage issued as a supplement to liability insurance; insurance 26250
arising out of workers' compensation or similar law; automobile 26251
medical payment insurance; or insurance under which benefits are 26252
payable with or without regard to fault and which is statutorily 26253
required to be contained in any liability insurance policy or 26254
equivalent self-insurance.26255

       (b) Coverage provided under the medicaid, as defined in 26256
section 5111.01 of the Revised Codeprogram.26257

       (c) Coverage provided under an employer's self-insurance plan 26258
or by any of its administrators, as defined in section 3959.01 of 26259
the Revised Code, to the extent that federal law supersedes, 26260
preempts, prohibits, or otherwise precludes the application of 26261
this section to the plan and its administrators.26262

       (B) A standardized identification card or an electronic 26263
technology issued or required to be used as provided in division 26264
(A)(1) of this section shall contain uniform prescription drug 26265
information in accordance with either division (B)(1) or (2) of 26266
this section.26267

        (1) The standardized identification card or the electronic 26268
technology shall be in a format and contain information fields 26269
approved by the national council for prescription drug programs or 26270
a successor organization, as specified in the council's or 26271
successor organization's pharmacy identification card 26272
implementation guide in effect on the first day of October most 26273
immediately preceding the issuance or required use of the 26274
standardized identification card or the electronic technology.26275

        (2) If the multiple employer welfare arrangement or person 26276
under contract with it to issue a standardized identification card 26277
or an electronic technology requires the information for the 26278
submission and routing of a claim, the standardized identification 26279
card or the electronic technology shall contain any of the 26280
following information:26281

        (a) The name of the multiple employer welfare arrangement;26282

        (b) The individual's name, group number, and identification 26283
number;26284

       (c) A telephone number to inquire about pharmacy-related 26285
issues;26286

        (d) The issuer's international identification number, labeled 26287
as "ANSI BIN" or "RxBIN";26288

        (e) The processor's control number, labeled as "RxPCN";26289

        (f) The individual's pharmacy benefits group number if 26290
different from the insured's medical group number, labeled as 26291
"RxGrp."26292

        (C) If the standardized identification card or the electronic 26293
technology issued or required to be used as provided in division 26294
(A)(1) of this section is also used for submission and routing of 26295
nonpharmacy claims, the designation "Rx" is required to be 26296
included as part of the labels identified in divisions (B)(2)(d) 26297
and (e) of this section if the issuer's international 26298
identification number or the processor's control number is 26299
different for medical and pharmacy claims.26300

        (D) Each multiple employer welfare arrangement described in 26301
division (A) of this section shall annually file a certificate 26302
with the superintendent of insurance certifying that it or any 26303
person it contracts with to issue a standardized identification 26304
card or electronic technology for submission and routing of 26305
prescription drug claims complies with this section.26306

       (E)(1) Except as provided in division (E)(2) of this section, 26307
if there is a change in the information contained in the 26308
standardized identification card or the electronic technology 26309
issued to an individual, the multiple employer welfare arrangement 26310
or person under contract with it to issue a standardized 26311
identification card or an electronic technology shall issue a new 26312
card or electronic technology to the individual.26313

        (2) A multiple employer welfare arrangement or person under 26314
contract with it is not required under division (E)(1) of this 26315
section to issue a new card or electronic technology to an 26316
individual more than once during a twelve-month period.26317

        (F) Nothing in this section shall be construed as requiring a 26318
multiple employer welfare arrangement to produce more than one 26319
standardized identification card or one electronic technology for 26320
use by individuals accessing health care benefits provided under a 26321
multiple employer welfare arrangement.26322

       Sec. 1751.01.  As used in this chapter:26323

       (A)(1) "Basic health care services" means the following 26324
services when medically necessary:26325

       (a) Physician's services, except when such services are 26326
supplemental under division (B) of this section;26327

       (b) Inpatient hospital services;26328

       (c) Outpatient medical services;26329

       (d) Emergency health services;26330

       (e) Urgent care services;26331

       (f) Diagnostic laboratory services and diagnostic and 26332
therapeutic radiologic services;26333

       (g) Diagnostic and treatment services, other than 26334
prescription drug services, for biologically based mental 26335
illnesses;26336

       (h) Preventive health care services, including, but not 26337
limited to, voluntary family planning services, infertility 26338
services, periodic physical examinations, prenatal obstetrical 26339
care, and well-child care;26340

       (i) Routine patient care for patients enrolled in an eligible 26341
cancer clinical trial pursuant to section 3923.80 of the Revised 26342
Code.26343

       "Basic health care services" does not include experimental 26344
procedures.26345

        Except as provided by divisions (A)(2) and (3) of this 26346
section in connection with the offering of coverage for diagnostic 26347
and treatment services for biologically based mental illnesses, a 26348
health insuring corporation shall not offer coverage for a health 26349
care service, defined as a basic health care service by this 26350
division, unless it offers coverage for all listed basic health 26351
care services. However, this requirement does not apply to the 26352
coverage of beneficiaries enrolled in medicare pursuant to a 26353
medicare contract, or to the coverage of beneficiaries enrolled in 26354
the federal employee health benefits program pursuant to 5 26355
U.S.C.A. 8905, or to the coverage of medicaid recipients, or to 26356
the coverage of beneficiaries under any federal health care 26357
program regulated by a federal regulatory body, or to the coverage 26358
of beneficiaries under any contract covering officers or employees 26359
of the state that has been entered into by the department of 26360
administrative services.26361

       (2) A health insuring corporation may offer coverage for 26362
diagnostic and treatment services for biologically based mental 26363
illnesses without offering coverage for all other basic health 26364
care services. A health insuring corporation may offer coverage 26365
for diagnostic and treatment services for biologically based 26366
mental illnesses alone or in combination with one or more 26367
supplemental health care services. However, a health insuring 26368
corporation that offers coverage for any other basic health care 26369
service shall offer coverage for diagnostic and treatment services 26370
for biologically based mental illnesses in combination with the 26371
offer of coverage for all other listed basic health care services.26372

       (3) A health insuring corporation that offers coverage for 26373
basic health care services is not required to offer coverage for 26374
diagnostic and treatment services for biologically based mental 26375
illnesses in combination with the offer of coverage for all other 26376
listed basic health care services if all of the following apply:26377

       (a) The health insuring corporation submits documentation 26378
certified by an independent member of the American academy of 26379
actuaries to the superintendent of insurance showing that incurred 26380
claims for diagnostic and treatment services for biologically 26381
based mental illnesses for a period of at least six months 26382
independently caused the health insuring corporation's costs for 26383
claims and administrative expenses for the coverage of basic 26384
health care services to increase by more than one per cent per 26385
year. 26386

       (b) The health insuring corporation submits a signed letter 26387
from an independent member of the American academy of actuaries to 26388
the superintendent of insurance opining that the increase in costs 26389
described in division (A)(3)(a) of this section could reasonably 26390
justify an increase of more than one per cent in the annual 26391
premiums or rates charged by the health insuring corporation for 26392
the coverage of basic health care services.26393

       (c) The superintendent of insurance makes the following 26394
determinations from the documentation and opinion submitted 26395
pursuant to divisions (A)(3)(a) and (b) of this section:26396

       (i) Incurred claims for diagnostic and treatment services for 26397
biologically based mental illnesses for a period of at least six 26398
months independently caused the health insuring corporation's 26399
costs for claims and administrative expenses for the coverage of 26400
basic health care services to increase by more than one per cent 26401
per year.26402

       (ii) The increase in costs reasonably justifies an increase 26403
of more than one per cent in the annual premiums or rates charged 26404
by the health insuring corporation for the coverage of basic 26405
health care services. 26406

       Any determination made by the superintendent under this 26407
division is subject to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.26408

       (B)(1) "Supplemental health care services" means any health 26409
care services other than basic health care services that a health 26410
insuring corporation may offer, alone or in combination with 26411
either basic health care services or other supplemental health 26412
care services, and includes:26413

       (a) Services of facilities for intermediate or long-term 26414
care, or both;26415

       (b) Dental care services;26416

       (c) Vision care and optometric services including lenses and 26417
frames;26418

       (d) Podiatric care or foot care services;26419

       (e) Mental health services, excluding diagnostic and 26420
treatment services for biologically based mental illnesses;26421

       (f) Short-term outpatient evaluative and crisis-intervention 26422
mental health services;26423

       (g) Medical or psychological treatment and referral services 26424
for alcohol and drug abuse or addiction;26425

       (h) Home health services;26426

       (i) Prescription drug services;26427

       (j) Nursing services;26428

       (k) Services of a dietitian licensed under Chapter 4759. of 26429
the Revised Code;26430

       (l) Physical therapy services;26431

       (m) Chiropractic services;26432

       (n) Any other category of services approved by the 26433
superintendent of insurance.26434

       (2) If a health insuring corporation offers prescription drug 26435
services under this division, the coverage shall include 26436
prescription drug services for the treatment of biologically based 26437
mental illnesses on the same terms and conditions as other 26438
physical diseases and disorders.26439

       (C) "Specialty health care services" means one of the 26440
supplemental health care services listed in division (B) of this 26441
section, when provided by a health insuring corporation on an 26442
outpatient-only basis and not in combination with other 26443
supplemental health care services.26444

       (D) "Biologically based mental illnesses" means 26445
schizophrenia, schizoaffective disorder, major depressive 26446
disorder, bipolar disorder, paranoia and other psychotic 26447
disorders, obsessive-compulsive disorder, and panic disorder, as 26448
these terms are defined in the most recent edition of the 26449
diagnostic and statistical manual of mental disorders published by 26450
the American psychiatric association.26451

       (E) "Closed panel plan" means a health care plan that 26452
requires enrollees to use participating providers.26453

       (F) "Compensation" means remuneration for the provision of 26454
health care services, determined on other than a fee-for-service 26455
or discounted-fee-for-service basis.26456

       (G) "Contractual periodic prepayment" means the formula for 26457
determining the premium rate for all subscribers of a health 26458
insuring corporation.26459

       (H) "Corporation" means a corporation formed under Chapter 26460
1701. or 1702. of the Revised Code or the similar laws of another 26461
state.26462

       (I) "Emergency health services" means those health care 26463
services that must be available on a seven-days-per-week, 26464
twenty-four-hours-per-day basis in order to prevent jeopardy to an 26465
enrollee's health status that would occur if such services were 26466
not received as soon as possible, and includes, where appropriate, 26467
provisions for transportation and indemnity payments or service 26468
agreements for out-of-area coverage.26469

       (J) "Enrollee" means any natural person who is entitled to 26470
receive health care benefits provided by a health insuring 26471
corporation.26472

       (K) "Evidence of coverage" means any certificate, agreement, 26473
policy, or contract issued to a subscriber that sets out the 26474
coverage and other rights to which such person is entitled under a 26475
health care plan.26476

       (L) "Health care facility" means any facility, except a 26477
health care practitioner's office, that provides preventive, 26478
diagnostic, therapeutic, acute convalescent, rehabilitation, 26479
mental health, mental retardation, intermediate care, or skilled 26480
nursing services.26481

       (M) "Health care services" means basic, supplemental, and 26482
specialty health care services.26483

       (N) "Health delivery network" means any group of providers or 26484
health care facilities, or both, or any representative thereof, 26485
that have entered into an agreement to offer health care services 26486
in a panel rather than on an individual basis.26487

       (O) "Health insuring corporation" means a corporation, as 26488
defined in division (H) of this section, that, pursuant to a 26489
policy, contract, certificate, or agreement, pays for, reimburses, 26490
or provides, delivers, arranges for, or otherwise makes available, 26491
basic health care services, supplemental health care services, or 26492
specialty health care services, or a combination of basic health 26493
care services and either supplemental health care services or 26494
specialty health care services, through either an open panel plan 26495
or a closed panel plan.26496

       "Health insuring corporation" does not include a limited 26497
liability company formed pursuant to Chapter 1705. of the Revised 26498
Code, an insurer licensed under Title XXXIX of the Revised Code if 26499
that insurer offers only open panel plans under which all 26500
providers and health care facilities participating receive their 26501
compensation directly from the insurer, a corporation formed by or 26502
on behalf of a political subdivision or a department, office, or 26503
institution of the state, or a public entity formed by or on 26504
behalf of a board of county commissioners, a county board of 26505
developmental disabilities, an alcohol and drug addiction services 26506
board, a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 26507
services, or a community mental health board, as those terms are 26508
used in Chapters 340. and 5126. of the Revised Code. Except as 26509
provided by division (D) of section 1751.02 of the Revised Code, 26510
or as otherwise provided by law, no board, commission, agency, or 26511
other entity under the control of a political subdivision may 26512
accept insurance risk in providing for health care services. 26513
However, nothing in this division shall be construed as 26514
prohibiting such entities from purchasing the services of a health 26515
insuring corporation or a third-party administrator licensed under 26516
Chapter 3959. of the Revised Code.26517

       (P) "Intermediary organization" means a health delivery 26518
network or other entity that contracts with licensed health 26519
insuring corporations or self-insured employers, or both, to 26520
provide health care services, and that enters into contractual 26521
arrangements with other entities for the provision of health care 26522
services for the purpose of fulfilling the terms of its contracts 26523
with the health insuring corporations and self-insured employers.26524

       (Q) "Intermediate care" means residential care above the 26525
level of room and board for patients who require personal 26526
assistance and health-related services, but who do not require 26527
skilled nursing care.26528

       (R) "Medicaid" has the same meaning as in section 5111.01 of 26529
the Revised Code.26530

       (S) "Medical record" means the personal information that 26531
relates to an individual's physical or mental condition, medical 26532
history, or medical treatment.26533

       (T) "Medicare" means the program established under Title 26534
XVIII of the "Social Security Act" 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C. 26535
1395, as amended.26536

       (U)(S)(1) "Open panel plan" means a health care plan that 26537
provides incentives for enrollees to use participating providers 26538
and that also allows enrollees to use providers that are not 26539
participating providers.26540

       (2) No health insuring corporation may offer an open panel 26541
plan, unless the health insuring corporation is also licensed as 26542
an insurer under Title XXXIX of the Revised Code, the health 26543
insuring corporation, on June 4, 1997, holds a certificate of 26544
authority or license to operate under Chapter 1736. or 1740. of 26545
the Revised Code, or an insurer licensed under Title XXXIX of the 26546
Revised Code is responsible for the out-of-network risk as 26547
evidenced by both an evidence of coverage filing under section 26548
1751.11 of the Revised Code and a policy and certificate filing 26549
under section 3923.02 of the Revised Code.26550

       (V)(T) "Osteopathic hospital" means a hospital registered 26551
under section 3701.07 of the Revised Code that advocates 26552
osteopathic principles and the practice and perpetuation of 26553
osteopathic medicine by doing any of the following:26554

       (1) Maintaining a department or service of osteopathic 26555
medicine or a committee on the utilization of osteopathic 26556
principles and methods, under the supervision of an osteopathic 26557
physician;26558

       (2) Maintaining an active medical staff, the majority of 26559
which is comprised of osteopathic physicians;26560

       (3) Maintaining a medical staff executive committee that has 26561
osteopathic physicians as a majority of its members.26562

       (W)(U) "Panel" means a group of providers or health care 26563
facilities that have joined together to deliver health care 26564
services through a contractual arrangement with a health insuring 26565
corporation, employer group, or other payor.26566

       (X)(V) "Person" has the same meaning as in section 1.59 of 26567
the Revised Code, and, unless the context otherwise requires, 26568
includes any insurance company holding a certificate of authority 26569
under Title XXXIX of the Revised Code, any subsidiary and 26570
affiliate of an insurance company, and any government agency.26571

       (Y)(W) "Premium rate" means any set fee regularly paid by a 26572
subscriber to a health insuring corporation. A "premium rate" does 26573
not include a one-time membership fee, an annual administrative 26574
fee, or a nominal access fee, paid to a managed health care system 26575
under which the recipient of health care services remains solely 26576
responsible for any charges accessed for those services by the 26577
provider or health care facility.26578

       (Z)(X) "Primary care provider" means a provider that is 26579
designated by a health insuring corporation to supervise, 26580
coordinate, or provide initial care or continuing care to an 26581
enrollee, and that may be required by the health insuring 26582
corporation to initiate a referral for specialty care and to 26583
maintain supervision of the health care services rendered to the 26584
enrollee.26585

       (AA)(Y) "Provider" means any natural person or partnership of 26586
natural persons who are licensed, certified, accredited, or 26587
otherwise authorized in this state to furnish health care 26588
services, or any professional association organized under Chapter 26589
1785. of the Revised Code, provided that nothing in this chapter 26590
or other provisions of law shall be construed to preclude a health 26591
insuring corporation, health care practitioner, or organized 26592
health care group associated with a health insuring corporation 26593
from employing certified nurse practitioners, certified nurse 26594
anesthetists, clinical nurse specialists, certified nurse 26595
midwives, dietitians, physician assistants, dental assistants, 26596
dental hygienists, optometric technicians, or other allied health 26597
personnel who are licensed, certified, accredited, or otherwise 26598
authorized in this state to furnish health care services.26599

       (BB)(Z) "Provider sponsored organization" means a 26600
corporation, as defined in division (H) of this section, that is 26601
at least eighty per cent owned or controlled by one or more 26602
hospitals, as defined in section 3727.01 of the Revised Code, or 26603
one or more physicians licensed to practice medicine or surgery or 26604
osteopathic medicine and surgery under Chapter 4731. of the 26605
Revised Code, or any combination of such physicians and hospitals. 26606
Such control is presumed to exist if at least eighty per cent of 26607
the voting rights or governance rights of a provider sponsored 26608
organization are directly or indirectly owned, controlled, or 26609
otherwise held by any combination of the physicians and hospitals 26610
described in this division.26611

       (CC)(AA) "Solicitation document" means the written materials 26612
provided to prospective subscribers or enrollees, or both, and 26613
used for advertising and marketing to induce enrollment in the 26614
health care plans of a health insuring corporation.26615

       (DD)(BB) "Subscriber" means a person who is responsible for 26616
making payments to a health insuring corporation for participation 26617
in a health care plan, or an enrollee whose employment or other 26618
status is the basis of eligibility for enrollment in a health 26619
insuring corporation.26620

       (EE)(CC) "Urgent care services" means those health care 26621
services that are appropriately provided for an unforeseen 26622
condition of a kind that usually requires medical attention 26623
without delay but that does not pose a threat to the life, limb, 26624
or permanent health of the injured or ill person, and may include 26625
such health care services provided out of the health insuring 26626
corporation's approved service area pursuant to indemnity payments 26627
or service agreements.26628

       Sec. 1751.11.  (A) Every subscriber of a health insuring 26629
corporation is entitled to an evidence of coverage for the health 26630
care plan under which health care benefits are provided.26631

       (B) Every subscriber of a health insuring corporation that 26632
offers basic health care services is entitled to an identification 26633
card or similar document that specifies the health insuring 26634
corporation's name as stated in its articles of incorporation, and 26635
any trade or fictitious names used by the health insuring 26636
corporation. The identification card or document shall list at 26637
least one toll-free telephone number that provides the subscriber 26638
with access, to information on a twenty-four-hours-per-day, 26639
seven-days-per-week basis, as to how health care services may be 26640
obtained. The identification card or document shall also list at 26641
least one toll-free number that, during normal business hours, 26642
provides the subscriber with access to information on the coverage 26643
available under the subscriber's health care plan and information 26644
on the health care plan's internal and external review processes.26645

       (C) No evidence of coverage, or amendment to the evidence of 26646
coverage, shall be delivered, issued for delivery, renewed, or 26647
used, until the form of the evidence of coverage or amendment has 26648
been filed by the health insuring corporation with the 26649
superintendent of insurance. If the superintendent does not 26650
disapprove the evidence of coverage or amendment within sixty days 26651
after it is filed it shall be deemed approved, unless the 26652
superintendent sooner gives approval for the evidence of coverage 26653
or amendment. With respect to an amendment to an approved evidence 26654
of coverage, the superintendent only may disapprove provisions 26655
amended or added to the evidence of coverage. If the 26656
superintendent determines within the sixty-day period that any 26657
evidence of coverage or amendment fails to meet the requirements 26658
of this section, the superintendent shall so notify the health 26659
insuring corporation and it shall be unlawful for the health 26660
insuring corporation to use such evidence of coverage or 26661
amendment. At any time, the superintendent, upon at least thirty 26662
days' written notice to a health insuring corporation, may 26663
withdraw an approval, deemed or actual, of any evidence of 26664
coverage or amendment on any of the grounds stated in this 26665
section. Such disapproval shall be effected by a written order, 26666
which shall state the grounds for disapproval and shall be issued 26667
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.26668

       (D) No evidence of coverage or amendment shall be delivered, 26669
issued for delivery, renewed, or used:26670

       (1) If it contains provisions or statements that are 26671
inequitable, untrue, misleading, or deceptive;26672

       (2) Unless it contains a clear, concise, and complete 26673
statement of the following:26674

       (a) The health care services and insurance or other benefits, 26675
if any, to which an enrollee is entitled under the health care 26676
plan;26677

       (b) Any exclusions or limitations on the health care 26678
services, type of health care services, benefits, or type of 26679
benefits to be provided, including copayments and deductibles;26680

       (c) An enrollee's personal financial obligation for 26681
noncovered services;26682

       (d) Where and in what manner general information and 26683
information as to how health care services may be obtained is 26684
available, including a toll-free telephone number;26685

       (e) The premium rate with respect to individual and 26686
conversion contracts, and relevant copayment and deductible 26687
provisions with respect to all contracts. The statement of the 26688
premium rate, however, may be contained in a separate insert.26689

       (f) The method utilized by the health insuring corporation 26690
for resolving enrollee complaints;26691

       (g) The utilization review, internal review, and external 26692
review procedures established under sections 1751.77 to 1751.83 26693
and Chapter 3922. of the Revised Code.26694

       (3) Unless it provides for the continuation of an enrollee's 26695
coverage, in the event that the enrollee's coverage under the 26696
group policy, contract, certificate, or agreement terminates while 26697
the enrollee is receiving inpatient care in a hospital. This 26698
continuation of coverage shall terminate at the earliest 26699
occurrence of any of the following:26700

       (a) The enrollee's discharge from the hospital;26701

       (b) The determination by the enrollee's attending physician 26702
that inpatient care is no longer medically indicated for the 26703
enrollee; however, nothing in division (D)(3)(b) of this section 26704
precludes a health insuring corporation from engaging in 26705
utilization review as described in the evidence of coverage.26706

       (c) The enrollee's reaching the limit for contractual 26707
benefits;26708

       (d) The effective date of any new coverage.26709

       (4) Unless it contains a provision that states, in substance, 26710
that the health insuring corporation is not a member of any 26711
guaranty fund, and that in the event of the health insuring 26712
corporation's insolvency, an enrollee is protected only to the 26713
extent that the hold harmless provision required by section 26714
1751.13 of the Revised Code applies to the health care services 26715
rendered;26716

       (5) Unless it contains a provision that states, in substance, 26717
that in the event of the insolvency of the health insuring 26718
corporation, an enrollee may be financially responsible for health 26719
care services rendered by a provider or health care facility that 26720
is not under contract to the health insuring corporation, whether 26721
or not the health insuring corporation authorized the use of the 26722
provider or health care facility.26723

       (E) Notwithstanding divisions (C) and (D) of this section, a 26724
health insuring corporation may use an evidence of coverage that 26725
provides for the coverage of beneficiaries enrolled in medicare 26726
pursuant to a medicare contract, or an evidence of coverage that 26727
provides for the coverage of beneficiaries enrolled in the federal 26728
employees health benefits program pursuant to 5 U.S.C.A. 8905, or 26729
an evidence of coverage that provides for the coverage of medicaid 26730
recipients, or an evidence of coverage that provides for the 26731
coverage of beneficiaries under any other federal health care 26732
program regulated by a federal regulatory body, or an evidence of 26733
coverage that provides for the coverage of beneficiaries under any 26734
contract covering officers or employees of the state that has been 26735
entered into by the department of administrative services, if both 26736
of the following apply:26737

       (1) The evidence of coverage has been approved by the United 26738
States department of health and human services, the United States 26739
office of personnel management, the Ohio department of job and 26740
family servicesmedicaid, or the department of administrative 26741
services.26742

       (2) The evidence of coverage is filed with the superintendent 26743
of insurance prior to use and is accompanied by documentation of 26744
approval from the United States department of health and human 26745
services, the United States office of personnel management, the 26746
Ohio department of job and family servicesmedicaid, or the 26747
department of administrative services.26748

       Sec. 1751.12.  (A)(1) No contractual periodic prepayment and 26749
no premium rate for nongroup and conversion policies for health 26750
care services, or any amendment to them, may be used by any health 26751
insuring corporation at any time until the contractual periodic 26752
prepayment and premium rate, or amendment, have been filed with 26753
the superintendent of insurance, and shall not be effective until 26754
the expiration of sixty days after their filing unless the 26755
superintendent sooner gives approval. The filing shall be 26756
accompanied by an actuarial certification in the form prescribed 26757
by the superintendent. The superintendent shall disapprove the 26758
filing, if the superintendent determines within the sixty-day 26759
period that the contractual periodic prepayment or premium rate, 26760
or amendment, is not in accordance with sound actuarial principles 26761
or is not reasonably related to the applicable coverage and 26762
characteristics of the applicable class of enrollees. The 26763
superintendent shall notify the health insuring corporation of the 26764
disapproval, and it shall thereafter be unlawful for the health 26765
insuring corporation to use the contractual periodic prepayment or 26766
premium rate, or amendment.26767

       (2) No contractual periodic prepayment for group policies for 26768
health care services shall be used until the contractual periodic 26769
prepayment has been filed with the superintendent. The filing 26770
shall be accompanied by an actuarial certification in the form 26771
prescribed by the superintendent. The superintendent may reject a 26772
filing made under division (A)(2) of this section at any time, 26773
with at least thirty days' written notice to a health insuring 26774
corporation, if the contractual periodic prepayment is not in 26775
accordance with sound actuarial principles or is not reasonably 26776
related to the applicable coverage and characteristics of the 26777
applicable class of enrollees.26778

       (3) At any time, the superintendent, upon at least thirty 26779
days' written notice to a health insuring corporation, may 26780
withdraw the approval given under division (A)(1) of this section, 26781
deemed or actual, of any contractual periodic prepayment or 26782
premium rate, or amendment, based on information that either of 26783
the following applies:26784

       (a) The contractual periodic prepayment or premium rate, or 26785
amendment, is not in accordance with sound actuarial principles.26786

       (b) The contractual periodic prepayment or premium rate, or 26787
amendment, is not reasonably related to the applicable coverage 26788
and characteristics of the applicable class of enrollees.26789

       (4) Any disapproval under division (A)(1) of this section, 26790
any rejection of a filing made under division (A)(2) of this 26791
section, or any withdrawal of approval under division (A)(3) of 26792
this section, shall be effected by a written notice, which shall 26793
state the specific basis for the disapproval, rejection, or 26794
withdrawal and shall be issued in accordance with Chapter 119. of 26795
the Revised Code.26796

       (B) Notwithstanding division (A) of this section, a health 26797
insuring corporation may use a contractual periodic prepayment or 26798
premium rate for policies used for the coverage of beneficiaries 26799
enrolled in medicare pursuant to a medicare risk contract or 26800
medicare cost contract, or for policies used for the coverage of 26801
beneficiaries enrolled in the federal employees health benefits 26802
program pursuant to 5 U.S.C.A. 8905, or for policies used for the 26803
coverage of medicaid recipients, or for policies used for the 26804
coverage of beneficiaries under any other federal health care 26805
program regulated by a federal regulatory body, or for policies 26806
used for the coverage of beneficiaries under any contract covering 26807
officers or employees of the state that has been entered into by 26808
the department of administrative services, if both of the 26809
following apply:26810

       (1) The contractual periodic prepayment or premium rate has 26811
been approved by the United States department of health and human 26812
services, the United States office of personnel management, the 26813
department of job and family servicesmedicaid, or the department 26814
of administrative services.26815

       (2) The contractual periodic prepayment or premium rate is 26816
filed with the superintendent prior to use and is accompanied by 26817
documentation of approval from the United States department of 26818
health and human services, the United States office of personnel 26819
management, the department of job and family servicesmedicaid, or 26820
the department of administrative services.26821

       (C) The administrative expense portion of all contractual 26822
periodic prepayment or premium rate filings submitted to the 26823
superintendent for review must reflect the actual cost of 26824
administering the product. The superintendent may require that the 26825
administrative expense portion of the filings be itemized and 26826
supported.26827

       (D)(1) Copayments must be reasonable and must not be a 26828
barrier to the necessary utilization of services by enrollees.26829

       (2) A health insuring corporation, in order to ensure that 26830
copayments are reasonable and not a barrier to the necessary 26831
utilization of basic health care services by enrollees, may do one 26832
of the following:26833

       (a) Impose copayment charges on any single covered basic 26834
health care service that does not exceed forty per cent of the 26835
average cost to the health insuring corporation of providing the 26836
service;26837

       (b) Impose copayment charges that annually do not exceed 26838
twenty per cent of the total annual cost to the health insuring 26839
corporation of providing all covered basic health care services, 26840
including physician office visits, urgent care services, and 26841
emergency health services, when aggregated as to all persons 26842
covered under the filed product in question. In addition, annual 26843
copayment charges as to each enrollee shall not exceed twenty per 26844
cent of the total annual cost to the health insuring corporation 26845
of providing all covered basic health care services, including 26846
physician office visits, urgent care services, and emergency 26847
health services, as to such enrollee. The total annual cost of 26848
providing a health care service is the cost to the health insuring 26849
corporation of providing the health care service to its enrollees 26850
as reduced by any applicable provider discount.26851

       (3) To ensure that copayments are reasonable and not a 26852
barrier to the utilization of basic health care services, a health 26853
insuring corporation may not impose, in any contract year, on any 26854
subscriber or enrollee, copayments that exceed two hundred per 26855
cent of the average annual premium rate to subscribers or 26856
enrollees.26857

       (4) For purposes of division (D) of this section, both of the 26858
following apply:26859

        (a) Copayments imposed by health insuring corporations in 26860
connection with a high deductible health plan that is linked to a 26861
health savings account are reasonable and are not a barrier to the 26862
necessary utilization of services by enrollees.26863

        (b) Divisions (D)(2) and (3) of this section do not apply to 26864
a high deductible health plan that is linked to a health savings 26865
account.26866

       (E) A health insuring corporation shall not impose lifetime 26867
maximums on basic health care services. However, a health insuring 26868
corporation may establish a benefit limit for inpatient hospital 26869
services that are provided pursuant to a policy, contract, 26870
certificate, or agreement for supplemental health care services.26871

       (F) A health insuring corporation may require that an 26872
enrollee pay an annual deductible that does not exceed one 26873
thousand dollars per enrollee or two thousand dollars per family, 26874
except that:26875

       (1) A health insuring corporation may impose higher 26876
deductibles for high deductible health plans that are linked to 26877
health savings accounts;26878

       (2) The superintendent may adopt rules allowing different 26879
annual deductible amounts for plans with a medical savings 26880
account, health reimbursement arrangement, flexible spending 26881
account, or similar account;26882

       (3) A health insuring corporation may impose higher 26883
deductibles under health plans if requested by the group contract, 26884
policy, certificate, or agreement holder, or an individual seeking 26885
coverage under an individual health plan. This shall not be 26886
construed as requiring the health insuring corporation to create 26887
customized health plans for group contract holders or individuals.26888

        (G) As used in this section, "health savings account" and 26889
"high deductible health plan" have the same meanings as in the 26890
"Internal Revenue Code of 1986," 100 Stat. 2085, 26 U.S.C. 223, as 26891
amended.26892

       Sec. 1751.14.  (A) Notwithstanding section 3901.71 of the 26893
Revised Code, any policy, contract, or agreement for health care 26894
services authorized by this chapter that is issued, delivered, or 26895
renewed in this state and that provides that coverage of an 26896
unmarried dependent child will terminate upon attainment of the 26897
limiting age for dependent children specified in the policy, 26898
contract, or agreement, shall also provide in substance both of 26899
the following:26900

        (1) Once an unmarried child has attained the limiting age for 26901
dependent children, as provided in the policy, contract, or 26902
agreement, upon the request of the subscriber, the health insuring 26903
corporation shall offer to cover the unmarried child until the 26904
child attains twenty-eight years of age if all of the following 26905
are true:26906

        (a) The child is the natural child, stepchild, or adopted 26907
child of the subscriber.26908

       (b) The child is a resident of this state or a full-time 26909
student at an accredited public or private institution of higher 26910
education.26911

        (c) The child is not employed by an employer that offers any 26912
health benefit plan under which the child is eligible for 26913
coverage.26914

       (d) The child is not eligible for coverage under the medicaid 26915
program established under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code or the 26916
medicare program established under Title XVIII of the "Social 26917
Security Act," 42 U.S.C. 1395.26918

        (2) That attainment of the limiting age for dependent 26919
children shall not operate to terminate the coverage of a 26920
dependent child if the child is and continues to be both of the 26921
following:26922

       (a) Incapable of self-sustaining employment by reason of 26923
mental retardation or physical handicap;26924

       (b) Primarily dependent upon the subscriber for support and 26925
maintenance.26926

       (B) Proof of incapacity and dependence for purposes of 26927
division (A)(2) of this section shall be furnished to the health 26928
insuring corporation within thirty-one days of the child's 26929
attainment of the limiting age. Upon request, but not more 26930
frequently than annually, the health insuring corporation may 26931
require proof satisfactory to it of the continuance of such 26932
incapacity and dependency.26933

       (C) Nothing in this section shall do any of the following:26934

       (1) Require that any policy, contract, or agreement offer 26935
coverage for dependent children or provide coverage for an 26936
unmarried dependent child's children as dependents on the policy, 26937
contract, or agreement;26938

       (2) Require an employer to pay for any part of the premium 26939
for an unmarried dependent child that has attained the limiting 26940
age for dependents, as provided in the policy, contract, or 26941
agreement;26942

       (3) Require an employer to offer health insurance coverage to 26943
the dependents of any employee.26944

        (D) This section does not apply to any health insuring 26945
corporation policy, contract, or agreement offering only 26946
supplemental health care services or specialty health care 26947
services.26948

       (E) As used in this section, "health benefit plan" has the 26949
same meaning as in section 3924.01 of the Revised Code and also 26950
includes both of the following:26951

        (1) A public employee benefit plan;26952

        (2) A health benefit plan as regulated under the "Employee 26953
Retirement Income Security Act of 1974," 29 U.S.C. 1001, et seq.26954

       Sec. 1751.271.  (A) Each health insuring corporation that 26955
provides coverage to medicaid recipients shall post a performance 26956
bond in the amount of three million dollars as security to fulfill 26957
the obligations of the health insuring corporation to pay claims 26958
of contracted providers for covered health care services provided 26959
to medicaid recipients. The bond shall be payable to the 26960
department of insurance in the event that the health insuring 26961
corporation is placed in rehabilitation or liquidation proceedings 26962
under Chapter 3903. of the Revised Code, and shall become a 26963
special deposit subject to section 3903.14 or 3903.421 of the 26964
Revised Code, as applicable. In lieu of the performance bond, a 26965
medicaid health insuring corporation may deposit securities with 26966
the superintendent of insurance, acceptable to the superintendent, 26967
in the amount of three million dollars, to satisfy the bonding 26968
requirements of this section. Upon rehabilitation or liquidation, 26969
the securities shall become a special deposit subject to sections 26970
3903.14 and 3903.421 of the Revised Code, as applicable. The 26971
health insuring corporation shall receive the interest on the 26972
deposited securities as long as the health insuring corporation 26973
remains solvent.26974

        (B) The bond shall be issued by a surety company licensed 26975
with the department of insurance. The bond or deposit, or any 26976
replacement bond or deposit, shall be in a form acceptable to the 26977
superintendent, and shall remain in effect during the duration of 26978
the medicaid health insuring corporation's license and thereafter 26979
until all claims against the medicaid health insuring corporation 26980
have been paid in full.26981

        (C) Documentation of the bond acceptable to the 26982
superintendent of insurance shall be filed with the superintendent 26983
prior to the issuance of a certificate of authority. Annually, 26984
thirty days prior to the renewal of its certificate of authority, 26985
every medicaid health insuring corporation shall furnish the 26986
superintendent of insurance with evidence that the required bond 26987
is still in effect.26988

        (D) As used in this section:26989

        (1) "Contracted provider" means a provider that has a 26990
contract with a medicaid health insuring corporation to provide 26991
covered health care services to medicaid recipients.26992

        (2) "Medicaid health insuring corporation" means a health 26993
insuring corporation that provides health insurance coverage or 26994
otherwise assumes claims liabilities for medicaid recipients.26995

        (3) "Medicaid recipient" means a person eligible for 26996
assistance underenrolled in the medicaid program operated 26997
pursuant to Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code.26998

       Sec. 1751.31.  (A) Any changes in a health insuring 26999
corporation's solicitation document shall be filed with the 27000
superintendent of insurance. The superintendent, within sixty days 27001
of filing, may disapprove any solicitation document or amendment 27002
to it on any of the grounds stated in this section. Such 27003
disapproval shall be effected by written notice to the health 27004
insuring corporation. The notice shall state the grounds for 27005
disapproval and shall be issued in accordance with Chapter 119. of 27006
the Revised Code.27007

       (B) The solicitation document shall contain all information 27008
necessary to enable a consumer to make an informed choice as to 27009
whether or not to enroll in the health insuring corporation. The 27010
information shall include a specific description of the health 27011
care services to be available and the approximate number and type 27012
of full-time equivalent medical practitioners. The information 27013
shall be presented in the solicitation document in a manner that 27014
is clear, concise, and intelligible to prospective applicants in 27015
the proposed service area.27016

       (C) Every potential applicant whose subscription to a health 27017
care plan is solicited shall receive, at or before the time of 27018
solicitation, a solicitation document approved by the 27019
superintendent.27020

       (D) Notwithstanding division (A) of this section, a health 27021
insuring corporation may use a solicitation document that the 27022
corporation uses in connection with policies for medicare 27023
beneficiaries pursuant to a medicare risk contract or medicare 27024
cost contract, or for policies for beneficiaries of the federal 27025
employees health benefits program pursuant to 5 U.S.C.A. 8905, or 27026
for policies for medicaid recipients, or for policies for 27027
beneficiaries of any other federal health care program regulated 27028
by a federal regulatory body, or for policies for beneficiaries of 27029
contracts covering officers or employees of the state entered into 27030
by the department of administrative services, if both of the 27031
following apply:27032

       (1) The solicitation document has been approved by the United 27033
States department of health and human services, the United States 27034
office of personnel management, the department of job and family 27035
servicesmedicaid, or the department of administrative services.27036

       (2) The solicitation document is filed with the 27037
superintendent of insurance prior to use and is accompanied by 27038
documentation of approval from the United States department of 27039
health and human services, the United States office of personnel 27040
management, the department of job and family servicesmedicaid, or 27041
the department of administrative services.27042

       (E) No health insuring corporation, or its agents or 27043
representatives, shall use monetary or other valuable 27044
consideration, engage in misleading or deceptive practices, or 27045
make untrue, misleading, or deceptive representations to induce 27046
enrollment. Nothing in this division shall prohibit incentive 27047
forms of remuneration such as commission sales programs for the 27048
health insuring corporation's employees and agents.27049

       (F) Any person obligated for any part of a premium rate in 27050
connection with an enrollment agreement, in addition to any right 27051
otherwise available to revoke an offer, may cancel such agreement 27052
within seventy-two hours after having signed the agreement or 27053
offer to enroll. Cancellation occurs when written notice of the 27054
cancellation is given to the health insuring corporation or its 27055
agents or other representatives. A notice of cancellation mailed 27056
to the health insuring corporation shall be considered to have 27057
been filed on its postmark date.27058

       (G) Nothing in this section shall prohibit healthy lifestyle 27059
programs.27060

       Sec. 1751.60.  (A) Except as provided for in divisions (E) 27061
and (F) of this section, every provider or health care facility 27062
that contracts with a health insuring corporation to provide 27063
health care services to the health insuring corporation's 27064
enrollees or subscribers shall seek compensation for covered 27065
services solely from the health insuring corporation and not, 27066
under any circumstances, from the enrollees or subscribers, except 27067
for approved copayments and deductibles.27068

       (B) No subscriber or enrollee of a health insuring 27069
corporation is liable to any contracting provider or health care 27070
facility for the cost of any covered health care services, if the 27071
subscriber or enrollee has acted in accordance with the evidence 27072
of coverage.27073

       (C) Except as provided for in divisions (E) and (F) of this 27074
section, every contract between a health insuring corporation and 27075
provider or health care facility shall contain a provision 27076
approved by the superintendent of insurance requiring the provider 27077
or health care facility to seek compensation solely from the 27078
health insuring corporation and not, under any circumstances, from 27079
the subscriber or enrollee, except for approved copayments and 27080
deductibles.27081

       (D) Nothing in this section shall be construed as preventing 27082
a provider or health care facility from billing the enrollee or 27083
subscriber of a health insuring corporation for noncovered 27084
services.27085

       (E) Upon application by a health insuring corporation and a 27086
provider or health care facility, the superintendent may waive the 27087
requirements of divisions (A) and (C) of this section when, in 27088
addition to the reserve requirements contained in section 1751.28 27089
of the Revised Code, the health insuring corporation provides 27090
sufficient assurances to the superintendent that the provider or 27091
health care facility has been provided with financial guarantees. 27092
No waiver of the requirements of divisions (A) and (C) of this 27093
section is effective as to enrollees or subscribers for whom the 27094
health insuring corporation is compensated under a provider 27095
agreement or risk contract entered into pursuant to Chapter 5111. 27096
or 5115. of the Revised Codeunder the medicaid program.27097

       (F) The requirements of divisions (A) to (C) of this section 27098
apply only to health care services provided to an enrollee or 27099
subscriber prior to the effective date of a termination of a 27100
contract between the health insuring corporation and the provider 27101
or health care facility.27102

       Sec. 1923.14. (A) Except as otherwise provided in this 27103
section, within ten days after receiving a writ of execution 27104
described in division (A) or (B) of section 1923.13 of the Revised 27105
Code, the sheriff, police officer, constable, or bailiff shall 27106
execute it by restoring the plaintiff to the possession of the 27107
premises, and shall levy and collect the costs and make return, as 27108
upon other executions. If an appeal from the judgment of 27109
restitution is filed and if, following the filing of the appeal, a 27110
stay of execution is obtained and any required bond is filed with 27111
the court of common pleas, municipal court, or county court, the 27112
judge of that court immediately shall issue an order to the 27113
sheriff, police officer, constable, or bailiff commanding the 27114
delay of all further proceedings upon the execution. If the 27115
premises have been restored to the plaintiff, the sheriff, police 27116
officer, constable, or bailiff shall forthwith place the defendant 27117
in possession of them, and return the writ with the sheriff's, 27118
police officer's, constable's, or bailiff's proceedings and the 27119
costs taxed on it.27120

       (B)(1) After a court of common pleas, municipal court, or 27121
county court issues a writ of execution described in division (B) 27122
of section 1923.13 of the Revised Code, the clerk of the court 27123
shall send by regular mail, to the last known address of the 27124
titled owner of the manufactured home, mobile home, or 27125
recreational vehicle that is the subject of the writ and to the 27126
last known address of each other person who is listed on the writ 27127
as having any outstanding right, title, or interest in the home, 27128
vehicle, or personal property and to the auditor and treasurer of 27129
the county in which the court is located, a written notice that 27130
the home or vehicle potentially may be sold, destroyed, or have 27131
its title transferred under the circumstances described in 27132
division (B)(3) or (4) of this section.27133

       (2) Except as otherwise provided in this division, after 27134
receiving a writ of execution described in division (B) of section 27135
1923.13 of the Revised Code, and after causing the defendant to be 27136
removed from the residential premises of the manufactured home 27137
park, if necessary, in accordance with the writ, the sheriff, 27138
police officer, constable, or bailiff may cause the manufactured 27139
home, mobile home, or recreational vehicle that is the subject of 27140
the writ, and all personal property on the residential premises, 27141
at the sheriff's, police officer's, constable's, or bailiff's 27142
option, either to be removed from the manufactured home park and, 27143
if necessary, moved to a storage facility of the sheriff's, police 27144
officer's, constable's, or bailiff's choice, or to be retained at 27145
their current location on the residential premises, until they are 27146
claimed by the defendant or they are disposed of in a manner 27147
authorized by division (B)(3), (4), or (6) of this section or by 27148
another section of the Revised Code. The sheriff, police officer, 27149
constable, or bailiff shall not cause the manufactured home, 27150
mobile home, or recreational vehicle that is the subject of the 27151
writ, or the personal property, to be removed from the 27152
manufactured home park or moved to a storage facility if the 27153
holder of any outstanding lien, right, title, or interest in the 27154
home or vehicle, other than the titled owner of the home or 27155
vehicle, meets the conditions set forth in division (B)(6) or (7) 27156
of this section.27157

       The sheriff, police officer, constable, or bailiff who 27158
removes the manufactured home, mobile home, or recreational 27159
vehicle, or the abandoned personal property, from the residential 27160
premises shall be immune from civil liability pursuant to section 27161
2744.03 of the Revised Code for any damage caused to the home, 27162
vehicle, or any personal property during the removal. The park 27163
operator shall not be liable for any damage caused by the park 27164
operator's removal of the manufactured home, mobile home, or 27165
recreational vehicle or the removal of the personal property from 27166
the residential premises, or for any damage to the home, vehicle, 27167
or personal property during the time the home, vehicle, or 27168
property remains abandoned or stored in the manufactured home 27169
park, unless the damage is the result of acts that the park 27170
operator or the park operator's agents or employees performed with 27171
malicious purpose, in bad faith, or in a wanton or reckless 27172
manner. The reasonable costs for a removal of the manufactured 27173
home, mobile home, or recreational vehicle and personal property 27174
and, as applicable, the reasonable costs for its storage shall 27175
constitute a lien upon the home or vehicle payable by the titled 27176
owner of the home or vehicle or payable pursuant to division 27177
(B)(3) of this section.27178

       (3) Except as provided in divisions (B)(4), (5), and (6) of 27179
this section and division (D) of section 1923.12 of the Revised 27180
Code, within sixty days after receiving a writ of execution 27181
described in division (B) of section 1923.13 of the Revised Code, 27182
the sheriff, police officer, constable, or bailiff shall commence 27183
proceedings for the sale of the manufactured home, mobile home, or 27184
recreational vehicle that is the subject of the writ, and the 27185
abandoned personal property on the residential premises, if the 27186
home or vehicle is determined to be abandoned in accordance with 27187
the procedures for the sale of goods on execution under Chapter 27188
2329. of the Revised Code. In addition to all notices required to 27189
be given under section 2329.13 of the Revised Code, the sheriff, 27190
police officer, constable, or bailiff shall serve at their 27191
respective last known addresses a written notice of the date, 27192
time, and place of the sale upon all persons who are listed on the 27193
writ of execution as having any outstanding right, title, or 27194
interest in the abandoned manufactured home, mobile home, or 27195
recreational vehicle and the personal property and shall provide 27196
written notice to the auditor and the treasurer of the county in 27197
which the court issuing the writ is located.27198

        Unless the proceedings are governed by division (D) of 27199
section 1923.12 of the Revised Code, notwithstanding any statutory 27200
provision to the contrary, including, but not limited to, section 27201
2329.66 of the Revised Code, there shall be no stay of execution 27202
or exemption from levy or sale on execution available to the 27203
titled owner of the abandoned manufactured home, mobile home, or 27204
recreational vehicle in relation to a sale under this division. 27205
Except as otherwise provided in sections 2113.031, 2117.25, and 27206
5111.115162.21 of the Revised Code in a case involving a deceased 27207
resident or resident's estate, the sheriff, police officer, 27208
constable, or bailiff shall distribute the proceeds from the sale 27209
of an abandoned manufactured home, mobile home, or recreational 27210
vehicle and any personal property under this division in the 27211
following manner:27212

       (a) The sheriff, police officer, constable, or bailiff shall 27213
first pay the costs for any moving of and any storage outside the 27214
manufactured home park of the home or vehicle and any personal 27215
property pursuant to division (B)(2) of this section, the costs of 27216
the sale, including reimbursing the park operator for the deposit 27217
that the park operator paid to the clerk of court under division 27218
(C) of section 1923.12 of the Revised Code, and any unpaid court 27219
costs assessed against the defendant in the underlying action.27220

       (b) Following the payment required by division (B)(3)(a) of 27221
this section, the sheriff, police officer, constable, or bailiff 27222
shall pay all outstanding tax liens on the home or vehicle.27223

       (c) Following the payment required by division (B)(3)(b) of 27224
this section, the sheriff, police officer, constable, or bailiff 27225
shall pay all other outstanding security interests, liens, or 27226
encumbrances on the home or vehicle by priority of filing or other 27227
priority.27228

       (d) Following the payment required by division (B)(3)(c) of 27229
this section, the sheriff, police officer, constable, or bailiff 27230
shall pay any outstanding monetary judgment rendered under section 27231
1923.09 or 1923.11 of the Revised Code in favor of the plaintiff 27232
and any costs associated with retaining the home or vehicle prior 27233
to the sale at its location on the residential premises within the 27234
manufactured home park pursuant to division (B)(2) of this 27235
section.27236

       (e) After complying with divisions (B)(3)(a) to (d) of this 27237
section, the sheriff, police officer, constable, or bailiff shall 27238
report any remaining money as unclaimed funds pursuant to Chapter 27239
169. of the Revised Code.27240

       Upon the return of any writ of execution for the satisfaction 27241
of which an abandoned manufactured home, mobile home, or 27242
recreational vehicle has been sold under this division, on careful 27243
examination of the proceedings of the sheriff, police officer, 27244
constable, or bailiff conducting the sale, if the court that 27245
issued the writ finds that the sale was made, in all respects, in 27246
conformity with the relevant provisions of Chapter 2329. of the 27247
Revised Code and with this division, it shall direct the clerk of 27248
the court to make an entry on the journal that the court is 27249
satisfied with the legality of the sale and the court shall direct 27250
the clerk of the court of common pleas of the county in which the 27251
writ was issued to issue a certificate of title, free and clear of 27252
all security interests, liens, and encumbrances, to the purchaser 27253
of the home or vehicle. The clerk of the court of common pleas 27254
shall issue the new certificate of title to the purchaser of the 27255
home or vehicle regardless of whether the writ was issued by the 27256
court of common pleas or another court duly authorized to issue 27257
the writ. If the manufactured home, mobile home, or recreational 27258
vehicle sold under this division is located in a manufactured home 27259
park, the purchaser of the home or vehicle shall have no right to 27260
maintain the home or vehicle in the manufactured home park without 27261
the park operator's consent and the sheriff, police officer, 27262
constable, or bailiff conducting the sale shall notify all 27263
prospective purchasers of this fact prior to the commencement of 27264
the sale.27265

       If, after it is offered for sale on two occasions under this 27266
division, the abandoned manufactured home, mobile home, or 27267
recreational vehicle cannot be sold due to a want of bidders, the 27268
sheriff, police officer, constable, or bailiff shall present the 27269
writ of execution unsatisfied to the clerk of the court of common 27270
pleas of the county in which the writ was issued for the issuance 27271
by the clerk in the manner prescribed in section 4505.10 of the 27272
Revised Code of a certificate of title transferring the title of 27273
the home or vehicle to the plaintiff, free and clear of all 27274
security interests, liens, and encumbrances. The clerk of the 27275
court of common pleas shall issue the new certificate of title 27276
transferring the title of the manufactured home, mobile home, or 27277
recreational vehicle to the plaintiff regardless of whether the 27278
writ was issued by the court of common pleas or another court duly 27279
authorized to issue the writ. If any taxes are owed on the home or 27280
vehicle at this time, the county auditor shall remove the 27281
delinquent taxes from the manufactured home tax list and the 27282
delinquent manufactured home tax list and remit any penalties for 27283
late payment of manufactured home taxes. Acceptance of the 27284
certificate of title by the plaintiff terminates all further 27285
proceedings under this section.27286

       (4) Except as provided in division (B)(5) or (6) of this 27287
section and division (D) of section 1923.12 of the Revised Code, 27288
within sixty days after receiving a writ of execution described in 27289
division (B) of section 1923.13 of the Revised Code, if the 27290
manufactured home, mobile home, or recreational vehicle is 27291
determined to be abandoned and to have a value of less than three 27292
thousand dollars, the sheriff, police officer, constable, or 27293
bailiff shall serve at their respective last known addresses a 27294
written notice of potential action as described in this division 27295
upon all persons who are listed on the writ as having any 27296
outstanding right, title, or interest in the home or vehicle. This 27297
notice shall be in addition to all notices required to be given 27298
under section 2329.13 of the Revised Code. Subject to the 27299
fulfillment of these notice requirements, the sheriff, police 27300
officer, constable, or bailiff shall take one of the following 27301
actions with respect to the abandoned manufactured home, mobile 27302
home, or recreational vehicle:27303

       (a) Cause its destruction if there is no person having an 27304
outstanding right, title, or interest in the home or vehicle, 27305
other than the titled owner of the home or vehicle;27306

       (b) Proceed with its sale under division (B)(3) of this 27307
section;27308

       (c) If there is no person having an outstanding right, title, 27309
or interest in the home or vehicle other than the titled owner of 27310
the home or vehicle, or if there is an outstanding right, title, 27311
or interest in the home or vehicle and the lienholder consents in 27312
writing, present the writ of execution to the clerk of the court 27313
of common pleas of the county in which the writ was issued for the 27314
issuance by the clerk in the manner prescribed in section 4505.10 27315
of the Revised Code of a certificate of title transferring the 27316
title of the home or vehicle to the plaintiff, free and clear of 27317
all security interests, liens, and encumbrances. The clerk of the 27318
court of common pleas shall issue the new certificate of title 27319
transferring the title of the home or vehicle regardless of 27320
whether the writ was issued by the court of common pleas or 27321
another court duly authorized to issue the writ. If any taxes are 27322
owed on the home or vehicle at this time, the county auditor shall 27323
remove the delinquent taxes from the manufactured home tax list 27324
and the delinquent manufactured home tax list and remit any 27325
penalties for late payment of manufactured home taxes. Acceptance 27326
of the certificate of title by the plaintiff terminates all 27327
further proceedings under this section.27328

       (5) At any time prior to the issuance of the writ of 27329
execution described in division (B) of section 1923.13 of the 27330
Revised Code, the titled owner of the manufactured home, mobile 27331
home, or recreational vehicle that would be the subject of the 27332
writ may remove the abandoned home or vehicle from the 27333
manufactured home park or other place of storage upon payment to 27334
the county auditor of all outstanding tax liens on the home or 27335
vehicle and, unless the owner is indigent, payment to the clerk of 27336
court of all unpaid court costs assessed against the defendant in 27337
the underlying action. After the issuance of the writ of 27338
execution, the titled owner of the home or vehicle may remove the 27339
abandoned home or vehicle from the manufactured home park or other 27340
place of storage at any time up to the day before the scheduled 27341
sale, destruction, or transfer of the home or vehicle pursuant to 27342
division (B)(3) or (4) of this section upon payment of all of the 27343
following:27344

        (a) All costs for moving and storage of the home or vehicle 27345
pursuant to division (B)(2) of this section and all costs incurred 27346
by the sheriff, police officer, constable, or bailiff up to and 27347
including the date of the removal of the home or vehicle;27348

       (b) All outstanding tax liens on the home or vehicle;27349

       (c) Unless the owner is indigent, all unpaid court costs 27350
assessed against the defendant in the underlying action.27351

       (6) At any time after the issuance of the writ of execution 27352
described in division (B) of section 1923.13 of the Revised Code, 27353
the holder of any outstanding lien, right, title, or interest in 27354
the manufactured home, mobile home, or recreational vehicle, other 27355
than the titled owner of the home or vehicle, may stop the 27356
sheriff, police officer, constable, or bailiff from proceeding 27357
with the sale under this division by doing both of the following:27358

        (a) Commencing a proceeding to repossess the home or vehicle 27359
pursuant to Chapters 1309. and 1317. of the Revised Code;27360

        (b) Paying to the park operator all monthly rental payments 27361
for the lot on which the home or vehicle is located from the time 27362
of the issuance of the writ of execution until the time that the 27363
home or vehicle is sold pursuant to Chapters 1309. and 1317. of 27364
the Revised Code.27365

       (7)(a) At any time prior to the day before the scheduled sale 27366
of the property pursuant to division (B)(3) of this section, the 27367
defendant may remove any personal property of the defendant from 27368
the abandoned home or vehicle or other place of storage.27369

       (b) If personal property owned by a person other than the 27370
defendant is abandoned on the residential premises and has not 27371
previously been removed, the owner of the personal property may 27372
remove the personal property from the abandoned home or vehicle or 27373
other place of storage up to the day before the scheduled sale of 27374
the property pursuant to division (B)(3) of this section upon 27375
presentation of proof of ownership of the property that is 27376
satisfactory to the sheriff, police officer, constable, or bailiff 27377
conducting the sale.27378

       Sec. 2101.24.  (A)(1) Except as otherwise provided by law, 27379
the probate court has exclusive jurisdiction:27380

       (a) To take the proof of wills and to admit to record 27381
authenticated copies of wills executed, proved, and allowed in the 27382
courts of any other state, territory, or country. If the probate 27383
judge is unavoidably absent, any judge of the court of common 27384
pleas may take proof of wills and approve bonds to be given, but 27385
the record of these acts shall be preserved in the usual records 27386
of the probate court.27387

       (b) To grant and revoke letters testamentary and of 27388
administration;27389

       (c) To direct and control the conduct and settle the accounts 27390
of executors and administrators and order the distribution of 27391
estates;27392

       (d) To appoint the attorney general to serve as the 27393
administrator of an estate pursuant to section 2113.06 of the 27394
Revised Code;27395

       (e) To appoint and remove guardians, conservators, and 27396
testamentary trustees, direct and control their conduct, and 27397
settle their accounts;27398

       (f) To grant marriage licenses;27399

       (g) To make inquests respecting persons who are so mentally 27400
impaired as a result of a mental or physical illness or 27401
disability, or mental retardation, or as a result of chronic 27402
substance abuse, that they are unable to manage their property and 27403
affairs effectively, subject to guardianship;27404

       (h) To qualify assignees, appoint and qualify trustees and 27405
commissioners of insolvents, control their conduct, and settle 27406
their accounts;27407

       (i) To authorize the sale of lands, equitable estates, or 27408
interests in lands or equitable estates, and the assignments of 27409
inchoate dower in such cases of sale, on petition by executors, 27410
administrators, and guardians;27411

       (j) To authorize the completion of real property contracts on 27412
petition of executors and administrators;27413

       (k) To construe wills;27414

       (l) To render declaratory judgments, including, but not 27415
limited to, those rendered pursuant to section 2107.084 of the 27416
Revised Code;27417

       (m) To direct and control the conduct of fiduciaries and 27418
settle their accounts;27419

       (n) To authorize the sale or lease of any estate created by 27420
will if the estate is held in trust, on petition by the trustee;27421

       (o) To terminate a testamentary trust in any case in which a 27422
court of equity may do so;27423

       (p) To hear and determine actions to contest the validity of 27424
wills;27425

       (q) To make a determination of the presumption of death of 27426
missing persons and to adjudicate the property rights and 27427
obligations of all parties affected by the presumption;27428

       (r) To hear and determine an action commenced pursuant to 27429
section 3107.41 of the Revised Code to obtain the release of 27430
information pertaining to the birth name of the adopted person and 27431
the identity of the adopted person's biological parents and 27432
biological siblings;27433

       (s) To act for and issue orders regarding wards pursuant to 27434
section 2111.50 of the Revised Code;27435

       (t) To hear and determine actions against sureties on the 27436
bonds of fiduciaries appointed by the probate court;27437

       (u) To hear and determine actions involving informed consent 27438
for medication of persons hospitalized pursuant to section 27439
5122.141 or 5122.15 of the Revised Code;27440

       (v) To hear and determine actions relating to durable powers 27441
of attorney for health care as described in division (D) of 27442
section 1337.16 of the Revised Code;27443

       (w) To hear and determine actions commenced by objecting 27444
individuals, in accordance with section 2133.05 of the Revised 27445
Code;27446

       (x) To hear and determine complaints that pertain to the use 27447
or continuation, or the withholding or withdrawal, of 27448
life-sustaining treatment in connection with certain patients 27449
allegedly in a terminal condition or in a permanently unconscious 27450
state pursuant to division (E) of section 2133.08 of the Revised 27451
Code, in accordance with that division;27452

       (y) To hear and determine applications that pertain to the 27453
withholding or withdrawal of nutrition and hydration from certain 27454
patients allegedly in a permanently unconscious state pursuant to 27455
section 2133.09 of the Revised Code, in accordance with that 27456
section;27457

       (z) To hear and determine applications of attending 27458
physicians in accordance with division (B) of section 2133.15 of 27459
the Revised Code;27460

       (aa) To hear and determine actions relative to the use or 27461
continuation of comfort care in connection with certain principals 27462
under durable powers of attorney for health care, declarants under 27463
declarations, or patients in accordance with division (E) of 27464
either section 1337.16 or 2133.12 of the Revised Code;27465

       (bb) To hear and determine applications for an order 27466
relieving an estate from administration under section 2113.03 of 27467
the Revised Code;27468

       (cc) To hear and determine applications for an order granting 27469
a summary release from administration under section 2113.031 of 27470
the Revised Code;27471

       (dd) To hear and determine actions relating to the exercise 27472
of the right of disposition, in accordance with section 2108.90 of 27473
the Revised Code;27474

       (ee) To hear and determine actions relating to the 27475
disinterment and reinterment of human remains under section 517.23 27476
of the Revised Code;27477

       (ff) To hear and determine petitions for an order for 27478
treatment of a person suffering from alcohol and other drug abuse 27479
filed under section 3793.345119.93 of the Revised Code and to 27480
order treatment of that nature in accordance with, and take other 27481
actions afforded to the court under, sections 3793.315119.90 to 27482
3793.395119.98 of the Revised Code.27483

       (2) In addition to the exclusive jurisdiction conferred upon 27484
the probate court by division (A)(1) of this section, the probate 27485
court shall have exclusive jurisdiction over a particular subject 27486
matter if both of the following apply:27487

       (a) Another section of the Revised Code expressly confers 27488
jurisdiction over that subject matter upon the probate court.27489

       (b) No section of the Revised Code expressly confers 27490
jurisdiction over that subject matter upon any other court or 27491
agency.27492

       (B)(1) The probate court has concurrent jurisdiction with, 27493
and the same powers at law and in equity as, the general division 27494
of the court of common pleas to issue writs and orders, and to 27495
hear and determine actions as follows:27496

       (a) If jurisdiction relative to a particular subject matter 27497
is stated to be concurrent in a section of the Revised Code or has 27498
been construed by judicial decision to be concurrent, any action 27499
that involves that subject matter;27500

       (b) Any action that involves an inter vivos trust; a trust 27501
created pursuant to section 5815.28 of the Revised Code; a 27502
charitable trust or foundation; subject to divisions (A)(1)(u) and 27503
(z) of this section, a power of attorney, including, but not 27504
limited to, a durable power of attorney; the medical treatment of 27505
a competent adult; or a writ of habeas corpus;27506

       (c) Subject to section 2101.31 of the Revised Code, any 27507
action with respect to a probate estate, guardianship, trust, or 27508
post-death dispute that involves any of the following:27509

        (i) A designation or removal of a beneficiary of a life 27510
insurance policy, annuity contract, retirement plan, brokerage 27511
account, security account, bank account, real property, or 27512
tangible personal property;27513

        (ii) A designation or removal of a payable-on-death 27514
beneficiary or transfer-on-death beneficiary;27515

        (iii) A change in the title to any asset involving a joint 27516
and survivorship interest;27517

        (iv) An alleged gift;27518

        (v) The passing of assets upon the death of an individual 27519
otherwise than by will, intestate succession, or trust.27520

       (2) Any action that involves a concurrent jurisdiction 27521
subject matter and that is before the probate court may be 27522
transferred by the probate court, on its order, to the general 27523
division of the court of common pleas.27524

       (C) The probate court has plenary power at law and in equity 27525
to dispose fully of any matter that is properly before the court, 27526
unless the power is expressly otherwise limited or denied by a 27527
section of the Revised Code.27528

       (D) The jurisdiction acquired by a probate court over a 27529
matter or proceeding is exclusive of that of any other probate 27530
court, except when otherwise provided by law.27531

       Sec. 2108.05.  (A) A donor may make an anatomical gift by 27532
doing any of the following:27533

       (1) Authorizing a statement or symbol to be imprinted on the 27534
donor's driver's license or identification card indicating that 27535
the donor has certified a willingness to make an anatomical gift;27536

       (2) Specifying in the donor's will an intent to make an 27537
anatomical gift;27538

       (3) Specifying an intent to make an anatomical gift in the 27539
donor's declaration as described in section 2133.16 of the Revised 27540
Code;27541

       (4) During a terminal illness or injury of the donor, 27542
communicating in any manner to a minimum of two adults, at least 27543
one of whom is a disinterested witness, that the donor intends to 27544
make an anatomical gift;27545

       (5) Following the procedure in division (B) of this section.27546

       (B) A donor or other person authorized to make an anatomical 27547
gift under section 2108.04 of the Revised Code may make a gift by 27548
a donor card or other record signed by the donor or other person 27549
making the gift or by authorizing that a statement or symbol 27550
indicating that the donor has certified a willingness to make an 27551
anatomical gift be included in a donor registry. If the donor or 27552
other person is physically unable to sign a record, the record may 27553
be signed by another individual at the direction of the donor or 27554
other person and shall do both of the following:27555

       (1) Be witnessed by at least two adults, at least one of whom 27556
is a disinterested witness, who have signed at the request of the 27557
donor or the other person;27558

       (2) State that it has been signed and witnessed as provided 27559
in division (B)(1) of this section.27560

       (C) Once a donor has authorized a statement or symbol to be 27561
imprinted on the donor's driver's license or identification card 27562
indicating that the donor has certified a willingness to make an 27563
anatomical gift, the donor does not need to recertify the donor's 27564
willingness to make an anatomical gift upon renewal of the 27565
driver's license or identification card. The authorization shall 27566
remain in effect until the donor withdraws that authorization.27567

       (D) Revocation, suspension, expiration, or cancellation of a 27568
driver's license or identification card upon which an anatomical 27569
gift is indicated does not invalidate the gift.27570

       (D)(E) An anatomical gift made by will takes effect on the 27571
donor's death whether or not the will is probated. Invalidation of 27572
the will after the donor's death does not invalidate the gift.27573

       Sec. 2113.041. (A) The administrator of the medicaid estate 27574
recovery program established pursuant to section 5111.115162.2127575
of the Revised Code may present an affidavit to a financial 27576
institution requesting that the financial institution release 27577
account proceeds to recover the cost of services correctly 27578
provided to a medicaid recipient who is subject to the medicaid 27579
estate recovery program. The affidavit shall include all of the 27580
following information:27581

        (1) The name of the decedent;27582

        (2) The name of any person who gave notice that the decedent 27583
was a medicaid recipient and that person's relationship to the 27584
decedent;27585

        (3) The name of the financial institution;27586

        (4) The account number;27587

        (5) A description of the claim for estate recovery;27588

        (6) The amount of funds to be recovered.27589

        (B) A financial institution may release account proceeds to 27590
the administrator of the medicaid estate recovery program if all 27591
of the following apply:27592

        (1) The decedent held an account at the financial institution 27593
that was in the decedent's name only.27594

        (2) No estate has been, and it is reasonable to assume that 27595
no estate will be, opened for the decedent.27596

        (3) The decedent has no outstanding debts known to the 27597
administrator of the medicaid estate recovery program.27598

        (4) The financial institution has received no objections or 27599
has determined that no valid objections to release of proceeds 27600
have been received.27601

        (C) If proceeds have been released pursuant to division (B) 27602
of this section and the department of job and family services27603
medicaid receives notice of a valid claim to the proceeds that has 27604
a higher priority under section 2117.25 of the Revised Code than 27605
the claim of the medicaid estate recovery program, the department 27606
may refund the proceeds to the financial institution or pay them 27607
to the person or government entity with the claim.27608

       Sec. 2113.06. (A) Administration of the estate of an 27609
intestate shall be granted to persons mentioned in this division, 27610
in the following order:27611

       (1) To the surviving spouse of the deceased, if resident of 27612
the state;27613

       (2) To one of the next of kin of the deceased, resident of 27614
the state.27615

       (B) If the persons entitled to administer the estate under 27616
division (A) of this section fail to take or renounce 27617
administration voluntarily, the matter shall be set for hearing 27618
and notice given to the persons.27619

       (C) If there are no persons entitled to administration, if 27620
they are for any reason unsuitable for the discharge of the trust, 27621
or if without sufficient cause they neglect to apply within a 27622
reasonable time for the administration of the estate, their right 27623
to priority shall be lost, and the court shall commit the 27624
administration to some suitable person who is a resident of the 27625
state, or to the attorney general or the attorney general's 27626
designee, if the department of job and family servicesmedicaid is 27627
seeking to recover medical assistancethe costs of medicaid 27628
services from the deceased pursuant to section 5111.115162.21 or 27629
5111.1115162.211 of the Revised Code. The person granted 27630
administration may be a creditor of the estate.27631

       (D) This section applies to the appointment of an 27632
administrator de bonis non.27633

       Sec. 2117.061. (A) As used in this section:27634

       (1) "Medicaid estate recovery program" means the program 27635
instituted under section 5111.115162.21 of the Revised Code.27636

        (2) "Person responsible for the estate" means the executor, 27637
administrator, commissioner, or person who filed pursuant to 27638
section 2113.03 of the Revised Code for release from 27639
administration of an estate.27640

        (B) The person responsible for the estate of a decedent 27641
subject to the medicaid estate recovery program or the estate of a 27642
decedent who was the spouse of a decedent subject to the medicaid 27643
estate recovery program shall submit a properly completed medicaid 27644
estate recovery notice form to the administrator of the medicaid 27645
estate recovery program not later than thirty days after the 27646
occurrence of any of the following:27647

        (1) The granting of letters of administration or letters 27648
testamentary;27649

        (2) The filing of an application for release from 27650
administration or summary release from administration.27651

        (C) The person responsible for the estate shall mark the 27652
appropriate box on the appropriate probate form that gives notice 27653
to the administrator of the medicaid estate recovery program to 27654
indicate compliance with the requirements of division (B) of this 27655
section.27656

       (D) The administrator of the medicaid estate recovery program 27657
shall present a claim for estate recovery to the person 27658
responsible for the estate of the decedent or the person's legal 27659
representative not later than ninety days after the date on which 27660
the medicaid estate recovery notice form is received under 27661
division (B) of this section or one year after the decedent's 27662
death, whichever is later.27663

       Sec. 2117.25. (A) Every executor or administrator shall 27664
proceed with diligence to pay the debts of the decedent and shall 27665
apply the assets in the following order:27666

       (1) Costs and expenses of administration;27667

       (2) An amount, not exceeding four thousand dollars, for 27668
funeral expenses that are included in the bill of a funeral 27669
director, funeral expenses other than those in the bill of a 27670
funeral director that are approved by the probate court, and an 27671
amount, not exceeding three thousand dollars, for burial and 27672
cemetery expenses, including that portion of the funeral 27673
director's bill allocated to cemetery expenses that have been paid 27674
to the cemetery by the funeral director.27675

       For purposes of division (A)(2) of this section, burial and 27676
cemetery expenses shall be limited to the following:27677

       (a) The purchase of a right of interment;27678

       (b) Monuments or other markers;27679

       (c) The outer burial container;27680

       (d) The cost of opening and closing the place of interment;27681

       (e) The urn.27682

       (3) The allowance for support made to the surviving spouse, 27683
minor children, or both under section 2106.13 of the Revised Code;27684

       (4) Debts entitled to a preference under the laws of the 27685
United States;27686

       (5) Expenses of the last sickness of the decedent;27687

       (6) If the total bill of a funeral director for funeral 27688
expenses exceeds four thousand dollars, then, in addition to the 27689
amount described in division (A)(2) of this section, an amount, 27690
not exceeding two thousand dollars, for funeral expenses that are 27691
included in the bill and that exceed four thousand dollars;27692

       (7) Expenses of the decedent's last continuous stay in a 27693
nursing home as defined in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code, 27694
residential facility as defined in section 5123.19 of the Revised 27695
Code, or hospital long-term care unit as defined in section 27696
3721.505168.40 of the Revised Code.27697

       For purposes of division (A)(7) of this section, a decedent's 27698
last continuancecontinuous stay includes up to thirty consecutive 27699
days during which the decedent was temporarily absent from the 27700
nursing home, residential facility, or hospital long-term care 27701
unit.27702

       (8) Personal property taxes, claims made under the medicaid 27703
estate recovery program instituted pursuant to section 5111.1127704
5162.21 of the Revised Code, and obligations for which the 27705
decedent was personally liable to the state or any of its 27706
subdivisions;27707

       (9) Debts for manual labor performed for the decedent within 27708
twelve months preceding the decedent's death, not exceeding three 27709
hundred dollars to any one person;27710

       (10) Other debts for which claims have been presented and 27711
finally allowed.27712

       (B) The part of the bill of a funeral director that exceeds 27713
the total of six thousand dollars as described in divisions (A)(2) 27714
and (6) of this section, and the part of a claim included in 27715
division (A)(9) of this section that exceeds three hundred dollars 27716
shall be included as a debt under division (A)(10) of this 27717
section, depending upon the time when the claim for the additional 27718
amount is presented.27719

       (C) Any natural person or fiduciary who pays a claim of any 27720
creditor described in division (A) of this section shall be 27721
subrogated to the rights of that creditor proportionate to the 27722
amount of the payment and shall be entitled to reimbursement for 27723
that amount in accordance with the priority of payments set forth 27724
in that division.27725

       (D)(1) Chapters 2113. to 2125. of the Revised Code, relating 27726
to the manner in which and the time within which claims shall be 27727
presented, shall apply to claims set forth in divisions (A)(2), 27728
(6), and (9) of this section. Claims for an expense of 27729
administration or for the allowance for support need not be 27730
presented. The executor or administrator shall pay debts included 27731
in divisions (A)(4) and (8) of this section, of which the executor 27732
or administrator has knowledge, regardless of presentation.27733

       (2) The giving of written notice to an executor or 27734
administrator of a motion or application to revive an action 27735
pending against the decedent at the date of death shall be 27736
equivalent to the presentation of a claim to the executor or 27737
administrator for the purpose of determining the order of payment 27738
of any judgment rendered or decree entered in such an action.27739

       (E) No payments shall be made to creditors of one class until 27740
all those of the preceding class are fully paid or provided for. 27741
If the assets are insufficient to pay all the claims of one class, 27742
the creditors of that class shall be paid ratably.27743

       (F) If it appears at any time that the assets have been 27744
exhausted in paying prior or preferred charges, allowances, or 27745
claims, those payments shall be a bar to an action on any claim 27746
not entitled to that priority or preference.27747

       Sec. 2133.01.  Unless the context otherwise requires, as used 27748
in sections 2133.01 to 2133.15 of the Revised Code:27749

       (A) "Adult" means an individual who is eighteen years of age 27750
or older.27751

       (B) "Attending physician" means the physician to whom a 27752
declarant or other patient, or the family of a declarant or other 27753
patient, has assigned primary responsibility for the treatment or 27754
care of the declarant or other patient, or, if the responsibility 27755
has not been assigned, the physician who has accepted that 27756
responsibility.27757

       (C) "Comfort care" means any of the following:27758

       (1) Nutrition when administered to diminish the pain or 27759
discomfort of a declarant or other patient, but not to postpone 27760
the declarant's or other patient's death;27761

       (2) Hydration when administered to diminish the pain or 27762
discomfort of a declarant or other patient, but not to postpone 27763
the declarant's or other patient's death;27764

       (3) Any other medical or nursing procedure, treatment, 27765
intervention, or other measure that is taken to diminish the pain 27766
or discomfort of a declarant or other patient, but not to postpone 27767
the declarant's or other patient's death.27768

       (D) "Consulting physician" means a physician who, in 27769
conjunction with the attending physician of a declarant or other 27770
patient, makes one or more determinations that are required to be 27771
made by the attending physician, or to be made by the attending 27772
physician and one other physician, by an applicable provision of 27773
this chapter, to a reasonable degree of medical certainty and in 27774
accordance with reasonable medical standards.27775

       (E) "Declarant" means any adult who has executed a 27776
declaration in accordance with section 2133.02 of the Revised 27777
Code.27778

       (F) "Declaration" means a written document executed in 27779
accordance with section 2133.02 of the Revised Code.27780

       (G) "Durable power of attorney for health care" means a 27781
document created pursuant to sections 1337.11 to 1337.17 of the 27782
Revised Code.27783

       (H) "Guardian" means a person appointed by a probate court 27784
pursuant to Chapter 2111. of the Revised Code to have the care and 27785
management of the person of an incompetent.27786

       (I) "Health care facility" means any of the following:27787

       (1) A hospital;27788

       (2) A hospice care program, pediatric respite care program, 27789
or other institution that specializes in comfort care of patients 27790
in a terminal condition or in a permanently unconscious state;27791

       (3) A nursing home or residential care facility, as defined 27792
in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code;27793

       (4) A home health agency and any residential facility where a 27794
person is receiving care under the direction of a home health 27795
agency;27796

       (5) An intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded.27797

       (J) "Health care personnel" means physicians, nurses, 27798
physician assistants, emergency medical technicians-basic, 27799
emergency medical technicians-intermediate, emergency medical 27800
technicians-paramedic, medical technicians, dietitians, other 27801
authorized persons acting under the direction of an attending 27802
physician, and administrators of health care facilities.27803

       (K) "Home health agency" has the same meaning as in section 27804
3701.881 of the Revised Code.27805

       (L) "Hospice care program" and "pediatric respite care 27806
program" have the same meanings as in section 3712.01 of the 27807
Revised Code.27808

       (M) "Hospital" has the same meanings as in sections 3701.01, 27809
3727.01, and 5122.01 of the Revised Code.27810

       (N) "Hydration" means fluids that are artificially or 27811
technologically administered.27812

       (O) "Incompetent" has the same meaning as in section 2111.01 27813
of the Revised Code.27814

       (P) "Intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded" 27815
has the same meaning as in section 5111.205124.01 of the Revised 27816
Code.27817

       (Q) "Life-sustaining treatment" means any medical procedure, 27818
treatment, intervention, or other measure that, when administered 27819
to a qualified patient or other patient, will serve principally to 27820
prolong the process of dying.27821

       (R) "Nurse" means a person who is licensed to practice 27822
nursing as a registered nurse or to practice practical nursing as 27823
a licensed practical nurse pursuant to Chapter 4723. of the 27824
Revised Code.27825

       (S) "Nursing home" has the same meaning as in section 3721.01 27826
of the Revised Code.27827

       (T) "Nutrition" means sustenance that is artificially or 27828
technologically administered.27829

       (U) "Permanently unconscious state" means a state of 27830
permanent unconsciousness in a declarant or other patient that, to 27831
a reasonable degree of medical certainty as determined in 27832
accordance with reasonable medical standards by the declarant's or 27833
other patient's attending physician and one other physician who 27834
has examined the declarant or other patient, is characterized by 27835
both of the following:27836

       (1) Irreversible unawareness of one's being and environment.27837

       (2) Total loss of cerebral cortical functioning, resulting in 27838
the declarant or other patient having no capacity to experience 27839
pain or suffering.27840

       (V) "Person" has the same meaning as in section 1.59 of the 27841
Revised Code and additionally includes political subdivisions and 27842
governmental agencies, boards, commissions, departments, 27843
institutions, offices, and other instrumentalities.27844

       (W) "Physician" means a person who is authorized under 27845
Chapter 4731. of the Revised Code to practice medicine and surgery 27846
or osteopathic medicine and surgery.27847

       (X) "Political subdivision" and "state" have the same 27848
meanings as in section 2744.01 of the Revised Code.27849

       (Y) "Professional disciplinary action" means action taken by 27850
the board or other entity that regulates the professional conduct 27851
of health care personnel, including the state medical board and 27852
the board of nursing.27853

       (Z) "Qualified patient" means an adult who has executed a 27854
declaration and has been determined to be in a terminal condition 27855
or in a permanently unconscious state.27856

       (AA) "Terminal condition" means an irreversible, incurable, 27857
and untreatable condition caused by disease, illness, or injury 27858
from which, to a reasonable degree of medical certainty as 27859
determined in accordance with reasonable medical standards by a 27860
declarant's or other patient's attending physician and one other 27861
physician who has examined the declarant or other patient, both of 27862
the following apply:27863

       (1) There can be no recovery.27864

       (2) Death is likely to occur within a relatively short time 27865
if life-sustaining treatment is not administered.27866

       (BB) "Tort action" means a civil action for damages for 27867
injury, death, or loss to person or property, other than a civil 27868
action for damages for breach of a contract or another agreement 27869
between persons.27870

       Sec. 2133.25.  (A) The department of health, by rule adopted 27871
pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, shall adopt a 27872
standardized method of procedure for the withholding of CPR by 27873
physicians, emergency medical services personnel, and health care 27874
facilities in accordance with sections 2133.21 to 2133.26 of the 27875
Revised Code. The standardized method shall specify criteria for 27876
determining when a do-not-resuscitate order issued by a physician 27877
is current. The standardized method so adopted shall be the 27878
"do-not-resuscitate protocol" for purposes of sections 2133.21 to 27879
2133.26 of the Revised Code. The department also shall approve one 27880
or more standard forms of DNR identification to be used throughout 27881
this state.27882

       (B) The department of health shall adopt rules in accordance 27883
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code for the administration of 27884
sections 2133.21 to 2133.26 of the Revised Code.27885

       (C) The department of health shall appoint an advisory 27886
committee to advise the department in the development of rules 27887
under this section. The advisory committee shall include, but 27888
shall not be limited to, representatives of each of the following 27889
organizations:27890

       (1) The association for hospitals and health systems (OHA);27891

       (2) The Ohio state medical association;27892

       (3) The Ohio chapter of the American college of emergency 27893
physicians;27894

       (4) The Ohio hospice organization;27895

       (5) The Ohio council for home care;27896

       (6) The Ohio health care association;27897

       (7) The Ohio ambulance association;27898

       (8) The Ohio medical directors association;27899

       (9) The Ohio association of emergency medical services;27900

       (10) The bioethics network of Ohio;27901

       (11) The Ohio nurses association;27902

       (12) The Ohio academy of nursing homes;27903

       (13) The Ohio association of professional firefighters;27904

       (14) The department of developmental disabilities;27905

       (15) The Ohio osteopathic association;27906

       (16) The association of Ohio philanthropic homes, housing and 27907
services for the aging;27908

       (17) The catholic conference of Ohio;27909

       (18) The department of aging;27910

       (19) The department of mental healthmental health and 27911
addiction services;27912

       (20) The Ohio private residential association;27913

       (21) The northern Ohio fire fighters association.27914

       Sec. 2151.011.  (A) As used in the Revised Code:27915

       (1) "Juvenile court" means whichever of the following is 27916
applicable that has jurisdiction under this chapter and Chapter 27917
2152. of the Revised Code:27918

       (a) The division of the court of common pleas specified in 27919
section 2101.022 or 2301.03 of the Revised Code as having 27920
jurisdiction under this chapter and Chapter 2152. of the Revised 27921
Code or as being the juvenile division or the juvenile division 27922
combined with one or more other divisions;27923

       (b) The juvenile court of Cuyahoga county or Hamilton county 27924
that is separately and independently created by section 2151.08 or 27925
Chapter 2153. of the Revised Code and that has jurisdiction under 27926
this chapter and Chapter 2152. of the Revised Code;27927

       (c) If division (A)(1)(a) or (b) of this section does not 27928
apply, the probate division of the court of common pleas.27929

       (2) "Juvenile judge" means a judge of a court having 27930
jurisdiction under this chapter.27931

       (3) "Private child placing agency" means any association, as 27932
defined in section 5103.02 of the Revised Code, that is certified 27933
under section 5103.03 of the Revised Code to accept temporary, 27934
permanent, or legal custody of children and place the children for 27935
either foster care or adoption.27936

       (4) "Private noncustodial agency" means any person, 27937
organization, association, or society certified by the department 27938
of job and family services that does not accept temporary or 27939
permanent legal custody of children, that is privately operated in 27940
this state, and that does one or more of the following:27941

       (a) Receives and cares for children for two or more 27942
consecutive weeks;27943

       (b) Participates in the placement of children in certified 27944
foster homes;27945

       (c) Provides adoption services in conjunction with a public 27946
children services agency or private child placing agency.27947

       (B) As used in this chapter:27948

       (1) "Adequate parental care" means the provision by a child's 27949
parent or parents, guardian, or custodian of adequate food, 27950
clothing, and shelter to ensure the child's health and physical 27951
safety and the provision by a child's parent or parents of 27952
specialized services warranted by the child's physical or mental 27953
needs.27954

       (2) "Adult" means an individual who is eighteen years of age 27955
or older.27956

       (3) "Agreement for temporary custody" means a voluntary 27957
agreement authorized by section 5103.15 of the Revised Code that 27958
transfers the temporary custody of a child to a public children 27959
services agency or a private child placing agency.27960

       (4) "Alternative response" means the public children services 27961
agency's response to a report of child abuse or neglect that 27962
engages the family in a comprehensive evaluation of child safety, 27963
risk of subsequent harm, and family strengths and needs and that 27964
does not include a determination as to whether child abuse or 27965
neglect occurred.27966

       (5) "Certified foster home" means a foster home, as defined 27967
in section 5103.02 of the Revised Code, certified under section 27968
5103.03 of the Revised Code.27969

       (6) "Child" means a person who is under eighteen years of 27970
age, except that the juvenile court has jurisdiction over any 27971
person who is adjudicated an unruly child prior to attaining 27972
eighteen years of age until the person attains twenty-one years of 27973
age, and, for purposes of that jurisdiction related to that 27974
adjudication, a person who is so adjudicated an unruly child shall 27975
be deemed a "child" until the person attains twenty-one years of 27976
age.27977

       (7) "Child day camp," "child care," "child day-care center," 27978
"part-time child day-care center," "type A family day-care home," 27979
"certified type B family day-care home," "type B home," 27980
"administrator of a child day-care center," "administrator of a 27981
type A family day-care home," "in-home aide," and "authorized 27982
provider" have the same meanings as in section 5104.01 of the 27983
Revised Code.27984

       (8) "Child care provider" means an individual who is a 27985
child-care staff member or administrator of a child day-care 27986
center, a type A family day-care home, or a type B family day-care 27987
home, or an in-home aide or an individual who is licensed, is 27988
regulated, is approved, operates under the direction of, or 27989
otherwise is certified by the department of job and family 27990
services, department of developmental disabilities, or the early 27991
childhood programs of the department of education.27992

       (9) "Chronic truant" has the same meaning as in section 27993
2152.02 of the Revised Code.27994

       (10) "Commit" means to vest custody as ordered by the court.27995

       (11) "Counseling" includes both of the following:27996

       (a) General counseling services performed by a public 27997
children services agency or shelter for victims of domestic 27998
violence to assist a child, a child's parents, and a child's 27999
siblings in alleviating identified problems that may cause or have 28000
caused the child to be an abused, neglected, or dependent child.28001

       (b) Psychiatric or psychological therapeutic counseling 28002
services provided to correct or alleviate any mental or emotional 28003
illness or disorder and performed by a licensed psychiatrist, 28004
licensed psychologist, or a person licensed under Chapter 4757. of 28005
the Revised Code to engage in social work or professional 28006
counseling.28007

       (12) "Custodian" means a person who has legal custody of a 28008
child or a public children services agency or private child 28009
placing agency that has permanent, temporary, or legal custody of 28010
a child.28011

       (13) "Delinquent child" has the same meaning as in section 28012
2152.02 of the Revised Code.28013

       (14) "Detention" means the temporary care of children pending 28014
court adjudication or disposition, or execution of a court order, 28015
in a public or private facility designed to physically restrict 28016
the movement and activities of children.28017

       (15) "Developmental disability" has the same meaning as in 28018
section 5123.01 of the Revised Code.28019

       (16) "Differential response approach" means an approach that 28020
a public children services agency may use to respond to accepted 28021
reports of child abuse or neglect with either an alternative 28022
response or a traditional response.28023

       (17) "Foster caregiver" has the same meaning as in section 28024
5103.02 of the Revised Code.28025

       (18) "Guardian" means a person, association, or corporation 28026
that is granted authority by a probate court pursuant to Chapter 28027
2111. of the Revised Code to exercise parental rights over a child 28028
to the extent provided in the court's order and subject to the 28029
residual parental rights of the child's parents.28030

       (19) "Habitual truant" means any child of compulsory school 28031
age who is absent without legitimate excuse for absence from the 28032
public school the child is supposed to attend for five or more 28033
consecutive school days, seven or more school days in one school 28034
month, or twelve or more school days in a school year.28035

       (20) "Juvenile traffic offender" has the same meaning as in 28036
section 2152.02 of the Revised Code.28037

       (21) "Legal custody" means a legal status that vests in the 28038
custodian the right to have physical care and control of the child 28039
and to determine where and with whom the child shall live, and the 28040
right and duty to protect, train, and discipline the child and to 28041
provide the child with food, shelter, education, and medical care, 28042
all subject to any residual parental rights, privileges, and 28043
responsibilities. An individual granted legal custody shall 28044
exercise the rights and responsibilities personally unless 28045
otherwise authorized by any section of the Revised Code or by the 28046
court.28047

       (22) A "legitimate excuse for absence from the public school 28048
the child is supposed to attend" includes, but is not limited to, 28049
any of the following:28050

       (a) The fact that the child in question has enrolled in and 28051
is attending another public or nonpublic school in this or another 28052
state;28053

       (b) The fact that the child in question is excused from 28054
attendance at school for any of the reasons specified in section 28055
3321.04 of the Revised Code;28056

       (c) The fact that the child in question has received an age 28057
and schooling certificate in accordance with section 3331.01 of 28058
the Revised Code.28059

       (23) "Mental illness" and "mentally ill person subject to 28060
hospitalization by court order" have the same meanings as in 28061
section 5122.01 of the Revised Code.28062

       (24) "Mental injury" means any behavioral, cognitive, 28063
emotional, or mental disorder in a child caused by an act or 28064
omission that is described in section 2919.22 of the Revised Code 28065
and is committed by the parent or other person responsible for the 28066
child's care.28067

       (25) "Mentally retarded person" has the same meaning as in 28068
section 5123.01 of the Revised Code.28069

       (26) "Nonsecure care, supervision, or training" means care, 28070
supervision, or training of a child in a facility that does not 28071
confine or prevent movement of the child within the facility or 28072
from the facility.28073

       (27) "Of compulsory school age" has the same meaning as in 28074
section 3321.01 of the Revised Code.28075

       (28) "Organization" means any institution, public, 28076
semipublic, or private, and any private association, society, or 28077
agency located or operating in the state, incorporated or 28078
unincorporated, having among its functions the furnishing of 28079
protective services or care for children, or the placement of 28080
children in certified foster homes or elsewhere.28081

       (29) "Out-of-home care" means detention facilities, shelter 28082
facilities, certified children's crisis care facilities, certified 28083
foster homes, placement in a prospective adoptive home prior to 28084
the issuance of a final decree of adoption, organizations, 28085
certified organizations, child day-care centers, type A family 28086
day-care homes, child care provided by type B family day-care home 28087
providers and by in-home aides, group home providers, group homes, 28088
institutions, state institutions, residential facilities, 28089
residential care facilities, residential camps, day camps, public 28090
schools, chartered nonpublic schools, educational service centers, 28091
hospitals, and medical clinics that are responsible for the care, 28092
physical custody, or control of children.28093

       (30) "Out-of-home care child abuse" means any of the 28094
following when committed by a person responsible for the care of a 28095
child in out-of-home care:28096

       (a) Engaging in sexual activity with a child in the person's 28097
care;28098

       (b) Denial to a child, as a means of punishment, of proper or 28099
necessary subsistence, education, medical care, or other care 28100
necessary for a child's health;28101

       (c) Use of restraint procedures on a child that cause injury 28102
or pain;28103

       (d) Administration of prescription drugs or psychotropic 28104
medication to the child without the written approval and ongoing 28105
supervision of a licensed physician;28106

       (e) Commission of any act, other than by accidental means, 28107
that results in any injury to or death of the child in out-of-home 28108
care or commission of any act by accidental means that results in 28109
an injury to or death of a child in out-of-home care and that is 28110
at variance with the history given of the injury or death.28111

       (31) "Out-of-home care child neglect" means any of the 28112
following when committed by a person responsible for the care of a 28113
child in out-of-home care:28114

       (a) Failure to provide reasonable supervision according to 28115
the standards of care appropriate to the age, mental and physical 28116
condition, or other special needs of the child;28117

       (b) Failure to provide reasonable supervision according to 28118
the standards of care appropriate to the age, mental and physical 28119
condition, or other special needs of the child, that results in 28120
sexual or physical abuse of the child by any person;28121

       (c) Failure to develop a process for all of the following:28122

       (i) Administration of prescription drugs or psychotropic 28123
drugs for the child;28124

       (ii) Assuring that the instructions of the licensed physician 28125
who prescribed a drug for the child are followed;28126

       (iii) Reporting to the licensed physician who prescribed the 28127
drug all unfavorable or dangerous side effects from the use of the 28128
drug.28129

       (d) Failure to provide proper or necessary subsistence, 28130
education, medical care, or other individualized care necessary 28131
for the health or well-being of the child;28132

       (e) Confinement of the child to a locked room without 28133
monitoring by staff;28134

       (f) Failure to provide ongoing security for all prescription 28135
and nonprescription medication;28136

       (g) Isolation of a child for a period of time when there is 28137
substantial risk that the isolation, if continued, will impair or 28138
retard the mental health or physical well-being of the child.28139

       (32) "Permanent custody" means a legal status that vests in a 28140
public children services agency or a private child placing agency, 28141
all parental rights, duties, and obligations, including the right 28142
to consent to adoption, and divests the natural parents or 28143
adoptive parents of all parental rights, privileges, and 28144
obligations, including all residual rights and obligations.28145

       (33) "Permanent surrender" means the act of the parents or, 28146
if a child has only one parent, of the parent of a child, by a 28147
voluntary agreement authorized by section 5103.15 of the Revised 28148
Code, to transfer the permanent custody of the child to a public 28149
children services agency or a private child placing agency.28150

       (34) "Person" means an individual, association, corporation, 28151
or partnership and the state or any of its political subdivisions, 28152
departments, or agencies.28153

       (35) "Person responsible for a child's care in out-of-home 28154
care" means any of the following:28155

       (a) Any foster caregiver, in-home aide, or provider;28156

       (b) Any administrator, employee, or agent of any of the 28157
following: a public or private detention facility; shelter 28158
facility; certified children's crisis care facility; organization; 28159
certified organization; child day-care center; type A family 28160
day-care home; certified type B family day-care home; group home; 28161
institution; state institution; residential facility; residential 28162
care facility; residential camp; day camp; school district; 28163
community school; chartered nonpublic school; educational service 28164
center; hospital; or medical clinic;28165

       (c) Any person who supervises or coaches children as part of 28166
an extracurricular activity sponsored by a school district, public 28167
school, or chartered nonpublic school;28168

       (d) Any other person who performs a similar function with 28169
respect to, or has a similar relationship to, children.28170

       (36) "Physically impaired" means having one or more of the 28171
following conditions that substantially limit one or more of an 28172
individual's major life activities, including self-care, receptive 28173
and expressive language, learning, mobility, and self-direction:28174

       (a) A substantial impairment of vision, speech, or hearing;28175

       (b) A congenital orthopedic impairment;28176

       (c) An orthopedic impairment caused by disease, rheumatic 28177
fever or any other similar chronic or acute health problem, or 28178
amputation or another similar cause.28179

       (37) "Placement for adoption" means the arrangement by a 28180
public children services agency or a private child placing agency 28181
with a person for the care and adoption by that person of a child 28182
of whom the agency has permanent custody.28183

       (38) "Placement in foster care" means the arrangement by a 28184
public children services agency or a private child placing agency 28185
for the out-of-home care of a child of whom the agency has 28186
temporary custody or permanent custody.28187

       (39) "Planned permanent living arrangement" means an order of 28188
a juvenile court pursuant to which both of the following apply:28189

       (a) The court gives legal custody of a child to a public 28190
children services agency or a private child placing agency without 28191
the termination of parental rights.28192

       (b) The order permits the agency to make an appropriate 28193
placement of the child and to enter into a written agreement with 28194
a foster care provider or with another person or agency with whom 28195
the child is placed.28196

       (40) "Practice of social work" and "practice of professional 28197
counseling" have the same meanings as in section 4757.01 of the 28198
Revised Code.28199

       (41) "Sanction, service, or condition" means a sanction, 28200
service, or condition created by court order following an 28201
adjudication that a child is an unruly child that is described in 28202
division (A)(4) of section 2152.19 of the Revised Code.28203

       (42) "Protective supervision" means an order of disposition 28204
pursuant to which the court permits an abused, neglected, 28205
dependent, or unruly child to remain in the custody of the child's 28206
parents, guardian, or custodian and stay in the child's home, 28207
subject to any conditions and limitations upon the child, the 28208
child's parents, guardian, or custodian, or any other person that 28209
the court prescribes, including supervision as directed by the 28210
court for the protection of the child.28211

       (43) "Psychiatrist" has the same meaning as in section 28212
5122.01 of the Revised Code.28213

       (44) "Psychologist" has the same meaning as in section 28214
4732.01 of the Revised Code.28215

       (45) "Residential camp" means a program in which the care, 28216
physical custody, or control of children is accepted overnight for 28217
recreational or recreational and educational purposes.28218

       (46) "Residential care facility" means an institution, 28219
residence, or facility that is licensed by the department of 28220
mental healthmental health and addiction services under section 28221
5119.225119.34 of the Revised Code and that provides care for a 28222
child.28223

       (47) "Residential facility" means a home or facility that is 28224
licensed by the department of developmental disabilities under 28225
section 5123.19 of the Revised Code and in which a child with a 28226
developmental disability resides.28227

       (48) "Residual parental rights, privileges, and 28228
responsibilities" means those rights, privileges, and 28229
responsibilities remaining with the natural parent after the 28230
transfer of legal custody of the child, including, but not 28231
necessarily limited to, the privilege of reasonable visitation, 28232
consent to adoption, the privilege to determine the child's 28233
religious affiliation, and the responsibility for support.28234

       (49) "School day" means the school day established by the 28235
state board of education pursuant to section 3313.48 of the 28236
Revised Code.28237

       (50) "School month" and "school year" have the same meanings 28238
as in section 3313.62 of the Revised Code.28239

       (51) "Secure correctional facility" means a facility under 28240
the direction of the department of youth services that is designed 28241
to physically restrict the movement and activities of children and 28242
used for the placement of children after adjudication and 28243
disposition.28244

       (52) "Sexual activity" has the same meaning as in section 28245
2907.01 of the Revised Code.28246

       (53) "Shelter" means the temporary care of children in 28247
physically unrestricted facilities pending court adjudication or 28248
disposition.28249

       (54) "Shelter for victims of domestic violence" has the same 28250
meaning as in section 3113.33 of the Revised Code.28251

       (55) "Temporary custody" means legal custody of a child who 28252
is removed from the child's home, which custody may be terminated 28253
at any time at the discretion of the court or, if the legal 28254
custody is granted in an agreement for temporary custody, by the 28255
person who executed the agreement.28256

       (56) "Traditional response" means a public children services 28257
agency's response to a report of child abuse or neglect that 28258
encourages engagement of the family in a comprehensive evaluation 28259
of the child's current and future safety needs and a fact-finding 28260
process to determine whether child abuse or neglect occurred and 28261
the circumstances surrounding the alleged harm or risk of harm.28262

       (C) For the purposes of this chapter, a child shall be 28263
presumed abandoned when the parents of the child have failed to 28264
visit or maintain contact with the child for more than ninety 28265
days, regardless of whether the parents resume contact with the 28266
child after that period of ninety days.28267

       Sec. 2151.3514.  (A) As used in this section:28268

       (1) "Alcohol and drugCommunity addiction programservices 28269
provider" has the same meaning as in section 3793.015119.01 of 28270
the Revised Code;28271

       (2) "Chemical dependency" means either of the following:28272

       (a) The chronic and habitual use of alcoholic beverages to 28273
the extent that the user no longer can control the use of alcohol 28274
or endangers the user's health, safety, or welfare or that of 28275
others;28276

       (b) The use of a drug of abuse to the extent that the user 28277
becomes physically or psychologically dependent on the drug or 28278
endangers the user's health, safety, or welfare or that of others.28279

       (3) "Drug of abuse" has the same meaning as in section 28280
3719.011 of the Revised Code.28281

       (4) "Medicaid" means the program established under Chapter 28282
5111. of the Revised Code.28283

       (B) If the juvenile court issues an order of temporary 28284
custody or protective supervision under division (A) of section 28285
2151.353 of the Revised Code with respect to a child adjudicated 28286
to be an abused, neglected, or dependent child and the alcohol or 28287
other drug addiction of a parent or other caregiver of the child 28288
was the basis for the adjudication of abuse, neglect, or 28289
dependency, the court shall issue an order requiring the parent or 28290
other caregiver to submit to an assessment and, if needed, 28291
treatment from an alcohol and druga community addiction program28292
services provider certified by the department of alcohol and drug 28293
addiction servicesmental health and addiction services. The court 28294
may order the parent or other caregiver to submit to alcohol or 28295
other drug testing during, after, or both during and after, the 28296
treatment. The court shall send any order issued pursuant to this 28297
division to the public children services agency that serves the 28298
county in which the court is located for use as described in 28299
section 340.15 of the Revised Code.28300

       (C) Any order requiring alcohol or other drug testing that is 28301
issued pursuant to division (B) of this section shall require one 28302
alcohol or other drug test to be conducted each month during a 28303
period of twelve consecutive months beginning the month 28304
immediately following the month in which the order for alcohol or 28305
other drug testing is issued. Arrangements for administering the 28306
alcohol or other drug tests, as well as funding the costs of the 28307
tests, shall be locally determined in accordance with sections 28308
340.033340.03 and 340.15 of the Revised Code. If a parent or 28309
other caregiver required to submit to alcohol or other drug tests 28310
under this section is not a recipient of medicaid, the agency that 28311
refers the parent or caregiver for the tests may require the 28312
parent or caregiver to reimburse the agency for the cost of 28313
conducting the tests.28314

       (D) The certified alcohol and drugcommunity addiction 28315
programservices provider that conducts any alcohol or other drug 28316
tests ordered in accordance with divisions (B) and (C) of this 28317
section shall send the results of the tests, along with the 28318
program'sprovider's recommendations as to the benefits of 28319
continued treatment, to the court and to the public children 28320
services agency providing services to the involved family, 28321
according to federal regulations set forth in 42 C.F.R. Part 2, 28322
and division (B) of section 340.15 of the Revised Code. The court 28323
shall consider the results and the recommendations sent to it 28324
under this division in any adjudication or review by the court, 28325
according to section 2151.353, 2151.414, or 2151.419 of the 28326
Revised Code.28327

       Sec. 2151.362. (A)(1) In the manner prescribed by division 28328
(C)(1) or (2) of section 3313.64 of the Revised Code, as 28329
applicable, the court, at the time of making any order that 28330
removes a child from the child's own home or that vests legal or 28331
permanent custody of the child in a person other than the child's 28332
parent or a government agency, shall determine the school district 28333
that is to bear the cost of educating the child. The court shall 28334
make the determination a part of the order that provides for the 28335
child's placement or commitment. That school district shall bear 28336
the cost of educating the child unless and until the department of 28337
education determines that a different district shall be 28338
responsible for bearing that cost pursuant to division (A)(2) of 28339
this section. The court's order shall state that the determination 28340
of which school district is responsible to bear the cost of 28341
educating the child is subject to re-determination by the 28342
department pursuant to that division.28343

        (2) If, while the child is in the custody of a person other 28344
than the child's parent or a government agency, the department of 28345
education determines that the place of residence of the child's 28346
parent has changed since the court issued its initial order, the 28347
department may name a different school district to bear the cost 28348
of educating the child. The department shall make this new 28349
determination, and any future determinations, based on evidence 28350
received from the school district currently responsible to bear 28351
the cost of educating the child. If the department finds that the 28352
evidence demonstrates to its satisfaction that the residence of 28353
the child's parent has changed since the court issued its initial 28354
order under division (A)(1) of this section, or since the 28355
department last made a determination under division (A)(2) of this 28356
section, the department shall name the district in which the 28357
child's parent currently resides or, if the parent's residence is 28358
not known, the district in which the parent's last known residence 28359
is located. If the department cannot determine any Ohio district 28360
in which the parent currently resides or has resided, the school 28361
district designated in the initial court order under division 28362
(A)(1) of this section, or in the most recent determination made 28363
by the department under division (A)(2) of this section, shall 28364
continue to bear the cost of educating the child.28365

       (B) Whenever a child is placed in a detention facility 28366
established under section 2152.41 of the Revised Code or a 28367
juvenile facility established under section 2151.65 of the Revised 28368
Code, the facility shall be responsible for coordinating the 28369
education of the child. The facility may take any of the following 28370
measures in coordinating the education of the child:28371

        (1) If applicable, use the chartered nonpublic school that 28372
the facility operates;28373

        (2) Arrange with the school district responsible for bearing 28374
the cost of educating the child determined under division (A) of 28375
this section, for the facility to educate the child on its own;28376

        (3) Contract with an educational service center for the 28377
service center to educate the child;28378

        (4) Contract with the school district in which the facility 28379
is located for that school district to educate the child;28380

       (5) If the child is enrolled in an internet- or 28381
computer-based community school established under Chapter 3314. of 28382
the Revised Code, and provided that the facility possesses the 28383
necessary hardware, software, and internet connectivity, permit 28384
continued instruction of the child by the internet- or 28385
computer-based community school. 28386

       If the facility coordinates the education of the child 28387
pursuant to division (B)(1), (2), (3), or (4) of this section,28388
child's school district as determined by the court or the 28389
department, in the same manner as prescribed in division (A) of 28390
this section, shall pay the cost of educating the child based on 28391
the per capita cost of the educational facility within the 28392
detention home or juvenile facility.28393

       If the facility coordinates the education of the child 28394
pursuant to division (B)(5) of this section, payment for the cost 28395
of educating the child shall be made only as provided in division 28396
(C) of section 3314.08 of the Revised Code.28397

       (C) Whenever a child is placed by the court in a private 28398
institution, school, or residential treatment center or any other 28399
private facility, the state shall pay to the court a subsidy to 28400
help defray the expense of educating the child in an amount equal 28401
to the product of the daily per capita educational cost of the 28402
private facility, as determined pursuant to this section, and the 28403
number of days the child resides at the private facility, provided 28404
that the subsidy shall not exceed twenty-five hundred dollars per 28405
year per child. The daily per capita educational cost of a private 28406
facility shall be determined by dividing the actual program cost 28407
of the private facility or twenty-five hundred dollars, whichever 28408
is less, by three hundred sixty-five days or by three hundred 28409
sixty-six days for years that include February twenty-ninth. The 28410
state shall pay seventy-five per cent of the total subsidy for 28411
each year quarterly to the court. The state may adjust the 28412
remaining twenty-five per cent of the total subsidy to be paid to 28413
the court for each year to an amount that is less than twenty-five 28414
per cent of the total subsidy for that year based upon the 28415
availability of funds appropriated to the department of education 28416
for the purpose of subsidizing courts that place a child in a 28417
private institution, school, or residential treatment center or 28418
any other private facility and shall pay that adjusted amount to 28419
the court at the end of the year.28420

       Sec. 2151.86.  (A)(1) The appointing or hiring officer of any 28421
entity that appoints or employs any person responsible for a 28422
child's care in out-of-home care shall request the superintendent 28423
of BCII to conduct a criminal records check with respect to any 28424
person who is under final consideration for appointment or 28425
employment as a person responsible for a child's care in 28426
out-of-home care, except that section 3319.39 of the Revised Code 28427
shall apply instead of this section if the out-of-home care entity 28428
is a public school, educational service center, or chartered 28429
nonpublic school.28430

       (2) At the times specified in this division, the 28431
administrative director of an agency, or attorney, who arranges an 28432
adoption for a prospective adoptive parent shall request the 28433
superintendent of BCII to conduct a criminal records check with 28434
respect to that prospective adoptive parent and a criminal records 28435
check with respect to all persons eighteen years of age or older 28436
who reside with the prospective adoptive parent. The 28437
administrative director or attorney shall request a criminal 28438
records check pursuant to this division at the time of the initial 28439
home study, every four years after the initial home study at the 28440
time of an update, and at the time that an adoptive home study is 28441
completed as a new home study.28442

       (3) Before a recommending agency submits a recommendation to 28443
the department of job and family services on whether the 28444
department should issue a certificate to a foster home under 28445
section 5103.03 of the Revised Code, and every four years 28446
thereafter prior to a recertification under that section, the 28447
administrative director of the agency shall request that the 28448
superintendent of BCII conduct a criminal records check with 28449
respect to the prospective foster caregiver and a criminal records 28450
check with respect to all other persons eighteen years of age or 28451
older who reside with the foster caregiver.28452

       (B)(1) If a person subject to a criminal records check under 28453
division (A)(1) of this section does not present proof that the 28454
person has been a resident of this state for the five-year period 28455
immediately prior to the date upon which the criminal records 28456
check is requested or does not provide evidence that within that 28457
five-year period the superintendent of BCII has requested 28458
information about the person from the federal bureau of 28459
investigation in a criminal records check, the appointing or 28460
hiring officer shall request that the superintendent of BCII 28461
obtain information from the federal bureau of investigation as a 28462
part of the criminal records check, including fingerprint-based 28463
checks of national crime information databases as described in 42 28464
U.S.C. 671. If a person subject to a criminal records check under 28465
division (A)(1) of this section presents proof that the person has 28466
been a resident of this state for that five-year period, the 28467
appointing or hiring officer or attorney may request that the 28468
superintendent of BCII include information from the federal bureau 28469
of investigation in the criminal records check, including 28470
fingerprint-based checks of national crime information databases 28471
as described in 42 U.S.C. 671.28472

       When the administrative director of an agency, or attorney, 28473
who arranges an adoption for a prospective parent requests, at the 28474
time of the initial home study, a criminal records check for a 28475
person pursuant to division (A)(2) of this section, the 28476
administrative director or attorney shall request that the 28477
superintendent of BCII obtain information from the federal bureau 28478
of investigation as part of the criminal records check, including 28479
fingerprint-based checks of national crime information databases 28480
as described in 42 U.S.C. 671, for the person subject to the 28481
criminal records check. In all other cases in which the 28482
administrative director of an agency, or attorney, who arranges an 28483
adoption for a prospective parent requests a criminal records 28484
check for a person pursuant to division (A)(2) of this section, 28485
the administrative director or attorney may request that the 28486
superintendent of BCII include information from the federal bureau 28487
of investigation in the criminal records check, including 28488
fingerprint-based checks of national crime information databases 28489
as described in 42 U.S.C. 671.28490

        When the administrative director of a recommending agency 28491
requests, before submitting a recommendation to the department of 28492
job and family services on whether the department should issue a 28493
certificate to a foster home under section 5103.03 of the Revised 28494
Code, a criminal records check for a person pursuant to division 28495
(A)(3) of this section, the administrative director shall request 28496
that the superintendent of BCII obtain information from the 28497
federal bureau of investigation as part of a criminal records 28498
check, including fingerprint-based checks of national crime 28499
information databases as described in 42 U.S.C. 671, for the 28500
person subject to the criminal records check. In all other cases 28501
in which the administrative director of a recommending agency 28502
requests a criminal records check for a person pursuant to 28503
division (A)(3) of this section, the administrative director may 28504
request that the superintendent of BCII include information from 28505
the federal bureau of investigation in the criminal records check, 28506
including fingerprint-based checks of national crime information 28507
databases as described in 42 U.S.C. 671.28508

       Prior to a hearing on a final decree of adoption or 28509
interlocutory order of adoption by a probate court, the 28510
administrative director of an agency, or an attorney, who arranges 28511
an adoption for a prospective parent shall provide to the clerk of 28512
the probate court either of the following:28513

       (a) Any information received pursuant to a request made under 28514
this division from the superintendent of BCII or the federal 28515
bureau of investigation as part of the criminal records check, 28516
including fingerprint-based checks of national crime information 28517
databases as described in 42 U.S.C. 671, for the person subject to 28518
the criminal records check;28519

       (b) Written notification that the person subject to a 28520
criminal records check pursuant to this division failed upon 28521
request to provide the information necessary to complete the form 28522
or failed to provide impressions of the person's fingerprints as 28523
required under division (B)(2) of this section. 28524

       (2) An appointing or hiring officer, administrative director, 28525
or attorney required by division (A) of this section to request a 28526
criminal records check shall provide to each person subject to a 28527
criminal records check a copy of the form prescribed pursuant to 28528
division (C)(1) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code and a 28529
standard impression sheet to obtain fingerprint impressions 28530
prescribed pursuant to division (C)(2) of section 109.572 of the 28531
Revised Code, obtain the completed form and impression sheet from 28532
the person, and forward the completed form and impression sheet to 28533
the superintendent of BCII at the time the criminal records check 28534
is requested.28535

       Any person subject to a criminal records check who receives 28536
pursuant to this division a copy of the form prescribed pursuant 28537
to division (C)(1) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code and a 28538
copy of an impression sheet prescribed pursuant to division (C)(2) 28539
of that section and who is requested to complete the form and 28540
provide a set of fingerprint impressions shall complete the form 28541
or provide all the information necessary to complete the form and 28542
shall provide the impression sheet with the impressions of the 28543
person's fingerprints. If a person subject to a criminal records 28544
check, upon request, fails to provide the information necessary to 28545
complete the form or fails to provide impressions of the person's 28546
fingerprints, the appointing or hiring officer shall not appoint 28547
or employ the person as a person responsible for a child's care in 28548
out-of-home care, a probate court may not issue a final decree of 28549
adoption or an interlocutory order of adoption making the person 28550
an adoptive parent, and the department of job and family services 28551
shall not issue a certificate authorizing the prospective foster 28552
caregiver to operate a foster home.28553

       (C)(1) No appointing or hiring officer shall appoint or 28554
employ a person as a person responsible for a child's care in 28555
out-of-home care, the department of job and family services shall 28556
not issue a certificate under section 5103.03 of the Revised Code 28557
authorizing a prospective foster caregiver to operate a foster 28558
home, and no probate court shall issue a final decree of adoption 28559
or an interlocutory order of adoption making a person an adoptive 28560
parent if the person or, in the case of a prospective foster 28561
caregiver or prospective adoptive parent, any person eighteen 28562
years of age or older who resides with the prospective foster 28563
caregiver or prospective adoptive parent previously has been 28564
convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the violations described 28565
in division (A)(4) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code, unless 28566
the person meets rehabilitation standards established in rules 28567
adopted under division (F) of this section.28568

       (2) The appointing or hiring officer may appoint or employ a 28569
person as a person responsible for a child's care in out-of-home 28570
care conditionally until the criminal records check required by 28571
this section is completed and the officer receives the results of 28572
the criminal records check. If the results of the criminal records 28573
check indicate that, pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section, 28574
the person subject to the criminal records check does not qualify 28575
for appointment or employment, the officer shall release the 28576
person from appointment or employment.28577

       (3) Prior to certification or recertification under section 28578
5103.03 of the Revised Code, the prospective foster caregiver 28579
subject to a criminal records check under division (A)(3) of this 28580
section shall notify the recommending agency of the revocation of 28581
any foster home license, certificate, or other similar 28582
authorization in another state occurring within the five years 28583
prior to the date of application to become a foster caregiver in 28584
this state. The failure of a prospective foster caregiver to 28585
notify the recommending agency of any revocation of that type in 28586
another state that occurred within that five-year period shall be 28587
grounds for denial of the person's foster home application or the 28588
revocation of the person's foster home certification, whichever is 28589
applicable. If a person has had a revocation in another state 28590
within the five years prior to the date of the application, the 28591
department of job and family services shall not issue a foster 28592
home certificate to the prospective foster caregiver.28593

       (D) The appointing or hiring officer, administrative 28594
director, or attorney shall pay to the bureau of criminal 28595
identification and investigation the fee prescribed pursuant to 28596
division (C)(3) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code for each 28597
criminal records check conducted in accordance with that section 28598
upon a request pursuant to division (A) of this section. The 28599
officer, director, or attorney may charge the person subject to 28600
the criminal records check a fee for the costs the officer, 28601
director, or attorney incurs in obtaining the criminal records 28602
check. A fee charged under this division shall not exceed the 28603
amount of fees the officer, director, or attorney pays for the 28604
criminal records check. If a fee is charged under this division, 28605
the officer, director, or attorney shall notify the person who is 28606
the applicant at the time of the person's initial application for 28607
appointment or employment, an adoption to be arranged, or a 28608
certificate to operate a foster home of the amount of the fee and 28609
that, unless the fee is paid, the person who is the applicant will 28610
not be considered for appointment or employment or as an adoptive 28611
parent or foster caregiver.28612

       (E) The report of any criminal records check conducted by the 28613
bureau of criminal identification and investigation in accordance 28614
with section 109.572 of the Revised Code and pursuant to a request 28615
made under division (A) of this section is not a public record for 28616
the purposes of section 149.43 of the Revised Code and shall not 28617
be made available to any person other than the following:28618

       (1) The person who is the subject of the criminal records 28619
check or the person's representative;28620

       (2) The appointing or hiring officer, administrative 28621
director, or attorney requesting the criminal records check or the 28622
officer's, director's, or attorney's representative;28623

       (3) The department of job and family services, a county 28624
department of job and family services, or a public children 28625
services agency;28626

       (4) Any court, hearing officer, or other necessary individual 28627
involved in a case dealing with the denial of employment, a final 28628
decree of adoption or interlocutory order of adoption, or a foster 28629
home certificate.28630

       (F) The director of job and family services shall adopt rules 28631
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement 28632
this section. The rules shall include rehabilitation standards a 28633
person who has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to an offense 28634
listed in division (A)(4) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code 28635
must meet for an appointing or hiring officer to appoint or employ 28636
the person as a person responsible for a child's care in 28637
out-of-home care, a probate court to issue a final decree of 28638
adoption or interlocutory order of adoption making the person an 28639
adoptive parent, or the department to issue a certificate 28640
authorizing the prospective foster caregiver to operate a foster 28641
home or not revoke a foster home certificate for a violation 28642
specified in section 5103.0328 of the Revised Code.28643

       (G) An appointing or hiring officer, administrative director, 28644
or attorney required by division (A) of this section to request a 28645
criminal records check shall inform each person who is the 28646
applicant, at the time of the person's initial application for 28647
appointment or employment, an adoption to be arranged, or a foster 28648
home certificate, that the person subject to the criminal records 28649
check is required to provide a set of impressions of the person's 28650
fingerprints and that a criminal records check is required to be 28651
conducted and satisfactorily completed in accordance with section 28652
109.572 of the Revised Code.28653

       (H) The department of job and family services may waive the 28654
requirement that a criminal records check based on fingerprints be 28655
conducted for an adult resident of a prospective adoptive or 28656
foster home or the home of a foster caregiver if the recommending 28657
agency documents to the department's satisfaction that the adult 28658
resident is physically unable to comply with the fingerprinting 28659
requirement and poses no danger to foster children or adoptive 28660
children who may be placed in the home. In such cases, the 28661
recommending or approving agency shall request that the bureau of 28662
criminal identification and investigation conduct a criminal 28663
records check using the person's name and social security number.28664

        (I) As used in this section:28665

       (1) "Children's hospital" means any of the following:28666

       (a) A hospital registered under section 3701.07 of the 28667
Revised Code that provides general pediatric medical and surgical 28668
care, and in which at least seventy-five per cent of annual 28669
inpatient discharges for the preceding two calendar years were 28670
individuals less than eighteen years of age;28671

       (b) A distinct portion of a hospital registered under section 28672
3701.07 of the Revised Code that provides general pediatric 28673
medical and surgical care, has a total of at least one hundred 28674
fifty registered pediatric special care and pediatric acute care 28675
beds, and in which at least seventy-five per cent of annual 28676
inpatient discharges for the preceding two calendar years were 28677
individuals less than eighteen years of age;28678

       (c) A distinct portion of a hospital, if the hospital is 28679
registered under section 3701.07 of the Revised Code as a 28680
children's hospital and the children's hospital meets all the 28681
requirements of division (I)(H)(1)(a) of this section.28682

       (2) "Criminal records check" has the same meaning as in 28683
section 109.572 of the Revised Code.28684

       (3) "Person responsible for a child's care in out-of-home 28685
care" has the same meaning as in section 2151.011 of the Revised 28686
Code, except that it does not include a prospective employee of 28687
the department of youth services or a person responsible for a 28688
child's care in a hospital or medical clinic other than a 28689
children's hospital.28690

       (4) "Person subject to a criminal records check" means the 28691
following:28692

       (a) A person who is under final consideration for appointment 28693
or employment as a person responsible for a child's care in 28694
out-of-home care;28695

       (b) A prospective adoptive parent;28696

       (c) A prospective foster caregiver;28697

       (d) A person eighteen years old or older who resides with a 28698
prospective foster caregiver or a prospective adoptive parent.28699

       (5) "Recommending agency" means a public children services 28700
agency, private child placing agency, or private noncustodial 28701
agency to which the department of job and family services has 28702
delegated a duty to inspect and approve foster homes.28703

       (6) "Superintendent of BCII" means the superintendent of the 28704
bureau of criminal identification and investigation.28705

       Sec. 2152.54.  (A) An evaluation of a child who does not 28706
appear to the court to be a person who is at least moderately 28707
intellectually disabled shall be made by an evaluator who is one 28708
of the following: 28709

       (1) A professional employed by a psychiatric facility or 28710
center certified by the department of mental healthmental health 28711
and addiction services to provide forensic services and appointed 28712
by the director of the facility or center to conduct the 28713
evaluation; 28714

       (2) A psychiatrist or a licensed clinical psychologist who 28715
satisfies the criteria of division (I)(1) of section 5122.01 of 28716
the Revised Code and has specialized education, training, or 28717
experience in forensic evaluations of children or adolescents.28718

       (B) An evaluation of a child who appears to the court to be a 28719
person who is at least moderately intellectually disabled shall be 28720
made by a psychiatrist or licensed clinical psychologist who 28721
satisfies the criteria of division (I)(1) of section 5122.01 of 28722
the Revised Code and has specialized education, training, or 28723
experience in forensic evaluations of children or adolescents who 28724
have intellectual disability.28725

       (C) If an evaluation is conducted by an evaluator of the type 28726
described in division (A)(1) or (2) of this section and the 28727
evaluator concludes that the child is a person who is at least 28728
moderately intellectually disabled, the evaluator shall 28729
discontinue the evaluation and notify the court within one 28730
business day after reaching the conclusion. Within two business 28731
days after receiving notification, the court shall order the child 28732
to undergo an evaluation by an evaluator of the type described in 28733
division (B) of this section. Within two business days after the 28734
appointment of the new evaluator, the original evaluator shall 28735
deliver to the new evaluator all information relating to the child 28736
obtained during the original evaluation. 28737

       Sec. 2152.59.  (A) If after a hearing held pursuant to 28738
section 2152.58 of the Revised Code the court determines that a 28739
child is competent, the court shall proceed with the delinquent 28740
child's proceeding as provided by law. No statement that a child 28741
makes during an evaluation or hearing conducted under sections 28742
2152.51 through 2152.59 of the Revised Code shall be used against 28743
the child on the issue of responsibility or guilt in any child or 28744
adult proceeding. 28745

       (B) If after a hearing held pursuant to section 2152.58 of 28746
the Revised Code the court determines that the child is not 28747
competent and cannot attain competency within the period of time 28748
applicable under division (D)(2) of this section, the court shall 28749
dismiss the charges without prejudice, except that the court may 28750
delay dismissal for up to ninety calendar days and do either of 28751
the following:28752

       (1) Refer the matter to a public children services agency and 28753
request that agency determine whether to file an action in 28754
accordance with section 2151.27 of the Revised Code alleging that 28755
the child is a dependent, neglected, or abused child;28756

       (2) Assign court staff to refer the child or the child's 28757
family to the local family and children first council or an agency 28758
funded by the department of mental healthmental health and 28759
addiction services or department of developmental disabilities or 28760
otherwise secure services to reduce the potential that the child 28761
would engage in behavior that could result in delinquent child or 28762
other criminal charges.28763

       (C) If after a hearing held pursuant to section 2152.58 of 28764
the Revised Code the court determines that a child is not 28765
competent but could likely attain competency by participating in 28766
services specifically designed to help the child develop 28767
competency, the court may order the child to participate in 28768
services specifically designed to help the child develop 28769
competency at county expense. The court shall name a reliable 28770
provider to deliver the competency attainment services and shall 28771
order the child's parent, guardian, or custodian to contact that 28772
provider by a specified date to arrange for services. 28773

       (D) The competency attainment services provided to a child 28774
shall be based on a competency attainment plan described in 28775
division (E)(2) of this section and approved by the court. 28776
Services are subject to the following conditions and time periods 28777
measured from the date the court approves the plan:28778

       (1) Services shall be provided in the least restrictive 28779
setting that is consistent with the child's ability to attain 28780
competency and the safety of both the child and the community. If 28781
the child has been released on temporary or interim orders and 28782
refuses or fails to cooperate with the service provider, the court 28783
may reassess the orders and amend them to require a more 28784
appropriate setting. 28785

       (2) No child shall be required to participate in competency 28786
attainment services for longer than is required for the child to 28787
attain competency. The following maximum periods of participation 28788
apply:28789

       (a) If a child is ordered to participate in competency 28790
attainment services that are provided outside of a residential 28791
setting, the child shall not participate in those services for a 28792
period exceeding three months if the child is charged with an act 28793
that would be a misdemeanor if committed by an adult, six months 28794
if the child is charged with an act that would be a felony of the 28795
third, fourth, or fifth degree if committed by an adult, or one 28796
year if the child is charged with an act that would be a felony of 28797
the first or second degree, aggravated murder, or murder if 28798
committed by an adult.28799

       (b) If a child is ordered to receive competency attainment 28800
services that are provided in a residential setting that is 28801
operated solely or in part for the purpose of providing competency 28802
attainment services, the child shall not participate in those 28803
services for a period exceeding forty-five calendar days if the 28804
child is charged with an act that would be a misdemeanor if 28805
committed by an adult, three months if the child is charged with 28806
an act that would be a felony of the third, fourth, or fifth 28807
degree if committed by an adult, six months if the child is 28808
charged with an act that would be a felony of the first or second 28809
degree if committed by an adult, or one year if the child is 28810
charged with an act that would be aggravated murder or murder if 28811
committed by an adult. 28812

       (c) If a child is ordered into a residential, detention, or 28813
other secured setting for reasons other than to participate in 28814
competency attainment services and is also ordered to participate 28815
in competency attainment services concurrently, the child shall 28816
participate in the competency attainment services for not longer 28817
than the relevant period set forth in division (D)(2)(a) of this 28818
section.28819

       (d) If a child is ordered to participate in competency 28820
attainment services that require the child to live for some but 28821
not all of the duration of the services in a residential setting 28822
that is operated solely or in part for the purpose of providing 28823
competency attainment services, the child shall participate in the 28824
competency attainment services for not longer than the relevant 28825
period set forth in division (D)(2)(b) of this section. For the 28826
purpose of calculating a time period under division (D)(2)(d) of 28827
this section, two days of participation in a nonresidential 28828
setting shall equal one day of participation in a residential 28829
setting. 28830

       (3) A child who receives competency attainment services in a 28831
residential setting that is operated solely or partly for the 28832
purpose of providing competency attainment services is in 28833
detention for purposes of section 2921.34 and division (B) of 28834
section 2152.18 of the Revised Code during the time that the child 28835
resides in the residential setting.28836

       (E)(1) Within ten business days after the court names the 28837
provider responsible for the child's competency attainment 28838
services under division (D) of this section, the court shall 28839
deliver to that provider a copy of each competency assessment 28840
report it has received for review. The provider shall return the 28841
copies of the reports to the court upon the termination of the 28842
services.28843

       (2) Not later than thirty calendar days after the child 28844
contacts the competency attainment services provider under 28845
division (C) of this section, the provider shall submit to the 28846
court a plan for the child to attain competency. The court shall 28847
provide copies of the plan to the prosecuting attorney, the 28848
child's attorney, the child's guardian ad litem, if any, and the 28849
child's parents, guardian, or custodian.28850

       (F) The provider that provides the child's competency 28851
attainment services pursuant to the competency attainment plan 28852
shall submit reports to the court on the following schedule:28853

       (1) A report on the child's progress every thirty calendar 28854
days and on the termination of services. The report shall not 28855
include any details of the alleged offense as reported by the 28856
child.28857

       (2) If the provider determines that the child is not 28858
cooperating to a degree that would allow the services to be 28859
effective to help the child attain competency, a report informing 28860
the court of the determination within three business days after 28861
making the determination;28862

       (3) If the provider determines that the current setting is no 28863
longer the least restrictive setting that is consistent with the 28864
child's ability to attain competency and the safety of both the 28865
child and the community, a report informing the court of the 28866
determination within three business days after making the 28867
determination;28868

       (4) If the provider determines that the child has achieved 28869
the goals of the plan and would be able to understand the nature 28870
and objectives of the proceeding against the child and to assist 28871
in the child's defense, with or without reasonable accommodations 28872
to meet the criteria set forth in division (B) of section 2152.56 28873
of the Revised Code, a report informing the court of that 28874
determination within three business days after making the 28875
determination. If the provider believes that accommodations would 28876
be necessary or desirable, the report shall include 28877
recommendations for accommodations.28878

       (5) If the provider determines that the child will not 28879
achieve the goals of the plan within the applicable period of time 28880
under division (D)(2) of this section, a report informing the 28881
court of the determination within three business days after making 28882
the determination. The report shall include recommendations for 28883
services for the child that would support the safety of the child 28884
or the community.28885

       (G) The court shall provide copies of any report made under 28886
division (F) of this section to the prosecuting attorney, the 28887
child's attorney, and the child's guardian ad litem, if any. The 28888
court shall provide copies of any report made under division (F) 28889
of this section to the child's parents, guardian, or custodian 28890
unless the court finds that doing so is not in the best interest 28891
of the child.28892

       (H)(1) Within fifteen business days after receiving a report 28893
under division (F) of this section, the court may hold a hearing 28894
to determine if a new order is necessary. To assist in making a 28895
determination under division (H) of this section, the court may 28896
order a new competency evaluation in accordance with section 28897
2152.53 of the Revised Code. Until a new order is issued or the 28898
required period of participation expires, the child shall continue 28899
to participate in competency attainment services.28900

       (2) If after a hearing held under division (H)(1) of this 28901
section the court determines that the child is not making progress 28902
toward competency or is so uncooperative that attainment services 28903
cannot be effective, the court may order a change in setting or 28904
services that would help the child attain competency within the 28905
relevant period of time under division (D)(2) of this section.28906

       (3) If after a hearing held under division (H)(1) of this 28907
section the court determines that the child has not or will not 28908
attain competency within the relevant period of time under 28909
division (D)(2) of this section, the court shall dismiss the 28910
delinquency complaint without prejudice, except that the court may 28911
delay dismissal for up to ninety calendar days and do either of 28912
the following:28913

       (a) Refer the matter to a public children services agency and 28914
request that agency determine whether to file an action in 28915
accordance with section 2151.27 of the Revised Code alleging that 28916
the child is a dependent, neglected, or abused child;28917

       (b) Assign court staff to refer the child or the child's 28918
family to the local family and children first council or an agency 28919
funded by the department of mental healthmental health and 28920
addiction services or department of developmental disabilities or 28921
otherwise secure services to reduce the potential that the child 28922
would engage in behavior that could result in delinquency or other 28923
criminal charges.28924

       (4) A dismissal under division (H)(3) of this section does 28925
not preclude a future delinquent child proceeding or criminal 28926
prosecution as provided under section 2151.23 of the Revised Code 28927
if the child eventually attains competency.28928

       (5) If after a hearing held under division (H)(1) of this 28929
section the court determines that the child has attained 28930
competency, the court shall proceed with the delinquent child's 28931
proceeding in accordance with division (A) of this section.28932

       (6) A dismissal under this section does not bar a civil 28933
action based on the acts or omissions that formed the basis of the 28934
complaint.28935

       Sec. 2301.02.  The number of judges of the court of common 28936
pleas for each county, the time for the next election of the 28937
judges in the several counties, and the beginning of their terms 28938
shall be as follows:28939

       (A) In Adams, Ashland, Fayette, and Pike counties, one judge, 28940
elected in 1956, term to begin February 9, 1957;28941

       In Brown, Crawford, Defiance, Highland, Holmes, Morgan, 28942
Ottawa, and Union counties, one judge, to be elected in 1954, term 28943
to begin February 9, 1955;28944

       In Auglaize county, one judge, to be elected in 1956, term to 28945
begin January 9, 1957;28946

       In Coshocton, Darke, Fulton, Gallia, Guernsey, Hardin, 28947
Jackson, Knox, Madison, Mercer, Monroe, Paulding, Vinton, and 28948
Wyandot counties, one judge, to be elected in 1956, term to begin 28949
January 1, 1957;28950

       In Morrow county, two judges, one to be elected in 1956, term 28951
to begin January 1, 1957, and one to be elected in 2006, term to 28952
begin January 1, 2007;28953

       In Logan county, two judges, one to be elected in 1956, term 28954
to begin January 1, 1957, and one to be elected in 2004, term to 28955
begin January 2, 2005;28956

       In Carroll, Clinton, Hocking, Meigs, Pickaway, Preble, 28957
Shelby, Van Wert, and Williams counties, one judge, to be elected 28958
in 1952, term to begin January 1, 1953;28959

       In Champaign county, two judges, one to be elected in 1952, 28960
term to begin January 1, 1953, and one to be elected in 2008, term 28961
to begin February 10, 2009.;28962

       In Harrison and Noble counties, one judge, to be elected in 28963
1954, term to begin April 18, 1955;28964

       In Henry county, two judges, one to be elected in 1956, term 28965
to begin May 9, 1957, and one to be elected in 2004, term to begin 28966
January 1, 2005;28967

       In Putnam county, one judge, to be elected in 1956, term to 28968
begin May 9, 1957;28969

       In Huron county, one judge, to be elected in 1952, term to 28970
begin May 14, 1953;28971

       In Perry county, one judge, to be elected in 1954, term to 28972
begin July 6, 1956;28973

       In Sandusky county, two judges, one to be elected in 1954, 28974
term to begin February 10, 1955, and one to be elected in 1978, 28975
term to begin January 1, 1979;.28976

       (B) In Allen county, three judges, one to be elected in 1956, 28977
term to begin February 9, 1957, the second to be elected in 1958, 28978
term to begin January 1, 1959, and the third to be elected in 28979
1992, term to begin January 1, 1993;28980

       In Ashtabula county, three judges, one to be elected in 1954, 28981
term to begin February 9, 1955, one to be elected in 1960, term to 28982
begin January 1, 1961, and one to be elected in 1978, term to 28983
begin January 2, 1979;28984

       In Athens county, two judges, one to be elected in 1954, term 28985
to begin February 9, 1955, and one to be elected in 1990, term to 28986
begin July 1, 1991;28987

       In Erie county, four judges, one to be elected in 1956, term 28988
to begin January 1, 1957, the second to be elected in 1970, term 28989
to begin January 2, 1971, the third to be elected in 2004, term to 28990
begin January 2, 2005, and the fourth to be elected in 2008, term 28991
to begin February 9, 2009;28992

       In Fairfield county, three judges, one to be elected in 1954, 28993
term to begin February 9, 1955, the second to be elected in 1970, 28994
term to begin January 1, 1971, and the third to be elected in 28995
1994, term to begin January 2, 1995;28996

       In Geauga county, two judges, one to be elected in 1956, term 28997
to begin January 1, 1957, and the second to be elected in 1976, 28998
term to begin January 6, 1977;28999

       In Greene county, four judges, one to be elected in 1956, 29000
term to begin February 9, 1957, the second to be elected in 1960, 29001
term to begin January 1, 1961, the third to be elected in 1978, 29002
term to begin January 2, 1979, and the fourth to be elected in 29003
1994, term to begin January 1, 1995;29004

       In Hancock county, two judges, one to be elected in 1952, 29005
term to begin January 1, 1953, and the second to be elected in 29006
1978, term to begin January 1, 1979;29007

       In Lawrence county, two judges, one to be elected in 1954, 29008
term to begin February 9, 1955, and the second to be elected in 29009
1976, term to begin January 1, 1977;29010

       In Marion county, three judges, one to be elected in 1952, 29011
term to begin January 1, 1953, the second to be elected in 1976, 29012
term to begin January 2, 1977, and the third to be elected in 29013
1998, term to begin February 9, 1999;29014

       In Medina county, three judges, one to be elected in 1956, 29015
term to begin January 1, 1957, the second to be elected in 1966, 29016
term to begin January 1, 1967, and the third to be elected in 29017
1994, term to begin January 1, 1995;29018

       In Miami county, two judges, one to be elected in 1954, term 29019
to begin February 9, 1955, and one to be elected in 1970, term to 29020
begin on January 1, 1971;29021

       In Muskingum county, three judges, one to be elected in 1968, 29022
term to begin August 9, 1969, one to be elected in 1978, term to 29023
begin January 1, 1979, and one to be elected in 2002, term to 29024
begin January 2, 2003;29025

       In Portage county, three judges, one to be elected in 1956, 29026
term to begin January 1, 1957, the second to be elected in 1960, 29027
term to begin January 1, 1961, and the third to be elected in 29028
1986, term to begin January 2, 1987;29029

       In Ross county, two judges, one to be elected in 1956, term 29030
to begin February 9, 1957, and the second to be elected in 1976, 29031
term to begin January 1, 1977;29032

       In Scioto county, three judges, one to be elected in 1954, 29033
term to begin February 10, 1955, the second to be elected in 1960, 29034
term to begin January 1, 1961, and the third to be elected in 29035
1994, term to begin January 2, 1995;29036

       In Seneca county, two judges, one to be elected in 1956, term 29037
to begin January 1, 1957, and the second to be elected in 1986, 29038
term to begin January 2, 1987;29039

       In Warren county, four judges, one to be elected in 1954, 29040
term to begin February 9, 1955, the second to be elected in 1970, 29041
term to begin January 1, 1971, the third to be elected in 1986, 29042
term to begin January 1, 1987, and the fourth to be elected in 29043
2004, term to begin January 2, 2005;29044

       In Washington county, two judges, one to be elected in 1952, 29045
term to begin January 1, 1953, and one to be elected in 1986, term 29046
to begin January 1, 1987;29047

       In Wood county, three judges, one to be elected in 1968, term 29048
beginning January 1, 1969, the second to be elected in 1970, term 29049
to begin January 2, 1971, and the third to be elected in 1990, 29050
term to begin January 1, 1991;29051

       In Belmont and Jefferson counties, two judges, to be elected 29052
in 1954, terms to begin January 1, 1955, and February 9, 1955, 29053
respectively;29054

       In Clark county, four judges, one to be elected in 1952, term 29055
to begin January 1, 1953, the second to be elected in 1956, term 29056
to begin January 2, 1957, the third to be elected in 1986, term to 29057
begin January 3, 1987, and the fourth to be elected in 1994, term 29058
to begin January 2, 1995.;29059

       In Clermont county, five judges, one to be elected in 1956, 29060
term to begin January 1, 1957, the second to be elected in 1964, 29061
term to begin January 1, 1965, the third to be elected in 1982, 29062
term to begin January 2, 1983, the fourth to be elected in 1986, 29063
term to begin January 2, 1987;, and the fifth to be elected in 29064
2006, term to begin January 3, 2007;29065

       In Columbiana county, two judges, one to be elected in 1952, 29066
term to begin January 1, 1953, and the second to be elected in 29067
1956, term to begin January 1, 1957;29068

       In Delaware county, two judges, one to be elected in 1990, 29069
term to begin February 9, 1991, the second to be elected in 1994, 29070
term to begin January 1, 1995;29071

       In Lake county, six judges, one to be elected in 1958, term 29072
to begin January 1, 1959, the second to be elected in 1960, term 29073
to begin January 2, 1961, the third to be elected in 1964, term to 29074
begin January 3, 1965, the fourth and fifth to be elected in 1978, 29075
terms to begin January 4, 1979, and January 5, 1979, respectively, 29076
and the sixth to be elected in 2000, term to begin January 6, 29077
2001;29078

       In Licking county, four judges, one to be elected in 1954, 29079
term to begin February 9, 1955, one to be elected in 1964, term to 29080
begin January 1, 1965, one to be elected in 1990, term to begin 29081
January 1, 1991, and one to be elected in 2004, term to begin 29082
January 1, 2005;29083

       In Lorain county, nine judges, two to be elected in 1952, 29084
terms to begin January 1, 1953, and January 2, 1953, respectively, 29085
one to be elected in 1958, term to begin January 3, 1959, one to 29086
be elected in 1968, term to begin January 1, 1969, two to be 29087
elected in 1988, terms to begin January 4, 1989, and January 5, 29088
1989, respectively, two to be elected in 1998, terms to begin 29089
January 2, 1999, and January 3, 1999, respectively; and one to be 29090
elected in 2006, term to begin January 6, 2007; 29091

       In Butler county, eleven judges, one to be elected in 1956, 29092
term to begin January 1, 1957; two to be elected in 1954, terms to 29093
begin January 1, 1955, and February 9, 1955, respectively; one to 29094
be elected in 1968, term to begin January 2, 1969; one to be 29095
elected in 1986, term to begin January 3, 1987; two to be elected 29096
in 1988, terms to begin January 1, 1989, and January 2, 1989, 29097
respectively; one to be elected in 1992, term to begin January 4, 29098
1993; two to be elected in 2002, terms to begin January 2, 2003, 29099
and January 3, 2003, respectively; and one to be elected in 2006, 29100
term to begin January 3, 2007;29101

       In Richland county, four judges, one to be elected in 1956, 29102
term to begin January 1, 1957, the second to be elected in 1960, 29103
term to begin February 9, 1961, the third to be elected in 1968, 29104
term to begin January 2, 1969, and the fourth to be elected in 29105
2004, term to begin January 3, 2005;29106

       In Tuscarawas county, two judges, one to be elected in 1956, 29107
term to begin January 1, 1957, and the second to be elected in 29108
1960, term to begin January 2, 1961;29109

       In Wayne county, two judges, one to be elected in 1956, term 29110
beginning January 1, 1957, and one to be elected in 1968, term to 29111
begin January 2, 1969;29112

       In Trumbull county, six judges, one to be elected in 1952, 29113
term to begin January 1, 1953, the second to be elected in 1954, 29114
term to begin January 1, 1955, the third to be elected in 1956, 29115
term to begin January 1, 1957, the fourth to be elected in 1964, 29116
term to begin January 1, 1965, the fifth to be elected in 1976, 29117
term to begin January 2, 1977, and the sixth to be elected in 29118
1994, term to begin January 3, 1995;29119

       (C) In Cuyahoga county, thirty-nine judges; eight to be 29120
elected in 1954, terms to begin on successive days beginning from 29121
January 1, 1955, to January 7, 1955, and February 9, 1955, 29122
respectively; eight to be elected in 1956, terms to begin on 29123
successive days beginning from January 1, 1957, to January 8, 29124
1957; three to be elected in 1952, terms to begin from January 1, 29125
1953, to January 3, 1953; two to be elected in 1960, terms to 29126
begin on January 8, 1961, and January 9, 1961, respectively; two 29127
to be elected in 1964, terms to begin January 4, 1965, and January 29128
5, 1965, respectively; one to be elected in 1966, term to begin on 29129
January 10, 1967; four to be elected in 1968, terms to begin on 29130
successive days beginning from January 9, 1969, to January 12, 29131
1969; two to be elected in 1974, terms to begin on January 18, 29132
1975, and January 19, 1975, respectively; five to be elected in 29133
1976, terms to begin on successive days beginning January 6, 1977, 29134
to January 10, 1977; two to be elected in 1982, terms to begin 29135
January 11, 1983, and January 12, 1983, respectively; and two to 29136
be elected in 1986, terms to begin January 13, 1987, and January 29137
14, 1987, respectively;29138

       In Franklin county, twenty-two judges; two to be elected in 29139
1954, terms to begin January 1, 1955, and February 9, 1955, 29140
respectively; four to be elected in 1956, terms to begin January 29141
1, 1957, to January 4, 1957; four to be elected in 1958, terms to 29142
begin January 1, 1959, to January 4, 1959; three to be elected in 29143
1968, terms to begin January 5, 1969, to January 7, 1969; three to 29144
be elected in 1976, terms to begin on successive days beginning 29145
January 5, 1977, to January 7, 1977; one to be elected in 1982, 29146
term to begin January 8, 1983; one to be elected in 1986, term to 29147
begin January 9, 1987; two to be elected in 1990, terms to begin 29148
July 1, 1991, and July 2, 1991, respectively; one to be elected in 29149
1996, term to begin January 2, 1997; and one to be elected in 29150
2004, term to begin July 1, 2005;29151

       In Hamilton county, twenty-one judges; eight to be elected in 29152
1966, terms to begin January 1, 1967, January 2, 1967, and from 29153
February 9, 1967, to February 14, 1967, respectively; five to be 29154
elected in 1956, terms to begin from January 1, 1957, to January 29155
5, 1957; one to be elected in 1964, term to begin January 1, 1965; 29156
one to be elected in 1974, term to begin January 15, 1975; one to 29157
be elected in 1980, term to begin January 16, 1981; two to be 29158
elected at large in the general election in 1982, terms to begin 29159
April 1, 1983; one to be elected in 1990, term to begin July 1, 29160
1991; and two to be elected in 1996, terms to begin January 3, 29161
1997, and January 4, 1997, respectively;29162

       In Lucas county, fourteen judges; two to be elected in 1954, 29163
terms to begin January 1, 1955, and February 9, 1955, 29164
respectively; two to be elected in 1956, terms to begin January 1, 29165
1957, and October 29, 1957, respectively; two to be elected in 29166
1952, terms to begin January 1, 1953, and January 2, 1953, 29167
respectively; one to be elected in 1964, term to begin January 3, 29168
1965; one to be elected in 1968, term to begin January 4, 1969; 29169
two to be elected in 1976, terms to begin January 4, 1977, and 29170
January 5, 1977, respectively; one to be elected in 1982, term to 29171
begin January 6, 1983; one to be elected in 1988, term to begin 29172
January 7, 1989; one to be elected in 1990, term to begin January 29173
2, 1991; and one to be elected in 1992, term to begin January 2, 29174
1993;29175

       In Mahoning county, seven judges; three to be elected in 29176
1954, terms to begin January 1, 1955, January 2, 1955, and 29177
February 9, 1955, respectively; one to be elected in 1956, term to 29178
begin January 1, 1957; one to be elected in 1952, term to begin 29179
January 1, 1953; one to be elected in 1968, term to begin January 29180
2, 1969; and one to be elected in 1990, term to begin July 1, 29181
1991;29182

       In Montgomery county, fifteen judges; three to be elected in 29183
1954, terms to begin January 1, 1955, January 2, 1955, and January 29184
3, 1955, respectively; four to be elected in 1952, terms to begin 29185
January 1, 1953, January 2, 1953, July 1, 1953, and July 2, 1953, 29186
respectively; one to be elected in 1964, term to begin January 3, 29187
1965; one to be elected in 1968, term to begin January 3, 1969; 29188
three to be elected in 1976, terms to begin on successive days 29189
beginning January 4, 1977, to January 6, 1977; two to be elected 29190
in 1990, terms to begin July 1, 1991, and July 2, 1991, 29191
respectively; and one to be elected in 1992, term to begin January 29192
1, 1993.;29193

       In Stark county, eight judges; one to be elected in 1958, 29194
term to begin on January 2, 1959; two to be elected in 1954, terms 29195
to begin on January 1, 1955, and February 9, 1955, respectively; 29196
two to be elected in 1952, terms to begin January 1, 1953, and 29197
April 16, 1953, respectively; one to be elected in 1966, term to 29198
begin on January 4, 1967; and two to be elected in 1992, terms to 29199
begin January 1, 1993, and January 2, 1993, respectively;29200

       In Summit county, thirteenfourteen judges; four to be 29201
elected in 1954, terms to begin January 1, 1955, January 2, 1955, 29202
January 3, 1955, and February 9, 1955, respectively; three to be 29203
elected in 1958, terms to begin January 1, 1959, January 2, 1959, 29204
and May 17, 1959, respectively; one to be elected in 1966, term to 29205
begin January 4, 1967; one to be elected in 1968, term to begin 29206
January 5, 1969; one to be elected in 1990, term to begin May 1, 29207
1991; one to be elected in 1992, term to begin January 6, 1993; 29208
and two to be elected in 2008, terms to begin January 5, 2009, and 29209
January 6, 2009, respectively; and one to be elected in 2014, term 29210
to begin January 1, 2015.29211

       Notwithstanding the foregoing provisions, in any county 29212
having two or more judges of the court of common pleas, in which 29213
more than one-third of the judges plus one were previously elected 29214
at the same election, if the office of one of those judges so 29215
elected becomes vacant more than fifty-six days prior to the 29216
second general election preceding the expiration of that judge's 29217
term, the office that that judge had filled shall be abolished as 29218
of the date of the next general election, and a new office of 29219
judge of the court of common pleas shall be created. The judge who 29220
is to fill that new office shall be elected for a six-year term at 29221
the next general election, and the term of that judge shall 29222
commence on the first day of the year following that general 29223
election, on which day no other judge's term begins, so that the 29224
number of judges that the county shall elect shall not be reduced.29225

       Judges of the probate division of the court of common pleas 29226
are judges of the court of common pleas but shall be elected 29227
pursuant to sections 2101.02 and 2101.021 of the Revised Code, 29228
except in Adams, Harrison, Henry, Morgan, Noble, and Wyandot 29229
counties in which the judge of the court of common pleas elected 29230
pursuant to this section also shall serve as judge of the probate 29231
division, except in Lorain county in which the judges of the 29232
domestic relations division of the Lorain county court of common 29233
pleas elected pursuant to this section also shall perform the 29234
duties and functions of the judge of the probate division from 29235
February 9, 2009, through September 28, 2009, and except in Morrow 29236
county in which the judges of the court of common pleas elected 29237
pursuant to this section also shall perform the duties and 29238
functions of the judge of the probate division.29239

       Sec. 2301.03.  (A) In Franklin county, the judges of the 29240
court of common pleas whose terms begin on January 1, 1953, 29241
January 2, 1953, January 5, 1969, January 5, 1977, and January 2, 29242
1997, and successors, shall have the same qualifications, exercise 29243
the same powers and jurisdiction, and receive the same 29244
compensation as other judges of the court of common pleas of 29245
Franklin county and shall be elected and designated as judges of 29246
the court of common pleas, division of domestic relations. They 29247
shall have all the powers relating to juvenile courts, and all 29248
cases under Chapters 2151. and 2152. of the Revised Code, all 29249
parentage proceedings under Chapter 3111. of the Revised Code over 29250
which the juvenile court has jurisdiction, and all divorce, 29251
dissolution of marriage, legal separation, and annulment cases 29252
shall be assigned to them. In addition to the judge's regular 29253
duties, the judge who is senior in point of service shall serve on 29254
the children services board and the county advisory board and 29255
shall be the administrator of the domestic relations division and 29256
its subdivisions and departments.29257

       (B) In Hamilton county:29258

       (1) The judge of the court of common pleas, whose term begins 29259
on January 1, 1957, and successors, and the judge of the court of 29260
common pleas, whose term begins on February 14, 1967, and 29261
successors, shall be the juvenile judges as provided in Chapters 29262
2151. and 2152. of the Revised Code, with the powers and 29263
jurisdiction conferred by those chapters.29264

       (2) The judges of the court of common pleas whose terms begin 29265
on January 5, 1957, January 16, 1981, and July 1, 1991, and 29266
successors, shall be elected and designated as judges of the court 29267
of common pleas, division of domestic relations, and shall have 29268
assigned to them all divorce, dissolution of marriage, legal 29269
separation, and annulment cases coming before the court. On or 29270
after the first day of July and before the first day of August of 29271
1991 and each year thereafter, a majority of the judges of the 29272
division of domestic relations shall elect one of the judges of 29273
the division as administrative judge of that division. If a 29274
majority of the judges of the division of domestic relations are 29275
unable for any reason to elect an administrative judge for the 29276
division before the first day of August, a majority of the judges 29277
of the Hamilton county court of common pleas, as soon as possible 29278
after that date, shall elect one of the judges of the division of 29279
domestic relations as administrative judge of that division. The 29280
term of the administrative judge shall begin on the earlier of the 29281
first day of August of the year in which the administrative judge 29282
is elected or the date on which the administrative judge is 29283
elected by a majority of the judges of the Hamilton county court 29284
of common pleas and shall terminate on the date on which the 29285
administrative judge's successor is elected in the following year.29286

       In addition to the judge's regular duties, the administrative 29287
judge of the division of domestic relations shall be the 29288
administrator of the domestic relations division and its 29289
subdivisions and departments and shall have charge of the 29290
employment, assignment, and supervision of the personnel of the 29291
division engaged in handling, servicing, or investigating divorce, 29292
dissolution of marriage, legal separation, and annulment cases, 29293
including any referees considered necessary by the judges in the 29294
discharge of their various duties.29295

       The administrative judge of the division of domestic 29296
relations also shall designate the title, compensation, expense 29297
allowances, hours, leaves of absence, and vacations of the 29298
personnel of the division, and shall fix the duties of its 29299
personnel. The duties of the personnel, in addition to those 29300
provided for in other sections of the Revised Code, shall include 29301
the handling, servicing, and investigation of divorce, dissolution 29302
of marriage, legal separation, and annulment cases and counseling 29303
and conciliation services that may be made available to persons 29304
requesting them, whether or not the persons are parties to an 29305
action pending in the division.29306

       The board of county commissioners shall appropriate the sum 29307
of money each year as will meet all the administrative expenses of 29308
the division of domestic relations, including reasonable expenses 29309
of the domestic relations judges and the division counselors and 29310
other employees designated to conduct the handling, servicing, and 29311
investigation of divorce, dissolution of marriage, legal 29312
separation, and annulment cases, conciliation and counseling, and 29313
all matters relating to those cases and counseling, and the 29314
expenses involved in the attendance of division personnel at 29315
domestic relations and welfare conferences designated by the 29316
division, and the further sum each year as will provide for the 29317
adequate operation of the division of domestic relations.29318

       The compensation and expenses of all employees and the salary 29319
and expenses of the judges shall be paid by the county treasurer 29320
from the money appropriated for the operation of the division, 29321
upon the warrant of the county auditor, certified to by the 29322
administrative judge of the division of domestic relations.29323

       The summonses, warrants, citations, subpoenas, and other 29324
writs of the division may issue to a bailiff, constable, or staff 29325
investigator of the division or to the sheriff of any county or 29326
any marshal, constable, or police officer, and the provisions of 29327
law relating to the subpoenaing of witnesses in other cases shall 29328
apply insofar as they are applicable. When a summons, warrant, 29329
citation, subpoena, or other writ is issued to an officer, other 29330
than a bailiff, constable, or staff investigator of the division, 29331
the expense of serving it shall be assessed as a part of the costs 29332
in the case involved.29333

       (3) The judge of the court of common pleas of Hamilton county 29334
whose term begins on January 3, 1997, and the successors to that 29335
judge shall each be elected and designated as the drug court judge 29336
of the court of common pleas of Hamilton county. The drug court 29337
judge may accept or reject any case referred to the drug court 29338
judge under division (B)(3) of this section. After the drug court 29339
judge accepts a referred case, the drug court judge has full 29340
authority over the case, including the authority to conduct 29341
arraignment, accept pleas, enter findings and dispositions, 29342
conduct trials, order treatment, and if treatment is not 29343
successfully completed pronounce and enter sentence.29344

       A judge of the general division of the court of common pleas 29345
of Hamilton county and a judge of the Hamilton county municipal 29346
court may refer to the drug court judge any case, and any 29347
companion cases, the judge determines meet the criteria described 29348
under divisions (B)(3)(a) and (b) of this section. If the drug 29349
court judge accepts referral of a referred case, the case, and any 29350
companion cases, shall be transferred to the drug court judge. A 29351
judge may refer a case meeting the criteria described in divisions 29352
(B)(3)(a) and (b) of this section that involves a violation of a 29353
condition of a community control sanction to the drug court judge, 29354
and, if the drug court judge accepts the referral, the referring 29355
judge and the drug court judge have concurrent jurisdiction over 29356
the case.29357

       A judge of the general division of the court of common pleas 29358
of Hamilton county and a judge of the Hamilton county municipal 29359
court may refer a case to the drug court judge under division 29360
(B)(3) of this section if the judge determines that both of the 29361
following apply:29362

       (a) One of the following applies:29363

       (i) The case involves a drug abuse offense, as defined in 29364
section 2925.01 of the Revised Code, that is a felony of the third 29365
or fourth degree if the offense is committed prior to July 1, 29366
1996, a felony of the third, fourth, or fifth degree if the 29367
offense is committed on or after July 1, 1996, or a misdemeanor.29368

       (ii) The case involves a theft offense, as defined in section 29369
2913.01 of the Revised Code, that is a felony of the third or 29370
fourth degree if the offense is committed prior to July 1, 1996, a 29371
felony of the third, fourth, or fifth degree if the offense is 29372
committed on or after July 1, 1996, or a misdemeanor, and the 29373
defendant is drug or alcohol dependent or in danger of becoming 29374
drug or alcohol dependent and would benefit from treatment.29375

       (b) All of the following apply:29376

       (i) The case involves an offense for which a community 29377
control sanction may be imposed or is a case in which a mandatory 29378
prison term or a mandatory jail term is not required to be 29379
imposed.29380

       (ii) The defendant has no history of violent behavior.29381

       (iii) The defendant has no history of mental illness.29382

       (iv) The defendant's current or past behavior, or both, is 29383
drug or alcohol driven.29384

       (v) The defendant demonstrates a sincere willingness to 29385
participate in a fifteen-month treatment process.29386

       (vi) The defendant has no acute health condition.29387

       (vii) If the defendant is incarcerated, the county prosecutor 29388
approves of the referral.29389

       (4) If the administrative judge of the court of common pleas 29390
of Hamilton county determines that the volume of cases pending 29391
before the drug court judge does not constitute a sufficient 29392
caseload for the drug court judge, the administrative judge, in 29393
accordance with the Rules of Superintendence for Courts of Common 29394
Pleas, shall assign individual cases to the drug court judge from 29395
the general docket of the court. If the assignments so occur, the 29396
administrative judge shall cease the assignments when the 29397
administrative judge determines that the volume of cases pending 29398
before the drug court judge constitutes a sufficient caseload for 29399
the drug court judge.29400

       (5) As used in division (B) of this section, "community 29401
control sanction," "mandatory prison term," and "mandatory jail 29402
term" have the same meanings as in section 2929.01 of the Revised 29403
Code.29404

       (C)(1) In Lorain county:29405

       (a) The judges of the court of common pleas whose terms begin 29406
on January 3, 1959, January 4, 1989, and January 2, 1999, and 29407
successors, and the judge of the court of common pleas whose term 29408
begins on February 9, 2009, shall have the same qualifications, 29409
exercise the same powers and jurisdiction, and receive the same 29410
compensation as the other judges of the court of common pleas of 29411
Lorain county and shall be elected and designated as the judges of 29412
the court of common pleas, division of domestic relations. The 29413
judges of the court of common pleas whose terms begin on January 29414
3, 1959, January 4, 1989, and January 2, 1999, and successors, 29415
shall have all of the powers relating to juvenile courts, and all 29416
cases under Chapters 2151. and 2152. of the Revised Code, all 29417
parentage proceedings over which the juvenile court has 29418
jurisdiction, and all divorce, dissolution of marriage, legal 29419
separation, and annulment cases shall be assigned to them, except 29420
cases that for some special reason are assigned to some other 29421
judge of the court of common pleas. From February 9, 2009, through 29422
September 28, 2009, the judge of the court of common pleas whose 29423
term begins on February 9, 2009, shall have all the powers 29424
relating to juvenile courts, and cases under Chapters 2151. and 29425
2152. of the Revised Code, parentage proceedings over which the 29426
juvenile court has jurisdiction, and divorce, dissolution of 29427
marriage, legal separation, and annulment cases shall be assigned 29428
to that judge, except cases that for some special reason are 29429
assigned to some other judge of the court of common pleas.29430

       (b) From January 1, 2006, through September 28, 2009, the 29431
judges of the court of common pleas, division of domestic 29432
relations, in addition to the powers and jurisdiction set forth in 29433
division (C)(1)(a) of this section, shall have jurisdiction over 29434
matters that are within the jurisdiction of the probate court 29435
under Chapter 2101. and other provisions of the Revised Code. 29436

        (c) The judge of the court of common pleas, division of 29437
domestic relations, whose term begins on February 9, 2009, is the 29438
successor to the probate judge who was elected in 2002 for a term 29439
that began on February 9, 2003. After September 28, 2009, the 29440
judge of the court of common pleas, division of domestic 29441
relations, whose term begins on February 9, 2009, shall be the 29442
probate judge.29443

        (2)(a) From February 9, 2009, through September 28, 2009, 29444
with respect to Lorain county, all references in law to the 29445
probate court shall be construed as references to the court of 29446
common pleas, division of domestic relations, and all references 29447
to the probate judge shall be construed as references to the 29448
judges of the court of common pleas, division of domestic 29449
relations.29450

        (b) From February 9, 2009, through September 28, 2009, with 29451
respect to Lorain county, all references in law to the clerk of 29452
the probate court shall be construed as references to the judge 29453
who is serving pursuant to Rule 4 of the Rules of Superintendence 29454
for the Courts of Ohio as the administrative judge of the court of 29455
common pleas, division of domestic relations.29456

       (D) In Lucas county:29457

       (1) The judges of the court of common pleas whose terms begin 29458
on January 1, 1955, and January 3, 1965, and successors, shall 29459
have the same qualifications, exercise the same powers and 29460
jurisdiction, and receive the same compensation as other judges of 29461
the court of common pleas of Lucas county and shall be elected and 29462
designated as judges of the court of common pleas, division of 29463
domestic relations. All divorce, dissolution of marriage, legal 29464
separation, and annulment cases shall be assigned to them.29465

       The judge of the division of domestic relations, senior in 29466
point of service, shall be considered as the presiding judge of 29467
the court of common pleas, division of domestic relations, and 29468
shall be charged exclusively with the assignment and division of 29469
the work of the division and the employment and supervision of all 29470
other personnel of the domestic relations division.29471

       (2) The judges of the court of common pleas whose terms begin 29472
on January 5, 1977, and January 2, 1991, and successors shall have 29473
the same qualifications, exercise the same powers and 29474
jurisdiction, and receive the same compensation as other judges of 29475
the court of common pleas of Lucas county, shall be elected and 29476
designated as judges of the court of common pleas, juvenile 29477
division, and shall be the juvenile judges as provided in Chapters 29478
2151. and 2152. of the Revised Code with the powers and 29479
jurisdictions conferred by those chapters. In addition to the 29480
judge's regular duties, the judge of the court of common pleas, 29481
juvenile division, senior in point of service, shall be the 29482
administrator of the juvenile division and its subdivisions and 29483
departments and shall have charge of the employment, assignment, 29484
and supervision of the personnel of the division engaged in 29485
handling, servicing, or investigating juvenile cases, including 29486
any referees considered necessary by the judges of the division in 29487
the discharge of their various duties.29488

       The judge of the court of common pleas, juvenile division, 29489
senior in point of service, also shall designate the title, 29490
compensation, expense allowance, hours, leaves of absence, and 29491
vacation of the personnel of the division and shall fix the duties 29492
of the personnel of the division. The duties of the personnel, in 29493
addition to other statutory duties include the handling, 29494
servicing, and investigation of juvenile cases and counseling and 29495
conciliation services that may be made available to persons 29496
requesting them, whether or not the persons are parties to an 29497
action pending in the division.29498

       (3) If one of the judges of the court of common pleas, 29499
division of domestic relations, or one of the judges of the 29500
juvenile division is sick, absent, or unable to perform that 29501
judge's judicial duties or the volume of cases pending in that 29502
judge's division necessitates it, the duties shall be performed by 29503
the judges of the other of those divisions.29504

       (E) In Mahoning county:29505

       (1) The judge of the court of common pleas whose term began 29506
on January 1, 1955, and successors, shall have the same 29507
qualifications, exercise the same powers and jurisdiction, and 29508
receive the same compensation as other judges of the court of 29509
common pleas of Mahoning county, shall be elected and designated 29510
as judge of the court of common pleas, division of domestic 29511
relations, and shall be assigned all the divorce, dissolution of 29512
marriage, legal separation, and annulment cases coming before the 29513
court. In addition to the judge's regular duties, the judge of the 29514
court of common pleas, division of domestic relations, shall be 29515
the administrator of the domestic relations division and its 29516
subdivisions and departments and shall have charge of the 29517
employment, assignment, and supervision of the personnel of the 29518
division engaged in handling, servicing, or investigating divorce, 29519
dissolution of marriage, legal separation, and annulment cases, 29520
including any referees considered necessary in the discharge of 29521
the various duties of the judge's office.29522

       The judge also shall designate the title, compensation, 29523
expense allowances, hours, leaves of absence, and vacations of the 29524
personnel of the division and shall fix the duties of the 29525
personnel of the division. The duties of the personnel, in 29526
addition to other statutory duties, include the handling, 29527
servicing, and investigation of divorce, dissolution of marriage, 29528
legal separation, and annulment cases and counseling and 29529
conciliation services that may be made available to persons 29530
requesting them, whether or not the persons are parties to an 29531
action pending in the division.29532

       (2) The judge of the court of common pleas whose term began 29533
on January 2, 1969, and successors, shall have the same 29534
qualifications, exercise the same powers and jurisdiction, and 29535
receive the same compensation as other judges of the court of 29536
common pleas of Mahoning county, shall be elected and designated 29537
as judge of the court of common pleas, juvenile division, and 29538
shall be the juvenile judge as provided in Chapters 2151. and 29539
2152. of the Revised Code, with the powers and jurisdictions 29540
conferred by those chapters. In addition to the judge's regular 29541
duties, the judge of the court of common pleas, juvenile division, 29542
shall be the administrator of the juvenile division and its 29543
subdivisions and departments and shall have charge of the 29544
employment, assignment, and supervision of the personnel of the 29545
division engaged in handling, servicing, or investigating juvenile 29546
cases, including any referees considered necessary by the judge in 29547
the discharge of the judge's various duties.29548

       The judge also shall designate the title, compensation, 29549
expense allowances, hours, leaves of absence, and vacation of the 29550
personnel of the division and shall fix the duties of the 29551
personnel of the division. The duties of the personnel, in 29552
addition to other statutory duties, include the handling, 29553
servicing, and investigation of juvenile cases and counseling and 29554
conciliation services that may be made available to persons 29555
requesting them, whether or not the persons are parties to an 29556
action pending in the division.29557

       (3) If a judge of the court of common pleas, division of 29558
domestic relations or juvenile division, is sick, absent, or 29559
unable to perform that judge's judicial duties, or the volume of 29560
cases pending in that judge's division necessitates it, that 29561
judge's duties shall be performed by another judge of the court of 29562
common pleas.29563

       (F) In Montgomery county:29564

       (1) The judges of the court of common pleas whose terms begin 29565
on January 2, 1953, and January 4, 1977, and successors, shall 29566
have the same qualifications, exercise the same powers and 29567
jurisdiction, and receive the same compensation as other judges of 29568
the court of common pleas of Montgomery county and shall be 29569
elected and designated as judges of the court of common pleas, 29570
division of domestic relations. These judges shall have assigned 29571
to them all divorce, dissolution of marriage, legal separation, 29572
and annulment cases.29573

       The judge of the division of domestic relations, senior in 29574
point of service, shall be charged exclusively with the assignment 29575
and division of the work of the division and shall have charge of 29576
the employment and supervision of the personnel of the division 29577
engaged in handling, servicing, or investigating divorce, 29578
dissolution of marriage, legal separation, and annulment cases, 29579
including any necessary referees, except those employees who may 29580
be appointed by the judge, junior in point of service, under this 29581
section and sections 2301.12 and 2301.18 of the Revised Code. The 29582
judge of the division of domestic relations, senior in point of 29583
service, also shall designate the title, compensation, expense 29584
allowances, hours, leaves of absence, and vacation of the 29585
personnel of the division and shall fix their duties.29586

       (2) The judges of the court of common pleas whose terms begin 29587
on January 1, 1953, and January 1, 1993, and successors, shall 29588
have the same qualifications, exercise the same powers and 29589
jurisdiction, and receive the same compensation as other judges of 29590
the court of common pleas of Montgomery county, shall be elected 29591
and designated as judges of the court of common pleas, juvenile 29592
division, and shall be, and have the powers and jurisdiction of, 29593
the juvenile judge as provided in Chapters 2151. and 2152. of the 29594
Revised Code.29595

       In addition to the judge's regular duties, the judge of the 29596
court of common pleas, juvenile division, senior in point of 29597
service, shall be the administrator of the juvenile division and 29598
its subdivisions and departments and shall have charge of the 29599
employment, assignment, and supervision of the personnel of the 29600
juvenile division, including any necessary referees, who are 29601
engaged in handling, servicing, or investigating juvenile cases. 29602
The judge, senior in point of service, also shall designate the 29603
title, compensation, expense allowances, hours, leaves of absence, 29604
and vacation of the personnel of the division and shall fix their 29605
duties. The duties of the personnel, in addition to other 29606
statutory duties, shall include the handling, servicing, and 29607
investigation of juvenile cases and of any counseling and 29608
conciliation services that are available upon request to persons, 29609
whether or not they are parties to an action pending in the 29610
division.29611

       If one of the judges of the court of common pleas, division 29612
of domestic relations, or one of the judges of the court of common 29613
pleas, juvenile division, is sick, absent, or unable to perform 29614
that judge's duties or the volume of cases pending in that judge's 29615
division necessitates it, the duties of that judge may be 29616
performed by the judge or judges of the other of those divisions.29617

       (G) In Richland county:29618

       (1) The judge of the court of common pleas whose term begins 29619
on January 1, 1957, and successors, shall have the same 29620
qualifications, exercise the same powers and jurisdiction, and 29621
receive the same compensation as the other judges of the court of 29622
common pleas of Richland county and shall be elected and 29623
designated as judge of the court of common pleas, division of 29624
domestic relations. That judge shall be assigned and hear all 29625
divorce, dissolution of marriage, legal separation, and annulment 29626
cases, all domestic violence cases arising under section 3113.31 29627
of the Revised Code, and all post-decree proceedings arising from 29628
any case pertaining to any of those matters. The division of 29629
domestic relations has concurrent jurisdiction with the juvenile 29630
division of the court of common pleas of Richland county to 29631
determine the care, custody, or control of any child not a ward of 29632
another court of this state, and to hear and determine a request 29633
for an order for the support of any child if the request is not 29634
ancillary to an action for divorce, dissolution of marriage, 29635
annulment, or legal separation, a criminal or civil action 29636
involving an allegation of domestic violence, or an action for 29637
support brought under Chapter 3115. of the Revised Code. Except in 29638
cases that are subject to the exclusive original jurisdiction of 29639
the juvenile court, the judge of the division of domestic 29640
relations shall be assigned and hear all cases pertaining to 29641
paternity or parentage, the care, custody, or control of children, 29642
parenting time or visitation, child support, or the allocation of 29643
parental rights and responsibilities for the care of children, all 29644
proceedings arising under Chapter 3111. of the Revised Code, all 29645
proceedings arising under the uniform interstate family support 29646
act contained in Chapter 3115. of the Revised Code, and all 29647
post-decree proceedings arising from any case pertaining to any of 29648
those matters.29649

       In addition to the judge's regular duties, the judge of the 29650
court of common pleas, division of domestic relations, shall be 29651
the administrator of the domestic relations division and its 29652
subdivisions and departments. The judge shall have charge of the 29653
employment, assignment, and supervision of the personnel of the 29654
domestic relations division, including any magistrates the judge 29655
considers necessary for the discharge of the judge's duties. The 29656
judge shall also designate the title, compensation, expense 29657
allowances, hours, leaves of absence, vacation, and other 29658
employment-related matters of the personnel of the division and 29659
shall fix their duties.29660

        (2) The judge of the court of common pleas whose term begins 29661
on January 3, 2005, and successors, shall have the same 29662
qualifications, exercise the same powers and jurisdiction, and 29663
receive the same compensation as other judges of the court of 29664
common pleas of Richland county, shall be elected and designated 29665
as judge of the court of common pleas, juvenile division, and 29666
shall be, and have the powers and jurisdiction of, the juvenile 29667
judge as provided in Chapters 2151. and 2152. of the Revised Code. 29668
Except in cases that are subject to the exclusive original 29669
jurisdiction of the juvenile court, the judge of the juvenile 29670
division shall not have jurisdiction or the power to hear, and 29671
shall not be assigned, any case pertaining to paternity or 29672
parentage, the care, custody, or control of children, parenting 29673
time or visitation, child support, or the allocation of parental 29674
rights and responsibilities for the care of children or any 29675
post-decree proceeding arising from any case pertaining to any of 29676
those matters. The judge of the juvenile division shall not have 29677
jurisdiction or the power to hear, and shall not be assigned, any 29678
proceeding under the uniform interstate family support act 29679
contained in Chapter 3115. of the Revised Code.29680

       In addition to the judge's regular duties, the judge of the 29681
juvenile division shall be the administrator of the juvenile 29682
division and its subdivisions and departments. The judge shall 29683
have charge of the employment, assignment, and supervision of the 29684
personnel of the juvenile division who are engaged in handling, 29685
servicing, or investigating juvenile cases, including any 29686
magistrates whom the judge considers necessary for the discharge 29687
of the judge's various duties.29688

       The judge of the juvenile division also shall designate the 29689
title, compensation, expense allowances, hours, leaves of absence, 29690
and vacation of the personnel of the division and shall fix their 29691
duties. The duties of the personnel, in addition to other 29692
statutory duties, include the handling, servicing, and 29693
investigation of juvenile cases and providing any counseling, 29694
conciliation, and mediation services that the court makes 29695
available to persons, whether or not the persons are parties to an 29696
action pending in the court, who request the services.29697

       (H) In Stark county, the judges of the court of common pleas 29698
whose terms begin on January 1, 1953, January 2, 1959, and January 29699
1, 1993, and successors, shall have the same qualifications, 29700
exercise the same powers and jurisdiction, and receive the same 29701
compensation as other judges of the court of common pleas of Stark 29702
county and shall be elected and designated as judges of the court 29703
of common pleas, division of domestic relations. They shall have 29704
all the powers relating to juvenile courts, and all cases under 29705
Chapters 2151. and 2152. of the Revised Code, all parentage 29706
proceedings over which the juvenile court has jurisdiction, and 29707
all divorce, dissolution of marriage, legal separation, and 29708
annulment cases, except cases that are assigned to some other 29709
judge of the court of common pleas for some special reason, shall 29710
be assigned to the judges.29711

       The judge of the division of domestic relations, second most 29712
senior in point of service, shall have charge of the employment 29713
and supervision of the personnel of the division engaged in 29714
handling, servicing, or investigating divorce, dissolution of 29715
marriage, legal separation, and annulment cases, and necessary 29716
referees required for the judge's respective court.29717

       The judge of the division of domestic relations, senior in 29718
point of service, shall be charged exclusively with the 29719
administration of sections 2151.13, 2151.16, 2151.17, and 2152.71 29720
of the Revised Code and with the assignment and division of the 29721
work of the division and the employment and supervision of all 29722
other personnel of the division, including, but not limited to, 29723
that judge's necessary referees, but excepting those employees who 29724
may be appointed by the judge second most senior in point of 29725
service. The senior judge further shall serve in every other 29726
position in which the statutes permit or require a juvenile judge 29727
to serve.29728

       (I) In Summit county:29729

       (1) The judges of the court of common pleas whose terms begin 29730
on January 4, 1967, and January 6, 1993, and successors, shall 29731
have the same qualifications, exercise the same powers and 29732
jurisdiction, and receive the same compensation as other judges of 29733
the court of common pleas of Summit county and shall be elected 29734
and designated as judges of the court of common pleas, division of 29735
domestic relations. The judges of the division of domestic 29736
relations shall have assigned to them and hear all divorce, 29737
dissolution of marriage, legal separation, and annulment cases 29738
that come before the court. Except in cases that are subject to 29739
the exclusive original jurisdiction of the juvenile court, the 29740
judges of the division of domestic relations shall have assigned 29741
to them and hear all cases pertaining to paternity, custody, 29742
visitation, child support, or the allocation of parental rights 29743
and responsibilities for the care of children and all post-decree 29744
proceedings arising from any case pertaining to any of those 29745
matters. The judges of the division of domestic relations shall 29746
have assigned to them and hear all proceedings under the uniform 29747
interstate family support act contained in Chapter 3115. of the 29748
Revised Code.29749

       The judge of the division of domestic relations, senior in 29750
point of service, shall be the administrator of the domestic 29751
relations division and its subdivisions and departments and shall 29752
have charge of the employment, assignment, and supervision of the 29753
personnel of the division, including any necessary referees, who 29754
are engaged in handling, servicing, or investigating divorce, 29755
dissolution of marriage, legal separation, and annulment cases. 29756
That judge also shall designate the title, compensation, expense 29757
allowances, hours, leaves of absence, and vacations of the 29758
personnel of the division and shall fix their duties. The duties 29759
of the personnel, in addition to other statutory duties, shall 29760
include the handling, servicing, and investigation of divorce, 29761
dissolution of marriage, legal separation, and annulment cases and 29762
of any counseling and conciliation services that are available 29763
upon request to all persons, whether or not they are parties to an 29764
action pending in the division.29765

       (2) The judgejudges of the court of common pleas whose term 29766
beginsterms begin on January 1, 1955, and January 1, 2015, and 29767
successors, shall have the same qualifications, exercise the same 29768
powers and jurisdiction, and receive the same compensation as 29769
other judges of the court of common pleas of Summit county, shall 29770
be elected and designated as judgejudges of the court of common 29771
pleas, juvenile division, and shall be, and have the powers and 29772
jurisdiction of, the juvenile judgejudges as provided in Chapters 29773
2151. and 2152. of the Revised Code. Except in cases that are 29774
subject to the exclusive original jurisdiction of the juvenile 29775
court, the judgejudges of the juvenile division shall not have 29776
jurisdiction or the power to hear, and shall not be assigned, any 29777
case pertaining to paternity, custody, visitation, child support, 29778
or the allocation of parental rights and responsibilities for the 29779
care of children or any post-decree proceeding arising from any 29780
case pertaining to any of those matters. The judgejudges of the 29781
juvenile division shall not have jurisdiction or the power to 29782
hear, and shall not be assigned, any proceeding under the uniform 29783
interstate family support act contained in Chapter 3115. of the 29784
Revised Code.29785

       The juvenile judge, senior in point of service, shall be the 29786
administrator of the juvenile division and its subdivisions and 29787
departments and shall have charge of the employment, assignment, 29788
and supervision of the personnel of the juvenile division, 29789
including any necessary referees, who are engaged in handling, 29790
servicing, or investigating juvenile cases. The judge senior in 29791
point of service also shall designate the title, compensation, 29792
expense allowances, hours, leaves of absence, and vacation of the 29793
personnel of the division and shall fix their duties. The duties 29794
of the personnel, in addition to other statutory duties, shall 29795
include the handling, servicing, and investigation of juvenile 29796
cases and of any counseling and conciliation services that are 29797
available upon request to persons, whether or not they are parties 29798
to an action pending in the division.29799

       (J) In Trumbull county, the judges of the court of common 29800
pleas whose terms begin on January 1, 1953, and January 2, 1977, 29801
and successors, shall have the same qualifications, exercise the 29802
same powers and jurisdiction, and receive the same compensation as 29803
other judges of the court of common pleas of Trumbull county and 29804
shall be elected and designated as judges of the court of common 29805
pleas, division of domestic relations. They shall have all the 29806
powers relating to juvenile courts, and all cases under Chapters 29807
2151. and 2152. of the Revised Code, all parentage proceedings 29808
over which the juvenile court has jurisdiction, and all divorce, 29809
dissolution of marriage, legal separation, and annulment cases 29810
shall be assigned to them, except cases that for some special 29811
reason are assigned to some other judge of the court of common 29812
pleas.29813

       (K) In Butler county:29814

       (1) The judges of the court of common pleas whose terms begin 29815
on January 1, 1957, and January 4, 1993, and successors, shall 29816
have the same qualifications, exercise the same powers and 29817
jurisdiction, and receive the same compensation as other judges of 29818
the court of common pleas of Butler county and shall be elected 29819
and designated as judges of the court of common pleas, division of 29820
domestic relations. The judges of the division of domestic 29821
relations shall have assigned to them all divorce, dissolution of 29822
marriage, legal separation, and annulment cases coming before the 29823
court, except in cases that for some special reason are assigned 29824
to some other judge of the court of common pleas. The judges of 29825
the division of domestic relations also have concurrent 29826
jurisdiction with judges of the juvenile division of the court of 29827
common pleas of Butler county with respect to and may hear cases 29828
to determine the custody, support, or custody and support of a 29829
child who is born of issue of a marriage and who is not the ward 29830
of another court of this state, cases commenced by a party of the 29831
marriage to obtain an order requiring support of any child when 29832
the request for that order is not ancillary to an action for 29833
divorce, dissolution of marriage, annulment, or legal separation, 29834
a criminal or civil action involving an allegation of domestic 29835
violence, an action for support under Chapter 3115. of the Revised 29836
Code, or an action that is within the exclusive original 29837
jurisdiction of the juvenile division of the court of common pleas 29838
of Butler county and that involves an allegation that the child is 29839
an abused, neglected, or dependent child, and post-decree 29840
proceedings and matters arising from those types of cases. The 29841
judge senior in point of service shall be charged with the 29842
assignment and division of the work of the division and with the 29843
employment and supervision of all other personnel of the domestic 29844
relations division.29845

       The judge senior in point of service also shall designate the 29846
title, compensation, expense allowances, hours, leaves of absence, 29847
and vacations of the personnel of the division and shall fix their 29848
duties. The duties of the personnel, in addition to other 29849
statutory duties, shall include the handling, servicing, and 29850
investigation of divorce, dissolution of marriage, legal 29851
separation, and annulment cases and providing any counseling and 29852
conciliation services that the division makes available to 29853
persons, whether or not the persons are parties to an action 29854
pending in the division, who request the services.29855

       (2) The judges of the court of common pleas whose terms begin 29856
on January 3, 1987, and January 2, 2003, and successors, shall 29857
have the same qualifications, exercise the same powers and 29858
jurisdiction, and receive the same compensation as other judges of 29859
the court of common pleas of Butler county, shall be elected and 29860
designated as judges of the court of common pleas, juvenile 29861
division, and shall be the juvenile judges as provided in Chapters 29862
2151. and 2152. of the Revised Code, with the powers and 29863
jurisdictions conferred by those chapters. Except in cases that 29864
are subject to the exclusive original jurisdiction of the juvenile 29865
court, the judges of the juvenile division shall not have 29866
jurisdiction or the power to hear and shall not be assigned, but 29867
shall have the limited ability and authority to certify, any case 29868
commenced by a party of a marriage to determine the custody, 29869
support, or custody and support of a child who is born of issue of 29870
the marriage and who is not the ward of another court of this 29871
state when the request for the order in the case is not ancillary 29872
to an action for divorce, dissolution of marriage, annulment, or 29873
legal separation. The judge of the court of common pleas, juvenile 29874
division, who is senior in point of service, shall be the 29875
administrator of the juvenile division and its subdivisions and 29876
departments. The judge, senior in point of service, shall have 29877
charge of the employment, assignment, and supervision of the 29878
personnel of the juvenile division who are engaged in handling, 29879
servicing, or investigating juvenile cases, including any referees 29880
whom the judge considers necessary for the discharge of the 29881
judge's various duties.29882

       The judge, senior in point of service, also shall designate 29883
the title, compensation, expense allowances, hours, leaves of 29884
absence, and vacation of the personnel of the division and shall 29885
fix their duties. The duties of the personnel, in addition to 29886
other statutory duties, include the handling, servicing, and 29887
investigation of juvenile cases and providing any counseling and 29888
conciliation services that the division makes available to 29889
persons, whether or not the persons are parties to an action 29890
pending in the division, who request the services.29891

       (3) If a judge of the court of common pleas, division of 29892
domestic relations or juvenile division, is sick, absent, or 29893
unable to perform that judge's judicial duties or the volume of 29894
cases pending in the judge's division necessitates it, the duties 29895
of that judge shall be performed by the other judges of the 29896
domestic relations and juvenile divisions.29897

       (L)(1) In Cuyahoga county, the judges of the court of common 29898
pleas whose terms begin on January 8, 1961, January 9, 1961, 29899
January 18, 1975, January 19, 1975, and January 13, 1987, and 29900
successors, shall have the same qualifications, exercise the same 29901
powers and jurisdiction, and receive the same compensation as 29902
other judges of the court of common pleas of Cuyahoga county and 29903
shall be elected and designated as judges of the court of common 29904
pleas, division of domestic relations. They shall have all the 29905
powers relating to all divorce, dissolution of marriage, legal 29906
separation, and annulment cases, except in cases that are assigned 29907
to some other judge of the court of common pleas for some special 29908
reason.29909

       (2) The administrative judge is administrator of the domestic 29910
relations division and its subdivisions and departments and has 29911
the following powers concerning division personnel:29912

       (a) Full charge of the employment, assignment, and 29913
supervision;29914

       (b) Sole determination of compensation, duties, expenses, 29915
allowances, hours, leaves, and vacations.29916

       (3) "Division personnel" include persons employed or referees 29917
engaged in hearing, servicing, investigating, counseling, or 29918
conciliating divorce, dissolution of marriage, legal separation 29919
and annulment matters.29920

       (M) In Lake county:29921

       (1) The judge of the court of common pleas whose term begins 29922
on January 2, 1961, and successors, shall have the same 29923
qualifications, exercise the same powers and jurisdiction, and 29924
receive the same compensation as the other judges of the court of 29925
common pleas of Lake county and shall be elected and designated as 29926
judge of the court of common pleas, division of domestic 29927
relations. The judge shall be assigned all the divorce, 29928
dissolution of marriage, legal separation, and annulment cases 29929
coming before the court, except in cases that for some special 29930
reason are assigned to some other judge of the court of common 29931
pleas. The judge shall be charged with the assignment and division 29932
of the work of the division and with the employment and 29933
supervision of all other personnel of the domestic relations 29934
division.29935

       The judge also shall designate the title, compensation, 29936
expense allowances, hours, leaves of absence, and vacations of the 29937
personnel of the division and shall fix their duties. The duties 29938
of the personnel, in addition to other statutory duties, shall 29939
include the handling, servicing, and investigation of divorce, 29940
dissolution of marriage, legal separation, and annulment cases and 29941
providing any counseling and conciliation services that the 29942
division makes available to persons, whether or not the persons 29943
are parties to an action pending in the division, who request the 29944
services.29945

       (2) The judge of the court of common pleas whose term begins 29946
on January 4, 1979, and successors, shall have the same 29947
qualifications, exercise the same powers and jurisdiction, and 29948
receive the same compensation as other judges of the court of 29949
common pleas of Lake county, shall be elected and designated as 29950
judge of the court of common pleas, juvenile division, and shall 29951
be the juvenile judge as provided in Chapters 2151. and 2152. of 29952
the Revised Code, with the powers and jurisdictions conferred by 29953
those chapters. The judge of the court of common pleas, juvenile 29954
division, shall be the administrator of the juvenile division and 29955
its subdivisions and departments. The judge shall have charge of 29956
the employment, assignment, and supervision of the personnel of 29957
the juvenile division who are engaged in handling, servicing, or 29958
investigating juvenile cases, including any referees whom the 29959
judge considers necessary for the discharge of the judge's various 29960
duties.29961

       The judge also shall designate the title, compensation, 29962
expense allowances, hours, leaves of absence, and vacation of the 29963
personnel of the division and shall fix their duties. The duties 29964
of the personnel, in addition to other statutory duties, include 29965
the handling, servicing, and investigation of juvenile cases and 29966
providing any counseling and conciliation services that the 29967
division makes available to persons, whether or not the persons 29968
are parties to an action pending in the division, who request the 29969
services.29970

       (3) If a judge of the court of common pleas, division of 29971
domestic relations or juvenile division, is sick, absent, or 29972
unable to perform that judge's judicial duties or the volume of 29973
cases pending in the judge's division necessitates it, the duties 29974
of that judge shall be performed by the other judges of the 29975
domestic relations and juvenile divisions.29976

       (N) In Erie county:29977

       (1) The judge of the court of common pleas whose term begins 29978
on January 2, 1971, and the successors to that judge whose terms 29979
begin before January 2, 2007, shall have the same qualifications, 29980
exercise the same powers and jurisdiction, and receive the same 29981
compensation as the other judge of the court of common pleas of 29982
Erie county and shall be elected and designated as judge of the 29983
court of common pleas, division of domestic relations. The judge 29984
shall have all the powers relating to juvenile courts, and shall 29985
be assigned all cases under Chapters 2151. and 2152. of the 29986
Revised Code, parentage proceedings over which the juvenile court 29987
has jurisdiction, and divorce, dissolution of marriage, legal 29988
separation, and annulment cases, except cases that for some 29989
special reason are assigned to some other judge.29990

        On or after January 2, 2007, the judge of the court of common 29991
pleas who is elected in 2006 shall be the successor to the judge 29992
of the domestic relations division whose term expires on January 29993
1, 2007, shall be designated as judge of the court of common 29994
pleas, juvenile division, and shall be the juvenile judge as 29995
provided in Chapters 2151. and 2152. of the Revised Code with the 29996
powers and jurisdictions conferred by those chapters.29997

        (2) The judge of the court of common pleas, general division, 29998
whose term begins on January 1, 2005, and successors, the judge of 29999
the court of common pleas, general division whose term begins on 30000
January 2, 2005, and successors, and the judge of the court of 30001
common pleas, general division, whose term begins February 9, 30002
2009, and successors, shall have assigned to them, in addition to 30003
all matters that are within the jurisdiction of the general 30004
division of the court of common pleas, all divorce, dissolution of 30005
marriage, legal separation, and annulment cases coming before the 30006
court, and all matters that are within the jurisdiction of the 30007
probate court under Chapter 2101., and other provisions, of the 30008
Revised Code.30009

       (O) In Greene county:30010

       (1) The judge of the court of common pleas whose term begins 30011
on January 1, 1961, and successors, shall have the same 30012
qualifications, exercise the same powers and jurisdiction, and 30013
receive the same compensation as the other judges of the court of 30014
common pleas of Greene county and shall be elected and designated 30015
as the judge of the court of common pleas, division of domestic 30016
relations. The judge shall be assigned all divorce, dissolution of 30017
marriage, legal separation, annulment, uniform reciprocal support 30018
enforcement, and domestic violence cases and all other cases 30019
related to domestic relations, except cases that for some special 30020
reason are assigned to some other judge of the court of common 30021
pleas.30022

       The judge shall be charged with the assignment and division 30023
of the work of the division and with the employment and 30024
supervision of all other personnel of the division. The judge also 30025
shall designate the title, compensation, hours, leaves of absence, 30026
and vacations of the personnel of the division and shall fix their 30027
duties. The duties of the personnel of the division, in addition 30028
to other statutory duties, shall include the handling, servicing, 30029
and investigation of divorce, dissolution of marriage, legal 30030
separation, and annulment cases and the provision of counseling 30031
and conciliation services that the division considers necessary 30032
and makes available to persons who request the services, whether 30033
or not the persons are parties in an action pending in the 30034
division. The compensation for the personnel shall be paid from 30035
the overall court budget and shall be included in the 30036
appropriations for the existing judges of the general division of 30037
the court of common pleas.30038

       (2) The judge of the court of common pleas whose term begins 30039
on January 1, 1995, and successors, shall have the same 30040
qualifications, exercise the same powers and jurisdiction, and 30041
receive the same compensation as the other judges of the court of 30042
common pleas of Greene county, shall be elected and designated as 30043
judge of the court of common pleas, juvenile division, and, on or 30044
after January 1, 1995, shall be the juvenile judge as provided in 30045
Chapters 2151. and 2152. of the Revised Code with the powers and 30046
jurisdiction conferred by those chapters. The judge of the court 30047
of common pleas, juvenile division, shall be the administrator of 30048
the juvenile division and its subdivisions and departments. The 30049
judge shall have charge of the employment, assignment, and 30050
supervision of the personnel of the juvenile division who are 30051
engaged in handling, servicing, or investigating juvenile cases, 30052
including any referees whom the judge considers necessary for the 30053
discharge of the judge's various duties.30054

       The judge also shall designate the title, compensation, 30055
expense allowances, hours, leaves of absence, and vacation of the 30056
personnel of the division and shall fix their duties. The duties 30057
of the personnel, in addition to other statutory duties, include 30058
the handling, servicing, and investigation of juvenile cases and 30059
providing any counseling and conciliation services that the court 30060
makes available to persons, whether or not the persons are parties 30061
to an action pending in the court, who request the services.30062

       (3) If one of the judges of the court of common pleas, 30063
general division, is sick, absent, or unable to perform that 30064
judge's judicial duties or the volume of cases pending in the 30065
general division necessitates it, the duties of that judge of the 30066
general division shall be performed by the judge of the division 30067
of domestic relations and the judge of the juvenile division.30068

       (P) In Portage county, the judge of the court of common 30069
pleas, whose term begins January 2, 1987, and successors, shall 30070
have the same qualifications, exercise the same powers and 30071
jurisdiction, and receive the same compensation as the other 30072
judges of the court of common pleas of Portage county and shall be 30073
elected and designated as judge of the court of common pleas, 30074
division of domestic relations. The judge shall be assigned all 30075
divorce, dissolution of marriage, legal separation, and annulment 30076
cases coming before the court, except in cases that for some 30077
special reason are assigned to some other judge of the court of 30078
common pleas. The judge shall be charged with the assignment and 30079
division of the work of the division and with the employment and 30080
supervision of all other personnel of the domestic relations 30081
division.30082

       The judge also shall designate the title, compensation, 30083
expense allowances, hours, leaves of absence, and vacations of the 30084
personnel of the division and shall fix their duties. The duties 30085
of the personnel, in addition to other statutory duties, shall 30086
include the handling, servicing, and investigation of divorce, 30087
dissolution of marriage, legal separation, and annulment cases and 30088
providing any counseling and conciliation services that the 30089
division makes available to persons, whether or not the persons 30090
are parties to an action pending in the division, who request the 30091
services.30092

       (Q) In Clermont county, the judge of the court of common 30093
pleas, whose term begins January 2, 1987, and successors, shall 30094
have the same qualifications, exercise the same powers and 30095
jurisdiction, and receive the same compensation as the other 30096
judges of the court of common pleas of Clermont county and shall 30097
be elected and designated as judge of the court of common pleas, 30098
division of domestic relations. The judge shall be assigned all 30099
divorce, dissolution of marriage, legal separation, and annulment 30100
cases coming before the court, except in cases that for some 30101
special reason are assigned to some other judge of the court of 30102
common pleas. The judge shall be charged with the assignment and 30103
division of the work of the division and with the employment and 30104
supervision of all other personnel of the domestic relations 30105
division.30106

       The judge also shall designate the title, compensation, 30107
expense allowances, hours, leaves of absence, and vacations of the 30108
personnel of the division and shall fix their duties. The duties 30109
of the personnel, in addition to other statutory duties, shall 30110
include the handling, servicing, and investigation of divorce, 30111
dissolution of marriage, legal separation, and annulment cases and 30112
providing any counseling and conciliation services that the 30113
division makes available to persons, whether or not the persons 30114
are parties to an action pending in the division, who request the 30115
services.30116

       (R) In Warren county, the judge of the court of common pleas, 30117
whose term begins January 1, 1987, and successors, shall have the 30118
same qualifications, exercise the same powers and jurisdiction, 30119
and receive the same compensation as the other judges of the court 30120
of common pleas of Warren county and shall be elected and 30121
designated as judge of the court of common pleas, division of 30122
domestic relations. The judge shall be assigned all divorce, 30123
dissolution of marriage, legal separation, and annulment cases 30124
coming before the court, except in cases that for some special 30125
reason are assigned to some other judge of the court of common 30126
pleas. The judge shall be charged with the assignment and division 30127
of the work of the division and with the employment and 30128
supervision of all other personnel of the domestic relations 30129
division.30130

       The judge also shall designate the title, compensation, 30131
expense allowances, hours, leaves of absence, and vacations of the 30132
personnel of the division and shall fix their duties. The duties 30133
of the personnel, in addition to other statutory duties, shall 30134
include the handling, servicing, and investigation of divorce, 30135
dissolution of marriage, legal separation, and annulment cases and 30136
providing any counseling and conciliation services that the 30137
division makes available to persons, whether or not the persons 30138
are parties to an action pending in the division, who request the 30139
services.30140

       (S) In Licking county, the judges of the court of common 30141
pleas, whose terms begin on January 1, 1991, and January 1, 2005, 30142
and successors, shall have the same qualifications, exercise the 30143
same powers and jurisdiction, and receive the same compensation as 30144
the other judges of the court of common pleas of Licking county 30145
and shall be elected and designated as judges of the court of 30146
common pleas, division of domestic relations. The judges shall be 30147
assigned all divorce, dissolution of marriage, legal separation, 30148
and annulment cases, all cases arising under Chapter 3111. of the 30149
Revised Code, all proceedings involving child support, the 30150
allocation of parental rights and responsibilities for the care of 30151
children and the designation for the children of a place of 30152
residence and legal custodian, parenting time, and visitation, and 30153
all post-decree proceedings and matters arising from those cases 30154
and proceedings, except in cases that for some special reason are 30155
assigned to another judge of the court of common pleas. The 30156
administrative judge of the division of domestic relations shall 30157
be charged with the assignment and division of the work of the 30158
division and with the employment and supervision of the personnel 30159
of the division.30160

       The administrative judge of the division of domestic 30161
relations shall designate the title, compensation, expense 30162
allowances, hours, leaves of absence, and vacations of the 30163
personnel of the division and shall fix the duties of the 30164
personnel of the division. The duties of the personnel of the 30165
division, in addition to other statutory duties, shall include the 30166
handling, servicing, and investigation of divorce, dissolution of 30167
marriage, legal separation, and annulment cases, cases arising 30168
under Chapter 3111. of the Revised Code, and proceedings involving 30169
child support, the allocation of parental rights and 30170
responsibilities for the care of children and the designation for 30171
the children of a place of residence and legal custodian, 30172
parenting time, and visitation and providing any counseling and 30173
conciliation services that the division makes available to 30174
persons, whether or not the persons are parties to an action 30175
pending in the division, who request the services.30176

       (T) In Allen county, the judge of the court of common pleas, 30177
whose term begins January 1, 1993, and successors, shall have the 30178
same qualifications, exercise the same powers and jurisdiction, 30179
and receive the same compensation as the other judges of the court 30180
of common pleas of Allen county and shall be elected and 30181
designated as judge of the court of common pleas, division of 30182
domestic relations. The judge shall be assigned all divorce, 30183
dissolution of marriage, legal separation, and annulment cases, 30184
all cases arising under Chapter 3111. of the Revised Code, all 30185
proceedings involving child support, the allocation of parental 30186
rights and responsibilities for the care of children and the 30187
designation for the children of a place of residence and legal 30188
custodian, parenting time, and visitation, and all post-decree 30189
proceedings and matters arising from those cases and proceedings, 30190
except in cases that for some special reason are assigned to 30191
another judge of the court of common pleas. The judge shall be 30192
charged with the assignment and division of the work of the 30193
division and with the employment and supervision of the personnel 30194
of the division.30195

       The judge shall designate the title, compensation, expense 30196
allowances, hours, leaves of absence, and vacations of the 30197
personnel of the division and shall fix the duties of the 30198
personnel of the division. The duties of the personnel of the 30199
division, in addition to other statutory duties, shall include the 30200
handling, servicing, and investigation of divorce, dissolution of 30201
marriage, legal separation, and annulment cases, cases arising 30202
under Chapter 3111. of the Revised Code, and proceedings involving 30203
child support, the allocation of parental rights and 30204
responsibilities for the care of children and the designation for 30205
the children of a place of residence and legal custodian, 30206
parenting time, and visitation, and providing any counseling and 30207
conciliation services that the division makes available to 30208
persons, whether or not the persons are parties to an action 30209
pending in the division, who request the services.30210

       (U) In Medina county, the judge of the court of common pleas 30211
whose term begins January 1, 1995, and successors, shall have the 30212
same qualifications, exercise the same powers and jurisdiction, 30213
and receive the same compensation as other judges of the court of 30214
common pleas of Medina county and shall be elected and designated 30215
as judge of the court of common pleas, division of domestic 30216
relations. The judge shall be assigned all divorce, dissolution of 30217
marriage, legal separation, and annulment cases, all cases arising 30218
under Chapter 3111. of the Revised Code, all proceedings involving 30219
child support, the allocation of parental rights and 30220
responsibilities for the care of children and the designation for 30221
the children of a place of residence and legal custodian, 30222
parenting time, and visitation, and all post-decree proceedings 30223
and matters arising from those cases and proceedings, except in 30224
cases that for some special reason are assigned to another judge 30225
of the court of common pleas. The judge shall be charged with the 30226
assignment and division of the work of the division and with the 30227
employment and supervision of the personnel of the division.30228

       The judge shall designate the title, compensation, expense 30229
allowances, hours, leaves of absence, and vacations of the 30230
personnel of the division and shall fix the duties of the 30231
personnel of the division. The duties of the personnel, in 30232
addition to other statutory duties, include the handling, 30233
servicing, and investigation of divorce, dissolution of marriage, 30234
legal separation, and annulment cases, cases arising under Chapter 30235
3111. of the Revised Code, and proceedings involving child 30236
support, the allocation of parental rights and responsibilities 30237
for the care of children and the designation for the children of a 30238
place of residence and legal custodian, parenting time, and 30239
visitation, and providing counseling and conciliation services 30240
that the division makes available to persons, whether or not the 30241
persons are parties to an action pending in the division, who 30242
request the services.30243

       (V) In Fairfield county, the judge of the court of common 30244
pleas whose term begins January 2, 1995, and successors, shall 30245
have the same qualifications, exercise the same powers and 30246
jurisdiction, and receive the same compensation as the other 30247
judges of the court of common pleas of Fairfield county and shall 30248
be elected and designated as judge of the court of common pleas, 30249
division of domestic relations. The judge shall be assigned all 30250
divorce, dissolution of marriage, legal separation, and annulment 30251
cases, all cases arising under Chapter 3111. of the Revised Code, 30252
all proceedings involving child support, the allocation of 30253
parental rights and responsibilities for the care of children and 30254
the designation for the children of a place of residence and legal 30255
custodian, parenting time, and visitation, and all post-decree 30256
proceedings and matters arising from those cases and proceedings, 30257
except in cases that for some special reason are assigned to 30258
another judge of the court of common pleas. The judge also has 30259
concurrent jurisdiction with the probate-juvenile division of the 30260
court of common pleas of Fairfield county with respect to and may 30261
hear cases to determine the custody of a child, as defined in 30262
section 2151.011 of the Revised Code, who is not the ward of 30263
another court of this state, cases that are commenced by a parent, 30264
guardian, or custodian of a child, as defined in section 2151.011 30265
of the Revised Code, to obtain an order requiring a parent of the 30266
child to pay child support for that child when the request for 30267
that order is not ancillary to an action for divorce, dissolution 30268
of marriage, annulment, or legal separation, a criminal or civil 30269
action involving an allegation of domestic violence, an action for 30270
support under Chapter 3115. of the Revised Code, or an action that 30271
is within the exclusive original jurisdiction of the 30272
probate-juvenile division of the court of common pleas of 30273
Fairfield county and that involves an allegation that the child is 30274
an abused, neglected, or dependent child, and post-decree 30275
proceedings and matters arising from those types of cases.30276

       The judge of the domestic relations division shall be charged 30277
with the assignment and division of the work of the division and 30278
with the employment and supervision of the personnel of the 30279
division.30280

       The judge shall designate the title, compensation, expense 30281
allowances, hours, leaves of absence, and vacations of the 30282
personnel of the division and shall fix the duties of the 30283
personnel of the division. The duties of the personnel of the 30284
division, in addition to other statutory duties, shall include the 30285
handling, servicing, and investigation of divorce, dissolution of 30286
marriage, legal separation, and annulment cases, cases arising 30287
under Chapter 3111. of the Revised Code, and proceedings involving 30288
child support, the allocation of parental rights and 30289
responsibilities for the care of children and the designation for 30290
the children of a place of residence and legal custodian, 30291
parenting time, and visitation, and providing any counseling and 30292
conciliation services that the division makes available to 30293
persons, regardless of whether the persons are parties to an 30294
action pending in the division, who request the services. When the 30295
judge hears a case to determine the custody of a child, as defined 30296
in section 2151.011 of the Revised Code, who is not the ward of 30297
another court of this state or a case that is commenced by a 30298
parent, guardian, or custodian of a child, as defined in section 30299
2151.011 of the Revised Code, to obtain an order requiring a 30300
parent of the child to pay child support for that child when the 30301
request for that order is not ancillary to an action for divorce, 30302
dissolution of marriage, annulment, or legal separation, a 30303
criminal or civil action involving an allegation of domestic 30304
violence, an action for support under Chapter 3115. of the Revised 30305
Code, or an action that is within the exclusive original 30306
jurisdiction of the probate-juvenile division of the court of 30307
common pleas of Fairfield county and that involves an allegation 30308
that the child is an abused, neglected, or dependent child, the 30309
duties of the personnel of the domestic relations division also 30310
include the handling, servicing, and investigation of those types 30311
of cases.30312

       (W)(1) In Clark county, the judge of the court of common 30313
pleas whose term begins on January 2, 1995, and successors, shall 30314
have the same qualifications, exercise the same powers and 30315
jurisdiction, and receive the same compensation as other judges of 30316
the court of common pleas of Clark county and shall be elected and 30317
designated as judge of the court of common pleas, domestic 30318
relations division. The judge shall have all the powers relating 30319
to juvenile courts, and all cases under Chapters 2151. and 2152. 30320
of the Revised Code and all parentage proceedings under Chapter 30321
3111. of the Revised Code over which the juvenile court has 30322
jurisdiction shall be assigned to the judge of the division of 30323
domestic relations. All divorce, dissolution of marriage, legal 30324
separation, annulment, uniform reciprocal support enforcement, and 30325
other cases related to domestic relations shall be assigned to the 30326
domestic relations division, and the presiding judge of the court 30327
of common pleas shall assign the cases to the judge of the 30328
domestic relations division and the judges of the general 30329
division.30330

       (2) In addition to the judge's regular duties, the judge of 30331
the division of domestic relations shall serve on the children 30332
services board and the county advisory board.30333

       (3) If the judge of the court of common pleas of Clark 30334
county, division of domestic relations, is sick, absent, or unable 30335
to perform that judge's judicial duties or if the presiding judge 30336
of the court of common pleas of Clark county determines that the 30337
volume of cases pending in the division of domestic relations 30338
necessitates it, the duties of the judge of the division of 30339
domestic relations shall be performed by the judges of the general 30340
division or probate division of the court of common pleas of Clark 30341
county, as assigned for that purpose by the presiding judge of 30342
that court, and the judges so assigned shall act in conjunction 30343
with the judge of the division of domestic relations of that 30344
court.30345

       (X) In Scioto county, the judge of the court of common pleas 30346
whose term begins January 2, 1995, and successors, shall have the 30347
same qualifications, exercise the same powers and jurisdiction, 30348
and receive the same compensation as other judges of the court of 30349
common pleas of Scioto county and shall be elected and designated 30350
as judge of the court of common pleas, division of domestic 30351
relations. The judge shall be assigned all divorce, dissolution of 30352
marriage, legal separation, and annulment cases, all cases arising 30353
under Chapter 3111. of the Revised Code, all proceedings involving 30354
child support, the allocation of parental rights and 30355
responsibilities for the care of children and the designation for 30356
the children of a place of residence and legal custodian, 30357
parenting time, visitation, and all post-decree proceedings and 30358
matters arising from those cases and proceedings, except in cases 30359
that for some special reason are assigned to another judge of the 30360
court of common pleas. The judge shall be charged with the 30361
assignment and division of the work of the division and with the 30362
employment and supervision of the personnel of the division.30363

       The judge shall designate the title, compensation, expense 30364
allowances, hours, leaves of absence, and vacations of the 30365
personnel of the division and shall fix the duties of the 30366
personnel of the division. The duties of the personnel, in 30367
addition to other statutory duties, include the handling, 30368
servicing, and investigation of divorce, dissolution of marriage, 30369
legal separation, and annulment cases, cases arising under Chapter 30370
3111. of the Revised Code, and proceedings involving child 30371
support, the allocation of parental rights and responsibilities 30372
for the care of children and the designation for the children of a 30373
place of residence and legal custodian, parenting time, and 30374
visitation, and providing counseling and conciliation services 30375
that the division makes available to persons, whether or not the 30376
persons are parties to an action pending in the division, who 30377
request the services.30378

       (Y) In Auglaize county, the judge of the probate and juvenile 30379
divisions of the Auglaize county court of common pleas also shall 30380
be the administrative judge of the domestic relations division of 30381
the court and shall be assigned all divorce, dissolution of 30382
marriage, legal separation, and annulment cases coming before the 30383
court. The judge shall have all powers as administrator of the 30384
domestic relations division and shall have charge of the personnel 30385
engaged in handling, servicing, or investigating divorce, 30386
dissolution of marriage, legal separation, and annulment cases, 30387
including any referees considered necessary for the discharge of 30388
the judge's various duties.30389

       (Z)(1) In Marion county, the judge of the court of common 30390
pleas whose term begins on February 9, 1999, and the successors to 30391
that judge, shall have the same qualifications, exercise the same 30392
powers and jurisdiction, and receive the same compensation as the 30393
other judges of the court of common pleas of Marion county and 30394
shall be elected and designated as judge of the court of common 30395
pleas, domestic relations-juvenile-probate division. Except as 30396
otherwise specified in this division, that judge, and the 30397
successors to that judge, shall have all the powers relating to 30398
juvenile courts, and all cases under Chapters 2151. and 2152. of 30399
the Revised Code, all cases arising under Chapter 3111. of the 30400
Revised Code, all divorce, dissolution of marriage, legal 30401
separation, and annulment cases, all proceedings involving child 30402
support, the allocation of parental rights and responsibilities 30403
for the care of children and the designation for the children of a 30404
place of residence and legal custodian, parenting time, and 30405
visitation, and all post-decree proceedings and matters arising 30406
from those cases and proceedings shall be assigned to that judge 30407
and the successors to that judge. Except as provided in division 30408
(Z)(2) of this section and notwithstanding any other provision of 30409
any section of the Revised Code, on and after February 9, 2003, 30410
the judge of the court of common pleas of Marion county whose term 30411
begins on February 9, 1999, and the successors to that judge, 30412
shall have all the powers relating to the probate division of the 30413
court of common pleas of Marion county in addition to the powers 30414
previously specified in this division, and shall exercise 30415
concurrent jurisdiction with the judge of the probate division of 30416
that court over all matters that are within the jurisdiction of 30417
the probate division of that court under Chapter 2101., and other 30418
provisions, of the Revised Code in addition to the jurisdiction of 30419
the domestic relations-juvenile-probate division of that court 30420
otherwise specified in division (Z)(1) of this section.30421

       (2) The judge of the domestic relations-juvenile-probate 30422
division of the court of common pleas of Marion county or the 30423
judge of the probate division of the court of common pleas of 30424
Marion county, whichever of those judges is senior in total length 30425
of service on the court of common pleas of Marion county, 30426
regardless of the division or divisions of service, shall serve as 30427
the clerk of the probate division of the court of common pleas of 30428
Marion county.30429

       (3) On and after February 9, 2003, all references in law to 30430
"the probate court," "the probate judge," "the juvenile court," or 30431
"the judge of the juvenile court" shall be construed, with respect 30432
to Marion county, as being references to both "the probate 30433
division" and "the domestic relations-juvenile-probate division" 30434
and as being references to both "the judge of the probate 30435
division" and "the judge of the domestic relations- 30436
juvenile-probate division." On and after February 9, 2003, all 30437
references in law to "the clerk of the probate court" shall be 30438
construed, with respect to Marion county, as being references to 30439
the judge who is serving pursuant to division (Z)(2) of this 30440
section as the clerk of the probate division of the court of 30441
common pleas of Marion county.30442

       (AA) In Muskingum county, the judge of the court of common 30443
pleas whose term begins on January 2, 2003, and successors, shall 30444
have the same qualifications, exercise the same powers and 30445
jurisdiction, and receive the same compensation as the other 30446
judges of the court of common pleas of Muskingum county and shall 30447
be elected and designated as the judge of the court of common 30448
pleas, division of domestic relations. The judge shall be assigned 30449
all divorce, dissolution of marriage, legal separation, and 30450
annulment cases, all cases arising under Chapter 3111. of the 30451
Revised Code, all proceedings involving child support, the 30452
allocation of parental rights and responsibilities for the care of 30453
children and the designation for the children of a place of 30454
residence and legal custodian, parenting time, and visitation, and 30455
all post-decree proceedings and matters arising from those cases 30456
and proceedings, except in cases that for some special reason are 30457
assigned to another judge of the court of common pleas. The judge 30458
shall be charged with the assignment and division of the work of 30459
the division and with the employment and supervision of the 30460
personnel of the division.30461

       The judge shall designate the title, compensation, expense 30462
allowances, hours, leaves of absence, and vacations of the 30463
personnel of the division and shall fix the duties of the 30464
personnel of the division. The duties of the personnel of the 30465
division, in addition to other statutory duties, shall include the 30466
handling, servicing, and investigation of divorce, dissolution of 30467
marriage, legal separation, and annulment cases, cases arising 30468
under Chapter 3111. of the Revised Code, and proceedings involving 30469
child support, the allocation of parental rights and 30470
responsibilities for the care of children and the designation for 30471
the children of a place of residence and legal custodian, 30472
parenting time, and visitation and providing any counseling and 30473
conciliation services that the division makes available to 30474
persons, whether or not the persons are parties to an action 30475
pending in the division, who request the services.30476

       (BB) In Henry county, the judge of the court of common pleas 30477
whose term begins on January 1, 2005, and successors, shall have 30478
the same qualifications, exercise the same powers and 30479
jurisdiction, and receive the same compensation as the other judge 30480
of the court of common pleas of Henry county and shall be elected 30481
and designated as the judge of the court of common pleas, division 30482
of domestic relations. The judge shall have all of the powers 30483
relating to juvenile courts, and all cases under Chapter 2151. or 30484
2152. of the Revised Code, all parentage proceedings arising under 30485
Chapter 3111. of the Revised Code over which the juvenile court 30486
has jurisdiction, all divorce, dissolution of marriage, legal 30487
separation, and annulment cases, all proceedings involving child 30488
support, the allocation of parental rights and responsibilities 30489
for the care of children and the designation for the children of a 30490
place of residence and legal custodian, parenting time, and 30491
visitation, and all post-decree proceedings and matters arising 30492
from those cases and proceedings shall be assigned to that judge, 30493
except in cases that for some special reason are assigned to the 30494
other judge of the court of common pleas.30495

       (CC)(1) In Logan county, the judge of the court of common 30496
pleas whose term begins January 2, 2005, and the successors to 30497
that judge, shall have the same qualifications, exercise the same 30498
powers and jurisdiction, and receive the same compensation as the 30499
other judges of the court of common pleas of Logan county and 30500
shall be elected and designated as judge of the court of common 30501
pleas, domestic relations-juvenile-probate division. Except as 30502
otherwise specified in this division, that judge, and the 30503
successors to that judge, shall have all the powers relating to 30504
juvenile courts, and all cases under Chapters 2151. and 2152. of 30505
the Revised Code, all cases arising under Chapter 3111. of the 30506
Revised Code, all divorce, dissolution of marriage, legal 30507
separation, and annulment cases, all proceedings involving child 30508
support, the allocation of parental rights and responsibilities 30509
for the care of children and designation for the children of a 30510
place of residence and legal custodian, parenting time, and 30511
visitation, and all post-decree proceedings and matters arising 30512
from those cases and proceedings shall be assigned to that judge 30513
and the successors to that judge. Notwithstanding any other 30514
provision of any section of the Revised Code, on and after January 30515
2, 2005, the judge of the court of common pleas of Logan county 30516
whose term begins on January 2, 2005, and the successors to that 30517
judge, shall have all the powers relating to the probate division 30518
of the court of common pleas of Logan county in addition to the 30519
powers previously specified in this division and shall exercise 30520
concurrent jurisdiction with the judge of the probate division of 30521
that court over all matters that are within the jurisdiction of 30522
the probate division of that court under Chapter 2101., and other 30523
provisions, of the Revised Code in addition to the jurisdiction of 30524
the domestic relations-juvenile-probate division of that court 30525
otherwise specified in division (CC)(1) of this section.30526

        (2) The judge of the domestic relations-juvenile-probate 30527
division of the court of common pleas of Logan county or the 30528
probate judge of the court of common pleas of Logan county who is 30529
elected as the administrative judge of the probate division of the 30530
court of common pleas of Logan county pursuant to Rule 4 of the 30531
Rules of Superintendence shall be the clerk of the probate 30532
division and juvenile division of the court of common pleas of 30533
Logan county. The clerk of the court of common pleas who is 30534
elected pursuant to section 2303.01 of the Revised Code shall keep 30535
all of the journals, records, books, papers, and files pertaining 30536
to the domestic relations cases.30537

        (3) On and after January 2, 2005, all references in law to 30538
"the probate court," "the probate judge," "the juvenile court," or 30539
"the judge of the juvenile court" shall be construed, with respect 30540
to Logan county, as being references to both "the probate 30541
division" and the "domestic relations-juvenile-probate division" 30542
and as being references to both "the judge of the probate 30543
division" and the "judge of the domestic 30544
relations-juvenile-probate division." On and after January 2, 30545
2005, all references in law to "the clerk of the probate court" 30546
shall be construed, with respect to Logan county, as being 30547
references to the judge who is serving pursuant to division 30548
(CC)(2) of this section as the clerk of the probate division of 30549
the court of common pleas of Logan county.30550

       (DD)(1) In Champaign county, the judge of the court of common 30551
pleas whose term begins February 9, 2003, and the judge of the 30552
court of common pleas whose term begins February 10, 2009, and the 30553
successors to those judges, shall have the same qualifications, 30554
exercise the same powers and jurisdiction, and receive the same 30555
compensation as the other judges of the court of common pleas of 30556
Champaign county and shall be elected and designated as judges of 30557
the court of common pleas, domestic relations-juvenile-probate 30558
division. Except as otherwise specified in this division, those 30559
judges, and the successors to those judges, shall have all the 30560
powers relating to juvenile courts, and all cases under Chapters 30561
2151. and 2152. of the Revised Code, all cases arising under 30562
Chapter 3111. of the Revised Code, all divorce, dissolution of 30563
marriage, legal separation, and annulment cases, all proceedings 30564
involving child support, the allocation of parental rights and 30565
responsibilities for the care of children and the designation for 30566
the children of a place of residence and legal custodian, 30567
parenting time, and visitation, and all post-decree proceedings 30568
and matters arising from those cases and proceedings shall be 30569
assigned to those judges and the successors to those judges. 30570
Notwithstanding any other provision of any section of the Revised 30571
Code, on and after February 9, 2009, the judges designated by this 30572
division as judges of the court of common pleas of Champaign 30573
county, domestic relations-juvenile-probate division, and the 30574
successors to those judges, shall have all the powers relating to 30575
probate courts in addition to the powers previously specified in 30576
this division and shall exercise jurisdiction over all matters 30577
that are within the jurisdiction of probate courts under Chapter 30578
2101., and other provisions, of the Revised Code in addition to 30579
the jurisdiction of the domestic relations-juvenile-probate 30580
division otherwise specified in division (DD)(1) of this section.30581

       (2) On and after February 9, 2009, all references in law to 30582
"the probate court," "the probate judge," "the juvenile court," or 30583
"the judge of the juvenile court" shall be construed with respect 30584
to Champaign county as being references to the "domestic 30585
relations-juvenile-probate division" and as being references to 30586
the "judge of the domestic relations-juvenile-probate division." 30587
On and after February 9, 2009, all references in law to "the clerk 30588
of the probate court" shall be construed with respect to Champaign 30589
county as being references to the judge who is serving pursuant to 30590
Rule 4 of the Rules of Superintendence for the Courts of Ohio as 30591
the administrative judge of the court of common pleas, domestic 30592
relations-juvenile-probate division.30593

       (EE) If a judge of the court of common pleas, division of 30594
domestic relations, or juvenile judge, of any of the counties 30595
mentioned in this section is sick, absent, or unable to perform 30596
that judge's judicial duties or the volume of cases pending in the 30597
judge's division necessitates it, the duties of that judge shall 30598
be performed by another judge of the court of common pleas of that 30599
county, assigned for that purpose by the presiding judge of the 30600
court of common pleas of that county to act in place of or in 30601
conjunction with that judge, as the case may require.30602

       Sec. 2303.201.  (A)(1) The court of common pleas of any 30603
county may determine that for the efficient operation of the court 30604
additional funds are required to computerize the court, to make 30605
available computerized legal research services, or to do both. 30606
Upon making a determination that additional funds are required for 30607
either or both of those purposes, the court shall authorize and 30608
direct the clerk of the court of common pleas to charge one 30609
additional fee, not to exceed six dollars, on the filing of each 30610
cause of action or appeal under divisions (A), (Q), and (U) of 30611
section 2303.20 of the Revised Code.30612

       (2) All fees collected under division (A)(1) of this section 30613
shall be paid to the county treasurer. The treasurer shall place 30614
the funds from the fees in a separate fund to be disbursed either 30615
upon an order of the court, subject to an appropriation by the 30616
board of county commissioners, or upon an order of the court, 30617
subject to the court making an annual report available to the 30618
public listing the use of all such funds, in an amount not greater 30619
than the actual cost to the court of procuring and maintaining 30620
computerization of the court, computerized legal research 30621
services, or both.30622

       (3) If the court determines that the funds in the fund 30623
described in division (A)(2) of this section are more than 30624
sufficient to satisfy the purpose for which the additional fee 30625
described in division (A)(1) of this section was imposed, the 30626
court may declare a surplus in the fund and, subject to an 30627
appropriation by the board of county commissioners, expend those 30628
surplus funds, or upon an order of the court, subject to the court 30629
making an annual report available to the public listing the use of 30630
all such funds, expend those surplus funds, for other appropriate 30631
technological expenses of the court.30632

       (B)(1) The court of common pleas of any county may determine 30633
that, for the efficient operation of the court, additional funds 30634
are required to make technological advances in or to computerize 30635
the office of the clerk of the court of common pleas and, upon 30636
that determination, authorize and direct the clerk of the court of 30637
common pleas to charge an additional fee, not to exceed twenty 30638
dollars, on the filing of each cause of action or appeal, on the 30639
filing, docketing, and endorsing of each certificate of judgment, 30640
or on the docketing and indexing of each aid in execution or 30641
petition to vacate, revive, or modify a judgment under divisions 30642
(A), (P), (Q), (T), and (U) of section 2303.20 of the Revised Code 30643
and not to exceed one dollar each for the services described in 30644
divisions (B), (C), (D), (F), (H), and (L) of section 2303.20 of 30645
the Revised Code. Subject to division (B)(2) of this section, all 30646
moneys collected under division (B)(1) of this section shall be 30647
paid to the county treasurer to be disbursed, upon an order of the 30648
court of common pleas and subject to appropriation by the board of 30649
county commissioners, in an amount no greater than the actual cost 30650
to the court of procuring and maintaining technology and computer 30651
systems for the office of the clerk of the court of common pleas.30652

       (2) If the court of common pleas of a county makes the 30653
determination described in division (B)(1) of this section, the 30654
board of county commissioners of that county may issue one or more 30655
general obligation bonds for the purpose of procuring and 30656
maintaining the technology and computer systems for the office of 30657
the clerk of the court of common pleas. In addition to the 30658
purposes stated in division (B)(1) of this section for which the 30659
moneys collected under that division may be expended, the moneys 30660
additionally may be expended to pay debt charges on and financing 30661
costs related to any general obligation bonds issued pursuant to 30662
division (B)(2) of this section as they become due. General 30663
obligation bonds issued pursuant to division (B)(2) of this 30664
section are Chapter 133. securities.30665

       (C) The court of common pleas shall collect the sum of 30666
twenty-six dollars as additional filing fees in each new civil 30667
action or proceeding for the charitable public purpose of 30668
providing financial assistance to legal aid societies that operate 30669
within the state and to support the office of the state public 30670
defender. This division does not apply to proceedings concerning 30671
annulments, dissolutions of marriage, divorces, legal separation, 30672
spousal support, marital property or separate property 30673
distribution, support, or other domestic relations matters; to a 30674
juvenile division of a court of common pleas; to a probate 30675
division of a court of common pleas, except that the additional 30676
filing fees shall apply to name change, guardianship, adoption, 30677
and decedents' estate proceedings; or to an execution on a 30678
judgment, proceeding in aid of execution, or other post-judgment 30679
proceeding arising out of a civil action. The filing fees required 30680
to be collected under this division shall be in addition to any 30681
other filing fees imposed in the action or proceeding and shall be 30682
collected at the time of the filing of the action or proceeding. 30683
The court shall not waive the payment of the additional filing 30684
fees in a new civil action or proceeding unless the court waives 30685
the advanced payment of all filing fees in the action or 30686
proceeding. All such moneys collected during a month except for an 30687
amount equal to up to one per cent of those moneys retained to 30688
cover administrative costs shall be transmitted on or before the 30689
twentieth day of the following month by the clerk of the court to 30690
the treasurer of state in a manner prescribed by the treasurer of 30691
state or by the Ohio legal assistance foundation. The treasurer of 30692
state shall deposit four per cent of the funds collected under 30693
this division to the credit of the civil case filing fee fund 30694
established under section 120.07 of the Revised Code and 30695
ninety-six per cent of the funds collected under this division to 30696
the credit of the legal aid fund established under section 120.52 30697
of the Revised Code.30698

       The court may retain up to one per cent of the moneys it 30699
collects under this division to cover administrative costs, 30700
including the hiring of any additional personnel necessary to 30701
implement this division. If the court fails to transmit to the 30702
treasurer of state the moneys the court collects under this 30703
division in a manner prescribed by the treasurer of state or by 30704
the Ohio legal assistance foundation, the court shall forfeit the 30705
moneys the court retains under this division to cover 30706
administrative costs, including the hiring of any additional 30707
personnel necessary to implement this division, and shall transmit 30708
to the treasurer of state all moneys collected under this 30709
division, including the forfeited amount retained for 30710
administrative costs, for deposit in the legal aid fund.30711

       (D) On and after the thirtieth day after December 9, 1994, 30712
the court of common pleas shall collect the sum of thirty-two 30713
dollars as additional filing fees in each new action or proceeding 30714
for annulment, divorce, or dissolution of marriage for the purpose 30715
of funding shelters for victims of domestic violence pursuant to 30716
sections 3113.35 to 3113.39 of the Revised Code. The filing fees 30717
required to be collected under this division shall be in addition 30718
to any other filing fees imposed in the action or proceeding and 30719
shall be collected at the time of the filing of the action or 30720
proceeding. The court shall not waive the payment of the 30721
additional filing fees in a new action or proceeding for 30722
annulment, divorce, or dissolution of marriage unless the court 30723
waives the advanced payment of all filing fees in the action or 30724
proceeding. On or before the twentieth day of each month, all 30725
moneys collected during the immediately preceding month pursuant 30726
to this division shall be deposited by the clerk of the court into 30727
the county treasury in the special fund used for deposit of 30728
additional marriage license fees as described in section 3113.34 30729
of the Revised Code. Upon their deposit into the fund, the moneys 30730
shall be retained in the fund and expended only as described in 30731
section 3113.34 of the Revised Code.30732

       (E)(1) The court of common pleas may determine that, for the 30733
efficient operation of the court, additional funds are necessary 30734
to acquire and pay for special projects of the court, including, 30735
but not limited to, the acquisition of additional facilities or 30736
the rehabilitation of existing facilities, the acquisition of 30737
equipment, the hiring and training of staff, community service 30738
programs, mediation or dispute resolution services, the employment 30739
of magistrates, the training and education of judges, acting 30740
judges, and magistrates, and other related services. Upon that 30741
determination, the court by rule may charge a fee, in addition to 30742
all other court costs, on the filing of each criminal cause, civil 30743
action or proceeding, or judgment by confession.30744

       If the court of common pleas offers or requires a special 30745
program or serviceadditional services in cases of a specific 30746
type, the court by rule may assess an additional charge in a case 30747
of that type, over and above court costs, to cover the special 30748
program or service. The court shall adjust the special assessment 30749
periodically, but not retroactively, so that the amount assessed 30750
in those cases does not exceed the actual cost of providing the 30751
service or program.30752

       All moneys collected under division (E) of this section shall 30753
be paid to the county treasurer for deposit into either a general 30754
special projects fund or a fund established for a specific special 30755
project. Moneys from a fund of that nature shall be disbursed upon 30756
an order of the court, subject to an appropriation by the board of 30757
county commissioners, in an amount no greater than the actual cost 30758
to the court of a project. If a specific fund is terminated 30759
because of the discontinuance of a program or service established 30760
under division (E) of this section, the court may order, subject 30761
to an appropriation by the board of county commissioners, that 30762
moneys remaining in the fund be transferred to an account 30763
established under this division for a similar purpose.30764

       (2) As used in division (E) of this section:30765

       (a) "Criminal cause" means a charge alleging the violation of 30766
a statute or ordinance, or subsection of a statute or ordinance, 30767
that requires a separate finding of fact or a separate plea before 30768
disposition and of which the defendant may be found guilty, 30769
whether filed as part of a multiple charge on a single summons, 30770
citation, or complaint or as a separate charge on a single 30771
summons, citation, or complaint. "Criminal cause" does not include 30772
separate violations of the same statute or ordinance, or 30773
subsection of the same statute or ordinance, unless each charge is 30774
filed on a separate summons, citation, or complaint.30775

       (b) "Civil action or proceeding" means any civil litigation 30776
that must be determined by judgment entry.30777

       Sec. 2305.234.  (A) As used in this section:30778

       (1) "Chiropractic claim," "medical claim," and "optometric 30779
claim" have the same meanings as in section 2305.113 of the 30780
Revised Code.30781

       (2) "Dental claim" has the same meaning as in section 30782
2305.113 of the Revised Code, except that it does not include any 30783
claim arising out of a dental operation or any derivative claim 30784
for relief that arises out of a dental operation.30785

       (3) "Governmental health care program" has the same meaning 30786
as in section 4731.65 of the Revised Code.30787

       (4) "Health care facility or location" means a hospital, 30788
clinic, ambulatory surgical facility, office of a health care 30789
professional or associated group of health care professionals, 30790
training institution for health care professionals, or any other 30791
place where medical, dental, or other health-related diagnosis, 30792
care, or treatment is provided to a person.30793

       (5) "Health care professional" means any of the following who 30794
provide medical, dental, or other health-related diagnosis, care, 30795
or treatment:30796

       (a) Physicians authorized under Chapter 4731. of the Revised 30797
Code to practice medicine and surgery or osteopathic medicine and 30798
surgery;30799

       (b) Registered nurses and licensed practical nurses licensed 30800
under Chapter 4723. of the Revised Code and individuals who hold a 30801
certificate of authority issued under that chapter that authorizes 30802
the practice of nursing as a certified registered nurse 30803
anesthetist, clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, 30804
or certified nurse practitioner;30805

       (c) Physician assistants authorized to practice under Chapter 30806
4730. of the Revised Code;30807

       (d) Dentists and dental hygienists licensed under Chapter 30808
4715. of the Revised Code;30809

       (e) Physical therapists, physical therapist assistants, 30810
occupational therapists, and occupational therapy assistants 30811
licensed under Chapter 4755. of the Revised Code;30812

       (f) Chiropractors licensed under Chapter 4734. of the Revised 30813
Code;30814

       (g) Optometrists licensed under Chapter 4725. of the Revised 30815
Code;30816

       (h) Podiatrists authorized under Chapter 4731. of the Revised 30817
Code to practice podiatry;30818

       (i) Dietitians licensed under Chapter 4759. of the Revised 30819
Code;30820

       (j) Pharmacists licensed under Chapter 4729. of the Revised 30821
Code;30822

       (k) Emergency medical technicians-basic, emergency medical 30823
technicians-intermediate, and emergency medical 30824
technicians-paramedic, certified under Chapter 4765. of the 30825
Revised Code;30826

       (l) Respiratory care professionals licensed under Chapter 30827
4761. of the Revised Code;30828

       (m) Speech-language pathologists and audiologists licensed 30829
under Chapter 4753. of the Revised Code;30830

       (n) Professional clinical counselors, professional 30831
counselors, independent social workers, social workers, 30832
independent marriage and family therapists, and marriage and 30833
family therapists, licensed under Chapter 4757. of the Revised 30834
Code;30835

       (o) Psychologists licensed under Chapter 4732. of the Revised 30836
Code;30837

       (p) Independent chemical dependency counselors, chemical 30838
dependency counselors III, chemical dependency counselors II, and 30839
chemical dependency counselors I, licensed under Chapter 4758. of 30840
the Revised Code.30841

       (6) "Health care worker" means a person other than a health 30842
care professional who provides medical, dental, or other 30843
health-related care or treatment under the direction of a health 30844
care professional with the authority to direct that individual's 30845
activities, including medical technicians, medical assistants, 30846
dental assistants, orderlies, aides, and individuals acting in 30847
similar capacities.30848

       (7) "Indigent and uninsured person" means a person who meets 30849
all of the following requirements:30850

       (a) The person's income is not greater than two hundred per 30851
cent of the current poverty line as defined by the United States 30852
office of management and budget and revised in accordance with 30853
section 673(2) of the "Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1981," 30854
95 Stat. 511, 42 U.S.C. 9902, as amended.30855

       (b) The person is not eligible to receive medical assistance 30856
under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code or assistance underfor 30857
the medicaid program or any other governmental health care 30858
program.30859

       (c) Either of the following applies:30860

       (i) The person is not a policyholder, certificate holder, 30861
insured, contract holder, subscriber, enrollee, member, 30862
beneficiary, or other covered individual under a health insurance 30863
or health care policy, contract, or plan.30864

       (ii) The person is a policyholder, certificate holder, 30865
insured, contract holder, subscriber, enrollee, member, 30866
beneficiary, or other covered individual under a health insurance 30867
or health care policy, contract, or plan, but the insurer, policy, 30868
contract, or plan denies coverage or is the subject of insolvency 30869
or bankruptcy proceedings in any jurisdiction.30870

       (8) "Nonprofit health care referral organization" means an 30871
entity that is not operated for profit and refers patients to, or 30872
arranges for the provision of, health-related diagnosis, care, or 30873
treatment by a health care professional or health care worker.30874

       (9) "Operation" means any procedure that involves cutting or 30875
otherwise infiltrating human tissue by mechanical means, including 30876
surgery, laser surgery, ionizing radiation, therapeutic 30877
ultrasound, or the removal of intraocular foreign bodies. 30878
"Operation" does not include the administration of medication by 30879
injection, unless the injection is administered in conjunction 30880
with a procedure infiltrating human tissue by mechanical means 30881
other than the administration of medicine by injection. 30882
"Operation" does not include routine dental restorative 30883
procedures, the scaling of teeth, or extractions of teeth that are 30884
not impacted.30885

       (10) "Tort action" means a civil action for damages for 30886
injury, death, or loss to person or property other than a civil 30887
action for damages for a breach of contract or another agreement 30888
between persons or government entities.30889

       (11) "Volunteer" means an individual who provides any 30890
medical, dental, or other health-care related diagnosis, care, or 30891
treatment without the expectation of receiving and without receipt 30892
of any compensation or other form of remuneration from an indigent 30893
and uninsured person, another person on behalf of an indigent and 30894
uninsured person, any health care facility or location, any 30895
nonprofit health care referral organization, or any other person 30896
or government entity.30897

       (12) "Community control sanction" has the same meaning as in 30898
section 2929.01 of the Revised Code.30899

       (13) "Deep sedation" means a drug-induced depression of 30900
consciousness during which a patient cannot be easily aroused but 30901
responds purposefully following repeated or painful stimulation, a 30902
patient's ability to independently maintain ventilatory function 30903
may be impaired, a patient may require assistance in maintaining a 30904
patent airway and spontaneous ventilation may be inadequate, and 30905
cardiovascular function is usually maintained.30906

       (14) "General anesthesia" means a drug-induced loss of 30907
consciousness during which a patient is not arousable, even by 30908
painful stimulation, the ability to independently maintain 30909
ventilatory function is often impaired, a patient often requires 30910
assistance in maintaining a patent airway, positive pressure 30911
ventilation may be required because of depressed spontaneous 30912
ventilation or drug-induced depression of neuromuscular function, 30913
and cardiovascular function may be impaired.30914

       (B)(1) Subject to divisions (F) and (G)(3) of this section, a 30915
health care professional who is a volunteer and complies with 30916
division (B)(2) of this section is not liable in damages to any 30917
person or government entity in a tort or other civil action, 30918
including an action on a medical, dental, chiropractic, 30919
optometric, or other health-related claim, for injury, death, or 30920
loss to person or property that allegedly arises from an action or 30921
omission of the volunteer in the provision to an indigent and 30922
uninsured person of medical, dental, or other health-related 30923
diagnosis, care, or treatment, including the provision of samples 30924
of medicine and other medical products, unless the action or 30925
omission constitutes willful or wanton misconduct.30926

       (2) To qualify for the immunity described in division (B)(1) 30927
of this section, a health care professional shall do all of the 30928
following prior to providing diagnosis, care, or treatment:30929

       (a) Determine, in good faith, that the indigent and uninsured 30930
person is mentally capable of giving informed consent to the 30931
provision of the diagnosis, care, or treatment and is not subject 30932
to duress or under undue influence;30933

       (b) Inform the person of the provisions of this section, 30934
including notifying the person that, by giving informed consent to 30935
the provision of the diagnosis, care, or treatment, the person 30936
cannot hold the health care professional liable for damages in a 30937
tort or other civil action, including an action on a medical, 30938
dental, chiropractic, optometric, or other health-related claim, 30939
unless the action or omission of the health care professional 30940
constitutes willful or wanton misconduct;30941

       (c) Obtain the informed consent of the person and a written 30942
waiver, signed by the person or by another individual on behalf of 30943
and in the presence of the person, that states that the person is 30944
mentally competent to give informed consent and, without being 30945
subject to duress or under undue influence, gives informed consent 30946
to the provision of the diagnosis, care, or treatment subject to 30947
the provisions of this section. A written waiver under division 30948
(B)(2)(c) of this section shall state clearly and in conspicuous 30949
type that the person or other individual who signs the waiver is 30950
signing it with full knowledge that, by giving informed consent to 30951
the provision of the diagnosis, care, or treatment, the person 30952
cannot bring a tort or other civil action, including an action on 30953
a medical, dental, chiropractic, optometric, or other 30954
health-related claim, against the health care professional unless 30955
the action or omission of the health care professional constitutes 30956
willful or wanton misconduct.30957

       (3) A physician or podiatrist who is not covered by medical 30958
malpractice insurance, but complies with division (B)(2) of this 30959
section, is not required to comply with division (A) of section 30960
4731.143 of the Revised Code.30961

       (C) Subject to divisions (F) and (G)(3) of this section, 30962
health care workers who are volunteers are not liable in damages 30963
to any person or government entity in a tort or other civil 30964
action, including an action upon a medical, dental, chiropractic, 30965
optometric, or other health-related claim, for injury, death, or 30966
loss to person or property that allegedly arises from an action or 30967
omission of the health care worker in the provision to an indigent 30968
and uninsured person of medical, dental, or other health-related 30969
diagnosis, care, or treatment, unless the action or omission 30970
constitutes willful or wanton misconduct.30971

       (D) Subject to divisions (F) and (G)(3) of this section, a 30972
nonprofit health care referral organization is not liable in 30973
damages to any person or government entity in a tort or other 30974
civil action, including an action on a medical, dental, 30975
chiropractic, optometric, or other health-related claim, for 30976
injury, death, or loss to person or property that allegedly arises 30977
from an action or omission of the nonprofit health care referral 30978
organization in referring indigent and uninsured persons to, or 30979
arranging for the provision of, medical, dental, or other 30980
health-related diagnosis, care, or treatment by a health care 30981
professional described in division (B)(1) of this section or a 30982
health care worker described in division (C) of this section, 30983
unless the action or omission constitutes willful or wanton 30984
misconduct.30985

       (E) Subject to divisions (F) and (G)(3) of this section and 30986
to the extent that the registration requirements of section 30987
3701.071 of the Revised Code apply, a health care facility or 30988
location associated with a health care professional described in 30989
division (B)(1) of this section, a health care worker described in 30990
division (C) of this section, or a nonprofit health care referral 30991
organization described in division (D) of this section is not 30992
liable in damages to any person or government entity in a tort or 30993
other civil action, including an action on a medical, dental, 30994
chiropractic, optometric, or other health-related claim, for 30995
injury, death, or loss to person or property that allegedly arises 30996
from an action or omission of the health care professional or 30997
worker or nonprofit health care referral organization relative to 30998
the medical, dental, or other health-related diagnosis, care, or 30999
treatment provided to an indigent and uninsured person on behalf 31000
of or at the health care facility or location, unless the action 31001
or omission constitutes willful or wanton misconduct.31002

       (F)(1) Except as provided in division (F)(2) of this section, 31003
the immunities provided by divisions (B), (C), (D), and (E) of 31004
this section are not available to a health care professional, 31005
health care worker, nonprofit health care referral organization, 31006
or health care facility or location if, at the time of an alleged 31007
injury, death, or loss to person or property, the health care 31008
professionals or health care workers involved are providing one of 31009
the following:31010

       (a) Any medical, dental, or other health-related diagnosis, 31011
care, or treatment pursuant to a community service work order 31012
entered by a court under division (B) of section 2951.02 of the 31013
Revised Code or imposed by a court as a community control 31014
sanction;31015

       (b) Performance of an operation to which any one of the 31016
following applies:31017

        (i) The operation requires the administration of deep 31018
sedation or general anesthesia.31019

        (ii) The operation is a procedure that is not typically 31020
performed in an office.31021

       (iii) The individual involved is a health care professional, 31022
and the operation is beyond the scope of practice or the 31023
education, training, and competence, as applicable, of the health 31024
care professional.31025

       (c) Delivery of a baby or any other purposeful termination of 31026
a human pregnancy.31027

       (2) Division (F)(1) of this section does not apply when a 31028
health care professional or health care worker provides medical, 31029
dental, or other health-related diagnosis, care, or treatment that 31030
is necessary to preserve the life of a person in a medical 31031
emergency.31032

       (G)(1) This section does not create a new cause of action or 31033
substantive legal right against a health care professional, health 31034
care worker, nonprofit health care referral organization, or 31035
health care facility or location.31036

       (2) This section does not affect any immunities from civil 31037
liability or defenses established by another section of the 31038
Revised Code or available at common law to which a health care 31039
professional, health care worker, nonprofit health care referral 31040
organization, or health care facility or location may be entitled 31041
in connection with the provision of emergency or other medical, 31042
dental, or other health-related diagnosis, care, or treatment.31043

       (3) This section does not grant an immunity from tort or 31044
other civil liability to a health care professional, health care 31045
worker, nonprofit health care referral organization, or health 31046
care facility or location for actions that are outside the scope 31047
of authority of health care professionals or health care workers.31048

       (4) This section does not affect any legal responsibility of 31049
a health care professional, health care worker, or nonprofit 31050
health care referral organization to comply with any applicable 31051
law of this state or rule of an agency of this state.31052

       (5) This section does not affect any legal responsibility of 31053
a health care facility or location to comply with any applicable 31054
law of this state, rule of an agency of this state, or local code, 31055
ordinance, or regulation that pertains to or regulates building, 31056
housing, air pollution, water pollution, sanitation, health, fire, 31057
zoning, or safety.31058

       Sec. 2307.65. (A) The attorney general may bring a civil 31059
action in the Franklin county court of common pleas on behalf of 31060
the department of job and family servicesmedicaid, and the 31061
prosecuting attorney of the county in which a violation of 31062
division (B) of section 2913.401 of the Revised Code occurs may 31063
bring a civil action in the court of common pleas of that county 31064
on behalf of the county department of job and family services, 31065
against a person who violates division (B) of section 2913.401 of 31066
the Revised Code for the recovery of the amount of benefits paid 31067
on behalf of a person that either department would not have paid 31068
but for the violation minus any amounts paid in restitution under 31069
division (C)(2) of section 2913.401 of the Revised Code and for 31070
reasonable attorney's fees and all other fees and costs of 31071
litigation.31072

        (B) In a civil action brought under division (A) of this 31073
section, if the defendant failed to disclose a transfer of 31074
property in violation of division (B)(3) of section 2913.401 of 31075
the Revised Code, the court may also grant any of the following 31076
relief to the extent permitted by the "Social Security Act," 31077
section 1917, 42 U.S.C. 1396p:31078

        (1) Avoidance of the transfer of property that was not 31079
disclosed in violation of division (B)(3) of section 2913.401 of 31080
the Revised Code to the extent of the amount of benefits the 31081
department would not have paid but for the violation;31082

        (2) An order of attachment or garnishment against the 31083
property in accordance with Chapter 2715. or 2716. of the Revised 31084
Code;31085

        (3) An injunction against any further disposition by the 31086
transferor or transferee, or both, of the property the transfer of 31087
which was not disclosed in violation of division (B)(3) of section 31088
2913.401 of the Revised Code or against the disposition of other 31089
property by the transferor or transferee;31090

        (4) Appointment of a receiver to take charge of the property 31091
transferred or of other property of the transferee;31092

        (5) Any other relief that the court considers just and 31093
equitable.31094

        (C) To the extent permitted by the "Social Security Act," 31095
section 1917, 42 U.S.C. 1396p, the department of job and family 31096
servicesmedicaid or the county department of job and family 31097
services may enforce a judgment obtained under this section by 31098
levying on property the transfer of which was not disclosed in 31099
violation of division (B)(3) of section 2913.401 of the Revised 31100
Code or on the proceeds of the transfer of that property in 31101
accordance with Chapter 2329. of the Revised Code.31102

        (D) The remedies provided in divisions (B) and (C) of this 31103
section do not apply if the transferee of the property the 31104
transfer of which was not disclosed in violation of division 31105
(B)(3) of section 2913.401 of the Revised Code acquired the 31106
property in good faith and for fair market value.31107

        (E) The remedies provided in this section are not exclusive 31108
and do not preclude the use of any other criminal or civil remedy 31109
for any act that is in violation of section 2913.401 of the 31110
Revised Code.31111

        (F) Amounts of medicaid benefitsservices paid and recovered 31112
in an action brought under this section shall be credited to the 31113
general revenue fund, and any applicable federal share shall be 31114
returned to the appropriate agency or department of the United 31115
States.31116

       Sec. 2317.02.  The following persons shall not testify in 31117
certain respects:31118

       (A)(1) An attorney, concerning a communication made to the 31119
attorney by a client in that relation or concerning the attorney's 31120
advice to a client, except that the attorney may testify by 31121
express consent of the client or, if the client is deceased, by 31122
the express consent of the surviving spouse or the executor or 31123
administrator of the estate of the deceased client. However, if 31124
the client voluntarily reveals the substance of attorney-client 31125
communications in a nonprivileged context or is deemed by section 31126
2151.421 of the Revised Code to have waived any testimonial 31127
privilege under this division, the attorney may be compelled to 31128
testify on the same subject.31129

       The testimonial privilege established under this division 31130
does not apply concerning a communication between a client who has 31131
since died and the deceased client's attorney if the communication 31132
is relevant to a dispute between parties who claim through that 31133
deceased client, regardless of whether the claims are by testate 31134
or intestate succession or by inter vivos transaction, and the 31135
dispute addresses the competency of the deceased client when the 31136
deceased client executed a document that is the basis of the 31137
dispute or whether the deceased client was a victim of fraud, 31138
undue influence, or duress when the deceased client executed a 31139
document that is the basis of the dispute.31140

       (2) An attorney, concerning a communication made to the 31141
attorney by a client in that relationship or the attorney's advice 31142
to a client, except that if the client is an insurance company, 31143
the attorney may be compelled to testify, subject to an in camera 31144
inspection by a court, about communications made by the client to 31145
the attorney or by the attorney to the client that are related to 31146
the attorney's aiding or furthering an ongoing or future 31147
commission of bad faith by the client, if the party seeking 31148
disclosure of the communications has made a prima-facie showing of 31149
bad faith, fraud, or criminal misconduct by the client.31150

       (B)(1) A physician or a dentist concerning a communication 31151
made to the physician or dentist by a patient in that relation or 31152
the physician's or dentist's advice to a patient, except as 31153
otherwise provided in this division, division (B)(2), and division 31154
(B)(3) of this section, and except that, if the patient is deemed 31155
by section 2151.421 of the Revised Code to have waived any 31156
testimonial privilege under this division, the physician may be 31157
compelled to testify on the same subject.31158

       The testimonial privilege established under this division 31159
does not apply, and a physician or dentist may testify or may be 31160
compelled to testify, in any of the following circumstances:31161

       (a) In any civil action, in accordance with the discovery 31162
provisions of the Rules of Civil Procedure in connection with a 31163
civil action, or in connection with a claim under Chapter 4123. of 31164
the Revised Code, under any of the following circumstances:31165

       (i) If the patient or the guardian or other legal 31166
representative of the patient gives express consent;31167

       (ii) If the patient is deceased, the spouse of the patient or 31168
the executor or administrator of the patient's estate gives 31169
express consent;31170

       (iii) If a medical claim, dental claim, chiropractic claim, 31171
or optometric claim, as defined in section 2305.113 of the Revised 31172
Code, an action for wrongful death, any other type of civil 31173
action, or a claim under Chapter 4123. of the Revised Code is 31174
filed by the patient, the personal representative of the estate of 31175
the patient if deceased, or the patient's guardian or other legal 31176
representative.31177

       (b) In any civil action concerning court-ordered treatment or 31178
services received by a patient, if the court-ordered treatment or 31179
services were ordered as part of a case plan journalized under 31180
section 2151.412 of the Revised Code or the court-ordered 31181
treatment or services are necessary or relevant to dependency, 31182
neglect, or abuse or temporary or permanent custody proceedings 31183
under Chapter 2151. of the Revised Code.31184

       (c) In any criminal action concerning any test or the results 31185
of any test that determines the presence or concentration of 31186
alcohol, a drug of abuse, a combination of them, a controlled 31187
substance, or a metabolite of a controlled substance in the 31188
patient's whole blood, blood serum or plasma, breath, urine, or 31189
other bodily substance at any time relevant to the criminal 31190
offense in question.31191

       (d) In any criminal action against a physician or dentist. In 31192
such an action, the testimonial privilege established under this 31193
division does not prohibit the admission into evidence, in 31194
accordance with the Rules of Evidence, of a patient's medical or 31195
dental records or other communications between a patient and the 31196
physician or dentist that are related to the action and obtained 31197
by subpoena, search warrant, or other lawful means. A court that 31198
permits or compels a physician or dentist to testify in such an 31199
action or permits the introduction into evidence of patient 31200
records or other communications in such an action shall require 31201
that appropriate measures be taken to ensure that the 31202
confidentiality of any patient named or otherwise identified in 31203
the records is maintained. Measures to ensure confidentiality that 31204
may be taken by the court include sealing its records or deleting 31205
specific information from its records.31206

       (e)(i) If the communication was between a patient who has 31207
since died and the deceased patient's physician or dentist, the 31208
communication is relevant to a dispute between parties who claim 31209
through that deceased patient, regardless of whether the claims 31210
are by testate or intestate succession or by inter vivos 31211
transaction, and the dispute addresses the competency of the 31212
deceased patient when the deceased patient executed a document 31213
that is the basis of the dispute or whether the deceased patient 31214
was a victim of fraud, undue influence, or duress when the 31215
deceased patient executed a document that is the basis of the 31216
dispute.31217

       (ii) If neither the spouse of a patient nor the executor or 31218
administrator of that patient's estate gives consent under 31219
division (B)(1)(a)(ii) of this section, testimony or the 31220
disclosure of the patient's medical records by a physician, 31221
dentist, or other health care provider under division (B)(1)(e)(i) 31222
of this section is a permitted use or disclosure of protected 31223
health information, as defined in 45 C.F.R. 160.103, and an 31224
authorization or opportunity to be heard shall not be required.31225

       (iii) Division (B)(1)(e)(i) of this section does not require 31226
a mental health professional to disclose psychotherapy notes, as 31227
defined in 45 C.F.R. 164.501.31228

       (iv) An interested person who objects to testimony or 31229
disclosure under division (B)(1)(e)(i) of this section may seek a 31230
protective order pursuant to Civil Rule 26.31231

       (v) A person to whom protected health information is 31232
disclosed under division (B)(1)(e)(i) of this section shall not 31233
use or disclose the protected health information for any purpose 31234
other than the litigation or proceeding for which the information 31235
was requested and shall return the protected health information to 31236
the covered entity or destroy the protected health information, 31237
including all copies made, at the conclusion of the litigation or 31238
proceeding.31239

       (2)(a) If any law enforcement officer submits a written 31240
statement to a health care provider that states that an official 31241
criminal investigation has begun regarding a specified person or 31242
that a criminal action or proceeding has been commenced against a 31243
specified person, that requests the provider to supply to the 31244
officer copies of any records the provider possesses that pertain 31245
to any test or the results of any test administered to the 31246
specified person to determine the presence or concentration of 31247
alcohol, a drug of abuse, a combination of them, a controlled 31248
substance, or a metabolite of a controlled substance in the 31249
person's whole blood, blood serum or plasma, breath, or urine at 31250
any time relevant to the criminal offense in question, and that 31251
conforms to section 2317.022 of the Revised Code, the provider, 31252
except to the extent specifically prohibited by any law of this 31253
state or of the United States, shall supply to the officer a copy 31254
of any of the requested records the provider possesses. If the 31255
health care provider does not possess any of the requested 31256
records, the provider shall give the officer a written statement 31257
that indicates that the provider does not possess any of the 31258
requested records.31259

       (b) If a health care provider possesses any records of the 31260
type described in division (B)(2)(a) of this section regarding the 31261
person in question at any time relevant to the criminal offense in 31262
question, in lieu of personally testifying as to the results of 31263
the test in question, the custodian of the records may submit a 31264
certified copy of the records, and, upon its submission, the 31265
certified copy is qualified as authentic evidence and may be 31266
admitted as evidence in accordance with the Rules of Evidence. 31267
Division (A) of section 2317.422 of the Revised Code does not 31268
apply to any certified copy of records submitted in accordance 31269
with this division. Nothing in this division shall be construed to 31270
limit the right of any party to call as a witness the person who 31271
administered the test to which the records pertain, the person 31272
under whose supervision the test was administered, the custodian 31273
of the records, the person who made the records, or the person 31274
under whose supervision the records were made.31275

       (3)(a) If the testimonial privilege described in division 31276
(B)(1) of this section does not apply as provided in division 31277
(B)(1)(a)(iii) of this section, a physician or dentist may be 31278
compelled to testify or to submit to discovery under the Rules of 31279
Civil Procedure only as to a communication made to the physician 31280
or dentist by the patient in question in that relation, or the 31281
physician's or dentist's advice to the patient in question, that 31282
related causally or historically to physical or mental injuries 31283
that are relevant to issues in the medical claim, dental claim, 31284
chiropractic claim, or optometric claim, action for wrongful 31285
death, other civil action, or claim under Chapter 4123. of the 31286
Revised Code.31287

       (b) If the testimonial privilege described in division (B)(1) 31288
of this section does not apply to a physician or dentist as 31289
provided in division (B)(1)(c) of this section, the physician or 31290
dentist, in lieu of personally testifying as to the results of the 31291
test in question, may submit a certified copy of those results, 31292
and, upon its submission, the certified copy is qualified as 31293
authentic evidence and may be admitted as evidence in accordance 31294
with the Rules of Evidence. Division (A) of section 2317.422 of 31295
the Revised Code does not apply to any certified copy of results 31296
submitted in accordance with this division. Nothing in this 31297
division shall be construed to limit the right of any party to 31298
call as a witness the person who administered the test in 31299
question, the person under whose supervision the test was 31300
administered, the custodian of the results of the test, the person 31301
who compiled the results, or the person under whose supervision 31302
the results were compiled.31303

       (4) The testimonial privilege described in division (B)(1) of 31304
this section is not waived when a communication is made by a 31305
physician to a pharmacist or when there is communication between a 31306
patient and a pharmacist in furtherance of the physician-patient 31307
relation.31308

       (5)(a) As used in divisions (B)(1) to (4) of this section, 31309
"communication" means acquiring, recording, or transmitting any 31310
information, in any manner, concerning any facts, opinions, or 31311
statements necessary to enable a physician or dentist to diagnose, 31312
treat, prescribe, or act for a patient. A "communication" may 31313
include, but is not limited to, any medical or dental, office, or 31314
hospital communication such as a record, chart, letter, 31315
memorandum, laboratory test and results, x-ray, photograph, 31316
financial statement, diagnosis, or prognosis.31317

       (b) As used in division (B)(2) of this section, "health care 31318
provider" means a hospital, ambulatory care facility, long-term 31319
care facility, pharmacy, emergency facility, or health care 31320
practitioner.31321

       (c) As used in division (B)(5)(b) of this section:31322

       (i) "Ambulatory care facility" means a facility that provides 31323
medical, diagnostic, or surgical treatment to patients who do not 31324
require hospitalization, including a dialysis center, ambulatory 31325
surgical facility, cardiac catheterization facility, diagnostic 31326
imaging center, extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy center, home 31327
health agency, inpatient hospice, birthing center, radiation 31328
therapy center, emergency facility, and an urgent care center. 31329
"Ambulatory health care facility" does not include the private 31330
office of a physician or dentist, whether the office is for an 31331
individual or group practice.31332

       (ii) "Emergency facility" means a hospital emergency 31333
department or any other facility that provides emergency medical 31334
services.31335

       (iii) "Health care practitioner" has the same meaning as in 31336
section 4769.01 of the Revised Code.31337

       (iv) "Hospital" has the same meaning as in section 3727.01 of 31338
the Revised Code.31339

       (v) "Long-term care facility" means a nursing home, 31340
residential care facility, or home for the aging, as those terms 31341
are defined in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code; a residential 31342
facility licensed under section 5119.225119.34 of the Revised 31343
Code that provides accommodations, supervision, and personal care 31344
services for three to sixteen unrelated adults; a nursing facility 31345
or intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded, as those 31346
terms are defined in section 5111.205165.01 of the Revised Code; 31347
a facility or portion of a facility certified as a skilled 31348
nursing facility under Title XVIII of the "Social Security Act," 31349
49 Stat. 286 (1965), 42 U.S.C.A. 1395, as amended, as defined in 31350
section 5165.01 of the Revised Code; and an intermediate care 31351
facility for the mentally retarded, as defined in section 5124.01 31352
of the Revised Code.31353

       (vi) "Pharmacy" has the same meaning as in section 4729.01 of 31354
the Revised Code.31355

       (d) As used in divisions (B)(1) and (2) of this section, 31356
"drug of abuse" has the same meaning as in section 4506.01 of the 31357
Revised Code.31358

       (6) Divisions (B)(1), (2), (3), (4), and (5) of this section 31359
apply to doctors of medicine, doctors of osteopathic medicine, 31360
doctors of podiatry, and dentists.31361

       (7) Nothing in divisions (B)(1) to (6) of this section 31362
affects, or shall be construed as affecting, the immunity from 31363
civil liability conferred by section 307.628 of the Revised Code 31364
or the immunity from civil liability conferred by section 2305.33 31365
of the Revised Code upon physicians who report an employee's use 31366
of a drug of abuse, or a condition of an employee other than one 31367
involving the use of a drug of abuse, to the employer of the 31368
employee in accordance with division (B) of that section. As used 31369
in division (B)(7) of this section, "employee," "employer," and 31370
"physician" have the same meanings as in section 2305.33 of the 31371
Revised Code.31372

       (C)(1) A cleric, when the cleric remains accountable to the 31373
authority of that cleric's church, denomination, or sect, 31374
concerning a confession made, or any information confidentially 31375
communicated, to the cleric for a religious counseling purpose in 31376
the cleric's professional character. The cleric may testify by 31377
express consent of the person making the communication, except 31378
when the disclosure of the information is in violation of a sacred 31379
trust and except that, if the person voluntarily testifies or is 31380
deemed by division (A)(4)(c) of section 2151.421 of the Revised 31381
Code to have waived any testimonial privilege under this division, 31382
the cleric may be compelled to testify on the same subject except 31383
when disclosure of the information is in violation of a sacred 31384
trust.31385

       (2) As used in division (C) of this section:31386

        (a) "Cleric" means a member of the clergy, rabbi, priest, 31387
Christian Science practitioner, or regularly ordained, accredited, 31388
or licensed minister of an established and legally cognizable 31389
church, denomination, or sect.31390

        (b) "Sacred trust" means a confession or confidential 31391
communication made to a cleric in the cleric's ecclesiastical 31392
capacity in the course of discipline enjoined by the church to 31393
which the cleric belongs, including, but not limited to, the 31394
Catholic Church, if both of the following apply:31395

        (i) The confession or confidential communication was made 31396
directly to the cleric.31397

        (ii) The confession or confidential communication was made in 31398
the manner and context that places the cleric specifically and 31399
strictly under a level of confidentiality that is considered 31400
inviolate by canon law or church doctrine.31401

       (D) Husband or wife, concerning any communication made by one 31402
to the other, or an act done by either in the presence of the 31403
other, during coverture, unless the communication was made, or act 31404
done, in the known presence or hearing of a third person competent 31405
to be a witness; and such rule is the same if the marital relation 31406
has ceased to exist;31407

       (E) A person who assigns a claim or interest, concerning any 31408
matter in respect to which the person would not, if a party, be 31409
permitted to testify;31410

       (F) A person who, if a party, would be restricted under 31411
section 2317.03 of the Revised Code, when the property or thing is 31412
sold or transferred by an executor, administrator, guardian, 31413
trustee, heir, devisee, or legatee, shall be restricted in the 31414
same manner in any action or proceeding concerning the property or 31415
thing.31416

       (G)(1) A school guidance counselor who holds a valid educator 31417
license from the state board of education as provided for in 31418
section 3319.22 of the Revised Code, a person licensed under 31419
Chapter 4757. of the Revised Code as a professional clinical 31420
counselor, professional counselor, social worker, independent 31421
social worker, marriage and family therapist or independent 31422
marriage and family therapist, or registered under Chapter 4757. 31423
of the Revised Code as a social work assistant concerning a 31424
confidential communication received from a client in that relation 31425
or the person's advice to a client unless any of the following 31426
applies:31427

       (a) The communication or advice indicates clear and present 31428
danger to the client or other persons. For the purposes of this 31429
division, cases in which there are indications of present or past 31430
child abuse or neglect of the client constitute a clear and 31431
present danger.31432

       (b) The client gives express consent to the testimony.31433

       (c) If the client is deceased, the surviving spouse or the 31434
executor or administrator of the estate of the deceased client 31435
gives express consent.31436

       (d) The client voluntarily testifies, in which case the 31437
school guidance counselor or person licensed or registered under 31438
Chapter 4757. of the Revised Code may be compelled to testify on 31439
the same subject.31440

       (e) The court in camera determines that the information 31441
communicated by the client is not germane to the counselor-client, 31442
marriage and family therapist-client, or social worker-client 31443
relationship.31444

       (f) A court, in an action brought against a school, its 31445
administration, or any of its personnel by the client, rules after 31446
an in-camera inspection that the testimony of the school guidance 31447
counselor is relevant to that action.31448

       (g) The testimony is sought in a civil action and concerns 31449
court-ordered treatment or services received by a patient as part 31450
of a case plan journalized under section 2151.412 of the Revised 31451
Code or the court-ordered treatment or services are necessary or 31452
relevant to dependency, neglect, or abuse or temporary or 31453
permanent custody proceedings under Chapter 2151. of the Revised 31454
Code.31455

       (2) Nothing in division (G)(1) of this section shall relieve 31456
a school guidance counselor or a person licensed or registered 31457
under Chapter 4757. of the Revised Code from the requirement to 31458
report information concerning child abuse or neglect under section 31459
2151.421 of the Revised Code.31460

       (H) A mediator acting under a mediation order issued under 31461
division (A) of section 3109.052 of the Revised Code or otherwise 31462
issued in any proceeding for divorce, dissolution, legal 31463
separation, annulment, or the allocation of parental rights and 31464
responsibilities for the care of children, in any action or 31465
proceeding, other than a criminal, delinquency, child abuse, child 31466
neglect, or dependent child action or proceeding, that is brought 31467
by or against either parent who takes part in mediation in 31468
accordance with the order and that pertains to the mediation 31469
process, to any information discussed or presented in the 31470
mediation process, to the allocation of parental rights and 31471
responsibilities for the care of the parents' children, or to the 31472
awarding of parenting time rights in relation to their children;31473

       (I) A communications assistant, acting within the scope of 31474
the communication assistant's authority, when providing 31475
telecommunications relay service pursuant to section 4931.06 of 31476
the Revised Code or Title II of the "Communications Act of 1934," 31477
104 Stat. 366 (1990), 47 U.S.C. 225, concerning a communication 31478
made through a telecommunications relay service. Nothing in this 31479
section shall limit the obligation of a communications assistant 31480
to divulge information or testify when mandated by federal law or 31481
regulation or pursuant to subpoena in a criminal proceeding.31482

       Nothing in this section shall limit any immunity or privilege 31483
granted under federal law or regulation.31484

       (J)(1) A chiropractor in a civil proceeding concerning a 31485
communication made to the chiropractor by a patient in that 31486
relation or the chiropractor's advice to a patient, except as 31487
otherwise provided in this division. The testimonial privilege 31488
established under this division does not apply, and a chiropractor 31489
may testify or may be compelled to testify, in any civil action, 31490
in accordance with the discovery provisions of the Rules of Civil 31491
Procedure in connection with a civil action, or in connection with 31492
a claim under Chapter 4123. of the Revised Code, under any of the 31493
following circumstances:31494

       (a) If the patient or the guardian or other legal 31495
representative of the patient gives express consent.31496

       (b) If the patient is deceased, the spouse of the patient or 31497
the executor or administrator of the patient's estate gives 31498
express consent.31499

       (c) If a medical claim, dental claim, chiropractic claim, or 31500
optometric claim, as defined in section 2305.113 of the Revised 31501
Code, an action for wrongful death, any other type of civil 31502
action, or a claim under Chapter 4123. of the Revised Code is 31503
filed by the patient, the personal representative of the estate of 31504
the patient if deceased, or the patient's guardian or other legal 31505
representative.31506

       (2) If the testimonial privilege described in division (J)(1) 31507
of this section does not apply as provided in division (J)(1)(c) 31508
of this section, a chiropractor may be compelled to testify or to 31509
submit to discovery under the Rules of Civil Procedure only as to 31510
a communication made to the chiropractor by the patient in 31511
question in that relation, or the chiropractor's advice to the 31512
patient in question, that related causally or historically to 31513
physical or mental injuries that are relevant to issues in the 31514
medical claim, dental claim, chiropractic claim, or optometric 31515
claim, action for wrongful death, other civil action, or claim 31516
under Chapter 4123. of the Revised Code.31517

       (3) The testimonial privilege established under this division 31518
does not apply, and a chiropractor may testify or be compelled to 31519
testify, in any criminal action or administrative proceeding.31520

       (4) As used in this division, "communication" means 31521
acquiring, recording, or transmitting any information, in any 31522
manner, concerning any facts, opinions, or statements necessary to 31523
enable a chiropractor to diagnose, treat, or act for a patient. A 31524
communication may include, but is not limited to, any 31525
chiropractic, office, or hospital communication such as a record, 31526
chart, letter, memorandum, laboratory test and results, x-ray, 31527
photograph, financial statement, diagnosis, or prognosis.31528

       (K)(1) Except as provided under division (K)(2) of this 31529
section, a critical incident stress management team member 31530
concerning a communication received from an individual who 31531
receives crisis response services from the team member, or the 31532
team member's advice to the individual, during a debriefing 31533
session.31534

        (2) The testimonial privilege established under division 31535
(K)(1) of this section does not apply if any of the following are 31536
true:31537

        (a) The communication or advice indicates clear and present 31538
danger to the individual who receives crisis response services or 31539
to other persons. For purposes of this division, cases in which 31540
there are indications of present or past child abuse or neglect of 31541
the individual constitute a clear and present danger.31542

        (b) The individual who received crisis response services 31543
gives express consent to the testimony.31544

       (c) If the individual who received crisis response services 31545
is deceased, the surviving spouse or the executor or administrator 31546
of the estate of the deceased individual gives express consent.31547

        (d) The individual who received crisis response services 31548
voluntarily testifies, in which case the team member may be 31549
compelled to testify on the same subject.31550

        (e) The court in camera determines that the information 31551
communicated by the individual who received crisis response 31552
services is not germane to the relationship between the individual 31553
and the team member.31554

       (f) The communication or advice pertains or is related to any 31555
criminal act.31556

       (3) As used in division (K) of this section:31557

       (a) "Crisis response services" means consultation, risk 31558
assessment, referral, and on-site crisis intervention services 31559
provided by a critical incident stress management team to 31560
individuals affected by crisis or disaster.31561

       (b) "Critical incident stress management team member" or 31562
"team member" means an individual specially trained to provide 31563
crisis response services as a member of an organized community or 31564
local crisis response team that holds membership in the Ohio 31565
critical incident stress management network.31566

       (c) "Debriefing session" means a session at which crisis 31567
response services are rendered by a critical incident stress 31568
management team member during or after a crisis or disaster.31569

       (L)(1) Subject to division (L)(2) of this section and except 31570
as provided in division (L)(3) of this section, an employee 31571
assistance professional, concerning a communication made to the 31572
employee assistance professional by a client in the employee 31573
assistance professional's official capacity as an employee 31574
assistance professional.31575

        (2) Division (L)(1) of this section applies to an employee 31576
assistance professional who meets either or both of the following 31577
requirements:31578

        (a) Is certified by the employee assistance certification 31579
commission to engage in the employee assistance profession;31580

        (b) Has education, training, and experience in all of the 31581
following:31582

        (i) Providing workplace-based services designed to address 31583
employer and employee productivity issues;31584

        (ii) Providing assistance to employees and employees' 31585
dependents in identifying and finding the means to resolve 31586
personal problems that affect the employees or the employees' 31587
performance;31588

       (iii) Identifying and resolving productivity problems 31589
associated with an employee's concerns about any of the following 31590
matters: health, marriage, family, finances, substance abuse or 31591
other addiction, workplace, law, and emotional issues;31592

       (iv) Selecting and evaluating available community resources;31593

        (v) Making appropriate referrals;31594

        (vi) Local and national employee assistance agreements;31595

        (vii) Client confidentiality.31596

        (3) Division (L)(1) of this section does not apply to any of 31597
the following:31598

        (a) A criminal action or proceeding involving an offense 31599
under sections 2903.01 to 2903.06 of the Revised Code if the 31600
employee assistance professional's disclosure or testimony relates 31601
directly to the facts or immediate circumstances of the offense;31602

        (b) A communication made by a client to an employee 31603
assistance professional that reveals the contemplation or 31604
commission of a crime or serious, harmful act;31605

        (c) A communication that is made by a client who is an 31606
unemancipated minor or an adult adjudicated to be incompetent and 31607
indicates that the client was the victim of a crime or abuse;31608

       (d) A civil proceeding to determine an individual's mental 31609
competency or a criminal action in which a plea of not guilty by 31610
reason of insanity is entered;31611

        (e) A civil or criminal malpractice action brought against 31612
the employee assistance professional;31613

        (f) When the employee assistance professional has the express 31614
consent of the client or, if the client is deceased or disabled, 31615
the client's legal representative;31616

        (g) When the testimonial privilege otherwise provided by 31617
division (L)(1) of this section is abrogated under law.31618

       Sec. 2317.422.  (A) Notwithstanding sections 2317.40 and 31619
2317.41 of the Revised Code but subject to division (B) of this 31620
section, the records, or copies or photographs of the records, of 31621
a hospital, homes required to be licensed pursuant to section 31622
3721.01 of the Revised Code, and residential facilities licensed 31623
pursuant to section 5119.225119.34 of the Revised Code that 31624
provides accommodations, supervision, and personal care services 31625
for three to sixteen unrelated adults, in lieu of the testimony in 31626
open court of their custodian, person who made them, or person 31627
under whose supervision they were made, may be qualified as 31628
authentic evidence if any such person endorses thereon the 31629
person's verified certification identifying such records, giving 31630
the mode and time of their preparation, and stating that they were 31631
prepared in the usual course of the business of the institution. 31632
Such records, copies, or photographs may not be qualified by 31633
certification as provided in this section unless the party 31634
intending to offer them delivers a copy of them, or of their 31635
relevant portions, to the attorney of record for each adverse 31636
party not less than five days before trial. Nothing in this 31637
section shall be construed to limit the right of any party to call 31638
the custodian, person who made such records, or person under whose 31639
supervision they were made, as a witness.31640

       (B) Division (A) of this section does not apply to any 31641
certified copy of the results of any test given to determine the 31642
presence or concentration of alcohol, a drug of abuse, a 31643
combination of them, a controlled substance, or a metabolite of a 31644
controlled substance in a patient's whole blood, blood serum or 31645
plasma, breath, or urine at any time relevant to a criminal 31646
offense that is submitted in a criminal action or proceeding in 31647
accordance with division (B)(2)(b) or (B)(3)(b) of section 2317.02 31648
of the Revised Code.31649

       Sec. 2329.192. (A) As used in this section:31650

        (1) "State lien" means a lien upon real estate, including 31651
lands and tenements, of persons indebted to the state for debt, 31652
taxes, or in any other manner recorded by a state agency in any 31653
office of the clerk of a county court or the county recorder.31654

        (2) "State lienholder" means the department, agency, or other 31655
division of the state in whose name a state lien has been filed or 31656
recorded.31657

        (B) In every action seeking the judicial sale of real estate 31658
that is subject to a state lien, all of the following apply:31659

        (1) The party seeking a judicial sale shall include the state 31660
lienholder as a party defendant and shall serve that state 31661
lienholder with a copy of the preliminary judicial report or 31662
commitment for an owner's fee policy of title insurance filed in 31663
accordance with section 2329.191 of the Revised Code.31664

        (2) A state lienholder shall not be made a party defendant if 31665
no state lien has been recorded against the owner of the real 31666
estate for which the judicial sale is sought.31667

        (3) The appearance of the state lienholder shall be presumed 31668
for purposes of jurisdiction, and the court shall take judicial 31669
notice that the state has a lien against the real estate.31670

        (4) A state lienholder may, but is not required to, file an 31671
answer to the complaint or any other pleading in the action if the 31672
amount, validity, or priority of the state lien is not identified 31673
in the pleadings as disputed and shall file an answer to the 31674
complaint or any other pleading in the action if the amount, 31675
validity, or priority of the state lien is identified in the 31676
pleadings as disputed. If a state lien is not identified as 31677
disputed, unless the state files an answer or other responsive 31678
pleading, the party seeking the judicial sale is not required to 31679
serve the state lienholder with any answer or subsequent pleadings 31680
in the action for judicial sale.31681

        (5) As part of any order confirming the sale of the real 31682
estate that is subject to any undisputed state lien or 31683
distributing the proceeds of any judicial sale of real estate, the 31684
undisputed state lien shall be protected as if the state had 31685
appeared in the action and filed an answer asserting the validity 31686
of the state lien as recorded in the office of the clerk of the 31687
county court or the office of the county recorder.31688

        (6) Any party asserting a dispute as to the amount, validity, 31689
or priority of the state lien or of any lien or other interest 31690
that has priority over the state lien shall serve the state 31691
lienholder and the attorney general with notice of the dispute, 31692
and the state lienholder shall be permitted to file a responsive 31693
pleading and participate in the proceedings as if the state 31694
lienholder had been served with a summons on the date the state 31695
lienholder received notice of the dispute.31696

        (C) Upon the judicial sale of the real estate that is the 31697
subject of an action under division (B) of this section, the 31698
interest of any undisputed state lien shall transfer to the 31699
proceeds of the sale of the real estate, and the state lienholder 31700
shall be entitled to payment from the proceeds of the sale of the 31701
real estate in accordance with the state lienholder's priority as 31702
set forth in the final judicial report or commitment for an 31703
owner's fee policy of title insurance filed in accordance with 31704
section 2329.191 of the Revised Code.31705

       Sec. 2505.02.  (A) As used in this section:31706

       (1) "Substantial right" means a right that the United States 31707
Constitution, the Ohio Constitution, a statute, the common law, or 31708
a rule of procedure entitles a person to enforce or protect.31709

       (2) "Special proceeding" means an action or proceeding that 31710
is specially created by statute and that prior to 1853 was not 31711
denoted as an action at law or a suit in equity.31712

       (3) "Provisional remedy" means a proceeding ancillary to an 31713
action, including, but not limited to, a proceeding for a 31714
preliminary injunction, attachment, discovery of privileged 31715
matter, suppression of evidence, a prima-facie showing pursuant to 31716
section 2307.85 or 2307.86 of the Revised Code, a prima-facie 31717
showing pursuant to section 2307.92 of the Revised Code, or a 31718
finding made pursuant to division (A)(3) of section 2307.93 of the 31719
Revised Code.31720

       (B) An order is a final order that may be reviewed, affirmed, 31721
modified, or reversed, with or without retrial, when it is one of 31722
the following:31723

       (1) An order that affects a substantial right in an action 31724
that in effect determines the action and prevents a judgment;31725

       (2) An order that affects a substantial right made in a 31726
special proceeding or upon a summary application in an action 31727
after judgment;31728

       (3) An order that vacates or sets aside a judgment or grants 31729
a new trial;31730

       (4) An order that grants or denies a provisional remedy and 31731
to which both of the following apply:31732

       (a) The order in effect determines the action with respect to 31733
the provisional remedy and prevents a judgment in the action in 31734
favor of the appealing party with respect to the provisional 31735
remedy.31736

       (b) The appealing party would not be afforded a meaningful or 31737
effective remedy by an appeal following final judgment as to all 31738
proceedings, issues, claims, and parties in the action.31739

       (5) An order that determines that an action may or may not be 31740
maintained as a class action;31741

       (6) An order determining the constitutionality of any changes 31742
to the Revised Code made by Am. Sub. S.B. 281 of the 124th general 31743
assembly, including the amendment of sections 1751.67, 2117.06, 31744
2305.11, 2305.15, 2305.234, 2317.02, 2317.54, 2323.56, 2711.21, 31745
2711.22, 2711.23, 2711.24, 2743.02, 2743.43, 2919.16, 3923.63, 31746
3923.64, 4705.15, and 5111.018 (renumbered as 5164.07 by H.B. 59 31747
of the 130th general assembly), and the enactment of sections 31748
2305.113, 2323.41, 2323.43, and 2323.55 of the Revised Code or any 31749
changes made by Sub. S.B. 80 of the 125th general assembly, 31750
including the amendment of sections 2125.02, 2305.10, 2305.131, 31751
2315.18, 2315.19, and 2315.21 of the Revised Code;31752

       (7) An order in an appropriation proceeding that may be 31753
appealed pursuant to division (B)(3) of section 163.09 of the 31754
Revised Code.31755

       (C) When a court issues an order that vacates or sets aside a 31756
judgment or grants a new trial, the court, upon the request of 31757
either party, shall state in the order the grounds upon which the 31758
new trial is granted or the judgment vacated or set aside.31759

       (D) This section applies to and governs any action, including 31760
an appeal, that is pending in any court on July 22, 1998, and all 31761
claims filed or actions commenced on or after July 22, 1998, 31762
notwithstanding any provision of any prior statute or rule of law 31763
of this state.31764

       Sec. 2743.02.  (A)(1) The state hereby waives its immunity 31765
from liability, except as provided for the office of the state 31766
fire marshal in division (G)(1) of section 9.60 and division (B) 31767
of section 3737.221 of the Revised Code and subject to division 31768
(H) of this section, and consents to be sued, and have its 31769
liability determined, in the court of claims created in this 31770
chapter in accordance with the same rules of law applicable to 31771
suits between private parties, except that the determination of 31772
liability is subject to the limitations set forth in this chapter 31773
and, in the case of state universities or colleges, in section 31774
3345.40 of the Revised Code, and except as provided in division 31775
(A)(2) or (3) of this section. To the extent that the state has 31776
previously consented to be sued, this chapter has no 31777
applicability.31778

       Except in the case of a civil action filed by the state, 31779
filing a civil action in the court of claims results in a complete 31780
waiver of any cause of action, based on the same act or omission, 31781
that the filing party has against any officer or employee, as 31782
defined in section 109.36 of the Revised Code. The waiver shall be 31783
void if the court determines that the act or omission was 31784
manifestly outside the scope of the officer's or employee's office 31785
or employment or that the officer or employee acted with malicious 31786
purpose, in bad faith, or in a wanton or reckless manner.31787

       (2) If a claimant proves in the court of claims that an 31788
officer or employee, as defined in section 109.36 of the Revised 31789
Code, would have personal liability for the officer's or 31790
employee's acts or omissions but for the fact that the officer or 31791
employee has personal immunity under section 9.86 of the Revised 31792
Code, the state shall be held liable in the court of claims in any 31793
action that is timely filed pursuant to section 2743.16 of the 31794
Revised Code and that is based upon the acts or omissions.31795

       (3)(a) Except as provided in division (A)(3)(b) of this 31796
section, the state is immune from liability in any civil action or 31797
proceeding involving the performance or nonperformance of a public 31798
duty, including the performance or nonperformance of a public duty 31799
that is owed by the state in relation to any action of an 31800
individual who is committed to the custody of the state.31801

       (b) The state immunity provided in division (A)(3)(a) of this 31802
section does not apply to any action of the state under 31803
circumstances in which a special relationship can be established 31804
between the state and an injured party. A special relationship 31805
under this division is demonstrated if all of the following 31806
elements exist:31807

       (i) An assumption by the state, by means of promises or 31808
actions, of an affirmative duty to act on behalf of the party who 31809
was allegedly injured;31810

       (ii) Knowledge on the part of the state's agents that 31811
inaction of the state could lead to harm;31812

       (iii) Some form of direct contact between the state's agents 31813
and the injured party;31814

       (iv) The injured party's justifiable reliance on the state's 31815
affirmative undertaking.31816

       (B) The state hereby waives the immunity from liability of 31817
all hospitals owned or operated by one or more political 31818
subdivisions and consents for them to be sued, and to have their 31819
liability determined, in the court of common pleas, in accordance 31820
with the same rules of law applicable to suits between private 31821
parties, subject to the limitations set forth in this chapter. 31822
This division is also applicable to hospitals owned or operated by 31823
political subdivisions that have been determined by the supreme 31824
court to be subject to suit prior to July 28, 1975.31825

       (C) Any hospital, as defined in section 2305.113 of the 31826
Revised Code, may purchase liability insurance covering its 31827
operations and activities and its agents, employees, nurses, 31828
interns, residents, staff, and members of the governing board and 31829
committees, and, whether or not such insurance is purchased, may, 31830
to the extent that its governing board considers appropriate, 31831
indemnify or agree to indemnify and hold harmless any such person 31832
against expense, including attorney's fees, damage, loss, or other 31833
liability arising out of, or claimed to have arisen out of, the 31834
death, disease, or injury of any person as a result of the 31835
negligence, malpractice, or other action or inaction of the 31836
indemnified person while acting within the scope of the 31837
indemnified person's duties or engaged in activities at the 31838
request or direction, or for the benefit, of the hospital. Any 31839
hospital electing to indemnify those persons, or to agree to so 31840
indemnify, shall reserve any funds that are necessary, in the 31841
exercise of sound and prudent actuarial judgment, to cover the 31842
potential expense, fees, damage, loss, or other liability. The 31843
superintendent of insurance may recommend, or, if the hospital 31844
requests the superintendent to do so, the superintendent shall 31845
recommend, a specific amount for any period that, in the 31846
superintendent's opinion, represents such a judgment. This 31847
authority is in addition to any authorization otherwise provided 31848
or permitted by law.31849

       (D)(1) Notwithstanding any other provision of the Revised 31850
Code or rules of a court to the contrary, in an action against the 31851
state to recover damages for injury, death, or loss to person or 31852
property caused by an act or omission of the state itself, by an 31853
act or omission of any officer or employee of the state while 31854
acting within the scope of employment or official 31855
responsibilities, or by an act or omission of any other person 31856
authorized to act on behalf of the state that occurred while 31857
engaged in activities at the request or direction, or for the 31858
benefit, of the state, the following apply:31859

        (a) Punitive or exemplary damages shall not be awarded.31860

        (b)(i) Recoveries against the state shall be reduced by the 31861
aggregate of insurance proceeds, disability award,benefits or 31862
other collateral recovery received by the claimant for the injury, 31863
death, or loss allegedly incurred. This divisionIf a claimant 31864
receives or is entitled to receive benefits or other collateral 31865
recovery, the claimant or the claimant's attorney shall disclose 31866
the benefits or other collateral recovery to the court, and the 31867
court shall deduct the amount of the benefits or other collateral 31868
recovery from any award against the state recovered by the 31869
claimant. No insurer or other person is entitled to bring a civil 31870
action under a subrogation provision in an insurance or other 31871
contract against the state with respect to those benefits or other 31872
collateral recovery. Nothing in this division affects or shall be 31873
construed to limit the rights of a beneficiary under a life 31874
insurance policy or the rights of sureties under fidelity or 31875
surety bonds.31876

        (ii) Division (D)(1)(b)(i) of this section does not apply to 31877
civil actions in the court of claims against a state university or 31878
college under the circumstances described in section 3345.40 of 31879
the Revised Code. The collateral benefits provisions of division 31880
(B)(2) of that section apply under those circumstances.31881

       (c) There shall not be any limitation on compensatory damages 31882
that represent the actual loss of the person who is awarded the 31883
damages. However, except in wrongful death actions brought 31884
pursuant to Chapter 2125. of the Revised Code, damages that arise 31885
from the same cause of action, transaction or occurrence, or 31886
series of transactions or occurrences and that do not represent 31887
the actual loss of the person who is awarded the damages shall not 31888
exceed two hundred fifty thousand dollars in favor of any one 31889
person. The limitation on damages that do not represent the actual 31890
loss of the person who is awarded the damages provided in this 31891
division does not apply to court costs that are awarded to a 31892
claimant, or to interest on a judgment rendered in favor of a 31893
claimant, in an action against the state.31894

        (2) As used in division (D) of this section:31895

        (a) "Benefits" includes, but is not limited to, proceeds from 31896
a policy or policies of insurance, social security benefits, 31897
veterans' benefits, unemployment compensation, workers' 31898
compensation, medicaid benefits, medicare benefits, and disability 31899
awards.31900

        (b) "Collateral recovery" includes, but is not limited to, 31901
any settlements with and judgments against third parties that 31902
arise out of the same operative facts involved in, and the injury, 31903
death, or loss allegedly incurred, in the action against the 31904
state, or any other source of recovery for any injury, death, or 31905
loss allegedly incurred in that action.31906

        (c) Except as provided in division (D)(2)(d) of this section, 31907
"the actual loss of the person who is awarded the damages" 31908
includes all of the following:31909

        (i) All wages, salaries, or other compensation lost by the 31910
person injured as a result of the injury, including wages, 31911
salaries, or other compensation lost as of the date of a judgment 31912
and future expected lost earnings of the injured person;31913

        (ii) All expenditures of the injured person or of another 31914
person on behalf of the injured person for medical care or 31915
treatment, rehabilitation services, or other care, treatment, 31916
services, products, or accommodations that were necessary because 31917
of the injury;31918

        (iii) All expenditures to be incurred in the future, as 31919
determined by the court, by the injured person or by another 31920
person on behalf of the injured person for medical care or 31921
treatment, rehabilitation services, or other care, treatment, 31922
services, products, or accommodations that will be necessary 31923
because of the injury;31924

        (iv) All expenditures of a person whose property was injured 31925
or destroyed or of another person on behalf of the person whose 31926
property was injured or destroyed in order to repair or replace 31927
the property that was injured or destroyed;31928

        (v) All expenditures of the injured person, of the person 31929
whose property was injured or destroyed, or of another person on 31930
behalf of the injured person or the person whose property was 31931
injured or destroyed in relation to the actual preparation or 31932
presentation of the claim involved;31933

        (vi) Any other expenditures of the injured person, of the 31934
person whose property was injured or destroyed, or of another 31935
person on behalf of the injured person or the person whose 31936
property was injured or destroyed that the court determines 31937
represent an actual loss experienced because of the personal or 31938
property injury or property loss.31939

        (d) "The actual loss of the person who is awarded the 31940
damages" does not include either of the following:31941

        (i) Any fees paid or owed to an attorney for any services 31942
rendered in relation to the personal or property injury or 31943
property loss;31944

        (ii) Any damages awarded for pain and suffering, for the loss 31945
of society, consortium, companionship, care, assistance, 31946
attention, protection, advice, guidance, counsel, instruction, 31947
training, or education of the injured person, for mental anguish, 31948
or for any other intangible loss. 31949

       (E) The only defendant in original actions in the court of 31950
claims is the state. The state may file a third-party complaint or 31951
counterclaim in any civil action, except a civil action for ten 31952
thousand dollars or less, that is filed in the court of claims.31953

       (F) A civil action against an officer or employee, as defined 31954
in section 109.36 of the Revised Code, that alleges that the 31955
officer's or employee's conduct was manifestly outside the scope 31956
of the officer's or employee's employment or official 31957
responsibilities, or that the officer or employee acted with 31958
malicious purpose, in bad faith, or in a wanton or reckless manner 31959
shall first be filed against the state in the court of claims that 31960
has exclusive, original jurisdiction to determine, initially, 31961
whether the officer or employee is entitled to personal immunity 31962
under section 9.86 of the Revised Code and whether the courts of 31963
common pleas have jurisdiction over the civil action. The officer 31964
or employee may participate in the immunity determination 31965
proceeding before the court of claims to determine whether the 31966
officer or employee is entitled to personal immunity under section 31967
9.86 of the Revised Code.31968

       The filing of a claim against an officer or employee under 31969
this division tolls the running of the applicable statute of 31970
limitations until the court of claims determines whether the 31971
officer or employee is entitled to personal immunity under section 31972
9.86 of the Revised Code.31973

       (G) If a claim lies against an officer or employee who is a 31974
member of the Ohio national guard, and the officer or employee 31975
was, at the time of the act or omission complained of, subject to 31976
the "Federal Tort Claims Act," 60 Stat. 842 (1946), 28 U.S.C. 31977
2671, et seq., the Federal Tort Claims Act is the exclusive remedy 31978
of the claimant and the state has no liability under this section.31979

       (H) If an inmate of a state correctional institution has a 31980
claim against the state for the loss of or damage to property and 31981
the amount claimed does not exceed three hundred dollars, before 31982
commencing an action against the state in the court of claims, the 31983
inmate shall file a claim for the loss or damage under the rules 31984
adopted by the director of rehabilitation and correction pursuant 31985
to this division. The inmate shall file the claim within the time 31986
allowed for commencement of a civil action under section 2743.16 31987
of the Revised Code. If the state admits or compromises the claim, 31988
the director shall make payment from a fund designated by the 31989
director for that purpose. If the state denies the claim or does 31990
not compromise the claim at least sixty days prior to expiration 31991
of the time allowed for commencement of a civil action based upon 31992
the loss or damage under section 2743.16 of the Revised Code, the 31993
inmate may commence an action in the court of claims under this 31994
chapter to recover damages for the loss or damage.31995

       The director of rehabilitation and correction shall adopt 31996
rules pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement 31997
this division.31998

       Sec. 2744.05.  Notwithstanding any other provisions of the 31999
Revised Code or rules of a court to the contrary, in an action 32000
against a political subdivision to recover damages for injury, 32001
death, or loss to person or property caused by an act or omission 32002
in connection with a governmental or proprietary function:32003

       (A) Punitive or exemplary damages shall not be awarded.32004

       (B)(1) If a claimant receives or is entitled to receive 32005
benefits for injuries or loss allegedly incurred from a policy or 32006
policies of insurance or any other source, the benefits shall be 32007
disclosed to the court, and the amount of the benefits shall be 32008
deducted from any award against a political subdivision recovered 32009
by that claimant. No insurer or other person is entitled to bring 32010
an action under a subrogation provision in an insurance or other 32011
contract against a political subdivision with respect to those 32012
benefits.32013

       The amount of the benefits shall be deducted from an award 32014
against a political subdivision under division (B)(1) of this 32015
section regardless of whether the claimant may be under an 32016
obligation to pay back the benefits upon recovery, in whole or in 32017
part, for the claim. A claimant whose benefits have been deducted 32018
from an award under division (B)(1) of this section is not 32019
considered fully compensated and shall not be required to 32020
reimburse a subrogated claim for benefits deducted from an award 32021
pursuant to division (B)(1) of this section.32022

       (2) Nothing in division (B)(1) of this section shall be 32023
construed to do either of the following:32024

       (a) Limit the rights of a beneficiary under a life insurance 32025
policy or the rights of sureties under fidelity or surety bonds;32026

       (b) Prohibit the department of job and family services32027
medicaid from recovering from the political subdivision, pursuant 32028
to section 5101.585160.37 of the Revised Code, the cost of 32029
medical assistance benefits provided under Chapter 5107. or 5111. 32030
of the Revised Codeprovided under a medical assistance program.32031

       (C)(1) There shall not be any limitation on compensatory 32032
damages that represent the actual loss of the person who is 32033
awarded the damages. However, except in wrongful death actions 32034
brought pursuant to Chapter 2125. of the Revised Code, damages 32035
that arise from the same cause of action, transaction or 32036
occurrence, or series of transactions or occurrences and that do 32037
not represent the actual loss of the person who is awarded the 32038
damages shall not exceed two hundred fifty thousand dollars in 32039
favor of any one person. The limitation on damages that do not 32040
represent the actual loss of the person who is awarded the damages 32041
provided in this division does not apply to court costs that are 32042
awarded to a plaintiff, or to interest on a judgment rendered in 32043
favor of a plaintiff, in an action against a political 32044
subdivision.32045

       (2) As used in this division, "the actual loss of the person 32046
who is awarded the damages" includes all of the following:32047

       (a) All wages, salaries, or other compensation lost by the 32048
person injured as a result of the injury, including wages, 32049
salaries, or other compensation lost as of the date of a judgment 32050
and future expected lost earnings of the person injured;32051

       (b) All expenditures of the person injured or another person 32052
on behalf of the person injured for medical care or treatment, for 32053
rehabilitation services, or for other care, treatment, services, 32054
products, or accommodations that were necessary because of the 32055
injury;32056

       (c) All expenditures to be incurred in the future, as 32057
determined by the court, by the person injured or another person 32058
on behalf of the person injured for medical care or treatment, for 32059
rehabilitation services, or for other care, treatment, services, 32060
products, or accommodations that will be necessary because of the 32061
injury;32062

       (d) All expenditures of a person whose property was injured 32063
or destroyed or of another person on behalf of the person whose 32064
property was injured or destroyed in order to repair or replace 32065
the property that was injured or destroyed;32066

       (e) All expenditures of the person injured or of the person 32067
whose property was injured or destroyed or of another person on 32068
behalf of the person injured or of the person whose property was 32069
injured or destroyed in relation to the actual preparation or 32070
presentation of the claim involved;32071

       (f) Any other expenditures of the person injured or of the 32072
person whose property was injured or destroyed or of another 32073
person on behalf of the person injured or of the person whose 32074
property was injured or destroyed that the court determines 32075
represent an actual loss experienced because of the personal or 32076
property injury or property loss.32077

       "The actual loss of the person who is awarded the damages" 32078
does not include any fees paid or owed to an attorney for any 32079
services rendered in relation to a personal or property injury or 32080
property loss, and does not include any damages awarded for pain 32081
and suffering, for the loss of society, consortium, companionship, 32082
care, assistance, attention, protection, advice, guidance, 32083
counsel, instruction, training, or education of the person 32084
injured, for mental anguish, or for any other intangible loss.32085

       Sec. 2901.13.  (A)(1) Except as provided in division (A)(2) 32086
or (3) of this section or as otherwise provided in this section, a 32087
prosecution shall be barred unless it is commenced within the 32088
following periods after an offense is committed:32089

       (a) For a felony, six years;32090

       (b) For a misdemeanor other than a minor misdemeanor, two 32091
years;32092

       (c) For a minor misdemeanor, six months.32093

       (2) There is no period of limitation for the prosecution of a 32094
violation of section 2903.01 or 2903.02 of the Revised Code.32095

       (3) Except as otherwise provided in divisions (B) to (H) of 32096
this section, a prosecution of any of the following offenses shall 32097
be barred unless it is commenced within twenty years after the 32098
offense is committed:32099

       (a) A violation of section 2903.03, 2903.04, 2905.01, 32100
2905.32, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.04, 2907.05, 2907.21, 2909.02, 32101
2909.22, 2909.23, 2909.24, 2909.26, 2909.27, 2909.28, 2909.29, 32102
2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, or 2917.02 of the Revised 32103
Code, a violation of section 2903.11 or 2903.12 of the Revised 32104
Code if the victim is a peace officer, a violation of section 32105
2903.13 of the Revised Code that is a felony, or a violation of 32106
former section 2907.12 of the Revised Code;32107

       (b) A conspiracy to commit, attempt to commit, or complicity 32108
in committing a violation set forth in division (A)(3)(a) of this 32109
section.32110

       (B)(1) Except as otherwise provided in division (B)(2) of 32111
this section, if the period of limitation provided in division 32112
(A)(1) or (3) of this section has expired, prosecution shall be 32113
commenced for an offense of which an element is fraud or breach of 32114
a fiduciary duty, within one year after discovery of the offense 32115
either by an aggrieved person, or by the aggrieved person's legal 32116
representative who is not a party to the offense.32117

       (2) If the period of limitation provided in division (A)(1) 32118
or (3) of this section has expired, prosecution for a violation of 32119
section 2913.49 of the Revised Code shall be commenced within five 32120
years after discovery of the offense either by an aggrieved person 32121
or the aggrieved person's legal representative who is not a party 32122
to the offense.32123

       (C)(1) If the period of limitation provided in division 32124
(A)(1) or (3) of this section has expired, prosecution shall be 32125
commenced for the following offenses during the following 32126
specified periods of time:32127

       (a) For an offense involving misconduct in office by a public 32128
servant, at any time while the accused remains a public servant, 32129
or within two years thereafter;32130

       (b) For an offense by a person who is not a public servant 32131
but whose offense is directly related to the misconduct in office 32132
of a public servant, at any time while that public servant remains 32133
a public servant, or within two years thereafter.32134

       (2) As used in this division:32135

       (a) An "offense is directly related to the misconduct in 32136
office of a public servant" includes, but is not limited to, a 32137
violation of section 101.71, 101.91, 121.61 or 2921.13, division 32138
(F) or (H) of section 102.03, division (A) of section 2921.02, 32139
division (A) or (B) of section 2921.43, or division (F) or (G) of 32140
section 3517.13 of the Revised Code, that is directly related to 32141
an offense involving misconduct in office of a public servant.32142

       (b) "Public servant" has the same meaning as in section 32143
2921.01 of the Revised Code.32144

       (D) An offense is committed when every element of the offense 32145
occurs. In the case of an offense of which an element is a 32146
continuing course of conduct, the period of limitation does not 32147
begin to run until such course of conduct or the accused's 32148
accountability for it terminates, whichever occurs first.32149

       (E) A prosecution is commenced on the date an indictment is 32150
returned or an information filed, or on the date a lawful arrest 32151
without a warrant is made, or on the date a warrant, summons, 32152
citation, or other process is issued, whichever occurs first. A 32153
prosecution is not commenced by the return of an indictment or the 32154
filing of an information unless reasonable diligence is exercised 32155
to issue and execute process on the same. A prosecution is not 32156
commenced upon issuance of a warrant, summons, citation, or other 32157
process, unless reasonable diligence is exercised to execute the 32158
same.32159

       (F) The period of limitation shall not run during any time 32160
when the corpus delicti remains undiscovered.32161

       (G) The period of limitation shall not run during any time 32162
when the accused purposely avoids prosecution. Proof that the 32163
accused departed this state or concealed the accused's identity or 32164
whereabouts is prima-facie evidence of the accused's purpose to 32165
avoid prosecution.32166

       (H) The period of limitation shall not run during any time a 32167
prosecution against the accused based on the same conduct is 32168
pending in this state, even though the indictment, information, or 32169
process that commenced the prosecution is quashed or the 32170
proceedings on the indictment, information, or process are set 32171
aside or reversed on appeal.32172

       (I) The period of limitation for a violation of any provision 32173
of Title XXIX of the Revised Code that involves a physical or 32174
mental wound, injury, disability, or condition of a nature that 32175
reasonably indicates abuse or neglect of a child under eighteen 32176
years of age or of a mentally retarded, developmentally disabled, 32177
or physically impaired child under twenty-one years of age shall 32178
not begin to run until either of the following occurs:32179

       (1) The victim of the offense reaches the age of majority.32180

       (2) A public children services agency, or a municipal or 32181
county peace officer that is not the parent or guardian of the 32182
child, in the county in which the child resides or in which the 32183
abuse or neglect is occurring or has occurred has been notified 32184
that abuse or neglect is known, suspected, or believed to have 32185
occurred.32186

       (J) As used in this section, "peace officer" has the same 32187
meaning as in section 2935.01 of the Revised Code.32188

       Sec. 2901.30.  (A) As used in sections 2901.30 to 2901.32 of 32189
the Revised Code:32190

       (1) "Information" means information that can be integrated 32191
into the computer system and that relates to the physical or 32192
mental description of a minor including, but not limited to, 32193
height, weight, color of hair and eyes, use of eyeglasses or 32194
contact lenses, skin coloring, physical or mental handicaps, 32195
special medical conditions or needs, abnormalities, problems, 32196
scars and marks, and distinguishing characteristics, and other 32197
information that could assist in identifying a minor including, 32198
but not limited to, full name and nickname, date and place of 32199
birth, age, names and addresses of parents and other relatives, 32200
fingerprints, dental records, photographs, social security number, 32201
driver's license number, credit card numbers, bank account 32202
numbers, and clothing.32203

       (2) "Minor" means a person under eighteen years of age.32204

       (3) "Missing children" or "missing child" means either of the 32205
following:32206

       (a) A minor who has run away from or who otherwise is missing 32207
from the home of, or the care, custody, and control of, the 32208
minor's parents, parent who is the residential parent and legal 32209
custodian, guardian, legal custodian, or other person having 32210
responsibility for the care of the minor;32211

       (b) A minor who is missing and about whom there is reason to 32212
believe the minor could be the victim of a violation of section 32213
2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.03, or 2919.23 of the Revised Code or of a 32214
violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it existed 32215
prior to July 1, 1996.32216

       (B) When a law enforcement agency in this state that has 32217
jurisdiction in the matter is informed that a minor is or may be a 32218
missing child and that the person providing the information wishes 32219
to file a missing child report, the law enforcement agency shall 32220
take that report. Upon taking the report, the law enforcement 32221
agency shall take prompt action upon it, including, but not 32222
limited to, concerted efforts to locate the missing child. No law 32223
enforcement agency in this state shall have a rule or policy that 32224
prohibits or discourages the filing of or the taking of action 32225
upon a missing child report, within a specified period following 32226
the discovery or formulation of a belief that a minor is or could 32227
be a missing child.32228

       (C) If a missing child report is made to a law enforcement 32229
agency in this state that has jurisdiction in the matter, the law 32230
enforcement agency shall gather readily available information 32231
about the missing child and integrate it into the national crime 32232
information center computer immediately following the making of 32233
the report. The law enforcement agency shall make reasonable 32234
efforts to acquire additional information about the missing child 32235
following the transmittal of the initially available information, 32236
and promptly integrate any additional information acquired into 32237
such computer systems.32238

       Whenever a law enforcement agency integrates information 32239
about a missing child into the national crime information center 32240
computer, the law enforcement agency promptly shall notify the 32241
missing child's parents, parent who is the residential parent and 32242
legal custodian, guardian, or legal custodian, or any other person 32243
responsible for the care of the missing child, that it has so 32244
integrated the information.32245

       The parents, parent who is the residential parent and legal 32246
custodian, guardian, legal custodian, or other person responsible 32247
for the care of the missing child shall provide available 32248
information upon request, and may provide information voluntarily, 32249
to the law enforcement agency during the information gathering 32250
process. The law enforcement agency also may obtain available 32251
information about the missing child from other persons, subject to 32252
constitutional and statutory limitations.32253

       (D) Upon the filing of a missing child report, the law 32254
enforcement agency involved may notify the public or nonpublic 32255
school in which the missing child is or was most recently 32256
enrolled, as ascertained by the agency, that the child is the 32257
subject of a missing child report and that the child's school 32258
records are to be marked in accordance with section 3313.672 of 32259
the Revised Code.32260

        (E) Upon the filing of a missing child report, the law 32261
enforcement agency involved promptly shall make a reasonable 32262
attempt to notify other law enforcement agencies within its county 32263
and, if the agency has jurisdiction in a municipal corporation or 32264
township that borders another county, to notify the law 32265
enforcement agency for the municipal corporation or township in 32266
the other county with which it shares the border, that it has 32267
taken a missing child report and may be requesting assistance or 32268
cooperation in the case, and provide relevant information to the 32269
other law enforcement agencies. The agency may notify additional 32270
law enforcement agencies, or appropriate public children services 32271
agencies, about the case, request their assistance or cooperation 32272
in the case, and provide them with relevant information.32273

       Upon request from a law enforcement agency, a public children 32274
services agency shall grant the law enforcement agency access to 32275
all information concerning a missing child that the agency 32276
possesses that may be relevant to the law enforcement agency in 32277
investigating a missing child report concerning that child. The 32278
information obtained by the law enforcement agency shall be used 32279
only to further the investigation to locate the missing child.32280

       (F) Upon request, law enforcement agencies in this state 32281
shall provide assistance to, and cooperate with, other law 32282
enforcement agencies in their investigation of missing child 32283
cases. The assistance and cooperation under this paragraph shall 32284
be pursuant to any terms agreed upon by the law enforcement 32285
agencies, which may include the provision of law enforcement 32286
services or the use of law enforcement equipment or the 32287
interchange of services and equipment among the cooperating law 32288
enforcement agencies. Chapter 2744. of the Revised Code, insofar 32289
as it applies to the operation of law enforcement agencies, shall 32290
apply to the cooperating political subdivisions and to the law 32291
enforcement agency employees when they are rendering services 32292
pursuant to this paragraph outside the territory of the political 32293
subdivision by which they are employed. Law enforcement agency 32294
employees rendering services outside the territory of the 32295
political subdivision in which they are employed, pursuant to this 32296
paragraph, shall be entitled to participate in any indemnity fund 32297
established by their employer to the same extent as if they were 32298
rendering service within the territory of their employing 32299
political subdivision. Those law enforcement agency employees also 32300
shall be entitled to all the rights and benefits of Chapter 4123. 32301
of the Revised Code to the same extent as if rendering services 32302
within the territory of their employing political subdivision.32303

       The information in any missing child report made to a law 32304
enforcement agency shall be made available, upon request, to law 32305
enforcement personnel of this state, other states, and the federal 32306
government when the law enforcement personnel indicate that the 32307
request is to aid in identifying or locating a missing child or 32308
the possible identification of a deceased minor who, upon 32309
discovery, cannot be identified.32310

       (G) When a missing child has not been located within thirty 32311
days after the date on which the missing child report pertaining 32312
to the child was filed with a law enforcement agency, that law 32313
enforcement agency shall request the missing child's parents, 32314
parent who is the residential parent and legal custodian, 32315
guardian, or legal custodian, or any other person responsible for 32316
the care of the missing child, to provide written consent for the 32317
law enforcement agency to contact the missing child's dentist and 32318
request the missing child's dental records. Upon receipt of such 32319
written consent, the dentist shall release a copy of the missing 32320
child's dental records to the law enforcement agency and shall 32321
provide and encode the records in such form as requested by the 32322
law enforcement agency. The law enforcement agency then shall 32323
integrate information in the records into the national crime 32324
information center computer in order to compare the records to 32325
those of unidentified deceased persons. This division does not 32326
prevent a law enforcement agency from seeking consent to obtain 32327
copies of a missing child's dental records, or prevent a missing 32328
child's parents, parent who is the residential parent and legal 32329
custodian, guardian, or legal custodian, or any other person 32330
responsible for the care of the missing child, from granting 32331
consent for the release of copies of the missing child's dental 32332
records to a law enforcement agency, at any time.32333

       (H) A missing child's parents, parent who is the residential 32334
parent and legal custodian, guardian, or legal custodian, or any 32335
other persons responsible for the care of a missing child, 32336
immediately shall notify the law enforcement agency with which 32337
they filed the missing child report whenever the child has 32338
returned to their home or to their care, custody, and control, has 32339
been released if the missing child was the victim of an offense 32340
listed in division (A)(3)(b) of this section, or otherwise has 32341
been located. Upon such notification or upon otherwise learning 32342
that a missing child has returned to the home of, or to the care, 32343
custody, and control of the missing child's parents, parent who is 32344
the residential parent and legal custodian, guardian, legal 32345
custodian, or other person responsible for the missing child's 32346
care, has been released if the missing child was the victim of an 32347
offense listed in division (A)(3)(b) of this section, or otherwise 32348
has been located, the law enforcement agency involved promptly 32349
shall integrate the fact that the minor no longer is a missing 32350
child into the national crime information center computer and 32351
shall inform any school that was notified under division (D) of 32352
this section that the minor is no longer a missing child.32353

       (I) Nothing contained in this section shall be construed to 32354
impair the confidentiality of services provided to runaway minors 32355
by shelters for runaway minors pursuant to sections 5119.64 to 32356
5119.68 of the Revised Code.32357

       Sec. 2903.13.  (A) No person shall knowingly cause or attempt 32358
to cause physical harm to another or to another's unborn.32359

       (B) No person shall recklessly cause serious physical harm to 32360
another or to another's unborn.32361

       (C)(1) Whoever violates this section is guilty of assault, 32362
and the court shall sentence the offender as provided in this 32363
division and divisions (C)(1), (2), (3), (4), (5), (6), (7), (8), 32364
and (9), and (10) of this section. Except as otherwise provided in 32365
division (C)(2), (3), (4), (5), (6), (7), or (8), or (9) of this 32366
section, assault is a misdemeanor of the first degree.32367

       (2) Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the 32368
offense is committed by a caretaker against a functionally 32369
impaired person under the caretaker's care, assault is a felony of 32370
the fourth degree. If the offense is committed by a caretaker 32371
against a functionally impaired person under the caretaker's care, 32372
if the offender previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty 32373
to a violation of this section or section 2903.11 or 2903.16 of 32374
the Revised Code, and if in relation to the previous conviction 32375
the offender was a caretaker and the victim was a functionally 32376
impaired person under the offender's care, assault is a felony of 32377
the third degree.32378

       (3) If the offense occurs in or on the grounds of a state 32379
correctional institution or an institution of the department of 32380
youth services, the victim of the offense is an employee of the 32381
department of rehabilitation and correction or the department of 32382
youth services, and the offense is committed by a person 32383
incarcerated in the state correctional institution or by a person 32384
institutionalized in the department of youth services institution 32385
pursuant to a commitment to the department of youth services, 32386
assault is a felony of the third degree.32387

       (4) If the offense is committed in any of the following 32388
circumstances, assault is a felony of the fifth degree:32389

       (a) The offense occurs in or on the grounds of a state 32390
correctional institution or an institution of the department of 32391
youth services, the victim of the offense is an employee of the 32392
department of rehabilitation and correction, the department of 32393
youth services, or a probation department or is on the premises of 32394
the particular institution for business purposes or as a visitor, 32395
and the offense is committed by a person incarcerated in the state 32396
correctional institution, by a person institutionalized in the 32397
department of youth services institution pursuant to a commitment 32398
to the department of youth services, by a parolee, by an offender 32399
under transitional control, under a community control sanction, or 32400
on an escorted visit, by a person under post-release control, or 32401
by an offender under any other type of supervision by a government 32402
agency.32403

       (b) The offense occurs in or on the grounds of a local 32404
correctional facility, the victim of the offense is an employee of 32405
the local correctional facility or a probation department or is on 32406
the premises of the facility for business purposes or as a 32407
visitor, and the offense is committed by a person who is under 32408
custody in the facility subsequent to the person's arrest for any 32409
crime or delinquent act, subsequent to the person's being charged 32410
with or convicted of any crime, or subsequent to the person's 32411
being alleged to be or adjudicated a delinquent child.32412

       (c)(b) The offense occurs off the grounds of a state 32413
correctional institution and off the grounds of an institution of 32414
the department of youth services, the victim of the offense is an 32415
employee of the department of rehabilitation and correction, the 32416
department of youth services, or a probation department, the 32417
offense occurs during the employee's official work hours and while 32418
the employee is engaged in official work responsibilities, and the 32419
offense is committed by a person incarcerated in a state 32420
correctional institution or institutionalized in the department of 32421
youth services who temporarily is outside of the institution for 32422
any purpose, by a parolee, by an offender under transitional 32423
control, under a community control sanction, or on an escorted 32424
visit, by a person under post-release control, or by an offender 32425
under any other type of supervision by a government agency.32426

       (d)(c) The offense occurs off the grounds of a local 32427
correctional facility, the victim of the offense is an employee of 32428
the local correctional facility or a probation department, the 32429
offense occurs during the employee's official work hours and while 32430
the employee is engaged in official work responsibilities, and the 32431
offense is committed by a person who is under custody in the 32432
facility subsequent to the person's arrest for any crime or 32433
delinquent act, subsequent to the person being charged with or 32434
convicted of any crime, or subsequent to the person being alleged 32435
to be or adjudicated a delinquent child and who temporarily is 32436
outside of the facility for any purpose or by a parolee, by an 32437
offender under transitional control, under a community control 32438
sanction, or on an escorted visit, by a person under post-release 32439
control, or by an offender under any other type of supervision by 32440
a government agency.32441

       (e)(d) The victim of the offense is a school teacher or 32442
administrator or a school bus operator, and the offense occurs in 32443
a school, on school premises, in a school building, on a school 32444
bus, or while the victim is outside of school premises or a school 32445
bus and is engaged in duties or official responsibilities 32446
associated with the victim's employment or position as a school 32447
teacher or administrator or a school bus operator, including, but 32448
not limited to, driving, accompanying, or chaperoning students at 32449
or on class or field trips, athletic events, or other school 32450
extracurricular activities or functions outside of school 32451
premises.32452

       (4)(5) If the victim of the offense is a peace officer or an 32453
investigator of the bureau of criminal identification and 32454
investigation, a firefighter, or a person performing emergency 32455
medical service, while in the performance of their official 32456
duties, assault is a felony of the fourth degree.32457

       (5)(6) If the victim of the offense is a peace officer or an 32458
investigator of the bureau of criminal identification and 32459
investigation and if the victim suffered serious physical harm as 32460
a result of the commission of the offense, assault is a felony of 32461
the fourth degree, and the court, pursuant to division (F) of 32462
section 2929.13 of the Revised Code, shall impose as a mandatory 32463
prison term one of the prison terms prescribed for a felony of the 32464
fourth degree that is at least twelve months in duration.32465

       (6)(7) If the victim of the offense is an officer or employee 32466
of a public children services agency or a private child placing 32467
agency and the offense relates to the officer's or employee's 32468
performance or anticipated performance of official 32469
responsibilities or duties, assault is either a felony of the 32470
fifth degree or, if the offender previously has been convicted of 32471
or pleaded guilty to an offense of violence, the victim of that 32472
prior offense was an officer or employee of a public children 32473
services agency or private child placing agency, and that prior 32474
offense related to the officer's or employee's performance or 32475
anticipated performance of official responsibilities or duties, a 32476
felony of the fourth degree. 32477

       (7)(8) If the victim of the offense is a health care 32478
professional of a hospital, a health care worker of a hospital, or 32479
a security officer of a hospital whom the offender knows or has 32480
reasonable cause to know is a health care professional of a 32481
hospital, a health care worker of a hospital, or a security 32482
officer of a hospital, if the victim is engaged in the performance 32483
of the victim's duties, and if the hospital offers de-escalation 32484
or crisis intervention training for such professionals, workers, 32485
or officers, assault is one of the following:32486

        (a) Except as otherwise provided in division (C)(7)(8)(b) of 32487
this section, assault committed in the specified circumstances is 32488
a misdemeanor of the first degree. Notwithstanding the fine 32489
specified in division (A)(2)(b) of section 2929.28 of the Revised 32490
Code for a misdemeanor of the first degree, in sentencing the 32491
offender under this division and if the court decides to impose a 32492
fine, the court may impose upon the offender a fine of not more 32493
than five thousand dollars.32494

        (b) If the offender previously has been convicted of or 32495
pleaded guilty to one or more assault or homicide offenses 32496
committed against hospital personnel, assault committed in the 32497
specified circumstances is a felony of the fifth degree.32498

        (8)(9) If the victim of the offense is a judge, magistrate, 32499
prosecutor, or court official or employee whom the offender knows 32500
or has reasonable cause to know is a judge, magistrate, 32501
prosecutor, or court official or employee, and if the victim is 32502
engaged in the performance of the victim's duties, assault is one 32503
of the following:32504

        (a) Except as otherwise provided in division (C)(7)(8)(b) of 32505
this section, assault committed in the specified circumstances is 32506
a misdemeanor of the first degree. In sentencing the offender 32507
under this division, if the court decides to impose a fine, 32508
notwithstanding the fine specified in division (A)(2)(b) of 32509
section 2929.28 of the Revised Code for a misdemeanor of the first 32510
degree, the court may impose upon the offender a fine of not more 32511
than five thousand dollars.32512

        (b) If the offender previously has been convicted of or 32513
pleaded guilty to one or more assault or homicide offenses 32514
committed against justice system personnel, assault committed in 32515
the specified circumstances is a felony of the fifth degree.32516

       (9)(10) If an offender who is convicted of or pleads guilty 32517
to assault when it is a misdemeanor also is convicted of or pleads 32518
guilty to a specification as described in section 2941.1423 of the 32519
Revised Code that was included in the indictment, count in the 32520
indictment, or information charging the offense, the court shall 32521
sentence the offender to a mandatory jail term as provided in 32522
division (G) of section 2929.24 of the Revised Code.32523

       If an offender who is convicted of or pleads guilty to 32524
assault when it is a felony also is convicted of or pleads guilty 32525
to a specification as described in section 2941.1423 of the 32526
Revised Code that was included in the indictment, count in the 32527
indictment, or information charging the offense, except as 32528
otherwise provided in division (C)(5)(6) of this section, the 32529
court shall sentence the offender to a mandatory prison term as 32530
provided in division (B)(8) of section 2929.14 of the Revised 32531
Code.32532

       (D) As used in this section:32533

       (1) "Peace officer" has the same meaning as in section 32534
2935.01 of the Revised Code.32535

       (2) "Firefighter" has the same meaning as in section 3937.41 32536
of the Revised Code.32537

       (3) "Emergency medical service" has the same meaning as in 32538
section 4765.01 of the Revised Code.32539

       (4) "Local correctional facility" means a county, 32540
multicounty, municipal, municipal-county, or multicounty-municipal 32541
jail or workhouse, a minimum security jail established under 32542
section 341.23 or 753.21 of the Revised Code, or another county, 32543
multicounty, municipal, municipal-county, or multicounty-municipal 32544
facility used for the custody of persons arrested for any crime or 32545
delinquent act, persons charged with or convicted of any crime, or 32546
persons alleged to be or adjudicated a delinquent child.32547

       (5) "Employee of a local correctional facility" means a 32548
person who is an employee of the political subdivision or of one 32549
or more of the affiliated political subdivisions that operates the 32550
local correctional facility and who operates or assists in the 32551
operation of the facility.32552

       (6) "School teacher or administrator" means either of the 32553
following:32554

       (a) A person who is employed in the public schools of the 32555
state under a contract described in section 3311.77 or 3319.08 of 32556
the Revised Code in a position in which the person is required to 32557
have a certificate issued pursuant to sections 3319.22 to 3319.311 32558
of the Revised Code.32559

       (b) A person who is employed by a nonpublic school for which 32560
the state board of education prescribes minimum standards under 32561
section 3301.07 of the Revised Code and who is certificated in 32562
accordance with section 3301.071 of the Revised Code.32563

       (7) "Community control sanction" has the same meaning as in 32564
section 2929.01 of the Revised Code.32565

       (8) "Escorted visit" means an escorted visit granted under 32566
section 2967.27 of the Revised Code.32567

       (9) "Post-release control" and "transitional control" have 32568
the same meanings as in section 2967.01 of the Revised Code.32569

       (10) "Investigator of the bureau of criminal identification 32570
and investigation" has the same meaning as in section 2903.11 of 32571
the Revised Code.32572

       (11) "Health care professional" and "health care worker" have 32573
the same meanings as in section 2305.234 of the Revised Code.32574

       (12) "Assault or homicide offense committed against hospital 32575
personnel" means a violation of this section or of section 32576
2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 2903.04, 2903.041, 2903.11, 2903.12, or 32577
2903.14 of the Revised Code committed in circumstances in which 32578
all of the following apply:32579

        (a) The victim of the offense was a health care professional 32580
of a hospital, a health care worker of a hospital, or a security 32581
officer of a hospital.32582

        (b) The offender knew or had reasonable cause to know that 32583
the victim was a health care professional of a hospital, a health 32584
care worker of a hospital, or a security officer of a hospital.32585

        (c) The victim was engaged in the performance of the victim's 32586
duties.32587

        (d) The hospital offered de-escalation or crisis intervention 32588
training for such professionals, workers, or officers.32589

        (13) "De-escalation or crisis intervention training" means 32590
de-escalation or crisis intervention training for health care 32591
professionals of a hospital, health care workers of a hospital, 32592
and security officers of a hospital to facilitate interaction with 32593
patients, members of a patient's family, and visitors, including 32594
those with mental impairments. 32595

       (14) "Assault or homicide offense committed against justice 32596
system personnel" means a violation of this section or of section 32597
2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 2903.04, 2903.041, 2903.11, 2903.12, or 32598
2903.14 of the Revised Code committed in circumstances in which 32599
the victim of the offense was a judge, magistrate, prosecutor, or 32600
court official or employee whom the offender knew or had 32601
reasonable cause to know was a judge, magistrate, prosecutor, or 32602
court official or employee, and the victim was engaged in the 32603
performance of the victim's duties.32604

        (15) "Court official or employee" means any official or 32605
employee of a court created under the constitution or statutes of 32606
this state or of a United States court located in this state.32607

        (16) "Judge" means a judge of a court created under the 32608
constitution or statutes of this state or of a United States court 32609
located in this state.32610

        (17) "Magistrate" means an individual who is appointed by a 32611
court of record of this state and who has the powers and may 32612
perform the functions specified in Civil Rule 53, Criminal Rule 32613
19, or Juvenile Rule 40, or an individual who is appointed by a 32614
United States court located in this state who has similar powers 32615
and functions.32616

        (18) "Prosecutor" has the same meaning as in section 2935.01 32617
of the Revised Code. 32618

       (19)(a) "Hospital" means, subject to division (D)(19)(b) of 32619
this section, an institution classified as a hospital under 32620
section 3701.01 of the Revised Code in which are provided to 32621
patients diagnostic, medical, surgical, obstetrical, psychiatric, 32622
or rehabilitation care or a hospital operated by a health 32623
maintenance organization.32624

        (b) "Hospital" does not include any of the following:32625

        (i) A facility licensed under Chapter 3721. of the Revised 32626
Code, a health care facility operated by the department of mental 32627
health or the department of developmental disabilities, a health 32628
maintenance organization that does not operate a hospital, or the 32629
office of any private, licensed health care professional, whether 32630
organized for individual or group practice;32631

        (ii) An institution for the sick that is operated exclusively 32632
for patients who use spiritual means for healing and for whom the 32633
acceptance of medical care is inconsistent with their religious 32634
beliefs, accredited by a national accrediting organization, exempt 32635
from federal income taxation under section 501 of the "Internal 32636
Revenue Code of 1986," 100 Stat. 2085, 26 U.S.C. 1, as amended, 32637
and providing twenty-four-hour nursing care pursuant to the 32638
exemption in division (E) of section 4723.32 of the Revised Code 32639
from the licensing requirements of Chapter 4723. of the Revised 32640
Code.32641

        (20) "Health maintenance organization" has the same meaning 32642
as in section 3727.01 of the Revised Code. 32643

       Sec. 2903.33.  As used in sections 2903.33 to 2903.36 of the 32644
Revised Code:32645

       (A) "Care facility" means any of the following:32646

       (1) Any "home" as defined in section 3721.10 or 5111.20 of 32647
the Revised Code;32648

       (2) Any "residential facility" as defined in section 5123.19 32649
of the Revised Code;32650

       (3) Any institution or facility operated or provided by the 32651
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services32652
or by the department of developmental disabilities pursuant to 32653
sections 5119.025119.14 and 5123.03 of the Revised Code;32654

       (4) Any "residential facility" as defined in section 5119.2232655
5119.34 of the Revised Code;32656

       (5) Any unit of any hospital, as defined in section 3701.01 32657
of the Revised Code, that provides the same services as a nursing 32658
home, as defined in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code;32659

       (6) Any institution, residence, or facility that provides, 32660
for a period of more than twenty-four hours, whether for a 32661
consideration or not, accommodations to one individual or two 32662
unrelated individuals who are dependent upon the services of 32663
others.32664

       (B) "Abuse" means knowingly causing physical harm or 32665
recklessly causing serious physical harm to a person by physical 32666
contact with the person or by the inappropriate use of a physical 32667
or chemical restraint, medication, or isolation on the person.32668

       (C)(1) "Gross neglect" means knowingly failing to provide a 32669
person with any treatment, care, goods, or service that is 32670
necessary to maintain the health or safety of the person when the 32671
failure results in physical harm or serious physical harm to the 32672
person.32673

       (2) "Neglect" means recklessly failing to provide a person 32674
with any treatment, care, goods, or service that is necessary to 32675
maintain the health or safety of the person when the failure 32676
results in serious physical harm to the person.32677

       (D) "Inappropriate use of a physical or chemical restraint, 32678
medication, or isolation" means the use of physical or chemical 32679
restraint, medication, or isolation as punishment, for staff 32680
convenience, excessively, as a substitute for treatment, or in 32681
quantities that preclude habilitation and treatment.32682

       Sec. 2907.22.  (A) No person shall knowingly:32683

       (1) Establish, maintain, operate, manage, supervise, control, 32684
or have an interest in a brothel or any other enterprise a purpose 32685
of which is to facilitate engagement in sexual activity for hire;32686

       (2) Supervise, manage, or control the activities of a 32687
prostitute in engaging in sexual activity for hire;32688

       (3) Transport another, or cause another to be transported 32689
across the boundary of this state or of any county in this state, 32690
in order to facilitate the other person's engaging in sexual 32691
activity for hire;32692

       (4) For the purpose of violating or facilitating a violation 32693
of this section, induce or procure another to engage in sexual 32694
activity for hire.32695

       (B) Whoever violates this section is guilty of promoting 32696
prostitution. Except as otherwise provided in this division, 32697
promoting prostitution is a felony of the fourth degree. If any 32698
prostitute in the brothel involved in the offense, or the 32699
prostitute whose activities are supervised, managed, or controlled 32700
by the offender, or the person transported, induced, or procured 32701
by the offender to engage in sexual activity for hire, is a minor, 32702
whether or not the offender knows the age of the minor, then 32703
promoting prostitution is a felony of the third degree. If the 32704
offender in any case also is convicted of or pleads guilty to a 32705
specification as described in section 2941.1422 of the Revised 32706
Code that was included in the indictment, count in the indictment, 32707
or information charging the offense, the court shall sentence the 32708
offender to a mandatory prison term as provided in division (B)(7) 32709
of section 2929.14 of the Revised Code and shall order the 32710
offender to make restitution as provided in division (B)(8) of 32711
section 2929.18 of the Revised Code.32712

       Sec. 2913.40.  (A) As used in this section: 32713

       (1) "Statement or representation" means any oral, written, 32714
electronic, electronic impulse, or magnetic communication that is 32715
used to identify an item of goods or a service for which 32716
reimbursement may be made under the medical assistancemedicaid32717
program or that states income and expense and is or may be used to 32718
determine a rate of reimbursement under the medical assistance32719
medicaid program. 32720

       (2) "Medical assistance program" means the program 32721
established by the department of job and family services to 32722
provide medical assistance under section 5111.01 of the Revised 32723
Code and the medicaid program of Title XIX of the "Social Security 32724
Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C. 301, as amended.32725

       (3) "Provider" means any person who has signed a provider 32726
agreement with the department of job and family servicesmedicaid32727
to provide goods or services pursuant to the medical assistance32728
medicaid program or any person who has signed an agreement with a 32729
party to such a provider agreement under which the person agrees 32730
to provide goods or services that are reimbursable under the 32731
medical assistancemedicaid program. 32732

       (4)(3) "Provider agreement" means an oral or written 32733
agreement between the department of job and family services and a 32734
person in which the person agrees to provide goods or services 32735
under the medical assistance programhas the same meaning as in 32736
section 5164.01 of the Revised Code. 32737

       (5)(4) "Recipient" means any individual who receives goods or 32738
services from a provider under the medical assistancemedicaid32739
program. 32740

       (6)(5) "Records" means any medical, professional, financial, 32741
or business records relating to the treatment or care of any 32742
recipient, to goods or services provided to any recipient, or to 32743
rates paid for goods or services provided to any recipient and any 32744
records that are required by the rules of the medicaid director of 32745
job and family services to be kept for the medical assistance32746
medicaid program. 32747

       (B) No person shall knowingly make or cause to be made a 32748
false or misleading statement or representation for use in 32749
obtaining reimbursement from the medical assistancemedicaid32750
program. 32751

       (C) No person, with purpose to commit fraud or knowing that 32752
the person is facilitating a fraud, shall do either of the 32753
following: 32754

       (1) Contrary to the terms of the person's provider agreement, 32755
charge, solicit, accept, or receive for goods or services that the 32756
person provides under the medical assistancemedicaid program any 32757
property, money, or other consideration in addition to the amount 32758
of reimbursement under the medical assistancemedicaid program and 32759
the person's provider agreement for the goods or services and any 32760
cost-sharing expenses authorized by section 5111.01125162.20 of 32761
the Revised Code or rules adopted pursuant to section 5111.01, 32762
5111.011, or 5111.02 of the Revised Codeby the medicaid director 32763
regarding the medicaid program. 32764

       (2) Solicit, offer, or receive any remuneration, other than 32765
any cost-sharing expenses authorized by section 5111.01125162.2032766
of the Revised Code or rules adopted under section 5111.01, 32767
5111.011, or 5111.02 of the Revised Codeby the medicaid director 32768
regarding the medicaid program, in cash or in kind, including, but 32769
not limited to, a kickback or rebate, in connection with the 32770
furnishing of goods or services for which whole or partial 32771
reimbursement is or may be made under the medical assistance32772
medicaid program. 32773

       (D) No person, having submitted a claim for or provided goods 32774
or services under the medical assistancemedicaid program, shall 32775
do either of the following for a period of at least six years 32776
after a reimbursement pursuant to that claim, or a reimbursement 32777
for those goods or services, is received under the medical 32778
assistancemedicaid program: 32779

       (1) Knowingly alter, falsify, destroy, conceal, or remove any 32780
records that are necessary to fully disclose the nature of all 32781
goods or services for which the claim was submitted, or for which 32782
reimbursement was received, by the person; 32783

       (2) Knowingly alter, falsify, destroy, conceal, or remove any 32784
records that are necessary to disclose fully all income and 32785
expenditures upon which rates of reimbursements were based for the 32786
person. 32787

       (E) Whoever violates this section is guilty of medicaid 32788
fraud. Except as otherwise provided in this division, medicaid 32789
fraud is a misdemeanor of the first degree. If the value of 32790
property, services, or funds obtained in violation of this section 32791
is one thousand dollars or more and is less than seven thousand 32792
five hundred dollars, medicaid fraud is a felony of the fifth 32793
degree. If the value of property, services, or funds obtained in 32794
violation of this section is seven thousand five hundred dollars 32795
or more and is less than one hundred fifty thousand dollars, 32796
medicaid fraud is a felony of the fourth degree. If the value of 32797
the property, services, or funds obtained in violation of this 32798
section is one hundred fifty thousand dollars or more, medicaid 32799
fraud is a felony of the third degree. 32800

       (F) Upon application of the governmental agency, office, or 32801
other entity that conducted the investigation and prosecution in a 32802
case under this section, the court shall order any person who is 32803
convicted of a violation of this section for receiving any 32804
reimbursement for furnishing goods or services under the medical 32805
assistancemedicaid program to which the person is not entitled to 32806
pay to the applicant its cost of investigating and prosecuting the 32807
case. The costs of investigation and prosecution that a defendant 32808
is ordered to pay pursuant to this division shall be in addition 32809
to any other penalties for the receipt of that reimbursement that 32810
are provided in this section, section 5111.035164.35 of the 32811
Revised Code, or any other provision of law. 32812

       (G) The provisions of this section are not intended to be 32813
exclusive remedies and do not preclude the use of any other 32814
criminal or civil remedy for any act that is in violation of this 32815
section. 32816

       Sec. 2913.401.  (A) As used in this section: 32817

       (1) "Medicaid benefitsservices" means benefits under the 32818
medical assistance program established under Chapter 5111.has the 32819
same meaning as in section 5164.01 of the Revised Code. 32820

       (2) "Property" means any real or personal property or other 32821
asset in which a person has any legal title or interest. 32822

       (B) No person shall knowingly do any of the following in an 32823
application for enrollment in the medicaid benefitsprogram or in 32824
a document that requires a disclosure of assets for the purpose of 32825
determining eligibility to receivefor the medicaid benefits32826
program: 32827

       (1) Make or cause to be made a false or misleading statement; 32828

       (2) Conceal an interest in property; 32829

       (3)(a) Except as provided in division (B)(3)(b) of this 32830
section, fail to disclose a transfer of property that occurred 32831
during the period beginning thirty-six months before submission of 32832
the application or document and ending on the date the application 32833
or document was submitted; 32834

       (b) Fail to disclose a transfer of property that occurred 32835
during the period beginning sixty months before submission of the 32836
application or document and ending on the date the application or 32837
document was submitted and that was made to an irrevocable trust a 32838
portion of which is not distributable to the applicant for 32839
medicaid benefits or the recipient of medicaid benefits or to a 32840
revocable trust. 32841

       (C)(1) Whoever violates this section is guilty of medicaid 32842
eligibility fraud. Except as otherwise provided in this division, 32843
a violation of this section is a misdemeanor of the first degree. 32844
If the value of the medicaid benefitsservices paid as a result of 32845
the violation is one thousand dollars or more and is less than 32846
seven thousand five hundred dollars, a violation of this section 32847
is a felony of the fifth degree. If the value of the medicaid 32848
benefitsservices paid as a result of the violation is seven 32849
thousand five hundred dollars or more and is less than one hundred 32850
fifty thousand dollars, a violation of this section is a felony of 32851
the fourth degree. If the value of the medicaid benefitsservices32852
paid as a result of the violation is one hundred fifty thousand 32853
dollars or more, a violation of this section is a felony of the 32854
third degree. 32855

       (2) In addition to imposing a sentence under division (C)(1) 32856
of this section, the court shall order that a person who is guilty 32857
of medicaid eligibility fraud make restitution in the full amount 32858
of any medicaid benefitsservices paid on behalf of an applicant 32859
for or recipient of medicaid benefits for which the applicant or 32860
recipient was not eligible, plus interest at the rate applicable 32861
to judgments on unreimbursed amounts from the date on which the 32862
benefitsmedicaid services were paid to the date on which 32863
restitution is made. 32864

       (3) The remedies and penalties provided in this section are 32865
not exclusive and do not preclude the use of any other criminal or 32866
civil remedy for any act that is in violation of this section. 32867

       (D) This section does not apply to a person who fully 32868
disclosed in an application for medicaid benefits or in a document 32869
that requires a disclosure of assets for the purpose of 32870
determining eligibility to receivefor medicaid benefits all of 32871
the interests in property of the applicant for or recipient of 32872
medicaid benefits, all transfers of property by the applicant for 32873
or recipient of medicaid benefits, and the circumstances of all 32874
those transfers. 32875

       (E) Any amounts of medicaid benefitsservices recovered as 32876
restitution under this section and any interest on those amounts 32877
shall be credited to the general revenue fund, and any applicable 32878
federal share shall be returned to the appropriate agency or 32879
department of the United States. 32880

       Sec. 2919.271.  (A)(1)(a) If a defendant is charged with a 32881
violation of section 2919.27 of the Revised Code or of a municipal 32882
ordinance that is substantially similar to that section, the court 32883
may order an evaluation of the mental condition of the defendant 32884
if the court determines that either of the following criteria 32885
apply:32886

       (i) If the alleged violation is a violation of a protection 32887
order issued or consent agreement approved pursuant to section 32888
2919.26 or 3113.31 of the Revised Code, that the violation 32889
allegedly involves conduct by the defendant that caused physical 32890
harm to the person or property of a family or household member 32891
covered by the order or agreement, or conduct by the defendant 32892
that caused a family or household member to believe that the 32893
defendant would cause physical harm to that member or that 32894
member's property.32895

       (ii) If the alleged violation is a violation of a protection 32896
order issued pursuant to section 2903.213 or 2903.214 of the 32897
Revised Code or a protection order issued by a court of another 32898
state, that the violation allegedly involves conduct by the 32899
defendant that caused physical harm to the person or property of 32900
the person covered by the order, or conduct by the defendant that 32901
caused the person covered by the order to believe that the 32902
defendant would cause physical harm to that person or that 32903
person's property.32904

       (b) If a defendant is charged with a violation of section 32905
2903.211 of the Revised Code or of a municipal ordinance that is 32906
substantially similar to that section, the court may order an 32907
evaluation of the mental condition of the defendant.32908

       (2) An evaluation ordered under division (A)(1) of this 32909
section shall be completed no later than thirty days from the date 32910
the order is entered pursuant to that division. In that order, the 32911
court shall do either of the following:32912

       (a) Order that the evaluation of the mental condition of the 32913
defendant be preceded by an examination conducted either by a 32914
forensic center that is designated by the department of mental 32915
healthmental health and addiction services to conduct 32916
examinations and make evaluations of defendants charged with 32917
violations of section 2903.211 or 2919.27 of the Revised Code or 32918
of substantially similar municipal ordinances in the area in which 32919
the court is located, or by any other program or facility that is 32920
designated by the department of mental healthmental health and 32921
addiction services or the department of developmental disabilities 32922
to conduct examinations and make evaluations of defendants charged 32923
with violations of section 2903.211 or 2919.27 of the Revised Code 32924
or of substantially similar municipal ordinances, and that is 32925
operated by either department or is certified by either department 32926
as being in compliance with the standards established under 32927
division (H)(B)(7) of section 5119.015119.10 of the Revised Code 32928
or division (C) of section 5123.04 of the Revised Code.32929

       (b) Designate a center, program, or facility other than one 32930
designated by the department of mental healthmental health and 32931
addiction services or the department of developmental 32932
disabilities, as described in division (A)(2)(a) of this section, 32933
to conduct the evaluation and preceding examination of the mental 32934
condition of the defendant.32935

       Whether the court acts pursuant to division (A)(2)(a) or (b) 32936
of this section, the court may designate examiners other than the 32937
personnel of the center, program, facility, or department involved 32938
to make the evaluation and preceding examination of the mental 32939
condition of the defendant.32940

       (B) If the court considers that additional evaluations of the 32941
mental condition of a defendant are necessary following the 32942
evaluation authorized by division (A) of this section, the court 32943
may order up to two additional similar evaluations. These 32944
evaluations shall be completed no later than thirty days from the 32945
date the applicable court order is entered. If more than one 32946
evaluation of the mental condition of the defendant is ordered 32947
under this division, the prosecutor and the defendant may 32948
recommend to the court an examiner whom each prefers to perform 32949
one of the evaluations and preceding examinations.32950

       (C)(1) The court may order a defendant who has been released 32951
on bail to submit to an examination under division (A) or (B) of 32952
this section. The examination shall be conducted either at the 32953
detention facility in which the defendant would have been confined 32954
if the defendant had not been released on bail, or, if so 32955
specified by the center, program, facility, or examiners involved, 32956
at the premises of the center, program, or facility. Additionally, 32957
the examination shall be conducted at the times established by the 32958
examiners involved. If such a defendant refuses to submit to an 32959
examination or a complete examination as required by the court or 32960
the center, program, facility, or examiners involved, the court 32961
may amend the conditions of the bail of the defendant and order 32962
the sheriff to take the defendant into custody and deliver the 32963
defendant to the detention facility in which the defendant would 32964
have been confined if the defendant had not been released on bail, 32965
or, if so specified by the center, program, facility, or examiners 32966
involved, to the premises of the center, program, or facility, for 32967
purposes of the examination.32968

       (2) A defendant who has not been released on bail shall be 32969
examined at the detention facility in which the defendant is 32970
confined or, if so specified by the center, program, facility, or 32971
examiners involved, at the premises of the center, program, or 32972
facility.32973

       (D) The examiner of the mental condition of a defendant under 32974
division (A) or (B) of this section shall file a written report 32975
with the court within thirty days after the entry of an order for 32976
the evaluation of the mental condition of the defendant. The 32977
report shall contain the findings of the examiner; the facts in 32978
reasonable detail on which the findings are based; the opinion of 32979
the examiner as to the mental condition of the defendant; the 32980
opinion of the examiner as to whether the defendant represents a 32981
substantial risk of physical harm to other persons as manifested 32982
by evidence of recent homicidal or other violent behavior, 32983
evidence of recent threats that placed other persons in reasonable 32984
fear of violent behavior and serious physical harm, or evidence of 32985
present dangerousness; and the opinion of the examiner as to the 32986
types of treatment or counseling that the defendant needs. The 32987
court shall provide copies of the report to the prosecutor and 32988
defense counsel.32989

       (E) The costs of any evaluation and preceding examination of 32990
a defendant that is ordered pursuant to division (A) or (B) of 32991
this section shall be taxed as court costs in the criminal case.32992

       (F) If the examiner considers it necessary in order to make 32993
an accurate evaluation of the mental condition of a defendant, an 32994
examiner under division (A) or (B) of this section may request any 32995
family or household member of the defendant to provide the 32996
examiner with information. A family or household member may, but 32997
is not required to, provide information to the examiner upon 32998
receipt of the request.32999

       (G) As used in this section:33000

       (1) "Bail" includes a recognizance.33001

       (2) "Examiner" means a psychiatrist, a licensed independent 33002
social worker who is employed by a forensic center that is 33003
certified as being in compliance with the standards established 33004
under division (H)(B)(7) of section 5119.015119.10 or division 33005
(C) of section 5123.04 of the Revised Code, a licensed 33006
professional clinical counselor who is employed at a forensic 33007
center that is certified as being in compliance with such 33008
standards, or a licensed clinical psychologist, except that in 33009
order to be an examiner, a licensed clinical psychologist shall 33010
meet the criteria of division (I)(1) of section 5122.01 of the 33011
Revised Code or be employed to conduct examinations by the 33012
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services33013
or by a forensic center certified as being in compliance with the 33014
standards established under division (H)(B)(7) of section 5119.0133015
5119.10 or division (C) of section 5123.04 of the Revised Code 33016
that is designated by the department of mental healthmental 33017
health and addiction services.33018

       (3) "Family or household member" has the same meaning as in 33019
section 2919.25 of the Revised Code.33020

       (4) "Prosecutor" has the same meaning as in section 2935.01 33021
of the Revised Code.33022

       (5) "Psychiatrist" and "licensed clinical psychologist" have 33023
the same meanings as in section 5122.01 of the Revised Code.33024

       (6) "Protection order issued by a court of another state" has 33025
the same meaning as in section 2919.27 of the Revised Code.33026

       Sec. 2921.01.  As used in sections 2921.01 to 2921.45 of the 33027
Revised Code:33028

       (A) "Public official" means any elected or appointed officer, 33029
or employee, or agent of the state or any political subdivision, 33030
whether in a temporary or permanent capacity, and includes, but is 33031
not limited to, legislators, judges, and law enforcement officers. 33032
"Public official" does not include an employee, officer, or 33033
governor-appointed member of the board of directors of the 33034
nonprofit corporation formed under section 187.01 of the Revised 33035
Code.33036

       (B) "Public servant" means any of the following:33037

       (1) Any public official;33038

       (2) Any person performing ad hoc a governmental function, 33039
including, but not limited to, a juror, member of a temporary 33040
commission, master, arbitrator, advisor, or consultant;33041

       (3) A person who is a candidate for public office, whether or 33042
not the person is elected or appointed to the office for which the 33043
person is a candidate. A person is a candidate for purposes of 33044
this division if the person has been nominated according to law 33045
for election or appointment to public office, or if the person has 33046
filed a petition or petitions as required by law to have the 33047
person's name placed on the ballot in a primary, general, or 33048
special election, or if the person campaigns as a write-in 33049
candidate in any primary, general, or special election.33050

       "Public servant" does not include an employee, officer, or 33051
governor-appointed member of the board of directors of the 33052
nonprofit corporation formed under section 187.01 of the Revised 33053
Code.33054

       (C) "Party official" means any person who holds an elective 33055
or appointive post in a political party in the United States or 33056
this state, by virtue of which the person directs, conducts, or 33057
participates in directing or conducting party affairs at any level 33058
of responsibility.33059

       (D) "Official proceeding" means any proceeding before a 33060
legislative, judicial, administrative, or other governmental 33061
agency or official authorized to take evidence under oath, and 33062
includes any proceeding before a referee, hearing examiner, 33063
commissioner, notary, or other person taking testimony or a 33064
deposition in connection with an official proceeding.33065

       (E) "Detention" means arrest; confinement in any vehicle 33066
subsequent to an arrest; confinement in any public or private 33067
facility for custody of persons charged with or convicted of crime 33068
in this state or another state or under the laws of the United 33069
States or alleged or found to be a delinquent child or unruly 33070
child in this state or another state or under the laws of the 33071
United States; hospitalization, institutionalization, or 33072
confinement in any public or private facility that is ordered 33073
pursuant to or under the authority of section 2945.37, 2945.371, 33074
2945.38, 2945.39, 2945.40, 2945.401, or 2945.402 of the Revised 33075
Code; confinement in any vehicle for transportation to or from any 33076
facility of any of those natures; detention for extradition or 33077
deportation; except as provided in this division, supervision by 33078
any employee of any facility of any of those natures that is 33079
incidental to hospitalization, institutionalization, or 33080
confinement in the facility but that occurs outside the facility; 33081
supervision by an employee of the department of rehabilitation and 33082
correction of a person on any type of release from a state 33083
correctional institution; or confinement in any vehicle, airplane, 33084
or place while being returned from outside of this state into this 33085
state by a private person or entity pursuant to a contract entered 33086
into under division (E) of section 311.29 of the Revised Code or 33087
division (B) of section 5149.03 of the Revised Code. For a person 33088
confined in a county jail who participates in a county jail 33089
industry program pursuant to section 5147.30 of the Revised Code, 33090
"detention" includes time spent at an assigned work site and going 33091
to and from the work site.33092

       (F) "Detention facility" means any public or private place 33093
used for the confinement of a person charged with or convicted of 33094
any crime in this state or another state or under the laws of the 33095
United States or alleged or found to be a delinquent child or 33096
unruly child in this state or another state or under the laws of 33097
the United States.33098

       (G) "Valuable thing or valuable benefit" includes, but is not 33099
limited to, a contribution. This inclusion does not indicate or 33100
imply that a contribution was not included in those terms before 33101
September 17, 1986.33102

       (H) "Campaign committee," "contribution," "political action 33103
committee," "legislative campaign fund," "political party," and 33104
"political contributing entity" have the same meanings as in 33105
section 3517.01 of the Revised Code.33106

       (I) "Provider agreement" and "medical assistance program" 33107
havehas the same meaningsmeaning as in section 2913.405164.0133108
of the Revised Code.33109

       Sec. 2921.13.  (A) No person shall knowingly make a false 33110
statement, or knowingly swear or affirm the truth of a false 33111
statement previously made, when any of the following applies:33112

       (1) The statement is made in any official proceeding.33113

       (2) The statement is made with purpose to incriminate 33114
another.33115

       (3) The statement is made with purpose to mislead a public 33116
official in performing the public official's official function.33117

       (4) The statement is made with purpose to secure a grant 33118
under Chapter 4143. of the Revised Code; the payment of 33119
unemployment compensation; Ohio works first; prevention, 33120
retention, and contingency benefits and services; disability 33121
financial assistance; retirement benefits or health care coverage 33122
from a state retirement system; economic development assistance, 33123
as defined in section 9.66 of the Revised Code; or other benefits 33124
administered by a governmental agency or paid out of a public 33125
treasury.33126

       (5) The statement is made with purpose to secure the issuance 33127
by a governmental agency of a license, permit, authorization, 33128
certificate, registration, release, or provider agreement.33129

       (6) The statement is sworn or affirmed before a notary public 33130
or another person empowered to administer oaths.33131

       (7) The statement is in writing on or in connection with a 33132
report or return that is required or authorized by law.33133

       (8) The statement is in writing and is made with purpose to 33134
induce another to extend credit to or employ the offender, to 33135
confer any degree, diploma, certificate of attainment, award of 33136
excellence, or honor on the offender, or to extend to or bestow 33137
upon the offender any other valuable benefit or distinction, when 33138
the person to whom the statement is directed relies upon it to 33139
that person's detriment.33140

       (9) The statement is made with purpose to commit or 33141
facilitate the commission of a theft offense.33142

       (10) The statement is knowingly made to a probate court in 33143
connection with any action, proceeding, or other matter within its 33144
jurisdiction, either orally or in a written document, including, 33145
but not limited to, an application, petition, complaint, or other 33146
pleading, or an inventory, account, or report.33147

       (11) The statement is made on an account, form, record, 33148
stamp, label, or other writing that is required by law.33149

       (12) The statement is made in connection with the purchase of 33150
a firearm, as defined in section 2923.11 of the Revised Code, and 33151
in conjunction with the furnishing to the seller of the firearm of 33152
a fictitious or altered driver's or commercial driver's license or 33153
permit, a fictitious or altered identification card, or any other 33154
document that contains false information about the purchaser's 33155
identity.33156

       (13) The statement is made in a document or instrument of 33157
writing that purports to be a judgment, lien, or claim of 33158
indebtedness and is filed or recorded with the secretary of state, 33159
a county recorder, or the clerk of a court of record.33160

       (14) The statement is made in an application filed with a 33161
county sheriff pursuant to section 2923.125 of the Revised Code in 33162
order to obtain or renew a concealed handgun license or is made in 33163
an affidavit submitted to a county sheriff to obtain a concealed 33164
handgun license on a temporary emergency basis under section 33165
2923.1213 of the Revised Code.33166

       (15) The statement is required under section 5743.71 of the 33167
Revised Code in connection with the person's purchase of 33168
cigarettes or tobacco products in a delivery sale.33169

       (B) No person, in connection with the purchase of a firearm, 33170
as defined in section 2923.11 of the Revised Code, shall knowingly 33171
furnish to the seller of the firearm a fictitious or altered 33172
driver's or commercial driver's license or permit, a fictitious or 33173
altered identification card, or any other document that contains 33174
false information about the purchaser's identity.33175

       (C) No person, in an attempt to obtain a concealed handgun 33176
license under section 2923.125 of the Revised Code, shall 33177
knowingly present to a sheriff a fictitious or altered document 33178
that purports to be certification of the person's competence in 33179
handling a handgun as described in division (B)(3) of that 33180
section. 33181

       (D) It is no defense to a charge under division (A)(6) of 33182
this section that the oath or affirmation was administered or 33183
taken in an irregular manner.33184

       (E) If contradictory statements relating to the same fact are 33185
made by the offender within the period of the statute of 33186
limitations for falsification, it is not necessary for the 33187
prosecution to prove which statement was false but only that one 33188
or the other was false.33189

       (F)(1) Whoever violates division (A)(1), (2), (3), (4), (5), 33190
(6), (7), (8), (10), (11), (13), or (15) of this section is guilty 33191
of falsification, a misdemeanor of the first degree.33192

       (2) Whoever violates division (A)(9) of this section is 33193
guilty of falsification in a theft offense. Except as otherwise 33194
provided in this division, falsification in a theft offense is a 33195
misdemeanor of the first degree. If the value of the property or 33196
services stolen is one thousand dollars or more and is less than 33197
seven thousand five hundred dollars, falsification in a theft 33198
offense is a felony of the fifth degree. If the value of the 33199
property or services stolen is seven thousand five hundred dollars 33200
or more and is less than one hundred fifty thousand dollars, 33201
falsification in a theft offense is a felony of the fourth degree. 33202
If the value of the property or services stolen is one hundred 33203
fifty thousand dollars or more, falsification in a theft offense 33204
is a felony of the third degree.33205

       (3) Whoever violates division (A)(12) or (B) of this section 33206
is guilty of falsification to purchase a firearm, a felony of the 33207
fifth degree.33208

       (4) Whoever violates division (A)(14) or (C) of this section 33209
is guilty of falsification to obtain a concealed handgun license, 33210
a felony of the fourth degree.33211

       (G) A person who violates this section is liable in a civil 33212
action to any person harmed by the violation for injury, death, or 33213
loss to person or property incurred as a result of the commission 33214
of the offense and for reasonable attorney's fees, court costs, 33215
and other expenses incurred as a result of prosecuting the civil 33216
action commenced under this division. A civil action under this 33217
division is not the exclusive remedy of a person who incurs 33218
injury, death, or loss to person or property as a result of a 33219
violation of this section.33220

       Sec. 2921.22.  (A)(1) Except as provided in division (A)(2) 33221
of this section, no person, knowing that a felony has been or is 33222
being committed, shall knowingly fail to report such information 33223
to law enforcement authorities.33224

       (2) No person, knowing that a violation of division (B) of 33225
section 2913.04 of the Revised Code has been, or is being 33226
committed or that the person has received information derived from 33227
such a violation, shall knowingly fail to report the violation to 33228
law enforcement authorities.33229

       (B) Except for conditions that are within the scope of 33230
division (E) of this section, no physician, limited practitioner, 33231
nurse, or other person giving aid to a sick or injured person 33232
shall negligently fail to report to law enforcement authorities 33233
any gunshot or stab wound treated or observed by the physician, 33234
limited practitioner, nurse, or person, or any serious physical 33235
harm to persons that the physician, limited practitioner, nurse, 33236
or person knows or has reasonable cause to believe resulted from 33237
an offense of violence.33238

       (C) No person who discovers the body or acquires the first 33239
knowledge of the death of a person shall fail to report the death 33240
immediately to a physician whom the person knows to be treating 33241
the deceased for a condition from which death at such time would 33242
not be unexpected, or to a law enforcement officer, an ambulance 33243
service, an emergency squad, or the coroner in a political 33244
subdivision in which the body is discovered, the death is believed 33245
to have occurred, or knowledge concerning the death is obtained.33246

       (D) No person shall fail to provide upon request of the 33247
person to whom a report required by division (C) of this section 33248
was made, or to any law enforcement officer who has reasonable 33249
cause to assert the authority to investigate the circumstances 33250
surrounding the death, any facts within the person's knowledge 33251
that may have a bearing on the investigation of the death.33252

       (E)(1) As used in this division, "burn injury" means any of 33253
the following:33254

       (a) Second or third degree burns;33255

       (b) Any burns to the upper respiratory tract or laryngeal 33256
edema due to the inhalation of superheated air;33257

       (c) Any burn injury or wound that may result in death;33258

       (d) Any physical harm to persons caused by or as the result 33259
of the use of fireworks, novelties and trick noisemakers, and wire 33260
sparklers, as each is defined by section 3743.01 of the Revised 33261
Code.33262

       (2) No physician, nurse, or limited practitioner who, outside 33263
a hospital, sanitarium, or other medical facility, attends or 33264
treats a person who has sustained a burn injury that is inflicted 33265
by an explosion or other incendiary device or that shows evidence 33266
of having been inflicted in a violent, malicious, or criminal 33267
manner shall fail to report the burn injury immediately to the 33268
local arson, or fire and explosion investigation, bureau, if there 33269
is a bureau of this type in the jurisdiction in which the person 33270
is attended or treated, or otherwise to local law enforcement 33271
authorities.33272

       (3) No manager, superintendent, or other person in charge of 33273
a hospital, sanitarium, or other medical facility in which a 33274
person is attended or treated for any burn injury that is 33275
inflicted by an explosion or other incendiary device or that shows 33276
evidence of having been inflicted in a violent, malicious, or 33277
criminal manner shall fail to report the burn injury immediately 33278
to the local arson, or fire and explosion investigation, bureau, 33279
if there is a bureau of this type in the jurisdiction in which the 33280
person is attended or treated, or otherwise to local law 33281
enforcement authorities.33282

       (4) No person who is required to report any burn injury under 33283
division (E)(2) or (3) of this section shall fail to file, within 33284
three working days after attending or treating the victim, a 33285
written report of the burn injury with the office of the state 33286
fire marshal. The report shall comply with the uniform standard 33287
developed by the state fire marshal pursuant to division (A)(15) 33288
of section 3737.22 of the Revised Code.33289

       (5) Anyone participating in the making of reports under 33290
division (E) of this section or anyone participating in a judicial 33291
proceeding resulting from the reports is immune from any civil or 33292
criminal liability that otherwise might be incurred or imposed as 33293
a result of such actions. Notwithstanding section 4731.22 of the 33294
Revised Code, the physician-patient relationship is not a ground 33295
for excluding evidence regarding a person's burn injury or the 33296
cause of the burn injury in any judicial proceeding resulting from 33297
a report submitted under division (E) of this section.33298

       (F)(1) Any doctor of medicine or osteopathic medicine, 33299
hospital intern or resident, registered or licensed practical 33300
nurse, psychologist, social worker, independent social worker, 33301
social work assistant, professional clinical counselor, or 33302
professional counselor who knows or has reasonable cause to 33303
believe that a patient or client has been the victim of domestic 33304
violence, as defined in section 3113.31 of the Revised Code, shall 33305
note that knowledge or belief and the basis for it in the 33306
patient's or client's records.33307

       (2) Notwithstanding section 4731.22 of the Revised Code, the 33308
doctor-patient privilege shall not be a ground for excluding any 33309
information regarding the report containing the knowledge or 33310
belief noted under division (F)(1) of this section, and the 33311
information may be admitted as evidence in accordance with the 33312
Rules of Evidence.33313

       (G) Divisions (A) and (D) of this section do not require 33314
disclosure of information, when any of the following applies:33315

       (1) The information is privileged by reason of the 33316
relationship between attorney and client; doctor and patient; 33317
licensed psychologist or licensed school psychologist and client; 33318
member of the clergy, rabbi, minister, or priest and any person 33319
communicating information confidentially to the member of the 33320
clergy, rabbi, minister, or priest for a religious counseling 33321
purpose of a professional character; husband and wife; or a 33322
communications assistant and those who are a party to a 33323
telecommunications relay service call.33324

       (2) The information would tend to incriminate a member of the 33325
actor's immediate family.33326

       (3) Disclosure of the information would amount to revealing a 33327
news source, privileged under section 2739.04 or 2739.12 of the 33328
Revised Code.33329

       (4) Disclosure of the information would amount to disclosure 33330
by a member of the ordained clergy of an organized religious body 33331
of a confidential communication made to that member of the clergy 33332
in that member's capacity as a member of the clergy by a person 33333
seeking the aid or counsel of that member of the clergy.33334

       (5) Disclosure would amount to revealing information acquired 33335
by the actor in the course of the actor's duties in connection 33336
with a bona fide program of treatment or services for drug 33337
dependent persons or persons in danger of drug dependence, which 33338
program is maintained or conducted by a hospital, clinic, person, 33339
agency, or organizationservices provider certified pursuant to 33340
section 3793.065119.36 of the Revised Code.33341

       (6) Disclosure would amount to revealing information acquired 33342
by the actor in the course of the actor's duties in connection 33343
with a bona fide program for providing counseling services to 33344
victims of crimes that are violations of section 2907.02 or 33345
2907.05 of the Revised Code or to victims of felonious sexual 33346
penetration in violation of former section 2907.12 of the Revised 33347
Code. As used in this division, "counseling services" include 33348
services provided in an informal setting by a person who, by 33349
education or experience, is competent to provide those services.33350

       (H) No disclosure of information pursuant to this section 33351
gives rise to any liability or recrimination for a breach of 33352
privilege or confidence.33353

       (I) Whoever violates division (A) or (B) of this section is 33354
guilty of failure to report a crime. Violation of division (A)(1) 33355
of this section is a misdemeanor of the fourth degree. Violation 33356
of division (A)(2) or (B) of this section is a misdemeanor of the 33357
second degree.33358

       (J) Whoever violates division (C) or (D) of this section is 33359
guilty of failure to report knowledge of a death, a misdemeanor of 33360
the fourth degree.33361

       (K)(1) Whoever negligently violates division (E) of this 33362
section is guilty of a minor misdemeanor.33363

       (2) Whoever knowingly violates division (E) of this section 33364
is guilty of a misdemeanor of the second degree.33365

       Sec. 2921.36.  (A) No person shall knowingly convey, or 33366
attempt to convey, onto the grounds of a detention facility or of 33367
an institution, office building, or other place that is under the 33368
control of the department of mental healthmental health and 33369
addiction services, the department of developmental disabilities, 33370
the department of youth services, or the department of 33371
rehabilitation and correction any of the following items:33372

       (1) Any deadly weapon or dangerous ordnance, as defined in 33373
section 2923.11 of the Revised Code, or any part of or ammunition 33374
for use in such a deadly weapon or dangerous ordnance;33375

       (2) Any drug of abuse, as defined in section 3719.011 of the 33376
Revised Code;33377

       (3) Any intoxicating liquor, as defined in section 4301.01 of 33378
the Revised Code.33379

       (B) Division (A) of this section does not apply to any person 33380
who conveys or attempts to convey an item onto the grounds of a 33381
detention facility or of an institution, office building, or other 33382
place under the control of the department of mental healthmental 33383
health and addiction services, the department of developmental 33384
disabilities, the department of youth services, or the department 33385
of rehabilitation and correction pursuant to the written 33386
authorization of the person in charge of the detention facility or 33387
the institution, office building, or other place and in accordance 33388
with the written rules of the detention facility or the 33389
institution, office building, or other place.33390

       (C) No person shall knowingly deliver, or attempt to deliver, 33391
to any person who is confined in a detention facility, to a child 33392
confined in a youth services facility, to a prisoner who is 33393
temporarily released from confinement for a work assignment, or to 33394
any patient in an institution under the control of the department 33395
of mental healthmental health and addiction services or the 33396
department of developmental disabilities any item listed in 33397
division (A)(1), (2), or (3) of this section.33398

       (D) No person shall knowingly deliver, or attempt to deliver, 33399
cash to any person who is confined in a detention facility, to a 33400
child confined in a youth services facility, or to a prisoner who 33401
is temporarily released from confinement for a work assignment.33402

       (E) No person shall knowingly deliver, or attempt to deliver, 33403
to any person who is confined in a detention facility, to a child 33404
confined in a youth services facility, or to a prisoner who is 33405
temporarily released from confinement for a work assignment a 33406
cellular telephone, two-way radio, or other electronic 33407
communications device.33408

       (F)(1) It is an affirmative defense to a charge under 33409
division (A)(1) of this section that the weapon or dangerous 33410
ordnance in question was being transported in a motor vehicle for 33411
any lawful purpose, that it was not on the actor's person, and, if 33412
the weapon or dangerous ordnance in question was a firearm, that 33413
it was unloaded and was being carried in a closed package, box, or 33414
case or in a compartment that can be reached only by leaving the 33415
vehicle.33416

       (2) It is an affirmative defense to a charge under division 33417
(C) of this section that the actor was not otherwise prohibited by 33418
law from delivering the item to the confined person, the child, 33419
the prisoner, or the patient and that either of the following 33420
applies:33421

       (a) The actor was permitted by the written rules of the 33422
detention facility or the institution, office building, or other 33423
place to deliver the item to the confined person or the patient.33424

       (b) The actor was given written authorization by the person 33425
in charge of the detention facility or the institution, office 33426
building, or other place to deliver the item to the confined 33427
person or the patient.33428

       (G)(1) Whoever violates division (A)(1) of this section or 33429
commits a violation of division (C) of this section involving an 33430
item listed in division (A)(1) of this section is guilty of 33431
illegal conveyance of weapons onto the grounds of a specified 33432
governmental facility, a felony of the third degree. If the 33433
offender is an officer or employee of the department of 33434
rehabilitation and correction, the court shall impose a mandatory 33435
prison term.33436

       (2) Whoever violates division (A)(2) of this section or 33437
commits a violation of division (C) of this section involving any 33438
drug of abuse is guilty of illegal conveyance of drugs of abuse 33439
onto the grounds of a specified governmental facility, a felony of 33440
the third degree. If the offender is an officer or employee of the 33441
department of rehabilitation and correction or of the department 33442
of youth services, the court shall impose a mandatory prison term.33443

       (3) Whoever violates division (A)(3) of this section or 33444
commits a violation of division (C) of this section involving any 33445
intoxicating liquor is guilty of illegal conveyance of 33446
intoxicating liquor onto the grounds of a specified governmental 33447
facility, a misdemeanor of the second degree.33448

       (4) Whoever violates division (D) of this section is guilty 33449
of illegal conveyance of cash onto the grounds of a detention 33450
facility, a misdemeanor of the first degree. If the offender 33451
previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to a violation 33452
of division (D) of this section, illegal conveyance of cash onto 33453
the grounds of a detention facility is a felony of the fifth 33454
degree.33455

       (5) Whoever violates division (E) of this section is guilty 33456
of illegal conveyance of a communications device onto the grounds 33457
of a specified governmental facility, a misdemeanor of the first 33458
degree, or if the offender previously has been convicted of or 33459
pleaded guilty to a violation of division (E) of this section, a 33460
felony of the fifth degree.33461

       Sec. 2921.38.  (A) No person who is confined in a detention 33462
facility, with intent to harass, annoy, threaten, or alarm another 33463
person, shall cause or attempt to cause the other person to come 33464
into contact with blood, semen, urine, feces, or another bodily 33465
substance by throwing the bodily substance at the other person, by 33466
expelling the bodily substance upon the other person, or in any 33467
other manner.33468

       (B) No person, with intent to harass, annoy, threaten, or 33469
alarm a law enforcement officer, shall cause or attempt to cause 33470
the law enforcement officer to come into contact with blood, 33471
semen, urine, feces, or another bodily substance by throwing the 33472
bodily substance at the law enforcement officer, by expelling the 33473
bodily substance upon the law enforcement officer, or in any other 33474
manner.33475

       (C) No person, with knowledge that the person is a carrier of 33476
the virus that causes acquired immunodeficiency syndrome, is a 33477
carrier of a hepatitis virus, or is infected with tuberculosis and 33478
with intent to harass, annoy, threaten, or alarm another person, 33479
shall cause or attempt to cause the other person to come into 33480
contact with blood, semen, urine, feces, or another bodily 33481
substance by throwing the bodily substance at the other person, by 33482
expelling the bodily substance upon the other person, or in any 33483
other manner.33484

       (D) Whoever violates this section is guilty of harassment 33485
with a bodily substance. A violation of division (A) or (B) of 33486
this section is a felony of the fifth degree. A violation of 33487
division (C) of this section is a felony of the third degree.33488

       (E)(1) The court, on request of the prosecutor, or the law 33489
enforcement authority responsible for the investigation of the 33490
violation, shall cause a person who allegedly has committed a 33491
violation of this section to submit to one or more appropriate 33492
tests to determine if the person is a carrier of the virus that 33493
causes acquired immunodeficiency syndrome, is a carrier of a 33494
hepatitis virus, or is infected with tuberculosis.33495

       (2) The court shall charge the offender with the costs of the 33496
test or tests ordered under division (E)(1) of this section unless 33497
the court determines that the accused is unable to pay, in which 33498
case the costs shall be charged to the entity that operates the 33499
detention facility in which the alleged offense occurred.33500

       (F) This section does not apply to a person who is 33501
hospitalized, institutionalized, or confined in a facility 33502
operated by the department of mental healthmental health and 33503
addiction services or the department of developmental 33504
disabilities.33505

       Sec. 2923.125.  (A) This section applies with respect to the 33506
application for and issuance by this state of concealed handgun 33507
licenses other than concealed handgun licenses on a temporary 33508
emergency basis that are issued under section 2923.1213 of the 33509
Revised Code. Upon the request of a person who wishes to obtain a 33510
concealed handgun license with respect to which this section 33511
applies or to renew a concealed handgun license with respect to 33512
which this section applies, a sheriff, as provided in division (I) 33513
of this section, shall provide to the person free of charge an 33514
application form and the web site address at which the pamphlet 33515
described in division (B) of section 109.731 of the Revised Code 33516
may be found. A sheriff shall accept a completed application form 33517
and the fee, items, materials, and information specified in 33518
divisions (B)(1) to (5) of this section at the times and in the 33519
manners described in division (I) of this section.33520

        (B) An applicant for a concealed handgun license with respect 33521
to which this section applies shall submit a completed application 33522
form and all of the following to the sheriff of the county in 33523
which the applicant resides or to the sheriff of any county 33524
adjacent to the county in which the applicant resides:33525

       (1)(a) A nonrefundable license fee as described in either of 33526
the following: 33527

       (i) For an applicant who has been a resident of this state 33528
for five or more years, a fee of sixty-seven dollars;33529

       (ii) For an applicant who has been a resident of this state 33530
for less than five years, a fee of sixty-seven dollars plus the 33531
actual cost of having a background check performed by the federal 33532
bureau of investigation.33533

       (b) No sheriff shall require an applicant to pay for the cost 33534
of a background check performed by the bureau of criminal 33535
identification and investigation.33536

       (c) A sheriff shall waive the payment of the license fee 33537
described in division (B)(1)(a) of this section in connection with 33538
an initial or renewal application for a license that is submitted 33539
by an applicant who is a retired peace officer, a retired person 33540
described in division (B)(1)(b) of section 109.77 of the Revised 33541
Code, or a retired federal law enforcement officer who, prior to 33542
retirement, was authorized under federal law to carry a firearm in 33543
the course of duty, unless the retired peace officer, person, or 33544
federal law enforcement officer retired as the result of a mental 33545
disability.33546

       (d) The sheriff shall deposit all fees paid by an applicant 33547
under division (B)(1)(a) of this section into the sheriff's 33548
concealed handgun license issuance fund established pursuant to 33549
section 311.42 of the Revised Code. The county shall distribute 33550
the fees in accordance with section 311.42 of the Revised Code.33551

       (2) A color photograph of the applicant that was taken within 33552
thirty days prior to the date of the application;33553

       (3) One or more of the following competency certifications, 33554
each of which shall reflect that, regarding a certification 33555
described in division (B)(3)(a), (b), (c), (e), or (f) of this 33556
section, within the three years immediately preceding the 33557
application the applicant has performed that to which the 33558
competency certification relates and that, regarding a 33559
certification described in division (B)(3)(d) of this section, the 33560
applicant currently is an active or reserve member of the armed 33561
forces of the United States or within the six years immediately 33562
preceding the application the honorable discharge or retirement to 33563
which the competency certification relates occurred:33564

        (a) An original or photocopy of a certificate of completion 33565
of a firearms safety, training, or requalification or firearms 33566
safety instructor course, class, or program that was offered by or 33567
under the auspices of the national rifle association and that 33568
complies with the requirements set forth in division (G) of this 33569
section;33570

       (b) An original or photocopy of a certificate of completion 33571
of a firearms safety, training, or requalification or firearms 33572
safety instructor course, class, or program that satisfies all of 33573
the following criteria:33574

       (i) It was open to members of the general public.33575

       (ii) It utilized qualified instructors who were certified by 33576
the national rifle association, the executive director of the Ohio 33577
peace officer training commission pursuant to section 109.75 or 33578
109.78 of the Revised Code, or a governmental official or entity 33579
of another state.33580

       (iii) It was offered by or under the auspices of a law 33581
enforcement agency of this or another state or the United States, 33582
a public or private college, university, or other similar 33583
postsecondary educational institution located in this or another 33584
state, a firearms training school located in this or another 33585
state, or another type of public or private entity or organization 33586
located in this or another state.33587

       (iv) It complies with the requirements set forth in division 33588
(G) of this section.33589

        (c) An original or photocopy of a certificate of completion 33590
of a state, county, municipal, or department of natural resources 33591
peace officer training school that is approved by the executive 33592
director of the Ohio peace officer training commission pursuant to 33593
section 109.75 of the Revised Code and that complies with the 33594
requirements set forth in division (G) of this section, or the 33595
applicant has satisfactorily completed and been issued a 33596
certificate of completion of a basic firearms training program, a 33597
firearms requalification training program, or another basic 33598
training program described in section 109.78 or 109.801 of the 33599
Revised Code that complies with the requirements set forth in 33600
division (G) of this section;33601

        (d) A document that evidences both of the following:33602

        (i) That the applicant is an active or reserve member of the 33603
armed forces of the United States, was honorably discharged from 33604
military service in the active or reserve armed forces of the 33605
United States, is a retired trooper of the state highway patrol, 33606
or is a retired peace officer or federal law enforcement officer 33607
described in division (B)(1) of this section or a retired person 33608
described in division (B)(1)(b) of section 109.77 of the Revised 33609
Code and division (B)(1) of this section;33610

        (ii) That, through participation in the military service or 33611
through the former employment described in division (B)(3)(d)(i) 33612
of this section, the applicant acquired experience with handling 33613
handguns or other firearms, and the experience so acquired was 33614
equivalent to training that the applicant could have acquired in a 33615
course, class, or program described in division (B)(3)(a), (b), or 33616
(c) of this section.33617

        (e) A certificate or another similar document that evidences 33618
satisfactory completion of a firearms training, safety, or 33619
requalification or firearms safety instructor course, class, or 33620
program that is not otherwise described in division (B)(3)(a), 33621
(b), (c), or (d) of this section, that was conducted by an 33622
instructor who was certified by an official or entity of the 33623
government of this or another state or the United States or by the 33624
national rifle association, and that complies with the 33625
requirements set forth in division (G) of this section;33626

        (f) An affidavit that attests to the applicant's satisfactory 33627
completion of a course, class, or program described in division 33628
(B)(3)(a), (b), (c), or (e) of this section and that is subscribed 33629
by the applicant's instructor or an authorized representative of 33630
the entity that offered the course, class, or program or under 33631
whose auspices the course, class, or program was offered.33632

       (4) A certification by the applicant that the applicant has 33633
read the pamphlet prepared by the Ohio peace officer training 33634
commission pursuant to section 109.731 of the Revised Code that 33635
reviews firearms, dispute resolution, and use of deadly force 33636
matters.33637

       (5) A set of fingerprints of the applicant provided as 33638
described in section 311.41 of the Revised Code through use of an 33639
electronic fingerprint reading device or, if the sheriff to whom 33640
the application is submitted does not possess and does not have 33641
ready access to the use of such a reading device, on a standard 33642
impression sheet prescribed pursuant to division (C)(2) of section 33643
109.572 of the Revised Code.33644

        (C) Upon receipt of the completed application form, 33645
supporting documentation, and, if not waived, license fee of an 33646
applicant under this section, a sheriff, in the manner specified 33647
in section 311.41 of the Revised Code, shall conduct or cause to 33648
be conducted the criminal records check and the incompetency 33649
records check described in section 311.41 of the Revised Code.33650

       (D)(1) Except as provided in division (D)(3) or (4) of this 33651
section, within forty-five days after a sheriff's receipt of an 33652
applicant's completed application form for a concealed handgun 33653
license under this section, the supporting documentation, and, if 33654
not waived, the license fee, the sheriff shall make available 33655
through the law enforcement automated data system in accordance 33656
with division (H) of this section the information described in 33657
that division and, upon making the information available through 33658
the system, shall issue to the applicant a concealed handgun 33659
license that shall expire as described in division (D)(2)(a) of 33660
this section if all of the following apply:33661

       (a) The applicant is legally living in the United States, has 33662
been a resident of this state for at least forty-five days, and 33663
has been a resident of the county in which the person seeks the 33664
license or a county adjacent to the county in which the person 33665
seeks the license for at least thirty days. For purposes of 33666
division (D)(1)(a) of this section:33667

       (i) If a person is absent from the United States, from this 33668
state, or from a particular county in this state in compliance 33669
with military or naval orders as an active or reserve member of 33670
the armed forces of the United States and if prior to leaving this 33671
state in compliance with those orders the person was legally 33672
living in the United States and was a resident of this state, the 33673
person, solely by reason of that absence, shall not be considered 33674
to have lost the person's status as living in the United States or 33675
the person's residence in this state or in the county in which the 33676
person was a resident prior to leaving this state in compliance 33677
with those orders, without regard to whether or not the person 33678
intends to return to this state or to that county, shall not be 33679
considered to have acquired a residence in any other state, and 33680
shall not be considered to have become a resident of any other 33681
state.33682

       (ii) If a person is present in this state in compliance with 33683
military or naval orders as an active or reserve member of the 33684
armed forces of the United States for at least forty-five days, 33685
the person shall be considered to have been a resident of this 33686
state for that period of at least forty-five days, and, if a 33687
person is present in a county of this state in compliance with 33688
military or naval orders as an active or reserve member of the 33689
armed forces of the United States for at least thirty days, the 33690
person shall be considered to have been a resident of that county 33691
for that period of at least thirty days.33692

        (b) The applicant is at least twenty-one years of age.33693

        (c) The applicant is not a fugitive from justice.33694

       (d) The applicant is not under indictment for or otherwise 33695
charged with a felony; an offense under Chapter 2925., 3719., or 33696
4729. of the Revised Code that involves the illegal possession, 33697
use, sale, administration, or distribution of or trafficking in a 33698
drug of abuse; a misdemeanor offense of violence; or a violation 33699
of section 2903.14 or 2923.1211 of the Revised Code.33700

       (e) Except as otherwise provided in division (D)(5) of this 33701
section, the applicant has not been convicted of or pleaded guilty 33702
to a felony or an offense under Chapter 2925., 3719., or 4729. of 33703
the Revised Code that involves the illegal possession, use, sale, 33704
administration, or distribution of or trafficking in a drug of 33705
abuse; has not been adjudicated a delinquent child for committing 33706
an act that if committed by an adult would be a felony or would be 33707
an offense under Chapter 2925., 3719., or 4729. of the Revised 33708
Code that involves the illegal possession, use, sale, 33709
administration, or distribution of or trafficking in a drug of 33710
abuse; and has not been convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or 33711
adjudicated a delinquent child for committing a violation of 33712
section 2903.13 of the Revised Code when the victim of the 33713
violation is a peace officer, regardless of whether the applicant 33714
was sentenced under division (C)(3)(4) of that section.33715

       (f) Except as otherwise provided in division (D)(5) of this 33716
section, the applicant, within three years of the date of the 33717
application, has not been convicted of or pleaded guilty to a 33718
misdemeanor offense of violence other than a misdemeanor violation 33719
of section 2921.33 of the Revised Code or a violation of section 33720
2903.13 of the Revised Code when the victim of the violation is a 33721
peace officer, or a misdemeanor violation of section 2923.1211 of 33722
the Revised Code; and has not been adjudicated a delinquent child 33723
for committing an act that if committed by an adult would be a 33724
misdemeanor offense of violence other than a misdemeanor violation 33725
of section 2921.33 of the Revised Code or a violation of section 33726
2903.13 of the Revised Code when the victim of the violation is a 33727
peace officer or for committing an act that if committed by an 33728
adult would be a misdemeanor violation of section 2923.1211 of the 33729
Revised Code.33730

       (g) Except as otherwise provided in division (D)(1)(e) of 33731
this section, the applicant, within five years of the date of the 33732
application, has not been convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or 33733
adjudicated a delinquent child for committing two or more 33734
violations of section 2903.13 or 2903.14 of the Revised Code.33735

       (h) Except as otherwise provided in division (D)(5) of this 33736
section, the applicant, within ten years of the date of the 33737
application, has not been convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or 33738
adjudicated a delinquent child for committing a violation of 33739
section 2921.33 of the Revised Code.33740

       (i) The applicant has not been adjudicated as a mental 33741
defective, has not been committed to any mental institution, is 33742
not under adjudication of mental incompetence, has not been found 33743
by a court to be a mentally ill person subject to hospitalization 33744
by court order, and is not an involuntary patient other than one 33745
who is a patient only for purposes of observation. As used in this 33746
division, "mentally ill person subject to hospitalization by court 33747
order" and "patient" have the same meanings as in section 5122.01 33748
of the Revised Code.33749

       (j) The applicant is not currently subject to a civil 33750
protection order, a temporary protection order, or a protection 33751
order issued by a court of another state.33752

       (k) The applicant certifies that the applicant desires a 33753
legal means to carry a concealed handgun for defense of the 33754
applicant or a member of the applicant's family while engaged in 33755
lawful activity.33756

       (l) The applicant submits a competency certification of the 33757
type described in division (B)(3) of this section and submits a 33758
certification of the type described in division (B)(4) of this 33759
section regarding the applicant's reading of the pamphlet prepared 33760
by the Ohio peace officer training commission pursuant to section 33761
109.731 of the Revised Code.33762

       (m) The applicant currently is not subject to a suspension 33763
imposed under division (A)(2) of section 2923.128 of the Revised 33764
Code of a concealed handgun license that previously was issued to 33765
the applicant under this section or section 2923.1213 of the 33766
Revised Code.33767

       (2)(a) A concealed handgun license that a sheriff issues 33768
under division (D)(1) of this section shall expire five years 33769
after the date of issuance. 33770

       If a sheriff issues a license under this section, the sheriff 33771
shall place on the license a unique combination of letters and 33772
numbers identifying the license in accordance with the procedure 33773
prescribed by the Ohio peace officer training commission pursuant 33774
to section 109.731 of the Revised Code.33775

       (b) If a sheriff denies an application under this section 33776
because the applicant does not satisfy the criteria described in 33777
division (D)(1) of this section, the sheriff shall specify the 33778
grounds for the denial in a written notice to the applicant. The 33779
applicant may appeal the denial pursuant to section 119.12 of the 33780
Revised Code in the county served by the sheriff who denied the 33781
application. If the denial was as a result of the criminal records 33782
check conducted pursuant to section 311.41 of the Revised Code and 33783
if, pursuant to section 2923.127 of the Revised Code, the 33784
applicant challenges the criminal records check results using the 33785
appropriate challenge and review procedure specified in that 33786
section, the time for filing the appeal pursuant to section 119.12 33787
of the Revised Code and this division is tolled during the 33788
pendency of the request or the challenge and review. If the court 33789
in an appeal under section 119.12 of the Revised Code and this 33790
division enters a judgment sustaining the sheriff's refusal to 33791
grant to the applicant a concealed handgun license, the applicant 33792
may file a new application beginning one year after the judgment 33793
is entered. If the court enters a judgment in favor of the 33794
applicant, that judgment shall not restrict the authority of a 33795
sheriff to suspend or revoke the license pursuant to section 33796
2923.128 or 2923.1213 of the Revised Code or to refuse to renew 33797
the license for any proper cause that may occur after the date the 33798
judgment is entered. In the appeal, the court shall have full 33799
power to dispose of all costs.33800

       (3) If the sheriff with whom an application for a concealed 33801
handgun license was filed under this section becomes aware that 33802
the applicant has been arrested for or otherwise charged with an 33803
offense that would disqualify the applicant from holding the 33804
license, the sheriff shall suspend the processing of the 33805
application until the disposition of the case arising from the 33806
arrest or charge.33807

       (4) If the sheriff determines that the applicant is legally 33808
living in the United States and is a resident of the county in 33809
which the applicant seeks the license or of an adjacent county but 33810
does not yet meet the residency requirements described in division 33811
(D)(1)(a) of this section, the sheriff shall not deny the license 33812
because of the residency requirements but shall not issue the 33813
license until the applicant meets those residency requirements.33814

       (5) If an applicant has been convicted of or pleaded guilty 33815
to an offense identified in division (D)(1)(e), (f), or (h) of 33816
this section or has been adjudicated a delinquent child for 33817
committing an act or violation identified in any of those 33818
divisions, and if a court has ordered the sealing or expungement 33819
of the records of that conviction, guilty plea, or adjudication 33820
pursuant to sections 2151.355 to 2151.358, sections 2953.31 to 33821
2953.36, or section 2953.37 of the Revised Code or a court has 33822
granted the applicant relief pursuant to section 2923.14 of the 33823
Revised Code from the disability imposed pursuant to section 33824
2923.13 of the Revised Code relative to that conviction, guilty 33825
plea, or adjudication, the sheriff with whom the application was 33826
submitted shall not consider the conviction, guilty plea, or 33827
adjudication in making a determination under division (D)(1) or 33828
(F) of this section or, in relation to an application for a 33829
concealed handgun license on a temporary emergency basis submitted 33830
under section 2923.1213 of the Revised Code, in making a 33831
determination under division (B)(2) of that section.33832

       (E) If a concealed handgun license issued under this section 33833
is lost or is destroyed, the licensee may obtain from the sheriff 33834
who issued that license a duplicate license upon the payment of a 33835
fee of fifteen dollars and the submission of an affidavit 33836
attesting to the loss or destruction of the license. The sheriff, 33837
in accordance with the procedures prescribed in section 109.731 of 33838
the Revised Code, shall place on the replacement license a 33839
combination of identifying numbers different from the combination 33840
on the license that is being replaced.33841

       (F)(1) A licensee who wishes to renew a concealed handgun 33842
license issued under this section shall do so not earlier than 33843
ninety days before the expiration date of the license or at any 33844
time after the expiration date of the license by filing with the 33845
sheriff of the county in which the applicant resides or with the 33846
sheriff of an adjacent county an application for renewal of the 33847
license obtained pursuant to division (D) of this section, a 33848
certification by the applicant that, subsequent to the issuance of 33849
the license, the applicant has reread the pamphlet prepared by the 33850
Ohio peace officer training commission pursuant to section 109.731 33851
of the Revised Code that reviews firearms, dispute resolution, and 33852
use of deadly force matters, and a nonrefundable license renewal 33853
fee in an amount determined pursuant to division (F)(4) of this 33854
section unless the fee is waived.33855

       (2) A sheriff shall accept a completed renewal application, 33856
the license renewal fee, and the information specified in division 33857
(F)(1) of this section at the times and in the manners described 33858
in division (I) of this section. Upon receipt of a completed 33859
renewal application, of certification that the applicant has 33860
reread the specified pamphlet prepared by the Ohio peace officer 33861
training commission, and of a license renewal fee unless the fee 33862
is waived, a sheriff, in the manner specified in section 311.41 of 33863
the Revised Code shall conduct or cause to be conducted the 33864
criminal records check and the incompetency records check 33865
described in section 311.41 of the Revised Code. The sheriff shall 33866
renew the license if the sheriff determines that the applicant 33867
continues to satisfy the requirements described in division (D)(1) 33868
of this section, except that the applicant is not required to meet 33869
the requirements of division (D)(1)(l) of this section. A renewed 33870
license shall expire five years after the date of issuance. A 33871
renewed license is subject to division (E) of this section and 33872
sections 2923.126 and 2923.128 of the Revised Code. A sheriff 33873
shall comply with divisions (D)(2) to (4) of this section when the 33874
circumstances described in those divisions apply to a requested 33875
license renewal. If a sheriff denies the renewal of a concealed 33876
handgun license, the applicant may appeal the denial, or challenge 33877
the criminal record check results that were the basis of the 33878
denial if applicable, in the same manner as specified in division 33879
(D)(2)(b) of this section and in section 2923.127 of the Revised 33880
Code, regarding the denial of a license under this section.33881

       (3) A renewal application submitted pursuant to division (F) 33882
of this section shall only require the licensee to list on the 33883
application form information and matters occurring since the date 33884
of the licensee's last application for a license pursuant to 33885
division (B) or (F) of this section. A sheriff conducting the 33886
criminal records check and the incompetency records check 33887
described in section 311.41 of the Revised Code shall conduct the 33888
check only from the date of the licensee's last application for a 33889
license pursuant to division (B) or (F) of this section through 33890
the date of the renewal application submitted pursuant to division 33891
(F) of this section.33892

       (4) An applicant for a renewal concealed handgun license 33893
under this section shall submit to the sheriff of the county in 33894
which the applicant resides or to the sheriff of any county 33895
adjacent to the county in which the applicant resides a 33896
nonrefundable license fee as described in either of the following:33897

       (a) For an applicant who has been a resident of this state 33898
for five or more years, a fee of fifty dollars;33899

       (b) For an applicant who has been a resident of this state 33900
for less than five years, a fee of fifty dollars plus the actual 33901
cost of having a background check performed by the federal bureau 33902
of investigation.33903

       (G)(1) Each course, class, or program described in division 33904
(B)(3)(a), (b), (c), or (e) of this section shall provide to each 33905
person who takes the course, class, or program the web site 33906
address at which the pamphlet prepared by the Ohio peace officer 33907
training commission pursuant to section 109.731 of the Revised 33908
Code that reviews firearms, dispute resolution, and use of deadly 33909
force matters may be found. Each such course, class, or program 33910
described in one of those divisions shall include at least twelve 33911
hours of training in the safe handling and use of a firearm that 33912
shall include all of the following:33913

        (a) At least ten hours of training on the following matters:33914

       (i) The ability to name, explain, and demonstrate the rules 33915
for safe handling of a handgun and proper storage practices for 33916
handguns and ammunition;33917

        (ii) The ability to demonstrate and explain how to handle 33918
ammunition in a safe manner;33919

       (iii) The ability to demonstrate the knowledge, skills, and 33920
attitude necessary to shoot a handgun in a safe manner;33921

       (iv) Gun handling training.33922

       (b) At least two hours of training that consists of range 33923
time and live-fire training.33924

        (2) To satisfactorily complete the course, class, or program 33925
described in division (B)(3)(a), (b), (c), or (e) of this section, 33926
the applicant shall pass a competency examination that shall 33927
include both of the following:33928

       (a) A written section on the ability to name and explain the 33929
rules for the safe handling of a handgun and proper storage 33930
practices for handguns and ammunition;33931

       (b) A physical demonstration of competence in the use of a 33932
handgun and in the rules for safe handling and storage of a 33933
handgun and a physical demonstration of the attitude necessary to 33934
shoot a handgun in a safe manner.33935

        (3) The competency certification described in division 33936
(B)(3)(a), (b), (c), or (e) of this section shall be dated and 33937
shall attest that the course, class, or program the applicant 33938
successfully completed met the requirements described in division 33939
(G)(1) of this section and that the applicant passed the 33940
competency examination described in division (G)(2) of this 33941
section.33942

       (H) Upon deciding to issue a concealed handgun license, 33943
deciding to issue a replacement concealed handgun license, or 33944
deciding to renew a concealed handgun license pursuant to this 33945
section, and before actually issuing or renewing the license, the 33946
sheriff shall make available through the law enforcement automated 33947
data system all information contained on the license. If the 33948
license subsequently is suspended under division (A)(1) or (2) of 33949
section 2923.128 of the Revised Code, revoked pursuant to division 33950
(B)(1) of section 2923.128 of the Revised Code, or lost or 33951
destroyed, the sheriff also shall make available through the law 33952
enforcement automated data system a notation of that fact. The 33953
superintendent of the state highway patrol shall ensure that the 33954
law enforcement automated data system is so configured as to 33955
permit the transmission through the system of the information 33956
specified in this division.33957

       (I) A sheriff shall accept a completed application form or 33958
renewal application, and the fee, items, materials, and 33959
information specified in divisions (B)(1) to (5) or division (F) 33960
of this section, whichever is applicable, and shall provide an 33961
application form or renewal application to any person during at 33962
least fifteen hours a week and shall provide the web site address 33963
at which the pamphlet described in division (B) of section 109.731 33964
of the Revised Code may be found at any time, upon request. The 33965
sheriff shall post notice of the hours during which the sheriff is 33966
available to accept or provide the information described in this 33967
division.33968

       Sec. 2923.126.  (A) A concealed handgun license that is 33969
issued under section 2923.125 of the Revised Code shall expire 33970
five years after the date of issuance. A licensee who has been 33971
issued a license under that section shall be granted a grace 33972
period of thirty days after the licensee's license expires during 33973
which the licensee's license remains valid. Except as provided in 33974
divisions (B) and (C) of this section, a licensee who has been 33975
issued a concealed handgun license under section 2923.125 or 33976
2923.1213 of the Revised Code may carry a concealed handgun 33977
anywhere in this state if the licensee also carries a valid 33978
license and valid identification when the licensee is in actual 33979
possession of a concealed handgun. The licensee shall give notice 33980
of any change in the licensee's residence address to the sheriff 33981
who issued the license within forty-five days after that change.33982

       If a licensee is the driver or an occupant of a motor vehicle 33983
that is stopped as the result of a traffic stop or a stop for 33984
another law enforcement purpose and if the licensee is 33985
transporting or has a loaded handgun in the motor vehicle at that 33986
time, the licensee shall promptly inform any law enforcement 33987
officer who approaches the vehicle while stopped that the licensee 33988
has been issued a concealed handgun license and that the licensee 33989
currently possesses or has a loaded handgun; the licensee shall 33990
not knowingly disregard or fail to comply with lawful orders of a 33991
law enforcement officer given while the motor vehicle is stopped, 33992
knowingly fail to remain in the motor vehicle while stopped, or 33993
knowingly fail to keep the licensee's hands in plain sight after 33994
any law enforcement officer begins approaching the licensee while 33995
stopped and before the officer leaves, unless directed otherwise 33996
by a law enforcement officer; and the licensee shall not knowingly 33997
have contact with the loaded handgun by touching it with the 33998
licensee's hands or fingers, in any manner in violation of 33999
division (E) of section 2923.16 of the Revised Code, after any law 34000
enforcement officer begins approaching the licensee while stopped 34001
and before the officer leaves. Additionally, if a licensee is the 34002
driver or an occupant of a commercial motor vehicle that is 34003
stopped by an employee of the motor carrier enforcement unit for 34004
the purposes defined in section 5503.04 of the Revised Code and if 34005
the licensee is transporting or has a loaded handgun in the 34006
commercial motor vehicle at that time, the licensee shall promptly 34007
inform the employee of the unit who approaches the vehicle while 34008
stopped that the licensee has been issued a concealed handgun 34009
license and that the licensee currently possesses or has a loaded 34010
handgun. 34011

       If a licensee is stopped for a law enforcement purpose and if 34012
the licensee is carrying a concealed handgun at the time the 34013
officer approaches, the licensee shall promptly inform any law 34014
enforcement officer who approaches the licensee while stopped that 34015
the licensee has been issued a concealed handgun license and that 34016
the licensee currently is carrying a concealed handgun; the 34017
licensee shall not knowingly disregard or fail to comply with 34018
lawful orders of a law enforcement officer given while the 34019
licensee is stopped or knowingly fail to keep the licensee's hands 34020
in plain sight after any law enforcement officer begins 34021
approaching the licensee while stopped and before the officer 34022
leaves, unless directed otherwise by a law enforcement officer; 34023
and the licensee shall not knowingly remove, attempt to remove, 34024
grasp, or hold the loaded handgun or knowingly have contact with 34025
the loaded handgun by touching it with the licensee's hands or 34026
fingers, in any manner in violation of division (B) of section 34027
2923.12 of the Revised Code, after any law enforcement officer 34028
begins approaching the licensee while stopped and before the 34029
officer leaves.34030

        (B) A valid concealed handgun license does not authorize the 34031
licensee to carry a concealed handgun in any manner prohibited 34032
under division (B) of section 2923.12 of the Revised Code or in 34033
any manner prohibited under section 2923.16 of the Revised Code. A 34034
valid license does not authorize the licensee to carry a concealed 34035
handgun into any of the following places:34036

       (1) A police station, sheriff's office, or state highway 34037
patrol station, premises controlled by the bureau of criminal 34038
identification and investigation, a state correctional 34039
institution, jail, workhouse, or other detention facility, an 34040
airport passenger terminal, or an institution that is maintained, 34041
operated, managed, and governed pursuant to division (A) of 34042
section 5119.025119.14 of the Revised Code or division (A)(1) of 34043
section 5123.03 of the Revised Code;34044

        (2) A school safety zone if the licensee's carrying the 34045
concealed handgun is in violation of section 2923.122 of the 34046
Revised Code;34047

       (3) A courthouse or another building or structure in which a 34048
courtroom is located, in violation of section 2923.123 of the 34049
Revised Code;34050

       (4) Any premises or open air arena for which a D permit has 34051
been issued under Chapter 4303. of the Revised Code if the 34052
licensee's carrying the concealed handgun is in violation of 34053
section 2923.121 of the Revised Code;34054

        (5) Any premises owned or leased by any public or private 34055
college, university, or other institution of higher education, 34056
unless the handgun is in a locked motor vehicle or the licensee is 34057
in the immediate process of placing the handgun in a locked motor 34058
vehicle;34059

        (6) Any church, synagogue, mosque, or other place of worship, 34060
unless the church, synagogue, mosque, or other place of worship 34061
posts or permits otherwise;34062

       (7) A child day-care center, a type A family day-care home, a 34063
type B family day-care home, or a type C family day-care home, 34064
except that this division does not prohibit a licensee who resides 34065
in a type A family day-care home, a type B family day-care home, 34066
or a type C family day-care home from carrying a concealed handgun 34067
at any time in any part of the home that is not dedicated or used 34068
for day-care purposes, or from carrying a concealed handgun in a 34069
part of the home that is dedicated or used for day-care purposes 34070
at any time during which no children, other than children of that 34071
licensee, are in the home;34072

       (8) An aircraft that is in, or intended for operation in, 34073
foreign air transportation, interstate air transportation, 34074
intrastate air transportation, or the transportation of mail by 34075
aircraft;34076

       (9) Any building that is a government facility of this state 34077
or a political subdivision of this state and that is not a 34078
building that is used primarily as a shelter, restroom, parking 34079
facility for motor vehicles, or rest facility and is not a 34080
courthouse or other building or structure in which a courtroom is 34081
located that is subject to division (B)(3) of this section;34082

       (10) A place in which federal law prohibits the carrying of 34083
handguns.34084

       (C)(1) Nothing in this section shall negate or restrict a 34085
rule, policy, or practice of a private employer that is not a 34086
private college, university, or other institution of higher 34087
education concerning or prohibiting the presence of firearms on 34088
the private employer's premises or property, including motor 34089
vehicles owned by the private employer. Nothing in this section 34090
shall require a private employer of that nature to adopt a rule, 34091
policy, or practice concerning or prohibiting the presence of 34092
firearms on the private employer's premises or property, including 34093
motor vehicles owned by the private employer.34094

       (2)(a) A private employer shall be immune from liability in a 34095
civil action for any injury, death, or loss to person or property 34096
that allegedly was caused by or related to a licensee bringing a 34097
handgun onto the premises or property of the private employer, 34098
including motor vehicles owned by the private employer, unless the 34099
private employer acted with malicious purpose. A private employer 34100
is immune from liability in a civil action for any injury, death, 34101
or loss to person or property that allegedly was caused by or 34102
related to the private employer's decision to permit a licensee to 34103
bring, or prohibit a licensee from bringing, a handgun onto the 34104
premises or property of the private employer. As used in this 34105
division, "private employer" includes a private college, 34106
university, or other institution of higher education.34107

       (b) A political subdivision shall be immune from liability in 34108
a civil action, to the extent and in the manner provided in 34109
Chapter 2744. of the Revised Code, for any injury, death, or loss 34110
to person or property that allegedly was caused by or related to a 34111
licensee bringing a handgun onto any premises or property owned, 34112
leased, or otherwise under the control of the political 34113
subdivision. As used in this division, "political subdivision" has 34114
the same meaning as in section 2744.01 of the Revised Code.34115

       (3)(a) Except as provided in division (C)(3)(b) of this 34116
section, the owner or person in control of private land or 34117
premises, and a private person or entity leasing land or premises 34118
owned by the state, the United States, or a political subdivision 34119
of the state or the United States, may post a sign in a 34120
conspicuous location on that land or on those premises prohibiting 34121
persons from carrying firearms or concealed firearms on or onto 34122
that land or those premises. Except as otherwise provided in this 34123
division, a person who knowingly violates a posted prohibition of 34124
that nature is guilty of criminal trespass in violation of 34125
division (A)(4) of section 2911.21 of the Revised Code and is 34126
guilty of a misdemeanor of the fourth degree. If a person 34127
knowingly violates a posted prohibition of that nature and the 34128
posted land or premises primarily was a parking lot or other 34129
parking facility, the person is not guilty of criminal trespass in 34130
violation of division (A)(4) of section 2911.21 of the Revised 34131
Code and instead is subject only to a civil cause of action for 34132
trespass based on the violation.34133

       (b) A landlord may not prohibit or restrict a tenant who is a 34134
licensee and who on or after September 9, 2008, enters into a 34135
rental agreement with the landlord for the use of residential 34136
premises, and the tenant's guest while the tenant is present, from 34137
lawfully carrying or possessing a handgun on those residential 34138
premises.34139

       (c) As used in division (C)(3) of this section:34140

       (i) "Residential premises" has the same meaning as in section 34141
5321.01 of the Revised Code, except "residential premises" does 34142
not include a dwelling unit that is owned or operated by a college 34143
or university.34144

       (ii) "Landlord," "tenant," and "rental agreement" have the 34145
same meanings as in section 5321.01 of the Revised Code.34146

        (D) A person who holds a concealed handgun license issued by 34147
another state that is recognized by the attorney general pursuant 34148
to a reciprocity agreement entered into pursuant to section 109.69 34149
of the Revised Code has the same right to carry a concealed 34150
handgun in this state as a person who was issued a concealed 34151
handgun license under section 2923.125 of the Revised Code and is 34152
subject to the same restrictions that apply to a person who 34153
carries a license issued under that section.34154

       (E) A peace officer has the same right to carry a concealed 34155
handgun in this state as a person who was issued a concealed 34156
handgun license under section 2923.125 of the Revised Code. For 34157
purposes of reciprocity with other states, a peace officer shall 34158
be considered to be a licensee in this state.34159

       (F)(1) A qualified retired peace officer who possesses a 34160
retired peace officer identification card issued pursuant to 34161
division (F)(2) of this section and a valid firearms 34162
requalification certification issued pursuant to division (F)(3) 34163
of this section has the same right to carry a concealed handgun in 34164
this state as a person who was issued a concealed handgun license 34165
under section 2923.125 of the Revised Code and is subject to the 34166
same restrictions that apply to a person who carries a license 34167
issued under that section. For purposes of reciprocity with other 34168
states, a qualified retired peace officer who possesses a retired 34169
peace officer identification card issued pursuant to division 34170
(F)(2) of this section and a valid firearms requalification 34171
certification issued pursuant to division (F)(3) of this section 34172
shall be considered to be a licensee in this state.34173

        (2)(a) Each public agency of this state or of a political 34174
subdivision of this state that is served by one or more peace 34175
officers shall issue a retired peace officer identification card 34176
to any person who retired from service as a peace officer with 34177
that agency, if the issuance is in accordance with the agency's 34178
policies and procedures and if the person, with respect to the 34179
person's service with that agency, satisfies all of the following:34180

        (i) The person retired in good standing from service as a 34181
peace officer with the public agency, and the retirement was not 34182
for reasons of mental instability.34183

        (ii) Before retiring from service as a peace officer with 34184
that agency, the person was authorized to engage in or supervise 34185
the prevention, detection, investigation, or prosecution of, or 34186
the incarceration of any person for, any violation of law and the 34187
person had statutory powers of arrest.34188

        (iii) At the time of the person's retirement as a peace 34189
officer with that agency, the person was trained and qualified to 34190
carry firearms in the performance of the peace officer's duties.34191

        (iv) Before retiring from service as a peace officer with 34192
that agency, the person was regularly employed as a peace officer 34193
for an aggregate of fifteen years or more, or, in the alternative, 34194
the person retired from service as a peace officer with that 34195
agency, after completing any applicable probationary period of 34196
that service, due to a service-connected disability, as determined 34197
by the agency.34198

        (b) A retired peace officer identification card issued to a 34199
person under division (F)(2)(a) of this section shall identify the 34200
person by name, contain a photograph of the person, identify the 34201
public agency of this state or of the political subdivision of 34202
this state from which the person retired as a peace officer and 34203
that is issuing the identification card, and specify that the 34204
person retired in good standing from service as a peace officer 34205
with the issuing public agency and satisfies the criteria set 34206
forth in divisions (F)(2)(a)(i) to (iv) of this section. In 34207
addition to the required content specified in this division, a 34208
retired peace officer identification card issued to a person under 34209
division (F)(2)(a) of this section may include the firearms 34210
requalification certification described in division (F)(3) of this 34211
section, and if the identification card includes that 34212
certification, the identification card shall serve as the firearms 34213
requalification certification for the retired peace officer. If 34214
the issuing public agency issues credentials to active law 34215
enforcement officers who serve the agency, the agency may comply 34216
with division (F)(2)(a) of this section by issuing the same 34217
credentials to persons who retired from service as a peace officer 34218
with the agency and who satisfy the criteria set forth in 34219
divisions (F)(2)(a)(i) to (iv) of this section, provided that the 34220
credentials so issued to retired peace officers are stamped with 34221
the word "RETIRED."34222

        (c) A public agency of this state or of a political 34223
subdivision of this state may charge persons who retired from 34224
service as a peace officer with the agency a reasonable fee for 34225
issuing to the person a retired peace officer identification card 34226
pursuant to division (F)(2)(a) of this section.34227

        (3) If a person retired from service as a peace officer with 34228
a public agency of this state or of a political subdivision of 34229
this state and the person satisfies the criteria set forth in 34230
divisions (F)(2)(a)(i) to (iv) of this section, the public agency 34231
may provide the retired peace officer with the opportunity to 34232
attend a firearms requalification program that is approved for 34233
purposes of firearms requalification required under section 34234
109.801 of the Revised Code. The retired peace officer may be 34235
required to pay the cost of the course.34236

        If a retired peace officer who satisfies the criteria set 34237
forth in divisions (F)(2)(a)(i) to (iv) of this section attends a 34238
firearms requalification program that is approved for purposes of 34239
firearms requalification required under section 109.801 of the 34240
Revised Code, the retired peace officer's successful completion of 34241
the firearms requalification program requalifies the retired peace 34242
officer for purposes of division (F) of this section for five 34243
years from the date on which the program was successfully 34244
completed, and the requalification is valid during that five-year 34245
period. If a retired peace officer who satisfies the criteria set 34246
forth in divisions (F)(2)(a)(i) to (iv) of this section 34247
satisfactorily completes such a firearms requalification program, 34248
the retired peace officer shall be issued a firearms 34249
requalification certification that identifies the retired peace 34250
officer by name, identifies the entity that taught the program, 34251
specifies that the retired peace officer successfully completed 34252
the program, specifies the date on which the course was 34253
successfully completed, and specifies that the requalification is 34254
valid for five years from that date of successful completion. The 34255
firearms requalification certification for a retired peace officer 34256
may be included in the retired peace officer identification card 34257
issued to the retired peace officer under division (F)(2) of this 34258
section.34259

        A retired peace officer who attends a firearms 34260
requalification program that is approved for purposes of firearms 34261
requalification required under section 109.801 of the Revised Code 34262
may be required to pay the cost of the program.34263

        (G) As used in this section:34264

       (1) "Qualified retired peace officer" means a person who 34265
satisfies all of the following:34266

        (a) The person satisfies the criteria set forth in divisions 34267
(F)(2)(a)(i) to (v) of this section.34268

       (b) The person is not under the influence of alcohol or 34269
another intoxicating or hallucinatory drug or substance.34270

        (c) The person is not prohibited by federal law from 34271
receiving firearms.34272

       (2) "Retired peace officer identification card" means an 34273
identification card that is issued pursuant to division (F)(2) of 34274
this section to a person who is a retired peace officer.34275

       (3) "Government facility of this state or a political 34276
subdivision of this state" means any of the following:34277

       (a) A building or part of a building that is owned or leased 34278
by the government of this state or a political subdivision of this 34279
state and where employees of the government of this state or the 34280
political subdivision regularly are present for the purpose of 34281
performing their official duties as employees of the state or 34282
political subdivision;34283

       (b) The office of a deputy registrar serving pursuant to 34284
Chapter 4503. of the Revised Code that is used to perform deputy 34285
registrar functions.34286

       Sec. 2925.03.  (A) No person shall knowingly do any of the 34287
following:34288

       (1) Sell or offer to sell a controlled substance or a 34289
controlled substance analog;34290

       (2) Prepare for shipment, ship, transport, deliver, prepare 34291
for distribution, or distribute a controlled substance or a 34292
controlled substance analog, when the offender knows or has 34293
reasonable cause to believe that the controlled substance or a 34294
controlled substance analog is intended for sale or resale by the 34295
offender or another person.34296

       (B) This section does not apply to any of the following:34297

       (1) Manufacturers, licensed health professionals authorized 34298
to prescribe drugs, pharmacists, owners of pharmacies, and other 34299
persons whose conduct is in accordance with Chapters 3719., 4715., 34300
4723., 4729., 4730., 4731., and 4741. of the Revised Code;34301

       (2) If the offense involves an anabolic steroid, any person 34302
who is conducting or participating in a research project involving 34303
the use of an anabolic steroid if the project has been approved by 34304
the United States food and drug administration;34305

       (3) Any person who sells, offers for sale, prescribes, 34306
dispenses, or administers for livestock or other nonhuman species 34307
an anabolic steroid that is expressly intended for administration 34308
through implants to livestock or other nonhuman species and 34309
approved for that purpose under the "Federal Food, Drug, and 34310
Cosmetic Act," 52 Stat. 1040 (1938), 21 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended, 34311
and is sold, offered for sale, prescribed, dispensed, or 34312
administered for that purpose in accordance with that act.34313

       (C) Whoever violates division (A) of this section is guilty 34314
of one of the following:34315

       (1) If the drug involved in the violation is any compound, 34316
mixture, preparation, or substance included in schedule I or 34317
schedule II, with the exception of marihuana, cocaine, L.S.D., 34318
heroin, hashish, and controlled substance analogs, whoever 34319
violates division (A) of this section is guilty of aggravated 34320
trafficking in drugs. The penalty for the offense shall be 34321
determined as follows:34322

       (a) Except as otherwise provided in division (C)(1)(b), (c), 34323
(d), (e), or (f) of this section, aggravated trafficking in drugs 34324
is a felony of the fourth degree, and division (C) of section 34325
2929.13 of the Revised Code applies in determining whether to 34326
impose a prison term on the offender.34327

       (b) Except as otherwise provided in division (C)(1)(c), (d), 34328
(e), or (f) of this section, if the offense was committed in the 34329
vicinity of a school or in the vicinity of a juvenile, aggravated 34330
trafficking in drugs is a felony of the third degree, and division 34331
(C) of section 2929.13 of the Revised Code applies in determining 34332
whether to impose a prison term on the offender.34333

       (c) Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the 34334
amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds the bulk amount but 34335
is less than five times the bulk amount, aggravated trafficking in 34336
drugs is a felony of the third degree, and, except as otherwise 34337
provided in this division, there is a presumption for a prison 34338
term for the offense. If aggravated trafficking in drugs is a 34339
felony of the third degree under this division and if the offender 34340
two or more times previously has been convicted of or pleaded 34341
guilty to a felony drug abuse offense, the court shall impose as a 34342
mandatory prison term one of the prison terms prescribed for a 34343
felony of the third degree. If the amount of the drug involved is 34344
within that range and if the offense was committed in the vicinity 34345
of a school or in the vicinity of a juvenile, aggravated 34346
trafficking in drugs is a felony of the second degree, and the 34347
court shall impose as a mandatory prison term one of the prison 34348
terms prescribed for a felony of the second degree.34349

       (d) Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the 34350
amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds five times the bulk 34351
amount but is less than fifty times the bulk amount, aggravated 34352
trafficking in drugs is a felony of the second degree, and the 34353
court shall impose as a mandatory prison term one of the prison 34354
terms prescribed for a felony of the second degree. If the amount 34355
of the drug involved is within that range and if the offense was 34356
committed in the vicinity of a school or in the vicinity of a 34357
juvenile, aggravated trafficking in drugs is a felony of the first 34358
degree, and the court shall impose as a mandatory prison term one 34359
of the prison terms prescribed for a felony of the first degree.34360

       (e) If the amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds 34361
fifty times the bulk amount but is less than one hundred times the 34362
bulk amount and regardless of whether the offense was committed in 34363
the vicinity of a school or in the vicinity of a juvenile, 34364
aggravated trafficking in drugs is a felony of the first degree, 34365
and the court shall impose as a mandatory prison term one of the 34366
prison terms prescribed for a felony of the first degree.34367

       (f) If the amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds one 34368
hundred times the bulk amount and regardless of whether the 34369
offense was committed in the vicinity of a school or in the 34370
vicinity of a juvenile, aggravated trafficking in drugs is a 34371
felony of the first degree, the offender is a major drug offender, 34372
and the court shall impose as a mandatory prison term the maximum 34373
prison term prescribed for a felony of the first degree.34374

       (2) If the drug involved in the violation is any compound, 34375
mixture, preparation, or substance included in schedule III, IV, 34376
or V, whoever violates division (A) of this section is guilty of 34377
trafficking in drugs. The penalty for the offense shall be 34378
determined as follows:34379

       (a) Except as otherwise provided in division (C)(2)(b), (c), 34380
(d), or (e) of this section, trafficking in drugs is a felony of 34381
the fifth degree, and division (B) of section 2929.13 of the 34382
Revised Code applies in determining whether to impose a prison 34383
term on the offender.34384

       (b) Except as otherwise provided in division (C)(2)(c), (d), 34385
or (e) of this section, if the offense was committed in the 34386
vicinity of a school or in the vicinity of a juvenile, trafficking 34387
in drugs is a felony of the fourth degree, and division (C) of 34388
section 2929.13 of the Revised Code applies in determining whether 34389
to impose a prison term on the offender.34390

       (c) Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the 34391
amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds the bulk amount but 34392
is less than five times the bulk amount, trafficking in drugs is a 34393
felony of the fourth degree, and division (B) of section 2929.13 34394
of the Revised Code applies in determining whether to impose a 34395
prison term for the offense. If the amount of the drug involved is 34396
within that range and if the offense was committed in the vicinity 34397
of a school or in the vicinity of a juvenile, trafficking in drugs 34398
is a felony of the third degree, and there is a presumption for a 34399
prison term for the offense.34400

       (d) Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the 34401
amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds five times the bulk 34402
amount but is less than fifty times the bulk amount, trafficking 34403
in drugs is a felony of the third degree, and there is a 34404
presumption for a prison term for the offense. If the amount of 34405
the drug involved is within that range and if the offense was 34406
committed in the vicinity of a school or in the vicinity of a 34407
juvenile, trafficking in drugs is a felony of the second degree, 34408
and there is a presumption for a prison term for the offense.34409

       (e) Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the 34410
amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds fifty times the bulk 34411
amount, trafficking in drugs is a felony of the second degree, and 34412
the court shall impose as a mandatory prison term one of the 34413
prison terms prescribed for a felony of the second degree. If the 34414
amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds fifty times the bulk 34415
amount and if the offense was committed in the vicinity of a 34416
school or in the vicinity of a juvenile, trafficking in drugs is a 34417
felony of the first degree, and the court shall impose as a 34418
mandatory prison term one of the prison terms prescribed for a 34419
felony of the first degree.34420

       (3) If the drug involved in the violation is marihuana or a 34421
compound, mixture, preparation, or substance containing marihuana 34422
other than hashish, whoever violates division (A) of this section 34423
is guilty of trafficking in marihuana. The penalty for the offense 34424
shall be determined as follows:34425

       (a) Except as otherwise provided in division (C)(3)(b), (c), 34426
(d), (e), (f), (g), or (h) of this section, trafficking in 34427
marihuana is a felony of the fifth degree, and division (B) of 34428
section 2929.13 of the Revised Code applies in determining whether 34429
to impose a prison term on the offender.34430

       (b) Except as otherwise provided in division (C)(3)(c), (d), 34431
(e), (f), (g), or (h) of this section, if the offense was 34432
committed in the vicinity of a school or in the vicinity of a 34433
juvenile, trafficking in marihuana is a felony of the fourth 34434
degree, and division (B) of section 2929.13 of the Revised Code 34435
applies in determining whether to impose a prison term on the 34436
offender.34437

       (c) Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the 34438
amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds two hundred grams 34439
but is less than one thousand grams, trafficking in marihuana is a 34440
felony of the fourth degree, and division (B) of section 2929.13 34441
of the Revised Code applies in determining whether to impose a 34442
prison term on the offender. If the amount of the drug involved is 34443
within that range and if the offense was committed in the vicinity 34444
of a school or in the vicinity of a juvenile, trafficking in 34445
marihuana is a felony of the third degree, and division (C) of 34446
section 2929.13 of the Revised Code applies in determining whether 34447
to impose a prison term on the offender.34448

       (d) Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the 34449
amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds one thousand grams 34450
but is less than five thousand grams, trafficking in marihuana is 34451
a felony of the third degree, and division (C) of section 2929.13 34452
of the Revised Code applies in determining whether to impose a 34453
prison term on the offender. If the amount of the drug involved is 34454
within that range and if the offense was committed in the vicinity 34455
of a school or in the vicinity of a juvenile, trafficking in 34456
marihuana is a felony of the second degree, and there is a 34457
presumption that a prison term shall be imposed for the offense.34458

       (e) Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the 34459
amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds five thousand grams 34460
but is less than twenty thousand grams, trafficking in marihuana 34461
is a felony of the third degree, and there is a presumption that a 34462
prison term shall be imposed for the offense. If the amount of the 34463
drug involved is within that range and if the offense was 34464
committed in the vicinity of a school or in the vicinity of a 34465
juvenile, trafficking in marihuana is a felony of the second 34466
degree, and there is a presumption that a prison term shall be 34467
imposed for the offense.34468

       (f) Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the 34469
amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds twenty thousand 34470
grams but is less than forty thousand grams, trafficking in 34471
marihuana is a felony of the second degree, and the court shall 34472
impose a mandatory prison term of five, six, seven, or eight 34473
years. If the amount of the drug involved is within that range and 34474
if the offense was committed in the vicinity of a school or in the 34475
vicinity of a juvenile, trafficking in marihuana is a felony of 34476
the first degree, and the court shall impose as a mandatory prison 34477
term the maximum prison term prescribed for a felony of the first 34478
degree.34479

       (g) Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the 34480
amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds forty thousand 34481
grams, trafficking in marihuana is a felony of the second degree, 34482
and the court shall impose as a mandatory prison term the maximum 34483
prison term prescribed for a felony of the second degree. If the 34484
amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds forty thousand grams 34485
and if the offense was committed in the vicinity of a school or in 34486
the vicinity of a juvenile, trafficking in marihuana is a felony 34487
of the first degree, and the court shall impose as a mandatory 34488
prison term the maximum prison term prescribed for a felony of the 34489
first degree.34490

       (h) Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the 34491
offense involves a gift of twenty grams or less of marihuana, 34492
trafficking in marihuana is a minor misdemeanor upon a first 34493
offense and a misdemeanor of the third degree upon a subsequent 34494
offense. If the offense involves a gift of twenty grams or less of 34495
marihuana and if the offense was committed in the vicinity of a 34496
school or in the vicinity of a juvenile, trafficking in marihuana 34497
is a misdemeanor of the third degree.34498

       (4) If the drug involved in the violation is cocaine or a 34499
compound, mixture, preparation, or substance containing cocaine, 34500
whoever violates division (A) of this section is guilty of 34501
trafficking in cocaine. The penalty for the offense shall be 34502
determined as follows:34503

       (a) Except as otherwise provided in division (C)(4)(b), (c), 34504
(d), (e), (f), or (g) of this section, trafficking in cocaine is a 34505
felony of the fifth degree, and division (B) of section 2929.13 of 34506
the Revised Code applies in determining whether to impose a prison 34507
term on the offender.34508

       (b) Except as otherwise provided in division (C)(4)(c), (d), 34509
(e), (f), or (g) of this section, if the offense was committed in 34510
the vicinity of a school or in the vicinity of a juvenile, 34511
trafficking in cocaine is a felony of the fourth degree, and 34512
division (C) of section 2929.13 of the Revised Code applies in 34513
determining whether to impose a prison term on the offender.34514

       (c) Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the 34515
amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds five grams but is 34516
less than ten grams of cocaine, trafficking in cocaine is a felony 34517
of the fourth degree, and division (B) of section 2929.13 of the 34518
Revised Code applies in determining whether to impose a prison 34519
term for the offense. If the amount of the drug involved is within 34520
that range and if the offense was committed in the vicinity of a 34521
school or in the vicinity of a juvenile, trafficking in cocaine is 34522
a felony of the third degree, and there is a presumption for a 34523
prison term for the offense.34524

       (d) Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the 34525
amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds ten grams but is 34526
less than twenty grams of cocaine, trafficking in cocaine is a 34527
felony of the third degree, and, except as otherwise provided in 34528
this division, there is a presumption for a prison term for the 34529
offense. If trafficking in cocaine is a felony of the third degree 34530
under this division and if the offender two or more times 34531
previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to a felony 34532
drug abuse offense, the court shall impose as a mandatory prison 34533
term one of the prison terms prescribed for a felony of the third 34534
degree. If the amount of the drug involved is within that range 34535
and if the offense was committed in the vicinity of a school or in 34536
the vicinity of a juvenile, trafficking in cocaine is a felony of 34537
the second degree, and the court shall impose as a mandatory 34538
prison term one of the prison terms prescribed for a felony of the 34539
second degree.34540

       (e) Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the 34541
amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds twenty grams but is 34542
less than twenty-seven grams of cocaine, trafficking in cocaine is 34543
a felony of the second degree, and the court shall impose as a 34544
mandatory prison term one of the prison terms prescribed for a 34545
felony of the second degree. If the amount of the drug involved is 34546
within that range and if the offense was committed in the vicinity 34547
of a school or in the vicinity of a juvenile, trafficking in 34548
cocaine is a felony of the first degree, and the court shall 34549
impose as a mandatory prison term one of the prison terms 34550
prescribed for a felony of the first degree.34551

       (f) If the amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds 34552
twenty-seven grams but is less than one hundred grams of cocaine 34553
and regardless of whether the offense was committed in the 34554
vicinity of a school or in the vicinity of a juvenile, trafficking 34555
in cocaine is a felony of the first degree, and the court shall 34556
impose as a mandatory prison term one of the prison terms 34557
prescribed for a felony of the first degree.34558

       (g) If the amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds one 34559
hundred grams of cocaine and regardless of whether the offense was 34560
committed in the vicinity of a school or in the vicinity of a 34561
juvenile, trafficking in cocaine is a felony of the first degree, 34562
the offender is a major drug offender, and the court shall impose 34563
as a mandatory prison term the maximum prison term prescribed for 34564
a felony of the first degree.34565

       (5) If the drug involved in the violation is L.S.D. or a 34566
compound, mixture, preparation, or substance containing L.S.D., 34567
whoever violates division (A) of this section is guilty of 34568
trafficking in L.S.D. The penalty for the offense shall be 34569
determined as follows:34570

       (a) Except as otherwise provided in division (C)(5)(b), (c), 34571
(d), (e), (f), or (g) of this section, trafficking in L.S.D. is a 34572
felony of the fifth degree, and division (B) of section 2929.13 of 34573
the Revised Code applies in determining whether to impose a prison 34574
term on the offender.34575

       (b) Except as otherwise provided in division (C)(5)(c), (d), 34576
(e), (f), or (g) of this section, if the offense was committed in 34577
the vicinity of a school or in the vicinity of a juvenile, 34578
trafficking in L.S.D. is a felony of the fourth degree, and 34579
division (C) of section 2929.13 of the Revised Code applies in 34580
determining whether to impose a prison term on the offender.34581

       (c) Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the 34582
amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds ten unit doses but 34583
is less than fifty unit doses of L.S.D. in a solid form or equals 34584
or exceeds one gram but is less than five grams of L.S.D. in a 34585
liquid concentrate, liquid extract, or liquid distillate form, 34586
trafficking in L.S.D. is a felony of the fourth degree, and 34587
division (B) of section 2929.13 of the Revised Code applies in 34588
determining whether to impose a prison term for the offense. If 34589
the amount of the drug involved is within that range and if the 34590
offense was committed in the vicinity of a school or in the 34591
vicinity of a juvenile, trafficking in L.S.D. is a felony of the 34592
third degree, and there is a presumption for a prison term for the 34593
offense.34594

       (d) Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the 34595
amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds fifty unit doses but 34596
is less than two hundred fifty unit doses of L.S.D. in a solid 34597
form or equals or exceeds five grams but is less than twenty-five 34598
grams of L.S.D. in a liquid concentrate, liquid extract, or liquid 34599
distillate form, trafficking in L.S.D. is a felony of the third 34600
degree, and, except as otherwise provided in this division, there 34601
is a presumption for a prison term for the offense. If trafficking 34602
in L.S.D. is a felony of the third degree under this division and 34603
if the offender two or more times previously has been convicted of 34604
or pleaded guilty to a felony drug abuse offense, the court shall 34605
impose as a mandatory prison term one of the prison terms 34606
prescribed for a felony of the third degree. If the amount of the 34607
drug involved is within that range and if the offense was 34608
committed in the vicinity of a school or in the vicinity of a 34609
juvenile, trafficking in L.S.D. is a felony of the second degree, 34610
and the court shall impose as a mandatory prison term one of the 34611
prison terms prescribed for a felony of the second degree.34612

       (e) Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the 34613
amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds two hundred fifty 34614
unit doses but is less than one thousand unit doses of L.S.D. in a 34615
solid form or equals or exceeds twenty-five grams but is less than 34616
one hundred grams of L.S.D. in a liquid concentrate, liquid 34617
extract, or liquid distillate form, trafficking in L.S.D. is a 34618
felony of the second degree, and the court shall impose as a 34619
mandatory prison term one of the prison terms prescribed for a 34620
felony of the second degree. If the amount of the drug involved is 34621
within that range and if the offense was committed in the vicinity 34622
of a school or in the vicinity of a juvenile, trafficking in 34623
L.S.D. is a felony of the first degree, and the court shall impose 34624
as a mandatory prison term one of the prison terms prescribed for 34625
a felony of the first degree.34626

       (f) If the amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds one 34627
thousand unit doses but is less than five thousand unit doses of 34628
L.S.D. in a solid form or equals or exceeds one hundred grams but 34629
is less than five hundred grams of L.S.D. in a liquid concentrate, 34630
liquid extract, or liquid distillate form and regardless of 34631
whether the offense was committed in the vicinity of a school or 34632
in the vicinity of a juvenile, trafficking in L.S.D. is a felony 34633
of the first degree, and the court shall impose as a mandatory 34634
prison term one of the prison terms prescribed for a felony of the 34635
first degree.34636

       (g) If the amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds five 34637
thousand unit doses of L.S.D. in a solid form or equals or exceeds 34638
five hundred grams of L.S.D. in a liquid concentrate, liquid 34639
extract, or liquid distillate form and regardless of whether the 34640
offense was committed in the vicinity of a school or in the 34641
vicinity of a juvenile, trafficking in L.S.D. is a felony of the 34642
first degree, the offender is a major drug offender, and the court 34643
shall impose as a mandatory prison term the maximum prison term 34644
prescribed for a felony of the first degree.34645

       (6) If the drug involved in the violation is heroin or a 34646
compound, mixture, preparation, or substance containing heroin, 34647
whoever violates division (A) of this section is guilty of 34648
trafficking in heroin. The penalty for the offense shall be 34649
determined as follows:34650

       (a) Except as otherwise provided in division (C)(6)(b), (c), 34651
(d), (e), (f), or (g) of this section, trafficking in heroin is a 34652
felony of the fifth degree, and division (B) of section 2929.13 of 34653
the Revised Code applies in determining whether to impose a prison 34654
term on the offender.34655

       (b) Except as otherwise provided in division (C)(6)(c), (d), 34656
(e), (f), or (g) of this section, if the offense was committed in 34657
the vicinity of a school or in the vicinity of a juvenile, 34658
trafficking in heroin is a felony of the fourth degree, and 34659
division (C) of section 2929.13 of the Revised Code applies in 34660
determining whether to impose a prison term on the offender.34661

       (c) Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the 34662
amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds ten unit doses but 34663
is less than fifty unit doses or equals or exceeds one gram but is 34664
less than five grams, trafficking in heroin is a felony of the 34665
fourth degree, and division (B) of section 2929.13 of the Revised 34666
Code applies in determining whether to impose a prison term for 34667
the offense. If the amount of the drug involved is within that 34668
range and if the offense was committed in the vicinity of a school 34669
or in the vicinity of a juvenile, trafficking in heroin is a 34670
felony of the third degree, and there is a presumption for a 34671
prison term for the offense.34672

       (d) Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the 34673
amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds fifty unit doses but 34674
is less than one hundred unit doses or equals or exceeds five 34675
grams but is less than ten grams, trafficking in heroin is a 34676
felony of the third degree, and there is a presumption for a 34677
prison term for the offense. If the amount of the drug involved is 34678
within that range and if the offense was committed in the vicinity 34679
of a school or in the vicinity of a juvenile, trafficking in 34680
heroin is a felony of the second degree, and there is a 34681
presumption for a prison term for the offense.34682

       (e) Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the 34683
amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds one hundred unit 34684
doses but is less than five hundred unit doses or equals or 34685
exceeds ten grams but is less than fifty grams, trafficking in 34686
heroin is a felony of the second degree, and the court shall 34687
impose as a mandatory prison term one of the prison terms 34688
prescribed for a felony of the second degree. If the amount of the 34689
drug involved is within that range and if the offense was 34690
committed in the vicinity of a school or in the vicinity of a 34691
juvenile, trafficking in heroin is a felony of the first degree, 34692
and the court shall impose as a mandatory prison term one of the 34693
prison terms prescribed for a felony of the first degree.34694

       (f) If the amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds five 34695
hundred unit doses but is less than two thousand five hundred unit 34696
doses or equals or exceeds fifty grams but is less than two 34697
hundred fifty grams and regardless of whether the offense was 34698
committed in the vicinity of a school or in the vicinity of a 34699
juvenile, trafficking in heroin is a felony of the first degree, 34700
and the court shall impose as a mandatory prison term one of the 34701
prison terms prescribed for a felony of the first degree.34702

       (g) If the amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds two 34703
thousand five hundred unit doses or equals or exceeds two hundred 34704
fifty grams and regardless of whether the offense was committed in 34705
the vicinity of a school or in the vicinity of a juvenile, 34706
trafficking in heroin is a felony of the first degree, the 34707
offender is a major drug offender, and the court shall impose as a 34708
mandatory prison term the maximum prison term prescribed for a 34709
felony of the first degree.34710

       (7) If the drug involved in the violation is hashish or a 34711
compound, mixture, preparation, or substance containing hashish, 34712
whoever violates division (A) of this section is guilty of 34713
trafficking in hashish. The penalty for the offense shall be 34714
determined as follows:34715

       (a) Except as otherwise provided in division (C)(7)(b), (c), 34716
(d), (e), (f), or (g) of this section, trafficking in hashish is a 34717
felony of the fifth degree, and division (B) of section 2929.13 of 34718
the Revised Code applies in determining whether to impose a prison 34719
term on the offender.34720

       (b) Except as otherwise provided in division (C)(7)(c), (d), 34721
(e), (f), or (g) of this section, if the offense was committed in 34722
the vicinity of a school or in the vicinity of a juvenile, 34723
trafficking in hashish is a felony of the fourth degree, and 34724
division (B) of section 2929.13 of the Revised Code applies in 34725
determining whether to impose a prison term on the offender.34726

       (c) Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the 34727
amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds ten grams but is 34728
less than fifty grams of hashish in a solid form or equals or 34729
exceeds two grams but is less than ten grams of hashish in a 34730
liquid concentrate, liquid extract, or liquid distillate form, 34731
trafficking in hashish is a felony of the fourth degree, and 34732
division (B) of section 2929.13 of the Revised Code applies in 34733
determining whether to impose a prison term on the offender. If 34734
the amount of the drug involved is within that range and if the 34735
offense was committed in the vicinity of a school or in the 34736
vicinity of a juvenile, trafficking in hashish is a felony of the 34737
third degree, and division (C) of section 2929.13 of the Revised 34738
Code applies in determining whether to impose a prison term on the 34739
offender.34740

       (d) Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the 34741
amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds fifty grams but is 34742
less than two hundred fifty grams of hashish in a solid form or 34743
equals or exceeds ten grams but is less than fifty grams of 34744
hashish in a liquid concentrate, liquid extract, or liquid 34745
distillate form, trafficking in hashish is a felony of the third 34746
degree, and division (C) of section 2929.13 of the Revised Code 34747
applies in determining whether to impose a prison term on the 34748
offender. If the amount of the drug involved is within that range 34749
and if the offense was committed in the vicinity of a school or in 34750
the vicinity of a juvenile, trafficking in hashish is a felony of 34751
the second degree, and there is a presumption that a prison term 34752
shall be imposed for the offense.34753

       (e) Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the 34754
amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds two hundred fifty 34755
grams but is less than one thousand grams of hashish in a solid 34756
form or equals or exceeds fifty grams but is less than two hundred 34757
grams of hashish in a liquid concentrate, liquid extract, or 34758
liquid distillate form, trafficking in hashish is a felony of the 34759
third degree, and there is a presumption that a prison term shall 34760
be imposed for the offense. If the amount of the drug involved is 34761
within that range and if the offense was committed in the vicinity 34762
of a school or in the vicinity of a juvenile, trafficking in 34763
hashish is a felony of the second degree, and there is a 34764
presumption that a prison term shall be imposed for the offense.34765

       (f) Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the 34766
amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds one thousand grams 34767
but is less than two thousand grams of hashish in a solid form or 34768
equals or exceeds two hundred grams but is less than four hundred 34769
grams of hashish in a liquid concentrate, liquid extract, or 34770
liquid distillate form, trafficking in hashish is a felony of the 34771
second degree, and the court shall impose a mandatory prison term 34772
of five, six, seven, or eight years. If the amount of the drug 34773
involved is within that range and if the offense was committed in 34774
the vicinity of a school or in the vicinity of a juvenile, 34775
trafficking in hashish is a felony of the first degree, and the 34776
court shall impose as a mandatory prison term the maximum prison 34777
term prescribed for a felony of the first degree.34778

       (g) Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the 34779
amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds two thousand grams 34780
of hashish in a solid form or equals or exceeds four hundred grams 34781
of hashish in a liquid concentrate, liquid extract, or liquid 34782
distillate form, trafficking in hashish is a felony of the second 34783
degree, and the court shall impose as a mandatory prison term the 34784
maximum prison term prescribed for a felony of the second degree. 34785
If the amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds two thousand 34786
grams of hashish in a solid form or equals or exceeds four hundred 34787
grams of hashish in a liquid concentrate, liquid extract, or 34788
liquid distillate form and if the offense was committed in the 34789
vicinity of a school or in the vicinity of a juvenile, trafficking 34790
in hashish is a felony of the first degree, and the court shall 34791
impose as a mandatory prison term the maximum prison term 34792
prescribed for a felony of the first degree.34793

       (8) If the drug involved in the violation is a controlled 34794
substance analog or compound, mixture, preparation, or substance 34795
that contains a controlled substance analog, whoever violates 34796
division (A) of this section is guilty of trafficking in a 34797
controlled substance analog. The penalty for the offense shall be 34798
determined as follows:34799

       (a) Except as otherwise provided in division (C)(8)(b), (c), 34800
(d), (e), (f), or (g) of this section, trafficking in a controlled 34801
substance analog is a felony of the fifth degree, and division (C) 34802
of section 2929.13 of the Revised Code applies in determining 34803
whether to impose a prison term on the offender.34804

       (b) Except as otherwise provided in division (C)(8)(c), (d), 34805
(e), (f), or (g) of this section, if the offense was committed in 34806
the vicinity of a school or in the vicinity of a juvenile, 34807
trafficking in a controlled substance analog is a felony of the 34808
fourth degree, and division (C) of section 2929.13 of the Revised 34809
Code applies in determining whether to impose a prison term on the 34810
offender.34811

       (c) Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the 34812
amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds ten grams but is 34813
less than twenty grams, trafficking in a controlled substance 34814
analog is a felony of the fourth degree, and division (B) of 34815
section 2929.13 of the Revised Code applies in determining whether 34816
to impose a prison term for the offense. If the amount of the drug 34817
involved is within that range and if the offense was committed in 34818
the vicinity of a school or in the vicinity of a juvenile, 34819
trafficking in a controlled substance analog is a felony of the 34820
third degree, and there is a presumption for a prison term for the 34821
offense.34822

       (d) Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the 34823
amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds twenty grams but is 34824
less than thirty grams, trafficking in a controlled substance 34825
analog is a felony of the third degree, and there is a presumption 34826
for a prison term for the offense. If the amount of the drug 34827
involved is within that range and if the offense was committed in 34828
the vicinity of a school or in the vicinity of a juvenile, 34829
trafficking in a controlled substance analog is a felony of the 34830
second degree, and there is a presumption for a prison term for 34831
the offense.34832

       (e) Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the 34833
amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds thirty grams but is 34834
less than forty grams, trafficking in a controlled substance 34835
analog is a felony of the second degree, and the court shall 34836
impose as a mandatory prison term one of the prison terms 34837
prescribed for a felony of the second degree. If the amount of the 34838
drug involved is within that range and if the offense was 34839
committed in the vicinity of a school or in the vicinity of a 34840
juvenile, trafficking in a controlled substance analog is a felony 34841
of the first degree, and the court shall impose as a mandatory 34842
prison term one of the prison terms prescribed for a felony of the 34843
first degree.34844

       (f) If the amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds 34845
forty grams but is less than fifty grams and regardless of whether 34846
the offense was committed in the vicinity of a school or in the 34847
vicinity of a juvenile, trafficking in a controlled substance 34848
analog is a felony of the first degree, and the court shall impose 34849
as a mandatory prison term one of the prison terms prescribed for 34850
a felony of the first degree.34851

       (g) If the amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds 34852
fifty grams and regardless of whether the offense was committed in 34853
the vicinity of a school or in the vicinity of a juvenile, 34854
trafficking in a controlled substance analog is a felony of the 34855
first degree, the offender is a major drug offender, and the court 34856
shall impose as a mandatory prison term the maximum prison term 34857
prescribed for a felony of the first degree.34858

       (D) In addition to any prison term authorized or required by 34859
division (C) of this section and sections 2929.13 and 2929.14 of 34860
the Revised Code, and in addition to any other sanction imposed 34861
for the offense under this section or sections 2929.11 to 2929.18 34862
of the Revised Code, the court that sentences an offender who is 34863
convicted of or pleads guilty to a violation of division (A) of 34864
this section shall do all of the following that are applicable 34865
regarding the offender:34866

       (1) If the violation of division (A) of this section is a 34867
felony of the first, second, or third degree, the court shall 34868
impose upon the offender the mandatory fine specified for the 34869
offense under division (B)(1) of section 2929.18 of the Revised 34870
Code unless, as specified in that division, the court determines 34871
that the offender is indigent. Except as otherwise provided in 34872
division (H)(1) of this section, a mandatory fine or any other 34873
fine imposed for a violation of this section is subject to 34874
division (F) of this section. If a person is charged with a 34875
violation of this section that is a felony of the first, second, 34876
or third degree, posts bail, and forfeits the bail, the clerk of 34877
the court shall pay the forfeited bail pursuant to divisions 34878
(D)(1) and (F) of this section, as if the forfeited bail was a 34879
fine imposed for a violation of this section. If any amount of the 34880
forfeited bail remains after that payment and if a fine is imposed 34881
under division (H)(1) of this section, the clerk of the court 34882
shall pay the remaining amount of the forfeited bail pursuant to 34883
divisions (H)(2) and (3) of this section, as if that remaining 34884
amount was a fine imposed under division (H)(1) of this section.34885

       (2) The court shall suspend the driver's or commercial 34886
driver's license or permit of the offender in accordance with 34887
division (G) of this section.34888

       (3) If the offender is a professionally licensed person, the 34889
court immediately shall comply with section 2925.38 of the Revised 34890
Code.34891

       (E) When a person is charged with the sale of or offer to 34892
sell a bulk amount or a multiple of a bulk amount of a controlled 34893
substance, the jury, or the court trying the accused, shall 34894
determine the amount of the controlled substance involved at the 34895
time of the offense and, if a guilty verdict is returned, shall 34896
return the findings as part of the verdict. In any such case, it 34897
is unnecessary to find and return the exact amount of the 34898
controlled substance involved, and it is sufficient if the finding 34899
and return is to the effect that the amount of the controlled 34900
substance involved is the requisite amount, or that the amount of 34901
the controlled substance involved is less than the requisite 34902
amount.34903

       (F)(1) Notwithstanding any contrary provision of section 34904
3719.21 of the Revised Code and except as provided in division (H) 34905
of this section, the clerk of the court shall pay any mandatory 34906
fine imposed pursuant to division (D)(1) of this section and any 34907
fine other than a mandatory fine that is imposed for a violation 34908
of this section pursuant to division (A) or (B)(5) of section 34909
2929.18 of the Revised Code to the county, township, municipal 34910
corporation, park district, as created pursuant to section 511.18 34911
or 1545.04 of the Revised Code, or state law enforcement agencies 34912
in this state that primarily were responsible for or involved in 34913
making the arrest of, and in prosecuting, the offender. However, 34914
the clerk shall not pay a mandatory fine so imposed to a law 34915
enforcement agency unless the agency has adopted a written 34916
internal control policy under division (F)(2) of this section that 34917
addresses the use of the fine moneys that it receives. Each agency 34918
shall use the mandatory fines so paid to subsidize the agency's 34919
law enforcement efforts that pertain to drug offenses, in 34920
accordance with the written internal control policy adopted by the 34921
recipient agency under division (F)(2) of this section.34922

       (2)(a) Prior to receiving any fine moneys under division 34923
(F)(1) of this section or division (B) of section 2925.42 of the 34924
Revised Code, a law enforcement agency shall adopt a written 34925
internal control policy that addresses the agency's use and 34926
disposition of all fine moneys so received and that provides for 34927
the keeping of detailed financial records of the receipts of those 34928
fine moneys, the general types of expenditures made out of those 34929
fine moneys, and the specific amount of each general type of 34930
expenditure. The policy shall not provide for or permit the 34931
identification of any specific expenditure that is made in an 34932
ongoing investigation. All financial records of the receipts of 34933
those fine moneys, the general types of expenditures made out of 34934
those fine moneys, and the specific amount of each general type of 34935
expenditure by an agency are public records open for inspection 34936
under section 149.43 of the Revised Code. Additionally, a written 34937
internal control policy adopted under this division is such a 34938
public record, and the agency that adopted it shall comply with 34939
it.34940

       (b) Each law enforcement agency that receives in any calendar 34941
year any fine moneys under division (F)(1) of this section or 34942
division (B) of section 2925.42 of the Revised Code shall prepare 34943
a report covering the calendar year that cumulates all of the 34944
information contained in all of the public financial records kept 34945
by the agency pursuant to division (F)(2)(a) of this section for 34946
that calendar year, and shall send a copy of the cumulative 34947
report, no later than the first day of March in the calendar year 34948
following the calendar year covered by the report, to the attorney 34949
general. Each report received by the attorney general is a public 34950
record open for inspection under section 149.43 of the Revised 34951
Code. Not later than the fifteenth day of April in the calendar 34952
year in which the reports are received, the attorney general shall 34953
send to the president of the senate and the speaker of the house 34954
of representatives a written notification that does all of the 34955
following:34956

       (i) Indicates that the attorney general has received from law 34957
enforcement agencies reports of the type described in this 34958
division that cover the previous calendar year and indicates that 34959
the reports were received under this division;34960

       (ii) Indicates that the reports are open for inspection under 34961
section 149.43 of the Revised Code;34962

       (iii) Indicates that the attorney general will provide a copy 34963
of any or all of the reports to the president of the senate or the 34964
speaker of the house of representatives upon request.34965

       (3) As used in division (F) of this section:34966

       (a) "Law enforcement agencies" includes, but is not limited 34967
to, the state board of pharmacy and the office of a prosecutor.34968

       (b) "Prosecutor" has the same meaning as in section 2935.01 34969
of the Revised Code.34970

       (G) When required under division (D)(2) of this section or 34971
any other provision of this chapter, the court shall suspend for 34972
not less than six months or more than five years the driver's or 34973
commercial driver's license or permit of any person who is 34974
convicted of or pleads guilty to any violation of this section or 34975
any other specified provision of this chapter. If an offender's 34976
driver's or commercial driver's license or permit is suspended 34977
pursuant to this division, the offender, at any time after the 34978
expiration of two years from the day on which the offender's 34979
sentence was imposed or from the day on which the offender finally 34980
was released from a prison term under the sentence, whichever is 34981
later, may file a motion with the sentencing court requesting 34982
termination of the suspension; upon the filing of such a motion 34983
and the court's finding of good cause for the termination, the 34984
court may terminate the suspension.34985

       (H)(1) In addition to any prison term authorized or required 34986
by division (C) of this section and sections 2929.13 and 2929.14 34987
of the Revised Code, in addition to any other penalty or sanction 34988
imposed for the offense under this section or sections 2929.11 to 34989
2929.18 of the Revised Code, and in addition to the forfeiture of 34990
property in connection with the offense as prescribed in Chapter 34991
2981. of the Revised Code, the court that sentences an offender 34992
who is convicted of or pleads guilty to a violation of division 34993
(A) of this section may impose upon the offender an additional 34994
fine specified for the offense in division (B)(4) of section 34995
2929.18 of the Revised Code. A fine imposed under division (H)(1) 34996
of this section is not subject to division (F) of this section and 34997
shall be used solely for the support of one or more eligible 34998
alcohol and drugcommunity addiction programsservices provider in 34999
accordance with divisions (H)(2) and (3) of this section.35000

       (2) The court that imposes a fine under division (H)(1) of 35001
this section shall specify in the judgment that imposes the fine 35002
one or more eligible alcohol and drugcommunity addiction programs35003
services provider for the support of which the fine money is to be 35004
used. No alcohol and drugcommunity addiction programservices 35005
provider shall receive or use money paid or collected in 35006
satisfaction of a fine imposed under division (H)(1) of this 35007
section unless the programservices provider is specified in the 35008
judgment that imposes the fine. No alcohol and drugcommunity35009
addiction programservices provider shall be specified in the 35010
judgment unless the programservices provider is an eligible 35011
alcohol and drugcommunity addiction programservices provider35012
and, except as otherwise provided in division (H)(2) of this 35013
section, unless the programservices provider is located in the 35014
county in which the court that imposes the fine is located or in a 35015
county that is immediately contiguous to the county in which that 35016
court is located. If no eligible alcohol and drugcommunity35017
addiction programservices provider is located in any of those 35018
counties, the judgment may specify an eligible alcohol and drug35019
community addiction programservices provider that is located 35020
anywhere within this state.35021

       (3) Notwithstanding any contrary provision of section 3719.21 35022
of the Revised Code, the clerk of the court shall pay any fine 35023
imposed under division (H)(1) of this section to the eligible 35024
alcohol and drugcommunity addiction programservices provider35025
specified pursuant to division (H)(2) of this section in the 35026
judgment. The eligible alcohol and drugcommunity addiction 35027
programservices provider that receives the fine moneys shall use 35028
the moneys only for the alcohol and drug addiction services 35029
identified in the application for certification under section 35030
3793.065119.36 of the Revised Code or in the application for a 35031
license under section 3793.115119.39 of the Revised Code filed 35032
with the department of alcohol and drug addiction servicesmental 35033
health and addiction services by the alcohol and drugcommunity35034
addiction programservices provider specified in the judgment.35035

       (4) Each alcohol and drugcommunity addiction program35036
services provider that receives in a calendar year any fine moneys 35037
under division (H)(3) of this section shall file an annual report 35038
covering that calendar year with the court of common pleas and the 35039
board of county commissioners of the county in which the program35040
services provider is located, with the court of common pleas and 35041
the board of county commissioners of each county from which the 35042
programservices provider received the moneys if that county is 35043
different from the county in which the programservices provider35044
is located, and with the attorney general. The alcohol and drug35045
community addiction programservices provider shall file the 35046
report no later than the first day of March in the calendar year 35047
following the calendar year in which the programservices provider35048
received the fine moneys. The report shall include statistics on 35049
the number of persons served by the alcohol and drugcommunity35050
addiction programservices provider, identify the types of alcohol 35051
and drug addiction services provided to those persons, and include 35052
a specific accounting of the purposes for which the fine moneys 35053
received were used. No information contained in the report shall 35054
identify, or enable a person to determine the identity of, any 35055
person served by the alcohol and drugcommunity addiction program35056
services provider. Each report received by a court of common 35057
pleas, a board of county commissioners, or the attorney general is 35058
a public record open for inspection under section 149.43 of the 35059
Revised Code.35060

       (5) As used in divisions (H)(1) to (5) of this section:35061

       (a) "Alcohol and drugCommunity addiction programservices 35062
provider" and "alcohol and drug addiction services" have the same 35063
meanings as in section 3793.015119.01 of the Revised Code.35064

       (b) "Eligible alcohol and drugcommunity addiction program35065
services provider" means an alcohol and druga community addiction 35066
programservices provider that is certified under section 3793.0635067
5119.36 of the Revised Code or licensed under section 3793.1135068
5119.39 of the Revised Code by the department of alcohol and drug 35069
addiction servicesmental health and addiction services.35070

       (I) As used in this section, "drug" includes any substance 35071
that is represented to be a drug.35072

       (J) It is an affirmative defense to a charge of trafficking 35073
in a controlled substance analog under division (C)(8) of this 35074
section that the person charged with violating that offense sold 35075
or offered to sell, or prepared for shipment, shipped, 35076
transported, delivered, prepared for distribution, or distributed 35077
an item described in division (HH)(2)(a), (b), or (c) of section 35078
3719.01 of the Revised Code.35079

       Sec. 2929.13.  (A) Except as provided in division (E), (F), 35080
or (G) of this section and unless a specific sanction is required 35081
to be imposed or is precluded from being imposed pursuant to law, 35082
a court that imposes a sentence upon an offender for a felony may 35083
impose any sanction or combination of sanctions on the offender 35084
that are provided in sections 2929.14 to 2929.18 of the Revised 35085
Code. 35086

       If the offender is eligible to be sentenced to community 35087
control sanctions, the court shall consider the appropriateness of 35088
imposing a financial sanction pursuant to section 2929.18 of the 35089
Revised Code or a sanction of community service pursuant to 35090
section 2929.17 of the Revised Code as the sole sanction for the 35091
offense. Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the 35092
court is required to impose a mandatory prison term for the 35093
offense for which sentence is being imposed, the court also shall 35094
impose any financial sanction pursuant to section 2929.18 of the 35095
Revised Code that is required for the offense and may impose any 35096
other financial sanction pursuant to that section but may not 35097
impose any additional sanction or combination of sanctions under 35098
section 2929.16 or 2929.17 of the Revised Code.35099

       If the offender is being sentenced for a fourth degree felony 35100
OVI offense or for a third degree felony OVI offense, in addition 35101
to the mandatory term of local incarceration or the mandatory 35102
prison term required for the offense by division (G)(1) or (2) of 35103
this section, the court shall impose upon the offender a mandatory 35104
fine in accordance with division (B)(3) of section 2929.18 of the 35105
Revised Code and may impose whichever of the following is 35106
applicable:35107

       (1) For a fourth degree felony OVI offense for which sentence 35108
is imposed under division (G)(1) of this section, an additional 35109
community control sanction or combination of community control 35110
sanctions under section 2929.16 or 2929.17 of the Revised Code. If 35111
the court imposes upon the offender a community control sanction 35112
and the offender violates any condition of the community control 35113
sanction, the court may take any action prescribed in division (B) 35114
of section 2929.15 of the Revised Code relative to the offender, 35115
including imposing a prison term on the offender pursuant to that 35116
division.35117

       (2) For a third or fourth degree felony OVI offense for which 35118
sentence is imposed under division (G)(2) of this section, an 35119
additional prison term as described in division (B)(4) of section 35120
2929.14 of the Revised Code or a community control sanction as 35121
described in division (G)(2) of this section.35122

       (B)(1)(a) Except as provided in division (B)(1)(b) of this 35123
section, if an offender is convicted of or pleads guilty to a 35124
felony of the fourth or fifth degree that is not an offense of 35125
violence or that is a qualifying assault offense, the court shall 35126
sentence the offender to a community control sanction of at least 35127
one year's duration if all of the following apply: 35128

       (i) The offender previously has not been convicted of or 35129
pleaded guilty to a felony offense. 35130

       (ii) The most serious charge against the offender at the time 35131
of sentencing is a felony of the fourth or fifth degree.35132

       (iii) If the court made a request of the department of 35133
rehabilitation and correction pursuant to division (B)(1)(c) of 35134
this section, the department, within the forty-five-day period 35135
specified in that division, provided the court with the names of, 35136
contact information for, and program details of one or more 35137
community control sanctions of at least one year's duration that 35138
are available for persons sentenced by the court.35139

       (iv) The offender previously has not been convicted of or 35140
pleaded guilty to a misdemeanor offense of violence that the 35141
offender committed within two years prior to the offense for which 35142
sentence is being imposed.35143

       (b) The court has discretion to impose a prison term upon an 35144
offender who is convicted of or pleads guilty to a felony of the 35145
fourth or fifth degree that is not an offense of violence or that 35146
is a qualifying assault offense if any of the following apply: 35147

       (i) The offender committed the offense while having a firearm 35148
on or about the offender's person or under the offender's control. 35149

       (ii) If the offense is a qualifying assault offense, the 35150
offender caused serious physical harm to another person while 35151
committing the offense, and, if the offense is not a qualifying 35152
assault offense, the offender caused physical harm to another 35153
person while committing the offense. 35154

       (iii) The offender violated a term of the conditions of bond 35155
as set by the court.35156

       (iv) The court made a request of the department of 35157
rehabilitation and correction pursuant to division (B)(1)(c) of 35158
this section, and the department, within the forty-five-day period 35159
specified in that division, did not provide the court with the 35160
name of, contact information for, and program details of any 35161
community control sanction of at least one year's duration that is 35162
available for persons sentenced by the court.35163

       (v) The offense is a sex offense that is a fourth or fifth 35164
degree felony violation of any provision of Chapter 2907. of the 35165
Revised Code.35166

       (vi) In committing the offense, the offender attempted to 35167
cause or made an actual threat of physical harm to a person with a 35168
deadly weapon.35169

       (vii) In committing the offense, the offender attempted to 35170
cause or made an actual threat of physical harm to a person, and 35171
the offender previously was convicted of an offense that caused 35172
physical harm to a person. 35173

       (viii) The offender held a public office or position of 35174
trust, and the offense related to that office or position; the 35175
offender's position obliged the offender to prevent the offense or 35176
to bring those committing it to justice; or the offender's 35177
professional reputation or position facilitated the offense or was 35178
likely to influence the future conduct of others.35179

       (ix) The offender committed the offense for hire or as part 35180
of an organized criminal activity.35181

       (x) The offender at the time of the offense was serving, or 35182
the offender previously had served, a prison term.35183

       (xi) The offender committed the offense while under a 35184
community control sanction, while on probation, or while released 35185
from custody on a bond or personal recognizance.35186

       (c) If a court that is sentencing an offender who is 35187
convicted of or pleads guilty to a felony of the fourth or fifth 35188
degree that is not an offense of violence or that is a qualifying 35189
assault offense believes that no community control sanctions are 35190
available for its use that, if imposed on the offender, will 35191
adequately fulfill the overriding principles and purposes of 35192
sentencing, the court shall contact the department of 35193
rehabilitation and correction and ask the department to provide 35194
the court with the names of, contact information for, and program 35195
details of one or more community control sanctions of at least one 35196
year's duration that are available for persons sentenced by the 35197
court. Not later than forty-five days after receipt of a request 35198
from a court under this division, the department shall provide the 35199
court with the names of, contact information for, and program 35200
details of one or more community control sanctions of at least one 35201
year's duration that are available for persons sentenced by the 35202
court, if any. Upon making a request under this division that 35203
relates to a particular offender, a court shall defer sentencing 35204
of that offender until it receives from the department the names 35205
of, contact information for, and program details of one or more 35206
community control sanctions of at least one year's duration that 35207
are available for persons sentenced by the court or for forty-five 35208
days, whichever is the earlier.35209

       If the department provides the court with the names of, 35210
contact information for, and program details of one or more 35211
community control sanctions of at least one year's duration that 35212
are available for persons sentenced by the court within the 35213
forty-five-day period specified in this division, the court shall 35214
impose upon the offender a community control sanction under 35215
division (B)(1)(a) of this section, except that the court may 35216
impose a prison term under division (B)(1)(b) of this section if a 35217
factor described in division (B)(1)(b)(i) or (ii) of this section 35218
applies. If the department does not provide the court with the 35219
names of, contact information for, and program details of one or 35220
more community control sanctions of at least one year's duration 35221
that are available for persons sentenced by the court within the 35222
forty-five-day period specified in this division, the court may 35223
impose upon the offender a prison term under division 35224
(B)(1)(b)(iv) of this section.35225

       (d) A sentencing court may impose an additional penalty under 35226
division (B) of section 2929.15 of the Revised Code upon an 35227
offender sentenced to a community control sanction under division 35228
(B)(1)(a) of this section if the offender violates the conditions 35229
of the community control sanction, violates a law, or leaves the 35230
state without the permission of the court or the offender's 35231
probation officer.35232

       (2) If division (B)(1) of this section does not apply, except 35233
as provided in division (E), (F), or (G) of this section, in 35234
determining whether to impose a prison term as a sanction for a 35235
felony of the fourth or fifth degree, the sentencing court shall 35236
comply with the purposes and principles of sentencing under 35237
section 2929.11 of the Revised Code and with section 2929.12 of 35238
the Revised Code.35239

       (C) Except as provided in division (D), (E), (F), or (G) of 35240
this section, in determining whether to impose a prison term as a 35241
sanction for a felony of the third degree or a felony drug offense 35242
that is a violation of a provision of Chapter 2925. of the Revised 35243
Code and that is specified as being subject to this division for 35244
purposes of sentencing, the sentencing court shall comply with the 35245
purposes and principles of sentencing under section 2929.11 of the 35246
Revised Code and with section 2929.12 of the Revised Code.35247

       (D)(1) Except as provided in division (E) or (F) of this 35248
section, for a felony of the first or second degree, for a felony 35249
drug offense that is a violation of any provision of Chapter 35250
2925., 3719., or 4729. of the Revised Code for which a presumption 35251
in favor of a prison term is specified as being applicable, and 35252
for a violation of division (A)(4) or (B) of section 2907.05 of 35253
the Revised Code for which a presumption in favor of a prison term 35254
is specified as being applicable, it is presumed that a prison 35255
term is necessary in order to comply with the purposes and 35256
principles of sentencing under section 2929.11 of the Revised 35257
Code. Division (D)(2) of this section does not apply to a 35258
presumption established under this division for a violation of 35259
division (A)(4) of section 2907.05 of the Revised Code.35260

       (2) Notwithstanding the presumption established under 35261
division (D)(1) of this section for the offenses listed in that 35262
division other than a violation of division (A)(4) or (B) of 35263
section 2907.05 of the Revised Code, the sentencing court may 35264
impose a community control sanction or a combination of community 35265
control sanctions instead of a prison term on an offender for a 35266
felony of the first or second degree or for a felony drug offense 35267
that is a violation of any provision of Chapter 2925., 3719., or 35268
4729. of the Revised Code for which a presumption in favor of a 35269
prison term is specified as being applicable if it makes both of 35270
the following findings:35271

       (a) A community control sanction or a combination of 35272
community control sanctions would adequately punish the offender 35273
and protect the public from future crime, because the applicable 35274
factors under section 2929.12 of the Revised Code indicating a 35275
lesser likelihood of recidivism outweigh the applicable factors 35276
under that section indicating a greater likelihood of recidivism.35277

       (b) A community control sanction or a combination of 35278
community control sanctions would not demean the seriousness of 35279
the offense, because one or more factors under section 2929.12 of 35280
the Revised Code that indicate that the offender's conduct was 35281
less serious than conduct normally constituting the offense are 35282
applicable, and they outweigh the applicable factors under that 35283
section that indicate that the offender's conduct was more serious 35284
than conduct normally constituting the offense.35285

       (E)(1) Except as provided in division (F) of this section, 35286
for any drug offense that is a violation of any provision of 35287
Chapter 2925. of the Revised Code and that is a felony of the 35288
third, fourth, or fifth degree, the applicability of a presumption 35289
under division (D) of this section in favor of a prison term or of 35290
division (B) or (C) of this section in determining whether to 35291
impose a prison term for the offense shall be determined as 35292
specified in section 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.04, 2925.05, 2925.06, 35293
2925.11, 2925.13, 2925.22, 2925.23, 2925.36, or 2925.37 of the 35294
Revised Code, whichever is applicable regarding the violation.35295

       (2) If an offender who was convicted of or pleaded guilty to 35296
a felony violates the conditions of a community control sanction 35297
imposed for the offense solely by reason of producing positive 35298
results on a drug test, the court, as punishment for the violation 35299
of the sanction, shall not order that the offender be imprisoned 35300
unless the court determines on the record either of the following:35301

       (a) The offender had been ordered as a sanction for the 35302
felony to participate in a drug treatment program, in a drug 35303
education program, or in narcotics anonymous or a similar program, 35304
and the offender continued to use illegal drugs after a reasonable 35305
period of participation in the program.35306

       (b) The imprisonment of the offender for the violation is 35307
consistent with the purposes and principles of sentencing set 35308
forth in section 2929.11 of the Revised Code.35309

       (3) A court that sentences an offender for a drug abuse 35310
offense that is a felony of the third, fourth, or fifth degree may 35311
require that the offender be assessed by a properly credentialed 35312
professional within a specified period of time. The court shall 35313
require the professional to file a written assessment of the 35314
offender with the court. If the offender is eligible for a 35315
community control sanction and after considering the written 35316
assessment, the court may impose a community control sanction that 35317
includes treatment and recovery support services authorized by 35318
section 3793.025119.21 of the Revised Code. If the court imposes 35319
treatment and recovery support services as a community control 35320
sanction, the court shall direct the level and type of treatment 35321
and recovery support services after considering the assessment and 35322
recommendation of treatment and recovery support services 35323
providers.35324

       (F) Notwithstanding divisions (A) to (E) of this section, the 35325
court shall impose a prison term or terms under sections 2929.02 35326
to 2929.06, section 2929.14, section 2929.142, or section 2971.03 35327
of the Revised Code and except as specifically provided in section 35328
2929.20, divisions (C) to (I) of section 2967.19, or section 35329
2967.191 of the Revised Code or when parole is authorized for the 35330
offense under section 2967.13 of the Revised Code shall not reduce 35331
the term or terms pursuant to section 2929.20, section 2967.19, 35332
section 2967.193, or any other provision of Chapter 2967. or 35333
Chapter 5120. of the Revised Code for any of the following 35334
offenses:35335

       (1) Aggravated murder when death is not imposed or murder;35336

       (2) Any rape, regardless of whether force was involved and 35337
regardless of the age of the victim, or an attempt to commit rape 35338
if, had the offender completed the rape that was attempted, the 35339
offender would have been guilty of a violation of division 35340
(A)(1)(b) of section 2907.02 of the Revised Code and would be 35341
sentenced under section 2971.03 of the Revised Code;35342

       (3) Gross sexual imposition or sexual battery, if the victim 35343
is less than thirteen years of age and if any of the following 35344
applies:35345

       (a) Regarding gross sexual imposition, the offender 35346
previously was convicted of or pleaded guilty to rape, the former 35347
offense of felonious sexual penetration, gross sexual imposition, 35348
or sexual battery, and the victim of the previous offense was less 35349
than thirteen years of age;35350

       (b) Regarding gross sexual imposition, the offense was 35351
committed on or after August 3, 2006, and evidence other than the 35352
testimony of the victim was admitted in the case corroborating the 35353
violation.35354

       (c) Regarding sexual battery, either of the following 35355
applies:35356

       (i) The offense was committed prior to August 3, 2006, the 35357
offender previously was convicted of or pleaded guilty to rape, 35358
the former offense of felonious sexual penetration, or sexual 35359
battery, and the victim of the previous offense was less than 35360
thirteen years of age.35361

       (ii) The offense was committed on or after August 3, 2006.35362

       (4) A felony violation of section 2903.04, 2903.06, 2903.08, 35363
2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2905.32, or 2907.07 of the Revised Code 35364
if the section requires the imposition of a prison term;35365

       (5) A first, second, or third degree felony drug offense for 35366
which section 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.04, 2925.05, 2925.06, 35367
2925.11, 2925.13, 2925.22, 2925.23, 2925.36, 2925.37, 3719.99, or 35368
4729.99 of the Revised Code, whichever is applicable regarding the 35369
violation, requires the imposition of a mandatory prison term;35370

       (6) Any offense that is a first or second degree felony and 35371
that is not set forth in division (F)(1), (2), (3), or (4) of this 35372
section, if the offender previously was convicted of or pleaded 35373
guilty to aggravated murder, murder, any first or second degree 35374
felony, or an offense under an existing or former law of this 35375
state, another state, or the United States that is or was 35376
substantially equivalent to one of those offenses;35377

       (7) Any offense that is a third degree felony and either is a 35378
violation of section 2903.04 of the Revised Code or an attempt to 35379
commit a felony of the second degree that is an offense of 35380
violence and involved an attempt to cause serious physical harm to 35381
a person or that resulted in serious physical harm to a person if 35382
the offender previously was convicted of or pleaded guilty to any 35383
of the following offenses:35384

       (a) Aggravated murder, murder, involuntary manslaughter, 35385
rape, felonious sexual penetration as it existed under section 35386
2907.12 of the Revised Code prior to September 3, 1996, a felony 35387
of the first or second degree that resulted in the death of a 35388
person or in physical harm to a person, or complicity in or an 35389
attempt to commit any of those offenses;35390

       (b) An offense under an existing or former law of this state, 35391
another state, or the United States that is or was substantially 35392
equivalent to an offense listed in division (F)(7)(a) of this 35393
section that resulted in the death of a person or in physical harm 35394
to a person.35395

       (8) Any offense, other than a violation of section 2923.12 of 35396
the Revised Code, that is a felony, if the offender had a firearm 35397
on or about the offender's person or under the offender's control 35398
while committing the felony, with respect to a portion of the 35399
sentence imposed pursuant to division (B)(1)(a) of section 2929.14 35400
of the Revised Code for having the firearm;35401

       (9) Any offense of violence that is a felony, if the offender 35402
wore or carried body armor while committing the felony offense of 35403
violence, with respect to the portion of the sentence imposed 35404
pursuant to division (B)(1)(d) of section 2929.14 of the Revised 35405
Code for wearing or carrying the body armor;35406

       (10) Corrupt activity in violation of section 2923.32 of the 35407
Revised Code when the most serious offense in the pattern of 35408
corrupt activity that is the basis of the offense is a felony of 35409
the first degree;35410

       (11) Any violent sex offense or designated homicide, assault, 35411
or kidnapping offense if, in relation to that offense, the 35412
offender is adjudicated a sexually violent predator;35413

       (12) A violation of division (A)(1) or (2) of section 2921.36 35414
of the Revised Code, or a violation of division (C) of that 35415
section involving an item listed in division (A)(1) or (2) of that 35416
section, if the offender is an officer or employee of the 35417
department of rehabilitation and correction;35418

        (13) A violation of division (A)(1) or (2) of section 2903.06 35419
of the Revised Code if the victim of the offense is a peace 35420
officer, as defined in section 2935.01 of the Revised Code, or an 35421
investigator of the bureau of criminal identification and 35422
investigation, as defined in section 2903.11 of the Revised Code, 35423
with respect to the portion of the sentence imposed pursuant to 35424
division (B)(5) of section 2929.14 of the Revised Code;35425

        (14) A violation of division (A)(1) or (2) of section 2903.06 35426
of the Revised Code if the offender has been convicted of or 35427
pleaded guilty to three or more violations of division (A) or (B) 35428
of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code or an equivalent offense, 35429
as defined in section 2941.1415 of the Revised Code, or three or 35430
more violations of any combination of those divisions and 35431
offenses, with respect to the portion of the sentence imposed 35432
pursuant to division (B)(6) of section 2929.14 of the Revised 35433
Code;35434

       (15) Kidnapping, in the circumstances specified in section 35435
2971.03 of the Revised Code and when no other provision of 35436
division (F) of this section applies;35437

        (16) Kidnapping, abduction, compelling prostitution, 35438
promoting prostitution, engaging in a pattern of corrupt activity, 35439
illegal use of a minor in a nudity-oriented material or 35440
performance in violation of division (A)(1) or (2) of section 35441
2907.323 of the Revised Code, or endangering children in violation 35442
of division (B)(1), (2), (3), (4), or (5) of section 2919.22 of 35443
the Revised Code, if the offender is convicted of or pleads guilty 35444
to a specification as described in section 2941.1422 of the 35445
Revised Code that was included in the indictment, count in the 35446
indictment, or information charging the offense;35447

       (17) A felony violation of division (A) or (B) of section 35448
2919.25 of the Revised Code if division (D)(3), (4), or (5) of 35449
that section, and division (D)(6) of that section, require the 35450
imposition of a prison term;35451

       (18) A felony violation of section 2903.11, 2903.12, or 35452
2903.13 of the Revised Code, if the victim of the offense was a 35453
woman that the offender knew was pregnant at the time of the 35454
violation, with respect to a portion of the sentence imposed 35455
pursuant to division (B)(8) of section 2929.14 of the Revised 35456
Code.35457

       (G) Notwithstanding divisions (A) to (E) of this section, if 35458
an offender is being sentenced for a fourth degree felony OVI 35459
offense or for a third degree felony OVI offense, the court shall 35460
impose upon the offender a mandatory term of local incarceration 35461
or a mandatory prison term in accordance with the following:35462

       (1) If the offender is being sentenced for a fourth degree 35463
felony OVI offense and if the offender has not been convicted of 35464
and has not pleaded guilty to a specification of the type 35465
described in section 2941.1413 of the Revised Code, the court may 35466
impose upon the offender a mandatory term of local incarceration 35467
of sixty days or one hundred twenty days as specified in division 35468
(G)(1)(d) of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code. The court shall 35469
not reduce the term pursuant to section 2929.20, 2967.193, or any 35470
other provision of the Revised Code. The court that imposes a 35471
mandatory term of local incarceration under this division shall 35472
specify whether the term is to be served in a jail, a 35473
community-based correctional facility, a halfway house, or an 35474
alternative residential facility, and the offender shall serve the 35475
term in the type of facility specified by the court. A mandatory 35476
term of local incarceration imposed under division (G)(1) of this 35477
section is not subject to any other Revised Code provision that 35478
pertains to a prison term except as provided in division (A)(1) of 35479
this section.35480

       (2) If the offender is being sentenced for a third degree 35481
felony OVI offense, or if the offender is being sentenced for a 35482
fourth degree felony OVI offense and the court does not impose a 35483
mandatory term of local incarceration under division (G)(1) of 35484
this section, the court shall impose upon the offender a mandatory 35485
prison term of one, two, three, four, or five years if the 35486
offender also is convicted of or also pleads guilty to a 35487
specification of the type described in section 2941.1413 of the 35488
Revised Code or shall impose upon the offender a mandatory prison 35489
term of sixty days or one hundred twenty days as specified in 35490
division (G)(1)(d) or (e) of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code 35491
if the offender has not been convicted of and has not pleaded 35492
guilty to a specification of that type. Subject to divisions (C) 35493
to (I) of section 2967.19 of the Revised Code, the court shall not 35494
reduce the term pursuant to section 2929.20, 2967.19, 2967.193, or 35495
any other provision of the Revised Code. The offender shall serve 35496
the one-, two-, three-, four-, or five-year mandatory prison term 35497
consecutively to and prior to the prison term imposed for the 35498
underlying offense and consecutively to any other mandatory prison 35499
term imposed in relation to the offense. In no case shall an 35500
offender who once has been sentenced to a mandatory term of local 35501
incarceration pursuant to division (G)(1) of this section for a 35502
fourth degree felony OVI offense be sentenced to another mandatory 35503
term of local incarceration under that division for any violation 35504
of division (A) of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code. In 35505
addition to the mandatory prison term described in division (G)(2) 35506
of this section, the court may sentence the offender to a 35507
community control sanction under section 2929.16 or 2929.17 of the 35508
Revised Code, but the offender shall serve the prison term prior 35509
to serving the community control sanction. The department of 35510
rehabilitation and correction may place an offender sentenced to a 35511
mandatory prison term under this division in an intensive program 35512
prison established pursuant to section 5120.033 of the Revised 35513
Code if the department gave the sentencing judge prior notice of 35514
its intent to place the offender in an intensive program prison 35515
established under that section and if the judge did not notify the 35516
department that the judge disapproved the placement. Upon the 35517
establishment of the initial intensive program prison pursuant to 35518
section 5120.033 of the Revised Code that is privately operated 35519
and managed by a contractor pursuant to a contract entered into 35520
under section 9.06 of the Revised Code, both of the following 35521
apply:35522

       (a) The department of rehabilitation and correction shall 35523
make a reasonable effort to ensure that a sufficient number of 35524
offenders sentenced to a mandatory prison term under this division 35525
are placed in the privately operated and managed prison so that 35526
the privately operated and managed prison has full occupancy.35527

       (b) Unless the privately operated and managed prison has full 35528
occupancy, the department of rehabilitation and correction shall 35529
not place any offender sentenced to a mandatory prison term under 35530
this division in any intensive program prison established pursuant 35531
to section 5120.033 of the Revised Code other than the privately 35532
operated and managed prison.35533

       (H) If an offender is being sentenced for a sexually oriented 35534
offense or child-victim oriented offense that is a felony 35535
committed on or after January 1, 1997, the judge shall require the 35536
offender to submit to a DNA specimen collection procedure pursuant 35537
to section 2901.07 of the Revised Code.35538

       (I) If an offender is being sentenced for a sexually oriented 35539
offense or a child-victim oriented offense committed on or after 35540
January 1, 1997, the judge shall include in the sentence a summary 35541
of the offender's duties imposed under sections 2950.04, 2950.041, 35542
2950.05, and 2950.06 of the Revised Code and the duration of the 35543
duties. The judge shall inform the offender, at the time of 35544
sentencing, of those duties and of their duration. If required 35545
under division (A)(2) of section 2950.03 of the Revised Code, the 35546
judge shall perform the duties specified in that section, or, if 35547
required under division (A)(6) of section 2950.03 of the Revised 35548
Code, the judge shall perform the duties specified in that 35549
division.35550

       (J)(1) Except as provided in division (J)(2) of this section, 35551
when considering sentencing factors under this section in relation 35552
to an offender who is convicted of or pleads guilty to an attempt 35553
to commit an offense in violation of section 2923.02 of the 35554
Revised Code, the sentencing court shall consider the factors 35555
applicable to the felony category of the violation of section 35556
2923.02 of the Revised Code instead of the factors applicable to 35557
the felony category of the offense attempted.35558

       (2) When considering sentencing factors under this section in 35559
relation to an offender who is convicted of or pleads guilty to an 35560
attempt to commit a drug abuse offense for which the penalty is 35561
determined by the amount or number of unit doses of the controlled 35562
substance involved in the drug abuse offense, the sentencing court 35563
shall consider the factors applicable to the felony category that 35564
the drug abuse offense attempted would be if that drug abuse 35565
offense had been committed and had involved an amount or number of 35566
unit doses of the controlled substance that is within the next 35567
lower range of controlled substance amounts than was involved in 35568
the attempt.35569

       (K) As used in this section:35570

       (1) "Drug abuse offense" has the same meaning as in section 35571
2925.01 of the Revised Code.35572

       (2) "Qualifying assault offense" means a violation of section 35573
2903.13 of the Revised Code for which the penalty provision in 35574
division (C)(7)(8)(b) or (C)(8)(9)(b) of that section applies.35575

       (L) At the time of sentencing an offender for any sexually 35576
oriented offense, if the offender is a tier III sex 35577
offender/child-victim offender relative to that offense and the 35578
offender does not serve a prison term or jail term, the court may 35579
require that the offender be monitored by means of a global 35580
positioning device. If the court requires such monitoring, the 35581
cost of monitoring shall be borne by the offender. If the offender 35582
is indigent, the cost of compliance shall be paid by the crime 35583
victims reparations fund.35584

       Sec. 2929.15.  (A)(1) If in sentencing an offender for a 35585
felony the court is not required to impose a prison term, a 35586
mandatory prison term, or a term of life imprisonment upon the 35587
offender, the court may directly impose a sentence that consists 35588
of one or more community control sanctions authorized pursuant to 35589
section 2929.16, 2929.17, or 2929.18 of the Revised Code. If the 35590
court is sentencing an offender for a fourth degree felony OVI 35591
offense under division (G)(1) of section 2929.13 of the Revised 35592
Code, in addition to the mandatory term of local incarceration 35593
imposed under that division and the mandatory fine required by 35594
division (B)(3) of section 2929.18 of the Revised Code, the court 35595
may impose upon the offender a community control sanction or 35596
combination of community control sanctions in accordance with 35597
sections 2929.16 and 2929.17 of the Revised Code. If the court is 35598
sentencing an offender for a third or fourth degree felony OVI 35599
offense under division (G)(2) of section 2929.13 of the Revised 35600
Code, in addition to the mandatory prison term or mandatory prison 35601
term and additional prison term imposed under that division, the 35602
court also may impose upon the offender a community control 35603
sanction or combination of community control sanctions under 35604
section 2929.16 or 2929.17 of the Revised Code, but the offender 35605
shall serve all of the prison terms so imposed prior to serving 35606
the community control sanction.35607

        The duration of all community control sanctions imposed upon 35608
an offender under this division shall not exceed five years. If 35609
the offender absconds or otherwise leaves the jurisdiction of the 35610
court in which the offender resides without obtaining permission 35611
from the court or the offender's probation officer to leave the 35612
jurisdiction of the court, or if the offender is confined in any 35613
institution for the commission of any offense while under a 35614
community control sanction, the period of the community control 35615
sanction ceases to run until the offender is brought before the 35616
court for its further action. If the court sentences the offender 35617
to one or more nonresidential sanctions under section 2929.17 of 35618
the Revised Code, the court shall impose as a condition of the 35619
nonresidential sanctions that, during the period of the sanctions, 35620
the offender must abide by the law and must not leave the state 35621
without the permission of the court or the offender's probation 35622
officer. The court may impose any other conditions of release 35623
under a community control sanction that the court considers 35624
appropriate, including, but not limited to, requiring that the 35625
offender not ingest or be injected with a drug of abuse and submit 35626
to random drug testing as provided in division (D) of this section 35627
to determine whether the offender ingested or was injected with a 35628
drug of abuse and requiring that the results of the drug test 35629
indicate that the offender did not ingest or was not injected with 35630
a drug of abuse.35631

       (2)(a) If a court sentences an offender to any community 35632
control sanction or combination of community control sanctions 35633
authorized pursuant to section 2929.16, 2929.17, or 2929.18 of the 35634
Revised Code, the court shall place the offender under the general 35635
control and supervision of a department of probation in the county 35636
that serves the court for purposes of reporting to the court a 35637
violation of any condition of the sanctions, any condition of 35638
release under a community control sanction imposed by the court, a 35639
violation of law, or the departure of the offender from this state 35640
without the permission of the court or the offender's probation 35641
officer. Alternatively, if the offender resides in another county 35642
and a county department of probation has been established in that 35643
county or that county is served by a multicounty probation 35644
department established under section 2301.27 of the Revised Code, 35645
the court may request the court of common pleas of that county to 35646
receive the offender into the general control and supervision of 35647
that county or multicounty department of probation for purposes of 35648
reporting to the court a violation of any condition of the 35649
sanctions, any condition of release under a community control 35650
sanction imposed by the court, a violation of law, or the 35651
departure of the offender from this state without the permission 35652
of the court or the offender's probation officer, subject to the 35653
jurisdiction of the trial judge over and with respect to the 35654
person of the offender, and to the rules governing that department 35655
of probation.35656

       If there is no department of probation in the county that 35657
serves the court, the court shall place the offender, regardless 35658
of the offender's county of residence, under the general control 35659
and supervision of the adult parole authority for purposes of 35660
reporting to the court a violation of any of the sanctions, any 35661
condition of release under a community control sanction imposed by 35662
the court, a violation of law, or the departure of the offender 35663
from this state without the permission of the court or the 35664
offender's probation officer.35665

       (b) If the court imposing sentence upon an offender sentences 35666
the offender to any community control sanction or combination of 35667
community control sanctions authorized pursuant to section 35668
2929.16, 2929.17, or 2929.18 of the Revised Code, and if the 35669
offender violates any condition of the sanctions, any condition of 35670
release under a community control sanction imposed by the court, 35671
violates any law, or departs the state without the permission of 35672
the court or the offender's probation officer, the public or 35673
private person or entity that operates or administers the sanction 35674
or the program or activity that comprises the sanction shall 35675
report the violation or departure directly to the sentencing 35676
court, or shall report the violation or departure to the county or 35677
multicounty department of probation with general control and 35678
supervision over the offender under division (A)(2)(a) of this 35679
section or the officer of that department who supervises the 35680
offender, or, if there is no such department with general control 35681
and supervision over the offender under that division, to the 35682
adult parole authority. If the public or private person or entity 35683
that operates or administers the sanction or the program or 35684
activity that comprises the sanction reports the violation or 35685
departure to the county or multicounty department of probation or 35686
the adult parole authority, the department's or authority's 35687
officers may treat the offender as if the offender were on 35688
probation and in violation of the probation, and shall report the 35689
violation of the condition of the sanction, any condition of 35690
release under a community control sanction imposed by the court, 35691
the violation of law, or the departure from the state without the 35692
required permission to the sentencing court.35693

       (3) If an offender who is eligible for community control 35694
sanctions under this section admits to being drug addicted or the 35695
court has reason to believe that the offender is drug addicted, 35696
and if the offense for which the offender is being sentenced was 35697
related to the addiction, the court may require that the offender 35698
be assessed by a properly credentialed professional within a 35699
specified period of time and shall require the professional to 35700
file a written assessment of the offender with the court. If a 35701
court imposes treatment and recovery support services as a 35702
community control sanction, the court shall direct the level and 35703
type of treatment and recovery support services after 35704
consideration of the written assessment, if available at the time 35705
of sentencing, and recommendations of the professional and other 35706
treatment and recovery support services providers.35707

        (4) If an assessment completed pursuant to division (A)(3) of 35708
this section indicates that the offender is addicted to drugs or 35709
alcohol, the court may include in any community control sanction 35710
imposed for a violation of section 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.04, 35711
2925.05, 2925.06, 2925.11, 2925.13, 2925.22, 2925.23, 2925.36, or 35712
2925.37 of the Revised Code a requirement that the offender 35713
participate in a treatment and recovery support services program 35714
certified under section 3793.065119.36 of the Revised Code or 35715
offered by another properly credentialed programcommunity 35716
addiction services provider.35717

       (B)(1) If the conditions of a community control sanction are 35718
violated or if the offender violates a law or leaves the state 35719
without the permission of the court or the offender's probation 35720
officer, the sentencing court may impose upon the violator one or 35721
more of the following penalties:35722

       (a) A longer time under the same sanction if the total time 35723
under the sanctions does not exceed the five-year limit specified 35724
in division (A) of this section;35725

       (b) A more restrictive sanction under section 2929.16, 35726
2929.17, or 2929.18 of the Revised Code;35727

       (c) A prison term on the offender pursuant to section 2929.14 35728
of the Revised Code. 35729

       (2) The prison term, if any, imposed upon a violator pursuant 35730
to this division shall be within the range of prison terms 35731
available for the offense for which the sanction that was violated 35732
was imposed and shall not exceed the prison term specified in the 35733
notice provided to the offender at the sentencing hearing pursuant 35734
to division (B)(2) of section 2929.19 of the Revised Code. The 35735
court may reduce the longer period of time that the offender is 35736
required to spend under the longer sanction, the more restrictive 35737
sanction, or a prison term imposed pursuant to this division by 35738
the time the offender successfully spent under the sanction that 35739
was initially imposed.35740

       (C) If an offender, for a significant period of time, 35741
fulfills the conditions of a sanction imposed pursuant to section 35742
2929.16, 2929.17, or 2929.18 of the Revised Code in an exemplary 35743
manner, the court may reduce the period of time under the sanction 35744
or impose a less restrictive sanction, but the court shall not 35745
permit the offender to violate any law or permit the offender to 35746
leave the state without the permission of the court or the 35747
offender's probation officer.35748

       (D)(1) If a court under division (A)(1) of this section 35749
imposes a condition of release under a community control sanction 35750
that requires the offender to submit to random drug testing, the 35751
department of probation or the adult parole authority that has 35752
general control and supervision of the offender under division 35753
(A)(2)(a) of this section may cause the offender to submit to 35754
random drug testing performed by a laboratory or entity that has 35755
entered into a contract with any of the governmental entities or 35756
officers authorized to enter into a contract with that laboratory 35757
or entity under section 341.26, 753.33, or 5120.63 of the Revised 35758
Code.35759

       (2) If no laboratory or entity described in division (D)(1) 35760
of this section has entered into a contract as specified in that 35761
division, the department of probation or the adult parole 35762
authority that has general control and supervision of the offender 35763
under division (A)(2)(a) of this section shall cause the offender 35764
to submit to random drug testing performed by a reputable public 35765
laboratory to determine whether the individual who is the subject 35766
of the drug test ingested or was injected with a drug of abuse.35767

       (3) A laboratory or entity that has entered into a contract 35768
pursuant to section 341.26, 753.33, or 5120.63 of the Revised Code 35769
shall perform the random drug tests under division (D)(1) of this 35770
section in accordance with the applicable standards that are 35771
included in the terms of that contract. A public laboratory shall 35772
perform the random drug tests under division (D)(2) of this 35773
section in accordance with the standards set forth in the policies 35774
and procedures established by the department of rehabilitation and 35775
correction pursuant to section 5120.63 of the Revised Code. An 35776
offender who is required under division (A)(1) of this section to 35777
submit to random drug testing as a condition of release under a 35778
community control sanction and whose test results indicate that 35779
the offender ingested or was injected with a drug of abuse shall 35780
pay the fee for the drug test if the department of probation or 35781
the adult parole authority that has general control and 35782
supervision of the offender requires payment of a fee. A 35783
laboratory or entity that performs the random drug testing on an 35784
offender under division (D)(1) or (2) of this section shall 35785
transmit the results of the drug test to the appropriate 35786
department of probation or the adult parole authority that has 35787
general control and supervision of the offender under division 35788
(A)(2)(a) of this section.35789

       Sec. 2930.01.  As used in this chapter:35790

       (A) "Crime" means any of the following:35791

       (1) A felony;35792

       (2) A violation of section 2903.05, 2903.06, 2903.13, 35793
2903.21, 2903.211, 2903.22, 2907.06, 2919.25, or 2921.04 of the 35794
Revised Code, a violation of section 2903.07 of the Revised Code 35795
as it existed prior to March 23, 2000, or a violation of a 35796
substantially equivalent municipal ordinance;35797

       (3) A violation of division (A) or (B) of section 4511.19, 35798
division (A) or (B) of section 1547.11, or division (A)(3) of 35799
section 4561.15 of the Revised Code or of a municipal ordinance 35800
substantially similar to any of those divisions that is the 35801
proximate cause of a vehicle, streetcar, trackless trolley, 35802
aquatic device, or aircraft accident in which the victim receives 35803
injuries for which the victim receives medical treatment either at 35804
the scene of the accident by emergency medical services personnel 35805
or at a hospital, ambulatory care facility, physician's office, 35806
specialist's office, or other medical care facility.35807

       (4) A motor vehicle accident to which both of the following 35808
apply:35809

       (a) The motor vehicle accident is caused by a violation of a 35810
provision of the Revised Code that is a misdemeanor of the first 35811
degree or higher.35812

       (b) As a result of the motor vehicle accident, the victim 35813
receives injuries for which the victim receives medical treatment 35814
either at the scene of the accident by emergency medical services 35815
personnel or at a hospital, ambulatory care facility, physician's 35816
office, specialist's office, or other medical care facility.35817

       (B) "Custodial agency" means one of the following:35818

       (1) The entity that has custody of a defendant or an alleged 35819
juvenile offender who is incarcerated for a crime, is under 35820
detention for the commission of a specified delinquent act, or who 35821
is detained after a finding of incompetence to stand trial or not 35822
guilty by reason of insanity relative to a crime, including any of 35823
the following:35824

       (a) The department of rehabilitation and correction or the 35825
adult parole authority;35826

       (b) A county sheriff;35827

       (c) The entity that administers a jail, as defined in section 35828
2929.01 of the Revised Code;35829

       (d) The entity that administers a community-based 35830
correctional facility and program or a district community-based 35831
correctional facility and program;35832

       (e) The department of mental healthmental health and 35833
addiction services or other entity to which a defendant found 35834
incompetent to stand trial or not guilty by reason of insanity is 35835
committed.35836

       (2) The entity that has custody of an alleged juvenile 35837
offender pursuant to an order of disposition of a juvenile court, 35838
including the department of youth services or a school, camp, 35839
institution, or other facility operated for the care of delinquent 35840
children.35841

       (C) "Defendant" means a person who is alleged to be the 35842
perpetrator of a crime in a police report or in a complaint, 35843
indictment, or information that charges the commission of a crime 35844
and that provides the basis for the criminal prosecution and 35845
subsequent proceedings to which this chapter makes reference.35846

       (D) "Member of the victim's family" means a spouse, child, 35847
stepchild, sibling, parent, stepparent, grandparent, or other 35848
relative of a victim but does not include a person who is charged 35849
with, convicted of, or adjudicated to be a delinquent child for 35850
the crime or specified delinquent act against the victim or 35851
another crime or specified delinquent act arising from the same 35852
conduct, criminal episode, or plan.35853

       (E) "Prosecutor" means one of the following:35854

       (1) With respect to a criminal case, it has the same meaning 35855
as in section 2935.01 of the Revised Code and also includes the 35856
attorney general and, when appropriate, the employees of any 35857
person listed in section 2935.01 of the Revised Code or of the 35858
attorney general.35859

       (2) With respect to a delinquency proceeding, it includes any 35860
person listed in division (C) of section 2935.01 of the Revised 35861
Code or an employee of a person listed in that division who 35862
prosecutes a delinquency proceeding.35863

       (F) "Public agency" means an office, agency, department, 35864
bureau, or other governmental entity of the state or of a 35865
political subdivision of the state.35866

       (G) "Public official" has the same meaning as in section 35867
2921.01 of the Revised Code.35868

       (H) "Victim" means either of the following:35869

       (1) A person who is identified as the victim of a crime or 35870
specified delinquent act in a police report or in a complaint, 35871
indictment, or information that charges the commission of a crime 35872
and that provides the basis for the criminal prosecution or 35873
delinquency proceeding and subsequent proceedings to which this 35874
chapter makes reference.35875

       (2) A person who receives injuries as a result of a vehicle, 35876
streetcar, trackless trolley, aquatic device, or aircraft accident 35877
that is proximately caused by a violation described in division 35878
(A)(3) of this section or a motor vehicle accident that is 35879
proximately caused by a violation described in division (A)(4) of 35880
this section and who receives medical treatment as described in 35881
division (A)(3) or (4) of this section, whichever is applicable.35882

       (I) "Victim's representative" means a member of the victim's 35883
family or another person who pursuant to the authority of section 35884
2930.02 of the Revised Code exercises the rights of a victim under 35885
this chapter.35886

       (J) "Court" means a court of common pleas, juvenile court, 35887
municipal court, or county court.35888

       (K) "Delinquency proceeding" means all proceedings in a 35889
juvenile court that are related to a case in which a complaint has 35890
been filed alleging that a child is a delinquent child.35891

       (L) "Case" means a delinquency proceeding and all related 35892
activity or a criminal prosecution and all related activity.35893

       (M) The "defense" means the defense against criminal charges 35894
in a criminal prosecution or the defense against a delinquent 35895
child complaint in a delinquency proceeding.35896

       (N) The "prosecution" means the prosecution of criminal 35897
charges in a criminal prosecution or the prosecution of a 35898
delinquent child complaint in a delinquency proceeding.35899

       (O) "Specified delinquent act" means any of the following:35900

       (1) An act committed by a child that if committed by an adult 35901
would be a felony;35902

       (2) An act committed by a child that is a violation of a 35903
section listed in division (A)(1) or (2) of this section or is a 35904
violation of a substantially equivalent municipal ordinance;35905

       (3) An act committed by a child that is described in division 35906
(A)(3) or (4) of this section.35907

       (P)(1) "Alleged juvenile offender" means a child who is 35908
alleged to have committed a specified delinquent act in a police 35909
report or in a complaint in juvenile court that charges the 35910
commission of a specified delinquent act and that provides the 35911
basis for the delinquency proceeding and all subsequent 35912
proceedings to which this chapter makes reference.35913

       (2) As used in divisions (O) and (P)(1) of this section, 35914
"child" has the same meaning as in section 2151.011 of the Revised 35915
Code.35916

       (Q) "Motor vehicle accident" means any accident involving a 35917
motor vehicle.35918

       (R) "Motor vehicle" has the same meaning as in section 35919
4509.01 of the Revised Code.35920

       (S) "Aircraft" has the same meaning as in section 4561.01 of 35921
the Revised Code.35922

       (T) "Aquatic device" means any vessel, or any water skis, 35923
aquaplane, or similar device.35924

        (U) "Vehicle," "streetcar," and "trackless trolley" have the 35925
same meanings as in section 4511.01 of the Revised Code.35926

        (V) "Vehicle, streetcar, trackless trolley, aquatic device, 35927
or aircraft accident" means any accident involving a vehicle, 35928
streetcar, trackless trolley, aquatic device, or aircraft.35929

        (W) "Vessel" has the same meaning as in section 1547.01 of 35930
the Revised Code.35931

       Sec. 2935.03.  (A)(1) A sheriff, deputy sheriff, marshal, 35932
deputy marshal, municipal police officer, township constable, 35933
police officer of a township or joint police district, member of a 35934
police force employed by a metropolitan housing authority under 35935
division (D) of section 3735.31 of the Revised Code, member of a 35936
police force employed by a regional transit authority under 35937
division (Y) of section 306.35 of the Revised Code, state 35938
university law enforcement officer appointed under section 3345.04 35939
of the Revised Code, veterans' home police officer appointed under 35940
section 5907.02 of the Revised Code, special police officer 35941
employed by a port authority under section 4582.04 or 4582.28 of 35942
the Revised Code, or a special police officer employed by a 35943
municipal corporation at a municipal airport, or other municipal 35944
air navigation facility, that has scheduled operations, as defined 35945
in section 119.3 of Title 14 of the Code of Federal Regulations, 35946
14 C.F.R. 119.3, as amended, and that is required to be under a 35947
security program and is governed by aviation security rules of the 35948
transportation security administration of the United States 35949
department of transportation as provided in Parts 1542. and 1544. 35950
of Title 49 of the Code of Federal Regulations, as amended, shall 35951
arrest and detain, until a warrant can be obtained, a person found 35952
violating, within the limits of the political subdivision, 35953
metropolitan housing authority housing project, regional transit 35954
authority facilities or areas of a municipal corporation that have 35955
been agreed to by a regional transit authority and a municipal 35956
corporation located within its territorial jurisdiction, college, 35957
university, veterans' home operated under Chapter 5907. of the 35958
Revised Code, port authority, or municipal airport or other 35959
municipal air navigation facility, in which the peace officer is 35960
appointed, employed, or elected, a law of this state, an ordinance 35961
of a municipal corporation, or a resolution of a township.35962

       (2) A peace officer of the department of natural resources, a 35963
state fire marshal law enforcement officer described in division 35964
(A)(23) of section 109.71 of the Revised Code, or an individual 35965
designated to perform law enforcement duties under section 35966
511.232, 1545.13, or 6101.75 of the Revised Code shall arrest and 35967
detain, until a warrant can be obtained, a person found violating, 35968
within the limits of the peace officer's, state fire marshal law 35969
enforcement officer's, or individual's territorial jurisdiction, a 35970
law of this state.35971

       (3) The house sergeant at arms, if the house sergeant at arms 35972
has arrest authority pursuant to division (E)(1) of section 35973
101.311 of the Revised Code, and an assistant house sergeant at 35974
arms shall arrest and detain, until a warrant can be obtained, a 35975
person found violating, within the limits of the sergeant at 35976
arms's or assistant sergeant at arms's territorial jurisdiction 35977
specified in division (D)(1)(a) of section 101.311 of the Revised 35978
Code or while providing security pursuant to division (D)(1)(f) of 35979
section 101.311 of the Revised Code, a law of this state, an 35980
ordinance of a municipal corporation, or a resolution of a 35981
township.35982

       (4) The senate sergeant at arms and an assistant senate 35983
sergeant at arms shall arrest and detain, until a warrant can be 35984
obtained, a person found violating, within the limits of the 35985
sergeant at arms's or assistant sergeant at arms's territorial 35986
jurisdiction specified in division (B) of section 101.312 of the 35987
Revised Code, a law of this state, an ordinance of a municipal 35988
corporation, or a resolution of a township.35989

       (B)(1) When there is reasonable ground to believe that an 35990
offense of violence, the offense of criminal child enticement as 35991
defined in section 2905.05 of the Revised Code, the offense of 35992
public indecency as defined in section 2907.09 of the Revised 35993
Code, the offense of domestic violence as defined in section 35994
2919.25 of the Revised Code, the offense of violating a protection 35995
order as defined in section 2919.27 of the Revised Code, the 35996
offense of menacing by stalking as defined in section 2903.211 of 35997
the Revised Code, the offense of aggravated trespass as defined in 35998
section 2911.211 of the Revised Code, a theft offense as defined 35999
in section 2913.01 of the Revised Code, or a felony drug abuse 36000
offense as defined in section 2925.01 of the Revised Code, has 36001
been committed within the limits of the political subdivision, 36002
metropolitan housing authority housing project, regional transit 36003
authority facilities or those areas of a municipal corporation 36004
that have been agreed to by a regional transit authority and a 36005
municipal corporation located within its territorial jurisdiction, 36006
college, university, veterans' home operated under Chapter 5907. 36007
of the Revised Code, port authority, or municipal airport or other 36008
municipal air navigation facility, in which the peace officer is 36009
appointed, employed, or elected or within the limits of the 36010
territorial jurisdiction of the peace officer, a peace officer 36011
described in division (A) of this section may arrest and detain 36012
until a warrant can be obtained any person who the peace officer 36013
has reasonable cause to believe is guilty of the violation.36014

       (2) For purposes of division (B)(1) of this section, the 36015
execution of any of the following constitutes reasonable ground to 36016
believe that the offense alleged in the statement was committed 36017
and reasonable cause to believe that the person alleged in the 36018
statement to have committed the offense is guilty of the 36019
violation:36020

       (a) A written statement by a person alleging that an alleged 36021
offender has committed the offense of menacing by stalking or 36022
aggravated trespass;36023

       (b) A written statement by the administrator of the 36024
interstate compact on mental health appointed under section 36025
5119.515119.71 of the Revised Code alleging that a person who had 36026
been hospitalized, institutionalized, or confined in any facility 36027
under an order made pursuant to or under authority of section 36028
2945.37, 2945.371, 2945.38, 2945.39, 2945.40, 2945.401, or 36029
2945.402 of the Revised Code has escaped from the facility, from 36030
confinement in a vehicle for transportation to or from the 36031
facility, or from supervision by an employee of the facility that 36032
is incidental to hospitalization, institutionalization, or 36033
confinement in the facility and that occurs outside of the 36034
facility, in violation of section 2921.34 of the Revised Code;36035

       (c) A written statement by the administrator of any facility 36036
in which a person has been hospitalized, institutionalized, or 36037
confined under an order made pursuant to or under authority of 36038
section 2945.37, 2945.371, 2945.38, 2945.39, 2945.40, 2945.401, or 36039
2945.402 of the Revised Code alleging that the person has escaped 36040
from the facility, from confinement in a vehicle for 36041
transportation to or from the facility, or from supervision by an 36042
employee of the facility that is incidental to hospitalization, 36043
institutionalization, or confinement in the facility and that 36044
occurs outside of the facility, in violation of section 2921.34 of 36045
the Revised Code.36046

       (3)(a) For purposes of division (B)(1) of this section, a 36047
peace officer described in division (A) of this section has 36048
reasonable grounds to believe that the offense of domestic 36049
violence or the offense of violating a protection order has been 36050
committed and reasonable cause to believe that a particular person 36051
is guilty of committing the offense if any of the following 36052
occurs:36053

       (i) A person executes a written statement alleging that the 36054
person in question has committed the offense of domestic violence 36055
or the offense of violating a protection order against the person 36056
who executes the statement or against a child of the person who 36057
executes the statement.36058

       (ii) No written statement of the type described in division 36059
(B)(3)(a)(i) of this section is executed, but the peace officer, 36060
based upon the peace officer's own knowledge and observation of 36061
the facts and circumstances of the alleged incident of the offense 36062
of domestic violence or the alleged incident of the offense of 36063
violating a protection order or based upon any other information, 36064
including, but not limited to, any reasonably trustworthy 36065
information given to the peace officer by the alleged victim of 36066
the alleged incident of the offense or any witness of the alleged 36067
incident of the offense, concludes that there are reasonable 36068
grounds to believe that the offense of domestic violence or the 36069
offense of violating a protection order has been committed and 36070
reasonable cause to believe that the person in question is guilty 36071
of committing the offense.36072

       (iii) No written statement of the type described in division 36073
(B)(3)(a)(i) of this section is executed, but the peace officer 36074
witnessed the person in question commit the offense of domestic 36075
violence or the offense of violating a protection order.36076

       (b) If pursuant to division (B)(3)(a) of this section a peace 36077
officer has reasonable grounds to believe that the offense of 36078
domestic violence or the offense of violating a protection order 36079
has been committed and reasonable cause to believe that a 36080
particular person is guilty of committing the offense, it is the 36081
preferred course of action in this state that the officer arrest 36082
and detain that person pursuant to division (B)(1) of this section 36083
until a warrant can be obtained.36084

       If pursuant to division (B)(3)(a) of this section a peace 36085
officer has reasonable grounds to believe that the offense of 36086
domestic violence or the offense of violating a protection order 36087
has been committed and reasonable cause to believe that family or 36088
household members have committed the offense against each other, 36089
it is the preferred course of action in this state that the 36090
officer, pursuant to division (B)(1) of this section, arrest and 36091
detain until a warrant can be obtained the family or household 36092
member who committed the offense and whom the officer has 36093
reasonable cause to believe is the primary physical aggressor. 36094
There is no preferred course of action in this state regarding any 36095
other family or household member who committed the offense and 36096
whom the officer does not have reasonable cause to believe is the 36097
primary physical aggressor, but, pursuant to division (B)(1) of 36098
this section, the peace officer may arrest and detain until a 36099
warrant can be obtained any other family or household member who 36100
committed the offense and whom the officer does not have 36101
reasonable cause to believe is the primary physical aggressor.36102

       (c) If a peace officer described in division (A) of this 36103
section does not arrest and detain a person whom the officer has 36104
reasonable cause to believe committed the offense of domestic 36105
violence or the offense of violating a protection order when it is 36106
the preferred course of action in this state pursuant to division 36107
(B)(3)(b) of this section that the officer arrest that person, the 36108
officer shall articulate in the written report of the incident 36109
required by section 2935.032 of the Revised Code a clear statement 36110
of the officer's reasons for not arresting and detaining that 36111
person until a warrant can be obtained.36112

       (d) In determining for purposes of division (B)(3)(b) of this 36113
section which family or household member is the primary physical 36114
aggressor in a situation in which family or household members have 36115
committed the offense of domestic violence or the offense of 36116
violating a protection order against each other, a peace officer 36117
described in division (A) of this section, in addition to any 36118
other relevant circumstances, should consider all of the 36119
following:36120

       (i) Any history of domestic violence or of any other violent 36121
acts by either person involved in the alleged offense that the 36122
officer reasonably can ascertain;36123

       (ii) If violence is alleged, whether the alleged violence was 36124
caused by a person acting in self-defense;36125

       (iii) Each person's fear of physical harm, if any, resulting 36126
from the other person's threatened use of force against any person 36127
or resulting from the other person's use or history of the use of 36128
force against any person, and the reasonableness of that fear;36129

       (iv) The comparative severity of any injuries suffered by the 36130
persons involved in the alleged offense.36131

       (e)(i) A peace officer described in division (A) of this 36132
section shall not require, as a prerequisite to arresting or 36133
charging a person who has committed the offense of domestic 36134
violence or the offense of violating a protection order, that the 36135
victim of the offense specifically consent to the filing of 36136
charges against the person who has committed the offense or sign a 36137
complaint against the person who has committed the offense.36138

       (ii) If a person is arrested for or charged with committing 36139
the offense of domestic violence or the offense of violating a 36140
protection order and if the victim of the offense does not 36141
cooperate with the involved law enforcement or prosecuting 36142
authorities in the prosecution of the offense or, subsequent to 36143
the arrest or the filing of the charges, informs the involved law 36144
enforcement or prosecuting authorities that the victim does not 36145
wish the prosecution of the offense to continue or wishes to drop 36146
charges against the alleged offender relative to the offense, the 36147
involved prosecuting authorities, in determining whether to 36148
continue with the prosecution of the offense or whether to dismiss 36149
charges against the alleged offender relative to the offense and 36150
notwithstanding the victim's failure to cooperate or the victim's 36151
wishes, shall consider all facts and circumstances that are 36152
relevant to the offense, including, but not limited to, the 36153
statements and observations of the peace officers who responded to 36154
the incident that resulted in the arrest or filing of the charges 36155
and of all witnesses to that incident.36156

       (f) In determining pursuant to divisions (B)(3)(a) to (g) of 36157
this section whether to arrest a person pursuant to division 36158
(B)(1) of this section, a peace officer described in division (A) 36159
of this section shall not consider as a factor any possible 36160
shortage of cell space at the detention facility to which the 36161
person will be taken subsequent to the person's arrest or any 36162
possibility that the person's arrest might cause, contribute to, 36163
or exacerbate overcrowding at that detention facility or at any 36164
other detention facility.36165

       (g) If a peace officer described in division (A) of this 36166
section intends pursuant to divisions (B)(3)(a) to (g) of this 36167
section to arrest a person pursuant to division (B)(1) of this 36168
section and if the officer is unable to do so because the person 36169
is not present, the officer promptly shall seek a warrant for the 36170
arrest of the person.36171

       (h) If a peace officer described in division (A) of this 36172
section responds to a report of an alleged incident of the offense 36173
of domestic violence or an alleged incident of the offense of 36174
violating a protection order and if the circumstances of the 36175
incident involved the use or threatened use of a deadly weapon or 36176
any person involved in the incident brandished a deadly weapon 36177
during or in relation to the incident, the deadly weapon that was 36178
used, threatened to be used, or brandished constitutes contraband, 36179
and, to the extent possible, the officer shall seize the deadly 36180
weapon as contraband pursuant to Chapter 2981. of the Revised 36181
Code. Upon the seizure of a deadly weapon pursuant to division 36182
(B)(3)(h) of this section, section 2981.12 of the Revised Code 36183
shall apply regarding the treatment and disposition of the deadly 36184
weapon. For purposes of that section, the "underlying criminal 36185
offense" that was the basis of the seizure of a deadly weapon 36186
under division (B)(3)(h) of this section and to which the deadly 36187
weapon had a relationship is any of the following that is 36188
applicable:36189

       (i) The alleged incident of the offense of domestic violence 36190
or the alleged incident of the offense of violating a protection 36191
order to which the officer who seized the deadly weapon responded;36192

       (ii) Any offense that arose out of the same facts and 36193
circumstances as the report of the alleged incident of the offense 36194
of domestic violence or the alleged incident of the offense of 36195
violating a protection order to which the officer who seized the 36196
deadly weapon responded.36197

       (4) If, in the circumstances described in divisions (B)(3)(a) 36198
to (g) of this section, a peace officer described in division (A) 36199
of this section arrests and detains a person pursuant to division 36200
(B)(1) of this section, or if, pursuant to division (B)(3)(h) of 36201
this section, a peace officer described in division (A) of this 36202
section seizes a deadly weapon, the officer, to the extent 36203
described in and in accordance with section 9.86 or 2744.03 of the 36204
Revised Code, is immune in any civil action for damages for 36205
injury, death, or loss to person or property that arises from or 36206
is related to the arrest and detention or the seizure.36207

       (C) When there is reasonable ground to believe that a 36208
violation of division (A)(1), (2), (3), (4), or (5) of section 36209
4506.15 or a violation of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code has 36210
been committed by a person operating a motor vehicle subject to 36211
regulation by the public utilities commission of Ohio under Title 36212
XLIX of the Revised Code, a peace officer with authority to 36213
enforce that provision of law may stop or detain the person whom 36214
the officer has reasonable cause to believe was operating the 36215
motor vehicle in violation of the division or section and, after 36216
investigating the circumstances surrounding the operation of the 36217
vehicle, may arrest and detain the person.36218

       (D) If a sheriff, deputy sheriff, marshal, deputy marshal, 36219
municipal police officer, member of a police force employed by a 36220
metropolitan housing authority under division (D) of section 36221
3735.31 of the Revised Code, member of a police force employed by 36222
a regional transit authority under division (Y) of section 306.35 36223
of the Revised Code, special police officer employed by a port 36224
authority under section 4582.04 or 4582.28 of the Revised Code, 36225
special police officer employed by a municipal corporation at a 36226
municipal airport or other municipal air navigation facility 36227
described in division (A) of this section, township constable, 36228
police officer of a township or joint police district, state 36229
university law enforcement officer appointed under section 3345.04 36230
of the Revised Code, peace officer of the department of natural 36231
resources, individual designated to perform law enforcement duties 36232
under section 511.232, 1545.13, or 6101.75 of the Revised Code, 36233
the house sergeant at arms if the house sergeant at arms has 36234
arrest authority pursuant to division (E)(1) of section 101.311 of 36235
the Revised Code, or an assistant house sergeant at arms is 36236
authorized by division (A) or (B) of this section to arrest and 36237
detain, within the limits of the political subdivision, 36238
metropolitan housing authority housing project, regional transit 36239
authority facilities or those areas of a municipal corporation 36240
that have been agreed to by a regional transit authority and a 36241
municipal corporation located within its territorial jurisdiction, 36242
port authority, municipal airport or other municipal air 36243
navigation facility, college, or university in which the officer 36244
is appointed, employed, or elected or within the limits of the 36245
territorial jurisdiction of the peace officer, a person until a 36246
warrant can be obtained, the peace officer, outside the limits of 36247
that territory, may pursue, arrest, and detain that person until a 36248
warrant can be obtained if all of the following apply:36249

       (1) The pursuit takes place without unreasonable delay after 36250
the offense is committed;36251

       (2) The pursuit is initiated within the limits of the 36252
political subdivision, metropolitan housing authority housing 36253
project, regional transit authority facilities or those areas of a 36254
municipal corporation that have been agreed to by a regional 36255
transit authority and a municipal corporation located within its 36256
territorial jurisdiction, port authority, municipal airport or 36257
other municipal air navigation facility, college, or university in 36258
which the peace officer is appointed, employed, or elected or 36259
within the limits of the territorial jurisdiction of the peace 36260
officer;36261

       (3) The offense involved is a felony, a misdemeanor of the 36262
first degree or a substantially equivalent municipal ordinance, a 36263
misdemeanor of the second degree or a substantially equivalent 36264
municipal ordinance, or any offense for which points are 36265
chargeable pursuant to section 4510.036 of the Revised Code.36266

       (E) In addition to the authority granted under division (A) 36267
or (B) of this section:36268

       (1) A sheriff or deputy sheriff may arrest and detain, until 36269
a warrant can be obtained, any person found violating section 36270
4503.11, 4503.21, or 4549.01, sections 4549.08 to 4549.12, section 36271
4549.62, or Chapter 4511. or 4513. of the Revised Code on the 36272
portion of any street or highway that is located immediately 36273
adjacent to the boundaries of the county in which the sheriff or 36274
deputy sheriff is elected or appointed.36275

       (2) A member of the police force of a township police 36276
district created under section 505.48 of the Revised Code, a 36277
member of the police force of a joint police district created 36278
under section 505.482 of the Revised Code, or a township constable 36279
appointed in accordance with section 509.01 of the Revised Code, 36280
who has received a certificate from the Ohio peace officer 36281
training commission under section 109.75 of the Revised Code, may 36282
arrest and detain, until a warrant can be obtained, any person 36283
found violating any section or chapter of the Revised Code listed 36284
in division (E)(1) of this section, other than sections 4513.33 36285
and 4513.34 of the Revised Code, on the portion of any street or 36286
highway that is located immediately adjacent to the boundaries of 36287
the township police district or joint police district, in the case 36288
of a member of a township police district or joint police district 36289
police force, or the unincorporated territory of the township, in 36290
the case of a township constable. However, if the population of 36291
the township that created the township police district served by 36292
the member's police force, or the townships and municipal 36293
corporations that created the joint police district served by the 36294
member's police force, or the township that is served by the 36295
township constable, is sixty thousand or less, the member of the 36296
township police district or joint police district police force or 36297
the township constable may not make an arrest under division 36298
(E)(2) of this section on a state highway that is included as part 36299
of the interstate system.36300

       (3) A police officer or village marshal appointed, elected, 36301
or employed by a municipal corporation may arrest and detain, 36302
until a warrant can be obtained, any person found violating any 36303
section or chapter of the Revised Code listed in division (E)(1) 36304
of this section on the portion of any street or highway that is 36305
located immediately adjacent to the boundaries of the municipal 36306
corporation in which the police officer or village marshal is 36307
appointed, elected, or employed.36308

       (4) A peace officer of the department of natural resources, a 36309
state fire marshal law enforcement officer described in division 36310
(A)(23) of section 109.71 of the Revised Code, or an individual 36311
designated to perform law enforcement duties under section 36312
511.232, 1545.13, or 6101.75 of the Revised Code may arrest and 36313
detain, until a warrant can be obtained, any person found 36314
violating any section or chapter of the Revised Code listed in 36315
division (E)(1) of this section, other than sections 4513.33 and 36316
4513.34 of the Revised Code, on the portion of any street or 36317
highway that is located immediately adjacent to the boundaries of 36318
the lands and waters that constitute the territorial jurisdiction 36319
of the peace officer or state fire marshal law enforcement 36320
officer.36321

       (F)(1) A department of mental healthmental health and 36322
addiction services special police officer or a department of 36323
developmental disabilities special police officer may arrest 36324
without a warrant and detain until a warrant can be obtained any 36325
person found committing on the premises of any institution under 36326
the jurisdiction of the particular department a misdemeanor under 36327
a law of the state.36328

       A department of mental healthmental health and addiction 36329
services special police officer or a department of developmental 36330
disabilities special police officer may arrest without a warrant 36331
and detain until a warrant can be obtained any person who has been 36332
hospitalized, institutionalized, or confined in an institution 36333
under the jurisdiction of the particular department pursuant to or 36334
under authority of section 2945.37, 2945.371, 2945.38, 2945.39, 36335
2945.40, 2945.401, or 2945.402 of the Revised Code and who is 36336
found committing on the premises of any institution under the 36337
jurisdiction of the particular department a violation of section 36338
2921.34 of the Revised Code that involves an escape from the 36339
premises of the institution.36340

       (2)(a) If a department of mental healthmental health and 36341
addiction services special police officer or a department of 36342
developmental disabilities special police officer finds any person 36343
who has been hospitalized, institutionalized, or confined in an 36344
institution under the jurisdiction of the particular department 36345
pursuant to or under authority of section 2945.37, 2945.371, 36346
2945.38, 2945.39, 2945.40, 2945.401, or 2945.402 of the Revised 36347
Code committing a violation of section 2921.34 of the Revised Code 36348
that involves an escape from the premises of the institution, or 36349
if there is reasonable ground to believe that a violation of 36350
section 2921.34 of the Revised Code has been committed that 36351
involves an escape from the premises of an institution under the 36352
jurisdiction of the department of mental healthmental health and 36353
addiction services or the department of developmental disabilities 36354
and if a department of mental healthmental health and addiction 36355
services special police officer or a department of developmental 36356
disabilities special police officer has reasonable cause to 36357
believe that a particular person who has been hospitalized, 36358
institutionalized, or confined in the institution pursuant to or 36359
under authority of section 2945.37, 2945.371, 2945.38, 2945.39, 36360
2945.40, 2945.401, or 2945.402 of the Revised Code is guilty of 36361
the violation, the special police officer, outside of the premises 36362
of the institution, may pursue, arrest, and detain that person for 36363
that violation of section 2921.34 of the Revised Code, until a 36364
warrant can be obtained, if both of the following apply:36365

       (i) The pursuit takes place without unreasonable delay after 36366
the offense is committed;36367

       (ii) The pursuit is initiated within the premises of the 36368
institution from which the violation of section 2921.34 of the 36369
Revised Code occurred.36370

       (b) For purposes of division (F)(2)(a) of this section, the 36371
execution of a written statement by the administrator of the 36372
institution in which a person had been hospitalized, 36373
institutionalized, or confined pursuant to or under authority of 36374
section 2945.37, 2945.371, 2945.38, 2945.39, 2945.40, 2945.401, or 36375
2945.402 of the Revised Code alleging that the person has escaped 36376
from the premises of the institution in violation of section 36377
2921.34 of the Revised Code constitutes reasonable ground to 36378
believe that the violation was committed and reasonable cause to 36379
believe that the person alleged in the statement to have committed 36380
the offense is guilty of the violation.36381

       (G) As used in this section:36382

       (1) A "department of mental healthmental health and 36383
addiction services special police officer" means a special police 36384
officer of the department of mental healthmental health and 36385
addiction services designated under section 5119.145119.08 of the 36386
Revised Code who is certified by the Ohio peace officer training 36387
commission under section 109.77 of the Revised Code as having 36388
successfully completed an approved peace officer basic training 36389
program.36390

       (2) A "department of developmental disabilities special 36391
police officer" means a special police officer of the department 36392
of developmental disabilities designated under section 5123.13 of 36393
the Revised Code who is certified by the Ohio peace officer 36394
training council under section 109.77 of the Revised Code as 36395
having successfully completed an approved peace officer basic 36396
training program.36397

       (3) "Deadly weapon" has the same meaning as in section 36398
2923.11 of the Revised Code.36399

       (4) "Family or household member" has the same meaning as in 36400
section 2919.25 of the Revised Code.36401

       (5) "Street" or "highway" has the same meaning as in section 36402
4511.01 of the Revised Code.36403

       (6) "Interstate system" has the same meaning as in section 36404
5516.01 of the Revised Code.36405

       (7) "Peace officer of the department of natural resources" 36406
means an employee of the department of natural resources who is a 36407
natural resources law enforcement staff officer designated 36408
pursuant to section 1501.013 of the Revised Code, a forest officer 36409
designated pursuant to section 1503.29 of the Revised Code, a 36410
preserve officer designated pursuant to section 1517.10 of the 36411
Revised Code, a wildlife officer designated pursuant to section 36412
1531.13 of the Revised Code, a park officer designated pursuant to 36413
section 1541.10 of the Revised Code, or a state watercraft officer 36414
designated pursuant to section 1547.521 of the Revised Code.36415

       (8) "Portion of any street or highway" means all lanes of the 36416
street or highway irrespective of direction of travel, including 36417
designated turn lanes, and any berm, median, or shoulder.36418

       Sec. 2935.33.  (A) If a person charged with a misdemeanor is 36419
taken before a judge of a court of record and if it appears to the 36420
judge that the person is an alcoholic or is suffering from acute 36421
alcohol intoxication and that the person would benefit from 36422
services provided by an alcohol and druga community addiction 36423
programservices provider certified under Chapter 3793.5119. of 36424
the Revised Code, the judge may place the person temporarily in a 36425
programservices provider certified under that chapter in the area 36426
in which the court has jurisdiction for inpatient care and 36427
treatment for an indefinite period not exceeding five days. The 36428
commitment does not limit the right to release on bail. The judge 36429
may dismiss a charge of a violation of division (B) of section 36430
2917.11 of the Revised Code or of a municipal ordinance 36431
substantially equivalent to that division if the defendant 36432
complies with all the conditions of treatment ordered by the 36433
court.36434

       The court may order that any fines or court costs collected 36435
by the court from defendants who have received inpatient care from 36436
an alcohol and druga community addiction programservices 36437
provider be paid, for the benefit of the program, to the board of 36438
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services of the 36439
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health service district in 36440
which the programservices provider is located or to the director 36441
of alcohol and drug addiction servicesmental health and addiction 36442
services.36443

       (B) If a person is being sentenced for a violation of 36444
division (B) of section 2917.11 or section 4511.19 of the Revised 36445
Code, a misdemeanor violation of section 2919.25 of the Revised 36446
Code, a misdemeanor violation of section 2919.27 of the Revised 36447
Code involving a protection order issued or consent agreement 36448
approved pursuant to section 2919.26 or 3113.31 of the Revised 36449
Code, or a violation of a municipal ordinance substantially 36450
equivalent to that division or any of those sections and if it 36451
appears to the judge at the time of sentencing that the person is 36452
an alcoholic or is suffering from acute alcohol intoxication and 36453
that, in lieu of imprisonment, the person would benefit from 36454
services provided by an alcohol and druga community addiction 36455
programservices provider certified under Chapter 3793.5119. of 36456
the Revised Code, the court may commit the person to close 36457
supervision in any facility in the area in which the court has 36458
jurisdiction that is, or is operated by, such a programservices 36459
provider. Such close supervision may include outpatient services 36460
and part-time release, except that a person convicted of a 36461
violation of division (A) of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code 36462
shall be confined to the facility for at least three days and 36463
except that a person convicted of a misdemeanor violation of 36464
section 2919.25 of the Revised Code, a misdemeanor violation of 36465
section 2919.27 of the Revised Code involving a protection order 36466
issued or consent agreement approved pursuant to section 2919.26 36467
or 3113.31 of the Revised Code, or a violation of a substantially 36468
equivalent municipal ordinance shall be confined to the facility 36469
in accordance with the order of commitment. A commitment of a 36470
person to a facility for purposes of close supervision shall not 36471
exceed the maximum term for which the person could be imprisoned.36472

       (C) A law enforcement officer who finds a person subject to 36473
prosecution for violation of division (B) of section 2917.11 of 36474
the Revised Code or a municipal ordinance substantially equivalent 36475
to that division and who has reasonable cause to believe that the 36476
person is an alcoholic or is suffering from acute alcohol 36477
intoxication and would benefit from immediate treatment 36478
immediately may place the person in an alcohol and druga 36479
community addiction programservices provider certified under 36480
Chapter 3793.5119. of the Revised Code in the area in which the 36481
person is found, for emergency treatment, in lieu of other arrest 36482
procedures, for a maximum period of forty-eight hours. During that 36483
time, if the person desires to leave such custody, the person 36484
shall be released forthwith.36485

       (D) As used in this section:36486

       (1) "Alcoholic" has the same meaning as in section 3793.0136487
5119.01 of the Revised Code;36488

       (2) "Acute alcohol intoxication" means a heavy consumption of 36489
alcohol over a relatively short period of time, resulting in 36490
dysfunction of the brain centers controlling behavior, speech, and 36491
memory and causing characteristic withdrawal symptoms.36492

       Sec. 2945.37.  (A) As used in sections 2945.37 to 2945.402 of 36493
the Revised Code:36494

       (1) "Prosecutor" means a prosecuting attorney or a city 36495
director of law, village solicitor, or similar chief legal officer 36496
of a municipal corporation who has authority to prosecute a 36497
criminal case that is before the court or the criminal case in 36498
which a defendant in a criminal case has been found incompetent to 36499
stand trial or not guilty by reason of insanity.36500

       (2) "Examiner" means either of the following:36501

       (a) A psychiatrist or a licensed clinical psychologist who 36502
satisfies the criteria of division (I)(1) of section 5122.01 of 36503
the Revised Code or is employed by a certified forensic center 36504
designated by the department of mental healthmental health and 36505
addiction services to conduct examinations or evaluations.36506

       (b) For purposes of a separate mental retardation evaluation 36507
that is ordered by a court pursuant to division (H) of section 36508
2945.371 of the Revised Code, a psychologist designated by the 36509
director of developmental disabilities pursuant to that section to 36510
conduct that separate mental retardation evaluation.36511

       (3) "Nonsecured status" means any unsupervised, off-grounds 36512
movement or trial visit from a hospital or institution, or any 36513
conditional release, that is granted to a person who is found 36514
incompetent to stand trial and is committed pursuant to section 36515
2945.39 of the Revised Code or to a person who is found not guilty 36516
by reason of insanity and is committed pursuant to section 2945.40 36517
of the Revised Code.36518

       (4) "Unsupervised, off-grounds movement" includes only 36519
off-grounds privileges that are unsupervised and that have an 36520
expectation of return to the hospital or institution on a daily 36521
basis.36522

       (5) "Trial visit" means a patient privilege of a longer 36523
stated duration of unsupervised community contact with an 36524
expectation of return to the hospital or institution at designated 36525
times.36526

       (6) "Conditional release" means a commitment status under 36527
which the trial court at any time may revoke a person's 36528
conditional release and order the rehospitalization or 36529
reinstitutionalization of the person as described in division (A) 36530
of section 2945.402 of the Revised Code and pursuant to which a 36531
person who is found incompetent to stand trial or a person who is 36532
found not guilty by reason of insanity lives and receives 36533
treatment in the community for a period of time that does not 36534
exceed the maximum prison term or term of imprisonment that the 36535
person could have received for the offense in question had the 36536
person been convicted of the offense instead of being found 36537
incompetent to stand trial on the charge of the offense or being 36538
found not guilty by reason of insanity relative to the offense.36539

       (7) "Licensed clinical psychologist," "mentally ill person 36540
subject to hospitalization by court order," and "psychiatrist" 36541
have the same meanings as in section 5122.01 of the Revised Code.36542

       (8) "Mentally retarded person subject to institutionalization 36543
by court order" has the same meaning as in section 5123.01 of the 36544
Revised Code.36545

       (B) In a criminal action in a court of common pleas, a county 36546
court, or a municipal court, the court, prosecutor, or defense may 36547
raise the issue of the defendant's competence to stand trial. If 36548
the issue is raised before the trial has commenced, the court 36549
shall hold a hearing on the issue as provided in this section. If 36550
the issue is raised after the trial has commenced, the court shall 36551
hold a hearing on the issue only for good cause shown or on the 36552
court's own motion.36553

       (C) The court shall conduct the hearing required or 36554
authorized under division (B) of this section within thirty days 36555
after the issue is raised, unless the defendant has been referred 36556
for evaluation in which case the court shall conduct the hearing 36557
within ten days after the filing of the report of the evaluation 36558
or, in the case of a defendant who is ordered by the court 36559
pursuant to division (H) of section 2945.371 of the Revised Code 36560
to undergo a separate mental retardation evaluation conducted by a 36561
psychologist designated by the director of developmental 36562
disabilities, within ten days after the filing of the report of 36563
the separate mental retardation evaluation under that division. A 36564
hearing may be continued for good cause.36565

       (D) The defendant shall be represented by counsel at the 36566
hearing conducted under division (C) of this section. If the 36567
defendant is unable to obtain counsel, the court shall appoint 36568
counsel under Chapter 120. of the Revised Code or under the 36569
authority recognized in division (C) of section 120.06, division 36570
(E) of section 120.16, division (E) of section 120.26, or section 36571
2941.51 of the Revised Code before proceeding with the hearing.36572

       (E) The prosecutor and defense counsel may submit evidence on 36573
the issue of the defendant's competence to stand trial. A written 36574
report of the evaluation of the defendant may be admitted into 36575
evidence at the hearing by stipulation, but, if either the 36576
prosecution or defense objects to its admission, the report may be 36577
admitted under sections 2317.36 to 2317.38 of the Revised Code or 36578
any other applicable statute or rule.36579

       (F) The court shall not find a defendant incompetent to stand 36580
trial solely because the defendant is receiving or has received 36581
treatment as a voluntary or involuntary mentally ill patient under 36582
Chapter 5122. or a voluntary or involuntary mentally retarded 36583
resident under Chapter 5123. of the Revised Code or because the 36584
defendant is receiving or has received psychotropic drugs or other 36585
medication, even if the defendant might become incompetent to 36586
stand trial without the drugs or medication.36587

       (G) A defendant is presumed to be competent to stand trial. 36588
If, after a hearing, the court finds by a preponderance of the 36589
evidence that, because of the defendant's present mental 36590
condition, the defendant is incapable of understanding the nature 36591
and objective of the proceedings against the defendant or of 36592
assisting in the defendant's defense, the court shall find the 36593
defendant incompetent to stand trial and shall enter an order 36594
authorized by section 2945.38 of the Revised Code.36595

       (H) Municipal courts shall follow the procedures set forth in 36596
sections 2945.37 to 2945.402 of the Revised Code. Except as 36597
provided in section 2945.371 of the Revised Code, a municipal 36598
court shall not order an evaluation of the defendant's competence 36599
to stand trial or the defendant's mental condition at the time of 36600
the commission of the offense to be conducted at any hospital 36601
operated by the department of mental healthmental health and 36602
addiction services. Those evaluations shall be performed through 36603
community resources including, but not limited to, certified 36604
forensic centers, court probation departments, and community 36605
mental health agenciesservices providers. All expenses of the 36606
evaluations shall be borne by the legislative authority of the 36607
municipal court, as defined in section 1901.03 of the Revised 36608
Code, and shall be taxed as costs in the case. If a defendant is 36609
found incompetent to stand trial or not guilty by reason of 36610
insanity, a municipal court may commit the defendant as provided 36611
in sections 2945.38 to 2945.402 of the Revised Code.36612

       Sec. 2945.371.  (A) If the issue of a defendant's competence 36613
to stand trial is raised or if a defendant enters a plea of not 36614
guilty by reason of insanity, the court may order one or more 36615
evaluations of the defendant's present mental condition or, in the 36616
case of a plea of not guilty by reason of insanity, of the 36617
defendant's mental condition at the time of the offense charged. 36618
An examiner shall conduct the evaluation.36619

       (B) If the court orders more than one evaluation under 36620
division (A) of this section, the prosecutor and the defendant may 36621
recommend to the court an examiner whom each prefers to perform 36622
one of the evaluations. If a defendant enters a plea of not guilty 36623
by reason of insanity and if the court does not designate an 36624
examiner recommended by the defendant, the court shall inform the 36625
defendant that the defendant may have independent expert 36626
evaluation and that, if the defendant is unable to obtain 36627
independent expert evaluation, it will be obtained for the 36628
defendant at public expense if the defendant is indigent.36629

       (C) If the court orders an evaluation under division (A) of 36630
this section, the defendant shall be available at the times and 36631
places established by the examiners who are to conduct the 36632
evaluation. The court may order a defendant who has been released 36633
on bail or recognizance to submit to an evaluation under this 36634
section. If a defendant who has been released on bail or 36635
recognizance refuses to submit to a complete evaluation, the court 36636
may amend the conditions of bail or recognizance and order the 36637
sheriff to take the defendant into custody and deliver the 36638
defendant to a center, program, or facility operated or certified 36639
by the department of mental healthmental health and addiction 36640
services or the department of developmental disabilities where the 36641
defendant may be held for evaluation for a reasonable period of 36642
time not to exceed twenty days.36643

       (D) A defendant who has not been released on bail or 36644
recognizance may be evaluated at the defendant's place of 36645
detention. Upon the request of the examiner, the court may order 36646
the sheriff to transport the defendant to a program or facility 36647
operated or certified by the department of mental healthmental 36648
health and addiction services or the department of developmental 36649
disabilities, where the defendant may be held for evaluation for a 36650
reasonable period of time not to exceed twenty days, and to return 36651
the defendant to the place of detention after the evaluation. A 36652
municipal court may make an order under this division only upon 36653
the request of a certified forensic center examiner.36654

       (E) If a court orders the evaluation to determine a 36655
defendant's mental condition at the time of the offense charged, 36656
the court shall inform the examiner of the offense with which the 36657
defendant is charged.36658

       (F) In conducting an evaluation of a defendant's mental 36659
condition at the time of the offense charged, the examiner shall 36660
consider all relevant evidence. If the offense charged involves 36661
the use of force against another person, the relevant evidence to 36662
be considered includes, but is not limited to, any evidence that 36663
the defendant suffered, at the time of the commission of the 36664
offense, from the "battered woman syndrome."36665

       (G) The examiner shall file a written report with the court 36666
within thirty days after entry of a court order for evaluation, 36667
and the court shall provide copies of the report to the prosecutor 36668
and defense counsel. The report shall include all of the 36669
following:36670

       (1) The examiner's findings;36671

       (2) The facts in reasonable detail on which the findings are 36672
based;36673

       (3) If the evaluation was ordered to determine the 36674
defendant's competence to stand trial, all of the following 36675
findings or recommendations that are applicable:36676

       (a) Whether the defendant is capable of understanding the 36677
nature and objective of the proceedings against the defendant or 36678
of assisting in the defendant's defense;36679

       (b) If the examiner's opinion is that the defendant is 36680
incapable of understanding the nature and objective of the 36681
proceedings against the defendant or of assisting in the 36682
defendant's defense, whether the defendant presently is mentally 36683
ill or mentally retarded and, if the examiner's opinion is that 36684
the defendant presently is mentally retarded, whether the 36685
defendant appears to be a mentally retarded person subject to 36686
institutionalization by court order;36687

       (c) If the examiner's opinion is that the defendant is 36688
incapable of understanding the nature and objective of the 36689
proceedings against the defendant or of assisting in the 36690
defendant's defense, the examiner's opinion as to the likelihood 36691
of the defendant becoming capable of understanding the nature and 36692
objective of the proceedings against the defendant and of 36693
assisting in the defendant's defense within one year if the 36694
defendant is provided with a course of treatment;36695

       (d) If the examiner's opinion is that the defendant is 36696
incapable of understanding the nature and objective of the 36697
proceedings against the defendant or of assisting in the 36698
defendant's defense and that the defendant presently is mentally 36699
ill or mentally retarded, the examiner's recommendation as to the 36700
least restrictive placement or commitment alternative, consistent 36701
with the defendant's treatment needs for restoration to competency 36702
and with the safety of the community.36703

       (4) If the evaluation was ordered to determine the 36704
defendant's mental condition at the time of the offense charged, 36705
the examiner's findings as to whether the defendant, at the time 36706
of the offense charged, did not know, as a result of a severe 36707
mental disease or defect, the wrongfulness of the defendant's acts 36708
charged.36709

       (H) If the examiner's report filed under division (G) of this 36710
section indicates that in the examiner's opinion the defendant is 36711
incapable of understanding the nature and objective of the 36712
proceedings against the defendant or of assisting in the 36713
defendant's defense and that in the examiner's opinion the 36714
defendant appears to be a mentally retarded person subject to 36715
institutionalization by court order, the court shall order the 36716
defendant to undergo a separate mental retardation evaluation 36717
conducted by a psychologist designated by the director of 36718
developmental disabilities. Divisions (C) to (F) of this section 36719
apply in relation to a separate mental retardation evaluation 36720
conducted under this division. The psychologist appointed under 36721
this division to conduct the separate mental retardation 36722
evaluation shall file a written report with the court within 36723
thirty days after the entry of the court order requiring the 36724
separate mental retardation evaluation, and the court shall 36725
provide copies of the report to the prosecutor and defense 36726
counsel. The report shall include all of the information described 36727
in divisions (G)(1) to (4) of this section. If the court orders a 36728
separate mental retardation evaluation of a defendant under this 36729
division, the court shall not conduct a hearing under divisions 36730
(B) to (H) of section 2945.37 of the Revised Code regarding that 36731
defendant until a report of the separate mental retardation 36732
evaluation conducted under this division has been filed. Upon the 36733
filing of that report, the court shall conduct the hearing within 36734
the period of time specified in division (C) of section 2945.37 of 36735
the Revised Code.36736

       (I) An examiner appointed under divisions (A) and (B) of this 36737
section or under division (H) of this section to evaluate a 36738
defendant to determine the defendant's competence to stand trial 36739
also may be appointed to evaluate a defendant who has entered a 36740
plea of not guilty by reason of insanity, but an examiner of that 36741
nature shall prepare separate reports on the issue of competence 36742
to stand trial and the defense of not guilty by reason of 36743
insanity.36744

       (J) No statement that a defendant makes in an evaluation or 36745
hearing under divisions (A) to (H) of this section relating to the 36746
defendant's competence to stand trial or to the defendant's mental 36747
condition at the time of the offense charged shall be used against 36748
the defendant on the issue of guilt in any criminal action or 36749
proceeding, but, in a criminal action or proceeding, the 36750
prosecutor or defense counsel may call as a witness any person who 36751
evaluated the defendant or prepared a report pursuant to a 36752
referral under this section. Neither the appointment nor the 36753
testimony of an examiner appointed under this section precludes 36754
the prosecutor or defense counsel from calling other witnesses or 36755
presenting other evidence on competency or insanity issues.36756

       (K) Persons appointed as examiners under divisions (A) and 36757
(B) of this section or under division (H) of this section shall be 36758
paid a reasonable amount for their services and expenses, as 36759
certified by the court. The certified amount shall be paid by the 36760
county in the case of county courts and courts of common pleas and 36761
by the legislative authority, as defined in section 1901.03 of the 36762
Revised Code, in the case of municipal courts.36763

       Sec. 2945.38.  (A) If the issue of a defendant's competence 36764
to stand trial is raised and if the court, upon conducting the 36765
hearing provided for in section 2945.37 of the Revised Code, finds 36766
that the defendant is competent to stand trial, the defendant 36767
shall be proceeded against as provided by law. If the court finds 36768
the defendant competent to stand trial and the defendant is 36769
receiving psychotropic drugs or other medication, the court may 36770
authorize the continued administration of the drugs or medication 36771
or other appropriate treatment in order to maintain the 36772
defendant's competence to stand trial, unless the defendant's 36773
attending physician advises the court against continuation of the 36774
drugs, other medication, or treatment.36775

       (B)(1)(a) If, after taking into consideration all relevant 36776
reports, information, and other evidence, the court finds that the 36777
defendant is incompetent to stand trial and that there is a 36778
substantial probability that the defendant will become competent 36779
to stand trial within one year if the defendant is provided with a 36780
course of treatment, the court shall order the defendant to 36781
undergo treatment. If the defendant has been charged with a felony 36782
offense and if, after taking into consideration all relevant 36783
reports, information, and other evidence, the court finds that the 36784
defendant is incompetent to stand trial, but the court is unable 36785
at that time to determine whether there is a substantial 36786
probability that the defendant will become competent to stand 36787
trial within one year if the defendant is provided with a course 36788
of treatment, the court shall order continuing evaluation and 36789
treatment of the defendant for a period not to exceed four months 36790
to determine whether there is a substantial probability that the 36791
defendant will become competent to stand trial within one year if 36792
the defendant is provided with a course of treatment.36793

       (b) The court order for the defendant to undergo treatment or 36794
continuing evaluation and treatment under division (B)(1)(a) of 36795
this section shall specify that the defendant, if determined to 36796
require mental health treatment or continuing evaluation and 36797
treatment, either shall be committed to the department of mental 36798
healthmental health and addiction services for treatment or 36799
continuing evaluation and treatment at a hospital, facility, or 36800
agency, as determined to be clinically appropriate by the 36801
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services36802
or shall be committed to a facility certified by the department of 36803
mental healthmental health and addiction services as being 36804
qualified to treat mental illness, to a public or community mental 36805
health facility, or to a psychiatrist or another mental health 36806
professional for treatment or continuing evaluation and treatment. 36807
Prior to placing the defendant, the department of mental health36808
mental health and addiction services shall obtain court approval 36809
for that placement following a hearing. The court order for the 36810
defendant to undergo treatment or continuing evaluation and 36811
treatment under division (B)(1)(a) of this section shall specify 36812
that the defendant, if determined to require treatment or 36813
continuing evaluation and treatment for mental retardation, shall 36814
receive treatment or continuing evaluation and treatment at an 36815
institution or facility operated by the department of 36816
developmental disabilities, at a facility certified by the 36817
department of developmental disabilities as being qualified to 36818
treat mental retardation, at a public or private mental 36819
retardation facility, or by a psychiatrist or another mental 36820
retardation professional. In any case, the order may restrict the 36821
defendant's freedom of movement as the court considers necessary. 36822
The prosecutor in the defendant's case shall send to the chief 36823
clinical officer of the hospital, facility, or agency where the 36824
defendant is placed by the department of mental healthmental 36825
health and addiction services, or to the managing officer of the 36826
institution, the director of the program or facility, or the 36827
person to which the defendant is committed, copies of relevant 36828
police reports and other background information that pertains to 36829
the defendant and is available to the prosecutor unless the 36830
prosecutor determines that the release of any of the information 36831
in the police reports or any of the other background information 36832
to unauthorized persons would interfere with the effective 36833
prosecution of any person or would create a substantial risk of 36834
harm to any person.36835

       In determining the place of commitment, the court shall 36836
consider the extent to which the person is a danger to the person 36837
and to others, the need for security, and the type of crime 36838
involved and shall order the least restrictive alternative 36839
available that is consistent with public safety and treatment 36840
goals. In weighing these factors, the court shall give preference 36841
to protecting public safety.36842

       (c) If the defendant is found incompetent to stand trial, if 36843
the chief clinical officer of the hospital, facility, or agency 36844
where the defendant is placed, or the managing officer of the 36845
institution, the director of the program or facility, or the 36846
person to which the defendant is committed for treatment or 36847
continuing evaluation and treatment under division (B)(1)(b) of 36848
this section determines that medication is necessary to restore 36849
the defendant's competency to stand trial, and if the defendant 36850
lacks the capacity to give informed consent or refuses medication, 36851
the chief clinical officer of the hospital, facility, or agency 36852
where the defendant is placed, or the managing officer of the 36853
institution, the director of the program or facility, or the 36854
person to which the defendant is committed for treatment or 36855
continuing evaluation and treatment may petition the court for 36856
authorization for the involuntary administration of medication. 36857
The court shall hold a hearing on the petition within five days of 36858
the filing of the petition if the petition was filed in a 36859
municipal court or a county court regarding an incompetent 36860
defendant charged with a misdemeanor or within ten days of the 36861
filing of the petition if the petition was filed in a court of 36862
common pleas regarding an incompetent defendant charged with a 36863
felony offense. Following the hearing, the court may authorize the 36864
involuntary administration of medication or may dismiss the 36865
petition.36866

       (2) If the court finds that the defendant is incompetent to 36867
stand trial and that, even if the defendant is provided with a 36868
course of treatment, there is not a substantial probability that 36869
the defendant will become competent to stand trial within one 36870
year, the court shall order the discharge of the defendant, unless 36871
upon motion of the prosecutor or on its own motion, the court 36872
either seeks to retain jurisdiction over the defendant pursuant to 36873
section 2945.39 of the Revised Code or files an affidavit in the 36874
probate court for the civil commitment of the defendant pursuant 36875
to Chapter 5122. or 5123. of the Revised Code alleging that the 36876
defendant is a mentally ill person subject to hospitalization by 36877
court order or a mentally retarded person subject to 36878
institutionalization by court order. If an affidavit is filed in 36879
the probate court, the trial court shall send to the probate court 36880
copies of all written reports of the defendant's mental condition 36881
that were prepared pursuant to section 2945.371 of the Revised 36882
Code.36883

       The trial court may issue the temporary order of detention 36884
that a probate court may issue under section 5122.11 or 5123.71 of 36885
the Revised Code, to remain in effect until the probable cause or 36886
initial hearing in the probate court. Further proceedings in the 36887
probate court are civil proceedings governed by Chapter 5122. or 36888
5123. of the Revised Code.36889

       (C) No defendant shall be required to undergo treatment, 36890
including any continuing evaluation and treatment, under division 36891
(B)(1) of this section for longer than whichever of the following 36892
periods is applicable:36893

       (1) One year, if the most serious offense with which the 36894
defendant is charged is one of the following offenses:36895

       (a) Aggravated murder, murder, or an offense of violence for 36896
which a sentence of death or life imprisonment may be imposed;36897

       (b) An offense of violence that is a felony of the first or 36898
second degree;36899

       (c) A conspiracy to commit, an attempt to commit, or 36900
complicity in the commission of an offense described in division 36901
(C)(1)(a) or (b) of this section if the conspiracy, attempt, or 36902
complicity is a felony of the first or second degree.36903

       (2) Six months, if the most serious offense with which the 36904
defendant is charged is a felony other than a felony described in 36905
division (C)(1) of this section;36906

       (3) Sixty days, if the most serious offense with which the 36907
defendant is charged is a misdemeanor of the first or second 36908
degree;36909

       (4) Thirty days, if the most serious offense with which the 36910
defendant is charged is a misdemeanor of the third or fourth 36911
degree, a minor misdemeanor, or an unclassified misdemeanor.36912

       (D) Any defendant who is committed pursuant to this section 36913
shall not voluntarily admit the defendant or be voluntarily 36914
admitted to a hospital or institution pursuant to section 5122.02, 36915
5122.15, 5123.69, or 5123.76 of the Revised Code.36916

       (E) Except as otherwise provided in this division, a 36917
defendant who is charged with an offense and is committed by the 36918
court under this section to the department of mental healthmental 36919
health and addiction services or is committed to an institution or 36920
facility for the treatment of mental retardation shall not be 36921
granted unsupervised on-grounds movement, supervised off-grounds 36922
movement, or nonsecured status except in accordance with the court 36923
order. The court may grant a defendant supervised off-grounds 36924
movement to obtain medical treatment or specialized habilitation 36925
treatment services if the person who supervises the treatment or 36926
the continuing evaluation and treatment of the defendant ordered 36927
under division (B)(1)(a) of this section informs the court that 36928
the treatment or continuing evaluation and treatment cannot be 36929
provided at the hospital or facility where the defendant is placed 36930
by the department of mental healthmental health and addiction 36931
services or the institution or facility to which the defendant is 36932
committed. The chief clinical officer of the hospital or facility 36933
where the defendant is placed by the department of mental health36934
mental health and addiction services or the managing officer of 36935
the institution or director of the facility to which the defendant 36936
is committed, or a designee of any of those persons, may grant a 36937
defendant movement to a medical facility for an emergency medical 36938
situation with appropriate supervision to ensure the safety of the 36939
defendant, staff, and community during that emergency medical 36940
situation. The chief clinical officer of the hospital or facility 36941
where the defendant is placed by the department of mental health36942
mental health and addiction services or the managing officer of 36943
the institution or director of the facility to which the defendant 36944
is committed shall notify the court within twenty-four hours of 36945
the defendant's movement to the medical facility for an emergency 36946
medical situation under this division.36947

       (F) The person who supervises the treatment or continuing 36948
evaluation and treatment of a defendant ordered to undergo 36949
treatment or continuing evaluation and treatment under division 36950
(B)(1)(a) of this section shall file a written report with the 36951
court at the following times:36952

       (1) Whenever the person believes the defendant is capable of 36953
understanding the nature and objective of the proceedings against 36954
the defendant and of assisting in the defendant's defense;36955

       (2) For a felony offense, fourteen days before expiration of 36956
the maximum time for treatment as specified in division (C) of 36957
this section and fourteen days before the expiration of the 36958
maximum time for continuing evaluation and treatment as specified 36959
in division (B)(1)(a) of this section, and, for a misdemeanor 36960
offense, ten days before the expiration of the maximum time for 36961
treatment, as specified in division (C) of this section;36962

       (3) At a minimum, after each six months of treatment;36963

       (4) Whenever the person who supervises the treatment or 36964
continuing evaluation and treatment of a defendant ordered under 36965
division (B)(1)(a) of this section believes that there is not a 36966
substantial probability that the defendant will become capable of 36967
understanding the nature and objective of the proceedings against 36968
the defendant or of assisting in the defendant's defense even if 36969
the defendant is provided with a course of treatment.36970

       (G) A report under division (F) of this section shall contain 36971
the examiner's findings, the facts in reasonable detail on which 36972
the findings are based, and the examiner's opinion as to the 36973
defendant's capability of understanding the nature and objective 36974
of the proceedings against the defendant and of assisting in the 36975
defendant's defense. If, in the examiner's opinion, the defendant 36976
remains incapable of understanding the nature and objective of the 36977
proceedings against the defendant and of assisting in the 36978
defendant's defense and there is a substantial probability that 36979
the defendant will become capable of understanding the nature and 36980
objective of the proceedings against the defendant and of 36981
assisting in the defendant's defense if the defendant is provided 36982
with a course of treatment, if in the examiner's opinion the 36983
defendant remains mentally ill or mentally retarded, and if the 36984
maximum time for treatment as specified in division (C) of this 36985
section has not expired, the report also shall contain the 36986
examiner's recommendation as to the least restrictive placement or 36987
commitment alternative that is consistent with the defendant's 36988
treatment needs for restoration to competency and with the safety 36989
of the community. The court shall provide copies of the report to 36990
the prosecutor and defense counsel.36991

       (H) If a defendant is committed pursuant to division (B)(1) 36992
of this section, within ten days after the treating physician of 36993
the defendant or the examiner of the defendant who is employed or 36994
retained by the treating facility advises that there is not a 36995
substantial probability that the defendant will become capable of 36996
understanding the nature and objective of the proceedings against 36997
the defendant or of assisting in the defendant's defense even if 36998
the defendant is provided with a course of treatment, within ten 36999
days after the expiration of the maximum time for treatment as 37000
specified in division (C) of this section, within ten days after 37001
the expiration of the maximum time for continuing evaluation and 37002
treatment as specified in division (B)(1)(a) of this section, 37003
within thirty days after a defendant's request for a hearing that 37004
is made after six months of treatment, or within thirty days after 37005
being advised by the treating physician or examiner that the 37006
defendant is competent to stand trial, whichever is the earliest, 37007
the court shall conduct another hearing to determine if the 37008
defendant is competent to stand trial and shall do whichever of 37009
the following is applicable:37010

       (1) If the court finds that the defendant is competent to 37011
stand trial, the defendant shall be proceeded against as provided 37012
by law.37013

       (2) If the court finds that the defendant is incompetent to 37014
stand trial, but that there is a substantial probability that the 37015
defendant will become competent to stand trial if the defendant is 37016
provided with a course of treatment, and the maximum time for 37017
treatment as specified in division (C) of this section has not 37018
expired, the court, after consideration of the examiner's 37019
recommendation, shall order that treatment be continued, may 37020
change the facility or program at which the treatment is to be 37021
continued, and shall specify whether the treatment is to be 37022
continued at the same or a different facility or program.37023

       (3) If the court finds that the defendant is incompetent to 37024
stand trial, if the defendant is charged with an offense listed in 37025
division (C)(1) of this section, and if the court finds that there 37026
is not a substantial probability that the defendant will become 37027
competent to stand trial even if the defendant is provided with a 37028
course of treatment, or if the maximum time for treatment relative 37029
to that offense as specified in division (C) of this section has 37030
expired, further proceedings shall be as provided in sections 37031
2945.39, 2945.401, and 2945.402 of the Revised Code.37032

       (4) If the court finds that the defendant is incompetent to 37033
stand trial, if the most serious offense with which the defendant 37034
is charged is a misdemeanor or a felony other than a felony listed 37035
in division (C)(1) of this section, and if the court finds that 37036
there is not a substantial probability that the defendant will 37037
become competent to stand trial even if the defendant is provided 37038
with a course of treatment, or if the maximum time for treatment 37039
relative to that offense as specified in division (C) of this 37040
section has expired, the court shall dismiss the indictment, 37041
information, or complaint against the defendant. A dismissal under 37042
this division is not a bar to further prosecution based on the 37043
same conduct. The court shall discharge the defendant unless the 37044
court or prosecutor files an affidavit in probate court for civil 37045
commitment pursuant to Chapter 5122. or 5123. of the Revised Code. 37046
If an affidavit for civil commitment is filed, the court may 37047
detain the defendant for ten days pending civil commitment. All of 37048
the following provisions apply to persons charged with a 37049
misdemeanor or a felony other than a felony listed in division 37050
(C)(1) of this section who are committed by the probate court 37051
subsequent to the court's or prosecutor's filing of an affidavit 37052
for civil commitment under authority of this division:37053

       (a) The chief clinical officer of the entity, hospital, or 37054
facility, the managing officer of the institution, the director of 37055
the program, or the person to which the defendant is committed or 37056
admitted shall do all of the following:37057

       (i) Notify the prosecutor, in writing, of the discharge of 37058
the defendant, send the notice at least ten days prior to the 37059
discharge unless the discharge is by the probate court, and state 37060
in the notice the date on which the defendant will be discharged;37061

       (ii) Notify the prosecutor, in writing, when the defendant is 37062
absent without leave or is granted unsupervised, off-grounds 37063
movement, and send this notice promptly after the discovery of the 37064
absence without leave or prior to the granting of the 37065
unsupervised, off-grounds movement, whichever is applicable;37066

       (iii) Notify the prosecutor, in writing, of the change of the 37067
defendant's commitment or admission to voluntary status, send the 37068
notice promptly upon learning of the change to voluntary status, 37069
and state in the notice the date on which the defendant was 37070
committed or admitted on a voluntary status.37071

       (b) Upon receiving notice that the defendant will be granted 37072
unsupervised, off-grounds movement, the prosecutor either shall 37073
re-indict the defendant or promptly notify the court that the 37074
prosecutor does not intend to prosecute the charges against the 37075
defendant.37076

       (I) If a defendant is convicted of a crime and sentenced to a 37077
jail or workhouse, the defendant's sentence shall be reduced by 37078
the total number of days the defendant is confined for evaluation 37079
to determine the defendant's competence to stand trial or 37080
treatment under this section and sections 2945.37 and 2945.371 of 37081
the Revised Code or by the total number of days the defendant is 37082
confined for evaluation to determine the defendant's mental 37083
condition at the time of the offense charged.37084

       Sec. 2945.39.  (A) If a defendant who is charged with an 37085
offense described in division (C)(1) of section 2945.38 of the 37086
Revised Code is found incompetent to stand trial, after the 37087
expiration of the maximum time for treatment as specified in 37088
division (C) of that section or after the court finds that there 37089
is not a substantial probability that the defendant will become 37090
competent to stand trial even if the defendant is provided with a 37091
course of treatment, one of the following applies:37092

       (1) The court or the prosecutor may file an affidavit in 37093
probate court for civil commitment of the defendant in the manner 37094
provided in Chapter 5122. or 5123. of the Revised Code. If the 37095
court or prosecutor files an affidavit for civil commitment, the 37096
court may detain the defendant for ten days pending civil 37097
commitment. If the probate court commits the defendant subsequent 37098
to the court's or prosecutor's filing of an affidavit for civil 37099
commitment, the chief clinical officer of the entity, hospital, or 37100
facility, the managing officer of the institution, the director of 37101
the program, or the person to which the defendant is committed or 37102
admitted shall send to the prosecutor the notices described in 37103
divisions (H)(4)(a)(i) to (iii) of section 2945.38 of the Revised 37104
Code within the periods of time and under the circumstances 37105
specified in those divisions.37106

       (2) On the motion of the prosecutor or on its own motion, the 37107
court may retain jurisdiction over the defendant if, at a hearing, 37108
the court finds both of the following by clear and convincing 37109
evidence:37110

       (a) The defendant committed the offense with which the 37111
defendant is charged.37112

       (b) The defendant is a mentally ill person subject to 37113
hospitalization by court order or a mentally retarded person 37114
subject to institutionalization by court order.37115

       (B) In making its determination under division (A)(2) of this 37116
section as to whether to retain jurisdiction over the defendant, 37117
the court may consider all relevant evidence, including, but not 37118
limited to, any relevant psychiatric, psychological, or medical 37119
testimony or reports, the acts constituting the offense charged, 37120
and any history of the defendant that is relevant to the 37121
defendant's ability to conform to the law.37122

       (C) If the court conducts a hearing as described in division 37123
(A)(2) of this section and if the court does not make both 37124
findings described in divisions (A)(2)(a) and (b) of this section 37125
by clear and convincing evidence, the court shall dismiss the 37126
indictment, information, or complaint against the defendant. Upon 37127
the dismissal, the court shall discharge the defendant unless the 37128
court or prosecutor files an affidavit in probate court for civil 37129
commitment of the defendant pursuant to Chapter 5122. or 5123. of 37130
the Revised Code. If the court or prosecutor files an affidavit 37131
for civil commitment, the court may order that the defendant be 37132
detained for up to ten days pending the civil commitment. If the 37133
probate court commits the defendant subsequent to the court's or 37134
prosecutor's filing of an affidavit for civil commitment, the 37135
chief clinical officer of the entity, hospital, or facility, the 37136
managing officer of the institution, the director of the program, 37137
or the person to which the defendant is committed or admitted 37138
shall send to the prosecutor the notices described in divisions 37139
(H)(4)(a)(i) to (iii) of section 2945.38 of the Revised Code 37140
within the periods of time and under the circumstances specified 37141
in those divisions. A dismissal of charges under this division is 37142
not a bar to further criminal proceedings based on the same 37143
conduct.37144

       (D)(1) If the court conducts a hearing as described in 37145
division (A)(2) of this section and if the court makes the 37146
findings described in divisions (A)(2)(a) and (b) of this section 37147
by clear and convincing evidence, the court shall commit the 37148
defendant, if determined to require mental health treatment, 37149
either to the department of mental healthmental health and 37150
addiction services for treatment at a hospital, facility, or 37151
agency as determined clinically appropriate by the department of 37152
mental healthmental health and addiction services or to another 37153
medical or psychiatric facility, as appropriate. Prior to placing 37154
the defendant, the department of mental healthmental health and 37155
addiction services shall obtain court approval for that placement. 37156
If the court conducts such a hearing and if it makes those 37157
findings by clear and convincing evidence, the court shall commit 37158
the defendant, if determined to require treatment for mental 37159
retardation, to a facility operated by the department of 37160
developmental disabilities, or another facility, as appropriate. 37161
In determining the place of commitment, the court shall consider 37162
the extent to which the person is a danger to the person and to 37163
others, the need for security, and the type of crime involved and 37164
shall order the least restrictive alternative available that is 37165
consistent with public safety and the welfare of the defendant. In 37166
weighing these factors, the court shall give preference to 37167
protecting public safety.37168

       (2) If a court makes a commitment of a defendant under 37169
division (D)(1) of this section, the prosecutor shall send to the 37170
hospital, facility, or agency where the defendant is placed by the 37171
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services37172
or to the defendant's place of commitment all reports of the 37173
defendant's current mental condition and, except as otherwise 37174
provided in this division, any other relevant information, 37175
including, but not limited to, a transcript of the hearing held 37176
pursuant to division (A)(2) of this section, copies of relevant 37177
police reports, and copies of any prior arrest and conviction 37178
records that pertain to the defendant and that the prosecutor 37179
possesses. The prosecutor shall send the reports of the 37180
defendant's current mental condition in every case of commitment, 37181
and, unless the prosecutor determines that the release of any of 37182
the other relevant information to unauthorized persons would 37183
interfere with the effective prosecution of any person or would 37184
create a substantial risk of harm to any person, the prosecutor 37185
also shall send the other relevant information. Upon admission of 37186
a defendant committed under division (D)(1) of this section, the 37187
place of commitment shall send to the board of alcohol, drug 37188
addiction, and mental health services or the community mental 37189
health board serving the county in which the charges against the 37190
defendant were filed a copy of all reports of the defendant's 37191
current mental condition and a copy of the other relevant 37192
information provided by the prosecutor under this division, 37193
including, if provided, a transcript of the hearing held pursuant 37194
to division (A)(2) of this section, the relevant police reports, 37195
and the prior arrest and conviction records that pertain to the 37196
defendant and that the prosecutor possesses.37197

       (3) If a court makes a commitment under division (D)(1) of 37198
this section, all further proceedings shall be in accordance with 37199
sections 2945.401 and 2945.402 of the Revised Code.37200

       Sec. 2945.40.  (A) If a person is found not guilty by reason 37201
of insanity, the verdict shall state that finding, and the trial 37202
court shall conduct a full hearing to determine whether the person 37203
is a mentally ill person subject to hospitalization by court order 37204
or a mentally retarded person subject to institutionalization by 37205
court order. Prior to the hearing, if the trial judge believes 37206
that there is probable cause that the person found not guilty by 37207
reason of insanity is a mentally ill person subject to 37208
hospitalization by court order or mentally retarded person subject 37209
to institutionalization by court order, the trial judge may issue 37210
a temporary order of detention for that person to remain in effect 37211
for ten court days or until the hearing, whichever occurs first.37212

       Any person detained pursuant to a temporary order of 37213
detention issued under this division shall be held in a suitable 37214
facility, taking into consideration the place and type of 37215
confinement prior to and during trial.37216

       (B) The court shall hold the hearing under division (A) of 37217
this section to determine whether the person found not guilty by 37218
reason of insanity is a mentally ill person subject to 37219
hospitalization by court order or a mentally retarded person 37220
subject to institutionalization by court order within ten court 37221
days after the finding of not guilty by reason of insanity. 37222
Failure to conduct the hearing within the ten-day period shall 37223
cause the immediate discharge of the respondent, unless the judge 37224
grants a continuance for not longer than ten court days for good 37225
cause shown or for any period of time upon motion of the 37226
respondent.37227

       (C) If a person is found not guilty by reason of insanity, 37228
the person has the right to attend all hearings conducted pursuant 37229
to sections 2945.37 to 2945.402 of the Revised Code. At any 37230
hearing conducted pursuant to one of those sections, the court 37231
shall inform the person that the person has all of the following 37232
rights:37233

       (1) The right to be represented by counsel and to have that 37234
counsel provided at public expense if the person is indigent, with 37235
the counsel to be appointed by the court under Chapter 120. of the 37236
Revised Code or under the authority recognized in division (C) of 37237
section 120.06, division (E) of section 120.16, division (E) of 37238
section 120.26, or section 2941.51 of the Revised Code;37239

       (2) The right to have independent expert evaluation and to 37240
have that independent expert evaluation provided at public expense 37241
if the person is indigent;37242

       (3) The right to subpoena witnesses and documents, to present 37243
evidence on the person's behalf, and to cross-examine witnesses 37244
against the person;37245

       (4) The right to testify in the person's own behalf and to 37246
not be compelled to testify;37247

       (5) The right to have copies of any relevant medical or 37248
mental health document in the custody of the state or of any place 37249
of commitment other than a document for which the court finds that 37250
the release to the person of information contained in the document 37251
would create a substantial risk of harm to any person.37252

       (D) The hearing under division (A) of this section shall be 37253
open to the public, and the court shall conduct the hearing in 37254
accordance with the Rules of Civil Procedure. The court shall make 37255
and maintain a full transcript and record of the hearing 37256
proceedings. The court may consider all relevant evidence, 37257
including, but not limited to, any relevant psychiatric, 37258
psychological, or medical testimony or reports, the acts 37259
constituting the offense in relation to which the person was found 37260
not guilty by reason of insanity, and any history of the person 37261
that is relevant to the person's ability to conform to the law.37262

       (E) Upon completion of the hearing under division (A) of this 37263
section, if the court finds there is not clear and convincing 37264
evidence that the person is a mentally ill person subject to 37265
hospitalization by court order or a mentally retarded person 37266
subject to institutionalization by court order, the court shall 37267
discharge the person, unless a detainer has been placed upon the 37268
person by the department of rehabilitation and correction, in 37269
which case the person shall be returned to that department.37270

       (F) If, at the hearing under division (A) of this section, 37271
the court finds by clear and convincing evidence that the person 37272
is a mentally ill person subject to hospitalization by court 37273
order, the court shall commit the person either to the department 37274
of mental healthmental health and addiction services for 37275
treatment in a hospital, facility, or agency as determined 37276
clinically appropriate by the department of mental healthmental 37277
health and addiction services or to another medical or psychiatric 37278
facility, as appropriate. Prior to placing the defendant, the 37279
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services37280
shall obtain court approval for that placement. If, at the hearing 37281
under division (A) of this section, the court determines by clear 37282
and convincing evidence that the person requires treatment for 37283
mental retardation, it shall commit the person to a facility 37284
operated by the department of developmental disabilities or 37285
another facility, as appropriate. Further proceedings shall be in 37286
accordance with sections 2945.401 and 2945.402 of the Revised 37287
Code. In determining the place of commitment, the court shall 37288
consider the extent to which the person is a danger to the person 37289
and to others, the need for security, and the type of crime 37290
involved and shall order the least restrictive alternative 37291
available that is consistent with public safety and the welfare of 37292
the person. In weighing these factors, the court shall give 37293
preference to protecting public safety.37294

       (G) If a court makes a commitment of a person under division 37295
(F) of this section, the prosecutor shall send to the hospital, 37296
facility, or agency where the person is placed by the department 37297
of mental healthmental health and addiction services or to the 37298
defendant's place of commitment all reports of the person's 37299
current mental condition, and, except as otherwise provided in 37300
this division, any other relevant information, including, but not 37301
limited to, a transcript of the hearing held pursuant to division 37302
(A) of this section, copies of relevant police reports, and copies 37303
of any prior arrest and conviction records that pertain to the 37304
person and that the prosecutor possesses. The prosecutor shall 37305
send the reports of the person's current mental condition in every 37306
case of commitment, and, unless the prosecutor determines that the 37307
release of any of the other relevant information to unauthorized 37308
persons would interfere with the effective prosecution of any 37309
person or would create a substantial risk of harm to any person, 37310
the prosecutor also shall send the other relevant information. 37311
Upon admission of a person committed under division (F) of this 37312
section, the place of commitment shall send to the board of 37313
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services or the 37314
community mental health board serving the county in which the 37315
charges against the person were filed a copy of all reports of the 37316
person's current mental condition and a copy of the other relevant 37317
information provided by the prosecutor under this division, 37318
including, if provided, a transcript of the hearing held pursuant 37319
to division (A) of this section, the relevant police reports, and 37320
the prior arrest and conviction records that pertain to the person 37321
and that the prosecutor possesses. 37322

       (H) A person who is committed pursuant to this section shall 37323
not voluntarily admit the person or be voluntarily admitted to a 37324
hospital or institution pursuant to section 5122.02, 5122.15, 37325
5123.69, or 5123.76 of the Revised Code.37326

       Sec. 2945.401.  (A) A defendant found incompetent to stand 37327
trial and committed pursuant to section 2945.39 of the Revised 37328
Code or a person found not guilty by reason of insanity and 37329
committed pursuant to section 2945.40 of the Revised Code shall 37330
remain subject to the jurisdiction of the trial court pursuant to 37331
that commitment, and to the provisions of this section, until the 37332
final termination of the commitment as described in division 37333
(J)(1) of this section. If the jurisdiction is terminated under 37334
this division because of the final termination of the commitment 37335
resulting from the expiration of the maximum prison term or term 37336
of imprisonment described in division (J)(1)(b) of this section, 37337
the court or prosecutor may file an affidavit for the civil 37338
commitment of the defendant or person pursuant to Chapter 5122. or 37339
5123. of the Revised Code.37340

       (B) A hearing conducted under any provision of sections 37341
2945.37 to 2945.402 of the Revised Code shall not be conducted in 37342
accordance with Chapters 5122. and 5123. of the Revised Code. Any 37343
person who is committed pursuant to section 2945.39 or 2945.40 of 37344
the Revised Code shall not voluntarily admit the person or be 37345
voluntarily admitted to a hospital or institution pursuant to 37346
section 5122.02, 5122.15, 5123.69, or 5123.76 of the Revised Code. 37347
All other provisions of Chapters 5122. and 5123. of the Revised 37348
Code regarding hospitalization or institutionalization shall apply 37349
to the extent they are not in conflict with this chapter. A 37350
commitment under section 2945.39 or 2945.40 of the Revised Code 37351
shall not be terminated and the conditions of the commitment shall 37352
not be changed except as otherwise provided in division (D)(2) of 37353
this section with respect to a mentally retarded person subject to 37354
institutionalization by court order or except by order of the 37355
trial court.37356

       (C) The department of mental healthmental health and 37357
addiction services or the institution, facility, or program to 37358
which a defendant or person has been committed under section 37359
2945.39 or 2945.40 of the Revised Code shall report in writing to 37360
the trial court, at the times specified in this division, as to 37361
whether the defendant or person remains a mentally ill person 37362
subject to hospitalization by court order or a mentally retarded 37363
person subject to institutionalization by court order and, in the 37364
case of a defendant committed under section 2945.39 of the Revised 37365
Code, as to whether the defendant remains incompetent to stand 37366
trial. The department, institution, facility, or program shall 37367
make the reports after the initial six months of treatment and 37368
every two years after the initial report is made. The trial court 37369
shall provide copies of the reports to the prosecutor and to the 37370
counsel for the defendant or person. Within thirty days after its 37371
receipt pursuant to this division of a report from the department, 37372
institution, facility, or program, the trial court shall hold a 37373
hearing on the continued commitment of the defendant or person or 37374
on any changes in the conditions of the commitment of the 37375
defendant or person. The defendant or person may request a change 37376
in the conditions of confinement, and the trial court shall 37377
conduct a hearing on that request if six months or more have 37378
elapsed since the most recent hearing was conducted under this 37379
section.37380

       (D)(1) Except as otherwise provided in division (D)(2) of 37381
this section, when a defendant or person has been committed under 37382
section 2945.39 or 2945.40 of the Revised Code, at any time after 37383
evaluating the risks to public safety and the welfare of the 37384
defendant or person, the designee of the department of mental 37385
healthmental health and addiction services or the managing 37386
officer of the institution or director of the facility or program 37387
to which the defendant or person is committed may recommend a 37388
termination of the defendant's or person's commitment or a change 37389
in the conditions of the defendant's or person's commitment.37390

       Except as otherwise provided in division (D)(2) of this 37391
section, if the designee of the department of mental healthmental 37392
health and addiction services recommends on-grounds unsupervised 37393
movement, off-grounds supervised movement, or nonsecured status 37394
for the defendant or person or termination of the defendant's or 37395
person's commitment, the following provisions apply:37396

       (a) If the department's designee recommends on-grounds 37397
unsupervised movement or off-grounds supervised movement, the 37398
department's designee shall file with the trial court an 37399
application for approval of the movement and shall send a copy of 37400
the application to the prosecutor. Within fifteen days after 37401
receiving the application, the prosecutor may request a hearing on 37402
the application and, if a hearing is requested, shall so inform 37403
the department's designee. If the prosecutor does not request a 37404
hearing within the fifteen-day period, the trial court shall 37405
approve the application by entering its order approving the 37406
requested movement or, within five days after the expiration of 37407
the fifteen-day period, shall set a date for a hearing on the 37408
application. If the prosecutor requests a hearing on the 37409
application within the fifteen-day period, the trial court shall 37410
hold a hearing on the application within thirty days after the 37411
hearing is requested. If the trial court, within five days after 37412
the expiration of the fifteen-day period, sets a date for a 37413
hearing on the application, the trial court shall hold the hearing 37414
within thirty days after setting the hearing date. At least 37415
fifteen days before any hearing is held under this division, the 37416
trial court shall give the prosecutor written notice of the date, 37417
time, and place of the hearing. At the conclusion of each hearing 37418
conducted under this division, the trial court either shall 37419
approve or disapprove the application and shall enter its order 37420
accordingly.37421

       (b) If the department's designee recommends termination of 37422
the defendant's or person's commitment at any time or if the 37423
department's designee recommends the first of any nonsecured 37424
status for the defendant or person, the department's designee 37425
shall send written notice of this recommendation to the trial 37426
court and to the local forensic center. The local forensic center 37427
shall evaluate the committed defendant or person and, within 37428
thirty days after its receipt of the written notice, shall submit 37429
to the trial court and the department's designee a written report 37430
of the evaluation. The trial court shall provide a copy of the 37431
department's designee's written notice and of the local forensic 37432
center's written report to the prosecutor and to the counsel for 37433
the defendant or person. Upon the local forensic center's 37434
submission of the report to the trial court and the department's 37435
designee, all of the following apply:37436

       (i) If the forensic center disagrees with the recommendation 37437
of the department's designee, it shall inform the department's 37438
designee and the trial court of its decision and the reasons for 37439
the decision. The department's designee, after consideration of 37440
the forensic center's decision, shall either withdraw, proceed 37441
with, or modify and proceed with the recommendation. If the 37442
department's designee proceeds with, or modifies and proceeds 37443
with, the recommendation, the department's designee shall proceed 37444
in accordance with division (D)(1)(b)(iii) of this section.37445

       (ii) If the forensic center agrees with the recommendation of 37446
the department's designee, it shall inform the department's 37447
designee and the trial court of its decision and the reasons for 37448
the decision, and the department's designee shall proceed in 37449
accordance with division (D)(1)(b)(iii) of this section.37450

       (iii) If the forensic center disagrees with the 37451
recommendation of the department's designee and the department's 37452
designee proceeds with, or modifies and proceeds with, the 37453
recommendation or if the forensic center agrees with the 37454
recommendation of the department's designee, the department's 37455
designee shall work with community mental health agenciesservices 37456
providers, programs, facilities, or boards of alcohol, drug 37457
addiction, and mental health services or community mental health 37458
boards to develop a plan to implement the recommendation. If the 37459
defendant or person is on medication, the plan shall include, but 37460
shall not be limited to, a system to monitor the defendant's or 37461
person's compliance with the prescribed medication treatment plan. 37462
The system shall include a schedule that clearly states when the 37463
defendant or person shall report for a medication compliance 37464
check. The medication compliance checks shall be based upon the 37465
effective duration of the prescribed medication, taking into 37466
account the route by which it is taken, and shall be scheduled at 37467
intervals sufficiently close together to detect a potential 37468
increase in mental illness symptoms that the medication is 37469
intended to prevent.37470

       The department's designee, after consultation with the board 37471
of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services or the 37472
community mental health board serving the area, shall send the 37473
recommendation and plan developed under division (D)(1)(b)(iii) of 37474
this section, in writing, to the trial court, the prosecutor, and 37475
the counsel for the committed defendant or person. The trial court 37476
shall conduct a hearing on the recommendation and plan developed 37477
under division (D)(1)(b)(iii) of this section. Divisions (D)(1)(c) 37478
and (d) and (E) to (J) of this section apply regarding the 37479
hearing.37480

       (c) If the department's designee's recommendation is for 37481
nonsecured status or termination of commitment, the prosecutor may 37482
obtain an independent expert evaluation of the defendant's or 37483
person's mental condition, and the trial court may continue the 37484
hearing on the recommendation for a period of not more than thirty 37485
days to permit time for the evaluation.37486

       The prosecutor may introduce the evaluation report or present 37487
other evidence at the hearing in accordance with the Rules of 37488
Evidence.37489

       (d) The trial court shall schedule the hearing on a 37490
department's designee's recommendation for nonsecured status or 37491
termination of commitment and shall give reasonable notice to the 37492
prosecutor and the counsel for the defendant or person. Unless 37493
continued for independent evaluation at the prosecutor's request 37494
or for other good cause, the hearing shall be held within thirty 37495
days after the trial court's receipt of the recommendation and 37496
plan.37497

       (2)(a) Division (D)(1) of this section does not apply to 37498
on-grounds unsupervised movement of a defendant or person who has 37499
been committed under section 2945.39 or 2945.40 of the Revised 37500
Code, who is a mentally retarded person subject to 37501
institutionalization by court order, and who is being provided 37502
residential habilitation, care, and treatment in a facility 37503
operated by the department of developmental disabilities.37504

       (b) If, pursuant to section 2945.39 of the Revised Code, the 37505
trial court commits a defendant who is found incompetent to stand 37506
trial and who is a mentally retarded person subject to 37507
institutionalization by court order, if the defendant is being 37508
provided residential habilitation, care, and treatment in a 37509
facility operated by the department of developmental disabilities, 37510
if an individual who is conducting a survey for the department of 37511
health to determine the facility's compliance with the 37512
certification requirements of the medicaid program under Chapter 37513
5111. of the Revised Code and Title XIX of the "Social Security 37514
Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended, cites the 37515
defendant's receipt of the residential habilitation, care, and 37516
treatment in the facility as being inappropriate under the 37517
certification requirements, if the defendant's receipt of the 37518
residential habilitation, care, and treatment in the facility 37519
potentially jeopardizes the facility's continued receipt of 37520
federal medicaid moneys, and if as a result of the citation the 37521
chief clinical officer of the facility determines that the 37522
conditions of the defendant's commitment should be changed, the 37523
department of developmental disabilities may cause the defendant 37524
to be removed from the particular facility and, after evaluating 37525
the risks to public safety and the welfare of the defendant and 37526
after determining whether another type of placement is consistent 37527
with the certification requirements, may place the defendant in 37528
another facility that the department selects as an appropriate 37529
facility for the defendant's continued receipt of residential 37530
habilitation, care, and treatment and that is a no less secure 37531
setting than the facility in which the defendant had been placed 37532
at the time of the citation. Within three days after the 37533
defendant's removal and alternative placement under the 37534
circumstances described in division (D)(2)(b) of this section, the 37535
department of developmental disabilities shall notify the trial 37536
court and the prosecutor in writing of the removal and alternative 37537
placement.37538

       The trial court shall set a date for a hearing on the removal 37539
and alternative placement, and the hearing shall be held within 37540
twenty-one days after the trial court's receipt of the notice from 37541
the department of developmental disabilities. At least ten days 37542
before the hearing is held, the trial court shall give the 37543
prosecutor, the department of developmental disabilities, and the 37544
counsel for the defendant written notice of the date, time, and 37545
place of the hearing. At the hearing, the trial court shall 37546
consider the citation issued by the individual who conducted the 37547
survey for the department of health to be prima-facie evidence of 37548
the fact that the defendant's commitment to the particular 37549
facility was inappropriate under the certification requirements of 37550
the medicaid program under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code and 37551
Title XIX of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 37552
U.S.C.A. 301, as amended, and potentially jeopardizes the 37553
particular facility's continued receipt of federal medicaid 37554
moneys. At the conclusion of the hearing, the trial court may 37555
approve or disapprove the defendant's removal and alternative 37556
placement. If the trial court approves the defendant's removal and 37557
alternative placement, the department of developmental 37558
disabilities may continue the defendant's alternative placement. 37559
If the trial court disapproves the defendant's removal and 37560
alternative placement, it shall enter an order modifying the 37561
defendant's removal and alternative placement, but that order 37562
shall not require the department of developmental disabilities to 37563
replace the defendant for purposes of continued residential 37564
habilitation, care, and treatment in the facility associated with 37565
the citation issued by the individual who conducted the survey for 37566
the department of health.37567

       (E) In making a determination under this section regarding 37568
nonsecured status or termination of commitment, the trial court 37569
shall consider all relevant factors, including, but not limited 37570
to, all of the following:37571

       (1) Whether, in the trial court's view, the defendant or 37572
person currently represents a substantial risk of physical harm to 37573
the defendant or person or others;37574

       (2) Psychiatric and medical testimony as to the current 37575
mental and physical condition of the defendant or person;37576

       (3) Whether the defendant or person has insight into the 37577
defendant's or person's condition so that the defendant or person 37578
will continue treatment as prescribed or seek professional 37579
assistance as needed;37580

       (4) The grounds upon which the state relies for the proposed 37581
commitment;37582

       (5) Any past history that is relevant to establish the 37583
defendant's or person's degree of conformity to the laws, rules, 37584
regulations, and values of society;37585

       (6) If there is evidence that the defendant's or person's 37586
mental illness is in a state of remission, the medically suggested 37587
cause and degree of the remission and the probability that the 37588
defendant or person will continue treatment to maintain the 37589
remissive state of the defendant's or person's illness should the 37590
defendant's or person's commitment conditions be altered.37591

       (F) At any hearing held pursuant to division (C) or (D)(1) or 37592
(2) of this section, the defendant or the person shall have all 37593
the rights of a defendant or person at a commitment hearing as 37594
described in section 2945.40 of the Revised Code.37595

       (G) In a hearing held pursuant to division (C) or (D)(1) of 37596
this section, the prosecutor has the burden of proof as follows:37597

       (1) For a recommendation of termination of commitment, to 37598
show by clear and convincing evidence that the defendant or person 37599
remains a mentally ill person subject to hospitalization by court 37600
order or a mentally retarded person subject to 37601
institutionalization by court order;37602

       (2) For a recommendation for a change in the conditions of 37603
the commitment to a less restrictive status, to show by clear and 37604
convincing evidence that the proposed change represents a threat 37605
to public safety or a threat to the safety of any person.37606

       (H) In a hearing held pursuant to division (C) or (D)(1) or 37607
(2) of this section, the prosecutor shall represent the state or 37608
the public interest.37609

       (I) At the conclusion of a hearing conducted under division 37610
(D)(1) of this section regarding a recommendation from the 37611
designee of the department of mental healthmental health and 37612
addiction services, managing officer of the institution, or 37613
director of a facility or program, the trial court may approve, 37614
disapprove, or modify the recommendation and shall enter an order 37615
accordingly.37616

       (J)(1) A defendant or person who has been committed pursuant 37617
to section 2945.39 or 2945.40 of the Revised Code continues to be 37618
under the jurisdiction of the trial court until the final 37619
termination of the commitment. For purposes of division (J) of 37620
this section, the final termination of a commitment occurs upon 37621
the earlier of one of the following:37622

       (a) The defendant or person no longer is a mentally ill 37623
person subject to hospitalization by court order or a mentally 37624
retarded person subject to institutionalization by court order, as 37625
determined by the trial court;37626

       (b) The expiration of the maximum prison term or term of 37627
imprisonment that the defendant or person could have received if 37628
the defendant or person had been convicted of the most serious 37629
offense with which the defendant or person is charged or in 37630
relation to which the defendant or person was found not guilty by 37631
reason of insanity;37632

       (c) The trial court enters an order terminating the 37633
commitment under the circumstances described in division 37634
(J)(2)(a)(ii) of this section.37635

       (2)(a) If a defendant is found incompetent to stand trial and 37636
committed pursuant to section 2945.39 of the Revised Code, if 37637
neither of the circumstances described in divisions (J)(1)(a) and 37638
(b) of this section applies to that defendant, and if a report 37639
filed with the trial court pursuant to division (C) of this 37640
section indicates that the defendant presently is competent to 37641
stand trial or if, at any other time during the period of the 37642
defendant's commitment, the prosecutor, the counsel for the 37643
defendant, or the designee of the department of mental health37644
mental health and addiction services or the managing officer of 37645
the institution or director of the facility or program to which 37646
the defendant is committed files an application with the trial 37647
court alleging that the defendant presently is competent to stand 37648
trial and requesting a hearing on the competency issue or the 37649
trial court otherwise has reasonable cause to believe that the 37650
defendant presently is competent to stand trial and determines on 37651
its own motion to hold a hearing on the competency issue, the 37652
trial court shall schedule a hearing on the competency of the 37653
defendant to stand trial, shall give the prosecutor, the counsel 37654
for the defendant, and the department's designee or the managing 37655
officer of the institution or the director of the facility to 37656
which the defendant is committed notice of the date, time, and 37657
place of the hearing at least fifteen days before the hearing, and 37658
shall conduct the hearing within thirty days of the filing of the 37659
application or of its own motion. If, at the conclusion of the 37660
hearing, the trial court determines that the defendant presently 37661
is capable of understanding the nature and objective of the 37662
proceedings against the defendant and of assisting in the 37663
defendant's defense, the trial court shall order that the 37664
defendant is competent to stand trial and shall be proceeded 37665
against as provided by law with respect to the applicable offenses 37666
described in division (C)(1) of section 2945.38 of the Revised 37667
Code and shall enter whichever of the following additional orders 37668
is appropriate:37669

       (i) If the trial court determines that the defendant remains 37670
a mentally ill person subject to hospitalization by court order or 37671
a mentally retarded person subject to institutionalization by 37672
court order, the trial court shall order that the defendant's 37673
commitment to the department of mental healthmental health and 37674
addiction services or to an institution, facility, or program for 37675
the treatment of mental retardation be continued during the 37676
pendency of the trial on the applicable offenses described in 37677
division (C)(1) of section 2945.38 of the Revised Code.37678

       (ii) If the trial court determines that the defendant no 37679
longer is a mentally ill person subject to hospitalization by 37680
court order or a mentally retarded person subject to 37681
institutionalization by court order, the trial court shall order 37682
that the defendant's commitment to the department of mental health37683
mental health and addiction services or to an institution, 37684
facility, or program for the treatment of mental retardation shall 37685
not be continued during the pendency of the trial on the 37686
applicable offenses described in division (C)(1) of section 37687
2945.38 of the Revised Code. This order shall be a final 37688
termination of the commitment for purposes of division (J)(1)(c) 37689
of this section.37690

       (b) If, at the conclusion of the hearing described in 37691
division (J)(2)(a) of this section, the trial court determines 37692
that the defendant remains incapable of understanding the nature 37693
and objective of the proceedings against the defendant or of 37694
assisting in the defendant's defense, the trial court shall order 37695
that the defendant continues to be incompetent to stand trial, 37696
that the defendant's commitment to the department of mental health37697
mental health and addiction services or to an institution, 37698
facility, or program for the treatment of mental retardation shall 37699
be continued, and that the defendant remains subject to the 37700
jurisdiction of the trial court pursuant to that commitment, and 37701
to the provisions of this section, until the final termination of 37702
the commitment as described in division (J)(1) of this section.37703

       Sec. 2951.041.  (A)(1) If an offender is charged with a 37704
criminal offense, including but not limited to a violation of 37705
section 2913.02, 2913.03, 2913.11, 2913.21, 2913.31, or 2919.21 of 37706
the Revised Code, and the court has reason to believe that drug or 37707
alcohol usage by the offender was a factor leading to the criminal 37708
offense with which the offender is charged or that, at the time of 37709
committing that offense, the offender had a mental illness or was 37710
a person with intellectual disability and that the mental illness 37711
or status as a person with intellectual disability was a factor 37712
leading to the offender's criminal behavior, the court may accept, 37713
prior to the entry of a guilty plea, the offender's request for 37714
intervention in lieu of conviction. The request shall include a 37715
statement from the offender as to whether the offender is alleging 37716
that drug or alcohol usage by the offender was a factor leading to 37717
the criminal offense with which the offender is charged or is 37718
alleging that, at the time of committing that offense, the 37719
offender had a mental illness or was a person with intellectual 37720
disability and that the mental illness or status as a person with 37721
intellectual disability was a factor leading to the criminal 37722
offense with which the offender is charged. The request also shall 37723
include a waiver of the defendant's right to a speedy trial, the 37724
preliminary hearing, the time period within which the grand jury 37725
may consider an indictment against the offender, and arraignment, 37726
unless the hearing, indictment, or arraignment has already 37727
occurred. The court may reject an offender's request without a 37728
hearing. If the court elects to consider an offender's request, 37729
the court shall conduct a hearing to determine whether the 37730
offender is eligible under this section for intervention in lieu 37731
of conviction and shall stay all criminal proceedings pending the 37732
outcome of the hearing. If the court schedules a hearing, the 37733
court shall order an assessment of the offender for the purpose of 37734
determining the offender's eligibility for intervention in lieu of 37735
conviction and recommending an appropriate intervention plan.37736

       If the offender alleges that drug or alcohol usage by the 37737
offender was a factor leading to the criminal offense with which 37738
the offender is charged, the court may order that the offender be 37739
assessed by a programan addiction services provider certified 37740
pursuant to section 3793.065119.36 of the Revised Code or a 37741
properly credentialed professional for the purpose of determining 37742
the offender's eligibility for intervention in lieu of conviction 37743
and recommending an appropriate intervention plan. The program37744
addiction services provider or the properly credentialed 37745
professional shall provide a written assessment of the offender to 37746
the court.37747

       (2) The victim notification provisions of division (C) of 37748
section 2930.08 of the Revised Code apply in relation to any 37749
hearing held under division (A)(1) of this section.37750

       (B) An offender is eligible for intervention in lieu of 37751
conviction if the court finds all of the following:37752

       (1) The offender previously has not been convicted of or 37753
pleaded guilty to a felony offense of violence or previously has 37754
been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any felony that is not an 37755
offense of violence and the prosecuting attorney recommends that 37756
the offender be found eligible for participation in intervention 37757
in lieu of treatment under this section, previously has not been 37758
through intervention in lieu of conviction under this section or 37759
any similar regimen, and is charged with a felony for which the 37760
court, upon conviction, would impose a community control sanction 37761
on the offender under division (B)(2) of section 2929.13 of the 37762
Revised Code or with a misdemeanor.37763

       (2) The offense is not a felony of the first, second, or 37764
third degree, is not an offense of violence, is not a violation of 37765
division (A)(1) or (2) of section 2903.06 of the Revised Code, is 37766
not a violation of division (A)(1) of section 2903.08 of the 37767
Revised Code, is not a violation of division (A) of section 37768
4511.19 of the Revised Code or a municipal ordinance that is 37769
substantially similar to that division, and is not an offense for 37770
which a sentencing court is required to impose a mandatory prison 37771
term, a mandatory term of local incarceration, or a mandatory term 37772
of imprisonment in a jail.37773

       (3) The offender is not charged with a violation of section 37774
2925.02, 2925.04, or 2925.06 of the Revised Code, is not charged 37775
with a violation of section 2925.03 of the Revised Code that is a 37776
felony of the first, second, third, or fourth degree, and is not 37777
charged with a violation of section 2925.11 of the Revised Code 37778
that is a felony of the first, second, or third degree.37779

       (4) If an offender alleges that drug or alcohol usage by the 37780
offender was a factor leading to the criminal offense with which 37781
the offender is charged, the court has ordered that the offender 37782
be assessed by a programan addiction services provider certified 37783
pursuant to section 3793.065119.36 of the Revised Code or a 37784
properly credentialed professional for the purpose of determining 37785
the offender's eligibility for intervention in lieu of conviction 37786
and recommending an appropriate intervention plan, the offender 37787
has been assessed by a programan addiction services provider of 37788
that nature or a properly credentialed professional in accordance 37789
with the court's order, and the programaddiction services 37790
provider or properly credentialed professional has filed the 37791
written assessment of the offender with the court.37792

       (5) If an offender alleges that, at the time of committing 37793
the criminal offense with which the offender is charged, the 37794
offender had a mental illness or was a person with intellectual 37795
disability and that the mental illness or status as a person with 37796
intellectual disability was a factor leading to that offense, the 37797
offender has been assessed by a psychiatrist, psychologist, 37798
independent social worker, or professional clinical counselor for 37799
the purpose of determining the offender's eligibility for 37800
intervention in lieu of conviction and recommending an appropriate 37801
intervention plan.37802

       (6) The offender's drug usage, alcohol usage, mental illness, 37803
or intellectual disability, whichever is applicable, was a factor 37804
leading to the criminal offense with which the offender is 37805
charged, intervention in lieu of conviction would not demean the 37806
seriousness of the offense, and intervention would substantially 37807
reduce the likelihood of any future criminal activity.37808

       (7) The alleged victim of the offense was not sixty-five 37809
years of age or older, permanently and totally disabled, under 37810
thirteen years of age, or a peace officer engaged in the officer's 37811
official duties at the time of the alleged offense.37812

       (8) If the offender is charged with a violation of section 37813
2925.24 of the Revised Code, the alleged violation did not result 37814
in physical harm to any person, and the offender previously has 37815
not been treated for drug abuse.37816

       (9) The offender is willing to comply with all terms and 37817
conditions imposed by the court pursuant to division (D) of this 37818
section.37819

       (10) The offender is not charged with an offense that would 37820
result in the offender being disqualified under Chapter 4506. of 37821
the Revised Code from operating a commercial motor vehicle or 37822
would subject the offender to any other sanction under that 37823
chapter. 37824

       (C) At the conclusion of a hearing held pursuant to division 37825
(A) of this section, the court shall enter its determination as to 37826
whether the offender is eligible for intervention in lieu of 37827
conviction and as to whether to grant the offender's request. If 37828
the court finds under division (B) of this section that the 37829
offender is eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction and 37830
grants the offender's request, the court shall accept the 37831
offender's plea of guilty and waiver of the defendant's right to a 37832
speedy trial, the preliminary hearing, the time period within 37833
which the grand jury may consider an indictment against the 37834
offender, and arraignment, unless the hearing, indictment, or 37835
arraignment has already occurred. In addition, the court then may 37836
stay all criminal proceedings and order the offender to comply 37837
with all terms and conditions imposed by the court pursuant to 37838
division (D) of this section. If the court finds that the offender 37839
is not eligible or does not grant the offender's request, the 37840
criminal proceedings against the offender shall proceed as if the 37841
offender's request for intervention in lieu of conviction had not 37842
been made.37843

       (D) If the court grants an offender's request for 37844
intervention in lieu of conviction, the court shall place the 37845
offender under the general control and supervision of the county 37846
probation department, the adult parole authority, or another 37847
appropriate local probation or court services agency, if one 37848
exists, as if the offender was subject to a community control 37849
sanction imposed under section 2929.15, 2929.18, or 2929.25 of the 37850
Revised Code. The court shall establish an intervention plan for 37851
the offender. The terms and conditions of the intervention plan 37852
shall require the offender, for at least one year from the date on 37853
which the court grants the order of intervention in lieu of 37854
conviction, to abstain from the use of illegal drugs and alcohol, 37855
to participate in treatment and recovery support services, and to 37856
submit to regular random testing for drug and alcohol use and may 37857
include any other treatment terms and conditions, or terms and 37858
conditions similar to community control sanctions, which may 37859
include community service or restitution, that are ordered by the 37860
court.37861

       (E) If the court grants an offender's request for 37862
intervention in lieu of conviction and the court finds that the 37863
offender has successfully completed the intervention plan for the 37864
offender, including the requirement that the offender abstain from 37865
using illegal drugs and alcohol for a period of at least one year 37866
from the date on which the court granted the order of intervention 37867
in lieu of conviction, the requirement that the offender 37868
participate in treatment and recovery support services, and all 37869
other terms and conditions ordered by the court, the court shall 37870
dismiss the proceedings against the offender. Successful 37871
completion of the intervention plan and period of abstinence under 37872
this section shall be without adjudication of guilt and is not a 37873
criminal conviction for purposes of any disqualification or 37874
disability imposed by law and upon conviction of a crime, and the 37875
court may order the sealing of records related to the offense in 37876
question in the manner provided in sections 2953.31 to 2953.36 of 37877
the Revised Code.37878

       (F) If the court grants an offender's request for 37879
intervention in lieu of conviction and the offender fails to 37880
comply with any term or condition imposed as part of the 37881
intervention plan for the offender, the supervising authority for 37882
the offender promptly shall advise the court of this failure, and 37883
the court shall hold a hearing to determine whether the offender 37884
failed to comply with any term or condition imposed as part of the 37885
plan. If the court determines that the offender has failed to 37886
comply with any of those terms and conditions, it shall enter a 37887
finding of guilty and shall impose an appropriate sanction under 37888
Chapter 2929. of the Revised Code. If the court sentences the 37889
offender to a prison term, the court, after consulting with the 37890
department of rehabilitation and correction regarding the 37891
availability of services, may order continued court-supervised 37892
activity and treatment of the offender during the prison term and, 37893
upon consideration of reports received from the department 37894
concerning the offender's progress in the program of activity and 37895
treatment, may consider judicial release under section 2929.20 of 37896
the Revised Code.37897

       (G) As used in this section:37898

       (1) "Community control sanction" has the same meaning as in 37899
section 2929.01 of the Revised Code.37900

       (2) "Intervention in lieu of conviction" means any 37901
court-supervised activity that complies with this section.37902

       (3) "Peace officer" has the same meaning as in section 37903
2935.01 of the Revised Code.37904

       (4) "Mental illness" and "psychiatrist" have the same 37905
meanings as in section 5122.01 of the Revised Code.37906

       (5) "Person with intellectual disability" means a person 37907
having significantly subaverage general intellectual functioning 37908
existing concurrently with deficiencies in adaptive behavior, 37909
manifested during the developmental period.37910

       (6) "Psychologist" has the same meaning as in section 4732.01 37911
of the Revised Code.37912

       (H) Whenever the term "mentally retarded person" is used in 37913
any statute, rule, contract, grant, or other document, the 37914
reference shall be deemed to include a "person with intellectual 37915
disability," as defined in this section.37916

       Sec. 2967.22.  Whenever it is brought to the attention of the 37917
adult parole authority or a department of probation that a 37918
parolee, person under a community control sanction, person under 37919
transitional control, or releasee appears to be a mentally ill 37920
person subject to hospitalization by court order, as defined in 37921
section 5122.01 of the Revised Code, or a mentally retarded person 37922
subject to institutionalization by court order, as defined in 37923
section 5123.01 of the Revised Code, the parole or probation 37924
officer, subject to the approval of the chief of the adult parole 37925
authority, the designee of the chief of the adult parole 37926
authority, or the chief probation officer, may file an affidavit 37927
under section 5122.11 or 5123.71 of the Revised Code. A parolee, 37928
person under a community control sanction, or releasee who is 37929
involuntarily detained under Chapter 5122. or 5123. of the Revised 37930
Code shall receive credit against the period of parole or 37931
community control or the term of post-release control for the 37932
period of involuntary detention.37933

       If a parolee, person under a community control sanction, 37934
person under transitional control, or releasee escapes from an 37935
institution or facility within the department of mental health37936
mental health and addiction services or the department of 37937
developmental disabilities, the superintendent of the institution 37938
immediately shall notify the chief of the adult parole authority 37939
or the chief probation officer. Notwithstanding the provisions of 37940
section 5122.26 of the Revised Code, the procedure for the 37941
apprehension, detention, and return of the parolee, person under a 37942
community control sanction, person under transitional control, or 37943
releasee is the same as that provided for the apprehension, 37944
detention, and return of persons who escape from institutions 37945
operated by the department of rehabilitation and correction. If 37946
the escaped parolee, person under transitional control, or 37947
releasee is not apprehended and returned to the custody of the 37948
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services37949
or the department of developmental disabilities within ninety days 37950
after the escape, the parolee, person under transitional control, 37951
or releasee shall be discharged from the custody of the department 37952
of mental healthmental health and addiction services or the 37953
department of developmental disabilities and returned to the 37954
custody of the department of rehabilitation and correction. If the 37955
escaped person under a community control sanction is not 37956
apprehended and returned to the custody of the department of37957
mental healthmental health and addiction services or the 37958
department of developmental disabilities within ninety days after 37959
the escape, the person under a community control sanction shall be 37960
discharged from the custody of the department of mental health37961
mental health and addiction services or the department of 37962
developmental disabilities and returned to the custody of the 37963
court that sentenced that person.37964

       Sec. 2981.01. (A) Forfeitures under this chapter shall be 37965
governed by all of the following purposes:37966

       (1) To provide economic disincentives and remedies to deter 37967
and offset the economic effect of offenses by seizing and 37968
forfeiting contraband, proceeds, and certain instrumentalities;37969

       (2) To ensure that seizures and forfeitures of 37970
instrumentalities are proportionate to the offense committed;37971

       (3) To protect third parties from wrongful forfeiture of 37972
their property;37973

       (4) To prioritize restitution for victims of offenses.37974

       (B) As used in this chapter:37975

       (1) "Aircraft" has the same meaning as in section 4561.01 of 37976
the Revised Code.37977

       (2) "Computers," "computer networks," "computer systems," 37978
"computer software," and "telecommunications device" have the same 37979
meanings as in section 2913.01 of the Revised Code.37980

       (3) "Financial institution" means a bank, credit union, 37981
savings and loan association, or a licensee or registrant under 37982
Chapter 1321. of the Revised Code.37983

       (4) "Firearm" and "dangerous ordnance" have the same meanings 37984
as in section 2923.11 of the Revised Code.37985

       (5) "Innocent person" includes any bona fide purchaser of 37986
property that is subject to forfeiture, including any person who 37987
establishes a valid claim to or interest in the property in 37988
accordance with section 2923.04 of the Revised Code, and any 37989
victim of an alleged offense.37990

       (6) "Instrumentality" means property otherwise lawful to 37991
possess that is used in or intended to be used in an offense. An 37992
"instrumentality" may include, but is not limited to, a firearm, a 37993
mobile instrumentality, a computer, a computer network, a computer 37994
system, computer software, a telecommunications device, money, and 37995
any other means of exchange.37996

       (7) "Law enforcement agency" includes, but is not limited to, 37997
the state board of pharmacy, the enforcement division of the 37998
department of taxation, the Ohio casino control commission, and 37999
the office of the prosecutor.38000

       (8) "Mobile instrumentality" means an instrumentality that is 38001
inherently mobile and used in the routine transport of persons. 38002
"Mobile instrumentality" includes, but is not limited to, any 38003
vehicle, any watercraft, and any aircraft.38004

       (9) "Money" has the same meaning as in section 1301.201 of 38005
the Revised Code.38006

       (10) "Offense" means any act or omission that could be 38007
charged as a criminal offense or a delinquent act, whether or not 38008
a formal criminal prosecution or delinquent child proceeding began 38009
at the time the forfeiture is initiated. Except as otherwise 38010
specified, an offense for which property may be forfeited includes 38011
any felony and any misdemeanor. The commission of an "offense" 38012
includes the commission of a delinquent act.38013

       (11) "Proceeds" means both of the following:38014

       (a) In cases involving unlawful goods, services, or 38015
activities, "proceeds" means any property derived directly or 38016
indirectly from an offense. "Proceeds" may include, but is not 38017
limited to, money or any other means of exchange. "Proceeds" is 38018
not limited to the net gain or profit realized from the offense.38019

       (b) In cases involving lawful goods or services that are sold 38020
or provided in an unlawful manner, "proceeds" means the amount of 38021
money or other means of exchange acquired through the illegal 38022
transactions resulting in the forfeiture, less the direct costs 38023
lawfully incurred in providing the goods or services. The lawful 38024
costs deduction does not include any part of the overhead expenses 38025
of, or income taxes paid by, the entity providing the goods or 38026
services. The alleged offender or delinquent child has the burden 38027
to prove that any costs are lawfully incurred.38028

       (12) "Property" means "property" as defined in section 38029
2901.01 of the Revised Code and any benefit, privilege, claim, 38030
position, interest in an enterprise, or right derived, directly or 38031
indirectly, from the offense.38032

       (13) "Property subject to forfeiture" includes contraband and 38033
proceeds and may include instrumentalities as provided in this 38034
chapter.38035

       (14) "Prosecutor" has the same meaning as in section 2935.01 38036
of the Revised Code. When relevant, "prosecutor" also includes the 38037
attorney general.38038

       (15) "Vehicle" has the same meaning as in section 4501.01 of 38039
the Revised Code.38040

       (16) "Watercraft" has the same meaning as in section 1547.01 38041
of the Revised Code.38042

       (C) The penalties and procedures under Chapters 2923., 2925., 38043
and 2933., and 3772. of the Revised Code remain in effect to the 38044
extent that they do not conflict with this chapter.38045

       Sec. 2981.12. (A) Unclaimed or forfeited property in the 38046
custody of a law enforcement agency, other than property described 38047
in division (A)(2) of section 2981.11 of the Revised Code, shall 38048
be disposed of by order of any court of record that has 38049
territorial jurisdiction over the political subdivision that 38050
employs the law enforcement agency, as follows:38051

       (1) Drugs shall be disposed of pursuant to section 3719.11 of 38052
the Revised Code or placed in the custody of the secretary of the 38053
treasury of the United States for disposal or use for medical or 38054
scientific purposes under applicable federal law.38055

       (2) Firearms and dangerous ordnance suitable for police work 38056
may be given to a law enforcement agency for that purpose. 38057
Firearms suitable for sporting use or as museum pieces or 38058
collectors' items may be sold at public auction pursuant to 38059
division (B) of this section. The agency may sell other firearms 38060
and dangerous ordnance to a federally licensed firearms dealer in 38061
a manner that the court considers proper. The agency shall destroy 38062
any firearms or dangerous ordnance not given to a law enforcement 38063
agency or sold or shall send them to the bureau of criminal 38064
identification and investigation for destruction by the bureau.38065

       (3) Obscene materials shall be destroyed.38066

       (4) Beer, intoxicating liquor, or alcohol seized from a 38067
person who does not hold a permit issued under Chapters 4301. and 38068
4303. of the Revised Code or otherwise forfeited to the state for 38069
an offense under section 4301.45 or 4301.53 of the Revised Code 38070
shall be sold by the division of liquor control if the division 38071
determines that it is fit for sale or shall be placed in the 38072
custody of the investigations unit in the department of public 38073
safety and be used for training relating to law enforcement 38074
activities. The department, with the assistance of the division of 38075
liquor control, shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. 38076
of the Revised Code to provide for the distribution to state or 38077
local law enforcement agencies upon their request. If any tax 38078
imposed under Title XLIII of the Revised Code has not been paid in 38079
relation to the beer, intoxicating liquor, or alcohol, any moneys 38080
acquired from the sale shall first be used to pay the tax. All 38081
other money collected under this division shall be paid into the 38082
state treasury. Any beer, intoxicating liquor, or alcohol that the 38083
division determines to be unfit for sale shall be destroyed.38084

       (5) Money received by an inmate of a correctional institution 38085
from an unauthorized source or in an unauthorized manner shall be 38086
returned to the sender, if known, or deposited in the inmates' 38087
industrial and entertainment fund of the institution if the sender 38088
is not known.38089

       (6)(a) Any mobile instrumentality forfeited under this 38090
chapter may be given to the law enforcement agency that initially 38091
seized the mobile instrumentality for use in performing its 38092
duties, if the agency wants the mobile instrumentality. The agency 38093
shall take the mobile instrumentality subject to any security 38094
interest or lien on the mobile instrumentality.38095

       (b) Vehicles and vehicle parts forfeited under sections 38096
4549.61 to 4549.63 of the Revised Code may be given to a law 38097
enforcement agency for use in performing its duties. Those parts 38098
may be incorporated into any other official vehicle. Parts that do 38099
not bear vehicle identification numbers or derivatives of them may 38100
be sold or disposed of as provided by rules of the director of 38101
public safety. Parts from which a vehicle identification number or 38102
derivative of it has been removed, defaced, covered, altered, or 38103
destroyed and that are not suitable for police work or 38104
incorporation into an official vehicle shall be destroyed and sold 38105
as junk or scrap.38106

       (7) Computers, computer networks, computer systems, and 38107
computer software suitable for police work may be given to a law 38108
enforcement agency for that purpose or disposed of under division 38109
(B) of this section.38110

       (8) Money seized in connection with a violation of section 38111
2905.32, 2907.21, or 2907.22 of the Revised Code shall be 38112
deposited in the victims of human trafficking fund created by 38113
section 5101.87 of the Revised Code.38114

       (B) Unclaimed or forfeited property that is not described in 38115
division (A) of this section or division (A)(2) of section 2981.11 38116
of the Revised Code, with court approval, may be used by the law 38117
enforcement agency in possession of it. If it is not used by the 38118
agency, it may be sold without appraisal at a public auction to 38119
the highest bidder for cash or disposed of in another manner that 38120
the court considers proper.38121

       (C) Except as provided in divisions (A) and (F) of this 38122
section and after compliance with division (D) of this section 38123
when applicable, any moneys acquired from the sale of property 38124
disposed of pursuant to this section shall be placed in the 38125
general revenue fund of the state, or the general fund of the 38126
county, the township, or the municipal corporation of which the 38127
law enforcement agency involved is an agency.38128

       (D) If the property was in the possession of the law 38129
enforcement agency in relation to a delinquent child proceeding in 38130
a juvenile court, ten per cent of any moneys acquired from the 38131
sale of property disposed of under this section shall be applied 38132
to one or more alcohol and drugcommunity addiction treatment 38133
programsservices providers that are certified by the department 38134
of alcohol and drug addiction servicesmental health and addiction 38135
services under section 3793.065119.36 of the Revised Code. A 38136
juvenile court shall not specify a programservices provider, 38137
except as provided in this division, unless the programservices 38138
provider is in the same county as the court or in a contiguous 38139
county. If no certified programservices provider is located in 38140
any of those counties, the juvenile court may specify a certified 38141
programservices provider anywhere in Ohio. The remaining ninety 38142
per cent of the proceeds or cash shall be applied as provided in 38143
division (C) of this section.38144

       Each treatment programservices provider that receives in any 38145
calendar year forfeited money under this division shall file an 38146
annual report for that year with the attorney general and with the 38147
court of common pleas and board of county commissioners of the 38148
county in which the programservices provider is located and of 38149
any other county from which the programservices provider received 38150
forfeited money. The programservices provider shall file the 38151
report on or before the first day of March in the calendar year 38152
following the calendar year in which the programservices provider38153
received the money. The report shall include statistics on the 38154
number of persons the programservices provider served, identify 38155
the types of treatment services it provided to them, and include a 38156
specific accounting of the purposes for which it used the money so 38157
received. No information contained in the report shall identify, 38158
or enable a person to determine the identity of, any person served 38159
by the programservices provider.38160

       (E) Each certified alcohol and drugcommunity addiction 38161
treatment programservices provider that receives in any calendar 38162
year money under this section or under section 2981.13 of the 38163
Revised Code as the result of a juvenile forfeiture order shall 38164
file an annual report for that calendar year with the attorney 38165
general and with the court of common pleas and board of county 38166
commissioners of the county in which the programservices provider38167
is located and of any other county from which the programservices 38168
provider received the money. The programservices provider shall 38169
file the report on or before the first day of March in the 38170
calendar year following the year in which the programservices 38171
provider received the money. The report shall include statistics 38172
on the number of persons served with the money, identify the types 38173
of treatment services provided, and specifically account for how 38174
the money was used. No information in the report shall identify or 38175
enable a person to determine the identity of anyone served by the 38176
programservices provider.38177

       As used in this division, "juvenile-related forfeiture order" 38178
means any forfeiture order issued by a juvenile court under 38179
section 2981.04 or 2981.05 of the Revised Code and any disposal of 38180
property ordered by a court under section 2981.11 of the Revised 38181
Code regarding property that was in the possession of a law 38182
enforcement agency in relation to a delinquent child proceeding in 38183
a juvenile court.38184

       (F) Each board of county commissioners that recognizes a 38185
citizens' reward program under section 9.92 of the Revised Code 38186
shall notify each law enforcement agency of that county and of a 38187
township or municipal corporation wholly located in that county of 38188
the recognition by filing a copy of its resolution conferring that 38189
recognition with each of those agencies. When the board recognizes 38190
a citizens' reward program and the county includes a part, but not 38191
all, of the territory of a municipal corporation, the board shall 38192
so notify the law enforcement agency of that municipal corporation 38193
of the recognition of the citizens' reward program only if the 38194
county contains the highest percentage of the municipal 38195
corporation's population.38196

       Upon being so notified, each law enforcement agency shall pay 38197
twenty-five per cent of any forfeited proceeds or cash derived 38198
from each sale of property disposed of pursuant to this section to 38199
the citizens' reward program for use exclusively to pay rewards. 38200
No part of the funds may be used to pay expenses associated with 38201
the program. If a citizens' reward program that operates in more 38202
than one county or in another state in addition to this state 38203
receives funds under this section, the funds shall be used to pay 38204
rewards only for tips and information to law enforcement agencies 38205
concerning offenses committed in the county from which the funds 38206
were received.38207

       Receiving funds under this section or section 2981.11 of the 38208
Revised Code does not make the citizens' reward program a 38209
governmental unit or public office for purposes of section 149.43 38210
of the Revised Code.38211

       (G) Any property forfeited under this chapter shall not be 38212
used to pay any fine imposed upon a person who is convicted of or 38213
pleads guilty to an underlying criminal offense or a different 38214
offense arising out of the same facts and circumstances.38215

       (H) Any moneys acquired from the sale of personal effects, 38216
tools, or other property seized because the personal effects, 38217
tools, or other property were used in the commission of a 38218
violation of section 2905.32, 2907.21, or 2907.22 of the Revised 38219
Code or derived from the proceeds of the commission of a violation 38220
of section 2905.32, 2907.21, or 2907.22 of the Revised Code and 38221
disposed of pursuant to this section shall be placed in the 38222
victims of human trafficking fund created by section 5101.87 of 38223
the Revised Code.38224

       Sec. 2981.13. (A) Except as otherwise provided in this 38225
section, property ordered forfeited as contraband, proceeds, or an 38226
instrumentality pursuant to this chapter shall be disposed of, 38227
used, or sold pursuant to section 2981.12 of the Revised Code. If 38228
the property is to be sold under that section, the prosecutor 38229
shall cause notice of the proposed sale to be given in accordance 38230
with law.38231

       (B) If the contraband or instrumentality forfeited under this 38232
chapter is sold, any moneys acquired from a sale and any proceeds 38233
forfeited under this chapter shall be applied in the following 38234
order:38235

       (1) First, to pay costs incurred in the seizure, storage, 38236
maintenance, security, and sale of the property and in the 38237
forfeiture proceeding;38238

       (2) Second, in a criminal forfeiture case, to satisfy any 38239
restitution ordered to the victim of the offense or, in a civil 38240
forfeiture case, to satisfy any recovery ordered for the person 38241
harmed, unless paid from other assets;38242

       (3) Third, to pay the balance due on any security interest 38243
preserved under this chapter;38244

       (4) Fourth, apply the remaining amounts as follows: 38245

       (a) If the forfeiture was ordered by a juvenile court, ten 38246
per cent to one or more certified alcohol and drug addiction 38247
treatment programs as provided in division (D) of section 2981.12 38248
of the Revised Code;38249

       (b) If the forfeiture was ordered in a juvenile court, ninety 38250
per cent, and if the forfeiture was ordered in a court other than 38251
a juvenile court, one hundred per cent to the law enforcement 38252
trust fund of the prosecutor and to the following fund supporting 38253
the law enforcement agency that substantially conducted the 38254
investigation: the law enforcement trust fund of the county 38255
sheriff, municipal corporation, township, or park district created 38256
under section 511.18 or 1545.01 of the Revised Code; the state 38257
highway patrol contraband, forfeiture, and other fund; the 38258
department of public safety investigative unit contraband, 38259
forfeiture, and other fund; the department of taxation enforcement 38260
fund; the board of pharmacy drug law enforcement fund created by 38261
division (B)(1) of section 4729.65 of the Revised Code; the 38262
medicaid fraud investigation and prosecution fund; the casino 38263
control commission enforcement fund created by section 3772.36 of 38264
the Revised Code; or the treasurer of state for deposit into the 38265
peace officer training commission fund if any other state law 38266
enforcement agency substantially conducted the investigation. In 38267
the case of property forfeited for medicaid fraud, any remaining 38268
amount shall be used by the attorney general to investigate and 38269
prosecute medicaid fraud offenses.38270

       If the prosecutor declines to accept any of the remaining 38271
amounts, the amounts shall be applied to the fund of the agency 38272
that substantially conducted the investigation.38273

       (c) If more than one law enforcement agency is substantially 38274
involved in the seizure of property forfeited under this chapter, 38275
the court ordering the forfeiture shall equitably divide the 38276
amounts, after calculating any distribution to the law enforcement 38277
trust fund of the prosecutor pursuant to division (B)(4) of this 38278
section, among the entities that the court determines were 38279
substantially involved in the seizure.38280

       (C)(1) A law enforcement trust fund shall be established by 38281
the prosecutor of each county who intends to receive any remaining 38282
amounts pursuant to this section, by the sheriff of each county, 38283
by the legislative authority of each municipal corporation, by the 38284
board of township trustees of each township that has a township 38285
police department, township or joint police district police force, 38286
or office of the constable, and by the board of park commissioners 38287
of each park district created pursuant to section 511.18 or 38288
1545.01 of the Revised Code that has a park district police force 38289
or law enforcement department, for the purposes of this section.38290

       There is hereby created in the state treasury the state 38291
highway patrol contraband, forfeiture, and other fund, the 38292
department of public safety investigative unit contraband, 38293
forfeiture, and other fund, the medicaid fraud investigation and 38294
prosecution fund, the department of taxation enforcement fund, and 38295
the peace officer training commission fund, for the purposes of 38296
this section.38297

       Amounts distributed to any municipal corporation, township, 38298
or park district law enforcement trust fund shall be allocated 38299
from the fund by the legislative authority only to the police 38300
department of the municipal corporation, by the board of township 38301
trustees only to the township police department, township police 38302
district police force, or office of the constable, by the joint 38303
police district board only to the joint police district, and by 38304
the board of park commissioners only to the park district police 38305
force or law enforcement department.38306

       (2)(a) No amounts shall be allocated to a fund created under 38307
this section or used by an agency unless the agency has adopted a 38308
written internal control policy that addresses the use of moneys 38309
received from the appropriate fund. The appropriate fund shall be 38310
expended only in accordance with that policy and, subject to the 38311
requirements specified in this section, only for the following 38312
purposes:38313

       (i) To pay the costs of protracted or complex investigations 38314
or prosecutions;38315

       (ii) To provide reasonable technical training or expertise;38316

       (iii) To provide matching funds to obtain federal grants to 38317
aid law enforcement, in the support of DARE programs or other 38318
programs designed to educate adults or children with respect to 38319
the dangers associated with the use of drugs of abuse;38320

       (iv) To pay the costs of emergency action taken under section 38321
3745.13 of the Revised Code relative to the operation of an 38322
illegal methamphetamine laboratory if the forfeited property or 38323
money involved was that of a person responsible for the operation 38324
of the laboratory;38325

       (v) For other law enforcement purposes that the 38326
superintendent of the state highway patrol, department of public 38327
safety, prosecutor, county sheriff, legislative authority, 38328
department of taxation, Ohio casino control commission, board of 38329
township trustees, or board of park commissioners determines to be 38330
appropriate.38331

       (b) The board of pharmacy drug law enforcement fund shall be 38332
expended only in accordance with the written internal control 38333
policy so adopted by the board and only in accordance with section 38334
4729.65 of the Revised Code, except that it also may be expended 38335
to pay the costs of emergency action taken under section 3745.13 38336
of the Revised Code relative to the operation of an illegal 38337
methamphetamine laboratory if the forfeited property or money 38338
involved was that of a person responsible for the operation of the 38339
laboratory.38340

       (c) The state highway patrol contraband, forfeiture, and 38341
other fund, the department of public safety investigative unit 38342
contraband, forfeiture, and other fund, the department of taxation 38343
enforcement fund, the board of pharmacy drug law enforcement fund, 38344
the casino control commission enforcement fund, and a law 38345
enforcement trust fund shall not be used to meet the operating 38346
costs of the state highway patrol, of the investigative unit of 38347
the department of public safety, of the state board of pharmacy, 38348
of any political subdivision, of the Ohio casino control 38349
commission, or of any office of a prosecutor or county sheriff 38350
that are unrelated to law enforcement.38351

       (d) Forfeited moneys that are paid into the state treasury to 38352
be deposited into the peace officer training commission fund shall 38353
be used by the commission only to pay the costs of peace officer 38354
training.38355

       (3) Any of the following offices or agencies that receive 38356
amounts under this section during any calendar year shall file a 38357
report with the specified entity, not later than the thirty-first 38358
day of January of the next calendar year, verifying that the 38359
moneys were expended only for the purposes authorized by this 38360
section or other relevant statute and specifying the amounts 38361
expended for each authorized purpose:38362

       (a) Any sheriff or prosecutor shall file the report with the 38363
county auditor.38364

       (b) Any municipal corporation police department shall file 38365
the report with the legislative authority of the municipal 38366
corporation.38367

       (c) Any township police department, township or joint police 38368
district police force, or office of the constable shall file the 38369
report with the board of township trustees of the township.38370

       (d) Any park district police force or law enforcement 38371
department shall file the report with the board of park 38372
commissioners of the park district.38373

       (e) The superintendent of the state highway patrol and the 38374
tax commissioner shall file the report with the attorney general.38375

       (f) The executive director of the state board of pharmacy 38376
shall file the report with the attorney general, verifying that 38377
cash and forfeited proceeds paid into the board of pharmacy drug 38378
law enforcement fund were used only in accordance with section 38379
4729.65 of the Revised Code.38380

       (g) The peace officer training commission shall file a report 38381
with the attorney general, verifying that cash and forfeited 38382
proceeds paid into the peace officer training commission fund 38383
pursuant to this section during the prior calendar year were used 38384
by the commission during the prior calendar year only to pay the 38385
costs of peace officer training.38386

       (h) The executive director of the Ohio casino control 38387
commission shall file the report with the attorney general, 38388
verifying that cash and forfeited proceeds paid into the casino 38389
control commission enforcement fund were used only in accordance 38390
with section 3772.36 of the Revised Code.38391

       (D) The written internal control policy of a county sheriff, 38392
prosecutor, municipal corporation police department, township 38393
police department, township or joint police district police force, 38394
office of the constable, or park district police force or law 38395
enforcement department shall provide that at least ten per cent of 38396
the first one hundred thousand dollars of amounts deposited during 38397
each calendar year in the agency's law enforcement trust fund 38398
under this section, and at least twenty per cent of the amounts 38399
exceeding one hundred thousand dollars that are so deposited, 38400
shall be used in connection with community preventive education 38401
programs. The manner of use shall be determined by the sheriff, 38402
prosecutor, department, police force, or office of the constable 38403
after receiving and considering advice on appropriate community 38404
preventive education programs from the county's board of alcohol, 38405
drug addiction, and mental health services, from the county's 38406
alcohol and drug addiction services board, or through appropriate 38407
community dialogue.38408

       The financial records kept under the internal control policy 38409
shall specify the amount deposited during each calendar year in 38410
the portion of that amount that was used pursuant to this 38411
division, and the programs in connection with which the portion of 38412
that amount was so used.38413

       As used in this division, "community preventive education 38414
programs" include, but are not limited to, DARE programs and other 38415
programs designed to educate adults or children with respect to 38416
the dangers associated with using drugs of abuse.38417

       (E) Upon the sale, under this section or section 2981.12 of 38418
the Revised Code, of any property that is required by law to be 38419
titled or registered, the state shall issue an appropriate 38420
certificate of title or registration to the purchaser. If the 38421
state is vested with title and elects to retain property that is 38422
required to be titled or registered under law, the state shall 38423
issue an appropriate certificate of title or registration.38424

       (F) Any failure of a law enforcement officer or agency, 38425
prosecutor, court, or the attorney general to comply with this 38426
section in relation to any property seized does not affect the 38427
validity of the seizure and shall not be considered to be the 38428
basis for suppressing any evidence resulting from the seizure, 38429
provided the seizure itself was lawful.38430

       Sec. 3101.051.  (A) Except as provided in division (B) of 38431
this section, a probate court shall make available to any person 38432
for inspection the records pertaining to the issuance of marriage 38433
licenses as provided under section 149.43 of the Revised Code.38434

       (B) Before it makes available to a person any records 38435
pertaining to the issuance of a marriage license as described in 38436
division (A) of this section, subject to division (C) of this 38437
section, a probate court shall delete or otherwise remove any 38438
social security numbers of the parties to a marriage so that they 38439
are not available to the person inspecting the records.38440

       (C) Division (B) of this section does not apply in any of the 38441
following circumstances:38442

       (1) If the records in question are inspected by authorized 38443
personnel of the division of child support in the department of 38444
job and family services under section 5101.315101.37 of the 38445
Revised Code;38446

       (2) If the records in question are inspected by law 38447
enforcement personnel for purposes of a criminal investigation;38448

       (3) If the records in question with the social security 38449
numbers are necessary for use in a civil or criminal trial and the 38450
release of the records with the social security numbers is ordered 38451
by a court with jurisdiction over the trial;38452

       (4) If the records in question are inspected by either party 38453
to the marriage to which the records pertain;38454

       (5) If the court possessed the records in question prior to 38455
the effective date of this section.38456

       Sec. 3107.083.  Not later than ninety days after June 20, 38457
1996, the director of job and family services shall do all of the 38458
following:38459

       (A)(1) For a parent of a child who, if adopted, will be an 38460
adopted person as defined in section 3107.45 of the Revised Code, 38461
prescribe a form that has the following six components:38462

       (a) A component the parent signs under section 3107.071, 38463
3107.081, or 5103.151 of the Revised Code to indicate the 38464
requirements of section 3107.082 or 5103.152 of the Revised Code 38465
have been met. The component shall be as follows:38466

"Statement Concerning Ohio Law and Adoption Materials
38467

       By signing this component of this form, I acknowledge that it 38468
has been explained to me, and I understand, that, if I check the 38469
space on the next component of this form that indicates that I 38470
authorize the release, the adoption file maintained by the Ohio 38471
Department of Health, which contains identifying information about 38472
me at the time of my child's birth, will be released, on request, 38473
to the adoptive parent when the adoptee is at least age eighteen 38474
but younger than age twenty-one and to the adoptee when he or she 38475
is age twenty-one or older. It has also been explained to me, and 38476
I understand, that I may prohibit the release of identifying 38477
information about me contained in the adoption file by checking 38478
the space on the next component of this form that indicates that I 38479
do not authorize the release of the identifying information. It 38480
has additionally been explained to me, and I understand, that I 38481
may change my mind regarding the decision I make on the next 38482
component of this form at any time and as many times as I desire 38483
by signing, dating, and having filed with the Ohio Department of 38484
Health a denial of release form or authorization of release form 38485
prescribed and provided by the Department of Health and providing 38486
the Department two items of identification.38487

       By signing this component of this form, I also acknowledge 38488
that I have been provided a copy of written materials about 38489
adoption prepared by the Ohio Department of Job and Family 38490
Services, the adoption process and ramifications of consenting to 38491
adoption or entering into a voluntary permanent custody surrender 38492
agreement have been discussed with me, and I have been provided 38493
the opportunity to review the materials and ask questions about 38494
the materials and discussion.38495

Signature of biological parent: 38496
Signature of witness: 38497
Date: " 38498

       (b) A component the parent signs under section 3107.071, 38499
3107.081, or 5103.151 of the Revised Code regarding the parent's 38500
decision whether to allow identifying information about the parent 38501
contained in an adoption file maintained by the department of 38502
health to be released to the parent's child and adoptive parent 38503
pursuant to section 3107.47 of the Revised Code. The component 38504
shall be as follows:38505

"Statement Regarding Release of Identifying Information
38506

       The purpose of this component of this form is to allow a 38507
biological parent to decide whether to allow the Ohio Department 38508
of Health to provide an adoptee and adoptive parent identifying 38509
information about the adoptee's biological parent contained in an 38510
adoption file maintained by the Department. Please check one of 38511
the following spaces:38512

...... YES, I authorize the Ohio Department of Health to release identifying information about me, on request, to the adoptive parent when the adoptee is at least age eighteen but younger than age twenty-one and to the adoptee when he or she is age twenty-one or older. 38513
...... NO, I do not authorize the release of identifying information about me to the adoptive parent or adoptee. 38514

Signature of biological parent: 38515
Signature of witness: 38516
Date: " 38517

       (c) A component the parent, if the mother of the child, 38518
completes and signs under section 3107.071, 3107.081, or 5103.151 38519
of the Revised Code to indicate, to the extent of the mother's 38520
knowledge, all of the following:38521

       (i) Whether the mother, during her pregnancy, was a recipient 38522
of the medical assistancemedicaid program established under 38523
Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code or other public health insurance 38524
program and, if so, the dates her eligibility began and ended;38525

       (ii) Whether the mother, during her pregnancy, was covered by 38526
private health insurance and, if so, the dates the coverage began 38527
and ended, the name of the insurance provider, the type of 38528
coverage, and the identification number of the coverage;38529

       (iii) The name and location of the hospital, freestanding 38530
birthbirthing center, or other place where the mother gave birth 38531
and, if different, received medical care immediately after giving 38532
birth;38533

       (iv) The expenses of the obstetrical and neonatal care;38534

       (v) Whether the mother has been informed that the adoptive 38535
parent or the agency or attorney arranging the adoption are to pay 38536
expenses involved in the adoption, including expenses the mother 38537
has paid and expects to receive or has received reimbursement, 38538
and, if so, what expenses are to be or have been paid and an 38539
estimate of the expenses;38540

       (vi) Any other information related to expenses the department 38541
determines appropriate to be included in this component.38542

       (d) A component the parent may sign to authorize the agency 38543
or attorney arranging the adoption to provide to the child or 38544
adoptive parent materials, other than photographs of the parent, 38545
that the parent requests be given to the child or adoptive parent 38546
pursuant to section 3107.68 of the Revised Code.38547

       (e) A component the parent may sign to authorize the agency 38548
or attorney arranging the adoption to provide to the child or 38549
adoptive parent photographs of the parent pursuant to section 38550
3107.68 of the Revised Code.38551

       (f) A component the parent may sign to authorize the agency 38552
or attorney arranging the adoption to provide to the child or 38553
adoptive parent the first name of the parent pursuant to section 38554
3107.68 of the Revised Code.38555

       (2) State at the bottom of the form that the parent is to 38556
receive a copy of the form the parent signed.38557

       (3) Provide copies of the form prescribed under this division 38558
to probate and juvenile courts, public children services agencies, 38559
private child placing agencies, private noncustodial agencies, 38560
attorneys, and persons authorized to take acknowledgments.38561

       (B)(1) For a parent of a child who, if adopted, will become 38562
an adopted person as defined in section 3107.39 of the Revised 38563
Code, prescribe a form that has the following five components:38564

       (a) A component the parent signs under section 3107.071, 38565
3107.081, or 5103.151 of the Revised Code to attest that the 38566
requirement of division (A) of section 3107.082 or division (A) of 38567
section 5103.152 of the Revised Code has been met;38568

       (b) A component the parent, if the mother of the child, 38569
completes and signs under section 3107.071, 3107.081, or 5103.151 38570
of the Revised Code to indicate, to the extent of the mother's 38571
knowledge, all of the following:38572

       (i) Whether the mother, during her pregnancy, was a recipient 38573
of the medical assistancemedicaid program established under 38574
Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code or other public health insurance 38575
program and, if so, the dates her eligibility began and ended;38576

       (ii) Whether the mother, during her pregnancy, was covered by 38577
private health insurance and, if so, the dates the coverage began 38578
and ended, the name of the insurance provider, the type of 38579
coverage, and the identification number of the coverage;38580

       (iii) The name and location of the hospital, freestanding 38581
birthbirthing center, or other place where the mother gave birth 38582
and, if different, received medical care immediately after giving 38583
birth;38584

       (iv) The expenses of the obstetrical and neonatal care;38585

       (v) Whether the mother has been informed that the adoptive 38586
parent or the agency or attorney arranging the adoption are to pay 38587
expenses involved in the adoption, including expenses the mother 38588
has paid and expects to receive or has received reimbursement for, 38589
and, if so, what expenses are to be or have been paid and an 38590
estimate of the expenses;38591

       (vi) Any other information related to expenses the department 38592
determines appropriate to be included in the component.38593

       (c) A component the parent may sign to authorize the agency 38594
or attorney arranging the adoption to provide to the child or 38595
adoptive parent materials, other than photographs of the parent, 38596
that the parent requests be given to the child or adoptive parent 38597
pursuant to section 3107.68 of the Revised Code.38598

       (d) A component the parent may sign to authorize the agency 38599
or attorney arranging the adoption to provide to the child or 38600
adoptive parent photographs of the parent pursuant to section 38601
3107.68 of the Revised Code.38602

       (e) A component the parent may sign to authorize the agency 38603
or attorney arranging the adoption to provide to the child or 38604
adoptive parent the first name of the parent pursuant to section 38605
3107.68 of the Revised Code.38606

       (2) State at the bottom of the form that the parent is to 38607
receive a copy of the form the parent signed.38608

       (3) Provide copies of the form prescribed under this division 38609
to probate and juvenile courts, public children services agencies, 38610
private child placing agencies, private noncustodial agencies, and 38611
attorneys.38612

       (C) Prepare the written materials about adoption that are 38613
required to be given to parents under division (A) of section 38614
3107.082 and division (A) of section 5103.152 of the Revised Code. 38615
The materials shall provide information about the adoption 38616
process, including ramifications of a parent consenting to a 38617
child's adoption or entering into a voluntary permanent custody 38618
surrender agreement. The materials also shall include referral 38619
information for professional counseling and adoption support 38620
organizations. The director shall provide the materials to 38621
assessors.38622

       (D) Adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 38623
Revised Code specifying the documents that must be filed with a 38624
probate court under divisions (B) and (D) of section 3107.081 of 38625
the Revised Code and a juvenile court under divisions (C) and (E) 38626
of section 5103.151 of the Revised Code.38627

       Sec. 3109.15.  There is hereby created within the department 38628
of job and family services the children's trust fund board 38629
consisting of fifteen members. The directors of alcohol and drug 38630
addiction servicesmental health and addiction services, health, 38631
and job and family services shall be members of the board. Eight 38632
public members shall be appointed by the governor. These members 38633
shall be persons with demonstrated knowledge in programs for 38634
children, shall be representative of the demographic composition 38635
of this state, and, to the extent practicable, shall be 38636
representative of the following categories: the educational 38637
community; the legal community; the social work community; the 38638
medical community; the voluntary sector; and professional 38639
providers of child abuse and child neglect services. Five of these 38640
members shall be residents of metropolitan statistical areas as 38641
defined by the United States office of management and budget where 38642
the population exceeds four hundred thousand; no two such members 38643
shall be residents of the same metropolitan statistical area. Two 38644
members of the board shall be members of the house of 38645
representatives appointed by the speaker of the house of 38646
representatives and shall be members of two different political 38647
parties. Two members of the board shall be members of the senate 38648
appointed by the president of the senate and shall be members of 38649
two different political parties. All members of the board 38650
appointed by the speaker of the house of representatives or the 38651
president of the senate shall serve until the expiration of the 38652
sessions of the general assembly during which they were appointed. 38653
They may be reappointed to an unlimited number of successive terms 38654
of two years at the pleasure of the speaker of the house of 38655
representatives or president of the senate. Public members shall 38656
serve terms of three years. Each member shall serve until the 38657
member's successor is appointed, or until a period of sixty days 38658
has elapsed, whichever occurs first. No public member may serve 38659
more than two consecutive full terms. All vacancies on the board 38660
shall be filled for the balance of the unexpired term in the same 38661
manner as the original appointment.38662

       Any member of the board may be removed by the member's 38663
appointing authority for misconduct, incompetency, or neglect of 38664
duty after first being given the opportunity to be heard in the 38665
member's own behalf. Pursuant to section 3.17 of the Revised Code, 38666
a member, except a member of the general assembly or a judge of 38667
any court in the state, who fails to attend at least three-fifths 38668
of the regular and special meetings held by the board during any 38669
two-year period forfeits the member's position on the board.38670

       Each member of the board shall serve without compensation but 38671
shall be reimbursed for all actual and necessary expenses incurred 38672
in the performance of official duties.38673

       At the beginning of the first year of each even-numbered 38674
general assembly, the chairperson of the board shall be appointed 38675
by the speaker of the house of representatives from among members 38676
of the board who are members of the house of representatives. At 38677
the beginning of the first year of each odd-numbered general 38678
assembly, the chairperson of the board shall be appointed by the 38679
president of the senate from among the members of the board who 38680
are senate members.38681

       The board shall biennially select a vice-chair from among its 38682
nonlegislative members.38683

       Sec. 3111.04.  (A) An action to determine the existence or 38684
nonexistence of the father and child relationship may be brought 38685
by the child or the child's personal representative, the child's 38686
mother or her personal representative, a man alleged or alleging 38687
himself to be the child's father, the child support enforcement 38688
agency of the county in which the child resides if the child's 38689
mother, father, or alleged father is a recipient of public 38690
assistance or of services under Title IV-D of the "Social Security 38691
Act," 88 Stat. 2351 (1975), 42 U.S.C.A. 651, as amended, or the 38692
alleged father's personal representative.38693

       (B) An agreement does not bar an action under this section.38694

       (C) If an action under this section is brought before the 38695
birth of the child and if the action is contested, all 38696
proceedings, except service of process and the taking of 38697
depositions to perpetuate testimony, may be stayed until after the 38698
birth.38699

       (D) A recipient of public assistance or of services under 38700
Title IV-D of the "Social Security Act," 88 Stat. 2351 (1975), 42 38701
U.S.C.A. 651, as amended, shall cooperate with the child support 38702
enforcement agency of the county in which a child resides to 38703
obtain an administrative determination pursuant to sections 38704
3111.38 to 3111.54 of the Revised Code, or, if necessary, a court 38705
determination pursuant to sections 3111.01 to 3111.18 of the 38706
Revised Code, of the existence or nonexistence of a parent and 38707
child relationship between the father and the child. If the 38708
recipient fails to cooperate, the agency may commence an action to 38709
determine the existence or nonexistence of a parent and child 38710
relationship between the father and the child pursuant to sections 38711
3111.01 to 3111.18 of the Revised Code.38712

       (E) As used in this section, "public assistance" means all of 38713
the following:38714

       (1) Medicaid under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code;38715

       (2) Ohio works first under Chapter 5107. of the Revised Code;38716

       (3) Disability financial assistance under Chapter 5115. of 38717
the Revised Code.38718

       Sec. 3111.72.  The contract between the department of job and 38719
family services and a local hospital shall require all of the 38720
following:38721

       (A) That the hospital provide a staff person to meet with 38722
each unmarried mother who gave birth in or en route to the 38723
hospital within twenty-four hours of the birth or before the 38724
mother is released from the hospital;38725

       (B) That the staff person attempt to meet with the father of 38726
the unmarried mother's child if possible;38727

       (C) That the staff person explain to the unmarried mother and 38728
the father, if he is present, the benefit to the child of 38729
establishing a parent and child relationship between the father 38730
and the child and the various proper procedures for establishing a 38731
parent and child relationship;38732

       (D) That the staff person present to the unmarried mother 38733
and, if possible, the father, the pamphlet or statement regarding 38734
the rights and responsibilities of a natural parent that is 38735
prepared and provided by the department of job and family services 38736
pursuant to section 3111.32 of the Revised Code;38737

       (E) That the staff person provide the mother and, if 38738
possible, the father, all forms and statements necessary to 38739
voluntarily establish a parent and child relationship, including, 38740
but not limited to, the acknowledgment of paternity affidavit 38741
prepared by the department of job and family services pursuant to 38742
section 3111.31 of the Revised Code;38743

       (F) That the staff person, at the request of both the mother 38744
and father, help the mother and father complete any form or 38745
statement necessary to establish a parent and child relationship;38746

       (G) That the hospital provide a notary public to notarize an 38747
acknowledgment of paternity affidavit signed by the mother and 38748
father;38749

       (H) That the staff person present to an unmarried mother who 38750
is not participating in the Ohio works first program established 38751
under Chapter 5107. of the Revised Code or receiving medical 38752
assistance under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Codemedicaid an 38753
application for Title IV-D services;38754

       (I) That the staff person forward any completed 38755
acknowledgment of paternity, no later than ten days after it is 38756
completed, to the office of child support in the department of job 38757
and family services;38758

       (J) That the department of job and family services pay the 38759
hospital twenty dollars for every correctly signed and notarized 38760
acknowledgment of paternity affidavit from the hospital.38761

       Sec. 3119.29. (A) As used in this section and sections 38762
3119.30 to 3119.56 of the Revised Code:38763

       (1) "Cash medical support" means an amount ordered to be paid 38764
in a child support order toward the cost of health insurance 38765
provided by a public entity, another parent, or person with whom 38766
the child resides, through employment or otherwise, or for other 38767
medical cost not covered by insurance.38768

       (2) "Federal poverty line" has the same meaning as defined in 38769
section 5104.01 of the Revised Code.38770

       (3) "Health care" means such medical support that includes 38771
coverage under a health insurance plan, payment of costs of 38772
premiums, co-paymentscopayments, and deductibles, or payment for 38773
medical expenses incurred on behalf of the child.38774

       (4) "Health insurance coverage" means accessible private 38775
health insurance that provides primary care services within thirty 38776
miles from the residence of the child subject to the child support 38777
order.38778

       (5) "Health plan administrator" means any entity authorized 38779
under Title XXXIX of the Revised Code to engage in the business of 38780
insurance in this state, any health insuring corporation, any 38781
legal entity that is self-insured and provides benefits to its 38782
employees or members, and the administrator of any such entity or 38783
corporation.38784

       (6) "National medical support notice" means a form required 38785
by the "Child Support Performance and Incentive Act of 1998," P.L. 38786
105-200, 112 Stat. 659, 42 U.S.C. 666(a)(19), as amended, and 38787
jointly developed and promulgated by the secretary of health and 38788
human services and the secretary of labor in federal regulations 38789
adopted under that act as modified by the department of job and 38790
family services under section 3119.291 of the Revised Code.38791

       (7) "Person required to provide health insurance coverage" 38792
means the obligor, obligee, or both, required by the court under a 38793
court child support order or by the child support enforcement 38794
agency under an administrative child support order to provide 38795
health insurance coverage pursuant to section 3119.30 of the 38796
Revised Code.38797

       (8) Subject to division (B) of this section, "reasonable 38798
cost" means the contributing cost of private family health 38799
insurance to the person responsible for the health care of the 38800
children subject to the child support order that does not exceed 38801
an amount equal to five per cent of the annual gross income of 38802
that person.38803

       (9) "Title XIX" has the same meaning as defined in section 38804
5111.205165.01 of the Revised Code.38805

       (B) If the United States secretary of health and human 38806
services issues a regulation defining "reasonable cost" or a 38807
similar term or phrase relevant to the provisions in child support 38808
orders relating to the provision of health care for children 38809
subject to the orders, and if that definition is substantively 38810
different from the meaning of "reasonable cost" as defined in 38811
division (A) of this section, "reasonable cost" as used in this 38812
section shall have the meaning as defined by the United States 38813
secretary of health and human services.38814

       Sec. 3119.54.  A party to a child support order issued in 38815
accordance with section 3119.30 of the Revised Code shall notify 38816
any physician, hospital, or other provider of medical services 38817
that provides medical services to the child who is the subject of 38818
the child support order of the number of any health insurance or 38819
health care policy, contract, or plan that covers the child if the 38820
child is eligible for medical assistance under Chapter 5111. of 38821
the Revised Codemedicaid. The party shall include in the notice 38822
the name and address of the insurer. Any physician, hospital, or 38823
other provider of medical services for which medical assistance is 38824
available under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Codecovered by the 38825
medicaid program who is notified under this section of the 38826
existence of a health insurance or health care policy, contract, 38827
or plan with coverage for children who are eligible for medical 38828
assistancemedicaid shall first bill the insurer for any services 38829
provided for those children. If the insurer fails to pay all or 38830
any part of a claim filed under this section and the services for 38831
which the claim is filed are covered by Chapter 5111. of the 38832
Revised Codethe medicaid program, the physician, hospital, or 38833
other medical services provider shall bill the remaining unpaid 38834
costs of the services in accordance with Chapter 5111. of the 38835
Revised Codeto the medicaid program.38836

       Sec. 3121.441. (A) Notwithstanding the provisions of this 38837
chapter, Chapters 3119., 3123., and 3125., and sections 3770.071 38838
and 5107.20 of the Revised Code providing for the office of child 38839
support in the department of job and family services to collect, 38840
withhold, or deduct spousal support, when a court pursuant to 38841
section 3105.18 or 3105.65 of the Revised Code issues or modifies 38842
an order requiring an obligor to pay spousal support or grants or 38843
modifies a decree of dissolution of marriage incorporating a 38844
separation agreement that provides for spousal support, or at any 38845
time after the issuance, granting, or modification of an order or 38846
decree of that type, the court may permit the obligor to make the 38847
spousal support payments directly to the obligee instead of to the 38848
office if the obligee and the obligor have no minor children born 38849
as a result of their marriage and the obligee has not assigned the 38850
spousal support amounts to the department pursuant to section38851
5101.59 or 5107.20 or 5160.38 of the Revised Code.38852

       (B) A court that permits an obligor to make spousal support 38853
payments directly to the obligee pursuant to division (A) of this 38854
section shall order the obligor to make the spousal support 38855
payments as a check, as a money order, or in any other form that 38856
establishes a clear record of payment.38857

       (C) If a court permits an obligor to make spousal support 38858
payments directly to an obligee pursuant to division (A) of this 38859
section and the obligor is in default in making any spousal 38860
support payment to the obligee, the court, upon motion of the 38861
obligee or on its own motion, may rescind the permission granted 38862
under that division. After the rescission, the court shall 38863
determine the amount of arrearages in the spousal support payments 38864
and order the obligor to make to the office of child support in 38865
the department of job and family services any spousal support 38866
payments that are in arrears and any future spousal support 38867
payments. Upon the issuance of the order of the court under this 38868
division, the provisions of this chapter, Chapters 3119., 3123., 38869
and 3125., and sections 3770.071 and 5107.20 of the Revised Code 38870
apply with respect to the collection, withholding, or deduction of 38871
the obligor's spousal support payments that are the subject of 38872
that order of the court.38873

       Sec. 3121.89.  As used in sections 3121.891 to 3121.8911 of 38874
the Revised Code:38875

       (A) "Contractor" means an individual who provides services to 38876
an employer as an independent contractor for compensation that is 38877
reported as income other than wages and who is an individual, the 38878
sole shareholder of a corporation, or the sole member of a limited 38879
liability company. "Contractor" does not include any of the 38880
following:38881

       (1) An individual performing intelligence or 38882
counterintelligence functions for a state agency if the head of 38883
the agency has determined that reporting pursuant to this section 38884
could endanger the safety of the individual or compromise an 38885
ongoing investigation or intelligence mission;38886

       (2) A professionally licensed person who is providing 38887
services to the employer under that license;38888

       (3) An individual who will receive for the services provided 38889
under the contract compensation of less than two thousand five 38890
hundred dollars per year or a greater amount that the director of 38891
job and family services establishes by rule adopted under section 38892
3121.896 of the Revised Code.38893

       (B) "Employee" means an individual who is employed to provide 38894
services to an employer for compensation that is reported as 38895
income from wages. "Employee" does not include an individual 38896
performing intelligence or counterintelligence functions for a 38897
state agency, if the head of the agency has determined that 38898
reporting pursuant to this section could endanger the safety of 38899
the employee or compromise an ongoing investigation or 38900
intelligence mission.38901

       (C) "Employer" means any person or governmental entity other 38902
than the federal government for which an individual performs any 38903
service, of whatever nature, as the employee or contractor of such 38904
person, except that:38905

       (1) If the person for whom the individual performs services 38906
does not have control of the payment of compensation for the 38907
services, "employer" means the person having control of the 38908
payment of the compensation.38909

       (2) In the case of a person paying compensation on behalf of 38910
a nonresident alien individual, foreign partnership, or foreign 38911
corporation not engaged in trade or business within the United 38912
States, "employer" means the person paying the compensation.38913

       (3) In the case of compensation paid to a contractor, 38914
"employer" does not include any person or entity that lacks a 38915
federal employer identification number.38916

       (D) "Newly hired employee" means either of the following:38917

       (1) An employee who has not previously been employed by the 38918
employer;38919

       (2) An employee who was previously employed by an employer 38920
but has been separated from that prior employment for at least 38921
sixty consecutive days.38922

       (E) "Professionally licensed person" has the same meaning as 38923
in section 2925.01 of the Revised Code.38924

       Sec. 3121.891.  (A) Except as provided in division (B) or (C) 38925
of this section, every employer shall make a new hire report to 38926
the department of job and family services regarding the hiring, 38927
rehiring, or return to work as ana newly hired employee or a38928
contractor of a person who resides, works, or will be assigned to 38929
work in this state to whom the employer anticipates paying 38930
compensation.38931

       (B) An employer with employees or contractors in two or more 38932
states that transmits new hire reports magnetically or 38933
electronically may make the new hire report to another state if 38934
the employer does both of the following:38935

       (1) Notifies the Ohio department of job and family services 38936
and the United States secretary of health and human services in 38937
writing that the employer has designated another state as the 38938
state to which the employer will transmit the report;38939

       (2) Transmits the report to that state in compliance with 38940
federal law.38941

       (C) The department may by rule exempt employers from making 38942
new hire reports on any classification of contractors if the 38943
department determines that exempting the employer will assist the 38944
administration of the new hire reporting requirement.38945

       Sec. 3121.892. (A) An employer shall include all of the 38946
following in each new hire report:38947

        (1) For each employee, the employee's name, address, date of 38948
birth, social security number, and date of hire, rehire, or return 38949
to work;38950

        (2) For each contractor, the contractor's name, address, 38951
social security or tax identification number, the date payments 38952
begin, and the length of time the contractor will be performing 38953
services for the employer;38954

       (3) The employer's name, address, and identification number.38955

       (B) The department of job and family services may by rule 38956
require that additional information, specified in the rule, be 38957
included in each new hire report.38958

       Sec. 3121.893.  An employer shall make a new hire report for 38959
each newly hired employee or contractor in a manner prescribed by 38960
the department of job and family services. The department may 38961
require that the report include or consist of the submission of a 38962
copy of the United States internal revenue service form W-4 38963
(employee's withholding allowance certificate) for the employee, a 38964
form provided by the department, or any other hiring document or 38965
data storage device or mechanism the department authorizes. An 38966
employer may make the new hire report by mail, fax, magnetic or 38967
electronic means, or other means the department authorizes. If an 38968
employer makes a new hire report by mail, the date of making the 38969
report is the postmark date if the report is mailed in the United 38970
States with first class postage and is addressed as the department 38971
authorizes. An employer shall make the new hire report not later 38972
than twenty days after the date on which the employer hires or 38973
rehires an employee or the employee returns to work or the date on 38974
which the employer engages or re-engages the contractor or the 38975
contractor resumes providing services under the contract.38976

       Sec. 3121.898.  The department of job and family services 38977
shall use the new hire reports it receives for any of the 38978
following purposes set forth in 42 U.S.C. 653a, as amended, 38979
including:38980

       (A) To locate individuals for the purposes of establishing 38981
paternity and for establishing, modifying, and enforcing child 38982
support orders.38983

       (B) As used in this division, "state agency" means every 38984
department, bureau, board, commission, office, or other organized 38985
body established by the constitution or laws of this state for the 38986
exercise of state government; every entity of county government 38987
that is subject to the rules of a state agency; and every 38988
contractual agent of a state agency.38989

       To make available to any state agency responsible for 38990
administering any of the following programs for purposes of 38991
verifying program eligibility:38992

       (1) Any Title IV-A program as defined in section 5101.80 of 38993
the Revised Code;38994

       (2) The medicaid program authorized by Chapter 5111. of the 38995
Revised Code;38996

       (3) The unemployment compensation program authorized by 38997
Chapter 4141. of the Revised Code;38998

       (4) The supplemental nutrition assistance program authorized 38999
by section 5101.54 of the Revised Code;39000

       (5) Any other program authorized in 42 U.S.C. 1320b-7(b), as 39001
amended.39002

       (C) The administration of the employment security program 39003
under the director of job and family services.39004

       Sec. 3123.958.  The office of child support shallmay publish 39005
and distribute the firsta set of posters throughout the state not 39006
later than October 1, 1992. The office shall publish and 39007
distribute subsequent sets of posters not less than twice39008
annually.39009

       Sec. 3125.18. A child support enforcement agency shall 39010
administer a Title IV-A program identified under division 39011
(A)(4)(c) or (f)(g) of section 5101.80 of the Revised Code that 39012
the department of job and family services provides for the agency 39013
to administer under the department's supervision pursuant to 39014
section 5101.801 of the Revised Code.39015

       Sec. 3125.36.  (A) Subject to division (B) of this section, 39016
all support orders that are administered by a child support 39017
enforcement agency designated under section 307.981 of the Revised 39018
Code or former section 2301.35 of the Revised Code and are 39019
eligible for Title IV-D services shall be Title IV-D cases under 39020
Title IV-D of the "Social Security Act." Subject to division (B) 39021
of this section, all obligees of support orders administered by 39022
the agency shall be considered to have filed a signed application 39023
for Title IV-D services.39024

       (B) Except as provided in division (D) of this section, a 39025
court that issues or modifies a support order shall require the 39026
obligee under the order to sign, at the time of the issuance or 39027
modification of the order, an application for Title IV-D services 39028
and to file, as soon as possible, the signed application with the 39029
child support enforcement agency that will administer the order. 39030
The application shall be on a form prescribed by the department of 39031
job and family services. Except as provided in division (D) of 39032
this section, a support order that is administered by a child 39033
support enforcement agency, and that is eligible for Title IV-D 39034
services shall be a Title IV-D case under Title IV-D of the 39035
"Social Security Act" only upon the filing of the signed 39036
application for Title IV-D services.39037

       (C) A child support enforcement agency shall make available 39038
an application for Title IV-D services to all persons requesting a 39039
child support enforcement agency's assistance in an action under 39040
sections 3111.01 to 3111.18 of the Revised Code or in an 39041
administrative proceeding brought to establish a parent and child 39042
relationship, to establish or modify an administrative support 39043
order, or to establish or modify an order to provide health 39044
insurance coverage for the children subject to a support order.39045

       (D) An obligee under a support order who has assigned the 39046
right to the support pursuant to section 5101.59 or 5107.20 or 39047
5160.38 of the Revised Code shall not be required to sign an 39048
application for Title IV-D services. The support order shall be 39049
considered a Title IV-D case.39050

       Sec. 3301.07.  The state board of education shall exercise 39051
under the acts of the general assembly general supervision of the 39052
system of public education in the state. In addition to the powers 39053
otherwise imposed on the state board under the provisions of law, 39054
the board shall have the powers described in this section.39055

       (A) The state board shall exercise policy forming, planning, 39056
and evaluative functions for the public schools of the state 39057
except as otherwise provided by law.39058

       (B)(1) The state board shall exercise leadership in the 39059
improvement of public education in this state, and administer the 39060
educational policies of this state relating to public schools, and 39061
relating to instruction and instructional material, building and 39062
equipment, transportation of pupils, administrative 39063
responsibilities of school officials and personnel, and finance 39064
and organization of school districts, educational service centers, 39065
and territory. Consultative and advisory services in such matters 39066
shall be provided by the board to school districts and educational 39067
service centers of this state. 39068

       (2) The state board also shall develop a standard of 39069
financial reporting which shall be used by each school district 39070
board of education and educational service centereach governing 39071
board of an educational service center, each governing authority 39072
of a community school established under Chapter 3314., each 39073
governing body of a STEM school established under Chapter 3328., 39074
and each board of trustees of a college-preparatory boarding 39075
school established under Chapter 3328. of the Revised Code to make 39076
its financial information and annual budgets for each school 39077
building under its control available to the public in a format 39078
understandable by the average citizen. The format shall show, 39079
among other things,both at the district and educational service 39080
center level orand at the school building level, as determined 39081
appropriate by the department of education, revenue by source; 39082
expenditures for salaries, wages, and benefits of employees, 39083
showing such amounts separately for classroom teachers, other 39084
employees required to hold licenses issued pursuant to sections 39085
3319.22 to 3319.31 of the Revised Code, and all other employees; 39086
expenditures other than for personnel, by category, including 39087
utilities, textbooks and other educational materials, equipment, 39088
permanent improvements, pupil transportation, extracurricular 39089
athletics, and other extracurricular activities; and per pupil 39090
expenditures. The format shall also include information on total 39091
revenue and expenditures, per pupil revenue, and expenditures for 39092
both classroom and nonclassroom purposes, as defined by the 39093
standards adopted under section 3302.20 of the Revised Code in the 39094
aggregate and for each subgroup of students, as defined by section 39095
3317.40 of the Revised Code, that receives services provided for 39096
by state or federal funding.39097

       (3) Each school district board, governing authority, 39098
governing body, or board of trustees, or its respective designee, 39099
shall annually report, to the department of education, all 39100
financial information required by the standards for financial 39101
reporting, as prescribed by division (B)(2) of this section and 39102
adopted by the state board. The department shall post these 39103
reports in a prominent location on its web site and shall notify 39104
each school when reports are made available.39105

       (C) The state board shall administer and supervise the 39106
allocation and distribution of all state and federal funds for 39107
public school education under the provisions of law, and may 39108
prescribe such systems of accounting as are necessary and proper 39109
to this function. It may require county auditors and treasurers, 39110
boards of education, educational service center governing boards, 39111
treasurers of such boards, teachers, and other school officers and 39112
employees, or other public officers or employees, to file with it 39113
such reports as it may prescribe relating to such funds, or to the 39114
management and condition of such funds.39115

       (D)(1) Wherever in Titles IX, XXIII, XXIX, XXXIII, XXXVII, 39116
XLVII, and LI of the Revised Code a reference is made to standards 39117
prescribed under this section or division (D) of this section, 39118
that reference shall be construed to refer to the standards 39119
prescribed under division (D)(2) of this section, unless the 39120
context specifically indicates a different meaning or intent.39121

        (2) The state board shall formulate and prescribe minimum 39122
standards to be applied to all elementary and secondary schools in 39123
this state for the purpose of requiringproviding children access 39124
to a general education of high quality according to the learning 39125
needs of each individual, including students with disabilities, 39126
economically disadvantaged students, limited English proficient 39127
students, and students identified as gifted. Such standards shall 39128
provide adequately for: the licensing of teachers, administrators, 39129
and other professional personnel and their assignment according to 39130
training and qualifications; efficient and effective instructional 39131
materials and equipment, including library facilities; the proper 39132
organization, administration, and supervision of each school, 39133
including regulations for preparing all necessary records and 39134
reports and the preparation of a statement of policies and 39135
objectives for each school; the provision of safe buildings, 39136
grounds, health and sanitary facilities and services; admission of 39137
pupils, and such requirements for their promotion from grade to 39138
grade as will assure that they are capable and prepared for the 39139
level of study to which they are certified; requirements for 39140
graduation; and such other factors as the board finds necessary.39141

       The state board shall base any standards governing the 39142
promotion of students or requirements for graduation on the 39143
ability of students, at any grade level, to earn credits or 39144
advance upon demonstration of mastery of knowledge and skills 39145
through competency-based learning models. Credits of grade level 39146
advancement shall not require a minimum number of days or hours in 39147
a classroom.39148

       The state board shall base any standards governing the 39149
assignment of staff on ensuring each school has a sufficient 39150
number of teachers to ensure a student has an appropriate level of 39151
interaction to meet each student's personal learning goals.39152

       In the formulation and administration of such standards for 39153
nonpublic schools the board shall also consider the particular 39154
needs, methods and objectives of those schools, provided they do 39155
not conflict with the provision of a general education of a high 39156
quality and provided that regular procedures shall be followed for 39157
promotion from grade to grade of pupils who have met the 39158
educational requirements prescribed.39159

        In the formulation and administration of such standards as 39160
they relate to instructional materials and equipment in public 39161
schools, including library materials, the board shall require that 39162
the material and equipment be aligned with and promote skills 39163
expected under the statewide academic standards adopted under 39164
section 3301.079 of the Revised Code.39165

        (3) In addition to the minimum standards required by division 39166
(D)(2) of this section, the state board may formulate and 39167
prescribe the following additional minimum operating standards for 39168
school districts:39169

       (a) Standards for the effective and efficient organization, 39170
administration, and supervision of each school district so that it 39171
becomes a thinking and learning organization according to 39172
principles of systems design and collaborative professional 39173
learning communities research as defined by the superintendent of 39174
public instruction, including a focus on the personalized and 39175
individualized needs of each student; a shared responsibility 39176
among school boards, administrators, faculty, and staff to develop 39177
a common vision, mission, and set of guiding principles; a shared 39178
responsibility among school boards, administrators, faculty, and 39179
staff to engage in a process of collective inquiry, action 39180
orientation, and experimentation to ensure the academic success of 39181
all students; commitment to teaching and learning strategies that 39182
utilize technological tools and emphasize inter-disciplinary, 39183
real-world, project-based, and technology-oriented learning 39184
experiences to meet the individual needs of every student;with a39185
commitment to high expectations for every student based on the 39186
learning needs of each individual, including students with 39187
disabilities, economically disadvantaged students, limited English 39188
proficient students, and students identified as gifted, and 39189
commitment to closing the achievement gap without suppressing the 39190
achievement levels of higher achieving students so that all 39191
students achieve core knowledge and skills in accordance with the 39192
statewide academic standards adopted under section 3301.079 of the 39193
Revised Code; commitment to the use of assessments to diagnose 39194
the needs of each student; effective connections and relationships 39195
with families and others that support student success; and 39196
commitment to the use of positive behavior intervention supports 39197
throughout a district to ensure a safe and secure learning 39198
environment for all students;39199

       (b) Standards for the establishment of business advisory 39200
councils under section 3313.82 of the Revised Code;39201

        (c) Standards for school district buildings that may require:39202

       (i) Thethe effective and efficient organization, 39203
administration, and supervision of each school district building 39204
so that it becomes a thinking and learning organization according 39205
to principles of systems design and collaborative professional 39206
learning communities research as defined by the state 39207
superintendent, including a focus on the personalized and 39208
individualized needs of each student; a shared responsibility 39209
among building administrators, faculty, and staff to develop a 39210
common vision, mission, and set of guiding principles; a shared 39211
responsibility among building administrators, faculty, and staff 39212
to engage in a process of collective inquiry, action orientation, 39213
and experimentation to ensure the academic success of all 39214
students; commitment to job embedded professional development and 39215
professional mentoring and coaching; established periods of time 39216
for teachers to pursue planning time for the development of lesson 39217
plans, professional development, and shared learning; commitment 39218
to effective management strategies that allow administrators 39219
reasonable access to classrooms for observation and professional 39220
development experiences; commitment to teaching and learning 39221
strategies that utilize technological tools and emphasize 39222
inter-disciplinary, real-world, project-based, and 39223
technology-oriented learning experiences to meet the individual 39224
needs of every student;with a commitment to high expectations for 39225
every student based on the learning needs of each individual, 39226
including students with disabilities, economically disadvantaged 39227
students, limited English proficient students, and students 39228
identified as gifted, and commitment to closing the achievement 39229
gap without suppressing the achievement levels of higher achieving 39230
students so that all students achieve core knowledge and skills in 39231
accordance with the statewide academic standards adopted under 39232
section 3301.079 of the Revised Code; commitment to the use of 39233
assessments to diagnose the needs of each student; effective 39234
connections and relationships with families and others that 39235
support student success; commitment to the use of positive 39236
behavior intervention supports throughout the building to ensure a 39237
safe and secure learning environment for all students;39238

       (ii) A school building leadership team to coordinate positive 39239
behavior intervention supports, learning environments, thinking 39240
and learning systems, collaborative planning, planning time, 39241
student academic interventions, student extended learning 39242
opportunities, and other activities identified by the team and 39243
approved by the district board of education. The team shall 39244
include the building principal, representatives from each 39245
collective bargaining unit, a classroom teacher, parents, business 39246
representatives, and others that support student success. 39247

        (E) The state board may require as part of the health 39248
curriculum information developed under section 2108.34 of the 39249
Revised Code promoting the donation of anatomical gifts pursuant 39250
to Chapter 2108. of the Revised Code and may provide the 39251
information to high schools, educational service centers, and 39252
joint vocational school district boards of education;39253

       (F) The state board shall prepare and submit annually to the 39254
governor and the general assembly a report on the status, needs, 39255
and major problems of the public schools of the state, with 39256
recommendations for necessary legislative action and a ten-year 39257
projection of the state's public and nonpublic school enrollment, 39258
by year and by grade level.39259

       (G) The state board shall prepare and submit to the director 39260
of budget and management the biennial budgetary requests of the 39261
state board of education, for its agencies and for the public 39262
schools of the state.39263

       (H) The state board shall cooperate with federal, state, and 39264
local agencies concerned with the health and welfare of children 39265
and youth of the state.39266

       (I) The state board shall require such reports from school 39267
districts and educational service centers, school officers, and 39268
employees as are necessary and desirable. The superintendents and 39269
treasurers of school districts and educational service centers 39270
shall certify as to the accuracy of all reports required by law or 39271
state board or state department of education rules to be submitted 39272
by the district or educational service center and which contain 39273
information necessary for calculation of state funding. Any 39274
superintendent who knowingly falsifies such report shall be 39275
subject to license revocation pursuant to section 3319.31 of the 39276
Revised Code.39277

       (J) In accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, the 39278
state board shall adopt procedures, standards, and guidelines for 39279
the education of children with disabilities pursuant to Chapter 39280
3323. of the Revised Code, including procedures, standards, and 39281
guidelines governing programs and services operated by county 39282
boards of developmental disabilities pursuant to section 3323.09 39283
of the Revised Code.39284

       (K) For the purpose of encouraging the development of special 39285
programs of education for academically gifted children, the state 39286
board shall employ competent persons to analyze and publish data, 39287
promote research, advise and counsel with boards of education, and 39288
encourage the training of teachers in the special instruction of 39289
gifted children. The board may provide financial assistance out of 39290
any funds appropriated for this purpose to boards of education and 39291
educational service center governing boards for developing and 39292
conducting programs of education for academically gifted children.39293

       (L) The state board shall require that all public schools 39294
emphasize and encourage, within existing units of study, the 39295
teaching of energy and resource conservation as recommended to 39296
each district board of education by leading business persons 39297
involved in energy production and conservation, beginning in the 39298
primary grades.39299

       (M) The state board shall formulate and prescribe minimum 39300
standards requiring the use of phonics as a technique in the 39301
teaching of reading in grades kindergarten through three. In 39302
addition, the state board shall provide in-service training 39303
programs for teachers on the use of phonics as a technique in the 39304
teaching of reading in grades kindergarten through three.39305

       (N) The state board may adopt rules necessary for carrying 39306
out any function imposed on it by law, and may provide rules as 39307
are necessary for its government and the government of its 39308
employees, and may delegate to the superintendent of public 39309
instruction the management and administration of any function 39310
imposed on it by law. It may provide for the appointment of board 39311
members to serve on temporary committees established by the board 39312
for such purposes as are necessary. Permanent or standing 39313
committees shall not be created.39314

        (O) Upon application from the board of education of a school 39315
district, the superintendent of public instruction may issue a 39316
waiver exempting the district from compliance with the standards 39317
adopted under divisions (B)(2) and (D) of this section, as they 39318
relate to the operation of a school operated by the district. The 39319
state board shall adopt standards for the approval or disapproval 39320
of waivers under this division. The state superintendent shall 39321
consider every application for a waiver, and shall determine 39322
whether to grant or deny a waiver in accordance with the state 39323
board's standards. For each waiver granted, the state 39324
superintendent shall specify the period of time during which the 39325
waiver is in effect, which shall not exceed five years. A district 39326
board may apply to renew a waiver.39327

       Sec. 3301.0714.  (A) The state board of education shall adopt 39328
rules for a statewide education management information system. The 39329
rules shall require the state board to establish guidelines for 39330
the establishment and maintenance of the system in accordance with 39331
this section and the rules adopted under this section. The 39332
guidelines shall include:39333

       (1) Standards identifying and defining the types of data in 39334
the system in accordance with divisions (B) and (C) of this 39335
section;39336

       (2) Procedures for annually collecting and reporting the data 39337
to the state board in accordance with division (D) of this 39338
section;39339

       (3) Procedures for annually compiling the data in accordance 39340
with division (G) of this section;39341

       (4) Procedures for annually reporting the data to the public 39342
in accordance with division (H) of this section.39343

       (B) The guidelines adopted under this section shall require 39344
the data maintained in the education management information system 39345
to include at least the following:39346

       (1) Student participation and performance data, for each 39347
grade in each school district as a whole and for each grade in 39348
each school building in each school district, that includes:39349

       (a) The numbers of students receiving each category of 39350
instructional service offered by the school district, such as 39351
regular education instruction, vocational education instruction, 39352
specialized instruction programs or enrichment instruction that is 39353
part of the educational curriculum, instruction for gifted 39354
students, instruction for students with disabilities, and remedial 39355
instruction. The guidelines shall require instructional services 39356
under this division to be divided into discrete categories if an 39357
instructional service is limited to a specific subject, a specific 39358
type of student, or both, such as regular instructional services 39359
in mathematics, remedial reading instructional services, 39360
instructional services specifically for students gifted in 39361
mathematics or some other subject area, or instructional services 39362
for students with a specific type of disability. The categories of 39363
instructional services required by the guidelines under this 39364
division shall be the same as the categories of instructional 39365
services used in determining cost units pursuant to division 39366
(C)(3) of this section.39367

       (b) The numbers of students receiving support or 39368
extracurricular services for each of the support services or 39369
extracurricular programs offered by the school district, such as 39370
counseling services, health services, and extracurricular sports 39371
and fine arts programs. The categories of services required by the 39372
guidelines under this division shall be the same as the categories 39373
of services used in determining cost units pursuant to division 39374
(C)(4)(a) of this section.39375

       (c) Average student grades in each subject in grades nine 39376
through twelve;39377

       (d) Academic achievement levels as assessed under sections 39378
3301.0710, 3301.0711, and 3301.0712 of the Revised Code;39379

       (e) The number of students designated as having a disabling 39380
condition pursuant to division (C)(1) of section 3301.0711 of the 39381
Revised Code;39382

       (f) The numbers of students reported to the state board 39383
pursuant to division (C)(2) of section 3301.0711 of the Revised 39384
Code;39385

       (g) Attendance rates and the average daily attendance for the 39386
year. For purposes of this division, a student shall be counted as 39387
present for any field trip that is approved by the school 39388
administration.39389

       (h) Expulsion rates;39390

       (i) Suspension rates;39391

       (j) Dropout rates;39392

       (k) Rates of retention in grade;39393

       (l) For pupils in grades nine through twelve, the average 39394
number of carnegie units, as calculated in accordance with state 39395
board of education rules;39396

       (m) Graduation rates, to be calculated in a manner specified 39397
by the department of education that reflects the rate at which 39398
students who were in the ninth grade three years prior to the 39399
current year complete school and that is consistent with 39400
nationally accepted reporting requirements;39401

       (n) Results of diagnostic assessments administered to 39402
kindergarten students as required under section 3301.0715 of the 39403
Revised Code to permit a comparison of the academic readiness of 39404
kindergarten students. However, no district shall be required to 39405
report to the department the results of any diagnostic assessment 39406
administered to a kindergarten student if the parent of that 39407
student requests the district not to report those results.39408

       (2) Personnel and classroom enrollment data for each school 39409
district, including:39410

       (a) The total numbers of licensed employees and nonlicensed 39411
employees and the numbers of full-time equivalent licensed 39412
employees and nonlicensed employees providing each category of 39413
instructional service, instructional support service, and 39414
administrative support service used pursuant to division (C)(3) of 39415
this section. The guidelines adopted under this section shall 39416
require these categories of data to be maintained for the school 39417
district as a whole and, wherever applicable, for each grade in 39418
the school district as a whole, for each school building as a 39419
whole, and for each grade in each school building.39420

       (b) The total number of employees and the number of full-time 39421
equivalent employees providing each category of service used 39422
pursuant to divisions (C)(4)(a) and (b) of this section, and the 39423
total numbers of licensed employees and nonlicensed employees and 39424
the numbers of full-time equivalent licensed employees and 39425
nonlicensed employees providing each category used pursuant to 39426
division (C)(4)(c) of this section. The guidelines adopted under 39427
this section shall require these categories of data to be 39428
maintained for the school district as a whole and, wherever 39429
applicable, for each grade in the school district as a whole, for 39430
each school building as a whole, and for each grade in each school 39431
building.39432

       (c) The total number of regular classroom teachers teaching 39433
classes of regular education and the average number of pupils 39434
enrolled in each such class, in each of grades kindergarten 39435
through five in the district as a whole and in each school 39436
building in the school district.39437

       (d) The number of lead teachers employed by each school 39438
district and each school building.39439

       (3)(a) Student demographic data for each school district, 39440
including information regarding the gender ratio of the school 39441
district's pupils, the racial make-up of the school district's 39442
pupils, the number of limited English proficient students in the 39443
district, and an appropriate measure of the number of the school 39444
district's pupils who reside in economically disadvantaged 39445
households. The demographic data shall be collected in a manner to 39446
allow correlation with data collected under division (B)(1) of 39447
this section. Categories for data collected pursuant to division 39448
(B)(3) of this section shall conform, where appropriate, to 39449
standard practices of agencies of the federal government.39450

       (b) With respect to each student entering kindergarten, 39451
whether the student previously participated in a public preschool 39452
program, a private preschool program, or a head start program, and 39453
the number of years the student participated in each of these 39454
programs.39455

       (4) Any data required to be collected pursuant to federal 39456
law.39457

       (C) The education management information system shall include 39458
cost accounting data for each district as a whole and for each 39459
school building in each school district. The guidelines adopted 39460
under this section shall require the cost data for each school 39461
district to be maintained in a system of mutually exclusive cost 39462
units and shall require all of the costs of each school district 39463
to be divided among the cost units. The guidelines shall require 39464
the system of mutually exclusive cost units to include at least 39465
the following:39466

       (1) Administrative costs for the school district as a whole. 39467
The guidelines shall require the cost units under this division 39468
(C)(1) to be designed so that each of them may be compiled and 39469
reported in terms of average expenditure per pupil in formula ADM 39470
in the school district, as determined pursuant to section 3317.03 39471
of the Revised Code.39472

       (2) Administrative costs for each school building in the 39473
school district. The guidelines shall require the cost units under 39474
this division (C)(2) to be designed so that each of them may be 39475
compiled and reported in terms of average expenditure per 39476
full-time equivalent pupil receiving instructional or support 39477
services in each building.39478

       (3) Instructional services costs for each category of 39479
instructional service provided directly to students and required 39480
by guidelines adopted pursuant to division (B)(1)(a) of this 39481
section. The guidelines shall require the cost units under 39482
division (C)(3) of this section to be designed so that each of 39483
them may be compiled and reported in terms of average expenditure 39484
per pupil receiving the service in the school district as a whole 39485
and average expenditure per pupil receiving the service in each 39486
building in the school district and in terms of a total cost for 39487
each category of service and, as a breakdown of the total cost, a 39488
cost for each of the following components:39489

       (a) The cost of each instructional services category required 39490
by guidelines adopted under division (B)(1)(a) of this section 39491
that is provided directly to students by a classroom teacher;39492

       (b) The cost of the instructional support services, such as 39493
services provided by a speech-language pathologist, classroom 39494
aide, multimedia aide, or librarian, provided directly to students 39495
in conjunction with each instructional services category;39496

       (c) The cost of the administrative support services related 39497
to each instructional services category, such as the cost of 39498
personnel that develop the curriculum for the instructional 39499
services category and the cost of personnel supervising or 39500
coordinating the delivery of the instructional services category.39501

       (4) Support or extracurricular services costs for each 39502
category of service directly provided to students and required by 39503
guidelines adopted pursuant to division (B)(1)(b) of this section. 39504
The guidelines shall require the cost units under division (C)(4) 39505
of this section to be designed so that each of them may be 39506
compiled and reported in terms of average expenditure per pupil 39507
receiving the service in the school district as a whole and 39508
average expenditure per pupil receiving the service in each 39509
building in the school district and in terms of a total cost for 39510
each category of service and, as a breakdown of the total cost, a 39511
cost for each of the following components:39512

       (a) The cost of each support or extracurricular services 39513
category required by guidelines adopted under division (B)(1)(b) 39514
of this section that is provided directly to students by a 39515
licensed employee, such as services provided by a guidance 39516
counselor or any services provided by a licensed employee under a 39517
supplemental contract;39518

       (b) The cost of each such services category provided directly 39519
to students by a nonlicensed employee, such as janitorial 39520
services, cafeteria services, or services of a sports trainer;39521

       (c) The cost of the administrative services related to each 39522
services category in division (C)(4)(a) or (b) of this section, 39523
such as the cost of any licensed or nonlicensed employees that 39524
develop, supervise, coordinate, or otherwise are involved in 39525
administering or aiding the delivery of each services category.39526

       (D)(1) The guidelines adopted under this section shall 39527
require school districts to collect information about individual 39528
students, staff members, or both in connection with any data 39529
required by division (B) or (C) of this section or other reporting 39530
requirements established in the Revised Code. The guidelines may 39531
also require school districts to report information about 39532
individual staff members in connection with any data required by 39533
division (B) or (C) of this section or other reporting 39534
requirements established in the Revised Code. The guidelines shall 39535
not authorize school districts to request social security numbers 39536
of individual students. The guidelines shall prohibit the 39537
reporting under this section of a student's name, address, and 39538
social security number to the state board of education or the 39539
department of education. The guidelines shall also prohibit the 39540
reporting under this section of any personally identifiable 39541
information about any student, except for the purpose of assigning 39542
the data verification code required by division (D)(2) of this 39543
section, to any other person unless such person is employed by the 39544
school district or the information technology center operated 39545
under section 3301.075 of the Revised Code and is authorized by 39546
the district or technology center to have access to such 39547
information or is employed by an entity with which the department 39548
contracts for the scoring or the development of state assessments. 39549
The guidelines may require school districts to provide the social 39550
security numbers of individual staff members and the county of 39551
residence for a student. Nothing in this section prohibits the 39552
state board of education or department of education from providing 39553
a student's county of residence to the department of taxation to 39554
facilitate the distribution of tax revenue.39555

       (2)(a) The guidelines shall provide for each school district 39556
or community school to assign a data verification code that is 39557
unique on a statewide basis over time to each student whose 39558
initial Ohio enrollment is in that district or school and to 39559
report all required individual student data for that student 39560
utilizing such code. The guidelines shall also provide for 39561
assigning data verification codes to all students enrolled in 39562
districts or community schools on the effective date of the 39563
guidelines established under this section. The assignment of data 39564
verification codes for other entities, as described in division 39565
(D)(2)(c) of this section, the use of those codes, and the 39566
reporting and use of associated individual student data shall be 39567
coordinated by the department in accordance with state and federal 39568
law.39569

        School districts shall report individual student data to the 39570
department through the information technology centers utilizing 39571
the code. The entities described in division (D)(2)(c) of this 39572
section shall report individual student data to the department in 39573
the manner prescribed by the department.39574

        Except as provided in sections 3301.941, 3310.11, 3310.42, 39575
3310.63, 3313.978, and 3317.20 of the Revised Code, at no time 39576
shall the state board or the department have access to information 39577
that would enable any data verification code to be matched to 39578
personally identifiable student data.39579

       (b) Each school district and community school shall ensure 39580
that the data verification code is included in the student's 39581
records reported to any subsequent school district, community 39582
school, or state institution of higher education, as defined in 39583
section 3345.011 of the Revised Code, in which the student 39584
enrolls. Any such subsequent district or school shall utilize the 39585
same identifier in its reporting of data under this section.39586

       (c) The director of any state agency that administers a 39587
publicly funded program providing services to children who are 39588
younger than compulsory school age, as defined in section 3321.01 39589
of the Revised Code, including the directors of health, job and 39590
family services, mental healthmental health and addiction 39591
services, and developmental disabilities, shall request and 39592
receive, pursuant to sections 3301.0723 and 3701.62 of the Revised 39593
Code, a data verification code for a child who is receiving those 39594
services. 39595

       (E) The guidelines adopted under this section may require 39596
school districts to collect and report data, information, or 39597
reports other than that described in divisions (A), (B), and (C) 39598
of this section for the purpose of complying with other reporting 39599
requirements established in the Revised Code. The other data, 39600
information, or reports may be maintained in the education 39601
management information system but are not required to be compiled 39602
as part of the profile formats required under division (G) of this 39603
section or the annual statewide report required under division (H) 39604
of this section.39605

       (F) Beginning with the school year that begins July 1, 1991, 39606
the board of education of each school district shall annually 39607
collect and report to the state board, in accordance with the 39608
guidelines established by the board, the data required pursuant to 39609
this section. A school district may collect and report these data 39610
notwithstanding section 2151.357 or 3319.321 of the Revised Code.39611

       (G) The state board shall, in accordance with the procedures 39612
it adopts, annually compile the data reported by each school 39613
district pursuant to division (D) of this section. The state board 39614
shall design formats for profiling each school district as a whole 39615
and each school building within each district and shall compile 39616
the data in accordance with these formats. These profile formats 39617
shall:39618

       (1) Include all of the data gathered under this section in a 39619
manner that facilitates comparison among school districts and 39620
among school buildings within each school district;39621

       (2) Present the data on academic achievement levels as 39622
assessed by the testing of student achievement maintained pursuant 39623
to division (B)(1)(d) of this section.39624

       (H)(1) The state board shall, in accordance with the 39625
procedures it adopts, annually prepare a statewide report for all 39626
school districts and the general public that includes the profile 39627
of each of the school districts developed pursuant to division (G) 39628
of this section. Copies of the report shall be sent to each school 39629
district.39630

       (2) The state board shall, in accordance with the procedures 39631
it adopts, annually prepare an individual report for each school 39632
district and the general public that includes the profiles of each 39633
of the school buildings in that school district developed pursuant 39634
to division (G) of this section. Copies of the report shall be 39635
sent to the superintendent of the district and to each member of 39636
the district board of education.39637

       (3) Copies of the reports received from the state board under 39638
divisions (H)(1) and (2) of this section shall be made available 39639
to the general public at each school district's offices. Each 39640
district board of education shall make copies of each report 39641
available to any person upon request and payment of a reasonable 39642
fee for the cost of reproducing the report. The board shall 39643
annually publish in a newspaper of general circulation in the 39644
school district, at least twice during the two weeks prior to the 39645
week in which the reports will first be available, a notice 39646
containing the address where the reports are available and the 39647
date on which the reports will be available.39648

       (I) Any data that is collected or maintained pursuant to this 39649
section and that identifies an individual pupil is not a public 39650
record for the purposes of section 149.43 of the Revised Code.39651

       (J) As used in this section:39652

       (1) "School district" means any city, local, exempted 39653
village, or joint vocational school district and, in accordance 39654
with section 3314.17 of the Revised Code, any community school. As 39655
used in division (L) of this section, "school district" also 39656
includes any educational service center or other educational 39657
entity required to submit data using the system established under 39658
this section.39659

       (2) "Cost" means any expenditure for operating expenses made 39660
by a school district excluding any expenditures for debt 39661
retirement except for payments made to any commercial lending 39662
institution for any loan approved pursuant to section 3313.483 of 39663
the Revised Code.39664

       (K) Any person who removes data from the information system 39665
established under this section for the purpose of releasing it to 39666
any person not entitled under law to have access to such 39667
information is subject to section 2913.42 of the Revised Code 39668
prohibiting tampering with data.39669

       (L)(1) In accordance with division (L)(2) of this section and 39670
the rules adopted under division (L)(10) of this section, the 39671
department of education may sanction any school district that 39672
reports incomplete or inaccurate data, reports data that does not 39673
conform to data requirements and descriptions published by the 39674
department, fails to report data in a timely manner, or otherwise 39675
does not make a good faith effort to report data as required by 39676
this section.39677

       (2) If the department decides to sanction a school district 39678
under this division, the department shall take the following 39679
sequential actions:39680

       (a) Notify the district in writing that the department has 39681
determined that data has not been reported as required under this 39682
section and require the district to review its data submission and 39683
submit corrected data by a deadline established by the department. 39684
The department also may require the district to develop a 39685
corrective action plan, which shall include provisions for the 39686
district to provide mandatory staff training on data reporting 39687
procedures.39688

       (b) Withhold up to ten per cent of the total amount of state 39689
funds due to the district for the current fiscal year and, if not 39690
previously required under division (L)(2)(a) of this section, 39691
require the district to develop a corrective action plan in 39692
accordance with that division;39693

       (c) Withhold an additional amount of up to twenty per cent of 39694
the total amount of state funds due to the district for the 39695
current fiscal year;39696

       (d) Direct department staff or an outside entity to 39697
investigate the district's data reporting practices and make 39698
recommendations for subsequent actions. The recommendations may 39699
include one or more of the following actions:39700

       (i) Arrange for an audit of the district's data reporting 39701
practices by department staff or an outside entity;39702

       (ii) Conduct a site visit and evaluation of the district;39703

       (iii) Withhold an additional amount of up to thirty per cent 39704
of the total amount of state funds due to the district for the 39705
current fiscal year;39706

       (iv) Continue monitoring the district's data reporting;39707

       (v) Assign department staff to supervise the district's data 39708
management system;39709

       (vi) Conduct an investigation to determine whether to suspend 39710
or revoke the license of any district employee in accordance with 39711
division (N) of this section;39712

       (vii) If the district is issued a report card under section 39713
3302.03 of the Revised Code, indicate on the report card that the 39714
district has been sanctioned for failing to report data as 39715
required by this section;39716

       (viii) If the district is issued a report card under section 39717
3302.03 of the Revised Code and incomplete or inaccurate data 39718
submitted by the district likely caused the district to receive a 39719
higher performance rating than it deserved under that section, 39720
issue a revised report card for the district;39721

       (ix) Any other action designed to correct the district's data 39722
reporting problems.39723

       (3) Any time the department takes an action against a school 39724
district under division (L)(2) of this section, the department 39725
shall make a report of the circumstances that prompted the action. 39726
The department shall send a copy of the report to the district 39727
superintendent or chief administrator and maintain a copy of the 39728
report in its files.39729

       (4) If any action taken under division (L)(2) of this section 39730
resolves a school district's data reporting problems to the 39731
department's satisfaction, the department shall not take any 39732
further actions described by that division. If the department 39733
withheld funds from the district under that division, the 39734
department may release those funds to the district, except that if 39735
the department withheld funding under division (L)(2)(c) of this 39736
section, the department shall not release the funds withheld under 39737
division (L)(2)(b) of this section and, if the department withheld 39738
funding under division (L)(2)(d) of this section, the department 39739
shall not release the funds withheld under division (L)(2)(b) or 39740
(c) of this section.39741

       (5) Notwithstanding anything in this section to the contrary, 39742
the department may use its own staff or an outside entity to 39743
conduct an audit of a school district's data reporting practices 39744
any time the department has reason to believe the district has not 39745
made a good faith effort to report data as required by this 39746
section. If any audit conducted by an outside entity under 39747
division (L)(2)(d)(i) or (5) of this section confirms that a 39748
district has not made a good faith effort to report data as 39749
required by this section, the district shall reimburse the 39750
department for the full cost of the audit. The department may 39751
withhold state funds due to the district for this purpose.39752

       (6) Prior to issuing a revised report card for a school 39753
district under division (L)(2)(d)(viii) of this section, the 39754
department may hold a hearing to provide the district with an 39755
opportunity to demonstrate that it made a good faith effort to 39756
report data as required by this section. The hearing shall be 39757
conducted by a referee appointed by the department. Based on the 39758
information provided in the hearing, the referee shall recommend 39759
whether the department should issue a revised report card for the 39760
district. If the referee affirms the department's contention that 39761
the district did not make a good faith effort to report data as 39762
required by this section, the district shall bear the full cost of 39763
conducting the hearing and of issuing any revised report card.39764

       (7) If the department determines that any inaccurate data 39765
reported under this section caused a school district to receive 39766
excess state funds in any fiscal year, the district shall 39767
reimburse the department an amount equal to the excess funds, in 39768
accordance with a payment schedule determined by the department. 39769
The department may withhold state funds due to the district for 39770
this purpose.39771

       (8) Any school district that has funds withheld under 39772
division (L)(2) of this section may appeal the withholding in 39773
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.39774

       (9) In all cases of a disagreement between the department and 39775
a school district regarding the appropriateness of an action taken 39776
under division (L)(2) of this section, the burden of proof shall 39777
be on the district to demonstrate that it made a good faith effort 39778
to report data as required by this section.39779

       (10) The state board of education shall adopt rules under 39780
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement division (L) of this 39781
section.39782

       (M) No information technology center or school district shall 39783
acquire, change, or update its student administration software 39784
package to manage and report data required to be reported to the 39785
department unless it converts to a student software package that 39786
is certified by the department.39787

       (N) The state board of education, in accordance with sections 39788
3319.31 and 3319.311 of the Revised Code, may suspend or revoke a 39789
license as defined under division (A) of section 3319.31 of the 39790
Revised Code that has been issued to any school district employee 39791
found to have willfully reported erroneous, inaccurate, or 39792
incomplete data to the education management information system.39793

       (O) No person shall release or maintain any information about 39794
any student in violation of this section. Whoever violates this 39795
division is guilty of a misdemeanor of the fourth degree.39796

       (P) The department shall disaggregate the data collected 39797
under division (B)(1)(n) of this section according to the race and 39798
socioeconomic status of the students assessed. No data collected 39799
under that division shall be included on the report cards required 39800
by section 3302.03 of the Revised Code.39801

       (Q) If the department cannot compile any of the information 39802
required by division (H) of section 3302.03 of the Revised Code 39803
based upon the data collected under this section, the department 39804
shall develop a plan and a reasonable timeline for the collection 39805
of any data necessary to comply with that division.39806

       Sec. 3301.0715.  (A) Except as otherwise required under 39807
division (B)(1) of section 3313.608 of the Revised Code, the board 39808
of education of each city, local, and exempted village school 39809
district shall administer each applicable diagnostic assessment 39810
developed and provided to the district in accordance with section 39811
3301.079 of the Revised Code to the following:39812

       (1) Any student who transfers into the district or to a 39813
different school within the district if each applicable diagnostic 39814
assessment was not administered by the district or school the 39815
student previously attended in the current school year, within 39816
thirty days after the date of transfer. If the district or school 39817
into which the student transfers cannot determine whether the 39818
student has taken any applicable diagnostic assessment in the 39819
current school year, the district or school may administer the 39820
diagnostic assessment to the student.39821

       (2) Each(a) Prior to July 1, 2014, each kindergarten 39822
student, not earlier than four weeks prior to the first day of 39823
school and not later than the first day of October. For39824

       (b) Beginning July 1, 2014, each kindergarten student, not 39825
earlier than the first day of the school year and not later than 39826
the first day of November, except that the language and reading 39827
skills portion of the assessment shall be administered by the 39828
thirtieth day of September to fulfill the requirements of division 39829
(B) of section 3313.608 of the Revised Code.39830

       For the purpose of division (A)(2) of this section, the 39831
district shall administer the kindergarten readiness assessment 39832
provided by the department of education. In no case shall the 39833
results of the readiness assessment be used to prohibit a student 39834
from enrolling in kindergarten.39835

       (3) Each student enrolled in first, second, or third grade.39836

       (B) Each district board shall administer each diagnostic 39837
assessment when the board deems appropriate, provided the 39838
administration complies with section 3313.608 of the Revised Code. 39839
However, the board shall administer any diagnostic assessment at 39840
least once annually to all students in the appropriate grade 39841
level. A district board may administer any diagnostic assessment 39842
in the fall and spring of a school year to measure the amount of 39843
academic growth attributable to the instruction received by 39844
students during that school year.39845

       (C) Any district that received an excellent or effective 39846
rating for the immediately preceding school year, pursuant to 39847
section 3302.03 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to the 39848
effective date of this amendmentMarch 22, 2013, or the equivalent 39849
of such rating as determined by the department of education, may 39850
use different diagnostic assessments from those adopted under 39851
division (D) of section 3301.079 of the Revised Code in order to 39852
satisfy the requirements of division (A)(2) of this section.39853

       (D) Each district board shall utilize and score any 39854
diagnostic assessment administered under division (A) of this 39855
section in accordance with rules established by the department. 39856
After the administration of any diagnostic assessment, each 39857
district shall provide a student's completed diagnostic 39858
assessment, the results of such assessment, and any other 39859
accompanying documents used during the administration of the 39860
assessment to the parent of that student, and shall include all 39861
such documents and information in any plan developed for the 39862
student under division (C) of section 3313.608 of the Revised 39863
Code. Each district shall submit to the department, in the manner 39864
the department prescribes, the results of the diagnostic 39865
assessments administered under this section, regardless of the 39866
type of assessment used under section 3313.608 of the Revised 39867
Code. The department may issue reports with respect to the data 39868
collected.39869

       (E) Each district board shall provide intervention services 39870
to students whose diagnostic assessments show that they are 39871
failing to make satisfactory progress toward attaining the 39872
academic standards for their grade level.39873

       Sec. 3301.0723.  (A) The independent contractor engaged by 39874
the department of education to create and maintain for school 39875
districts and community schools the student data verification 39876
codes required by division (D)(2) of section 3301.0714 of the 39877
Revised Code, upon request of the director of any state agency 39878
that administers a publicly funded program providing services to 39879
children who are younger than compulsory school age, as defined in 39880
section 3321.01 of the Revised Code, including the directors of 39881
health, job and family services, mental healthmental health and 39882
addiction services, and developmental disabilities, shall assign a 39883
data verification code to a child who is receiving such services 39884
and shall provide that code to the director. The contractor also 39885
shall provide that code to the department of education.39886

       (B) The director of a state agency that receives a child's 39887
data verification code under division (A) of this section shall 39888
use that code to submit information for that child to the 39889
department of education in accordance with section 3301.0714 of 39890
the Revised Code.39891

       (C) A public school that receives from the independent 39892
contractor the data verification code for a child assigned under 39893
division (A) of this section shall not request or assign to that 39894
child another data verification code under division (D)(2) of 39895
section 3301.0714 of the Revised Code. That school and any other 39896
public school in which the child subsequently enrolls shall use 39897
the data verification code assigned under division (A) of this 39898
section to report data relative to that student required under 39899
section 3301.0714 of the Revised Code.39900

       Sec. 3301.15.  The state board of education or its authorized 39901
representatives may inspect all institutions under the control of 39902
the department of job and family services, the department of39903
mental healthmental health and addiction services, the department 39904
of developmental disabilities, and the department of 39905
rehabilitation and correction which employ teachers, and may make 39906
a report on the teaching, discipline, and school equipment in 39907
these institutions to the director of job and family services, the 39908
director of mental healthmental health and addiction services, 39909
the director of developmental disabilities, the director of 39910
rehabilitation and correction, and the governor.39911

       Sec. 3301.80.  (A) The preparing students for education 39912
success grant program is established. Under the program, the 39913
superintendent of public instruction shall award grants to 39914
nonprofit corporations that are exempt from federal income 39915
taxation under 26 U.S.C. 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code, 39916
that provide charitable services to needy residents of this state, 39917
and that meet the following requirements:39918

       (1) The nonprofit corporation has at least two locations in 39919
the state that provide after-school programming for youth eighteen 39920
years of age or younger that holistically address areas affecting 39921
student academic success; and39922

       (2) The nonprofit corporation provides evidence that the 39923
students who served in the corporation's after-school programs 39924
have shown academic improvement.39925

       (B) A nonprofit corporation may apply for a grant under this 39926
section on the form prescribed by the superintendent.39927

       (C) The superintendent may award grants to qualified 39928
nonprofit corporations that submit an application that conveys a 39929
credible plan to use grant money for the following purposes:39930

       (1) To establish new after-school programs that will serve a 39931
high concentration of youth eighteen years of age or younger; and39932

       (2) To provide innovative, comprehensive after-school 39933
programs that improve educational outcomes and simultaneously 39934
reduce barriers to academic success through targeted programming 39935
that provides literacy achievement, homework assistance, tutoring, 39936
and high-yield learning activities, as well as character and 39937
self-esteem building that contribute to academic success and 39938
graduation completion, and a comprehensive health and wellness 39939
program.39940

       (D) The superintendent shall do anything necessary and proper 39941
to administer the grant program, including the prescription of an 39942
application form, the establishment of application deadlines, a 39943
schedule for evaluating applications received, criteria for 39944
selecting grantees, and a process to notify successful and 39945
unsuccessful applicants.39946

       (E) The preparing students for education success fund is 39947
created in the state treasury. All moneys deposited into the fund 39948
shall be disbursed as grants under division (C) of this section.39949

       (F) Each grant recipient shall submit an annual report that 39950
provides a detailed accounting of the use of the grant money to 39951
the superintendent and the general assembly.39952

       Sec. 3302.01.  As used in this chapter:39953

       (A) "Performance index score" means the average of the totals 39954
derived from calculations for each subject area of English 39955
language arts, mathematics, science, and social studies of the 39956
weighted proportion of untested students and students scoring at 39957
each level of skill described in division (A)(2) of section 39958
3301.0710 of the Revised Code on the assessments prescribed by 39959
divisions (A) and (B)(1) of that section. The department of 39960
education shall assign weights such that students who do not take 39961
an assessment receive a weight of zero and students who take an 39962
assessment receive progressively larger weights dependent upon the 39963
level of skill attained on the assessment. The department shall 39964
assign additional weights to students who have been permitted to 39965
pass over a subject in accordance with a student acceleration 39966
policy adopted under section 3324.10 of the Revised Code. If such 39967
a student attains the proficient score prescribed under division 39968
(A)(2)(c) of section 3301.0710 of the Revised Code or higher on an 39969
assessment, the department shall assign the student the weight 39970
prescribed for the next higher scoring level. If such a student 39971
attains the advanced score, prescribed under division (A)(2)(a) of 39972
section 3301.0710 of the Revised Code, on an assessment, the 39973
department shall assign to the student an additional proportional 39974
weight, as approved by the state board. For each school year that 39975
such a student's score is included in the performance index score 39976
and the student attains the proficient score on an assessment, 39977
that additional weight shall be assigned to the student on a 39978
subject-by-subject basis.39979

       Students shall be included in the "performance index score" 39980
in accordance with division (K)(2) of section 3302.03 of the 39981
Revised Code.39982

       (B) "Subgroup" means a subset of the entire student 39983
population of the state, a school district, or a school building 39984
and includes each of the following:39985

       (1) Major racial and ethnic groups;39986

       (2) Students with disabilities;39987

       (3) Economically disadvantaged students;39988

       (4) Limited English proficient students;39989

       (5) Students identified as gifted in superior cognitive 39990
ability and specific academic ability fields under Chapter 3324. 39991
of the Revised Code. For students who are gifted in specific 39992
academic ability fields, the department shall use data for those 39993
students with specific academic ability in math and reading. If 39994
any other academic field is assessed, the department shall also 39995
include data for students with specific academic ability in that 39996
field.39997

       (6) Students in the lowest quintile for achievement 39998
statewide, as determined by a method prescribed by the state board 39999
of education.40000

       (C) "No Child Left Behind Act of 2001" includes the statutes 40001
codified at 20 U.S.C. 6301 et seq. and any amendments, waivers, or 40002
both thereto, rules and regulations promulgated pursuant to those 40003
statutes, guidance documents, and any other policy directives 40004
regarding implementation of that act issued by the United States 40005
department of education.40006

       (D) "Adequate yearly progress" means a measure of annual 40007
academic performance as calculated in accordance with the "No 40008
Child Left Behind Act of 2001." 40009

       (E) "Supplemental educational services" means additional 40010
academic assistance, such as tutoring, remediation, or other 40011
educational enrichment activities, that is conducted outside of 40012
the regular school day by a provider approved by the department in 40013
accordance with the "No Child Left Behind Act of 2001." 40014

       (F) "Value-added progress dimension" means a measure of 40015
academic gain for a student or group of students over a specific 40016
period of time that is calculated by applying a statistical 40017
methodology to individual student achievement data derived from 40018
the achievement assessments prescribed by section 3301.0710 of the 40019
Revised Code. The "value-added progress dimension" shall be 40020
developed and implemented in accordance with section 3302.021 of 40021
the Revised Code.40022

       (G)(1) "Four-year adjusted cohort graduation rate" means the 40023
number of students who graduate in four years or less with a 40024
regular high school diploma divided by the number of students who 40025
form the adjusted cohort for the graduating class.40026

       (2) "Five-year adjusted cohort graduation rate" means the 40027
number of students who graduate in five years with a regular high 40028
school diploma divided by the number of students who form the 40029
adjusted cohort for the four-year graduation rate.40030

        (H) "State institution of higher education" has the same 40031
meaning as in section 3345.011 of the Revised Code.40032

       (I) "Annual measurable objectives" means a measure of student 40033
progress determined in accordance with an agreement between the 40034
department of education and the United States department of 40035
education.40036

       Sec. 3302.03.  Annually, not later than the fifteenth day of 40037
September or the preceding Friday when that day falls on a 40038
Saturday or Sunday, the department of education shall assign a 40039
letter grade for overall academic performance and for each 40040
separate performance measure for each school district, and each 40041
school building in a district, in accordance with this section. 40042
The state board shall adopt rules pursuant to Chapter 119. of the 40043
Revised Code to establish performance criteria for each letter 40044
grade and prescribe a method by which the department assigns each 40045
letter grade. For a school building to which any of the 40046
performance measures do not apply, due to grade levels served by 40047
the building, the state board shall designate the performance 40048
measures that are applicable to the building and that must be 40049
calculated separately and used to calculate the building's overall 40050
grade. The department shall issue annual report cards reflecting 40051
the performance of each school district, each building within each 40052
district, and for the state as a whole using the performance 40053
measures and letter grade system described in this section. The 40054
department shall include on the report card for each district and 40055
each building within each district the most recent two-year trend 40056
data in student achievement for each subject and each grade.40057

       (A)(1) For the 2012-2013 school year, the department shall 40058
issue grades as described in division (E) of this section for each 40059
of the following performance measures:40060

       (a) Annual measurable objectives; 40061

       (b) Performance index score for a school district or 40062
building. Grades shall be awarded as a percentage of the total 40063
possible points on the performance index system as adopted by the 40064
state board. In adopting benchmarks for assigning letter grades 40065
under division (A)(1)(b) of this section, the state board of 40066
education shall designate ninety per cent or higher for an "A," at 40067
least seventy per cent but not more than eighty per cent for a 40068
"C," and less than fifty per cent for an "F."40069

       (c) The extent to which the school district or building meets 40070
each of the applicable performance indicators established by the 40071
state board under section 3302.02 of the Revised Code and the 40072
percentage of applicable performance indicators that have been 40073
achieved. In adopting benchmarks for assigning letter grades under 40074
division (A)(1)(c) of this section, the state board shall 40075
designate ninety per cent or higher for an "A."40076

       (d) The four- and five-year adjusted cohort graduation rates.40077

        In adopting benchmarks for assigning letter grades under 40078
division (A)(1)(d), (B)(1)(d), or (C)(1)(d) of this section, the 40079
department shall designate a four-year adjusted cohort graduation 40080
rate of ninety-three per cent or higher for an "A" and a five-year 40081
cohort graduation rate of ninety-five per cent or higher for an 40082
"A."40083

       (e) The overall score under the value-added progress 40084
dimension of a school district or building, for which the 40085
department shall use up to three years of value-added data as 40086
available. The letter grade assigned for this growth measure shall 40087
be as follows:40088

       (i) A score that is at least two standard errors of measure 40089
above the mean score shall be designated as an "A."40090

       (ii) A score that is at least one standard error of measure 40091
but less than two standard errors of measure above the mean score 40092
shall be designated as a "B."40093

       (iii) A score that is less than one standard error of measure 40094
above the mean score but greater than or equal to one standard 40095
error of measure below the mean score shall be designated as a 40096
"C."40097

       (iv) A score that is not greater than one standard error of 40098
measure below the mean score but is greater than or equal to two 40099
standard errors of measure below the mean score shall be 40100
designated as a "D."40101

       (v) A score that is not greater than two standard errors of 40102
measure below the mean score shall be designated as an "F."40103

       Whenever the value-added progress dimension is used as a 40104
graded performance measure, whether as an overall measure or as a 40105
measure of separate subgroups, the grades for the measure shall be 40106
calculated in the same manner as prescribed in division (A)(1)(e) 40107
of this section.40108

       (f) The value-added progress dimension score for a school 40109
district or building disaggregated for each of the following 40110
subgroups: students identified as gifted, students with 40111
disabilities, and students whose performance places them in the 40112
lowest quintile for achievement on a statewide basis. Each 40113
subgroup shall be a separate graded measure.40114

       (2) Not later than April 30, 2013, the state board of 40115
education shall adopt a resolution describing the performance 40116
measures, benchmarks, and grading system for the 2012-2013 school 40117
year and, not later than June 30, 2013, shall adopt rules in 40118
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code that prescribe 40119
the methods by which the performance measures under division 40120
(A)(1) of this section shall be assessed and assigned a letter 40121
grade, including performance benchmarks for each letter grade.40122

       At least forty-five days prior to the state board's adoption 40123
of rules to prescribe the methods by which the performance 40124
measures under division (A)(1) of this section shall be assessed 40125
and assigned a letter grade, the department shall conduct a public 40126
presentation before the standing committees of the house of 40127
representatives and the senate that consider education legislation 40128
describing such methods, including performance benchmarks.40129

       (3) There shall not be an overall letter grade for a school 40130
district or building for the 2012-2013 school year.40131

       (B)(1) For the 2013-2014 school year, the department shall 40132
issue grades as described in division (E) of this section for each 40133
of the following performance measures:40134

       (a) Annual measurable objectives; 40135

       (b) Performance index score for a school district or 40136
building. Grades shall be awarded as a percentage of the total 40137
possible points on the performance index system as created by the 40138
department. In adopting benchmarks for assigning letter grades 40139
under division (B)(1)(b) of this section, the state board shall 40140
designate ninety per cent or higher for an "A," at least seventy 40141
per cent but not more than eighty per cent for a "C," and less 40142
than fifty per cent for an "F."40143

       (c) The extent to which the school district or building meets 40144
each of the applicable performance indicators established by the 40145
state board under section 3302.03 of the Revised Code and the 40146
percentage of applicable performance indicators that have been 40147
achieved. In adopting benchmarks for assigning letter grades under 40148
division (B)(1)(c) of this section, the state board shall 40149
designate ninety per cent or higher for an "A."40150

       (d) The four- and five-year adjusted cohort graduation rates;40151

       (e) The overall score under the value-added progress 40152
dimension of a school district or building, for which the 40153
department shall use up to three years of value-added data as 40154
available.40155

       (f) The value-added progress dimension score for a school 40156
district or building disaggregated for each of the following 40157
subgroups: students identified as gifted in superior cognitive 40158
ability and specific academic ability fields under Chapter 3324. 40159
of the Revised Code, students with disabilities, and students 40160
whose performance places them in the lowest quintile for 40161
achievement on a statewide basis. Each subgroup shall be a 40162
separate graded measure.40163

       (g) Whether a school district or building is making progress 40164
in improving literacy in grades kindergarten through three, as 40165
determined using a method prescribed by the state board. The state 40166
board shall adopt rules to prescribe benchmarks and standards for 40167
assigning grades to districts and buildings for purposes of 40168
division (B)(1)(j) of this section. In adopting benchmarks for 40169
assigning letter grades under divisions (B)(1)(g) and (C)(1)(g) of 40170
this section, the state board shall determine progress made based 40171
on the reduction in the percentage of students scoring below grade 40172
level, or below proficient, compared from year to year on the 40173
English language arts diagnostic assessments administered under 40174
section 3301.0715 of the Revised Code and the third grade English 40175
language arts assessment under section 3301.0710 of the Revised 40176
Code, as applicable. The state board shall designate for a "C" 40177
grade a value that is not lower than the statewide average value 40178
for this measure. No grade shall be issued under divisions 40179
(B)(1)(g) and (C)(1)(j) of this section for a district or building 40180
in which less than five per cent of students have scored below 40181
grade level on the diagnostic assessment administered to students 40182
in kindergarten under division (B)(1) of section 3313.608 of the 40183
Revised Code.40184

       (2) In addition to the graded measures in division (B)(1) of 40185
this section, the department shall include on a school district's 40186
or building's report card all of the following without an assigned 40187
letter grade:40188

       (a) The percentage of students enrolled in a district or 40189
building participating in advanced placement classes and the 40190
percentage of those students who received a score of three or 40191
better on advanced placement examinations;40192

        (b) The number of a district's or building's students who 40193
have earned at least three college credits through dual enrollment 40194
programs, such as the post-secondary enrollment options program 40195
under Chapter 3365. of the Revised Code and state-approved 40196
career-technical courses offered through dual enrollment or 40197
statewide articulation, that appear on a student's transcript or 40198
other official document, either of which is issued by the 40199
institution of higher education from which the student earned the 40200
college credit. The credits earned that are reported under 40201
divisions (B)(2)(b) and (C)(2)(c) of this section shall not 40202
include any that are remedial or developmental and shall include 40203
those that count toward the curriculum requirements established 40204
for completion of a degree.40205

       (c) The percentage of students enrolled in a district or 40206
building who have taken a national standardized test used for 40207
college admission determinations and the percentage of those 40208
students who are determined to be remediation-free in accordance 40209
with standards adopted under division (F) of section 3345.061 of 40210
the Revised Code;40211

        (d) The percentage of the district's or the building's 40212
students who receive industry credentials. The state board shall 40213
adopt criteria for acceptable industry credentials.40214

        (e) The percentage of students enrolled in a district or 40215
building who are participating in an international baccalaureate 40216
program and the percentage of those students who receive a score 40217
of four or better on the international baccalaureate examinations.40218

        (f) The percentage of the district's or building's students 40219
who receive an honors diploma under division (B) of section 40220
3313.61 of the Revised Code.40221

       (3) Not later than December 31, 2013, the state board shall 40222
adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code 40223
that prescribe the methods by which the performance measures under 40224
divisions (B)(1)(f) and (B)(1)(g) of this section will be assessed 40225
and assigned a letter grade, including performance benchmarks for 40226
each grade.40227

       At least forty-five days prior to the state board's adoption 40228
of rules to prescribe the methods by which the performance 40229
measures under division (B)(1) of this section shall be assessed 40230
and assigned a letter grade, the department shall conduct a public 40231
presentation before the standing committees of the house of 40232
representatives and the senate that consider education legislation 40233
describing such methods, including performance benchmarks.40234

       (4) There shall not be an overall letter grade for a school 40235
district or building for the 2013-2014 school year.40236

       (C)(1) For the 2014-2015 school year and each school year 40237
thereafter, the department shall issue grades as described in 40238
division (E) of this section for each of the following performance 40239
measures and an overall letter grade based on an aggregate of 40240
those measures:40241

       (a) Annual measurable objectives; 40242

       (b) Performance index score for a school district or 40243
building. Grades shall be awarded as a percentage of the total 40244
possible points on the performance index system as created by the 40245
department. In adopting benchmarks for assigning letter grades 40246
under division (C)(1)(b) of this section, the state board shall 40247
designate ninety per cent or higher for an "A," at least seventy 40248
per cent but not more than eighty per cent for a "C," and less 40249
than fifty per cent for an "F."40250

       (c) The extent to which the school district or building meets 40251
each of the applicable performance indicators established by the 40252
state board under section 3302.03 of the Revised Code and the 40253
percentage of applicable performance indicators that have been 40254
achieved. In adopting benchmarks for assigning letter grades under 40255
division (C)(1)(c) of this section, the state board shall 40256
designate ninety per cent or higher for an "A."40257

       (d) The four- and five-year adjusted cohort graduation rates;40258

       (e) The overall score under the value-added progress 40259
dimension, or another measure of student academic progress if 40260
adopted by the state board, of a school district or building, for 40261
which the department shall use up to three years of value-added 40262
data as available.40263

       In adopting benchmarks for assigning letter grades for 40264
overall score on value-added progress dimension under division 40265
(C)(1)(e) of this section, the state board shall prohibit the 40266
assigning of a grade of "A" for that measure unless the district's 40267
or building's grade assigned for value-added progress dimension 40268
for all subgroups under division (C)(1)(i) of this section is a 40269
"B" or higher.40270

       For the metric prescribed by division (C)(1)(e) of this 40271
section, the state board may adopt a student academic progress 40272
measure to be used instead of the value-added progress dimension. 40273
If the state board adopts such a measure, it also shall prescribe 40274
a method for assigning letter grades for the new measure that is 40275
comparable to the method prescribed in division (A)(1)(e) of this 40276
section.40277

       (f) The value-added progress dimension score of a school 40278
district or building disaggregated for each of the following 40279
subgroups: students identified as gifted in superior cognitive 40280
ability and specific academic ability fields under Chapter 3324. 40281
of the Revised Code, students with disabilities, and students 40282
whose performance places them in the lowest quintile for 40283
achievement on a statewide basis, as determined by a method 40284
prescribed by the state board. Each subgroup shall be a separate 40285
graded measure.40286

       The state board may adopt student academic progress measures 40287
to be used instead of the value-added progress dimension. If the 40288
state board adopts such measures, it also shall prescribe a method 40289
for assigning letter grades for the new measures that is 40290
comparable to the method prescribed in division (A)(1)(e) of this 40291
section.40292

       (g) Whether a school district or building is making progress 40293
in improving literacy in grades kindergarten through three, as 40294
determined using a method prescribed by the state board. The state 40295
board shall adopt rules to prescribe benchmarks and standards for 40296
assigning grades to a district or building for purposes of 40297
division (C)(1)(j) of this section. The state board shall 40298
designate for a "C" grade a value that is not lower than the 40299
statewide average value for this measure. No grade shall be issued 40300
under division (C)(1)(g) of this section for a district or 40301
building in which less than five per cent of students have scored 40302
below grade level on the kindergarten diagnostic assessment under 40303
division (B)(1) of section 3313.608 of the Revised Code.40304

       (2) In addition to the graded measures in division (C)(1) of 40305
this section, the department shall include on a school district's 40306
or building's report card all of the following without an assigned 40307
letter grade:40308

        (a) The percentage of students enrolled in a district or 40309
building who have taken a national standardized test used for 40310
college admission determinations and the percentage of those 40311
students who are determined to be remediation-free in accordance 40312
with the standards adopted under division (F) of section 3345.061 40313
of the Revised Code;40314

        (b) The percentage of students enrolled in a district or 40315
building participating in advanced placement classes and the 40316
percentage of those students who received a score of three or 40317
better on advanced placement examinations;40318

        (c) The number of a district's or building's students who 40319
have earned at least three college credits through dual enrollment 40320
programs, such as the post-secondary enrollment options program 40321
under Chapter 3365. of the Revised Code and state-approved 40322
career-technical courses offered through dual enrollment or 40323
statewide articulation, that appear on a student's transcript or 40324
other official document, either of which is issued by the 40325
institution of higher education from which the student earned the 40326
college credit. The credits earned that are reported under 40327
divisions (B)(2)(b) and (C)(2)(c) of this section shall not 40328
include any that are remedial or developmental and shall include 40329
those that count toward the curriculum requirements established 40330
for completion of a degree.40331

        (d) The percentage of the district's or building's students 40332
who receive an honor's diploma under division (B) of section 40333
3313.61 of the Revised Code;40334

        (e) The percentage of the district's or building's students 40335
who receive industry credentials;40336

        (f) The percentage of students enrolled in a district or 40337
building who are participating in an international baccalaureate 40338
program and the percentage of those students who receive a score 40339
of four or better on the international baccalaureate examinations;40340

        (g) The results of the college and career-ready assessments 40341
administered under division (B)(1) of section 3301.0712 of the 40342
Revised Code.40343

        (3) The state board shall adopt rules pursuant to Chapter 40344
119. of the Revised Code that establish a method to assign an 40345
overall grade for a school district or school building for the 40346
2014-2015 school year and each school year thereafter. The rules 40347
shall group the performance measures in divisions (C)(1) and (2) 40348
of this section into the following components:40349

        (a) Gap closing, which shall include the performance measure 40350
in division (C)(1)(a) of this section;40351

        (b) Achievement, which shall include the performance measures 40352
in divisions (C)(1)(b) and (c) of this section;40353

        (c) Progress, which shall include the performance measures in 40354
divisions (C)(1)(e) and (i) of this section;40355

        (d) Graduation, which shall include the performance measure 40356
in division (C)(1)(d) of this section;40357

        (e) Kindergarten through third-grade literacy, which shall 40358
include the performance measure in division (C)(1)(k) of this 40359
section;40360

        (f) Prepared for success, which shall include the performance 40361
measures in divisions (C)(2)(a), (b), (c), (d), (e), and (f) of 40362
this section. The state board shall develop a method to determine 40363
a grade for the component in division (C)(3)(f) of this section 40364
using the performance measures in divisions (C)(2)(a), (b), (c), 40365
(d), (e), and (f) of this section. When available, the state board 40366
may incorporate the performance measure under division (C)(2)(g) 40367
of this section into the component under division (C)(3)(f) of 40368
this section. When determining the overall grade for the prepared 40369
for success component prescribed by division (C)(3)(f) of this 40370
section, no individual student shall be counted in more than one 40371
performance measure. However, if a student qualifies for more than 40372
one performance measure in the component, the state board may, in 40373
its method to determine a grade for the component, specify an 40374
additional weight for such a student that is not greater than or 40375
equal to 1.0. In determining the overall score under division 40376
(C)(3)(f) of this section, the state board shall ensure that the 40377
pool of students included in the performance measures aggregated 40378
under that division are all of the students included in the four- 40379
and five-year adjusted graduation cohort.40380

        In the rules adopted under division (C)(3) of this section, 40381
the state board shall adopt a method for determining a grade for 40382
each component in divisions (C)(3)(a) to (f) of this section. The 40383
state board also shall establish a method to assign an overall 40384
grade of "A," "B," "C," "D," or "F" using the grades assigned for 40385
each component. The method the state board adopts for assigning an 40386
overall grade shall give equal weight to the components in 40387
divisions (C)(3)(b) and (c) of this section.40388

       At least forty-five days prior to the state board's adoption 40389
of rules to prescribe the methods for calculating the overall 40390
grade for the report card, as required by this division, the 40391
department shall conduct a public presentation before the standing 40392
committees of the house of representatives and the senate that 40393
consider education legislation describing the format for the 40394
report card, weights that will be assigned to the components of 40395
the overall grade, and the method for calculating the overall 40396
grade.40397

       (D) Not later than July 1, 2015, the state board shall 40398
develop a measure of student academic progress for high school 40399
students. Beginning with the report card for the 2015-2016 school 40400
year, each school district and applicable school building shall be 40401
assigned a separate letter grade for this measure and the 40402
district's or building's grade for that measure shall be included 40403
in determining the district's or building's overall letter grade. 40404
This measure shall be included within the measure prescribed in 40405
division (C)(2)(c) of this section in the calculation for the 40406
overall letter grade.40407

       (E) The letter grades assigned to a school district or 40408
building under this section shall be as follows:40409

       (1) "A" for a district or school making excellent progress;40410

       (2) "B" for a district or school making above average 40411
progress;40412

       (3) "C" for a district or school making average progress;40413

       (4) "D" for a district or school making below average 40414
progress;40415

       (5) "F" for a district or school failing to meet minimum 40416
progress.40417

        (F) When reporting data on student achievement and progress, 40418
the department shall disaggregate that data according to the 40419
following categories: 40420

       (1) Performance of students by grade-level; 40421

       (2) Performance of students by race and ethnic group; 40422

       (3) Performance of students by gender; 40423

       (4) Performance of students grouped by those who have been 40424
enrolled in a district or school for three or more years; 40425

       (5) Performance of students grouped by those who have been 40426
enrolled in a district or school for more than one year and less 40427
than three years; 40428

       (6) Performance of students grouped by those who have been 40429
enrolled in a district or school for one year or less; 40430

       (7) Performance of students grouped by those who are 40431
economically disadvantaged; 40432

       (8) Performance of students grouped by those who are enrolled 40433
in a conversion community school established under Chapter 3314. 40434
of the Revised Code; 40435

       (9) Performance of students grouped by those who are 40436
classified as limited English proficient; 40437

       (10) Performance of students grouped by those who have 40438
disabilities; 40439

       (11) Performance of students grouped by those who are 40440
classified as migrants; 40441

       (12) Performance of students grouped by those who are 40442
identified as gifted in superior cognitive ability and the 40443
specific academic ability fields of reading and math pursuant to 40444
Chapter 3324. of the Revised Code. In disaggregating specific 40445
academic ability fields for gifted students, the department shall 40446
use data for those students with specific academic ability in math 40447
and reading. If any other academic field is assessed, the 40448
department shall also include data for students with specific 40449
academic ability in that field as well.40450

       (13) Performance of students grouped by those who perform in 40451
the lowest quintile for achievement on a statewide basis, as 40452
determined by a method prescribed by the state board. 40453

       The department may disaggregate data on student performance 40454
according to other categories that the department determines are 40455
appropriate. To the extent possible, the department shall 40456
disaggregate data on student performance according to any 40457
combinations of two or more of the categories listed in divisions 40458
(F)(1) to (13) of this section that it deems relevant. 40459

       In reporting data pursuant to division (F) of this section, 40460
the department shall not include in the report cards any data 40461
statistical in nature that is statistically unreliable or that 40462
could result in the identification of individual students. For 40463
this purpose, the department shall not report student performance 40464
data for any group identified in division (F) of this section that 40465
contains less than ten students. If the department does not report 40466
student performance data for a group because it contains less than 40467
ten students, the department shall indicate on the report card 40468
that is why data was not reported.40469

       (G) The department may include with the report cards any 40470
additional education and fiscal performance data it deems 40471
valuable. 40472

       (H) The department shall include on each report card a list 40473
of additional information collected by the department that is 40474
available regarding the district or building for which the report 40475
card is issued. When available, such additional information shall 40476
include student mobility data disaggregated by race and 40477
socioeconomic status, college enrollment data, and the reports 40478
prepared under section 3302.031 of the Revised Code. 40479

       The department shall maintain a site on the world wide web. 40480
The report card shall include the address of the site and shall 40481
specify that such additional information is available to the 40482
public at that site. The department shall also provide a copy of 40483
each item on the list to the superintendent of each school 40484
district. The district superintendent shall provide a copy of any 40485
item on the list to anyone who requests it. 40486

       (I) Division (I) of this section does not apply to conversion 40487
community schools that primarily enroll students between sixteen 40488
and twenty-two years of age who dropped out of high school or are 40489
at risk of dropping out of high school due to poor attendance, 40490
disciplinary problems, or suspensions. 40491

       (1) For any district that sponsors a conversion community 40492
school under Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code, the department 40493
shall combine data regarding the academic performance of students 40494
enrolled in the community school with comparable data from the 40495
schools of the district for the purpose of determining the 40496
performance of the district as a whole on the report card issued 40497
for the district under this section or section 3302.033 of the 40498
Revised Code. 40499

       (2) Any district that leases a building to a community school 40500
located in the district or that enters into an agreement with a 40501
community school located in the district whereby the district and 40502
the school endorse each other's programs may elect to have data 40503
regarding the academic performance of students enrolled in the 40504
community school combined with comparable data from the schools of 40505
the district for the purpose of determining the performance of the 40506
district as a whole on the district report card. Any district that 40507
so elects shall annually file a copy of the lease or agreement 40508
with the department. 40509

       (3) Any municipal school district, as defined in section 40510
3311.71 of the Revised Code, that sponsors a community school 40511
located within the district's territory, or that enters into an 40512
agreement with a community school located within the district's 40513
territory whereby the district and the community school endorse 40514
each other's programs, may exercise either or both of the 40515
following elections:40516

        (a) To have data regarding the academic performance of 40517
students enrolled in that community school combined with 40518
comparable data from the schools of the district for the purpose 40519
of determining the performance of the district as a whole on the 40520
district's report card;40521

        (b) To have the number of students attending that community 40522
school noted separately on the district's report card.40523

       The election authorized under division (I)(3)(a) of this 40524
section is subject to approval by the governing authority of the 40525
community school.40526

       Any municipal school district that exercises an election to 40527
combine or include data under division (I)(3) of this section, by 40528
the first day of October of each year, shall file with the 40529
department documentation indicating eligibility for that election, 40530
as required by the department.40531

       (J) The department shall include on each report card the 40532
percentage of teachers in the district or building who are highly 40533
qualified, as defined by the "No Child Left Behind Act of 2001," 40534
and a comparison of that percentage with the percentages of such 40535
teachers in similar districts and buildings. 40536

       (K)(1) In calculating English language arts, mathematics, 40537
social studies, or science assessment passage rates used to 40538
determine school district or building performance under this 40539
section, the department shall include all students taking an 40540
assessment with accommodation or to whom an alternate assessment 40541
is administered pursuant to division (C)(1) or (3) of section 40542
3301.0711 of the Revised Code. 40543

        (2) In calculating performance index scores, rates of 40544
achievement on the performance indicators established by the state 40545
board under section 3302.02 of the Revised Code, and annual 40546
measurable objectives for determining adequate yearly progress for 40547
school districts and buildings under this section, the department 40548
shall do all of the following: 40549

       (a) Include for each district or building only those students 40550
who are included in the ADM certified for the first full school 40551
week of October and are continuously enrolled in the district or 40552
building through the time of the spring administration of any 40553
assessment prescribed by division (A)(1) or (B)(1) of section 40554
3301.0710 of the Revised Code that is administered to the 40555
student's grade level; 40556

       (b) Include cumulative totals from both the fall and spring 40557
administrations of the third grade English language arts 40558
achievement assessment; 40559

       (c) Except as required by the "No Child Left Behind Act of 40560
2001," exclude for each district or building any limited English 40561
proficient student who has been enrolled in United States schools 40562
for less than one full school year.40563

       (L) Beginning with the 2015-2016 school year and at least 40564
once every three years thereafter, the state board of education 40565
shall review and may adjust the benchmarks for assigning letter 40566
grades to the performance measures and components prescribed under 40567
divisions (C)(3) and (D) of this section.40568

       Sec. 3302.22.  (A) The governor's effective and efficient 40569
schools recognition program is hereby created. Each year, the 40570
governor shall recognize, in a manner deemed appropriate by the 40571
governor, the top ten per cent of all public schools in this 40572
state, including schools of city, exempted village, and local 40573
school districts, or joint vocational school districts, community 40574
schools established under Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code, and 40575
STEM schools established under Chapter 3326. of the Revised Code.40576

       (B) The top ten per cent of schools shall be determined by 40577
the department of education according to standards established by 40578
the department, in consultation with the governor's office of 21st 40579
century education. The standards for recognition for each type of 40580
school may vary depending upon the unique characteristics of that 40581
type of school. The standards shall include, but need not be 40582
limited to, both of the following, provided that sufficient data 40583
is available for each school:40584

       (1) Student performance, as determined by factors including40585
that may include, but not be limited to, performance indicators 40586
under section 3302.02 of the Revised Code, report cards issued 40587
under section 3302.03 of the Revised Code, performance index score 40588
rankings under section 3302.21 of the Revised Code, and any other 40589
statewide or national assessment or student performance 40590
recognition program the department selects;40591

       (2) Fiscal performance, includingwhich may include40592
cost-effective measures taken by the school.40593

       (C) If applicable, the standards under divisions (B)(1) and 40594
(2) of this section may be applied at the school building or 40595
district level, depending upon the quality and availability of 40596
data.40597

       Sec. 3302.26. (A) As used in this section:40598

       (1) "Expenditure per equivalent pupils" is the total 40599
operating expenditures of a school district divided by the measure 40600
of equivalent pupils.40601

       (2) "Measure of equivalent pupils" is the total number of 40602
students in a school district adjusted for the relative 40603
differences in costs associated with the unique characteristics 40604
and needs of each category of pupil.40605

       (B) The department of education shall create a performance 40606
management section on the department's public web site. The 40607
performance management section shall include information on 40608
academic and financial performance metrics for each school 40609
district to assist schools and districts in providing an effective 40610
and efficient delivery of educational services. The section shall 40611
include a graph that illustrates the relationship between a 40612
district's academic performance, as measured by the performance 40613
index score, and its expenditure per equivalent pupils as compared 40614
to similar districts. The section shall include statistics of 40615
academic and financial performance measures for each school 40616
district to allow for a comparison and benchmarking between 40617
districts.40618

       (C) The department may contract with an independent 40619
organization to develop and host the performance management 40620
section of its web site.40621

       Sec. 3304.231.  There is hereby created a brain injury 40622
advisory committee, which shall advise the administrator of the 40623
rehabilitation services commission and the brain injury program 40624
with regard to unmet needs of survivors of brain injury, 40625
development of programs for survivors and their families, 40626
establishment of training programs for health care professionals, 40627
and any other matter within the province of the brain injury 40628
program. The committee shall consist of not fewer than twenty40629
nineteen and not more than twenty-twotwenty-one members as 40630
follows:40631

       (A) Not fewer than ten and not more than twelve members 40632
appointed by the administrator of the rehabilitation services 40633
commission, including all of the following: a survivor of brain 40634
injury, a relative of a survivor of brain injury, a licensed 40635
physician recommended by the Ohio chapter of the American college 40636
of emergency physicians, a licensed physician recommended by the 40637
Ohio state medical association, one other health care 40638
professional, a rehabilitation professional, an individual who 40639
represents the brain injury association of Ohio, and not fewer 40640
than three nor more than five individuals who shall represent the 40641
public;40642

       (B) The directors of the departments of health, alcohol and 40643
drug addiction servicesmental health and drug addiction services, 40644
developmental disabilities, mental health, job and family 40645
services, aging, and public safety; the medicaid director; the 40646
administrator of workers' compensation; the superintendent of 40647
public instruction; and the administrator of the rehabilitation 40648
services commission. Any of the officials specified in this 40649
division may designate an individual to serve in the official's 40650
place as a member of the committee.40651

        Terms of office of the appointed members shall be two years. 40652
Members may be reappointed. Vacancies shall be filled in the 40653
manner provided for original appointments. Any member appointed to 40654
fill a vacancy occurring prior to the expiration date of the term 40655
for which the member's predecessor was appointed shall hold office 40656
as a member for the remainder of that term.40657

       Members of the committee shall serve without compensation, 40658
but shall be reimbursed for actual and necessary expenses incurred 40659
in the performance of their duties.40660

       Sec. 3305.03.  (A) The Ohio board of regents shall designate 40661
the entities that are eligible to provide investment options under 40662
alternative retirement plans maintained by public institutions of 40663
higher education. The board shall accept and review applications 40664
from entities seeking designation as a vendor. The board shall not 40665
designate an entity as a vendor unless the entity meets the 40666
requirements described in division (B) of this section.40667

       (B) To be eligible for designation as a vendor, an entity 40668
must meet both of the following requirements:40669

       (1) The entity must be authorized to conduct business in this 40670
state with regard to the investment options to be offered under an 40671
alternative retirement plan maintained by a public institution of 40672
higher education.40673

       (2) The entity must offermeet one of the following 40674
requirements:40675

       (a) Have provided investment options for not less than ten 40676
years under alternative retirement plans maintained by public 40677
institutions of higher education in this state;40678

       (b) Offer the same or similar investment options under 40679
alternative retirement plans, optional retirement plans, or 40680
similar types of plans with respect to which all of the following 40681
apply:40682

       (a)(i) The plans are defined contribution plans that are 40683
qualified plans under Internal Revenue Code 401(a) or 403(b).40684

       (b)(ii) The plans are maintained by institutions of higher 40685
education in at least ten other states.40686

       (c)(iii) The plans are established as primary retirement 40687
plans that are alternatives to or a component of the applicable 40688
state retirement system.40689

       (C) In determining whether to designate an entity as a 40690
vendor, the board of regents shall identify, consider, and 40691
evaluate all of the following:40692

       (1) The experience of the entity in providing in this state 40693
or other states investment options under alternative retirement 40694
plans, optional retirement plans, or similar types of plans that 40695
meet the requirements of division (B)(2)(a) or (b) of this 40696
section, as applicable;40697

       (2) The potential effectiveness of the entity in recruiting 40698
eligible employees to select that entity for purposes of 40699
participating in an alternative retirement plan and in retaining 40700
those employees' accounts;40701

       (3) Whether the entity intends to offer a broad range of 40702
investment options to the electing employees;40703

       (4) The suitability of the investment options to the needs 40704
and interests of the electing employees and their beneficiaries;40705

       (5) The capability of the entity to offer sufficient 40706
information to the electing employees and their beneficiaries to 40707
make informed decisions with regard to investment options offered 40708
by the entity;40709

       (6) The capability of the entity to perform in a manner that 40710
is in the best interests of the electing employees and their 40711
beneficiaries;40712

       (7) The fees and expenses associated with the entity's 40713
investment options and the manner in which the entity intends to 40714
disclose those fees and expenses;40715

       (8) The rights and benefits to be provided under the 40716
investment options;40717

       (9) The capability of the entity to provide the rights and 40718
benefits under the investment options;40719

       (10) Comments submitted by a public institution of higher 40720
education under section 3305.031 of the Revised Code;40721

       (11) Any other matters the board of regents considers 40722
relevant.40723

       (D) The board of regents shall conduct periodic reviews of 40724
each entity designated as a vendor and the investment options 40725
being offered to ensure that the requirements and purposes of this 40726
chapter are being met. The reviews of a vendor shall occur not 40727
less frequently than once every three years.40728

       If it finds that the vendor is not in compliance with the 40729
requirements of this chapter or the vendor is not satisfactorily 40730
meeting the purposes of this chapter, the board shall rescind the 40731
vendor's designation.40732

       (E) Notwithstanding sections 125.01 to 125.11 of the Revised 40733
Code, designation of a vendor or the execution of any agreement 40734
under this chapter is not subject to competitive bidding under 40735
those sections.40736

       Sec. 3307.51.  (A) The state teachers retirement board shall 40737
have prepared annually by or under the supervision of an actuary 40738
an actuarial valuation of the pension assets, liabilities, and 40739
funding requirements of the STRS defined benefit plan. The actuary 40740
shall complete the valuation in accordance with actuarial 40741
standards of practice promulgated by the actuarial standards board 40742
of the American academy of actuaries and prepare a report of the 40743
valuation. The report shall include all of the following:40744

       (1) A summary of the benefit provisions evaluated;40745

       (2) A summary of the census data and financial information 40746
used in the valuation;40747

       (3) A description of the actuarial assumptions, actuarial 40748
cost method, and asset valuation method used in the valuation, 40749
including a statement of the assumed rate of payroll growth and 40750
assumed rate of growth or decline in the number of members 40751
contributing to the retirement system;40752

       (4) A summary of findings that includes a statement of the 40753
actuarial accrued pension liabilities and unfunded actuarial 40754
accrued pension liabilities;40755

       (5) A schedule showing the effect of any changes in the 40756
benefit provisions, actuarial assumptions, or cost methods since 40757
the last annual actuarial valuation;40758

       (6) A statement of whether contributions to the retirement 40759
system are expected to be sufficient to satisfy the funding 40760
objectives established by the board.40761

       The board shall submit the report to the Ohio retirement 40762
study council, the director of budget and management, and the 40763
standing committees of the house of representatives and the senate 40764
with primary responsibility for retirement legislation immediately 40765
upon its availability and not later than the first day of January 40766
following the year for which the valuation was made.40767

       (B) At such times as the state teachers retirement board 40768
determines, and at least once in each quinquennial period, the 40769
board shall have prepared by or under the supervision of an 40770
actuary an actuarial investigation of the mortality, service, and 40771
other experience of the members, retirants, and beneficiaries of 40772
the system, and other system retirants as defined in section 40773
3307.35 of the Revised Code to update the actuarial assumptions 40774
used in the actuarial valuation required by division (A) of this 40775
section. The actuary shall prepare a report of the actuarial 40776
investigation. The report shall be prepared and any recommended 40777
changes in actuarial assumptions shall be made in accordance with 40778
the actuarial standards of practice promulgated by the actuarial 40779
standards board of the American academy of actuaries. The report 40780
shall include all of the following:40781

       (1) A summary of relevant decrement and economic assumption 40782
experience observed over the period of the investigation;40783

       (2) Recommended changes in actuarial assumptions to be used 40784
in subsequent actuarial valuations required by division (A) of 40785
this section;40786

       (3) A measurement of the financial effect of the recommended 40787
changes in actuarial assumptions.40788

       The board shall submit the report to the Ohio retirement 40789
study council and the standing committees of the house of 40790
representatives and the senate with primary responsibility for 40791
retirement legislation not later than the first day of May 40792
following the last fiscal year of the period the report covers.40793

       (C) The board may at any time request the actuary to make any 40794
other studies or actuarial valuations to determine the adequacy of 40795
the normal and deficiency rates of contribution provided by 40796
section 3307.28 of the Revised Code, and those rates may be 40797
adjusted by the board, as recommended by the actuary, effective as 40798
of the first of any year thereafter.40799

       (D) The board shall have prepared by or under the supervision 40800
of an actuary an actuarial analysis of any introduced legislation 40801
expected to have a measurable financial impact on the retirement 40802
system. The actuarial analysis shall be completed in accordance 40803
with the actuarial standards of practice promulgated by the 40804
actuarial standards board of the American academy of actuaries. 40805
The actuary shall prepare a report of the actuarial analysis, 40806
which shall include all of the following:40807

       (1) A summary of the statutory changes that are being 40808
evaluated;40809

       (2) A description of or reference to the actuarial 40810
assumptions and actuarial cost method used in the report;40811

       (3) A description of the participant group or groups included 40812
in the report;40813

       (4) A statement of the financial impact of the legislation, 40814
including the resulting increase, if any, in the employer normal 40815
cost percentage; the increase, if any, in actuarial accrued 40816
liabilities; and the per cent of payroll that would be required to 40817
amortize the increase in actuarial accrued liabilities as a level 40818
per cent of covered payroll for all active members over a period 40819
not to exceed thirty years;40820

       (5) A statement of whether the scheduled contributions to the 40821
system after the proposed change is enacted are expected to be 40822
sufficient to satisfy the funding objectives established by the 40823
board.40824

       Not later than sixty days from the date of introduction of 40825
the legislation, the board shall submit a copy of the actuarial 40826
analysis to the legislative service commission, the standing 40827
committees of the house of representatives and the senate with 40828
primary responsibility for retirement legislation, and the Ohio 40829
retirement study council.40830

       (E) The board shall have prepared annually a report giving a 40831
full accounting of the revenues and costs relating to the 40832
provision of benefits under section 3307.39 of the Revised Code. 40833
The report shall be made as of June 30, 1997, and the thirtieth 40834
day of June of each year thereafter. The report shall include the 40835
following:40836

       (1) A description of the statutory authority for the benefits 40837
provided;40838

       (2) A summary of the benefits;40839

       (3) A summary of the eligibility requirements for the 40840
benefits;40841

       (4) A statement of the number of participants eligible for 40842
the benefits;40843

       (5) A description of the accounting, asset valuation, and 40844
funding method used to provide the benefits;40845

       (6) A statement of the net assets available for the 40846
provisions of benefits as of the last day of the fiscal year;40847

       (7) A statement of any changes in the net assets available 40848
for the provision of benefits, including participant and employer 40849
contributions, net investment income, administrative expenses, and 40850
benefits provided to participants, as of the last day of the 40851
fiscal year;40852

       (8) For the last six consecutive fiscal years, a schedule of 40853
the net assets available for the benefits, the annual cost of 40854
benefits, administrative expenses incurred, and annual employer 40855
contributions allocated for the provision of benefits;40856

       (9) A description of any significant changes that affect the 40857
comparability of the report required under this division;40858

       (10) A statement of the amount paid under division (B) of 40859
section 3307.39 of the Revised Code.40860

       The board shall submit the report to the Ohio retirement 40861
study council, the director of budget and management, and the 40862
standing committees of the house of representatives and the senate 40863
with primary responsibility for retirement legislation immediately 40864
upon its availability and not later than the thirty-first day of 40865
December following the year for which the report was made.40866

       Sec. 3309.21.  (A) The school employees retirement board 40867
shall have prepared annually by or under the supervision of an 40868
actuary an actuarial valuation of the pension assets, liabilities, 40869
and funding requirements of the school employees retirement system 40870
as established pursuant to this chapter. The actuary shall 40871
complete the valuation in accordance with actuarial standards of 40872
practice promulgated by the actuarial standards board of the 40873
American academy of actuaries and prepare a report of the 40874
valuation. The report shall include all of the following:40875

       (1) A summary of the benefit provisions evaluated;40876

       (2) A summary of the census data and financial information 40877
used in the valuation;40878

       (3) A description of the actuarial assumptions, actuarial 40879
cost method, and asset valuation method used in the valuation, 40880
including a statement of the assumed rate of payroll growth and 40881
assumed rate of growth or decline in the number of members 40882
contributing to the retirement system;40883

       (4) A summary of findings that includes a statement of the 40884
actuarial accrued pension liabilities and unfunded actuarial 40885
accrued pension liabilities;40886

       (5) A schedule showing the effect of any changes in the 40887
benefit provisions, actuarial assumptions, or cost methods since 40888
the last annual actuarial valuation;40889

       (6) A statement of whether contributions to the retirement 40890
system are expected to be sufficient to satisfy the funding 40891
objectives established by the board.40892

       The board shall submit the report to the Ohio retirement 40893
study council, the director of budget and management, and the 40894
standing committees of the house of representatives and the senate 40895
with primary responsibility for retirement legislation immediately 40896
upon its availability and not later than the first day of May 40897
following the year for which the valuation was made.40898

       (B) At such times as the school employees retirement board 40899
determines, and at least once in each quinquennial period, the 40900
board shall have prepared by or under the supervision of an 40901
actuary an actuarial investigation of the mortality, service, and 40902
other experience of the members, retirants, and beneficiaries of 40903
the retirement system, and SERS retirants and other system 40904
retirants as defined in section 3309.341 of the Revised Code to 40905
update the actuarial assumptions used in the actuarial valuation 40906
required by division (A) of this section. The actuary shall 40907
prepare a report of the actuarial investigation. The report shall 40908
be prepared and any recommended changes in actuarial assumptions 40909
shall be made in accordance with the actuarial standards of 40910
practice promulgated by the actuarial standards board of the 40911
American academy of actuaries. The report shall include all of the 40912
following:40913

       (1) A summary of relevant decrement and economic assumption 40914
experience observed over the period of the investigation;40915

       (2) Recommended changes in actuarial assumptions to be used 40916
in subsequent actuarial valuations required by division (A) of 40917
this section;40918

       (3) A measurement of the financial effect of the recommended 40919
changes in actuarial assumptions.40920

       The board shall submit the report to the Ohio retirement 40921
study council and the standing committees of the house of 40922
representatives and the senate with primary responsibility for 40923
retirement legislation not later than the first day of May 40924
following the last fiscal year of the period the report covers.40925

       (C) The board may at any time request the actuary to make any 40926
studies or actuarial valuations to determine the adequacy of the 40927
rates of contribution as provided by section 3309.49 of the 40928
Revised Code, and those rates may be adjusted by the board, as 40929
recommended by the actuary, effective as of the first of any year 40930
thereafter.40931

       (D) The board shall have prepared by or under the supervision 40932
of an actuary an actuarial analysis of any introduced legislation 40933
expected to have a measurable financial impact on the retirement 40934
system. The actuarial analysis shall be completed in accordance 40935
with the actuarial standards of practice promulgated by the 40936
actuarial standards board of the American academy of actuaries. 40937
The actuary shall prepare a report of the actuarial analysis, 40938
which shall include all of the following:40939

       (1) A summary of the statutory changes that are being 40940
evaluated;40941

       (2) A description of or reference to the actuarial 40942
assumptions and actuarial cost method used in the report;40943

       (3) A description of the participant group or groups included 40944
in the report;40945

       (4) A statement of the financial impact of the legislation, 40946
including the resulting increase, if any, in the employer normal 40947
cost percentage; the increase, if any, in actuarial accrued 40948
liabilities; and the per cent of payroll that would be required to 40949
amortize the increase in actuarial accrued liabilities as a level 40950
per cent of covered payroll for all active members over a period 40951
not to exceed thirty years;40952

       (5) A statement of whether the scheduled contributions to the 40953
system after the proposed change is enacted are expected to be 40954
sufficient to satisfy the funding objectives established by the 40955
board.40956

       Not later than sixty days from the date of introduction of 40957
the legislation, the board shall submit a copy of the actuarial 40958
analysis to the legislative service commission, the standing 40959
committees of the house of representatives and the senate with 40960
primary responsibility for retirement legislation, and the Ohio 40961
retirement study council.40962

       (E) The board shall have prepared annually a report giving a 40963
full accounting of the revenues and costs relating to the 40964
provision of benefits under sections 3309.375 and 3309.69 of the 40965
Revised Code. The report shall be made as of June 30, 1997, and 40966
the thirtieth day of June of each year thereafter. The report 40967
shall include the following:40968

       (1) A description of the statutory authority for the benefits 40969
provided;40970

       (2) A summary of the benefits;40971

       (3) A summary of the eligibility requirements for the 40972
benefits;40973

       (4) A statement of the number of participants eligible for 40974
the benefits;40975

       (5) A description of the accounting, asset valuation, and 40976
funding method used to provide the benefits;40977

       (6) A statement of the net assets available for the provision 40978
of the benefits as of the last day of the fiscal year;40979

       (7) A statement of any changes in the net assets available 40980
for the provision of benefits, including participant and employer 40981
contributions, net investment income, administrative expenses, and 40982
benefits provided to participants, as of the last day of the 40983
fiscal year;40984

       (8) For the last six consecutive fiscal years, a schedule of 40985
the net assets available for the benefits, the annual cost of 40986
benefits, administrative expenses incurred, and annual employer 40987
contributions allocated for the provision of benefits;40988

       (9) A description of any significant changes that affect the 40989
comparability of the report required under this division;40990

       (10) A statement of the amount paid under division (E) of 40991
section 3309.69 of the Revised Code.40992

       The board shall submit the report to the Ohio retirement 40993
study council, the director of budget and management, and the 40994
standing committees of the house of representatives and the senate 40995
with primary responsibility for retirement legislation immediately 40996
upon its availability and not later than the thirty-first day of 40997
December following the year for which the report was made.40998

       Sec. 3310.01.  As used in sections 3310.01 to 3310.17 of the 40999
Revised Code:41000

       (A) "Chartered nonpublic school" means a nonpublic school 41001
that holds a valid charter issued by the state board of education 41002
under section 3301.16 of the Revised Code and meets the standards 41003
established for such schools in rules adopted by the state board.41004

       (B) An "eligible student" is a student who satisfies the 41005
conditions specified in section 3310.03 or 3310.032 of the Revised 41006
Code.41007

       (C) "Parent" has the same meaning as in section 3313.98 of 41008
the Revised Code.41009

       (D) "Resident district" means the school district in which a 41010
student is entitled to attend school under section 3313.64 or 41011
3313.65 of the Revised Code.41012

       (E) "School year" has the same meaning as in section 3313.62 41013
of the Revised Code.41014

       Sec. 3310.02. (A) The educational choice scholarship pilot 41015
program is hereby established. Under the program, the department 41016
of education annually shall pay scholarships to attend chartered 41017
nonpublic schools in accordance with section 3310.08 of the 41018
Revised Code for up to the following number of eligible students:41019

       (1) Thirty thousand in the 2011-2012 school year;41020

       (2) Sixty thousand in the 2012-2013 school year and 41021
thereafter. 41022

       (B) If the number of students who apply for a scholarship 41023
exceeds the number of scholarships available under division (A) of 41024
this section for the applicable school year, the department shall 41025
award scholarships in the following order of priority:41026

       (1) First, to eligible students who received scholarships in 41027
the prior school year;41028

       (2) Second, to eligible students with family incomes at or 41029
below two hundred per cent of the federal poverty guidelines, as 41030
defined in section 5101.46 of the Revised Code, who qualify under 41031
division (A) of section 3310.03 of the Revised Code. If the number 41032
of students described in division (B)(2) of this section who apply 41033
for a scholarship exceeds the number of available scholarships 41034
after awards are made under division (B)(1) of this section, the 41035
department shall select students described in division (B)(2) of 41036
this section by lot to receive any remaining scholarships.41037

        (3) Third, to other eligible students who qualify under 41038
division (A) of section 3310.03 of the Revised Code. If the number 41039
of students described in division (B)(3) of this section who apply 41040
for a scholarship exceeds the number of available scholarships 41041
after awards are made under divisions (B)(1) and (2) of this 41042
section, the department shall select students described in 41043
division (B)(3) of this section by lot to receive any remaining 41044
scholarships.41045

       (4) Fourth, to eligible students with family incomes at or 41046
below two hundred per cent of the federal poverty guidelines who 41047
qualify under division (B)(D) of section 3310.03 of the Revised 41048
Code. If the number of students described in division (B)(4) of 41049
this section who apply for a scholarship exceeds the number of 41050
available scholarships after awards are made under divisions 41051
(B)(1) to (3) of this section, the department shall select 41052
students described in division (B)(4) of this section by lot to 41053
receive any remaining scholarships.41054

       (5) Fifth, to other eligible students who qualify under 41055
division (B)(D) of section 3310.03 of the Revised Code. If the 41056
number of students described in division (B)(5) of this section 41057
who apply for a scholarship exceeds the number of available 41058
scholarships after awards are made under divisions (B)(1) to (4) 41059
of this section, the department shall select students described in 41060
division (B)(5) of this section by lot to receive any remaining 41061
scholarships.41062

       (6) Sixth, to eligible students with family incomes at or 41063
below two hundred per cent of the federal poverty guidelines who 41064
qualify under division (B) of section 3310.03 of the Revised Code. 41065
If the number of students described in division (B)(6) of this 41066
section who apply for a scholarship exceeds the number of 41067
available scholarships after awards are made under divisions 41068
(B)(1) to (5) of this section, the department shall select 41069
students described in division (B)(6) of this section by lot to 41070
receive any remaining scholarships.41071

        (7) Seventh, to other eligible students who qualify under 41072
division (B) of section 3310.03 of the Revised Code. If the number 41073
of students described in division (B)(7) of this section who apply 41074
for a scholarship exceeds the number of available scholarships 41075
after awards are made under divisions (B)(1) to (6) of this 41076
section, the department shall select students described in 41077
division (B)(7) of this section by lot to receive any remaining 41078
scholarships. 41079

       Sec. 3310.03.  A student is an "eligible student" for 41080
purposes of the educational choice scholarship pilot program if 41081
the student's resident district is not a school district in which 41082
the pilot project scholarship program is operating under sections 41083
3313.974 to 3313.979 of the Revised Code and the student satisfies 41084
one of the conditions in division (A), (B), or (C), or (D) of this 41085
section:41086

       (A)(1) The student is enrolled in a school building operated 41087
by the student's resident district that, on the report card issued 41088
under section 3302.03 of the Revised Code published prior to the 41089
first day of July of the school year for which a scholarship is 41090
sought, did not receive a rating as described in division (G)(H)41091
of this section, and to which any or a combination of any of the 41092
following apply for two of the three most recent report cards 41093
published prior to the first day of July of the school year for 41094
which a scholarship is sought:41095

       (a) The building was declared to be in a state of academic 41096
emergency or academic watch under section 3302.03 of the Revised 41097
Code as that section existed prior to the effective date of this 41098
amendmentMarch 22, 2013.41099

       (b) The building received a grade of "D" or "F" for the 41100
performance index score under division (A)(1)(b) or (B)(1)(b) of 41101
section 3302.03 of the Revised Code and for the value-added 41102
progress dimension under division (A)(1)(e) or (B)(1)(e) of 41103
section 3302.03 of the Revised Code for the 2012-2013 or 2013-2014 41104
school year, or both; or if the building serves only grades ten 41105
through twelve, the building received a grade of "D" or "F" for 41106
the performance index score under division (A)(1)(b) or (B)(1)(b) 41107
of section 3302.03 of the Revised Code and had a four-year 41108
adjusted cohort graduation rate of less than seventy-five per 41109
cent.41110

        (c) The building received an overall grade of "D" or "F" 41111
under division (C)(3) of section 3302.03 of the Revised Code or a 41112
grade of "F" for the value-added progress dimension under division 41113
(C)(1)(e) of section 3302.03 of the Revised Code for the 2014-2015 41114
school year or any school year thereafter.41115

       (2) The student is eligible to enroll in kindergarten in the 41116
school year for which a scholarship is sought and otherwise would 41117
be assigned under section 3319.01 of the Revised Code to a school 41118
building described in division (A)(1) of this section.41119

       (3) The student is enrolled in a community school established 41120
under Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code but otherwise would be 41121
assigned under section 3319.01 of the Revised Code to a building 41122
described in division (A)(1) of this section.41123

       (4) The student is enrolled in a school building operated by 41124
the student's resident district or in a community school 41125
established under Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code and otherwise 41126
would be assigned under section 3319.01 of the Revised Code to a 41127
school building described in division (A)(1) of this section in 41128
the school year for which the scholarship is sought.41129

       (5) The student is eligible to enroll in kindergarten in the 41130
school year for which a scholarship is sought, or is enrolled in a 41131
community school established under Chapter 3314. of the Revised 41132
Code, and all of the following apply to the student's resident 41133
district:41134

        (a) The district has in force an intradistrict open 41135
enrollment policy under which no student in kindergarten or the 41136
community school student's grade level, respectively, is 41137
automatically assigned to a particular school building;41138

       (b) In the most recent rating published prior to the first 41139
day of July of the school year for which scholarship is sought, 41140
the district did not receive a rating described in division (G)(H)41141
of this section, and in at least two of the three most recent 41142
report cards published prior to the first day of July of that 41143
school year, any or a combination of the following apply to the 41144
district:41145

        (i) The district was declared to be in a state of academic 41146
emergency under section 3302.03 of the Revised Code as it existed 41147
prior to the effective date of this amendmentMarch 22, 2013.41148

        (ii) The district received a grade of "D" or "F" for the 41149
performance index score under division (A)(1)(b) or (B)(1)(b) of 41150
section 3302.03 of the Revised Code and for the value-added 41151
progress dimension under division (A)(1)(e) or (B)(1)(e) of 41152
section 3302.03 of the Revised Code for the 2012-2013 or 2013-2014 41153
school year, or both.41154

        (c) The district received an overall grade of "D" or "F" 41155
under division (C)(3) of section 3302.03 of the Revised Code or a 41156
grade of "F" for the value-added progress dimension under division 41157
(C)(1)(e) of section 3302.03 of the Revised Code for the 2014-2015 41158
school year or any school year thereafter.41159

       (B)(1) The student is enrolled in a school building operated 41160
by the student's resident district and to which both of the 41161
following apply:41162

       (a) The building was ranked, for at least two of the three 41163
most recent rankings published under section 3302.21 of the 41164
Revised Code prior to the first day of July of the school year for 41165
which a scholarship is sought, in the lowest ten per cent of all 41166
public school buildings according to performance index score under 41167
section 3302.21 of the Revised Code.41168

       (b) The building was not declared to be excellent or 41169
effective, or the equivalent of such ratings as determined by the 41170
department of education, under section 3302.03 of the Revised Code 41171
in the most recent rating published prior to the first day of July 41172
of the school year for which a scholarship is sought.41173

       (2) The student is eligible to enroll in kindergarten in the 41174
school year for which a scholarship is sought and otherwise would 41175
be assigned under section 3319.01 of the Revised Code to a school 41176
building described in division (B)(1) of this section.41177

       (3) The student is enrolled in a community school established 41178
under Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code but otherwise would be 41179
assigned under section 3319.01 of the Revised Code to a building 41180
described in division (B)(1) of this section.41181

       (4) The student is enrolled in a school building operated by 41182
the student's resident district or in a community school 41183
established under Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code and otherwise 41184
would be assigned under section 3319.01 of the Revised Code to a 41185
school building described in division (B)(1) of this section in 41186
the school year for which the scholarship is sought.41187

       (C) The student is enrolled in a nonpublic school at the time 41188
the school is granted a charter by the state board of education 41189
under section 3301.16 of the Revised Code and the student meets 41190
the standards of division (B) of section 3310.031 of the Revised 41191
Code.41192

        (D) For the 2016-2017 school year and each school year 41193
thereafter, the student is in any of grades kindergarten through 41194
three, is enrolled in a school building that is operated by the 41195
student's resident district, and to which both of the following 41196
apply:41197

        (1) The building, in at least two of the three most recent 41198
ratings of school buildings published prior to the first day of 41199
July of the school year for which a scholarship is sought, 41200
received a grade of "D" or "F" for making progress in improving 41201
literacy in grades kindergarten through three under division 41202
(B)(1)(g) or (C)(1)(g) of section 3302.03 of the Revised Code;41203

        (2) The building did not receive a grade of "A" for making 41204
progress in improving literacy in grades kindergarten through 41205
three under division (B)(1)(g) or (C)(1)(g) of section 3302.03 of 41206
the Revised Code in the most recent rating published prior to the 41207
first day of July of the school year for which a scholarship is 41208
sought.41209

        (E) A student who receives a scholarship under the 41210
educational choice scholarship pilot program remains an eligible 41211
student and may continue to receive scholarships in subsequent 41212
school years until the student completes grade twelve, so long as 41213
all of the following apply:41214

       (1) The student's resident district remains the same, or the 41215
student transfers to a new resident district and otherwise would 41216
be assigned in the new resident district to a school building 41217
described in division (A)(1) or, (B)(1), or (D) of this section; 41218

       (2) The student takes each assessment prescribed for the 41219
student's grade level under section 3301.0710 or 3301.0712 of the 41220
Revised Code while enrolled in a chartered nonpublic school;41221

       (3) In each school year that the student is enrolled in a 41222
chartered nonpublic school, the student is absent from school for 41223
not more than twenty days that the school is open for instruction, 41224
not including excused absences.41225

        (E)(F)(1) The department shall cease awarding first-time 41226
scholarships pursuant to divisions (A)(1) to (4) of this section 41227
with respect to a school building that, in the most recent ratings 41228
of school buildings published under section 3302.03 of the Revised 41229
Code prior to the first day of July of the school year, ceases to 41230
meet the criteria in division (A)(1) of this section. The 41231
department shall cease awarding first-time scholarships pursuant 41232
to division (A)(5) of this section with respect to a school 41233
district that, in the most recent ratings of school districts 41234
published under section 3302.03 of the Revised Code prior to the 41235
first day of July of the school year, ceases to meet the criteria 41236
in division (A)(5) of this section. 41237

       (2) The department shall cease awarding first-time 41238
scholarships pursuant to divisions (B)(1) to (4) of this section 41239
with respect to a school building that, in the most recent ratings 41240
of school buildings under section 3302.03 of the Revised Code 41241
prior to the first day of July of the school year, ceases to meet 41242
the criteria in division (B)(1) of this section. 41243

       (3) The department shall cease awarding first-time 41244
scholarships pursuant to division (D) of this section with respect 41245
to a school building that, in the most recent ratings of school 41246
buildings under section 3302.03 of the Revised Code prior to the 41247
first day of July of the school year, ceases to meet the criteria 41248
in division (D) of this section.41249

        (4) However, students who have received scholarships in the 41250
prior school year remain eligible students pursuant to division 41251
(D)(E) of this section.41252

       (F)(G) The state board of education shall adopt rules 41253
defining excused absences for purposes of division (D)(E)(3) of 41254
this section.41255

       (G)(H)(1) A student who satisfies only the conditions 41256
prescribed in divisions (A)(1) to (4) of this section shall not be 41257
eligible for a scholarship if the student's resident building 41258
meets any of the following in the most recent rating under section 41259
3302.03 of the Revised Code published prior to the first day of 41260
July of the school year for which a scholarship is sought:41261

        (a) The building has an overall designation of excellent or 41262
effective under section 3302.03 of the Revised Code as it existed 41263
prior to the effective date of this amendmentMarch 22, 2013.41264

        (b) For the 2012-2013 or 2013-2014 school year or both, the 41265
building has a grade of "A" or "B" for the performance index score 41266
under division (A)(1)(b) or (B)(1)(b) of section 3302.03 of the 41267
Revised Code and for the value-added progress dimension under 41268
division (A)(1)(e) or (B)(1)(e) of section 3302.03 of the Revised 41269
Code; or if the building serves only grades ten through twelve, 41270
the building received a grade of "A" or "B" for the performance 41271
index score under division (A)(1)(b) or (B)(1)(b) of section 41272
3302.03 of the Revised Code and had a four-year adjusted cohort 41273
graduation rate of greater than or equal to seventy-five per cent.41274

        (c) For the 2014-2015 school year or any school year 41275
thereafter, the building has a grade of "A" or "B" under division 41276
(C)(3) of section 3302.03 of the Revised Code and a grade of "A" 41277
for the value-added progress dimension under division (C)(1)(e) of 41278
section 3302.03 of the Revised Code; or if the building serves 41279
only grades ten through twelve, the building received a grade of 41280
"A" or "B" for the performance index score under division 41281
(C)(1)(b) of section 3302.03 of the Revised Code and had a 41282
four-year adjusted cohort graduation rate of greater than or equal 41283
to seventy-five per cent.41284

        (2) A student who satisfies only the conditions prescribed in 41285
division (A)(5) of this section shall not be eligible for a 41286
scholarship if the student's resident district meets any of the 41287
following in the most recent rating under section 3302.03 of the 41288
Revised Code published prior to the first day of July of the 41289
school year for which a scholarship is sought:41290

        (a) The district has an overall designation of excellent or 41291
effective under section 3302.03 of the Revised Code as it existed 41292
prior to the effective date of this amendmentMarch 22, 2013.41293

        (b) The district has a grade of "A" or "B" for the 41294
performance index score under division (A)(1)(b) or (B)(1)(b) of 41295
section 3302.03 of the Revised Code and for the value-added 41296
progress dimension under division (A)(1)(e) or (B)(1)(e) of 41297
section 3302.03 of the Revised Code for the 2012-2013 and 41298
2013-2014 school years.41299

        (c) The district has an overall grade of "A" or "B" under 41300
division (C)(3) of section 3302.03 of the Revised Code and a grade 41301
of "A" for the value-added progress dimension under division 41302
(C)(1)(e) of section 3302.03 of the Revised Code for the 2014-2015 41303
school year or any school year thereafter.41304

       Sec. 3310.032.  (A) A student is an "eligible student" for 41305
purposes of the expansion of the educational choice scholarship 41306
pilot program under this section if the student's resident 41307
district is not a school district in which the pilot project 41308
scholarship program is operating under sections 3313.974 to 41309
3313.979 of the Revised Code, the student is not eligible for an 41310
educational choice scholarship under section 3310.03 of the 41311
Revised Code, and the student's family income is at or below two 41312
hundred per cent of the federal poverty guidelines, as defined in 41313
section 5101.46 of the Revised Code.41314

       (B) In each fiscal year for which the general assembly 41315
appropriates funds for purposes of this section, the department of 41316
education shall pay scholarships to attend chartered nonpublic 41317
schools in accordance with section 3310.08 of the Revised Code. 41318
The number of scholarships awarded under this section shall not 41319
exceed the number that can be funded with appropriations made by 41320
the general assembly for this purpose.41321

       (C) Scholarships under this section shall be awarded as 41322
follows:41323

       (1) For the 2013-2014 school year, to eligible students who 41324
are entering kindergarten in that school year for the first time;41325

       (2) For each subsequent school year, scholarships shall be 41326
awarded to eligible students in the next grade level above the 41327
highest grade level awarded in the preceding school year, in 41328
addition to the grade levels for which students received 41329
scholarships in the preceding school year.41330

       (D) If the number of eligible students who apply for a 41331
scholarship under this section exceeds the scholarships available 41332
based on the appropriation for this section, the department shall 41333
award scholarships in the following order of priority:41334

       (1) First, to eligible students who received scholarships 41335
under this section in the prior school year;41336

       (2) Second, to eligible students with family incomes at or 41337
below one hundred per cent of the federal poverty guidelines. If 41338
the number of students described in division (D)(2) of this 41339
section who apply for a scholarship exceeds the number of 41340
available scholarships after awards are made under division (D)(1) 41341
of this section, the department shall select students described in 41342
division (D)(2) of this section by lot to receive any remaining 41343
scholarships.41344

       (3) Third, to other eligible students who qualify under this 41345
section. If the number of students described in division (D)(3) of 41346
this section exceeds the number of available scholarships after 41347
awards are made under divisions (D)(1) and (2) of this section, 41348
the department shall select students described in division (D)(3) 41349
of this section by lot to receive any remaining scholarships.41350

       (E) A student who receives a scholarship under this section 41351
remains an eligible student and may continue to receive 41352
scholarships under this section in subsequent school years until 41353
the student completes grade twelve, so long as the student 41354
satisfies the conditions specified in divisions (E)(2) and (3) of 41355
section 3310.03 of the Revised Code.41356

       Once a scholarship is awarded under this section, the student 41357
shall remain eligible for that scholarship for the current school 41358
year and subsequent school years even if the student's family 41359
income rises above the amount specified in division (A) of this 41360
section, provided the student remains enrolled in a chartered 41361
nonpublic school.41362

       Sec. 3310.035. (A) A student who is eligible for an 41363
educational choice scholarship under both sections 3310.03 and 41364
3310.032 of the Revised Code, and applies for a scholarship for 41365
the first time after the effective date of this section shall 41366
receive a scholarship under section 3310.03 of the Revised Code.41367

        (B) A student who is eligible under both sections 3310.03 and 41368
3310.032 of the Revised Code and received a scholarship in the 41369
previous school year shall continue to receive the scholarship 41370
under the section from which the student received the scholarship 41371
in the previous school year, so long as:41372

        (1) The number of students who apply for a scholarship does 41373
not exceed the number of scholarships available under division (A) 41374
of section 3310.02 of the Revised Code.41375

        (2) A student who receives a scholarship under section 41376
3310.03 of the Revised Code satisfies with the conditions 41377
specified in divisions (E)(1) to (3) of that section, and a 41378
student who receives a scholarship under section 3310.032 41379
satisfies with the conditions specified in divisions (E)(2) and 41380
(3) of section 3310.03 of the Revised Code. 41381

       Sec. 3310.05.  A scholarship under the educational choice 41382
scholarship pilot program is not available for any student whose 41383
resident district is a school district in which the pilot project 41384
scholarship program is operating under sections 3313.974 to 41385
3313.979 of the Revised Code. The two pilot programs are separate 41386
and distinct, with differing eligibility criteria. The pilot 41387
project scholarship program operating under sections 3313.974 to 41388
3313.979 of the Revised Code is a district-wide program that may 41389
award scholarships to students who do not attend district schools 41390
that face academic challenges, whereas the educational choice 41391
scholarship pilot program established under sections 3310.01 to 41392
3310.17 of the Revised Code is limited to students of individual 41393
district school buildings that face academic challenges and to 41394
students from low-income families.41395

       Sec. 3310.06.  It is the policy adopted by the general 41396
assembly that the educational choice scholarship pilot program 41397
shall be construed as one of several educational options available 41398
for students enrolled in persistently low-performing school 41399
buildings or for students from low-income families. Students may 41400
be enrolled in the schools of the student's resident district, in 41401
a community school established under Chapter 3314. of the Revised 41402
Code, in the schools of another school district pursuant to an 41403
open enrollment policy adopted under section 3313.98 of the 41404
Revised Code, in a chartered nonpublic school with or without a 41405
scholarship under the educational choice scholarship pilot 41406
program, or in other schools as the law may provide.41407

       Sec. 3310.08. (A) The amount paid for an eligible student 41408
under the educational choice scholarship pilot program shall be 41409
the lesser of the tuition of the chartered nonpublic school in 41410
which the student is enrolled or the maximum amount prescribed in 41411
section 3310.09 of the Revised Code.41412

        (B)(1) The department of education shall pay to the parent of 41413
each eligible student for whom a scholarship is awarded under the 41414
program, or to the student if at least eighteen years of age, 41415
periodic partial payments of the scholarship.41416

        (2) The department shall proportionately reduce or terminate 41417
the payments for any student who withdraws from a chartered 41418
nonpublic school prior to the end of the school year.41419

       (C)(1) The department shall deduct from the payments made to 41420
each school district under Chapter 3317., and if necessary, 41421
sections 321.24 and 323.156 of the Revised Code, the amount paid 41422
under division (B) of this section for each eligible student 41423
awardedwho qualifies for a scholarship under the programsection 41424
3310.03 of the Revised Code and who is entitled under section 41425
3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised Code to attend school in the 41426
district. In the case of a student entitled to attend school in a 41427
school district under division (B)(2)(a) of section 3313.64 or 41428
division (C) of section 3313.65 of the Revised Code, the 41429
department shall deduct the payments from the school district that 41430
includes the student in its average daily membership as reported 41431
to the department under section 3317.03 of the Revised Code, as 41432
determined by the department.41433

       (2) If the department reduces or terminates payments to a 41434
parent or a student, as prescribed in division (B)(2) of this 41435
section, and the student enrolls in the schools of the student's 41436
resident district or in a community school, established under 41437
Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code, before the end of the school 41438
year, the department shall proportionally restore to the resident 41439
district the amount deducted for that student under division 41440
(C)(1) of this section.41441

       Sec. 3310.56. (A) The amount of the scholarship awarded and 41442
paid to an eligible applicant for services for a qualified special 41443
education child under the Jon Peterson special needs scholarship 41444
program in each school year shall be the least of the amounts 41445
prescribed in divisions (A)(1), (2), orand (3) of this section, 41446
as follows:41447

       (1) The amount of fees charged for that school year by the 41448
alternative public provider or registered private provider;41449

       (2) The sum of the amounts calculated under divisions 41450
(A)(2)(a) and (b) of this section:41451

        (a) The sum of the formula amount plus the per pupil amount 41452
of the base funding supplements specified in divisions (C)(1) to 41453
(4) of section 3317.012 of the Revised Code for fiscal year 2009;41454

       (b) An amount equal to $5,732the formula amount times the 41455
following multiple prescribed for the child's disability:41456

        (i) For a student in category one, 0.2892the multiple 41457
specified in division (A) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;41458

        (ii) For a student in category two, 0.3691the multiple 41459
specified in division (B) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;41460

       (iii) For a student in category three, 1.7695the multiple 41461
specified in division (C) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;41462

       (iv) For a student in category four, 2.3646the multiple 41463
specified in division (D) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;41464

        (v) For a student in category five, 3.1129the multiple 41465
specified in division (E) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;41466

        (vi) For a student in category six, 4.7342the multiple 41467
specified in division (F) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code.41468

        Before applying the multiples specified in divisions 41469
(A)(2)(b)(i) to (vi) of this section, they first shall be adjusted 41470
by multiplying them by 0.90.41471

       (3) Twenty thousand dollars.41472

        (B) As used in division (A)(2)(b) of this section, a child 41473
with a disability is in:41474

        (1) "Category one" if the child's primary or only identified 41475
disability is a speech and language disability, as this term is 41476
defined pursuant to Chapter 3323.child is receiving special 41477
education services for a disability specified in division (A) of 41478
section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;41479

        (2) "Category two" if the child is identified as specific 41480
learning disabled or developmentally disabled, as these terms are 41481
defined pursuant to Chapter 3323. of the Revised Code, or as 41482
having an other health impairment-minor, as defined in section 41483
3317.02receiving special education services for a disability 41484
specified in division (B) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;41485

        (3) "Category three" if the child is identified as vision 41486
impaired, hearing disabled, or severe behavior disabled, as these 41487
terms are defined pursuant to Chapter 3323.receiving special 41488
education services for a disability specified in division (C) of 41489
section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;41490

       (4) "Category four" if the child is identified as 41491
orthopedically disabled, as this term is defined pursuant to 41492
Chapter 3323. of the Revised Code, or as having an other health 41493
impairment-major, as defined in section 3317.02receiving special 41494
education services for a disability specified in division (D) of 41495
section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;41496

       (5) "Category five" if the child is identified as having 41497
multiple disabilities, as this term is defined pursuant to Chapter 41498
3323.receiving special education services for a disability 41499
specified in division (E) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;41500

       (6) "Category six" if the child is identified as autistic, 41501
having traumatic brain injuries, or both visually and hearing 41502
impaired, as these terms are defined pursuant to Chapter 3323.41503
receiving special education services for a disability specified in 41504
division (F) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code.41505

       Sec. 3311.0510.  (A) If all of the client school districts of 41506
an educational service center have terminated their agreements 41507
with the service center under division (D) of section 3313.843 of 41508
the Revised Code, upon the latest effective date of the 41509
terminations, the governing board of that service center shall be 41510
abolished and such service center shall be dissolved by order of 41511
the superintendent of public instruction. The superintendent's 41512
order shall provide for the equitable division and disposition of 41513
the assets, property, debts, and obligations of the service center 41514
among the school districts that were client school districts of 41515
the service center for the service center's last fiscal year of 41516
operation. The superintendent's order shall provide that the tax 41517
duplicate of each of those school districts shall be bound for and 41518
assume the district's equitable share of the outstanding 41519
indebtedness of the service center. The superintendent's order is 41520
final and is not appealable.41521

       Immediately upon the abolishment of the service center 41522
governing board pursuant to this section, the superintendent of 41523
public instruction shall appoint a qualified individual to 41524
administer the dissolution of the service center and to implement 41525
the terms of the superintendent's dissolution order.41526

        Prior to distributing assets to any school district under 41527
this section, but after paying in full other debts and obligations 41528
of the service center under this section, the superintendent of 41529
public instruction may assess against the remaining assets of the 41530
service center the amount of the costs incurred by the department 41531
of education in performing the superintendent's duties under this 41532
division, including the fees, if any, owed to the individual 41533
appointed to administer the superintendent's dissolution order. 41534
Any excess cost incurred by the department under this division 41535
shall be divided equitably among the school districts that were 41536
client school districts of the service center for the service 41537
center's last fiscal year of operation. Each district's share of 41538
that excess cost shall be bound against the tax duplicate of that 41539
district.41540

       (B) A final audit of the former service center shall be 41541
performed in accordance with procedures established by the auditor 41542
of state.41543

       (C) The public records of an educational service center that 41544
is dissolved under this section shall be transferred in accordance 41545
with this division. Public records maintained by the service 41546
center in connection with services provided by the service center 41547
to local school districts of which the territory of the service 41548
center is or previously was made up shall be transferred to each 41549
of the respective local school districts. Public records 41550
maintained by the service center in connection with services 41551
provided to client school districts shall be transferred to each 41552
of the respective client school districts. All other public 41553
records maintained by the service center at the time the service 41554
center ceases operations shall be transferred to the Ohio 41555
historical society for analysis and disposition by the society in 41556
its capacity as archives administrator for the state and its 41557
political subdivisions pursuant to division (C) of section 149.30 41558
and section 149.31 of the Revised Code.41559

       (D) As used in this section, "client school district" has the 41560
same meaning as in section 3317.11 of the Revised Codemeans a 41561
city, exempted village, or local school district that has entered 41562
into an agreement under section 3313.843 or 3313.845 of the 41563
Revised Code to receive any services from an educational service 41564
center.41565

       Sec. 3311.22.  A governing board of an educational service 41566
center may propose, by resolution adopted by majority vote of its 41567
full membership, or qualified electors of the area affected equal 41568
in number to at least fifty-five per cent of the qualified 41569
electors voting at the last general election residing within that 41570
portion of a school district, or districts proposed to be 41571
transferred may propose, by petition, the transfer of a part or 41572
all of one or more local school districts to another local school 41573
district or districts within the territory of the educational 41574
service center. Such transfers may be made only to local school 41575
districts adjoining the school district that is proposed to be 41576
transferred, unless the board of education of the district 41577
proposed to be transferred has entered into an agreement pursuant 41578
to section 3313.42 of the Revised Code, in which case such 41579
transfers may be made to any local school district within the 41580
territory of the educational service center.41581

       When a governing board of an educational service center 41582
adopts a resolution proposing a transfer of school territory it 41583
shall forthwith file a copy of such resolution, together with an 41584
accurate map of the territory described in the resolution, with 41585
the board of education of each school district whose boundaries 41586
would be altered by such proposal. A governing board of an 41587
educational service center proposing a transfer of territory under 41588
the provisions of this section shall at its next regular meeting 41589
that occurs not earlier than thirty days after the adoption by the 41590
governing board of a resolution proposing such transfer, adopt a 41591
resolution making the transfer effective at any time prior to the 41592
next succeeding first day of July, unless, prior to the expiration 41593
of such thirty-day period, qualified electors residing in the area 41594
proposed to be transferred, equal in number to a majority of the 41595
qualified electors voting at the last general election, file a 41596
petition of referendum against such transfer.41597

       Any petition of transfer or petition of referendum filed 41598
under the provisions of this section shall be filed at the office 41599
of the educational service center superintendent. The person 41600
presenting the petition shall be given a receipt containing 41601
thereon the time of day, the date, and the purpose of the 41602
petition.41603

       The educational service center superintendent shall cause the 41604
board of elections to check the sufficiency of signatures on any 41605
petition of transfer or petition of referendum filed under this 41606
section and, if found to be sufficient, the superintendent shall 41607
present the petition to the educational service center governing 41608
board at a meeting of the board which shall occur not later than 41609
thirty days following the filing of the petition.41610

       Upon presentation to the educational service center governing 41611
board of a proposal to transfer territory as requested by petition 41612
of fifty-five per cent of the qualified electors voting at the 41613
last general election or a petition of referendum against a 41614
proposal of the county board to transfer territory, the governing 41615
board shall promptly certify the proposal to the board of 41616
elections for the purpose of having the proposal placed on the 41617
ballot at the next general or primary election which occurs not 41618
less than ninety days after the date of such certification, or at 41619
a special election, the date of which shall be specified in the 41620
certification, which date shall not be less than ninety days after 41621
the date of such certification. Signatures on a petition of 41622
transfer or petition of referendum may be withdrawn up to and 41623
including the above mentioned meeting of the educational service 41624
center governing board only by order of the board upon testimony 41625
of the petitioner concerned under oath before the board that the 41626
petitioner's signature was obtained by fraud, duress, or 41627
misrepresentation.41628

       If a petition is filed with the educational service center 41629
governing board which proposes the transfer of a part or all of 41630
the territory included in a resolution of transfer previously 41631
adopted by the educational service center governing board, no 41632
action shall be taken on such petition if within the thirty-day 41633
period after the adoption of the resolution of transfer a 41634
referendum petition is filed. After the election, if the proposed 41635
transfer fails to receive a majority vote, action on such petition 41636
shall then be processed under this section as though originally 41637
filed under the provisions hereof. If no referendum petition is 41638
filed within the thirty-day period after the adoption of the 41639
resolution of transfer, no action shall be taken on such petition.41640

       If a petition is filed with the educational service center 41641
governing board which proposes the transfer of a part or all of 41642
the territory included in a petition previously filed by electors 41643
no action shall be taken on such new petition.41644

       Upon certification of a proposal to the board or boards of 41645
elections pursuant to this section, the board or boards of 41646
elections shall make the necessary arrangements for the submission 41647
of such question to the electors of the county or counties 41648
qualified to vote thereon, and the election shall be conducted and 41649
canvassed and the results shall be certified in the same manner as 41650
in regular elections for the election of members of a board of 41651
education.41652

       The persons qualified to vote upon a proposal are the 41653
electors residing in the district or districts containing 41654
territory that is proposed to be transferred. If the proposed 41655
transfer be approved by at least a majority of the electors voting 41656
on the proposal, the educational service center governing board 41657
shall make such transfer at any time prior to the next succeeding 41658
first day of July. If the proposed transfer is not approved by at 41659
least a majority of the electors voting on the proposal, the 41660
question of transferring any property included in the territory 41661
covered by the proposal shall not be submitted to electors at any 41662
election prior to the first general election the date of which is 41663
at least two years after the date of the original election, or the 41664
first primary election held in an even-numbered year the date of 41665
which is at least two years after the date of the original 41666
election. A transfer shall be subject to the approval of the 41667
receiving board or boards of education, unless the proposal was 41668
initiated by the educational service center governing board, in 41669
which case, if the transfer is opposed by the board of education 41670
offered the territory, the local board may, within thirty days, 41671
following the receipt of the notice of transfer, appeal to the 41672
state board of education which shall then either approve or 41673
disapprove the transfer.41674

       Following an election upon a proposed transfer initiated by a 41675
petition the board of education that is offered territory shall, 41676
within thirty days following receipt of the proposal, either 41677
accept or reject the transfer.41678

       When an entire school district is proposed to be transferred 41679
to two or more school districts and the offer is rejected by any 41680
one of the receiving boards of education, none of the territory 41681
included in the proposal shall be transferred.41682

       Upon the acceptance of territory by the receiving board or 41683
boards of education the educational service center governing board 41684
offering the territory shall file with the county auditor and with 41685
the state board of education an accurate map showing the 41686
boundaries of the territory transferred.41687

       Upon the making of such transfer, the net indebtedness of the 41688
former district from which territory was transferred shall be 41689
apportioned between the acquiring school district and that portion 41690
of the former school district remaining after the transfer in the 41691
ratio which the assessed valuation of the territory transferred to 41692
the acquiring school district bears to the assessed valuation of 41693
the original school district as of the effective date of the 41694
transfer. As used in this section "net indebtedness" means the 41695
difference between the par value of the outstanding and unpaid 41696
bonds and notes of the school district and the amount held in the 41697
sinking fund and other indebtedness retirement funds for their 41698
redemption.41699

       If an entire district is transferred, any indebtedness of the 41700
former district incurred as a result of a loan made under section 41701
3317.64 of the Revised Code is hereby canceled and such 41702
indebtedness shall not be apportioned among any districts 41703
acquiring the territory. 41704

       Upon the making of any transfer under this section, the funds 41705
of the district from which territory was transferred shall be 41706
divided equitably by the educational service center governing 41707
board between the acquiring district and any part of the original 41708
district remaining after the transfer.41709

       If an entire district is transferred the board of education 41710
of such district is thereby abolished or if a member of the board 41711
of education lives in that part of a school district transferred 41712
the member becomes a nonresident of the school district from which 41713
the territory was transferred and such member ceases to be a 41714
member of the board of education of such district.41715

       The legal title of all property of the board of education in 41716
the territory transferred shall become vested in the board of 41717
education of the school district to which such territory is 41718
transferred.41719

       Subsequent to June 30, 1959, if an entire district is 41720
transferred, foundation program moneys accruing to a district 41721
accepting school territory under the provisions of this section or 41722
former section 3311.22 of the Revised Code, shall not be less, in 41723
any year during the next succeeding three years following the 41724
transfer, than the sum of the amounts received by the districts 41725
separately in the year in which the transfer was consummated.41726

       Sec. 3311.231.  A governing board of an educational service 41727
center may propose, by resolution adopted by majority vote of its 41728
full membership, or qualified electors of the area affected equal 41729
in number to not less than fifty-five per cent of the qualified 41730
electors voting at the last general election residing within that 41731
portion of a school district proposed to be transferred may 41732
propose, by petition, the transfer of a part or all of one or more 41733
local school districts within the territory of the center to an 41734
adjoining educational service center or to an adjoining city or 41735
exempted village school district.41736

       A governing board of an educational service center adopting a 41737
resolution proposing a transfer of school territory under this 41738
section shall file a copy of such resolution together with an 41739
accurate map of the territory described in the resolution, with 41740
the board of education of each school district whose boundaries 41741
would be altered by such proposal. Where a transfer of territory 41742
is proposed by a governing board of an educational service center 41743
under this section, the governing board shall, at its next regular 41744
meeting that occurs not earlier than the thirtieth day after the 41745
adoption by the governing board of the resolution proposing such 41746
transfer, adopt a resolution making the transfer as originally 41747
proposed, effective at any time prior to the next succeeding first 41748
day of July, unless, prior to the expiration of such thirty-day 41749
period, qualified electors residing in the area proposed to be 41750
transferred, equal in number to a majority of the qualified 41751
electors voting at the last general election, file a petition of 41752
referendum against such transfer.41753

       Any petition of transfer or petition of referendum under the 41754
provisions of this section shall be filed at the office of the 41755
educational service center superintendent. The person presenting 41756
the petition shall be given a receipt containing thereon the time 41757
of day, the date, and the purpose of the petition.41758

       The educational service center superintendent shall cause the 41759
board of elections to check the sufficiency of signatures on any 41760
such petition, and, if found to be sufficient, the superintendent 41761
shall present the petition to the educational service center 41762
governing board at a meeting of said governing board which shall 41763
occur not later than thirty days following the filing of said 41764
petition.41765

       The educational service center governing board shall promptly 41766
certify the proposal to the board of elections of such counties in 41767
which school districts whose boundaries would be altered by such 41768
proposal are located for the purpose of having the proposal placed 41769
on the ballot at the next general or primary election which occurs 41770
not less than ninety days after the date of such certification or 41771
at a special election, the date of which shall be specified in the 41772
certification, which date shall not be less than ninety days after 41773
the date of such certification.41774

       Signatures on a petition of transfer or petition of 41775
referendum may be withdrawn up to and including the above 41776
mentioned meeting of the educational service center governing 41777
board only by order of the governing board upon testimony of the 41778
petitioner concerned under oath before the board that the 41779
petitioner's signature was obtained by fraud, duress, or 41780
misrepresentation.41781

       If a petition is filed with the educational service center 41782
governing board which proposes the transfer of a part or all of 41783
the territory included either in a petition previously filed by 41784
electors or in a resolution of transfer previously adopted by the 41785
educational service center governing board, no action shall be 41786
taken on such new petition as long as the previously initiated 41787
proposal is pending before the governing board or is subject to an 41788
election.41789

       Upon certification of a proposal to the board or boards of 41790
elections pursuant to this section, the board or boards of 41791
elections shall make the necessary arrangements for the submission 41792
of such question to the electors of the county or counties 41793
qualified to vote thereon, and the election shall be conducted and 41794
canvassed and the results shall be certified in the same manner as 41795
in regular elections for the election of members of a board of 41796
education.41797

       The persons qualified to vote upon a proposal are the 41798
electors residing in the district or districts containing 41799
territory that is proposed to be transferred. If the proposed 41800
transfer is approved by at least a majority of the electors voting 41801
on the proposal, the educational service center governing board 41802
shall make such transfer at any time prior to the next succeeding 41803
first day of July, subject to the approval of the receiving board 41804
of education in case of a transfer to a city or exempted village 41805
school district, and subject to the approval of the educational 41806
service center governing board of the receiving center, in case of 41807
a transfer to an educational service center. If the proposed 41808
transfer is not approved by at least a majority of the electors 41809
voting on the proposal, the question of transferring any property 41810
included in the territory covered by the proposal shall not be 41811
submitted to electors at any election prior to the first general 41812
election the date of which is at least two years after the date of 41813
the original election, or the first primary election held in an 41814
even-numbered year the date of which is at least two years after 41815
the date of the original election.41816

       Where a territory is transferred under this section to a city 41817
or exempted village school district, the board of education of 41818
such district shall, and where territory is transferred to an 41819
educational service center the governing board of such educational 41820
service center shall, within thirty days following receipt of the 41821
proposal, either accept or reject the transfer.41822

       Where a governing board of an educational service center 41823
adopts a resolution accepting territory transferred to the 41824
educational service center under the provisions of sections 41825
3311.231 and 3311.24 of the Revised Code, the governing board 41826
shall, at the time of the adoption of the resolution accepting the 41827
territory, designate the school district to which the accepted 41828
territory shall be annexed.41829

       When an entire school district is proposed to be transferred 41830
to two or more adjoining school districts and the offer is 41831
rejected by any one of the receiving boards of education, none of 41832
the territory included in the proposal shall be transferred.41833

       Upon the acceptance of territory by the receiving board or 41834
boards of education the educational service center governing board 41835
offering the territory shall file with the county auditor of each 41836
county affected by the transfer and with the state board of 41837
education an accurate map showing the boundaries of the territory 41838
transferred.41839

       Upon the making of such transfer, the net indebtedness of the 41840
former district from which territory was transferred shall be 41841
apportioned between the acquiring school district and the portion 41842
of the former school district remaining after the transfer in the 41843
ratio which the assessed valuation of the territory transferred to 41844
the acquiring school district bears to the assessed valuation of 41845
the original school district as of the effective date of the 41846
transfer. As used in this section "net indebtedness" means the 41847
difference between the par value of the outstanding and unpaid 41848
bonds and notes of the school district and the amount held in the 41849
sinking fund and other indebtedness retirement funds for their 41850
redemption.41851

       If an entire district is transferred, any indebtedness of the 41852
former district incurred as a result of a loan made under section 41853
3317.64 of the Revised Code is hereby canceled and such 41854
indebtedness shall not be apportioned among any districts 41855
acquiring the territory. 41856

       Upon the making of any transfer under this section, the funds 41857
of the district from which territory was transferred shall be 41858
divided equitably by the educational service center governing 41859
board, between the acquiring district and any part of the original 41860
district remaining after the transfer.41861

       If an entire district is transferred the board of education 41862
of such district is thereby abolished or if a member of the board 41863
of education lives in that part of a school district transferred 41864
the member becomes a nonresident of the school district from which 41865
the territory was transferred and such member ceases to be a 41866
member of the board of education of such district.41867

       The legal title of all property of the board of education in 41868
the territory transferred shall become vested in the board of 41869
education of the school district to which such territory is 41870
transferred.41871

       If an entire district is transferred, foundation program 41872
moneys accruing to a district receiving school territory under the 41873
provisions of this section shall not be less, in any year during 41874
the next succeeding three years following the transfer, than the 41875
sum of the amounts received by the districts separately in the 41876
year in which the transfer was consummated.41877

       Sec. 3311.38.  The state board of education may conduct, or 41878
may direct the superintendent of public instruction to conduct, 41879
studies where there is evidence of need for transfer of local, 41880
exempted village, or city school districts, or parts of any such 41881
districts, to contiguous or noncontiguous local, exempted village, 41882
or city school districts. Such studies shall include a study of 41883
the effect of any proposal upon any portion of a school district 41884
remaining after such proposed transfer. The state board, in 41885
conducting such studies and in making recommendations as a result 41886
thereof, shall consider the possibility of improving school 41887
district organization as well as the desires of the residents of 41888
the school districts which would be affected.41889

       (A) After the adoption of recommendations growing out of any 41890
such study, or upon receipt of a resolution adopted by majority 41891
vote of the full membership of the board of any city, local, or 41892
exempted village school district requesting that the entire 41893
district be transferred to another city, local, or exempted 41894
village school district, the state board may propose by resolution 41895
the transfer of territory, which may consist of part or all of the 41896
territory of a local, exempted village, or city school district to 41897
a contiguous local, exempted village, or city school district.41898

       The state board shall thereupon file a copy of such proposal 41899
with the board of education of each school district whose 41900
boundaries would be altered by the proposal and with the governing 41901
board of any educational service center in which such school 41902
district is located.41903

       The state board may, not less than thirty days following the 41904
adoption of the resolution proposing the transfer of territory, 41905
certify the proposal to the board of elections of the county or 41906
counties in which any of the territory of the proposed district is 41907
located, for the purpose of having the proposal placed on the 41908
ballot at the next general election or at a primary election 41909
occurring not less than ninety days after the adoption of such 41910
resolution.41911

       If any proposal has been previously initiated pursuant to 41912
section 3311.22, 3311.231, or 3311.26 of the Revised Code which 41913
affects any of the territory affected by the proposal of the state 41914
board, the proposal of the state board shall not be placed on the 41915
ballot while the previously initiated proposal is subject to an 41916
election.41917

       Upon certification of a proposal to the board of elections of 41918
any county pursuant to this section, the board of elections of 41919
such county shall make the necessary arrangements for the 41920
submission of such question to the electors of the county 41921
qualified to vote thereon, and the election shall be counted and 41922
canvassed and the results shall be certified in the same manner as 41923
in regular elections for the election of members of a board of 41924
education.41925

       The electors qualified to vote upon a proposal are the 41926
electors residing in the local, exempted village, or city school 41927
districts, containing territory proposed to be transferred.41928

       If the proposed transfer be approved by a majority of the 41929
electors voting on the proposal, the state board, subject to the 41930
approval of the board of education of the district to which the 41931
territory would be transferred, shall make such transfer prior to 41932
the next succeeding July 1.41933

       (B) If a study conducted in accordance with this section 41934
involves a school district with less than four thousand dollars of 41935
assessed value for each pupil in the total student count 41936
determined under section 3317.03 of the Revised Code, the state 41937
board of education, with the approval of the educational service 41938
center governing board, and upon recommendation by the state 41939
superintendent of public instruction, may by resolution transfer 41940
all or any part of such a school district to any city, exempted 41941
village, or local school district which has more than twenty-five 41942
thousand pupils in average daily membership. Such resolution of 41943
transfer shall be adopted only after the board of education of the 41944
receiving school district has adopted a resolution approving the 41945
proposed transfer. For the purposes of this division, the assessed 41946
value shall be as certified in accordance with section 3317.021 of 41947
the Revised Code.41948

       (C) Upon the making of a transfer of an entire school 41949
district pursuant to this section, the indebtedness of the 41950
district transferred shall be assumed in full by the acquiring 41951
district and the funds of the district transferred shall be paid 41952
over in full to the acquiring district, except that any 41953
indebtedness of the transferred district incurred as a result of a 41954
loan made under section 3317.64 of the Revised Code is hereby 41955
canceled and shall not be assumed by the acquiring district.41956

       (D) Upon the making of a transfer pursuant to this section, 41957
when only part of a district is transferred, the net indebtedness 41958
of each original district of which only a part is taken by the 41959
acquiring district shall be apportioned between the acquiring 41960
district and the original district in the ratio which the assessed 41961
valuation of the part taken by the acquiring district bears to the 41962
assessed valuation of the original district as of the effective 41963
date of the transfer. As used in this section "net indebtedness" 41964
means the difference between the par value of the outstanding and 41965
unpaid bonds and notes of the school district and the amount held 41966
in the sinking fund and other indebtedness retirement funds for 41967
their redemption.41968

       (E) Upon the making of a transfer pursuant to this section, 41969
when only part of a district is transferred, the funds of the 41970
district from which territory was transferred shall be divided 41971
equitably by the state board between the acquiring district and 41972
that part of the former district remaining after the transfer.41973

       (F) If an entire school district is transferred, the board of 41974
education of such district is thereby abolished. If part of a 41975
school district is transferred, any member of the board of 41976
education who is a legal resident of that part which is 41977
transferred shall thereby cease to be a member of that board.41978

       If an entire school district is transferred, foundation 41979
program moneys accruing to a district accepting school territory 41980
under the provisions of this section shall not be less, in any 41981
year during the next succeeding three years following the 41982
transfer, than the sum of the amounts received by the districts 41983
separately in the year in which the transfer became effective.41984

       Sec. 3311.78.  Notwithstanding any provision of the Revised 41985
Code to the contrary, a municipal school district shall be subject 41986
to this section instead of sections 3317.13, 3317.14, and 3317.141 41987
of the Revised Code.41988

       (A) As used in this section, "principal" includes an 41989
assistant principal.41990

       (B) The board of education of each municipal school district 41991
annually shall adopt a differentiated salary schedule for teachers 41992
based upon performance as described in division (D) of this 41993
section. The board also annually shall adopt a differentiated 41994
salary schedule for principals based upon performance as described 41995
in division (D) of this section.41996

       For each teacher or principal hired on or after the effective 41997
date of this sectionOctober 1, 2012, the board shall determine 41998
the teacher's or principal's initial placement on the applicable 41999
salary schedule based on years of experience and area of licensure 42000
and any other factors the board considers appropriate. For each 42001
teacher hired prior to the effective date of this sectionOctober 42002
1, 2012, the board shall initially place the teacher on the 42003
applicable salary schedule so that the teacher's annual salary on 42004
the schedule is comparable to the teacher's annual salary for the 42005
school year immediately prior to the school year covered by the 42006
schedule. For each principal hired prior to the effective date of 42007
this sectionOctober 1, 2012, the board shall initially place the 42008
principal on the applicable salary schedule consistent with the 42009
principal's employment contract.42010

       (C) The salary of a teacher shall not be reduced unless such 42011
reduction is accomplished as part of a negotiated collective 42012
bargaining agreement. The salary of a principal shall not be 42013
reduced during the term of the principal's employment contract 42014
unless such reduction is by mutual agreement of the board and the 42015
principal or is part of a uniform plan affecting the entire 42016
district.42017

       (D) For purposes of the schedules, the board shall measure a 42018
teacher's or principal's performance by considering all of the 42019
following:42020

       (1) The level of license issued under section 3319.22 of the 42021
Revised Code that the teacher or principal holds;42022

       (2) Whether the teacher or principal is a highly qualified 42023
teacher, as defined in section 3319.074 of the Revised Code;42024

       (3) Ratings received by the teacher or principal on 42025
performance evaluations conducted under section 3311.80 or 3311.84 42026
of the Revised Code;42027

       (4) Any specialized training and experience in the assigned 42028
position.42029

       (E) The salary schedules adopted under this section may 42030
provide for additional compensation for teachers or principals who 42031
perform duties, not contracted for under a supplemental contract, 42032
that the board determines warrant additional compensation. Those 42033
duties may include, but are not limited to, assignment to a school 42034
building eligible for funding under Title I of the "Elementary and 42035
Secondary Education Act of 1965," 20 U.S.C. 6301 et seq.; 42036
assignment to a building in "school improvement" status under the 42037
"No Child Left Behind Act of 2001," as defined in section 3302.01 42038
of the Revised Code; teaching in a grade level or subject area in 42039
which the board has determined there is a shortage within the 42040
district; assignment to a hard-to-staff school, as determined by 42041
the board; or teaching in a school with an extended school day or 42042
school year.42043

       (F) The chief executive officer of the district, or the chief 42044
executive officer's designee, annually shall review the salary of 42045
each teacher and principal and make a recommendation to the board. 42046
Based on the recommendation, the board may increase a teacher's or 42047
principal's salary based on the teacher's or principal's 42048
performance and duties as provided for in divisions (D) and (E) of 42049
this section. The performance-based increase for a teacher or 42050
principal rated as accomplished shall be greater than the 42051
performance-based increase for a teacher or principal rated as 42052
proficient. Notwithstanding division (C) of this section, division 42053
(C) of section 3319.02, and section 3319.12 of the Revised Code, 42054
the board may decrease the teacher's or principal's salary if the 42055
teacher or principal will perform fewer or different duties 42056
described in division (E) of this section in the school year for 42057
which the salary is decreased.42058

       (G) Notwithstanding any provision to the contrary in Chapter 42059
4117. of the Revised Code, the requirements of this section 42060
prevail over any conflicting provisions of a collective bargaining 42061
agreement entered into on or after the effective date of this 42062
sectionOctober 1, 2012. However, the board and the teachers' 42063
labor organization shall negotiate the implementation of the 42064
differentiated salary schedule for teachers and may negotiate 42065
additional factors regarding teacher salaries, provided those 42066
factors are consistent with this section.42067

       Sec. 3312.08.  Each fiscal agent selected by the department 42068
of education pursuant to section 3312.07 of the Revised Code shall 42069
do all of the following:42070

       (A) Enter into performance contracts with the department in 42071
accordance with section 3312.09 of the Revised Code for the 42072
implementation of state and regional education initiatives and 42073
school improvement efforts;42074

       (B) Receive federal and state funds, including federal funds 42075
for the provision of special education and related services, as 42076
specified in the performance contracts, and disburse those funds 42077
as specified in the performance contracts to educational service 42078
centers, information technology centers, and other regional 42079
service providers. However, any funds owed to an educational 42080
service center in accordance with an agreement entered into under 42081
section 3317.113313.843, 3313.844, or 3313.845 of the Revised 42082
Code shall be paid directly to the service center by the 42083
department in accordance with that section and any operating funds 42084
appropriated for an information technology center shall be paid 42085
directly to the information technology center by the department 42086
pursuant to section 3301.075 of the Revised Code.42087

       (C) Implement any expenditure of funds recommended by the 42088
advisory council for the region pursuant to section 3312.04 of the 42089
Revised Code or required by the terms of any performance contract, 42090
unless there are insufficient funds available to the region to pay 42091
for the expenditure or the expenditure violates a provision of the 42092
Revised Code, a rule of the state board of education regarding 42093
such expenditure, or the terms of a performance contract;42094

       (D) Exercise fiscal oversight of the implementation of state 42095
and regional education initiatives and school improvement efforts.42096

       Sec. 3313.372.  (A) As used in this section, "energy 42097
conservation measure" means an installation or modification of an 42098
installation in, or remodeling of, a building, to reduce energy 42099
consumption. It includes:42100

       (1) Insulation of the building structure and systems within 42101
the building;42102

       (2) Storm windows and doors, multiglazed windows and doors, 42103
heat absorbing or heat reflective glazed and coated window and 42104
door systems, additional glazing, reductions in glass area, and 42105
other window and door system modifications that reduce energy 42106
consumption;42107

       (3) Automatic energy control systems;42108

       (4) Heating, ventilating, or air conditioning system 42109
modifications or replacements;42110

       (5) Caulking and weatherstripping;42111

       (6) Replacement or modification of lighting fixtures to 42112
increase the energy efficiency of the system without increasing 42113
the overall illumination of a facility, unless such increase in 42114
illumination is necessary to conform to the applicable state or 42115
local building code for the proposed lighting system;42116

       (7) Energy recovery systems;42117

       (8) Cogeneration systems that produce steam or forms of 42118
energy such as heat, as well as electricity, for use primarily 42119
within a building or complex of buildings;42120

       (9) Any other modification, installation, or remodeling 42121
approved by the Ohio school facilities commission as an energy 42122
conservation measure.42123

       (B) A board of education of a city, exempted village, local, 42124
or joint vocational school district may enter into an installment 42125
payment contract for the purchase and installation of energy 42126
conservation measures. The provisions of such installment payment 42127
contracts dealing with interest charges and financing terms shall 42128
not be subject to the competitive bidding requirements of section 42129
3313.46 of the Revised Code, and shall be on the following terms:42130

       (1) Not less than one-fifteenth of the costs thereof shall be 42131
paid within two years from the date of purchase.42132

       (2) The remaining balance of the costs thereof shall be paid 42133
within fifteen years from the date of purchase.42134

       The provisions of any installment payment contract entered 42135
into pursuant to this section shall provide that all payments, 42136
except payments for repairs and obligations on termination of the 42137
contract prior to its expiration, be stated as a percentage of 42138
calculated energy, water, or waste water cost savings, avoided 42139
operating costs, and avoided capital costs attributable to the one 42140
or more measures over a defined period of time. Those payments 42141
shall be made only to the extent that the savings described in 42142
this division actually occur. The contractor shall warrant and 42143
guarantee that the energy conservation measures shall realize 42144
guaranteed savings. In order to ensure payment of any savings 42145
shortfall, the contractor shall provide an energy guarantee bond 42146
for the full term of the contract, including any partial guarantee 42147
year.42148

        The commission may reduce the term of any installment payment 42149
contract entered into under this section on or after the effective 42150
date of this amendment to three years. 42151

       An installment payment contract entered into by a board of 42152
education under this section shall require the board to contract 42153
in accordance with division (A) of section 3313.46 of the Revised 42154
Code for the installation, modification, or remodeling of energy 42155
conservation measures unless division (A) of section 3313.46 of 42156
the Revised Code does not apply pursuant to division (B)(3) of 42157
that section.42158

       (C) The board may issue the notes of the school district 42159
signed by the president and the treasurer of the board and 42160
specifying the terms of the purchase and securing the deferred 42161
payments provided in this section, payable at the times provided 42162
and bearing interest at a rate not exceeding the rate determined 42163
as provided in section 9.95 of the Revised Code. The notes may 42164
contain an option for prepayment and shall not be subject to 42165
Chapter 133. of the Revised Code. In the resolution authorizing 42166
the notes, the board may provide, without the vote of the electors 42167
of the district, for annually levying and collecting taxes in 42168
amounts sufficient to pay the interest on and retire the notes, 42169
except that the total net indebtedness of the district without a 42170
vote of the electors incurred under this and all other sections of 42171
the Revised Code, except section 3318.052 of the Revised Code, 42172
shall not exceed one per cent of the district's tax valuation. 42173
Revenues derived from local taxes or otherwise, for the purpose of 42174
conserving energy or for defraying the current operating expenses 42175
of the district, may be applied to the payment of interest and the 42176
retirement of such notes. The notes may be sold at private sale or 42177
given to the contractor under the installment payment contract 42178
authorized by division (B) of this section.42179

       (D) Debt incurred under this section shall not be included in 42180
the calculation of the net indebtedness of a school district under 42181
section 133.06 of the Revised Code.42182

       (E) No school district board shall enter into an installment 42183
payment contract under division (B) of this section unless it 42184
first obtains a report of the costs of the energy conservation 42185
measures and the savings thereof as described under division (G) 42186
of section 133.06 of the Revised Code as a requirement for issuing 42187
energy securities, makes a finding that the amount spent on such 42188
measures is not likely to exceed the amount of money it would save 42189
in energy costs and resultant operational and maintenance costs as 42190
described in that division, except that that finding shall cover 42191
the ensuing fifteen years, and the Ohio school facilities 42192
commission determines that the district board's findings are 42193
reasonable and approves the contract as described in that 42194
division.42195

       The district board shall monitor the savings and maintain a 42196
report of those savings, which shall be submitted to the 42197
commission in the same manner as required by division (G) of 42198
section 133.06 of the Revised Code in the case of energy 42199
securities.42200

       Sec. 3313.376.  As used in this section, "client school 42201
district" has the same meaning as in section 3317.11 of the 42202
Revised Codemeans a city, exempted village, or local school 42203
district that has entered into an agreement under section 3313.843 42204
or 3313.845 of the Revised Code to receive any services from an 42205
educational service center.42206

       For the purpose of obtaining quantity discounts in purchasing 42207
textbooks; computer equipment, including computer software; school 42208
buses; and natural gas, electricity, and other utility services, 42209
the governing boards of two or more educational service centers 42210
may enter into agreements, including installment purchase and 42211
lease-purchase contracts, to jointly purchase such commodities to 42212
be utilized by client school districts of the educational service 42213
centers.42214

       Sec. 3313.42.  (A) When in the judgment of a board of 42215
education of any school district in this state, lying adjacent to 42216
a school district of another state, the best interests of the 42217
public schools can be promoted by purchasing school grounds, 42218
repairing or erecting a schoolhouse, and maintaining them jointly 42219
between the two adjacent school districts, the board of education 42220
of the school district of this state so situated may enter into an 42221
agreement with the school authorities of said adjacent school 42222
district for the purpose of purchasing school grounds, repairing 42223
or constructing a school building, purchasing school furniture, 42224
equipment, appliances, fuel, employing teachers, and maintaining a 42225
school. The board of education of this state may levy taxes and 42226
perform such other duties in maintaining such joint school as are 42227
otherwise provided by law for maintaining the public schools in 42228
this state.42229

       In carrying out this section the school district shall pay 42230
such proportion of the cost of purchasing school grounds, 42231
repairing or erecting a building, and in maintaining the joint 42232
school as is equitable and just in the judgment of the board of 42233
education and trustees of the two adjacent school districts.42234

       (B) In any school district that has entered into an agreement 42235
under division (A) of this section, the state minimum teacher 42236
salary requirements prescribed by section 3317.13 of the Revised 42237
Code do not apply if the total expenditures by the school district 42238
for teacher salaries in any school year equals or exceeds the 42239
total minimum expenditures that would have been required in that 42240
year if such minimum teacher salary requirements did apply.42241

       (C) Notwithstanding sections 3319.01, 3319.02, and 3313.22 of 42242
the Revised Code, the board of education of a local school 42243
district that has entered into an agreement with an adjacent 42244
school district in another state under division (A) of this 42245
section may contract with the educational service center within 42246
which the local school district is located for the service center 42247
to provide any administrative services specified in the agreement 42248
to the local school district and the adjacent district. If such an 42249
agreement provides for the duties of a district treasurer, 42250
superintendent, or principals to be performed by the service 42251
center, the local school district is not required to employ 42252
persons to perform such duties.42253

       Sec. 3313.48. (A) The board of education of each city, 42254
exempted village, local, and joint vocational school district 42255
shall provide for the free education of the youth of school age 42256
within the district under its jurisdiction, at such places as will 42257
be most convenient for the attendance of the largest number 42258
thereof. Except as provided in section 3313.481 of the Revised 42259
Code, eachEach school so provided and each chartered nonpublic 42260
school shall be open for instruction with pupils in attendance, 42261
including scheduled classes, supervised activities, and approved 42262
education options but excluding lunch and breakfast periods and 42263
extracurricular activities, for not less than one hundred 42264
eighty-two daysfour hundred fifty-five hours in the case of 42265
pupils in kindergarten unless such pupils are provided all-day 42266
kindergarten, as defined in section 3321.05 of the Revised Code, 42267
in which case the pupils shall be in attendance for nine hundred 42268
ten hours; nine hundred ten hours in the case of pupils in grades 42269
one through six; and one thousand one hours in the case of pupils 42270
in grades seven through twelve in each school year, which may 42271
include all of the following:42272

       (A)(1) Up to fourthe equivalent of two school days per year 42273
in which classes are dismissed one-half day early or the 42274
equivalent amount of time during a different number of daysduring 42275
which pupils would otherwise be in attendance but are not required 42276
to attend for the purpose of individualized parent-teacher 42277
conferences and reporting periods;42278

       (B)(2) Up to the equivalent of two school days per year 42279
during which pupils would otherwise be in attendance but are not 42280
required to attend for professional meetings of teachers when such 42281
days occur during a regular school week and schools are not in 42282
session;42283

       (C) The number of days the school is closed as a result of 42284
public calamity, as provided in section 3317.01 of the Revised 42285
Code(3) Morning and afternoon recess periods of not more than 42286
fifteen minutes duration per period for pupils in grades 42287
kindergarten through six.42288

       The state board of education shall adopt standards for 42289
defining "school day" as used in sections 3313.48 and 3317.01 of 42290
the Revised Code.42291

       Except as otherwise provided in this section, each day for 42292
grades seven through twelve shall consist of not less than five 42293
clock hours with pupils in attendance, except in such emergency 42294
situations, including lack of classroom space, as are approved by 42295
the state board of education. Except as otherwise provided in this 42296
section, each day for grades one through six shall consist of not 42297
less than five clock hours with pupils in attendance which may 42298
include fifteen minute morning and afternoon recess periods, 42299
except in such emergency situations, including lack of classroom 42300
space, as are approved by the state board of education.42301

       (B) Not later than thirty days prior to adopting a school 42302
calendar, the board of education of each city, exempted village, 42303
and local school district shall hold a public hearing on the 42304
school calendar, addressing topics that include, but are not 42305
limited to, the total number of hours in a school year, length of 42306
school day, and beginning and end dates of instruction. Each board 42307
shall publish notice of the hearing in a newspaper of general 42308
circulation in the district not later than thirty days prior to 42309
the hearing.42310

        (C) No school operated by a city, exempted village, local, or 42311
joint vocational school district shall reduce the number of hours 42312
in each school year that the school is scheduled to be open for 42313
instruction from the number of hours per year the school was open 42314
for instruction during the previous school year unless the 42315
reduction is approved by a resolution adopted by the district 42316
board of education. Any reduction so approved shall not result in 42317
fewer hours of instruction per school year than the applicable 42318
number of hours required under division (A) of this section.42319

       (D) Prior to making any change in the hours or days in which 42320
a high school under its jurisdiction is open for instruction, the 42321
board of education of each city, exempted village, and local 42322
school district shall consider the compatibility of the proposed 42323
change with the scheduling needs of any joint vocational school 42324
district in which any of the high school's students are also 42325
enrolled. The board shall consider the impact of the proposed 42326
change on student access to the instructional programs offered by 42327
the joint vocational school district, incentives for students to 42328
participate in career-technical education, transportation, and the 42329
timing of graduation. The board shall provide the joint vocational 42330
school district board with advance notice of the proposed change 42331
and the two boards shall enter into a written agreement 42332
prescribing reasonable accommodations to meet the scheduling needs 42333
of the joint vocational school district prior to implementation of 42334
the change.42335

       (E) Prior to making any change in the hours or days in which 42336
a school under its jurisdiction is open for instruction, the board 42337
of education of each city, exempted village, and local school 42338
district shall consider the compatibility of the proposed change 42339
with the scheduling needs of any community school established 42340
under Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code to which the district is 42341
required to transport students under sections 3314.09 and 3327.01 42342
of the Revised Code. The board shall consider the impact of the 42343
proposed change on student access to the instructional programs 42344
offered by the community school, transportation, and the timing of 42345
graduation. The board shall provide the sponsor, governing 42346
authority, and operator of the community school with advance 42347
notice of the proposed change, and the board and the governing 42348
authority, or operator if such authority is delegated to the 42349
operator, shall enter into a written agreement prescribing 42350
reasonable accommodations to meet the scheduling needs of the 42351
community school prior to implementation of the change.42352

       (F) Prior to making any change in the hours or days in which 42353
the schools under its jurisdiction are open for instruction, the 42354
board of education of each city, exempted village, and local 42355
school district shall consult with the chartered nonpublic schools 42356
to which the district is required to transport students under 42357
section 3327.01 of the Revised Code and shall consider the effect 42358
of the proposed change on the schedule for transportation of those 42359
students to their nonpublic schools. The governing authority of a 42360
chartered nonpublic school shall consult with each school district 42361
board of education that transports students to the chartered 42362
nonpublic school under section 3327.01 of the Revised Code prior 42363
to making any change in the hours or days in which the nonpublic 42364
school is open for instruction.42365

       (G) The state board of education shall not adopt or enforce 42366
any rule or standard that imposes on chartered nonpublic schools 42367
the procedural requirements imposed on school districts by 42368
divisions (B), (C), (D), and (E) of this section.42369

       Sec. 3313.481. Wherever in Title XXXIII of the Revised Code 42370
the term "school day" is used, unless otherwise specified, that 42371
term shall be construed to mean the time during a calendar day 42372
that a school is open for instruction pursuant to the schedule 42373
adopted by the board of education of the school district or the 42374
governing authority of the chartered nonpublic school in 42375
accordance with section 3313.48 of the Revised Code.42376

       Sec. 3313.483.  (A) A board of education, upon the adoption 42377
of a resolution stating that it may be financially unable to open 42378
on the day or to remain open for instruction on all days set forth 42379
in its adopted school calendar and pay all obligated expenses, or 42380
the superintendent of public instruction upon the issuance of 42381
written notification under division (B) of section 3313.489 of the 42382
Revised Code, shall request the auditor of state to determine 42383
whether such situation exists. The auditor shall deliver a copy of 42384
each request from a board of education to the superintendent of 42385
public instruction. In the case of a school district not under a 42386
fiscal emergency pursuant to Chapter 3316. of the Revised Code the 42387
auditor shall not issue a finding under this section until written 42388
notification is received from the superintendent pursuant to 42389
section 3313.487 of the Revised Code.42390

       (B) If the auditor of state finds that the board of education 42391
has attempted to avail itself to the fullest extent authorized by 42392
law of all lawful revenue sources available to it except those 42393
authorized by section 5705.21 of the Revised Code, the auditor 42394
shall certify that finding to the superintendent of public 42395
instruction and the state board of education and shall certify the 42396
operating deficit the district will have at the end of the fiscal 42397
year if it commences or continues operating its instructional 42398
program in accordance with its adopted school calendar and pays 42399
all obligated expenses.42400

       (C) No board of education may delay the opening of its 42401
schools or close its schools for financial reasons. Upon the 42402
request of the superintendent of public instruction, the attorney 42403
general shall seek injunctive relief and any other relief required 42404
to enforce this prohibition in the court of common pleas of 42405
Franklin county. The court of common pleas of Franklin county has 42406
exclusive original jurisdiction over all such actions.42407

       (D) Upon the receipt of any certification of an operating 42408
deficit from the auditor of state, a board of education shall make 42409
application to a commercial bank, underwriter, or other 42410
prospective lender or purchaser of its obligations for a loan in 42411
an amount sufficient to enable the district to open or remain open 42412
for instruction on all days set forth in its adopted school 42413
calendar but not to exceed the amount of the deficit certified.42414

       (E)(1) Any board of education that has applied for and been 42415
denied a loan from a commercial bank, underwriter, or other 42416
prospective lender or purchaser of its obligations pursuant to 42417
division (D) of this section shall submit to the superintendent of 42418
public instruction a plan for implementing reductions in the 42419
school district's budget; apply for a loan from a commercial bank, 42420
underwriter, or other prospective lender or purchaser of its 42421
obligations in an amount not to exceed its certified deficit; and 42422
provide the superintendent such information as the superintendent 42423
requires concerning its application for such a loan. The board of 42424
education of a school district declared to be under a fiscal watch 42425
pursuant to division (A) of section 3316.03 of the Revised Code 42426
may, upon approval of the superintendent, utilize the financial 42427
plan required by section 3316.04 of the Revised Code, or 42428
applicable parts thereof, as the plan required under this 42429
division. The board of education of a school district declared to 42430
be under a fiscal emergency pursuant to division (B) of section 42431
3316.03 of the Revised Code may utilize the financial recovery 42432
plan for the district, or applicable parts thereof, as the plan 42433
required under this division. Except for the plan of a school 42434
district under a fiscal emergency, the superintendent shall 42435
evaluate, make recommendations concerning, and approve or 42436
disapprove each plan. When a plan is submitted, the superintendent 42437
shall immediately notify the members of the general assembly whose 42438
legislative districts include any or all of the territory of the 42439
school district submitting the plan.42440

       (2) The superintendent shall submit to the controlling board 42441
a copy of each plan the superintendent approves, or each plan 42442
submitted by a district under a fiscal emergency pursuant to 42443
division (B) of section 3316.03 of the Revised Code, and the 42444
general terms of each proposed loan, and shall make 42445
recommendations regarding the plan and whether a proposed loan to 42446
the board of education should be approved for payment as provided 42447
in division (E)(3) of this section. The controlling board shall 42448
approve or disapprove the plan and the proposed loan presented to 42449
it by the superintendent. In the case of a district not under a 42450
fiscal emergency pursuant to division (B) of section 3316.03 of 42451
the Revised Code, the controlling board may require a board of 42452
education to implement the superintendent's recommendations for 42453
expenditure reductions or impose other requirements. Loan 42454
repayments shall be in accordance with a schedule approved by the 42455
superintendent, except that the principal amount of the loan shall 42456
be payable in monthly, semiannual, or annual installments of 42457
principal and interest that are substantially equal principal and 42458
interest installments. Except as otherwise provided in division 42459
(E)(2) of this section, repayment shall be made no later than the 42460
fifteenth day of June of the second fiscal year following the 42461
approval of the loan. A school district with a certified deficit 42462
in excess of either twenty-five million dollars or fifteen per 42463
cent of the general fund expenditures of the district during the 42464
fiscal year shall repay the loan no later than the fifteenth day 42465
of June of the tenth fiscal year following the approval of the 42466
loan. In deciding whether to approve or disapprove a proposed 42467
loan, the controlling board shall consider the deficit certified 42468
by the auditor of state pursuant to this section. A board of 42469
education that has an outstanding loan approved pursuant to this 42470
section with a repayment date of more than two fiscal years after 42471
the date of approval of such loan may not apply for another loan 42472
with such a repayment date until the outstanding loan has been 42473
repaid.42474

       (3) If a board of education has submitted and received 42475
controlling board approval of a plan and proposed loan in 42476
accordance with this section, the superintendent of public 42477
instruction shall report to the controlling board the actual 42478
amounts loaned to the board of education. Such board of education 42479
shall request the superintendent to pay any funds the board of 42480
education would otherwise receive pursuant to Chapter 3306. of the 42481
Revised Code first directly to the holders of the board of 42482
education's notes, or an agent thereof, such amounts as are 42483
specified under the terms of the loan. Such payments shall be made 42484
only from and to the extent of money appropriated by the general 42485
assembly for purposes of such sections. No note or other 42486
obligation of the board of education under the loan constitutes an 42487
obligation nor a debt or a pledge of the faith, credit, or taxing 42488
power of the state, and the holder or owner of such note or 42489
obligation has no right to have taxes levied by the general 42490
assembly for the payment of such note or obligation, and such note 42491
or obligation shall contain a statement to that effect.42492

       (4) Pursuant to the terms of such a loan, a board of 42493
education may issue its notes in anticipation of the collection of 42494
its voted levies for current expenses or its receipt of such state 42495
funds or both. Such notes shall be issued in accordance with 42496
division (E) of section 133.10 of the Revised Code and constitute 42497
Chapter 133. securities to the extent such division and the 42498
otherwise applicable provisions of Chapter 133. of the Revised 42499
Code are not inconsistent with this section, provided that in any 42500
event sections 133.24 and 5705.21 and divisions (A), (B), (C), and 42501
(E)(2) of section 133.10 of the Revised Code do not apply to such 42502
notes.42503

       (5) Notwithstanding section 133.36 or 3313.17, any other 42504
section of the Revised Code, or any other provision of law, a 42505
board of education that has received a loan under this section may 42506
not declare bankruptcy, so long as any portion of such loan 42507
remains unpaid.42508

       (F) Under this section and sectionssection 3313.4810 and 42509
3313.4811, "board of education" or "district board" includes the 42510
financial planning and supervision commission of a school district 42511
under a fiscal emergency pursuant to Chapter 3316. of the Revised 42512
Code where such commission chooses to exercise the powers and 42513
duties otherwise required of the district board of education under 42514
this section and sectionssection 3313.4810 and 3313.4811 of the 42515
Revised Code.42516

       Sec. 3313.484.  No loan shall be approved under sections 42517
3313.483 to 3313.48113313.4810 of the Revised Code after March 1, 42518
1998.42519

       By the last day of June each year, the department of 42520
education shall calculate and pay a subsidy to every school 42521
district that during the current fiscal year paid and was 42522
obligated to pay interest on a loan under sections 3313.483 to 42523
3313.48113313.4810 of the Revised Code in excess of two per cent 42524
simple interest. The amount of the subsidy shall equal the 42525
difference between the amount of interest the district paid and 42526
was obligated to pay during the year and the interest that the 42527
district would have been obligated to pay if the interest rate on 42528
the loan had been two per cent per year.42529

       Sec. 3313.488.  (A) Within fifteen days ofafter the date a 42530
board of education requests that its school district be made 42531
subject to this section as authorized by section 3317.62 of the 42532
Revised Code, or the state board of education has issuedissues an 42533
order under section 3313.487 of the Revised Code making a school 42534
district subject to this section, the district's board of 42535
education shall prepare a fiscal statement of expenses and 42536
expenditures for the remainder of the current fiscal year. The 42537
fiscal statement shall be submitted to the superintendent of 42538
public instruction and shall set forth all revenues to be received 42539
by the district during the remainder of the fiscal year and their 42540
sources, the expenses to be incurred by the district during the 42541
remainder of the fiscal year, the outstanding and unpaid expenses 42542
at the time the fiscal statement is prepared and the date or dates 42543
by which such expenses must be paid, and such other information as 42544
the superintendent requires to enable the superintendent to ensure 42545
that during the remainder of the fiscal year, the district will 42546
not incur any expenses that will further impair its ability to 42547
operate an instructional program that meets or exceeds the minimum 42548
standards of the state board of education and requirements of the 42549
Revised Code during the current and ensuing fiscal years with the 42550
revenue available to it from existing revenue sources. The fiscal 42551
statement shall be presented in such detail and form as the 42552
superintendent prescribes. Beginning the tenth day after the 42553
fiscal statement is submitted and for the remainder of the fiscal 42554
year, the board shall not make any expenditure of money, make any 42555
employment, purchase, or rental contract, give any order involving 42556
the expenditure of money, or increase any wage or salary schedule 42557
unless the superintendent of public instruction has approved the 42558
fiscal statement in writing and the expenditure, contract, order, 42559
or schedule has been approved in writing by the superintendent as 42560
being in conformity with the fiscal statement.42561

       Any contract or expenditure made, order given, or schedule 42562
adopted or put into effect without the written approval of the 42563
superintendent of public instruction is void, and no warrant shall 42564
be issued in payment of any amount due thereon.42565

       (B) A board of education subject to division (A) of this 42566
section shall prepare a fiscal statement of expenses and 42567
expenditures for the ensuing fiscal year. The fiscal statement 42568
shall be submitted to the superintendent of public instruction and 42569
shall set forth all revenues to be received by the district during 42570
such year and their source, the expenses to be incurred by the 42571
district during such year, the outstanding and unpaid expenses on 42572
the first day of such fiscal year, the date or dates by which such 42573
expenses must be paid, and such other information as the 42574
superintendent requires to enable the superintendent to ensure 42575
that during such year, the district will not incur any expenses 42576
that will further impair its ability to operate an instructional 42577
program that meets or exceeds the minimum standards of the state 42578
board of education and requirements of the Revised Code during 42579
such year with the revenue available to it from existing revenue 42580
sources. The fiscal statement shall be presented at the time and 42581
in such detail and form as the superintendent prescribes. During 42582
the fiscal year following the year in which a board of education 42583
first becomes subject to division (A) of this section it shall not 42584
make any expenditure of money, make any employment, purchase, or 42585
rental contract, give any order involving the expenditure of 42586
money, or increase any wage or salary schedule unless the 42587
superintendent of public instruction has approved the fiscal 42588
statement submitted under this division in writing and has 42589
approved the expenditure, contract, order, or schedule in writing 42590
as being in conformity with the fiscal statement.42591

       Any contract or expenditure made, order given, or schedule 42592
adopted or put into effect without the written approval of the 42593
superintendent of public instruction is void, and no warrant shall 42594
be issued in payment of any amount due thereon.42595

       (C) The state board of education shall examine any fiscal 42596
statement presented to and approved by the superintendent of 42597
public instruction under division (B) of this section and shall 42598
determine whether the data set forth in the fiscal statement are 42599
factual and based upon assumptions that in its judgment are 42600
reasonable expectations consistent with acceptable governmental 42601
budget and accounting practices. If the state board so determines 42602
and finds that the revenues and expenditures in the fiscal 42603
statement are in balance for the fiscal year and the fiscal 42604
statement will enable the district to operate during such year 42605
without interrupting its school calendar, it shall certify its 42606
determination and finding to the district at least thirty days 42607
prior to the beginning of the fiscal year, and the district shall 42608
thereupon cease to be subject to this section. If the state board 42609
does not make such a determination and finding, the board of 42610
education and school district are subject to this division and 42611
division (B) of this section in the ensuing fiscal year and each 42612
fiscal year thereafter until the state board makes a 42613
determination, finding, and certification under this division.42614

       (D) Any officer, employee, or other person who knowingly 42615
expends or authorizes the expenditure of any public funds or 42616
knowingly authorizes or executes any contract, order, or schedule 42617
contrary to division (A) or (B) of this section or who knowingly 42618
expends or authorizes the expenditure of any public funds on any 42619
such void contract, order, or schedule is jointly and severally 42620
liable in person and upon any official bond that the officer, 42621
employee, or other person has given to such school district to the 42622
extent of any payments on the void claim, not to exceed twenty 42623
thousand dollars. The attorney general at the written request of 42624
the superintendent of public instruction shall enforce this 42625
liability by civil action brought in any court of appropriate 42626
jurisdiction in the name of and on behalf of the school district.42627

       (E) During each month that a board of education is subject to 42628
division (A), (B), or (C) of this section, the superintendent of 42629
public instruction shall submit a report to the speaker of the 42630
house of representatives and the president of the senate on the 42631
financial condition of the school district. The report shall 42632
contain the date by which the superintendent anticipates the 42633
district will cease to be subject to such divisions, the 42634
district's plans for becoming exempt from such section, and such 42635
other information the superintendent determines appropriate or the 42636
speaker of the house of representatives or president of the senate 42637
requests.42638

       In addition to the other reports required under this 42639
division, on the thirty-first day of each school district fiscal 42640
year following a fiscal year in which a school district first 42641
becomes subject to this section, the superintendent shall submit a 42642
written report to the speaker of the house of representatives and 42643
the president of the senate. The report shall include 42644
recommendations to the general assembly for strengthening the 42645
financial condition of school districts based upon the experiences 42646
of the superintendent and the state board in exercising their 42647
powers under this section and sections 3313.483 and 3313.487 of 42648
the Revised Code.42649

       (F) This section does not apply to a school district declared 42650
to be under a fiscal emergency pursuant to division (B) of section 42651
3316.03 of the Revised Code.42652

       Sec. 3313.4810.  Any school district receiving a loan under 42653
section 3313.483 or 3317.64 of the Revised Code in excess of seven 42654
per cent of the general fund expenditures of the district during 42655
the fiscal year in which the loan is received and that has 42656
received a loan under that section within the last five years is 42657
subject to section 3313.488 of the Revised Code for the duration 42658
of the fiscal year in which the district receives the loan and 42659
during the ensuing two fiscal years. The controlling board may not 42660
relieve a school district to which this section applies from any 42661
requirements imposed under section 3313.483 or 3317.64 of the 42662
Revised Code to implement recommendations of the superintendent of 42663
public instruction for expenditure reduction and may not modify 42664
any other requirements imposed under such section upon such a 42665
district as a condition for receiving the loan unless expressly 42666
authorized to do so by law. The superintendent of public 42667
instruction shall, among any recommendations hethe superintendent42668
makes for expenditure reduction under section 3313.483 or 3317.6342669
of the Revised Code affecting the number of employees of a school 42670
district to which this section applies, provide wherever possible 42671
for the retention of teachers who are actually involved in the 42672
daily teaching of students in the classroom.42673

       Sec. 3313.533.  (A) The board of education of a city, 42674
exempted village, or local school district may adopt a resolution 42675
to establish and maintain an alternative school in accordance with 42676
this section. The resolution shall specify, but not necessarily be 42677
limited to, all of the following:42678

       (1) The purpose of the school, which purpose shall be to 42679
serve students who are on suspension, who are having truancy 42680
problems, who are experiencing academic failure, who have a 42681
history of class disruption, who are exhibiting other academic or 42682
behavioral problems specified in the resolution, or who have been 42683
discharged or released from the custody of the department of youth 42684
services under section 5139.51 of the Revised Code;42685

       (2) The grades served by the school, which may include any of 42686
grades kindergarten through twelve;42687

       (3) A requirement that the school be operated in accordance 42688
with this section. The board of education adopting the resolution 42689
under division (A) of this section shall be the governing board of 42690
the alternative school. The board shall develop and implement a 42691
plan for the school in accordance with the resolution establishing 42692
the school and in accordance with this section. Each plan shall 42693
include, but not necessarily be limited to, all of the following:42694

       (a) Specification of the reasons for which students will be 42695
accepted for assignment to the school and any criteria for 42696
admission that are to be used by the board to approve or 42697
disapprove the assignment of students to the school;42698

       (b) Specification of the criteria and procedures that will be 42699
used for returning students who have been assigned to the school 42700
back to the regular education program of the district;42701

       (c) An evaluation plan for assessing the effectiveness of the 42702
school and its educational program and reporting the results of 42703
the evaluation to the public.42704

       (B) Notwithstanding any provision of Title XXXIII of the 42705
Revised Code to the contrary, the alternative school plan may 42706
include any of the following:42707

       (1) A requirement that on each school day students must 42708
attend school or participate in other programs specified in the 42709
plan or by the chief administrative officer of the school for a 42710
period equal to the minimum school day set by the state board of 42711
education under section 3313.48 of the Revised Code plus any 42712
additional time required in the plan or by the chief 42713
administrative officer;42714

       (2) Restrictions on student participation in extracurricular 42715
or interscholastic activities;42716

       (3) A requirement that students wear uniforms prescribed by 42717
the district board of education.42718

       (C) In accordance with the alternative school plan, the 42719
district board of education may employ teachers and nonteaching 42720
employees necessary to carry out its duties and fulfill its 42721
responsibilities or may contract with a nonprofit or for profit 42722
entity to operate the alternative school, including the provision 42723
of personnel, supplies, equipment, or facilities.42724

       (D) An alternative school may be established in all or part 42725
of a school building.42726

       (E) If a district board of education elects under this 42727
section, or is required by section 3313.534 of the Revised Code, 42728
to establish an alternative school, the district board may join 42729
with the board of education of one or more other districts to form 42730
a joint alternative school by forming a cooperative education 42731
school district under section 3311.52 or 3311.521 of the Revised 42732
Code, or a joint educational program under section 3313.842 of the 42733
Revised Code. The authority to employ personnel or to contract 42734
with a nonprofit or for profit entity under division (C) of this 42735
section applies to any alternative school program established 42736
under this division.42737

       (F) Any individual employed as a teacher at an alternative 42738
school operated by a nonprofit or for profit entity under this 42739
section shall be licensed and shall be subject to background 42740
checks, as described in section 3319.39 of the Revised Code, in 42741
the same manner as an individual employed by a school district.42742

       (G) Division (G) of this section applies only to any 42743
alternative school that is operated by a nonprofit or for profit 42744
entity under contract with the school district.42745

       (1) In addition to the specifications authorized under 42746
division (B) of this section, any plan adopted under that division 42747
for an alternative school to which division (G) of this section 42748
also applies shall include the following:42749

       (a) A description of the educational program provided at the 42750
alternative school, which shall include:42751

       (i) Provisions for the school to be configured in clusters or 42752
small learning communities;42753

       (ii) Provisions for the incorporation of education technology 42754
into the curriculum;42755

       (iii) Provisions for accelerated learning programs in reading 42756
and mathematics.42757

       (b) A method to determine the reading and mathematics level 42758
of each student assigned to the alternative school and a method to 42759
continuously monitor each student's progress in those areas. The 42760
methods employed under this division shall be aligned with the 42761
curriculum adopted by the school district board of education under 42762
section 3313.60 of the Revised Code.42763

       (c) A plan for social services to be provided at the 42764
alternative school, such as, but not limited to, counseling 42765
services, psychological support services, and enrichment programs;42766

       (d) A plan for a student's transition from the alternative 42767
school back to a school operated by the school district;42768

       (e) A requirement that the alternative school maintain 42769
financial records in a manner that is compatible with the form 42770
prescribed for school districts by the auditor of state to enable 42771
the district to comply with any rules adopted by the auditor of 42772
state.42773

       (2) Notwithstanding division (A)(2) of this section, any 42774
alternative school to which division (G) of this section applies 42775
shall include only grades six through twelve.42776

       (3) Notwithstanding anything in division (A)(3)(a) of this 42777
section to the contrary, the characteristics of students who may 42778
be assigned to an alternative school to which division (G) of this 42779
section applies shall include only disruptive and low-performing 42780
students.42781

       (H) When any district board of education determines to 42782
contract with a nonprofit or for profit entity to operate an 42783
alternative school under this section, the board shall use the 42784
procedure set forth in this division.42785

       (1) The board shall publish notice of a request for proposals 42786
in a newspaper of general circulation in the district once each 42787
week for a period of two consecutive weeks, or as provided in 42788
section 7.16 of the Revised Code, prior to the date specified by 42789
the board for receiving proposals. Notices of requests for 42790
proposals shall contain a general description of the subject of 42791
the proposed contract and the location where the request for 42792
proposals may be obtained. The request for proposals shall include 42793
all of the following information:42794

       (a) Instructions and information to respondents concerning 42795
the submission of proposals, including the name and address of the 42796
office where proposals are to be submitted;42797

       (b) Instructions regarding communications, including at least 42798
the names, titles, and telephone numbers of persons to whom 42799
questions concerning a proposal may be directed;42800

       (c) A description of the performance criteria that will be 42801
used to evaluate whether a respondent to which a contract is 42802
awarded is meeting the district's educational standards or the 42803
method by which such performance criteria will be determined;42804

       (d) Factors and criteria to be considered in evaluating 42805
proposals, the relative importance of each factor or criterion, 42806
and a description of the evaluation procedures to be followed;42807

       (e) Any terms or conditions of the proposed contract, 42808
including any requirement for a bond and the amount of such bond;42809

       (f) Documents that may be incorporated by reference into the 42810
request for proposals, provided that the request for proposals 42811
specifies where such documents may be obtained and that such 42812
documents are readily available to all interested parties.42813

       (2) After the date specified for receiving proposals, the 42814
board shall evaluate the submitted proposals and may hold 42815
discussions with any respondent to ensure a complete understanding 42816
of the proposal and the qualifications of such respondent to 42817
execute the proposed contract. Such qualifications shall include, 42818
but are not limited to, all of the following:42819

       (a) Demonstrated competence in performance of the required 42820
services as indicated by effective implementation of educational 42821
programs in reading and mathematics and at least three years of 42822
experience successfully serving a student population similar to 42823
the student population assigned to the alternative school;42824

       (b) Demonstrated performance in the areas of cost 42825
containment, the provision of educational services of a high 42826
quality, and any other areas determined by the board;42827

       (c) Whether the respondent has the resources to undertake the 42828
operation of the alternative school and to provide qualified 42829
personnel to staff the school;42830

       (d) Financial responsibility.42831

       (3) The board shall select for further review at least three 42832
proposals from respondents the board considers qualified to 42833
operate the alternative school in the best interests of the 42834
students and the district. If fewer than three proposals are 42835
submitted, the board shall select each proposal submitted. The 42836
board may cancel a request for proposals or reject all proposals 42837
at any time prior to the execution of a contract.42838

       The board may hold discussions with any of the three selected 42839
respondents to clarify or revise the provisions of a proposal or 42840
the proposed contract to ensure complete understanding between the 42841
board and the respondent of the terms under which a contract will 42842
be entered. Respondents shall be accorded fair and equal treatment 42843
with respect to any opportunity for discussion regarding 42844
clarifications or revisions. The board may terminate or 42845
discontinue any further discussion with a respondent upon written 42846
notice.42847

       (4) Upon further review of the three proposals selected by 42848
the board, the board shall award a contract to the respondent the 42849
board considers to have the most merit, taking into consideration 42850
the scope, complexity, and nature of the services to be performed 42851
by the respondent under the contract.42852

       (5) Except as provided in division (H)(6) of this section, 42853
the request for proposals, submitted proposals, and related 42854
documents shall become public records under section 149.43 of the 42855
Revised Code after the award of the contract.42856

       (6) Any respondent may request in writing that the board not 42857
disclose confidential or proprietary information or trade secrets 42858
contained in the proposal submitted by the respondent to the 42859
board. Any such request shall be accompanied by an offer of 42860
indemnification from the respondent to the board. The board shall 42861
determine whether to agree to the request and shall inform the 42862
respondent in writing of its decision. If the board agrees to 42863
nondisclosure of specified information in a proposal, such 42864
information shall not become a public record under section 149.43 42865
of the Revised Code. If the respondent withdraws its proposal at 42866
any time prior to the execution of a contract, the proposal shall 42867
not be a public record under section 149.43 of the Revised Code.42868

       (I) Upon a recommendation from the department and in 42869
accordance with section 3301.16 of the Revised Code, the state 42870
board of education may revoke the charter of any alternative 42871
school operated by a school district that violates this section.42872

       Sec. 3313.539. (A) As used in this section, "physician":42873

       "Physician" means a person authorized under Chapter 4731. of 42874
the Revised Code to practice medicine and surgery or osteopathic 42875
medicine and surgery.42876

       "Chiropractor" means a person licensed under Chapter 4734. of 42877
the Revised Code to practice chiropractic.42878

       (B) No school district board of education or governing 42879
authority of a chartered or nonchartered nonpublic school shall 42880
permit a student to practice for or compete in interscholastic 42881
athletics until the student has submitted, to a school official 42882
designated by the board or governing authority, a form signed by 42883
the parent, guardian, or other person having care or charge of the 42884
student stating that the student and the parent, guardian, or 42885
other person having care or charge of the student have received 42886
the concussion and head injury information sheet required by 42887
section 3707.52 of the Revised Code. A completed form shall be 42888
submitted each school year, as defined in section 3313.62 of the 42889
Revised Code, for each sport or other category of interscholastic 42890
athletics for or in which the student practices or competes.42891

       (C)(1) No school district board of education or governing 42892
authority of a chartered or nonchartered nonpublic school shall 42893
permit an individual to coach interscholastic athletics unless the 42894
individual holds a pupil-activity program permit issued under 42895
section 3319.303 of the Revised Code for coaching interscholastic 42896
athletics.42897

       (2) No school district board of education or governing 42898
authority of a chartered or nonchartered nonpublic school shall 42899
permit an individual to referee interscholastic athletics unless 42900
the individual holds a pupil-activity program permit issued under 42901
section 3319.303 of the Revised Code for coaching interscholastic 42902
athletics or presents evidence that the individual has 42903
successfully completed, within the previous three years, a 42904
training program in recognizing the symptoms of concussions and 42905
head injuries to which the department of health has provided a 42906
link on its internet web site under section 3707.52 of the Revised 42907
Code or a training program authorized and required by an 42908
organization that regulates interscholastic conferences or events.42909

       (D) If a student practicing for or competing in an 42910
interscholastic athletic event exhibits signs, symptoms, or 42911
behaviors consistent with having sustained a concussion or head 42912
injury while participating in the practice or competition, the 42913
student shall be removed from the practice or competition by 42914
either of the following:42915

        (1) The individual who is serving as the student's coach 42916
during that practice or competition;42917

        (2) An individual who is serving as a referee during that 42918
practice or competition.42919

       (E)(1) If a student is removed from practice or competition 42920
under division (D) of this section, the coach or referee who 42921
removed the student shall not allow the student, on the same day 42922
the student is removed, to return to that practice or competition 42923
or to participate in any other practice or competition for which 42924
the coach or referee is responsible. Thereafter, the coach or 42925
referee shall not allow the student to return to that practice or 42926
competition or to participate in any other practice or competition 42927
for which the coach or referee is responsible until both of the 42928
following conditions are satisfied:42929

       (a) The student's condition is assessed by eitherany of the 42930
following:42931

       (i) A physician;42932

        (ii) A chiropractor;42933

       (iii) Any other licensed health care provider the school 42934
district board of education or governing authority of the 42935
chartered or nonchartered nonpublic school, pursuant to division 42936
(E)(2) of this section, authorizes to assess a student who has 42937
been removed from practice or competition under division (D) of 42938
this section.42939

       (b) The student receives written clearance that it is safe 42940
for the student to return to practice or competition from a 42941
physician, chiropractor, or from another licensed health care 42942
provider authorized pursuant to division (E)(2) of this section to 42943
grant the clearance.42944

       (2) A school district board of education or governing 42945
authority of a chartered or nonchartered nonpublic school may 42946
authorize a licensed health care provider who is not a physician 42947
or a chiropractor to make an assessment or grant a clearance for 42948
purposes of division (E)(1) of this section only if the provider 42949
is acting in accordance with one of the following, as applicable 42950
to the provider's authority to practice in this state:42951

       (a) In consultation with a physician;42952

       (b) Pursuant to the referral of a physician;42953

       (c) In collaboration with a physician;42954

       (d) Under the supervision of a physician.42955

       (3) A physician, chiropractor, or other licensed health care 42956
provider who makes an assessment or grants a clearance for 42957
purposes of division (E)(1) of this section may be a volunteer.42958

       (F) A school district board of education or governing 42959
authority of a chartered or nonchartered nonpublic school that is 42960
subject to the rules of an interscholastic conference or an 42961
organization that regulates interscholastic conferences or events 42962
shall be considered to be in compliance with divisions (B), (D), 42963
and (E) of this section, as long as the requirements of those 42964
rules are substantially similar to the requirements of divisions 42965
(B), (D), and (E) of this section.42966

       (G)(1) A school district, member of a school district board 42967
of education, or school district employee or volunteer, including 42968
a coach or referee, is not liable in damages in a civil action for 42969
injury, death, or loss to person or property allegedly arising 42970
from providing services or performing duties under this section, 42971
unless the act or omission constitutes willful or wanton 42972
misconduct.42973

       This section does not eliminate, limit, or reduce any other 42974
immunity or defense that a school district, member of a school 42975
district board of education, or school district employee or 42976
volunteer, including a coach or referee, may be entitled to under 42977
Chapter 2744. or any other provision of the Revised Code or under 42978
the common law of this state.42979

       (2) A chartered or nonchartered nonpublic school or any 42980
officer, director, employee, or volunteer of the school, including 42981
a coach or referee, is not liable in damages in a civil action for 42982
injury, death, or loss to person or property allegedly arising 42983
from providing services or performing duties under this section, 42984
unless the act or omission constitutes willful or wanton 42985
misconduct.42986

       Sec. 3313.5311. (A) As used in this section and in section 42987
3313.5312 of the Revised Code, "extracurricular activity" has the 42988
same meaning as in section 3313.537 of the Revised Code.42989

       (B) If the nonpublic school in which the student is enrolled 42990
does not offer the extracurricular activity, a student enrolled in 42991
a chartered or nonchartered nonpublic school shall be afforded, by 42992
the superintendent of the school district in which the student is 42993
entitled to attend school under section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the 42994
Revised Code, the opportunity to participate in that 42995
extracurricular activity at the district school to which the 42996
student otherwise would be assigned during that school year. If 42997
more than one school operated by the school district serves the 42998
student's grade level, as determined by the district 42999
superintendent based on the student's age and academic 43000
performance, the student shall be afforded the opportunity to 43001
participate in that extracurricular activity at the school to 43002
which the student would be assigned by the superintendent under 43003
section 3319.01 of the Revised Code.43004

       (C) The superintendent of any school district may afford any 43005
student enrolled in a nonpublic school, and who is not entitled to 43006
attend school in the district under section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of 43007
the Revised Code, the opportunity to participate in an 43008
extracurricular activity offered by a school of the district, if 43009
both of the following apply:43010

        (1) The nonpublic school in which the student is enrolled 43011
does not offer the extracurricular activity;43012

        (2) The extracurricular activity is not interscholastic 43013
athletics or interscholastic contests or competition in music, 43014
drama, or forensics.43015

       (D) In order to participate in an extracurricular activity 43016
under this section, the student shall be of the appropriate age 43017
and grade level, as determined by the superintendent of the 43018
district, for the school that offers the extracurricular activity, 43019
and shall fulfill the same academic, nonacademic, and financial 43020
requirements as any other participant. 43021

       (E) No school district shall impose additional rules on a 43022
student to participate under this section that do not apply to 43023
other students participating in the same extracurricular activity. 43024
No district shall impose additional fees for a student to 43025
participate under this section that exceed any fees charged to 43026
other students participating in the same extracurricular activity.43027

       (F) No school district, interscholastic conference, or 43028
organization that regulates interscholastic conferences or events 43029
shall require a student who is eligible to participate in 43030
interscholastic extracurricular activities under this section to 43031
meet eligibility requirements that conflict with this section.43032

       Sec. 3313.5312.  (A) A student who is receiving home 43033
instruction in accordance with division (A)(2) of section 3321.04 43034
of the Revised Code shall be afforded, by the superintendent of 43035
the school district in which the student is entitled to attend 43036
school under section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised Code, the 43037
opportunity to participate in any extracurricular activity offered 43038
at the district school to which the student otherwise would be 43039
assigned during that school year. If more than one school operated 43040
by the school district serves the student's grade level, as 43041
determined by the district superintendent based on the student's 43042
age and academic performance, the student shall be afforded the 43043
opportunity to participate in extracurricular activities at the 43044
school to which the student would be assigned by the 43045
superintendent under section 3319.01 of the Revised Code. If a 43046
student who is afforded the opportunity to participate in 43047
extracurricular activities under division (A) of this section 43048
wishes to participate in an activity that is offered by the 43049
district, the student shall not participate in that activity at 43050
another school or school district to which the student is not 43051
entitled to attend.43052

       (B) The superintendent of any school district may afford any 43053
student who receives home instruction under division (A)(2) of 43054
section 3321.04 of the Revised Code, and who is not entitled to 43055
attend school in the district under section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of 43056
the Revised Code, the opportunity to participate in any 43057
extracurricular activity offered by a school of the district, if 43058
the district to which the student is entitled to attend does not 43059
offer that extracurricular activity.43060

       (C) In order to participate in an extracurricular activity 43061
under this section, the student shall be of the appropriate age 43062
and grade level, as determined by the superintendent of the 43063
district, for the school that offers the extracurricular activity, 43064
shall fulfill the same nonacademic and financial requirements as 43065
any other participant, and shall fulfill either of the following 43066
academic requirements:43067

       (1) If the student received home instruction in the preceding 43068
grading period, the student shall meet any academic requirements 43069
established by the state board of education for the continuation 43070
of home instruction.43071

       (2) If the student did not receive home instruction in the 43072
preceding grading period, the student's academic performance 43073
during the preceding grading period shall have met any academic 43074
standards for eligibility to participate in the program 43075
established by the school district.43076

       (D) Eligibility for a student who leaves a school district 43077
mid-year for home instruction shall be determined based on an 43078
interim academic assessment issued by the district in which the 43079
student was enrolled based on the student's work while enrolled in 43080
that district.43081

       (E) Any student who commences home instruction after the 43082
beginning of a school year and who is, at the time home 43083
instruction commences, ineligible to participate in an 43084
extracurricular activity due to failure to meet academic standards 43085
or any other requirements of the district shall not participate in 43086
the extracurricular activity under this section until the student 43087
meets the academic requirements established by the state board of 43088
education for continuation of home instruction as verified by the 43089
superintendent of the district. No student under this section 43090
shall be eligible to participate in the same semester in which the 43091
student was determined ineligible.43092

       (F) No school district shall impose additional rules on a 43093
student to participate under this section that do not apply to 43094
other students participating in the same extracurricular activity. 43095
No district shall impose fees for a student to participate under 43096
this section that exceed any fees charged to other students 43097
participating in the same extracurricular activity.43098

       (G) No school district, interscholastic conference, or 43099
organization that regulates interscholastic conferences or events 43100
shall require a student who is eligible to participate in 43101
interscholastic extracurricular activities under this section to 43102
meet eligibility requirements that conflict with this section.43103

       Sec. 3313.603.  (A) As used in this section:43104

       (1) "One unit" means a minimum of one hundred twenty hours of 43105
course instruction, except that for a laboratory course, "one 43106
unit" means a minimum of one hundred fifty hours of course 43107
instruction.43108

       (2) "One-half unit" means a minimum of sixty hours of course 43109
instruction, except that for physical education courses, "one-half 43110
unit" means a minimum of one hundred twenty hours of course 43111
instruction.43112

       (B) Beginning September 15, 2001, except as required in 43113
division (C) of this section and division (C) of section 3313.614 43114
of the Revised Code, the requirements for graduation from every 43115
high school shall include twenty units earned in grades nine 43116
through twelve and shall be distributed as follows:43117

       (1) English language arts, four units;43118

       (2) Health, one-half unit;43119

       (3) Mathematics, three units;43120

       (4) Physical education, one-half unit;43121

       (5) Science, two units until September 15, 2003, and three 43122
units thereafter, which at all times shall include both of the 43123
following:43124

       (a) Biological sciences, one unit;43125

       (b) Physical sciences, one unit.43126

       (6) History and government, one unit, which shall comply with 43127
division (M) of this section and shall include both of the 43128
following:43129

       (a) American history, one-half unit;43130

       (b) American government, one-half unit.43131

       (7) Social studies, two units.43132

       (8) Elective units, seven units until September 15, 2003, and 43133
six units thereafter.43134

       Each student's electives shall include at least one unit, or 43135
two half units, chosen from among the areas of 43136
business/technology, fine arts, and/or foreign language.43137

       (C) Beginning with students who enter ninth grade for the 43138
first time on or after July 1, 2010, except as provided in 43139
divisions (D) to (F) of this section, the requirements for 43140
graduation from every public and chartered nonpublic high school 43141
shall include twenty units that are designed to prepare students 43142
for the workforce and college. The units shall be distributed as 43143
follows:43144

       (1) English language arts, four units;43145

       (2) Health, one-half unit, which shall include instruction in 43146
nutrition and the benefits of nutritious foods and physical 43147
activity for overall health;43148

       (3) Mathematics, four units, which shall include one unit of 43149
algebra II or the equivalent of algebra II;43150

       (4) Physical education, one-half unit;43151

       (5) Science, three units with inquiry-based laboratory 43152
experience that engages students in asking valid scientific 43153
questions and gathering and analyzing information, which shall 43154
include the following, or their equivalent:43155

       (a) Physical sciences, one unit;43156

       (b) Life sciences, one unit;43157

       (c) Advanced study in one or more of the following sciences, 43158
one unit:43159

       (i) Chemistry, physics, or other physical science;43160

       (ii) Advanced biology or other life science;43161

       (iii) Astronomy, physical geology, or other earth or space 43162
science.43163

       (6) History and government, one unit, which shall comply with 43164
division (M) of this section and shall include both of the 43165
following:43166

       (a) American history, one-half unit;43167

       (b) American government, one-half unit.43168

       (7) Social studies, two units.43169

       Each school shall integrate the study of economics and 43170
financial literacy, as expressed in the social studies academic 43171
content standards adopted by the state board of education under 43172
division (A)(1) of section 3301.079 of the Revised Code and the 43173
academic content standards for financial literacy and 43174
entrepreneurship adopted under division (A)(2) of that section, 43175
into one or more existing social studies credits required under 43176
division (C)(7) of this section, or into the content of another 43177
class, so that every high school student receives instruction in 43178
those concepts. In developing the curriculum required by this 43179
paragraph, schools shall use available public-private partnerships 43180
and resources and materials that exist in business, industry, and 43181
through the centers for economics education at institutions of 43182
higher education in the state.43183

       (8) Five units consisting of one or any combination of 43184
foreign language, fine arts, business, career-technical education, 43185
family and consumer sciences, technology, agricultural education, 43186
a junior reserve officer training corps (JROTC) program approved 43187
by the congress of the United States under title 10 of the United 43188
States Code, or English language arts, mathematics, science, or 43189
social studies courses not otherwise required under division (C) 43190
of this section.43191

       Ohioans must be prepared to apply increased knowledge and 43192
skills in the workplace and to adapt their knowledge and skills 43193
quickly to meet the rapidly changing conditions of the 43194
twenty-first century. National studies indicate that all high 43195
school graduates need the same academic foundation, regardless of 43196
the opportunities they pursue after graduation. The goal of Ohio's 43197
system of elementary and secondary education is to prepare all 43198
students for and seamlessly connect all students to success in 43199
life beyond high school graduation, regardless of whether the next 43200
step is entering the workforce, beginning an apprenticeship, 43201
engaging in post-secondary training, serving in the military, or 43202
pursuing a college degree.43203

        The Ohio core curriculum is the standard expectation for all 43204
students entering ninth grade for the first time at a public or 43205
chartered nonpublic high school on or after July 1, 2010. A 43206
student may satisfy this expectation through a variety of methods, 43207
including, but not limited to, integrated, applied, 43208
career-technical, and traditional coursework.43209

       Whereas teacher quality is essential for student success in 43210
completing the Ohio core curriculum, the general assembly shall 43211
appropriate funds for strategic initiatives designed to strengthen 43212
schools' capacities to hire and retain highly qualified teachers 43213
in the subject areas required by the curriculum. Such initiatives 43214
are expected to require an investment of $120,000,000 over five 43215
years.43216

       Stronger coordination between high schools and institutions 43217
of higher education is necessary to prepare students for more 43218
challenging academic endeavors and to lessen the need for academic 43219
remediation in college, thereby reducing the costs of higher 43220
education for Ohio's students, families, and the state. The state 43221
board and the chancellor of the Ohio board of regents shall 43222
develop policies to ensure that only in rare instances will 43223
students who complete the Ohio core curriculum require academic 43224
remediation after high school.43225

       School districts, community schools, and chartered nonpublic 43226
schools shall integrate technology into learning experiences 43227
across the curriculum in order to maximize efficiency, enhance 43228
learning, and prepare students for success in the 43229
technology-driven twenty-first century. Districts and schools 43230
shall use distance and web-based course delivery as a method of 43231
providing or augmenting all instruction required under this 43232
division, including laboratory experience in science. Districts 43233
and schools shall utilize technology access and electronic 43234
learning opportunities provided by the eTech Ohiobroadcast 43235
educational media commission, chancellor, the Ohio learning 43236
network, education technology centers, public television stations, 43237
and other public and private providers.43238

       (D) Except as provided in division (E) of this section, a 43239
student who enters ninth grade on or after July 1, 2010, and 43240
before July 1, 2014, may qualify for graduation from a public or 43241
chartered nonpublic high school even though the student has not 43242
completed the Ohio core curriculum prescribed in division (C) of 43243
this section if all of the following conditions are satisfied:43244

       (1) After the student has attended high school for two years, 43245
as determined by the school, the student and the student's parent, 43246
guardian, or custodian sign and file with the school a written 43247
statement asserting the parent's, guardian's, or custodian's 43248
consent to the student's graduating without completing the Ohio 43249
core curriculum and acknowledging that one consequence of not 43250
completing the Ohio core curriculum is ineligibility to enroll in 43251
most state universities in Ohio without further coursework.43252

       (2) The student and parent, guardian, or custodian fulfill 43253
any procedural requirements the school stipulates to ensure the 43254
student's and parent's, guardian's, or custodian's informed 43255
consent and to facilitate orderly filing of statements under 43256
division (D)(1) of this section.43257

       (3) The student and the student's parent, guardian, or 43258
custodian and a representative of the student's high school 43259
jointly develop an individual career plan for the student that 43260
specifies the student matriculating to a two-year degree program, 43261
acquiring a business and industry credential, or entering an 43262
apprenticeship.43263

       (4) The student's high school provides counseling and support 43264
for the student related to the plan developed under division 43265
(D)(3) of this section during the remainder of the student's high 43266
school experience.43267

       (5) The student successfully completes, at a minimum, the 43268
curriculum prescribed in division (B) of this section.43269

       The department of education, in collaboration with the 43270
chancellor, shall analyze student performance data to determine if 43271
there are mitigating factors that warrant extending the exception 43272
permitted by division (D) of this section to high school classes 43273
beyond those entering ninth grade before July 1, 2014. The 43274
department shall submit its findings and any recommendations not 43275
later than August 1, 2014, to the speaker and minority leader of 43276
the house of representatives, the president and minority leader of 43277
the senate, the chairpersons and ranking minority members of the 43278
standing committees of the house of representatives and the senate 43279
that consider education legislation, the state board of education, 43280
and the superintendent of public instruction.43281

       (E) Each school district and chartered nonpublic school 43282
retains the authority to require an even more rigorous minimum 43283
curriculum for high school graduation than specified in division 43284
(B) or (C) of this section. A school district board of education, 43285
through the adoption of a resolution, or the governing authority 43286
of a chartered nonpublic school may stipulate any of the 43287
following:43288

        (1) A minimum high school curriculum that requires more than 43289
twenty units of academic credit to graduate;43290

        (2) An exception to the district's or school's minimum high 43291
school curriculum that is comparable to the exception provided in 43292
division (D) of this section but with additional requirements, 43293
which may include a requirement that the student successfully 43294
complete more than the minimum curriculum prescribed in division 43295
(B) of this section;43296

        (3) That no exception comparable to that provided in division 43297
(D) of this section is available.43298

       (F) A student enrolled in a dropout prevention and recovery 43299
program, which program has received a waiver from the department, 43300
may qualify for graduation from high school by successfully 43301
completing a competency-based instructional program administered 43302
by the dropout prevention and recovery program in lieu of 43303
completing the Ohio core curriculum prescribed in division (C) of 43304
this section. The department shall grant a waiver to a dropout 43305
prevention and recovery program, within sixty days after the 43306
program applies for the waiver, if the program meets all of the 43307
following conditions:43308

       (1) The program serves only students not younger than sixteen 43309
years of age and not older than twenty-one years of age.43310

       (2) The program enrolls students who, at the time of their 43311
initial enrollment, either, or both, are at least one grade level 43312
behind their cohort age groups or experience crises that 43313
significantly interfere with their academic progress such that 43314
they are prevented from continuing their traditional programs.43315

       (3) The program requires students to attain at least the 43316
applicable score designated for each of the assessments prescribed 43317
under division (B)(1) of section 3301.0710 of the Revised Code or, 43318
to the extent prescribed by rule of the state board under division 43319
(D)(6) of section 3301.0712 of the Revised Code, division (B)(2) 43320
of that section.43321

       (4) The program develops an individual career plan for the 43322
student that specifies the student's matriculating to a two-year 43323
degree program, acquiring a business and industry credential, or 43324
entering an apprenticeship.43325

       (5) The program provides counseling and support for the 43326
student related to the plan developed under division (F)(4) of 43327
this section during the remainder of the student's high school 43328
experience.43329

       (6) The program requires the student and the student's 43330
parent, guardian, or custodian to sign and file, in accordance 43331
with procedural requirements stipulated by the program, a written 43332
statement asserting the parent's, guardian's, or custodian's 43333
consent to the student's graduating without completing the Ohio 43334
core curriculum and acknowledging that one consequence of not 43335
completing the Ohio core curriculum is ineligibility to enroll in 43336
most state universities in Ohio without further coursework.43337

       (7) Prior to receiving the waiver, the program has submitted 43338
to the department an instructional plan that demonstrates how the 43339
academic content standards adopted by the state board under 43340
section 3301.079 of the Revised Code will be taught and assessed.43341

       If the department does not act either to grant the waiver or 43342
to reject the program application for the waiver within sixty days 43343
as required under this section, the waiver shall be considered to 43344
be granted.43345

       (G) Every high school may permit students below the ninth 43346
grade to take advanced work. If a high school so permits, it shall 43347
award high school credit for successful completion of the advanced 43348
work and shall count such advanced work toward the graduation 43349
requirements of division (B) or (C) of this section if the 43350
advanced work was both:43351

       (1) Taught by a person who possesses a license or certificate 43352
issued under section 3301.071, 3319.22, or 3319.222 of the Revised 43353
Code that is valid for teaching high school;43354

       (2) Designated by the board of education of the city, local, 43355
or exempted village school district, the board of the cooperative 43356
education school district, or the governing authority of the 43357
chartered nonpublic school as meeting the high school curriculum 43358
requirements.43359

        Each high school shall record on the student's high school 43360
transcript all high school credit awarded under division (G) of 43361
this section. In addition, if the student completed a seventh- or 43362
eighth-grade fine arts course described in division (K) of this 43363
section and the course qualified for high school credit under that 43364
division, the high school shall record that course on the 43365
student's high school transcript.43366

       (H) The department shall make its individual academic career 43367
plan available through its Ohio career information system web site 43368
for districts and schools to use as a tool for communicating with 43369
and providing guidance to students and families in selecting high 43370
school courses.43371

        (I) Units earned in English language arts, mathematics, 43372
science, and social studies that are delivered through integrated 43373
academic and career-technical instruction are eligible to meet the 43374
graduation requirements of division (B) or (C) of this section.43375

       (J) The state board, in consultation with the chancellor, 43376
shall adopt a statewide plan implementing methods for students to 43377
earn units of high school credit based on a demonstration of 43378
subject area competency, instead of or in combination with 43379
completing hours of classroom instruction. The state board shall 43380
adopt the plan not later than March 31, 2009, and commence phasing 43381
in the plan during the 2009-2010 school year. The plan shall 43382
include a standard method for recording demonstrated proficiency 43383
on high school transcripts. Each school district and community 43384
school shall comply with the state board's plan adopted under this 43385
division and award units of high school credit in accordance with 43386
the plan. The state board may adopt existing methods for earning 43387
high school credit based on a demonstration of subject area 43388
competency as necessary prior to the 2009-2010 school year.43389

       (K) This division does not apply to students who qualify for 43390
graduation from high school under division (D) or (F) of this 43391
section, or to students pursuing a career-technical instructional 43392
track as determined by the school district board of education or 43393
the chartered nonpublic school's governing authority. 43394
Nevertheless, the general assembly encourages such students to 43395
consider enrolling in a fine arts course as an elective.43396

       Beginning with students who enter ninth grade for the first 43397
time on or after July 1, 2010, each student enrolled in a public 43398
or chartered nonpublic high school shall complete two semesters or 43399
the equivalent of fine arts to graduate from high school. The 43400
coursework may be completed in any of grades seven to twelve. Each 43401
student who completes a fine arts course in grade seven or eight 43402
may elect to count that course toward the five units of electives 43403
required for graduation under division (C)(8) of this section, if 43404
the course satisfied the requirements of division (G) of this 43405
section. In that case, the high school shall award the student 43406
high school credit for the course and count the course toward the 43407
five units required under division (C)(8) of this section. If the 43408
course in grade seven or eight did not satisfy the requirements of 43409
division (G) of this section, the high school shall not award the 43410
student high school credit for the course but shall count the 43411
course toward the two semesters or the equivalent of fine arts 43412
required by this division.43413

       (L) Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in this section, 43414
the board of education of each school district and the governing 43415
authority of each chartered nonpublic school may adopt a policy to 43416
excuse from the high school physical education requirement each 43417
student who, during high school, has participated in 43418
interscholastic athletics, marching band, or cheerleading for at 43419
least two full seasons or in the junior reserve officer training 43420
corps for at least two full school years. If the board or 43421
authority adopts such a policy, the board or authority shall not 43422
require the student to complete any physical education course as a 43423
condition to graduate. However, the student shall be required to 43424
complete one-half unit, consisting of at least sixty hours of 43425
instruction, in another course of study. In the case of a student 43426
who has participated in the junior reserve officer training corps 43427
for at least two full school years, credit received for that 43428
participation may be used to satisfy the requirement to complete 43429
one-half unit in another course of study.43430

       (M) It is important that high school students learn and 43431
understand United States history and the governments of both the 43432
United States and the state of Ohio. Therefore, beginning with 43433
students who enter ninth grade for the first time on or after July 43434
1, 2012, the study of American history and American government 43435
required by divisions (B)(6) and (C)(6) of this section shall 43436
include the study of all of the following documents:43437

        (1) The Declaration of Independence;43438

        (2) The Northwest Ordinance;43439

        (3) The Constitution of the United States with emphasis on 43440
the Bill of Rights;43441

        (4) The Ohio Constitution.43442

        The study of each of the documents prescribed in divisions 43443
(M)(1) to (4) of this section shall include study of that document 43444
in its original context.43445

        The study of American history and government required by 43446
divisions (B)(6) and (C)(6) of this section shall include the 43447
historical evidence of the role of documents such as the 43448
Federalist Papers and the Anti-Federalist Papers to firmly 43449
establish the historical background leading to the establishment 43450
of the provisions of the Constitution and Bill of Rights.43451

       Sec. 3313.6013. (A) As used in this section, "dual enrollment 43452
program" means a program that enables a student to earn credit 43453
toward a degree from an institution of higher education while 43454
enrolled in high school or that enables a student to complete 43455
coursework while enrolled in high school that may earn credit 43456
toward a degree from an institution of higher education upon the 43457
student's attainment of a specified score on an examination 43458
covering the coursework. Dual enrollment programs may include any 43459
of the following:43460

        (1) The post-secondary enrollment options program established 43461
under Chapter 3365. of the Revised Code;43462

       (2) Advanced placement courses;43463

       (3) Any similar program established pursuant to an agreement 43464
between a school district or chartered nonpublic high school and 43465
an institution of higher education;43466

       (4) Early college high schools.43467

        (B) Each city, local, exempted village, and joint vocational 43468
school district and each chartered nonpublic high school shall 43469
provide students enrolled in grades nine through twelve with the 43470
opportunity to participate in a dual enrollment program. For this 43471
purpose, each school district and chartered nonpublic high school 43472
shall offer at least one dual enrollment program in accordance 43473
with division (B)(1) or (2) of this section, as applicable.43474

        (1) A city, local, or exempted village school district meets 43475
the requirements of this division through its mandatory 43476
participation in the post-secondary enrollment options program 43477
established under Chapter 3365. of the Revised Code. However, a 43478
city, local, or exempted village school district may offer any 43479
other dual enrollment program, in addition to the post-secondary 43480
enrollment options program, and each joint vocational school 43481
district shall offer at least one other dual enrollment program, 43482
to students in good standing, as defined by the partnership for 43483
continued learning under section 3301.42 of the Revised Code as it 43484
existed prior to October 16, 2009, or as subsequently defined by 43485
the department of education.43486

        (2) A chartered nonpublic high school that elects to 43487
participate in the post-secondary enrollment options program 43488
established under Chapter 3365. of the Revised Code meets the 43489
requirements of this division. Each chartered nonpublic high 43490
school that elects not to participate in the post-secondary 43491
enrollment options program instead shall offer at least one other 43492
dual enrollment program to students in good standing, as defined 43493
by the partnership for continued learning under section 3301.42 of 43494
the Revised Code as it existed prior to October 16, 2009, or as 43495
subsequently defined by the department of education.43496

       (C) Each school district and each chartered nonpublic high 43497
school shall provide information about the dual enrollment 43498
programs offered by the district or school to all students 43499
enrolled in grades eight through eleven.43500

       Sec. 3313.6016.  (A) Beginning in the 2011-2012 school year, 43501
the department of education shall administer a pilot program 43502
requiring daily physical activity for students. Any school 43503
district; community school established under Chapter 3314. of the 43504
Revised Code; science, technology, engineering, and mathematics 43505
school established under Chapter 3326. of the Revised Code; or 43506
chartered nonpublic school annually may elect to participate in 43507
the pilot program by notifying the department of its interest by a 43508
date established by the department. If a school district elects to 43509
participate in the pilot program, each school building operated by 43510
the district shall be requiredthe district shall select one or 43511
more school buildings to participate in the program. To the 43512
maximum extent possible, the department shall seek to include in 43513
the pilot program districts and schools that are located in urban, 43514
suburban, and rural areas distributed geographically throughout 43515
the state. The department shall administer the pilot program in 43516
accordance with this section.43517

       (B) Except as provided in division (C) of this section, each 43518
district or school participating in the pilot program shall 43519
require all students in each of grades kindergarten through twelve43520
the school building selected under division (A) of this section to 43521
engage in at least thirty minutes of moderate to rigorous physical 43522
activity each school day or at least one hundred fifty minutes of 43523
moderate to rigorous physical activity each week, exclusive of 43524
recess. Physical activity engaged in during the following may 43525
count toward the daily requirement:43526

       (1) A physical education course;43527

       (2) A program or activity occurring before or after the 43528
regular school day, as defined in section 3313.814 of the Revised 43529
Code, that is sponsored or approved by the school of attendance, 43530
provided school officials are able to monitor students' 43531
participation to ensure compliance with the requirement.43532

       (C) None of the following shall be subject to the requirement 43533
of division (B) of this section:43534

       (1) Any student enrolled in the post-secondary enrollment 43535
options program established under Chapter 3365. of the Revised 43536
Code;43537

       (2) Any student enrolled in a career-technical education 43538
program operated by the district or school;43539

       (3) Any student enrolled in a dropout prevention and recovery 43540
program operated by the district or school.43541

       (D) For any period in which a student is participating in 43542
interscholastic athletics, marching band, cheerleading, or a 43543
junior reserve officer training corps program, the district or 43544
school may excuse the student from the requirement of division (B) 43545
of this section.43546

       (E) The district or school may excuse any kindergarten 43547
student who is not enrolled in all-day kindergarten, as defined in 43548
section 3321.05 of the Revised Code, from the requirement of 43549
division (B) of this section.43550

       (F) Each district or school annually shall report to the 43551
department, in the manner prescribed by the department, how the 43552
district or school implemented the thirty minutes of daily 43553
physical activity and the financial costs of implementation. The 43554
department shall issue an annual report of the data collected 43555
under this division.43556

       Sec. 3313.62.  The school year shall begin on the first day 43557
of July of each calendar year and close on the thirtieth day of 43558
June of the succeeding calendar year. A school week shall consist 43559
of five days, and a school month of four school weeks. A chartered 43560
nonpublic school may be open for instruction with pupils in 43561
attendance on any day of the week, including Saturday or Sunday.43562

       Sec. 3313.64.  (A) As used in this section and in section 43563
3313.65 of the Revised Code:43564

       (1)(a) Except as provided in division (A)(1)(b) of this 43565
section, "parent" means either parent, unless the parents are 43566
separated or divorced or their marriage has been dissolved or 43567
annulled, in which case "parent" means the parent who is the 43568
residential parent and legal custodian of the child. When a child 43569
is in the legal custody of a government agency or a person other 43570
than the child's natural or adoptive parent, "parent" means the 43571
parent with residual parental rights, privileges, and 43572
responsibilities. When a child is in the permanent custody of a 43573
government agency or a person other than the child's natural or 43574
adoptive parent, "parent" means the parent who was divested of 43575
parental rights and responsibilities for the care of the child and 43576
the right to have the child live with the parent and be the legal 43577
custodian of the child and all residual parental rights, 43578
privileges, and responsibilities.43579

       (b) When a child is the subject of a power of attorney 43580
executed under sections 3109.51 to 3109.62 of the Revised Code, 43581
"parent" means the grandparent designated as attorney in fact 43582
under the power of attorney. When a child is the subject of a 43583
caretaker authorization affidavit executed under sections 3109.64 43584
to 3109.73 of the Revised Code, "parent" means the grandparent 43585
that executed the affidavit.43586

       (2) "Legal custody," "permanent custody," and "residual 43587
parental rights, privileges, and responsibilities" have the same 43588
meanings as in section 2151.011 of the Revised Code.43589

       (3) "School district" or "district" means a city, local, or 43590
exempted village school district and excludes any school operated 43591
in an institution maintained by the department of youth services.43592

       (4) Except as used in division (C)(2) of this section, "home" 43593
means a home, institution, foster home, group home, or other 43594
residential facility in this state that receives and cares for 43595
children, to which any of the following applies:43596

       (a) The home is licensed, certified, or approved for such 43597
purpose by the state or is maintained by the department of youth 43598
services.43599

       (b) The home is operated by a person who is licensed, 43600
certified, or approved by the state to operate the home for such 43601
purpose.43602

       (c) The home accepted the child through a placement by a 43603
person licensed, certified, or approved to place a child in such a 43604
home by the state.43605

       (d) The home is a children's home created under section 43606
5153.21 or 5153.36 of the Revised Code.43607

       (5) "Agency" means all of the following:43608

       (a) A public children services agency;43609

       (b) An organization that holds a certificate issued by the 43610
Ohio department of job and family services in accordance with the 43611
requirements of section 5103.03 of the Revised Code and assumes 43612
temporary or permanent custody of children through commitment, 43613
agreement, or surrender, and places children in family homes for 43614
the purpose of adoption;43615

       (c) Comparable agencies of other states or countries that 43616
have complied with applicable requirements of section 2151.39 of 43617
the Revised Code or as applicable, sections 5103.20 to 5103.22 or 43618
5103.23 to 5103.237 of the Revised Code.43619

       (6) A child is placed for adoption if either of the following 43620
occurs:43621

       (a) An agency to which the child has been permanently 43622
committed or surrendered enters into an agreement with a person 43623
pursuant to section 5103.16 of the Revised Code for the care and 43624
adoption of the child.43625

       (b) The child's natural parent places the child pursuant to 43626
section 5103.16 of the Revised Code with a person who will care 43627
for and adopt the child.43628

       (7) "Preschool child with a disability" has the same meaning 43629
as in section 3323.01 of the Revised Code.43630

       (8) "Child," unless otherwise indicated, includes preschool 43631
children with disabilities.43632

       (9) "Active duty" means active duty pursuant to an executive 43633
order of the president of the United States, an act of the 43634
congress of the United States, or section 5919.29 or 5923.21 of 43635
the Revised Code.43636

       (B) Except as otherwise provided in section 3321.01 of the 43637
Revised Code for admittance to kindergarten and first grade, a 43638
child who is at least five but under twenty-two years of age and 43639
any preschool child with a disability shall be admitted to school 43640
as provided in this division.43641

       (1) A child shall be admitted to the schools of the school 43642
district in which the child's parent resides.43643

       (2) AExcept as provided in division (B) of section 2151.362 43644
and section 3317.30 of the Revised Code, a child who does not 43645
reside in the district where the child's parent resides shall be 43646
admitted to the schools of the district in which the child resides 43647
if any of the following applies:43648

       (a) The child is in the legal or permanent custody of a 43649
government agency or a person other than the child's natural or 43650
adoptive parent.43651

       (b) The child resides in a home.43652

       (c) The child requires special education.43653

       (3) A child who is not entitled under division (B)(2) of this 43654
section to be admitted to the schools of the district where the 43655
child resides and who is residing with a resident of this state 43656
with whom the child has been placed for adoption shall be admitted 43657
to the schools of the district where the child resides unless 43658
either of the following applies:43659

       (a) The placement for adoption has been terminated.43660

       (b) Another school district is required to admit the child 43661
under division (B)(1) of this section.43662

       Division (B) of this section does not prohibit the board of 43663
education of a school district from placing a child with a 43664
disability who resides in the district in a special education 43665
program outside of the district or its schools in compliance with 43666
Chapter 3323. of the Revised Code.43667

       (C) A district shall not charge tuition for children admitted 43668
under division (B)(1) or (3) of this section. If the district 43669
admits a child under division (B)(2) of this section, tuition 43670
shall be paid to the district that admits the child as provided in 43671
divisions (C)(1) to (3) of this section, unless division (C)(4) of 43672
this section applies to the child:43673

       (1) If the child receives special education in accordance 43674
with Chapter 3323. of the Revised Code, the school district of 43675
residence, as defined in section 3323.01 of the Revised Code, 43676
shall pay tuition for the child in accordance with section 43677
3323.091, 3323.13, 3323.14, or 3323.141 of the Revised Code 43678
regardless of who has custody of the child or whether the child 43679
resides in a home.43680

       (2) For a child that does not receive special education in 43681
accordance with Chapter 3323. of the Revised Code, except as 43682
otherwise provided in division (C)(2)(d) of this section, if the 43683
child is in the permanent or legal custody of a government agency 43684
or person other than the child's parent, tuition shall be paid by:43685

       (a) The district in which the child's parent resided at the 43686
time the court removed the child from home or at the time the 43687
court vested legal or permanent custody of the child in the person 43688
or government agency, whichever occurred first;43689

       (b) If the parent's residence at the time the court removed 43690
the child from home or placed the child in the legal or permanent 43691
custody of the person or government agency is unknown, tuition 43692
shall be paid by the district in which the child resided at the 43693
time the child was removed from home or placed in legal or 43694
permanent custody, whichever occurred first;43695

       (c) If a school district cannot be established under division 43696
(C)(2)(a) or (b) of this section, tuition shall be paid by the 43697
district determined as required by section 2151.362 of the Revised 43698
Code by the court at the time it vests custody of the child in the 43699
person or government agency;43700

       (d) If at the time the court removed the child from home or 43701
vested legal or permanent custody of the child in the person or 43702
government agency, whichever occurred first, one parent was in a 43703
residential or correctional facility or a juvenile residential 43704
placement and the other parent, if living and not in such a 43705
facility or placement, was not known to reside in this state, 43706
tuition shall be paid by the district determined under division 43707
(D) of section 3313.65 of the Revised Code as the district 43708
required to pay any tuition while the parent was in such facility 43709
or placement;43710

       (e) If the department of education has determined, pursuant 43711
to division (A)(2) of section 2151.362 of the Revised Code, that a 43712
school district other than the one named in the court's initial 43713
order, or in a prior determination of the department, is 43714
responsible to bear the cost of educating the child, the district 43715
so determined shall be responsible for that cost.43716

       (3) If the child is not in the permanent or legal custody of 43717
a government agency or person other than the child's parent and 43718
the child resides in a home, tuition shall be paid by one of the 43719
following:43720

       (a) The school district in which the child's parent resides;43721

       (b) If the child's parent is not a resident of this state, 43722
the home in which the child resides.43723

       (4) Division (C)(4) of this section applies to any child who 43724
is admitted to a school district under division (B)(2) of this 43725
section, resides in a home that is not a foster home or, a home 43726
maintained by the department of youth services, a detention 43727
facility established under section 2152.41 of the Revised Code, or 43728
a juvenile facility established under section 2151.65 of the 43729
Revised Code, receives educational services at the home or 43730
facility in which the child resides pursuant to a contract between 43731
the home or facility and the school district providing those 43732
services, and does not receive special education.43733

        In the case of a child to which division (C)(4) of this 43734
section applies, the total educational cost to be paid for the 43735
child shall be determined by a formula approved by the department 43736
of education, which formula shall be designed to calculate a per 43737
diem cost for the educational services provided to the child for 43738
each day the child is served and shall reflect the total actual 43739
cost incurred in providing those services. The department shall 43740
certify the total educational cost to be paid for the child to 43741
both the school district providing the educational services and, 43742
if different, the school district that is responsible to pay 43743
tuition for the child. The department shall deduct the certified 43744
amount from the state basic aid funds payable under Chapter 3317. 43745
of the Revised Code to the district responsible to pay tuition and 43746
shall pay that amount to the district providing the educational 43747
services to the child.43748

       (D) Tuition required to be paid under divisions (C)(2) and 43749
(3)(a) of this section shall be computed in accordance with 43750
section 3317.08 of the Revised Code. Tuition required to be paid 43751
under division (C)(3)(b) of this section shall be computed in 43752
accordance with section 3317.081 of the Revised Code. If a home 43753
fails to pay the tuition required by division (C)(3)(b) of this 43754
section, the board of education providing the education may 43755
recover in a civil action the tuition and the expenses incurred in 43756
prosecuting the action, including court costs and reasonable 43757
attorney's fees. If the prosecuting attorney or city director of 43758
law represents the board in such action, costs and reasonable 43759
attorney's fees awarded by the court, based upon the prosecuting 43760
attorney's, director's, or one of their designee's time spent 43761
preparing and presenting the case, shall be deposited in the 43762
county or city general fund.43763

       (E) A board of education may enroll a child free of any 43764
tuition obligation for a period not to exceed sixty days, on the 43765
sworn statement of an adult resident of the district that the 43766
resident has initiated legal proceedings for custody of the child.43767

       (F) In the case of any individual entitled to attend school 43768
under this division, no tuition shall be charged by the school 43769
district of attendance and no other school district shall be 43770
required to pay tuition for the individual's attendance. 43771
Notwithstanding division (B), (C), or (E) of this section:43772

       (1) All persons at least eighteen but under twenty-two years 43773
of age who live apart from their parents, support themselves by 43774
their own labor, and have not successfully completed the high 43775
school curriculum or the individualized education program 43776
developed for the person by the high school pursuant to section 43777
3323.08 of the Revised Code, are entitled to attend school in the 43778
district in which they reside.43779

       (2) Any child under eighteen years of age who is married is 43780
entitled to attend school in the child's district of residence.43781

       (3) A child is entitled to attend school in the district in 43782
which either of the child's parents is employed if the child has a 43783
medical condition that may require emergency medical attention. 43784
The parent of a child entitled to attend school under division 43785
(F)(3) of this section shall submit to the board of education of 43786
the district in which the parent is employed a statement from the 43787
child's physician certifying that the child's medical condition 43788
may require emergency medical attention. The statement shall be 43789
supported by such other evidence as the board may require.43790

       (4) Any child residing with a person other than the child's 43791
parent is entitled, for a period not to exceed twelve months, to 43792
attend school in the district in which that person resides if the 43793
child's parent files an affidavit with the superintendent of the 43794
district in which the person with whom the child is living resides 43795
stating all of the following:43796

       (a) That the parent is serving outside of the state in the 43797
armed services of the United States;43798

       (b) That the parent intends to reside in the district upon 43799
returning to this state;43800

       (c) The name and address of the person with whom the child is 43801
living while the parent is outside the state.43802

       (5) Any child under the age of twenty-two years who, after 43803
the death of a parent, resides in a school district other than the 43804
district in which the child attended school at the time of the 43805
parent's death is entitled to continue to attend school in the 43806
district in which the child attended school at the time of the 43807
parent's death for the remainder of the school year, subject to 43808
approval of that district board.43809

       (6) A child under the age of twenty-two years who resides 43810
with a parent who is having a new house built in a school district 43811
outside the district where the parent is residing is entitled to 43812
attend school for a period of time in the district where the new 43813
house is being built. In order to be entitled to such attendance, 43814
the parent shall provide the district superintendent with the 43815
following:43816

       (a) A sworn statement explaining the situation, revealing the 43817
location of the house being built, and stating the parent's 43818
intention to reside there upon its completion;43819

       (b) A statement from the builder confirming that a new house 43820
is being built for the parent and that the house is at the 43821
location indicated in the parent's statement.43822

       (7) A child under the age of twenty-two years residing with a 43823
parent who has a contract to purchase a house in a school district 43824
outside the district where the parent is residing and who is 43825
waiting upon the date of closing of the mortgage loan for the 43826
purchase of such house is entitled to attend school for a period 43827
of time in the district where the house is being purchased. In 43828
order to be entitled to such attendance, the parent shall provide 43829
the district superintendent with the following:43830

       (a) A sworn statement explaining the situation, revealing the 43831
location of the house being purchased, and stating the parent's 43832
intent to reside there;43833

       (b) A statement from a real estate broker or bank officer 43834
confirming that the parent has a contract to purchase the house, 43835
that the parent is waiting upon the date of closing of the 43836
mortgage loan, and that the house is at the location indicated in 43837
the parent's statement.43838

       The district superintendent shall establish a period of time 43839
not to exceed ninety days during which the child entitled to 43840
attend school under division (F)(6) or (7) of this section may 43841
attend without tuition obligation. A student attending a school 43842
under division (F)(6) or (7) of this section shall be eligible to 43843
participate in interscholastic athletics under the auspices of 43844
that school, provided the board of education of the school 43845
district where the student's parent resides, by a formal action, 43846
releases the student to participate in interscholastic athletics 43847
at the school where the student is attending, and provided the 43848
student receives any authorization required by a public agency or 43849
private organization of which the school district is a member 43850
exercising authority over interscholastic sports.43851

       (8) A child whose parent is a full-time employee of a city, 43852
local, or exempted village school district, or of an educational 43853
service center, may be admitted to the schools of the district 43854
where the child's parent is employed, or in the case of a child 43855
whose parent is employed by an educational service center, in the 43856
district that serves the location where the parent's job is 43857
primarily located, provided the district board of education 43858
establishes such an admission policy by resolution adopted by a 43859
majority of its members. Any such policy shall take effect on the 43860
first day of the school year and the effective date of any 43861
amendment or repeal may not be prior to the first day of the 43862
subsequent school year. The policy shall be uniformly applied to 43863
all such children and shall provide for the admission of any such 43864
child upon request of the parent. No child may be admitted under 43865
this policy after the first day of classes of any school year.43866

       (9) A child who is with the child's parent under the care of 43867
a shelter for victims of domestic violence, as defined in section 43868
3113.33 of the Revised Code, is entitled to attend school free in 43869
the district in which the child is with the child's parent, and no 43870
other school district shall be required to pay tuition for the 43871
child's attendance in that school district.43872

       The enrollment of a child in a school district under this 43873
division shall not be denied due to a delay in the school 43874
district's receipt of any records required under section 3313.672 43875
of the Revised Code or any other records required for enrollment. 43876
Any days of attendance and any credits earned by a child while 43877
enrolled in a school district under this division shall be 43878
transferred to and accepted by any school district in which the 43879
child subsequently enrolls. The state board of education shall 43880
adopt rules to ensure compliance with this division.43881

       (10) Any child under the age of twenty-two years whose parent 43882
has moved out of the school district after the commencement of 43883
classes in the child's senior year of high school is entitled, 43884
subject to the approval of that district board, to attend school 43885
in the district in which the child attended school at the time of 43886
the parental move for the remainder of the school year and for one 43887
additional semester or equivalent term. A district board may also 43888
adopt a policy specifying extenuating circumstances under which a 43889
student may continue to attend school under division (F)(10) of 43890
this section for an additional period of time in order to 43891
successfully complete the high school curriculum for the 43892
individualized education program developed for the student by the 43893
high school pursuant to section 3323.08 of the Revised Code.43894

       (11) As used in this division, "grandparent" means a parent 43895
of a parent of a child. A child under the age of twenty-two years 43896
who is in the custody of the child's parent, resides with a 43897
grandparent, and does not require special education is entitled to 43898
attend the schools of the district in which the child's 43899
grandparent resides, provided that, prior to such attendance in 43900
any school year, the board of education of the school district in 43901
which the child's grandparent resides and the board of education 43902
of the school district in which the child's parent resides enter 43903
into a written agreement specifying that good cause exists for 43904
such attendance, describing the nature of this good cause, and 43905
consenting to such attendance.43906

       In lieu of a consent form signed by a parent, a board of 43907
education may request the grandparent of a child attending school 43908
in the district in which the grandparent resides pursuant to 43909
division (F)(11) of this section to complete any consent form 43910
required by the district, including any authorization required by 43911
sections 3313.712, 3313.713, 3313.716, and 3313.718 of the Revised 43912
Code. Upon request, the grandparent shall complete any consent 43913
form required by the district. A school district shall not incur 43914
any liability solely because of its receipt of a consent form from 43915
a grandparent in lieu of a parent.43916

       Division (F)(11) of this section does not create, and shall 43917
not be construed as creating, a new cause of action or substantive 43918
legal right against a school district, a member of a board of 43919
education, or an employee of a school district. This section does 43920
not affect, and shall not be construed as affecting, any 43921
immunities from defenses to tort liability created or recognized 43922
by Chapter 2744. of the Revised Code for a school district, 43923
member, or employee.43924

       (12) A child under the age of twenty-two years is entitled to 43925
attend school in a school district other than the district in 43926
which the child is entitled to attend school under division (B), 43927
(C), or (E) of this section provided that, prior to such 43928
attendance in any school year, both of the following occur:43929

       (a) The superintendent of the district in which the child is 43930
entitled to attend school under division (B), (C), or (E) of this 43931
section contacts the superintendent of another district for 43932
purposes of this division;43933

       (b) The superintendents of both districts enter into a 43934
written agreement that consents to the attendance and specifies 43935
that the purpose of such attendance is to protect the student's 43936
physical or mental well-being or to deal with other extenuating 43937
circumstances deemed appropriate by the superintendents.43938

       While an agreement is in effect under this division for a 43939
student who is not receiving special education under Chapter 3323. 43940
of the Revised Code and notwithstanding Chapter 3327. of the 43941
Revised Code, the board of education of neither school district 43942
involved in the agreement is required to provide transportation 43943
for the student to and from the school where the student attends.43944

       A student attending a school of a district pursuant to this 43945
division shall be allowed to participate in all student 43946
activities, including interscholastic athletics, at the school 43947
where the student is attending on the same basis as any student 43948
who has always attended the schools of that district while of 43949
compulsory school age.43950

       (13) All school districts shall comply with the 43951
"McKinney-Vento Homeless Assistance Act," 42 U.S.C.A. 11431 et 43952
seq., for the education of homeless children. Each city, local, 43953
and exempted village school district shall comply with the 43954
requirements of that act governing the provision of a free, 43955
appropriate public education, including public preschool, to each 43956
homeless child.43957

       When a child loses permanent housing and becomes a homeless 43958
person, as defined in 42 U.S.C.A. 11481(5), or when a child who is 43959
such a homeless person changes temporary living arrangements, the 43960
child's parent or guardian shall have the option of enrolling the 43961
child in either of the following:43962

       (a) The child's school of origin, as defined in 42 U.S.C.A. 43963
11432(g)(3)(C);43964

       (b) The school that is operated by the school district in 43965
which the shelter where the child currently resides is located and 43966
that serves the geographic area in which the shelter is located.43967

       (14) A child under the age of twenty-two years who resides 43968
with a person other than the child's parent is entitled to attend 43969
school in the school district in which that person resides if both 43970
of the following apply:43971

       (a) That person has been appointed, through a military power 43972
of attorney executed under section 574(a) of the "National Defense 43973
Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 1994," 107 Stat. 1674 (1993), 10 43974
U.S.C. 1044b, or through a comparable document necessary to 43975
complete a family care plan, as the parent's agent for the care, 43976
custody, and control of the child while the parent is on active 43977
duty as a member of the national guard or a reserve unit of the 43978
armed forces of the United States or because the parent is a 43979
member of the armed forces of the United States and is on a duty 43980
assignment away from the parent's residence.43981

       (b) The military power of attorney or comparable document 43982
includes at least the authority to enroll the child in school.43983

        The entitlement to attend school in the district in which the 43984
parent's agent under the military power of attorney or comparable 43985
document resides applies until the end of the school year in which 43986
the military power of attorney or comparable document expires.43987

       (G) A board of education, after approving admission, may 43988
waive tuition for students who will temporarily reside in the 43989
district and who are either of the following:43990

       (1) Residents or domiciliaries of a foreign nation who 43991
request admission as foreign exchange students;43992

       (2) Residents or domiciliaries of the United States but not 43993
of Ohio who request admission as participants in an exchange 43994
program operated by a student exchange organization.43995

       (H) Pursuant to sections 3311.211, 3313.90, 3319.01, 3323.04, 43996
3327.04, and 3327.06 of the Revised Code, a child may attend 43997
school or participate in a special education program in a school 43998
district other than in the district where the child is entitled to 43999
attend school under division (B) of this section.44000

       (I)(1) Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in this 44001
section or section 3313.65 of the Revised Code, a child under 44002
twenty-two years of age may attend school in the school district 44003
in which the child, at the end of the first full week of October 44004
of the school year, was entitled to attend school as otherwise 44005
provided under this section or section 3313.65 of the Revised 44006
Code, if at that time the child was enrolled in the schools of the 44007
district but since that time the child or the child's parent has 44008
relocated to a new address located outside of that school district 44009
and within the same county as the child's or parent's address 44010
immediately prior to the relocation. The child may continue to 44011
attend school in the district, and at the school to which the 44012
child was assigned at the end of the first full week of October of 44013
the current school year, for the balance of the school year. 44014
Division (I)(1) of this section applies only if both of the 44015
following conditions are satisfied:44016

       (a) The board of education of the school district in which 44017
the child was entitled to attend school at the end of the first 44018
full week in October and of the district to which the child or 44019
child's parent has relocated each has adopted a policy to enroll 44020
children described in division (I)(1) of this section.44021

       (b) The child's parent provides written notification of the 44022
relocation outside of the school district to the superintendent of 44023
each of the two school districts.44024

       (2) At the beginning of the school year following the school 44025
year in which the child or the child's parent relocated outside of 44026
the school district as described in division (I)(1) of this 44027
section, the child is not entitled to attend school in the school 44028
district under that division.44029

       (3) Any person or entity owing tuition to the school district 44030
on behalf of the child at the end of the first full week in 44031
October, as provided in division (C) of this section, shall 44032
continue to owe such tuition to the district for the child's 44033
attendance under division (I)(1) of this section for the lesser of 44034
the balance of the school year or the balance of the time that the 44035
child attends school in the district under division (I)(1) of this 44036
section.44037

       (4) A pupil who may attend school in the district under 44038
division (I)(1) of this section shall be entitled to 44039
transportation services pursuant to an agreement between the 44040
district and the district in which the child or child's parent has 44041
relocated unless the districts have not entered into such 44042
agreement, in which case the child shall be entitled to 44043
transportation services in the same manner as a pupil attending 44044
school in the district under interdistrict open enrollment as 44045
described in division (H) of section 3313.981 of the Revised Code, 44046
regardless of whether the district has adopted an open enrollment 44047
policy as described in division (B)(1)(b) or (c) of section 44048
3313.98 of the Revised Code.44049

       (J) This division does not apply to a child receiving special 44050
education.44051

       A school district required to pay tuition pursuant to 44052
division (C)(2) or (3) of this section or section 3313.65 of the 44053
Revised Code shall have an amount deducted under division (C) of 44054
section 3317.023 of the Revised Code equal to its own tuition rate 44055
for the same period of attendance. A school district entitled to 44056
receive tuition pursuant to division (C)(2) or (3) of this section 44057
or section 3313.65 of the Revised Code shall have an amount 44058
credited under division (C) of section 3317.023 of the Revised 44059
Code equal to its own tuition rate for the same period of 44060
attendance. If the tuition rate credited to the district of 44061
attendance exceeds the rate deducted from the district required to 44062
pay tuition, the department of education shall pay the district of 44063
attendance the difference from amounts deducted from all 44064
districts' payments under division (C) of section 3317.023 of the 44065
Revised Code but not credited to other school districts under such 44066
division and from appropriations made for such purpose. The 44067
treasurer of each school district shall, by the fifteenth day of 44068
January and July, furnish the superintendent of public instruction 44069
a report of the names of each child who attended the district's 44070
schools under divisions (C)(2) and (3) of this section or section 44071
3313.65 of the Revised Code during the preceding six calendar 44072
months, the duration of the attendance of those children, the 44073
school district responsible for tuition on behalf of the child, 44074
and any other information that the superintendent requires.44075

       Upon receipt of the report the superintendent, pursuant to 44076
division (C) of section 3317.023 of the Revised Code, shall deduct 44077
each district's tuition obligations under divisions (C)(2) and (3) 44078
of this section or section 3313.65 of the Revised Code and pay to 44079
the district of attendance that amount plus any amount required to 44080
be paid by the state.44081

       (K) In the event of a disagreement, the superintendent of 44082
public instruction shall determine the school district in which 44083
the parent resides.44084

       (L) Nothing in this section requires or authorizes, or shall 44085
be construed to require or authorize, the admission to a public 44086
school in this state of a pupil who has been permanently excluded 44087
from public school attendance by the superintendent of public 44088
instruction pursuant to sections 3301.121 and 3313.662 of the 44089
Revised Code.44090

       (M) In accordance with division (B)(1) of this section, a 44091
child whose parent is a member of the national guard or a reserve 44092
unit of the armed forces of the United States and is called to 44093
active duty, or a child whose parent is a member of the armed 44094
forces of the United States and is ordered to a temporary duty 44095
assignment outside of the district, may continue to attend school 44096
in the district in which the child's parent lived before being 44097
called to active duty or ordered to a temporary duty assignment 44098
outside of the district, as long as the child's parent continues 44099
to be a resident of that district, and regardless of where the 44100
child lives as a result of the parent's active duty status or 44101
temporary duty assignment. However, the district is not 44102
responsible for providing transportation for the child if the 44103
child lives outside of the district as a result of the parent's 44104
active duty status or temporary duty assignment.44105

       Sec. 3313.646.  (A) The board of education of a school 44106
district, except a cooperative education district established 44107
pursuant to section 3311.521 of the Revised Code, may establish 44108
and operate a preschool program to provide services to 44109
preschool-age children, provided the board has demonstrated a need 44110
for the program. A board may use school funds in support of 44111
preschool programs. The board shall maintain, operate, and admit 44112
children to any such program pursuant to rules adopted by such 44113
board and the rules of the state board of education adopted under 44114
sections 3301.52 to 3301.57 of the Revised Code.44115

       A board of education may establish fees or tuition, which may 44116
be graduated in proportion to family income, for participation in 44117
a preschool program. In cases where payment of fees or tuition 44118
would create a hardship for the child's parent or guardian, the 44119
board may waive any such fees or tuition.44120

       (B) No board of education that is not receiving funds under 44121
the "Head Start Act," 95 Stat. 489 (1981), 42 U.S.C.A. 9831, on 44122
March 17, 1989, shall compete for funds under the "Head Start Act" 44123
with any grantee receiving funds under that act.44124

       (C) A board of education may contract with any of the 44125
following preschool providers to provide preschool programs44126
services to preschool-age children, other than programs for units 44127
described by divisions (B) and (C) ofthose services for which the 44128
district is eligible to receive funding under section 3317.0544129
3317.0213 of the Revised Code, for children of the school 44130
district:44131

       (1) Any organization receiving funds under the "Head Start 44132
Act";44133

       (2) Any nonsectarian eligible nonpublic school as defined in 44134
division (H) of section 3301.52 of the Revised Code;44135

       (3) Any child care provider licensed under Chapter 5104. of 44136
the Revised Code.44137

       Boards may contract to provide preschool programsservices to 44138
preschool-age children only with such organizations whose staff 44139
meet the requirements of rules adopted under section 3301.53 of 44140
the Revised Code or those of the child development associate 44141
credential established by the national association for the 44142
education of young children.44143

       (D) A contract entered into under division (C) of this 44144
section may provide for the board of education to lease school 44145
facilities to the preschool provider or to furnish transportation, 44146
utilities, or staff for the preschool program.44147

       (E) The treasurer of any board of education operating a 44148
preschool program pursuant to this section shall keep an account 44149
of all funds used to operate the program in the same manner as the 44150
treasurer would any other funds of the district pursuant to this 44151
chapter.44152

       Sec. 3313.65.  (A) As used in this section and section 44153
3313.64 of the Revised Code:44154

       (1) A person is "in a residential facility" if the person is 44155
a resident or a resident patient of an institution, home, or other 44156
residential facility that is:44157

       (a) Licensed as a nursing home, residential care facility, or 44158
home for the aging by the director of health under section 3721.02 44159
of the Revised Code;44160

       (b) Maintained as a county home or district home by the board 44161
of county commissioners or a joint board of county commissioners 44162
under Chapter 5155. of the Revised Code;44163

       (c) Operated or administered by a board of alcohol, drug 44164
addiction, and mental health services under section 340.03 or 44165
340.06 of the Revised Code, or provides residential care pursuant 44166
to contracts made under section 340.03 or 340.033 of the Revised 44167
Code;44168

       (d) Maintained as a state institution for the mentally ill 44169
under Chapter 5119. of the Revised Code;44170

       (e) Licensed by the department of mental healthmental health 44171
and addiction services under section 5119.205119.33 or 5119.2244172
5119.34 of the Revised Code;44173

       (f) Licensed as a residential facility by the department of 44174
developmental disabilities under section 5123.19 of the Revised 44175
Code;44176

       (g) Operated by the veteran's administration or another 44177
agency of the United States government;44178

       (h) Operated by the Ohio veterans' home.44179

       (2) A person is "in a correctional facility" if any of the 44180
following apply:44181

       (a) The person is an Ohio resident and is:44182

       (i) Imprisoned, as defined in section 1.05 of the Revised 44183
Code;44184

       (ii) Serving a term in a community-based correctional 44185
facility or a district community-based correctional facility;44186

       (iii) Required, as a condition of parole, a post-release 44187
control sanction, a community control sanction, transitional 44188
control, or early release from imprisonment, as a condition of 44189
shock parole or shock probation granted under the law in effect 44190
prior to July 1, 1996, or as a condition of a furlough granted 44191
under the version of section 2967.26 of the Revised Code in effect 44192
prior to March 17, 1998, to reside in a halfway house or other 44193
community residential center licensed under section 2967.14 of the 44194
Revised Code or a similar facility designated by the court of 44195
common pleas that established the condition or by the adult parole 44196
authority.44197

       (b) The person is imprisoned in a state correctional 44198
institution of another state or a federal correctional institution 44199
but was an Ohio resident at the time the sentence was imposed for 44200
the crime for which the person is imprisoned.44201

       (3) A person is "in a juvenile residential placement" if the 44202
person is an Ohio resident who is under twenty-one years of age 44203
and has been removed, by the order of a juvenile court, from the 44204
place the person resided at the time the person became subject to 44205
the court's jurisdiction in the matter that resulted in the 44206
person's removal.44207

       (4) "Community control sanction" has the same meaning as in 44208
section 2929.01 of the Revised Code.44209

       (5) "Post-release control sanction" has the same meaning as 44210
in section 2967.01 of the Revised Code.44211

       (B) If the circumstances described in division (C) of this 44212
section apply, the determination of what school district must 44213
admit a child to its schools and what district, if any, is liable 44214
for tuition shall be made in accordance with this section, rather 44215
than section 3313.64 of the Revised Code.44216

       (C) A child who does not reside in the school district in 44217
which the child's parent resides and for whom a tuition obligation 44218
previously has not been established under division (C)(2) of 44219
section 3313.64 of the Revised Code shall be admitted to the 44220
schools of the district in which the child resides if at least one 44221
of the child's parents is in a residential or correctional 44222
facility or a juvenile residential placement and the other parent, 44223
if living and not in such a facility or placement, is not known to 44224
reside in this state.44225

       (D) Regardless of who has custody or care of the child, 44226
whether the child resides in a home, or whether the child receives 44227
special education, if a district admits a child under division (C) 44228
of this section, tuition shall be paid to that district as 44229
follows:44230

       (1) If the child's parent is in a juvenile residential 44231
placement, by the district in which the child's parent resided at 44232
the time the parent became subject to the jurisdiction of the 44233
juvenile court;44234

       (2) If the child's parent is in a correctional facility, by 44235
the district in which the child's parent resided at the time the 44236
sentence was imposed;44237

       (3) If the child's parent is in a residential facility, by 44238
the district in which the parent resided at the time the parent 44239
was admitted to the residential facility, except that if the 44240
parent was transferred from another residential facility, tuition 44241
shall be paid by the district in which the parent resided at the 44242
time the parent was admitted to the facility from which the parent 44243
first was transferred;44244

       (4) In the event of a disagreement as to which school 44245
district is liable for tuition under division (C)(1), (2), or (3) 44246
of this section, the superintendent of public instruction shall 44247
determine which district shall pay tuition.44248

       (E) If a child covered by division (D) of this section 44249
receives special education in accordance with Chapter 3323. of the 44250
Revised Code, the tuition shall be paid in accordance with section 44251
3323.13 or 3323.14 of the Revised Code. Tuition for children who 44252
do not receive special education shall be paid in accordance with 44253
division (J) of section 3313.64 of the Revised Code.44254

       Sec. 3313.714.  (A) As used in this section:44255

       (1) "Board of education" means the board of education of a 44256
city, local, exempted village, or joint vocational school 44257
district.44258

       (2) "Healthcheck" means the early and periodic screening, 44259
diagnosis, and treatment program, a component of the medical 44260
assistancemedicaid program established under Title XIX of the 44261
"Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 302, as 44262
amended, and Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code.44263

       (3) "Pupil" means a person under age twenty-two enrolled in 44264
the schools of a city, local, exempted village, or joint 44265
vocational school district.44266

       (4) "Parent" means either parent with the following 44267
exceptions:44268

       (a) If one parent has custody by court order, "parent" means 44269
the parent with custody.44270

       (b) If neither parent has legal custody, "parent" means the 44271
person or government entity with legal custody.44272

       (c) The child's legal guardian or a person who has accepted 44273
responsibility for the health, safety, and welfare of the child.44274

       (B) At the request of the department of job and family 44275
servicesmedicaid, a board of education shall establish and 44276
conduct a healthcheck program for pupils enrolled in the schools 44277
of the district who are medicaid recipients of medical assistance 44278
under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code. At the request of a board 44279
of education, the department may authorize the board to establish 44280
a healthcheck program. A board that establishes a healthcheck 44281
program shall enter into a medical assistancemedicaid provider 44282
agreement with the department.44283

       A healthcheck program established by a board of education 44284
shall be conducted in accordance with rules adopted by the 44285
medicaid director of job and family services under division (F) of 44286
this section. The healthcheck program shall include all of the 44287
following components:44288

       (1) A comprehensive health and development history;44289

       (2) A comprehensive physical examination;44290

       (3) A developmental assessment;44291

       (4) A nutritional assessment;44292

       (5) A vision assessment;44293

       (6) A hearing assessment;44294

       (7) An immunization assessment;44295

       (8) Lead screening and laboratory tests ordered by a doctor 44296
of medicine or osteopathic medicine as part of one of the other 44297
components;44298

       (9) Such other assessment as may be required by the 44299
department of job and family servicesmedicaid in accordance with 44300
the requirements of the healthcheck program.44301

       All services included in a board of education's healthcheck 44302
program that the board provided under sections 3313.67, 3313.673, 44303
3313.68, 3313.69, and 3313.71 of the Revised Code during the 44304
1990-1991 school year shall continue to be provided to medical 44305
assistancemedicaid recipients by the board pursuant to those 44306
sections. The services shall be considered part of the healthcheck 44307
program for medicaid recipients of medical assistance, and the 44308
board shall be eligible for reimbursementpayment from the state44309
department in accordance with this division for providing the 44310
services.44311

       The department shall reimbursepay boards of education for 44312
healthcheck program services provided under this division at the 44313
rates paid under the medical assistancemedicaid program to 44314
physicians, dentists, nurses, and other providers of healthcheck 44315
services.44316

       (C) Each board of education that conducts a healthcheck 44317
program shall determine for each pupil enrolled in the schools of 44318
the district whether the pupil is a medical assistancemedicaid44319
recipient. The department of job and family servicesmedicaid and 44320
county departments of human servicesjob and family services shall 44321
assist the board in making these determinations. Except as 44322
necessary to carry out the purposes of this section, all 44323
information received by a board under this division shall be 44324
confidential.44325

       Before the first day of October of each year, each board that 44326
conducts a healthcheck program shall send the parent of each pupil 44327
who is under age eighteen and a medicaid recipient of medical 44328
assistance notice that the pupil will be examined under the 44329
district's healthcheck program unless the parent notifies the 44330
board that the parent denies consent for the examination. The 44331
notice shall include a form to be used by the parent to indicate 44332
that the parent denies consent. The denial shall be effective only 44333
if the form is signed by the parent and returned to the board or 44334
the school in which the pupil is enrolled. If the parent does not 44335
return a signed form indicating denial of consent within two weeks 44336
after the date the notice is sent, the school district and the 44337
department of job and family servicesmedicaid shall deem the 44338
parent to have consented to examination of the parent's child 44339
under the healthcheck program. In the case of a pupil age eighteen 44340
or older, the notice shall be given to the pupil, and the school 44341
district and the department of job and family servicesmedicaid44342
shall deem the pupil to have consented to examination unless the 44343
pupil returns the signed form indicating the pupil's denial of 44344
consent.44345

       (D)(1) As used in this division:44346

       (a) "Nonfederal share" means the portion of expenditures for 44347
services that is required under the medical assistancemedicaid44348
program to be paid for with state or local government funds.44349

       (b) "Federal financial participation" means the portion of 44350
expenditures for services that is reimbursedpayable under the 44351
medical assistancemedicaid program with federal funds.44352

       (2) At the request of a board of education, the state 44353
department may enter into an agreement with the board under which 44354
the board provides medical services to a medicaid recipient of 44355
medical assistance that are reimbursablepayable under the medical 44356
assistancemedicaid program but not under the healthcheck program. 44357
The agreement may be for a term specified in the agreement and 44358
renewable by mutual consent of the board and the department, or 44359
may continue in force as long as agreeable to the board and the 44360
department.44361

       The board shall use state or local funds of the district to 44362
pay the nonfederal share of expenditures for services provided 44363
under this division. Prior to entering into or renewing an 44364
agreement and at any other time requested by the department while 44365
the agreement is in force, the board shall certify to the 44366
department in accordance with the rules adopted under division (F) 44367
of this section that it will have sufficient state or local funds 44368
to pay the nonfederal share of expenditures under this division. 44369
If the board fails to make the certification, the department shall 44370
not enter into or renew the agreement. If an agreement has been 44371
entered into, it shall be void unless the board makes the 44372
certification not later than fifteen days after receiving notice 44373
from the department that the certification is due. The board shall 44374
report to the department, in accordance with the rules, the amount 44375
of state or local funds it spends to provide services under this 44376
division.44377

       The department shall reimbursepay the board the federal 44378
financial participation allowed for the board's expenditures for 44379
services under this division. The total of the nonfederal share 44380
spent by the board and the federal financial participation 44381
reimbursedpaid by the department for a service rendered under 44382
this division shall be an amount agreed to by the board and the 44383
department, but shall not exceed the maximum reimbursablepayable 44384
amount for that service under rules adopted by the director of job 44385
and family services under Chapter 5111.section 5164.02 of the 44386
Revised Code. The rules adopted under division (F) of this section 44387
shall include procedures under which the department will recover 44388
from a board overpayments and subsequent federal audit 44389
disallowances of federal financial participation reimbursedpaid44390
by the department.44391

       (E) A board of education shall provide services under 44392
division (D) of this section and under its healthcheck program as 44393
provided in division (E)(1), (2), or (3) of this section:44394

       (1) By having the services performed by physicians, dentists, 44395
and nurses employed by the board;44396

       (2) By contracting with physicians, dentists, nurses, and 44397
other providers of services who have medical assistancemedicaid44398
provider agreements with the department of job and family services44399
medicaid;44400

       (3) By having some of the services performed by persons 44401
described in division (E)(1) of this section and others performed 44402
by persons described in division (E)(2) of this section.44403

       (F) The medicaid director of job and family services shall 44404
adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code 44405
governing healthcheck programs conducted under this section and 44406
services provided under division (D) of this section.44407

       Sec. 3313.715.  The board of education of a school district 44408
may request from the director of developmental disabilities the 44409
appropriate identification numbers for all students residing in 44410
the district who are medical assistancemedicaid recipients under 44411
Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code. The director shall furnish such 44412
numbers upon receipt of lists of student names furnished by the 44413
district board, in such form as the director may require.44414

       The medicaid director of job and family services shall 44415
provide the director of developmental disabilities with the data 44416
necessary for compliance with this section.44417

       Section 3319.321 of the Revised Code does not apply to the 44418
release of student names or other data to the director of 44419
developmental disabilities for the purposes of this section. 44420
Chapter 1347. of the Revised Code does not apply to information 44421
required to be kept by a school board or the departments of job 44422
and family servicesmedicaid or developmental disabilities to the 44423
extent necessary to comply with this section and section 3313.714 44424
of the Revised Code. However, any such information or data shall 44425
be used only for the specific legal purposes of such boards and 44426
departments and shall not be released to any unauthorized person.44427

       Sec. 3313.83.  (A)(1) For the purpose of pooling resources, 44428
operating more cost effectively, minimizing administrative 44429
overhead, encouraging the sharing of resource development, and 44430
diminishing duplication, the boards of education of two or more 44431
city, local, or exempted village school districts each having a 44432
majority of its territory in a county with a population greater 44433
than one million two hundred thousand, by adopting identical 44434
resolutions, may enter into an agreement providing for the 44435
creation of a regional student education district for the purpose 44436
of funding the following for students enrolled in those school 44437
districts, including students diagnosed as autistic and students 44438
with special needs, and their immediate family members:44439

        (a) Special education services;44440

        (b) Behavioral health services for persons with special 44441
needs.44442

        If more than eight boards of education adopt resolutions to 44443
form a regional student education district, the boards may meet at 44444
facilities of the educational service center of the county to 44445
discuss membership in the district.44446

       (2) The territory of a regional student education district at 44447
any time shall be composed of the combined territories of the 44448
school districts that are parties to the agreement at that time. 44449
Services funded by a regional student education district shall be 44450
available to all individuals enrolled in a school district that is 44451
a part of the regional student education district and members of 44452
their immediate family.44453

       (3) The agreement may be amended pursuant to terms and 44454
procedures mutually agreed to by the boards of education that are 44455
parties to the agreement.44456

       (B) Each regional student education district shall be 44457
governed by a board of directors. The superintendent of each board 44458
of education that is a party to the agreement shall serve on the 44459
board of directors. The agreement shall provide for the terms of 44460
office of directors. Directors shall receive no compensation, but 44461
shall be reimbursed, from the special fund of the regional student 44462
education district, for the reasonable and necessary expenses they 44463
incur in the performance of their duties for the district. The 44464
agreement shall provide for the conduct of the board's initial 44465
organizational meeting and for the frequency of subsequent 44466
meetings and quorum requirements. At its first meeting, the board 44467
shall designate from among its members a president and secretary 44468
in the manner provided in the agreement.44469

       The board of directors of a regional student education 44470
district is a body corporate and politic, is capable of suing and 44471
being sued, is capable of contracting within the limits of this 44472
section and the agreement governing the district, and is capable 44473
of accepting gifts, donations, bequests, or other grants of money 44474
for use in paying its expenses. The district is a public office 44475
and its directors are public officials within the meaning of 44476
section 117.01 of the Revised Code, the board of directors is a 44477
public body within the meaning of section 121.22 of the Revised 44478
Code, and records of the board and of the district are public 44479
records within the meaning of section 149.43 of the Revised Code.44480

       The agreement shall require the board to designate a 44481
permanent location for its offices and meeting place, and may 44482
provide for the use of such facilities and property for the 44483
provision of services by the agencies with which the board 44484
contracts under division (C) of this section.44485

       (C)(1) To provide the services identified in division (A)(1) 44486
of this section, the board of directors of a regional student 44487
education district shall provide for the hiring of employees or 44488
shall contract with one or more entities. Except as provided in 44489
division (C)(2) of this section, any entity with which the board 44490
of directors contracts to provide the services identified in 44491
division (A)(1)(b) of this section shall be a qualified nonprofit, 44492
nationally accredited agency to which both of the following apply:44493

        (a) The agency is licensed or certified by the departments of 44494
mental health,mental health and addiction services and job and 44495
family services, and alcohol and drug addiction services.44496

        (b) The agency provides school-based behavioral health 44497
services.44498

       (2) The board of directors may contract with an entity that 44499
does not meet the conditions stated in division (C)(1) of this 44500
section if the services to be provided by the entity are only 44501
incidental to the services identified in division (A)(1)(b) of 44502
this section.44503

       (3) The board of directors may levy a tax throughout the 44504
district as provided in section 5705.2111 of the Revised Code. The 44505
board of directors shall provide for the creation of a special 44506
fund to hold the proceeds of any tax levied under section 44507
5705.2111 of the Revised Code and any gifts, donations, bequests, 44508
or other grants of money coming into the possession of the 44509
district. A regional student education district is a subdivision, 44510
and the board of directors is a governing body, within the meaning 44511
of section 135.01 of the Revised Code. The board of directors may 44512
not issue securities or otherwise incur indebtedness.44513

       (4) The adoption or rejection by electors of a tax levy to 44514
fund a regional student education district pursuant to section 44515
5705.2111 of the Revised Code does not alter the duty of each 44516
school district member of the regional student education district 44517
to provide special education and related services as required 44518
under Chapter 3323. of the Revised Code. On the expiration of a 44519
regional student education district levy, the state, member school 44520
districts of the regional student education district, and any 44521
other governmental entity shall not be obligated to provide 44522
replacement funding for the revenues under the expired levy. The 44523
tax levy, in whole or in part, shall not be considered a levy for 44524
current operating expenses pursuant to division (A) of section 44525
3317.01 of the Revised Code for any of the school districts that 44526
are members of the regional student education district.44527

       (D)(1) The agreement shall provide for the manner of 44528
appointing an individual or entity to perform the duties of fiscal 44529
officer of the regional student education district. The agreement 44530
shall specify the length of time the individual or entity shall 44531
perform those duties and whether the individual or entity may be 44532
reappointed upon the completion of a term. The fiscal officer may 44533
receive compensation for performing the duties of the position and 44534
be reimbursed for reasonable expenses of performing those duties 44535
from the regional student education district's special fund.44536

       (2) The legal advisor of the board of directors of a regional 44537
student education district shall be the prosecuting attorney of 44538
the most populous county containing a school district that is a 44539
member of the regional student education district. The prosecuting 44540
attorney shall prosecute all actions against a member of the board 44541
of directors for malfeasance or misfeasance in office and shall be 44542
the legal counsel for the board and its members in all other 44543
actions brought by or against them and shall conduct those actions 44544
in the prosecuting attorney's official capacity. No compensation 44545
in addition to the prosecuting attorney's regular salary shall be 44546
allowed.44547

       (E) The board of directors of a regional student education 44548
district shall procure a policy or policies of insurance insuring 44549
the board, the fiscal officer, and the legal representative 44550
against liability on account of damage or injury to persons and 44551
property. Before procuring such insurance the board shall adopt a 44552
resolution setting forth the amount of insurance to be purchased, 44553
the necessity of the insurance, and a statement of its estimated 44554
premium cost. Insurance procured pursuant to this section shall be 44555
from one or more recognized insurance companies authorized to do 44556
business in this state. The cost of the insurance shall be paid 44557
from the district's special fund.44558

       A regional student education district is a political 44559
subdivision within the meaning of section 2744.01 of the Revised 44560
Code.44561

       (F)(1) The board of education of a school district having a 44562
majority of its territory in the county may join an existing 44563
regional student education district by adopting a resolution 44564
requesting to join as a party to the agreement and upon approval 44565
by the boards of education that currently are parties to the 44566
agreement. If a tax is levied in the regional student education 44567
district under section 5705.2111 of the Revised Code, a board of 44568
education may join the district only after a majority of qualified 44569
electors in the school district voting on the question vote in 44570
favor of levying the tax throughout the school district. A board 44571
of education joining an existing district shall have the same 44572
powers, rights, and obligations under the agreement as other 44573
boards of education that are parties to the agreement.44574

       (2) A board of education that is a party to an agreement 44575
under this section may withdraw the school district from a 44576
regional student education district by adopting a resolution. The 44577
withdrawal shall take effect on the date provided in the 44578
resolution. If a tax is levied in the regional student education 44579
district under section 5705.2111 of the Revised Code, the 44580
resolution shall take effect not later than the first day of 44581
January following adoption of the resolution. Beginning with the 44582
first day of January following adoption of the resolution, any tax 44583
levied under section 5705.2111 of the Revised Code shall not be 44584
levied within the territory of the withdrawing school district. 44585
Any collection of tax levied in the territory of the withdrawing 44586
school district under that section that has not been settled and 44587
distributed when the resolution takes effect shall be credited to 44588
the district's special fund.44589

       (G) An agreement entered into under this section shall 44590
provide for the manner of the regional student education 44591
district's dissolution. The district shall cease to exist when not 44592
more than one school district remains in the district, and the 44593
levy of any tax under section 5705.2111 of the Revised Code shall 44594
not be extended on the tax lists in any tax year beginning after 44595
the dissolution of the district. The agreement shall provide that, 44596
upon dissolution of the district, any unexpended balance in the 44597
district's special fund shall be divided among the school 44598
districts that are parties to the agreement immediately before 44599
dissolution in proportion to the taxable valuation of taxable 44600
property in the districts, and credited to their respective 44601
general funds.44602

       Sec. 3313.841.  The boards of education and governing boards 44603
of two or more city, local, joint vocational, or exempted village 44604
school districts or educational service centers may contract in 44605
accordance with the terms of this section for the sharing on a 44606
cooperative basis of the services of supervisory teachers, special 44607
instruction teachers, special education teachers, and other 44608
licensed personnel necessary to conduct approved cooperative 44609
classes for special education and related services and gifted 44610
education.44611

       The boards of two or more districts or service centers 44612
desiring to enroll students in such classes shall each adopt 44613
resolutions indicating such desire and designating one of the 44614
participating districts or service centers as the funding agent 44615
for purposes of this section. The district or service center 44616
designated as the funding agent shall enter into an employment 44617
contract with each licensed teacher whose services are to be 44618
shared among the participating districts and service centers. In 44619
turn, the funding agent shall enter into contracts with each of 44620
the districts and service centers which have adopted resolutions 44621
agreeing to participate in the cooperative program upon terms 44622
agreed to by all parties to such contract. Such contracts between 44623
districts and service centers shall set forth the services to be 44624
provided by the licensed teacher employed by the funding agent 44625
whose services are to be shared by the participating districts and 44626
service centers and the basis for computing the amounts to be paid 44627
for such services to the funding agent by the participating 44628
districts and service centers.44629

       For purposes of division (B) of section 3317.053317.0213 of 44630
the Revised Code, the funding agent shall count all pupils 44631
enrolled in cooperative programs for pupils with disabilities as 44632
pupils enrolled in such programs in the funding agent district. 44633
Upon receipt of payment for such programs, the funding agent 44634
district shall credit the account of districts participating in 44635
the cooperative program for the amounts due under contracts 44636
entered into under the terms of this section in proportion to the 44637
number of resident students enrolled in the cooperative program 44638
from each participating district and service center.44639

       In determining the terms of the contract entered into by the 44640
funding agent district or service center and the participating 44641
districts and service centers, the superintendent of schools of 44642
each participating board of education and governing board shall 44643
serve as a committee which shall recommend such terms to such 44644
boards.44645

       Sec. 3313.843.  (A) Notwithstanding division (D) of section 44646
3311.52 of the Revised Code, this section does not apply to any 44647
cooperative education school district.44648

       (B)(1) The board of education of each city, exempted village, 44649
or local school district with an average daily student enrollment 44650
of sixteen thousand or less, reported for the district on the most 44651
recent report card issued under section 3302.03 of the Revised 44652
Code, shall enter into an agreement with the governing board of an 44653
educational service center, under which the educational service 44654
center governing board will provide services to the district.44655

       (2) The board of education of a city, exempted village, or 44656
local school district with an average daily student enrollment of 44657
more than sixteen thousand may enter into an agreement with the 44658
governing board of an educational service center, under which the 44659
educational service center governing board will provide services 44660
to the district.44661

       (3) Services provided under an agreement entered into under 44662
division (B)(1) or (2) of this section shall be specified in the 44663
agreement, and may include any of the following: supervisory 44664
teachers; in-service and continuing education programs for 44665
district personnel; curriculum services; research and development 44666
programs; academic instruction for which the governing board 44667
employs teachers pursuant to section 3319.02 of the Revised Code; 44668
assistance in the provision of special accommodations and classes 44669
for students with disabilities; or any other services the district 44670
board and service center governing board agree can be better 44671
provided by the service center and are not provided under an 44672
agreement entered into under section 3313.845 of the Revised Code. 44673
Services included in the agreement shall be provided to the 44674
district in the manner specified in the agreement. The district 44675
board of education shall reimburse the educational service center 44676
governing board pursuant to section 3317.11 of the Revised Code44677
terms specified in the agreement entered into under this section.44678

       Beginning with the 2012-2013 school year, the board of any 44679
district described in division (B)(2) of this section may elect 44680
not to receive the supervisory services for which supervisory 44681
units are paid under division (B) of section 3317.11 of the 44682
Revised Code, provided that election is specified in the 44683
agreement.44684

       (C) Any agreement entered into pursuant to this section shall 44685
be filed with the department of education by the first day of July 44686
of the school year for which the agreement is in effect.44687

       (D)(1) An agreement for services from an educational service 44688
center entered into under this section may be terminated by the 44689
school district board of education, at its option, by notifying 44690
the governing board of the service center by March 1, 2012, or by 44691
the first day of January of any odd-numbered year thereafter, that 44692
the district board intends to terminate the agreement in that 44693
year, and that termination shall be effective on the thirtieth day 44694
of June of that year. The failure of a district board to notify an 44695
educational service center of its intent to terminate an agreement 44696
by March 1, 2012, shall result in renewal of the existing 44697
agreement for the following school year. Thereafter, the failure 44698
of a district board to notify an educational service center of its 44699
intent to terminate an agreement by the first day of January of an 44700
odd-numbered year shall result in renewal of the existing 44701
agreement for the following two school years.44702

       (2) If the school district that terminates an agreement for 44703
services under division (D)(1) of this section is also subject to 44704
the requirement of division (B)(1) of this section, the district 44705
board shall enter into a new agreement with any educational 44706
service center so that the new agreement is effective on the first 44707
day of July of that same year.44708

       (3) If all moneys owed by a school district to an educational 44709
service center under an agreement for services terminated under 44710
division (D)(1) of this section have been paid in full by the 44711
effective date of the termination, the governing board of the 44712
service center shall submit an affidavit to the department 44713
certifying that fact not later than fifteen days after the 44714
termination's effective date. Notwithstanding anything in the 44715
Revised Code to the contrary, until the department receives such 44716
an affidavit, it shall not make any payments to any other 44717
educational service center with which the district enters into an 44718
agreement under this section for services that the educational 44719
service center provides to the district.44720

        (E) An educational service center may apply to any state or 44721
federal agency for competitive grants. It may also apply to any 44722
private entity for additional funds. 44723

       (F) Not later than January 1, 2014, each educational service 44724
center shall post on its web site a list of all of the services 44725
that it provides and the corresponding cost for each of those 44726
services.44727

        (G)(1) For purposes of this division, a school district's 44728
"total student count" means the average daily student enrollment 44729
reported on the most recent report card issued for the district 44730
pursuant to section 3302.03 of the Revised Code.44731

        (2) For purposes of calculating any state subsidy to be paid 44732
to an educational service center for services provided to a school 44733
district, the service center's student count shall be the sum of 44734
the total student counts of all the school districts with which 44735
the educational service center has entered into an agreement under 44736
this section.44737

        (3) When a district enters into a new agreement with a new 44738
educational service center, the department of education shall 44739
ensure that the state subsidy for services provided to the 44740
district is paid to the new educational service center and that 44741
the educational service center with which the district previously 44742
had an agreement is no longer paid a state subsidy for providing 44743
services to that district. 44744

       Sec. 3313.845.  The board of education of a city, exempted 44745
village, or local school district and the governing board of an 44746
educational service center may enter into an agreement under which 44747
the educational service center will provide services to the school 44748
district. Services provided under the agreement and the amount to 44749
be paid for such services shall be mutually agreed to by the 44750
district board of education and the service center governing 44751
board, and shall be specified in the agreement. Payment for 44752
services specified in the agreement shall be made pursuant to 44753
division (D) of section 3317.11 of the Revised Code and shall not 44754
include any deduction under division (B), (C), or (F) of that 44755
sectionthe terms of that agreement. Any agreement entered into 44756
pursuant to this section shall be valid only if a copy is filed 44757
with the department of education.44758

       The authority granted under this section to the boards of 44759
education of city, exempted village, and local school districts is 44760
in addition to the authority granted to such boards under section 44761
3313.843 of the Revised Code. 44762

       Sec. 3313.848.  (A) As used in this section:44763

       (1) "Client" means a city, local, or exempted village school 44764
district, community school established under Chapter 3314. of the 44765
Revised Code, STEM school established under Chapter 3326. of the 44766
Revised Code, or political subdivision.44767

       (2) "Governing body" means the board of education of a school 44768
district, governing authority of a community school, governing 44769
body of a STEM school, or governing body of a political 44770
subdivision.44771

       (3) "Political subdivision" has the same meaning as used in 44772
section 3313.846 of the Revised Code.44773

       (4) "Service agreement" means an agreement that a client has 44774
entered into with an educational service center under section 44775
3313.843, 3313.844, 3313.845, 3313.846, or 3326.45 of the Revised 44776
Code and any subsequent amendment to that agreement.44777

       (B) If at the end of a fiscal year for which a service 44778
agreement is in effect any of the funds paid directly by a client 44779
to the educational service center under the agreement have not 44780
been expended, a client's governing body may elect to have the 44781
service center retain the unexpended funds for the purpose of 44782
applying them toward any payment the client will owe to the 44783
service center under a service agreement for the next fiscal year. 44784
The treasurer or fiscal officer of the client shall indicate on 44785
the client's end-of-year financial report that unexpended funds 44786
have been retained by the service center and the amount of those 44787
funds.44788

       (C) If the chief administrator of a client requests that the 44789
treasurer of an educational service center spend a portion of the 44790
client's funds retained under division (B) of this section for a 44791
purpose other than services specifically set forth under a service 44792
agreement and the treasurer fulfills that request, the treasurer 44793
shall keep a record of the expenditure and the purpose for which 44794
the expenditure was made. On at least an annual basis, or upon the 44795
request of the client's governing body or its treasurer or fiscal 44796
officer, the treasurer of the service center shall notify the 44797
client's treasurer or fiscal officer of the expenditures recorded 44798
under this division. The client's treasurer or fiscal officer 44799
shall include that information in the financial report made by the 44800
treasurer or fiscal officer at the next meeting of the client's 44801
governing body that occurs following receipt of the information.44802

       Sec. 3313.88.  (A)(1) Prior to the first day of August of 44803
each school year, the board of education of any school district or 44804
the governing authority of any chartered nonpublic school may 44805
submit to the department of education a plan to require students 44806
to access and complete classroom lessons posted on the district's 44807
or nonpublic school's web portal or web site in order to make up 44808
days in that school year on which it is necessary to close schools 44809
for any of the reasons specified in division (B) of section 44810
3317.01 of the Revised Code in excess of the number of days 44811
permitted under sections 3313.48, 3313.481, and 3317.01 of the 44812
Revised Code.44813

       Prior to the first day of August of each school year, the 44814
governing authority of any community school established under 44815
Chapter 3314. that is not an internet- or computer-based community 44816
school, as defined in section 3314.02 of the Revised Code, may 44817
submit to the department a plan to require students to access and 44818
complete classroom lessons posted on the school's web portal or 44819
web site in order to make up days or hours in that school year on 44820
which it is necessary to close the school for any of the reasons 44821
specified in division (L)(H)(4) of section 3314.08 of the Revised 44822
Code so that the school is in compliance with the minimum number 44823
of hours required under Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code.44824

        A plan submitted by a school district board or chartered 44825
nonpublic school governing authority shall provide for making up 44826
any number of days, up to a maximum of three days. A plan 44827
submitted by a community school governing authority shall provide 44828
for making up any number of hours, up to a maximum of the 44829
equivalent of three days. Provided the plan meets all requirements 44830
of this section, the department shall permit the board or 44831
governing authority to implement the plan for the applicable 44832
school year.44833

       (2) Each plan submitted under this section by a school 44834
district board of education shall include the written consent of 44835
the teachers' employee representative designated under division 44836
(B) of section 4117.04 of the Revised Code.44837

       (3) Each plan submitted under this section shall provide for 44838
the following:44839

       (a) Not later than the first day of November of the school 44840
year, each classroom teacher shall develop a sufficient number of 44841
lessons for each course taught by the teacher that school year to 44842
cover the number of make-up days or hours specified in the plan. 44843
The teacher shall designate the order in which the lessons are to 44844
be posted on the district's, community school's, or nonpublic 44845
school's web portal or web site in the event of a school closure. 44846
Teachers may be granted up to one professional development day to 44847
create lesson plans for those lessons.44848

       (b) To the extent possible and necessary, a classroom teacher 44849
shall update or replace, based on current instructional progress, 44850
one or more of the lesson plans developed under division (A)(3)(a) 44851
of this section before they are posted on the web portal or web 44852
site under division (A)(3)(c) of this section or distributed under 44853
division (B) of this section.44854

       (c) As soon as practicable after a school closure, a district 44855
or school employee responsible for web portal or web site 44856
operations shall make the designated lessons available to students 44857
on the district's, community school's, or nonpublic school's 44858
portal or site. A lesson shall be posted for each course that was 44859
scheduled to meet on the day or hours of the closure.44860

       (d) Each student enrolled in a course for which a lesson is 44861
posted on the portal or site shall be granted a two-week period 44862
from the date of posting to complete the lesson. The student's 44863
classroom teacher shall grade the lesson in the same manner as 44864
other lessons. The student may receive an incomplete or failing 44865
grade if the lesson is not completed on time.44866

       (e) If a student does not have access to a computer at the 44867
student's residence and the plan does not include blizzard bags 44868
under division (B) of this section, the student shall be permitted 44869
to work on the posted lessons at school after the student's school 44870
reopens. If the lessons were posted prior to the reopening, the 44871
student shall be granted a two-week period from the date of the 44872
reopening, rather than from the date of posting as otherwise 44873
required under division (A)(3)(d) of this section, to complete the 44874
lessons. The district board or community school or nonpublic 44875
school governing authority may provide the student access to a 44876
computer before, during, or after the regularly scheduled school 44877
day or may provide a substantially similar paper lesson in order 44878
to complete the lessons.44879

       (B)(1) In addition to posting classroom lessons online under 44880
division (A) of this section, the board of education of any school 44881
district or governing authority of any community or chartered 44882
nonpublic school may include in the plan distribution of "blizzard 44883
bags," which are paper copies of the lessons posted online.44884

        (2) If a school opts to use blizzard bags, teachers shall 44885
prepare paper copies in conjunction with the lessons to be posted 44886
online and update the paper copies whenever the teacher updates 44887
the online lesson plans.44888

        (3) The board of education of any school district or 44889
governing authority of any community or chartered nonpublic school 44890
that opts to use blizzard bags shall specify in the plan the 44891
method of distribution of blizzard bag lessons, which may include, 44892
but not be limited to, requiring distribution by a specific 44893
deadline or requiring distribution prior to anticipated school 44894
closure as directed by the superintendent of a school district or 44895
the principal, director, chief administrative officer, or the 44896
equivalent, of a school.44897

        (4) Students shall turn in completed lessons in accordance 44898
with division (A)(3)(d) of this section. 44899

       (C)(1) No school district that implements a plan in 44900
accordance with this section shall be considered to have failed to 44901
comply with division (B) of section 3317.01 of the Revised Code 44902
with respect to the number of make-up days specified in the plan.44903

       (2) No community school that implements a plan in accordance 44904
with this section shall be considered to have failed to comply 44905
with the minimum number of hours required under Chapter 3314. of 44906
the Revised Code with respect to the number of make-up hours 44907
specified in the plan.44908

       Sec. 3313.978.  (A) Annually by the first day of November, 44909
the superintendent of public instruction shall notify the pilot 44910
project school district of the number of initial scholarships that 44911
the state superintendent will be awarding in each of grades 44912
kindergarten through twelve.44913

       The state superintendent shall provide information about the 44914
scholarship program to all students residing in the district, 44915
shall accept applications from any such students until such date 44916
as shall be established by the state superintendent as a deadline 44917
for applications, and shall establish criteria for the selection 44918
of students to receive scholarships from among all those applying 44919
prior to the deadline, which criteria shall give preference to 44920
students from low-income families. The state superintendent shall 44921
notify students of their selection prior to the fifteenth day of 44922
January. 44923

       (1) A student receiving a pilot project scholarship may 44924
utilize it at an alternative public school by notifying the 44925
district superintendent, at any time before the beginning of the 44926
school year, of the name of the public school in an adjacent 44927
school district to which the student has been accepted pursuant to 44928
section 3327.06 of the Revised Code.44929

       (2) A student may decide to utilize a pilot project 44930
scholarship at a registered private school in the district if all 44931
of the following conditions are met:44932

       (a) By the fifteenth day of February of the preceding school 44933
year, or at any time prior to the start of the school year, the 44934
parent makes an application on behalf of the student to a 44935
registered private school.44936

       (b) The registered private school notifies the parent and the 44937
state superintendent as follows that the student has been 44938
admitted:44939

       (i) By the fifteenth day of March of the preceding school 44940
year if the student filed an application by the fifteenth day of 44941
February and was admitted by the school pursuant to division (A) 44942
of section 3313.977 of the Revised Code;44943

       (ii) Within one week of the decision to admit the student if 44944
the student is admitted pursuant to division (C) of section 44945
3313.977 of the Revised Code.44946

       (c) The student actually enrolls in the registered private 44947
school to which the student was first admitted or in another 44948
registered private school in the district or in a public school in 44949
an adjacent school district.44950

       (B) The state superintendent shall also award in any school 44951
year tutorial assistance grants to a number of students equal to 44952
the number of students who receive scholarships under division (A) 44953
of this section. Tutorial assistance grants shall be awarded 44954
solely to students who are enrolled in the public schools of the 44955
district in a grade level covered by the pilot project. Tutorial 44956
assistance grants may be used solely to obtain tutorial assistance 44957
from a provider approved pursuant to division (D) of section 44958
3313.976 of the Revised Code.44959

       All students wishing to obtain tutorial assistance grants 44960
shall make application to the state superintendent by the first 44961
day of the school year in which the assistance will be used. The 44962
state superintendent shall award assistance grants in accordance 44963
with criteria the superintendent shall establish. 44964

       (C)(1) In the case of basic scholarships for students in 44965
grades kindergarten through eight, the scholarship amount shall 44966
not exceed the lesser of the net tuition charges of the 44967
alternative school the scholarship recipient attends or three 44968
thousand dollars before fiscal year 2007, three thousand four 44969
hundred fifty dollars in fiscal year 2007 through fiscal year 44970
2011, and four thousand two hundred fifty dollars in fiscal year 44971
2012 and thereafter.44972

       In the case of basic scholarships for students in grades nine 44973
through twelve, the scholarship amount shall not exceed the lesser 44974
of the net tuition charges of the alternative school the 44975
scholarship recipient attends or two thousand seven hundred 44976
dollars before fiscal year 2007, three thousand four hundred fifty 44977
dollars in fiscal year 2007 through fiscal year 2011, and five 44978
thousand dollars in fiscal year 2012 and thereafterfiscal year 44979
2013, and five thousand seven hundred dollars in fiscal year 2014 44980
and thereafter.44981

       The net tuition and fees charged to a student shall be the 44982
tuition amount specified by the alternative school minus all other 44983
financial aid, discounts, and adjustments received for the 44984
student. In cases where discounts are offered for multiple 44985
students from the same family, and not all students in the same 44986
family are scholarship recipients, the net tuition amount 44987
attributable to the scholarship recipient shall be the lowest net 44988
tuition to which the family is entitled.44989

       (2) The state superintendent shall provide for an increase in 44990
the basic scholarship amount in the case of any student who is a 44991
mainstreamed student with a disability and shall further increase 44992
such amount in the case of any separately educated student with a 44993
disability. Such increases shall take into account the 44994
instruction, related services, and transportation costs of 44995
educating such students.44996

       (3) In the case of tutorial assistance grants, the grant 44997
amount shall not exceed the lesser of the provider's actual 44998
charges for such assistance or:44999

       (a) Before fiscal year 2007, a percentage established by the 45000
state superintendent, not to exceed twenty per cent, of the amount 45001
of the pilot project school district's average basic scholarship 45002
amount;45003

       (b) In fiscal year 2007 and thereafter, four hundred dollars.45004

       (D)(1) Annually by the first day of November, the state 45005
superintendent shall estimate the maximum per-pupil scholarship 45006
amounts for the ensuing school year. The state superintendent 45007
shall make this estimate available to the general public at the 45008
offices of the district board of education together with the forms 45009
required by division (D)(2) of this section.45010

       (2) Annually by the fifteenth day of January, the chief 45011
administrator of each registered private school located in the 45012
pilot project district and the principal of each public school in 45013
such district shall complete a parental information form and 45014
forward it to the president of the board of education. The 45015
parental information form shall be prescribed by the department of 45016
education and shall provide information about the grade levels 45017
offered, the numbers of students, tuition amounts, achievement 45018
test results, and any sectarian or other organizational 45019
affiliations.45020

       (E)(1) Only for the purpose of administering the pilot 45021
project scholarship program, the department may request from any 45022
of the following entities the data verification code assigned 45023
under division (D)(2) of section 3301.0714 of the Revised Code to 45024
any student who is seeking a scholarship under the program:45025

        (a) The school district in which the student is entitled to 45026
attend school under section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised 45027
Code;45028

        (b) If applicable, the community school in which the student 45029
is enrolled;45030

        (c) The independent contractor engaged to create and maintain 45031
data verification codes.45032

        (2) Upon a request by the department under division (E)(1) of 45033
this section for the data verification code of a student seeking a 45034
scholarship or a request by the student's parent for that code, 45035
the school district or community school shall submit that code to 45036
the department or parent in the manner specified by the 45037
department. If the student has not been assigned a code, because 45038
the student will be entering kindergarten during the school year 45039
for which the scholarship is sought, the district shall assign a 45040
code to that student and submit the code to the department or 45041
parent by a date specified by the department. If the district does 45042
not assign a code to the student by the specified date, the 45043
department shall assign a code to the student.45044

       The department annually shall submit to each school district 45045
the name and data verification code of each student residing in 45046
the district who is entering kindergarten, who has been awarded a 45047
scholarship under the program, and for whom the department has 45048
assigned a code under this division.45049

       (3) The department shall not release any data verification 45050
code that it receives under division (E) of this section to any 45051
person except as provided by law.45052

       (F) Any document relative to the pilot project scholarship 45053
program that the department holds in its files that contains both 45054
a student's name or other personally identifiable information and 45055
the student's data verification code shall not be a public record 45056
under section 149.43 of the Revised Code.45057

       (G)(1) The department annually shall compile the scores 45058
attained by scholarship students enrolled in registered private 45059
schools on the assessments administered to the students pursuant 45060
to division (A)(11) of section 3313.976 of the Revised Code. The 45061
scores shall be aggregated as follows:45062

       (a) By school district, which shall include all scholarship 45063
students residing in the pilot project school district who are 45064
enrolled in a registered private school and were required to take 45065
an assessment pursuant to division (A)(11) of section 3313.976 of 45066
the Revised Code;45067

       (b) By registered private school, which shall include all 45068
scholarship students enrolled in that school who were required to 45069
take an assessment pursuant to division (A)(11) of section 45070
3313.976 of the Revised Code.45071

       (2) The department shall disaggregate the student performance 45072
data described in division (G)(1) of this section according to the 45073
following categories:45074

       (a) Grade level;45075

       (b) Race and ethnicity;45076

       (c) Gender;45077

       (d) Students who have participated in the scholarship program 45078
for three or more years;45079

       (e) Students who have participated in the scholarship program 45080
for more than one year and less than three years;45081

       (f) Students who have participated in the scholarship program 45082
for one year or less;45083

       (g) Economically disadvantaged students.45084

       (3) The department shall post the student performance data 45085
required under divisions (G)(1) and (2) of this section on its web 45086
site and shall include that data in the information about the 45087
scholarship program provided to students under division (A) of 45088
this section. In reporting student performance data under this 45089
division, the department shall not include any data that is 45090
statistically unreliable or that could result in the 45091
identification of individual students. For this purpose, the 45092
department shall not report performance data for any group that 45093
contains less than ten students.45094

       (4) The department shall provide the parent of each 45095
scholarship student enrolled in a registered private school with 45096
information comparing the student's performance on the assessments 45097
administered pursuant to division (A)(11) of section 3313.976 of 45098
the Revised Code with the average performance of similar students 45099
enrolled in the building operated by the pilot project school 45100
district that the scholarship student would otherwise attend. In 45101
calculating the performance of similar students, the department 45102
shall consider age, grade, race and ethnicity, gender, and 45103
socioeconomic status.45104

       Sec. 3313.98.  Notwithstanding division (D) of section 45105
3311.19 and division (D) of section 3311.52 of the Revised Code, 45106
the provisions of this section and sections 3313.981 to 3313.983 45107
of the Revised Code that apply to a city school district do not 45108
apply to a joint vocational or cooperative education school 45109
district unless expressly specified.45110

       (A) As used in this section and sections 3313.981 to 3313.983 45111
of the Revised Code:45112

       (1) "Parent" means either of the natural or adoptive parents 45113
of a student, except under the following conditions:45114

       (a) When the marriage of the natural or adoptive parents of 45115
the student has been terminated by a divorce, dissolution of 45116
marriage, or annulment or the natural or adoptive parents of the 45117
student are living separate and apart under a legal separation 45118
decree and the court has issued an order allocating the parental 45119
rights and responsibilities with respect to the student, "parent" 45120
means the residential parent as designated by the court except 45121
that "parent" means either parent when the court issues a shared 45122
parenting decree.45123

       (b) When a court has granted temporary or permanent custody 45124
of the student to an individual or agency other than either of the 45125
natural or adoptive parents of the student, "parent" means the 45126
legal custodian of the child.45127

       (c) When a court has appointed a guardian for the student, 45128
"parent" means the guardian of the student.45129

       (2) "Native student" means a student entitled under section 45130
3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised Code to attend school in a 45131
district adopting a resolution under this section.45132

       (3) "Adjacent district" means a city, exempted village, or 45133
local school district having territory that abuts the territory of 45134
a district adopting a resolution under this section.45135

       (4) "Adjacent district student" means a student entitled 45136
under section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised Code to attend 45137
school in an adjacent district.45138

       (5) "Adjacent district joint vocational student" means an 45139
adjacent district student who enrolls in a city, exempted village, 45140
or local school district pursuant to this section and who also 45141
enrolls in a joint vocational school district that does not 45142
contain the territory of the district for which that student is a 45143
native student and does contain the territory of the city, 45144
exempted village, or local district in which the student enrolls.45145

       (6) "Formula amount" has the same meaning as in section 45146
3317.02 of the Revised Code.45147

       (7) "Adjusted formula amount" means the sum of the formula 45148
amount plus the per pupil amount of the base funding supplements 45149
specified in divisions (C)(1) to (4) of section 3317.012 of the 45150
Revised Code for fiscal year 2009.45151

       (8) "Poverty line" means the poverty line established by the 45152
director of the United States office of management and budget as 45153
revised by the directorsecretary of the office of community45154
health and human services in accordance with section 673(2) of the 45155
"Community Services Block Grant Act," 95 Stat. 1609, 42 U.S.C.A. 45156
9902, as amended.45157

       (9)(8) "IEP" has the same meaning as in section 3323.01 of 45158
the Revised Code.45159

       (10)(9) "Other district" means a city, exempted village, or 45160
local school district having territory outside of the territory of 45161
a district adopting a resolution under this section.45162

       (11)(10) "Other district student" means a student entitled 45163
under section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised Code to attend 45164
school in an other district.45165

       (12)(11) "Other district joint vocational student" means a 45166
student who is enrolled in any city, exempted village, or local 45167
school district and who also enrolls in a joint vocational school 45168
district that does not contain the territory of the district for 45169
which that student is a native student in accordance with a policy 45170
adopted under section 3313.983 of the Revised Code.45171

       (B)(1) The board of education of each city, local, and 45172
exempted village school district shall adopt a resolution 45173
establishing for the school district one of the following 45174
policies:45175

       (a) A policy that entirely prohibits the enrollment of 45176
students from adjacent districts or other districts, other than 45177
students for whom tuition is paid in accordance with section 45178
3317.08 of the Revised Code;45179

       (b) A policy that permits enrollment of students from all 45180
adjacent districts in accordance with policy statements contained 45181
in the resolution;45182

       (c) A policy that permits enrollment of students from all 45183
other districts in accordance with policy statements contained in 45184
the resolution.45185

       (2) A policy permitting enrollment of students from adjacent 45186
or from other districts, as applicable, shall provide for all of 45187
the following:45188

       (a) Application procedures, including deadlines for 45189
application and for notification of students and the 45190
superintendent of the applicable district whenever an adjacent or 45191
other district student's application is approved.45192

       (b) Procedures for admitting adjacent or other district 45193
applicants free of any tuition obligation to the district's 45194
schools, including, but not limited to:45195

       (i) The establishment of district capacity limits by grade 45196
level, school building, and education program;45197

       (ii) A requirement that all native students wishing to be 45198
enrolled in the district will be enrolled and that any adjacent or 45199
other district students previously enrolled in the district shall 45200
receive preference over first-time applicants;45201

       (iii) Procedures to ensure that an appropriate racial balance 45202
is maintained in the district schools.45203

       (C) Except as provided in section 3313.982 of the Revised 45204
Code, the procedures for admitting adjacent or other district 45205
students, as applicable, shall not include:45206

       (1) Any requirement of academic ability, or any level of 45207
athletic, artistic, or other extracurricular skills;45208

       (2) Limitations on admitting applicants because of 45209
disability, except that a board may refuse to admit a student 45210
receiving services under Chapter 3323. of the Revised Code, if the 45211
services described in the student's IEP are not available in the 45212
district's schools;45213

       (3) A requirement that the student be proficient in the 45214
English language;45215

       (4) Rejection of any applicant because the student has been 45216
subject to disciplinary proceedings, except that if an applicant 45217
has been suspended or expelled by the student's district for ten 45218
consecutive days or more in the term for which admission is sought 45219
or in the term immediately preceding the term for which admission 45220
is sought, the procedures may include a provision denying 45221
admission of such applicant.45222

       (D)(1) Each school board permitting only enrollment of 45223
adjacent district students shall provide information about the 45224
policy adopted under this section, including the application 45225
procedures and deadlines, to the superintendent and the board of 45226
education of each adjacent district and, upon request, to the 45227
parent of any adjacent district student.45228

       (2) Each school board permitting enrollment of other district 45229
students shall provide information about the policy adopted under 45230
this section, including the application procedures and deadlines, 45231
upon request, to the board of education of any other school 45232
district or to the parent of any student anywhere in the state.45233

       (E) Any school board shall accept all credits toward 45234
graduation earned in adjacent or other district schools by an 45235
adjacent or other district student or a native student.45236

       (F)(1) No board of education may adopt a policy discouraging 45237
or prohibiting its native students from applying to enroll in the 45238
schools of an adjacent or any other district that has adopted a 45239
policy permitting such enrollment, except that:45240

       (a) A district may object to the enrollment of a native 45241
student in an adjacent or other district in order to maintain an 45242
appropriate racial balance.45243

       (b) The board of education of a district receiving funds 45244
under 64 Stat. 1100 (1950), 20 U.S.C.A. 236 et seq., as amended, 45245
may adopt a resolution objecting to the enrollment of its native 45246
students in adjacent or other districts if at least ten per cent 45247
of its students are included in the determination of the United 45248
States secretary of education made under section 20 U.S.C.A. 45249
238(a).45250

       (2) If a board objects to enrollment of native students under 45251
this division, any adjacent or other district shall refuse to 45252
enroll such native students unless tuition is paid for the 45253
students in accordance with section 3317.08 of the Revised Code. 45254
An adjacent or other district enrolling such students may not 45255
receive funding for those students in accordance with section 45256
3313.981 of the Revised Code.45257

       (G) The state board of education shall monitor school 45258
districts to ensure compliance with this section and the 45259
districts' policies. The board may adopt rules requiring uniform 45260
application procedures, deadlines for application, notification 45261
procedures, and record-keeping requirements for all school boards 45262
that adopt policies permitting the enrollment of adjacent or other 45263
district students, as applicable. If the state board adopts such 45264
rules, no school board shall adopt a policy that conflicts with 45265
those rules.45266

       (H) A resolution adopted by a board of education under this 45267
section that entirely prohibits the enrollment of students from 45268
adjacent and from other school districts does not abrogate any 45269
agreement entered into under section 3313.841 or 3313.92 of the 45270
Revised Code or any contract entered into under section 3313.90 of 45271
the Revised Code between the board of education adopting the 45272
resolution and the board of education of any adjacent or other 45273
district or prohibit these boards of education from entering into 45274
any such agreement or contract.45275

       (I) Nothing in this section shall be construed to permit or 45276
require the board of education of a city, exempted village, or 45277
local school district to exclude any native student of the 45278
district from enrolling in the district.45279

       Sec. 3313.981.  (A) The state board of education shall adopt 45280
rules requiring all of the following:45281

       (1) The board of education of each city, exempted village, 45282
and local school district to annually report to the department of 45283
education all of the following:45284

       (a) The number of adjacent district or other district 45285
students, as applicable, and adjacent district or other district 45286
joint vocational students, as applicable, enrolled in the district 45287
and the number of native students enrolled in adjacent or other 45288
districts, in accordance with a policy adopted under division (B) 45289
of section 3313.98 of the Revised Code;45290

       (b) Each adjacent district or other district student's or 45291
adjacent district or other district joint vocational student's 45292
date of enrollment in the district;45293

       (c) The full-time equivalent number of adjacent district or 45294
other district students enrolled in vocationaleach of the 45295
categories of career-technical education programs or classes 45296
described in division (A) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code 45297
and the full-time equivalent number of such students enrolled in 45298
vocational education programs or classes described in division (B) 45299
of that section;45300

       (d) Each native student's date of enrollment in an adjacent 45301
or other district.45302

       (2) The board of education of each joint vocational school 45303
district to annually report to the department all of the 45304
following:45305

       (a) The number of adjacent district or other district joint 45306
vocational students, as applicable, enrolled in the district;45307

       (b) The full-time equivalent number of adjacent district or 45308
other district joint vocational students enrolled in vocational45309
each category of career-technical education programs or classes 45310
described in division (A) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code 45311
and the full-time equivalent number of such students enrolled in 45312
vocational education programs or classes described in division (B) 45313
of that section;45314

       (c) For each adjacent district or other district joint 45315
vocational student, the city, exempted village, or local school 45316
district in which the student is also enrolled.45317

       (3) Prior to the first full school week in October each year, 45318
the superintendent of each city, local, or exempted village school 45319
district that admits adjacent district or other district students 45320
or adjacent district or other district joint vocational students 45321
in accordance with a policy adopted under division (B) of section 45322
3313.98 of the Revised Code to notify each adjacent or other 45323
district where those students are entitled to attend school under 45324
section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised Code of the number of 45325
the adjacent or other district's native students who are enrolled 45326
in the superintendent's district under the policy.45327

       The rules shall provide for the method of counting students 45328
who are enrolled for part of a school year in an adjacent or other 45329
district or as an adjacent district or other district joint 45330
vocational student.45331

       (B) From the payments made to a city, exempted village, or 45332
local school district under Chapter 3317. of the Revised Code and, 45333
if necessary, from the payments made to the district under 45334
sections 321.24 and 323.156 of the Revised Code, the department of 45335
education shall annually subtract both of the following:45336

       (1) An amount equal to the number of the district's native 45337
students reported under division (A)(1) of this section who are 45338
enrolled in adjacent or other school districts pursuant to 45339
policies adopted by such districts under division (B) of section 45340
3313.98 of the Revised Code multiplied by the adjusted formula 45341
amount;45342

       (2) The excess costs computed in accordance with division (E) 45343
of this section for any such native students receiving special 45344
education and related services in adjacent or other school 45345
districts or as an adjacent district or other district joint 45346
vocational student;45347

       (3) For the full-time equivalent number the formula amount of 45348
the district's native students reported under division (A)(1)(c) 45349
or (2)(b) of this section as enrolled in vocational45350
career-technical education programs or classes described in 45351
section 3317.014 of the Revised Code, an amount equal to $5,73245352
the formula amount times the applicable multiple prescribed by 45353
that section.45354

       (C) To the payments made to a city, exempted village, or 45355
local school district under Chapter 3317. of the Revised Code, the 45356
department of education shall annually add all of the following:45357

       (1) An amount equal to the adjusted formula amount multiplied 45358
by the remainder obtained by subtracting the number of adjacent 45359
district or other district joint vocational students from the 45360
number of adjacent district or other district students enrolled in 45361
the district, as reported under division (A)(1) of this section;45362

       (2) The excess costs computed in accordance with division (E) 45363
of this section for any adjacent district or other district 45364
students, except for any adjacent or other district joint 45365
vocational students, receiving special education and related 45366
services in the district;45367

       (3) For the full-time equivalent number of the adjacent or 45368
other district students who are not adjacent district or other 45369
district joint vocational students and are reported under division 45370
(A)(1)(c) of this section as enrolled in vocational45371
career-technical education programs or classes described in 45372
section 3317.014 of the Revised Code, an amount equal to $5,73245373
the formula amount times the applicable multiple prescribed by 45374
that section;45375

       (4) An amount equal to the number of adjacent district or 45376
other district joint vocational students reported under division 45377
(A)(1) of this section multiplied by an amount equal to twenty per 45378
cent of the adjusted formula amount.45379

       (D) To the payments made to a joint vocational school 45380
district under Chapter 3317. of the Revised Code, the department 45381
of education shall add, for each adjacent district or other 45382
district joint vocational student reported under division (A)(2) 45383
of this section, both of the following:45384

       (1) The adjusted formula amount;45385

       (2) An amount equal to the full-time equivalent number of 45386
students reported pursuant to division (A)(2)(b) of this section 45387
times $5,732the formula amount times the applicable multiple 45388
prescribed by section 3317.014 of the Revised Code.45389

       (E)(1) A city, exempted village, or local school board 45390
providing special education and related services to an adjacent or 45391
other district student in accordance with an IEP shall, pursuant 45392
to rules of the state board, compute the excess costs to educate 45393
such student as follows:45394

       (a) Subtract the adjusted formula amount from the actual 45395
costs to educate the student;45396

       (b) From the amount computed under division (E)(1)(a) of this 45397
section subtract the amount of any funds received by the district 45398
under Chapter 3317. of the Revised Code to provide special 45399
education and related services to the student.45400

       (2) The board shall report the excess costs computed under 45401
this division to the department of education.45402

       (3) If any student for whom excess costs are computed under 45403
division (E)(1) of this section is an adjacent or other district 45404
joint vocational student, the department of education shall add 45405
the amount of such excess costs to the payments made under Chapter 45406
3317. of the Revised Code to the joint vocational school district 45407
enrolling the student.45408

       (F) As provided in division (D)(1)(b) of section 3317.03 of 45409
the Revised Code, no joint vocational school district shall count 45410
any adjacent or other district joint vocational student enrolled 45411
in the district in its formula ADM certified under section 3317.03 45412
of the Revised Code.45413

       (G) No city, exempted village, or local school district shall 45414
receive a payment under division (C) of this section for a 45415
student, and no joint vocational school district shall receive a 45416
payment under division (D) of this section for a student, if for 45417
the same school year that student is counted in the district's 45418
formula ADM certified under section 3317.03 of the Revised Code.45419

       (H) Upon request of a parent, and provided the board offers 45420
transportation to native students of the same grade level and 45421
distance from school under section 3327.01 of the Revised Code, a 45422
city, exempted village, or local school board enrolling an 45423
adjacent or other district student shall provide transportation 45424
for the student within the boundaries of the board's district, 45425
except that the board shall be required to pick up and drop off a 45426
nonhandicapped student only at a regular school bus stop 45427
designated in accordance with the board's transportation policy. 45428
Pursuant to rules of the state board of education, such board may 45429
reimburse the parent from funds received for pupil transportation 45430
under section 3317.0212 of the Revised Code, or other provisions 45431
of law, for the reasonable cost of transportation from the 45432
student's home to the designated school bus stop if the student's 45433
family has an income below the federal poverty line.45434

       Sec. 3314.015.  (A) The department of education shall be 45435
responsible for the oversight of any and all sponsors of the 45436
community schools established under this chapter and shall provide 45437
technical assistance to schools and sponsors in their compliance 45438
with applicable laws and the terms of the contracts entered into 45439
under section 3314.03 of the Revised Code and in the development 45440
and start-up activities of those schools. In carrying out its 45441
duties under this section, the department shall do all of the 45442
following:45443

        (1) In providing technical assistance to proposing parties, 45444
governing authorities, and sponsors, conduct training sessions and 45445
distribute informational materials;45446

       (2) Approve entities to be sponsors of community schools; 45447

       (3) Monitor and evaluate, as required under section 3314.016 45448
of the Revised Code, the effectiveness of any and all sponsors in 45449
their oversight of the schools with which they have contracted;45450

        (4) By December thirty-first of each year, issue a report to 45451
the governor, the speaker of the house of representatives, the 45452
president of the senate, and the chairpersons of the house and 45453
senate committees principally responsible for education matters 45454
regarding the effectiveness of academic programs, operations, and 45455
legal compliance and of the financial condition of all community 45456
schools established under this chapter and on the performance of 45457
community school sponsors;45458

        (5) From time to time, make legislative recommendations to 45459
the general assembly designed to enhance the operation and 45460
performance of community schools.45461

        (B)(1) Except as provided in sections 3314.021 and 3314.027 45462
of the Revised Code, no entity listed in division (C)(1) of 45463
section 3314.02 of the Revised Code shall enter into a preliminary 45464
agreement under division (C)(2) of section 3314.02 of the Revised 45465
Code until it has received approval from the department of 45466
education to sponsor community schools under this chapter and has 45467
entered into a written agreement with the department regarding the 45468
manner in which the entity will conduct such sponsorship. The 45469
department shall adopt in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 45470
Revised Code rules containing criteria, procedures, and deadlines 45471
for processing applications for such approval, for oversight of 45472
sponsors, for notifying a sponsor of noncompliance with applicable 45473
laws and administrative rules under division (F) of this section,45474
for revocation of the approval of sponsors under division (C) of 45475
this section, and for entering into written agreements with 45476
sponsors. The rules shall require an entity to submit evidence of 45477
the entity's ability and willingness to comply with the provisions 45478
of division (D) of section 3314.03 of the Revised Code. The rules 45479
also shall require entities approved as sponsors on and after June 45480
30, 2005, to demonstrate a record of financial responsibility and 45481
successful implementation of educational programs. If an entity 45482
seeking approval on or after June 30, 2005, to sponsor community 45483
schools in this state sponsors or operates schools in another 45484
state, at least one of the schools sponsored or operated by the 45485
entity must be comparable to or better than the performance of 45486
Ohio schools in need of continuous improvement under section 45487
3302.03 of the Revised Code, as determined by the department.45488

        Subject to section 3314.016 of the Revised Code, an entity 45489
that sponsors community schools may enter into preliminary 45490
agreements and sponsor up to one hundred schools, provided each 45491
school and the contract for sponsorship meets the requirements of 45492
this chapter.45493

       (2) The state board of education shall determine, pursuant to 45494
criteria specified in rules adopted in accordance with Chapter 45495
119. of the Revised Code, whether the mission proposed to be 45496
specified in the contract of a community school to be sponsored by 45497
a state university board of trustees or the board's designee under 45498
division (C)(1)(e) of section 3314.02 of the Revised Code complies 45499
with the requirements of that division. Such determination of the 45500
state board is final.45501

       (3) The state board of education shall determine, pursuant to 45502
criteria specified in rules adopted in accordance with Chapter 45503
119. of the Revised Code, if any tax-exempt entity under section 45504
501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code that is proposed to be a 45505
sponsor of a community school is an education-oriented entity for 45506
purpose of satisfying the condition prescribed in division 45507
(C)(1)(f)(iii) of section 3314.02 of the Revised Code. Such 45508
determination of the state board is final.45509

       (C) If at any time the state board of education finds that a 45510
sponsor is not in compliance or is no longer willing to comply 45511
with its contract with any community school or with the 45512
department's rules for sponsorship, the state board or designee 45513
shall conduct a hearing in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 45514
Revised Code on that matter. If after the hearing, the state board 45515
or designee has confirmed the original finding, the department of 45516
education may revoke the sponsor's approval to sponsor community 45517
schools. In that case, the department's office of Ohio school 45518
sponsorship, established under section 3314.029 of the Revised 45519
Code, may assume the sponsorship of any schools with which the 45520
sponsor has contracted until the earlier of the expiration of two 45521
school years or until a new sponsor as described in division 45522
(C)(1) of section 3314.02 of the Revised Code is secured by the 45523
school's governing authority. The office of Ohio school 45524
sponsorship may extend the term of the contract in the case of a 45525
school for which it has assumed sponsorship under this division as 45526
necessary to accommodate the term of the department's 45527
authorization to sponsor the school specified in this division. 45528
Community schools sponsored under this division shall not apply to 45529
the limit on directly authorized community schools under division 45530
(A)(3) of section 3314.029 of the Revised Code. However, nothing 45531
in this division shall preclude a community school affected by 45532
this division from applying for sponsorship under that section.45533

       (D) The decision of the department to disapprove an entity 45534
for sponsorship of a community school or to revoke approval for 45535
such sponsorship under division (C) of this section, may be 45536
appealed by the entity in accordance with section 119.12 of the 45537
Revised Code.45538

       (E) The department shall adopt procedures for use by a 45539
community school governing authority and sponsor when the school 45540
permanently closes and ceases operation, which shall include at 45541
least procedures for data reporting to the department, handling of 45542
student records, distribution of assets in accordance with section 45543
3314.074 of the Revised Code, and other matters related to ceasing 45544
operation of the school.45545

       (F)(1) In lieu of revoking a sponsor's authority to sponsor 45546
community schools under division (C) of this section, if the 45547
department finds that a sponsor is not in compliance with 45548
applicable laws and administrative rules, the department shall 45549
declare in a written notice to the sponsor the specific laws or 45550
rules, or both, for which the sponsor is noncompliant. A sponsor 45551
notified under division (F)(1) of this section shall respond to 45552
the department not later than fourteen days after the notification 45553
with a plan to remedy the conditions for which the sponsor was 45554
found to be noncompliant. Not later than sixty days after 45555
receiving a notification of noncompliance from the department, the 45556
sponsor shall implement the compliance plan. If a sponsor does not 45557
respond to the department or implement a compliance plan by the 45558
deadlines prescribed by division (F)(1) of this section, the 45559
department shall declare in written notice to the school that the 45560
sponsor is in probationary status, and may limit the sponsor's 45561
ability to sponsor additional schools.45562

        (2) A sponsor that has been placed on probationary status 45563
under division (F)(1) of this section may apply to the department 45564
for its probationary status to be lifted. The application for a 45565
sponsor's probationary status to be lifted shall include evidence, 45566
occurring after the initial notification of noncompliance, of the 45567
sponsor's compliance with applicable laws and administrative 45568
rules. Not later than fourteen days after receiving an application 45569
from the sponsor, the department shall decide whether or not to 45570
remove the sponsor's probationary status.45571

       (G) In carrying out its duties under this chapter, the 45572
department shall not impose requirements on community schools or 45573
their sponsors that are not permitted by law or duly adopted 45574
rules.45575

       (H) This section applies to entities that sponsor conversion 45576
community schools and new start-up schools.45577

       Sec. 3314.017.  (A) The state board of education shall 45578
prescribe by rules, adopted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 45579
Revised Code, an academic performance rating and report card 45580
system that satisfies the requirements of this section for 45581
community schools that primarily serve students enrolled in 45582
dropout prevention and recovery programs as described in division 45583
(A)(4)(a) of section 3314.35 of the Revised Code, to be used in 45584
lieu of the system prescribed under sections 3302.03 and 3314.012 45585
of the Revised Code beginning with the 2012-2013 school year. Each 45586
such school shall comply with the testing and reporting 45587
requirements of the system as prescribed by the state board.45588

       (B) Nothing in this section shall at any time relieve a 45589
school from its obligations under the "No Child Left Behind Act of 45590
2001" to make "adequate yearly progress," as both that act and 45591
that term are defined in section 3302.01 of the Revised Code, or a 45592
school's amenability to the provisions of section 3302.04 or 45593
3302.041 of the Revised Code. The department shall continue to 45594
report each school's performance as required by the act and to 45595
enforce applicable sanctions under section 3302.04 or 3302.041 of 45596
the Revised Code. 45597

       (C) The rules adopted by the state board shall prescribe the 45598
following performance indicators for the rating and report card 45599
system required by this section:45600

       (1) Graduation rate for each of the following student 45601
cohorts:45602

       (a) The number of students who graduate in four years or less 45603
with a regular high school diploma divided by the number of 45604
students who form the adjusted cohort for the graduating class;45605

       (b) The number of students who graduate in five years with a 45606
regular high school diploma divided by the number of students who 45607
form the adjusted cohort for the four-year graduation rate;45608

       (c) The number of students who graduate in six years with a 45609
regular high school diploma divided by the number of students who 45610
form the adjusted cohort for the four-year graduation rate;45611

       (d) The number of students who graduate in seven years with a 45612
regular high school diploma divided by the number of students who 45613
form the adjusted cohort for the four-year graduation rate;45614

       (e) The number of students who graduate in eight years with a 45615
regular high school diploma divided by the number of students who 45616
form the adjusted cohort for the four-year graduation rate.45617

       (2) The percentage of twelfth-grade students currently 45618
enrolled in the school who have attained the designated passing 45619
score on all of the applicable state high school achievement 45620
assessments required under division (B)(1) or (2) of section 45621
3301.0710 of the Revised Code and other students enrolled in the 45622
school, regardless of grade level, who are within three months of 45623
their twenty-second birthday and have attained the designated 45624
passing score on all of the applicable state high school 45625
achievement assessments by their twenty-second birthday;45626

       (3) Annual measurable objectives as defined in section 45627
3302.01 of the Revised Code;45628

        (4) Growth in student achievement in reading, or mathematics, 45629
or both as measured by separate nationally norm-referenced 45630
assessments that have developed appropriate standards for students 45631
enrolled in dropout prevention and recovery programs, adopted or 45632
approved by the state board.45633

       (D)(1) The state board's rules shall prescribe the expected 45634
performance levels and benchmarks for each of the indicators 45635
prescribed by division (C) of this section based on the data 45636
gathered by the department under division (F) of this section. 45637
Based on a school's level of attainment or nonattainment of the 45638
expected performance levels and benchmarks for each of the 45639
indicators, the department shall rate each school in one of the 45640
following categories:45641

       (a) Exceeds standards;45642

       (b) Meets standards;45643

       (c) Does not meet standards.45644

       (2) The state board's rules shall establish all of the 45645
following:45646

       (a) Not later than June 30, 2013, performance levels and 45647
benchmarks for the indicators described in divisions (C)(1) to (3) 45648
of this section;45649

       (b) Not later than December 31, 2014, both of the following:45650

       (i) Performance levels and benchmarks for the indicator 45651
described in division (C)(4) of this section;45652

       (ii) Standards for awarding a community school described in 45653
division (A)(4)(a) of section 3314.35 of the Revised Code an 45654
overall designation, which shall be calculated as follows:45655

       (I) Thirty per cent of the score shall be based on the 45656
indicators described in division (C)(1) of this section that are 45657
applicable to the school year for which the overall designation is 45658
granted.45659

       (II) Thirty per cent of the score shall be based on the 45660
indicators described in division (C)(4) of this section.45661

       (III) Twenty per cent of the score shall be based on the 45662
indicators described in division (C)(2) of this section.45663

       (IV) Twenty per cent of the score shall be based on the 45664
indicators described in division (C)(3) of this section.45665

       (3) If both of the indicators described in divisions (C)(1) 45666
and (2) of this section improve by ten per cent for two 45667
consecutive years, a school shall be rated asnot less than "meets 45668
standards."45669

       The rating and the relevant performance data for each school 45670
shall be posted on the department's web site, and a copy of the 45671
rating and data shall be provided to the governing authority of 45672
the community school. 45673

       (E)(1) For the 2012-2013 school year, the department shall 45674
issue a report card including the following performance measures, 45675
but without a performance rating as described in divisions 45676
(D)(1)(a) to (c) of this section, for each community school 45677
described in division (A)(4)(a) of section 3314.35 of the Revised 45678
Code:45679

       (a) The graduation rates as described in divisions (C)(1)(a) 45680
to (c) of this section;45681

       (b) The percentage of twelfth-grade students and other 45682
students who have attained a designated passing score on high 45683
school achievement assessments as described in division (C)(2) of 45684
this section;45685

       (c) The statewide average for the graduation rates and 45686
assessment passage rates described in divisions (C)(1)(a) to (c) 45687
and (C)(2) of this section;45688

        (d) Annual measurable objectives described in division (C)(3) 45689
of this section.45690

       (2) For the 2013-2014 school year, the department shall issue 45691
a report card including the following performance measures for 45692
each community school described in division (A)(4) of section 45693
3314.35 of the Revised Code:45694

       (a) The graduation rates described in divisions (C)(1)(a) to 45695
(d) of this section, including a performance rating as described 45696
in divisions (D)(1)(a) to (c) of this section;45697

       (b) The percentage of twelfth-grade students and other 45698
students who have attained a designated passing score on high 45699
school achievement assessments as described in division (C)(2) of 45700
this section, including a performance rating as described in 45701
divisions (D)(1)(a) to (c) of this section;45702

       (c) Annual measurable objectives described in division (C)(3) 45703
of this section, including a performance rating as described in 45704
divisions (D)(1)(a) to (c) of this section;45705

        (d) Both of the following without an assigned rating:45706

        (i) Growth in annual student achievement in reading and 45707
mathematics described in division (C)(4) of this section, if 45708
available;45709

       (ii) Student outcome data, including postsecondary credit 45710
earned, nationally recognized career or technical certification, 45711
military enlistment, job placement, and attendance rate. 45712

       (3) Beginning with the 2014-2015 school year, and annually 45713
thereafter, the department shall issue a report card for each 45714
community school described in division (A)(4)(a) of section 45715
3314.35 of the Revised Code that includes all of the following 45716
performance measures, including a performance rating for each 45717
measure as described in divisions (D)(1)(a) to (c) of this 45718
section:45719

       (a) The graduation rates as described in division (C)(1) of 45720
this section;45721

       (b) The percentage of twelfth-grade students and other 45722
students who have attained a designated passing score on high 45723
school achievement assessments as described in division (C)(2) of 45724
this section;45725

       (c) Annual measurable objectives described in division (C)(3) 45726
of this section, including a performance rating as described in 45727
divisions (D)(1)(a) to (c) of this section;45728

        (d) Growth in annual student achievement in reading and 45729
mathematics as described in division (C)(4) of this section;45730

       (e) An overall performance designation for the school 45731
calculated under rules adopted under division (D)(2) of this 45732
section.45733

       The department shall also include student outcome data, 45734
including postsecondary credit earned, nationally recognized 45735
career or technical certification, military enlistment, job 45736
placement, attendance rate, and progress on closing achievement 45737
gaps for each school. This information shall not be included in 45738
the calculation of a school's performance rating.45739

        (F) In developing the rating and report card system required 45740
by this section, during the 2012-2013 and 2013-2014 school years, 45741
the department shall gather and analyze data as determined 45742
necessary from each community school described in division 45743
(A)(4)(a) of section 3314.35 of the Revised Code. Each such school 45744
shall cooperate with the department by supplying requested data 45745
and administering required assessments, including sample 45746
assessments for purposes of measuring student achievement growth 45747
as described in division (C)(4) of this section. The department 45748
shall consult with stakeholder groups in performing its duties 45749
under this division.45750

       The department shall also identify one or more states that 45751
have established or are in the process of establishing similar 45752
academic performance rating systems for dropout prevention and 45753
recovery programs and consult with the departments of education of 45754
those states in developing the system required by this section.45755

       (G) Not later than December 31, 2014, the state board shall 45756
review the performance levels and benchmarks for performance 45757
indicators in the report card issued under this section and may 45758
revise them based on the data collected under division (F) of this 45759
section.45760

       Sec. 3314.029. This section establishes the Ohio school 45761
sponsorship program. The department of education shall establish 45762
an office of Ohio school sponsorship to perform the department's 45763
duties prescribed by this section.45764

        (A)(1) Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in this 45765
chapter, but subject to section 3314.20 of the Revised Code, any 45766
person, group of individuals, or entity may apply to the 45767
department for direct authorization to establish a community 45768
school and, upon approval of the application, may establish the 45769
school. Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in this chapter, 45770
the governing authority of an existing community school, upon the 45771
expiration or termination of its contract with the school's 45772
sponsor entered into under section 3314.03 of the Revised Code, 45773
may apply to the department for direct authorization to continue 45774
operating the school and, upon approval of the application, may 45775
continue to operate the school.45776

        Each application submitted to the department shall include 45777
the following:45778

       (a) Evidence that the applicant will be able to comply with 45779
division (C) of this section;45780

       (b) A statement indicating that the applicant agrees to 45781
comply with all applicable provisions of this chapter, including 45782
the requirement to be established as a nonprofit corporation or 45783
public benefit corporation in accordance with division (A)(1) of 45784
section 3314.03 of the Revised Code;45785

       (c) A statement attesting that no unresolved finding of 45786
recovery has been issued by the auditor of state against any 45787
person, group of individuals, or entity that is a party to the 45788
application and that no person who is party to the application has 45789
been a member of the governing authority of any community school 45790
that has permanently closed and against which an unresolved 45791
finding of recovery has been issued by the auditor of state. In 45792
the case of an application submitted by the governing authority of 45793
an existing community school, a person who is party to the 45794
application shall include each individual member of that governing 45795
authority.45796

       (d) A statement that the school will be nonsectarian in its 45797
programs, admission policies, employment practices, and all other 45798
operations, and will not be operated by a sectarian school or 45799
religious institution;45800

       (e) A statement of whether the school is to be created by 45801
converting all or part of an existing public school or educational 45802
service center building or is to be a new start-up school. If it 45803
is a converted public school or service center building, the 45804
statement shall include a specification of any duties or 45805
responsibilities of an employer that the board of education or 45806
service center governing board that operated the school or 45807
building before conversion is delegating to the governing 45808
authority of the community school with respect to all or any 45809
specified group of employees, provided the delegation is not 45810
prohibited by a collective bargaining agreement applicable to such 45811
employees.45812

       (f) A statement that the school's teachers will be licensed 45813
in the manner prescribed by division (A)(10) of section 3314.03 of 45814
the Revised Code;45815

       (g) A statement that the school will comply with all of the 45816
provisions of law enumerated in divisions (A)(11)(d) and (e) of 45817
section 3314.03 of the Revised Code and of division (A)(11)(h) of 45818
that section, if applicable;45819

       (h) A statement that the school's graduation and curriculum 45820
requirements will comply with division (A)(11)(f) of section 45821
3314.03 of the Revised Code;45822

       (i) A description of each of the following:45823

       (i) The school's mission and educational program, the 45824
characteristics of the students the school is expected to attract, 45825
the ages and grade levels of students, and the focus of the 45826
curriculum;45827

       (ii) The school's governing authority, which shall be in 45828
compliance with division (E) of section 3314.02 of the Revised 45829
Code;45830

       (iii) The school's admission and dismissal policies, which 45831
shall be in compliance with divisions (A)(5) and (6) of section 45832
3314.03 of the Revised Code;45833

       (iv) The school's business plan, including a five-year 45834
financial forecast;45835

       (v) In the case of an application to establish a community 45836
school, the applicant's resources and capacity to establish and 45837
operate the school;45838

       (vi) The school's academic goals to be achieved and the 45839
method of measurement that will be used to determine progress 45840
toward those goals, which shall include the statewide achievement 45841
assessments;45842

       (vii) The facilities to be used by the school and their 45843
locations;45844

       (viii) A description of the learning opportunities that will 45845
be offered to students including both classroom-based and 45846
nonclassroom-based learning opportunities that are in compliance 45847
with criteria for student participation established by the 45848
department under division (L)(H)(2) of section 3314.08 of the 45849
Revised Code.45850

       (2) Subject to division (A)(3) of this section, the 45851
department shall approve each application, unless, within thirty 45852
days after receipt of the application, the department determines 45853
that the application does not satisfy the requirements of division 45854
(A)(1) of this section and provides the applicant a written 45855
explanation of the reasons for the determination. In that case, 45856
the department shall grant the applicant thirty days to correct 45857
the insufficiencies in the application. If the department 45858
determines that the insufficiencies have been corrected, it shall 45859
approve the application. If the department determines that the 45860
insufficiencies have not been corrected, it shall deny the 45861
application and provide the applicant with a written explanation 45862
of the reasons for the denial. The denial of an application may be 45863
appealed in accordance with section 119.12 of the Revised Code.45864

       (3) For each of five school years, beginning with the school 45865
year that begins in the calendar year in which this section takes 45866
effect, the department may approve up to twenty applications for 45867
community schools to be established or to continue operation under 45868
division (A) of this section; however, of the twenty applications 45869
that may be approved each school year, only up to five may be for 45870
the establishment of new schools.45871

       (4) Notwithstanding division (A)(2) of this section, the 45872
department may deny an application submitted by the governing 45873
authority of an existing community school, if a previous sponsor 45874
of that school did not renew its contract or terminated its 45875
contract with the school entered into under section 3314.03 of the 45876
Revised Code.45877

       (B) The department and the governing authority of each 45878
community school authorized under this section shall enter into a 45879
contract under section 3314.03 of the Revised Code. 45880
Notwithstanding division (A)(13) of that section, the contract 45881
with an existing community school may begin at any time during the 45882
academic year. The length of the initial contract of any community 45883
school under this section may be for any term up to five years. 45884
The contract may be renewed in accordance with division (E) of 45885
that section. The contract may provide for the school's governing 45886
authority to pay a fee for oversight and monitoring of the school 45887
that does not exceed three per cent of the total amount of 45888
payments for operating expenses that the school receives from the 45889
state.45890

       (C) The department may require a community school authorized 45891
under this section to post and file with the superintendent of 45892
public instruction a bond payable to the state or to file with the 45893
state superintendent a guarantee, which shall be used to pay the 45894
state any moneys owed by the community school in the event the 45895
school closes.45896

       (D) Except as otherwise provided in this section, a community 45897
school authorized under this section shall comply with all 45898
applicable provisions of this chapter. The department may take any 45899
action that a sponsor may take under this chapter to enforce the 45900
school's compliance with this division and the terms of the 45901
contract entered into under division (B) of this section.45902

       (E) Not later than December 31, 2012, and annually 45903
thereafter, the department shall issue a report on the program, 45904
including information about the number of community schools 45905
participating in the program and their compliance with the 45906
provisions of this chapter. In its fifth report, the department 45907
shall include a complete evaluation of the program and 45908
recommendations regarding the program's continuation. Each report 45909
shall be provided to the general assembly, in accordance with 45910
section 101.68 of the Revised Code, and to the governor.45911

       Sec. 3314.03.  A copy of every contract entered into under 45912
this section shall be filed with the superintendent of public 45913
instruction. The department of education shall make available on 45914
its web site a copy of every approved, executed contract filed 45915
with the superintendent under this section.45916

       (A) Each contract entered into between a sponsor and the 45917
governing authority of a community school shall specify the 45918
following:45919

       (1) That the school shall be established as either of the 45920
following:45921

       (a) A nonprofit corporation established under Chapter 1702. 45922
of the Revised Code, if established prior to April 8, 2003;45923

       (b) A public benefit corporation established under Chapter 45924
1702. of the Revised Code, if established after April 8, 2003.45925

       (2) The education program of the school, including the 45926
school's mission, the characteristics of the students the school 45927
is expected to attract, the ages and grades of students, and the 45928
focus of the curriculum;45929

       (3) The academic goals to be achieved and the method of 45930
measurement that will be used to determine progress toward those 45931
goals, which shall include the statewide achievement assessments;45932

       (4) Performance standards by which the success of the school 45933
will be evaluated by the sponsor;45934

       (5) The admission standards of section 3314.06 of the Revised 45935
Code and, if applicable, section 3314.061 of the Revised Code;45936

       (6)(a) Dismissal procedures;45937

       (b) A requirement that the governing authority adopt an 45938
attendance policy that includes a procedure for automatically 45939
withdrawing a student from the school if the student without a 45940
legitimate excuse fails to participate in one hundred five 45941
consecutive hours of the learning opportunities offered to the 45942
student.45943

       (7) The ways by which the school will achieve racial and 45944
ethnic balance reflective of the community it serves;45945

       (8) Requirements for financial audits by the auditor of 45946
state. The contract shall require financial records of the school 45947
to be maintained in the same manner as are financial records of 45948
school districts, pursuant to rules of the auditor of state. 45949
Audits shall be conducted in accordance with section 117.10 of the 45950
Revised Code.45951

       (9) The facilities to be used and their locations;45952

       (10) Qualifications of teachers, including the following:45953

       (a) Aa requirement that the school's classroom teachers be 45954
licensed in accordance with sections 3319.22 to 3319.31 of the 45955
Revised Code, except that a community school may engage 45956
noncertificated persons to teach up to twelve hours per week 45957
pursuant to section 3319.301 of the Revised Code;45958

       (b) A requirement that each classroom teacher initially hired 45959
by the school on or after July 1, 2013, and employed to provide 45960
instruction in physical education hold a valid license issued 45961
pursuant to section 3319.22 of the Revised Code for teaching 45962
physical education.45963

       (11) That the school will comply with the following 45964
requirements:45965

       (a) The school will provide learning opportunities to a 45966
minimum of twenty-five students for a minimum of nine hundred 45967
twenty hours per school year.45968

       (b) The governing authority will purchase liability 45969
insurance, or otherwise provide for the potential liability of the 45970
school.45971

       (c) The school will be nonsectarian in its programs, 45972
admission policies, employment practices, and all other 45973
operations, and will not be operated by a sectarian school or 45974
religious institution.45975

       (d) The school will comply with sections 9.90, 9.91, 109.65, 45976
121.22, 149.43, 2151.357, 2151.421, 2313.19, 3301.0710, 3301.0711, 45977
3301.0712, 3301.0715, 3313.472, 3313.50, 3313.536, 3313.539, 45978
3313.608, 3313.609, 3313.6012, 3313.6013, 3313.6014, 3313.6015, 45979
3313.643, 3313.648, 3313.6411, 3313.66, 3313.661, 3313.662, 45980
3313.666, 3313.667, 3313.67, 3313.671, 3313.672, 3313.673, 45981
3313.69, 3313.71, 3313.716, 3313.718, 3313.719, 3313.80, 3313.814, 45982
3313.816, 3313.817, 3313.86, 3313.96, 3319.073, 3319.321, 3319.39, 45983
3319.391, 3319.41, 3321.01, 3321.041, 3321.13, 3321.14, 3321.17, 45984
3321.18, 3321.19, 3321.191, 3327.10, 4111.17, 4113.52, and 45985
5705.391 and Chapters 117., 1347., 2744., 3365., 3742., 4112., 45986
4123., 4141., and 4167. of the Revised Code as if it were a school 45987
district and will comply with section 3301.0714 of the Revised 45988
Code in the manner specified in section 3314.17 of the Revised 45989
Code.45990

       (e) The school shall comply with Chapter 102. and section 45991
2921.42 of the Revised Code.45992

       (f) The school will comply with sections 3313.61, 3313.611, 45993
and 3313.614 of the Revised Code, except that for students who 45994
enter ninth grade for the first time before July 1, 2010, the 45995
requirement in sections 3313.61 and 3313.611 of the Revised Code 45996
that a person must successfully complete the curriculum in any 45997
high school prior to receiving a high school diploma may be met by 45998
completing the curriculum adopted by the governing authority of 45999
the community school rather than the curriculum specified in Title 46000
XXXIII of the Revised Code or any rules of the state board of 46001
education. Beginning with students who enter ninth grade for the 46002
first time on or after July 1, 2010, the requirement in sections 46003
3313.61 and 3313.611 of the Revised Code that a person must 46004
successfully complete the curriculum of a high school prior to 46005
receiving a high school diploma shall be met by completing the 46006
Ohio core curriculum prescribed in division (C) of section 46007
3313.603 of the Revised Code, unless the person qualifies under 46008
division (D) or (F) of that section. Each school shall comply with 46009
the plan for awarding high school credit based on demonstration of 46010
subject area competency, adopted by the state board of education 46011
under division (J) of section 3313.603 of the Revised Code.46012

       (g) The school governing authority will submit within four 46013
months after the end of each school year a report of its 46014
activities and progress in meeting the goals and standards of 46015
divisions (A)(3) and (4) of this section and its financial status 46016
to the sponsor and the parents of all students enrolled in the 46017
school.46018

       (h) The school, unless it is an internet- or computer-based 46019
community school, will comply with section 3313.801 of the Revised 46020
Code as if it were a school district.46021

       (i) If the school is the recipient of moneys from a grant 46022
awarded under the federal race to the top program, Division (A), 46023
Title XIV, Sections 14005 and 14006 of the "American Recovery and 46024
Reinvestment Act of 2009," Pub. L. No. 111-5, 123 Stat. 115, the 46025
school will pay teachers based upon performance in accordance with 46026
section 3317.141 and will comply with section 3319.111 of the 46027
Revised Code as if it were a school district.46028

       (12) Arrangements for providing health and other benefits to 46029
employees;46030

       (13) The length of the contract, which shall begin at the 46031
beginning of an academic year. No contract shall exceed five years 46032
unless such contract has been renewed pursuant to division (E) of 46033
this section.46034

       (14) The governing authority of the school, which shall be 46035
responsible for carrying out the provisions of the contract;46036

       (15) A financial plan detailing an estimated school budget 46037
for each year of the period of the contract and specifying the 46038
total estimated per pupil expenditure amount for each such year. 46039
The plan shall specify for each year the base formula amount that 46040
will be used for purposes of funding calculations under section 46041
3314.08 of the Revised Code. This base formula amount for any year 46042
shall not exceed the formula amount defined under section 3317.02 46043
of the Revised Code. The plan may also specify for any year a 46044
percentage figure to be used for reducing the per pupil amount of 46045
the subsidy calculated pursuant to section 3317.029 of the Revised 46046
Code the school is to receive that year under section 3314.08 of 46047
the Revised Code. 46048

       (16) Requirements and procedures regarding the disposition of 46049
employees of the school in the event the contract is terminated or 46050
not renewed pursuant to section 3314.07 of the Revised Code;46051

       (17) Whether the school is to be created by converting all or 46052
part of an existing public school or educational service center 46053
building or is to be a new start-up school, and if it is a 46054
converted public school or service center building, specification 46055
of any duties or responsibilities of an employer that the board of 46056
education or service center governing board that operated the 46057
school or building before conversion is delegating to the 46058
governing authority of the community school with respect to all or 46059
any specified group of employees provided the delegation is not 46060
prohibited by a collective bargaining agreement applicable to such 46061
employees;46062

       (18) Provisions establishing procedures for resolving 46063
disputes or differences of opinion between the sponsor and the 46064
governing authority of the community school;46065

       (19) A provision requiring the governing authority to adopt a 46066
policy regarding the admission of students who reside outside the 46067
district in which the school is located. That policy shall comply 46068
with the admissions procedures specified in sections 3314.06 and 46069
3314.061 of the Revised Code and, at the sole discretion of the 46070
authority, shall do one of the following:46071

       (a) Prohibit the enrollment of students who reside outside 46072
the district in which the school is located;46073

       (b) Permit the enrollment of students who reside in districts 46074
adjacent to the district in which the school is located;46075

       (c) Permit the enrollment of students who reside in any other 46076
district in the state.46077

       (20) A provision recognizing the authority of the department 46078
of education to take over the sponsorship of the school in 46079
accordance with the provisions of division (C) of section 3314.015 46080
of the Revised Code;46081

       (21) A provision recognizing the sponsor's authority to 46082
assume the operation of a school under the conditions specified in 46083
division (B) of section 3314.073 of the Revised Code;46084

        (22) A provision recognizing both of the following:46085

       (a) The authority of public health and safety officials to 46086
inspect the facilities of the school and to order the facilities 46087
closed if those officials find that the facilities are not in 46088
compliance with health and safety laws and regulations;46089

       (b) The authority of the department of education as the 46090
community school oversight body to suspend the operation of the 46091
school under section 3314.072 of the Revised Code if the 46092
department has evidence of conditions or violations of law at the 46093
school that pose an imminent danger to the health and safety of 46094
the school's students and employees and the sponsor refuses to 46095
take such action.46096

        (23) A description of the learning opportunities that will be 46097
offered to students including both classroom-based and 46098
non-classroom-based learning opportunities that is in compliance 46099
with criteria for student participation established by the 46100
department under division (L)(H)(2) of section 3314.08 of the 46101
Revised Code;46102

       (24) The school will comply with sections 3302.04 and 46103
3302.041 of the Revised Code, except that any action required to 46104
be taken by a school district pursuant to those sections shall be 46105
taken by the sponsor of the school. However, the sponsor shall not 46106
be required to take any action described in division (F) of 46107
section 3302.04 of the Revised Code.46108

       (25) Beginning in the 2006-2007 school year, the school will 46109
open for operation not later than the thirtieth day of September 46110
each school year, unless the mission of the school as specified 46111
under division (A)(2) of this section is solely to serve dropouts. 46112
In its initial year of operation, if the school fails to open by 46113
the thirtieth day of September, or within one year after the 46114
adoption of the contract pursuant to division (D) of section 46115
3314.02 of the Revised Code if the mission of the school is solely 46116
to serve dropouts, the contract shall be void.46117

       (B) The community school shall also submit to the sponsor a 46118
comprehensive plan for the school. The plan shall specify the 46119
following:46120

       (1) The process by which the governing authority of the 46121
school will be selected in the future;46122

       (2) The management and administration of the school;46123

       (3) If the community school is a currently existing public 46124
school or educational service center building, alternative 46125
arrangements for current public school students who choose not to 46126
attend the converted school and for teachers who choose not to 46127
teach in the school or building after conversion;46128

       (4) The instructional program and educational philosophy of 46129
the school;46130

       (5) Internal financial controls.46131

       (C) A contract entered into under section 3314.02 of the 46132
Revised Code between a sponsor and the governing authority of a 46133
community school may provide for the community school governing 46134
authority to make payments to the sponsor, which is hereby 46135
authorized to receive such payments as set forth in the contract 46136
between the governing authority and the sponsor. The total amount 46137
of such payments for oversight and monitoring of the school shall 46138
not exceed three per cent of the total amount of payments for 46139
operating expenses that the school receives from the state.46140

       (D) The contract shall specify the duties of the sponsor 46141
which shall be in accordance with the written agreement entered 46142
into with the department of education under division (B) of 46143
section 3314.015 of the Revised Code and shall include the 46144
following:46145

        (1) Monitor the community school's compliance with all laws 46146
applicable to the school and with the terms of the contract;46147

        (2) Monitor and evaluate the academic and fiscal performance 46148
and the organization and operation of the community school on at 46149
least an annual basis;46150

        (3) Report on an annual basis the results of the evaluation 46151
conducted under division (D)(2) of this section to the department 46152
of education and to the parents of students enrolled in the 46153
community school;46154

        (4) Provide technical assistance to the community school in 46155
complying with laws applicable to the school and terms of the 46156
contract;46157

        (5) Take steps to intervene in the school's operation to 46158
correct problems in the school's overall performance, declare the 46159
school to be on probationary status pursuant to section 3314.073 46160
of the Revised Code, suspend the operation of the school pursuant 46161
to section 3314.072 of the Revised Code, or terminate the contract 46162
of the school pursuant to section 3314.07 of the Revised Code as 46163
determined necessary by the sponsor;46164

        (6) Have in place a plan of action to be undertaken in the 46165
event the community school experiences financial difficulties or 46166
closes prior to the end of a school year.46167

        (E) Upon the expiration of a contract entered into under this 46168
section, the sponsor of a community school may, with the approval 46169
of the governing authority of the school, renew that contract for 46170
a period of time determined by the sponsor, but not ending earlier 46171
than the end of any school year, if the sponsor finds that the 46172
school's compliance with applicable laws and terms of the contract 46173
and the school's progress in meeting the academic goals prescribed 46174
in the contract have been satisfactory. Any contract that is 46175
renewed under this division remains subject to the provisions of 46176
sections 3314.07, 3314.072, and 3314.073 of the Revised Code.46177

       (F) If a community school fails to open for operation within 46178
one year after the contract entered into under this section is 46179
adopted pursuant to division (D) of section 3314.02 of the Revised 46180
Code or permanently closes prior to the expiration of the 46181
contract, the contract shall be void and the school shall not 46182
enter into a contract with any other sponsor. A school shall not 46183
be considered permanently closed because the operations of the 46184
school have been suspended pursuant to section 3314.072 of the 46185
Revised Code. 46186

       Sec. 3314.042.  The governing authority of each community 46187
school shall comply with the standards for financial reporting 46188
adopted under division (B)(2) of section 3301.07 of the Revised 46189
Code.46190

       Sec. 3314.05.  (A) The contract between the community school 46191
and the sponsor shall specify the facilities to be used for the 46192
community school and the method of acquisition. Except as provided 46193
in divisions (B)(3) and (4) of this section, no community school 46194
shall be established in more than one school district under the 46195
same contract.46196

        (B) Division (B) of this section shall not apply to internet- 46197
or computer-based community schools.46198

       (1) A community school may be located in multiple facilities 46199
under the same contract only if the limitations on availability of 46200
space prohibit serving all the grade levels specified in the 46201
contract in a single facility or division (B)(2), (3), or (4) of 46202
this section applies to the school. The school shall not offer the 46203
same grade level classrooms in more than one facility.46204

       (2) A community school may be located in multiple facilities 46205
under the same contract and, notwithstanding division (B)(1) of 46206
this section, may assign students in the same grade level to 46207
multiple facilities, as long as all of the following apply:46208

       (a) The governing authority of the community school filed a 46209
copy of its contract with the school's sponsor under section 46210
3314.03 of the Revised Code with the superintendent of public 46211
instruction on or before May 15, 2008.46212

       (b) The school was not open for operation prior to July 1, 46213
2008.46214

       (c) The governing authority has entered into and maintains a 46215
contract with an operator of the type described in division 46216
(A)(8)(b) of section 3314.02 of the Revised Code.46217

       (d)(b) The contract with that operator qualified the school 46218
to be established pursuant to division (A) of former section 46219
3314.016 of the Revised Code.46220

       (e)(c) The school's rating under section 3302.03 of the 46221
Revised Code does not fall below a combination of any of the 46222
following for two or more consecutive years:46223

       (i) A rating of "in need of continuous improvement" under 46224
section 3302.03 of the Revised Code, as that section existed prior 46225
to the effective date of this sectionMarch 22, 2013;46226

       (ii) For the 2012-2013 and 2013-2014 school years, a rating 46227
of "C" for both the performance index score under division 46228
(A)(1)(b) or (B)(1)(b) and the value-added dimension under 46229
division (A)(1)(e) or (B)(1)(e) of section 3302.03 of the Revised 46230
Code; or if the building serves only grades ten through twelve, 46231
the building received a grade of "C" for the performance index 46232
score under division (A)(1)(b) or (B)(1)(b) of section 3302.03 of 46233
the Revised Code;46234

       (iii) For the 2014-2015 school year and for any school year 46235
thereafter, an overall grade of "C" under division (C)(3) of 46236
section 3302.03 of the Revised Code or an overall performance 46237
designation of "meets standards" under division (E)(3)(e) of 46238
section 3314.017 of the Revised Code.46239

       (3) A new start-up community school may be established in two 46240
school districts under the same contract if all of the following 46241
apply:46242

       (a) At least one of the school districts in which the school 46243
is established is a challenged school district;46244

       (b) The school operates not more than one facility in each 46245
school district and, in accordance with division (B)(1) of this 46246
section, the school does not offer the same grade level classrooms 46247
in both facilities; and46248

       (c) Transportation between the two facilities does not 46249
require more than thirty minutes of direct travel time as measured 46250
by school bus.46251

       In the case of a community school to which division (B)(3) of 46252
this section applies, if only one of the school districts in which 46253
the school is established is a challenged school district, that 46254
district shall be considered the school's primary location and the 46255
district in which the school is located for the purposes of 46256
division (A)(19) of section 3314.03 and divisions (C) and (H) of 46257
section 3314.06 of the Revised Code and for all other purposes of 46258
this chapter. If both of the school districts in which the school 46259
is established are challenged school districts, the school's 46260
governing authority shall designate one of those districts to be 46261
considered the school's primary location and the district in which 46262
the school is located for the purposes of those divisions and all 46263
other purposes of this chapter and shall notify the department of 46264
education of that designation.46265

       (4) A community school may be located in multiple facilities 46266
under the same contract and, notwithstanding division (B)(1) of 46267
this section, may assign students in the same grade level to 46268
multiple facilities, as long as both of the following apply:46269

       (a) The facilities are all located in the same county.46270

       (b) Either of the following conditions are satisfied:46271

        (i) The community school is sponsored by a board of education 46272
of a city, local, or exempted village school district having 46273
territory in the same county where the facilities of the community 46274
school are located;46275

        (ii) The community school is managed by an operator.46276

       In the case of a community school to which division (B)(4) of 46277
this section applies and that maintains facilities in more than 46278
one school district, the school's governing authority shall 46279
designate one of those districts to be considered the school's 46280
primary location and the district in which the school is located 46281
for the purposes of division (A)(19) of section 3314.03 and 46282
divisions (C) and (H) of section 3314.06 of the Revised Code and 46283
for all other purposes of this chapter and shall notify the 46284
department of that designation.46285

       (5) Any facility used for a community school shall meet all 46286
health and safety standards established by law for school 46287
buildings.46288

       (C) In the case where a community school is proposed to be 46289
located in a facility owned by a school district or educational 46290
service center, the facility may not be used for such community 46291
school unless the district or service center board owning the 46292
facility enters into an agreement for the community school to 46293
utilize the facility. Use of the facility may be under any terms 46294
and conditions agreed to by the district or service center board 46295
and the school.46296

       (D) Two or more separate community schools may be located in 46297
the same facility.46298

       (E) In the case of a community school that is located in 46299
multiple facilities, beginning July 1, 2012, the department shall 46300
assign a unique identification number to the school and to each 46301
facility maintained by the school. Each number shall be used for 46302
identification purposes only. Nothing in this division shall be 46303
construed to require the department to calculate the amount of 46304
funds paid under this chapter, or to compute any data required for 46305
the report cards issued under section 3314.012 of the Revised 46306
Code, for each facility separately. The department shall make all 46307
such calculations or computations for the school as a whole.46308

       Sec. 3314.06.  The governing authority of each community 46309
school established under this chapter shall adopt admission 46310
procedures that specify the following:46311

       (A) That, except as otherwise provided in this section, 46312
admission to the school shall be open to any individual age five 46313
to twenty-two entitled to attend school pursuant to section 46314
3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised Code in a school district in the 46315
state.46316

       Additionally, except as otherwise provided in this section, 46317
admission to the school may be open on a tuition basis to any 46318
individual age five to twenty-two who is not a resident of this 46319
state. The school shall not receive state funds under section 46320
3314.08 of the Revised Code for any student who is not a resident 46321
of this state.46322

       An individual younger than five years of age may be admitted 46323
to the school in accordance with division (A)(2) of section 46324
3321.01 of the Revised Code.46325

       (B)(1) That admission to the school may be limited to 46326
students who have attained a specific grade level or are within a 46327
specific age group; to students that meet a definition of 46328
"at-risk," as defined in the contract; to residents of a specific 46329
geographic area within the district, as defined in the contract; 46330
or to separate groups of autistic students and nondisabled 46331
students, as authorized in section 3314.061 of the Revised Code 46332
and as defined in the contract.46333

       (2) For purposes of division (B)(1) of this section, 46334
"at-risk" students may include those students identified as gifted 46335
students under section 3324.03 of the Revised Code.46336

       (C) Whether enrollment is limited to students who reside in 46337
the district in which the school is located or is open to 46338
residents of other districts, as provided in the policy adopted 46339
pursuant to the contract.46340

       (D)(1) That there will be no discrimination in the admission 46341
of students to the school on the basis of race, creed, color, 46342
disability, or sex except that:46343

       (a) The governing authority may do either of the following 46344
for the purpose described in division (G) of this section:46345

       (i) Establish a single-gender school for either sex;46346

       (ii) Establish single-gender schools for each sex under the 46347
same contract, provided substantially equal facilities and 46348
learning opportunities are offered for both boys and girls. Such 46349
facilities and opportunities may be offered for each sex at 46350
separate locations.46351

       (b) The governing authority may establish a school that 46352
simultaneously serves a group of students identified as autistic 46353
and a group of students who are not disabled, as authorized in 46354
section 3314.061 of the Revised Code. However, unless the total 46355
capacity established for the school has been filled, no student 46356
with any disability shall be denied admission on the basis of that 46357
disability.46358

       (2) That upon admission of any student with a disability, the 46359
community school will comply with all federal and state laws 46360
regarding the education of students with disabilities.46361

       (E) That the school may not limit admission to students on 46362
the basis of intellectual ability, measures of achievement or 46363
aptitude, or athletic ability, except that a school may limit its 46364
enrollment to students as described in division (B) of this 46365
section.46366

       (F) That the community school will admit the number of 46367
students that does not exceed the capacity of the school's 46368
programs, classes, grade levels, or facilities.46369

       (G) That the purpose of single-gender schools that are 46370
established shall be to take advantage of the academic benefits 46371
some students realize from single-gender instruction and 46372
facilities and to offer students and parents residing in the 46373
district the option of a single-gender education.46374

       (H) That, except as otherwise provided under division (B) of 46375
this section or section 3314.061 of the Revised Code, if the 46376
number of applicants exceeds the capacity restrictions of division 46377
(F) of this section, students shall be admitted by lot from all 46378
those submitting applications, except preference shall be given to 46379
students attending the school the previous year and to students 46380
who reside in the district in which the school is located. 46381
Preference may be given to siblings of students attending the 46382
school the previous year.46383

       Notwithstanding divisions (A) to (H) of this section, in the 46384
event the racial composition of the enrollment of the community 46385
school is violative of a federal desegregation order, the 46386
community school shall take any and all corrective measures to 46387
comply with the desegregation order.46388

       Sec. 3314.072. The provisions of this section are enacted to 46389
promote the public health, safety, and welfare by establishing 46390
procedures under which the governing authorities of community 46391
schools established under this chapter will be held accountable 46392
for their compliance with the terms of the contracts they enter 46393
into with their school's sponsors and the law relating to the 46394
school's operation. Suspension of the operation of a school 46395
imposed under this section is intended to encourage the governing 46396
authority's compliance with the terms of the school's contract and 46397
the law and is not intended to be an alteration of the terms of 46398
that contract.46399

       (A) If a sponsor of a community school established under this 46400
chapter suspends the operation of that school pursuant to 46401
procedures set forth in this section, the governing authority 46402
shall not operate that school while the suspension is in effect. 46403
Any such suspension shall remain in effect until the sponsor 46404
notifies the governing authority that it is no longer in effect. 46405
The contract of a school of which operation is suspended under 46406
this section also may be subject to termination or nonrenewal 46407
under section 3314.07 of the Revised Code.46408

       (B) If at any time conditions at the school do not comply 46409
with a health and safety standard established by law for school 46410
buildings, the sponsor shall immediately suspend the operation of 46411
the school pursuant to procedures set forth in division (D) of 46412
this section. If the sponsor fails to take action to suspend the 46413
operation of a school to which this division applies, the 46414
department of education may take such action.46415

       (C)(1) For any of the reasons prescribed in division 46416
(B)(1)(a) to (d) of section 3314.07 of the Revised Code, the 46417
sponsor of a community school established under this chapter may 46418
suspend the operation of the school only if it first issues to the 46419
governing authority notice of the sponsor's intent to suspend the 46420
operation of the contract. Such notice shall explain the reasons 46421
for the sponsor's intent to suspend operation of the contract and 46422
shall provide the school's governing authority with five business 46423
days to submit to the sponsor a proposal to remedy the conditions 46424
cited as reasons for the suspension.46425

       (2) The sponsor shall promptly review any proposed remedy 46426
timely submitted by the governing authority and either approve or 46427
disapprove the remedy. If the sponsor disapproves the remedy 46428
proposed by the governing authority, if the governing authority 46429
fails to submit a proposed remedy in the manner prescribed by the 46430
sponsor, or if the governing authority fails to implement the 46431
remedy as approved by the sponsor, the sponsor may suspend 46432
operation of the school pursuant to procedures set forth in 46433
division (D) of this section.46434

       (D)(1) If division (B) of this section applies or if the 46435
sponsor of a community school established under this chapter 46436
decides to suspend the operation of a school as permitted in 46437
division (C)(2) of this section, the sponsor shall promptly send 46438
written notice to the governing authority stating that the 46439
operation of the school is immediately suspended, and explaining 46440
the specific reasons for the suspension. The notice shall state 46441
that the governing authority has five business days to submit a 46442
proposed remedy to the conditions cited as reasons for the 46443
suspension or face potential contract termination.46444

       (2) Upon receipt of the notice of suspension prescribed under 46445
division (D)(1) of this section, the governing authority shall 46446
immediately notify the employees of the school and the parents of 46447
the students enrolled in the school of the suspension and the 46448
reasons therefore, and shall cease all school operations on the 46449
next business day.46450

       (E) If the sponsor of a community school suspends the 46451
operation of that school pursuant to procedures set forth in this 46452
section, the school's contract with the sponsor under section 46453
3314.03 of the Revised Code shall become void, if the governing 46454
authority of the school fails to provide a proposal to remedy the 46455
conditions cited by the sponsor as reasons for the suspension, to 46456
the satisfaction of the sponsor, by the thirtieth day of September 46457
of the school year immediately following the school year in which 46458
the operation of school was suspended.46459

       Sec. 3314.074. Divisions (A) and (B) of this section apply 46460
only to the extent permitted under Chapter 1702. of the Revised 46461
Code.46462

       (A) If any community school established under this chapter 46463
permanently closes and ceases its operation as a community school, 46464
the assets of that school shall be distributed first to the 46465
retirement funds of employees of the school, employees of the 46466
school, and private creditors who are owed compensation, and then 46467
any remaining funds shall be paid to the department of education 46468
for redistribution to the school districts in which the students 46469
who were enrolled in the school at the time it ceased operation 46470
were entitled to attend school under section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of 46471
the Revised Code. The amount distributed to each school district 46472
shall be proportional to the district's share of the total 46473
enrollment in the community school.46474

       (B) If a community school closes and ceases to operate as a 46475
community school and the school has received computer hardware or 46476
software from the former Ohio SchoolNet commission or the former46477
eTech Ohio commission, such hardware or software shall be returned46478
turned over to the eTech Ohio commissiondepartment of education, 46479
and the eTech Ohio commissionwhich shall redistribute the 46480
hardware and software, to the extent such redistribution is 46481
possible, to school districts in conformance with the provisions 46482
of the programs as they were operated and administered by the 46483
former eTech Ohio commission.46484

       (C) If the assets of the school are insufficient to pay all 46485
persons or entities to whom compensation is owed, the 46486
prioritization of the distribution of the assets to individual 46487
persons or entities within each class of payees may be determined 46488
by decree of a court in accordance with this section and Chapter 46489
1702. of the Revised Code.46490

       Sec. 3314.08. The deductions under division (C) and the 46491
payments under division (D) of this section for fiscal years 2012 46492
and 2013 shall be made in accordance with section 3314.088 of the 46493
Revised Code.46494

       (A) As used in this section:46495

       (1) "Base formula amount" means the amount specified as such 46496
in a community school's financial plan for a school year pursuant 46497
to division (A)(15) of section 3314.03 of the Revised Code.46498

       (2) "IEP" has the same meaning as in section 3323.01 of the 46499
Revised Code.46500

       (3) "Applicable special education weight" means the multiple 46501
specified in section 3317.013 of the Revised Code for a disability 46502
described in that section.46503

       (4) "Applicable vocational education weight" means:46504

       (a) For a student enrolled in vocational education programs 46505
or classes described in division (A) of section 3317.014 of the 46506
Revised Code, the multiple specified in that division;46507

       (b) For a student enrolled in vocational education programs 46508
or classes described in division (B) of section 3317.014 of the 46509
Revised Code, the multiple specified in that division.46510

       (5) "Entitled to attend school" means entitled to attend 46511
school in a district under section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the 46512
Revised Code.46513

       (6) A community school student is "included in the poverty 46514
student count" of a school district if the student is entitled to 46515
attend school in the district and the student's family receives 46516
assistance under the Ohio works first program.46517

       (7) "Poverty-based assistance reduction factor" means the 46518
percentage figure, if any, for reducing the per pupil amount of 46519
poverty-based assistance a community school is entitled to receive 46520
pursuant to divisions (D)(5) to (9) of this section in any year, 46521
as specified in the school's financial plan for the year pursuant 46522
to division (A)(15) of section 3314.03 of the Revised Code.46523

       (8) "All-day kindergarten" has the same meaning as in section 46524
3321.05 of the Revised Code.46525

        (9)(a) "Category one career-technical education student" 46526
means a student who is receiving the career-technical education 46527
services described in division (A) of section 3317.014 of the 46528
Revised Code.46529

       (b) "Category two career-technical student" means a student 46530
who is receiving the career-technical education services described 46531
in division (B) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code.46532

       (c) "Category three career-technical student" means a student 46533
who is receiving the career-technical education services described 46534
in division (C) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code.46535

       (d) "Category four career-technical student" means a student 46536
who is receiving the career-technical education services described 46537
in division (D) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code.46538

       (e) "Category five career-technical education student" means 46539
a student who is receiving the career-technical education services 46540
described in division (E) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code.46541

       (2)(a) "Category one limited English proficient student" 46542
means a limited English proficient student described in division 46543
(A) of section 3317.016 of the Revised Code.46544

       (b) "Category two limited English proficient student" means a 46545
limited English proficient student described in division (B) of 46546
section 3317.016 of the Revised Code.46547

       (c) "Category three limited English proficient student" means 46548
a limited English proficient student described in division (C) of 46549
section 3317.016 of the Revised Code.46550

       (3)(a) "Category one special education student" means a 46551
student who is receiving special education services for a 46552
disability specified in division (A) of section 3317.013 of the 46553
Revised Code.46554

       (b) "Category two special education student" means a student 46555
who is receiving special education services for a disability 46556
specified in division (B) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code.46557

       (c) "Category three special education student" means a 46558
student who is receiving special education services for a 46559
disability specified in division (C) of section 3317.013 of the 46560
Revised Code.46561

       (d) "Category four special education student" means a student 46562
who is receiving special education services for a disability 46563
specified in division (D) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code.46564

       (e) "Category five special education student" means a student 46565
who is receiving special education services for a disability 46566
specified in division (E) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code.46567

       (f) "Category six special education student" means a student 46568
who is receiving special education services for a disability 46569
specified in division (F) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code.46570

       (4) "Formula amount" has the same meaning as in section 46571
3317.02 of the Revised Code.46572

       (5) "IEP" has the same meaning as in section 3323.01 of the 46573
Revised Code.46574

       (6) "Resident district" means the school district in which a 46575
student is entitled to attend school under section 3313.64 or 46576
3313.65 of the Revised Code.46577

       (7) "State education aid" has the same meaning as in section 46578
5751.20 of the Revised Code.46579

       (B) The state board of education shall adopt rules requiring 46580
both of the following:46581

       (1) The board of education of each city, exempted village, 46582
and local school district to annually report the number of 46583
students entitled to attend school in the district who are 46584
enrolled in grades oneeach grade kindergarten through twelve in a 46585
community school established under this chapter, the number of 46586
students entitled to attend school in the district who are 46587
enrolled in kindergarten in a community school, the number of 46588
those kindergartners who are enrolled in all-day kindergarten in 46589
their community school, and for each child, the community school 46590
in which the child is enrolled.46591

       (2) The governing authority of each community school 46592
established under this chapter to annually report all of the 46593
following:46594

       (a) The number of students enrolled in grades one through 46595
twelve and the full-time equivalent number of students enrolled in 46596
kindergarten in the school who are not receiving special education 46597
and related services pursuant to an IEP;46598

       (b) The number of enrolled students in grades one through 46599
twelve and the full-time equivalent number of enrolled students in 46600
kindergarten, who are receiving special education and related 46601
services pursuant to an IEP;46602

       (c) The number of students reported under division (B)(2)(b) 46603
of this section receiving special education and related services 46604
pursuant to an IEP for a disability described in each of divisions 46605
(A) to (F) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;46606

       (d) The full-time equivalent number of students reported 46607
under divisions (B)(2)(a) and (b) of this section who are enrolled 46608
in vocationalcareer-technical education programs or classes 46609
described in each of divisions (A) and (B)to (E) of section 46610
3317.014 of the Revised Code that are provided by the community 46611
school;46612

       (e) Twenty per cent of the number of students reported under 46613
divisions (B)(2)(a) and (b) of this section who are not reported 46614
under division (B)(2)(d) of this section but who are enrolled in 46615
vocationalcareer-technical education programs or classes 46616
described in each of divisions (A) and (B)to (E) of section 46617
3317.014 of the Revised Code at a joint vocational school district 46618
under a contract between the community school and the joint 46619
vocational school district and are entitled to attend school in a 46620
city, local, or exempted village school district whose territory 46621
is part of the territory of the joint vocational school district46622
or another district in the career-technical planning district to 46623
which the school is assigned;46624

       (f) The number of enrolled preschool children with 46625
disabilities receiving special education services in a 46626
state-funded unit;46627

       (g) The community school's base formula amount;46628

       (h)The number of students reported under divisions (B)(2)(a) 46629
and (b) of this section who are category one to three limited 46630
English proficient students described in each of divisions (A) to 46631
(C) of section 3317.016 of the Revised Code;46632

       (g) The number of students reported under divisions (B)(2)(a) 46633
and (b) who are economically disadvantaged, as defined by the 46634
department. A student shall not be categorically excluded from the 46635
number reported under division (B)(2)(g) of this section based on 46636
anything other than family income.46637

       (h) For each student, the city, exempted village, or local 46638
school district in which the student is entitled to attend school;46639

       (i) Any poverty-based assistance reduction factor that 46640
applies to a school yearunder section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the 46641
Revised Code.46642

       A school district board and a community school governing 46643
authority shall include in their respective reports under division 46644
(B) of this section any child admitted in accordance with division 46645
(A)(2) of section 3321.01 of the Revised Code.46646

       A governing authority of a community school shall not include 46647
in its report under division (B)(2) of this section any student 46648
for whom tuition is charged under division (F) of this section.46649

       (C) From the state education aid calculated for a city, 46650
exempted village, or local school district and, if necessary, from 46651
the payment made to the district under sections 321.24 and 323.156 46652
of the Revised Code, the department of education shall annually 46653
subtract the sum of the amounts described in divisions (C)(1) to 46654
(9) of this section. However, when deducting payments on behalf of 46655
students enrolled in internet- or computer-based community 46656
schools, the department shall deduct only those amounts described 46657
in divisions (C)(1) and (2) of this section. Furthermore, the 46658
aggregate amount deducted under this division shall not exceed the 46659
sum of the district's state education aid and its payment under 46660
sections 321.24 and 323.156 of the Revised Code.46661

       (1) An amount equal to the sum of the amounts obtained when, 46662
for each community school where the district's students are 46663
enrolled, the number of the district's students reported under 46664
divisions (B)(2)(a), (b), and (e) of this section who are enrolled 46665
in grades one through twelve, and one-half the number of students 46666
reported under those divisions who are enrolled in kindergarten, 46667
in that community school is multiplied by the sum of the base 46668
formula amount of that community school plus the per pupil amount 46669
of the base funding supplements specified in divisions (C)(1) to 46670
(4) of section 3317.012 of the Revised Code.46671

       (2) The sum of the amounts calculated under divisions 46672
(C)(2)(a) and (b) of this section:46673

       (a) For each of the district's students reported under 46674
division (B)(2)(c) of this section as enrolled in a community 46675
school in grades one through twelve and receiving special 46676
education and related services pursuant to an IEP for a disability 46677
described in section 3317.013 of the Revised Code, the product of 46678
the applicable special education weight times the community 46679
school's base formula amount;46680

       (b) For each of the district's students reported under 46681
division (B)(2)(c) of this section as enrolled in kindergarten in 46682
a community school and receiving special education and related 46683
services pursuant to an IEP for a disability described in section 46684
3317.013 of the Revised Code, one-half of the amount calculated as 46685
prescribed in division (C)(2)(a) of this section.46686

       (3) For each of the district's students reported under 46687
division (B)(2)(d) of this section for whom payment is made under 46688
division (D)(4) of this section, the amount of that payment;46689

       (4) An amount equal to the sum of the amounts obtained when, 46690
for each community school where the district's students are 46691
enrolled, the number of the district's students enrolled in that 46692
community school who are included in the district's poverty 46693
student count is multiplied by the per pupil amount of 46694
poverty-based assistance the school district receives that year 46695
pursuant to division (C) of section 3317.029 of the Revised Code, 46696
as adjusted by any poverty-based assistance reduction factor of 46697
that community school. The per pupil amount of that aid for the 46698
district shall be calculated by the department.46699

       (5) An amount equal to the sum of the amounts obtained when, 46700
for each community school where the district's students are 46701
enrolled, the district's per pupil amount of aid received under 46702
division (E) of section 3317.029 of the Revised Code, as adjusted 46703
by any poverty-based assistance reduction factor of the community 46704
school, is multiplied by the sum of the following:46705

       (a) The number of the district's students reported under 46706
division (B)(2)(a) of this section who are enrolled in grades one 46707
to three in that community school and who are not receiving 46708
special education and related services pursuant to an IEP;46709

       (b) One-half of the district's students who are enrolled in 46710
all-day or any other kindergarten class in that community school 46711
and who are not receiving special education and related services 46712
pursuant to an IEP;46713

       (c) One-half of the district's students who are enrolled in 46714
all-day kindergarten in that community school and who are not 46715
receiving special education and related services pursuant to an 46716
IEP.46717

       The district's per pupil amount of aid under division (E) of 46718
section 3317.029 of the Revised Code is the quotient of the amount 46719
the district received under that division divided by the 46720
district's kindergarten through third grade ADM, as defined in 46721
that section.46722

       (6) An amount equal to the sum of the amounts obtained when, 46723
for each community school where the district's students are 46724
enrolled, the district's per pupil amount received under division 46725
(F) of section 3317.029 of the Revised Code, as adjusted by any 46726
poverty-based assistance reduction factor of that community 46727
school, is multiplied by the number of the district's students 46728
enrolled in the community school who are identified as 46729
limited-English proficient.46730

       (7) An amount equal to the sum of the amounts obtained when, 46731
for each community school where the district's students are 46732
enrolled, the district's per pupil amount received under division 46733
(G) of section 3317.029 of the Revised Code, as adjusted by any 46734
poverty-based assistance reduction factor of that community 46735
school, is multiplied by the sum of the following:46736

       (a) The number of the district's students enrolled in grades 46737
one through twelve in that community school;46738

       (b) One-half of the number of the district's students 46739
enrolled in kindergarten in that community school.46740

       The district's per pupil amount under division (G) of section 46741
3317.029 of the Revised Code is the district's amount per teacher 46742
calculated under division (G)(1) or (2) of that section divided by 46743
17.46744

       (8) An amount equal to the sum of the amounts obtained when, 46745
for each community school where the district's students are 46746
enrolled, the district's per pupil amount received under divisions 46747
(H) and (I) of section 3317.029 of the Revised Code, as adjusted 46748
by any poverty-based assistance reduction factor of that community 46749
school, is multiplied by the sum of the following:46750

       (a) The number of the district's students enrolled in grades 46751
one through twelve in that community school;46752

       (b) One-half of the number of the district's students 46753
enrolled in kindergarten in that community school.46754

       The district's per pupil amount under divisions (H) and (I) 46755
of section 3317.029 of the Revised Code is the amount calculated 46756
under each division divided by the district's formula ADM, as 46757
defined in section 3317.02 of the Revised Code.46758

       (9) An amount equal to the per pupil state parity aid funding 46759
calculated for the school district under either division (C) or 46760
(D) of section 3317.0217 of the Revised Code multiplied by the sum 46761
of the number of students in grades one through twelve, and 46762
one-half of the number of students in kindergarten, who are 46763
entitled to attend school in the district and are enrolled in a 46764
community school as reported under division (B)(1) of this 46765
section.46766

       (D) The department shall annually pay to a community school 46767
established under this chapter the sum of the amounts described in 46768
divisions (D)(1) to (10) of this section. However, the department 46769
shall calculate and pay to each internet- or computer-based 46770
community school only the amounts described in divisions (D)(1) to 46771
(3) of this section. Furthermore, the sum of the payments to all 46772
community schools under divisions (D)(1), (2), and (4) to (10) of 46773
this section for the students entitled to attend school in any 46774
particular school district shall not exceed the sum of that 46775
district's state education aid and its payment under sections 46776
321.24 and 323.156 of the Revised Code. If the sum of the payments 46777
calculated under those divisions for the students entitled to 46778
attend school in a particular school district exceeds the sum of 46779
that district's state education aid and its payment under sections 46780
321.24 and 323.156 of the Revised Code, the department shall 46781
calculate and apply a proration factor to the payments to all 46782
community schools under those divisions for the students entitled 46783
to attend school in that district.46784

       (1) An amount equal to the sum of the amounts obtained when 46785
the number of students enrolled in grades one through twelve, plus 46786
one-half of the kindergarten students in the school, reported 46787
under divisions (B)(2)(a), (b), and (e) of this section who are 46788
not receiving special education and related services pursuant to 46789
an IEP for a disability described in section 3317.013 of the 46790
Revised Code is multiplied by the sum of the community school's 46791
base formula amount plus the per pupil amount of the base funding 46792
supplements specified in divisions (C)(1) to (4) of section 46793
3317.012 of the Revised Code.46794

       (2) The sum of the following amounts:46795

       (a) For each student reported under division (B)(2)(c) of 46796
this section as enrolled in the school in grades one through 46797
twelve and receiving special education and related services 46798
pursuant to an IEP for a disability described in section 3317.013 46799
of the Revised Code, the following amount:46800

(the school's base formula amount plus
46801

the per pupil amount of the base funding supplements specified in
46802

divisions (C)(1) to (4) of section 3317.012 of the Revised Code)
46803

+ (the applicable special education weight X the
46804

community school's base formula amount);
46805

       (b) For each student reported under division (B)(2)(c) of 46806
this section as enrolled in kindergarten and receiving special 46807
education and related services pursuant to an IEP for a disability 46808
described in section 3317.013 of the Revised Code, one-half of the 46809
amount calculated under the formula prescribed in division 46810
(D)(2)(a) of this section.46811

       (3) An amount received from federal funds to provide special 46812
education and related services to students in the community 46813
school, as determined by the superintendent of public instruction.46814

       (4) For each student reported under division (B)(2)(d) of 46815
this section as enrolled in vocational education programs or 46816
classes that are described in section 3317.014 of the Revised 46817
Code, are provided by the community school, and are comparable as 46818
determined by the superintendent of public instruction to school 46819
district vocational education programs and classes eligible for 46820
state weighted funding under section 3317.014 of the Revised Code, 46821
an amount equal to the applicable vocational education weight 46822
times the community school's base formula amount times the 46823
percentage of time the student spends in the vocational education 46824
programs or classes.46825

       (5) An amount equal to the sum of the amounts obtained when, 46826
for each school district where the community school's students are 46827
entitled to attend school, the number of that district's students 46828
enrolled in the community school who are included in the 46829
district's poverty student count is multiplied by the per pupil 46830
amount of poverty-based assistance that school district receives 46831
that year pursuant to division (C) of section 3317.029 of the 46832
Revised Code, as adjusted by any poverty-based assistance 46833
reduction factor of the community school. The per pupil amount of 46834
aid shall be determined as described in division (C)(4) of this 46835
section.46836

       (6) An amount equal to the sum of the amounts obtained when, 46837
for each school district where the community school's students are 46838
entitled to attend school, the district's per pupil amount of aid 46839
received under division (E) of section 3317.029 of the Revised 46840
Code, as adjusted by any poverty-based assistance reduction factor 46841
of the community school, is multiplied by the sum of the 46842
following:46843

       (a) The number of the district's students reported under 46844
division (B)(2)(a) of this section who are enrolled in grades one 46845
to three in that community school and who are not receiving 46846
special education and related services pursuant to an IEP;46847

       (b) One-half of the district's students who are enrolled in 46848
all-day or any other kindergarten class in that community school 46849
and who are not receiving special education and related services 46850
pursuant to an IEP;46851

       (c) One-half of the district's students who are enrolled in 46852
all-day kindergarten in that community school and who are not 46853
receiving special education and related services pursuant to an 46854
IEP.46855

       The district's per pupil amount of aid under division (E) of 46856
section 3317.029 of the Revised Code shall be determined as 46857
described in division (C)(5) of this section.46858

       (7) An amount equal to the sum of the amounts obtained when, 46859
for each school district where the community school's students are 46860
entitled to attend school, the number of that district's students 46861
enrolled in the community school who are identified as 46862
limited-English proficient is multiplied by the district's per 46863
pupil amount received under division (F) of section 3317.029 of 46864
the Revised Code, as adjusted by any poverty-based assistance 46865
reduction factor of the community school.46866

       (8) An amount equal to the sum of the amounts obtained when, 46867
for each school district where the community school's students are 46868
entitled to attend school, the district's per pupil amount 46869
received under division (G) of section 3317.029 of the Revised 46870
Code, as adjusted by any poverty-based assistance reduction factor 46871
of the community school, is multiplied by the sum of the 46872
following:46873

       (a) The number of the district's students enrolled in grades 46874
one through twelve in that community school;46875

       (b) One-half of the number of the district's students 46876
enrolled in kindergarten in that community school.46877

       The district's per pupil amount under division (G) of section 46878
3317.029 of the Revised Code shall be determined as described in 46879
division (C)(7) of this section.46880

       (9) An amount equal to the sum of the amounts obtained when, 46881
for each school district where the community school's students are 46882
entitled to attend school, the district's per pupil amount 46883
received under divisions (H) and (I) of section 3317.029 of the 46884
Revised Code, as adjusted by any poverty-based assistance 46885
reduction factor of the community school, is multiplied by the sum 46886
of the following:46887

       (a) The number of the district's students enrolled in grades 46888
one through twelve in that community school;46889

       (b) One-half of the number of the district's students 46890
enrolled in kindergarten in that community school.46891

       The district's per pupil amount under divisions (H) and (I) 46892
of section 3317.029 of the Revised Code shall be determined as 46893
described in division (C)(8) of this section.46894

       (10) An amount equal to the sum of the amounts obtained when, 46895
for each school district where the community school's students are 46896
entitled to attend school, the district's per pupil amount of 46897
state parity aid funding calculated under either division (C) or 46898
(D) of section 3317.0217 of the Revised Code is multiplied by the 46899
sum of the number of that district's students enrolled in grades 46900
one through twelve, and one-half of the number of that district's 46901
students enrolled in kindergarten, in the community school as 46902
reported under divisions (B)(2)(a) and (b) of this section.46903

       (E)(1) If a community school's costs for a fiscal year for a 46904
student receiving special education and related services pursuant 46905
to an IEP for a disability described in divisions (B) to (F) of 46906
section 3317.013 of the Revised Code exceed the threshold 46907
catastrophic cost for serving the student as specified in division 46908
(C)(3)(b) of section 3317.022 of the Revised Code, the school may 46909
submit to the superintendent of public instruction documentation, 46910
as prescribed by the superintendent, of all its costs for that 46911
student. Upon submission of documentation for a student of the 46912
type and in the manner prescribed, the department shall pay to the 46913
community school an amount equal to the school's costs for the 46914
student in excess of the threshold catastrophic costs.46915

       (2) The community school shall only report under division 46916
(E)(1) of this section, and the department shall only pay for, the 46917
costs of educational expenses and the related services provided to 46918
the student in accordance with the student's individualized 46919
education program. Any legal fees, court costs, or other costs 46920
associated with any cause of action relating to the student may 46921
not be included in the amount.46922

       (F) A community school may apply to the department of 46923
education for preschool children with disabilities unit funding 46924
the school would receive if it were a school district. Upon 46925
request of its governing authority, a community school that 46926
received such unit funding as a school district-operated school 46927
before it became a community school shall retain any units awarded 46928
to it as a school district-operated school provided the school 46929
continues to meet eligibility standards for the unit.46930

       A community school shall be considered a school district and 46931
its governing authority shall be considered a board of education 46932
for the purpose of applying to any state or federal agency for 46933
grants that a school district may receive under federal or state 46934
law or any appropriations act of the general assembly. The 46935
governing authority of a community school may apply to any private 46936
entity for additional funds.46937

       (G)(1) Except as provided in division (C)(2) of this section, 46938
and subject to divisions (C)(3) and (4) of this section, on a 46939
full-time equivalency basis, for each student enrolled in a 46940
community school established under this chapter, the department of 46941
education annually shall deduct from the state education aid of a 46942
student's resident district and, if necessary, from the payment 46943
made to the district under sections 321.24 and 323.156 of the 46944
Revised Code and pay to the community school the sum of the 46945
following:46946

       (a) An opportunity grant in an amount equal to the formula 46947
amount;46948

       (b) The per pupil amount of targeted assistance funds 46949
calculated under division (A) of section 3317.0217 of the Revised 46950
Code for the student's resident district, as determined by the 46951
department, X 0.25;46952

       (c) Additional state aid for special education and related 46953
services provided under Chapter 3323. of the Revised Code as 46954
follows:46955

       (i) If the student is a category one special education 46956
student, the formula amount X the multiple specified in division 46957
(A) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;46958

       (ii) If the student is a category two special education 46959
student, the formula amount X the multiple specified in division 46960
(B) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;46961

       (iii) If the student is a category three special education 46962
student, the formula amount X the multiple specified in division 46963
(C) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;46964

       (iv) If the student is a category four special education 46965
student, the formula amount X the multiple specified in division 46966
(D) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;46967

       (v) If the student is a category five special education 46968
student, the formula amount X the multiple specified in division 46969
(E) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;46970

       (vi) If the student is a category six special education 46971
student, the formula amount X the multiple specified in division 46972
(F) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code.46973

       (d) If the student is in kindergarten through third grade, an 46974
additional amount of $300, in fiscal year 2014, and $303, in 46975
fiscal year 2015;46976

       (e) If the student is economically disadvantaged, an 46977
additional amount equal to the following:46978

       ($340, in fiscal year 2014, or $343, in fiscal year 2015) X 46979
(the resident district's economically disadvantaged index)46980

       (f) Limited English proficiency funds as follows:46981

       (i) If the student is a category one limited English 46982
proficient student, the amount specified in division (A) of 46983
section 3317.016 of the Revised Code;46984

       (ii) If the student is a category two limited English 46985
proficient student, the amount specified in division (B) of 46986
section 3317.016 of the Revised Code;46987

       (iii) If the student is a category three limited English 46988
proficient student, the amount specified in division (C) of 46989
section 3317.016 of the Revised Code.46990

       (g) Career-technical education funds as follows:46991

       (i) If the student is a category one career-technical 46992
education student, the formula amount X the multiple specified in 46993
division (A) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code;46994

       (ii) If the student is a category two career-technical 46995
education student, the formula amount X the multiple specified in 46996
division (B) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code;46997

       (iii) If the student is a category three career-technical 46998
education student, the formula amount X the multiple specified in 46999
division (C) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code;47000

       (iv) If the student is a category four career-technical 47001
education student, the formula amount X the multiple specified in 47002
division (D) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code;47003

       (v) If the student is a category five career-technical 47004
education student, the formula amount X the multiple specified in 47005
division (E) of section 3317.014.47006

       Deduction and payment of funds under division (C)(1)(g) of 47007
this section is subject to approval under section 3317.161 of the 47008
Revised Code.47009

       (2) When deducting from the state education aid of a 47010
student's resident district for students enrolled in an internet- 47011
or computer-based community school and making payments to such 47012
school under this section, the department shall make the 47013
deductions and payments described in only divisions (C)(1)(a), 47014
(c), and (g) of this section.47015

       No deductions or payments shall be made for a student 47016
enrolled in such school under division (C)(1)(b), (d), (e), or (f) 47017
of this section.47018

       (3)(a) If a community school's costs for a fiscal year for a 47019
student receiving special education and related services pursuant 47020
to an IEP for a disability described in divisions (B) to (F) of 47021
section 3317.013 of the Revised Code exceed the threshold 47022
catastrophic cost for serving the student as specified in division 47023
(B) of section 3317.0214 of the Revised Code, the school may 47024
submit to the superintendent of public instruction documentation, 47025
as prescribed by the superintendent, of all its costs for that 47026
student. Upon submission of documentation for a student of the 47027
type and in the manner prescribed, the department shall pay to the 47028
community school an amount equal to the school's costs for the 47029
student in excess of the threshold catastrophic costs.47030

       (b) The community school shall report under division 47031
(C)(3)(a) of this section, and the department shall pay for, only 47032
the costs of educational expenses and the related services 47033
provided to the student in accordance with the student's 47034
individualized education program. Any legal fees, court costs, or 47035
other costs associated with any cause of action relating to the 47036
student may not be included in the amount.47037

       (4) If the sum of the payments computed under division (C)(1) 47038
of this section for the students entitled to attend school in a 47039
particular school district under sections 3313.64 and 3313.65 of 47040
the Revised Code exceeds the sum of that district's state 47041
education aid and its payment under sections 321.24 and 323.156 of 47042
the Revised Code, the department shall calculate and apply a 47043
proration factor to the payments to all community schools under 47044
that division for the students entitled to attend school in that 47045
district. 47046

       (D) A board of education sponsoring a community school may 47047
utilize local funds to make enhancement grants to the school or 47048
may agree, either as part of the contract or separately, to 47049
provide any specific services to the community school at no cost 47050
to the school.47051

       (H)(E) A community school may not levy taxes or issue bonds 47052
secured by tax revenues.47053

       (I)(F) No community school shall charge tuition for the 47054
enrollment of any student who is a resident of this state. A 47055
community school may charge tuition for the enrollment of any 47056
student who is not a resident of this state.47057

       (J)(G)(1)(a) A community school may borrow money to pay any 47058
necessary and actual expenses of the school in anticipation of the 47059
receipt of any portion of the payments to be received by the 47060
school pursuant to division (D)(C) of this section. The school may 47061
issue notes to evidence such borrowing. The proceeds of the notes 47062
shall be used only for the purposes for which the anticipated 47063
receipts may be lawfully expended by the school.47064

       (b) A school may also borrow money for a term not to exceed 47065
fifteen years for the purpose of acquiring facilities.47066

       (2) Except for any amount guaranteed under section 3318.50 of 47067
the Revised Code, the state is not liable for debt incurred by the 47068
governing authority of a community school.47069

       (K) For purposes of determining the number of students for 47070
which divisions (D)(5) and (6) of this section applies in any 47071
school year, a community school may submit to the department of 47072
job and family services, no later than the first day of March, a 47073
list of the students enrolled in the school. For each student on 47074
the list, the community school shall indicate the student's name, 47075
address, and date of birth and the school district where the 47076
student is entitled to attend school. Upon receipt of a list under 47077
this division, the department of job and family services shall 47078
determine, for each school district where one or more students on 47079
the list is entitled to attend school, the number of students 47080
residing in that school district who were included in the 47081
department's report under section 3317.10 of the Revised Code. The 47082
department shall make this determination on the basis of 47083
information readily available to it. Upon making this 47084
determination and no later than ninety days after submission of 47085
the list by the community school, the department shall report to 47086
the state department of education the number of students on the 47087
list who reside in each school district who were included in the 47088
department's report under section 3317.10 of the Revised Code. In 47089
complying with this division, the department of job and family 47090
services shall not report to the state department of education any 47091
personally identifiable information on any student.47092

       (L)(H) The department of education shall adjust the amounts 47093
subtracted and paid under divisionsdivision (C) and (D) of this 47094
section to reflect any enrollment of students in community schools 47095
for less than the equivalent of a full school year. The state 47096
board of education within ninety days after April 8, 2003, shall 47097
adopt in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code rules 47098
governing the payments to community schools under this section and 47099
section 3314.13 of the Revised Code including initial payments in 47100
a school year and adjustments and reductions made in subsequent 47101
periodic payments to community schools and corresponding 47102
deductions from school district accounts as provided under 47103
divisionsdivision (C) and (D) of this section and section 3314.13 47104
of the Revised Code. For purposes of this section and section 47105
3314.13 of the Revised Code:47106

       (1) A student shall be considered enrolled in the community 47107
school for any portion of the school year the student is 47108
participating at a college under Chapter 3365. of the Revised 47109
Code.47110

       (2) A student shall be considered to be enrolled in a 47111
community school for the period of time beginning on the later of 47112
the date on which the school both has received documentation of 47113
the student's enrollment from a parent and the student has 47114
commenced participation in learning opportunities as defined in 47115
the contract with the sponsor, or thirty days prior to the date on 47116
which the student is entered into the education management 47117
information system established under section 3301.0714 of the 47118
Revised Code. For purposes of applying this division and divisions 47119
(L)(H)(3) and (4) of this section to a community school student, 47120
"learning opportunities" shall be defined in the contract, which 47121
shall describe both classroom-based and non-classroom-based 47122
learning opportunities and shall be in compliance with criteria 47123
and documentation requirements for student participation which 47124
shall be established by the department. Any student's instruction 47125
time in non-classroom-based learning opportunities shall be 47126
certified by an employee of the community school. A student's 47127
enrollment shall be considered to cease on the date on which any 47128
of the following occur:47129

        (a) The community school receives documentation from a parent 47130
terminating enrollment of the student.47131

        (b) The community school is provided documentation of a 47132
student's enrollment in another public or private school.47133

        (c) The community school ceases to offer learning 47134
opportunities to the student pursuant to the terms of the contract 47135
with the sponsor or the operation of any provision of this 47136
chapter.47137

       Except as otherwise specified in this paragraph, beginning in 47138
the 2011-2012 school year, any student who completed the prior 47139
school year in an internet- or computer-based community school 47140
shall be considered to be enrolled in the same school in the 47141
subsequent school year until the student's enrollment has ceased 47142
as specified in division (L)(H)(2) of this section. The department 47143
shall continue subtracting and paying amounts for the student 47144
under divisionsdivision (C) and (D) of this section without 47145
interruption at the start of the subsequent school year. However, 47146
if the student without a legitimate excuse fails to participate in 47147
the first one hundred five consecutive hours of learning 47148
opportunities offered to the student in that subsequent school 47149
year, the student shall be considered not to have re-enrolled in 47150
the school for that school year and the department shall 47151
recalculate the payments to the school for that school year to 47152
account for the fact that the student is not enrolled.47153

        (3) The department shall determine each community school 47154
student's percentage of full-time equivalency based on the 47155
percentage of learning opportunities offered by the community 47156
school to that student, reported either as number of hours or 47157
number of days, is of the total learning opportunities offered by 47158
the community school to a student who attends for the school's 47159
entire school year. However, no internet- or computer-based 47160
community school shall be credited for any time a student spends 47161
participating in learning opportunities beyond ten hours within 47162
any period of twenty-four consecutive hours. Whether it reports 47163
hours or days of learning opportunities, each community school 47164
shall offer not less than nine hundred twenty hours of learning 47165
opportunities during the school year.47166

       (4) With respect to the calculation of full-time equivalency 47167
under division (L)(H)(3) of this section, the department shall 47168
waive the number of hours or days of learning opportunities not 47169
offered to a student because the community school was closed 47170
during the school year due to disease epidemic, hazardous weather 47171
conditions, law enforcement emergencies, inoperability of school 47172
buses or other equipment necessary to the school's operation, 47173
damage to a school building, or other temporary circumstances due 47174
to utility failure rendering the school building unfit for school 47175
use, so long as the school was actually open for instruction with 47176
students in attendance during that school year for not less than 47177
the minimum number of hours required by this chapter. The 47178
department shall treat the school as if it were open for 47179
instruction with students in attendance during the hours or days 47180
waived under this division.47181

       (M)(I) The department of education shall reduce the amounts 47182
paid under division (D) of this section to reflect payments made 47183
to colleges under division (B) of section 3365.07 of the Revised 47184
Code or through alternative funding agreements entered into under 47185
rules adopted under section 3365.12 of the Revised Code.47186

       (N)(J)(1) No student shall be considered enrolled in any 47187
internet- or computer-based community school or, if applicable to 47188
the student, in any community school that is required to provide 47189
the student with a computer pursuant to division (C) of section 47190
3314.22 of the Revised Code, unless both of the following 47191
conditions are satisfied:47192

       (a) The student possesses or has been provided with all 47193
required hardware and software materials and all such materials 47194
are operational so that the student is capable of fully 47195
participating in the learning opportunities specified in the 47196
contract between the school and the school's sponsor as required 47197
by division (A)(23) of section 3314.03 of the Revised Code;47198

       (b) The school is in compliance with division (A) of section 47199
3314.22 of the Revised Code, relative to such student.47200

       (2) In accordance with policies adopted jointly by the 47201
superintendent of public instruction and the auditor of state, the 47202
department shall reduce the amounts otherwise payable under 47203
division (D)(C) of this section to any community school that 47204
includes in its program the provision of computer hardware and 47205
software materials to any student, if such hardware and software 47206
materials have not been delivered, installed, and activated for 47207
each such student in a timely manner or other educational 47208
materials or services have not been provided according to the 47209
contract between the individual community school and its sponsor.47210

       The superintendent of public instruction and the auditor of 47211
state shall jointly establish a method for auditing any community 47212
school to which this division pertains to ensure compliance with 47213
this section.47214

       The superintendent, auditor of state, and the governor shall 47215
jointly make recommendations to the general assembly for 47216
legislative changes that may be required to assure fiscal and 47217
academic accountability for such schools.47218

       (O)(K)(1) If the department determines that a review of a 47219
community school's enrollment is necessary, such review shall be 47220
completed and written notice of the findings shall be provided to 47221
the governing authority of the community school and its sponsor 47222
within ninety days of the end of the community school's fiscal 47223
year, unless extended for a period not to exceed thirty additional 47224
days for one of the following reasons:47225

        (a) The department and the community school mutually agree to 47226
the extension.47227

        (b) Delays in data submission caused by either a community 47228
school or its sponsor.47229

       (2) If the review results in a finding that additional 47230
funding is owed to the school, such payment shall be made within 47231
thirty days of the written notice. If the review results in a 47232
finding that the community school owes moneys to the state, the 47233
following procedure shall apply:47234

       (a) Within ten business days of the receipt of the notice of 47235
findings, the community school may appeal the department's 47236
determination to the state board of education or its designee.47237

        (b) The board or its designee shall conduct an informal 47238
hearing on the matter within thirty days of receipt of such an 47239
appeal and shall issue a decision within fifteen days of the 47240
conclusion of the hearing.47241

        (c) If the board has enlisted a designee to conduct the 47242
hearing, the designee shall certify its decision to the board. The 47243
board may accept the decision of the designee or may reject the 47244
decision of the designee and issue its own decision on the matter.47245

        (d) Any decision made by the board under this division is 47246
final.47247

        (3) If it is decided that the community school owes moneys to 47248
the state, the department shall deduct such amount from the 47249
school's future payments in accordance with guidelines issued by 47250
the superintendent of public instruction.47251

       (P)(L) The department shall not subtract from a school 47252
district's state aid account under division (C) of this section47253
and shall not pay to a community school under division (D)(C) of 47254
this section any amount for any of the following:47255

        (1) Any student who has graduated from the twelfth grade of a 47256
public or nonpublic high school;47257

        (2) Any student who is not a resident of the state;47258

        (3) Any student who was enrolled in the community school 47259
during the previous school year when assessments were administered 47260
under section 3301.0711 of the Revised Code but did not take one 47261
or more of the assessments required by that section and was not 47262
excused pursuant to division (C)(1) or (3) of that section, unless 47263
the superintendent of public instruction grants the student a 47264
waiver from the requirement to take the assessment and a parent is 47265
not paying tuition for the student pursuant to section 3314.26 of 47266
the Revised Code. The superintendent may grant a waiver only for 47267
good cause in accordance with rules adopted by the state board of 47268
education.47269

       (4) Any student who has attained the age of twenty-two years, 47270
except for veterans of the armed services whose attendance was 47271
interrupted before completing the recognized twelve-year course of 47272
the public schools by reason of induction or enlistment in the 47273
armed forces and who apply for enrollment in a community school 47274
not later than four years after termination of war or their 47275
honorable discharge. If, however, any such veteran elects to 47276
enroll in special courses organized for veterans for whom tuition 47277
is paid under federal law, or otherwise, the department shall not 47278
subtract from a school district's state aid account under division 47279
(C) of this section and shall not pay to a community school under 47280
division (D)(C) of this section any amount for that veteran.47281

       Sec. 3314.082.  A community school shall be considered a 47282
school district and its governing authority shall be considered a 47283
board of education for the purpose of applying to any state or 47284
federal agency for grants that a school district may receive under 47285
federal or state law or any appropriations act of the general 47286
assembly. The governing authority of a community school may apply 47287
to any private entity for additional funds.47288

       Sec. 3314.083. If the department of education pays a joint 47289
vocational school district under division (G)(4)(C)(3) of section 47290
3317.16 of the Revised Code for excess costs of providing special 47291
education and related services to a student with a disability who 47292
is enrolled in a community school, as calculated under division 47293
(G)(2)(C)(1) of that section, the department shall deduct the 47294
amount of that payment from the amount calculated for payment to 47295
the community school under section 3314.08 of the Revised Code.47296

       Sec. 3314.084.  (A) As used in this section:47297

       (1) "Formula ADM" has the same meaning as in section 3317.03 47298
of the Revised Code.47299

       (2) "Home" has the same meaning as in section 3313.64 of the 47300
Revised Code.47301

       (3) "School district of residence" has the same meaning as in 47302
section 3323.01 of the Revised Code; however, a community school 47303
established under this chapter is not a "school district of 47304
residence" for purposes of this section.47305

       (B) Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in section 47306
3314.08 or 3317.03 of the Revised Code, all of the following apply 47307
in the case of a child who is enrolled in a community school and 47308
is also living in a home:47309

       (1) For purposes of the report required under division (B)(1) 47310
of section 3314.08 of the Revised Code, the child's school 47311
district of residence, and not the school district in which the 47312
home that the child is living in is located, shall be considered 47313
to be the school district in which the child is entitled to attend 47314
school. That school district of residence, therefore, shall make 47315
the report required under division (B)(1) of section 3314.08 of 47316
the Revised Code with respect to the child.47317

       (2) For purposes of the report required under division (B)(2) 47318
of section 3314.08 of the Revised Code, the community school shall 47319
report the name of the child's school district of residence.47320

       (3) The child's school district of residence shall count the 47321
child in that district's formula ADM.47322

       (4) The school district in which the home that the child is 47323
living in is located shall not count the child in that district's 47324
formula ADM.47325

       (5) The Departmentdepartment of Educationeducation shall 47326
deduct the applicable amounts prescribed under division (C) of 47327
section 3314.08 and division (D) of section 3314.13 of the Revised 47328
Code from the child's school district of residence and shall not 47329
deduct those amounts from the school district in which the home 47330
that the child is living in is located.47331

       (6) The Departmentdepartment shall make the payments 47332
prescribed in divisions (D) and (E)division (C) of section 47333
3314.08 and section 3314.13 of the Revised Code, as applicable, to 47334
the community school.47335

       Sec. 3314.086. A community school established under this 47336
chapter, including an internet- or computer-based community 47337
school, may provide career-technical education in the manner 47338
prescribed by section 3313.90 of the Revised Code. The community 47339
school may contract with any public agency, board, or bureau or 47340
with any private individual or firm for the purchase of any 47341
career-technical education or vocational rehabilitation service 47342
for any student enrolled in the community school and may pay for 47343
such services with funds received under section 3314.08 of the 47344
Revised Code.47345

       Sec. 3314.087.  (A) As used in this section:47346

        (1) "Career-technical program" means vocational47347
career-technical programs or classes described in division (A) or,47348
(B), (C), (D), or (E) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code in 47349
which a student is enrolled.47350

        (2) "Formula ADM," "category one or two vocationalthrough 47351
five career-technical education ADM," and "FTE basis" have the 47352
same meanings as in section 3317.02 of the Revised Code.47353

        (3) "Resident school district" means the city, exempted 47354
village, or local school district in which a student is entitled 47355
to attend school under section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised 47356
Code.47357

        (B) Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in this chapter 47358
or Chapter 3317. of the Revised Code, a student enrolled in a 47359
community school may simultaneously enroll in the career-technical 47360
program operated by the student's resident school district. On an 47361
FTE basis, the student's resident school district shall count the 47362
student in the category one or two vocationalthrough five 47363
career-technical education ADM for the proportion of the time the 47364
student is enrolled in the district's career-technical program 47365
and, accordingly, the department of education shall calculate 47366
funds under Chapter 3317. for the district attributable to the 47367
student for the proportion of time the student attends the 47368
career-technical program. The community school shall count the 47369
student in its enrollment report under section 3314.08 of the 47370
Revised Code and shall report to the department the proportion of 47371
time that the student attends classes at the community school. The 47372
department shall pay the community school and deduct from the 47373
student's resident school district the amount computed for the 47374
student under section 3314.08 of the Revised Code in proportion to 47375
the fraction of the time on an FTE basis that the student attends 47376
classes at the community school. "Full-time equivalency" for a 47377
community school student, as defined in division (L)(H) of section 47378
3314.08 of the Revised Code, does not apply to the student.47379

       Sec. 3314.09.  (A) As used in this section and section 47380
3314.091 of the Revised Code, "native student" means a student 47381
entitled to attend school in the school district under section 47382
3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised Code.47383

       (B) Except as provided in section 3314.091 or 3327.02 of the 47384
Revised Code, the board of education of each city, local, and 47385
exempted village school district shall provide transportation to 47386
and from school for its district's native students in accordance 47387
with section 3327.01 of the Revised Code.47388

       Sec. 3314.091. (A)A student who attends a community school 47389
that provides or arranges for transporting students pursuant to 47390
this section, or the student's parent or guardian, is not eligible 47391
for the subsidy prescribed by section 3327.02 of the Revised Code.47392

       (A) A school district is not required to provide 47393
transportation for any native student enrolled in a community 47394
school if the district board of education has entered into an 47395
agreement with the community school's governing authority that 47396
designates the community school as responsible for providing or 47397
arranging for the transportation of the district's native students 47398
to and from the community school. For any such agreement to be 47399
effective, it must be certified by the superintendent of public 47400
instruction as having met all of the following requirements:47401

       (1) It is submitted to the department of education by a 47402
deadline which shall be established by the department.47403

       (2) In accordance with divisions (C)(1) and (2) of this 47404
section, it specifies qualifications, such as residing a minimum 47405
distance from the school, for students to have their 47406
transportation provided or arranged.47407

       (3) The transportation provided by the community school is 47408
subject to all provisions of the Revised Code and all rules 47409
adopted under the Revised Code pertaining to pupil transportation.47410

        (4) The sponsor of the community school also has signed the 47411
agreement.47412

       (B)(1) For the school year that begins on July 1, 2007, a 47413
school district is not required to provide transportation for any 47414
native student enrolled in a community school, if the community 47415
school during the previous school year transported the students 47416
enrolled in the school or arranged for the students' 47417
transportation, even if that arrangement consisted of having 47418
parents transport their children to and from the school, but did 47419
not enter into an agreement to transport or arrange for 47420
transportation for those students under division (A) of this 47421
section, and if the governing authority of the community school by 47422
July 15, 2007, submits written notification to the district board 47423
of education stating that the governing authority is accepting 47424
responsibility for providing or arranging for the transportation 47425
of the district's native students to and from the community 47426
school. 47427

       (2) ForExcept as provided in division (B)(4) of this 47428
section, for any school year subsequent to the school year that 47429
begins on July 1, 2007, a school district is not required to 47430
provide transportation for any native student enrolled in a 47431
community school if the governing authority of the community 47432
school, by the thirty-first day of January of the previous school 47433
year, submits written notification to the district board of 47434
education stating that the governing authority is accepting 47435
responsibility for providing or arranging for the transportation 47436
of the district's native students to and from the community 47437
school. If the governing authority of the community school has 47438
previously accepted responsibility for providing or arranging for 47439
the transportation of a district's native students to and from the 47440
community school, under division (B)(1) or (2) of this section, 47441
and has since relinquished that responsibility under division 47442
(B)(3) of this section, the governing authority shall not accept 47443
that responsibility again unless the district board consents to 47444
the governing authority's acceptance of that responsibility.47445

       (3) A governing authority's acceptance of responsibility 47446
under division (B)(1) or (2) of this section shall cover an entire 47447
school year, and shall remain in effect for subsequent school 47448
years unless the governing authority submits written notification 47449
to the district board that the governing authority is 47450
relinquishing the responsibility. However, a governing authority 47451
shall not relinquish responsibility for transportation before the 47452
end of a school year, and shall submit the notice relinquishing 47453
responsibility by the thirty-first day of January, in order to 47454
allow the school district reasonable time to prepare 47455
transportation for its native students enrolled in the school. 47456

       (4)(a) For any school year that begins on or after July 1, 47457
2014, a school district is not required to provide transportation 47458
for any native student enrolled in a community school scheduled to 47459
open for operation in the current school year, if the governing 47460
authority of the community school, by the fifteenth day of April 47461
of the previous school year, submits written notification to the 47462
district board of education stating that the governing authority 47463
is accepting responsibility for providing or arranging for the 47464
transportation of the district's native students to and from the 47465
community school.47466

        (b) The governing authority of a community school that 47467
accepts responsibility for transporting its students under 47468
division (4)(a) of this section shall comply with divisions (B)(2) 47469
and (3) of this section to renew or relinquish that authority for 47470
subsequent school years. 47471

        (C)(1) A community school governing authority that enters 47472
into an agreement under division (A) of this section, or that 47473
accepts responsibility under division (B) of this section, shall 47474
provide or arrange transportation free of any charge for each of 47475
its enrolled students who is required to be transported under 47476
section 3327.01 of the Revised Code or who would otherwise be 47477
transported by the school district under the district's 47478
transportation policy. The governing authority shall report to the 47479
department of education the number of students transported or for 47480
whom transportation is arranged under this section in accordance 47481
with rules adopted by the state board of education.47482

       (2) The governing authority may provide or arrange 47483
transportation for any other enrolled student who is not eligible 47484
for transportation in accordance with division (C)(1) of this 47485
section and may charge a fee for such service up to the actual 47486
cost of the service.47487

       (3) Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in division 47488
(C)(1) or (2) of this section, a community school governing 47489
authority shall provide or arrange transportation free of any 47490
charge for any disabled student enrolled in the school for whom 47491
the student's individualized education program developed under 47492
Chapter 3323. of the Revised Code specifies transportation.47493

       (D)(1) If a school district board and a community school 47494
governing authority elect to enter into an agreement under 47495
division (A) of this section, the department of education shall 47496
make payments to the community school according to the terms of 47497
the agreement for each student actually transported under division 47498
(C)(1) of this section.47499

        If a community school governing authority accepts 47500
transportation responsibility under division (B) of this section, 47501
the department shall make payments to the community school for 47502
each student actually transported or for whom transportation is 47503
arranged by the community school under division (C)(1) of this 47504
section, calculated as follows:47505

       (a) For any fiscal year which the general assembly has 47506
specified that transportation payments to school districts be 47507
based on an across-the-board percentage of the district's payment 47508
for the previous school year, the per pupil payment to the 47509
community school shall be the following quotient:47510

       (i) The total amount calculated for the school district in 47511
which the child is entitled to attend school for student 47512
transportation other than transportation of children with 47513
disabilities; divided by47514

       (ii) The number of students included in the district's 47515
transportation ADM for the current fiscal year, as reported under 47516
division (B)(13)(19) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code, plus 47517
the number of students enrolled in the community school not 47518
counted in the district's transportation ADM who are transported 47519
under division (B)(1) or (2) of this section.47520

       (b) For any fiscal year which the general assembly has 47521
specified that the transportation payments to school districts be 47522
calculated in accordance with section 3317.0212 of the Revised 47523
Code and any rules of the state board of education implementing 47524
that section, the payment to the community school shall be the 47525
amount so calculated that otherwise would be paid to the school 47526
district in which the student is entitled to attend school by the 47527
method of transportation the district would have used. The 47528
community school, however, is not required to use the same method 47529
to transport that student.47530

       (c) Divisions (D)(1)(a) and (b) of this section do not apply 47531
to fiscal years 2012 and 2013. Rather, for each of those fiscal 47532
years, the per pupil payment to a community school for 47533
transporting a student shall be the total amount paid under former 47534
section 3306.12 of the Revised Code for fiscal year 2011 to the 47535
school district in which the child is entitled to attend school 47536
divided by that district's "qualifying ridership," as defined in 47537
that section for fiscal year 2011.47538

       As used in this division "entitled to attend school" means 47539
entitled to attend school under section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the 47540
Revised Code. 47541

        (2) The department shall deduct the payment under division 47542
(D)(1) of this section from the state education aid, as defined in 47543
section 3314.08 of the Revised Code, and, if necessary, the 47544
payment under sections 321.14 and 323.156 of the Revised Code, 47545
that is otherwise paid to the school district in which the student 47546
enrolled in the community school is entitled to attend school. The 47547
department shall include the number of the district's native 47548
students for whom payment is made to a community school under 47549
division (D)(1) of this section in the calculation of the 47550
district's transportation payment under section 3317.0212 of the 47551
Revised Code and the operating appropriations act.47552

       (3) A community school shall be paid under division (D)(1) of 47553
this section only for students who are eligible as specified in 47554
section 3327.01 of the Revised Code and division (C)(1) of this 47555
section, and whose transportation to and from school is actually 47556
provided, who actually utilized transportation arranged, or for 47557
whom a payment in lieu of transportation is made by the community 47558
school's governing authority. To qualify for the payments, the 47559
community school shall report to the department, in the form and 47560
manner required by the department, data on the number of students 47561
transported or whose transportation is arranged, the number of 47562
miles traveled, cost to transport, and any other information 47563
requested by the department.47564

       (4) A community school shall use payments received under this 47565
section solely to pay the costs of providing or arranging for the 47566
transportation of students who are eligible as specified in 47567
section 3327.01 of the Revised Code and division (C)(1) of this 47568
section, which may include payments to a parent, guardian, or 47569
other person in charge of a child in lieu of transportation.47570

       (E) Except when arranged through payment to a parent, 47571
guardian, or person in charge of a child, transportation provided 47572
or arranged for by a community school pursuant to an agreement 47573
under this section is subject to all provisions of the Revised 47574
Code, and all rules adopted under the Revised Code, pertaining to 47575
the construction, design, equipment, and operation of school buses 47576
and other vehicles transporting students to and from school. The 47577
drivers and mechanics of the vehicles are subject to all 47578
provisions of the Revised Code, and all rules adopted under the 47579
Revised Code, pertaining to drivers and mechanics of such 47580
vehicles. The community school also shall comply with sections 47581
3313.201, 3327.09, and 3327.10 of the Revised Code, division (B) 47582
of section 3327.16 of the Revised Code and, subject to division 47583
(C)(1) of this section, sectionsand section 3327.01 and 3327.0247584
of the Revised Code, as if it were a school district. 47585

       Sec. 3314.092. The governing authority or operator of a 47586
community school established under this chapter shall consult with 47587
each school district board of education that transports students 47588
to the community school under sections 3314.09 and 3327.01 of the 47589
Revised Code prior to making any change in the hours or days in 47590
which the community school is open for instruction.47591

       Sec. 3314.11.  (A) The board of education of each city, 47592
exempted village, and local school district monthly shall review 47593
enrollment for students enrolled in community schools established 47594
under this chapter and entitled to attend school in the district 47595
under section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised Code. For each 47596
student, the district shall verify to the department of education 47597
both of the following:47598

       (1) The community school in which the student is enrolled;47599

       (2) That the student is entitled to attend school in the 47600
district under section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised Code.47601

       (B) For purposes of its initial reporting of the school 47602
districts its students are entitled to attend, the governing 47603
authority of a community school may adopt a policy that prescribes 47604
the number of documents listed in division (E) of this section 47605
required to verify a student's residency. This policy, if adopted, 47606
shall supersede any policy concerning the number of documents for 47607
initial residency verification adopted by the district the student 47608
is entitled to attend. If a community school does not adopt a 47609
policy under this division, the policy of the school district in 47610
which the student is entitled to attend shall prevail.47611

       (C) In making the determinations under this section, the 47612
school district in which a parent or child resides is the location 47613
the parent or student has established as the primary residence and 47614
where substantial family activity takes place.47615

        (D) If a district's determination under division (A) of this 47616
section of the school district a student is entitled to attend 47617
under section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised Code differs from 47618
a community school's determination under division (B) of this 47619
section, the community school shall provide the school district 47620
that made the determination under division (A) of this section 47621
with documentation of the student's residency and shall make a 47622
good faith effort to accurately identify the correct residence of 47623
the student.47624

        (E) For purposes of this section, the following documents may 47625
serve as evidence of primary residence:47626

       (1) A deed, mortgage, lease, current home owner's or renter's 47627
insurance declaration page, or current real property tax bill;47628

       (2) A utility bill or receipt of utility installation issued 47629
within ninety days of enrollment;47630

       (3) A paycheck or paystub issued to the parent or student 47631
within ninety days of the date of enrollment that includes the 47632
address of the parent's or student's primary residence;47633

       (4) The most current available bank statement issued to the 47634
parent or student that includes the address of the parent's or 47635
student's primary residence;47636

       (5) Any other official document issued to the parent or 47637
student that includes the address of the parent's or student's 47638
primary residence. The superintendent of public instruction shall 47639
develop guidelines for determining what qualifies as an "official 47640
document" under this division.47641

       (F) When a student loses permanent housing and becomes a 47642
homeless child or youth, as defined in 42 U.S.C. 11434a, or when a 47643
child who is such a homeless child or youth changes temporary 47644
living arrangements, the district in which the student is entitled 47645
to attend school shall be determined in accordance with division 47646
(F)(13) of section 3313.64 of the Revised Code and the 47647
"McKinney-Vento Homeless Assistance Act," 42 U.S.C. 11431 et seq.47648

       (G) In the event of a disagreement as to which school 47649
district a student is entitled to attend, the community school, 47650
after complying with division (D) of this section, but not more 47651
than sixty days after the monthly deadline established by the 47652
department of education for reporting of community school 47653
enrollment, may present the matter to the superintendent of public 47654
instruction. Not later than thirty days after the community school 47655
presents the matter, the state superintendent, or the state 47656
superintendent's designee, shall determine which district the 47657
student is entitled to attend and shall direct any necessary 47658
adjustments to payments and deductions under sectionssection47659
3314.08 and 3314.13 of the Revised Code based on that 47660
determination.47661

       Sec. 3314.26. (A) Each internet- or computer-based community 47662
school shall withdraw from the school any student who, for two 47663
consecutive school years, has failed to participate in the spring 47664
administration of any assessment prescribed under section 47665
3301.0710 or 3301.0712 of the Revised Code for the student's grade 47666
level and was not excused from the assessment pursuant to division 47667
(C)(1) or (3) of section 3301.0711 of the Revised Code, regardless 47668
of whether a waiver was granted for the student under division 47669
(P)(L)(3) of section 3314.08 of the Revised Code. The school shall 47670
report any such student's data verification code, as assigned 47671
pursuant to section 3301.0714 of the Revised Code, to the 47672
department of education. The department shall maintain a list of 47673
all data verification codes reported under this division and 47674
section 3313.6410 of the Revised Code and provide that list to 47675
each internet- or computer-based community school and to each 47676
school to which section 3313.6410 of the Revised Code applies.47677

        (B) No internet- or computer-based community school shall 47678
receive any state funds under this chapter for any enrolled 47679
student whose data verification code appears on the list 47680
maintained by the department under division (A) of this section.47681

       Notwithstanding any provision of the Revised Code to the 47682
contrary, the parent of any such student shall pay tuition to the 47683
internet- or computer-based community school in an amount equal to 47684
the state funds the school otherwise would receive for that 47685
student, as determined by the department. An internet- or 47686
computer-based community school may withdraw any student for whom 47687
the parent does not pay tuition as required by this division.47688

       Sec. 3314.29.  (A) Notwithstanding anything in this chapter 47689
to the contrary, an internet- or computer-based community school 47690
may divide into two separate internet- or computer-based community 47691
schools by grade level, if all of the following apply:47692

       (1) The school was in operation on or before the effective 47693
date of this section.47694

       (2) The school offers at least grades one through eight.47695

       (3) The sponsor of the school approves dividing the school 47696
into two separate schools under this section.47697

       (4) The school exercises the option to divide into two 47698
separate schools under this section during either the 2013-2014 or 47699
2014-2015 school year. 47700

       (B) No school may exercise the option under this section 47701
after the 2014-2015 school year. However, the authority of a 47702
school that has exercised the option under this section to operate 47703
separately as two schools continues for all subsequent school 47704
years in which the schools are in operation.47705

       (C) An internet- or computer-based community school created 47706
under this section shall not count toward the annual limit on new 47707
internet- or computer-based community schools prescribed by 47708
division (B) of section 3314.013 of the Revised Code.47709

       Sec. 3315.40.  The board of education of a city, local, 47710
exempted village, or joint vocational school district or the 47711
governing board of any educational service center may establish an 47712
education foundation fund. Moneys in the fund shall consist of 47713
proceeds paid into the fund under division (B) of section 3313.36 47714
of the Revised Code. In addition, by resolution adopted by a 47715
majority of its members, a city, local, exempted village, or joint 47716
vocational board may annually direct the school district treasurer 47717
to pay into the education foundation fund an amount from the 47718
school district general fund not to exceed one-half of one per 47719
cent of the total appropriations of the school district as 47720
estimated by the board at the time the resolution is adopted or as 47721
set forth in the annual appropriation measure as most recently 47722
amended or supplemented; and any governing board, by resolution 47723
adopted by a majority of its members, may annually direct the 47724
service center treasurer to pay into the education foundation fund 47725
an amount not to exceed one-half of one per cent of the funds 47726
received by the governing board pursuant to an agreement entered 47727
into under section 3317.113313.843 or 3313.845 of the Revised 47728
Code.47729

       Income from the investment of moneys in the fund shall be 47730
paid into the fund. A board, by resolution adopted by a majority 47731
of its members, may accept a trust created under section 3315.41 47732
of the Revised Code for the investment of money in the educational 47733
foundation fund and direct the school district or service center 47734
treasurer to pay to the trustee, the initial trust principal 47735
contemplated by the instrument creating the trust. A board that 47736
has accepted a trust created under section 3315.41 of the Revised 47737
Code may do any of the following by resolution adopted by a 47738
majority of its members: direct the school district or service 47739
center treasurer to pay additional amounts to the trust principal, 47740
amend the trust, revoke the trust, or provide for payment of 47741
compensation to the trustee.47742

       Moneys in the fund shall be expended only by resolution 47743
adopted by a majority of the members of the board for operating or 47744
capital costs of any existing or new and innovative program 47745
designed to enhance or promote education within the district or 47746
service center, such as scholarships for students or teachers.47747

       A board of education or governing board may appoint a 47748
committee of administrators to administer the education foundation 47749
fund and to make recommendations for the use of the fund. Members 47750
of the committee shall serve at the discretion of the appointing 47751
board. Members shall receive no compensation, but may be 47752
reimbursed for actual and necessary expenses incurred in the 47753
performance of their official duties.47754

       Sec. 3315.42.  Sections 3315.40 and 3315.41 of the Revised 47755
Code do not apply to either of the following:47756

       (A) A school district that has received funds for a project 47757
under Chapter 3318. of the Revised Code, so long as the purchase 47758
price to be paid by the board for the state's interest in the 47759
project has not been paid;47760

       (B) A school district that has an outstanding loan under 47761
section 3313.483 or sections 3317.62 to 3317.64 of the Revised 47762
Code.47763

       Sec. 3316.041.  (A) Notwithstanding any provision of Chapter 47764
133. or sections 3313.483 to 3313.48113313.4810 of the Revised 47765
Code, and subject to the approval of the superintendent of public 47766
instruction, a school district that is in a state of fiscal watch 47767
declared under section 3316.03 of the Revised Code may restructure 47768
or refinance loans obtained or in the process of being obtained 47769
under section 3313.483 of the Revised Code if all of the following 47770
requirements are met:47771

       (1) The operating deficit certified for the school district 47772
for the current or preceding fiscal year under section 3313.483 of 47773
the Revised Code exceeds fifteen per cent of the district's 47774
general revenue fund for the fiscal year preceding the year for 47775
which the certification of the operating deficit is made.47776

       (2) The school district voters have, during the period of the 47777
fiscal watch, approved the levy of a tax under section 718.09, 47778
718.10, 5705.194, 5705.21, 5748.02, or 5748.09 of the Revised Code 47779
that is not a renewal or replacement levy, or a levy under section 47780
5705.199 of the Revised Code, and that will provide new operating 47781
revenue.47782

       (3) The board of education of the school district has adopted 47783
or amended the financial plan required by section 3316.04 of the 47784
Revised Code to reflect the restructured or refinanced loans, and 47785
sets forth the means by which the district will bring projected 47786
operating revenues and expenditures, and projected debt service 47787
obligations, into balance for the life of any such loan.47788

       (B) Subject to the approval of the superintendent of public 47789
instruction, the school district may issue securities to evidence 47790
the restructuring or refinancing authorized by this section. Such 47791
securities may extend the original period for repayment not to 47792
exceed ten years, and may alter the frequency and amount of 47793
repayments, interest or other financing charges, and other terms 47794
or agreements under which the loans were originally contracted, 47795
provided the loans received under sections 3313.483 of the Revised 47796
Code are repaid from funds the district would otherwise receive 47797
under Chapter 3317. of the Revised Code, as required under 47798
division (E)(3) of section 3313.483 of the Revised Code. 47799
Securities issued for the purpose of restructuring or refinancing 47800
under this section shall be repaid in equal payments and at equal 47801
intervals over the term of the debt and are not eligible to be 47802
included in any subsequent proposal to restructure or refinance.47803

       (C) Unless the district is declared to be in a state of 47804
fiscal emergency under division (D) of section 3316.04 of the 47805
Revised Code, a school district shall remain in a state of fiscal 47806
watch for the duration of the repayment period of any loan 47807
restructured or refinanced under this section.47808

       Sec. 3316.06.  (A) Within one hundred twenty days after the 47809
first meeting of a school district financial planning and 47810
supervision commission, the commission shall adopt a financial 47811
recovery plan regarding the school district for which the 47812
commission was created. During the formulation of the plan, the 47813
commission shall seek appropriate input from the school district 47814
board and from the community. This plan shall contain the 47815
following:47816

       (1) Actions to be taken to:47817

       (a) Eliminate all fiscal emergency conditions declared to 47818
exist pursuant to division (B) of section 3316.03 of the Revised 47819
Code;47820

       (b) Satisfy any judgments, past-due accounts payable, and all 47821
past-due and payable payroll and fringe benefits;47822

       (c) Eliminate the deficits in all deficit funds, except that 47823
any prior year deficits in the capital and maintenance fund 47824
established pursuant to section 3315.18 of the Revised Code shall 47825
be forgiven;47826

       (d) Restore to special funds any moneys from such funds that 47827
were used for purposes not within the purposes of such funds, or 47828
borrowed from such funds by the purchase of debt obligations of 47829
the school district with the moneys of such funds, or missing from 47830
the special funds and not accounted for, if any;47831

       (e) Balance the budget, avoid future deficits in any funds, 47832
and maintain on a current basis payments of payroll, fringe 47833
benefits, and all accounts;47834

       (f) Avoid any fiscal emergency condition in the future;47835

       (g) Restore the ability of the school district to market 47836
long-term general obligation bonds under provisions of law 47837
applicable to school districts generally.47838

       (2) The management structure that will enable the school 47839
district to take the actions enumerated in division (A)(1) of this 47840
section. The plan shall specify the level of fiscal and management 47841
control that the commission will exercise within the school 47842
district during the period of fiscal emergency, and shall 47843
enumerate respectively, the powers and duties of the commission 47844
and the powers and duties of the school board during that period. 47845
The commission may elect to assume any of the powers and duties of 47846
the school board it considers necessary, including all powers 47847
related to personnel, curriculum, and legal issues in order to 47848
successfully implement the actions described in division (A)(1) of 47849
this section.47850

       (3) The target dates for the commencement, progress upon, and 47851
completion of the actions enumerated in division (A)(1) of this 47852
section and a reasonable period of time expected to be required to 47853
implement the plan. The commission shall prepare a reasonable time 47854
schedule for progress toward and achievement of the requirements 47855
for the plan, and the plan shall be consistent with that time 47856
schedule.47857

       (4) The amount and purpose of any issue of debt obligations 47858
that will be issued, together with assurances that any such debt 47859
obligations that will be issued will not exceed debt limits 47860
supported by appropriate certifications by the fiscal officer of 47861
the school district and the county auditor. Debt obligations 47862
issued pursuant to section 133.301 of the Revised Code shall 47863
include assurances that such debt shall be in an amount not to 47864
exceed the amount certified under division (B) of such section. If 47865
the commission considers it necessary in order to maintain or 47866
improve educational opportunities of pupils in the school 47867
district, the plan may include a proposal to restructure or 47868
refinance outstanding debt obligations incurred by the board under 47869
section 3313.483 of the Revised Code contingent upon the approval, 47870
during the period of the fiscal emergency, by district voters of a 47871
tax levied under section 718.09, 718.10, 5705.194, 5705.21, 47872
5748.02, 5748.08, or 5748.09 of the Revised Code that is not a 47873
renewal or replacement levy, or a levy under section 5705.199 of 47874
the Revised Code, and that will provide new operating revenue. 47875
Notwithstanding any provision of Chapter 133. or sections 3313.483 47876
to 3313.48113313.4810 of the Revised Code, following the required 47877
approval of the district voters and with the approval of the 47878
commission, the school district may issue securities to evidence 47879
the restructuring or refinancing. Those securities may extend the 47880
original period for repayment, not to exceed ten years, and may 47881
alter the frequency and amount of repayments, interest or other 47882
financing charges, and other terms of agreements under which the 47883
debt originally was contracted, at the discretion of the 47884
commission, provided that any loans received pursuant to section 47885
3313.483 of the Revised Code shall be paid from funds the district 47886
would otherwise receive under Chapter 3317. of the Revised Code, 47887
as required under division (E)(3) of section 3313.483 of the 47888
Revised Code. The securities issued for the purpose of 47889
restructuring or refinancing the debt shall be repaid in equal 47890
payments and at equal intervals over the term of the debt and are 47891
not eligible to be included in any subsequent proposal for the 47892
purpose of restructuring or refinancing debt under this section.47893

       (5) An evaluation of the feasibility of entering into shared 47894
services agreements with other political subdivisions for the 47895
joint exercise of any power, performance of any function, or 47896
rendering of any service, if so authorized by statute.47897

       (B) Any financial recovery plan may be amended subsequent to 47898
its adoption. Each financial recovery plan shall be updated 47899
annually.47900

       (C) Each school district financial planning and supervision 47901
commission shall submit the financial recovery plan it adopts or 47902
updates under this section to the state superintendent of public 47903
instruction for approval immediately following its adoption or 47904
updating. The state superintendent shall evaluate the plan and 47905
either approve or disapprove it within thirty calendar days from 47906
the date of its submission. If the plan is disapproved, the state 47907
superintendent shall recommend modifications that will render it 47908
acceptable. No financial planning and supervision commission shall 47909
implement a financial recovery plan that is adopted or updated on 47910
or after April 10, 2001, unless the state superintendent has 47911
approved it.47912

       Sec. 3317.01.  As used in this section, "school district," 47913
unless otherwise specified, means any city, local, exempted 47914
village, joint vocational, or cooperative education school 47915
district and any educational service center.47916

       This chapter shall be administered by the state board of 47917
education. The superintendent of public instruction shall 47918
calculate the amounts payable to each school district and shall 47919
certify the amounts payable to each eligible district to the 47920
treasurer of the district as provided by this chapter. As soon as 47921
possible after such amounts are calculated, the superintendent 47922
shall certify to the treasurer of each school district the 47923
district's adjusted charge-off increase, as defined in section 47924
5705.211 of the Revised Code. Certification of moneys pursuant to 47925
this section shall include the amounts payable to each school 47926
building, at a frequency determined by the superintendent, for 47927
each subgroup of students, as defined in section 3317.40 of the 47928
Revised Code, receiving services, provided for by state funding, 47929
from the district or school. No moneys shall be distributed 47930
pursuant to this chapter without the approval of the controlling 47931
board.47932

       The state board of education shall, in accordance with 47933
appropriations made by the general assembly, meet the financial 47934
obligations of this chapter.47935

       Moneys distributed pursuant to this chapter shall be 47936
calculated based on the annualized average of the monthly 47937
certifications required under section 3317.03 of the Revised Code47938
and paid on a fiscal year basis, beginning with the first day of 47939
July and extending through the thirtieth day of June. The moneys 47940
appropriated for each fiscal year shall be distributed 47941
periodically to each school district unless otherwise provided 47942
for. The state board, in June of each year, shall submit to the 47943
controlling board the state board's year-end distributions 47944
pursuant to this chapter.47945

       Except as otherwise provided, payments under this chapter 47946
shall be made only to those school districts in which:47947

       (A) The school district, except for any educational service 47948
center and any joint vocational or cooperative education school 47949
district, levies for current operating expenses at least twenty 47950
mills. Levies for joint vocational or cooperative education school 47951
districts or county school financing districts, limited to or to 47952
the extent apportioned to current expenses, shall be included in 47953
this qualification requirement. School district income tax levies 47954
under Chapter 5748. of the Revised Code, limited to or to the 47955
extent apportioned to current operating expenses, shall be 47956
included in this qualification requirement to the extent 47957
determined by the tax commissioner under division (D) of section 47958
3317.021 of the Revised Code.47959

       (B) The school year next preceding the fiscal year for which 47960
such payments are authorized meets the requirement of section 47961
3313.48 or 3313.481 of the Revised Code, with regard to the 47962
minimum number of days or hours school must be open for 47963
instruction with pupils in attendance, for individualized 47964
parent-teacher conference and reporting periods, and for 47965
professional meetings of teachers. This requirement shall be 47966
waived by the superintendent of public instruction if it had been 47967
necessary for a school to be closed because of disease epidemic, 47968
hazardous weather conditions, law enforcement emergencies, 47969
inoperability of school buses or other equipment necessary to the 47970
school's operation, damage to a school building, or other 47971
temporary circumstances due to utility failure rendering the 47972
school building unfit for school use, provided that for those 47973
school districts operating pursuant to section 3313.48 of the 47974
Revised Code the number of days the school was actually open for 47975
instruction with pupils in attendance and for individualized 47976
parent-teacher conference and reporting periods is not less than 47977
one hundred seventy-five, or for those school districts operating 47978
on a trimester plan the number of days the school was actually 47979
open for instruction with pupils in attendance not less than 47980
seventy-nine days in any trimester, for those school districts 47981
operating on a quarterly plan the number of days the school was 47982
actually open for instruction with pupils in attendance not less 47983
than fifty-nine days in any quarter, or for those school districts 47984
operating on a pentamester plan the number of days the school was 47985
actually open for instruction with pupils in attendance not less 47986
than forty-four days in any pentamester.47987

       A school district shall not be considered to have failed to 47988
comply with this division or section 3313.481 of the Revised Code47989
because schools were open for instruction but either twelfth grade 47990
students were excused from attendance for up to the equivalent of47991
three school days or only a portion of the kindergarten students 47992
were in attendance for up to the equivalent of three school days 47993
in order to allow for the gradual orientation to school of such 47994
students.47995

       The superintendent of public instruction shall waive the 47996
requirements of this section with reference to the minimum number 47997
of days or hours school must be in session with pupils in 47998
attendance for the school year succeeding the school year in which 47999
a board of education initiates a plan of operation pursuant to 48000
section 3313.481 of the Revised Code. The minimum requirements of 48001
this section shall again be applicable to such a district 48002
beginning with the school year commencing the second July 48003
succeeding the initiation of one such plan, and for each school 48004
year thereafter.48005

       A school district shall not be considered to have failed to 48006
comply with this division or section 3313.48 or 3313.481 of the 48007
Revised Code because schools were open for instruction but the 48008
length of the regularly scheduled school day, for any number of 48009
days during the school year, was reduced by not more than two 48010
hours due to hazardous weather conditions.48011

       A board of education or governing board of an educational 48012
service center which has not conformed with other law and the 48013
rules pursuant thereto, shall not participate in the distribution 48014
of funds authorized by this chapter, except for good and 48015
sufficient reason established to the satisfaction of the state 48016
board of education and the state controlling board.48017

       All funds allocated to school districts under this chapter, 48018
except those specifically allocated for other purposes, shall be 48019
used to pay current operating expenses only.48020

       Sec. 3317.013. Except for a preschool child with a 48021
disability for whom a scholarship has been awarded under section 48022
3310.41 of the Revised Code, this section does not apply to 48023
preschool children with disabilities.48024

       Analysis of special education cost data has resulted in a 48025
finding that the average special education additional cost per 48026
pupil, including the costs of related services, can be expressed 48027
as a multiple of the formula amount. The multiples for the 48028
following categories of special education programs, as these 48029
programs are defined for purposes of Chapter 3323. of the Revised 48030
Code, and adjusted as provided in this section, are as follows:48031

       (A) A multiple of 0.2906 for students whose primary or only 48032
identified disability is a speech and language disability, as this 48033
term is defined pursuant to Chapter 3323. of the Revised Code;48034

       (B) A multiple of 0.7374 for students identified as specific 48035
learning disabled or developmentally disabled, as these terms are 48036
defined pursuant to Chapter 3323. of the Revised Code, or48037
identified as having an other health impairment-minor, or 48038
identified as a preschool child who is developmentally delayed;48039

       (C) A multiple of 1.7716 for students identified as hearing 48040
disabled or severe behavior disabled, as these terms are defined 48041
pursuant to Chapter 3323. of the Revised Code;48042

       (D) A multiple of 2.3643 for students identified as vision 48043
impaired, as this term is defined pursuant to Chapter 3323. of the 48044
Revised Code, or as having an other health impairment-major;48045

       (E) A multiple of 3.2022 for students identified as 48046
orthopedically disabled or as having multiple disabilities, as 48047
these terms are defined pursuant to Chapter 3323. of the Revised 48048
Code;48049

       (F) A multiple of 4.7205 for students identified as autistic, 48050
having traumatic brain injuries, or as both visually and hearing 48051
impaired, as these terms are defined pursuant to Chapter 3323. of 48052
the Revised Code.48053

       In fiscal years 2008, 2009, 2010, 2011, 2012, and 2013, the48054
The multiples specified in divisions (A) to (F) of this section 48055
shall be adjusted by multiplying them by 0.90.48056

       Sec.  3317.014.  The career-technical education additional 48057
cost per pupil for each student enrolled in career-technical 48058
education programs approved by the department of education in 48059
accordance with rules adopted under section 3313.90 of the Revised 48060
Code can be expressed as a multiple of the formula amount. The 48061
multiples for the following categories of career-technical 48062
education programs are as follows:48063

       (A) A multiple of 0.76 for each student enrolled in 48064
career-technical education workforce development programs in 48065
environmental and agricultural systems, construction technologies, 48066
engineering and science technologies, finance, health science, 48067
information technology, and manufacturing technologies;48068

       (B) A multiple of 0.68 for each student enrolled in workforce 48069
development programs in business and administration, hospitality 48070
and tourism, human services, law and public safety, and 48071
transportation systems;48072

       (C) A multiple of 0.43 for students enrolled in workforce 48073
development career-based intervention programs;48074

       (D) A multiple of 0.31 for students enrolled in workforce 48075
development programs in arts and communications, education and 48076
training, marketing, workforce development academics, and career 48077
development;48078

       (E) A multiple of 0.24 for students enrolled in family and 48079
consumer science programs.48080

       Career-technical education associated services costs can be 48081
expressed as a multiple of 0.05 of the formula amount.48082

       Sec. 3317.016.  The amounts for limited English proficient 48083
students shall be as follows:48084

       (A) An amount of $1,500, in fiscal year 2014, and $1,515, in 48085
fiscal year 2015, for each student who has been enrolled in 48086
schools in the United States for 180 school days or less and was 48087
not previously exempted from taking the spring administration of 48088
either of the state's English language arts assessments prescribed 48089
by section 3301.0710 of the Revised Code (reading or writing).48090

       (B) An amount of $1,125, in fiscal year 2014, and $1,136, in 48091
fiscal year 2015, for each student who has been enrolled in 48092
schools in the United States for more than 180 school days or was 48093
previously exempted from taking the spring administration of 48094
either of the state's English language arts assessments prescribed 48095
by section 3301.0710 of the Revised Code (reading or writing).48096

       (C) An amount of $750, in fiscal year 2014, and $758, in 48097
fiscal year 2015, for each student who does not qualify for 48098
inclusion under division (A) or (B) of this section and is in a 48099
trial-mainstream period, as defined by the department.48100

       Sec. 3317.017.  The department of education shall compute a 48101
school district's state share index as follows:48102

       (A) Calculate the district's valuation index, which equals 48103
the following quotient:48104

       (The district's three-year average valuation / the district's 48105
total ADM) / (the statewide three-year average valuation for 48106
school districts with a total ADM greater than zero / the 48107
statewide total ADM)48108

       (B) Calculate the district's median income index, which 48109
equals the following quotient:48110

       (The district's median Ohio adjusted gross income / the 48111
median of the median Ohio adjusted gross income of all districts 48112
statewide)48113

       (C) Determine the district's wealth index as follows:48114

       (1) If the district's median income index is less than the 48115
district's valuation index, then the district's wealth index shall 48116
be equal to [(1/3 X the district's median income index) + (2/3 X 48117
the district's valuation index)].48118

       (2) If the district's median income index is greater than or 48119
equal to the district's valuation index, then the district's 48120
wealth index shall be equal to the district's valuation index.48121

       (D) Determine the district's state share index as follows:48122

       (1) If the district's wealth index is less than or equal to 48123
0.35, then the district's state share index shall be equal to 48124
0.90.48125

       (2) If the district's wealth index is greater than 0.35 but 48126
less than or equal to 0.90, then the district's state share index 48127
shall be equal to {0.40 X [(0.90 – the district's wealth index) / 48128
0.55]} + 0.50.48129

       (3) If the district's wealth index is greater than 0.90 but 48130
less than 1.8, then the district's state share index shall be 48131
equal to {0.45 X [(1.8 – the district's wealth index) / 0.9]} + 48132
0.05.48133

       (4) If the district's wealth index is greater than or equal 48134
to 1.8, then the district's state share index shall be equal to 48135
0.05.48136

       (E)(1) For each school district for which the tax-exempt 48137
value of the district, as certified under division (A)(4) of 48138
section 3317.021 of the Revised Code, equals or exceeds thirty per 48139
cent of the potential value of the district, the department shall 48140
calculate the difference between the district's tax-exempt value 48141
and thirty per cent of the district's potential value. For this 48142
purpose, the "potential value" of a school district is the 48143
three-year average valuation of the district plus the tax-exempt 48144
value of the district.48145

       (2) For each school district to which division (E)(1) of this 48146
section applies, the department shall adjust the three-year 48147
average valuation used in the calculation under division (A) of 48148
this section by subtracting from it the amount calculated under 48149
division (E)(1) of this section.48150

       (F) When performing the calculations required under this 48151
section, the department shall not round to fewer than four decimal 48152
places.48153

        For purposes of these calculations for fiscal years 2014 and 48154
2015, "three-year average valuation" means the average of total 48155
taxable value for fiscal years 2012, 2013, and 2014; "total ADM" 48156
means the total ADM for fiscal year 2014; "median Ohio adjusted 48157
gross income" means the median Ohio adjusted gross income for tax 48158
year 2011; and "tax-exempt value" means the tax-exempt value for 48159
fiscal year 2014.48160

       Sec. 3317.02.  As used in this chapter:48161

       (A)(1) "Category one career-technical education ADM" means 48162
the average daily membership of students receiving 48163
career-technical education services described in division (A) of 48164
section 3317.014 of the Revised Code and reported under division 48165
(B)(11) or (D)(2)(h) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code.48166

       (2) "Category two career-technical education ADM" means the 48167
average daily membership of students receiving career-technical 48168
education services described in division (B) of section 3317.014 48169
of the Revised Code and reported under division (B)(12) or 48170
(D)(2)(i) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code.48171

       (3) "Category three career-technical education ADM" means the 48172
average daily membership of students receiving career-technical 48173
education services described in division (C) of section 3317.014 48174
of the Revised Code and reported under division (B)(13) or 48175
(D)(2)(j) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code.48176

       (4) "Category four career-technical education ADM" means the 48177
average daily membership of students receiving career-technical 48178
education services described in division (D) of section 3317.014 48179
of the Revised Code and reported under division (B)(14) or 48180
(D)(2)(k) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code.48181

       (5) "Category five career-technical education ADM" means the 48182
average daily membership of students receiving career-technical 48183
education services described in division (E) of section 3317.014 48184
of the Revised Code and reported under division (B)(15) or 48185
(D)(2)(l) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code.48186

       (B)(1) "Category one limited English proficient ADM" means 48187
the average daily membership of limited English proficient 48188
students described in division (A) of section 3317.016 of the 48189
Revised Code and reported under division (B)(16) or (D)(2)(m) of 48190
section 3317.03 of the Revised Code.48191

       (2) "Category two limited English proficient ADM" means the 48192
average daily membership of limited English proficient students 48193
described in division (B) of section 3317.016 of the Revised Code 48194
and reported under division (B)(17) or (D)(2)(n) of section 48195
3317.03 of the Revised Code.48196

       (3) "Category three limited English proficient ADM" means the 48197
average daily membership of limited English proficient students 48198
described in division (C) of section 3317.016 of the Revised Code 48199
and reported under division (B)(18) or (D)(2)(o) of section 48200
3317.03 of the Revised Code.48201

       (C)(1) "Category one special education ADM" means the average 48202
daily membership of children with disabilities receiving special 48203
education services for the disability specified in division (A) of 48204
section 3317.013 of the Revised Code and reported under division 48205
(B)(5) or (D)(2)(b) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code.48206

       (2) "Category two special education ADM" means the average 48207
daily membership of children with disabilities receiving special 48208
education services for those disabilities specified in division 48209
(B) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code and reported under 48210
division (B)(6) or (D)(2)(c) of section 3317.03 of the Revised 48211
Code.48212

       (3) "Category three special education ADM" means the average 48213
daily membership of students receiving special education services 48214
for those disabilities specified in division (C) of section 48215
3317.013 of the Revised Code, and reported under division (B)(7) 48216
or (D)(2)(d) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code.48217

       (4) "Category four special education ADM" means the average 48218
daily membership of students receiving special education services 48219
for those disabilities specified in division (D) of section 48220
3317.013 of the Revised Code and reported under division (B)(8) or 48221
(D)(2)(e) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code.48222

       (5) "Category five special education ADM" means the average 48223
daily membership of students receiving special education services 48224
for the disabilities specified in division (E) of section 3317.013 48225
of the Revised Code and reported under division (B)(9) or 48226
(D)(2)(f) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code.48227

       (6) "Category six special education ADM" means the average 48228
daily membership of students receiving special education services 48229
for the disabilities specified in division (F) of section 3317.013 48230
of the Revised Code and reported under division (B)(10) or 48231
(D)(2)(g) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code.48232

       (D) "County DD board" means a county board of developmental 48233
disabilities.48234

       (E) "Economically disadvantaged index for a school district" 48235
means the square of the quotient of that district's percentage of 48236
students in its total ADM who are identified as economically 48237
disadvantaged as defined by the department of education, divided 48238
by the statewide percentage of students identified as economically 48239
disadvantaged.48240

       (F)(1) "Formula ADM" means, for a city, local, or exempted 48241
village school district, the average daily membership described in 48242
division (A) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code, as verified 48243
by the superintendent of public instruction and adjusted if so 48244
ordered under division (K) of that section, and as further 48245
adjusted by counting only twenty per cent of the number of joint 48246
vocational school district students counted under division (A)(3) 48247
of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code.48248

       (2) "Formula ADM" means, for a joint vocational school 48249
district, the final number verified by the superintendent of 48250
public instruction, based on the number reported pursuant to 48251
division (D) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code, as adjusted, 48252
if so ordered, under division (K) of that section.48253

       (G) "Formula amount" means $5,732, for fiscal year 2014, and 48254
$5,789, for fiscal year 2015.48255

       (H) "FTE basis" means a count of students based on full-time 48256
equivalency, in accordance with rules adopted by the department of 48257
education pursuant to section 3317.03 of the Revised Code. In 48258
adopting its rules under this division, the department shall 48259
provide for counting any student in category one, two, three, 48260
four, five, or six special education ADM or in category one, two, 48261
three, four, or five career technical education ADM in the same 48262
proportion the student is counted in formula ADM.48263

       (I) "Internet- or computer-based community school" has the 48264
same meaning as in section 3314.02 of the Revised Code.48265

       (J) "Medically fragile child" means a child to whom all of 48266
the following apply:48267

       (1) The child requires the services of a doctor of medicine 48268
or osteopathic medicine at least once a week due to the 48269
instability of the child's medical condition.48270

       (2) The child requires the services of a registered nurse on 48271
a daily basis.48272

       (3) The child is at risk of institutionalization in a 48273
hospital, skilled nursing facility, or intermediate care facility 48274
for the mentally retarded.48275

       (K)(1) A child may be identified as having an "other health 48276
impairment-major" if the child's condition meets the definition of 48277
"other health impaired" established in rules previously adopted by 48278
the state board of education and if either of the following apply:48279

       (a) The child is identified as having a medical condition 48280
that is among those listed by the superintendent of public 48281
instruction as conditions where a substantial majority of cases 48282
fall within the definition of "medically fragile child."48283

       (b) The child is determined by the superintendent of public 48284
instruction to be a medically fragile child. A school district 48285
superintendent may petition the superintendent of public 48286
instruction for a determination that a child is a medically 48287
fragile child.48288

       (2) A child may be identified as having an "other health 48289
impairment-minor" if the child's condition meets the definition of 48290
"other health impaired" established in rules previously adopted by 48291
the state board of education but the child's condition does not 48292
meet either of the conditions specified in division (K)(1)(a) or 48293
(b) of this section.48294

       (L) "Preschool child with a disability" means a child with a 48295
disability, as defined in section 3323.01 of the Revised Code, who 48296
is at least age three but is not of compulsory school age, as 48297
defined in section 3321.01 of the Revised Code, and who is not 48298
currently enrolled in kindergarten.48299

       (M) "Preschool scholarship ADM" means the number of preschool 48300
children with disabilities reported under division (B)(3)(h) of 48301
section 3317.03 of the Revised Code.48302

       (N) "Related services" includes:48303

       (1) Child study, special education supervisors and 48304
coordinators, speech and hearing services, adaptive physical 48305
development services, occupational or physical therapy, teacher 48306
assistants for children with disabilities whose disabilities are 48307
described in division (B) of section 3317.013 or division (B)(3) 48308
of this section, behavioral intervention, interpreter services, 48309
work study, nursing services, and specialized integrative services 48310
as those terms are defined by the department;48311

       (2) Speech and language services provided to any student with 48312
a disability, including any student whose primary or only 48313
disability is a speech and language disability;48314

       (3) Any related service not specifically covered by other 48315
state funds but specified in federal law, including but not 48316
limited to, audiology and school psychological services;48317

       (4) Any service included in units funded under former 48318
division (O)(1) of section 3317.024 of the Revised Code;48319

       (5) Any other related service needed by children with 48320
disabilities in accordance with their individualized education 48321
programs.48322

       (O) "School district," unless otherwise specified, means 48323
city, local, and exempted village school districts.48324

       (P) "State education aid" has the same meaning as in section 48325
5751.20 of the Revised Code.48326

       (Q) "State share index" means the state share index 48327
calculated for a district under section 3317.017 of the Revised 48328
Code.48329

       (R) "Taxes charged and payable" means the taxes charged and 48330
payable against real and public utility property after making the 48331
reduction required by section 319.301 of the Revised Code, plus 48332
the taxes levied against tangible personal property.48333

       (S) "Total ADM" means, for a city, local, or exempted village 48334
school district, the average daily membership described in 48335
division (A) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code, as verified 48336
by the superintendent of public instruction and adjusted if so 48337
ordered under division (K) of that section.48338

       (T) "Total career-technical education weight" for a district 48339
means the sum of the following:48340

       (1) The district's category one career-technical education 48341
ADM multiplied by the multiple specified in division (A) of 48342
section 3317.014 of the Revised Code;48343

       (2) The district's category two career-technical education 48344
ADM multiplied by the multiple specified in division (B) of 48345
section 3317.014 of the Revised Code;48346

       (3) The district's category three career-technical education 48347
ADM multiplied by the multiple specified in division (C) of 48348
section 3317.014 of the Revised Code;48349

       (4) The district's category four career-technical education 48350
ADM multiplied by the multiple specified in division (D) of 48351
section 3317.014 of the Revised Code;48352

       (5) The district's category five career-technical education 48353
ADM multiplied by the multiple specified in division (E) of 48354
section 3317.014 of the Revised Code.48355

       (U) "Total special education ADM" means the sum of categories 48356
one through six special education ADM.48357

       (V) "Total special education weight" for a district means the 48358
sum of the following:48359

       (1) The district's category one special education ADM 48360
multiplied by the multiple specified in division (A) of section 48361
3317.013 of the Revised Code;48362

       (2) The district's category two special education ADM 48363
multiplied by the multiple specified in division (B) of section 48364
3317.013 of the Revised Code;48365

       (3) The district's category three special education ADM 48366
multiplied by the multiple specified in division (C) of section 48367
3317.013 of the Revised Code; 48368

       (4) The district's category four special education ADM 48369
multiplied by the multiple specified in division (D) of section 48370
3317.013 of the Revised Code;48371

       (5) The district's category five special education ADM 48372
multiplied by the multiple specified in division (E) of section 48373
3317.013 of the Revised Code;48374

       (6) The district's category six special education ADM 48375
multiplied by the multiple specified in division (F) of section 48376
3317.013 of the Revised Code.48377

       (W) "Total taxable value" means the sum of the amounts 48378
certified for a city, local, exempted village, or joint vocational 48379
school district under divisions (A)(1) and (2) of section 3317.021 48380
of the Revised Code.48381

       Sec. 3317.021.  (A) On or before the first day of June of 48382
each year, the tax commissioner shall certify to the department of 48383
education and the office of budget and management the information 48384
described in divisions (A)(1) to (7) of this section for each 48385
city, exempted village, and local school district, and the 48386
information required by divisions (A)(1) and (2) of this section 48387
for each joint vocational school district, and it shall be used, 48388
along with the information certified under division (B) of this 48389
section, in making the computations for the district under this 48390
chapter.48391

       (1) The taxable value of real and public utility real 48392
property in the school district subject to taxation in the 48393
preceding tax year, by class and by county of location.48394

       (2) The taxable value of tangible personal property, 48395
including public utility personal property, subject to taxation by 48396
the district for the preceding tax year.48397

       (3)(a) The total property tax rate and total taxes charged 48398
and payable for the current expenses for the preceding tax year 48399
and the total property tax rate and the total taxes charged and 48400
payable to a joint vocational district for the preceding tax year 48401
that are limited to or to the extent apportioned to current 48402
expenses.48403

       (b) The portion of the amount of taxes charged and payable 48404
reported for each city, local, and exempted village school 48405
district under division (A)(3)(a) of this section attributable to 48406
a joint vocational school district.48407

       (4) The value of all real and public utility real property in 48408
the school district exempted from taxation minus both of the 48409
following:48410

       (a) The value of real and public utility real property in the 48411
district owned by the United States government and used 48412
exclusively for a public purpose;48413

       (b) The value of real and public utility real property in the 48414
district exempted from taxation under Chapter 725. or 1728. or 48415
section 3735.67, 5709.40, 5709.41, 5709.62, 5709.63, 5709.632, 48416
5709.73, or 5709.78 of the Revised Code.48417

       (5) The total federal adjusted gross income of the residents 48418
of the school district, based on tax returns filed by the 48419
residents of the district, for the most recent year for which this 48420
information is available.48421

       (6) The sum of the school district compensation value as 48422
indicated on the list of exempted property for the preceding tax 48423
year under section 5713.08 of the Revised Code as if such property 48424
had been assessed for taxation that year and the other 48425
compensation value for the school district, minus the amounts 48426
described in divisions (A)(6)(c) to (i) of this section. The 48427
portion of school district compensation value or other 48428
compensation value attributable to an incentive district exemption 48429
may be subtracted only once even if that incentive district 48430
satisfies more than one of the criteria in divisions (A)(6)(c) to 48431
(i) of this section.48432

       (a) "School district compensation value" means the aggregate 48433
value of real property in the school district exempted from 48434
taxation pursuant to an ordinance or resolution adopted under 48435
division (C) of section 5709.40, division (C) of section 5709.73, 48436
or division (B) of section 5709.78 of the Revised Code to the 48437
extent that the exempted value results in the charging of payments 48438
in lieu of taxes required to be paid to the school district under 48439
division (D)(1) or (2) of section 5709.40, division (D) of section 48440
5709.73, or division (C) of section 5709.78 of the Revised Code.48441

       (b) "Other compensation value" means the quotient that 48442
results from dividing (i) the dollar value of compensation 48443
received by the school district during the preceding tax year 48444
pursuant to division (B), (C), or (D) of section 5709.82 of the 48445
Revised Code and the amounts received pursuant to an agreement as 48446
specified in division (D)(2) of section 5709.40, division (D) of 48447
section 5709.73, or division (C) of section 5709.78 of the Revised 48448
Code to the extent those amounts were not previously reported or 48449
included in division (A)(6)(a) of this section, and so that any 48450
such amount is reported only once under division (A)(6)(b) of this 48451
section, in relation to exemptions from taxation granted pursuant 48452
to an ordinance or resolution adopted under division (C) of 48453
section 5709.40, division (C) of section 5709.73, or division (B) 48454
of section 5709.78 of the Revised Code, by (ii) the real property 48455
tax rate in effect for the preceding tax year for 48456
nonresidential/agricultural real property after making the 48457
reductions required by section 319.301 of the Revised Code.48458

       (c) The portion of school district compensation value or 48459
other compensation value that was exempted from taxation pursuant 48460
to such an ordinance or resolution for the preceding tax year, if 48461
the ordinance or resolution is adopted prior to January 1, 2006, 48462
and the legislative authority or board of township trustees or 48463
county commissioners, prior to January 1, 2006, executes a 48464
contract or agreement with a developer, whether for-profit or 48465
not-for-profit, with respect to the development of a project 48466
undertaken or to be undertaken and identified in the ordinance or 48467
resolution, and upon which parcels such project is being, or will 48468
be, undertaken;48469

        (d) The portion of school district compensation value that 48470
was exempted from taxation for the preceding tax year and for 48471
which payments in lieu of taxes for the preceding tax year were 48472
provided to the school district under division (D)(1) of section 48473
5709.40 of the Revised Code.48474

       (e) The portion of school district compensation value that 48475
was exempted from taxation for the preceding tax year pursuant to 48476
such an ordinance or resolution, if and to the extent that, on or 48477
before April 1, 2006, the fiscal officer of the municipal 48478
corporation that adopted the ordinance, or of the township or 48479
county that adopted the resolution, certifies and provides 48480
appropriate supporting documentation to the tax commissioner and 48481
the director of development that, based on hold-harmless 48482
provisions in any agreement between the school district and the 48483
legislative authority of the municipal corporation, board of 48484
township trustees, or board of county commissioners that was 48485
entered into on or before June 1, 2005, the ability or obligation 48486
of the municipal corporation, township, or county to repay bonds, 48487
notes, or other financial obligations issued or entered into prior 48488
to January 1, 2006, will be impaired, including obligations to or 48489
of any other body corporate and politic with whom the legislative 48490
authority of the municipal corporation or board of township 48491
trustees or county commissioners has entered into an agreement 48492
pertaining to the use of service payments derived from the 48493
improvements exempted;48494

       (f) The portion of school district compensation value that 48495
was exempted from taxation for the preceding tax year pursuant to 48496
such an ordinance or resolution, if the ordinance or resolution is 48497
adopted prior to January 1, 2006, in a municipal corporation with 48498
a population that exceeds one hundred thousand, as shown by the 48499
most recent federal decennial census, that includes a major 48500
employment center and that is adjacent to historically distressed 48501
neighborhoods, if the legislative authority of the municipal 48502
corporation that exempted the property prepares an economic 48503
analysis that demonstrates that all taxes generated within the 48504
incentive district accruing to the state by reason of improvements 48505
constructed within the district during its existence exceed the 48506
amount the state pays the school district under section 3317.022 48507
of the Revised Code attributable to such property exemption from 48508
the school district's recognized valuation. The analysis shall be 48509
submitted to and approved by the department of development prior 48510
to January 1, 2006, and the department shall not unreasonably 48511
withhold approval.48512

       (g) The portion of school district compensation value that 48513
was exempted from taxation for the preceding tax year under such 48514
an ordinance or resolution, if the ordinance or resolution is 48515
adopted prior to January 1, 2006, and if service payments have 48516
been pledged to be used for mixed-use riverfront entertainment 48517
development in any county with a population that exceeds six 48518
hundred thousand, as shown by the most recent federal decennial 48519
census;48520

       (h) The portion of school district compensation value that 48521
was exempted from taxation for the preceding tax year under such 48522
an ordinance or resolution, if, prior to January 1, 2006, the 48523
legislative authority of a municipal corporation, board of 48524
township trustees, or board of county commissioners has pledged 48525
service payments for a designated transportation capacity project 48526
approved by the transportation review advisory council under 48527
Chapter 5512. of the Revised Code;48528

       (i) The portion of school district compensation value that 48529
was exempted from taxation for the preceding tax year under such 48530
an ordinance or resolution if the legislative authority of a 48531
municipal corporation, board of township trustees, or board of 48532
county commissioners have, by January 1, 2006, pledged proceeds 48533
for designated transportation improvement projects that involve 48534
federal funds for which the proceeds are used to meet a local 48535
share match requirement for such funding.48536

       As used in division (A)(6) of this section, "project" has the 48537
same meaning as in section 5709.40 of the Revised Code.48538

       (7) The aggregate value of real property in the school 48539
district for which an exemption from taxation is granted by an 48540
ordinance or resolution adopted on or after January 1, 2006, under 48541
Chapter 725. or 1728., sections 3735.65 to 3735.70, or section 48542
5709.62, 5709.63, 5709.632, 5709.84, or 5709.88 of the Revised 48543
Code, as indicated on the list of exempted property for the 48544
preceding tax year under section 5713.08 of the Revised Code and 48545
as if such property had been assessed for taxation that year, 48546
minus the product determined by multiplying (a) the aggregate 48547
value of the real property in the school district exempted from 48548
taxation for the preceding tax year under any of the chapters or 48549
sections specified in this division, by (b) a fraction, the 48550
numerator of which is the difference between (i) the amount of 48551
anticipated revenue such school district would have received for 48552
the preceding tax year if the real property exempted from taxation 48553
had not been exempted from taxation and (ii) the aggregate amount 48554
of payments in lieu of taxes on the exempt real property for the 48555
preceding tax year and other compensation received for the 48556
preceding tax year by the school district pursuant to any 48557
agreements entered into on or after January 1, 2006, under section 48558
5709.82 of the Revised Code between the school district and the 48559
legislative authority of a political subdivision that acted under 48560
the authority of a chapter or statute specified in this division, 48561
that were entered into in relation to such exemption, and the 48562
denominator of which is the amount of anticipated revenue such 48563
school district would have received in the preceding fiscal year 48564
if the real property exempted from taxation had not been exempted.48565

       (B) On or before the first day of May each year, the tax 48566
commissioner shall certify to the department of education and the 48567
office of budget and management the total taxable real property 48568
value of railroads and, separately, the total taxable tangible 48569
personal property value of all public utilities for the preceding 48570
tax year, by school district and by county of location.48571

       (C) If a public utility has properly and timely filed a 48572
petition for reassessment under section 5727.47 of the Revised 48573
Code with respect to an assessment issued under section 5727.23 of 48574
the Revised Code affecting taxable property apportioned by the tax 48575
commissioner to a school district, the taxable value of public 48576
utility tangible personal property included in the certification 48577
under divisions (A)(2) and (B) of this section for the school 48578
district shall include only the amount of taxable value on the 48579
basis of which the public utility paid tax for the preceding year 48580
as provided in division (B)(1) or (2) of section 5727.47 of the 48581
Revised Code.48582

       (D) If on the basis of the information certified under 48583
division (A) of this section, the department determines that any 48584
district fails in any year to meet the qualification requirement 48585
specified in division (A) of section 3317.01 of the Revised Code, 48586
the department shall immediately request the tax commissioner to 48587
determine the extent to which any school district income tax 48588
levied by the district under Chapter 5748. of the Revised Code 48589
shall be included in meeting that requirement. Within five days of 48590
receiving such a request from the department, the tax commissioner 48591
shall make the determination required by this division and report 48592
the quotient obtained under division (D)(3) of this section to the 48593
department and the office of budget and management. This quotient 48594
represents the number of mills that the department shall include 48595
in determining whether the district meets the qualification 48596
requirement of division (A) of section 3317.01 of the Revised 48597
Code.48598

       The tax commissioner shall make the determination required by 48599
this division as follows:48600

       (1) Multiply one mill times the total taxable value of the 48601
district as determined in divisions (A)(1) and (2) of this 48602
section;48603

       (2) Estimate the total amount of tax liability for the 48604
current tax year under taxes levied by Chapter 5748. of the 48605
Revised Code that are apportioned to current operating expenses of 48606
the district, excluding any income tax receipts allocated for the 48607
project cost, debt service, or maintenance set-aside associated 48608
with a state-assisted classroom facilities project as authorized 48609
by section 3318.052 of the Revised Code;48610

       (3) Divide the amount estimated under division (D)(2) of this 48611
section by the product obtained under division (D)(1) of this 48612
section.48613

       (E)(1) On or before June 1, 2006, and the first day of April 48614
of each year thereafter, the director of development shall report 48615
to the department of education, the tax commissioner, and the 48616
director of budget and management the total amounts of payments 48617
received by each city, local, exempted village, or joint 48618
vocational school district for the preceding tax year pursuant to 48619
division (D) of section 5709.40, division (D) of section 5709.73, 48620
division (C) of section 5709.78, or division (B)(1), (B)(2), (C), 48621
or (D) of section 5709.82 of the Revised Code in relation to 48622
exemptions from taxation granted pursuant to an ordinance adopted 48623
by the legislative authority of a municipal corporation under 48624
division (C) of section 5709.40 of the Revised Code, or a 48625
resolution adopted by a board of township trustees or board of 48626
county commissioners under division (C) of section 5709.73 or 48627
division (B) of section 5709.78 of the Revised Code, respectively. 48628
On or before April 1, 2006, and the first day of March of each 48629
year thereafter, the treasurer of each city, local, exempted 48630
village, or joint vocational school district that has entered into 48631
such an agreement shall report to the director of development the 48632
total amounts of such payments the district received for the 48633
preceding tax year as provided in this section. The state board of 48634
education, in accordance with sections 3319.31 and 3319.311 of the 48635
Revised Code, may suspend or revoke the license of a treasurer 48636
found to have willfully reported erroneous, inaccurate, or 48637
incomplete data under this division.48638

       (2) On or before April 1, 2007, and the first day of April of 48639
each year thereafter, the director of development shall report to 48640
the department of education, the tax commissioner, and the 48641
director of budget and management the total amounts of payments 48642
received by each city, local, exempted village, or joint 48643
vocational school district for the preceding tax year pursuant to 48644
divisions (B), (C), and (D) of section 5709.82 of the Revised Code 48645
in relation to exemptions from taxation granted pursuant to 48646
ordinances or resolutions adopted on or after January 1, 2006, 48647
under Chapter 725. or 1728., sections 3735.65 to 3735.70, or 48648
section 5709.62, 5709.63, 5709.632, 5709.84, or 5709.88 of the 48649
Revised Code. On or before March 1, 2007, and the first day of 48650
March of each year thereafter, the treasurer of each city, local, 48651
exempted village, or joint vocational school district that has 48652
entered into such an agreement shall report to the director of 48653
development the total amounts of such payments the district 48654
received for the preceding tax year as provided by this section. 48655
The state board of education, in accordance with sections 3319.31 48656
and 3319.311 of the Revised Code, may suspend or revoke the 48657
license of a treasurer found to have willfully reported erroneous, 48658
inaccurate, or incomplete data under this division.48659

       Sec. 3317.022. (A) The department of education shall compute 48660
and distribute state core foundation funding to each eligible 48661
school district for the fiscal year, using the information 48662
obtained under section 3317.021 of the Revised Code in the 48663
calendar year in which the fiscal year begins, as prescribed in 48664
the following divisions:48665

       (1) An opportunity grant calculated according to the 48666
following formula:48667

       The formula amount X formula ADM X the district's state share 48668
index48669

       (2) Targeted assistance funds calculated under divisions (A) 48670
and (B) of section 3317.0217 of the Revised Code;48671

       (3) Additional state aid for special education and related 48672
services provided under Chapter 3323. of the Revised Code 48673
calculated according to the following formula:48674

The formula amount X the district's total special education
48675

weight X the district's state share index
48676

       (4) Kindergarten through third grade literacy funds 48677
calculated according to the following formula:48678

       ($300, in fiscal year 2014, or $303, in fiscal year 2015) X 48679
formula ADM for grades kindergarten through three X the district's 48680
state share index48681

       (5) Economically disadvantaged funds calculated according to 48682
the following formula:48683

       ($340, in fiscal year 2014, or $343, in fiscal year 2015) X 48684
(the district's economically disadvantaged index) X the number of 48685
students who are economically disadvantaged as reported under 48686
division (B)(21) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code48687

       (6) Limited English proficiency funds calculated as the sum 48688
of the following:48689

       (a) The district's category one limited English proficient 48690
ADM X the amount specified in division (A) of section 3317.016 of 48691
the Revised Code X the district's state share index;48692

       (b) The district's category two limited English proficient 48693
ADM X the amount specified in division (B) of section 3317.016 of 48694
the Revised Code X the district's state share index;48695

       (c) The district's category three limited English proficient 48696
ADM X the amount specified in division (C) of section 3317.016 of 48697
the Revised Code X the district's state share index.48698

       (7)(a) Gifted identification funds calculated according to 48699
the following formula:48700

($5, in fiscal year 2014, or $5.05, in fiscal year 2015) X the
48701

district's formula ADM
48702

       (b) Gifted unit funding calculated under section 3317.051 of 48703
the Revised Code.48704

       (8) Career-technical education funds calculated according to 48705
the following formula:48706

The formula amount X the district's total career-technical
48707

education weight X the district's state share index
48708

       Payment of funds under division (A)(8) of this section is 48709
subject to approval under section 3317.161 of the Revised Code.48710

       (9) Career-technical education associated services funds 48711
calculated according to the following formula:48712

The district's state share index X 0.05 X the formula
48713

amount X the sum of categories one through five career-technical
48714

education ADM
48715

       (B) In any fiscal year, a school district shall spend for 48716
purposes that the department designates as approved for special 48717
education and related services expenses at least the amount 48718
calculated as follows:48719

(The formula amount X the total special education ADM) +
48720

(the formula amount X the district's total special education
48721

weight)
48722

       The purposes approved by the department for special education 48723
expenses shall include, but shall not be limited to, 48724
identification of children with disabilities, compliance with 48725
state rules governing the education of children with disabilities 48726
and prescribing the continuum of program options for children with 48727
disabilities, provision of speech language pathology services, and 48728
the portion of the school district's overall administrative and 48729
overhead costs that are attributable to the district's special 48730
education student population.48731

       The scholarships deducted from the school district's account 48732
under sections 3310.41 and 3310.55 of the Revised Code shall be 48733
considered to be an approved special education and related 48734
services expense for the purpose of the school district's 48735
compliance with this division.48736

       (C) In any fiscal year, a school district receiving funds 48737
under division (A)(8) of this section shall spend those funds only 48738
for the purposes that the department designates as approved for 48739
career-technical education expenses. Career-technical educational 48740
expenses approved by the department shall include only expenses 48741
connected to the delivery of career-technical programming to 48742
career-technical students. The department shall require the school 48743
district to report data annually so that the department may 48744
monitor the district's compliance with the requirements regarding 48745
the manner in which funding received under division (A)(8) of this 48746
section may be spent.48747

       (D) In any fiscal year, a school district receiving funds 48748
under division (A)(9) of this section, or through a transfer of 48749
funds pursuant to division (I) of section 3317.023 of the Revised 48750
Code, shall spend those funds only for the purposes that the 48751
department designates as approved for career-technical education 48752
associated services expenses, which may include such purposes as 48753
apprenticeship coordinators, coordinators for other 48754
career-technical education services, career-technical evaluation, 48755
and other purposes designated by the department. The department 48756
may deny payment under division (A)(9) of this section to any 48757
district that the department determines is not operating those 48758
services or is using funds paid under division (A)(9) of this 48759
section, or through a transfer of funds pursuant to division (I) 48760
of section 3317.023 of the Revised Code, for other purposes.48761

       (E) All funds received under division (A)(8) of this section 48762
by either a comprehensive single-district career-technical 48763
planning district or a school district that is a party to a 48764
career-technical educational compact shall be spent in the 48765
following manner:48766

        (1) At least seventy-five per cent of the funds shall be 48767
spent on curriculum development, purchase, and implementation; 48768
instructional resources and supplies; industry-based program 48769
certification; student assessment, credentialing, and placement; 48770
curriculum specific equipment purchases and leases; 48771
career-technical student organization fees and expenses; home and 48772
agency linkages; work-based learning experiences; professional 48773
development; and other costs directly associated with 48774
career-technical education programs including development of new 48775
programs.48776

        (2) Not more than twenty-five per cent of the funds shall be 48777
used for personnel expenditures. 48778

       Sec. 3317.023.  (A) The amounts required to be paid to a 48779
district under this chapter shall be adjusted by the amount of the 48780
computations made under divisions (B) to (K) of this section. 48781

       As used in this section:48782

       (1) "VEPDCTPD" means a school district or group of school 48783
districts designated by the department of education as being 48784
responsible for the planning for and provision of vocational48785
career-technical education services to students within the 48786
district or group.48787

       (2) "Lead district" means a school district, including a 48788
joint vocational school district, designated by the department as 48789
a VEPDCTPD, or designated to provide primary vocational48790
career-technical education leadership within a VEPDCTPD composed 48791
of a group of districts.48792

       (B) If a local school district, or a, city, or exempted 48793
village school district to which a governing board of an 48794
educational service center provides services pursuant to an 48795
agreement entered into under section 3313.843 of the Revised Code, 48796
deduct the amount of the payment required for the reimbursement of 48797
the governing board under section 3317.11 of the Revised Codethe 48798
agreement.48799

       (C)(1) If the district is required to pay to or entitled to 48800
receive tuition from another school district under division (C)(2) 48801
or (3) of section 3313.64 or section 3313.65 of the Revised Code, 48802
or if the superintendent of public instruction is required to 48803
determine the correct amount of tuition and make a deduction or 48804
credit under section 3317.08 of the Revised Code, deduct and 48805
credit such amounts as provided in division (J) of section 3313.64 48806
or section 3317.08 of the Revised Code.48807

       (2) For each child for whom the district is responsible for 48808
tuition or payment under division (A)(1) of section 3317.082 or 48809
section 3323.091 of the Revised Code, deduct the amount of tuition 48810
or payment for which the district is responsible.48811

       (D) If the district has been certified by the superintendent 48812
of public instruction under section 3313.90 of the Revised Code as 48813
not in compliance with the requirements of that section, deduct an 48814
amount equal to ten per cent of the amount computed for the 48815
district under this chapter.48816

       (E) If the district has received a loan from a commercial 48817
lending institution for which payments are made by the 48818
superintendent of public instruction pursuant to division (E)(3) 48819
of section 3313.483 of the Revised Code, deduct an amount equal to 48820
such payments.48821

       (F)(1) If the district is a party to an agreement entered 48822
into under division (D), (E), or (F) of section 3311.06 or 48823
division (B) of section 3311.24 of the Revised Code and is 48824
obligated to make payments to another district under such an 48825
agreement, deduct an amount equal to such payments if the district 48826
school board notifies the department in writing that it wishes to 48827
have such payments deducted.48828

       (2) If the district is entitled to receive payments from 48829
another district that has notified the department to deduct such 48830
payments under division (F)(1) of this section, add the amount of 48831
such payments.48832

       (G) If the district is required to pay an amount of funds to 48833
a cooperative education district pursuant to a provision described 48834
by division (B)(4) of section 3311.52 or division (B)(8) of 48835
section 3311.521 of the Revised Code, deduct such amounts as 48836
provided under that provision and credit those amounts to the 48837
cooperative education district for payment to the district under 48838
division (B)(1) of section 3317.19 of the Revised Code.48839

       (H)(1) If a district is educating a student entitled to 48840
attend school in another district pursuant to a shared education 48841
contract, compact, or cooperative education agreement other than 48842
an agreement entered into pursuant to section 3313.842 of the 48843
Revised Code, credit to that educating district on an FTE basis 48844
both of the following:48845

       (a) An amount equal to the formula amount.48846

       (b) An amount equal to $5,732the formula amount times the 48847
state share percentageindex times any multiple applicable to the 48848
student for fiscal year 2009 pursuant to section 3317.013 or 48849
3317.014 of the Revised Code, as those sections existed for that 48850
fiscal year.48851

       (2) Deduct any amount credited pursuant to division (H)(1) of 48852
this section from amounts paid to the school district in which the 48853
student is entitled to attend school pursuant to section 3313.64 48854
or 3313.65 of the Revised Code.48855

       (3) If the district is required by a shared education 48856
contract, compact, or cooperative education agreement to make 48857
payments to an educational service center, deduct the amounts from 48858
payments to the district and add them to the amounts paid to the 48859
service center pursuant to section 3317.11 of the Revised Code.48860

       (I)(1) If a district, including a joint vocational school 48861
district, is a lead district of a VEPDCTPD, credit to that 48862
district the following amountsamount calculated for all theeach48863
school districtsdistrict within that VEPDCTPD:48864

       (a) In any fiscal year except fiscal year 2012 or 2013, the 48865
amount computed under division (D)(2) of section 3317.022 of the 48866
Revised Code;48867

       (b) In fiscal years 2012 and 2013, an amount equal to the 48868
following:48869

state share
percentage
index
X .05 X
$5,732
the formula amount
X
48870

the sum of categories one
48871

and two vocational
through five career-technical
education ADM
48872

       (2) Deduct from each appropriate district that is not a lead 48873
district, the amount attributable to that district that is 48874
credited to a lead district under division (I)(1) of this section.48875

       (J) If the department pays a joint vocational school district 48876
under division (G)(4)(C)(3) of section 3317.16 of the Revised Code 48877
for excess costs of providing special education and related 48878
services to a student with a disability, as calculated under 48879
division (G)(2)(C)(1) of that section, the department shall 48880
deduct the amount of that payment from the city, local, or 48881
exempted village school district that is responsible as specified 48882
in that section for the excess costs.48883

       (K)(1) If the district reports an amount of excess cost for 48884
special education services for a child under division (C) of 48885
section 3323.14 of the Revised Code, the department shall pay that 48886
amount to the district.48887

       (2) If the district reports an amount of excess cost for 48888
special education services for a child under division (C) of 48889
section 3323.14 of the Revised Code, the department shall deduct 48890
that amount from the district of residence of that child.48891

       Sec. 3317.0212. The department of education shall make no 48892
payments under this section for fiscal year 2012 or 2013.48893

       (A) As used in this section:48894

        (1) "Assigned bus" means a school bus used to transport 48895
qualifying riders.48896

       (2) "Nontraditional ridership" means the average number of 48897
qualifying riders who are enrolled in a community school 48898
established under Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code, in a STEM 48899
school established under Chapter 3326. of the Revised Code, or in 48900
a nonpublic school and are provided school bus service by a school 48901
district during the first full week of October.48902

        (3) "Qualifying riders" means resident students enrolled in 48903
regular education in grades kindergarten to twelve who are 48904
provided school bus service by a school district and who live more 48905
than one mile from the school they attend, including students with 48906
dual enrollment in a joint vocational school district or a 48907
cooperative education school district, and students enrolled in a 48908
community school, STEM school, or nonpublic school.48909

       (4)(2) "Qualifying ridership" means the average number of 48910
qualifying riders who are provided school bus service by a school 48911
district during the first full week of October.48912

       (5)(3) "Rider density" means the number of qualifying riders 48913
per square mile of a school district.48914

       (6)(4) "School bus service" means a school district's 48915
transportation of qualifying riders in any of the following types 48916
of vehicles:48917

       (a) School buses owned or leased by the district;48918

       (b) School buses operated by a private contractor hired by 48919
the district;48920

       (c) School buses operated by another school district or 48921
entity with which the district has contracted, either as part of a 48922
consortium for the provision of transportation or otherwise.48923

       (B) Not later than the fifteenth day of October each year, 48924
each city, local, and exempted village school district shall 48925
report to the department of education its qualifying ridership, 48926
nontraditional ridership, number of qualifying riders per assigned 48927
bus, and any other information requested by the department. 48928
Subsequent adjustments to the reported numbers shall be made only 48929
in accordance with rules adopted by the department.48930

       (C) The department shall calculate the statewide 48931
transportation cost per student as follows:48932

       (1) Determine each city, local, and exempted village school 48933
district's transportation cost per student by dividing the 48934
district's total costs for school bus service in the previous 48935
fiscal year by its qualifying ridership in the previous fiscal 48936
year.48937

       (2) After excluding districts that do not provide school bus 48938
service and the ten districts with the highest transportation 48939
costs per student and the ten districts with the lowest 48940
transportation costs per student, divide the aggregate cost for 48941
school bus service for the remaining districts in the previous 48942
fiscal year by the aggregate qualifying ridership of those 48943
districts in the previous fiscal year.48944

       (D) The department shall calculate the statewide 48945
transportation cost per mile as follows:48946

       (1) Determine each city, local, and exempted village school 48947
district's transportation cost per mile by dividing the district's 48948
total costs for school bus service in the previous fiscal year by 48949
its total number of miles driven for school bus service in the 48950
previous fiscal year.48951

       (2) After excluding districts that do not provide school bus 48952
service and the ten districts with the highest transportation 48953
costs per mile and the ten districts with the lowest 48954
transportation costs per mile, divide the aggregate cost for 48955
school bus service for the remaining districts in the previous 48956
fiscal year by the aggregate miles driven for school bus service 48957
in those districts in the previous fiscal year.48958

       (E) The department shall calculate each city, local, and 48959
exempted village school district's transportation base payment as 48960
follows:48961

       (1) Multiply the statewide transportation cost per student by 48962
the district's qualifying ridership for the current fiscal year.48963

       (2) Multiply the statewide transportation cost per mile by 48964
the district's total number of miles driven for school bus service 48965
in the current fiscal year.48966

       (3) Multiply the greater of the amounts calculated under 48967
divisions (E)(1) and (2) of this section by the greater of sixty 48968
per cent or the district's state share percentageindex, as 48969
defined in section 3317.02 of the Revised Code.48970

       (F) The department shall calculate each city, local, and 48971
exempted village school district's nontraditional ridership 48972
adjustment according to the following formula:48973

(nontraditional ridership for the current fiscal year /
48974

qualifying ridership for the current fiscal year) X 0.1 X
48975

transportation base payment
48976

       (G) If a city, local, or exempted village school district 48977
offers school bus service to all resident students who are 48978
enrolled in regular education in district schools in grades nine 48979
to twelve and who live more than one mile from the school they 48980
attend, the department shall calculate the district's high school 48981
ridership adjustment according to the following formula:48982

0.025 X transportation base payment
48983

       (H) If a city, local, or exempted village school district 48984
offers school bus service to students enrolled in grades 48985
kindergarten to eight who live more than one mile, but two miles 48986
or less, from the school they attend, the department shall 48987
calculate an additional adjustment according to the following 48988
formula:48989

0.025 X transportation base payment
48990

       (I)(1) The department annually shall establish a target 48991
number of qualifying riders per assigned bus for each city, local, 48992
and exempted village school district. The department shall use the 48993
most recently available data in establishing the target number. 48994
The target number shall be based on the statewide median number of 48995
qualifying riders per assigned bus as adjusted to reflect the 48996
district's rider density in comparison to the rider density of all 48997
other districts. The department shall post on the department's web 48998
site each district's target number of qualifying riders per 48999
assigned bus and a description of how the target number was 49000
determined.49001

       (2) The department shall determine each school district's 49002
efficiency index by dividing the district's median number of 49003
qualifying riders per assigned bus by its target number of 49004
qualifying riders per assigned bus.49005

       (3) The department shall determine each city, local, and 49006
exempted village school district's efficiency adjustment as 49007
follows:49008

       (a) If the district's efficiency index is equal to or greater 49009
than 1.5, the efficiency adjustment shall be calculated according 49010
to the following formula:49011

0.1 X transportation base payment
49012

       (b) If the district's efficiency index is less than 1.5 but 49013
equal to or greater than 1.0, the efficiency adjustment shall be 49014
calculated according to the following formula:49015

[(efficiency index – 1) / 5] X transportation base payment
49016

       (c) If the district's efficiency index is less than 1.0, the 49017
efficiency adjustment shall be zero.49018

       (J) The department shall pay each city, local, and exempted 49019
village school district the lesser of the following:49020

       (1) The sum of the amounts calculated under divisions (E) to 49021
(H) and (I)(3) of this section;49022

       (2) The district's total costs for school bus service for the 49023
prior fiscal year.49024

       (K) In addition to funds paid under division (J)(E) of this 49025
section, each city, local, and exempted village district shall 49026
receive in accordance with rules adopted by the state board of 49027
education a payment for students transported by means other than 49028
school bus service and whose transportation is not funded under 49029
division (C) of section 3317.024 of the Revised Code. The rules 49030
shall include provisions for school district reporting of such 49031
students.49032

       (G)(1) In fiscal years 2014 and 2015, the department shall 49033
pay each district a pro rata portion of the amounts calculated 49034
under division (E) of this section and described in division (F) 49035
of this section, based on state appropriations.49036

       (2) In addition to the prorated payment under division (G)(1) 49037
of this section, in fiscal years 2014 and 2015, the department 49038
shall pay each school district that meets the conditions 49039
prescribed in division (G)(3) of this section an additional amount 49040
equal to the difference of (a) the amounts calculated under 49041
division (E) of this section and prescribed in division (F) of 49042
this section minus (b) that prorated payment.49043

       (3) Division (G)(2) of this section applies to each school 49044
district that meets all of the following conditions:49045

       (a) The district qualifies for the calculation of a payment 49046
under division (E) of this section because it transports students 49047
on board-owned or contractor-owned school buses.49048

       (b) The district's state share index is greater than or equal 49049
to 0.50.49050

       (c) The district's rider density is at or below the median 49051
rider density of all districts that qualify for calculation of a 49052
payment under division (E) of this section.49053

       (H) Each city, local, and exempted village school district 49054
shall report all data used to calculate funding for transportation 49055
under this section through the education management information 49056
system pursuant to section 3301.0714 of the Revised Code.49057

       Sec. 3317.0213. (A) The department of education shall compute 49058
and pay to each school district in accordance with this section 49059
additional state aid for preschool special education children to 49060
each city, local, and exempted village school district and to each 49061
institution, as defined in section 3323.091 of the Revised Code. 49062
Funding shall be provided for children who are not enrolled in 49063
kindergarten and who are under age six on the thirtieth day of 49064
September of the academic year, or on the first day of August of 49065
the academic year if the school district in which the child is 49066
enrolled has adopted a resolution under division (A)(3) of section 49067
3321.01 of the Revised Code, but not less than age three on the 49068
first day of December of the academic year.49069

       The additional state aid shall be calculated under the 49070
following formula:49071

       ($4,000 X the number of preschool special education children) 49072
+ the sum of the following:49073

       (1) The district's or institution's category one special 49074
education preschool students X the multiple specified in division 49075
(A) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code X the formula amount X 49076
the district's state share index X 0.50;49077

       (2) The district's or institution's category two special 49078
education preschool students X the multiple specified in division 49079
(B) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code X the formula amount X 49080
the district's state share index X 0.50;49081

       (3) The district's or institution's category three special 49082
education preschool students X the multiple specified in division 49083
(C) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code X the formula amount X 49084
the district's state share index X 0.50;49085

       (4) The district's or institution's category four special 49086
education preschool students X the multiple specified in division 49087
(D) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code X the formula amount X 49088
the district's state share index X 0.50;49089

       (5) The district's or institution's category five special 49090
education preschool students X the multiple specified in division 49091
(E) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code X the formula amount X 49092
the district's state share index X 0.50;49093

       (6) The district's or institution's category six special 49094
education preschool students X the multiple specified in division 49095
(F) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code X the formula amount X 49096
the district's state share index X 0.50.49097

       The special education disability categories for preschool 49098
children used in this section are the same categories prescribed 49099
in section 3317.013 of the Revised Code.49100

       As used in division (A) of this section, the state share 49101
index of a student enrolled in an institution is the state share 49102
index of the school district in which the student is entitled to 49103
attend school under section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised 49104
Code.49105

       (B) If an educational service center is providing services to 49106
preschool special education students under agreement with the 49107
city, local, or exempted village school district in which the 49108
students are entitled to attend school, that district may 49109
authorize the department to transfer funds computed under this 49110
section to the service center providing those services.49111

       (C)(1) If a county DD board is providing services to 49112
preschool special education students under agreement with the 49113
city, local, or exempted village school district in which the 49114
students are entitled to attend school, the department shall 49115
deduct from the district's payment computed under division (A) of 49116
this section the total amount of those funds that are attributable 49117
to the students served by the county DD board and pay that amount 49118
to that board.49119

        (2) In addition, for any fiscal year, no county DD board 49120
shall receive in total funding for preschool special education 49121
services an amount that is less than what it received for the 49122
previous fiscal year, as determined by the department. If 49123
necessary, the department shall increase the state payment to a 49124
county DD board to comply with division (C)(2) of this section.49125

       Sec. 3317.0214. (A) The department shall compute and pay in 49126
accordance with this section additional state aid to school 49127
districts for students in categories two through six special 49128
education ADM. If a district's costs for the fiscal year for a 49129
student in its categories two through six special education ADM 49130
exceed the threshold catastrophic cost for serving the student, 49131
the district may submit to the superintendent of public 49132
instruction documentation, as prescribed by the superintendent, of 49133
all its costs for that student. Upon submission of documentation 49134
for a student of the type and in the manner prescribed, the 49135
department shall pay to the district an amount equal to the sum of 49136
the following:49137

       (1) One-half of the district's costs for the student in 49138
excess of the threshold catastrophic cost;49139

       (2) The product of one-half of the district's costs for the 49140
student in excess of the threshold catastrophic cost multiplied by 49141
the district's state share index.49142

       (B) For purposes of division (A) of this section, the 49143
threshold catastrophic cost for serving a student equals:49144

       (1) For a student in the school district's category two, 49145
three, four, or five special education ADM, twenty-seven thousand 49146
three hundred seventy-five dollars;49147

       (2) For a student in the district's category six special 49148
education ADM, thirty-two thousand eight hundred fifty dollars.49149

       (C) The district shall report under division (A) of this 49150
section, and the department shall pay for, only the costs of 49151
educational expenses and the related services provided to the 49152
student in accordance with the student's individualized education 49153
program. Any legal fees, court costs, or other costs associated 49154
with any cause of action relating to the student may not be 49155
included in the amount.49156

       Sec. 3317.0217. Payment of the amount calculated for a school 49157
district under this section shall be made under division (A) of 49158
section 3317.022 of the Revised Code.49159

       (A) The department of education shall annually compute 49160
targeted assistance funds to school districts, as follows:49161

        (1) Calculate the local wealth per pupil of each school 49162
district, which equals the following sum:49163

        (a) One-half times the quotient of (i) the district's 49164
three-year average valuation divided by (ii) its formula ADM; plus49165

        (b) One-half times the quotient of (i) the average of the 49166
total federal adjusted gross income of the school district's 49167
residents for the three years most recently reported under section 49168
3317.021 of the Revised Code divided by (ii) its formula ADM.49169

        (2) Rank all school districts in order of local wealth per 49170
pupil, from the district with the lowest local wealth per pupil to 49171
the district with the highest local wealth per pupil.49172

       (3) Compute the statewide wealth per pupil, which equals the 49173
following sum:49174

        (a) One-half times the quotient of (i) the sum of the 49175
three-year average valuations for all school districts divided by 49176
(ii) the sum of formula ADM counts for all schools districts; plus49177

        (b) One-half times the quotient of (i) the sum of the 49178
three-year average total federal adjusted gross incomes for all 49179
school districts divided by (ii) the sum of formula ADM counts for 49180
all school districts.49181

        (4) Compute each district's wealth index by dividing the 49182
statewide wealth per pupil by the district's local wealth per 49183
pupil.49184

       (5) Compute the per pupil targeted assistance for each 49185
eligible school district in accordance with the following formula:49186

(Threshold local wealth per pupil - the district's local wealth
49187
per pupil)
49188

X target millage X the district's wealth index
49189

       Where:49190

       (a) An "eligible school district" means a school district 49191
with a local wealth per pupil less than that of the school 49192
district with the 490th lowest local wealth per pupil.49193

       (b) "Threshold local wealth per pupil" means the local wealth 49194
per pupil of the school district with the 490th lowest local 49195
wealth per pupil.49196

       (c) "Target millage" means 0.006.49197

        If the result of the calculation for a school district under 49198
division (A)(5) of this section is less than zero, the district's 49199
targeted assistance shall be zero.49200

       (6) Calculate the aggregate amount to be paid as targeted 49201
assistance funds to each school district under division (A) of 49202
section 3317.022 of the Revised Code by multiplying the per pupil 49203
targeted assistance computed under division (A)(5) of this section 49204
by the district's net formula ADM.49205

       As used in this division, a district's "net formula ADM" 49206
means its formula ADM minus both the number of internet- and 49207
computer-based community school students reported under division 49208
(B)(3)(e) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code and scholarship 49209
students reported under divisions (B)(3)(f) and (g) of that 49210
section.49211

       (B) The department shall annually compute supplemental 49212
targeted assistance funds to school districts, as follows:49213

       (1) Compute each district's agricultural percentage as the 49214
quotient of (a) the three-year average tax valuation of real 49215
property in the district that is classified as agricultural 49216
property divided by (b) the three-year average tax valuation of 49217
all of the real property in the district. For purposes of this 49218
computation, a district's "three-year average tax valuation" means 49219
the average of a district's tax valuation for fiscal years 2012, 49220
2013, and 2014.49221

       (2) Determine each district's agricultural targeted 49222
percentage as follows:49223

       (a) If a district's agricultural percentage is greater than 49224
or equal to 0.10, then the district's agricultural targeted 49225
percentage shall be equal to 0.40.49226

       (b) If a district's agricultural percentage is less than 49227
0.10, then the district's agricultural targeted percentage shall 49228
be equal to 4 X the district's agricultural percentage.49229

       (3) Calculate the aggregate amount to be paid as supplemental 49230
targeted assistance funds to each school district under division 49231
(A) of section 3317.022 of the Revised Code by multiplying the 49232
district's agricultural targeted percentage by the amount 49233
calculated for the district under division (A)(6) of this section.49234

       Sec. 3317.03.  (A) The superintendent of each city, local, 49235
and exempted village school district and of each educational 49236
service center shall, for the schools under the superintendent's 49237
supervision, certify to the state board of education on or before 49238
the fifteenth day of October in each yearmonth for the first full 49239
school week in Octoberof that month the average daily membership 49240
of students receiving services from schools under the 49241
superintendent's supervision, and the numbers of other students 49242
entitled to attend school in the district under section 3313.64 or 49243
3313.65 of the Revised Code the superintendent is required to 49244
report under this section, so that the department of education can 49245
calculate the district's formula ADM. If a school under the 49246
superintendent's supervision is closed for one or more days during 49247
thata week for which the average daily membership must be 49248
certified due to hazardous weather conditions or other 49249
circumstances described in the first paragraph of division 49250
(B)(A)(1) of section 3317.013313.482 of the Revised Code, the 49251
superintendent may apply to the superintendent of public 49252
instruction for a waiver, under which the superintendent of public 49253
instruction may exempt the district superintendent from certifying 49254
the average daily membership for that school for that week and 49255
specify an alternate week in the same month for certifying the 49256
average daily membership of that school.49257

       The average daily membership during sucha week shall consist 49258
of the sum of the following:49259

       (1) On an FTE basis, the number of students in grades 49260
kindergarten through twelve receiving any educational services 49261
from the district, except that the following categories of 49262
students shall not be included in the determination:49263

       (a) Students enrolled in adult education classes;49264

       (b) Adjacent or other district students enrolled in the 49265
district under an open enrollment policy pursuant to section 49266
3313.98 of the Revised Code;49267

       (c) Students receiving services in the district pursuant to a 49268
compact, cooperative education agreement, or a contract, but who 49269
are entitled to attend school in another district pursuant to 49270
section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised Code;49271

       (d) Students for whom tuition is payable pursuant to sections 49272
3317.081 and 3323.141 of the Revised Code;49273

       (e) Students receiving services in the district through a 49274
scholarship awarded under either section 3310.41 or sections 49275
3310.51 to 3310.64 of the Revised Code.49276

       (2) On an FTE basis, the number of students entitled to 49277
attend school in the district pursuant to section 3313.64 or 49278
3313.65 of the Revised Code, but receiving educational services in 49279
grades kindergarten through twelve from one or more of the 49280
following entities:49281

       (a) A community school pursuant to Chapter 3314. of the 49282
Revised Code, including any participation in a college pursuant to 49283
Chapter 3365. of the Revised Code while enrolled in such community 49284
school;49285

       (b) An alternative school pursuant to sections 3313.974 to 49286
3313.979 of the Revised Code as described in division (I)(2)(a) or 49287
(b) of this section;49288

       (c) A college pursuant to Chapter 3365. of the Revised Code, 49289
except when the student is enrolled in the college while also 49290
enrolled in a community school pursuant to Chapter 3314. or; a 49291
science, technology, engineering, and mathematics school 49292
established under Chapter 3326. of the Revised Code;49293

       (d) An adjacent or other school district under an open 49294
enrollment policy adopted pursuant to section 3313.98 of the 49295
Revised Code;49296

       (e) An educational service center or cooperative education 49297
district;49298

       (f) Another school district under a cooperative education 49299
agreement, compact, or contract;49300

       (g) A chartered nonpublic school with a scholarship paid 49301
under section 3310.08 of the Revised Code, if the students 49302
qualified for the scholarship under section 3310.03 of the Revised 49303
Code;49304

        (h) An alternative public provider or a registered private 49305
provider with a scholarship awarded under either section 3310.41 49306
or sections 3310.51 to 3310.64 of the Revised Code. 49307

       As used in this section, "alternative public provider" and 49308
"registered private provider" have the same meanings as in section 49309
3310.41 or 3310.51 of the Revised Code, as applicable.49310

       (i) A science, technology, engineering, and mathematics 49311
school established under Chapter 3326. of the Revised Code, 49312
including any participation in a college pursuant to Chapter 3365. 49313
of the Revised Code while enrolled in the school;49314

       (j) A college-preparatory boarding school established under 49315
Chapter 3328. of the Revised Code.49316

       (3) The number of students enrolled in a joint vocational 49317
school district or under a vocationalcareer-technical education 49318
compact, excluding any students entitled to attend school in the 49319
district under section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised Code who 49320
are enrolled in another school district through an open enrollment 49321
policy as reported under division (A)(2)(d) of this section and 49322
then enroll in a joint vocational school district or under a 49323
vocationalcareer-technical education compact;49324

       (4) The number of children with disabilities, other than 49325
preschool children with disabilities, entitled to attend school in 49326
the district pursuant to section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised 49327
Code who are placed by the district with a county DD board, minus 49328
the number of such children placed with a county DD board in 49329
fiscal year 1998. If this calculation produces a negative number, 49330
the number reported under division (A)(4) of this section shall be 49331
zero.49332

       (B) To enable the department of education to obtain the data 49333
needed to complete the calculation of payments pursuant to this 49334
chapter, in addition to the average daily membership, each 49335
superintendent shall report separately the following student 49336
counts for the same weekweeks for which average daily membership 49337
is certified:49338

       (1) The total average daily membership in regular learning 49339
day classes included in the report under division (A)(1) or (2) of 49340
this section for each of the individual grades kindergarten 49341
through twelve in schools under the superintendent's supervision;49342

       (2) The number of all preschool children with disabilities 49343
enrolled as of the first day of December in classes in the 49344
district that arefor whom the district is eligible for approval49345
to receive funding under division (B) of section 3317.053317.021349346
of the Revised Code and the number of those classes, which shall 49347
be reported not later than the fifteenth day of December, in 49348
accordance with rules adopted under thatthe disability categories 49349
prescribed in section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;49350

       (3) The number of children entitled to attend school in the 49351
district pursuant to section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised 49352
Code who are:49353

       (a) Participating in a pilot project scholarship program 49354
established under sections 3313.974 to 3313.979 of the Revised 49355
Code as described in division (I)(2)(a) or (b) of this section;49356

       (b) Enrolled in a college under Chapter 3365. of the Revised 49357
Code, except when the student is enrolled in the college while 49358
also enrolled in a community school pursuant to Chapter 3314. or;49359
a science, technology, engineering, and mathematics school 49360
established under Chapter 3326. of the Revised Code;49361

       (c) Enrolled in an adjacent or other school district under 49362
section 3313.98 of the Revised Code;49363

       (d) Enrolled in a community school established under Chapter 49364
3314. of the Revised Code that is not an internet- or 49365
computer-based community school as defined in section 3314.02 of 49366
the Revised Code, including any participation in a college 49367
pursuant to Chapter 3365. of the Revised Code while enrolled in 49368
such community school;49369

       (e) Enrolled in an internet- or computer-based community 49370
school, as defined in section 3314.02 of the Revised Code, 49371
including any participation in a college pursuant to Chapter 3365. 49372
of the Revised Code while enrolled in the school;49373

        (f) Enrolled in a chartered nonpublic school with a 49374
scholarship paid under section 3310.08 of the Revised Code and who 49375
qualified for the scholarship under section 3310.03 of the Revised 49376
Code;49377

       (g) Enrolled in kindergarten through grade twelve in an 49378
alternative public provider or a registered private provider with 49379
a scholarship awarded under section 3310.41 of the Revised Code;49380

        (h) Enrolled as a preschool child with a disability in an 49381
alternative public provider or a registered private provider with 49382
a scholarship awarded under section 3310.41 of the Revised Code;49383

       (i) Participating in a program operated by a county DD board 49384
or a state institution;49385

       (j) Enrolled in a science, technology, engineering, and 49386
mathematics school established under Chapter 3326. of the Revised 49387
Code, including any participation in a college pursuant to Chapter 49388
3365. of the Revised Code while enrolled in the school;49389

       (k) Enrolled in a college-preparatory boarding school 49390
established under Chapter 3328. of the Revised Code.49391

       (4) The number of pupils enrolled in joint vocational 49392
schools;49393

       (5) The combined average daily membership of children with 49394
disabilities reported under division (A)(1) or (2) of this section 49395
receiving special education services for the category one 49396
disability described in division (A) of section 3317.013 of the 49397
Revised Code, including children attending a special education 49398
program operated by an alternative public provider or a registered 49399
private provider with a scholarship awarded under sections 3310.51 49400
to 3310.64 of the Revised Code;49401

       (6) The combined average daily membership of children with 49402
disabilities reported under division (A)(1) or (2) of this section 49403
receiving special education services for category two disabilities 49404
described in division (B) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code, 49405
including children attending a special education program operated 49406
by an alternative public provider or a registered private provider 49407
with a scholarship awarded under sections 3310.51 to 3310.64 of 49408
the Revised Code;49409

       (7) The combined average daily membership of children with 49410
disabilities reported under division (A)(1) or (2) of this section 49411
receiving special education services for category three 49412
disabilities described in division (C) of section 3317.013 of the 49413
Revised Code, including children attending a special education 49414
program operated by an alternative public provider or a registered 49415
private provider with a scholarship awarded under sections 3310.51 49416
to 3310.64 of the Revised Code;49417

       (8) The combined average daily membership of children with 49418
disabilities reported under division (A)(1) or (2) of this section 49419
receiving special education services for category four 49420
disabilities described in division (D) of section 3317.013 of the 49421
Revised Code, including children attending a special education 49422
program operated by an alternative public provider or a registered 49423
private provider with a scholarship awarded under sections 3310.51 49424
to 3310.64 of the Revised Code;49425

       (9) The combined average daily membership of children with 49426
disabilities reported under division (A)(1) or (2) of this section 49427
receiving special education services for the category five 49428
disabilities described in division (E) of section 3317.013 of the 49429
Revised Code, including children attending a special education 49430
program operated by an alternative public provider or a registered 49431
private provider with a scholarship awarded under sections 3310.51 49432
to 3310.64 of the Revised Code;49433

       (10) The combined average daily membership of children with 49434
disabilities reported under division (A)(1) or (2) and under 49435
division (B)(3)(h) of this section receiving special education 49436
services for category six disabilities described in division (F) 49437
of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code, including children 49438
attending a special education program operated by an alternative 49439
public provider or a registered private provider with a 49440
scholarship awarded under either section 3310.41 or sections 49441
3310.51 to 3310.64 of the Revised Code;49442

       (11) The average daily membership of pupils reported under 49443
division (A)(1) or (2) of this section enrolled in category one 49444
vocationalcareer-technical education programs or classes, 49445
described in division (A) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code, 49446
operated by the school district or by another district, other than 49447
a joint vocational school district, or by an educational service 49448
center, excluding any student reported under division (B)(3)(e) of 49449
this section as enrolled in an internet- or computer-based 49450
community school, notwithstanding division (C)(H) of section 49451
3317.02 of the Revised Code and division (C)(3) of this section;49452

       (12) The average daily membership of pupils reported under 49453
division (A)(1) or (2) of this section enrolled in category two 49454
vocationalcareer-technical education programs or services, 49455
described in division (B) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code, 49456
operated by the school district or another school district, other 49457
than a joint vocational school district, or by an educational 49458
service center, excluding any student reported under division 49459
(B)(3)(e) of this section as enrolled in an internet- or 49460
computer-based community school, notwithstanding division (C)(H)49461
of section 3317.02 of the Revised Code and division (C)(3) of this 49462
section;49463

       Beginning with fiscal year 2010, vocational education ADM 49464
shall not be used to calculate a district's funding but shall be 49465
reported under divisions (B)(11) and (12) of this section for 49466
statistical purposes.49467

       (13) The average daily membership of pupils reported under 49468
division (A)(1) or (2) of this section enrolled in category three 49469
career-technical education programs or services, described in 49470
division (C) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code, operated by 49471
the school district or another school district, other than a joint 49472
vocational school district, or by an educational service center, 49473
excluding any student reported under division (B)(3)(e) of this 49474
section as enrolled in an internet- or computer-based community 49475
school, notwithstanding division (H) of section 3317.02 of the 49476
Revised Code and division (C)(3) of this section;49477

       (14) The average daily membership of pupils reported under 49478
division (A)(1) or (2) of this section enrolled in category four 49479
career-technical education programs or services, described in 49480
division (D) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code, operated by 49481
the school district or another school district, other than a joint 49482
vocational school district, or by an educational service center, 49483
excluding any student reported under division (B)(3)(e) of this 49484
section as enrolled in an internet- or computer-based community 49485
school, notwithstanding division (H) of section 3317.02 of the 49486
Revised Code and division (C)(3) of this section;49487

       (15) The average daily membership of pupils reported under 49488
division (A)(1) or (2) of this section enrolled in category five 49489
career-technical education programs or services, described in 49490
division (E) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code, operated by 49491
the school district or another school district, other than a joint 49492
vocational school district, or by an educational service center, 49493
excluding any student reported under division (B)(3)(e) of this 49494
section as enrolled in an internet- or computer-based community 49495
school, notwithstanding division (H) of section 3317.02 of the 49496
Revised Code and division (C)(3) of this section;49497

       (16) The average daily membership of pupils reported under 49498
division (A)(1) or (2) of this section who are limited English 49499
proficient students described in division (A) of section 3317.016 49500
of the Revised Code;49501

       (17) The average daily membership of pupils reported under 49502
division (A)(1) or (2) of this section who are limited English 49503
proficient students described in division (B) of section 3317.016 49504
of the Revised Code;49505

       (18) The average daily membership of pupils reported under 49506
division (A)(1) or (2) of this section who are limited English 49507
proficient students described in division (C) of section 3317.016 49508
of the Revised Code;49509

       (19) The average number of children transported by the school 49510
district on board-owned or contractor-owned and -operated buses, 49511
reported in accordance with rules adopted by the department of 49512
education;49513

       (14)(20)(a) The number of children, other than preschool 49514
children with disabilities, the district placed with a county DD 49515
board in fiscal year 1998;. Division (B)(20)(a) of this section 49516
does not apply after fiscal year 2013.49517

       (b) The number of children with disabilities, other than 49518
preschool children with disabilities, placed with a county DD 49519
board in the current fiscal year to receive special education 49520
services for the category one disability described in division (A) 49521
of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;49522

       (c) The number of children with disabilities, other than 49523
preschool children with disabilities, placed with a county DD 49524
board in the current fiscal year to receive special education 49525
services for category two disabilities described in division (B) 49526
of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;49527

       (d) The number of children with disabilities, other than 49528
preschool children with disabilities, placed with a county DD 49529
board in the current fiscal year to receive special education 49530
services for category three disabilities described in division (C) 49531
of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;49532

       (e) The number of children with disabilities, other than 49533
preschool children with disabilities, placed with a county DD 49534
board in the current fiscal year to receive special education 49535
services for category four disabilities described in division (D) 49536
of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;49537

       (f) The number of children with disabilities, other than 49538
preschool children with disabilities, placed with a county DD 49539
board in the current fiscal year to receive special education 49540
services for the category five disabilities described in division 49541
(E) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;49542

       (g) The number of children with disabilities, other than 49543
preschool children with disabilities, placed with a county DD 49544
board in the current fiscal year to receive special education 49545
services for category six disabilities described in division (F) 49546
of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code.49547

       (21) The number of students who are economically 49548
disadvantaged, as defined by the department. A student shall not 49549
be categorically excluded from the number reported under division 49550
(B)(21) of this section based on anything other than family 49551
income.49552

       (C)(1) The average daily membership in divisions (B)(1) to 49553
(12) of this section shall be based upon the number of full-time 49554
equivalent students. The state board of education shall adopt 49555
rules defining full-time equivalent students and for determining 49556
the average daily membership therefrom for the purposes of 49557
divisions (A), (B), and (D) of this section. Each student enrolled 49558
in kindergarten shall be counted as one full-time equivalent 49559
student regardless of whether the student is enrolled in a 49560
part-day or all-day kindergarten class.49561

       (2) A student enrolled in a community school established 49562
under Chapter 3314., a science, technology, engineering, and 49563
mathematics school established under Chapter 3326., or a 49564
college-preparatory boarding school established under Chapter 49565
3328. of the Revised Code shall be counted in the formula ADM and, 49566
if applicable, the category one, two, three, four, five, or six 49567
special education ADM of the school district in which the student 49568
is entitled to attend school under section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of 49569
the Revised Code for the same proportion of the school year that 49570
the student is counted in the enrollment of the community school, 49571
the science, technology, engineering, and mathematics school, or 49572
the college-preparatory boarding school for purposes of section 49573
3314.08, 3326.33, or 3328.24 of the Revised Code. Notwithstanding 49574
the number of students reported pursuant to division (B)(3)(d), 49575
(e), (j), or (k) of this section, the department may adjust the 49576
formula ADM of a school district to account for students entitled 49577
to attend school in the district under section 3313.64 or 3313.65 49578
of the Revised Code who are enrolled in a community school, a 49579
science, technology, engineering, and mathematics school, or a 49580
college-preparatory boarding school for only a portion of the 49581
school year.49582

        (3) No child shall be counted as more than a total of one 49583
child in the sum of the average daily memberships of a school 49584
district under division (A), divisions (B)(1) to (12)(22), or 49585
division (D) of this section, except as follows:49586

       (a) A child with a disability described in section 3317.013 49587
of the Revised Code may be counted both in formula ADM and in 49588
category one, two, three, four, five, or six special education ADM 49589
and, if applicable, in category one or two vocational49590
career-technical education ADM. As provided in division (C)(H) of 49591
section 3317.02 of the Revised Code, such a child shall be counted 49592
in category one, two, three, four, five, or six special education 49593
ADM in the same proportion that the child is counted in formula 49594
ADM.49595

       (b) A child enrolled in vocationalcareer-technical education 49596
programs or classes described in section 3317.014 of the Revised 49597
Code may be counted both in formula ADM and category one or, two 49598
vocational, three, four, or five career-technical education ADM 49599
and, if applicable, in category one, two, three, four, five, or 49600
six special education ADM. Such a child shall be counted in 49601
category one or, two vocational, three, four, or five 49602
career-technical education ADM in the same proportion as the 49603
percentage of time that the child spends in the vocational49604
career-technical education programs or classes.49605

       (4) Based on the information reported under this section, the 49606
department of education shall determine the total student count, 49607
as defined in section 3301.011 of the Revised Code, for each 49608
school district.49609

       (D)(1) The superintendent of each joint vocational school 49610
district shall certify to the superintendent of public instruction 49611
on or before the fifteenth day of October in each yearmonth for 49612
the first full school week in October the formula ADM, for 49613
purposes of section 3318.42 of the Revised Code and for any other 49614
purpose prescribed by law for which "formula ADM" of the joint 49615
vocational district is a factorof that month the average daily 49616
membership. If a school operated by the joint vocational school 49617
district is closed for one or more days during thata week for 49618
which the average daily membership must be certified due to 49619
hazardous weather conditions or other circumstances described in 49620
the first paragraph of division (B)(A)(1) of section 3317.0149621
3313.482 of the Revised Code, the superintendent may apply to the 49622
superintendent of public instruction for a waiver, under which the 49623
superintendent of public instruction may exempt the district 49624
superintendent from certifying the formula ADMaverage daily 49625
membership for that school for that week and specify an alternate 49626
week in the same month for certifying the formula ADMaverage 49627
daily membership of that school.49628

       The formula ADMaverage daily membership, except as otherwise 49629
provided in this division, shall consist of the average daily 49630
membership during sucha week, on an FTE basis, of the number of 49631
students receiving any educational services from the district, 49632
including students enrolled in a community school established 49633
under Chapter 3314. or a science, technology, engineering, and 49634
mathematics school established under Chapter 3326. of the Revised 49635
Code who are attending the joint vocational district under an 49636
agreement between the district board of education and the 49637
governing authority of the community school or the governing body 49638
of the science, technology, engineering, and mathematics school49639
and are entitled to attend school in a city, local, or exempted 49640
village school district whose territory is part of the territory 49641
of the joint vocational district.49642

        The following categories of students shall not be included in 49643
the determination made under division (D)(1) of this section:49644

       (a) Students enrolled in adult education classes;49645

       (b) Adjacent or other district joint vocational students 49646
enrolled in the district under an open enrollment policy pursuant 49647
to section 3313.98 of the Revised Code;49648

       (c) Students receiving services in the district pursuant to a 49649
compact, cooperative education agreement, or a contract, but who 49650
are entitled to attend school in a city, local, or exempted 49651
village school district whose territory is not part of the 49652
territory of the joint vocational district;49653

       (d) Students for whom tuition is payable pursuant to sections 49654
3317.081 and 3323.141 of the Revised Code.49655

       (2) To enable the department of education to obtain the data 49656
needed to complete the calculation of payments pursuant to this 49657
chapter, in addition to the formula ADM, each superintendent shall 49658
report separately the average daily membership included in the 49659
report under division (D)(1) of this section for each of the 49660
following categories of students for each of the same weekweeks49661
for which formula ADM is certified:49662

       (a) Students enrolled in each individual grade included in 49663
the joint vocational district schools;49664

       (b) Children with disabilities receiving special education 49665
services for the category one disability described in division (A) 49666
of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;49667

       (c) Children with disabilities receiving special education 49668
services for the category two disabilities described in division 49669
(B) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;49670

       (d) Children with disabilities receiving special education 49671
services for category three disabilities described in division (C) 49672
of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;49673

       (e) Children with disabilities receiving special education 49674
services for category four disabilities described in division (D) 49675
of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;49676

       (f) Children with disabilities receiving special education 49677
services for the category five disabilities described in division 49678
(E) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;49679

       (g) Children with disabilities receiving special education 49680
services for category six disabilities described in division (F) 49681
of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;49682

       (h) Students receiving category one vocational49683
career-technical education services, described in division (A) of 49684
section 3317.014 of the Revised Code;49685

       (i) Students receiving category two vocational49686
career-technical education services, described in division (B) of 49687
section 3317.014 of the Revised Code;49688

       (j) Students receiving category three career-technical 49689
education services, described in division (C) of section 3317.014 49690
of the Revised Code;49691

       (k) Students receiving category four career-technical 49692
education services, described in division (D) of section 3317.014 49693
of the Revised Code;49694

       (l) Students receiving category five career-technical 49695
education services, described in division (E) of section 3317.014 49696
of the Revised Code;49697

       (m) Limited English proficient students described in division 49698
(A) of section 3317.016 of the Revised Code;49699

       (n) Limited English proficient students described in division 49700
(B) of section 3317.016 of the Revised Code;49701

       (o) Limited English proficient students described in division 49702
(C) of section 3317.016 of the Revised Code;49703

       (p) Students who are economically disadvantaged, as defined 49704
by the department. A student shall not be categorically excluded 49705
from the number reported under division (D)(2)(p) of this section 49706
based on anything other than family income.49707

       The superintendent of each joint vocational school district 49708
shall also indicate the city, local, or exempted village school 49709
district in which each joint vocational district pupil is entitled 49710
to attend school pursuant to section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the 49711
Revised Code.49712

       (E) In each school of each city, local, exempted village, 49713
joint vocational, and cooperative education school district there 49714
shall be maintained a record of school membership, which record 49715
shall accurately show, for each day the school is in session, the 49716
actual membership enrolled in regular day classes. For the purpose 49717
of determining average daily membership, the membership figure of 49718
any school shall not include any pupils except those pupils 49719
described by division (A) of this section. The record of 49720
membership for each school shall be maintained in such manner that 49721
no pupil shall be counted as in membership prior to the actual 49722
date of entry in the school and also in such manner that where for 49723
any cause a pupil permanently withdraws from the school that pupil 49724
shall not be counted as in membership from and after the date of 49725
such withdrawal. There shall not be included in the membership of 49726
any school any of the following:49727

       (1) Any pupil who has graduated from the twelfth grade of a 49728
public or nonpublic high school;49729

       (2) Any pupil who is not a resident of the state;49730

       (3) Any pupil who was enrolled in the schools of the district 49731
during the previous school year when assessments were administered 49732
under section 3301.0711 of the Revised Code but did not take one 49733
or more of the assessments required by that section and was not 49734
excused pursuant to division (C)(1) or (3) of that section;49735

       (4) Any pupil who has attained the age of twenty-two years, 49736
except for veterans of the armed services whose attendance was 49737
interrupted before completing the recognized twelve-year course of 49738
the public schools by reason of induction or enlistment in the 49739
armed forces and who apply for reenrollment in the public school 49740
system of their residence not later than four years after 49741
termination of war or their honorable discharge.49742

       If, however, any veteran described by division (E)(4) of this 49743
section elects to enroll in special courses organized for veterans 49744
for whom tuition is paid under the provisions of federal laws, or 49745
otherwise, that veteran shall not be included in average daily 49746
membership.49747

       Notwithstanding division (E)(3) of this section, the 49748
membership of any school may include a pupil who did not take an 49749
assessment required by section 3301.0711 of the Revised Code if 49750
the superintendent of public instruction grants a waiver from the 49751
requirement to take the assessment to the specific pupil and a 49752
parent is not paying tuition for the pupil pursuant to section 49753
3313.6410 of the Revised Code. The superintendent may grant such a 49754
waiver only for good cause in accordance with rules adopted by the 49755
state board of education.49756

       Except as provided in divisions (B)(2) and (F) of this 49757
section, the average daily membership figure of any local, city, 49758
exempted village, or joint vocational school district shall be 49759
determined by dividing the figure representing the sum of the 49760
number of pupils enrolled during each day the school of attendance 49761
is actually open for instruction during the week for which the 49762
average daily membership is being certified by the total number of 49763
days the school was actually open for instruction during that 49764
week. For purposes of state funding, "enrolled" persons are only 49765
those pupils who are attending school, those who have attended 49766
school during the current school year and are absent for 49767
authorized reasons, and those children with disabilities currently 49768
receiving home instruction.49769

       The average daily membership figure of any cooperative 49770
education school district shall be determined in accordance with 49771
rules adopted by the state board of education.49772

       (F)(1) If the formula ADM for the first full school week in 49773
February is at least three per cent greater than that certified 49774
for the first full school week in the preceding October, the 49775
superintendent of schools of any city, exempted village, or joint 49776
vocational school district or educational service center shall 49777
certify such increase to the superintendent of public instruction. 49778
Such certification shall be submitted no later than the fifteenth 49779
day of February. For the balance of the fiscal year, beginning 49780
with the February payments, the superintendent of public 49781
instruction shall use the increased formula ADM in calculating or 49782
recalculating the amounts to be allocated in accordance with 49783
section 3317.022 or 3317.16 of the Revised Code. In no event shall 49784
the superintendent use an increased membership certified to the 49785
superintendent after the fifteenth day of February. Division 49786
(F)(1) of this section does not apply after fiscal year 2006.49787

       (2) If on the first school day of April the total number of 49788
classes or units for preschool children with disabilities that are 49789
eligible for approval under division (B) of section 3317.05 of the 49790
Revised Code exceeds the number of units that have been approved 49791
for the year under that division, the superintendent of schools of 49792
any city, exempted village, or cooperative education school 49793
district or educational service center shall make the 49794
certifications required by this section for that day. If the 49795
department determines additional units can be approved for the 49796
fiscal year within any limitations set forth in the acts 49797
appropriating moneys for the funding of such units, the department 49798
shall approve additional units for the fiscal year on the basis of 49799
such average daily membership. For each unit so approved, the 49800
department shall pay an amount computed in the manner prescribed 49801
in section 3317.052 or 3317.19 and section 3317.053 of the Revised 49802
Code.49803

       (3) If a student attending a community school under Chapter 49804
3314., a science, technology, engineering, and mathematics school 49805
established under Chapter 3326., or a college-preparatory boarding 49806
school established under Chapter 3328. of the Revised Code is not 49807
included in the formula ADM certified for the school district in 49808
which the student is entitled to attend school under section 49809
3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised Code, the department of 49810
education shall adjust the formula ADM of that school district to 49811
include the student in accordance with division (C)(2) of this 49812
section, and shall recalculate the school district's payments 49813
under this chapter for the entire fiscal year on the basis of that 49814
adjusted formula ADM. This requirement applies regardless of 49815
whether the student was enrolled, as defined in division (E) of 49816
this section, in the community school, the science, technology, 49817
engineering, and mathematics school, or the college-preparatory 49818
boarding school during the weekweeks for which the formula ADM is 49819
being certified.49820

        (4)(2) If a student awarded an educational choice scholarship 49821
is not included in the formula ADM of the school district from 49822
which the department deducts funds for the scholarship under 49823
section 3310.08 of the Revised Code, the department shall adjust 49824
the formula ADM of that school district to include the student to 49825
the extent necessary to account for the deduction, and shall 49826
recalculate the school district's payments under this chapter for 49827
the entire fiscal year on the basis of that adjusted formula ADM. 49828
This requirement applies regardless of whether the student was 49829
enrolled, as defined in division (E) of this section, in the 49830
chartered nonpublic school, the school district, or a community 49831
school during the weekweeks for which the formula ADM is being 49832
certified.49833

       (5)(3) If a student awarded a scholarship under the Jon 49834
Peterson special needs scholarship program is not included in the 49835
formula ADM of the school district from which the department 49836
deducts funds for the scholarship under section 3310.55 of the 49837
Revised Code, the department shall adjust the formula ADM of that 49838
school district to include the student to the extent necessary to 49839
account for the deduction, and shall recalculate the school 49840
district's payments under this chapter for the entire fiscal year 49841
on the basis of that adjusted formula ADM. This requirement 49842
applies regardless of whether the student was enrolled, as defined 49843
in division (E) of this section, in an alternative public 49844
provider, a registered private provider, or the school district 49845
during the weekweeks for which the formula ADM is being 49846
certified. 49847

       (G)(1)(a) The superintendent of an institution operating a 49848
special education program pursuant to section 3323.091 of the 49849
Revised Code shall, for the programs under such superintendent's 49850
supervision, certify to the state board of education, in the 49851
manner prescribed by the superintendent of public instruction, 49852
both of the following:49853

       (i) The average daily membership of all children with 49854
disabilities other than preschool children with disabilities 49855
receiving services at the institution for each category of 49856
disability described in divisions (A) to (F) of section 3317.013 49857
of the Revised Code;49858

       (ii) The average daily membership of all preschool children 49859
with disabilities in classes or programs approved annually by the 49860
department of education for unitfor whom the district is eligible 49861
to receive funding under section 3317.053317.0213 of the Revised 49862
Code, reported according to the categories prescribed in section 49863
3317.013 of the Revised Code.49864

       (b) The superintendent of an institution with vocational49865
career-technical education units approved under division (A) of49866
section 3317.05 of the Revised Code shall, for the units under the 49867
superintendent's supervision, certify to the state board of 49868
education the average daily membership in those units, in the 49869
manner prescribed by the superintendent of public instruction.49870

       (2) The superintendent of each county DD board that maintains 49871
special education classes under section 3317.20 of the Revised 49872
Code or units approvedprovides services to preschool children 49873
with disabilities pursuant to section 3317.05 of the Revised Code49874
an agreement between the DD board and the appropriate school 49875
district shall do both of the following:49876

       (a) Certify to the state board, in the manner prescribed by 49877
the board, the average daily membership in classes under section 49878
3317.20 of the Revised Code for each school district that has 49879
placed children in the classes;49880

       (b) Certify to the state board, in the manner prescribed by 49881
the board, the number of all preschool children with disabilities 49882
enrolled as of the first day of December in classes for which the 49883
DD board is eligible for approvalto receive funding under 49884
division (B) of section 3317.053317.0213 of the Revised Code, 49885
reported according to the categories prescribed in section 49886
3317.013 of the Revised Code, and the number of those classes.49887

       (3)(a) If on the first school day of April the number of 49888
classes or units maintained for preschool children with 49889
disabilities by the county DD board that are eligible for approval 49890
under division (B) of section 3317.05 of the Revised Code is 49891
greater than the number of units approved for the year under that 49892
division, the superintendent shall make the certification required 49893
by this section for that day.49894

       (b) If the department determines that additional classes or 49895
units can be approved for the fiscal year within any limitations 49896
set forth in the acts appropriating moneys for the funding of the 49897
classes and units described in division (G)(3)(a) of this section, 49898
the department shall approve and fund additional units for the 49899
fiscal year on the basis of such average daily membership. For 49900
each unit so approved, the department shall pay an amount computed 49901
in the manner prescribed in sections 3317.052 and 3317.053 of the 49902
Revised Code.49903

       (H) Except as provided in division (I) of this section, when 49904
any city, local, or exempted village school district provides 49905
instruction for a nonresident pupil whose attendance is 49906
unauthorized attendance as defined in section 3327.06 of the 49907
Revised Code, that pupil's membership shall not be included in 49908
that district's membership figure used in the calculation of that 49909
district's formula ADM or included in the determination of any 49910
unitfunding approved for the district under section 3317.0549911
3317.0213 of the Revised Code. The reporting official shall report 49912
separately the average daily membership of all pupils whose 49913
attendance in the district is unauthorized attendance, and the 49914
membership of each such pupil shall be credited to the school 49915
district in which the pupil is entitled to attend school under 49916
division (B) of section 3313.64 or section 3313.65 of the Revised 49917
Code as determined by the department of education.49918

       (I)(1) A city, local, exempted village, or joint vocational 49919
school district admitting a scholarship student of a pilot project 49920
district pursuant to division (C) of section 3313.976 of the 49921
Revised Code may count such student in its average daily 49922
membership.49923

       (2) In any year for which funds are appropriated for pilot 49924
project scholarship programs, a school district implementing a 49925
state-sponsored pilot project scholarship program that year 49926
pursuant to sections 3313.974 to 3313.979 of the Revised Code may 49927
count in average daily membership:49928

       (a) All children residing in the district and utilizing a 49929
scholarship to attend kindergarten in any alternative school, as 49930
defined in section 3313.974 of the Revised Code;49931

       (b) All children who were enrolled in the district in the 49932
preceding year who are utilizing a scholarship to attend an 49933
alternative school.49934

       (J) The superintendent of each cooperative education school 49935
district shall certify to the superintendent of public 49936
instruction, in a manner prescribed by the state board of 49937
education, the applicable average daily memberships for all 49938
students in the cooperative education district, also indicating 49939
the city, local, or exempted village district where each pupil is 49940
entitled to attend school under section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the 49941
Revised Code.49942

       (K) If the superintendent of public instruction determines 49943
that a component of the average daily membership certified or 49944
reported by a district superintendent, or other reporting entity, 49945
is not correct, the superintendent of public instruction may order 49946
that the formula ADM used for the purposes of payments under any 49947
section of Title XXXIII of the Revised Code be adjusted in the 49948
amount of the error.49949

       Sec. 3317.032. (A) Each city, local, exempted village, and 49950
cooperative education school district, each educational service 49951
center, each county DD board, and each institution operating a 49952
special education program pursuant to section 3323.091 of the 49953
Revised Code shall, in accordance with procedures adopted by the 49954
state board of education, maintain a record of district membership 49955
of both of the following:49956

       (1) All preschool children with disabilities in units 49957
approved under division (B) of section 3317.05 of the Revised 49958
Code; 49959

       (2) Allall preschool children with disabilities who are not 49960
in units approved under division (B) of section 3317.05 of the 49961
Revised Code but who are otherwise served by a special education 49962
program.49963

       (B) The superintendent of each district, board, or 49964
institution subject to division (A) of this section shall certify 49965
to the state board of education, in accordance with procedures 49966
adopted by that board, membership figures of all preschool 49967
children with disabilities whose membership is maintained under 49968
division (A)(2) of this section. The figures certified under this 49969
division shall be used in the determination of the ADM used to 49970
compute funds for educational service center governing boards 49971
under section 3317.11 of the Revised Code.49972

       Sec. 3317.05.  (A) For the purpose of calculating payments 49973
under sections 3317.052 and 3317.053 of the Revised Code, theThe49974
department of education shall determine for each institution, by 49975
the last day of January of each year and based on information 49976
certified under section 3317.03 of the Revised Code, the number of 49977
vocationalcareer-technical education units or fractions of units 49978
approved by the department on the basis of standards and rules 49979
adopted by the state board of education. As used in this division49980
section, "institution" means an institution operated by a 49981
department specified in section 3323.091 of the Revised Code and 49982
that provides vocationalcareer-technical education programs under 49983
the supervision of the division of vocationalcareer-technical49984
education of the department that meet the standards and rules for 49985
these programs, including licensure of professional staff involved 49986
in the programs, as established by the state board.49987

       (B) For the purpose of calculating payments under sections 49988
3317.052, 3317.053, 3317.11, and 3317.19 of the Revised Code, the 49989
department shall determine, based on information certified under 49990
section 3317.03 of the Revised Code, the following by the last day 49991
of January of each year for each educational service center, for 49992
each school district, including each cooperative education school 49993
district, for each institution eligible for payment under section 49994
3323.091 of the Revised Code, and for each county DD board: the 49995
number of classes operated by the school district, service center, 49996
institution, or county DD board for preschool children with 49997
disabilities, or fraction thereof, including in the case of a 49998
district or service center that is a funding agent, classes taught 49999
by a licensed teacher employed by that district or service center 50000
under section 3313.841 of the Revised Code, approved annually by 50001
the department on the basis of standards and rules adopted by the 50002
state board.50003

       (C) For the purpose of calculating payments under sections 50004
3317.052, 3317.053, 3317.11, and 3317.19 of the Revised Code, the 50005
department shall determine, based on information certified under 50006
section 3317.03 of the Revised Code, the following by the last day 50007
of January of each year for each school district, including each 50008
cooperative education school district, for each institution 50009
eligible for payment under section 3323.091 of the Revised Code, 50010
and for each county DD board: the number of units for related 50011
services, as defined in section 3323.01 of the Revised Code, for 50012
preschool children with disabilities approved annually by the 50013
department on the basis of standards and rules adopted by the 50014
state board.50015

       (D) All of the arithmetical calculations made under this 50016
section shall be carried to the second decimal place. The total 50017
number of units for school districts, service centers, and50018
institutions approved annually under this section shall not exceed 50019
the number of units included in the estimate of cost for these 50020
units and appropriations made for them by the general assembly.50021

        In the case of units for preschool children with disabilities 50022
described in division (B) of this section, the department shall 50023
approve only preschool units for children who are under age six on 50024
the thirtieth day of September of the academic year, or on the 50025
first day of August of the academic year if the school district in 50026
which the child is enrolled has adopted a resolution under 50027
division (A)(3) of section 3321.01 of the Revised Code, but not 50028
less than age three on the first day of December of the academic 50029
year, except that such a unit may include one or more children who 50030
are under age three or are age six or over on the applicable date, 50031
as reported under division (B)(2) or (G)(2)(b) of section 3317.03 50032
of the Revised Code, if such children have been admitted to the 50033
unit pursuant to rules of the state board. The number of units for 50034
county DD boards and institutions eligible for payment under 50035
section 3323.091 of the Revised Code approved under this section 50036
shall not exceed the number that can be funded with appropriations 50037
made for such purposes by the general assembly.50038

       No unit shall be approved under divisions (B) and (C) of this 50039
section unless a plan has been submitted and approved under 50040
Chapter 3323. of the Revised Code.50041

       (C) The department shall pay each institution approved for 50042
career-technical education units under division (A) of this 50043
section an amount for the total of all the units approved under 50044
that division. The amount for each unit shall be the sum of the 50045
minimum salary for the teacher of the unit, calculated on the 50046
basis of the teacher's training level and years of experience 50047
pursuant to the salary schedule prescribed in the version of 50048
section 3317.13 of the Revised Code in effect prior to July 1, 50049
2001, plus fifteen per cent of that minimum salary amount, and 50050
nine thousand five hundred ten dollars. Each institution that 50051
receives unit funds under this division annually shall report to 50052
the department on the delivery of services and the performance of 50053
students and any other information required by the department to 50054
evaluate the institution's career-technical education program.50055

       (D) For each unit allocated to an institution pursuant to 50056
division (A) of this section, the department, in addition to the 50057
amount specified in division (B) of this section, shall pay a 50058
supplemental unit allowance of $7,227.50059

       Sec. 3317.051.  (A) As used in this section, "gifted unit 50060
ADM" means a school district's formula ADM minus the number of 50061
students reported by a district under divisions (A)(2)(a) and (i) 50062
of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code.50063

       (B) The department of education shall compute and pay to a 50064
school district funds based on units for services to students 50065
identified as gifted under Chapter 3324. of the Revised Code as 50066
prescribed by this section.50067

       (C) The department shall allocate gifted units for a school 50068
district as follows:50069

       (1) One gifted coordinator unit shall be allocated for every 50070
3,300 students in a district's gifted unit ADM, with a minimum of 50071
0.5 units and a maximum of 8 units allocated for the district.50072

       (2) One gifted intervention specialist unit shall be 50073
allocated for every 1,100 students in a district's gifted unit 50074
ADM, with a minimum of 0.3 units allocated for the district.50075

       (D) The department shall pay the following amount to a school 50076
district for gifted units:50077

       (1) In fiscal year 2014, $37,000 multiplied by the number of 50078
units allocated to a school district under division (C) of this 50079
section;50080

       (2) In fiscal year 2015, $37,370 multiplied by the number of 50081
units allocated to a school district under division (C) of this 50082
section.50083

       A school district shall use the funds it receives for units 50084
allocated under division (C)(1) of this section only for gifted 50085
coordinator services as prescribed by the department. Qualified 50086
personnel shall be employed by the district for this purpose on a 50087
full-time equivalency basis that corresponds to the number of 50088
units allocated to the district under division (C)(1) of this 50089
section.50090

       A school district shall use the funds it receives for units 50091
allocated under division (C)(2) of this section only for gifted 50092
intervention specialist services as prescribed by the department. 50093
Qualified personnel shall be employed by the district for this 50094
purpose on a full-time equivalency basis that corresponds to the 50095
number of units allocated to the district under division (C)(2) of 50096
this section.50097

       (E) A school district may assign gifted unit funding that it 50098
receives under division (D) of this section to another school 50099
district, an educational service center, a community school, or a 50100
STEM school as part of an arrangement to provide services to the 50101
district as follows:50102

       (1) Funds received for units allocated under division (C)(1) 50103
of this section may be assigned to a district, service center, or 50104
school that employs qualified gifted coordinators;50105

       (2) Funds received for units allocated under division (C)(2) 50106
of this section may be assigned to a district, service center, or 50107
school that employs qualified gifted intervention specialists.50108

       Sec. 3317.06.  Moneys paid to school districts under division 50109
(E) of section 3317.024 of the Revised Code shall be used for the 50110
following independent and fully severable purposes:50111

       (A) To purchase such secular textbooks or electronic 50112
textbooksdigital texts as have been approved by the 50113
superintendent of public instruction for use in public schools in 50114
the state and to loan such textbooks or electronic textbooks50115
digital texts to pupils attending nonpublic schools within the 50116
district or to their parents and to hire clerical personnel to 50117
administer such lending program. Such loans shall be based upon 50118
individual requests submitted by such nonpublic school pupils or 50119
parents. Such requests shall be submitted to the school district 50120
in which the nonpublic school is located. Such individual requests 50121
for the loan of textbooks or electronic textbooksdigital texts50122
shall, for administrative convenience, be submitted by the 50123
nonpublic school pupil or the pupil's parent to the nonpublic 50124
school, which shall prepare and submit collective summaries of the 50125
individual requests to the school district. As used in this 50126
section:50127

       (1) "Textbook" means any book or book substitute that a pupil 50128
uses as a consumable or nonconsumable text, text substitute, or 50129
text supplement in a particular class or program in the school the 50130
pupil regularly attends.50131

       (2) "Electronic textbook""Digital text" means anya 50132
consumable book or book substitute that a student accesses through 50133
the use of a computer or other electronic medium or that is 50134
available through an internet-based provider of course content, or 50135
any other material that contributes to the learning process 50136
through electronic means.50137

       (B) To provide speech and hearing diagnostic services to 50138
pupils attending nonpublic schools within the district. Such 50139
service shall be provided in the nonpublic school attended by the 50140
pupil receiving the service.50141

       (C) To provide physician, nursing, dental, and optometric 50142
services to pupils attending nonpublic schools within the 50143
district. Such services shall be provided in the school attended 50144
by the nonpublic school pupil receiving the service.50145

       (D) To provide diagnostic psychological services to pupils 50146
attending nonpublic schools within the district. Such services 50147
shall be provided in the school attended by the pupil receiving 50148
the service.50149

       (E) To provide therapeutic psychological and speech and 50150
hearing services to pupils attending nonpublic schools within the 50151
district. Such services shall be provided in the public school, in 50152
nonpublic schools, in public centers, or in mobile units located 50153
on or off of the nonpublic premises. If such services are provided 50154
in the public school or in public centers, transportation to and 50155
from such facilities shall be provided by the school district in 50156
which the nonpublic school is located.50157

       (F) To provide guidance, counseling, and social work services 50158
to pupils attending nonpublic schools within the district. Such 50159
services shall be provided in the public school, in nonpublic 50160
schools, in public centers, or in mobile units located on or off 50161
of the nonpublic premises. If such services are provided in the 50162
public school or in public centers, transportation to and from 50163
such facilities shall be provided by the school district in which 50164
the nonpublic school is located.50165

       (G) To provide remedial services to pupils attending 50166
nonpublic schools within the district. Such services shall be 50167
provided in the public school, in nonpublic schools, in public 50168
centers, or in mobile units located on or off of the nonpublic 50169
premises. If such services are provided in the public school or in 50170
public centers, transportation to and from such facilities shall 50171
be provided by the school district in which the nonpublic school 50172
is located.50173

       (H) To supply for use by pupils attending nonpublic schools 50174
within the district such standardized tests and scoring services 50175
as are in use in the public schools of the state;50176

       (I) To provide programs for children who attend nonpublic 50177
schools within the district and are children with disabilities as 50178
defined in section 3323.01 of the Revised Code or gifted children. 50179
Such programs shall be provided in the public school, in nonpublic 50180
schools, in public centers, or in mobile units located on or off 50181
of the nonpublic premises. If such programs are provided in the 50182
public school or in public centers, transportation to and from 50183
such facilities shall be provided by the school district in which 50184
the nonpublic school is located.50185

       (J) To hire clerical personnel to assist in the 50186
administration of programs pursuant to divisions (B), (C), (D), 50187
(E), (F), (G), and (I) of this section and to hire supervisory 50188
personnel to supervise the providing of services and textbooks 50189
pursuant to this section.50190

       (K) To purchase or lease any secular, neutral, and 50191
nonideological computer application software designed to assist 50192
students in performing a single task or multiple related tasks, 50193
device management software, learning management software, 50194
site-licensing, digital video on demand (DVD), wide area 50195
connectivity and related technology as it relates to internet 50196
access, mathematics or science equipment and materials, 50197
instructional materials, and school library materials that are in 50198
general use in the public schools of the state and loan such items 50199
to pupils attending nonpublic schools within the district or to 50200
their parents, and to hire clerical personnel to administer the 50201
lending program. Only such items that are incapable of diversion 50202
to religious use and that are susceptible of loan to individual 50203
pupils and are furnished for the use of individual pupils shall be 50204
purchased and loaned under this division. As used in this section, 50205
"instructional materials" means prepared learning materials that 50206
are secular, neutral, and nonideological in character and are of 50207
benefit to the instruction of school children, and may include 50208
educational resources and services developed by the eTech Ohio 50209
commission.50210

       Mobile applications that are secular, neutral, and 50211
nonideological in character and that are purchased for less than 50212
ten dollars for instructional use shall be considered to be 50213
consumable and shall be distributed to students without the 50214
expectation that the applications must be returned.50215

       (L) To purchase or lease instructional equipment, including 50216
computer hardware and related equipment in general use in the 50217
public schools of the state, for use by pupils attending nonpublic 50218
schools within the district and to loan such items to pupils 50219
attending nonpublic schools within the district or to their 50220
parents, and to hire clerical personnel to administer the lending 50221
program. "Computer hardware and related equipment" includes 50222
desktop computers and workstations; laptop computers, computer 50223
tablets, and other mobile handheld devices; and their operating 50224
systems and accessories.50225

       (M) To purchase mobile units to be used for the provision of 50226
services pursuant to divisions (E), (F), (G), and (I) of this 50227
section and to pay for necessary repairs and operating costs 50228
associated with these units.50229

       (N) To reimburse costs the district incurred to store the 50230
records of a chartered nonpublic school that closes. 50231
Reimbursements under this division shall be made one time only for 50232
each chartered nonpublic school that closes.50233

       (O) To purchase life-saving medical or other emergency 50234
equipment for placement in nonpublic schools within the district 50235
or to maintain such equipment.50236

       Clerical and supervisory personnel hired pursuant to division 50237
(J) of this section shall perform their services in the public 50238
schools, in nonpublic schools, public centers, or mobile units 50239
where the services are provided to the nonpublic school pupil, 50240
except that such personnel may accompany pupils to and from the 50241
service sites when necessary to ensure the safety of the children 50242
receiving the services.50243

       All services provided pursuant to this section may be 50244
provided under contract with educational service centers, the 50245
department of health, city or general health districts, or private 50246
agencies whose personnel are properly licensed by an appropriate 50247
state board or agency.50248

       Transportation of pupils provided pursuant to divisions (E), 50249
(F), (G), and (I) of this section shall be provided by the school 50250
district from its general funds and not from moneys paid to it 50251
under division (E) of section 3317.024 of the Revised Code unless 50252
a special transportation request is submitted by the parent of the 50253
child receiving service pursuant to such divisions. If such an 50254
application is presented to the school district, it may pay for 50255
the transportation from moneys paid to it under division (E) of 50256
section 3317.024 of the Revised Code.50257

       No school district shall provide health or remedial services 50258
to nonpublic school pupils as authorized by this section unless 50259
such services are available to pupils attending the public schools 50260
within the district.50261

       Materials, equipment, computer hardware or software, 50262
textbooks, electronic textbooksdigital texts, and health and 50263
remedial services provided for the benefit of nonpublic school 50264
pupils pursuant to this section and the admission of pupils to 50265
such nonpublic schools shall be provided without distinction as to 50266
race, creed, color, or national origin of such pupils or of their 50267
teachers.50268

       No school district shall provide services, materials, or 50269
equipment that contain religious content for use in religious 50270
courses, devotional exercises, religious training, or any other 50271
religious activity.50272

       As used in this section, "parent" includes a person standing 50273
in loco parentis to a child.50274

       Notwithstanding section 3317.01 of the Revised Code, payments 50275
shall be made under this section to any city, local, or exempted 50276
village school district within which is located one or more 50277
nonpublic elementary or high schools and any payments made to 50278
school districts under division (E) of section 3317.024 of the 50279
Revised Code for purposes of this section may be disbursed without 50280
submission to and approval of the controlling board.50281

       The allocation of payments for materials, equipment, 50282
textbooks, electronic textbooksdigital texts, health services, 50283
and remedial services to city, local, and exempted village school 50284
districts shall be on the basis of the state board of education's 50285
estimated annual average daily membership in nonpublic elementary 50286
and high schools located in the district.50287

       Payments made to city, local, and exempted village school 50288
districts under this section shall be equal to specific 50289
appropriations made for the purpose. All interest earned by a 50290
school district on such payments shall be used by the district for 50291
the same purposes and in the same manner as the payments may be 50292
used.50293

       The department of education shall adopt guidelines and 50294
procedures under which such programs and services shall be 50295
provided, under which districts shall be reimbursed for 50296
administrative costs incurred in providing such programs and 50297
services, and under which any unexpended balance of the amounts 50298
appropriated by the general assembly to implement this section may 50299
be transferred to the auxiliary services personnel unemployment 50300
compensation fund established pursuant to section 4141.47 of the 50301
Revised Code. The department shall also adopt guidelines and 50302
procedures limiting the purchase and loan of the items described 50303
in division (K) of this section to items that are in general use 50304
in the public schools of the state, that are incapable of 50305
diversion to religious use, and that are susceptible to individual 50306
use rather than classroom use. Within thirty days after the end of 50307
each biennium, each board of education shall remit to the 50308
department all moneys paid to it under division (E) of section 50309
3317.024 of the Revised Code and any interest earned on those 50310
moneys that are not required to pay expenses incurred under this 50311
section during the biennium for which the money was appropriated 50312
and during which the interest was earned. If a board of education 50313
subsequently determines that the remittal of moneys leaves the 50314
board with insufficient money to pay all valid expenses incurred 50315
under this section during the biennium for which the remitted 50316
money was appropriated, the board may apply to the department of 50317
education for a refund of money, not to exceed the amount of the 50318
insufficiency. If the department determines the expenses were 50319
lawfully incurred and would have been lawful expenditures of the 50320
refunded money, it shall certify its determination and the amount 50321
of the refund to be made to the director of job and family 50322
services who shall make a refund as provided in section 4141.47 of 50323
the Revised Code.50324

       Each school district shall label materials, equipment, 50325
computer hardware or software, textbooks, and electronic textbooks50326
digital texts purchased or leased for loan to a nonpublic school 50327
under this section, acknowledging that they were purchased or 50328
leased with state funds under this section. However, a district 50329
need not label materials, equipment, computer hardware or 50330
software, textbooks, or electronic textbooksdigital texts that 50331
the district determines are consumable in nature or have a value 50332
of less than two hundred dollars.50333

       Sec. 3317.08.  A board of education may admit to its schools 50334
a child it is not required by section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the 50335
Revised Code to admit, if tuition is paid for the child.50336

       Unless otherwise provided by law, tuition shall be computed 50337
in accordance with this section. A district's tuition charge for a 50338
school year shall be one of the following:50339

       (A) For any child, except a preschool child with a disability 50340
described in division (B) of this section, the quotient obtained 50341
by dividing the sum of the amounts described in divisions (A)(1) 50342
and (2) of this section by the district's formula ADM.50343

       (1) The district's total taxes charged and payable for 50344
current expenses for the tax year preceding the tax year in which 50345
the school year begins as certified under division (A)(3) of 50346
section 3317.021 of the Revised Code.50347

       (2) The district's total taxes collected for current expenses 50348
under a school district income tax adopted pursuant to section 50349
5748.03, 5748.08, or 5748.09 of the Revised Code that are 50350
disbursed to the district during the fiscal year, excluding any 50351
income tax receipts allocated for the project cost, debt service, 50352
or maintenance set-aside associated with a state-assisted 50353
classroom facilities project as authorized by section 3318.052 of 50354
the Revised Code. On or before the first day of June of each year, 50355
the tax commissioner shall certify the amount to be used in the 50356
calculation under this division for the next fiscal year to the 50357
department of education and the office of budget and management 50358
for each city, local, and exempted village school district that 50359
levies a school district income tax.50360

       (B) For any preschool child with a disability not included in 50361
a unit approved under division (B) of section 3317.05 of the 50362
Revised Code, an amount computed for the school year as follows:50363

       (1) For each type of special education service provided to 50364
the child for whom tuition is being calculated, determine the 50365
amount of the district's operating expenses in providing that type 50366
of service to all preschool children with disabilities not 50367
included in units approved under division (B) of section 3317.05 50368
of the Revised Code;50369

       (2) For each type of special education service for which 50370
operating expenses are determined under division (B)(1) of this 50371
section, determine the amount of such operating expenses that was 50372
paid from any state funds received under this chapter;50373

       (3) For each type of special education service for which 50374
operating expenses are determined under division (B)(1) of this 50375
section, divide the difference between the amount determined under 50376
division (B)(1) of this section and the amount determined under 50377
division (B)(2) of this section by the total number of preschool 50378
children with disabilities not included in units approved under 50379
division (B) of section 3317.05 of the Revised Code who received 50380
that type of service;50381

       (4) Determine the sum of the quotients obtained under 50382
division (B)(3) of this section for all types of special education 50383
services provided to the child for whom tuition is being 50384
calculated.50385

       The state board of education shall adopt rules defining the 50386
types of special education services and specifying the operating 50387
expenses to be used in the computation under this section.50388

       If any child for whom a tuition charge is computed under this 50389
section for any school year is enrolled in a district for only 50390
part of that school year, the amount of the district's tuition 50391
charge for the child for the school year shall be computed in 50392
proportion to the number of school days the child is enrolled in 50393
the district during the school year.50394

       Except as otherwise provided in division (J) of section 50395
3313.64 of the Revised Code, whenever a district admits a child to 50396
its schools for whom tuition computed in accordance with this 50397
section is an obligation of another school district, the amount of 50398
the tuition shall be certified by the treasurer of the board of 50399
education of the district of attendance, to the board of education 50400
of the district required to pay tuition for its approval and 50401
payment. If agreement as to the amount payable or the district 50402
required to pay the tuition cannot be reached, or the board of 50403
education of the district required to pay the tuition refuses to 50404
pay that amount, the board of education of the district of 50405
attendance shall notify the superintendent of public instruction. 50406
The superintendent shall determine the correct amount and the 50407
district required to pay the tuition and shall deduct that amount, 50408
if any, under division (D) of section 3317.023 of the Revised 50409
Code, from the district required to pay the tuition and add that 50410
amount to the amount allocated to the district attended under such 50411
division. The superintendent of public instruction shall send to 50412
the district required to pay the tuition an itemized statement 50413
showing such deductions at the time of such deduction.50414

       When a political subdivision owns and operates an airport, 50415
welfare, or correctional institution or other project or facility 50416
outside its corporate limits, the territory within which the 50417
facility is located is exempt from taxation by the school district 50418
within which such territory is located, and there are school age 50419
children residing within such territory, the political subdivision 50420
owning such tax exempt territory shall pay tuition to the district 50421
in which such children attend school. The tuition for these 50422
children shall be computed as provided for in this section.50423

       Sec. 3317.10.  (A) On or before the first day of March of 50424
each year, the department of job and family services shall certify 50425
to the state board of education the unduplicated number of 50426
children ages five through seventeen residing in each school 50427
district and living in a family that, during the preceding 50428
October, participated in Ohio works first.50429

       The department of job and family services shall certify this 50430
information according to the school district of residence for each 50431
child. Except as provided under division (B) of this section, the 50432
number of children so certified in any year shall be used by the 50433
department of education in calculating the distribution of moneys 50434
for the ensuing fiscal year as provided in section 3317.029 of the 50435
Revised Code.50436

       (B) Upon the transfer of part of the territory of one school 50437
district to the territory of one or more other school districts, 50438
the department of education may adjust the number of children 50439
certified under division (A) of this section for any district 50440
gaining or losing territory in such a transfer in order to take 50441
into account the effect of the transfer on the number of such 50442
children who reside in the district. Within sixty days of receipt 50443
of a request for information from the department of education, the 50444
department of job and family services shall provide any 50445
information the department of education determines is necessary to 50446
make such adjustments. The department of education may use the 50447
adjusted number for any district for the applicable fiscal year, 50448
in lieu of the number certified for the district for that fiscal 50449
year under division (A) of this section, in the calculation of the 50450
distribution of moneys provided in section 3317.029 of the Revised 50451
Code.50452

       Sec. 3317.12.  Any board of education participating in funds 50453
distributed under Chapter 3317. of the Revised Code shall annually 50454
adopt a salary scheduleschedules for teachers and nonteaching 50455
school employees based upon training, experience, and 50456
qualifications with initial salaries no less than the salaries in 50457
effect on October 13, 1967. Each board of education shall prepare 50458
and may amend from time to time, specifications descriptive of 50459
duties, responsibilities, requirements, and desirable 50460
qualifications of the classifications of employees required to 50461
perform the duties specified in the salary schedule. All 50462
nonteaching school employees are to be notified of the position 50463
classification to which they are assigned and the salary for the 50464
classification. The compensation of all employees working for a 50465
particular school board shall be uniform for like positions except 50466
as compensation would be affected by salary increments based upon 50467
length of service.50468

       On the fifteenth day of October each year the salary schedule 50469
and the list of job classifications and salaries in effect on that 50470
date shall be filed by each board of education with the 50471
superintendent of public instruction. If such salary schedule and 50472
classification plan is not filed the superintendent of public 50473
instruction shall order the board to file such schedules 50474
forthwith. If this condition is not corrected within ten days 50475
after receipt of the order from the superintendent of public 50476
instruction, no money shall be distributed to the district under 50477
Chapter 3317. of the Revised Code until the superintendent has 50478
satisfactory evidence of the board of education's full compliance 50479
with such order.50480

       Sec. 3317.14.  Any school district board of education or 50481
educational service center governing board participating in funds 50482
distributed under Chapter 3317. of the Revised Code shall annually 50483
adopt a teachers' salary schedule with provision for increments 50484
based upon training and years of service. Notwithstanding sections 50485
3317.13 and 3319.088 of the Revised Code, theThe board may 50486
establish its own service requirements and may grant service 50487
credit for such activities as teaching in public or nonpublic 50488
schools in this state or in another state, for service as an 50489
educational assistant other than as a classroom aide employed in 50490
accordance with section 5107.541 of the Revised Code, and for 50491
service in the military or in an appropriate state or federal 50492
governmental agency, provided no teacher receives less than the 50493
amount required to be paid pursuant to section 3317.13 of the 50494
Revised Code and provided full credit for a minimum of five years 50495
of actual teaching and military experience as defined in division 50496
(A) of section 3317.13 of the Revised Code is given to each 50497
teacher.50498

       On the fifteenth day of October of each year, a copy of the 50499
salary schedule in effect on that date shall be filed by the board 50500
of education of each local school district with the educational 50501
service center superintendent, who thereupon shall certify to the 50502
treasurer of such local district the correct salary to be paid to 50503
each teacher in accordance with the adopted schedule.50504

       Each teacher who has completed training which would qualify 50505
such teacher for a higher salary bracket pursuant to this section 50506
shall file by the fifteenth day of September with the treasurer of 50507
the board of education or educational service center satisfactory 50508
evidence of the completion of such additional training. The 50509
treasurer shall then immediately place the teacher, pursuant to 50510
this section and section 3317.13 of the Revised Code, in the 50511
proper salary bracket in accordance with training and years of 50512
service before certifying such salary, training, and years of 50513
service to the superintendent of public instruction. No teacher 50514
shall be paid less than the salary to which such teacher is 50515
entitled pursuant to section 3317.13 of the Revised Code.50516

       As used in this section:50517

       (A) "Years of service" includes the following:50518

       (1) All years of teaching service in the same school district 50519
or educational service center, regardless of training level, with 50520
each year consisting of at least one hundred twenty days under a 50521
teacher's contract;50522

       (2) All years of teaching service in a chartered, nonpublic 50523
school located in Ohio as a teacher licensed pursuant to section 50524
3319.22 of the Revised Code or in another public school, 50525
regardless of training level, with each year consisting of at 50526
least one hundred twenty days under a teacher's contract;50527

       (3) All years of teaching service in a chartered school or 50528
institution or a school or institution that subsequently became 50529
chartered or a chartered special education program or a special 50530
education program that subsequently became chartered operated by 50531
the state or by a subdivision or other local governmental unit of 50532
this state as a teacher licensed pursuant to section 3319.22 of 50533
the Revised Code, regardless of training level, with each year 50534
consisting of at least one hundred twenty days;50535

       (4) All years of active military service in the armed forces 50536
of the United States, as defined in section 3307.75 of the Revised 50537
Code, to a maximum of five years. For purposes of this 50538
calculation, a partial year of active military service of eight 50539
continuous months or more in the armed forces shall be counted as 50540
a full year.50541

       (B) "Teacher" means all teachers employed by the board of 50542
education of any school district, including any cooperative 50543
education or joint vocational school district and all teachers 50544
employed by any educational service center governing board.50545

       Sec. 3317.141.  The board of education of any city, exempted 50546
village, local, or joint vocational school district that is the 50547
recipient of moneys from a grant awarded under the federal race to 50548
the top program, Division (A), Title XIV, Sections 14005 and 14006 50549
of the "American Recovery and Reinvestment Act of 2009," Pub. L. 50550
No. 111-5, 123 Stat. 115, shall comply with this section in 50551
accordance with the timeline contained in the board's scope of 50552
work, as approved by the superintendent of public instruction, and 50553
shall not be subject to sections 3317.13 andsection 3317.14 of 50554
the Revised Code. The board of education of any other school 50555
district, and the governing board of each educational service 50556
center, shall comply with either this section or sections 3317.13 50557
andsection 3317.14 of the Revised Code.50558

        (A) The board annually shall adopt a salary schedule for 50559
teachers based upon performance as described in division (B) of 50560
this section.50561

       (B) For purposes of the schedule, a board shall measure a 50562
teacher's performance by considering all of the following:50563

       (1) The level of license issued under section 3319.22 of the 50564
Revised Code that the teacher holds;50565

       (2) Whether the teacher is a highly qualified teacher, as 50566
defined in section 3319.074 of the Revised Code;50567

       (3) Ratings received by the teacher on performance 50568
evaluations conducted under section 3319.111 of the Revised Code.50569

       (C) The schedule shall provide for annual adjustments based 50570
on performance on the evaluations conducted under section 3319.111 50571
of the Revised Code. The annual performance-based adjustment for a 50572
teacher rated as accomplished shall be greater than the annual 50573
performance-based adjustment for a teacher rated as proficient.50574

       (D) The salary schedule adopted under this section may 50575
provide for additional compensation for teachers who agree to 50576
perform duties, not contracted for under a supplemental contract, 50577
that the employing board determines warrant additional 50578
compensation. Those duties may include, but are not limited to, 50579
assignment to a school building eligible for funding under Title I 50580
of the "Elementary and Secondary Education Act of 1965," 20 U.S.C. 50581
6301 et seq.; assignment to a building in "school improvement" 50582
status under the "No Child Left Behind Act of 2001," as defined in 50583
section 3302.01 of the Revised Code; teaching in a grade level or 50584
subject area in which the board has determined there is a shortage 50585
within the district or service center; or assignment to a 50586
hard-to-staff school, as determined by the board.50587

       Sec. 3317.16.  (A) The department of education shall compute 50588
and distribute state core foundation funding to each joint 50589
vocational school district for the fiscal year as prescribed in 50590
the following divisions:50591

       (1) An opportunity grant calculated according to the 50592
following formula:50593

(The formula amount X formula ADM) - (0.0005 X the
50594

district's three-year average valuation)
50595

       If the result of the calculation for a joint vocational 50596
school district under division (A)(1) of this section is less than 50597
zero, the joint vocational school district's opportunity grant 50598
shall be zero.50599

       (2) Additional state aid for special education and related 50600
services provided under Chapter 3323. of the Revised Code 50601
calculated as the sum of the following:50602

The formula amount X the district's total special education
50603

weight X the district's state share percentage
50604

       (3) Economically disadvantaged funds calculated according to 50605
the following formula:50606

($340, in fiscal year 2014, or $343, in fiscal year 2015) X
50607

(the district's economically disadvantaged index) X the number
50608

of students who are economically disadvantaged as reported under
50609

division (D)(2)(p) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code
50610

       (4) Limited English proficiency funds calculated as the sum 50611
of the following:50612

       (a) The district's category one limited English proficient 50613
ADM X the amount specified in division (A) of section 3317.016 of 50614
the Revised Code X the district's state share percentage;50615

       (b) The district's category two limited English proficient 50616
ADM X the amount specified in division (B) of section 3317.016 of 50617
the Revised Code X the district's state share percentage;50618

       (c) The district's category three limited English proficient 50619
ADM X the amount specified in division (C) of section 3317.016 of 50620
the Revised Code X the district's state share percentage;50621

       (5) Career-technical education funds calculated according to 50622
the following formula:50623

The formula amount X the district's total career-technical
50624

education weight X the district's state share percentage
50625

       Payment of funds under division (A)(5) of this section is 50626
subject to approval under section 3317.161 of the Revised Code.50627

       (6) Career-technical education associated services funds 50628
calculated under the following formula:50629

The district's state share percentage X 0.05 X the formula
50630

amount X the sum of categories one through five career-technical
50631

education ADM
50632

       (B)(1) If a joint vocational school district's costs for a 50633
fiscal year for a student in its categories two through six 50634
special education ADM exceed the threshold catastrophic cost for 50635
serving the student, as specified in division (B) of section 50636
3317.0214 of the Revised Code, the district may submit to the 50637
superintendent of public instruction documentation, as prescribed 50638
by the superintendent, of all of its costs for that student. Upon 50639
submission of documentation for a student of the type and in the 50640
manner prescribed, the department shall pay to the district an 50641
amount equal to the sum of the following:50642

       (a) One-half of the district's costs for the student in 50643
excess of the threshold catastrophic cost;50644

       (b) The product of one-half of the district's costs for the 50645
student in excess of the threshold catastrophic cost multiplied by 50646
the district's state share percentage.50647

       (2) The district shall report under division (B)(1) of this 50648
section, and the department shall pay for, only the costs of 50649
educational expenses and the related services provided to the 50650
student in accordance with the student's individualized education 50651
program. Any legal fees, court costs, or other costs associated 50652
with any cause of action relating to the student may not be 50653
included in the amount.50654

       (C)(1) For each student with a disability receiving special 50655
education and related services under an individualized education 50656
program, as defined in section 3323.01 of the Revised Code, at a 50657
joint vocational district, the resident district or, if the 50658
student is enrolled in a community school, the community school 50659
shall be responsible for the amount of any costs of providing 50660
those special education and related services to that student that 50661
exceed the sum of the amount calculated for those services 50662
attributable to that student under division (A) of this section.50663

       Those excess costs shall be calculated by subtracting the sum 50664
of the following from the actual cost to provide special education 50665
and related services to the student:50666

       (a) The formula amount;50667

       (b) The formula amount times the multiple specified in 50668
section 3317.013 of the Revised Code that is applicable to the 50669
student;50670

       (c) Any funds paid under section 3317.0214 for the student.50671

       (2) The board of education of the joint vocational school 50672
district may report the excess costs calculated under division 50673
(C)(1) of this section to the department of education.50674

       (3) If the board of education of the joint vocational school 50675
district reports excess costs under division (C)(2) of this 50676
section, the department shall pay the amount of excess cost 50677
calculated under division (C)(2) of this section to the joint 50678
vocational school district and shall deduct that amount as 50679
provided in division (C)(3)(a) or (b) of this section, as 50680
applicable:50681

       (a) If the student is not enrolled in a community school, the 50682
department shall deduct the amount from the account of the 50683
student's resident district pursuant to division (J) of section 50684
3317.023 of the Revised Code.50685

       (b) If the student is enrolled in a community school, the 50686
department shall deduct the amount from the account of the 50687
community school pursuant to section 3314.083 of the Revised Code.50688

       (D) In any fiscal year, a school district receiving funds 50689
under division (A)(5) of this section shall spend those funds only 50690
for the purposes that the department designates as approved for 50691
career-technical education expenses. Career-technical educational 50692
expenses approved by the department shall include only expenses 50693
connected to the delivery of career-technical programming to 50694
career-technical students. The department shall require the school 50695
district to report data annually so that the department may 50696
monitor the district's compliance with the requirements regarding 50697
the manner in which funding received under division (A)(5) of this 50698
section may be spent.50699

       (E) In any fiscal year, a school district receiving funds 50700
under division (A)(6) of this section, or through a transfer of 50701
funds pursuant to division (I) of section 3317.023 of the Revised 50702
Code, shall spend those funds only for the purposes that the 50703
department designates as approved for career-technical education 50704
associated services expenses, which may include such purposes as 50705
apprenticeship coordinators, coordinators for other 50706
career-technical education services, career-technical evaluation, 50707
and other purposes designated by the department. The department 50708
may deny payment under division (A)(6) of this section to any 50709
district that the department determines is not operating those 50710
services or is using funds paid under division (A)(6) of this 50711
section, or through a transfer of funds pursuant to division (I) 50712
of section 3317.023 of the Revised Code, for other purposes.50713

       (F) As used in this section:50714

       (1) "Community school" means a community school established 50715
under Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code.50716

       (2) "Resident district" means the city, local, or exempted 50717
village school district in which a student is entitled to attend 50718
school under section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised Code.50719

       (3) "State share percentage" is equal to the following:50720

The amount computed under division (A)(1) of this section /
50721

(the formula amount X formula ADM)
50722

       Sec. 3317.161.  (A) As used in this section, "lead district" 50723
has the same meaning as in section 3317.023 of the Revised Code.50724

       (B) The lead district of a career-technical planning district 50725
shall review the career-technical education program of each city, 50726
local, and exempted village school district, each community 50727
school, and each STEM school that is assigned to the 50728
career-technical planning district and determine whether to 50729
approve or disapprove the program. The lead district shall notify 50730
the department of its determination.50731

       (C) Upon receiving notification of a lead district's 50732
approval, the department shall pay to the member city, local, or 50733
exempted village school district or deduct from the state 50734
education aid of a district and pay to a community school or STEM 50735
school the funds attributed to the career-technical students 50736
enrolled in the district or school, according to a payment 50737
schedule prescribed by the department.50738

       (D) Upon receiving notification from a lead district of 50739
disapproval of a city, local, or exempted village school 50740
district's, a community school's, or STEM school's 50741
career-technical education program, the department shall 50742
automatically review the lead district's decision. In reviewing 50743
the lead district's decision, the department shall consider the 50744
demand for the career-technical education program and the 50745
availability of the program within the career-technical planning 50746
district. If, as a result of the review, the department decides to 50747
approve the city, local, or exempted village school district's, 50748
the community school's, or the STEM school's career-technical 50749
education program, the department shall pay the funds to the 50750
district or deduct and pay the funds to the community school or 50751
STEM school in the manner described in division (C) of this 50752
section. The department's decision shall be final.50753

       Sec. 3317.18.  (A) As used in this section, the terms 50754
"Chapter 133. securities," "credit enhancement facilities," "debt 50755
charges," "general obligation," "legislation," "public 50756
obligations," and "securities" have the same meanings as in 50757
section 133.01 of the Revised Code.50758

       (B) The board of education of any school district authorizing 50759
the issuance of securities under section 133.10, 133.301, or 50760
3313.372 of the Revised Code or general obligation Chapter 133. 50761
securities may adopt legislation requesting the state department 50762
of education to approve, and enter into an agreement with the 50763
school district and the primary paying agent or fiscal agent for 50764
such securities providing for, the withholding and deposit of 50765
funds, otherwise due the district under Chapter 3317. of the 50766
Revised Code, for the payment of debt service charges on such 50767
securities.50768

       The board of education shall deliver to the state department 50769
a copy of such resolution and any additional pertinent information 50770
the state department may require.50771

       The department of education and the office of budget and 50772
management shall evaluate each request received from a school 50773
district under this section and the department, with the advice 50774
and consent of the director of budget and management, shall 50775
approve or deny each request based on all of the following:50776

       (1) Whether approval of the request will enhance the 50777
marketability of the securities for which the request is made;50778

       (2) Any other pertinent factors or limitations established in 50779
rules made under division (I) of this section, including:50780

       (a) Current and projected obligations of funds due to the 50781
requesting school district under Chapter 3317. of the Revised Code 50782
including obligations of those funds to public obligations or 50783
relevant credit enhancement facilities under this section, Chapter 50784
133. and section 3313.483 of the Revised Code, and under any other 50785
similar provisions of law;50786

       (b) Whether the department of education or the office of 50787
budget and management has any reason to believe the requesting 50788
school district will be unable to pay when due the debt charges on 50789
the securities for which the request is made.50790

       The department may require a school district to establish 50791
schedules for the payment of all debt charges that take into 50792
account the amount and timing of anticipated distributions of 50793
funds to the district under Chapter 3317. of the Revised Code.50794

       (C) If the department approves the request of a school 50795
district to withhold and deposit funds pursuant to this section, 50796
the department shall enter into a written agreement with the 50797
district and the primary paying agent or fiscal agent for the 50798
securities which shall provide for the withholding of funds 50799
pursuant to this section for the payment of debt charges on those 50800
securities, and may include both of the following:50801

       (1) Provisions for certification by the district to the 50802
department, at a time prior to any date for the payment of 50803
applicable debt charges, whether the district is able to pay those 50804
debt charges when due;50805

       (2) Requirements that the district deposit amounts for the 50806
payment of debt charges on the securities with the primary paying 50807
agent or fiscal agent for the securities prior to the date on 50808
which those debt charge payments are due to the owners or holders 50809
of the securities.50810

       (D) Whenever a district notifies the department of education 50811
that it will be unable to pay debt charges when they are due, 50812
subject to the withholding provisions of this section, or whenever 50813
the applicable paying agent or fiscal agent notifies the 50814
department that it has not timely received from a school district 50815
the full amount needed for the payment when due of those debt 50816
charges to the holders or owners of such securities, the 50817
department shall immediately contact the school district and the 50818
paying agent or fiscal agent to confirm or determine whether the 50819
district is unable to make the required payment by the date on 50820
which it is due.50821

       Upon demand of the treasurer of state while holding a school 50822
district obligation purchased under division (G)(1) of section 50823
135.143 of the Revised Code, the state department of education, 50824
without a request of the school district, shall withhold and 50825
deposit funds pursuant to this section for payment of debt service 50826
charges on that obligation.50827

       If the department confirms or determines that the district 50828
will be unable to make such payment and payment will not be made 50829
pursuant to a credit enhancement facility, the department shall 50830
promptly pay to the applicable primary paying agent or fiscal 50831
agent the lesser of the amount due for debt charges or the amount 50832
due the district for the remainder of the fiscal year under 50833
Chapter 3317. of the Revised Code. If this amount is insufficient 50834
to pay the total amount then due the agent for the payment of debt 50835
charges, the department shall pay to the agent each fiscal year 50836
thereafter, and until the full amount due the agent for unpaid 50837
debt charges is paid in full, the lesser of the remaining amount 50838
due the agent for debt charges or the amount due the district for 50839
the fiscal year under Chapter 3317. of the Revised Code.50840

       (E) The state department may make any payments under this 50841
division by direct deposit of funds by electronic transfer.50842

       Any amount received by a paying agent or fiscal agent under 50843
this section shall be applied only to the payment of debt charges 50844
on the securities of the school district subject to this section 50845
or to the reimbursement to the provider of a credit enhancement 50846
facility that has paid such debt charges.50847

       (F) To the extent a school district whose securities are 50848
subject to this section is unable to pay applicable debt charges 50849
because of the failure to collect property taxes levied for the 50850
payment of those debt charges, the district may transfer to or 50851
deposit into any fund that would have received payments under 50852
Chapter 3317. of the Revised Code that were withheld under this 50853
section any such delinquent property taxes when later collected, 50854
provided that transfer or deposit shall be limited to the amounts 50855
withheld from that fund under this section.50856

       (G) The department may make payments under this section to 50857
paying agents or fiscal agents only from and to the extent that 50858
money is appropriated by the general assembly for Chapter 3317. of 50859
the Revised Code or for the purposes of this section. No 50860
securities of a school district to which this section is made 50861
applicable constitute an obligation or a debt or a pledge of the 50862
faith, credit, or taxing power of the state, and the holders or 50863
owners of such securities have no right to have taxes levied or 50864
appropriations made by the general assembly for the payment of 50865
debt charges on those securities, and those securities, if the 50866
department requires, shall contain a statement to that effect. The 50867
agreement for or the actual withholding and payment of moneys 50868
under this section does not constitute the assumption by the state 50869
of any debt of a school district.50870

       (H) In the case of securities subject to the withholding 50871
provisions of this section, the issuing board of education shall 50872
appoint a paying agent or fiscal agent who is not an officer or 50873
employee of the school district.50874

       (I) The department of education, with the advice of the 50875
office of budget and management, may adopt reasonable rules not 50876
inconsistent with this section for the implementation of this 50877
section and division (B) of section 133.25 of the Revised Code as 50878
it relates to the withholding and depositing of payments under 50879
Chapter 3317. of the Revised Code to secure payment of debt 50880
charges on school district securities. Those rules shall include 50881
criteria for the evaluation and approval or denial of school 50882
district requests for withholding under this section and limits on 50883
the obligation for the purpose of paying debt charges or 50884
reimbursing credit enhancement facilities of funds otherwise to be 50885
paid to school districts under Chapter 3317. of the Revised Code.50886

       (J) The authority granted by this section is in addition to 50887
and not a limitation on any other authorizations granted by or 50888
pursuant to law for the same or similar purposes.50889

       Sec. 3317.19. (A) As used in this section, "total unit 50890
allowance" means an amount equal to the sum of the following:50891

       (1) The total of the salary allowances for the teachers 50892
employed in the cooperative education school district for all 50893
units approved under division (B) or (C) of section 3317.05 of the 50894
Revised Code. The salary allowance for each unit shall equal the 50895
minimum salary for the teacher of the unit calculated on the basis 50896
of the teacher's training level and years of experience pursuant 50897
to the salary schedule prescribed in the version of section 50898
3317.13 of the Revised Code in effect prior to July 1, 2001.50899

       (2) Fifteen per cent of the total computed under division 50900
(A)(1) of this section;50901

       (3) The total of the unit operating allowances for all 50902
approved units. The amount of each allowance shall equal one of 50903
the following:50904

       (a) Eight thousand twenty-three dollars times the number of 50905
units for preschool children with disabilities or fraction thereof 50906
approved for the year under division (B) of section 3317.05 of the 50907
Revised Code;50908

       (b) Two thousand one hundred thirty-two dollars times the 50909
number of units or fraction thereof approved for the year under 50910
division (C) of section 3317.05 of the Revised Code.50911

       (B) The state board of education shall compute and distribute 50912
to each cooperative education school district for each fiscal year 50913
an amount equal to the sum of the following:50914

       (1)(A) An amount equal to the total of the amounts credited 50915
to the cooperative education school district pursuant to division 50916
(H) of section 3317.023 of the Revised Code;50917

       (2) The total unit allowance;50918

       (3)(B) An amount for assisting in providing free lunches to 50919
needy children pursuant to division (D) of section 3317.024 of the 50920
Revised Code.50921

       (C) If a cooperative education school district has had 50922
additional special education units approved for the year under 50923
division (F)(2) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code, the 50924
district shall receive an additional amount during the last half 50925
of the fiscal year. For each unit, the additional amount shall 50926
equal fifty per cent of the amount computed under division (A) of 50927
this section for a unit approved under division (B) of section 50928
3317.05 of the Revised Code.50929

       Sec. 3317.20.  This section does not apply to preschool 50930
children with disabilities.50931

       (A) As used in this section:50932

       (1) "Applicable weight" means the multiple specified in 50933
section 3317.013 of the Revised Code for a disability described in 50934
that section.50935

       (2) "Child's school district" means the school district in 50936
which a child is entitled to attend school pursuant to section 50937
3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised Code.50938

       (3) "State share percentageindex" means the state share 50939
percentageindex of the child's school district.50940

       (B) Except as provided in division (C) of this section, the50941
The department shall annually pay each county DD board for each 50942
child with a disability, other than a preschool child with a 50943
disability, for whom the county DD board provides special 50944
education and related services an amount equal to the formula 50945
amount + (state share percentageindex X formula amount X the 50946
applicable weight).50947

       (C) If any school district places with a county DD board more 50948
children with disabilities than it had placed with a county DD 50949
board in fiscal year 1998, the department shall not make a payment 50950
under division (B) of this section for the number of children 50951
exceeding the number placed in fiscal year 1998. The department 50952
instead shall deduct from the district's payments under this 50953
chapter, and pay to the county DD board, an amount calculated in 50954
accordance with the formula prescribed in division (B) of this 50955
section for each child over the number of children placed in 50956
fiscal year 1998.50957

       (D) The department shall calculate for each county DD board 50958
receiving payments under divisions (B) and (C) of this section the 50959
following amounts: 50960

       (1) The amount received by the county DD board for approved 50961
special education and related services units, other than units for 50962
preschool children with disabilities, in fiscal year 1998, divided 50963
by the total number of children served in the units that year;50964

       (2) The product of the quotient calculated under division 50965
(D)(1) of this section times the number of children for whom 50966
payments are made under divisions (B) and (C) of this section.50967

       If the amount calculated under division (D)(2) of this 50968
section is greater than the total amount calculated under 50969
divisions (B) and (C) of this section, the department shall pay 50970
the county DD board one hundred per cent of the difference in 50971
addition to the payments under divisions (B) and (C) of this 50972
section.50973

       (E)(C) Each county DD board shall report to the department, 50974
in the manner specified by the department, the name of each child 50975
for whom the county DD board provides special education and 50976
related services and the child's school district.50977

        (F)(D)(1) For the purpose of verifying the accuracy of the 50978
payments under this section, the department may request from 50979
either of the following entities the data verification code 50980
assigned under division (D)(2) of section 3301.0714 of the Revised 50981
Code to any child who is placed with a county DD board:50982

        (a) The child's school district;50983

        (b) The independent contractor engaged to create and maintain 50984
data verification codes.50985

        (2) Upon a request by the department under division (F)(D)(1) 50986
of this section for the data verification code of a child, the 50987
child's school district shall submit that code to the department 50988
in the manner specified by the department. If the child has not 50989
been assigned a code, the district shall assign a code to that 50990
child and submit the code to the department by a date specified by 50991
the department. If the district does not assign a code to the 50992
child by the specified date, the department shall assign a code to 50993
the child.50994

        The department annually shall submit to each school district 50995
the name and data verification code of each child residing in the 50996
district for whom the department has assigned a code under this 50997
division.50998

        (3) The department shall not release any data verification 50999
code that it receives under division (F)(D) of this section to any 51000
person except as provided by law.51001

       (G)(E) Any document relative to special education and related 51002
services provided by a county DD board that the department holds 51003
in its files that contains both a student's name or other 51004
personally identifiable information and the student's data 51005
verification code shall not be a public record under section 51006
149.43 of the Revised Code.51007

       Sec. 3313.847.        Sec. 3317.30. (A) In the case of a child placed in 51008
the custody of a juvenile facility established under section 51009
2151.65 or a detention facility established under section 2152.41 51010
of the Revised Code, ifpayment for the child's education services 51011
shall be administered by one of the following methods:51012

        (1) If the facility educates the child, the facility, or the 51013
chartered nonpublic school it operates, may submit its request for 51014
payment directly to the school district that is to bear the cost 51015
of educating the child, as determined under section 2151.362 of 51016
the Revised Code. That district shall pay the facility or the 51017
chartered nonpublic school directly for those services.51018

        (2) If the facility contracts directly with a school district 51019
in which the facility is located for services for that child, the 51020
school district may submit its request for payment directly to the 51021
school district that is to bear the cost of educating the child, 51022
as determined under section 2151.362 of the Revised Code. That 51023
district shall pay the school district where the facility is 51024
located directly for those services.51025

        (3) If that facility contracts directly with an educational 51026
service center for services for that child, the service center may 51027
submit its request for payment for services for the child directly 51028
to the school district that is responsible to bear the cost of 51029
educating the child, as determined under section 2151.362 of the 51030
Revised Code. That district shall pay the service center directly 51031
for those services. Notwithstanding51032

       (B) Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in section 51033
3317.03 of the Revised Code, the district that pays a service 51034
center, facility or chartered nonpublic school the facility 51035
operates, or other school district for services for a particular 51036
child under this section shall include that child in the 51037
district's average daily membership as reported under division (A) 51038
of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code. No other district shall 51039
include the child in its average daily membership.51040

       Payments made for a child under this section shall be 51041
determined in accordance with division (C)(4) of section 3313.64 51042
of the Revised Code.51043

       Sec. 3317.40.  (A) As used in this section, "subgroup" means 51044
one of the following subsets of the entire student population of a 51045
school district or a school building:51046

       (1) Students with disabilities;51047

       (2) Economically disadvantaged students;51048

       (3) Limited English proficient students;51049

       (4) Students identified as gifted in superior cognitive 51050
ability and specific academic ability fields under Chapter 3324. 51051
of the Revised Code. 51052

       (B) When funds are provided under this chapter specifically 51053
for services for a subgroup of students, the general assembly has 51054
determined that these students experience unique challenges 51055
requiring additional resources. The department of education shall 51056
require school districts and schools to account for the 51057
expenditure of funds provided under this chapter for services to 51058
those students.51059

       (C) If a district or school fails to show satisfactory 51060
achievement and progress, as determined by the state board of 51061
education, for any subgroup of students based on performance 51062
measures reported or graded under section 3302.03 of the Revised 51063
Code, the district or school shall submit an improvement plan to 51064
the department for approval. The plan may be included in any other 51065
improvement plan required of the district or school under state or 51066
federal law. The department may require that a plan required under 51067
division (C) of this section include an agreement to partner with 51068
another organization that has demonstrated the ability to improve 51069
the educational outcome for that subgroup of students to provide 51070
services to those students. The partner organization may be 51071
another school, district, or other education provider.51072

       Not later than December 31, 2014, the state board of 51073
education shall establish measures of satisfactory achievement and 51074
progress, which include, but are not limited to, performance 51075
measures under section 3302.03 of the Revised Code. The department 51076
shall make the initial determination of satisfactory achievement 51077
and progress under this section using those measures not later 51078
than September 1, 2015, and then make determinations under this 51079
section annually thereafter.51080

       The department shall publish a list of schools, school 51081
districts, and other educational providers that have demonstrated 51082
an ability to serve each subgroup of students.51083

       Sec. 3317.50.  The eTech Ohio telecommunity education fund is 51084
hereby created in the state treasury. The fund shall consist of 51085
certain excess local exchange telephone company contributions 51086
transferred from the reserve fund of the Ohio telecommunications 51087
advisory board pursuant to an agreement between the public 51088
utilities commission of Ohio and the Ohio department of education. 51089
The fund shall be used by the chancellor of the Ohio board of 51090
regents, in the amounts appropriated, to finance technology grants 51091
to state-chartered elementary and secondary schools. Investment 51092
earnings of the fund shall be credited to the fund.51093

       Sec. 3317.51.  (A) The distance learning fund is hereby 51094
created in the state treasury. The fund shall consist of moneys 51095
paid to the eTech Ohio commission by any telephone company as a 51096
part of a settlement agreement between such company and the public 51097
utilities commission in fiscal year 1995 in part to establish 51098
distance learning throughout the state. The commissionchancellor 51099
of the Ohio board of regents shall administer the fund and expend 51100
moneys from it to finance technology grants to eligible schools 51101
chartered by the state board of education to establish distance 51102
learning in those schools. Chartered schools are eligible for 51103
funds if they are within the service area of the telephone 51104
company. Investment earnings of the fund shall be credited to the 51105
fund.51106

       (B) For purposes of this section, "distance learning" means 51107
the creation of a learning environment involving a school setting 51108
and at least one other location outside of the school which allows 51109
for information available at one site to be accessed at the other 51110
through the use of such educational applications as one-way or 51111
two-way transmission of data, voice, and video, singularly or in 51112
appropriate combinations.51113

       Sec. 3318.011.  For purposes of providing assistance under 51114
sections 3318.01 to 3318.20 of the Revised Code, the department of 51115
education shall annually do all of the following:51116

       (A) Calculate the adjusted valuation per pupil of each city, 51117
local, and exempted village school district according to the 51118
following formula:51119

The district's valuation per pupil -
51120

[$30,000 X (1 - the district's income factor)].
51121

       For purposes of this calculation:51122

       (1) Except for a district with an open enrollment net gain 51123
that is ten per cent or more of its formula ADM, "valuation per 51124
pupil" for a district means its average taxable value, divided by 51125
its formula ADM for the previous fiscal year. "Valuation per 51126
pupil," for a district with an open enrollment net gain that is 51127
ten per cent or more of its formula ADM, means its average taxable 51128
value, divided by the sum of its formula ADM for the previous 51129
fiscal year plus its open enrollment net gain for the previous 51130
fiscal year. 51131

       (2) "Average taxable value" means the average of the sum of 51132
the amounts certified for a district under divisions (A)(1) and 51133
(2) of section 3317.021 of the Revised Code in the second, third, 51134
and fourth preceding fiscal years.51135

       (3) "Entitled to attend school" means entitled to attend 51136
school in a city, local, or exempted village school district under 51137
section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised Code.51138

        (4) "Formula ADM" and "income factor" havehas the same 51139
meaningsmeaning as in section 3317.02 of the Revised Code.51140

       (5) "Native student" has the same meaning as in section 51141
3313.98 of the Revised Code.51142

        (6) "Open enrollment net gain" for a district means (a) the 51143
number of the students entitled to attend school in another 51144
district but who are enrolled in the schools of the district under 51145
its open enrollment policy minus (b) the number of the district's 51146
native students who are enrolled in the schools of another 51147
district under the other district's open enrollment policy, both 51148
numbers as certified to the department under section 3313.981 of 51149
the Revised Code. If the difference is a negative number, the 51150
district's "open enrollment net gain" is zero.51151

        (7) "Open enrollment policy" means an interdistrict open 51152
enrollment policy adopted under section 3313.98 of the Revised 51153
Code.51154

       (8) "District median income" means the median Ohio adjusted 51155
gross income certified for a school district. On or before the 51156
first day of July of each year, the tax commissioner shall certify 51157
to the department of education and the office of budget and 51158
management for each city, exempted village, and local school 51159
district the median Ohio adjusted gross income of the residents of 51160
the school district determined on the basis of tax returns filed 51161
for the second preceding tax year by the residents of the 51162
district.51163

       (9) "Statewide median income" means the median district 51164
median income of all city, exempted village, and local school 51165
districts in the state.51166

       (10) "Income factor" for a city, exempted village, or local 51167
school district means the quotient obtained by dividing that 51168
district's median income by the statewide median income.51169

       (B) Calculate for each district the three-year average of the 51170
adjusted valuations per pupil calculated for the district for the 51171
current and two preceding fiscal years;51172

       (C) Rank all such districts in order of adjusted valuation 51173
per pupil from the district with the lowest three-year average 51174
adjusted valuation per pupil to the district with the highest 51175
three-year average adjusted valuation per pupil;51176

       (D) Divide such ranking into percentiles with the first 51177
percentile containing the one per cent of school districts having 51178
the lowest three-year average adjusted valuations per pupil and 51179
the one-hundredth percentile containing the one per cent of school 51180
districts having the highest three-year average adjusted 51181
valuations per pupil;51182

       (E) Determine the school districts that have three-year 51183
average adjusted valuations per pupil that are greater than the 51184
median three-year average adjusted valuation per pupil for all 51185
school districts in the state;51186

       (F) On or before the first day of September, certify the 51187
information described in divisions (A) to (E) of this section to 51188
the Ohio school facilities commission.51189

       Sec. 3318.031. (A) The Ohio school facilities commission 51190
shall consider student and staff safety and health when reviewing 51191
design plans for classroom facility construction projects proposed 51192
under this chapter. After consulting with appropriate education, 51193
health, and law enforcement personnel, the commission may require 51194
as a condition of project approval under either section 3318.03 or 51195
division (B)(1) of section 3318.41 of the Revised Code such 51196
changes in the design plans as the commission believes will 51197
advance or improve student and staff safety and health in the 51198
proposed classroom facility.51199

       To carry out its duties under this division, the commission 51200
shall review and, if necessary, amend any construction and design 51201
standards used in its project approval process, including 51202
standards for location and number of exits, standards for lead 51203
safety in classroom facilities constructed before 1978 in which 51204
services are provided to children under six years of age, and 51205
location of restrooms, with a focus on advancing student and staff 51206
safety and health.51207

       (B) When reviewing design standards for classroom facility 51208
construction projects proposed under this chapter, the commission 51209
shall also consider the extent to which the design standards 51210
support the following:51211

       (1) Support and facilitation of smaller classes and the trend 51212
toward smaller schoolsTrends in educational delivery methods, 51213
including digital access and blended learning;51214

       (2) Provision of sufficient space for training new teachers 51215
and promotion of collaboration among teaching candidates, 51216
experienced teachers, and teacher educators;51217

       (3) Provision of adequate space for teacher planning and 51218
collaboration;51219

       (4) Provision of adequate space for parent involvement 51220
activities;51221

       (5) Provision of sufficient space for innovative partnerships 51222
between schools and health and social service agencies.51223

       Sec. 3318.08.  Except in the case of a joint vocational 51224
school district that receives assistance under sections 3318.40 to 51225
3318.45 of the Revised Code, if the requisite favorable vote on 51226
the election is obtained, or if the school district board has 51227
resolved to apply the proceeds of a property tax levy or the 51228
proceeds of an income tax, or a combination of proceeds from such 51229
taxes, as authorized in section 3318.052 of the Revised Code, the 51230
Ohio school facilities commission, upon certification to it of 51231
either the results of the election or the resolution under section 51232
3318.052 of the Revised Code, shall enter into a written agreement 51233
with the school district board for the construction and sale of 51234
the project. In the case of a joint vocational school district 51235
that receives assistance under sections 3318.40 to 3318.45 of the 51236
Revised Code, if the school district board of education and the 51237
school district electors have satisfied the conditions prescribed 51238
in division (D)(1) of section 3318.41 of the Revised Code, the 51239
commission shall enter into an agreement with the school district 51240
board for the construction and sale of the project. In either 51241
case, the agreement shall include, but need not be limited to, the 51242
following provisions:51243

       (A) The sale and issuance of bonds or notes in anticipation 51244
thereof, as soon as practicable after the execution of the 51245
agreement, in an amount equal to the school district's portion of 51246
the basic project cost, including any securities authorized under 51247
division (J) of section 133.06 of the Revised Code and dedicated 51248
by the school district board to payment of the district's portion 51249
of the basic project cost of the project; provided, that if at 51250
that time the county treasurer of each county in which the school 51251
district is located has not commenced the collection of taxes on 51252
the general duplicate of real and public utility property for the 51253
year in which the controlling board approved the project, the 51254
school district board shall authorize the issuance of a first 51255
installment of bond anticipation notes in an amount specified by 51256
the agreement, which amount shall not exceed an amount necessary 51257
to raise the net bonded indebtedness of the school district as of 51258
the date of the controlling board's approval to within five 51259
thousand dollars of the required level of indebtedness for the 51260
preceding year. In the event that a first installment of bond 51261
anticipation notes is issued, the school district board shall, as 51262
soon as practicable after the county treasurer of each county in 51263
which the school district is located has commenced the collection 51264
of taxes on the general duplicate of real and public utility 51265
property for the year in which the controlling board approved the 51266
project, authorize the issuance of a second and final installment 51267
of bond anticipation notes or a first and final issue of bonds.51268

       The combined value of the first and second installment of 51269
bond anticipation notes or the value of the first and final issue 51270
of bonds shall be equal to the school district's portion of the 51271
basic project cost. The proceeds of any such bonds shall be used 51272
first to retire any bond anticipation notes. Otherwise, the 51273
proceeds of such bonds and of any bond anticipation notes, except 51274
the premium and accrued interest thereon, shall be deposited in 51275
the school district's project construction fund. In determining 51276
the amount of net bonded indebtedness for the purpose of fixing 51277
the amount of an issue of either bonds or bond anticipation notes, 51278
gross indebtedness shall be reduced by moneys in the bond 51279
retirement fund only to the extent of the moneys therein on the 51280
first day of the year preceding the year in which the controlling 51281
board approved the project. Should there be a decrease in the tax 51282
valuation of the school district so that the amount of 51283
indebtedness that can be incurred on the tax duplicates for the 51284
year in which the controlling board approved the project is less 51285
than the amount of the first installment of bond anticipation 51286
notes, there shall be paid from the school district's project 51287
construction fund to the school district's bond retirement fund to 51288
be applied against such notes an amount sufficient to cause the 51289
net bonded indebtedness of the school district, as of the first 51290
day of the year following the year in which the controlling board 51291
approved the project, to be within five thousand dollars of the 51292
required level of indebtedness for the year in which the 51293
controlling board approved the project. The maximum amount of 51294
indebtedness to be incurred by any school district board as its 51295
share of the cost of the project is either an amount that will 51296
cause its net bonded indebtedness, as of the first day of the year 51297
following the year in which the controlling board approved the 51298
project, to be within five thousand dollars of the required level 51299
of indebtedness, or an amount equal to the required percentage of 51300
the basic project costs, whichever is greater. All bonds and bond 51301
anticipation notes shall be issued in accordance with Chapter 133. 51302
of the Revised Code, and notes may be renewed as provided in 51303
section 133.22 of the Revised Code.51304

       (B) The transfer of such funds of the school district board 51305
available for the project, together with the proceeds of the sale 51306
of the bonds or notes, except premium, accrued interest, and 51307
interest included in the amount of the issue, to the school 51308
district's project construction fund;51309

       (C) For all school districts except joint vocational school 51310
districts that receive assistance under sections 3318.40 to 51311
3318.45 of the Revised Code, the following provisions as 51312
applicable:51313

       (1) If section 3318.052 of the Revised Code applies, the 51314
earmarking of the proceeds of a tax levied under section 5705.21 51315
of the Revised Code for general permanent improvements or under 51316
section 5705.218 of the Revised Code for the purpose of permanent 51317
improvements, or the proceeds of a school district income tax 51318
levied under Chapter 5748. of the Revised Code, or the proceeds 51319
from a combination of those two taxes, in an amount to pay all or 51320
part of the service charges on bonds issued to pay the school 51321
district portion of the project and an amount equivalent to all or 51322
part of the tax required under division (B) of section 3318.05 of 51323
the Revised Code;51324

       (2) If section 3318.052 of the Revised Code does not apply, 51325
one of the following:51326

       (a) The levy of the tax authorized at the election for the 51327
payment of maintenance costs, as specified in division (B) of 51328
section 3318.05 of the Revised Code;51329

       (b) If the school district electors have approved a 51330
continuing tax for general permanent improvements under section 51331
5705.21 of the Revised Code and that tax can be used for 51332
maintenance, the earmarking of an amount of the proceeds from such 51333
tax for maintenance of classroom facilities as specified in 51334
division (B) of section 3318.05 of the Revised Code;51335

       (c) If, in lieu of the tax otherwise required under division 51336
(B) of section 3318.05 of the Revised Code, the commission has 51337
approved the transfer of money to the maintenance fund in 51338
accordance with section 3318.051 of the Revised Code, a 51339
requirement that the district board comply with the provisions of51340
that section. The district board may rescind the provision 51341
prescribed under division (C)(2)(c) of this section only so long 51342
as the electors of the district have approved, in accordance with 51343
section 3318.063 of the Revised Code, the levy of a tax for the 51344
maintenance of the classroom facilities acquired under the 51345
district's project and that levy continues to be collected as 51346
approved by the electors.51347

       (D) For joint vocational school districts that receive 51348
assistance under sections 3318.40 to 3318.45 of the Revised Code, 51349
provision for deposit of school district moneys dedicated to 51350
maintenance of the classroom facilities acquired under those 51351
sections as prescribed in section 3318.43 of the Revised Code;51352

       (E) Dedication of any local donated contribution as provided 51353
for under section 3318.084 of the Revised Code, including a 51354
schedule for depositing such moneys applied as an offset of the 51355
district's obligation to levy the tax described in division (B) of 51356
section 3318.05 of the Revised Code as required under division 51357
(D)(2) of section 3318.084 of the Revised Code;51358

       (F) Ownership of or interest in the project during the period 51359
of construction, which shall be divided between the commission and 51360
the school district board in proportion to their respective 51361
contributions to the school district's project construction fund;51362

       (G) Maintenance of the state's interest in the project until 51363
any obligations issued for the project under section 3318.26 of 51364
the Revised Code are no longer outstanding;51365

       (H) The insurance of the project by the school district from 51366
the time there is an insurable interest therein and so long as the 51367
state retains any ownership or interest in the project pursuant to 51368
division (F) of this section, in such amounts and against such 51369
risks as the commission shall require; provided, that the cost of 51370
any required insurance until the project is completed shall be a 51371
part of the basic project cost;51372

       (I) The certification by the director of budget and 51373
management that funds are available and have been set aside to 51374
meet the state's share of the basic project cost as approved by 51375
the controlling board pursuant to either section 3318.04 or 51376
division (B)(1) of section 3318.41 of the Revised Code;51377

       (J) Authorization of the school district board to advertise 51378
for and receive construction bids for the project, for and on 51379
behalf of the commission, and to award contracts in the name of 51380
the state subject to approval by the commission;51381

       (K) Provisions for the disbursement of moneys from the school 51382
district's project account upon issuance by the commission or the 51383
commission's designated representative of vouchers for work done 51384
to be certified to the commission by the treasurer of the school 51385
district board;51386

       (L) Disposal of any balance left in the school district's 51387
project construction fund upon completion of the project;51388

       (M) Limitations upon use of the project or any part of it so 51389
long as any obligations issued to finance the project under 51390
section 3318.26 of the Revised Code are outstanding;51391

       (N) Provision for vesting the state's interest in the project 51392
to the school district board when the obligations issued to 51393
finance the project under section 3318.26 of the Revised Code are 51394
outstanding;51395

       (O) Provision for deposit of an executed copy of the 51396
agreement in the office of the commission;51397

       (P) Provision for termination of the contract and release of 51398
the funds encumbered at the time of the conditional approval, if 51399
the proceeds of the sale of the bonds of the school district board 51400
are not paid into the school district's project construction fund 51401
and if bids for the construction of the project have not been 51402
taken within such period after the execution of the agreement as 51403
may be fixed by the commission;51404

       (Q) Provision for the school district to maintain the project 51405
in accordance with a plan approved by the commission;51406

       (R) Provision that all state funds reserved and encumbered to 51407
pay the state share of the cost of the project and the funds 51408
provided by the school district to pay for its share of the 51409
project cost, including the respective shares of the cost of a 51410
segment if the project is divided into segments, be spent on the 51411
construction and acquisition of the project or segment 51412
simultaneously in proportion to the state's and the school 51413
district's respective shares of that basic project cost as 51414
determined under section 3318.032 of the Revised Code or, if the 51415
district is a joint vocational school district, under section 51416
3318.42 of the Revised Code. However, if the school district 51417
certifies to the commission that expenditure by the school 51418
district is necessary to maintain the federal tax status or 51419
tax-exempt status of notes or bonds issued by the school district 51420
to pay for its share of the project cost or to comply with 51421
applicable temporary investment periods or spending exceptions to 51422
rebate as provided for under federal law in regard to those notes 51423
or bonds, the school district may commit to spend, or spend, a 51424
greater portion of the funds it provides during any specific 51425
period than would otherwise be required under this division.51426

       (S) A provision stipulating that the commission may prohibit 51427
the district from proceeding with any project if the commission 51428
determines that the site is not suitable for construction 51429
purposes. The commission may perform soil tests in its 51430
determination of whether a site is appropriate for construction 51431
purposes.51432

       (T) A provision stipulating that, unless otherwise authorized 51433
by the commission, any contingency reserve portion of the 51434
construction budget prescribed by the commission shall be used 51435
only to pay costs resulting from unforeseen job conditions, to 51436
comply with rulings regarding building and other codes, to pay 51437
costs related to design clarifications or corrections to contract 51438
documents, and to pay the costs of settlements or judgments 51439
related to the project as provided under section 3318.086 of the 51440
Revised Code;51441

       (U) ProvisionA provision stipulating that for continued 51442
release of project funds the school district board shall comply 51443
with sectionsections 3313.41 and 3313.411 of the Revised Code 51444
throughout the project and shall notify the department of 51445
education and the Ohio community school association when the board 51446
plans to dispose of facilities by sale under that section;51447

       (V) ProvisionA provision stipulating that the commission 51448
shall not approve a contract for demolition of a facility until 51449
the school district board has complied with sectionsections51450
3313.41 and 3313.411 of the Revised Code relative to that 51451
facility, unless demolition of that facility is to clear a site 51452
for construction of a replacement facility included in the 51453
district's project;51454

       (W) A requirement for the school district to adhere to a 51455
facilities maintenance plan approved by the commission.51456

       Sec. 3318.31.  (A) The Ohio school facilities commission may 51457
perform any act and ensure the performance of any function 51458
necessary or appropriate to carry out the purposes of, and 51459
exercise the powers granted under, Chapter 3318. of the Revised 51460
Code, including any of the following:51461

       (1) Adopt, amend, and rescind, pursuant to section 111.15 of 51462
the Revised Code, rules for the administration of programs 51463
authorized under Chapter 3318. of the Revised Code.51464

       (2) Contract with, retain the services of, or designate, and 51465
fix the compensation of, such agents, accountants, consultants, 51466
advisers, and other independent contractors as may be necessary or 51467
desirable to carry out the programs authorized under Chapter 3318. 51468
of the Revised Code, or authorize the executive director to 51469
perform such powers and duties.51470

       (3) Receive and accept any gifts, grants, donations, and 51471
pledges, and receipts therefrom, to be used for the programs 51472
authorized under Chapter 3318. of the Revised Code.51473

       (4) Make and enter into all contracts, commitments, and 51474
agreements, and execute all instruments, necessary or incidental 51475
to the performance of its duties and the execution of its rights 51476
and powers under Chapter 3318. of the Revised Code, or authorize 51477
the executive director or the Ohio facilities construction 51478
commission to perform such powers and duties.51479

       (5) Request the Ohio facilities construction commission to 51480
debar a contractor as provided in section 153.02 of the Revised 51481
Code.51482

       (B) The Ohio school facilities commission shall appoint and 51483
fix the compensation of an executive director whoof the Ohio 51484
facilities construction commission, as appointed under division 51485
(B) of section 123.21 of the Revised Code, shall also serve at the 51486
pleasure ofas the executive director for the Ohio school 51487
facilities commission. The executive director shall exercise all 51488
powers that the Ohio school facilities commission possesses, 51489
supervise the operations of the Ohio school facilities commission 51490
and perform such other duties as delegated by the Ohio school 51491
facilities commission. The executive director also shall employ 51492
and fix the compensation of such employees as will facilitate the 51493
activities and purposes of the Ohio school facilities commission, 51494
who shall serve at the pleasure of the executive director. The 51495
employees of the Ohio school facilities commission shall be exempt 51496
from Chapter 4117. of the Revised Code and shall not be public 51497
employees as defined in section 4117.01 of the Revised Code. Any 51498
agreement entered into prior to July 1, 2012, between the office 51499
of collective bargaining and the exclusive representative for 51500
employees of the commission is binding and shall continue to have 51501
effect.51502

       (C) The attorney general shall serve as the legal 51503
representative for the Ohio school facilities commission and may 51504
appoint other counsel as necessary for that purpose in accordance 51505
with section 109.07 of the Revised Code.51506

       Sec. 3318.36.  (A)(1) As used in this section:51507

       (a) "Ohio school facilities commission," "classroom 51508
facilities," "school district," "school district board," "net 51509
bonded indebtedness," "required percentage of the basic project 51510
costs," "basic project cost," "valuation," and "percentile" have 51511
the same meanings as in section 3318.01 of the Revised Code.51512

       (b) "Required level of indebtedness" means five per cent of 51513
the school district's valuation for the year preceding the year in 51514
which the commission and school district enter into an agreement 51515
under division (B) of this section, plus [two one-hundredths of 51516
one per cent multiplied by (the percentile in which the district 51517
ranks minus one)].51518

       (c) "Local resources" means any moneys generated in any 51519
manner permitted for a school district board to raise the school 51520
district portion of a project undertaken with assistance under 51521
sections 3318.01 to 3318.20 of the Revised Code.51522

       (d) "Tangible personal property phase-out impacted district" 51523
means a school district for which the taxable value of its 51524
tangible personal property certified under division (A)(2) of 51525
section 3317.021 of the Revised Code for tax year 2005, excluding 51526
the taxable value of public utility personal property, made up 51527
eighteen per cent or more of its total taxable value for tax year 51528
2005 as certified under that section.51529

       (2) For purposes of determining the required level of 51530
indebtedness, the required percentage of the basic project costs 51531
under division (C)(1) of this section, and priority for assistance 51532
under sections 3318.01 to 3318.20 of the Revised Code, the 51533
percentile ranking of a school district with which the commission 51534
has entered into an agreement under this section between the first 51535
day of July and the thirty-first day of August in each fiscal year 51536
is the percentile ranking calculated for that district for the 51537
immediately preceding fiscal year, and the percentile ranking of a 51538
school district with which the commission has entered into such 51539
agreement between the first day of September and the thirtieth day 51540
of June in each fiscal year is the percentile ranking calculated 51541
for that district for the current fiscal year. However, in the 51542
case of a tangible personal property phase-out impacted district, 51543
the district's priority for assistance under sections 3318.01 to 51544
3318.20 of the Revised Code and its portion of the basic project 51545
cost under those sections shall be determined in the manner 51546
prescribed, respectively, in divisions (B)(3)(b) and (E)(1)(b) of 51547
this section.51548

       (B)(1) There is hereby established the school building 51549
assistance expedited local partnership program. Under the program, 51550
the Ohio school facilities commission may enter into an agreement 51551
with the board of any school district under which the board may 51552
proceed with the new construction or major repairs of a part of 51553
the district's classroom facilities needs, as determined under 51554
sections 3318.01 to 3318.20 of the Revised Code, through the 51555
expenditure of local resources prior to the school district's 51556
eligibility for state assistance under those sections, and may 51557
apply that expenditure toward meeting the school district's 51558
portion of the basic project cost of the total of the district's 51559
classroom facilities needs, as recalculated under division (E) of 51560
this section, when the district becomes eligible for state 51561
assistance under sections 3318.01 to 3318.20 or section 3318.364 51562
of the Revised Code. Any school district that is reasonably 51563
expected to receive assistance under sections 3318.01 to 3318.20 51564
of the Revised Code within two fiscal years from the date the 51565
school district adopts its resolution under division (B) of this 51566
section shall not be eligible to participate in the program 51567
established under this section.51568

       (2) To participate in the program, a school district board 51569
shall first adopt a resolution certifying to the commission the 51570
board's intent to participate in the program.51571

       The resolution shall specify the approximate date that the 51572
board intends to seek elector approval of any bond or tax measures 51573
or to apply other local resources to use to pay the cost of 51574
classroom facilities to be constructed under this section. The 51575
resolution may specify the application of local resources or 51576
elector-approved bond or tax measures after the resolution is 51577
adopted by the board, and in such case the board may proceed with 51578
a discrete portion of its project under this section as soon as 51579
the commission and the controlling board have approved the basic 51580
project cost of the district's classroom facilities needs as 51581
specified in division (D) of this section. The board shall submit 51582
its resolution to the commission not later than ten days after the 51583
date the resolution is adopted by the board.51584

       The commission shall not consider any resolution that is 51585
submitted pursuant to division (B)(2) of this section, as amended 51586
by this amendment, sooner than September 14, 2000.51587

       (3) For purposes of determining when a district that enters 51588
into an agreement under this section becomes eligible for 51589
assistance under sections 3318.01 to 3318.20 of the Revised Code 51590
or priority for assistance under section 3318.364 of the Revised 51591
Code, the commission shall use one of the following as applicable:51592

       (a) Except for a tangible personal property phase-out 51593
impacted district, the district's percentile ranking determined at 51594
the time the district entered into the agreement under this 51595
section, as prescribed by division (A)(2) of this section;51596

       (b) For a tangible personal property phase-out impacted 51597
district, the lesser of (i) the district's percentile ranking 51598
determined at the time the district entered into the agreement 51599
under this section, as prescribed by division (A)(2) of this 51600
section, or (ii) the district's current percentile ranking under 51601
section 3318.011 of the Revised Code.51602

       (4) Any project under this section shall comply with section 51603
3318.03 of the Revised Code and with any specifications for plans 51604
and materials for classroom facilities adopted by the commission 51605
under section 3318.04 of the Revised Code.51606

       (5) If a school district that enters into an agreement under 51607
this section has not begun a project applying local resources as 51608
provided for under that agreement at the time the district is 51609
notified by the commission that it is eligible to receive state 51610
assistance under sections 3318.01 to 3318.20 of the Revised Code, 51611
all assessment and agreement documents entered into under this 51612
section are void.51613

       (6) Only construction of or repairs to classroom facilities 51614
that have been approved by the commission and have been therefore 51615
included as part of a district's basic project cost qualify for 51616
application of local resources under this section.51617

       (C) Based on the results of on-site visits and assessment, 51618
the commission shall determine the basic project cost of the 51619
school district's classroom facilities needs. The commission shall 51620
determine the school district's portion of such basic project 51621
cost, which shall be the greater of:51622

       (1) The required percentage of the basic project costs, 51623
determined based on the school district's percentile ranking;51624

       (2) An amount necessary to raise the school district's net 51625
bonded indebtedness, as of the fiscal year the commission and the 51626
school district enter into the agreement under division (B) of 51627
this section, to within five thousand dollars of the required 51628
level of indebtedness.51629

       (D)(1) When the commission determines the basic project cost 51630
of the classroom facilities needs of a school district and the 51631
school district's portion of that basic project cost under 51632
division (C) of this section, the project shall be conditionally 51633
approved. Such conditional approval shall be submitted to the 51634
controlling board for approval thereof. The controlling board 51635
shall forthwith approve or reject the commission's determination, 51636
conditional approval, and the amount of the state's portion of the 51637
basic project cost; however, no state funds shall be encumbered 51638
under this section. Upon approval by the controlling board, the 51639
school district board may identify a discrete part of its 51640
classroom facilities needs, which shall include only new 51641
construction of or additions or major repairs to a particular 51642
building, to address with local resources. Upon identifying a part 51643
of the school district's basic project cost to address with local 51644
resources, the school district board may allocate any available 51645
school district moneys to pay the cost of that identified part, 51646
including the proceeds of an issuance of bonds if approved by the 51647
electors of the school district.51648

       All local resources utilized under this division shall first 51649
be deposited in the project construction account required under 51650
section 3318.08 of the Revised Code.51651

       (2) Unless the school district board exercises its option 51652
under division (D)(3) of this section, for a school district to 51653
qualify for participation in the program authorized under this 51654
section, one of the following conditions shall be satisfied:51655

       (a) The electors of the school district by a majority vote 51656
shall approve the levy of taxes outside the ten-mill limitation 51657
for a period of twenty-three years at the rate of not less than 51658
one-half mill for each dollar of valuation to be used to pay the 51659
cost of maintaining the classroom facilities included in the basic 51660
project cost as determined by the commission. The form of the 51661
ballot to be used to submit the question whether to approve the 51662
tax required under this division to the electors of the school 51663
district shall be the form for an additional levy of taxes 51664
prescribed in section 3318.361 of the Revised Code, which may be 51665
combined in a single ballot question with the questions prescribed 51666
under section 5705.218 of the Revised Code.51667

       (b) As authorized under division (C) of section 3318.05 of 51668
the Revised Code, the school district board shall earmark from the 51669
proceeds of a permanent improvement tax levied under section 51670
5705.21 of the Revised Code, an amount equivalent to the 51671
additional tax otherwise required under division (D)(2)(a) of this 51672
section for the maintenance of the classroom facilities included 51673
in the basic project cost as determined by the commission.51674

       (c) As authorized under section 3318.051 of the Revised Code, 51675
the school district board shall, if approved by the commission, 51676
annually transfer into the maintenance fund required under section 51677
3318.05 of the Revised Code the amount prescribed in section 51678
3318.051 of the Revised Code in lieu of the tax otherwise required 51679
under division (D)(2)(a) of this section for the maintenance of 51680
the classroom facilities included in the basic project cost as 51681
determined by the commission.51682

        (d) If the school district board has rescinded the agreement 51683
to make transfers under section 3318.051 of the Revised Code, as 51684
provided under division (F) of that section, the electors of the 51685
school district, in accordance with section 3318.063 of the 51686
Revised Code, first shall approve the levy of taxes outside the 51687
ten-mill limitation for the period specified in that section at a 51688
rate of not less than one-half mill for each dollar of valuation.51689

       (e) The school district board shall apply the proceeds of a 51690
tax to leverage bonds as authorized under section 3318.052 of the 51691
Revised Code or dedicate a local donated contribution in the 51692
manner described in division (B) of section 3318.084 of the 51693
Revised Code in an amount equivalent to the additional tax 51694
otherwise required under division (D)(2)(a) of this section for 51695
the maintenance of the classroom facilities included in the basic 51696
project cost as determined by the commission.51697

       (3) A school district board may opt to delay taking any of 51698
the actions described in division (D)(2) of this section until the 51699
school district becomes eligible for state assistance under 51700
sections 3318.01 to 3318.20 of the Revised Code. In order to 51701
exercise this option, the board shall certify to the commission a 51702
resolution indicating the board's intent to do so prior to 51703
entering into an agreement under division (B) of this section.51704

       (4) If pursuant to division (D)(3) of this section a district 51705
board opts to delay levying an additional tax until the district 51706
becomes eligible for state assistance, it shall submit the 51707
question of levying that tax to the district electors as follows:51708

       (a) In accordance with section 3318.06 of the Revised Code if 51709
it will also be necessary pursuant to division (E) of this section 51710
to submit a proposal for approval of a bond issue;51711

       (b) In accordance with section 3318.361 of the Revised Code 51712
if it is not necessary to also submit a proposal for approval of a 51713
bond issue pursuant to division (E) of this section.51714

       (5) No state assistance under sections 3318.01 to 3318.20 of 51715
the Revised Code shall be released until a school district board 51716
that adopts and certifies a resolution under division (D) of this 51717
section also demonstrates to the satisfaction of the commission 51718
compliance with the provisions of division (D)(2) of this section.51719

       Any amount required for maintenance under division (D)(2) of 51720
this section shall be deposited into a separate fund as specified 51721
in division (B) of section 3318.05 of the Revised Code.51722

       (E)(1) If the school district becomes eligible for state 51723
assistance under sections 3318.01 to 3318.20 of the Revised Code 51724
based on its percentile ranking under division (B)(3) of this 51725
section or is offered assistance under section 3318.364 of the 51726
Revised Code, the commission shall conduct a new assessment of the 51727
school district's classroom facilities needs and shall recalculate 51728
the basic project cost based on this new assessment. The basic 51729
project cost recalculated under this division shall include the 51730
amount of expenditures made by the school district board under 51731
division (D)(1) of this section. The commission shall then 51732
recalculate the school district's portion of the new basic project 51733
cost, which shall be one of the following as applicable:51734

       (a) Except for a tangible personal property phase-out 51735
impacted district, the percentage of the original basic project 51736
cost assigned to the school district as its portion under division 51737
(C) of this section;51738

       (b) For a tangible personal property phase-out impacted 51739
district, the lesser of (i) the percentage of the original basic 51740
project cost assigned to the school district as its portion under 51741
division (C) of this section, or (ii) the percentage of the new 51742
basic project cost determined under section 3318.032 of the 51743
Revised Code using the district's current percentile ranking under 51744
section 3318.011 of the Revised Code. The51745

       The commission shall deduct the expenditure of school 51746
district moneys made under division (D)(1) of this section from 51747
the school district's portion of the basic project cost as 51748
recalculated under this division. If the amount of school district 51749
resources applied by the school district board to the school 51750
district's portion of the basic project cost under this section is 51751
less than the total amount of such portion as recalculated under 51752
this division, the school district board by a majority vote of all 51753
of its members shall, if it desires to seek state assistance under 51754
sections 3318.01 to 3318.20 of the Revised Code, adopt a 51755
resolution as specified in section 3318.06 of the Revised Code to 51756
submit to the electors of the school district the question of 51757
approval of a bond issue in order to pay any additional amount of 51758
school district portion required for state assistance. Any tax 51759
levy approved under division (D) of this section satisfies the 51760
requirements to levy the additional tax under section 3318.06 of 51761
the Revised Code.51762

       (2) If the amount of school district resources applied by the 51763
school district board to the school district's portion of the 51764
basic project cost under this section is more than the total 51765
amount of such portion as recalculated under this division (E)(1) 51766
of this section, within one year after the school district's 51767
portion is so recalculated under division (E)(1) of this section51768
the commission may grant to the school district the difference 51769
between the two calculated portions, but at no time shall the 51770
commission expend any state funds on a project in an amount 51771
greater than the state's portion of the basic project cost as 51772
recalculated under this division (E)(1) of this section.51773

       Any reimbursement under this division shall be only for local 51774
resources the school district has applied toward construction cost 51775
expenditures for the classroom facilities approved by the 51776
commission, which shall not include any financing costs associated 51777
with that construction.51778

       The school district board shall use any moneys reimbursed to 51779
the district under this division to pay off any debt service the 51780
district owes for classroom facilities constructed under its 51781
project under this section before such moneys are applied to any 51782
other purpose. However, the district board first may deposit 51783
moneys reimbursed under this division into the district's general 51784
fund or a permanent improvement fund to replace local resources 51785
the district withdrew from those funds, as long as, and to the 51786
extent that, those local resources were used by the district for 51787
constructing classroom facilities included in the district's basic 51788
project cost.51789

       (3) A tangible personal property phase-out impacted district 51790
shall receive credit under division (E) of this section for the 51791
expenditure of local resources pursuant to any prior agreement 51792
authorized by this section, notwithstanding any recalculation of 51793
its average taxable value.51794

       Sec. 3318.363. (A) This section applies beginning in fiscal 51795
year 2003 and only to a school district participating in the 51796
school building assistance expedited local partnership program 51797
under section 3318.36 of the Revised Code.51798

       (B) If there is a decrease in the tax valuation of a school 51799
district to which this section applies by ten per cent or greater 51800
from one tax year to the next due to a decrease in the assessment 51801
rate of the taxable property of an electric company that owns 51802
property in the district, as provided for in section 5727.111 of 51803
the Revised Code as amended by Am. Sub. S.B. 3 of the 123rd 51804
General Assembly, the Ohio school facilities commission shall 51805
calculate or recalculate the state and school district portions of 51806
the basic project cost of the school district's project by 51807
determining the percentile rank in which the district would be 51808
located if such ranking were made using the adjusted valuation per 51809
pupil calculated under division (C) of this section rather than 51810
the three-year average adjusted valuation per pupil, calculated 51811
under division (B) of section 3318.011 of the Revised Code. For 51812
such district, the required percentage of the basic project cost 51813
used to determine the state and school district shares of that 51814
cost under division (C) of section 3318.36 of the Revised Code 51815
shall be based on the percentile rank as calculated under this 51816
section rather than as otherwise provided in division (C)(1) of 51817
section 3318.36 of the Revised Code. If the commission has 51818
determined the state and school district portion of the basic 51819
project cost of such a district's project under section 3318.36 of 51820
the Revised Code prior to that decrease in tax valuation, the 51821
commission shall adjust the state and school district shares of 51822
the basic project cost of such project in accordance with this 51823
section.51824

       (C)(1) As used in divisions (C) and (D) of this section, 51825
"total taxable value," and "formula ADM," and "income factor" have 51826
the same meanings as in section 3317.02 of the Revised Code, and 51827
"income factor" has the same meaning as in section 3318.011 of the 51828
Revised Code.51829

       (2) The adjusted valuation per pupil for a school district to 51830
which this section applies shall be calculated using the following 51831
formula:51832

       (The district's total taxable value for the tax year 51833
preceding the calendar year in which the current fiscal year 51834
begins / the district's formula ADM for the previous fiscal year) 51835
- [$30,000 x (1 - the district's income factor)].51836

       (D) At the request of the Ohio school facilities commission, 51837
the department of education shall report a district's total 51838
taxable value for the tax year preceding the calendar year in 51839
which the current fiscal year begins for any district to which 51840
this section applies as that information has been certified to the 51841
department by the tax commissioner pursuant to section 3317.021 of 51842
the Revised Code.51843

       Sec. 3319.031.  Notwithstanding any provision of the Revised 51844
Code to the contrary, if the board of education of a city, local, 51845
or exempted village school district does not appoint a business 51846
manager under section 3319.03 of the Revised Code, the board may 51847
assign powers and duties specified in section 3319.04 of the 51848
Revised Code to one or more employees or officers of the board, 51849
including the treasurer, and may give the employees or officers 51850
any title recognizing the assignment of the powers and duties. The 51851
prohibition, in section 3319.04 of the Revised Code, against a 51852
business manager having possession of moneys does not prevent a 51853
board from assigning powers and duties specified in that section 51854
to the treasurer and does not prevent a treasurer who is assigned 51855
those powers and duties from exercising the powers and duties of 51856
treasurer. If the board assigns the duties of a business manager 51857
under section 3319.04 of the Revised Code to the treasurer, the 51858
treasurer shall not have the authority to make recommendations to 51859
appoint or discharge noneducational employees, except as provided 51860
under section 3313.31 of the Revised Code. Instead, the district 51861
superintendent shall be responsible for making recommendations, 51862
subject to confirmation by the board, for the appointment or 51863
discharge of noneducational employees. 51864

       Sec. 3319.07.  (A) The board of education of each city, 51865
exempted village, local, and joint vocational school district 51866
shall employ the teachers of the public schools of their 51867
respective districts.51868

       The governing board of each educational service center may 51869
employ special instruction teachers, special education teachers, 51870
and teachers of academic courses in which there are too few 51871
students in each of the school districts entering into agreements 51872
pursuant to section 3313.843 of the Revised Code to warrant each 51873
district's employing teachers for those courses.51874

       When any board makes appointments of teachers, the teachers 51875
in the employ of the board shall be considered before new teachers 51876
are chosen in their stead. In all school districts and in service 51877
centers, no teacher shall be employed unless such person is 51878
nominated by the superintendent of such district or center, or by 51879
another individual designated by the board in the event that the 51880
superintendent's nomination would be a violation of section 51881
2921.42 of the Revised Code. Such board, by a three-fourths vote 51882
of its full membership, may re-employ any teacher whom the 51883
superintendent refuses to appoint.51884

       (B) The board of education of any school district may 51885
contract with the governing board of the educational service 51886
center from which it otherwise receives services to conduct 51887
searches and recruitment of candidates for teacher positions.51888

       Sec. 3319.073.  (A) The board of education of each city and 51889
exempted village school district and the governing board of each 51890
educational service center shall adopt or adapt the curriculum 51891
developed by the department of education for, or shall develop in 51892
consultation with public or private agencies or persons involved 51893
in child abuse prevention or intervention programs, a program of 51894
in-service training in the prevention of child abuse, violence, 51895
and substance abuse and the promotion of positive youth 51896
development. Each person employed by any school district or 51897
service center to work in a school as a nurse, teacher, counselor, 51898
school psychologist, or administrator shall complete at least four 51899
hours of the in-service training within two years of commencing 51900
employment with the district or center, and every five years 51901
thereafter. A person who is employed by any school district or 51902
service center to work in an elementary school as a nurse, 51903
teacher, counselor, school psychologist, or administrator on March 51904
30, 2007, shall complete at least four hours of the in-service 51905
training not later than March 30, 2009, and every five years 51906
thereafter. A person who is employed by any school district or 51907
service center to work in a middle or high school as a nurse, 51908
teacher, counselor, school psychologist, or administrator on 51909
October 16, 2009, shall complete at least four hours of the 51910
in-service training not later than October 16, 2011, and every 51911
five years thereafter.51912

       (B) Each board shall incorporate training in school safety 51913
and violence prevention, including human trafficking content, into 51914
the in-service training required by division (A) of this section. 51915
For this purpose, the board shall adopt or adapt the curriculum 51916
developed by the department or shall develop its own curriculum in 51917
consultation with public or private agencies or persons involved 51918
in school safety and violence prevention programs.51919

       (C) Each board shall incorporate training on the board's 51920
harassment, intimidation, or bullying policy adopted under section 51921
3313.666 of the Revised Code into the in-service training required 51922
by division (A) of this section. Each board also shall incorporate 51923
training in the prevention of dating violence into the in-service 51924
training required by that division for middle and high school 51925
employees. The board shall develop its own curricula for these 51926
purposes.51927

       (D) Each board shall incorporate training in youth suicide 51928
awareness and prevention into the in-service training required by 51929
division (A) of this section for each person employed by a school 51930
district or service center to work in a school as a nurse, 51931
teacher, counselor, school psychologist, or administrator, and any 51932
other personnel that the board determines appropriate. For this 51933
purpose, the board shall adopt or adapt the curriculum developed 51934
by the department or shall develop its own curriculum in 51935
consultation with public or private agencies or persons involved 51936
in youth suicide awareness and prevention programs.51937

       The training completed under this division shall count toward 51938
the satisfaction of requirements for professional development 51939
required by the school district or service center board, and the 51940
training may be accomplished through self-review of suitable 51941
suicide prevention materials approved by the board.51942

       Sec. 3319.17.  (A) As used in this section, "interdistrict 51943
contract" means any contract or agreement entered into by an 51944
educational service center governing board and another board or 51945
other public entity pursuant to section 3313.17, 3313.841, 51946
3313.842, 3313.843, 3313.844, 3313.845, 3313.91, or 3323.08 of the 51947
Revised Code, including any such contract or agreement for the 51948
provision of services funded under division (E) of section 51949
3317.024 of the Revised Code or provided in any unit approved 51950
under section 3317.05 of the Revised Code.51951

       (B) When, for any of the following reasons that apply to any 51952
city, exempted village, local, or joint vocational school district 51953
or any educational service center, the board decides that it will 51954
be necessary to reduce the number of teachers it employs, it may 51955
make a reasonable reduction:51956

       (1) In the case of any district or service center, return to 51957
duty of regular teachers after leaves of absence including 51958
suspension of schools, territorial changes affecting the district 51959
or center, or financial reasons;51960

       (2) In the case of any city, exempted village, local, or 51961
joint vocational school district, decreased enrollment of pupils 51962
in the district;51963

       (3) In the case of any governing board of a service center 51964
providing any particular service directly to pupils pursuant to 51965
one or more interdistrict contracts requiring such service, 51966
reduction in the total number of pupils the governing board is 51967
required to provide with the service under all interdistrict 51968
contracts as a result of the termination or nonrenewal of one or 51969
more of these interdistrict contracts;51970

       (4) In the case of any governing board providing any 51971
particular service that it does not provide directly to pupils 51972
pursuant to one or more interdistrict contracts requiring such 51973
service, reduction in the total level of the service the governing 51974
board is required to provide under all interdistrict contracts as 51975
a result of the termination or nonrenewal of one or more of these 51976
interdistrict contracts.51977

       (C) In making any such reduction, any city, exempted village, 51978
local, or joint vocational school board shall proceed to suspend 51979
contracts in accordance with the recommendation of the 51980
superintendent of schools who shall, within each teaching field 51981
affected, give preference to teachers on continuing contracts. The 51982
board shall not give preference to any teacher based on seniority, 51983
except when making a decision between teachers who have comparable 51984
evaluations.51985

       On a case-by-case basis, in lieu of suspending a contract in 51986
whole, a board may suspend a contract in part, so that an 51987
individual is required to work a percentage of the time the 51988
employee otherwise is required to work under the contract and 51989
receives a commensurate percentage of the full compensation the 51990
employee otherwise would receive under the contract.51991

       The teachers whose continuing contracts are suspended by any 51992
board pursuant to this section shall have the right of restoration 51993
to continuing service status by that board if and when teaching 51994
positions become vacant or are created for which any of such 51995
teachers are or become qualified. No teacher whose continuing 51996
contract has been suspended pursuant to this section shall lose 51997
that right of restoration to continuing service status by reason 51998
of having declined recall to a position that is less than 51999
full-time or, if the teacher was not employed full-time just prior 52000
to suspension of the teacher's continuing contract, to a position 52001
requiring a lesser percentage of full-time employment than the 52002
position the teacher last held while employed in the district or 52003
service center. Seniority shall not be the basis for rehiring a 52004
teacher, except when making a decision between teachers who have 52005
comparable evaluations.52006

       (D) Notwithstanding any provision to the contrary in Chapter 52007
4117. of the Revised Code:52008

       (1) The requirements of this section, as it existed prior to 52009
the effective date of this amendmentSeptember 29, 2011, prevail 52010
over any conflicting provisions of agreements between employee 52011
organizations and public employers entered into between September 52012
29, 2005, and that effective dateSeptember 29, 2011;52013

       (2) The requirements of this section, as it exists on and 52014
after the effective date of this amendmentSeptember 29, 2011, 52015
prevail over any conflicting provisions of agreements between 52016
employee organizations and public employers entered into on or 52017
after that effective dateSeptember 29, 2011.52018

       Sec. 3319.22.  (A)(1) The state board of education shall 52019
issue the following educator licenses:52020

       (a) A resident educator license, which shall be valid for 52021
four years, except that the state board, on a case-by-case basis, 52022
may extend the license's duration as necessary to enable the 52023
license holder to complete the Ohio teacher residency program 52024
established under section 3319.223 of the Revised Code;52025

       (b) A professional educator license, which shall be valid for 52026
five years and shall be renewable;52027

       (c) A senior professional educator license, which shall be 52028
valid for five years and shall be renewable;52029

       (d) A lead professional educator license, which shall be 52030
valid for five years and shall be renewable.52031

       (2) The state board may issue any additional educator 52032
licenses of categories, types, and levels the board elects to 52033
provide. 52034

       (3) The state board shall adopt rules establishing the 52035
standards and requirements for obtaining each educator license 52036
issued under this section.52037

       (B) The rules adopted under this section shall require at 52038
least the following standards and qualifications for the educator 52039
licenses described in division (A)(1) of this section:52040

       (1) An applicant for a resident educator license shall hold 52041
at least a bachelor's degree from an accredited teacher 52042
preparation program or be a participant in the teach for America 52043
program and meet the qualifications required under section 52044
3319.227 of the Revised Code.52045

       (2) An applicant for a professional educator license shall:52046

       (a) Hold at least a bachelor's degree from an institution of 52047
higher education accredited by a regional accrediting 52048
organization;52049

       (b) Have successfully completed the Ohio teacher residency 52050
program established under section 3319.223 of the Revised Code, if 52051
the applicant's current or most recently issued license is a 52052
resident educator license issued under this section or an 52053
alternative resident educator license issued under section 3319.26 52054
of the Revised Code.52055

       (3) An applicant for a senior professional educator license 52056
shall:52057

       (a) Hold at least a master's degree from an institution of 52058
higher education accredited by a regional accrediting 52059
organization;52060

       (b) Have previously held a professional educator license 52061
issued under this section or section 3319.222 or under former 52062
section 3319.22 of the Revised Code;52063

       (c) Meet the criteria for the accomplished or distinguished 52064
level of performance, as described in the standards for teachers 52065
adopted by the state board under section 3319.61 of the Revised 52066
Code.52067

       (4) An applicant for a lead professional educator license 52068
shall:52069

       (a) Hold at least a master's degree from an institution of 52070
higher education accredited by a regional accrediting 52071
organization;52072

       (b) Have previously held a professional educator license or a 52073
senior professional educator license issued under this section or 52074
a professional educator license issued under section 3319.222 or 52075
former section 3319.22 of the Revised Code;52076

       (c) Meet the criteria for the distinguished level of 52077
performance, as described in the standards for teachers adopted by 52078
the state board under section 3319.61 of the Revised Code;52079

       (d) Either hold a valid certificate issued by the national 52080
board for professional teaching standards or meet the criteria for 52081
a master teacher or other criteria for a lead teacher adopted by 52082
the educator standards board under division (F)(4) or (5) of 52083
section 3319.61 of the Revised Code.52084

       (C) The state board shall align the standards and 52085
qualifications for obtaining a principal license with the 52086
standards for principals adopted by the state board under section 52087
3319.61 of the Revised Code. 52088

       (D) If the state board requires any examinations for educator 52089
licensure, the department of education shall provide the results 52090
of such examinations received by the department to the chancellor 52091
of the Ohio board of regents, in the manner and to the extent 52092
permitted by state and federal law.52093

       (E) Any rules the state board of education adopts, amends, or 52094
rescinds for educator licenses under this section, division (D) of 52095
section 3301.07 of the Revised Code, or any other law shall be 52096
adopted, amended, or rescinded under Chapter 119. of the Revised 52097
Code except as follows:52098

       (1) Notwithstanding division (D) of section 119.03 and 52099
division (A)(1) of section 119.04 of the Revised Code, in the case 52100
of the adoption of any rule or the amendment or rescission of any 52101
rule that necessitates institutions' offering preparation programs 52102
for educators and other school personnel that are approved by the 52103
chancellor of the Ohio board of regents under section 3333.048 of 52104
the Revised Code to revise the curriculum of those programs, the 52105
effective date shall not be as prescribed in division (D) of 52106
section 119.03 and division (A)(1) of section 119.04 of the 52107
Revised Code. Instead, the effective date of such rules, or the 52108
amendment or rescission of such rules, shall be the date 52109
prescribed by section 3333.048 of the Revised Code.52110

       (2) Notwithstanding the authority to adopt, amend, or rescind 52111
emergency rules in division (F) of section 119.03 of the Revised 52112
Code, this authority shall not apply to the state board of 52113
education with regard to rules for educator licenses.52114

       (F)(1) The rules adopted under this section establishing 52115
standards requiring additional coursework for the renewal of any 52116
educator license shall require a school district and a chartered 52117
nonpublic school to establish local professional development 52118
committees. In a nonpublic school, the chief administrative 52119
officer shall establish the committees in any manner acceptable to 52120
such officer. The committees established under this division shall 52121
determine whether coursework that a district or chartered 52122
nonpublic school teacher proposes to complete meets the 52123
requirement of the rules. The department of education shall 52124
provide technical assistance and support to committees as the 52125
committees incorporate the professional development standards 52126
adopted by the state board of education pursuant to section 52127
3319.61 of the Revised Code into their review of coursework that 52128
is appropriate for license renewal. The rules shall establish a 52129
procedure by which a teacher may appeal the decision of a local 52130
professional development committee.52131

       (2) In any school district in which there is no exclusive 52132
representative established under Chapter 4117. of the Revised 52133
Code, the professional development committees shall be established 52134
as described in division (F)(2) of this section.52135

       Not later than the effective date of the rules adopted under 52136
this section, the board of education of each school district shall 52137
establish the structure for one or more local professional 52138
development committees to be operated by such school district. The 52139
committee structure so established by a district board shall 52140
remain in effect unless within thirty days prior to an anniversary 52141
of the date upon which the current committee structure was 52142
established, the board provides notice to all affected district 52143
employees that the committee structure is to be modified. 52144
Professional development committees may have a district-level or 52145
building-level scope of operations, and may be established with 52146
regard to particular grade or age levels for which an educator 52147
license is designated.52148

       Each professional development committee shall consist of at 52149
least three classroom teachers employed by the district, one 52150
principal employed by the district, and one other employee of the 52151
district appointed by the district superintendent. For committees 52152
with a building-level scope, the teacher and principal members 52153
shall be assigned to that building, and the teacher members shall 52154
be elected by majority vote of the classroom teachers assigned to 52155
that building. For committees with a district-level scope, the 52156
teacher members shall be elected by majority vote of the classroom 52157
teachers of the district, and the principal member shall be 52158
elected by a majority vote of the principals of the district, 52159
unless there are two or fewer principals employed by the district, 52160
in which case the one or two principals employed shall serve on 52161
the committee. If a committee has a particular grade or age level 52162
scope, the teacher members shall be licensed to teach such grade 52163
or age levels, and shall be elected by majority vote of the 52164
classroom teachers holding such a license and the principal shall 52165
be elected by all principals serving in buildings where any such 52166
teachers serve. The district superintendent shall appoint a 52167
replacement to fill any vacancy that occurs on a professional 52168
development committee, except in the case of vacancies among the 52169
elected classroom teacher members, which shall be filled by vote 52170
of the remaining members of the committee so selected.52171

       Terms of office on professional development committees shall 52172
be prescribed by the district board establishing the committees. 52173
The conduct of elections for members of professional development 52174
committees shall be prescribed by the district board establishing 52175
the committees. A professional development committee may include 52176
additional members, except that the majority of members on each 52177
such committee shall be classroom teachers employed by the 52178
district. Any member appointed to fill a vacancy occurring prior 52179
to the expiration date of the term for which a predecessor was 52180
appointed shall hold office as a member for the remainder of that 52181
term.52182

       The initial meeting of any professional development 52183
committee, upon election and appointment of all committee members, 52184
shall be called by a member designated by the district 52185
superintendent. At this initial meeting, the committee shall 52186
select a chairperson and such other officers the committee deems 52187
necessary, and shall adopt rules for the conduct of its meetings. 52188
Thereafter, the committee shall meet at the call of the 52189
chairperson or upon the filing of a petition with the district 52190
superintendent signed by a majority of the committee members 52191
calling for the committee to meet.52192

       (3) In the case of a school district in which an exclusive 52193
representative has been established pursuant to Chapter 4117. of 52194
the Revised Code, professional development committees shall be 52195
established in accordance with any collective bargaining agreement 52196
in effect in the district that includes provisions for such 52197
committees.52198

       If the collective bargaining agreement does not specify a 52199
different method for the selection of teacher members of the 52200
committees, the exclusive representative of the district's 52201
teachers shall select the teacher members.52202

       If the collective bargaining agreement does not specify a 52203
different structure for the committees, the board of education of 52204
the school district shall establish the structure, including the 52205
number of committees and the number of teacher and administrative 52206
members on each committee; the specific administrative members to 52207
be part of each committee; whether the scope of the committees 52208
will be district levels, building levels, or by type of grade or 52209
age levels for which educator licenses are designated; the lengths 52210
of terms for members; the manner of filling vacancies on the 52211
committees; and the frequency and time and place of meetings. 52212
However, in all cases, except as provided in division (F)(4) of 52213
this section, there shall be a majority of teacher members of any 52214
professional development committee, there shall be at least five 52215
total members of any professional development committee, and the 52216
exclusive representative shall designate replacement members in 52217
the case of vacancies among teacher members, unless the collective 52218
bargaining agreement specifies a different method of selecting 52219
such replacements.52220

       (4) Whenever an administrator's coursework plan is being 52221
discussed or voted upon, the local professional development 52222
committee shall, at the request of one of its administrative 52223
members, cause a majority of the committee to consist of 52224
administrative members by reducing the number of teacher members 52225
voting on the plan.52226

       (G)(1) The department of education, educational service 52227
centers, county boards of developmental disabilities, regional 52228
professional development centers, special education regional 52229
resource centers, college and university departments of education, 52230
head start programs, the eTech Ohio commission, and the Ohio 52231
education computer network may establish local professional 52232
development committees to determine whether the coursework 52233
proposed by their employees who are licensed or certificated under 52234
this section or section 3319.222 of the Revised Code, or under the 52235
former version of either section as it existed prior to October 52236
16, 2009, meet the requirements of the rules adopted under this 52237
section. They may establish local professional development 52238
committees on their own or in collaboration with a school district 52239
or other agency having authority to establish them.52240

       Local professional development committees established by 52241
county boards of developmental disabilities shall be structured in 52242
a manner comparable to the structures prescribed for school 52243
districts in divisions (F)(2) and (3) of this section, as shall 52244
the committees established by any other entity specified in 52245
division (G)(1) of this section that provides educational services 52246
by employing or contracting for services of classroom teachers 52247
licensed or certificated under this section or section 3319.222 of 52248
the Revised Code, or under the former version of either section as 52249
it existed prior to October 16, 2009. All other entities specified 52250
in division (G)(1) of this section shall structure their 52251
committees in accordance with guidelines which shall be issued by 52252
the state board.52253

       (2) Any public agency that is not specified in division 52254
(G)(1) of this section but provides educational services and 52255
employs or contracts for services of classroom teachers licensed 52256
or certificated under this section or section 3319.222 of the 52257
Revised Code, or under the former version of either section as it 52258
existed prior to October 16, 2009, may establish a local 52259
professional development committee, subject to the approval of the 52260
department of education. The committee shall be structured in 52261
accordance with guidelines issued by the state board.52262

       Sec. 3319.235.  (A) The standards for the preparation of 52263
teachers adopted under section 3333.048 of the Revised Code shall 52264
require any institution that provides a course of study for the 52265
training of teachers to ensure that graduates of such course of 52266
study are skilled at integrating educational technology in the 52267
instruction of children, as evidenced by the graduate having 52268
either demonstrated proficiency in such skills in a manner 52269
prescribed by the department of education or completed a course 52270
that includes training in such skills.52271

       (B) The eTech Ohio commissionchancellor of the Ohio board of 52272
regents, in consultation with the department of education, shall 52273
establish model professional development programs to assist 52274
teachers who completed their teacher preparation prior to the 52275
effective date of division (A) of this section to become skilled 52276
at integrating educational technology in the instruction of 52277
children. The commissionchancellor shall provide technical 52278
assistance to school districts wishing to establish such programs.52279

       Sec. 3319.57.  (A) A grant program is hereby established 52280
under which the department of education shall award grants to 52281
assist certain schools in a city, exempted village, local, or 52282
joint vocational school district in implementing one of the 52283
following innovations:52284

       (1) The use of instructional specialists to mentor and 52285
support classroom teachers;52286

       (2) The use of building managers to supervise the 52287
administrative functions of school operation so that a school 52288
principal can focus on supporting instruction, providing 52289
instructional leadership, and engaging teachers as part of the 52290
instructional leadership team;52291

       (3) The reconfiguration of school leadership structure in a 52292
manner that allows teachers to serve in leadership roles so that 52293
teachers may share the responsibility for making and implementing 52294
school decisions;52295

       (4) The adoption of new models for restructuring the school 52296
day or school year, such as including teacher planning and 52297
collaboration time as part of the school day;52298

       (5) The creation of smaller schools or smaller units within 52299
larger schools for the purpose of facilitating teacher 52300
collaboration to improve and advance the professional practice of 52301
teaching;52302

       (6) The implementation of "grow your own" recruitment 52303
strategies that are designed to assist individuals who show a 52304
commitment to education become licensed teachers, to assist 52305
experienced teachers obtain licensure in subject areas for which 52306
there is need, and to assist teachers in becoming principals;52307

       (7) The provision of better conditions for new teachers, such 52308
as reduced teaching load and reduced class size;52309

        (8) The provision of incentives to attract qualified 52310
mathematics, science, or special education teachers;52311

        (9) The development and implementation of a partnership with 52312
teacher preparation programs at colleges and universities to help 52313
attract teachers qualified to teach in shortage areas;52314

        (10) The implementation of a program to increase the cultural 52315
competency of both new and veteran teachers;52316

        (11) The implementation of a program to increase the subject 52317
matter competency of veteran teachers.52318

       (B) To qualify for a grant to implement one of the 52319
innovations described in division (A) of this section, a school 52320
must meet both of the following criteria:52321

       (1) Be hard to staff, as defined by the department.52322

       (2) Use existing school district funds for the implementation 52323
of the innovation in an amount equal to the grant amount 52324
multiplied by (1 - the district's state share percentageindex for 52325
the fiscal year in which the grant is awarded). 52326

       For purposes of division (B)(2) of this section, "state share 52327
percentageindex" has the same meaning as in section 3317.02 of 52328
the Revised Code.52329

       (C) The amount and number of grants awarded under this 52330
section shall be determined by the department based on any 52331
appropriations made by the general assembly for grants under this 52332
section. 52333

       (D) The state board of education shall adopt rules for the 52334
administration of this grant program.52335

       Sec. 3321.01. (A)(1) As used in this chapter, "parent," 52336
"guardian," or "other person having charge or care of a child" 52337
means either parent unless the parents are separated or divorced 52338
or their marriage has been dissolved or annulled, in which case 52339
"parent" means the parent who is the residential parent and legal 52340
custodian of the child. If the child is in the legal or permanent 52341
custody of a person or government agency, "parent" means that 52342
person or government agency. When a child is a resident of a home, 52343
as defined in section 3313.64 of the Revised Code, and the child's 52344
parent is not a resident of this state, "parent," "guardian," or 52345
"other person having charge or care of a child" means the head of 52346
the home.52347

       A child between six and eighteen years of age is "of 52348
compulsory school age" for the purpose of sections 3321.01 to 52349
3321.13 of the Revised Code. A child under six years of age who 52350
has been enrolled in kindergarten also shall be considered "of 52351
compulsory school age" for the purpose of sections 3321.01 to 52352
3321.13 of the Revised Code unless at any time the child's parent 52353
or guardian, at the parent's or guardian's discretion and in 52354
consultation with the child's teacher and principal, formally 52355
withdraws the child from kindergarten. The compulsory school age 52356
of a child shall not commence until the beginning of the term of 52357
such schools, or other time in the school year fixed by the rules 52358
of the board of the district in which the child resides.52359

       (2) No child shall be admitted to a kindergarten or a first 52360
grade of a public school in a district in which all children are 52361
admitted to kindergarten and the first grade in August or 52362
September unless the child is five or six years of age, 52363
respectively, by the thirtieth day of September of the year of 52364
admittance, or by the first day of a term or semester other than 52365
one beginning in August or September in school districts granting 52366
admittance at the beginning of such term or semester, unless the 52367
child has been recommended for early admittance in accordance with 52368
the district's acceleration policy adopted under section 3324.10 52369
of the Revised Code. A child who does not meet the age requirement 52370
for admittance to kindergarten or first grade shall be evaluated 52371
for early admittance upon referral by the child's parent or 52372
guardian, an educator employed by the district, a preschool 52373
educator who knows the child, or a pediatrician or psychologist 52374
who knows the child.52375

       (3) Notwithstanding division (A)(2) of this section, 52376
beginning with the school year that starts in 2001 and continuing 52377
thereafter the board of education of any district may adopt a 52378
resolution establishing the first day of August in lieu of the 52379
thirtieth day of September as the required date by which students 52380
must have attained the age specified in that division.52381

       (4) After a student has been admitted to kindergarten in a 52382
school district or chartered nonpublic school, no board of 52383
education of a school district to which the student transfers 52384
shall deny that student admission based on the student's age.52385

       (B) As used in division (C) of this section, "successfully 52386
completed kindergarten" means that the child has completed the 52387
kindergarten requirements at one of the following:52388

       (1) A public or chartered nonpublic school;52389

       (2) A kindergarten class that is both of the following:52390

       (a) Offered by a day-care provider licensed under Chapter 52391
5104. of the Revised Code;52392

       (b) If offered after July 1, 1991, is directly taught by a 52393
teacher who holds one of the following:52394

       (i) A valid educator license issued under section 3319.22 of 52395
the Revised Code;52396

       (ii) A Montessori preprimary credential or age-appropriate 52397
diploma granted by the American Montessori society or the 52398
association Montessori internationale;52399

       (iii) Certification determined under division (F) of this 52400
section to be equivalent to that described in division 52401
(B)(2)(b)(ii) of this section;52402

       (iv) Certification for teachers in nontax-supported schools 52403
pursuant to section 3301.071 of the Revised Code.52404

       (C) Except as provided in division (A)(2) of this section, no 52405
school district shall admit to the first grade any child who has 52406
not successfully completed kindergarten.52407

       (D) The scheduling of times for kindergarten classes and 52408
length of the school day for kindergarten shall be determined by 52409
the board of education of a city, exempted village, or local 52410
school district.52411

       (E) Any kindergarten class offered by a day-care provider or 52412
school described by division (B)(1) or (B)(2)(a) of this section 52413
shall be developmentally appropriate.52414

       (F) Upon written request of a day-care provider described by 52415
division (B)(2)(a) of this section, the department of education 52416
shall determine whether certification held by a teacher employed 52417
by the provider meets the requirement of division (B)(2)(b)(iii) 52418
of this section and, if so, shall furnish the provider a statement 52419
to that effect.52420

        (G) As used in this division, "all-day kindergarten" has the 52421
same meaning as in section 3321.05 of the Revised Code.52422

       (1) AnyA school district that did not receive for fiscal 52423
year 2009 poverty-based assistance for all-day kindergarten under 52424
division (D) of section 3317.029 of the Revised Code may charge 52425
fees or tuition for studentsa student enrolled in all-day 52426
kindergarten only so long as the student is reported as less than 52427
one full-time equivalent student under division (A) of section 52428
3317.03 of the Revised Code. If a district charges fees or tuition 52429
for all-day kindergarten under this division, the district shall 52430
develop a sliding fee scale based on family incomes.52431

       (2) The department of education shall conduct an annual 52432
survey of each school district described in division (G)(1) of 52433
this section to determine the following:52434

       (a) Whether the district charges fees or tuition for students 52435
enrolled in all-day kindergarten;52436

       (b) The amount of the fees or tuition charged;52437

       (c) How many of the students for whom tuition is charged are 52438
eligible for free lunches under the "National School Lunch Act," 52439
60 Stat. 230 (1946), 42 U.S.C. 1751, as amended, and the "Child 52440
Nutrition Act of 1966," 80 Stat. 885, 42 U.S.C. 1771, as amended, 52441
and how many of the students for whom tuition is charged are 52442
eligible for reduced price lunches under those acts;52443

       (d) How many students are enrolled in traditional half-day 52444
kindergarten rather than all-day kindergarten.52445

       Each district shall report to the department, in the manner 52446
prescribed by the department, the information described in 52447
divisions (G)(2)(a) to (d) of this section.52448

       The department shall issue an annual report on the results of 52449
the survey and shall post the report on its web site. The 52450
department shall issue the first report not later than April 30, 52451
2008, and shall issue a report not later than the thirtieth day of 52452
April each year thereafter.52453

       Sec. 3321.05.  (A) As used in this section, "all-day 52454
kindergarten" means a kindergarten class that is in session five 52455
days per week for not less than the same number of clock hours 52456
each dayweek as for students in grades one through six.52457

        (B) Any school district may operate all-day kindergarten or 52458
extended kindergarten, but no district shall require any student 52459
to attend kindergarten for more than the number of clock hours 52460
required each day for traditional kindergarten by the minimum 52461
standards adopted under division (D) of section 3301.07 of the 52462
Revised Code. Each school district that operates all-day or 52463
extended kindergarten shall accommodate kindergarten students 52464
whose parents or guardians elect to enroll them for the minimum 52465
number of hours.52466

       (C) A school district may use space in child day-care centers 52467
licensed under Chapter 5104. of the Revised Code to provide 52468
all-day kindergarten under this section.52469

       Sec. 3323.021.  As used in this section, "participating 52470
county DD board" means a county board of developmental 52471
disabilities electing to participate in the provision of or 52472
contracting for educational services for children under division 52473
(D) of section 5126.05 of the Revised Code.52474

       (A) When a school district, educational service center, or 52475
participating county DD board enters into an agreement or contract 52476
with another school district, educational service center, or 52477
participating county DD board to provide educational services to a 52478
disabled child during a school year, both of the following shall 52479
apply:52480

       (1) Beginning with fiscal year 1999, if the provider of the 52481
services intends to increase the amount it charges for some or all 52482
of those services during the next school year or if the provider 52483
intends to cease offering all or part of those services during the 52484
next school year, the provider shall notify the entity for which 52485
the services are provided of these intended changes no later than 52486
the first day of March of the current fiscal year.52487

       (2) Beginning with fiscal year 1999, if the entity for which 52488
services are provided intends to cease obtaining those services 52489
from the provider for the next school year or intends to change 52490
the type or amount of services it obtains from the provider for 52491
the next school year, the entity shall notify the service provider 52492
of these intended changes no later than the first day of March of 52493
the current fiscal year.52494

       (B) School districts, educational service centers, 52495
participating county DD boards, and other applicable governmental 52496
entities shall collaborate where possible to maximize federal 52497
sources of revenue to provide additional funds for special 52498
education related services for disabled children. Annually, each 52499
school district shall report to the department of education any 52500
amounts of moneysuch federal revenue the district received 52501
through such medical assistance program.52502

       (C) The state board of education, the department of 52503
developmental disabilities, and the department of job and family 52504
servicesmedicaid shall develop working agreements for pursuing 52505
additional funds for services for disabled children.52506

       Sec. 3323.03.  The state board of education shall, in 52507
consultation with the department of health, the department of 52508
mental healthmental health and addiction services, and the 52509
department of developmental disabilities, establish standards and 52510
procedures for the identification, location, and evaluation of all 52511
children with disabilities residing in the state, including 52512
children with disabilities who are homeless children or are wards 52513
of the state and children with disabilities attending nonpublic 52514
schools, regardless of the severity of their disabilities, and who 52515
are in need of special education and related services. The state 52516
board shall develop and implement a practical method to determine 52517
which children with disabilities are currently receiving needed 52518
special education and related services.52519

       In conducting the evaluation, the board of education of each 52520
school district shall use a variety of assessment tools and 52521
strategies to gather relevant functional, developmental, and 52522
academic information about the child, including information 52523
provided by the child's parent. The board of education of each 52524
school district, in consultation with the county DD board, the 52525
county family and children first council, and the board of 52526
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services of each county 52527
in which the school district has territory, shall identify, 52528
locate, and evaluate all children with disabilities residing 52529
within the district to determine which children with disabilities 52530
are not receiving appropriate special education and related 52531
services. In addition, the board of education of each school 52532
district, in consultation with such county boards or council, 52533
shall identify, locate, and evaluate all children with 52534
disabilities who are enrolled by their parents in nonpublic 52535
elementary and secondary schools located within the public school 52536
district, without regard to where those children reside in 52537
accordance with rules of the state board of education or 52538
guidelines of the superintendent of public instruction.52539

        Each county DD board, county family and children first 52540
council, and board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 52541
services and the board's or council's contract agencies may 52542
transmit to boards of education the names and addresses of 52543
children with disabilities who are not receiving appropriate 52544
special education and related services.52545

       Sec. 3323.04.  The state board of education, in consultation 52546
with the department of mental healthmental health and addiction 52547
services and the department of developmental disabilities, shall 52548
establish procedures and standards for the development of 52549
individualized education programs for children with disabilities.52550

       The state board shall require the board of education of each 52551
school district to develop an individualized education program for 52552
each child with a disability who is at least three years of age 52553
and less than twenty-two years of age residing in the district in 52554
a manner that is in accordance with rules of the state board.52555

       Prior to the placement of a child with a disability in a 52556
program operated under section 3323.09 of the Revised Code, the 52557
district board of education shall consult the county DD board of 52558
the county in which the child resides regarding the proposed 52559
placement.52560

       A child with a disability enrolled in a nonpublic school or 52561
facility shall be provided special education and related services, 52562
in accordance with an individualized education program, at no cost 52563
for those services, if the child is placed in, or referred to, 52564
that nonpublic school or facility by the department of education 52565
or a school district.52566

       The IEP team shall review the individualized education 52567
program of each child with a disability periodically, but at least 52568
annually, to determine whether the annual goals for the child are 52569
being achieved, and shall revise the individualized education 52570
program as appropriate.52571

       The state board shall establish procedures and standards to 52572
assure that to the maximum extent appropriate, children with 52573
disabilities, including children in public or private institutions 52574
or other care facilities, shall be educated with children who are 52575
not disabled. Special classes, separate schools, or other removal 52576
of children with disabilities from the regular educational 52577
environment shall be used only when the nature or severity of a 52578
child's disability is such that education in regular classes with 52579
supplementary aids and services cannot be achieved satisfactorily.52580

       If an agency directly affected by a placement decision 52581
objects to such decision, an impartial hearing officer, appointed 52582
by the department of education from a list prepared by the 52583
department, shall conduct a hearing to review the placement 52584
decision. The agencies that are parties to a hearing shall divide 52585
the costs of such hearing equally. The decision of the hearing 52586
officer shall be final, except that any party to the hearing who 52587
is aggrieved by the findings or the decision of the hearing 52588
officer may appeal the findings or decision in accordance with 52589
division (H) of section 3323.05 of the Revised Code or the parent 52590
of any child affected by such decision may present a complaint in 52591
accordance with that section.52592

       Sec. 3323.07.  The state board of education shall authorize 52593
the establishment and maintenance of special education and related 52594
services for all children with disabilities who are at least three 52595
years of age and less than twenty-two years of age, including 52596
children with disabilities who have been suspended or expelled 52597
from school, and may authorize special education and related 52598
services for children with disabilities who are less than three 52599
years of age in accordance with rules adopted by the state board. 52600
The state board shall require the boards of education of school 52601
districts, shall authorize the department of mental healthmental 52602
health and addiction services and the department of developmental 52603
disabilities, and may authorize any other educational agency, to 52604
establish and maintain such special education and related services 52605
in accordance with standards adopted by the state board.52606

       Sec. 3323.08.  (A) Each school district shall submit a plan 52607
to the superintendent of public instruction that provides 52608
assurances that the school district will provide for the education 52609
of children with disabilities within its jurisdiction and has in 52610
effect policies, procedures, and programs that are consistent with 52611
the policies and procedures adopted by the state board of 52612
education in accordance with section 612 of the "Individuals with 52613
Disabilities Education Improvement Act of 2004," 20 U.S.C. 1412, 52614
and that meet the conditions applicable to school districts under 52615
section 613 of that act, 20 U.S.C. 1413.52616

       Each district's plan shall do all of the following:52617

       (1) Provide, as specified in section 3323.11 of the Revised 52618
Code and in accordance with standards established by the state 52619
board, for an organizational structure and necessary and qualified 52620
staffing and supervision for the identification of and provision 52621
of special education and related services for children with 52622
disabilities;52623

       (2) Provide, as specified by section 3323.03 of the Revised 52624
Code and in accordance with standards established by the state 52625
board, for the identification, location, and evaluation of all 52626
children with disabilities residing in the district, including 52627
children with disabilities who are homeless children or are wards 52628
of the state and children with disabilities attending private 52629
schools and who are in need of special education and related 52630
services. A practical method shall be developed and implemented to 52631
determine which children with disabilities are currently receiving 52632
needed special education and related services.52633

       (3) Provide, as specified by section 3323.07 of the Revised 52634
Code and standards established by the state board, for the 52635
establishment and maintenance of special education and related 52636
services for children with disabilities who are at least three 52637
years of age and less than twenty-two years of age, including 52638
children with disabilities who have been suspended or expelled 52639
from school.52640

       (4) Provide, as specified by section 3323.04 of the Revised 52641
Code and in accordance with standards adopted by the state board, 52642
for an individualized education program for each child with a 52643
disability who is at least three years of age and less than 52644
twenty-two years of age residing within the district;52645

       (5) Provide, as specified by section 3323.02 of the Revised 52646
Code and in accordance with standards established by the state 52647
board, for special education and related services and a free 52648
appropriate public education for every child with a disability who 52649
is at least three years of age and less than twenty-two years of 52650
age, including children with disabilities who have been suspended 52651
or expelled from school;52652

       (6) Provide procedural safeguards and prior written notice as 52653
required under section 3323.05 of the Revised Code and the 52654
standards established by the state board;52655

       (7) Outline the steps that have been or are being taken to 52656
comply with standards established by the state board.52657

       (B)(1) A school district may arrange, by a cooperative 52658
agreement or contract with one or more school districts or with a 52659
cooperative education or joint vocational school district or an 52660
educational service center, to provide for the identification, 52661
location, and evaluation of children with disabilities, and to 52662
provide special education and related services for such children 52663
that meet the standards established by the state board. A school 52664
district may arrange, by a cooperative agreement or contract, for 52665
the provision of related services for children with disabilities 52666
that meet the standards established by the state board.52667

       (2) A school district shall arrange by interagency agreement 52668
with one or more school districts or with a cooperative education 52669
or joint vocational school district or an educational service 52670
center or other providers of early learning services to provide 52671
for the identification, location, evaluation of children with 52672
disabilities of ages birth through five years of age and for the 52673
transition of children with disabilities at age three in 52674
accordance with the standards established by the state board. A 52675
school district may arrange by interagency agreement with 52676
providers of early learning services to provide special education 52677
and related services for such children that meet the standards 52678
established by the state board.52679

       (3) If at the time an individualized education program is 52680
developed for a child a school district is not providing special 52681
education and related services required by that individualized 52682
education program, the school district may arrange by contract 52683
with a nonpublic entity for the provision of the special education 52684
and related services, provided the special education and related 52685
services meet the standards for special education and related 52686
services established by the state board and is provided within the 52687
state.52688

       (4) Any cooperative agreement or contract under division 52689
(B)(1) or (2) of this section involving a local school district 52690
shall be approved by the governing board of the educational 52691
service center which serves that district.52692

       (C) No plan of a local school district shall be submitted to 52693
the superintendent of public instruction until it has been 52694
approved by the superintendent of the educational service center 52695
which serves that district.52696

       (D) Upon approval of a school district's plan by the 52697
superintendent of public instruction, the district shall 52698
immediately certify students for state funds under section 3317.03 52699
of the Revised Code to implement and maintain such plan. The 52700
district also shall request approval of classroom units under 52701
division (B) of section 3317.05 of the Revised Code for which the 52702
district has adequately identified preschool children with 52703
disabilities and shall, in accordance with procedures adopted by 52704
the state board, request approval of units under division (C) of 52705
section 3317.05 of the Revised Code. The district shall, in 52706
accordance with guidelines adopted by the state board, identify 52707
problems relating to the provision of qualified personnel and 52708
adequate facilities, and indicate the extent to which the cost of 52709
programs required under the plan will exceed anticipated state 52710
reimbursement. Each school district shall immediately implement 52711
the identification, location, and evaluation of children with 52712
disabilities in accordance with this chapter, and shall implement 52713
those parts of the plan involving placement and provision of 52714
special education and related services.52715

       Sec. 3323.09.  (A) As used in this section:52716

       (1) "Home" has the meaning given in section 3313.64 of the 52717
Revised Code.52718

       (2) "Preschool child" means a child who is at least age three 52719
but under age six on the thirtieth day of September of an academic 52720
year.52721

       (B) Each county DD board shall establish special education 52722
programs for all children with disabilities who in accordance with 52723
section 3323.04 of the Revised Code have been placed in special 52724
education programs operated by the county board and for preschool 52725
children who are developmentally delayed or at risk of being 52726
developmentally delayed. The board annually shall submit to the 52727
department of education a plan for the provision of these programs 52728
and, if applicable, a request for approval of units under section 52729
3317.05 of the Revised Code. The superintendent of public 52730
instruction shall review the plan and approve or modify it in 52731
accordance with rules adopted by the state board of education 52732
under section 3301.07 of the Revised Code. The superintendent of 52733
public instruction shall compile the plans submitted by county 52734
boards and shall submit a comprehensive plan to the state board.52735

       A county DD board may combine transportation for children 52736
enrolled in classes funded under sectionsections 3317.0213 or52737
3317.20 or units approved under section 3317.05 with 52738
transportation for children and adults enrolled in programs and 52739
services offered by the board under Chapter 5126. of the Revised 52740
Code.52741

       (C) A county DD board that during the school year provided 52742
special education pursuant to this section for any child with 52743
mental disabilities under twenty-two years of age shall prepare 52744
and submit the following reports and statements:52745

       (1) The board shall prepare a statement for each child who at 52746
the time of receiving such special education was a resident of a 52747
home and was not in the legal or permanent custody of an Ohio 52748
resident or a government agency in this state, and whose natural 52749
or adoptive parents are not known to have been residents of this 52750
state subsequent to the child's birth. The statement shall contain 52751
the child's name, the name of the child's school district of 52752
residence, the name of the county board providing the special 52753
education, and the number of months, including any fraction of a 52754
month, it was provided. Not later than the thirtieth day of June, 52755
the board shall forward a certified copy of such statement to both 52756
the director of developmental disabilities and to the home.52757

       Within thirty days after its receipt of a statement, the home 52758
shall pay tuition to the county board computed in the manner 52759
prescribed by section 3323.141 of the Revised Code.52760

       (2) The board shall prepare a report for each school district 52761
that is the school district of residence of one or more of such 52762
children for whom statements are not required by division (C)(1) 52763
of this section. The report shall contain the name of the county 52764
board providing special education, the name of each child 52765
receiving special education, the number of months, including 52766
fractions of a month, that the child received it, and the name of 52767
the child's school district of residence. Not later than the 52768
thirtieth day of June, the board shall forward certified copies of 52769
each report to the school district named in the report, the 52770
superintendent of public instruction, and the director of 52771
developmental disabilities.52772

       Sec. 3323.091.  (A) The department of mental healthmental 52773
health and addiction services, the department of developmental 52774
disabilities, the department of youth services, and the department 52775
of rehabilitation and correction shall establish and maintain 52776
special education programs for children with disabilities in 52777
institutions under their jurisdiction according to standards 52778
adopted by the state board of education.52779

       (B) The superintendent of each state institution required to 52780
provide services under division (A) of this section, and each 52781
county DD board, providing special education for preschool 52782
children with disabilities under this chapter may apply to the 52783
state department of education for unit funding, which shall be 52784
paid in accordance with sections 3317.052 and 3317.053 of the 52785
Revised Code.52786

        The superintendent of each state institution required to 52787
provide services under division (A) of this section may apply to 52788
the department of education for special education and related 52789
services weighted funding for children with disabilities other 52790
than preschool children with disabilities, calculated in 52791
accordance with section 3317.201 of the Revised Code.52792

       Each county DD board providing special education for children 52793
with disabilities other than preschool children with disabilities 52794
may apply to the department of education for base cost and52795
opportunity funds, special education and related services weighted52796
funding, and targeted assistance funds calculated in accordance 52797
with section 3317.20 of the Revised Code.52798

       (C) In addition to the authorization to apply for state 52799
funding described in division (B) of this section, each state 52800
institution required to provide services under division (A) of 52801
this section is entitled to tuition payments calculated in the 52802
manner described in division (C) of this section.52803

       On or before the thirtieth day of June of each year, the 52804
superintendent of each institution that during the school year 52805
provided special education pursuant to this section shall prepare 52806
a statement for each child with a disability under twenty-two 52807
years of age who has received special education. The statement 52808
shall contain the child's data verification code assigned pursuant 52809
to division (D)(2) of section 3301.0714 of the Revised Code and 52810
the name of the child's school district of residence. Within sixty 52811
days after receipt of such statement, the department of education 52812
shall perform one of the following:52813

       (1) For any child except a preschool child with a disability 52814
described in division (C)(2) of this section, pay to the 52815
institution submitting the statement an amount equal to the 52816
tuition calculated under division (A) of section 3317.08 of the 52817
Revised Code for the period covered by the statement, and deduct 52818
the same from the amount of state funds, if any, payable under 52819
Chapter 3317. of the Revised Code, to the child's school district 52820
of residence or, if the amount of such state funds is 52821
insufficient, require the child's school district of residence to 52822
pay the institution submitting the statement an amount equal to 52823
the amount determined under this division.52824

       (2) For any preschool child with a disability not included in 52825
a unit approved under division (B) of section 3317.05 of the 52826
Revised Code, perform the following:52827

       (a) Pay to the institution submitting the statement an amount 52828
equal to the tuition calculated under division (B) of section 52829
3317.08 of the Revised Code for the period covered by the 52830
statement, except that in calculating the tuition under that 52831
section the operating expenses of the institution submitting the 52832
statement under this section shall be used instead of the 52833
operating expenses of the school district of residence;52834

       (b) Deduct from the amount of state funds, if any, payable 52835
under Chapter 3317. of the Revised Code to the child's school 52836
district of residence an amount equal to the amount paid under 52837
division (C)(2)(a) of this section.52838

       Sec. 3323.13. (A) If a child who is a school resident of one 52839
school district receives special education from another district, 52840
the board of education of the district providing the education, 52841
subject to division (C) of this section, may require the payment 52842
by the board of education of the district of residence of a sum 52843
not to exceed one of the following, as applicable:52844

       (1) For any child except a preschool child with a disability 52845
described in division (A)(2) of this section, the tuition of the 52846
district providing the education for a child of normal needs of 52847
the same school grade. The determination of the amount of such 52848
tuition shall be in the manner provided for by division (A) of 52849
section 3317.08 of the Revised Code.52850

       (2) For any preschool child with a disability not included in 52851
a unit approved under division (B) of section 3317.05 of the 52852
Revised Code, the tuition of the district providing the education 52853
for the child as calculated under division (B) of section 3317.08 52854
of the Revised Code, multiplied by 0.50.52855

       (B) The board of the district of residence may contract with 52856
the board of another district for the transportation of such child 52857
into any school in such other district, on terms agreed upon by 52858
such boards. Upon direction of the state board of education, the 52859
board of the district of residence shall pay for the child's 52860
transportation and the tuition.52861

       (C) The board of education of a district providing the 52862
education for a child shall be entitled to require payment from 52863
the district of residence under this section or section 3323.14 of 52864
the Revised Code only if the district providing the education has 52865
done at least one of the following:52866

        (1) Invited the district of residence to send representatives 52867
to attend the meetings of the team developing the child's 52868
individualized education program;52869

        (2) Received from the district of residence a copy of the 52870
individualized education program or a multifactored evaluation 52871
developed for the child by the district of residence;52872

        (3) Informed the district of residence in writing that the 52873
district is providing the education for the child.52874

        As used in division (C)(2) of this section, "multifactored 52875
evaluation" means an evaluation, conducted by a multidisciplinary 52876
team, of more than one area of the child's functioning so that no 52877
single procedure shall be the sole criterion for determining an 52878
appropriate educational program placement for the child.52879

       Sec. 3323.14. This section does not apply to any preschool 52880
child with a disability except if included in a unit approved 52881
under division (B) of section 3317.05 of the Revised Code.52882

       (A) Where a child who is a school resident of one school 52883
district receives special education from another district and the 52884
per capita cost to the educating district for that child exceeds 52885
the sum of the amount received by the educating district for that 52886
child under division (A) of section 3317.08 of the Revised Code 52887
and the amount received by the district from the state board of 52888
education for that child, then the board of education of the 52889
district of residence shall pay to the board of the school 52890
district that is providing the special education such excess cost 52891
as is determined by using a formula approved by the department of 52892
education and agreed upon in contracts entered into by the boards 52893
of the districts concerned at the time the district providing such 52894
special education accepts the child for enrollment. The department 52895
shall certify the amount of the payments under Chapter 3317. of 52896
the Revised Code for such pupils with disabilities for each school 52897
year ending on the thirtieth day of July.52898

       (B) In the case of a child described in division (A) of this 52899
section who has been placed in a home, as defined in section 52900
3313.64 of the Revised Code, pursuant to the order of a court and 52901
who is not subject to section 3323.141 of the Revised Code, the 52902
district providing the child with special education and related 52903
services may charge to the child's district of residence the 52904
excess cost determined by formula approved by the department, 52905
regardless of whether the district of residence has entered into a 52906
contract with the district providing the services. If the district 52907
providing the services chooses to charge excess costs, the 52908
district may report the amount calculated under this division to 52909
the department.52910

       (C) If a district providing special education for a child 52911
reports an amount for the excess cost of those services, as 52912
authorized and calculated under division (A) or (B) of this 52913
section, the department shall pay that amount of excess cost to 52914
the district providing the services and shall deduct that amount 52915
from the child's district of residence in accordance with division 52916
(K) of section 3317.023 of the Revised Code.52917

       Sec. 3323.141.  (A) When a child who is not in the legal or 52918
permanent custody of an Ohio resident or a government agency in 52919
this state and whose natural or adoptive parents are not known to 52920
have been residents of this state subsequent to the child's birth 52921
is a resident of a home as defined in section 3313.64 of the 52922
Revised Code and receives special education and related services 52923
from a school district or county MR/DDDD board, the home shall 52924
pay tuition to the board providing the special education.52925

       (B) In the case of a child described in division (A) of this 52926
section who receives special education and related services from a 52927
school district, tuition shall be the amount determined under 52928
division (B)(1) or (2) of this section.52929

       (1) For a child other than a child described in division 52930
(B)(2) of this section the tuition shall be an amount equal to the 52931
sum of the following:52932

       (a) Tuition as determined in the manner provided for by 52933
division (B) of section 3317.081 of the Revised Code for the 52934
district that provides the special education;52935

       (b) Such excess cost as is determined by using a formula 52936
established by rule of the department of education. The excess 52937
cost computed in this section shall not be used as excess cost 52938
computed under section 3323.14 of the Revised Code.52939

       (2) For a child who is a preschool child with a disability 52940
not included in a unit approved under division (B) of section 52941
3317.05 of the Revised Code, the tuition shall be computed as 52942
follows:52943

       (a) Determine the amount of the tuition of the district 52944
providing the education for the child as calculated under division 52945
(B) of section 3317.08 of the Revised Code;52946

       (b) For each type of special education service included in 52947
the computation of the amount of tuition under division (B)(2)(a) 52948
of this section, divide the amount determined for that computation 52949
under division (B)(2) of section 3317.08 of the Revised Code by 52950
the total number of preschool children with disabilities used for 52951
that computation under division (B)(3) of section 3317.08 of the 52952
Revised Code;52953

       (c) Determine the sum of the quotients obtained under 52954
division (B)(2)(b) of this section;52955

       (d) Determine the sum of the amounts determined under 52956
divisions (B)(2)(a) and (c) of this section.52957

       (C) In the case of a child described in division (A) of this 52958
section who receives special education and related services from a 52959
county MR/DDDD board, tuition shall be the amount determined 52960
under division (C)(1) or (2) of this section.52961

       (1) For a child other than a child described in division 52962
(C)(2) of this section, the tuition shall be an amount equal to 52963
such board's per capita cost of providing special education and 52964
related services for children at least three but less than 52965
twenty-two years of age as determined by using a formula 52966
established by rule of the department of developmental 52967
disabilities.52968

       (2) For a child who is a preschool child with a disability 52969
not included in a unit approved under division (B) of section 52970
3317.05 of the Revised Code, the tuition shall equal the sum of 52971
the amounts of each such board's per capita cost of providing each 52972
of the special education or related service that the child 52973
receives. The calculation of tuition shall be made by using a 52974
formula established by rule of the department of developmental 52975
disabilities. The formula for the calculation of per capita costs 52976
under division (C)(2) of this section shall be based only on each 52977
such MR/DDDD board's cost of providing each type of special 52978
education or related service to preschool children with 52979
disabilities not included in a unit approved under division (B) of 52980
section 3317.05 of the Revised Code.52981

       (D) If a home fails to pay the tuition required under this 52982
section, the board of education or county MR/DDDD board providing 52983
the education may recover in a civil action the tuition and the 52984
expenses incurred in prosecuting the action, including court costs 52985
and reasonable attorney's fees. If the prosecuting attorney or 52986
city director of law represents the board in such action, costs 52987
and reasonable attorney's fees awarded by the court, based upon 52988
the time spent preparing and presenting the case by the 52989
prosecuting attorney, director, or a designee of either, shall be 52990
deposited in the county or city general fund.52991

       Sec. 3323.142. This section does not apply to any preschool 52992
child with a disability except if included in a unit approved 52993
under division (B) of section 3317.05 of the Revised Code.52994

       As used in this section, "per pupil amount" for a preschool 52995
child with a disability included in such an approved unit means 52996
the amount determined by dividing the amount received for the 52997
classroom unit in which the child has been placed by the number of 52998
children in the unit. For any other child, "per pupil amount" 52999
means the amount paid for the child under section 3317.20 of the 53000
Revised Code.53001

       When a school district places or has placed a child with a 53002
county DD board for special education, but another district is 53003
responsible for tuition under section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the 53004
Revised Code and the child is not a resident of the territory 53005
served by the county DD board, the board may charge the district 53006
responsible for tuition with the educational costs in excess of 53007
the per pupil amount received by the board under Chapter 3317. of 53008
the Revised Code. The amount of the excess cost shall be 53009
determined by the formula established by rule of the department of 53010
education under section 3323.14 of the Revised Code, and the 53011
payment for such excess cost shall be made by the school district 53012
directly to the county DD board.53013

       A school district board of education and the county DD board 53014
that serves the school district may negotiate and contract, at or 53015
after the time of placement, for payments by the board of 53016
education to the county DD board for additional services provided 53017
to a child placed with the county DD board and whose 53018
individualized education program established pursuant to section 53019
3323.08 of the Revised Code requires additional services that are 53020
not routinely provided children in the county DD board's program 53021
but are necessary to maintain the child's enrollment and 53022
participation in the program. Additional services may include, but 53023
are not limited to, specialized supplies and equipment for the 53024
benefit of the child and instruction, training, or assistance 53025
provided by staff members other than staff members for which 53026
funding is received under Chapter 3317. of the Revised Code.53027

       Sec. 3326.11. Each science, technology, engineering, and 53028
mathematics school established under this chapter and its 53029
governing body shall comply with sections 9.90, 9.91, 109.65, 53030
121.22, 149.43, 2151.357, 2151.421, 2313.19, 2921.42, 2921.43, 53031
3301.0714, 3301.0715, 3313.14, 3313.15, 3313.16, 3313.18, 53032
3313.201, 3313.26, 3313.472, 3313.48, 3313.481, 3313.482, 3313.50, 53033
3313.536, 3313.539, 3313.608, 3313.6012, 3313.6013, 3313.6014, 53034
3313.6015, 3313.61, 3313.611, 3313.614, 3313.615, 3313.643, 53035
3313.648, 3313.6411, 3313.66, 3313.661, 3313.662, 3313.666, 53036
3313.667, 3313.67, 3313.671, 3313.672, 3313.673, 3313.69, 3313.71, 53037
3313.716, 3313.718, 3313.719, 3313.80, 3313.801, 3313.814, 53038
3313.816, 3313.817, 3313.86, 3313.88, 3313.96, 3319.073, 3319.21, 53039
3319.32, 3319.321, 3319.35, 3319.39, 3319.391, 3319.41, 3319.45, 53040
3321.01, 3321.041, 3321.13, 3321.14, 3321.17, 3321.18, 3321.19, 53041
3321.191, 3327.10, 4111.17, 4113.52, and 5705.391 and Chapters 53042
102., 117., 1347., 2744., 3307., 3309., 3365., 3742., 4112., 53043
4123., 4141., and 4167. of the Revised Code as if it were a school 53044
district.53045

       Sec. 3326.112.  The governing body of each STEM school shall 53046
comply with the standards for financial reporting adopted under 53047
division (B)(2) of section 3301.07 of the Revised Code.53048

       Sec. 3326.20.  (A) As used in this section, "native student" 53049
means a student entitled to attend school in the school district 53050
under section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised Code.53051

       (B) Unless either the proposal for the establishment of a 53052
science, technology, engineering, and mathematics school, as it 53053
was approved by the STEM committee under section 3326.03 of the 53054
Revised Code, otherwise provides for the transportation of 53055
students to and from the STEM school, or the parent of a native 53056
student or that student opts to receive the transportation subsidy 53057
prescribed by section 3327.02 of the Revised Code, the board of 53058
education of each city, local, and exempted village school 53059
district shall provide transportation to and from school for its 53060
district's native students enrolled in the STEM school in the same 53061
manner that section 3327.01 of the Revised Code requires for its 53062
native students enrolled in nonpublic schools.53063

       Sec. 3326.31.  As used in sections 3326.31 to 3326.50 of the 53064
Revised Code:53065

       (A) "Applicable special education weight" means the multiple 53066
specified in section 3317.013 of the Revised Code for a disability 53067
described in that section.53068

       (B) "Applicable vocational education weight" means the 53069
multiple specified in section 3317.014 of the Revised Code for 53070
vocational education programs or classes described in that section53071
(1) "Category one career-technical education student" means a 53072
student who is receiving the career-technical education services 53073
described in division (A) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code.53074

       (2) "Category two career-technical student" means a student 53075
who is receiving the career-technical education services described 53076
in division (B) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code.53077

       (3) "Category three career-technical student" means a student 53078
who is receiving the career-technical education services described 53079
in division (C) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code.53080

       (4) "Category four career-technical student" means a student 53081
who is receiving the career-technical education services described 53082
in division (D) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code.53083

       (5) "Category five career-technical education student" means 53084
a student who is receiving the career-technical education services 53085
described in division (E) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code.53086

       (B)(1) "Category one limited English proficient student" 53087
means a limited English proficient student described in division 53088
(A) of section 3317.016 of the Revised Code.53089

       (2) "Category two limited English proficient student" means a 53090
limited English proficient student described in division (B) of 53091
section 3317.016 of the Revised Code.53092

       (3) "Category three limited English proficient student" means 53093
a limited English proficient student described in division (C) of 53094
section 3317.016 of the Revised Code.53095

       (C)(1) "Category one special education student" means a 53096
student who is receiving special education services for a 53097
disability specified in division (A) of section 3317.013 of the 53098
Revised Code.53099

       (2) "Category two special education student" means a student 53100
who is receiving special education services for a disability 53101
specified in division (B) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code.53102

       (3) "Category three special education student" means a 53103
student who is receiving special education services for a 53104
disability specified in division (C) of section 3317.013 of the 53105
Revised Code.53106

       (4) "Category four special education student" means a student 53107
who is receiving special education services for a disability 53108
specified in division (D) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code.53109

       (5) "Category five special education student" means a student 53110
who is receiving special education services for a disability 53111
specified in division (E) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code.53112

       (6) "Category six special education student" means a student 53113
who is receiving special education services for a disability 53114
specified in division (F) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code.53115

       (C)(D) "Formula amount" has the same meaning as in section 53116
3317.02 of the Revised Code.53117

       (D)(E) "IEP" means an individualized education program as 53118
defined in section 3323.01 of the Revised Code.53119

       (E) A student is "included in the poverty student count of 53120
the student's resident district" if the student's family receives 53121
assistance under the Ohio works first program.53122

       (F) "Resident district" means the school district in which a 53123
student is entitled to attend school under section 3313.64 or 53124
3313.65 of the Revised Code.53125

       (G) "State education aid" has the same meaning as in section 53126
5751.20 of the Revised Code.53127

       Sec. 3326.32.  Each science, technology, engineering, and 53128
mathematics school shall report to the department of education, in 53129
the form and manner required by the department, all of the 53130
following information:53131

       (A) The total number of students enrolled in the school;53132

       (B) The number of students who are receiving special 53133
education and related services pursuant to an IEP;53134

       (C) For each student reported under division (B) of this 53135
section, which category specified in divisions (A) to (F) of 53136
section 3317.013 of the Revised Code applies to the student;53137

       (D) The full-time equivalent number of students who are 53138
enrolled in vocationalcareer-technical education programs or 53139
classes described in each of divisions (A) and, (B), (C), (D), and 53140
(E) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code that are provided by 53141
the STEM school;53142

       (E) The number of students who are limited English proficient 53143
students and which category specified in divisions (A) to (C) of 53144
section 3317.016 of the Revised Code applies to each student;53145

       (F) The number of students reported under division (A) of 53146
this section who are economically disadvantaged, as defined by the 53147
department. A student shall not be categorically excluded from the 53148
number reported under division (F) of this section based on 53149
anything other than family income.53150

       (G) The resident district of each student;53151

       (F)(H) Any additional information the department determines 53152
necessary to make payments under this chapter.53153

       Sec. 3326.33. Payments and deductions under this section for 53154
fiscal years 2012 and 2013 shall be made in accordance with 53155
section 3326.39 of the Revised Code.53156

       For each student enrolled in a science, technology, 53157
engineering, and mathematics school established under this 53158
chapter, on a full-time equivalency basis, the department of 53159
education annually shall deduct from the state education aid of a 53160
student's resident school district and, if necessary, from the 53161
payment made to the district under sections 321.24 and 323.156 of 53162
the Revised Code and pay to the school the sum of the following:53163

       (A) The sum of the formula amount plus the per pupil amount 53164
of the base funding supplements specified in divisions (C)(1) to 53165
(4) of section 3317.012 of the Revised Code.53166

       (B) If the student is receiving special education and related 53167
services pursuant to an IEP, the product of the applicable special 53168
education weight times the formula amount;53169

       (C) If the student is enrolled in vocational education 53170
programs or classes that are described in section 3317.014 of the 53171
Revised Code, are provided by the school, and are comparable as 53172
determined by the superintendent of public instruction to school 53173
district vocational education programs and classes eligible for 53174
state weighted funding under section 3317.014 of the Revised Code, 53175
the product of the applicable vocational education weight times 53176
the formula amount times the percentage of time the student spends 53177
in the vocational education programs or classes;53178

       (D) If the student is included in the poverty student count 53179
of the student's resident district, the per pupil amount of the 53180
district's payment under division (C) of section 3317.029 of the 53181
Revised Code;53182

       (E) If the student is identified as limited English 53183
proficient and the student's resident district receives a payment 53184
for services to limited English proficient students under division 53185
(F) of section 3317.029 of the Revised Code, the per pupil amount 53186
of the district's payment under that division, calculated in the 53187
same manner as per pupil payments are calculated under division 53188
(C)(6) of section 3314.08 of the Revised Code;53189

       (F) If the student's resident district receives a payment 53190
under division (G), (H), or (I) of section 3317.029 of the Revised 53191
Code, the per pupil amount of the district's payments under each 53192
division, calculated in the same manner as per pupil payments are 53193
calculated under divisions (C)(7) and (8) of section 3314.08 of 53194
the Revised Code;53195

       (G) If the student's resident district receives a parity aid 53196
payment under section 3317.0217 of the Revised Code, the per pupil 53197
amount calculated for the district under division (C) or (D) of 53198
that sectionAn opportunity grant in an amount equal to the 53199
formula amount;53200

       (B) The per pupil amount of targeted assistance funds 53201
calculated under division (A) of section 3317.0217 of the Revised 53202
Code for the student's resident district, as determined by the 53203
department, X 0.25;53204

       (C) Additional state aid for special education and related 53205
services provided under Chapter 3323. of the Revised Code as 53206
follows:53207

       (1) If the student is a category one special education 53208
student, the formula amount X the multiple specified in division 53209
(A) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;53210

       (2) If the student is a category two special education 53211
student, the formula amount X the multiple specified in division 53212
(B) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;53213

       (3) If the student is a category three special education 53214
student, the formula amount X the multiple specified in division 53215
(C) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;53216

       (4) If the student is a category four special education 53217
student, the formula amount X the multiple specified in division 53218
(D) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;53219

       (5) If the student is a category five special education 53220
student, the formula amount X the multiple specified in division 53221
(E) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;53222

       (6) If the student is a category six special education 53223
student, the formula amount X the multiple specified in division 53224
(F) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code.53225

       (D) If the student is in kindergarten through third grade, 53226
$300, in fiscal year 2014, or $303, in fiscal year 2015;53227

       (E) If the student is economically disadvantaged, an amount 53228
equal to the following:53229

($340, in fiscal year 2014, or $343, in fiscal year 2015) X (the
53230
resident district's economically disadvantaged index)
53231

       (F) Limited English proficiency funds, as follows:53232

       (1) If the student is a category one limited English 53233
proficient student, the amount specified in division (A) of 53234
section 3317.016 of the Revised Code;53235

       (2) If the student is a category two limited English 53236
proficient student, the amount specified in division (B) of 53237
section 3317.016 of the Revised Code;53238

       (3) If the student is a category three limited English 53239
proficient student, the amount specified in division (C) of 53240
section 3317.016 of the Revised Code.53241

       (G) Career-technical education funds as follows:53242

       (1) If the student is a category one career-technical 53243
education student, the formula amount X the multiple specified in 53244
division (A) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code;53245

       (2) If the student is a category two career-technical 53246
education student, the formula amount X the multiple specified in 53247
division (B) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code;53248

       (3) If the student is a category three career-technical 53249
education student, the formula amount X the multiple specified in 53250
division (C) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code;53251

       (4) If the student is a category four career-technical 53252
education student, the formula amount X the multiple specified in 53253
division (D) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code;53254

       (5) If the student is a category five career-technical 53255
education student, the formula amount X the multiple specified in 53256
division (E) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code.53257

       Deduction and payment of funds under division (G) of this 53258
section is subject to approval under section 3317.161 of the 53259
Revised Code.53260

       Sec. 3326.34. If a science, technology, engineering, and 53261
mathematics school established under this chapter incurs costs for 53262
a fiscal year for a student receiving special education and 53263
related services pursuant to an IEP for a disability described in 53264
divisions (B) to (F) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code that 53265
exceed the threshold catastrophic cost for serving the student as 53266
specified in division (C)(3)(b)(B) of section 3317.0223317.021453267
of the Revised Code, the STEM school may submit to the 53268
superintendent of public instruction documentation, as prescribed 53269
by the superintendent, of all its costs for that student. Upon 53270
submission of documentation for a student of the type and in the 53271
manner prescribed, the department of education shall pay to the 53272
school an amount equal to the school's costs for the student in 53273
excess of the threshold catastrophic costs.53274

       The school shall only report under this section, and the 53275
department shall only pay for, the costs of educational expenses 53276
and the related services provided to the student in accordance 53277
with the student's IEP. Any legal fees, court costs, or other 53278
costs associated with any cause of action relating to the student 53279
may not be included in the amount.53280

       Sec. 3326.38. A science, technology, engineering, and 53281
mathematics school may do allboth of the following:53282

       (A) Apply to the department of education for gifted unit 53283
funding;53284

       (B) Apply to any state or federal agency for grants that a 53285
school district or public school may receive under federal or 53286
state law or any appropriations act of the general assembly;53287

       (C)(B) Apply to any private entity or foundation for 53288
additional funds.53289

       Sec. 3326.45. (A) The governing body of a science, 53290
technology, engineering, and mathematics school may contract with 53291
the governing board of an educational service center or the board 53292
of education of a joint vocational school district for the 53293
provision of services to the STEM school or to any student 53294
enrolled in the school. Services provided under the contract and 53295
the amount to be paid for those services shall be mutually agreed 53296
to by the parties to the contract, and shall be specified in the 53297
contract.53298

       (B) A contract entered into under this section may require an 53299
educational service center to provide any one or a combination of 53300
the following services to a STEM school:53301

       (1) Supervisory teachers;53302

       (2) In-service and continuing education programs for 53303
personnel of the STEM school;53304

       (3) Curriculum services as provided to the client school 53305
districts of the service center;53306

       (4) Research and development programs;53307

       (5) Academic instruction for which the service center 53308
governing board employs teachers;53309

       (6) Assistance in the provision of special accommodations and 53310
classes for students with disabilities.53311

       Services described in division (B) of this section shall be 53312
provided to the STEM school in the same manner they are provided 53313
to client school districts of the service center, unless otherwise 53314
specified in the contract. The contract shall specify whether the 53315
service center will receive a per-pupil payment from the 53316
department of education for the provision of these services and, 53317
if so, the amount of the per-pupil payment, which shall not exceed 53318
the per-pupil amount paid to the service center under division (F) 53319
of section 3317.11 of the Revised Code for each student in the 53320
service center ADM.53321

       (C) For each contract entered into under this section, the 53322
department shall deduct the amount owed by the STEM school from 53323
the state funds due to the STEM school under this chapter and 53324
shall pay that amount to the educational service center or joint 53325
vocational school district that is party to the contract. In the 53326
case of a contract with an educational service center that 53327
specifies per-pupil payments for the provision of services 53328
described in division (B) of this section, the department also 53329
shall pay the service center the amount calculated under division 53330
(H) of section 3317.11 of the Revised Code.53331

       (D) No contract entered into under this section shall be 53332
valid unless a copy is filed with the department by the first day 53333
of the school year for which the contract is in effect.53334

       (E) As used in this section, "client school district" has the 53335
same meaning as in section 3317.11 of the Revised Codemeans a 53336
city, exempted village, or local school district that has entered 53337
into an agreement under section 3313.843 or 3313.845 of the 53338
Revised Code to receive any services from an educational service 53339
center.53340

       Sec. 3327.01.  Notwithstanding division (D) of section 53341
3311.19 and division (D) of section 3311.52 of the Revised Code, 53342
this section and sections 3327.011, 3327.012, and 3327.02 of the 53343
Revised Code do not apply to any joint vocational or cooperative 53344
education school district.53345

       In(A) Except as provided in division (D) of this section or 53346
section 3314.091 or 3327.02 of the Revised Code, in all city, 53347
local, and exempted village school districts where resident school 53348
pupils in grades kindergarten through eight live more than two 53349
miles from the school for which the state board of education 53350
prescribes minimum standards pursuant to division (D) of section 53351
3301.07 of the Revised Code and to which they are assigned by the 53352
board of education of the district of residence or to and from the 53353
nonpublic or community school which they attend, the board of 53354
education shall provide transportation for such pupils to and from 53355
suchthat school except as provided in section 3327.02 of the 53356
Revised Code.53357

       (B) In all city, local, and exempted village school districts 53358
where pupil transportation is required under a career-technical 53359
plan approved by the state board of education under section 53360
3313.90 of the Revised Code, for any student attending a 53361
career-technical program operated by another school district, 53362
including a joint vocational school district, as prescribed under 53363
that section, the board of education of the student's district of 53364
residence shall provide transportation from the public high school 53365
operated by that district to which the student is assigned to the 53366
career-technical program.53367

       In(C) Except as provided in division (D) of this section or 53368
section 3314.091 or 3327.02 of the Revised Code, in all city, 53369
local, and exempted village school districts, the board may 53370
provide transportation for resident school pupils in grades nine 53371
through twelve to and from the high school to which they are 53372
assigned by the board of education of the district of residence or 53373
to and from the nonpublic or community high school which they 53374
attend for which the state board of education prescribes minimum 53375
standards pursuant to division (D) of section 3301.07 of the 53376
Revised Code.53377

       (D)(1) A board of education shall not be required to 53378
transport elementary or high school pupils to and from a nonpublic 53379
or community school where such transportation would require more 53380
than thirty minutes of direct travel time as measured by school 53381
bus from the public school building to which the pupils would be 53382
assigned if attending the public school designated by the district 53383
of residence.53384

       Where it is impractical to transport a pupil by school 53385
conveyance, a board of education may offer payment, in lieu of 53386
providing such transportation in accordance with section 3327.02 53387
of the Revised Code.53388

       (2) A board of education shall not be required to transport 53389
elementary or high school pupils to and from a nonpublic or 53390
community school on Saturday or Sunday, unless a board of 53391
education and a nonpublic or community school have an agreement in 53392
place to do so before the effective date of this amendment.53393

       (E) In all city, local, and exempted village school 53394
districts, the board shall provide transportation for all children 53395
who are so disabled that they are unable to walk to and from the 53396
school for which the state board of education prescribes minimum 53397
standards pursuant to division (D) of section 3301.07 of the 53398
Revised Code and which they attend. In case of dispute whether the 53399
child is able to walk to and from the school, the health 53400
commissioner shall be the judge of such ability. In all city, 53401
exempted village, and local school districts, the board shall 53402
provide transportation to and from school or special education 53403
classes for educable mentally retardeddisabled children in 53404
accordance with standards adopted by the state board of education.53405

       (F) When transportation of pupils is provided the conveyance 53406
shall be run on a time schedule that shall be adopted and put in 53407
force by the board not later than ten days after the beginning of 53408
the school term.53409

       The cost of any transportation service authorized by this 53410
section shall be paid first out of federal funds, if any, 53411
available for the purpose of pupil transportation, and secondly 53412
out of state appropriations, in accordance with regulations 53413
adopted by the state board of education.53414

       (G) No transportation of any pupils shall be provided by any 53415
board of education to or from any school which in the selection of 53416
pupils, faculty members, or employees, practices discrimination 53417
against any person on the grounds of race, color, religion, or 53418
national origin.53419

       (H) No transportation to or from school of pupils in grades 53420
kindergarten through five shall be provided by way of transit 53421
buses as defined in section 5735.01 of the Revised Code.53422

       Sec. 3327.02.  (A) As used in this section:53423

       (1) "Community school" means a community school established 53424
under Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code.53425

       (2) "Parent" has the same meaning as in section 3313.98 of 53426
the Revised Code.53427

       (3) "Resident school district" means the city, exempted 53428
village, or local school district in which a student is entitled 53429
to attend school under section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised 53430
Code.53431

       (4) "School year" has the same meaning as in section 3313.62 53432
of the Revised Code. 53433

       (5) "State education aid" has the same meaning as in section 53434
5751.20 of the Revised Code.53435

       (6) "STEM school" means a science, technology, engineering, 53436
and mathematics school established under Chapter 3326. of the 53437
Revised Code.53438

       (B) Beginning July 1, 2014, the board of education of a city, 53439
exempted village, or local school district is not required to 53440
provide transportation to and from school for a student attending 53441
one of the district's schools or a community school, STEM school, 53442
or nonpublic school under division (A) or (C) of section 3327.01 53443
of the Revised Code, if the student's parent or the student, if at 53444
least eighteen years old and no guardian or custodian is currently 53445
appointed for the student, opts instead to receive the subsidy 53446
prescribed by division (D) of this section. The parent or student 53447
may exercise that option on an annual basis by submitting an 53448
application to the department of education and by notifying the 53449
district board in accordance with procedures and deadlines 53450
prescribed by the department. The department shall prescribe 53451
deadlines for that application and notice so that the district 53452
board has sufficient time to take the exercise of the parent's or 53453
student's option into account when planning its transportation 53454
routes and schedules for the succeeding school year. The 53455
department shall not accept an application that is submitted after 53456
the deadline. The department shall award a subsidy as long as the 53457
parent or student complies with the application and notice 53458
procedures. The award shall be for one school year at a time and 53459
may be renewed if the parent or student again submits an 53460
application to the department and notice to the district board in 53461
accordance with the prescribed procedures and deadlines. The 53462
parent or student shall use the subsidy to pay the cost of the 53463
student's transportation to and from school for the entire school 53464
year. 53465

       (C) The subsidy prescribed by this section is not available 53466
for any of the following:53467

       (1) A student attending a community school or nonpublic 53468
school that is more than thirty minutes of direct travel time, as 53469
measured by school bus, from the building of the student's 53470
resident school district to which the student would be assigned if 53471
attending school in the district, as provided in division (D) of 53472
section 3327.01 of the Revised Code;53473

       (2) A student attending a community school that either:53474

        (a) Has an agreement with the student's resident school 53475
district for the community school to transport students to that 53476
school under division (A) of section 3314.091 of the Revised Code;53477

       (b) Accepts responsibility to transport students to the 53478
school under division (B) of that section.53479

       (3) A student who attends a school district other than the 53480
student's resident school district under an open enrollment policy 53481
adopted in accordance with section 3313.98 of the Revised Code;53482

       (4) A student who attends school in a school district under 53483
division (I) of section 3313.64 of the Revised Code. 53484

       (D) The amount of the subsidy awarded for each student under 53485
this section shall equal the lesser of the following:53486

       (1) The statewide average cost of pupil transportation for 53487
the previous school year; 53488

       (2) The average cost of pupil transportation for the previous 53489
school year for the student's resident school district.53490

       The department shall pay that amount to the student's parent 53491
or the student, if at least eighteen years old and no guardian or 53492
custodian is currently appointed for the student, in quarterly 53493
periodic payments. 53494

       (E) The department shall deduct the amount of each subsidy 53495
awarded for a student under this section from the state education 53496
aid of the student's resident school district and, if necessary, 53497
from that district's payments under sections 321.24 and 323.156 of 53498
the Revised Code. 53499

       The department shall include the student in the calculation 53500
of the district's transportation payment under section 3317.0212 53501
of the Revised Code and the operating appropriations act. 53502

       (F) This section has no effect on a school district's 53503
responsibility to transport a student to and from a 53504
college-preparatory boarding school established under Chapter 53505
3328. of the Revised Code. 53506

       (G) The state board of education shall adopt rules under 53507
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code prescribing procedures necessary 53508
to implement this section.53509

       Sec. 3327.07. (A) The governing authority of a chartered 53510
nonpublic school that transports a student enrolled in the school 53511
to and from school may charge the parent or guardian of the 53512
student a fee for the transportation, if the governing authority 53513
purchased the vehicle that transports the student using no state 53514
or federal funds. The fee shall not exceed the per student cost of 53515
the transportation, as determined by the governing authority.53516

        (B) If the parent or guardian of a student who is enrolled in 53517
a chartered nonpublic school opts to receive the subsidy 53518
prescribed by section 3327.02 of the Revised Code, instead of 53519
transportation by a school district under section 3327.01 of the 53520
Revised Code, and the governing authority of the chartered 53521
nonpublic school transports the student to and from school in a 53522
vehicle that the governing authority purchased using no state or 53523
federal funds, the governing authority may charge the parent or 53524
guardian a fee for transportation.53525

        (C) The parent or guardian of a student who is enrolled in a 53526
chartered nonpublic school and is eligible for transportation by a 53527
school district under section 3327.01 of the Revised Code may 53528
decline that transportation and accept transportation from the 53529
chartered nonpublic school. The governing authority of a chartered 53530
nonpublic school may charge a fee under division (A) of this 53531
section regardless of whether a student is eligible for 53532
transportation under section 3327.01 of the Revised Code.53533

        (D) The offering by the governing authority of a chartered 53534
nonpublic school of transportation to and from the school does not 53535
relieve any school district board of education from any duty 53536
imposed by section 3327.01 of the Revised Code with respect to the 53537
chartered nonpublic school's students.53538

       Sec. 3328.27.  The board of trustees of each 53539
college-preparatory boarding school shall comply with the 53540
standards for financial reporting adopted under division (B)(2) of 53541
section 3301.07 of the Revised Code.53542

       Sec. 3333.041.  (A) On or before the last day of December of 53543
each year, the chancellor of the Ohio board of regents shall 53544
submit to the governor and, in accordance with section 101.68 of 53545
the Revised Code, the general assembly a report or reports 53546
concerning all of the following:53547

       (1) The status of graduates of Ohio school districts at state 53548
institutions of higher education during the twelve-month period 53549
ending on the thirtieth day of September of the current calendar 53550
year. The report shall list, by school district, the number of 53551
graduates of each school district who attended a state institution 53552
of higher education and the percentage of each district's 53553
graduates enrolled in a state institution of higher education 53554
during the reporting period who were required during such period 53555
by the college or university, as a prerequisite to enrolling in 53556
those courses generally required for first-year students, to 53557
enroll in a remedial course in English, including composition or 53558
reading, mathematics, and any other area designated by the 53559
chancellor. The chancellor also shall make the information 53560
described in division (A)(1) of this section available to the 53561
board of education of each city, exempted village, and local 53562
school district.53563

       Each state institution of higher education shall, by the 53564
first day of November of each year, submit to the chancellor in 53565
the form specified by the chancellor the information the 53566
chancellor requires to compile the report.53567

       (2) Aggregate academic growth data for students assigned to 53568
graduates of teacher preparation programs approved under section 53569
3333.048 of the Revised Code who teach English language arts or 53570
mathematics in any of grades four to eight in a public school in 53571
Ohio. For this purpose, the chancellor shall use the value-added 53572
progress dimension prescribed by section 3302.021 of the Revised 53573
Code or the alternative student academic progress measure if 53574
adopted under division (C)(1)(e) of section 3302.03 of the Revised 53575
Code. The chancellor shall aggregate the data by graduating class 53576
for each approved teacher preparation program, except that if a 53577
particular class has ten or fewer graduates to which this section 53578
applies, the chancellor shall report the data for a group of 53579
classes over a three-year period. In no case shall the report 53580
identify any individual graduate. The department of education 53581
shall share any data necessary for the report with the chancellor.53582

       (3) The following information with respect to the Ohio 53583
tuition trust authority:53584

       (a) The name of each investment manager that is a minority 53585
business enterprise or a women's business enterprise with which 53586
the chancellor contracts;53587

       (b) The amount of assets managed by investment managers that 53588
are minority business enterprises or women's business enterprises, 53589
expressed as a percentage of assets managed by investment managers 53590
with which the chancellor has contracted;53591

       (c) Efforts by the chancellor to increase utilization of 53592
investment managers that are minority business enterprises or 53593
women's business enterprises.53594

       (4) The status of implementation of faculty improvement 53595
programs under section 3345.28 of the Revised Code. The report 53596
shall include, but need not be limited to, the following: the 53597
number of professional leave grants made by each institution; the 53598
purpose of each professional leave; and a statement of the cost to 53599
the institution of each professional leave, to the extent that the 53600
cost exceeds the salary of the faculty member on professional 53601
leave.53602

       (5) The number and types of biobased products purchased under 53603
section 125.092 of the Revised Code and the amount of money spent 53604
by state institutions of higher education for those biobased 53605
products as that information is provided to the chancellor under 53606
division (A) of section 3345.692 of the Revised Code.53607

       (6) A description of dual enrollment programs, as defined in 53608
section 3313.6013 of the Revised Code, that are offered by school 53609
districts, community schools established under Chapter 3314. of 53610
the Revised Code, STEM schools established under Chapter 3326. of 53611
the Revised Code, college-preparatory boarding schools established 53612
under Chapter 3328. of the Revised Code, and chartered nonpublic 53613
high schools. The chancellor also shall post the information on 53614
the chancellor's web site.53615

       (7) The academic and economic impact of the Ohio innovation 53616
partnership established under section 3333.61 of the Revised Code. 53617
At a minimum, the report shall include the following:53618

       (a) Progress and performance metrics for each initiative that 53619
received an award in the previous fiscal year;53620

       (b) Economic indicators of the impact of each initiative, and 53621
all initiatives as a whole, on the regional economies and the 53622
statewide economy;53623

       (c)(5) The chancellor's strategy in assigning choose Ohio 53624
first scholarships, as established under section 3333.61 of the 53625
Revised Code, among state universities and colleges and how the 53626
actual awards fit that strategy.53627

       (8)(6) The academic and economic impact of the Ohio 53628
co-op/internship program established under section 3333.72 of the 53629
Revised Code. At a minimum, the report shall include the 53630
following:53631

        (a) Progress and performance metrics for each initiative that 53632
received an award in the previous fiscal year;53633

        (b) Economic indicators of the impact of each initiative, and 53634
all initiatives as a whole, on the regional economies and the 53635
statewide economy;53636

        (c) The chancellor's strategy in allocating awards among 53637
state institutions of higher education and how the actual awards 53638
fit that strategy.53639

       (B) As used in this section:53640

       (1) "Minority business enterprise" has the same meaning as in 53641
section 122.71 of the Revised Code.53642

       (2) "State institution of higher education" and "state 53643
university" have the same meanings as in section 3345.011 of the 53644
Revised Code.53645

       (3) "State university or college" has the same meaning as in 53646
section 3345.12 of the Revised Code.53647

        (4) "Women's business enterprise" means a business, or a 53648
partnership, corporation, limited liability company, or joint 53649
venture of any kind, that is owned and controlled by women who are 53650
United States citizens and residents of this state.53651

       Sec. 3333.049. No nonprofit institution that holds a 53652
certificate of authorization issued under Chapter 1713. of the 53653
Revised Code shall be liable for a breach of confidentiality 53654
arising from the institution's submission of student data or 53655
records to the board of regents or any other state agency in 53656
compliance with any law, rule, or regulation, provided that the 53657
breach occurs as a result of one of the following:53658

        (A) An action by a third party during and after the 53659
transmission of the data or records by the institution but prior 53660
to receipt of the data or records by the board of regents or other 53661
state agency;53662

        (B) An action by the board of regents or the state agency.53663

        This provision shall apply to the submission of any student 53664
data or records that are subject to any laws of this state or, to 53665
the extent permitted, any federal law, including the "Family 53666
Educational Rights and Privacy Act of 1974," 88 Stat. 571, 20 53667
U.S.C. 1232g. 53668

       Sec. 3333.124. There is hereby created in the state treasury 53669
the Ohio college opportunity grant program reserve fund. Not later 53670
than the first day of July of each fiscal year, the chancellor of 53671
the Ohio board of regents shall certify to the director of budget 53672
and management the unencumbered balance of the general revenue 53673
fund appropriations made in the immediately preceding fiscal year 53674
for purposes of the Ohio college opportunity grant program created 53675
in section 3333.122 of the Revised Code. Upon receipt of the 53676
certification, the director may transfer an amount not exceeding 53677
the certified amount from the general revenue fund to the Ohio 53678
college opportunity grant program reserve fund. Moneys in the Ohio 53679
college opportunity grant program reserve fund shall be used to 53680
pay grant obligations in excess of the general revenue fund 53681
appropriations made for that purpose.53682

       The director may transfer any unencumbered balance from the 53683
Ohio college opportunity grant program reserve fund to the general 53684
revenue fund.53685

       Sec. 3333.31.  (A) For state subsidy and tuition surcharge 53686
purposes, status as a resident of Ohio shall be defined by the 53687
chancellor of the Ohio board of regents by rule promulgated 53688
pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. No adjudication as 53689
to the status of any person under such rule, however, shall be 53690
required to be made pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. 53691
The term "resident" for these purposes shall not be equated with 53692
the definition of that term as it is employed elsewhere under the 53693
laws of this state and other states, and shall not carry with it 53694
any of the legal connotations appurtenant thereto. Rather, except 53695
as provided in divisions (B) and (D) of this section, for such 53696
purposes, the rule promulgated under this section shall have the 53697
objective of excluding from treatment as residents those who are 53698
present in the state primarily for the purpose of attending a 53699
state-supported or state-assisted institution of higher education, 53700
and may prescribe presumptive rules, rebuttable or conclusive, as 53701
to such purpose based upon the source or sources of support of the 53702
student, residence prior to first enrollment, evidence of 53703
intention to remain in the state after completion of studies, or 53704
such other factors as the chancellor deems relevant.53705

       (B) The rules of the chancellor for determining student 53706
residency shall grant residency status to a veteran and to the 53707
veteran's spouse and any dependent of the veteran, if both of the 53708
following conditions are met:53709

       (1) The veteran either:53710

       (a) Served one or more years on active military duty and was 53711
honorably discharged or received a medical discharge that was 53712
related to the military service;53713

       (b) Was killed while serving on active military duty or has 53714
been declared to be missing in action or a prisoner of war.53715

        (2) If the veteran seeks residency status for tuition 53716
surcharge purposes, the veteran has established domicile in this 53717
state as of the first day of a term of enrollment in an 53718
institution of higher education. If the spouse or a dependent of 53719
the veteran seeks residency status for tuition surcharge purposes, 53720
the veteran and the spouse or dependent seeking residency status 53721
have established domicile in this state as of the first day of a 53722
term of enrollment in an institution of higher education, except 53723
that if the veteran was killed while serving on active military 53724
duty, has been declared to be missing in action or a prisoner of 53725
war, or is deceased after discharge, only the spouse or dependent 53726
seeking residency status shall be required to have established 53727
domicile in accordance with this division.53728

        (C) The rules of the chancellor for determining student 53729
residency shall not deny residency status to a student who is 53730
either a dependent child of a parent, or the spouse of a person 53731
who, as of the first day of a term of enrollment in an institution 53732
of higher education, has accepted full-time employment and 53733
established domicile in this state for reasons other than gaining 53734
the benefit of favorable tuition rates.53735

       Documentation of full-time employment and domicile shall 53736
include both of the following documents:53737

       (1) A sworn statement from the employer or the employer's 53738
representative on the letterhead of the employer or the employer's 53739
representative certifying that the parent or spouse of the student 53740
is employed full-time in Ohio;53741

       (2) A copy of the lease under which the parent or spouse is 53742
the lessee and occupant of rented residential property in the 53743
state, a copy of the closing statement on residential real 53744
property of which the parent or spouse is the owner and occupant 53745
in this state or, if the parent or spouse is not the lessee or 53746
owner of the residence in which the parent or spouse has 53747
established domicile, a letter from the owner of the residence 53748
certifying that the parent or spouse resides at that residence.53749

Residency officers may also evaluate, in accordance with the 53750
chancellor's rule, requests for immediate residency status from 53751
dependent students whose parents are not living and whose domicile 53752
follows that of a legal guardian who has accepted full-time 53753
employment and established domicile in the state for reasons other 53754
than gaining the benefit of favorable tuition rates.53755

       (D)(1) The rules of the chancellor for determining student 53756
residency shall grant residency status to a person who, while a 53757
resident of this state for state subsidy and tuition surcharge 53758
purposes, graduated from a high school in this state or completed 53759
the final year of instruction at home as authorized under section 53760
3321.04 of the Revised Code, if the person enrolls in an 53761
institution of higher education and establishes domicile in this 53762
state, regardless of the student's residence prior to that 53763
enrollment.53764

       (2) The rules of the chancellor for determining student 53765
residency shall not grant residency status to an alien if the 53766
alien is not also an immigrant or a nonimmigrant.53767

       (E) The rules of the chancellor for determining student 53768
residency shall grant residency status to a student to whom a 53769
state institution of higher education issues a letter or utility 53770
bill for use as proof that the student is a qualified elector in 53771
this state.53772

        Nothing in division (E) of this section shall be used to 53773
grant residency to a student for any purpose other than for state 53774
subsidy and tuition surcharge purposes.53775

       (F) As used in this section:53776

       (1) "Dependent," "domicile," "institution of higher 53777
education," and "residency officer" have the meanings ascribed in 53778
the chancellor's rules adopted under this section.53779

       (2) "Alien" means a person who is not a United States citizen 53780
or a United States national.53781

       (3) "Immigrant" means an alien who has been granted the right 53782
by the United States bureau of citizenship and immigration 53783
services to reside permanently in the United States and to work 53784
without restrictions in the United States.53785

       (4) "Nonimmigrant" means an alien who has been granted the 53786
right by the United States bureau of citizenship and immigration 53787
services to reside temporarily in the United States.53788

       (5) "State institution of higher education" has the same 53789
meaning as in section 3345.011 of the Revised Code.53790

       Sec. 3333.342. (A) The chancellor of the Ohio board of 53791
regents may designate a "certificate of value" for a certificate 53792
program at any adult career-technical education institution or 53793
state institution of higher education, as defined under section 53794
3345.011 of the Revised Code, based on the standards adopted under 53795
division (B) of this section.53796

       (B) The chancellor shall develop standards for designation of 53797
the certificates of value for certificate programs at adult 53798
career-technical education institutions and state institutions of 53799
higher education. The standards shall include at least the 53800
following considerations:53801

       (1) The quality of the certificate program;53802

       (2) The ability to transfer agreed-upon technical courses 53803
completed through an adult career-technical education institution 53804
to a state institution of higher education without unnecessary 53805
duplication or institutional barriers;53806

       (3) The extent to which the certificate program encourages a 53807
student to obtain an associate's or bachelor's degree;53808

       (4) The extent to which the certificate program increases a 53809
student's likelihood to complete other certificate programs or an 53810
associate's or bachelor's degree;53811

       (5) The ability of the certificate program to meet the 53812
expectations of the workplace and higher education;53813

       (6) The extent to which the certificate program is aligned 53814
with the strengths of the regional economy;53815

       (7) The extent to which the certificate program increases the 53816
amount of individuals who remain in or enter the state's 53817
workforce;53818

       (8) The extent of a certificate program's relationship with 53819
private companies in the state to fill potential job growth. 53820

       (C) The designation of a certificate of value under this 53821
section shall expire six years after its designation date.53822

       (D) The chancellor may revoke a designation prior to its 53823
expiration date if the chancellor determines that the program no 53824
longer complies with the standards developed under division (B) of 53825
this section.53826

       (E) Any revocation of a certificate of value under this 53827
section shall become effective one hundred eighty days after the 53828
date the revocation was declared by the chancellor.53829

       (F) Any adult career-technical education institution or state 53830
institution of higher education that desires to be eligible to 53831
receive a designation of certificate of value for one or more of 53832
its certificate programs shall comply with all records and data 53833
requests required by the chancellor.53834

       Sec. 3333.90.        Sec. 3333.59.  (A) As used in this section:53835

       (1) "Allocated state share of instruction" means, for any 53836
fiscal year, the amount of the state share of instruction 53837
appropriated to the Ohio board of regents by the general assembly 53838
that is allocated to a community or technical college or community 53839
or technical college district for such fiscal year.53840

       (2) "Issuing authority" has the same meaning as in section 53841
154.01 of the Revised Code.53842

       (3) "Bond service charges" has the same meaning as in section 53843
154.01 of the Revised Code.53844

       (4) "Chancellor" means the chancellor of the Ohio board of 53845
regents.53846

       (5) "Community or technical college" or "college" means any 53847
of the following state-supported or state-assisted institutions of 53848
higher education:53849

       (a) A community college as defined in section 3354.01 of the 53850
Revised Code;53851

       (b) A technical college as defined in section 3357.01 of the 53852
Revised Code;53853

       (c) A state community college as defined in section 3358.01 53854
of the Revised Code.53855

       (6) "Community or technical college district" or "district" 53856
means any of the following institutions of higher education that 53857
are state-supported or state-assisted:53858

       (a) A community college district as defined in section 53859
3354.01 of the Revised Code;53860

       (b) A technical college district as defined in section 53861
3357.01 of the Revised Code;53862

       (c) A state community college district as defined in section 53863
3358.01 of the Revised Code. 53864

       (7) "Credit enhancement facilities" has the same meaning as 53865
in section 133.01 of the Revised Code.53866

       (8) "Obligations" has the meaning as in section 154.01 or 53867
3345.12 of the Revised Code, as the context requires.53868

       (B) The board of trustees of any community or technical 53869
college district authorizing the issuance of obligations under 53870
section 3354.12, 3354.121, 3357.11, 3357.112, or 3358.10 of the 53871
Revised Code, or for whose benefit and on whose behalf the issuing 53872
authority proposes to issue obligations under section 154.25 of 53873
the Revised Code, may adopt a resolution requesting the chancellor 53874
to enter into an agreement with the community or technical college 53875
district and the primary paying agent or fiscal agent for such 53876
obligations, providing for the withholding and deposit of funds 53877
otherwise due the district or the community or technical college 53878
it operates in respect of its allocated state share of 53879
instruction, for the payment of bond service charges on such 53880
obligations.53881

       The board of trustees shall deliver to the chancellor a copy 53882
of the resolution and any additional pertinent information the 53883
chancellor may require.53884

       The chancellor and the office of budget and management, and 53885
the issuing authority in the case of obligations to be issued by 53886
the issuing authority, shall evaluate each request received from a 53887
community or technical college district under this section. The 53888
chancellor, with the advice and consent of the director of budget 53889
and management and the issuing authority in the case of 53890
obligations to be issued by the issuing authority, shall approve 53891
each request if all of the following conditions are met:53892

       (1) Approval of the request will enhance the marketability of 53893
the obligations for which the request is made;53894

       (2) The chancellor and the office of budget and management, 53895
and the issuing authority in the case of obligations to be issued 53896
by the issuing authority, have no reason to believe the requesting 53897
community or technical college district or the community or 53898
technical college it operates will be unable to pay when due the 53899
bond service charges on the obligations for which the request is 53900
made, and bond service charges on those obligations are therefore 53901
not anticipated to be paid pursuant to this section from the 53902
allocated state share of instruction for purposes of Section 17 of 53903
Article VIII, Ohio Constitution.53904

       (3) Any other pertinent conditions established in rules 53905
adopted under division (H) of this section.53906

       (C) If the chancellor approves the request of a community or 53907
technical college district to withhold and deposit funds pursuant 53908
to this section, the chancellor shall enter into a written 53909
agreement with the district and the primary paying agent or fiscal 53910
agent for the obligations, which agreement shall provide for the 53911
withholding of funds pursuant to this section for the payment of 53912
bond service charges on those obligations. The agreement may also 53913
include both of the following:53914

       (1) Provisions for certification by the district to the 53915
chancellor, prior to the deadline for payment of the applicable 53916
bond service charges, whether the district and the community or 53917
technical college it operates are able to pay those bond service 53918
charges when due;53919

       (2) Requirements that the district or the community or 53920
technical college it operates deposits amounts for the payment of 53921
those bond service charges with the primary paying agent or fiscal 53922
agent for the obligations prior to the date on which the bond 53923
service charges are due to the owners or holders of the 53924
obligations.53925

       (D) Whenever a district or the community or technical college 53926
it operates notifies the chancellor that it will not be able to 53927
pay the bond service charges when they are due, subject to the 53928
withholding provisions of this section, or whenever the applicable 53929
paying agent or fiscal agent notifies the chancellor that it has 53930
not timely received from a district or from the college it 53931
operates the full amount needed for payment of the bond service 53932
charges when due to the holders or owners of such obligations, the 53933
chancellor shall immediately contact the district or college and 53934
the paying agent or fiscal agent to confirm that the district and 53935
the college are not able to make the required payment by the date 53936
on which it is due.53937

       If the chancellor confirms that the district and the college 53938
are not able to make the payment and the payment will not be made 53939
pursuant to a credit enhancement facility, the chancellor shall 53940
promptly pay to the applicable primary paying agent or fiscal 53941
agent the lesser of the amount due for bond service charges or the 53942
amount of the next periodic distribution scheduled to be made to 53943
the district or to the college in respect of its allocated state 53944
share of instruction. If this amount is insufficient to pay the 53945
total amount then due the agent for the payment of bond service 53946
charges, the chancellor shall continue to pay to the agent from 53947
each periodic distribution thereafter, and until the full amount 53948
due the agent for unpaid bond service charges is paid in full, the 53949
lesser of the remaining amount due the agent for bond service 53950
charges or the amount of the next periodic distribution scheduled 53951
to be made to the district or college in respect of its allocated 53952
state share of instruction.53953

       (E) The chancellor may make any payments under this section 53954
by direct deposit of funds by electronic transfer.53955

       Any amount received by a paying agent or fiscal agent under 53956
this section shall be applied only to the payment of bond service 53957
charges on the obligations of the community or technical college 53958
district or community or technical college subject to this section 53959
or to the reimbursement of the provider of a credit enhancement 53960
facility that has paid the bond service charges.53961

       (F) The chancellor may make payments under this section to 53962
paying agents or fiscal agents during any fiscal biennium of the 53963
state only from and to the extent that money is appropriated to 53964
the board of regents by the general assembly for distribution 53965
during such biennium for the state share of instruction and only 53966
to the extent that a portion of the state share of instruction has 53967
been allocated to the community or technical college district or 53968
community or technical college. Obligations of the issuing 53969
authority or of a community or technical college district to which 53970
this section is made applicable do not constitute an obligation or 53971
a debt or a pledge of the faith, credit, or taxing power of the 53972
state, and the holders or owners of those obligations have no 53973
right to have excises or taxes levied or appropriations made by 53974
the general assembly for the payment of bond service charges on 53975
the obligations, and the obligations shall contain a statement to 53976
that effect. The agreement for or the actual withholding and 53977
payment of money under this section does not constitute the 53978
assumption by the state of any debt of a community or technical 53979
college district or a community or technical college, and bond 53980
service charges on the related obligations are not anticipated to 53981
be paid from the state general revenue fund for purposes of 53982
Section 17 of Article VIII, Ohio Constitution.53983

       (G) In the case of obligations subject to the withholding 53984
provisions of this section, the issuing community or technical 53985
college district, or the issuing authority in the case of 53986
obligations issued by the issuing authority, shall appoint a 53987
paying agent or fiscal agent who is not an officer or employee of 53988
the district or college.53989

       (H) The chancellor, with the advice and consent of the office 53990
of budget and management, may adopt reasonable rules not 53991
inconsistent with this section for the implementation of this 53992
section to secure payment of bond service charges on obligations 53993
issued by a community or technical college district or by the 53994
issuing authority for the benefit of a community or technical 53995
college district or the community or technical college it 53996
operates. Those rules shall include criteria for the evaluation 53997
and approval or denial of community or technical college district 53998
requests for withholding under this section.53999

       (I) The authority granted by this section is in addition to 54000
and not a limitation on any other authorizations granted by or 54001
pursuant to law for the same or similar purposes.54002

       Sec. 3333.613. There is hereby created in the state treasury 54003
the choose Ohio first scholarship reserve fund. Not later than the 54004
first day of July of each fiscal year, the chancellor of the Ohio 54005
board of regents shall certify to the director of budget and 54006
management the unencumbered balance of the general revenue fund 54007
appropriations made in the immediately preceding fiscal year for 54008
purposes of the choose Ohio first scholarship program created in 54009
section 3333.61 of the Revised Code. Upon receipt of the 54010
certification, the director may transfer an amount not exceeding 54011
the certified amount from the general revenue fund to the choose 54012
Ohio first scholarship reserve fund. Moneys in the choose Ohio 54013
first scholarship reserve fund shall be used to pay scholarship 54014
obligations in excess of the general revenue fund appropriations 54015
made for that purpose.54016

       The director may transfer any unencumbered balance from the 54017
choose Ohio first scholarship reserve fund to the general revenue 54018
fund.54019

       Sec. 3333.82.  (A) The chancellor of the Ohio board of 54020
regents shall establish a clearinghouse of interactive distance 54021
learning courses and other distance learning courses delivered via 54022
a computer-based method offered by school districts, community 54023
schools, STEM schools, state institutions of higher education, 54024
private colleges and universities, and other nonprofit and 54025
for-profit course providers for sharing with other school 54026
districts, community schools, STEM schools, state institutions of 54027
higher education, private colleges and universities, and 54028
individuals for the fee set pursuant to section 3333.84 of the 54029
Revised Code. The chancellor shall not be responsible for the 54030
content of courses offered through the clearinghouse; however, all 54031
such courses shall be delivered only in accordance with technical 54032
specifications approved by the chancellor and on a common 54033
statewide platform administered by the chancellor.54034

       The clearinghouse's distance learning program for students in 54035
grades kindergarten to twelve shall be based on the following 54036
principles:54037

       (1) All Ohio students shall have access to high quality 54038
distance learning courses at any point in their educational 54039
careers.54040

       (2) All students shall be able to customize their education 54041
using distance learning courses offered through the clearinghouse 54042
and no student shall be denied access to any course in the 54043
clearinghouse in which the student is eligible to enroll.54044

       (3) Students may take distance learning courses for all or 54045
any portion of their curriculum requirements and may utilize a 54046
combination of distance learning courses and courses taught in a 54047
traditional classroom setting.54048

       (4) Students may earn an unlimited number of academic credits 54049
through distance learning courses.54050

       (5) Students may take distance learning courses at any time 54051
of the calendar year.54052

       (6) Student advancement to higher coursework shall be based 54053
on a demonstration of subject area competency instead of 54054
completion of any particular number of hours of instruction.54055

       (B) To offer a course through the clearinghouse, a course 54056
provider shall apply to the chancellor in a form and manner 54057
prescribed by the chancellor. The application for each course 54058
shall describe the course of study in as much detail as required 54059
by the chancellor, whether an instructor is provided, the 54060
qualification and credentials of the instructor, the number of 54061
hours of instruction, and any other information required by the 54062
chancellor. The chancellor may require course providers to include 54063
in their applications information recommended by the state board 54064
of education under former section 3353.30 of the Revised Code.54065

       (C) The chancellor shall review the technical specifications 54066
of each application submitted under division (B) of this section. 54067
In reviewing applications, the chancellor may consult with the 54068
department of education; however, the responsibility to either 54069
approve or not approve a course for the clearinghouse belongs to 54070
the chancellor. The chancellor may request additional information 54071
from a course provider that submits an application under division 54072
(B) of this section, if the chancellor determines that such 54073
information is necessary. The chancellor may negotiate changes in 54074
the proposal to offer a course, if the chancellor determines that 54075
changes are necessary in order to approve the course.54076

       (D) The chancellor shall catalog each course approved for the 54077
clearinghouse, through a print or electronic medium, displaying 54078
the following:54079

       (1) Information necessary for a student and the student's 54080
parent, guardian, or custodian and the student's school district, 54081
community school, STEM school, college, or university to decide 54082
whether to enroll in or subscribe to the course;54083

       (2) Instructions for enrolling in that course, including 54084
deadlines for enrollment.54085

       (E) Any expenses related to the installation of a course into 54086
the common statewide platform shall be borne by the course 54087
provider. 54088

       (F) The eTech Ohio commission, in consultation with the 54089
chancellor and the state board, shall distribute information to 54090
students and parents describing the clearinghouse. The information 54091
shall be provided in an easily understandable formatThe 54092
chancellor may contract with an entity to perform any or all of 54093
the chancellor's duties under sections 3333.81 to 3333.88 of the 54094
Revised Code.54095

       Sec. 3335.35.  There is hereby created the "Ohio cooperative54096
OSU extension service fund," which shall be under the custody and 54097
control of the board of trustees of the Ohio state university and 54098
shall consist of all moneys appropriated, given, granted, or 54099
bequeathed to the university for the use of the Ohio cooperative54100
OSU extension service by the United States, this state, any 54101
political subdivision of this state, or any person. The board 54102
shall have responsibility for expenditure of all moneys in the 54103
fund in accordance with state and federal law and memoranda of 54104
agreement between the university and the United States department 54105
of agriculture.54106

       Sec. 3335.36.  The board of trustees of the Ohio state 54107
university may employ such employees as it considers appropriate 54108
for the conduct of educational programs of the Ohio cooperative54109
OSU extension service and may provide for the payment from the 54110
Ohio cooperativeOSU extension service fund created by section 54111
3335.35 of the Revised Code of reasonable compensation to such 54112
employees and of reasonable expenses incurred by them in the 54113
discharge of their duties, including expenses of travel and of 54114
maintaining, equipping, and supplying their offices.54115

       The employees shall cooperate with the department of 54116
agriculture, the Ohio agricultural research and development 54117
center, the department of education, and the United States 54118
department of agriculture, for the purpose of making available the 54119
educational materials of theOSU extension service. SuchThe54120
employees shall represent the university and shall conduct 54121
educational activities related to agriculture, natural resources,54122
home economicscommunity development, family livingand consumer 54123
sciences, and 4-H programs for the citizens of this state through 54124
personal instruction, bulletins, practical demonstrations, mass 54125
media, and otherwise, subject to such rules as may be prescribed 54126
by the board of trustees of the university. SuchThe employees 54127
shall have offices provided by the county or other political 54128
subdivision in which they serve in which bulletins and other 54129
educational materials of value to the people may be consulted and 54130
through which the employees may be reached.54131

       The board of trustees of the Ohio state university may hire 54132
or use employees of the Ohio cooperativeOSU extension service to 54133
carry out the functions and duties of a director of economic 54134
development under division (B) of section 307.07 of the Revised 54135
Code pursuant to any agreement with a county under division (A)(2) 54136
of section 307.07 of the Revised Code.54137

       Sec. 3335.37.  The board of county commissioners of any 54138
county may levy a tax, within the limitations prescribed by law, 54139
and appropriate money from the proceeds thereof or from the 54140
general fund of the county to be paid to the Ohio state university 54141
to the credit of the Ohio cooperativeOSU extension service fund 54142
created by section 3335.35 of the Revised Code and expended for 54143
the purposes prescribed in section 3335.36 of the Revised Code for 54144
the benefit of the citizens of suchthat county. Any money paid 54145
into the fund under this section that aggregates more than ten per 54146
cent of the county appropriation in the preceding year and that 54147
remains unexpended for two years from the time of suchthe payment 54148
shall be returned to the county from which it came unless the 54149
board of county commissioners determines by resolution to 54150
contribute it to the Ohio cooperativeOSU extension service for 54151
general purposes.54152

       Sec. 3335.38.  The board of trustees of the Ohio state 54153
university shall establish a farm financial management institute 54154
in the Ohio cooperativeOSU extension service to train interested 54155
and qualified persons to assist farmers needing help with farm 54156
financial management problems.54157

       Participation shall be open to all interested persons, but 54158
the following persons shall be given priority as to enrollment: 54159
employees or representatives of banks and other farm credit 54160
agencies, agricultural teachers, and faculty and employees of the 54161
Ohio state university and the Ohio cooperativeOSU extension 54162
service who agree to assist Ohio farmers in completing and 54163
understanding the coordinated financial statement and other 54164
subjects. A fee may be charged participants, as determined by the54165
OSU extension service, but may be waived for those participants 54166
granted priority status at enrollment.54167

       Sec. 3345.05.  (A) All registration fees, nonresident tuition 54168
fees, academic fees for the support of off-campus instruction, 54169
laboratory and course fees when so assessed and collected, student 54170
health fees for the support of a student health service, all other 54171
fees, deposits, charges, receipts, and income from all or part of 54172
the students, all subsidy or other payments from state 54173
appropriations, and all other fees, deposits, charges, receipts, 54174
income, and revenue received by each state institution of higher 54175
education, the Ohio state university hospitals and their ancillary 54176
facilities, the Ohio agricultural research and development center, 54177
and the Ohio state university cooperativeOSU extension service54178
shall be held and administered by the respective boards of 54179
trustees of the state institution of higher education; provided, 54180
that such fees, deposits, charges, receipts, income and revenue, 54181
to the extent required by resolutions, trust agreements, 54182
indentures, leases, and agreements adopted, made, or entered into 54183
under Chapter 154. or section 3345.07, 3345.11, or 3345.12 of the 54184
Revised Code, shall be held, administered, transferred, and 54185
applied in accordance therewith.54186

       (B) The Ohio board of regents shall require annual reporting 54187
by the Ohio agricultural research and development center and by 54188
each university and college receiving state aid in such form and 54189
detail as determined by the board in consultation with such 54190
center, universities and colleges, and the director of budget and 54191
management.54192

       (C) Notwithstanding any provision of the Revised Code to the 54193
contrary, the title to investments made by the board of trustees 54194
of a state institution of higher education with funds derived from 54195
any of the sources described in division (A) of this section shall 54196
not be vested in the state or the political subdivision but shall 54197
be held in trust by the board. Such investments shall be made 54198
pursuant to an investment policy adopted by the board in public 54199
session that requires all fiduciaries to discharge their duties 54200
with the care, skill, prudence, and diligence under the 54201
circumstances then prevailing that a prudent person acting in like 54202
capacity and familiar with such matters would use in the conduct 54203
of an enterprise of a like character and with like aims. The 54204
policy also shall require at least the following:54205

       (1) A stipulation that investment of at least twenty-five per 54206
cent of the average amount of the investment portfolio over the 54207
course of the previous fiscal year be invested in securities of 54208
the United States government or of its agencies or 54209
instrumentalities, the treasurer of state's pooled investment 54210
program, obligations of this state or any political subdivision of 54211
this state, certificates of deposit of any national bank located 54212
in this state, written repurchase agreements with any eligible 54213
Ohio financial institution that is a member of the federal reserve 54214
system or federal home loan bank, money market funds, or bankers 54215
acceptances maturing in two hundred seventy days or less which are 54216
eligible for purchase by the federal reserve system, as a reserve;54217

       (2) Eligible funds above those that meet the conditions of 54218
division (C)(1) of this section may be pooled with other 54219
institutional funds and invested in accordance with section 54220
1715.52 of the Revised Code.54221

        (3) The establishment of an investment committee.54222

       (D) The investment committee established under division 54223
(C)(3) of this section shall meet at least quarterly. The 54224
committee shall review and recommend revisions to the board's 54225
investment policy and shall advise the board on its investments 54226
made under division (C) of this section in an effort to assist it 54227
in meeting its obligations as a fiduciary as described in division 54228
(C) of this section. The committee shall be authorized to retain 54229
the services of an investment advisor who meets both of the 54230
following qualifications:54231

       (1) The advisor is either:54232

       (a) Licensed by the division of securities under section 54233
1707.141 of the Revised Code;54234

       (b) Registered with the securities and exchange commission.54235

       (2) The advisor either:54236

       (a) Has experience in the management of investments of public 54237
funds, especially in the investment of state-government investment 54238
portfolios;54239

       (b) Is an eligible institution referenced in section 135.03 54240
of the Revised Code.54241

       (E) As used in this section, "state institution of higher 54242
education" means a state institution of higher education as 54243
defined in section 3345.011 of the Revised Code.54244

       Sec. 3345.06.  (A) Subject to divisions (B) and (C) of this 54245
section, a graduate of the twelfth grade shall be entitled to 54246
admission without examination to any college or university which 54247
is supported wholly or in part by the state, but for unconditional 54248
admission may be required to complete such units not included in 54249
the graduate's high school course as may be prescribed, not less 54250
than two years prior to the graduate's entrance, by the faculty of 54251
the institution.54252

       (B) Beginning with the 2014-2015 academic year, each state 54253
university listed in section 3345.011 of the Revised Code, except 54254
for Central state university, Shawnee state university, and 54255
Youngstown state university, shall permit a resident of this state 54256
who entered ninth grade for the first time on or after July 1, 54257
2010, to begin undergraduate coursework at the university only if 54258
the person has successfully completed the Ohio core curriculum for 54259
high school graduation prescribed in division (C) of section 54260
3313.603 of the Revised Code, unless one of the following applies:54261

       (1) The person has earned at least ten semester hours, or the 54262
equivalent, at a community college, state community college, 54263
university branch, technical college, or another post-secondary 54264
institution except a state university to which division (B) of 54265
this section applies, in courses that are college-credit-bearing 54266
and may be applied toward the requirements for a degree. The 54267
university shall grant credit for successful completion of those 54268
courses pursuant to any applicable articulation and transfer 54269
policy of the Ohio board of regents or any agreements the 54270
university has entered into in accordance with policies and 54271
procedures adopted under section 3333.16, 3313.161, or 3333.162 of 54272
the Revised Code. The university may count college credit that the 54273
student earned while in high school through the post-secondary 54274
enrollment options program under Chapter 3365. of the Revised 54275
Code, or through other dual enrollment programs, toward the 54276
requirements of division (B)(1) of this section if the credit may 54277
be applied toward a degree.54278

       (2) The person qualified to graduate from high school under 54279
division (D) or (F) of section 3313.603 of the Revised Code and 54280
has successfully completed the topics or courses that the person 54281
lacked to graduate under division (C) of that section at any 54282
post-secondary institution or at a summer program at the state 54283
university. A state university may admit a person for enrollment 54284
contingent upon completion of such topics or courses or summer 54285
program.54286

       (3) The person met the high school graduation requirements by 54287
successfully completing the person's individualized education 54288
program developed under section 3323.08 of the Revised Code.54289

       (3)(4) The person is receiving or has completed the final 54290
year of instruction at home as authorized under section 3321.04 of 54291
the Revised Code, or has graduated from a nonchartered, nonpublic 54292
school in Ohio, and demonstrates mastery of the academic content 54293
and skills in reading, writing, and mathematics needed to 54294
successfully complete introductory level coursework at an 54295
institution of higher education and to avoid remedial coursework.54296

       (4)(5) The person is a high school student participating in 54297
the post-secondary enrollment options program under Chapter 3365. 54298
of the Revised Code or another dual enrollment program.54299

       (C) A state university subject to division (B) of this 54300
section may delay admission for or admit conditionally an 54301
undergraduate student who has successfully completed the Ohio core 54302
curriculum if the university determines the student requires 54303
academic remedial or developmental coursework. The university may 54304
delay admission pending, or make admission conditional upon, the 54305
student's successful completion of the academic remedial or 54306
developmental coursework at a university branch, community 54307
college, state community college, or technical college.54308

       (D) This section does not deny the right of a college of law, 54309
medicine, or other specialized education to require college 54310
training for admission, or the right of a department of music or 54311
other art to require particular preliminary training or talent.54312

       Sec. 3345.12.  (A) As used in this section and sections 54313
3345.07 and 3345.11 of the Revised Code, in other sections of the 54314
Revised Code that make reference to this section unless the 54315
context does not permit, and in related bond proceedings unless 54316
otherwise expressly provided:54317

       (1) "State university or college" means each of the state 54318
universities identified in section 3345.011 of the Revised Code 54319
and the northeast Ohio medical university, and includes its board 54320
of trustees.54321

       (2) "Institution of higher education" or "institution" means 54322
a state university or college, or a community college district, 54323
technical college district, university branch district, or state 54324
community college, and includes the applicable board of trustees 54325
or, in the case of a university branch district, any other 54326
managing authority.54327

       (3) "Housing and dining facilities" means buildings, 54328
structures, and other improvements, and equipment, real estate, 54329
and interests in real estate therefor, to be used for or in 54330
connection with dormitories or other living quarters and 54331
accommodations, or related dining halls or other food service and 54332
preparation facilities, for students, members of the faculty, 54333
officers, or employees of the institution of higher education, and 54334
their spouses and families.54335

       (4) "Auxiliary facilities" means buildings, structures, and 54336
other improvements, and equipment, real estate, and interests in 54337
real estate therefor, to be used for or in connection with student 54338
activity or student service facilities, housing and dining 54339
facilities, dining halls, and other food service and preparation 54340
facilities, vehicular parking facilities, bookstores, athletic and 54341
recreational facilities, faculty centers, auditoriums, assembly 54342
and exhibition halls, hospitals, infirmaries and other medical and 54343
health facilities, research, and continuing education facilities.54344

       (5) "Education facilities" means buildings, structures, and 54345
other improvements, and equipment, real estate, and interests in 54346
real estate therefor, to be used for or in connection with, 54347
classrooms or other instructional facilities, libraries, 54348
administrative and office facilities, and other facilities, other 54349
than auxiliary facilities, to be used directly or indirectly for 54350
or in connection with the conduct of the institution of higher 54351
education.54352

       (6) "Facilities" means housing and dining facilities, 54353
auxiliary facilities, or education facilities, and includes any 54354
one, part of, or any combination of such facilities, and further 54355
includes site improvements, utilities, machinery, furnishings, and 54356
any separate or connected buildings, structures, improvements, 54357
sites, open space and green space areas, utilities or equipment to 54358
be used in, or in connection with the operation or maintenance of, 54359
or supplementing or otherwise related to the services or 54360
facilities to be provided by, such facilities.54361

       (7) "Obligations" means bonds or notes or other evidences of 54362
obligation, including interest coupons pertaining thereto, 54363
authorized to be issued under this section or section 3345.07, 54364
3345.11, 3354.121, 3355.091, 3357.112, or 3358.10 of the Revised 54365
Code.54366

       (8) "Bond service charges" means principal, including any 54367
mandatory sinking fund or redemption requirements for the 54368
retirement of obligations or assurances, interest, or interest 54369
equivalent and other accreted amounts, and any call premium 54370
required to be paid on obligations or assurances.54371

       (9) "Bond proceedings" means the resolutions, trust 54372
agreement, indenture, and other agreements and credit enhancement 54373
facilities, and amendments and supplements to the foregoing, or 54374
any one or more or combination thereof, authorizing, awarding, or 54375
providing for the terms and conditions applicable to, or providing 54376
for the security or liquidity of, obligations or assurances, and 54377
the provisions contained in those obligations or assurances.54378

       (10) "Costs of facilities" means the costs of acquiring, 54379
constructing, reconstructing, rehabilitating, remodeling, 54380
renovating, enlarging, improving, equipping, or furnishing 54381
facilities, and the financing thereof, including the cost of 54382
clearance and preparation of the site and of any land to be used 54383
in connection with facilities, the cost of any indemnity and 54384
surety bonds and premiums on insurance, all related direct 54385
administrative expenses and allocable portions of direct costs of 54386
the institution of higher education or state agency, cost of 54387
engineering, architectural services, design, plans, specifications 54388
and surveys, estimates of cost, legal fees, fees and expenses of 54389
trustees, depositories, bond registrars, and paying agents for the 54390
obligations, cost of issuance of the obligations and financing 54391
costs and fees and expenses of financial advisers and consultants 54392
in connection therewith, interest on the obligations from the date 54393
thereof to the time when interest is to be covered by available 54394
receipts or other sources other than proceeds of the obligations, 54395
amounts necessary to establish reserves as required by the bond 54396
proceedings, costs of audits, the reimbursements of all moneys 54397
advanced or applied by or borrowed from the institution or others, 54398
from whatever source provided, including any temporary advances 54399
from state appropriations, for the payment of any item or items of 54400
cost of facilities, and all other expenses necessary or incident 54401
to planning or determining feasibility or practicability with 54402
respect to facilities, and such other expenses as may be necessary 54403
or incident to the acquisition, construction, reconstruction, 54404
rehabilitation, remodeling, renovation, enlargement, improvement, 54405
equipment, and furnishing of facilities, the financing thereof and 54406
the placing of them in use and operation, including any one, part 54407
of, or combination of such classes of costs and expenses.54408

       (11) "Available receipts" means all moneys received by the 54409
institution of higher education, including income, revenues, and 54410
receipts from the operation, ownership, or control of facilities 54411
or entrepreneurial projects, grants, gifts, donations, and pledges 54412
and receipts therefrom, receipts from fees and charges, and the 54413
proceeds of the sale of obligations or assurances, including 54414
proceeds of obligations or assurances issued to refund obligations 54415
or assurances previously issued, but excluding any special fee, 54416
and receipts therefrom, charged pursuant to division (D) of 54417
section 154.21 of the Revised Code.54418

       (12) "Credit enhancement facilities" has the meaning given in 54419
division (H) of section 133.01 of the Revised Code.54420

       (13) "Financing costs" has the meaning given in division (K) 54421
of section 133.01 of the Revised Code.54422

       (14) "Interest" or "interest equivalent" has the meaning 54423
given in division (R) of section 133.01 of the Revised Code.54424

       (15) "Assurances" means bonds, notes, or other evidence of 54425
indebtedness, including interest coupons pertaining thereto, 54426
authorized to be issued under section 3345.36 of the Revised Code.54427

       (16) "Entrepreneurial project" has the same meaning as in 54428
section 3345.36 of the Revised Code.54429

        (17) "Costs of entrepreneurial projects" means any costs 54430
related to the establishment or development of entrepreneurial 54431
projects pursuant to a resolution adopted under section 3345.36 of 54432
the Revised Code.54433

       (B) Obligations issued under section 3345.07 or 3345.11 of 54434
the Revised Code by a state university or college shall be 54435
authorized by resolution of its board of trustees. Obligations 54436
issued by any other institution of higher education shall be 54437
authorized by resolution of its board of trustees, or managing 54438
directors in the case of certain university branch districts, as 54439
applicable. Sections 9.96 and 9.98 to 9.983 of the Revised Code 54440
apply to obligations and assurances. Obligations and assurances 54441
may be issued to pay costs of facilities or entrepreneurial 54442
projects even if the institution anticipates the possibility of a 54443
future state appropriation to pay all or a portion of such costs.54444

       (C) Obligations and assurances shall be secured by a pledge 54445
of and lien on all or such part of the available receipts of the 54446
institution of higher education as it provides for in the bond 54447
proceedings, excluding moneys raised by taxation and state 54448
appropriations except as permitted by section 3333.903333.59 of 54449
the Revised Code. Such pledge and lien may be made prior to all 54450
other expenses, claims, or payments, excepting any pledge of such 54451
available receipts previously made to the contrary and except as 54452
provided by any existing restrictions on the use thereof, or such 54453
pledge and lien may be made subordinate to such other expenses, 54454
claims, or payments, as provided in the bond proceedings. 54455
Obligations or assurances may be additionally secured by covenants 54456
of the institution to make, fix, adjust, collect, and apply such 54457
charges, rates, fees, rentals, and other items of available 54458
receipts as will produce pledged available receipts sufficient to 54459
meet bond service charges, reserve, and other requirements 54460
provided for in the bond proceedings. Notwithstanding this and any 54461
other sections of the Revised Code, the holders or owners of the 54462
obligations or assurances shall not be given the right and shall 54463
have no right to have excises or taxes levied by the general 54464
assembly for the payment of bond service charges thereon, and each 54465
such obligation or assurance shall bear on its face a statement to 54466
that effect and to the effect that the right to such payment is 54467
limited to the available receipts and special funds pledged to 54468
such purpose under the bond proceedings.54469

       All pledged available receipts and funds and the proceeds of 54470
obligations or assurances are trust funds and, subject to the 54471
provisions of this section and the applicable bond proceedings, 54472
shall be held, deposited, invested, reinvested, disbursed, 54473
applied, and used to such extent, in such manner, at such times, 54474
and for such purposes, as are provided in the bond proceedings.54475

       (D) The bond proceedings for obligations or assurances shall 54476
provide for the purpose thereof and the principal amount or 54477
maximum principal amount, and provide for or authorize the manner 54478
of determining the principal maturity or maturities, the sale 54479
price including any permitted discount, the interest rate or 54480
rates, which may be a variable rate or rates, or the maximum 54481
interest rate, the date of the obligations or assurances and the 54482
date or dates of payment of interest thereon, their denominations, 54483
the manner of sale thereof, and the establishment within or 54484
without the state of a place or places of payment of bond service 54485
charges. The bond proceedings also shall provide for a pledge of 54486
and lien on available receipts of the institution of higher 54487
education as provided in division (C) of this section, and a 54488
pledge of and lien on such fund or funds provided in the bond 54489
proceedings arising from available receipts, which pledges and 54490
liens may provide for parity with obligations or assurances 54491
theretofore or thereafter issued by the institution. The available 54492
receipts so pledged and thereafter received by the institution and 54493
the funds so pledged are immediately subject to the lien of such 54494
pledge without any physical delivery thereof or further act, and 54495
the lien of any such pledge is valid and binding against all 54496
parties having claims of any kind against the institution, 54497
irrespective of whether such parties have notice thereof, and 54498
shall create a perfected security interest for all purposes of 54499
Chapter 1309. of the Revised Code, without the necessity for 54500
separation or delivery of funds or for the filing or recording of 54501
the bond proceedings by which such pledge is created or any 54502
certificate, statement, or other document with respect thereto; 54503
and the pledge of such available receipts and funds shall be 54504
effective and the money therefrom and thereof may be applied to 54505
the purposes for which pledged without necessity for any act of 54506
appropriation.54507

       (E) The bond proceedings may contain additional provisions 54508
customary or appropriate to the financing or to the obligations or 54509
assurances or to particular obligations and assurances, including:54510

       (1) The acquisition, construction, reconstruction, equipment, 54511
furnishing, improvement, operation, alteration, enlargement, 54512
maintenance, insurance, and repair of facilities or 54513
entrepreneurial projects, and the duties of the institution of 54514
higher education with reference thereto;54515

       (2) The terms of the obligations or assurances, including 54516
provisions for their redemption prior to maturity at the option of 54517
the institution of higher education at such price or prices and 54518
under such terms and conditions as are provided in the bond 54519
proceedings;54520

       (3) Limitations on the purposes to which the proceeds of the 54521
obligations or assurances may be applied;54522

       (4) The rates or rentals or other charges for the use of or 54523
right to use the facilities or entrepreneurial projects financed 54524
by the obligations or assurances, or other properties the revenues 54525
or receipts from which are pledged to the obligations or 54526
assurances, and rules for assuring any applicable use and 54527
occupancy thereof, including limitations upon the right to modify 54528
such rates, rentals, other charges, or regulations;54529

       (5) The use and expenditure of the pledged available receipts 54530
in such manner and to such extent as shall be determined, which 54531
may include provision for the payment of the expenses of 54532
operation, maintenance, and repair of facilities or 54533
entrepreneurial projects so that such expenses, or part thereof, 54534
shall be paid or provided as a charge prior or subsequent to the 54535
payment of bond service charges and any other payments required to 54536
be made by the bond proceedings;54537

       (6) Limitations on the issuance of additional obligations or 54538
assurances;54539

       (7) The terms of any trust agreement or indenture securing 54540
the obligations or assurances or under which the same may be 54541
issued;54542

       (8) The deposit, investment, and application of funds, and 54543
the safeguarding of funds on hand or on deposit without regard to 54544
Chapter 131. or 135. of the Revised Code, and any bank or trust 54545
company or other financial institution that acts as depository of 54546
any moneys under the bond proceedings shall furnish such 54547
indemnifying bonds or pledge such securities as required by the 54548
bond proceedings or otherwise by the institution of higher 54549
education;54550

       (9) The binding effect of any or every provision of the bond 54551
proceedings upon such officer, board, commission, authority, 54552
agency, department, or other person or body as may from time to 54553
time have the authority under law to take such actions as may be 54554
necessary to perform all or any part of the duty required by such 54555
provision;54556

       (10) Any provision that may be made in a trust agreement or 54557
indenture;54558

       (11) Any other or additional agreements with respect to the 54559
facilities of the institution of higher education or its 54560
entrepreneurial projects, their operation, the available receipts 54561
and funds pledged, and insurance of facilities or entrepreneurial 54562
projects and of the institution, its officers and employees.54563

       (F) Such obligations or assurances may have the seal of the 54564
institution of higher education or a facsimile thereof affixed 54565
thereto or printed thereon and shall be executed by such officers 54566
as are designated in the bond proceedings, which execution may be 54567
by facsimile signatures. Any obligations or assurances may be 54568
executed by an officer who, on the date of execution, is the 54569
proper officer although on the date of such obligations or 54570
assurances such person was not the proper officer. In case any 54571
officer whose signature or a facsimile of whose signature appears 54572
on any such obligation or assurance ceases to be such officer 54573
before delivery thereof, such signature or facsimile is 54574
nevertheless valid and sufficient for all purposes as if the 54575
person had remained such officer until such delivery; and in case 54576
the seal of the institution has been changed after a facsimile of 54577
the seal has been imprinted on such obligations or assurances, 54578
such facsimile seal continues to be sufficient as to such 54579
obligations or assurances and obligations or assurances issued in 54580
substitution or exchange therefor.54581

       (G) All such obligations or assurances are negotiable 54582
instruments and securities under Chapter 1308. of the Revised 54583
Code, subject to the provisions of the bond proceedings as to 54584
registration. The obligations or assurances may be issued in 54585
coupon or in registered form, or both. Provision may be made for 54586
the registration of any obligations or assurances with coupons 54587
attached thereto as to principal alone or as to both principal and 54588
interest, their exchange for obligations or assurances so 54589
registered, and for the conversion or reconversion into 54590
obligations or assurances with coupons attached thereto of any 54591
obligations or assurances registered as to both principal and 54592
interest, and for reasonable charges for such registration, 54593
exchange, conversion, and reconversion.54594

       (H) Pending preparation of definitive obligations or 54595
assurances, the institution of higher education may issue interim 54596
receipts or certificates which shall be exchanged for such 54597
definitive obligations or assurances.54598

       (I) Such obligations or assurances may be secured 54599
additionally by a trust agreement or indenture between the 54600
institution of higher education and a corporate trustee, which may 54601
be any trust company or bank having the powers of a trust company 54602
within or without this state but authorized to exercise trust 54603
powers within this state. Any such agreement or indenture may 54604
contain the resolution authorizing the issuance of the obligations 54605
or assurances, any provisions that may be contained in the bond 54606
proceedings as authorized by this section, and other provisions 54607
which are customary or appropriate in an agreement or indenture of 54608
such type, including:54609

       (1) Maintenance of each pledge, trust agreement, and 54610
indenture, or other instrument comprising part of the bond 54611
proceedings until the institution of higher education has fully 54612
paid the bond service charges on the obligations or assurances 54613
secured thereby, or provision therefor has been made;54614

       (2) In the event of default in any payments required to be 54615
made by the bond proceedings, or any other agreement of the 54616
institution of higher education made as a part of the contract 54617
under which the obligations or assurances were issued, enforcement 54618
of such payments or agreement by mandamus, the appointment of a 54619
receiver, suit in equity, action at law, or any combination of the 54620
foregoing;54621

       (3) The rights and remedies of the holders of obligations or 54622
assurances and of the trustee, and provisions for protecting and 54623
enforcing them, including limitations on rights of individual 54624
holders of obligations or assurances;54625

       (4) The replacement of any obligations or assurances that 54626
become mutilated or are destroyed, lost, or stolen;54627

       (5) Such other provisions as the trustee and the institution 54628
of higher education agree upon, including limitations, conditions, 54629
or qualifications relating to any of the foregoing.54630

       (J) Each duty of the institution of higher education and its 54631
officers or employees, undertaken pursuant to the bond proceedings 54632
or any related agreement or lease made under authority of law, is 54633
hereby established as a duty of such institution, and of each such 54634
officer or employee having authority to perform such duty, 54635
specially enjoined by law resulting from an office, trust, or 54636
station within the meaning of section 2731.01 of the Revised Code. 54637
The persons who are at the time the members of the board of 54638
trustees or the managing directors of the institution or its 54639
officers or employees are not liable in their personal capacities 54640
on such obligations or assurances, or lease, or other agreement of 54641
the institution.54642

       (K) The authority to issue obligations or assurances includes 54643
authority to:54644

       (1) Issue obligations or assurances in the form of bond 54645
anticipation notes and to renew them from time to time by the 54646
issuance of new notes. Such notes are payable solely from the 54647
available receipts and funds that may be pledged to the payment of 54648
such bonds, or from the proceeds of such bonds or renewal notes, 54649
or both, as the institution of higher education provides in its 54650
resolution authorizing such notes. Such notes may be additionally 54651
secured by covenants of the institution to the effect that it will 54652
do such or all things necessary for the issuance of such bonds or 54653
renewal notes in appropriate amount, and either exchange such 54654
bonds or renewal notes therefor or apply the proceeds thereof to 54655
the extent necessary, to make full payment of the bond service 54656
charges on such notes at the time or times contemplated, as 54657
provided in such resolution. Subject to the provisions of this 54658
division, all references to obligations or assurances in this 54659
section apply to such anticipation notes.54660

       (2) Issue obligations or assurances to refund, including 54661
funding and retirement of, obligations or assurances previously 54662
issued to pay costs of facilities or entrepreneurial projects. 54663
Such obligations or assurances may be issued in amounts sufficient 54664
for payment of the principal amount of the obligations or 54665
assurances to be so refunded, any redemption premiums thereon, 54666
principal maturities of any obligations or assurances maturing 54667
prior to the redemption of any other obligations or assurances on 54668
a parity therewith to be so refunded, interest accrued or to 54669
accrue to the maturity date or dates of redemption of such 54670
obligations or assurances, and any expenses incurred or to be 54671
incurred in connection with such refunding or the issuance of the 54672
obligations or assurances.54673

       (L) Obligations and assurances are lawful investments for 54674
banks, societies for savings, savings and loan associations, 54675
deposit guarantee associations, trust companies, trustees, 54676
fiduciaries, insurance companies, including domestic for life and 54677
domestic not for life, trustees or other officers having charge of 54678
sinking and bond retirement or other special funds of political 54679
subdivisions and taxing districts of this state, the commissioners 54680
of the sinking fund, the administrator of workers' compensation in 54681
accordance with the investment policy approved by the bureau of 54682
workers' compensation board of directors pursuant to section 54683
4121.12 of the Revised Code, the state teachers retirement system, 54684
the public employees retirement system, the school employees 54685
retirement system, and the Ohio police and fire pension fund, 54686
notwithstanding any other provisions of the Revised Code or rules 54687
adopted pursuant thereto by any state agency with respect to 54688
investments by them, and are also acceptable as security for the 54689
deposit of public moneys.54690

       (M) All facilities or entrepreneurial projects purchased, 54691
acquired, constructed, or owned by an institution of higher 54692
education, or financed in whole or in part by obligations or 54693
assurances issued by an institution, and used for the purposes of 54694
the institution or other publicly owned and controlled college or 54695
university, is public property used exclusively for a public 54696
purpose, and such property and the income therefrom is exempt from 54697
all taxation and assessment within this state, including ad 54698
valorem and excise taxes. The obligations or assurances, the 54699
transfer thereof, and the income therefrom, including any profit 54700
made on the sale thereof, are at all times free from taxation 54701
within the state. The transfer of tangible personal property by 54702
lease under authority of this section or section 3345.07, 3345.11, 54703
3345.36, 3354.121, 3355.091, 3357.112, or 3358.10 of the Revised 54704
Code is not a sale as used in Chapter 5739. of the Revised Code.54705

       (N) The authority granted by this section is cumulative with 54706
the authority granted to institutions of higher education under 54707
Chapter 154. of the Revised Code, and nothing in this section 54708
impairs or limits the authority granted by Chapter 154. of the 54709
Revised Code. In any lease, agreement, or commitment made by an 54710
institution of higher education under Chapter 154. of the Revised 54711
Code, it may agree to restrict or subordinate any pledge it may 54712
thereafter make under authority of this section.54713

       (O) Title to lands acquired under this section and sections 54714
3345.07 and 3345.11 of the Revised Code by a state university or 54715
college shall be taken in the name of the state.54716

       (P) Except where costs of facilities or entrepreneurial 54717
projects are to be paid in whole or in part from funds 54718
appropriated by the general assembly, section 125.81 of the 54719
Revised Code and the requirement for certification with respect 54720
thereto under section 153.04 of the Revised Code do not apply to 54721
such facilities or entrepreneurial projects.54722

       (Q) A state university or college may sell or lease lands or 54723
interests in land owned by it or by the state for its use, or 54724
facilities authorized to be acquired or constructed by it under 54725
section 3345.07 or 3345.11 of the Revised Code, to permit the 54726
purchasers or lessees thereof to acquire, construct, equip, 54727
furnish, reconstruct, alter, enlarge, remodel, renovate, 54728
rehabilitate, improve, maintain, repair, or maintain and operate 54729
thereon and to provide by lease or otherwise to such institution, 54730
facilities authorized in section 3345.07 or 3345.11 of the Revised 54731
Code or entrepreneurial projects authorized under section 3345.36 54732
of the Revised Code. Such land or interests therein shall be sold 54733
for such appraised value, or leased, and on such terms as the 54734
board of trustees determines. All deeds or other instruments 54735
relating to such sales or leases shall be executed by such officer 54736
of the state university or college as the board of trustees 54737
designates. The state university or college shall hold, invest, or 54738
use the proceeds of such sales or leases for the same purposes for 54739
which proceeds of borrowings may be used under sections 3345.07 54740
and 3345.11 of the Revised Code or, if the proceeds relate to the 54741
sale or lease of entrepreneurial projects, for purposes of section 54742
3345.36 of the Revised Code.54743

       (R) An institution of higher education may pledge available 54744
receipts, to the extent permitted by division (C) of this section 54745
with respect to obligations, to secure the payments to be made by 54746
it under any lease, lease with option to purchase, or 54747
lease-purchase agreement authorized under this section or section 54748
3345.07, 3345.11, 3345.36, 3354.121, 3355.091, 3357.112, or 54749
3358.10 of the Revised Code.54750

       Sec. 3345.48. (A) As used in this section:54751

        (1) "Cohort" means a group of students who will complete 54752
their bachelor's degree requirements and graduate from a state 54753
university at the same time. A cohort may include transfer 54754
students and other selected undergraduate student academic 54755
programs as determined by the board of trustees of a state 54756
university.54757

        (2) "Eligible student" means an undergraduate student who:54758

        (a) Is enrolled full-time in a bachelor's degree program at a 54759
state university;54760

        (b) Is a resident of this state, as defined by the chancellor 54761
of the Ohio board of regents under section 3333.31 of the Revised 54762
Code.54763

        (3) "State university" has the same meaning as in section 54764
3345.011 of the Revised Code.54765

        (B) The board of trustees of a state university may establish 54766
an undergraduate tuition guarantee program that allows eligible 54767
students in the same cohort to pay a fixed rate for general and 54768
instructional fees for four years. A board of trustees may include 54769
room and board and any additional fees in the program.54770

        If the board of trustees chooses to establish such a program, 54771
the board shall adopt rules for the program that include, but are 54772
not limited to, all of the following:54773

        (1) The number of credit hours required to earn an 54774
undergraduate degree in each major;54775

        (2) A guarantee that the general and instructional fees for 54776
each student in the cohort shall remain constant for four years so 54777
long as the student complies with the requirements of the program, 54778
except that, notwithstanding any law to the contrary, the board 54779
may increase the guaranteed amount by up to six per cent above 54780
what has been charged in the previous academic year one time for 54781
the first cohort enrolled under the tuition guarantee program. If 54782
the board of trustees determines that economic conditions or other 54783
circumstances require an increase for the first cohort of above 54784
six per cent, the board shall submit a request to increase the 54785
amount by a specified percentage to the chancellor. The 54786
chancellor, based on information the chancellor requires from the 54787
board of trustees, shall approve or disapprove such a request. 54788
There shall be no other increase of general and instructional fees 54789
for that cohort or for subsequent cohorts under the program unless 54790
the general assembly approves such an increase for all tuition 54791
guarantee programs established under this section.54792

        (3) A benchmark by which the board sets annual increases in 54793
general and instructional fees. This benchmark and any subsequent 54794
change to the benchmark shall be subject to approval of the 54795
chancellor.54796

        (4) Eligibility requirements for students to participate in 54797
the program;54798

        (5) Student rights and privileges under the program;54799

        (6) Consequences to the university for students unable to 54800
complete a degree program within four years, as follows:54801

        (a) For a student who could not complete the program in four 54802
years due to a lack of available classes or space in classes 54803
provided by the university, the university shall provide the 54804
necessary course or courses for completion to the student free of 54805
charge.54806

        (b) For a student who could not complete the program in four 54807
years due to military service or other circumstances beyond a 54808
student's control, as determined by the board of trustees, the 54809
university shall provide the necessary course or courses for 54810
completion to the student at the student's initial cohort rate.54811

        (c) For a student who did not complete the program in four 54812
years for any other reason, as determined by the board of 54813
trustees, the university shall provide the necessary course or 54814
courses for completion to the student at a rate determined through 54815
a method established by the board under division (B)(7) of this 54816
section.54817

        (7) Guidelines for adjusting a student's annual charges if 54818
the student, due to circumstances under the student's control, is 54819
unable to complete a degree program within four years;54820

        (8) A requirement that the rules adopted under division (B) 54821
of this section be published or posted in the university handbook, 54822
course catalog, and web site.54823

        (C) If a board of trustees implements a program under this 54824
section, the board shall submit the rules adopted under division 54825
(B) of this section to the chancellor for approval before 54826
beginning implementation of the program.54827

        The chancellor shall not unreasonably withhold approval of a 54828
program if the program conforms in principle with the parameters 54829
and guidelines of this section.54830

        (D) A board of trustees of a state university may establish 54831
an undergraduate tuition guarantee program for nonresident 54832
students.54833

        (E) Within five years after the effective date of this 54834
section, the chancellor shall publish on the board of regents web 54835
site a report that includes all of the following:54836

        (1) The state universities that have adopted an undergraduate 54837
tuition guarantee program under this section;54838

        (2) The details of each undergraduate tuition guarantee 54839
program established under this section;54840

        (3) Comparative data, including general and instructional 54841
fees, room and board, graduation rates, and retention rates, from 54842
all state universities.54843

       Sec. 3345.81. Not later than May 1, 2014, and biennially 54844
thereafter, each institution of higher education, as defined by 54845
section 3345.12 of the Revised Code, shall submit to the 54846
chancellor of the Ohio board of regents, for each campus under the 54847
authority of that institution, a campus-specific completion plan 54848
designed to increase college completion rates. The chancellor 54849
shall prescribe a format for all plans required under this 54850
section, which may include specific strategies, targets, and 54851
metrics that promote student access, retention, progression, and 54852
completion of each student's chosen program of study. Institutions 54853
shall submit each campus plan in accordance with this format and 54854
shall include all required content, as prescribed by the 54855
chancellor. Each plan shall be consistent with the mission and 54856
strategic priorities of the campus and shall examine and, as 54857
appropriate, include all of the following:54858

       (A) Increased alignment of the institution's programs with 54859
programs of other educational institutions from preschool through 54860
higher education;54861

       (B) A communications strategy;54862

       (C) A guidance plan to provide current and potential students 54863
with broadened awareness of dual enrollment programs, as defined 54864
by section 3313.6013 of the Revised Code, and the connections 54865
between college completion and career opportunities. The guidance 54866
plan also shall also include financial literacy and planning for 54867
students and their families.54868

       (D) Increased support to ensure success for first-year 54869
students, such as increased access to career counseling and 54870
mentoring, improvements to remediation course design and subject 54871
matter, and other support programs;54872

       (E) The development of institutional systems to streamline 54873
and accelerate a student's progress toward completion, such as a 54874
coordinated system for the transfer of academic credit or a system 54875
that awards academic credit for alternative study, work, or 54876
military experience;54877

       (F) Incentives and rewards for successful student progression 54878
within, and completion of, each student's chosen program.54879

       Sec. 3350.15. The northeast Ohio medical university may enter 54880
into a partnership with Cleveland state university to establish 54881
the northeast Ohio medical university academic campus at Cleveland 54882
state university, to enable fifty per cent or more of the medical 54883
curriculum taught to students enrolled under this partnership to 54884
be based in Cleveland at Cleveland state university, local 54885
hospitals, and community- and neighborhood-based primary care 54886
clinics. Cleveland state university shall not receive state 54887
capital appropriations to pay for facilities for the academic 54888
campus.54889

       Sec. 3353.01.  As used in this chapter:54890

       (A) "Educational television or radio" means television or 54891
radio programs which serve the educational needs of the community 54892
and which meet the requirements of the federal communications 54893
commission for noncommercial educational television or radio.54894

       (B) "Educational telecommunications network" means a system 54895
of connected educational television, radio, or radio reading 54896
service facilities and coordinated programs established and 54897
operated or controlled by the eTech Ohiobroadcast educational 54898
media commission, pursuant to this chapter.54899

       (C) "Transmission" means the sending out of television, 54900
radio, or radio reading service programs, either directly to the 54901
public, or to broadcasting stations or services for simultaneous 54902
broadcast or rebroadcast.54903

       (D) "Transmission facilities" means structures, equipment, 54904
material, and services used in the transmission of educational 54905
television, radio, or radio reading service programs.54906

       (E) "Interconnection facilities" means the equipment, 54907
material, and services used to link one location to another 54908
location or to several locations by means of telephone line, 54909
coaxial cable, microwave relays, or other available technologies.54910

       (F) "Broadcasting station" means a properly licensed 54911
noncommercial educational television or radio station, 54912
appropriately staffed and equipped to produce programs or lessons 54913
and to broadcast programs.54914

       (G) "Radio reading service" means a nonprofit organization 54915
that disseminates news and other information to blind and 54916
physically handicapped persons.54917

       (H) "Affiliate" means an educational telecommunication 54918
entity, including a television or radio broadcasting station or 54919
radio reading service.54920

       Sec. 3353.02.  (A) There is hereby created the eTech Ohio54921
broadcast educational media commission as an independent agency to 54922
advance education and accelerate the learning of the citizens of 54923
this state through technologypublic educational broadcasting 54924
services. The commission shall provide leadership and support in 54925
extending the knowledge of the citizens of this state by promoting 54926
access to and use of all forms of educational technology54927
broadcasting services, including educational television and radio,54928
and radio reading services, broadband networks, videotapes, 54929
compact discs, digital video on demand (DVD), and the internet. 54930
The commission also shall administer programs to provide financial 54931
and other assistance to school districts and other educational 54932
institutions for the acquisition and utilization of educational 54933
technologytelevision and radio and radio reading services.54934

       The commission is a body corporate and politic, an agency of 54935
the state performing essential governmental functions of the 54936
state.54937

       (B) The commission shall consist of thirteen members, nine of 54938
whom shall be voting members. Six of the voting members shall be 54939
representatives of the public selected from among leading citizens 54940
in the state who have demonstrated interest in educational 54941
broadcast media through service on boards or advisory councils of 54942
educational television stations, educational radio stations, 54943
educational technology agencies, or radio reading services. Of the 54944
representatives of the public, four shall be appointed by the 54945
governor with the advice and consent of the senate, one shall be 54946
appointed by the speaker of the house of representatives, and one 54947
shall be appointed by the president of the senate. The 54948
superintendent of public instruction or a designee of the 54949
superintendent, the chancellor of the Ohio board of regents or a 54950
designee of the chancellor, and the state chief information 54951
officer or a designee of the officer shall be ex officio voting 54952
members. Of the nonvoting members, two shall be members of the 54953
house of representatives appointed by the speaker of the house of 54954
representatives and two shall be members of the senate appointed 54955
by the president of the senate. The members appointed from each 54956
chamber shall not be members of the same political party.54957

       (C) Initial terms of office for members appointed by the 54958
governor shall be one year for one member, two years for one 54959
member, three years for one member, and four years for one member. 54960
At the first meeting of the commission, members appointed by the 54961
governor shall draw lots to determine the length of the term each 54962
member will serve. Thereafter, terms of office for members 54963
appointed by the governor shall be for four years. Terms of office 54964
for voting members appointed by the speaker of the house of 54965
representatives and the president of the senate shall be for four 54966
years. Any member who is a representative of the public may be 54967
reappointed by the member's respective appointing authority, but 54968
no such member may serve more than two consecutive four-year 54969
terms. Such a member may be removed by the member's respective 54970
appointing authority for cause.54971

       Any legislative member appointed by the speaker of the house 54972
of representatives or the president of the senate who ceases to be 54973
a member of the legislative chamber from which the member was 54974
appointed shall cease to be a member of the commission. The 54975
speaker of the house of representatives and the president of the 54976
senate may remove their respective appointments to the commission 54977
at any time.54978

       (D) Vacancies among appointed members shall be filled in the 54979
manner provided for original appointments. Any member appointed to 54980
fill a vacancy occurring prior to the expiration of the term for 54981
which the member's predecessor was appointed shall hold office for 54982
the remainder of that term. Any appointed member shall continue in 54983
office subsequent to the expiration of that member's term until 54984
the member's successor takes office or until a period of sixty 54985
days has elapsed, whichever occurs first.54986

       (E) Members of the commission shall serve without 54987
compensation. The members who are representatives of the public 54988
shall be reimbursed, pursuant to office of budget and management 54989
guidelines, for actual and necessary expenses incurred in the 54990
performance of official duties.54991

       (F) The governor shall appoint the chairperson of the 54992
commission from among the commission's public voting members. The 54993
chairperson shall serve a term of two years and may be 54994
reappointed. The commission shall elect other officers as 54995
necessary from among its voting members and shall prescribe its 54996
rules of procedure.54997

       (G) The commission shall establish advisory groups as needed 54998
to address topics of interest and to provide guidance to the 54999
commission regarding educational technology issues and the 55000
technology needs of educators, learners, and the public. Members 55001
of each advisory group shall be appointed by the commission and 55002
shall include representatives of individuals or organizations with 55003
an interest in the topic addressed by the advisory group.55004

       Sec. 3353.03.  (A) The eTech Ohiobroadcast educational media55005
commission shall appoint an executive director, who shall serve at 55006
the pleasure of the commission. The executive director shall have 55007
no authority other than that provided by law or delegated to the 55008
executive director by the commission. The executive director shall 55009
do all of the following:55010

       (1) Direct commission employees in the administration of all 55011
programs of the commission;55012

       (2) Provide leadership and support in extending the knowledge 55013
of the citizens of this state by promoting equal access to and use 55014
of all forms of educational technologybroadcast media, as 55015
directed by the commission;55016

       (3) Provide financial and other assistance to school 55017
districts, educational television and radio stations, radio 55018
reading services, educational technology organizations, and other 55019
educational institutions for the acquisition and utilization of 55020
educational technologyand related organizations and activities;55021

       (4) Implement policies and directives issued by the 55022
commission;55023

       (5) Perform other duties authorized by the commission.55024

       (B) The commission shall fix the compensation of the 55025
executive director. The executive director shall employ and fix 55026
the compensation for such employees as necessary to facilitate the 55027
activities and purposes of the commission. The employees shall 55028
serve at the pleasure of the executive director.55029

       (C) The employees of the commission shall be placed in the 55030
unclassified service. 55031

       (D)(1) Except as provided in division (D)(2) of this section, 55032
the employees of the commission shall be exempt from Chapter 4117. 55033
of the Revised Code and shall not be public employees as defined 55034
in section 4117.01 of the Revised Code.55035

       (2) All employees of the commission who transferred to the 55036
commission from one of the commission's predecessor agencies upon 55037
the commission's creation and, when employed by the predecessor 55038
agency were included in a bargaining unit established under 55039
Chapter 4117. of the Revised Code, shall continue to be included 55040
in that bargaining unit, are public employees as defined in 55041
section 4117.01 of the Revised Code, and may collectively bargain 55042
with the commission in accordance with that chapter. Otherwise, 55043
any employee hired by the commission after July 1, 2005, either to 55044
fill vacancies or to fill new positions, shall be exempt from 55045
Chapter 4117. of the Revised Code and shall not be public 55046
employees as defined in section 4117.10 of the Revised Code.55047

       Sec. 3353.04. (A) The eTech Ohiobroadcast educational media55048
commission may perform any act necessary to carry out the 55049
functions of this chapter, including any of the following:55050

       (1) Make grants to institutions and other organizations as 55051
prescribed by the general assembly for the provision of technical 55052
assistance, professional development, and other support services 55053
to enable school districts, community schools established under 55054
Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code, other educational institutions, 55055
and affiliates to utilize educational technology;55056

       (2) Establish a reporting system for school districts, 55057
community schools, other educational institutions, affiliates, and 55058
educational technology organizations that receive financial 55059
assistance from the commission. The system may require the 55060
reporting of information regarding the manner in which the 55061
assistance was expended, the manner in which the equipment or 55062
services purchased with the assistance is being utilized, the 55063
results or outcome of the utilization, the manner in which the 55064
utilization is compatible with the statewide academic standards 55065
adopted by the state board of education pursuant to section 55066
3301.079 of the Revised Code, and any other information determined 55067
by the commission.55068

       (3) Ensure that, where appropriate, products produced by any 55069
entity to which the commission provides financial assistance for 55070
use in elementary and secondary education are aligned with the 55071
statewide academic standards adopted by the state board pursuant 55072
to section 3301.079 of the Revised Code;55073

       (4) Promote accessibility tothrough broadcasting services of55074
educational products aligned with the statewide academic 55075
standards, adopted by the state board pursuant to section 3301.079 55076
of the Revised Code, for school districts, community schools, and 55077
other entities serving grades kindergarten through twelve;55078

       (5)(2) Own or operate transmission facilities and 55079
interconnection facilities, or contract for transmission 55080
facilities and interconnection facilities, for an educational 55081
television, radio, or radio reading service network;55082

       (6)(3) Establish standards for interconnection facilities 55083
used by the commission in the transmission of educational 55084
television, radio, or radio reading service programming;55085

        (7)(4) Enter into agreements with noncommercial educational 55086
television or radio broadcasting stations or radio reading 55087
services for the operation of the interconnection; 55088

       (8)(5) Enter into agreements with noncommercial educational 55089
television or radio broadcasting stations or radio reading 55090
services for the production and use of educational television, 55091
radio, or radio reading service programs to be transmitted by the 55092
educational telecommunications network;55093

       (9)(6) Execute contracts and other agreements necessary and 55094
desirable to carry out the purposes of this chapter and other 55095
duties prescribed to the commission by law or authorize the 55096
executive director of the commission to execute such contracts and 55097
agreements on the commission's behalf;55098

       (10)(7) Act as consultant with educational television and 55099
educational radio stations and radio reading services toward 55100
coordination within the state of the distribution of federal funds 55101
that may become available for equipment for educational 55102
broadcasting or radio reading services;55103

       (11)(8) Make payments to noncommercial Ohio educational 55104
television or radio broadcasting stations or radio reading 55105
services to sustain the operation of such stations or services;55106

       (12)(9) In consultation with participants in programs 55107
administered by the commission, establish guidelines governing 55108
purchasing and procurement that facilitate the timely and 55109
effective implementation of such programs;55110

       (13)(10) In consultation with participants in programs 55111
administered by the commission, consider the efficiency and cost 55112
savings of statewide procurement prior to allocating and releasing 55113
funds for such programs;55114

       (14)(11) In consultation with participants in programs 55115
administered by the commission, establish a systems support 55116
network to facilitate the timely implementation of the programs 55117
and other projects and activities for which the commission 55118
provides assistance.55119

       (B) Chapters 123., 124., 125., and 153. of the Revised Code 55120
and sections 9.331 to 9.335 of the Revised Code do not apply to 55121
contracts, programs, projects, or activities of the commission.55122

       Sec. 3353.06.  (A) The affiliates services fund is hereby 55123
created in the state treasury. The eTech Ohiobroadcast 55124
educational media commission shall deposit any money it receives 55125
for services provided to affiliates to the credit of the fund, 55126
including:55127

       (1) Reimbursements for services provided to stations;55128

       (2) Charges levied for maintenance of telecommunications, 55129
broadcasting, or transmission equipment;55130

       (3) Contract or grant payments from affiliates.55131

       (B) The commission shall use money credited to the affiliates 55132
services fund for any commission operating purposes, including:55133

       (1) The purchase, repair, or maintenance of 55134
telecommunications, broadcasting, or transmission equipment;55135

       (2) The purchase or lease of educational programming;55136

       (3) The purchase of tape and digital media storage and 55137
maintenance of a media library;55138

       (4) Professional development programs and services;55139

       (5) Administrative expenses.55140

       Sec. 3353.07.  (A) There is hereby created the Ohio 55141
government telecommunications service. The Ohio government 55142
telecommunications service shall provide the state government and 55143
affiliated organizations with multimedia support including audio, 55144
visual, and internet services, multimedia streaming, and hosting 55145
multimedia programs.55146

       Services relating to the official activities of the general 55147
assembly and the executive offices provided by the Ohio government 55148
telecommunications service shall be funded through grants to a 55149
publican educational television broadcasting station that will 55150
manage the staff and provide the services of the Ohio government 55151
telecommunications service. The Ohio educational television 55152
stations shall select a member station to manage the Ohio 55153
government telecommunications service. The Ohio government 55154
telecommunications service shall receive grants from, or contract 55155
with, any of the three branches of Ohio government, and their 55156
affiliates, to provide additional services. Services provided by 55157
the Ohio government telecommunications service shall not be used 55158
for political purposes included in campaign materials, or 55159
otherwise used to influence an election, legislation, issue, 55160
judicial decision, or other policy of state government.55161

       (B)(1) There is hereby created the legislative programming 55162
committee of the Ohio government telecommunications service that 55163
shall consist of the president of the senate, speaker of the house 55164
of representatives, minority leader of the senate, and minority 55165
leader of the house of representatives, or their designees, and 55166
the clerks of the senate and house of representatives as 55167
nonvoting, ex officio members. By a vote of a majority of its 55168
members, the program committee may add additional members to the 55169
committee.55170

       (2) The legislative programming committee shall adopt rules 55171
that govern the operation of the Ohio government 55172
telecommunications service relating to the general assembly and 55173
any affiliated organizations.55174

       Sec. 3365.01.  As used in this chapter:55175

       (A) "College" means any state-assisted college or university 55176
described in section 3333.041 of the Revised Code, any nonprofit 55177
institution holding a certificate of authorization pursuant to 55178
Chapter 1713. of the Revised Code, any private institution exempt 55179
from regulation under Chapter 3332. of the Revised Code as 55180
prescribed in section 3333.046 of the Revised Code, and any 55181
institution holding a certificate of registration from the state 55182
board of career colleges and schools and program authorization for 55183
an associate or bachelor's degree program issued under section 55184
3332.05 of the Revised Code.55185

       (B) "School district," except as specified in division (G) of 55186
this section, means any school district to which a student is 55187
admitted under section 3313.64, 3313.65, 3313.98, or 3317.08 of 55188
the Revised Code and does not include a joint vocational or 55189
cooperative education school district.55190

       (C) "Parent" has the same meaning as in section 3313.64 of 55191
the Revised Code.55192

       (D) "Participant" means a student enrolled in a college under 55193
the post-secondary enrollment options program established by this 55194
chapter, including a student who has been excused from the 55195
compulsory attendance law for the purpose of home instruction 55196
under section 3321.04 of the Revised Code.55197

       (E) "Secondary grade" means the ninth through twelfth grades.55198

       (F) "School foundation payments" means the amount required to 55199
be paid to a school district for a fiscal year under Chapter 3317. 55200
of the Revised Code.55201

       (G) "Tuition base" means, with respect to a participant's 55202
school district, the sum of the formula amount plus the per pupil 55203
amount of the base funding supplements specified in divisions 55204
(C)(1) to (4) of section 3317.0123317.02 of the Revised Code for 55205
the applicable fiscal year 2009.55206

       The participant's "school district" in the case of a 55207
participant enrolled in a community school shall be the school 55208
district in which the student is entitled to attend school under 55209
section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised Code.55210

       (H) "Educational program" means enrollment in one or more 55211
school districts, in a nonpublic school, or in a college under 55212
division (B) of section 3365.04 of the Revised Code.55213

       (I) "Nonpublic school" means a chartered or nonchartered 55214
school for which minimum standards are prescribed by the state 55215
board of education pursuant to division (D) of section 3301.07 of 55216
the Revised Code.55217

       (J) "School year" means the year beginning on the first day 55218
of July and ending on the thirtieth day of June.55219

       (K) "Community school" means any school established pursuant 55220
to Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code that includes secondary 55221
grades.55222

       (L) "STEM school" means a science, technology, engineering, 55223
and mathematics school established under Chapter 3326. of the 55224
Revised Code.55225

       Sec. 3365.02.  There is hereby established the post-secondary 55226
enrollment options program under which a secondary grade student 55227
who is a resident of this state may enroll at a college, on a 55228
full- or part-time basis, and complete nonsectarian courses for 55229
high school and college credit.55230

       Secondary grade students in a nonpublic school may 55231
participate in the post-secondary enrollment options program if 55232
the chief administrator of such school notifies the department of 55233
education by the first day of April prior to the school year in 55234
which the school's students will participate.55235

       The state board of education, after consulting with the board 55236
of regents, shall adopt rules governing the program. The rules 55237
shall include:55238

       (A) Requirements for school districts, community schools, or 55239
participating nonpublic schools to provide information about the 55240
program prior to the first day of March of each year to all 55241
students enrolled in grades eight through eleven;55242

       (B) A requirement that a student or the student's parent 55243
inform the district board of education, the governing authority of 55244
a community school, the STEM school chief administrative officer, 55245
or the nonpublic school administrator by the thirtieth day of 55246
March of the student's intent to participate in the program during 55247
the following school year. The rule shall provide that any student 55248
who fails to provide the notification by the required date may not 55249
participate in the program during the following school year 55250
without the written consent of the district superintendent, the 55251
governing authority of a community school, the STEM school chief 55252
administrative officer, or the nonpublic school administrator.55253

       (C) Requirements that school districts, community schools, 55254
and STEM schools provide counseling services to students in grades 55255
eight through eleven and to their parents before the students 55256
participate in the program under this chapter to ensure that 55257
students and parents are fully aware of the possible risks and 55258
consequences of participation. Counseling information shall 55259
include without limitation:55260

       (1) Program eligibility;55261

       (2) The process for granting academic credits;55262

       (3) Financial arrangements for tuition, books, materials, and 55263
fees;55264

       (4) Criteria for any transportation aid;55265

       (5) Available support services;55266

       (6) Scheduling;55267

       (7) The consequences of failing or not completing a course in 55268
which the student enrolls and the effect of the grade attained in 55269
the course being included in the student's grade point average, if 55270
applicable;55271

       (8) The effect of program participation on the student's 55272
ability to complete the district's or school's graduation 55273
requirements;55274

       (9) The academic and social responsibilities of students and 55275
parents under the program;55276

       (10) Information about and encouragement to use the 55277
counseling services of the college in which the student intends to 55278
enroll.55279

       (D) A requirement that the student and the student's parent 55280
sign a form, provided by the school district or school, stating 55281
that they have received the counseling required by division (C) of 55282
this section and that they understand the responsibilities they 55283
must assume in the program;55284

       (E) The options required by section 3365.04 of the Revised 55285
Code;55286

       (F) A requirement that a student may not enroll in any 55287
specific college course through the program if the student has 55288
taken high school courses in the same subject area as that college 55289
course and has failed to attain a cumulative grade point average 55290
of at least 3.0 on a 4.0 scale, or the equivalent, in such 55291
completed high school coursesA requirement that student 55292
participation in the program be based solely on a participating 55293
college's established admission standards.55294

       Sec. 3365.022.  (A) Beginning July 1, 2013, a student who has 55295
been excused from the compulsory attendance law for the purpose of 55296
home instruction under section 3321.04 of the Revised Code, and is 55297
the equivalent of a ninth, tenth, eleventh, or twelfth grader may 55298
participate in the post-secondary enrollment options program 55299
established under this chapter. 55300

       (B)(1) If a student meets the criteria established in 55301
division (A) of this section and wishes to participate in the 55302
post-secondary enrollment options program, the parent or guardian 55303
of that student shall notify the department of education by the 55304
first day of April prior to the school year in which the student 55305
wishes to participate. 55306

       (2) For the 2013-2014 school year, the department may accept 55307
applications at a later date if that student wishes to participate 55308
in the program during the 2013-2014 school year.55309

       (C) Pursuant to rules adopted by the state board of education 55310
under section 3365.02 of the Revised Code, payments to a 55311
participating college, in which home-instructed students enrolled 55312
pursuant to this section, shall be made in the same manner as 55313
payments made for participating students from nonpublic secondary 55314
schools, pursuant to section 3365.07 of the Revised Code.55315

       Sec. 3365.07.  (A) The rules adopted under section 3365.02 of 55316
the Revised Code shall specify a method for each of the following:55317

       (1) Determining, with respect to any participant, the 55318
percentage of a full-time educational program constituted by the 55319
participant's total educational program. That percentage shall be 55320
the participant's full-time equivalency percentage for purposes of 55321
the computation required by division (B)(1) of this section.55322

       (2) In the case of a participant who is not enrolled in a 55323
participating nonpublic school, determining the percentage of a 55324
participant's school day during which the participant is 55325
participating in each of the following:55326

       (a) Programs provided by the city, local, or exempted village 55327
school district, a community school, or a STEM school;55328

       (b) Programs provided by a joint vocational school district;55329

       (c) Programs provided by a college under division (B) of 55330
section 3365.04 of the Revised Code.55331

The sum of divisions (A)(2)(a) to (c) of this section shall equal 55332
one hundred per cent.55333

       (3) In the case of a participant who is not enrolled in a 55334
participating nonpublic school, determining the percentage of a 55335
participant's enrollment that shall be deemed to be enrollment in 55336
a joint vocational school district and the percentage that shall 55337
be deemed to be enrollment in a city, local, or exempted village 55338
school district. The sum of such percentages shall equal one 55339
hundred per cent.55340

       (4) In the case of a participant who is enrolled in a 55341
participating nonpublic school, determining the percentage of a 55342
participant's school day during which the participant is 55343
participating in programs provided by a college under division (B) 55344
of section 3365.04 of the Revised Code.55345

       (B) Each July, unless provided otherwise in an alternative 55346
funding agreement entered into under rules adopted under section 55347
3365.12 of the Revised Code, the department of education shall pay 55348
each college for any participant enrolled in the college in the 55349
prior school year under division (B) of section 3365.04 of the 55350
Revised Code an amount computed as follows:55351

       (1) Multiply the tuition base by the participant's full-time 55352
equivalency percentage and multiply the resulting amount by a 55353
percentage equal to the percentage of the participant's school day 55354
apportioned to the college under division (A)(2)(c) or (4) of this 55355
section, as applicable.55356

       (2) Pay the college the lesser of:55357

       (a) The amount computed under division (B)(1) of this 55358
section;55359

       (b) The actual costs that would have been the responsibility 55360
of the participant had the participant elected to enroll under 55361
division (A) of section 3365.04 of the Revised Code, as verified 55362
by the department, of tuition, textbooks, materials, and fees 55363
directly related to any courses elected by the participant during 55364
the prior school year under division (B) of section 3365.04 of the 55365
Revised Code.55366

       (C) The department shall not reimburse anya college for any 55367
of the following:55368

       (1) A college course taken by a participant under division 55369
(A) of section 3365.04 of the Revised Code;55370

       (2) A college course taken by a participant that is not 55371
included in or equivalent to a course included in either a 55372
transfer module or the transfer assurance guide developed by the 55373
chancellor.55374

       (D) If the participant was not enrolled in a participating 55375
nonpublic school, the amount paid under division (B) of this 55376
section for each participant shall be subtracted from the school 55377
foundation payments made to the participant's school district or, 55378
if the participant was enrolled in a community school or a STEM 55379
school, from the payments made to the participant's school under 55380
section 3314.08 or 3326.33 of the Revised Code. If the participant 55381
was enrolled in a joint vocational school district, a portion of 55382
the amount shall be subtracted from the payments to the joint 55383
vocational school district and a portion shall be subtracted from 55384
the payments to the participant's city, local, or exempted village 55385
school district. The amount of the payment subtracted from the 55386
city, local, or exempted village school district shall be computed 55387
as follows:55388

       (1) Add the following:55389

       (a) The percentage of the participant's enrollment in the 55390
school district, determined under division (A)(3) of this section; 55391
and55392

       (b) Twenty-five per cent times the percentage of the 55393
participant's enrollment in the joint vocational school district, 55394
determined under division (A)(3) of this section.55395

       (2) Multiply the sum obtained under division (D)(1) of this 55396
section by the amount computed under division (B)(2) of this 55397
section.55398

The balance of the payment shall be subtracted from the joint 55399
vocational district's school foundation payments.55400

       (E) If the participant was enrolled in a participating 55401
nonpublic school, the amount paid under division (B) of this 55402
section shall be subtracted from moneys set aside by the general 55403
assembly for such purpose from funds appropriated for the purposes 55404
of section 3317.06 of the Revised Code.55405

       Sec. 3365.12. The superintendent of public instruction and 55406
the chancellor of the Ohio board of regents jointly may adopt 55407
rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code 55408
permitting a board of education of a school district or joint 55409
vocational school district, governing authority of a community 55410
school, governing body of a STEM school, or governing authority of 55411
a participating nonpublic school to enter into an agreement with a 55412
college or university to use an alternate funding formula to 55413
calculate, or an alternate method to transmit, the amount the 55414
college or university would be paid for a student participating in 55415
a program under this chapter, including the program known as 55416
seniors to sophomores.55417

       Rules adopted under this section may include, but need not be 55418
limited to, any of the following alternative funding options:55419

       (A) Direct payment of funds necessary to support students 55420
participating in a program under this chapter, including the 55421
seniors to sophomores program, by the school district, joint 55422
vocational school district, community school, STEM school, or any 55423
combination thereof, to the college or university in which the 55424
student enrolled;55425

       (B) Alternate funding formulas to calculate the amount of 55426
money to be paid to colleges for participants;55427

       (C) A negotiated amount to be paid, as agreed by the school 55428
district, joint vocational school district, community school, or 55429
STEM school and the college or university. 55430

       Rules adopted under this section shall prohibit any 55431
alternative funding option to include charging a student 55432
participating in the program under this chapter any tuition or 55433
fees.55434

       Sec. 3501.01.  As used in the sections of the Revised Code 55435
relating to elections and political communications:55436

       (A) "General election" means the election held on the first 55437
Tuesday after the first Monday in each November.55438

       (B) "Regular municipal election" means the election held on 55439
the first Tuesday after the first Monday in November in each 55440
odd-numbered year.55441

       (C) "Regular state election" means the election held on the 55442
first Tuesday after the first Monday in November in each 55443
even-numbered year.55444

       (D) "Special election" means any election other than those 55445
elections defined in other divisions of this section. A special 55446
election may be held only on the first Tuesday after the first 55447
Monday in February, May, August, or November, or on the day 55448
authorized by a particular municipal or county charter for the 55449
holding of a primary election, except that in any year in which a 55450
presidential primary election is held, no special election shall 55451
be held in February or May, except as authorized by a municipal or 55452
county charter, but may be held on the first Tuesday after the 55453
first Monday in March.55454

       (E)(1) "Primary" or "primary election" means an election held 55455
for the purpose of nominating persons as candidates of political 55456
parties for election to offices, and for the purpose of electing 55457
persons as members of the controlling committees of political 55458
parties and as delegates and alternates to the conventions of 55459
political parties. Primary elections shall be held on the first 55460
Tuesday after the first Monday in May of each year except in years 55461
in which a presidential primary election is held.55462

       (2) "Presidential primary election" means a primary election 55463
as defined by division (E)(1) of this section at which an election 55464
is held for the purpose of choosing delegates and alternates to 55465
the national conventions of the major political parties pursuant 55466
to section 3513.12 of the Revised Code. Unless otherwise 55467
specified, presidential primary elections are included in 55468
references to primary elections. In years in which a presidential 55469
primary election is held, all primary elections shall be held on 55470
the first Tuesday after the first Monday in March except as 55471
otherwise authorized by a municipal or county charter.55472

       (F) "Political party" means any group of voters meeting the 55473
requirements set forth in section 3517.01 of the Revised Code for 55474
the formation and existence of a political party.55475

       (1) "Major political party" means any political party 55476
organized under the laws of this state whose candidate for 55477
governor or nominees for presidential electors received no less 55478
than twenty per cent of the total vote cast for such office at the 55479
most recent regular state election.55480

       (2) "Intermediate political party" means any political party 55481
organized under the laws of this state whose candidate for 55482
governor or nominees for presidential electors received less than 55483
twenty per cent but not less than ten per cent of the total vote 55484
cast for such office at the most recent regular state election.55485

       (3) "Minor political party" means any political party 55486
organized under the laws of this state whose candidate for 55487
governor or nominees for presidential electors received less than 55488
ten per cent but not less than five per cent of the total vote 55489
cast for such office at the most recent regular state election or 55490
which has filed with the secretary of state, subsequent to any 55491
election in which it received less than five per cent of such 55492
vote, a petition signed by qualified electors equal in number to 55493
at least one per cent of the total vote cast for such office in 55494
the last preceding regular state election, except that a newly 55495
formed political party shall be known as a minor political party 55496
until the time of the first election for governor or president 55497
which occurs not less than twelve months subsequent to the 55498
formation of such party, after which election the status of such 55499
party shall be determined by the vote for the office of governor 55500
or president.55501

       (G) "Dominant party in a precinct" or "dominant political 55502
party in a precinct" means that political party whose candidate 55503
for election to the office of governor at the most recent regular 55504
state election at which a governor was elected received more votes 55505
than any other person received for election to that office in such 55506
precinct at such election.55507

       (H) "Candidate" means any qualified person certified in 55508
accordance with the provisions of the Revised Code for placement 55509
on the official ballot of a primary, general, or special election 55510
to be held in this state, or any qualified person who claims to be 55511
a write-in candidate, or who knowingly assents to being 55512
represented as a write-in candidate by another at either a 55513
primary, general, or special election to be held in this state.55514

       (I) "Independent candidate" means any candidate who claims 55515
not to be affiliated with a political party, and whose name has 55516
been certified on the office-type ballot at a general or special 55517
election through the filing of a statement of candidacy and 55518
nominating petition, as prescribed in section 3513.257 of the 55519
Revised Code.55520

       (J) "Nonpartisan candidate" means any candidate whose name is 55521
required, pursuant to section 3505.04 of the Revised Code, to be 55522
listed on the nonpartisan ballot, including all candidates for 55523
judicial office, for member of any board of education, for 55524
municipal or township offices in which primary elections are not 55525
held for nominating candidates by political parties, and for 55526
offices of municipal corporations having charters that provide for 55527
separate ballots for elections for these offices.55528

       (K) "Party candidate" means any candidate who claims to be a 55529
member of a political party, whose name has been certified on the 55530
office-type ballot at a general or special election through the 55531
filing of a declaration of candidacy and petition of candidate, 55532
and who has won the primary election of the candidate's party for 55533
the public office the candidate seeks or is selected by party 55534
committee in accordance with section 3513.31 of the Revised Code.55535

       (L) "Officer of a political party" includes, but is not 55536
limited to, any member, elected or appointed, of a controlling 55537
committee, whether representing the territory of the state, a 55538
district therein, a county, township, a city, a ward, a precinct, 55539
or other territory, of a major, intermediate, or minor political 55540
party.55541

       (M) "Question or issue" means any question or issue certified 55542
in accordance with the Revised Code for placement on an official 55543
ballot at a general or special election to be held in this state.55544

       (N) "Elector" or "qualified elector" means a person having 55545
the qualifications provided by law to be entitled to vote.55546

       (O) "Voter" means an elector who votes at an election.55547

       (P) "Voting residence" means that place of residence of an 55548
elector which shall determine the precinct in which the elector 55549
may vote.55550

       (Q) "Precinct" means a district within a county established 55551
by the board of elections of such county within which all 55552
qualified electors having a voting residence therein may vote at 55553
the same polling place.55554

       (R) "Polling place" means that place provided for each 55555
precinct at which the electors having a voting residence in such 55556
precinct may vote.55557

       (S) "Board" or "board of elections" means the board of 55558
elections appointed in a county pursuant to section 3501.06 of the 55559
Revised Code.55560

       (T) "Political subdivision" means a county, township, city, 55561
village, or school district.55562

       (U) "Election officer" or "election official" means any of 55563
the following:55564

       (1) Secretary of state;55565

       (2) Employees of the secretary of state serving the division 55566
of elections in the capacity of attorney, administrative officer, 55567
administrative assistant, elections administrator, office manager, 55568
or clerical supervisor;55569

       (3) Director of a board of elections;55570

       (4) Deputy director of a board of elections;55571

       (5) Member of a board of elections;55572

       (6) Employees of a board of elections;55573

       (7) Precinct polling place judges;55574

       (8) Employees appointed by the boards of elections on a 55575
temporary or part-time basis.55576

       (V) "Acknowledgment notice" means a notice sent by a board of 55577
elections, on a form prescribed by the secretary of state, 55578
informing a voter registration applicant or an applicant who 55579
wishes to change the applicant's residence or name of the status 55580
of the application; the information necessary to complete or 55581
update the application, if any; and if the application is 55582
complete, the precinct in which the applicant is to vote.55583

       (W) "Confirmation notice" means a notice sent by a board of 55584
elections, on a form prescribed by the secretary of state, to a 55585
registered elector to confirm the registered elector's current 55586
address.55587

       (X) "Designated agency" means an office or agency in the 55588
state that provides public assistance or that provides 55589
state-funded programs primarily engaged in providing services to 55590
persons with disabilities and that is required by the National 55591
Voter Registration Act of 1993 to implement a program designed and 55592
administered by the secretary of state for registering voters, or 55593
any other public or government office or agency that implements a 55594
program designed and administered by the secretary of state for 55595
registering voters, including the department of job and family 55596
services, the program administered under section 3701.132 of the 55597
Revised Code by the department of health, the department of mental 55598
healthmental health and addiction services, the department of 55599
developmental disabilities, the rehabilitation services 55600
commission, and any other agency the secretary of state 55601
designates. "Designated agency" does not include public high 55602
schools and vocational schools, public libraries, or the office of 55603
a county treasurer.55604

       (Y) "National Voter Registration Act of 1993" means the 55605
"National Voter Registration Act of 1993," 107 Stat. 77, 42 55606
U.S.C.A. 1973gg.55607

       (Z) "Voting Rights Act of 1965" means the "Voting Rights Act 55608
of 1965," 79 Stat. 437, 42 U.S.C.A. 1973, as amended.55609

       (AA) "Photo identification" means a document that meets each 55610
of the following requirements:55611

        (1) It shows the name of the individual to whom it was 55612
issued, which shall conform to the name in the poll list or 55613
signature pollbook.55614

        (2) It shows the current address of the individual to whom it 55615
was issued, which shall conform to the address in the poll list or 55616
signature pollbook, except for a driver's license or a state 55617
identification card issued under section 4507.50 of the Revised 55618
Code, which may show either the current or former address of the 55619
individual to whom it was issued, regardless of whether that 55620
address conforms to the address in the poll list or signature 55621
pollbook.55622

        (3) It shows a photograph of the individual to whom it was 55623
issued.55624

        (4) It includes an expiration date that has not passed.55625

        (5) It was issued by the government of the United States or 55626
this state.55627

       Sec. 3599.45.  (A) As used in this section:55628

       "Candidate," "campaign committee," and "contribution" have 55629
the same meanings as in section 3517.01 of the Revised Code.55630

       "Medicaid provider" has the same meaning as in section 55631
5164.01 of the Revised Code.55632

       (B) No candidate for the office of attorney general or county 55633
prosecutor or such a candidate's campaign committee shall 55634
knowingly accept any contribution from a medicaid provider of 55635
services or goods under contract with the department of job and 55636
family services pursuant to the medicaid program of Title XIX of 55637
the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C. 301, as 55638
amended, or from any person having an ownership interest in the 55639
medicaid provider.55640

       As used in this section "candidate," "campaign committee," 55641
and "contribution" have the same meaning as in section 3517.01 of 55642
the Revised Code.55643

       (B)(C) Whoever violates this section is guilty of a 55644
misdemeanor of the first degree.55645

       Sec. 3701.023.  (A) The department of health shall review 55646
applications for eligibility for the program for medically 55647
handicapped children that are submitted to the department by city 55648
and general health districts and physician providers approved in 55649
accordance with division (C) of this section. The department shall 55650
determine whether the applicants meet the medical and financial 55651
eligibility requirements established by the director of health 55652
pursuant to division (A)(1) of section 3701.021 of the Revised 55653
Code, and by the department in the manual of operational 55654
procedures and guidelines for the program for medically 55655
handicapped children developed pursuant to division (B) of that 55656
section. Referrals of potentially eligible children for the 55657
program may be submitted to the department on behalf of the child 55658
by parents, guardians, public health nurses, or any other 55659
interested person. The department of health may designate other 55660
agencies to refer applicants to the department of health.55661

       (B) In accordance with the procedures established in rules 55662
adopted under division (A)(4) of section 3701.021 of the Revised 55663
Code, the department of health shall authorize a provider or 55664
providers to provide to any Ohio resident under twenty-one years 55665
of age, without charge to the resident or the resident's family 55666
and without restriction as to the economic status of the resident 55667
or the resident's family, diagnostic services necessary to 55668
determine whether the resident has a medically handicapping or 55669
potentially medically handicapping condition.55670

       (C) The department of health shall review the applications of 55671
health professionals, hospitals, medical equipment suppliers, and 55672
other individuals, groups, or agencies that apply to become 55673
providers. The department shall enter into a written agreement 55674
with each applicant who is determined, pursuant to the 55675
requirements set forth in rules adopted under division (A)(2) of 55676
section 3701.021 of the Revised Code, to be eligible to be a 55677
provider in accordance with the provider agreement required by the 55678
medical assistancemedicaid program established under section 55679
5111.01 of the Revised Code. No provider shall charge a medically 55680
handicapped child or the child's parent or guardian for services 55681
authorized by the department under division (B) or (D) of this 55682
section.55683

       The department, in accordance with rules adopted under 55684
division (A)(3) of section 3701.021 of the Revised Code, may 55685
disqualify any provider from further participation in the program 55686
for violating any requirement set forth in rules adopted under 55687
division (A)(2) of that section. The disqualification shall not 55688
take effect until a written notice, specifying the requirement 55689
violated and describing the nature of the violation, has been 55690
delivered to the provider and the department has afforded the 55691
provider an opportunity to appeal the disqualification under 55692
division (H) of this section.55693

       (D) The department of health shall evaluate applications from 55694
city and general health districts and approved physician providers 55695
for authorization to provide treatment services, service 55696
coordination, and related goods to children determined to be 55697
eligible for the program for medically handicapped children 55698
pursuant to division (A) of this section. The department shall 55699
authorize necessary treatment services, service coordination, and 55700
related goods for each eligible child in accordance with an 55701
individual plan of treatment for the child. As an alternative, the 55702
department may authorize payment of health insurance premiums on 55703
behalf of eligible children when the department determines, in 55704
accordance with criteria set forth in rules adopted under division 55705
(A)(9) of section 3701.021 of the Revised Code, that payment of 55706
the premiums is cost-effective.55707

       (E) The department of health shall pay, from appropriations 55708
to the department, any necessary expenses, including but not 55709
limited to, expenses for diagnosis, treatment, service 55710
coordination, supportive services, transportation, and accessories 55711
and their upkeep, provided to medically handicapped children, 55712
provided that the provision of the goods or services is authorized 55713
by the department under division (B) or (D) of this section. Money 55714
appropriated to the department of health may also be expended for 55715
reasonable administrative costs incurred by the program. The 55716
department of health also may purchase liability insurance 55717
covering the provision of services under the program for medically 55718
handicapped children by physicians and other health care 55719
professionals.55720

       Payments made to providers by the department of health 55721
pursuant to this division for inpatient hospital care, outpatient 55722
care, and all other medical assistance furnished to eligible 55723
recipients shall be made in accordance with rules adopted by the 55724
director of health pursuant to division (A) of section 3701.021 of 55725
the Revised Code.55726

       The departments of health and job and family services55727
medicaid shall jointly implement procedures to ensure that 55728
duplicate payments are not made under the program for medically 55729
handicapped children and the medical assistancemedicaid program 55730
established under section 5111.01 of the Revised Code and to 55731
identify and recover duplicate payments.55732

       (F) At the time of applying for participation in the program 55733
for medically handicapped children, a medically handicapped child 55734
or the child's parent or guardian shall disclose the identity of 55735
any third party against whom the child or the child's parent or 55736
guardian has or may have a right of recovery for goods and 55737
services provided under division (B) or (D) of this section. The 55738
department of health shall require a medically handicapped child 55739
who receives services from the program or the child's parent or 55740
guardian to apply for all third-party benefits for which the child 55741
may be eligible and require the child, parent, or guardian to 55742
apply all third-party benefits received to the amount determined 55743
under division (E) of this section as the amount payable for goods 55744
and services authorized under division (B) or (D) of this section. 55745
The department is the payer of last resort and shall pay for 55746
authorized goods or services, up to the amount determined under 55747
division (E) of this section for the authorized goods or services, 55748
only to the extent that payment for the authorized goods or 55749
services is not made through third-party benefits. When a third 55750
party fails to act on an application or claim for benefits by a 55751
medically handicapped child or the child's parent or guardian, the 55752
department shall pay for the goods or services only after ninety 55753
days have elapsed since the date the child, parents, or guardians 55754
made an application or claim for all third-party benefits. 55755
Third-party benefits received shall be applied to the amount 55756
determined under division (E) of this section. Third-party 55757
payments for goods and services not authorized under division (B) 55758
or (D) of this section shall not be applied to payment amounts 55759
determined under division (E) of this section. Payment made by the 55760
department shall be considered payment in full of the amount 55761
determined under division (E) of this section. Medicaid payments 55762
for persons eligible for the medical assistancemedicaid program 55763
established under section 5111.01 of the Revised Code shall be 55764
considered payment in full of the amount determined under division 55765
(E) of this section.55766

       (G) The department of health shall administer a program to 55767
provide services to Ohio residents who are twenty-one or more 55768
years of age who have cystic fibrosis and who meet the eligibility 55769
requirements established in rules adopted by the director of 55770
health pursuant to division (A)(7) of section 3701.021 of the 55771
Revised Code, subject to all provisions of this section, but not 55772
subject to section 3701.024 of the Revised Code.55773

       (H) The department of health shall provide for appeals, in 55774
accordance with rules adopted under section 3701.021 of the 55775
Revised Code, of denials of applications for the program for 55776
medically handicapped children under division (A) or (D) of this 55777
section, disqualification of providers, or amounts paid under 55778
division (E) of this section. Appeals under this division are not 55779
subject to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.55780

       The department may designate ombudspersons to assist 55781
medically handicapped children or their parents or guardians, upon 55782
the request of the children, parents, or guardians, in filing 55783
appeals under this division and to serve as children's, parents', 55784
or guardians' advocates in matters pertaining to the 55785
administration of the program for medically handicapped children 55786
and eligibility for program services. The ombudspersons shall 55787
receive no compensation but shall be reimbursed by the department, 55788
in accordance with rules of the office of budget and management, 55789
for their actual and necessary travel expenses incurred in the 55790
performance of their duties.55791

       (I) The department of health, and city and general health 55792
districts providing service coordination pursuant to division 55793
(A)(2) of section 3701.024 of the Revised Code, shall provide 55794
service coordination in accordance with the standards set forth in 55795
the rules adopted under section 3701.021 of the Revised Code, 55796
without charge, and without restriction as to economic status.55797

       (J)(1) The department of health may establish a manufacturer 55798
discount program under which a manufacturer of a drug or 55799
nutritional formula is permitted to enter into an agreement with 55800
the department to provide a discount on the price of the drug or 55801
nutritional formula distributed to medically handicapped children 55802
participating in the program for medically handicapped children. 55803
The program shall be administered in accordance with rules adopted 55804
under section 3701.021 of the Revised Code.55805

       (2) If a manufacturer enters into an agreement with the 55806
department as described in division (J)(1) of this section, the 55807
manufacturer and the department may negotiate the amount and terms 55808
of the discount.55809

       (3) In lieu of establishing a discount program as described 55810
in division (J)(1) of this section, the department and a 55811
manufacturer of a drug or nutritional formula may discuss a 55812
donation of drugs, nutritional formulas, or money by the 55813
manufacturer to the department.55814

       Sec. 3701.024.  (A)(1) Under a procedure established in rules 55815
adopted under section 3701.021 of the Revised Code, the department 55816
of health shall determine the amount each county shall provide 55817
annually for the program for medically handicapped children, based 55818
on a proportion of the county's total general property tax 55819
duplicate, not to exceed one-tenth of a mill, and charge the 55820
county for any part of expenses incurred under the program for 55821
treatment services on behalf of medically handicapped children 55822
having legal settlement in the county that is not paid from 55823
federal funds or through the medical assistancemedicaid program 55824
established under section 5111.01 of the Revised Code. The 55825
department shall not charge the county for expenses exceeding the 55826
difference between the amount determined under division (A)(1) of 55827
this section and any amounts retained under divisions (A)(2) and 55828
(3) of this section.55829

       All amounts collected by the department under division (A)(1) 55830
of this section shall be deposited into the state treasury to the 55831
credit of the medically handicapped children-county assessment 55832
fund, which is hereby created. The fund shall be used by the 55833
department to comply with sections 3701.021 to 3701.028 of the 55834
Revised Code.55835

       (2) The department, in accordance with rules adopted under 55836
section 3701.021 of the Revised Code, may allow each county to 55837
retain up to ten per cent of the amount determined under division 55838
(A)(1) of this section to provide funds to city or general health 55839
districts of the county with which the districts shall provide 55840
service coordination, public health nursing, or transportation 55841
services for medically handicapped children.55842

       (3) In addition to any amount retained under division (A)(2) 55843
of this section, the department, in accordance with rules adopted 55844
under section 3701.021 of the Revised Code, may allow counties 55845
that it determines have significant numbers of potentially 55846
eligible medically handicapped children to retain an amount equal 55847
to the difference between:55848

       (a) Twenty-five per cent of the amount determined under 55849
division (A)(1) of this section;55850

       (b) Any amount retained under division (A)(2) of this 55851
section.55852

       Counties shall use amounts retained under division (A)(3) of 55853
this section to provide funds to city or general health districts 55854
of the county with which the districts shall conduct outreach 55855
activities to increase participation in the program for medically 55856
handicapped children.55857

       (4) Prior to any increase in the millage charged to a county, 55858
the director of health shall hold a public hearing on the proposed 55859
increase and shall give notice of the hearing to each board of 55860
county commissioners that would be affected by the increase at 55861
least thirty days prior to the date set for the hearing. Any 55862
county commissioner may appear and give testimony at the hearing. 55863
Any increase in the millage any county is required to provide for 55864
the program for medically handicapped children shall be 55865
determined, and notice of the amount of the increase shall be 55866
provided to each affected board of county commissioners, no later 55867
than the first day of June of the fiscal year next preceding the 55868
fiscal year in which the increase will take effect.55869

       (B) Each board of county commissioners shall establish a 55870
medically handicapped children's fund and shall appropriate 55871
thereto an amount, determined in accordance with division (A)(1) 55872
of this section, for the county's share in providing medical, 55873
surgical, and other aid to medically handicapped children residing 55874
in such county and for the purposes specified in divisions (A)(2) 55875
and (3) of this section. Each county shall use money retained 55876
under divisions (A)(2) and (3) of this section only for the 55877
purposes specified in those divisions.55878

       Sec. 3701.027.  The department of health shall administer 55879
funds received from the "Maternal and Child Health Block Grant," 55880
Title V of the "Social Security Act," 95 Stat. 818 (1981), 42 55881
U.S.C.A. 701, as amended, for programs including the program for 55882
medically handicapped children, and to provide technical 55883
assistance and consultation to city and general health districts 55884
and local health planning organizations in implementing local, 55885
community-based, family-centered, coordinated systems of care for 55886
medically handicapped children. The department may make grants to 55887
persons and other entities for the provision of services with the 55888
funds. In addition, the department may use the funds to purchase 55889
liability insurance covering the provision of services under the 55890
programs by physicians and other health care professionals, and to 55891
pay health insurance premiums on behalf of medically handicapped 55892
children participating in the program for medically handicapped 55893
children when the department determines, in accordance with 55894
criteria set forth in rules adopted under division (A)(9) of 55895
section 3701.021 of the Revised Code, that payment of the premiums 55896
is cost effective.55897

       In determining eligibility for services provided with funds 55898
received from the "Maternal and Child Health Block Grant," the 55899
department may use the application form established under section55900
5111.0135163.40 of the Revised Code. The department may require 55901
applicants to furnish their social security numbers. Funds from 55902
the "Maternal and Child Health Block Grant" that are administered 55903
for the purpose of providing family planning services shall be 55904
distributed in accordance with section 3701.033 of the Revised 55905
Code.55906

       Sec. 3701.033.  (A) This section establishes the order of 55907
priority to be followed by the department of health when 55908
distributing funds for the purpose of providing family planning 55909
services, including funds the department receives through the 55910
"Maternal and Child Health Block Grant," Title V of the "Social 55911
Security Act," 95 Stat. 818 (1981), 42 U.S.C. 701, as amended, and 55912
funds the department receives through Title X of the "Public 55913
Health Service Act," 84 Stat. 1504 (1970), 42 U.S.C. 300a, as 55914
amended. This section does not apply to grants awarded by the 55915
department under section 3701.046 of the Revised Code.55916

       (B) With respect to each period during which funds from a 55917
particular source are distributed for the purpose of providing 55918
family planning services, the department is subject to both of the 55919
following when distributing the funds to applicants seeking those 55920
funds:55921

        (1) Foremost priority shall be given to public entities that 55922
are operated by state or local government entities and that 55923
provide or are able to provide family planning services.55924

       (2) If any funds remain after the department distributes 55925
funds to public entities under division (B)(1) of this section, 55926
the department may distribute funds to nonpublic entities. If 55927
funds are distributed to nonpublic entities, the department shall 55928
distribute the funds in the following order of descending 55929
priority:55930

       (a) Nonpublic entities that are federally qualified health 55931
centers or federally qualified health center look-alikes, both as 55932
defined in section 3701.047 of the Revised Code, or community 55933
action agencies, as defined in section 122.66 of the Revised Code;55934

       (b) Nonpublic entities that provide comprehensive primary and 55935
preventive care services in addition to family planning services;55936

       (c) Nonpublic entities that provide family planning services, 55937
but do not provide comprehensive primary and preventive care 55938
services.55939

       Sec. 3701.13.  The department of health shall have 55940
supervision of all matters relating to the preservation of the 55941
life and health of the people and have ultimate authority in 55942
matters of quarantine and isolation, which it may declare and 55943
enforce, when neither exists, and modify, relax, or abolish, when 55944
either has been established. The department may approve methods of 55945
immunization against the diseases specified in section 3313.671 of 55946
the Revised Code for the purpose of carrying out the provisions of 55947
that section and take such actions as are necessary to encourage 55948
vaccination against those diseases.55949

       The department may make special or standing orders or rules 55950
for preventing the use of fluoroscopes for nonmedical purposes55951
whichthat emit doses of radiation likely to be harmful to any 55952
person, for preventing the spread of contagious or infectious 55953
diseases, for governing the receipt and conveyance of remains of 55954
deceased persons, and for such other sanitary matters as are best 55955
controlled by a general rule. Whenever possible, the department 55956
shall work in cooperation with the health commissioner of a 55957
general or city health district. ItThe department may make and 55958
enforce orders in local matters or reassign substantive authority 55959
for mandatory programs from a general or city health district to 55960
another general or city health district when an emergency exists, 55961
or when the board of health of a general or city health district 55962
has neglected or refused to act with sufficient promptness or 55963
efficiency, or when such board has not been established as 55964
provided by sections 3709.02, 3709.03, 3709.05, 3709.06, 3709.11, 55965
3709.12, and 3709.14 of the Revised Code. In such cases, the 55966
necessary expense incurred shall be paid by the general health 55967
district or city for which the services are rendered.55968

       The department of health may require general or city health 55969
districts to enter into agreements for shared services under 55970
section 9.482 of the Revised Code.55971

       As a condition precedent to receiving funding from the 55972
department of health, the director of health may require general 55973
or city health districts to be accredited not later than July 1, 55974
2018, by an accreditation body approved by the director.55975

       The department may make evaluative studies of the nutritional 55976
status of Ohio residents, and of the food and nutrition-related 55977
programs operating within the state. Every agency of the state, at 55978
the request of the department, shall provide information and 55979
otherwise assist in the execution of such studies.55980

       Sec. 3701.132.  The department of health is hereby designated 55981
as the state agency to administer the "special supplemental 55982
nutrition program for women, infants, and children" established 55983
under the "Child Nutrition Act of 1966," 80 Stat. 885, 42 U.S.C. 55984
1786, as amended. The director of health may adopt rules pursuant 55985
to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code as necessary for administering 55986
the program. The rules may include civil money penalties for 55987
violations of the rules.55988

       In determining eligibility for services provided under the 55989
program, the department may use the application form established 55990
under section 5111.0135163.40 of the Revised Code for the healthy 55991
start program. The department may require applicants to furnish 55992
their social security numbers.55993

       If the department determines that a vendor has committed an 55994
act with respect to the program that federal statutes or 55995
regulations or state statutes or rules prohibit, the department 55996
shall take action against the vendor in the manner required by 7 55997
C.F.R. part 246, including imposition of a civil money penalty in 55998
accordance with 7 C.F.R. 246.12, or rules adopted under this 55999
section.56000

       Sec. 3701.243.  (A) Except as provided in this section or 56001
section 3701.248 of the Revised Code, no person or agency of state 56002
or local government that acquires the information while providing 56003
any health care service or while in the employ of a health care 56004
facility or health care provider shall disclose or compel another 56005
to disclose any of the following:56006

       (1) The identity of any individual on whom an HIV test is 56007
performed;56008

       (2) The results of an HIV test in a form that identifies the 56009
individual tested;56010

       (3) The identity of any individual diagnosed as having AIDS 56011
or an AIDS-related condition.56012

       (B)(1) Except as provided in divisions (B)(2), (C), (D), and 56013
(F) of this section, the results of an HIV test or the identity of 56014
an individual on whom an HIV test is performed or who is diagnosed 56015
as having AIDS or an AIDS-related condition may be disclosed only 56016
to the following:56017

       (a) The individual who was tested or the individual's legal 56018
guardian, and the individual's spouse or any sexual partner;56019

       (b) A person to whom disclosure is authorized by a written 56020
release, executed by the individual tested or by the individual's 56021
legal guardian and specifying to whom disclosure of the test 56022
results or diagnosis is authorized and the time period during 56023
which the release is to be effective;56024

       (c) The individual's physician;56025

       (d) The department of health or a health commissioner to 56026
which reports are made under section 3701.24 of the Revised Code;56027

       (e) A health care facility or provider that procures, 56028
processes, distributes, or uses a human body part from a deceased 56029
individual, donated for a purpose specified in Chapter 2108. of 56030
the Revised Code, and that needs medical information about the 56031
deceased individual to ensure that the body part is medically 56032
acceptable for its intended purpose;56033

       (f) Health care facility staff committees or accreditation or 56034
oversight review organizations conducting program monitoring, 56035
program evaluation, or service reviews;56036

       (g) A health care provider, emergency medical services 56037
worker, or peace officer who sustained a significant exposure to 56038
the body fluids of another individual, if that individual was 56039
tested pursuant to division (E)(6) of section 3701.242 of the 56040
Revised Code, except that the identity of the individual tested 56041
shall not be revealed;56042

       (h) To law enforcement authorities pursuant to a search 56043
warrant or a subpoena issued by or at the request of a grand jury, 56044
a prosecuting attorney, a city director of law or similar chief 56045
legal officer of a municipal corporation, or a village solicitor, 56046
in connection with a criminal investigation or prosecution.56047

       (2) The results of an HIV test or a diagnosis of AIDS or an 56048
AIDS-related condition may be disclosed to a health care provider, 56049
or an authorized agent or employee of a health care facility or a 56050
health care provider, if the provider, agent, or employee has a 56051
medical need to know the information and is participating in the 56052
diagnosis, care, or treatment of the individual on whom the test 56053
was performed or who has been diagnosed as having AIDS or an 56054
AIDS-related condition.56055

       This division does not impose a standard of disclosure 56056
different from the standard for disclosure of all other specific 56057
information about a patient to health care providers and 56058
facilities. Disclosure may not be requested or made solely for the 56059
purpose of identifying an individual who has a positive HIV test 56060
result or has been diagnosed as having AIDS or an AIDS-related 56061
condition in order to refuse to treat the individual. Referral of 56062
an individual to another health care provider or facility based on 56063
reasonable professional judgment does not constitute refusal to 56064
treat the individual.56065

       (3) Not later than ninety days after November 1, 1989, each 56066
health care facility in this state shall establish a protocol to 56067
be followed by employees and individuals affiliated with the 56068
facility in making disclosures authorized by division (B)(2) of 56069
this section. A person employed by or affiliated with a health 56070
care facility who determines in accordance with the protocol 56071
established by the facility that a disclosure is authorized by 56072
division (B)(2) of this section is immune from liability to any 56073
person in a civil action for damages for injury, death, or loss to 56074
person or property resulting from the disclosure.56075

       (C)(1) Any person or government agency may seek access to or 56076
authority to disclose the HIV test records of an individual in 56077
accordance with the following provisions:56078

       (a) The person or government agency shall bring an action in 56079
a court of common pleas requesting disclosure of or authority to 56080
disclose the results of an HIV test of a specific individual, who 56081
shall be identified in the complaint by a pseudonym but whose name 56082
shall be communicated to the court confidentially, pursuant to a 56083
court order restricting the use of the name. The court shall 56084
provide the individual with notice and an opportunity to 56085
participate in the proceedings if the individual is not named as a 56086
party. Proceedings shall be conducted in chambers unless the 56087
individual agrees to a hearing in open court.56088

       (b) The court may issue an order granting the plaintiff 56089
access to or authority to disclose the test results only if the 56090
court finds by clear and convincing evidence that the plaintiff 56091
has demonstrated a compelling need for disclosure of the 56092
information that cannot be accommodated by other means. In 56093
assessing compelling need, the court shall weigh the need for 56094
disclosure against the privacy right of the individual tested and 56095
against any disservice to the public interest that might result 56096
from the disclosure, such as discrimination against the individual 56097
or the deterrence of others from being tested.56098

       (c) If the court issues an order, it shall guard against 56099
unauthorized disclosure by specifying the persons who may have 56100
access to the information, the purposes for which the information 56101
shall be used, and prohibitions against future disclosure.56102

       (2) A person or government agency that considers it necessary 56103
to disclose the results of an HIV test of a specific individual in 56104
an action in which it is a party may seek authority for the 56105
disclosure by filing an in camera motion with the court in which 56106
the action is being heard. In hearing the motion, the court shall 56107
employ procedures for confidentiality similar to those specified 56108
in division (C)(1) of this section. The court shall grant the 56109
motion only if it finds by clear and convincing evidence that a 56110
compelling need for the disclosure has been demonstrated.56111

       (3) Except for an order issued in a criminal prosecution or 56112
an order under division (C)(1) or (2) of this section granting 56113
disclosure of the result of an HIV test of a specific individual, 56114
a court shall not compel a blood bank, hospital blood center, or 56115
blood collection facility to disclose the result of HIV tests 56116
performed on the blood of voluntary donors in a way that reveals 56117
the identity of any donor.56118

       (4) In a civil action in which the plaintiff seeks to recover 56119
damages from an individual defendant based on an allegation that 56120
the plaintiff contracted the HIV virus as a result of actions of 56121
the defendant, the prohibitions against disclosure in this section 56122
do not bar discovery of the results of any HIV test given to the 56123
defendant or any diagnosis that the defendant suffers from AIDS or 56124
an AIDS-related condition.56125

       (D) The results of an HIV test or the identity of an 56126
individual on whom an HIV test is performed or who is diagnosed as 56127
having AIDS or an AIDS-related condition may be disclosed to a 56128
federal, state, or local government agency, or the official 56129
representative of such an agency, for purposes of the medical 56130
assistancemedicaid program established under section 5111.01 of 56131
the Revised Code, the medicare program established under Title 56132
XVIII of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935) 42 56133
U.S.C.A. 301, as amended, or any other public assistance program.56134

       (E) Any disclosure pursuant to this section shall be in 56135
writing and accompanied by a written statement that includes the 56136
following or substantially similar language: "This information has 56137
been disclosed to you from confidential records protected from 56138
disclosure by state law. You shall make no further disclosure of 56139
this information without the specific, written, and informed 56140
release of the individual to whom it pertains, or as otherwise 56141
permitted by state law. A general authorization for the release of 56142
medical or other information is not sufficient for the purpose of 56143
the release of HIV test results or diagnoses."56144

       (F) An individual who knows that the individual has received 56145
a positive result on an HIV test or has been diagnosed as having 56146
AIDS or an AIDS-related condition shall disclose this information 56147
to any other person with whom the individual intends to make 56148
common use of a hypodermic needle or engage in sexual conduct as 56149
defined in section 2907.01 of the Revised Code. An individual's 56150
compliance with this division does not prohibit a prosecution of 56151
the individual for a violation of division (B) of section 2903.11 56152
of the Revised Code.56153

       (G) Nothing in this section prohibits the introduction of 56154
evidence concerning an HIV test of a specific individual in a 56155
criminal proceeding.56156

       Sec. 3701.261.  (A) As used in this section, "state 56157
university" has the same meaning as in section 3345.011 of the 56158
Revised Code.56159

       (B) The director of health shall:56160

       (1) Establish a population-based cancer registry, which shall 56161
be known as the Ohio cancer incidence surveillance system, to 56162
monitor the incidence of various types of malignant diseases in 56163
Ohio, make appropriate epidemiologic studies to determine any 56164
causal relations of such diseases with occupational, nutritional, 56165
environmental, or infectious conditions, and alleviate or 56166
eliminate any such conditions;56167

       (2) Advise, consult, cooperate with, and assist, by contract 56168
or otherwise, agencies of the state and federal government, 56169
agencies of the governments of other states, agencies of political 56170
subdivisions of this state, universities, private organizations, 56171
corporations, and associations for the purposes of division 56172
(A)(B)(1) of this section;56173

       (3) Accept and administer grants from the federal government 56174
or other sources, public or private, for carrying out any of the 56175
functions enumerated in divisions (A)(B)(1) and (2) of this 56176
section.56177

       (B)(C) The Ohio cancer incidence surveillance system shall 56178
follow a model of cancer data collection as set forth by the 56179
survey epidemiology and end results system (SEERS). 56180

       (D) The department may, by contract, designate a state 56181
university as an agent to implement some or all of this section 56182
and section 3701.262 of the Revised Code and the rules adopted 56183
under those sections.56184

       Sec. 3701.262.  (A) As used in this section and section 56185
3701.263 of the Revised Code:56186

       (1) "Physician" means a person who holds a valid certificate 56187
issued under Chapter 4731. of the Revised Code authorizing the 56188
person to practice medicine orand surgery or osteopathic medicine 56189
and surgery.56190

       (2) "Dentist" means a person who is licensed under Chapter 56191
4715. of the Revised Code to practice dentistry.56192

       (3) "Hospital" has the same meaning as in section 3727.01 of 56193
the Revised Code.56194

       (4) "Cancer" includes those diseases specified by rule of the 56195
director of health under division (B)(2) of this section.56196

       (B) The director of health shall adopt rules in accordance 56197
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to do all of the following:56198

       (1) Establish the Ohio cancer incidence surveillance system 56199
required by section 3701.261 of the Revised Code;56200

       (2) Specify the types of cancer and other tumorous and 56201
precancerous diseases to be reported to the department of health 56202
under division (D) of this section;56203

       (3) Establish reporting requirements for information 56204
concerning diagnosed cancer cases as the director considers 56205
necessary to conduct epidemiologic surveys of cancer in this 56206
state;56207

       (4) Establish standards that must be met by research projects 56208
to be eligible to receive information concerning individual cancer 56209
patients from the department of health under division (B) of 56210
section 3701.263 of the Revised Code.56211

       (C) The department of health shall record in the registry all 56212
reports of cancer received by it. In the development and 56213
administration of the cancer registry the department may use 56214
information compiled by public or private cancer registries and 56215
may contract for the collection and analysis of, and research 56216
related to, the information recorded under this section.56217

       (D)(1) Each physician, dentist, hospital, or person providing 56218
diagnostic or treatment services to patients with cancer shall 56219
report each case of cancer to the department. Any person required 56220
to report pursuant to this section may elect to report to the 56221
department through an existing cancer registry if the registry 56222
meets the reporting standards established by the director and 56223
reports to the department.56224

       (2) No person shall fail to make the cancer reports required 56225
by division (D)(1) of this section.56226

       (E) All physicians, dentists, hospitals, or persons providing 56227
diagnostic or treatment services to patients with cancer shall 56228
grant to the department or its authorized representative access to 56229
all records that identify cases of cancer or establish 56230
characteristics of cancer, the treatment of cancer, or the medical 56231
status of any identified cancer patient.56232

       (F) The Arthur G. James cancer hospital and Richard J. Solove 56233
research institute of the Ohio state university, shall analyze and 56234
evaluate the cancer reports collected pursuant to this section. 56235
The department shall publish and make available to the public 56236
reports summarizing the information collected. Reports shall be 56237
made on a calendar year basis and published not later than ninety 56238
days after the end of each calendar year.56239

       (G) Furnishing information, including records, reports, 56240
statements, notes, memoranda, or other information, to the 56241
department of health, either voluntarily or as required by this 56242
section, or to a person or governmental entity designated as a 56243
medical research project by the department, does not subject a 56244
physician, dentist, hospital, or person providing diagnostic or 56245
treatment services to patients with cancer to liability in an 56246
action for damages or other relief for furnishing the information.56247

       (H) This section does not affect the authority of any person 56248
or facility providing diagnostic or treatment services to patients 56249
with cancer to maintain facility-based tumor registries, in 56250
addition to complying with the reporting requirements of this 56251
section.56252

       (I) No person shall fail to make the cancer reports required 56253
by division (D) of this section.56254

       Sec. 3701.264.  There is hereby created the Ohio cancer 56255
incidence surveillance system advisory board. The board shall 56256
consist of the director of health, who shall serve as chair of the 56257
board, and one representative, appointed by the governor, from 56258
each medical school accredited by the liaison committee on medical 56259
education and each osteopathic medical school accredited by the 56260
American osteopathic association in Ohio. In addition, the 56261
director of health shall appoint up to three additional members of 56262
the board. Vacancies on the board shall be filled in the same 56263
manner as the initial appointments. Members shall serve without 56264
compensation.56265

       The board shall provide oversight of the collection and 56266
analysis of data by the Ohio cancer incidence surveillance system 56267
to the director of health and the Arthur G. James cancer hospital 56268
and Richard J. Solove research institute of the Ohio state 56269
university and advise in the implementation of sections 3701.261 56270
to 3701.263and 3701.262 of the Revised Code. The board shall meet 56271
and conduct its business as directed by the chair.56272

       The board shall report to the finance committees of both 56273
houses of the general assembly, not later than March 1, 2001, on 56274
the progress made in implementing sections 3701.261 to 3701.263 of 56275
the Revised Code.56276

       The board is not subject to sections 101.82 to 101.87 of the 56277
Revised Code.56278

       Sec. 3701.342. After consultation with the public health 56279
standards task force established under section 3701.343 of the 56280
Revised Code, theThe director of health shall adopt rules 56281
establishing minimum standards and optimum achievable standards 56282
for boards of health and local health departments. The minimum 56283
standards shall assure that boards of health and local health 56284
departments provide for:56285

       (A) Analysis and prevention of communicable disease;56286

       (B) Analysis of the causes of, and appropriate treatment for, 56287
the leading causes of morbidity and mortality;56288

       (C) The administration and management of the local health 56289
department;56290

       (D) Access to primary health care by medically underserved 56291
individuals;56292

       (E) Environmental health management programs;56293

       (F) Health promotion services designed to encourage 56294
individual and community wellness;56295

       (G) Annual completion of two continuing education units by 56296
each member of a board of health.56297

       The director shall adopt rules establishing a formula for 56298
distribution of state health district subsidy funds to boards of 56299
health and local health departments. The formula shall provide no 56300
subsidy funds to a board or department unless it meets minimum 56301
standards and shall provide higher funding levels for boards and 56302
districts that meet optimum achievable standards.56303

       Notwithstanding section 119.03 of the Revised Code, rules 56304
adopted under this section shall not take effect unless approved 56305
by concurrent resolution of the general assembly.56306

       Sec. 3701.344.  As used in this section and sections 56307
3701.345, 3701.346, and 3701.347 of the Revised Code:56308

       (A) "Private water system" means any water system for the 56309
provision of water for human consumption, if such system has fewer 56310
than fifteen service connections and does not regularly serve an 56311
average of at least twenty-five individuals daily at least sixty 56312
days out of the year. A private water system includes any well, 56313
spring, cistern, pond, or hauled water and any equipment for the 56314
collection, transportation, filtration, disinfection, treatment, 56315
or storage of such water extending from and including the source 56316
of the water to the point of discharge from any pressure tank or 56317
other storage vessel; to the point of discharge from the water 56318
pump where no pressure tank or other storage vessel is present; 56319
or, in the case of multiple service connections serving more than 56320
one dwelling, to the point of discharge from each service 56321
connection. "Private water system" does not include the water 56322
service line extending from the point of discharge to a structure.56323

       (B) Notwithstanding section 3701.347 of the Revised Code and 56324
subject to division (C) of this section, rules adopted by the 56325
director of health regarding private water systems shall provide 56326
for the following:56327

       (1) Except as otherwise provided in this division, boards of 56328
health of city or general health districts shall be given the 56329
exclusive power to establish fees in accordance with section 56330
3709.09 of the Revised Code for administering and enforcing such 56331
rules. Such fees shall establish a different rate for 56332
administering and enforcing the rules relative to private water 56333
systems serving single-family dwelling houses and nonsingle-family 56334
dwelling houses. Except for an amount established by the director, 56335
pursuant to division (B)(5) of this section, for each new private 56336
water system installation, no portion of any fee for administering 56337
and enforcing such rules shall be returned to the department of 56338
health. If the director of health determines that a board of 56339
health of a city or general health district is unable to 56340
administer and enforce a private water system program in the 56341
district, the director shall administer and enforce such a program 56342
in the district and establish fees for such administration and 56343
enforcement.56344

       (2) Boards of health of city or general health districts 56345
shall be given the exclusive power to determine the number of 56346
inspections necessary for determining the safe drinking 56347
characteristics of a private water system.56348

       (3) Private water systems contractors, as a condition of 56349
doing business in this state, shall annually register with, and 56350
comply with surety bonding requirements of, the department of 56351
health. No such contractor shall be permitted to register if the 56352
contractor fails to comply with all applicable rules adopted by 56353
the director and the board of health of the city or general health 56354
district. The annual registration fee for private water systems 56355
contractors shall be sixty-five dollars. The director, by rule 56356
adopted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, may 56357
increase the annual registration fee. 56358

       (4) Subject to rules adopted by the director, boards of 56359
health of city or general health districts shall have the option 56360
of determining whether bacteriological examinations shall be 56361
performed at approved laboratories of the state or at approved 56362
private laboratories.56363

       (5) The director may establish fees for each new private 56364
water system installation, which shall be collected by the 56365
appropriate board of health and transmitted to the director 56366
pursuant to section 3709.092 of the Revised Code.56367

       (6) All fees received by the director of health under 56368
divisions (B)(1), (3), and (5) of this section shall be deposited 56369
in the state treasury to the credit of the general operations fund 56370
created in section 3701.83 of the Revised Code for use in the 56371
administration and enforcement of sections 3701.344 to 3701.347 of 56372
the Revised Code and the rules pertaining to private water systems 56373
adopted under those sections. 56374

       (C) To the extent that rules adopted under division (B) of 56375
this section require health districts to follow specific 56376
procedures or use prescribed forms, no such procedure or form 56377
shall be implemented until it is approved by majority vote of an 56378
approval board of health commissioners, hereby created. Members of 56379
the board shall be the officers of the association of Ohio health 56380
commissioners, or any successor organization, and membership on 56381
the board shall be coterminous with holding an office of the 56382
association. No health district is required to follow a procedure 56383
or use a form required by a rule adopted under division (B) of 56384
this section without the approval of the board.56385

       (D) A board of health shall collect well log filing fees on 56386
behalf of the division of soil and water resources in the 56387
department of natural resources in accordance with section 1521.05 56388
of the Revised Code and rules adopted under it. The fees shall be 56389
submitted to the division quarterly as provided in those rules.56390

       (E) A water system that does not provide water for human 56391
consumption shall not be required to obtain a permit or license 56392
issued under, pay any fees assessed or levied under, or comply 56393
with any rule adopted under sections 3701.34 to 3701.347 of the 56394
Revised Code.56395

       Sec. 3701.507.  (A) To assist in implementing sections 56396
3701.503 to 3701.509 of the Revised Code, the medically 56397
handicapped children's medical advisory council created in section 56398
3701.025 of the Revised Code shall appoint a permanent infant 56399
hearing screening subcommittee. The subcommittee shall consist of 56400
the following members:56401

       (1) One otolaryngologist;56402

       (2) One neonatologist;56403

       (3) One pediatrician;56404

       (4) One neurologist;56405

       (5) One hospital administrator;56406

       (6) Two or more audiologists who are experienced in infant 56407
hearing screening and evaluation;56408

       (7) One speech-language pathologist licensed under section 56409
4753.07 of the Revised Code;56410

       (8) Two persons who are each a parent of a hearing-impaired 56411
child;56412

       (9) One geneticist;56413

       (10) One epidemiologist;56414

       (11) One adult who is deaf or hearing impaired;56415

       (12) One representative from an organization for the deaf or 56416
hearing impaired;56417

       (13) One family advocate;56418

       (14) One nurse from a well-baby neonatal nursery;56419

       (15) One nurse from a special care neonatal nursery;56420

       (16) One teacher of the deaf who works with infants and 56421
toddlers;56422

       (17) One representative of the health insurance industry;56423

       (18) One representative of the bureau for children with 56424
medical handicaps;56425

       (19) One representative of the department of education;56426

       (20) One representative of the Ohio department of job and 56427
family services who has responsibilities regarding medicaid;56428

       (21) Any other person the advisory council appoints.56429

       (B) The infant hearing subcommittee shall:56430

       (1) Consult with the director of health regarding the 56431
administration of sections 3701.503 to 3701.509 of the Revised 56432
Code;56433

       (2) Advise and make recommendations regarding proposed rules 56434
prior to their adoption by the director under section 3701.508 of 56435
the Revised Code;56436

       (3) Consult with the director of health and advise and make 56437
recommendations regarding program development and implementation 56438
under sections 3701.503 to 3701.509 of the Revised Code, including 56439
all of the following:56440

       (a) Establishment under section 3701.504 of the Revised Code 56441
of the statewide hearing screening, tracking, and early 56442
intervention program to identify newborn and infant hearing 56443
impairment;56444

       (b) Identification of locations where hearing evaluations may 56445
be conducted;56446

       (c) Recommendations for methods and techniques of hearing 56447
screening and hearing evaluation;56448

       (d) Referral, data recording and compilation, and procedures 56449
to encourage follow-up hearing care;56450

       (e) Maintenance of a register of newborns and infants who do 56451
not pass the hearing screening;56452

       (f) Preparation of the information required by section 56453
3701.506 of the Revised Code. 56454

       Sec. 3701.5010.  (A) As used in this section:56455

       (1) "Critical congenital heart defects screening" means the 56456
identification of a newborn that may have a critical congenital 56457
heart defect, through the use of a physiologic test; 56458

       (2) "Freestanding birthing center" has the same meaning as in 56459
section 3702.141 of the Revised Code;56460

       (3) "Hospital," "maternity unit," "newborn," and "physician" 56461
have the same meanings as in section 3701.503 of the Revised Code.56462

       (B) Except as provided in division (C) of this section, each 56463
hospital and each freestanding birthing center shall conduct a 56464
critical congenital heart defects screening on each newborn born 56465
in the hospital or center, unless the newborn is being transferred 56466
to another hospital. The screening shall be performed after the 56467
newborn reaches twenty-four hours of age but before discharge. If 56468
the newborn is transferred to another hospital, that hospital 56469
shall conduct the screening when determined to be medically 56470
appropriate.56471

       The hospital or center shall promptly notify the newborn's 56472
parent, guardian, or custodian and attending physician of the 56473
screening results. The hospital or center shall notify the 56474
department of health of the screening results for each newborn 56475
screened.56476

       (C) A hospital or freestanding birthing center shall not 56477
conduct a critical congenital heart defects screening if the 56478
newborn's parent objects on the grounds that the screening 56479
conflicts with the parent's religious tenets and practices. 56480

       (D) The director of health shall establish and maintain a 56481
statewide tracking and monitoring system to ensure that universal 56482
critical congenital heart defects screening is implemented. 56483

       (E) The director shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 56484
119. of the Revised Code establishing standards and procedures for 56485
the screening required by this section, including all of the 56486
following:56487

       (1) Identifying the critical congenital heart defects to be 56488
included in the screening;56489

       (2) Specifying equipment to be used for and methods of 56490
screening for critical congenital heart defects; 56491

       (3) Designating the person or persons who will be responsible 56492
for causing screenings and rescreenings to be performed;56493

       (4) Providing notice to the newborn's parent, guardian, or 56494
custodian of the required initial screening and the possibility 56495
that rescreenings may be necessary;56496

       (5) Communicating to the newborn's parent, guardian, or 56497
custodian and attending physician the results of the screening and 56498
any rescreenings;56499

       (6) Causing rescreenings to be performed when initial 56500
screenings have abnormal results;56501

       (7) Referring newborns who receive abnormal screening or 56502
rescreening results to providers of follow-up services.56503

       Sec. 3701.541. As used in this section, "board of health" 56504
means the board of health of a city or general health district or 56505
the authority having the duties of a board of health under section 56506
3709.05 of the Revised Code.56507

        Any state funds or funds from the federal government 56508
distributed by the department of health to a board of health or a 56509
city or general health district shall be distributed directly to 56510
the board or district. The department shall not distribute any 56511
such funds on a regional basis.56512

       Sec. 3701.74.  (A) As used in this section and section 56513
3701.741 of the Revised Code:56514

       (1) "Ambulatory care facility" means a facility that provides 56515
medical, diagnostic, or surgical treatment to patients who do not 56516
require hospitalization, including a dialysis center, ambulatory 56517
surgical facility, cardiac catheterization facility, diagnostic 56518
imaging center, extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy center, home 56519
health agency, inpatient hospice, birthing center, radiation 56520
therapy center, emergency facility, and an urgent care center. 56521
"Ambulatory care facility" does not include the private office of 56522
a physician or dentist, whether the office is for an individual or 56523
group practice.56524

       (2) "Chiropractor" means an individual licensed under Chapter 56525
4734. of the Revised Code to practice chiropractic.56526

       (3) "Emergency facility" means a hospital emergency 56527
department or any other facility that provides emergency medical 56528
services.56529

       (4) "Health care practitioner" means all of the following:56530

       (a) A dentist or dental hygienist licensed under Chapter 56531
4715. of the Revised Code;56532

       (b) A registered or licensed practical nurse licensed under 56533
Chapter 4723. of the Revised Code;56534

       (c) An optometrist licensed under Chapter 4725. of the 56535
Revised Code;56536

       (d) A dispensing optician, spectacle dispensing optician, 56537
contact lens dispensing optician, or spectacle-contact lens 56538
dispensing optician licensed under Chapter 4725. of the Revised 56539
Code;56540

       (e) A pharmacist licensed under Chapter 4729. of the Revised 56541
Code;56542

       (f) A physician;56543

       (g) A physician assistant authorized under Chapter 4730. of 56544
the Revised Code to practice as a physician assistant;56545

       (h) A practitioner of a limited branch of medicine issued a 56546
certificate under Chapter 4731. of the Revised Code;56547

       (i) A psychologist licensed under Chapter 4732. of the 56548
Revised Code;56549

       (j) A chiropractor;56550

       (k) A hearing aid dealer or fitter licensed under Chapter 56551
4747. of the Revised Code;56552

       (l) A speech-language pathologist or audiologist licensed 56553
under Chapter 4753. of the Revised Code;56554

       (m) An occupational therapist or occupational therapy 56555
assistant licensed under Chapter 4755. of the Revised Code;56556

       (n) A physical therapist or physical therapy assistant 56557
licensed under Chapter 4755. of the Revised Code;56558

       (o) A professional clinical counselor, professional 56559
counselor, social worker, or independent social worker licensed, 56560
or a social work assistant registered, under Chapter 4757. of the 56561
Revised Code;56562

       (p) A dietitian licensed under Chapter 4759. of the Revised 56563
Code;56564

       (q) A respiratory care professional licensed under Chapter 56565
4761. of the Revised Code;56566

       (r) An emergency medical technician-basic, emergency medical 56567
technician-intermediate, or emergency medical technician-paramedic 56568
certified under Chapter 4765. of the Revised Code.56569

       (5) "Health care provider" means a hospital, ambulatory care 56570
facility, long-term care facility, pharmacy, emergency facility, 56571
or health care practitioner.56572

       (6) "Hospital" has the same meaning as in section 3727.01 of 56573
the Revised Code.56574

       (7) "Long-term care facility" means a nursing home, 56575
residential care facility, or home for the aging, as those terms 56576
are defined in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code; a residential 56577
facility licensed under section 5119.225119.34 of the Revised 56578
Code that provides accommodations, supervision, and personal care 56579
services for three to sixteen unrelated adults; a nursing facility 56580
or intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded, as those 56581
terms are defined in section 5111.205165.01 of the Revised Code; 56582
a facility or portion of a facility certified as a skilled nursing 56583
facility under Title XVIII of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 56584
286 (1965), 42 U.S.C.A. 1395, as amended, as defined in section 56585
5165.01 of the Revised Code; and an intermediate care facility for 56586
the mentally retarded, as defined in section 5124.01 of the 56587
Revised Code.56588

       (8) "Medical record" means data in any form that pertains to 56589
a patient's medical history, diagnosis, prognosis, or medical 56590
condition and that is generated and maintained by a health care 56591
provider in the process of the patient's health care treatment.56592

       (9) "Medical records company" means a person who stores, 56593
locates, or copies medical records for a health care provider, or 56594
is compensated for doing so by a health care provider, and charges 56595
a fee for providing medical records to a patient or patient's 56596
representative.56597

       (10) "Patient" means either of the following:56598

       (a) An individual who received health care treatment from a 56599
health care provider;56600

       (b) A guardian, as defined in section 1337.11 of the Revised 56601
Code, of an individual described in division (A)(10)(a) of this 56602
section.56603

       (11) "Patient's personal representative" means a minor 56604
patient's parent or other person acting in loco parentis, a 56605
court-appointed guardian, or a person with durable power of 56606
attorney for health care for a patient, the executor or 56607
administrator of the patient's estate, or the person responsible 56608
for the patient's estate if it is not to be probated. "Patient's 56609
personal representative" does not include an insurer authorized 56610
under Title XXXIX of the Revised Code to do the business of 56611
sickness and accident insurance in this state, a health insuring 56612
corporation holding a certificate of authority under Chapter 1751. 56613
of the Revised Code, or any other person not named in this 56614
division.56615

       (12) "Pharmacy" has the same meaning as in section 4729.01 of 56616
the Revised Code.56617

       (13) "Physician" means a person authorized under Chapter 56618
4731. of the Revised Code to practice medicine and surgery, 56619
osteopathic medicine and surgery, or podiatric medicine and 56620
surgery.56621

       (14) "Authorized person" means a person to whom a patient has 56622
given written authorization to act on the patient's behalf 56623
regarding the patient's medical record.56624

       (B) A patient, a patient's personal representative or an 56625
authorized person who wishes to examine or obtain a copy of part 56626
or all of a medical record shall submit to the health care 56627
provider a written request signed by the patient, personal 56628
representative, or authorized person dated not more than one year 56629
before the date on which it is submitted. The request shall 56630
indicate whether the copy is to be sent to the requestor, 56631
physician or chiropractor, or held for the requestor at the office 56632
of the health care provider. Within a reasonable time after 56633
receiving a request that meets the requirements of this division 56634
and includes sufficient information to identify the record 56635
requested, a health care provider that has the patient's medical 56636
records shall permit the patient to examine the record during 56637
regular business hours without charge or, on request, shall 56638
provide a copy of the record in accordance with section 3701.741 56639
of the Revised Code, except that if a physician or chiropractor 56640
who has treated the patient determines for clearly stated 56641
treatment reasons that disclosure of the requested record is 56642
likely to have an adverse effect on the patient, the health care 56643
provider shall provide the record to a physician or chiropractor 56644
designated by the patient. The health care provider shall take 56645
reasonable steps to establish the identity of the person making 56646
the request to examine or obtain a copy of the patient's record.56647

       (C) If a health care provider fails to furnish a medical 56648
record as required by division (B) of this section, the patient, 56649
personal representative, or authorized person who requested the 56650
record may bring a civil action to enforce the patient's right of 56651
access to the record.56652

       (D)(1) This section does not apply to medical records whose 56653
release is covered by section 173.20 or 3721.13 of the Revised 56654
Code, by Chapter 1347. or 5122. of the Revised Code, by 42 C.F.R. 56655
part 2, "Confidentiality of Alcohol and Drug Abuse Patient 56656
Records," or by 42 C.F.R. 483.10.56657

       (2) Nothing in this section is intended to supersede the 56658
confidentiality provisions of sections 2305.24, 2305.25, 2305.251, 56659
and 2305.252 of the Revised Code.56660

       Sec. 3701.741.  (A) Each health care provider and medical 56661
records company shall provide copies of medical records in 56662
accordance with this section.56663

       (B) Except as provided in divisions (C) and (E) of this 56664
section, a health care provider or medical records company that 56665
receives a request for a copy of a patient's medical record shall 56666
charge not more than the amounts set forth in this section. 56667

       (1) If the request is made by the patient or the patient's 56668
personal representative, total costs for copies and all services 56669
related to those copies shall not exceed the sum of the following:56670

       (a) Except as provided in division (B)(1)(b) of this section, 56671
with respect to data recorded on paper or electronically, the 56672
following amounts adjusted in accordance with section 3701.742 of 56673
the Revised Code:56674

        (i) Two dollars and seventy-four cents per page for the first 56675
ten pages;56676

        (ii) Fifty-seven cents per page for pages eleven through 56677
fifty;56678

       (iii) Twenty-three cents per page for pages fifty-one and 56679
higher;56680

        (b) With respect to data resulting from an x-ray, magnetic 56681
resonance imaging (MRI), or computed axial tomography (CAT) scan 56682
and recorded on paper or film, one dollar and eighty-seven cents 56683
per page;56684

        (c) The actual cost of any related postage incurred by the 56685
health care provider or medical records company.56686

        (2) If the request is made other than by the patient or the 56687
patient's personal representative, total costs for copies and all 56688
services related to those copies shall not exceed the sum of the 56689
following:56690

       (a) An initial fee of sixteen dollars and eighty-four cents 56691
adjusted in accordance with section 3701.742 of the Revised Code, 56692
which shall compensate for the records search;56693

       (b) Except as provided in division (B)(2)(c) of this section, 56694
with respect to data recorded on paper or electronically, the 56695
following amounts adjusted in accordance with section 3701.742 of 56696
the Revised Code:56697

       (i) One dollar and eleven cents per page for the first ten 56698
pages;56699

       (ii) Fifty-seven cents per page for pages eleven through 56700
fifty;56701

       (iii) Twenty-three cents per page for pages fifty-one and 56702
higher.56703

       (c) With respect to data resulting from an x-ray, magnetic 56704
resonance imaging (MRI), or computed axial tomography (CAT) scan 56705
and recorded on paper or film, one dollar and eighty-seven cents 56706
per page;56707

       (d) The actual cost of any related postage incurred by the 56708
health care provider or medical records company.56709

       (C)(1) On request, a health care provider or medical records 56710
company shall provide one copy of the patient's medical record and 56711
one copy of any records regarding treatment performed subsequent 56712
to the original request, not including copies of records already 56713
provided, without charge to the following:56714

       (a) The bureau of workers' compensation, in accordance with 56715
Chapters 4121. and 4123. of the Revised Code and the rules adopted 56716
under those chapters;56717

       (b) The industrial commission, in accordance with Chapters 56718
4121. and 4123. of the Revised Code and the rules adopted under 56719
those chapters;56720

       (c) The department of job and family servicesmedicaid or a 56721
county department of job and family services, in accordance with 56722
Chapters 5101.5160., 5161., 5162., 5163., 5164., 5165., 5166.,56723
and 5111.5167. of the Revised Code and the rules adopted under 56724
those chapters;56725

       (d) The attorney general, in accordance with sections 2743.51 56726
to 2743.72 of the Revised Code and any rules that may be adopted 56727
under those sections;56728

       (e) A patient, patient's personal representative, or 56729
authorized person if the medical record is necessary to support a 56730
claim under Title II or Title XVI of the "Social Security Act," 49 56731
Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 401 and 1381, as amended, and the 56732
request is accompanied by documentation that a claim has been 56733
filed.56734

       (2) Nothing in division (C)(1) of this section requires a 56735
health care provider or medical records company to provide a copy 56736
without charge to any person or entity not listed in division 56737
(C)(1) of this section.56738

       (D) Division (C) of this section shall not be construed to 56739
supersede any rule of the bureau of workers' compensation, the 56740
industrial commission, or the department of job and family 56741
servicesmedicaid.56742

       (E) A health care provider or medical records company may 56743
enter into a contract with either of the following for the copying 56744
of medical records at a fee other than as provided in division (B) 56745
of this section:56746

       (1) A patient, a patient's personal representative, or an 56747
authorized person;56748

       (2) An insurer authorized under Title XXXIX of the Revised 56749
Code to do the business of sickness and accident insurance in this 56750
state or health insuring corporations holding a certificate of 56751
authority under Chapter 1751. of the Revised Code.56752

       (F) This section does not apply to medical records the 56753
copying of which is covered by section 173.20 of the Revised Code 56754
or by 42 C.F.R. 483.10.56755

       Sec. 3701.742. Not later than January 31, 2006, theThe56756
amounts specified in division (B) of section 3701.741 of the 56757
Revised Code and, not later than the first day of January of each 56758
year thereafter,shall be adjusted annually in accordance with 56759
this section. These amounts plus any amounts previously computed 56760
by annual adjustments made under this section, shall be increased 56761
or decreased by the average percentage of increase or decrease in 56762
the consumer price index for all urban consumers (United States 56763
city average, all items), prepared by the United States department 56764
of labor, bureau of labor statistics, for the56765
twelve-calendar-month period prior to the immediately preceding 56766
first day of Januarycalendar year over the calendar year56767
immediately preceding twelve-calendar-month periodthat year, as 56768
reported by the bureau. The director of health shall make this 56769
determination and adjust the amounts accordingly. The director 56770
shall provide a list of the adjusted amounts to any party upon 56771
request and the department of health shall make thea list of the 56772
adjusted amounts available to the public on itsthe internet web 56773
site maintained by the department of health.56774

       Sec. 3701.78.  (A) There is hereby created the commission on 56775
minority health, consisting of twenty-one members. The governor 56776
shall appoint to the commission nine members from among health 56777
researchers, health planners, and health professionals. The 56778
governor also shall appoint two members who are representatives of 56779
the lupus awareness and education program. The speaker of the 56780
house of representatives shall appoint to the commission two 56781
members of the house of representatives, not more than one of whom 56782
is a member of the same political party, and the president of the 56783
senate shall appoint to the commission two members of the senate, 56784
not more than one of whom is a member of the same political party. 56785
The following shall be members of the commission: the directors of 56786
health, mental healthmental health and addiction services, 56787
developmental disabilities, alcohol and drug addiction services,56788
and job and family services, or their designees,; the medicaid 56789
director, or the director's designee; and the superintendent of 56790
public instruction, or the superintendent's designee, shall be 56791
members of the commission. The56792

       The commission shall elect a chairperson from among its 56793
members. Of56794

       Of the members appointed by the governor, five shall be 56795
appointed to initial terms of one year, and four shall be 56796
appointed to initial terms of two years. Thereafter, all members 56797
appointed by the governor shall be appointed to terms of two 56798
years. All members of the commission appointed by the speaker of 56799
the house of representatives or the president of the senate shall 56800
be nonvoting members of the commission and be appointed within 56801
thirty days after the commencement of the first regular session of 56802
each general assembly, and shall serve until the expiration of the 56803
session of the general assembly during which they were appointed. 56804
Members56805

       Members of the commission shall serve without compensation, 56806
but shall be reimbursed for the actual and necessary expenses they 56807
incur in the performance of their official duties.56808

       (B) The commission shall promote health and the prevention of 56809
disease among members of minority groups. Each year the commission 56810
shall distribute grants from available funds to community-based 56811
health groups to be used to promote health and the prevention of 56812
disease among members of minority groups. As used in this 56813
division, "minority group" means any of the following economically 56814
disadvantaged groups: Blacks, American Indians, Hispanics, and 56815
Orientals. The commission shall adopt and maintain rules pursuant 56816
to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to provide for the 56817
distribution of these grants. No group shall qualify to receive a 56818
grant from the commission unless it receives at least twenty per 56819
cent of its funds from sources other than grants distributed under 56820
this section.56821

       (C) The commission may appoint such employees as it considers 56822
necessary to carry out its duties under this section. The 56823
department of health shall provide office space for the 56824
commission.56825

       (D) The commission shall meet at the call of its chairperson 56826
to conduct its official business. A majority of the voting members 56827
of the commission constitute a quorum. The votes of at least eight 56828
voting members of the commission are necessary for the commission 56829
to take any official action or to approve the distribution of 56830
grants under this section.56831

       Sec. 3701.83.  (A) There is hereby created in the state 56832
treasury the general operations fund. Moneys in the fund shall be 56833
used for the purposes specified in sections 3701.04, 3701.344, 56834
3702.20, 3710.15, 3711.16, 3717.45, 3718.06, 3721.02, 3721.022, 56835
3729.07, 3733.43, 3748.04, 3748.05, 3748.07, 3748.12, 3748.13, 56836
3749.04, 3749.07, 4747.04, 4751.04, and 4769.09 of the Revised 56837
Code.56838

       (B) The alcohol testing program fund is hereby created in the 56839
state treasury. The director of health shall use the fund to 56840
administer and enforce the alcohol testing and permit program 56841
authorized by section 3701.143 of the Revised Code.56842

       The fund shall receive transfers from the liquor control fund 56843
created under section 4301.12 of the Revised Code. All investment 56844
earnings of the alcohol testing program fund shall be credited to 56845
the fund.56846

       Sec. 3701.881.  (A) As used in this section:56847

       (1) "Applicant" means a person who is under final 56848
consideration for employment with a home health agency in a 56849
full-time, part-time, or temporary position that involves 56850
providing direct care to an individual or is referred to a home 56851
health agency by an employment service for such a position. 56852

       (2) "Community-based long-term care agencyprovider" has the 56853
same meaningmeans a provider as defined in section 173.39 of the 56854
Revised Code.56855

       (3) "Community-based long-term care subcontractor" means a 56856
subcontractor as defined in section 173.38 of the Revised Code.56857

       (4) "Criminal records check" has the same meaning as in 56858
section 109.572 of the Revised Code.56859

       (4)(5) "Direct care" means any of the following:56860

       (a) Any service identified in divisions (A)(7)(8)(a) to (f) 56861
of this section that is provided in a patient's place of residence 56862
used as the patient's home;56863

       (b) Any activity that requires the person performing the 56864
activity to be routinely alone with a patient or to routinely have 56865
access to a patient's personal property or financial documents 56866
regarding a patient;56867

       (c) For each home health agency individually, any other 56868
routine service or activity that the chief administrator of the 56869
home health agency designates as direct care.56870

       (5)(6) "Disqualifying offense" means any of the offenses 56871
listed or described in divisions (A)(3)(a) to (e) of section 56872
109.572 of the Revised Code.56873

       (6)(7) "Employee" means a person employed by a home health 56874
agency in a full-time, part-time, or temporary position that 56875
involves providing direct care to an individual and a person who 56876
works in such a position due to being referred to a home health 56877
agency by an employment service.56878

       (7)(8) "Home health agency" means a person or government 56879
entity, other than a nursing home, residential care facility, 56880
hospice care program, or pediatric respite care program, that has 56881
the primary function of providing any of the following services to 56882
a patient at a place of residence used as the patient's home:56883

       (a) Skilled nursing care;56884

       (b) Physical therapy;56885

       (c) Speech-language pathology;56886

       (d) Occupational therapy;56887

       (e) Medical social services;56888

       (f) Home health aide services.56889

       (8)(9) "Home health aide services" means any of the following 56890
services provided by an employee of a home health agency:56891

       (a) Hands-on bathing or assistance with a tub bath or shower;56892

       (b) Assistance with dressing, ambulation, and toileting;56893

       (c) Catheter care but not insertion;56894

       (d) Meal preparation and feeding.56895

       (9)(10) "Hospice care program" and "pediatric respite care 56896
program" have the same meanings as in section 3712.01 of the 56897
Revised Code.56898

       (10)(11) "Medical social services" means services provided by 56899
a social worker under the direction of a patient's attending 56900
physician.56901

       (11)(12) "Minor drug possession offense" has the same meaning 56902
as in section 2925.01 of the Revised Code.56903

       (12)(13) "Nursing home," "residential care facility," and 56904
"skilled nursing care" have the same meanings as in section 56905
3721.01 of the Revised Code.56906

       (13)(14) "Occupational therapy" has the same meaning as in 56907
section 4755.04 of the Revised Code.56908

       (14)(15) "Physical therapy" has the same meaning as in 56909
section 4755.40 of the Revised Code.56910

       (15)(16) "Social worker" means a person licensed under 56911
Chapter 4757. of the Revised Code to practice as a social worker 56912
or independent social worker.56913

       (16)(17) "Speech-language pathology" has the same meaning as 56914
in section 4753.01 of the Revised Code.56915

       (17)(18) "Waiver agency" has the same meaning as in section 56916
5111.0335164.342 of the Revised Code.56917

       (B) No home health agency shall employ an applicant or 56918
continue to employ an employee in a position that involves 56919
providing direct care to an individual if any of the following 56920
apply:56921

       (1) A review of the databases listed in division (D) of this 56922
section reveals any of the following:56923

       (a) That the applicant or employee is included in one or more 56924
of the databases listed in divisions (D)(1) to (5) of this 56925
section;56926

       (b) That there is in the state nurse aide registry 56927
established under section 3721.32 of the Revised Code a statement 56928
detailing findings by the director of health that the applicant or 56929
employee neglected or abused a long-term care facility or 56930
residential care facility resident or misappropriated property of 56931
such a resident;56932

       (c) That the applicant or employee is included in one or more 56933
of the databases, if any, specified in rules adopted under this 56934
section and the rules prohibit the home health agency from 56935
employing an applicant or continuing to employ an employee 56936
included in such a database in a position that involves providing 56937
direct care to an individual.56938

       (2) After the applicant or employee is provided, pursuant to 56939
division (E)(2)(a) of this section, a copy of the form prescribed 56940
pursuant to division (C)(1) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code 56941
and the standard impression sheet prescribed pursuant to division 56942
(C)(2) of that section, the applicant or employee fails to 56943
complete the form or provide the applicant's or employee's 56944
fingerprint impressions on the standard impression sheet.56945

       (3) Except as provided in rules adopted under this section, 56946
the applicant or employee is found by a criminal records check 56947
required by this section to have been convicted of, pleaded guilty 56948
to, or been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction 56949
for a disqualifying offense.56950

       (C) Except as provided by division (F) of this section, the 56951
chief administrator of a home health agency shall inform each 56952
applicant of both of the following at the time of the applicant's 56953
initial application for employment or referral to the home health 56954
agency by an employment service for a position that involves 56955
providing direct care to an individual:56956

       (1) That a review of the databases listed in division (D) of 56957
this section will be conducted to determine whether the home 56958
health agency is prohibited by division (B)(1) of this section 56959
from employing the applicant in the position;56960

       (2) That, unless the database review reveals that the 56961
applicant may not be employed in the position, a criminal records 56962
check of the applicant will be conducted and the applicant is 56963
required to provide a set of the applicant's fingerprint 56964
impressions as part of the criminal records check.56965

       (D) As a condition of employing any applicant in a position 56966
that involves providing direct care to an individual, the chief 56967
administrator of a home health agency shall conduct a database 56968
review of the applicant in accordance with rules adopted under 56969
this section. If rules adopted under this section so require, the 56970
chief administrator of a home health agency shall conduct a 56971
database review of an employee in accordance with the rules as a 56972
condition of continuing to employ the employee in a position that 56973
involves providing direct care to an individual. However, the 56974
chief administrator is not required to conduct a database review 56975
of an applicant or employee if division (F) of this section 56976
applies. A database review shall determine whether the applicant 56977
or employee is included in any of the following:56978

       (1) The excluded parties list system that is maintained by 56979
the United States general services administration pursuant to 56980
subpart 9.4 of the federal acquisition regulation and available at 56981
the federal web site known as the system for award management;56982

       (2) The list of excluded individuals and entities maintained 56983
by the office of inspector general in the United States department 56984
of health and human services pursuant to section 1128 of the 56985
"Social Security Act," 94 Stat. 2619 (1980)sections 1128 and 56986
1156, 42 U.S.C. 1320a-7, as amended, and section 1156 of the 56987
"Social Security Act," 96 Stat. 388 (1982), 42 U.S.C.and 1320c-5, 56988
as amended;56989

       (3) The registry of MR/DD employees established under section 56990
5123.52 of the Revised Code;56991

       (4) The internet-based sex offender and child-victim offender 56992
database established under division (A)(11) of section 2950.13 of 56993
the Revised Code;56994

       (5) The internet-based database of inmates established under 56995
section 5120.66 of the Revised Code;56996

       (6) The state nurse aide registry established under section 56997
3721.32 of the Revised Code;56998

       (7) Any other database, if any, specified in rules adopted 56999
under this section.57000

       (E)(1) As a condition of employing any applicant in a 57001
position that involves providing direct care to an individual, the 57002
chief administrator of a home health agency shall request the 57003
superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and 57004
investigation to conduct a criminal records check of the 57005
applicant. If rules adopted under this section so require, the 57006
chief administrator of a home health agency shall request the 57007
superintendent to conduct a criminal records check of an employee 57008
at times specified in the rules as a condition of continuing to 57009
employ the employee in a position that involves providing direct 57010
care to an individual. However, the chief administrator is not 57011
required to request the criminal records check of the applicant or 57012
the employee if division (F) of this section applies or the home 57013
health agency is prohibited by division (B)(1) of this section 57014
from employing the applicant or continuing to employ the employee 57015
in a position that involves providing direct care to an 57016
individual. If an applicant or employee for whom a criminal 57017
records check request is required by this section does not present 57018
proof of having been a resident of this state for the five-year 57019
period immediately prior to the date upon which the criminal 57020
records check is requested or does not provide evidence that 57021
within that five-year period the superintendent has requested 57022
information about the applicant from the federal bureau of 57023
investigation in a criminal records check, the chief administrator 57024
shall request that the superintendent obtain information from the 57025
federal bureau of investigation as a part of the criminal records 57026
check. Even if an applicant or employee for whom a criminal 57027
records check request is required by this section presents proof 57028
that the applicant or employee has been a resident of this state 57029
for that five-year period, the chief administrator may request 57030
that the superintendent include information from the federal 57031
bureau of investigation in the criminal records check.57032

       (2) The chief administrator shall do all of the following:57033

       (a) Provide to each applicant and employee for whom a 57034
criminal records check request is required by this section a copy 57035
of the form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of section 57036
109.572 of the Revised Code and a standard impression sheet 57037
prescribed pursuant to division (C)(2) of that section;57038

       (b) Obtain the completed form and standard impression sheet 57039
from each applicant and employee;57040

       (c) Forward the completed form and standard impression sheet 57041
to the superintendent at the time the chief administrator requests 57042
the criminal records check. 57043

       (3) A home health agency shall pay to the bureau of criminal 57044
identification and investigation the fee prescribed pursuant to 57045
division (C)(3) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code for each 57046
criminal records check the agency requests under this section. A 57047
home health agency may charge an applicant a fee not exceeding the 57048
amount the agency pays to the bureau under this section if both of 57049
the following apply:57050

       (a) The home health agency notifies the applicant at the time 57051
of initial application for employment of the amount of the fee and 57052
that, unless the fee is paid, the applicant will not be considered 57053
for employment.57054

       (b) The medicaid program established under Chapter 5111. of 57055
the Revised Code does not reimburse the home health agency for the 57056
fee it pays to the bureau under this section.57057

       (F) Divisions (C) to (E) of this section do not apply with 57058
regard to an applicant or employee if the applicant or employee is 57059
referred to a home health agency by an employment service that 57060
supplies full-time, part-time, or temporary staff for positions 57061
that involve providing direct care to an individual and both of 57062
the following apply:57063

       (1) The chief administrator of the home health agency 57064
receives from the employment service confirmation that a review of 57065
the databases listed in division (D) of this section was conducted 57066
with regard to the applicant or employee.57067

       (2) The chief administrator of the home health agency 57068
receives from the employment service, applicant, or employee a 57069
report of the results of a criminal records check of the applicant 57070
or employee that has been conducted by the superintendent within 57071
the one-year period immediately preceding the following:57072

       (a) In the case of an applicant, the date of the applicant's 57073
referral by the employment service to the home health agency;57074

       (b) In the case of an employee, the date by which the home 57075
health agency would otherwise have to request a criminal records 57076
check of the employee under division (E) of this section.57077

       (G)(1) A home health agency may employ conditionally an 57078
applicant for whom a criminal records check request is required by 57079
this section before obtaining the results of the criminal records 57080
check if the agency is not prohibited by division (B) of this 57081
section from employing the applicant in a position that involves 57082
providing direct care to an individual and either of the following 57083
applies:57084

       (a) The chief administrator of the home health agency 57085
requests the criminal records check in accordance with division 57086
(E) of this section not later than five business days after the 57087
applicant begins conditional employment.57088

       (b) The applicant is referred to the home health agency by an 57089
employment service, the employment service or the applicant 57090
provides the chief administrator of the agency a letter that is on 57091
the letterhead of the employment service, the letter is dated and 57092
signed by a supervisor or another designated official of the 57093
employment service, and the letter states all of the following:57094

       (i) That the employment service has requested the 57095
superintendent to conduct a criminal records check regarding the 57096
applicant;57097

       (ii) That the requested criminal records check is to include 57098
a determination of whether the applicant has been convicted of, 57099
pleaded guilty to, or been found eligible for intervention in lieu 57100
of conviction for a disqualifying offense;57101

       (iii) That the employment service has not received the 57102
results of the criminal records check as of the date set forth on 57103
the letter;57104

       (iv) That the employment service promptly will send a copy of 57105
the results of the criminal records check to the chief 57106
administrator of the home health agency when the employment 57107
service receives the results.57108

       (2) If a home health agency employs an applicant 57109
conditionally pursuant to division (G)(1)(b) of this section, the 57110
employment service, on its receipt of the results of the criminal 57111
records check, promptly shall send a copy of the results to the 57112
chief administrator of the agency. 57113

       (3) A home health agency that employs an applicant 57114
conditionally pursuant to division (G)(1)(a) or (b) of this 57115
section shall terminate the applicant's employment if the results 57116
of the criminal records check, other than the results of any 57117
request for information from the federal bureau of investigation, 57118
are not obtained within the period ending sixty days after the 57119
date the request for the criminal records check is made. 57120
Regardless of when the results of the criminal records check are 57121
obtained, if the results indicate that the applicant has been 57122
convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or been found eligible for 57123
intervention in lieu of conviction for a disqualifying offense, 57124
the home health agency shall terminate the applicant's employment 57125
unless circumstances specified in rules adopted under this section 57126
that permit the agency to employ the applicant exist and the 57127
agency chooses to employ the applicant. Termination of employment 57128
under this division shall be considered just cause for discharge 57129
for purposes of division (D)(2) of section 4141.29 of the Revised 57130
Code if the applicant makes any attempt to deceive the home health 57131
agency about the applicant's criminal record.57132

       (H) The report of any criminal records check conducted by the 57133
bureau of criminal identification and investigation in accordance 57134
with section 109.572 of the Revised Code and pursuant to a request 57135
made under this section is not a public record for the purposes of 57136
section 149.43 of the Revised Code and shall not be made available 57137
to any person other than the following:57138

       (1) The applicant or employee who is the subject of the 57139
criminal records check or the applicant's or employee's 57140
representative;57141

       (2) The home health agency requesting the criminal records 57142
check or its representative;57143

       (3) The administrator of any other facility, agency, or 57144
program that provides direct care to individuals that is owned or 57145
operated by the same entity that owns or operates the home health 57146
agency that requested the criminal records check;57147

       (4) The employment service that requested the criminal 57148
records check;57149

       (5) The director of health and the staff of the department of 57150
health who monitor a home health agency's compliance with this 57151
section;57152

       (6) The director of aging or the director's designee if 57153
either of the following apply:57154

       (a) In the case of a criminal records check requested by a 57155
home health agency, the home health agency also is a 57156
community-based long-term care agencyprovider or community-based 57157
long-term care subcontractor;57158

       (b) In the case of a criminal records check requested by an 57159
employment service, the employment service makes the request for 57160
an applicant or employee the employment service refers to a home 57161
health agency that also is a community-based long-term care 57162
agencyprovider or community-based long-term care subcontractor.57163

       (7) The medicaid director of job and family services and the 57164
staff of the department of job and family servicesmedicaid who 57165
are involved in the administration of the medicaid program if 57166
either of the following apply:57167

       (a) In the case of a criminal records check requested by a 57168
home health agency, the home health agency also is a waiver 57169
agency;57170

       (b) In the case of a criminal records check requested by an 57171
employment service, the employment service makes the request for 57172
an applicant or employee the employment service refers to a home 57173
health agency that also is a waiver agency.57174

        (8) Any court, hearing officer, or other necessary individual 57175
involved in a case dealing with any of the following:57176

       (a) A denial of employment of the applicant or employee;57177

       (b) Employment or unemployment benefits of the applicant or 57178
employee;57179

        (c) A civil or criminal action regarding the medicaid 57180
program.57181

       (I) In a tort or other civil action for damages that is 57182
brought as the result of an injury, death, or loss to person or 57183
property caused by an applicant or employee who a home health 57184
agency employs in a position that involves providing direct care 57185
to an individual, all of the following shall apply:57186

       (1) If the home health agency employed the applicant or 57187
employee in good faith and reasonable reliance on the report of a 57188
criminal records check requested under this section, the agency 57189
shall not be found negligent solely because of its reliance on the 57190
report, even if the information in the report is determined later 57191
to have been incomplete or inaccurate.57192

       (2) If the home health agency employed the applicant in good 57193
faith on a conditional basis pursuant to division (G) of this 57194
section, the agency shall not be found negligent solely because it 57195
employed the applicant prior to receiving the report of a criminal 57196
records check requested under this section.57197

       (3) If the home health agency in good faith employed the 57198
applicant or employee according to the personal character 57199
standards established in rules adopted under this section, the 57200
agency shall not be found negligent solely because the applicant 57201
or employee had been convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or been 57202
found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for a 57203
disqualifying offense. 57204

       (J) The director of health shall adopt rules in accordance 57205
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement this section. 57206

       (1) The rules may do the following:57207

       (a) Require employees to undergo database reviews and 57208
criminal records checks under this section;57209

       (b) If the rules require employees to undergo database 57210
reviews and criminal records checks under this section, exempt one 57211
or more classes of employees from the requirements;57212

       (c) For the purpose of division (D)(7) of this section, 57213
specify other databases that are to be checked as part of a 57214
database review conducted under this section.57215

       (2) The rules shall specify all of the following:57216

       (a) The procedures for conducting database reviews under this 57217
section;57218

       (b) If the rules require employees to undergo database 57219
reviews and criminal records checks under this section, the times 57220
at which the database reviews and criminal records checks are to 57221
be conducted;57222

       (c) If the rules specify other databases to be checked as 57223
part of the database reviews, the circumstances under which a home 57224
health agency is prohibited from employing an applicant or 57225
continuing to employ an employee who is found by a database review 57226
to be included in one or more of those databases;57227

       (d) Circumstances under which a home health agency may employ 57228
an applicant or employee who is found by a criminal records check 57229
required by this section to have been convicted of, pleaded guilty 57230
to, or been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction 57231
for a disqualifying offense but meets personal character 57232
standards.57233

       Sec. 3701.921.  There is hereby established the patient 57234
centered medical home education program in the department of 57235
health. For the purpose of advancing education in the patient 57236
centered medical home model of care, the director of health may 57237
implement and administer the program pursuant to sections 3701.922 57238
to 3701.929 of the Revised Code. The patient centered medical home 57239
model of care is an enhanced model of primary care in which care 57240
teams attend to the multifaceted needs of patients, providing 57241
whole person comprehensive and coordinate patient centered care.57242

       To the extent that funds are available, the program shall 57243
include the patient centered medical home education pilot project 57244
and may include any other pilot projects the director establishes 57245
pursuant to division (A)(3) of section 3701.922 of the Revised 57246
Code.57247

       Sec. 3701.922.  (A) The director of health may do any of the 57248
following to implement and administer the patient centered medical 57249
home education program:57250

       (1) Develop and implement programs of education or training 57251
on the patient centered medical home model of care or other 57252
similar enhanced models of coordinated patient centered care that 57253
are intended to address the multifaceted needs of patients and 57254
provide whole person comprehensive and coordinated patient 57255
centered care;57256

       (2) Advise, consult, cooperate with, and assist, by contract 57257
or other arrangement, government agencies or institutions or 57258
private organizations, corporations, or associations in the 57259
development and promotion of programs pertaining to the evaluation 57260
and implementation of the patient centered medical home model of 57261
care or other similar enhanced models of coordinated patient 57262
centered care;57263

       (3) Establish pilot projects that do any of the following:57264

       (a) Evaluate or implement the patient centered medical home 57265
model of care or other similar enhanced models of coordinated 57266
patient centered care;57267

       (b) Provideprovide education or training on the patient 57268
centered medical home model of care or other similar enhanced 57269
models of coordinated patient centered care.57270

       (4) Seek and administer state funds or grants from other 57271
sources to carry out any functions of the patient centered medical 57272
home education program.57273

        Any funds or grants received by the director for purposes of 57274
the program shall be used for the program.57275

       (B) The director may adopt rules as necessary to implement 57276
and administer the patient centered medical home education 57277
program, including rules that define what constitutes a "patient 57278
centered medical home" for purposes of an entity authorized to 57279
provide care coordination services. The rules shall be adopted in 57280
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.57281

       Sec. 3701.94. There is hereby established the patient 57282
centered medical home program in the department of health. The 57283
patient centered medical home model of care is an advanced model 57284
of primary care in which care teams attend to the multifaceted 57285
needs of patients, providing whole person comprehensive and 57286
coordinated patient centered care.57287

       Sec. 3701.941. (A) As part of the patient centered medical 57288
home program established under section 3701.94 of the Revised 57289
Code, the department of health shall establish a voluntary patient 57290
centered medical home certification program.57291

       (B) Each primary care practice, that seeks a patient centered 57292
medical home certificate shall submit an application on a form 57293
prepared by the department. The department may require an 57294
application fee and annual renewal fee as determined by the 57295
department. If the department establishes a fee under this 57296
section, the fee shall be in an amount that is sufficient to cover 57297
the cost of any on-site evaluations conducted by the department or 57298
an entity under contract with the department pursuant to section 57299
3701.942 of the Revised Code.57300

       (C) A practice certified under this section shall do all of 57301
the following:57302

       (1) Meet any standards developed by national independent 57303
accrediting and medical home organizations, as determined by the 57304
department;57305

       (2) Develop a systematic follow-up procedure for patients, 57306
including the use of health information technology and patient 57307
registries;57308

       (3) Implement and maintain health information technology that 57309
meets the requirements of 42 U.S.C. 300jj;57310

       (4) Comply with the reporting requirements of section 57311
3701.942 of the Revised Code;57312

       (5) Meet any process, outcome, and quality standards 57313
specified by the department of health;57314

       (6) Meet any other requirements established by the 57315
department.57316

       (D) The department shall seek to do all of the following 57317
through the certification of patient centered medical homes:57318

       (1) Expand, enhance, and encourage the use of primary care 57319
providers, including primary care physicians, advanced practice 57320
registered nurses, and physician assistants, as personal 57321
clinicians;57322

       (2) Develop a focus on delivering high-quality, efficient, 57323
and effective health care services;57324

       (3) Encourage patient centered care and the provision of care 57325
that is appropriate for a patient's race, ethnicity, and language;57326

       (4) Encourage the education and active participation of 57327
patients and patients' families or legal guardians, as 57328
appropriate, in decision making and care plan development;57329

       (5) Provide patients with consistent, ongoing contact with a 57330
personal clinician or team of clinical professionals to ensure 57331
continuous and appropriate care;57332

       (6) Ensure that patient centered medical homes develop and 57333
maintain appropriate comprehensive care plans for patients with 57334
complex or chronic conditions, including an assessment of health 57335
risks and chronic conditions;57336

       (7) Ensure that patient centered medical homes plan for 57337
transition of care from youth to adult to senior;57338

       (8) Enable and encourage use of a range of qualified health 57339
care professionals, including dedicated care coordinators, in a 57340
manner that enables those professionals to practice to the fullest 57341
extent of their professional licenses.57342

       Sec. 3701.942. (A) Each certified patient centered medical 57343
home shall report health care quality and performance information 57344
to the department of health, including any data necessary for 57345
monitoring compliance with certification standards and for 57346
evaluating the impact of patient centered medical homes on health 57347
care quality, cost, and outcomes.57348

       (B) The department may contract with a private entity to 57349
evaluate the effectiveness of certified patient centered medical 57350
homes. The department may provide the entity with data collected 57351
under division (A) of this section.57352

       (C) The department may contract with national independent 57353
accrediting and medical home organizations to provide on-site 57354
evaluation of primary care practices and verification of data 57355
collected under division (A) of this section.57356

       (D) Data collected under this section is not a public record 57357
under section 149.43 of the Revised Code.57358

       Sec. 3701.943. (A) The department of health shall submit a 57359
report to the governor and, in accordance with section 101.68 of 57360
the Revised Code, the general assembly, evaluating the patient 57361
centered medical home program not later than three years after 57362
rules adopted pursuant to section 3701.944 of the Revised Code 57363
first become effective. The department shall submit a second 57364
report not later than five years after those rules first become 57365
effective.57366

       (B) The reports submitted under division (A) of this section 57367
shall include all of the following:57368

       (1) The number of patients receiving primary care services 57369
from certified patient centered medical homes and the number and 57370
characteristics of those patients with complex or chronic 57371
conditions. To the extent available, information regarding the 57372
income, race, ethnicity, and language of patients shall be 57373
included in the reports;57374

       (2) The number and geographic distribution of certified 57375
patient centered medical homes;57376

       (3) Performance of and quality of care measures implemented 57377
by certified patient centered medical homes;57378

       (4) Preventive care measures implemented by certified patient 57379
centered medical homes;57380

       (5) Payment arrangements of certified patient centered 57381
medical homes;57382

       (6) Costs related to implementation of the patient centered 57383
medical home program and payment of care coordination fees;57384

       (7) The estimated effect of certified patient centered 57385
medical homes on health disparities;57386

       (8) The estimated savings from establishing the patient 57387
centered medical home program, as those savings apply to the fee 57388
for service, managed care, and state-based purchasing sectors.57389

       Sec. 3701.944. The department of health shall adopt rules in 57390
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to do all of the 57391
following:57392

       (A) Considering the goals set forth in section 3701.941 of 57393
the Revised Code, establish standards and procedures for 57394
certifying a primary care practice as a patient centered medical 57395
home;57396

       (B) Specify the types of medical practices that constitute 57397
primary care practices for the purpose of certifying patient 57398
centered medical homes; 57399

       (C) Specify the health care quality and performance 57400
information that certified patient centered medical homes must 57401
report to the department pursuant to section 3701.942 of the 57402
Revised Code.57403

       Sec. 3701.95.  (A) As used in this section, "direct care 57404
services" and "direct care worker" have the same meanings as in 57405
section 191.061 of the Revised Code.57406

       (B) Not later than October 1, 2014, the director of health 57407
shall establish a direct care worker certification program. The 57408
director may adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 57409
Revised Code as necessary to implement the program. The rules may 57410
address standards, procedures, and application fees charged for 57411
certification.57412

       (C) For purposes of the program, the director shall do both 57413
of the following: 57414

       (1) Specify the minimum standards that must be met by a 57415
direct care worker to attain certification, which may include 57416
standards pertaining to education, experience, and continuing 57417
education requirements, as well as standards for compliance with 57418
administrative requirements.57419

       (2) Specify a procedure for determining whether a direct care 57420
worker satisfies the standards specified under division (C)(1) of 57421
this section.57422

       Sec. 3701.99.  (A) Whoever violates division (C) of section 57423
3701.23, division (C) of section 3701.232, division (C) of section 57424
3701.24, division (B) of section 3701.25, division (I)(D)(2) of 57425
section 3701.262, division (D) of section 3701.263, or sections 57426
3701.46 to 3701.55 of the Revised Code is guilty of a minor 57427
misdemeanor on a first offense; on each subsequent offense, the 57428
person is guilty of a misdemeanor of the fourth degree.57429

       (B) Whoever violates section 3701.82 of the Revised Code is 57430
guilty of a misdemeanor of the first degree.57431

       (C) Whoever violates section 3701.352 or 3701.81 of the 57432
Revised Code is guilty of a misdemeanor of the second degree.57433

       Sec. 3702.30.  (A) As used in this section:57434

       (1) "Ambulatory surgical facility" means a facility, whether 57435
or not part of the same organization as a hospital, that is 57436
located in a building distinct from another in which inpatient 57437
care is provided, and to which any of the following apply:57438

       (a) Outpatient surgery is routinely performed in the 57439
facility, and the facility functions separately from a hospital's 57440
inpatient surgical service and from the offices of private 57441
physicians, podiatrists, and dentists.57442

       (b) Anesthesia is administered in the facility by an 57443
anesthesiologist or certified registered nurse anesthetist, and 57444
the facility functions separately from a hospital's inpatient 57445
surgical service and from the offices of private physicians, 57446
podiatrists, and dentists.57447

       (c) The facility applies to be certified by the United States 57448
centers for medicare and medicaid services as an ambulatory 57449
surgical center for purposes of reimbursement under Part B of the 57450
medicare program, Part B of Title XVIII of the "Social Security 57451
Act," 79 Stat. 286 (1965), 42 U.S.C.A. 1395, as amended.57452

       (d) The facility applies to be certified by a national 57453
accrediting body approved by the centers for medicare and medicaid 57454
services for purposes of deemed compliance with the conditions for 57455
participating in the medicare program as an ambulatory surgical 57456
center.57457

       (e) The facility bills or receives from any third-party 57458
payer, governmental health care program, or other person or 57459
government entity any ambulatory surgical facility fee that is 57460
billed or paid in addition to any fee for professional services.57461

       (f) The facility is held out to any person or government 57462
entity as an ambulatory surgical facility or similar facility by 57463
means of signage, advertising, or other promotional efforts.57464

       "Ambulatory surgical facility" does not include a hospital 57465
emergency department.57466

       (2) "Ambulatory surgical facility fee" means a fee for 57467
certain overhead costs associated with providing surgical services 57468
in an outpatient setting. A fee is an ambulatory surgical facility 57469
fee only if it directly or indirectly pays for costs associated 57470
with any of the following:57471

       (a) Use of operating and recovery rooms, preparation areas, 57472
and waiting rooms and lounges for patients and relatives;57473

       (b) Administrative functions, record keeping, housekeeping, 57474
utilities, and rent;57475

       (c) Services provided by nurses, orderlies, technical 57476
personnel, and others involved in patient care related to 57477
providing surgery.57478

       "Ambulatory surgical facility fee" does not include any 57479
additional payment in excess of a professional fee that is 57480
provided to encourage physicians, podiatrists, and dentists to 57481
perform certain surgical procedures in their office or their group 57482
practice's office rather than a health care facility, if the 57483
purpose of the additional fee is to compensate for additional cost 57484
incurred in performing office-based surgery.57485

       (3) "Governmental health care program" has the same meaning 57486
as in section 4731.65 of the Revised Code.57487

       (4) "Health care facility" means any of the following:57488

       (a) An ambulatory surgical facility;57489

       (b) A freestanding dialysis center;57490

       (c) A freestanding inpatient rehabilitation facility;57491

       (d) A freestanding birthing center;57492

       (e) A freestanding radiation therapy center;57493

       (f) A freestanding or mobile diagnostic imaging center.57494

       (5) "Third-party payer" has the same meaning as in section 57495
3901.38 of the Revised Code.57496

       (B) By rule adopted in accordance with sections 3702.12 and 57497
3702.13 of the Revised Code, the director of health shall 57498
establish quality standards for health care facilities. The 57499
standards may incorporate accreditation standards or other quality 57500
standards established by any entity recognized by the director.57501

       In the case of an ambulatory surgical facility, the standards 57502
shall require the ambulatory surgical facility to maintain an 57503
infection control program. The purposes of the program are to 57504
minimize infections and communicable diseases and facilitate a 57505
functional and sanitary environment consistent with standards of 57506
professional practice. To achieve these purposes, ambulatory 57507
surgical facility staff managing the program shall create and 57508
administer a plan designed to prevent, identify, and manage 57509
infections and communicable diseases; ensure that the program is 57510
directed by a qualified professional trained in infection control; 57511
ensure that the program is an integral part of the ambulatory 57512
surgical facility's quality assessment and performance improvement 57513
program; and implement in an expeditious manner corrective and 57514
preventive measures that result in improvement. 57515

       (C) Every ambulatory surgical facility shall require that 57516
each physician who practices at the facility comply with all 57517
relevant provisions in the Revised Code that relate to the 57518
obtaining of informed consent from a patient.57519

       (D) The director shall issue a license to each health care 57520
facility that makes application for a license and demonstrates to 57521
the director that it meets the quality standards established by 57522
the rules adopted under division (B) of this section and satisfies 57523
the informed consent compliance requirements specified in division 57524
(C) of this section.57525

       (E)(1) Except as provided in division (H) of this section and 57526
in section 3702.301 of the Revised Code, no health care facility 57527
shall operate without a license issued under this section.57528

       (2) If the department of health finds that a physician who 57529
practices at a health care facility is not complying with any 57530
provision of the Revised Code related to the obtaining of informed 57531
consent from a patient, the department shall report its finding to 57532
the state medical board, the physician, and the health care 57533
facility.57534

       (3) This division does not create, and shall not be construed 57535
as creating, a new cause of action or substantive legal right 57536
against a health care facility and in favor of a patient who 57537
allegedly sustains harm as a result of the failure of the 57538
patient's physician to obtain informed consent from the patient 57539
prior to performing a procedure on or otherwise caring for the 57540
patient in the health care facility.57541

       (F) The rules adopted under division (B) of this section 57542
shall include all of the following:57543

       (1) Provisions governing application for, renewal, 57544
suspension, and revocation of a license under this section;57545

       (2) Provisions governing orders issued pursuant to section 57546
3702.32 of the Revised Code for a health care facility to cease 57547
its operations or to prohibit certain types of services provided 57548
by a health care facility;57549

       (3) Provisions governing the imposition under section 3702.32 57550
of the Revised Code of civil penalties for violations of this 57551
section or the rules adopted under this section, including a scale 57552
for determining the amount of the penalties;57553

       (4) Provisions specifying the form inspectors must use when 57554
conducting inspections of ambulatory surgical facilities.57555

       (G) An ambulatory surgical facility that performs or induces 57556
abortions shall comply with section 3701.791 of the Revised Code.57557

       (H) The following entities are not required to obtain a 57558
license as a freestanding diagnostic imaging center issued under 57559
this section:57560

       (1) A hospital registered under section 3701.07 of the 57561
Revised Code that provides diagnostic imaging;57562

       (2) An entity that is reviewed as part of a hospital 57563
accreditation or certification program and that provides 57564
diagnostic imaging;57565

       (3) An ambulatory surgical facility that provides diagnostic 57566
imaging in conjunction with or during any portion of a surgical 57567
procedure.57568

       Sec. 3702.302.  In the case of an ambulatory surgical 57569
facility not certified by the centers for medicare and medicaid 57570
services as an ambulatory surgical center, the director of health 57571
shall conduct an inspection of the facility each time the facility 57572
submits an application for license renewal. The director shall not 57573
renew the license unless all of the following conditions are met:57574

       (A) The inspector conducting the inspection completes each 57575
item on the following, as applicable:57576

       (1) Until the director adopts rules under division (F) of 57577
section 3702.30 of the Revised Code, the form approved by the 57578
director on the effective date of this section;57579

       (2) The form specified by the director pursuant to rules 57580
adopted under division (F) of section 3702.30 of the Revised Code.57581

       (B) The inspection demonstrates that the ambulatory surgical 57582
facility complies with all quality standards established by the 57583
director in rules adopted under division (B) of section 3702.30 of 57584
the Revised Code.57585

       (C) The director determines that the most recent version of 57586
the updated written transfer agreement filed in accordance with 57587
division (B) of section 3702.303 of the Revised Code is 57588
satisfactory.57589

       Sec. 3702.303. (A) Except as provided in division (C) of this 57590
section, an ambulatory surgical facility shall have a written 57591
transfer agreement with a local hospital that specifies an 57592
effective procedure for the safe and immediate transfer of 57593
patients from the facility to the hospital when medical care 57594
beyond the care that can be provided at the ambulatory surgical 57595
facility is necessary, including when emergency situations occur 57596
or medical complications arise. A copy of the agreement shall be 57597
filed with the director of health.57598

       (B) An ambulatory surgical facility shall update a written 57599
transfer agreement each year and file a copy of the updated 57600
agreement with the director.57601

       (C) The requirement for a written transfer agreement between 57602
an ambulatory surgical facility and a hospital does not apply if 57603
either of the following is the case:57604

       (1) The facility is a provider-based entity, as defined in 42 57605
C.F.R. 413.65(a)(2), of a hospital and the facility's policies and 57606
procedures to address situations when care beyond the care that 57607
can be provided at the ambulatory surgical facility are approved 57608
by the governing body of the facility's parent hospital and 57609
implemented;57610

       (2) The director of health has, pursuant to the procedure 57611
specified in section 3702.304 of the Revised Code, granted the 57612
facility a variance from the requirement.57613

       Sec. 3702.304. (A) The director of health may grant a 57614
variance from the written transfer agreement requirement of 57615
section 3702.303 of the Revised Code if the ambulatory surgical 57616
facility submits to the director a complete variance application, 57617
prescribed by the director, and the director determines after 57618
reviewing the application that the facility is capable of 57619
achieving the purpose of a written transfer agreement in the 57620
absence of one.57621

       (B) A variance application is complete for purposes of 57622
division (A) of this section if it contains or includes as 57623
attachments all of the following:57624

       (1) A statement explaining why application of the requirement 57625
would cause the facility undue hardship and why the variance will 57626
not jeopardize the health and safety of any patient;57627

       (2) A letter, contract, or memorandum of understanding signed 57628
by the facility and one or more consulting physicians who have 57629
admitting privileges at a minimum of one local hospital, 57630
memorializing the physician or physicians' agreement to provide 57631
back-up coverage when medical care beyond the level the facility 57632
can provide is necessary;57633

       (3) For each consulting physician described in division 57634
(B)(2) of this section:57635

       (a) A signed statement in which the physician attests that 57636
the physician is familiar with the facility and its operations, 57637
and agrees to provide notice to the facility of any changes in the 57638
physician's ability to provide back-up coverage;57639

       (b) The estimated travel time from the physician's main 57640
residence or office to each local hospital where the physician has 57641
admitting privileges;57642

       (c) Written verification that the facility has a record of 57643
the name, telephone numbers, and practice specialties of the 57644
physician;57645

       (d) Written verification from the state medical board that 57646
the physician possesses a valid certificate to practice medicine 57647
and surgery or osteopathic medicine and surgery issued under 57648
Chapter 4731. of the Revised Code;57649

       (e) Documented verification that each hospital at which the 57650
physician has admitting privileges has been informed in writing by 57651
the physician that the physician is a consulting physician for the 57652
ambulatory surgical facility and has agreed to provide back-up 57653
coverage for the facility when medical care beyond the care the 57654
facility can provide is necessary.57655

       (4) A copy of the facility's operating procedures or 57656
protocols that, at a minimum, do all of the following: 57657

       (a) Address how back-up coverage by consulting physicians is 57658
to occur, including how back-up coverage is to occur when 57659
consulting physicians are temporarily unavailable;57660

       (b) Specify that each consulting physician is required to 57661
notify the facility, without delay, when the physician is unable 57662
to expeditiously admit patients to a local hospital and provide 57663
for continuity of patient care;57664

       (c) Specify that a patient's medical record maintained by the 57665
facility must be transferred contemporaneously with the patient 57666
when the patient is transferred from the facility to a hospital.57667

       (5) Any other information the director considers necessary.57668

       (C) The director's decision to grant or refuse a variance is 57669
final and not subject to any administrative proceedings under 57670
Chapter 119. or any other provision of the Revised Code. 57671

       (D) The director shall consider each application for a 57672
variance independently without regard to any decision the director 57673
may have made on a prior occasion to grant or deny a variance to 57674
that ambulatory surgical facility or any other facility. 57675

       Sec. 3702.305. The director of health may impose conditions 57676
on any variance the director has granted under section 3702.304 of 57677
the Revised Code. The director may, at any time, revoke the 57678
variance if the director determines that the facility is failing 57679
to meet one or more of the conditions.57680

       Sec. 3702.306. A variance the director of health grants under 57681
section 3702.304 of the Revised Code is effective for the period 57682
of time specified by the director, except that it shall not be 57683
effective beyond the date the ambulatory surgical facility's 57684
license expires. If a variance is to expire on the date the 57685
facility's license expires, the facility may submit to the 57686
director an application for a new variance with its next license 57687
renewal application.57688

       Sec. 3702.307. An ambulatory surgical facility shall notify 57689
the director of health when either of the following occurs:57690

       (A) The facility modifies its operating procedures or 57691
protocols described in division (B)(4) of section 3702.304 of the 57692
Revised Code. Notification under these circumstances shall occur 57693
not later than forty-eight hours after the modification is made.57694

       (B) The ambulatory surgical facility becomes aware of an 57695
event, including disciplinary action by the state medical board 57696
pursuant to section 4731.22 of the Revised Code, that may affect a 57697
consulting physician's certificate to practice medicine and 57698
surgery or osteopathic medicine and surgery or the physician's 57699
ability to admit patients to a hospital identified in a variance 57700
application, as described in division (B)(3)(e) of section 57701
3702.304 of the Revised Code. Notification under these 57702
circumstances shall occur not later than one week after the 57703
facility becomes aware of the event's occurrence.57704

       Sec. 3702.51.  As used in sections 3702.51 to 3702.62 of the 57705
Revised Code:57706

       (A) "Applicant" means any person that submits an application 57707
for a certificate of need and who is designated in the application 57708
as the applicant.57709

       (B) "Person" means any individual, corporation, business 57710
trust, estate, firm, partnership, association, joint stock 57711
company, insurance company, government unit, or other entity.57712

       (C) "Certificate of need" means a written approval granted by 57713
the director of health to an applicant to authorize conducting a 57714
reviewable activity.57715

       (D) "Service area" means the current and projected primary 57716
and secondary service areas to which the long-term care facility 57717
is, or will be, providing long-term care services.57718

       (E) "Primary service area" means the geographic region, 57719
usually comprised of the Ohio zip code in which the long-term care 57720
facility is located and contiguous zip codes, from which 57721
approximately seventy-five to eighty per cent of the facility's 57722
residents currently originate or are expected to originate.57723

       (F) "Secondary service area" means the geographic region, 57724
usually comprised of Ohio zip codes not included in the primary 57725
service area, excluding isolated exceptions, from which the 57726
facility's remaining residents currently originate or are expected 57727
to originate.57728

       (G) "Third-party payer" means a health insuring corporation 57729
licensed under Chapter 1751. of the Revised Code, a health 57730
maintenance organization as defined in division (I) of this 57731
section, an insurance company that issues sickness and accident 57732
insurance in conformity with Chapter 3923. of the Revised Code, a 57733
state-financed health insurance program under Chapter 3701.,or57734
4123., or 5111. of the Revised Code, the medicaid program, or any 57735
self-insurance plan.57736

       (H) "Government unit" means the state and any county, 57737
municipal corporation, township, or other political subdivision of 57738
the state, or any department, division, board, or other agency of 57739
the state or a political subdivision.57740

       (I) "Health maintenance organization" means a public or 57741
private organization organized under the law of any state that is 57742
qualified under section 1310(d) of Title XIII of the "Public 57743
Health Service Act," 87 Stat. 931 (1973), 42 U.S.C. 300e-9.57744

       (J) "Existing long-term care facility" means either of the 57745
following:57746

       (1) A long-term care facility that is licensed or otherwise 57747
authorized to operate in this state in accordance with applicable 57748
law, including a county home or a county nursing home that is 57749
certified under Title XVIII or Title XIX of the "Social Security 57750
Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C. 301, as amended, is staffed 57751
and equipped to provide long-term care services, and is actively 57752
providing long-term care services;57753

       (2) A long-term care facility that is licensed or otherwise 57754
authorized to operate in this state in accordance with applicable 57755
law, including a county home or a county nursing home that is 57756
certified under Title XVIII or Title XIX of the "Social Security 57757
Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C. 301, as amended, or that has 57758
beds registered under section 3701.07 of the Revised Code as 57759
skilled nursing beds or long-term care beds and has provided 57760
long-term care services for at least three hundred sixty-five 57761
consecutive days within the twenty-four months immediately 57762
preceding the date a certificate of need application is filed with 57763
the director of health.57764

       (K) "State" means the state of Ohio, including, but not 57765
limited to, the general assembly, the supreme court, the offices 57766
of all elected state officers, and all departments, boards, 57767
offices, commissions, agencies, institutions, and other 57768
instrumentalities of the state of Ohio. "State" does not include 57769
political subdivisions.57770

       (L) "Political subdivision" means a municipal corporation, 57771
township, county, school district, and all other bodies corporate 57772
and politic responsible for governmental activities only in 57773
geographic areas smaller than that of the state to which the 57774
sovereign immunity of the state attaches.57775

       (M) "Affected person" means:57776

       (1) An applicant for a certificate of need, including an 57777
applicant whose application was reviewed comparatively with the 57778
application in question;57779

       (2) The person that requested the reviewability ruling in 57780
question;57781

       (3) Any person that resides or regularly uses long-term care 57782
facilities within the service area served or to be served by the 57783
long-term care services that would be provided under the 57784
certificate of need or reviewability ruling in question;57785

       (4) Any long-term care facility that is located in the 57786
service area where the long-term care services would be provided 57787
under the certificate of need or reviewability ruling in question;57788

       (5) Third-party payers that reimburse long-term care 57789
facilities for services in the service area where the long-term 57790
care services would be provided under the certificate of need or 57791
reviewability ruling in question.57792

       (N) "Long-term care facility" means any of the following:57793

       (1) A nursing home licensed under section 3721.02 of the 57794
Revised Code or by a political subdivision certified under section 57795
3721.09 of the Revised Code;57796

       (2) The portion of any facility, including a county home or 57797
county nursing home, that is certified as a skilled nursing 57798
facility or a nursing facility under Title XVIII or XIX of the 57799
"Social Security Act";57800

       (3) The portion of any hospital that contains beds registered 57801
under section 3701.07 of the Revised Code as skilled nursing beds 57802
or long-term care beds.57803

       (O) "Long-term care bed" or "bed" means a bed that is 57804
categorized as one of the following:57805

        (1) A bed that is located in a facility that is a nursing 57806
home licensed under section 3721.02 of the Revised Code or a 57807
facility licensed by a political subdivision certified under 57808
section 3721.09 of the Revised Code and is included in the 57809
authorized maximum licensed capacity of the facility;57810

       (2) A bed that is located in the portion of any facility, 57811
including a county home or county nursing home, that is certified 57812
as a skilled nursing facility under the medicare program or a 57813
nursing facility under the medicaid program and is included in the 57814
authorized maximum certified capacity of that portion of the 57815
facility;57816

       (3) A bed that is registered under section 3701.07 of the 57817
Revised Code as a skilled nursing bed, a long-term care bed, or a 57818
special skilled nursing bed;57819

       (4) A bed in a county home or county nursing home that has 57820
been certified under section 5155.38 of the Revised Code as having 57821
been in operation on July 1, 1993, and is eligible for licensure 57822
as a nursing home bed;57823

       (5) A bed held as an approved bed under a certificate of need 57824
approved by the director.57825

       A bed cannot simultaneously be both a bed described in 57826
division (O)(1), (2), (3), or (4) of this section and a bed 57827
described in division (O)(5) of this section.57828

       (P) "Reviewability ruling" means a ruling issued by the 57829
director of health under division (A) of section 3702.52 of the 57830
Revised Code as to whether a particular proposed project is or is 57831
not a reviewable activity.57832

       (Q) "County nursing home" has the same meaning as in section 57833
5155.31 of the Revised Code.57834

       (R) "Principal participant" means both of the following:57835

       (1) A person who has an ownership or controlling interest of 57836
at least five per cent in an applicant, in a long-term care 57837
facility that is the subject of an application for a certificate 57838
of need, or in the owner or operator of the applicant or such a 57839
facility;57840

       (2) An officer, director, trustee, or general partner of an 57841
applicant, of a long-term care facility that is the subject of an 57842
application for a certificate of need, or of the owner or operator 57843
of the applicant or such a facility.57844

       (S) "Actual harm but not immediate jeopardy deficiency" means 57845
a deficiency that, under 42 C.F.R. 488.404, either constitutes a 57846
pattern of deficiencies resulting in actual harm that is not 57847
immediate jeopardy or represents widespread deficiencies resulting 57848
in actual harm that is not immediate jeopardy.57849

       (T) "Immediate jeopardy deficiency" means a deficiency that, 57850
under 42 C.F.R. 488.404, either constitutes a pattern of 57851
deficiencies resulting in immediate jeopardy to resident health or 57852
safety or represents widespread deficiencies resulting in 57853
immediate jeopardy to resident health or safety.57854

       (U) "Existing bed" or "existing long-term care bed" means a 57855
bed from an existing long-term care facility, a bed described in 57856
division (O)(5) of this section, or a bed correctly reported as a 57857
long-term care bed pursuant to section 5155.38 of the Revised 57858
Code.57859

       Sec. 3702.521.  (A) Reviews of applications for certificates 57860
of need to recategorize hospital beds to skilled nursing beds 57861
shall be conducted in accordance with this division and rules 57862
adopted by the director of health. 57863

       (1) No hospital recategorizing beds shall apply for a 57864
certificate of need for more than twenty skilled nursing beds.57865

       (2) No beds for which a certificate of need is requested 57866
under this division shall be reviewed under or counted in any 57867
formula developed under rules adopted by the director for the 57868
purpose of determining the number of long-term care beds that may 57869
be needed within the state.57870

       (3) No beds shall be approved under this division unless the 57871
hospital certifies and demonstrates in the application that the 57872
beds will be dedicated to patients with a length of stay of no 57873
more than thirty days.57874

       (4) No beds shall be approved under this division unless the 57875
hospital can satisfactorily demonstrate in the application that it 57876
is routinely unable to place the patients planned for the beds in 57877
accessible skilled nursing facilities.57878

       (5) In developing rules to implement this division, the 57879
director shall give special attention to the required 57880
documentation of the need for such beds, including the efforts 57881
made by the hospital to place patients in suitable skilled nursing 57882
facilities, and special attention to the appropriate size of units 57883
with such beds given the historical pattern of the applicant 57884
hospital's documented difficulty in placing skilled nursing 57885
patients.57886

       (B) For assistance in monitoring the use of hospital beds 57887
recategorized as skilled nursing beds after August 5, 1989, the 57888
director shall adopt rules specifying appropriate quarterly 57889
procedures for reporting to the department of health.57890

       (C) A patient may stay in a hospital bed that, after August 57891
5, 1989, has been recategorized as a skilled nursing bed for more 57892
than thirty days if the hospital is able to demonstrate that it 57893
made a good faith effort to place the patient in an accessible 57894
skilled nursing facility acceptable to the patient within the 57895
thirty-day period, but was unable to do so.57896

       (D) No hospital bed recategorized after August 5, 1989, as a 57897
skilled nursing bed shall be covered by a provider agreement under 57898
the medical assistancemedicaid program established under Chapter 57899
5111. of the Revised Code.57900

       (E) Nothing in this section requires a hospital to place a 57901
patient in any nursing home if the patient does not wish to be 57902
placed in the nursing home. Nothing in this section limits the 57903
ability of a hospital to file a certificate of need application 57904
for the addition of long-term care beds that meet the definition 57905
of "home" in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code. Nothing in this 57906
section limits the ability of the director to grant certificates 57907
of need necessary for hospitals to engage in demonstration 57908
projects authorized by the federal government for the purpose of 57909
enhancing long-term quality of care and cost containment. Nothing 57910
in this section limits the ability of hospitals to develop swing 57911
bed programs in accordance with federal regulations.57912

       No hospital that is granted a certificate of need after 57913
August 5, 1989, to recategorize hospital beds as skilled nursing 57914
beds is subject to sections 3721.01 to 3721.09 of the Revised 57915
Code. If the portion of the hospital in which the recategorized 57916
beds are located is certified as a skilled nursing facility under 57917
Title XVIII of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 57918
U.S.C.A. 301, as amended, that portion of the hospital is subject 57919
to sections 3721.10 to 3721.17 and sections 3721.21 to 3721.34 of 57920
the Revised Code. If the beds are registered pursuant to section 57921
3701.07 of the Revised Code as long-term care beds, the beds are 57922
subject to sections 3721.505168.40 to 3721.585168.56 of the 57923
Revised Code.57924

       Sec. 3702.55.  A person that the director of health 57925
determines has violated section 3702.53 of the Revised Code shall 57926
cease conducting the activity that constitutes the violation or 57927
utilizing the facility resulting from the violation not later than 57928
thirty days after the person receives the notice mailed under 57929
section 3702.532 of the Revised Code or, if the person appeals the 57930
director's determination under section 3702.60 of the Revised 57931
Code, thirty days after the person receives an order upholding the 57932
director's determination that is not subject to further appeal. 57933

       If any person determined to have violated section 3702.53 of 57934
the Revised Code fails to cease conducting an activity or using a 57935
facility as required by this section or if the person continues to 57936
seek payment or reimbursement for services rendered or costs 57937
incurred in conducting the activity as prohibited by section 57938
3702.56 of the Revised Code, in addition to the penalties imposed 57939
under section 3702.54 or 3702.541 of the Revised Code:57940

       (A) The director of health may refuse to include any beds 57941
involved in the activity in the bed capacity of a hospital for 57942
purposes of registration under section 3701.07 of the Revised 57943
Code;57944

       (B) The director of health may refuse to license, or may 57945
revoke a license or reduce bed capacity previously granted to, a 57946
hospice care program under section 3712.04 of the Revised Code; a 57947
nursing home, residential care facility, or home for the aging 57948
under section 3721.02 of the Revised Code; or any beds within any 57949
of those facilities that are involved in the activity;57950

       (C) A political subdivision certified under section 3721.09 57951
of the Revised Code may refuse to license, or may revoke a license 57952
or reduce bed capacity previously granted to, a nursing home, 57953
residential care facility, or home for the aging, or any beds 57954
within any of those facilities that are involved in the activity;57955

       (D) The director of mental healthmental health and addiction 57956
services may refuse to license under section 5119.205119.33 of 57957
the Revised Code, or may revoke a license or reduce bed capacity 57958
previously granted to, a hospital receiving mentally ill persons 57959
or beds within such a hospital that are involved in the activity;57960

       (E) The department of job and family servicesmedicaid may 57961
refuse to enter into a provider agreement that includes a 57962
facility, beds, or services that result from the activity.57963

       Sec. 3702.62.  Sections 3702.51 to 3702.61 of the Revised 57964
Code do not apply to any part of a long-term care facility's 57965
campus that is certified as an intermediate care facility for the 57966
mentally retarded under Title XIX of the "Social Security Act," 79 57967
Stat. 343 (1965), 42 U.S.C. 1396 et seq., as amended, as defined 57968
in section 5124.01 of the Revised Code.57969

       Sec. 3702.74.  (A) A primary care physician who has signed a 57970
letter of intent under section 3702.73 of the Revised Code and the 57971
director of health may enter into a contract for the physician's 57972
participation in the physician loan repayment program. The 57973
physician's employer or other funding source may also be a party 57974
to the contract.57975

       (B) The contract shall include all of the following 57976
obligations:57977

       (1) The primary care physician agrees to provide primary care 57978
services in the health resource shortage area identified in the 57979
letter of intent for at least two years;57980

       (2) When providing primary care services in the health 57981
resource shortage area, the primary care physician agrees to do 57982
all of the following:57983

       (a) Provide primary care services for a minimum of forty 57984
hours per week, of which at least twenty-one hours will be spent 57985
providing patient care in an outpatient or ambulatory setting;57986

       (b) Provide primary care services without regard to a 57987
patient's ability to pay;57988

       (c) Meet the conditions prescribed by the "Social Security 57989
Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended, and the 57990
department of job and family servicesrequirements for 57991
participation in thea medicaid program established under Chapter 57992
5111. of the Revised Codeprovider agreement and enter into a 57993
contractthe agreement with the department of medicaid to provide 57994
primary care services to medicaid recipients of the medical 57995
assistance program.57996

       (3) The department of health agrees, as provided in section 57997
3702.75 of the Revised Code, to repay, so long as the primary care 57998
physician performs the service obligation agreed to under division 57999
(B)(1) of this section, all or part of the principal and interest 58000
of a government or other educational loan taken by the primary 58001
care physician for expenses described in section 3702.75 of the 58002
Revised Code;58003

       (4) The primary care physician agrees to pay the department 58004
of health an amount established by rules adopted under section 58005
3702.79 of the Revised Code if the physician fails to complete the 58006
service obligation agreed to under division (B)(1) of this 58007
section.58008

       (C) The contract may include any other terms agreed upon by 58009
the parties.58010

       Sec. 3702.91.  (A) An individual who has signed a letter of 58011
intent under section 3702.90 of the Revised Code may enter into a 58012
contract with the director of health for participation in the 58013
dentist loan repayment program. The dentist's employer or other 58014
funding source may also be a party to the contract.58015

       (B) The contract shall include all of the following 58016
obligations:58017

       (1) The individual agrees to provide dental services in the 58018
dental health resource shortage area identified in the letter of 58019
intent for at least two years.58020

       (2) When providing dental services in the dental health 58021
resource shortage area, the individual agrees to do all of the 58022
following:58023

       (a) Provide dental services for a minimum of forty hours per 58024
week;58025

       (b) Provide dental services without regard to a patient's 58026
ability to pay;58027

       (c) Meet the conditions prescribed by the "Social Security 58028
Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C. 301, as amended, and the 58029
department of job and family servicesrequirements for 58030
participation in thea medicaid program established under Chapter 58031
5111. of the Revised Codeprovider agreement and enter into a 58032
contractthe agreement with the department of medicaid to provide 58033
dental services to medicaid recipients.58034

       (3) The department of health agrees, as provided in section 58035
3702.85 of the Revised Code, to repay, so long as the individual 58036
performs the service obligation agreed to under division (B)(1) of 58037
this section, all or part of the principal and interest of a 58038
government or other educational loan taken by the individual for 58039
expenses described in section 3702.85 of the Revised Code.58040

       (4) The individual agrees to pay the department of health an 58041
amount established by rules adopted under section 3702.86 of the 58042
Revised Code, if the individual fails to complete the service 58043
obligation agreed to under division (B)(1) of this section.58044

       (C) The contract may include any other terms agreed upon by 58045
the parties.58046

       (D) Not later than the thirty-first day of January of each 58047
year, the department of health shall mail to each individual to 58048
whom or on whose behalf repayment is made under the dentist loan 58049
repayment program a statement showing the amount of principal and 58050
interest repaid by the department pursuant to the contract in the 58051
preceding year. The statement shall be sent by ordinary mail with 58052
address correction and forwarding requested in the manner 58053
prescribed by the United States postal service.58054

       Sec. 3704.144. (A) Gifts, grants, and contributions for the 58055
purpose of adding pollution control equipment to diesel-powered 58056
school buses and converting diesel-powered school buses to 58057
alternative fuels, including contributions that are made pursuant 58058
to the settlement of an administrative action or civil action that 58059
is brought at the request of the director of environmental 58060
protection pursuant to Chapter 3704., 3714., 3734., 6109., or 58061
6111. of the Revised Code, shall be credited to the clean diesel 58062
school bus fund, which is hereby created in the state treasury. 58063
The director shall use money credited to the fund to make grants 58064
to school districts in the state and to county boards of 58065
developmental disabilities for the purpose of adding pollution 58066
control equipment to diesel-powered school buses and converting 58067
diesel-powered school buses to alternative fuels by means of 58068
certified engine configurations and verified technologies that are 58069
consistent with the requirements of section 793 and any 58070
regulations adopted under that section and to pay the 58071
environmental protection agency's costs incurred in administering 58072
this section. In addition, the director may use money credited to 58073
the fund to make grants to school districts and to county boards 58074
of developmental disabilities for the purpose of maintaining 58075
pollution control equipment that is installed on diesel-powered 58076
school buses and to pay the additional cost incurred by a school 58077
district or a county board for using ultra-low sulfur diesel fuel 58078
instead of diesel fuel for the operation of diesel-powered school 58079
buses.58080

       (B) In making grants under this section, the director shall 58081
give priority to school districts and to county boards of 58082
developmental disabilities that are located in a county that is 58083
designated as nonattainment by the United States environmental 58084
protection agency for the fine particulate national ambient air 58085
quality standard under the federal Clean Air Act. In addition, the 58086
director may give a higher priority to a school district or a 58087
county board of developmental disabilities that employs additional 58088
measures that reduce air pollution from the district's or the 58089
county board's school bus fleet.58090

       (C) The director shall adopt rules establishing procedures 58091
and requirements that are necessary to implement this section, 58092
including procedures and requirements governing applications for 58093
grants.58094

       (D) As used in this section:58095

        (1) "Alternative fuel" has the same meaning as in section 58096
125.831 of the Revised Code.58097

        (2) "Certified engine configuration" and "section 793" have 58098
the same meanings as in section 122.861 of the Revised Code.58099

        (3) "Verified technology" means a pollution control 58100
technology, including retrofit technology and auxiliary power 58101
unit, that has been verified by the administrator of the United 58102
States environmental protection agency or the California air 58103
resources board.58104

       Sec. 3706.01.  As used in this chapter:58105

       (A) "Governmental agency" means a department, division, or 58106
other unit of state government, a municipal corporation, county, 58107
township, and other political subdivision, or any other public 58108
corporation or agency having the power to acquire, construct, or 58109
operate air quality facilities, the United States or any agency 58110
thereof, and any agency, commission, or authority established 58111
pursuant to an interstate compact or agreement.58112

       (B) "Person" means any individual, firm, partnership, 58113
association, or corporation, or any combination thereof.58114

       (C) "Air contaminant" means particulate matter, dust, fumes, 58115
gas, mist, smoke, noise, vapor, heat, radioactivity, radiation, or 58116
odorous substance, or any combination thereof.58117

       (D) "Air pollution" means the presence in the ambient air of 58118
one or more air contaminants in sufficient quantity and of such 58119
characteristics and duration as to injure human health or welfare, 58120
plant or animal life, or property, or that unreasonably interferes 58121
with the comfortable enjoyment of life or property.58122

       (E) "Ambient air" means that portion of the atmosphere 58123
outside of buildings and other enclosures, stacks, or ducts that 58124
surrounds human, plant, or animal life, or property.58125

       (F) "Emission" means the release into the outdoor atmosphere 58126
of an air contaminant.58127

       (G) "Air quality facility" means any of the following:58128

       (1) Any method, modification or replacement of property, 58129
process, device, structure, or equipment that removes, reduces, 58130
prevents, contains, alters, conveys, stores, disperses, or 58131
disposes of air contaminants or substances containing air 58132
contaminants, or that renders less noxious or reduces the 58133
concentration of air contaminants in the ambient air, including, 58134
without limitation, facilities and expenditures that qualify as 58135
air pollution control facilities under section 103 (C)(4)(F) of 58136
the Internal Revenue Code of 1954, as amended, and regulations 58137
adopted thereunder;58138

       (2) Motor vehicle inspection stations operated in accordance 58139
with, and any equipment used for motor vehicle inspections 58140
conducted under, section 3704.14 of the Revised Code and rules 58141
adopted under it;58142

       (3) Ethanol or other biofuel facilities, including any 58143
equipment used at the ethanol or other biofuel facility for the 58144
production of ethanol or other biofuels;58145

       (4) Any property or portion thereof used for the collection, 58146
storage, treatment, utilization, processing, or final disposal of 58147
a by-product or solid waste resulting from any method, process, 58148
device, structure, or equipment that removes, reduces, prevents, 58149
contains, alters, conveys, stores, disperses, or disposes of air 58150
contaminants, or that renders less noxious or reduces the 58151
concentration of air contaminants in the ambient air;58152

       (5) Any property, device, or equipment that promotes the 58153
reduction of emissions of air contaminants into the ambient air 58154
through improvements in the efficiency of energy utilization or 58155
energy conservation;58156

       (6) Any coal research and development project conducted under 58157
Chapter 1555. of the Revised Code;58158

        (7) As determined by the director of the Ohio coal 58159
development office, any property or portion thereof that is used 58160
for the collection, storage, treatment, utilization, processing, 58161
or final disposal of a by-product resulting from a coal research 58162
and development project as defined in section 1555.01 of the 58163
Revised Code or from the use of clean coal technology, excluding 58164
any property or portion thereof that is used primarily for other 58165
subsequent commercial purposes;58166

        (8) Any property or portion thereof that is part of the 58167
FutureGen project of the United States department of energy or 58168
related to the siting of the FutureGen project.;58169

       (9) Any property, device, or equipment that promotes the 58170
reduction of emissions of air contaminants into the ambient air 58171
through the generation of clean, renewable energy with renewable 58172
energy resources or advanced energy resources as defined in 58173
section 3706.25 of the Revised Code.;58174

        (10) Any property, device, structure or equipment necessary 58175
for the manufacture and production of equipment described as an 58176
air quality facility under this chapter;58177

       (11) Any property, device, or equipment related to the 58178
recharging or refueling of vehicles that promotes the reduction of 58179
emissions of air contaminants into the ambient air through the use 58180
of an alternative fuel as defined in section 125.831 of the 58181
Revised Code or the use of a renewable energy resource as defined 58182
in section 3706.25 of the Revised Code.58183

       "Air quality facility" further includes any property or 58184
system to be used in whole or in part for any of the purposes in 58185
divisions (G)(1) to (10)(11) of this section, whether another 58186
purpose is also served, and any property or system incidental to 58187
or that has to do with, or the end purpose of which is, any of the 58188
foregoing. Air quality facilities that are defined in this 58189
division for industry, commerce, distribution, or research, 58190
including public utility companies, are hereby determined to be 58191
those that qualify as facilities for the control of air pollution 58192
and thermal pollution related to air under Section 13 of Article 58193
VIII, Ohio Constitution.58194

       (H) "Project" or "air quality project" means any air quality 58195
facility, including undivided or other interests therein, acquired 58196
or to be acquired or constructed or to be constructed by the Ohio 58197
air quality development authority under this chapter, or acquired 58198
or to be acquired or constructed or to be constructed by a 58199
governmental agency or person with all or a part of the cost 58200
thereof being paid from a loan or grant from the authority under 58201
this chapter or otherwise paid from the proceeds of air quality 58202
revenue bonds, including all buildings and facilities that the 58203
authority determines necessary for the operation of the project, 58204
together with all property, rights, easements, and interests that 58205
may be required for the operation of the project.58206

       (I) "Cost" as applied to an air quality project means the 58207
cost of acquisition and construction, the cost of acquisition of 58208
all land, rights-of-way, property rights, easements, franchise 58209
rights, and interests required for such acquisition and 58210
construction, the cost of demolishing or removing any buildings or 58211
structures on land so acquired, including the cost of acquiring 58212
any lands to which such buildings or structures may be moved, the 58213
cost of acquiring or constructing and equipping a principal office 58214
and sub-offices of the authority, the cost of diverting highways, 58215
interchange of highways, and access roads to private property, 58216
including the cost of land or easements for such access roads, the 58217
cost of public utility and common carrier relocation or 58218
duplication, the cost of all machinery, furnishings, and 58219
equipment, financing charges, interest prior to and during 58220
construction and for no more than eighteen months after completion 58221
of construction, engineering, expenses of research and development 58222
with respect to air quality facilities, the cost of any commodity 58223
contract, including fees and expenses related thereto, legal 58224
expenses, plans, specifications, surveys, studies, estimates of 58225
cost and revenues, working capital, other expenses necessary or 58226
incident to determining the feasibility or practicability of 58227
acquiring or constructing such project, administrative expense, 58228
and such other expense as may be necessary or incident to the 58229
acquisition or construction of the project, the financing of such 58230
acquisition or construction, including the amount authorized in 58231
the resolution of the authority providing for the issuance of air 58232
quality revenue bonds to be paid into any special funds from the 58233
proceeds of such bonds, and the financing of the placing of such 58234
project in operation. Any obligation, cost, or expense incurred by 58235
any governmental agency or person for surveys, borings, 58236
preparation of plans and specifications, and other engineering 58237
services, or any other cost described above, in connection with 58238
the acquisition or construction of a project may be regarded as a 58239
part of the cost of that project and may be reimbursed out of the 58240
proceeds of air quality revenue bonds as authorized by this 58241
chapter.58242

       (J) "Owner" includes an individual, copartnership, 58243
association, or corporation having any title or interest in any 58244
property, rights, easements, or interests authorized to be 58245
acquired by this chapter.58246

       (K) "Revenues" means all rentals and other charges received 58247
by the authority for the use or services of any air quality 58248
project, any gift or grant received with respect to any air 58249
quality project, any moneys received with respect to the lease, 58250
sublease, sale, including installment sale or conditional sale, or 58251
other disposition of an air quality project, moneys received in 58252
repayment of and for interest on any loans made by the authority 58253
to a person or governmental agency, whether from the United States 58254
or any department, administration, or agency thereof, or 58255
otherwise, proceeds of such bonds to the extent that use thereof 58256
for payment of principal of, premium, if any, or interest on the 58257
bonds is authorized by the authority, amounts received or 58258
otherwise derived from a commodity contract or from the sale of 58259
the related commodity under such a contract, proceeds from any 58260
insurance, condemnation, or guaranty pertaining to a project or 58261
property mortgaged to secure bonds or pertaining to the financing 58262
of the project, and income and profit from the investment of the 58263
proceeds of air quality revenue bonds or of any revenues.58264

       (L) "Public roads" includes all public highways, roads, and 58265
streets in the state, whether maintained by the state, county, 58266
city, township, or other political subdivision.58267

       (M) "Public utility facilities" includes tracks, pipes, 58268
mains, conduits, cables, wires, towers, poles, and other equipment 58269
and appliances of any public utility.58270

       (N) "Construction," unless the context indicates a different 58271
meaning or intent, includes reconstruction, enlargement, 58272
improvement, or providing furnishings or equipment.58273

       (O) "Air quality revenue bonds," unless the context indicates 58274
a different meaning or intent, includes air quality revenue notes, 58275
air quality revenue renewal notes, and air quality revenue 58276
refunding bonds, except that notes issued in anticipation of the 58277
issuance of bonds shall have a maximum maturity of five years as 58278
provided in section 3706.05 of the Revised Code and notes or 58279
renewal notes issued as the definitive obligation may be issued 58280
maturing at such time or times with a maximum maturity of forty 58281
years from the date of issuance of the original note.58282

       (P) "Solid waste" means any garbage; refuse; sludge from a 58283
waste water treatment plant, water supply treatment plant, or air 58284
pollution control facility; and other discarded material, 58285
including solid, liquid, semisolid, or contained gaseous material 58286
resulting from industrial, commercial, mining, and agricultural 58287
operations, and from community activities, but not including solid 58288
or dissolved material in domestic sewage, or solid or dissolved 58289
material in irrigation return flows or industrial discharges that 58290
are point sources subject to permits under section 402 of the 58291
"Federal Water Pollution Control Act Amendments of 1972," 86 Stat. 58292
880, 33 U.S.C.A. 1342, as amended, or source, special nuclear, or 58293
byproduct material as defined by the "Atomic Energy Act of 1954," 58294
68 Stat. 921, 42 U.S.C.A. 2011, as amended.58295

       (Q) "Sludge" means any solid, semisolid, or liquid waste, 58296
other than a recyclable by-product, generated from a municipal, 58297
commercial, or industrial waste water treatment plant, water 58298
supply plant, or air pollution control facility or any other such 58299
wastes having similar characteristics and effects.58300

       (R) "Ethanol or other biofuel facility" means a plant at 58301
which ethanol or other biofuel is produced.58302

       (S) "Ethanol" means fermentation ethyl alcohol derived from 58303
agricultural products, including potatoes, cereal, grains, cheese 58304
whey, and sugar beets; forest products; or other renewable or 58305
biomass resources, including residue and waste generated from the 58306
production, processing, and marketing of agricultural products, 58307
forest products, and other renewable or biomass resources, that 58308
meets all of the specifications in the American society for 58309
testing and materials (ASTM) specification D 4806-88 and is 58310
denatured as specified in Parts 20 and 21 of Title 27 of the Code 58311
of Federal Regulations.58312

       (T) "Biofuel" means any fuel that is made from cellulosic 58313
biomass resources, including renewable organic matter, crop waste 58314
residue, wood, aquatic plants and other crops, animal waste, solid 58315
waste, or sludge, and that is used for the production of energy 58316
for transportation or other purposes.58317

       (U) "FutureGen project" means the buildings, equipment, and 58318
real property and functionally related buildings, equipment, and 58319
real property, including related research projects that support 58320
the development and operation of the buildings, equipment, and 58321
real property, designated by the United States department of 58322
energy and the FutureGen industrial alliance, inc., as the 58323
coal-fueled, zero-emissions power plant designed to prove the 58324
technical and economic feasibility of producing electricity and 58325
hydrogen from coal and nearly eliminating carbon dioxide emissions 58326
through capture and permanent storage.58327

       (V) "Commodity contract" means a contract or series of 58328
contracts entered into in connection with the acquisition or 58329
construction of air quality facilities for the purchase or sale of 58330
a commodity that is eligible for prepayment with the proceeds of 58331
federally tax exempt bonds under sections 103, 141, and 148 of the 58332
Internal Revenue Code of 1986, as amended, and regulations adopted 58333
under it.58334

       Sec. 3707.511.  (A) As used in this section, "physician":58335

       "Physician" means a person authorized under Chapter 4731. of 58336
the Revised Code to practice medicine and surgery or osteopathic 58337
medicine and surgery.58338

       "Chiropractor" means a person licensed under Chapter 4734. of 58339
the Revised Code to practice chiropractic.58340

        (B) A youth sports organization shall provide to the parent, 58341
guardian, or other person having care or charge of an individual 58342
who wishes to practice for or compete in an athletic activity 58343
organized by a youth sports organization the concussion and head 58344
injury information sheet required by section 3707.52 of the 58345
Revised Code. The organization shall provide the information sheet 58346
annually for each sport or other category of athletic activity for 58347
or in which the individual practices or competes.58348

        (C)(1) No individual shall act as a coach or referee for a 58349
youth sports organization unless the individual holds a 58350
pupil-activity program permit issued under section 3319.303 of the 58351
Revised Code for coaching interscholastic athletics or presents 58352
evidence that the individual has successfully completed, within 58353
the previous three years, a training program in recognizing the 58354
symptoms of concussions and head injuries to which the department 58355
of health has provided a link on its internet web site under 58356
section 3707.52 of the Revised Code.58357

       (2) The youth sports organization for which the individual 58358
intends to act as a coach or referee shall inform the individual 58359
of the requirement described in division (C)(1) of this section.58360

       (D) If an individual practicing for or competing in an 58361
athletic event organized by a youth sports organization exhibits 58362
signs, symptoms, or behaviors consistent with having sustained a 58363
concussion or head injury while participating in the practice or 58364
competition, the individual shall be removed from the practice or 58365
competition by one of the following:58366

       (1) The individual who is serving as the individual's coach 58367
during that practice or competition;58368

       (2) An individual who is serving as a referee during that 58369
practice or competition;58370

       (3) An official of the youth sports organization who is 58371
supervising that practice or competition.58372

       (E)(1) If an individual is removed from practice or 58373
competition under division (D) of this section, the coach, 58374
referee, or official who removed the individual shall not allow 58375
the individual, on the same day the individual is removed, to 58376
return to that practice or competition or to participate in any 58377
other practice or competition for which the coach, referee, or 58378
official is responsible. Thereafter, the coach, referee, or 58379
official shall not allow the student to return to that practice or 58380
competition or to participate in any other practice or competition 58381
for which the coach, referee, or official is responsible until 58382
both of the following conditions are satisfied:58383

       (a) The individual's condition is assessed by eitherany of 58384
the following:58385

       (i) A physician;58386

        (ii) A chiropractor;58387

       (iii) Any other licensed health care provider the youth 58388
sports organization, pursuant to division (E)(2) of this section, 58389
authorizes to assess an individual who has been removed from 58390
practice or competition under division (D) of this section.58391

       (b) The individual receives written clearance that it is safe 58392
for the individual to return to practice or competition from a 58393
physician, chiropractor, or from another licensed health care 58394
provider authorized pursuant to division (E)(2) of this section to 58395
grant the clearance.58396

       (2) A youth sports organization may authorize a licensed 58397
health care provider who is not a physician or a chiropractor to 58398
make an assessment or grant a clearance for purposes of division 58399
(E)(1) of this section only if the provider is acting in 58400
accordance with one of the following, as applicable to the 58401
provider's authority to practice in this state:58402

       (a) In consultation with a physician;58403

       (b) Pursuant to the referral of a physician;58404

       (c) In collaboration with a physician;58405

       (d) Under the supervision of a physician.58406

       (3) A physician, chiropractor, or other licensed health care 58407
provider who makes an assessment or grants a clearance for 58408
purposes of division (E)(1) of this section may be a volunteer.58409

       (F)(1) A youth sports organization or official, employee, or 58410
volunteer of a youth sports organization, including a coach or 58411
referee, is not liable in damages in a civil action for injury, 58412
death, or loss to person or property allegedly arising from 58413
providing services or performing duties under this section, unless 58414
the act or omission constitutes willful or wanton misconduct.58415

       (2) This section does not eliminate, limit, or reduce any 58416
other immunity or defense that a public entity, public official, 58417
or public employee may be entitled to under Chapter 2744. or any 58418
other provision of the Revised Code or under the common law of 58419
this state.58420

       Sec. 3709.01.  The state shall be divided into health 58421
districts. Each city constitutes a health district and shall be 58422
known as a "city health district."58423

       The townships and villages in each county shall be combined 58424
into a health district and shall be known as a "general health 58425
district."58426

       As provided for in sections 3709.051, 3709.07, 3709.071, and 58427
3709.10 of the Revised Code, there may be a union of two or more 58428
contiguous general health districts, not to exceed five, a union 58429
of two or more contiguous city health districts to form a single58430
city health district, or a union of a general health district and 58431
one or more city health districts located within or partially 58432
within such general health district.58433

       Sec. 3709.051.  Two or more contiguous city health districts 58434
may be united to form a single city health district by a majority 58435
affirmative vote of the legislative authority of each city 58436
affected by the union.58437

       If at least three per cent of the qualified electors residing 58438
within each of two or more contiguous city health districts sign a 58439
petition proposing a union into a single city health district, an 58440
election shall be held as provided in this section to determine 58441
whether a single city health district shall be formed. The 58442
petition for union may specify regarding the board of health of 58443
the new district:58444

       (A) The qualifications for membership;58445

       (B) The term of office;58446

       (C) The number of members or a method by which the number may 58447
be determined from time to time;58448

       (D) The method of appointment.58449

       Such petition shall be filed with the boards of county 58450
commissioners of the respective counties affected, subject to 58451
approval of the director of health, and such boards shall promptly 58452
certify the text of the proposal to the boards of election for the 58453
purpose of having the proposal placed on the ballot at the next 58454
general election occurring more than ninety days after such 58455
certification. The election procedures provided in Chapter 3505. 58456
of the Revised Code for questions and issues shall apply to the 58457
election. If a majority of the electors voting on the proposal in 58458
each of the health districts affected vote in favor thereof, the 58459
union of such districts into a single city health district shall 58460
be established on the second succeeding first day of January.58461

       Sec. 3709.10.  When it is proposed that two or more58462
contiguous general health districts, not to exceed five, unite in 58463
the formation of one general health district, the district 58464
advisory council of each general health district shall meet and 58465
vote on the question of union. An affirmative majority vote of the 58466
district advisory council shall be required for approval. When the 58467
district advisory councils have voted affirmatively on the 58468
question, they shall meet in joint session and shall elect a board 58469
of health for the combined districts. Each original general health 58470
district shall be entitled to at least one member on the board of 58471
health of the combined districts.58472

       When such union is completed, suchthe district shall 58473
constitute a general health district and shall be governed in the 58474
manner provided for general health districts. When two or more 58475
general health districts unite to form one district, the office of 58476
the board of health shall be located at the county seat of the 58477
county selected by the joint board of district advisory councils.58478

       When two or more general health districts have been combined 58479
into a single district, the county auditor of the county selected 58480
by the joint board of district advisory councils as the location 58481
of the central office of the board of health shall be the auditor 58482
of such district and the county treasurer of such county shall be 58483
the custodian of the health funds of such district. When the 58484
budget of such combined general health district is a matter for 58485
consideration, the members of the budget commissions of the 58486
counties constituting the district shall sit as a joint board for 58487
considering and acting on such budget.58488

       Sec. 3712.051.  (A) As used in this division, "person" does 58489
not include a member of an interdisciplinary team, as defined in 58490
section 3712.01 of the Revised Code, or any individual who is 58491
employed by a person or public agency licensed under section 58492
3712.041 of the Revised Code.58493

       Except as provided in division (B) of this section, no person 58494
or public agency, other than a person or public agency licensed 58495
pursuant to section 3712.041 of the Revised Code, shall hold 58496
itself out as providing a pediatric respite care program, or 58497
provide a pediatric respite care program, or use the term 58498
"pediatric respite care program" or any term containing "pediatric 58499
respite care" to describe or refer to a health program, facility, 58500
or agency.58501

       (B) Division (A) of this section does not apply to any of the 58502
following:58503

        (1) A hospital;58504

        (2) A nursing home or residential care facility, as those 58505
terms are defined in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code;58506

       (3) A home health agency, if it provides services under 58507
contract with a person or public agency providing a pediatric 58508
respite care program licensed under section 3712.041 of the 58509
Revised Code;58510

        (4) A regional, state, or national nonprofit organization 58511
whose members are providers of pediatric respite care programs, 58512
individuals interested in pediatric respite care programs, or 58513
both, as long as the organization does not provide or represent 58514
that it provides pediatric respite care programs;58515

       (5) A person or government entity certified under section 58516
5123.161 of the Revised Code as a supported living provider;58517

       (6) A residential facility licensed under section 5123.19 of 58518
the Revised Code;58519

       (7) A respite care home certified under section 5126.05 of 58520
the Revised Code;58521

       (8) A person providing respite care under a family support 58522
services program established under section 5126.11 of the Revised 58523
Code;58524

       (9) A person or government entity providing respite care 58525
under a medicaid waiver component that the department of 58526
developmental disabilities administers pursuant to section 58527
5111.8715166.21 of the Revised Code.58528

       (C) The department of health shall petition the court of 58529
common pleas of any county in which a person or public agency, 58530
without a license granted under section 3712.041 of the Revised 58531
Code, is holding itself out as providing a pediatric respite care 58532
program, is providing a pediatric respite care program, or is 58533
representing a health program, facility, or agency as a pediatric 58534
respite care program, for an order enjoining that person or public 58535
agency from conducting those activities without a license. The 58536
court has jurisdiction to grant injunctive relief upon a showing 58537
that the respondent named in the petition is conducting those 58538
activities without a license.58539

       Any person or public agency may request the department to 58540
petition the court for injunctive relief under this division, and 58541
the department shall do so if it determines that the person or 58542
public agency named in the request is violating division (A) of 58543
this section.58544

       Sec. 3712.07.  (A) As used in this section, "terminal care 58545
facility for the homeless" means a facility that provides 58546
accommodations to homeless individuals who are terminally ill.58547

       (B) A person or public agency licensed under this chapter to 58548
provide a hospice care program may enter into an agreement with a 58549
terminal care facility for the homeless under which hospice care 58550
program services may be provided to individuals residing at the 58551
facility, if all of the following apply:58552

       (1) Each resident of the facility has been diagnosed by a 58553
physician as having a terminal condition and an anticipated life 58554
expectancy of six months or less;58555

       (2) No resident of the facility has a relative or other 58556
person willing or capable of providing the care necessary to cope 58557
with histhe resident's terminal illness or is financially capable 58558
of hiring a person to provide such care;58559

       (3) Each resident of the facility is under the direct care of 58560
a physician;58561

       (4) No resident of the facility requires the staff of the 58562
facility to administer medication by injection;58563

       (5) The facility does not receive any remuneration, directly 58564
or indirectly, from the residents;58565

       (6) The facility does not receive any remuneration, directly 58566
or indirectly, from the medical assistancemedicaid program58567
established under section 5111.01 of the Revised Code or the 58568
medicare program established under Title XVIII of the "Social 58569
Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended;58570

       (7) The facility meets all applicable state and federal 58571
health and safety standards, including standards for fire 58572
prevention, maintenance of safe and sanitary conditions, and 58573
proper preparation and storage of foods.58574

       (C) Hospice care program services may be provided at a 58575
terminal care facility for the homeless only by the personnel of 58576
the person or public agency that has entered into an agreement 58577
with the facility under this section.58578

       (D) A terminal care facility for the homeless that has 58579
entered into an agreement under this section may assist its 58580
residents with the self-administration of medication if the 58581
medication has been prescribed by a physician and is not 58582
administered by injection. In the event that a resident has 58583
entered the final stages of dying and is no longer mentally alert, 58584
the facility may administer medication to that resident if the 58585
medication has been prescribed by a physician and is not 58586
administered by injection. Determinations of whether an individual 58587
has entered the final stages of dying and is no longer mentally 58588
alert shall be based on directions from the personnel who provide 58589
hospice care program services at the facility.58590

       Sec. 3712.09.  (A) As used in this section:58591

       (1) "Applicant" means a person who is under final 58592
consideration for employment with a hospice care program or 58593
pediatric respite care program in a full-time, part-time, or 58594
temporary position that involves providing direct care to an older 58595
adult or pediatric respite care patient. "Applicant" does not 58596
include a person who provides direct care as a volunteer without 58597
receiving or expecting to receive any form of remuneration other 58598
than reimbursement for actual expenses.58599

       (2) "Criminal records check" has the same meaning as in 58600
section 109.572 of the Revised Code.58601

       (3) "Older adult" means a person age sixty or older.58602

       (B)(1) Except as provided in division (I) of this section, 58603
the chief administrator of a hospice care program or pediatric 58604
respite care program shall request that the superintendent of the 58605
bureau of criminal identification and investigation conduct a 58606
criminal records check of each applicant. If an applicant for whom 58607
a criminal records check request is required under this division 58608
does not present proof of having been a resident of this state for 58609
the five-year period immediately prior to the date the criminal 58610
records check is requested or provide evidence that within that 58611
five-year period the superintendent has requested information 58612
about the applicant from the federal bureau of investigation in a 58613
criminal records check, the chief administrator shall request that 58614
the superintendent obtain information from the federal bureau of 58615
investigation as part of the criminal records check of the 58616
applicant. Even if an applicant for whom a criminal records check 58617
request is required under this division presents proof of having 58618
been a resident of this state for the five-year period, the chief 58619
administrator may request that the superintendent include 58620
information from the federal bureau of investigation in the 58621
criminal records check.58622

       (2) A person required by division (B)(1) of this section to 58623
request a criminal records check shall do both of the following:58624

       (a) Provide to each applicant for whom a criminal records 58625
check request is required under that division a copy of the form 58626
prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of section 109.572 of the 58627
Revised Code and a standard fingerprint impression sheet 58628
prescribed pursuant to division (C)(2) of that section, and obtain 58629
the completed form and impression sheet from the applicant;58630

       (b) Forward the completed form and impression sheet to the 58631
superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and 58632
investigation.58633

       (3) An applicant provided the form and fingerprint impression 58634
sheet under division (B)(2)(a) of this section who fails to 58635
complete the form or provide fingerprint impressions shall not be 58636
employed in any position for which a criminal records check is 58637
required by this section.58638

       (C)(1) Except as provided in rules adopted by the director of 58639
health in accordance with division (F) of this section and subject 58640
to division (C)(2) of this section, no hospice care program or 58641
pediatric respite care program shall employ a person in a position 58642
that involves providing direct care to an older adult or pediatric 58643
respite care patient if the person has been convicted of or 58644
pleaded guilty to any of the following:58645

       (a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 58646
2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.34, 58647
2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.11, 2905.12, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.05, 58648
2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.12, 2907.25, 2907.31, 58649
2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 58650
2911.12, 2911.13, 2913.02, 2913.03, 2913.04, 2913.11, 2913.21, 58651
2913.31, 2913.40, 2913.43, 2913.47, 2913.51, 2919.25, 2921.36, 58652
2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.11, 2925.13, 58653
2925.22, 2925.23, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code.58654

       (b) A violation of an existing or former law of this state, 58655
any other state, or the United States that is substantially 58656
equivalent to any of the offenses listed in division (C)(1)(a) of 58657
this section.58658

       (2)(a) A hospice care program or pediatric respite care 58659
program may employ conditionally an applicant for whom a criminal 58660
records check request is required under division (B) of this 58661
section prior to obtaining the results of a criminal records check 58662
regarding the individual, provided that the program shall request 58663
a criminal records check regarding the individual in accordance 58664
with division (B)(1) of this section not later than five business 58665
days after the individual begins conditional employment. In the 58666
circumstances described in division (I)(2) of this section, a 58667
hospice care program or pediatric respite care program may employ 58668
conditionally an applicant who has been referred to the hospice 58669
care program or pediatric respite care program by an employment 58670
service that supplies full-time, part-time, or temporary staff for 58671
positions involving the direct care of older adults or pediatric 58672
respite care patients and for whom, pursuant to that division, a 58673
criminal records check is not required under division (B) of this 58674
section.58675

       (b) A hospice care program or pediatric respite care program 58676
that employs an individual conditionally under authority of 58677
division (C)(2)(a) of this section shall terminate the 58678
individual's employment if the results of the criminal records 58679
check requested under division (B) of this section or described in 58680
division (I)(2) of this section, other than the results of any 58681
request for information from the federal bureau of investigation, 58682
are not obtained within the period ending thirty days after the 58683
date the request is made. Regardless of when the results of the 58684
criminal records check are obtained, if the results indicate that 58685
the individual has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of 58686
the offenses listed or described in division (C)(1) of this 58687
section, the program shall terminate the individual's employment 58688
unless the program chooses to employ the individual pursuant to 58689
division (F) of this section. Termination of employment under this 58690
division shall be considered just cause for discharge for purposes 58691
of division (D)(2) of section 4141.29 of the Revised Code if the 58692
individual makes any attempt to deceive the program about the 58693
individual's criminal record.58694

       (D)(1) Each hospice care program or pediatric respite care 58695
program shall pay to the bureau of criminal identification and 58696
investigation the fee prescribed pursuant to division (C)(3) of 58697
section 109.572 of the Revised Code for each criminal records 58698
check conducted pursuant to a request made under division (B) of 58699
this section.58700

       (2) A hospice care program or pediatric respite care program 58701
may charge an applicant a fee not exceeding the amount the program 58702
pays under division (D)(1) of this section. A program may collect 58703
a fee only if both of the following apply:58704

       (a) The program notifies the person at the time of initial 58705
application for employment of the amount of the fee and that, 58706
unless the fee is paid, the person will not be considered for 58707
employment;58708

       (b) The medical assistancemedicaid program established under 58709
Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code does not reimburse the program 58710
the fee it pays under division (D)(1) of this section.58711

       (E) The report of a criminal records check conducted pursuant 58712
to a request made under this section is not a public record for 58713
the purposes of section 149.43 of the Revised Code and shall not 58714
be made available to any person other than the following:58715

       (1) The individual who is the subject of the criminal records 58716
check or the individual's representative;58717

       (2) The chief administrator of the program requesting the 58718
criminal records check or the administrator's representative;58719

       (3) The administrator of any other facility, agency, or 58720
program that provides direct care to older adults or pediatric 58721
respite care patients that is owned or operated by the same entity 58722
that owns or operates the hospice care program or pediatric 58723
respite care program;58724

       (4) A court, hearing officer, or other necessary individual 58725
involved in a case dealing with a denial of employment of the 58726
applicant or dealing with employment or unemployment benefits of 58727
the applicant;58728

       (5) Any person to whom the report is provided pursuant to, 58729
and in accordance with, division (I)(1) or (2) of this section.58730

       (F) The director of health shall adopt rules in accordance 58731
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement this section. 58732
The rules shall specify circumstances under which a hospice care 58733
program or pediatric respite care program may employ a person who 58734
has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to an offense listed or 58735
described in division (C)(1) of this section but meets personal 58736
character standards set by the director.58737

       (G) The chief administrator of a hospice care program or 58738
pediatric respite care program shall inform each individual, at 58739
the time of initial application for a position that involves 58740
providing direct care to an older adult or pediatric respite care 58741
patient, that the individual is required to provide a set of 58742
fingerprint impressions and that a criminal records check is 58743
required to be conducted if the individual comes under final 58744
consideration for employment.58745

       (H) In a tort or other civil action for damages that is 58746
brought as the result of an injury, death, or loss to person or 58747
property caused by an individual who a hospice care program or 58748
pediatric respite care program employs in a position that involves 58749
providing direct care to older adults or pediatric respite care 58750
patients, all of the following shall apply:58751

       (1) If the program employed the individual in good faith and 58752
reasonable reliance on the report of a criminal records check 58753
requested under this section, the program shall not be found 58754
negligent solely because of its reliance on the report, even if 58755
the information in the report is determined later to have been 58756
incomplete or inaccurate;58757

       (2) If the program employed the individual in good faith on a 58758
conditional basis pursuant to division (C)(2) of this section, the 58759
program shall not be found negligent solely because it employed 58760
the individual prior to receiving the report of a criminal records 58761
check requested under this section;58762

       (3) If the program in good faith employed the individual 58763
according to the personal character standards established in rules 58764
adopted under division (F) of this section, the program shall not 58765
be found negligent solely because the individual prior to being 58766
employed had been convicted of or pleaded guilty to an offense 58767
listed or described in division (C)(1) of this section.58768

       (I)(1) The chief administrator of a hospice care program or 58769
pediatric respite care program is not required to request that the 58770
superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and 58771
investigation conduct a criminal records check of an applicant if 58772
the applicant has been referred to the program by an employment 58773
service that supplies full-time, part-time, or temporary staff for 58774
positions involving the direct care of older adults or pediatric 58775
respite care patients and both of the following apply:58776

       (a) The chief administrator receives from the employment 58777
service or the applicant a report of the results of a criminal 58778
records check regarding the applicant that has been conducted by 58779
the superintendent within the one-year period immediately 58780
preceding the applicant's referral;58781

       (b) The report of the criminal records check demonstrates 58782
that the person has not been convicted of or pleaded guilty to an 58783
offense listed or described in division (C)(1) of this section, or 58784
the report demonstrates that the person has been convicted of or 58785
pleaded guilty to one or more of those offenses, but the hospice 58786
care program or pediatric respite care program chooses to employ 58787
the individual pursuant to division (F) of this section.58788

       (2) The chief administrator of a hospice care program or 58789
pediatric respite care program is not required to request that the 58790
superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and 58791
investigation conduct a criminal records check of an applicant and 58792
may employ the applicant conditionally as described in this 58793
division, if the applicant has been referred to the program by an 58794
employment service that supplies full-time, part-time, or 58795
temporary staff for positions involving the direct care of older 58796
adults or pediatric respite care patients and if the chief 58797
administrator receives from the employment service or the 58798
applicant a letter from the employment service that is on the 58799
letterhead of the employment service, dated, and signed by a 58800
supervisor or another designated official of the employment 58801
service and that states that the employment service has requested 58802
the superintendent to conduct a criminal records check regarding 58803
the applicant, that the requested criminal records check will 58804
include a determination of whether the applicant has been 58805
convicted of or pleaded guilty to any offense listed or described 58806
in division (C)(1) of this section, that, as of the date set forth 58807
on the letter, the employment service had not received the results 58808
of the criminal records check, and that, when the employment 58809
service receives the results of the criminal records check, it 58810
promptly will send a copy of the results to the hospice care 58811
program or pediatric respite care program. If a hospice care 58812
program or pediatric respite care program employs an applicant 58813
conditionally in accordance with this division, the employment 58814
service, upon its receipt of the results of the criminal records 58815
check, promptly shall send a copy of the results to the hospice 58816
care program or pediatric respite care program, and division 58817
(C)(2)(b) of this section applies regarding the conditional 58818
employment.58819

       Sec. 3713.06. (A) Any person required to register under 58820
division (A) of section 3713.02 of the Revised Code who imports 58821
bedding or stuffed toys into this state for retail sale or use in 58822
this state and any person required to register under division (A) 58823
of section 3713.02 of the Revised Code who manufactures bedding or 58824
stuffed toys in this state for retail sale or use in this state 58825
shall submit a report to the superintendent of industrial 58826
compliance, in a form and manner prescribed by the superintendent. 58827
The form shall be submitted once every six monthsper year and 58828
shall show the total number of items of bedding or stuffed toys 58829
imported into this state or manufactured in this state. Each 58830
report shall be accompanied by a fee of four cents for each item 58831
of bedding or stuffed toy imported into this state or manufactured 58832
in this state.58833

       (B) Every importer, manufacturer, or wholesaler of stuffed 58834
toys or articles of bedding, and every mobile home and 58835
recreational vehicle dealer, conversion van dealer, secondhand 58836
dealer, and auction house shall retain records, designated by the 58837
superintendent in rule, for the time period established in rule.58838

       (C) Every importer, manufacturer, or wholesaler of stuffed 58839
toys or articles of bedding, and every mobile home and 58840
recreational vehicle dealer, conversion van dealer, secondhand 58841
dealer, and auction house shall make sufficient investigation of 58842
its records to ensure that the information reported to the 58843
superintendent under division (A) of this section is accurate.58844

       Sec. 3714.07.  (A)(1) For the purpose of assisting boards of 58845
health and the environmental protection agency in administering 58846
and enforcing this chapter and rules adopted under it, there is 58847
hereby levied a fee of thirty cents per cubic yard or sixty cents 58848
per ton, as applicable, on both of the following:58849

       (a) The disposal of construction and demolition debris at a 58850
construction and demolition debris facility that is licensed under 58851
this chapter or at a solid waste facility that is licensed under 58852
Chapter 3734. of the Revised Code;58853

       (b) The disposal of asbestos or asbestos-containing materials 58854
or products at a construction and demolition debris facility that 58855
is licensed under this chapter or at a solid waste facility that 58856
is licensed under Chapter 3734. of the Revised Code.58857

       (2) The owner or operator of a construction and demolition 58858
debris facility or a solid waste facility shall determine if cubic 58859
yards or tons will be used as the unit of measurement. If basing 58860
the fee on cubic yards, the owner or operator shall utilize either 58861
the maximum cubic yard capacity of the container, or the hauling 58862
volume of the vehicle, that transports the construction and 58863
demolition debris to the facility or the cubic yards actually 58864
logged for disposal by the owner or operator in accordance with 58865
rules adopted under section 3714.02 of the Revised Code. If basing 58866
the fee on tonnage, the owner or operator shall use certified 58867
scales to determine the tonnage of construction and demolition 58868
debris that is disposed of.58869

       (3) The owner or operator of a construction and demolition 58870
debris facility or a solid waste facility shall calculate the 58871
amount of money generated from the fee levied under division 58872
(A)(1) of this section and shall hold that amount as a trustee for 58873
the health district having jurisdiction over the facility, if that 58874
district is on the approved list under section 3714.09 of the 58875
Revised Code, or for the state. The owner or operator shall 58876
prepare and file with the appropriate board of health or the 58877
director of environmental protection monthly returns indicating 58878
the total volume or weight, as applicable, of construction and 58879
demolition debris and asbestos or asbestos-containing materials or 58880
products disposed of at the facility and the total amount of money 58881
generated during that month from the fee levied under division 58882
(A)(1) of this section on the disposal of construction and 58883
demolition debris and asbestos or asbestos-containing materials or 58884
products. Not later than thirty days after the last day of the 58885
month to which the return applies, the owner or operator shall 58886
mail to the board of health or the director the return for that 58887
month together with the amount of money calculated under division 58888
(A)(3) of this section on the disposal of construction and 58889
demolition debris and asbestos or asbestos-containing materials or 58890
products during that month or may submit the return and money 58891
electronically in a manner approved by the director. The owner or 58892
operator may request, in writing, an extension of not more than 58893
thirty days after the last day of the month to which the return 58894
applies. A request for extension may be denied. If the owner or 58895
operator submits the money late, the owner or operator shall pay a 58896
penalty of ten per cent of the amount of the money due for each 58897
month that it is late.58898

       (4) Of the money that is submitted by a construction and 58899
demolition debris facility or a solid waste facility on a per 58900
cubic yard or per ton basis under this section, a board of health 58901
shall transmit three cents per cubic yard or six cents per ton, as 58902
applicable, to the director not later than forty-five days after 58903
the receipt of the money. The money retained by a board of health 58904
under this section shall be paid into a special fund, which is 58905
hereby created in each health district, and used solely tofor the 58906
following purposes:58907

       (a) To administer and enforce this chapter and rules adopted 58908
under it;58909

       (b) To abate accumulations of construction and demolition 58910
debris as provided in section 3714.074 of the Revised Code.58911

       The director shall transmit all money received under this 58912
section to the treasurer of state to be credited to the 58913
construction and demolition debris facility oversight fund, which 58914
is hereby created in the state treasury. The fund shall be 58915
administered by the director, and money credited to the fund shall 58916
be used exclusively for the administration and enforcement of this 58917
chapter and rules adopted under it.58918

       (B) The board of health of a health district or the director 58919
may enter into an agreement with the owner or operator of a 58920
construction and demolition debris facility or a solid waste 58921
facility for the quarterly payment of money generated from the 58922
disposal fee as calculated in division (A)(3) of this section. The 58923
board of health shall notify the director of any such agreement. 58924
Not later than forty-five days after receipt of the quarterly 58925
payment, the board of health shall transmit the amount established 58926
in division (A)(4) of this section to the director. The money 58927
retained by the board of health shall be deposited in the special 58928
fund of the district as required under that division. Upon receipt 58929
of the money from a board of health, the director shall transmit 58930
the money to the treasurer of state to be credited to the 58931
construction and demolition debris facility oversight fund.58932

       (C) If a construction and demolition debris facility or a 58933
solid waste facility is located within the territorial boundaries 58934
of a municipal corporation or the unincorporated area of a 58935
township, the municipal corporation or township may appropriate up 58936
to four cents per cubic yard or up to eight cents per ton of the 58937
disposal fee required to be paid by the facility under division 58938
(A)(1) of this section for the same purposes that a municipal 58939
corporation or township may levy a fee under division (C) of 58940
section 3734.57 of the Revised Code.58941

       The legislative authority of the municipal corporation or 58942
township may appropriate the money from the fee by enacting an 58943
ordinance or adopting a resolution establishing the amount of the 58944
fee to be appropriated. Upon doing so, the legislative authority 58945
shall mail a certified copy of the ordinance or resolution to the 58946
board of health of the health district in which the construction 58947
and demolition debris facility or the solid waste facility is 58948
located or, if the facility is located in a health district that 58949
is not on the approved list under section 3714.09 of the Revised 58950
Code, to the director. Upon receipt of the copy of the ordinance 58951
or resolution and not later than forty-five days after receipt of 58952
money generated from the fee, the board or the director, as 58953
applicable, shall transmit to the treasurer or other appropriate 58954
officer of the municipal corporation or clerk of the township that 58955
portion of the money generated from the disposal fee by the owner 58956
or operator of the facility that is required by the ordinance or 58957
resolution to be paid to that municipal corporation or township.58958

       Money received by the treasurer or other appropriate officer 58959
of a municipal corporation under this division shall be paid into 58960
the general fund of the municipal corporation. Money received by 58961
the clerk of a township under this division shall be paid into the 58962
general fund of the township. The treasurer or other officer of 58963
the municipal corporation or the clerk of the township, as 58964
appropriate, shall maintain separate records of the money received 58965
under this division.58966

       The legislative authority of a municipal corporation or 58967
township may cease appropriating money under this division by 58968
repealing the ordinance or resolution that was enacted or adopted 58969
under this division.58970

       The director shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 58971
119. of the Revised Code establishing requirements for prorating 58972
the amount of the fee that may be appropriated under this division 58973
by a municipal corporation or township in which only a portion of 58974
a construction and demolition debris facility is located within 58975
the territorial boundaries of the municipal corporation or 58976
township.58977

       (D) The board of county commissioners of a county in which a 58978
construction and demolition debris facility or a solid waste 58979
facility is located may appropriate up to three cents per cubic 58980
yard or up to six cents per ton of the disposal fee required to be 58981
paid by the facility under division (A)(1) of this section for the 58982
same purposes that a solid waste management district may levy a 58983
fee under division (B) of section 3734.57 of the Revised Code.58984

        The board of county commissioners may appropriate the money 58985
from the fee by adopting a resolution establishing the amount of 58986
the fee to be appropriated. Upon doing so, the board of county 58987
commissioners shall mail a certified copy of the resolution to the 58988
board of health of the health district in which the construction 58989
and demolition debris facility or the solid waste facility is 58990
located or, if the facility is located in a health district that 58991
is not on the approved list under section 3714.09 of the Revised 58992
Code, to the director. Upon receipt of the copy of the resolution 58993
and not later than forty-five days after receipt of money 58994
generated from the fee, the board of health or the director, as 58995
applicable, shall transmit to the treasurer of the county that 58996
portion of the money generated from the disposal fee by the owner 58997
or operator of the facility that is required by the resolution to 58998
be paid to that county.58999

        Money received by a county treasurer under this division 59000
shall be paid into the general fund of the county. The county 59001
treasurer shall maintain separate records of the money received 59002
under this division.59003

        A board of county commissioners may cease appropriating money 59004
under this division by repealing the resolution that was adopted 59005
under this division.59006

       (E)(1) This section does not apply to the disposal of 59007
construction and demolition debris at a solid waste facility that 59008
is licensed under Chapter 3734. of the Revised Code if there is no 59009
construction and demolition debris facility licensed under this 59010
chapter within thirty-five miles of the solid waste facility as 59011
determined by a facility's property boundaries.59012

        (2) This section does not apply to the disposal of 59013
construction and demolition debris at a solid waste facility that 59014
is licensed under Chapter 3734. of the Revised Code if the owner 59015
or operator of the facility chooses to collect fees on the 59016
disposal of the construction and demolition debris and asbestos or 59017
asbestos-containing materials or products that are identical to 59018
the fees that are collected under Chapters 343. and 3734. of the 59019
Revised Code on the disposal of solid wastes at that facility.59020

       (3) This section does not apply to the disposal of source 59021
separated materials that are exclusively composed of reinforced or 59022
nonreinforced concrete, asphalt, clay tile, building or paving 59023
brick, or building or paving stone at a construction and 59024
demolition debris facility that is licensed under this chapter 59025
when either of the following applies:59026

        (a) The materials are placed within the limits of 59027
construction and demolition debris placement at the facility as 59028
specified in the license issued to the facility under section 59029
3714.06 of the Revised Code, are not placed within the unloading 59030
zone of the facility, and are used as a fire prevention measure in 59031
accordance with rules adopted by the director under section 59032
3714.02 of the Revised Code.59033

       (b) The materials are not placed within the unloading zone of 59034
the facility or within the limits of construction and demolition 59035
debris placement at the facility as specified in the license 59036
issued to the facility under section 3714.06 of the Revised Code, 59037
but are used as fill material, either alone or in conjunction with 59038
clean soil, sand, gravel, or other clean aggregates, in legitimate 59039
fill operations for construction purposes at the facility or to 59040
bring the facility up to a consistent grade.59041

       Sec. 3714.074.  (A) A board of health may use money in the 59042
board's special fund created in section 3714.07 of the Revised 59043
Code for the purpose specified in division (B) of this section if 59044
both of the following apply:59045

       (1) It is the end of the fiscal year.59046

       (2) The board determines that it has more money in the fund 59047
than is necessary for the board to administer and enforce this 59048
chapter and rules adopted under it for the following fiscal year.59049

       (B) A board of health may use excess money as described in 59050
division (A) of this section to abate accumulations of 59051
construction and demolition debris at a location for which a 59052
license has not been issued pursuant to section 3714.05 of the 59053
Revised Code if all of the following apply to the property on 59054
which the accumulations are located:59055

       (1) The construction and demolition debris was placed on the 59056
property under either of the following circumstances:59057

       (a) After the owner of the property acquired title to it; 59058

       (b) Before the owner of the property acquired title to it if 59059
the owner acquired title to the property by bequest or devise.59060

       (2) The owner of the property did not have knowledge that the 59061
construction and demolition debris was being placed on the 59062
property, or the owner posted on the property signs prohibiting 59063
dumping or took other action to prevent the placing of 59064
construction and demolition debris on the property.59065

       (3) The owner of the property did not participate in or 59066
consent to the placement of the construction and demolition debris 59067
on the property.59068

       (4) The owner of the property did not receive any financial 59069
benefit from the placement of the construction and demolition 59070
debris on the property or from having the construction and 59071
demolition debris on the property.59072

       (5) Title to the property was not transferred to the owner of 59073
that property for the purpose of avoiding liability for violations 59074
of this chapter or rules adopted under it.59075

       (6) The person responsible for the placement of the 59076
construction and demolition debris on the property, in placing the 59077
construction and demolition debris on the property, was not acting 59078
as an agent for the owner of the property.59079

       Sec. 3717.08.  (A) The director of agriculture and director 59080
of health shall strive to increase consumer confidence in the 59081
state's food supply by promoting food safety awareness and 59082
education. The efforts of the director of agriculture and director 59083
of health shall be made, when appropriate and available, through 59084
partnerships with representatives of retail food establishments, 59085
representatives of food service operations, and representatives of 59086
the academic community, including the Ohio state universityOSU59087
extension service.59088

       (B) As part of their promotion of food safety awareness, the 59089
director of agriculture and the director of health shall do the 59090
following:59091

       (1) Develop training programs regarding the Ohio uniform food 59092
safety code. The directors may offer the training programs 59093
separately but shall coordinate the content of the programs to the 59094
greatest extent practicable. The training programs shall be made 59095
available to the employees of the department of agriculture, 59096
employees of the department of health, representatives of boards 59097
of health and the health officials employed by the boards, 59098
representatives of retail food establishments, and representatives 59099
of food service operations.59100

       (2) Co-sponsor a biennial statewide food safety conference. 59101
Additional statewide food safety conferences may be held as 59102
considered appropriate by the director of agriculture and director 59103
of health.59104

       Sec. 3718.06. (A) A board of health shall establish fees in 59105
accordance with section 3709.09 of the Revised Code for the 59106
purpose of carrying out its duties under this chapter and rules 59107
adopted under it, including fees for installation permits, 59108
operation permits, and alteration permits issued by the board. All 59109
fees so established and collected by the board shall be deposited 59110
in a special fund of the district to be used exclusively by the 59111
board in carrying out those duties.59112

        (B) In accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, the 59113
director of health may establish by rule a fee to be collected 59114
from applicants for installation permits and alteration permits 59115
issued under rules adopted under this chapter. The director of 59116
health shall use not more than seventy-fiveninety per cent of the 59117
proceeds from that fee for administering and enforcing this 59118
chapter and the rules adopted under it by the director. The 59119
director shall use not less than twenty-fiveten per cent of the 59120
proceeds from that fee to establish a program in cooperation with 59121
boards of health to fund installation and evaluation of sewage 59122
treatment system new technology pilot projects through grants or 59123
other agreements. In the selection of pilot projects, the director 59124
shall consult with the sewage treatment system technical advisory 59125
committee. A board of health shall collect and transmit the fee to 59126
the director pursuant to section 3709.092 of the Revised Code. 59127

       Sec. 3719.61.  Nothing in the laws dealing with drugs of 59128
abuse shall be construed to prohibit treatment of narcotic drug 59129
dependent persons by the continuing maintenance of their 59130
dependence through the administration of methadone in accordance 59131
with the rules adopted by the department of alcohol and drug 59132
addiction servicesmental health and addiction services under 59133
section 3793.115119.39 of the Revised Code, when all of the 59134
following apply:59135

       (A) The likelihood that any person undergoing maintenance 59136
treatment will be cured of dependence on narcotic drugs is remote, 59137
the treatment is prescribed for the purpose of alleviating or 59138
controlling the patient's drug dependence, and the patient's 59139
prognosis while undergoing treatment is at least a partial 59140
improvement in the patient's asocial or antisocial behavior 59141
patterns;59142

       (B) In the case of an inpatient in a hospital or clinic, the 59143
amount of the maintenance drug dispensed at any one time does not 59144
exceed the quantity necessary for a single dose, and the dose is 59145
administered to the patient immediately;59146

       (C) In the case of an outpatient, the amount of the 59147
maintenance drug dispensed at any one time shall be determined by 59148
the patient's treatment provider taking into account the patient's 59149
progress in the treatment program and the patient's needs for 59150
gainful employment, education, and responsible homemaking, except 59151
that in no event shall the dosage be greater than the amount 59152
permitted by federal law and rules adopted by the department 59153
pursuant to section 3793.115119.39 of the Revised Code;59154

       (D) The drug is not dispensed in any case to replace or 59155
supplement any part of a supply of the drug previously dispensed, 59156
or when there is reasonable cause to believe it will be used or 59157
disposed of unlawfully;59158

       (E) The drug is dispensed through a program licensed and 59159
operated in accordance with section 3793.115119.39 of the Revised 59160
Code.59161

       Sec. 3721.01.  (A) As used in sections 3721.01 to 3721.09 and 59162
3721.99 of the Revised Code:59163

       (1)(a) "Home" means an institution, residence, or facility 59164
that provides, for a period of more than twenty-four hours, 59165
whether for a consideration or not, accommodations to three or 59166
more unrelated individuals who are dependent upon the services of 59167
others, including a nursing home, residential care facility, home 59168
for the aging, and a veterans' home operated under Chapter 5907. 59169
of the Revised Code.59170

       (b) "Home" also means both of the following:59171

       (i) Any facility that a person, as defined in section 3702.51 59172
of the Revised Code, proposes for certification as a skilled 59173
nursing facility or nursing facility under Title XVIII or XIX of 59174
the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, 59175
as amended, and for which a certificate of need, other than a 59176
certificate to recategorize hospital beds as described in section 59177
3702.521 of the Revised Code or division (R)(7)(d) of the version 59178
of section 3702.51 of the Revised Code in effect immediately prior 59179
to April 20, 1995, has been granted to the person under sections 59180
3702.51 to 3702.62 of the Revised Code after August 5, 1989;59181

       (ii) A county home or district home that is or has been 59182
licensed as a residential care facility.59183

       (c) "Home" does not mean any of the following:59184

       (i) Except as provided in division (A)(1)(b) of this section, 59185
a public hospital or hospital as defined in section 3701.01 or 59186
5122.01 of the Revised Code;59187

       (ii) A residential facility as defined in section 5119.2259188
5119.34 of the Revised Code;59189

       (iii) A residential facility as defined in section 5123.19 of 59190
the Revised Code;59191

       (iv) An alcohol or drugA community addiction program59192
services provider as defined in section 3793.015119.01 of the 59193
Revised Code;59194

       (v) A facility licensed to provide methadone treatment under 59195
section 3793.115119.39 of the Revised Code;59196

       (vi) A facility providing services under contract with the 59197
department of developmental disabilities under section 5123.18 of 59198
the Revised Code;59199

       (vii) A facility operated by a hospice care program licensed 59200
under section 3712.04 of the Revised Code that is used exclusively 59201
for care of hospice patients;59202

       (viii) A facility operated by a pediatric respite care 59203
program licensed under section 3712.041 of the Revised Code that 59204
is used exclusively for care of pediatric respite care patients;59205

       (ix) A facility, infirmary, or other entity that is operated 59206
by a religious order, provides care exclusively to members of 59207
religious orders who take vows of celibacy and live by virtue of 59208
their vows within the orders as if related, and does not 59209
participate in the medicare program established under Title XVIII 59210
of the "Social Security Act" or the medical assistancemedicaid59211
program established under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code and 59212
Title XIX of the "Social Security Act," if on January 1, 1994, the 59213
facility, infirmary, or entity was providing care exclusively to 59214
members of the religious order;59215

       (x) A county home or district home that has never been 59216
licensed as a residential care facility.59217

       (2) "Unrelated individual" means one who is not related to 59218
the owner or operator of a home or to the spouse of the owner or 59219
operator as a parent, grandparent, child, grandchild, brother, 59220
sister, niece, nephew, aunt, uncle, or as the child of an aunt or 59221
uncle.59222

       (3) "Mental impairment" does not mean mental illness as 59223
defined in section 5122.01 of the Revised Code or mental 59224
retardation as defined in section 5123.01 of the Revised Code.59225

       (4) "Skilled nursing care" means procedures that require 59226
technical skills and knowledge beyond those the untrained person 59227
possesses and that are commonly employed in providing for the 59228
physical, mental, and emotional needs of the ill or otherwise 59229
incapacitated. "Skilled nursing care" includes, but is not limited 59230
to, the following:59231

       (a) Irrigations, catheterizations, application of dressings, 59232
and supervision of special diets;59233

       (b) Objective observation of changes in the patient's 59234
condition as a means of analyzing and determining the nursing care 59235
required and the need for further medical diagnosis and treatment;59236

       (c) Special procedures contributing to rehabilitation;59237

       (d) Administration of medication by any method ordered by a 59238
physician, such as hypodermically, rectally, or orally, including 59239
observation of the patient after receipt of the medication;59240

       (e) Carrying out other treatments prescribed by the physician 59241
that involve a similar level of complexity and skill in 59242
administration.59243

       (5)(a) "Personal care services" means services including, but 59244
not limited to, the following:59245

       (i) Assisting residents with activities of daily living;59246

       (ii) Assisting residents with self-administration of 59247
medication, in accordance with rules adopted under section 3721.04 59248
of the Revised Code;59249

       (iii) Preparing special diets, other than complex therapeutic 59250
diets, for residents pursuant to the instructions of a physician 59251
or a licensed dietitian, in accordance with rules adopted under 59252
section 3721.04 of the Revised Code.59253

       (b) "Personal care services" does not include "skilled 59254
nursing care" as defined in division (A)(4) of this section. A 59255
facility need not provide more than one of the services listed in 59256
division (A)(5)(a) of this section to be considered to be 59257
providing personal care services.59258

       (6) "Nursing home" means a home used for the reception and 59259
care of individuals who by reason of illness or physical or mental 59260
impairment require skilled nursing care and of individuals who 59261
require personal care services but not skilled nursing care. A 59262
nursing home is licensed to provide personal care services and 59263
skilled nursing care.59264

       (7) "Residential care facility" means a home that provides 59265
either of the following:59266

       (a) Accommodations for seventeen or more unrelated 59267
individuals and supervision and personal care services for three 59268
or more of those individuals who are dependent on the services of 59269
others by reason of age or physical or mental impairment;59270

       (b) Accommodations for three or more unrelated individuals, 59271
supervision and personal care services for at least three of those 59272
individuals who are dependent on the services of others by reason 59273
of age or physical or mental impairment, and, to at least one of 59274
those individuals, any of the skilled nursing care authorized by 59275
section 3721.011 of the Revised Code.59276

       (8) "Home for the aging" means a home that provides services 59277
as a residential care facility and a nursing home, except that the 59278
home provides its services only to individuals who are dependent 59279
on the services of others by reason of both age and physical or 59280
mental impairment.59281

       The part or unit of a home for the aging that provides 59282
services only as a residential care facility is licensed as a 59283
residential care facility. The part or unit that may provide 59284
skilled nursing care beyond the extent authorized by section 59285
3721.011 of the Revised Code is licensed as a nursing home.59286

       (9) "County home" and "district home" mean a county home or 59287
district home operated under Chapter 5155. of the Revised Code.59288

       (B) The director of health may further classify homes. For 59289
the purposes of this chapter, any residence, institution, hotel, 59290
congregate housing project, or similar facility that meets the 59291
definition of a home under this section is such a home regardless 59292
of how the facility holds itself out to the public.59293

       (C) For purposes of this chapter, personal care services or 59294
skilled nursing care shall be considered to be provided by a 59295
facility if they are provided by a person employed by or 59296
associated with the facility or by another person pursuant to an 59297
agreement to which neither the resident who receives the services 59298
nor the resident's sponsor is a party.59299

       (D) Nothing in division (A)(4) of this section shall be 59300
construed to permit skilled nursing care to be imposed on an 59301
individual who does not require skilled nursing care.59302

       Nothing in division (A)(5) of this section shall be construed 59303
to permit personal care services to be imposed on an individual 59304
who is capable of performing the activity in question without 59305
assistance.59306

       (E) Division (A)(1)(c)(ix) of this section does not prohibit 59307
a facility, infirmary, or other entity described in that division 59308
from seeking licensure under sections 3721.01 to 3721.09 of the 59309
Revised Code or certification under Title XVIII or XIX of the 59310
"Social Security Act." However, such a facility, infirmary, or 59311
entity that applies for licensure or certification must meet the 59312
requirements of those sections or titles and the rules adopted 59313
under them and obtain a certificate of need from the director of 59314
health under section 3702.52 of the Revised Code.59315

       (F) Nothing in this chapter, or rules adopted pursuant to it, 59316
shall be construed as authorizing the supervision, regulation, or 59317
control of the spiritual care or treatment of residents or 59318
patients in any home who rely upon treatment by prayer or 59319
spiritual means in accordance with the creed or tenets of any 59320
recognized church or religious denomination.59321

       Sec. 3721.011.  (A) In addition to providing accommodations, 59322
supervision, and personal care services to its residents, a 59323
residential care facility may do the following:59324

       (1) Provide the following skilled nursing care to its 59325
residents:59326

       (a) Supervision of special diets;59327

       (b) Application of dressings, in accordance with rules 59328
adopted under section 3721.04 of the Revised Code;59329

       (c) Subject to division (B)(1) of this section, 59330
administration of medication.59331

       (2) Subject to division (C) of this section, provide other 59332
skilled nursing care on a part-time, intermittent basis for not 59333
more than a total of one hundred twenty days in a twelve-month 59334
period;59335

        (3) Provide skilled nursing care for more than one hundred 59336
twenty days in a twelve-month period to a resident when the 59337
requirements of division (D) of this section are met.59338

       A residential care facility may not admit or retain an 59339
individual requiring skilled nursing care that is not authorized 59340
by this section. A residential care facility may not provide 59341
skilled nursing care beyond the limits established by this 59342
section.59343

       (B)(1) A residential care facility may admit or retain an 59344
individual requiring medication, including biologicals, only if 59345
the individual's personal physician has determined in writing that 59346
the individual is capable of self-administering the medication or 59347
the facility provides for the medication to be administered to the 59348
individual by a home health agency certified under Title XVIII of 59349
the "Social Security Act," 79 Stat. 620 (1965), 42 U.S.C. 1395, as 59350
amended; a hospice care program licensed under Chapter 3712. of 59351
the Revised Code; or a member of the staff of the residential care 59352
facility who is qualified to perform medication administration. 59353
Medication may be administered in a residential care facility only 59354
by the following persons authorized by law to administer 59355
medication:59356

       (a) A registered nurse licensed under Chapter 4723. of the 59357
Revised Code;59358

       (b) A licensed practical nurse licensed under Chapter 4723. 59359
of the Revised Code who holds proof of successful completion of a 59360
course in medication administration approved by the board of 59361
nursing and who administers the medication only at the direction 59362
of a registered nurse or a physician authorized under Chapter 59363
4731. of the Revised Code to practice medicine and surgery or 59364
osteopathic medicine and surgery;59365

       (c) A medication aide certified under Chapter 4723. of the 59366
Revised Code;59367

       (d) A physician authorized under Chapter 4731. of the Revised 59368
Code to practice medicine and surgery or osteopathic medicine and 59369
surgery.59370

       (2) In assisting a resident with self-administration of 59371
medication, any member of the staff of a residential care facility 59372
may do the following:59373

       (a) Remind a resident when to take medication and watch to 59374
ensure that the resident follows the directions on the container;59375

       (b) Assist a resident by taking the medication from the 59376
locked area where it is stored, in accordance with rules adopted 59377
pursuant to section 3721.04 of the Revised Code, and handing it to 59378
the resident. If the resident is physically unable to open the 59379
container, a staff member may open the container for the resident.59380

       (c) Assist a physically impaired but mentally alert resident, 59381
such as a resident with arthritis, cerebral palsy, or Parkinson's 59382
disease, in removing oral or topical medication from containers 59383
and in consuming or applying the medication, upon request by or 59384
with the consent of the resident. If a resident is physically 59385
unable to place a dose of medicine to the resident's mouth without 59386
spilling it, a staff member may place the dose in a container and 59387
place the container to the mouth of the resident.59388

       (C) Except as provided in division (D) of this section, a 59389
residential care facility may admit or retain individuals who 59390
require skilled nursing care beyond the supervision of special 59391
diets, application of dressings, or administration of medication, 59392
only if the care will be provided on a part-time, intermittent 59393
basis for not more than a total of one hundred twenty days in any 59394
twelve-month period. In accordance with Chapter 119. of the 59395
Revised Code, the director of health shall adopt rules specifying 59396
what constitutes the need for skilled nursing care on a part-time, 59397
intermittent basis. The director shall adopt rules that are 59398
consistent with rules pertaining to home health care adopted by 59399
the medicaid director of job and family services for the medicaid 59400
program established under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code. 59401
Skilled nursing care provided pursuant to this division may be 59402
provided by a home health agency certified under Title XVIII of 59403
the "Social Security Actfor participation in the medicare 59404
program," a hospice care program licensed under Chapter 3712. of 59405
the Revised Code, or a member of the staff of a residential care 59406
facility who is qualified to perform skilled nursing care.59407

       A residential care facility that provides skilled nursing 59408
care pursuant to this division shall do both of the following:59409

       (1) Evaluate each resident receiving the skilled nursing care 59410
at least once every seven days to determine whether the resident 59411
should be transferred to a nursing home;59412

       (2) Meet the skilled nursing care needs of each resident 59413
receiving the care.59414

       (D)(1) A residential care facility may admit or retain an 59415
individual who requires skilled nursing care for more than one 59416
hundred twenty days in any twelve-month period only if the 59417
facility has entered into a written agreement with each of the 59418
following:59419

        (a) The individual or individual's sponsor;59420

        (b) The individual's personal physician;59421

        (c) Unless the individual's personal physician oversees the 59422
skilled nursing care, the provider of the skilled nursing care;59423

        (d) If the individual is a hospice patient as defined in 59424
section 3712.01 of the Revised Code, a hospice care program 59425
licensed under Chapter 3712. of the Revised Code. 59426

       (2) The agreement required by division (D)(1) of this section 59427
shall include all of the following provisions:59428

        (a) That the individual will be provided skilled nursing care 59429
in the facility only if a determination has been made that the 59430
individual's needs can be met at the facility;59431

       (b) That the individual will be retained in the facility only 59432
if periodic redeterminations are made that the individual's needs 59433
are being met at the facility;59434

       (c) That the redeterminations will be made according to a 59435
schedule specified in the agreement;59436

        (d) If the individual is a hospice patient, that the 59437
individual has been given an opportunity to choose the hospice 59438
care program that best meets the individual's needs;59439

       (e) Unless the individual is a hospice patient, that the 59440
individual's personal physician has determined that the skilled 59441
nursing care the individual needs is routine.59442

       (E) Notwithstanding any other provision of this chapter, a 59443
residential care facility in which residents receive skilled 59444
nursing care pursuant to this section is not a nursing home.59445

       Sec. 3721.02. (A) As used in this section, "residential 59446
facility" means a residential facility licensed under section 59447
5119.225119.34 of the Revised Code that provides accommodations, 59448
supervision, and personal care services for three to sixteen 59449
unrelated adults.59450

        (B) The director of health shall license homes and establish 59451
procedures to be followed in inspecting and licensing homes. The 59452
director may inspect a home at any time. Each home shall be 59453
inspected by the director at least once prior to the issuance of a 59454
license and at least once every fifteen months thereafter. The 59455
state fire marshal or a township, municipal, or other legally 59456
constituted fire department approved by the marshal shall also 59457
inspect a home prior to issuance of a license, at least once every 59458
fifteen months thereafter, and at any other time requested by the 59459
director. A home does not have to be inspected prior to issuance 59460
of a license by the director, state fire marshal, or a fire 59461
department if ownership of the home is assigned or transferred to 59462
a different person and the home was licensed under this chapter 59463
immediately prior to the assignment or transfer. The director may 59464
enter at any time, for the purposes of investigation, any 59465
institution, residence, facility, or other structure that has been 59466
reported to the director or that the director has reasonable cause 59467
to believe is operating as a nursing home, residential care 59468
facility, or home for the aging without a valid license required 59469
by section 3721.05 of the Revised Code or, in the case of a county 59470
home or district home, is operating despite the revocation of its 59471
residential care facility license. The director may delegate the 59472
director's authority and duties under this chapter to any 59473
division, bureau, agency, or official of the department of health.59474

       (C) A single facility may be licensed both as a nursing home 59475
pursuant to this chapter and as a residential facility pursuant to 59476
section 5119.225119.34 of the Revised Code if the director 59477
determines that the part or unit to be licensed as a nursing home 59478
can be maintained separate and discrete from the part or unit to 59479
be licensed as a residential facility.59480

       (D) In determining the number of residents in a home for the 59481
purpose of licensing, the director shall consider all the 59482
individuals for whom the home provides accommodations as one group 59483
unless one of the following is the case:59484

       (1) The home is a home for the aging, in which case all the 59485
individuals in the part or unit licensed as a nursing home shall 59486
be considered as one group, and all the individuals in the part or 59487
unit licensed as a rest home shall be considered as another group.59488

       (2) The home is both a nursing home and a residential 59489
facility. In that case, all the individuals in the part or unit 59490
licensed as a nursing home shall be considered as one group, and 59491
all the individuals in the part or unit licensed as an adult care 59492
facility shall be considered as another group.59493

       (3) The home maintains, in addition to a nursing home or 59494
residential care facility, a separate and discrete part or unit 59495
that provides accommodations to individuals who do not require or 59496
receive skilled nursing care and do not receive personal care 59497
services from the home, in which case the individuals in the 59498
separate and discrete part or unit shall not be considered in 59499
determining the number of residents in the home if the separate 59500
and discrete part or unit is in compliance with the Ohio basic 59501
building code established by the board of building standards under 59502
Chapters 3781. and 3791. of the Revised Code and the home permits 59503
the director, on request, to inspect the separate and discrete 59504
part or unit and speak with the individuals residing there, if 59505
they consent, to determine whether the separate and discrete part 59506
or unit meets the requirements of this division.59507

       (E)(1) The director of health shall charge the following 59508
application fee and annual renewal licensing and inspection fee 59509
for each fifty persons or part thereof of a home's licensed 59510
capacity:59511

       (a) For state fiscal year 2010, two hundred twenty dollars;59512

       (b) For state fiscal year 2011, two hundred seventy dollars;59513

       (c) For each state fiscal year thereafter, three hundred 59514
twenty dollars. 59515

       (2) All fees collected by the director for the issuance or 59516
renewal of licenses shall be deposited into the state treasury to 59517
the credit of the general operations fund created in section 59518
3701.83 of the Revised Code for use only in administering and 59519
enforcing this chapter and rules adopted under it.59520

       (F)(1) Except as otherwise provided in this section, the 59521
results of an inspection or investigation of a home that is 59522
conducted under this section, including any statement of 59523
deficiencies and all findings and deficiencies cited in the 59524
statement on the basis of the inspection or investigation, shall 59525
be used solely to determine the home's compliance with this 59526
chapter or another chapter of the Revised Code in any action or 59527
proceeding other than an action commenced under division (I) of 59528
section 3721.17 of the Revised Code. Those results of an 59529
inspection or investigation, that statement of deficiencies, and 59530
the findings and deficiencies cited in that statement shall not be 59531
used in any court or in any action or proceeding that is pending 59532
in any court and are not admissible in evidence in any action or 59533
proceeding unless that action or proceeding is an appeal of an 59534
action by the department of health under this chapter or is an 59535
action by any department or agency of the state to enforce this 59536
chapter or another chapter of the Revised Code.59537

       (2) Nothing in division (E)(1) of this section prohibits the 59538
results of an inspection or investigation conducted under this 59539
section from being used in a criminal investigation or 59540
prosecution.59541

       Sec. 3721.022.  (A) As used in this section:59542

       (1) "Nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 59543
5111.205165.01 of the Revised Code.59544

       (2) "Deficiency" and "survey" have the same meanings as in 59545
section 5111.355165.60 of the Revised Code.59546

       (3) "Title XIX" and "Title XVIII" have the same meanings as 59547
in section 5165.01 of the Revised Code.59548

       (B) The department of health is hereby designated the state 59549
agency responsible for establishing and maintaining health 59550
standards and serving as the state survey agency for the purposes 59551
of TitlesTitle XVIII and Title XIX of the "Social Security Act," 59552
49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended. The department 59553
shall carry out these functions in accordance with the 59554
regulations, guidelines, and procedures issued under TitlesTitle59555
XVIII and Title XIX by the United States secretary of health and 59556
human services and with sections 5111.355165.60 to 5111.6259557
5165.89 of the Revised Code. The director of health shall enter 59558
into agreements with regard to these functions with the department 59559
of job and family servicesmedicaid and the United States 59560
department of health and human services. The director may also 59561
enter into agreements with the department of job and family 59562
servicesmedicaid under which the department of health is 59563
designated to perform functions under sections 5111.355165.60 to 59564
5111.625165.89 of the Revised Code.59565

       The director, in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised 59566
Code, shall adopt rules necessary to implement the survey and 59567
certification requirements for skilled nursing facilities and 59568
nursing facilities established by the United States secretary of 59569
health and human services under TitlesTitle XVIII and Title XIX 59570
of the "Social Security Act," and the survey requirements 59571
established under sections 5111.355165.60 to 5111.625165.89 of 59572
the Revised Code. The rules shall include an informal process by 59573
which a facility may obtain up to two reviews of any deficiencies 59574
that have been cited on a statement of deficiencies made by the 59575
department of health under 42 C.F.R. Part 488 and cause the 59576
facility to be in noncompliance as defined in 42 C.F.R. 488.301. 59577
The first review shall be conducted by an employee of the 59578
department who did not participate in and was not otherwise 59579
involved in any way with the survey. A facility that is not 59580
satisfied with the results of a first review may receive a second 59581
review on payment of a fee to the department. The amount of the 59582
fee shall be specified in rules adopted under this section. The 59583
fee shall be deposited into the state treasury to the credit of 59584
the general operations fund created in section 3701.83 of the 59585
Revised Code for use in the implementation of this section. The 59586
second review shall be conducted by either of the following as 59587
selected by the facility: a hearing officer employed by the 59588
department or a hearing officer included on a list the department 59589
shall provide the facility. A final determination that any 59590
deficiency citation is unjustified shall be reflected clearly in 59591
all records relating to the survey.59592

       The director need not adopt as rules any of the regulations, 59593
guidelines, or procedures issued under TitlesTitle XVIII and 59594
Title XIX of the "Social Security Act" by the United States 59595
secretary of health and human services.59596

       Sec. 3721.024.  As used in this section, "nursing facility" 59597
has the same meaning as in section 5111.205165.01 of the Revised 59598
Code.59599

       The department of health may establish a program of 59600
recognition of nursing facilities that provide the highest quality 59601
care to residents who are medicaid recipients of medical 59602
assistance under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code. The program 59603
may be funded with public funds appropriated by the general 59604
assembly for the purpose of the program or any funds appropriated 59605
for nursing home licensure.59606

       Sec. 3721.027. (A) As used in this section, "survey" has the 59607
same meaning as in section 5165.60 of the Revised Code.59608

       (B) The department of health shall investigate within ten 59609
working days after referral, in accordance with procedures and 59610
criteria to be established by the department of health and the 59611
department of aging, any unresolved complaint that the office of 59612
the state long-term care ombudspersonombudsman has investigated 59613
and found to be valid and refers to the department of health. This 59614
requirement does not supersede federal requirements for survey 59615
agency complaint investigations.59616

       Sec. 3721.042.  The director of health may not deny a nursing 59617
home license to a facility seeking a license under this chapter as 59618
a nursing home on the grounds that the facility does not satisfy a 59619
requirement established in rules adopted under section 3721.04 of 59620
the Revised Code regarding the toilet rooms and dining and 59621
recreational areas of nursing homes if all of the following 59622
requirements are met:59623

       (A) The facility seeks a license under this chapter because 59624
it is a county home or district home being sold under section 59625
5155.31 of the Revised Code to a person who may not operate the 59626
facility without a nursing home license under this chapter.59627

       (B) The requirement would not have applied to the facility 59628
had the facility been a nursing home first licensed under this 59629
chapter before October 20, 2001.59630

       (C) The facility was a nursing facility, as defined in 59631
section 5111.205165.01 of the Revised Code, on the date 59632
immediately preceding the date the facility is sold to the person 59633
seeking the license.59634

       Sec. 3721.071.  The buildings in which a home is housed shall 59635
be equipped with both an automatic fire extinguishing system and 59636
fire alarm system. Such systems shall conform to standards set 59637
forth in the regulations of the board of building standards and 59638
the state fire marshal.59639

       The time for compliance with the requirements imposed by this 59640
section shall be January 1, 1975, except that the date for 59641
compliance with the automatic fire extinguishing requirements is 59642
extended to January 1, 1976, provided the buildings of the home 59643
are otherwise in compliance with fire safety laws and regulations 59644
and:59645

       (A) The home within thirty days after August 4, 1975, files a 59646
written plan with the state fire marshal's office that:59647

       (1) Outlines the interim safety procedures which shall be 59648
carried out to reduce the possibility of a fire;59649

       (2) Provides evidence that the home has entered into an 59650
agreement for a fire safety inspection to be conducted not less 59651
than monthly by a qualified independent safety engineer consultant 59652
or a township, municipal, or other legally constituted fire 59653
department, or by a township or municipal fire prevention officer;59654

       (3) Provides verification that the home has entered into a 59655
valid contract for the installation of an automatic fire 59656
extinguishing system or fire alarm system, or both, as required to 59657
comply with this section;59658

       (4) Includes a statement regarding the expected date for the 59659
completion of the fire extinguishing system or fire alarm system, 59660
or both.59661

       (B) Inspections by a qualified independent safety engineer 59662
consultant or a township, municipal, or other legally constituted 59663
fire department, or by a township or municipal fire prevention 59664
officer are initiated no later than sixty days after August 4, 59665
1975, and are conducted no less than monthly thereafter, and 59666
reports of the consultant, fire department, or fire prevention 59667
officer identifying existing hazards and recommended corrective 59668
actions are submitted to the state fire marshal, the division of 59669
industrial compliance in the department of commerce, and the 59670
department of health.59671

       It is the express intent of the general assembly that the 59672
department of job and family servicesmedicaid shall terminate 59673
payments under Title XIX of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 59674
620 (1935), 42 U.S.C. 301, as amended, tothe medicaid provider 59675
agreements of those homes whichthat do not comply with the 59676
requirements of this section for the submission of a written fire 59677
safety plan and the deadline for entering into contracts for the 59678
installation of systems.59679

       Sec. 3721.072.  (A) As used in this section:59680

       (1) "Advance care planning" means providing each nursing home 59681
resident, or the resident's sponsor if the resident is unable to 59682
participate, on admission to the nursing home and quarterly 59683
thereafter, with the opportunity to discuss the resident's care 59684
goals.59685

       (2) "Overhead paging" means sending audible announcements via 59686
an electronic sound amplification and distribution system 59687
throughout part or all of a nursing home to staff, residents, 59688
residents' families, or others.59689

       (3) "Quality improvement project" means a project listed by 59690
the department of aging under the nursing home quality initiative 59691
established under section 173.60 of the Revised Code.59692

       (B) Beginning July 1, 2013, each nursing home shall 59693
participate in at least one quality improvement project each year. 59694
Each nursing facility shall select the project in which it will 59695
participate from the list the department of aging makes available 59696
pursuant to section 173.60 of the Revised Code.59697

       (C) Beginning July 1, 2015, each nursing home shall 59698
participate in advance care planning with all residents or their 59699
sponsors.59700

       (D) Beginning July 1, 2015, each nursing home shall prohibit 59701
the use of overhead paging within the nursing home, except that 59702
the nursing home may permit the use of overhead paging for matters 59703
of urgent public safety or urgent clinical operations and in 59704
accordance with the preferences of the nursing home's residents. 59705
The nursing home shall develop a written policy regarding its use 59706
of overhead paging and make the policy available to staff, 59707
residents, and residents' families.59708

       Sec. 3721.08.  (A) As used in this section, "real and present 59709
danger" means imminent danger of serious physical or 59710
life-threatening harm to one or more occupants of a home.59711

       (B) The director of health may petition the court of common 59712
pleas of the county in which the home is located for an order 59713
enjoining any person from operating a home without a license or 59714
enjoining a county home or district home that has had its license 59715
revoked from continuing to operate. The court shall have 59716
jurisdiction to grant such injunctive relief upon a showing that 59717
the respondent named in the petition is operating a home without a 59718
license or that the county home or district home named in the 59719
petition is operating despite the revocation of its license. The 59720
court shall have jurisdiction to grant such injunctive relief 59721
against the operation of a home without a valid license regardless 59722
of whether the home meets essential licensing requirements.59723

       (C) Unless the department of job and family servicesmedicaid59724
or contracting agency has taken action under section 5111.5159725
5165.77 of the Revised Code to appoint a temporary manager or seek 59726
injunctive relief, if, in the judgment of the director of health, 59727
real and present danger exists at any home, the director may 59728
petition the court of common pleas of the county in which the home 59729
is located for such injunctive relief as is necessary to close the 59730
home, transfer one or more occupants to other homes or other 59731
appropriate care settings, or otherwise eliminate the real and 59732
present danger. The court shall have the jurisdiction to grant 59733
such injunctive relief upon a showing that there is real and 59734
present danger.59735

       (D)(1) If the director determines that real and present 59736
danger exists at a home and elects not to immediately seek 59737
injunctive relief under division (C) of this section, the director 59738
may give written notice of proposed action to the home. The notice 59739
shall specify all of the following:59740

       (a) The nature of the conditions giving rise to the real and 59741
present danger;59742

       (b) The measures that the director determines the home must 59743
take to respond to the conditions;59744

       (c) The date on which the director intends to seek injunctive 59745
relief under division (C) of this section if the director 59746
determines that real and present danger exists at the home.59747

       (2) If the home notifies the director, within the time 59748
specified pursuant to division (D)(1)(c) of this section, that it 59749
believes the conditions giving rise to the real and present danger 59750
have been substantially corrected, the director shall conduct an 59751
inspection to determine whether real and present danger exists. If 59752
the director determines on the basis of the inspection that real 59753
and present danger exists, the director may petition under 59754
division (C) of this section for injunctive relief.59755

       (E)(1) If in the judgment of the director of health 59756
conditions exist at a home that will give rise to real and present 59757
danger if not corrected, the director shall give written notice of 59758
proposed action to the home. The notice shall specify all of the 59759
following:59760

       (a) The nature of the conditions giving rise to the 59761
director's judgment;59762

       (b) The measures that the director determines the home must 59763
take to respond to the conditions;59764

       (c) The date, which shall be no less than ten days after the 59765
notice is delivered, on which the director intends to seek 59766
injunctive relief under division (C) of this section if the 59767
conditions are not substantially corrected and the director 59768
determines that a real and present danger exists.59769

       (2) If the home notifies the director, within the period of 59770
time specified pursuant to division (E)(1)(c) of this section, 59771
that the conditions giving rise to the director's determination 59772
have been substantially corrected, the director shall conduct an 59773
inspection. If the director determines on the basis of the 59774
inspection that the conditions have not been corrected and a real 59775
and present danger exists, the director may petition under 59776
division (C) of this section for injunctive relief.59777

       (F)(1) A court that grants injunctive relief under division 59778
(C) of this section may also appoint a special master who, subject 59779
to division (F)(2) of this section, shall have such powers and 59780
authority over the home and length of appointment as the court 59781
considers necessary. Subject to division (F)(2) of this section, 59782
the salary of a special master and any costs incurred by a special 59783
master shall be the obligation of the home.59784

       (2) No special master shall enter into any employment 59785
contract on behalf of a home, or purchase with the home's funds 59786
any capital goods totaling more than ten thousand dollars, unless 59787
the special master has obtained approval for the contract or 59788
purchase from the home's operator or the court.59789

       (G) If the director takes action under division (C), (D), or 59790
(E) of this section, the director may also appoint employees of 59791
the department of health to conduct on-site monitoring of the 59792
home. Appointment of monitors is not subject to appeal under 59793
Chapter 119. or any other section of the Revised Code. No employee 59794
of a home for which monitors are appointed, no person employed by 59795
the home within the previous two years, and no person who 59796
currently has a consulting contract with the department or a home, 59797
shall be appointed under this division. Every monitor shall have 59798
the professional qualifications necessary to monitor correction of 59799
the conditions that give rise to or, in the director's judgment, 59800
will give rise to real and present danger. The number of monitors 59801
present at a home at any given time shall not exceed one for every 59802
fifty residents, or fraction thereof.59803

       (H) On finding that the real and present danger for which 59804
injunctive relief was granted under division (C) of this section 59805
has been eliminated and that the home's operator has demonstrated 59806
the capacity to prevent the real and present danger from 59807
recurring, the court shall terminate its jurisdiction over the 59808
home and return control and management of the home to the 59809
operator. If the real and present danger cannot be eliminated 59810
practicably within a reasonable time following appointment of a 59811
special master, the court may order the special master to close 59812
the home and transfer all residents to other homes or other 59813
appropriate care settings.59814

       (I) The director of health shall give notice of proposed 59815
action under divisions (D) and (E) of this section to both of the 59816
following:59817

       (1) The home's administrator;59818

       (2) If the home is operated by an organization described in 59819
subsection 501(c)(3) and tax exempt under subsection 501(a) of the 59820
"Internal Revenue Code of 1986," 100 Stat. 2085, 26 U.S.C.A. 1, as 59821
amended, the board of trustees of the organization; or, if the 59822
home is not operated by such an organization, the owner of the 59823
home.59824

       Notices shall be delivered by certified mail or hand 59825
delivery. If notices are mailed, they shall be addressed to the 59826
persons specified in divisions (I)(1) and (2) of this section, as 59827
indicated in the department of health's records. If they are hand 59828
delivered, they shall be delivered to persons who would reasonably 59829
appear to the average prudent person to have authority to accept 59830
them.59831

       (J) If ownership of a home is assigned or transferred to a 59832
different person, the new owner is responsible and liable for 59833
compliance with any notice of proposed action or order issued 59834
under this section prior to the effective date of the assignment 59835
or transfer.59836

       Sec. 3721.10.  As used in sections 3721.10 to 3721.18 of the 59837
Revised Code:59838

       (A) "Home" means all of the following:59839

       (1) A home as defined in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code;59840

       (2) Any facility or part of a facility not defined as a home 59841
under section 3721.01 of the Revised Code that is certified as a 59842
skilled nursing facility under Title XVIII of the "Social Security 59843
Act," 79 Stat. 286 (1965), 42 U.S.C.A. 1395 and 1396, as amended, 59844
or as aor nursing facility, both as defined in section 5111.2059845
5165.01 of the Revised Code;59846

       (3) A county home or district home operated pursuant to 59847
Chapter 5155. of the Revised Code.59848

       (B) "Resident" means a resident or a patient of a home.59849

       (C) "Administrator" means all of the following:59850

       (1) With respect to a home as defined in section 3721.01 of 59851
the Revised Code, a nursing home administrator as defined in 59852
section 4751.01 of the Revised Code;59853

       (2) With respect to a facility or part of a facility not 59854
defined as a home in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code that is 59855
authorized to provide skilled nursing facility or nursing facility 59856
services, the administrator of the facility or part of a facility;59857

       (3) With respect to a county home or district home, the 59858
superintendent appointed under Chapter 5155. of the Revised Code.59859

       (D) "Sponsor" means an adult relative, friend, or guardian of 59860
a resident who has an interest or responsibility in the resident's 59861
welfare.59862

       (E) "Residents' rights advocate" means:59863

       (1) An employee or representative of any state or local 59864
government entity that has a responsibility regarding residents 59865
and that has registered with the department of health under 59866
division (B) of section 3701.07 of the Revised Code;59867

       (2) An employee or representative of any private nonprofit 59868
corporation or association that qualifies for tax-exempt status 59869
under section 501(a) of the "Internal Revenue Code of 1986," 100 59870
Stat. 2085, 26 U.S.C.A. 1, as amended, and that has registered 59871
with the department of health under division (B) of section 59872
3701.07 of the Revised Code and whose purposes include educating 59873
and counseling residents, assisting residents in resolving 59874
problems and complaints concerning their care and treatment, and 59875
assisting them in securing adequate services to meet their needs;59876

       (3) A member of the general assembly.59877

       (F) "Physical restraint" means, but is not limited to, any 59878
article, device, or garment that interferes with the free movement 59879
of the resident and that the resident is unable to remove easily, 59880
a geriatric chair, or a locked room door.59881

       (G) "Chemical restraint" means any medication bearing the 59882
American hospital formulary service therapeutic class 4.004:00, 59883
28:16:08, 28:24:08, or 28:24:92 that alters the functioning of the 59884
central nervous system in a manner that limits physical and 59885
cognitive functioning to the degree that the resident cannot 59886
attain the resident's highest practicable physical, mental, and 59887
psychosocial well-being.59888

       (H) "Ancillary service" means, but is not limited to, 59889
podiatry, dental, hearing, vision, physical therapy, occupational 59890
therapy, speech therapy, and psychological and social services.59891

       (I) "Facility" means a facility, or part of a facility, 59892
certified as a nursing facility or skilled nursing facility under 59893
Title XVIII or Title XIX of the "Social Security Act, both as 59894
defined in section 5165.01 of the Revised Code." "Facility" does 59895
not include an intermediate care facility for the mentally 59896
retarded, as defined in section 5111.205124.01 of the Revised 59897
Code.59898

       (J) "Medicare" means the program established by Title XVIII 59899
of the "Social Security Act."59900

       (K) "Medicaid" means the program established by Title XIX of 59901
the "Social Security Act" and Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code.59902

       Sec. 3721.12.  (A) The administrator of a home shall:59903

       (1) With the advice of residents, their sponsors, or both, 59904
establish and review at least annually, written policies regarding 59905
the applicability and implementation of residents' rights under 59906
sections 3721.10 to 3721.17 of the Revised Code, the 59907
responsibilities of residents regarding the rights, and the home's 59908
grievance procedure established under division (A)(2) of this 59909
section. The administrator is responsible for the development of, 59910
and adherence to, procedures implementing the policies.59911

       (2) Establish a grievance committee for review of complaints 59912
by residents. The grievance committee shall be comprised of the 59913
home's staff and residents, sponsors, or outside representatives 59914
in a ratio of not more than one staff member to every two 59915
residents, sponsors, or outside representatives.59916

       (3) Furnish to each resident and sponsor prior to or at the 59917
time of admission, and to each member of the home's staff, at 59918
least one of each of the following:59919

       (a) A copy of the rights established under sections 3721.10 59920
to 3721.17 of the Revised Code;59921

       (b) A written explanation of the provisions of sections 59922
3721.16 to 3721.162 of the Revised Code;59923

       (c) A copy of the home's policies and procedures established 59924
under this section;59925

       (d) A copy of the home's rules;59926

       (e) A copy of the addresses and telephone numbers of the 59927
board of health of the health district of the county in which the 59928
home is located, the county department of job and family services 59929
of the county in which the home is located, the state departments 59930
of health and job and family servicesmedicaid, the state and 59931
local offices of the department of aging, and any Ohio nursing 59932
home ombudspersonombudsman program.59933

       (B) Written acknowledgment of the receipt of copies of the 59934
materials listed in this section shall be made part of the 59935
resident's record and the staff member's personnel record.59936

       (C) The administrator shall post all of the following 59937
prominently within the home:59938

       (1) A copy of the rights of residents as listed in division 59939
(A) of section 3721.13 of the Revised Code;59940

       (2) A copy of the home's rules and its policies and 59941
procedures regarding the rights and responsibilities of residents;59942

       (3) A notice that a copy of this chapter, rules of the 59943
department of health applicable to the home, and federal 59944
regulations adopted under the medicare and medicaid programs, and 59945
the materials required to be available in the home under section 59946
3721.021 of the Revised Code, are available for inspection in the 59947
home at reasonable hours;59948

       (4) A list of residents' rights advocates;59949

       (5) A notice that the following are available in a place 59950
readily accessible to residents:59951

       (a) If the home is licensed under section 3721.02 of the 59952
Revised Code, a copy of the most recent licensure inspection 59953
report prepared for the home under that section;59954

       (b) If the home is a facility, a copy of the most recent 59955
statement of deficiencies issued to the home under section 5111.4259956
5165.68 of the Revised Code.59957

       (D) The administrator of a home may, with the advice of 59958
residents, their sponsors, or both, establish written policies 59959
regarding the applicability and administration of any additional 59960
residents' rights beyond those set forth in sections 3721.10 to 59961
3721.17 of the Revised Code, and the responsibilities of residents 59962
regarding the rights. Policies established under this division 59963
shall be reviewed, and procedures developed and adhered to as in 59964
division (A)(1) of this section.59965

       Sec. 3721.121.  (A) As used in this section:59966

       (1) "Adult day-care program" means a program operated 59967
pursuant to rules adopted by the director of health under section 59968
3721.04 of the Revised Code and provided by and on the same site 59969
as homes licensed under this chapter.59970

       (2) "Applicant" means a person who is under final 59971
consideration for employment with a home or adult day-care program 59972
in a full-time, part-time, or temporary position that involves 59973
providing direct care to an older adult. "Applicant" does not 59974
include a person who provides direct care as a volunteer without 59975
receiving or expecting to receive any form of remuneration other 59976
than reimbursement for actual expenses.59977

       (3) "Community-based long-term care services provider" means 59978
a provider as defined in section 173.39 of the Revised Code.59979

       (4) "Criminal records check" has the same meaning as in 59980
section 109.572 of the Revised Code.59981

       (4)(5) "Home" means a home as defined in section 3721.10 of 59982
the Revised Code.59983

       (5)(6) "Older adult" means a person age sixty or older.59984

       (B)(1) Except as provided in division (I) of this section, 59985
the chief administrator of a home or adult day-care program shall 59986
request that the superintendent of the bureau of criminal 59987
identification and investigation conduct a criminal records check 59988
of each applicant. If an applicant for whom a criminal records 59989
check request is required under this division does not present 59990
proof of having been a resident of this state for the five-year 59991
period immediately prior to the date the criminal records check is 59992
requested or provide evidence that within that five-year period 59993
the superintendent has requested information about the applicant 59994
from the federal bureau of investigation in a criminal records 59995
check, the chief administrator shall request that the 59996
superintendent obtain information from the federal bureau of 59997
investigation as part of the criminal records check of the 59998
applicant. Even if an applicant for whom a criminal records check 59999
request is required under this division presents proof of having 60000
been a resident of this state for the five-year period, the chief 60001
administrator may request that the superintendent include 60002
information from the federal bureau of investigation in the 60003
criminal records check.60004

       (2) A person required by division (B)(1) of this section to 60005
request a criminal records check shall do both of the following:60006

       (a) Provide to each applicant for whom a criminal records 60007
check request is required under that division a copy of the form 60008
prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of section 109.572 of the 60009
Revised Code and a standard fingerprint impression sheet 60010
prescribed pursuant to division (C)(2) of that section, and obtain 60011
the completed form and impression sheet from the applicant;60012

       (b) Forward the completed form and impression sheet to the 60013
superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and 60014
investigation.60015

       (3) An applicant provided the form and fingerprint impression 60016
sheet under division (B)(2)(a) of this section who fails to 60017
complete the form or provide fingerprint impressions shall not be 60018
employed in any position for which a criminal records check is 60019
required by this section.60020

       (C)(1) Except as provided in rules adopted by the director of 60021
health in accordance with division (F) of this section and subject 60022
to division (C)(2) of this section, no home or adult day-care 60023
program shall employ a person in a position that involves 60024
providing direct care to an older adult if the person has been 60025
convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the following:60026

       (a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 60027
2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.34, 60028
2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.11, 2905.12, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.05, 60029
2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.12, 2907.25, 2907.31, 60030
2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 60031
2911.12, 2911.13, 2913.02, 2913.03, 2913.04, 2913.11, 2913.21, 60032
2913.31, 2913.40, 2913.43, 2913.47, 2913.51, 2919.25, 2921.36, 60033
2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.11, 2925.13, 60034
2925.22, 2925.23, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code.60035

       (b) A violation of an existing or former law of this state, 60036
any other state, or the United States that is substantially 60037
equivalent to any of the offenses listed in division (C)(1)(a) of 60038
this section.60039

       (2)(a) A home or an adult day-care program may employ 60040
conditionally an applicant for whom a criminal records check 60041
request is required under division (B) of this section prior to 60042
obtaining the results of a criminal records check regarding the 60043
individual, provided that the home or program shall request a 60044
criminal records check regarding the individual in accordance with 60045
division (B)(1) of this section not later than five business days 60046
after the individual begins conditional employment. In the 60047
circumstances described in division (I)(2) of this section, a home 60048
or adult day-care program may employ conditionally an applicant 60049
who has been referred to the home or adult day-care program by an 60050
employment service that supplies full-time, part-time, or 60051
temporary staff for positions involving the direct care of older 60052
adults and for whom, pursuant to that division, a criminal records 60053
check is not required under division (B) of this section.60054

       (b) A home or adult day-care program that employs an 60055
individual conditionally under authority of division (C)(2)(a) of 60056
this section shall terminate the individual's employment if the 60057
results of the criminal records check requested under division (B) 60058
of this section or described in division (I)(2) of this section, 60059
other than the results of any request for information from the 60060
federal bureau of investigation, are not obtained within the 60061
period ending thirty days after the date the request is made. 60062
Regardless of when the results of the criminal records check are 60063
obtained, if the results indicate that the individual has been 60064
convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the offenses listed or 60065
described in division (C)(1) of this section, the home or program 60066
shall terminate the individual's employment unless the home or 60067
program chooses to employ the individual pursuant to division (F) 60068
of this section. Termination of employment under this division 60069
shall be considered just cause for discharge for purposes of 60070
division (D)(2) of section 4141.29 of the Revised Code if the 60071
individual makes any attempt to deceive the home or program about 60072
the individual's criminal record.60073

       (D)(1) Each home or adult day-care program shall pay to the 60074
bureau of criminal identification and investigation the fee 60075
prescribed pursuant to division (C)(3) of section 109.572 of the 60076
Revised Code for each criminal records check conducted pursuant to 60077
a request made under division (B) of this section.60078

       (2) A home or adult day-care program may charge an applicant 60079
a fee not exceeding the amount the home or program pays under 60080
division (D)(1) of this section. A home or program may collect a 60081
fee only if both of the following apply:60082

       (a) The home or program notifies the person at the time of 60083
initial application for employment of the amount of the fee and 60084
that, unless the fee is paid, the person will not be considered 60085
for employment;60086

       (b) The medical assistancemedicaid program established under 60087
Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code does not reimburse the home or 60088
program the fee it pays under division (D)(1) of this section.60089

       (E) The report of any criminal records check conducted 60090
pursuant to a request made under this section is not a public 60091
record for the purposes of section 149.43 of the Revised Code and 60092
shall not be made available to any person other than the 60093
following:60094

       (1) The individual who is the subject of the criminal records 60095
check or the individual's representative;60096

       (2) The chief administrator of the home or program requesting 60097
the criminal records check or the administrator's representative;60098

       (3) The administrator of any other facility, agency, or 60099
program that provides direct care to older adults that is owned or 60100
operated by the same entity that owns or operates the home or 60101
program;60102

       (4) A court, hearing officer, or other necessary individual 60103
involved in a case dealing with a denial of employment of the 60104
applicant or dealing with employment or unemployment benefits of 60105
the applicant;60106

       (5) Any person to whom the report is provided pursuant to, 60107
and in accordance with, division (I)(1) or (2) of this section;60108

       (6) The board of nursing for purposes of accepting and 60109
processing an application for a medication aide certificate issued 60110
under Chapter 4723. of the Revised Code;60111

       (7) The director of aging or the director's designee if the 60112
criminal records check is requested by the chief administrator of 60113
a home that is also a community-based long-term care services 60114
provider.60115

       (F) In accordance with section 3721.11 of the Revised Code, 60116
the director of health shall adopt rules to implement this 60117
section. The rules shall specify circumstances under which a home 60118
or adult day-care program may employ a person who has been 60119
convicted of or pleaded guilty to an offense listed or described 60120
in division (C)(1) of this section but meets personal character 60121
standards set by the director.60122

       (G) The chief administrator of a home or adult day-care 60123
program shall inform each individual, at the time of initial 60124
application for a position that involves providing direct care to 60125
an older adult, that the individual is required to provide a set 60126
of fingerprint impressions and that a criminal records check is 60127
required to be conducted if the individual comes under final 60128
consideration for employment.60129

       (H) In a tort or other civil action for damages that is 60130
brought as the result of an injury, death, or loss to person or 60131
property caused by an individual who a home or adult day-care 60132
program employs in a position that involves providing direct care 60133
to older adults, all of the following shall apply:60134

       (1) If the home or program employed the individual in good 60135
faith and reasonable reliance on the report of a criminal records 60136
check requested under this section, the home or program shall not 60137
be found negligent solely because of its reliance on the report, 60138
even if the information in the report is determined later to have 60139
been incomplete or inaccurate;60140

       (2) If the home or program employed the individual in good 60141
faith on a conditional basis pursuant to division (C)(2) of this 60142
section, the home or program shall not be found negligent solely 60143
because it employed the individual prior to receiving the report 60144
of a criminal records check requested under this section;60145

       (3) If the home or program in good faith employed the 60146
individual according to the personal character standards 60147
established in rules adopted under division (F) of this section, 60148
the home or program shall not be found negligent solely because 60149
the individual prior to being employed had been convicted of or 60150
pleaded guilty to an offense listed or described in division 60151
(C)(1) of this section.60152

       (I)(1) The chief administrator of a home or adult day-care 60153
program is not required to request that the superintendent of the 60154
bureau of criminal identification and investigation conduct a 60155
criminal records check of an applicant if the applicant has been 60156
referred to the home or program by an employment service that 60157
supplies full-time, part-time, or temporary staff for positions 60158
involving the direct care of older adults and both of the 60159
following apply:60160

       (a) The chief administrator receives from the employment 60161
service or the applicant a report of the results of a criminal 60162
records check regarding the applicant that has been conducted by 60163
the superintendent within the one-year period immediately 60164
preceding the applicant's referral;60165

       (b) The report of the criminal records check demonstrates 60166
that the person has not been convicted of or pleaded guilty to an 60167
offense listed or described in division (C)(1) of this section, or 60168
the report demonstrates that the person has been convicted of or 60169
pleaded guilty to one or more of those offenses, but the home or 60170
adult day-care program chooses to employ the individual pursuant 60171
to division (F) of this section.60172

       (2) The chief administrator of a home or adult day-care 60173
program is not required to request that the superintendent of the 60174
bureau of criminal identification and investigation conduct a 60175
criminal records check of an applicant and may employ the 60176
applicant conditionally as described in this division, if the 60177
applicant has been referred to the home or program by an 60178
employment service that supplies full-time, part-time, or 60179
temporary staff for positions involving the direct care of older 60180
adults and if the chief administrator receives from the employment 60181
service or the applicant a letter from the employment service that 60182
is on the letterhead of the employment service, dated, and signed 60183
by a supervisor or another designated official of the employment 60184
service and that states that the employment service has requested 60185
the superintendent to conduct a criminal records check regarding 60186
the applicant, that the requested criminal records check will 60187
include a determination of whether the applicant has been 60188
convicted of or pleaded guilty to any offense listed or described 60189
in division (C)(1) of this section, that, as of the date set forth 60190
on the letter, the employment service had not received the results 60191
of the criminal records check, and that, when the employment 60192
service receives the results of the criminal records check, it 60193
promptly will send a copy of the results to the home or adult 60194
day-care program. If a home or adult day-care program employs an 60195
applicant conditionally in accordance with this division, the 60196
employment service, upon its receipt of the results of the 60197
criminal records check, promptly shall send a copy of the results 60198
to the home or adult day-care program, and division (C)(2)(b) of 60199
this section applies regarding the conditional employment.60200

       Sec. 3721.13.  (A) The rights of residents of a home shall 60201
include, but are not limited to, the following:60202

       (1) The right to a safe and clean living environment pursuant 60203
to the medicare and medicaid programs and applicable state laws 60204
and rules adopted by the director of health;60205

       (2) The right to be free from physical, verbal, mental, and 60206
emotional abuse and to be treated at all times with courtesy, 60207
respect, and full recognition of dignity and individuality;60208

       (3) Upon admission and thereafter, the right to adequate and 60209
appropriate medical treatment and nursing care and to other 60210
ancillary services that comprise necessary and appropriate care 60211
consistent with the program for which the resident contracted. 60212
This care shall be provided without regard to considerations such 60213
as race, color, religion, national origin, age, or source of 60214
payment for care.60215

       (4) The right to have all reasonable requests and inquiries 60216
responded to promptly;60217

       (5) The right to have clothes and bed sheets changed as the 60218
need arises, to ensure the resident's comfort or sanitation;60219

       (6) The right to obtain from the home, upon request, the name 60220
and any specialty of any physician or other person responsible for 60221
the resident's care or for the coordination of care;60222

       (7) The right, upon request, to be assigned, within the 60223
capacity of the home to make the assignment, to the staff 60224
physician of the resident's choice, and the right, in accordance 60225
with the rules and written policies and procedures of the home, to 60226
select as the attending physician a physician who is not on the 60227
staff of the home. If the cost of a physician's services is to be 60228
met under a federally supported program, the physician shall meet 60229
the federal laws and regulations governing such services.60230

       (8) The right to participate in decisions that affect the 60231
resident's life, including the right to communicate with the 60232
physician and employees of the home in planning the resident's 60233
treatment or care and to obtain from the attending physician 60234
complete and current information concerning medical condition, 60235
prognosis, and treatment plan, in terms the resident can 60236
reasonably be expected to understand; the right of access to all 60237
information in the resident's medical record; and the right to 60238
give or withhold informed consent for treatment after the 60239
consequences of that choice have been carefully explained. When 60240
the attending physician finds that it is not medically advisable 60241
to give the information to the resident, the information shall be 60242
made available to the resident's sponsor on the resident's behalf, 60243
if the sponsor has a legal interest or is authorized by the 60244
resident to receive the information. The home is not liable for a 60245
violation of this division if the violation is found to be the 60246
result of an act or omission on the part of a physician selected 60247
by the resident who is not otherwise affiliated with the home.60248

       (9) The right to withhold payment for physician visitation if 60249
the physician did not visit the resident;60250

       (10) The right to confidential treatment of personal and 60251
medical records, and the right to approve or refuse the release of 60252
these records to any individual outside the home, except in case 60253
of transfer to another home, hospital, or health care system, as 60254
required by law or rule, or as required by a third-party payment 60255
contract;60256

       (11) The right to privacy during medical examination or 60257
treatment and in the care of personal or bodily needs;60258

       (12) The right to refuse, without jeopardizing access to 60259
appropriate medical care, to serve as a medical research subject;60260

       (13) The right to be free from physical or chemical 60261
restraints or prolonged isolation except to the minimum extent 60262
necessary to protect the resident from injury to self, others, or 60263
to property and except as authorized in writing by the attending 60264
physician for a specified and limited period of time and 60265
documented in the resident's medical record. Prior to authorizing 60266
the use of a physical or chemical restraint on any resident, the 60267
attending physician shall make a personal examination of the 60268
resident and an individualized determination of the need to use 60269
the restraint on that resident.60270

       Physical or chemical restraints or isolation may be used in 60271
an emergency situation without authorization of the attending 60272
physician only to protect the resident from injury to self or 60273
others. Use of the physical or chemical restraints or isolation 60274
shall not be continued for more than twelve hours after the onset 60275
of the emergency without personal examination and authorization by 60276
the attending physician. The attending physician or a staff 60277
physician may authorize continued use of physical or chemical 60278
restraints for a period not to exceed thirty days, and at the end 60279
of this period and any subsequent period may extend the 60280
authorization for an additional period of not more than thirty 60281
days. The use of physical or chemical restraints shall not be 60282
continued without a personal examination of the resident and the 60283
written authorization of the attending physician stating the 60284
reasons for continuing the restraint.60285

       If physical or chemical restraints are used under this 60286
division, the home shall ensure that the restrained resident 60287
receives a proper diet. In no event shall physical or chemical 60288
restraints or isolation be used for punishment, incentive, or 60289
convenience.60290

       (14) The right to the pharmacist of the resident's choice and 60291
the right to receive pharmaceutical supplies and services at 60292
reasonable prices not exceeding applicable and normally accepted 60293
prices for comparably packaged pharmaceutical supplies and 60294
services within the community;60295

       (15) The right to exercise all civil rights, unless the 60296
resident has been adjudicated incompetent pursuant to Chapter 60297
2111. of the Revised Code and has not been restored to legal 60298
capacity, as well as the right to the cooperation of the home's 60299
administrator in making arrangements for the exercise of the right 60300
to vote;60301

       (16) The right of access to opportunities that enable the 60302
resident, at the resident's own expense or at the expense of a 60303
third-party payer, to achieve the resident's fullest potential, 60304
including educational, vocational, social, recreational, and 60305
habilitation programs;60306

       (17) The right to consume a reasonable amount of alcoholic 60307
beverages at the resident's own expense, unless not medically 60308
advisable as documented in the resident's medical record by the 60309
attending physician or unless contradictory to written admission 60310
policies;60311

       (18) The right to use tobacco at the resident's own expense 60312
under the home's safety rules and under applicable laws and rules 60313
of the state, unless not medically advisable as documented in the 60314
resident's medical record by the attending physician or unless 60315
contradictory to written admission policies;60316

       (19) The right to retire and rise in accordance with the 60317
resident's reasonable requests, if the resident does not disturb 60318
others or the posted meal schedules and upon the home's request 60319
remains in a supervised area, unless not medically advisable as 60320
documented by the attending physician;60321

       (20) The right to observe religious obligations and 60322
participate in religious activities; the right to maintain 60323
individual and cultural identity; and the right to meet with and 60324
participate in activities of social and community groups at the 60325
resident's or the group's initiative;60326

       (21) The right upon reasonable request to private and 60327
unrestricted communications with the resident's family, social 60328
worker, and any other person, unless not medically advisable as 60329
documented in the resident's medical record by the attending 60330
physician, except that communications with public officials or 60331
with the resident's attorney or physician shall not be restricted. 60332
Private and unrestricted communications shall include, but are not 60333
limited to, the right to:60334

       (a) Receive, send, and mail sealed, unopened correspondence;60335

       (b) Reasonable access to a telephone for private 60336
communications;60337

       (c) Private visits at any reasonable hour.60338

       (22) The right to assured privacy for visits by the spouse, 60339
or if both are residents of the same home, the right to share a 60340
room within the capacity of the home, unless not medically 60341
advisable as documented in the resident's medical record by the 60342
attending physician;60343

       (23) The right upon reasonable request to have room doors 60344
closed and to have them not opened without knocking, except in the 60345
case of an emergency or unless not medically advisable as 60346
documented in the resident's medical record by the attending 60347
physician;60348

       (24) The right to retain and use personal clothing and a 60349
reasonable amount of possessions, in a reasonably secure manner, 60350
unless to do so would infringe on the rights of other residents or 60351
would not be medically advisable as documented in the resident's 60352
medical record by the attending physician;60353

       (25) The right to be fully informed, prior to or at the time 60354
of admission and during the resident's stay, in writing, of the 60355
basic rate charged by the home, of services available in the home, 60356
and of any additional charges related to such services, including 60357
charges for services not covered under the medicare or medicaid 60358
program. The basic rate shall not be changed unless thirty days' 60359
notice is given to the resident or, if the resident is unable to 60360
understand this information, to the resident's sponsor.60361

       (26) The right of the resident and person paying for the care 60362
to examine and receive a bill at least monthly for the resident's 60363
care from the home that itemizes charges not included in the basic 60364
rates;60365

       (27)(a) The right to be free from financial exploitation;60366

       (b) The right to manage the resident's own personal financial 60367
affairs, or, if the resident has delegated this responsibility in 60368
writing to the home, to receive upon written request at least a 60369
quarterly accounting statement of financial transactions made on 60370
the resident's behalf. The statement shall include:60371

       (i) A complete record of all funds, personal property, or 60372
possessions of a resident from any source whatsoever, that have 60373
been deposited for safekeeping with the home for use by the 60374
resident or the resident's sponsor;60375

       (ii) A listing of all deposits and withdrawals transacted, 60376
which shall be substantiated by receipts which shall be available 60377
for inspection and copying by the resident or sponsor.60378

       (28) The right of the resident to be allowed unrestricted 60379
access to the resident's property on deposit at reasonable hours, 60380
unless requests for access to property on deposit are so 60381
persistent, continuous, and unreasonable that they constitute a 60382
nuisance;60383

       (29) The right to receive reasonable notice before the 60384
resident's room or roommate is changed, including an explanation 60385
of the reason for either change.60386

       (30) The right not to be transferred or discharged from the 60387
home unless the transfer is necessary because of one of the 60388
following:60389

       (a) The welfare and needs of the resident cannot be met in 60390
the home.60391

       (b) The resident's health has improved sufficiently so that 60392
the resident no longer needs the services provided by the home.60393

       (c) The safety of individuals in the home is endangered.60394

       (d) The health of individuals in the home would otherwise be 60395
endangered.60396

       (e) The resident has failed, after reasonable and appropriate 60397
notice, to pay or to have the medicare or medicaid program pay on 60398
the resident's behalf, for the care provided by the home. A 60399
resident shall not be considered to have failed to have the 60400
resident's care paid for if the resident has applied for medicaid, 60401
unless both of the following are the case:60402

       (i) The resident's application, or a substantially similar 60403
previous application, has been denied by the county department of 60404
job and family services.60405

       (ii) If the resident appealed the denial pursuant to division 60406
(C) of section 5101.35 of the Revised Code, the director of job 60407
and family services has upheld the denial was upheld.60408

       (f) The home's license has been revoked, the home is being 60409
closed pursuant to section 3721.08, sections 5111.355165.60 to 60410
5111.625165.89, or section 5155.31 of the Revised Code, or the 60411
home otherwise ceases to operate.60412

       (g) The resident is a recipient of medicaid, and the home's 60413
participation in the medicaid program is involuntarily terminated 60414
or denied.60415

       (h) The resident is a beneficiary under the medicare program, 60416
and the home's participation in the medicare program is 60417
involuntarily terminated or denied.60418

       (31) The right to voice grievances and recommend changes in 60419
policies and services to the home's staff, to employees of the 60420
department of health, or to other persons not associated with the 60421
operation of the home, of the resident's choice, free from 60422
restraint, interference, coercion, discrimination, or reprisal. 60423
This right includes access to a residents' rights advocate, and 60424
the right to be a member of, to be active in, and to associate 60425
with persons who are active in organizations of relatives and 60426
friends of nursing home residents and other organizations engaged 60427
in assisting residents.60428

       (32) The right to have any significant change in the 60429
resident's health status reported to the resident's sponsor. As 60430
soon as such a change is known to the home's staff, the home shall 60431
make a reasonable effort to notify the sponsor within twelve 60432
hours.60433

       (B) A sponsor may act on a resident's behalf to assure that 60434
the home does not deny the residents' rights under sections 60435
3721.10 to 3721.17 of the Revised Code.60436

       (C) Any attempted waiver of the rights listed in division (A) 60437
of this section is void.60438

       Sec. 3721.14.  To assist in the implementation of the rights 60439
granted in division (A) of section 3721.13 of the Revised Code, 60440
each home shall provide:60441

       (A) Appropriate staff training to implement each resident's 60442
rights under division (A) of section 3721.13 of the Revised Code, 60443
including, but not limited to, explaining:60444

       (1) The resident's rights and the staff's responsibility in 60445
the implementation of the rights;60446

       (2) The staff's obligation to provide all residents who have 60447
similar needs with comparable service.60448

       (B) Arrangements for a resident's needed ancillary services;60449

       (C) Protected areas outside the home for residents to enjoy 60450
outdoor activity, within the capacity of the facility, consistent 60451
with applicable laws and rules;60452

       (D) Adequate indoor space, which need not be dedicated to 60453
that purpose, for families of residents to meet privately with 60454
families of other residents;60455

       (E) Access to the following persons to enter the home during 60456
reasonable hours, except where such access would interfere with 60457
resident care or the privacy of residents:60458

       (1) Employees of the department of health, department of 60459
mental healthmental health and addiction services, department of 60460
developmental disabilities, department of aging, department of job 60461
and family services, and county departments of job and family 60462
services;60463

       (2) Prospective residents and their sponsors;60464

       (3) A resident's sponsors;60465

       (4) Residents' rights advocates;60466

       (5) A resident's attorney;60467

       (6) A minister, priest, rabbi, or other person ministering to 60468
a resident's religious needs.60469

       (F) In writing, a description of the home's grievance 60470
procedures.60471

       Sec. 3721.15.  (A) Authorization from a resident or a sponsor 60472
with a power of attorney for a home to manage the resident's 60473
financial affairs shall be in writing and shall be attested to by 60474
a witness who is not connected in any manner whatsoever with the 60475
home or its administrator. The home shall maintain accounts 60476
pursuant to division (A)(27) of section 3721.13 of the Revised 60477
Code. Upon the resident's transfer, discharge, or death, the 60478
account shall be closed and a final accounting made. All remaining 60479
funds shall be returned to the resident or resident's sponsor, 60480
except in the case of death, when all remaining funds shall be 60481
transferred or used in accordance with section 5111.1135162.22 of 60482
the Revised Code.60483

       (B) A home that manages a resident's financial affairs shall 60484
deposit the resident's funds in excess of one hundred dollars, and 60485
may deposit the resident's funds that are one hundred dollars or 60486
less, in an interest-bearing account separate from any of the 60487
home's operating accounts. Interest earned on the resident's funds 60488
shall be credited to the resident's account. A resident's funds 60489
that are one hundred dollars or less and have not been deposited 60490
in an interest-bearing account may be deposited in a 60491
noninterest-bearing account or petty cash fund.60492

       (C) Each resident whose financial affairs are managed by a 60493
home shall be promptly notified by the home when the total of the 60494
amount of funds in the resident's accounts and the petty cash fund 60495
plus other nonexempt resources reaches two hundred dollars less 60496
than the maximum amount permitted a recipient of medicaid. The 60497
notice shall include an explanation of the potential effect on the 60498
resident's eligibility for medicaid if the amount in the 60499
resident's accounts and the petty cash fund, plus the value of 60500
other nonexempt resources, exceeds the maximum assets a medicaid 60501
recipient may retain.60502

       (D) Each home that manages the financial affairs of residents 60503
shall purchase a surety bond or otherwise provide assurance 60504
satisfactory to the director of health, or, in the case of a home 60505
that participates in the medicaid program, to the medicaid60506
director of job and family services, to assure the security of all 60507
residents' funds managed by the home.60508

       Sec. 3721.16. For each resident of a home, notice of a 60509
proposed transfer or discharge shall be in accordance with this 60510
section.60511

       (A)(1) The administrator of a home shall notify a resident in 60512
writing, and the resident's sponsor in writing by certified mail, 60513
return receipt requested, in advance of any proposed transfer or 60514
discharge from the home. The administrator shall send a copy of 60515
the notice to the state department of health. The notice shall be 60516
provided at least thirty days in advance of the proposed transfer 60517
or discharge, unless any of the following applies:60518

       (a) The resident's health has improved sufficiently to allow 60519
a more immediate discharge or transfer to a less skilled level of 60520
care;60521

       (b) The resident has resided in the home less than thirty 60522
days;60523

       (c) An emergency arises in which the safety of individuals in 60524
the home is endangered;60525

       (d) An emergency arises in which the health of individuals in 60526
the home would otherwise be endangered;60527

       (e) An emergency arises in which the resident's urgent 60528
medical needs necessitate a more immediate transfer or discharge.60529

       In any of the circumstances described in divisions (A)(1)(a) 60530
to (e) of this section, the notice shall be provided as many days 60531
in advance of the proposed transfer or discharge as is 60532
practicable.60533

       (2) The notice required under division (A)(1) of this section 60534
shall include all of the following:60535

       (a) The reasons for the proposed transfer or discharge;60536

       (b) The proposed date the resident is to be transferred or 60537
discharged;60538

       (c) Subject to division (A)(3) of this section, a proposed 60539
location to which the resident may relocate and a notice that the 60540
resident and resident's sponsor may choose another location to 60541
which the resident will relocate;60542

       (d) Notice of the right of the resident and the resident's 60543
sponsor to an impartial hearing at the home on the proposed 60544
transfer or discharge, and of the manner in which and the time 60545
within which the resident or sponsor may request a hearing 60546
pursuant to section 3721.161 of the Revised Code;60547

       (e) A statement that the resident will not be transferred or 60548
discharged before the date specified in the notice unless the home 60549
and the resident or, if the resident is not competent to make a 60550
decision, the home and the resident's sponsor, agree to an earlier 60551
date;60552

       (f) The address of the legal services office of the 60553
department of health;60554

       (g) The name, address, and telephone number of a 60555
representative of the state long-term care ombudspersonombudsman60556
program and, if the resident or patient has a developmental 60557
disability or mental illness, the name, address, and telephone 60558
number of the Ohio protection and advocacy system.60559

       (3) The proposed location to which a resident may relocate as 60560
specified pursuant to division (A)(2)(c) of this section in the 60561
proposed transfer or discharge notice shall be capable of meeting 60562
the resident's health-care and safety needs. The proposed location 60563
for relocation need not have accepted the resident at the time the 60564
notice is issued to the resident and resident's sponsor.60565

       (B) No home shall transfer or discharge a resident before the 60566
date specified in the notice required by division (A) of this 60567
section unless the home and the resident or, if the resident is 60568
not competent to make a decision, the home and the resident's 60569
sponsor, agree to an earlier date.60570

       (C) Transfer or discharge actions shall be documented in the 60571
resident's medical record by the home if there is a medical basis 60572
for the action.60573

       (D) A resident or resident's sponsor may challenge a transfer 60574
or discharge by requesting an impartial hearing pursuant to 60575
section 3721.161 of the Revised Code, unless the transfer or 60576
discharge is required because of one of the following reasons:60577

       (1) The home's license has been revoked under this chapter;60578

       (2) The home is being closed pursuant to section 3721.08, 60579
sections 5111.355165.60 to 5111.625165.89, or section 5155.31 of 60580
the Revised Code;60581

       (3) The resident is a recipient of medicaid and the home's 60582
participation in the medicaid program has been involuntarily 60583
terminated or denied by the federal government;60584

       (4) The resident is a beneficiary under the medicare program 60585
and the home's certification under the medicare program has been 60586
involuntarily terminated or denied by the federal government.60587

       (E) If a resident is transferred or discharged pursuant to 60588
this section, the home from which the resident is being 60589
transferred or discharged shall provide the resident with adequate 60590
preparation prior to the transfer or discharge to ensure a safe 60591
and orderly transfer or discharge from the home, and the home or 60592
alternative setting to which the resident is to be transferred or 60593
discharged shall have accepted the resident for transfer or 60594
discharge.60595

       (F) At the time of a transfer or discharge of a resident who 60596
is a recipient of medicaid from a home to a hospital or for 60597
therapeutic leave, the home shall provide notice in writing to the 60598
resident and in writing by certified mail, return receipt 60599
requested, to the resident's sponsor, specifying the number of 60600
days, if any, during which the resident will be permitted under 60601
the medicaid program to return and resume residence in the home 60602
and specifying the medicaid program's coverage of the days during 60603
which the resident is absent from the home. An individual who is 60604
absent from a home for more than the number of days specified in 60605
the notice and continues to require the services provided by the 60606
facility shall be given priority for the first available bed in a 60607
semi-private room.60608

       Sec. 3721.17.  (A) Any resident who believes that the 60609
resident's rights under sections 3721.10 to 3721.17 of the Revised 60610
Code have been violated may file a grievance under procedures 60611
adopted pursuant to division (A)(2) of section 3721.12 of the 60612
Revised Code.60613

       When the grievance committee determines a violation of 60614
sections 3721.10 to 3721.17 of the Revised Code has occurred, it 60615
shall notify the administrator of the home. If the violation 60616
cannot be corrected within ten days, or if ten days have elapsed 60617
without correction of the violation, the grievance committee shall 60618
refer the matter to the department of health.60619

       (B) Any person who believes that a resident's rights under 60620
sections 3721.10 to 3721.17 of the Revised Code have been violated 60621
may report or cause reports to be made of the information directly 60622
to the department of health. No person who files a report is 60623
liable for civil damages resulting from the report.60624

       (C)(1) Within thirty days of receiving a complaint under this 60625
section, the department of health shall investigate any complaint 60626
referred to it by a home's grievance committee and any complaint 60627
from any source that alleges that the home provided substantially 60628
less than adequate care or treatment, or substantially unsafe 60629
conditions, or, within seven days of receiving a complaint, refer 60630
it to the attorney general, if the attorney general agrees to 60631
investigate within thirty days.60632

       (2) Within thirty days of receiving a complaint under this 60633
section, the department of health may investigate any alleged 60634
violation of sections 3721.10 to 3721.17 of the Revised Code, or 60635
of rules, policies, or procedures adopted pursuant to those 60636
sections, not covered by division (C)(1) of this section, or it 60637
may, within seven days of receiving a complaint, refer the 60638
complaint to the grievance committee at the home where the alleged 60639
violation occurred, or to the attorney general if the attorney 60640
general agrees to investigate within thirty days.60641

       (D) If, after an investigation, the department of health 60642
finds probable cause to believe that a violation of sections 60643
3721.10 to 3721.17 of the Revised Code, or of rules, policies, or 60644
procedures adopted pursuant to those sections, has occurred at a 60645
home that is certified under the medicare or medicaid program, it 60646
shall cite one or more findings or deficiencies under sections 60647
5111.355165.60 to 5111.625165.89 of the Revised Code. If the 60648
home is not so certified, the department shall hold an 60649
adjudicative hearing within thirty days under Chapter 119. of the 60650
Revised Code.60651

       (E) Upon a finding at an adjudicative hearing under division 60652
(D) of this section that a violation of sections 3721.10 to 60653
3721.17 of the Revised Code, or of rules, policies, or procedures 60654
adopted pursuant thereto, has occurred, the department of health 60655
shall make an order for compliance, set a reasonable time for 60656
compliance, and assess a fine pursuant to division (F) of this 60657
section. The fine shall be paid to the general revenue fund only 60658
if compliance with the order is not shown to have been made within 60659
the reasonable time set in the order. The department of health may 60660
issue an order prohibiting the continuation of any violation of 60661
sections 3721.10 to 3721.17 of the Revised Code.60662

       Findings at the hearings conducted under this section may be 60663
appealed pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, except that 60664
an appeal may be made to the court of common pleas of the county 60665
in which the home is located.60666

       The department of health shall initiate proceedings in court 60667
to collect any fine assessed under this section that is unpaid 60668
thirty days after the violator's final appeal is exhausted.60669

       (F) Any home found, pursuant to an adjudication hearing under 60670
division (D) of this section, to have violated sections 3721.10 to 60671
3721.17 of the Revised Code, or rules, policies, or procedures 60672
adopted pursuant to those sections may be fined not less than one 60673
hundred nor more than five hundred dollars for a first offense. 60674
For each subsequent offense, the home may be fined not less than 60675
two hundred nor more than one thousand dollars.60676

       A violation of sections 3721.10 to 3721.17 of the Revised 60677
Code is a separate offense for each day of the violation and for 60678
each resident who claims the violation.60679

       (G) No home or employee of a home shall retaliate against any 60680
person who:60681

       (1) Exercises any right set forth in sections 3721.10 to 60682
3721.17 of the Revised Code, including, but not limited to, filing 60683
a complaint with the home's grievance committee or reporting an 60684
alleged violation to the department of health;60685

       (2) Appears as a witness in any hearing conducted under this 60686
section or section 3721.162 of the Revised Code;60687

       (3) Files a civil action alleging a violation of sections 60688
3721.10 to 3721.17 of the Revised Code, or notifies a county 60689
prosecuting attorney or the attorney general of a possible 60690
violation of sections 3721.10 to 3721.17 of the Revised Code.60691

       If, under the procedures outlined in this section, a home or 60692
its employee is found to have retaliated, the violator may be 60693
fined up to one thousand dollars.60694

       (H) When legal action is indicated, any evidence of criminal 60695
activity found in an investigation under division (C) of this 60696
section shall be given to the prosecuting attorney in the county 60697
in which the home is located for investigation.60698

       (I)(1)(a) Any resident whose rights under sections 3721.10 to 60699
3721.17 of the Revised Code are violated has a cause of action 60700
against any person or home committing the violation.60701

       (b) An action under division (I)(1)(a) of this section may be 60702
commenced by the resident or by the resident's legal guardian or 60703
other legally authorized representative on behalf of the resident 60704
or the resident's estate. If the resident or the resident's legal 60705
guardian or other legally authorized representative is unable to 60706
commence an action under that division on behalf of the resident, 60707
the following persons in the following order of priority have the 60708
right to and may commence an action under that division on behalf 60709
of the resident or the resident's estate:60710

       (i) The resident's spouse;60711

       (ii) The resident's parent or adult child;60712

       (iii) The resident's guardian if the resident is a minor 60713
child;60714

       (iv) The resident's brother or sister;60715

       (v) The resident's niece, nephew, aunt, or uncle.60716

       (c) Notwithstanding any law as to priority of persons 60717
entitled to commence an action, if more than one eligible person 60718
within the same level of priority seeks to commence an action on 60719
behalf of a resident or the resident's estate, the court shall 60720
determine, in the best interest of the resident or the resident's 60721
estate, the individual to commence the action. A court's 60722
determination under this division as to the person to commence an 60723
action on behalf of a resident or the resident's estate shall bar 60724
another person from commencing the action on behalf of the 60725
resident or the resident's estate.60726

       (d) The result of an action commenced pursuant to division 60727
(I)(1)(a) of this section by a person authorized under division 60728
(I)(1)(b) of this section shall bind the resident or the 60729
resident's estate that is the subject of the action.60730

       (e) A cause of action under division (I)(1)(a) of this 60731
section shall accrue, and the statute of limitations applicable to 60732
that cause of action shall begin to run, based upon the violation 60733
of a resident's rights under sections 3721.10 to 3721.17 of the 60734
Revised Code, regardless of the party commencing the action on 60735
behalf of the resident or the resident's estate as authorized 60736
under divisions (I)(1)(b) and (c) of this section.60737

       (2)(a) The plaintiff in an action filed under division (I)(1) 60738
of this section may obtain injunctive relief against the violation 60739
of the resident's rights. The plaintiff also may recover 60740
compensatory damages based upon a showing, by a preponderance of 60741
the evidence, that the violation of the resident's rights resulted 60742
from a negligent act or omission of the person or home and that 60743
the violation was the proximate cause of the resident's injury, 60744
death, or loss to person or property.60745

       (b) If compensatory damages are awarded for a violation of 60746
the resident's rights, section 2315.21 of the Revised Code shall 60747
apply to an award of punitive or exemplary damages for the 60748
violation.60749

       (c) The court, in a case in which only injunctive relief is 60750
granted, may award to the prevailing party reasonable attorney's 60751
fees limited to the work reasonably performed.60752

       (3) Division (I)(2) (b) of this section shall be considered 60753
to be purely remedial in operation and shall be applied in a 60754
remedial manner in any civil action in which this section is 60755
relevant, whether the action is pending in court or commenced on 60756
or after July 9, 1998.60757

       (4) Within thirty days after the filing of a complaint in an 60758
action for damages brought against a home under division (I)(1)(a) 60759
of this section by or on behalf of a resident or former resident 60760
of the home, the plaintiff or plaintiff's counsel shall send 60761
written notice of the filing of the complaint to the department of 60762
job and family servicesmedicaid if the department has a right of 60763
recovery under section 5101.585160.37 of the Revised Code against 60764
the liability of the home for the cost of medicalmedicaid60765
services and care arising out of injury, disease, or disability of 60766
the resident or former resident.60767

       Sec. 3721.19.  (A) As used in this section:60768

       (1) "Home" and "residential care facility" have the same 60769
meanings as in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code;60770

       (2) "Provider agreement" has the same meaning as in section 60771
5165.01 of the Revised Code.60772

       (3) "Sponsor" and "residents' rights advocate" have the same 60773
meanings as in section 3721.10 of the Revised Code.60774

       A home licensed under this chapter that is not a party to a 60775
provider agreement, as defined in section 5111.20 of the Revised 60776
Code, shall provide each prospective resident, before admission, 60777
with the following information, orally and in a separate written 60778
notice on which is printed in a conspicuous manner: "This home is 60779
not a participant in the medical assistancemedicaid program 60780
administered by the Ohio department of job and family services60781
medicaid. Consequently, you may be discharged from this home if 60782
you are unable to pay for the services provided by this home."60783

       If the prospective resident has a sponsor whose identity is 60784
made known to the home, the home shall also inform the sponsor, 60785
before admission of the resident, of the home's status relative to 60786
the medical assistancemedicaid program. Written acknowledgement 60787
of the receipt of the information shall be provided by the 60788
resident and, if the prospective resident has a sponsor who has 60789
been identified to the home, by the sponsor. The written 60790
acknowledgement shall be made part of the resident's record by the 60791
home.60792

       No home shall terminate its status as a provider under the 60793
medicaid programagreement unless it has complied with section 60794
5111.665165.50 of the Revised Code and, at least ninety days 60795
prior to such termination, provided written notice to the 60796
residents of the home and their sponsors of such action. This 60797
requirement shall not apply in cases where the department of job 60798
and family servicesmedicaid terminates a home's provider 60799
agreement or provider status.60800

       (B) A home licensed under this chapter as a residential care 60801
facility shall provide notice to each prospective resident or the 60802
individual's sponsor of the services offered by the facility and 60803
the types of skilled nursing care that the facility may provide. A 60804
residential care facility that, pursuant to section 3721.012 of 60805
the Revised Code, has a policy of entering into risk agreements 60806
with residents or their sponsors shall provide each prospective 60807
resident or the individual's sponsor a written explanation of the 60808
policy and the provisions that may be contained in a risk 60809
agreement. At the time the information is provided, the facility 60810
shall obtain a statement signed by the individual receiving the 60811
information acknowledging that the individual received the 60812
information. The facility shall maintain on file the individual's 60813
signed statement.60814

       (C) A resident has a cause of action against a home for 60815
breach of any duty imposed by this section. The action may be 60816
commenced by the resident, or on the resident's behalf by the 60817
resident's sponsor or a residents' rights advocate, by the filing 60818
of a civil action in the court of common pleas of the county in 60819
which the home is located, or in the court of common pleas of 60820
Franklin county.60821

       If the court finds that a breach of any duty imposed by this 60822
section has occurred, the court shall enjoin the home from 60823
discharging the resident from the home until arrangements 60824
satisfactory to the court are made for the orderly transfer of the 60825
resident to another mode of health care including, but not limited 60826
to, another home, and may award the resident and a person or 60827
public agency that brings an action on behalf of a resident 60828
reasonable attorney's fees. If a home discharges a resident to 60829
whom or to whose sponsor information concerning its status 60830
relative to the medical assistancemedicaid program was not 60831
provided as required under this section, the court shall grant any 60832
appropriate relief including, but not limited to, actual damages, 60833
reasonable attorney's fees, and costs.60834

       Sec. 3727.01. (A) As used in this section, "health 60835
maintenance organization" means a public or private organization 60836
organized under the law of any state that is qualified under 60837
section 1310(d) of Title XIII of the "Public Health Service Act," 60838
87 Stat. 931 (1973), 42 U.S.C. 300e-9, or that does all of the 60839
following:60840

       (1) Provides or otherwise makes available to enrolled 60841
participants health care services including at least the following 60842
basic health care services: usual physician services, 60843
hospitalization, laboratory, x-ray, emergency and preventive 60844
service, and out-of-area coverage;60845

       (2) Is compensated, except for copayments, for the provision 60846
of basic health care services to enrolled participants by a 60847
payment that is paid on a periodic basis without regard to the 60848
date the health care services are provided and that is fixed 60849
without regard to the frequency, extent, or kind of health service 60850
actually provided;60851

       (3) Provides physician services primarily in either of the 60852
following ways:60853

       (a) Directly through physicians who are either employees or 60854
partners of the organization;60855

       (b) Through arrangements with individual physicians or one or 60856
more groups of physicians organized on a group-practice or 60857
individual-practice basis.60858

       (B) As used in this chapter:60859

       (1) "Children's hospital" means any of the following:60860

       (a) A hospital registered under section 3701.07 of the 60861
Revised Code that provides general pediatric medical and surgical 60862
care, and in which at least seventy-five per cent of annual 60863
inpatient discharges for the preceding two calendar years were 60864
individuals less than eighteen years of age; 60865

       (b) A distinct portion of a hospital registered under section 60866
3701.07 of the Revised Code that provides general pediatric 60867
medical and surgical care, has a total of at least one hundred 60868
fifty registered pediatric special care and pediatric acute care 60869
beds, and in which at least seventy-five per cent of annual 60870
inpatient discharges for the preceding two calendar years were 60871
individuals less than eighteen years of age; 60872

       (c) A distinct portion of a hospital, if the hospital is 60873
registered under section 3701.07 of the Revised Code as a 60874
children's hospital and the children's hospital meets all the 60875
requirements of division (B)(1)(a) of this section.60876

        (2) "Hospital" means an institution classified as a hospital 60877
under section 3701.07 of the Revised Code in which are provided to 60878
inpatients diagnostic, medical, surgical, obstetrical, 60879
psychiatric, or rehabilitation care for a continuous period longer 60880
than twenty-four hours or a hospital operated by a health 60881
maintenance organization. "Hospital" does not include a facility 60882
licensed under Chapter 3721. of the Revised Code, a health care 60883
facility operated by the department of mental healthmental health 60884
and addiction services or the department of developmental 60885
disabilities, a health maintenance organization that does not 60886
operate a hospital, the office of any private licensed health care 60887
professional, whether organized for individual or group practice, 60888
or a clinic that provides ambulatory patient services and where 60889
patients are not regularly admitted as inpatients. "Hospital" also 60890
does not include an institution for the sick that is operated 60891
exclusively for patients who use spiritual means for healing and 60892
for whom the acceptance of medical care is inconsistent with their 60893
religious beliefs, accredited by a national accrediting 60894
organization, exempt from federal income taxation under section 60895
501 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, 100 Stat. 2085, 26 60896
U.S.C.A. 1, as amended, and providing twenty-four hour nursing 60897
care pursuant to the exemption in division (E) of section 4723.32 60898
of the Revised Code from the licensing requirements of Chapter 60899
4723. of the Revised Code.60900

       (3) "Joint commission" means the commission formerly known as 60901
the joint commission on accreditation of healthcare organizations 60902
or the joint commission on accreditation of hospitals.60903

       Sec. 3734.28.  Except as otherwise provided in sections 60904
3734.281 and 3734.282 of the Revised Code, moneys collected under 60905
sections 3734.122, 3734.13, 3734.20, 3734.22, 3734.24, and 3734.26 60906
of the Revised Code and under the "Comprehensive Environmental 60907
Response, Compensation, and Liability Act of 1980," 94 Stat. 2767, 60908
42 U.S.C.A. 9601, et seq., as amended, including moneys recovered 60909
under division (B)(1) of this section, shall be paid into the 60910
state treasury to the credit of the hazardous waste clean-up fund, 60911
which is hereby created. In addition, both of the following shall 60912
be credited to the fund:60913

       (A) Moneys recovered for costs paid from the fund for 60914
activities described in divisions (A)(1) and (2) of section 60915
3745.12 of the Revised Code;60916

       (B) Natural resource damage assessment costs recovered under 60917
any of the following:60918

       (1) The "Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, 60919
and Liability Act of 1980," 94 Stat. 2767, 42 U.S.C. 9601, et 60920
seq., as amended;60921

       (2) The "Oil Pollution Act of 1990," 104 Stat. 484, 33 U.S.C. 60922
2701, et seq., as amended;60923

       (3) The Federal Water Pollution Control Act as defined in 60924
section 6111.01 of the Revised Code"Clean Water Act of 1977," 91 60925
Stat. 1566, 33 U.S.C. 1321, et seq., as amended;60926

       (4) Any other applicable federal or state law. 60927

       The environmental protection agency shall use the moneys in 60928
the fund for the purposes set forth in division (D) of section 60929
3734.122, sections 3734.19, 3734.20, 3734.21, 3734.23, 3734.25, 60930
3734.26, and 3734.27, divisions (A)(1) and (2) of section 3745.12, 60931
and Chapter 3746. of the Revised Code, including any related 60932
enforcement expenses and administrative expenses of any related 60933
closure or corrective action program. In addition, the agency 60934
shall use the moneys in the fund to pay the state's long-term 60935
operation and maintenance costs or matching share for actions 60936
taken under the "Comprehensive Environmental Response, 60937
Compensation, and Liability Act of 1980," as amended. If those 60938
moneys are reimbursed by grants or other moneys from the United 60939
States or any other person, the moneys shall be placed in the fund 60940
and not in the general revenue fund.60941

       The director of environmental protection may enter into 60942
contracts and grant agreements with federal, state, or local 60943
government agencies, nonprofit organizations, and colleges and 60944
universities for the purpose of carrying out the responsibilities 60945
of the environmental protection agency for which money may be 60946
expended from the fund.60947

       Sec. 3734.57.  (A) The following fees are hereby levied on 60948
the transfer or disposal of solid wastes in this state:60949

       (1) One dollar per ton through June 30, 20142016, one-half60950
thirty per cent of the proceeds of which shall be deposited in the 60951
state treasury to the credit of the hazardous waste facility 60952
management fund created in section 3734.18 of the Revised Code and 60953
one-halfseventy per cent of the proceeds of which shall be 60954
deposited in the state treasury to the credit of the hazardous 60955
waste clean-up fund created in section 3734.28 of the Revised 60956
Code;60957

       (2) An additional one dollar per ton through June 30, 201460958
2016, the proceeds of which shall be deposited in the state 60959
treasury to the credit of the solid waste fund, which is hereby 60960
created. The environmental protection agency shall use money in 60961
the solid waste fund to pay the costs of administering and 60962
enforcing the laws pertaining to solid wastes, infectious wastes, 60963
and construction and demolition debris, including, without 60964
limitation, ground water evaluations related to solid wastes, 60965
infectious wastes, and construction and demolition debris, under 60966
this chapter and Chapter 3714. of the Revised Code and any rules 60967
adopted under them, providing compliance assistance to small 60968
businesses, and paying a share of the administrative costs of the 60969
environmental protection agency pursuant to section 3745.014 of 60970
the Revised Code.60971

        (3) An additional two dollars and fifty cents per ton through 60972
June 30, 20142016, the proceeds of which shall be deposited in 60973
the state treasury to the credit of the environmental protection 60974
fund created in section 3745.015 of the Revised Code;60975

       (4) An additional twenty-five cents per ton through June 30, 60976
20132016, the proceeds of which shall be deposited in the state 60977
treasury to the credit of the soil and water conservation district 60978
assistance fund created in section 1515.14 of the Revised Code.60979

       In the case of solid wastes that are taken to a solid waste 60980
transfer facility located in this state prior to being transported 60981
for disposal at a solid waste disposal facility located in this 60982
state or outside of this state, the fees levied under this 60983
division shall be collected by the owner or operator of the 60984
transfer facility as a trustee for the state. The amount of fees 60985
required to be collected under this division at such a transfer 60986
facility shall equal the total tonnage of solid wastes received at 60987
the facility multiplied by the fees levied under this division. In 60988
the case of solid wastes that are not taken to a solid waste 60989
transfer facility located in this state prior to being transported 60990
to a solid waste disposal facility, the fees shall be collected by 60991
the owner or operator of the solid waste disposal facility as a 60992
trustee for the state. The amount of fees required to be collected 60993
under this division at such a disposal facility shall equal the 60994
total tonnage of solid wastes received at the facility that was 60995
not previously taken to a solid waste transfer facility located in 60996
this state multiplied by the fees levied under this division. Fees 60997
levied under this division do not apply to materials separated 60998
from a mixed waste stream for recycling by a generator or 60999
materials removed from the solid waste stream through recycling, 61000
as "recycling" is defined in rules adopted under section 3734.02 61001
of the Revised Code.61002

       The owner or operator of a solid waste transfer facility or 61003
disposal facility, as applicable, shall prepare and file with the 61004
director of environmental protection each month a return 61005
indicating the total tonnage of solid wastes received at the 61006
facility during that month and the total amount of the fees 61007
required to be collected under this division during that month. In 61008
addition, the owner or operator of a solid waste disposal facility 61009
shall indicate on the return the total tonnage of solid wastes 61010
received from transfer facilities located in this state during 61011
that month for which the fees were required to be collected by the 61012
transfer facilities. The monthly returns shall be filed on a form 61013
prescribed by the director. Not later than thirty days after the 61014
last day of the month to which a return applies, the owner or 61015
operator shall mail to the director the return for that month 61016
together with the fees required to be collected under this 61017
division during that month as indicated on the return or may 61018
submit the return and fees electronically in a manner approved by 61019
the director. If the return is filed and the amount of the fees 61020
due is paid in a timely manner as required in this division, the 61021
owner or operator may retain a discount of three-fourths of one 61022
per cent of the total amount of the fees that are required to be 61023
paid as indicated on the return.61024

        The owner or operator may request an extension of not more 61025
than thirty days for filing the return and remitting the fees, 61026
provided that the owner or operator has submitted such a request 61027
in writing to the director together with a detailed description of 61028
why the extension is requested, the director has received the 61029
request not later than the day on which the return is required to 61030
be filed, and the director has approved the request. If the fees 61031
are not remitted within thirty days after the last day of the 61032
month to which the return applies or are not remitted by the last 61033
day of an extension approved by the director, the owner or 61034
operator shall not retain the three-fourths of one per cent 61035
discount and shall pay an additional ten per cent of the amount of 61036
the fees for each month that they are late. For purposes of 61037
calculating the late fee, the first month in which fees are late 61038
begins on the first day after the deadline has passed for timely 61039
submitting the return and fees, and one additional month shall be 61040
counted every thirty days thereafter.61041

       The owner or operator of a solid waste facility may request a 61042
refund or credit of fees levied under this division and remitted 61043
to the director that have not been paid to the owner or operator. 61044
Such a request shall be made only if the fees have not been 61045
collected by the owner or operator, have become a debt that has 61046
become worthless or uncollectable for a period of six months or 61047
more, and may be claimed as a deduction, including a deduction 61048
claimed if the owner or operator keeps accounts on an accrual 61049
basis, under the "Internal Revenue Code of 1954," 68A Stat. 50, 26 61050
U.S.C. 166, as amended, and regulations adopted under it. Prior to 61051
making a request for a refund or credit, an owner or operator 61052
shall make reasonable efforts to collect the applicable fees. A 61053
request for a refund or credit shall not include any costs 61054
resulting from those efforts to collect unpaid fees.61055

       A request for a refund or credit of fees shall be made in 61056
writing, on a form prescribed by the director, and shall be 61057
supported by evidence that may be required in rules adopted by the 61058
director under this chapter. After reviewing the request, and if 61059
the request and evidence submitted with the request indicate that 61060
a refund or credit is warranted, the director shall grant a refund 61061
to the owner or operator or shall permit a credit to be taken by 61062
the owner or operator on a subsequent monthly return submitted by 61063
the owner or operator. The amount of a refund or credit shall not 61064
exceed an amount that is equal to ninety days' worth of fees owed 61065
to an owner or operator by a particular debtor of the owner or 61066
operator. A refund or credit shall not be granted by the director 61067
to an owner or operator more than once in any twelve-month period 61068
for fees owed to the owner or operator by a particular debtor.61069

       If, after receiving a refund or credit from the director, an 61070
owner or operator receives payment of all or part of the fees, the 61071
owner or operator shall remit the fees with the next monthly 61072
return submitted to the director together with a written 61073
explanation of the reason for the submittal.61074

        For purposes of computing the fees levied under this division 61075
or division (B) of this section, any solid waste transfer or 61076
disposal facility that does not use scales as a means of 61077
determining gate receipts shall use a conversion factor of three 61078
cubic yards per ton of solid waste or one cubic yard per ton for 61079
baled waste, as applicable.61080

       The fees levied under this division and divisions (B) and (C) 61081
of this section are in addition to all other applicable fees and 61082
taxes and shall be paid by the customer or a political subdivision 61083
to the owner or operator of a solid waste transfer or disposal 61084
facility. In the alternative, the fees shall be paid by a customer 61085
or political subdivision to a transporter of waste who 61086
subsequently transfers the fees to the owner or operator of such a 61087
facility. The fees shall be paid notwithstanding the existence of 61088
any provision in a contract that the customer or a political 61089
subdivision may have with the owner or operator or with a 61090
transporter of waste to the facility that would not require or 61091
allow such payment regardless of whether the contract was entered 61092
prior to or after October 16, 2009. For those purposes, "customer" 61093
means a person who contracts with, or utilizes the solid waste 61094
services of, the owner or operator of a solid waste transfer or 61095
disposal facility or a transporter of solid waste to such a 61096
facility.61097

       (B) For the purposes specified in division (G) of this 61098
section, the solid waste management policy committee of a county 61099
or joint solid waste management district may levy fees upon the 61100
following activities:61101

       (1) The disposal at a solid waste disposal facility located 61102
in the district of solid wastes generated within the district;61103

       (2) The disposal at a solid waste disposal facility within 61104
the district of solid wastes generated outside the boundaries of 61105
the district, but inside this state;61106

       (3) The disposal at a solid waste disposal facility within 61107
the district of solid wastes generated outside the boundaries of 61108
this state.61109

        The solid waste management plan of the county or joint 61110
district approved under section 3734.521 or 3734.55 of the Revised 61111
Code and any amendments to it, or the resolution adopted under 61112
this division, as appropriate, shall establish the rates of the 61113
fees levied under divisions (B)(1), (2), and (3) of this section, 61114
if any, and shall specify whether the fees are levied on the basis 61115
of tons or cubic yards as the unit of measurement. A solid waste 61116
management district that levies fees under this division on the 61117
basis of cubic yards shall do so in accordance with division (A) 61118
of this section.61119

        The fee levied under division (B)(1) of this section shall be 61120
not less than one dollar per ton nor more than two dollars per 61121
ton, the fee levied under division (B)(2) of this section shall be 61122
not less than two dollars per ton nor more than four dollars per 61123
ton, and the fee levied under division (B)(3) of this section 61124
shall be not more than the fee levied under division (B)(1) of 61125
this section.61126

       Prior to the approval of the solid waste management plan of a 61127
district under section 3734.55 of the Revised Code, the solid 61128
waste management policy committee of a district may levy fees 61129
under this division by adopting a resolution establishing the 61130
proposed amount of the fees. Upon adopting the resolution, the 61131
committee shall deliver a copy of the resolution to the board of 61132
county commissioners of each county forming the district and to 61133
the legislative authority of each municipal corporation and 61134
township under the jurisdiction of the district and shall prepare 61135
and publish the resolution and a notice of the time and location 61136
where a public hearing on the fees will be held. Upon adopting the 61137
resolution, the committee shall deliver written notice of the 61138
adoption of the resolution; of the amount of the proposed fees; 61139
and of the date, time, and location of the public hearing to the 61140
director and to the fifty industrial, commercial, or institutional 61141
generators of solid wastes within the district that generate the 61142
largest quantities of solid wastes, as determined by the 61143
committee, and to their local trade associations. The committee 61144
shall make good faith efforts to identify those generators within 61145
the district and their local trade associations, but the 61146
nonprovision of notice under this division to a particular 61147
generator or local trade association does not invalidate the 61148
proceedings under this division. The publication shall occur at 61149
least thirty days before the hearing. After the hearing, the 61150
committee may make such revisions to the proposed fees as it 61151
considers appropriate and thereafter, by resolution, shall adopt 61152
the revised fee schedule. Upon adopting the revised fee schedule, 61153
the committee shall deliver a copy of the resolution doing so to 61154
the board of county commissioners of each county forming the 61155
district and to the legislative authority of each municipal 61156
corporation and township under the jurisdiction of the district. 61157
Within sixty days after the delivery of a copy of the resolution 61158
adopting the proposed revised fees by the policy committee, each 61159
such board and legislative authority, by ordinance or resolution, 61160
shall approve or disapprove the revised fees and deliver a copy of 61161
the ordinance or resolution to the committee. If any such board or 61162
legislative authority fails to adopt and deliver to the policy 61163
committee an ordinance or resolution approving or disapproving the 61164
revised fees within sixty days after the policy committee 61165
delivered its resolution adopting the proposed revised fees, it 61166
shall be conclusively presumed that the board or legislative 61167
authority has approved the proposed revised fees. The committee 61168
shall determine if the resolution has been ratified in the same 61169
manner in which it determines if a draft solid waste management 61170
plan has been ratified under division (B) of section 3734.55 of 61171
the Revised Code.61172

       The committee may amend the schedule of fees levied pursuant 61173
to a resolution adopted and ratified under this division by 61174
adopting a resolution establishing the proposed amount of the 61175
amended fees. The committee may repeal the fees levied pursuant to 61176
such a resolution by adopting a resolution proposing to repeal 61177
them. Upon adopting such a resolution, the committee shall proceed 61178
to obtain ratification of the resolution in accordance with this 61179
division.61180

       Not later than fourteen days after declaring the new fees to 61181
be ratified or the fees to be repealed under this division, the 61182
committee shall notify by certified mail the owner or operator of 61183
each solid waste disposal facility that is required to collect the 61184
fees of the ratification and the amount of the fees or of the 61185
repeal of the fees. Collection of any fees shall commence or 61186
collection of repealed fees shall cease on the first day of the 61187
second month following the month in which notification is sent to 61188
the owner or operator.61189

       Fees levied under this division also may be established, 61190
amended, or repealed by a solid waste management policy committee 61191
through the adoption of a new district solid waste management 61192
plan, the adoption of an amended plan, or the amendment of the 61193
plan or amended plan in accordance with sections 3734.55 and 61194
3734.56 of the Revised Code or the adoption or amendment of a 61195
district plan in connection with a change in district composition 61196
under section 3734.521 of the Revised Code.61197

       Not later than fourteen days after the director issues an 61198
order approving a district's solid waste management plan, amended 61199
plan, or amendment to a plan or amended plan that establishes, 61200
amends, or repeals a schedule of fees levied by the district, the 61201
committee shall notify by certified mail the owner or operator of 61202
each solid waste disposal facility that is required to collect the 61203
fees of the approval of the plan or amended plan, or the amendment 61204
to the plan, as appropriate, and the amount of the fees, if any. 61205
In the case of an initial or amended plan approved under section 61206
3734.521 of the Revised Code in connection with a change in 61207
district composition, other than one involving the withdrawal of a 61208
county from a joint district, the committee, within fourteen days 61209
after the change takes effect pursuant to division (G) of that 61210
section, shall notify by certified mail the owner or operator of 61211
each solid waste disposal facility that is required to collect the 61212
fees that the change has taken effect and of the amount of the 61213
fees, if any. Collection of any fees shall commence or collection 61214
of repealed fees shall cease on the first day of the second month 61215
following the month in which notification is sent to the owner or 61216
operator.61217

       If, in the case of a change in district composition involving 61218
the withdrawal of a county from a joint district, the director 61219
completes the actions required under division (G)(1) or (3) of 61220
section 3734.521 of the Revised Code, as appropriate, forty-five 61221
days or more before the beginning of a calendar year, the policy 61222
committee of each of the districts resulting from the change that 61223
obtained the director's approval of an initial or amended plan in 61224
connection with the change, within fourteen days after the 61225
director's completion of the required actions, shall notify by 61226
certified mail the owner or operator of each solid waste disposal 61227
facility that is required to collect the district's fees that the 61228
change is to take effect on the first day of January immediately 61229
following the issuance of the notice and of the amount of the fees 61230
or amended fees levied under divisions (B)(1) to (3) of this 61231
section pursuant to the district's initial or amended plan as so 61232
approved or, if appropriate, the repeal of the district's fees by 61233
that initial or amended plan. Collection of any fees set forth in 61234
such a plan or amended plan shall commence on the first day of 61235
January immediately following the issuance of the notice. If such 61236
an initial or amended plan repeals a schedule of fees, collection 61237
of the fees shall cease on that first day of January.61238

       If, in the case of a change in district composition involving 61239
the withdrawal of a county from a joint district, the director 61240
completes the actions required under division (G)(1) or (3) of 61241
section 3734.521 of the Revised Code, as appropriate, less than 61242
forty-five days before the beginning of a calendar year, the 61243
director, on behalf of each of the districts resulting from the 61244
change that obtained the director's approval of an initial or 61245
amended plan in connection with the change proceedings, shall 61246
notify by certified mail the owner or operator of each solid waste 61247
disposal facility that is required to collect the district's fees 61248
that the change is to take effect on the first day of January 61249
immediately following the mailing of the notice and of the amount 61250
of the fees or amended fees levied under divisions (B)(1) to (3) 61251
of this section pursuant to the district's initial or amended plan 61252
as so approved or, if appropriate, the repeal of the district's 61253
fees by that initial or amended plan. Collection of any fees set 61254
forth in such a plan or amended plan shall commence on the first 61255
day of the second month following the month in which notification 61256
is sent to the owner or operator. If such an initial or amended 61257
plan repeals a schedule of fees, collection of the fees shall 61258
cease on the first day of the second month following the month in 61259
which notification is sent to the owner or operator.61260

        If the schedule of fees that a solid waste management 61261
district is levying under divisions (B)(1) to (3) of this section 61262
is amended or repealed, the fees in effect immediately prior to 61263
the amendment or repeal shall continue to be collected until 61264
collection of the amended fees commences or collection of the 61265
repealed fees ceases, as applicable, as specified in this 61266
division. In the case of a change in district composition, money 61267
so received from the collection of the fees of the former 61268
districts shall be divided among the resulting districts in 61269
accordance with division (B) of section 343.012 of the Revised 61270
Code and the agreements entered into under division (B) of section 61271
343.01 of the Revised Code to establish the former and resulting 61272
districts and any amendments to those agreements.61273

       For the purposes of the provisions of division (B) of this 61274
section establishing the times when newly established or amended 61275
fees levied by a district are required to commence and the 61276
collection of fees that have been amended or repealed is required 61277
to cease, "fees" or "schedule of fees" includes, in addition to 61278
fees levied under divisions (B)(1) to (3) of this section, those 61279
levied under section 3734.573 or 3734.574 of the Revised Code.61280

       (C) For the purposes of defraying the added costs to a 61281
municipal corporation or township of maintaining roads and other 61282
public facilities and of providing emergency and other public 61283
services, and compensating a municipal corporation or township for 61284
reductions in real property tax revenues due to reductions in real 61285
property valuations resulting from the location and operation of a 61286
solid waste disposal facility within the municipal corporation or 61287
township, a municipal corporation or township in which such a 61288
solid waste disposal facility is located may levy a fee of not 61289
more than twenty-five cents per ton on the disposal of solid 61290
wastes at a solid waste disposal facility located within the 61291
boundaries of the municipal corporation or township regardless of 61292
where the wastes were generated.61293

       The legislative authority of a municipal corporation or 61294
township may levy fees under this division by enacting an 61295
ordinance or adopting a resolution establishing the amount of the 61296
fees. Upon so doing the legislative authority shall mail a 61297
certified copy of the ordinance or resolution to the board of 61298
county commissioners or directors of the county or joint solid 61299
waste management district in which the municipal corporation or 61300
township is located or, if a regional solid waste management 61301
authority has been formed under section 343.011 of the Revised 61302
Code, to the board of trustees of that regional authority, the 61303
owner or operator of each solid waste disposal facility in the 61304
municipal corporation or township that is required to collect the 61305
fee by the ordinance or resolution, and the director of 61306
environmental protection. Although the fees levied under this 61307
division are levied on the basis of tons as the unit of 61308
measurement, the legislative authority, in its ordinance or 61309
resolution levying the fees under this division, may direct that 61310
the fees be levied on the basis of cubic yards as the unit of 61311
measurement based upon a conversion factor of three cubic yards 61312
per ton generally or one cubic yard per ton for baled wastes.61313

       Not later than five days after enacting an ordinance or 61314
adopting a resolution under this division, the legislative 61315
authority shall so notify by certified mail the owner or operator 61316
of each solid waste disposal facility that is required to collect 61317
the fee. Collection of any fee levied on or after March 24, 1992, 61318
shall commence on the first day of the second month following the 61319
month in which notification is sent to the owner or operator.61320

       (D)(1) The fees levied under divisions (A), (B), and (C) of 61321
this section do not apply to the disposal of solid wastes that:61322

       (a) Are disposed of at a facility owned by the generator of 61323
the wastes when the solid waste facility exclusively disposes of 61324
solid wastes generated at one or more premises owned by the 61325
generator regardless of whether the facility is located on a 61326
premises where the wastes are generated;61327

       (b) Are generated from the combustion of coal, or from the 61328
combustion of primarily coal, regardless of whether the disposal 61329
facility is located on the premises where the wastes are 61330
generated;61331

       (c) Are asbestos or asbestos-containing materials or products 61332
disposed of at a construction and demolition debris facility that 61333
is licensed under Chapter 3714. of the Revised Code or at a solid 61334
waste facility that is licensed under this chapter.61335

       (2) Except as provided in section 3734.571 of the Revised 61336
Code, any fees levied under division (B)(1) of this section apply 61337
to solid wastes originating outside the boundaries of a county or 61338
joint district that are covered by an agreement for the joint use 61339
of solid waste facilities entered into under section 343.02 of the 61340
Revised Code by the board of county commissioners or board of 61341
directors of the county or joint district where the wastes are 61342
generated and disposed of.61343

       (3) When solid wastes, other than solid wastes that consist 61344
of scrap tires, are burned in a disposal facility that is an 61345
incinerator or energy recovery facility, the fees levied under 61346
divisions (A), (B), and (C) of this section shall be levied upon 61347
the disposal of the fly ash and bottom ash remaining after burning 61348
of the solid wastes and shall be collected by the owner or 61349
operator of the sanitary landfill where the ash is disposed of.61350

       (4) When solid wastes are delivered to a solid waste transfer 61351
facility, the fees levied under divisions (B) and (C) of this 61352
section shall be levied upon the disposal of solid wastes 61353
transported off the premises of the transfer facility for disposal 61354
and shall be collected by the owner or operator of the solid waste 61355
disposal facility where the wastes are disposed of.61356

       (5) The fees levied under divisions (A), (B), and (C) of this 61357
section do not apply to sewage sludge that is generated by a waste 61358
water treatment facility holding a national pollutant discharge 61359
elimination system permit and that is disposed of through 61360
incineration, land application, or composting or at another 61361
resource recovery or disposal facility that is not a landfill.61362

       (6) The fees levied under divisions (A), (B), and (C) of this 61363
section do not apply to solid wastes delivered to a solid waste 61364
composting facility for processing. When any unprocessed solid 61365
waste or compost product is transported off the premises of a 61366
composting facility and disposed of at a landfill, the fees levied 61367
under divisions (A), (B), and (C) of this section shall be 61368
collected by the owner or operator of the landfill where the 61369
unprocessed waste or compost product is disposed of.61370

       (7) When solid wastes that consist of scrap tires are 61371
processed at a scrap tire recovery facility, the fees levied under 61372
divisions (A), (B), and (C) of this section shall be levied upon 61373
the disposal of the fly ash and bottom ash or other solid wastes 61374
remaining after the processing of the scrap tires and shall be 61375
collected by the owner or operator of the solid waste disposal 61376
facility where the ash or other solid wastes are disposed of.61377

       (8) The director of environmental protection may issue an 61378
order exempting from the fees levied under this section solid 61379
wastes, including, but not limited to, scrap tires, that are 61380
generated, transferred, or disposed of as a result of a contract 61381
providing for the expenditure of public funds entered into by the 61382
administrator or regional administrator of the United States 61383
environmental protection agency, the director of environmental 61384
protection, or the director of administrative services on behalf 61385
of the director of environmental protection for the purpose of 61386
remediating conditions at a hazardous waste facility, solid waste 61387
facility, or other location at which the administrator or regional 61388
administrator or the director of environmental protection has 61389
reason to believe that there is a substantial threat to public 61390
health or safety or the environment or that the conditions are 61391
causing or contributing to air or water pollution or soil 61392
contamination. An order issued by the director of environmental 61393
protection under division (D)(8) of this section shall include a 61394
determination that the amount of the fees not received by a solid 61395
waste management district as a result of the order will not 61396
adversely impact the implementation and financing of the 61397
district's approved solid waste management plan and any approved 61398
amendments to the plan. Such an order is a final action of the 61399
director of environmental protection.61400

       (E) The fees levied under divisions (B) and (C) of this 61401
section shall be collected by the owner or operator of the solid 61402
waste disposal facility where the wastes are disposed of as a 61403
trustee for the county or joint district and municipal corporation 61404
or township where the wastes are disposed of. Moneys from the fees 61405
levied under division (B) of this section shall be forwarded to 61406
the board of county commissioners or board of directors of the 61407
district in accordance with rules adopted under division (H) of 61408
this section. Moneys from the fees levied under division (C) of 61409
this section shall be forwarded to the treasurer or such other 61410
officer of the municipal corporation as, by virtue of the charter, 61411
has the duties of the treasurer or to the fiscal officer of the 61412
township, as appropriate, in accordance with those rules.61413

       (F) Moneys received by the treasurer or other officer of the 61414
municipal corporation under division (E) of this section shall be 61415
paid into the general fund of the municipal corporation. Moneys 61416
received by the fiscal officer of the township under that division 61417
shall be paid into the general fund of the township. The treasurer 61418
or other officer of the municipal corporation or the township 61419
fiscal officer, as appropriate, shall maintain separate records of 61420
the moneys received from the fees levied under division (C) of 61421
this section.61422

       (G) Moneys received by the board of county commissioners or 61423
board of directors under division (E) of this section or section 61424
3734.571, 3734.572, 3734.573, or 3734.574 of the Revised Code 61425
shall be paid to the county treasurer, or other official acting in 61426
a similar capacity under a county charter, in a county district or 61427
to the county treasurer or other official designated by the board 61428
of directors in a joint district and kept in a separate and 61429
distinct fund to the credit of the district. If a regional solid 61430
waste management authority has been formed under section 343.011 61431
of the Revised Code, moneys received by the board of trustees of 61432
that regional authority under division (E) of this section shall 61433
be kept by the board in a separate and distinct fund to the credit 61434
of the district. Moneys in the special fund of the county or joint 61435
district arising from the fees levied under division (B) of this 61436
section and the fee levied under division (A) of section 3734.573 61437
of the Revised Code shall be expended by the board of county 61438
commissioners or directors of the district in accordance with the 61439
district's solid waste management plan or amended plan approved 61440
under section 3734.521, 3734.55, or 3734.56 of the Revised Code 61441
exclusively for the following purposes:61442

       (1) Preparation of the solid waste management plan of the 61443
district under section 3734.54 of the Revised Code, monitoring 61444
implementation of the plan, and conducting the periodic review and 61445
amendment of the plan required by section 3734.56 of the Revised 61446
Code by the solid waste management policy committee;61447

       (2) Implementation of the approved solid waste management 61448
plan or amended plan of the district, including, without 61449
limitation, the development and implementation of solid waste 61450
recycling or reduction programs;61451

       (3) Providing financial assistance to boards of health within 61452
the district, if solid waste facilities are located within the 61453
district, for enforcement of this chapter and rules, orders, and 61454
terms and conditions of permits, licenses, and variances adopted 61455
or issued under it, other than the hazardous waste provisions of 61456
this chapter and rules adopted and orders and terms and conditions 61457
of permits issued under those provisions;61458

       (4) Providing financial assistance to each county within the 61459
district to defray the added costs of maintaining roads and other 61460
public facilities and of providing emergency and other public 61461
services resulting from the location and operation of a solid 61462
waste facility within the county under the district's approved 61463
solid waste management plan or amended plan;61464

       (5) Pursuant to contracts entered into with boards of health 61465
within the district, if solid waste facilities contained in the 61466
district's approved plan or amended plan are located within the 61467
district, for paying the costs incurred by those boards of health 61468
for collecting and analyzing samples from public or private water 61469
wells on lands adjacent to those facilities;61470

       (6) Developing and implementing a program for the inspection 61471
of solid wastes generated outside the boundaries of this state 61472
that are disposed of at solid waste facilities included in the 61473
district's approved solid waste management plan or amended plan;61474

       (7) Providing financial assistance to boards of health within 61475
the district for the enforcement of section 3734.03 of the Revised 61476
Code or to local law enforcement agencies having jurisdiction 61477
within the district for enforcing anti-littering laws and 61478
ordinances;61479

       (8) Providing financial assistance to boards of health of 61480
health districts within the district that are on the approved list 61481
under section 3734.08 of the Revised Code to defray the costs to 61482
the health districts for the participation of their employees 61483
responsible for enforcement of the solid waste provisions of this 61484
chapter and rules adopted and orders and terms and conditions of 61485
permits, licenses, and variances issued under those provisions in 61486
the training and certification program as required by rules 61487
adopted under division (L) of section 3734.02 of the Revised Code;61488

       (9) Providing financial assistance to individual municipal 61489
corporations and townships within the district to defray their 61490
added costs of maintaining roads and other public facilities and 61491
of providing emergency and other public services resulting from 61492
the location and operation within their boundaries of a 61493
composting, energy or resource recovery, incineration, or 61494
recycling facility that either is owned by the district or is 61495
furnishing solid waste management facility or recycling services 61496
to the district pursuant to a contract or agreement with the board 61497
of county commissioners or directors of the district;61498

       (10) Payment of any expenses that are agreed to, awarded, or 61499
ordered to be paid under section 3734.35 of the Revised Code and 61500
of any administrative costs incurred pursuant to that section. In 61501
the case of a joint solid waste management district, if the board 61502
of county commissioners of one of the counties in the district is 61503
negotiating on behalf of affected communities, as defined in that 61504
section, in that county, the board shall obtain the approval of 61505
the board of directors of the district in order to expend moneys 61506
for administrative costs incurred.61507

       Prior to the approval of the district's solid waste 61508
management plan under section 3734.55 of the Revised Code, moneys 61509
in the special fund of the district arising from the fees shall be 61510
expended for those purposes in the manner prescribed by the solid 61511
waste management policy committee by resolution.61512

       Notwithstanding division (G)(6) of this section as it existed 61513
prior to October 29, 1993, or any provision in a district's solid 61514
waste management plan prepared in accordance with division 61515
(B)(2)(e) of section 3734.53 of the Revised Code as it existed 61516
prior to that date, any moneys arising from the fees levied under 61517
division (B)(3) of this section prior to January 1, 1994, may be 61518
expended for any of the purposes authorized in divisions (G)(1) to 61519
(10) of this section.61520

       (H) The director shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 61521
119. of the Revised Code prescribing procedures for collecting and 61522
forwarding the fees levied under divisions (B) and (C) of this 61523
section to the boards of county commissioners or directors of 61524
county or joint solid waste management districts and to the 61525
treasurers or other officers of municipal corporations and the 61526
fiscal officers of townships. The rules also shall prescribe the 61527
dates for forwarding the fees to the boards and officials and may 61528
prescribe any other requirements the director considers necessary 61529
or appropriate to implement and administer divisions (A), (B), and 61530
(C) of this section.61531

       Sec. 3734.901.  (A)(1) For the purpose of providing revenue 61532
to defray the cost of administering and enforcing the scrap tire 61533
provisions of this chapter, rules adopted under those provisions, 61534
and terms and conditions of orders, variances, and licenses issued 61535
under those provisions; to abate accumulations of scrap tires; to 61536
make grants supporting market development activities for scrap 61537
tires and synthetic rubber from tire manufacturing processes and 61538
tire recycling processes and to support scrap tire amnesty and 61539
cleanup events; to make loans to promote the recycling or recovery 61540
of energy from scrap tires; and to defray the costs of 61541
administering and enforcing sections 3734.90 to 3734.9014 of the 61542
Revised Code, a fee of fifty cents per tire is hereby levied on 61543
the sale of tires. The proceeds of the fee shall be deposited in 61544
the state treasury to the credit of the scrap tire management fund 61545
created in section 3734.82 of the Revised Code. The fee is levied 61546
from the first day of the calendar month that begins next after 61547
thirty days from October 29, 1993, through June 30, 20132016.61548

       (2) Beginning on July 1, 2011, and ending on June 30, 201361549
2016, there is hereby levied an additional fee of fifty cents per 61550
tire on the sale of tires the proceeds of which shall be deposited 61551
in the state treasury to the credit of the soil and water 61552
conservation district assistance fund created in section 1515.14 61553
of the Revised Code.61554

       (B) Only one sale of the same article shall be used in 61555
computing the amount of the fee due.61556

       Sec. 3734.907.  (A) Any person required to pay the fee 61557
imposed by section 3734.901 of the Revised Code is personally 61558
liable for the fee. The tax commissioner may make an assessment, 61559
based upon any information in the commissioner's possession, 61560
against any person who fails to file a return or pay any fee, 61561
interest, or additional charge as required by sections 3734.90 to 61562
3734.9014 of the Revised Code. The commissioner shall give the 61563
person assessed written notice of the assessment in the manner 61564
provided in section 5703.37 of the Revised Code. With the notice, 61565
the commissioner shall provide instructions on how to petition for 61566
reassessment and request a hearing on the petition.61567

       (B) When the information in the possession of the tax 61568
commissioner indicates that a person liable for the fee imposed by 61569
section 3734.901 of the Revised Code has not paid the full amount 61570
of fee due, the commissioner may audit a representative sample of 61571
the person's business and may issue an assessment based on the 61572
audit.61573

       (C) A penalty of up to fifteen per cent may be added to all 61574
amounts assessed under this section. The commissioner may adopt 61575
rules providing for the imposition and remission of the penalties.61576

       (D) Unless the person assessed files with the tax 61577
commissioner within sixty days after service of the notice of 61578
assessment, either personally or by certified mail, a written 61579
petition for reassessment signed by the person assessed or that 61580
person's authorized agent having knowledge of the facts, the 61581
assessment becomes final and the amount of the assessment is due 61582
and payable from the person assessed to the treasurer of state. 61583
The petition shall indicate the objections of the person assessed, 61584
but additional objections may be raised in writing if received by 61585
the commissioner prior to the date shown on the final 61586
determination. If the petition has been properly filed, the 61587
commissioner shall proceed under section 5703.60 of the Revised 61588
Code.61589

       (E) After an assessment becomes final, if any portion of the 61590
assessment, including accrued interest, remains unpaid, a 61591
certified copy of the tax commissioner's entry making the 61592
assessment final may be filed in the office of the clerk of the 61593
court of common pleas in the county in which the person assessed 61594
resides or in which the person's business is conducted. If the 61595
person assessed maintains no place of business in this state and 61596
is not a resident of this state, the certified copy of the entry 61597
may be filed in the office of the clerk of the court of common 61598
pleas of Franklin county.61599

       Immediately upon the filing of the entry, the clerk shall 61600
enter a judgment for the state against the person assessed in the 61601
amount shown on the entry. The judgment may be filed by the clerk 61602
in a loose-leaf book entitled "special judgments for state tire 61603
fee," and shall have the same effect as other judgments. Execution 61604
shall issue upon the judgment upon the request of the tax 61605
commissioner, and all laws applicable to sales on execution shall 61606
apply to sales made under the judgment.61607

       The portion ofIf the assessment is not paid in its entirety61608
within sixty days after the day the assessment was issued, the 61609
portion of the assessment consisting of tax due shall bear 61610
interest at the rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of 61611
the Revised Code from the day the commissioner issues the 61612
assessment until the day the assessment is paid or until it is 61613
certified to the attorney general for collection under section 61614
131.02 of the Revised Code, whichever comes first. If the unpaid 61615
portion of the assessment is certified to the attorney general for 61616
collection, the entire unpaid portion of the assessment shall bear 61617
interest at the rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of 61618
the Revised Code from the date of certification until the date it 61619
is paid in its entirety. Interest shall be paid in the same manner 61620
as the fee and may be collected by the issuance of an assessment 61621
under this section.61622

       (F) If the tax commissioner believes that collection of the 61623
fee will be jeopardized unless proceedings to collect or secure 61624
collection of the fee are instituted without delay, the 61625
commissioner may issue a jeopardy assessment against the person 61626
liable for the fee. Immediately upon the issuance of the jeopardy 61627
assessment, the commissioner shall file an entry with the clerk of 61628
the court of common pleas in the manner prescribed by division (E) 61629
of this section. Notice of the jeopardy assessment shall be served 61630
on the person assessed or the person's legal representative, as 61631
provided in section 5703.37 of the Revised Code, within five days 61632
of the filing of the entry with the clerk. The total amount 61633
assessed is immediately due and payable, unless the person 61634
assessed files a petition for reassessment in accordance with 61635
division (D) of this section and provides security in a form 61636
satisfactory to the commissioner and in an amount sufficient to 61637
satisfy the unpaid balance of the assessment. Full or partial 61638
payment of the assessment does not prejudice the commissioner's 61639
consideration of the petition for reassessment.61640

       (G) All money collected by the tax commissioner under this 61641
section shall be paid to the treasurer of state as revenue arising 61642
from the fee imposed by section 3734.901 of the Revised Code.61643

       Sec. 3735.58.  (A) The director of mental healthmental 61644
health and addiction services, the director of developmental 61645
disabilities, or the director of rehabilitation and correction may 61646
enter into contracts for the sale of land not needed by their 61647
departments and under their jurisdiction or supervision to 61648
metropolitan housing authorities for use by such an authority for 61649
a housing project or projects. Such contract may contain such 61650
conditions and terms as are, in the discretion of the directors, 61651
in the best interests of the state and the welfare of the 61652
residents of the state.61653

       (B) The director may, upon receipt of a request from a 61654
metropolitan housing authority, request the approval of the 61655
governor to sell and convey land not needed by the director's 61656
department and under the director's jurisdiction or supervision to 61657
an authority, subject to such terms and conditions consistent with 61658
the public interest and welfare of the residents of the state as 61659
the director considers necessary. The governor, with the approval 61660
of the controlling board, may approve the request. Such property 61661
shall be appraised at its fair market value before it is conveyed. 61662
The director of administrative services shall cause it to be 61663
appraised by three disinterested persons and shall determine the 61664
fee which each appraiser shall receive, not to exceed fifty 61665
dollars. All appraisal fees shall be paid by the authority which 61666
shall deposit with the director one hundred fifty dollars before 61667
the appraisal is made. If the deposit exceeds the appraisal fee, 61668
the balance shall be returned to the authority. The appraisal 61669
value, when approved by the director, is the purchase price. If 61670
the purchase price is not paid within ninety days after notice to 61671
the authority of the approved appraisal value, the director shall 61672
withdraw approval of the appraisal value and no deed shall be 61673
delivered to the authority without the written approval of the 61674
director of the purchase price. If the purchase price is paid 61675
within ninety days, a deed shall be prepared and recorded pursuant 61676
to section 5301.13 of the Revised Code.61677

       (C) Moneys received from sales of land to a metropolitan 61678
housing authority shall be placed in the state treasury in special 61679
funds, to be used for such purposes of the department of mental 61680
healthmental health and addiction services, the department of 61681
developmental disabilities, or the department of rehabilitation 61682
and correction as is appropriate.61683

       Sec. 3735.661.  (A) For the purpose of determining the "first 61684
two amendments" referenced in division (B) of Section 3 of Am. 61685
Sub. S.B. 19 of the 120th General Assembly, an amendment means any 61686
modification to an ordinance or resolution adopted under section 61687
3735.66 of the Revised Code that does any of the following:61688

       (1) Expands the geographic size of a community reinvestment 61689
area.61690

(2) Increases a property's or category of property's exempted 61691
percentage of assessed valuation, notwithstanding the requirements 61692
of section 3735.66 of the Revised Code as that section existed on 61693
July 21, 1994. Division (A)(2) of this section does not authorize 61694
a municipal corporation to increase a property's or category of 61695
property's exempted percentage of assessed valuation pursuant to 61696
that section.61697

       (3) Increases the term of any tax exemption or authorized 61698
category of tax exemptions.61699

       (4) Extends the duration of a community reinvestment area61700

       (5) Changes eligibility requirements for receiving tax 61701
exemptions.61702

       (B) For the purpose of determining the "first two amendments" 61703
in division (B) of Section 3 of Am. Sub. S.B. 19 of the 120th 61704
General Assembly, an amendment does not include any modification 61705
to an ordinance or resolution adopted under section 3735.66 of the 61706
Revised Code that does any of the following:61707

       (1) Restricts the availability of tax exemptions, including 61708
any of the following:61709

       (a) Removes area from or decreases the geographic size of a 61710
community reinvestment area.61711

       (b) Decreases a property's or category of property's exempted 61712
percentage of assessed valuation, notwithstanding the requirements 61713
of section 3735.66 of the Revised Code as that section existed on 61714
July 21, 1994. Division (B)(1)(b) of this section does not 61715
authorize a municipal corporation to decrease a property's or 61716
category of property's exempted percentage of assessed valuation 61717
pursuant to that section.61718

       (c) Decreases the term of any tax exemption or category of 61719
exemption.61720

       (d) Shortens the period of time after which the granting of 61721
tax exemptions may be terminated.61722

       (2) Recognizes or confirms the continuing existence of a 61723
community reinvestment area until a date after which the area may 61724
be terminated.61725

       (3) Recognizes or confirms a previously granted tax 61726
exemption.61727

       (4) Clarifies ambiguities or corrects defects in previously 61728
enacted ordinances or resolutions.61729

       (5) Makes modifications that are procedural or 61730
administrative, including changing the designation of a housing 61731
officer, the process for approving or appealing a tax exemption, 61732
or the amount of any application fee, or modifying a community 61733
reinvestment area housing council created under section 3735.69 of 61734
the Revised Code or a tax incentive review council under section 61735
5709.85 of the Revised Code.61736

       Sec. 3737.02.  (A) The fire marshal may collect fees to cover 61737
the costs of performing inspections and other duties that the fire 61738
marshal is authorized or required by law to perform. Except as 61739
provided in division (B) of this section, all fees collected by 61740
the fire marshal shall be deposited to the credit of the fire 61741
marshal's fund.61742

       (B) All of the following shall be credited to the underground 61743
storage tank administration fund, which is hereby created in the 61744
state treasury:61745

       (1) Fees collected under sections 3737.88 and 3737.881 of the 61746
Revised Code for operation of the underground storage tank and 61747
underground storage tank installer certification programs, moneys;61748

       (2) Moneys recovered under section 3737.89 of the Revised 61749
Code for the state's costs of undertaking corrective or 61750
enforcement actions under that section or section 3737.882 of the 61751
Revised Code, and fines;61752

       (3) Fines and penalties collected under section 3737.882 of 61753
the Revised Code shall be credited to the underground storage tank 61754
administration fund, which is hereby created in the state 61755
treasury. All;61756

       (4) Amounts repaid for underground storage tank revolving 61757
loans under section 3737.883 of the Revised Code.61758

       (C) All interest earned on moneys credited to the underground 61759
storage tank administration fund shall be credited to the fund. 61760
Moneys credited to the underground storage tank administration 61761
fund shall be used by the fire marshal for implementation and 61762
enforcement of underground storage tank, corrective action, and 61763
installer certification programs under sections 3737.88 to 3737.89 61764
of the Revised Code. Only moneys described in divisions (B)(3) and 61765
(4) of this section shall be used by the fire marshal to make 61766
underground storage tank revolving loans under section 3737.883 of 61767
the Revised Code, and no other moneys may be used to make those 61768
loans.61769

       (C)(D) The fire marshal shall take all actions necessary to 61770
obtain any federal funding available to carry out the fire 61771
marshal's responsibilities under sections 3737.88 to 3737.89 of 61772
the Revised Code and federal laws regarding the cleaning up of 61773
releases of petroleum, as "release" is defined in section 3737.87 61774
of the Revised Code, including, without limitation, any federal 61775
funds that are available to reimburse the state for the costs of 61776
undertaking corrective actions for such releases of petroleum. The 61777
state may, when appropriate, return to the United States any 61778
federal funds recovered under sections 3737.882 and 3737.89 of the 61779
Revised Code.61780

       Sec. 3737.83.  The fire marshal shall, as part of the state 61781
fire code, adopt rules to:61782

       (A) Establish minimum standards of performance for fire 61783
protection equipment and fire fighting equipment;61784

       (B) Establish minimum standards of training, fix minimum 61785
qualifications, and require certificates for all persons who 61786
engage in the business for profit of installing, testing, 61787
repairing, or maintaining fire protection equipment;61788

       (C) Provide for the issuance of certificates required under 61789
division (B) of this section and establish the fees to be charged 61790
for such certificates. A certificate shall be granted, renewed, or 61791
revoked according to rules the fire marshal shall adopt.61792

       (D) Establish minimum standards of flammability for consumer 61793
goods in any case where the federal government or any department 61794
or agency thereof has established, or may from time to time 61795
establish standards of flammability for consumer goods. The 61796
standards established by the fire marshal shall be identical to 61797
the minimum federal standards.61798

       In any case where the federal government or any department or 61799
agency thereof, establishes standards of flammability for consumer 61800
goods subsequent to the adoption of a flammability standard by the 61801
fire marshal, standards previously adopted by the fire marshal 61802
shall not continue in effect to the extent such standards are not 61803
identical to the minimum federal standards.61804

       With respect to the adoption of minimum standards of 61805
flammability, this division shall supersede any authority granted 61806
a political subdivision by any other section of the Revised Code.61807

       (E) Establish minimum standards pursuant to section 5104.05 61808
of the Revised Code for fire prevention and fire safety in child 61809
day-care centers and in type A family day-care homes, as defined 61810
in section 5104.01 of the Revised Code.61811

       (F) Establish minimum standards for fire prevention and 61812
safety in a residential facility licensed under section 5119.2261813
5119.34 of the Revised Code that provides accommodations, 61814
supervision, and personal care services for three to sixteen 61815
unrelated adults. The fire marshal shall adopt the rules under 61816
this division in consultation with the director of mental health61817
mental health and addiction services and interested parties 61818
designated by the director of mental healthmental health and 61819
addiction services. 61820

       Sec. 3737.841.  As used in this section and section 3737.842 61821
of the Revised Code:61822

       (A) "Public occupancy" means all of the following:61823

       (1) Any state correctional institution as defined in section 61824
2967.01 of the Revised Code and any county, multicounty, 61825
municipal, or municipal-county jail or workhouse;61826

       (2) Any hospital as defined in section 3727.01 of the Revised 61827
Code, any hospital licensed by the department of mental health61828
mental health and addiction services under section 5119.205119.3361829
of the Revised Code, and any institution, hospital, or other place 61830
established, controlled, or supervised by the department of mental 61831
healthmental health and addiction services under Chapter 5119. of 61832
the Revised Code;61833

       (3) Any nursing home, residential care facility, or home for 61834
the aging as defined in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code and 61835
any residential facility licensed under section 5119.225119.34 of 61836
the Revised Code that provides accommodations, supervision, and 61837
personal care services for three to sixteen unrelated adults;61838

       (4) Any child day-care center and any type A family day-care 61839
home as defined in section 5104.01 of the Revised Code;61840

       (5) Any public auditorium or stadium;61841

       (6) Public assembly areas of hotels and motels containing 61842
more than ten articles of seating furniture.61843

       (B) "Sell" includes sell, offer or expose for sale, barter, 61844
trade, deliver, give away, rent, consign, lease, possess for sale, 61845
or dispose of in any other commercial manner.61846

       (C) Except as provided in division (D) of this section, 61847
"seating furniture" means any article of furniture, including 61848
children's furniture, that can be used as a support for an 61849
individual, or an individual's limbs or feet, when sitting or 61850
resting in an upright or reclining position and that either:61851

       (1) Is made with loose or attached cushions or pillows;61852

       (2) Is stuffed or filled in whole or in part with any filling 61853
material;61854

       (3) Is or can be stuffed or filled in whole or in part with 61855
any substance or material, concealed by fabric or any other 61856
covering.61857

       "Seating furniture" includes the cushions or pillows 61858
belonging to or forming a part of the furniture, the structural 61859
unit, and the filling material and its container or covering.61860

       (D) "Seating furniture" does not include, except if intended 61861
for use by children or in facilities designed for the care or 61862
treatment of humans, any of the following:61863

       (1) Cushions or pads intended solely for outdoor use;61864

       (2) Any article with a smooth surface that contains no more 61865
than one-half inch of filling material, if that article does not 61866
have an upholstered horizontal surface meeting an upholstered 61867
vertical surface;61868

       (3) Any article manufactured solely for recreational use or 61869
physical fitness purposes, including weight-lifting benches, 61870
gymnasium mats or pads, and sidehorses.61871

       (E) "Filling material" means cotton, wool, kapok, feathers, 61872
down, hair, liquid, or any other natural or artificial material or 61873
substance that is used or can be used as stuffing in seating 61874
furniture.61875

       Sec. 3737.88.  (A)(1) The fire marshal shall have 61876
responsibility for implementation of the underground storage tank 61877
program and corrective action program for releases of petroleum 61878
from underground storage tanks established by the "Resource 61879
Conservation and Recovery Act of 1976," 90 Stat. 2795, 42 U.S.C.A. 61880
6901, as amended. To implement the programs, the fire marshal may 61881
adopt, amend, and rescind such rules, conduct such inspections, 61882
require annual registration of underground storage tanks, issue 61883
such citations and orders to enforce those rules, enter into 61884
environmental covenants in accordance with sections 5301.80 to 61885
5301.92 of the Revised Code, and perform such other duties, as are 61886
consistent with those programs. The fire marshal, by rule, may 61887
delegate the authority to conduct inspections of underground 61888
storage tanks to certified fire safety inspectors.61889

       (2) In the place of any rules regarding release containment 61890
and release detection for underground storage tanks adopted under 61891
division (A)(1) of this section, the fire marshal, by rule, shall 61892
designate areas as being sensitive for the protection of human 61893
health and the environment and adopt alternative rules regarding 61894
release containment and release detection methods for new and 61895
upgraded underground storage tank systems located in those areas. 61896
In designating such areas, the fire marshal shall take into 61897
consideration such factors as soil conditions, hydrogeology, water 61898
use, and the location of public and private water supplies. Not 61899
later than July 11, 1990, the fire marshal shall file the rules 61900
required under this division with the secretary of state, director 61901
of the legislative service commission, and joint committee on 61902
agency rule review in accordance with divisions (B) and (H) of 61903
section 119.03 of the Revised Code.61904

       (3) Notwithstanding sections 3737.87 to 3737.89 of the 61905
Revised Code, a person who is not a responsible person, as 61906
determined by the fire marshal pursuant to this chapter, may 61907
conduct a voluntary action in accordance with Chapter 3746. of the 61908
Revised Code and rules adopted under it for either of the 61909
following:61910

       (a) A class C release;61911

       (b) A release, other than a class C release, that is subject 61912
to the rules adopted by the fire marshal under division (B) of 61913
section 3737.882 of the Revised Code pertaining to a corrective 61914
action, provided that both of the following apply:61915

       (i) The voluntary action also addresses hazardous substances 61916
or petroleum that is not subject to the rules adopted under 61917
division (B) of section 3737.882 of the Revised Code pertaining to 61918
a corrective action.61919

       (ii) The fire marshal has not issued an administrative order 61920
concerning the release or referred the release to the attorney 61921
general for enforcement. 61922

       The director of environmental protection, pursuant to section 61923
3746.12 of the Revised Code, may issue a covenant not to sue to 61924
any person who properly completes a voluntary action with respect 61925
to any such release in accordance with Chapter 3746. of the 61926
Revised Code and rules adopted under it.61927

       (B) Before adopting any rule under this section or section 61928
3737.881 or 3737.882 of the Revised Code, the fire marshal shall 61929
file written notice of the proposed rule with the chairperson of 61930
the state fire council, and, within sixty days after notice is 61931
filed, the council may file responses to or comments on and may 61932
recommend alternative or supplementary rules to the fire marshal. 61933
At the end of the sixty-day period or upon the filing of 61934
responses, comments, or recommendations by the council, the fire 61935
marshal may adopt the rule filed with the council or any 61936
alternative or supplementary rule recommended by the council.61937

       (C) The state fire council may recommend courses of action to 61938
be taken by the fire marshal in carrying out the fire marshal's 61939
duties under this section. The council shall file its 61940
recommendations in the office of the fire marshal, and, within 61941
sixty days after the recommendations are filed, the fire marshal 61942
shall file with the chairperson of the council comments on, and 61943
proposed action in response to, the recommendations.61944

       (D) For the purpose of sections 3737.87 to 3737.89 of the 61945
Revised Code, the fire marshal shall adopt, and may amend and 61946
rescind, rules identifying or listing hazardous substances. The 61947
rules shall be consistent with and equivalent in scope, coverage, 61948
and content to regulations identifying or listing hazardous 61949
substances adopted under the "Comprehensive Environmental 61950
Response, Compensation, and Liability Act of 1980," 94 Stat. 2779, 61951
42 U.S.C.A. 9602, as amended, except that the fire marshal shall 61952
not identify or list as a hazardous substance any hazardous waste 61953
identified or listed in rules adopted under division (A) of 61954
section 3734.12 of the Revised Code.61955

       (E) Except as provided in division (A)(3) of this section, 61956
the fire marshal shall have exclusive jurisdiction to regulate the 61957
storage, treatment, and disposal of petroleum contaminated soil 61958
generated from corrective actions undertaken in response to 61959
releases of petroleum from underground storage tank systems. The 61960
fire marshal may adopt, amend, or rescind such rules as the fire 61961
marshal considers to be necessary or appropriate to regulate the 61962
storage, treatment, or disposal of petroleum contaminated soil so 61963
generated.61964

       (F) The fire marshal shall adopt, amend, and rescind rules 61965
under sections 3737.88 to 3737.8823737.883 of the Revised Code in 61966
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.61967

       Sec. 3737.883.  (A) As used in this section, "political 61968
subdivision" has the same meaning as in section 2744.01 of the 61969
Revised Code, but includes a community improvement corporation as 61970
that term is defined in section 1724.01 of the Revised Code.61971

       (B) A political subdivision may do any of the following for 61972
an underground storage tank located within its territorial 61973
boundaries if the responsible person is not identifiable or if the 61974
state fire marshal determines that an identified responsible 61975
person is unable to pay the costs of the action to be taken by the 61976
political subdivision:61977

       (1) Initiate, continue, or properly complete the removal of 61978
an underground storage tank system;61979

       (2) Initiate, continue, or properly complete an assessment of 61980
the site of an underground storage tank or the site of an 61981
underground storage tank system;61982

       (3) Initiate, continue, or properly complete a corrective 61983
action.61984

       (C) The state fire marshal or the state fire marshal's 61985
designee shall administer an underground storage tank revolving 61986
loan program under which the state fire marshal issues loans to 61987
assist with the costs of actions described in divisions (B)(1) to 61988
(3) of this section. The state fire marshal shall issue a loan 61989
under the program to a political subdivision that meets the 61990
application requirements of division (D) of this section and 61991
agrees to written terms and conditions of the loan with the state 61992
fire marshal.61993

       (D) A political subdivision shall apply to the state fire 61994
marshal for a loan under this section on a form prescribed by the 61995
state fire marshal. In the application, the political subdivision 61996
shall do all of the following:61997

       (1) Describe the action for which it is requesting a loan;61998

        (2) State the requested loan amount;61999

       (3) Explain how the political subdivision plans to spend, of 62000
its own funds, in undertaking the action for which the loan is 62001
requested, an amount equal to at least five per cent of the 62002
requested loan amount;62003

       (4) Provide any other information requested by the state fire 62004
marshal.62005

       (E) The state fire marshal shall consult with the director of 62006
development services before issuing any loan under this section.62007

       (F) A loan issued under this section shall not carry 62008
interest. No loan issued under this section shall have a term of 62009
more than ten years. The political subdivision shall repay a loan 62010
issued under this section to the state fire marshal.62011

       (G) If, at any time after the expenditure of loan funds by a 62012
political subdivision under this section, the state fire marshal 62013
or any law enforcement agency identifies the responsible person or 62014
determines, for any reason, that the previously identified 62015
responsible person was or is able to pay the costs of the action 62016
for which the loan was issued, the political subdivision may bring 62017
any appropriate proceedings against the responsible person to 62018
recover the costs incurred by the political subdivision. The 62019
proceedings may be brought in either the court of common pleas 62020
having jurisdiction where the underground storage tank is located 62021
or the court of common pleas of Franklin county.62022

       (H)(1) The state fire marshal shall adopt and may amend and 62023
rescind rules as necessary for the administration and operation of 62024
the underground storage tank revolving loan program. The rules may 62025
do any of the following:62026

       (a) Further define the entities considered "political 62027
subdivisions" eligible to receive loans;62028

       (b) Establish qualifying criteria for loan recipients;62029

       (c) Establish criteria for awarding loans, loan amounts, loan 62030
payment terms, and permissible expenditures of loan funds, 62031
including methods that the state fire marshal may use to verify 62032
the proper use of loan funds or to obtain reimbursement for or the 62033
return of improperly used loan funds.62034

       (2) The state fire marshal may adopt and may amend and 62035
rescind rules for the issuance of emergency underground storage 62036
tank revolving loans to qualifying entities during a natural 62037
disaster or another similar event as defined in the rules.62038

       Sec. 3737.883.        Sec. 3737.884.  On receipt of a notice pursuant to 62039
section 3123.43 of the Revised Code, the state fire marshal shall 62040
comply with sections 3123.41 to 3123.50 of the Revised Code and 62041
any applicable rules adopted under section 3123.63 of the Revised 62042
Code with respect to a certificate issued pursuant to section 62043
3737.34, 3737.65, 3737.83, or 3737.881 of the Revised Code.62044

       Sec. 3742.30. Each child at risk of lead poisoning shall 62045
undergo a blood lead screening test to determine whether the child 62046
has lead poisoning. The at-risk children shall undergo the test at 62047
times determined by rules the director of health shall adopt in 62048
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code that are 62049
consistent with the guidelines established by the centers for 62050
disease control and prevention in the public health service of the 62051
United States department of health and human services. The rules 62052
shall specify which children are at risk of lead poisoning.62053

       Neither this section nor the rules adopted under it affect 62054
the coverage of blood lead screening tests by any publicly funded 62055
health program, including the medicaid program established by 62056
Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code. Neither this section nor the 62057
rules adopted under it apply to a child if a parent of the child 62058
objects to the test on the grounds that the test conflicts with 62059
the parent's religious tenets and practices.62060

       Sec. 3742.31.  (A) The director of health shall establish, 62061
promote, and maintain a child lead poisoning prevention program. 62062
The program shall provide statewide coordination of screening, 62063
diagnosis, and treatment services for children under age six, 62064
including both of the following:62065

       (1) Collecting the social security numbers of all children 62066
screened, diagnosed, or treated as part of the program's case 62067
management system;62068

       (2) Disclosing to the office of medical assistance in the62069
department of job and family servicesmedicaid on at least an 62070
annual basis the identity and lead screening test results of each 62071
child screened pursuant to section 3742.30 of the Revised Code. 62072
The director shall collect and disseminate information relating to 62073
child lead poisoning and controlling lead hazards.62074

       (B) The director of health shall operate the child lead 62075
poisoning prevention program in accordance with rules adopted 62076
under section 3742.50 of the Revised Code. The director may enter 62077
into an interagency agreement with one or more other state 62078
agencies to perform one or more of the program's duties. The 62079
director shall supervise and direct an agency's performance of 62080
such a duty.62081

       Sec. 3742.32. (A) The director of health shall appoint an 62082
advisory council to assist in the ongoing development and 62083
implementation of the child lead poisoning prevention program 62084
created under section 3742.31 of the Revised Code. The advisory 62085
council shall consist of the following members:62086

       (1) A representative of the office of medical assistance in 62087
the department of job and family servicesmedicaid;62088

       (2) A representative of the bureau of child care in the 62089
department of job and family services;62090

       (3) A representative of the department of environmental 62091
protection;62092

       (4) A representative of the department of education;62093

       (5) A representative of the department of development 62094
services agency;62095

       (6) A representative of the Ohio apartment owner's 62096
association;62097

       (7) A representative of the Ohio help end lead poisoning 62098
coalition;62099

       (8) A representative of the Ohio environmental health 62100
association;62101

        (9) An Ohio representative of the national paint and coatings 62102
association.62103

       (B) The advisory council shall do both of the following:62104

       (1) Provide the director with advice regarding the policies 62105
the child lead poisoning prevention program should emphasize, 62106
preferred methods of financing the program, and any other matter 62107
relevant to the program's operation;62108

       (2) Submit a report of the state's activities to the 62109
governor, president of the senate, and speaker of the house of 62110
representatives on or before the first day of March each year.62111

       (C) The advisory council is not subject to sections 101.82 to 62112
101.87 of the Revised Code.62113

       Sec. 3742.51. (A) There is hereby created in the state 62114
treasury the lead poisoning prevention fund. The fund shall 62115
include all moneys appropriated to the department of health for 62116
the administration and enforcement of sections 3742.31 to 3742.50 62117
of the Revised Code and the rules adopted under those sections. 62118
Any grants, contributions, or other moneys collected by the 62119
department for purposes of preventing lead poisoning shall be 62120
deposited in the state treasury to the credit of the fund.62121

       (B) Moneys in the fund shall be used solely for the purposes 62122
of the child lead poisoning prevention program established under 62123
section 3742.31 of the Revised Code, including providing financial 62124
assistance to individuals who are unable to pay for the following:62125

       (1) Costs associated with obtaining lead tests and lead 62126
poisoning treatment for children under six years of age who are 62127
not covered by private medical insurance or are underinsured, are 62128
not eligible for the medicaid program established under Chapter 62129
5111. of the Revised Code or any other government health program, 62130
and do not have access to another source of funds to cover the 62131
cost of lead tests and any indicated treatments;62132

       (2) Costs associated with having lead abatement performed or 62133
having the preventive treatments specified in section 3742.41 of 62134
the Revised Code performed.62135

       Sec. 3745.11.  (A) Applicants for and holders of permits, 62136
licenses, variances, plan approvals, and certifications issued by 62137
the director of environmental protection pursuant to Chapters 62138
3704., 3734., 6109., and 6111. of the Revised Code shall pay a fee 62139
to the environmental protection agency for each such issuance and 62140
each application for an issuance as provided by this section. No 62141
fee shall be charged for any issuance for which no application has 62142
been submitted to the director.62143

       (B) Except as otherwise provided in division (C)(2) of this 62144
section, beginning July 1, 1994, each person who owns or operates 62145
an air contaminant source and who is required to apply for and 62146
obtain a Title V permit under section 3704.036 of the Revised Code 62147
shall pay the fees set forth in this division. For the purposes of 62148
this division, total emissions of air contaminants may be 62149
calculated using engineering calculations, emissions factors, 62150
material balance calculations, or performance testing procedures, 62151
as authorized by the director.62152

       The following fees shall be assessed on the total actual 62153
emissions from a source in tons per year of the regulated 62154
pollutants particulate matter, sulfur dioxide, nitrogen oxides, 62155
organic compounds, and lead:62156

       (1) Fifteen dollars per ton on the total actual emissions of 62157
each such regulated pollutant during the period July through 62158
December 1993, to be collected no sooner than July 1, 1994;62159

       (2) Twenty dollars per ton on the total actual emissions of 62160
each such regulated pollutant during calendar year 1994, to be 62161
collected no sooner than April 15, 1995;62162

       (3) Twenty-five dollars per ton on the total actual emissions 62163
of each such regulated pollutant in calendar year 1995, and each 62164
subsequent calendar year, to be collected no sooner than the 62165
fifteenth day of April of the year next succeeding the calendar 62166
year in which the emissions occurred.62167

       The fees levied under this division do not apply to that 62168
portion of the emissions of a regulated pollutant at a facility 62169
that exceed four thousand tons during a calendar year.62170

       (C)(1) The fees assessed under division (B) of this section 62171
are for the purpose of providing funding for the Title V permit 62172
program.62173

       (2) The fees assessed under division (B) of this section do 62174
not apply to emissions from any electric generating unit 62175
designated as a Phase I unit under Title IV of the federal Clean 62176
Air Act prior to calendar year 2000. Those fees shall be assessed 62177
on the emissions from such a generating unit commencing in 62178
calendar year 2001 based upon the total actual emissions from the 62179
generating unit during calendar year 2000 and shall continue to be 62180
assessed each subsequent calendar year based on the total actual 62181
emissions from the generating unit during the preceding calendar 62182
year.62183

       (3) The director shall issue invoices to owners or operators 62184
of air contaminant sources who are required to pay a fee assessed 62185
under division (B) or (D) of this section. Any such invoice shall 62186
be issued no sooner than the applicable date when the fee first 62187
may be collected in a year under the applicable division, shall 62188
identify the nature and amount of the fee assessed, and shall 62189
indicate that the fee is required to be paid within thirty days 62190
after the issuance of the invoice.62191

       (D)(1) Except as provided in division (D)(3) of this section, 62192
from January 1, 1994, through December 31, 2003, each person who 62193
owns or operates an air contaminant source; who is required to 62194
apply for a permit to operate pursuant to rules adopted under 62195
division (G), or a variance pursuant to division (H), of section 62196
3704.03 of the Revised Code; and who is not required to apply for 62197
and obtain a Title V permit under section 3704.036 of the Revised 62198
Code shall pay a single fee based upon the sum of the actual 62199
annual emissions from the facility of the regulated pollutants 62200
particulate matter, sulfur dioxide, nitrogen oxides, organic 62201
compounds, and lead in accordance with the following schedule:62202

Total tons per year 62203
of regulated pollutants Annual fee 62204
emitted per facility 62205
More than 0, but less than 50    $ 75 62206
50 or more, but less than 100     300 62207
100 or more     700 62208

       (2) Except as provided in division (D)(3) of this section, 62209
beginning January 1, 2004, each person who owns or operates an air 62210
contaminant source; who is required to apply for a permit to 62211
operate pursuant to rules adopted under division (G), or a 62212
variance pursuant to division (H), of section 3704.03 of the 62213
Revised Code; and who is not required to apply for and obtain a 62214
Title V permit under section 3704.03 of the Revised Code shall pay 62215
a single fee based upon the sum of the actual annual emissions 62216
from the facility of the regulated pollutants particulate matter, 62217
sulfur dioxide, nitrogen oxides, organic compounds, and lead in 62218
accordance with the following schedule:62219

Total tons per year 62220
of regulated pollutants Annual fee 62221
emitted per facility 62222
More than 0, but less than 10    $ 100 62223
10 or more, but less than 50      200 62224
50 or more, but less than 100      300 62225
100 or more      700 62226

       (3)(a) As used in division (D) of this section, "synthetic 62227
minor facility" means a facility for which one or more permits to 62228
install or permits to operate have been issued for the air 62229
contaminant sources at the facility that include terms and 62230
conditions that lower the facility's potential to emit air 62231
contaminants below the major source thresholds established in 62232
rules adopted under section 3704.036 of the Revised Code.62233

       (b) Beginning January 1, 2000, through June 30, 20142016, 62234
each person who owns or operates a synthetic minor facility shall 62235
pay an annual fee based on the sum of the actual annual emissions 62236
from the facility of particulate matter, sulfur dioxide, nitrogen 62237
dioxide, organic compounds, and lead in accordance with the 62238
following schedule:62239

Combined total tons 62240
per year of all regulated Annual fee 62241
pollutants emitted per facility 62242

Less than 10 $ 170 62243
10 or more, but less than 20   340 62244
20 or more, but less than 30   670 62245
30 or more, but less than 40 1,010 62246
40 or more, but less than 50 1,340 62247
50 or more, but less than 60 1,680 62248
60 or more, but less than 70 2,010 62249
70 or more, but less than 80 2,350 62250
80 or more, but less than 90 2,680 62251
90 or more, but less than 100 3,020 62252
100 or more 3,350 62253

       (4) The fees assessed under division (D)(1) of this section 62254
shall be collected annually no sooner than the fifteenth day of 62255
April, commencing in 1995. The fees assessed under division (D)(2) 62256
of this section shall be collected annually no sooner than the 62257
fifteenth day of April, commencing in 2005. The fees assessed 62258
under division (D)(3) of this section shall be collected no sooner 62259
than the fifteenth day of April, commencing in 2000. The fees 62260
assessed under division (D) of this section in a calendar year 62261
shall be based upon the sum of the actual emissions of those 62262
regulated pollutants during the preceding calendar year. For the 62263
purpose of division (D) of this section, emissions of air 62264
contaminants may be calculated using engineering calculations, 62265
emission factors, material balance calculations, or performance 62266
testing procedures, as authorized by the director. The director, 62267
by rule, may require persons who are required to pay the fees 62268
assessed under division (D) of this section to pay those fees 62269
biennially rather than annually.62270

       (E)(1) Consistent with the need to cover the reasonable costs 62271
of the Title V permit program, the director annually shall 62272
increase the fees prescribed in division (B) of this section by 62273
the percentage, if any, by which the consumer price index for the 62274
most recent calendar year ending before the beginning of a year 62275
exceeds the consumer price index for calendar year 1989. Upon 62276
calculating an increase in fees authorized by division (E)(1) of 62277
this section, the director shall compile revised fee schedules for 62278
the purposes of division (B) of this section and shall make the 62279
revised schedules available to persons required to pay the fees 62280
assessed under that division and to the public.62281

       (2) For the purposes of division (E)(1) of this section:62282

       (a) The consumer price index for any year is the average of 62283
the consumer price index for all urban consumers published by the 62284
United States department of labor as of the close of the 62285
twelve-month period ending on the thirty-first day of August of 62286
that year.62287

       (b) If the 1989 consumer price index is revised, the director 62288
shall use the revision of the consumer price index that is most 62289
consistent with that for calendar year 1989.62290

       (F) Each person who is issued a permit to install pursuant to 62291
rules adopted under division (F) of section 3704.03 of the Revised 62292
Code on or after July 1, 2003, shall pay the fees specified in the 62293
following schedules:62294

       (1) Fuel-burning equipment (boilers, furnaces, or process 62295
heaters used in the process of burning fuel for the primary 62296
purpose of producing heat or power by indirect heat transfer)62297

Input capacity (maximum) 62298
(million British thermal units per hour) Permit to install 62299
Greater than 0, but less than 10    $ 200 62300
10 or more, but less than 100      400 62301
100 or more, but less than 300     1000 62302
300 or more, but less than 500     2250 62303
500 or more, but less than 1000     3750 62304
1000 or more, but less than 5000     6000 62305
5000 or more     9000 62306

       Units burning exclusively natural gas, number two fuel oil, 62307
or both shall be assessed a fee that is one-half the applicable 62308
amount shown in division (F)(1) of this section.62309

       (2) Combustion turbines and stationary internal combustion 62310
engines designed to generate electricity62311

Generating capacity (mega watts) Permit to install 62312
0 or more, but less than 10    $  25 62313
10 or more, but less than 25      150 62314
25 or more, but less than 50      300 62315
50 or more, but less than 100      500 62316
100 or more, but less than 250     1000 62317
250 or more     2000 62318

       (3) Incinerators62319

Input capacity (pounds per hour) Permit to install 62320
0 to 100    $ 100 62321
101 to 500      500 62322
501 to 2000     1000 62323
2001 to 20,000     1500 62324
more than 20,000     3750 62325

       (4)(a) Process62326

Process weight rate (pounds per hour) Permit to install 62327
0 to 1000    $ 200 62328
1001 to 5000      500 62329
5001 to 10,000      750 62330
10,001 to 50,000     1000 62331
more than 50,000     1250 62332

       In any process where process weight rate cannot be 62333
ascertained, the minimum fee shall be assessed. A boiler, furnace, 62334
combustion turbine, stationary internal combustion engine, or 62335
process heater designed to provide direct heat or power to a 62336
process not designed to generate electricity shall be assessed a 62337
fee established in division (F)(4)(a) of this section. A 62338
combustion turbine or stationary internal combustion engine 62339
designed to generate electricity shall be assessed a fee 62340
established in division (F)(2) of this section.62341

       (b) Notwithstanding division (F)(4)(a) of this section, any 62342
person issued a permit to install pursuant to rules adopted under 62343
division (F) of section 3704.03 of the Revised Code shall pay the 62344
fees set forth in division (F)(4)(c) of this section for a process 62345
used in any of the following industries, as identified by the 62346
applicable two-digit, three-digit, or four-digit standard 62347
industrial classification code according to the Standard 62348
Industrial Classification Manual published by the United States 62349
office of management and budget in the executive office of the 62350
president, 1987, as revised:62351

        Major group 10, metal mining;62352

       Major group 12, coal mining;62353

       Major group 14, mining and quarrying of nonmetallic minerals;62354

       Industry group 204, grain mill products;62355

       2873 Nitrogen fertilizers;62356

       2874 Phosphatic fertilizers;62357

       3281 Cut stone and stone products;62358

       3295 Minerals and earth, ground or otherwise treated;62359

       4221 Grain elevators (storage only);62360

       5159 Farm related raw materials;62361

       5261 Retail nurseries and lawn and garden supply stores.62362

       (c) The fees set forth in the following schedule apply to the 62363
issuance of a permit to install pursuant to rules adopted under 62364
division (F) of section 3704.03 of the Revised Code for a process 62365
identified in division (F)(4)(b) of this section:62366

Process weight rate (pounds per hour) Permit to install 62367
0 to 10,000   $  200 62368
10,001 to 50,000      400 62369
50,001 to 100,000      500 62370
100,001 to 200,000      600 62371
200,001 to 400,000      750 62372
400,001 or more      900 62373

       (5) Storage tanks62374

Gallons (maximum useful capacity) Permit to install 62375
0 to 20,000   $  100 62376
20,001 to 40,000      150 62377
40,001 to 100,000      250 62378
100,001 to 500,000      400 62379
500,001 or greater      750 62380

       (6) Gasoline/fuel dispensing facilities62381

For each gasoline/fuel 62382
dispensing facility (includes all Permit to install 62383
units at the facility)     $ 100 62384

       (7) Dry cleaning facilities62385

For each dry cleaning 62386
facility (includes all units Permit to install 62387
at the facility)     $ 100 62388

       (8) Registration status62389

For each source covered Permit to install 62390
by registration status     $  75 62391

       (G) An owner or operator who is responsible for an asbestos 62392
demolition or renovation project pursuant to rules adopted under 62393
section 3704.03 of the Revised Code shall pay the fees set forth 62394
in the following schedule:62395

Action Fee 62396
Each notification $75 62397
Asbestos removal $3/unit 62398
Asbestos cleanup $4/cubic yard 62399

For purposes of this division, "unit" means any combination of 62400
linear feet or square feet equal to fifty.62401

       (H) A person who is issued an extension of time for a permit 62402
to install an air contaminant source pursuant to rules adopted 62403
under division (F) of section 3704.03 of the Revised Code shall 62404
pay a fee equal to one-half the fee originally assessed for the 62405
permit to install under this section, except that the fee for such 62406
an extension shall not exceed two hundred dollars.62407

       (I) A person who is issued a modification to a permit to 62408
install an air contaminant source pursuant to rules adopted under 62409
section 3704.03 of the Revised Code shall pay a fee equal to 62410
one-half of the fee that would be assessed under this section to 62411
obtain a permit to install the source. The fee assessed by this 62412
division only applies to modifications that are initiated by the 62413
owner or operator of the source and shall not exceed two thousand 62414
dollars.62415

       (J) Notwithstanding division (F) of this section, a person 62416
who applies for or obtains a permit to install pursuant to rules 62417
adopted under division (F) of section 3704.03 of the Revised Code 62418
after the date actual construction of the source began shall pay a 62419
fee for the permit to install that is equal to twice the fee that 62420
otherwise would be assessed under the applicable division unless 62421
the applicant received authorization to begin construction under 62422
division (W) of section 3704.03 of the Revised Code. This division 62423
only applies to sources for which actual construction of the 62424
source begins on or after July 1, 1993. The imposition or payment 62425
of the fee established in this division does not preclude the 62426
director from taking any administrative or judicial enforcement 62427
action under this chapter, Chapter 3704., 3714., 3734., or 6111. 62428
of the Revised Code, or a rule adopted under any of them, in 62429
connection with a violation of rules adopted under division (F) of 62430
section 3704.03 of the Revised Code.62431

       As used in this division, "actual construction of the source" 62432
means the initiation of physical on-site construction activities 62433
in connection with improvements to the source that are permanent 62434
in nature, including, without limitation, the installation of 62435
building supports and foundations and the laying of underground 62436
pipework.62437

       (K)(1) Money received under division (B) of this section 62438
shall be deposited in the state treasury to the credit of the 62439
Title V clean air fund created in section 3704.035 of the Revised 62440
Code. Annually, fifty cents per ton of each fee assessed under 62441
division (B) of this section on actual emissions from a source and 62442
received by the environmental protection agency pursuant to that 62443
division shall be transferred using an interstate transfer voucher 62444
to the state treasury to the credit of the small business 62445
assistance fund created in section 3706.19 of the Revised Code. In 62446
addition, annually, the amount of money necessary for the 62447
operation of the office of ombudsperson as determined under 62448
division (B) of that section shall be transferred to the state 62449
treasury to the credit of the small business ombudsperson fund 62450
created by that section.62451

       (2) Money received by the agency pursuant to divisions (D), 62452
(F), (G), (H), (I), and (J) of this section shall be deposited in 62453
the state treasury to the credit of the non-Title V clean air fund 62454
created in section 3704.035 of the Revised Code.62455

       (L)(1)(a) Except as otherwise provided in division (L)(1)(b) 62456
or (c) of this section, a person issued a water discharge permit 62457
or renewal of a water discharge permit pursuant to Chapter 6111. 62458
of the Revised Code shall pay a fee based on each point source to 62459
which the issuance is applicable in accordance with the following 62460
schedule:62461

Design flow discharge (gallons per day) Fee  62462
0 to 1000 $  0 62463
1,001 to 5000 100 62464
5,001 to 50,000 200 62465
50,001 to 100,000 300 62466
100,001 to 300,000 525 62467
over 300,000 750 62468

       (b) Notwithstanding the fee schedule specified in division 62469
(L)(1)(a) of this section, the fee for a water discharge permit 62470
that is applicable to coal mining operations regulated under 62471
Chapter 1513. of the Revised Code shall be two hundred fifty 62472
dollars per mine.62473

       (c) Notwithstanding the fee schedule specified in division 62474
(L)(1)(a) of this section, the fee for a water discharge permit 62475
for a public discharger identified by I in the third character of 62476
the permittee's NPDES permit number shall not exceed seven hundred 62477
fifty dollars.62478

       (2) A person applying for a plan approval for a wastewater 62479
treatment works pursuant to section 6111.44, 6111.45, or 6111.46 62480
of the Revised Code shall pay a fee of one hundred dollars plus 62481
sixty-five one-hundredths of one per cent of the estimated project 62482
cost through June 30, 20142016, and one hundred dollars plus 62483
two-tenths of one per cent of the estimated project cost on and 62484
after July 1, 20142016, except that the total fee shall not 62485
exceed fifteen thousand dollars through June 30, 20142016, and 62486
five thousand dollars on and after July 1, 20142016. The fee 62487
shall be paid at the time the application is submitted.62488

       (3) A person issued a modification of a water discharge 62489
permit shall pay a fee equal to one-half the fee that otherwise 62490
would be charged for a water discharge permit, except that the fee 62491
for the modification shall not exceed four hundred dollars.62492

       (4) A person who has entered into an agreement with the 62493
director under section 6111.14 of the Revised Code shall pay an 62494
administrative service fee for each plan submitted under that 62495
section for approval that shall not exceed the minimum amount 62496
necessary to pay administrative costs directly attributable to 62497
processing plan approvals. The director annually shall calculate 62498
the fee and shall notify all persons who have entered into 62499
agreements under that section, or who have applied for agreements, 62500
of the amount of the fee.62501

       (5)(a)(i) Not later than January 30, 20122014, and January 62502
30, 20132015, a person holding an NPDES discharge permit issued 62503
pursuant to Chapter 6111. of the Revised Code with an average 62504
daily discharge flow of five thousand gallons or more shall pay a 62505
nonrefundable annual discharge fee. Any person who fails to pay 62506
the fee at that time shall pay an additional amount that equals 62507
ten per cent of the required annual discharge fee.62508

       (ii) The billing year for the annual discharge fee 62509
established in division (L)(5)(a)(i) of this section shall consist 62510
of a twelve-month period beginning on the first day of January of 62511
the year preceding the date when the annual discharge fee is due. 62512
In the case of an existing source that permanently ceases to 62513
discharge during a billing year, the director shall reduce the 62514
annual discharge fee, including the surcharge applicable to 62515
certain industrial facilities pursuant to division (L)(5)(c) of 62516
this section, by one-twelfth for each full month during the 62517
billing year that the source was not discharging, but only if the 62518
person holding the NPDES discharge permit for the source notifies 62519
the director in writing, not later than the first day of October 62520
of the billing year, of the circumstances causing the cessation of 62521
discharge.62522

       (iii) The annual discharge fee established in division 62523
(L)(5)(a)(i) of this section, except for the surcharge applicable 62524
to certain industrial facilities pursuant to division (L)(5)(c) of 62525
this section, shall be based upon the average daily discharge flow 62526
in gallons per day calculated using first day of May through 62527
thirty-first day of October flow data for the period two years 62528
prior to the date on which the fee is due. In the case of NPDES 62529
discharge permits for new sources, the fee shall be calculated 62530
using the average daily design flow of the facility until actual 62531
average daily discharge flow values are available for the time 62532
period specified in division (L)(5)(a)(iii) of this section. The 62533
annual discharge fee may be prorated for a new source as described 62534
in division (L)(5)(a)(ii) of this section.62535

       (b) An NPDES permit holder that is a public discharger shall 62536
pay the fee specified in the following schedule:62537

Average daily Fee due by 62538
discharge flow January 30, 62539
2012 2014, and 62540
January 30, 2013 2015 62541

5,000 to 49,999 $ 200 62542
50,000 to 100,000 500 62543
100,001 to 250,000 1,050 62544
250,001 to 1,000,000 2,600 62545
1,000,001 to 5,000,000 5,200 62546
5,000,001 to 10,000,000 10,350 62547
10,000,001 to 20,000,000 15,550 62548
20,000,001 to 50,000,000 25,900 62549
50,000,001 to 100,000,000 41,400 62550
100,000,001 or more 62,100 62551

       Public dischargers owning or operating two or more publicly 62552
owned treatment works serving the same political subdivision, as 62553
"treatment works" is defined in section 6111.01 of the Revised 62554
Code, and that serve exclusively political subdivisions having a 62555
population of fewer than one hundred thousand shall pay an annual 62556
discharge fee under division (L)(5)(b) of this section that is 62557
based on the combined average daily discharge flow of the 62558
treatment works.62559

       (c) An NPDES permit holder that is an industrial discharger, 62560
other than a coal mining operator identified by P in the third 62561
character of the permittee's NPDES permit number, shall pay the 62562
fee specified in the following schedule:62563

Average daily Fee due by 62564
discharge flow January 30, 62565
2012 2014, and 62566
January 30, 2013 2015 62567

5,000 to 49,999 $ 250 62568
50,000 to 250,000 1,200 62569
250,001 to 1,000,000 2,950 62570
1,000,001 to 5,000,000 5,850 62571
5,000,001 to 10,000,000 8,800 62572
10,000,001 to 20,000,000 11,700 62573
20,000,001 to 100,000,000 14,050 62574
100,000,001 to 250,000,000 16,400 62575
250,000,001 or more 18,700 62576

       In addition to the fee specified in the above schedule, an 62577
NPDES permit holder that is an industrial discharger classified as 62578
a major discharger during all or part of the annual discharge fee 62579
billing year specified in division (L)(5)(a)(ii) of this section 62580
shall pay a nonrefundable annual surcharge of seven thousand five 62581
hundred dollars not later than January 30, 20122014, and not 62582
later than January 30, 20132015. Any person who fails to pay the 62583
surcharge at that time shall pay an additional amount that equals 62584
ten per cent of the amount of the surcharge.62585

       (d) Notwithstanding divisions (L)(5)(b) and (c) of this 62586
section, a public discharger identified by I in the third 62587
character of the permittee's NPDES permit number and an industrial 62588
discharger identified by I, J, L, V, W, X, Y, or Z in the third 62589
character of the permittee's NPDES permit number shall pay a 62590
nonrefundable annual discharge fee of one hundred eighty dollars 62591
not later than January 30, 20122014, and not later than January 62592
30, 20132015. Any person who fails to pay the fee at that time 62593
shall pay an additional amount that equals ten per cent of the 62594
required fee.62595

       (6) Each person obtaining a national pollutant discharge 62596
elimination system general or individual permit for municipal 62597
storm water discharge shall pay a nonrefundable storm water 62598
discharge fee of one hundred dollars per square mile of area 62599
permitted. The fee shall not exceed ten thousand dollars and shall 62600
be payable on or before January 30, 2004, and the thirtieth day of 62601
January of each year thereafter. Any person who fails to pay the 62602
fee on the date specified in division (L)(6) of this section shall 62603
pay an additional amount per year equal to ten per cent of the 62604
annual fee that is unpaid.62605

       (7) The director shall transmit all moneys collected under 62606
division (L) of this section to the treasurer of state for deposit 62607
into the state treasury to the credit of the surface water 62608
protection fund created in section 6111.038 of the Revised Code.62609

       (8) As used in division (L) of this section:62610

       (a) "NPDES" means the federally approved national pollutant 62611
discharge elimination system program for issuing, modifying, 62612
revoking, reissuing, terminating, monitoring, and enforcing 62613
permits and imposing and enforcing pretreatment requirements under 62614
Chapter 6111. of the Revised Code and rules adopted under it.62615

       (b) "Public discharger" means any holder of an NPDES permit 62616
identified by P in the second character of the NPDES permit number 62617
assigned by the director.62618

       (c) "Industrial discharger" means any holder of an NPDES 62619
permit identified by I in the second character of the NPDES permit 62620
number assigned by the director.62621

       (d) "Major discharger" means any holder of an NPDES permit 62622
classified as major by the regional administrator of the United 62623
States environmental protection agency in conjunction with the 62624
director.62625

       (M) Through June 30, 20142016, a person applying for a 62626
license or license renewal to operate a public water system under 62627
section 6109.21 of the Revised Code shall pay the appropriate fee 62628
established under this division at the time of application to the 62629
director. Any person who fails to pay the fee at that time shall 62630
pay an additional amount that equals ten per cent of the required 62631
fee. The director shall transmit all moneys collected under this 62632
division to the treasurer of state for deposit into the drinking 62633
water protection fund created in section 6109.30 of the Revised 62634
Code.62635

        Except as provided in divisiondivisions (M)(4) and (5) of 62636
this section, fees required under this division shall be 62637
calculated and paid in accordance with the following schedule:62638

       (1) For the initial license required under section 6109.21 of 62639
the Revised Code for any public water system that is a community 62640
water system as defined in section 6109.01 of the Revised Code, 62641
and for each license renewal required for such a system prior to 62642
January 31, 20142016, the fee is:62643

Number of service connections Fee amount 62644
Not more than 49    $ 112 62645
50 to 99      176 62646

Number of service connections Average cost per connection 62647
100 to 2,499 $ 1.92 62648
2,500 to 4,999   1.48 62649
5,000 to 7,499   1.42 62650
7,500 to 9,999   1.34 62651
10,000 to 14,999   1.16 62652
15,000 to 24,999   1.10 62653
25,000 to 49,999   1.04 62654
50,000 to 99,999   .92 62655
100,000 to 149,999   .86 62656
150,000 to 199,999   .80 62657
200,000 or more   .76 62658

       A public water system may determine how it will pay the total 62659
amount of the fee calculated under division (M)(1) of this 62660
section, including the assessment of additional user fees that may 62661
be assessed on a volumetric basis.62662

       As used in division (M)(1) of this section, "service 62663
connection" means the number of active or inactive pipes, 62664
goosenecks, pigtails, and any other fittings connecting a water 62665
main to any building outlet.62666

       (2) For the initial license required under section 6109.21 of 62667
the Revised Code for any public water system that is not a 62668
community water system and serves a nontransient population, and 62669
for each license renewal required for such a system prior to 62670
January 31, 20142016, the fee is:62671

Population served Fee amount 62672
Fewer than 150 $    112 62673
150 to 299      176 62674
300 to 749      384 62675
750 to 1,499      628 62676
1,500 to 2,999    1,268 62677
3,000 to 7,499    2,816 62678
7,500 to 14,999    5,510 62679
15,000 to 22,499    9,048 62680
22,500 to 29,999   12,430 62681
30,000 or more   16,820 62682

       As used in division (M)(2) of this section, "population 62683
served" means the total number of individuals having access to the 62684
water supply during a twenty-four-hour period for at least sixty 62685
days during any calendar year. In the absence of a specific 62686
population count, that number shall be calculated at the rate of 62687
three individuals per service connection.62688

       (3) For the initial license required under section 6109.21 of 62689
the Revised Code for any public water system that is not a 62690
community water system and serves a transient population, and for 62691
each license renewal required for such a system prior to January 62692
31, 20142016, the fee is:62693

  Number of wells or sources, other than surface water, supplying system Fee amount 62694
1 $112 62695
2  112 62696
3  176 62697
4  278 62698
5  568 62699
System designated as using a 62700
surface water source  792 62701

       As used in division (M)(3) of this section, "number of wells 62702
or sources, other than surface water, supplying system" means 62703
those wells or sources that are physically connected to the 62704
plumbing system serving the public water system.62705

       (4) A public water system designated as using a surface water 62706
source shall pay a fee of seven hundred ninety-two dollars or the 62707
amount calculated under division (M)(1) or (2) of this section, 62708
whichever is greater.62709

       (5) An applicant for an initial license who is proposing to 62710
operate a new public water supply system shall submit a fee that 62711
equals a prorated amount of the appropriate fee for the remainder 62712
of the licensing year.62713

       (N)(1) A person applying for a plan approval for a public 62714
water supply system under section 6109.07 of the Revised Code 62715
shall pay a fee of one hundred fifty dollars plus thirty-five 62716
hundredths of one per cent of the estimated project cost, except 62717
that the total fee shall not exceed twenty thousand dollars 62718
through June 30, 20142016, and fifteen thousand dollars on and 62719
after July 1, 20142016. The fee shall be paid at the time the 62720
application is submitted.62721

       (2) A person who has entered into an agreement with the 62722
director under division (A)(2) of section 6109.07 of the Revised 62723
Code shall pay an administrative service fee for each plan 62724
submitted under that section for approval that shall not exceed 62725
the minimum amount necessary to pay administrative costs directly 62726
attributable to processing plan approvals. The director annually 62727
shall calculate the fee and shall notify all persons that have 62728
entered into agreements under that division, or who have applied 62729
for agreements, of the amount of the fee.62730

       (3) Through June 30, 20142016, the following fee, on a per 62731
survey basis, shall be charged any person for services rendered by 62732
the state in the evaluation of laboratories and laboratory 62733
personnel for compliance with accepted analytical techniques and 62734
procedures established pursuant to Chapter 6109. of the Revised 62735
Code for determining the qualitative characteristics of water:62736

microbiological 62737
MMO-MUG $2,000 62738
MF 2,100 62739
MMO-MUG and MF 2,550 62740
organic chemical 5,400 62741
trace metals 5,400 62742
standard chemistry 2,800 62743
limited chemistry 1,550 62744

       On and after July 1, 20142016, the following fee, on a per 62745
survey basis, shall be charged any such person:62746

microbiological $ 1,650 62747
organic chemicals 3,500 62748
trace metals 3,500 62749
standard chemistry 1,800 62750
limited chemistry 1,000 62751

The fee for those services shall be paid at the time the request 62752
for the survey is made. Through June 30, 2014 2016, an individual 62753
laboratory shall not be assessed a fee under this division more 62754
than once in any three-year period unless the person requests the 62755
addition of analytical methods or analysts, in which case the 62756
person shall pay eighteen hundred dollars for each additional 62757
survey requested.62758

       As used in division (N)(3) of this section:62759

        (a) "MF" means microfiltration.62760

        (b) "MMO" means minimal medium ONPG.62761

        (c) "MUG" means 4-methylumbelliferyl-beta-D-glucuronide.62762

        (d) "ONPG" means o-nitrophenyl-beta-D-galactopyranoside.62763

       The director shall transmit all moneys collected under this 62764
division to the treasurer of state for deposit into the drinking 62765
water protection fund created in section 6109.30 of the Revised 62766
Code.62767

        (O) Any person applying to the director to take an 62768
examination for certification as an operator of a water supply 62769
system or wastewater system under Chapter 6109. or 6111. of the 62770
Revised Code that is administered by the director, at the time the 62771
application is submitted, shall pay a fee in accordance with the 62772
following schedule through November 30, 20142016:62773

Class A operator $ 80 62774
Class I operator   105 62775
Class II operator   120 62776
Class III operator   130 62777
Class IV operator   145 62778

       On and after December 1, 20142016, the applicant shall pay a 62779
fee in accordance with the following schedule:62780

Class A operator $ 50 62781
Class I operator   70 62782
Class II operator   80 62783
Class III operator   90 62784
Class IV operator   100 62785

       Any person applying to the director for certification as an 62786
operator of a water supply system or wastewater system who has 62787
passed an examination administered by an examination provider 62788
approved by the director shall pay a certification fee of 62789
forty-five dollars.62790

       A person shall pay a biennial certification renewal fee for 62791
each applicable class of certification in accordance with the 62792
following schedule:62793

Class A operator $25 62794
Class I operator  35 62795
Class II operator  45 62796
Class III operator  55 62797
Class IV operator  65 62798

        If a certification renewal fee is received by the director 62799
more than thirty days, but not more than one year after the 62800
expiration date of the certification, the person shall pay a 62801
certification renewal fee in accordance with the following 62802
schedule:62803

Class A operator $45 62804
Class I operator  55 62805
Class II operator  65 62806
Class III operator  75 62807
Class IV operator  85 62808

       A person who requests a replacement certificate shall pay a 62809
fee of twenty-five dollars at the time the request is made.62810

       Any person applying to be a water supply system or wastewater 62811
treatment system examination provider shall pay an application fee 62812
of five hundred dollars. Any person approved by the director as a 62813
water supply system or wastewater treatment system examination 62814
provider shall pay an annual fee that is equal to ten per cent of 62815
the fees that the provider assesses and collects for administering 62816
water supply system or wastewater treatment system certification 62817
examinations in this state for the calendar year. The fee shall be 62818
paid not later than forty-five days after the end of a calendar 62819
year.62820

       The director shall transmit all moneys collected under this 62821
division to the treasurer of state for deposit into the drinking 62822
water protection fund created in section 6109.30 of the Revised 62823
Code.62824

       (P) Any person submitting an application for an industrial 62825
water pollution control certificate under section 6111.31 of the 62826
Revised Code, as that section existed before its repeal by H.B. 95 62827
of the 125th general assembly, shall pay a nonrefundable fee of 62828
five hundred dollars at the time the application is submitted. The 62829
director shall transmit all moneys collected under this division 62830
to the treasurer of state for deposit into the surface water 62831
protection fund created in section 6111.038 of the Revised Code. A 62832
person paying a certificate fee under this division shall not pay 62833
an application fee under division (S)(1) of this section. On and 62834
after June 26, 2003, persons shall file such applications and pay 62835
the fee as required under sections 5709.20 to 5709.27 of the 62836
Revised Code, and proceeds from the fee shall be credited as 62837
provided in section 5709.212 of the Revised Code.62838

       (Q) Except as otherwise provided in division (R) of this 62839
section, a person issued a permit by the director for a new solid 62840
waste disposal facility other than an incineration or composting 62841
facility, a new infectious waste treatment facility other than an 62842
incineration facility, or a modification of such an existing 62843
facility that includes an increase in the total disposal or 62844
treatment capacity of the facility pursuant to Chapter 3734. of 62845
the Revised Code shall pay a fee of ten dollars per thousand cubic 62846
yards of disposal or treatment capacity, or one thousand dollars, 62847
whichever is greater, except that the total fee for any such 62848
permit shall not exceed eighty thousand dollars. A person issued a 62849
modification of a permit for a solid waste disposal facility or an 62850
infectious waste treatment facility that does not involve an 62851
increase in the total disposal or treatment capacity of the 62852
facility shall pay a fee of one thousand dollars. A person issued 62853
a permit to install a new, or modify an existing, solid waste 62854
transfer facility under that chapter shall pay a fee of two 62855
thousand five hundred dollars. A person issued a permit to install 62856
a new or to modify an existing solid waste incineration or 62857
composting facility, or an existing infectious waste treatment 62858
facility using incineration as its principal method of treatment, 62859
under that chapter shall pay a fee of one thousand dollars. The 62860
increases in the permit fees under this division resulting from 62861
the amendments made by Amended Substitute House Bill 592 of the 62862
117th general assembly do not apply to any person who submitted an 62863
application for a permit to install a new, or modify an existing, 62864
solid waste disposal facility under that chapter prior to 62865
September 1, 1987; any such person shall pay the permit fee 62866
established in this division as it existed prior to June 24, 1988. 62867
In addition to the applicable permit fee under this division, a 62868
person issued a permit to install or modify a solid waste facility 62869
or an infectious waste treatment facility under that chapter who 62870
fails to pay the permit fee to the director in compliance with 62871
division (V) of this section shall pay an additional ten per cent 62872
of the amount of the fee for each week that the permit fee is 62873
late.62874

       Permit and late payment fees paid to the director under this 62875
division shall be credited to the general revenue fund.62876

       (R)(1) A person issued a registration certificate for a scrap 62877
tire collection facility under section 3734.75 of the Revised Code 62878
shall pay a fee of two hundred dollars, except that if the 62879
facility is owned or operated by a motor vehicle salvage dealer 62880
licensed under Chapter 4738. of the Revised Code, the person shall 62881
pay a fee of twenty-five dollars.62882

       (2) A person issued a registration certificate for a new 62883
scrap tire storage facility under section 3734.76 of the Revised 62884
Code shall pay a fee of three hundred dollars, except that if the 62885
facility is owned or operated by a motor vehicle salvage dealer 62886
licensed under Chapter 4738. of the Revised Code, the person shall 62887
pay a fee of twenty-five dollars.62888

       (3) A person issued a permit for a scrap tire storage 62889
facility under section 3734.76 of the Revised Code shall pay a fee 62890
of one thousand dollars, except that if the facility is owned or 62891
operated by a motor vehicle salvage dealer licensed under Chapter 62892
4738. of the Revised Code, the person shall pay a fee of fifty 62893
dollars.62894

       (4) A person issued a permit for a scrap tire monocell or 62895
monofill facility under section 3734.77 of the Revised Code shall 62896
pay a fee of ten dollars per thousand cubic yards of disposal 62897
capacity or one thousand dollars, whichever is greater, except 62898
that the total fee for any such permit shall not exceed eighty 62899
thousand dollars.62900

       (5) A person issued a registration certificate for a scrap 62901
tire recovery facility under section 3734.78 of the Revised Code 62902
shall pay a fee of one hundred dollars.62903

       (6) A person issued a permit for a scrap tire recovery 62904
facility under section 3734.78 of the Revised Code shall pay a fee 62905
of one thousand dollars.62906

       (7) In addition to the applicable registration certificate or 62907
permit fee under divisions (R)(1) to (6) of this section, a person 62908
issued a registration certificate or permit for any such scrap 62909
tire facility who fails to pay the registration certificate or 62910
permit fee to the director in compliance with division (V) of this 62911
section shall pay an additional ten per cent of the amount of the 62912
fee for each week that the fee is late.62913

       (8) The registration certificate, permit, and late payment 62914
fees paid to the director under divisions (R)(1) to (7) of this 62915
section shall be credited to the scrap tire management fund 62916
created in section 3734.82 of the Revised Code.62917

       (S)(1) Except as provided by divisions (L), (M), (N), (O), 62918
(P), and (S)(2) of this section, division (A)(2) of section 62919
3734.05 of the Revised Code, section 3734.79 of the Revised Code, 62920
and rules adopted under division (T)(1) of this section, any 62921
person applying for a registration certificate under section 62922
3734.75, 3734.76, or 3734.78 of the Revised Code or a permit, 62923
variance, or plan approval under Chapter 3734. of the Revised Code 62924
shall pay a nonrefundable fee of fifteen dollars at the time the 62925
application is submitted.62926

       Except as otherwise provided, any person applying for a 62927
permit, variance, or plan approval under Chapter 6109. or 6111. of 62928
the Revised Code shall pay a nonrefundable fee of one hundred 62929
dollars at the time the application is submitted through June 30, 62930
20142016, and a nonrefundable fee of fifteen dollars at the time 62931
the application is submitted on and after July 1, 20142016. 62932
Except as provided in division (S)(3) of this section, through 62933
June 30, 20142016, any person applying for a national pollutant 62934
discharge elimination system permit under Chapter 6111. of the 62935
Revised Code shall pay a nonrefundable fee of two hundred dollars 62936
at the time of application for the permit. On and after July 1, 62937
20142016, such a person shall pay a nonrefundable fee of fifteen 62938
dollars at the time of application.62939

       In addition to the application fee established under division 62940
(S)(1) of this section, any person applying for a national 62941
pollutant discharge elimination system general storm water 62942
construction permit shall pay a nonrefundable fee of twenty 62943
dollars per acre for each acre that is permitted above five acres 62944
at the time the application is submitted. However, the per acreage 62945
fee shall not exceed three hundred dollars. In addition, any 62946
person applying for a national pollutant discharge elimination 62947
system general storm water industrial permit shall pay a 62948
nonrefundable fee of one hundred fifty dollars at the time the 62949
application is submitted.62950

       The director shall transmit all moneys collected under 62951
division (S)(1) of this section pursuant to Chapter 6109. of the 62952
Revised Code to the treasurer of state for deposit into the 62953
drinking water protection fund created in section 6109.30 of the 62954
Revised Code.62955

       The director shall transmit all moneys collected under 62956
division (S)(1) of this section pursuant to Chapter 6111. of the 62957
Revised Code and under division (S)(3) of this section to the 62958
treasurer of state for deposit into the surface water protection 62959
fund created in section 6111.038 of the Revised Code.62960

       If a registration certificate is issued under section 62961
3734.75, 3734.76, or 3734.78 of the Revised Code, the amount of 62962
the application fee paid shall be deducted from the amount of the 62963
registration certificate fee due under division (R)(1), (2), or 62964
(5) of this section, as applicable.62965

       If a person submits an electronic application for a 62966
registration certificate, permit, variance, or plan approval for 62967
which an application fee is established under division (S)(1) of 62968
this section, the person shall pay the applicable application fee 62969
as expeditiously as possible after the submission of the 62970
electronic application. An application for a registration 62971
certificate, permit, variance, or plan approval for which an 62972
application fee is established under division (S)(1) of this 62973
section shall not be reviewed or processed until the applicable 62974
application fee, and any other fees established under this 62975
division, are paid.62976

       (2) Division (S)(1) of this section does not apply to an 62977
application for a registration certificate for a scrap tire 62978
collection or storage facility submitted under section 3734.75 or 62979
3734.76 of the Revised Code, as applicable, if the owner or 62980
operator of the facility or proposed facility is a motor vehicle 62981
salvage dealer licensed under Chapter 4738. of the Revised Code.62982

       (3) A person applying for coverage under a national pollutant 62983
discharge elimination system general discharge permit for 62984
household sewage treatment systems shall pay the following fees:62985

       (a) A nonrefundable fee of two hundred dollars at the time of 62986
application for initial permit coverage;62987

       (b) A nonrefundable fee of one hundred dollars at the time of 62988
application for a renewal of permit coverage.62989

       (T) The director may adopt, amend, and rescind rules in 62990
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code that do all of 62991
the following:62992

       (1) Prescribe fees to be paid by applicants for and holders 62993
of any license, permit, variance, plan approval, or certification 62994
required or authorized by Chapter 3704., 3734., 6109., or 6111. of 62995
the Revised Code that are not specifically established in this 62996
section. The fees shall be designed to defray the cost of 62997
processing, issuing, revoking, modifying, denying, and enforcing 62998
the licenses, permits, variances, plan approvals, and 62999
certifications.63000

       The director shall transmit all moneys collected under rules 63001
adopted under division (T)(1) of this section pursuant to Chapter 63002
6109. of the Revised Code to the treasurer of state for deposit 63003
into the drinking water protection fund created in section 6109.30 63004
of the Revised Code.63005

       The director shall transmit all moneys collected under rules 63006
adopted under division (T)(1) of this section pursuant to Chapter 63007
6111. of the Revised Code to the treasurer of state for deposit 63008
into the surface water protection fund created in section 6111.038 63009
of the Revised Code.63010

       (2) Exempt the state and political subdivisions thereof, 63011
including education facilities or medical facilities owned by the 63012
state or a political subdivision, or any person exempted from 63013
taxation by section 5709.07 or 5709.12 of the Revised Code, from 63014
any fee required by this section;63015

       (3) Provide for the waiver of any fee, or any part thereof, 63016
otherwise required by this section whenever the director 63017
determines that the imposition of the fee would constitute an 63018
unreasonable cost of doing business for any applicant, class of 63019
applicants, or other person subject to the fee;63020

       (4) Prescribe measures that the director considers necessary 63021
to carry out this section.63022

       (U) When the director reasonably demonstrates that the direct 63023
cost to the state associated with the issuance of a permit to 63024
install, license, variance, plan approval, or certification 63025
exceeds the fee for the issuance or review specified by this 63026
section, the director may condition the issuance or review on the 63027
payment by the person receiving the issuance or review of, in 63028
addition to the fee specified by this section, the amount, or any 63029
portion thereof, in excess of the fee specified under this 63030
section. The director shall not so condition issuances for which a 63031
fee is prescribed in division (L)(1)(b) of this section.63032

       (V) Except as provided in divisions (L), (M), and (P) of this 63033
section or unless otherwise prescribed by a rule of the director 63034
adopted pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, all fees 63035
required by this section are payable within thirty days after the 63036
issuance of an invoice for the fee by the director or the 63037
effective date of the issuance of the license, permit, variance, 63038
plan approval, or certification. If payment is late, the person 63039
responsible for payment of the fee shall pay an additional ten per 63040
cent of the amount due for each month that it is late.63041

       (W) As used in this section, "fuel-burning equipment," 63042
"fuel-burning equipment input capacity," "incinerator," 63043
"incinerator input capacity," "process," "process weight rate," 63044
"storage tank," "gasoline dispensing facility," "dry cleaning 63045
facility," "design flow discharge," and "new source treatment 63046
works" have the meanings ascribed to those terms by applicable 63047
rules or standards adopted by the director under Chapter 3704. or 63048
6111. of the Revised Code.63049

       (X) As used in divisions (B), (D), (E), (F), (H), (I), and 63050
(J) of this section, and in any other provision of this section 63051
pertaining to fees paid pursuant to Chapter 3704. of the Revised 63052
Code:63053

       (1) "Facility," "federal Clean Air Act," "person," and "Title 63054
V permit" have the same meanings as in section 3704.01 of the 63055
Revised Code.63056

       (2) "Title V permit program" means the following activities 63057
as necessary to meet the requirements of Title V of the federal 63058
Clean Air Act and 40 C.F.R. part 70, including at least:63059

       (a) Preparing and adopting, if applicable, generally 63060
applicable rules or guidance regarding the permit program or its 63061
implementation or enforcement;63062

       (b) Reviewing and acting on any application for a Title V 63063
permit, permit revision, or permit renewal, including the 63064
development of an applicable requirement as part of the processing 63065
of a permit, permit revision, or permit renewal;63066

       (c) Administering the permit program, including the 63067
supporting and tracking of permit applications, compliance 63068
certification, and related data entry;63069

       (d) Determining which sources are subject to the program and 63070
implementing and enforcing the terms of any Title V permit, not 63071
including any court actions or other formal enforcement actions;63072

       (e) Emission and ambient monitoring;63073

       (f) Modeling, analyses, or demonstrations;63074

       (g) Preparing inventories and tracking emissions;63075

       (h) Providing direct and indirect support to small business 63076
stationary sources to determine and meet their obligations under 63077
the federal Clean Air Act pursuant to the small business 63078
stationary source technical and environmental compliance 63079
assistance program required by section 507 of that act and 63080
established in sections 3704.18, 3704.19, and 3706.19 of the 63081
Revised Code.63082

       (Y)(1) Except as provided in divisions (Y)(2), (3), and (4) 63083
of this section, each sewage sludge facility shall pay a 63084
nonrefundable annual sludge fee equal to three dollars and fifty 63085
cents per dry ton of sewage sludge, including the dry tons of 63086
sewage sludge in materials derived from sewage sludge, that the 63087
sewage sludge facility treats or disposes of in this state. The 63088
annual volume of sewage sludge treated or disposed of by a sewage 63089
sludge facility shall be calculated using the first day of January 63090
through the thirty-first day of December of the calendar year 63091
preceding the date on which payment of the fee is due.63092

       (2)(a) Except as provided in division (Y)(2)(d) of this 63093
section, each sewage sludge facility shall pay a minimum annual 63094
sewage sludge fee of one hundred dollars.63095

       (b) The annual sludge fee required to be paid by a sewage 63096
sludge facility that treats or disposes of exceptional quality 63097
sludge in this state shall be thirty-five per cent less per dry 63098
ton of exceptional quality sludge than the fee assessed under 63099
division (Y)(1) of this section, subject to the following 63100
exceptions:63101

       (i) Except as provided in division (Y)(2)(d) of this section, 63102
a sewage sludge facility that treats or disposes of exceptional 63103
quality sludge shall pay a minimum annual sewage sludge fee of one 63104
hundred dollars.63105

       (ii) A sewage sludge facility that treats or disposes of 63106
exceptional quality sludge shall not be required to pay the annual 63107
sludge fee for treatment or disposal in this state of exceptional 63108
quality sludge generated outside of this state and contained in 63109
bags or other containers not greater than one hundred pounds in 63110
capacity.63111

       A thirty-five per cent reduction for exceptional quality 63112
sludge applies to the maximum annual fees established under 63113
division (Y)(3) of this section.63114

       (c) A sewage sludge facility that transfers sewage sludge to 63115
another sewage sludge facility in this state for further treatment 63116
prior to disposal in this state shall not be required to pay the 63117
annual sludge fee for the tons of sewage sludge that have been 63118
transferred. In such a case, the sewage sludge facility that 63119
disposes of the sewage sludge shall pay the annual sludge fee. 63120
However, the facility transferring the sewage sludge shall pay the 63121
one-hundred-dollar minimum fee required under division (Y)(2)(a) 63122
of this section.63123

       In the case of a sewage sludge facility that treats sewage 63124
sludge in this state and transfers it out of this state to another 63125
entity for disposal, the sewage sludge facility in this state 63126
shall be required to pay the annual sludge fee for the tons of 63127
sewage sludge that have been transferred.63128

       (d) A sewage sludge facility that generates sewage sludge 63129
resulting from an average daily discharge flow of less than five 63130
thousand gallons per day is not subject to the fees assessed under 63131
division (Y) of this section.63132

       (3) No sewage sludge facility required to pay the annual 63133
sludge fee shall be required to pay more than the maximum annual 63134
fee for each disposal method that the sewage sludge facility uses. 63135
The maximum annual fee does not include the additional amount that 63136
may be charged under division (Y)(5) of this section for late 63137
payment of the annual sludge fee. The maximum annual fee for the 63138
following methods of disposal of sewage sludge is as follows:63139

       (a) Incineration: five thousand dollars;63140

       (b) Preexisting land reclamation project or disposal in a 63141
landfill: five thousand dollars;63142

       (c) Land application, land reclamation, surface disposal, or 63143
any other disposal method not specified in division (Y)(3)(a) or 63144
(b) of this section: twenty thousand dollars.63145

       (4)(a) In the case of an entity that generates sewage sludge 63146
or a sewage sludge facility that treats sewage sludge and 63147
transfers the sewage sludge to an incineration facility for 63148
disposal, the incineration facility, and not the entity generating 63149
the sewage sludge or the sewage sludge facility treating the 63150
sewage sludge, shall pay the annual sludge fee for the tons of 63151
sewage sludge that are transferred. However, the entity or 63152
facility generating or treating the sewage sludge shall pay the 63153
one-hundred-dollar minimum fee required under division (Y)(2)(a) 63154
of this section.63155

       (b) In the case of an entity that generates sewage sludge and 63156
transfers the sewage sludge to a landfill for disposal or to a 63157
sewage sludge facility for land reclamation or surface disposal, 63158
the entity generating the sewage sludge, and not the landfill or 63159
sewage sludge facility, shall pay the annual sludge fee for the 63160
tons of sewage sludge that are transferred.63161

       (5) Not later than the first day of April of the calendar 63162
year following March 17, 2000, and each first day of April 63163
thereafter, the director shall issue invoices to persons who are 63164
required to pay the annual sludge fee. The invoice shall identify 63165
the nature and amount of the annual sludge fee assessed and state 63166
the first day of May as the deadline for receipt by the director 63167
of objections regarding the amount of the fee and the first day of 63168
July as the deadline for payment of the fee.63169

       Not later than the first day of May following receipt of an 63170
invoice, a person required to pay the annual sludge fee may submit 63171
objections to the director concerning the accuracy of information 63172
regarding the number of dry tons of sewage sludge used to 63173
calculate the amount of the annual sludge fee or regarding whether 63174
the sewage sludge qualifies for the exceptional quality sludge 63175
discount established in division (Y)(2)(b) of this section. The 63176
director may consider the objections and adjust the amount of the 63177
fee to ensure that it is accurate.63178

       If the director does not adjust the amount of the annual 63179
sludge fee in response to a person's objections, the person may 63180
appeal the director's determination in accordance with Chapter 63181
119. of the Revised Code.63182

       Not later than the first day of June, the director shall 63183
notify the objecting person regarding whether the director has 63184
found the objections to be valid and the reasons for the finding. 63185
If the director finds the objections to be valid and adjusts the 63186
amount of the annual sludge fee accordingly, the director shall 63187
issue with the notification a new invoice to the person 63188
identifying the amount of the annual sludge fee assessed and 63189
stating the first day of July as the deadline for payment.63190

       Not later than the first day of July, any person who is 63191
required to do so shall pay the annual sludge fee. Any person who 63192
is required to pay the fee, but who fails to do so on or before 63193
that date shall pay an additional amount that equals ten per cent 63194
of the required annual sludge fee.63195

       (6) The director shall transmit all moneys collected under 63196
division (Y) of this section to the treasurer of state for deposit 63197
into the surface water protection fund created in section 6111.038 63198
of the Revised Code. The moneys shall be used to defray the costs 63199
of administering and enforcing provisions in Chapter 6111. of the 63200
Revised Code and rules adopted under it that govern the use, 63201
storage, treatment, or disposal of sewage sludge.63202

       (7) Beginning in fiscal year 2001, and every two years 63203
thereafter, the director shall review the total amount of moneys 63204
generated by the annual sludge fees to determine if that amount 63205
exceeded six hundred thousand dollars in either of the two 63206
preceding fiscal years. If the total amount of moneys in the fund 63207
exceeded six hundred thousand dollars in either fiscal year, the 63208
director, after review of the fee structure and consultation with 63209
affected persons, shall issue an order reducing the amount of the 63210
fees levied under division (Y) of this section so that the 63211
estimated amount of moneys resulting from the fees will not exceed 63212
six hundred thousand dollars in any fiscal year.63213

       If, upon review of the fees under division (Y)(7) of this 63214
section and after the fees have been reduced, the director 63215
determines that the total amount of moneys collected and 63216
accumulated is less than six hundred thousand dollars, the 63217
director, after review of the fee structure and consultation with 63218
affected persons, may issue an order increasing the amount of the 63219
fees levied under division (Y) of this section so that the 63220
estimated amount of moneys resulting from the fees will be 63221
approximately six hundred thousand dollars. Fees shall never be 63222
increased to an amount exceeding the amount specified in division 63223
(Y)(7) of this section.63224

       Notwithstanding section 119.06 of the Revised Code, the 63225
director may issue an order under division (Y)(7) of this section 63226
without the necessity to hold an adjudicatory hearing in 63227
connection with the order. The issuance of an order under this 63228
division is not an act or action for purposes of section 3745.04 63229
of the Revised Code.63230

       (8) As used in division (Y) of this section:63231

       (a) "Sewage sludge facility" means an entity that performs 63232
treatment on or is responsible for the disposal of sewage sludge.63233

       (b) "Sewage sludge" means a solid, semi-solid, or liquid 63234
residue generated during the treatment of domestic sewage in a 63235
treatment works as defined in section 6111.01 of the Revised Code. 63236
"Sewage sludge" includes, but is not limited to, scum or solids 63237
removed in primary, secondary, or advanced wastewater treatment 63238
processes. "Sewage sludge" does not include ash generated during 63239
the firing of sewage sludge in a sewage sludge incinerator, grit 63240
and screenings generated during preliminary treatment of domestic 63241
sewage in a treatment works, animal manure, residue generated 63242
during treatment of animal manure, or domestic septage.63243

       (c) "Exceptional quality sludge" means sewage sludge that 63244
meets all of the following qualifications:63245

       (i) Satisfies the class A pathogen standards in 40 C.F.R. 63246
503.32(a);63247

       (ii) Satisfies one of the vector attraction reduction 63248
requirements in 40 C.F.R. 503.33(b)(1) to (b)(8);63249

       (iii) Does not exceed the ceiling concentration limitations 63250
for metals listed in table one of 40 C.F.R. 503.13;63251

       (iv) Does not exceed the concentration limitations for metals 63252
listed in table three of 40 C.F.R. 503.13.63253

       (d) "Treatment" means the preparation of sewage sludge for 63254
final use or disposal and includes, but is not limited to, 63255
thickening, stabilization, and dewatering of sewage sludge.63256

       (e) "Disposal" means the final use of sewage sludge, 63257
including, but not limited to, land application, land reclamation, 63258
surface disposal, or disposal in a landfill or an incinerator.63259

       (f) "Land application" means the spraying or spreading of 63260
sewage sludge onto the land surface, the injection of sewage 63261
sludge below the land surface, or the incorporation of sewage 63262
sludge into the soil for the purposes of conditioning the soil or 63263
fertilizing crops or vegetation grown in the soil.63264

       (g) "Land reclamation" means the returning of disturbed land 63265
to productive use.63266

       (h) "Surface disposal" means the placement of sludge on an 63267
area of land for disposal, including, but not limited to, 63268
monofills, surface impoundments, lagoons, waste piles, or 63269
dedicated disposal sites.63270

       (i) "Incinerator" means an entity that disposes of sewage 63271
sludge through the combustion of organic matter and inorganic 63272
matter in sewage sludge by high temperatures in an enclosed 63273
device.63274

       (j) "Incineration facility" includes all incinerators owned 63275
or operated by the same entity and located on a contiguous tract 63276
of land. Areas of land are considered to be contiguous even if 63277
they are separated by a public road or highway.63278

       (k) "Annual sludge fee" means the fee assessed under division 63279
(Y)(1) of this section.63280

       (l) "Landfill" means a sanitary landfill facility, as defined 63281
in rules adopted under section 3734.02 of the Revised Code, that 63282
is licensed under section 3734.05 of the Revised Code.63283

       (m) "Preexisting land reclamation project" means a 63284
property-specific land reclamation project that has been in 63285
continuous operation for not less than five years pursuant to 63286
approval of the activity by the director and includes the 63287
implementation of a community outreach program concerning the 63288
activity.63289

       Sec. 3745.113. (A) A person that applies for a state isolated 63290
wetland permit under Chapter 6111. of the Revised Code and rules 63291
adopted under it shall pay an application fee of two hundred 63292
dollars at the time of application.63293

       In addition, that person shall pay, at the time of 63294
application, a review fee of five hundred dollars per acre of the 63295
wetlands to be impacted.63296

       However, the review fee shall not exceed five thousand 63297
dollars per application. In addition, if an application is denied, 63298
the director of environmental protection shall refund to the 63299
applicant one-half of the amount of the review fee paid by the 63300
applicant under division (A) of this section.63301

       (B) If a person conducts any activities for which an 63302
individual state isolated wetland permit is required under Chapter 63303
6111. of the Revised Code and rules adopted under it without first 63304
obtaining such a permit, the person shall pay twice the amount of 63305
the application and review fees that the person otherwise would 63306
have been required to pay under division (A) of this section, not 63307
to exceed ten thousand dollars.63308

       (C) All moneys collected under this section shall be 63309
deposited in the state treasury to the credit of the dredge and 63310
fillsurface water protection fund created in section 6111.02963311
6111.038 of the Revised Code.63312

       (D) Fees established under this section shall not apply to 63313
any agency or department of the state or to any county, township, 63314
or municipal corporation in this state.63315

       Sec. 3769.08.  (A) Any person holding a permit to conduct a 63316
horse-racing meeting may provide a place in the race meeting 63317
grounds or enclosure at which the permit holder may conduct and 63318
supervise the pari-mutuel system of wagering by patrons of legal 63319
age on the live racing programs and simulcast racing programs 63320
conducted by the permit holder.63321

       The pari-mutuel method of wagering upon the live racing 63322
programs and simulcast racing programs held at or conducted within 63323
such race track, and at the time of such horse-racing meeting, or 63324
at other times authorized by the state racing commission, shall 63325
not be unlawful. No other place, except that provided and 63326
designated by the permit holder and except as provided in section 63327
3769.26 of the Revised Code, nor any other method or system of 63328
betting or wagering on live racing programs and simulcast racing 63329
programs, except the pari-mutuel system, shall be used or 63330
permitted by the permit holder; nor, except as provided in section 63331
3769.089 or 3769.26 of the Revised Code, shall the pari-mutuel 63332
system of wagering be conducted by the permit holder on any races 63333
except the races at the race track, grounds, or enclosure for 63334
which the person holds a permit. Each permit holder may retain as 63335
a commission an amount not to exceed eighteen per cent of the 63336
total of all moneys wagered on live racing programs and simulcast 63337
racing programs.63338

       The pari-mutuel wagering authorized by this section is 63339
subject to sections 3769.25 to 3769.28 of the Revised Code.63340

       (B) At the close of each racing day, each permit holder 63341
authorized to conduct thoroughbred racing, out of the amount 63342
retained on that day by the permit holder, shall pay by check, 63343
draft, or money order to the tax commissioner, as a tax, a sum 63344
equal to the following percentages of the total of all moneys 63345
wagered on live racing programs on that day and shall separately 63346
compute and pay by check, draft, or money order to the tax 63347
commissioner, as a tax, a sum equal to the following percentages 63348
of the total of all money wagered on simulcast racing programs on 63349
that day:63350

       (1) One per cent of the first two hundred thousand dollars 63351
wagered, or any part of that amount;63352

       (2) Two per cent of the next one hundred thousand dollars 63353
wagered, or any part of that amount;63354

       (3) Three per cent of the next one hundred thousand dollars 63355
wagered, or any part of that amount;63356

       (4) Four per cent of all sums over four hundred thousand 63357
dollars wagered.63358

       Except as otherwise provided in section 3769.089 of the 63359
Revised Code, each permit holder authorized to conduct 63360
thoroughbred racing shall use for purse money a sum equal to fifty 63361
per cent of the pari-mutuel revenues retained by the permit holder 63362
as a commission after payment of the state tax. This fifty per 63363
cent payment shall be in addition to the purse distribution from 63364
breakage specified in this section.63365

       Subject to division (M) of this section, from the moneys paid 63366
to the tax commissioner by thoroughbred racing permit holders, 63367
one-half of one per cent of the total of all moneys so wagered on 63368
a racing day shall be paid into the Ohio fairs fund created by 63369
section 3769.082 of the Revised Code, one and one-eighth per cent 63370
of the total of all moneys so wagered on a racing day shall be 63371
paid into the Ohio thoroughbred race fund created by section 63372
3769.083 of the Revised Code, and one-quarter of one per cent of 63373
the total of all moneys wagered on a racing day by each permit 63374
holder shall be paid into the state racing commission operating 63375
fund created by section 3769.03 of the Revised Code. The required 63376
payment to the state racing commission operating fund does not 63377
apply to county and independent fairs and agricultural societies. 63378
The remaining moneys may be retained by the permit holder, except 63379
as provided in this section with respect to the odd cents 63380
redistribution. Amounts paid into the nursing home franchise 63381
permit fee fund pursuant to this section and section 3769.26 of 63382
the Revised Code shall be used solely for the support of the 63383
PASSPORT program as determined in appropriations made by the 63384
general assembly. If the PASSPORT program is abolished, the amount 63385
that would have been paid to the nursing home franchise permit fee 63386
fund under this chapter shall be paid to the general revenue fund 63387
of the state. As used in this chapter, "PASSPORT program" means 63388
the PASSPORT program created underhas the same meaning as in63389
section 173.40173.51 of the Revised Code.63390

       The total amount paid to the Ohio thoroughbred race fund 63391
under this section and division (A) of section 3769.087 of the 63392
Revised Code shall not exceed by more than six per cent the total 63393
amount paid to this fund under this section and division (A) of 63394
that section during the immediately preceding calendar year.63395

       Each year, the total amount calculated for payment into the 63396
Ohio fairs fund under this division, division (C) of this section, 63397
and division (A) of section 3769.087 of the Revised Code shall be 63398
an amount calculated using the percentages specified in this 63399
division, division (C) of this section, and division (A) of 63400
section 3769.087 of the Revised Code.63401

       A permit holder may contract with a thoroughbred horsemen's 63402
organization for the organization to act as a representative of 63403
all thoroughbred owners and trainers participating in a 63404
horse-racing meeting conducted by the permit holder. A 63405
"thoroughbred horsemen's organization" is any corporation or 63406
association that represents, through membership or otherwise, more 63407
than one-half of the aggregate of all thoroughbred owners and 63408
trainers who were licensed and actively participated in racing 63409
within this state during the preceding calendar year. Except as 63410
otherwise provided in this paragraph, any moneys received by a 63411
thoroughbred horsemen's organization shall be used exclusively for 63412
the benefit of thoroughbred owners and trainers racing in this 63413
state through the administrative purposes of the organization, 63414
benevolent activities on behalf of the horsemen, promotion of the 63415
horsemen's rights and interests, and promotion of equine research. 63416
A thoroughbred horsemen's organization may expend not more than an 63417
aggregate of five per cent of its annual gross receipts, or a 63418
larger amount as approved by the organization, for dues, 63419
assessments, and other payments to all other local, national, or 63420
international organizations having as their primary purposes the 63421
promotion of thoroughbred horse racing, thoroughbred horsemen's 63422
rights, and equine research.63423

       (C) Except as otherwise provided in division (B) of this 63424
section, at the close of each racing day, each permit holder 63425
authorized to conduct harness or quarter horse racing, out of the 63426
amount retained that day by the permit holder, shall pay by check, 63427
draft, or money order to the tax commissioner, as a tax, a sum 63428
equal to the following percentages of the total of all moneys 63429
wagered on live racing programs and shall separately compute and 63430
pay by check, draft, or money order to the tax commissioner, as a 63431
tax, a sum equal to the following percentages of the total of all 63432
money wagered on simulcast racing programs on that day:63433

       (1) One per cent of the first two hundred thousand dollars 63434
wagered, or any part of that amount;63435

       (2) Two per cent of the next one hundred thousand dollars 63436
wagered, or any part of that amount;63437

       (3) Three per cent of the next one hundred thousand dollars 63438
wagered, or any part of that amount;63439

       (4) Four per cent of all sums over four hundred thousand 63440
dollars wagered.63441

       Except as otherwise provided in division (B) and subject to 63442
division (M) of this section, from the moneys paid to the tax 63443
commissioner by permit holders authorized to conduct harness or 63444
quarter horse racing, one-half of one per cent of all moneys 63445
wagered on that racing day shall be paid into the Ohio fairs fund; 63446
from the moneys paid to the tax commissioner by permit holders 63447
authorized to conduct harness racing, five-eighths of one per cent 63448
of all moneys wagered on that racing day shall be paid into the 63449
Ohio standardbred development fund; and from the moneys paid to 63450
the tax commissioner by permit holders authorized to conduct 63451
quarter horse racing, five-eighths of one per cent of all moneys 63452
wagered on that racing day shall be paid into the Ohio quarter 63453
horse development fund.63454

       (D) In addition, subject to division (M) of this section, 63455
beginning on January 1, 1996, from the money paid to the tax 63456
commissioner as a tax under this section and division (A) of 63457
section 3769.087 of the Revised Code by harness horse permit 63458
holders, one-half of one per cent of the amount wagered on a 63459
racing day shall be paid into the Ohio standardbred development 63460
fund. Beginning January 1, 1998, the payment to the Ohio 63461
standardbred development fund required under this division does 63462
not apply to county agricultural societies or independent 63463
agricultural societies.63464

       The total amount paid to the Ohio standardbred development 63465
fund under this division, division (C) of this section, and 63466
division (A) of section 3769.087 of the Revised Code and the total 63467
amount paid to the Ohio quarter horse development fund under this 63468
division and division (A) of that section shall not exceed by more 63469
than six per cent the total amount paid into the fund under this 63470
division, division (C) of this section, and division (A) of 63471
section 3769.087 of the Revised Code in the immediately preceding 63472
calendar year.63473

       (E) Subject to division (M) of this section, from the money 63474
paid as a tax under this chapter by harness and quarter horse 63475
permit holders, one-quarter of one per cent of the total of all 63476
moneys wagered on a racing day by each permit holder shall be paid 63477
into the state racing commission operating fund created by section 63478
3769.03 of the Revised Code. This division does not apply to 63479
county and independent fairs and agricultural societies.63480

       (F) Except as otherwise provided in section 3769.089 of the 63481
Revised Code, each permit holder authorized to conduct harness 63482
racing shall pay to the harness horsemen's purse pool a sum equal 63483
to fifty per cent of the pari-mutuel revenues retained by the 63484
permit holder as a commission after payment of the state tax. This 63485
fifty per cent payment is to be in addition to the purse 63486
distribution from breakage specified in this section.63487

       (G) In addition, each permit holder authorized to conduct 63488
harness racing shall be allowed to retain the odd cents of all 63489
redistribution to be made on all mutual contributions exceeding a 63490
sum equal to the next lowest multiple of ten.63491

       Forty per cent of that portion of that total sum of such odd 63492
cents shall be used by the permit holder for purse money for Ohio 63493
sired, bred, and owned colts, for purse money for Ohio bred 63494
horses, and for increased purse money for horse races. Upon the 63495
formation of the corporation described in section 3769.21 of the 63496
Revised Code to establish a harness horsemen's health and 63497
retirement fund, twenty-five per cent of that portion of that 63498
total sum of odd cents shall be paid at the close of each racing 63499
day by the permit holder to that corporation to establish and fund 63500
the health and retirement fund. Until that corporation is formed, 63501
that twenty-five per cent shall be paid at the close of each 63502
racing day by the permit holder to the tax commissioner or the tax 63503
commissioner's agent in the county seat of the county in which the 63504
permit holder operates race meetings. The remaining thirty-five 63505
per cent of that portion of that total sum of odd cents shall be 63506
retained by the permit holder.63507

       (H) In addition, each permit holder authorized to conduct 63508
thoroughbred racing shall be allowed to retain the odd cents of 63509
all redistribution to be made on all mutuel contributions 63510
exceeding a sum equal to the next lowest multiple of ten. Twenty 63511
per cent of that portion of that total sum of such odd cents shall 63512
be used by the permit holder for increased purse money for horse 63513
races. Upon the formation of the corporation described in section 63514
3769.21 of the Revised Code to establish a thoroughbred horsemen's 63515
health and retirement fund, forty-five per cent of that portion of 63516
that total sum of odd cents shall be paid at the close of each 63517
racing day by the permit holder to that corporation to establish 63518
and fund the health and retirement fund. Until that corporation is 63519
formed, that forty-five per cent shall be paid by the permit 63520
holder to the tax commissioner or the tax commissioner's agent in 63521
the county seat of the county in which the permit holder operates 63522
race meetings, at the close of each racing day. The remaining 63523
thirty-five per cent of that portion of that total sum of odd 63524
cents shall be retained by the permit holder.63525

       (I) In addition, each permit holder authorized to conduct 63526
quarter horse racing shall be allowed to retain the odd cents of 63527
all redistribution to be made on all mutuel contributions 63528
exceeding a sum equal to the next lowest multiple of ten, subject 63529
to a tax of twenty-five per cent on that portion of the total sum 63530
of such odd cents that is in excess of two thousand dollars during 63531
a calendar year, which tax shall be paid at the close of each 63532
racing day by the permit holder to the tax commissioner or the tax 63533
commissioner's agent in the county seat of the county within which 63534
the permit holder operates race meetings. Forty per cent of that 63535
portion of that total sum of such odd cents shall be used by the 63536
permit holder for increased purse money for horse races. The 63537
remaining thirty-five per cent of that portion of that total sum 63538
of odd cents shall be retained by the permit holder.63539

       (J)(1) To encourage the improvement of racing facilities for 63540
the benefit of the public, breeders, and horse owners, and to 63541
increase the revenue to the state from the increase in pari-mutuel 63542
wagering resulting from those improvements, the taxes paid by a 63543
permit holder to the state as provided for in this chapter shall 63544
be reduced by three-fourths of one per cent of the total amount 63545
wagered for those permit holders who make capital improvements to 63546
existing race tracks or construct new race tracks. The percentage 63547
of the reduction that may be taken each racing day shall equal 63548
seventy-five per cent of the taxes levied under divisions (B) and 63549
(C) of this section and section 3769.087 of the Revised Code, and 63550
division (F)(2) of section 3769.26 of the Revised Code, as 63551
applicable, divided by the calculated amount each fund should 63552
receive under divisions (B) and (C) of this section and section 63553
3769.087 of the Revised Code, and division (F)(2) of section 63554
3769.26 of the Revised Code and the reduction provided for in this 63555
division. If the resulting percentage is less than one, that 63556
percentage shall be multiplied by the amount of the reduction 63557
provided for in this division. Otherwise, the permit holder shall 63558
receive the full reduction provided for in this division. The 63559
amount of the allowable reduction not received shall be carried 63560
forward and applied against future tax liability. After any 63561
reductions expire, any reduction carried forward shall be treated 63562
as a reduction as provided for in this division.63563

       If more than one permit holder is authorized to conduct 63564
racing at the facility that is being built or improved, the cost 63565
of the new race track or capital improvement shall be allocated 63566
between or among all the permit holders in the ratio that the 63567
permit holders' number of racing days bears to the total number of 63568
racing days conducted at the facility.63569

       A reduction for a new race track or a capital improvement 63570
shall start from the day racing is first conducted following the 63571
date actual construction of the new race track or each capital 63572
improvement is completed and the construction cost has been 63573
approved by the racing commission, unless otherwise provided in 63574
this section. A reduction for a new race track or a capital 63575
improvement shall continue for a period of twenty-five years for 63576
new race tracks and for fifteen years for capital improvements if 63577
the construction of the capital improvement or new race track 63578
commenced prior to March 29, 1988, and for a period of ten years 63579
for new race tracks or capital improvements if the construction of 63580
the capital improvement or new race track commenced on or after 63581
March 29, 1988, but before June 6, 2001, or until the total tax 63582
reduction reaches seventy per cent of the approved cost of the new 63583
race track or capital improvement, as allocated to each permit 63584
holder, whichever occurs first. A reduction for a new race track 63585
or a capital improvement approved after June 6, 2001, shall 63586
continue until the total tax reduction reaches one hundred per 63587
cent of the approved cost of the new race track or capital 63588
improvement, as allocated to each permit holder.63589

       A reduction granted for a new race track or a capital 63590
improvement, the application for which was approved by the racing 63591
commission after March 29, 1988, but before June 6, 2001, shall 63592
not commence nor shall the ten-year period begin to run until all 63593
prior tax reductions with respect to the same race track have 63594
ended. The total tax reduction because of capital improvements 63595
shall not during any one year exceed for all permit holders using 63596
any one track three-fourths of one per cent of the total amount 63597
wagered, regardless of the number of capital improvements made. 63598
Several capital improvements to a race track may be consolidated 63599
in an application if the racing commission approved the 63600
application prior to March 29, 1988. No permit holder may receive 63601
a tax reduction for a capital improvement approved by the racing 63602
commission on or after March 29, 1988, at a race track until all 63603
tax reductions have ended for all prior capital improvements 63604
approved by the racing commission under this section or section 63605
3769.20 of the Revised Code at that race track. If there are two 63606
or more permit holders operating meetings at the same track, they 63607
may consolidate their applications. The racing commission shall 63608
notify the tax commissioner when the reduction of tax begins and 63609
when it ends.63610

       Each fiscal year the racing commission shall submit a report 63611
to the tax commissioner, the office of budget and management, and 63612
the legislative service commission. The report shall identify each 63613
capital improvement project undertaken under this division and in 63614
progress at each race track, indicate the total cost of each 63615
project, state the tax reduction that resulted from each project 63616
during the immediately preceding fiscal year, estimate the tax 63617
reduction that will result from each project during the current 63618
fiscal year, state the total tax reduction that resulted from all 63619
such projects at all race tracks during the immediately preceding 63620
fiscal year, and estimate the total tax reduction that will result 63621
from all such projects at all race tracks during the current 63622
fiscal year.63623

       (2) In order to qualify for the reduction in tax, a permit 63624
holder shall apply to the racing commission in such form as the 63625
commission may require and shall provide full details of the new 63626
race track or capital improvement, including a schedule for its 63627
construction and completion, and set forth the costs and expenses 63628
incurred in connection with it. The racing commission shall not 63629
approve an application unless the permit holder shows that a 63630
contract for the new race track or capital improvement has been 63631
let under an unrestricted competitive bidding procedure, unless 63632
the contract is exempted by the controlling board because of its 63633
unusual nature. In determining whether to approve an application, 63634
the racing commission shall consider whether the new race track or 63635
capital improvement will promote the safety, convenience, and 63636
comfort of the racing public and horse owners and generally tend 63637
towards the improvement of racing in this state.63638

       (3) If a new race track or capital improvement is approved by 63639
the racing commission and construction has started, the tax 63640
reduction may be authorized by the commission upon presentation of 63641
copies of paid bills in excess of one hundred thousand dollars or 63642
ten per cent of the approved cost, whichever is greater. After the 63643
initial authorization, the permit holder shall present copies of 63644
paid bills. If the permit holder is in substantial compliance with 63645
the schedule for construction and completion of the new race track 63646
or capital improvement, the racing commission may authorize the 63647
continuation of the tax reduction upon the presentation of the 63648
additional paid bills. The total amount of the tax reduction 63649
authorized shall not exceed the percentage of the approved cost of 63650
the new race track or capital improvement specified in division 63651
(J)(1) of this section. The racing commission may terminate any 63652
tax reduction immediately if a permit holder fails to complete the 63653
new race track or capital improvement, or to substantially comply 63654
with the schedule for construction and completion of the new race 63655
track or capital improvement. If a permit holder fails to complete 63656
a new race track or capital improvement, the racing commission 63657
shall order the permit holder to repay to the state the total 63658
amount of tax reduced. The normal tax paid by the permit holder 63659
shall be increased by three-fourths of one per cent of the total 63660
amount wagered until the total amount of the additional tax 63661
collected equals the total amount of tax reduced.63662

       (4) As used in this section:63663

       (a) "Capital improvement" means an addition, replacement, or 63664
remodeling of a structural unit of a race track facility costing 63665
at least one hundred thousand dollars, including, but not limited 63666
to, the construction of barns used exclusively for the race track 63667
facility, backstretch facilities for horsemen, paddock facilities, 63668
new pari-mutuel and totalizator equipment and appurtenances to 63669
that equipment purchased by the track, new access roads, new 63670
parking areas, the complete reconstruction, reshaping, and 63671
leveling of the racing surface and appurtenances, the installation 63672
of permanent new heating or air conditioning, roof replacement or 63673
restoration, installations of a permanent nature forming a part of 63674
the track structure, and construction of buildings that are 63675
located on a permit holder's premises. "Capital improvement" does 63676
not include the cost of replacement of equipment that is not 63677
permanently installed, ordinary repairs, painting, and maintenance 63678
required to keep a race track facility in ordinary operating 63679
condition.63680

       (b) "New race track" includes the reconstruction of a race 63681
track damaged by fire or other cause that has been declared by the 63682
racing commission, as a result of the damage, to be an inadequate 63683
facility for the safe operation of horse racing.63684

       (c) "Approved cost" includes all debt service and interest 63685
costs that are associated with a capital improvement or new race 63686
track and that the racing commission approves for a tax reduction 63687
under division (J) of this section.63688

       (5) The racing commission shall not approve an application 63689
for a tax reduction under this section if it has reasonable cause 63690
to believe that the actions or negligence of the permit holder 63691
substantially contributed to the damage suffered by the track due 63692
to fire or other cause. The racing commission shall obtain any 63693
data or information available from a fire marshal, law enforcement 63694
official, or insurance company concerning any fire or other damage 63695
suffered by a track, prior to approving an application for a tax 63696
reduction.63697

       (6) The approved cost to which a tax reduction applies shall 63698
be determined by generally accepted accounting principles and 63699
verified by an audit of the permit holder's records upon 63700
completion of the project by the racing commission, or by an 63701
independent certified public accountant selected by the permit 63702
holder and approved by the commission.63703

       (K) No other license or excise tax or fee, except as provided 63704
in sections 3769.01 to 3769.14 of the Revised Code, shall be 63705
assessed or collected from such licensee by any county, township, 63706
district, municipal corporation, or other body having power to 63707
assess or collect a tax or fee. That portion of the tax paid under 63708
this section by permit holders for racing conducted at and during 63709
the course of an agricultural exposition or fair, and that portion 63710
of the tax that would have been paid by eligible permit holders 63711
into the nursing home franchise permit fee fund as a result of 63712
racing conducted at and during the course of an agricultural 63713
exposition or fair, shall be deposited into the state treasury to 63714
the credit of the horse racing tax fund, which is hereby created 63715
for the use of the agricultural societies of the several counties 63716
in which the taxes originate. The state racing commission shall 63717
determine eligible permit holders for purposes of the preceding 63718
sentence, taking into account the breed of horse, the racing 63719
dates, the geographic proximity to the fair, and the best 63720
interests of Ohio racing. On the first day of any month on which 63721
there is money in the fund, the tax commissioner shall provide for 63722
payment to the treasurer of each agricultural society the amount 63723
of the taxes collected under this section upon racing conducted at 63724
and during the course of any exposition or fair conducted by the 63725
society.63726

       (L) From the tax paid under this section by harness track 63727
permit holders, the tax commissioner shall pay into the Ohio 63728
thoroughbred race fund a sum equal to a percentage of the amount 63729
wagered upon which the tax is paid. The percentage shall be 63730
determined by the tax commissioner and shall be rounded to the 63731
nearest one-hundredth. The percentage shall be such that, when 63732
multiplied by the amount wagered upon which tax was paid by the 63733
harness track permit holders in the most recent year for which 63734
final figures are available, it results in a sum that 63735
substantially equals the same amount of tax paid by the tax 63736
commissioner during that year into the Ohio fairs fund from taxes 63737
paid by thoroughbred permit holders. This division does not apply 63738
to county and independent fairs and agricultural societies.63739

       (M) Twenty-five per cent of the taxes levied on thoroughbred 63740
racing permit holders, harness racing permit holders, and quarter 63741
horse racing permit holders under this section, division (A) of 63742
section 3769.087 of the Revised Code, and division (F)(2) of 63743
section 3769.26 of the Revised Code shall be paid into the nursing 63744
home franchise permit fee fund. The tax commissioner shall pay any 63745
money remaining, after the payment into the nursing home franchise 63746
permit fee fund and the reductions provided for in division (J) of 63747
this section and in section 3769.20 of the Revised Code, into the 63748
Ohio fairs fund, Ohio thoroughbred race fund, Ohio standardbred 63749
development fund, Ohio quarter horse fund, and state racing 63750
commission operating fund as prescribed in this section and 63751
division (A) of section 3769.087 of the Revised Code. The tax 63752
commissioner shall thereafter use and apply the balance of the 63753
money paid as a tax by any permit holder to cover any shortage in 63754
the accounts of such funds resulting from an insufficient payment 63755
as a tax by any other permit holder. The moneys received by the 63756
tax commissioner shall be deposited weekly and paid by the tax 63757
commissioner into the funds to cover the total aggregate amount 63758
due from all permit holders to the funds, as calculated under this 63759
section and division (A) of section 3769.087 of the Revised Code, 63760
as applicable. If, after the payment into the nursing home 63761
franchise permit fee fund, sufficient funds are not available from 63762
the tax deposited by the tax commissioner to pay the required 63763
amounts into the Ohio fairs fund, Ohio standardbred development 63764
fund, Ohio thoroughbred race fund, Ohio quarter horse fund, and 63765
the state racing commission operating fund, the tax commissioner 63766
shall prorate on a proportional basis the amount paid to each of 63767
the funds. Any shortage to the funds as a result of a proration 63768
shall be applied against future deposits for the same calendar 63769
year when funds are available. After this application, the tax 63770
commissioner shall pay any remaining money paid as a tax by all 63771
permit holders into the nursing home franchise permit fee fund. 63772
This division does not apply to permit holders conducting racing 63773
at the course of an agricultural exposition or fair as described 63774
in division (K) of this section.63775

       Sec. 3769.088.  (A) If any permit holder required by this 63776
chapter to pay the taxes levied by sections 3769.08, 3769.087, 63777
3769.26, and 3769.28 of the Revised Code fails to pay the taxes, 63778
the tax commissioner may make an assessment against the permit 63779
holder based upon any information in the commissioner's 63780
possession.63781

       A penalty of up to fifteen per cent may be added to the 63782
amount of every assessment made under this section. The 63783
commissioner may adopt rules providing for the imposition and 63784
remission of penalties added to assessments made under this 63785
section.63786

       The commissioner shall give the party assessed written notice 63787
of the assessment in the manner provided in section 5703.37 of the 63788
Revised Code. With the notice, the commissioner shall provide 63789
instructions on how to petition for reassessment and request a 63790
hearing on the petition.63791

       (B) Unless the party assessed files with the tax commissioner 63792
within sixty days after service of the notice of assessment, 63793
either personally or by certified mail, a written petition for 63794
reassessment signed by the party assessed or that party's 63795
authorized agent having knowledge of the facts, the assessment 63796
becomes final and the amount of the assessment is due and payable 63797
from the party assessed to the commissioner. The petition shall 63798
indicate the objections of the party assessed, but additional 63799
objections may be raised in writing if received by the 63800
commissioner prior to the date shown on the final determination. 63801
If the petition has been properly filed, the commissioner shall 63802
proceed under section 5703.60 of the Revised Code.63803

       (C) After an assessment becomes final, if any portion of the 63804
assessment remains unpaid, including accrued interest, a certified 63805
copy of the tax commissioner's entry making the assessment final 63806
may be filed in the office of the clerk of the court of common 63807
pleas in the county in which the place, track, or enclosure for 63808
which the permit was issued is located or the county in which the 63809
party assessed resides or has its principal place of business. If 63810
the party assessed maintains no place of business in this state 63811
and is not a resident of this state, the certified copy of the 63812
entry may be filed in the office of the clerk of the court of 63813
common pleas of Franklin county.63814

       Immediately upon the filing of the entry, the clerk shall 63815
enter a judgment for the state against the party assessed in the 63816
amount shown on the entry. The judgment may be filed by the clerk 63817
in a loose-leaf book entitled "special judgments for state horse 63818
racing tax," and shall have the same effect as other judgments. 63819
Execution shall issue upon the judgment upon the request of the 63820
tax commissioner, and all laws applicable to sales on execution 63821
shall apply to sales made under the judgment.63822

       The portion ofIf the assessment is not paid in its entirety63823
within sixty days after the day the assessment was issued, the 63824
portion of the assessment consisting of tax due shall bear 63825
interest at the rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of 63826
the Revised Code from the day the tax commissioner issues the 63827
assessment until the day the assessment is paid or until it is 63828
certified to the attorney general for collection under section 63829
131.02 of the Revised Code, whichever comes first. If the unpaid 63830
portion of the assessment is certified to the attorney general for 63831
collection, the entire unpaid portion of the assessment shall bear 63832
interest at the rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of 63833
the Revised Code from the date of certification until the date it 63834
is paid in its entirety. Interest shall be paid in the same manner 63835
as the tax and may be collected by the issuance of an assessment 63836
under this section.63837

       (D) All money collected by the tax commissioner under this 63838
section shall be treated as revenue arising from the taxes imposed 63839
by sections 3769.08, 3769.087, 3769.26, and 3769.28 of the Revised 63840
Code.63841

       Sec. 3770.02.  (A) Subject to the advice and consent of the 63842
senate, the governor shall appoint a director of the state lottery 63843
commission who shall serve at the pleasure of the governor. The 63844
director shall devote full time to the duties of the office and 63845
shall hold no other office or employment. The director shall meet 63846
all requirements for appointment as a member of the commission and 63847
shall, by experience and training, possess management skills that 63848
equip the director to administer an enterprise of the nature of a 63849
state lottery. The director shall receive an annual salary in 63850
accordance with pay range 48 of section 124.152 of the Revised 63851
Code.63852

       (B)(1) The director shall attend all meetings of the 63853
commission and shall act as its secretary. The director shall keep 63854
a record of all commission proceedings and shall keep the 63855
commission's records, files, and documents at the commission's 63856
principal office. All records of the commission's meetings shall 63857
be available for inspection by any member of the public, upon a 63858
showing of good cause and prior notification to the director.63859

       (2) The director shall be the commission's executive officer 63860
and shall be responsible for keeping all commission records and 63861
supervising and administering the state lottery in accordance with 63862
this chapter, and carrying out all commission rules adopted under 63863
section 3770.03 of the Revised Code.63864

       (C)(1) The director shall appoint an assistant director, 63865
deputy directors of marketing, operations, sales, finance, public 63866
relations, security, and administration, and as many regional 63867
managers as are required. The director may also appoint necessary 63868
professional, technical, and clerical assistants. All such 63869
officers and employees shall be appointed and compensated pursuant 63870
to Chapter 124. of the Revised Code. Regional and assistant 63871
regional managers, sales representatives, and any lottery 63872
executive account representatives shall remain in the unclassified 63873
service.63874

       (2) The director, in consultation with the director of 63875
administrative services, may establish standards of proficiency 63876
and productivity for commission field representatives.63877

       (D) The director shall request the bureau of criminal 63878
identification and investigation, the department of public safety, 63879
or any other state, local, or federal agency to supply the 63880
director with the criminal records of any job applicant and may 63881
periodically request the criminal records of commission employees. 63882
At or prior to the time of making such a request, the director 63883
shall require a job applicant or commission employee to obtain 63884
fingerprint cards prescribed by the superintendent of the bureau 63885
of criminal identification and investigation at a qualified law 63886
enforcement agency, and the director shall cause these fingerprint 63887
cards to be forwarded to the bureau of criminal identification and 63888
investigation and the federal bureau of investigation. The 63889
commission shall assume the cost of obtaining the fingerprint 63890
cards and shall pay to each agency supplying criminal records for 63891
each investigation under this division a reasonable fee, as 63892
determined by the agency.63893

       (E) The director shall license lottery sales agents pursuant 63894
to section 3770.05 of the Revised Code and, when it is considered 63895
necessary, may revoke or suspend the license of any lottery sales 63896
agent. The director may license video lottery technology 63897
providers, independent testing laboratories, and gaming employees, 63898
and promulgate rules relating thereto. When the director considers 63899
it necessary, the director may suspend or revoke the license of a 63900
video lottery technology provider, independent testing laboratory, 63901
or gaming employee, including suspension or revocation without 63902
affording an opportunity for a prior hearing under section 119.07 63903
of the Revised Code when the public safety, convenience, or trust 63904
requires immediate action.63905

       (F) The director shall confer at least once each month with 63906
the commission, at which time the director shall advise it 63907
regarding the operation and administration of the lottery. The 63908
director shall make available at the request of the commission all 63909
documents, files, and other records pertaining to the operation 63910
and administration of the lottery. The director shall prepare and 63911
make available to the commission each month a complete and 63912
accurate accounting of lottery revenues, prize money disbursements 63913
and the cost of goods and services awarded as prizes, operating 63914
expenses, and all other relevant financial information, including 63915
an accounting of all transfers made from any lottery funds in the 63916
custody of the treasurer of state to benefit education.63917

       (G) The director may enter into contracts for the operation 63918
or promotion of the lottery pursuant to Chapter 125. of the 63919
Revised Code. 63920

       (H)(1) Pursuant to rules adopted by the commission under 63921
section 3770.03 of the Revised Code, the director shall require 63922
any lottery sales agents to either mail directly to the commission 63923
or deposit to the credit of the state lottery fund, in banking 63924
institutions designated by the treasurer of state, net proceeds 63925
due the commission as determined by the director, and to file with 63926
the director or the director's designee reports of their receipts 63927
and transactions in the sale of lottery tickets in the form 63928
required by the director.63929

       (2) Pursuant to rules adopted by the commission under Chapter 63930
119. of the Revised Code, the director may impose penalties for 63931
the failure of a sales agent to transfer funds to the commission 63932
in a timely manner. Penalties may include monetary penalties, 63933
immediate suspension or revocation of a license, or any other 63934
penalty the commission adopts by rule.63935

       (I) The director may arrange for any person, or any banking 63936
institution, to perform functions and services in connection with 63937
the operation of the lottery as the director may consider 63938
necessary to carry out this chapter.63939

       (J)(1) As used in this chapter, "statewide joint lottery 63940
game" means a lottery game that the commission sells solely within 63941
this state under an agreement with other lottery jurisdictions to 63942
sell the same lottery game solely within their statewide or other 63943
jurisdictional boundaries.63944

       (2) If the governor directs the director to do so, the 63945
director shall enter into an agreement with other lottery 63946
jurisdictions to conduct statewide joint lottery games. If the 63947
governor signs the agreement personally or by means of an 63948
authenticating officer pursuant to section 107.15 of the Revised 63949
Code, the director then may conduct statewide joint lottery games 63950
under the agreement.63951

       (3) The entire net proceeds from any statewide joint lottery 63952
games shall be used to fund elementary, secondary, vocational, and 63953
special education programs in this state.63954

       (4) The commission shall conduct any statewide joint lottery 63955
games in accordance with rules it adopts under division (B)(5) of 63956
section 3770.03 of the Revised Code.63957

       (K)(1) The director shall enter into an agreement with the 63958
department of alcohol and drug addiction servicesmental health 63959
and addiction services under which the department shall provide a 63960
program of gambling addiction services on behalf of the 63961
commission. The commission shall pay the costs of the program 63962
provided pursuant to the agreement.63963

        (2) As used in this section, "gambling addiction services" 63964
has the same meaning as in section 3793.015119.01 of the Revised 63965
Code.63966

       Sec. 3770.03.  (A) The state lottery commission shall 63967
promulgate rules under which a statewide lottery may be conducted, 63968
which includes, and since the original enactment of this section 63969
has included, the authority for the commission to operate video 63970
lottery terminal games. Any reference in this chapter to tickets 63971
shall not be construed to in any way limit the authority of the 63972
commission to operate video lottery terminal games. Nothing in 63973
this chapter shall restrict the authority of the commission to 63974
promulgate rules related to the operation of games utilizing video 63975
lottery terminals as described in section 3770.21 of the Revised 63976
Code. Provided, however, that no tickets shall be sold, offered 63977
for sale, or purchased from a licensed lottery sales agent or the 63978
commission by telephone or by the use of computer, credit card, 63979
debit card, or fascimile services. The rules shall be promulgated 63980
pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, except that instant 63981
game rules shall be promulgated pursuant to section 111.15 of the 63982
Revised Code but are not subject to division (D) of that section. 63983
Subjects covered in these rules shall include, but need not be 63984
limited to, the following:63985

       (1) The type of lottery to be conducted;63986

       (2) The prices of tickets in the lottery;63987

       (3) The number, nature, and value of prize awards, the manner 63988
and frequency of prize drawings, and the manner in which prizes 63989
shall be awarded to holders of winning tickets.63990

       (B) The commission shall promulgate rules, in addition to 63991
those described in division (A) of this section, pursuant to 63992
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code under which a statewide lottery 63993
and statewide joint lottery games may be conducted. Subjects 63994
covered in these rules shall include, but not be limited to, the 63995
following:63996

       (1) The locations at which lottery tickets may be sold and 63997
the manner in which they are to be sold. These rules may authorize 63998
the sale of lottery tickets by commission personnel or other 63999
licensed individuals from traveling show wagons at the state fair, 64000
and at any other expositions the director of the commission 64001
considers acceptable. These rules shall prohibit commission 64002
personnel or other licensed individuals from soliciting from an 64003
exposition the right to sell lottery tickets at that exposition, 64004
but shall allow commission personnel or other licensed individuals 64005
to sell lottery tickets at an exposition if the exposition 64006
requests commission personnel or licensed individuals to do so. 64007
These rules may also address the accessibility of sales agent 64008
locations to commission products in accordance with the "Americans 64009
with Disabilities Act of 1990," 104 Stat. 327, 42 U.S.C.A. 12101 64010
et seq.64011

       (2) The manner in which lottery sales revenues are to be 64012
collected, including authorization for the director to impose 64013
penalties for failure by lottery sales agents to transfer revenues 64014
to the commission in a timely manner;64015

       (3) The amount of compensation to be paid licensed lottery 64016
sales agents;64017

       (4) The substantive criteria for the licensing of lottery 64018
sales agents consistent with section 3770.05 of the Revised Code, 64019
and procedures for revoking or suspending their licenses 64020
consistent with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. If 64021
circumstances, such as the nonpayment of funds owed by a lottery 64022
sales agent, or other circumstances related to the public safety, 64023
convenience, or trust, require immediate action, the director may 64024
suspend a license without affording an opportunity for a prior 64025
hearing under section 119.07 of the Revised Code.64026

       (5) Special game rules to implement any agreements signed by 64027
the governor that the director enters into with other lottery 64028
jurisdictions under division (J) of section 3770.02 of the Revised 64029
Code to conduct statewide joint lottery games. The rules shall 64030
require that the entire net proceeds of those games that remain, 64031
after associated operating expenses, prize disbursements, lottery 64032
sales agent bonuses, commissions, and reimbursements, and any 64033
other expenses necessary to comply with the agreements or the 64034
rules are deducted from the gross proceeds of those games, be 64035
transferred to the lottery profits education fund under division 64036
(B) of section 3770.06 of the Revised Code.64037

       (6) Any other subjects the commission determines are 64038
necessary for the operation of video lottery terminal games, 64039
including the establishment of any fees, fines, or payment 64040
schedules.64041

       (C) Chapter 2915. of the Revised Code does not apply to, 64042
affect, or prohibit lotteries conducted pursuant to this chapter.64043

       (D) The commission may promulgate rules, in addition to those 64044
described in divisions (A) and (B) of this section, that establish 64045
standards governing the display of advertising and celebrity 64046
images on lottery tickets and on other items that are used in the 64047
conduct of, or to promote, the statewide lottery and statewide 64048
joint lottery games. Any revenue derived from the sale of 64049
advertising displayed on lottery tickets and on those other items 64050
shall be considered, for purposes of section 3770.06 of the 64051
Revised Code, to be related proceeds in connection with the 64052
statewide lottery or gross proceeds from statewide joint lottery 64053
games, as applicable.64054

       (E)(1) The commission shall meet with the director at least 64055
once each month and shall convene other meetings at the request of 64056
the chairperson or any five of the members. No action taken by the 64057
commission shall be binding unless at least five of the members 64058
present vote in favor of the action. A written record shall be 64059
made of the proceedings of each meeting and shall be transmitted 64060
forthwith to the governor, the president of the senate, the senate 64061
minority leader, the speaker of the house of representatives, and 64062
the house minority leader.64063

       (2) The director shall present to the commission a report 64064
each month, showing the total revenues, prize disbursements, and 64065
operating expenses of the state lottery for the preceding month. 64066
As soon as practicable after the end of each fiscal year, the 64067
commission shall prepare and transmit to the governor and the 64068
general assembly a report of lottery revenues, prize 64069
disbursements, and operating expenses for the preceding fiscal 64070
year and any recommendations for legislation considered necessary 64071
by the commission.64072

       Sec. 3770.06.  (A) There is hereby created the state lottery 64073
gross revenue fund, which shall be in the custody of the treasurer 64074
of state but shall not be part of the state treasury. All gross 64075
revenues received from sales of lottery tickets, fines, fees, and 64076
related proceeds in connection with the statewide lottery and all 64077
gross proceeds from statewide joint lottery games shall be 64078
deposited into the fund. The treasurer of state shall invest any 64079
portion of the fund not needed for immediate use in the same 64080
manner as, and subject to all provisions of law with respect to 64081
the investment of, state funds. The treasurer of state shall 64082
disburse money from the fund on order of the director of the state 64083
lottery commission or the director's designee.64084

       Except for gross proceeds from statewide joint lottery games, 64085
all revenues of the state lottery gross revenue fund that are not 64086
paid to holders of winning lottery tickets, that are not required 64087
to meet short-term prize liabilities, that are not credited to 64088
lottery sales agents in the form of bonuses, commissions, or 64089
reimbursements, that are not paid to financial institutions to 64090
reimburse those institutions for sales agent nonsufficient funds, 64091
and that are collected from sales agents for remittance to 64092
insurers under contract to provide sales agent bonding services 64093
shall be transferred to the state lottery fund, which is hereby 64094
created in the state treasury. In addition, all revenues of the 64095
state lottery gross revenue fund that represent the gross proceeds 64096
from the statewide joint lottery games and that are not paid to 64097
holders of winning lottery tickets, that are not required to meet 64098
short-term prize liabilities, that are not credited to lottery 64099
sales agents in the form of bonuses, commissions, or 64100
reimbursements, and that are not necessary to cover operating 64101
expenses associated with those games or to otherwise comply with 64102
the agreements signed by the governor that the director enters 64103
into under division (J) of section 3770.02 of the Revised Code or 64104
the rules the commission adopts under division (B)(5) of section 64105
3770.03 of the Revised Code shall be transferred to the state 64106
lottery fund. All investment earnings of the fund shall be 64107
credited to the fund. Moneys shall be disbursed from the fund 64108
pursuant to vouchers approved by the director. Total disbursements 64109
for monetary prize awards to holders of winning lottery tickets in 64110
connection with the statewide lottery and purchases of goods and 64111
services awarded as prizes to holders of winning lottery tickets 64112
shall be of an amount equal to at least fifty per cent of the 64113
total revenue accruing from the sale of lottery tickets.64114

       (B) Pursuant to Section 6 of Article XV, Ohio Constitution, 64115
there is hereby established in the state treasury the lottery 64116
profits education fund. Whenever, in the judgment of the director 64117
of the state lottery commission, the amount to the credit of the 64118
state lottery fund that does not represent proceeds from statewide 64119
joint lottery games is in excess of that needed to meet the 64120
maturing obligations of the commission and as working capital for 64121
its further operations, the director of the state lottery 64122
commission shall recommend the amount of the excess to be 64123
transferred to the lottery profits education fund, and the 64124
director of budget and management may transfer the excess to the 64125
lottery profits education fund in connection with the statewide 64126
lottery. In addition, whenever, in the judgment of the director of 64127
the state lottery commission, the amount to the credit of the 64128
state lottery fund that represents proceeds from statewide joint 64129
lottery games equals the entire net proceeds of those games as 64130
described in division (B)(5) of section 3770.03 of the Revised 64131
Code and the rules adopted under that division, the director of 64132
the state lottery commission shall recommend the amount of the 64133
proceeds to be transferred to the lottery profits education fund, 64134
and the director of budget and management may transfer those 64135
proceeds to the lottery profits education fund. Investment 64136
earnings of the lottery profits education fund shall be credited 64137
to the fund.64138

       The lottery profits education fund shall be used solely for 64139
the support of elementary, secondary, vocational, and special 64140
education programs as determined in appropriations made by the 64141
general assembly, or as provided in applicable bond proceedings 64142
for the payment of debt service on obligations issued to pay costs 64143
of capital facilities, including those for a system of common 64144
schools throughout the state pursuant to section 2n of Article 64145
VIII, Ohio Constitution. When determining the availability of 64146
money in the lottery profits education fund, the director of 64147
budget and management may consider all balances and estimated 64148
revenues of the fund.64149

        (C) There is hereby established in the state treasury the 64150
deferred prizes trust fund. With the approval of the director of 64151
budget and management, an amount sufficient to fund annuity prizes 64152
shall be transferred from the state lottery fund and credited to 64153
the trust fund. The treasurer of state shall credit all earnings 64154
arising from investments purchased under this division to the 64155
trust fund. Within sixty days after the end of each fiscal year, 64156
the treasurer of state shall certify to the director of budget and 64157
management whether the actuarial amount of the trust fund is 64158
sufficient over the fund's life for continued funding of all 64159
remaining deferred prize liabilities as of the last day of the 64160
fiscal year just ended. Also, within that sixty days, the director 64161
of budget and management shall certify the amount of investment 64162
earnings necessary to have been credited to the trust fund during 64163
the fiscal year just ending to provide for such continued funding 64164
of deferred prizes. Any earnings credited in excess of the latter 64165
certified amount shall be transferred to the lottery profits 64166
education fund.64167

       To provide all or a part of the amounts necessary to fund 64168
deferred prizes awarded by the commission in connection with the 64169
statewide lottery, the treasurer of state, in consultation with 64170
the commission, may invest moneys contained in the deferred prizes 64171
trust fund which represents proceeds from the statewide lottery in 64172
obligations of the type permitted for the investment of state 64173
funds but whose maturities are thirty years or less. 64174
Notwithstanding the requirements of any other section of the 64175
Revised Code, to provide all or part of the amounts necessary to 64176
fund deferred prizes awarded by the commission in connection with 64177
statewide joint lottery games, the treasurer of state, in 64178
consultation with the commission, may invest moneys in the trust 64179
fund which represent proceeds derived from the statewide joint 64180
lottery games in accordance with the rules the commission adopts 64181
under division (B)(5) of section 3770.03 of the Revised Code. 64182
Investments of the trust fund are not subject to the provisions of 64183
division (A)(10) of section 135.143 of the Revised Code limiting 64184
to twenty-five per cent the amount of the state's total average 64185
portfolio that may be invested in debt interests and limiting to 64186
one-half of one per cent the amount that may be invested in debt 64187
interests of a single issuer.64188

       All purchases made under this division shall be effected on a 64189
delivery versus payment method and shall be in the custody of the 64190
treasurer of state.64191

       The treasurer of state may retain an investment advisor, if 64192
necessary. The commission shall pay any costs incurred by the 64193
treasurer of state in retaining an investment advisor.64194

       (D) The auditor of state shall conduct annual audits of all 64195
funds and any other audits as the auditor of state or the general 64196
assembly considers necessary. The auditor of state may examine all 64197
records, files, and other documents of the commission, and records 64198
of lottery sales agents that pertain to their activities as 64199
agents, for purposes of conducting authorized audits.64200

       (E) The state lottery commission shall establish an internal 64201
audit programplan before the beginning of each fiscal year, 64202
subject to the approval of the auditoroffice of stateinternal 64203
audit in the office of budget and management. At the end of each 64204
fiscal year, the commission shall prepare and submit an annual 64205
report to the auditoroffice of stateinternal audit for the 64206
auditor of state'soffice's review and approval, specifying the 64207
internal audit work completed by the end of that fiscal year and 64208
reporting on compliance with the annual internal audit program. 64209
The form and content of the report shall be prescribed by the 64210
auditor of state under division (C) of section 117.20 of the 64211
Revised Codeplan.64212

       (E)(F) Whenever, in the judgment of the director of budget 64213
and management, an amount of net state lottery proceeds is 64214
necessary to be applied to the payment of debt service on 64215
obligations, all as defined in sections 151.01 and 151.03 of the 64216
Revised Code, the director shall transfer that amount directly 64217
from the state lottery fund or from the lottery profits education 64218
fund to the bond service fund defined in those sections. The 64219
provisions of this division are subject to any prior pledges or 64220
obligation of those amounts to the payment of bond service charges 64221
as defined in division (C) of section 3318.21 of the Revised Code, 64222
as referred to in division (B) of this section.64223

       Sec. 3772.03. (A) To ensure the integrity of casino gaming, 64224
the commission shall have authority to complete the functions of 64225
licensing, regulating, investigating, and penalizing casino 64226
operators, management companies, holding companies, key employees, 64227
casino gaming employees, and gaming-related vendors. The 64228
commission also shall have jurisdiction over all persons 64229
participating in casino gaming authorized by Section 6(C) of 64230
Article XV, Ohio Constitution, and this chapter.64231

       (B) All rules adopted by the commission under this chapter 64232
shall be adopted under procedures established in Chapter 119. of 64233
the Revised Code. The commission may contract for the services of 64234
experts and consultants to assist the commission in carrying out 64235
its duties under this section.64236

       (C) Within six months of September 10, 2010, the commission 64237
shall adopt initial rules as are necessary for completing the 64238
functions stated in division (A) of this section and for 64239
addressing the subjects enumerated in division (D) of this 64240
section.64241

       (D) The commission shall adopt, and as advisable and 64242
necessary shall amend or repeal, rules that include all of the 64243
following:64244

       (1) The prevention of practices detrimental to the public 64245
interest;64246

       (2) Prescribing the method of applying, and the form of 64247
application, that an applicant for a license under this chapter 64248
must follow as otherwise described in this chapter;64249

       (3) Prescribing the information to be furnished by an 64250
applicant or licensee as described in section 3772.11 of the 64251
Revised Code;64252

       (4) Describing the certification standards and duties of an 64253
independent testing laboratory certified under section 3772.31 of 64254
the Revised Code and the relationship between the commission, the 64255
laboratory, the gaming-related vendor, and the casino operator;64256

        (5) The minimum amount of insurance that must be maintained 64257
by a casino operator, management company, holding company, or 64258
gaming-related vendor;64259

       (6) The approval process for a significantany change in 64260
ownership or transfer of control of a licenseecasino operator as 64261
provided in section 3772.091 of the Revised Code;64262

       (7) The design of gaming supplies, devices, and equipment to 64263
be distributed by gaming-related vendors;64264

       (8) Identifying the casino gaming that is permitted, 64265
identifying the gaming supplies, devices, and equipment, that are 64266
permitted, defining the area in which the permitted casino gaming 64267
may be conducted, and specifying the method of operation according 64268
to which the permitted casino gaming is to be conducted as 64269
provided in section 3772.20 of the Revised Code, and requiring 64270
gaming devices and equipment to meet the standards of this state;64271

       (9) Tournament play in any casino facility;64272

       (10) Establishing and implementing a voluntary exclusion 64273
program that provides all of the following:64274

       (a) Except as provided by commission rule, a person who 64275
participates in the program shall agree to refrain from entering a 64276
casino facility.64277

       (b) The name of a person participating in the program shall 64278
be included on a list of persons excluded from all casino 64279
facilities.64280

       (c) Except as provided by commission rule, no person who 64281
participates in the program shall petition the commission for 64282
admittance into a casino facility.64283

       (d) The list of persons participating in the program and the 64284
personal information of those persons shall be confidential and 64285
shall only be disseminated by the commission to a casino operator 64286
and the agents and employees of the casino operator for purposes 64287
of enforcement and to other entities, upon request of the 64288
participant and agreement by the commission.64289

       (e) A casino operator shall make all reasonable attempts as 64290
determined by the commission to cease all direct marketing efforts 64291
to a person participating in the program.64292

       (f) A casino operator shall not cash the check of a person 64293
participating in the program or extend credit to the person in any 64294
manner. However, the program shall not exclude a casino operator 64295
from seeking the payment of a debt accrued by a person before 64296
participating in the program.64297

       (g) Any and all locations at which a person may register as a 64298
participant in the program shall be published.64299

       (11) Requiring the commission to adopt standards regarding 64300
the marketing materials of a licensed casino operator, including 64301
allowing the commission to prohibit marketing materials that are 64302
contrary to the adopted standards;64303

       (12) Requiring that the records, including financial 64304
statements, of any casino operator, management company, holding 64305
company, and gaming-related vendor be maintained in the manner 64306
prescribed by the commission and made available for inspection 64307
upon demand by the commission, but shall be subject to section 64308
3772.16 of the Revised Code;64309

       (13) Permitting a licensed casino operator, management 64310
company, key employee, or casino gaming employee to question a 64311
person suspected of violating this chapter;64312

       (14) The chips, tokens, tickets, electronic cards, or similar 64313
objects that may be purchased by means of an agreement under which 64314
credit is extended to a wagerer by a casino operator;64315

       (15) Establishing standards for provisional key employee 64316
licenses for a person who is required to be licensed as a key 64317
employee and is in exigent circumstances and standards for 64318
provisional licenses for casino gaming employees who submit 64319
complete applications and are compliant under an instant 64320
background check. A provisional license shall be valid not longer 64321
than three months. A provisional license may be renewed one time, 64322
at the commission's discretion, for an additional three months. In 64323
establishing standards with regard to instant background checks 64324
the commission shall take notice of criminal records checks as 64325
they are conducted under section 311.41 of the Revised Code using 64326
electronic fingerprint reading devices.64327

       (16) Establishing approval procedures for third-party 64328
engineering or accounting firms, as described in section 3772.09 64329
of the Revised Code;64330

       (17) Prescribing the manner in which winnings, compensation 64331
from casino gaming, and gross revenue must be computed and 64332
reported by a licensee as described in Chapter 5753. of the 64333
Revised Code;64334

       (18) Prescribing conditions under which a licensee's license 64335
may be suspended or revoked as described in section 3772.04 of the 64336
Revised Code;64337

       (19) Prescribing the manner and procedure of all hearings to 64338
be conducted by the commission or by any hearing examiner;64339

       (20) Prescribing technical standards and requirements that 64340
are to be met by security and surveillance equipment that is used 64341
at and standards and requirements to be met by personnel who are 64342
employed at casino facilities, and standards and requirements for 64343
the provision of security at and surveillance of casino 64344
facilities;64345

       (21) Prescribing requirements for a casino operator to 64346
provide unarmed security services at a casino facility by licensed 64347
casino employees, and the training that shall be completed by 64348
these employees;64349

       (22) Prescribing standards according to which casino 64350
operators shall keep accounts and standards according to which 64351
casino accounts shall be audited, and establish means of assisting 64352
the tax commissioner in levying and collecting the gross casino 64353
revenue tax levied under section 5753.02 of the Revised Code;64354

       (23) Defining penalties for violation of commission rules and 64355
a process for imposing such penalties subject to the review of the 64356
joint committee on gaming and wagering;64357

       (24) Establishing standards for decertifying contractors that 64358
violate statutes or rules of this state or the federal government;64359

       (25) Establishing standards for the repair of casino gaming 64360
equipment;64361

       (26) Establishing procedures to ensure that casino operators, 64362
management companies, and holding companies are compliant with the 64363
compulsive and problem gambling plan submitted under section 64364
3772.18 of the Revised Code;64365

       (27) Prescribing, for institutional investors in or holding 64366
companies of a casino operator, management company, holding 64367
company, or gaming-related vendor that fall below the threshold 64368
needed to be considered an institutional investor or a holding 64369
company, standards regarding what any employees, members, or 64370
owners of those investors or holding companies may do and shall 64371
not do in relation to casino facilities and casino gaming in this 64372
state, which standards shall rationally relate to the need to 64373
proscribe conduct that is inconsistent with passive institutional 64374
investment status;64375

       (28) Providing for any other thing necessary and proper for 64376
successful and efficient regulation of casino gaming under this 64377
chapter.64378

       (E) The commission shall employ and assign gaming agents as 64379
necessary to assist the commission in carrying out the duties of 64380
this chapter. In order to maintain employment as a gaming agent, 64381
the gaming agent shall successfully complete all continuing 64382
training programs required by the commission and shall not have 64383
been convicted of or pleaded guilty or no contest to a 64384
disqualifying offense as defined in section 3772.07 of the Revised 64385
Code.64386

       (F) The commission, as a law enforcement agency, and its 64387
gaming agents, as law enforcement officers as defined in section 64388
2901.01 of the Revised Code, shall have authority with regard to 64389
the detection and investigation of, the seizure of evidence 64390
allegedly relating to, and the apprehension and arrest of persons 64391
allegedly committing gaming offenses, and shall have access to 64392
casino facilities to carry out the requirements of this chapter.64393

       (G) The commission may eject or exclude or authorize the 64394
ejection or exclusion of and a gaming agent may eject a person 64395
from a casino facility for any of the following reasons:64396

       (1) The person's name is on the list of persons voluntarily 64397
excluding themselves from all casinos in a program established 64398
according to rules adopted by the commission;64399

       (2) The person violates or conspires to violate this chapter 64400
or a rule adopted thereunder; or64401

       (3) The commission determines that the person's conduct or 64402
reputation is such that the person's presence within a casino 64403
facility may call into question the honesty and integrity of the 64404
casino gaming operations or interfere with the orderly conduct of 64405
the casino gaming operations.64406

       (H) A person, other than a person participating in a 64407
voluntary exclusion program, may petition the commission for a 64408
public hearing on the person's ejection or exclusion under this 64409
chapter.64410

       (I) A casino operator or management company shall have the 64411
same authority to eject or exclude a person from the management 64412
company's casino facilities as authorized in division (G) of this 64413
section. The licensee shall immediately notify the commission of 64414
an ejection or exclusion.64415

       (J) The commission shall submit a written annual report with 64416
the governor, president and minority leader of the senate, speaker 64417
and minority leader of the house of representatives, and joint 64418
committee on gaming and wagering before the first day of September 64419
each year. The annual report shall include a statement describing 64420
the receipts and disbursements of the commission, relevant 64421
financial data regarding casino gaming, including gross revenues 64422
and disbursements made under this chapter, actions taken by the 64423
commission, an update on casino operators', management companies', 64424
and holding companies' compulsive and problem gambling plans and 64425
the voluntary exclusion program and list, and any additional 64426
information that the commission considers useful or that the 64427
governor, president or minority leader of the senate, speaker or 64428
minority leader of the house of representatives, or joint 64429
committee on gaming and wagering requests.64430

        (K) Notwithstanding any law to the contrary, beginning on 64431
July 1, 2011, the commission shall assume jurisdiction over and 64432
oversee the regulation of skill-based amusement machines as is 64433
provided in the law of this state.64434

       Sec. 3772.062. (A) The executive director of the commission 64435
shall enter into an agreement with the department of alcohol and 64436
drug addiction servicesmental health and addiction services under 64437
which the department provides a program of gambling and addiction 64438
services on behalf of the commission.64439

       (B) The executive director of the commission, in conjunction 64440
with the department of alcohol and drug addiction servicesmental 64441
health and addiction services and the state lottery commission, 64442
shall establish, operate, and publicize an in-state, toll-free 64443
telephone number Ohio residents may call to obtain basic 64444
information about problem gambling, the gambling addiction 64445
services available to problem gamblers, and how a problem gambler 64446
may obtain help. The telephone number shall be staffed twenty-four 64447
hours per day, seven days a week, to respond to inquiries and 64448
provide that information. The costs of establishing, operating, 64449
and publicizing the telephone number shall be paid for with money 64450
in the problem casino gambling and addictions fund.64451

       Sec. 3772.091. (A) NoA casino operator license issued under 64452
this chapter is transferable, subject to approval by the 64453
commission. Except as provided in division (B) of this section, 64454
new majority ownership interest orAny such transfer shall require 64455
the filing of an application for transferring a casino operator 64456
license and submission of an application fee with the commission 64457
before the transfer may be approved. 64458

       (B) A new majority ownership interest in or change in or 64459
transfer of control of a licenseecasino operator shall require a 64460
new licensecommission approval. The commission may reopen a 64461
licensing investigation at any time. A significantAny such 64462
ownership interest in or change in or transfer of control, as 64463
determined by the commission, shall require the filing of an 64464
application for a newtransferring the casino operator license and 64465
submission of a licensean application fee with the commission 64466
before any suchthe ownership interest in or the change in or 64467
transfer of control ismay be approved. A change in or transfer of 64468
control to an immediate family member is not considered a 64469
significant change under this section64470

       (C) An application for transferring a casino operator license 64471
shall be made under oath on forms prescribed by the commission and 64472
shall contain the information required by section 3772.11 of the 64473
Revised Code and the rules adopted thereunder.64474

        (D) The fee to obtain an application for transferring a 64475
casino operator license shall be the same as is required to obtain 64476
an application under division (C) of section 3772.17 of the 64477
Revised Code. Such an application fee may be increased to the 64478
extent that the actual review and investigation costs relating to 64479
an applicant exceed the fee set forth in this division. This 64480
application fee is nonrefundable and shall be deposited into the 64481
casino control commission fund.64482

       (E) In the determination of whether to approve the transfer 64483
of a casino operator license, the applicant shall prove their 64484
suitability for licensure by clear and convincing evidence and the 64485
commission shall consider all the factors established in this 64486
chapter that pertain to the granting of a casino operator license. 64487

       (F) The commission may reopen a licensing investigation at 64488
any time.64489

       (B) An initial license shall not be considered transferred, 64490
and a new license shall not be required, when an initial licensee 64491
that is licensed before June 1, 2013, does or has done both of the 64492
following:64493

       (1) Obtains a majority ownership interest in, or a change in 64494
or transfer of control of, another initial licensee for the same 64495
casino facility; and64496

       (2) Was investigated under this chapter as a parent, 64497
affiliate, subsidiary, key employee, or partner, or joint venturer 64498
with another initial licensee that has held for the same casino 64499
facility a majority ownership interest in or control of the 64500
initial license when the initial license was issued and when such 64501
an initial licensee obtains a majority ownership interest in or a 64502
change in or transfer of control.64503

       (C)(G) As used in this section:64504

       (1) "Control", "control" means either of the following:64505

       (a)(1) Either:64506

       (i)(a) Holding fifty per cent or more of the outstanding 64507
voting securities of a licensee; or64508

       (ii)(b) For an unincorporated licensee, having the right to 64509
fifty per cent or more of the profits of the licensee, or having 64510
the right in the event of dissolution to fifty per cent or more of 64511
the assets of the licensee.64512

       (b)(2) Having the contractual power presently to designate 64513
fifty per cent or more of the directors of a for-profit or 64514
not-for-profit corporation, or in the case of trusts described in 64515
paragraphs (c)(3) to (5) of 16 C.F.R. 801.1, the trustees of such 64516
a trust.64517

       (2) "Initial license" means the first plenary license issued 64518
to an initial licensee.64519

       (3) "Initial licensee" means any of the persons issued an 64520
initial license to conduct or participate in conducting casino 64521
gaming at each casino facility as either a casino operator, a 64522
management company, or a holding company of a casino operator or 64523
management company.64524

       Sec. 3772.092. (A) Except as provided in division (A) of 64525
section 3772.091 of the Revised Code, no license issued under this 64526
chapter is transferable.64527

        (B) Except as provided in division (B) of section 3772.091 of 64528
the Revised Code, a new majority ownership interest in or a change 64529
in or transfer of control of a licensee shall require a new 64530
license. Any such ownership interest in or change in or transfer 64531
of control shall require the filing of the applicable application 64532
for a new license and submission of the applicable application and 64533
license fees with the commission before the new license may be 64534
issued.64535

        (C) An application for the applicable new license shall be 64536
made under oath on forms prescribed by the commission and shall 64537
contain the information required by this chapter and the rules 64538
adopted thereunder.64539

        (D) The applicable application and license fees shall be in 64540
the amounts prescribed in section 3772.17 of the Revised Code and 64541
the rules adopted thereunder. Such an application fee may be 64542
increased to the extent that the actual review and investigation 64543
costs relating to an applicant exceed the fee set forth in this 64544
division. The application fee is nonrefundable and shall be 64545
deposited into the casino control commission fund.64546

        (E) In the determination of whether to approve the 64547
application for a new license, the applicant shall prove their 64548
suitability for licensure by clear and convincing evidence and the 64549
commission shall consider all of the factors established in this 64550
chapter that pertain to the granting of such a license.64551

        (F) The commission may reopen a licensing investigation at 64552
any time.64553

        (G) As used in this section, "control" has the same meaning 64554
as in division (G) of section 3772.091 of the Revised Code.64555

       Sec. 3772.36.  (A) There is hereby created in the state 64556
treasury the casino control commission enforcement fund. All 64557
moneys that are derived from any fines, mandatory fines, or 64558
forfeited bail to which the commission may be entitled under this 64559
chapter and all moneys that are derived from forfeitures of 64560
property to which the commission may be entitled under this 64561
chapter or Chapter 2981. of the Revised Code, any other provision 64562
of the Revised Code, or federal law shall be deposited into the 64563
fund. Subject to division (B) of this section and divisions (B), 64564
(C), and (D) of section 2981.13 of the Revised Code, the moneys in 64565
the fund shall be used solely to subsidize the commission's 64566
division of enforcement and its efforts to ensure the integrity of 64567
casino gaming.64568

       (B) Notwithstanding any contrary provision in the Revised 64569
Code, moneys that are derived from forfeitures of property under 64570
federal law and that are deposited into the casino control 64571
commission enforcement fund in accordance with division (A) of 64572
this section shall be used and accounted for in accordance with 64573
the applicable federal law, and the commission otherwise shall 64574
comply with federal law in connection with that money.64575

       Sec. 3781.112. (A) As used in this section, "secured 64576
facility" means any of the following:64577

        (1) A maternity unit, newborn care nursery, or maternity home 64578
licensed under Chapter 3711. of the Revised Code;64579

        (2) A pediatric intensive care unit subject to rules adopted 64580
by the director of health pursuant to section 3702.11 of the 64581
Revised Code;64582

        (3) A children's hospital, as defined in section 3727.01 of 64583
the Revised Code;64584

        (4) A hospital that is licensed under section 5119.205119.3364585
of the Revised Code to receive mentally ill persons;64586

       (5) The portion of a nursing home licensed under section 64587
3721.02 of the Revised Code or in accordance with section 3721.09 64588
of the Revised Code in which specialized care is provided to 64589
residents of the nursing home who have physical or mental 64590
conditions that require a resident to be restricted in the 64591
resident's freedom of movement for the health and safety of the 64592
resident, the staff attending the resident, or the general public.64593

        (B) A secured facility may take reasonable steps in 64594
accordance with rules the board of building standards adopts under 64595
division (A) of section 3781.10 of the Revised Code and in 64596
accordance with the state fire code the fire marshal adopts under 64597
section 3737.82 of the Revised Code, to deny egress to confine and 64598
protect patients or residents of the secured facility who are not 64599
capable of self-preservation. A secured facility that wishes to 64600
deny egress to those patients or residents may use delayed-egress 64601
doors and electronically coded doors to deny egress, on the 64602
condition that those doors are installed and used in accordance 64603
with rules the board of building standards adopts under division 64604
(A) of section 3781.10 of the Revised Code and in accordance with 64605
the state fire code the fire marshal adopts under section 3737.82 64606
of the Revised Code. A secured facility also may install 64607
controlled-egress locks, in compliance with rules the board of 64608
building standards adopts under division (A) of section 3781.10 of 64609
the Revised Code and in compliance with the state fire code the 64610
fire marshal adopts under section 3737.82 of the Revised Code, in 64611
areas of the secured facility where patients or residents who have 64612
physical or mental conditions that would endanger the patients or 64613
residents, the staff attending the patients or residents, or the 64614
general public if those patients or residents are not restricted 64615
in their freedom of movement. A secured facility that uses 64616
delayed-egress doors and electronically coded doors, 64617
controlled-egress locks, or both, shall do both of the following:64618

        (1) Provide continuous, twenty-four-hour custodial care to 64619
the patients or residents of the facility;64620

        (2) Establish a system to evacuate patients or residents in 64621
the event of fire or other emergency.64622

       Sec. 3798.01. As used in this chapter:64623

       (A) "Administrative safeguards," "physical safeguards," and 64624
"technical safeguards" have the same meanings as in 45 C.F.R. 64625
164.304.64626

       (B) "Approved health information exchange" means a health 64627
information exchange that has been approved or reapproved by the 64628
director of job and family services pursuant to the approval or 64629
reapproval process, as applicable, the director establishes in 64630
rules adopted under division (A) of section 3798.15 of the Revised 64631
Code or that has been certified by the office of the national 64632
coordinator for health information technology in the United States 64633
department of health and human services.64634

       (C) "Covered entity," "disclosure," "health care provider," 64635
"health information," "individually identifiable health 64636
information," "protected health information," and "use" have the 64637
same meanings as in 45 C.F.R. 160.103.64638

       (D) "Designated record set" has the same meaning as in 45 64639
C.F.R. 164.501.64640

       (E) "Direct exchange" means the activity of electronic 64641
transmission of health information through a direct connection 64642
between the electronic record systems of health care providers 64643
without the use of a health information exchange. 64644

       (F) "Health care component" and "hybrid entity" have the same 64645
meanings as in 45 C.F.R. 164.103.64646

       (G) "Health information exchange" means any person or 64647
governmental entity that provides in this state a technical 64648
infrastructure to connect computer systems or other electronic 64649
devices used by covered entities to facilitate the secure 64650
transmission of health information. "Health information exchange" 64651
excludes health care providers engaged in direct exchange, 64652
including direct exchange through the use of a health information 64653
service provider.64654

       (H) "HIPAA privacy rule" means the standards for privacy of 64655
individually identifiable health information in 45 C.F.R. part 160 64656
and in 45 C.F.R. part 164, subparts A and E.64657

       (I) "Interoperability" means the capacity of two or more 64658
information systems to exchange information in an accurate, 64659
effective, secure, and consistent manner.64660

       (J) "Minor" means an unemancipated person under eighteen 64661
years of age or a mentally or physically disabled person under 64662
twenty-one years of age who meets criteria specified in rules 64663
adopted by the director of job and family services under section 64664
3798.13 of the Revised Code.64665

       (K) "More stringent" has the same meaning as in 45 C.F.R. 64666
160.202.64667

        (L) "Office of health transformation" means the office of 64668
health transformation created by executive order 2011-02K or a 64669
successor governmental entity responsible for health system 64670
oversight in this state.64671

       (M) "Personal representative" means a person who has 64672
authority under applicable law to make decisions related to health 64673
care on behalf of an adult or emancipated minor, or the parent, 64674
legal guardian, or other person acting in loco parentis who is 64675
authorized under law to make health care decisions on behalf of an 64676
unemancipated minor. "Personal representative" does not include 64677
the parent or legal guardian of, or another person acting in loco 64678
parentis to, a minor who consents to the minor's own receipt of 64679
health care or a minor who makes medical decisions on the minor's 64680
own behalf pursuant to law, court approval, or because the minor's 64681
parent, legal guardian, or other person acting in loco parentis 64682
has assented to an agreement of confidentiality between the 64683
provider and the minor.64684

       (N) "Political subdivision" means a municipal corporation, 64685
township, county, school district, or other body corporate and 64686
politic responsible for governmental activities in a geographic 64687
area smaller than that of the state.64688

       (O) "State agency" means any one or more of the following:64689

       (1) The department of aging;64690

       (2) The department of alcohol and drug addiction services64691
mental health and addiction services;64692

       (3) The department of developmental disabilities;64693

       (4) The department of education;64694

       (5) The department of health;64695

       (6) The department of insurance;64696

       (7) The department of job and family services;64697

       (8) The department of mental healthmedicaid;64698

       (9) The department of rehabilitation and correction;64699

       (10) The department of youth services;64700

       (11) The bureau of workers' compensation;64701

       (12) The rehabilitation services commission;64702

       (13) The office of the attorney general;64703

       (14) A health care licensing board created under Title XLVII 64704
of the Revised Code that possesses individually identifiable 64705
health information.64706

       Sec. 3901.3814. Sections 3901.38 and 3901.381 to 3901.3813 of 64707
the Revised Code do not apply to the following:64708

       (A) Policies offering coverage that is regulated under 64709
Chapters 3935. and 3937. of the Revised Code;64710

       (B) An employer's self-insurance plan and any of its 64711
administrators, as defined in section 3959.01 of the Revised Code, 64712
to the extent that federal law supersedes, preempts, prohibits, or 64713
otherwise precludes the application of any provisions of those 64714
sections to the plan and its administrators;64715

       (C) A third-party payer for coverage provided under the 64716
medicare advantage program operated under Title XVIII of the 64717
"Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as 64718
amended;64719

       (D) A third-party payer for coverage provided under the 64720
medicaid program operated under Title XIX of the "Social Security 64721
Act," except that if a federal waiver applied for under section 64722
5111.1785167.25 of the Revised Code is granted or the medicaid64723
director of job and family services determines that this provision 64724
can be implemented without a waiver, sections 3901.38 and 3901.381 64725
to 3901.3813 of the Revised Code apply to claims submitted 64726
electronically or non-electronically that are made with respect to 64727
coverage of medicaid recipients by health insuring corporations 64728
licensed under Chapter 1751. of the Revised Code, instead of the 64729
prompt payment requirements of 42 C.F.R. 447.46;64730

       (E) A third-party payer for coverage provided under the 64731
tricare program offered by the United States department of 64732
defense.64733

       Sec. 3903.14.  (A) The superintendent of insurance as 64734
rehabilitator may appoint one or more special deputies, who shall 64735
have all the powers and responsibilities of the rehabilitator 64736
granted under this section, and the superintendent may employ such 64737
clerks and assistants as considered necessary. The compensation of 64738
the special deputies, clerks, and assistants and all expenses of 64739
taking possession of the insurer and of conducting the proceedings 64740
shall be fixed by the superintendent, with the approval of the 64741
court and shall be paid out of the funds or assets of the insurer. 64742
The persons appointed under this section shall serve at the 64743
pleasure of the superintendent. In the event that the property of 64744
the insurer does not contain sufficient cash or liquid assets to 64745
defray the costs incurred, the superintendent may advance the 64746
costs so incurred out of any appropriation for the maintenance of 64747
the department of insurance. Any amounts so advanced for expenses 64748
of administration shall be repaid to the superintendent for the 64749
use of the department out of the first available money of the 64750
insurer.64751

       (B) The rehabilitator may take such action as the 64752
rehabilitator considers necessary or appropriate to reform and 64753
revitalize the insurer. The rehabilitator shall have all the 64754
powers of the directors, officers, and managers, whose authority 64755
shall be suspended, except as they are redelegated by the 64756
rehabilitator. The rehabilitator shall have full power to direct 64757
and manage, to hire and discharge employees subject to any 64758
contract rights they may have, and to deal with the property and 64759
business of the insurer.64760

       (C) If it appears to the rehabilitator that there has been 64761
criminal or tortious conduct, or breach of any contractual or 64762
fiduciary obligation detrimental to the insurer by any officer, 64763
manager, agent, director, trustee, broker, employee, or other 64764
person, the rehabilitator may pursue all appropriate legal 64765
remedies on behalf of the insurer.64766

       (D) If the rehabilitator determines that reorganization, 64767
consolidation, conversion, reinsurance, merger, or other 64768
transformation of the insurer is appropriate, the rehabilitator 64769
shall prepare a plan to effect such changes. Upon application of 64770
the rehabilitator for approval of the plan, and after such notice 64771
and hearings as the court may prescribe, the court may either 64772
approve or disapprove the plan proposed, or may modify it and 64773
approve it as modified. Any plan approved under this section shall 64774
be, in the judgment of the court, fair and equitable to all 64775
parties concerned. If the plan is approved, the rehabilitator 64776
shall carry out the plan. In the case of a life insurer, the plan 64777
proposed may include the imposition of liens upon the policies of 64778
the company, if all rights of shareholders are first relinquished. 64779
A plan for a life insurer may also propose imposition of a 64780
moratorium upon loan and cash surrender rights under policies, for 64781
such period and to such an extent as may be necessary.64782

       (E) In the case of a medicaid health insuring corporation 64783
that has posted a bond or deposited securities in accordance with 64784
section 1751.271 of the Revised Code, the plan proposed under 64785
division (D) of this section may include the use of the proceeds 64786
of the bond or securities to first pay the claims of contracted 64787
providers for covered health care services provided to medicaid 64788
recipients, then next to pay other claimants with any remaining 64789
funds, consistent with the priorities set forth in sections 64790
3903.421 and 3903.42 of the Revised Code.64791

       (F) The rehabilitator shall have the power under sections 64792
3903.26 and 3903.27 of the Revised Code to avoid fraudulent 64793
transfers.64794

       (G) As used in this section:64795

        (1) "Contracted provider" means a provider with a contract 64796
with a medicaid health insuring corporation to provide covered 64797
health care services to medicaid recipients.64798

        (2) "Medicaid recipient" means a person eligible for 64799
assistance underenrolled in the medicaid program operated 64800
pursuant to Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code.64801

       Sec. 3905.40.  There shall be paid to the superintendent of 64802
insurance the following fees:64803

       (A) Each insurance company doing business in this state shall 64804
pay:64805

       (1) For filing a copy of its charter or deed of settlement, 64806
two hundred fifty dollars;64807

       (2) For filing each statement, one hundred seventy-five 64808
dollars;64809

       (3) For each certificate of authority or license, one hundred 64810
seventy-five, and for each certified copy thereof, five dollars;64811

       (4) For each copy of a paper filed in the superintendent's 64812
office, twenty cents per page;64813

       (5) For issuing certificates of deposits or certified copies 64814
thereof, five dollars for the first certificate or copy and one 64815
dollar for each additional certificate or copy;64816

       (6) For issuing certificates of compliance or certified 64817
copies thereof, sixty dollars;64818

       (7) For affixing the seal of office and certifying documents, 64819
other than those enumerated herein, two dollars;64820

       (8) For each agent appointment and each annual renewal of an 64821
agent appointment, not more than twenty dollars;64822

       (9) For each termination of an agent appointment, five 64823
dollars.64824

       (B) Each domestic life insurance company doing business in 64825
this state shall pay for annual valuation of its policies, one 64826
cent on every one thousand dollars of insurance.64827

       (C) Each applicant for licensure as an insurance agent except 64828
applicants for licensure as surety bail bond agents, surplus line 64829
brokers, and portable electronics insurance vendors shall pay ten 64830
dollars for each line of authority requested. Fees collected under 64831
this division shall be credited to the department of insurance 64832
operating fund created in section 3901.021 of the Revised Code.64833

       (D) Each domestic mutual life insurance company shall pay for 64834
verifying that any amendment to its articles of incorporation was 64835
regularly adopted, two hundred fifty dollars with each application 64836
for verification. Any such amendment shall be considered to have 64837
been regularly adopted when approved by the affirmative vote of 64838
two-thirds of the policyholders present in person or by proxy at 64839
any annual meeting of policyholders or at a special meeting of 64840
policyholders called for that purpose.64841

       (E) Each insurance agent doing business in this state shall 64842
pay a biennial license renewal fee of twenty-five dollars, except 64843
the following insurance agents are not required to pay that 64844
license renewal fee:64845

       (1) Individual resident agents who have met their continuing 64846
education requirements under section 3905.481 of the Revised Code;64847

       (2) Surety bail bond agents;64848

       (3) Surplus line brokers;64849

       (4) Portable electronics insurance vendors.64850

       (F) Each applicant for licensure as a portable electronics 64851
insurance vendor with a portable electronics insurance limited 64852
lines license and each licensed vendor doing business in this 64853
state shall pay the following fees prescribed by the 64854
superintendent: 64855

       (1) For vendors engaged in portable electronic transactions 64856
at more than ten locations in this state, an application fee not 64857
to exceed five thousand dollars for an initial license and a 64858
biennial license renewal fee not to exceed two thousand five 64859
hundred dollars for each renewal thereafter;64860

       (2) For vendors engaged in portable electronic transactions 64861
at ten or fewer locations in this state, an application fee not to 64862
exceed three thousand dollars for an initial license and a 64863
biennial license renewal fee not to exceed one thousand dollars 64864
for each renewal thereafter.64865

       (G) All fees collected by the superintendent under this 64866
section except any fees collected under divisions (A)(2), (3), and 64867
(6) of this section shall be credited to the department of 64868
insurance operating fund created under section 3901.021 of the 64869
Revised Code.64870

       Sec. 3905.483.  (A) There is hereby created the insurance 64871
agent education advisory council to advise the superintendent of 64872
insurance in carrying out the duties imposed under sections 64873
3905.04 and 3905.481 to 3905.486 of the Revised Code.64874

       (B) The council shall be composed of the superintendent, or 64875
the superintendent's designee, and twelve members appointed by the 64876
superintendent, as follows:64877

       (1) One representative of the association of Ohio life 64878
insurance companies;64879

       (2) One representative of the independent insurance agents of 64880
Ohio;64881

       (3) One representative of the Ohio association of health 64882
underwriters;64883

       (4) One representative of the national association of 64884
insurance and financial advisors-Ohio;64885

       (5) One representative of the Ohio insurance institute;64886

       (6) One representative of the professional insurance agents 64887
association of Ohio;64888

       (7) One representative of the Ohio land title association;64889

       (8) Two insurance agents each of whom has been licensed 64890
continuously during the five-year period immediately preceding the 64891
agent's appointment;64892

       (9) One representative of an insurance company admitted to 64893
transact business in this state;64894

       (10) Two representatives of consumers, one of whom shall be 64895
at least sixtyfifty years of age.64896

       (C)(1) Of the initial eleven appointments made by the 64897
superintendent, three shall be for terms ending December 31, 1994, 64898
four shall be for terms ending December 31, 1995, and four shall 64899
be for terms ending December 31, 1996. Thereafter, terms of office 64900
shall be for three years, each term ending on the thirty-first day 64901
of December of the third year.64902

       (2) The initial appointment of the twelfth member made by the 64903
superintendent under division (B)(7) of this section, pursuant to 64904
Am. Sub. S.B. 129 of the 124th general assembly, shall be for a 64905
term ending December 31, 2003. Thereafter, the term of office 64906
shall be for three years, ending on the thirty-first day of 64907
December of the third year.64908

       (D) Each member shall hold office from the date of 64909
appointment until the end of the term for which the member was 64910
appointed. Any member appointed to fill a vacancy occurring prior 64911
to the expiration of the term for which the member's predecessor 64912
was appointed shall hold office for the remainder of such term. 64913
Any member shall continue in office subsequent to the expiration 64914
date of the member's term until the member's successor takes 64915
office, or until a period of sixty days has elapsed, whichever 64916
occurs first. A vacancy shall be filled in the same manner as the 64917
original appointment.64918

       (E) Initial appointments to the council shall be made no 64919
later than thirty days after April 16, 1993. The initial 64920
appointment of the twelfth member to the council under division 64921
(B)(7) of this section, pursuant to Am. Sub. S.B. 129 of the 124th 64922
general assembly, shall be made no later than December 31, 2002.64923

       (F) Any member is eligible for reappointment. The 64924
superintendent, after notice and opportunity for a hearing, may 64925
remove for cause any member the superintendent appoints.64926

       (G) The superintendent or the superintendent's designee shall 64927
serve as chairperson of the council. Meetings shall be held upon 64928
the call of the chairperson and as may be provided by procedures 64929
adopted by the superintendent. Seven members of the council 64930
constitute a quorum.64931

       (H) Each member shall receive mileage and necessary and 64932
actual expenses while engaged in the business of the council.64933

       Sec. 3905.862.  Upon the expiration or cancellation of a 64934
surety bail bond agent's appointment, the agent shall not engage 64935
or attempt to engage in any activity requiring such an 64936
appointment. However, an insurer that cancels the appointment of a 64937
surety bail bond agent may authorize the agent to continue to 64938
attempt the arrest and surrender of a defendant for whom a bail 64939
bond had been written prior to the cancellation and to seek 64940
discharge of forfeitures and judgments.64941

       An insurer that cancels the appointment of a surety bail bond 64942
agent or allows that appointment to expire shall pay to the 64943
superintendent of insurance a fee pursuant to division (A)(9) of 64944
section 3905.40 of the Revised Code.64945

       Sec. 3916.06.  (A)(1) With each application for a viatical 64946
settlement, a viatical settlement provider or viatical settlement 64947
broker shall disclose at least the following to a viator no later 64948
than the time all parties sign the application for the viatical 64949
settlement contract:64950

       (a) That there are possible alternatives to viatical 64951
settlement contracts, including any accelerated death benefits 64952
offered under the viator's policy;64953

       (b) That some or all of the proceeds of the viatical 64954
settlement may be subject to federal income taxation and state 64955
franchise and income taxation, and that assistance should be 64956
sought from a professional tax advisor;64957

       (c) That the proceeds of the viatical settlement could be 64958
subject to the claims of creditors;64959

       (d) That receipt of the proceeds of the viatical settlement 64960
may adversely affect the viator's eligibility for medical 64961
assistance under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Codethe medicaid 64962
program or other government benefits or entitlements, and that 64963
advice should be obtained from the appropriate government 64964
agencies;64965

       (e) That the viator has a right to rescind the viatical 64966
settlement contract for at least fifteen calendar days after the 64967
viator receives the viatical settlement proceeds, as provided in 64968
section 3916.08 of the Revised Code. If the insured dies during 64969
the rescission period, the viatical settlement contract shall be 64970
deemed to have been rescinded, subject to repayment of all 64971
viatical settlement proceeds to the viatical settlement company.64972

       (f) That funds will be sent to the viator within three 64973
business days after the viatical settlement provider has received 64974
written acknowledgment from the insurer or group administrator 64975
that ownership of the policy or interest in the certificate has 64976
been transferred and that the beneficiary has been designated 64977
pursuant to the viatical settlement contract;64978

       (g) That entering into a viatical settlement contract may 64979
cause other rights or benefits, including conversion rights and 64980
waiver of premium benefits that may exist under the policy, to be 64981
forfeited by the viator and that assistance should be sought from 64982
a financial advisor.64983

       (h) That following execution of the viatical settlement 64984
contract, the viatical settlement provider or the authorized 64985
representative of the viatical settlement provider may contact the 64986
insured for the purpose of determining the insured's health status 64987
and to confirm the insured's residential or business address and 64988
telephone number or for other purposes permitted by law. Any such 64989
contact shall be limited to once in any three-month period if the 64990
insured has a life expectancy of more than one year or to once per 64991
month if the insured has a life expectancy of one year or less.64992

       (2) The viatical settlement provider or viatical settlement 64993
broker shall provide the disclosures under division (A)(1) of this 64994
section in a separate document that is signed by the viator and 64995
the viatical settlement provider or viatical settlement broker.64996

       (3) Disclosure to a viator under division (A)(1) of this 64997
section shall include distribution of a brochure describing the 64998
process of viatical settlements. The viatical settlement provider 64999
or viatical settlement broker shall use the NAIC's form for the 65000
brochure unless another form is developed or approved by the 65001
superintendent.65002

       (4) The disclosure document under division (A)(1) of this 65003
section shall contain the following language:65004

       "All medical, financial, or personal information solicited or 65005
obtained by a viatical settlement provider or viatical settlement 65006
broker about an insured, including the insured's identity or the 65007
identity of family members, a spouse, or a significant other may 65008
be disclosed as necessary to effect the viatical settlement 65009
between the viator and the viatical settlement provider. If you 65010
are asked to provide this information, you will be asked to 65011
consent to the disclosure. The information may be provided to 65012
someone who buys the policy or provides funds for the purchase. 65013
You may be asked to renew your permission to share information 65014
every two years."65015

       (B)(1) A viatical settlement provider shall disclose at least 65016
the following to a viator prior to the date the viatical 65017
settlement contract is signed by all the necessary parties:65018

       (a) The affiliation, if any, between the viatical settlement 65019
provider and the issuer of the policy to be viaticated;65020

       (b) The name, business address, and telephone number of the 65021
viatical settlement provider;65022

       (c) Regarding a viatical settlement broker, the amount and 65023
method of calculating the broker's compensation. As used in this 65024
division, "compensation" includes anything of value paid or given 65025
to a viatical settlement broker for the placement of a policy or 65026
certificate.65027

       (d) Any affiliations or contractual arrangements between the 65028
viatical settlement provider and the viatical settlement broker;65029

       (e) If a policy to be viaticated has been issued as a joint 65030
policy or involves family riders or any coverage of a life other 65031
than the insured under the policy to be viaticated, the possible 65032
loss of coverage on the other lives under the policy and that 65033
advice should be sought from the viator's insurance agent or the 65034
company issuing the policy;65035

       (f) The dollar amount of the current death benefit payable to 65036
the viatical settlement provider under the policy, and, if known, 65037
the availability of any additional guaranteed insurance benefits, 65038
the dollar amount of any accidental death and dismemberment 65039
benefits under the policy, and the extent to which the viator's 65040
interest in those benefits will be transferred as a result of the 65041
viatical settlement contract.65042

        (g) That an escrow agent shall provide escrow services to the 65043
parties pursuant to a written agreement, signed by the viatical 65044
settlement provider, the viatical settlement broker, and the 65045
viator. At the close of escrow, the escrow agent will distribute 65046
the proceeds of the sale to the viator, minus any compensation to 65047
be paid to any other persons who provided services and to whom the 65048
viator has agreed to compensate out of the gross amount offered by 65049
the viatical settlement purchaser. All persons receiving any form 65050
of compensation under the escrow agreement shall be clearly 65051
identified, including name, business address, telephone number, 65052
and tax identification number.65053

       (2) The viatical settlement broker shall disclose at least 65054
the following to a viator prior to the execution of the viatical 65055
settlement contract:65056

       (a) The name, business address, and telephone number of the 65057
viatical settlement broker;65058

       (b) A full, complete, and accurate description of all offers, 65059
counteroffers, acceptances, and rejections relating to the 65060
proposed viatical settlement contract;65061

       (c) Any affiliations or contractual agreements between the 65062
viatical settlement broker and any person making an offer in 65063
connection with the proposed viatical settlement contract;65064

       (d) The amount and method of calculating the viatical 65065
settlement broker's compensation and, if any portion of the 65066
viatical settlement broker's compensation is taken from the 65067
viatical settlement offer, the total amount of the viatical 65068
settlement offer and the viatical settlement broker's compensation 65069
as a percentage of that total. As used in this division, 65070
"compensation" includes anything of value paid or given to a 65071
viatical settlement broker related to the settlement of a policy.65072

       (3) The viatical settlement provider or viatical settlement 65073
broker shall conspicuously display the disclosures required under 65074
divisions (B)(1) and (2) of this section in the viatical 65075
settlement contract or in a separate document signed by the viator 65076
and the viatical settlement provider or viatical settlement 65077
broker, as appropriate.65078

       (C) If the viatical settlement provider transfers ownership 65079
or changes the beneficiary of the policy, the viatical settlement 65080
provider shall communicate in writing the change in ownership or 65081
beneficiary to the insured within twenty days after the change.65082

       Sec. 3923.24.  (A) Notwithstanding section 3901.71 of the 65083
Revised Code, every certificate furnished by an insurer in 65084
connection with, or pursuant to any provision of, any group 65085
sickness and accident insurance policy delivered, issued for 65086
delivery, renewed, or used in this state on or after January 1, 65087
1972, every policy of sickness and accident insurance delivered, 65088
issued for delivery, renewed, or used in this state on or after 65089
January 1, 1972, and every multiple employer welfare arrangement 65090
offering an insurance program, which provides that coverage of an 65091
unmarried dependent child of a parent or legal guardian will 65092
terminate upon attainment of the limiting age for dependent 65093
children specified in the contract shall also provide in substance 65094
both of the following:65095

        (1) Once an unmarried child has attained the limiting age for 65096
dependent children, as provided in the policy, upon the request of 65097
the insured, the insurer shall offer to cover the unmarried child 65098
until the child attains twenty-eight years of age if all of the 65099
following are true:65100

        (a) The child is the natural child, stepchild, or adopted 65101
child of the insured.65102

       (b) The child is a resident of this state or a full-time 65103
student at an accredited public or private institution of higher 65104
education.65105

        (c) The child is not employed by an employer that offers any 65106
health benefit plan under which the child is eligible for 65107
coverage.65108

       (d) The child is not eligible for coverage under the medicaid 65109
program established under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code or the 65110
medicare program established under Title XVIII of the "Social 65111
Security Act," 42 U.S.C. 1395.65112

        (2) That attainment of the limiting age for dependent 65113
children shall not operate to terminate the coverage of a 65114
dependent child if the child is and continues to be both of the 65115
following:65116

       (a) Incapable of self-sustaining employment by reason of 65117
mental retardation or physical handicap;65118

       (b) Primarily dependent upon the policyholder or certificate 65119
holder for support and maintenance.65120

       (B) Proof of such incapacity and dependence for purposes of 65121
division (A)(2) of this section shall be furnished by the 65122
policyholder or by the certificate holder to the insurer within 65123
thirty-one days of the child's attainment of the limiting age. 65124
Upon request, but not more frequently than annually after the 65125
two-year period following the child's attainment of the limiting 65126
age, the insurer may require proof satisfactory to it of the 65127
continuance of such incapacity and dependency.65128

       (C) Nothing in this section shall require an insurer to cover 65129
a dependent child who is mentally retarded or physically 65130
handicapped if the contract is underwritten on evidence of 65131
insurability based on health factors set forth in the application, 65132
or if such dependent child does not satisfy the conditions of the 65133
contract as to any requirement for evidence of insurability or 65134
other provision of the contract, satisfaction of which is required 65135
for coverage thereunder to take effect. In any such case, the 65136
terms of the contract shall apply with regard to the coverage or 65137
exclusion of the dependent from such coverage. Nothing in this 65138
section shall apply to accidental death or dismemberment benefits 65139
provided by any such policy of sickness and accident insurance.65140

       (D) Nothing in this section shall do any of the following:65141

       (1) Require that any policy offer coverage for dependent 65142
children or provide coverage for an unmarried dependent child's 65143
children as dependents on the policy;65144

       (2) Require an employer to pay for any part of the premium 65145
for an unmarried dependent child that has attained the limiting 65146
age for dependents, as provided in the policy;65147

       (3) Require an employer to offer health insurance coverage to 65148
the dependents of any employee.65149

        (E) This section does not apply to any policies or 65150
certificates covering only accident, credit, dental, disability 65151
income, long-term care, hospital indemnity, medicare supplement, 65152
specified disease, or vision care; coverage under a 65153
one-time-limited-duration policy of not longer than six months; 65154
coverage issued as a supplement to liability insurance; insurance 65155
arising out of a workers' compensation or similar law; automobile 65156
medical-payment insurance; or insurance under which benefits are 65157
payable with or without regard to fault and that is statutorily 65158
required to be contained in any liability insurance policy or 65159
equivalent self-insurance.65160

       (F) As used in this section, "health benefit plan" has the 65161
same meaning as in section 3924.01 of the Revised Code and also 65162
includes both of the following:65163

        (1) A public employee benefit plan;65164

        (2) A health benefit plan as regulated under the "Employee 65165
Retirement Income Security Act of 1974," 29 U.S.C. 1001, et seq.65166

       Sec. 3923.241. (A) Notwithstanding section 3901.71 of the 65167
Revised Code, any public employee benefit plan that provides that 65168
coverage of an unmarried dependent child will terminate upon 65169
attainment of the limiting age for dependent children specified in 65170
the plan shall also provide in substance both of the following:65171

        (1) Once an unmarried child has attained the limiting age for 65172
dependent children, as provided in the plan, upon the request of 65173
the employee, the public employee benefit plan shall offer to 65174
cover the unmarried child until the child attains twenty-eight 65175
years of age if all of the following are true:65176

        (a) The child is the natural child, stepchild, or adopted 65177
child of the employee.65178

       (b) The child is a resident of this state or a full-time 65179
student at an accredited public or private institution of higher 65180
education.65181

        (c) The child is not employed by an employer that offers any 65182
health benefit plan under which the child is eligible for 65183
coverage.65184

       (d) The child is not eligible for coverage under the medicaid 65185
program established under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code or the 65186
medicare program established under Title XVIII of the "Social 65187
Security Act," 42 U.S.C. 1395.65188

       (2) That attainment of the limiting age for dependent 65189
children shall not operate to terminate the coverage of a 65190
dependent child if the child is and continues to be both of the 65191
following:65192

       (a) Incapable of self-sustaining employment by reason of 65193
mental retardation or physical handicap;65194

       (b) Primarily dependent upon the plan member for support and 65195
maintenance.65196

       (B) Proof of incapacity and dependence for purposes of 65197
division (A)(2) of this section shall be furnished to the public 65198
employee benefit plan within thirty-one days of the child's 65199
attainment of the limiting age. Upon request, but not more 65200
frequently than annually, the public employee benefit plan may 65201
require proof satisfactory to it of the continuance of such 65202
incapacity and dependency.65203

       (C) Nothing in this section shall do any of the following:65204

       (1) Require that any public employee benefit plan offer 65205
coverage for dependent children or provide coverage for an 65206
unmarried dependent child's children as dependents on the public 65207
employee benefit plan;65208

       (2) Require an employer to pay for any part of the premium 65209
for an unmarried dependent child that has attained the limiting 65210
age for dependents, as provided in the plan;65211

       (3) Require an employer to offer health insurance coverage to 65212
the dependents of any employee.65213

       (D) This section does not apply to any public employee 65214
benefit plan covering only accident, credit, dental, disability 65215
income, long-term care, hospital indemnity, medicare supplement, 65216
specified disease, or vision care; coverage under a 65217
one-time-limited-duration policy of not longer than six months; 65218
coverage issued as a supplement to liability insurance; insurance 65219
arising out of a workers' compensation or similar law; automobile 65220
medical-payment insurance; or insurance under which benefits are 65221
payable with or without regard to fault and which is statutorily 65222
required to be contained in any liability insurance policy or 65223
equivalent self-insurance.65224

       (E) As used in this section, "health benefit plan" has the 65225
same meaning as in section 3924.01 of the Revised Code and also 65226
includes both of the following:65227

        (1) A public employee benefit plan;65228

        (2) A health benefit plan as regulated under the "Employee 65229
Retirement Income Security Act of 1974," 29 U.S.C. 1001, et seq.65230

       Sec. 3923.281.  (A) As used in this section:65231

       (1) "Biologically based mental illness" means schizophrenia, 65232
schizoaffective disorder, major depressive disorder, bipolar 65233
disorder, paranoia and other psychotic disorders, 65234
obsessive-compulsive disorder, and panic disorder, as these terms 65235
are defined in the most recent edition of the diagnostic and 65236
statistical manual of mental disorders published by the American 65237
psychiatric association.65238

       (2) "Policy of sickness and accident insurance" has the same 65239
meaning as in section 3923.01 of the Revised Code, but excludes 65240
any hospital indemnity, medicare supplement, long-term care, 65241
disability income, one-time-limited-duration policy of not longer 65242
than six months, supplemental benefit, or other policy that 65243
provides coverage for specific diseases or accidents only; any 65244
policy that provides coverage for workers' compensation claims 65245
compensable pursuant to Chapters 4121. and 4123. of the Revised 65246
Code; and any policy that provides coverage to beneficiaries 65247
enrolled in Title XIX of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 65248
(1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended, known as the medical 65249
assistance program or medicaid, as provided by the Ohio department 65250
of job and family services under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code65251
recipients.65252

       (B) Notwithstanding section 3901.71 of the Revised Code, and 65253
subject to division (E) of this section, every policy of sickness 65254
and accident insurance shall provide benefits for the diagnosis 65255
and treatment of biologically based mental illnesses on the same 65256
terms and conditions as, and shall provide benefits no less 65257
extensive than, those provided under the policy of sickness and 65258
accident insurance for the treatment and diagnosis of all other 65259
physical diseases and disorders, if both of the following apply:65260

       (1) The biologically based mental illness is clinically 65261
diagnosed by a physician authorized under Chapter 4731. of the 65262
Revised Code to practice medicine and surgery or osteopathic 65263
medicine and surgery; a psychologist licensed under Chapter 4732. 65264
of the Revised Code; a professional clinical counselor, 65265
professional counselor, or independent social worker licensed 65266
under Chapter 4757. of the Revised Code; or a clinical nurse 65267
specialist licensed under Chapter 4723. of the Revised Code whose 65268
nursing specialty is mental health.65269

       (2) The prescribed treatment is not experimental or 65270
investigational, having proven its clinical effectiveness in 65271
accordance with generally accepted medical standards.65272

       (C) Division (B) of this section applies to all coverages and 65273
terms and conditions of the policy of sickness and accident 65274
insurance, including, but not limited to, coverage of inpatient 65275
hospital services, outpatient services, and medication; maximum 65276
lifetime benefits; copayments; and individual and family 65277
deductibles.65278

       (D) Nothing in this section shall be construed as prohibiting 65279
a sickness and accident insurance company from taking any of the 65280
following actions:65281

       (1) Negotiating separately with mental health care providers 65282
with regard to reimbursement rates and the delivery of health care 65283
services;65284

       (2) Offering policies that provide benefits solely for the 65285
diagnosis and treatment of biologically based mental illnesses;65286

       (3) Managing the provision of benefits for the diagnosis or 65287
treatment of biologically based mental illnesses through the use 65288
of pre-admission screening, by requiring beneficiaries to obtain 65289
authorization prior to treatment, or through the use of any other 65290
mechanism designed to limit coverage to that treatment determined 65291
to be necessary;65292

       (4) Enforcing the terms and conditions of a policy of 65293
sickness and accident insurance.65294

       (E) An insurer that offers any policy of sickness and 65295
accident insurance is not required to provide benefits for the 65296
diagnosis and treatment of biologically based mental illnesses 65297
pursuant to division (B) of this section if all of the following 65298
apply:65299

       (1) The insurer submits documentation certified by an 65300
independent member of the American academy of actuaries to the 65301
superintendent of insurance showing that incurred claims for 65302
diagnostic and treatment services for biologically based mental 65303
illnesses for a period of at least six months independently caused 65304
the insurer's costs for claims and administrative expenses for the 65305
coverage of all other physical diseases and disorders to increase 65306
by more than one per cent per year. 65307

       (2) The insurer submits a signed letter from an independent 65308
member of the American academy of actuaries to the superintendent 65309
of insurance opining that the increase described in division 65310
(E)(1) of this section could reasonably justify an increase of 65311
more than one per cent in the annual premiums or rates charged by 65312
the insurer for the coverage of all other physical diseases and 65313
disorders.65314

       (3) The superintendent of insurance makes the following 65315
determinations from the documentation and opinion submitted 65316
pursuant to divisions (E)(1) and (2) of this section:65317

       (a) Incurred claims for diagnostic and treatment services for 65318
biologically based mental illnesses for a period of at least six 65319
months independently caused the insurer's costs for claims and 65320
administrative expenses for the coverage of all other physical 65321
diseases and disorders to increase by more than one per cent per 65322
year.65323

       (b) The increase in costs reasonably justifies an increase of 65324
more than one per cent in the annual premiums or rates charged by 65325
the insurer for the coverage of all other physical diseases and 65326
disorders.65327

       Any determination made by the superintendent under this 65328
division is subject to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.65329

       Sec. 3923.443. (A)(1) No agent shall sell, solicit, or 65330
negotiate long-term care insurance on or after September 1, 2008, 65331
without completing an initial eight-hour partnership program 65332
training course as described in division (B) of this section.65333

        (2)(a) Any agent that sells, solicits, or negotiates any 65334
long-term care insurance shall complete at least four hours of 65335
continuing education in every twenty-four-month period commencing 65336
on the first day of January of the year immediately following the 65337
year of the issuance of the agent's license.65338

       (b) No agent shall fail to complete the continuing education 65339
requirements in division (A)(2)(a) of this section in the 65340
twenty-four-month period described in that division.65341

       (B) The initial training course and continuing education 65342
required under division (A) of this section may be approved by the 65343
superintendent of insurance as continuing education courses under 65344
sections 3905.481 to 3905.486 of the Revised Code and shall 65345
consist of combined topics related to long-term care insurance, 65346
long-term care services, and state long-term care insurance 65347
partnership programs, including all of the following:65348

       (1) State and federal regulations and requirements and the 65349
relationship between state long-term care insurance partnership 65350
programs and other public and private coverage of long-term care 65351
services, including medicaid;65352

       (2) Available long-term care services and providers;65353

       (3) Changes or improvements in long-term care services or 65354
providers;65355

       (4) Alternatives to the purchase of private long-term care 65356
insurance;65357

       (5) The effect of inflation on benefits and the importance of 65358
inflation protection;65359

       (6) Consumer suitability standards and guidelines;65360

       (7) Any other topics required by the superintendent.65361

       (C) The initial training and continuing education required by 65362
division (A) of this section shall not include training that is 65363
specific to a particular insurer or company product or that 65364
includes any sales or marketing information, materials, or 65365
training other than those required by state or federal law.65366

       (D) A resident agent shall satisfy the training and 65367
continuing education required by division (A) of this section by 65368
completing long-term care courses that are approved by the 65369
superintendent. A nonresident agent may satisfy the training and 65370
continuing education required by division (A) of this section by 65371
completing the training requirements in any other state, provided 65372
that the course is approved for credit by the insurance department 65373
of that state prior to the agent taking the course.65374

       (E) Each insurer shall obtain records of the initial training 65375
and continuing education completed by agents of that insurer 65376
pursuant to division (A) of this section as well as the training 65377
completed by the insurer's agents concerning the distribution of 65378
the insurer's partnership program policies and shall make those 65379
records available to the superintendent upon request.65380

       (F) Each insurer shall maintain records with respect to the 65381
training of its agents concerning the distribution of the 65382
insurer's partnership program policies. Each insurer shall provide 65383
documentation to the superintendent that will allow the 65384
superintendent to provide assurance to the medicaid director of 65385
job and family services that agents have received the training 65386
required by this section and that agents have demonstrated an 65387
understanding of the partnership program policies and their 65388
relationship to public and private coverage of long-term care in 65389
this state, including medicaid. The superintendent may audit each 65390
insurer's records annually to verify that the insurer is 65391
maintaining the records required by this division. The 65392
superintendent shall make the records provided to the 65393
superintendent pursuant to division (E) of this section available 65394
to the director.65395

       Sec. 3923.49.  The department of insurance shall establish an 65396
outreach program to educate consumers about the following:65397

       (A) The need for long-term care insurance;65398

       (B) Mechanisms for financing long-term care;65399

       (C) The availability of long-term care insurance;65400

       (D) The resource protection provided by the Ohio long-term 65401
care insurance program under section 5111.185164.86 of the 65402
Revised Code;65403

       (E) That a consumer who purchased a long-term care insurance 65404
policy that does not meet the requirements of section 3923.50 of 65405
the Revised Code may purchase a policy that meets those 65406
requirements.65407

       The department shall develop and make available to consumers 65408
information to assist them in choosing long-term care insurance 65409
coverage.65410

       Sec. 3923.50.  For the purposes of the Ohio long-term care 65411
insurance program established under section 5111.185164.86 of the 65412
Revised Code, the department of insurance shall notify the 65413
department of job and family servicesmedicaid of all long-term 65414
care insurance policies that meet all of the following 65415
requirements:65416

       (A) Comply with sections 3923.41 to 3923.48 of the Revised 65417
Code and the rules adopted under section 3923.47 of the Revised 65418
Code;65419

       (B) Provide benefits for home and community-based services in 65420
addition to nursing home care;65421

       (C) Include case management services in its coverage of home 65422
and community-based services;65423

       (D) Provide five per cent inflation protection compounded 65424
annually;65425

       (E) Provide for the keeping of records and 65426
explanation-of-benefit reports on insurance payments that count 65427
toward resource exclusion for the medical assistancemedicaid65428
program;65429

       (F) Provide the information the medicaid director of job and 65430
family services determines is necessary to document the extent of 65431
resource exclusion and to evaluate the Ohio long-term care 65432
insurance program;65433

       (G) Comply with other requirements established in rules 65434
adopted under this section.65435

       The superintendent of insurance shall adopt rules in 65436
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code establishing 65437
requirements under division (G) of this section that policies must 65438
meet to qualify under the Ohio long-term care insurance program. 65439
The superintendent shall consult with the departments of aging and 65440
job and family servicesmedicaid in adopting those rules.65441

       Sec. 3923.601. (A)(1) This section applies to both of the 65442
following:65443

       (a) A sickness and accident insurer that issues or requires 65444
the use of a standardized identification card or an electronic 65445
technology for submission and routing of prescription drug claims 65446
pursuant to a policy, contract, or agreement for health care 65447
services;65448

        (b) A person that a sickness and accident insurer contracts 65449
with to issue a standardized identification card or an electronic 65450
technology described in division (A)(1)(a) of this section.65451

       (2) Notwithstanding division (A)(1) of this section, this 65452
section does not apply to the issuance or required use of a 65453
standardized identification card or an electronic technology for 65454
the submission and routing of prescription drug claims in 65455
connection with any of the following:65456

       (a) Any individual or group policy of sickness and accident 65457
insurance covering only accident, credit, dental, disability 65458
income, long-term care, hospital indemnity, medicare supplement, 65459
medicare, tricare, specified disease, or vision care; coverage 65460
under a one-time-limited-duration policy of not longer than six 65461
months; coverage issued as a supplement to liability insurance; 65462
insurance arising out of workers' compensation or similar law; 65463
automobile medical payment insurance; or insurance under which 65464
benefits are payable with or without regard to fault and which is 65465
statutorily required to be contained in any liability insurance 65466
policy or equivalent self-insurance.65467

       (b) Coverage provided under the medicaid, as defined in 65468
section 5111.01 of the Revised Codeprogram.65469

       (c) Coverage provided under an employer's self-insurance plan 65470
or by any of its administrators, as defined in section 3959.01 of 65471
the Revised Code, to the extent that federal law supersedes, 65472
preempts, prohibits, or otherwise precludes the application of 65473
this section to the plan and its administrators.65474

       (B) A standardized identification card or an electronic 65475
technology issued or required to be used as provided in division 65476
(A)(1) of this section shall contain uniform prescription drug 65477
information in accordance with either division (B)(1) or (2) of 65478
this section.65479

        (1) The standardized identification card or the electronic 65480
technology shall be in a format and contain information fields 65481
approved by the national council for prescription drug programs or 65482
a successor organization, as specified in the council's or 65483
successor organization's pharmacy identification card 65484
implementation guide in effect on the first day of October most 65485
immediately preceding the issuance or required use of the 65486
standardized identification card or the electronic technology.65487

        (2) If the insurer or person under contract with the insurer 65488
to issue a standardized identification card or an electronic 65489
technology requires the information for the submission and routing 65490
of a claim, the standardized identification card or the electronic 65491
technology shall contain any of the following information:65492

        (a) The insurer's name;65493

        (b) The insured's name, group number, and identification 65494
number;65495

       (c) A telephone number to inquire about pharmacy-related 65496
issues;65497

        (d) The issuer's international identification number, labeled 65498
as "ANSI BIN" or "RxBIN";65499

        (e) The processor's control number, labeled as "RxPCN";65500

        (f) The insured's pharmacy benefits group number if different 65501
from the insured's medical group number, labeled as "RxGrp."65502

        (C) If the standardized identification card or the electronic 65503
technology issued or required to be used as provided in division 65504
(A)(1) of this section is also used for submission and routing of 65505
nonpharmacy claims, the designation "Rx" is required to be 65506
included as part of the labels identified in divisions (B)(2)(d) 65507
and (e) of this section if the issuer's international 65508
identification number or the processor's control number is 65509
different for medical and pharmacy claims.65510

        (D) Each sickness and accident insurer described in division 65511
(A) of this section shall annually file a certificate with the 65512
superintendent of insurance certifying that it or any person it 65513
contracts with to issue a standardized identification card or 65514
electronic technology for submission and routing of prescription 65515
drug claims complies with this section.65516

       (E)(1) Except as provided in division (E)(2) of this section, 65517
if there is a change in the information contained in the 65518
standardized identification card or the electronic technology 65519
issued to an insured, the insurer or person under contract with 65520
the insurer to issue a standardized identification card or an 65521
electronic technology shall issue a new card or electronic 65522
technology to the insured.65523

        (2) An insurer or person under contract with the insurer is 65524
not required under division (E)(1) of this section to issue a new 65525
card or electronic technology to an insured more than once during 65526
a twelve-month period.65527

        (F) Nothing in this section shall be construed as requiring 65528
an insurer to produce more than one standardized identification 65529
card or one electronic technology for use by insureds accessing 65530
health care benefits provided under a policy of sickness and 65531
accident insurance.65532

       Sec. 3923.83. (A)(1) This section applies to both of the 65533
following:65534

       (a) A public employee benefit plan that issues or requires 65535
the use of a standardized identification card or an electronic 65536
technology for submission and routing of prescription drug claims 65537
pursuant to a policy, contract, or agreement for health care 65538
services;65539

        (b) A person or entity that a public employee benefit plan 65540
contracts with to issue a standardized identification card or an 65541
electronic technology described in division (A)(1)(a) of this 65542
section.65543

       (2) Notwithstanding division (A)(1) of this section, this 65544
section does not apply to the issuance or required use of a 65545
standardized identification card or an electronic technology for 65546
the submission and routing of prescription drug claims in 65547
connection with either of the following:65548

       (a) Any individual or group policy of insurance covering only 65549
accident, credit, dental, disability income, long-term care, 65550
hospital indemnity, medicare supplement, medicare, tricare, 65551
specified disease, or vision care; coverage under a 65552
one-time-limited-duration policy of not longer than six months; 65553
coverage issued as a supplement to liability insurance; insurance 65554
arising out of workers' compensation or similar law; automobile 65555
medical payment insurance; or insurance under which benefits are 65556
payable with or without regard to fault and which is statutorily 65557
required to be contained in any liability insurance policy or 65558
equivalent self-insurance.65559

       (b) Coverage provided under the medicaid, as defined in 65560
section 5111.01 of the Revised Codeprogram.65561

       (B) A standardized identification card or an electronic 65562
technology issued or required to be used as provided in division 65563
(A)(1) of this section shall contain uniform prescription drug 65564
information in accordance with either division (B)(1) or (2) of 65565
this section.65566

        (1) The standardized identification card or the electronic 65567
technology shall be in a format and contain information fields 65568
approved by the national council for prescription drug programs or 65569
a successor organization, as specified in the council's or 65570
successor organization's pharmacy identification card 65571
implementation guide in effect on the first day of October most 65572
immediately preceding the issuance or required use of the 65573
standardized identification card or the electronic technology.65574

        (2) If the public employee benefit plan or person under 65575
contract with the plan to issue a standardized identification card 65576
or an electronic technology requires the information for the 65577
submission and routing of a claim, the standardized identification 65578
card or the electronic technology shall contain any of the 65579
following information:65580

        (a) The plan's name;65581

        (b) The insured's name, group number, and identification 65582
number;65583

       (c) A telephone number to inquire about pharmacy-related 65584
issues;65585

        (d) The issuer's international identification number, labeled 65586
as "ANSI BIN" or "RxBIN";65587

        (e) The processor's control number, labeled as "RxPCN";65588

        (f) The insured's pharmacy benefits group number if different 65589
from the insured's medical group number, labeled as "RxGrp."65590

        (C) If the standardized identification card or the electronic 65591
technology issued or required to be used as provided in division 65592
(A)(1) of this section is also used for submission and routing of 65593
nonpharmacy claims, the designation "Rx" is required to be 65594
included as part of the labels identified in divisions (B)(2)(d) 65595
and (e) of this section if the issuer's international 65596
identification number or the processor's control number is 65597
different for medical and pharmacy claims.65598

        (D)(1) Except as provided in division (D)(2) of this section, 65599
if there is a change in the information contained in the 65600
standardized identification card or the electronic technology 65601
issued to an insured, the public employee benefit plan or person 65602
under contract with the plan to issue a standardized 65603
identification card or electronic technology shall issue a new 65604
card or electronic technology to the insured. 65605

       (2) A public employee benefit plan or person under contract 65606
with the plan is not required under division (D)(1) of this 65607
section to issue a new card or electronic technology to an insured 65608
more than once during a twelve-month period.65609

       (F)(E) Nothing in this section shall be construed as 65610
requiring a public employee benefit plan to produce more than one 65611
standardized identification card or one electronic technology for 65612
use by insureds accessing health care benefits provided under a 65613
health benefit plan.65614

       Sec. 3924.41.  (A) As used in sections 3924.41 and 3924.42 of 65615
the Revised Code, "health insurer" means any sickness and accident 65616
insurer or health insuring corporation. "Health insurer" also 65617
includes any group health plan as defined in section 607 of the 65618
federal "Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974," 88 65619
Stat. 832, 29 U.S.C.A. 1167.65620

       (B) Notwithstanding any other provision of the Revised Code, 65621
no health insurer shall take into consideration the availability 65622
of, or eligibility for, medical assistancethe medicaid program in 65623
this state under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code or in any other 65624
state pursuant to Title XIX of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 65625
620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended, when determining an 65626
individual's eligibility for coverage or when making payments to 65627
or on behalf of an enrollee, subscriber, policyholder, or 65628
certificate holder.65629

       Sec. 3924.42.  No health insurer shall impose requirements on 65630
the department of job and family servicesmedicaid, when it has 65631
been assigned the rights of an individual who is eligible for 65632
medical assistance under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code65633
medicaid and who is covered under a health care policy, contract, 65634
or plan issued by the health insurer, that are different from the 65635
requirements applicable to an agent or assignee of any other 65636
individual so covered.65637

       Sec. 3963.01. As used in this chapter:65638

       (A) "Affiliate" means any person or entity that has ownership 65639
or control of a contracting entity, is owned or controlled by a 65640
contracting entity, or is under common ownership or control with a 65641
contracting entity.65642

       (B) "Basic health care services" has the same meaning as in 65643
division (A) of section 1751.01 of the Revised Code, except that 65644
it does not include any services listed in that division that are 65645
provided by a pharmacist or nursing home.65646

       (C) "Contracting entity" means any person that has a primary 65647
business purpose of contracting with participating providers for 65648
the delivery of health care services.65649

       (D) "Credentialing" means the process of assessing and 65650
validating the qualifications of a provider applying to be 65651
approved by a contracting entity to provide basic health care 65652
services, specialty health care services, or supplemental health 65653
care services to enrollees.65654

       (E) "Edit" means adjusting one or more procedure codes billed 65655
by a participating provider on a claim for payment or a practice 65656
that results in any of the following:65657

       (1) Payment for some, but not all of the procedure codes 65658
originally billed by a participating provider;65659

       (2) Payment for a different procedure code than the procedure 65660
code originally billed by a participating provider;65661

       (3) A reduced payment as a result of services provided to an 65662
enrollee that are claimed under more than one procedure code on 65663
the same service date.65664

       (F) "Electronic claims transport" means to accept and 65665
digitize claims or to accept claims already digitized, to place 65666
those claims into a format that complies with the electronic 65667
transaction standards issued by the United States department of 65668
health and human services pursuant to the "Health Insurance 65669
Portability and Accountability Act of 1996," 110 Stat. 1955, 42 65670
U.S.C. 1320d, et seq., as those electronic standards are 65671
applicable to the parties and as those electronic standards are 65672
updated from time to time, and to electronically transmit those 65673
claims to the appropriate contracting entity, payer, or 65674
third-party administrator.65675

       (G) "Enrollee" means any person eligible for health care 65676
benefits under a health benefit plan, including an eligible 65677
recipient of medicaid under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code, and 65678
includes all of the following terms:65679

       (1) "Enrollee" and "subscriber" as defined by section 1751.01 65680
of the Revised Code;65681

       (2) "Member" as defined by section 1739.01 of the Revised 65682
Code;65683

       (3) "Insured" and "plan member" pursuant to Chapter 3923. of 65684
the Revised Code;65685

       (4) "Beneficiary" as defined by section 3901.38 of the 65686
Revised Code.65687

       (H) "Health care contract" means a contract entered into, 65688
materially amended, or renewed between a contracting entity and a 65689
participating provider for the delivery of basic health care 65690
services, specialty health care services, or supplemental health 65691
care services to enrollees.65692

       (I) "Health care services" means basic health care services, 65693
specialty health care services, and supplemental health care 65694
services.65695

       (J) "Material amendment" means an amendment to a health care 65696
contract that decreases the participating provider's payment or 65697
compensation, changes the administrative procedures in a way that 65698
may reasonably be expected to significantly increase the 65699
provider's administrative expenses, or adds a new product. A 65700
material amendment does not include any of the following:65701

       (1) A decrease in payment or compensation resulting solely 65702
from a change in a published fee schedule upon which the payment 65703
or compensation is based and the date of applicability is clearly 65704
identified in the contract;65705

       (2) A decrease in payment or compensation that was 65706
anticipated under the terms of the contract, if the amount and 65707
date of applicability of the decrease is clearly identified in the 65708
contract;65709

       (3) An administrative change that may significantly increase 65710
the provider's administrative expense, the specific applicability 65711
of which is clearly identified in the contract;65712

       (4) Changes to an existing prior authorization, 65713
precertification, notification, or referral program that do not 65714
substantially increase the provider's administrative expense;65715

       (5) Changes to an edit program or to specific edits if the 65716
participating provider is provided notice of the changes pursuant 65717
to division (A)(1) of section 3963.04 of the Revised Code and the 65718
notice includes information sufficient for the provider to 65719
determine the effect of the change;65720

       (6) Changes to a health care contract described in division 65721
(B) of section 3963.04 of the Revised Code.65722

       (K) "Participating provider" means a provider that has a 65723
health care contract with a contracting entity and is entitled to 65724
reimbursement for health care services rendered to an enrollee 65725
under the health care contract.65726

       (L) "Payer" means any person that assumes the financial risk 65727
for the payment of claims under a health care contract or the 65728
reimbursement for health care services provided to enrollees by 65729
participating providers pursuant to a health care contract.65730

       (M) "Primary enrollee" means a person who is responsible for 65731
making payments for participation in a health care plan or an 65732
enrollee whose employment or other status is the basis of 65733
eligibility for enrollment in a health care plan.65734

       (N) "Procedure codes" includes the American medical 65735
association's current procedural terminology code, the American 65736
dental association's current dental terminology, and the centers 65737
for medicare and medicaid services health care common procedure 65738
coding system.65739

       (O) "Product" means one of the following types of categories 65740
of coverage for which a participating provider may be obligated to 65741
provide health care services pursuant to a health care contract:65742

       (1) A health maintenance organization or other product 65743
provided by a health insuring corporation;65744

       (2) A preferred provider organization;65745

       (3) Medicare;65746

       (4) Medicaid;65747

       (5) Workers' compensation.65748

       (P) "Provider" means a physician, podiatrist, dentist, 65749
chiropractor, optometrist, psychologist, physician assistant, 65750
advanced practice registered nurse, occupational therapist, 65751
massage therapist, physical therapist, professional counselor, 65752
professional clinical counselor, hearing aid dealer, orthotist, 65753
prosthetist, home health agency, hospice care program, pediatric 65754
respite care program, or hospital, or a provider organization or 65755
physician-hospital organization that is acting exclusively as an 65756
administrator on behalf of a provider to facilitate the provider's 65757
participation in health care contracts. "Provider" does not mean a 65758
pharmacist, pharmacy, nursing home, or a provider organization or 65759
physician-hospital organization that leases the provider 65760
organization's or physician-hospital organization's network to a 65761
third party or contracts directly with employers or health and 65762
welfare funds.65763

       (Q) "Specialty health care services" has the same meaning as 65764
in section 1751.01 of the Revised Code, except that it does not 65765
include any services listed in division (B) of section 1751.01 of 65766
the Revised Code that are provided by a pharmacist or a nursing 65767
home.65768

       (R) "Supplemental health care services" has the same meaning 65769
as in division (B) of section 1751.01 of the Revised Code, except 65770
that it does not include any services listed in that division that 65771
are provided by a pharmacist or nursing home.65772

       Sec. 3963.04. (A)(1) If an amendment to a health care 65773
contract is not a material amendment, the contracting entity shall 65774
provide the participating provider notice of the amendment at 65775
least fifteen days prior to the effective date of the amendment. 65776
The contracting entity shall provide all other notices to the 65777
participating provider pursuant to the health care contract.65778

       (2) A material amendment to a health care contract shall 65779
occur only if the contracting entity provides to the participating 65780
provider the material amendment in writing and notice of the 65781
material amendment not later than ninety days prior to the 65782
effective date of the material amendment. The notice shall be 65783
conspicuously entitled "Notice of Material Amendment to Contract."65784

       (3) If within fifteen days after receiving the material 65785
amendment and notice described in division (A)(2) of this section, 65786
the participating provider objects in writing to the material 65787
amendment, and there is no resolution of the objection, either 65788
party may terminate the health care contract upon written notice 65789
of termination provided to the other party not later than sixty 65790
days prior to the effective date of the material amendment.65791

       (4) If the participating provider does not object to the 65792
material amendment in the manner described in division (A)(3) of 65793
this section, the material amendment shall be effective as 65794
specified in the notice described in division (A)(2) of this 65795
section.65796

       (B)(1) Division (A) of this section does not apply if the 65797
delay caused by compliance with that division could result in 65798
imminent harm to an enrollee, if the material amendment of a 65799
health care contract is required by state or federal law, rule, or 65800
regulation, or if the provider affirmatively accepts the material 65801
amendment in writing and agrees to an earlier effective date than 65802
otherwise required by division (A)(2) of this section.65803

       (2) This section does not apply under any of the following 65804
circumstances:65805

       (a) The participating provider's payment or compensation is 65806
based on the current medicaid or medicare physician fee schedule, 65807
and the change in payment or compensation results solely from a 65808
change in that physician fee schedule.65809

       (b) A routine change or update of the health care contract is 65810
made in response to any addition, deletion, or revision of any 65811
service code, procedure code, or reporting code, or a pricing 65812
change is made by any third party source.65813

        For purposes of division (B)(2)(b) of this section:65814

        (i) "Service code, procedure code, or reporting code" means 65815
the current procedural terminology (CPT), current dental 65816
terminology (CDT), the healthcare common procedure coding system 65817
(HCPCS), the international classification of diseases (ICD), or 65818
the drug topics redbook average wholesale price (AWP).65819

        (ii) "Third party source" means the American medical 65820
association, American dental association, the centers for medicare 65821
and medicaid services, the national center for health statistics, 65822
the department of health and human services office of the 65823
inspector general, the Ohio department of insurance, or the Ohio 65824
department of job and family servicesmedicaid.65825

       (C) Notwithstanding divisions (A) and (B) of this section, a 65826
health care contract may be amended by operation of law as 65827
required by any applicable state or federal law, rule, or 65828
regulation. Nothing in this section shall be construed to require 65829
the renegotiation of a health care contract that is in existence 65830
before the effective date of this sectionJune 25, 2008, until the 65831
time that the contract is renewed or materially amended.65832

       Sec. 4104.33. There is hereby created the historical boilers 65833
licensing board consisting of seven members, three of whom shall 65834
be appointed by the governor with the advice and consent of the 65835
senate. The governor shall make initial appointments to the board 65836
within ninety days after October 24, 2002. Of the initial members 65837
appointed by the governor, one shall be for a term ending three 65838
years after October 24, 2002, one shall be for a term ending four 65839
years after October 24, 2002, and one shall be for a term ending 65840
five years after October 24, 2002. Thereafter, terms of office 65841
shall be for five years, each term ending on the same day of the 65842
same month of the year as did the term that it succeeds. Of the 65843
three members the governor appoints, one member shall be an 65844
employee of the division of boiler inspection in the department of 65845
commerce; one member shall be an independent mechanical engineer 65846
who is not involved in selling or inspecting historical boilers; 65847
and one shall be an active member of an association that 65848
represents managers of fairs or festivals.65849

       Two members of the board shall be appointed by the president 65850
of the senate and two members of the board shall be appointed by 65851
the speaker of the house of representatives. The president and 65852
speaker shall make initial appointments to the board within ninety 65853
days after October 24, 2002. Of the initial members appointed by 65854
the president, one shall be for a term ending four years after 65855
October 24, 2002 and one shall be for a term ending five years 65856
after October 24, 2002. Of the initial members appointed by the 65857
speaker, one shall be for a term ending three years after October 65858
24, 2002 and one shall be for a term ending five years after 65859
October 24, 2002. Thereafter, terms of office shall be for five 65860
years, each term ending on the same day of the same month of the 65861
year as did the term that it succeeds. Of the four members 65862
appointed by the president and speaker, each shall own a 65863
historical boiler and also have at least ten years of experience 65864
in the operation of historical boilers, and each of these four 65865
members shall reside in a different region of the state.65866

       Each member shall hold office from the date of the member's 65867
appointment until the end of the term for which the member was 65868
appointed. Members may be reappointed. Vacancies shall be filled 65869
in the manner provided for initial appointmentsby the director of 65870
commerce, and shall not require the advice and consent of the 65871
senate. Any member appointed to fill a vacancy occurring prior to 65872
the expiration date of the term for which the member's predecessor 65873
was appointed shall hold office as a member for the remainder of 65874
that term. A member shall continue in office subsequent to the 65875
expiration date of the member's term until the successor takes 65876
office or until a period of sixty days has elapsed, whichever 65877
occurs first.65878

       The members of the board, annually, shall elect, by majority 65879
vote, a chairperson from among their members. The board shall meet 65880
at least once annually and at other times at the call of the 65881
chairperson. Board members shall receive their actual and 65882
necessary expenses incurred in the discharge of their duties as 65883
board members.65884

       The superintendent of industrial compliance shall furnish 65885
office space, staff, and supplies to the board as the 65886
superintendent determines are necessary for the board to carry out 65887
its official duties under sections 4104.33 to 4104.37 of the 65888
Revised Code.65889

       Sec. 4112.02.  It shall be an unlawful discriminatory 65890
practice:65891

       (A) For any employer, because of the race, color, religion, 65892
sex, military status, national origin, disability, age, or 65893
ancestry of any person, to discharge without just cause, to refuse 65894
to hire, or otherwise to discriminate against that person with 65895
respect to hire, tenure, terms, conditions, or privileges of 65896
employment, or any matter directly or indirectly related to 65897
employment.65898

       (B) For an employment agency or personnel placement service, 65899
because of race, color, religion, sex, military status, national 65900
origin, disability, age, or ancestry, to do any of the following:65901

       (1) Refuse or fail to accept, register, classify properly, or 65902
refer for employment, or otherwise discriminate against any 65903
person;65904

       (2) Comply with a request from an employer for referral of 65905
applicants for employment if the request directly or indirectly 65906
indicates that the employer fails to comply with the provisions of 65907
sections 4112.01 to 4112.07 of the Revised Code.65908

       (C) For any labor organization to do any of the following:65909

       (1) Limit or classify its membership on the basis of race, 65910
color, religion, sex, military status, national origin, 65911
disability, age, or ancestry;65912

       (2) Discriminate against, limit the employment opportunities 65913
of, or otherwise adversely affect the employment status, wages, 65914
hours, or employment conditions of any person as an employee 65915
because of race, color, religion, sex, military status, national 65916
origin, disability, age, or ancestry.65917

       (D) For any employer, labor organization, or joint 65918
labor-management committee controlling apprentice training 65919
programs to discriminate against any person because of race, 65920
color, religion, sex, military status, national origin, 65921
disability, or ancestry in admission to, or employment in, any 65922
program established to provide apprentice training.65923

       (E) Except where based on a bona fide occupational 65924
qualification certified in advance by the commission, for any 65925
employer, employment agency, personnel placement service, or labor 65926
organization, prior to employment or admission to membership, to 65927
do any of the following:65928

       (1) Elicit or attempt to elicit any information concerning 65929
the race, color, religion, sex, military status, national origin, 65930
disability, age, or ancestry of an applicant for employment or 65931
membership;65932

       (2) Make or keep a record of the race, color, religion, sex, 65933
military status, national origin, disability, age, or ancestry of 65934
any applicant for employment or membership;65935

       (3) Use any form of application for employment, or personnel 65936
or membership blank, seeking to elicit information regarding race, 65937
color, religion, sex, military status, national origin, 65938
disability, age, or ancestry; but an employer holding a contract 65939
containing a nondiscrimination clause with the government of the 65940
United States, or any department or agency of that government, may 65941
require an employee or applicant for employment to furnish 65942
documentary proof of United States citizenship and may retain that 65943
proof in the employer's personnel records and may use photographic 65944
or fingerprint identification for security purposes;65945

       (4) Print or publish or cause to be printed or published any 65946
notice or advertisement relating to employment or membership 65947
indicating any preference, limitation, specification, or 65948
discrimination, based upon race, color, religion, sex, military 65949
status, national origin, disability, age, or ancestry;65950

       (5) Announce or follow a policy of denying or limiting, 65951
through a quota system or otherwise, employment or membership 65952
opportunities of any group because of the race, color, religion, 65953
sex, military status, national origin, disability, age, or 65954
ancestry of that group;65955

       (6) Utilize in the recruitment or hiring of persons any 65956
employment agency, personnel placement service, training school or 65957
center, labor organization, or any other employee-referring source 65958
known to discriminate against persons because of their race, 65959
color, religion, sex, military status, national origin, 65960
disability, age, or ancestry.65961

       (F) For any person seeking employment to publish or cause to 65962
be published any advertisement that specifies or in any manner 65963
indicates that person's race, color, religion, sex, military 65964
status, national origin, disability, age, or ancestry, or 65965
expresses a limitation or preference as to the race, color, 65966
religion, sex, military status, national origin, disability, age, 65967
or ancestry of any prospective employer.65968

       (G) For any proprietor or any employee, keeper, or manager of 65969
a place of public accommodation to deny to any person, except for 65970
reasons applicable alike to all persons regardless of race, color, 65971
religion, sex, military status, national origin, disability, age, 65972
or ancestry, the full enjoyment of the accommodations, advantages, 65973
facilities, or privileges of the place of public accommodation.65974

       (H) For any person to do any of the following:65975

       (1) Refuse to sell, transfer, assign, rent, lease, sublease, 65976
or finance housing accommodations, refuse to negotiate for the 65977
sale or rental of housing accommodations, or otherwise deny or 65978
make unavailable housing accommodations because of race, color, 65979
religion, sex, military status, familial status, ancestry, 65980
disability, or national origin;65981

       (2) Represent to any person that housing accommodations are 65982
not available for inspection, sale, or rental, when in fact they 65983
are available, because of race, color, religion, sex, military 65984
status, familial status, ancestry, disability, or national origin;65985

       (3) Discriminate against any person in the making or 65986
purchasing of loans or the provision of other financial assistance 65987
for the acquisition, construction, rehabilitation, repair, or 65988
maintenance of housing accommodations, or any person in the making 65989
or purchasing of loans or the provision of other financial 65990
assistance that is secured by residential real estate, because of 65991
race, color, religion, sex, military status, familial status, 65992
ancestry, disability, or national origin or because of the racial 65993
composition of the neighborhood in which the housing 65994
accommodations are located, provided that the person, whether an 65995
individual, corporation, or association of any type, lends money 65996
as one of the principal aspects or incident to the person's 65997
principal business and not only as a part of the purchase price of 65998
an owner-occupied residence the person is selling nor merely 65999
casually or occasionally to a relative or friend;66000

       (4) Discriminate against any person in the terms or 66001
conditions of selling, transferring, assigning, renting, leasing, 66002
or subleasing any housing accommodations or in furnishing 66003
facilities, services, or privileges in connection with the 66004
ownership, occupancy, or use of any housing accommodations, 66005
including the sale of fire, extended coverage, or homeowners 66006
insurance, because of race, color, religion, sex, military status, 66007
familial status, ancestry, disability, or national origin or 66008
because of the racial composition of the neighborhood in which the 66009
housing accommodations are located;66010

       (5) Discriminate against any person in the terms or 66011
conditions of any loan of money, whether or not secured by 66012
mortgage or otherwise, for the acquisition, construction, 66013
rehabilitation, repair, or maintenance of housing accommodations 66014
because of race, color, religion, sex, military status, familial 66015
status, ancestry, disability, or national origin or because of the 66016
racial composition of the neighborhood in which the housing 66017
accommodations are located;66018

       (6) Refuse to consider without prejudice the combined income 66019
of both husband and wife for the purpose of extending mortgage 66020
credit to a married couple or either member of a married couple;66021

       (7) Print, publish, or circulate any statement or 66022
advertisement, or make or cause to be made any statement or 66023
advertisement, relating to the sale, transfer, assignment, rental, 66024
lease, sublease, or acquisition of any housing accommodations, or 66025
relating to the loan of money, whether or not secured by mortgage 66026
or otherwise, for the acquisition, construction, rehabilitation, 66027
repair, or maintenance of housing accommodations, that indicates 66028
any preference, limitation, specification, or discrimination based 66029
upon race, color, religion, sex, military status, familial status, 66030
ancestry, disability, or national origin, or an intention to make 66031
any such preference, limitation, specification, or discrimination;66032

       (8) Except as otherwise provided in division (H)(8) or (17) 66033
of this section, make any inquiry, elicit any information, make or 66034
keep any record, or use any form of application containing 66035
questions or entries concerning race, color, religion, sex, 66036
military status, familial status, ancestry, disability, or 66037
national origin in connection with the sale or lease of any 66038
housing accommodations or the loan of any money, whether or not 66039
secured by mortgage or otherwise, for the acquisition, 66040
construction, rehabilitation, repair, or maintenance of housing 66041
accommodations. Any person may make inquiries, and make and keep 66042
records, concerning race, color, religion, sex, military status, 66043
familial status, ancestry, disability, or national origin for the 66044
purpose of monitoring compliance with this chapter.66045

       (9) Include in any transfer, rental, or lease of housing 66046
accommodations any restrictive covenant, or honor or exercise, or 66047
attempt to honor or exercise, any restrictive covenant;66048

       (10) Induce or solicit, or attempt to induce or solicit, a 66049
housing accommodations listing, sale, or transaction by 66050
representing that a change has occurred or may occur with respect 66051
to the racial, religious, sexual, military status, familial 66052
status, or ethnic composition of the block, neighborhood, or other 66053
area in which the housing accommodations are located, or induce or 66054
solicit, or attempt to induce or solicit, a housing accommodations 66055
listing, sale, or transaction by representing that the presence or 66056
anticipated presence of persons of any race, color, religion, sex, 66057
military status, familial status, ancestry, disability, or 66058
national origin, in the block, neighborhood, or other area will or 66059
may have results including, but not limited to, the following:66060

       (a) The lowering of property values;66061

       (b) A change in the racial, religious, sexual, military 66062
status, familial status, or ethnic composition of the block, 66063
neighborhood, or other area;66064

       (c) An increase in criminal or antisocial behavior in the 66065
block, neighborhood, or other area;66066

       (d) A decline in the quality of the schools serving the 66067
block, neighborhood, or other area.66068

       (11) Deny any person access to or membership or participation 66069
in any multiple-listing service, real estate brokers' 66070
organization, or other service, organization, or facility relating 66071
to the business of selling or renting housing accommodations, or 66072
discriminate against any person in the terms or conditions of that 66073
access, membership, or participation, on account of race, color, 66074
religion, sex, military status, familial status, national origin, 66075
disability, or ancestry;66076

       (12) Coerce, intimidate, threaten, or interfere with any 66077
person in the exercise or enjoyment of, or on account of that 66078
person's having exercised or enjoyed or having aided or encouraged 66079
any other person in the exercise or enjoyment of, any right 66080
granted or protected by division (H) of this section;66081

       (13) Discourage or attempt to discourage the purchase by a 66082
prospective purchaser of housing accommodations, by representing 66083
that any block, neighborhood, or other area has undergone or might 66084
undergo a change with respect to its religious, racial, sexual, 66085
military status, familial status, or ethnic composition;66086

       (14) Refuse to sell, transfer, assign, rent, lease, sublease, 66087
or finance, or otherwise deny or withhold, a burial lot from any 66088
person because of the race, color, sex, military status, familial 66089
status, age, ancestry, disability, or national origin of any 66090
prospective owner or user of the lot;66091

       (15) Discriminate in the sale or rental of, or otherwise make 66092
unavailable or deny, housing accommodations to any buyer or renter 66093
because of a disability of any of the following:66094

       (a) The buyer or renter;66095

       (b) A person residing in or intending to reside in the 66096
housing accommodations after they are sold, rented, or made 66097
available;66098

       (c) Any individual associated with the person described in 66099
division (H)(15)(b) of this section.66100

       (16) Discriminate in the terms, conditions, or privileges of 66101
the sale or rental of housing accommodations to any person or in 66102
the provision of services or facilities to any person in 66103
connection with the housing accommodations because of a disability 66104
of any of the following:66105

       (a) That person;66106

       (b) A person residing in or intending to reside in the 66107
housing accommodations after they are sold, rented, or made 66108
available;66109

       (c) Any individual associated with the person described in 66110
division (H)(16)(b) of this section.66111

       (17) Except as otherwise provided in division (H)(17) of this 66112
section, make an inquiry to determine whether an applicant for the 66113
sale or rental of housing accommodations, a person residing in or 66114
intending to reside in the housing accommodations after they are 66115
sold, rented, or made available, or any individual associated with 66116
that person has a disability, or make an inquiry to determine the 66117
nature or severity of a disability of the applicant or such a 66118
person or individual. The following inquiries may be made of all 66119
applicants for the sale or rental of housing accommodations, 66120
regardless of whether they have disabilities:66121

       (a) An inquiry into an applicant's ability to meet the 66122
requirements of ownership or tenancy;66123

       (b) An inquiry to determine whether an applicant is qualified 66124
for housing accommodations available only to persons with 66125
disabilities or persons with a particular type of disability;66126

       (c) An inquiry to determine whether an applicant is qualified 66127
for a priority available to persons with disabilities or persons 66128
with a particular type of disability;66129

       (d) An inquiry to determine whether an applicant currently 66130
uses a controlled substance in violation of section 2925.11 of the 66131
Revised Code or a substantively comparable municipal ordinance;66132

       (e) An inquiry to determine whether an applicant at any time 66133
has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any offense, an element 66134
of which is the illegal sale, offer to sell, cultivation, 66135
manufacture, other production, shipment, transportation, delivery, 66136
or other distribution of a controlled substance.66137

       (18)(a) Refuse to permit, at the expense of a person with a 66138
disability, reasonable modifications of existing housing 66139
accommodations that are occupied or to be occupied by the person 66140
with a disability, if the modifications may be necessary to afford 66141
the person with a disability full enjoyment of the housing 66142
accommodations. This division does not preclude a landlord of 66143
housing accommodations that are rented or to be rented to a 66144
disabled tenant from conditioning permission for a proposed 66145
modification upon the disabled tenant's doing one or more of the 66146
following:66147

       (i) Providing a reasonable description of the proposed 66148
modification and reasonable assurances that the proposed 66149
modification will be made in a workerlike manner and that any 66150
required building permits will be obtained prior to the 66151
commencement of the proposed modification;66152

       (ii) Agreeing to restore at the end of the tenancy the 66153
interior of the housing accommodations to the condition they were 66154
in prior to the proposed modification, but subject to reasonable 66155
wear and tear during the period of occupancy, if it is reasonable 66156
for the landlord to condition permission for the proposed 66157
modification upon the agreement;66158

       (iii) Paying into an interest-bearing escrow account that is 66159
in the landlord's name, over a reasonable period of time, a 66160
reasonable amount of money not to exceed the projected costs at 66161
the end of the tenancy of the restoration of the interior of the 66162
housing accommodations to the condition they were in prior to the 66163
proposed modification, but subject to reasonable wear and tear 66164
during the period of occupancy, if the landlord finds the account 66165
reasonably necessary to ensure the availability of funds for the 66166
restoration work. The interest earned in connection with an escrow 66167
account described in this division shall accrue to the benefit of 66168
the disabled tenant who makes payments into the account.66169

       (b) A landlord shall not condition permission for a proposed 66170
modification upon a disabled tenant's payment of a security 66171
deposit that exceeds the customarily required security deposit of 66172
all tenants of the particular housing accommodations.66173

       (19) Refuse to make reasonable accommodations in rules, 66174
policies, practices, or services when necessary to afford a person 66175
with a disability equal opportunity to use and enjoy a dwelling 66176
unit, including associated public and common use areas;66177

       (20) Fail to comply with the standards and rules adopted 66178
under division (A) of section 3781.111 of the Revised Code;66179

       (21) Discriminate against any person in the selling, 66180
brokering, or appraising of real property because of race, color, 66181
religion, sex, military status, familial status, ancestry, 66182
disability, or national origin;66183

       (22) Fail to design and construct covered multifamily 66184
dwellings for first occupancy on or after June 30, 1992, in 66185
accordance with the following conditions:66186

       (a) The dwellings shall have at least one building entrance 66187
on an accessible route, unless it is impractical to do so because 66188
of the terrain or unusual characteristics of the site.66189

       (b) With respect to dwellings that have a building entrance 66190
on an accessible route, all of the following apply:66191

       (i) The public use areas and common use areas of the 66192
dwellings shall be readily accessible to and usable by persons 66193
with a disability.66194

       (ii) All the doors designed to allow passage into and within 66195
all premises shall be sufficiently wide to allow passage by 66196
persons with a disability who are in wheelchairs.66197

       (iii) All premises within covered multifamily dwelling units 66198
shall contain an accessible route into and through the dwelling; 66199
all light switches, electrical outlets, thermostats, and other 66200
environmental controls within such units shall be in accessible 66201
locations; the bathroom walls within such units shall contain 66202
reinforcements to allow later installation of grab bars; and the 66203
kitchens and bathrooms within such units shall be designed and 66204
constructed in a manner that enables an individual in a wheelchair 66205
to maneuver about such rooms.66206

       For purposes of division (H)(22) of this section, "covered 66207
multifamily dwellings" means buildings consisting of four or more 66208
units if such buildings have one or more elevators and ground 66209
floor units in other buildings consisting of four or more units.66210

       (I) For any person to discriminate in any manner against any 66211
other person because that person has opposed any unlawful 66212
discriminatory practice defined in this section or because that 66213
person has made a charge, testified, assisted, or participated in 66214
any manner in any investigation, proceeding, or hearing under 66215
sections 4112.01 to 4112.07 of the Revised Code.66216

       (J) For any person to aid, abet, incite, compel, or coerce 66217
the doing of any act declared by this section to be an unlawful 66218
discriminatory practice, to obstruct or prevent any person from 66219
complying with this chapter or any order issued under it, or to 66220
attempt directly or indirectly to commit any act declared by this 66221
section to be an unlawful discriminatory practice.66222

       (K)(1) Nothing in division (H) of this section shall bar any 66223
religious or denominational institution or organization, or any 66224
nonprofit charitable or educational organization that is operated, 66225
supervised, or controlled by or in connection with a religious 66226
organization, from limiting the sale, rental, or occupancy of 66227
housing accommodations that it owns or operates for other than a 66228
commercial purpose to persons of the same religion, or from giving 66229
preference in the sale, rental, or occupancy of such housing 66230
accommodations to persons of the same religion, unless membership 66231
in the religion is restricted on account of race, color, or 66232
national origin.66233

       (2) Nothing in division (H) of this section shall bar any 66234
bona fide private or fraternal organization that, incidental to 66235
its primary purpose, owns or operates lodgings for other than a 66236
commercial purpose, from limiting the rental or occupancy of the 66237
lodgings to its members or from giving preference to its members.66238

       (3) Nothing in division (H) of this section limits the 66239
applicability of any reasonable local, state, or federal 66240
restrictions regarding the maximum number of occupants permitted 66241
to occupy housing accommodations. Nothing in that division 66242
prohibits the owners or managers of housing accommodations from 66243
implementing reasonable occupancy standards based on the number 66244
and size of sleeping areas or bedrooms and the overall size of a 66245
dwelling unit, provided that the standards are not implemented to 66246
circumvent the purposes of this chapter and are formulated, 66247
implemented, and interpreted in a manner consistent with this 66248
chapter and any applicable local, state, or federal restrictions 66249
regarding the maximum number of occupants permitted to occupy 66250
housing accommodations.66251

       (4) Nothing in division (H) of this section requires that 66252
housing accommodations be made available to an individual whose 66253
tenancy would constitute a direct threat to the health or safety 66254
of other individuals or whose tenancy would result in substantial 66255
physical damage to the property of others.66256

       (5) Nothing in division (H) of this section pertaining to 66257
discrimination on the basis of familial status shall be construed 66258
to apply to any of the following:66259

       (a) Housing accommodations provided under any state or 66260
federal program that have been determined under the "Fair Housing 66261
Amendments Act of 1988," 102 Stat. 1623, 42 U.S.C.A. 3607, as 66262
amended, to be specifically designed and operated to assist 66263
elderly persons;66264

       (b) Housing accommodations intended for and solely occupied 66265
by persons who are sixty-two years of age or older;66266

       (c) Housing accommodations intended and operated for 66267
occupancy by at least one person who is fifty-five years of age or 66268
older per unit, as determined under the "Fair Housing Amendments 66269
Act of 1988," 102 Stat. 1623, 42 U.S.C.A. 3607, as amended.66270

       (L) Nothing in divisions (A) to (E) of this section shall be 66271
construed to require a person with a disability to be employed or 66272
trained under circumstances that would significantly increase the 66273
occupational hazards affecting either the person with a 66274
disability, other employees, the general public, or the facilities 66275
in which the work is to be performed, or to require the employment 66276
or training of a person with a disability in a job that requires 66277
the person with a disability routinely to undertake any task, the 66278
performance of which is substantially and inherently impaired by 66279
the person's disability.66280

       (M) Nothing in divisions (H)(1) to (18) of this section shall 66281
be construed to require any person selling or renting property to 66282
modify the property in any way or to exercise a higher degree of 66283
care for a person with a disability, to relieve any person with a 66284
disability of any obligation generally imposed on all persons 66285
regardless of disability in a written lease, rental agreement, or 66286
contract of purchase or sale, or to forbid distinctions based on 66287
the inability to fulfill the terms and conditions, including 66288
financial obligations, of the lease, agreement, or contract.66289

       (N) An aggrieved individual may enforce the individual's 66290
rights relative to discrimination on the basis of age as provided 66291
for in this section by instituting a civil action, within one 66292
hundred eighty days after the alleged unlawful discriminatory 66293
practice occurred, in any court with jurisdiction for any legal or 66294
equitable relief that will effectuate the individual's rights.66295

       A person who files a civil action under this division is 66296
barred, with respect to the practices complained of, from 66297
instituting a civil action under section 4112.14 of the Revised 66298
Code and from filing a charge with the commission under section 66299
4112.05 of the Revised Code.66300

       (O) With regard to age, it shall not be an unlawful 66301
discriminatory practice and it shall not constitute a violation of 66302
division (A) of section 4112.14 of the Revised Code for any 66303
employer, employment agency, joint labor-management committee 66304
controlling apprenticeship training programs, or labor 66305
organization to do any of the following:66306

       (1) Establish bona fide employment qualifications reasonably 66307
related to the particular business or occupation that may include 66308
standards for skill, aptitude, physical capability, intelligence, 66309
education, maturation, and experience;66310

       (2) Observe the terms of a bona fide seniority system or any 66311
bona fide employee benefit plan, including, but not limited to, a 66312
retirement, pension, or insurance plan, that is not a subterfuge 66313
to evade the purposes of this section. However, no such employee 66314
benefit plan shall excuse the failure to hire any individual, and 66315
no such seniority system or employee benefit plan shall require or 66316
permit the involuntary retirement of any individual, because of 66317
the individual's age except as provided for in the "Age 66318
Discrimination in Employment Act Amendment of 1978," 92 Stat. 189, 66319
29 U.S.C.A. 623, as amended by the "Age Discrimination in 66320
Employment Act Amendments of 1986," 100 Stat. 3342, 29 U.S.C.A. 66321
623, as amended.66322

       (3) Retire an employee who has attained sixty-five years of 66323
age who, for the two-year period immediately before retirement, is 66324
employed in a bona fide executive or a high policymaking position, 66325
if the employee is entitled to an immediate nonforfeitable annual 66326
retirement benefit from a pension, profit-sharing, savings, or 66327
deferred compensation plan, or any combination of those plans, of 66328
the employer of the employee, which equals, in the aggregate, at 66329
least forty-four thousand dollars, in accordance with the 66330
conditions of the "Age Discrimination in Employment Act Amendment 66331
of 1978," 92 Stat. 189, 29 U.S.C.A. 631, as amended by the "Age 66332
Discrimination in Employment Act Amendments of 1986," 100 Stat. 66333
3342, 29 U.S.C.A. 631, as amended;66334

       (4) Observe the terms of any bona fide apprenticeship program 66335
if the program is registered with the Ohio apprenticeship council 66336
pursuant to sections 4139.01 to 4139.06 of the Revised Code and is 66337
approved by the federal committee on apprenticeship of the United 66338
States department of labor.66339

       (P) Nothing in this chapter prohibiting age discrimination 66340
and nothing in division (A) of section 4112.14 of the Revised Code 66341
shall be construed to prohibit the following:66342

       (1) The designation of uniform age the attainment of which is 66343
necessary for public employees to receive pension or other 66344
retirement benefits pursuant to Chapter 145., 742., 3307., 3309., 66345
or 5505. of the Revised Code;66346

       (2) The mandatory retirement of uniformed patrol officers of 66347
the state highway patrol as provided in section 5505.16 of the 66348
Revised Code;66349

       (3) The maximum age requirements for appointment as a patrol 66350
officer in the state highway patrol established by section 5503.01 66351
of the Revised Code;66352

       (4) The maximum age requirements established for original 66353
appointment to a police department or fire department in sections 66354
124.41 and 124.42 of the Revised Code;66355

       (5) Any maximum age not in conflict with federal law that may 66356
be established by a municipal charter, municipal ordinance, or 66357
resolution of a board of township trustees for original 66358
appointment as a police officer or firefighter;66359

       (6) Any mandatory retirement provision not in conflict with 66360
federal law of a municipal charter, municipal ordinance, or 66361
resolution of a board of township trustees pertaining to police 66362
officers and firefighters;66363

       (7) Until January 1, 1994, the mandatory retirement of any 66364
employee who has attained seventy years of age and who is serving 66365
under a contract of unlimited tenure, or similar arrangement 66366
providing for unlimited tenure, at an institution of higher 66367
education as defined in the "Education Amendments of 1980," 94 66368
Stat. 1503, 20 U.S.C.A. 1141(a).66369

       (Q)(1)(a) Except as provided in division (Q)(1)(b) of this 66370
section, for purposes of divisions (A) to (E) of this section, a 66371
disability does not include any physiological disorder or 66372
condition, mental or psychological disorder, or disease or 66373
condition caused by an illegal use of any controlled substance by 66374
an employee, applicant, or other person, if an employer, 66375
employment agency, personnel placement service, labor 66376
organization, or joint labor-management committee acts on the 66377
basis of that illegal use.66378

       (b) Division (Q)(1)(a) of this section does not apply to an 66379
employee, applicant, or other person who satisfies any of the 66380
following:66381

       (i) The employee, applicant, or other person has successfully 66382
completed a supervised drug rehabilitation program and no longer 66383
is engaging in the illegal use of any controlled substance, or the 66384
employee, applicant, or other person otherwise successfully has 66385
been rehabilitated and no longer is engaging in that illegal use.66386

       (ii) The employee, applicant, or other person is 66387
participating in a supervised drug rehabilitation program and no 66388
longer is engaging in the illegal use of any controlled substance.66389

       (iii) The employee, applicant, or other person is erroneously 66390
regarded as engaging in the illegal use of any controlled 66391
substance, but the employee, applicant, or other person is not 66392
engaging in that illegal use.66393

       (2) Divisions (A) to (E) of this section do not prohibit an 66394
employer, employment agency, personnel placement service, labor 66395
organization, or joint labor-management committee from doing any 66396
of the following:66397

       (a) Adopting or administering reasonable policies or 66398
procedures, including, but not limited to, testing for the illegal 66399
use of any controlled substance, that are designed to ensure that 66400
an individual described in division (Q)(1)(b)(i) or (ii) of this 66401
section no longer is engaging in the illegal use of any controlled 66402
substance;66403

       (b) Prohibiting the illegal use of controlled substances and 66404
the use of alcohol at the workplace by all employees;66405

       (c) Requiring that employees not be under the influence of 66406
alcohol or not be engaged in the illegal use of any controlled 66407
substance at the workplace;66408

       (d) Requiring that employees behave in conformance with the 66409
requirements established under "The Drug-Free Workplace Act of 66410
1988," 102 Stat. 4304, 41 U.S.C.A. 701, as amended;66411

       (e) Holding an employee who engages in the illegal use of any 66412
controlled substance or who is an alcoholic to the same 66413
qualification standards for employment or job performance, and the 66414
same behavior, to which the employer, employment agency, personnel 66415
placement service, labor organization, or joint labor-management 66416
committee holds other employees, even if any unsatisfactory 66417
performance or behavior is related to an employee's illegal use of 66418
a controlled substance or alcoholism;66419

       (f) Exercising other authority recognized in the "Americans 66420
with Disabilities Act of 1990," 104 Stat. 327, 42 U.S.C.A. 12101, 66421
as amended, including, but not limited to, requiring employees to 66422
comply with any applicable federal standards.66423

       (3) For purposes of this chapter, a test to determine the 66424
illegal use of any controlled substance does not include a medical 66425
examination.66426

       (4) Division (Q) of this section does not encourage, 66427
prohibit, or authorize, and shall not be construed as encouraging, 66428
prohibiting, or authorizing, the conduct of testing for the 66429
illegal use of any controlled substance by employees, applicants, 66430
or other persons, or the making of employment decisions based on 66431
the results of that type of testing.66432

       (R) This section does not apply to a religious corporation, 66433
association, educational institution, or society with respect to 66434
the employment of an individual of a particular religion to 66435
perform work connected with the carrying on by that religious 66436
corporation, association, educational institution, or society of 66437
its activities.66438

       The unlawful discriminatory practices defined in this section 66439
do not make it unlawful for a person or an appointing authority 66440
administering an examination under section 124.23 of the Revised 66441
Code to obtain information about an applicant's military status 66442
for the purpose of determining if the applicant is eligible for 66443
the additional credit that is available under that section.66444

       Sec. 4112.12.  (A) There is hereby created the commission on 66445
African-American males, which shall consist of not more than 66446
twenty-five members as follows: the directors or their designees 66447
of the departments of health, development, alcohol and drug 66448
addiction servicesmental health and addiction services, and job 66449
and family services; the equal employment opportunity officer of 66450
the department of administrative services or the equal employment 66451
opportunity officer's designee; the executive director or the 66452
executive director's designee of the Ohio civil rights commission; 66453
the executive director or the executive director's designee of the 66454
division of criminal justice services in the department of public 66455
safety; the superintendent of public instruction; the chancellor 66456
or the chancellor's designee of the Ohio board of regents; two 66457
members of the house of representatives appointed by the speaker 66458
of the house of representatives each of whom shall be members of 66459
different political parties; and two members of the senate 66460
appointed by the president of the senate each of whom shall be 66461
members of different political parties. The members who are 66462
members of the general assembly shall be nonvoting members. The 66463
Ohio state university African American and African studies 66464
community extension center, in consultation with the governor, 66465
shall appoint four members from the private corporate sector, at 66466
least four members from the public sector, and two members from 66467
the nonprofit sector.66468

       (B) Terms of office shall be for three years, except that 66469
members of the general assembly appointed to the commission shall 66470
be members only so long as they are members of the general 66471
assembly. Each term ends on the same day of the same month as did 66472
the term that it succeeds. Each member shall hold office from the 66473
date of appointment until the end of the term for which the member 66474
was appointed. Members may be reappointed. Vacancies shall be 66475
filled in the manner provided for original appointments. Any 66476
member appointed to fill a vacancy occurring prior to the 66477
expiration date of the term for which the member's predecessor was 66478
appointed shall hold office as a member for the remainder of that 66479
term. A member shall continue in office subsequent to the 66480
expiration date of the member's term until the member's successor 66481
takes office or until a period of sixty days has elapsed, 66482
whichever occurs first.66483

       The commission annually shall elect a chairperson from among 66484
its members.66485

       (C) Members of the commission and members of subcommittees 66486
appointed under division (B) of section 4112.13 of the Revised 66487
Code shall not be compensated, but shall be reimbursed for their 66488
necessary and actual expenses incurred in the performance of their 66489
official duties.66490

       (D) The Ohio state university African American and African 66491
studies community extension center, in consultation with the 66492
governor, shall appoint an executive director of the commission on 66493
African-American males, who shall be in the unclassified civil 66494
service. The executive director shall supervise the commission's 66495
activities and report to the commission and to the Ohio state 66496
university African American and African studies community 66497
extension center on the progress of those activities. The 66498
executive director shall do all things necessary for the efficient 66499
and effective implementation of the duties of the commission.66500

       The responsibilities assigned to the executive director do 66501
not relieve the members of the commission from final 66502
responsibility for the proper performance of the requirements of 66503
this division.66504

       (E) The commission on African-American males shall do all of 66505
the following:66506

       (1) Employ, promote, supervise, and remove all employees, as 66507
needed, in connection with the performance of its duties under 66508
this section;66509

       (2) Maintain its office in Columbus;66510

       (3) Acquire facilities, equipment, and supplies necessary to 66511
house the commission, its employees, and files and records under 66512
its control, and to discharge any duty imposed upon it by law. The 66513
expense of these acquisitions shall be audited and paid for in the 66514
same manner as other state expenses.66515

       (4) Establish the overall policy and management of the 66516
commission in accordance with this chapter;66517

       (5) Follow all state procurement requirements;66518

        (6) Implement the policies and plans of the Ohio state 66519
university African American and African studies community 66520
extension center as those policies and plans are formulated and 66521
adopted by the Ohio state university African American and African 66522
studies community extension center;66523

        (7) Report to the Ohio state university African American and 66524
African studies community extension center on the progress of the 66525
commission on African-American males in implementing the policies 66526
and plans of the Ohio state university African American and 66527
African studies community extension center.66528

       (F) The commission on African-American males may:66529

       (1) Hold sessions at any place within the state, except that 66530
the commission on African-American males shall meet at least 66531
quarterly;66532

       (2) Establish, change, or abolish positions, and assign and 66533
reassign duties and responsibilities of any employee of the 66534
commission on African-American males as necessary to achieve the 66535
most efficient performance of its functions.66536

       (G) The Ohio state university African American and African 66537
studies community extension center shall establish the overall 66538
policy and management of the commission on African-American males 66539
and shall direct, manage, and oversee the commission. The Ohio 66540
state university African American and African studies community 66541
extension center shall develop overall policies and plans, and the 66542
commission on African-American males shall implement those 66543
policies and plans. The commission on African-American males, 66544
through its executive director, shall keep the Ohio state 66545
university African American and African studies community 66546
extension center informed as to the activities of the commission 66547
on African-American males in such manner and at such times as the 66548
Ohio state university African American and African studies 66549
community extension center shall determine.66550

        The Ohio state university African American and African 66551
studies community extension center may prescribe duties and 66552
responsibilities of the commission on African-American males in 66553
addition to those prescribed in section 4112.13 of the Revised 66554
Code.66555

        (H) The Ohio state university African American and African 66556
studies community extension center annually shall contract for a 66557
report on the status of African Americans in this state. Issues to 66558
be evaluated in the report shall include the criminal justice 66559
system, education, employment, health care, and housing, and such 66560
other issues as the Ohio state university African American and 66561
African studies community extension center may specify. The report 66562
shall include policy recommendations relating to the issues 66563
covered in the report.66564

       Sec. 4112.31.  The new African immigrants commission shall do 66565
all of the following:66566

       (A) Gather and disseminate information and conduct hearings, 66567
conferences, investigations, and special studies on problems and 66568
programs concerning sub-Saharan African people;66569

       (B) Secure appropriate recognition of the accomplishments and 66570
contributions of sub-Saharan African people to this state;66571

       (C) Stimulate public awareness of the problems of sub-Saharan 66572
African people by conducting a program of public education;66573

       (D) Develop, coordinate, and assist other public and private 66574
organizations that serve sub-Saharan African people, including the 66575
conducting of training programs for community leadership and 66576
service project staff;66577

       (E) Advise the governor, general assembly, and state 66578
departments and agencies of the nature, magnitude, and priorities 66579
of the problems of sub-Saharan African people;66580

       (F) Advise the governor, general assembly, and state 66581
departments and agencies on, and assist in the development and 66582
implementation of, comprehensive and coordinated policies, 66583
programs, and procedures focusing on the special problems and 66584
needs of sub-Saharan African people, especially in the fields of 66585
education, employment, energy, health, housing, welfare, and 66586
recreation;66587

       (G) Propose new programs concerning sub-Saharan African 66588
people to public and private agencies and evaluate for such 66589
agencies existing programs or prospective legislation concerning 66590
sub-Saharan African people;66591

       (H) Review and approve grants to be made from federal, state, 66592
or private funds that are administered or subcontracted by the 66593
commission;66594

       (I) Prepare, review, and approve an annual report;66595

       (J) Serve as a clearinghouse to review and comment on all 66596
proposals to meet the needs of sub-Saharan African people that are 66597
submitted to it by public and private agencies;66598

       (K) Apply for and accept grants and gifts from governmental 66599
and private sources to be administered by the commission or 66600
subcontracted to local agencies;66601

       (L) Monitor and evaluate all programs subcontracted to local 66602
agencies by the commission;66603

       (M) Endeavor to assure that sub-Saharan African people have 66604
access to decision-making bodies in all state and local 66605
governmental departments and agencies;66606

       (N) Establish advisory committees on special subjects as 66607
needed to facilitate and maximize community participation in the 66608
operation of the commission;66609

       (O) Establish with state and local governments and private 66610
business and industry relationships that promote and assure equal 66611
opportunity for sub-Saharan African people in government, 66612
education, and employment.66613

       (P) Create an interagency council consisting of the following 66614
persons or their authorized representatives: one member of the 66615
senate appointed by the president of the senate; one member of the 66616
house of representatives appointed by the speaker of the house of 66617
representatives; the directors of administrative services, 66618
agriculture, education, development services, health, highway 66619
safety, job and family services, liquor control, mental health66620
mental health and addiction services, mental retardation and 66621
developmental disabilities, natural resources, rehabilitation and 66622
correction, youth services, transportation, environmental 66623
protection, and budget and management; the chairperson of the Ohio 66624
civil rights commission, the administrators of the bureau of 66625
workers' compensation and the rehabilitation services commission, 66626
and an additional member of the governor's cabinet appointed by 66627
the governor. The new African immigrants commission, by rule, may 66628
designate other state officers or their representatives to be 66629
members of the council. The director of the commission shall be 66630
the chairperson of the council.66631

       The interagency council shall provide and coordinate the 66632
exchange of information relative to the needs of sub-Saharan 66633
African people and promote the delivery of state services to such 66634
people. The council shall meet at the call of the chairperson.66635

       Advisory committees shall be composed of persons representing 66636
community organizations and charitable institutions, public 66637
officials, and such other persons as the commission determines.66638

       Sec. 4115.034.  On January 1, 1996, and the first day of 66639
January of every even-numbered year thereafter, the director of 66640
commerce shall adjust the threshold levels for which public 66641
improvement projects are subject to sections 4115.03 to 4115.16 of 66642
the Revised Code as set forth in divisions (B)(3) and (4) of 66643
section 4115.03 of the Revised Code. The director shall adjust 66644
those amounts according to the average increase or decrease for 66645
each of the two years immediately preceding the adjustment as set 66646
forth in the United States department of commerce, bureau of the 66647
census implicit price deflator forthe construction cost index 66648
published by the engineering news-record or, should that index 66649
cease to be published, a similar recognized industry index chosen 66650
by the director, provided that no increase or decrease for any 66651
year shall exceed three per cent of the threshold level in 66652
existence at the time of the adjustment.66653

       Sec. 4115.32.  (A) Subject to section 4115.36 of the Revised 66654
Code, there is hereby created the state committee for the purchase 66655
of products and services provided by persons with severe 66656
disabilities. The committee shall be composed ex officio of the 66657
following persons, or their designees:66658

       (1) The directors of administrative services, mental health66659
mental health and addiction services, developmental disabilities, 66660
transportation, natural resources, and commerce;66661

       (2) The administrators of the rehabilitation services 66662
commission and the bureau of workers' compensation;66663

       (3) The secretary of state;66664

       (4) One representative of a purchasing department of a 66665
political subdivision who is designated by the governor.66666

       The governor shall appoint two representatives of a qualified 66667
nonprofit agency for persons with severe disabilities, and a 66668
person with a severe disability to the committee.66669

       (B) Within thirty days after September 29, 1995, the governor 66670
shall appoint the representatives of a qualified nonprofit agency 66671
for persons with severe disabilities to the committee for a term 66672
ending August 31, 1996. Thereafter, terms for such representatives 66673
are for three years, each term ending on the same day of the same 66674
month of the year as did the term that it succeeds. Each committee 66675
member shall serve from the date of the member's appointment until 66676
the end of the term for which the member was appointed. Vacancies 66677
shall be filled in the same manner provided for original 66678
appointments. Any member appointed to fill a vacancy occurring 66679
prior to the expiration date of the term for which the member's 66680
predecessor was appointed shall serve as a member for the 66681
remainder of that term. A member shall serve subsequent to the 66682
expiration of the member's term and shall continue to serve until 66683
the member's successor takes office.66684

       (C) Members of the committee shall serve without 66685
compensation. Except as otherwise provided in divisions (C)(1) and 66686
(2) of this section, members shall be reimbursed for actual and 66687
necessary expenses, including travel expenses, incurred while away 66688
from their homes or regular places of business and incurred while 66689
performing services for the committee.66690

       (1) The members listed in divisions (A)(1) to (3) of this 66691
section, or their designees, shall not be reimbursed for any 66692
expenses.66693

       (2) No member of the committee who is entitled to receive 66694
reimbursement for the performance of services for the committee 66695
from another agency or entity shall receive reimbursement from the 66696
committee.66697

       (D) The committee shall elect from among its members a 66698
chairperson. The committee may request from any agency of the 66699
state, political subdivision, or instrumentality of the state any 66700
information necessary to enable it to carry out the intent of 66701
sections 4115.31 to 4115.35 of the Revised Code. Upon request of 66702
the committee, the agency, subdivision, or instrumentality shall 66703
furnish the information to the chairperson of the committee.66704

       (E) The committee shall not later than one hundred eighty 66705
days following the close of each fiscal year transmit to the 66706
governor, the general assembly, and each qualified nonprofit 66707
agency for persons with severe disabilities a report that includes 66708
the names of the committee members serving during the preceding 66709
fiscal year, the dates of committee meetings in that year, and any 66710
recommendations for changes in sections 4115.31 to 4115.35 of the 66711
Revised Code that the committee determines are necessary.66712

       (F) The director of administrative services shall designate a 66713
subordinate to act as executive director of the committee and 66714
shall furnish other staff and clerical assistance, office space, 66715
and supplies required by the committee.66716

       Sec. 4117.06.  (A) The state employment relations board shall 66717
decide in each case the unit appropriate for the purposes of 66718
collective bargaining. The determination is final and conclusive 66719
and not appealable to the court.66720

       (B) The board shall determine the appropriateness of each 66721
bargaining unit and shall consider among other relevant factors: 66722
the desires of the employees; the community of interest; wages, 66723
hours, and other working conditions of the public employees; the 66724
effect of over-fragmentation; the efficiency of operations of the 66725
public employer; the administrative structure of the public 66726
employer; and the history of collective bargaining.66727

       (C) The board may determine a unit to be the appropriate unit 66728
in a particular case, even though some other unit might also be 66729
appropriate.66730

       (D) In addition, in determining the appropriate unit, the 66731
board shall not:66732

       (1) Decide that any unit is appropriate if the unit includes 66733
both professional and nonprofessional employees, unless a majority 66734
of the professional employees and a majority of the 66735
nonprofessional employees first vote for inclusion in the unit;66736

       (2) Include guards or correction officers at correctional or 66737
mental institutions, special police officers appointed in 66738
accordance with sections 5119.145119.08 and 5123.13 of the 66739
Revised Code, psychiatric attendants employed at mental health 66740
forensic facilities, youth leaders employed at juvenile correction 66741
facilities, or any public employee employed as a guard to enforce 66742
against other employees rules to protect property of the employer 66743
or to protect the safety of persons on the employer's premises in 66744
a unit with other employees;66745

       (3) Include members of a police or fire department or members 66746
of the state highway patrol in a unit with other classifications 66747
of public employees of the department;66748

       (4) Designate as appropriate a bargaining unit that contains 66749
more than one institution of higher education; nor shall it within 66750
any such institution of higher education designate as appropriate 66751
a unit where such designation would be inconsistent with the 66752
accreditation standards or interpretations of such standards, 66753
governing such institution of higher education or any department, 66754
school, or college thereof. For the purposes of this division, any 66755
branch or regional campus of a public institution of higher 66756
education is part of that institution of higher education.66757

       (5) Designate as appropriate a bargaining unit that contains 66758
employees within the jurisdiction of more than one elected county 66759
office holder, unless the county-elected office holder and the 66760
board of county commissioners agree to such other designation;66761

       (6) With respect to members of a police department, designate 66762
as appropriate a unit that includes rank and file members of the 66763
department with members who are of the rank of sergeant or above;66764

       (7) Except as otherwise provided by division (A)(3) of 66765
section 3314.10 or division (B) of section 3326.18 of the Revised 66766
Code, designate as appropriate a bargaining unit that contains 66767
employees from multiple community schools established under 66768
Chapter 3314. or multiple science, technology, engineering, and 66769
mathematics schools established under Chapter 3326. of the Revised 66770
Code. For purposes of this division, more than one unit may be 66771
designated within a single community school or science, 66772
technology, engineering, and mathematics school.66773

       This section shall not be deemed to prohibit multiunit 66774
bargaining.66775

       Sec. 4117.14.  (A) The procedures contained in this section 66776
govern the settlement of disputes between an exclusive 66777
representative and a public employer concerning the termination or 66778
modification of an existing collective bargaining agreement or 66779
negotiation of a successor agreement, or the negotiation of an 66780
initial collective bargaining agreement.66781

       (B)(1) In those cases where there exists a collective 66782
bargaining agreement, any public employer or exclusive 66783
representative desiring to terminate, modify, or negotiate a 66784
successor collective bargaining agreement shall:66785

       (a) Serve written notice upon the other party of the proposed 66786
termination, modification, or successor agreement. The party must 66787
serve the notice not less than sixty days prior to the expiration 66788
date of the existing agreement or, in the event the existing 66789
collective bargaining agreement does not contain an expiration 66790
date, not less than sixty days prior to the time it is proposed to 66791
make the termination or modifications or to make effective a 66792
successor agreement.66793

       (b) Offer to bargain collectively with the other party for 66794
the purpose of modifying or terminating any existing agreement or 66795
negotiating a successor agreement;66796

       (c) Notify the state employment relations board of the offer 66797
by serving upon the board a copy of the written notice to the 66798
other party and a copy of the existing collective bargaining 66799
agreement.66800

       (2) In the case of initial negotiations between a public 66801
employer and an exclusive representative, where a collective 66802
bargaining agreement has not been in effect between the parties, 66803
any party may serve notice upon the board and the other party 66804
setting forth the names and addresses of the parties and offering 66805
to meet, for a period of ninety days, with the other party for the 66806
purpose of negotiating a collective bargaining agreement.66807

       If the settlement procedures specified in divisions (B), (C), 66808
and (D) of this section govern the parties, where those procedures 66809
refer to the expiration of a collective bargaining agreement, it 66810
means the expiration of the sixty-day period to negotiate a 66811
collective bargaining agreement referred to in this subdivision, 66812
or in the case of initial negotiations, it means the ninety-day 66813
period referred to in this subdivision.66814

       (3) The parties shall continue in full force and effect all 66815
the terms and conditions of any existing collective bargaining 66816
agreement, without resort to strike or lock-out, for a period of 66817
sixty days after the party gives notice or until the expiration 66818
date of the collective bargaining agreement, whichever occurs 66819
later, or for a period of ninety days where applicable.66820

       (4) Upon receipt of the notice, the parties shall enter into 66821
collective bargaining.66822

       (C) In the event the parties are unable to reach an 66823
agreement, they may submit, at any time prior to forty-five days 66824
before the expiration date of the collective bargaining agreement, 66825
the issues in dispute to any mutually agreed upon dispute 66826
settlement procedure which supersedes the procedures contained in 66827
this section.66828

       (1) The procedures may include:66829

       (a) Conventional arbitration of all unsettled issues;66830

       (b) Arbitration confined to a choice between the last offer 66831
of each party to the agreement as a single package;66832

       (c) Arbitration confined to a choice of the last offer of 66833
each party to the agreement on each issue submitted;66834

       (d) The procedures described in division (C)(1)(a), (b), or 66835
(c) of this section and including among the choices for the 66836
arbitrator, the recommendations of the fact finder, if there are 66837
recommendations, either as a single package or on each issue 66838
submitted;66839

       (e) Settlement by a citizens' conciliation council composed 66840
of three residents within the jurisdiction of the public employer. 66841
The public employer shall select one member and the exclusive 66842
representative shall select one member. The two members selected 66843
shall select the third member who shall chair the council. If the 66844
two members cannot agree upon a third member within five days 66845
after their appointments, the board shall appoint the third 66846
member. Once appointed, the council shall make a final settlement 66847
of the issues submitted to it pursuant to division (G) of this 66848
section.66849

       (f) Any other dispute settlement procedure mutually agreed to 66850
by the parties.66851

       (2) If, fifty days before the expiration date of the 66852
collective bargaining agreement, the parties are unable to reach 66853
an agreement, any party may request the state employment relations 66854
board to intervene. The request shall set forth the names and 66855
addresses of the parties, the issues involved, and, if applicable, 66856
the expiration date of any agreement.66857

       The board shall intervene and investigate the dispute to 66858
determine whether the parties have engaged in collective 66859
bargaining.66860

       If an impasse exists or forty-five days before the expiration 66861
date of the collective bargaining agreement if one exists, the 66862
board shall appoint a mediator to assist the parties in the 66863
collective bargaining process.66864

       (3) Any time after the appointment of a mediator, either 66865
party may request the appointment of a fact-finding panel. Within 66866
fifteen days after receipt of a request for a fact-finding panel, 66867
the board shall appoint a fact-finding panel of not more than 66868
three members who have been selected by the parties in accordance 66869
with rules established by the board, from a list of qualified 66870
persons maintained by the board.66871

       (a) The fact-finding panel shall, in accordance with rules 66872
and procedures established by the board that include the 66873
regulation of costs and expenses of fact-finding, gather facts and 66874
make recommendations for the resolution of the matter. The board 66875
shall by its rules require each party to specify in writing the 66876
unresolved issues and its position on each issue to the 66877
fact-finding panel. The fact-finding panel shall make final 66878
recommendations as to all the unresolved issues.66879

       (b) The board may continue mediation, order the parties to 66880
engage in collective bargaining until the expiration date of the 66881
agreement, or both.66882

       (4) The following guidelines apply to fact-finding:66883

       (a) The fact-finding panel may establish times and place of 66884
hearings which shall be, where feasible, in the jurisdiction of 66885
the state.66886

       (b) The fact-finding panel shall conduct the hearing pursuant 66887
to rules established by the board.66888

       (c) Upon request of the fact-finding panel, the board shall 66889
issue subpoenas for hearings conducted by the panel.66890

       (d) The fact-finding panel may administer oaths.66891

       (e) The board shall prescribe guidelines for the fact-finding 66892
panel to follow in making findings. In making its recommendations, 66893
the fact-finding panel shall take into consideration the factors 66894
listed in divisions (G)(7)(a) to (f) of this section.66895

       (f) The fact-finding panel may attempt mediation at any time 66896
during the fact-finding process. From the time of appointment 66897
until the fact-finding panel makes a final recommendation, it 66898
shall not discuss the recommendations for settlement of the 66899
dispute with parties other than the direct parties to the dispute.66900

       (5) The fact-finding panel, acting by a majority of its 66901
members, shall transmit its findings of fact and recommendations 66902
on the unresolved issues to the public employer and employee 66903
organization involved and to the board no later than fourteen days 66904
after the appointment of the fact-finding panel, unless the 66905
parties mutually agree to an extension. The parties shall share 66906
the cost of the fact-finding panel in a manner agreed to by the 66907
parties.66908

       (6)(a) Not later than seven days after the findings and 66909
recommendations are sent, the legislative body, by a three-fifths 66910
vote of its total membership, and in the case of the public 66911
employee organization, the membership, by a three-fifths vote of 66912
the total membership, may reject the recommendations; if neither 66913
rejects the recommendations, the recommendations shall be deemed 66914
agreed upon as the final resolution of the issues submitted and a 66915
collective bargaining agreement shall be executed between the 66916
parties, including the fact-finding panel's recommendations, 66917
except as otherwise modified by the parties by mutual agreement. 66918
If either the legislative body or the public employee organization 66919
rejects the recommendations, the board shall publicize the 66920
findings of fact and recommendations of the fact-finding panel. 66921
The board shall adopt rules governing the procedures and methods 66922
for public employees to vote on the recommendations of the 66923
fact-finding panel.66924

        (b) As used in division (C)(6)(a) of this section, 66925
"legislative body" means the controlling board when the state or 66926
any of its agencies, authorities, commissions, boards, or other 66927
branch of public employment is party to the fact-finding process.66928

       (D) If the parties are unable to reach agreement within seven 66929
days after the publication of findings and recommendations from 66930
the fact-finding panel or the collective bargaining agreement, if 66931
one exists, has expired, then the:66932

       (1) Public employees, who are members of a police or fire 66933
department, members of the state highway patrol, deputy sheriffs, 66934
dispatchers employed by a police, fire, or sheriff's department or 66935
the state highway patrol or civilian dispatchers employed by a 66936
public employer other than a police, fire, or sheriff's department 66937
to dispatch police, fire, sheriff's department, or emergency 66938
medical or rescue personnel and units, an exclusive nurse's unit, 66939
employees of the state school for the deaf or the state school for 66940
the blind, employees of any public employee retirement system, 66941
corrections officers, guards at penal or mental institutions, 66942
special police officers appointed in accordance with sections66943
5119.145119.08 and 5123.13 of the Revised Code, psychiatric 66944
attendants employed at mental health forensic facilities, youth 66945
leaders employed at juvenile correctional facilities, or members 66946
of a law enforcement security force that is established and 66947
maintained exclusively by a board of county commissioners and 66948
whose members are employed by that board, shall submit the matter 66949
to a final offer settlement procedure pursuant to a board order 66950
issued forthwith to the parties to settle by a conciliator 66951
selected by the parties. The parties shall request from the board 66952
a list of five qualified conciliators and the parties shall select 66953
a single conciliator from the list by alternate striking of names. 66954
If the parties cannot agree upon a conciliator within five days 66955
after the board order, the board shall on the sixth day after its 66956
order appoint a conciliator from a list of qualified persons 66957
maintained by the board or shall request a list of qualified 66958
conciliators from the American arbitration association and appoint 66959
therefrom.66960

       (2) Public employees other than those listed in division 66961
(D)(1) of this section have the right to strike under Chapter 66962
4117. of the Revised Code provided that the employee organization 66963
representing the employees has given a ten-day prior written 66964
notice of an intent to strike to the public employer and to the 66965
board, and further provided that the strike is for full, 66966
consecutive work days and the beginning date of the strike is at 66967
least ten work days after the ending date of the most recent prior 66968
strike involving the same bargaining unit; however, the board, at 66969
its discretion, may attempt mediation at any time.66970

       (E) Nothing in this section shall be construed to prohibit 66971
the parties, at any time, from voluntarily agreeing to submit any 66972
or all of the issues in dispute to any other alternative dispute 66973
settlement procedure. An agreement or statutory requirement to 66974
arbitrate or to settle a dispute pursuant to a final offer 66975
settlement procedure and the award issued in accordance with the 66976
agreement or statutory requirement is enforceable in the same 66977
manner as specified in division (B) of section 4117.09 of the 66978
Revised Code.66979

       (F) Nothing in this section shall be construed to prohibit a 66980
party from seeking enforcement of a collective bargaining 66981
agreement or a conciliator's award as specified in division (B) of 66982
section 4117.09 of the Revised Code.66983

       (G) The following guidelines apply to final offer settlement 66984
proceedings under division (D)(1) of this section:66985

       (1) The parties shall submit to final offer settlement those 66986
issues that are subject to collective bargaining as provided by 66987
section 4117.08 of the Revised Code and upon which the parties 66988
have not reached agreement and other matters mutually agreed to by 66989
the public employer and the exclusive representative; except that 66990
the conciliator may attempt mediation at any time.66991

       (2) The conciliator shall hold a hearing within thirty days 66992
of the board's order to submit to a final offer settlement 66993
procedure, or as soon thereafter as is practicable.66994

       (3) The conciliator shall conduct the hearing pursuant to 66995
rules developed by the board. The conciliator shall establish the 66996
hearing time and place, but it shall be, where feasible, within 66997
the jurisdiction of the state. Not later than five calendar days 66998
before the hearing, each of the parties shall submit to the 66999
conciliator, to the opposing party, and to the board, a written 67000
report summarizing the unresolved issues, the party's final offer 67001
as to the issues, and the rationale for that position.67002

       (4) Upon the request by the conciliator, the board shall 67003
issue subpoenas for the hearing.67004

       (5) The conciliator may administer oaths.67005

       (6) The conciliator shall hear testimony from the parties and 67006
provide for a written record to be made of all statements at the 67007
hearing. The board shall submit for inclusion in the record and 67008
for consideration by the conciliator the written report and 67009
recommendation of the fact-finders.67010

       (7) After hearing, the conciliator shall resolve the dispute 67011
between the parties by selecting, on an issue-by-issue basis, from 67012
between each of the party's final settlement offers, taking into 67013
consideration the following:67014

       (a) Past collectively bargained agreements, if any, between 67015
the parties;67016

       (b) Comparison of the issues submitted to final offer 67017
settlement relative to the employees in the bargaining unit 67018
involved with those issues related to other public and private 67019
employees doing comparable work, giving consideration to factors 67020
peculiar to the area and classification involved;67021

       (c) The interests and welfare of the public, the ability of 67022
the public employer to finance and administer the issues proposed, 67023
and the effect of the adjustments on the normal standard of public 67024
service;67025

       (d) The lawful authority of the public employer;67026

       (e) The stipulations of the parties;67027

       (f) Such other factors, not confined to those listed in this 67028
section, which are normally or traditionally taken into 67029
consideration in the determination of the issues submitted to 67030
final offer settlement through voluntary collective bargaining, 67031
mediation, fact-finding, or other impasse resolution procedures in 67032
the public service or in private employment.67033

       (8) Final offer settlement awards made under Chapter 4117. of 67034
the Revised Code are subject to Chapter 2711. of the Revised Code.67035

       (9) If more than one conciliator is used, the determination 67036
must be by majority vote.67037

       (10) The conciliator shall make written findings of fact and 67038
promulgate a written opinion and order upon the issues presented 67039
to the conciliator, and upon the record made before the 67040
conciliator and shall mail or otherwise deliver a true copy 67041
thereof to the parties and the board.67042

       (11) Increases in rates of compensation and other matters 67043
with cost implications awarded by the conciliator may be effective 67044
only at the start of the fiscal year next commencing after the 67045
date of the final offer settlement award; provided that if a new 67046
fiscal year has commenced since the issuance of the board order to 67047
submit to a final offer settlement procedure, the awarded 67048
increases may be retroactive to the commencement of the new fiscal 67049
year. The parties may, at any time, amend or modify a 67050
conciliator's award or order by mutual agreement.67051

       (12) The parties shall bear equally the cost of the final 67052
offer settlement procedure.67053

       (13) Conciliators appointed pursuant to this section shall be 67054
residents of the state.67055

       (H) All final offer settlement awards and orders of the 67056
conciliator made pursuant to Chapter 4117. of the Revised Code are 67057
subject to review by the court of common pleas having jurisdiction 67058
over the public employer as provided in Chapter 2711. of the 67059
Revised Code. If the public employer is located in more than one 67060
court of common pleas district, the court of common pleas in which 67061
the principal office of the chief executive is located has 67062
jurisdiction.67063

       (I) The issuance of a final offer settlement award 67064
constitutes a binding mandate to the public employer and the 67065
exclusive representative to take whatever actions are necessary to 67066
implement the award.67067

       Sec. 4117.15.  (A) Whenever a strike by members of a police 67068
or fire department, members of the state highway patrol, deputy 67069
sheriffs, dispatchers employed by a police, fire, or sheriff's 67070
department or the state highway patrol or civilian dispatchers 67071
employed by a public employer other than a police, fire, or 67072
sheriff's department to dispatch police, fire, sheriff's 67073
department, or emergency medical or rescue personnel and units, an 67074
exclusive nurse's unit, employees of the state school for the deaf 67075
or the state school for the blind, employees of any public 67076
employee retirement system, correction officers, guards at penal 67077
or mental institutions, or special police officers appointed in 67078
accordance with sections 5119.145119.08 and 5123.13 of the 67079
Revised Code, psychiatric attendants employed at mental health 67080
forensic facilities, youth leaders employed at juvenile 67081
correctional facilities, or members of a law enforcement security 67082
force that is established and maintained exclusively by a board of 67083
county commissioners and whose members are employed by that board, 67084
a strike by other public employees during the pendency of the 67085
settlement procedures set forth in section 4117.14 of the Revised 67086
Code, or a strike during the term or extended term of a collective 67087
bargaining agreement occurs, the public employer may seek an 67088
injunction against the strike in the court of common pleas of the 67089
county in which the strike is located.67090

       (B) An unfair labor practice by a public employer is not a 67091
defense to the injunction proceeding noted in division (A) of this 67092
section. Allegations of unfair labor practices during the 67093
settlement procedures set forth in section 4117.14 of the Revised 67094
Code shall receive priority by the state employment relations 67095
board.67096

       (C) No public employee is entitled to pay or compensation 67097
from the public employer for the period engaged in any strike.67098

       Sec. 4121.50. Not later than July 1, 2012, the administrator 67099
of workers' compensation shall adopt rules in accordance with 67100
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement a coordinated 67101
services program for claimants under this chapter or Chapter 67102
4123., 4127., or 4131. of the Revised Code who are found to have 67103
obtained prescription drugs that were reimbursed pursuant to an 67104
order of the administrator or of the industrial commission or by a 67105
self-insuring employer but were obtained at a frequency or in an 67106
amount that is not medically necessary. The program shall be 67107
implemented in a manner that is substantially similar to the 67108
coordinated services programs established for the medicaid program 67109
under section 5111.085sections 5164.758 and 5111.1795167.13 of 67110
the Revised Code.67111

       Sec. 4123.32.  The administrator of workers' compensation, 67112
with the advice and consent of the bureau of workers' compensation 67113
board of directors, shall adopt rules with respect to the 67114
collection, maintenance, and disbursements of the state insurance 67115
fund including all of the following:67116

       (A) A rule providing that the premium security deposit 67117
collected from any employer entitles the employer to the benefits 67118
of this chapter for the remainder of the six months and also for 67119
an additional adjustment period of two months, and, thereafter, if 67120
the employer pays the premium due at the close of any six-month 67121
period, coverage shall be extended for an additional eight-month 67122
period beginning from the end of the six-month period for which 67123
the employer pays the premium due;67124

       (B) A rule providing for ascertaining the correctness of any 67125
employer's report of estimated or actual expenditure of wages and 67126
the determination and adjustment of proper premiums and the 67127
payment of those premiums by the employer for or during any period 67128
less than eight months and notwithstanding any payment or 67129
determination of premium made when exceptional conditions or 67130
circumstances in the judgment of the administrator justify the 67131
action;67132

       (C) Such special rules as the administrator considers 67133
necessary to safeguard the fund and that are just in the 67134
circumstances, covering the rates to be applied where one employer 67135
takes over the occupation or industry of another or where an 67136
employer first makes application for state insurance, and the 67137
administrator may require that if any employer transfers a 67138
business in whole or in part or otherwise reorganizes the 67139
business, the successor in interest shall assume, in proportion to 67140
the extent of the transfer, as determined by the administrator, 67141
the employer's account and shall continue the payment of all 67142
contributions due under this chapter;67143

       (D) A rule providing that an employer who employs an employee 67144
covered under the federal "Longshore and Harbor Workers' 67145
Compensation Act," 98 Stat. 1639, 33 U.S.C. 901 et seq., and this 67146
chapter and Chapter 4121. of the Revised Code shall be assessed a 67147
premium in accordance with the expenditure of wages, payroll, or 67148
both attributable to only labor performed and services provided by 67149
such an employee when the employee performs labor and provides 67150
services for which the employee is not eligible to receive 67151
compensation and benefits under that federal act.67152

       (E) A rule providing for all of the following:67153

       (1) If, within two months immediately after the expiration of 67154
the six-month period, an employer fails to file a report of the 67155
employer's actual payroll expenditures for the period, the premium 67156
found to be due from the employer for the period shall be 67157
increased in an amount equal to one per cent of the premium, but 67158
the increase shall not be less than three nor more than fifteen 67159
dollars;67160

       (2) The premium determined by the administrator to be due 67161
from an employer shall be payable on or before the end of the 67162
coverage period established by the premium security deposit, or 67163
within the time specified by the administrator if the period for 67164
which the advance premium has been paid is less than eight months. 67165
If an employer fails to pay the premium when due, the 67166
administrator may add a late fee penalty of not more than thirty 67167
dollars to the premium plus an additional penalty amount as 67168
follows:67169

       (a) For a premium from sixty-one to ninety days past due, the 67170
prime interest rate, multiplied by the premium due;67171

       (b) For a premium from ninety-one to one hundred twenty days 67172
past due, the prime interest rate plus two per cent, multiplied by 67173
the premium due;67174

       (c) For a premium from one hundred twenty-one to one hundred 67175
fifty days past due, the prime interest rate plus four per cent, 67176
multiplied by the premium due;67177

       (d) For a premium from one hundred fifty-one to one hundred 67178
eighty days past due, the prime interest rate plus six per cent, 67179
multiplied by the premium due;67180

       (e) For a premium from one hundred eighty-one to two hundred 67181
ten days past due, the prime interest rate plus eight per cent, 67182
multiplied by the premium due;67183

       (f) For each additional thirty-day period or portion thereof 67184
that a premium remains past due after it has remained past due for 67185
more than two hundred ten days, the prime interest rate plus eight 67186
per cent, multiplied by the premium due.67187

       (3) Notwithstanding the interest rates specified in division 67188
(E)(2) of this section, at no time shall the additional penalty 67189
amount assessed under division (E)(2) of this section exceed 67190
fifteen per cent of the premium due.67191

        (4) An employer may appeal a late fee penalty or additional 67192
penalty to an adjudicating committee pursuant to section 4123.291 67193
of the Revised Code.67194

       For purposes of division (E) of this section, "prime interest 67195
rate" means the average bank prime rate, and the administrator 67196
shall determine the prime interest rate in the same manner as a 67197
county auditor determines the average bank prime rate under 67198
section 929.02 of the Revised Code.67199

       (5) If the employer files an appropriate payroll report, 67200
within the time provided by law or within the time specified by 67201
the administrator if the period for which the employer paid an 67202
estimated premium is less than eight months, the employer shall 67203
not be in default and division (E)(2) of this section shall not 67204
apply if the employer pays the premiums within fifteen days after 67205
being first notified by the administrator of the amount due.67206

       (6) Any deficiencies in the amounts of the premium security 67207
deposit paid by an employer for any period shall be subject to an 67208
interest charge of six per cent per annum from the date the 67209
premium obligation is incurred. In determining the interest due on 67210
deficiencies in premium security deposit payments, a charge in 67211
each case shall be made against the employer in an amount equal to 67212
interest at the rate of six per cent per annum on the premium 67213
security deposit due but remaining unpaid sixty days after notice 67214
by the administrator.67215

       (7) Any interest charges or penalties provided for in 67216
divisions (E)(2) and (6) of this section shall be credited to the 67217
employer's account for rating purposes in the same manner as 67218
premiums.67219

       (F) A rule providing that each employer, on the occasion of 67220
instituting coverage under this chapter, shall submit a premium 67221
security deposit. The deposit shall be calculated equivalent to 67222
thirty per cent of the semiannual premium obligation of the 67223
employer based upon the employer's estimated expenditure for wages 67224
for the ensuing six-month period plus thirty per cent of an 67225
additional adjustment period of two months but only up to a 67226
maximum of one thousand dollars and not less than ten dollars. The 67227
administrator shall review the security deposit of every employer 67228
who has submitted a deposit which is less than the 67229
one-thousand-dollar maximum. The administrator may require any 67230
such employer to submit additional money up to the maximum of one 67231
thousand dollars that, in the administrator's opinion, reflects 67232
the employer's current payroll expenditure for an eight-month 67233
period.67234

       (G) A rule providing that each employer, on the occasion of 67235
instituting coverage under this chapter, shall submit an 67236
application for coverage that completely provides all of the 67237
information required for the administrator to establish coverage 67238
for that employer, and that the employer's failure to provide all 67239
of the information completely may be grounds for the administrator 67240
to deny coverage for that employer.67241

       (H) A rule providing that, in addition to any other remedies 67242
permitted in this chapter, the administrator may discontinue an 67243
employer's coverage if the employer fails to pay the premium due 67244
on or before the premium's due date.67245

       (I) A rule providing that if after a final adjudication it is 67246
determined that an employer has failed to pay an obligation, 67247
billing, account, or assessment that is greater than one thousand 67248
dollars on or before its due date, the administrator may 67249
discontinue the employer's coverage in addition to any other 67250
remedies permitted in this chapter, and that the administrator 67251
shall not discontinue an employer's coverage pursuant to this 67252
division prior to a final adjudication regarding the employer's 67253
failure to pay such obligation, billing, account, or assessment on 67254
or before its due date.67255

       (J) As used in divisions (H) and (I) of this section:67256

        (1) "Employer" has the same meaning as in division (B) of 67257
section 4123.01 of the Revised Code except that "employer" does 67258
not include the state, a state hospital, or a state university or 67259
college.67260

        (2) "State university or college" has the same meaning as in 67261
section 3345.12 of the Revised Code and also includes the Ohio 67262
agricultural research and development center and the Ohio state 67263
university cooperativeOSU extension service.67264

        (3) "State hospital" means the Ohio state university hospital 67265
and its ancillary facilities and the medical university of Ohio at 67266
Toledo hospital.67267

       Sec. 4131.03.  (A) For the relief of persons who are entitled 67268
to receive benefits by virtue of the federal act, there is hereby 67269
established a coal-workers pneumoconiosis fund, which shall be 67270
separate from the funds established and administered pursuant to 67271
Chapter 4123. of the Revised Code. The fund shall consist of 67272
premiums and other payments thereto by subscribers who elect to 67273
subscribe to the fund to insure the payment of benefits required 67274
by the federal act.67275

       (B)(1) The coal-workers pneumoconiosis fund shall be in the 67276
custody of the treasurer of state. The bureau of workers' 67277
compensation shall make disbursements from the fund to those 67278
persons entitled to payment therefrom and in the amounts required 67279
pursuant to sections 4131.01 to 4131.06 of the Revised Code. All 67280
investment earnings of the fund shall be credited to the fund.67281

       (2) Beginning July 1, 2011, and ending June 30, 2013, the 67282
director of natural resources annually may request the 67283
administrator of workers' compensation to transfer a portion of 67284
the investment earnings credited to the coal-workers 67285
pneumoconiosis fund as provided in this division. If the 67286
administrator receives a request from the director, the 67287
administrator, on the first day of July, or as soon as possible 67288
after that date, shall transfer from the investment earnings 67289
credited to the coal-workers pneumoconiosis fund an amount not to 67290
exceed three million dollars to the mine safety fund created in 67291
section 1561.24 of the Revised Code for the purposes specified in 67292
that section and an amount not to exceed one million five hundred 67293
thousand dollars to the coal mining administration and reclamation 67294
reserve fund created in section 1513.181 of the Revised Code for 67295
the purposes specified in that section. The administrator, with 67296
the advice and consent of the bureau of workers' compensation 67297
board of directors, shall adopt rules governing the transfer in 67298
order to ensure the solvency of the coal-workers pneumoconiosis 67299
fund. For that purpose, the rules may establish tests based on 67300
measures of net assets, liabilities, expenses, interest, dividend 67301
income, or other factors that the administrator determines 67302
appropriate that may be applied prior to a transfer. 67303

       (C) The administrator shall have the same powers to invest 67304
any of the surplus or reserve belonging to the coal-workers 67305
pneumoconiosis fund as are delegated to the administrator under 67306
section 4123.44 of the Revised Code with respect to the state 67307
insurance fund.67308

       (D) If the administrator determines that reinsurance of the 67309
risks of the coal-workers pneumoconiosis fund is necessary to 67310
assure solvency of the fund, the administrator may:67311

       (1) Enter into contracts for the purchase of reinsurance 67312
coverage of the risks of the fund with any company or agency 67313
authorized by law to issue contracts of reinsurance;67314

       (2) Pay the cost of reinsurance from the fund;67315

       (3) Include the costs of reinsurance as a liability and 67316
estimated liability of the fund.67317

       Sec. 4141.162.  (A) The director of job and family services 67318
shall establish an income and eligibility verification system that 67319
complies with section 1137 of the "Social Security Act." The 67320
programs included in the system are all of the following:67321

       (1) Unemployment compensation pursuant to section 3304 of the 67322
"Internal Revenue Code of 1954";67323

       (2) The state programs funded in part under part A of Title 67324
IV of the "Social Security Act" and administered under Chapters 67325
5107. and 5108. of the Revised Code;67326

       (3) Medicaid pursuant to Title XIX of the "Social Security 67327
Act"The medicaid program;67328

       (4) The supplemental nutrition assistance program pursuant to 67329
the Food and Nutrition Act of 2008 (7 U.S.C. 2011 et seq.;67330

       (5) Any Ohio program under a plan approved under Title I, X, 67331
XIV, or XVI of the "Social Security Act."67332

       Wage information provided by employers to the director shall 67333
be furnished to the income and eligibility verification system. 67334
Such information shall be used by the director to determine 67335
eligibility of individuals for unemployment compensation benefits 67336
and the amount of those benefits and used by the agencies that 67337
administer the programs identified in divisions (A)(2) to (5) of 67338
this section to determine or verify eligibility for or the amount 67339
of benefits under those programs.67340

       The director shall fully implement the use of wage 67341
information to determine eligibility for and the amount of 67342
unemployment compensation benefits by September 30, 1988.67343

       Information furnished under the system shall also be made 67344
available to the appropriate state or local child support 67345
enforcement agency for the purposes of an approved plan under 67346
Title IV-D of the "Social Security Act" and to the appropriate 67347
federal agency for the purposes of Titles II and XVI of the 67348
"Social Security Act."67349

       (B) The director shall adopt rules as necessary under which 67350
the department of job and family services and other state agencies 67351
that the director determines must participate in order to ensure 67352
compliance with section 1137 of the "Social Security Act" exchange 67353
information with each other or authorized federal agencies about 67354
individuals who are applicants for or recipients of benefits under 67355
any of the programs enumerated in division (A) of this section. 67356
The rules shall extend to all of the following:67357

       (1) A requirement for standardized formats and procedures for 67358
a participating agency to request and receive information about an 67359
individual, which information shall include the individual's 67360
social security number;67361

       (2) A requirement that all applicants for and recipients of 67362
benefits under any program enumerated in division (A) of this 67363
section be notified at the time of application, and periodically 67364
thereafter, that information available through the system may be 67365
shared with agencies that administer other benefit programs and 67366
utilized in establishing or verifying eligibility or benefit 67367
amounts under the other programs enumerated in division (A) of 67368
this section;67369

       (3) A requirement that information is made available only to 67370
the extent necessary to assist in the valid administrative needs 67371
of the program receiving the information and is targeted for use 67372
in ways which are most likely to be productive in identifying and 67373
preventing ineligibility and incorrect payments;67374

       (4) A requirement that information is adequately protected 67375
against unauthorized disclosures for purposes other than to 67376
establish or verify eligibility or benefit amounts under the 67377
programs enumerated in division (A) of this section;67378

       (5) A requirement that a program providing information is 67379
reimbursed by the program using the information for the actual 67380
costs of furnishing the information and that the director be 67381
reimbursed by the participating programs for any actual costs 67382
incurred in operating the system;67383

       (6) Requirements for any other matters necessary to ensure 67384
the effective, efficient, and timely exchange of necessary 67385
information or that the director determines must be addressed in 67386
order to ensure compliance with the requirements of section 1137 67387
of the "Social Security Act."67388

       (C) Each participating agency shall furnish to the income and 67389
eligibility verification system established in division (A) of 67390
this section that information, which the director, by rule, 67391
determines is necessary in order to comply with section 1137 of 67392
the "Social Security Act."67393

       (D) Notwithstanding the information disclosure requirements 67394
of this section and section 4141.21 and division (A) of section 67395
4141.284 of the Revised Code, the director shall administer those 67396
provisions of law so as to comply with section 1137 of the "Social 67397
Security Act."67398

       (E) Requirements in section 4141.21 of the Revised Code with 67399
respect to confidentiality of information obtained in the 67400
administration of Chapter 4141. of the Revised Code and any 67401
sanctions imposed for improper disclosure of such information 67402
shall apply to the redisclosure of information disclosed under 67403
this section.67404

       (F) The director of job and family services shall consult 67405
with the medicaid director and the director of administrative 67406
services regarding the implementation of this section.67407

       Sec. 4143.01.  As used in this chapter:67408

       (A) "Average weekly wage," "employment," "employer," 67409
"partially unemployed," and "totally unemployed" have the same 67410
meanings as in section 4141.01 of the Revised Code.67411

       (B) "Duration of unemployment" means the full period of 67412
unemployment next ensuing after a separation from any base period, 67413
as defined in rules adopted under section 4143.03 of the Revised 67414
Code, or subsequent work and until an individual has become 67415
reemployed in employment subject to this chapter, or the 67416
unemployment compensation act of another state, or of the United 67417
States, and until such individual has worked six weeks and for 67418
those weeks has earned or been paid remuneration equal to six 67419
times an average weekly wage of not less than the amount as 67420
determined in the rules adopted by the director of job and family 67421
services under section 4143.03 of the Revised Code.67422

       (C) "Grant year," with respect to an individual, means the 67423
fifty-two week period beginning with the first day of that week 67424
with respect to which the individual first files a valid 67425
application for a grant under this chapter, and thereafter the 67426
fifty-two week period beginning with the first day of that week 67427
with respect to which the individual next files a valid 67428
application after the termination of the individual's last 67429
preceding grant year, except that the application shall not be 67430
considered valid unless the individual has had employment in six 67431
weeks and has, since the beginning of the individual's previous 67432
grant year, in the employment earned three times the average 67433
weekly wage determined for the previous grant year.67434

       (D) "Qualifying week" means any calendar week in an 67435
individual's base period with respect to which the individual 67436
earns or is paid remuneration in employment.67437

       (E) "Seasonal employment" has the same meaning as in section 67438
4141.33 of the Revised Code.67439

       (F) "Unemployment compensation" has the same meaning as in 67440
section 4141.284 of the Revised Code.67441

       Sec. 4143.02.  There is hereby created the military spouse 67442
compensation grant program to provide compensation to an 67443
individual who leaves employment to accompany the individual's 67444
spouse on a military transfer. The director of job and family 67445
services shall administer the program in accordance with the 67446
requirements of this chapter.67447

       Sec. 4143.03.  (A) With respect to the military spouse 67448
compensation grant program created in section 4143.02 of the 67449
Revised Code, the director of job and family services, in 67450
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, shall adopt 67451
rules that establish all of the following:67452

       (1) Eligibility requirements an individual shall satisfy to 67453
receive a grant under section 4143.04 of the Revised Code, 67454
including the definition of an individual's "base period," which 67455
shall be similar to the requirements an individual must satisfy to 67456
receive unemployment compensation under Chapter 4141. of the 67457
Revised Code;67458

       (2) Procedures for an individual to follow to apply for a 67459
grant and procedures for the awarding and payment of grants in 67460
accordance with section 4143.04 of the Revised Code, that shall be 67461
similar to the manner in which claims for unemployment 67462
compensation are applied for, awarded, and paid pursuant to 67463
Chapter 4141. of the Revised Code;67464

       (3) Requirements to determine an individual's duration of 67465
unemployment;67466

       (4) Requirements for the reduction in grant amounts, that 67467
shall be similar to the requirements specified in sections 4141.31 67468
and 4141.312 of the Revised Code;67469

       (5) Procedures and requirements addressing child support 67470
obligations, that shall be similar to the procedures and 67471
requirements described in section 4141.284 of the Revised Code;67472

       (6) Requirements for eligibility for an individual who has 67473
seasonal employment, that shall be similar to the requirements 67474
described in section 4141.33 of the Revised Code;67475

       (7) Procedures to allow an individual to appeal a 67476
determination made by the director under this chapter in 67477
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, including the 67478
time limits in which the individual has to file an appeal;67479

       (8) Penalties for overpayments, and procedures to collect 67480
those overpayments, that shall be similar to penalties and 67481
procedures described in section 4141.35 of the Revised Code.67482

       (B) The director, in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 67483
Revised Code, may adopt any other rules as the director determines 67484
necessary to administer and enforce this chapter. Any rules 67485
adopted under this division shall be consistent with any similar 67486
provision addressed in Chapter 4141. of the Revised Code.67487

       (C) The director may apply any agreement the director has 67488
entered into pursuant to section 4141.43 of the Revised Code, to 67489
the extent permitted under an agreement, in administering this 67490
chapter, or the director may enter into similar agreements as the 67491
director determines necessary. The director shall cooperate with 67492
other agencies as described in division (A) of section 4141.35 of 67493
the Revised Code in the administration of this chapter.67494

       Sec. 4143.04.  (A) An individual is eligible to receive a 67495
grant under the military spouse compensation grant program created 67496
in section 4143.02 of the Revised Code for a week in which the 67497
individual satisfies all of the following requirements:67498

       (1) The individual's spouse is a member of the armed services 67499
of the United States, the spouse is the subject of a military 67500
transfer, and the individual left employment to accompany the 67501
individual's spouse.67502

       (2) The individual is not otherwise eligible for unemployment 67503
compensation;67504

       (3) The individual satisfies the eligibility requirements 67505
established by the director of job and family services in the 67506
rules the director adopts under section 4143.03 of the Revised 67507
Code.67508

       (B) The director may use the information the director obtains 67509
under section 4141.162 of the Revised Code to determine an 67510
individual's eligibility for a grant under this section.67511

       (C) All grants shall be paid through public employment 67512
offices in accordance with the rules as the director adopts under 67513
section 4143.03 of the Revised Code. The director shall use 67514
eligible funds to issue grants established in this section, except 67515
from the unemployment compensation fund established in section 67516
4141.09 of the Revised Code. 67517

       (D) A grant is payable to an eligible and qualified 67518
individual for each week the individual is totally unemployed at 67519
the weekly grant amount determined by the following:67520

       (1) Computing the individual's average weekly wage;67521

       (2) Determining the individual's dependency class under 67522
division (G) of this section;67523

       (3) Computing the individual's weekly grant amount to be 67524
fifty per cent of the individual's average weekly wage, that shall 67525
not exceed the following amounts:67526

       (a) For dependency class A, fifty per cent of the statewide 67527
average weekly wage as calculated under section 4141.30 of the 67528
Revised Code; 67529

       (b) For dependency class B, sixty per cent of the statewide 67530
average weekly wage;67531

       (c) For dependency class C, sixty-six and two-thirds per cent 67532
of the statewide average weekly wage.67533

       (E) A grant is payable to each partially unemployed 67534
individual otherwise eligible on account of each week the 67535
individual is partially unemployed in an amount equal to the 67536
individual's weekly grant amount determined under division (B) of 67537
this section less that part of the remuneration payable to the 67538
individual with respect to that week that is in excess of twenty 67539
per cent of the individual's weekly grant amount.67540

       (F) The total amount of a grant to which an individual is 67541
entitled in any grant year, whether for partial or total 67542
unemployment, or both, shall not exceed the lesser of the 67543
following two amounts:67544

       (1) An amount equal to twenty-six times the individual's 67545
weekly grant amount determined in accordance with division (B) of 67546
this section and this division;67547

       (2) An amount computed by taking the sum of twenty times the 67548
individual's weekly grant amount for the first twenty base period 67549
qualifying weeks plus one times the weekly grant amount for each 67550
additional qualifying week beyond the first twenty qualifying 67551
weeks in the individual's base period.67552

       (G)(1) As used in this division, "dependent" has the same 67553
meaning as in section 4141.30 of the Revised Code.67554

       (2) Each eligible and qualified individual shall be assigned 67555
a dependency class in accordance with the following schedule:67556

Class Description of dependents 67557
A No dependents, or has insufficient wages to qualify for more than the maximum weekly grant amount as provided under dependency class A 67558
B One or two dependents 67559
C Three or more dependents 67560

       (H) Any weekly grant amount that is not a multiple of one 67561
dollar shall be rounded to the next lower multiple of one dollar. 67562
Any grant paid under this section shall be calculated against the 67563
maximum total unemployment compensation payable to the individual 67564
in a benefit year under section 4141.30 of the Revised Code.67565

       (I) If permitted by the United States secretary of labor, a 67566
grant paid under this section shall be considered regular benefits 67567
for purposes of section 4141.301 of the Revised Code. If an 67568
individual who receives a grant under this section is eligible for 67569
extended benefits under section 4141.301 of the Revised Code, 67570
notwithstanding section 4141.09 or division (J) or (L) of section 67571
4141.301 of the Revised Code, extended benefits that may become 67572
payable to that individual that are chargeable to the account of 67573
an employer from whom the individual was separated under division 67574
(A) of this section shall not be charged to that account and shall 67575
be paid from the funds used to pay grants under this section.67576

       Sec. 4143.05.  The director of job and family services shall 67577
reduce the amount of any weekly grant amount paid under section 67578
4143.04 of the Revised Code in accordance with the rules the 67579
director adopts under section 4143.03 of the Revised Code. The 67580
director shall make any deduction from such a grant for purposes 67581
of federal income tax payment in a similar manner as the director 67582
makes that deduction under section 4141.321 of the Revised Code 67583
with respect to unemployment compensation.67584

       Sec. 4143.06.  An individual may appeal a determination made 67585
by the director of job and family services in accordance with the 67586
rules the director adopts under section 4143.03 of the Revised 67587
Code. The determination made upon completion of that appeals 67588
process is a final determination that may be appealed pursuant to 67589
section 119.12 of the Revised Code. 67590

       Sec. 4143.07.  (A) Except with respect to the rules adopted 67591
by the director of job and family services under section 4143.03 67592
of the Revised Code concerning child support obligations:67593

       (1) No agreement by an individual to waive the individual's 67594
right to a grant under this chapter is valid, nor shall a grant be 67595
assigned, released, or commuted.67596

       (2) A grant is exempt from all claims of creditors and from 67597
levy, execution, garnishment, attachment, and all other process or 67598
remedy for recovery or collection of a debt, and that exemption 67599
may not be waived.67600

       (B) No individual claiming a grant under this chapter shall 67601
be charged fees of any kind by the director in any proceeding 67602
under this chapter. Any individual claiming a grant may represent 67603
the individual's self personally or be represented by a person 67604
admitted to the practice of law or by a person not admitted to the 67605
practice of law in any proceeding under this chapter before the 67606
director, but no such counsel or agent representing an individual 67607
claiming a grant shall either charge or receive for those services 67608
more than an amount approved by the director. No person shall 67609
charge or receive anything of value in violation of this division.67610

       (C) No employee or other person shall violate this chapter, 67611
or do any act prohibited by this chapter, or fail to perform any 67612
duty lawfully enjoined, within the time prescribed by the 67613
director, for which no penalty has been specifically provided, or 67614
fail to obey any lawful order given or made by the director or any 67615
judgment or decree made by any court in connection with this 67616
chapter. Every day during which any person fails to comply with 67617
any order of the director or to perform any duty enjoined by this 67618
chapter constitutes a separate violation of the order or of this 67619
chapter.67620

       Sec. 4143.08.  The director of job and family services shall 67621
enforce this chapter in accordance with the rules the director 67622
adopts under section 4143.03 of the Revised Code. In administering 67623
and enforcing this chapter, the director shall give great weight 67624
and deference to decisions made under Chapter 4141. of the Revised 67625
Code with respect to unemployment compensation.67626

       The director may administer oaths, certify to official acts, 67627
take depositions, issue subpoenas, and compel the attendance and 67628
testimony of witnesses and the production of documents and 67629
testimony in connection with the administration of this chapter. 67630
In case of the refusal of a witness to attend or testify, or to 67631
produce documents, as to any matter regarding which the witness 67632
might be lawfully interrogated in the administration of this 67633
chapter, the court of common pleas of the county in which the 67634
person resides or is found, the court of appeals that has 67635
jurisdiction over the county in which the person resides or is 67636
found, or a judge thereof, upon application of the director, shall 67637
compel obedience by proceedings as for contempt as in case of like 67638
refusal to obey a similar order of the court.67639

       Sec. 4143.09.  This chapter shall be liberally construed.67640

       Sec. 4143.99.  (A) Whoever violates division (B) of section 67641
4143.07 of the Revised Code is guilty of a misdemeanor of the 67642
first degree.67643

       (B) Whoever violates division (C) of section 4143.07 of the 67644
Revised Code shall be fined not more than five hundred dollars for 67645
the first offense, and for each subsequent offense, the person 67646
shall be fined not less than twenty-five dollars nor more than one 67647
thousand dollars.67648

       Sec. 4301.10.  (A) The division of liquor control shall do 67649
all of the following:67650

       (1) Control the traffic in beer and intoxicating liquor in 67651
this state, including the manufacture, importation, and sale of 67652
beer and intoxicating liquor;67653

       (2) Grant or refuse permits for the manufacture, 67654
distribution, transportation, and sale of beer and intoxicating 67655
liquor and the sale of alcohol, as authorized or required by this 67656
chapter and Chapter 4303. of the Revised Code. A certificate, 67657
signed by the superintendent of liquor control and to which is 67658
affixed the official seal of the division, stating that it appears 67659
from the records of the division that no permit has been issued to 67660
the person specified in the certificate, or that a permit, if 67661
issued, has been revoked, canceled, or suspended, shall be 67662
received as prima-facie evidence of the facts recited in the 67663
certificate in any court or before any officer of this state.67664

       (3) Put into operation, manage, and control a system of state 67665
liquor stores for the sale of spirituous liquor at retail and to 67666
holders of permits authorizing the sale of spirituous liquor; 67667
however, the division shall not establish any drive-in state 67668
liquor stores; and by means of those types of stores, and any 67669
manufacturing plants, distributing and bottling plants, 67670
warehouses, and other facilities that it considers expedient, 67671
establish and maintain a state monopoly of the distribution of 67672
spirituous liquor and its sale in packages or containers; and for 67673
that purpose, manufacture, buy, import, possess, and sell 67674
spirituous liquors as provided in this chapter and Chapter 4303. 67675
of the Revised Code, and in the rules promulgated by the 67676
superintendent of liquor control pursuant to those chapters; lease 67677
or in any manner acquire the use of any land or building required 67678
for any of those purposes; purchase any equipment that is 67679
required; and borrow money to carry on its business, and issue, 67680
sign, endorse, and accept notes, checks, and bills of exchange; 67681
but all obligations of the division created under authority of 67682
this division shall be a charge only upon the moneys received by 67683
the division from the sale of spirituous liquor and its other 67684
business transactions in connection with the sale of spirituous 67685
liquor, and shall not be general obligations of the state;67686

       (4) Enforce the administrative provisions of this chapter and 67687
Chapter 4303. of the Revised Code, and the rules and orders of the 67688
liquor control commission and the superintendent relating to the 67689
manufacture, importation, transportation, distribution, and sale 67690
of beer or intoxicating liquor. The attorney general, any 67691
prosecuting attorney, and any prosecuting officer of a municipal 67692
corporation or a municipal court shall, at the request of the 67693
division of liquor control or the department of public safety, 67694
prosecute any person charged with the violation of any provision 67695
in those chapters or of any section of the Revised Code relating 67696
to the manufacture, importation, transportation, distribution, and 67697
sale of beer or intoxicating liquor.67698

       (5) Determine the locations of all state liquor stores and 67699
manufacturing, distributing, and bottling plants required in 67700
connection with those stores, subject to this chapter and Chapter 67701
4303. of the Revised Code;67702

       (6) Conduct inspections of liquor permit premises to 67703
determine compliance with the administrative provisions of this 67704
chapter and Chapter 4303. of the Revised Code and the rules 67705
adopted under those provisions by the liquor control commission.67706

       Except as otherwise provided in division (A)(6) of this 67707
section, those inspections may be conducted only during those 67708
hours in which the permit holder is open for business and only by 67709
authorized agents or employees of the division or by any peace 67710
officer, as defined in section 2935.01 of the Revised Code. 67711
Inspections may be conducted at other hours only to determine 67712
compliance with laws or commission rules that regulate the hours 67713
of sale of beer or intoxicating liquor and only if the 67714
investigator has reasonable cause to believe that those laws or 67715
rules are being violated. Any inspection conducted pursuant to 67716
division (A)(6) of this section is subject to all of the following 67717
requirements:67718

       (a) The only property that may be confiscated is contraband, 67719
as defined in section 2901.01 of the Revised Code, or property 67720
that is otherwise necessary for evidentiary purposes.67721

       (b) A complete inventory of all property confiscated from the 67722
premises shall be given to the permit holder or the permit 67723
holder's agent or employee by the confiscating agent or officer at 67724
the conclusion of the inspection. At that time, the inventory 67725
shall be signed by the confiscating agent or officer, and the 67726
agent or officer shall give the permit holder or the permit 67727
holder's agent or employee the opportunity to sign the inventory.67728

       (c) Inspections conducted pursuant to division (A)(6) of this 67729
section shall be conducted in a reasonable manner. A finding by 67730
any court of competent jurisdiction that an inspection was not 67731
conducted in a reasonable manner in accordance with this section 67732
or any rules adopted by the commission may be considered grounds 67733
for suppression of evidence. A finding by the commission that an 67734
inspection was not conducted in a reasonable manner in accordance 67735
with this section or any rules adopted by it may be considered 67736
grounds for dismissal of the commission case.67737

       If any court of competent jurisdiction finds that property 67738
confiscated as the result of an administrative inspection is not 67739
necessary for evidentiary purposes and is not contraband, as 67740
defined in section 2901.01 of the Revised Code, the court shall 67741
order the immediate return of the confiscated property, provided 67742
that property is not otherwise subject to forfeiture, to the 67743
permit holder. However, the return of this property is not grounds 67744
for dismissal of the case. The commission likewise may order the 67745
return of confiscated property if no criminal prosecution is 67746
pending or anticipated.67747

       (7) Delegate to any of its agents or employees any power of 67748
investigation that the division possesses with respect to the 67749
enforcement of any of the administrative laws relating to beer or 67750
intoxicating liquor, provided that this division does not 67751
authorize the division to designate any agent or employee to serve 67752
as an enforcement agent. The employment and designation of 67753
enforcement agents shall be within the exclusive authority of the 67754
director of public safety pursuant to sections 5502.13 to 5502.19 67755
of the Revised Code.67756

       (8) Collect the following fees:67757

       (a) A biennial fifty-dollar registration fee for each agent, 67758
solicitor, trade marketing professional, or salesperson, 67759
registered pursuant to section 4303.25 of the Revised Code, of a 67760
beer or intoxicating liquor manufacturer, supplier, broker, trade 67761
marketing company, or wholesale distributor doing business in this 67762
state;67763

       (b) A fifty-dollar product registration fee for each new beer 67764
or intoxicating liquor product sold in this state. The product 67765
registration fee also applies to products sold in this state by 67766
B-2a and S permit holders. The product registration fee shall be 67767
accompanied by a copy of the federal label and product approval 67768
for the new product.67769

       (c) An annual three-hundred-dollar supplier registration fee 67770
from each manufacturer or supplier that produces and ships into 67771
this state, or ships into this state, intoxicating liquor or beer, 67772
in addition to an initial application fee of one hundred dollars. 67773
A manufacturer that produces and ships beer or wine into this 67774
state and that holds only an S permit is exempt from the supplier 67775
registration fee. A manufacturer that produces and ships wine into 67776
this state and that holds a B-2a permit shall pay an annual 67777
seventy-six-dollar supplier registration fee. A manufacturer that 67778
produces and ships wine into this state and that does not hold 67779
either an S or a B-2a permit, but that produces less than two 67780
hundred fifty thousand gallons of wine per year and that is 67781
entitled to a tax credit under 27 C.F.R. 24.278 shall pay an 67782
annual seventy-six-dollar supplier registration fee. A B-2a or S 67783
permit holder that does not sell its wine to wholesale 67784
distributors of wine in this state and an S permit holder that 67785
does not sell its beer to wholesale distributors of beer in this 67786
state shall not be required to submit to the division territory 67787
designation forms.67788

       Each supplier, agent, solicitor, trade marketing 67789
professional, or salesperson registration issued under this 67790
division shall authorize the person named to carry on the activity 67791
specified in the registration. Each agent, solicitor, trade 67792
marketing professional, or salesperson registration is valid for 67793
two years or for the unexpired portion of a two-year registration 67794
period. Each supplier registration is valid for one year or for 67795
the unexpired portion of a one-year registration period. 67796
Registrations shall end on their respective uniform expiration 67797
date, which shall be designated by the division, and are subject 67798
to suspension, revocation, cancellation, or fine as authorized by 67799
this chapter and Chapter 4303. of the Revised Code.67800

       As used in this division, "trade marketing company" and 67801
"trade marketing professional" have the same meanings as in 67802
section 4301.171 of the Revised Code.67803

       (9) Establish a system of electronic data interchange within 67804
the division and regulate the electronic transfer of information 67805
and funds among persons and governmental entities engaged in the 67806
manufacture, distribution, and retail sale of alcoholic beverages;67807

       (10) Notify all holders of retail permits of the forms of 67808
permissible identification for purposes of division (A) of section 67809
4301.639 of the Revised Code;67810

       (11) Exercise all other powers expressly or by necessary 67811
implication conferred upon the division by this chapter and 67812
Chapter 4303. of the Revised Code, and all powers necessary for 67813
the exercise or discharge of any power, duty, or function 67814
expressly conferred or imposed upon the division by those 67815
chapters.67816

       (B) The division may do all of the following:67817

       (1) Sue, but may be sued only in connection with the 67818
execution of leases of real estate and the purchases and contracts 67819
necessary for the operation of the state liquor stores that are 67820
made under this chapter and Chapter 4303. of the Revised Code;67821

       (2) Enter into leases and contracts of all descriptions and 67822
acquire and transfer title to personal property with regard to the 67823
sale, distribution, and storage of spirituous liquor within the 67824
state;67825

       (3) Terminate at will any lease entered into pursuant to 67826
division (B)(2) of this section upon first giving ninety days' 67827
notice in writing to the lessor of its intention to do so;67828

       (4) Fix the wholesale and retail prices at which the various 67829
classes, varieties, and brands of spirituous liquor shall be sold 67830
by the division. Those retail prices shall be the same at all 67831
state liquor stores, except to the extent that a price 67832
differential is required to collect a county sales tax levied 67833
pursuant to section 5739.021 of the Revised Code and for which tax 67834
the tax commissioner has authorized prepayment pursuant to section 67835
5739.05 of the Revised Code. In fixing selling prices, the 67836
division shall compute an anticipated gross profit at least 67837
sufficient to provide in each calendar year all costs and expenses 67838
of the division and also an adequate working capital reserve for 67839
the division. The gross profit shall not exceed forty per cent of 67840
the retail selling price based on costs of the division, and in 67841
addition the sum required by section 4301.12 of the Revised Code 67842
to be paid into the state treasury. An amount equal to one and 67843
one-half per cent of that gross profit shall be paid into the 67844
statewide treatment and prevention fund created by section 4301.30 67845
of the Revised Code and be appropriated by the general assembly 67846
from the fund to the department of alcohol and drug addiction 67847
servicesmental health and addiction services as provided in 67848
section 4301.30 of the Revised Code.67849

       On spirituous liquor manufactured in this state from the 67850
juice of grapes or fruits grown in this state, the division shall 67851
compute an anticipated gross profit of not to exceed ten per cent. 67852

       The wholesale prices fixed under this division shall be at a 67853
discount of not less than six per cent of the retail selling 67854
prices as determined by the division in accordance with this 67855
section.67856

       (C) The division may approve the expansion or diminution of a 67857
premises to which a liquor permit has been issued and may adopt 67858
standards governing such an expansion or diminution.67859

       Sec. 4301.30.  (A) All fees collected by the division of 67860
liquor control shall be deposited in the state treasury to the 67861
credit of the undivided liquor permit fund, which is hereby 67862
created, at the time prescribed under section 4301.12 of the 67863
Revised Code. Each payment shall be accompanied by a statement 67864
showing separately the amount collected for each class of permits 67865
in each municipal corporation and in each township outside the 67866
limits of any municipal corporation in such township. 67867

       (B)(1) An amount equal to forty-five per cent of the fund 67868
shall be paid from the fund into the state liquor regulatory fund, 67869
which is hereby created in the state treasury. The state liquor 67870
regulatory fund shall be used to pay the operating expenses of the 67871
division of liquor control in administering and enforcing Title 67872
XLIII of the Revised Code and the operating expenses of the liquor 67873
control commission. Investment earnings of the fund shall be 67874
credited to the fund.67875

       (2) Whenever, in the judgment of the director of budget and 67876
management, the amount of money that is in the state liquor 67877
regulatory fund is in excess of the amount that is needed to pay 67878
the operating expenses of the division in administering and 67879
enforcing Title XLIII of the Revised Code and the operating 67880
expenses of the commission, the director shall credit the excess 67881
amount to the general revenue fund.67882

        (C) Twenty per cent of the undivided liquor permit fund shall 67883
be paid into the statewide treatment and prevention fund, which is 67884
hereby created in the state treasury. This amount shall be 67885
appropriated by the general assembly, together with an amount 67886
equal to one and one-half per cent of the gross profit of the 67887
division of liquor control derived under division (B)(4) of 67888
section 4301.10 of the Revised Code, to the department of alcohol 67889
and drug addiction servicesmental health and addiction services. 67890
In planning for the allocation of and in allocating these amounts 67891
for the purposes of Chapter 3793.5119. of the Revised Code, the 67892
department of alcohol and drug addiction services shall comply 67893
with the nondiscrimination provisions of Title VI of the Civil 67894
Rights Act of 1964, and any rules adopted under that act.67895

        (D) Thirty-five per cent of the undivided liquor permit fund 67896
shall be distributed by the superintendent of liquor control at 67897
quarterly calendar periods as follows:67898

       (1) To each municipal corporation, the aggregate amount shown 67899
by the statements to have been collected from permits in the 67900
municipal corporation, for the use of the general fund of the 67901
municipal corporation;67902

       (2) To each township, the aggregate amount shown by the 67903
statements to have been collected from permits in its territory, 67904
outside the limits of any municipal corporation located in the 67905
township, for the use of the general fund of the township, or for 67906
fire protection purposes, including buildings and equipment in the 67907
township or in an established fire district within the township, 67908
to the extent that the funds are derived from liquor permits 67909
within the territory comprising such fire district.67910

       (E) For the purpose of the distribution required by this 67911
section, E, H, and D permits covering boats or vessels are deemed 67912
to have been issued in the municipal corporation or township 67913
wherein the owner or operator of the vehicle, boat, vessel, or 67914
dining car equipment to which the permit relates has the owner's 67915
or operator's principal office or place of business within the 67916
state.67917

        (F) If the liquor control commission determines that the 67918
police or other officers of any municipal corporation or township 67919
entitled to share in distributions under this section are refusing 67920
or culpably neglecting to enforce this chapter and Chapter 4303. 67921
of the Revised Code, or the penal laws of this state relating to 67922
the manufacture, importation, transportation, distribution, and 67923
sale of beer and intoxicating liquors, or if the prosecuting 67924
officer of a municipal corporation or a municipal court fails to 67925
comply with the request of the commission authorized by division 67926
(A)(4) of section 4301.10 of the Revised Code, the commission, by 67927
certified mail, may notify the chief executive officer of the 67928
municipal corporation or the board of township trustees of the 67929
township of the failure and require the immediate cooperation of 67930
the responsible officers of the municipal corporation or township 67931
with the division of liquor control in the enforcement of those 67932
chapters and penal laws. Within thirty days after the notice is 67933
served, the commission shall determine whether the requirement has 67934
been complied with. If the commission determines that the 67935
requirement has not been complied with, it may issue an order to 67936
the superintendent to withhold the distributive share of the 67937
municipal corporation or township until further order of the 67938
commission. This action of the commission is reviewable within 67939
thirty days thereafter in the court of common pleas of Franklin 67940
county.67941

       (G) All fees collected by the division of liquor control from 67942
the issuance or renewal of B-2a and S permits, and paid by B-2a 67943
and S permit holders who do not also hold A-2 permits, shall be 67944
deposited in the state treasury to the credit of the state liquor 67945
regulatory fund. Once during each fiscal year, an amount equal to 67946
fifty per cent of the fees collected shall be paid from the state 67947
liquor regulatory fund into the general revenue fund.67948

       Sec. 4301.43.  (A) As used in sections 4301.43 to 4301.50 of 67949
the Revised Code:67950

       (1) "Gallon" or "wine gallon" means one hundred twenty-eight 67951
fluid ounces.67952

       (2) "Sale" or "sell" includes exchange, barter, gift, 67953
distribution, and, except with respect to A-4 permit holders, 67954
offer for sale.67955

       (B) For the purposes of providing revenues for the support of 67956
the state and encouraging the grape industries in the state, a tax 67957
is hereby levied on the sale or distribution of wine in Ohio, 67958
except for known sacramental purposes, at the rate of thirty cents 67959
per wine gallon for wine containing not less than four per cent of 67960
alcohol by volume and not more than fourteen per cent of alcohol 67961
by volume, ninety-eight cents per wine gallon for wine containing 67962
more than fourteen per cent but not more than twenty-one per cent 67963
of alcohol by volume, one dollar and eight cents per wine gallon 67964
for vermouth, and one dollar and forty-eight cents per wine gallon 67965
for sparkling and carbonated wine and champagne, the tax to be 67966
paid by the holders of A-2 and B-5 permits or by any other person 67967
selling or distributing wine upon which no tax has been paid. From 67968
the tax paid under this section on wine, vermouth, and sparkling 67969
and carbonated wine and champagne, the treasurer of state shall 67970
credit to the Ohio grape industries fund created under section 67971
924.54 of the Revised Code a sum equal to one cent per gallon for 67972
each gallon upon which the tax is paid.67973

       (C) For the purpose of providing revenues for the support of 67974
the state, there is hereby levied a tax on prepared and bottled 67975
highballs, cocktails, cordials, and other mixed beverages at the 67976
rate of one dollar and twenty cents per wine gallon to be paid by 67977
holders of A-4 permits or by any other person selling or 67978
distributing those products upon which no tax has been paid. Only 67979
one sale of the same article shall be used in computing the amount 67980
of tax due. The tax on mixed beverages to be paid by holders of 67981
A-4 permits under this section shall not attach until the 67982
ownership of the mixed beverage is transferred for valuable 67983
consideration to a wholesaler or retailer, and no payment of the 67984
tax shall be required prior to that time.67985

       (D) During the period of July 1, 20112013, through June 30, 67986
20132015, from the tax paid under this section on wine, vermouth, 67987
and sparkling and carbonated wine and champagne, the treasurer of 67988
state shall credit to the Ohio grape industries fund created under 67989
section 924.54 of the Revised Code a sum equal to two cents per 67990
gallon upon which the tax is paid. The amount credited under this 67991
division is in addition to the amount credited to the Ohio grape 67992
industries fund under division (B) of this section.67993

       (E) For the purpose of providing revenues for the support of 67994
the state, there is hereby levied a tax on cider at the rate of 67995
twenty-four cents per wine gallon to be paid by the holders of A-2 67996
and B-5 permits or by any other person selling or distributing 67997
cider upon which no tax has been paid. Only one sale of the same 67998
article shall be used in computing the amount of the tax due.67999

       Sec. 4305.131.  (A) If any permit holder fails to pay the 68000
taxes levied by section 4301.42, 4301.43, 4301.432, or 4305.01 of 68001
the Revised Code in the manner prescribed by section 4303.33 of 68002
the Revised Code, or by section 4301.421 or 4301.424 of the 68003
Revised Code in the manner prescribed in section 4301.422 of the 68004
Revised Code, and by the rules of the tax commissioner, the 68005
commissioner may make an assessment against the permit holder 68006
based upon any information in the commissioner's possession.68007

       No assessment shall be made against any permit holder for any 68008
taxes imposed by section 4301.42, 4301.421, 4301.424, 4301.43, 68009
4301.432, or 4305.01 of the Revised Code more than three years 68010
after the last day of the calendar month in which the sale was 68011
made or more than three years after the return for that period is 68012
filed, whichever is later. This section does not bar an assessment 68013
against any permit holder or registrant as provided in section 68014
4303.331 of the Revised Code who fails to file a return as 68015
required by section 4301.422 or 4303.33 of the Revised Code, or 68016
who files a fraudulent return.68017

       A penalty of up to thirty per cent may be added to the amount 68018
of every assessment made under this section. The commissioner may 68019
adopt rules providing for the imposition and remission of 68020
penalties added to assessments made under this section.68021

       The commissioner shall give the party assessed written notice 68022
of the assessment in the manner provided in section 5703.37 of the 68023
Revised Code. With the notice, the commissioner shall provide 68024
instructions on how to petition for reassessment and request a 68025
hearing on the petition.68026

       (B) Unless the party assessed files with the tax commissioner 68027
within sixty days after service of the notice of assessment, 68028
either personally or by certified mail, a written petition for 68029
reassessment, signed by the party assessed or that party's 68030
authorized agent having knowledge of the facts, the assessment 68031
becomes final and the amount of the assessment is due and payable 68032
from the party assessed to the treasurer of state. The petition 68033
shall indicate the objections of the party assessed, but 68034
additional objections may be raised in writing if received by the 68035
commissioner prior to the date shown on the final determination. 68036
If the petition has been properly filed, the commissioner shall 68037
proceed under section 5703.60 of the Revised Code.68038

       (C) After an assessment becomes final, if any portion of the 68039
assessment remains unpaid, including accrued interest, a certified 68040
copy of the tax commissioner's entry making the assessment final 68041
may be filed in the office of the clerk of the court of common 68042
pleas in the county in which the permit holder's place of business 68043
is located or the county in which the party assessed resides. If 68044
the party assessed maintains no place of business in this state 68045
and is not a resident of this state, the certified copy of the 68046
entry may be filed in the office of the clerk of the court of 68047
common pleas of Franklin county.68048

       Immediately upon the filing of the entry, the clerk shall 68049
enter a judgment for the state against the party assessed in the 68050
amount shown on the entry. The judgment may be filed by the clerk 68051
in a loose-leaf book entitled "special judgments for state beer 68052
and liquor sales taxes," and shall have the same effect as other 68053
judgments. Execution shall issue upon the judgment upon the 68054
request of the commissioner, and all laws applicable to sales on 68055
execution shall apply to sales made under the judgment, except as 68056
otherwise provided in this chapter and Chapters 4301. and 4307. of 68057
the Revised Code.68058

       The portion ofIf the assessment is not paid in its entirety68059
within sixty days after the day the assessment was issued, the 68060
portion of the assessment consisting of tax due shall bear 68061
interest at the rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of 68062
the Revised Code from the day the commissioner issues the 68063
assessment until it is paid or until it is certified to the 68064
attorney general for collection under section 131.02 of the 68065
Revised Code, whichever comes first. If the unpaid portion of the 68066
assessment is certified to the attorney general for collection, 68067
the entire unpaid portion of the assessment shall bear interest at 68068
the rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of the Revised 68069
Code from the date of certification until the date it is paid in 68070
its entirety. Interest shall be paid in the same manner as the tax 68071
and may be collected by the issuance of an assessment under this 68072
section.68073

       (D) All money collected under this section shall be 68074
considered as revenue arising from the taxes imposed by sections 68075
4301.42, 4301.421, 4301.424, 4301.43, 4301.432, and 4305.01 of the 68076
Revised Code.68077

       Sec. 4501.01.  As used in this chapter and Chapters 4503., 68078
4505., 4507., 4509., 4510., 4511., 4513., 4515., and 4517. of the 68079
Revised Code, and in the penal laws, except as otherwise provided:68080

       (A) "Vehicles" means everything on wheels or runners, 68081
including motorized bicycles, but does not mean electric personal 68082
assistive mobility devices, vehicles that are operated exclusively 68083
on rails or tracks or from overhead electric trolley wires, and 68084
vehicles that belong to any police department, municipal fire 68085
department, or volunteer fire department, or that are used by such 68086
a department in the discharge of its functions.68087

       (B) "Motor vehicle" means any vehicle, including mobile homes 68088
and recreational vehicles, that is propelled or drawn by power 68089
other than muscular power or power collected from overhead 68090
electric trolley wires. "Motor vehicle" does not include utility 68091
vehicles as defined in division (VV) of this section, motorized 68092
bicycles, road rollers, traction engines, power shovels, power 68093
cranes, and other equipment used in construction work and not 68094
designed for or employed in general highway transportation, 68095
well-drilling machinery, ditch-digging machinery, farm machinery, 68096
and trailers that are designed and used exclusively to transport a 68097
boat between a place of storage and a marina, or in and around a 68098
marina, when drawn or towed on a public road or highway for a 68099
distance of no more than ten miles and at a speed of twenty-five 68100
miles per hour or less.68101

       (C) "Agricultural tractor" and "traction engine" mean any 68102
self-propelling vehicle that is designed or used for drawing other 68103
vehicles or wheeled machinery, but has no provisions for carrying 68104
loads independently of such other vehicles, and that is used 68105
principally for agricultural purposes.68106

       (D) "Commercial tractor," except as defined in division (C) 68107
of this section, means any motor vehicle that has motive power and 68108
either is designed or used for drawing other motor vehicles, or is 68109
designed or used for drawing another motor vehicle while carrying 68110
a portion of the other motor vehicle or its load, or both.68111

       (E) "Passenger car" means any motor vehicle that is designed 68112
and used for carrying not more than nine persons and includes any 68113
motor vehicle that is designed and used for carrying not more than 68114
fifteen persons in a ridesharing arrangement.68115

       (F) "Collector's vehicle" means any motor vehicle or 68116
agricultural tractor or traction engine that is of special 68117
interest, that has a fair market value of one hundred dollars or 68118
more, whether operable or not, and that is owned, operated, 68119
collected, preserved, restored, maintained, or used essentially as 68120
a collector's item, leisure pursuit, or investment, but not as the 68121
owner's principal means of transportation. "Licensed collector's 68122
vehicle" means a collector's vehicle, other than an agricultural 68123
tractor or traction engine, that displays current, valid license 68124
tags issued under section 4503.45 of the Revised Code, or a 68125
similar type of motor vehicle that displays current, valid license 68126
tags issued under substantially equivalent provisions in the laws 68127
of other states.68128

       (G) "Historical motor vehicle" means any motor vehicle that 68129
is over twenty-five years old and is owned solely as a collector's 68130
item and for participation in club activities, exhibitions, tours, 68131
parades, and similar uses, but that in no event is used for 68132
general transportation.68133

       (H) "Noncommercial motor vehicle" means any motor vehicle, 68134
including a farm truck as defined in section 4503.04 of the 68135
Revised Code, that is designed by the manufacturer to carry a load 68136
of no more than one ton and is used exclusively for purposes other 68137
than engaging in business for profit.68138

       (I) "Bus" means any motor vehicle that has motor power and is 68139
designed and used for carrying more than nine passengers, except 68140
any motor vehicle that is designed and used for carrying not more 68141
than fifteen passengers in a ridesharing arrangement.68142

       (J) "Commercial car" or "truck" means any motor vehicle that 68143
has motor power and is designed and used for carrying merchandise 68144
or freight, or that is used as a commercial tractor.68145

       (K) "Bicycle" means every device, other than a tricycle that 68146
is designed solely for use as a play vehicle by a child, that is 68147
propelled solely by human power upon which any person may ride, 68148
and that has two tandem wheels, or one wheel in front and two 68149
wheels in the rear, or two wheels in the front and one wheel in 68150
the rear, any of which is more than fourteen inches in diameter.68151

       (L) "Motorized bicycle" means any vehicle that either has two 68152
tandem wheels or one wheel in the front and two wheels in the 68153
rear, that is capable of being pedaled, and that is equipped with 68154
a helper motor of not more than fifty cubic centimeters piston 68155
displacement that produces no more than one brake horsepower and 68156
is capable of propelling the vehicle at a speed of no greater than 68157
twenty miles per hour on a level surface.68158

       (M) "Trailer" means any vehicle without motive power that is 68159
designed or used for carrying property or persons wholly on its 68160
own structure and for being drawn by a motor vehicle, and includes 68161
any such vehicle that is formed by or operated as a combination of 68162
a semitrailer and a vehicle of the dolly type such as that 68163
commonly known as a trailer dolly, a vehicle used to transport 68164
agricultural produce or agricultural production materials between 68165
a local place of storage or supply and the farm when drawn or 68166
towed on a public road or highway at a speed greater than 68167
twenty-five miles per hour, and a vehicle that is designed and 68168
used exclusively to transport a boat between a place of storage 68169
and a marina, or in and around a marina, when drawn or towed on a 68170
public road or highway for a distance of more than ten miles or at 68171
a speed of more than twenty-five miles per hour. "Trailer" does 68172
not include a manufactured home or travel trailer.68173

       (N) "Noncommercial trailer" means any trailer, except a 68174
travel trailer or trailer that is used to transport a boat as 68175
described in division (B) of this section, but, where applicable, 68176
includes a vehicle that is used to transport a boat as described 68177
in division (M) of this section, that has a gross weight of no 68178
more than ten thousand pounds, and that is used exclusively for 68179
purposes other than engaging in business for a profit, such as the 68180
transportation of personal items for personal or recreational 68181
purposes.68182

       (O) "Mobile home" means a building unit or assembly of closed 68183
construction that is fabricated in an off-site facility, is more 68184
than thirty-five body feet in length or, when erected on site, is 68185
three hundred twenty or more square feet, is built on a permanent 68186
chassis, is transportable in one or more sections, and does not 68187
qualify as a manufactured home as defined in division (C)(4) of 68188
section 3781.06 of the Revised Code or as an industrialized unit 68189
as defined in division (C)(3) of section 3781.06 of the Revised 68190
Code.68191

       (P) "Semitrailer" means any vehicle of the trailer type that 68192
does not have motive power and is so designed or used with another 68193
and separate motor vehicle that in operation a part of its own 68194
weight or that of its load, or both, rests upon and is carried by 68195
the other vehicle furnishing the motive power for propelling 68196
itself and the vehicle referred to in this division, and includes, 68197
for the purpose only of registration and taxation under those 68198
chapters, any vehicle of the dolly type, such as a trailer dolly, 68199
that is designed or used for the conversion of a semitrailer into 68200
a trailer.68201

       (Q) "Recreational vehicle" means a vehicular portable 68202
structure that meets all of the following conditions:68203

       (1) It is designed for the sole purpose of recreational 68204
travel.68205

       (2) It is not used for the purpose of engaging in business 68206
for profit.68207

       (3) It is not used for the purpose of engaging in intrastate 68208
commerce.68209

       (4) It is not used for the purpose of commerce as defined in 68210
49 C.F.R. 383.5, as amended.68211

       (5) It is not regulated by the public utilities commission 68212
pursuant to Chapter 4905., 4921., or 4923. of the Revised Code.68213

       (6) It is classed as one of the following:68214

       (a) "Travel trailer" means a nonself-propelled recreational 68215
vehicle that does not exceed an overall length of thirty-five 68216
feet, exclusive of bumper and tongue or coupling, and contains 68217
less than three hundred twenty square feet of space when erected 68218
on site. "Travel trailer" includes a tent-type fold-out camping 68219
trailer as defined in section 4517.01 of the Revised Code.68220

       (b) "Motor home" means a self-propelled recreational vehicle 68221
that has no fifth wheel and is constructed with permanently 68222
installed facilities for cold storage, cooking and consuming of 68223
food, and for sleeping.68224

       (c) "Truck camper" means a nonself-propelled recreational 68225
vehicle that does not have wheels for road use and is designed to 68226
be placed upon and attached to a motor vehicle. "Truck camper" 68227
does not include truck covers that consist of walls and a roof, 68228
but do not have floors and facilities enabling them to be used as 68229
a dwelling.68230

       (d) "Fifth wheel trailer" means a vehicle that is of such 68231
size and weight as to be movable without a special highway permit, 68232
that has a gross trailer area of four hundred square feet or less, 68233
that is constructed with a raised forward section that allows a 68234
bi-level floor plan, and that is designed to be towed by a vehicle 68235
equipped with a fifth-wheel hitch ordinarily installed in the bed 68236
of a truck.68237

       (e) "Park trailer" means a vehicle that is commonly known as 68238
a park model recreational vehicle, meets the American national 68239
standard institute standard A119.5 (1988) for park trailers, is 68240
built on a single chassis, has a gross trailer area of four 68241
hundred square feet or less when set up, is designed for seasonal 68242
or temporary living quarters, and may be connected to utilities 68243
necessary for the operation of installed features and appliances.68244

       (R) "Pneumatic tires" means tires of rubber and fabric or 68245
tires of similar material, that are inflated with air.68246

       (S) "Solid tires" means tires of rubber or similar elastic 68247
material that are not dependent upon confined air for support of 68248
the load.68249

       (T) "Solid tire vehicle" means any vehicle that is equipped 68250
with two or more solid tires.68251

       (U) "Farm machinery" means all machines and tools that are 68252
used in the production, harvesting, and care of farm products, and 68253
includes trailers that are used to transport agricultural produce 68254
or agricultural production materials between a local place of 68255
storage or supply and the farm, agricultural tractors, threshing 68256
machinery, hay-baling machinery, corn shellers, hammermills, and 68257
machinery used in the production of horticultural, agricultural, 68258
and vegetable products.68259

       (V) "Owner" includes any person or firm, other than a 68260
manufacturer or dealer, that has title to a motor vehicle, except 68261
that, in sections 4505.01 to 4505.19 of the Revised Code, "owner" 68262
includes in addition manufacturers and dealers.68263

       (W) "Manufacturer" and "dealer" include all persons and firms 68264
that are regularly engaged in the business of manufacturing, 68265
selling, displaying, offering for sale, or dealing in motor 68266
vehicles, at an established place of business that is used 68267
exclusively for the purpose of manufacturing, selling, displaying, 68268
offering for sale, or dealing in motor vehicles. A place of 68269
business that is used for manufacturing, selling, displaying, 68270
offering for sale, or dealing in motor vehicles shall be deemed to 68271
be used exclusively for those purposes even though snowmobiles or 68272
all-purpose vehicles are sold or displayed for sale thereat, even 68273
though farm machinery is sold or displayed for sale thereat, or 68274
even though repair, accessory, gasoline and oil, storage, parts, 68275
service, or paint departments are maintained thereat, or, in any 68276
county having a population of less than seventy-five thousand at 68277
the last federal census, even though a department in a place of 68278
business is used to dismantle, salvage, or rebuild motor vehicles 68279
by means of used parts, if such departments are operated for the 68280
purpose of furthering and assisting in the business of 68281
manufacturing, selling, displaying, offering for sale, or dealing 68282
in motor vehicles. Places of business or departments in a place of 68283
business used to dismantle, salvage, or rebuild motor vehicles by 68284
means of using used parts are not considered as being maintained 68285
for the purpose of assisting or furthering the manufacturing, 68286
selling, displaying, and offering for sale or dealing in motor 68287
vehicles.68288

       (X) "Operator" includes any person who drives or operates a 68289
motor vehicle upon the public highways.68290

       (Y) "Chauffeur" means any operator who operates a motor 68291
vehicle, other than a taxicab, as an employee for hire; or any 68292
operator whether or not the owner of a motor vehicle, other than a 68293
taxicab, who operates such vehicle for transporting, for gain, 68294
compensation, or profit, either persons or property owned by 68295
another. Any operator of a motor vehicle who is voluntarily 68296
involved in a ridesharing arrangement is not considered an 68297
employee for hire or operating such vehicle for gain, 68298
compensation, or profit.68299

       (Z) "State" includes the territories and federal districts of 68300
the United States, and the provinces of Canada.68301

       (AA) "Public roads and highways" for vehicles includes all 68302
public thoroughfares, bridges, and culverts.68303

       (BB) "Manufacturer's number" means the manufacturer's 68304
original serial number that is affixed to or imprinted upon the 68305
chassis or other part of the motor vehicle.68306

       (CC) "Motor number" means the manufacturer's original number 68307
that is affixed to or imprinted upon the engine or motor of the 68308
vehicle.68309

       (DD) "Distributor" means any person who is authorized by a 68310
motor vehicle manufacturer to distribute new motor vehicles to 68311
licensed motor vehicle dealers at an established place of business 68312
that is used exclusively for the purpose of distributing new motor 68313
vehicles to licensed motor vehicle dealers, except when the 68314
distributor also is a new motor vehicle dealer, in which case the 68315
distributor may distribute at the location of the distributor's 68316
licensed dealership.68317

       (EE) "Ridesharing arrangement" means the transportation of 68318
persons in a motor vehicle where the transportation is incidental 68319
to another purpose of a volunteer driver and includes ridesharing 68320
arrangements known as carpools, vanpools, and buspools.68321

       (FF) "Apportionable vehicle" means any vehicle that is used 68322
or intended for use in two or more international registration plan 68323
member jurisdictions that allocate or proportionally register 68324
vehicles, that is used for the transportation of persons for hire 68325
or designed, used, or maintained primarily for the transportation 68326
of property, and that meets any of the following qualifications:68327

       (1) Is a power unit having a gross vehicle weight in excess 68328
of twenty-six thousand pounds;68329

       (2) Is a power unit having three or more axles, regardless of 68330
the gross vehicle weight;68331

       (3) Is a combination vehicle with a gross vehicle weight in 68332
excess of twenty-six thousand pounds.68333

       "Apportionable vehicle" does not include recreational 68334
vehicles, vehicles displaying restricted plates, city pick-up and 68335
delivery vehicles, buses used for the transportation of chartered 68336
parties, or vehicles owned and operated by the United States, this 68337
state, or any political subdivisions thereof.68338

       (GG) "Chartered party" means a group of persons who contract 68339
as a group to acquire the exclusive use of a passenger-carrying 68340
motor vehicle at a fixed charge for the vehicle in accordance with 68341
the carrier's tariff, lawfully on file with the United States 68342
department of transportation, for the purpose of group travel to a 68343
specified destination or for a particular itinerary, either agreed 68344
upon in advance or modified by the chartered group after having 68345
left the place of origin.68346

       (HH) "International registration plan" means a reciprocal 68347
agreement of member jurisdictions that is endorsed by the American 68348
association of motor vehicle administrators, and that promotes and 68349
encourages the fullest possible use of the highway system by 68350
authorizing apportioned registration of fleets of vehicles and 68351
recognizing registration of vehicles apportioned in member 68352
jurisdictions.68353

       (II) "Restricted plate" means a license plate that has a 68354
restriction of time, geographic area, mileage, or commodity, and 68355
includes license plates issued to farm trucks under division (J) 68356
of section 4503.04 of the Revised Code.68357

       (JJ) "Gross vehicle weight," with regard to any commercial 68358
car, trailer, semitrailer, or bus that is taxed at the rates 68359
established under section 4503.042 or 4503.65 of the Revised Code, 68360
means the unladen weight of the vehicle fully equipped plus the 68361
maximum weight of the load to be carried on the vehicle.68362

       (KK) "Combined gross vehicle weight" with regard to any 68363
combination of a commercial car, trailer, and semitrailer, that is 68364
taxed at the rates established under section 4503.042 or 4503.65 68365
of the Revised Code, means the total unladen weight of the 68366
combination of vehicles fully equipped plus the maximum weight of 68367
the load to be carried on that combination of vehicles.68368

       (LL) "Chauffeured limousine" means a motor vehicle that is 68369
designed to carry nine or fewer passengers and is operated for 68370
hire on an hourly basis pursuant to a prearranged contract for the 68371
transportation of passengers on public roads and highways along a 68372
route under the control of the person hiring the vehicle and not 68373
over a defined and regular route. "Prearranged contract" means an 68374
agreement, made in advance of boarding, to provide transportation 68375
from a specific location in a chauffeured limousine at a fixed 68376
rate per hour or trip. "Chauffeured limousine" does not include 68377
any vehicle that is used exclusively in the business of funeral 68378
directing.68379

       (MM) "Manufactured home" has the same meaning as in division 68380
(C)(4) of section 3781.06 of the Revised Code.68381

       (NN) "Acquired situs," with respect to a manufactured home or 68382
a mobile home, means to become located in this state by the 68383
placement of the home on real property, but does not include the 68384
placement of a manufactured home or a mobile home in the inventory 68385
of a new motor vehicle dealer or the inventory of a manufacturer, 68386
remanufacturer, or distributor of manufactured or mobile homes.68387

       (OO) "Electronic" includes electrical, digital, magnetic, 68388
optical, electromagnetic, or any other form of technology that 68389
entails capabilities similar to these technologies.68390

       (PP) "Electronic record" means a record generated, 68391
communicated, received, or stored by electronic means for use in 68392
an information system or for transmission from one information 68393
system to another.68394

       (QQ) "Electronic signature" means a signature in electronic 68395
form attached to or logically associated with an electronic 68396
record.68397

       (RR) "Financial transaction device" has the same meaning as 68398
in division (A) of section 113.40 of the Revised Code.68399

       (SS) "Electronic motor vehicle dealer" means a motor vehicle 68400
dealer licensed under Chapter 4517. of the Revised Code whom the 68401
registrar of motor vehicles determines meets the criteria 68402
designated in section 4503.035 of the Revised Code for electronic 68403
motor vehicle dealers and designates as an electronic motor 68404
vehicle dealer under that section.68405

       (TT) "Electric personal assistive mobility device" means a 68406
self-balancing two non-tandem wheeled device that is designed to 68407
transport only one person, has an electric propulsion system of an 68408
average of seven hundred fifty watts, and when ridden on a paved 68409
level surface by an operator who weighs one hundred seventy pounds 68410
has a maximum speed of less than twenty miles per hour.68411

       (UU) "Limited driving privileges" means the privilege to 68412
operate a motor vehicle that a court grants under section 4510.021 68413
of the Revised Code to a person whose driver's or commercial 68414
driver's license or permit or nonresident operating privilege has 68415
been suspended.68416

       (VV) "Utility vehicle" means a self-propelled vehicle 68417
designed with a bed, principally for the purpose of transporting 68418
material or cargo in connection with construction, agricultural, 68419
forestry, grounds maintenance, lawn and garden, materials 68420
handling, or similar activities. "Utility vehicle" includes a 68421
vehicle with a maximum attainable speed of twenty miles per hour 68422
or less that is used exclusively within the boundaries of state 68423
parks by state park employees or volunteers for the operation or 68424
maintenance of state park facilities.68425

       Sec. 4501.21.  (A) There is hereby created in the state 68426
treasury the license plate contribution fund. The fund shall 68427
consist of all contributions paid by motor vehicle registrants and 68428
collected by the registrar of motor vehicles pursuant to sections 68429
4503.491, 4503.493, 4503.494, 4503.496, 4503.498, 4503.499, 68430
4503.50, 4503.501, 4503.502, 4503.505, 4503.51, 4503.522, 68431
4503.523, 4503.524, 4503.531, 4503.545, 4503.55, 4503.551, 68432
4503.552, 4503.553, 4503.561, 4503.562, 4503.564, 4503.591, 68433
4503.67, 4503.68, 4503.69, 4503.701, 4503.71, 4503.711, 4503.712, 68434
4503.713, 4503.72, 4503.73, 4503.732, 4503.74, 4503.75, 4503.751, 68435
4503.85, 4503.89, 4503.92, and 4503.94 of the Revised Code. 68436

       (B) The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 68437
collects in the fund as follows: 68438

        The registrar shall pay the contributions received pursuant 68439
to section 4503.491 of the Revised Code to the breast cancer fund 68440
of Ohio, which shall use that money only to pay for programs that 68441
provide assistance and education to Ohio breast cancer patients 68442
and that improve access for such patients to quality health care 68443
and clinical trials and shall not use any of the money for 68444
abortion information, counseling, services, or other 68445
abortion-related activities. 68446

        The registrar shall pay the contributions received pursuant 68447
to section 4503.493 of the Revised Code to the autism society of 68448
Ohio, which shall use the contributions for programs and autism 68449
awareness efforts throughout the state. 68450

       The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 68451
receives pursuant to section 4503.494 of the Revised Code to the 68452
national multiple sclerosis society for distribution in equal 68453
amounts to the northwestern Ohio, Ohio buckeye, and Ohio valley 68454
chapters of the national multiple sclerosis society. These 68455
chapters shall use the money they receive under this section to 68456
assist in paying the expenses they incur in providing services 68457
directly to their clients.68458

       The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 68459
receives pursuant to section 4503.496 of the Revised Code to the 68460
Ohio sickle cell and health association, which shall use the 68461
contributions to help support educational, clinical, and social 68462
support services for adults who have sickle cell disease.68463

       The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 68464
receives pursuant to section 4503.498 of the Revised Code to 68465
special olympics Ohio, inc., which shall use the contributions for 68466
its programs, charitable efforts, and other activities. 68467

       The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 68468
receives pursuant to section 4503.499 of the Revised Code to the 68469
children's glioma cancer foundation, which shall use the 68470
contributions for its research and other programs. 68471

        The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 68472
receives pursuant to section 4503.50 of the Revised Code to the 68473
future farmers of America foundation, which shall deposit the 68474
contributions into its general account to be used for educational 68475
and scholarship purposes of the future farmers of America 68476
foundation. 68477

        The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 68478
receives pursuant to section 4503.501 of the Revised Code to the 68479
4-H youth development program of the Ohio state university 68480
extension program, which shall use those contributions to pay the 68481
expenses it incurs in conducting its educational activities. 68482

        The registrar shall pay the contributions received pursuant 68483
to section 4503.502 of the Revised Code to the Ohio cattlemen's 68484
foundation, which shall use those contributions for scholarships 68485
and other educational activities. 68486

       The registrar shall pay the contributions received pursuant 68487
to section 4503.505 of the Revised Code to the organization Ohio 68488
region phi theta kappa, which shall use those contributions for 68489
scholarships for students who are members of that organization. 68490

        The registrar shall pay each contribution the registrar 68491
receives pursuant to section 4503.51 of the Revised Code to the 68492
university or college whose name or marking or design appears on 68493
collegiate license plates that are issued to a person under that 68494
section. A university or college that receives contributions from 68495
the fund shall deposit the contributions into its general 68496
scholarship fund. 68497

        The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 68498
receives pursuant to section 4503.522 of the Revised Code to the 68499
"friends of Perry's victory and international peace memorial, 68500
incorporated," a nonprofit corporation organized under the laws of 68501
this state, to assist that organization in paying the expenses it 68502
incurs in sponsoring or holding charitable, educational, and 68503
cultural events at the monument. 68504

       The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 68505
receives pursuant to section 4503.523 of the Revised Code to the 68506
fairport lights foundation, which shall use the money to pay for 68507
the restoration, maintenance, and preservation of the lighthouses 68508
of fairport harbor. 68509

       The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 68510
receives pursuant to section 4503.524 of the Revised Code to the 68511
Massillon tiger football booster club, which shall use the 68512
contributions only to promote and support the football team of 68513
Washington high school of the Massillon city school district.68514

       The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 68515
receives pursuant to section 4503.531 of the Revised Code to the 68516
thank you foundation, incorporated, a nonprofit corporation 68517
organized under the laws of this state, to assist that 68518
organization in paying for the charitable activities and programs 68519
it sponsors in support of United States military personnel, 68520
veterans, and their families.68521

        The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 68522
receives pursuant to section 4503.55 of the Revised Code to the 68523
pro football hall of fame, which shall deposit the contributions 68524
into a special bank account that it establishes and which shall be 68525
separate and distinct from any other account the pro football hall 68526
of fame maintains, to be used exclusively for the purpose of 68527
promoting the pro football hall of fame as a travel destination. 68528

        The registrar shall pay the contributions that are paid to 68529
the registrar pursuant to section 4503.545 of the Revised Code to 68530
the national rifle association foundation, which shall use the 68531
money to pay the costs of the educational activities and programs 68532
the foundation holds or sponsors in this state. 68533

        The registrar shall pay to the Ohio pet fund the 68534
contributions the registrar receives pursuant to section 4503.551 68535
of the Revised Code and any other money from any other source, 68536
including donations, gifts, and grants, that is designated by the 68537
source to be paid to the Ohio pet fund. The Ohio pet fund shall 68538
use the moneys it receives under this section to support programs 68539
for the sterilization of dogs and cats and for educational 68540
programs concerning the proper veterinary care of those animals, 68541
and for expenses of the Ohio pet fund that are reasonably 68542
necessary for it to obtain and maintain its tax-exempt status and 68543
to perform its duties. 68544

        The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 68545
receives pursuant to section 4503.552 of the Revised Code to the 68546
rock and roll hall of fame and museum, incorporated. 68547

        The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 68548
receives pursuant to section 4503.553 of the Revised Code to the 68549
Ohio coalition for animals, incorporated, a nonprofit corporation. 68550
Except as provided in division (B) of this section, the coalition 68551
shall distribute the money to its members, and the members shall 68552
use the money only to pay for educational, charitable, and other 68553
programs of each coalition member that provide care for unwanted, 68554
abused, and neglected horses. The Ohio coalition for animals may 68555
use a portion of the money to pay for reasonable marketing costs 68556
incurred in the design and promotion of the license plate and for 68557
administrative costs incurred in the disbursement and management 68558
of funds received under this section. 68559

        The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 68560
receives pursuant to section 4503.561 of the Revised Code to the 68561
state of Ohio chapter of ducks unlimited, inc., which shall 68562
deposit the contributions into a special bank account that it 68563
establishes. The special bank account shall be separate and 68564
distinct from any other account the state of Ohio chapter of ducks 68565
unlimited, inc., maintains and shall be used exclusively for the 68566
purpose of protecting, enhancing, restoring, and managing wetlands 68567
and conserving wildlife habitat. The state of Ohio chapter of 68568
ducks unlimited, inc., annually shall notify the registrar in 68569
writing of the name, address, and account to which such payments 68570
are to be made. 68571

        The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 68572
receives pursuant to section 4503.562 of the Revised Code to the 68573
Mahoning river consortium, which shall use the money to pay the 68574
expenses it incurs in restoring and maintaining the Mahoning river 68575
watershed. 68576

       The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 68577
receives pursuant to section 4503.564 of the Revised Code to 68578
Antioch college for the use of the Glen Helen ecology institute to 68579
pay expenses related to the Glen Helen nature preserve.68580

        The registrar shall pay to a sports commission created 68581
pursuant to section 4503.591 of the Revised Code each contribution 68582
the registrar receives under that section that an applicant pays 68583
to obtain license plates that bear the logo of a professional 68584
sports team located in the county of that sports commission and 68585
that is participating in the license plate program pursuant to 68586
division (E) of that section, irrespective of the county of 68587
residence of an applicant. 68588

        The registrar shall pay to a community charity each 68589
contribution the registrar receives under section 4503.591 of the 68590
Revised Code that an applicant pays to obtain license plates that 68591
bear the logo of a professional sports team that is participating 68592
in the license plate program pursuant to division (G) of that 68593
section. 68594

        The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 68595
receives pursuant to section 4503.67 of the Revised Code to the 68596
Dan Beard council of the boy scouts of America. The council shall 68597
distribute all contributions in an equitable manner throughout the 68598
state to regional councils of the boy scouts. 68599

        The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 68600
receives pursuant to section 4503.68 of the Revised Code to the 68601
great river council of the girl scouts of the United States of 68602
America. The council shall distribute all contributions in an 68603
equitable manner throughout the state to regional councils of the 68604
girl scouts. 68605

        The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 68606
receives pursuant to section 4503.69 of the Revised Code to the 68607
Dan Beard council of the boy scouts of America. The council shall 68608
distribute all contributions in an equitable manner throughout the 68609
state to regional councils of the boy scouts. 68610

       The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 68611
receives pursuant to section 4503.701 of the Revised Code to the 68612
Prince Hall grand lodge of free and accepted masons of Ohio, which 68613
shall use the contributions for scholarship purposes.68614

        The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 68615
receives pursuant to section 4503.71 of the Revised Code to the 68616
fraternal order of police of Ohio, incorporated, which shall 68617
deposit the fees into its general account to be used for purposes 68618
of the fraternal order of police of Ohio, incorporated. 68619

        The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 68620
receives pursuant to section 4503.711 of the Revised Code to the 68621
fraternal order of police of Ohio, incorporated, which shall 68622
deposit the contributions into an account that it creates to be 68623
used for the purpose of advancing and protecting the law 68624
enforcement profession, promoting improved law enforcement 68625
methods, and teaching respect for law and order. 68626

       The registrar shall pay the contributions received pursuant 68627
to section 4503.712 of the Revised Code to Ohio concerns of police 68628
survivors, which shall use those contributions to provide whatever 68629
assistance may be appropriate to the families of Ohio law 68630
enforcement officers who are killed in the line of duty. 68631

       The registrar shall pay the contributions received pursuant 68632
to section 4503.713 of the Revised Code to the greater Cleveland 68633
peace officers memorial society, which shall use those 68634
contributions to honor law enforcement officers who have died in 68635
the line of duty and support its charitable purposes.68636

       The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 68637
receives pursuant to section 4503.72 of the Revised Code to the 68638
organization known on March 31, 2003, as the Ohio CASA/GAL 68639
association, a private, nonprofit corporation organized under 68640
Chapter 1702. of the Revised Code. The Ohio CASA/GAL association 68641
shall use these contributions to pay the expenses it incurs in 68642
administering a program to secure the proper representation in the 68643
courts of this state of abused, neglected, and dependent children, 68644
and for the training and supervision of persons participating in 68645
that program. 68646

        The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 68647
receives pursuant to section 4503.73 of the Revised Code to Wright 68648
B. Flyer, incorporated, which shall deposit the contributions into 68649
its general account to be used for purposes of Wright B. Flyer, 68650
incorporated. 68651

       The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 68652
receives pursuant to section 4503.732 of the Revised Code to the 68653
Siegel & Shuster society, a nonprofit organization dedicated to 68654
commemorating and celebrating the creation of Superman in 68655
Cleveland, Ohio.68656

       The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 68657
receives pursuant to section 4503.74 of the Revised Code to the 68658
Columbus zoological park association, which shall disburse the 68659
moneys to Ohio's major metropolitan zoos, as defined in section 68660
4503.74 of the Revised Code, in accordance with a written 68661
agreement entered into by the major metropolitan zoos. 68662

       The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 68663
receives pursuant to section 4503.75 of the Revised Code to the 68664
rotary foundation, located on March 31, 2003, in Evanston, 68665
Illinois, to be placed in a fund known as the permanent fund and 68666
used to endow educational and humanitarian programs of the rotary 68667
foundation. 68668

       The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 68669
receives pursuant to section 4503.751 of the Revised Code to the 68670
Ohio association of realtors, which shall deposit the 68671
contributions into a property disaster relief fund maintained 68672
under the Ohio realtors charitable and education foundation.68673

        The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 68674
receives pursuant to section 4503.85 of the Revised Code to the 68675
Ohio sea grant college program to be used for Lake Erie area 68676
research projects. 68677

       The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 68678
receives pursuant to section 4503.89 of the Revised Code to the 68679
American red cross of greater Columbus on behalf of the Ohio 68680
chapters of the American red cross, which shall use the 68681
contributions for disaster readiness, preparedness, and response 68682
programs on a statewide basis.68683

       The registrar shall pay the contributions received pursuant 68684
to section 4503.92 of the Revised Code to support our troops, 68685
incorporated, a national nonprofit corporation, which shall use 68686
those contributions in accordance with its articles of 68687
incorporation and for the benefit of servicemembers of the armed 68688
forces of the United States and their families when they are in 68689
financial need. 68690

       The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 68691
receives pursuant to section 4503.94 of the Revised Code to the 68692
Michelle's leading star foundation, which shall use the money 68693
solely to fund the rental, lease, or purchase of the simulated 68694
driving curriculum of the Michelle's leading star foundation by 68695
boards of education of city, exempted village, local, and joint 68696
vocational school districts.68697

       (C) All investment earnings of the license plate contribution 68698
fund shall be credited to the fund. Not later than the first day 68699
of May of every year, the registrar shall distribute to each 68700
entity described in division (B) of this section the investment 68701
income the fund earned the previous calendar year. The amount of 68702
such a distribution paid to an entity shall be proportionate to 68703
the amount of money the entity received from the fund during the 68704
previous calendar year.68705

       Sec. 4503.524.  (A) The owner or lessee of any passenger car, 68706
noncommercial motor vehicle, recreational vehicle, or other 68707
vehicle of a class approved by the registrar of motor vehicles may 68708
apply to the registrar for the registration of the vehicle and 68709
issuance of "Massillon tiger football booster club" license 68710
plates. The application for "Massillon tiger football booster 68711
club" license plates may be combined with a request for a special 68712
reserved license plate under section 4503.40 or 4503.42 of the 68713
Revised Code. Upon receipt of the completed application and 68714
compliance with division (B) of this section, the registrar shall 68715
issue to the applicant the appropriate vehicle registration and a 68716
set of "Massillon tiger football booster club" license plates with 68717
a validation sticker or a validation sticker alone when required 68718
by section 4503.191 of the Revised Code. In addition to the 68719
letters and numbers ordinarily inscribed thereon, "Massillon tiger 68720
football booster club" license plates shall be inscribed with 68721
words and markings selected and designed by the Massillon tiger 68722
football booster club and approved by the registrar. "Massillon 68723
tiger football booster club" license plates shall bear county 68724
identification stickers that identify the county of registration 68725
by name or number.68726

       (B) "Massillon tiger football booster club" license plates 68727
and validation stickers shall be issued upon payment of the 68728
regular license tax as prescribed under section 4503.04 of the 68729
Revised Code, any applicable motor vehicle tax levied under 68730
Chapter 4504. of the Revised Code, a bureau of motor vehicles 68731
administrative fee of ten dollars, the contribution specified in 68732
division (C) of this section, and compliance with all other 68733
applicable laws relating to the registration of motor vehicles. If 68734
the application for "Massillon tiger football booster club" 68735
license plates is combined with a request for a special reserved 68736
license plate under section 4503.40 or 4503.42 of the Revised 68737
Code, the license plates and validation sticker shall be issued 68738
upon payment of the contribution, fees, and taxes contained in 68739
this division and the additional fee prescribed under section 68740
4503.40 or 4503.42 of the Revised Code.68741

       (C) For each application for registration and registration 68742
renewal submitted under this section, the registrar shall collect 68743
a contribution of twenty-five dollars. The registrar shall 68744
transmit this contribution to the treasurer of state for deposit 68745
into the license plate contribution fund created in section 68746
4501.21 of the Revised Code.68747

       The registrar shall deposit the ten-dollar bureau 68748
administrative fee, the purpose of which is to compensate the 68749
bureau for additional services required in issuing "Massillon 68750
tiger football booster club" license plates, into the state bureau 68751
of motor vehicles fund created in section 4501.25 of the Revised 68752
Code.68753

       Sec. 4503.62.  (A) Application for the registration of an 68754
apportionable vehicle shall be made to the registrar of motor 68755
vehicles in accordance with division (J) of section 4503.10 of the 68756
Revised Code.68757

       (B) Any person applying to register a vehicle or combination 68758
vehicle that has a gross vehicle weight of twenty-six thousand 68759
pounds or less or two axles, or that is a bus used in charter 68760
party service, also may register the vehicle in accordance with 68761
division (J) of section 4503.10 of the Revised Code if the vehicle 68762
is used or intended for use in two or more international 68763
registration plan member jurisdictions.68764

       (C) No later than December 31, 2011, the registrar shall 68765
adopt rules under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to establish a 68766
program to accept applications for vehicle registration 68767
transactions of apportionable vehicles electronically over the 68768
internet. The program also may provide for vehicle registration 68769
transactions of nonapportionable commercial motor vehicles over 68770
the internet.68771

       (D) The internet registration program shall provide an option 68772
for the payment of all registration taxes and fees by use of a 68773
financial transaction device. In providing for payment by the use 68774
of a financial transaction device, the registrar may, but is not 68775
required to,shall comply with section 113.40 of the Revised Code. 68776
The registrar, with the approval of the director of public safety, 68777
may contract with a third party to accept and process payments 68778
made by use of a financial transaction device on behalf of the 68779
bureau of motor vehicles. All fees associated with payment by use 68780
of a financial transaction device shall be borne by the applicants 68781
seeking the registration of apportionable or other vehicles under 68782
the program established pursuant to division (C) of this section. 68783
The bureau shall not pay any costs, and shall not retain any 68784
additional fees, associated with the use of a financial 68785
transaction device.68786

       (E) As used in this section, "financial transaction device" 68787
has the same meaning as in section 113.40 of the Revised Code.68788

       Sec. 4503.732.  (A) The owner or lessee of any passenger car, 68789
noncommercial motor vehicle, recreational vehicle, or other 68790
vehicle of a class approved by the registrar of motor vehicles may 68791
apply to the registrar for the registration of the vehicle and 68792
issuance of "Truth, Justice, and the American Way" license plates. 68793
The application may be combined with a request for a special 68794
reserved license plate under section 4503.40 or 4503.42 of the 68795
Revised Code. Upon receipt of an application for registration of a 68796
motor vehicle under this section, the registrar shall issue to the 68797
applicant the appropriate motor vehicle registration and a set of 68798
"Truth, Justice, and the American Way" license plates and a 68799
validation sticker, or a validation sticker alone when required by 68800
section 4503.191 of the Revised Code.68801

       In addition to the letters and numbers ordinarily inscribed 68802
on the license plates, "Truth, Justice, and the American Way" 68803
license plates shall be inscribed with the words "Truth, Justice, 68804
and the American Way" and a design, logo, or marking selected by 68805
the entity that owns the Superman name. The registrar shall 68806
approve the final design after entering into a license agreement 68807
with that entity for appropriate use of the Superman name and 68808
associated logo or marking, as applicable. The license plates 68809
shall bear county identification stickers that identify the county 68810
of registration by name or number.68811

       (B) "Truth, Justice, and the American Way" license plates and 68812
validation stickers shall be issued upon receipt of a contribution 68813
as provided in division (C)(1) of this section and upon payment of 68814
the regular license tax as prescribed under section 4503.04 of the 68815
Revised Code, any applicable motor vehicle license tax levied 68816
under Chapter 4504. of the Revised Code, and a bureau of motor 68817
vehicles administrative fee of ten dollars. The applicant shall 68818
comply with all other applicable laws relating to the registration 68819
of motor vehicles. If the application for "Truth, Justice, and the 68820
American Way" license plates is combined with a request for a 68821
special reserved license plate under section 4503.40 or 4503.42 of 68822
the Revised Code, the license plates and validation sticker shall 68823
be issued upon payment of the fees and taxes specified in this 68824
division and the additional fee prescribed under section 4503.40 68825
or 4503.42 of the Revised Code.68826

       (C)(1) For each application for registration and registration 68827
renewal notice the registrar receives under this section, the 68828
registrar shall collect a contribution of ten dollars. The 68829
registrar shall pay this contribution into the state treasury to 68830
the credit of the license plate contribution fund created in 68831
section 4501.21 of the Revised Code.68832

       (2) The registrar shall pay into the state treasury the 68833
ten-dollar bureau administrative fee, the purpose of which is to 68834
compensate the bureau for additional services required in issuing 68835
"Truth, Justice, and the American Way" license plates, to the 68836
credit of the state bureau of motor vehicles fund created in 68837
section 4501.25 of Revised Code.68838

       Sec. 4505.02.  The registrar of motor vehicles shall issue 68839
rules as the registrar determines necessary to ensure uniform and 68840
orderly operation of this chapter and to ensure that the 68841
identification of each applicant for a certificate of title is 68842
reasonably accurate. The clerks of the courts of common pleas 68843
shall conform thereto. The clerks shall provide the forms as 68844
prescribed by the registrar, except the manufacturers' or 68845
importers' certificates. The clerks shall provide, from moneys in 68846
the automated title processing fund, certificates of title and 68847
ribbons, cartridges, or other devices necessary for the operation 68848
of the certificate of title processing equipment as determined by 68849
the automated title processing board pursuant to division (C) of 68850
section 4505.09 of the Revised Code. All other automated title 68851
processing system supplies shall be provided by the clerks.68852

       If it appears that any certificate of title has been 68853
improperly issued, the registrar shall cancel the certificate. 68854
Upon the cancellation of any certificate of title, the registrar 68855
shall notify the clerk who issued it, and the clerk thereupon 68856
shall enter the cancellation upon the clerk's records. The 68857
registrar also shall notify the person to whom such certificate of 68858
title was issued, as well as any lienholders appearing thereon, of 68859
the cancellation and shall demand the surrender of the certificate 68860
of title immediately, but the cancellation shall not affect the 68861
validity of any lien noted thereon. The holder of such certificate 68862
of title immediately shall return it to the registrar. If a 68863
certificate of registration has been issued to the holder of a 68864
certificate of title so canceled the registrar immediately shall 68865
cancel it and demand the return of such certificate of 68866
registration and license plates, and the holder of such 68867
certificate of registration and license plates shall return the 68868
same to the registrar forthwith. The clerks shall keep on hand a 68869
sufficient supply of blank forms, which, except for certificate of 68870
title and memorandum certificate forms, shall be furnished and 68871
distributed without charge to registered manufacturers or dealers, 68872
or other persons residing within the county.68873

       Sec. 4505.09.  (A)(1) The clerk of a court of common pleas 68874
shall charge and retain fees as follows:68875

       (a) Five dollars for each certificate of title that is not 68876
applied for within thirty days after the later of the assignment 68877
or delivery of the motor vehicle described in it. The entire fee 68878
shall be retained by the clerk.68879

        (b) Fifteen dollars for each certificate of title or 68880
duplicate certificate of title including the issuance of a 68881
memorandum certificate of title, or authorization to print a 68882
non-negotiable evidence of ownership described in division (G) of 68883
section 4505.08 of the Revised Code, non-negotiable evidence of 68884
ownership printed by the clerk under division (H) of that section, 68885
and notation of any lien on a certificate of title that is applied 68886
for at the same time as the certificate of title. The clerk shall 68887
retain eleven dollars and fifty cents of that fee for each 68888
certificate of title when there is a notation of a lien or 68889
security interest on the certificate of title, twelve dollars and 68890
twenty-five cents when there is no lien or security interest noted 68891
on the certificate of title, and eleven dollars and fifty cents 68892
for each duplicate certificate of title.68893

       (c) Four dollars and fifty cents for each certificate of 68894
title with no security interest noted that is issued to a licensed 68895
motor vehicle dealer for resale purposes and, in addition, a 68896
separate fee of fifty cents. The clerk shall retain two dollars 68897
and twenty-five cents of that fee.68898

       (d) Five dollars for each memorandum certificate of title or 68899
non-negotiable evidence of ownership that is applied for 68900
separately. The clerk shall retain that entire fee.68901

       (2) The fees that are not retained by the clerk shall be paid 68902
to the registrar of motor vehicles by monthly returns, which shall 68903
be forwarded to the registrar not later than the fifth day of the 68904
month next succeeding that in which the certificate is issued or 68905
that in which the registrar is notified of a lien or cancellation 68906
of a lien.68907

       (B)(1) The registrar shall pay twenty-five cents of the 68908
amount received for each certificate of title issued to a motor 68909
vehicle dealer for resale, one dollar for certificates of title 68910
issued with a lien or security interest noted on the certificate 68911
of title, and twenty-five cents for each certificate of title with 68912
no lien or security interest noted on the certificate of title 68913
into the state bureau of motor vehicles fund established in 68914
section 4501.25 of the Revised Code.68915

       (2) Fifty cents of the amount received for each certificate 68916
of title shall be paid by the registrar as follows:68917

       (a) Four cents shall be paid into the state treasury to the 68918
credit of the motor vehicle dealers board fund, which is hereby 68919
created. All investment earnings of the fund shall be credited to 68920
the fund. The moneys in the motor vehicle dealers board fund shall 68921
be used by the motor vehicle dealers board created under section 68922
4517.30 of the Revised Code, together with other moneys 68923
appropriated to it, in the exercise of its powers and the 68924
performance of its duties under Chapter 4517. of the Revised Code, 68925
except that the director of budget and management may transfer 68926
excess money from the motor vehicle dealers board fund to the 68927
bureau of motor vehicles fund if the registrar determines that the 68928
amount of money in the motor vehicle dealers board fund, together 68929
with other moneys appropriated to the board, exceeds the amount 68930
required for the exercise of its powers and the performance of its 68931
duties under Chapter 4517. of the Revised Code and requests the 68932
director to make the transfer.68933

       (b) Twenty-one cents shall be paid into the highway operating 68934
fund.68935

       (c) Twenty-five cents shall be paid into the state treasury 68936
to the credit of the motor vehicle sales audit fund, which is 68937
hereby created. The moneys in the fund shall be used by the tax 68938
commissioner together with other funds available to the 68939
commissioner to conduct a continuing investigation of sales and 68940
use tax returns filed for motor vehicles in order to determine if 68941
sales and use tax liability has been satisfied. The commissioner 68942
shall refer cases of apparent violations of section 2921.13 of the 68943
Revised Code made in connection with the titling or sale of a 68944
motor vehicle and cases of any other apparent violations of the 68945
sales or use tax law to the appropriate county prosecutor whenever 68946
the commissioner considers it advisable.68947

       (3) Two dollars of the amount received by the registrar under 68948
divisions (A)(1)(a), (b), and (d) of this section and one dollar 68949
and fifty cents of the amount received by the registrar under 68950
division (A)(1)(c) of this section for each certificate of title 68951
shall be paid into the state treasury to the credit of the 68952
automated title processing fund, which is hereby created and which 68953
shall consist of moneys collected under division (B)(3) of this 68954
section and under sections 1548.10 and 4519.59 of the Revised 68955
Code. All investment earnings of the fund shall be credited to the 68956
fund. The moneys in the fund shall be used as follows:68957

       (a) Except for moneys collected under section 1548.10 of the 68958
Revised Code and as provided in division (B)(3)(c) of this 68959
section, moneys collected under division (B)(3) of this section 68960
shall be used to implement and maintain an automated title 68961
processing system for the issuance of motor vehicle, off-highway 68962
motorcycle, and all-purpose vehicle certificates of title in the 68963
offices of the clerks of the courts of common pleas.68964

       (b) Moneys collected under section 1548.10 of the Revised 68965
Code shall be used to issue marine certificates of title in the 68966
offices of the clerks of the courts of common pleas as provided in 68967
Chapter 1548. of the Revised Code.68968

       (c) Moneys collected under division (B)(3) of this section 68969
shall be used in accordance with section 4505.25 of the Revised 68970
Code to implement Sub. S.B. 59 of the 124th general assembly.68971

       (4) The registrar shall pay the fifty-cent separate fee 68972
collected from a licensed motor vehicle dealer under division 68973
(A)(1)(c) of this section into the title defect recision fund 68974
created by section 1345.52 of the Revised Code.68975

       (C)(1) The automated title processing board is hereby created 68976
consisting of the registrar or the registrar's representative, a 68977
person selected by the registrar, the president of the Ohio clerks 68978
of court association or the president's representative, and two 68979
clerks of courts of common pleas appointed by the governor. The 68980
director of budget and management or the director's designee, the 68981
chief of the division of watercraft in the department of natural 68982
resources or the chief's designee, and the tax commissioner or the 68983
commissioner's designee shall be nonvoting members of the board. 68984
The purpose of the board is to facilitate the operation and 68985
maintenance of an automated title processing system and approve 68986
the procurement of automated title processing system equipment and 68987
ribbons, cartridges, or other devices necessary for the operation 68988
of that equipment. Voting members of the board, excluding the 68989
registrar or the registrar's representative, shall serve without 68990
compensation, but shall be reimbursed for travel and other 68991
necessary expenses incurred in the conduct of their official 68992
duties. The registrar or the registrar's representative shall 68993
receive neither compensation nor reimbursement as a board member.68994

       (2) The automated title processing board shall determine each 68995
of the following:68996

       (a) The automated title processing equipment and certificates 68997
of title requirements for each county;68998

       (b) The payment of expenses that may be incurred by the 68999
counties in implementing an automated title processing system;69000

       (c) The repayment to the counties for existing title 69001
processing equipment.69002

       (3) The registrar shall purchase, lease, or otherwise acquire 69003
any automated title processing equipment and certificates of title 69004
that the board determines are necessary from moneys in the 69005
automated title processing fund established by division (B)(3) of 69006
this section.69007

       (D) All counties shall conform to the requirements of the 69008
registrar regarding the operation of their automated title 69009
processing system for motor vehicle titles, certificates of title 69010
for off-highway motorcycles and all-purpose vehicles, and 69011
certificates of title for watercraft and outboard motors.69012

       Sec. 4505.101.  (A) The following business owners may obtain 69013
a certificate of title to an unclaimed vehicle in the manner 69014
provided in this section:69015

       (1)(a) The owner of any repair garage or place of storage in 69016
which a motor vehicle with a value of less than twofive thousand 69017
five hundred dollars has been left unclaimed for fifteen business69018
days or more following completion of the requested repair or the 69019
agreed term of storage may;69020

       (b) The owner of a private tow truck, towing company, or tow 69021
company place of storage where a motor vehicle with a value of 69022
less than five thousand dollars has been left unclaimed for 69023
fifteen business days from the date the motor vehicle was towed 69024
under division (B) of section 4513.60 of the Revised Code if the 69025
owner either holds a certificate of public convenience and 69026
necessity under section 4921.03 of the Revised Code or is 69027
registered under rules adopted by the public utilities commission 69028
under section 4921.11 of the Revised Code.69029

       (2) The value of the motor vehicle for the purposes of 69030
divisions (A)(1)(a) and (b) of this section shall be determined in 69031
accordance with standards fixed by rule in accordance with Chapter 69032
119. of the Revised Code by the registrar of motor vehicles.69033

       (B) A business owner described in division (A)(1) of this 69034
section shall send by certified mail, return receipt requested, to 69035
the last known address of the owner a notice to remove the motor 69036
vehicle. If the motor vehicle remains unclaimed by the owner for 69037
fifteen business days after the mailing of the notice, and the 69038
personbusiness owner on whose property the vehicle has been 69039
abandoned has received the signed receipt from the certified mail 69040
or has been notified that the delivery was not possible, the69041
personbusiness owner shall obtain a certificate of title, a 69042
salvage certificate of title, or a certificate for destruction 69043
only to the motor vehicle in the person'sbusiness owner's name in 69044
the manner provided in this section.69045

       (C) The business owner of the repair garage or place of 69046
storage thatwho mailed the notice shall execute an affidavit 69047
within thirty business days after receiving the signed receipt 69048
from the certified mail or notification that the delivery was not 69049
possible that all of the requirements of this section necessary to 69050
authorize the issuance of a certificate of title or a salvage 69051
certificate of title for the motor vehicle have been met. The 69052
affidavit shall set forth the value of the motor vehicle when 69053
unclaimed as determined in accordance with standards fixed by the 69054
registrar of motor vehicles in rule in accordance with Chapter 69055
119. of the Revised Code; the length of time that the motor 69056
vehicle has remained unclaimed; the expenses incurred with the 69057
motor vehicle; that a notice to remove the vehicle has been mailed 69058
to the titled owner, if known, by certified mail, return receipt 69059
requested; and that a search of the records of the bureau of motor 69060
vehicles has been made for outstanding liens on the motor vehicle.69061

       (D) No affidavit or application for a certificate for 69062
destruction only shall be executed or filed under this section 69063
until after a search of the records of the bureau of motor 69064
vehicles has been made. If the research reveals any owner of the 69065
motor vehicle, the business owner shall comply with division (B) 69066
of this section. If the research reveals any outstanding lien on 69067
the motor vehicle, the business owner of the repair garage or 69068
place of storage of the motor vehicle shall notify the mortgagee 69069
or lienholder by certified mail, return receipt requested, stating 69070
where the motor vehicle is located and the value of the vehicle. 69071
Unless the mortgagee or lienholder claims the motor vehicle within 69072
fifteen business days from the mailing of the notice, the 69073
mortgagee's mortgage or the lienholder's lien shall be invalid.69074

       (E)(1) Upon presentation by the business owner of the repair 69075
garage or place of storage of the affidavit, showing compliance 69076
with all requirements of this section to the clerk of courts of 69077
the county in which the repair garage or place of storagebusiness69078
is located, the clerk of courts shall issue a certificate of title 69079
or salvage certificate of title, free and clear of all liens and 69080
encumbrances, to the business owner of the place of storage.69081

       (2) The value of the motor vehicle, as determined in 69082
accordance with standards fixed by the registrar of motor vehicles 69083
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, less expenses 69084
incurred by the business owner of such repair garage or place of 69085
storage, shall be paid to the clerk of courts for deposit into the 69086
county general fund upon receipt of the certificate of title.69087

       (B)(F)(1) Upon presentation by the business owner of the 69088
application for a certificate for destruction only, showing 69089
compliance with all requirements of this section to the registrar 69090
of motor vehicles, the registrar shall issue a certificate for 69091
destruction only, free and clear of all liens and encumbrances, to 69092
the business owner.69093

       (2) The value of the motor vehicle with a certificate for 69094
destruction only shall be determined in accordance with standards 69095
fixed by the registrar of motor vehicles in rule in accordance 69096
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, less expenses incurred by 69097
the business owner.69098

       (G) Whoever violates this section shall be fined not more 69099
than two hundred dollars, imprisoned not more than ninety days, or 69100
both.69101

       Sec. 4506.07.  (A) Every application for a commercial 69102
driver's license, restricted commercial driver's license, or a 69103
commercial driver's temporary instruction permit, or a duplicate 69104
of such a license, shall be made upon a form approved and 69105
furnished by the registrar of motor vehicles. Except as provided 69106
in section 4506.24 of the Revised Code in regard to a restricted 69107
commercial driver's license, the application shall be signed by 69108
the applicant and shall contain the following information:69109

       (1) The applicant's name, date of birth, social security 69110
account number, sex, general description including height, weight, 69111
and color of hair and eyes, current residence, duration of 69112
residence in this state, country of citizenship, and occupation;69113

       (2) Whether the applicant previously has been licensed to 69114
operate a commercial motor vehicle or any other type of motor 69115
vehicle in another state or a foreign jurisdiction and, if so, 69116
when, by what state, and whether the license or driving privileges 69117
currently are suspended or revoked in any jurisdiction, or the 69118
applicant otherwise has been disqualified from operating a 69119
commercial motor vehicle, or is subject to an out-of-service order 69120
issued under this chapter or any similar law of another state or a 69121
foreign jurisdiction and, if so, the date of, locations involved, 69122
and reason for the suspension, revocation, disqualification, or 69123
out-of-service order;69124

       (3) Whether the applicant is afflicted with or suffering from 69125
any physical or mental disability or disease that prevents the 69126
applicant from exercising reasonable and ordinary control over a 69127
motor vehicle while operating it upon a highway or is or has been 69128
subject to any condition resulting in episodic impairment of 69129
consciousness or loss of muscular control and, if so, the nature 69130
and extent of the disability, disease, or condition, and the names 69131
and addresses of the physicians attending the applicant;69132

       (4) Whether the applicant has obtained a medical examiner's 69133
certificate as required by this chapter and, beginning January 30, 69134
2012, the applicant, prior to or at the time of applying, has 69135
self-certified to the registrar the applicable status of the 69136
applicant under division (A)(2) of section 4506.10 of the Revised 69137
Code;69138

       (5) Whether the applicant has pending a citation for 69139
violation of any motor vehicle law or ordinance except a parking 69140
violation and, if so, a description of the citation, the court 69141
having jurisdiction of the offense, and the date when the offense 69142
occurred;69143

       (6) WhetherIf an applicant has not certified the applicant's 69144
willingness to make an anatomical gift under section 2108.05 of 69145
the Revised Code, whether the applicant wishes to certify 69146
willingness to make such an anatomical gift under section 2108.05 69147
of the Revised Code, which shall be given no consideration in the 69148
issuance of a license;69149

       (7) On and after May 1, 1993, whether the applicant has 69150
executed a valid durable power of attorney for health care 69151
pursuant to sections 1337.11 to 1337.17 of the Revised Code or has 69152
executed a declaration governing the use or continuation, or the 69153
withholding or withdrawal, of life-sustaining treatment pursuant 69154
to sections 2133.01 to 2133.15 of the Revised Code and, if the 69155
applicant has executed either type of instrument, whether the 69156
applicant wishes the license issued to indicate that the applicant 69157
has executed the instrument;69158

       (8) On and after October 7, 2009, whether the applicant is a 69159
veteran, active duty, or reservist of the armed forces of the 69160
United States and, if the applicant is such, whether the applicant 69161
wishes the license issued to indicate that the applicant is a 69162
veteran, active duty, or reservist of the armed forces of the 69163
United States by a military designation on the license.69164

       (B) Every applicant shall certify, on a form approved and 69165
furnished by the registrar, all of the following:69166

       (1) That the motor vehicle in which the applicant intends to 69167
take the driving skills test is representative of the type of 69168
motor vehicle that the applicant expects to operate as a driver;69169

       (2) That the applicant is not subject to any disqualification 69170
or out-of-service order, or license suspension, revocation, or 69171
cancellation, under the laws of this state, of another state, or 69172
of a foreign jurisdiction and does not have more than one driver's 69173
license issued by this or another state or a foreign jurisdiction;69174

       (3) Any additional information, certification, or evidence 69175
that the registrar requires by rule in order to ensure that the 69176
issuance of a commercial driver's license to the applicant is in 69177
compliance with the law of this state and with federal law.69178

       (C) Every applicant shall execute a form, approved and 69179
furnished by the registrar, under which the applicant consents to 69180
the release by the registrar of information from the applicant's 69181
driving record.69182

       (D) The registrar or a deputy registrar, in accordance with 69183
section 3503.11 of the Revised Code, shall register as an elector 69184
any applicant for a commercial driver's license or for a renewal 69185
or duplicate of such a license under this chapter, if the 69186
applicant is eligible and wishes to be registered as an elector. 69187
The decision of an applicant whether to register as an elector 69188
shall be given no consideration in the decision of whether to 69189
issue the applicant a license or a renewal or duplicate.69190

       (E) The registrar or a deputy registrar, in accordance with 69191
section 3503.11 of the Revised Code, shall offer the opportunity 69192
of completing a notice of change of residence or change of name to 69193
any applicant for a commercial driver's license or for a renewal 69194
or duplicate of such a license who is a resident of this state, if 69195
the applicant is a registered elector who has changed the 69196
applicant's residence or name and has not filed such a notice.69197

       (F) In considering any application submitted pursuant to this 69198
section, the bureau of motor vehicles may conduct any inquiries 69199
necessary to ensure that issuance or renewal of a commercial 69200
driver's license would not violate any provision of the Revised 69201
Code or federal law.69202

       (G) In addition to any other information it contains, on and 69203
after October 7, 2009, the form approved and furnished by the 69204
registrar of motor vehicles for an application for a commercial 69205
driver's license, restricted commercial driver's license, or a 69206
commercial driver's temporary instruction permit or an application 69207
for a duplicate of such a license shall inform applicants that the 69208
applicant must present a copy of the applicant's DD-214 or an 69209
equivalent document in order to qualify to have the license or 69210
duplicate indicate that the applicant is a veteran, active duty, 69211
or reservist of the armed forces of the United States based on a 69212
request made pursuant to division (A)(8) of this section.69213

       Sec. 4507.021. (A) No person shall drive, operate, draw, 69214
move, or propel an agricultural tractor or implement of husbandry 69215
upon a street or highway in either of the following circumstances 69216
unless the person has a current, valid driver's or commercial 69217
driver's license:69218

        (1) At a speed greater than twenty-five miles per hour; or69219

        (2) While transporting persons in or on a trailer or unit of 69220
farm machinery.69221

        (B) Whoever violates division (A) of this section is guilty 69222
of a misdemeanor of the first degree.69223

       Sec. 4507.03.  (A)(1) No person shall be required to obtain a 69224
driver's or commercial driver's license for the purpose of 69225
temporarily driving, operating, drawing, moving, or propelling a 69226
road roller or road machinery upon a street or highway.69227

       (2) NoExcept as provided in section 4507.021 of the Revised 69228
Code, no person shall be required to obtain a driver's or 69229
commercial driver's license for the purpose of temporarily 69230
driving, operating, drawing, moving, or propelling any 69231
agricultural tractor or implement of husbandry upon a street or 69232
highway at a speed of twenty-five miles per hour or less.69233

        (3) No person shall drive, operate, draw, move, or propel any 69234
agricultural tractor or implement of husbandry upon a street or 69235
highway at a speed greater than twenty-five miles per hour unless 69236
the person has a current, valid driver's or commercial driver's 69237
license.69238

       (4) No person having a valid driver's or commercial driver's 69239
license shall be required to have a motorcycle operator's 69240
endorsement to operate a motorcycle having three wheels with a 69241
motor of not more than fifty cubic centimeters piston 69242
displacement.69243

        (B) Every person on active duty in the armed forces of the 69244
United States, when furnished with a driver's permit and when 69245
operating an official motor vehicle in connection with such duty, 69246
is exempt from the license requirements of Chapters 4506. and 69247
4507. of the Revised Code.69248

       Every person on active duty in the armed forces of the United 69249
States or in service with the peace corps, volunteers in service 69250
to America, or the foreign service of the United States is exempt 69251
from the license requirements of those chapters for the period of 69252
the person's active duty or service and for six months thereafter, 69253
provided the person was a licensee under those chapters at the 69254
time the person commenced the person's active duty or service. The 69255
spouse or a dependent of any such person on active duty or in 69256
service also is exempt from the license requirements of those 69257
chapters for the period of the person's active duty or service and 69258
for six months thereafter, provided the spouse or dependent was a 69259
licensee under those chapters at the time the person commenced the 69260
active duty or service, and provided further that the person's 69261
active duty or service causes the spouse or dependent to relocate 69262
outside of this state during the period of the active duty or 69263
service.69264

        This section does not prevent such a person or the person's 69265
spouse or dependent from making an application, as provided in 69266
division (C) of section 4507.10 of the Revised Code, for the 69267
renewal of a driver's license or motorcycle operator's endorsement 69268
or as provided in section 4506.14 of the Revised Code for the 69269
renewal of a commercial driver's license during the period of the 69270
person's active duty or service.69271

       (C) Whoever violates division (A)(3) of this section is 69272
guilty of a misdemeanor of the first degree.69273

       Sec. 4507.06.  (A)(1) Every application for a driver's 69274
license or motorcycle operator's license or endorsement, or 69275
duplicate of any such license or endorsement, shall be made upon 69276
the approved form furnished by the registrar of motor vehicles and 69277
shall be signed by the applicant.69278

       Every application shall state the following:69279

       (a) The applicant's name, date of birth, social security 69280
number if such has been assigned, sex, general description, 69281
including height, weight, color of hair, and eyes, residence 69282
address, including county of residence, duration of residence in 69283
this state, and country of citizenship;69284

       (b) Whether the applicant previously has been licensed as an 69285
operator, chauffeur, driver, commercial driver, or motorcycle 69286
operator and, if so, when, by what state, and whether such license 69287
is suspended or canceled at the present time and, if so, the date 69288
of and reason for the suspension or cancellation;69289

       (c) Whether the applicant is now or ever has been afflicted 69290
with epilepsy, or whether the applicant now is suffering from any 69291
physical or mental disability or disease and, if so, the nature 69292
and extent of the disability or disease, giving the names and 69293
addresses of physicians then or previously in attendance upon the 69294
applicant;69295

       (d) Whether an applicant for a duplicate driver's license, or 69296
duplicate license containing a motorcycle operator endorsement has 69297
pending a citation for violation of any motor vehicle law or 69298
ordinance, a description of any such citation pending, and the 69299
date of the citation;69300

       (e) WhetherIf an applicant has not certified the applicant's 69301
willingness to make an anatomical gift under section 2108.05 of 69302
the Revised Code, whether the applicant wishes to certify 69303
willingness to make such an anatomical gift under section 2108.05 69304
of the Revised Code, which shall be given no consideration in the 69305
issuance of a license or endorsement;69306

       (f) Whether the applicant has executed a valid durable power 69307
of attorney for health care pursuant to sections 1337.11 to 69308
1337.17 of the Revised Code or has executed a declaration 69309
governing the use or continuation, or the withholding or 69310
withdrawal, of life-sustaining treatment pursuant to sections 69311
2133.01 to 2133.15 of the Revised Code and, if the applicant has 69312
executed either type of instrument, whether the applicant wishes 69313
the applicant's license to indicate that the applicant has 69314
executed the instrument;69315

       (g) On and after October 7, 2009, whether the applicant is a 69316
veteran, active duty, or reservist of the armed forces of the 69317
United States and, if the applicant is such, whether the applicant 69318
wishes the applicant's license to indicate that the applicant is a 69319
veteran, active duty, or reservist of the armed forces of the 69320
United States by a military designation on the license.69321

       (2) Every applicant for a driver's license shall be 69322
photographed in color at the time the application for the license 69323
is made. The application shall state any additional information 69324
that the registrar requires.69325

       (B) The registrar or a deputy registrar, in accordance with 69326
section 3503.11 of the Revised Code, shall register as an elector 69327
any person who applies for a driver's license or motorcycle 69328
operator's license or endorsement under division (A) of this 69329
section, or for a renewal or duplicate of the license or 69330
endorsement, if the applicant is eligible and wishes to be 69331
registered as an elector. The decision of an applicant whether to 69332
register as an elector shall be given no consideration in the 69333
decision of whether to issue the applicant a license or 69334
endorsement, or a renewal or duplicate.69335

       (C) The registrar or a deputy registrar, in accordance with 69336
section 3503.11 of the Revised Code, shall offer the opportunity 69337
of completing a notice of change of residence or change of name to 69338
any applicant for a driver's license or endorsement under division 69339
(A) of this section, or for a renewal or duplicate of the license 69340
or endorsement, if the applicant is a registered elector who has 69341
changed the applicant's residence or name and has not filed such a 69342
notice.69343

       (D) In addition to any other information it contains, on and 69344
after October 7, 2009, the approved form furnished by the 69345
registrar of motor vehicles for an application for a driver's 69346
license or motorcycle operator's license or endorsement or an 69347
application for a duplicate of any such license or endorsement 69348
shall inform applicants that the applicant must present a copy of 69349
the applicant's DD-214 or an equivalent document in order to 69350
qualify to have the license or duplicate indicate that the 69351
applicant is a veteran, active duty, or reservist of the armed 69352
forces of the United States based on a request made pursuant to 69353
division (A)(1)(g) of this section.69354

       Sec. 4507.51.  (A)(1) Every application for an identification 69355
card or duplicate shall be made on a form furnished by the 69356
registrar of motor vehicles, shall be signed by the applicant, and 69357
by the applicant's parent or guardian if the applicant is under 69358
eighteen years of age, and shall contain the following information 69359
pertaining to the applicant: name, date of birth, sex, general 69360
description including the applicant's height, weight, hair color, 69361
and eye color, address, and social security number. The 69362
application also shall stateinclude, for an applicant who has not 69363
already certified the applicant's willingness to make an 69364
anatomical gift under section 2108.05 of the Revised Code, whether 69365
anthe applicant wishes to certify willingness to make such an 69366
anatomical gift under section 2108.05 of the Revised Code and 69367
shall include information about the requirements of sections 69368
2108.01 to 2108.29 of the Revised Code that apply to persons who 69369
are less than eighteen years of age. The statement regarding 69370
willingness to make such a donation shall be given no 69371
consideration in the decision of whether to issue an 69372
identification card. Each applicant shall be photographed in color 69373
at the time of making application. 69374

       (2)(a) The application also shall state whether the applicant 69375
has executed a valid durable power of attorney for health care 69376
pursuant to sections 1337.11 to 1337.17 of the Revised Code or has 69377
executed a declaration governing the use or continuation, or the 69378
withholding or withdrawal, of life-sustaining treatment pursuant 69379
to sections 2133.01 to 2133.15 of the Revised Code and, if the 69380
applicant has executed either type of instrument, whether the 69381
applicant wishes the identification card issued to indicate that 69382
the applicant has executed the instrument. 69383

       (b) On and after October 7, 2009, the application also shall 69384
state whether the applicant is a veteran, active duty, or 69385
reservist of the armed forces of the United States and, if the 69386
applicant is such, whether the applicant wishes the identification 69387
card issued to indicate that the applicant is a veteran, active 69388
duty, or reservist of the armed forces of the United States by a 69389
military designation on the identification card. 69390

       (3) The registrar or deputy registrar, in accordance with 69391
section 3503.11 of the Revised Code, shall register as an elector 69392
any person who applies for an identification card or duplicate if 69393
the applicant is eligible and wishes to be registered as an 69394
elector. The decision of an applicant whether to register as an 69395
elector shall be given no consideration in the decision of whether 69396
to issue the applicant an identification card or duplicate. 69397

       (B) The application for an identification card or duplicate 69398
shall be filed in the office of the registrar or deputy registrar. 69399
Each applicant shall present documentary evidence as required by 69400
the registrar of the applicant's age and identity, and the 69401
applicant shall swear that all information given is true. An 69402
identification card issued by the department of rehabilitation and 69403
correction under section 5120.59 of the Revised Code or an 69404
identification card issued by the department of youth services 69405
under section 5139.511 of the Revised Code shall be sufficient 69406
documentary evidence under this division upon verification of the 69407
applicant's social security number by the registrar or a deputy 69408
registrar. Upon issuing an identification card under this section 69409
for a person who has been issued an identification card under 69410
section 5120.59 or section 5139.511 of the Revised Code, the 69411
registrar or deputy registrar shall destroy the identification 69412
card issued under section 5120.59 or section 5139.511 of the 69413
Revised Code. 69414

       All applications for an identification card or duplicate 69415
shall be filed in duplicate, and if submitted to a deputy 69416
registrar, a copy shall be forwarded to the registrar. The 69417
registrar shall prescribe rules for the manner in which a deputy 69418
registrar is to file and maintain applications and other records. 69419
The registrar shall maintain a suitable, indexed record of all 69420
applications denied and cards issued or canceled. 69421

       (C) In addition to any other information it contains, on and 69422
after the date that is fifteen months after April 7, 2009, the 69423
form furnished by the registrar of motor vehicles for an 69424
application for an identification card or duplicate shall inform 69425
applicants that the applicant must present a copy of the 69426
applicant's DD-214 or an equivalent document in order to qualify 69427
to have the card or duplicate indicate that the applicant is an 69428
honorably discharged veteran of the armed forces of the United 69429
States based on a request made pursuant to division (A)(2)(b) of 69430
this section.69431

       Sec. 4510.038. (A) Any person whose driver's or commercial 69432
driver's license or permit is suspended or who is granted limited 69433
driving privileges under section 4510.037, under division (H) of 69434
section 4511.19, or under section 4510.07 of the Revised Code for 69435
a violation of a municipal ordinance that is substantially 69436
equivalent to division (B) of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code 69437
is not eligible to retain the license, or to have the driving 69438
privileges reinstated, until each of the following has occurred:69439

       (1) The person successfully completes a course of remedial 69440
driving instruction approved by the director of public safety. A 69441
minimum of twenty-five per cent of the number of hours of 69442
instruction included in the course shall be devoted to instruction 69443
on driver attitude.69444

       The course also shall devote a number of hours to instruction 69445
in the area of alcohol and drugs and the operation of vehicles. 69446
The instruction shall include, but not be limited to, a review of 69447
the laws governing the operation of a vehicle while under the 69448
influence of alcohol, drugs, or a combination of them, the dangers 69449
of operating a vehicle while under the influence of alcohol, 69450
drugs, or a combination of them, and other information relating to 69451
the operation of vehicles and the consumption of alcoholic 69452
beverages and use of drugs. The director, in consultation with the 69453
director of alcohol and drug addiction servicesmental health and 69454
addiction services, shall prescribe the content of the 69455
instruction. The number of hours devoted to the area of alcohol 69456
and drugs and the operation of vehicles shall comprise a minimum 69457
of twenty-five per cent of the number of hours of instruction 69458
included in the course.69459

       (2) The person is examined in the manner provided for in 69460
section 4507.20 of the Revised Code, and found by the registrar of 69461
motor vehicles to be qualified to operate a motor vehicle;69462

       (3) The person gives and maintains proof of financial 69463
responsibility, in accordance with section 4509.45 of the Revised 69464
Code.69465

       (B)(1) Except as provided in division (B)(2) of this section, 69466
any course of remedial driving instruction the director of public 69467
safety approves under this section shall require its students to 69468
attend at least fifty per cent of the course in person and the 69469
director shall not approve any course of remedial driving 69470
instruction that permits its students to take more than fifty per 69471
cent of the course in any other manner, including via video 69472
teleconferencing or the internet.69473

       (2) The director may approve a course of remedial instruction 69474
that permits students to take the entire course via video 69475
teleconferencing or the internet.69476

       Sec. 4510.45.  (A)(1) A manufacturer of ignition interlock 69477
devices that desires for its devices to be certified under section 69478
4510.43 of the Revised Code and then to be included on the list of 69479
certified devices that the department of public safety compiles 69480
and makes available to courts pursuant to that section first shall 69481
obtain a license from the department under this section. The 69482
department, in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, 69483
shall adopt any rules that are necessary to implement this 69484
licensing requirement.69485

       (2) A manufacturer shall apply to the department for the 69486
license and shall include all information the department may 69487
require by rule. Each application, including an application for 69488
license renewal, shall be accompanied by an application fee of one 69489
hundred dollars, which the department shall deposit into the state 69490
treasury to the credit of the indigent drivers alcohol treatment 69491
fund created by section 4511.191 of the Revised Code.69492

       (3) Upon receipt of a completed application, if the 69493
department finds that a manufacturer has complied with all 69494
application requirements, the department shall issue a license to 69495
the manufacturer. A manufacturer that has been issued a license 69496
under this section is eligible immediately to have the models of 69497
ignition interlock devices it produces certified under section 69498
4510.43 of the Revised Code and then included on the list of 69499
certified devices that the department compiles and makes available 69500
to courts pursuant to that section.69501

       (4)(a) A license issued under this section shall expire 69502
annually on a date selected by the department. The department 69503
shall reject the license application of a manufacturer if any of 69504
the following apply:69505

       (i) The application is not accompanied by the application 69506
fee.69507

       (ii) The department finds that the manufacturer has not 69508
complied with all application requirements.69509

        (iii) The license application is a renewal application and 69510
the manufacturer failed to file the annual report or failed to pay 69511
the fee as required by division (B) of this section.69512

       (b) A manufacturer whose license application is rejected by 69513
the department may appeal the decision to the director of public 69514
safety. The director or the director's designee shall hold a 69515
hearing on the matter not more than thirty days from the date of 69516
the manufacturer's appeal. If the director or the director's 69517
designee upholds the denial of the manufacturer's application for 69518
a license, the manufacturer may appeal the decision to the 69519
Franklin county court of common pleas. If the director or the 69520
director's designee reverses the denial of the manufacturer's 69521
application for a license, the director or the director's designee 69522
shall issue a written order directing that the department issue a 69523
license to the manufacturer.69524

       (B) Every manufacturer of ignition interlock devices that is 69525
issued a license under this section shall file an annual report 69526
with the department on a form the department prescribes on or 69527
before a date the department prescribes. The annual report shall 69528
state the amount of net profit the manufacturer earned during a 69529
twelve-month period specified by the department that is 69530
attributable to the sales of that manufacturer's certified 69531
ignition interlock devices to purchasers in this state. Each 69532
manufacturer shall pay a fee equal to five per cent of the amount 69533
of the net profit described in this division.69534

       The department may permit annual reports to be filed via 69535
electronic means.69536

       (C) The department shall deposit all fees it receives from 69537
manufacturers under this section into the state treasury to the 69538
credit of the indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund created by 69539
section 4511.191 of the Revised Code. All money so deposited into 69540
that fund that is paid by the department of alcohol and drug 69541
addiction servicesmental health and addiction services to county 69542
indigent drivers alcohol treatment funds, county juvenile indigent 69543
drivers alcohol treatment funds, and municipal indigent drivers 69544
alcohol treatment funds shall be used only as described in 69545
division (H)(3) of section 4511.191 of the Revised Code.69546

       (D)(1) The director may make an assessment, based on any 69547
information in the director's possession, against any manufacturer 69548
that fails to file an annual report or pay the fee required by 69549
division (B) of this section. The director, in accordance with 69550
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, shall adopt rules governing 69551
assessments and assessment procedures and related provisions. In 69552
adopting these rules, the director shall incorporate the 69553
provisions of section 5751.09 of the Revised Code to the greatest 69554
extent possible, except that the director is not required to 69555
incorporate any provisions of that section that by their nature 69556
are not applicable, appropriate, or necessary to assessments made 69557
by the director under this section.69558

       (2) A manufacturer may appeal the final determination of the 69559
director regarding an assessment made by the director under this 69560
section. The director, in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 69561
Revised Code, shall adopt rules governing such appeals. In 69562
adopting these rules, the director shall incorporate the 69563
provisions of section 5717.02 of the Revised Code to the greatest 69564
extent possible, except that the director is not required to 69565
incorporate any provisions of that section that by their nature 69566
are not applicable, appropriate, or necessary to appeals of 69567
assessments made by the director under this section.69568

       (E) The director, in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 69569
Revised Code, shall adopt a penalty schedule setting forth the 69570
monetary penalties to be imposed upon a manufacturer that is 69571
issued a license under this section and fails to file an annual 69572
report or pay the fee required by division (B) of this section in 69573
a timely manner. The penalty amounts shall not exceed the maximum 69574
penalty amounts established in section 5751.06 of the Revised Code 69575
for similar or equivalent facts or circumstances.69576

       (F)(1) No manufacturer of ignition interlock devices that is 69577
required by division (B) of this section to file an annual report 69578
with the department or to pay a fee shall fail to do so as 69579
required by that division.69580

       (2) No manufacturer of ignition interlock devices that is 69581
required by division (B) of this section to file an annual report 69582
with the department shall file a report that contains incorrect or 69583
erroneous information.69584

       (G) Whoever violates division (F)(2) of this section is 69585
guilty of a misdemeanor of the first degree. The department shall 69586
remove from the list of certified devices described in division 69587
(A)(1) of this section the ignition interlock devices manufactured 69588
by a manufacturer that violates division (F)(1) or (2) of this 69589
section.69590

       Sec. 4511.19.  (A)(1) No person shall operate any vehicle, 69591
streetcar, or trackless trolley within this state, if, at the time 69592
of the operation, any of the following apply:69593

       (a) The person is under the influence of alcohol, a drug of 69594
abuse, or a combination of them.69595

       (b) The person has a concentration of eight-hundredths of one 69596
per cent or more but less than seventeen-hundredths of one per 69597
cent by weight per unit volume of alcohol in the person's whole 69598
blood.69599

       (c) The person has a concentration of ninety-six-thousandths 69600
of one per cent or more but less than two hundred four-thousandths 69601
of one per cent by weight per unit volume of alcohol in the 69602
person's blood serum or plasma.69603

       (d) The person has a concentration of eight-hundredths of one 69604
gram or more but less than seventeen-hundredths of one gram by 69605
weight of alcohol per two hundred ten liters of the person's 69606
breath.69607

       (e) The person has a concentration of eleven-hundredths of 69608
one gram or more but less than two hundred 69609
thirty-eight-thousandths of one gram by weight of alcohol per one 69610
hundred milliliters of the person's urine.69611

       (f) The person has a concentration of seventeen-hundredths of 69612
one per cent or more by weight per unit volume of alcohol in the 69613
person's whole blood.69614

       (g) The person has a concentration of two hundred 69615
four-thousandths of one per cent or more by weight per unit volume 69616
of alcohol in the person's blood serum or plasma.69617

       (h) The person has a concentration of seventeen-hundredths of 69618
one gram or more by weight of alcohol per two hundred ten liters 69619
of the person's breath.69620

       (i) The person has a concentration of two hundred 69621
thirty-eight-thousandths of one gram or more by weight of alcohol 69622
per one hundred milliliters of the person's urine.69623

       (j) Except as provided in division (K) of this section, the 69624
person has a concentration of any of the following controlled 69625
substances or metabolites of a controlled substance in the 69626
person's whole blood, blood serum or plasma, or urine that equals 69627
or exceeds any of the following:69628

       (i) The person has a concentration of amphetamine in the 69629
person's urine of at least five hundred nanograms of amphetamine 69630
per milliliter of the person's urine or has a concentration of 69631
amphetamine in the person's whole blood or blood serum or plasma 69632
of at least one hundred nanograms of amphetamine per milliliter of 69633
the person's whole blood or blood serum or plasma.69634

       (ii) The person has a concentration of cocaine in the 69635
person's urine of at least one hundred fifty nanograms of cocaine 69636
per milliliter of the person's urine or has a concentration of 69637
cocaine in the person's whole blood or blood serum or plasma of at 69638
least fifty nanograms of cocaine per milliliter of the person's 69639
whole blood or blood serum or plasma.69640

       (iii) The person has a concentration of cocaine metabolite in 69641
the person's urine of at least one hundred fifty nanograms of 69642
cocaine metabolite per milliliter of the person's urine or has a 69643
concentration of cocaine metabolite in the person's whole blood or 69644
blood serum or plasma of at least fifty nanograms of cocaine 69645
metabolite per milliliter of the person's whole blood or blood 69646
serum or plasma.69647

       (iv) The person has a concentration of heroin in the person's 69648
urine of at least two thousand nanograms of heroin per milliliter 69649
of the person's urine or has a concentration of heroin in the 69650
person's whole blood or blood serum or plasma of at least fifty 69651
nanograms of heroin per milliliter of the person's whole blood or 69652
blood serum or plasma.69653

       (v) The person has a concentration of heroin metabolite 69654
(6-monoacetyl morphine) in the person's urine of at least ten 69655
nanograms of heroin metabolite (6-monoacetyl morphine) per 69656
milliliter of the person's urine or has a concentration of heroin 69657
metabolite (6-monoacetyl morphine) in the person's whole blood or 69658
blood serum or plasma of at least ten nanograms of heroin 69659
metabolite (6-monoacetyl morphine) per milliliter of the person's 69660
whole blood or blood serum or plasma.69661

       (vi) The person has a concentration of L.S.D. in the person's 69662
urine of at least twenty-five nanograms of L.S.D. per milliliter 69663
of the person's urine or a concentration of L.S.D. in the person's 69664
whole blood or blood serum or plasma of at least ten nanograms of 69665
L.S.D. per milliliter of the person's whole blood or blood serum 69666
or plasma.69667

       (vii) The person has a concentration of marihuana in the 69668
person's urine of at least ten nanograms of marihuana per 69669
milliliter of the person's urine or has a concentration of 69670
marihuana in the person's whole blood or blood serum or plasma of 69671
at least two nanograms of marihuana per milliliter of the person's 69672
whole blood or blood serum or plasma.69673

       (viii) Either of the following applies:69674

        (I) The person is under the influence of alcohol, a drug of 69675
abuse, or a combination of them, and, as measured by gas 69676
chromatography mass spectrometry, the person has a concentration 69677
of marihuana metabolite in the person's urine of at least fifteen 69678
nanograms of marihuana metabolite per milliliter of the person's 69679
urine or has a concentration of marihuana metabolite in the 69680
person's whole blood or blood serum or plasma of at least five 69681
nanograms of marihuana metabolite per milliliter of the person's 69682
whole blood or blood serum or plasma.69683

       (II) As measured by gas chromatography mass spectrometry, the 69684
person has a concentration of marihuana metabolite in the person's 69685
urine of at least thirty-five nanograms of marihuana metabolite 69686
per milliliter of the person's urine or has a concentration of 69687
marihuana metabolite in the person's whole blood or blood serum or 69688
plasma of at least fifty nanograms of marihuana metabolite per 69689
milliliter of the person's whole blood or blood serum or plasma.69690

       (ix) The person has a concentration of methamphetamine in the 69691
person's urine of at least five hundred nanograms of 69692
methamphetamine per milliliter of the person's urine or has a 69693
concentration of methamphetamine in the person's whole blood or 69694
blood serum or plasma of at least one hundred nanograms of 69695
methamphetamine per milliliter of the person's whole blood or 69696
blood serum or plasma.69697

       (x) The person has a concentration of phencyclidine in the 69698
person's urine of at least twenty-five nanograms of phencyclidine 69699
per milliliter of the person's urine or has a concentration of 69700
phencyclidine in the person's whole blood or blood serum or plasma 69701
of at least ten nanograms of phencyclidine per milliliter of the 69702
person's whole blood or blood serum or plasma.69703

       (xi) The state board of pharmacy has adopted a rule pursuant 69704
to section 4729.041 of the Revised Code that specifies the amount 69705
of salvia divinorum and the amount of salvinorin A that constitute 69706
concentrations of salvia divinorum and salvinorin A in a person's 69707
urine, in a person's whole blood, or in a person's blood serum or 69708
plasma at or above which the person is impaired for purposes of 69709
operating any vehicle, streetcar, or trackless trolley within this 69710
state, the rule is in effect, and the person has a concentration 69711
of salvia divinorum or salvinorin A of at least that amount so 69712
specified by rule in the person's urine, in the person's whole 69713
blood, or in the person's blood serum or plasma.69714

       (2) No person who, within twenty years of the conduct 69715
described in division (A)(2)(a) of this section, previously has 69716
been convicted of or pleaded guilty to a violation of this 69717
division, a violation of division (A)(1) or (B) of this section, 69718
or any other equivalent offense shall do both of the following:69719

       (a) Operate any vehicle, streetcar, or trackless trolley 69720
within this state while under the influence of alcohol, a drug of 69721
abuse, or a combination of them;69722

       (b) Subsequent to being arrested for operating the vehicle, 69723
streetcar, or trackless trolley as described in division (A)(2)(a) 69724
of this section, being asked by a law enforcement officer to 69725
submit to a chemical test or tests under section 4511.191 of the 69726
Revised Code, and being advised by the officer in accordance with 69727
section 4511.192 of the Revised Code of the consequences of the 69728
person's refusal or submission to the test or tests, refuse to 69729
submit to the test or tests.69730

       (B) No person under twenty-one years of age shall operate any 69731
vehicle, streetcar, or trackless trolley within this state, if, at 69732
the time of the operation, any of the following apply:69733

       (1) The person has a concentration of at least two-hundredths 69734
of one per cent but less than eight-hundredths of one per cent by 69735
weight per unit volume of alcohol in the person's whole blood.69736

       (2) The person has a concentration of at least 69737
three-hundredths of one per cent but less than 69738
ninety-six-thousandths of one per cent by weight per unit volume 69739
of alcohol in the person's blood serum or plasma.69740

       (3) The person has a concentration of at least two-hundredths 69741
of one gram but less than eight-hundredths of one gram by weight 69742
of alcohol per two hundred ten liters of the person's breath.69743

       (4) The person has a concentration of at least twenty-eight 69744
one-thousandths of one gram but less than eleven-hundredths of one 69745
gram by weight of alcohol per one hundred milliliters of the 69746
person's urine.69747

       (C) In any proceeding arising out of one incident, a person 69748
may be charged with a violation of division (A)(1)(a) or (A)(2) 69749
and a violation of division (B)(1), (2), or (3) of this section, 69750
but the person may not be convicted of more than one violation of 69751
these divisions.69752

       (D)(1)(a) In any criminal prosecution or juvenile court 69753
proceeding for a violation of division (A)(1)(a) of this section 69754
or for an equivalent offense that is vehicle-related, the result 69755
of any test of any blood or urine withdrawn and analyzed at any 69756
health care provider, as defined in section 2317.02 of the Revised 69757
Code, may be admitted with expert testimony to be considered with 69758
any other relevant and competent evidence in determining the guilt 69759
or innocence of the defendant.69760

       (b) In any criminal prosecution or juvenile court proceeding 69761
for a violation of division (A) or (B) of this section or for an 69762
equivalent offense that is vehicle-related, the court may admit 69763
evidence on the concentration of alcohol, drugs of abuse, 69764
controlled substances, metabolites of a controlled substance, or a 69765
combination of them in the defendant's whole blood, blood serum or 69766
plasma, breath, urine, or other bodily substance at the time of 69767
the alleged violation as shown by chemical analysis of the 69768
substance withdrawn within three hours of the time of the alleged 69769
violation. The three-hour time limit specified in this division 69770
regarding the admission of evidence does not extend or affect the 69771
two-hour time limit specified in division (A) of section 4511.192 69772
of the Revised Code as the maximum period of time during which a 69773
person may consent to a chemical test or tests as described in 69774
that section. The court may admit evidence on the concentration of 69775
alcohol, drugs of abuse, or a combination of them as described in 69776
this division when a person submits to a blood, breath, urine, or 69777
other bodily substance test at the request of a law enforcement 69778
officer under section 4511.191 of the Revised Code or a blood or 69779
urine sample is obtained pursuant to a search warrant. Only a 69780
physician, a registered nurse, an emergency medical 69781
technician-intermediate, an emergency medical 69782
technician-paramedic, or a qualified technician, chemist, or 69783
phlebotomist shall withdraw a blood sample for the purpose of 69784
determining the alcohol, drug, controlled substance, metabolite of 69785
a controlled substance, or combination content of the whole blood, 69786
blood serum, or blood plasma. This limitation does not apply to 69787
the taking of breath or urine specimens. A person authorized to 69788
withdraw blood under this division may refuse to withdraw blood 69789
under this division, if in that person's opinion, the physical 69790
welfare of the person would be endangered by the withdrawing of 69791
blood.69792

       The bodily substance withdrawn under division (D)(1)(b) of 69793
this section shall be analyzed in accordance with methods approved 69794
by the director of health by an individual possessing a valid 69795
permit issued by the director pursuant to section 3701.143 of the 69796
Revised Code.69797

       (c) As used in division (D)(1)(b) of this section, "emergency 69798
medical technician-intermediate" and "emergency medical 69799
technician-paramedic" have the same meanings as in section 4765.01 69800
of the Revised Code.69801

       (2) In a criminal prosecution or juvenile court proceeding 69802
for a violation of division (A) of this section or for an 69803
equivalent offense that is vehicle-related, if there was at the 69804
time the bodily substance was withdrawn a concentration of less 69805
than the applicable concentration of alcohol specified in 69806
divisions (A)(1)(b), (c), (d), and (e) of this section or less 69807
than the applicable concentration of a listed controlled substance 69808
or a listed metabolite of a controlled substance specified for a 69809
violation of division (A)(1)(j) of this section, that fact may be 69810
considered with other competent evidence in determining the guilt 69811
or innocence of the defendant. This division does not limit or 69812
affect a criminal prosecution or juvenile court proceeding for a 69813
violation of division (B) of this section or for an equivalent 69814
offense that is substantially equivalent to that division.69815

       (3) Upon the request of the person who was tested, the 69816
results of the chemical test shall be made available to the person 69817
or the person's attorney, immediately upon the completion of the 69818
chemical test analysis.69819

        If the chemical test was obtained pursuant to division 69820
(D)(1)(b) of this section, the person tested may have a physician, 69821
a registered nurse, or a qualified technician, chemist, or 69822
phlebotomist of the person's own choosing administer a chemical 69823
test or tests, at the person's expense, in addition to any 69824
administered at the request of a law enforcement officer. If the 69825
person was under arrest as described in division (A)(5) of section 69826
4511.191 of the Revised Code, the arresting officer shall advise 69827
the person at the time of the arrest that the person may have an 69828
independent chemical test taken at the person's own expense. If 69829
the person was under arrest other than described in division 69830
(A)(5) of section 4511.191 of the Revised Code, the form to be 69831
read to the person to be tested, as required under section 69832
4511.192 of the Revised Code, shall state that the person may have 69833
an independent test performed at the person's expense. The failure 69834
or inability to obtain an additional chemical test by a person 69835
shall not preclude the admission of evidence relating to the 69836
chemical test or tests taken at the request of a law enforcement 69837
officer.69838

       (4)(a) As used in divisions (D)(4)(b) and (c) of this 69839
section, "national highway traffic safety administration" means 69840
the national highway traffic safety administration established as 69841
an administration of the United States department of 69842
transportation under 96 Stat. 2415 (1983), 49 U.S.C.A. 105.69843

       (b) In any criminal prosecution or juvenile court proceeding 69844
for a violation of division (A) or (B) of this section, of a 69845
municipal ordinance relating to operating a vehicle while under 69846
the influence of alcohol, a drug of abuse, or alcohol and a drug 69847
of abuse, or of a municipal ordinance relating to operating a 69848
vehicle with a prohibited concentration of alcohol, a controlled 69849
substance, or a metabolite of a controlled substance in the whole 69850
blood, blood serum or plasma, breath, or urine, if a law 69851
enforcement officer has administered a field sobriety test to the 69852
operator of the vehicle involved in the violation and if it is 69853
shown by clear and convincing evidence that the officer 69854
administered the test in substantial compliance with the testing 69855
standards for any reliable, credible, and generally accepted field 69856
sobriety tests that were in effect at the time the tests were 69857
administered, including, but not limited to, any testing standards 69858
then in effect that were set by the national highway traffic 69859
safety administration, all of the following apply:69860

       (i) The officer may testify concerning the results of the 69861
field sobriety test so administered.69862

       (ii) The prosecution may introduce the results of the field 69863
sobriety test so administered as evidence in any proceedings in 69864
the criminal prosecution or juvenile court proceeding.69865

       (iii) If testimony is presented or evidence is introduced 69866
under division (D)(4)(b)(i) or (ii) of this section and if the 69867
testimony or evidence is admissible under the Rules of Evidence, 69868
the court shall admit the testimony or evidence and the trier of 69869
fact shall give it whatever weight the trier of fact considers to 69870
be appropriate.69871

       (c) Division (D)(4)(b) of this section does not limit or 69872
preclude a court, in its determination of whether the arrest of a 69873
person was supported by probable cause or its determination of any 69874
other matter in a criminal prosecution or juvenile court 69875
proceeding of a type described in that division, from considering 69876
evidence or testimony that is not otherwise disallowed by division 69877
(D)(4)(b) of this section.69878

       (E)(1) Subject to division (E)(3) of this section, in any 69879
criminal prosecution or juvenile court proceeding for a violation 69880
of division (A)(1)(b), (c), (d), (e), (f), (g), (h), (i), or (j) 69881
or (B)(1), (2), (3), or (4) of this section or for an equivalent 69882
offense that is substantially equivalent to any of those 69883
divisions, a laboratory report from any laboratory personnel 69884
issued a permit by the department of health authorizing an 69885
analysis as described in this division that contains an analysis 69886
of the whole blood, blood serum or plasma, breath, urine, or other 69887
bodily substance tested and that contains all of the information 69888
specified in this division shall be admitted as prima-facie 69889
evidence of the information and statements that the report 69890
contains. The laboratory report shall contain all of the 69891
following:69892

       (a) The signature, under oath, of any person who performed 69893
the analysis;69894

       (b) Any findings as to the identity and quantity of alcohol, 69895
a drug of abuse, a controlled substance, a metabolite of a 69896
controlled substance, or a combination of them that was found;69897

       (c) A copy of a notarized statement by the laboratory 69898
director or a designee of the director that contains the name of 69899
each certified analyst or test performer involved with the report, 69900
the analyst's or test performer's employment relationship with the 69901
laboratory that issued the report, and a notation that performing 69902
an analysis of the type involved is part of the analyst's or test 69903
performer's regular duties;69904

       (d) An outline of the analyst's or test performer's 69905
education, training, and experience in performing the type of 69906
analysis involved and a certification that the laboratory 69907
satisfies appropriate quality control standards in general and, in 69908
this particular analysis, under rules of the department of health.69909

       (2) Notwithstanding any other provision of law regarding the 69910
admission of evidence, a report of the type described in division 69911
(E)(1) of this section is not admissible against the defendant to 69912
whom it pertains in any proceeding, other than a preliminary 69913
hearing or a grand jury proceeding, unless the prosecutor has 69914
served a copy of the report on the defendant's attorney or, if the 69915
defendant has no attorney, on the defendant.69916

       (3) A report of the type described in division (E)(1) of this 69917
section shall not be prima-facie evidence of the contents, 69918
identity, or amount of any substance if, within seven days after 69919
the defendant to whom the report pertains or the defendant's 69920
attorney receives a copy of the report, the defendant or the 69921
defendant's attorney demands the testimony of the person who 69922
signed the report. The judge in the case may extend the seven-day 69923
time limit in the interest of justice.69924

       (F) Except as otherwise provided in this division, any 69925
physician, registered nurse, emergency medical 69926
technician-intermediate, emergency medical technician-paramedic, 69927
or qualified technician, chemist, or phlebotomist who withdraws 69928
blood from a person pursuant to this section or section 4511.191 69929
or 4511.192 of the Revised Code, and any hospital, first-aid 69930
station, or clinic at which blood is withdrawn from a person 69931
pursuant to this section or section 4511.191 or 4511.192 of the 69932
Revised Code, is immune from criminal liability and civil 69933
liability based upon a claim of assault and battery or any other 69934
claim that is not a claim of malpractice, for any act performed in 69935
withdrawing blood from the person. The immunity provided in this 69936
division also extends to an emergency medical service organization 69937
that employs an emergency medical technician-intermediate or 69938
emergency medical technician-paramedic who withdraws blood under 69939
this section. The immunity provided in this division is not 69940
available to a person who withdraws blood if the person engages in 69941
willful or wanton misconduct.69942

       As used in this division, "emergency medical 69943
technician-intermediate" and "emergency medical 69944
technician-paramedic" have the same meanings as in section 4765.01 69945
of the Revised Code.69946

       (G)(1) Whoever violates any provision of divisions (A)(1)(a) 69947
to (i) or (A)(2) of this section is guilty of operating a vehicle 69948
under the influence of alcohol, a drug of abuse, or a combination 69949
of them. Whoever violates division (A)(1)(j) of this section is 69950
guilty of operating a vehicle while under the influence of a 69951
listed controlled substance or a listed metabolite of a controlled 69952
substance. The court shall sentence the offender for either 69953
offense under Chapter 2929. of the Revised Code, except as 69954
otherwise authorized or required by divisions (G)(1)(a) to (e) of 69955
this section:69956

       (a) Except as otherwise provided in division (G)(1)(b), (c), 69957
(d), or (e) of this section, the offender is guilty of a 69958
misdemeanor of the first degree, and the court shall sentence the 69959
offender to all of the following:69960

       (i) If the sentence is being imposed for a violation of 69961
division (A)(1)(a), (b), (c), (d), (e), or (j) of this section, a 69962
mandatory jail term of three consecutive days. As used in this 69963
division, three consecutive days means seventy-two consecutive 69964
hours. The court may sentence an offender to both an intervention 69965
program and a jail term. The court may impose a jail term in 69966
addition to the three-day mandatory jail term or intervention 69967
program. However, in no case shall the cumulative jail term 69968
imposed for the offense exceed six months.69969

       The court may suspend the execution of the three-day jail 69970
term under this division if the court, in lieu of that suspended 69971
term, places the offender under a community control sanction 69972
pursuant to section 2929.25 of the Revised Code and requires the 69973
offender to attend, for three consecutive days, a drivers' 69974
intervention program certified under section 3793.105119.38 of 69975
the Revised Code. The court also may suspend the execution of any 69976
part of the three-day jail term under this division if it places 69977
the offender under a community control sanction pursuant to 69978
section 2929.25 of the Revised Code for part of the three days, 69979
requires the offender to attend for the suspended part of the term 69980
a drivers' intervention program so certified, and sentences the 69981
offender to a jail term equal to the remainder of the three 69982
consecutive days that the offender does not spend attending the 69983
program. The court may require the offender, as a condition of 69984
community control and in addition to the required attendance at a 69985
drivers' intervention program, to attend and satisfactorily 69986
complete any treatment or education programs that comply with the 69987
minimum standards adopted pursuant to Chapter 3793.5119. of the 69988
Revised Code by the director of alcohol and drug addiction 69989
servicesmental health and addiction services that the operators 69990
of the drivers' intervention program determine that the offender 69991
should attend and to report periodically to the court on the 69992
offender's progress in the programs. The court also may impose on 69993
the offender any other conditions of community control that it 69994
considers necessary.69995

       (ii) If the sentence is being imposed for a violation of 69996
division (A)(1)(f), (g), (h), or (i) or division (A)(2) of this 69997
section, except as otherwise provided in this division, a 69998
mandatory jail term of at least three consecutive days and a 69999
requirement that the offender attend, for three consecutive days, 70000
a drivers' intervention program that is certified pursuant to 70001
section 3793.105119.38 of the Revised Code. As used in this 70002
division, three consecutive days means seventy-two consecutive 70003
hours. If the court determines that the offender is not conducive 70004
to treatment in a drivers' intervention program, if the offender 70005
refuses to attend a drivers' intervention program, or if the jail 70006
at which the offender is to serve the jail term imposed can 70007
provide a driver's intervention program, the court shall sentence 70008
the offender to a mandatory jail term of at least six consecutive 70009
days.70010

       The court may require the offender, under a community control 70011
sanction imposed under section 2929.25 of the Revised Code, to 70012
attend and satisfactorily complete any treatment or education 70013
programs that comply with the minimum standards adopted pursuant 70014
to Chapter 3793.5119. of the Revised Code by the director of 70015
alcohol and drug addiction servicesmental health and addiction 70016
services, in addition to the required attendance at drivers' 70017
intervention program, that the operators of the drivers' 70018
intervention program determine that the offender should attend and 70019
to report periodically to the court on the offender's progress in 70020
the programs. The court also may impose any other conditions of 70021
community control on the offender that it considers necessary.70022

       (iii) In all cases, a fine of not less than three hundred 70023
seventy-five and not more than one thousand seventy-five dollars;70024

       (iv) In all cases, a class five license suspension of the 70025
offender's driver's or commercial driver's license or permit or 70026
nonresident operating privilege from the range specified in 70027
division (A)(5) of section 4510.02 of the Revised Code. The court 70028
may grant limited driving privileges relative to the suspension 70029
under sections 4510.021 and 4510.13 of the Revised Code.70030

       (b) Except as otherwise provided in division (G)(1)(e) of 70031
this section, an offender who, within six years of the offense, 70032
previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to one 70033
violation of division (A) or (B) of this section or one other 70034
equivalent offense is guilty of a misdemeanor of the first degree. 70035
The court shall sentence the offender to all of the following:70036

       (i) If the sentence is being imposed for a violation of 70037
division (A)(1)(a), (b), (c), (d), (e), or (j) of this section, a 70038
mandatory jail term of ten consecutive days. The court shall 70039
impose the ten-day mandatory jail term under this division unless, 70040
subject to division (G)(3) of this section, it instead imposes a 70041
sentence under that division consisting of both a jail term and a 70042
term of house arrest with electronic monitoring, with continuous 70043
alcohol monitoring, or with both electronic monitoring and 70044
continuous alcohol monitoring. The court may impose a jail term in 70045
addition to the ten-day mandatory jail term. The cumulative jail 70046
term imposed for the offense shall not exceed six months.70047

       In addition to the jail term or the term of house arrest with 70048
electronic monitoring or continuous alcohol monitoring or both 70049
types of monitoring and jail term, the court shall require the 70050
offender to be assessed by an alcohol and drug treatment programa 70051
community addiction services provider that is authorized by 70052
section 3793.025119.21 of the Revised Code, subject to division 70053
(I) of this section, and shall order the offender to follow the 70054
treatment recommendations of the programservices provider. The 70055
purpose of the assessment is to determine the degree of the 70056
offender's alcohol usage and to determine whether or not treatment 70057
is warranted. Upon the request of the court, the programservices 70058
provider shall submit the results of the assessment to the court, 70059
including all treatment recommendations and clinical diagnoses 70060
related to alcohol use.70061

       (ii) If the sentence is being imposed for a violation of 70062
division (A)(1)(f), (g), (h), or (i) or division (A)(2) of this 70063
section, except as otherwise provided in this division, a 70064
mandatory jail term of twenty consecutive days. The court shall 70065
impose the twenty-day mandatory jail term under this division 70066
unless, subject to division (G)(3) of this section, it instead 70067
imposes a sentence under that division consisting of both a jail 70068
term and a term of house arrest with electronic monitoring, with 70069
continuous alcohol monitoring, or with both electronic monitoring 70070
and continuous alcohol monitoring. The court may impose a jail 70071
term in addition to the twenty-day mandatory jail term. The 70072
cumulative jail term imposed for the offense shall not exceed six 70073
months.70074

       In addition to the jail term or the term of house arrest with 70075
electronic monitoring or continuous alcohol monitoring or both 70076
types of monitoring and jail term, the court shall require the 70077
offender to be assessed by an alcohol and drug treatment programa 70078
community addiction service provider that is authorized by section 70079
3793.025119.21 of the Revised Code, subject to division (I) of 70080
this section, and shall order the offender to follow the treatment 70081
recommendations of the programservices provider. The purpose of 70082
the assessment is to determine the degree of the offender's 70083
alcohol usage and to determine whether or not treatment is 70084
warranted. Upon the request of the court, the programservices 70085
provider shall submit the results of the assessment to the court, 70086
including all treatment recommendations and clinical diagnoses 70087
related to alcohol use.70088

       (iii) In all cases, notwithstanding the fines set forth in 70089
Chapter 2929. of the Revised Code, a fine of not less than five 70090
hundred twenty-five and not more than one thousand six hundred 70091
twenty-five dollars;70092

       (iv) In all cases, a class four license suspension of the 70093
offender's driver's license, commercial driver's license, 70094
temporary instruction permit, probationary license, or nonresident 70095
operating privilege from the range specified in division (A)(4) of 70096
section 4510.02 of the Revised Code. The court may grant limited 70097
driving privileges relative to the suspension under sections 70098
4510.021 and 4510.13 of the Revised Code.70099

       (v) In all cases, if the vehicle is registered in the 70100
offender's name, immobilization of the vehicle involved in the 70101
offense for ninety days in accordance with section 4503.233 of the 70102
Revised Code and impoundment of the license plates of that vehicle 70103
for ninety days.70104

       (c) Except as otherwise provided in division (G)(1)(e) of 70105
this section, an offender who, within six years of the offense, 70106
previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to two 70107
violations of division (A) or (B) of this section or other 70108
equivalent offenses is guilty of a misdemeanor. The court shall 70109
sentence the offender to all of the following:70110

       (i) If the sentence is being imposed for a violation of 70111
division (A)(1)(a), (b), (c), (d), (e), or (j) of this section, a 70112
mandatory jail term of thirty consecutive days. The court shall 70113
impose the thirty-day mandatory jail term under this division 70114
unless, subject to division (G)(3) of this section, it instead 70115
imposes a sentence under that division consisting of both a jail 70116
term and a term of house arrest with electronic monitoring, with 70117
continuous alcohol monitoring, or with both electronic monitoring 70118
and continuous alcohol monitoring. The court may impose a jail 70119
term in addition to the thirty-day mandatory jail term. 70120
Notwithstanding the jail terms set forth in sections 2929.21 to 70121
2929.28 of the Revised Code, the additional jail term shall not 70122
exceed one year, and the cumulative jail term imposed for the 70123
offense shall not exceed one year.70124

       (ii) If the sentence is being imposed for a violation of 70125
division (A)(1)(f), (g), (h), or (i) or division (A)(2) of this 70126
section, a mandatory jail term of sixty consecutive days. The 70127
court shall impose the sixty-day mandatory jail term under this 70128
division unless, subject to division (G)(3) of this section, it 70129
instead imposes a sentence under that division consisting of both 70130
a jail term and a term of house arrest with electronic monitoring, 70131
with continuous alcohol monitoring, or with both electronic 70132
monitoring and continuous alcohol monitoring. The court may impose 70133
a jail term in addition to the sixty-day mandatory jail term. 70134
Notwithstanding the jail terms set forth in sections 2929.21 to 70135
2929.28 of the Revised Code, the additional jail term shall not 70136
exceed one year, and the cumulative jail term imposed for the 70137
offense shall not exceed one year.70138

       (iii) In all cases, notwithstanding the fines set forth in 70139
Chapter 2929. of the Revised Code, a fine of not less than eight 70140
hundred fifty and not more than two thousand seven hundred fifty 70141
dollars;70142

       (iv) In all cases, a class three license suspension of the 70143
offender's driver's license, commercial driver's license, 70144
temporary instruction permit, probationary license, or nonresident 70145
operating privilege from the range specified in division (A)(3) of 70146
section 4510.02 of the Revised Code. The court may grant limited 70147
driving privileges relative to the suspension under sections 70148
4510.021 and 4510.13 of the Revised Code.70149

       (v) In all cases, if the vehicle is registered in the 70150
offender's name, criminal forfeiture of the vehicle involved in 70151
the offense in accordance with section 4503.234 of the Revised 70152
Code. Division (G)(6) of this section applies regarding any 70153
vehicle that is subject to an order of criminal forfeiture under 70154
this division.70155

       (vi) In all cases, the court shall order the offender to 70156
participate in an alcohol and drugwith a community addiction 70157
programservices provider authorized by section 3793.025119.21 of 70158
the Revised Code, subject to division (I) of this section, and 70159
shall order the offender to follow the treatment recommendations 70160
of the programservices provider. The operator of the program70161
services provider shall determine and assess the degree of the 70162
offender's alcohol dependency and shall make recommendations for 70163
treatment. Upon the request of the court, the programservices 70164
provider shall submit the results of the assessment to the court, 70165
including all treatment recommendations and clinical diagnoses 70166
related to alcohol use.70167

       (d) Except as otherwise provided in division (G)(1)(e) of 70168
this section, an offender who, within six years of the offense, 70169
previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to three or 70170
four violations of division (A) or (B) of this section or other 70171
equivalent offenses or an offender who, within twenty years of the 70172
offense, previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to 70173
five or more violations of that nature is guilty of a felony of 70174
the fourth degree. The court shall sentence the offender to all of 70175
the following:70176

       (i) If the sentence is being imposed for a violation of 70177
division (A)(1)(a), (b), (c), (d), (e), or (j) of this section, a 70178
mandatory prison term of one, two, three, four, or five years as 70179
required by and in accordance with division (G)(2) of section 70180
2929.13 of the Revised Code if the offender also is convicted of 70181
or also pleads guilty to a specification of the type described in 70182
section 2941.1413 of the Revised Code or, in the discretion of the 70183
court, either a mandatory term of local incarceration of sixty 70184
consecutive days in accordance with division (G)(1) of section 70185
2929.13 of the Revised Code or a mandatory prison term of sixty 70186
consecutive days in accordance with division (G)(2) of that 70187
section if the offender is not convicted of and does not plead 70188
guilty to a specification of that type. If the court imposes a 70189
mandatory term of local incarceration, it may impose a jail term 70190
in addition to the sixty-day mandatory term, the cumulative total 70191
of the mandatory term and the jail term for the offense shall not 70192
exceed one year, and, except as provided in division (A)(1) of 70193
section 2929.13 of the Revised Code, no prison term is authorized 70194
for the offense. If the court imposes a mandatory prison term, 70195
notwithstanding division (A)(4) of section 2929.14 of the Revised 70196
Code, it also may sentence the offender to a definite prison term 70197
that shall be not less than six months and not more than thirty 70198
months and the prison terms shall be imposed as described in 70199
division (G)(2) of section 2929.13 of the Revised Code. If the 70200
court imposes a mandatory prison term or mandatory prison term and 70201
additional prison term, in addition to the term or terms so 70202
imposed, the court also may sentence the offender to a community 70203
control sanction for the offense, but the offender shall serve all 70204
of the prison terms so imposed prior to serving the community 70205
control sanction.70206

       (ii) If the sentence is being imposed for a violation of 70207
division (A)(1)(f), (g), (h), or (i) or division (A)(2) of this 70208
section, a mandatory prison term of one, two, three, four, or five 70209
years as required by and in accordance with division (G)(2) of 70210
section 2929.13 of the Revised Code if the offender also is 70211
convicted of or also pleads guilty to a specification of the type 70212
described in section 2941.1413 of the Revised Code or, in the 70213
discretion of the court, either a mandatory term of local 70214
incarceration of one hundred twenty consecutive days in accordance 70215
with division (G)(1) of section 2929.13 of the Revised Code or a 70216
mandatory prison term of one hundred twenty consecutive days in 70217
accordance with division (G)(2) of that section if the offender is 70218
not convicted of and does not plead guilty to a specification of 70219
that type. If the court imposes a mandatory term of local 70220
incarceration, it may impose a jail term in addition to the one 70221
hundred twenty-day mandatory term, the cumulative total of the 70222
mandatory term and the jail term for the offense shall not exceed 70223
one year, and, except as provided in division (A)(1) of section 70224
2929.13 of the Revised Code, no prison term is authorized for the 70225
offense. If the court imposes a mandatory prison term, 70226
notwithstanding division (A)(4) of section 2929.14 of the Revised 70227
Code, it also may sentence the offender to a definite prison term 70228
that shall be not less than six months and not more than thirty 70229
months and the prison terms shall be imposed as described in 70230
division (G)(2) of section 2929.13 of the Revised Code. If the 70231
court imposes a mandatory prison term or mandatory prison term and 70232
additional prison term, in addition to the term or terms so 70233
imposed, the court also may sentence the offender to a community 70234
control sanction for the offense, but the offender shall serve all 70235
of the prison terms so imposed prior to serving the community 70236
control sanction.70237

       (iii) In all cases, notwithstanding section 2929.18 of the 70238
Revised Code, a fine of not less than one thousand three hundred 70239
fifty nor more than ten thousand five hundred dollars;70240

       (iv) In all cases, a class two license suspension of the 70241
offender's driver's license, commercial driver's license, 70242
temporary instruction permit, probationary license, or nonresident 70243
operating privilege from the range specified in division (A)(2) of 70244
section 4510.02 of the Revised Code. The court may grant limited 70245
driving privileges relative to the suspension under sections 70246
4510.021 and 4510.13 of the Revised Code.70247

       (v) In all cases, if the vehicle is registered in the 70248
offender's name, criminal forfeiture of the vehicle involved in 70249
the offense in accordance with section 4503.234 of the Revised 70250
Code. Division (G)(6) of this section applies regarding any 70251
vehicle that is subject to an order of criminal forfeiture under 70252
this division.70253

       (vi) In all cases, the court shall order the offender to 70254
participate in an alcohol and drugwith a community addiction 70255
programservices provider authorized by section 3793.025119.21 of 70256
the Revised Code, subject to division (I) of this section, and 70257
shall order the offender to follow the treatment recommendations 70258
of the programservices provider. The operator of the program70259
services provider shall determine and assess the degree of the 70260
offender's alcohol dependency and shall make recommendations for 70261
treatment. Upon the request of the court, the programservices 70262
provider shall submit the results of the assessment to the court, 70263
including all treatment recommendations and clinical diagnoses 70264
related to alcohol use.70265

       (vii) In all cases, if the court sentences the offender to a 70266
mandatory term of local incarceration, in addition to the 70267
mandatory term, the court, pursuant to section 2929.17 of the 70268
Revised Code, may impose a term of house arrest with electronic 70269
monitoring. The term shall not commence until after the offender 70270
has served the mandatory term of local incarceration.70271

       (e) An offender who previously has been convicted of or 70272
pleaded guilty to a violation of division (A) of this section that 70273
was a felony, regardless of when the violation and the conviction 70274
or guilty plea occurred, is guilty of a felony of the third 70275
degree. The court shall sentence the offender to all of the 70276
following:70277

       (i) If the offender is being sentenced for a violation of 70278
division (A)(1)(a), (b), (c), (d), (e), or (j) of this section, a 70279
mandatory prison term of one, two, three, four, or five years as 70280
required by and in accordance with division (G)(2) of section 70281
2929.13 of the Revised Code if the offender also is convicted of 70282
or also pleads guilty to a specification of the type described in 70283
section 2941.1413 of the Revised Code or a mandatory prison term 70284
of sixty consecutive days in accordance with division (G)(2) of 70285
section 2929.13 of the Revised Code if the offender is not 70286
convicted of and does not plead guilty to a specification of that 70287
type. The court may impose a prison term in addition to the 70288
mandatory prison term. The cumulative total of a sixty-day 70289
mandatory prison term and the additional prison term for the 70290
offense shall not exceed five years. In addition to the mandatory 70291
prison term or mandatory prison term and additional prison term 70292
the court imposes, the court also may sentence the offender to a 70293
community control sanction for the offense, but the offender shall 70294
serve all of the prison terms so imposed prior to serving the 70295
community control sanction.70296

       (ii) If the sentence is being imposed for a violation of 70297
division (A)(1)(f), (g), (h), or (i) or division (A)(2) of this 70298
section, a mandatory prison term of one, two, three, four, or five 70299
years as required by and in accordance with division (G)(2) of 70300
section 2929.13 of the Revised Code if the offender also is 70301
convicted of or also pleads guilty to a specification of the type 70302
described in section 2941.1413 of the Revised Code or a mandatory 70303
prison term of one hundred twenty consecutive days in accordance 70304
with division (G)(2) of section 2929.13 of the Revised Code if the 70305
offender is not convicted of and does not plead guilty to a 70306
specification of that type. The court may impose a prison term in 70307
addition to the mandatory prison term. The cumulative total of a 70308
one hundred twenty-day mandatory prison term and the additional 70309
prison term for the offense shall not exceed five years. In 70310
addition to the mandatory prison term or mandatory prison term and 70311
additional prison term the court imposes, the court also may 70312
sentence the offender to a community control sanction for the 70313
offense, but the offender shall serve all of the prison terms so 70314
imposed prior to serving the community control sanction.70315

       (iii) In all cases, notwithstanding section 2929.18 of the 70316
Revised Code, a fine of not less than one thousand three hundred 70317
fifty nor more than ten thousand five hundred dollars;70318

       (iv) In all cases, a class two license suspension of the 70319
offender's driver's license, commercial driver's license, 70320
temporary instruction permit, probationary license, or nonresident 70321
operating privilege from the range specified in division (A)(2) of 70322
section 4510.02 of the Revised Code. The court may grant limited 70323
driving privileges relative to the suspension under sections 70324
4510.021 and 4510.13 of the Revised Code.70325

       (v) In all cases, if the vehicle is registered in the 70326
offender's name, criminal forfeiture of the vehicle involved in 70327
the offense in accordance with section 4503.234 of the Revised 70328
Code. Division (G)(6) of this section applies regarding any 70329
vehicle that is subject to an order of criminal forfeiture under 70330
this division.70331

       (vi) In all cases, the court shall order the offender to 70332
participate in an alcohol and drugwith a community addiction 70333
programservices provider authorized by section 3793.025119.21 of 70334
the Revised Code, subject to division (I) of this section, and 70335
shall order the offender to follow the treatment recommendations 70336
of the programservices provider. The operator of the program70337
services provider shall determine and assess the degree of the 70338
offender's alcohol dependency and shall make recommendations for 70339
treatment. Upon the request of the court, the programservices 70340
provider shall submit the results of the assessment to the court, 70341
including all treatment recommendations and clinical diagnoses 70342
related to alcohol use.70343

       (2) An offender who is convicted of or pleads guilty to a 70344
violation of division (A) of this section and who subsequently 70345
seeks reinstatement of the driver's or occupational driver's 70346
license or permit or nonresident operating privilege suspended 70347
under this section as a result of the conviction or guilty plea 70348
shall pay a reinstatement fee as provided in division (F)(2) of 70349
section 4511.191 of the Revised Code.70350

       (3) If an offender is sentenced to a jail term under division 70351
(G)(1)(b)(i) or (ii) or (G)(1)(c)(i) or (ii) of this section and 70352
if, within sixty days of sentencing of the offender, the court 70353
issues a written finding on the record that, due to the 70354
unavailability of space at the jail where the offender is required 70355
to serve the term, the offender will not be able to begin serving 70356
that term within the sixty-day period following the date of 70357
sentencing, the court may impose an alternative sentence under 70358
this division that includes a term of house arrest with electronic 70359
monitoring, with continuous alcohol monitoring, or with both 70360
electronic monitoring and continuous alcohol monitoring.70361

       As an alternative to a mandatory jail term of ten consecutive 70362
days required by division (G)(1)(b)(i) of this section, the court, 70363
under this division, may sentence the offender to five consecutive 70364
days in jail and not less than eighteen consecutive days of house 70365
arrest with electronic monitoring, with continuous alcohol 70366
monitoring, or with both electronic monitoring and continuous 70367
alcohol monitoring. The cumulative total of the five consecutive 70368
days in jail and the period of house arrest with electronic 70369
monitoring, continuous alcohol monitoring, or both types of 70370
monitoring shall not exceed six months. The five consecutive days 70371
in jail do not have to be served prior to or consecutively to the 70372
period of house arrest.70373

       As an alternative to the mandatory jail term of twenty 70374
consecutive days required by division (G)(1)(b)(ii) of this 70375
section, the court, under this division, may sentence the offender 70376
to ten consecutive days in jail and not less than thirty-six 70377
consecutive days of house arrest with electronic monitoring, with 70378
continuous alcohol monitoring, or with both electronic monitoring 70379
and continuous alcohol monitoring. The cumulative total of the ten 70380
consecutive days in jail and the period of house arrest with 70381
electronic monitoring, continuous alcohol monitoring, or both 70382
types of monitoring shall not exceed six months. The ten 70383
consecutive days in jail do not have to be served prior to or 70384
consecutively to the period of house arrest.70385

       As an alternative to a mandatory jail term of thirty 70386
consecutive days required by division (G)(1)(c)(i) of this 70387
section, the court, under this division, may sentence the offender 70388
to fifteen consecutive days in jail and not less than fifty-five 70389
consecutive days of house arrest with electronic monitoring, with 70390
continuous alcohol monitoring, or with both electronic monitoring 70391
and continuous alcohol monitoring. The cumulative total of the 70392
fifteen consecutive days in jail and the period of house arrest 70393
with electronic monitoring, continuous alcohol monitoring, or both 70394
types of monitoring shall not exceed one year. The fifteen 70395
consecutive days in jail do not have to be served prior to or 70396
consecutively to the period of house arrest.70397

       As an alternative to the mandatory jail term of sixty 70398
consecutive days required by division (G)(1)(c)(ii) of this 70399
section, the court, under this division, may sentence the offender 70400
to thirty consecutive days in jail and not less than one hundred 70401
ten consecutive days of house arrest with electronic monitoring, 70402
with continuous alcohol monitoring, or with both electronic 70403
monitoring and continuous alcohol monitoring. The cumulative total 70404
of the thirty consecutive days in jail and the period of house 70405
arrest with electronic monitoring, continuous alcohol monitoring, 70406
or both types of monitoring shall not exceed one year. The thirty 70407
consecutive days in jail do not have to be served prior to or 70408
consecutively to the period of house arrest.70409

       (4) If an offender's driver's or occupational driver's 70410
license or permit or nonresident operating privilege is suspended 70411
under division (G) of this section and if section 4510.13 of the 70412
Revised Code permits the court to grant limited driving 70413
privileges, the court may grant the limited driving privileges in 70414
accordance with that section. If division (A)(7) of that section 70415
requires that the court impose as a condition of the privileges 70416
that the offender must display on the vehicle that is driven 70417
subject to the privileges restricted license plates that are 70418
issued under section 4503.231 of the Revised Code, except as 70419
provided in division (B) of that section, the court shall impose 70420
that condition as one of the conditions of the limited driving 70421
privileges granted to the offender, except as provided in division 70422
(B) of section 4503.231 of the Revised Code.70423

       (5) Fines imposed under this section for a violation of 70424
division (A) of this section shall be distributed as follows:70425

       (a) Twenty-five dollars of the fine imposed under division 70426
(G)(1)(a)(iii), thirty-five dollars of the fine imposed under 70427
division (G)(1)(b)(iii), one hundred twenty-three dollars of the 70428
fine imposed under division (G)(1)(c)(iii), and two hundred ten 70429
dollars of the fine imposed under division (G)(1)(d)(iii) or 70430
(e)(iii) of this section shall be paid to an enforcement and 70431
education fund established by the legislative authority of the law 70432
enforcement agency in this state that primarily was responsible 70433
for the arrest of the offender, as determined by the court that 70434
imposes the fine. The agency shall use this share to pay only 70435
those costs it incurs in enforcing this section or a municipal OVI 70436
ordinance and in informing the public of the laws governing the 70437
operation of a vehicle while under the influence of alcohol, the 70438
dangers of the operation of a vehicle under the influence of 70439
alcohol, and other information relating to the operation of a 70440
vehicle under the influence of alcohol and the consumption of 70441
alcoholic beverages.70442

       (b) Fifty dollars of the fine imposed under division 70443
(G)(1)(a)(iii) of this section shall be paid to the political 70444
subdivision that pays the cost of housing the offender during the 70445
offender's term of incarceration. If the offender is being 70446
sentenced for a violation of division (A)(1)(a), (b), (c), (d), 70447
(e), or (j) of this section and was confined as a result of the 70448
offense prior to being sentenced for the offense but is not 70449
sentenced to a term of incarceration, the fifty dollars shall be 70450
paid to the political subdivision that paid the cost of housing 70451
the offender during that period of confinement. The political 70452
subdivision shall use the share under this division to pay or 70453
reimburse incarceration or treatment costs it incurs in housing or 70454
providing drug and alcohol treatment to persons who violate this 70455
section or a municipal OVI ordinance, costs of any immobilizing or 70456
disabling device used on the offender's vehicle, and costs of 70457
electronic house arrest equipment needed for persons who violate 70458
this section.70459

       (c) Twenty-five dollars of the fine imposed under division 70460
(G)(1)(a)(iii) and fifty dollars of the fine imposed under 70461
division (G)(1)(b)(iii) of this section shall be deposited into 70462
the county or municipal indigent drivers' alcohol treatment fund 70463
under the control of that court, as created by the county or 70464
municipal corporation under division (F) of section 4511.191 of 70465
the Revised Code.70466

       (d) One hundred fifteen dollars of the fine imposed under 70467
division (G)(1)(b)(iii), two hundred seventy-seven dollars of the 70468
fine imposed under division (G)(1)(c)(iii), and four hundred forty 70469
dollars of the fine imposed under division (G)(1)(d)(iii) or 70470
(e)(iii) of this section shall be paid to the political 70471
subdivision that pays the cost of housing the offender during the 70472
offender's term of incarceration. The political subdivision shall 70473
use this share to pay or reimburse incarceration or treatment 70474
costs it incurs in housing or providing drug and alcohol treatment 70475
to persons who violate this section or a municipal OVI ordinance, 70476
costs for any immobilizing or disabling device used on the 70477
offender's vehicle, and costs of electronic house arrest equipment 70478
needed for persons who violate this section.70479

       (e) Fifty dollars of the fine imposed under divisions 70480
(G)(1)(a)(iii), (G)(1)(b)(iii), (G)(1)(c)(iii), (G)(1)(d)(iii), 70481
and (G)(1)(e)(iii) of this section shall be deposited into the 70482
special projects fund of the court in which the offender was 70483
convicted and that is established under division (E)(1) of section 70484
2303.201, division (B)(1) of section 1901.26, or division (B)(1) 70485
of section 1907.24 of the Revised Code, to be used exclusively to 70486
cover the cost of immobilizing or disabling devices, including 70487
certified ignition interlock devices, and remote alcohol 70488
monitoring devices for indigent offenders who are required by a 70489
judge to use either of these devices. If the court in which the 70490
offender was convicted does not have a special projects fund that 70491
is established under division (E)(1) of section 2303.201, division 70492
(B)(1) of section 1901.26, or division (B)(1) of section 1907.24 70493
of the Revised Code, the fifty dollars shall be deposited into the 70494
indigent drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring fund under 70495
division (I) of section 4511.191 of the Revised Code.70496

       (f) Seventy-five dollars of the fine imposed under division 70497
(G)(1)(a)(iii), one hundred twenty-five dollars of the fine 70498
imposed under division (G)(1)(b)(iii), two hundred fifty dollars 70499
of the fine imposed under division (G)(1)(c)(iii), and five 70500
hundred dollars of the fine imposed under division (G)(1)(d)(iii) 70501
or (e)(iii) of this section shall be transmitted to the treasurer 70502
of state for deposit into the indigent defense support fund 70503
established under section 120.08 of the Revised Code.70504

       (g) The balance of the fine imposed under division 70505
(G)(1)(a)(iii), (b)(iii), (c)(iii), (d)(iii), or (e)(iii) of this 70506
section shall be disbursed as otherwise provided by law.70507

       (6) If title to a motor vehicle that is subject to an order 70508
of criminal forfeiture under division (G)(1)(c), (d), or (e) of 70509
this section is assigned or transferred and division (B)(2) or (3) 70510
of section 4503.234 of the Revised Code applies, in addition to or 70511
independent of any other penalty established by law, the court may 70512
fine the offender the value of the vehicle as determined by 70513
publications of the national automobile dealers association. The 70514
proceeds of any fine so imposed shall be distributed in accordance 70515
with division (C)(2) of that section.70516

       (7) In all cases in which an offender is sentenced under 70517
division (G) of this section, the offender shall provide the court 70518
with proof of financial responsibility as defined in section 70519
4509.01 of the Revised Code. If the offender fails to provide that 70520
proof of financial responsibility, the court, in addition to any 70521
other penalties provided by law, may order restitution pursuant to 70522
section 2929.18 or 2929.28 of the Revised Code in an amount not 70523
exceeding five thousand dollars for any economic loss arising from 70524
an accident or collision that was the direct and proximate result 70525
of the offender's operation of the vehicle before, during, or 70526
after committing the offense for which the offender is sentenced 70527
under division (G) of this section.70528

       (8) As used in division (G) of this section, "electronic 70529
monitoring," "mandatory prison term," and "mandatory term of local 70530
incarceration" have the same meanings as in section 2929.01 of the 70531
Revised Code.70532

       (H) Whoever violates division (B) of this section is guilty 70533
of operating a vehicle after underage alcohol consumption and 70534
shall be punished as follows:70535

       (1) Except as otherwise provided in division (H)(2) of this 70536
section, the offender is guilty of a misdemeanor of the fourth 70537
degree. In addition to any other sanction imposed for the offense, 70538
the court shall impose a class six suspension of the offender's 70539
driver's license, commercial driver's license, temporary 70540
instruction permit, probationary license, or nonresident operating 70541
privilege from the range specified in division (A)(6) of section 70542
4510.02 of the Revised Code.70543

       (2) If, within one year of the offense, the offender 70544
previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to one or more 70545
violations of division (A) or (B) of this section or other 70546
equivalent offenses, the offender is guilty of a misdemeanor of 70547
the third degree. In addition to any other sanction imposed for 70548
the offense, the court shall impose a class four suspension of the 70549
offender's driver's license, commercial driver's license, 70550
temporary instruction permit, probationary license, or nonresident 70551
operating privilege from the range specified in division (A)(4) of 70552
section 4510.02 of the Revised Code.70553

       (3) If the offender also is convicted of or also pleads 70554
guilty to a specification of the type described in section 70555
2941.1416 of the Revised Code and if the court imposes a jail term 70556
for the violation of division (B) of this section, the court shall 70557
impose upon the offender an additional definite jail term pursuant 70558
to division (E) of section 2929.24 of the Revised Code.70559

       (4) The offender shall provide the court with proof of 70560
financial responsibility as defined in section 4509.01 of the 70561
Revised Code. If the offender fails to provide that proof of 70562
financial responsibility, then, in addition to any other penalties 70563
provided by law, the court may order restitution pursuant to 70564
section 2929.28 of the Revised Code in an amount not exceeding 70565
five thousand dollars for any economic loss arising from an 70566
accident or collision that was the direct and proximate result of 70567
the offender's operation of the vehicle before, during, or after 70568
committing the violation of division (B) of this section.70569

       (I)(1) No court shall sentence an offender to an alcohol 70570
treatment program under this section unless the treatment program 70571
complies with the minimum standards for alcohol treatment programs 70572
adopted under Chapter 3793.5119. of the Revised Code by the 70573
director of alcohol and drug addiction servicesmental health and 70574
addiction services.70575

       (2) An offender who stays in a drivers' intervention program 70576
or in an alcohol treatment program under an order issued under 70577
this section shall pay the cost of the stay in the program. 70578
However, if the court determines that an offender who stays in an 70579
alcohol treatment program under an order issued under this section 70580
is unable to pay the cost of the stay in the program, the court 70581
may order that the cost be paid from the court's indigent drivers' 70582
alcohol treatment fund.70583

       (J) If a person whose driver's or commercial driver's license 70584
or permit or nonresident operating privilege is suspended under 70585
this section files an appeal regarding any aspect of the person's 70586
trial or sentence, the appeal itself does not stay the operation 70587
of the suspension.70588

       (K) Division (A)(1)(j) of this section does not apply to a 70589
person who operates a vehicle, streetcar, or trackless trolley 70590
while the person has a concentration of a listed controlled 70591
substance or a listed metabolite of a controlled substance in the 70592
person's whole blood, blood serum or plasma, or urine that equals 70593
or exceeds the amount specified in that division, if both of the 70594
following apply:70595

       (1) The person obtained the controlled substance pursuant to 70596
a prescription issued by a licensed health professional authorized 70597
to prescribe drugs.70598

       (2) The person injected, ingested, or inhaled the controlled 70599
substance in accordance with the health professional's directions.70600

       (L) The prohibited concentrations of a controlled substance 70601
or a metabolite of a controlled substance listed in division 70602
(A)(1)(j) of this section also apply in a prosecution of a 70603
violation of division (D) of section 2923.16 of the Revised Code 70604
in the same manner as if the offender is being prosecuted for a 70605
prohibited concentration of alcohol.70606

       (M) All terms defined in section 4510.01 of the Revised Code 70607
apply to this section. If the meaning of a term defined in section 70608
4510.01 of the Revised Code conflicts with the meaning of the same 70609
term as defined in section 4501.01 or 4511.01 of the Revised Code, 70610
the term as defined in section 4510.01 of the Revised Code applies 70611
to this section.70612

       (N)(1) The Ohio Traffic Rules in effect on January 1, 2004, 70613
as adopted by the supreme court under authority of section 2937.46 70614
of the Revised Code, do not apply to felony violations of this 70615
section. Subject to division (N)(2) of this section, the Rules of 70616
Criminal Procedure apply to felony violations of this section.70617

       (2) If, on or after January 1, 2004, the supreme court 70618
modifies the Ohio Traffic Rules to provide procedures to govern 70619
felony violations of this section, the modified rules shall apply 70620
to felony violations of this section.70621

       Sec. 4511.191.  (A)(1) As used in this section:70622

        (a) "Physical control" has the same meaning as in section 70623
4511.194 of the Revised Code.70624

       (b) "Alcohol monitoring device" means any device that 70625
provides for continuous alcohol monitoring, any ignition interlock 70626
device, any immobilizing or disabling device other than an 70627
ignition interlock device that is constantly available to monitor 70628
the concentration of alcohol in a person's system, or any other 70629
device that provides for the automatic testing and periodic 70630
reporting of alcohol consumption by a person and that a court 70631
orders a person to use as a sanction imposed as a result of the 70632
person's conviction of or plea of guilty to an offense.70633

       (2) Any person who operates a vehicle, streetcar, or 70634
trackless trolley upon a highway or any public or private property 70635
used by the public for vehicular travel or parking within this 70636
state or who is in physical control of a vehicle, streetcar, or 70637
trackless trolley shall be deemed to have given consent to a 70638
chemical test or tests of the person's whole blood, blood serum or 70639
plasma, breath, or urine to determine the alcohol, drug of abuse, 70640
controlled substance, metabolite of a controlled substance, or 70641
combination content of the person's whole blood, blood serum or 70642
plasma, breath, or urine if arrested for a violation of division 70643
(A) or (B) of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code, section 70644
4511.194 of the Revised Code or a substantially equivalent 70645
municipal ordinance, or a municipal OVI ordinance.70646

       (3) The chemical test or tests under division (A)(2) of this 70647
section shall be administered at the request of a law enforcement 70648
officer having reasonable grounds to believe the person was 70649
operating or in physical control of a vehicle, streetcar, or 70650
trackless trolley in violation of a division, section, or 70651
ordinance identified in division (A)(2) of this section. The law 70652
enforcement agency by which the officer is employed shall 70653
designate which of the tests shall be administered.70654

       (4) Any person who is dead or unconscious, or who otherwise 70655
is in a condition rendering the person incapable of refusal, shall 70656
be deemed to have consented as provided in division (A)(2) of this 70657
section, and the test or tests may be administered, subject to 70658
sections 313.12 to 313.16 of the Revised Code.70659

       (5)(a) If a law enforcement officer arrests a person for a 70660
violation of division (A) or (B) of section 4511.19 of the Revised 70661
Code, section 4511.194 of the Revised Code or a substantially 70662
equivalent municipal ordinance, or a municipal OVI ordinance and 70663
if the person if convicted would be required to be sentenced under 70664
division (G)(1)(c), (d), or (e) of section 4511.19 of the Revised 70665
Code, the law enforcement officer shall request the person to 70666
submit, and the person shall submit, to a chemical test or tests 70667
of the person's whole blood, blood serum or plasma, breath, or 70668
urine for the purpose of determining the alcohol, drug of abuse, 70669
controlled substance, metabolite of a controlled substance, or 70670
combination content of the person's whole blood, blood serum or 70671
plasma, breath, or urine. A law enforcement officer who makes a 70672
request pursuant to this division that a person submit to a 70673
chemical test or tests is not required to advise the person of the 70674
consequences of submitting to, or refusing to submit to, the test 70675
or tests and is not required to give the person the form described 70676
in division (B) of section 4511.192 of the Revised Code, but the 70677
officer shall advise the person at the time of the arrest that if 70678
the person refuses to take a chemical test the officer may employ 70679
whatever reasonable means are necessary to ensure that the person 70680
submits to a chemical test of the person's whole blood or blood 70681
serum or plasma. The officer shall also advise the person at the 70682
time of the arrest that the person may have an independent 70683
chemical test taken at the person's own expense. Divisions (A)(3) 70684
and (4) of this section apply to the administration of a chemical 70685
test or tests pursuant to this division.70686

       (b) If a person refuses to submit to a chemical test upon a 70687
request made pursuant to division (A)(5)(a) of this section, the 70688
law enforcement officer who made the request may employ whatever 70689
reasonable means are necessary to ensure that the person submits 70690
to a chemical test of the person's whole blood or blood serum or 70691
plasma. A law enforcement officer who acts pursuant to this 70692
division to ensure that a person submits to a chemical test of the 70693
person's whole blood or blood serum or plasma is immune from 70694
criminal and civil liability based upon a claim for assault and 70695
battery or any other claim for the acts, unless the officer so 70696
acted with malicious purpose, in bad faith, or in a wanton or 70697
reckless manner.70698

       (B)(1) Upon receipt of the sworn report of a law enforcement 70699
officer who arrested a person for a violation of division (A) or 70700
(B) of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code, section 4511.194 of 70701
the Revised Code or a substantially equivalent municipal 70702
ordinance, or a municipal OVI ordinance that was completed and 70703
sent to the registrar of motor vehicles and a court pursuant to 70704
section 4511.192 of the Revised Code in regard to a person who 70705
refused to take the designated chemical test, the registrar shall 70706
enter into the registrar's records the fact that the person's 70707
driver's or commercial driver's license or permit or nonresident 70708
operating privilege was suspended by the arresting officer under 70709
this division and that section and the period of the suspension, 70710
as determined under this section. The suspension shall be subject 70711
to appeal as provided in section 4511.197 of the Revised Code. The 70712
suspension shall be for whichever of the following periods 70713
applies:70714

       (a) Except when division (B)(1)(b), (c), or (d) of this 70715
section applies and specifies a different class or length of 70716
suspension, the suspension shall be a class C suspension for the 70717
period of time specified in division (B)(3) of section 4510.02 of 70718
the Revised Code.70719

       (b) If the arrested person, within six years of the date on 70720
which the person refused the request to consent to the chemical 70721
test, had refused one previous request to consent to a chemical 70722
test or had been convicted of or pleaded guilty to one violation 70723
of division (A) or (B) of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code or 70724
one other equivalent offense, the suspension shall be a class B 70725
suspension imposed for the period of time specified in division 70726
(B)(2) of section 4510.02 of the Revised Code.70727

       (c) If the arrested person, within six years of the date on 70728
which the person refused the request to consent to the chemical 70729
test, had refused two previous requests to consent to a chemical 70730
test, had been convicted of or pleaded guilty to two violations of 70731
division (A) or (B) of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code or 70732
other equivalent offenses, or had refused one previous request to 70733
consent to a chemical test and also had been convicted of or 70734
pleaded guilty to one violation of division (A) or (B) of section 70735
4511.19 of the Revised Code or other equivalent offenses, which 70736
violation or offense arose from an incident other than the 70737
incident that led to the refusal, the suspension shall be a class 70738
A suspension imposed for the period of time specified in division 70739
(B)(1) of section 4510.02 of the Revised Code.70740

       (d) If the arrested person, within six years of the date on 70741
which the person refused the request to consent to the chemical 70742
test, had refused three or more previous requests to consent to a 70743
chemical test, had been convicted of or pleaded guilty to three or 70744
more violations of division (A) or (B) of section 4511.19 of the 70745
Revised Code or other equivalent offenses, or had refused a number 70746
of previous requests to consent to a chemical test and also had 70747
been convicted of or pleaded guilty to a number of violations of 70748
division (A) or (B) of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code or 70749
other equivalent offenses that cumulatively total three or more 70750
such refusals, convictions, and guilty pleas, the suspension shall 70751
be for five years.70752

       (2) The registrar shall terminate a suspension of the 70753
driver's or commercial driver's license or permit of a resident or 70754
of the operating privilege of a nonresident, or a denial of a 70755
driver's or commercial driver's license or permit, imposed 70756
pursuant to division (B)(1) of this section upon receipt of notice 70757
that the person has entered a plea of guilty to, or that the 70758
person has been convicted after entering a plea of no contest to, 70759
operating a vehicle in violation of section 4511.19 of the Revised 70760
Code or in violation of a municipal OVI ordinance, if the offense 70761
for which the conviction is had or the plea is entered arose from 70762
the same incident that led to the suspension or denial.70763

       The registrar shall credit against any judicial suspension of 70764
a person's driver's or commercial driver's license or permit or 70765
nonresident operating privilege imposed pursuant to section 70766
4511.19 of the Revised Code, or pursuant to section 4510.07 of the 70767
Revised Code for a violation of a municipal OVI ordinance, any 70768
time during which the person serves a related suspension imposed 70769
pursuant to division (B)(1) of this section.70770

       (C)(1) Upon receipt of the sworn report of the law 70771
enforcement officer who arrested a person for a violation of 70772
division (A) or (B) of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code or a 70773
municipal OVI ordinance that was completed and sent to the 70774
registrar and a court pursuant to section 4511.192 of the Revised 70775
Code in regard to a person whose test results indicate that the 70776
person's whole blood, blood serum or plasma, breath, or urine 70777
contained at least the concentration of alcohol specified in 70778
division (A)(1)(b), (c), (d), or (e) of section 4511.19 of the 70779
Revised Code or at least the concentration of a listed controlled 70780
substance or a listed metabolite of a controlled substance 70781
specified in division (A)(1)(j) of section 4511.19 of the Revised 70782
Code, the registrar shall enter into the registrar's records the 70783
fact that the person's driver's or commercial driver's license or 70784
permit or nonresident operating privilege was suspended by the 70785
arresting officer under this division and section 4511.192 of the 70786
Revised Code and the period of the suspension, as determined under 70787
divisions (C)(1)(a) to (d) of this section. The suspension shall 70788
be subject to appeal as provided in section 4511.197 of the 70789
Revised Code. The suspension described in this division does not 70790
apply to, and shall not be imposed upon, a person arrested for a 70791
violation of section 4511.194 of the Revised Code or a 70792
substantially equivalent municipal ordinance who submits to a 70793
designated chemical test. The suspension shall be for whichever of 70794
the following periods applies:70795

       (a) Except when division (C)(1)(b), (c), or (d) of this 70796
section applies and specifies a different period, the suspension 70797
shall be a class E suspension imposed for the period of time 70798
specified in division (B)(5) of section 4510.02 of the Revised 70799
Code.70800

       (b) The suspension shall be a class C suspension for the 70801
period of time specified in division (B)(3) of section 4510.02 of 70802
the Revised Code if the person has been convicted of or pleaded 70803
guilty to, within six years of the date the test was conducted, 70804
one violation of division (A) or (B) of section 4511.19 of the 70805
Revised Code or one other equivalent offense.70806

       (c) If, within six years of the date the test was conducted, 70807
the person has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to two 70808
violations of a statute or ordinance described in division 70809
(C)(1)(b) of this section, the suspension shall be a class B 70810
suspension imposed for the period of time specified in division 70811
(B)(2) of section 4510.02 of the Revised Code.70812

       (d) If, within six years of the date the test was conducted, 70813
the person has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to more than 70814
two violations of a statute or ordinance described in division 70815
(C)(1)(b) of this section, the suspension shall be a class A 70816
suspension imposed for the period of time specified in division 70817
(B)(1) of section 4510.02 of the Revised Code.70818

       (2) The registrar shall terminate a suspension of the 70819
driver's or commercial driver's license or permit of a resident or 70820
of the operating privilege of a nonresident, or a denial of a 70821
driver's or commercial driver's license or permit, imposed 70822
pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section upon receipt of notice 70823
that the person has entered a plea of guilty to, or that the 70824
person has been convicted after entering a plea of no contest to, 70825
operating a vehicle in violation of section 4511.19 of the Revised 70826
Code or in violation of a municipal OVI ordinance, if the offense 70827
for which the conviction is had or the plea is entered arose from 70828
the same incident that led to the suspension or denial.70829

       The registrar shall credit against any judicial suspension of 70830
a person's driver's or commercial driver's license or permit or 70831
nonresident operating privilege imposed pursuant to section 70832
4511.19 of the Revised Code, or pursuant to section 4510.07 of the 70833
Revised Code for a violation of a municipal OVI ordinance, any 70834
time during which the person serves a related suspension imposed 70835
pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section.70836

       (D)(1) A suspension of a person's driver's or commercial 70837
driver's license or permit or nonresident operating privilege 70838
under this section for the time described in division (B) or (C) 70839
of this section is effective immediately from the time at which 70840
the arresting officer serves the notice of suspension upon the 70841
arrested person. Any subsequent finding that the person is not 70842
guilty of the charge that resulted in the person being requested 70843
to take the chemical test or tests under division (A) of this 70844
section does not affect the suspension.70845

       (2) If a person is arrested for operating a vehicle, 70846
streetcar, or trackless trolley in violation of division (A) or 70847
(B) of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code or a municipal OVI 70848
ordinance, or for being in physical control of a vehicle, 70849
streetcar, or trackless trolley in violation of section 4511.194 70850
of the Revised Code or a substantially equivalent municipal 70851
ordinance, regardless of whether the person's driver's or 70852
commercial driver's license or permit or nonresident operating 70853
privilege is or is not suspended under division (B) or (C) of this 70854
section or Chapter 4510. of the Revised Code, the person's initial 70855
appearance on the charge resulting from the arrest shall be held 70856
within five days of the person's arrest or the issuance of the 70857
citation to the person, subject to any continuance granted by the 70858
court pursuant to section 4511.197 of the Revised Code regarding 70859
the issues specified in that division.70860

       (E) When it finally has been determined under the procedures 70861
of this section and sections 4511.192 to 4511.197 of the Revised 70862
Code that a nonresident's privilege to operate a vehicle within 70863
this state has been suspended, the registrar shall give 70864
information in writing of the action taken to the motor vehicle 70865
administrator of the state of the person's residence and of any 70866
state in which the person has a license.70867

       (F) At the end of a suspension period under this section, 70868
under section 4511.194, section 4511.196, or division (G) of 70869
section 4511.19 of the Revised Code, or under section 4510.07 of 70870
the Revised Code for a violation of a municipal OVI ordinance and 70871
upon the request of the person whose driver's or commercial 70872
driver's license or permit was suspended and who is not otherwise 70873
subject to suspension, cancellation, or disqualification, the 70874
registrar shall return the driver's or commercial driver's license 70875
or permit to the person upon the occurrence of all of the 70876
conditions specified in divisions (F)(1) and (2) of this section:70877

       (1) A showing that the person has proof of financial 70878
responsibility, a policy of liability insurance in effect that 70879
meets the minimum standards set forth in section 4509.51 of the 70880
Revised Code, or proof, to the satisfaction of the registrar, that 70881
the person is able to respond in damages in an amount at least 70882
equal to the minimum amounts specified in section 4509.51 of the 70883
Revised Code.70884

       (2) Subject to the limitation contained in division (F)(3) of 70885
this section, payment by the person to the registrar or an 70886
eligible deputy registrar of a license reinstatement fee of four 70887
hundred seventy-five dollars, which fee shall be deposited in the 70888
state treasury and credited as follows:70889

       (a) One hundred twelve dollars and fifty cents shall be 70890
credited to the statewide treatment and prevention fund created by 70891
section 4301.30 of the Revised Code. Money credited to the fund 70892
under this section shall be used for purposes identified in the 70893
comprehensive statewide alcohol and drug addiction services plan 70894
developed under section 3793.045119.22 of the Revised Code. 70895

       (b) Seventy-five dollars shall be credited to the reparations 70896
fund created by section 2743.191 of the Revised Code.70897

       (c) Thirty-seven dollars and fifty cents shall be credited to 70898
the indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund, which is hereby 70899
established in the state treasury. Except as otherwise provided in 70900
division (F)(2)(c) of this section, moneys in the fund shall be 70901
distributed by the department of alcohol and drug addiction 70902
servicesmental health and addiction services to the county 70903
indigent drivers alcohol treatment funds, the county juvenile 70904
indigent drivers alcohol treatment funds, and the municipal 70905
indigent drivers alcohol treatment funds that are required to be 70906
established by counties and municipal corporations pursuant to 70907
division (H) of this section, and shall be used only to pay the 70908
cost of an alcohol and drug addiction treatment program attended 70909
by an offender or juvenile traffic offender who is ordered to 70910
attend an alcohol and drug addiction treatment program by a 70911
county, juvenile, or municipal court judge and who is determined 70912
by the county, juvenile, or municipal court judge not to have the 70913
means to pay for the person's attendance at the program or to pay 70914
the costs specified in division (H)(4) of this section in 70915
accordance with that division. In addition, a county, juvenile, or 70916
municipal court judge may use moneys in the county indigent 70917
drivers alcohol treatment fund, county juvenile indigent drivers 70918
alcohol treatment fund, or municipal indigent drivers alcohol 70919
treatment fund to pay for the cost of the continued use of an 70920
alcohol monitoring device as described in divisions (H)(3) and (4) 70921
of this section. Moneys in the fund that are not distributed to a 70922
county indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund, a county juvenile 70923
indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund, or a municipal indigent 70924
drivers alcohol treatment fund under division (H) of this section 70925
because the director of alcohol and drug addiction servicesmental 70926
health and addiction services does not have the information 70927
necessary to identify the county or municipal corporation where 70928
the offender or juvenile offender was arrested may be transferred 70929
by the director of budget and management to the statewide 70930
treatment and prevention fund created by section 4301.30 of the 70931
Revised Code, upon certification of the amount by the director of 70932
alcohol and drug addiction servicesmental health and addiction 70933
services.70934

       (d) Seventy-five dollars shall be credited to the Ohio70935
rehabilitation services commission established by section 3304.12 70936
of the Revised Code, to the services for rehabilitation fund, 70937
which is hereby established. The fund shall be used to match 70938
available federal matching funds where appropriate, and for any 70939
other purpose or program of the commission to rehabilitate people 70940
with disabilities to help them become employed and independent.70941

       (e) Seventy-five dollars shall be deposited into the state 70942
treasury and credited to the drug abuse resistance education 70943
programs fund, which is hereby established, to be used by the 70944
attorney general for the purposes specified in division (F)(4) of 70945
this section.70946

       (f) Thirty dollars shall be credited to the state bureau of 70947
motor vehicles fund created by section 4501.25 of the Revised 70948
Code.70949

       (g) Twenty dollars shall be credited to the trauma and 70950
emergency medical services fund created by section 4513.263 of the 70951
Revised Code.70952

       (h) Fifty dollars shall be credited to the indigent drivers 70953
interlock and alcohol monitoring fund, which is hereby established 70954
in the state treasury. Moneys in the fund shall be distributed by 70955
the department of public safety to the county indigent drivers 70956
interlock and alcohol monitoring funds, the county juvenile 70957
indigent drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring funds, and the 70958
municipal indigent drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring funds 70959
that are required to be established by counties and municipal 70960
corporations pursuant to this section, and shall be used only to 70961
pay the cost of an immobilizing or disabling device, including a 70962
certified ignition interlock device, or an alcohol monitoring 70963
device used by an offender or juvenile offender who is ordered to 70964
use the device by a county, juvenile, or municipal court judge and 70965
who is determined by the county, juvenile, or municipal court 70966
judge not to have the means to pay for the person's use of the 70967
device.70968

       (3) If a person's driver's or commercial driver's license or 70969
permit is suspended under this section, under section 4511.196 or 70970
division (G) of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code, under section 70971
4510.07 of the Revised Code for a violation of a municipal OVI 70972
ordinance or under any combination of the suspensions described in 70973
division (F)(3) of this section, and if the suspensions arise from 70974
a single incident or a single set of facts and circumstances, the 70975
person is liable for payment of, and shall be required to pay to 70976
the registrar or an eligible deputy registrar, only one 70977
reinstatement fee of four hundred seventy-five dollars. The 70978
reinstatement fee shall be distributed by the bureau in accordance 70979
with division (F)(2) of this section.70980

       (4) The attorney general shall use amounts in the drug abuse 70981
resistance education programs fund to award grants to law 70982
enforcement agencies to establish and implement drug abuse 70983
resistance education programs in public schools. Grants awarded to 70984
a law enforcement agency under this section shall be used by the 70985
agency to pay for not more than fifty per cent of the amount of 70986
the salaries of law enforcement officers who conduct drug abuse 70987
resistance education programs in public schools. The attorney 70988
general shall not use more than six per cent of the amounts the 70989
attorney general's office receives under division (F)(2)(e) of 70990
this section to pay the costs it incurs in administering the grant 70991
program established by division (F)(2)(e) of this section and in 70992
providing training and materials relating to drug abuse resistance 70993
education programs.70994

       The attorney general shall report to the governor and the 70995
general assembly each fiscal year on the progress made in 70996
establishing and implementing drug abuse resistance education 70997
programs. These reports shall include an evaluation of the 70998
effectiveness of these programs.70999

       (5) In addition to the reinstatement fee under this section, 71000
if the person pays the reinstatement fee to a deputy registrar, 71001
the deputy registrar shall collect a service fee of ten dollars to 71002
compensate the deputy registrar for services performed under this 71003
section. The deputy registrar shall retain eight dollars of the 71004
service fee and shall transmit the reinstatement fee, plus two 71005
dollars of the service fee, to the registrar in the manner the 71006
registrar shall determine.71007

       (G) Suspension of a commercial driver's license under 71008
division (B) or (C) of this section shall be concurrent with any 71009
period of disqualification under section 3123.611 or 4506.16 of 71010
the Revised Code or any period of suspension under section 3123.58 71011
of the Revised Code. No person who is disqualified for life from 71012
holding a commercial driver's license under section 4506.16 of the 71013
Revised Code shall be issued a driver's license under Chapter 71014
4507. of the Revised Code during the period for which the 71015
commercial driver's license was suspended under division (B) or 71016
(C) of this section. No person whose commercial driver's license 71017
is suspended under division (B) or (C) of this section shall be 71018
issued a driver's license under Chapter 4507. of the Revised Code 71019
during the period of the suspension.71020

       (H)(1) Each county shall establish an indigent drivers 71021
alcohol treatment fund, each county shall establish a juvenile 71022
indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund, and each municipal 71023
corporation in which there is a municipal court shall establish an 71024
indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund. All revenue that the 71025
general assembly appropriates to the indigent drivers alcohol 71026
treatment fund for transfer to a county indigent drivers alcohol 71027
treatment fund, a county juvenile indigent drivers alcohol 71028
treatment fund, or a municipal indigent drivers alcohol treatment 71029
fund, all portions of fees that are paid under division (F) of 71030
this section and that are credited under that division to the 71031
indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund in the state treasury for 71032
a county indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund, a county 71033
juvenile indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund, or a municipal 71034
indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund, all portions of 71035
additional costs imposed under section 2949.094 of the Revised 71036
Code that are specified for deposit into a county, county 71037
juvenile, or municipal indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund by 71038
that section, and all portions of fines that are specified for 71039
deposit into a county or municipal indigent drivers alcohol 71040
treatment fund by section 4511.193 of the Revised Code shall be 71041
deposited into that county indigent drivers alcohol treatment 71042
fund, county juvenile indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund, or 71043
municipal indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund. The portions of 71044
the fees paid under division (F) of this section that are to be so 71045
deposited shall be determined in accordance with division (H)(2) 71046
of this section. Additionally, all portions of fines that are paid 71047
for a violation of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code or of any 71048
prohibition contained in Chapter 4510. of the Revised Code, and 71049
that are required under section 4511.19 or any provision of 71050
Chapter 4510. of the Revised Code to be deposited into a county 71051
indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund or municipal indigent 71052
drivers alcohol treatment fund shall be deposited into the 71053
appropriate fund in accordance with the applicable division of the 71054
section or provision.71055

       (2) That portion of the license reinstatement fee that is 71056
paid under division (F) of this section and that is credited under 71057
that division to the indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund shall 71058
be deposited into a county indigent drivers alcohol treatment 71059
fund, a county juvenile indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund, 71060
or a municipal indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund as follows:71061

       (a) Regarding a suspension imposed under this section, that 71062
portion of the fee shall be deposited as follows:71063

       (i) If the fee is paid by a person who was charged in a 71064
county court with the violation that resulted in the suspension or 71065
in the imposition of the court costs, the portion shall be 71066
deposited into the county indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund 71067
under the control of that court;71068

       (ii) If the fee is paid by a person who was charged in a 71069
juvenile court with the violation that resulted in the suspension 71070
or in the imposition of the court costs, the portion shall be 71071
deposited into the county juvenile indigent drivers alcohol 71072
treatment fund established in the county served by the court;71073

       (iii) If the fee is paid by a person who was charged in a 71074
municipal court with the violation that resulted in the suspension 71075
or in the imposition of the court costs, the portion shall be 71076
deposited into the municipal indigent drivers alcohol treatment 71077
fund under the control of that court.71078

       (b) Regarding a suspension imposed under section 4511.19 of 71079
the Revised Code or under section 4510.07 of the Revised Code for 71080
a violation of a municipal OVI ordinance, that portion of the fee 71081
shall be deposited as follows:71082

       (i) If the fee is paid by a person whose license or permit 71083
was suspended by a county court, the portion shall be deposited 71084
into the county indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund under the 71085
control of that court;71086

       (ii) If the fee is paid by a person whose license or permit 71087
was suspended by a municipal court, the portion shall be deposited 71088
into the municipal indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund under 71089
the control of that court.71090

       (3) Expenditures from a county indigent drivers alcohol 71091
treatment fund, a county juvenile indigent drivers alcohol 71092
treatment fund, or a municipal indigent drivers alcohol treatment 71093
fund shall be made only upon the order of a county, juvenile, or 71094
municipal court judge and only for payment of the cost of an 71095
assessment or the cost of the attendance at an alcohol and drug 71096
addiction treatment program of a person who is convicted of, or 71097
found to be a juvenile traffic offender by reason of, a violation 71098
of division (A) of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code or a 71099
substantially similar municipal ordinance, who is ordered by the 71100
court to attend the alcohol and drug addiction treatment program, 71101
and who is determined by the court to be unable to pay the cost of 71102
the assessment or the cost of attendance at the treatment program 71103
or for payment of the costs specified in division (H)(4) of this 71104
section in accordance with that division. The alcohol and drug 71105
addiction services board or the board of alcohol, drug addiction, 71106
and mental health services established pursuant to section 340.02 71107
or 340.021 of the Revised Code and serving the alcohol, drug 71108
addiction, and mental health service district in which the court 71109
is located shall administer the indigent drivers alcohol treatment 71110
program of the court. When a court orders an offender or juvenile 71111
traffic offender to obtain an assessment or attend an alcohol and 71112
drug addiction treatment program, the board shall determine which 71113
program is suitable to meet the needs of the offender or juvenile 71114
traffic offender, and when a suitable program is located and space 71115
is available at the program, the offender or juvenile traffic 71116
offender shall attend the program designated by the board. A 71117
reasonable amount not to exceed five per cent of the amounts 71118
credited to and deposited into the county indigent drivers alcohol 71119
treatment fund, the county juvenile indigent drivers alcohol 71120
treatment fund, or the municipal indigent drivers alcohol 71121
treatment fund serving every court whose program is administered 71122
by that board shall be paid to the board to cover the costs it 71123
incurs in administering those indigent drivers alcohol treatment 71124
programs.71125

       In addition, upon exhaustion of moneys in the indigent 71126
drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring fund for the use of an 71127
alcohol monitoring device, a county, juvenile, or municipal court 71128
judge may use moneys in the county indigent drivers alcohol 71129
treatment fund, county juvenile indigent drivers alcohol treatment 71130
fund, or municipal indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund in the 71131
following manners:71132

       (a) If the source of the moneys was an appropriation of the 71133
general assembly, a portion of a fee that was paid under division 71134
(F) of this section, a portion of a fine that was specified for 71135
deposit into the fund by section 4511.193 of the Revised Code, or 71136
a portion of a fine that was paid for a violation of section 71137
4511.19 of the Revised Code or of a provision contained in Chapter 71138
4510. of the Revised Code that was required to be deposited into 71139
the fund, to pay for the continued use of an alcohol monitoring 71140
device by an offender or juvenile traffic offender, in conjunction 71141
with a treatment program approved by the department of alcohol and 71142
drug addiction servicesmental health and addiction services, when 71143
such use is determined clinically necessary by the treatment 71144
program and when the court determines that the offender or 71145
juvenile traffic offender is unable to pay all or part of the 71146
daily monitoring or cost of the device;71147

       (b) If the source of the moneys was a portion of an 71148
additional court cost imposed under section 2949.094 of the 71149
Revised Code, to pay for the continued use of an alcohol 71150
monitoring device by an offender or juvenile traffic offender when 71151
the court determines that the offender or juvenile traffic 71152
offender is unable to pay all or part of the daily monitoring or 71153
cost of the device. The moneys may be used for a device as 71154
described in this division if the use of the device is in 71155
conjunction with a treatment program approved by the department of 71156
alcohol and drug addiction servicesmental health and addiction 71157
services, when the use of the device is determined clinically 71158
necessary by the treatment program, but the use of a device is not 71159
required to be in conjunction with a treatment program approved by 71160
the department in order for the moneys to be used for the device 71161
as described in this division.71162

       (4) If a county, juvenile, or municipal court determines, in 71163
consultation with the alcohol and drug addiction services board or 71164
the board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services 71165
established pursuant to section 340.02 or 340.021 of the Revised 71166
Code and serving the alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 71167
district in which the court is located, that the funds in the 71168
county indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund, the county 71169
juvenile indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund, or the municipal 71170
indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund under the control of the 71171
court are more than sufficient to satisfy the purpose for which 71172
the fund was established, as specified in divisions (H)(1) to (3) 71173
of this section, the court may declare a surplus in the fund. If 71174
the court declares a surplus in the fund, the court may expend the 71175
amount of the surplus in the fund for:71176

       (a) Alcohol and drug abuse assessment and treatment of 71177
persons who are charged in the court with committing a criminal 71178
offense or with being a delinquent child or juvenile traffic 71179
offender and in relation to whom both of the following apply:71180

       (i) The court determines that substance abuse was a 71181
contributing factor leading to the criminal or delinquent activity 71182
or the juvenile traffic offense with which the person is charged.71183

       (ii) The court determines that the person is unable to pay 71184
the cost of the alcohol and drug abuse assessment and treatment 71185
for which the surplus money will be used.71186

       (b) All or part of the cost of purchasing alcohol monitoring 71187
devices to be used in conjunction with division (H)(3) of this 71188
section, upon exhaustion of moneys in the indigent drivers 71189
interlock and alcohol monitoring fund for the use of an alcohol 71190
monitoring device.71191

       (5) For the purpose of determining as described in division 71192
(F)(2)(c) of this section whether an offender does not have the 71193
means to pay for the offender's attendance at an alcohol and drug 71194
addiction treatment program or whether an alleged offender or 71195
delinquent child is unable to pay the costs specified in division 71196
(H)(4) of this section, the court shall use the indigent client 71197
eligibility guidelines and the standards of indigency established 71198
by the state public defender to make the determination.71199

       (6) The court shall identify and refer any alcohol and drug71200
community addiction programservices provider that is not 71201
certified under section 3793.065119.36 of the Revised Code and 71202
that is interested in receiving amounts from the surplus in the 71203
fund declared under division (H)(4) of this section to the 71204
department of alcohol and drug addiction servicesmental health 71205
and addiction services in order for the programservices provider71206
to become a certified alcohol and drugcommunity addiction 71207
programservices provider. The department shall keep a record of 71208
applicant referrals received pursuant to this division and shall 71209
submit a report on the referrals each year to the general 71210
assembly. If a programservices provider interested in becoming 71211
certified makes an application to become certified pursuant to 71212
section 3793.065119.36 of the Revised Code, the programservices 71213
provider is eligible to receive surplus funds as long as the 71214
application is pending with the department. The department of 71215
alcohol and drug addiction servicesmental health and addiction 71216
services must offer technical assistance to the applicant. If the 71217
interested programservices provider withdraws the certification 71218
application, the department must notify the court, and the court 71219
shall not provide the interested programservices provider with 71220
any further surplus funds.71221

       (7)(a) Each alcohol and drug addiction services board and 71222
board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services 71223
established pursuant to section 340.02 or 340.021 of the Revised 71224
Code shall submit to the department of alcohol and drug addiction 71225
servicesmental health and addiction services an annual report for 71226
each indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund in that board's area. 71227

       (b) The report, which shall be submitted not later than sixty 71228
days after the end of the state fiscal year, shall provide the 71229
total payment that was made from the fund, including the number of 71230
indigent consumers that received treatment services and the number 71231
of indigent consumers that received an alcohol monitoring device. 71232
The report shall identify the treatment program and expenditure 71233
for an alcohol monitoring device for which that payment was made. 71234
The report shall include the fiscal year balance of each indigent 71235
drivers alcohol treatment fund located in that board's area. In 71236
the event that a surplus is declared in the fund pursuant to 71237
division (H)(4) of this section, the report also shall provide the 71238
total payment that was made from the surplus moneys and identify 71239
the treatment program and expenditure for an alcohol monitoring 71240
device for which that payment was made. The department may require 71241
additional information necessary to complete the comprehensive 71242
statewide alcohol and drug addiction services plan as required by 71243
section 3793.04 of the Revised Code.71244

       (c) If a board is unable to obtain adequate information to 71245
develop the report to submit to the department for a particular 71246
indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund, the board shall submit a 71247
report detailing the effort made in obtaining the information.71248

       (I)(1) Each county shall establish an indigent drivers 71249
interlock and alcohol monitoring fund and a juvenile indigent 71250
drivers interlock and alcohol treatment fund, and each municipal 71251
corporation in which there is a municipal court shall establish an 71252
indigent drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring fund. All 71253
revenue that the general assembly appropriates to the indigent 71254
drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring fund for transfer to a 71255
county indigent drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring fund, a 71256
county juvenile indigent drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring 71257
fund, or a municipal indigent drivers interlock and alcohol 71258
monitoring fund, all portions of license reinstatement fees that 71259
are paid under division (F)(2) of this section and that are 71260
credited under that division to the indigent drivers interlock and 71261
alcohol monitoring fund in the state treasury, and all portions of 71262
fines that are paid under division (G) of section 4511.19 of the 71263
Revised Code and that are credited by division (G)(5)(e) of that 71264
section to the indigent drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring 71265
fund in the state treasury shall be deposited in the appropriate 71266
fund in accordance with division (I)(2) of this section.71267

       (2) That portion of the license reinstatement fee that is 71268
paid under division (F) of this section and that portion of the 71269
fine paid under division (G) of section 4511.19 of the Revised 71270
Code and that is credited under either division to the indigent 71271
drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring fund shall be deposited 71272
into a county indigent drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring 71273
fund, a county juvenile indigent drivers interlock and alcohol 71274
monitoring fund, or a municipal indigent drivers interlock and 71275
alcohol monitoring fund as follows:71276

       (a) If the fee or fine is paid by a person who was charged in 71277
a county court with the violation that resulted in the suspension 71278
or fine, the portion shall be deposited into the county indigent 71279
drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring fund under the control of 71280
that court.71281

       (b) If the fee or fine is paid by a person who was charged in 71282
a juvenile court with the violation that resulted in the 71283
suspension or fine, the portion shall be deposited into the county 71284
juvenile indigent drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring fund 71285
established in the county served by the court.71286

       (c) If the fee or fine is paid by a person who was charged in 71287
a municipal court with the violation that resulted in the 71288
suspension, the portion shall be deposited into the municipal 71289
indigent drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring fund under the 71290
control of that court.71291

       Sec. 4511.69.  (A) Every vehicle stopped or parked upon a 71292
roadway where there is an adjacent curb shall be stopped or parked 71293
with the right-hand wheels of the vehicle parallel with and not 71294
more than twelve inches from the right-hand curb, unless it is 71295
impossible to approach so close to the curb; in such case the stop 71296
shall be made as close to the curb as possible and only for the 71297
time necessary to discharge and receive passengers or to load or 71298
unload merchandise. Local authorities by ordinance may permit 71299
angle parking on any roadway under their jurisdiction, except that 71300
angle parking shall not be permitted on a state route within a 71301
municipal corporation unless an unoccupied roadway width of not 71302
less than twenty-five feet is available for free-moving traffic.71303

       (B) Local authorities by ordinance may permit parking of 71304
vehicles with the left-hand wheels adjacent to and within twelve 71305
inches of the left-hand curb of a one-way roadway.71306

       (C)(1)(a) Except as provided in division (C)(2)(1)(b) of this 71307
section, no vehicle or trackless trolley shall be stopped or 71308
parked on a road or highway with the vehicle or trackless trolley 71309
facing in a direction other than the direction of travel on that 71310
side of the road or highway.71311

       (2)(b) The operator of a motorcycle may back the motorcycle 71312
into an angled parking space so that when the motorcycle is parked 71313
it is facing in a direction other than the direction of travel on 71314
the side of the road or highway.71315

       (2)(a) The operators of not more than two motorcycles may 71316
back their motorcycles into a parking space that is located on the 71317
side of, and parallel to, a road or highway, and is not metered. 71318
The motorcycles may face any direction when so parked.71319

        (b) The operator of a motorcycle may back the motorcycle into 71320
a parking space that is located on the side of, and parallel to, a 71321
road or highway, and is metered. The motorcycle may face any 71322
direction when so parked. Only one motorcycle at a time shall be 71323
parked in a parking space as described in division (C)(2)(b) of 71324
this section. 71325

       (D) Notwithstanding any statute or any rule, resolution, or 71326
ordinance adopted by any local authority, air compressors, 71327
tractors, trucks, and other equipment, while being used in the 71328
construction, reconstruction, installation, repair, or removal of 71329
facilities near, on, over, or under a street or highway, may stop, 71330
stand, or park where necessary in order to perform such work, 71331
provided a flagperson is on duty or warning signs or lights are 71332
displayed as may be prescribed by the director of transportation.71333

       (E) Special parking locations and privileges for persons with 71334
disabilities that limit or impair the ability to walk, also known 71335
as handicapped parking spaces or disability parking spaces, shall 71336
be provided and designated by all political subdivisions and by 71337
the state and all agencies and instrumentalities thereof at all 71338
offices and facilities, where parking is provided, whether owned, 71339
rented, or leased, and at all publicly owned parking garages. The 71340
locations shall be designated through the posting of an elevated 71341
sign, whether permanently affixed or movable, imprinted with the 71342
international symbol of access and shall be reasonably close to 71343
exits, entrances, elevators, and ramps. All elevated signs posted 71344
in accordance with this division and division (C) of section 71345
3781.111 of the Revised Code shall be mounted on a fixed or 71346
movable post, and the distance from the ground to the bottom edge 71347
of the sign shall measure not less than five feet. If a new sign 71348
or a replacement sign designating a special parking location is 71349
posted on or after October 14, 1999, there also shall be affixed 71350
upon the surface of that sign or affixed next to the designating 71351
sign a notice that states the fine applicable for the offense of 71352
parking a motor vehicle in the special designated parking location 71353
if the motor vehicle is not legally entitled to be parked in that 71354
location.71355

       (F)(1) No person shall stop, stand, or park any motor vehicle 71356
at special parking locations provided under division (E) of this 71357
section or at special clearly marked parking locations provided in 71358
or on privately owned parking lots, parking garages, or other 71359
parking areas and designated in accordance with that division, 71360
unless one of the following applies:71361

       (a) The motor vehicle is being operated by or for the 71362
transport of a person with a disability that limits or impairs the 71363
ability to walk and is displaying a valid removable windshield 71364
placard or special license plates;71365

       (b) The motor vehicle is being operated by or for the 71366
transport of a handicapped person and is displaying a parking card 71367
or special handicapped license plates.71368

       (2) Any motor vehicle that is parked in a special marked 71369
parking location in violation of division (F)(1)(a) or (b) of this 71370
section may be towed or otherwise removed from the parking 71371
location by the law enforcement agency of the political 71372
subdivision in which the parking location is located. A motor 71373
vehicle that is so towed or removed shall not be released to its 71374
owner until the owner presents proof of ownership of the motor 71375
vehicle and pays all towing and storage fees normally imposed by 71376
that political subdivision for towing and storing motor vehicles. 71377
If the motor vehicle is a leased vehicle, it shall not be released 71378
to the lessee until the lessee presents proof that that person is 71379
the lessee of the motor vehicle and pays all towing and storage 71380
fees normally imposed by that political subdivision for towing and 71381
storing motor vehicles.71382

       (3) If a person is charged with a violation of division 71383
(F)(1)(a) or (b) of this section, it is an affirmative defense to 71384
the charge that the person suffered an injury not more than 71385
seventy-two hours prior to the time the person was issued the 71386
ticket or citation and that, because of the injury, the person 71387
meets at least one of the criteria contained in division (A)(1) of 71388
section 4503.44 of the Revised Code.71389

       (G) When a motor vehicle is being operated by or for the 71390
transport of a person with a disability that limits or impairs the 71391
ability to walk and is displaying a removable windshield placard 71392
or a temporary removable windshield placard or special license 71393
plates, or when a motor vehicle is being operated by or for the 71394
transport of a handicapped person and is displaying a parking card 71395
or special handicapped license plates, the motor vehicle is 71396
permitted to park for a period of two hours in excess of the legal 71397
parking period permitted by local authorities, except where local 71398
ordinances or police rules provide otherwise or where the vehicle 71399
is parked in such a manner as to be clearly a traffic hazard.71400

       (H) No owner of an office, facility, or parking garage where 71401
special parking locations are required to be designated in 71402
accordance with division (E) of this section shall fail to 71403
properly mark the special parking locations in accordance with 71404
that division or fail to maintain the markings of the special 71405
locations, including the erection and maintenance of the fixed or 71406
movable signs.71407

       (I) Nothing in this section shall be construed to require a 71408
person or organization to apply for a removable windshield placard 71409
or special license plates if the parking card or special license 71410
plates issued to the person or organization under prior law have 71411
not expired or been surrendered or revoked.71412

       (J)(1) Whoever violates division (A) or (C) of this section 71413
is guilty of a minor misdemeanor.71414

       (2)(a) Whoever violates division (F)(1)(a) or (b) of this 71415
section is guilty of a misdemeanor and shall be punished as 71416
provided in division (J)(2)(a) and (b) of this section. Except as 71417
otherwise provided in division (J)(2)(a) of this section, an 71418
offender who violates division (F)(1)(a) or (b) of this section 71419
shall be fined not less than two hundred fifty nor more than five 71420
hundred dollars. An offender who violates division (F)(1)(a) or 71421
(b) of this section shall be fined not more than one hundred 71422
dollars if the offender, prior to sentencing, proves either of the 71423
following to the satisfaction of the court:71424

       (i) At the time of the violation of division (F)(1)(a) of 71425
this section, the offender or the person for whose transport the 71426
motor vehicle was being operated had been issued a removable 71427
windshield placard that then was valid or special license plates 71428
that then were valid but the offender or the person neglected to 71429
display the placard or license plates as described in division 71430
(F)(1)(a) of this section.71431

       (ii) At the time of the violation of division (F)(1)(b) of 71432
this section, the offender or the person for whose transport the 71433
motor vehicle was being operated had been issued a parking card 71434
that then was valid or special handicapped license plates that 71435
then were valid but the offender or the person neglected to 71436
display the card or license plates as described in division 71437
(F)(1)(b) of this section.71438

       (b) In no case shall an offender who violates division 71439
(F)(1)(a) or (b) of this section be sentenced to any term of 71440
imprisonment.71441

       An arrest or conviction for a violation of division (F)(1)(a) 71442
or (b) of this section does not constitute a criminal record and 71443
need not be reported by the person so arrested or convicted in 71444
response to any inquiries contained in any application for 71445
employment, license, or other right or privilege, or made in 71446
connection with the person's appearance as a witness.71447

       The clerk of the court shall pay every fine collected under 71448
division (J)(2) of this section to the political subdivision in 71449
which the violation occurred. Except as provided in division 71450
(J)(2) of this section, the political subdivision shall use the 71451
fine moneys it receives under division (J)(2) of this section to 71452
pay the expenses it incurs in complying with the signage and 71453
notice requirements contained in division (E) of this section. The 71454
political subdivision may use up to fifty per cent of each fine it 71455
receives under division (J)(2) of this section to pay the costs of 71456
educational, advocacy, support, and assistive technology programs 71457
for persons with disabilities, and for public improvements within 71458
the political subdivision that benefit or assist persons with 71459
disabilities, if governmental agencies or nonprofit organizations 71460
offer the programs.71461

       (3) Whoever violates division (H) of this section shall be 71462
punished as follows:71463

       (a) Except as otherwise provided in division (J)(3) of this 71464
section, the offender shall be issued a warning.71465

       (b) If the offender previously has been convicted of or 71466
pleaded guilty to a violation of division (H) of this section or 71467
of a municipal ordinance that is substantially similar to that 71468
division, the offender shall not be issued a warning but shall be 71469
fined not more than twenty-five dollars for each parking location 71470
that is not properly marked or whose markings are not properly 71471
maintained.71472

       (K) As used in this section:71473

       (1) "Handicapped person" means any person who has lost the 71474
use of one or both legs or one or both arms, who is blind, deaf, 71475
or so severely handicapped as to be unable to move without the aid 71476
of crutches or a wheelchair, or whose mobility is restricted by a 71477
permanent cardiovascular, pulmonary, or other handicapping 71478
condition.71479

       (2) "Person with a disability that limits or impairs the 71480
ability to walk" has the same meaning as in section 4503.44 of the 71481
Revised Code.71482

       (3) "Special license plates" and "removable windshield 71483
placard" mean any license plates or removable windshield placard 71484
or temporary removable windshield placard issued under section 71485
4503.41 or 4503.44 of the Revised Code, and also mean any 71486
substantially similar license plates or removable windshield 71487
placard or temporary removable windshield placard issued by a 71488
state, district, country, or sovereignty.71489

       Sec. 4513.60.  (A)(1) The sheriff of a county or chief of 71490
police of a municipal corporation, township, or township or joint 71491
police district, within the sheriff's or chief's respective 71492
territorial jurisdiction, upon complaint of any person adversely 71493
affected, may order into storage any motor vehicle, other than an 71494
abandoned junk motor vehicle as defined in section 4513.63 of the 71495
Revised Code, that has been left on private residential or private 71496
agricultural property for at least four hours without the 71497
permission of the person having the right to the possession of the 71498
property. The sheriff or chief of police, upon complaint of the 71499
owner of a repair garage or place of storage, may order into 71500
storage any motor vehicle, other than an abandoned junk motor 71501
vehicle, that has been left at the garage or place of storage for 71502
a longer period than that agreed upon. The place of storage shall 71503
be designated by the sheriff or chief of police. When ordering a 71504
motor vehicle into storage pursuant to this division, a sheriff or 71505
chief of police, whenever possible, shall arrange for the removal 71506
of the motor vehicle by a private tow truck operator or towing 71507
company. Subject to division (C) of this section, the owner of a 71508
motor vehicle that has been removed pursuant to this division may 71509
recover the vehicle only in accordance with division (E) of this 71510
section.71511

       (2) Divisions (A)(1) to (3) of this section do not apply to 71512
any private residential or private agricultural property that is 71513
established as a private tow-away zone in accordance with division 71514
(B) of this section.71515

       (3) As used in divisions (A)(1) and (2) of this section, 71516
"private residential property" means private property on which is 71517
located one or more structures that are used as a home, residence, 71518
or sleeping place by one or more persons, if no more than three 71519
separate households are maintained in the structure or structures. 71520
"Private residential property" does not include any private 71521
property on which is located one or more structures that are used 71522
as a home, residence, or sleeping place by two or more persons, if 71523
more than three separate households are maintained in the 71524
structure or structures.71525

       (B)(1) The owner of private property may establish a private 71526
tow-away zone only if all of the following conditions are 71527
satisfied:71528

       (a) The owner posts on the owner's property a sign, that is 71529
at least eighteen inches by twenty-four inches in size, that is 71530
visible from all entrances to the property, and that contains at 71531
least all of the following information:71532

       (i) A notice that the property is a private tow-away zone 71533
and, that vehicles not authorized to park on the property will be 71534
towed away, and that abandoned unclaimed motor vehicles may result 71535
in ownership interest for the tower under section 4505.101 of the 71536
Revised Code;71537

       (ii) The telephone number of the person from whom a 71538
towed-away vehicle can be recovered, and the address of the place 71539
to which the vehicle will be taken and the place from which it may 71540
be recovered;71541

       (iii) A statement that the vehicle may be recovered at any 71542
time during the day or night upon the submission of proof of 71543
ownership and the payment of a towing charge, in an amount not to 71544
exceed ninety dollars, and a storage charge, in an amount not to 71545
exceed twelve dollars per twenty-four-hour period; except that the 71546
charge for towing shall not exceed one hundred fifty dollars, and 71547
the storage charge shall not exceed twenty dollars per 71548
twenty-four-hour period, if the vehicle has a manufacturer's gross 71549
vehicle weight rating in excess of ten thousand pounds and is a 71550
truck, bus, or a combination of a commercial tractor and trailer 71551
or semitrailer.71552

       (b) The place to which the towed vehicle is taken and from 71553
which it may be recovered is conveniently located, is well 71554
lighted, and is on or within a reasonable distance of a regularly 71555
scheduled route of one or more modes of public transportation, if 71556
any public transportation is available in the municipal 71557
corporation or township in which the private tow-away zone is 71558
located.71559

       (2) If a vehicle is parked on private property that is 71560
established as a private tow-away zone in accordance with division 71561
(B)(1) of this section, without the consent of the owner of the 71562
property or in violation of any posted parking condition or 71563
regulation, the owner or the owner's agent may remove, or cause 71564
the removal of, the vehicle, the owner and the operator of the 71565
vehicle shall be deemed to have consented to the removal and 71566
storage of the vehicle, to the possible ownership interest for the 71567
tower as specified in division (B)(1)(a)(i) of this section, and 71568
to the payment of the towing and storage charges specified in 71569
division (B)(1)(a)(iii) of this section, and the owner, subject to 71570
division (C) of this section, may recover a vehicle that has been 71571
so removed only in accordance with division (E) of this section.71572

       (3) If a municipal corporation requires tow trucks and tow 71573
truck operators to be licensed, no owner of private property 71574
located within the municipal corporation shall remove, or shall 71575
cause the removal and storage of, any vehicle pursuant to division 71576
(B)(2) of this section by an unlicensed tow truck or unlicensed 71577
tow truck operator.71578

       (4) Divisions (B)(1) to (3) of this section do not affect or 71579
limit the operation of division (A) of this section or sections 71580
4513.61 to 4513.65 of the Revised Code as they relate to property 71581
other than private property that is established as a private 71582
tow-away zone under division (B)(1) of this section.71583

       (C) If the owner or operator of a motor vehicle that has been 71584
ordered into storage pursuant to division (A)(1) of this section 71585
or of a vehicle that is being removed under authority of division 71586
(B)(2) of this section arrives after the motor vehicle or vehicle 71587
has been prepared for removal, but prior to its actual removal 71588
from the property, the owner or operator shall be given the 71589
opportunity to pay a fee of not more than one-half of the charge 71590
for the removal of motor vehicles under division (A)(1) of this 71591
section or of vehicles under division (B)(2) of this section, 71592
whichever is applicable, that normally is assessed by the person 71593
who has prepared the motor vehicle or vehicle for removal, in 71594
order to obtain release of the motor vehicle or vehicle. Upon 71595
payment of that fee, the motor vehicle or vehicle shall be 71596
released to the owner or operator, and upon its release, the owner 71597
or operator immediately shall move it so that:71598

       (1) If the motor vehicle was ordered into storage pursuant to 71599
division (A)(1) of this section, it is not on the private 71600
residential or private agricultural property without the 71601
permission of the person having the right to possession of the 71602
property, or is not at the garage or place of storage without the 71603
permission of the owner, whichever is applicable.71604

       (2) If the vehicle was being removed under authority of 71605
division (B)(2) of this section, it is not parked on the private 71606
property established as a private tow-away zone without the 71607
consent of the owner or in violation of any posted parking 71608
condition or regulation.71609

       (D)(1) If an owner of private property that is established as 71610
a private tow-away zone in accordance with division (B)(1) of this 71611
section or the authorized agent of such an owner removes or causes 71612
the removal of a vehicle from that property under authority of 71613
division (B)(2) of this section, the owner or agent promptly shall 71614
notify the police department of the municipal corporation, 71615
township, or township or joint police district in which the 71616
property is located, of the removal, the vehicle's license number, 71617
make, model, and color, the location from which it was removed, 71618
the date and time of its removal, the telephone number of the 71619
person from whom it may be recovered, and the address of the place 71620
to which it has been taken and from which it may be recovered.71621

       (2) Each county sheriff and each chief of police of a 71622
municipal corporation, township, or township or joint police 71623
district shall maintain a record of motor vehicles that the 71624
sheriff or chief orders into storage pursuant to division (A)(1) 71625
of this section and of vehicles removed from private property in 71626
the sheriff's or chief's jurisdiction that is established as a 71627
private tow-away zone of which the sheriff or chief has received 71628
notice under division (D)(1) of this section. The record shall 71629
include an entry for each such motor vehicle or vehicle that 71630
identifies the motor vehicle's or vehicle's license number, make, 71631
model, and color, the location from which it was removed, the date 71632
and time of its removal, the telephone number of the person from 71633
whom it may be recovered, and the address of the place to which it 71634
has been taken and from which it may be recovered. Any information 71635
in the record that pertains to a particular motor vehicle or 71636
vehicle shall be provided to any person who, either in person or 71637
pursuant to a telephone call, identifies self as the owner or 71638
operator of the motor vehicle or vehicle and requests information 71639
pertaining to its location.71640

       (3) Any person who registers a complaint that is the basis of 71641
a sheriff's or police chief's order for the removal and storage of 71642
a motor vehicle under division (A)(1) of this section shall 71643
provide the identity of the law enforcement agency with which the 71644
complaint was registered to any person who identifies self as the 71645
owner or operator of the motor vehicle and requests information 71646
pertaining to its location.71647

       (E) The owner of a motor vehicle that is ordered into storage 71648
pursuant to division (A)(1) of this section or of a vehicle that 71649
is removed under authority of division (B)(2) of this section may 71650
reclaim it upon payment of any expenses or charges incurred in its 71651
removal, in an amount not to exceed ninety dollars, and storage, 71652
in an amount not to exceed twelve dollars per twenty-four-hour 71653
period; except that the charge for towing shall not exceed one 71654
hundred fifty dollars, and the storage charge shall not exceed 71655
twenty dollars per twenty-four-hour period, if the vehicle has a 71656
manufacturer's gross vehicle weight rating in excess of ten 71657
thousand pounds and is a truck, bus, or a combination of a 71658
commercial tractor and trailer or semitrailer. Presentation of 71659
proof of ownership, which may be evidenced by a certificate of 71660
title to the motor vehicle or vehicle also shall be required for 71661
reclamation of the vehicle. If a motor vehicle that is ordered 71662
into storage pursuant to division (A)(1) of this section remains 71663
unclaimed by the owner for thirty days, the procedures established 71664
by sections 4513.61 and 4513.62 of the Revised Code shall apply.71665

       (F) No person shall remove, or cause the removal of, any 71666
vehicle from private property that is established as a private 71667
tow-away zone under division (B)(1) of this section other than in 71668
accordance with division (B)(2) of this section, and no person 71669
shall remove, or cause the removal of, any motor vehicle from any 71670
other private property other than in accordance with division 71671
(A)(1) of this section or sections 4513.61 to 4513.65 of the 71672
Revised Code.71673

       (G) Whoever violates division (B)(3) or (F) of this section 71674
is guilty of a minor misdemeanor.71675

       Sec. 4513.61.  The sheriff of a county or chief of police of 71676
a municipal corporation, township, or township or joint police 71677
district, within the sheriff's or chief's respective territorial 71678
jurisdiction, or athe superintendent of the state highway patrol 71679
trooperor their designee, upon notification to the sheriff or 71680
chief of police of such action and of the location of the place of 71681
storage, may order into storage any motor vehicle, including an 71682
abandoned junk motor vehicle as defined in section 4513.63 of the 71683
Revised Code, that has come into the possession of the sheriff, 71684
chief of police, or state highway patrol trooperthe 71685
superintendent as a result of the performance of the sheriff's, 71686
chief's, or trooper'sstate highway patrol's duties or that has 71687
been left on a public street or other property open to the public 71688
for purposes of vehicular travel, or upon or within the 71689
right-of-way of any road or highway, for forty-eight hours or 71690
longer without notification to the sheriff or, chief of police, 71691
or the superintendent of the reasons for leaving the motor vehicle 71692
in such place, except that when such a motor vehicle constitutes 71693
an obstruction to traffic it may be ordered into storage 71694
immediately. The sheriff or, chief of police, superintendent, or 71695
their designee shall designate the place of storage of any motor 71696
vehicle so ordered removed.71697

       The sheriff or, chief of police, superintendent, or their 71698
designee immediately shall cause a search to be made of the 71699
records of the bureau of motor vehicles to ascertain the owner and 71700
any lienholder of a motor vehicle ordered into storage by the 71701
sheriff or, chief of police, or by a state highway patrol trooper71702
superintendent, or their designee, and, if known, shall send or 71703
cause to be sent notice to the owner or lienholder at the owner's 71704
or lienholder's last known address by certified mail with return 71705
receipt requested, that the motor vehicle will be declared a 71706
nuisance and disposed of if not claimed within ten days of the 71707
date of mailing of the notice. The owner or lienholder of the 71708
motor vehicle may reclaim it upon payment of any expenses or 71709
charges incurred in its removal and storage, and presentation of 71710
proof of ownership, which may be evidenced by a certificate of 71711
title or memorandum certificate of title to the motor vehicle. If 71712
the owner or lienholder of the motor vehicle reclaims it after a 71713
search of the records of the bureau has been conducted and after 71714
notice has been sent to the owner or lienholder as described in 71715
this section, and the search was conducted by the owner of the 71716
place of storage or the owner's employee, and the notice was sent 71717
to the motor vehicle owner by the owner of the place of storage or 71718
the owner's employee, the owner or lienholder shall pay to the 71719
place of storage a processing fee of twenty-five dollars, in 71720
addition to any expenses or charges incurred in the removal and 71721
storage of the vehicle.71722

       If the owner or lienholder makes no claim to the motor 71723
vehicle within ten days of the date of mailing of the notice, and 71724
if the vehicle is to be disposed of at public auction as provided 71725
in section 4513.62 of the Revised Code, the sheriff or, chief of 71726
police, superintendent, or their designee, without charge to any 71727
party, shall file with the clerk of courts of the county in which 71728
the place of storage is located an affidavit showing compliance 71729
with the requirements of this section. Upon presentation of the 71730
affidavit, the clerk, without charge, shall issue a salvage 71731
certificate of title, free and clear of all liens and 71732
encumbrances, to the sheriff or, chief of police, superintendent, 71733
or their designee. If the vehicle is to be disposed of to a motor 71734
vehicle salvage dealer or other facility as provided in section 71735
4513.62 of the Revised Code, the sheriff, chief of police, 71736
superintendent, or their designee shall execute in triplicate an 71737
affidavit, as prescribed by the registrar of motor vehicles, 71738
describing the motor vehicle and the manner in which it was 71739
disposed of, and that all requirements of this section have been 71740
complied with. The sheriff or, chief of police, the 71741
superintendent, or their designee shall retain the original of the 71742
affidavit for the sheriff's or, chief's, or superintendent's71743
records, and shall furnish two copies to the motor vehicle salvage 71744
dealer or other facility. Upon presentation of a copy of the 71745
affidavit by the motor vehicle salvage dealer, the clerk of 71746
courts, within thirty days of the presentation, shall issue to 71747
such owner a salvage certificate of title, free and clear of all 71748
liens and encumbrances.71749

       Whenever a motor vehicle salvage dealer or other facility 71750
receives an affidavit for the disposal of a motor vehicle as 71751
provided in this section, the dealer or facility shall not be 71752
required to obtain an Ohio certificate of title to the motor 71753
vehicle in the dealer's or facility's own name if the vehicle is 71754
dismantled or destroyed and both copies of the affidavit are 71755
delivered to the clerk of courts.71756

       Sec. 4513.62.  Unclaimed motor vehicles ordered into storage 71757
pursuant to division (A)(1) of section 4513.60 or section 4513.61 71758
of the Revised Code shall be disposed of at the order of the 71759
sheriff of the county or, the chief of police of the municipal 71760
corporation, township, or township or joint police district, the 71761
superintendent of the state highway patrol, or their designee to a 71762
motor vehicle salvage dealer or scrap metal processing facility as 71763
defined in section 4737.05 of the Revised Code, or to any other 71764
facility owned by or under contract with the county, municipal 71765
corporation, or township, for the disposal of such motor vehicles, 71766
or shall be sold by the sheriff, chief of police, superintendent, 71767
their designee, or licensed auctioneer at public auction, after 71768
giving notice thereof by advertisement, published once a week for 71769
two successive weeks in a newspaper of general circulation in the 71770
county or as provided in section 7.16 of the Revised Code. Any 71771
moneys accruing from the disposition of an unclaimed motor vehicle 71772
that are in excess of the expenses resulting from the removal and 71773
storage of the vehicle shall be credited to the general fund of 71774
the county, municipal corporation, township, or joint police 71775
district, or state as the case may be.71776

       Sec. 4701.03.  (A) The accountancy board annually shall elect 71777
a president, secretary, and treasurer from its members. The board 71778
may adopt and amend rules for the orderly conduct of its affairs 71779
and for the administration of this chapter. The board may adopt 71780
and amend rules defining the practice of public accounting, rules 71781
of professional conduct appropriate to establish and maintain a 71782
high standard of integrity and dignity in registrants and 71783
certificate holders under this chapter, and rules regulating the 71784
sole proprietorship, partnership, limited liability company, 71785
professional association, corporation-for-profit, or other legal 71786
entity practice of public accounting. A majority of the board 71787
shall constitute a quorum for the transaction of business.71788

       (B) The board shall keep and hold open for public inspection 71789
all records of its proceedings.71790

       (C) The board may employ any clerks that are necessary to 71791
assist it in the performance of its duties and the keeping of its 71792
records. If the board employs an executive director, the board 71793
shall pay the executive director shall be paid in accordance with 71794
pay range 18 of schedule E-1 of section 124.152 of the Revised 71795
Code, or, if the director was employed and being paid on June 28, 71796
2003, in accordance with step 7 in pay range 18 of schedule E-1 of 71797
former section 124.152 of the Revised Code and continued to be so 71798
paid on June 29, 2003, the executive director shall be paid in 71799
accordance with pay range 18 of salary schedule E-1 for step seven 71800
only of section 124.152 of the Revised Code.71801

       Sec. 4707.02. (A) No person shall act as an auction firm, 71802
auctioneer, apprentice auctioneer, or special auctioneer within 71803
this state without a license issued by the department of 71804
agriculture. No auction shall be conducted in this state except by 71805
an auctioneer licensed by the department.71806

       The department shall not issue or renew a license if the 71807
applicant or licensee has been convicted of a felony or crime 71808
involving fraud or theft in this or another state at any time 71809
during the ten years immediately preceding application or renewal.71810

        (B) Division (A) of this section does not apply to any of the 71811
following:71812

       (1) Sales at auction that either are required by law to be at 71813
auction, other than sales pursuant to a judicial order or decree, 71814
or are conducted by or under the direction of a public authority;71815

       (2) The owner of any real or personal property desiring to 71816
sell the property at auction, provided that the property was not 71817
acquired for the purpose of resale;71818

       (3) An auction mediation company;71819

       (4) An auction that is conducted in a course of study for 71820
auctioneers that is approved by the state auctioneers commission 71821
created under section 4707.03 of the Revised Code for purposes of 71822
student training and is supervised by a licensed auctioneer;71823

       (5)(a) An auction that is sponsored by a nonprofit or 71824
charitable organization that is registered in this state under 71825
Chapter 1702. or Chapter 1716. of the Revised Code, respectively, 71826
if the auction only involves the property of the members of the 71827
organization and the auction is part of a fair that is organized 71828
by an agricultural society under Chapter 1711. of the Revised Code 71829
or by the Ohio expositions commission under Chapter 991. of the 71830
Revised Code at which an auctioneer who is licensed under this 71831
chapter physically conducts the auction; or71832

       (b) Sales at an auction sponsored by a charitable, religious, 71833
or civic organization that is tax exempt under subsection 71834
501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code, or by a public school, 71835
chartered nonpublic school, or community school, if no person in 71836
the business of organizing, arranging, or conducting an auction 71837
for compensation and no consignor of consigned items sold at the 71838
auction, except such organization or school, receives compensation 71839
from the proceeds of the auction. As used in division (B)(5)(b) of 71840
this section, "compensation" means money, a thing of value other 71841
than participation in a charitable event, or a financial benefit.71842

       (6) A person licensed as a livestock dealer under Chapter 71843
943. of the Revised Code who exclusively sells livestock and uses 71844
an auctioneer who is licensed under this chapter to conduct the 71845
auction;71846

       (7) A person licensed as a motor vehicle auction owner under 71847
Chapter 4517. of the Revised Code who exclusively sells motor 71848
vehicles to a person licensed under Chapter 4517. of the Revised 71849
Code and who uses an auctioneer who is licensed under this chapter 71850
to conduct the auction;71851

       (8) A person who sells real or personal property by means of 71852
the internet;71853

       (9) A bid calling contest that is approved by the commission 71854
and that is conducted for the purposes of the advancement or 71855
promotion of the auction profession in this state, provided that 71856
no compensation is paid to the sponsor of or participants in the 71857
contest other than a prize or award for winning the contest;71858

        (10) An auction at which the champion of a national or 71859
international bid calling contest appears, provided that both of 71860
the following apply:71861

        (a) The champion is not paid a commission.71862

        (b) The auction is conducted under the direct supervision of 71863
an auctioneer licensed under this chapter in order to ensure that 71864
the champion complies with this chapter and rules adopted under 71865
it.71866

       (C)(1) No person shall advertise or hold oneself out as an 71867
auction firm, auctioneer, apprentice auctioneer, or special 71868
auctioneer without a license issued by the department of 71869
agriculture.71870

       (2) Division (C)(1) of this section does not apply to an 71871
individual who is the subject of an advertisement regarding an 71872
auction conducted under division (B)(5)(b) of this section.71873

       Sec. 4707.073. (A) No corporation, limited liability company,71874
general or limited partnership, or unincorporated association 71875
shall act or hold itself out as an auctioneer without a valid 71876
auctioneer's license issued under this section. This section does 71877
not apply to a person who is issued a license under section 71878
4707.071 of the Revised Code.71879

       (B) The department of agriculture may grant an auctioneer's 71880
license to a corporation, limited liability company, general or 71881
limited partnership, or unincorporated association that is 71882
determined to be qualified by the department. Every applicant for 71883
a license under this section shall furnish to the department, on 71884
forms provided by the department, satisfactory proof that the 71885
applicant:71886

       (1) Is in good standing with the secretary of state if the 71887
applicant is a corporation;71888

       (2) Is of trustworthy character;71889

       (3) Has provided proof of financial responsibility as 71890
required in section 4707.11 of the Revised Code;71891

       (4) Is registered with the secretary of state or a local 71892
authority, as applicable, to do business in this state;71893

       (5) Has complied with any other requirement that the director 71894
establishes in rules adopted under section 4707.19 of the Revised 71895
Code.71896

       (C) An application submitted under this section shall list 71897
the names of all of the owners, directors, partners, or members of 71898
the applicant, as applicable, and shall indicate those that have 71899
an auctioneer's license issued under section 4707.07 of the 71900
Revised Code.71901

       (D)(1) The department shall not issue a license under this 71902
section unless one of the following applies, as applicable:71903

       (a)(1) If the applicant is a limited liability company or a71904
general or limited partnership, not less than fifty per cent of 71905
the members or general partners have a current license issued 71906
under section 4707.07 of the Revised Code.71907

       (b)(2) If the applicant is a corporation, not less than fifty 71908
per cent of the directors and the president or chief executive 71909
have a current license issued under section 4707.07 of the Revised 71910
Code.71911

       (c)(3) If the applicant is an unincorporated association, not 71912
less than fifty per cent of the members have a current license 71913
issued under section 4707.07 of the Revised Code.71914

       Failure of a corporation, limited liability company,71915
partnership, or unincorporated association to maintain the 71916
applicable requirements of this division after the issuance of a 71917
license under this section may be sufficient cause for the 71918
revocation of the license under section 4707.15 of the Revised 71919
Code.71920

       (2) Not later than two years after the effective date of this 71921
section, a corporation, partnership, or unincorporated association 71922
that was issued a license under section 4707.07 of the Revised 71923
Code on or before the effective date of this section shall comply 71924
with the requirements established in division (D)(1) of this 71925
section. If such a corporation, partnership, or unincorporated 71926
association fails to comply with those requirements, the license 71927
of the corporation, partnership, or unincorporated association 71928
immediately shall terminate.71929

       (E) Upon the issuance of a license under this section, a 71930
corporation, limited liability company, partnership, or 71931
unincorporated association shall designate an individual from 71932
among its directors, partners, or members who is licensed under 71933
section 4707.07 of the Revised Code as its agent for purposes of 71934
communication with the department. If that individual ceases to be 71935
the agent, the corporation, limited liability company,71936
partnership, or unincorporated association shall notify the 71937
department not later than ten days after the day on which the 71938
individual ceases to be the agent. Upon notification to the 71939
department, the license of the corporation, limited liability 71940
company, partnership, or unincorporated association, as 71941
applicable, immediately shall terminate. If the corporation, 71942
limited liability company, partnership, or unincorporated 71943
association notifies the department of the designation of a new 71944
agent in accordance with the requirements of this division and 71945
pays a fee in the amount of ten dollars, the department shall 71946
issue the corporation, limited liability company, partnership, or 71947
unincorporated association a new license.71948

       (F) This section does not preclude a corporation, limited 71949
liability company, partnership, or unincorporated association from 71950
selling real property at auction, provided that the requirements 71951
of this section and section 4707.021 and Chapter 4735. of the 71952
Revised Code are satisfied.71953

       (G) A person licensed as a real estate broker under Chapter 71954
4735. of the Revised Code shall not be required to obtain a 71955
license under this section if the person complies with sections 71956
4707.021 and 4707.22 of the Revised Code.71957

       Sec. 4707.10.  (A) The fee for each apprentice auctioneer's 71958
or auction firm license issued by the department of agriculture is 71959
one hundred dollars, and the annual renewal fee for any such 71960
license is one hundred dollars. All licenses expire annually on 71961
the last day of June of each year and shall be renewed according 71962
to the standard renewal procedures of Chapter 4745. of the Revised 71963
Code, or the procedures of this section. Any licensee under this 71964
chapter who wishes to renew the licensee's license, but fails to 71965
do so before the first day of July shall reapply for licensure in 71966
the same manner and pursuant to the same requirements as for 71967
initial licensure, unless before the first day of September of the 71968
year of expiration, the former licensee pays to the department, in 71969
addition to the regular renewal fee, a late renewal penalty of one 71970
hundred dollars.71971

       (B)(1) Each person to whom the department issues an 71972
auctioneer's license or special auctioneer's license shall pay a 71973
licensure fee. Those licenses are biennial and expire in 71974
accordance with the schedule established in division (B)(2) of 71975
this section. If such a license is issued during the first year of 71976
a biennium, the licensee shall pay a fee in the amount of two 71977
hundred dollars. If the license is issued during the second year 71978
of a biennium, the licensee shall pay a fee in the amount of one 71979
hundred dollars. With respect to an auctioneer's license, the fees 71980
apply regardless of whether the license is issued to an individual 71981
under section 4707.07 of the Revised Code or to a corporation, 71982
limited liability company, partnership, or association under 71983
section 4707.073 of the Revised Code.71984

       All auctioneer's licenses and special auctioneer's licenses 71985
expire on the last day of June of the biennium. The licenses shall 71986
be renewed in accordance with the standard renewal procedures of 71987
Chapter 4745. of the Revised Code or the procedures in this 71988
section and upon the licensee's payment to the department of a 71989
renewal fee of two hundred dollars. A licensee who wishes to renew 71990
the licensee's license, but who fails to do so before the first 71991
day of July following the license's expiration, shall reapply for 71992
licensure in the same manner and pursuant to the same requirements 71993
as for the initial licensure unless before the first day of 71994
September following the expiration, the former licensee pays to 71995
the department, in addition to the regular renewal fee, a late 71996
renewal penalty of one hundred dollars.71997

       (2) The biennial expiration of an auctioneer's license or 71998
special auctioneer's license shall occur in accordance with the 71999
following schedule:72000

       (a) The license shall expire in odd-numbered years if the 72001
business name or last name, as applicable, of the licensee begins 72002
with the letters "A" through "J" or with the letters "X" through 72003
"Z."72004

       (b) The license shall expire in even-numbered years if the 72005
business name or last name, as applicable, of the licensee begins 72006
with the letters "K" through "W."72007

       (C) Any person who fails to renew the person's license before 72008
the first day of July is prohibited from engaging in any activity 72009
specified or comprehended in section 4707.01 of the Revised Code 72010
until such time as the person's license is renewed or a new 72011
license is issued. Renewal of a license between the first day of 72012
July and the first day of September does not relieve any person 72013
from complying with this division. The department may refuse to 72014
renew the license of or issue a new license to any person who 72015
violates this division.72016

       (D) The department shall prepare and deliver to each licensee 72017
a permanent license certificate and an identification card, the 72018
appropriate portion of which shall be carried on the person of the 72019
licensee at all times when engaged in any type of auction 72020
activity, and part of which shall be posted with the permanent 72021
certificate in a conspicuous location at the licensee's place of 72022
business.72023

       (E) Notice in writing shall be given to the department by 72024
each auctioneer or apprentice auctioneer licensee of any change of 72025
principal business location or any change or addition to the name 72026
or names under which business is conducted, whereupon the 72027
department shall issue a new license for the unexpired period. Any 72028
change of business location or change or addition of names without 72029
notification to the department shall automatically cancel any 72030
license previously issued. For each new auctioneerauctioneer's or 72031
apprentice auctioneerauctioneer's license issued upon the 72032
occasion of a change in business location or a change in or an 72033
addition of names under which business is conducted, the 72034
department may collect a fee of ten dollars for each change in 72035
location, or name or each added name unless the notification of 72036
the change occurs concurrently with the renewal application or 72037
unless otherwise provided in section 4707.07 of the Revised Code.72038

       Sec. 4709.11.  Every license issued pursuant to this chapter 72039
expires on the thirty-first day of August of each even-numbered 72040
year. Each licensee desiring to do so shall, on or before the 72041
first day of September of each even-numbered year, renew histhe 72042
licensee's license pursuant to the standard renewal procedure of 72043
Chapter 4745. of the Revised Code. Any holder of an expired 72044
license shall restore histhe holder's license before continuing 72045
the practice of barbering or the activity for which hethe holder72046
is licensed under this chapter and pay the appropriate restoration 72047
fee. If the person fails to restore histhe person's license 72048
within threesix years, hethe person shall pay any required 72049
restoration fee and take any examination required for the license 72050
under this chapter.72051

       Sec. 4715.36. As used in this section and sections 4715.361 72052
to 4715.374 of the Revised Code:72053

       (A) "Accredited dental hygiene school" means a dental hygiene 72054
school accredited by the American dental association commission on 72055
dental accreditation or a dental hygiene school whose educational 72056
standards are recognized by the American dental association 72057
commission on dental accreditation and approved by the state 72058
dental board.72059

       (B) "Authorizing dentist" means a dentist who authorizes a 72060
dental hygienist to perform dental hygiene services under section 72061
4715.365 of the Revised Code.72062

       (C) "Clinical evaluation" means a diagnosis and treatment 72063
plan formulated for an individual patient by a dentist.72064

       (D) "Dentist" means an individual licensed under this chapter 72065
to practice dentistry.72066

       (E) "Dental hygienist" means an individual licensed under 72067
this chapter to practice as a dental hygienist.72068

       (F) "Dental hygiene services" means the prophylactic, 72069
preventive, and other procedures that dentists are authorized by 72070
this chapter and rules of the state dental board to assign to 72071
dental hygienists, except for procedures while a patient is 72072
anesthetized, definitive root planing, definitive subgingival 72073
curettage, the administration of local anesthesia, and the 72074
procedures specified in rules adopted by the board as described in 72075
division (C)(4) of section 4715.22 of the Revised Code.72076

       (G) "Facility" means any of the following:72077

       (1) A health care facility, as defined in section 4715.22 of 72078
the Revised Code;72079

       (2) A state correctional institution, as defined in section 72080
2967.01 of the Revised Code;72081

       (3) A comprehensive child development program that receives 72082
funds distributed under the "Head Start Act," 95 Stat. 499 (1981), 72083
42 U.S.C. 9831, as amended, and is licensed as a child day-care 72084
center;72085

       (4) A residential facility licensed under section 5123.19 of 72086
the Revised Code;72087

        (5) A public school, as defined in section 3701.93 of the 72088
Revised Code, located in an area designated as a dental health 72089
resource shortage area pursuant to section 3702.87 of the Revised 72090
Code;72091

        (6) A nonpublic school, as defined in section 3701.93 of the 72092
Revised Code, located in an area designated as a dental health 72093
resource shortage area pursuant to section 3702.87 of the Revised 72094
Code;72095

        (7) A federally qualified health center or federally 72096
qualified health center look-alike, as defined in section 3701.047 72097
of the Revised Code;72098

        (8) A shelter for victims of domestic violence, as defined in 72099
section 3113.33 of the Revised Code;72100

        (9) A facility operated by the department of youth services 72101
under Chapter 5139. of the Revised Code;72102

        (10) A shelter for runaways, as defined in section 5119.64 of 72103
the Revised Code;72104

       (11) A foster home, as defined in section 5103.02 of the 72105
Revised Code;72106

       (12)(11) A nonprofit clinic, as defined in section 3715.87 of 72107
the Revised Code;72108

       (13)(12) The residence of one or more individuals receiving 72109
services provided by a home health agency, as defined in section 72110
5101.61 of the Revised Code;72111

       (14)(13) A dispensary;72112

       (15)(14) A health care facility, such as a clinic or 72113
hospital, of the United States department of veterans affairs;72114

       (16)(15) The residence of one or more individuals enrolled in 72115
a home and community-based services medicaid waiver component, as 72116
defined in section 5111.8515166.01 of the Revised Code;72117

       (17)(16) A facility operated by the board of health of a city 72118
or general health district or the authority having the duties of a 72119
board of health under section 3709.05 of the Revised Code;72120

       (18)(17) A women, infants, and children clinic;72121

       (19)(18) A mobile dental unit located at any location listed 72122
in divisions (G)(1) to (18)(17) of this section;72123

       (20)(19) Any other location, as specified by the state dental 72124
board in rules adopted under section 4715.372 of the Revised Code, 72125
that is in an area designated as a dental health resource shortage 72126
area pursuant to section 3702.87 of the Revised Code and provides 72127
health care services to individuals who are medicaid recipients of 72128
medical assistance under the medicaid program established pursuant 72129
to Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code and to indigent and uninsured 72130
persons, as defined in section 2305.234 of the Revised Code.72131

       Sec. 4715.372. (A) The state dental board shall adopt rules 72132
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code as necessary 72133
to implement the oral health access supervision program, including 72134
rules that do all of the following:72135

       (1) For the purpose of division (G)(20)(19) of section 72136
4715.36 of the Revised Code, designate additional facilities at 72137
which a dental hygienist may be authorized to perform dental 72138
hygiene services under the oral health access supervision program;72139

       (2) For the purpose of section 4715.362 of the Revised Code, 72140
prescribe the application form and requirements for obtaining an 72141
oral health access supervision permit;72142

       (3) For the purpose of section 4715.363 of the Revised Code, 72143
prescribe the application form for a permit to practice as a 72144
dental hygienist under the oral health access supervision of a 72145
dentist;72146

       (4) For the purpose of division (B)(3) of section 4715.363 of 72147
the Revised Code and subject to division (B) of this section, 72148
establish standards for the course in the practice of dental 72149
hygiene under oral health access supervision;72150

       (5) For the purpose of section 4715.369 of the Revised Code, 72151
prescribe the form for renewal of an oral health access 72152
supervision permit;72153

       (6) For the purpose of section 4715.37 of the Revised Code, 72154
prescribe the form for renewal of a permit to practice as a dental 72155
hygienist under the oral health access supervision of a dentist.72156

       (B) The course in the practice of dental hygiene under oral 72157
health access supervision for which the board establishes 72158
standards under division (A)(4) of this section shall meet all of 72159
the following requirements:72160

       (1) Be eight hours in length;72161

       (2) Include, at a minimum, instruction in both of the 72162
following:72163

       (a) The treatment of geriatric patients, medically 72164
compromised patients, developmentally disabled patients, and 72165
pediatric patients;72166

       (b) Recordkeeping practices.72167

       (3) Be developed and offered by an institution accredited by 72168
the American dental association commission on dental accreditation 72169
or a program provided by a sponsor of continuing education 72170
approved by the board;72171

       (4) Include content that is separate and independent from the 72172
course content required for the completion of dental hygiene 72173
education from an accredited dental hygiene school.72174

       Sec. 4717.03.  (A) Members of the board of embalmers and 72175
funeral directors shall annually in July, or within thirty days 72176
after the senate's confirmation of the new members appointed in 72177
that year, meet and organize by selecting from among its members a 72178
president, vice-president, and secretary-treasurer. The board may 72179
hold other meetings as it determines necessary. A quorum of the 72180
board consists of four members, of whom at least three shall be 72181
members who are embalmers and funeral directors. The concurrence 72182
of at least four members is necessary for the board to take any 72183
action. The president and secretary-treasurer shall sign all 72184
licenses issued under this chapter and affix the board's seal to 72185
each license.72186

       (B) The board may appoint an individual who is not a member 72187
of the board to serve as executive director of the board. The 72188
executive director serves at the pleasure of the board and shall 72189
do all of the following:72190

       (1) Serve as the board's chief administrative officer;72191

       (2) Act as custodian of the board's records;72192

       (3) Execute all of the board's orders;72193

       (4) Employ staff who are not members of the board and who 72194
serve at the pleasure of the executive director to provide any 72195
assistance that the board considers necessary.72196

       (C) In executing the board's orders as required by division 72197
(B)(3) of this section, the executive director may enter the 72198
premises, establishment, office, or place of business of any 72199
embalmer, funeral director, or operator of a crematory facility in 72200
this state. The executive director may serve and execute any 72201
process issued by any court under this chapter..72202

       (C) The board may employ clerical or technical staff who are 72203
not members of the board and who serve at the pleasure of the 72204
board to provide any clerical or technical assistance the board 72205
considers necessary.(D) The boardexecutive director may employ 72206
necessary inspectors, who shall be licensed embalmers and funeral 72207
directors. AnyAn inspector employed by the boardexecutive 72208
director may enter the premises, establishment, office, or place 72209
of business of any embalmer, funeral director, or operator of a 72210
crematory facility in this state, for the purposes of inspecting 72211
the facility and premises; the license and registration of 72212
embalmers and funeral directors operating in the facility; and the 72213
license of the funeral home, embalming facility, or crematory. The 72214
inspector shall serve and execute any process issued by any court 72215
under this chapter, serve and execute any papers or process issued 72216
by the board or any officer or member of the board,facility and 72217
perform any other duties delegated to the inspector by the board 72218
or assigned to the inspector by the executive director. The 72219
executive director may enter the facility or premises of a funeral 72220
home, embalming facility, or crematory for the purpose of an 72221
inspection if accompanied by an inspector or, if an inspector is 72222
not available, when a situation presents a danger of immediate and 72223
serious harm to the public.72224

       (D)(E) The president of the board shall designate three of 72225
itsthe board's members to serve on the crematory review board, 72226
which is hereby created, for such time as the president finds 72227
appropriate to carry out the provisions of this chapter. Those 72228
members of the crematory review board designated by the president 72229
to serve and three members designated by the cemetery dispute 72230
resolution commission shall designate, by a majority vote, one 72231
person who is experienced in the operation of a crematory facility 72232
and who is not affiliated with a cemetery or a funeral home to 72233
serve on the crematory review board for such time as the crematory 72234
review board finds appropriate. Members serving on the crematory 72235
review board shall not receive any additional compensation for 72236
serving on the board, but may be reimbursed for their actual and 72237
necessary expenses incurred in the performance of official duties 72238
as members of the board. Members of the crematory review board 72239
shall designate one from among its members to serve as a 72240
chairperson for such time as the board finds appropriate. Costs 72241
associated with conducting an adjudicatory hearing in accordance 72242
with division (E)(F) of this section shall be paid from funds 72243
available to the board of embalmers and funeral directors.72244

       (E)(F) Upon receiving written notice from the board of 72245
embalmers and funeral directors of any of the following, the 72246
crematory review board shall conduct an adjudicatory hearing on 72247
the matter in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, 72248
except as otherwise provided in this section or division (C) of 72249
section 4717.14 of the Revised Code:72250

       (1) Notice provided under division (H)(I) of this section of 72251
an alleged violation of any provision of this chapter or any rules 72252
adopted under this chapter governing or in connection with 72253
crematory facilities or cremation;72254

       (2) Notice provided under division (B) of section 4717.14 of 72255
the Revised Code that the board of embalmers and funeral directors 72256
proposes to refuse to grant or renew, or to suspend or revoke, a 72257
license to operate a crematory facility;72258

       (3) Notice provided under division (C) of section 4717.14 of 72259
the Revised Code that the board of embalmers and funeral directors 72260
has issued an order summarily suspending a license to operate a 72261
crematory facility;72262

       (4) Notice provided under division (B) of section 4717.15 of 72263
the Revised Code that the board of embalmers and funeral directors 72264
proposes to issue a notice of violation and order requiring 72265
payment of a forfeiture for any violation described in divisions 72266
(A)(9)(a) to (g) of section 4717.04 of the Revised Code alleged in 72267
connection with a crematory facility or cremation.72268

       Nothing in division (E)(F) of this section precludes the 72269
crematory review board from appointing an independent examiner in 72270
accordance with section 119.09 of the Revised Code to conduct any 72271
adjudication hearing required under division (E)(F) of this 72272
section.72273

       The crematory review board shall submit a written report of 72274
findings and advisory recommendations, and a written transcript of 72275
its proceedings, to the board of embalmers and funeral directors. 72276
The board of embalmers and funeral directors shall serve a copy of 72277
the written report of the crematory review board's findings and 72278
advisory recommendations on the party to the adjudication or the 72279
party's attorney, by certified mail, within five days after 72280
receiving the report and advisory recommendations. A party may 72281
file objections to the written report with the board of embalmers 72282
and funeral directors within ten days after receiving the report. 72283
No written report is final or appealable until it is issued as a 72284
final order by the board of embalmers and funeral directors and 72285
entered on the record of the proceedings. The board of embalmers 72286
and funeral directors shall consider objections filed by the party 72287
prior to issuing a final order. After reviewing the findings and 72288
advisory recommendations of the crematory review board, the 72289
written transcript of the crematory review board's proceedings, 72290
and any objections filed by a party, the board of embalmers and 72291
funeral directors shall issue a final order in the matter. Any 72292
party may appeal the final order issued by the board of embalmers 72293
and funeral directors in a matter described in divisions (E)(F)(1) 72294
to (4) of this section in accordance with section 119.12 of the 72295
Revised Code, except that the appeal may be made to the court of 72296
common pleas in the county in which is located the crematory 72297
facility to which the final order pertains, or in the county in 72298
which the party resides.72299

       (F)(G) On its own initiative or on receiving a written 72300
complaint from any person whose identity is made known to the 72301
board of embalmers and funeral directors, the board shall 72302
investigate the acts or practices of any person holding or 72303
claiming to hold a license or registration under this chapter 72304
that, if proven to have occurred, would violate this chapter or 72305
any rules adopted under it. The board may compel witnesses by 72306
subpoena to appear and testify in relation to investigations 72307
conducted under this chapter and may require by subpoena duces 72308
tecum the production of any book, paper, or document pertaining to 72309
an investigation. If a person does not comply with a subpoena or 72310
subpoena duces tecum, the board may apply to the court of common 72311
pleas of any county in this state for an order compelling the 72312
person to comply with the subpoena or subpoena duces tecum, or for 72313
failure to do so, to be held in contempt of court.72314

       (G)(H) If, as a result of its investigation conducted under 72315
division (F)(G) of this section, the board of embalmers and 72316
funeral directors has reasonable cause to believe that the person 72317
investigated is violating any provision of this chapter or any 72318
rules adopted under this chapter governing or in connection with 72319
embalming, funeral directing, funeral homes, embalming facilities, 72320
or the operation of funeral homes or embalming facilities, it may, 72321
after providing the opportunity for an adjudicatory hearing, issue 72322
an order directing the person to cease the acts or practices that 72323
constitute the violation. The board shall conduct the adjudicatory 72324
hearing in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code except 72325
that, notwithstanding the provisions of that chapter, the 72326
following shall apply:72327

       (1) The board shall send the notice informing the person of 72328
the person's right to a hearing by certified mail.72329

       (2) The person is entitled to a hearing only if the person 72330
requests a hearing and if the board receives the request within 72331
thirty days after the mailing of the notice described in division 72332
(G)(H)(1) of this section.72333

       (3) A stenographic record shall be taken, in the manner 72334
prescribed in section 119.09 of the Revised Code, at every 72335
adjudicatory hearing held under this section, regardless of 72336
whether the record may be the basis of an appeal to a court.72337

       (H)(I) If, as a result of its investigation conducted under 72338
division (F)(G) of this section, the board of embalmers and 72339
funeral directors has reasonable cause to believe that the person 72340
investigated is violating any provision of this chapter or any 72341
rules adopted under this chapter governing or in connection with 72342
crematory facilities or cremation, the board shall send written 72343
notice of the alleged violation to the crematory review board. If, 72344
after the conclusion of the adjudicatory hearing in the matter 72345
conducted under division (E)(F) of this section, the board of 72346
embalmers and funeral directors finds that a person is in 72347
violation of any provision of this chapter or any rules adopted 72348
under this chapter governing or in connection with crematory 72349
facilities or cremation, the board may issue a final order under 72350
that division directing the person to cease the acts or practices 72351
that constitute the violation.72352

       (I)(J) The board of embalmers and funeral directors may bring 72353
a civil action to enjoin any violation or threatened violation of 72354
sections 4717.01 to 4717.15 of the Revised Code or a rule adopted 72355
under any of those sections; division (A) or (B) of section 72356
4717.23; division (B)(1) or (2), (C)(1) or (2), (D), (E), or 72357
(F)(1) or (2), or divisions (H) to (K) of section 4717.26; 72358
division (D)(1) of section 4717.27; divisions (A) to (C) of 72359
section 4717.28, or division (D) or (E) of section 4717.31 of the 72360
Revised Code. The action shall be brought in the county where the 72361
violation occurred or the threatened violation is expected to 72362
occur. At the request of the board, the attorney general shall 72363
represent the board in any matter arising under this chapter.72364

       (J)(K) The board of embalmers and funeral directors and the 72365
crematory review board may issue subpoenas for funeral directors 72366
and embalmers or persons holding themselves out as such, for 72367
operators of crematory facilities or persons holding themselves 72368
out as such, or for any other person whose testimony, in the 72369
opinion of either board, is necessary. The subpoena shall require 72370
the person to appear before the appropriate board or any 72371
designated member of either board, upon any hearing conducted 72372
under this chapter. The penalty for disobedience to the command of 72373
such a subpoena is the same as for refusal to answer such a 72374
process issued under authority of the court of common pleas.72375

       (K)(L) All moneys received by the board of embalmers and 72376
funeral directors from any source shall be deposited in the state 72377
treasury to the credit of the occupational licensing and 72378
regulatory fund created in section 4743.05 of the Revised Code.72379

       (L)(M) The board of embalmers and funeral directors shall 72380
submit a written report to the governor on or before the first 72381
Monday of July of each year. This report shall contain a detailed 72382
statement of the nature and amount of the board's receipts and the 72383
amount and manner of its expenditures.72384

       Sec. 4717.06.  (A)(1) Any person who desires to obtain a 72385
license to operate a funeral home, embalming facility, or 72386
crematory facility shall apply to the board of embalmers and 72387
funeral directors on a form provided by the board. The application 72388
shall include the initial license fee set forth in section 4717.07 72389
of the Revised Code and proof satisfactory to the board that the 72390
funeral home, embalming facility, or crematory facility is in 72391
compliance with rules adopted by the board under section 4717.04 72392
of the Revised Code, rules adopted by the board of building 72393
standards under Chapter 3781. of the Revised Code, and all other 72394
federal, state, and local requirements relating to the safety of 72395
the premises.72396

       (2) If the funeral home, embalming facility, or crematory 72397
facility to which the license application pertains is owned by a 72398
corporation or limited liability company, the application shall 72399
include the name and address of the corporation's or limited 72400
liability company's statutory agent appointed under section 72401
1701.07 or 1705.06 of the Revised Code or, in the case of a 72402
foreign corporation, the corporation's designated agent appointed 72403
under section 1703.041 of the Revised Code. If the funeral home, 72404
embalming facility, or crematory facility to which the application 72405
pertains is owned by a partnership, the application shall include 72406
the name and address of each of the partners. If, at any time 72407
after the submission of a license application or issuance of a 72408
license, the statutory or designated agent of a corporation or 72409
limited liability company owning a funeral home, embalming 72410
facility, or crematory facility or the address of the statutory or 72411
designated agent changes or, in the case of a partnership, any of 72412
the partners of the funeral home, embalming facility, or crematory 72413
facility or the address of any of the partners changes, the 72414
applicant for or holder of the license to operate the funeral 72415
home, embalming facility, or crematory facility shall submit 72416
written notice to the board, within thirty days after the change, 72417
informing the board of the change and of any name or address of a 72418
statutory or designated agent or partner that has changed from 72419
that contained in the application for the license or the most 72420
recent notice submitted under division (A)(2) of this section.72421

       (B)(1) The board shall issue a license to operate a funeral 72422
home only for the address at which the funeral home is operated. 72423
The funeral home license and licenses of the embalmers and funeral 72424
directors employed by the funeral home shall be displayed in a 72425
conspicuous place within the funeral home.72426

       (2) The funeral home shall have on the premises one of the 72427
following:72428

       (a) If embalming will take place at the funeral home, an 72429
embalming room that is adequately equipped and maintained. The 72430
embalming room shall be kept in a clean and sanitary manner and 72431
used only for the embalming, preparation, or holding of dead human 72432
bodies. The embalming room shall contain only the articles, 72433
facilities, and instruments necessary for those purposes.72434

       (b) If embalming will not take place at the funeral home, a 72435
holding room that is adequately equipped and maintained. The 72436
holding room shall be kept in a clean and sanitary manner and used 72437
only for the preparation, other than embalming, and holding of 72438
dead human bodies. The holding room shall contain only the 72439
articles and facilities necessary for those purposes.72440

       (3) Except as provided in division (B) of section 4717.11 of 72441
the Revised Code, a funeral home shall be established and operated 72442
only under the name of a holder of a funeral director's license 72443
issued by the board who is actually in charge of and ultimately 72444
responsible for the funeral home, and a funeral home license shall 72445
not include directional or geographical references in the name of 72446
the funeral home. The holder of the funeral home license shall be 72447
a funeral director licensed under this chapter who is actually in 72448
charge of and ultimately responsible for the funeral home. Nothing 72449
in division (B)(3) of this section prohibits the holder of a 72450
funeral home license from including directional or geographical 72451
references in promotional or advertising materials identifying the 72452
location of the funeral home.72453

       (4) Each funeral home shall be directly supervised by a 72454
funeral director licensed under this chapter, who shallmay72455
supervise onlymore than one funeral home.72456

       (C)(1) The board shall issue a license to operate an 72457
embalming facility only for the address at which the embalming 72458
facility is operated. The license shall be displayed in a 72459
conspicuous place within the facility.72460

       (2) The embalming facility shall be adequately equipped and 72461
maintained in a sanitary manner. The embalming room at such a 72462
facility shall contain only the articles, facilities, and 72463
instruments necessary for its stated purpose. The embalming room 72464
shall be kept in a clean and sanitary condition and used only for 72465
the care and preparation of dead human bodies.72466

       (3) An embalming facility license shall be issued only to an 72467
embalmer licensed under division (B) of section 4717.05 of the 72468
Revised Code, who is actually in charge of the facility.72469

       (D)(1) The board shall issue a license to operate a crematory 72470
facility only for the address at which the crematory facility is 72471
located and operated. The license shall be displayed in a 72472
conspicuous place within the crematory facility.72473

       (2) The crematory facility shall be adequately equipped and 72474
maintained in a clean and sanitary manner. The crematory facility 72475
may be located in a funeral home, embalming facility, cemetery 72476
building, or other building in which the crematory facility may 72477
lawfully operate. If a crematory facility engages in the cremation 72478
of animals, the crematory facility shall cremate animals in a 72479
cremation chamber that also is not used to cremate dead human 72480
bodies or human body parts and shall not cremate animals in a 72481
cremation chamber used for the cremation of dead human bodies and 72482
human body parts. Cremation chambers that are used for the 72483
cremation of dead human bodies or human body parts and cremation 72484
chambers used for the cremation of animals may be located in the 72485
same area. 72486

       (3) A license to operate a crematory facility shall be issued 72487
to the person actually in charge of the crematory facility. This 72488
section does not require the individual who is actually in charge 72489
of the crematory facility to be an embalmer or funeral director 72490
licensed under this chapter.72491

       (4) Nothing in this section or rules adopted under section 72492
4717.04 of the Revised Code precludes the establishment and 72493
operation of a crematory facility on or adjacent to the property 72494
on which a cemetery, funeral home, or embalming facility is 72495
located.72496

       Sec. 4717.07.  (A) The board of embalmers and funeral 72497
directors shall charge and collect the following fees:72498

       (1) For the initial issuance or biennial renewal of an 72499
embalmer's or funeral director's license, one hundred fortyfifty72500
dollars;72501

       (2) For the issuance of an embalmer or funeral director 72502
registration, twenty-five dollars;72503

       (3) For filing an embalmer or funeral director certificate of 72504
apprenticeship, ten dollars;72505

       (4) For the application to take the examination for a license 72506
to practice as an embalmer or funeral director, or to retake a 72507
section of the examination, thirty-five dollars;72508

       (5) For the initial issuance of a license to operate a 72509
funeral home, twothree hundred fifty dollars and biennial renewal 72510
of a license to operate a funeral home, twothree hundred fifty 72511
dollars;72512

       (6) For the reinstatement of a lapsed embalmer's or funeral 72513
director's license, the renewal fee prescribed in division (A)(1) 72514
of this section plus fifty dollars for each month or portion of a 72515
month the license is lapsed until reinstatement, but not more than 72516
one thousand dollars;72517

       (7) For the reinstatement of a lapsed license to operate a 72518
funeral home, the renewal fee prescribed in division (A)(5) of 72519
this section plus fifty dollars for each month or portion of a 72520
month the license is lapsed until reinstatement;72521

       (8) For the initial issuance of a license to operate an 72522
embalming facility, twothree hundred fifty dollars and biennial 72523
renewal of a license to operate an embalming facility, twothree72524
hundred fifty dollars;72525

       (9) For the reinstatement of a lapsed license to operate an 72526
embalming facility, the renewal fee prescribed in division (A)(8) 72527
of this section plus fifty dollars for each month or portion of a 72528
month the license is lapsed until reinstatement;72529

       (10) For the initial issuance of a license to operate a 72530
crematory facility, twothree hundred fifty dollars and biennial 72531
renewal of a license to operate a crematory facility, twothree72532
hundred fifty dollars;72533

       (11) For the reinstatement of a lapsed license to operate a 72534
crematory facility, the renewal fee prescribed in division (A)(10) 72535
of this section plus fifty dollars for each month or portion of a 72536
month the license is lapsed until reinstatement;72537

       (12) For the issuance of a duplicate of a license issued 72538
under this chapter, fourten dollars.72539

       (B) In addition to the fees set forth in division (A) of this 72540
section, an applicant shall pay the examination fee assessed by 72541
any examining agency the board uses for any section of an 72542
examination required under this chapter.72543

       (C) Subject to the approval of the controlling board, the 72544
board of embalmers and funeral directors may establish fees in 72545
excess of the amounts set forth in this section, provided that 72546
these fees do not exceed the amounts set forth in this section by 72547
more than fifty per cent.72548

       Sec. 4717.10.  (A) The board of embalmers and funeral 72549
directors may recognize licenses issued to embalmers and funeral 72550
directors by other states, and upon presentation of such licenses, 72551
may issue to the holder an embalmer's or funeral director's 72552
license under this chapter. The board shall charge the same fee as 72553
prescribed in section 4717.07 of the Revised Code to issue or 72554
renew such an embalmer's or funeral director's license. Such 72555
licenses shall be renewed annuallybiennially as provided in 72556
section 4717.08 of the Revised Code. The board shall not issue a 72557
license to any person under this section unless the applicant 72558
proves that the applicant, in the state in which the applicant is 72559
licensed, has complied with requirements substantially equal to 72560
those established in section 4717.05 of the Revised Code.72561

       (B) The board of embalmers and funeral directors may issue 72562
courtesy cards. A courtesy cardholder shall be authorized to 72563
undertake both the following acts in this state:72564

       (1) Prepare and complete those sections of a death 72565
certificate and other permits needed for disposition of deceased 72566
human remains in this state and sign and file such death 72567
certificates and permits;72568

       (2) Supervise and conduct funeral ceremonies and interments 72569
in this state.72570

       (C) The board of embalmers and funeral directors may 72571
determine under what conditions a courtesy card may be issued to 72572
funeral directors in bordering states after taking into account 72573
whether and under what conditions and fees such border states 72574
issue similar courtesy cards to funeral directors licensed in this 72575
state. Applicants for courtesy cards shall apply on forms 72576
prescribed by the board, pay an annuala biennial fee set by the 72577
board for initial applications and renewals, and adhere to such 72578
other requirements imposed by the board on courtesy cardholders.72579

       (D) No courtesy cardholder shall be authorized to undertake 72580
any of the following activities in this state:72581

       (1) Arranging funerals or disposition services with members 72582
of the public in this state;72583

       (2) Be employed by or under contract to a funeral home 72584
licensed in this state to perform funeral services in this state;72585

       (3) Advertise funeral or disposition services in this state;72586

       (4) Enter into or execute funeral or disposition contracts in 72587
this state;72588

       (5) Prepare or embalm deceased human remains in this state;72589

       (6) Arrange for or carry out the disinterment of human 72590
remains in this state.72591

       (E) As used in this section, "courtesy card" means a special 72592
permit that may be issued to a funeral director licensed in a 72593
state that borders this state and who does not hold a funeral 72594
director's license under this chapter.72595

       Sec. 4717.14.  (A) The board of embalmers and funeral 72596
directors may refuse to grant or renew, or may suspend or revoke, 72597
any license issued under this chapter or may require the holder of 72598
a license to take corrective action courses for any of the 72599
following reasons:72600

       (1) The license was obtained by fraud or misrepresentation 72601
either in the application or in passing the examination.72602

       (2) The applicant or licensee has been convicted of or has 72603
pleaded guilty to a felony or of any crime involving moral 72604
turpitude.72605

       (3) The applicant or licensee has purposely violated any 72606
provision of sections 4717.01 to 4717.15 or a rule adopted under 72607
any of those sections; division (A) or (B) of section 4717.23; 72608
division (B)(1) or (2), (C)(1) or (2), (D), (E), or (F)(1) or (2), 72609
or divisions (H) to (K) of section 4717.26; division (D)(1) of 72610
section 4717.27; or divisions (A) to (C) of section 4717.28 of the 72611
Revised Code; any rule or order of the department of health or a 72612
board of health of a health district governing the disposition of 72613
dead human bodies; or any other rule or order applicable to the 72614
applicant or licensee.72615

       (4) The applicant or licensee has committed immoral or 72616
unprofessional conduct.72617

       (5) The applicant or licensee knowingly permitted an 72618
unlicensed person, other than a person serving an apprenticeship, 72619
to engage in the profession or business of embalming or funeral 72620
directing under the applicant's or licensee's supervision.72621

       (6) The applicant or licensee has been habitually 72622
intoxicated, or is addicted to the use of morphine, cocaine, or 72623
other habit-forming or illegal drugs.72624

       (7) The applicant or licensee has refused to promptly submit 72625
the custody of a dead human body upon the express order of the 72626
person legally entitled to the body.72627

       (8) The licensee loaned the licensee's own license, or the 72628
applicant or licensee borrowed or used the license of another 72629
person, or knowingly aided or abetted the granting of an improper 72630
license.72631

       (9) The applicant or licensee transferred a license to 72632
operate a funeral home, embalming facility, or crematory from one 72633
owner or operator to another, or from one location to another, 72634
without notifying the board.72635

       (10) The applicant or licensee misled the public by using 72636
false or deceptive advertising.72637

       (B)(1) The board of embalmers and funeral directors shall 72638
refuse to grant or renew, or shall suspend or revoke, an 72639
embalmer's, funeral director's, funeral home, or embalming 72640
facility license only in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 72641
Revised Code.72642

       (2) The board shall send to the crematory review board 72643
written notice that it proposes to refuse to issue or renew, or 72644
proposes to suspend or revoke, a license to operate a crematory 72645
facility. If, after the conclusion of the adjudicatory hearing on 72646
the matter conducted under division (E)(F) of section 4717.03 of 72647
the Revised Code, the board of embalmers and funeral directors 72648
finds that any of the circumstances described in divisions (A)(1) 72649
to (10) of this section apply to the person named in its proposed 72650
action, the board may issue a final order under division (E)(F) of 72651
section 4717.03 of the Revised Code refusing to issue or renew, or 72652
suspending or revoking, the person's license to operate a 72653
crematory facility.72654

       (C) If the board of embalmers and funeral directors 72655
determines that there is clear and convincing evidence that any of 72656
the circumstances described in divisions (A)(1) to (10) of this 72657
section apply to the holder of a license issued under this chapter 72658
and that the licensee's continued practice presents a danger of 72659
immediate and serious harm to the public, the board may suspend 72660
the licensee's license without a prior adjudicatory hearing. The 72661
executive director of the board shall prepare written allegations 72662
for consideration by the board.72663

       The board, after reviewing the written allegations, may 72664
suspend a license without a prior hearing.72665

       The board shall issue a written order of suspension by a 72666
delivery system or in person in accordance with section 119.07 of 72667
the Revised Code. Such an order is not subject to suspension by 72668
the court during the pendency of any appeal filed under section 72669
119.12 of the Revised Code. If the holder of an embalmer's, 72670
funeral director's, funeral home, or embalming facility license 72671
requests an adjudicatory hearing by the board, the date set for 72672
the hearing shall be within fifteen days, but not earlier than 72673
seven days, after the licensee has requested a hearing, unless the 72674
board and the licensee agree to a different time for holding the 72675
hearing.72676

       Upon issuing a written order of suspension to the holder of a 72677
license to operate a crematory facility, the board of embalmers 72678
and funeral directors shall send written notice of the issuance of 72679
the order to the crematory review board. The crematory review 72680
board shall hold an adjudicatory hearing on the order under 72681
division (E)(F) of section 4717.03 of the Revised Code within 72682
fifteen days, but not earlier than seven days, after the issuance 72683
of the order, unless the crematory review board and the licensee 72684
agree to a different time for holding the adjudicatory hearing.72685

       Any summary suspension imposed under this division shall 72686
remain in effect, unless reversed on appeal, until a final 72687
adjudicatory order issued by the board of embalmers and funeral 72688
directors pursuant to this division and Chapter 119. of the 72689
Revised Code, or division (E)(F) of section 4717.03 of the Revised 72690
Code, as applicable, becomes effective. The board of embalmers and 72691
funeral directors shall issue its final adjudicatory order within 72692
sixty days after the completion of its hearing or, in the case of 72693
the summary suspension of a license to operate a crematory 72694
facility, within sixty days after completion of the adjudicatory 72695
hearing by the crematory review board. A failure to issue the 72696
order within that time results in the dissolution of the summary 72697
suspension order, but does not invalidate any subsequent final 72698
adjudicatory order.72699

       (D) If the board of embalmers and funeral directors suspends 72700
or revokes a license held by a funeral director or a funeral home 72701
for any reason identified in division (A) of this section, the 72702
board may file a complaint with the court of common pleas in the 72703
county where the violation occurred requesting appointment of a 72704
receiver and the sequestration of the assets of the funeral home 72705
that held the suspended or revoked license or the licensed funeral 72706
home that employs the funeral director that held the suspended or 72707
revoked license. If the court of common pleas is satisfied with 72708
the application for a receivership, the court may appoint a 72709
receiver.72710

       The board or a receiver may employ and procure whatever 72711
assistance or advice is necessary in the receivership or 72712
liquidation and distribution of the assets of the funeral home, 72713
and, for that purpose, may retain officers or employees of the 72714
funeral home as needed. All expenses of the receivership or 72715
liquidation shall be paid from the assets of the funeral home and 72716
shall be a lien on those assets, and that lien shall be a priority 72717
to any other lien.72718

       (E) Any holder of a license issued under this chapter who has 72719
pleaded guilty to, has been found by a judge or jury to be guilty 72720
of, or has had a judicial finding of eligibility for treatment in 72721
lieu of conviction entered against the individual in this state 72722
for aggravated murder, murder, voluntary manslaughter, felonious 72723
assault, kidnapping, rape, sexual battery, gross sexual 72724
imposition, aggravated arson, aggravated robbery, or aggravated 72725
burglary, or who has pleaded guilty to, has been found by a judge 72726
or jury to be guilty of, or has had a judicial finding of 72727
eligibility for treatment in lieu of conviction entered against 72728
the individual in another jurisdiction for any substantially 72729
equivalent criminal offense, is hereby suspended from practice 72730
under this chapter by operation of law, and any license issued to 72731
the individual under this chapter is hereby suspended by operation 72732
of law as of the date of the guilty plea, verdict or finding of 72733
guilt, or judicial finding of eligibility for treatment in lieu of 72734
conviction, regardless of whether the proceedings are brought in 72735
this state or another jurisdiction. The board shall notify the 72736
suspended individual of the suspension of the individual's license 72737
by the operation of this division by a delivery system or in 72738
person in accordance with section 119.07 of the Revised Code. If 72739
an individual whose license is suspended under this division fails 72740
to make a timely request for an adjudicatory hearing, the board 72741
shall enter a final order revoking the license.72742

       (F) No person whose license has been suspended or revoked 72743
under or by the operation of this section shall practice embalming 72744
or funeral directing or operate a funeral home, embalming 72745
facility, or crematory facility until the board has reinstated the 72746
person's license.72747

       Sec. 4717.15.  (A) The board of embalmers and funeral 72748
directors, without the necessity for conducting a prior 72749
adjudication hearing, may issue a notice of violation to the 72750
holder of an embalmer's, funeral director's, funeral home, or 72751
embalming facility license issued under this chapter who the board 72752
finds has committed any of the violations described in divisions 72753
(A)(9)(a) to (g) of section 4717.04 of the Revised Code. The 72754
notice shall set forth the specific violation committed by the 72755
licensee and shall be sent by certified mail. The notice shall be 72756
accompanied by an order requiring the payment of the appropriate 72757
forfeiture prescribed in rules adopted under division (A)(9) of 72758
section 4717.04 of the Revised Code and by a notice informing the 72759
licensee that the licensee is entitled to an adjudicatory hearing 72760
on the notice of violation and order if the licensee requests a 72761
hearing and if the board receives the request within thirty days 72762
after the mailing of the notice of violation and order. The board 72763
shall conduct any such adjudicatory hearing in accordance with 72764
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, except as otherwise provided in 72765
this division.72766

       A licensee who receives a notice of violation and order under 72767
this division shall pay to the executive director of the board the 72768
full amount of the forfeiture by certified check within thirty 72769
days after the notice of violation and order were mailed to the 72770
licensee unless, within that time, the licensee submits a request 72771
for an adjudicatory hearing on the notice of violation and order. 72772
If such a request for an adjudicatory hearing is timely filed, the 72773
licensee need not pay the forfeiture to the executive director 72774
until after a final, nonappealable administrative or judicial 72775
decision is rendered on the order requiring payment of the 72776
forfeiture. If a final nonappealable administrative or judicial 72777
decision is rendered affirming the board's order, the licensee 72778
shall pay to the executive director of the board the full amount 72779
of the forfeiture by certified check within thirty days after 72780
notice of the decision was sent to the licensee. A forfeiture is 72781
considered to be paid when the licensee's certified check is 72782
received by the executive director in Columbus. If the licensee 72783
fails to so pay the full amount of the forfeiture to the executive 72784
director within that time, the board shall issue an order 72785
suspending or revoking the individual's license, as the board 72786
considers appropriate.72787

       (B) The board shall send to the crematory review board 72788
written notice that it proposes to issue to the holder of a 72789
license to operate a crematory facility issued under this chapter 72790
a notice of violation and order requiring payment of a forfeiture 72791
specified in rules adopted under division (A)(9) of section 72792
4717.04 of the Revised Code. If, after the conclusion of the 72793
adjudicatory hearing on the matter conducted under division (E)(F)72794
of section 4717.03 of the Revised Code, the board of embalmers and 72795
funeral directors finds that the licensee has committed any of the 72796
violations described in divisions (A)(9)(a) to (g) of section 72797
4717.04 of the Revised Code in connection with the operation of a 72798
crematory facility or cremation, the board of embalmers and 72799
funeral directors may issue a final order under division (E)(F) of 72800
section 4717.03 of the Revised Code requiring payment of the 72801
appropriate forfeiture specified in rules adopted under division 72802
(A)(9) of section 4717.04 of the Revised Code. A licensee who 72803
receives such an order shall pay the full amount of the forfeiture 72804
to the executive director by certified check within thirty days 72805
after the order was sent to the licensee unless, within that time, 72806
the licensee files a notice of appeal in accordance with division72807
(E)(F) of section 4717.03 and section 119.12 of the Revised Code. 72808
If such a notice of appeal is timely filed, the licensee need not 72809
pay the forfeiture to the executive director until after a final, 72810
nonappealable judicial decision is rendered in the appeal. If a 72811
final, nonappealable judicial decision is rendered affirming the 72812
board's order, the licensee shall pay to the executive director 72813
the full amount of the forfeiture by certified check within thirty 72814
days after notice of the decision was sent to the licensee. A 72815
forfeiture is considered paid when the licensee's certified check 72816
is received by the executive director in Columbus. If the licensee 72817
fails to so pay the full amount of the forfeiture to the executive 72818
director within that time, the board shall issue an order 72819
suspending or revoking the individual's license, as the board 72820
considers appropriate.72821

       Sec. 4719.01.  (A) As used in sections 4719.01 to 4719.18 of 72822
the Revised Code:72823

       (1) "Affiliate" means a business entity that is owned by, 72824
operated by, controlled by, or under common control with another 72825
business entity.72826

       (2) "Communication" means a written or oral notification or 72827
advertisement that meets both of the following criteria, as 72828
applicable:72829

       (a) The notification or advertisement is transmitted by or on 72830
behalf of the seller of goods or services and by or through any 72831
printed, audio, video, cinematic, telephonic, or electronic means.72832

       (b) In the case of a notification or advertisement other than 72833
by telephone, either of the following conditions is met:72834

       (i) The notification or advertisement is followed by a 72835
telephone call from a telephone solicitor or salesperson.72836

       (ii) The notification or advertisement invites a response by 72837
telephone, and, during the course of that response, a telephone 72838
solicitor or salesperson attempts to make or makes a sale of goods 72839
or services. As used in division (A)(2)(b)(ii) of this section, 72840
"invites a response by telephone" excludes the mere listing or 72841
inclusion of a telephone number in a notification or 72842
advertisement.72843

       (3) "Gift, award, or prize" means anything of value that is 72844
offered or purportedly offered, or given or purportedly given by 72845
chance, at no cost to the receiver and with no obligation to 72846
purchase goods or services. As used in this division, "chance" 72847
includes a situation in which a person is guaranteed to receive an 72848
item and, at the time of the offer or purported offer, the 72849
telephone solicitor does not identify the specific item that the 72850
person will receive.72851

       (4) "Goods or services" means any real property or any 72852
tangible or intangible personal property, or services of any kind 72853
provided or offered to a person. "Goods or services" includes, but 72854
is not limited to, advertising; labor performed for the benefit of 72855
a person; personal property intended to be attached to or 72856
installed in any real property, regardless of whether it is so 72857
attached or installed; timeshare estates or licenses; and extended 72858
service contracts.72859

       (5) "Purchaser" means a person that is solicited to become or 72860
does become financially obligated as a result of a telephone 72861
solicitation.72862

       (6) "Salesperson" means an individual who is employed, 72863
appointed, or authorized by a telephone solicitor to make 72864
telephone solicitations but does not mean any of the following:72865

       (a) An individual who comes within one of the exemptions in 72866
division (B) of this section;72867

       (b) An individual employed, appointed, or authorized by a 72868
person who comes within one of the exemptions in division (B) of 72869
this section;72870

       (c) An individual under a written contract with a person who 72871
comes within one of the exemptions in division (B) of this 72872
section, if liability for all transactions with purchasers is 72873
assumed by the person so exempted.72874

       (7) "Telephone solicitation" means a communication to a 72875
person that meets both of the following criteria:72876

       (a) The communication is initiated by or on behalf of a 72877
telephone solicitor or by a salesperson.72878

       (b) The communication either represents a price or the 72879
quality or availability of goods or services or is used to induce 72880
the person to purchase goods or services, including, but not 72881
limited to, inducement through the offering of a gift, award, or 72882
prize.72883

       (8) "Telephone solicitor" means a person that engages in 72884
telephone solicitation directly or through one or more 72885
salespersons either from a location in this state, or from a 72886
location outside this state to persons in this state. "Telephone 72887
solicitor" includes, but is not limited to, any such person that 72888
is an owner, operator, officer, or director of, partner in, or 72889
other individual engaged in the management activities of, a 72890
business.72891

       (B) A telephone solicitor is exempt from the provisions of 72892
sections 4719.02 to 4719.18 and section 4719.99 of the Revised 72893
Code if the telephone solicitor is any one of the following:72894

       (1) A person engaging in a telephone solicitation that is a 72895
one-time or infrequent transaction not done in the course of a 72896
pattern of repeated transactions of a like nature;72897

       (2) A person engaged in telephone solicitation solely for 72898
religious or political purposes; a charitable organization, 72899
fund-raising counsel, or professional solicitor in compliance with 72900
the registration and reporting requirements of Chapter 1716. of 72901
the Revised Code; or any person or other entity exempt under 72902
section 1716.03 of the Revised Code from filing a registration 72903
statement under section 1716.02 of the Revised Code;72904

       (3) A person, making a telephone solicitation involving a 72905
home solicitation sale as defined in section 1345.21 of the 72906
Revised Code, that makes the sales presentation and completes the 72907
sale at a later, face-to-face meeting between the seller and the 72908
purchaser rather than during the telephone solicitation. However, 72909
if the person, following the telephone solicitation, causes 72910
another person to collect the payment of any money, this exemption 72911
does not apply.72912

       (4) A licensed securities, commodities, or investment broker, 72913
dealer, investment advisor, or associated person when making a 72914
telephone solicitation within the scope of the person's license. 72915
As used in division (B)(4) of this section, "licensed securities, 72916
commodities, or investment broker, dealer, investment advisor, or 72917
associated person" means a person subject to licensure or 72918
registration as such by the securities and exchange commission; 72919
the National Association of Securities Dealers or other 72920
self-regulatory organization, as defined by 15 U.S.C.A. 78c; by 72921
the division of securities under Chapter 1707. of the Revised 72922
Code; or by an official or agency of any other state of the United 72923
States.72924

       (5)(a) A person primarily engaged in soliciting the sale of a 72925
newspaper of general circulation;72926

       (b) As used in division (B)(5)(a) of this section, "newspaper 72927
of general circulation" includes, but is not limited to, both of 72928
the following:72929

       (i) A newspaper that is a daily law journal designated as an 72930
official publisher of court calendars pursuant to section 2701.09 72931
of the Revised Code;72932

       (ii) A newspaper or publication that has at least twenty-five 72933
per cent editorial, non-advertising content, exclusive of inserts, 72934
measured relative to total publication space, and an audited 72935
circulation to at least fifty per cent of the households in the 72936
newspaper's retail trade zone as defined by the audit.72937

       (6)(a) An issuer, or its subsidiary, that has a class of 72938
securities to which all of the following apply:72939

       (i) The class of securities is subject to section 12 of the 72940
"Securities Exchange Act of 1934," 15 U.S.C.A. 78l, and is 72941
registered or is exempt from registration under 15 U.S.C.A. 72942
78l(g)(2)(A), (B), (C), (E), (F), (G), or (H);72943

       (ii) The class of securities is listed on the New York stock 72944
exchange, the American stock exchange, or the NASDAQ national 72945
market system;72946

       (iii) The class of securities is a reported security as 72947
defined in 17 C.F.R. 240.11Aa3-1(a)(4).72948

       (b) An issuer, or its subsidiary, that formerly had a class 72949
of securities that met the criteria set forth in division 72950
(B)(6)(a) of this section if the issuer, or its subsidiary, has a 72951
net worth in excess of one hundred million dollars, files or its 72952
parent files with the securities and exchange commission an S.E.C. 72953
form 10-K, and has continued in substantially the same business 72954
since it had a class of securities that met the criteria in 72955
division (B)(6)(a) of this section. As used in division (B)(6)(b) 72956
of this section, "issuer" and "subsidiary" include the successor 72957
to an issuer or subsidiary.72958

       (7) A person soliciting a transaction regulated by the 72959
commodity futures trading commission, if the person is registered 72960
or temporarily registered for that activity with the commission 72961
under 7 U.S.C.A. 1 et. seq. and the registration or temporary 72962
registration has not expired or been suspended or revoked;72963

       (8) A person soliciting the sale of any book, record, audio 72964
tape, compact disc, or video, if the person allows the purchaser 72965
to review the merchandise for at least seven days and provides a 72966
full refund within thirty days to a purchaser who returns the 72967
merchandise or if the person solicits the sale on behalf of a 72968
membership club operating in compliance with regulations adopted 72969
by the federal trade commission in 16 C.F.R. 425;72970

       (9) A supervised financial institution or its subsidiary. As 72971
used in division (B)(9) of this section, "supervised financial 72972
institution" means a bank, trust company, savings and loan 72973
association, savings bank, credit union, industrial loan company, 72974
consumer finance lender, commercial finance lender, or institution 72975
described in section 2(c)(2)(F) of the "Bank Holding Company Act 72976
of 1956," 12 U.S.C.A. 1841(c)(2)(F), as amended, supervised by an 72977
official or agency of the United States, this state, or any other 72978
state of the United States; or a licensee or registrant under 72979
sections 1321.01 to 1321.19, 1321.51 to 1321.60, or 1321.71 to 72980
1321.83 of the Revised Code.72981

       (10)(a) An insurance company, association, or other 72982
organization that is licensed or authorized to conduct business in 72983
this state by the superintendent of insurance pursuant to Title 72984
XXXIX of the Revised Code or Chapter 1751. of the Revised Code, 72985
when soliciting within the scope of its license or authorization.72986

       (b) A licensed insurance broker, agent, or solicitor when 72987
soliciting within the scope of the person's license. As used in 72988
division (B)(10)(b) of this section, "licensed insurance broker, 72989
agent, or solicitor" means any person licensed as an insurance 72990
broker, agent, or solicitor by the superintendent of insurance 72991
pursuant to Title XXXIX of the Revised Code.72992

       (11) A person soliciting the sale of services provided by a 72993
cable television system operating under authority of a 72994
governmental franchise or permit;72995

       (12) A person soliciting a business-to-business sale under 72996
which any of the following conditions are met:72997

       (a) The telephone solicitor has been operating continuously 72998
for at least three years under the same business name under which 72999
it solicits purchasers, and at least fifty-one per cent of its 73000
gross dollar volume of sales consists of repeat sales to existing 73001
customers to whom it has made sales under the same business name.73002

       (b) The purchaser business intends to resell the goods 73003
purchased.73004

       (c) The purchaser business intends to use the goods or 73005
services purchased in a recycling, reuse, manufacturing, or 73006
remanufacturing process.73007

       (d) The telephone solicitor is a publisher of a periodical or 73008
of magazines distributed as controlled circulation publications as 73009
defined in division (CC) of section 5739.01 of the Revised Code 73010
and is soliciting sales of advertising, subscriptions, reprints, 73011
lists, information databases, conference participation or 73012
sponsorships, trade shows or media products related to the 73013
periodical or magazine, or other publishing services provided by 73014
the controlled circulation publication.73015

       (13) A person that, not less often than once each year, 73016
publishes and delivers to potential purchasers a catalog that 73017
complies with both of the following:73018

       (a) It includes all of the following:73019

       (i) The business address of the seller;73020

       (ii) A written description or illustration of each good or 73021
service offered for sale;73022

       (iii) A clear and conspicuous disclosure of the sale price of 73023
each good or service; shipping, handling, and other charges; and 73024
return policy.73025

       (b) One of the following applies:73026

       (i) The catalog includes at least twenty-four pages of 73027
written material and illustrations, is distributed in more than 73028
one state, and has an annual postage-paid mail circulation of not 73029
less than two hundred fifty thousand households;73030

       (ii) The catalog includes at least ten pages of written 73031
material or an equivalent amount of material in electronic form on 73032
the internet or an on-line computer service, the person does not 73033
solicit customers by telephone but solely receives telephone calls 73034
made in response to the catalog, and during the calls the person 73035
takes orders but does not engage in further solicitation of the 73036
purchaser. As used in division (B)(13)(b)(ii) of this section, 73037
"further solicitation" does not include providing the purchaser 73038
with information about, or attempting to sell, any other item in 73039
the catalog that prompted the purchaser's call or in a 73040
substantially similar catalog issued by the seller.73041

       (14) A political subdivision or instrumentality of the United 73042
States, this state, or any state of the United States;73043

       (15) A college or university or any other public or private 73044
institution of higher education in this state;73045

       (16) A public utility as defined in section 4905.02 of the 73046
Revised Code or a retail natural gas supplier as defined in 73047
section 4929.01 of the Revised Code, if the utility or supplier is 73048
subject to regulation by the public utilities commission, or the 73049
affiliate of the utility or supplier;73050

       (17) A person that solicits sales through a television 73051
program or advertisement that is presented in the same market area 73052
no fewer than twenty days per month or offers for sale no fewer 73053
than ten distinct items of goods or services; and offers to the 73054
purchaser an unconditional right to return any good or service 73055
purchased within a period of at least seven days and to receive a 73056
full refund within thirty days after the purchaser returns the 73057
good or cancels the service;73058

       (18)(a) A person that, for at least one year, has been 73059
operating a retail business under the same name as that used in 73060
connection with telephone solicitation and both of the following 73061
occur on a continuing basis:73062

       (i) The person either displays goods and offers them for 73063
retail sale at the person's business premises or offers services 73064
for sale and provides them at the person's business premises.73065

       (ii) At least fifty-one per cent of the person's gross dollar 73066
volume of retail sales involves purchases of goods or services at 73067
the person's business premises.73068

       (b) An affiliate of a person that meets the requirements in 73069
division (B)(18)(a) of this section if the affiliate meets all of 73070
the following requirements:73071

       (i) The affiliate has operated a retail business for a period 73072
of less than one year;73073

       (ii) The affiliate either displays goods and offers them for 73074
retail sale at the affiliate's business premises or offers 73075
services for sale and provides them at the affiliate's business 73076
premises;73077

       (iii) At least fifty-one per cent of the affiliate's gross 73078
dollar volume of retail sales involves purchases of goods or 73079
services at the affiliate's business premises.73080

       (c) A person that, for a period of less than one year, has 73081
been operating a retail business in this state under the same name 73082
as that used in connection with telephone solicitation, as long as 73083
all of the following requirements are met:73084

       (i) The person either displays goods and offers them for 73085
retail sale at the person's business premises or offers services 73086
for sale and provides them at the person's business premises;73087

       (ii) The goods or services that are the subject of telephone 73088
solicitation are sold at the person's business premises, and at 73089
least sixty-five per cent of the person's gross dollar volume of 73090
retail sales involves purchases of goods or services at the 73091
person's business premises;73092

       (iii) The person conducts all telephone solicitation 73093
activities according to sections 310.3, 310.4, and 310.5 of the 73094
telemarketing sales rule adopted by the federal trade commission 73095
in 16 C.F.R. part 310.73096

       (19) A person who performs telephone solicitation sales 73097
services on behalf of other persons and to whom one of the 73098
following applies:73099

       (a) The person has operated under the same ownership, 73100
control, and business name for at least five years, and the person 73101
receives at least seventy-five per cent of its gross revenues from 73102
written telephone solicitation contracts with persons who come 73103
within one of the exemptions in division (B) of this section.73104

       (b) The person is an affiliate of one or more exempt persons 73105
and makes telephone solicitations on behalf of only the exempt 73106
persons of which it is an affiliate.73107

       (c) The person makes telephone solicitations on behalf of 73108
only exempt persons, the person and each exempt person on whose 73109
behalf telephone solicitations are made have entered into a 73110
written contract that specifies the manner in which the telephone 73111
solicitations are to be conducted and that at a minimum requires 73112
compliance with the telemarketing sales rule adopted by the 73113
federal trade commission in 16 C.F.R. part 310, and the person 73114
conducts the telephone solicitations in the manner specified in 73115
the written contract.73116

       (d) The person performs telephone solicitation for religious 73117
or political purposes, a charitable organization, a fund-raising 73118
council, or a professional solicitor in compliance with the 73119
registration and reporting requirements of Chapter 1716. of the 73120
Revised Code; and meets all of the following requirements:73121

       (i) The person has operated under the same ownership, 73122
control, and business name for at least five years, and the person 73123
receives at least fifty-one per cent of its gross revenues from 73124
written telephone solicitation contracts with persons who come 73125
within the exemption in division (B)(2) of this section;73126

       (ii) The person does not conduct a prize promotion or offer 73127
the sale of an investment opportunity; 73128

       (iii) The person conducts all telephone solicitation 73129
activities according to sections 310.3, 310.4, and 310.5 of the 73130
telemarketing sales rules adopted by the federal trade commission 73131
in 16 C.F.R. part 310.73132

       (20) A person that is a licensed real estate salesperson or 73133
broker under Chapter 4735. of the Revised Code when soliciting 73134
within the scope of the person's license;73135

       (21)(a) Either of the following:73136

       (i) A publisher that solicits the sale of the publisher's 73137
periodical or magazine of general, paid circulation, or a person 73138
that solicits a sale of that nature on behalf of a publisher under 73139
a written agreement directly between the publisher and the person.73140

       (ii) A publisher that solicits the sale of the publisher's 73141
periodical or magazine of general, paid circulation, or a person 73142
that solicits a sale of that nature as authorized by a publisher 73143
under a written agreement directly with a publisher's 73144
clearinghouse provided the person is a resident of Ohio for more 73145
than three years and initiates all telephone solicitations from 73146
Ohio and the person conducts the solicitation and sale in 73147
compliance with 16 C.F.R. part 310, as adopted by the federal 73148
trade commission.73149

       (b) As used in division (B)(21) of this section, "periodical 73150
or magazine of general, paid circulation" excludes a periodical or 73151
magazine circulated only as part of a membership package or given 73152
as a free gift or prize from the publisher or person.73153

       (22) A person that solicits the sale of food, as defined in 73154
section 3715.01 of the Revised Code, or the sale of products of 73155
horticulture, as defined in section 5739.01 of the Revised Code, 73156
if the person does not intend the solicitation to result in, or 73157
the solicitation actually does not result in, a sale that costs 73158
the purchaser an amount greater than five hundred dollars.73159

       (23) A funeral director licensed pursuant to Chapter 4717. of 73160
the Revised Code when soliciting within the scope of that license, 73161
if both of the following apply:73162

       (a) The solicitation and sale are conducted in compliance 73163
with 16 C.F.R. part 453, as adopted by the federal trade 73164
commission, and with sections 1107.33 and 1345.21 to 1345.28 of 73165
the Revised Code;73166

       (b) The person provides to the purchaser of any preneed 73167
funeral contract a notice that clearly and conspicuously sets 73168
forth the cancellation rights specified in division (G) of section 73169
1107.33 of the Revised Code, and retains a copy of the notice 73170
signed by the purchaser.73171

       (24) A person, or affiliate thereof, licensed to sell or 73172
issue Ohio instruments designated as travelers checks pursuant to 73173
sections 1315.01 to 1315.18 of the Revised Code.73174

       (25) A person that solicits sales from its previous 73175
purchasers and meets all of the following requirements:73176

       (a) The solicitation is made under the same business name 73177
that was previously used to sell goods or services to the 73178
purchaser;73179

       (b) The person has, for a period of not less than three 73180
years, operated a business under the same business name as that 73181
used in connection with telephone solicitation;73182

       (c) The person does not conduct a prize promotion or offer 73183
the sale of an investment opportunity;73184

       (d) The person conducts all telephone solicitation activities 73185
according to sections 310.3, 310.4, and 310.5 of the telemarketing 73186
sales rules adopted by the federal trade commission in 16 C.F.R. 73187
part 310;73188

       (e) Neither the person nor any of its principals has been 73189
convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or has entered a plea of no 73190
contest for a felony or a theft offense as defined in sections 73191
2901.02 and 2913.01 of the Revised Code or similar law of another 73192
state or of the United States;73193

       (f) Neither the person nor any of its principals has had 73194
entered against them an injunction or a final judgment or order, 73195
including an agreed judgment or order, an assurance of voluntary 73196
compliance, or any similar instrument, in any civil or 73197
administrative action involving engaging in a pattern of corrupt 73198
practices, fraud, theft, embezzlement, fraudulent conversion, or 73199
misappropriation of property; the use of any untrue, deceptive, or 73200
misleading representation; or the use of any unfair, unlawful, 73201
deceptive, or unconscionable trade act or practice.73202

       (26) An institution defined as a home health agency in 73203
section 3701.881 of the Revised Code, that conducts all telephone 73204
solicitation activities according to sections 310.3, 310.4, and 73205
310.5 of the telemarketing sales rules adopted by the federal 73206
trade commission in 16 C.F.R. part 310, and engages in telephone 73207
solicitation only within the scope of the institution's 73208
certification, accreditation, contract with the department of 73209
aging, or status as a home health agency; and that meets one of 73210
the following requirements:73211

       (a) The institution is certified as a provider of home health 73212
services under Title XVIII of the Social Security Act, 49 Stat. 73213
620, 42 U.S.C. 301, as amended;73214

       (b) The institution is accredited by either the joint 73215
commission on accreditation of health care organizations or the 73216
community health accreditation program;73217

       (c) The institution is providing passportPASSPORT services 73218
under the direction of the Ohio department of aging under section 73219
173.40sections 173.52 to 173.523 of the Revised Code;73220

       (d) An affiliate of an institution that meets the 73221
requirements of division (B)(26)(a), (b), or (c) of this section 73222
when offering for sale substantially the same goods and services 73223
as those that are offered by the institution that meets the 73224
requirements of division (B)(26)(a), (b), or (c) of this section.73225

       (27) A person licensed by the department of health pursuant 73226
to section 3712.04 or 3712.041 of the Revised Code to provide a 73227
hospice care program or pediatric respite care program when 73228
conducting telephone solicitations within the scope of the 73229
person's license and according to sections 310.3, 310.4, and 310.5 73230
of the telemarketing sales rules adopted by the federal trade 73231
commission in 16 C.F.R. part 310.73232

       Sec. 4723.18.  (A) The board of nursing shall authorize a 73233
licensed practical nurse to administer to an adult intravenous 73234
therapy if the nurse supplies evidence satisfactory to the board 73235
that all of the following are the case:73236

       (1) The nurse holds a current, valid license issued under 73237
this chapter to practice nursing as a licensed practical nurse.73238

       (2) The nurse has been authorized under section 4723.18 of 73239
the Revised Code to administer medications.73240

        (3) The nurse successfully completed a course of study in the 73241
safe performance of intravenous therapy approved by the board 73242
pursuant to section 4723.19 of the Revised Code or by an agency in 73243
another jurisdiction that regulates the practice of nursing and 73244
has requirements for intravenous therapy course approval that are 73245
substantially similar to the requirements in division (B) of 73246
section 4723.19 of the Revised Code, as determined by the board.73247

       (4) The nurse has successfully completed a minimum of forty 73248
hours of training that includes all of the following:73249

       (a) The curriculum established by rules adopted by the board;73250

       (b) Training in the anatomy and physiology of the 73251
cardiovascular system, signs and symptoms of local and systemic 73252
complications in the administration of fluids and antibiotic 73253
additives, and guidelines for management of these complications;73254

       (c) Any other training or instruction the board considers 73255
appropriate;73256

       (d) A testing component that requires the nurse to perform a 73257
successful demonstration of the intravenous procedures, including 73258
all skills needed to perform them safely.73259

       (B) Except as provided in section 4723.181 of the Revised 73260
Code and subject to the restrictions in division (D) of this 73261
section, a licensed practical nurse may perform intravenous 73262
therapy on an adult patient only if authorized by the board 73263
pursuant to division (A) of this section and only at the direction 73264
of one of the following:73265

       (1) A licensed physician, dentist, optometrist, or podiatrist 73266
who, except as provided in division (C)(2) of this section, is 73267
present and readily available at the facility where the 73268
intravenous therapy procedure is performed;73269

       (2) A registered nurse in accordance with division (C) of 73270
this section.73271

       (C)(1) Except as provided in division (C)(2) of this section 73272
and section 4723.181 of the Revised Code, when a licensed 73273
practical nurse authorized by the board to perform intravenous 73274
therapy performs an intravenous therapy procedure at the direction 73275
of a registered nurse, the registered nurse or another registered 73276
nurse shall be readily available at the site where the intravenous 73277
therapy is performed, and before the licensed practical nurse 73278
initiates the intravenous therapy, the registered nurse shall 73279
personally perform an on-site assessment of the adult patient who 73280
is to receive the intravenous therapy.73281

       (2) When a licensed practical nurse authorized by the board 73282
to perform intravenous therapy performs an intravenous therapy 73283
procedure in a home as defined in section 3721.10 of the Revised 73284
Code, or in an intermediate care facility for the mentally 73285
retarded as defined in section 5111.205124.01 of the Revised 73286
Code, at the direction of a registered nurse or licensed 73287
physician, dentist, optometrist, or podiatrist, a registered nurse 73288
shall be on the premises of the home or facility or accessible by 73289
some form of telecommunication.73290

       (D) No licensed practical nurse shall perform any of the 73291
following intravenous therapy procedures:73292

       (1) Initiating or maintaining any of the following:73293

       (a) Blood or blood components;73294

       (b) Solutions for total parenteral nutrition;73295

       (c) Any cancer therapeutic medication including, but not 73296
limited to, cancer chemotherapy or an anti-neoplastic agent;73297

       (d) Solutions administered through any central venous line or 73298
arterial line or any other line that does not terminate in a 73299
peripheral vein, except that a licensed practical nurse authorized 73300
by the board to perform intravenous therapy may maintain the 73301
solutions specified in division (D)(6)(a) of this section that are 73302
being administered through a central venous line or peripherally 73303
inserted central catheter;73304

       (e) Any investigational or experimental medication.73305

       (2) Initiating intravenous therapy in any vein, except that a 73306
licensed practical nurse authorized by the board to perform 73307
intravenous therapy may initiate intravenous therapy in accordance 73308
with this section in a vein of the hand, forearm, or antecubital 73309
fossa;73310

       (3) Discontinuing a central venous, arterial, or any other 73311
line that does not terminate in a peripheral vein;73312

       (4) Initiating or discontinuing a peripherally inserted 73313
central catheter;73314

       (5) Mixing, preparing, or reconstituting any medication for 73315
intravenous therapy, except that a licensed practical nurse 73316
authorized by the board to perform intravenous therapy may prepare 73317
or reconstitute an antibiotic additive;73318

       (6) Administering medication via the intravenous route, 73319
including all of the following activities:73320

       (a) Adding medication to an intravenous solution or to an 73321
existing infusion, except that a licensed practical nurse 73322
authorized by the board to perform intravenous therapy may do any 73323
of the following:73324

       (i) Initiate an intravenous infusion containing one or more 73325
of the following elements: dextrose 5%, normal saline, lactated 73326
ringers, sodium chloride .45%, sodium chloride 0.2%, sterile 73327
water;73328

       (ii) Hang subsequent containers of the intravenous solutions 73329
specified in division (D)(6)(a)(i) of this section that contain 73330
vitamins or electrolytes, if a registered nurse initiated the 73331
infusion of that same intravenous solution;73332

       (iii) Initiate or maintain an intravenous infusion containing 73333
an antibiotic additive.73334

       (b) Injecting medication via a direct intravenous route, 73335
except that a licensed practical nurse authorized by the board to 73336
perform intravenous therapy may inject heparin or normal saline to 73337
flush an intermittent infusion device or heparin lock including, 73338
but not limited to, bolus or push.73339

       (7) Changing tubing on any line including, but not limited 73340
to, an arterial line or a central venous line, except that a 73341
licensed practical nurse authorized by the board to perform 73342
intravenous therapy may change tubing on an intravenous line that 73343
terminates in a peripheral vein;73344

       (8) Programming or setting any function of a patient 73345
controlled infusion pump.73346

       (E) Notwithstanding divisions (A) and (D) of this section, at 73347
the direction of a physician or a registered nurse, a licensed 73348
practical nurse authorized by the board to perform intravenous 73349
therapy may perform the following activities for the purpose of 73350
performing dialysis:73351

       (1) The routine administration and regulation of saline 73352
solution for the purpose of maintaining an established fluid plan;73353

       (2) The administration of a heparin dose intravenously;73354

       (3) The administration of a heparin dose peripherally via a 73355
fistula needle;73356

       (4) The loading and activation of a constant infusion pump;73357

       (5) The intermittent injection of a dose of medication that 73358
is administered via the hemodialysis blood circuit and through the 73359
patient's venous access.73360

       (F) No person shall employ or direct a licensed practical 73361
nurse to perform an intravenous therapy procedure without first 73362
verifying that the licensed practical nurse is authorized by the 73363
board to perform intravenous therapy.73364

       Sec. 4723.35.  (A) As used in this section, "chemical 73365
dependency" means either of the following:73366

       (1) The chronic and habitual use of alcoholic beverages to 73367
the extent that the user no longer can control the use of alcohol 73368
or endangers the user's health, safety, or welfare or that of 73369
others;73370

       (2) The use of a controlled substance as defined in section 73371
3719.01 of the Revised Code, a harmful intoxicant as defined in 73372
section 2925.01 of the Revised Code, or a dangerous drug as 73373
defined in section 4729.01 of the Revised Code, to the extent that 73374
the user becomes physically or psychologically dependent on the 73375
substance, intoxicant, or drug or endangers the user's health, 73376
safety, or welfare or that of others.73377

       (B) The board of nursing may abstain from taking disciplinary 73378
action under section 4723.28 or 4723.86 of the Revised Code 73379
against an individual with a chemical dependency if it finds that 73380
the individual can be treated effectively and there is no 73381
impairment of the individual's ability to practice according to 73382
acceptable and prevailing standards of safe care. The board shall 73383
establish a chemical dependency monitoring program to monitor the 73384
registered nurses, licensed practical nurses, dialysis 73385
technicians, and certified community health workers against whom 73386
the board has abstained from taking action. The board shall 73387
develop the program, select the program's name, and designate a 73388
coordinator to administer the program.73389

       (C) Determinations regarding an individual's eligibility for 73390
admission to, continued participation in, and successful 73391
completion of the monitoring program shall be made by the board's 73392
supervising member for disciplinary matters in accordance with 73393
rules adopted under division (D) of this section.73394

       (D) The board shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 73395
119. of the Revised Code that establish the following:73396

       (1) Eligibility requirements for admission to and continued 73397
participation in the monitoring program;73398

       (2) Terms and conditions that must be met to participate in 73399
and successfully complete the program;73400

       (3) Procedures for keeping confidential records regarding 73401
participants;73402

       (4) Any other requirements or procedures necessary to 73403
establish and administer the program.73404

       (E)(1) As a condition of being admitted to the monitoring 73405
program, an individual shall surrender to the program coordinator 73406
the license or certificate that the individual holds. While the 73407
surrender is in effect, the individual is prohibited from engaging 73408
in the practice of nursing, engaging in the provision of dialysis 73409
care, or engaging in the provision of services that were being 73410
provided as a certified community health worker.73411

       If the board's supervising member for disciplinary matters 73412
determines that a participant is capable of resuming practice 73413
according to acceptable and prevailing standards of safe care, the 73414
program coordinator shall return the participant's license or 73415
certificate. If the participant violates the terms and conditions 73416
of resumed practice, the coordinator shall require the participant 73417
to surrender the license or certificate as a condition of 73418
continued participation in the program. The coordinator may 73419
require the surrender only on the approval of the board's 73420
supervising member for disciplinary matters.73421

       The surrender of a license or certificate on admission to the 73422
monitoring program or while participating in the program does not 73423
constitute an action by the board under section 4723.28 or 4723.86 73424
of the Revised Code. The participant may rescind the surrender at 73425
any time and the board may proceed by taking action under section 73426
4723.28 or 4723.86 of the Revised Code.73427

       (2) If the program coordinator determines that a participant 73428
is significantly out of compliance with the terms and conditions 73429
for participation, the coordinator shall notify the board's 73430
supervising member for disciplinary matters and the supervising 73431
member shall determine whether to temporarily suspend the 73432
participant's license or certificate. The board shall notify the 73433
participant of the suspension by certified mail sent to the 73434
participant's last known address and shall refer the matter to the 73435
board for formal action under section 4723.28 or 4723.86 of the 73436
Revised Code.73437

       (F) All of the following apply with respect to the receipt, 73438
release, and maintenance of records and information by the 73439
monitoring program:73440

       (1) The program coordinator shall maintain all program 73441
records in the board's office, and for each participant, shall 73442
retain the records for a period of two years following the 73443
participant's date of successful completion of the program.73444

       (2) When applying to participate in the monitoring program, 73445
the applicant shall sign a waiver permitting the board to receive 73446
and release information necessary to determine whether the 73447
individual is eligible for admission. After being admitted, the 73448
participant shall sign a waiver permitting the board to receive 73449
and release information necessary to determine whether the 73450
individual is eligible for continued participation in the program. 73451
Information that may be necessary for the board's supervising 73452
member for disciplinary matters to determine eligibility for 73453
admission or continued participation in the monitoring program 73454
includes, but is not limited to, information provided to and by 73455
employers, probation officers, law enforcement agencies, peer 73456
assistance programs, health professionals, and treatment 73457
providers. No entity with knowledge that the information has been 73458
provided to the monitoring program shall divulge that knowledge to 73459
any other person.73460

       (3) Except as provided in division (F)(4) of this section, 73461
all records pertaining to an individual's application for or 73462
participation in the monitoring program, including medical 73463
records, treatment records, and mental health records, shall be 73464
confidential. The records are not public records for the purposes 73465
of section 149.43 of the Revised Code and are not subject to 73466
discovery by subpoena or admissible as evidence in any judicial 73467
proceeding.73468

       (4) The board may disclose information regarding a 73469
participant's progress in the program to any person or government 73470
entity that the participant authorizes in writing to be given the 73471
information. In disclosing information under this division, the 73472
board shall not include any information that is protected under 73473
section 3793.135119.27 of the Revised Code or any federal statute 73474
or regulation that provides for the confidentiality of medical, 73475
mental health, or substance abuse records.73476

       (G) In the absence of fraud or bad faith, the board as a 73477
whole, its individual members, and its employees and 73478
representatives are not liable for damages in any civil action as 73479
a result of disclosing information in accordance with division 73480
(F)(4) of this section. In the absence of fraud or bad faith, any 73481
person reporting to the program with regard to an individual's 73482
chemical dependence, or the progress or lack of progress of that 73483
individual with regard to treatment, is not liable for damages in 73484
any civil action as a result of the report.73485

       Sec. 4723.481.  This section establishes standards and 73486
conditions regarding the authority of a clinical nurse specialist, 73487
certified nurse-midwife, or certified nurse practitioner to 73488
prescribe drugs and therapeutic devices under a certificate to 73489
prescribe issued under section 4723.4814723.48 of the Revised 73490
Code.73491

       (A) A clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or 73492
certified nurse practitioner shall not prescribe any drug or 73493
therapeutic device that is not included in the types of drugs and 73494
devices listed on the formulary established in rules adopted under 73495
section 4723.50 of the Revised Code.73496

       (B) The prescriptive authority of a clinical nurse 73497
specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or certified nurse 73498
practitioner shall not exceed the prescriptive authority of the 73499
collaborating physician or podiatrist, including the collaborating 73500
physician's authority to treat chronic pain with controlled 73501
substances and products containing tramadol as described in 73502
section 4731.052 of the Revised Code.73503

       (C)(1) Except as provided in division (C)(2) or (3) of this 73504
section, a clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or 73505
certified nurse practitioner may prescribe to a patient a schedule 73506
II controlled substance only if all of the following are the case: 73507

       (a) The patient has a terminal condition, as defined in 73508
section 2133.01 of the Revised Code.73509

       (b) The collaborating physician of the clinical nurse 73510
specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or certified nurse 73511
practitioner initially prescribed the substance for the patient.73512

       (c) The prescription is for an amount that does not exceed 73513
the amount necessary for the patient's use in a single, 73514
twenty-four-hour period. 73515

       (2) The restrictions on prescriptive authority in division 73516
(C)(1) of this section do not apply if a clinical nurse 73517
specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or certified nurse 73518
practitioner issues the prescription to the patient from any of 73519
the following locations:73520

        (a) A hospital registered under section 3701.07 of the 73521
Revised Code;73522

       (b) An entity owned or controlled, in whole or in part, by a 73523
hospital or by an entity that owns or controls, in whole or in 73524
part, one or more hospitals;73525

        (c) A health care facility operated by the department of 73526
mental healthmental health and addiction services or the 73527
department of developmental disabilities;73528

        (d) A nursing home or residential care facility licensed 73529
under section 3721.02 of the Revised Code or by a political 73530
subdivision certified under section 3721.09 of the Revised Code;73531

       (e) A county home or district home operated under Chapter 73532
5155. of the Revised Code that is certified under the medicare or 73533
medicaid program;73534

        (f) A hospice care program, as defined in section 3712.01 of 73535
the Revised Code;73536

       (g) A community mental health agencyservices provider, as 73537
defined in section 5122.01 of the Revised Code;73538

        (h) An ambulatory surgical facility, as defined in section 73539
3702.30 of the Revised Code;73540

       (i) A freestanding birthing center, as defined in section 73541
3702.513702.141 of the Revised Code;73542

       (j) A federally qualified health center, as defined in 73543
section 3701.047 of the Revised Code;73544

       (k) A federally qualified health center look-alike, as 73545
defined in section 3701.047 of the Revised Code;73546

        (l) A health care office or facility operated by the board of 73547
health of a city or general health district or the authority 73548
having the duties of a board of health under section 3709.05 of 73549
the Revised Code;73550

       (m) A site where a medical practice is operated, but only if 73551
the practice is comprised of one or more physicians who also are 73552
owners of the practice; the practice is organized to provide 73553
direct patient care; and the clinical nurse specialist, certified 73554
nurse-midwife, or certified nurse practitioner providing services 73555
at the site has a standard care arrangement and collaborates with 73556
at least one of the physician owners who practices primarily at 73557
that site.73558

       (3) A clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or 73559
certified nurse practitioner shall not issue to a patient a 73560
prescription for a schedule II controlled substance from a 73561
convenience care clinic even if the clinic is owned or operated by 73562
an entity specified in division (C)(2) of this section.73563

       (D) A pharmacist who acts in good faith reliance on a 73564
prescription issued by a clinical nurse specialist, certified 73565
nurse-midwife, or certified nurse practitioner under division 73566
(C)(2) of this section is not liable for or subject to any of the 73567
following for relying on the prescription: damages in any civil 73568
action, prosecution in any criminal proceeding, or professional 73569
disciplinary action by the state board of pharmacy under Chapter 73570
4729. of the Revised Code.73571

       (E) A clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or 73572
certified nurse practitioner may personally furnish to a patient a 73573
sample of any drug or therapeutic device included in the types of 73574
drugs and devices listed on the formulary, except that all of the 73575
following conditions apply:73576

       (1) The amount of the sample furnished shall not exceed a 73577
seventy-two-hour supply, except when the minimum available 73578
quantity of the sample is packaged in an amount that is greater 73579
than a seventy-two-hour supply, in which case the packaged amount 73580
may be furnished.73581

       (2) No charge may be imposed for the sample or for furnishing 73582
it.73583

       (3) Samples of controlled substances may not be personally 73584
furnished.73585

        (F) A clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or 73586
certified nurse practitioner may personally furnish to a patient a 73587
complete or partial supply of a drug or therapeutic device 73588
included in the types of drugs and devices listed on the 73589
formulary, except that all of the following conditions apply:73590

       (1) The clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, 73591
or certified nurse practitioner shall personally furnish only 73592
antibiotics, antifungals, scabicides, contraceptives, prenatal 73593
vitamins, antihypertensives, drugs and devices used in the 73594
treatment of diabetes, drugs and devices used in the treatment of 73595
asthma, and drugs used in the treatment of dyslipidemia.73596

       (2) The clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, 73597
or certified nurse practitioner shall not furnish the drugs and 73598
devices in locations other than a health department operated by 73599
the board of health of a city or general health district or the 73600
authority having the duties of a board of health under section 73601
3709.05 of the Revised Code, a federally funded comprehensive 73602
primary care clinic, or a nonprofit health care clinic or program.73603

       (3) The clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, 73604
or certified nurse practitioner shall comply with all safety 73605
standards for personally furnishing supplies of drugs and devices, 73606
as established in rules adopted under section 4723.50 of the 73607
Revised Code.73608

       Sec. 4725.03.  The governor, with the advice and consent of 73609
the senate, shall appoint a state board of optometry consisting of 73610
six nonmedical residents of this state, five of whom shall be 73611
persons actually engaged in the practice of optometry for five 73612
years preceding appointment and one of whom shall be a member of 73613
the public at least sixtyfifty years of age. Terms of office 73614
shall be five years, commencing on the twenty-sixth day of 73615
September and ending on the twenty-fifth day of September. Each 73616
member shall hold office from the date of appointment until the 73617
end of the term for which appointed. Any member appointed to fill 73618
a vacancy occurring prior to the expiration of the term for which 73619
the member's predecessor was appointed shall hold office for the 73620
remainder of the term. A member shall continue in office 73621
subsequent to the expiration date of the member's term until the 73622
member's successor takes office, or until a period of sixty days 73623
has elapsed, whichever occurs first. No person shall serve as a 73624
member for more than two terms.73625

       Sec. 4725.16.  (A) Each certificate of licensure, topical 73626
ocular pharmaceutical agents certificate, and therapeutic 73627
pharmaceutical agents certificate issued by the state board of 73628
optometry shall expire annually on the last day of December, and 73629
may be renewed in accordance with this section and the standard 73630
renewal procedure established under Chapter 4745. of the Revised 73631
Code.73632

       An optometrist seeking to continue to practice optometry 73633
shall file with the board an application for license renewal. The 73634
application shall be in such form and require such pertinent 73635
professional biographical data as the board may require.73636

       (B) All licensed optometrists shall annually complete 73637
continuing education in subjects relating to the practice of 73638
optometry, to the end that the utilization and application of new 73639
techniques, scientific and clinical advances, and the achievements 73640
of research will assure comprehensive care to the public. The 73641
board shall prescribe by rule the continuing optometric education 73642
that licensed optometrists must complete. The length of study 73643
shall be twenty-five clock hours each year, including ten clock 73644
hours of instruction in pharmacology to be completed by all 73645
licensed optometrists.73646

       Unless the continuing education required under this division 73647
is waived or deferred under division (D) of this section, the 73648
continuing education must be completed during the twelve-month 73649
period beginning on the first day of October and ending on the 73650
last day of September. If the board receives notice from a 73651
continuing education program indicating that an optometrist 73652
completed the program after the last day of September, and the 73653
optometrist wants to use the continuing education completed after 73654
that day to renew the license that expires on the last day of 73655
December of that year, the optometrist shall pay the penalty 73656
specified under section 4725.34 of the Revised Code for late 73657
completion of continuing education.73658

       At least once annually, the board shall post on its web site 73659
and shall mail, or send by electronic mail, to each licensed 73660
optometrist a list of courses approved in accordance with 73661
standards prescribed by board rule. Upon the request of a licensed 73662
optometrist, the executive director of the board shall supply a 73663
list of additional courses that the board has approved subsequent 73664
to the most recent web site posting, electronic mail transmission, 73665
or mailing of the list of approved courses.73666

       (C)(1) Annually, not later than the first day of November, 73667
the board shall mail or send by electronic mail a notice regarding 73668
license renewal to each licensed optometrist who may be eligible 73669
for renewal. The notice shall be sent to the optometrist's last73670
most recent electronic mail or mailing address shown in the 73671
board's records. If the board knows that the optometrist has 73672
completed the required continuing optometric education for the 73673
year, the board may include with the notice an application for 73674
license renewal. 73675

       (2) Filing a license renewal application with the board shall 73676
serve as notice by the optometrist that the continuing optometric 73677
education requirement has been successfully completed. If the 73678
board finds that an optometrist has not completed the required 73679
continuing optometric education, the board shall disapprove the 73680
optometrist's application. The board's disapproval of renewal is 73681
effective without a hearing, unless a hearing is requested 73682
pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. 73683

       (3) The board shall refuse to accept an application for 73684
renewal from any applicant whose license is not in good standing 73685
or who is under disciplinary review pursuant to section 4725.19 of 73686
the Revised Code. 73687

       (4) Notice of an applicant's failure to qualify for renewal 73688
shall be served upon the applicant by mail. The notice shall be 73689
sent not later than the fifteenth day of November to the 73690
applicant's last address shown in the board's records.73691

       (D) In cases of certified illness or undue hardship, the 73692
board may waive or defer for up to twelve months the requirement 73693
of continuing optometric education, except that in such cases the 73694
board may not waive or defer the continuing education in 73695
pharmacology required to be completed by optometrists who hold 73696
topical ocular pharmaceutical agents certificates or therapeutic 73697
pharmaceutical agents certificates. The board shall waive the 73698
requirement of continuing optometric education for any optometrist 73699
who is serving in the armed forces of the United States or who has 73700
received an initial certificate of licensure during the nine-month 73701
period which ended on the last day of September.73702

       (E) An optometrist whose renewal application has been 73703
approved may renew each certificate held by paying to the 73704
treasurer of state the fees for renewal specified under section 73705
4725.34 of the Revised Code. On payment of all applicable fees, 73706
the board shall issue a renewal of the optometrist's certificate 73707
of licensure, topical ocular pharmaceutical agents certificate, 73708
and therapeutic pharmaceutical agents certificate, as appropriate. 73709

       (F) Not later than the fifteenth day of December, the board 73710
shall email or mail a second notice regarding license renewal to 73711
each licensed optometrist who may be eligible for renewal but did 73712
not respond to the notice sent under division (C)(1) of this 73713
section. The notice shall be sent to the optometrist's lastmost 73714
recent email or mailing address shown in the board's records. If 73715
an optometrist fails to file a renewal application after the 73716
second notice is sent, the board shall send a third notice 73717
regarding license renewal prior to any action under division (I) 73718
of this section to classify the optometrist's certificates as 73719
delinquent. 73720

       (G) The failure of an optometrist to apply for license 73721
renewal or the failure to pay the applicable annual renewal fees 73722
on or before the date of expiration, shall automatically work a 73723
forfeiture of the optometrist's authority to practice optometry in 73724
this state. 73725

       (H) The board shall accept renewal applications and renewal 73726
fees that are submitted from the first day of January to the last 73727
day of April of the year next succeeding the date of expiration. 73728
An individual who submits such a late renewal application or fee 73729
shall pay the late renewal fee specified in section 4725.34 of the 73730
Revised Code.73731

       (I)(1) If the certificates issued by the board to an 73732
individual have expired and the individual has not filed a 73733
complete application during the late renewal period, the 73734
individual's certificates shall be classified in the board's 73735
records as delinquent.73736

       (2) Any optometrist subject to delinquent classification may 73737
submit a written application to the board for reinstatement. For 73738
reinstatement to occur, the applicant must meet all of the 73739
following conditions:73740

       (a) Submit to the board evidence of compliance with board 73741
rules requiring continuing optometric education in a sufficient 73742
number of hours to make up for any delinquent compliance;73743

       (b) Pay the renewal fees for the year in which application 73744
for reinstatement is made and the reinstatement fee specified 73745
under division (A)(8) of section 4725.34 of the Revised Code;73746

       (c) Pass all or part of the licensing examination accepted by 73747
the board under section 4725.11 of the Revised Code as the board 73748
considers appropriate to determine whether the application for 73749
reinstatement should be approved;73750

       (d) If the applicant has been practicing optometry in another 73751
state or country, submit evidence that the applicant's license to 73752
practice optometry in the other state or country is in good 73753
standing.73754

       (3) The board shall approve an application for reinstatement 73755
if the conditions specified in division (I)(2) of this section are 73756
met. An optometrist who receives reinstatement is subject to the 73757
continuing education requirements specified under division (B) of 73758
this section for the year in which reinstatement occurs.73759

       Sec. 4729.51.  (A) No person other than a registered 73760
wholesale distributor of dangerous drugs shall possess for sale, 73761
sell, distribute, or deliver, at wholesale, dangerous drugs, 73762
except as follows:73763

       (1) A pharmacist who is a licensed terminal distributor of 73764
dangerous drugs or who is employed by a licensed terminal 73765
distributor of dangerous drugs may make occasional sales of 73766
dangerous drugs at wholesale;73767

       (2) A licensed terminal distributor of dangerous drugs having 73768
more than one establishment or place may transfer or deliver 73769
dangerous drugs from one establishment or place for which a 73770
license has been issued to the terminal distributor to another 73771
establishment or place for which a license has been issued to the 73772
terminal distributor if the license issued for each establishment 73773
or place is in effect at the time of the transfer or delivery.73774

       (B)(1) No registered wholesale distributor of dangerous drugs 73775
shall possess for sale, or sell, at wholesale, dangerous drugs to 73776
any person other than the following:73777

       (a) Except as provided in division (B)(2)(a) of this section, 73778
a licensed health professional authorized to prescribe drugs;73779

       (b) An optometrist licensed under Chapter 4725. of the 73780
Revised Code who holds a topical ocular pharmaceutical agents 73781
certificate;73782

       (c) A registered wholesale distributor of dangerous drugs;73783

       (d) A manufacturer of dangerous drugs;73784

       (e) Subject to division (B)(3) of this section, a licensed 73785
terminal distributor of dangerous drugs;73786

       (f) Carriers or warehouses for the purpose of carriage or 73787
storage;73788

       (g) Terminal or wholesale distributors of dangerous drugs who 73789
are not engaged in the sale of dangerous drugs within this state;73790

       (h) An individual who holds a current license, certificate, 73791
or registration issued under Title 47XLVII of the Revised Code 73792
and has been certified to conduct diabetes education by a national 73793
certifying body specified in rules adopted by the state board of 73794
pharmacy under section 4729.68 of the Revised Code, but only with 73795
respect to insulin that will be used for the purpose of diabetes 73796
education and only if diabetes education is within the 73797
individual's scope of practice under statutes and rules regulating 73798
the individual's profession;73799

       (i) An individual who holds a valid certificate issued by a 73800
nationally recognized S.C.U.B.A. diving certifying organization 73801
approved by the state board of pharmacy in rule, but only with 73802
respect to medical oxygen that will be used for the purpose of 73803
emergency care or treatment at the scene of a diving emergency;73804

       (j) Except as provided in division (B)(2)(b) of this section, 73805
a business entity that is a corporation formed under division (B) 73806
of section 1701.03 of the Revised Code, a limited liability 73807
company formed under Chapter 1705. of the Revised Code, or a 73808
professional association formed under Chapter 1785. of the Revised 73809
Code if the entity has a sole shareholder who is a licensed health 73810
professional authorized to prescribe drugs and is authorized to 73811
provide the professional services being offered by the entity;73812

        (k) Except as provided in division (B)(2)(c) of this section, 73813
a business entity that is a corporation formed under division (B) 73814
of section 1701.03 of the Revised Code, a limited liability 73815
company formed under Chapter 1705. of the Revised Code, a 73816
partnership or a limited liability partnership formed under 73817
Chapter 1775. of the Revised Code, or a professional association 73818
formed under Chapter 1785. of the Revised Code, if, to be a 73819
shareholder, member, or partner, an individual is required to be 73820
licensed, certified, or otherwise legally authorized under Title 73821
XLVII of the Revised Code to perform the professional service 73822
provided by the entity and each such individual is a licensed 73823
health professional authorized to prescribe drugs.73824

       (2) No registered wholesale distributor of dangerous drugs 73825
shall possess for sale, or sell, at wholesale, dangerous drugs to 73826
any of the following:73827

       (a) A prescriber who is employed by a pain management clinic 73828
that is not licensed as a terminal distributor of dangerous drugs 73829
with a pain management clinic classification issued under section 73830
4729.552 of the Revised Code;73831

       (b) A business entity described in division (B)(1)(j) of this 73832
section that is, or is operating, a pain management clinic without 73833
a license as a terminal distributor of dangerous drugs with a pain 73834
management clinic classification issued under section 4729.552 of 73835
the Revised Code;73836

       (c) A business entity described in division (B)(1)(k) of this 73837
section that is, or is operating, a pain management clinic without 73838
a license as a terminal distributor of dangerous drugs with a pain 73839
management clinic classification issued under section 4729.552 of 73840
the Revised Code.73841

        (3) No registered wholesale distributor of dangerous drugs 73842
shall possess dangerous drugs for sale at wholesale, or sell such 73843
drugs at wholesale, to a licensed terminal distributor of 73844
dangerous drugs, except as follows:73845

       (a) In the case of a terminal distributor with a category I 73846
license, only dangerous drugs described in category I, as defined 73847
in division (A)(1) of section 4729.54 of the Revised Code;73848

       (b) In the case of a terminal distributor with a category II 73849
license, only dangerous drugs described in category I and category 73850
II, as defined in divisions (A)(1) and (2) of section 4729.54 of 73851
the Revised Code;73852

       (c) In the case of a terminal distributor with a category III 73853
license, dangerous drugs described in category I, category II, and 73854
category III, as defined in divisions (A)(1), (2), and (3) of 73855
section 4729.54 of the Revised Code;73856

       (d) In the case of a terminal distributor with a limited 73857
category I, II, or III license, only the dangerous drugs specified 73858
in the certificate furnished by the terminal distributor in 73859
accordance with section 4729.60 of the Revised Code.73860

       (C)(1) Except as provided in division (C)(4) of this section, 73861
no person shall sell, at retail, dangerous drugs.73862

       (2) Except as provided in division (C)(4) of this section, no 73863
person shall possess for sale, at retail, dangerous drugs.73864

       (3) Except as provided in division (C)(4) of this section, no 73865
person shall possess dangerous drugs.73866

       (4) Divisions (C)(1), (2), and (3) of this section do not 73867
apply to a registered wholesale distributor of dangerous drugs, a 73868
licensed terminal distributor of dangerous drugs, or a person who 73869
possesses, or possesses for sale or sells, at retail, a dangerous 73870
drug in accordance with Chapters 3719., 4715., 4723., 4725., 73871
4729., 4730., 4731., and 4741. of the Revised Code.73872

       Divisions (C)(1), (2), and (3) of this section do not apply 73873
to an individual who holds a current license, certificate, or 73874
registration issued under Title XLVII of the Revised Code and has 73875
been certified to conduct diabetes education by a national 73876
certifying body specified in rules adopted by the state board of 73877
pharmacy under section 4729.68 of the Revised Code, but only to 73878
the extent that the individual possesses insulin or personally 73879
supplies insulin solely for the purpose of diabetes education and 73880
only if diabetes education is within the individual's scope of 73881
practice under statutes and rules regulating the individual's 73882
profession.73883

       Divisions (C)(1), (2), and (3) of this section do not apply 73884
to an individual who holds a valid certificate issued by a 73885
nationally recognized S.C.U.B.A. diving certifying organization 73886
approved by the state board of pharmacy in rule, but only to the 73887
extent that the individual possesses medical oxygen or personally 73888
supplies medical oxygen for the purpose of emergency care or 73889
treatment at the scene of a diving emergency.73890

       (D) No licensed terminal distributor of dangerous drugs shall 73891
purchase for the purpose of resale dangerous drugs from any person 73892
other than a registered wholesale distributor of dangerous drugs, 73893
except as follows:73894

       (1) A licensed terminal distributor of dangerous drugs may 73895
make occasional purchases of dangerous drugs for resale from a 73896
pharmacist who is a licensed terminal distributor of dangerous 73897
drugs or who is employed by a licensed terminal distributor of 73898
dangerous drugs;73899

       (2) A licensed terminal distributor of dangerous drugs having 73900
more than one establishment or place may transfer or receive 73901
dangerous drugs from one establishment or place for which a 73902
license has been issued to the terminal distributor to another 73903
establishment or place for which a license has been issued to the 73904
terminal distributor if the license issued for each establishment 73905
or place is in effect at the time of the transfer or receipt.73906

       (E) A pharmacy that is a licensed terminal distributor of 73907
dangerous drugs may operate a remote dispensing system in 73908
accordance with section 4729.542 of the Revised Code.73909

        (F) No licensed terminal distributor of dangerous drugs shall 73910
engage in the sale or other distribution of dangerous drugs at 73911
retail or maintain possession, custody, or control of dangerous 73912
drugs for any purpose other than the distributor's personal use or 73913
consumption, at any establishment or place other than that or 73914
those described in the license issued by the state board of 73915
pharmacy to such terminal distributor.73916

       (F)(G) Nothing in this section shall be construed to 73917
interfere with the performance of official duties by any law 73918
enforcement official authorized by municipal, county, state, or 73919
federal law to collect samples of any drug, regardless of its 73920
nature or in whose possession it may be.73921

       Sec. 4729.54.  (A) As used in this section and section 73922
4729.541 of the Revised Code:73923

       (1) "Category I" means single-dose injections of intravenous 73924
fluids, including saline, Ringer's lactate, five per cent dextrose 73925
and distilled water, and other intravenous fluids or parenteral 73926
solutions included in this category by rule of the state board of 73927
pharmacy, that have a volume of one hundred milliliters or more 73928
and that contain no added substances, or single-dose injections of 73929
epinephrine to be administered pursuant to sections 4765.38 and 73930
4765.39 of the Revised Code.73931

       (2) "Category II" means any dangerous drug that is not 73932
included in category I or III.73933

       (3) "Category III" means any controlled substance that is 73934
contained in schedule I, II, III, IV, or V.73935

       (4) "Emergency medical service organization" has the same 73936
meaning as in section 4765.01 of the Revised Code.73937

       (5) "Person" includes an emergency medical service 73938
organization.73939

       (6) "Schedule I, schedule II, schedule III, schedule IV, and 73940
schedule V" mean controlled substance schedules I, II, III, IV, 73941
and V, respectively, as established pursuant to section 3719.41 of 73942
the Revised Code and as amended.73943

       (B)(1) A person who desires to be licensed as a terminal 73944
distributor of dangerous drugs shall file with the executive 73945
director of the state board of pharmacy a verified application. 73946
After it is filed, the application may not be withdrawn without 73947
approval of the board.73948

       (2) An application shall contain all the following that apply 73949
in the applicant's case:73950

       (a) Information that the board requires relative to the 73951
qualifications of a terminal distributor of dangerous drugs set 73952
forth in section 4729.55 of the Revised Code;73953

       (b) A statement that the person wishes to be licensed as a 73954
category I, category II, category III, limited category I, limited 73955
category II, or limited category III terminal distributor of 73956
dangerous drugs;73957

       (c) If the person wishes to be licensed as a limited category 73958
I, limited category II, or limited category III terminal 73959
distributor of dangerous drugs, a notarized list of the dangerous 73960
drugs that the person wishes to possess, have custody or control 73961
of, and distribute, which list shall also specify the purpose for 73962
which those drugs will be used and their source;73963

       (d) If the person is an emergency medical service 73964
organization, the information that is specified in division (C)(1) 73965
of this section;73966

       (e) Except for an emergency medical service organization, the 73967
identity of the one establishment or place at which the person 73968
intends to engage in the sale or other distribution of dangerous 73969
drugs at retail, and maintain possession, custody, or control of 73970
dangerous drugs for purposes other than the person's own use or 73971
consumption and any place at which the person intends to operate a 73972
remote dispensing system in accordance with section 4729.542 of 73973
the Revised Code;73974

       (f) If the application pertains to a pain management clinic, 73975
information that demonstrates, to the satisfaction of the board, 73976
compliance with division (A) of section 4729.552 of the Revised 73977
Code.73978

       (C)(1) An emergency medical service organization that wishes 73979
to be licensed as a terminal distributor of dangerous drugs shall 73980
list in its application for licensure the following additional 73981
information:73982

       (a) The units under its control that the organization 73983
determines will possess dangerous drugs for the purpose of 73984
administering emergency medical services in accordance with 73985
Chapter 4765. of the Revised Code;73986

       (b) With respect to each such unit, whether the dangerous 73987
drugs that the organization determines the unit will possess are 73988
in category I, II, or III.73989

       (2) An emergency medical service organization that is 73990
licensed as a terminal distributor of dangerous drugs shall file a 73991
new application for such licensure if there is any change in the 73992
number, or location of, any of its units or any change in the 73993
category of the dangerous drugs that any unit will possess.73994

       (3) A unit listed in an application for licensure pursuant to 73995
division (C)(1) of this section may obtain the dangerous drugs it 73996
is authorized to possess from its emergency medical service 73997
organization or, on a replacement basis, from a hospital pharmacy. 73998
If units will obtain dangerous drugs from a hospital pharmacy, the 73999
organization shall file, and maintain in current form, the 74000
following items with the pharmacist who is responsible for the 74001
hospital's terminal distributor of dangerous drugs license:74002

       (a) A copy of its standing orders or protocol;74003

       (b) A list of the personnel employed or used by the 74004
organization to provide emergency medical services in accordance 74005
with Chapter 4765. of the Revised Code, who are authorized to 74006
possess the drugs, which list also shall indicate the personnel 74007
who are authorized to administer the drugs.74008

       (D) Each emergency medical service organization that applies 74009
for a terminal distributor of dangerous drugs license shall submit 74010
with its application the following:74011

       (1) A notarized copy of its standing orders or protocol, 74012
which orders or protocol shall be signed by a physician and 74013
specify the dangerous drugs that its units may carry, expressed in 74014
standard dose units;74015

       (2) A list of the personnel employed or used by the 74016
organization to provide emergency medical services in accordance 74017
with Chapter 4765. of the Revised Code.74018

       An emergency medical service organization that is licensed as 74019
a terminal distributor shall notify the board immediately of any 74020
changes in its standing orders or protocol.74021

       (E) There shall be six categories of terminal distributor of 74022
dangerous drugs licenses, which categories shall be as follows:74023

       (1) Category I license. A person who obtains this license may 74024
possess, have custody or control of, and distribute only the 74025
dangerous drugs described in category I.74026

       (2) Limited category I license. A person who obtains this 74027
license may possess, have custody or control of, and distribute 74028
only the dangerous drugs described in category I that were listed 74029
in the application for licensure.74030

       (3) Category II license. A person who obtains this license 74031
may possess, have custody or control of, and distribute only the 74032
dangerous drugs described in category I and category II.74033

       (4) Limited category II license. A person who obtains this 74034
license may possess, have custody or control of, and distribute 74035
only the dangerous drugs described in category I or category II 74036
that were listed in the application for licensure.74037

       (5) Category III license, which may include a pain management 74038
clinic classification issued under section 4729.552 of the Revised 74039
Code. A person who obtains this license may possess, have custody 74040
or control of, and distribute the dangerous drugs described in 74041
category I, category II, and category III. If the license includes 74042
a pain management clinic classification, the person may operate a 74043
pain management clinic.74044

       (6) Limited category III license. A person who obtains this 74045
license may possess, have custody or control of, and distribute 74046
only the dangerous drugs described in category I, category II, or 74047
category III that were listed in the application for licensure.74048

       (F) Except for an application made on behalf of an animal 74049
shelter, if an applicant for licensure as a limited category I, 74050
II, or III terminal distributor of dangerous drugs intends to 74051
administer dangerous drugs to a person or animal, the applicant 74052
shall submit, with the application, a notarized copy of its 74053
protocol or standing orders, which protocol or orders shall be 74054
signed by a licensed health professional authorized to prescribe 74055
drugs, specify the dangerous drugs to be administered, and list 74056
personnel who are authorized to administer the dangerous drugs in 74057
accordance with federal law or the law of this state. An 74058
application made on behalf of an animal shelter shall include a 74059
notarized list of the dangerous drugs to be administered to 74060
animals and the personnel who are authorized to administer the 74061
drugs to animals in accordance with section 4729.532 of the 74062
Revised Code. After obtaining a terminal distributor license, a 74063
licensee shall notify the board immediately of any changes in its 74064
protocol or standing orders, or in such personnel.74065

       (G)(1) Except as provided in division (G)(2) of this section, 74066
each applicant for licensure as a terminal distributor of 74067
dangerous drugs shall submit, with the application, a license fee 74068
determined as follows:74069

       (a) For a category I or limited category I license, 74070
forty-five dollars;74071

       (b) For a category II or limited category II license, one 74072
hundred twelve dollars and fifty cents;74073

       (c) For a category III license, including a license with a 74074
pain management clinic classification issued under section 74075
4729.552 of the Revised Code, or a limited category III license, 74076
one hundred fifty dollars.74077

       (2) For a professional association, corporation, partnership, 74078
or limited liability company organized for the purpose of 74079
practicing veterinary medicine, the fee shall be forty dollars.74080

       (3) Fees assessed under divisions (G)(1) and (2) of this 74081
section shall not be returned if the applicant fails to qualify 74082
for registration.74083

       (H)(1) The board shall issue a terminal distributor of 74084
dangerous drugs license to each person who submits an application 74085
for such licensure in accordance with this section, pays the 74086
required license fee, is determined by the board to meet the 74087
requirements set forth in section 4729.55 of the Revised Code, and 74088
satisfies any other applicable requirements of this section.74089

       (2) The license of a person other than an emergency medical 74090
service organization shall describe the one establishment or place 74091
at which the licensee may engage in the sale or other distribution 74092
of dangerous drugs at retail and maintain possession, custody, or 74093
control of dangerous drugs for purposes other than the licensee's 74094
own use or consumption and any place at which the person intends 74095
to operate a remote dispensing system in accordance with section 74096
4729.542 of the Revised Code. The one establishment or place and 74097
any place at which the person intends to operate a remote 74098
dispensing system shall be that which isthose described in the 74099
application for licensure.74100

       No such license shall authorize or permit the terminal 74101
distributor of dangerous drugs named in it to engage in the sale 74102
or other distribution of dangerous drugs at retail or to maintain 74103
possession, custody, or control of dangerous drugs for any purpose 74104
other than the distributor's own use or consumption, at any 74105
establishment or place other than thatthose described in the 74106
license, except that an agent or employee of an animal shelter may 74107
possess and use dangerous drugs in the course of business as 74108
provided in division (D) of section 4729.532 of the Revised Code.74109

       (3) The license of an emergency medical service organization 74110
shall cover and describe all the units of the organization listed 74111
in its application for licensure.74112

       (4) The license of every terminal distributor of dangerous 74113
drugs shall indicate, on its face, the category of licensure. If 74114
the license is a limited category I, II, or III license, it shall 74115
specify, and shall authorize the licensee to possess, have custody 74116
or control of, and distribute only, the dangerous drugs that were 74117
listed in the application for licensure.74118

       (I) All licenses issued pursuant to this section shall be 74119
effective for a period of twelve months from the first day of 74120
January of each year. A license shall be renewed by the board for 74121
a like period, annually, according to the provisions of this 74122
section, and the standard renewal procedure of Chapter 4745. of 74123
the Revised Code. A person who desires to renew a license shall 74124
submit an application for renewal and pay the required fee on or 74125
before the thirty-first day of December each year. The fee 74126
required for the renewal of a license shall be the same as the fee 74127
paid for the license being renewed, and shall accompany the 74128
application for renewal.74129

       A license that has not been renewed during December in any 74130
year and by the first day of February of the following year may be 74131
reinstated only upon payment of the required renewal fee and a 74132
penalty fee of fifty-five dollars.74133

       (J)(1) No emergency medical service organization that is 74134
licensed as a terminal distributor of dangerous drugs shall fail 74135
to comply with division (C)(2) or (3) of this section.74136

       (2) No emergency medical service organization that is 74137
licensed as a terminal distributor of dangerous drugs shall fail 74138
to comply with division (D) of this section.74139

       (3) No licensed terminal distributor of dangerous drugs shall 74140
possess, have custody or control of, or distribute dangerous drugs 74141
that the terminal distributor is not entitled to possess, have 74142
custody or control of, or distribute by virtue of its category of 74143
licensure.74144

       (4) No licensee that is required by division (F) of this 74145
section to notify the board of changes in its protocol or standing 74146
orders, or in personnel, shall fail to comply with that division.74147

       Sec. 4729.542.  (A) As used in this section, "remote 74148
dispensing system" means a mechanical system for dispensing drugs 74149
that is installed in a facility and communicates electronically 74150
with a pharmacy.74151

       (B) A pharmacy licensed under this chapter as a terminal 74152
distributor of dangerous drugs may use a remote dispensing system 74153
to assist in the distribution of dangerous drugs at a nursing home 74154
or residential care facility licensed under Chapter 3721. of the 74155
Revised Code if all of the following requirements are met:74156

       (1) The system has a documented and ongoing quality assurance 74157
program that monitors total system performance and requires one 74158
hundred per cent accuracy in drugs dispensed and their strength.74159

       (2) The system has security adequate to prevent unauthorized 74160
access to dangerous drugs.74161

       (3) Records kept by the system comply with requirements of 74162
the state board of pharmacy.74163

       (C) A pharmacist licensed under this chapter is not required 74164
to maintain supervision and control of a remote dispensing system 74165
or be physically present at the facility where the system is used 74166
to dispense drugs.74167

       (D) As part of the quality assurance program required by 74168
division (B)(1) of this section, the facility where the remote 74169
dispensing system is located shall complete periodic audits of 74170
controlled substances dispensed through the system.74171

       Sec. 4729.69. (A) The state board of pharmacy, in 74172
collaboration with the director of alcohol and drug addiction 74173
servicesmental health and addiction services and attorney 74174
general, shall establish and administer a drug take-back program 74175
under which drugs are collected from the community for the purpose 74176
of destruction or disposal of the drugs.74177

       (B) The program shall be established and administered in such 74178
a manner that it does both of the following:74179

       (1) Complies with any state or federal laws regarding the 74180
collection, destruction, or disposal of drugs;74181

       (2) Maintains the confidentiality of individuals who submit 74182
or otherwise provide drugs under the program.74183

       (C) In consultation with the director of alcohol and drug 74184
addiction servicesmental health and addiction services and 74185
attorney general, the board shall adopt rules governing the 74186
program. The rules shall be adopted in accordance with Chapter 74187
119. of the Revised Code. In adopting the rules, the board shall 74188
specify all of the following:74189

       (1) The entities that may participate;74190

       (2) Guidelines and responsibilities for accepting drugs by 74191
participating entities;74192

       (3) Drugs that may be collected;74193

       (4) Record-keeping requirements;74194

       (5) Proper methods to destroy unused drugs;74195

       (6) Privacy protocols and security standards;74196

       (7) Drug transportation procedures;74197

       (8) The schedule, duration, and frequency of the collections 74198
of drugs, except that the first collection shall occur not later 74199
than one year after the effective date of this sectionMay 20, 74200
2011;74201

       (9) Any other standards and procedures the board considers 74202
necessary for purposes of governing the program.74203

       (D) In accordance with state and federal law, the board may 74204
adopt rules to allow an entity participating in the program to 74205
return any unused drugs to the pharmacy that originally dispensed 74206
the drug. The rules shall include procedures to be followed to 74207
maintain the confidentiality of the person for whom the drug was 74208
dispensed.74209

       (E) Rules adopted under this section may not do any of the 74210
following:74211

       (1) Require any entity to establish, fund, or operate a drug 74212
take-back program;74213

       (2) Establish any new licensing requirement or fee to 74214
participate in the program;74215

       (3) Require any entity to compile data on drugs collected.74216

       (F) The board may compile data on the amount and type of 74217
drugs collected under the program. For purposes of this division, 74218
the board may cooperate with a public or private entity in 74219
obtaining assistance in the compilation of data. An entity 74220
providing the assistance shall not be reimbursed under the program 74221
for any costs incurred in providing the assistance.74222

       (G) If the board compiles data under division (F) of this 74223
section, the board shall submit a report to the governor and, in 74224
accordance with section 101.68 of the Revised Code, the general 74225
assembly. The report, to the extent possible, shall include the 74226
following information:74227

       (1) Total weight of drugs collected, both with and without 74228
packaging;74229

       (2) The weight of controlled substances;74230

       (3) The amount of all of the following as a per cent of total 74231
drugs collected:74232

       (a) Controlled substances;74233

       (b) Brand name drugs;74234

       (c) Generic drugs;74235

       (d) Prescription drugs;74236

       (e) Non-prescription drugs.74237

       (4) The amount of vitamins, herbal supplements, and personal 74238
care products collected;74239

       (5) If provided by the person who submitted or otherwise 74240
donated drugs to the program, the reasons why the drugs were 74241
returned or unused.74242

       (H) No entity is required to participate in a drug take-back 74243
program established under this section, and no entity shall be 74244
subject to civil liability or professional disciplinary action for 74245
declining to participate.74246

       (I) The board may accept grants, gifts, or donations for 74247
purposes of the program. Money received under this division shall 74248
be deposited into the drug take-back program fund established 74249
under section 109.90 of the Revised Code.74250

       Sec. 4729.80. (A) If the state board of pharmacy establishes 74251
and maintains a drug database pursuant to section 4729.75 of the 74252
Revised Code, the board is authorized or required to provide 74253
information from the database in accordance with the following:74254

       (1) On receipt of a request from a designated representative 74255
of a government entity responsible for the licensure, regulation, 74256
or discipline of health care professionals with authority to 74257
prescribe, administer, or dispense drugs, the board may provide to 74258
the representative information from the database relating to the 74259
professional who is the subject of an active investigation being 74260
conducted by the government entity.74261

       (2) On receipt of a request from a federal officer, or a 74262
state or local officer of this or any other state, whose duties 74263
include enforcing laws relating to drugs, the board shall provide 74264
to the officer information from the database relating to the 74265
person who is the subject of an active investigation of a drug 74266
abuse offense, as defined in section 2925.01 of the Revised Code, 74267
being conducted by the officer's employing government entity.74268

       (3) Pursuant to a subpoena issued by a grand jury, the board 74269
shall provide to the grand jury information from the database 74270
relating to the person who is the subject of an investigation 74271
being conducted by the grand jury.74272

       (4) Pursuant to a subpoena, search warrant, or court order in 74273
connection with the investigation or prosecution of a possible or 74274
alleged criminal offense, the board shall provide information from 74275
the database as necessary to comply with the subpoena, search 74276
warrant, or court order.74277

       (5) On receipt of a request from a prescriber or the 74278
prescriber's delegate approved by the board, the board may provide 74279
to the prescriber information from the database relating to a 74280
patient who is either of the following, if the prescriber 74281
certifies in a form specified by the board that it is for the 74282
purpose of providing medical treatment to the patient who is the 74283
subject of the request;74284

       (a) A current patient of the prescriber;74285

       (b) A potential patient of the prescriber based on a referral 74286
of the patient to the prescriber.74287

       (6) On receipt of a request from a pharmacist or the 74288
pharmacist's delegate approved by the board, the board may provide 74289
to the pharmacist information from the database relating to a 74290
current patient of the pharmacist, if the pharmacist certifies in 74291
a form specified by the board that it is for the purpose of the 74292
pharmacist's practice of pharmacy involving the patient who is the 74293
subject of the request.74294

       (7) On receipt of a request from an individual seeking the 74295
individual's own database information in accordance with the 74296
procedure established in rules adopted under section 4729.84 of 74297
the Revised Code, the board may provide to the individual the 74298
individual's own database information.74299

       (8) On receipt of a request from the medical director of a 74300
managed care organization that has entered into a data security 74301
agreement with the board required by section 5111.17105167.14 of 74302
the Revised Code, the board mayshall provide to the medical 74303
director information from the database relating to a medicaid 74304
recipient enrolled in the managed care organization, including 74305
information in the database related to prescriptions for the 74306
recipient that were not covered or reimbursed under a program 74307
administered by the department of medicaid.74308

       (9) On receipt of a request from the medicaid director of job 74309
and family services, the board mayshall provide to the director 74310
information from the database relating to a recipient of a program 74311
administered by the department of job and family services74312
medicaid, including information in the database related to 74313
prescriptions for the recipient that were not covered or paid by a 74314
program administered by the department. 74315

       (10) On receipt of a request from the administrator of 74316
workers' compensation, the board may provide to the administrator 74317
information from the database relating to a claimant under Chapter 74318
4121., 4123., 4127., or 4131. of the Revised Code.74319

        (11) On receipt of a request from a requestor described in 74320
division (A)(1), (2), (5), or (6) of this section who is from or 74321
participating with another state's prescription monitoring 74322
program, the board may provide to the requestor information from 74323
the database, but only if there is a written agreement under which 74324
the information is to be used and disseminated according to the 74325
laws of this state.74326

       (B) The state board of pharmacy shall maintain a record of 74327
each individual or entity that requests information from the 74328
database pursuant to this section. In accordance with rules 74329
adopted under section 4729.84 of the Revised Code, the board may 74330
use the records to document and report statistics and law 74331
enforcement outcomes.74332

        The board may provide records of an individual's requests for 74333
database information to the following:74334

        (1) A designated representative of a government entity that 74335
is responsible for the licensure, regulation, or discipline of 74336
health care professionals with authority to prescribe, administer, 74337
or dispense drugs who is involved in an active investigation being 74338
conducted by the government entity of the individual who submitted 74339
the requests for database information;74340

        (2) A federal officer, or a state or local officer of this or 74341
any other state, whose duties include enforcing laws relating to 74342
drugs and who is involved in an active investigation being 74343
conducted by the officer's employing government entity of the 74344
individual who submitted the requests for database information.74345

       (C) Information contained in the database and any information 74346
obtained from it is not a public record. Information contained in 74347
the records of requests for information from the database is not a 74348
public record. Information that does not identify a person may be 74349
released in summary, statistical, or aggregate form.74350

       (D) A pharmacist or prescriber shall not be held liable in 74351
damages to any person in any civil action for injury, death, or 74352
loss to person or property on the basis that the pharmacist or 74353
prescriber did or did not seek or obtain information from the 74354
database.74355

       Sec. 4729.81. If the state board of pharmacy establishes and 74356
maintains a drug database pursuant to section 4729.75 of the 74357
Revised Code, the board shall review the information in the drug 74358
database. If the board determines from the review that a violation 74359
of law may have occurred, it shall notify the appropriate law 74360
enforcement agency or a government entity responsible for the 74361
licensure, regulation, or discipline of licensed health 74362
professionals authorized to prescribe drugs and supply information 74363
required by the agency or entity for an investigation of the 74364
violation of law that may have occurred. The board also shall 74365
notify the medicaid director if the board determines that the 74366
violation may have been committed by a provider of services under 74367
a program administered by the department of medicaid.74368

       Sec. 4729.99.  (A) Whoever violates section 4729.16, division 74369
(A) or (B) of section 4729.38, or section 4729.57 of the Revised 74370
Code is guilty of a minor misdemeanor. Each day's violation 74371
constitutes a separate offense.74372

       (B) Whoever violates section 4729.27, 4729.28, or 4729.36 of 74373
the Revised Code is guilty of a misdemeanor of the third degree. 74374
Each day's violation constitutes a separate offense. If the 74375
offender previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to a 74376
violation of this chapter, that person is guilty of a misdemeanor 74377
of the second degree.74378

       (C) Whoever violates section 4729.32, 4729.33, or 4729.34 of 74379
the Revised Code is guilty of a misdemeanor.74380

       (D) Whoever violates division (A), (B), (D), or (E)(F) of 74381
section 4729.51 of the Revised Code is guilty of a misdemeanor of 74382
the first degree.74383

       (E)(1) Whoever violates section 4729.37, division (C)(2) of 74384
section 4729.51, division (J) of section 4729.54, or section 74385
4729.61 of the Revised Code is guilty of a felony of the fifth 74386
degree. If the offender previously has been convicted of or 74387
pleaded guilty to a violation of this chapter or a violation of 74388
Chapter 2925. or 3719. of the Revised Code, that person is guilty 74389
of a felony of the fourth degree.74390

       (2) If an offender is convicted of or pleads guilty to a 74391
violation of section 4729.37, division (C) of section 4729.51, 74392
division (J) of section 4729.54, or section 4729.61 of the Revised 74393
Code, if the violation involves the sale, offer to sell, or 74394
possession of a schedule I or II controlled substance, with the 74395
exception of marihuana, and if the court imposing sentence upon 74396
the offender finds that the offender as a result of the violation 74397
is a major drug offender, as defined in section 2929.01 of the 74398
Revised Code, and is guilty of a specification of the type 74399
described in section 2941.1410 of the Revised Code, the court, in 74400
lieu of the prison term authorized or required by division (E)(1) 74401
of this section and sections 2929.13 and 2929.14 of the Revised 74402
Code and in addition to any other sanction imposed for the offense 74403
under sections 2929.11 to 2929.18 of the Revised Code, shall 74404
impose upon the offender, in accordance with division (B)(3) of 74405
section 2929.14 of the Revised Code, the mandatory prison term 74406
specified in that division.74407

       (3) Notwithstanding any contrary provision of section 3719.21 74408
of the Revised Code, the clerk of court shall pay any fine imposed 74409
for a violation of section 4729.37, division (C) of section 74410
4729.51, division (J) of section 4729.54, or section 4729.61 of 74411
the Revised Code pursuant to division (A) of section 2929.18 of 74412
the Revised Code in accordance with and subject to the 74413
requirements of division (F) of section 2925.03 of the Revised 74414
Code. The agency that receives the fine shall use the fine as 74415
specified in division (F) of section 2925.03 of the Revised Code.74416

       (F) Whoever violates section 4729.531 of the Revised Code or 74417
any rule adopted thereunder or section 4729.532 of the Revised 74418
Code is guilty of a misdemeanor of the first degree.74419

       (G) Whoever violates division (C)(1) of section 4729.51 of 74420
the Revised Code is guilty of a felony of the fourth degree. If 74421
the offender has previously been convicted of or pleaded guilty to 74422
a violation of this chapter, or of a violation of Chapter 2925. or 74423
3719. of the Revised Code, that person is guilty of a felony of 74424
the third degree.74425

       (H) Whoever violates division (C)(3) of section 4729.51 of 74426
the Revised Code is guilty of a misdemeanor of the first degree. 74427
If the offender has previously been convicted of or pleaded guilty 74428
to a violation of this chapter, or of a violation of Chapter 2925. 74429
or 3719. of the Revised Code, that person is guilty of a felony of 74430
the fifth degree.74431

       (I)(1) Whoever violates division (B) of section 4729.42 of 74432
the Revised Code is guilty of unauthorized pharmacy-related drug 74433
conduct. Except as otherwise provided in this section, 74434
unauthorized pharmacy-related drug conduct is a misdemeanor of the 74435
second degree. If the offender previously has been convicted of or 74436
pleaded guilty to a violation of division (B), (C), (D), or (E) of 74437
that section, unauthorized pharmacy-related drug conduct is a 74438
misdemeanor of the first degree on a second offense and a felony 74439
of the fifth degree on a third or subsequent offense.74440

       (2) Whoever violates division (C) or (D) of section 4729.42 74441
of the Revised Code is guilty of permitting unauthorized 74442
pharmacy-related drug conduct. Except as otherwise provided in 74443
this section, permitting unauthorized pharmacy-related drug 74444
conduct is a misdemeanor of the second degree. If the offender 74445
previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to a violation 74446
of division (B), (C), (D), or (E) of that section, permitting 74447
unauthorized pharmacy-related drug conduct is a misdemeanor of the 74448
first degree on a second offense and a felony of the fifth degree 74449
on a third or subsequent offense.74450

       (3) Whoever violates division (E) of section 4729.42 of the 74451
Revised Code is guilty of the offense of falsification under 74452
section 2921.13 of the Revised Code. In addition to any other 74453
sanction imposed for the violation, the offender is forever 74454
disqualified from engaging in any activity specified in division 74455
(B)(1), (2), or (3) of section 4729.42 of the Revised Code and 74456
from performing any function as a health care professional or 74457
health care worker. As used in this division, "health care 74458
professional" and "health care worker" have the same meanings as 74459
in section 2305.234 of the Revised Code.74460

       (4) Notwithstanding any contrary provision of section 3719.21 74461
of the Revised Code or any other provision of law that governs the 74462
distribution of fines, the clerk of the court shall pay any fine 74463
imposed pursuant to division (I)(1), (2), or (3) of this section 74464
to the state board of pharmacy if the board has adopted a written 74465
internal control policy under division (F)(2) of section 2925.03 74466
of the Revised Code that addresses fine moneys that it receives 74467
under Chapter 2925. of the Revised Code and if the policy also 74468
addresses fine moneys paid under this division. The state board of 74469
pharmacy shall use the fines so paid in accordance with the 74470
written internal control policy to subsidize the board's law 74471
enforcement efforts that pertain to drug offenses.74472

       (J)(1) Whoever violates division (A)(1) of section 4729.86 of 74473
the Revised Code is guilty of a misdemeanor of the third degree. 74474
If the offender has previously been convicted of or pleaded guilty 74475
to a violation of division (A)(1), (2), or (3) of section 4729.86 74476
of the Revised Code, that person is guilty of a misdemeanor of the 74477
first degree.74478

       (2) Whoever violates division (A)(2) of section 4729.86 of 74479
the Revised Code is guilty of a misdemeanor of the first degree. 74480
If the offender has previously been convicted of or pleaded guilty 74481
to a violation of division (A)(1), (2), or (3) of section 4729.86 74482
of the Revised Code, that person is guilty of a felony of the 74483
fifth degree.74484

       (3) Whoever violates division (A)(3) of section 4729.86 of 74485
the Revised Code is guilty of a felony of the fifth degree. If the 74486
offender has previously been convicted of or pleaded guilty to a 74487
violation of division (A)(1), (2), or (3) of section 4729.86 of 74488
the Revised Code, that person is guilty of a felony of the fourth 74489
degree.74490

       (K) A person who violates division (C) of section 4729.552 of 74491
the Revised Code is guilty of a misdemeanor of the first degree. 74492
If the person previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty 74493
to a violation of division (C) of section 4729.552 of the Revised 74494
Code, that person is guilty of a felony of the fifth degree.74495

       Sec. 4730.411. (A) Except as provided in division (B) or (C) 74496
of this section, a physician assistant may prescribe to a patient 74497
a schedule II controlled substance only if all of the following 74498
are the case:74499

       (1) The patient is in a terminal condition, as defined in 74500
section 2133.01 of the Revised Code.74501

        (2) The physician assistant's supervising physician initially 74502
prescribed the substance for the patient.74503

        (3) The prescription is for an amount that does not exceed 74504
the amount necessary for the patient's use in a single, 74505
twenty-four-hour period.74506

        (B) The restrictions on prescriptive authority in division 74507
(A) of this section do not apply if a physician assistant issues 74508
the prescription to the patient from any of the following 74509
locations:74510

        (1) A hospital registered under section 3701.07 of the 74511
Revised Code;74512

       (2) An entity owned or controlled, in whole or in part, by a 74513
hospital or by an entity that owns or controls, in whole or in 74514
part, one or more hospitals;74515

       (3) A health care facility operated by the department of 74516
mental health or the department of developmental disabilities;74517

        (4) A nursing home or residential care facility licensed 74518
under section 3721.02 of the Revised Code or by a political 74519
subdivision certified under section 3721.09 of the Revised Code;74520

       (5) A county home or district home operated under Chapter 74521
5155. of the Revised Code that is certified under the medicare or 74522
medicaid program;74523

        (6) A hospice care program, as defined in section 3712.01 of 74524
the Revised Code;74525

       (7) A community mental health agencyservices provider, as 74526
defined in section 5122.01 of the Revised Code;74527

        (8) An ambulatory surgical facility, as defined in section 74528
3702.30 of the Revised Code;74529

       (9) A freestanding birthing center, as defined in section 74530
3702.51 of the Revised Code;74531

       (10) A federally qualified health center, as defined in 74532
section 3701.047 of the Revised Code;74533

       (11) A federally qualified health center look-alike, as 74534
defined in section 3701.047 of the Revised Code;74535

       (12) A health care office or facility operated by the board 74536
of health of a city or general health district or the authority 74537
having the duties of a board of health under section 3709.05 of 74538
the Revised Code;74539

       (13) A site where a medical practice is operated, but only if 74540
the practice is comprised of one or more physicians who also are 74541
owners of the practice; the practice is organized to provide 74542
direct patient care; and the physician assistant has entered into 74543
a supervisory agreement with at least one of the physician owners 74544
who practices primarily at that site.74545

       (C) A physician assistant shall not issue to a patient a 74546
prescription for a schedule II controlled substance from a 74547
convenience care clinic even if the convenience care clinic is 74548
owned or operated by an entity specified in division (B) of this 74549
section.74550

       (D) A pharmacist who acts in good faith reliance on a 74551
prescription issued by a physician assistant under division (B) of 74552
this section is not liable for or subject to any of the following 74553
for relying on the prescription: damages in any civil action, 74554
prosecution in any criminal proceeding, or professional 74555
disciplinary action by the state board of pharmacy under Chapter 74556
4729. of the Revised Code.74557

       Sec. 4731.151.  (A) Naprapaths who received a certificate to 74558
practice from the board prior to March 2, 1992, may continue to 74559
practice naprapathy, as defined in rules adopted by the board. 74560
Such naprapaths shall practice in accordance with rules adopted by 74561
the board.74562

       (B)(1) As used in this division:74563

       (a) "Mechanotherapy" means all of the following:74564

       (i) Examining patients by verbal inquiry;74565

       (ii) Examination of the musculoskeletal system by hand;74566

       (iii) Visual inspection and observation;74567

       (iv) Diagnosing a patient's condition only as to whether the 74568
patient has a disorder of the musculoskeletal system;74569

       (v) In the treatment of patients, employing the techniques of 74570
advised or supervised exercise; electrical neuromuscular 74571
stimulation; massage or manipulation; or air, water, heat, cold, 74572
sound, or infrared ray therapy only to those disorders of the 74573
musculoskeletal system that are amenable to treatment by such 74574
techniques and that are identifiable by examination performed in 74575
accordance with division (B)(1)(a)(i) of this section and 74576
diagnosable in accordance with division (B)(1)(a)(ii) of this 74577
section.74578

       (b) "Educational requirements" means the completion of a 74579
course of study appropriate for certification to practice 74580
mechanotherapy on or before November 3, 1985, as determined by 74581
rules adopted under this chapter.74582

       (2) Mechanotherapists who received a certificate to practice 74583
from the board prior to March 2, 1992, may continue to practice 74584
mechanotherapy, as defined in rules adopted by the board. Such 74585
mechanotherapists shall practice in accordance with rules adopted 74586
by the board.74587

       A person authorized by this division to practice as a 74588
mechanotherapist may examine, diagnose, and assume responsibility 74589
for the care of patients with due regard for first aid and the 74590
hygienic and nutritional care of the patients. Roentgen rays shall 74591
be used by a mechanotherapist only for diagnostic purposes.74592

       (3) A person who holds a certificate to practice 74593
mechanotherapy and completed educational requirements in 74594
mechanotherapy on or before November 3, 1985, is entitled to use 74595
the title "doctor of mechanotherapy" and is a "physician" who 74596
performs "medical services" for the purposes of Chapters 4121. and 74597
4123. of the Revised Code and the medicaid program established 74598
under section 5111.01 of the Revised Code, and shall receive 74599
payment or reimbursement as provided under those chapters and that 74600
sectionprogram.74601

       Sec. 4731.23.  (A)(1)(a) The state medical board shall 74602
designate one or more attorneys at law who have been admitted to 74603
the practice of law, and who are classified as either 74604
administrative law attorney examiners or as administrative law 74605
attorney examiner administrators under the state job 74606
classification plan adopted under section 124.14 of the Revised 74607
Code, as hearing examiners, subject to Chapter 119. of the Revised 74608
Code, to conduct any hearing which the medical board is empowered 74609
to hold or undertake pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. 74610

       (b) Notwithstanding the requirement of division (A)(1)(a) of 74611
this section that the board designate as a hearing examiner an 74612
attorney who is classified as either an administrative law 74613
attorney examiner or an administrative law attorney examiner 74614
administrator, the board may, subject to controlling board 74615
approvalsection 127.16 of the Revised Code, enter into a personal 74616
service contract with an attorney admitted to the practice of law 74617
in this state to serve on a temporary basis as a hearing examiner.74618

       (2) The hearing examiner shall hear and consider the oral and 74619
documented evidence introduced by the parties and issue in writing 74620
proposed findings of fact and conclusions of law to the board for 74621
their consideration within thirty days following the close of the 74622
hearing.74623

       (B) The board shall be given copies of the transcript of the 74624
record hearing and all exhibits and documents presented by the 74625
parties at the hearing.74626

       (C) The board shall, upon the favorable vote of three 74627
members, allow the parties or their counsel the opportunity to 74628
present oral arguments on the proposed findings of fact and 74629
conclusions of law of the hearing examiner prior to the board's 74630
final action.74631

       (D) The board shall render a decision and take action within 74632
sixty days following the receipt of the hearing examiner's 74633
proposed findings of fact and conclusions of law or within any 74634
longer period mutually agreed upon by the board and the 74635
certificate holder.74636

       (E) The final decision of the board in any hearing which the 74637
board is empowered to undertake shall be in writing and contain 74638
findings of fact and conclusions of law. Copies of the decision 74639
shall be delivered to the parties personally or by certified mail. 74640
The decision shall be final upon delivery or mailing, except that 74641
the certificate holder may appeal in the manner provided by 74642
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.74643

       Sec. 4731.65.  As used in sections 4731.65 to 4731.71 of the 74644
Revised Code:74645

       (A)(1) "Clinical laboratory services" means either of the 74646
following:74647

       (a) Any examination of materials derived from the human body 74648
for the purpose of providing information for the diagnosis, 74649
prevention, or treatment of any disease or impairment or for the 74650
assessment of health;74651

       (b) Procedures to determine, measure, or otherwise describe 74652
the presence or absence of various substances or organisms in the 74653
body.74654

       (2) "Clinical laboratory services" does not include the mere 74655
collection or preparation of specimens.74656

       (B) "Designated health services" means any of the following:74657

       (1) Clinical laboratory services;74658

       (2) Home health care services;74659

       (3) Outpatient prescription drugs.74660

       (C) "Fair market value" means the value in arms-length 74661
transactions, consistent with general market value and:74662

       (1) With respect to rentals or leases, the value of rental 74663
property for general commercial purposes, not taking into account 74664
its intended use;74665

       (2) With respect to a lease of space, not adjusted to reflect 74666
the additional value the prospective lessee or lessor would 74667
attribute to the proximity or convenience to the lessor if the 74668
lessor is a potential source of referrals to the lessee.74669

       (D) "Governmental health care program" means any program 74670
providing health care benefits that is administered by the federal 74671
government, this state, or a political subdivision of this state, 74672
including the medicare program established under Title XVIII of 74673
the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, 74674
as amended, health care coverage for public employees, health care 74675
benefits administered by the bureau of workers' compensation, and 74676
the medicaid program established under Chapter 5111. of the 74677
Revised Code.74678

       (E)(1) "Group practice" means a group of two or more holders 74679
of certificates under this chapter legally organized as a 74680
partnership, professional corporation or association, limited 74681
liability company, foundation, nonprofit corporation, faculty 74682
practice plan, or similar group practice entity, including an 74683
organization comprised of a nonprofit medical clinic that 74684
contracts with a professional corporation or association of 74685
physicians to provide medical services exclusively to patients of 74686
the clinic in order to comply with section 1701.03 of the Revised 74687
Code and including a corporation, limited liability company, 74688
partnership, or professional association described in division (B) 74689
of section 4731.226 of the Revised Code formed for the purpose of 74690
providing a combination of the professional services of 74691
optometrists who are licensed, certificated, or otherwise legally 74692
authorized to practice optometry under Chapter 4725. of the 74693
Revised Code, chiropractors who are licensed, certificated, or 74694
otherwise legally authorized to practice chiropractic or 74695
acupuncture under Chapter 4734. of the Revised Code, psychologists 74696
who are licensed, certificated, or otherwise legally authorized to 74697
practice psychology under Chapter 4732. of the Revised Code, 74698
registered or licensed practical nurses who are licensed, 74699
certificated, or otherwise legally authorized to practice nursing 74700
under Chapter 4723. of the Revised Code, pharmacists who are 74701
licensed, certificated, or otherwise legally authorized to 74702
practice pharmacy under Chapter 4729. of the Revised Code, 74703
physical therapists who are licensed, certificated, or otherwise 74704
legally authorized to practice physical therapy under sections 74705
4755.40 to 4755.56 of the Revised Code, occupational therapists 74706
who are licensed, certificated, or otherwise legally authorized to 74707
practice occupational therapy under sections 4755.04 to 4755.13 of 74708
the Revised Code, mechanotherapists who are licensed, 74709
certificated, or otherwise legally authorized to practice 74710
mechanotherapy under section 4731.151 of the Revised Code, and 74711
doctors of medicine and surgery, osteopathic medicine and surgery, 74712
or podiatric medicine and surgery who are licensed, certificated, 74713
or otherwise legally authorized for their respective practices 74714
under this chapter, to which all of the following apply:74715

       (a) Each physician who is a member of the group practice 74716
provides substantially the full range of services that the 74717
physician routinely provides, including medical care, 74718
consultation, diagnosis, or treatment, through the joint use of 74719
shared office space, facilities, equipment, and personnel.74720

       (b) Substantially all of the services of the members of the 74721
group are provided through the group and are billed in the name of 74722
the group and amounts so received are treated as receipts of the 74723
group.74724

       (c) The overhead expenses of and the income from the practice 74725
are distributed in accordance with methods previously determined 74726
by members of the group.74727

       (d) The group practice meets any other requirements that the 74728
state medical board applies in rules adopted under section 4731.70 74729
of the Revised Code.74730

       (2) In the case of a faculty practice plan associated with a 74731
hospital with a medical residency training program in which 74732
physician members may provide a variety of specialty services and 74733
provide professional services both within and outside the group, 74734
as well as perform other tasks such as research, the criteria in 74735
division (E)(1) of this section apply only with respect to 74736
services rendered within the faculty practice plan.74737

       (F) "Home health care services" and "immediate family" have 74738
the same meanings as in the rules adopted under section 4731.70 of 74739
the Revised Code.74740

       (G) "Hospital" has the same meaning as in section 3727.01 of 74741
the Revised Code.74742

       (H) A "referral" includes both of the following:74743

       (1) A request by a holder of a certificate under this chapter 74744
for an item or service, including a request for a consultation 74745
with another physician and any test or procedure ordered by or to 74746
be performed by or under the supervision of the other physician;74747

       (2) A request for or establishment of a plan of care by a 74748
certificate holder that includes the provision of designated 74749
health services.74750

       (I) "Third-party payer" has the same meaning as in section 74751
3901.38 of the Revised Code.74752

       Sec. 4731.71.  The auditor of state may implement procedures 74753
to detect violations of section 4731.66 or 4731.69 of the Revised 74754
Code within governmental health care programs administered by the 74755
state. The auditor of state shall report any violation of either 74756
section to the state medical board and shall certify to the 74757
attorney general in accordance with section 131.02 of the Revised 74758
Code the amount of any refund owed to a state-administered 74759
governmental health care program under section 4731.69 of the 74760
Revised Code as a result of a violation. If a refund is owed to 74761
the medicaid program established under Chapter 5111. of the 74762
Revised Code, the auditor of state also shall report the amount to 74763
the department of job and family servicesmedicaid.74764

       The state medical board also may implement procedures to 74765
detect violations of section 4731.66 or 4731.69 of the Revised 74766
Code.74767

       Sec. 4734.41.  (A) As used in this section:74768

       (1) "Chemical dependency" means either of the following:74769

       (a) The chronic and habitual use of alcoholic beverages to 74770
the extent that the user no longer can control the use of alcohol 74771
or endangers the user's health, safety, or welfare or that of 74772
others;74773

       (b) The use of a controlled substance as defined in section 74774
3719.01 of the Revised Code, a harmful intoxicant as defined in 74775
section 2925.01 of the Revised Code, or a dangerous drug as 74776
defined in section 4729.01 of the Revised Code, to the extent that 74777
the user becomes physically or psychologically dependent on the 74778
substance, intoxicant, or drug or endangers the user's health, 74779
safety, or welfare or that of others.74780

       (2) "Mental illness" means a recognized psychiatric or 74781
psychological condition, disorder, or syndrome that has been 74782
diagnosed by a psychiatrist, psychologist, professional clinical 74783
counselor, or independent social worker as a condition, disorder, 74784
or syndrome that may pose a danger to the person diagnosed or 74785
others or may prevent the person from practicing the person's 74786
profession according to acceptable and prevailing standards of 74787
care.74788

       (B) The state chiropractic board shall establish a chemical 74789
dependency and mental illness monitoring program. The program 74790
shall be made available to any individual under the board's 74791
jurisdiction who has a chemical dependency or mental illness and 74792
meets the board's eligibility requirements for admission to and 74793
continued participation in the program. The board shall develop 74794
the program and may designate a coordinator to administer it or 74795
enter into a contract for the program to be administered by 74796
another entity through a coordinator. The board shall adopt rules 74797
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code that establish 74798
standards and procedure for operating the program.74799

       (C) Except as provided in division (D) of this section, all 74800
records of an individual's participation in the monitoring 74801
program, including medical records, chemical dependency records, 74802
and mental health records, shall be confidential, are not public 74803
records for the purposes of section 149.43 of the Revised Code, 74804
and are not subject to discovery by subpoena or admissble74805
admissible as evidence in any judicial proceeding. The program 74806
coordinator shall maintain all records as directed by the board.74807

       (D) The monitoring program's coordinator may disclose records 74808
or information regarding an individual's progress and status of 74809
participation in the program to the disciplinary section of the 74810
board and to any person or government entity that the program 74811
participant authorizes in writing to be given the records or 74812
information.74813

       In disclosing records or information under this division, the 74814
coordinator shall not include any record or information that is 74815
protected under section 3793.135119.27 of the Revised Code or any 74816
federal statute or regulation that provides for the 74817
confidentiality of mental health or substance abuse records.74818

       (E) In the absence of fraud or bad faith, the monitoring 74819
program's coordinator, the board and the board's employees and 74820
representatives are not liable for damages in any civil action as 74821
a result of disclosing records or information in accordance with 74822
division (D) of this section. In the absence of fraud or bad 74823
faith, any person reporting to the program an individual's 74824
chemical dependency or mental illness, or the progress or lack of 74825
progress of that individual with regard to treatment, is not 74826
liable for damages in any civil action as a result of the report.74827

       (F) The board may abstain from taking formal disciplinary 74828
action under section 4734.31 of the Revised Code against an 74829
individual because of the individual's chemical dependency or 74830
mental illness, if the individual meets the eligibility 74831
requirements for admission into the monitoring program and all of 74832
the following occur:74833

       (1) The individual enters into a monitoring agreement with 74834
the coordinator of the program;74835

       (2) The individual complies with the terms and conditions for 74836
continued participation in the program, as specified in the 74837
monitoring agreement;74838

       (3) The individual successfully completes the terms and 74839
conditions of the monitoring agreement, including the condition 74840
that the individual attain the ability to practice in accordance 74841
with acceptable and prevailing standards of care applicable to the 74842
practice of chiropractic.74843

       Sec. 4745.01.  (A) "Standard renewal procedure," as used in 74844
Chapters 905., 907., 909., 911., 913., 915., 918., 921., 923., 74845
927., 942., 943., 953., 1321., 3710., 3713., 3719., 3742., 3748., 74846
3769., 3783., 3921., 3951., 4104., 4105., 4143., 4169., 4561., 74847
4703., 4707., 4709., 4713., 4715., 4717., 4723., 4725., 4727., 74848
4728., 4729., 4731., 4733., 4734., 4735., 4739., 4741., 4747., 74849
4749., 4752., 4753., 4755., 4757., 4758., 4759., 4761., 4766., 74850
4773., and 4775. of the Revised Code, means the license renewal 74851
procedures specified in this chapter.74852

       (B) "Licensing agency," as used in this chapter, means any 74853
department, division, board, section of a board, or other state 74854
governmental unit subject to the standard renewal procedure, as 74855
defined in this section, and authorized by the Revised Code to 74856
issue a license to engage in a specific profession, occupation, or 74857
occupational activity, or to have charge of and operate certain 74858
specified equipment, machinery, or premises.74859

       (C) "License," as used in this chapter, means a license, 74860
certificate, permit, card, or other authority issued or conferred 74861
by a licensing agency by authority of which the licensee has or 74862
claims the privilege to engage in the profession, occupation, or 74863
occupational activity, or to have control of and operate certain 74864
specific equipment, machinery, or premises, over which the 74865
licensing agency has jurisdiction.74866

       (D) "Licensee," as used in this chapter, means either the 74867
person to whom the license is issued or renewed by a licensing 74868
agency, or the person, partnership, or corporation at whose 74869
request the license is issued or renewed.74870

       (E) "Renewal" and "renewed," as used in this chapter and in 74871
the chapters of the Revised Code specified in division (A) of this 74872
section, includes the continuing licensing procedure provided in 74873
Chapter 3748. of the Revised Code and rules adopted under it and 74874
in sections 1321.05 and 3921.33 of the Revised Code, and as 74875
applied to those continuing licenses any reference in this chapter 74876
to the date of expiration of any license shall be construed to 74877
mean the due date of the annual or other fee for the continuing 74878
license.74879

       Sec. 4751.01.  As used in sections 4751.01 to 4751.114751.1374880
of the Revised Code:74881

       (A) "Long-term services and supports settings" means any 74882
institutional or community-based setting in which medical, health, 74883
psycho-social, habilitative, rehabilitative, or personal care 74884
services are provided to individuals on a post-acute care basis.74885

       (B) "Nursing home administrator" means any individual 74886
responsible for planning, organizing, directing, and managing the 74887
operation of a nursing home, or who in fact performs such 74888
function, whether or not such functions and duties are shared by 74889
one or more other persons.74890

       (B)(C) "Nursing home" means a nursing home as defined by or 74891
under the authority of section 3721.01 of the Revised Code, or a 74892
nursing home operated by a governmental agency.74893

       (C)(D) "Temporary license" means a license for a period not 74894
to exceed one hundred eighty days issued pursuant to division (B) 74895
of section 4751.06 of the Revised Code.74896

       (D)(E) "Valid license" means a license which is current and 74897
in good standing.74898

       Sec. 4751.02.  (A) No person shall operate a nursing home 74899
unless it is under the supervision of an administrator whose 74900
principal occupation is nursing home administration or hospital 74901
administration and who holds a valid nursing home administrator's 74902
license and registration, or a temporary license, issued pursuant 74903
to Chapter 4751. of the Revised Code.74904

       (B) No person other than a licensed and registered nursing 74905
home administrator or person holding a temporary license as 74906
required by Chapter 4751. of the Revised Code shall practice or 74907
offer to practice nursing home administration in this state. All 74908
nursing home administrators and temporary licensees shall comply 74909
with Chapter 4751. of the Revised Code and the regulations adopted 74910
thereunder.74911

       (C) Every operator of a nursing home shall report to the 74912
board of examinersexecutives of nursing home administrators74913
long-term services and supports the name and license number of 74914
each nursing home administrator for said home within ten days 74915
after the operator engages a nursing home administrator, and 74916
within ten days after a nursing home administrator is no longer 74917
engaged as such by such operator for said home.74918

       (D) Each individual who holds a nursing home administrator 74919
license or temporary license shall report histhe individual's74920
residence mailing address and the name and address of each place 74921
of employment to the board within ten days after any change.74922

       Sec. 4751.03.  (A) There is hereby established in the 74923
department of healthaging a board of examinersexecutives of 74924
nursing home administratorslong-term services and supports, which 74925
board shall be composed of ninethe following eleven members, 74926
eight of whom shall be representative of the professions and 74927
institutions concerned with care and treatment of chronically ill 74928
or infirm aged patients, and one of whom shall be a public member 74929
at least sixty years of age, provided that less than a majority of 74930
the board members shall be representative of a single profession 74931
or institutional category, and provided further that a person 74932
appointed as a noninstitutional member shall neither have nor 74933
acquire any direct financial interest in a nursing home. For 74934
purposes of this section, nursing home administrators are 74935
considered representatives of institutions.74936

       Four members shall be nursing home administrators, owners of 74937
nursing homes or an officer of a corporation owning a nursing 74938
home. The director of health or his designated representative 74939
shall be a member. All:74940

       (1) Four members who are nursing home administrators, owners 74941
of nursing homes, or officers of corporations owning nursing 74942
homes, and who shall have an understanding of person-centered 74943
care, and experience with a range of long-term services and 74944
supports settings;74945

       (2)(a) Three members who work in long-term services and 74946
supports settings that are not nursing homes, and who shall have 74947
an understanding of person-centered care, and experience with a 74948
range of long-term services and supports settings;74949

       (b) At least one of the members described in division 74950
(A)(2)(a) of this section shall be a home health administrator, an 74951
owner of a home health agency, or an officer of a home health 74952
agency.74953

       (3) One member who is a member of the academic community;74954

       (4) One member who is a consumer of services offered in a 74955
long-term services and supports setting;74956

       (5) One member who is a representative of the department of 74957
health, designated by the director of health, who is involved in 74958
the nursing home survey and certification process;74959

       (6) One member who is a representative of the office of the 74960
state long-term care, designated by the state long-term care 74961
ombudsman.74962

       All members of the board shall be citizens of the United 74963
States and residents of this state. No member of the board who is 74964
appointed under divisions (A)(3) to (6) of this section may have 74965
or acquire any direct financial interest in a nursing home or 74966
long-term services and supports settings.74967

       (B) The term of office for each appointed member of the board 74968
shall be for three years, commencing on the twenty-eighth day of 74969
May and ending on the twenty-seventh day of May. Each member shall 74970
serve from the date of his appointment until the end of the term 74971
for which he was appointed. No member shall serve more than two 74972
consecutive full terms.74973

       (C) Appointments to the board shall be made by the governor. 74974
Any member appointed to fill a vacancy occurring prior to the 74975
expiration of the term for which histhe member's predecessor was 74976
appointed shall hold office for the remainder of such term. Any 74977
appointed member shall continue in office subsequent to the 74978
expiration date of histhe member's term until histhe member's74979
successor takes office, or until a period of sixty days has 74980
elapsed, whichever occurs first.74981

       (D) The governor may remove any member of the board for 74982
misconduct, incapacity, incompetence, or neglect of duty after the 74983
member so charged has been served with a written statement of 74984
charges and has been given an opportunity to be heard.74985

       (E) Each member of the board, except the member designated by 74986
the director of health or hisand the member designated 74987
representativeby the ombudsman, shall be paid in accordance with 74988
section 124.15 of the Revised Code and each member shall be 74989
reimbursed for histhe member's actual and necessary expenses 74990
incurred in the discharge of such duties.74991

       (F) The board shall elect annually from its membership a74992
chairmanchairperson and a vice-chairmanvice-chairperson.74993

       (G) The board shall hold and conduct meetings quarterly and 74994
at such other times as its business requires. A majority of the 74995
board shall constitute a quorum. The affirmative vote of a 74996
majority of the members of the board is necessary for the board to 74997
act.74998

       (H) The board shall appoint a secretary who has no financial 74999
interest in a nursing homelong-term services and supports 75000
setting, and may employ and prescribe the powers and duties of 75001
such employees and consultants as are necessary to carry out this 75002
chapter and the rules adopted under it. Administrative, technical, 75003
or other services shall be performed, insofar as practicable, by 75004
personnel of the department of health.75005

       Sec. 4751.04.  (A) The board of examinersexecutives of 75006
nursing home administratorslong-term services and supports shall:75007

       (1) Develop, adopt, impose, and enforce regulations 75008
prescribing standards which must be met by individuals in order to 75009
receive a license as a nursing home administrator, which standards 75010
shall be designed to ensure that nursing home administrators are 75011
of good character and are otherwise suitable, and who, by training 75012
and experience, are qualified to serve as nursing home 75013
administrators;75014

       (2) Develop and apply appropriate techniques, including 75015
examinations and investigations, for determining whether an 75016
individual meets such standards;75017

       (3) Issue licenses and registrations to individuals 75018
determined, after application of such techniques, to meet such 75019
standards, and revoke or suspend licenses or registrations 75020
previously issued by the board in any case where the individual 75021
holding such license or registration is determined to have failed 75022
substantially to conform to the requirements of such standards;75023

       (4) Develop, adopt, impose, and enforce regulations and 75024
procedures designed to ensure that individuals holding a temporary 75025
license, or licensed as nursing home administrators will, during 75026
any period that they serve as such, comply with Chapter 4751. of 75027
the Revised Code and the regulations adopted thereunder;75028

       (5) Receive, investigate, and take appropriate action with 75029
respect to any charge or complaint filed with the board to the 75030
effect that any individual licensed as a nursing home 75031
administrator has failed to comply with Chapter 4751. of the 75032
Revised Code and the regulations adopted thereunder;75033

       (6) Take such other actions as may be necessary to enable the 75034
state to meet the requirements set forth in the "Social Security 75035
Amendments of 1967," 81 Stat. 908 (1968), 42 U.S.C. 1396 g;75036

       (7) Pay all license and registration fees collected under 75037
Chapter 4751. of the Revised Code into the general operations75038
board of executives of long-term services and support fund created 75039
by section 3701.834751.14 of the Revised Code to be used in 75040
administering and enforcing this chapter and the rules adopted 75041
under it;75042

       (8) Administer, or contract with a government or private 75043
entity to administer, examinations for licensure as a nursing home 75044
administrator. If the board contracts with a government or private 75045
entity to administer the examinations, the contract may authorize 75046
the entity to collect and keep, as all or part of the entity's 75047
compensation under the contract, any fee an applicant for 75048
licensure pays to take an examination. The entity is not required 75049
to deposit the fee into the state treasury;75050

       (9) Enter into a contract with the department of aging as 75051
required under section 4751.042 of the Revised Code;75052

       (10) Create opportunities for the education, training, and 75053
credentialing of nursing home administrators and others in 75054
leadership positions who practice in long-term services and 75055
supports settings or who direct the practices of others in those 75056
settings. In carrying out this function, the board shall do the 75057
following:75058

       (a) Identify core competencies and areas of knowledge that 75059
are appropriate for nursing home administrators and others working 75060
within the long-term services and supports settings system, with 75061
an emphasis on all of the following:75062

       (i) Leadership;75063

       (ii) Person-centered care;75064

       (iii) Principles of management within both the business and 75065
regulatory environments;75066

       (iv) An understanding of all post-acute settings, including 75067
transitions from acute settings and between post-acute settings.75068

       (b) Assist in the development of a strong, competitive market 75069
in Ohio for training, continuing education, and degree programs in 75070
long-term services and supports settings administration.75071

       (B) In the administration and enforcement of Chapter 4751. of 75072
the Revised Code, and the regulations adopted thereunder, the 75073
board is subject to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code and sections 75074
4743.01 and 4743.02 of the Revised Code except that a notice of 75075
appeal of an order of the board adopting, amending, or rescinding 75076
a rule or regulation does not operate as a stay of the effective 75077
date of such order as provided in section 119.11 of the Revised 75078
Code. The court, at its discretion, may grant a stay of any 75079
regulation in its application against the person filing the notice 75080
of appeal.75081

       Sec. 4751.041.  Except when the board of examinersexecutives75082
of nursing home administratorslong-term services and supports75083
considers it necessary, the board shall not disclose test 75084
materials, examinations, or evaluation tools used in an 75085
examination for licensure as a nursing home administrator that the 75086
board administers under section 4751.04 of the Revised Code or 75087
contracts under that section with a private or government entity 75088
to administer.75089

       Sec. 4751.042.  (A) The board of executives of long-term 75090
services and supports shall enter into a written agreement with 75091
the department of aging for the department to serve as the board's 75092
fiscal agent. The fiscal agent shall be responsible for all the 75093
board's fiscal matters and financial transactions, as specified in 75094
the agreement. The written agreement shall specify the fees that 75095
the board shall pay to the fiscal agent for services performed 75096
under the agreement, and such fees shall be in proportion to the 75097
services performed for the board.75098

       (1) The agreement shall require the fiscal agent to provide 75099
the following services:75100

       (a) Preparation and processing of payroll and other personnel 75101
documents that the board approves;75102

       (b) Maintenance of ledgers of accounts and reports of account 75103
balances, and monitoring of budgets and allotment plans in 75104
consultation with the board;75105

       (c) Performance of other routine support services, specified 75106
in the agreement, that the fiscal agent considers appropriate to 75107
achieve efficiency.75108

       (2) The agreement may require the fiscal agent to provide the 75109
following services:75110

       (a) Any shared services between the board and the fiscal 75111
agent;75112

       (b) Any other services agreed to by the board and the 75113
department, including administrative or technical services.75114

       (B) The board, in conjunction and consultation with the 75115
fiscal agent, has the following authority and responsibility 75116
relative to fiscal matters:75117

       (1) Sole authority to expend funds from the board's accounts 75118
for programs and any other necessary expenses the board may incur;75119

       (2) Responsibility to cooperate with and inform the fiscal 75120
agent fully of all financial transactions.75121

       (C) The board shall follow all state procurement, fiscal, 75122
human resources, information technology, statutory, and 75123
administrative rule requirements.75124

       (D) In its role as fiscal agent for the board, the department 75125
shall serve as a contractor of the board, and does not assume 75126
responsibility for the debts or fiscal obligations of the board.75127

       Sec. 4751.05.  (A) The board of examinersexecutives of 75128
nursing home administratorslong-term services and supports, or a 75129
government or private entity under contract with the board to 75130
administer examinations for licensure as a nursing home 75131
administrator, shall admit to an examination any candidate who:75132

       (1) Pays the application fee of fifty dollars;75133

       (2) Submits evidence of good moral character and suitability;75134

       (3) Is at least eighteen years of age;75135

       (4) Has completed educational requirements and work 75136
experience satisfactory to the board;75137

       (5) Submits an application on forms prescribed by the board;75138

       (6) Pays the examination fee charged by the board or 75139
government or private entity.75140

       (B) Nothing in Chapter 4751. of the Revised Code or the rules 75141
adopted thereunder shall be construed to require an applicant for 75142
licensure or a temporary license, who is employed by an 75143
institution for the care and treatment of the sick to demonstrate 75144
proficiency in any medical techniques or to meet any medical 75145
educational qualifications or medical standards not in accord with 75146
the remedial care and treatment provided by the institution if the 75147
institution is all of the following:75148

       (1) Operated exclusively for patients who use spiritual means 75149
for healing and for whom the acceptance of medical care is 75150
inconsistent with their religious beliefs;75151

       (2) Accredited by a national accrediting organization;75152

       (3) Exempt from federal income taxation under section 501 of 75153
the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, 100 Stat. 2085, 26 U.S.C.A. 1, 75154
as amended;75155

       (4) Providing twenty-four hour nursing care pursuant to the 75156
exemption in division (E) of section 4723.32 of the Revised Code 75157
from the licensing requirements of Chapter 4723. of the Revised 75158
Code.75159

       (C) If a person fails three times to attain a passing grade 75160
on the examination, said person, before the person may again be 75161
admitted to examination, shall meet such additional education or 75162
experience requirements, or both, as may be prescribed by the 75163
board.75164

       Sec. 4751.06.  (A) An applicant for licensure as a nursing 75165
home administrator who has successfully completed the requirements 75166
of section 4751.05 of the Revised Code, passed the examination 75167
administered by the board of examinersexecutives of nursing home 75168
administratorslong-term services and supports or a government or 75169
private entity under contract with the board, and paid to the 75170
board an original license fee of two hundred fifty dollars shall 75171
be issued a license on a form provided by the board. Such license 75172
shall certify that the applicant has met the licensure 75173
requirements of Chapter 4751. of the Revised Code and is entitled 75174
to practice as a licensed nursing home administrator.75175

       (B) A temporary license for a period not to exceed one 75176
hundred eighty days may be issued to an individual temporarily 75177
filling the position of a nursing home administrator vacated by 75178
reason of death, illness, or other unexpected cause, pursuant to 75179
regulations adopted by the board.75180

       (C) The fee for a temporary license is one hundred dollars. 75181
Said fee must accompany the application for the temporary license.75182

       (D) Any license or temporary license issued by the board 75183
pursuant to this section shall be under the hand of the 75184
chairperson and the secretary of the board.75185

       (E) A duplicate of the original certificate of registration 75186
or license may be secured to replace one that has been lost or 75187
destroyed by submitting to the board a notarized statement 75188
explaining the conditions of the loss, mutilation, or destruction 75189
of the certificate or license and by paying a fee of twenty-five 75190
dollars.75191

       (F) A duplicate certificate of registration and license may 75192
be issued in the event of a legal change of name by submitting to 75193
the board a certified copy of the court order or marriage license 75194
establishing the change of name, by returning at the same time the 75195
original license and certificate of registration, and by paying a 75196
fee of twenty-five dollars.75197

       Sec. 4751.07.  (A) Every individual who holds a valid license 75198
as a nursing home administrator issued under division (A) of 75199
section 4751.06 of the Revised Code, shall immediately upon 75200
issuance thereof be registered with the board of examiners75201
executives of nursing home administratorslong-term services and 75202
supports and be issued a certificate of registration. Such 75203
individual shall annually apply to the board for a new certificate 75204
of registration on forms provided for such purpose prior to the 75205
expiration of the certificate of registration and shall at the 75206
same time submit satisfactory evidence to the board of having 75207
attended such continuing education programs or courses of study as 75208
may be prescribed in rules adopted by the board.75209

       (B) Upon making an application for a new certificate of 75210
registration such individual shall pay the annual registration fee 75211
of three hundred dollars.75212

       (C) Upon receipt of such application for registration and the 75213
registration fee required by divisions (A) and (B) of this 75214
section, the board shall issue a certificate of registration to 75215
such nursing home administrator.75216

       (D) The license of a nursing home administrator who fails to 75217
comply with this section shall automatically lapse.75218

       (E) A nursing home administrator who has been licensed and 75219
registered in this state who determines to temporarily abandon the 75220
practice of nursing home administration shall notify the board in 75221
writing immediately; provided, that such individual may thereafter 75222
register to resume the practice of nursing home administration 75223
within the state upon complying with the requirements of this 75224
section regarding annual registration.75225

       (F) Only an individual who has qualified as a licensed and 75226
registered nursing home administrator under Chapter 4751. of the 75227
Revised Code and the rules adopted thereunder, and who holds a 75228
valid current registration certificate pursuant to this section, 75229
may use the title "nursing home administrator," or the 75230
abbreviation "N.H.A." after the individual's name. No other person 75231
shall use such title or such abbreviation or any other words, 75232
letters, sign, card, or device tending to indicate or to imply 75233
that the person is a licensed and registered nursing home 75234
administrator.75235

       (G) Every person holding a valid license entitling the person 75236
to practice nursing home administration in this state shall 75237
display said license in the nursing home which is the person's 75238
principal place of employment, and while engaged in the practice 75239
of nursing home administration shall have at hand the current 75240
registration certificate.75241

       (H) Every person holding a valid temporary license shall have 75242
such license at hand while engaged in the practice of nursing home 75243
administration.75244

       Sec. 4751.08.  The board of examinersexecutives of nursing 75245
home administratorslong-term services and supports, in its 75246
discretion, and otherwise subject to Chapter 4751. of the Revised 75247
Code and the rules adopted by the board thereunder prescribing the 75248
qualifications for a nursing home administrator license, may 75249
license a nursing home administrator without examination if hethe 75250
nursing home administrator has a valid license issued by the 75251
proper authorities of any other state, upon payment of a fee of 75252
one hundred fifty dollars, and upon submission of evidence 75253
satisfactory to the board both:75254

       (A) That such other state maintained a system and standard of 75255
qualifications and examinations for a nursing home administrator 75256
license which were substantially equivalent to those required in 75257
this state at the time such other license was issued by such other 75258
state;75259

       (B) That such other state gives similar recognition to 75260
nursing home administrators licensed in this state.75261

       Sec. 4751.10.  The license or registration, or both, or the 75262
temporary license of any person practicing or offering to practice 75263
nursing home administration, shall be revoked or suspended by the 75264
board of examinersexecutives of nursing home administrators75265
long-term services and supports if such licensee or temporary 75266
licensee:75267

       (A) Is unfit or incompetent by reason of negligence, habits, 75268
or other causes;75269

       (B) Has willfully or repeatedly violated any of the 75270
provisions of Chapter 4751. of the Revised Code or the regulations 75271
adopted thereunder; or willfully or repeatedly acted in a manner 75272
inconsistent with the health and safety of the patients of the 75273
nursing home in which hethe licensee or temporary licensee is the 75274
administrator;75275

       (C) Is guilty of fraud or deceit in the practice of nursing 75276
home administration or in histhe licensee's or temporary 75277
licensee's admission to such practice;75278

       (D) Has been convicted in a court of competent jurisdiction, 75279
either within or without this state, of a felony.75280

       Proceedings under this section shall be instituted by the 75281
board or shall be begun by filing with the board charges in 75282
writing and under oath.75283

       Sec. 4751.11.  (A) The board of examinersexecutives of 75284
nursing home administratorslong-term services and supports may, 75285
in its discretion, reissue a license or registration, or both, to 75286
any person whose license or registration, or both, has been 75287
revoked.75288

       (B) Application for the reissuance of a license or 75289
registration, or both, shall not be made prior to one year after 75290
revocation and shall be made in such manner as the board may 75291
direct.75292

       (C) If a person convicted of a felony is subsequently 75293
pardoned by the governor of the state where such conviction was 75294
had or by the president of the United States, or receives a final 75295
release granted by the adult parole authority of this state or its 75296
equivalent agency of another state, the board may, in its 75297
discretion, on application of such person and on the submission of 75298
evidence satisfactory to the board restore to such person the 75299
nursing home administrator's license or registration, or both.75300

       Sec. 4751.12.  On receipt of a notice pursuant to section 75301
3123.43 of the Revised Code, the board of examinersexecutives of75302
nursing home administratorslong-term services and supports shall 75303
comply with sections 3123.41 to 3123.50 of the Revised Code and 75304
any applicable rules adopted under section 3123.63 of the Revised 75305
Code with respect to a license issued pursuant to this chapter.75306

       Sec. 4751.13.  The board of examinersexecutives of nursing 75307
home administratorslong-term services and supports shall comply 75308
with section 4776.20 of the Revised Code.75309

       Sec. 4751.14.  There is hereby created in the state treasury 75310
the board of executives of long-term services and supports fund. 75311
The fund shall consist of license and registration fees collected 75312
under this chapter. Money in the fund shall be used by the board 75313
of executives of long-term services and supports to administer and 75314
enforce this chapter and the rules adopted under it. Investment 75315
earnings of the fund shall be credited to the fund.75316

       Sec. 4753.071.  A person who is required to meet the 75317
supervised professional experience requirement of division (F) of 75318
section 4753.06 of the Revised Code shall submit to the board of 75319
speech-language pathology and audiology an application for a 75320
conditional license. The application shall include a plan for the 75321
content of the supervised professional experience on a form the 75322
board shall prescribe. The board shall issue the conditional 75323
license to the applicant if the applicant meets the requirements 75324
of section 4753.06 of the Revised Code, other than the requirement 75325
to have obtained the supervised professional experience, and pays 75326
to the board the appropriate fee for a conditional license. An 75327
applicant may not begin employment until the conditional license 75328
has been issued.75329

       A conditional license authorizes an individual to practice 75330
speech-language pathology or audiology while completing the 75331
supervised professional experience as required by division (F) of 75332
section 4753.06 of the Revised Code. A person holding a 75333
conditional license may practice speech-language pathology or 75334
audiology while working under the supervision of a person fully 75335
licensed in accordance with this chapter. A conditional license is 75336
valid for eighteen months unless suspended or revoked pursuant to 75337
section 3123.47 or 4753.10 of the Revised Code.75338

       A person holding a conditional license may perform services 75339
for which reimbursementpayment will be sought under the medicare 75340
program established under Title XVIII of the "Social Security 75341
Act," 79 Stat. 286 (1965), 42 U.S.C. 1395, as amended, or the 75342
medicaid program established under Chapter 5111. of the Revised 75343
Code but all requests for reimbursementpayment for such services 75344
shall be made by the person who supervises the person performing 75345
the services.75346

       Sec. 4755.481. (A) If a physical therapist evaluates and 75347
treats a patient without the prescription of, or the referral of 75348
the patient by, a person described in division (G)(1) of section 75349
4755.48 of the Revised Code, all of the following apply:75350

       (1) The physical therapist shall, upon consent of the 75351
patient, inform the relevant person described in division (G)(1) 75352
of section 4755.48 of the Revised Code of the evaluation not later 75353
than five business days after the evaluation is made.75354

        (2) If the physical therapist determines, based on reasonable 75355
evidence, that no substantial progress has been made with respect 75356
to that patient during the thirty-day period immediately following 75357
the date of the patient's initial visit with the physical 75358
therapist, the physical therapist shall consult with or refer the 75359
patient to a person described in division (G)(1) of section 75360
4755.48 of the Revised Code, unless either of the following 75361
applies:75362

        (a) The evaluation, treatment, or services are being provided 75363
for fitness, wellness, or prevention purposes.75364

        (b) The patient previously was diagnosed with chronic, 75365
neuromuscular, or developmental conditions and the evaluation, 75366
treatment, or services are being provided for problems or symptoms 75367
associated with one or more of those previously diagnosed 75368
conditions.75369

        (3) If the physical therapist determines that orthotic 75370
devices are necessary to treat the patient, the physical therapist 75371
shall be limited to the application of the following orthotic 75372
devices:75373

        (a) Upper extremity adaptive equipment used to facilitate the 75374
activities of daily living;75375

        (b) Finger splints;75376

        (c) Wrist splints;75377

        (d) Prefabricated elastic or fabric abdominal supports with 75378
or without metal or plastic reinforcing stays and other 75379
prefabricated soft goods requiring minimal fitting;75380

        (e) Nontherapeutic accommodative inlays;75381

        (f) Shoes that are not manufactured or modified for a 75382
particular individual;75383

        (g) Prefabricated foot care products;75384

       (h) Custom foot orthotics;75385

        (i) Durable medical equipment.75386

        (4) If, at any time, the physical therapist has reason to 75387
believe that the patient has symptoms or conditions that require 75388
treatment or services beyond the scope of practice of a physical 75389
therapist, the physical therapist shall refer the patient to a 75390
licensed health care practitioner acting within the practitioner's 75391
scope of practice.75392

        (B) Nothing in sections 4755.40 to 4755.56 of the Revised 75393
Code shall be construed to require reimbursement under any health 75394
insuring corporation policy, contract, or agreement, any sickness 75395
and accident insurance policy, the medical assistancemedicaid75396
program as defined in section 5111.01 of the Revised Code, or the 75397
health partnership program or qualified health plans established 75398
pursuant to sections 4121.44 to 4121.442 of the Revised Code, for 75399
any physical therapy service rendered without the prescription of, 75400
or the referral of the patient by, a person described in division 75401
(G)(1) of section 4755.48 of the Revised Code.75402

       (C) For purposes of this section, "business day" means any 75403
calendar day that is not a Saturday, Sunday, or legal holiday. 75404
"Legal holiday" has the same meaning as in section 1.14 of the 75405
Revised Code.75406

       Sec. 4758.10. (A) There is hereby created the chemical 75407
dependency professionals board.75408

       (B) The governor shall appoint all of the following voting 75409
members of the board with the advice and consent of the senate:75410

       (1) Four individuals who hold a valid independent chemical 75411
dependency counselor-clinical supervisor license or independent 75412
chemical dependency counselor license issued under this chapter, 75413
including at least two of whom have received at least a master's 75414
degree in a field related to chemical dependency counseling from 75415
an accredited educational institution;75416

       (2) Two individuals who hold a valid chemical dependency 75417
counselor III license issued under this chapter;75418

       (3) One individual who holds a valid chemical dependency 75419
counselor II license issued under this chapter;75420

       (4) Two individuals who hold a valid prevention specialist II 75421
certificate or prevention specialist I certificate issued under 75422
this chapter;75423

       (5) One individual who is authorized under Chapter 4731. of 75424
the Revised Code to practice medicine and surgery or osteopathic 75425
medicine and surgery and has experience practicing in a field 75426
related to chemical dependency counseling;75427

       (6) Two individuals who represent the public and have not 75428
practiced chemical dependency counseling or alcohol and other drug 75429
prevention services and have not been involved in the delivery of 75430
chemical dependency counseling services or alcohol and other drug 75431
prevention services. At least one of these individuals shall be at 75432
least sixtyfifty years of age. During their terms, the public 75433
members shall not practice chemical dependency counseling or 75434
alcohol and other drug prevention services or be involved in the 75435
delivery of chemical dependency counseling services or alcohol and 75436
other drug prevention services.75437

       (C) Not later than ninety days after December 23, 2002, the 75438
director of alcohol and drug addiction servicesmental health and 75439
addiction services shall appoint an individual who represents the 75440
department of alcohol and drug addiction servicesmental health 75441
and addiction services to serve as an ex officio member of the 75442
chemical dependency professionals board.75443

       (D) Not more than one-half of the voting members of the board 75444
may be of the same gender or members of the same political party. 75445
At least two voting members of the board shall be of African, 75446
Native American, Hispanic, or Asian descent.75447

       Sec. 4758.11. Of the initial appointees to the chemical 75448
dependency professionals board appointed by the governor under 75449
division (B) of section 4758.10 of the Revised Code, four shall be 75450
appointed for terms ending one year after the effective date of 75451
this sectionDecember 23, 2002, four shall be appointed for terms 75452
ending two years after the effective date of this sectionDecember 75453
23, 2002, and four shall be appointed for terms ending three years 75454
after the effective date of this sectionDecember 23, 2002. After 75455
the initial appointments, terms of office shall be three years, 75456
each term ending on the same day of the same month of the year as 75457
the term it succeeds.75458

       A voting member of the board shall hold office from the date 75459
of appointment until the end of the term for which the member was 75460
appointed. A voting member appointed to fill a vacancy occurring 75461
prior to the expiration of the term for which the member's 75462
predecessor was appointed shall hold office for the remainder of 75463
that term. A voting member shall continue in office after the 75464
expiration date of the member's term until the member's successor 75465
takes office or until a period of sixty days has elapsed, 75466
whichever occurs first. Voting members may be reappointed, except 75467
that an individual who has held office for two consecutive full 75468
terms shall not be reappointed sooner than one year after the 75469
expiration of the second full term.75470

       The ex officio member of the board appointed by the director 75471
of alcohol and drug addiction servicesmental health and addiction 75472
services under division (C) of section 4758.10 of the Revised Code 75473
shall serve at the pleasure of the director.75474

       Sec. 4761.01.  As used in this chapter:75475

       (A) "Respiratory care" means rendering or offering to render 75476
to individuals, groups, organizations, or the public any service 75477
involving the evaluation of cardiopulmonary function, the 75478
treatment of cardiopulmonary impairment, the assessment of 75479
treatment effectiveness, and the care of patients with 75480
deficiencies and abnormalities associated with the cardiopulmonary 75481
system. The practice of respiratory care includes:75482

       (1) Obtaining, analyzing, testing, measuring, and monitoring 75483
blood and gas samples in the determination of cardiopulmonary 75484
parameters and related physiologic data, including flows, 75485
pressures, and volumes, and the use of equipment employed for this 75486
purpose;75487

       (2) Administering, monitoring, recording the results of, and 75488
instructing in the use of medical gases, aerosols, and 75489
bronchopulmonary hygiene techniques, including drainage, 75490
aspiration, and sampling, and applying, maintaining, and 75491
instructing in the use of artificial airways, ventilators, and 75492
other life support equipment employed in the treatment of 75493
cardiopulmonary impairment and provided in collaboration with 75494
other licensed health care professionals responsible for providing 75495
care;75496

       (3) Performing cardiopulmonary resuscitation and respiratory 75497
rehabilitation techniques;75498

       (4) Administering medications for the testing or treatment of 75499
cardiopulmonary impairment.75500

       (B) "Respiratory care professional" means a person who is 75501
licensed under this chapter to practice the full range of 75502
respiratory care services as defined in division (A) of this 75503
section.75504

       (C) "Physician" means an individual authorized under Chapter 75505
4731. of the Revised Code to practice medicine and surgery or 75506
osteopathic medicine and surgery.75507

       (D) "Registered nurse" means an individual licensed under 75508
Chapter 4723. of the Revised Code to engage in the practice of 75509
nursing as a registered nurse.75510

       (E) "Hospital" means a facility that meets the operating 75511
standards of section 3727.02 of the Revised Code.75512

       (F) "Nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 75513
5111.205165.01 of the Revised Code.75514

       Sec. 4906.20. (A) No person shall commence to construct an 75515
economically significant wind farm in this state without first 75516
having obtained a certificate from the power siting board. An 75517
economically significant wind farm with respect to which such a 75518
certificate is required shall be constructed, operated, and 75519
maintained in conformity with that certificate and any terms, 75520
conditions, and modifications it contains. A certificate shall be 75521
issued only pursuant to this section. The certificate may be 75522
transferred, subject to the approval of the board, to a person 75523
that agrees to comply with those terms, conditions, and 75524
modifications.75525

       (B) The board shall adopt rules governing the certificating 75526
of economically significant wind farms under this section. Initial 75527
rules shall be adopted within one hundred twenty days after June 75528
24, 2008.75529

       (1) The rules shall provide for an application process for 75530
certificating economically significant wind farms that is 75531
identical to the extent practicable to the process applicable to 75532
certificating major utility facilities under sections 4906.06, 75533
4906.07, 4906.08, 4906.09, 4906.10, 4906.11, and 4906.12 of the 75534
Revised Code and shall prescribe a reasonable schedule of 75535
application filing fees structured in the manner of the schedule 75536
of filing fees required for major utility facilities.75537

       (2) Additionally, the rules shall prescribe reasonable 75538
regulations regarding any wind turbines and associated facilities 75539
of an economically significant wind farm, including, but not 75540
limited to, their location, erection, construction, 75541
reconstruction, change, alteration, maintenance, removal, use, or 75542
enlargement and including erosion control, aesthetics, 75543
recreational land use, wildlife protection, interconnection with 75544
power lines and with regional transmission organizations, 75545
independent transmission system operators, or similar 75546
organizations, ice throw, sound and noise levels, blade shear, 75547
shadow flicker, decommissioning, and necessary cooperation for 75548
site visits and enforcement investigations. The rules also shall 75549
prescribe a minimum setback for a wind turbine of an economically 75550
significant wind farm. That minimum shall be equal to a horizontal 75551
distance, from the turbine's base to the property line of the wind 75552
farm property, equal to one and one-tenth times the total height 75553
of the turbine structure as measured from its base to the tip of 75554
its highest blade and be at least sevenone thousand two hundred 75555
fifty feet in horizontal distance from the tip of the turbine's 75556
nearest blade at ninety degrees to the exterior of the nearest, 75557
habitable, residential structure, if any, located on adjacent 75558
property at the time of the certification application. For a 75559
certification application filed before the effective date of the 75560
amendment of this section, including any amendment of that 75561
application filed on or after that effective date, the distance 75562
shall be seven hundred fifty feet instead of one thousand two 75563
hundred fifty feet. The setback shall apply in all cases except 75564
those in which all owners of property adjacent to the wind farm 75565
property waive application of the setback to that property 75566
pursuant to a procedure the board shall establish by rule and 75567
except in which, in a particular case, the board determines that a 75568
setback greater than the minimum is necessary.75569

       Sec. 5101.01. (A) As used in the Revised Code, the 75570
"department of public welfare" and the "department of human 75571
services" mean the department of job and family services and the 75572
"director of public welfare" and the "director of human services" 75573
mean the director of job and family services. WheneverExcept as 75574
provided in section 5160.011 of the Revised Code, whenever the 75575
department or director of public welfare or the department or 75576
director of human services is referred to or designated in any 75577
statute, rule, contract, grant, or other document, the reference 75578
or designation shall be deemed to refer to the department or 75579
director of job and family services, as the case may be.75580

       (B) As used in this chapter:75581

        (1) References to a county department of job and family 75582
services include a joint county department of job and family 75583
services established under section 329.40 of the Revised Code.75584

        (2) References to a board of county commissioners include the 75585
board of directors of a joint county department of job and family 75586
services established under section 329.40 of the Revised Code.75587

       Sec. 5101.101.  (A) This section establishes the order of 75588
priority to be followed by the department of job and family 75589
services when distributing funds for the purpose of providing 75590
family planning services, including funds the department receives 75591
through Title XX of the "Social Security Act," 88 Stat. 2337 75592
(1974), 42 U.S.C. 1397, as amended, and funds the department 75593
receives through Title IV-A of the "Social Security Act," 110 75594
Stat. 2113 (1996), 42 U.S.C. 601, as amended, to be used for 75595
purposes of providing Title XX social services. This section does 75596
not apply to payments made under the medicaid program.75597

       (B) With respect to each period during which funds from a 75598
particular source are distributed for the purpose of providing 75599
family planning services, the department is subject to both of the 75600
following when distributing the funds to applicants seeking those 75601
funds:75602

       (1) Foremost priority shall be given to public entities that 75603
are operated by state or local government entities and that 75604
provide or are able to provide family planning services.75605

       (2) If any funds remain after the department distributes 75606
funds to public entities under division (B)(1) of this section, 75607
the department may distribute funds to nonpublic entities. If 75608
funds are distributed to nonpublic entities, the department shall 75609
distribute the funds in the following order of descending 75610
priority:75611

       (a) Nonpublic entities that are federally qualified health 75612
centers or federally qualified health center look-alikes, both as 75613
defined in section 3701.047 of the Revised Code, or community 75614
action agencies, as defined in section 122.66 of the Revised Code;75615

       (b) Nonpublic entities that provide comprehensive primary and 75616
preventive care services in addition to family planning services;75617

       (c) Nonpublic entities that provide family planning services, 75618
but do not provide comprehensive primary and preventive care 75619
services.75620

       Sec. 5101.11. This section does not apply to contracts 75621
entered into under section 5111.90 or 5111.91 of the Revised Code.75622

       (A) As used in this section:75623

       (1) "Entity" includes an agency, board, commission, or 75624
department of the state or a political subdivision of the state; a 75625
private, nonprofit entity; a school district; a private school; or 75626
a public or private institution of higher education.75627

       (2) "Federal financial participation" means the federal 75628
government's share of expenditures made by an entity in 75629
implementing a program administered by the department of job and 75630
family services.75631

       (B) At the request of any public entity having authority to 75632
implement a program administered by the department of job and 75633
family services or any private entity under contract with a public 75634
entity to implement a program administered by the department, the 75635
department may seek to obtain federal financial participation for 75636
costs incurred by the entity. Federal financial participation may 75637
be sought from programs operated pursuant to Title IV-A,of the 75638
"Social Security Act," 42 U.S.C. 601 et seq.; Title IV-E, and 75639
Title XIX of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 75640
U.S.C. 301, as amended670 et seq.; the Food and Nutrition Act of 75641
2008 (,7 U.S.C. 2011 et seq.); and any other statute or regulation 75642
under which federal financial participation may be available, 75643
except that federal financial participation may be sought only for 75644
expenditures made with funds for which federal financial 75645
participation is available under federal law.75646

       (C) All funds collected by the department of job and family 75647
services pursuant to division (B) of this section shall be 75648
distributed to the entities that incurred the costs, except for 75649
any amounts retained by the department pursuant to division (D)(3) 75650
of this section.75651

       (D) In distributing federal financial participation pursuant 75652
to this section, the department may either enter into an agreement 75653
with the entity that is to receive the funds or distribute the 75654
funds in accordance with rules adopted under division (F) of this 75655
section. If the department decides to enter into an agreement to 75656
distribute the funds, the agreement may include terms that do any 75657
of the following:75658

       (1) Provide for the whole or partial reimbursement of any 75659
cost incurred by the entity in implementing the program;75660

       (2) In the event that federal financial participation is 75661
disallowed or otherwise unavailable for any expenditure, require 75662
the department of job and family services or the entity, whichever 75663
party caused the disallowance or unavailability of federal 75664
financial participation, to assume responsibility for the 75665
expenditures;75666

       (3) Permit the department to retain not more than five per 75667
cent of the amount of the federal financial participation to be 75668
distributed to the entity;75669

       (4) Require the public entity to certify the availability of 75670
sufficient unencumbered funds to match the federal financial 75671
participation it receives under this section;75672

       (5) Establish the length of the agreement, which may be for a 75673
fixed or a continuing period of time;75674

       (6) Establish any other requirements determined by the 75675
department to be necessary for the efficient administration of the 75676
agreement.75677

       (E) An entity that receives federal financial participation 75678
pursuant to this section for a program aiding children and their 75679
families shall establish a process for collaborative planning with 75680
the department of job and family services for the use of the funds 75681
to improve and expand the program.75682

       (F) The director of job and family services shall adopt rules 75683
as necessary to implement this section, including rules for the 75684
distribution of federal financial participation pursuant to this 75685
section. The rules shall be adopted in accordance with Chapter 75686
119. of the Revised Code. The director may adopt or amend any 75687
statewide plan required by the federal government for a program 75688
administered by the department, as necessary to implement this 75689
section.75690

       (G) Federal financial participation received pursuant to this 75691
section shall not be included in any calculation made under 75692
section 5101.16 or 5101.161 of the Revised Code.75693

       Sec. 5101.141.  (A) As used in sections 5101.141 to 5101.1410 75694
of the Revised Code, "Title IV-E" means Title IV-E of the "Social 75695
Security Act," 94 Stat. 501, 42 U.S.C. 670 (1980), as amended.75696

       (B) The department of job and family services shall act as 75697
the single state agency to administer federal payments for foster 75698
care and adoption assistance made pursuant to Title IV-E. The 75699
director of job and family services shall adopt rules to implement 75700
this authority. Rules governing financial and administrative 75701
requirements applicable to public children services agencies and 75702
government entities that provide Title IV-E reimbursable placement 75703
services to children shall be adopted in accordance with section 75704
111.15 of the Revised Code, as if they were internal management 75705
rules. Rules governing requirements applicable to private child 75706
placing agencies and private noncustodial agencies and rules 75707
establishing eligibility, program participation, and other 75708
requirements concerning Title IV-E shall be adopted in accordance 75709
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. A public children services 75710
agency to which the department distributes Title IV-E funds shall 75711
administer the funds in accordance with those rules.75712

       (C)(1) The county, on behalf of each child eligible for 75713
foster care maintenance payments under Title IV-E, shall make 75714
payments to cover the cost of providing all of the following:75715

       (a) The child's food, clothing, shelter, daily supervision, 75716
and school supplies;75717

       (b) The child's personal incidentals;75718

       (c) Reasonable travel to the child's home for visitation.75719

       (2) In addition to payments made under division (C)(1) of 75720
this section, the county may, on behalf of each child eligible for 75721
foster care maintenance payments under Title IV-E, make payments 75722
to cover the cost of providing the following:75723

       (a) Liability insurance with respect to the child;75724

       (b) If the county is participating in the demonstration 75725
project established under division (A) of section 5101.142 of the 75726
Revised Code, services provided under the project.75727

       (3) With respect to a child who is in a child-care 75728
institution, including any type of group home designed for the 75729
care of children or any privately operated program consisting of 75730
two or more certified foster homes operated by a common 75731
administrative unit, the foster care maintenance payments made by 75732
the county on behalf of the child shall include the reasonable 75733
cost of the administration and operation of the institution, group 75734
home, or program, as necessary to provide the items described in 75735
divisions (C)(1) and (2) of this section.75736

       (D) To the extent that either foster care maintenance 75737
payments under division (C) of this section or Title IV-E adoption 75738
assistance payments for maintenance costs require the expenditure 75739
of county funds, the board of county commissioners shall report 75740
the nature and amount of each expenditure of county funds to the 75741
department.75742

       (E) The department shall distribute to public children 75743
services agencies that incur and report expenditures of the type 75744
described in division (D) of this section federal financial 75745
participation received for administrative and training costs 75746
incurred in the operation of foster care maintenance and adoption 75747
assistance programs. The department may withhold not more than 75748
three per cent of the federal financial participation received. 75749
The funds withheld may be used only to fund the following:75750

       (1) The Ohio child welfare training program established under 75751
section 5103.30 of the Revised Code;75752

       (2) The university partnership program for college and 75753
university students majoring in social work who have committed to 75754
work for a public children services agency upon graduation;75755

       (3) Efforts supporting organizational excellence, including 75756
voluntary activities to be accredited by a nationally recognized 75757
accreditation organization.75758

       The funds withheld shall be in addition to any administration 75759
and training cost for which the department is reimbursed through 75760
its own cost allocation plan.75761

       (F) All federal financial participation funds received by a 75762
county pursuant to this section shall be deposited into the 75763
county's children services fund created pursuant to section 75764
5101.144 of the Revised Code.75765

       (G) The department shall periodically publish and distribute 75766
the maximum amounts that the department will reimburse public 75767
children services agencies for making payments on behalf of 75768
children eligible for foster care maintenance payments.75769

       (H) The department, by and through its director, is hereby 75770
authorized to develop, participate in the development of, 75771
negotiate, and enter into one or more interstate compacts on 75772
behalf of this state with agencies of any other states, for the 75773
provision of medical assistance and other social services to 75774
children in relation to whom all of the following apply:75775

       (1) They have special needs.75776

       (2) This state or another state that is a party to the 75777
interstate compact is providing adoption assistance on their 75778
behalf.75779

       (3) They move into this state from another state or move out 75780
of this state to another state.75781

       Sec. 5101.16.  (A) As used in this section and sections 75782
5101.161 and 5101.162 of the Revised Code:75783

       (1) "Disability financial assistance" means the financial 75784
assistance program established under Chapter 5115. of the Revised 75785
Code.75786

       (2) "Supplemental nutrition assistance program" means the 75787
program administered by the department of job and family services 75788
pursuant to section 5101.54 of the Revised Code.75789

       (3) "Medicaid" means the medical assistance program 75790
established by Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code, excluding 75791
transportation services provided under that chapter.75792

       (4) "Ohio works first" means the program established by 75793
Chapter 5107. of the Revised Code.75794

       (5)(4) "Prevention, retention, and contingency" means the 75795
program established by Chapter 5108. of the Revised Code.75796

       (6)(5) "Public assistance expenditures" means expenditures 75797
for all of the following:75798

       (a) Ohio works first;75799

       (b) County administration of Ohio works first;75800

       (c) Prevention, retention, and contingency;75801

       (d) County administration of prevention, retention, and 75802
contingency;75803

       (e) Disability financial assistance;75804

       (f) County administration of disability financial assistance;75805

       (g) County administration of the supplemental nutrition 75806
assistance program;75807

       (h) County administration of medicaid, excluding 75808
administrative expenditures for transportation services covered by 75809
the medicaid program.75810

       (7) "Title IV-A program" has the same meaning as in section 75811
5101.80 of the Revised Code.75812

       (B) Each board of county commissioners shall pay the county 75813
share of public assistance expenditures in accordance with section 75814
5101.161 of the Revised Code. Except as provided in division (C) 75815
of this section, a county's share of public assistance 75816
expenditures is the sum of all of the following for state fiscal 75817
year 1998 and each state fiscal year thereafter:75818

       (1) The amount that is twenty-five per cent of the county's 75819
total expenditures for disability financial assistance and county 75820
administration of that program during the state fiscal year ending 75821
in the previous calendar year that the department of job and 75822
family services determines are allowable.75823

       (2) The amount that is ten per cent, or other percentage 75824
determined under division (D) of this section, of the county's 75825
total expenditures for county administration of the supplemental 75826
nutrition assistance program and medicaid (excluding 75827
administrative expenditures for transportation services covered by 75828
the medicaid program) during the state fiscal year ending in the 75829
previous calendar year that the department determines are 75830
allowable, less the amount of federal reimbursement credited to 75831
the county under division (E) of this section for the state fiscal 75832
year ending in the previous calendar year;75833

       (3) A percentage of the actual amount of the county share of 75834
program and administrative expenditures during federal fiscal year 75835
1994 for assistance and services, other than child care, provided 75836
under Titles IV-A and IV-F of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 75837
620 (1935), 42 U.S.C. 301, as those titles existed prior to the 75838
enactment of the "Personal Responsibility and Work Opportunity 75839
Reconciliation Act of 1996," 110 Stat. 2105. The department of job 75840
and family services shall determine the actual amount of the 75841
county share from expenditure reports submitted to the United 75842
States department of health and human services. The percentage 75843
shall be the percentage established in rules adopted under 75844
division (F) of this section.75845

       (C)(1) If a county's share of public assistance expenditures 75846
determined under division (B) of this section for a state fiscal 75847
year exceeds one hundred five per cent of the county's share for 75848
those expenditures for the immediately preceding state fiscal 75849
year, the department of job and family services shall reduce the 75850
county's share for expenditures under divisions (B)(1) and (2) of 75851
this section so that the total of the county's share for 75852
expenditures under division (B) of this section equals one hundred 75853
five per cent of the county's share of those expenditures for the 75854
immediately preceding state fiscal year.75855

       (2) A county's share of public assistance expenditures 75856
determined under division (B) of this section may be increased 75857
pursuant to section 5101.163 of the Revised Code and a sanction 75858
under section 5101.24 of the Revised Code. An increase made 75859
pursuant to section 5101.163 of the Revised Code may cause the 75860
county's share to exceed the limit established by division (C)(1) 75861
of this section.75862

       (D)(1) If the per capita tax duplicate of a county is less 75863
than the per capita tax duplicate of the state as a whole and 75864
division (D)(2) of this section does not apply to the county, the 75865
percentage to be used for the purpose of division (B)(2) of this 75866
section is the product of ten multiplied by a fraction of which 75867
the numerator is the per capita tax duplicate of the county and 75868
the denominator is the per capita tax duplicate of the state as a 75869
whole. The department of job and family services shall compute the 75870
per capita tax duplicate for the state and for each county by 75871
dividing the tax duplicate for the most recent available year by 75872
the current estimate of population prepared by the department of75873
development services agency.75874

       (2) If the percentage of families in a county with an annual 75875
income of less than three thousand dollars is greater than the 75876
percentage of such families in the state and division (D)(1) of 75877
this section does not apply to the county, the percentage to be 75878
used for the purpose of division (B)(2) of this section is the 75879
product of ten multiplied by a fraction of which the numerator is 75880
the percentage of families in the state with an annual income of 75881
less than three thousand dollars a year and the denominator is the 75882
percentage of such families in the county. The department of job 75883
and family services shall compute the percentage of families with 75884
an annual income of less than three thousand dollars for the state 75885
and for each county by multiplying the most recent estimate of 75886
such families published by the department of development services 75887
agency, by a fraction, the numerator of which is the estimate of 75888
average annual personal income published by the bureau of economic 75889
analysis of the United States department of commerce for the year 75890
on which the census estimate is based and the denominator of which 75891
is the most recent such estimate published by the bureau.75892

       (3) If the per capita tax duplicate of a county is less than 75893
the per capita tax duplicate of the state as a whole and the 75894
percentage of families in the county with an annual income of less 75895
than three thousand dollars is greater than the percentage of such 75896
families in the state, the percentage to be used for the purpose 75897
of division (B)(2) of this section shall be determined as follows:75898

       (a) Multiply ten by the fraction determined under division 75899
(D)(1) of this section;75900

       (b) Multiply the product determined under division (D)(3)(a) 75901
of this section by the fraction determined under division (D)(2) 75902
of this section.75903

       (4) The department of job and family services shall 75904
determine, for each county, the percentage to be used for the 75905
purpose of division (B)(2) of this section not later than the 75906
first day of July of the year preceding the state fiscal year for 75907
which the percentage is used.75908

       (E) The department of job and family services shall credit to 75909
a county the amount of federal reimbursement the department 75910
receives from the United States departments of agriculture and 75911
health and human services for the county's expenditures for 75912
administration of the supplemental nutrition assistance program 75913
and medicaid (excluding administrative expenditures for 75914
transportation services covered by the medicaid program) that the 75915
department determines are allowable administrative expenditures.75916

       (F)(1) The director of job and family services shall adopt 75917
rules in accordance with section 111.15 of the Revised Code to 75918
establish all of the following:75919

       (a) The method the department is to use to change a county's 75920
share of public assistance expenditures determined under division 75921
(B) of this section as provided in division (C) of this section;75922

       (b) The allocation methodology and formula the department 75923
will use to determine the amount of funds to credit to a county 75924
under this section;75925

       (c) The method the department will use to change the payment 75926
of the county share of public assistance expenditures from a 75927
calendar-year basis to a state fiscal year basis;75928

       (d) The percentage to be used for the purpose of division 75929
(B)(3) of this section, which shall, except as provided in section 75930
5101.163 of the Revised Code, meet both of the following 75931
requirements:75932

       (i) The percentage shall not be less than seventy-five per 75933
cent nor more than eighty-two per cent;75934

       (ii) The percentage shall not exceed the percentage that the 75935
state's qualified state expenditures is of the state's historic 75936
state expenditures as those terms are defined in 42 U.S.C. 75937
609(a)(7).75938

       (e) Other procedures and requirements necessary to implement 75939
this section.75940

       (2) The director of job and family services may amend the 75941
rule adopted under division (F)(1)(d) of this section to modify 75942
the percentage on determination that the amount the general 75943
assembly appropriates for Title IV-A programs makes the 75944
modification necessary. The rule shall be adopted and amended as 75945
if an internal management rule and in consultation with the 75946
director of budget and management.75947

       Sec. 5101.162.  Subject to available federal funds and 75948
appropriations made by the general assembly, the department of job 75949
and family services may, at its sole discretion, use available 75950
federal funds to reimburse county expenditures for county 75951
administration of the supplemental nutrition assistance program or 75952
medicaid (excluding administrative expenditures for transportation 75953
services covered by the medicaid program) even though the county 75954
expenditures meet or exceed the maximum allowable reimbursement 75955
amount established by rules adopted under section 5101.161 of the 75956
Revised Code. The director of job and family services may adopt 75957
internal management rules in accordance with section 111.15 of the 75958
Revised Code to implement this section.75959

       Sec. 5101.18. (A) When the director of job and family 75960
services adopts rules under section 5107.05 regarding income 75961
requirements for the Ohio works first program and under section 75962
5115.03 of the Revised Code regarding income and resource 75963
requirements for the disability financial assistance program, the 75964
director shall determine what payments shall be regarded or 75965
disregarded. In making this determination, the director shall 75966
consider:75967

       (1)(A) The source of the payment;75968

       (2)(B) The amount of the payment;75969

       (3)(C) The purpose for which the payment was made;75970

       (4)(D) Whether regarding the payment as income would be in 75971
the public interest;75972

       (5)(E) Whether treating the payment as income would be 75973
detrimental to any of the programs administered in whole or in 75974
part by the department of job and family services and whether such 75975
determination would jeopardize the receipt of any federal grant or 75976
payment by the state or any receipt of aid under Chapter 5107. of 75977
the Revised Code.75978

       (B) Any recipient of aid under Title XVI of the "Social 75979
Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C. 301, as amended, 75980
whose money payment is discontinued as the result of a general 75981
increase in old-age, survivors, and disability insurance benefits 75982
under such act, shall remain a recipient for the purpose of 75983
receiving medical assistance through the medical assistance 75984
program established under section 5111.01 of the Revised Code.75985

       Sec. 5101.181.  (A) As used in this section and section 75986
5101.182 of the Revised Code:75987

       (1) "Public, "public assistance" means any or all of the 75988
following:75989

       (a)(1) Ohio works first;75990

       (b)(2) Prevention, retention, and contingency; 75991

       (c)(3) Disability financial assistance;75992

       (d)(4) General assistance provided prior to July 17, 1995, 75993
under former Chapter 5113. of the Revised Code.75994

       (2) "Medical assistance" means medical assistance provided 75995
pursuant to, or under programs established by, section 5101.49, 75996
sections 5101.50 to 5101.529, Chapter 5111., or any other 75997
provision of the Revised Code.75998

       (B) As part of the procedure for the determination of 75999
overpayment to a recipient of public assistance under Chapter 76000
5107., 5108., or 5115. of the Revised Code, the director of job 76001
and family services may furnish quarterly the name and social 76002
security number of each individual who receives public assistance 76003
to the director of administrative services, the administrator of 76004
the bureau of workers' compensation, and each of the state's 76005
retirement boards. Within fourteen days after receiving the name 76006
and social security number of an individual who receives public 76007
assistance, the director of administrative services, 76008
administrator, or board shall inform the auditor of state as to 76009
whether such individual is receiving wages or benefits, the amount 76010
of any wages or benefits being received, the social security 76011
number, and the address of the individual. The director of 76012
administrative services, administrator, boards, and any agent or 76013
employee of those officials and boards shall comply with the rules 76014
of the director of job and family services restricting the 76015
disclosure of information regarding recipients of public 76016
assistance. Any person who violates this provision shall 76017
thereafter be disqualified from acting as an agent or employee or 76018
in any other capacity under appointment or employment of any state 76019
board, commission, or agency.76020

       (C) The auditor of state may enter into a reciprocal 76021
agreement with the director of job and family services or 76022
comparable officer of any other state for the exchange of names, 76023
current or most recent addresses, or social security numbers of 76024
persons receiving public assistance under Title IV-A of the 76025
"Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C. 301, as 76026
amended601 et seq.76027

       (D) The auditor of state shall retain, for not less than two 76028
years, at least one copy of all information received under this 76029
section and sections 145.27, 742.41, 3307.20, 3309.22, 4123.27, 76030
5101.182, and 5505.04 of the Revised Code. 76031

        (E) On the request of the director of job and family 76032
services, the auditor of state may conduct an audit of an 76033
individual who receives medical assistance. If the auditor decides 76034
to conduct an audit, the auditor shall enter into an interagency 76035
agreement with the department of job and family services that 76036
specifies that the auditor agrees to comply with section 5101.271 76037
of the Revised Code with respect to any information the auditor 76038
receives pursuant to the audit.76039

       (F) The auditor shall review the information described in 76040
division (D) of this section to determine whether overpayments 76041
were made to recipients of public assistance under Chapters 5107., 76042
5108., and 5115. of the Revised Code. The auditor of state shall 76043
initiate action leading to prosecution, where warranted, of 76044
recipients who received overpayments by forwarding the name of 76045
each recipient who received overpayment, together with other 76046
pertinent information, to the director of job and family services, 76047
the attorney general, and the county director of job and family 76048
services and county prosecutor of the county through which public 76049
assistance was received.76050

       (G)(F) The auditor of state and the attorney general or their 76051
designees may examine any records, whether in computer or printed 76052
format, in the possession of the director of job and family 76053
services or any county director of job and family services. They 76054
shall provide safeguards which restrict access to such records to 76055
purposes directly connected with an audit or investigation, 76056
prosecution, or criminal or civil proceeding conducted in 76057
connection with the administration of the programs and shall 76058
comply with sectionssection 5101.27 and 5101.271 of the Revised 76059
Code and adopts rules ofadopted by the director of job and family 76060
services restricting the disclosure of information regarding 76061
recipients of public assistance or medical assistance. Any person 76062
who violates this provision shall thereafter be disqualified from 76063
acting as an agent or employee or in any other capacity under 76064
appointment or employment of any state board, commission, or 76065
agency.76066

       (H)(G) Costs incurred by the auditor of state in carrying out 76067
the auditor of state's duties under this section shall be borne by 76068
the auditor of state.76069

       Sec. 5101.183.  (A) Except as provided in section 5111.12 of 76070
the Revised Code, theThe director of job and family services, in 76071
accordance with section 111.15 of the Revised Code, may adopt 76072
rules under which county family services agencies shall take 76073
action to recover the cost of the following benefits and services 76074
available under programs administered by the department of job and 76075
family services:76076

       (1) Benefits or services provided to any of the following:76077

       (a) Persons who were not eligible for the benefits or 76078
services but who secured the benefits or services through fraud or 76079
misrepresentation;76080

       (b) Persons who were eligible for the benefits or services 76081
but who intentionally diverted the benefits or services to other 76082
persons who were not eligible for the benefits or services.76083

       (2) Any benefits or services provided by a county family 76084
services agency for which recovery is required or permitted by 76085
federal law for the federal programs administered by the agency.76086

       (B) A county family services agency may bring a civil action 76087
against a recipient of benefits or services to recover any costs 76088
described in division (A) of this section.76089

       (C) A county family services agency shall retain any money it 76090
recovers under division (A) of this section and shall use the 76091
money to meet a family services duty, except that, if federal law 76092
requires the department of job and family services to return any 76093
portion of the money so recovered to the federal government, the 76094
county family services agency shall pay that portion to the 76095
department of job and family services.76096

       Sec. 5101.184.  (A) The director of job and family services 76097
shall work with the tax commissioner to collect overpayments of 76098
assistance under Chapter 5107., 5111., or 5115., former Chapter 76099
5113., or section 5101.54 of the Revised Code from refunds of 76100
state income taxes for taxable year 1992 and thereafter that are 76101
payable to the recipients of such overpayments.76102

       Any overpayment of assistance, whether obtained by fraud or 76103
misrepresentation, as the result of an error by the recipient or 76104
by the agency making the payment, or in any other manner, may be 76105
collected under this section. Any reduction under section 5747.12 76106
or 5747.121 of the Revised Code to an income tax refund shall be 76107
made before a reduction under this section. No reduction shall be 76108
made under this section if the amount of the refund is less than 76109
twenty-five dollars after any reduction under section 5747.12 of 76110
the Revised Code. A reduction under this section shall be made 76111
before any part of the refund is contributed under section 76112
5747.113 of the Revised Code, or is credited under section 5747.12 76113
of the Revised Code against tax due in any subsequent year.76114

       The director and the tax commissioner, by rules adopted in 76115
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, shall establish 76116
procedures to implement this division. The procedures shall 76117
provide for notice to a recipient of assistance and an opportunity 76118
for the recipient to be heard before the recipient's income tax 76119
refund is reduced.76120

       (B) The director of job and family services may enter into 76121
agreements with the federal government to collect overpayments of 76122
assistance from refunds of federal income taxes that are payable 76123
to recipients of the overpayments.76124

       Sec. 5101.26.  As used in this section and in sections 76125
5101.27 to 5101.30 of the Revised Code:76126

       (A) "County agency" means a county department of job and 76127
family services or a public children services agency.76128

       (B) "Fugitive felon" means an individual who is fleeing to 76129
avoid prosecution, or custody or confinement after conviction, 76130
under the laws of the place from which the individual is fleeing, 76131
for a crime or an attempt to commit a crime that is a felony under 76132
the laws of the place from which the individual is fleeing or, in 76133
the case of New Jersey, a high misdemeanor, regardless of whether 76134
the individual has departed from the individual's usual place of 76135
residence.76136

       (C) "Information" means records as defined in section 149.011 76137
of the Revised Code, any other documents in any format, and data 76138
derived from records and documents that are generated, acquired, 76139
or maintained by the department of job and family services, a 76140
county agency, or an entity performing duties on behalf of the 76141
department or a county agency.76142

       (D) "Law enforcement agency" means the state highway patrol, 76143
an agency that employs peace officers as defined in section 109.71 76144
of the Revised Code, the adult parole authority, a county 76145
department of probation, a prosecuting attorney, the attorney 76146
general, similar agencies of other states, federal law enforcement 76147
agencies, and postal inspectors. "Law enforcement agency" includes 76148
the peace officers and other law enforcement officers employed by 76149
the agency.76150

       (E) "Medical assistance" means medical assistance provided 76151
pursuant to, or under programs established by, section 5101.49, 76152
sections 5101.50 to 5101.529, Chapter 5111., or any other 76153
provision of the Revised Code.76154

        (F) "Medical assistance recipient" means an applicant for or 76155
recipient or former recipient of medical assistance.76156

       (G) "Public assistance" means financial assistance or social 76157
services that are not medical assistance provided under a program 76158
administered by the department of job and family services or a 76159
county agency pursuant to Chapter 329., 5101., 5104., 5107., 76160
5108., or 5115. of the Revised Code or an executive order issued 76161
under section 107.17 of the Revised Code. "Public assistance" does 76162
not mean medical assistance provided under a medical assistance 76163
program, as defined in section 5160.01 of the Revised Code.76164

       (H)(F) "Public assistance recipient" means an applicant for 76165
or recipient or former recipient of public assistance.76166

       Sec. 5101.272. (A) For the purposes of sectionssection76167
5101.27 and 5101.271 of the Revised Code, an authorization shall 76168
be made on a form that uses language understandable to the average 76169
person and contains all of the following:76170

       (1) A description of the information to be used or disclosed 76171
that identifies the information in a specific and meaningful 76172
fashion;76173

       (2) The name or other specific identification of the person 76174
or class of persons authorized to make the requested use or 76175
disclosure;76176

       (3) The name or other specific identification of the person 76177
or governmental entity to which the information may be released;76178

       (4) A description of each purpose of the requested use or 76179
disclosure of the information;76180

       (5) The date on which the authorization expires or an event 76181
related either to the individual who is the subject of the request 76182
or to the purposes of the requested use or disclosure, the 76183
occurrence of which will cause the authorization to expire;76184

       (6) A statement that the information used or disclosed 76185
pursuant to the authorization may be disclosed by the recipient of 76186
the information and may no longer be protected from disclosure;76187

       (7) The signature of the individual or the individual's 76188
authorized representative and the date on which the authorization 76189
was signed;76190

       (8) If signed by an authorized representative, a description 76191
of the representative's authority to act for the individual;76192

       (9) A statement of the individual or authorized 76193
representative's right to prospectively revoke the written 76194
authorization in writing, along with one of the following:76195

       (a) A description of how the individual or authorized 76196
representative may revoke the authorization;76197

       (b) If the department of job and family services' privacy 76198
notice contains a description of how the individual or authorized 76199
representative may revoke the authorization, a reference to that 76200
privacy notice.76201

       (10) A statement that treatment, payment, enrollment, or 76202
eligibility for public assistance or medical assistance cannot be 76203
conditioned on signing the authorization unless the authorization 76204
is necessary for determining eligibility for the public assistance 76205
or medical assistance program.76206

       (B) An authorization for the release of information regarding 76207
a medical assistance recipient to the recipient's attorney under 76208
division (C)(3) of section 5101.271 of the Revised Code may 76209
include a provision specifically authorizing the release of the 76210
recipient's electronic health records, if any, in accordance with 76211
rules the director of job and family services adopts under section 76212
5101.30 of the Revised Code.76213

       (C) When an individual requests information pursuant to 76214
section 5101.27 or 5101.271 of the Revised Code regarding the 76215
individual's receipt of public assistance or medical assistance76216
and does not wish to provide a statement of purpose, the statement 76217
"at request of the individual" is a sufficient description for 76218
purposes of division (A)(4) of this section.76219

       Sec. 5101.273.  The department of job and family services 76220
shall enter into any necessary agreements with the United States 76221
department of health and human services and neighboring states to 76222
join and participate as an active member in the public assistance 76223
reporting information system. The department may disclose 76224
information regarding a public assistance recipient or medical 76225
assistance recipient to the extent necessary to participate as an 76226
active member in the public assistance reporting information 76227
system.76228

       Sec. 5101.30.  (A) The director of job and family services 76229
shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised 76230
Code implementing sections 5101.26 to 5101.30 of the Revised Code 76231
and governing the custody, use, disclosure, and preservation of 76232
the information generated or received by the department of job and 76233
family services, county agencies, other state and county entities, 76234
contractors, grantees, private entities, or officials 76235
participating in the administration of public assistance or 76236
medical assistance programs. The rules shall comply with 76237
applicable federal statutes and regulations. 76238

       (1) The rules shall specify conditions and procedures for the 76239
release of information which may include, among other conditions 76240
and procedures, both of the following:76241

        (a) Permitting providers of services or assistance under 76242
public assistance programs limited access to information that is 76243
essential for the providers to render services or assistance or to 76244
bill for services or assistance rendered. The department of aging, 76245
when investigating a complaint under section 173.20 of the Revised 76246
Code, shall be granted any limited access permitted in the rules 76247
pursuant to division (A)(1) of this section.76248

        (b) Permitting a contractor, grantee, or other state or 76249
county entity limited access to information that is essential for 76250
the contractor, grantee, or entity to perform administrative or 76251
other duties on behalf of the department or county agency. A 76252
contractor, grantee, or entity given access to information 76253
pursuant to division (A)(2) of this section is bound by the 76254
director's rules, and disclosure of the information by the 76255
contractor, grantee, or entity in a manner not authorized by the 76256
rules is a violation of section 5101.27 of the Revised Code.76257

       (2) The rules may define who is an "authorized 76258
representative" for purposes of sections 5101.27, 5101.271, and 76259
5101.272 of the Revised Code.76260

       (B) Whenever names, addresses, or other information relating 76261
to public assistance recipients is held by any agency other than 76262
the department or a county agency, that other agency shall adopt 76263
rules consistent with sections 5101.26 to 5101.30 of the Revised 76264
Code to prevent the publication or disclosure of names, lists, or 76265
other information concerning those recipients.76266

       Sec. 5101.34.  (A) There is hereby created in the department 76267
of job and family services the Ohio commission on fatherhood. The 76268
commission shall consist of the following members:76269

       (1)(a) Four members of the house of representatives appointed 76270
by the speaker of the house, not more than two of whom are members 76271
of the same political party. Two of the members must be from 76272
legislative districts that include a county or part of a county 76273
that is among the one-third of counties in this state with the 76274
highest number per capita of households headed by females.76275

       (b) Two members of the senate appointed by the president of 76276
the senate, each from a different political party. One of the 76277
members must be from a legislative district that includes a county 76278
or part of a county that is among the one-third of counties in 76279
this state with the highest number per capita of households headed 76280
by females.76281

       (2) The governor, or the governor's designee;76282

       (3) One representative of the judicial branch of government 76283
appointed by the chief justice of the supreme court;76284

       (4) The directors of health, job and family services, 76285
rehabilitation and correction, alcohol and drug addiction services76286
mental health and addiction services, and youth services and the 76287
superintendent of public instruction, or their designees;76288

       (5) One representative of the Ohio family and children first 76289
cabinet council created under section 121.37 of the Revised Code 76290
appointed by the chairperson of the council;76291

       (6) Five representatives of the general public appointed by 76292
the governor. These members shall have extensive experience in 76293
issues related to fatherhood. 76294

       (B) The appointing authorities of the Ohio commission on 76295
fatherhood shall make initial appointments to the commission 76296
within thirty days after September 29, 1999. Of the initial 76297
appointments to the commission made pursuant to divisions (A)(3), 76298
(5), and (6) of this section, three of the members shall serve a 76299
term of one year and four shall serve a term of two years. Members 76300
so appointed subsequently shall serve two-year terms. A member 76301
appointed pursuant to division (A)(1) of this section shall serve 76302
on the commission until the end of the general assembly from which 76303
the member was appointed or until the member ceases to serve in 76304
the chamber of the general assembly in which the member serves at 76305
the time of appointment, whichever occurs first. The governor or 76306
the governor's designee shall serve on the commission until the 76307
governor ceases to be governor. The directors and superintendent 76308
or their designees shall serve on the commission until they cease, 76309
or the director or superintendent a designee represents ceases, to 76310
be director or superintendent. Each member shall serve on the 76311
commission from the date of appointment until the end of the term 76312
for which the member was appointed. Members may be reappointed.76313

       Vacancies shall be filled in the manner provided for original 76314
appointments. Any member appointed to fill a vacancy occurring 76315
prior to the expiration date of the term for which the member's 76316
predecessor was appointed shall serve on the commission for the 76317
remainder of that term. A member shall continue to serve on the 76318
commission subsequent to the expiration date of the member's term 76319
until the member's successor is appointed or until a period of 76320
sixty days has elapsed, whichever occurs first. Members shall 76321
serve without compensation but shall be reimbursed for necessary 76322
expenses.76323

       Sec. 5101.35.  (A) As used in this section:76324

       (1)(a) "Agency" means the following entities that administer 76325
a family services program:76326

       (a)(i) The department of job and family services;76327

       (b)(ii) A county department of job and family services;76328

       (c)(iii) A public children services agency;76329

       (d)(iv) A private or government entity administering, in 76330
whole or in part, a family services program for or on behalf of 76331
the department of job and family services or a county department 76332
of job and family services or public children services agency.76333

       (b) If the department of medicaid contracts with the 76334
department of job and family services to hear appeals authorized 76335
by section 5160.31 of the Revised Code regarding medical 76336
assistance programs, "agency" includes the department of medicaid.76337

       (2) "Appellant" means an applicant, participant, former 76338
participant, recipient, or former recipient of a family services 76339
program who is entitled by federal or state law to a hearing 76340
regarding a decision or order of the agency that administers the 76341
program.76342

       (3)(a) "Family services program" means assistance provided 76343
under aall of the following:76344

       (i) A Title IV-A program as defined in section 5101.80 of the 76345
Revised Code or;76346

       (ii) Programs that provide assistance under Chapter 5104., 76347
5111., or 5115. orof the Revised Code;76348

       (iii) Programs that provide assistance under section 5119.69,76349
5101.141, 5101.46, 5101.461, 5101.54, 5119.41, 5153.163, or 76350
5153.165 of the Revised Code,;76351

       (iv) Title XX social services provided under section 5101.46 76352
of the Revised Code, other than assistancesuch services provided 76353
under section 5101.46 of the Revised Code by the department of 76354
mental healthmental health and addiction services, the department 76355
of developmental disabilities, a board of alcohol, drug addiction, 76356
and mental health services, or a county board of developmental 76357
disabilities.76358

       (b) If the department of medicaid contracts with the 76359
department of job and family services to hear appeals authorized 76360
by section 5160.31 of the Revised Code regarding medical 76361
assistance programs, "family services program" includes medical 76362
assistance programs.76363

        (4) "Medical assistance program" has the same meaning as in 76364
section 5160.01 of the Revised Code.76365

       (B) Except as provided by divisions (G) and (H) of this 76366
section, an appellant who appeals under federal or state law a 76367
decision or order of an agency administering a family services 76368
program shall, at the appellant's request, be granted a state 76369
hearing by the department of job and family services. This state 76370
hearing shall be conducted in accordance with rules adopted under 76371
this section. The state hearing shall be recorded, but neither the 76372
recording nor a transcript of the recording shall be part of the 76373
official record of the proceeding. AExcept as provided in section 76374
5160.31 of the Revised Code, a state hearing decision is binding 76375
upon the agency and department, unless it is reversed or modified 76376
on appeal to the director of job and family services or a court of 76377
common pleas.76378

       (C) Except as provided by division (G) of this section, an 76379
appellant who disagrees with a state hearing decision may make an 76380
administrative appeal to the director of job and family services 76381
in accordance with rules adopted under this section. This 76382
administrative appeal does not require a hearing, but the director 76383
or the director's designee shall review the state hearing decision 76384
and previous administrative action and may affirm, modify, remand, 76385
or reverse the state hearing decision. An administrative appeal 76386
decision is the final decision of the department and, except as 76387
provided in section 5160.31 of the Revised Code, is binding upon 76388
the department and agency, unless it is reversed or modified on 76389
appeal to the court of common pleas.76390

       (D) An agency shall comply with a decision issued pursuant to 76391
division (B) or (C) of this section within the time limits 76392
established by rules adopted under this section. If a county 76393
department of job and family services or a public children 76394
services agency fails to comply within these time limits, the 76395
department may take action pursuant to section 5101.24 of the 76396
Revised Code. If another agency, other than the department of 76397
medicaid, fails to comply within the time limits, the department 76398
may force compliance by withholding funds due the agency or 76399
imposing another sanction established by rules adopted under this 76400
section.76401

       (E) An appellant who disagrees with an administrative appeal 76402
decision of the director of job and family services or the 76403
director's designee issued under division (C) of this section may 76404
appeal from the decision to the court of common pleas pursuant to 76405
section 119.12 of the Revised Code. The appeal shall be governed 76406
by section 119.12 of the Revised Code except that:76407

       (1) The person may appeal to the court of common pleas of the 76408
county in which the person resides, or to the court of common 76409
pleas of Franklin county if the person does not reside in this 76410
state.76411

       (2) The person may apply to the court for designation as an 76412
indigent and, if the court grants this application, the appellant 76413
shall not be required to furnish the costs of the appeal.76414

       (3) The appellant shall mail the notice of appeal to the 76415
department of job and family services and file notice of appeal 76416
with the court within thirty days after the department mails the 76417
administrative appeal decision to the appellant. For good cause 76418
shown, the court may extend the time for mailing and filing notice 76419
of appeal, but such time shall not exceed six months from the date 76420
the department mails the administrative appeal decision. Filing 76421
notice of appeal with the court shall be the only act necessary to 76422
vest jurisdiction in the court.76423

       (4) The department shall be required to file a transcript of 76424
the testimony of the state hearing with the court only if the 76425
court orders the department to file the transcript. The court 76426
shall make such an order only if it finds that the department and 76427
the appellant are unable to stipulate to the facts of the case and 76428
that the transcript is essential to a determination of the appeal. 76429
The department shall file the transcript not later than thirty 76430
days after the day such an order is issued.76431

       (F) The department of job and family services shall adopt 76432
rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to 76433
implement this section, including rules governing the following:76434

       (1) State hearings under division (B) of this section. The 76435
rules shall include provisions regarding notice of eligibility 76436
termination and the opportunity of an appellant appealing a 76437
decision or order of a county department of job and family 76438
services to request a county conference with the county department 76439
before the state hearing is held.76440

       (2) Administrative appeals under division (C) of this 76441
section;76442

       (3) Time limits for complying with a decision issued under 76443
division (B) or (C) of this section;76444

       (4) Sanctions that may be applied against an agency under 76445
division (D) of this section.76446

       (G) The department of job and family services may adopt rules 76447
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code establishing 76448
an appeals process for an appellant who appeals a decision or 76449
order regarding a Title IV-A program identified under division 76450
(A)(4)(c), (d), (e), or (f), or (g) of section 5101.80 of the 76451
Revised Code that is different from the appeals process 76452
established by this section. The different appeals process may 76453
include having a state agency that administers the Title IV-A 76454
program pursuant to an interagency agreement entered into under 76455
section 5101.801 of the Revised Code administer the appeals 76456
process.76457

       (H) If an appellant receiving medicaid through a health 76458
insuring corporation that holds a certificate of authority under 76459
Chapter 1751. of the Revised Code is appealing a denial of 76460
medicaid services based on lack of medical necessity or other 76461
clinical issues regarding coverage by the health insuring 76462
corporation, the person hearing the appeal may order an 76463
independent medical review if that person determines that a review 76464
is necessary. The review shall be performed by a health care 76465
professional with appropriate clinical expertise in treating the 76466
recipient's condition or disease. The department shall pay the 76467
costs associated with the review.76468

       A review ordered under this division shall be part of the 76469
record of the hearing and shall be given appropriate evidentiary 76470
consideration by the person hearing the appeal.76471

       (I) The requirements of Chapter 119. of the Revised Code 76472
apply to a state hearing or administrative appeal under this 76473
section only to the extent, if any, specifically provided by rules 76474
adopted under this section.76475

       Sec. 5101.36.  Any application for public assistance gives a 76476
right of subrogation to the department of job and family services 76477
for any workers' compensation benefits payable to a person who is 76478
subject to a support order, as defined in section 3119.01 of the 76479
Revised Code, on behalf of the applicant, to the extent of any 76480
public assistance payments made on the applicant's behalf. If the 76481
director of job and family services, in consultation with a child 76482
support enforcement agency and the administrator of the bureau of 76483
workers' compensation, determines that a person responsible for 76484
support payments to a recipient of public assistance is receiving 76485
workers' compensation, the director shall notify the administrator 76486
of the amount of the benefit to be paid to the department of job 76487
and family services.76488

       For purposes of this section, "public assistance" means 76489
medical assistance provided through the medical assistance program 76490
established under section 5111.01 of the Revised Code; Ohio works 76491
first provided under Chapter 5107. of the Revised Code; 76492
prevention, retention, and contingency benefits and services 76493
provided under Chapter 5108. of the Revised Code; or disability 76494
financial assistance provided under Chapter 5115. of the Revised 76495
Code.76496

       Sec. 5101.46.  (A) As used in this section:76497

       (1) "Title XX" means Title XX of the "Social Security Act," 76498
88 Stat. 2337 (1974), 42 U.S.C.A. 1397, as amended.76499

       (2) "Respective local agency" means, with respect to the 76500
department of job and family services, a county department of job 76501
and family services; with respect to the department of mental 76502
healthmental health and addiction services, a board of alcohol, 76503
drug addiction, and mental health services; and with respect to 76504
the department of developmental disabilities, a county board of 76505
developmental disabilities.76506

       (3) "Federal poverty guidelines" means the poverty guidelines 76507
as revised annually by the United States department of health and 76508
human services in accordance with section 673(2) of the "Omnibus 76509
Budget Reconciliation Act of 1981," 95 Stat. 511, 42 U.S.C.A. 76510
9902, as amended, for a family size equal to the size of the 76511
family of the person whose income is being determined.76512

       (B) The departments of job and family services, mental 76513
health, and developmental disabilities, with their respective 76514
local agencies, shall administer the provision of social services 76515
funded through grants made under Title XX. The social services 76516
furnished with Title XX funds shall be directed at the following 76517
goals:76518

       (1) Achieving or maintaining economic self-support to 76519
prevent, reduce, or eliminate dependency;76520

       (2) Achieving or maintaining self-sufficiency, including 76521
reduction or prevention of dependency;76522

       (3) Preventing or remedying neglect, abuse, or exploitation 76523
of children and adults unable to protect their own interests, or 76524
preserving, rehabilitating, or reuniting families;76525

       (4) Preventing or reducing inappropriate institutional care 76526
by providing for community-based care, home-based care, or other 76527
forms of less intensive care;76528

       (5) Securing referral or admission for institutional care 76529
when other forms of care are not appropriate, or providing 76530
services to individuals in institutions.76531

       (C)(1) All federal funds received under Title XX shall be 76532
appropriated as follows:76533

       (a) Seventy-two and one-half per cent to the department of 76534
job and family services;76535

       (b) Twelve and ninety-three one-hundredths per cent to the 76536
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services;76537

       (c) Fourteen and fifty-seven one-hundredths per cent to the 76538
department of developmental disabilities.76539

       (2) Each of the state departments shall, subject to the 76540
approval of the controlling board, develop a formula for the 76541
distribution of the Title XX funds appropriated to the department 76542
to its respective local agencies. The formula developed by each 76543
state department shall take into account all of the following for 76544
each of its respective local agencies:76545

       (a) The total population of the area that is served by the 76546
respective local agency;76547

       (b) The percentage of the population in the area served that 76548
falls below the federal poverty guidelines;76549

       (c) The respective local agency's history of and ability to 76550
utilize Title XX funds.76551

       (3) Each of the state departments shall expend for state 76552
administrative costs not more than three per cent of the Title XX 76553
funds appropriated to the department. 76554

       Each state department shall establish for each of its 76555
respective local agencies the maximum percentage of the Title XX 76556
funds distributed to the respective local agency that the 76557
respective local agency may expend for local administrative costs. 76558
The percentage shall be established by rule and shall comply with 76559
federal law governing the use of Title XX funds. The rules shall 76560
be adopted in accordance with section 111.15 of the Revised Code 76561
as if they were internal management rules.76562

       (4) The department of job and family services shall expend 76563
for the training of the following not more than two per cent of 76564
the Title XX funds appropriated to the department:76565

       (a) Employees of county departments of job and family 76566
services;76567

       (b) Providers of services under contract with the state 76568
departments' respective local agencies;76569

       (c) Employees of a public children services agency directly 76570
engaged in providing Title XX services. 76571

       (5) Title XX funds distributed for the purpose of providing 76572
family planning services shall be distributed by the respective 76573
local agencies according to the same order of priority that 76574
applies to the department of job and family services under section 76575
5101.101 of the Revised Code.76576

       (D) The department of job and family services shall prepare 76577
an annual comprehensive Title XX social services plan on the 76578
intended use of Title XX funds. The department shall develop a 76579
method for obtaining public comment during the development of the 76580
plan and following its completion.76581

       For each federal fiscal year, the department of job and 76582
family services shall prepare a report on the actual use of Title 76583
XX funds. The department shall make the annual report available 76584
for public inspection.76585

       The departments of mental healthmental health and addiction 76586
services and developmental disabilities shall prepare and submit 76587
to the department of job and family services the portions of each 76588
annual plan and report that apply to services for mental health 76589
and mental retardation and developmental disabilities. Each 76590
respective local agency of the three state departments shall 76591
submit information as necessary for the preparation of annual 76592
plans and reports.76593

       (E) Each county department of job and family services shall 76594
adopt a county profile for the administration and provision of 76595
Title XX social services in the county. In developing its county 76596
profile, the county department shall take into consideration the 76597
comments and recommendations received from the public by the 76598
county family services planning committee pursuant to section 76599
329.06 of the Revised Code. As part of its preparation of the 76600
county profile, the county department may prepare a local needs 76601
report analyzing the need for Title XX social services.76602

       The county department shall submit the county profile to the 76603
board of county commissioners for its review. Once the county 76604
profile has been approved by the board, the county department 76605
shall file a copy of the county profile with the department of job 76606
and family services. The department shall approve the county 76607
profile if the department determines the profile provides for the 76608
Title XX social services to meet the goals specified in division 76609
(B) of this section.76610

       (F) Any of the three state departments and their respective 76611
local agencies may require that an entity under contract to 76612
provide social services with Title XX funds submit to an audit on 76613
the basis of alleged misuse or improper accounting of funds. If an 76614
audit is required, the social services provider shall reimburse 76615
the state department or respective local agency for the cost it 76616
incurred in conducting the audit or having the audit conducted.76617

        If an audit demonstrates that a social services provider is 76618
responsible for one or more adverse findings, the provider shall 76619
reimburse the appropriate state department or its respective local 76620
agency the amount of the adverse findings. The amount shall not be 76621
reimbursed with Title XX funds received under this section. The 76622
three state departments and their respective local agencies may 76623
terminate or refuse to enter into a Title XX contract with a 76624
social services provider if there are adverse findings in an audit 76625
that are the responsibility of the provider. 76626

       (G) Except with respect to the matters for which each of the 76627
state departments must adopt rules under division (C)(3) of this 76628
section, the department of job and family services may adopt any 76629
rules it considers necessary to implement and carry out the 76630
purposes of this section. Rules governing financial and 76631
operational matters of the department or matters between the 76632
department and county departments of job and family services shall 76633
be adopted as internal management rules in accordance with section 76634
111.15 of the Revised Code. Rules governing eligibility for 76635
services, program participation, and other matters pertaining to 76636
applicants and participants shall be adopted in accordance with 76637
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.76638

       Sec. 5101.461. (A) As used in this section:76639

        (1) "Title IV-A" means Title IV-A of the "Social Security 76640
Act," 110 Stat. 2113 (1996), 42 U.S.C. 601, as amended.76641

        (2) "Title XX" has the same meaning as in section 5101.46 of 76642
the Revised Code.76643

        (B) To the extent authorized by federal law, the department 76644
of job and family services may use funds received through the 76645
Title IV-A temporary assistance for needy families block grant for 76646
purposes of providing Title XX social services. The amount used 76647
under this section shall not exceed the maximum amount permitted 76648
by federal law. The funds and provision of Title XX social 76649
services with the funds are not subject to section 5101.46 of the 76650
Revised Code.76651

       Funds distributed under this section for the purpose of 76652
providing family planning services shall be distributed by a 76653
county department of job and family services according to the same 76654
order of priority that applies to the department of job and family 76655
services under section 5101.101 of the Revised Code.76656

        (C) The department and any county department of job and 76657
family services may require an entity under contract to provide 76658
Title XX social services with funds used under this section to 76659
submit to an audit on the basis of alleged misuse or improper 76660
accounting of funds. If an audit is required, the social services 76661
provider shall reimburse the state department or county department 76662
for the cost it incurred in conducting the audit or having the 76663
audit conducted.76664

        If an audit demonstrates that a social services provider is 76665
responsible for one or more adverse findings, the provider shall 76666
reimburse the state department or county department the amount of 76667
the adverse findings. The amount shall not be reimbursed with 76668
funds received under this section. The state department and county 76669
departments may terminate or refuse to enter into a contract with 76670
a social services provider to provide services with funds 76671
available pursuant to this section if there are adverse findings 76672
in an audit that are the responsibility of the provider.76673

        (D) The state department of job and family services may adopt 76674
rules to implement and carry out the purposes of this section. 76675
Rules governing financial and operational matters of the 76676
department or matters between the department and county 76677
departments of job and family services shall be adopted as 76678
internal management rules in accordance with section 111.15 of the 76679
Revised Code. Rules governing eligibility for services, program 76680
participation, and other matters pertaining to applicants and 76681
participants shall be adopted in accordance with Chapter 119. of 76682
the Revised Code.76683

       Sec. 5101.47.  (A) Except as provided in divisions (B) and 76684
(C) of this section, the department of job and family services may 76685
accept applications, determine eligibility, redetermine 76686
eligibility, and perform related administrative activities for one 76687
or more of the following:76688

       (1) The medicaid program established by Chapter 5111. of the 76689
Revised Code;76690

       (2) The children's health insurance program parts I, II, and 76691
III provided for under sections 5101.50 to 5101.529 of the Revised 76692
Code;76693

       (3) Publicly funded child care provided under Chapter 5104. 76694
of the Revised Code;76695

       (4)(2) The supplemental nutrition assistance program 76696
administered by the department pursuant to section 5101.54 of the 76697
Revised Code;76698

       (5)(3) Other programs administered by the department that the 76699
director of job and family services determines are supportive of 76700
children, adults, or families;76701

       (6)(4) Other programs administered by the department76702
regarding which the director determines administrative cost 76703
savings and efficiency may be achieved through the department 76704
accepting applications, determining eligibility, redetermining 76705
eligibility, or performing related administrative activities.76706

       (B) To the extent permitted by federal law, the department 76707
may enter into agreements with one or more other state agencies, 76708
local government entities, or political subdivisions to accept 76709
applications, determine eligibility, redetermine eligibility, and 76710
perform related administrative activities on behalf of the 76711
department with respect to the medicaid program and the children's 76712
health insurance program.76713

       (C) If federal law requires a face-to-face interview to 76714
complete an eligibility determination for a program specified in 76715
or pursuant to division (A) of this section, the face-to-face 76716
interview shall not be conducted by the department of job and 76717
family services.76718

       (D)(C) Subject to division (C)(B) of this section, if the 76719
department elects to accept applications, determine eligibility, 76720
redetermine eligibility, and perform related administrative 76721
activities for a program specified in or pursuant to division (A) 76722
of this section, both of the following apply:76723

       (1) An individual seeking services under the program may 76724
apply for the program to the department or to the entity that 76725
state law governing the program authorizes to accept applications 76726
for the program.76727

       (2) The department is subject to federal statutes and 76728
regulations and state statutes and rules that require, permit, or 76729
prohibit an action regarding accepting applications, determining 76730
or redetermining eligibility, and performing related 76731
administrative activities for the program.76732

       (E)(D) The director may adopt rules as necessary to implement 76733
this section.76734

       Sec. 5101.49.  The department of job and family services 76735
shall administer funds received under the "Refugee Act of 1980," 76736
94 Stat. 102, 8 U.S.C.A. 1521, as amended. In administering the 76737
funds, the department may establish a refugee cash assistance 76738
program and a state legalization impact assistance program. The 76739
director of job and family services may adopt rules in accordance 76740
with section 111.15 of the Revised Code and issue appropriate 76741
orders as necessary for administration of these funds and 76742
programs.76743

       Sec. 5101.60.  As used in sections 5101.60 to 5101.71 of the 76744
Revised Code:76745

       (A) "Abuse" means the infliction upon an adult by self or 76746
others of injury, unreasonable confinement, intimidation, or cruel 76747
punishment with resulting physical harm, pain, or mental anguish.76748

       (B) "Adult" means any person sixty years of age or older 76749
within this state who is handicapped by the infirmities of aging 76750
or who has a physical or mental impairment which prevents the 76751
person from providing for the person's own care or protection, and 76752
who resides in an independent living arrangement. An "independent 76753
living arrangement" is a domicile of a person's own choosing, 76754
including, but not limited to, a private home, apartment, trailer, 76755
or rooming house. An "independent living arrangement" includes a 76756
residential facility licensed under section 5119.225119.34 of the 76757
Revised Code that provides accommodations, supervision, and 76758
personal care services for three to sixteen unrelated adults, but 76759
does not include other institutions or facilities licensed by the 76760
state or facilities in which a person resides as a result of 76761
voluntary, civil, or criminal commitment. 76762

       (C) "Caretaker" means the person assuming the responsibility 76763
for the care of an adult on a voluntary basis, by contract, 76764
through receipt of payment for care, as a result of a family 76765
relationship, or by order of a court of competent jurisdiction.76766

       (D) "Court" means the probate court in the county where an 76767
adult resides.76768

       (E) "Emergency" means that the adult is living in conditions 76769
which present a substantial risk of immediate and irreparable 76770
physical harm or death to self or any other person.76771

       (F) "Emergency services" means protective services furnished 76772
to an adult in an emergency.76773

       (G) "Exploitation" means the unlawful or improper act of a 76774
caretaker using an adult or an adult's resources for monetary or 76775
personal benefit, profit, or gain.76776

       (H) "In need of protective services" means an adult known or 76777
suspected to be suffering from abuse, neglect, or exploitation to 76778
an extent that either life is endangered or physical harm, mental 76779
anguish, or mental illness results or is likely to result.76780

       (I) "Incapacitated person" means a person who is impaired for 76781
any reason to the extent that the person lacks sufficient 76782
understanding or capacity to make and carry out reasonable 76783
decisions concerning the person's self or resources, with or 76784
without the assistance of a caretaker. Refusal to consent to the 76785
provision of services shall not be the sole determinative that the 76786
person is incapacitated. "Reasonable decisions" are decisions made 76787
in daily living which facilitate the provision of food, shelter, 76788
clothing, and health care necessary for life support.76789

       (J) "Mental illness" means a substantial disorder of thought, 76790
mood, perception, orientation, or memory that grossly impairs 76791
judgment, behavior, capacity to recognize reality, or ability to 76792
meet the ordinary demands of life.76793

       (K) "Neglect" means the failure of an adult to provide for 76794
self the goods or services necessary to avoid physical harm, 76795
mental anguish, or mental illness or the failure of a caretaker to 76796
provide such goods or services.76797

       (L) "Peace officer" means a peace officer as defined in 76798
section 2935.01 of the Revised Code.76799

       (M) "Physical harm" means bodily pain, injury, impairment, or 76800
disease suffered by an adult.76801

       (N) "Protective services" means services provided by the 76802
county department of job and family services or its designated 76803
agency to an adult who has been determined by evaluation to 76804
require such services for the prevention, correction, or 76805
discontinuance of an act of as well as conditions resulting from 76806
abuse, neglect, or exploitation. Protective services may include, 76807
but are not limited to, case work services, medical care, mental 76808
health services, legal services, fiscal management, home health 76809
care, homemaker services, housing-related services, guardianship 76810
services, and placement services as well as the provision of such 76811
commodities as food, clothing, and shelter.76812

       (O) "Working day" means Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday, Thursday, 76813
and Friday, except when such day is a holiday as defined in 76814
section 1.14 of the Revised Code.76815

       Sec. 5101.61.  (A) As used in this section:76816

       (1) "Senior service provider" means any person who provides 76817
care or services to a person who is an adult as defined in 76818
division (B) of section 5101.60 of the Revised Code.76819

       (2) "Ambulatory health facility" means a nonprofit, public or 76820
proprietary freestanding organization or a unit of such an agency 76821
or organization that:76822

       (a) Provides preventive, diagnostic, therapeutic, 76823
rehabilitative, or palliative items or services furnished to an 76824
outpatient or ambulatory patient, by or under the direction of a 76825
physician or dentist in a facility which is not a part of a 76826
hospital, but which is organized and operated to provide medical 76827
care to outpatients;76828

       (b) Has health and medical care policies which are developed 76829
with the advice of, and with the provision of review of such 76830
policies, an advisory committee of professional personnel, 76831
including one or more physicians, one or more dentists, if dental 76832
care is provided, and one or more registered nurses;76833

       (c) Has a medical director, a dental director, if dental care 76834
is provided, and a nursing director responsible for the execution 76835
of such policies, and has physicians, dentists, nursing, and 76836
ancillary staff appropriate to the scope of services provided;76837

       (d) Requires that the health care and medical care of every 76838
patient be under the supervision of a physician, provides for 76839
medical care in a case of emergency, has in effect a written 76840
agreement with one or more hospitals and other centers or clinics, 76841
and has an established patient referral system to other resources, 76842
and a utilization review plan and program;76843

       (e) Maintains clinical records on all patients;76844

       (f) Provides nursing services and other therapeutic services 76845
in accordance with programs and policies, with such services 76846
supervised by a registered professional nurse, and has a 76847
registered professional nurse on duty at all times of clinical 76848
operations;76849

       (g) Provides approved methods and procedures for the 76850
dispensing and administration of drugs and biologicals;76851

       (h) Has established an accounting and record keeping system 76852
to determine reasonable and allowable costs;76853

       (i) "Ambulatory health facilities" also includes an 76854
alcoholism treatment facility approved by the joint commission on 76855
accreditation of healthcare organizations as an alcoholism 76856
treatment facility or certified by the department of alcohol and 76857
drug addiction servicesmental health and addiction services, and 76858
such facility shall comply with other provisions of this division 76859
not inconsistent with such accreditation or certification.76860

       (3) "Community mental health facility" means a facility which 76861
provides community mental health services and is included in the 76862
comprehensive mental health plan for the alcohol, drug addiction, 76863
and mental health service district in which it is located.76864

       (4) "Community mental health service" means services, other 76865
than inpatient services, provided by a community mental health 76866
facility.76867

       (5) "Home health agency" means an institution or a distinct 76868
part of an institution operated in this state which:76869

       (a) Is primarily engaged in providing home health services;76870

       (b) Has home health policies which are established by a group 76871
of professional personnel, including one or more duly licensed 76872
doctors of medicine or osteopathy and one or more registered 76873
professional nurses, to govern the home health services it 76874
provides and which includes a requirement that every patient must 76875
be under the care of a duly licensed doctor of medicine or 76876
osteopathy;76877

       (c) Is under the supervision of a duly licensed doctor of 76878
medicine or doctor of osteopathy or a registered professional 76879
nurse who is responsible for the execution of such home health 76880
policies;76881

       (d) Maintains comprehensive records on all patients;76882

       (e) Is operated by the state, a political subdivision, or an 76883
agency of either, or is operated not for profit in this state and 76884
is licensed or registered, if required, pursuant to law by the 76885
appropriate department of the state, county, or municipality in 76886
which it furnishes services; or is operated for profit in this 76887
state, meets all the requirements specified in divisions (A)(5)(a) 76888
to (d) of this section, and is certified under Title XVIII of the 76889
"Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C. 301, as 76890
amended.76891

       (6) "Home health service" means the following items and 76892
services, provided, except as provided in division (A)(6)(g) of 76893
this section, on a visiting basis in a place of residence used as 76894
the patient's home:76895

       (a) Nursing care provided by or under the supervision of a 76896
registered professional nurse;76897

       (b) Physical, occupational, or speech therapy ordered by the 76898
patient's attending physician;76899

       (c) Medical social services performed by or under the 76900
supervision of a qualified medical or psychiatric social worker 76901
and under the direction of the patient's attending physician;76902

       (d) Personal health care of the patient performed by aides in 76903
accordance with the orders of a doctor of medicine or osteopathy 76904
and under the supervision of a registered professional nurse;76905

       (e) Medical supplies and the use of medical appliances;76906

       (f) Medical services of interns and residents-in-training 76907
under an approved teaching program of a nonprofit hospital and 76908
under the direction and supervision of the patient's attending 76909
physician;76910

       (g) Any of the foregoing items and services which:76911

       (i) Are provided on an outpatient basis under arrangements 76912
made by the home health agency at a hospital or skilled nursing 76913
facility;76914

       (ii) Involve the use of equipment of such a nature that the 76915
items and services cannot readily be made available to the patient 76916
in the patient's place of residence, or which are furnished at the 76917
hospital or skilled nursing facility while the patient is there to 76918
receive any item or service involving the use of such equipment.76919

       Any attorney, physician, osteopath, podiatrist, chiropractor, 76920
dentist, psychologist, any employee of a hospital as defined in 76921
section 3701.01 of the Revised Code, any nurse licensed under 76922
Chapter 4723. of the Revised Code, any employee of an ambulatory 76923
health facility, any employee of a home health agency, any 76924
employee of a residential facility licensed under section 5119.2276925
5119.34 of the Revised Code that provides accommodations, 76926
supervision, and personal care services for three to sixteen 76927
unrelated adults, any employee of a nursing home, residential care 76928
facility, or home for the aging, as defined in section 3721.01 of 76929
the Revised Code, any senior service provider, any peace officer, 76930
coroner, member of the clergy, any employee of a community mental 76931
health facility, and any person engaged in social work or 76932
counseling having reasonable cause to believe that an adult is 76933
being abused, neglected, or exploited, or is in a condition which 76934
is the result of abuse, neglect, or exploitation shall immediately 76935
report such belief to the county department of job and family 76936
services. This section does not apply to employees of any hospital 76937
or public hospital as defined in section 5122.01 of the Revised 76938
Code.76939

       (B) Any person having reasonable cause to believe that an 76940
adult has suffered abuse, neglect, or exploitation may report, or 76941
cause reports to be made of such belief to the department.76942

       (C) The reports made under this section shall be made orally 76943
or in writing except that oral reports shall be followed by a 76944
written report if a written report is requested by the department. 76945
Written reports shall include:76946

       (1) The name, address, and approximate age of the adult who 76947
is the subject of the report;76948

       (2) The name and address of the individual responsible for 76949
the adult's care, if any individual is, and if the individual is 76950
known;76951

       (3) The nature and extent of the alleged abuse, neglect, or 76952
exploitation of the adult;76953

       (4) The basis of the reporter's belief that the adult has 76954
been abused, neglected, or exploited.76955

       (D) Any person with reasonable cause to believe that an adult 76956
is suffering abuse, neglect, or exploitation who makes a report 76957
pursuant to this section or who testifies in any administrative or 76958
judicial proceeding arising from such a report, or any employee of 76959
the state or any of its subdivisions who is discharging 76960
responsibilities under section 5101.62 of the Revised Code shall 76961
be immune from civil or criminal liability on account of such 76962
investigation, report, or testimony, except liability for perjury, 76963
unless the person has acted in bad faith or with malicious 76964
purpose.76965

       (E) No employer or any other person with the authority to do 76966
so shall discharge, demote, transfer, prepare a negative work 76967
performance evaluation, or reduce benefits, pay, or work 76968
privileges, or take any other action detrimental to an employee or 76969
in any way retaliate against an employee as a result of the 76970
employee's having filed a report under this section.76971

       (F) Neither the written or oral report provided for in this 76972
section nor the investigatory report provided for in section 76973
5101.62 of the Revised Code shall be considered a public record as 76974
defined in section 149.43 of the Revised Code. Information 76975
contained in the report shall upon request be made available to 76976
the adult who is the subject of the report, to agencies authorized 76977
by the department to receive information contained in the report, 76978
and to legal counsel for the adult.76979

       Sec. 5101.80. (A) As used in this section and in section 76980
5101.801 of the Revised Code:76981

       (1) "County family services agency" has the same meaning as 76982
in section 307.981 of the Revised Code.76983

       (2) "State agency" has the same meaning as in section 9.82 of 76984
the Revised Code.76985

       (3) "Title IV-A administrative agency" means both of the 76986
following:76987

       (a) A county family services agency or state agency 76988
administering a Title IV-A program under the supervision of the 76989
department of job and family services;76990

       (b) A government agency or private, not-for-profit entity 76991
administering a project funded in whole or in part with funds 76992
provided under the Title IV-A demonstration program created under 76993
section 5101.803 of the Revised Code.76994

        (4) "Title IV-A program" means all of the following that are 76995
funded in part with funds provided under the temporary assistance 76996
for needy families block grant established by Title IV-A of the 76997
"Social Security Act," 110 Stat. 2113 (1996), 42 U.S.C. 601, as 76998
amended:76999

       (a) The Ohio works first program established under Chapter 77000
5107. of the Revised Code;77001

       (b) The prevention, retention, and contingency program 77002
established under Chapter 5108. of the Revised Code;77003

       (c) A program established by the general assembly or an 77004
executive order issued by the governor that is administered or 77005
supervised by the department of job and family services pursuant 77006
to section 5101.801 of the Revised Code;77007

       (d) The kinship permanency incentive program created under 77008
section 5101.802 of the Revised Code;77009

       (e) The Title IV-A demonstration program created under 77010
section 5101.803 of the Revised Code;77011

       (f) The Ohio parenting and pregnancy program created under 77012
section 5101.804 of the Revised Code;77013

       (g) A component of a Title IV-A program identified under 77014
divisions (A)(4)(a) to (e)(f) of this section that the Title IV-A 77015
state plan prepared under division (C)(1) of this section 77016
identifies as a component.77017

       (B) The department of job and family services shall act as 77018
the single state agency to administer and supervise the 77019
administration of Title IV-A programs. The Title IV-A state plan 77020
and amendments to the plan prepared under division (C) of this 77021
section are binding on Title IV-A administrative agencies. No 77022
Title IV-A administrative agency may establish, by rule or 77023
otherwise, a policy governing a Title IV-A program that is 77024
inconsistent with a Title IV-A program policy established, in rule 77025
or otherwise, by the director of job and family services.77026

       (C) The department of job and family services shall do all of 77027
the following:77028

       (1) Prepare and submit to the United States secretary of 77029
health and human services a Title IV-A state plan for Title IV-A 77030
programs;77031

       (2) Prepare and submit to the United States secretary of 77032
health and human services amendments to the Title IV-A state plan 77033
that the department determines necessary, including amendments 77034
necessary to implement Title IV-A programs identified in divisions 77035
(A)(4)(c) to (f)(g) of this section;77036

       (3) Prescribe forms for applications, certificates, reports, 77037
records, and accounts of Title IV-A administrative agencies, and 77038
other matters related to Title IV-A programs;77039

       (4) Make such reports, in such form and containing such 77040
information as the department may find necessary to assure the 77041
correctness and verification of such reports, regarding Title IV-A 77042
programs;77043

       (5) Require reports and information from each Title IV-A 77044
administrative agency as may be necessary or advisable regarding a 77045
Title IV-A program;77046

       (6) Afford a fair hearing in accordance with section 5101.35 77047
of the Revised Code to any applicant for, or participant or former 77048
participant of, a Title IV-A program aggrieved by a decision 77049
regarding the program;77050

       (7) Administer and expend, pursuant to Chapters 5104., 5107., 77051
and 5108. of the Revised Code and sections 5101.801, 5101.802, and77052
5101.803, and 5101.804 of the Revised Code, any sums appropriated 77053
by the general assembly for the purpose of those chapters and 77054
sections and all sums paid to the state by the secretary of the 77055
treasury of the United States as authorized by Title IV-A of the 77056
"Social Security Act," 110 Stat. 2113 (1996), 42 U.S.C. 601, as 77057
amended;77058

       (8) Conduct investigations and audits as are necessary 77059
regarding Title IV-A programs;77060

       (9) Enter into reciprocal agreements with other states 77061
relative to the provision of Ohio works first and prevention, 77062
retention, and contingency to residents and nonresidents;77063

       (10) Contract with a private entity to conduct an independent 77064
on-going evaluation of the Ohio works first program and the 77065
prevention, retention, and contingency program. The contract must 77066
require the private entity to do all of the following:77067

       (a) Examine issues of process, practice, impact, and 77068
outcomes;77069

       (b) Study former participants of Ohio works first who have 77070
not participated in Ohio works first for at least one year to 77071
determine whether they are employed, the type of employment in 77072
which they are engaged, the amount of compensation they are 77073
receiving, whether their employer provides health insurance, 77074
whether and how often they have received benefits or services 77075
under the prevention, retention, and contingency program, and 77076
whether they are successfully self sufficient;77077

       (c) Provide the department with reports at times the 77078
department specifies.77079

       (11) Not later than the last day of each January and July, 77080
prepare a report containing information on the following:77081

       (a) Individuals exhausting the time limits for participation 77082
in Ohio works first set forth in section 5107.18 of the Revised 77083
Code.77084

       (b) Individuals who have been exempted from the time limits 77085
set forth in section 5107.18 of the Revised Code and the reasons 77086
for the exemption.77087

       (D) The department shall provide copies of the reports it 77088
receives under division (C)(10) of this section and prepares under 77089
division (C)(11) of this section to the governor, the president 77090
and minority leader of the senate, and the speaker and minority 77091
leader of the house of representatives. The department shall 77092
provide copies of the reports to any private or government entity 77093
on request.77094

       (E) An authorized representative of the department or a 77095
county family services agency or state agency administering a 77096
Title IV-A program shall have access to all records and 77097
information bearing thereon for the purposes of investigations 77098
conducted pursuant to this section. An authorized representative 77099
of a government entity or private, not-for-profit entity 77100
administering a project funded in whole or in part with funds 77101
provided under the Title IV-A demonstration program shall have 77102
access to all records and information bearing on the project for 77103
the purpose of investigations conducted pursuant to this section.77104

       Sec. 5101.801.  (A) Except as otherwise provided by the law 77105
enacted by the general assembly or executive order issued by the 77106
governor establishing the Title IV-A program, a Title IV-A program 77107
identified under division (A)(4)(c), (d), (e), or (f), or (g) of 77108
section 5101.80 of the Revised Code shall provide benefits and 77109
services that are not "assistance" as defined in 45 C.F.R. 77110
260.31(a) and are benefits and services that 45 C.F.R. 260.31(b) 77111
excludes from the definition of assistance.77112

       (B)(1) Except as otherwise provided by the law enacted by the 77113
general assembly or executive order issued by the governor 77114
establishing the Title IV-A program, the department of job and 77115
family services shall do either of the following regarding a Title 77116
IV-A program identified under division (A)(4)(c), (d), (e), or77117
(f), or (g) of section 5101.80 of the Revised Code:77118

       (a) Administer the program or supervise a county family 77119
services agency's administration of the program;77120

       (b) Enter into an interagency agreement with a state agency 77121
for the state agency to administer the program under the 77122
department's supervision.77123

       (2) The department may enter into an agreement with a 77124
government entity and, to the extent permitted by federal law, a 77125
private, not-for-profit entity for the entity to receive funding 77126
for a project under the Title IV-A demonstration program created 77127
under section 5101.803 of the Revised Code.77128

       (3) To the extent permitted by federal law, the department 77129
may enter into an agreement with a private, not-for-profit entity 77130
for the entity to receive funds under the Ohio parenting and 77131
pregnancy program created under section 5101.804 of the Revised 77132
Code.77133

       (C) The department may adopt rules governing Title IV-A 77134
programs identified under divisions (A)(4)(c), (d), (e), and (f), 77135
and (g) of section 5101.80 of the Revised Code. Rules governing 77136
financial and operational matters of the department or between the 77137
department and county family services agencies shall be adopted as 77138
internal management rules adopted in accordance with section 77139
111.15 of the Revised Code. All other rules shall be adopted in 77140
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.77141

       (D) If the department enters into an agreement regarding a 77142
Title IV-A program identified under division (A)(4)(c), (e), or77143
(f), or (g) of section 5101.80 of the Revised Code pursuant to 77144
division (B)(1)(b) or (2) of this section, the agreement shall 77145
include at least all of the following:77146

       (1) A requirement that the state agency or entity comply with 77147
the requirements for the program or project, including all of the 77148
following requirements established by federal statutes and 77149
regulations, state statutes and rules, the United States office of 77150
management and budget, and the Title IV-A state plan prepared 77151
under section 5101.80 of the Revised Code:77152

       (a) Eligibility;77153

       (b) Reports;77154

       (c) Benefits and services;77155

       (d) Use of funds;77156

       (e) Appeals for applicants for, and recipients and former 77157
recipients of, the benefits and services;77158

       (f) Audits.77159

       (2) A complete description of all of the following:77160

       (a) The benefits and services that the program or project is 77161
to provide;77162

       (b) The methods of program or project administration;77163

       (c) The appeals process under section 5101.35 of the Revised 77164
Code for applicants for, and recipients and former recipients of, 77165
the program or project's benefits and services;77166

       (d) Other requirements that the department requires be 77167
included.77168

       (3) Procedures for the department to approve a policy, 77169
established by rule or otherwise, that the state agency or entity 77170
establishes for the program or project before the policy is 77171
established;77172

       (4) Provisions regarding how the department is to reimburse 77173
the state agency or entity for allowable expenditures under the 77174
program or project that the department approves, including all of 77175
the following:77176

       (a) Limitations on administrative costs;77177

       (b) The department, at its discretion, doing either of the 77178
following:77179

       (i) Withholding no more than five per cent of the funds that 77180
the department would otherwise provide to the state agency or 77181
entity for the program or project;77182

       (ii) Charging the state agency or entity for the costs to the 77183
department of performing, or contracting for the performance of, 77184
audits and other administrative functions associated with the 77185
program or project.77186

       (5) If the state agency or entity arranges by contract, 77187
grant, or other agreement for another entity to perform a function 77188
the state agency or entity would otherwise perform regarding the 77189
program or project, the state agency or entity's responsibilities 77190
for both of the following:77191

       (a) Ensuring that the other entity complies with the 77192
agreement between the state agency or entity and department and 77193
federal statutes and regulations and state statutes and rules 77194
governing the use of funds for the program or project;77195

       (b) Auditing the other entity in accordance with requirements 77196
established by the United States office of management and budget.77197

       (6) The state agency or entity's responsibilities regarding 77198
the prompt payment, including any interest assessed, of any 77199
adverse audit finding, final disallowance of federal funds, or 77200
other sanction or penalty imposed by the federal government, 77201
auditor of state, department, a court, or other entity regarding 77202
funds for the program or project;77203

       (7) Provisions for the department to terminate the agreement 77204
or withhold reimbursement from the state agency or entity if 77205
either of the following occur:77206

       (a) The federal government disapproves the program or project 77207
or reduces federal funds for the program or project;77208

       (b) The state agency or entity fails to comply with the terms 77209
of the agreement.77210

       (8) Provisions for both of the following:77211

       (a) The department and state agency or entity determining the 77212
performance outcomes expected for the program or project;77213

       (b) An evaluation of the program or project to determine its 77214
success in achieving the performance outcomes determined under 77215
division (D)(8)(a) of this section.77216

       (E) To the extent consistent with the law enacted by the 77217
general assembly or executive order issued by the governor 77218
establishing the Title IV-A program and subject to the approval of 77219
the director of budget and management, the director of job and 77220
family services may terminate a Title IV-A program identified 77221
under division (A)(4)(c), (d), (e), or (f), or (g) of section 77222
5101.80 of the Revised Code or reduce funding for the program if 77223
the director of job and family services determines that federal or 77224
state funds are insufficient to fund the program. If the director 77225
of budget and management approves the termination or reduction in 77226
funding for such a program, the director of job and family 77227
services shall issue instructions for the termination or funding 77228
reduction. If a Title IV-A administrative agency is administering 77229
the program, the agency is bound by the termination or funding 77230
reduction and shall comply with the director's instructions.77231

       (F) The director of job and family services may adopt 77232
internal management rules in accordance with section 111.15 of the 77233
Revised Code as necessary to implement this section. The rules are 77234
binding on each Title IV-A administrative agency.77235

       Sec. 5101.803.  (A) Subject to division (E) of section 77236
5101.801 of the Revised Code, there is hereby created the Title 77237
IV-A demonstration program to provide funding for innovative and 77238
promising prevention and intervention projects that meet one or 77239
more of the four purposes of the temporary assistance for needy 77240
families block grant as specified in 42 U.S.C. 601 and are for 77241
individuals with specific and multiple barriers to achieving or 77242
maintaining self-sufficiency and personal responsibility. The 77243
department of job and family services may provide funding for such 77244
projects to government entities and, to the extent permitted by 77245
federal law, private, not-for-profit entities with which the 77246
department enters into agreements under division (B)(2) of section 77247
5101.801 of the Revised Code.77248

       In accordance with criteria the department develops, the 77249
department may solicit proposals forfrom entities seeking to 77250
enter into an agreement with the department under division (B)(2) 77251
of section 5101.801 of the Revised Code. The department may enter 77252
into such agreements with entities that do both of the following:77253

       (1) Meet the proposals' criteria;77254

       (2) If the entity's proposed project does not potentially 77255
affect persons in each county of the state, provides the 77256
department evidence that the entity has notified, in writing, the 77257
county department of job and family services of each county where 77258
persons may be affected by the implementation of the project.77259

       (B) In developing the criteria, soliciting the proposals, and 77260
entering in the agreements, the department shall comply with all 77261
applicable federal and state laws, the Title IV-A state plan 77262
submitted to the United States secretary of health and human 77263
services under section 5101.80 of the Revised Code, amendments to 77264
the Title IV-A state plan submitted to the United States secretary 77265
under that section, and federal waivers the United States 77266
secretary grants.77267

       (C) The department shall begin implementation of the Title 77268
IV-A demonstration program no later than January 1, 2006.77269

       Sec. 5101.804.  (A) Subject to division (E) of section 77270
5101.801 of the Revised Code, there is hereby created the Ohio 77271
parenting and pregnancy program to provide services for pregnant 77272
women and parents or other relatives caring for children twelve 77273
months of age or younger that do both of the following:77274

       (1) Promote childbirth, parenting, and alternatives to 77275
abortion;77276

       (2) Meet one or more of the four purposes of the temporary 77277
assistance for needy families block grant as specified in 42 77278
U.S.C. 601. 77279

       (B) To the extent permitted by federal law, the department of 77280
job and family services may provide funds under the program to 77281
entities with which the department enters into agreements under 77282
division (B)(3) of section 5101.801 of the Revised Code. In 77283
accordance with criteria the department develops, the department 77284
may solicit proposals from entities seeking to provide services 77285
under the program. The department may enter into an agreement with 77286
an entity only if it meets all of the following conditions:77287

       (1) Is a private, not-for-profit entity;77288

       (2) Is an entity whose primary purpose is to promote 77289
childbirth, rather than abortion, through counseling and other 77290
services, including parenting and adoption support;77291

       (3) Provides services to pregnant women and parents or other 77292
relatives caring for children twelve months of age or younger, 77293
including clothing, counseling, diapers, food, furniture, health 77294
care, parenting classes, postpartum recovery, shelter, and any 77295
other supportive services, programs, or related outreach;77296

       (4) Does not charge pregnant women and parents or other 77297
relatives caring for children twelve months of age or younger a 77298
fee for any services received;77299

       (5) Is not involved in or associated with any abortion 77300
activities, including providing abortion counseling or referrals 77301
to abortion clinics, performing abortion-related medical 77302
procedures, or engaging in pro-abortion advertising;77303

       (6) Does not discriminate in its provision of services on the 77304
basis of race, religion, color, age, marital status, national 77305
origin, disability, or gender.77306

       (C) An entity that has entered into an agreement with the 77307
department under division (B)(3) of section 5101.801 of the 77308
Revised Code may enter into a subcontract with another entity 77309
under which the other entity provides all or part of the services 77310
described in division (B)(3) of this section. A subcontract may be 77311
entered into with another entity only if that entity meets all of 77312
the following conditions:77313

        (1) Is a private, not-for-profit entity;77314

        (2) Is physically and financially separate from any entity, 77315
or component of an entity, that engages in abortion activities;77316

        (3) Is not involved in or associated with any abortion 77317
activities, including providing abortion counseling or referrals 77318
to abortion clinics, performing abortion-related medical 77319
procedures, or engaging in pro-abortion advertising.77320

       (D) The director of job and family services shall adopt rules 77321
under division (C) of section 5101.801 of the Revised Code as 77322
necessary to implement the Ohio parenting and pregnancy program.77323

       Sec. 5103.02.  As used in sections 5103.03 to 5103.17 of the 77324
Revised Code:77325

       (A)(1) "Association" or "institution" includes anyall of the 77326
following:77327

       (a) Any incorporated or unincorporated organization, society, 77328
association, or agency, public or private, that receives or cares 77329
for children for two or more consecutive weeks; any77330

       (b) Any individual, including the operator of a foster home, 77331
who, for hire, gain, or reward, receives or cares for children for 77332
two or more consecutive weeks, unless the individual is related to 77333
them by blood or marriage; and any77334

       (c) Any individual not in the regular employ of a court, or 77335
of an institution or association certified in accordance with 77336
section 5103.03 of the Revised Code, who in any manner becomes a 77337
party to the placing of children in foster homes, unless the 77338
individual is related to such children by blood or marriage, or is 77339
the appointed guardian of such children; provided, that any.77340

       (2) "Association" or "institution" does not include any of 77341
the following:77342

       (a) Any organization, society, association, school, agency, 77343
child guidance center, detention or rehabilitation facility, or 77344
children's clinic licensed, regulated, approved, operated under 77345
the direction of, or otherwise certified by the department of 77346
education, a local board of education, the department of youth 77347
services, the department of mental healthmental health and 77348
addiction services, or the department of developmental 77349
disabilities, or any;77350

       (b) Any individual who provides care for only a single-family 77351
group, placed there by their parents or other relative having 77352
custody, shall not be considered as being within the purview of 77353
these sections;77354

       (c) A therapeutic wilderness camp.77355

       (B) "Family foster home" means a foster home that is not a 77356
specialized foster home.77357

       (C) "Foster caregiver" means a person holding a valid foster 77358
home certificate issued under section 5103.03 of the Revised Code.77359

       (D) "Foster home" means a private residence in which children 77360
are received apart from their parents, guardian, or legal 77361
custodian, by an individual reimbursed for providing the children 77362
nonsecure care, supervision, or training twenty-four hours a day. 77363
"Foster home" does not include care provided for a child in the 77364
home of a person other than the child's parent, guardian, or legal 77365
custodian while the parent, guardian, or legal custodian is 77366
temporarily away. Family foster homes and specialized foster homes 77367
are types of foster homes.77368

       (E) "Medically fragile foster home" means a foster home that 77369
provides specialized medical services designed to meet the needs 77370
of children with intensive health care needs who meet all of the 77371
following criteria:77372

       (1) Under rules adopted by the department of job and family 77373
servicesmedicaid director governing payment under Chapter 5111. 77374
of the Revised Codemedicaid payments for long-term care services, 77375
the children require a skilled level of care.77376

       (2) The children require the services of a doctor of medicine 77377
or osteopathic medicine at least once a week due to the 77378
instability of their medical conditions.77379

       (3) The children require the services of a registered nurse 77380
on a daily basis.77381

       (4) The children are at risk of institutionalization in a 77382
hospital, skilled nursing facility, or intermediate care facility 77383
for the mentally retarded.77384

       (F) "Recommending agency" means a public children services 77385
agency, private child placing agency, or private noncustodial 77386
agency that recommends that the department of job and family 77387
services take any of the following actions under section 5103.03 77388
of the Revised Code regarding a foster home:77389

       (1) Issue a certificate;77390

       (2) Deny a certificate;77391

       (3) Renew a certificate;77392

       (4) Deny renewal of a certificate;77393

       (5) Revoke a certificate.77394

       (G) "Specialized foster home" means a medically fragile 77395
foster home or a treatment foster home.77396

       (H) "Treatment foster home" means a foster home that 77397
incorporates special rehabilitative services designed to treat the 77398
specific needs of the children received in the foster home and 77399
that receives and cares for children who are emotionally or 77400
behaviorally disturbed, chemically dependent, mentally retarded, 77401
developmentally disabled, or who otherwise have exceptional needs.77402

       (I) "Therapeutic wilderness camp" means a structured, 77403
alternative residential setting for children who are experiencing 77404
emotional, behavioral, moral, social, or learning difficulties at 77405
home or school in which both of the following are the case:77406

       (1) The children spend the majority of their time, including 77407
overnight, either outdoors or in a primitive structure;77408

       (2) The children have been placed there by their parents or 77409
another relative having custody."77410

       Sec. 5103.0323.  (A) As used in this section, "government 77411
auditing standards" means the government auditing standards 77412
published by the comptroller general of the United States general 77413
accounting office"American institute of certified public 77414
accountants auditing standards" and "AICPA auditing standards" 77415
mean the auditing standards published by the American institute of 77416
certified public accountants.77417

       (B) The first time that a private child placing agency or 77418
private noncustodial agency seeks renewal of a certificate issued 77419
under section 5103.03 of the Revised Code, it shall provide the 77420
department of job and family services, as a condition of renewal, 77421
evidence of an independent financial statement audit of its first 77422
year of certification, unless the auditor of state has audited the 77423
agency during that year and the audit sets forth that no money has 77424
been illegally expended, converted, misappropriated, or is 77425
unaccounted for or sets forth findings that are inconsequential, 77426
as defined by governmentperformed by a licensed public accounting 77427
firm following applicable AICPA auditing standards for the most 77428
recent fiscal year. Thereafter, when an agency seeks renewal of 77429
its certificate, it shall provide the department evidence of an 77430
independent financial statement audit performed by a licensed 77431
public accounting firm following applicable AICPA auditing 77432
standards for the two most recent previous fiscal years it is 77433
possible for an independent audit to have been conducted, unless 77434
the auditor of state has audited the agency during those years and 77435
the audit sets forth that no money has been illegally expended, 77436
converted, misappropriated, or is unaccounted for or sets forth 77437
findings that are inconsequential, as defined by government 77438
auditing standards.77439

       (C) For an agency to be eligible for renewal, the independent 77440
audits must demonstrate that the agency operated in a fiscally 77441
accountable manner in accordance with state laws and rules and any 77442
agreement between the agency and a public children services 77443
agency.77444

       All audits required by this section shall be conducted in 77445
accordance with generally accepted government auditing standards77446
as determined by the department of job and family services.77447

       (D) The director of job and family services may adopt rules 77448
as necessary to implement this section. The director shall adopt 77449
the rules in accordance with section 111.15 of the Revised Code.77450

       Sec. 5103.13.  (A) As used in this section and section 77451
5103.131 of the Revised Code:77452

       (1)(a) "Children's crisis care facility" means a facility 77453
that has as its primary purpose the provision of residential and 77454
other care to either or both of the following:77455

       (i) One or more preteens voluntarily placed in the facility 77456
by the preteen's parent or other caretaker who is facing a crisis 77457
that causes the parent or other caretaker to seek temporary care 77458
for the preteen and referral for support services;77459

       (ii) One or more preteens placed in the facility by a public 77460
children services agency or private child placing agency that has 77461
legal custody or permanent custody of the preteen and determines 77462
that an emergency situation exists necessitating the preteen's 77463
placement in the facility rather than an institution certified 77464
under section 5103.03 of the Revised Code or elsewhere.77465

       (b) "Children's crisis care facility" does not include either 77466
of the following:77467

        (i) Any organization, society, association, school, agency, 77468
child guidance center, detention or rehabilitation facility, or 77469
children's clinic licensed, regulated, approved, operated under 77470
the direction of, or otherwise certified by the department of 77471
education, a local board of education, the department of youth 77472
services, the department of mental healthmental health and 77473
addiction services, or the department of developmental 77474
disabilities;77475

        (ii) Any individual who provides care for only a 77476
single-family group, placed there by their parents or other 77477
relative having custody.77478

       (2) "Legal custody" and "permanent custody" have the same 77479
meanings as in section 2151.011 of the Revised Code.77480

       (3) "Preteen" means an individual under thirteen years of 77481
age.77482

       (B) No person shall operate a children's crisis care facility 77483
or hold a children's crisis care facility out as a certified 77484
children's crisis care facility unless there is a valid children's 77485
crisis care facility certificate issued under this section for the 77486
facility.77487

       (C) A person seeking to operate a children's crisis care 77488
facility shall apply to the director of job and family services to 77489
obtain a certificate for the facility. The director shall certify 77490
the person's children's crisis care facility if the facility meets 77491
all of the certification standards established in rules adopted 77492
under division (F) of this section and the person complies with 77493
all of the rules governing the certification of children's crisis 77494
care facilities adopted under that division. The issuance of a 77495
children's crisis care facility certificate does not exempt the 77496
facility from a requirement to obtain another certificate or 77497
license mandated by law.77498

       (D)(1) No certified children's crisis care facility shall do 77499
any of the following:77500

       (a) Provide residential care to a preteen for more than one 77501
hundred twenty days in a calendar year;77502

       (b) Subject to division (D)(1)(c) of this section and except 77503
as provided in division (D)(2) of this section, provide 77504
residential care to a preteen for more than sixty consecutive 77505
days;77506

       (c) Except as provided in division (D)(3) of this section, 77507
provide residential care to a preteen for more than seventy-two 77508
consecutive hours if a public children services agency or private 77509
child placing agency placed the preteen in the facility;77510

       (d) Fail to comply with section 2151.86 of the Revised Code.77511

       (2) A certified children's crisis care facility may provide 77512
residential care to a preteen for up to ninety consecutive days, 77513
other than a preteen placed in the facility by a public children 77514
services agency or private child placing agency, if any of the 77515
following are the case:77516

       (a) The preteen's parent or other caretaker is enrolled in an 77517
alcohol and drug addiction program certified under section 3793.06 77518
of the Revised Codeservice or a community mental health service 77519
certified under section 5119.6115119.36 of the Revised Code;77520

        (b) The preteen's parent or other caretaker is an inpatient 77521
in a hospital;77522

        (c) The preteen's parent or other caretaker is incarcerated;77523

        (d) A physician has diagnosed the preteen's parent or other 77524
caretaker as medically incapacitated.77525

       (3) A certified children's crisis care facility may provide 77526
residential care to a preteen placed in the facility by a public 77527
children services agency or private child placing agency for more 77528
than seventy-two consecutive hours if the director of job and 77529
family services or the director's designee issues the agency a 77530
waiver of the seventy-two consecutive hour limitation. The waiver 77531
may authorize the certified children's crisis care facility to 77532
provide residential care to the preteen for up to fourteen 77533
consecutive days.77534

       (E) The director of job and family services may suspend or 77535
revoke a children's crisis care facility's certificate pursuant to 77536
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code if the facility violates division 77537
(D) of this section or ceases to meet any of the certification 77538
standards established in rules adopted under division (F) of this 77539
section or the facility's operator ceases to comply with any of 77540
the rules governing the certification of children's crisis care 77541
facilities adopted under that division.77542

       (F) Not later than ninety days after September 21, 2006, the 77543
director of job and family services shall adopt rules pursuant to 77544
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code for the certification of 77545
children's crisis care facilities. The rules shall specify that a 77546
certificate shall not be issued to an applicant if the conditions 77547
at the children's crisis care facility would jeopardize the health 77548
or safety of the preteens placed in the facility.77549

       Sec. 5103.42.  Prior to the beginning of the fiscal biennium 77550
that first follows October 5, 2000, the public children services 77551
agencies of Athens, Cuyahoga, Franklin, Greene, Guernsey, 77552
Hamilton, Lucas, and Summit counties shall each establish and 77553
maintain a regional training center. Prior to the beginning of the 77554
fiscal biennium that first follows the effective date of this 77555
amendment, the public children services agency of Butler county 77556
shall establish and maintain a regional training center. At any 77557
time after the beginning of thatthe specified biennium, the 77558
department of job and family services, on the recommendation of 77559
the Ohio child welfare training program steering committee, may 77560
direct a public children services agency to establish and maintain 77561
a training center to replace the center established by an agency 77562
under this section. There may be no more and no less than eight 77563
centers in existence at any time. The department may make a grant 77564
to a public children services agency that establishes and 77565
maintains a regional training center under this section for the 77566
purpose of wholly or partially subsidizing the operation of the 77567
center. The department shall specify in the grant all of the 77568
center's duties, including the duties specified in section 77569
5103.422 of the Revised Code.77570

       The regional training center established by the public 77571
children services agency of Butler county under this section 77572
replaces the regional training center previously established by 77573
the public children services agency of Hamilton county under this 77574
section. 77575

       Sec. 5104.012.  (A)(1) At the times specified in this 77576
division, the administrator of a child day-care center or a type A 77577
family day-care home shall request the superintendent of the 77578
bureau of criminal identification and investigation to conduct a 77579
criminal records check with respect to any applicant who has 77580
applied to the center or type A home for employment as a person 77581
responsible for the care, custody, or control of a child. 77582

        The administrator shall request a criminal records check 77583
pursuant to this division at the time of the applicant's initial 77584
application for employment and every fourfive years thereafter. 77585
When the administrator requests pursuant to this division a 77586
criminal records check for an applicant at the time of the 77587
applicant's initial application for employment, the administrator 77588
shall request that the superintendent obtain information from the 77589
federal bureau of investigation as a part of the criminal records 77590
check for the applicant, including fingerprint-based checks of 77591
national crime information databases as described in 42 U.S.C. 77592
671, for the person subject to the criminal records check. In all 77593
other cases in which the administrator requests a criminal records 77594
check for an applicant pursuant to this division, the 77595
administrator may request that the superintendent include 77596
information from the federal bureau of investigation in the 77597
criminal records check, including fingerprint-based checks of 77598
national crime information databases as described in 42 U.S.C. 77599
671.77600

       (2) A person required by division (A)(1) of this section to 77601
request a criminal records check shall provide to each applicant a 77602
copy of the form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of section 77603
109.572 of the Revised Code, provide to each applicant a standard 77604
impression sheet to obtain fingerprint impressions prescribed 77605
pursuant to division (C)(2) of section 109.572 of the Revised 77606
Code, obtain the completed form and impression sheet from each 77607
applicant, and forward the completed form and impression sheet to 77608
the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and 77609
investigation at the time the person requests a criminal records 77610
check pursuant to division (A)(1) of this section. On and after 77611
August 14, 2008, the administrator of a child day-care center or a 77612
type A family day-care home shall review the results of the 77613
criminal records check before the applicant has sole 77614
responsibility for the care, custody, or control of any child.77615

       (3) An applicant who receives pursuant to division (A)(2) of 77616
this section a copy of the form prescribed pursuant to division 77617
(C)(1) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code and a copy of an 77618
impression sheet prescribed pursuant to division (C)(2) of that 77619
section and who is requested to complete the form and provide a 77620
set of fingerprint impressions shall complete the form or provide 77621
all the information necessary to complete the form and shall 77622
provide the impression sheet with the impressions of the 77623
applicant's fingerprints. If an applicant, upon request, fails to 77624
provide the information necessary to complete the form or fails to 77625
provide impressions of the applicant's fingerprints, the center or 77626
type A home shall not employ that applicant for any position for 77627
which a criminal records check is required by division (A)(1) of 77628
this section.77629

       (B)(1) Except as provided in rules adopted under division (E) 77630
of this section, no child day-care center or type A family 77631
day-care home shall employ or contract with another entity for the 77632
services of a person as a person responsible for the care, 77633
custody, or control of a child if the person previously has been 77634
convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the violations described 77635
in division (A)(5) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code.77636

       (2) A child day-care center or type A family day-care home 77637
may employ an applicant conditionally until the criminal records 77638
check required by this section is completed and the center or home 77639
receives the results of the criminal records check. If the results 77640
of the criminal records check indicate that, pursuant to division 77641
(B)(1) of this section, the applicant does not qualify for 77642
employment, the center or home shall release the applicant from 77643
employment.77644

       (C)(1) Each child day-care center and type A family day-care 77645
home shall pay to the bureau of criminal identification and 77646
investigation the fee prescribed pursuant to division (C)(3) of 77647
section 109.572 of the Revised Code for each criminal records 77648
check conducted in accordance with that section upon the request 77649
pursuant to division (A)(1) of this section of the administrator 77650
or provider of the center or home.77651

       (2) A child day-care center and type A family day-care home 77652
may charge an applicant a fee for the costs it incurs in obtaining 77653
a criminal records check under this section. A fee charged under 77654
this division shall not exceed the amount of fees the center or 77655
home pays under division (C)(1) of this section. If a fee is 77656
charged under this division, the center or home shall notify the 77657
applicant at the time of the applicant's initial application for 77658
employment of the amount of the fee and that, unless the fee is 77659
paid, the center or type A home will not consider the applicant 77660
for employment.77661

       (D) The report of any criminal records check conducted by the 77662
bureau of criminal identification and investigation in accordance 77663
with section 109.572 of the Revised Code and pursuant to a request 77664
under division (A)(1) of this section is not a public record for 77665
the purposes of section 149.43 of the Revised Code and shall not 77666
be made available to any person other than the applicant who is 77667
the subject of the criminal records check or the applicant's 77668
representative; the center or type A home requesting the criminal 77669
records check or its representative; the department of job and 77670
family services or a county department of job and family services; 77671
and any court, hearing officer, or other necessary individual 77672
involved in a case dealing with the denial of employment to the 77673
applicant.77674

       (E) The director of job and family services shall adopt rules 77675
pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement this 77676
section, including rules specifying circumstances under which a 77677
center or home may hire a person who has been convicted of an 77678
offense listed in division (B)(1) of this section but who meets 77679
standards in regard to rehabilitation set by the department.77680

       (F) Any person required by division (A)(1) of this section to 77681
request a criminal records check shall inform each person, at the 77682
time of the person's initial application for employment, that the 77683
person is required to provide a set of impressions of the person's 77684
fingerprints and that a criminal records check is required to be 77685
conducted and satisfactorily completed in accordance with section 77686
109.572 of the Revised Code if the person comes under final 77687
consideration for appointment or employment as a precondition to 77688
employment for that position.77689

       (G) As used in this section:77690

       (1) "Applicant" means a person who is under final 77691
consideration for appointment to or employment in a position with 77692
a child day-care center or a type A family day-care home as a 77693
person responsible for the care, custody, or control of a child; 77694
an in-home aide certified pursuant to section 5104.12 of the 77695
Revised Code; or any person who would serve in any position with a 77696
child day-care center or a type A family day-care home as a person 77697
responsible for the care, custody, or control of a child pursuant 77698
to a contract with another entity.77699

       (2) "Criminal records check" has the same meaning as in 77700
section 109.572 of the Revised Code.77701

       Sec. 5104.013.  (A)(1) At the times specified in division 77702
(A)(3) of this section, the director of job and family services, 77703
as part of the process of licensure of child day-care centers and 77704
type A family day-care homes, shall request the superintendent of 77705
the bureau of criminal identification and investigation to conduct 77706
a criminal records check with respect to the following persons:77707

       (a) Any owner, licensee, or administrator of a child day-care 77708
center;77709

       (b) Any owner, licensee, or administrator of a type A family 77710
day-care home and any person eighteen years of age or older who 77711
resides in a type A family day-care home.77712

       (2) At the times specified in division (A)(3) of this 77713
section, the director of a county department of job and family 77714
services, as part of the process of certification of type B family 77715
day-care homes, shall request the superintendent of the bureau of 77716
criminal identification and investigation to conduct a criminal 77717
records check with respect to any authorized provider of a 77718
certified type B family day-care home and any person eighteen 77719
years of age or older who resides in a certified type B family 77720
day-care home.77721

       (3) The director of job and family services shall request a 77722
criminal records check pursuant to division (A)(1) of this section 77723
at the time of the initial application for licensure and every 77724
fourfive years thereafter. The director of a county department of 77725
job and family services shall request a criminal records check 77726
pursuant to division (A)(2) of this section at the time of the 77727
initial application for certification and every fourfive years 77728
thereafter at the time of a certification renewal. When the 77729
director of job and family services or the director of a county 77730
department of job and family services requests pursuant to 77731
division (A)(1) or (2) of this section a criminal records check 77732
for a person at the time of the person's initial application for 77733
licensure or certification, the director shall request that the 77734
superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and 77735
investigation obtain information from the federal bureau of 77736
investigation as a part of the criminal records check for the 77737
person, including fingerprint-based checks of national crime 77738
information databases as described in 42 U.S.C. 671 for the person 77739
subject to the criminal records check. In all other cases in which 77740
the director of job and family services or the director of a 77741
county department of job and family services requests a criminal 77742
records check for an applicant pursuant to division (A)(1) or (2) 77743
of this section, the director may request that the superintendent 77744
include information from the federal bureau of investigation in 77745
the criminal records check, including fingerprint-based checks of 77746
national crime information databases as described in 42 U.S.C. 77747
671. 77748

       (4) The director of job and family services shall review the 77749
results of a criminal records check subsequent to a request made 77750
pursuant to divisions (A)(1) and (3) of this section prior to 77751
approval of a license. The director of a county department of job 77752
and family services shall review the results of a criminal records 77753
check subsequent to a request made pursuant to divisions (A)(2) 77754
and (3) of this section prior to approval of certification.77755

       (B) The director of job and family services or the director 77756
of a county department of job and family services shall provide to 77757
each person for whom a criminal records check is required under 77758
this section a copy of the form prescribed pursuant to division 77759
(C)(1) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code and a standard 77760
impression sheet to obtain fingerprint impressions prescribed 77761
pursuant to division (C)(2) of that section, obtain the completed 77762
form and impression sheet from that person, and forward the 77763
completed form and impression sheet to the superintendent of the 77764
bureau of criminal identification and investigation.77765

       (C) A person who receives pursuant to division (B) of this 77766
section a copy of the form and standard impression sheet described 77767
in that division and who is requested to complete the form and 77768
provide a set of fingerprint impressions shall complete the form 77769
or provide all the information necessary to complete the form and 77770
shall provide the impression sheet with the impressions of the 77771
person's fingerprints. If the person, upon request, fails to 77772
provide the information necessary to complete the form or fails to 77773
provide impressions of the person's fingerprints, the director may 77774
consider the failure as a reason to deny licensure or 77775
certification.77776

       (D) Except as provided in rules adopted under division (G) of 77777
this section, the director of job and family services shall not 77778
grant a license to a child day-care center or type A family 77779
day-care home and a county director of job and family services 77780
shall not certify a type B family day-care home if a person for 77781
whom a criminal records check was required in connection with the 77782
center or home previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty 77783
to any of the violations described in division (A)(5) of section 77784
109.572 of the Revised Code.77785

       (E) Each child day-care center, type A family day-care home, 77786
and type B family day-care home shall pay to the bureau of 77787
criminal identification and investigation the fee prescribed 77788
pursuant to division (C)(3) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code 77789
for each criminal records check conducted in accordance with that 77790
section upon a request made pursuant to division (A) of this 77791
section.77792

       (F) The report of any criminal records check conducted by the 77793
bureau of criminal identification and investigation in accordance 77794
with section 109.572 of the Revised Code and pursuant to a request 77795
made under division (A) of this section is not a public record for 77796
the purposes of section 149.43 of the Revised Code and shall not 77797
be made available to any person other than the person who is the 77798
subject of the criminal records check or the person's 77799
representative, the director of job and family services, the 77800
director of a county department of job and family services, the 77801
center, type A home, or type B home involved, and any court, 77802
hearing officer, or other necessary individual involved in a case 77803
dealing with a denial of licensure or certification related to the 77804
criminal records check.77805

       (G) The director of job and family services shall adopt rules 77806
pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement this 77807
section, including rules specifying exceptions to the prohibition 77808
in division (D) of this section for persons who have been 77809
convicted of an offense listed in that division but who meet 77810
standards in regard to rehabilitation set by the director.77811

       (H) As used in this section, "criminal records check" has the 77812
same meaning as in section 109.572 of the Revised Code.77813

       Sec. 5104.02.  (A) The director of job and family services is 77814
responsible for the licensing of child day-care centers and type A 77815
family day-care homes. Each entity operating a head start program 77816
shall meet the criteria for, and be licensed as, a child day-care 77817
center. The director is responsible for the enforcement of this 77818
chapter and of rules promulgated pursuant to this chapter.77819

       No person, firm, organization, institution, or agency shall 77820
operate, establish, manage, conduct, or maintain a child day-care 77821
center or type A family day-care home without a license issued 77822
under section 5104.03 of the Revised Code. The current license 77823
shall be posted in a conspicuous place in the center or type A 77824
home that is accessible to parents, custodians, or guardians and 77825
employees of the center or type A home at all times when the 77826
center or type A home is in operation.77827

       (B) A person, firm, institution, organization, or agency 77828
operating any of the following programs is exempt from the 77829
requirements of this chapter:77830

       (1) A program of child care that operates for two or less 77831
consecutive weeks;77832

       (2) Child care in places of worship during religious 77833
activities during which children are cared for while at least one 77834
parent, guardian, or custodian of each child is participating in 77835
such activities and is readily available;77836

       (3) Religious activities which do not provide child care;77837

       (4) Supervised training, instruction, or activities of 77838
children in specific areas, including, but not limited to: art; 77839
drama; dance; music; gymnastics, swimming, or another athletic 77840
skill or sport; computers; or an educational subject conducted on 77841
an organized or periodic basis no more than one day a week and for 77842
no more than six hours duration;77843

       (5) Programs in which the director determines that at least 77844
one parent, custodian, or guardian of each child is on the 77845
premises of the facility offering child care and is readily 77846
accessible at all times, except that child care provided on the 77847
premises at which a parent, custodian, or guardian is employed 77848
more than two and one-half hours a day shall be licensed in 77849
accordance with division (A) of this section;77850

       (6)(a) Programs that provide child care funded and regulated 77851
or operated and regulated by state departments other than the 77852
department of job and family services or the state board of 77853
education when the director of job and family services has 77854
determined that the rules governing the program are equivalent to 77855
or exceed the rules promulgated pursuant to this chapter.77856

       Notwithstanding any exemption from regulation under this 77857
chapter, each state department shall submit to the director of job 77858
and family services a copy of the rules that govern programs that 77859
provide child care and are regulated or operated and regulated by 77860
the department. Annually, each state department shall submit to 77861
the director a report for each such program it regulates or 77862
operates and regulates that includes the following information:77863

       (i) The site location of the program;77864

       (ii) The maximum number of infants, toddlers, preschool-age 77865
children, or school-age children served by the program at one 77866
time;77867

       (iii) The number of adults providing child care for the 77868
number of infants, toddlers, preschool-age children, or school-age 77869
children;77870

       (iv) Any changes in the rules made subsequent to the time 77871
when the rules were initially submitted to the director.77872

       The director shall maintain a record of the child care 77873
information submitted by other state departments and shall provide 77874
this information upon request to the general assembly or the 77875
public.77876

       (b) Child care programs conducted by boards of education or 77877
by chartered nonpublic schools that are conducted in school 77878
buildings and that provide child care to school-age children only 77879
shall be exempt from meeting or exceeding rules promulgated 77880
pursuant to this chapter.77881

       (7) Any preschool program or school child program, except a 77882
head start program, that is subject to licensure by the department 77883
of education under sections 3301.52 to 3301.59 of the Revised 77884
Code.77885

       (8) Any program providing child care that meets all of the 77886
following requirements and, on October 20, 1987, was being 77887
operated by a nonpublic school that holds a charter issued by the 77888
state board of education for kindergarten only:77889

       (a) The nonpublic school has given the notice to the state 77890
board and the director of job and family services required by 77891
Section 4 of Substitute House Bill No. 253 of the 117th general 77892
assembly;77893

       (b) The nonpublic school continues to be chartered by the 77894
state board for kindergarten, or receives and continues to hold a 77895
charter from the state board for kindergarten through grade five;77896

       (c) The program is conducted in a school building;77897

       (d) The program is operated in accordance with rules 77898
promulgated by the state board under sections 3301.52 to 3301.57 77899
of the Revised Code.77900

       (9) A youth development program operated outside of school 77901
hours by a community-based center to which all of the following 77902
apply:77903

       (a) The children enrolled in the program are under nineteen 77904
years of age and enrolled in or eligible to be enrolled in a grade 77905
of kindergarten or above.77906

       (b) The program provides informal child care and at least 77907
two, which is child care that does not require parental signature, 77908
permission, or notice for the child receiving the care to enter or 77909
leave the program;77910

       (c) The program provides any of the following supervised 77911
activities: educational, recreational, culturally enriching, 77912
social, and personal development activities.77913

       (c)(d) The program is eligible for participation in the child 77914
and adult care food program as an outside-school-hours care center 77915
pursuant to standards established under section 3313.813 of the 77916
Revised Code.77917

       (d)(e) The community-based center operating the program is 77918
exempt from federal income taxation pursuant to 26 U.S.C. 501(a) 77919
and (c)(3).77920

       Sec. 5104.021.  The director of job and family services may77921
not issue a child day-care center or type A family day-care home 77922
license to a youth development program that is exempted by 77923
division (B)(9) of section 5104.02 of the Revised Code from the 77924
requirements of this chapter if the youth development program 77925
applies for and meets all of the requirements for the license.77926

       Sec. 5104.03.  (A) Any person, firm, organization, 77927
institution, or agency desiring to establish a child day-care 77928
center or type A family day-care home shall apply for a license to 77929
the director of job and family services on such form as the 77930
director prescribes. The director shall provide at no charge to 77931
each applicant for licensure a copy of the child care license 77932
requirements in this chapter and a copy of the rules adopted 77933
pursuant to this chapter. The copies may be provided in paper or 77934
electronic form.77935

       Fees shall be set by the director pursuant to section 77936
5104.011 of the Revised Code and shall be paid at the time of 77937
application for a license to operate a center or type A home. Fees 77938
collected under this section shall be paid into the state treasury 77939
to the credit of the general revenue fund.77940

       (B) Upon filing of the application for a license, the 77941
director shall investigate and inspect the center or type A home 77942
to determine the license capacity for each age category of 77943
children of the center or type A home and to determine whether the 77944
center or type A home complies with this chapter and rules adopted 77945
pursuant to this chapter. When, after investigation and 77946
inspection, the director is satisfied that this chapter and rules 77947
adopted pursuant to it are complied with, subject to division (G) 77948
of this section, a provisional license shall be issued as soon as 77949
practicable in such form and manner as prescribed by the director. 77950
The provisional license shall be valid for twelve months from the 77951
date of issuance unless revoked.77952

       (C) The director shall investigate and inspect the center or 77953
type A home at least once during operation under the provisional 77954
license. If after the investigation and inspection the director 77955
determines that the requirements of this chapter and rules adopted 77956
pursuant to this chapter are met, subject to division (G) of this 77957
section, the director shall issue a license to the center or home.77958

       (D) The license or provisional license shall state the name 77959
of the licensee, the name of the administrator, the address of the 77960
center or type A home, and the license capacity for each age 77961
category of children. The license or provisional license shall 77962
include thereon, in accordance with section 5104.011 of the 77963
Revised Code, the toll-free telephone number to be used by persons 77964
suspecting that the center or type A home has violated a provision 77965
of this chapter or rules adopted pursuant to this chapter. A 77966
license or provisional license is valid only for the licensee, 77967
administrator, address, and license capacity for each age category 77968
of children designated on the license. The license capacity 77969
specified on the license or provisional license is the maximum 77970
number of children in each age category that may be cared for in 77971
the center or type A home at one time.77972

       The center or type A home licensee shall notify the director 77973
when the administrator of the center or home changes. The director 77974
shall amend the current license or provisional license to reflect 77975
a change in an administrator, if the administrator meets the 77976
requirements of Chapter 5104. of the Revised Code and rules 77977
adopted pursuant to Chapter 5104. of the Revised Code, or a change 77978
in license capacity for any age category of children as determined 77979
by the director of job and family services.77980

       (E) If the director revokes the license of a center or a type 77981
A home, the director shall not issue another license to the owner 77982
of the center or type A home until five years have elapsed from 77983
the date the license is revoked. 77984

        If the director denies an application for a license, the 77985
director shall not accept another application from the applicant 77986
until five years have elapsed from the date the application is 77987
denied.77988

        (F) If during the application for licensure process the 77989
director determines that the license of the owner has been 77990
revoked, the investigation of the center or type A home shall 77991
cease. This action does not constitute denial of the application 77992
and may not be appealed under division (G) of this section. 77993

       (G) All actions of the director with respect to licensing 77994
centers or type A homes, refusal to license, and revocation of a 77995
license shall be in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised 77996
Code. Any applicant who is denied a license or any owner whose 77997
license is revoked may appeal in accordance with section 119.12 of 77998
the Revised Code.77999

       (H) In no case shall the director issue a license or 78000
provisional license under this section for a type A home or center 78001
if the director, based on documentation provided by the 78002
appropriate county department of job and family services, 78003
determines that the applicant previously had been certified as a 78004
type B family day-care home, that the county department revoked 78005
that certification within the immediately preceding five years, 78006
that the revocation was based on the applicant's refusal or 78007
inability to comply with the criteria for certification, and that 78008
the refusal or inability resulted in a risk to the health or 78009
safety of children.78010

       Sec. 5104.08. (A) There is hereby created in the department 78011
of job and family services a child care advisory council to advise 78012
and assist the department in the administration of this chapter 78013
and in the development of child care. The council shall consist of 78014
twenty-two voting members appointed by the director of job and 78015
family services with the approval of the governor. The director of 78016
job and family services, the director of developmental 78017
disabilities, the director of mental healthmental health and 78018
addiction services, the superintendent of public instruction, the 78019
director of health, the director of commerce, and the state fire 78020
marshal shall serve as nonvoting members of the council.78021

       Six members shall be representatives of child care centers 78022
subject to licensing, the members to represent a variety of 78023
centers, including nonprofit and proprietary, from different 78024
geographical areas of the state. At least three members shall be 78025
parents, guardians, or custodians of children receiving child care 78026
or publicly funded child care in the child's own home, a center, a 78027
type A home, a head start program, a certified type B home, or a 78028
type B home at the time of appointment. Three members shall be 78029
representatives of in-home aides, type A homes, certified type B 78030
homes, or type B homes or head start programs. At least six 78031
members shall represent county departments of job and family 78032
services. The remaining members shall be representatives of the 78033
teaching, child development, and health professions, and other 78034
individuals interested in the welfare of children. At least six 78035
members of the council shall not be employees or licensees of a 78036
child day-care center, head start program, or type A home, or 78037
providers operating a certified type B home or type B home, or 78038
in-home aides.78039

        Appointments shall be for three-year terms. Vacancies shall 78040
be filled for the unexpired terms. A member of the council is 78041
subject to removal by the director of job and family services for 78042
a willful and flagrant exercise of authority or power that is not 78043
authorized by law, for a refusal or willful neglect to perform any 78044
official duty as a member of the council imposed by law, or for 78045
being guilty of misfeasance, malfeasance, nonfeasance, or gross 78046
neglect of duty as a member of the council.78047

       There shall be two co-chairpersons of the council. One 78048
co-chairperson shall be the director of job and family services or 78049
the director's designee, and one co-chairperson shall be elected 78050
by the members of the council. The council shall meet as often as 78051
is necessary to perform its duties, provided that it shall meet at 78052
least once in each quarter of each calendar year and at the call 78053
of the co-chairpersons. The co-chairpersons or their designee 78054
shall send to each member a written notice of the date, time, and 78055
place of each meeting.78056

       Members of the council shall serve without compensation, but 78057
shall be reimbursed for necessary expenses.78058

       (B) The child care advisory council shall advise the director 78059
on matters affecting the licensing of centers and type A homes and 78060
the certification of type B homes and in-home aides. The council 78061
shall make an annual report to the director of job and family 78062
services that addresses the availability, affordability, 78063
accessibility, and quality of child care and that summarizes the 78064
recommendations and plans of action that the council has proposed 78065
to the director during the preceding fiscal year. The director of 78066
job and family services shall provide copies of the report to the 78067
governor, speaker and minority leader of the house of 78068
representatives, and the president and minority leader of the 78069
senate and, on request, shall make copies available to the public.78070

       (C) The director of job and family services shall adopt rules 78071
pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement this 78072
section.78073

       Sec. 5104.11.  (A)(1) Every person desiring to receive 78074
certification for a type B family day-care home to provide 78075
publicly funded child care shall apply for certification to the 78076
county director of job and family services on such forms as the 78077
director of job and family services prescribes. The county 78078
director shall provide at no charge to each applicant a copy of 78079
rules for certifying type B family day-care homes adopted pursuant 78080
to this chapter.78081

       (2) Except as provided in division (G)(1) of section 5104.011 78082
of the Revised Code, after receipt of an application for 78083
certification from a type B family day-care home, the county 78084
director of job and family services shall inspect the home. If it 78085
complies with this chapter and any applicable rules adopted under 78086
this chapter, the county department shall certify the type B 78087
family day-care home to provide publicly funded child care 78088
pursuant to this chapter and any rules adopted under it. The 78089
director of job and family services or a county director of job 78090
and family services may contract with a government entity or a 78091
private nonprofit entity for that entity to inspect and certify 78092
type B family day-care homes pursuant to this section. The county 78093
department of job and family services, government entity, or 78094
nonprofit entity shall conduct the inspection prior to the 78095
issuance of a certificate for the type B home and, as part of that 78096
inspection, ensure that the type B home is safe and sanitary.78097

       (3)(a) On receipt of an application for certification for a 78098
type B family day-care home to provide publicly funded child care 78099
or for renewal of such certification, the county department shall 78100
request from both of the followingthe public children services 78101
agency information concerning any abuse or neglect report made 78102
pursuant to section 2151.421 of the Revised Code of which the 78103
applicant, any other adult residing in the applicant's home, or a 78104
person designated by the applicant to be an emergency or 78105
substitute caregiver for the applicant is the subject:78106

       (i) The public children services agency, until the county 78107
department is notified by the department of job and family 78108
services that the uniform statewide automated child welfare 78109
information system has been finalized statewide; 78110

       (ii) Upon receipt of notification under division (D) of 78111
section 5101.13 of the Revised Code that the uniform statewide 78112
automated child welfare information system has been implemented 78113
statewide, the uniform statewide automated child welfare 78114
information system via the department.78115

       (b) The county department shall consider any information 78116
provided by the agency or the department pursuant to section 78117
5153.175 of the Revised Code. If the county department determines 78118
that the information, when viewed within the totality of the 78119
circumstances, reasonably leads to the conclusion that the 78120
applicant may directly or indirectly endanger the health, safety, 78121
or welfare of children, the county department shall deny the 78122
application for certification or renewal of certification, or 78123
revoke the certification of an authorized provider.78124

       (c) As used in division (A)(3) of this section, "public 78125
children services agency" means either an entity separate from the 78126
county department or the part of the county department that serves 78127
as the county's public children services agency, as appropriate.78128

       (4) Except as provided in division (A)(5) of this section, an 78129
authorized provider of a type B family day-care home that receives 78130
a certificate pursuant to this section to provide publicly funded 78131
child care is an independent contractor and is not an employee of 78132
the county department of job and family services that issues the 78133
certificate.78134

       (5) For purposes of Chapter 4141. of the Revised Code, 78135
determinations concerning the employment of an authorized provider 78136
of a type B family day-care home that receives a certificate 78137
pursuant to this section shall be determined under Chapter 4141. 78138
of the Revised Code.78139

       (B)(1) If the county director of job and family services 78140
determines that the type B family day-care home complies with this 78141
chapter and any rules adopted under it, the county director shall 78142
issue to the provider a certificate to provide publicly funded 78143
child care, which. The certificate is valid for twelve months, 78144
unless revoked earlier. The county director may revoke the 78145
certificate after determining that revocation is necessary. The 78146
authorized provider shall post the certificate in a conspicuous 78147
place in the certified type B home that is accessible to parents, 78148
custodians, or guardians at all times. The certificate shall state 78149
the name and address of the authorized provider, the maximum 78150
number of children who may be cared for at any one time in the 78151
certified type B home, the expiration date of the certification, 78152
and the name and telephone number of the county director who 78153
issued the certificate.78154

       (2) The county director may revoke a certificate to provide 78155
publicly funded child care in either of the following 78156
circumstances:78157

        (a) The county director determines, pursuant to rules adopted 78158
under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, that revocation is 78159
necessary;78160

        (b) The authorized provider does not comply with division 78161
(D)(2) of section 5104.32 of the Revised Code.78162

       (C)(1) The county director shall inspect every certified type 78163
B family day-care home at least twice within each twelve-month 78164
period of the operation of the certified type B home. A minimum of 78165
one inspection shall be unannounced and all inspections may be 78166
unannounced. Upon receipt of a complaint, the county director 78167
shall investigate the certified type B home, and division (C)(2) 78168
of this section applies regarding the complaint. The authorized 78169
provider shall permit the county director to inspect any part of 78170
the certified type B home. The county director shall prepare a 78171
written inspection report and furnish one copy to the authorized 78172
provider within a reasonable time after the inspection.78173

       (2) Upon receipt of a complaint as described in division 78174
(C)(1) of this section, in addition to the investigation that is 78175
required under that division, both of the following apply:78176

       (a) If the complaint alleges that a child suffered physical 78177
harm while receiving child care at the certified type B family 78178
day-care home or that the noncompliance with law or act alleged in 78179
the complaint involved, resulted in, or poses a substantial risk 78180
of physical harm to a child receiving child care at the home, the 78181
county director shall inspect the home.78182

       (b) If division (C)(2)(a) of this section does not apply 78183
regarding the complaint, the county director may inspect the 78184
certified type B family day-care home.78185

       (3) Division (C)(2) of this section does not limit, restrict, 78186
or negate any duty of the county director to inspect a certified 78187
type B family day-care home that otherwise is imposed under this 78188
section, or any authority of the county director to inspect a home 78189
that otherwise is granted under this section when the county 78190
director believes the inspection is necessary and it is permitted 78191
under the grant.78192

       (D) The county director of job and family services, in 78193
accordance with rules adopted pursuant to section 5104.052 of the 78194
Revised Code regarding fire safety and fire prevention, shall 78195
inspect each type B home that applies to be certified that is 78196
providing or is to provide publicly funded child care.78197

       (E) All materials that are supplied by the department of job 78198
and family services to type A family day-care home providers, type 78199
B family day-care home providers, in-home aides, persons who 78200
desire to be type A family day-care home providers, type B family 78201
day-care home providers, or in-home aides, and caretaker parents 78202
shall be written at no higher than the sixth grade reading level. 78203
The department may employ a readability expert to verify its 78204
compliance with this division.78205

       Sec. 5104.12.  (A) The county director of job and family 78206
services may certify in-home aides to provide publicly funded 78207
child care pursuant to this chapter and any rules adopted under 78208
it. Any in-home aide who receives a certificate pursuant to this 78209
section to provide publicly funded child care is an independent 78210
contractor and is not an employee of the county department of job 78211
and family services that issues the certificate.78212

       (B) Every person desiring to receive certification as an 78213
in-home aide shall apply for certification to the county director 78214
of job and family services on such forms as the director of job 78215
and family services prescribes. The county director shall provide 78216
at no charge to each applicant a copy of rules for certifying 78217
in-home aides adopted pursuant to this chapter.78218

       (C)(1) If the county director of job and family services 78219
determines that public funds are available and that the person 78220
complies with this chapter and any rules adopted under it, the 78221
county director shall certify the person as an in-home aide and 78222
issue the person a certificate to provide publicly funded child 78223
care for twelve months. The county director may revoke the 78224
certificate after determining that revocation is necessary. The 78225
county director shall furnish a copy of the certificate to the 78226
parent, custodian, or guardian. The certificate shall state the 78227
name and address of the in-home aide, the expiration date of the 78228
certification, and the name and telephone number of the county 78229
director who issued the certificate.78230

       (2) The county director may revoke the certificate in either 78231
of the following circumstances:78232

        (a) The county director determines, pursuant to rules adopted 78233
under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, that revocation is 78234
necessary;78235

        (b) The in-home aide does not comply with division (D)(2) of 78236
section 5104.32 of the Revised Code.78237

       (D)(1) The county director of job and family services shall 78238
inspect every home of a child who is receiving publicly funded 78239
child care in the child's own home while the in-home aide is 78240
providing the services. Inspections may be unannounced. Upon 78241
receipt of a complaint, the county director shall investigate the 78242
in-home aide, shall investigate the home of a child who is 78243
receiving publicly funded child care in the child's own home, and 78244
division (D)(2) of this section applies regarding the complaint. 78245
The caretaker parent shall permit the county director to inspect 78246
any part of the child's home. The county director shall prepare a 78247
written inspection report and furnish one copy each to the in-home 78248
aide and the caretaker parent within a reasonable time after the 78249
inspection.78250

       (2) Upon receipt of a complaint as described in division 78251
(D)(1) of this section, in addition to the investigations that are 78252
required under that division, both of the following apply:78253

       (a) If the complaint alleges that a child suffered physical 78254
harm while receiving publicly funded child care in the child's own 78255
home from an in-home aide or that the noncompliance with law or 78256
act alleged in the complaint involved, resulted in, or poses a 78257
substantial risk of physical harm to a child receiving publicly 78258
funded child care in the child's own home from an in-home aide, 78259
the county director shall inspect the home of the child.78260

       (b) If division (D)(2)(a) of this section does not apply 78261
regarding the complaint, the county director may inspect the home 78262
of the child.78263

       (3) Division (D)(2) of this section does not limit, restrict, 78264
or negate any duty of the county director to inspect a home of a 78265
child who is receiving publicly funded child care from an in-home 78266
aide that otherwise is imposed under this section, or any 78267
authority of the county director to inspect such a home that 78268
otherwise is granted under this section when the county director 78269
believes the inspection is necessary and it is permitted under the 78270
grant.78271

       Sec. 5104.32.  (A) Except as provided in division (C) of this 78272
section, all purchases of publicly funded child care shall be made 78273
under a contract entered into by a licensed child day-care center, 78274
licensed type A family day-care home, certified type B family 78275
day-care home, certified in-home aide, approved child day camp, 78276
licensed preschool program, licensed school child program, or 78277
border state child care provider and the department of job and 78278
family services. All contracts for publicly funded child care 78279
shall be contingent upon the availability of state and federal 78280
funds. The department shall prescribe a standard form to be used 78281
for all contracts for the purchase of publicly funded child care, 78282
regardless of the source of public funds used to purchase the 78283
child care. To the extent permitted by federal law and 78284
notwithstanding any other provision of the Revised Code that 78285
regulates state contracts or contracts involving the expenditure 78286
of state or federal funds, all contracts for publicly funded child 78287
care shall be entered into in accordance with the provisions of 78288
this chapter and are exempt from any other provision of the 78289
Revised Code that regulates state contracts or contracts involving 78290
the expenditure of state or federal funds.78291

       (B) Each contract for publicly funded child care shall 78292
specify at least the following:78293

       (1) That the provider of publicly funded child care agrees to 78294
be paid for rendering services at the lower of the rate 78295
customarily charged by the provider for children enrolled for 78296
child care or the reimbursement ceiling or rate of payment 78297
established pursuant to section 5104.30 of the Revised Code;78298

       (2) That, if a provider provides child care to an individual 78299
potentially eligible for publicly funded child care who is 78300
subsequently determined to be eligible, the department agrees to 78301
pay for all child care provided between the date the county 78302
department of job and family services receives the individual's 78303
completed application and the date the individual's eligibility is 78304
determined;78305

       (3) Whether the county department of job and family services, 78306
the provider, or a child care resource and referral service 78307
organization will make eligibility determinations, whether the 78308
provider or a child care resource and referral service 78309
organization will be required to collect information to be used by 78310
the county department to make eligibility determinations, and the 78311
time period within which the provider or child care resource and 78312
referral service organization is required to complete required 78313
eligibility determinations or to transmit to the county department 78314
any information collected for the purpose of making eligibility 78315
determinations;78316

       (4) That the provider, other than a border state child care 78317
provider, shall continue to be licensed, approved, or certified 78318
pursuant to this chapter and shall comply with all standards and 78319
other requirements in this chapter and in rules adopted pursuant 78320
to this chapter for maintaining the provider's license, approval, 78321
or certification;78322

       (5) That, in the case of a border state child care provider, 78323
the provider shall continue to be licensed, certified, or 78324
otherwise approved by the state in which the provider is located 78325
and shall comply with all standards and other requirements 78326
established by that state for maintaining the provider's license, 78327
certificate, or other approval;78328

       (6) Whether the provider will be paid by the state department 78329
of job and family services or in some other manner as prescribed 78330
by rules adopted under section 5104.42 of the Revised Code;78331

       (7) That the contract is subject to the availability of state 78332
and federal funds.78333

       (C) Unless specifically prohibited by federal law or by rules 78334
adopted under section 5104.42 of the Revised Code, the county 78335
department of job and family services shall give individuals 78336
eligible for publicly funded child care the option of obtaining 78337
certificates that the individual may use to purchase services from 78338
any provider qualified to provide publicly funded child care under 78339
section 5104.31 of the Revised Code. Providers of publicly funded 78340
child care may present these certificates for payment in 78341
accordance with rules that the director of job and family services 78342
shall adopt. Only providers may receive payment for certificates. 78343
The value of the certificate shall be based on the lower of the 78344
rate customarily charged by the provider or the rate of payment 78345
established pursuant to section 5104.30 of the Revised Code. The 78346
county department may provide the certificates to the individuals 78347
or may contract with child care providers or child care resource 78348
and referral service organizations that make determinations of 78349
eligibility for publicly funded child care pursuant to contracts 78350
entered into under section 5104.34 of the Revised Code for the 78351
providers or resource and referral service organizations to 78352
provide the certificates to individuals whom they determine are 78353
eligible for publicly funded child care.78354

       For each six-month period a provider of publicly funded child 78355
care provides publicly funded child care to the child of an 78356
individual given certificates, the individual shall provide the 78357
provider certificates for days the provider would have provided 78358
publicly funded child care to the child had the child been 78359
present. The maximum number of days providers shall be provided 78360
certificates shall not exceed ten days in a six-month period 78361
during which publicly funded child care is provided to the child 78362
regardless of the number of providers that provide publicly funded 78363
child care to the child during that period.78364

       (D)(1) The department shall establish the Ohio electronic 78365
child care system to track attendance and calculate payments for 78366
publicly funded child care. The system shall include issuing an 78367
electronic child care card to each caretaker parent to swipe 78368
through a point-of-service device issued to an eligible provider, 78369
as described in section 5104.31 of the Revised Code.78370

        (2) Each eligible provider that provides publicly funded 78371
child care shall participate in the Ohio electronic child care 78372
system. A provider participating in the system shall not do any of 78373
the following:78374

        (a) Use or have possession of an electronic child care card 78375
issued to a caretaker parent;78376

        (b) Falsify attendance records;78377

        (c) Knowingly seek payment for publicly funded child care 78378
that was not provided;78379

        (d) Knowingly accept reimbursement for publicly funded child 78380
care that was not provided.78381

       Sec. 5107.10.  (A) As used in this section:78382

       (1) "Countable income," "gross earned income," and "gross 78383
unearned income" have the meanings established in rules adopted 78384
under section 5107.05 of the Revised Code.78385

       (2) "Federal poverty guidelines" has the same meaning as in 78386
section 5101.46 of the Revised Code, except that references to a 78387
person's family in the definition shall be deemed to be references 78388
to the person's assistance group.78389

       (3) "Gross income" means gross earned income and gross 78390
unearned income.78391

        (4) "Strike" means continuous concerted action in failing to 78392
report to duty; willful absence from one's position; or stoppage 78393
of work in whole from the full, faithful, and proper performance 78394
of the duties of employment, for the purpose of inducing, 78395
influencing, or coercing a change in wages, hours, terms, and 78396
other conditions of employment. "Strike" does not include a 78397
stoppage of work by employees in good faith because of dangerous 78398
or unhealthful working conditions at the place of employment that 78399
are abnormal to the place of employment.78400

       (B) Under the Ohio works first program, an assistance group 78401
shall receive, except as otherwise provided by this chapter, 78402
time-limited cash assistance. In the case of an assistance group 78403
that includes a minor head of household or adult, assistance shall 78404
be provided in accordance with the self-sufficiency contract 78405
entered into under section 5107.14 of the Revised Code.78406

       (C) To be eligible to participate in Ohio works first, an 78407
assistance group must meet all of the following requirements:78408

       (1) The assistance group, except as provided in division (E) 78409
of this section, must include at least one of the following:78410

       (a) A minor child who, except as provided in section 5107.24 78411
of the Revised Code, resides with a parent, or specified relative 78412
caring for the child, or, to the extent permitted by Title IV-A 78413
and federal regulations adopted until Title IV-A, resides with a 78414
guardian or custodian caring for the child;78415

       (b) A parent residing with and caring for the parent's minor 78416
child who receives supplemental security income under Title XVI of 78417
the "Social Security Act," 86 Stat. 1475 (1972), 42 U.S.C.A. 1383, 78418
as amended, or federal, state, or local adoption assistance;78419

       (c) A specified relative residing with and caring for a minor 78420
child who is related to the specified relative in a manner that 78421
makes the specified relative a specified relative and receives 78422
supplemental security income or federal, state, or local foster 78423
care or adoption assistance;78424

       (d) A woman at least six months pregnant.78425

       (2) The assistance group must meet the income requirements 78426
established by division (D) of this section.78427

       (3) No member of the assistance group may be involved in a 78428
strike.78429

       (4) The assistance group must satisfy the requirements for 78430
Ohio works first established by this chapter and sections 5101.58, 78431
5101.59, andsection 5101.83 of the Revised Code.78432

       (5) The assistance group must meet requirements for Ohio 78433
works first established by rules adopted under section 5107.05 of 78434
the Revised Code.78435

       (D)(1) Except as provided in division (D)(4) of this section, 78436
to determine whether an assistance group is initially eligible to 78437
participate in Ohio works first, a county department of job and 78438
family services shall do the following:78439

       (a) Determine whether the assistance group's gross income 78440
exceeds fifty per cent of the federal poverty guidelines. In 78441
making this determination, the county department shall disregard 78442
amounts that federal statutes or regulations and sections 5101.17 78443
and 5117.10 of the Revised Code require be disregarded. The 78444
assistance group is ineligible to participate in Ohio works first 78445
if the assistance group's gross income, less the amounts 78446
disregarded, exceeds fifty per cent of the federal poverty 78447
guidelines.78448

       (b) If the assistance group's gross income, less the amounts 78449
disregarded pursuant to division (D)(1)(a) of this section, does 78450
not exceed fifty per cent of the federal poverty guidelines, 78451
determine whether the assistance group's countable income is less 78452
than the payment standard. The assistance group is ineligible to 78453
participate in Ohio works first if the assistance group's 78454
countable income equals or exceeds the payment standard.78455

       (2) For the purpose of determining whether an assistance 78456
group meets the income requirement established by division 78457
(D)(1)(a) of this section, the annual revision that the United 78458
States department of health and human services makes to the 78459
federal poverty guidelines shall go into effect on the first day 78460
of July of the year for which the revision is made.78461

       (3) To determine whether an assistance group participating in 78462
Ohio works first continues to be eligible to participate, a county 78463
department of job and family services shall determine whether the 78464
assistance group's countable income continues to be less than the 78465
payment standard. In making this determination, the county 78466
department shall disregard the first two hundred fifty dollars and 78467
fifty per cent of the remainder of the assistance group's gross 78468
earned income. No amounts shall be disregarded from the assistance 78469
group's gross unearned income. The assistance group ceases to be 78470
eligible to participate in Ohio works first if its countable 78471
income, less the amounts disregarded, equals or exceeds the 78472
payment standard.78473

       (4) If an assistance group reapplies to participate in Ohio 78474
works first not more than four months after ceasing to 78475
participate, a county department of job and family services shall 78476
use the income requirement established by division (D)(3) of this 78477
section to determine eligibility for resumed participation rather 78478
than the income requirement established by division (D)(1) of this 78479
section.78480

       (E)(1) An assistance group may continue to participate in 78481
Ohio works first even though a public children services agency 78482
removes the assistance group's minor children from the assistance 78483
group's home due to abuse, neglect, or dependency if the agency 78484
does both of the following:78485

       (a) Notifies the county department of job and family services 78486
at the time the agency removes the children that it believes the 78487
children will be able to return to the assistance group within six 78488
months;78489

       (b) Informs the county department at the end of each of the 78490
first five months after the agency removes the children that the 78491
parent, guardian, custodian, or specified relative of the children 78492
is cooperating with the case plans prepared for the children under 78493
section 2151.412 of the Revised Code and that the agency is making 78494
reasonable efforts to return the children to the assistance group.78495

       (2) An assistance group may continue to participate in Ohio 78496
works first pursuant to division (E)(1) of this section for not 78497
more than six payment months. This division does not affect the 78498
eligibility of an assistance group that includes a woman at least 78499
six months pregnant.78500

       Sec. 5107.14.  (A) An assistance group is ineligible to 78501
participate in Ohio works first unless the following enter into a 78502
written self-sufficiency contract with the county department of 78503
job and family services:78504

       (1) Each adult member of the assistance group;78505

       (2) The assistance group's minor head of household.78506

       (B) A self-sufficiency contract shall set forth the rights 78507
and responsibilities of the assistance group as applicants for and 78508
participants of Ohio works first. Each self-sufficiency contract 78509
shall include, based on appraisals conducted under section 5107.41 78510
of the Revised Code and assessments conducted under section 78511
5107.70 of the Revised Code, the following:78512

       (1) The assistance group's plan, developed under section 78513
5107.41 of the Revised Code, to achieve the goal of self 78514
sufficiency and personal responsibility through unsubsidized 78515
employment within the time limit for participating in Ohio works 78516
first established by section 5107.18 of the Revised Code;78517

       (2) Work activities, developmental activities, and 78518
alternative work activities to which members of the assistance 78519
group are assigned under sections 5107.40 to 5107.69 of the 78520
Revised Code;78521

       (3) The responsibility of a caretaker member of the 78522
assistance group to cooperate in establishing a minor child's 78523
paternity and establishing, modifying, and enforcing a support 78524
order for the child in accordance with section 5107.22 of the 78525
Revised Code;78526

       (4) Other responsibilities that members of the assistance 78527
group must satisfy to participate in Ohio works first and the 78528
consequences for failure or refusal to satisfy the 78529
responsibilities;78530

       (5) An agreement that, except as otherwise provided in a 78531
waiver issued under section 5107.714 of the Revised Code, the 78532
assistance group will comply with the conditions of participating 78533
in Ohio works first established by this chapter and sections 78534
5101.58, 5101.59, andsection 5101.83 of the Revised Code;78535

       (6) Assistance and services the county department will 78536
provide to the assistance group;78537

       (7) Assistance and services the child support enforcement 78538
agency and public children services agency will provide to the 78539
assistance group pursuant to a plan of cooperation entered into 78540
under section 307.983 of the Revised Code;78541

       (8) Other provisions designed to assist the assistance group 78542
in achieving self sufficiency and personal responsibility;78543

       (9) Procedures for assessing whether responsibilities are 78544
being satisfied and whether the contract should be amended;78545

       (10) Procedures for amending the contract.78546

       (C) No self-sufficiency contract shall include provisions 78547
regarding the LEAP program.78548

       (D) The county department shall provide without charge a copy 78549
of the self-sufficiency contract to each assistance group member 78550
who signs it.78551

       Sec. 5107.16.  (A) If a member of an assistance group fails 78552
or refuses, without good cause, to comply in full with a provision 78553
of a self-sufficiency contract entered into under section 5107.14 78554
of the Revised Code, a county department of job and family 78555
services shall sanction the assistance group as follows:78556

       (1) For a first failure or refusal, the county department 78557
shall deny or terminate the assistance group's eligibility to 78558
participate in Ohio works first for one payment month or until the 78559
failure or refusal ceases, whichever is longer;78560

       (2) For a second failure or refusal, the county department 78561
shall deny or terminate the assistance group's eligibility to 78562
participate in Ohio works first for three payment months or until 78563
the failure or refusal ceases, whichever is longer;78564

       (3) For a third or subsequent failure or refusal, the county 78565
department shall deny or terminate the assistance group's 78566
eligibility to participate in Ohio works first for six payment 78567
months or until the failure or refusal ceases, whichever is 78568
longer.78569

       (B) The director of job and family services shall establish 78570
standards for the determination of good cause for failure or 78571
refusal to comply in full with a provision of a self-sufficiency 78572
contract in rules adopted under section 5107.05 of the Revised 78573
Code.78574

       (C) An assistance group member who fails or refuses, without 78575
good cause, to comply in full with a provision of a 78576
self-sufficiency contract must complete all compliance activities 78577
specified in rules adopted under section 5107.05 of the Revised 78578
Code in order for the failure or refusal to be considered to have 78579
ceased.78580

       (D) After sanctioning an assistance group under division (A) 78581
of this section, a county department of job and family services 78582
shall continue to work with the assistance group.78583

       (E) An adult eligible for medicaid pursuant to division 78584
(C)(1)(a) of section 5111.01 of the Revised Code who is sanctioned 78585
under division (A)(3) of this section for a failure or refusal, 78586
without good cause, to comply in full with a provision of a 78587
self-sufficiency contract related to work responsibilities under 78588
sections 5107.40 to 5107.69 of the Revised Code loses eligibility 78589
for medicaid unless the adult is otherwise eligible for medicaid 78590
pursuant to another division of section 5111.01 of the Revised 78591
Codean eligibility category other than the category associated 78592
with Title IV-A.78593

        An assistance group that would be participating in Ohio works 78594
first if not for a sanction under this section shall continue to 78595
be eligible for all of the following:78596

       (1) Publicly funded child care in accordance with division 78597
(A)(3) of section 5104.30 of the Revised Code;78598

       (2) Support services in accordance with section 5107.66 of 78599
the Revised Code;78600

       (3) To the extent permitted by the "Fair Labor Standards Act 78601
of 1938," 52 Stat. 1060, 29 U.S.C. 201, as amended, to participate 78602
in work activities, developmental activities, and alternative work 78603
activities in accordance with sections 5107.40 to 5107.69 of the 78604
Revised Code.78605

       Sec. 5107.20.  As used in this section, "support" means child 78606
support, spousal support, and support for a spouse or a former 78607
spouse.78608

       Participation in Ohio works first constitutes an assignment 78609
to the department of job and family services of any rights members 78610
of an assistance group have to support from any other person, 78611
excluding medical support assigned pursuant to section 5101.59 of 78612
the Revised Code. The rights to support assigned to the department 78613
pursuant to this section constitute an obligation of the person 78614
who is responsible for providing the support to the state for the 78615
amount of cash assistance provided to the assistance group.78616

       The office of child support in the department of job and 78617
family services shall collect and distribute support payments owed 78618
to Ohio works first participants, whether assigned to the 78619
department or unassigned, in accordance with 42 U.S.C. 654 B and 78620
657 and regulations adopted under those statutes, state statutes, 78621
and rules adopted under section 5107.05 of the Revised Code.78622

       Upon implementation of centralized collection and 78623
disbursement under Chapter 3121. of the Revised Code, in 78624
accordance with 42 U.S.C. 654 B and 657 and regulations adopted 78625
under those statutes, the department shall deposit support 78626
payments it receives pursuant to this section into the state 78627
treasury to the credit of the child support collections fund or 78628
the child support administrative fund, both of which are hereby 78629
created. Money credited to the funds shall be used to make cash 78630
assistance payments under Ohio works first.78631

       Sec. 5107.24.  (A) As used in this section:78632

       (1) "Adult-supervised living arrangement" means a family 78633
setting approved, licensed, or certified by the department of job 78634
and family services, the department of mental healthmental health 78635
and addiction services, the department of developmental 78636
disabilities, the department of youth services, a public children 78637
services agency, a private child placing agency, or a private 78638
noncustodial agency that is maintained by a person age eighteen or 78639
older who assumes responsibility for the care and control of a 78640
minor parent, pregnant minor, or child of a minor parent or 78641
provides the minor parent, pregnant minor, or child of a minor 78642
parent supportive services, including counseling, guidance, and 78643
supervision. "Adult-supervised living arrangement" does not mean a 78644
public institution.78645

       (2) "Child of a minor parent" means a child born to a minor 78646
parent, except that the child ceases to be considered a child of 78647
minor parent when the minor parent attains age eighteen.78648

       (3) "Minor parent" means a parent who is under age eighteen 78649
and is not married.78650

       (4) "Pregnant minor" means a pregnant person who is under age 78651
eighteen and not married.78652

       (B)(1) Except as provided in division (B)(2) of this section 78653
and to the extent permitted by Title IV-A and federal regulations 78654
adopted under Title IV-A, a pregnant minor, minor parent, or child 78655
of a minor parent must reside in a place of residence maintained 78656
by a parent, guardian, custodian, or specified relative of the 78657
pregnant minor or minor parent as the parent's, guardian's, 78658
custodian's, or specified relative's own home to be eligible to 78659
participate in Ohio works first.78660

       (2) To the extent permitted by Title IV-A and federal 78661
regulations adopted under it, a pregnant minor, minor parent, or 78662
child of a minor parent is exempt from the requirement of division 78663
(B)(1) of this section if any of the following apply:78664

       (a) The minor parent or pregnant minor does not have a 78665
parent, guardian, custodian, or specified relative living or whose 78666
whereabouts are known.78667

       (b) No parent, guardian, custodian, or specified relative of 78668
the minor parent or pregnant minor will allow the pregnant minor, 78669
minor parent, or minor parent's child to live in the parent's, 78670
guardian's, custodian's, or specified relative's home.78671

       (c) The department of job and family services, a county 78672
department of job and family services, or a public children 78673
services agency determines that the physical or emotional health 78674
or safety of the pregnant minor, minor parent, or minor parent's 78675
child would be in jeopardy if the pregnant minor, minor parent, or 78676
minor parent's child lived in the same home as the parent, 78677
guardian, custodian, or specified relative.78678

       (d) The department of job and family services, a county 78679
department of job and family services, or a public children 78680
services agency otherwise determines that it is in the best 78681
interest of the pregnant minor, minor parent, or minor parent's 78682
child to waive the requirement of division (B)(1) of this section.78683

       (C) A pregnant minor, minor parent, or child of a minor 78684
parent exempt from the requirement of division (B)(1) of this 78685
section must reside in an adult-supervised living arrangement to 78686
be eligible to participate in Ohio works first.78687

       (D) The department of job and family services, whenever 78688
possible and to the extent permitted by Title IV-A and federal 78689
regulations adopted under it, shall provide cash assistance under 78690
Ohio works first to the parent, guardian, custodian, or specified 78691
relative of a pregnant minor or minor parent on behalf of the 78692
pregnant minor, minor parent, or minor parent's child.78693

       Sec. 5107.26.  (A) As used in this section:78694

       (1) "Transitional, "transitional child care" means publicly 78695
funded child care provided under division (A)(3) of section 78696
5104.34 of the Revised Code.78697

       (2) "Transitional medicaid" means the medical assistance 78698
provided under section 5111.0115 of the Revised Code.78699

       (B) Except as provided in division (C) of this section, each:78700

       (1) Each member of an assistance group participating in Ohio 78701
works first is ineligible to participate in the program for six 78702
payment months if a county department of job and family services 78703
determines that a member of the assistance group terminated the 78704
member's employment and each.78705

       (2) Each person who, on the day prior to the day a recipient 78706
begins to receive transitional child care or transitional 78707
medicaid, was a member of the recipient's assistance group is 78708
ineligible to participate in Ohio works first for six payment 78709
months if a county department determines that the recipient 78710
terminated the recipient's employment.78711

       (C) No assistance group member shall lose or be denied 78712
eligibility to participate in Ohio works first pursuant to 78713
division (B) of this section if the termination of employment was 78714
because an assistance group member or recipient of transitional 78715
child care or transitional medicaid secured comparable or better 78716
employment or the county department of job and family services 78717
certifies that the member or recipient terminated the employment 78718
with just cause.78719

       Just cause includes the following:78720

       (1) Discrimination by an employer based on age, race, sex, 78721
color, handicap, religious beliefs, or national origin;78722

       (2) Work demands or conditions that render continued 78723
employment unreasonable, such as working without being paid on 78724
schedule;78725

       (3) Employment that has become unsuitable due to any of the 78726
following:78727

       (a) The wage is less than the federal minimum wage;78728

       (b) The work is at a site subject to a strike or lockout, 78729
unless the strike has been enjoined under section 208 of the 78730
"Labor-Management Relations Act," 61 Stat. 155 (1947), 29 U.S.C.A. 78731
178, as amended, an injunction has been issued under section 10 of 78732
the "Railway Labor Act," 44 Stat. 586 (1926), 45 U.S.C.A. 160, as 78733
amended, or an injunction has been issued under section 4117.16 of 78734
the Revised Code;78735

       (c) The documented degree of risk to the member or 78736
recipient's health and safety is unreasonable;78737

       (d) The member or recipient is physically or mentally unfit 78738
to perform the employment, as documented by medical evidence or by 78739
reliable information from other sources.78740

       (4) Documented illness of the member or recipient or of 78741
another assistance group member of the member or recipient 78742
requiring the presence of the member or recipient;78743

       (5) A documented household emergency;78744

       (6) Lack of adequate child care for children of the member or 78745
recipient who are under six years of age.78746

       Sec. 5107.42.  (A) Except as provided in divisions (B) and 78747
(C) of this section, county departments of job and family services 78748
shall assign each minor head of household and adult participating 78749
in Ohio works first, other than a minor head of household 78750
participating in the LEAP program, to one or more work activities 78751
and developmental activities.78752

       If a county department assigns a minor head of household or 78753
adult to the work activity established under division (H) of 78754
section 5107.60 of the Revised Code, the county department shall 78755
make reasonable efforts to assign the minor head of household or 78756
adult to at least one other work activity at the same time. If a 78757
county department assigns a minor head of household or adult to 78758
the work activity established under section 5107.58 of the Revised 78759
Code, the county department shall assign the minor head of 78760
household or adult to at least one other work activity at the same 78761
time.78762

       A county department may not assign a minor head of household 78763
or adult to a work activity established under division (D) of 78764
section 5107.60 of the Revised Code for more than twelve months.78765

       (B) If a county department determines that a minor head of 78766
household or adult has a temporary or permanent barrier to 78767
participation in a work activity, it may assign the minor head of 78768
household or adult to one or more alternative work activities 78769
instead of assigning the minor head of household or adult to one 78770
or more work activities or developmental activities. A county 78771
department may not assign more than twenty per cent of minor heads 78772
of household and adults participating in Ohio works first to an 78773
alternative work activity. 78774

       County departments shall establish standards for determining 78775
whether a minor head of household or adult has a temporary or 78776
permanent barrier to participating in a work activity. The 78777
following are examples of circumstances that a county department 78778
may consider when it develops its standards:78779

       (1) A minor head of household or adult provides the county 78780
department documented evidence that one or more members of the 78781
assistance group have been the victim of domestic violence and are 78782
in imminent danger of suffering continued domestic violence;78783

       (2) A minor head of household or adult is actively 78784
participating in an alcohol or druga community addiction program78785
services provider certified by the department of alcohol and drug 78786
addiction servicesmental health and addiction services under 78787
section 3793.065119.36 of the Revised Code; 78788

       (3) An assistance group is homeless.78789

       (C) A county department may exempt a minor head of household 78790
or adult who is unmarried and caring for a minor child under 78791
twelve months of age from the work requirements of sections 78792
5107.40 to 5107.69 of the Revised Code for not more than twelve 78793
months. While exempt, the minor head of household or adult shall 78794
be disregarded in determining whether the county department is 78795
meeting the requirement of section 5107.44 of the Revised Code. 78796
The county department shall assign the exempt minor head of 78797
household or adult to at least one developmental activity for a 78798
number of hours a week the county department determines. The 78799
county department may assign the exempt minor head of household or 78800
adult to one or more work activities, in addition to developmental 78801
activities, for a number of hours the county department 78802
determines. Division (B) of section 5107.43 of the Revised Code 78803
does not apply to the exempt minor head of household or adult. 78804

       (D) A county department may reassign a minor head of 78805
household or adult when the county department determines 78806
reassignment will aid the assistance group in achieving self 78807
sufficiency and personal responsibility and shall make 78808
reassignments when circumstances requiring reassignment occur, 78809
including when a temporary barrier to participating in a work 78810
activity is eliminated. 78811

       A county department shall include assignments in the 78812
self-sufficiency contract entered into under section 5107.14 of 78813
the Revised Code and shall amend the contract when a reassignment 78814
is made to include the reassignment in the contract.78815

       Sec. 5107.64.  County departments of job and family services 78816
shall establish and administer alternative work activities for 78817
minor heads of households and adults participating in Ohio works 78818
first. In establishing alternative work activities, county 78819
departments are not limited by the restrictions Title IV-A imposes 78820
on work activities. The following are examples of alternative work 78821
activities that a county department may establish:78822

       (A) Parenting classes and life-skills training;78823

       (B) Participation in an alcohol or druga community addiction 78824
programservices provider certified by the department of alcohol 78825
and drug addiction servicesmental health and addiction services78826
under section 3793.065119.36 of the Revised Code;78827

       (C) In the case of a homeless assistance group, finding a 78828
home;78829

       (D) In the case of a minor head of household or adult with a 78830
disability, active work in an individual written rehabilitation 78831
plan with the rehabilitation services commission;78832

       (E) In the case of a minor head of household or adult who has 78833
been the victim of domestic violence, residing in a domestic 78834
violence shelter, receiving counseling or treatment related to the 78835
domestic violence, or participating in criminal justice activities 78836
against the domestic violence offender;78837

       (F) An education program under which a participant who does 78838
not speak English attends English as a second language course.78839

       Sec. 5115.20.  (A) The department of job and family services 78840
shall establish a disability advocacy program and each county 78841
department of job and family services shall establish a disability 78842
advocacy program unit or join with other county departments of job 78843
and family services to establish a joint county disability 78844
advocacy program unit. Through the program the department and 78845
county departments shall cooperate in efforts to assist applicants 78846
for and recipients of assistance under the disability financial 78847
assistance program, who might be eligible for supplemental 78848
security income benefits under Title XVI of the "Social Security 78849
Act," 86 Stat. 1475 (1972), 42 U.S.C.A. 1383, as amended, in 78850
applying for those benefits. 78851

       As part of their disability advocacy programs, the state 78852
department and county departments may enter into contracts for the 78853
services of persons and government entities that in the judgment 78854
of the department or county department have demonstrated expertise 78855
in representing persons seeking supplemental security income 78856
benefits. Each contract shall require the person or entity with 78857
which a department contracts to assess each person referred to it 78858
by the department to determine whether the person appears to be 78859
eligible for supplemental security income benefits, and, if the 78860
person appears to be eligible, assist the person in applying and 78861
represent the person in any proceeding of the social security 78862
administration, including any appeal or reconsideration of a 78863
denial of benefits. The department or county department shall 78864
provide to the person or entity with which it contracts all 78865
records in its possession relevant to the application for 78866
supplemental security income benefits. The department shall 78867
require a county department with relevant records to submit them 78868
to the person or entity.78869

       (B) Each applicant for or recipient of disability financial 78870
assistance who, in the judgment of the department of job and 78871
family services or a county department of job and family services78872
might be eligible for supplemental security benefits, shall, as a 78873
condition of eligibility for assistance, apply for such benefits 78874
if directed to do so by the department or county department.78875

       (C) With regard to applicants for and recipients of 78876
disability financial assistance, each county department of job and 78877
family services shall do all of the following:78878

       (1) Identify applicants and recipients who might be eligible 78879
for supplemental security income benefits;78880

       (2) Assist applicants and recipients in securing 78881
documentation of disabling conditions or refer them for such 78882
assistance to a person or government entity with which the 78883
department of job and family services or county department has 78884
contracted under division (A) of this section;78885

       (3) Inform applicants and recipients of available sources of 78886
representation, which may include a person or government entity 78887
with which the department or county department has contracted 78888
under division (A) of this section, and of their right to 78889
represent themselves in reconsiderations and appeals of social 78890
security administration decisions that deny them supplemental 78891
security income benefits. The county department may require the 78892
applicants and recipients, as a condition of eligibility for 78893
assistance, to pursue reconsiderations and appeals of social 78894
security administration decisions that deny them supplemental 78895
security income benefits, and shall assist applicants and 78896
recipients as necessary to obtain such benefits or refer them to a 78897
person or government entity with which the department or county 78898
department has contracted under division (A) of this section.78899

       (4) Require applicants and recipients who, in the judgment of 78900
the county department, are or may be aged, blind, or disabled, to 78901
apply for medical assistance under Chapter 5111. of the Revised 78902
Codethe medicaid program, make determinations when appropriate as 78903
to eligibility for medical assistancemedicaid, and refer their 78904
applications when necessary to the disability determination unit 78905
established in accordance with division (F) of this section for 78906
expedited review;78907

       (5) Require each applicant and recipient who in the judgment 78908
of the department or the county department might be eligible for 78909
supplemental security income benefits, as a condition of 78910
eligibility for disability financial assistance, to execute a 78911
written authorization for the secretary of health and human 78912
services to withhold benefits due that individual and pay to the 78913
director of job and family services or the director's designee an 78914
amount sufficient to reimburse the state and county shares of 78915
interim assistance furnished to the individual. For the purposes 78916
of division (C)(5) of this section, "benefits" and "interim 78917
assistance" have the meanings given in Title XVI of the "Social 78918
Security Act."78919

       (D) The director of job and family services shall adopt rules 78920
in accordance with section 111.15 of the Revised Code for the 78921
effective administration of the disability advocacy program. The 78922
rules shall include all of the following:78923

       (1) Methods to be used in collecting information from and 78924
disseminating it to county departments, including the following:78925

       (a) The number of individuals in the county who are disabled 78926
recipients of disability financial assistance;78927

       (b) The final decision made either by the social security 78928
administration or by a court for each application or 78929
reconsideration in which an individual was assisted pursuant to 78930
this section.78931

       (2) The type and process of training to be provided by the 78932
department of job and family services to the employees of the 78933
county department of job and family services who perform duties 78934
under this section;78935

       (3) Requirements for the written authorization required by 78936
division (C)(5) of this section.78937

       (E) The department of job and family services shall provide 78938
basic and continuing training to employees of the county 78939
department of job and family services who perform duties under 78940
this section. Training shall include but not be limited to all 78941
processes necessary to obtain federal disability benefits, and 78942
methods of advocacy.78943

       (F) The department of medicaid shall establish a disability 78944
determination unit and develop guidelines for expediting reviews 78945
of applications for medical assistance under Chapter 5111. of the 78946
Revised Codethe medicaid program for persons who have been 78947
referred to the unit under division (C)(4) of this section. The 78948
department of medicaid shall make determinations of eligibility 78949
for medical assistancemedicaid for any such person within the 78950
time prescribed by federal regulations.78951

       (G) The department of job and family services may, under 78952
rules the director of job and family services adopts in accordance 78953
with section 111.15 of the Revised Code, pay a portion of the 78954
federal reimbursement described in division (C)(5) of this section 78955
to persons or government entities that assist or represent 78956
assistance recipients in reconsiderations and appeals of social 78957
security administration decisions denying them supplemental 78958
security income benefits.78959

       (H) The director of job and family services shall conduct 78960
investigations to determine whether disability advocacy programs 78961
are being administered in compliance with the Revised Code and the 78962
rules adopted by the director pursuant to this section.78963

       Sec. 5117.10.  (A) On or before the fifteenth day of January, 78964
the director of development shall pay each applicant determined 78965
eligible for a payment under divisions (A) and (B) of section 78966
5117.07 of the Revised Code one hundred twenty-five dollars.78967

       (B) The director may withhold from any payment to which a 78968
person would otherwise be entitled under division (A) of this 78969
section any amount that the director determines was erroneously 78970
received by such person in a preceding year under this or the 78971
program established under Am. Sub. H.B. 230, as amended by Am. 78972
H.B. 937, Am. Sub. H.B. 1073, Am. Sub. S.B. 493, and Am. Sub. S.B. 78973
523 of the 112th general assembly, provided the director has 78974
employed all other legal methods reasonably available to obtain 78975
reimbursement for the erroneous payment or credit prior to the 78976
commencement of the current program year.78977

       (C) Payments made under this section and credits granted 78978
under section 5117.09 of the Revised Code shall not be considered 78979
income for the purpose of determining eligibility or the level of 78980
benefits or assistance under section 329.042 or Chapters 5107., 78981
5111., and 5115. of the Revised Code; the medicaid program;78982
supplemental security income payments under Title XVI of the 78983
"Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C. 301, as 78984
amended; or any other program under which eligibility or the level 78985
of benefits or assistance is based upon need measured by income.78986

       Sec. 3793.01.        Sec. 5119.01.  (A) As used in this chapter:78987

       (1) "Addiction" means the chronic and habitual use of 78988
alcoholic beverages, the use of a drug of abuse as defined in 78989
section 3719.011 of the Revised Code, or the use of gambling by an 78990
individual to the extent that the individual no longer can control 78991
the individual's use of alcohol, the individual becomes physically 78992
or psychologically dependent on the drug, the individual's use of 78993
alcohol or drugs endangers the health, safety, or welfare of the 78994
individual or others, or the individual's gambling causes 78995
psychological, financial, emotional, marital, legal, or other 78996
difficulties endangering the health, safety, or welfare of the 78997
individual or others.78998

        (2) "Addiction services" means services, including 78999
intervention, for the treatment of persons with alcohol, drug, or 79000
gambling addictions, and for the prevention of such addictions.79001

        (3) "Alcohol and drug addiction services" means services, 79002
including intervention, for the treatment of alcoholics or persons 79003
who abuse drugs of abuse and for the prevention of alcoholism and 79004
drug addiction.79005

        (4) "Alcoholic" means a person suffering from alcoholism.79006

        (5) "Alcoholism" means the chronic and habitual use of 79007
alcoholic beverages by an individual to the extent that the 79008
individual no longer can control the individual's use of alcohol 79009
or endangers the health, safety, or welfare of the individual or 79010
others.79011

       (2) "Alcoholic" means a person suffering from alcoholism.79012

       (3)(6) "Community addiction services provider" means an 79013
agency, association, corporation, individual, or program that 79014
provides community alcohol, drug addiction, or gambling addiction 79015
services that are certified by the department of mental health and 79016
addiction services under section 5119.36 of the Revised Code.79017

        (7) "Community mental health services provider" means an 79018
agency, association, corporation, individual, or program that 79019
provides community mental health services that are certified by 79020
the department of mental health and addiction services under 79021
section 5119.36 of the Revised Code.79022

       (8) "Drug addiction" means the use of a drug of abuse, as 79023
defined in section 3719.011 of the Revised Code, by an individual 79024
to the extent that the individual becomes physically or 79025
psychologically dependent on the drug or endangers the health, 79026
safety, or welfare of the individual or others.79027

       (4) "Alcohol and drug addiction services" means services, 79028
including intervention, for the treatment of alcoholics or persons 79029
who abuse drugs of abuse and for the prevention of alcoholism and 79030
drug addiction.79031

       (5) "Alcohol and drug addiction program" means a program that 79032
provides alcohol or drug addiction services and includes a 79033
facility or entity that operates such a program.79034

       (6)(9) "Gambling addiction" means the use of gambling by an 79035
individual to the extent that it causes psychological, financial, 79036
emotional, marital, legal, or other difficulties endangering the 79037
health, safety, or welfare of the individual or others.79038

        (7)(10) "Gambling addiction services" means services for the 79039
treatment of persons who have a gambling addiction and for the 79040
prevention of gambling addiction.79041

       (11) "Hospital" means a hospital or inpatient unit licensed 79042
by the department of mental health and addiction services under 79043
section 5119.33 of the Revised Code, and any institution, 79044
hospital, or other place established, controlled, or supervised by 79045
the department under Chapter 5119. of the Revised Code.79046

        (12) "Mental illness" means a substantial disorder of 79047
thought, mood, perception, orientation, or memory that grossly 79048
impairs judgment, behavior, capacity to recognize reality, or 79049
ability to meet the ordinary demands of life.79050

        (13) "Mental health services" means services for the 79051
assessment, care, or treatment of persons who have a mental 79052
illness as defined in this section.79053

        (14)(a) "Residence" means a person's physical presence in a 79054
county with intent to remain there, except in either of the 79055
following circumstances:79056

        (i) If a person is receiving a mental health service at a 79057
facility that includes nighttime sleeping accommodations, 79058
"residence" means that county in which the person maintained the 79059
person's primary place of residence at the time the person entered 79060
the facility;79061

        (ii) If a person is committed pursuant to section 2945.38, 79062
2945.39, 2945.40, 2945.401, or 2945.402 of the Revised Code, 79063
"residence" means the county where the criminal charges were 79064
filed.79065

        (b) When the residence of a person is disputed, the matter of 79066
residence shall be referred to the department of mental health and 79067
addiction services for investigation and determination. Residence 79068
shall not be a basis for a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and 79069
mental health services to deny services to any person present in 79070
the board's service district, and the board shall provide services 79071
for a person whose residence is in dispute while residence is 79072
being determined and for a person in an emergency situation.79073

       (B) Any reference in this chapter to a board of alcohol, drug 79074
addiction, and mental health services also refers to an alcohol 79075
and drug addiction services board or a community mental health 79076
board in a service district in which an alcohol and drug addiction 79077
services board or a community mental health board has been 79078
established under section 340.021 or former section 340.02 of the 79079
Revised Code.79080

       Sec. 5119.04.  The department of mental healthmental health 79081
and addiction services and any institutions under its supervision 79082
or jurisdiction shall, where applicable, be in substantial 79083
compliance with standards set forth for psychiatric facilities by 79084
the joint commission on accreditation of healthcare organizations79085
or medical assistance standards under Title XIX of the "Social 79086
Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C. 301, as amended, or 79087
other applicable standards, except that the department and any 79088
institution under its supervision or jurisdiction shall be in 79089
substantial compliance with standards for physical facilities and 79090
equipment by July 1, 1989. The requirements of this section do not 79091
apply to any facility designated by the director of mental health 79092
for use as a psychiatric rehabilitation center.79093

       The requirements of this section are in addition to any other 79094
requirements established by the Revised Code and nothing in this 79095
section shall be construed to limit any rights, privileges, 79096
protections, or immunities which may exist under the constitution 79097
and laws of the United States or this state.79098

       Sec. 5119.27.        Sec. 5119.05.  Subject to the rules of the director 79099
of mental healthmental health and addiction services, each 79100
institution under the jurisdiction of the department shall be 79101
under the management and control of a managing officer to be known 79102
as a superintendentchief executive officer or by another 79103
appropriate title. Such managing officer shall be appointed by the 79104
director of mental healthmental health and addiction services, 79105
and shall be in the unclassified service and serve at the pleasure 79106
of the director. Each managing officer shall be of good moral 79107
character and have skill, ability, and experience in histhe 79108
managing officer's profession. Appointment to this position may be 79109
made from persons holding positions in the classified service in 79110
the department.79111

       The managing officer, under the director, shall have entire 79112
executive chargeserve as the appointing authority of the 79113
institution forto which such managing officer is appointed. 79114
Subject to civil service rules, the managing officer shall have 79115
the power to appoint the necessaryand remove employees and he or 79116
the director may remove such employees for causeof the 79117
institution. On behalf of the institution, the managing officer 79118
has the authority and responsibility for entering into contracts 79119
and other agreements for the efficient operations of the 79120
institution.79121

       Sec. 5119.44.        Sec. 5119.051.  The department of mental health79122
mental health and addiction services shall keep in its office a 79123
proper and complete set of books and accounts with each 79124
institution, which shall clearly show the nature and amount of 79125
every expenditure authorized and made at such institution, and 79126
which shall contain an account of all appropriations made by the 79127
general assembly and of all other funds, together with the 79128
disposition of such funds.79129

       The department shall prescribe the form of vouchers, records, 79130
and methods of keeping accounts at each of the institutions, which 79131
shall be as nearly uniform as possible. The department may examine 79132
the records of each institution at any time.79133

       The department may authorize any of its bookeepers79134
bookkeepers, accountants, or employees to examine and check the 79135
records, accounts, and vouchers or take an inventory of the 79136
property of any institution, or do whatever is necessary, and pay 79137
the actual and reasonable expenses incurred in such service when 79138
an itemized account is filed and approved.79139

       Sec. 5119.43.        Sec. 5119.06.  The department of mental healthmental 79140
health and addiction services shall keep in its office, accessible 79141
only to its employees, except by the consent of the department or 79142
the order of the judge of a court of record, a record showing the 79143
name, residence, sex, age, nativity, occupation, condition, and 79144
date of entrance or commitment of every patient in the 79145
institutions governed by it, the date, cause, and terms of 79146
discharge and the condition of such person at the time of leaving, 79147
and also a record of all transfers from one institution to 79148
another, and, if such person dies while in the care or custody of 79149
the department, the date and cause of death. These and such other 79150
facts as the department requires shall be furnished by the 79151
managing officer of each institution within twenty-four hours 79152
after the commitment, entrance, death, or discharge of a patient.79153

       In case of an accident or injury or peculiar death of a 79154
patient the managing officer shall make a special report to the 79155
department within twenty-four hours thereafter, giving the 79156
circumstances as fully as possible.79157

       Sec. 5119.42.        Sec. 5119.07.  A person, firm, or corporation may 79158
file a petition in the court of common pleas of the county in 79159
which a benevolent institution of the department of mental health 79160
and addiction services is located, in which petition the desire to 79161
erect or carry on at a less distance than that prescribed in 79162
section 3767.19 of the Revised Code shall be set forth, the 79163
business prohibited, the precise point of its establishment, and 79164
the reasons and circumstances, in its opinion, why the erection or 79165
carrying on thereofof the business would not annoy or endanger 79166
the health, convenience, or recovery of the patients of such 79167
institution. The petitioner shall give notice in a newspaper of 79168
general circulation in the county of the pendency and prayer of 79169
the petition for at least six consecutive weeks before the day set 79170
for hearing the petition and serve a written notice upon the 79171
superintendentmanaging officer of the institution at least thirty 79172
days before the day set for hearing the petition.79173

       If, upon the hearing of the petition, it appears that the 79174
notice has been given as required and the court is of the opinion 79175
that no good reason exists why such establishment may not be 79176
erected or such business carried on and that by the erection or 79177
carrying on thereofof the business at the point named, the 79178
institution will sustain no detriment, the court may issue an 79179
order granting the prayer of the petitioner. Thereafter the 79180
petitioner may locate such establishment or carry on such business 79181
at the point named in the petition.79182

       Sec. 5119.14.        Sec. 5119.08.  (A) As used in this section, "felony" 79183
has the same meaning as in section 109.511 of the Revised Code.79184

       (B)(1) Subject to division (C) of this section, upon the 79185
recommendation of the director of mental healthmental health and 79186
addiction services, the managing officer of an institution under 79187
the jurisdiction of the department of mental healthmental health 79188
and addiction services may designate one or more employees to be 79189
special police officers of the department. The special police 79190
officers shall take an oath of office, wear the badge of office, 79191
and give bond for the proper and faithful discharge of their 79192
duties in an amount that the director requires.79193

       (2) In accordance with section 109.77 of the Revised Code, 79194
the special police officers shall be required to complete 79195
successfully a peace officer basic training program approved by 79196
the Ohio peace officer training commission and to be certified by 79197
the commission. The cost of the training shall be paid by the 79198
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services.79199

       (3) Special police officers, on the premises of institutions 79200
under the jurisdiction of the department of mental healthmental 79201
health and addiction services and subject to the rules of the 79202
department, shall protect the property of the institutions and the 79203
persons and property of patients in the institutions, suppress 79204
riots, disturbances, and breaches of the peace, and enforce the 79205
laws of the state and the rules of the department for the 79206
preservation of good order. They may arrest any person without a 79207
warrant and detain the person until a warrant can be obtained 79208
under the circumstances described in division (F) of section 79209
2935.03 of the Revised Code.79210

       (C)(1) The managing officer of an institution under the 79211
jurisdiction of the department of mental healthmental health and 79212
addiction services shall not designate an employee as a special 79213
police officer of the department pursuant to division (B)(1) of 79214
this section on a permanent basis, on a temporary basis, for a 79215
probationary term, or on other than a permanent basis if the 79216
employee previously has been convicted of or has pleaded guilty to 79217
a felony.79218

       (2)(a) The managing officer of an institution under the 79219
jurisdiction of the department of mental healthmental health and 79220
addiction services shall terminate the employment as a special 79221
police officer of the department of an employee designated as a 79222
special police officer under division (B)(1) of this section if 79223
that employee does either of the following:79224

       (i) Pleads guilty to a felony;79225

       (ii) Pleads guilty to a misdemeanor pursuant to a negotiated 79226
plea agreement as provided in division (D) of section 2929.43 of 79227
the Revised Code in which the employee agrees to surrender the 79228
certificate awarded to that employee under section 109.77 of the 79229
Revised Code.79230

       (b) The managing officer shall suspend from employment as a 79231
special police officer of the department an employee designated as 79232
a special police officer under division (B)(1) of this section if 79233
that employee is convicted, after trial, of a felony. If the 79234
special police officer files an appeal from that conviction and 79235
the conviction is upheld by the highest court to which the appeal 79236
is taken or if the special police officer does not file a timely 79237
appeal, the managing officer shall terminate the employment of 79238
that special police officer. If the special police officer files 79239
an appeal that results in that special police officer's acquittal 79240
of the felony or conviction of a misdemeanor, or in the dismissal 79241
of the felony charge against that special police officer, the 79242
managing officer shall reinstate that special police officer. A 79243
special police officer of the department who is reinstated under 79244
division (C)(2)(b) of this section shall not receive any back pay 79245
unless that special police officer's conviction of the felony was 79246
reversed on appeal, or the felony charge was dismissed, because 79247
the court found insufficient evidence to convict the special 79248
police officer of the felony.79249

       (3) Division (C) of this section does not apply regarding an 79250
offense that was committed prior to January 1, 1997.79251

       (4) The suspension from employment, or the termination of the 79252
employment, of a special police officer under division (C)(2) of 79253
this section shall be in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 79254
Revised Codeapplicable collective bargaining agreements.79255

       Sec. 5119.30.        Sec. 5119.09.  The attorney general shall attend to 79256
all suitsclaims instituted on behalf of or against the department 79257
of mental health and addiction services or any institution under 79258
the jurisdiction of the department of mental health and the 79259
managing officer thereof, except such institutions as are 79260
privately owned or operated under a license from the department of 79261
mental healthmental health and addiction services, and shall 79262
represent the public hospital in proceedings under section 5122.15 79263
of the Revised Code. The department of mental healthmental health 79264
and addiction services shall reimburse the attorney general for 79265
the compensation of assistant attorneys general required to 79266
represent the public hospital in proceedings under section 5122.15 79267
of the Revised code and shall also pay the costs of litigation 79268
incurred by the attorney general under that section.79269

       If a writ of habeas corpus is applied for, the clerk of the 79270
court shall give notice of the time and place of hearing to the 79271
attorney general.79272

       Sec. 5119.01.        Sec. 5119.10. (A) The director of mental health79273
mental health and addiction services is the chief executive and 79274
administrative officerappointing authority of the department of 79275
mental healthmental health and addiction services. The director 79276
may organize the department for its efficient operation, including 79277
creating divisions or offices as necessary. The director may 79278
establish procedures for the governance of the department, conduct 79279
of its employees and officers, performance of its business, and 79280
custody, use, and preservation of departmental records, papers, 79281
books, documents, and property. Whenever the Revised Code imposes 79282
a duty upon or requires an action of the department or any of its 79283
institutions, the director or the director's designee shall 79284
perform the action or duty in the name of the department, except 79285
that the medical director appointed pursuant to section 5119.0779286
5119.11 of the Revised Code shall be responsible for decisions 79287
relating to medical diagnosis, treatment, rehabilitation, quality 79288
assurance, and the clinical aspects of the following: licensure of 79289
hospitals and residential facilities, research, community 79290
addiction and mental health services plans, and certification and79291
delivery of mental health and addiction services.79292

       (B) The director shall:79293

       (A)(1) Adopt rules for the proper execution of the powers and 79294
duties of the department with respect to the institutions under 79295
its control, and require the performance of additional duties by 79296
the officers of the institutions as necessary to fully meet the 79297
requirements, intents, and purposes of this chapter. In case of an 79298
apparent conflict between the powers conferred upon any managing 79299
officer and those conferred by such sections upon the department, 79300
the presumption shall be conclusive in favor of the department.79301

       (B)(2) Adopt rules for the nonpartisan management of the 79302
institutions under the department's control. An officer or 79303
employee of the department or any officer or employee of any 79304
institution under its control who, by solicitation or otherwise, 79305
exerts influence directly or indirectly to induce any other 79306
officer or employee of the department or any of its institutions 79307
to adopt the exerting officer's or employee's political views or 79308
to favor any particular person, issue, or candidate for office 79309
shall be removed from the exerting officer's or employee's office 79310
or position, by the department in case of an officer or employee, 79311
and by the governor in case of the director.79312

       (C)(3) Appoint such employees, including the medical 79313
director, as are necessary for the efficient conduct of the 79314
department, and prescribe their titles and duties;79315

       (D)(4) Prescribe the forms of affidavits, applications, 79316
medical certificates, orders of hospitalization and release, and 79317
all other forms, reports, and records that are required in the 79318
hospitalization or admission and release of all persons to the 79319
institutions under the control of the department, or are otherwise 79320
required under this chapter or Chapter 5122. of the Revised Code;79321

       (E) Contract with hospitals licensed by the department under 79322
section 5119.20 of the Revised Code for the care and treatment of 79323
mentally ill patients, or with persons, organizations, or agencies 79324
for the custody, evaluation, supervision, care, or treatment of 79325
mentally ill persons receiving services elsewhere than within the 79326
enclosure of a hospital operated under section 5119.02 of the 79327
Revised Code;79328

       (F)(5) Exercise the powers and perform the duties relating to 79329
community addiction and mental health facilities and services that 79330
are assigned to the director under this chapter and Chapter 340. 79331
of the Revised Code;79332

       (G)(6) Develop and implement clinical evaluation and 79333
monitoring of services that are operated by the department;79334

       (H)(7) Adopt rules establishing standards for the performance 79335
of evaluations by a forensic center or other psychiatric program 79336
or facility of the mental condition of defendants ordered by the 79337
court under section 2919.271, or 2945.371 of the Revised Code, and 79338
for the treatment of defendants who have been found incompetent to 79339
stand trial and ordered by the court under section 2945.38, 79340
2945.39, 2945.401, or 2945.402 of the Revised Code to receive 79341
treatment in facilities;79342

       (I)(8) On behalf of the department, have the authority and 79343
responsibility for entering into contracts and other agreements;79344
with providers, agencies, institutions, and other entities, both 79345
public and private, as necessary for the department to carry out 79346
its duties under this chapter and Chapters 340., 2919., 2945., and 79347
5122. of the Revised Code. Chapter 125. of the Revised Code does 79348
not apply to contracts the director enters into under this section 79349
for services provided to individuals with mental illness by 79350
providers, agencies, institutions, and other entities not owned or 79351
operated by the department.79352

       (J) Prepare and publish regularly a state mental health plan 79353
that describes the department's philosophy, current activities, 79354
and long-term and short-term goals and activities;79355

       (K)(9) Adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 79356
Revised Code specifying the supplemental services that may be 79357
provided through a trust authorized by section 5815.28 of the 79358
Revised Code;79359

       (L)(10) Adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 79360
Revised Code establishing standards for the maintenance and 79361
distribution to a beneficiary of assets of a trust authorized by 79362
section 5815.28 of the Revised Code.79363

       (C) The director may contract with hospitals licensed by the 79364
department under section 5119.33 of the Revised Code for the care 79365
and treatment of mentally ill patients, or with persons, 79366
organizations, or agencies for the custody, evaluation, 79367
supervision, care, or treatment of mentally ill persons receiving 79368
services elsewhere than within the enclosure of a hospital 79369
operated under section 5119.14 of the Revised Code.79370

       Sec. 5119.07.        Sec. 5119.11. (A) The director of mental health79371
mental health and addiction services shall appoint a medical 79372
director who is a psychiatrist as defined in division (E) of 79373
section 5122.01 of the Revised Code, is eligible or certified by 79374
the American board of psychiatry and neurology or the American 79375
osteopathic board of neurology and psychiatry, and has at least 79376
five years of clinical and two years of administrative experience. 79377
The medical director shall also have certification or substantial 79378
training and experience in the field of addiction medicine or 79379
addiction psychiatry. The medical director shall be responsible 79380
for decisions relating to medical diagnosis, treatment, 79381
prevention, rehabilitation, quality assurance, and the clinical 79382
aspects of mental health and addiction services involving all of79383
the following: licensure79384

       (1) Licensure of hospitals and, residential facilities, 79385
research, community mental healthand outpatient facilities;79386

       (2) Research;79387

       (3) Community addiction and mental health services plans,;79388

       (4) Certification and delivery of mental health and addiction79389
services. The79390

       (B) The medical director shall also exercise clinical 79391
supervision of the chief clinical officers of hospitals and 79392
institutions under the jurisdiction of the department and shall 79393
review and approve decisions relating to the employment of the 79394
chief clinical officers. The medical director or histhe medical 79395
director's designee shall advise the director on matters relating 79396
to licensure, research, community mental health plans, and the 79397
certification and delivery of mental health and addiction services 79398
and community plans. The medical director shall participate in the 79399
development of guidelines for community addiction and mental 79400
health services plans. The director of mental healthmental 79401
health and addiction services may establish other duties of the 79402
medical director. The medical director shall participate in the 79403
development of guidelines for community mental health plans.79404

       Sec. 5119.02.        Sec. 5119.14.  (A) The department of mental health79405
mental health and addiction services shall maintain, operate, 79406
manage, and govern state institutions and other services for the 79407
care and treatment of mentally ill persons.79408

       (B)(1) The department of mental healthmental health and 79409
addiction services may, with the approval of the governor,79410
designate allthe name and purpose of any institutions under its 79411
jurisdiction by appropriate respective names, regardless of 79412
present statutory designationand may change, with the approval of 79413
the governor, the designation and name when necessary.79414

       (C)(2) The department shall divide the state into districts 79415
for the purpose of designating the institution in which mentally 79416
ill persons are hospitalized and may change the districts.79417

       (3) Subject to section 5139.08 and pursuant to Chapter 5122. 79418
of the Revised Code and on the agreement of the departments of 79419
mental healthmental health and addiction services and youth 79420
services, the department of mental healthmental health and 79421
addiction services may receive from the department of youth 79422
services for psychiatric observation, diagnosis, or treatment any 79423
person eighteen years of age or older in the custody of the 79424
department of youth services. The departments shallmay enter into 79425
a written agreement specifying the procedures necessary to 79426
implement this division.79427

       (D)(C) The department of mental healthmental health and 79428
addiction services shall designate hospitals, facilities, and 79429
community mental health agenciesservices providers for the 79430
custody, care, and special treatment of, and authorize payment for 79431
such custody, care, and special treatment provided to, persons who 79432
are charged with a crime and who are found incompetent to stand 79433
trial or not guilty by reason of insanity.79434

       (E)(D) The department of mental healthmental health and 79435
addiction services may do allany of the following:79436

       (1) Require reports from the managing officer of any 79437
institution under the department's jurisdiction, relating to the 79438
admission, examination, comprehensive evaluation, diagnosis, 79439
release, or discharge of any patient;79440

       (2) Visit each institution regularly to review its operations 79441
and to investigate complaints made by any patient or by any person 79442
on behalf of a patient, provided these duties may be performed by 79443
a person designated by the director.79444

       (F) The department of mental health shall divide the state 79445
into districts for the purpose of designating the institution in 79446
which mentally ill persons are hospitalized, and may change the 79447
districts.79448

       (G)(E) The department of mental health and addiction services 79449
may provide or contract to provide addiction services for 79450
offenders incarcerated in the state prison system. 79451

       (F) In addition to the powers expressly conferred, the 79452
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services79453
shall have all powers and authority necessary for the full and 79454
efficient exercise of the executive, administrative, and fiscal 79455
supervision over the state institutions described in this section.79456

       (H) The department of mental health may provide for the 79457
custody, supervision, control, treatment, and training of mentally 79458
ill persons hospitalized elsewhere than within the enclosure of a 79459
hospital, if the department so determines with respect to any 79460
individual or group of individuals. In all such cases, the 79461
department shall ensure adequate and proper supervision for the 79462
protection of such persons and of the public.79463

       Sec. 5119.012.        Sec. 5119.141.  The department of mental health79464
mental health and addiction services has all the authority 79465
necessary to carry out its powers and duties under this chapter 79466
and Chapters 340., 2919., 2945., and 5122. of the Revised Code, 79467
including the authority to adopt rules pursuant to Chapter 119. of 79468
the Revised Code that may be necessary to carry out the purposes 79469
of this chapter and Chapters 340., 2919., 2945., and 5122. of the 79470
Revised Code.79471

       Sec. 5119.24.        Sec. 5119.15.  The department of mental healthmental 79472
health and addiction services may make such investigations as are 79473
necessary in the performance of its duties and to that end the 79474
director of mental healthmental health and addiction services79475
shall have the same power as a judge of a county court to 79476
administer oaths and to enforce the attendance and testimony of 79477
witnesses and the production of books or papers.79478

       The department shall keep a record of such investigations 79479
stating the time, place, charges or subject, witnesses summoned 79480
and examined, and its conclusions.79481

       In matters involving the conduct of an officer, a 79482
stenographic report of the evidence shall be taken and a copy of 79483
such report, with all documents introduced, kept on file at the 79484
office of the department.79485

       The fees of witnesses for attendance and travel shall be the 79486
same as in the court of common pleas, but no officer or employee 79487
of the institution under investigation is entitled to such fees.79488

       Any judge of the probate court or of the court of common 79489
pleas, upon application of the department, may compel the 79490
attendance of witnesses, the production of books or papers, and 79491
the giving of testimony before the department, by a judgment for 79492
contempt or otherwise, in the same manner as in cases before such 79493
courts.79494

       The department of mental healthmental health and addiction 79495
services may appoint and commission any competent agency or 79496
person, to serve without compensation, as a special agent, 79497
investigator, or representative to perform a designated duty for 79498
the department. Specific credentials shall be given by the 79499
department to each person so designated. Each credential shall 79500
state the:79501

       (A) Name of the agent, investigator, or representative;79502

       (B) Agency with which such person is connected;79503

       (C) Purpose of appointment;79504

       (D) Date of expiration of appointment;79505

       (E) Such information as the department considers proper.79506

       Sec. 3793.051.        Sec. 5119.161.  The department of alcohol and drug 79507
addiction servicesmental health and addiction services, in 79508
conjunction with the department of job and family services, shall 79509
develop a joint state plan to improve the accessibility and 79510
timeliness of alcohol and drug addiction services for individuals 79511
identified by a public children services agency as in need of 79512
those services. The plan shall address the fact that Ohio works 79513
first participants may be among the persons receiving services 79514
under section 340.15 of the Revised Code and shall require the 79515
department of job and family services to seek federal funds 79516
available under Title IV-A of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 79517
620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended, for the provision of the 79518
services to Ohio works first participants who are receiving 79519
services under section 340.15 of the Revised Code.79520

       The plan shall address the need and manner for sharing 79521
information and include a request for the general assembly to 79522
appropriate an amount of funds specified in the report to be used 79523
by the departments to pay for services under section 340.15 of the 79524
Revised Code. The departments shall review and amend the plan as 79525
necessary.79526

       Not later than the first day of July of each even-numbered 79527
year, the departments shall submit a report on the progress made 79528
under the joint state plan to the governor, president of the 79529
senate, and speaker of the house of representatives. The report 79530
shall include information on treatment capacity, needs 79531
assessments, and number of individuals who received services 79532
pursuant to section 340.15 of the Revised Code.79533

       Sec. 3793.15.        Sec. 5119.17.  (A) The department of alcohol and drug 79534
addiction servicesmental health and addiction services, in 79535
accordance with division (B) of this section, shall give priority 79536
to developing, and promptly shall develop, with available public 79537
and private resources a program that does all of the following:79538

       (1) Provides a manner of identifying the aggregate number of 79539
pregnant women in this state who are addicted to a drug of abuse;79540

       (2) Provides for an effective means of intervention to 79541
eliminate the addiction of pregnant women to drugs of abuse prior 79542
to the birth of their children;79543

       (3) Provides for the continued monitoring of women who were 79544
addicted to a drug of abuse during their pregnancies, after the 79545
birth of their children, and for the availability of treatment and 79546
rehabilitation for those women;79547

       (4) Provides a manner of determining the aggregate number of 79548
children who are born in this state to women who are addicted, at 79549
the time of birth, to a drug of abuse, and of children who are 79550
born in this state with an addiction to or a dependency on a drug 79551
of abuse;79552

       (5) Provides for the continued monitoring of children who are 79553
born in this state to women who are addicted, at the time of 79554
birth, to a drug of abuse, or who are born in this state with an 79555
addiction to or dependency on a drug of abuse, after their birth;79556

       (6) Provides for the treatment and rehabilitation of any 79557
child who is born to a woman who is addicted, at the time of 79558
birth, to a drug of abuse, and of any child who is born with an 79559
addiction to or dependency on a drug of abuse.79560

       (B) In developing the program described in division (A) of 79561
this section, the department may obtain information from the 79562
department of health and the department of job and family 79563
services, and those departments shall cooperate with the 79564
department of alcohol and drug addiction servicesmental health 79565
and addiction services in its development and implementation of 79566
the program.79567

       (C) Immediately upon its development of the program described 79568
in division (A) of this section, the department shall implement 79569
the program.79570

       (D) Any record or information that is obtained or maintained 79571
by the department in connection with the program described in 79572
division (A) of this section and could enable the identification 79573
of any woman or child described in division (A)(1) or (4) of this 79574
section is not a public record subject to inspection or copying 79575
under section 149.43 of the Revised Code.79576

       Sec. 5119.071.        Sec. 5119.18.  An appointing authority may appoint a 79577
person who holds a certified or permanent position in the 79578
classified service within the department of mental healthmental 79579
health and addiction services to a position in the unclassified 79580
service within the department. A person appointed pursuant to this 79581
section to a position in the unclassified service shall retain the 79582
right to resume the position and status held by the person in the 79583
classified service immediately prior to the person's appointment 79584
to the position in the unclassified service, regardless of the 79585
number of positions the person held in the unclassified service. 79586
An employee's right to resume a position in the classified service 79587
may only be exercised when an appointing authority demotes the 79588
employee to a pay range lower than the employee's current pay 79589
range or revokes the employee's appointment to the unclassified 79590
service. An employee forfeits the right to resume a position in 79591
the classified service when the employee is removed from the 79592
position in the unclassified service due to incompetence, 79593
inefficiency, dishonesty, drunkenness, immoral conduct, 79594
insubordination, discourteous treatment of the public, neglect of 79595
duty, violation of this chapter or Chapter 124. of the Revised 79596
Code, violation of the rules of the director of administrative 79597
services or the director of mental health, any other failure of 79598
good behavior, any other acts of misfeasance, malfeasance, or 79599
nonfeasance in office, or conviction of a felony. An employee also 79600
forfeits the right to resume a position in the classified service 79601
upon transfer to a different agency.79602

       Reinstatement to a position in the classified service shall 79603
be to a position substantially equal to that position in the 79604
classified service held previously, as certified by the director 79605
of administrative services. If the position the person previously 79606
held in the classified service has been placed in the unclassified 79607
service or is otherwise unavailable, the person shall be appointed 79608
to a position in the classified service within the department that 79609
the director of administrative services certifies is comparable in 79610
compensation to the position the person previously held in the 79611
classified service. Service in the position in the unclassified 79612
service shall be counted as service in the position in the 79613
classified service held by the person immediately prior to the 79614
person's appointment to the position in the unclassified service. 79615
When a person is reinstated to a position in the classified 79616
service as provided in this section, the person is entitled to all 79617
rights, status, and benefits accruing to the position in the 79618
classified service during the person's time of service in the 79619
position in the unclassified servicepursuant to division (D) of 79620
section 124.11 of the Revised Code.79621

       Sec. 5119.072.        Sec. 5119.181.  (A) No appointing officer shall 79622
appoint a person to fill a position in either the classified or 79623
unclassified service of the department of mental healthmental 79624
health and addiction services if the person has been convicted of 79625
or pleaded guilty to a violation of the following:79626

       (1) Any felony contained in the Revised Code, if the felony 79627
bears a direct and substantial relationship to the position being 79628
filled;79629

       (2) Any crime contained in the Revised Code constituting a 79630
misdemeanor of the first degree on the first offense and a felony 79631
on subsequent offenses, if the crime bears a direct and 79632
substantial relationship to the position being filled;79633

       (3) An existing or former law of this state, any other state, 79634
or the United States, if the law violated is substantially 79635
equivalent to any of the offenses described in division (A)(1) or 79636
(2) of this section.79637

       (B) The director of mental healthmental health and addiction 79638
services shall adopt rules, in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 79639
Revised Code, to implement this section.79640

       (C) The director or an appointing officer shall request the 79641
bureau of criminal identification and investigation created by 79642
section 109.51 of the Revised Code or, at histhe director's or 79643
appointing officer's discretion, any other state or federal 79644
agency, to supply himthe director or appointing officer with a 79645
written report regarding the criminal records of any applicant. 79646
For each investigation undertaken at the department's request 79647
under this section, the department shall pay a reasonable fee to 79648
the bureau or other state or federal agency conducting the 79649
investigation. The amount of the fee shall be determined by the 79650
bureau or other state or federal agency conducting the 79651
investigation and shall be sufficient to cover the costs of 79652
conducting the investigation. The report made by the bureau or 79653
other state or federal agency is not a public record for purposes 79654
of section 149.43 of the Revised Code and shall not be made 79655
available to any person, except the applicant, the director, the 79656
appointing officer or his designeethe appointing officer's 79657
designees, or any hearing officer involved in a case denying 79658
employment.79659

       (D) As used in this section, "applicant" means a person who 79660
is under final consideration for appointment to a position in the 79661
classified or unclassified service of the department of mental 79662
healthmental health and addiction services.79663

       Sec. 5119.08.        Sec. 5119.182.  The department of mental health shall79664
mental health and addiction services may require any of its 79665
employees and each officer and employee of every institution under 79666
its control who may be charged with custody or control of any 79667
money or property belonging to the state or who is required to 79668
give bond, to give a surety company bond, properly conditioned, in 79669
a sum to be fixed by the department which when approved by the 79670
department, shall be filed in the office of the secretary of 79671
state. The cost of such bonds, when approved by the department, 79672
shall be paid from funds available for the department. The bonds 79673
required or authorized by this section may, in the discretion of 79674
the director of mental healthmental health and addiction 79675
services, be individual, schedule, or blanket bonds.79676

       Sec. 5119.10.        Sec. 5119.184.  The department of mental health79677
mental health and addiction services may provide educational 79678
grants or tuition reimbursements to upgrade the education, 79679
training, and professional achievement of its employees, whenever 79680
it determines that provision of such grants or reimbursements is 79681
essential to the achievement of its goals. The department may 79682
enter into agreements with its employees for the purposes of this 79683
section. The agreements may require, as a condition of each grant 79684
or reimbursement, that the employee continue employment with the 79685
department or with another federal, state, or local public agency 79686
designated by the department for a period of time stated in the 79687
agreement. If an employee does not fulfill the employment 79688
requirement stated in the agreement, the department may take 79689
action to recover the amount of all educational grants or tuition 79690
reimbursements paid to the employee under this section, plus 79691
interest at the rate of ten per cent per year calculated from the 79692
date of payment of each grant or reimbursement.79693

       Sec. 5119.101.        Sec. 5119.185.  (A) As used in this section, 79694
"physician" means an individual authorized under Chapter 4731. of 79695
the Revised Code to practice medicine and surgery or osteopathic 79696
medicine and surgery.79697

       (B) The department of mental healthmental health and 79698
addiction services may establish a physician recruitment program 79699
under which the department agrees to repay all or part of the 79700
principal and interest of a government or other educational loan 79701
incurred by a physician who agrees to provide services to 79702
inpatients and outpatients of institutions under the department's 79703
administration. To be eligible to participate in the program, a 79704
physician must have attended a school that was, at the time of 79705
attendance, a medical school or osteopathic medical school in this 79706
country accredited by the liason committee on medical education or 79707
the American osteopathic association, or a medical school or 79708
osteopathic medical school located outside this country that was 79709
acknowledged by the world health organization and verified by a 79710
member state of that organization as operating within that state's 79711
jurisdiction.79712

       (C) The department shall enter into a contract with each 79713
physician it recruits under this section. Each contract shall 79714
include at least the following terms:79715

       (1) The physician agrees to provide a specified scope of 79716
medical or osteopathic medical services for a specified number of 79717
hours per week and a specified number of years to patients of one 79718
or more specified institutions administered by the department.79719

       (2) The department agrees to repay all or a specified portion 79720
of the principal and interest of a government or other educational 79721
loan taken by the physician for the following expenses if the 79722
physician meets the service obligation agreed to and the expenses 79723
were incurred while the physician was enrolled in, for up to a 79724
maximum of four years, a school that qualifies the physician to 79725
participate in the program:79726

       (a) Tuition;79727

       (b) Other educational expenses for specific purposes, 79728
including fees, books, and laboratory expenses, in amounts 79729
determined to be reasonable in accordance with rules adopted under 79730
division (D) of this section;79731

       (c) Room and board, in an amount determined to be reasonable 79732
in accordance with rules adopted under division (D) of this 79733
section.79734

       (3) The physician agrees to pay the department a specified 79735
amount, which shall be not less than the amount already paid by 79736
the department pursuant to its agreement, as damages if hethe 79737
physician fails to complete the service obligation agreed to or 79738
fails to comply with other specified terms of the contract. The 79739
contract may vary the amount of damages based on the portion of 79740
the physician's service obligation that remains uncompleted as 79741
determined by the department.79742

       (4) Other terms agreed upon by the parties.79743

       (D) If the department elects to implement the physician 79744
recruitment program, it shall adopt rules in accordance with 79745
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code that establish all of the 79746
following:79747

       (1) Criteria for designating institutions for which 79748
physicians will be recruited;79749

       (2) Criteria for selecting physicians for participation in 79750
the program;79751

       (3) Criteria for determining the portion of a physician's 79752
loan that the department will agree to repay;79753

       (4) Criteria for determining reasonable amounts of the 79754
expenses described in divisions (C)(2)(b) and (c) of this section;79755

       (5) Procedures for monitoring compliance by physicians with 79756
the terms of their contracts;79757

       (6) Any other criteria or procedures necessary to implement 79758
the program.79759

       Sec. 5119.11.        Sec. 5119.186.  (A) The director of mental health79760
mental health and addiction services or the managing officer of an 79761
institution of the department may enter into an agreement with 79762
boards of trustees or boards of directors of one or more 79763
institutions of higher education or hospitals licensed pursuant to 79764
section 5119.205119.33 of the Revised Code to establish, manage, 79765
and conduct collaborative training efforts for students enrolled 79766
in courses of studies for occupations or professions which may be 79767
determined by the director upon the approval of the medical 79768
director to be in occupations or professions needed to provide 79769
adequatethat involve the care and treatment for persons receiving 79770
mental health or addiction services.79771

       (B) Such collaborative training efforts may include but are 79772
not limited to programs in psychiatry, psychology, nursing, social 79773
work, counseling professions, and others considered appropriate by 79774
the director of mental healthmental health and addiction 79775
services. Any such program shall be approved or accredited by its 79776
respective professional organization or state board having 79777
jurisdiction over the profession.79778

       (1) The department shall require that the following be 79779
provided for in agreements between the department and institutions 79780
of higher education or hospitals licensed pursuant to section 79781
5119.205119.33 of the Revised Code:79782

       (a) Establishment of inter-disciplinary committees to advise 79783
persons responsible for training programs. Each committee shall 79784
have representation drawn from the geographical community the 79785
institution of higher education or hospital serves and shall 79786
include representatives of agencies, boards, targeted populations 79787
as determined by the department, racial and ethnic minority 79788
groups, and publicly funded programs;79789

       (b) Funding procedures;79790

       (c) Specific outcomes and accomplishments that are expected 79791
or required of a program under such agreement;79792

       (d) The types of services to be provided under such 79793
agreement.79794

       (2) The department may require that the following be provided 79795
for in agreements between the department and institutions of 79796
higher education or hospitals licensed pursuant to section 5119.2079797
5119.33 of the Revised Code:79798

       (a) Special arrangements for individual residents or trainees 79799
to encourage their employment in publicly funded settings upon 79800
completion of their training;79801

       (b) Procedures for the selection of residents or trainees to 79802
promote the admission, retention, and graduation of women, 79803
minorities, and handicappeddisabled persons;79804

       (c) Cross-cultural training and other subjects considered 79805
necessary to enhance training efforts and the care and treatment 79806
of patients and clients;79807

       (d) Funding of faculty positions oriented toward meeting the 79808
needs of publicly funded programs.79809

       Subject to appropriations by the general assembly, the 79810
director of mental healthmental health and addiction services has 79811
final approval of the funding of these collaborative training 79812
efforts.79813

       Sec. 5119.12.        Sec. 5119.187.  The courses of study for the 79814
instruction and training of all persons in institutions under the 79815
control of the department of mental healthmental health and 79816
addiction services shall be subject to the approval of the 79817
superintendent of public instruction.79818

       All teachers employed in institutions under the control of 79819
the department of mental healthmental health and addiction 79820
services shall possess such educator licenses or have such 79821
qualifications and approval as the superintendent of public 79822
instruction, after consulting with the officers in charge of the 79823
institutions, prescribes for the various types of service in the 79824
institutions.79825

       Sec. 3793.16.        Sec. 5119.188.  (A) As used in this section, "state 79826
correctional institution" has the same meaning as in section 79827
2967.01 of the Revised Code.79828

       (B) The department of alcohol and drug addiction services79829
mental health and addiction services shall develop a program that 79830
is designed to educate and train the employees of each state 79831
correctional institution, the employees of each department of 79832
youth services institution, and other persons associated by 79833
contract or otherwise with each state correctional institution or 79834
each department of youth services institution, who will be 79835
responsible for the conduct of, or otherwise providing treatment 79836
or rehabilitation services pursuant to, a substance abuse 79837
treatment or rehabilitation program offered in the institution to 79838
adult prisoners or juvenile offenders. Upon the development of the 79839
educational and training program, the department of alcohol and 79840
drug addiction servicesmental health and addiction services79841
promptly shall commence its implementation. The department of79842
alcohol and drug addiction servicesmental health and addiction 79843
services may charge to the department of rehabilitation and 79844
correction and to the department of youth services a reasonable 79845
annual fee that reflects the expenses incurred by it during the 79846
immediately preceding calendar year in preparing and offering the 79847
educational and training program during that year to the 79848
respective employees and other associated persons described in 79849
this division.79850

       The director of rehabilitation and correction and the 79851
director of youth services shall require the respective employees 79852
and other associated persons described in this division to attend 79853
and successfully complete the educational and training program 79854
developed pursuant to this division as a condition of their 79855
continuing to have responsibility for the conduct of, or their 79856
continuing to provide treatment or rehabilitation services 79857
pursuant to, any treatment or rehabilitation program that is 79858
offered in a state correctional institution or in a department of 79859
youth services institution to adult prisoners or juvenile 79860
offenders. If the department of alcohol and drug addiction 79861
servicesmental health and addiction services charges a reasonable 79862
annual fee as described in this division, the director involved 79863
shall cause that fee to be paid from any available funds of the 79864
department of rehabilitation and correction or any available funds 79865
of the department of youth services.79866

       (C) The department of rehabilitation and correction and the 79867
department of alcohol and drug addiction servicesmental health 79868
and addiction services jointly shall develop program 79869
specifications for the alcohol and drug addiction treatment 79870
programs offered in state correctional institutions.79871

       Sec. 3793.031.        Sec. 5119.201. (A) The director of alcohol and drug 79872
addiction servicesmental health and addiction services may 79873
acquire by purchase, lease, or otherwise such real and personal 79874
property rights in the name of the state as are necessary for the 79875
purposes of the department. The79876

       (B) When it is necessary for a state institution under the 79877
jurisdiction of the department to acquire any real estate, 79878
right-of-way, or easement in real estate in order to accomplish 79879
the purposes for which it was organized or is being conducted, and 79880
the department is unable to agree with the owner of such property 79881
upon the price to be paid for the property, such property may be 79882
appropriated in the manner provided for the appropriation of 79883
property for other state purposes.79884

       (C) The director, with the approval of the governor and the 79885
attorney general, may work with the department of administrative 79886
services to sell, lease, or exchange portions of real and personal 79887
property of the department when the sale, lease, or exchange is 79888
advantageous to the state. Money received from such sales, leases, 79889
or exchanges shall be credited to the general revenuethe 79890
department of mental health and addiction services trust fund, 79891
created in section 5119.46 of the Revised Code.79892

       (D) Any instrument by which real property is acquired 79893
pursuant to this section shall identify the agency of the state 79894
that has the use and benefit of the real property as specified in 79895
section 5301.012 of the Revised Code.79896

       Sec. 5119.06.        Sec. 5119.21. (A) The department of mental health79897
mental health and addiction services shall:79898

       (A)(1) To the extent the department has available resources 79899
and in consultation with boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and 79900
mental health services, support a community support system79901
continuum of care in accordance with section 340.03Chapter 340.79902
of the Revised Code on a district or multi-district basis. The 79903
department shall define the essential elements of a community 79904
support systemcontinuum of care, shall assist in identifying 79905
resources, and may prioritize support for one or more of the 79906
elements.79907

       (B) Operate inpatient and other mental health services;79908

       (C)(2) Provide training, consultation, and technical 79909
assistance regarding mental health programs and addiction services 79910
and appropriate prevention, recovery, and mental health promotion 79911
activities, including those that are culturally sensitive79912
competent, to employees of the department, community mental health 79913
agencies and addiction services providers, boards of alcohol, drug 79914
addiction, and mental health services, and other agencies 79915
providing mental health and addiction services;79916

       (D)(3) To the extent the department has available resources, 79917
promote and support a full range of mental health and addiction79918
services that are available and accessible to all residents of 79919
this state, especially for severely mentally disabled children, 79920
adolescents, and adults, pregnant women, parents, guardians or 79921
custodians of children at risk of abuse or neglect, and other 79922
special target populations, including racial and ethnic 79923
minorities, as determined by the department;79924

       (E)(4) Develop standards and measures for evaluating the 79925
effectiveness of mental health and addiction services, including 79926
services that use methadone treatment, of gambling addiction 79927
services, and for increasing the accountability of mental health 79928
and alcohol and addiction services providers and of gambling 79929
addiction services providers;79930

       (5) Design and set criteria for the determination of severe 79931
mental disabilitypriority populations;79932

       (F) Establish standards for evaluation of mental health 79933
programs;79934

       (G)(6) Promote, direct, conduct, and coordinate scientific 79935
research, taking ethnic and racial differences into consideration, 79936
concerning the causes and prevention of mental illness and 79937
addiction, methods of providing effective services and treatment, 79938
and means of enhancing the mental health of and recovery from 79939
addiction of all residents of this state;79940

       (H)(7) Foster the establishment and availability of 79941
vocational rehabilitation services and the creation of employment 79942
opportunities for consumers of mental health and addiction79943
services, including members of racial and ethnic minorities;79944

       (I)(8) Establish a program to protect and promote the rights 79945
of persons receiving mental health and addiction services, 79946
including the issuance of guidelines on informed consent and other 79947
rights;79948

       (J) Establish, in consultation with board of alcohol, drug 79949
addiction, and mental health services representatives and after 79950
consideration of the recommendations of the medical director, 79951
guidelines for the development of community mental health plans 79952
and the review and approval or disapproval of such plans submitted 79953
pursuant to section 340.03 of the Revised Code;79954

       (K)(9) Promote the involvement of persons who are receiving 79955
or have received mental health or addiction services, including 79956
families and other persons having a close relationship to a person 79957
receiving mental healththose services, in the planning, 79958
evaluation, delivery, and operation of mental health and addiction79959
services;79960

       (L)(10) Notify and consult with the relevant constituencies 79961
that may be affected by rules, standards, and guidelines issued by 79962
the department of mental healthmental health and addiction 79963
services. These constituencies shall include consumers of mental 79964
health and addiction services and their families, and may include 79965
public and private providers, employee organizations, and others 79966
when appropriate. Whenever the department proposes the adoption, 79967
amendment, or rescission of rules under Chapter 119. of the 79968
Revised Code, the notification and consultation required by this 79969
division shall occur prior to the commencement of proceedings 79970
under Chapter 119. The department shall adopt rules under Chapter 79971
119. of the Revised Code that establish procedures for the 79972
notification and consultation required by this division.79973

       (M) In cooperation with board of alcohol, drug addiction, and 79974
mental health services representatives, provide training regarding 79975
the provision of community-based mental health services to those 79976
department employees who are utilized in state-operated, 79977
community-based mental health services;79978

       (N)(11) Provide consultation to the department of 79979
rehabilitation and correction concerning the delivery of mental 79980
health and addiction services in state correctional institutions.79981

       (12) Promote and coordinate efforts in the provision of 79982
alcohol and drug addiction services and of gambling addiction 79983
services by other state agencies, as defined in section 1.60 of 79984
the Revised Code; courts; hospitals; clinics; physicians in 79985
private practice; public health authorities; boards of alcohol, 79986
drug addiction, and mental health services; alcohol and drug 79987
addiction services providers; law enforcement agencies; gambling 79988
addiction services providers; and related groups;79989

       (13) Provide to each court of record, and biennially update, 79990
a list of the treatment and education programs within that court's 79991
jurisdiction that the court may require an offender, sentenced 79992
pursuant to section 4511.19 of the Revised Code, to attend;79993

       (14) Make the warning sign described in sections 3313.752, 79994
3345.41, and 3707.50 of the Revised Code available on the 79995
department's internet web site;79996

       (15) Provide a program of gambling addiction services on 79997
behalf of the state lottery commission, pursuant to an agreement 79998
entered into with the director of the commission under division 79999
(K) of section 3770.02 of the Revised Code, and provide a program 80000
of gambling addiction services on behalf of the Ohio casino 80001
control commission, under an agreement entered into with the 80002
executive director of the commission under section 3772.062 of the 80003
Revised Code. Under Section 6(C)(3) of Article XV, Ohio 80004
Constitution, the department may enter into agreements with boards 80005
of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services, including 80006
boards with districts in which a casino facility is not located, 80007
and nonprofit organizations to provide gambling addiction services 80008
and substance abuse services, and with state institutions of 80009
higher education or private nonprofit institutions that possess a 80010
certificate of authorization issued under Chapter 1713. of the 80011
Revised Code to perform related research.80012

       (B) The department may accept and administer grants from 80013
public or private sources for carrying out any of the duties 80014
enumerated in this section.80015

       (C) Pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, the 80016
department shall adopt a rule defining the term "intervention" as 80017
it is used in this chapter in connection with alcohol and drug 80018
addiction services and in connection with gambling addiction 80019
services. The department may adopt other rules as necessary to 80020
implement the requirements of this chapter.80021

       Sec. 5119.61.        Sec. 5119.22. Any provision in this chapter that 80022
refers to a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 80023
services also refers to the community mental health board in an 80024
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health service district that 80025
has a community mental health board.80026

       The director of mental healthmental health and addiction 80027
services with respect to all mental health and addiction80028
facilities and programsservices established and operated or 80029
provided under Chapter 340. of the Revised Code for mentally ill 80030
and emotionally disturbed persons, shall do all of the following:80031

       (A) Adopt rules pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code 80032
that may be necessary to carry out the purposes of Chapterthis 80033
chapter and Chapters 340. and sections 5119.61 to 5119.635122. of 80034
the Revised Code.80035

       (1) The rules shall include the following:80036

       (a) Rules governing a community mental health agency's 80037
services under section 340.091 of the Revised Code to an 80038
individual referred to the agency under division (D)(2) of section 80039
5119.69 of the Revised Code;80040

       (b) For the purpose of division (A)(16) of section 340.03 of 80041
the Revised Code, rules governing the duties of mental health 80042
agencies and boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 80043
services regarding referrals of individuals with mental illness or 80044
severe mental disability to residential facilities as defined in 80045
division (A)(9)(b) of section 5119.22 of the Revised Code and 80046
effective arrangements for ongoing mental health services for the 80047
individuals. .80048

       (2) Rules may be adopted to govern the method of paying a 80049
community mental health facility, as defined in section 5111.023 80050
of the Revised Code, for providing services listed in division (B) 80051
of that section. Such rules must be consistent with the contract 80052
entered into between the departments of job and family services 80053
and mental health under section 5111.91 of the Revised Code and 80054
include requirements ensuring appropriate service utilization. 80055

       (B) Review and evaluate, andthe continuum of care in each 80056
service district, taking into account the findings and 80057
recommendations of the board of alcohol, drug addiction, and 80058
mental health services of the district served by the program80059
submitted under division (A)(4) of section 340.03 of the Revised 80060
Code and the requirements and priorities and plans of the state 80061
mental health plandepartment, including the needs of residents of 80062
the district now residing in state mental institutionscurrently 80063
receiving services in state-operated hospitals, and make 80064
recommendations for needed improvements to boards of alcohol, drug 80065
addiction, and mental health services;80066

       (C) Provide consultative services to community mental health 80067
agencies with the knowledge and cooperation of the board of 80068
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services;80069

       (D) At the director's discretion, provide to boards of 80070
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services state or 80071
federal funds, in addition to those allocated under section 80072
5119.625119.23 of the Revised Code, for special programs or 80073
projects the director considers necessary but for which local 80074
funds are not available;80075

       (D) Establish, in consultation with board of alcohol, drug 80076
addiction, and mental health service representatives and after 80077
consideration of the recommendations of the medical director, 80078
guidelines for the development of community mental health and 80079
addiction services plans and the review and approval or 80080
disapproval of such plans submitted pursuant to section 340.03 of 80081
the Revised Code.80082

       (E) Establish criteria by which a board of alcohol, drug 80083
addiction, and mental health services reviews and evaluates the 80084
quality, effectiveness, and efficiency of its contracted services 80085
provided through its community mental health plan. The criteria 80086
shall include requirements ensuring appropriate service 80087
utilization. The department shall assess a board's evaluation of 80088
services and the compliance of each board with this section, 80089
Chapter 340. or section 5119.62 of the Revised Code, and other 80090
state or federal law and regulations. The department, in 80091
cooperation with the board, periodically shall review and evaluate 80092
the quality, effectiveness, and efficiency of services provided 80093
through each board. The department shall collect information that 80094
is necessary to perform these functions.80095

        (F) To the extent the director determines necessary and after 80096
consulting with boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental 80097
health services, develop and operate, or contract for the 80098
operation of, a community mentalbehavioral health information 80099
system or systems. The department shall specify the information 80100
that must be provided by boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and 80101
mental health services for inclusion in the system or systems.80102

       Boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services 80103
shall submit information requested by the department in the form 80104
and manner and in accordance with time frames prescribed by the 80105
department. Information collected by the department shallmay80106
include, but not be limited to, all of the following:80107

       (1) Information regarding units ofon services provided in 80108
whole or in part under contract with a board, including diagnosis 80109
and special needs, demographic information, the number of units of 80110
service provided, past treatment, financial status, and service 80111
dates in accordance with rules adopted by the department in 80112
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code;80113

       (2) Financial information other than price or price-related 80114
data regarding expenditures of federal, state, or local funds by80115
boards and community mental health agencies, including units of 80116
service provided, budgeted and actual expenses by type, and 80117
sources of funds;80118

       (3) Information about persons served under contract with a 80119
board.80120

       Boards shall submit the information specified in division 80121
(F)(1) of this section no less frequently than annually for each 80122
client, and each time the client's case is opened or closed. The 80123
department shall not collect any personal information from the 80124
boards except as required or permitted by state or federal law for 80125
purposes related to payment, health care operations, program and 80126
service evaluation, reporting activities, research, system 80127
administration, and oversight.80128

       (G)(1) Review each board's community mental health and 80129
addiction services plan, budget, and statement of services to be 80130
made available submitted pursuant to sectionsections 340.03 and 80131
340.08 of the Revised Code and approve or disapprove itthe plan, 80132
the budget, and the statement of services in whole or in part. 80133
Periodically, in consultation with representatives of boards and 80134
after considering the recommendations of the medical director, the 80135
director shall issue criteria for determining when a plan is 80136
complete, criteria for plan approval or disapproval, and 80137
provisions for conditional approval. The factors that the director 80138
considers may include, but are not limited to, the following:80139

       (1) The mental health needs of all persons residing within 80140
the board's service district, especially severely mentally 80141
disabled children, adolescents, and adults;80142

       (2) The demonstrated quality, effectiveness, efficiency, and 80143
cultural relevance of the services provided in each service 80144
district, the extent to which any services are duplicative of 80145
other available services, and whether the services meet the needs 80146
identified above;80147

       (3) The adequacy of the board's accounting for the 80148
expenditure of funds.80149

       If the director disapproves all or part of any plan, the 80150
director shall provide the board an opportunity to present its 80151
position. The director shall inform the board of the reasons for 80152
the disapproval and of the criteria that must be met before the 80153
plan may be approved. The director shall give the board a 80154
reasonable time within which to meet the criteria, and shall offer 80155
technical assistance to the board to help it meet the criteria.80156

       If the approval of a plan remains in dispute, the board or 80157
the director may request that the dispute be submitted to a 80158
mutually agreed upon third-party mediator with the cost to be 80159
shared by the board and the department. The mediator shall issue 80160
to the board and the department recommendations for resolution of 80161
the dispute. The director, taking into consideration the 80162
recommendations of the mediator, shall make a final determination 80163
and approve or disapprove the plan, in whole or in partThe 80164
department may withhold all or part of the funds allocated to a 80165
board if it disapproves all or part of a plan, budget, or 80166
statement of services. Prior to a final decision to disapprove a 80167
plan, budget, or statement of services, or to withhold funds from 80168
a board, a representative of the director of mental health and 80169
addiction services shall meet with the board and discuss the 80170
reason for the action the department proposes to take and any 80171
corrective action that should be taken to make the plan, budget, 80172
or statement of services acceptable to the department. In 80173
addition, the department shall offer technical assistance to the 80174
board to assist it to make the plan, budget, or statement of 80175
services acceptable. The department shall give the board a 80176
reasonable time in which to revise the plan, budget, or statement 80177
of services. The board thereafter shall submit a revised plan, 80178
budget, or statement of services, or a new plan, budget, or 80179
statement of services.80180

       (2) If a board determines that it is necessary to amend the 80181
plan, budget, or statement of services that has been approved 80182
under this section, the board shall submit the proposed amendment 80183
to the department. The department may approve or disapprove all or 80184
part of the amendment.80185

       (3) If the director disapproves of all or part of any 80186
proposed amendment, the director shall provide the board an 80187
opportunity to present its position. The director shall inform the 80188
board of the reasons for the disapproval and of the criteria that 80189
must be met before the proposed amendment may be approved. The 80190
director shall give the board a reasonable time within which to 80191
meet the criteria and shall offer technical assistance to the 80192
board to help it meet the criteria.80193

       (4) The department shall establish procedures for the review 80194
of plans, budgets, and statements of services, and a timetable for 80195
submission and review of plans, budgets, and statements of 80196
services and for corrective action and submission of new or 80197
revised plans, budgets, and statements of services.80198

       Sec. 5119.62.        Sec. 5119.23.  (A) The department of mental health80199
mental health and addiction services shall establish a methodology 80200
for allocating to boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental 80201
health services the funds appropriated by the general assembly to 80202
the department for the purpose of local mental health systemsand 80203
addiction services continuums of care. The department shall 80204
establish the methodology after notifying and consulting with 80205
relevant constituencies as required by division (L)(A)(10) of 80206
section 5119.065119.21 of the Revised Code. The methodology may 80207
provide for the funds to be allocated to boards on a district or 80208
multi-district basis. Subject80209

       (B) Subject to sections 5119.622 and 5119.623section 80210
5119.25 of the Revised Code, and to required submissions and 80211
approvals under section 340.08 of the Revised Code, the department 80212
shall allocate the funds to the boards in a manner consistent with 80213
the methodology, this section, other state and federal laws, 80214
rules, and regulations.80215

       (B) The department may allocate to boards a portion of the 80216
funds appropriated by the general assembly to the department for 80217
the operation of state hospital services. If the department 80218
allocates the funds, the department shall do all of the following:80219

       (1) In consultation with the boards:80220

       (a) Annually determine the unit costs of providing state 80221
hospital services; and80222

       (b) Establish the methodology for allocating the funds to the 80223
boards.80224

       (2) Determine the type of unit costs of providing state 80225
hospital services to be included as a factor in the methodology 80226
and include that unit cost as a factor in the methodology;80227

       (3) Subject to sections 5119.622 and 5119.623 of the Revised 80228
Code, allocate the funds to the boards in a manner consistent with 80229
the methodology, this section, other state and federal laws, 80230
rules, and regulations.80231

       (c) Not later than the first day of April of each year, the 80232
department shall notify each board of the department's estimate of 80233
the amount of funds to be allocated to the board under this 80234
section during the fiscal year beginning on the next July first. 80235
If the department makes an allocation under division (B) of this 80236
section, the department shall also notify each board of the unit 80237
costs of providing state hospital services for the upcoming fiscal 80238
year as determined under that division. Not later than the first 80239
day of May of each year, each board shall notify the department as 80240
to which of the following options it has elected for the upcoming 80241
fiscal year:80242

       (1) The board elects to accept distribution of the amount 80243
allocated to it under this section. Funds distributed to each 80244
board shall be used to supplement and not to supplant other state, 80245
local, or federal funds that are being used to support 80246
community-based programs for severely mentally disabled children, 80247
adolescents, and adults, unless the funds have been specifically 80248
designated for the initiation of programs in accordance with the 80249
community mental health plan developed and submitted under section 80250
340.03 and approved under section 5119.61 of the Revised Code. 80251
Notwithstanding section 131.33 of the Revised Code, any board may 80252
expend unexpended funds distributed to the board from 80253
appropriations for the purpose of local management of mental 80254
health services in the fiscal year following the fiscal year for 80255
which the appropriations are made, in accordance with the approved 80256
community mental health plan.80257

       (2) Subject to division (D) of this section, the board elects 80258
not to accept the amount allocated to it under this section, 80259
authorizes the department to determine the use of its allocation, 80260
and agrees to provide the department with a statement of projected 80261
utilization of state hospitals and other state-operated services 80262
by residents of its service district during the fiscal year.80263

       (D) No board shall elect the option in division (C)(2) of 80264
this section unless all of the following apply:80265

       (1) Either the total funds estimated by the department to be 80266
allocated to the board under this section for the next fiscal year 80267
are reduced by a substantial amount, as defined in guidelines 80268
adopted by the director of mental health under division (E) of 80269
this section, in comparison to the amount allocated for the 80270
current fiscal year, for reasons not related to performance or the 80271
board has experienced other circumstances specified in the 80272
guidelines.80273

        (2) The board provides the department written confirmation 80274
that the board has received input about the impact that the 80275
board's election will have on the mental health system in the 80276
board's district from all of the following:80277

       (a) Individuals who receive mental health services and such 80278
individuals' families;80279

       (b) Boards of county commissioners;80280

       (c) Judges of juvenile and probate courts;80281

       (d) County sheriffs, jail administrators, and other local law 80282
enforcement officials.80283

       (3) Not later than seven days before notifying the department 80284
of its election and after providing the department the written 80285
confirmation required by division (D)(2) of this section, the 80286
board conducts a public hearing on the issue.80287

       (E) For the purpose of division (D)(1) of this section, the 80288
director of mental health shall consult with the boards and other 80289
relevant constituencies to develop guidelines for determining what 80290
constitutes a substantial reduction of funds and what other 80291
circumstances qualify a board to elect the option in division 80292
(C)(2) of this section.80293

       (F) No board shall use state funds for the purpose of 80294
discouraging employees from seeking collective bargaining 80295
representation or encouraging employees to decertify a recognized 80296
collective bargaining agent.80297

       (G) The department shall charge against the allocation made 80298
to a board under division (B) of this section, if any, any 80299
unreimbursed costs for services provided by the department.80300

       (H) A board's use of funds allocated under this section is 80301
subject to audit by county, state, and federal authorities.80302

       (C) In consultation with boards, community mental health and 80303
addiction services providers, and persons receiving services, the 80304
department shall establish guidelines for the use of funds 80305
allocated and distributed under this section.80306

       Sec. 5119.621.        Sec. 5119.24.  (A) As used in this section, 80307
"administrative function" means a function related to one or more 80308
of the following:80309

       (1) Continuous quality improvement;80310

       (2) Utilization review;80311

       (3) Resource development;80312

       (4) Fiscal administration;80313

       (5) General administration;80314

       (6) Any other function related to administration that is 80315
required by Chapter 340. of the Revised Code.80316

       (B) Each board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 80317
services shall submit an annual report to the department of mental 80318
healthmental health and addiction services specifying how the 80319
board used funds allocated to the board under section 5119.6280320
5119.23 of the Revised Code for administrative functions in the 80321
year preceding the report's submission. The director of mental 80322
healthmental health and addiction services shall establish the 80323
date by which the report must be submitted each year.80324

       Sec. 5119.622.        Sec. 5119.25. (A) The director of mental health80325
mental health and addiction services, in whole or in part, may 80326
withhold funds otherwise to be allocated to a board of alcohol, 80327
drug addiction, and mental health services under section 5119.6280328
5119.23 of the Revised Code if the board fails to comply with 80329
Chapter 340. or section 5119.61, 5119.611, 5119.612, or 5119.62180330
5119.22, 5119.24, 5119.36, or 5119.37 of the Revised Code or rules 80331
of the department of mental health regarding a community mental 80332
health servicemental health and addiction services. The80333

       (B) The director of mental health and addiction services may 80334
withhold funds otherwise to be allocated to a board of alcohol, 80335
drug addiction, and mental health services under section 5119.23 80336
of the Revised Code if the board denies available service on the 80337
basis of race, color, religion, sex, national origin, marital 80338
status, sexual orientation, genetic information, or developmental 80339
disability, or age, disability, or military status as defined in 80340
section 4112.01 of the Revised Code.80341

       (C) The director shall identifyissue a notice identifying80342
the areas of noncompliance and the action necessary to achieve 80343
compliance. The director shallmay offer technical assistance to 80344
the board to achieve compliance. The director shall give the board 80345
a reasonable time within which to comply orshall have ten days 80346
from receipt of the notice of noncompliance to present its 80347
position that it is in compliance. Before withholding funds, the 80348
director or the director's designee shall hold a hearing shall be 80349
conductedwithin ten days of receipt of the board's position to 80350
determine if there are continuing violations and that either 80351
assistance is rejected or the board is unable to achieve 80352
compliance. Subsequent to the hearing process, if it is determined 80353
that compliance has not been achieved, the director may allocate 80354
all or part of the withheld funds to a public or private agency to 80355
provide the community mental health or community addiction service 80356
for which the board is not in compliance until the time that there 80357
is compliance. The director shallmay adopt rules in accordance 80358
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement this section.80359

       Sec. 3793.14.        Sec. 5119.26.  Any person treated under this chapter 80360
or rules adopted under it shall retain histhe person's civil 80361
rights and liberties, including the right not to be experimented 80362
upon with treatment not accepted as good medical practice without 80363
histhe person's fully informed consent, the right as a patient80364
person receiving services to maintain the confidentiality of 80365
health and medical records, the right as a person detained for 80366
medical purposes to receive adequate and appropriate treatment, 80367
and the right to vote.80368

       Sec. 3793.13.        Sec. 5119.27.  (A) Records or information, other than 80369
court journal entries or court docket entries, pertaining to the 80370
identity, diagnosis, or treatment of any patientperson seeking or 80371
receiving services that are maintained in connection with the 80372
performance of any drug treatment program or services licensed by, 80373
or certified by, the director of alcohol and drug addiction 80374
services,mental health and addiction services under section 80375
3793.11 of the Revised Code,this chapter shall be kept 80376
confidential, may be disclosed only for the purposes and under the 80377
circumstances expressly authorized under this section, and may not 80378
otherwise be divulged in any civil, criminal, administrative, or 80379
legislative proceeding.80380

       (B) When the patientperson, with respect to whom any record 80381
or information referred to in division (A) of this section is 80382
maintained, gives consent in the form of a written release signed 80383
by the patientperson, the content of the record or information 80384
may be disclosed if the written release conforms to all of the 80385
following:80386

       (1) Specifically identifies the person, official, or entity 80387
to whom the information is to be provided;80388

       (2) Describes with reasonable specificity the record, 80389
records, or information to be disclosed; and80390

       (3) Describes with reasonable specificity the purposes of the 80391
disclosure and the intended use of the disclosed information.80392

       (C) A patientperson who is subject to a community control 80393
sanction, parole, or a post-release control sanction or who is 80394
ordered to rehabilitation in lieu of conviction, and who has 80395
agreed to participate in a drug treatment or rehabilitation 80396
program as a condition of the community control sanction, 80397
post-release control sanction, parole, or order to rehabilitation, 80398
shall be considered to have consented to the release of records 80399
and information relating to the progress of treatment, frequency 80400
of treatment, adherence to treatment requirements, and probable 80401
outcome of treatment. Release of information and records under 80402
this division shall be limited to the court or governmental 80403
personnel having the responsibility for supervising the patient's80404
person's community control sanction, post-release control 80405
sanction, parole, or order to rehabilitation. A patientperson, 80406
described in this division, who refuses to allow disclosure may be 80407
considered in violation of the conditions of the patient's80408
person's community control sanction, post-release control 80409
sanction, parole, or order to rehabilitation.80410

       (D) Disclosure of a patient'sperson's record may be made 80411
without the patient'sperson's consent to qualified personnel for 80412
the purpose of conducting scientific research, management, 80413
financial audits, or program evaluation, but these personnel may 80414
not identify, directly or indirectly, any individual patient80415
person in any report of the research, audit, or evaluation, or 80416
otherwise disclose a patient'sperson's identity in any manner.80417

       (E) Upon the request of a prosecuting attorney or the 80418
director of alcohol and drug addiction servicesmental health and 80419
addiction services, a court of competent jurisdiction may order 80420
the disclosure of records or information referred to in division 80421
(A) of this section if the court has reason to believe that a 80422
treatment program or facility is being operated or used in a 80423
manner contrary to law. The use of any information or record so 80424
disclosed shall be limited to the prosecution of persons who are 80425
or may be charged with any offense related to the illegal 80426
operation or use of the drug treatment program or facility, or to 80427
the decision to withdraw the authority of a drug treatment program 80428
or facility to continue operation. For purposes of this division 80429
the court shall:80430

       (1) Limit disclosure to those parts of the patient'sperson's80431
record considered essential to fulfill the objective for which the 80432
order was granted;80433

       (2) Require, where appropriate, that all information be 80434
disclosed in chambers;80435

       (3) Include any other appropriate measures to keep disclosure 80436
to a minimum, consistent with the protection of the patients80437
persons seeking or receiving services, the physician-patient 80438
relationship, and the administration of the drug treatment and 80439
rehabilitation program.80440

       (F) As used in this section:80441

       (1) "Community control sanction" has the same meaning as in 80442
section 2929.01 of the Revised Code.80443

       (2) "Post-release control sanction" has the same meaning as 80444
in section 2967.01 of the Revised Code.80445

       Sec. 5119.28.  (A) All records, and reports, other than court 80446
journal entries or court docket entries, identifying a person and 80447
pertaining to the person's mental health condition, assessment, 80448
provision of care or treatment, or payment for assessment, care or 80449
treatment that are maintained in connection with any services 80450
certified by the department of mental health and addiction 80451
services, or any hospitals or facilities licensed or operated by 80452
the department, shall be kept confidential and shall not be 80453
disclosed by any person except:80454

       (1) If the person identified, or the person's legal guardian, 80455
if any, or if the person is a minor, the person's parent or legal 80456
guardian, consents;80457

       (2) When disclosure is provided for in this chapter or 80458
Chapter 340. or 5122., or Title XLVII of the Revised Code;80459

       (3) That hospitals, boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and 80460
mental health services, licensed facilities, and community mental 80461
health services providers may release necessary information to 80462
insurers and other third-party payers, including government 80463
entities responsible for processing and authorizing payment, to 80464
obtain payment for goods and services furnished to the person;80465

       (4) Pursuant to a court order signed by a judge;80466

       (5) That a person shall be granted access to the person's own 80467
psychiatric and medical records, unless access specifically is 80468
restricted in a person's treatment plan for clear treatment 80469
reasons;80470

       (6) That the department of mental health and addiction 80471
services may exchange psychiatric records and other pertinent 80472
information with community mental health services providers and 80473
boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services 80474
relating to the person's care or services. Records and information 80475
that may be exchanged pursuant to this division shall be limited 80476
to medication history, physical health status and history, 80477
financial status, summary of course of treatment, summary of 80478
treatment needs, and a discharge summary, if any.80479

       (7) That the department of mental health and addiction 80480
services, hospitals and community providers operated by the 80481
department, hospitals licensed by the department under section 80482
5119.33 of the Revised Code, and community mental health services 80483
providers may exchange psychiatric records and other pertinent 80484
information with payers and other providers of treatment and 80485
health services if the purpose of the exchange is to facilitate 80486
continuity of care for the person or for the emergency treatment 80487
of the person;80488

       (8) That the department of mental health and addiction 80489
services and community mental health services providers may 80490
exchange psychiatric records and other pertinent information with 80491
boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services for 80492
purposes of any board function set forth in Chapter 340. of the 80493
Revised Code. Boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 80494
services shall not access any personal information from the 80495
department or providers except as required or permitted by this 80496
section, or Chapter 340. or 5122. of the Revised Code for purposes 80497
related to payment, care coordination, health care operations, 80498
program and service evaluation, reporting activities, research, 80499
system administration, oversight, or other authorized purposes.80500

       (9) That a person's family member who is involved in the 80501
provision, planning, and monitoring of services to the person may 80502
receive medication information, a summary of the person's 80503
diagnosis and prognosis, and a list of the services and personnel 80504
available to assist the person and the person's family, if the 80505
person's treatment provider determines that the disclosure would 80506
be in the best interests of the person. No such disclosure shall 80507
be made unless the person is notified first and receives the 80508
information and does not object to the disclosure.80509

       (10) That community mental health services providers may 80510
exchange psychiatric records and certain other information with 80511
the board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services 80512
and other providers in order to provide services to a person 80513
involuntarily committed to a board. Release of records under this 80514
division shall be limited to medication history, physical health 80515
status and history, financial status, summary of course of 80516
treatment, summary of treatment needs, and discharge summary, if 80517
any.80518

       (11) That information may be disclosed to the executor or the 80519
administrator of an estate of a deceased person when the 80520
information is necessary to administer the estate;80521

       (12) That information may be disclosed to staff members of 80522
the appropriate board or to staff members designated by the 80523
director of mental health and addiction services for the purpose 80524
of evaluating the quality, effectiveness, and efficiency of 80525
services and determining if the services meet minimum standards. 80526
Information obtained during such evaluations shall not be retained 80527
with the name of any person.80528

       (13) That records pertaining to the person's diagnosis, 80529
course of treatment, treatment needs, and prognosis shall be 80530
disclosed and released to the appropriate prosecuting attorney if 80531
the person was committed pursuant to section 2945.38, 2945.39, 80532
2945.40, 2945.401, or 2945.402 of the Revised Code, or to the 80533
attorney designated by the board for proceedings pursuant to 80534
involuntary commitment under Chapter 5122. of the Revised Code.80535

       (14) That the department of mental health and addiction 80536
services may exchange psychiatric hospitalization records, other 80537
mental health treatment records, and other pertinent information 80538
with the department of rehabilitation and correction and with the 80539
department of youth services to ensure continuity of care for 80540
inmates and offenders who are receiving mental health services in 80541
an institution of the department of rehabilitation and correction 80542
or the department of youth services and may exchange psychiatric 80543
hospitalization records, other mental health treatment records, 80544
and other pertinent information with boards of alcohol, drug 80545
addiction, and mental health services and community mental health 80546
services providers to ensure continuity of care for inmates or 80547
offenders who are receiving mental health services in an 80548
institution and are scheduled for release within six months. The 80549
release of records under this division is limited to records 80550
regarding an inmate's or offender's medication history, physical 80551
health status and history, summary of course of treatment, summary 80552
of treatment needs, and a discharge summary, if any.80553

       (15) That a community mental health services provider that 80554
ceases to operate may transfer to either a community mental health 80555
services provider that assumes its caseload or to the board of 80556
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services of the service 80557
district in which the person resided at the time services were 80558
most recently provided any treatment records that have not been 80559
transferred elsewhere at the person's request.80560

       (B) Before records are disclosed pursuant to divisions 80561
(A)(3), (6), and (10) of this section, the custodian of the 80562
records shall attempt to obtain the person's consent for the 80563
disclosure.80564

       (C) No person shall reveal the content of a medical record of 80565
a person that is confidential pursuant to this section, except as 80566
authorized by law.80567

       Sec. 5119.57.        Sec. 5119.29. No later than January 1, 1998, theThe80568
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services, 80569
in conjunction with boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental 80570
health services and community mental health boards, shall develop 80571
a coordinated system for tracking and monitoring persons found not 80572
guilty by reason of insanity and committed pursuant to section 80573
2945.40 of the Revised Code who have been granted a conditional 80574
release and persons found incompetent to stand trial and committed 80575
pursuant to section 2945.39 of the Revised Code who have been 80576
granted a conditional release. The system shall do all of the 80577
following:80578

       (A) Centralize responsibility for the tracking of those 80579
persons;80580

       (B) Develop uniformity in monitoring those persons;80581

       (C) Develop a mechanism to allow prompt rehospitalization, 80582
reinstitutionalization, or detention when a violation of the 80583
conditional release or decompensation occurs.80584

       Sec. 3793.18.        Sec. 5119.30.  The department of alcohol and drug 80585
addiction servicesmental health and addiction services promptly 80586
shall develop and maintain a program that continually provides the 80587
courts of this state with relevant information pertaining to 80588
alcohol and drug addiction services and programs available both 80589
within their jurisdictions and statewide in order to facilitate 80590
the ability of the courts to utilize treatment and rehabilitation 80591
alternatives in addition to or in lieu of imposing sentences of 80592
imprisonment upon appropriate offenders.80593

       Sec. 5119.23.        Sec. 5119.31.  The department of mental healthmental 80594
health and addiction services may examine into, with or without 80595
expert assistance, the question of the mental and physical 80596
condition of any person committed to or involuntarily confined in 80597
any hospital for the mentally ill, or restrained of his liberty at 80598
any place within this state by reason of alleged mental illness 80599
and may order and compel the discharge of any such person who is 80600
not a mentally ill person subject to hospitalization by court 80601
order as defined in division (B) of section 5122.01 of the Revised 80602
Code and direct what disposition shall be made of himthe person. 80603
The order of discharge shall be signed by the director of mental 80604
healthmental health and addiction services. Upon receipt of such 80605
order by the superintendent or other person in charge of the 80606
building in which the person named in such order is confined, such 80607
person shall forthwith be discharged or otherwise disposed of 80608
according to the terms of said order, and any further or other 80609
detention of such person is unlawful. No such order shall be made 80610
in favor of any person committed and held for trial on a criminal 80611
charge, in confinement by an order of a judge or court made in a 80612
criminal proceeding, or in any case unless notice is given to the 80613
superintendent or other person having charge of the building in 80614
which the alleged mentally ill person is detained, and a 80615
reasonable opportunity is allowed the person in charge to justify 80616
further detention of the person confined.80617

       Sec. 5119.60.        Sec. 5119.32.  The department of mental healthmental 80618
health and addiction services is hereby designated as the state 80619
administrative agency for the alcohol, drug abuse and mental 80620
health servicessubstance abuse prevention treatment block grant 80621
and the community mental health services block grant authorized by 80622
the "Public Health Services Act," 95 Stat. 357, 543, 42 U.S.C. 80623
300x, as amended, and similar alcohol, drug abuse, or mental 80624
health programs that are specified in an appropriations act. The 80625
department shall establish and administer an annual plan to 80626
utilize federal block grant funds. The department shall consult 80627
with the department of alcohol and drug addiction services on the 80628
allocation of funds for alcohol and drug addiction services 80629
pursuant to Chapter 3793. of the Revised Code and shall notify the 80630
controlling board, which shall authorize the transfer of funds 80631
allocated to the department of alcohol and drug addiction 80632
services.80633

       Sec. 5119.20.        Sec. 5119.33.  The department of mental healthmental 80634
health and addiction services shall inspect and license all 80635
hospitals that receive mentally ill persons, except those 80636
hospitals managed by the department. No hospital may receive for 80637
care or treatment, either at public or private expense, any person 80638
who is or appears to be mentally ill, whether or not so 80639
adjudicated, unless the hospital has received a license from the 80640
department authorizing it to receive for care or treatment persons 80641
who are mentally ill or the hospital is managed by the department.80642

       No such license shall be granted to a hospital for the 80643
treatment of mentally ill persons unless the department is 80644
satisfied, after investigation, that the hospital is managed and 80645
operated by qualified persons and has on its staff one or more 80646
qualified physicians responsible for the medical care of the 80647
patients confined there. At least one such physician shall be a 80648
psychiatrist.80649

       The department shall adopt rules under Chapter 119. of the 80650
Revised Code prescribing minimum standards for the operation of 80651
hospitals for the care and treatment of mentally ill persons and 80652
establishing standards and procedures for the issuance, renewal, 80653
or revocation of full, probationary, and interim licenses. No 80654
license shall be granted to any hospital established or used for 80655
the care of mentally ill persons unless such hospital is operating 80656
in accordance with this section and rules adopted pursuant to this 80657
section. A full license shall expire one year after the date of 80658
issuance, a probationary license shall expire at the time 80659
prescribed by rule adopted pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised 80660
Code by the director of mental healthmental health and addiction 80661
services, and an interim license shall expire ninety days after 80662
the date of issuance. A full, probationary, or interim license may 80663
be renewed, except that an interim license may be renewed only 80664
twice. The department may fix reasonable fees for licenses and for 80665
license renewals. Such hospitals are subject to inspection and 80666
visitationon-site review by the department.80667

       Except as otherwise provided in Chapter 5122. of the Revised 80668
Code, neither the director of the department of mental health80669
mental health and addiction services; an employee of the 80670
department; a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 80671
services or agency employee of a community mental health services 80672
provider; nor any other public official shall hospitalize any 80673
mentally ill person for care or treatment in any hospital that is 80674
not licensed in accordance with this section.80675

       Any license issued by the department under this section may 80676
be revoked by the department for any of the following reasons:80677

       (A) The hospital is no longer a suitable place for the care 80678
or treatment of mentally ill persons.80679

       (B) The hospital refuses to be subject to inspection or 80680
visitationon-site review by the department.80681

       (C) The hospital has failed to furnish humane, kind, and 80682
adequate treatment and care.80683

       (D) The hospital fails to comply with the licensure rules of 80684
the department.80685

       The department may inspect, visitconduct an on-site review, 80686
and review the records of any hospital that the department has 80687
reason to believe is operating without a license.80688

       Sec. 5119.201.        Sec. 5119.331.  If the department of mental health80689
mental health and addiction services determines that a hospital 80690
not licensed by the department is receiving for care or treatment 80691
any person who is or appears to be mentally ill, the department 80692
may request in writing that the attorney general petition the 80693
court of common pleas in the county where the hospital is located 80694
to enjoin the hospital from continued operation in violation of 80695
section 5119.205119.33 of the Revised Code.80696

       Sec. 5119.202.        Sec. 5119.332.  No third-party payer shall directly 80697
or indirectly reimburse, nor shall any person be obligated to pay 80698
any hospital for psychiatric services for which a license is 80699
required under section 5119.205119.33 of the Revised Code unless 80700
the hospital is licensed by the department of mental healthmental 80701
health and addiction services.80702

       As used in this section, "third-party payer" means a health 80703
insuring corporation licensed under Chapter 1751. of the Revised 80704
Code, an insurance company that issues sickness and accident 80705
insurance in conformity with Chapter 3923. of the Revised Code, a 80706
state-financed health insurance program under Chapter 3701., 80707
4123., or 5101. of the Revised Code, or any self-insurance plan.80708

       Sec. 5119.21.        Sec. 5119.333.  No person shall keep or maintain a 80709
hospital for the care or treatment of mentally ill persons unless 80710
it is licensed by the department of mental healthmental health 80711
and addiction services, as provided by section 5119.205119.33 of 80712
the Revised Code.80713

       Sec. 5119.22.        Sec. 5119.34.  (A) As used in this section and 80714
section 5119.221sections 5119.341 and 5119.342 of the Revised 80715
Code:80716

       (1) "Accommodations" means housing, daily meal preparation, 80717
laundry, housekeeping, arranging for transportation, social and 80718
recreational activities, maintenance, security, and other services 80719
that do not constitute personal care services or skilled nursing 80720
care.80721

       (2) "ADAMHS board" means a board of alcohol, drug addiction, 80722
and mental health services.80723

       (3) "Adult" means a person who is eighteen years of age or 80724
older, other than a person described in division (A)(4) of this 80725
section who is between eighteen and twenty-one years of age.80726

       (4) "Child" means a person who is under eighteen years of age 80727
or a person with a mental disability who is under twenty-one years 80728
of age.80729

       (5) "Community mental health agencyservices provider" means 80730
a community mental health agencyservices provider as defined in 80731
division (H) of section 5122.015119.01 of the Revised Code.80732

       (6) "Community mental health services" means any of the80733
mental health services listed incertified by the department 80734
pursuant to section 340.095119.36 of the Revised Code.80735

       (7) "Operator" means the person or persons, firm, 80736
partnership, agency, governing body, association, corporation, or 80737
other entity that is responsible for the administration and 80738
management of a residential facility and that is the applicant for 80739
a residential facility license.80740

        (8) "Personal care services" means services including, but 80741
not limited to, the following:80742

       (a) Assisting residents with activities of daily living;80743

       (b) Assisting residents with self-administration of 80744
medication in accordance with rules adopted under this section;80745

       (c) Preparing special diets, other than complex therapeutic 80746
diets, for residents pursuant to the instructions of a physician 80747
or a licensed dietitian, in accordance with rules adopted under 80748
this section.80749

       "Personal care services" does not include "skilled nursing 80750
care" as defined in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code. A 80751
facility need not provide more than one of the services listed in 80752
division (A)(8) of this section to be considered to be providing 80753
personal care services.80754

       (9) "Residential facility" means a publicly or privately 80755
operated home or facility that provides one of the following:80756

        (a) Accommodations, supervision, personal care services, and 80757
community mental health services for one or more of the following80758
unrelated personsadults with mental illness or severe mental 80759
disabilities or to one or more unrelated children and adolescents 80760
with a serious emotional disturbance or who are in need of mental 80761
health services who are referred by or are receiving community 80762
mental health services from a community mental health agency,80763
services provider, hospital, or practitioner:80764

       (i) Adults with mental illness;80765

       (ii) Persons of any age with severe mental disabilities;80766

       (iii) Children with serious emotional disturbances or in need 80767
of mental health services.80768

        (b) Accommodations, supervision, and personal care services 80769
for only one or two unrelated adults; accommodations, supervision, 80770
and personal care services for three to sixteen unrelated adults; 80771
or accommodations, supervision, and personal care services for one 80772
or two of the following unrelated persons:80773

       (i) Persons of any age with mental illness who are referred 80774
by or are receiving community mental health services from a 80775
community mental health agency, hospital, or practitioner;80776

        (ii) Persons of any age with severe mental disabilities who 80777
are referred by or are receiving community mental health services 80778
from a community mental health agency, hospital, or practitioner80779
to any of the following:80780

       (i) One or two unrelated persons with mental illness or 80781
persons with severe mental disabilities who are referred by or are 80782
receiving mental health services from a community mental health 80783
services provider, hospital, or practitioner;80784

       (ii) One or two unrelated adults who are receiving 80785
residential state supplement payments; 80786

       (iii) Three to sixteen unrelated adults.80787

       (c) Room and board for five or more of the following80788
unrelated persons:80789

       (i) Adultsadults with mental illness or severe mental 80790
disability who are referred by or are receiving community mental 80791
health services from a community mental health agency,services 80792
provider, hospital, or practitioner;80793

       (ii) Adults with severe mental disabilities who are referred 80794
by or are receiving community mental health services from a 80795
community mental health agency, hospital, or practitioner.80796

        (10) "Residential facility" does not include any of the 80797
following: 80798

       (a) A hospital subject to licensure under section 5119.2080799
5119.33 of the Revised Code;80800

       (b) A residential facility licensed under section 5123.19 of 80801
the Revised Code or otherwise regulated by the department of 80802
developmental disabilities;80803

       (c) An institution or association subject to certification 80804
under section 5103.03 of the Revised Code;80805

       (d) A facility operated by a hospice care program licensed 80806
under section 3712.04 of the Revised Code that is used exclusively 80807
for care of hospice patients;80808

       (e) A facility operated by a pediatric respite care program 80809
licensed under section 3712.041 of the Revised Code that is used 80810
exclusively for care of pediatric respite care patients;80811

       (f) A nursing home, residential care facility, or home for 80812
the aging as defined in section 3721.02 of the Revised Code;80813

       (g) An alcohol(f) Alcohol or drug addiction program as 80814
defined inservices certified pursuant to section 3793.015119.3680815
of the Revised Code;80816

       (h)(g) A facility licensed to provide methadone treatment 80817
under section 3793.115119.39 of the Revised Code;80818

       (i)(h) Any facility that receives funding for operating costs 80819
from the department of development services agency under any 80820
program established to provide emergency shelter housing or 80821
transitional housing for the homeless;80822

       (j)(i) A terminal care facility for the homeless that has 80823
entered into an agreement with a hospice care program under 80824
section 3712.07 of the Revised Code;80825

       (k)(j) A facility approved by the veterans administration 80826
under section 104(a) of the "Veterans Health Care Amendments of 80827
1983," 97 Stat. 993, 38 U.S.C. 630, as amended, and used 80828
exclusively for the placement and care of veterans.80829

       (11) "Room and board" means the provision of sleeping and 80830
living space, meals or meal preparation, laundry services, 80831
housekeeping services, or any combination thereof.80832

       (12) "Residential state supplement" means the program 80833
administered under section 5119.41 of the Revised Code and related 80834
provisions of the Administrative Code under which the state 80835
supplements the supplemental security income payments received by 80836
aged, blind, or disabled adults under Title XVI of the Social 80837
Security Act. Residential state supplement payments are used for 80838
the provision of accommodations, supervision, and personal care 80839
services to supplemental security income recipients the department 80840
of mental health and addition services determines are at risk of 80841
needing institutional care.80842

       (13) "Supervision" means any of the following:80843

       (a) Observing a resident to ensure the resident's health, 80844
safety, and welfare while the resident engages in activities of 80845
daily living or other activities;80846

       (b) Reminding a resident to perform or complete an activity, 80847
such as reminding a resident to engage in personal hygiene or 80848
other self-care activities; 80849

       (c) Assisting a resident in making or keeping an appointment. 80850

       (13)(14) "Unrelated" means that a resident is not related to 80851
the owner or operator of a residential facility or to the owner's 80852
or operator's spouse as a parent, grandparent, child, stepchild, 80853
grandchild, brother, sister, niece, nephew, aunt, or uncle, or as 80854
the child of an aunt or uncle.80855

       (B) Nothing in division (A)(9) of this section shall be 80856
construed to permit personal care services to be imposed on a 80857
resident who is capable of performing the activity in question 80858
without assistance.80859

       (C) Except in the case of a residential facility described in 80860
division (A)(9)(a) of this section, members of the staff of a 80861
residential facility shall not administer medication to the 80862
facility's residents, but may do any of the following:80863

       (1) Remind a resident when to take medication and watch to 80864
ensure that the resident follows the directions on the container;80865

       (2) Assist a resident in the self-administration of 80866
medication by taking the medication from the locked area where it 80867
is stored, in accordance with rules adopted pursuant to this 80868
section, and handing it to the resident. If the resident is 80869
physically unable to open the container, a staff member may open 80870
the container for the resident.80871

       (3) Assist a physically impaired but mentally alert resident, 80872
such as a resident with arthritis, cerebral palsy, or Parkinson's 80873
disease, in removing oral or topical medication from containers 80874
and in consuming or applying the medication, upon request by or 80875
with the consent of the resident. If a resident is physically 80876
unable to place a dose of medicine to the resident's mouth without 80877
spilling it, a staff member may place the dose in a container and 80878
place the container to the mouth of the resident.80879

        (D)(1) Except as provided in division (D)(2) of this section, 80880
a person operating or seeking to operate a residential facility 80881
shall apply for licensure of the facility to the department of 80882
mental healthmental health and addiction services. The 80883
application shall be submitted by the operator. When applying for 80884
the license, the applicant shall pay to the department the 80885
application fee specified in rules adopted under division (L)(K)80886
of this section. The fee is nonrefundable.80887

       The department shall send a copy of an application to the 80888
ADAMHS board serving the county in which the person operates or 80889
seeks to operate the facility. The ADAMHS board shall review the 80890
application and provide to the department any information about 80891
the applicant or the facility that the board would like the 80892
department to consider in reviewing the application.80893

       (2) A person may not apply for a license to operate a 80894
residential facility if the person is or has been the owner, 80895
operator, or manager of a residential facility for which a license 80896
to operate was revoked or for which renewal of a license was 80897
refused for any reason other than nonpayment of the license 80898
renewal fee, unless both of the following conditions are met:80899

       (a) A period of not less than two years has elapsed since the 80900
date the director of mental healthmental health and addiction 80901
services issued the order revoking or refusing to renew the 80902
facility's license.80903

       (b) The director's revocation or refusal to renew the license 80904
was not based on an act or omission at the facility that violated 80905
a resident's right to be free from abuse, neglect, or 80906
exploitation.80907

       (E)(1) Any person may operate a residential facility 80908
providing accommodations and personal care services for one to 80909
five unrelated persons and licensed as a residential facility that 80910
meets the criteria specified in division (A)(9)(b) of this section 80911
as a permitted use in any residential district or zone, including 80912
any single-family residential district or zone of any political 80913
subdivision. Such facilities may be required to comply with area, 80914
height, yard, and architectural compatibility requirements that 80915
are uniformly imposed upon all single-family residences within the 80916
district or zone.80917

       (2) Any person may operate a residential facility providing 80918
accommodations and personal care services for six to sixteen 80919
persons and licensed as a residential facility that meets the 80920
criteria specified in division (A)(9)(b) of this section as a 80921
permitted use in any multiple-family residential district or zone 80922
of any political subdivision, except that a political subdivision 80923
that has enacted a zoning ordinance or resolution establishing 80924
planned-unit development districts as defined in section 519.021 80925
of the Revised Code may exclude such facilities from such 80926
districts, and a political subdivision that has enacted a zoning 80927
ordinance or resolution may regulate such facilities in 80928
multiple-family residential districts or zones as a conditionally 80929
permitted use or special exception, in either case, under 80930
reasonable and specific standards and conditions set out in the 80931
zoning ordinance or resolution to:80932

       (a) Require the architectural design and site layout of the 80933
home and the location, nature, and height of any walls, screens, 80934
and fences to be compatible with adjoining land uses and the 80935
residential character of the neighborhood;80936

       (b) Require compliance with yard, parking, and sign 80937
regulation.80938

       (3) Divisions (E)(1) and (2) of this section do not affect 80939
any right of a political subdivision to permit a person to operate 80940
a residential facility licensed under this section in a 80941
single-family residential district or zone under conditions 80942
established by the political subdivision.80943

       (4)(a) Notwithstanding divisions (E)(1) and (2) of this 80944
section and except as provided in division (E)(4)(b) of this 80945
section, a political subdivision that has enacted a zoning 80946
ordinance or resolution may limit the excessive concentration of 80947
licensed residential facilities that meet the criteria specified 80948
in division (A)(9)(b) of this section.80949

       (b) Division (E)(4)(a) of this section does not authorize a 80950
political subdivision to prevent or limit the continued existence 80951
and operation of residential facilities existing and operating on 80952
September 10, 2012, and that meet the criteria specified in 80953
division (A)(9)(b) of this section. A political subdivision may 80954
consider the existence of such facilities for the purpose of 80955
limiting the excessive concentration of such facilities that meet 80956
the criteria specified in division (A)(9)(b) of this section that 80957
are not existing and operating on September 10, 2012.80958

        (F)(1) The department of mental healthmental health and 80959
addiction services shall inspect and license the operation of 80960
residential facilities. The department shall consider the past 80961
record of the facility and the applicant or licensee in arriving 80962
at its licensure decision. 80963

       The department may issue full, probationary, and interim 80964
licenses. A full license shall expire twoup to three years after 80965
the date of issuance, a probationary license shall expire in a 80966
shorter period of time as specified in rules adopted by the 80967
director of mental health under division (L)(K) of this section, 80968
and an interim license shall expire ninety days after the date of 80969
issuance. A license may be renewed in accordance with rules 80970
adopted by the director under division (L)(K) of this section. The 80971
renewal application shall be submitted by the operator. When 80972
applying for renewal of a license, the applicant shall pay to the 80973
department the renewal fee specified in rules adopted under 80974
division (L)(K) of this section. The fee is nonrefundable.80975

       (2) The department may issue an order suspending the 80976
admission of residents to the facility or refuse to issue or renew 80977
and may revoke a license if it finds the facility is not in 80978
compliance with rules adopted by the director pursuant to division 80979
(L)(K) of this section or if any facility operated by the 80980
applicant or licensee has been cited for repeated violations of 80981
statutes or rules during the period of previous licenses. 80982
Proceedings initiated to deny applications for full or 80983
probationary licenses or to revoke such licenses are governed by 80984
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.80985

       (G)(F) The department may issue an interim license to operate 80986
a residential facility if both of the following conditions are 80987
met:80988

       (1) The department determines that the closing of or the need 80989
to remove residents from another residential facility has created 80990
an emergency situation requiring immediate removal of residents 80991
and an insufficient number of licensed beds are available.80992

       (2) The residential facility applying for an interim license 80993
meets standards established for interim licenses in rules adopted 80994
by the director under division (L)(K) of this section.80995

       An interim license shall be valid for ninety days and may be 80996
renewed by the director no more than twice. Proceedings initiated 80997
to deny applications for or to revoke interim licenses under this 80998
division are not subject to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.80999

       (H)(G)(1) The department of mental healthmental health and 81000
addiction services may conduct an inspection of a residential 81001
facility as follows:81002

       (a) Prior to issuance of a license for the facility;81003

       (b) Prior to renewal of the license;81004

       (c) To determine whether the facility has completed a plan of 81005
correction required pursuant to division (H)(G)(2) of this section 81006
and corrected deficiencies to the satisfaction of the department 81007
and in compliance with this section and rules adopted pursuant to 81008
it;81009

       (d) Upon complaint by any individual or agency;81010

       (e) At any time the director considers an inspection to be 81011
necessary in order to determine whether the facility is in 81012
compliance with this section and rules adopted pursuant to this 81013
section.81014

       (2) In conducting inspections the department may conduct an 81015
on-site examination and evaluation of the residential facility and 81016
its personnel, activities, and services. The department shall have 81017
access to examine and copy all records, accounts, and any other 81018
documents relating to the operation of the residential facility, 81019
including records pertaining to residents, and shall have access 81020
to the facility in order to conduct interviews with the operator, 81021
staff, and residents. Following each inspection and review, the 81022
department shall complete a report listing any deficiencies, and 81023
including, when appropriate, a time table within which the 81024
operator shall correct the deficiencies. The department may 81025
require the operator to submit a plan of correction describing how 81026
the deficiencies will be corrected.81027

       (I)(H) No person shall do any of the following:81028

       (1) Operate a residential facility unless the facility holds 81029
a valid license;81030

       (2) Violate any of the conditions of licensure after having 81031
been granted a license;81032

       (3) Interfere with a state or local official's inspection or 81033
investigation of a residential facility;81034

       (4) Violate any of the provisions of this section or any 81035
rules adopted pursuant to this section.81036

       (J)(I) The following may enter a residential facility at any 81037
time:81038

       (1) Employees designated by the director of mental health81039
mental health and addiction services;81040

       (2) Employees of an ADAMHS board under either of the 81041
following circumstances:81042

       (a) When a resident of the facility is receiving services 81043
from a community mental health agencyservices provider under 81044
contract with that ADAMHS board or another ADAMHS board;81045

       (b) When authorized by section 340.05 of the Revised Code.81046

       (3) Employees of a community mental health agencyservices 81047
provider under either of the following circumstances:81048

       (a) When the agencyservices provider has a clientperson 81049
receiving services residing in the facility;81050

       (b) When the agencyservices provider is acting as an agent 81051
of an ADAMHS board other than the board with which it is under 81052
contract.81053

       (4) Representatives of the state long-term care ombudsperson81054
ombudsman program when the facility provides accommodations, 81055
supervision, and personal care services for three to sixteen 81056
unrelated adults or to one or two unrelated adults who are 81057
recipients under the residential state supplement program.81058

       The persons specified in division (J)(I) of this section 81059
shall be afforded access to examine and copy all records, 81060
accounts, and any other documents relating to the operation of the 81061
residential facility, including records pertaining to residents. 81062

       (K)(J) Employees of the department of mental healthmental 81063
health and addiction services may enter, for the purpose of 81064
investigation, any institution, residence, facility, or other 81065
structure which has been reported to the department as, or that 81066
the department has reasonable cause to believe is, operating as a 81067
residential facility without a valid license.81068

        (L)(K) The director shall adopt and may amend and rescind 81069
rules pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code governing the 81070
licensing and operation of residential facilities. The rules shall 81071
establish all of the following:81072

       (1) Minimum standards for the health, safety, adequacy, and 81073
cultural competency of treatment of and services for persons in 81074
residential facilities; 81075

       (2) Procedures for the issuance, renewal, or revocation of 81076
the licenses of residential facilities; 81077

       (3) Procedures for conducting criminal records checks for 81078
prospective or current operators, staffemployees, and other 81079
individualsvolunteers who, if employed by a residential 81080
facility, wouldmay have unsuperviseddirect access to facility 81081
residents;81082

       (4) The fee to be paid when applying for a new residential 81083
facility license or renewing the license;81084

       (5) Procedures for the operator of a residential facility to 81085
follow when notifying the ADAMHS board serving the county in which 81086
the facility is located when the facility is serving residents 81087
with mental illness or severe mental disability, including the 81088
circumstances under which the operator is required to make such a 81089
notification;81090

       (6) Procedures for the issuance and termination of orders of 81091
suspension of admission of residents to a residential facility; 81092

       (7) Measures to be taken by residential facilities relative 81093
to residents' medication;81094

       (8) Requirements relating to preparation of special diets;81095

       (9) The maximum number of residents who may be served in a 81096
residential facility; 81097

       (10) The rights of residents of residential facilities and 81098
procedures to protect such rights; 81099

       (11) Procedures for obtaining an affiliation agreement 81100
approved by the board between a residential facility and a 81101
community mental health agencyservices provider;81102

       (12) Standards and procedures under which the director may 81103
waive the requirements of any of the rules adopted.81104

       (M)(L)(1) The department may withhold the source of any 81105
complaint reported as a violation of this section when the 81106
department determines that disclosure could be detrimental to the 81107
department's purposes or could jeopardize the investigation. The 81108
department may disclose the source of any complaint if the 81109
complainant agrees in writing to such disclosure and shall 81110
disclose the source upon order by a court of competent 81111
jurisdiction.81112

       (2) Any person who makes a complaint under division (M)(L)(1) 81113
of this section, or any person who participates in an 81114
administrative or judicial proceeding resulting from such a 81115
complaint, is immune from civil liability and is not subject to 81116
criminal prosecution, other than for perjury, unless the person 81117
has acted in bad faith or with malicious purpose.81118

       (N)(M)(1) The director of mental healthmental health and 81119
addiction services may petition the court of common pleas of the 81120
county in which a residential facility is located for an order 81121
enjoining any person from operating a residential facility without 81122
a license or from operating a licensed facility when, in the 81123
director's judgment, there is a present danger to the health or 81124
safety of any of the occupants of the facility. The court shall 81125
have jurisdiction to grant such injunctive relief upon a showing 81126
that the respondent named in the petition is operating a facility 81127
without a license or there is a present danger to the health or 81128
safety of any residents of the facility.81129

       (2) When the court grants injunctive relief in the case of a 81130
facility operating without a license, the court shall issue, at a 81131
minimum, an order enjoining the facility from admitting new 81132
residents to the facility and an order requiring the facility to 81133
assist with the safe and orderly relocation of the facility's 81134
residents. 81135

       (3) If injunctive relief is granted against a facility for 81136
operating without a license and the facility continues to operate 81137
without a license, the director shall refer the case to the 81138
attorney general for further action.81139

       (O)(N) The director may fine a person for violating division 81140
(I)(H) of this section. The fine shall be five hundred dollars for 81141
a first offense; for each subsequent offense, the fine shall be 81142
one thousand dollars. The director's actions in imposing a fine 81143
shall be taken in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised 81144
Code.81145

       Sec. 5119.341. (A) Any person may operate a residential 81146
facility providing accommodations and personal care services for 81147
one to five unrelated persons and licensed as a residential 81148
facility that meets the criteria specified in division (A)(9)(b) 81149
of section 5119.34 of the Revised Code as a permitted use in any 81150
residential district or zone, including any single-family 81151
residential district or zone of any political subdivision. Such 81152
facilities may be required to comply with area, height, yard, and 81153
architectural compatibility requirements that are uniformly 81154
imposed upon all single-family residences within the district or 81155
zone.81156

       (B) Any person may operate a residential facility providing 81157
accommodations and personal care services for six to sixteen 81158
persons and licensed as a residential facility that meets the 81159
criteria specified in division (A)(9)(b) of section 5119.34 of the 81160
Revised Code as a permitted use in any multiple-family residential 81161
district or zone of any political subdivision, except that a 81162
political subdivision that has enacted a zoning ordinance or 81163
resolution establishing planned-unit developments as defined in 81164
section 519.021 of the Revised Code may exclude such facilities 81165
from such districts, and a political subdivision that has enacted 81166
a zoning ordinance or resolution may regulate such facilities in 81167
multiple-family residential districts or zones as a conditionally 81168
permitted use or special exception, in either case, under 81169
reasonable and specific standards and conditions set out in the 81170
zoning ordinance or resolution to: 81171

       (1) Require the architectural design and site layout of the 81172
home and the location, nature, and height of any walls, screens, 81173
and fences to be compatible with adjoining land uses and the 81174
residential character of the neighborhood;81175

       (2) Require compliance with yard, parking, and sign 81176
regulation.81177

       (C) Divisions (A) and (B) of this section do not affect any 81178
right of a political subdivision to permit a person to operate a 81179
residential facility licensed under section 5119.34 of the Revised 81180
Code in a single-family residential district or zone under 81181
conditions established by the political subdivision.81182

       (D)(1) Notwithstanding divisions (A) and (B) of this section 81183
and except as provided in division (D)(2) of this section, a 81184
political subdivision that has enacted a zoning ordinance or 81185
resolution may limit the excessive concentration of licensed 81186
residential facilities that meet the criteria specified in 81187
division (A)(9)(b) of section 5119.34 of the Revised Code.81188

       (2) Division (D)(1) of this section does not authorize a 81189
political subdivision to prevent or limit the continued existence 81190
and operation of residential facilities existing and operating on 81191
September 10, 2012, and that meet the criteria specified in 81192
division (A)(9)(b) of section 5119.34 of the Revised Code. A 81193
political subdivision may consider the existence of such 81194
facilities for the purpose of limiting the excessive concentration 81195
of such facilities that meet the criteria specified in division 81196
(A)(9)(b) of section 5119.34 of the Revised Code that are not 81197
existing and operating on September 10, 2012.81198

       Sec. 5119.221.        Sec. 5119.342.  (A) Upon petition by the director of 81199
mental healthmental health and addiction services, the court of 81200
common pleas or the probate court may appoint a receiver to take 81201
possession of and operate a residential facility licensed pursuant 81202
to section 5119.225119.34 of the Revised Code, when conditions 81203
existing at the residential facility present a substantial risk of 81204
physical or mental harm to residents and no other remedies at law 81205
are adequate to protect the health, safety, and welfare of the 81206
residents.81207

       Petitions filed pursuant to this section shall include:81208

       (1) A description of the specific conditions existing at the 81209
residential facility which present a substantial risk of physical 81210
or mental harm to residents;81211

       (2) A statement of the absence of other adequate remedies at 81212
law;81213

       (3) The number of individuals residing at the facility;81214

       (4) A statement that the facts have been brought to the 81215
attention of the owner or licensee and that conditions have not 81216
been remedied within a reasonable period of time or that the 81217
conditions, though remedied periodically, habitually exist at the 81218
residential facility as a pattern or practice; and81219

       (5) The name and address of the person holding the license 81220
for the residential facility.81221

       (B) A court in which a petition is filed pursuant to this 81222
section shall notify the person holding the license for the 81223
facility of the filing. The department shall send notice of the 81224
filing to the following, as appropriate: the Ohio protection and 81225
advocacy system as defined in section 5123.60 of the Revised Code; 81226
facility owner; facility operator; board of alcohol, drug 81227
addiction, and mental health services; board of health; department 81228
of developmental disabilities; department of job and family 81229
services; facility residents; and residents' families and 81230
guardians. The court shall provide a hearing on the petition 81231
within five court days of the time it was filed, except that the 81232
court may appoint a receiver prior to that time if it determines 81233
that the circumstances necessitate such action.81234

       Following a hearing on the petition, and upon a determination 81235
that the appointment of a receiver is warranted, the court shall 81236
appoint a receiver and notify the department of mental health81237
mental health and addiction services and appropriate persons of 81238
this action.81239

       In setting forth the powers of the receiver, the court may 81240
generally authorize the receiver to do all that is prudent and 81241
necessary to safely and efficiently operate the residential 81242
facility within the requirements of state and federal law, but 81243
shall require the receiver to obtain court approval prior to 81244
making any single expenditure of more than five thousand dollars 81245
to correct deficiencies in the structure or furnishings of a 81246
facility. The court shall closely review the conduct of the 81247
receiver and shall require regular and detailed reports.81248

       (C) A receivership established pursuant to this section shall 81249
be terminated, following notification of the appropriate parties 81250
and a hearing, if the court determines either of the following:81251

       (1) The residential facility has been closed and the former 81252
residents have been relocated to an appropriate facility;81253

       (2) Circumstances no longer exist at the residential facility 81254
which present a substantial risk of physical or mental harm to 81255
residents, and there is no deficiency in the residential facility 81256
that is likely to create a future risk of harm.81257

       Notwithstanding division (C)(2) of this section, the court 81258
shall not terminate a receivership for a residential facility that 81259
has previously operated under another receivership unless the 81260
responsibility for the operation of the facility is transferred to 81261
an operator approved by the court and the department of mental 81262
healthmental health and addiction services.81263

       (D) Except for the department of mental healthmental health 81264
and addiction services or appropriate board of alcohol, drug 81265
addiction, and mental health services, no party or person 81266
interested in an action shall be appointed a receiver pursuant to 81267
this section.81268

       To assist the court in identifying persons qualified to be 81269
named as receivers, the director of the department of mental 81270
healthmental health and addiction services shall maintain a list 81271
of the names of such persons. The department of mental health81272
mental health and addiction services, the department of job and 81273
family services, and the department of health shall provide 81274
technical assistance to any receiver appointed pursuant to this 81275
section.81276

       Before entering upon the duties of receiver, the receiver 81277
must be sworn to perform the duties faithfully, and, with surety 81278
approved by the court, judge, or clerk, execute a bond to such 81279
person, and in such sum as the court or judge directs, to the 81280
effect that such receiver will faithfully discharge the duties of 81281
receiver in the action, and obey the orders of the court therein.81282

       (1) Under the control of the appointing court, a receiver may 81283
do the following:81284

       (a) Bring and defend actions in the appointee's name as 81285
receiver;81286

       (b) Take and keep possession of property.81287

       (2) The court shall authorize the receiver to do the 81288
following:81289

       (a) Collect payment for all goods and services provided to 81290
the residents or others during the period of the receivership at 81291
the same rate as was charged by the licensee at the time the 81292
petition for receivership was filed, unless a different rate is 81293
set by the court;81294

       (b) Honor all leases, mortgages, and secured transactions 81295
governing all buildings, goods, and fixtures of which the receiver 81296
has taken possession, but, in the case of a rental agreement only 81297
to the extent of payments that are for the use of the property 81298
during the period of the receivership, or, in the case of a 81299
purchase agreement, only to the extent that payments come due 81300
during the period of the receivership;81301

       (c) If transfer of residents is necessary, provide for the 81302
orderly transfer of residents by:81303

       (i) Cooperating with all appropriate state and local agencies 81304
in carrying out the transfer of residents to alternative community 81305
placements;81306

       (ii) Providing for the transportation of residents' 81307
belongings and records;81308

       (iii) Helping to locate alternative placements and develop 81309
plans for transfer;81310

       (iv) Encouraging residents or guardians to participate in 81311
transfer planning except when an emergency exists and immediate 81312
transfer is necessary.81313

       (d) Make periodic reports on the status of the residential 81314
facility to the court; the appropriate state agencies; and the 81315
board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services. Each 81316
report shall be made available to residents, their guardians, and 81317
families.81318

       (e) Compromise demands or claims; and81319

       (f) Generally do such acts respecting the residential 81320
facility as the court authorizes.81321

       Notwithstanding any other provision of law, contracts which 81322
are necessary to carry out the powers and duties of the receiver 81323
need not be competitively bid.81324

       Sec. 5119.611.        Sec. 5119.36. (A) A community mental health agency81325
services provider applicant or community addiction services 81326
provider applicant that seeks certification of its community 81327
mental health services or community addiction services shall 81328
submit an application to the director of mental healthmental 81329
health and addiction services. On receipt of the application, the 81330
director may visitconduct an on-site review and shall evaluate 81331
the agencyprovider to determine whether its services satisfy the 81332
standards established by rules adopted under division (C)(E) of 81333
this section. The director shall make the evaluation, and, if the 81334
director visitsconducts an on-site review of the agency81335
provider, shallmay make the visitreview, in cooperation with 81336
the board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services 81337
with which the agencyprovider seeks to contract under division 81338
(A)(8)(a) of section 340.03 of the Revised Code.81339

       (B) Subject to section 5119.6125119.37 of the Revised Code, 81340
the director shall determine whether the services of an 81341
applicant's community mental health agencyapplicant satisfy the 81342
standards for certification of the services. If the director 81343
determines that a community mental health agency's services 81344
provider's or a community addiction services provider's services81345
satisfy the standards for certification and the agencyprovider81346
has paid the fee required under division (D) of this section, the 81347
director shall certify the services. No community mental health 81348
services provider or community addiction services provider shall 81349
be eligible to receive state or federal funds, or funds 81350
administered by an alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 81351
services board unless its services have been certified by the 81352
department.81353

       (C) If the director determines that a community mental health 81354
agency's services provider's or a community addiction services 81355
provider's services do not satisfy the standards for 81356
certification, the director shall identify the areas of 81357
noncompliance, specify what action is necessary to satisfy the 81358
standards, and may offer technical assistance to the provider and81359
to the board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 81360
services so that the board may assist the agencyprovider in 81361
satisfying the standards. The director shall give the agency81362
provider a reasonable time within which to demonstrate that its 81363
services satisfy the standards or to bring the services into 81364
compliance with the standards. If the director concludes that the 81365
services continue to fail to satisfy the standards, the director 81366
may request that the board reallocate theany funds for the 81367
community mental health or addiction services the agencyprovider81368
was to provide to another community mental health agencyor 81369
addiction services provider whose community mental health or 81370
community addiction services satisfy the standards. If the board 81371
does not reallocate thosesuch funds in a reasonable period of 81372
time, the director may withhold state and federal funds for the 81373
community mental health services and allocate those funds directly 81374
to a community mental health agencyor community addiction 81375
services provider whose community mental health services satisfy 81376
the standards.81377

       (D) Each community mental health agencyservices provider or 81378
community addiction services provider seeking certification of its 81379
community mental health or addiction services under this section 81380
shall pay a fee for the certification required by this section, 81381
unless the provider is exempt under rules adopted under division 81382
(E) of this section. Fees shall be paid into the state treasury to 81383
the credit of the sale of goods and services fund created pursuant 81384
to section 5119.1615119.45 of the Revised Code.81385

       (E) The director shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 81386
119. of the Revised Code to implement this section. The rules 81387
shall do all of the following:81388

       (1) Establish certification standards for community mental 81389
health services, including assertive community treatment and 81390
intensive home-based mental health services,and addiction 81391
services that are consistent with nationally recognized applicable 81392
standards and facilitate participation in federal assistance 81393
programs. The rules shall include as certification standards only 81394
requirements that improve the quality of services or the health 81395
and safety of clients ofpersons receiving community mental health 81396
and addiction services. The standards shall address at a minimum 81397
all of the following:81398

       (a) Reporting major unusual incidents to the director;81399

       (b) Procedures for applicants for and clients ofpersons 81400
receiving community mental health and addiction services to file 81401
grievances and complaints;81402

       (c) Seclusion;81403

       (d) Restraint;81404

       (e) Development of written policies addressing the rights of 81405
clientspersons receiving services, including all of the 81406
following:81407

       (i) The right to a copy of the written policies addressing 81408
clientthe rights of persons receiving services;81409

       (ii) The right at all times to be treated with consideration 81410
and respect for the client'sperson's privacy and dignity;81411

       (iii) The right to have access to the client'sperson's own 81412
psychiatric, medical, or other treatment records unless access is 81413
specifically restricted in the client'sperson's treatment plan 81414
for clear treatment reasons;81415

       (iv) The right to have a client rights officer provided by 81416
the agencyservices provider or board of alcohol, drug addiction, 81417
and mental health services advise the clientperson of the 81418
client'sperson's rights, including the client'sperson's rights 81419
under Chapter 5122. of the Revised Code if the clientperson is 81420
committed to the agencyprovider or board.81421

       (2) Establish standards for qualifications of mental health 81422
professionals as defined in section 340.02 of the Revised Code and 81423
personnel who provide the community mental health services;81424

       (3) Establish the process for certification of community 81425
mental health and addiction services;81426

       (4)(3) Set the amount of certification review fees based on a 81427
portion of the cost of performing the review;81428

       (5)(4) Specify the type of notice and hearing to be provided 81429
prior to a decision on whether to reallocate funds.81430

       Sec. 5119.613.        Sec. 5119.361. The director of mental healthmental 81431
health and addiction services shall require that each board of 81432
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services ensure that 81433
each community mental health agencyservices provider and 81434
community addiction services provider with which it contracts 81435
under division (A)(8)(a) of section 340.03 of the Revised Code to 81436
provide community mental health or addiction services establish 81437
grievance procedures consistent with rules adopted under section 81438
5119.6115119.36 of the Revised Code that are available to all 81439
applicants for and clients of thepersons seeking or receiving 81440
services from a community mental health or addiction services 81441
provider.81442

       Sec. 5119.612.        Sec. 5119.37.  (A) In lieu of a determination by the 81443
director of mental healthmental health and addiction services of 81444
whether the services of a community mental health agencyservices 81445
provider or a community addiction services provider satisfy the 81446
standards for certification under section 5119.6115119.36 of the 81447
Revised Code, the director shall accept appropriate accreditation 81448
of an applicant's mental health services, alcohol and drug 81449
addiction services, integrated mental health and alcohol and other 81450
drug addiction services, or integrated mental health and physical 81451
health services, or integrated alcohol and other drug addiction 81452
and physical health services being provided in this state from any 81453
of the following national accrediting organizations as evidence 81454
that the applicant satisfies the standards for certification:81455

       (1) The joint commission;81456

       (2) The commission on accreditation of rehabilitation 81457
facilities;81458

       (3) The council on accreditation.81459

       (B) If the director determines that an applicant's 81460
accreditation is current, is appropriate for the services for 81461
which the applicant is seeking certification, and the applicant 81462
meets any other requirements established under this section or in 81463
rules adopted under this section, the director shall certify the 81464
applicant's services that are accredited. Except as provided in 81465
division (C)(2) of this section, the director shall issue the 81466
certification without further evaluation of the services.81467

       (C) For purposes of this section, all of the following apply:81468

       (1) The director may review the accrediting organizations 81469
listed in division (A) of this section to evaluate whether the 81470
accreditation standards and processes used by the organizations 81471
are consistent with service delivery models the director considers 81472
appropriate for mental health services, alcohol or other drug 81473
addiction services, physical health services, or both. The 81474
director may communicate to an accrediting organization any 81475
identified concerns, trends, needs, and recommendations.81476

       (2) The director may visitconduct an on-site review or 81477
otherwise evaluate a community mental health agencyservices 81478
provider or a community addiction services provider at any time 81479
based on cause, including complaints made by or on behalf of 81480
consumerspersons receiving services and confirmed or alleged 81481
deficiencies brought to the attention of the director.81482

       (3) The director shall require a community mental health 81483
agencyservices provider and a community addiction services 81484
provider to notify the director not later than ten days after any 81485
change in the agency'sprovider's accreditation status. The agency81486
provider may notify the director by providing a copy of the 81487
relevant document the agencyprovider received from the 81488
accrediting organization.81489

       (4) The director shall require a community mental health 81490
agencyservices provider and a community addiction services 81491
provider to submit to the director reports of major unusual 81492
incidents.81493

       (5) The director may require a community mental health agency81494
services provider or a community addiction services provider to 81495
submit to the director cost reports pertaining to the agency81496
provider.81497

       (D) The director shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 81498
119. of the Revised Code to implement this section. In adopting 81499
the rules, the director shall do all of the following:81500

       (1) Specify the documentation that must be submitted as 81501
evidence of holding appropriate accreditation;81502

       (2) Establish a process by which the director may review the 81503
accreditation standards and processes used by the national 81504
accrediting organizations listed in division (A) of this section;81505

       (3) Specify the circumstances under which reports of major 81506
unusual incidents and agencyprovider cost reports must be 81507
submitted to the director;81508

       (4) Specify the circumstances under which the director may 81509
visitconduct an on-site review or otherwise evaluate a community 81510
mental health agencyservices provider and a community addiction 81511
services provider for cause;81512

       (5) Establish a process by which the director, based on 81513
deficiencies identified as a result of visitingconducting an 81514
on-site review or evaluating a community mental health agency81515
services provider or a community addiction services provider under 81516
division (C)(2) of this section, may take any of a range of 81517
corrective actions, with the most stringent being revocation of 81518
the certification of the agency'sprovider's services.81519

       Sec. 3793.10.        Sec. 5119.38.  A drivers' intervention program may be 81520
used as an alternative to a term of imprisonment for an offender 81521
sentenced pursuant to division (G)(1)(a) of section 4511.19 of the 81522
Revised Code, if it is certified by the director of alcohol and 81523
drug addiction servicesmental health and addiction services81524
pursuant to this section. No drivers' intervention program shall 81525
be used as an alternative to a term of imprisonment that is 81526
imposed pursuant to division (G)(1)(b), (c), (d), or (e) of 81527
section 4511.19 of the Revised Code.81528

       To qualify for certification by the director and to receive 81529
funds from the statewide treatment and prevention fund created by 81530
section 4301.30 of the Revised Code in any amounts and at any 81531
times that the director determines are appropriate, a drivers' 81532
intervention program shall meet state minimum standards that the 81533
director shall establish by rule. The rules shall include, but are 81534
not limited to, standards governing program course hours and 81535
content, qualifications of program personnel, methods of 81536
identifying and testing participants to isolate participants with 81537
alcohol and drug abuse problems, referral of such persons to 81538
alcohol and drugcommunity addiction programsservices providers, 81539
the prompt notification of courts by program operators of the 81540
completion of the programs by persons required by courts to attend 81541
them, and record keeping, including methods of tracking 81542
participants for a reasonable time after they have left the 81543
program.81544

       The director shall issue a certificate to any qualified 81545
drivers' intervention program. The certificate is valid for three 81546
years.81547

       Sec. 3793.11.        Sec. 5119.39.  (A) No alcohol and drugcommunity81548
addiction programservices provider shall employ methadone 81549
treatment or prescribe, dispense, or administer methadone unless 81550
the program is licensed under this section. No alcohol and drug81551
community addiction programservices provider licensed under this 81552
section shall maintain methadone treatment in a manner 81553
inconsistent with this section and the rules adopted under it.81554

       (B) An alcohol and drugA community addiction program81555
services provider may apply to the department of alcohol and drug 81556
addiction servicesmental health and addiction services for a 81557
license to maintain methadone treatment. The department shall 81558
review all applications received.81559

       (C) The department may issue a license to maintain methadone 81560
treatment to an alcohol and drugcommunity addiction program81561
services provider only if all of the following apply:81562

       (1) The programprovider is operated by a private, nonprofit 81563
organization or by a government entity;81564

       (2) For at least two years immediately preceding the date of 81565
application, the programprovider has been fully certified under 81566
section 3793.065119.36 of the Revised Code;81567

       (3) The programprovider has not been denied a license to 81568
maintain methadone treatment or had its license withdrawn or 81569
revoked within the five-year period immediately preceding the date 81570
of application;81571

       (4) It affirmatively appears to the department that the 81572
programprovider is adequately staffed and equipped to maintain 81573
methadone treatment;81574

       (5) It affirmatively appears to the department that the 81575
programprovider will maintain methadone treatment in strict 81576
compliance with section 3719.61 of the Revised Code, all other 81577
laws relating to drug abuse, and the rules adopted by the 81578
department;81579

       (6) Except as provided in division (D) of this section, there 81580
is no public or private school, licensed child day-care center, or 81581
other child-serving agency within a radius of five hundred feet of 81582
the location where the program is to maintain methadone treatment.81583

        (D) The department may waive the requirement of division 81584
(C)(6) of this section if it receives, from each public or private 81585
school, licensed child day-care center, or other child-serving 81586
agency that is within the applicable radius of the location where 81587
the program is to maintain methadone treatment, a letter of 81588
support for the location. The department shall determine whether a 81589
letter of support is satisfactory for purposes of waiving the 81590
requirement.81591

       (E) A license to maintain methadone treatment shall expire 81592
one year from the date of issuance. Licenses may be renewed.81593

       (F) The department shall establish procedures and adopt rules 81594
for licensing, inspection, and supervision of alcohol and drug81595
community addiction programsservices providers that maintain 81596
methadone treatment. The rules shall establish standards for the 81597
control, storage, furnishing, use, and dispensing of methadone, 81598
prescribe minimum standards for the operation of the methadone 81599
treatment component of the program,provider's operations and 81600
comply with federal laws and regulations.81601

       All rules adopted under this division shall be adopted in 81602
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. All actions 81603
taken by the department regarding the licensing of programs81604
providers to maintain methadone treatment shall be conducted in 81605
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, except as 81606
provided in division (L) of this section.81607

       (G) The department of alcohol and drug addiction services81608
mental health and addiction services shall inspect all alcohol and 81609
drugcommunity addiction programsservices providers licensed to 81610
maintain methadone treatment. Inspections shall be conducted at 81611
least annually and may be conducted more frequently. No person or 81612
government entity shall interfere with a state or local government 81613
official acting on behalf of the department while conducting an 81614
inspection.81615

       (H) An alcohol and drugcommunity addiction programservices 81616
provider shall not administer or dispense methadone in a tablet, 81617
powder, or intravenous form. Methadone shall be administered or 81618
dispensed only in a liquid form intended for ingestion. A program81619
services provider shall not administer or dispense methadone to an 81620
individual for pain or other medical reasons.81621

       (I) As used in this division, "program sponsor" means a 81622
person who assumes responsibility for the operation and employees 81623
of the methadone treatment component of an alcohol and druga 81624
community addiction programservices provider.81625

        An alcohol and drugA community addiction programservices 81626
provider shall not employ an individual who receives methadone 81627
treatment from that programservices provider. A program shall not 81628
permit an individual to act as a programprovider sponsor, 81629
medical director, or director of the programprovider if the 81630
individual is receiving methadone treatment from any alcohol and 81631
drugcommunity addiction programservices provider.81632

       (J) The department may issue orders to assure compliance with 81633
section 3719.61 of the Revised Code, all other laws relating to 81634
drug abuse, and the rules adopted under this section. Subject to 81635
section 3793.135119.27 of the Revised Code, the department may 81636
hold hearings, require the production of relevant matter, compel 81637
testimony, issue subpoenas, and make adjudications. Upon failure 81638
of a person without lawful excuse to obey a subpoena or to produce 81639
relevant matter, the department may apply to a court of common 81640
pleas for an order compelling compliance.81641

       (K) The department may refuse to issue, or may withdraw or 81642
revoke, a license to maintain methadone treatment. A license may 81643
be refused if an alcohol and druga community addiction program81644
services provider does not meet the requirements of division (C) 81645
of this section. A license may be withdrawn at any time the 81646
department determines that the program no longer meets the 81647
requirements for receiving the license. A license may be revoked 81648
in accordance with division (L) of this section.81649

        In the case of a license issued prior to the effective date 81650
of this amendmentDecember 20, 2012, the department shall not 81651
consider the requirement of division (C)(6) of this section in 81652
determining whether to renew, withdraw, or revoke the license.81653

        (L) If the department of alcohol and drug addiction services81654
mental health and addiction services finds reasonable cause to 81655
believe that an alcohol and druga community addiction program81656
services provider licensed under this section is in violation of 81657
any provision of section 3719.61 of the Revised Code, or of any 81658
other state or federal law or rule relating to drug abuse, the 81659
department may issue an order immediately revoking the license, 81660
subject to division (M) of this section. The department shall set 81661
a date not more than fifteen days later than the date of the order 81662
of revocation for a hearing on the continuation or cancellation of 81663
the revocation. For good cause, the department may continue the 81664
hearing on application of any interested party. In conducting 81665
hearings, the department has all the authority and power set forth 81666
in division (J) of this section. Following the hearing, the 81667
department shall either confirm or cancel the revocation. The 81668
hearing shall be conducted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 81669
Revised Code, except that the programprovider shall not be 81670
permitted to maintain methadone treatment pending the hearing or 81671
pending any appeal from an adjudication made as a result of the 81672
hearing. Notwithstanding any provision of Chapter 119. of the 81673
Revised Code to the contrary, a court shall not stay or suspend 81674
any order of revocation issued by the director under this division 81675
pending judicial appeal.81676

       (M) The department shall not revoke a license to maintain 81677
methadone treatment unless all clientsservices recipients81678
receiving methadone treatment from the alcohol and drugcommunity81679
addiction programservices provider are provided adequate 81680
substitute treatment. For purposes of this division, the 81681
department may transfer the clientsservices recipients to other 81682
programs licensed to maintain methadone treatment or replace any 81683
or all of the administrators and staff of the programprovider81684
with representatives of the department who shall continue on a 81685
provisional basis the methadone treatment component of the 81686
program.81687

       (N) Each time the department receives an application from an 81688
alcohol and druga community addiction programservices provider81689
for a license to maintain methadone treatment, issues or refuses 81690
to issue a license, or withdraws or revokes a license, the 81691
department shall notify the board of alcohol, drug addiction, and 81692
mental health services of each alcohol, drug addiction, and mental 81693
health service district in which the program is operatedprovider 81694
operates.81695

       (O) Whenever it appears to the department from files, upon 81696
complaint, or otherwise, that an alcohol and druga community81697
addiction programservices provider has engaged in any practice 81698
declared to be illegal or prohibited by section 3719.61 of the 81699
Revised Code, or any other state or federal laws or regulations 81700
relating to drug abuse, or when the department believes it to be 81701
in the best interest of the public and necessary for the 81702
protection of the citizens of the state, the department may 81703
request criminal proceedings by laying before the prosecuting 81704
attorney of the proper county any evidence of criminality which 81705
may come to its knowledge.81706

       (P) The department shall maintain a current list of alcohol 81707
and drugcommunity addiction programsservices providers licensed 81708
by the department under this section and shall provide a copy of 81709
the current list to a judge of a court of common pleas who 81710
requests a copy for the use of the judge under division (H) of 81711
section 2925.03 of the Revised Code. The list of licensed alcohol 81712
and drugcommunity addiction programsservices providers shall 81713
identify each licensed programprovider by its name, its address, 81714
and the county in which it is located.81715

       Sec. 5119.061.        Sec. 5119.40.  (A) As used in this section, 81716
"mentally ill individual" and "specialized services" have the same 81717
meanings as in section 5111.2025165.03 of the Revised Code.81718

       (B)(1) Except as provided in division (B)(2) of this section 81719
and rules adopted under division (E)(3) of this section, for 81720
purposes of section 5111.2025165.03 of the Revised Code, the 81721
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services81722
shall determine in accordance with section 1919(e)(7) of the 81723
"Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935)section 1919(e)(7), 42 81724
U.S.C.A. 3011396r(e)(7), as amended, and regulations adopted 81725
under section 1919(f)(8)(A) of that act, 42 U.S.C. 1396r(f)(8)(A),81726
whether, because of the individual's physical and mental 81727
condition, a mentally ill individual seeking admission to a 81728
nursing facility requires the level of services provided by a 81729
nursing facility and, if the individual requires that level of 81730
services, whether the individual requires specialized services for 81731
mental illness. The determination required by this division shall 81732
be based on an independent physical and mental evaluation 81733
performed by a person or entity other than the department.81734

       (2) AExcept as provided in division (B)(3) of this section, 81735
a determination under this division (B)(1) of this section is not 81736
required for any of the following:81737

       (a) An individual seeking readmission to a nursing facility 81738
after having been transferred from a nursing facility to a 81739
hospital for care;81740

       (b) An individual who meets all of the following conditions:81741

       (i) The individual is admitted to the nursing facility 81742
directly from a hospital after receiving inpatient care at the 81743
hospital;81744

       (ii) The individual requires nursing facility services for 81745
the condition for which care in the hospital was received;81746

       (iii) The individual's attending physician has certified, 81747
before admission to the nursing facility, that the individual is 81748
likely to require less than thirty days of nursing facility 81749
services.81750

       (c) An individual transferred from one nursing facility to 81751
another nursing facility, with or without an intervening hospital 81752
stay.81753

       (3) A determination under division (B)(1) of this section is 81754
required for an individual described in division (B)(2)(a) or (b) 81755
of this section if the hospital from which the individual is 81756
transferred or directly admitted to a nursing facility is either 81757
of the following:81758

        (a) A hospital that the department maintains, operates, 81759
manages, and governs under section 5119.14 of the Revised Code for 81760
the care and treatment of mentally ill persons;81761

        (b) A free-standing hospital, or unit of a hospital, licensed 81762
by the department under section 5119.33 of the Revised Code.81763

       (C) Except as provided in rules adopted under division 81764
(F)(E)(3) of this section, the department of mental healthmental 81765
health and addiction services shall review and determine for each 81766
resident of a nursing facility who is mentally ill, whether the 81767
resident, because of the resident's physical and mental condition, 81768
requires the level of services provided by a nursing facility and 81769
whether the resident requires specialized services for mental 81770
illness. The review and determination shall be conducted in 81771
accordance with section 1919(e)(7) of the "Social Security Act" 81772
and the regulations adopted under section 1919(f)(8)(A) of the act 81773
and based on an independent physical and mental evaluation 81774
performed by a person or entity other than the department. The 81775
review and determination shall be completed promptly after a 81776
nursing facility has notified the department that there has been a 81777
significant change in the resident's mental or physical condition.81778

       (D)(1) In the case of a nursing facility resident who has 81779
continuously resided in a nursing facility for at least thirty 81780
months before the date of a review and determination under 81781
division (C) of this section, if the resident is determined not to 81782
require the level of services provided by a nursing facility, but 81783
is determined to require specialized services for mental illness, 81784
the department, in consultation with the resident's family or 81785
legal representative and care givers, shall do all of the 81786
following:81787

       (a) Inform the resident of the institutional and 81788
noninstitutional alternatives covered under the state plan for 81789
medical assistance;81790

       (b) Offer the resident the choice of remaining in the nursing 81791
facility or receiving covered services in an alternative 81792
institutional or noninstitutional setting;81793

       (c) Clarify the effect on eligibility for services under the 81794
state plan for medical assistance if the resident chooses to leave 81795
the facility, including its effect on readmission to the facility;81796

       (d) Provide for or arrange for the provision of specialized 81797
services for the resident's mental illness in the setting chosen 81798
by the resident.81799

       (2) In the case of a nursing facility resident who has 81800
continuously resided in a nursing facility for less than thirty 81801
months before the date of the review and determination under 81802
division (C) of this section, if the resident is determined not to 81803
require the level of services provided by a nursing facility, but 81804
is determined to require specialized services for mental illness, 81805
or if the resident is determined to require neither the level of 81806
services provided by a nursing facility nor specialized services 81807
for mental illness, the department shall act in accordance with 81808
its alternative disposition plan approved by the United States 81809
department of health and human services under section 81810
1919(e)(7)(E) of the "Social Security Act."81811

       (3) In the case of an individual who is determined under 81812
division (B) or (C) of this section to require both the level of 81813
services provided by a nursing facility and specialized services 81814
for mental illness, the department of mental healthmental health 81815
and addiction services shall provide or arrange for the provision 81816
of the specialized services needed by the individual or resident 81817
while residing in a nursing facility.81818

       (E) The department of mental healthmental health and 81819
addiction services shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 81820
119. of the Revised Code that do all of the following:81821

       (1) Establish criteria to be used in making the 81822
determinations required by divisions (B) and (C) of this section. 81823
The criteria shall not exceed the criteria established by 81824
regulations adopted by the United States department of health and 81825
human services under section 1919(f)(8)(A) of the "Social Security 81826
Act."81827

       (2) Specify information to be provided by the individual or 81828
nursing facility resident being assessed;81829

       (3) Specify any circumstances, in addition to circumstances 81830
listed in division (B) of this section, under which determinations 81831
under divisions (B) and (C) of this section are not required to be 81832
made.81833

       Sec. 5119.69.        Sec. 5119.41.  (A) As used in this section and 81834
section 5119.6915119.411 of the Revised Code:81835

       (1) "Long-term care consultation program" means the program 81836
the department of aging is required to develop under section 81837
173.42 of the Revised Code.81838

       (2) "Long-term care consultation program administrator" or 81839
"administrator" means the department of aging or, if the 81840
department contracts with an area agency on aging or other entity 81841
to administer the long-term care consultation program for a 81842
particular area, that agency or entity.81843

       (3) "Nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 81844
5111.205165.01 of the Revised Code.81845

       (4)(2) "Residential state supplement administrative agency" 81846
means the department of mental healthmental health and addiction 81847
services or, if the department designates an entity under division 81848
(C) of this section for a particular area, the designated entity.81849

       (5)(3) "Residential state supplement program" means the 81850
program administered pursuant to this section.81851

       (B) The department of mental healthmental health and 81852
addiction services shall implement the residential state 81853
supplement program under which the state supplements the 81854
supplemental security income payments received by aged, blind, or 81855
disabled adults under Title XVI of the "Social Security Act," 49 81856
Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A., as amended1381 et seq. Residential 81857
state supplement payments shall be used for the provision of 81858
accommodations, supervision, and personal care services to social 81859
security, supplemental security income, and social security 81860
disability insurance recipients who the department determines are 81861
at risk of needing institutional care.81862

       (C) In implementing the program, the department may designate 81863
one or more entities to be responsible for providing 81864
administrative services regarding the program. The department may 81865
designate an entity to be a residential state supplement 81866
administrative agency under this division either by entering into 81867
a contract with the entity to serve in that capacity or by 81868
otherwise delegating to the entity the responsibility to serve in 81869
that capacity.81870

       (D) For an individual to be eligible for residential state 81871
supplement payments, all of the following must be the case:81872

       (1) Except as provided by division (H) of this section, the 81873
individual must reside in one of the following:81874

       (a) A home orresidential care facility, other than a nursing 81875
home or nursing home unit of a home for the aging, licensed by the 81876
department of health under Chapter 3721. of the Revised Code or an 81877
assisted living program as defined in section 5111.89 of the 81878
Revised Code;81879

       (b) A residential facility as defined in division (A)(9)(b) 81880
of section 5119.225119.34 of the Revised Code licensed by the 81881
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services;81882

       (c) An apartment or room used to provide community mental 81883
health housing services certified by the department of mental 81884
healthmental health and addiction services under section 5119.61181885
5119.36 of the Revised Code and approved by a board of alcohol, 81886
drug addiction, and mental health services under division (A)(14) 81887
of section 340.03 of the Revised Code.81888

       (2) A residential state supplement administrative agency must 81889
have determined that the environment in which the individual will 81890
be living while receiving the payments is appropriate for the 81891
individual's needs. If the individual is eligible for social 81892
security payments, supplemental security income payments, or 81893
social security disability insurance benefits because of a mental 81894
disability, the residential state supplement administrative agency 81895
shall refer the individual to a community mental health agency81896
services provider for an assessment under division (A) of section 81897
340.091 of the Revised Code. 81898

       (3) The individual satisfies all eligibility requirements 81899
established by rules adopted under division (E) of this section.81900

       (E) The directorsdirector of mental healthmental health and 81901
addiction services and job and family servicesmedicaid director81902
shall adopt rules in accordance with section 111.15 of the Revised 81903
Code as necessary to implement the residential state supplement 81904
program.81905

       To the extent permitted by Title XVI of the "Social Security 81906
Act," and any other provision of federal law, the medicaid81907
director of job and family services may adopt rules establishing 81908
standards for adjusting the eligibility requirements concerning 81909
the level of impairment a person must have so that the amount 81910
appropriated for the program by the general assembly is adequate 81911
for the number of eligible individuals. The rules shall not limit 81912
the eligibility of disabled persons solely on a basis classifying 81913
disabilities as physical or mental. The medicaid director of job 81914
and family services also may adopt rules that establish 81915
eligibility standards for aged, blind, or disabled individuals who 81916
reside in one of the homes or facilities specified in division 81917
(D)(1) of this section but who, because of their income, do not 81918
receive supplemental security income payments. The rules may 81919
provide that these individuals may include individuals who receive 81920
other types of benefits, including, social security payments or81921
social security disability insurance benefits provided under Title 81922
II of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A.81923
401, as amendedet seq. Notwithstanding division (B) of this 81924
section, such payments may be made if funds are available for 81925
them.81926

       The director of mental healthmental health and addiction 81927
services may adopt rules establishing the method to be used to 81928
determine the amount an eligible individual will receive under the 81929
program. The amount the general assembly appropriates for the 81930
program may be a factor included in the method that director 81931
establishes. 81932

       (F) The county department of job and family services of the 81933
county in which an applicant for the residential state supplement 81934
program resides shall determine whether the applicant meets income 81935
and resource requirements for the program.81936

       (G) The department of mental healthmental health and 81937
addiction services shall maintain a waiting list of any 81938
individuals eligible for payments under this section but not 81939
receiving them because moneys appropriated to the department for 81940
the purposes of this section are insufficient to make payments to 81941
all eligible individuals. An individual may apply to be placed on 81942
the waiting list even though the individual does not reside in one 81943
of the homes or facilities specified in division (D)(1) of this 81944
section at the time of application. The director of mental health81945
mental health and addiction services, by rules adopted in 81946
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, may specify 81947
procedures and requirements for placing an individual on the 81948
waiting list and priorities for the order in which individuals 81949
placed on the waiting list are to begin to receive residential 81950
state supplement payments. The rules specifying priorities may 81951
give priority to individuals placed on the waiting list on or 81952
after July 1, 2006, who receive social security payments, social 81953
security disability insurance, or supplemental security income 81954
benefits under Title XVI of the "Social Security Act," 86 Stat. 81955
1475 (1972), 42 U.S.C. 1381, as amendedet seq. The rules shall 81956
not affect the place on the waiting list of any person who was on 81957
the list on July 1, 2006. The rules specifying priorities may also 81958
set additional priorities based on living arrangement, such as 81959
whether an individual resides in a facility listed in division 81960
(D)(1) of this section or has been admitted to a nursing facility.81961

       (H) An individual in a licensed or certified living 81962
arrangement receiving state supplementation on November 15, 1990, 81963
under former section 5101.531 of the Revised Code shall not become 81964
ineligible for payments under this section solely by reason of the 81965
individual's living arrangement as long as the individual remains 81966
in the living arrangement in which the individual resided on 81967
November 15, 1990.81968

       (I) The department of mental healthcounty department of job 81969
and family services from which the person is receiving benefits81970
shall notify each person denied approval for payments under this 81971
section of the person's right to a hearing. On request, the 81972
hearing shall be provided in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 81973
Revised Code.81974

       Sec. 5119.691.        Sec. 5119.411. On a periodic schedule determined by 81975
the department of mental healthmental health and addiction 81976
services, each residential state supplement administrative agency 81977
shall determine whether individuals who reside in the area that 81978
the agency serves and are on a waiting list for the residential 81979
state supplement program have been admitted to a nursing facility. 81980
IfThe department shall have a process in place to ensure that if81981
a residential state supplement administrative agency determines 81982
that such an individual has been admitted to a nursing facility, 81983
the agency shall notify the long-term care consultation program 81984
administrator serving the area in which the individual resides 81985
about the determination. The administrator shall determinethere 81986
shall be a determination whether the residential state supplement 81987
program is appropriate for the individual and whether the 81988
individual would rather participate in the program than continue 81989
residing in the nursing facility. If the administrator determines81990
it is determined that the residential state supplement program is 81991
appropriate for the individual and the individual would rather 81992
participate in the program than continue residing in the nursing 81993
facility, the administrator shall so notify the department of 81994
mental health. On receipt of the notice from the administrator, 81995
the department of mental healthmental health and addiction 81996
services shall approve the individual's enrollment in the 81997
residential state supplement program in accordance with the 81998
priorities specified in rules adopted under division (G) of 81999
section 5119.695119.41 of the Revised Code. Each quarter in which 82000
a waiting list is in place, the department of mental healthmental 82001
health and addiction services shall certify to the director of 82002
budget and management the estimated increase in costs of the 82003
residential state supplement program resulting from enrollment of 82004
individuals in the program pursuant to this section.82005

       Sec. 5119.63.        Sec. 5119.42.  (A) As used in this section, "private, 82006
nonprofit organization" means a private association, organization, 82007
corporation, or other entity that is tax exempt under section 82008
501(a) and described in section 501(c) of the "Internal Revenue 82009
Code of 1986," 100 Stat. 2085, 26 U.S.C. 501.82010

       (B) To the extent funds are available and on application by 82011
boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services, the 82012
director of mental healthmental health and addiction services may 82013
approve state reimbursement of, or state grants for, community 82014
mental health construction programs including residential housing 82015
for severely mentally disabled persons and persons with substance 82016
use disorders. The director may also approve an application for 82017
reimbursement or a grant for such programs submitted by other 82018
governmental entities or by private, nonprofit organizations, 82019
after the application has been reviewed and recommended for 82020
approval or disapproval by the board of alcohol, drug addiction, 82021
and mental health services for the district from which the 82022
application came, and the application is consistent with the plan 82023
submitted by the board under division (A) of section 340.03 of the 82024
Revised Code and the budget and statement of services submitted by 82025
the board under divisions (A) and (B) of section 340.08 of the 82026
Revised Code.82027

       (C)(1) The director of mental healthmental health and 82028
addiction services shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 82029
119. of the Revised Code that specify procedures for applying for 82030
state reimbursement of and state grants for community construction 82031
programs, including residential housing for severely mentally 82032
disabled persons and persons with substance use disorders and 82033
procedures and criteria for approval of such reimbursement and 82034
grants.82035

       (2) The director of mental healthmental health and addiction 82036
services shall not approve state reimbursement or a state grant 82037
unless all of the following conditions are met:82038

       (a) The applicant includes with the application a plan 82039
specifying the services, in addition to housing, that will be 82040
provided to persons who will reside in the residential housing. 82041
Services specified may include any of the services listed82042
described in section 340.09 of the Revised Code.82043

       (b) The director is satisfied that the residential housing 82044
for severely mentally disabled persons will be developed to 82045
promote the maximum practical integration of severely mentally 82046
disabled persons with persons at the same site who are not 82047
severely mentally disabled.82048

       (c) The use of any funds distributed pursuant to the 82049
reimbursement or grant will not subject any obligation from which 82050
the funds are derived to federal income taxation.82051

       (3) The director may enter into an agreement establishing 82052
terms for any reimbursement or grant approved under this division 82053
with the organization, board, or other government entity that is 82054
the recipient of the reimbursement or grant. Any such agreement is 82055
subject to any covenant or agreement pertaining to any obligation 82056
issued to provide funds for the reimbursement or grant.82057

       Sec. 5119.631.        Sec. 5119.421.  (A) This section applies to a board 82058
of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services, another 82059
governmental entity, or a private, nonprofit organization that 82060
received a grant or reimbursement under section 5119.635119.42 of 82061
the Revised Code for a facility on which the department of mental 82062
healthmental health and addiction services holds a security 82063
interest.82064

       (B) A board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 82065
services, another governmental entity, or a private, nonprofit 82066
organization to which this section applies may apply to the 82067
director of mental healthmental health and addiction services for 82068
approval to sell its facility and acquire, construct, or renovate 82069
a replacement facility pursuant to this section. The director 82070
shall prescribe the form of the application. Before submitting an 82071
application to the director, a governmental entity or private, 82072
nonprofit organization must obtain approval of the application 82073
from the board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 82074
services with jurisdiction over the service district in which the 82075
existing facility is located. The director shall approve an 82076
application for a replacement project upon determining that the 82077
project provides for the continuation of appropriate mental health 82078
and addiction services to the population served by the board, 82079
entity, or organization.82080

       (C) A board, entity, or organization that obtains approval 82081
for a project under division (B) of this section shall pay the 82082
proceeds of the sale of its facility to the director of mental 82083
healthmental health and addiction services. The director shall 82084
deposit the proceeds to the credit of the community capital 82085
replacement facilities fund.82086

       (D) When a board, entity, or organization that has sold its 82087
facility notifies the director of mental healthmental health and 82088
addiction services that it is ready to acquire, construct, or 82089
renovate a replacement facility, the director shall do one of the 82090
following:82091

       (1) If the replacement facility is located in the same 82092
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health service district as the 82093
original facility, and if the purposes for which the replacement 82094
facility will be used are the same as or similar to those for the 82095
original facility, the director shall pay to the board, entity, or 82096
organization from the community capital replacement facilities 82097
fund an amount equal to the lesser of an amount equal to the 82098
proceeds of the sale of the original facility or the amount of the 82099
state's agreed-upon participation (as a per cent of the total 82100
cost) in the cost of the replacement facility. If the amount of 82101
the state's agreed-upon participation in the cost of the 82102
replacement facility is less than the value of the state's 82103
security interest in the original facility, the difference between 82104
the state's agreed-upon participation in the cost of the 82105
replacement facility and the value of the state's security 82106
interest in the original facility shall be retained in the 82107
community capital replacement facilities fund, and any excess 82108
proceeds shall be paid to the board, entity, or organization.82109

       (2) If the replacement facility is located in a different 82110
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health service district than 82111
the original facility, or if the purposes for which the 82112
replacement facility will be used are not the same as or similar 82113
to those for the original facility, the director shall request 82114
controlling board approval for release of funds for the project. 82115
If the controlling board so approves, the director shall pay to 82116
the board, entity, or organization from the community capital 82117
replacement facilities fund the lesser of an amount equal to the 82118
proceeds of the sale of the original facility or the amount of the 82119
state's agreed-upon participation (as a per cent of the total 82120
cost) in the cost of the replacement facility. ifIf the amount of 82121
the state's agreed-upon participation in the cost of the 82122
replacement facility is less than the value of the state's 82123
security interest in the original facility, the difference between 82124
the state's agreed-upon participation in the cost of the 82125
replacement facility and the value of the state's security 82126
interest in the original facility shall be retained in the 82127
community capital replacement facilities fund, and any excess 82128
proceeds shall be paid to the board, entity, or organization.82129

       (E) The director of mental healthmental health and addiction 82130
services and a board, entity, or organization shall enter into an 82131
agreement specifying the terms of any payment made to the board, 82132
entity, or organization under division (D) of this section. The 82133
terms may include provision for the department of mental health82134
mental health and addiction services to hold a security interest 82135
in the facility.82136

       (F)(1) When approving an application under division (B) of 82137
this section, the director of mental healthmental health and 82138
addiction services shall establish a deadline by which the board, 82139
entity, or organization must notify the director that it is ready 82140
to acquire, construct, or renovate a replacement facility. If the 82141
board, entity, or organization does not notify the director on or 82142
before the deadline, the director may cancel the project. Upon 82143
canceling the project, the director shall pay to the board, 82144
entity, or organization from the community capital replacement 82145
facilities fund an amount equal to the portion of the proceeds of 82146
the sale of the original facility that exceeds the value of the 82147
state's security interest in the facility.82148

       (2) Notwithstanding the deadline established under division 82149
(F)(1) of this section, if at any time a board, entity, or 82150
organization notifies the director that it does not intend to 82151
acquire, construct, or renovate a replacement facility under this 82152
section, the director shall cancel the replacement project and pay 82153
to the board, entity, or organization from the community capital 82154
replacement facilities fund an amount equal to the portion of the 82155
proceeds of the sale of the original facility that exceeds the 82156
value of the state's security interest in the facility.82157

       (G) If a replacement project is canceled after the sale of 82158
the original facility, the director of mental healthmental health 82159
and addiction services shall use funds equal to the value of the 82160
state's security interest in the original facility for additional 82161
grants or reimbursements under section 5119.635119.42 of the 82162
Revised Code. The director shall obtain the approval of the 82163
controlling board before releasing the additional grants or 82164
reimbursements.82165

       (H) The community capital replacement facilities fund is 82166
hereby created in the state treasury. The director of mental 82167
healthmental health and addiction services shall use the fund for 82168
the purposes of this section.82169

       Sec. 5119.16.        Sec. 5119.44.  As used in this section, "free clinic" 82170
has the same meaning as in section 2305.2341 of the Revised Code.82171

       (A) The department of mental healthmental health and 82172
addiction services may provide certain goods and services for the 82173
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services, 82174
the department of developmental disabilities, the department of 82175
rehabilitation and correction, the department of youth services, 82176
and other state, county, or municipal agencies requesting such 82177
goods and services when the department of mental healthmental 82178
health and addiction services determines that it is in the public 82179
interest, and considers it advisable, to provide these goods and 82180
services. The department of mental healthmental health and 82181
addiction services also may provide goods and services to agencies 82182
operated by the United States government and to public or private 82183
nonprofit agencies, other than free clinics, that are funded in 82184
whole or in part by the state if the public or private nonprofit 82185
agencies are designated for participation in this program by the 82186
director of mental healthmental health and addiction services82187
for community addiction services providers and community mental 82188
health agenciesservices providers, the director of developmental 82189
disabilities for community mental retardation and developmental 82190
disabilities agencies, the director of rehabilitation and 82191
correction for community rehabilitation and correction agencies, 82192
or the director of youth services for community youth services 82193
agencies. 82194

       Designated community agencies or services providers shall 82195
receive goods and services through the department of mental health82196
mental health and addiction services only in those cases where the 82197
designating state agency certifies that providing such goods and 82198
services to the agency or services provider will conserve public 82199
resources to the benefit of the public and where the provision of 82200
such goods and services is considered feasible by the department 82201
of mental healthmental health and addiction services.82202

       (B) The department of mental healthmental health and 82203
addiction services may permit free clinics to purchase certain 82204
goods and services to the extent the purchases fall within the 82205
exemption to the Robinson-Patman Act, 15 U.S.C. 13 et seq., 82206
applicable to nonprofit institutions, in 15 U.S.C. 13c, as 82207
amended.82208

       (C) The goods and services that may be provided by the 82209
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services82210
under divisions (A) and (B) of this section may include:82211

       (1) Procurement, storage, processing, and distribution of 82212
food and professional consultation on food operations;82213

       (2) Procurement, storage, and distribution of medical and 82214
laboratory supplies, dental supplies, medical records, forms, 82215
optical supplies, and sundries, subject to section 5120.135 of the 82216
Revised Code;82217

       (3) Procurement, storage, repackaging, distribution, and 82218
dispensing of drugs, the provision of professional pharmacy 82219
consultation, and drug information services;82220

       (4) Other goods and services.82221

       (D) The department of mental healthmental health and 82222
addiction services may provide the goods and services designated 82223
in division (C) of this section to its institutions and to 82224
state-operated community-based mental health or addiction services 82225
providers.82226

       (E) After consultation with and advice from the director of 82227
developmental disabilities, the director of rehabilitation and 82228
correction, and the director of youth services, the department of 82229
mental healthmental health and addiction services may provide the 82230
goods and services designated in division (C) of this section to 82231
the department of developmental disabilities, the department of 82232
rehabilitation and correction, and the department of youth 82233
services.82234

       (F) The cost of administration of this section shall be 82235
determined by the department of mental healthmental health and 82236
addiction services and paid by the agencies, services providers,82237
or free clinics receiving the goods and services to the department 82238
for deposit in the state treasury to the credit of the mental 82239
healthoffice of support services fund, which is hereby created. 82240
The fund shall be used to pay the cost of administration of this 82241
section to the department.82242

       (G) Whenever a state agency fails to make a payment for goods 82243
and services provided under this section within thirty-one days 82244
after the date the payment was due, the office of budget and 82245
management may transfer moneys from the state agency to the 82246
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services. 82247
The amount transferred shall not exceed the amount of overdue 82248
payments. Prior to making a transfer under this division, the 82249
office of budget and management shall apply any credits the state 82250
agency has accumulated in payments for goods and services provided 82251
under this section.82252

       (H) Purchases of goods and services under this section are 82253
not subject to section 307.86 of the Revised Code.82254

       Sec. 5119.161.        Sec. 5119.45.  Unless otherwise specifically 82255
provided by law, all moneys received by the department of mental 82256
healthmental health and addiction services from the sale of goods 82257
and services, including, but not limited to, shared service 82258
agreements with other governmental entities and nongovernmental 82259
entities, employee housing and cafeteria receipts, fees for 82260
copying services, and sales of other tangible personal property 82261
under the department's control, shall be paid into the state 82262
treasury to the credit of the sale of goods and services fund, 82263
which is hereby created. Moneys received by the department 82264
pursuant to section 5119.165119.44 of the Revised Code shall not 82265
be paid into the fund. The department shall use the moneys in the 82266
fund for paying operating expenses of the department.82267

       Sec. 5119.18.        Sec. 5119.46.  There is hereby created in the state 82268
treasury the department of mental healthmental health and 82269
addiction services trust fund. Not later than the first day of 82270
September of each year, the director of mental healthmental 82271
health and addiction services shall certify to the director of 82272
budget and management the amount of all of the unexpended, 82273
unencumbered balances of general revenue fund appropriations made 82274
to the department of mental healthmental health and addiction 82275
services for the previous fiscal year, excluding funds 82276
appropriated for rental payments to the Ohio public facilities 82277
commission. On receipt of the certification, the director of 82278
budget and management shall transfer cash to the trust fund in an 82279
amount up to, but not exceeding, the total of the amounts 82280
certified by the director of mental healthmental health and 82281
addiction services.82282

       In addition, the trust fund shall receive all amounts, 82283
subject to any provisions in bond documents, received from the 82284
sale or lease of lands and facilities by the department.82285

       All moneys in the trust fund shall be used by the department 82286
of mental healthmental health and addiction services to pay for 82287
expenditures the department incurs in performing any of its duties 82288
under this chapter. The use of moneys in the trust fund pursuant 82289
to this section does not represent an ongoing commitment to the 82290
continuation of the trust fund or to the use of moneys in the 82291
trust fund.82292

       Sec. 3793.032.        Sec. 5119.47.  The director of alcohol and drug 82293
addiction servicesmental health and addiction services shall 82294
administer the problem casino gambling and addictions fund. The 82295
director shall use the money in the fund to support programs that 82296
provide gambling addiction services, alcohol and drug addiction 82297
programs that provide alcohol and drug addiction services, other 82298
programsservices that relate to gambling addiction and substance 82299
abuse, and research that relates to gambling addiction and 82300
substance abuse. Treatment and prevention services provided under 82301
programs supported by money in the fund under this section shall 82302
be services that are provided by alcohol and drug addiction 82303
treatment programs certified by the department of alcohol and 82304
drug addiction services or provided by counselors who are 82305
certified by the departmentmental health and addiction services. 82306
Prevention services provided under programssupported by money in 82307
the fund under this section shall be services that are provided by 82308
alcohol and drug addiction prevention programs certified by the 82309
department of alcohol and drug addiction services.82310

       The director shall prepare an annual report describing the 82311
use of the fund for these purposes. The director shall submit the 82312
report to the Ohio casino control commission, the speaker and 82313
minority leader of the house of representatives, the president and 82314
minority leader of the senate, the governor, and the joint 82315
committee on gaming and wagering.82316

       Sec. 3793.22.        Sec. 5119.49. (A) The director of alcohol and drug 82317
addiction servicesmental health and addiction services shall 82318
collaborate with the state board of pharmacy and attorney general 82319
in the establishment and administration of a drug take-back 82320
program, as provided under section 4729.69 of the Revised Code.82321

       (B) The department may accept grants, gifts, or donations for 82322
purposes of the program. Money received under this division shall 82323
be deposited into the drug take-back program fund established 82324
under section 109.90 of the Revised Code.82325

       Sec. 5119.34.        Sec. 5119.50.  The director of mental healthmental 82326
health and addiction services may accept, hold, and administer in 82327
trust on behalf of the state, if it is for the public interest, 82328
any grant, gift, devise, or bequest of money or property made to 82329
the state for the use or benefit of any institution described in 82330
section 5119.025119.14 of the Revised Code or for the use and 82331
benefit of mentally ill persons under its control. If the trust so 82332
provides, the money or property may be used for any work which the 82333
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services82334
is authorized to undertake.82335

       The department shall keep such gift, grant, devise, or 82336
bequest as a distinct property or fund and, if it is in money, 82337
shall invest it in the manner provided by law. The department may 82338
deposit in a proper trust company or savings bank any money left 82339
in trust during a specified life or lives and shall adopt rules 82340
governing the deposit, transfer, withdrawal, or investment of such 82341
money and the income thereof.82342

       The department shall, in the manner prescribed by the 82343
director of budget and management pursuant to section 126.21 of 82344
the Revised Code, account for all money or property received or 82345
expended under this section. The records, together with a 82346
statement certified by the depository showing the funds deposited 82347
there to the credit of the trust, shall be open to public 82348
inspection. The director of budget and management may require the 82349
department to file a report with himthe director on any 82350
particular portion, or the whole, of any trust property received 82351
or expended by it.82352

       The department shall, upon the expiration of any trust 82353
according to its terms, dispose of the funds or property held 82354
thereunder in the manner provided in the instrument creating the 82355
trust. If the instrument creating the trust failed to make any 82356
terms of disposition, or if no trust was in evidence, then the 82357
decedent patient's money, saving or commercial deposits, dividends 82358
or distributions, bonds, or any other interest-bearing debt 82359
certificate or stamp issued by the United States government shall 82360
escheat to the state. All such unclaimed intangible personal 82361
property of a former patient shall be retained by the managing 82362
officer in such institution for the period of one year, during 82363
which time every possible effort shall be made to find such former 82364
patient or histhe former patient's legal representative.82365

       If, after a period of one year from the time the patient has 82366
left the institution or has died, the managing officer has been 82367
unable to locate such person or histhe person's legal 82368
representative, then upon proper notice of such fact the director 82369
shall at that time formulate in writing a method of disposition on 82370
the minutes of the department authorizing the managing officer to 82371
convert such intangible personal property to cash to be paid into 82372
the state treasury to the credit of the general revenue fund.82373

       The department shall include in its annual report a statement 82374
of all money and property and the terms and conditions relating 82375
thereto.82376

       Sec. 5119.17.        Sec. 5119.51.  (A) As used in this section, 82377
"supplemental services" has the same meaning as in section 5815.28 82378
of the Revised Code.82379

       (B) There is hereby created in the state treasury the 82380
services fund for individuals with mental illness. On the death of 82381
the beneficiary of a trust created pursuant to section 5815.28 of 82382
the Revised Code, the portion of the remaining assets of the trust 82383
specified in the trust instrument shall be deposited to the credit 82384
of the fund. Money credited to the fund shall be used for 82385
individuals with mental illness.82386

       Supplemental services may be provided through the department 82387
or boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services. 82388
In accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, the 82389
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services82390
may adopt any rules necessary to implement this section.82391

       Sec. 5119.36.        Sec. 5119.52.  Each managing officer of an 82392
institution under the jurisdiction of the department of mental 82393
healthmental health and addiction services as described in 82394
section 5119.025119.14 of the Revised Code, with the approval of 82395
the director of mental healthmental health and addiction 82396
services, may establish local institution funds designated as 82397
follows:82398

       (A) Industrial and entertainment fund created and maintained 82399
for the entertainment and welfare of the patients of the 82400
institution. The director shall establish rules for the operation 82401
of the industrial and entertainment fund.82402

       (B) Commissary fund created and maintained for the benefit of 82403
patients in the institution. Commissary revenue over and above 82404
operating costs and reserve shall be considered profits. All 82405
profits from the commissary fund operations shall be paid into the 82406
industrial and entertainment fund and used only for the 82407
entertainment and wel farewelfare of patients. The director shall 82408
establish rules for the operation of the commissary fund.82409

       Sec. 5119.33.        Sec. 5119.54.  The treasurer of state shall have 82410
charge of all funds under the jurisdiction of the department of 82411
mental healthmental health and addiction services and shall pay 82412
out the same only in accordance with this chapter.82413

       The department shall cause to be furnished a contract of 82414
indemnity to cover all funds received by it or by its managing 82415
officers, employees, or agents while the funds are in the 82416
possession of such managing officers, employees or agents. Such 82417
funds are designated as follows:82418

       (A) Funds which are due and payable to the treasurer of state 82419
as provided by Chapter 131. of the Revised Code;82420

       (B) Those funds which are held in trust by the managing 82421
officers, employees, or agents of the institution as local funds 82422
or accounts under the jurisdiction of the department.82423

       Such contract of indemnity shall be made payable to the state 82424
and the premium for such contract of indemnity may be paid from 82425
any of the moneys received for the use of the department under 82426
this chapter and Chapters 5121. and 5122. of the Revised Code.82427

       Funds collected from various sources, such as the sale of 82428
goods, and all miscellaneous articles, shall be transmitted on or 82429
before Monday of each week to the treasurer of state and a 82430
detailed statement of such collections shall be made to the 82431
department.82432

       Sec. 5119.351.        Sec. 5119.55.  The department of mental health82433
mental health and addiction services may pay an amount for 82434
personal use to each individual residing in a state institution as 82435
described in section 5119.025119.14 of the Revised Code who would 82436
be eligible for supplemental security income benefits at the 82437
reduced rate established by Title XVI of the "Social Security 82438
Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 1382, as amended1381 et 82439
seq., if the state plan for providing medical assistance under 82440
section 5111.01 of the Revised Code included reimbursement of82441
medicaid program covers services provided in such institutions. 82442
The amount paid by the department shall not exceed the reduced 82443
supplemental security income benefit rate established by Title XVI 82444
of the "Social Security Act."82445

       Sec. 5119.35.        Sec. 5119.56.  Money or property deposited with 82446
managing officers of institutions under the jurisdiction of the 82447
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services82448
by any patient under the department's control or by relatives, 82449
guardians, conservators, and others for the special benefit of 82450
such patient, as well as all other funds and all other income paid 82451
to the patient, histhe patient's estate, or on histhe patient's82452
behalf, or paid to the managing officer or to the institution as 82453
representative payee or otherwise paid on the patient's behalf, 82454
shall remain in the hands of such officers in appropriate accounts 82455
for use accordingly. The managing officer shall keep itemized book 82456
accounts of the receipt and disposition of such money and 82457
property, which book shall be open at all times to the inspection 82458
of the department. The director of mental healthmental health 82459
and addiction services shall adopt rules governing the deposit, 82460
transfer, withdrawal, or investment of the funds and the income 82461
thereof, as well as rules under which such funds and income shall 82462
be paid by managing officers for the support of the patients 82463
pursuant to Chapter 5121. of the Revised Code, or for their other 82464
needs.82465

       Whenever any patient confined in any state institution 82466
subject to the jurisdiction of the department dies, escapes, or is 82467
discharged from such institution, and any personal funds of such 82468
person remain in the hands of the managing officer thereof and no 82469
demand for such funds is made upon such managing officer by the 82470
owner of the funds or histhe owner's legally appointed 82471
representative, the managing officer shall hold the funds in the 82472
personal deposit fund for a period of at least one year during 82473
which time the managing officer shall make every effort possible 82474
to locate the owner or histhe owner's legally appointed 82475
representative.82476

       If at the end of this period no demand has been made for the 82477
funds, the managing officer shall dispose of the funds as follows:82478

       (A) All money in a personal deposit fund in excess of ten 82479
dollars due for the support of a patient shall be paid in 82480
accordance with the provisions of Chapter 5121. of the Revised 82481
Code.82482

       (B) All money in a personal deposit fund in excess of ten 82483
dollars not due for the support of a patient shall be placed to 82484
the credit of the institution's local account designated as the 82485
"industrial and entertainment" fund.82486

       (C) The first ten dollars to the credit of a patient shall be 82487
placed to the credit of the institution's local account designated 82488
as the "industrial and entertainment" fund.82489

       Whenever any patient in any state institution subject to the 82490
jurisdiction of the department dies, escapes, or is discharged 82491
from such institution, and any personal effects of such person 82492
remain in the hands of the managing officer thereof, and no demand 82493
is made upon such managing officer by the owner of the property or 82494
histhe owner's legally appointed representative, the managing 82495
officer shall hold and dispose of such property in the following 82496
manner.82497

       All the miscellaneous personal effects shall be held for a 82498
period of at least one year, during which time the managing 82499
officer shall make every effort possible to locate the owner or82500
histhe owner's legal representative. If at the end of this 82501
period, no demand has been made by the owner of the property or 82502
histhe owner's legal representative, the managing officer shall 82503
file with the county recorder of the county of commitment of such 82504
owner, all deeds, wills, contract mortgages, or assignments. The 82505
balance of the personal effects shall be sold at public auction 82506
after being duly advertised, and the funds turned over to the 82507
treasurer of state for credit to the general revenue fund. If any 82508
of the property is not of a type to be filed with the county 82509
recorder and is not salable at public auction, then the managing 82510
officer of the institution shall destroy such property.82511

       Sec. 5119.46.        Sec. 5119.60. In its annual report, theThe82512
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services82513
shall submit an annual report to the governor that shall describe 82514
the services the department offers and how appropriated funds have 82515
been spent. The report shall include theall of the following:82516

       (A) The utilization of state hospitals by each alcohol, drug 82517
addiction, and mental health service district, the;82518

       (B) The number of persons served by community addiction 82519
services providers that receive funds distributed by the 82520
department, with a breakdown into categories including age, sex, 82521
race, the type of drug to which the person is addicted, and any 82522
other categories the director of mental health and addiction 82523
services considers significant;82524

       (C) The number of severely mentally disabled persons served 82525
in each district, and the;82526

       (D) The number and types of services provided to severely 82527
mentally disabled persons through state-operated services and 82528
community mental health agenciesservices providers;82529

       (E) A report measuring the success of community addiction 82530
services providers, based on the measures for accountability 82531
developed by the department, including the percentage of persons 82532
served by such community addiction services providers who have not 82533
relapsed;82534

       (F) Any other information that the director considers 82535
significant or is requested by the governor.82536

       Sec. 3793.12.        Sec. 5119.61.  (A) The department of alcohol and drug 82537
addiction servicesmental health and addiction services shall 82538
collect and compile statistics and other information on the care 82539
and treatment of mentally disabled persons, and the care, 82540
treatment, and rehabilitation of alcoholics, drug dependent 82541
persons, and persons in danger of drug dependence in this state, 82542
including, without limitation, information on the number of such 82543
persons, the type of drug involved, the type of care, treatment, 82544
or rehabilitation prescribed or undertaken, and the success or 82545
failure of the care, treatment, or rehabilitation. The department 82546
shall collect information about services delivered and persons 82547
served as required for reporting and evaluation relating to state 82548
and federal funds expended for such purposes.82549

       (B) No alcohol or, drug addiction program, or mental health 82550
services provider shall fail to supply statistics and other 82551
information within its knowledge and with respect to its programs82552
services, upon request of the department.82553

       (C) Communications by a person seeking aid in good faith for 82554
alcoholism or drug dependence are confidential, and this section 82555
does not require the collection or permit the disclosure of 82556
information which reveals or comprises the identity of any person 82557
seeking aid.82558

       (D) Based on the information collected and compiled under 82559
division (A) of this section, the department shall develop a 82560
project to assess the outcomes of persons served by alcohol and 82561
drug addiction programsservices providers and mental health 82562
services providers that receive funds distributed by the 82563
department.82564

       Sec. 5119.50.        Sec. 5119.70.  The "interstate compact on mental 82565
health" is hereby ratified, enacted into law, and entered into by 82566
the state of Ohio as a party thereto with any other state which 82567
has legally joined in the compact as follows:82568

INTERSTATE COMPACT ON MENTAL HEALTH
82569

       The contracting states solemnly agree that:82570

Article I
82571

       The party states find that the proper and expeditious 82572
treatment of the mentally ill and mentally retarded can be 82573
facilitated by cooperative action, to the benefit of the patients, 82574
their families, and society as a whole. Further, the party states 82575
find that the necessity of and desirability for furnishing such 82576
care and treatment bears no primary relation to the residence or 82577
citizenship of the patient but that, on the contrary, the 82578
controlling factors of community safety and humanitarianism 82579
require that facilities and services be made available for all who 82580
are in need of them. Consequently, it is the purpose of this 82581
compact and of the party states to provide the necessary legal 82582
basis for the institutionalization or other appropriate care and 82583
treatment of the mentally ill and mentally retarded under a system 82584
that recognizes the paramount importance of patient welfare and to 82585
establish the responsibilities of the party states in terms of 82586
such welfare.82587

Article II
82588

       As used in this compact:82589

       (a) "Sending state" shall mean a party state from which a 82590
patient is transported pursuant to the provisions of the compact 82591
or from which it is contemplated that a patient may be so sent.82592

       (b) "Receiving state" shall mean a party state to which a 82593
patient is transported pursuant to the provisions of the compact 82594
or to which it is contemplated that a patient may be so sent.82595

       (c) "Institution" shall mean any hospital or other facility 82596
maintained by a party state or political subdivision thereof for 82597
the care and treatment of mental illness or mental retardation.82598

       (d) "Patient" shall mean any person subject to or eligible as 82599
determined by the laws of the sending state, for 82600
institutionalization or other care, treatment, or supervision 82601
pursuant to the provisions of this compact.82602

       (e) "After-care" shall mean care, treatment and services 82603
provided a patient, as defined herein, or convalescent status or 82604
conditional release.82605

       (f) "Mental illness" shall mean mental disease to such extent 82606
that a person so afflicted requires care and treatment for his own 82607
welfare, or the welfare of others, or of the community.82608

       (g) "Mental retardation" shall mean mental retardation as 82609
defined by appropriate clinical authorities to such extent that a 82610
person so afflicted is incapable of managing himself and his 82611
affairs, but shall not include mental illness as defined herein.82612

       (h) "State" shall mean any state, territory or possession of 82613
the United States, the District of Columbia, and the Commonwealth 82614
of Puerto Rico.82615

Article III
82616

       (a) Whenever a person physically present in any party state 82617
shall be in need of institutionalization by reason of mental 82618
illness or mental retardation, he shall be eligible for care and 82619
treatment in an institution in that state irrespective of his 82620
residence, settlement or citizenship qualifications.82621

       (b) The provisions of paragraph (a) of this article to the 82622
contrary notwithstanding, any patient may be transferred to an 82623
institution in another state whenever there are factors based upon 82624
clinical determinations indicating that the care and treatment of 82625
said patient would be facilitated or improved thereby. Any such 82626
institutionalization may be for the entire period of care and 82627
treatment or for any portion or portions thereof. The factors 82628
referred to in this paragraph shall include the patient's full 82629
record with due regard for the location of the patient's family, 82630
character of the illness and probable duration thereof, and such 82631
other factors as shall be considered appropriate.82632

       (c) No state shall be obliged to receive any patient pursuant 82633
to the provisions of paragraph (b) of this article unless the 82634
sending state has given advance notice of its intention to send 82635
the patient; furnished all available medical and other pertinent 82636
records concerning the patient; given the qualified medical or 82637
other appropriate clinical authorities of the receiving state an 82638
opportunity to examine the patient if said authorities so wish; 82639
and unless the receiving state shall agree to accept the patient.82640

       (d) In the event that the laws of the receiving state 82641
establish a system of priorities for the admission of patients, an 82642
interstate patient under this compact shall receive the same 82643
priority as a local patient and shall be taken in the same order 82644
and at the same time that he would be taken if he were a local 82645
patient.82646

       (e) Pursuant to this compact, the determination as to the 82647
suitable place of institutionalization for a patient may be 82648
reviewed at any time and such further transfer of the patient may 82649
be made as seems likely to be in the best interest of the patient.82650

Article IV
82651

       (a) Whenever, pursuant to the laws of the state in which a 82652
patient is physically present, it shall be determined that the 82653
patient should receive after-care or supervision, such care or 82654
supervision may be provided in a receiving state. If the medical 82655
or other appropriate clinical authorities having responsibility 82656
for the care and treatment of the patient in the sending state 82657
shall have reason to believe that after-care in another state 82658
would be in the best interest of the patient and would not 82659
jeopardize the public safety, they shall request the appropriate 82660
authorities in the receiving state to investigate the desirability 82661
of affording the patient such after-care in said receiving state, 82662
and such investigation shall be made with all reasonable speed. 82663
The request for investigation shall be accompanied by complete 82664
information concerning the patient's intended place of residence 82665
and the identity of the person in whose charge it is proposed to 82666
place the patient, the complete medical history of the patient, 82667
and such other documents as may be pertinent.82668

       (b) If the medical or other appropriate clinical authorities 82669
having responsibility for the care and treatment of the patient in 82670
the sending state and the appropriate authorities in the receiving 82671
state find that the best interest of the patient would be served 82672
thereby, and if the public safety would not be jeopardized 82673
thereby, the patient may receive after-care or supervision in the 82674
receiving state.82675

       (c) In supervising, treating, or caring for a patient on 82676
after-care pursuant to the terms of this article, a receiving 82677
state shall employ the same standards of visitation, examination, 82678
care, and treatment that it employs for similar local patients.82679

Article V
82680

       Whenever a dangerous or potentially dangerous patient escapes 82681
from an institution in any party state, that state shall promptly 82682
notify all appropriate authorities within and without the 82683
jurisdiction of the escape in a manner reasonably calculated to 82684
facilitate the speedy apprehension of the escapee. Immediately 82685
upon the apprehension and identification of any such dangerous or 82686
potentially dangerous patient, he shall be detained in the state 82687
where found pending disposition in accordance with law.82688

Article VI
82689

       The duly accredited officers of any state party to this 82690
compact, upon the establishment of their authority and the 82691
identity of the patient, shall be permitted to transport any 82692
patient being moved pursuant to this compact through any and all 82693
states party to this compact, without interference.82694

Article VII
82695

       (a) No person shall be deemed a patient of more than one 82696
institution at any given time. Completion of transfer of any 82697
patient to an institution in a receiving state shall have the 82698
effect of making the person a patient of the institution in the 82699
receiving state.82700

       (b) The sending state shall pay all costs of and incidental 82701
to the transportation of any patient pursuant to this compact, but 82702
any two or more party states may, by making a specific agreement 82703
for that purpose, arrange for a different allocation of costs as 82704
among themselves.82705

       (c) No provision of this compact shall be construed to alter 82706
or affect any internal relationships among the departments, 82707
agencies and officers of and in the government of a party state, 82708
or between a party state and its subdivisions, as to the payment 82709
of costs, or responsibilities therefor.82710

       (d) Nothing in this compact shall be construed to prevent any 82711
party state or subdivision thereof from asserting any right 82712
against any person, agency or other entity in regard to costs for 82713
which such party state or subdivision thereof may be responsible 82714
pursuant to any provision of this compact.82715

       (e) Nothing in this compact shall be construed to invalidate 82716
any reciprocal agreement between a party state and a nonparty 82717
state relating to institutionalization, care or treatment of the 82718
mentally ill or mentally retarded, or any statutory authority 82719
pursuant to which such agreements may be made.82720

Article VIII
82721

       (a) Nothing in this compact shall be construed to abridge, 82722
diminish, or in any way impair the rights, duties, and 82723
responsibilities of any patient's guardian on his own behalf or in 82724
respect of any patient for whom he may serve, except that where 82725
the transfer of any patient to another jurisdiction makes 82726
advisable the appointment of a supplemental or substitute 82727
guardian, any court of competent jurisdiction in the receiving 82728
state may make such supplemental or substitute appointment and the 82729
court which appointed the previous guardian shall upon being duly 82730
advised of the new appointment, and upon the satisfactory 82731
completion of such accounting and other acts as such court may by 82732
law require, relieve the previous guardian of power and 82733
responsibility to whatever extent shall be appropriate in the 82734
circumstances; provided, however, that in the case of any patient 82735
having settlement in the sending state, the court of competent 82736
jurisdiction in the sending state shall have the sole discretion 82737
to relieve a guardian appointed by it or continue his power and 82738
responsibility, whichever it shall deem advisable. The court in 82739
the receiving state may, in its discretion, confirm or reappoint 82740
the person or persons previously serving as guardian in the 82741
sending state in lieu of making a supplemental or substitute 82742
appointment.82743

       (b) The term "guardian" as used in paragraph (a) of this 82744
article shall include any guardian, trustee, legal committee, 82745
conservator, or other person or agency however denominated who is 82746
charged by law with power to act for or responsibility for the 82747
person or property of a patient.82748

Article IX
82749

       (a) No provision of this compact except Article V shall apply 82750
to any person institutionalized while under sentence in a penal or 82751
correctional institution or while subject to trial on a criminal 82752
charge, or whose institutionalization is due to the commission of 82753
an offense for which, in the absence of mental illness or mental 82754
retardation, said person would be subject to incarceration in a 82755
penal or correctional institution.82756

       (b) To every extent possible, it shall be the policy of 82757
states party to this compact that no patient shall be placed or 82758
detained in any prison, jail or lockup, but such patient shall, 82759
with all expedition, be taken to a suitable institutional facility 82760
for mental illlness or mental retardation.82761

Article X
82762

       (a) Each party state shall appoint a "compact administrator" 82763
who, on behalf of his state, shall act as general coordinator of 82764
activities under the compact in his state and who shall receive 82765
copies of all reports, correspondence, and other documents 82766
relating to any patient processed under the compact by his state 82767
either in the capacity of sending or receiving state. The compact 82768
administrator or his duly designated representative shall be the 82769
official with whom other party states shall deal in any matter 82770
relating to the compact or any patient processed thereunder.82771

       (b) The compact administrators of the respective party states 82772
shall have power to promulgate reasonable rules and regulations to 82773
carry out more effectively the terms and provisions of this 82774
compact.82775

Article XI
82776

       The duly constituted administrative authorities of any two or 82777
more party states may enter into supplementary agreements for the 82778
provision of any service or facility or for the maintenance of any 82779
institution on a joint or cooperative basis whenever the states 82780
concerned shall find that such agreements will improve services, 82781
facilities, or institutional care and treatment in the fields of 82782
mental illness or mental retardation. No such supplementary 82783
agreement shall be construed so as to relieve any party state of 82784
any obligation which it otherwise would have under other 82785
provisions of this compact.82786

Article XII
82787

       This compact shall enter into full force and effect as to any 82788
state when enacted by it into law and such states shall thereafter 82789
be a party thereto with any and all states legally joining 82790
therein.82791

Article XIII
82792

       (a) A state party to this compact may withdraw therefrom by 82793
enacting a statute repealing the same. Such withdrawal shall take 82794
effect one year after notice thereof has been communicated 82795
officially and in writing to the governors and compact 82796
administrators of all other party states. However, the withdrawal 82797
of any state shall not change the status of any patient who has 82798
been sent to said state or sent out of said state pursuant to the 82799
provisions of the compact.82800

       (b) Withdrawal from any agreement permitted by Article VII 82801
(b) as to costs or from any supplementary agreement made pursuant 82802
to Article XI shall be in accordance with the terms of such 82803
agreement.82804

Article XIV
82805

       This compact shall be liberally construed so as to effectuate 82806
the purposes thereof. The provisions of this compact shall be 82807
severable and if any phrase, clause, sentence or provision of this 82808
compact is declared to be contrary to the constitution of any 82809
party state or of the United States or the applicability thereof 82810
to any government, agency, person or circumstance is held invalid, 82811
the validity of the remainder of this compact and the 82812
applicability thereof to any government, agency, person or 82813
circumstance shall not be affected thereby. If this compact shall 82814
be held contrary to the constitution of any state party thereto, 82815
the compact shall remain in full force and effect as to the 82816
remaining states and in full force and effect as to the state 82817
affected as to all severable matters.82818

       Sec. 5119.51.        Sec. 5119.71.  Pursuant to Article X of the compact 82819
set forth in section 5119.505119.70 of the Revised Code, the 82820
director of mental healthmental health and addiction services and 82821
the director of developmental disabilities each shall designate an 82822
officer who shall be the compact administrator for the department 82823
and who, acting jointly with like officers of other party states, 82824
shall adopt rules to carry out more effectively the terms of the 82825
compact. The compact administrators of each department shall serve 82826
subject to the pleasure of the governor and shall cooperate with 82827
all departments, agencies, and officers of and in the government 82828
of this state and its subdivisions in facilitating the proper 82829
administration of the compact or of any supplementary agreements 82830
entered into by this state thereunder. 82831

       Sec. 5119.52.        Sec. 5119.72.  The compact administrator may enter 82832
into supplementary agreements with appropriate officials of other 82833
states pursuant to articles VII and XI of the compact set forth in 82834
section 5119.505119.70 of the Revised Code. In the event that 82835
such supplementary agreements require or contemplate the use of 82836
any institution or facility of this state or require or 82837
contemplate the provision of any service by this state, no such 82838
agreement shall have force or effect until approved by the head of 82839
the department or agency under whose jurisdiction the institution 82840
or facility is operated or whose department or agency will be 82841
charged with the rendering of such service.82842

       Sec. 5119.53.        Sec. 5119.73.  Any payments necessary to discharge 82843
any financial obligations imposed upon the state of Ohio by the 82844
compact or by any supplementary agreement entered into thereunder, 82845
as provided in sections 5119.505119.70 to 5119.525119.72 of the 82846
Revised Code, shall be made from appropriated funds upon 82847
presentation to the director of budget and management of itemized 82848
vouchers approved by the compact administrator.82849

       Sec. 3793.31.        Sec. 5119.90. As used in sections 3793.315119.90 to 82850
3793.395119.98 of the Revised Code:82851

       (A) "Alcohol and other drug abuse" means alcoholism or drug 82852
addiction.82853

       (B) "Another drug" means a controlled substance as defined in 82854
section 3719.01 of the Revised Code or a harmful intoxicant as 82855
defined in section 2925.01 of the Revised Code.82856

       (C) "Board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 82857
services" means a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental 82858
health services established under section 340.02 or 340.021 of the 82859
Revised Code.82860

       (D) "Danger" or "threat of danger to self, family, or others" 82861
means substantial physical harm or threat of substantial physical 82862
harm upon self, family, or others.82863

       (E) "Hospital" has the same meaning as in section 3701.01 or 82864
3727.01 of the Revised Code but does not include either a hospital 82865
operated by the department of mental healthmental health and 82866
addiction services or an inpatient unit licensed by the 82867
department.82868

       (F) "Intoxicated" means being under the influence of alcohol, 82869
another drug, or both alcohol and another drug and, as a result, 82870
having a significantly impaired ability to function.82871

       (G) "Petitioner" means a person who institutes a proceeding 82872
under sections 3793.325119.91 to 3793.395119.98 of the Revised 82873
Code.82874

       (H) "Probate court" means the probate division of the court 82875
of common pleas.82876

       (I) "Qualified health professional" means a person that is 82877
properly credentialed or licensed to conduct a drug and alcohol 82878
assessment and diagnosis under Ohio law.82879

       (J) "Residence" means the legal residence of a person as 82880
determined by applicable principles governing conflicts of law.82881

       (K) "Respondent" means a person alleged in a petition filed 82882
or hearing under sections 3793.325119.91 to 3793.395119.98 of 82883
the Revised Code to be a person who is suffering from alcohol and 82884
other drug abuse and who may be ordered under those sections to 82885
undergo treatment.82886

       (L) "Treatment" means services and programs for the care and 82887
rehabilitation of intoxicated persons and persons suffering from 82888
alcohol and other drug abuse. "Treatment" includes residential 82889
treatment, a halfway house setting, and an intensive outpatient or 82890
outpatient level of care.82891

       Sec. 3793.32.        Sec. 5119.91. A probate court may order involuntary 82892
treatment for a person suffering from alcohol and other drug abuse 82893
pursuant to the procedures set forth in sections 3793.315119.9082894
to 3793.395119.98 of the Revised Code.82895

       Sec. 3793.33.        Sec. 5119.92. No person shall be ordered to undergo 82896
treatment under sections 3793.315119.90 to 3793.395119.98 of the 82897
Revised Code unless all of the following apply to that person:82898

       (A) The person suffers from alcohol and other drug abuse.82899

       (B) The person presents an imminent danger or imminent threat 82900
of danger to self, family, or others as a result of alcohol and 82901
other drug abuse, or there exists a substantial likelihood of such 82902
a threat in the near future.82903

       (C) The person can reasonably benefit from treatment.82904

       Sec. 3793.34.        Sec. 5119.93. (A) A person may initiate proceedings 82905
for treatment for an individual suffering from alcohol and other 82906
drug abuse by filing a verified petition in the probate court and 82907
paying a filing fee in the same amount, if any, that is charged 82908
for the filing under section 5122.11 of the Revised Code of an 82909
affidavit seeking the hospitalization of a person. The petition 82910
and all subsequent court documents shall be entitled: "In the 82911
interest of (name of respondent)." A spouse, relative, or guardian 82912
of the individual concerning whom the petition is filed shall file 82913
the petition.82914

       (B) A petition filed under division (A) of this section shall 82915
set forth all of the following:82916

       (1) The petitioner's relationship to the respondent;82917

       (2) The respondent's name, residence address, and current 82918
location, if known;82919

       (3) The name and residence of the respondent's parents, if 82920
living and if known, or of the respondent's legal guardian, if any 82921
and if known;82922

       (4) The name and residence of the respondent's spouse, if any 82923
and if known;82924

       (5) The name and residence of the person having custody of 82925
the respondent, if any, or if no such person is known, the name 82926
and residence of a near relative or a statement that the person is 82927
unknown;82928

       (6) The petitioner's belief, including the factual basis for 82929
the belief, that the respondent is suffering from alcohol and 82930
other drug abuse and presents an imminent danger or imminent 82931
threat of danger to self, family, or others if not treated for 82932
alcohol or other drug abuse.82933

       (C)(1) Any petition filed pursuant to divisions (A) and (B) 82934
of this section shall be accompanied by a certificate of a 82935
physician who has examined the respondent within two days prior to 82936
the day that the petition is filed in the probate court. The 82937
physician shall be authorized to practice medicine and surgery or 82938
osteopathic medicine and surgery under Chapter 4731. of the 82939
Revised Code. The physician's certificate shall set forth the 82940
physician's findings in support of the need to treat the 82941
respondent for alcohol or other drug abuse. The certificate shall 82942
indicate if the respondent presents an imminent danger or imminent 82943
threat of danger to self, family, or others if not treated. 82944
Further, the certificate shall indicate the type and length of 82945
treatment required and if the respondent can reasonably benefit 82946
from treatment. If the physician's certificate indicates that 82947
inpatient treatment is required, the certificate shall identify 82948
any inpatient facilities known to the physician that are able and 82949
willing to provide the recommended inpatient treatment.82950

        If the respondent refuses to undergo an examination with a 82951
physician concerning the respondent's possible need for treatment 82952
for alcohol or other drug abuse, the petition shall state that the 82953
respondent has refused all requests made by the petitioner to 82954
undergo a physician's examination. In that case, the petitioner 82955
shall not be required to provide a physician's certificate with 82956
the petition.82957

       (2) Any petition filed pursuant to divisions (A) and (B) of 82958
this section shall contain a statement that the petitioner has 82959
arranged for treatment of the respondent. Further, the petition 82960
shall be accompanied by a statement from the person or facility 82961
who has agreed to provide the treatment that verifies that the 82962
person or facility has agreed to provide the treatment and the 82963
estimated cost of the treatment.82964

        (D) Any petition filed pursuant to divisions (A) and (B) of 82965
this section shall be accompanied by both of the following:82966

       (1) A security deposit to be deposited with the clerk of the 82967
probate court that will cover half of the estimated cost of 82968
treatment of the respondent;82969

        (2) A guarantee, signed by the petitioner or another person 82970
authorized to file the petition obligating the guarantor to pay 82971
the costs of the examinations of the respondent conducted by the 82972
physician and qualified health professional under division (B)(5) 82973
of section 3793.355119.94 of the Revised Code, the costs of the 82974
respondent that are associated with a hearing conducted in 82975
accordance with section 3793.355119.94 of the Revised Code and 82976
that the court determines to be appropriate, and the costs of any 82977
treatment ordered by the court.82978

       Sec. 3793.35.        Sec. 5119.94. (A) Upon receipt of a petition filed 82979
under section 3793.345119.93 of the Revised Code and the payment 82980
of the appropriate filing fee, if any, the probate court shall 82981
examine the petitioner under oath as to the contents of the 82982
petition.82983

       (B) If, after reviewing the allegations contained in the 82984
petition and examining the petitioner under oath, it appears to 82985
the probate court that there is probable cause to believe the 82986
respondent may reasonably benefit from treatment, the court shall 82987
do all of the following:82988

       (1) Schedule a hearing to be held within seven days to 82989
determine if there is clear and convincing evidence that the 82990
respondent may reasonably benefit from treatment for alcohol and 82991
other drug abuse;82992

       (2) Notify the respondent, the legal guardian, if any and if 82993
known, and the spouse, parents, or nearest relative or friend of 82994
the respondent concerning the allegations and contents of the 82995
petition and of the date and purpose of the hearing;82996

       (3) Notify the respondent that the respondent may retain 82997
counsel and, if the person is unable to obtain an attorney, that 82998
the respondent may be represented by court-appointed counsel at 82999
public expense if the person is indigent. Upon the appointment of 83000
an attorney to represent an indigent respondent, the court shall 83001
notify the respondent of the name, address, and telephone number 83002
of the attorney appointed to represent the respondent.83003

        (4) Notify the respondent that the court shall cause the 83004
respondent to be examined not later than twenty-four hours before 83005
the hearing date by a physician for the purpose of a physical 83006
examination and by a qualified health professional for the purpose 83007
of a drug and alcohol addiction assessment and diagnosis. In 83008
addition, the court shall notify the respondent that the 83009
respondent may have an independent expert evaluation of the 83010
person's physical and mental condition conducted at the 83011
respondent's own expense.83012

        (5) Cause the respondent to be examined not later than 83013
twenty-four hours before the hearing date by a physician for the 83014
purpose of a physical examination and by a qualified health 83015
professional for the purpose of a drug and alcohol addiction 83016
assessment and diagnosis;83017

       (6) Conduct the hearing.83018

       (C) The physician and qualified health professional who 83019
examine the respondent pursuant to division (B)(5) of this section 83020
or who are obtained by the respondent at the respondent's own 83021
expense shall certify their findings to the court within 83022
twenty-four hours of the examinations. The findings of each 83023
qualified health professional shall include a recommendation for 83024
treatment if the qualified health professional determines that 83025
treatment is necessary.83026

       (D)(1) If upon completion of the hearing held under this 83027
section the probate court finds by clear and convincing evidence 83028
that the respondent may reasonably benefit from treatment, the 83029
court may order the treatment after considering the qualified 83030
health professionals' recommendations for treatment that have been 83031
submitted to the court under division (C) of this section. If the 83032
court orders the treatment under this division, the court shall 83033
order the treatment to be provided through an alcohol and druga 83034
community addiction programservices provider certified under 83035
section 3793.065119.36 of the Revised Code or by an individual 83036
licensed or certified by the state medical board under Chapter 83037
4731. of the Revised Code, the chemical dependency professionals 83038
board under Chapter 4758. of the Revised Code, the counselor, 83039
social worker, and marriage and family therapist board under 83040
Chapter 4757. of the Revised Code, or a similar board of another 83041
state authorized to provide substance abuse treatment.83042

        (2) Failure of a respondent to undergo and complete any 83043
treatment ordered pursuant to this division is contempt of court. 83044
Any alcohol and drug addiction program or person providing 83045
treatment under this division shall notify the probate court of a 83046
respondent's failure to undergo or complete the ordered treatment.83047

       (E) If, at any time after a petition is filed under section 83048
3793.345119.93 of the Revised Code, the probate court finds that 83049
there is not probable cause to continue treatment or if the 83050
petitioner withdraws the petition, then the court shall dismiss 83051
the proceedings against the respondent.83052

       Sec. 3793.36.        Sec. 5119.95. (A) Following an examination by a 83053
qualified health professional and a certification by that 83054
professional that the person meets the criteria specified in 83055
section 3793.335119.92 of the Revised Code, a probate court may 83056
order the person hospitalized for a period not to exceed 83057
seventy-two hours if the court finds by clear and convincing 83058
evidence that the person presents an imminent threat of danger to 83059
self, family, or others as a result of alcohol and other drug 83060
abuse. However, if the hearing to be held under section 3793.3583061
5119.94 of the Revised Code will not be held within seventy-two 83062
hours, the court may order the person hospitalized until the 83063
hearing. In making its order, the court shall inform the person 83064
that the person may immediately make a reasonable number of 83065
telephone calls or use other reasonable means to contact an 83066
attorney, a licensed physician, or a qualified health 83067
professional, to contact any other person or persons to secure 83068
representation by counsel, or to obtain medical or psychological 83069
assistance and that the person will be provided assistance in 83070
making calls if the assistance is needed and requested.83071

       (B) Any person who has been admitted to a hospital under 83072
division (A) of this section shall be released from the hospital 83073
immediately upon the expiration of the time period established by 83074
the court for the hospitalization.83075

       (C) No person ordered hospitalized under this section shall 83076
be held in jail pending transportation to the hospital or 83077
evaluation unless the probate court previously has found the 83078
person to be in contempt of court for either failure to undergo 83079
treatment or failure to appear at the evaluation ordered pursuant 83080
to section 3793.355119.94 of the Revised Code.83081

       Sec. 3793.37.        Sec. 5119.96. When a probate court is authorized to 83082
issue an order that the respondent be transported to a hospital, 83083
the court may issue a summons. If the respondent fails to attend 83084
an examination scheduled before the hearing under section 3793.3583085
5119.94 of the Revised Code, the court shall issue a summons. A 83086
summons so issued shall be directed to the respondent and shall 83087
command the respondent to appear at a time and place specified in 83088
the summons. If a respondent who has been summoned fails to appear 83089
at the hospital or the examination, the probate court may order 83090
the sheriff or any other peace officer to transport the respondent 83091
to a hospital on the list provided under section 3793.385119.9783092
of the Revised Code for treatment. The sheriff or any other peace 83093
officer, upon agreement of a person authorized by the peace 83094
officer, may authorize a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and 83095
mental health services, a private agencyservices provider under 83096
contract with a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental 83097
health services, or an ambulance service designated by a board of 83098
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services to transport 83099
the respondent to the hospital. The transportation costs of the 83100
sheriff, other peace officer, ambulance service, or other private 83101
agencyservices provider under contract with the board of alcohol, 83102
drug addiction, and mental health services shall be included in 83103
the costs of treatment for alcohol and other drug abuse to be paid 83104
by the petitioner.83105

       Sec. 3793.38.        Sec. 5119.97. Each board of alcohol, drug addiction, 83106
and mental health services on at least an annual basis shall 83107
submit each of the following lists to the clerk of the probate 83108
court in each county served by the board:83109

       (A) A list of all hospitals in the counties served by the 83110
board that are able and willing to take respondents ordered to 83111
undergo seventy-two hours of treatment and observation pursuant to 83112
section 3793.365119.95 of the Revised Code;83113

       (B) A list of hospitals and treatment providers in the 83114
counties served by the board that are able and willing to provide 83115
treatment for alcohol and other drug abuse ordered pursuant to 83116
section 3793.355119.94 of the Revised Code.83117

       Sec. 3793.39.        Sec. 5119.98. Sections 3793.12, 3793.135119.26, 83118
5119.27, and 3793.145119.61 of the Revised Code apply to a person 83119
who is ordered to undergo treatment under sections 3793.31 to 83120
3793.395119.90 to 5119.98 of the Revised Code.83121

       Sec. 5119.99. (A) Whoever violates section 5119.215119.33383122
of the Revised Code is guilty of a misdemeanor of the first 83123
degree.83124

       (B) Whoever violates division (B) of section 5119.61 of the 83125
Revised Code is guilty of a misdemeanor of the fourth degree.83126

       (C) Whoever violates section 5119.27 or 5119.28 of the 83127
Revised Code is guilty of a felony of the fifth degree.83128

       Sec. 5120.07.  (A) There is hereby created the ex-offender 83129
reentry coalition consisting of the following eighteenseventeen83130
members or their designees:83131

       (1) The director of rehabilitation and correction;83132

       (2) The director of aging;83133

       (3) The director of alcohol and drug addiction services83134
mental health and addiction services;83135

       (4) The director of development services;83136

       (5) The superintendent of public instruction;83137

       (6) The director of health;83138

       (7) The director of job and family services;83139

       (8) The director of mental health;83140

       (9) The director of developmental disabilities;83141

       (10)(9) The director of public safety;83142

       (11)(10) The director of youth services;83143

       (12)(11) The chancellor of the Ohio board of regents;83144

       (13)(12) A representative or member of the governor's staff;83145

       (14)(13) The director of the rehabilitation services 83146
commission;83147

       (15)(14) The director of the department of commerce;83148

       (16)(15) The executive director of a health care licensing 83149
board created under Title XLVII of the Revised Code, as appointed 83150
by the chairperson of the coalition;83151

       (17)(16) The director of veterans services;83152

       (18)(17) An ex-offender appointed by the director of 83153
rehabilitation and correction.83154

       (B) The members of the coalition shall serve without 83155
compensation. The director of rehabilitation and correction or the 83156
director's designee shall be the chairperson of the coalition.83157

       (C) In consultation with persons interested and involved in 83158
the reentry of ex-offenders into the community, including but not 83159
limited to, services providers, community-based organizations, and 83160
local governments, the coalition shall identify and examine social 83161
service barriers and other obstacles to the reentry of 83162
ex-offenders into the community. Not later than one year after 83163
April 7, 2009, and on or before the same date of each year 83164
thereafter, the coalition shall submit to the speaker of the house 83165
of representatives and the president of the senate a report, 83166
including recommendations for legislative action, the activities 83167
of the coalition, and the barriers affecting the successful 83168
reentry of ex-offenders into the community. The report shall 83169
analyze the effects of those barriers on ex-offenders and on their 83170
children and other family members in various areas, including but 83171
not limited to, the following:83172

       (1) Admission to public and other housing;83173

       (2) Child support obligations and procedures;83174

       (3) Parental incarceration and family reunification;83175

       (4) Social security benefits, veterans' benefits, food 83176
stamps, and other forms of public assistance;83177

       (5) Employment;83178

       (6) Education programs and financial assistance;83179

       (7) Substance abuse, mental health, and sex offender 83180
treatment programs and financial assistance and mental health 83181
services and financial assistance;83182

       (8) Civic and political participation;83183

       (9) Other collateral consequences under the Revised Code or 83184
the Ohio administrative code law that may result from a criminal 83185
conviction.83186

       (D)(1) The report shall also include the following 83187
information:83188

       (a) Identification of state appropriations for reentry 83189
programs;83190

       (b) Identification of other funding sources for reentry 83191
programs that are not funded by the state;83192

       (2) The coalition shall gather information about reentry 83193
programs in a repository maintained and made available by the 83194
coalition. Where available, the information shall include the 83195
following:83196

       (a) The amount of funding received;83197

       (b) The number of program participants;83198

       (c) The composition of the program, including program goals, 83199
methods for measuring success, and program success rate;83200

       (d) The type of post-program tracking that is utilized;83201

       (e) Information about employment rates and recidivism rates 83202
of ex-offenders.83203

       (E) The coalition shall cease to exist on December 31, 2014.83204

       Sec. 5120.09.  Under the supervision and control of the 83205
director of rehabilitation and correction, the division of 83206
business administration shall do all of the following:83207

       (A) Submit the budgets for the several divisions of the 83208
department of rehabilitation and correction, as prepared by the 83209
respective chiefs of those divisions, to the director. The 83210
director, with the assistance of the chief of the division of 83211
business administration, shall compile a departmental budget that 83212
contains all proposals submitted by the chiefs of the divisions 83213
and shall forward the departmental budget to the governor with 83214
comments and recommendations that the director considers 83215
necessary.83216

       (B) Maintain accounts and records and compile statistics that 83217
the director prescribes;83218

       (C) Under the control of the director, coordinate and make 83219
the necessary purchases and requisitions for the department and 83220
its divisions, except when goods and services are provided to the 83221
department as described in section 5119.165119.44 of the Revised 83222
Code;83223

       (D) Administer within this state federal criminal justice 83224
acts that the governor requires the department to administer. In 83225
order to improve the criminal justice system of this state, the 83226
division of business administration shall apply for, allocate, 83227
disburse, and account for grants that are made available pursuant 83228
to those federal criminal justice acts and grants that are made 83229
available from other federal government sources, state government 83230
sources, or private sources. As used in this division, "criminal 83231
justice system" and "federal criminal justice acts" have the same 83232
meanings as in section 5502.61 of the Revised Code.83233

       (E) Audit the activities of governmental entities, persons as 83234
defined in section 1.59 of the Revised Code, and other types of 83235
nongovernmental entities that are financed in whole or in part by 83236
funds that the department allocates or disburses and that are 83237
derived from grants described in division (D) of this section;83238

       (F) Enter into contracts, including contracts with federal, 83239
state, or local governmental entities, persons as defined in 83240
section 1.59 of the Revised Code, foundations, and other types of 83241
nongovernmental entities, that are necessary for the department to 83242
carry out its duties and that neither the director nor another 83243
section of the Revised Code authorizes another division of the 83244
department to enter;83245

       (G) Exercise other powers and perform other duties that the 83246
director may assign to the division of business administration.83247

       Sec. 5120.135.  (A) As used in this section, "laboratory 83248
services" includes the performance of medical laboratory analysis; 83249
professional laboratory and pathologist consultation; the 83250
procurement, storage, and distribution of laboratory supplies; and 83251
the performance of phlebotomy services.83252

       (B) The department of rehabilitation and correction may 83253
provide laboratory services to the departments of mental health83254
mental health and addiction services, developmental disabilities, 83255
youth services, and rehabilitation and correction. The department 83256
of rehabilitation and correction may also provide laboratory 83257
services to other state, county, or municipal agencies and to 83258
private persons that request laboratory services if the department 83259
of rehabilitation and correction determines that the provision of 83260
laboratory services is in the public interest and considers it 83261
advisable to provide such services. The department of 83262
rehabilitation and correction may also provide laboratory services 83263
to agencies operated by the United States government and to public 83264
and private entities funded in whole or in part by the state if 83265
the director of rehabilitation and correction designates them as 83266
eligible to receive such services.83267

       The department of rehabilitation and correction shall provide 83268
laboratory services from a laboratory that complies with the 83269
standards for certification set by the United States department of 83270
health and human services under the "Clinical Laboratory 83271
Improvement Amendments of 1988," 102 Stat. 293, 42 U.S.C.A. 263a. 83272
In addition, the laboratory shall maintain accreditation or 83273
certification with an appropriate accrediting or certifying 83274
organization as considered necessary by the recipients of its 83275
laboratory services and as authorized by the director of 83276
rehabilitation and correction.83277

       (C) The cost of administering this section shall be 83278
determined by the department of rehabilitation and correction and 83279
shall be paid by entities that receive laboratory services to the 83280
department for deposit in the state treasury to the credit of the 83281
laboratory services fund, which is hereby created. The fund shall 83282
be used to pay the costs the department incurs in administering 83283
this section.83284

       (D) Whenever a state agency fails to make a payment for 83285
laboratory services provided to it by the department of 83286
rehabilitation and correction under this section within thirty-one 83287
days after the date the payment was due, the office of budget and 83288
management may transfer moneys from that state agency to the 83289
department of rehabilitation and correction for deposit to the 83290
credit of the laboratory services fund. The amount transferred 83291
shall not exceed the amount of the overdue payments. Prior to 83292
making a transfer under this division, the office shall apply any 83293
credits the state agency has accumulated in payment for laboratory 83294
services provided under this section.83295

       Sec. 5120.17.  (A) As used in this section:83296

       (1) "Mental illness" means a substantial disorder of thought, 83297
mood, perception, orientation, or memory that grossly impairs 83298
judgment, behavior, capacity to recognize reality, or ability to 83299
meet the ordinary demands of life.83300

       (2) "Mentally ill person subject to hospitalization" means a 83301
mentally ill person to whom any of the following applies because 83302
of the person's mental illness:83303

       (a) The person represents a substantial risk of physical harm 83304
to the person as manifested by evidence of threats of, or attempts 83305
at, suicide or serious self-inflicted bodily harm.83306

       (b) The person represents a substantial risk of physical harm 83307
to others as manifested by evidence of recent homicidal or other 83308
violent behavior, evidence of recent threats that place another in 83309
reasonable fear of violent behavior and serious physical harm, or 83310
other evidence of present dangerousness.83311

       (c) The person represents a substantial and immediate risk of 83312
serious physical impairment or injury to the person as manifested 83313
by evidence that the person is unable to provide for and is not 83314
providing for the person's basic physical needs because of the 83315
person's mental illness and that appropriate provision for those 83316
needs cannot be made immediately available in the correctional 83317
institution in which the inmate is currently housed.83318

       (d) The person would benefit from treatment in a hospital for 83319
the person's mental illness and is in need of treatment in a 83320
hospital as manifested by evidence of behavior that creates a 83321
grave and imminent risk to substantial rights of others or the 83322
person.83323

       (3) "Psychiatric hospital" means all or part of a facility 83324
that is operated and managed by the department of mental health83325
mental health and addiction services to provide psychiatric 83326
hospitalization services in accordance with the requirements of 83327
this section pursuant to an agreement between the directors of 83328
rehabilitation and correction and mental healthmental health and 83329
addiction services or, is licensed by the department of mental 83330
healthmental health and addiction services pursuant to section 83331
5119.205119.33 of the Revised Code as a psychiatric hospital and 83332
is accredited by a healthcare accrediting organization approved by 83333
the department of mental healthmental health and addiction 83334
services and the psychiatric hospital is any of the following:83335

       (a) Operated and managed by the department of rehabilitation 83336
and correction within a facility that is operated by the 83337
department of rehabilitation and correction;83338

       (b) Operated and managed by a contractor for the department 83339
of rehabilitation and correction within a facility that is 83340
operated by the department of rehabilitation and correction;83341

       (c) Operated and managed in the community by an entity that 83342
has contracted with the department of rehabilitation and 83343
correction to provide psychiatric hospitalization services in 83344
accordance with the requirements of this section.83345

       (4) "Inmate patient" means an inmate who is admitted to a 83346
psychiatric hospital.83347

       (5) "Admitted" to a psychiatric hospital means being accepted 83348
for and staying at least one night at the psychiatric hospital.83349

       (6) "Treatment plan" means a written statement of reasonable 83350
objectives and goals for an inmate patient that is based on the 83351
needs of the inmate patient and that is established by the 83352
treatment team, with the active participation of the inmate 83353
patient and with documentation of that participation. "Treatment 83354
plan" includes all of the following:83355

       (a) The specific criteria to be used in evaluating progress 83356
toward achieving the objectives and goals;83357

       (b) The services to be provided to the inmate patient during 83358
the inmate patient's hospitalization;83359

       (c) The services to be provided to the inmate patient after 83360
discharge from the hospital, including, but not limited to, 83361
housing and mental health services provided at the state 83362
correctional institution to which the inmate patient returns after 83363
discharge or community mental health services.83364

       (7) "Mentally retarded person subject to institutionalization 83365
by court order" has the same meaning as in section 5123.01 of the 83366
Revised Code.83367

       (8) "Emergency transfer" means the transfer of a mentally ill 83368
inmate to a psychiatric hospital when the inmate presents an 83369
immediate danger to self or others and requires hospital-level 83370
care.83371

       (9) "Uncontested transfer" means the transfer of a mentally 83372
ill inmate to a psychiatric hospital when the inmate has the 83373
mental capacity to, and has waived, the hearing required by 83374
division (B) of this section.83375

       (10)(a) "Independent decision-maker" means a person who is 83376
employed or retained by the department of rehabilitation and 83377
correction and is appointed by the chief or chief clinical officer 83378
of mental health services as a hospitalization hearing officer to 83379
conduct due process hearings.83380

       (b) An independent decision-maker who presides over any 83381
hearing or issues any order pursuant to this section shall be a 83382
psychiatrist, psychologist, or attorney, shall not be specifically 83383
associated with the institution in which the inmate who is the 83384
subject of the hearing or order resides at the time of the hearing 83385
or order, and previously shall not have had any treatment 83386
relationship with nor have represented in any legal proceeding the 83387
inmate who is the subject of the order.83388

       (B)(1) Except as provided in division (C) of this section, if 83389
the warden of a state correctional institution or the warden's 83390
designee believes that an inmate should be transferred from the 83391
institution to a psychiatric hospital, the department shall hold a 83392
hearing to determine whether the inmate is a mentally ill person 83393
subject to hospitalization. The department shall conduct the 83394
hearing at the state correctional institution in which the inmate 83395
is confined, and the department shall provide qualified 83396
independent assistance to the inmate for the hearing. An 83397
independent decision-maker provided by the department shall 83398
preside at the hearing and determine whether the inmate is a 83399
mentally ill person subject to hospitalization.83400

       (2) Except as provided in division (C) of this section, prior 83401
to the hearing held pursuant to division (B)(1) of this section, 83402
the warden or the warden's designee shall give written notice to 83403
the inmate that the department is considering transferring the 83404
inmate to a psychiatric hospital, that it will hold a hearing on 83405
the proposed transfer at which the inmate may be present, that at 83406
the hearing the inmate has the rights described in division (B)(3) 83407
of this section, and that the department will provide qualified 83408
independent assistance to the inmate with respect to the hearing. 83409
The department shall not hold the hearing until the inmate has 83410
received written notice of the proposed transfer and has had 83411
sufficient time to consult with the person appointed by the 83412
department to provide assistance to the inmate and to prepare for 83413
a presentation at the hearing.83414

       (3) At the hearing held pursuant to division (B)(1) of this 83415
section, the department shall disclose to the inmate the evidence 83416
that it relies upon for the transfer and shall give the inmate an 83417
opportunity to be heard. Unless the independent decision-maker 83418
finds good cause for not permitting it, the inmate may present 83419
documentary evidence and the testimony of witnesses at the hearing 83420
and may confront and cross-examine witnesses called by the 83421
department.83422

       (4) If the independent decision-maker does not find clear and 83423
convincing evidence that the inmate is a mentally ill person 83424
subject to hospitalization, the department shall not transfer the 83425
inmate to a psychiatric hospital but shall continue to confine the 83426
inmate in the same state correctional institution or in another 83427
state correctional institution that the department considers 83428
appropriate. If the independent decision-maker finds clear and 83429
convincing evidence that the inmate is a mentally ill person 83430
subject to hospitalization, the decision-maker shall order that 83431
the inmate be transported to a psychiatric hospital for 83432
observation and treatment for a period of not longer than thirty 83433
days. After the hearing, the independent decision-maker shall 83434
submit to the department a written decision that states one of the 83435
findings described in division (B)(4) of this section, the 83436
evidence that the decision-maker relied on in reaching that 83437
conclusion, and, if the decision is that the inmate should be 83438
transferred, the reasons for the transfer.83439

       (C)(1) The department may transfer an inmate to a psychiatric 83440
hospital under an emergency transfer order if the chief clinical 83441
officer of mental health services of the department or that 83442
officer's designee and either a psychiatrist employed or retained 83443
by the department or, in the absence of a psychiatrist, a 83444
psychologist employed or retained by the department determines 83445
that the inmate is mentally ill, presents an immediate danger to 83446
self or others, and requires hospital-level care.83447

       (2) The department may transfer an inmate to a psychiatric 83448
hospital under an uncontested transfer order if both of the 83449
following apply:83450

       (a) A psychiatrist employed or retained by the department 83451
determines all of the following apply:83452

       (i) The inmate has a mental illness or is a mentally ill 83453
person subject to hospitalization.83454

       (ii) The inmate requires hospital care to address the mental 83455
illness.83456

       (iii) The inmate has the mental capacity to make a reasoned 83457
choice regarding the inmate's transfer to a hospital.83458

       (b) The inmate agrees to a transfer to a hospital.83459

       (3) The written notice and the hearing required under 83460
divisions (B)(1) and (2) of this section are not required for an 83461
emergency transfer or uncontested transfer under division (C)(1) 83462
or (2) of this section.83463

       (4) After an emergency transfer under division (C)(1) of this 83464
section, the department shall hold a hearing for continued 83465
hospitalization within five working days after admission of the 83466
transferred inmate to the psychiatric hospital. The department 83467
shall hold subsequent hearings pursuant to division (F) of this 83468
section at the same intervals as required for inmate patients who 83469
are transported to a psychiatric hospital under division (B)(4) of 83470
this section.83471

       (5) After an uncontested transfer under division (C)(2) of 83472
this section, the inmate may withdraw consent to the transfer in 83473
writing at any time. Upon the inmate's withdrawal of consent, the 83474
hospital shall discharge the inmate, or, within five working days, 83475
the department shall hold a hearing for continued hospitalization. 83476
The department shall hold subsequent hearings pursuant to division 83477
(F) of this section at the same time intervals as required for 83478
inmate patients who are transported to a psychiatric hospital 83479
under division (B)(4) of this section.83480

       (D)(1) If an independent decision-maker, pursuant to division 83481
(B)(4) of this section, orders an inmate transported to a 83482
psychiatric hospital or if an inmate is transferred pursuant to 83483
division (C)(1) or (2) of this section, the staff of the 83484
psychiatric hospital shall examine the inmate patient when 83485
admitted to the psychiatric hospital as soon as practicable after 83486
the inmate patient arrives at the hospital and no later than 83487
twenty-four hours after the time of arrival. The attending 83488
physician responsible for the inmate patient's care shall give the 83489
inmate patient all information necessary to enable the patient to 83490
give a fully informed, intelligent, and knowing consent to the 83491
treatment the inmate patient will receive in the hospital. The 83492
attending physician shall tell the inmate patient the expected 83493
physical and medical consequences of any proposed treatment and 83494
shall give the inmate patient the opportunity to consult with 83495
another psychiatrist at the hospital and with the inmate advisor.83496

       (2) No inmate patient who is transported or transferred 83497
pursuant to division (B)(4) or (C)(1) or (2) of this section to a 83498
psychiatric hospital within a facility that is operated by the 83499
department of rehabilitation and correction shall be subjected to 83500
any of the following procedures:83501

       (a) Convulsive therapy;83502

       (b) Major aversive interventions;83503

       (c) Any unusually hazardous treatment procedures;83504

       (d) Psychosurgery.83505

       (E) The department of rehabilitation and correction shall 83506
ensure that an inmate patient hospitalized pursuant to this 83507
section receives or has all of the following:83508

       (1) Receives sufficient professional care within twenty days 83509
of admission to ensure that an evaluation of the inmate patient's 83510
current status, differential diagnosis, probable prognosis, and 83511
description of the current treatment plan have been formulated and 83512
are stated on the inmate patient's official chart;83513

       (2) Has a written treatment plan consistent with the 83514
evaluation, diagnosis, prognosis, and goals of treatment;83515

       (3) Receives treatment consistent with the treatment plan;83516

       (4) Receives periodic reevaluations of the treatment plan by 83517
the professional staff at intervals not to exceed thirty days;83518

       (5) Is provided with adequate medical treatment for physical 83519
disease or injury;83520

       (6) Receives humane care and treatment, including, without 83521
being limited to, the following:83522

       (a) Access to the facilities and personnel required by the 83523
treatment plan;83524

       (b) A humane psychological and physical environment;83525

       (c) The right to obtain current information concerning the 83526
treatment program, the expected outcomes of treatment, and the 83527
expectations for the inmate patient's participation in the 83528
treatment program in terms that the inmate patient reasonably can 83529
understand;83530

       (d) Opportunity for participation in programs designed to 83531
help the inmate patient acquire the skills needed to work toward 83532
discharge from the psychiatric hospital;83533

       (e) The right to be free from unnecessary or excessive 83534
medication and from unnecessary restraints or isolation;83535

       (f) All other rights afforded inmates in the custody of the 83536
department consistent with rules, policy, and procedure of the 83537
department.83538

       (F) The department shall hold a hearing for the continued 83539
hospitalization of an inmate patient who is transported or 83540
transferred to a psychiatric hospital pursuant to division (B)(4) 83541
or (C)(1) of this section prior to the expiration of the initial 83542
thirty-day period of hospitalization. The department shall hold 83543
any subsequent hearings, if necessary, not later than ninety days 83544
after the first thirty-day hearing and then not later than each 83545
one hundred and eighty days after the immediately prior hearing. 83546
An independent decision-maker shall conduct the hearings at the 83547
psychiatric hospital in which the inmate patient is confined. The 83548
inmate patient shall be afforded all of the rights set forth in 83549
this section for the hearing prior to transfer to the psychiatric 83550
hospital. The department may not waive a hearing for continued 83551
commitment. A hearing for continued commitment is mandatory for an 83552
inmate patient transported or transferred to a psychiatric 83553
hospital pursuant to division (B)(4) or (C)(1) of this section 83554
unless the inmate patient has the capacity to make a reasoned 83555
choice to execute a waiver and waives the hearing in writing. An 83556
inmate patient who is transferred to a psychiatric hospital 83557
pursuant to an uncontested transfer under division (C)(2) of this 83558
section and who has scheduled hearings after withdrawal of consent 83559
for hospitalization may waive any of the scheduled hearings if the 83560
inmate has the capacity to make a reasoned choice and executes a 83561
written waiver of the hearing.83562

       If upon completion of the hearing the independent 83563
decision-maker does not find by clear and convincing evidence that 83564
the inmate patient is a mentally ill person subject to 83565
hospitalization, the independent decision-maker shall order the 83566
inmate patient's discharge from the psychiatric hospital. If the 83567
independent decision-maker finds by clear and convincing evidence 83568
that the inmate patient is a mentally ill person subject to 83569
hospitalization, the independent decision-maker shall order that 83570
the inmate patient remain at the psychiatric hospital for 83571
continued hospitalization until the next required hearing.83572

       If at any time prior to the next required hearing for 83573
continued hospitalization, the medical director of the hospital or 83574
the attending physician determines that the treatment needs of the 83575
inmate patient could be met equally well in an available and 83576
appropriate less restrictive state correctional institution or 83577
unit, the medical director or attending physician may discharge 83578
the inmate to that facility.83579

       (G) An inmate patient is entitled to the credits toward the 83580
reduction of the inmate patient's stated prison term pursuant to 83581
Chapters 2967. and 5120. of the Revised Code under the same terms 83582
and conditions as if the inmate patient were in any other 83583
institution of the department of rehabilitation and correction.83584

       (H) The adult parole authority may place an inmate patient on 83585
parole or under post-release control directly from a psychiatric 83586
hospital.83587

       (I) If an inmate patient who is a mentally ill person subject 83588
to hospitalization is to be released from a psychiatric hospital 83589
because of the expiration of the inmate patient's stated prison 83590
term, the director of rehabilitation and correction or the 83591
director's designee, at least fourteen days before the expiration 83592
date, may file an affidavit under section 5122.11 or 5123.71 of 83593
the Revised Code with the probate court in the county where the 83594
psychiatric hospital is located or the probate court in the county 83595
where the inmate will reside, alleging that the inmate patient is 83596
a mentally ill person subject to hospitalization by court order or 83597
a mentally retarded person subject to institutionalization by 83598
court order, whichever is applicable. The proceedings in the 83599
probate court shall be conducted pursuant to Chapter 5122. or 83600
5123. of the Revised Code except as modified by this division.83601

       Upon the request of the inmate patient, the probate court 83602
shall grant the inmate patient an initial hearing under section 83603
5122.141 of the Revised Code or a probable cause hearing under 83604
section 5123.75 of the Revised Code before the expiration of the 83605
stated prison term. After holding a full hearing, the probate 83606
court shall make a disposition authorized by section 5122.15 or 83607
5123.76 of the Revised Code before the date of the expiration of 83608
the stated prison term. No inmate patient shall be held in the 83609
custody of the department of rehabilitation and correction past 83610
the date of the expiration of the inmate patient's stated prison 83611
term.83612

       (J) The department of rehabilitation and correction shall set 83613
standards for treatment provided to inmate patients.83614

       (K) A certificate, application, record, or report that is 83615
made in compliance with this section and that directly or 83616
indirectly identifies an inmate or former inmate whose 83617
hospitalization has been sought under this section is 83618
confidential. No person shall disclose the contents of any 83619
certificate, application, record, or report of that nature or any 83620
other psychiatric or medical record or report regarding a mentally 83621
ill inmate unless one of the following applies:83622

       (1) The person identified, or the person's legal guardian, if 83623
any, consents to disclosure, and the chief clinical officer or 83624
designee of mental health services of the department of 83625
rehabilitation and correction determines that disclosure is in the 83626
best interests of the person.83627

       (2) Disclosure is required by a court order signed by a 83628
judge.83629

       (3) An inmate patient seeks access to the inmate patient's 83630
own psychiatric and medical records, unless access is specifically 83631
restricted in the treatment plan for clear treatment reasons.83632

       (4) Hospitals and other institutions and facilities within 83633
the department of rehabilitation and correction may exchange 83634
psychiatric records and other pertinent information with other 83635
hospitals, institutions, and facilities of the department, but the 83636
information that may be released about an inmate patient is 83637
limited to medication history, physical health status and history, 83638
summary of course of treatment in the hospital, summary of 83639
treatment needs, and a discharge summary, if any.83640

       (5) An inmate patient's family member who is involved in 83641
planning, providing, and monitoring services to the inmate patient 83642
may receive medication information, a summary of the inmate 83643
patient's diagnosis and prognosis, and a list of the services and 83644
personnel available to assist the inmate patient and family if the 83645
attending physician determines that disclosure would be in the 83646
best interest of the inmate patient. No disclosure shall be made 83647
under this division unless the inmate patient is notified of the 83648
possible disclosure, receives the information to be disclosed, and 83649
does not object to the disclosure.83650

       (6) The department of rehabilitation and correction may 83651
exchange psychiatric hospitalization records, other mental health 83652
treatment records, and other pertinent information with county 83653
sheriffs' offices, hospitals, institutions, and facilities of the 83654
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services83655
and with community mental health agenciesservices providers and 83656
boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services with 83657
which the department of mental healthmental health and addiction 83658
services has a current agreement for patient care or services to 83659
ensure continuity of care. Disclosure under this division is 83660
limited to records regarding a mentally ill inmate's medication 83661
history, physical health status and history, summary of course of 83662
treatment, summary of treatment needs, and a discharge summary, if 83663
any. No office, department, agency, provider, or board shall 83664
disclose the records and other information unless one of the 83665
following applies:83666

       (a) The mentally ill inmate is notified of the possible 83667
disclosure and consents to the disclosure.83668

       (b) The mentally ill inmate is notified of the possible 83669
disclosure, an attempt to gain the consent of the inmate is made, 83670
and the office, department, agency, or board documents the attempt 83671
to gain consent, the inmate's objections, if any, and the reasons 83672
for disclosure in spite of the inmate's objections.83673

       (7) Information may be disclosed to staff members designated 83674
by the director of rehabilitation and correction for the purpose 83675
of evaluating the quality, effectiveness, and efficiency of 83676
services and determining if the services meet minimum standards.83677

       The name of an inmate patient shall not be retained with the 83678
information obtained during the evaluations.83679

       (L) The director of rehabilitation and correction may adopt 83680
rules setting forth guidelines for the procedures required under 83681
divisions (B), (C)(1), and (C)(2) of this section.83682

       Sec. 5120.171.  (A) The department of rehabilitation and 83683
correction shall have exclusive direction and control of the care 83684
and treatment of seriously mentally ill inmates who are in the 83685
department's custody. The department shall enter into any 83686
arrangements it considers desirable on such matters, including but 83687
not limited to both of the following:83688

       (1) The monitoring of such services by another state agency 83689
or agencies;83690

       (2) Adopting joint standards for the provision and monitoring 83691
of mental health services with the department of mental health83692
mental health and addiction services and other state agencies.83693

       (B) In order to implement its duties imposed by division (A) 83694
of this section, the department of rehabilitation and correction 83695
may enter into a contract for the provision of the mental health 83696
services described in that division.83697

       Sec. 5120.652.  To participate in the prison nursery program, 83698
each eligible inmate selected by the department shall do all the 83699
following:83700

       (A) Agree in writing to do all the following:83701

       (1) Comply with any program, educational, counseling, and 83702
other requirements established for the program by the department 83703
of rehabilitation and correction;83704

       (2) If eligible, have the child participate in the medicaid 83705
program or a health insurance program;83706

       (3) Accept the normal risks of childrearing;83707

       (4) Abide by any court decisions regarding the allocation of 83708
parental rights and responsibilities with respect to the child.83709

       (B) Assign to the department any rights to support from any 83710
other person, excluding support assigned pursuant to section 83711
5107.20 of the Revised Code and medical support assigned pursuant 83712
to section 5101.595160.38 of the Revised Code;83713

       (C) Specify with whom the child is to be placed in the event 83714
the inmate's participation in the program is terminated for a 83715
reason other than release from imprisonment.83716

       Sec. 5120.654.  (A) The rights to support assigned by an 83717
inmate pursuant to section 5120.652 of the Revised Code constitute 83718
an obligation of the person who is responsible for providing the 83719
support to the department of rehabilitation and correction for the 83720
support provided the inmate and child pursuant to the prison 83721
nursery program. The division of child support in the department 83722
of job and family services shall collect support payments made 83723
pursuant to the assignment and forward them to the department of 83724
rehabilitation and correction.83725

       (B) The department of rehabilitation and correction may 83726
receive the following:83727

       (1) Money that is assigned or donated on behalf of, and 83728
public assistance provided under Ohio works first to, a specific 83729
inmate or child participating in the prison nursery program;83730

       (2) Money assigned or donated to establish and maintain the 83731
prison nursery program.83732

       (C) The amounts described in division (B)(1) of this section 83733
shall be placed in the individual nursery account created and 83734
maintained under section 5120.655 of the Revised Code for the 83735
inmate and child for whom the money was received. The money 83736
described in division (B)(2) of this section shall be deposited in 83737
the appropriate prison nursery program fund.83738

       Sec. 5121.051.  All outstanding liability of relatives for 83739
the support of any patient or resident in a benevolent institution 83740
under the control of the department of mental healthmental health 83741
and addiction services or the department of developmental 83742
disabilities accrued prior to January 1, 1956, including the 83743
liability of the patient personally, is hereby canceled, provided 83744
that this section does not abrogate any written agreements or 83745
security arrangement for the payment of support charges entered 83746
into between the state and any patient or liable relative prior to 83747
such date.83748

       Sec. 5121.30. As used in sections 5121.30 to 5121.56 of the 83749
Revised Code:83750

       (A) "Community mental health services client" or "client" 83751
means a person receiving state-operated community mental health 83752
services.83753

       (B) "Countable assets" means all of the following:83754

       (1) Cash;83755

       (2) Bank deposits;83756

       (3) Securities;83757

       (4) Individual retirement accounts;83758

       (5) Qualified employer plans, including 401(k) and Keogh 83759
plans;83760

       (6) Annuities;83761

       (7) Funds in a trust created under section 5815.28 of the 83762
Revised Code;83763

       (8) Investment property and income;83764

       (9) The cash surrender values of life insurance policies;83765

       (10) Assets acquired by gift, bequest, devise, or 83766
inheritance;83767

       (11) Any other asset determined by the department of mental 83768
healthmental health and addiction services to be equivalent to 83769
the assets enumerated in this division.83770

       (C)(B) "Federal poverty level" or "FPL" means the income 83771
level represented by the poverty guidelines as revised annually by 83772
the United States department of health and human services in 83773
accordance with section 673(2) of the "Omnibus Reconciliation Act 83774
of 1981," 95 Stat. 511, 42 U.S.C. 9902, as amended, for a family 83775
size equal to the size of the family of the person whose income is 83776
being determined.83777

       (D)(C) "Federal poverty guidelines" means the poverty 83778
guidelines as revised annually by the United States department of 83779
health and human services in accordance with section 673(2) of the 83780
"Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1981," 95 Stat. 511, 42 83781
U.S.C. 9902, as amended, for a family size equal to the size of 83782
the family of the person whose income is being determined.83783

       (E)(D) "Hospital" means an institution, hospital, or other 83784
place established, controlled, or supervised by the department of 83785
mental healthmental health and addiction services under Chapter 83786
5119. of the Revised Code.83787

       (F)(E) "Liable relative" means all of the following:83788

       (1) A patient's spouse;83789

       (2) A patient's mother or father, or both, if the patient is 83790
under eighteen years of age;83791

       (3) A patient's guardian.83792

       (G)(F) "Patient" means a person admitted to a hospital for 83793
inpatient care or treatment, including a person transferred to a 83794
hospital from a state correctional institution or a person under 83795
indictment or conviction who has been transferred to a hospital.83796

       Sec. 5121.32.  On an annual basis, the department of mental 83797
healthmental health and addiction services shall determine both 83798
of the following using generally accepted governmental accounting 83799
principles:83800

       (A) The applicable per diem charge for each hospital operated 83801
by the department; 83802

       (B) The ancillary per diem rate for each hospital operated by 83803
the department.83804

       In determining a hospital's applicable per diem charge and 83805
ancillary per diem rate, the department shall consider the average 83806
actual per diem cost of maintaining and treating a patient at the 83807
hospital or, at the department's discretion, the average actual 83808
per diem cost of maintaining and treating a patient in a unit of 83809
the hospital.83810

       Sec. 5121.33.  Except as provided in sections 5121.35, 83811
5121.43, 5121.46, 5121.47, 5121.49, and 5121.52 of the Revised 83812
Code, the department of mental healthmental health and addiction 83813
services shall, for each billing cycle, charge a patient, 83814
patient's estate, or liable relative an amount equal to the sum of 83815
the following:83816

       (A) The applicable per diem charge multiplied by the number 83817
of days the patient was admitted to the hospital;83818

       (B) An amount that was previously billed but not paid.83819

       Sec. 5121.34.  (A) A patient, patient's estate, and patient's 83820
liable relatives shall be jointly and severally liable for amounts 83821
charged by the department of mental healthmental health and 83822
addiction services in accordance with section 5121.33 or 5121.35 83823
of the Revised Code. In no case shall any of the foregoing persons 83824
be liable for more than one hundred per cent of the full sum 83825
charged under section 5121.33 of the Revised Code.83826

       (B) Collections of support payments shall be made by the 83827
department and, subject to meeting prior requirements for payment 83828
and crediting of such collections and other available receipts, in 83829
accordance with the bond proceedings applicable to obligations 83830
issued pursuant to section 154.20 of the Revised Code. The 83831
collections and other available receipts designated by the 83832
director of mental healthmental health and addiction services for 83833
deposit in the special accounts, together with insurance contract 83834
payments provided for in section 5121.43 of the Revised Code, 83835
shall be remitted to the treasurer of state for deposit in the 83836
state treasury to the credit of the mental health operating fund, 83837
which is hereby created, to be used for the general purposes of 83838
the department. The department shall make refunds of overpayment 83839
of support charges from the mental health operating fund.83840

       Sec. 5121.35.  The department of mental healthmental health 83841
and addiction services shall charge a patient, patient's estate, 83842
or liable relative an amount discounted from the amount the 83843
department charges under section 5121.33 of the Revised Code if 83844
the department determines through the application process 83845
described in section 5121.36 of the Revised Code or through the 83846
financial assessment process described in section 5121.37 of the 83847
Revised Code that the patient, estate, or relative is eligible for 83848
a discount.83849

       Sec. 5121.36. (A) A patient, patient's estate, or liable 83850
relative may apply for a discount by completing an application 83851
form prescribed by the director of mental healthmental health and 83852
addiction services. The department of mental healthmental health 83853
and addiction services may require a patient, estate, or relative 83854
to furnish any of the following with an application form:83855

       (1) A copy of the patient's, estate's, or liable relative's 83856
federal income tax return for the year preceding the date of 83857
application or, if that is not yet available, the preceding year;83858

       (2) A copy of the patient's, estate's, or liable relative's 83859
employee tax withholding return (form W-2) for the year preceding 83860
the date of application;83861

       (3) Any other relevant documents prescribed by the director 83862
of mental healthmental health and addiction services.83863

       (B) To be considered, an application must be submitted to the 83864
department not later than ninety days after the date the patient 83865
is admitted to a hospital.83866

       (C) From the information provided by a patient, estate, or 83867
relative, the department shall determine whether the department 83868
will charge the person a discounted amount in accordance with 83869
sections 5121.40 and 5121.41 of the Revised Code. In making this 83870
determination, the department shall consider whether the patient 83871
is covered by an insurance policy or other contract that provides 83872
for payment of expenses and treatment for mental illness. If the 83873
department determines that the patient has coverage, the 83874
department shall require payment in accordance with section 83875
5121.43 of the Revised Code.83876

       (D) The department shall notify the patient, executor or 83877
administrator of the patient's estate, or liable relative who 83878
submitted the application form in writing regarding whether that 83879
person will be charged a discounted amount and the per diem rate 83880
to be charged.83881

       (E) In accordance with section 5121.42 of the Revised Code, 83882
the department may, at any time, modify an amount charged or 83883
change the per diem rate to be charged if the department learns of 83884
countable assets or income that was not previously disclosed or 83885
was acquired after the application form was submitted. Within a 83886
reasonable time, the department shall notify in writing any person 83887
affected by a modification or change.83888

       Sec. 5121.37. After a patient's admittance to a hospital, the 83889
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services83890
shall conduct a financial assessment to determine whether the 83891
patient, patient's estate, or liable relative will be charged an 83892
amount discounted from the amount the department charges under 83893
section 5121.33 of the Revised Code. The department shall make the 83894
determination in accordance with sections 5121.40 and 5121.41 of 83895
the Revised Code.83896

       If a discounted rate is to be charged, the department shall 83897
notify the person whose financial condition was assessed. The 83898
notice shall specify the per diem rate to be charged.83899

       In accordance with section 5121.42 of the Revised Code, the 83900
department may, at any time, modify an amount charged or change 83901
the per diem rate to be charged if the department learns of 83902
countable assets or income that was not previously disclosed or 83903
was acquired after the assessment was conducted. Within a 83904
reasonable time, the department shall notify in writing any person 83905
affected by a modification or change.83906

       Sec. 5121.38.  The department of mental healthmental health 83907
and addiction services may subpoena witnesses, take testimony 83908
under oath, and examine any public records relating to the income 83909
and other assets of a patient or of a relative liable for such 83910
patient's support. All information, conclusions, and 83911
recommendations shall be submitted to the department by the 83912
investigating agent of the department.83913

       Sec. 5121.40. (A) A patient, patient's estate, or liable 83914
relative may be eligible to be charged an amount discounted from 83915
the amount the department of mental healthmental health and 83916
addiction services charges under section 5121.33 of the Revised 83917
Code if the patient, estate, or relative has countable assets with 83918
a total value that is not greater than an amount equal to fifty 83919
per cent of the difference between the following:83920

        (1) The gross annual income that corresponds with a family 83921
size of two persons at one hundred per cent of the federal poverty 83922
level for the state;83923

        (2) The gross annual income that corresponds with a family 83924
size of one person at one hundred per cent of the federal poverty 83925
level for the state. For purposes of determining family size, the 83926
patient is one dependent. One additional dependent shall be 83927
included for each of the following circumstances and persons:83928

       (a) The patient or liable relative is legally blind or deaf.83929

       (b) The patient or liable relative is of sixty-five years of 83930
age or older.83931

       (c) Each child under eighteen years of age for which the 83932
patient or liable relative has legal custody;83933

       (d) The patient's or liable relative's spouse. 83934

       (B) A patient, estate, or relative may, not later than ninety 83935
days after the patient's admission to a hospital, surrender the 83936
value of countable assets sufficient to reduce countable assets to 83937
not more than the limit described in division (A) of this section.83938

       Sec. 5121.42. (A) Except as provided in division (B) of this 83939
section, a patient, patient's estate, or liable relative shall 83940
cease to be eligible for a discount under sectionssection 5121.36 83941
or 5121.37 of the Revised Code on accumulation of countable assets 83942
in excess of an amount equal to fifty per cent of the difference 83943
between the following:83944

        (1) The gross annual income that corresponds with a family 83945
size of two persons at one hundred per cent of the federal poverty 83946
level for the state;83947

        (2) The gross annual income that corresponds with a family 83948
size of one person at one hundred per cent of the federal poverty 83949
level for the state.83950

       (B) Money needed to meet the patient's needs and burial fund 83951
as determined by a needs assessment conducted by the department of 83952
mental healthmental health and addiction services pursuant to 83953
rules adopted under section 5119.015119.10 of the Revised Code 83954
shall be excluded from any determination the department makes 83955
under division (A) of this section.83956

       Sec. 5121.43. If a patient is covered by an insurance policy 83957
or other contract that provides for payment of expenses for care 83958
and treatment for mental illness at or from a hospital under the 83959
jurisdiction of the department of mental healthmental health and 83960
addiction services, sections 5121.33 to 5121.55 of the Revised 83961
Code are inapplicable to the extent that the policy or contract is 83962
in force. Any insurance carrier or other third party payor 83963
providing coverage for such care and treatment shall pay for the 83964
patient's support obligation in amounts equal to the lesser of 83965
amounts charged by the department under section 5121.33 of the 83966
Revised Code or the benefits provided under the policy or other 83967
contract. Whether or not an insured, owner of, or other person 83968
having an interest in such policy or other contract is liable for 83969
support payments, the insured, policy owner, or other person shall 83970
assign payment directly to the department of all assignable 83971
benefits under the policy or other contract and shall pay to the 83972
department, within ten days of receipt, all insurance or other 83973
benefits received as reimbursement or payment for expenses 83974
incurred by the patient or for any other reason. If the insured, 83975
policy owner, or other person refuses to assign payment to the 83976
department or refuses to pay received reimbursements or payments 83977
to the department within ten days of receipt, the total liability 83978
of the insured, policy owner, or other person for the services is 83979
an amount equal to the per diem charge for the hospital where the 83980
patient was admitted multiplied by the number of days the patient 83981
was admitted.83982

       In no event shall this total liability exceed the 83983
department's actual cost of providing care and treatment to a 83984
patient. The department may disqualify patients and liable 83985
relatives who have retained third party funds from future 83986
discounts. The department may request that the attorney general 83987
petition a court of competent jurisdiction to compel the insured, 83988
owner of, or other person having an interest in the policy or 83989
contract to comply with the assignment requirements in this 83990
section.83991

       Sec. 5121.44. The department of mental healthmental health 83992
and addiction services may enter into an extended payment 83993
agreement with a patient, patient's estate, or liable relative who 83994
has notified the department that the patient, estate, or relative 83995
cannot reasonably pay an amount the department has charged. In no 83996
case shall the department take a security interest, mortgage, or 83997
lien against the principal family residence of a patient or liable 83998
relative.83999

       Sec. 5121.45. (A) For purposes of this section, "delinquent 84000
payment" means an amount owed by a patient, patient's estate, or 84001
liable relative to the department of mental healthmental health 84002
and addiction services for which the person has failed to do 84003
either of the following not later than ninety days after the 84004
service associated with the charge was incurred:84005

       (1) Make payment in full;84006

       (2) Make a payment in accordance with the terms of an 84007
agreement entered into under section 5121.44 of the Revised Code.84008

       (B) An action to enforce the collection of a delinquent 84009
payment shall be commenced not later than six years after the 84010
later of the following:84011

       (1) The last date the department received money to satisfy 84012
the delinquent payment;84013

       (2) The date the charge was due.84014

       (C) In all actions to enforce the collection of delinquent 84015
payments, a court of record shall receive into evidence the proof 84016
of claim document made by the state together with all debts and 84017
credits. The proof of claim document shall be prima-facie evidence 84018
of the facts stated in the document.84019

       Sec. 5121.46. The department of mental healthmental health 84020
and addiction services shall not charge a liable relative under 84021
sections 5121.33 and 5121.35 of the Revised Code who has done 84022
either of the following:84023

       (A) Paid all amounts charged by the department for the care 84024
and treatment of a particular patient for fifteen consecutive 84025
years;84026

       (B) Paid amounts charged by the department for the care and 84027
treatment of more than one patient for a total of fifteen 84028
consecutive years.84029

       Sec. 5121.47. Irrespective of the number of patients for 84030
which the department of mental healthmental health and addiction 84031
services may charge a liable relative under sections 5121.33 or84032
and 5121.35 of the Revised Code, the department shall not charge a 84033
liable relative or group of liable relatives who are members of 84034
the same family unit for the support of more than one patient 84035
during the same period of time.84036

       Sec. 5121.49. (A) Any person who has been charged under 84037
section 5121.33 or 5121.35 of the Revised Code may petition the 84038
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services84039
to do the following:84040

       (1) Release the person from a charge;84041

       (2) Modify or cancel a charge.84042

       (B) The department shall respond to a petition in writing and 84043
inform the petitioner of whether a release, modification, or 84044
cancellation has been approved.84045

       Sec. 5121.50. When a patient is committed to a hospital 84046
pursuant to judicial proceedings, the judge ordering the 84047
commitment shall:84048

       (A) Make a reliable report on the financial condition of the 84049
patient and of each liable relative, as provided in rules adopted 84050
by the director of mental healthmental health and addiction 84051
services;84052

       (B) Certify the report required under division (A) of this 84053
section to the managing officer of the hospital. The managing 84054
officer shall thereupon enter in the managing officer's records 84055
the name and address of any guardian appointed and of any relative 84056
liable for the patient's support.84057

       Sec. 5121.51.  In case the estate of any patient in a 84058
hospital is sufficient for the patient's support and no guardian 84059
has been appointed for such estate, the agent of the department of 84060
mental healthmental health and addiction services shall petition 84061
the probate court of the proper county to appoint a guardian.84062

       Sec. 5121.52.  On the death of a person who is a patient, or 84063
has been a patient in a hospital, or on the death of a person 84064
responsible under section 5121.34 of the Revised Code for the 84065
support of a patient, the department of mental healthmental 84066
health and addiction services may waive the presentation of any 84067
claim for support against the estate of such decedent, when in its 84068
judgment an otherwise dependent person will be directly benefited 84069
by the estate. Claims against an estate for support of a patient 84070
are subject to section 5815.28 and Chapter 2117. of the Revised 84071
Code, and shall be treated, and may be barred, the same as the 84072
claims of other creditors of the estate, pursuant to that section 84073
or chapter.84074

       The department of mental healthmental health and addiction 84075
services may accept from a guardian or trustee of a patient a 84076
contract agreeing to pay to the state from the property of the 84077
guardian's or trustee's ward before or at the death of the ward a 84078
fixed annual amount for the support of the ward while the ward is 84079
a patient, with interest at four per cent per annum. A copy of the 84080
contract shall be filed in the probate court of the proper county 84081
and duly entered as a part of the records concerning the ward.84082

       Sec. 5121.55. The cost for support of a client of 84083
state-operated community mental health services is an amount 84084
determined using guidelines the department of mental healthmental 84085
health and addiction services shall issue. The guidelines shall be 84086
based on cost findings and rate-settings applicable to such 84087
services.84088

       Sec. 5122.01.  As used in this chapter and Chapter 5119. of 84089
the Revised Code:84090

       (A) "Mental illness" means a substantial disorder of thought, 84091
mood, perception, orientation, or memory that grossly impairs 84092
judgment, behavior, capacity to recognize reality, or ability to 84093
meet the ordinary demands of life.84094

       (B) "Mentally ill person subject to hospitalization by court 84095
order" means a mentally ill person who, because of the person's 84096
illness:84097

       (1) Represents a substantial risk of physical harm to self as 84098
manifested by evidence of threats of, or attempts at, suicide or 84099
serious self-inflicted bodily harm;84100

       (2) Represents a substantial risk of physical harm to others 84101
as manifested by evidence of recent homicidal or other violent 84102
behavior, evidence of recent threats that place another in 84103
reasonable fear of violent behavior and serious physical harm, or 84104
other evidence of present dangerousness;84105

       (3) Represents a substantial and immediate risk of serious 84106
physical impairment or injury to self as manifested by evidence 84107
that the person is unable to provide for and is not providing for 84108
the person's basic physical needs because of the person's mental 84109
illness and that appropriate provision for those needs cannot be 84110
made immediately available in the community; or84111

       (4) Would benefit from treatment in a hospital for the 84112
person's mental illness and is in need of such treatment as 84113
manifested by evidence of behavior that creates a grave and 84114
imminent risk to substantial rights of others or the person.84115

       (C)(1) "Patient" means, subject to division (C)(2) of this 84116
section, a person who is admitted either voluntarily or 84117
involuntarily to a hospital or other place under section 2945.39, 84118
2945.40, 2945.401, or 2945.402 of the Revised Code subsequent to a 84119
finding of not guilty by reason of insanity or incompetence to 84120
stand trial or under this chapter, who is under observation or 84121
receiving treatment in such place.84122

       (2) "Patient" does not include a person admitted to a 84123
hospital or other place under section 2945.39, 2945.40, 2945.401, 84124
or 2945.402 of the Revised Code to the extent that the reference 84125
in this chapter to patient, or the context in which the reference 84126
occurs, is in conflict with any provision of sections 2945.37 to 84127
2945.402 of the Revised Code.84128

       (D) "Licensed physician" means a person licensed under the 84129
laws of this state to practice medicine or a medical officer of 84130
the government of the United States while in this state in the 84131
performance of the person's official duties.84132

       (E) "Psychiatrist" means a licensed physician who has 84133
satisfactorily completed a residency training program in 84134
psychiatry, as approved by the residency review committee of the 84135
American medical association, the committee on post-graduate 84136
education of the American osteopathic association, or the American 84137
osteopathic board of neurology and psychiatry, or who on July 1, 84138
1989, has been recognized as a psychiatrist by the Ohio state 84139
medical association or the Ohio osteopathic association on the 84140
basis of formal training and five or more years of medical 84141
practice limited to psychiatry.84142

       (F) "Hospital" means a hospital or inpatient unit licensed by 84143
the department of mental healthmental health and addiction 84144
services under section 5119.205119.33 of the Revised Code, and 84145
any institution, hospital, or other place established, controlled, 84146
or supervised by the department under Chapter 5119. of the Revised 84147
Code.84148

       (G) "Public hospital" means a facility that is tax-supported 84149
and under the jurisdiction of the department of mental health84150
mental health and addiction services.84151

       (H) "Community mental health agencyservices provider" means 84152
an agency, association, corporation, individual, or program that 84153
provides community mental health services that are certified by 84154
the director of mental healthmental health and addiction services84155
under section 5119.6115119.36 of the Revised Code.84156

       (I) "Licensed clinical psychologist" means a person who holds 84157
a current valid psychologist license issued under section 4732.12 84158
or 4732.15 of the Revised Code, and in addition, meets either of 84159
the following criteria:84160

       (1) Meets the educational requirements set forth in division 84161
(B) of section 4732.10 of the Revised Code and has a minimum of 84162
two years' full-time professional experience, or the equivalent as 84163
determined by rule of the state board of psychology, at least one 84164
year of which shall be a predoctoral internship, in clinical 84165
psychological work in a public or private hospital or clinic or in 84166
private practice, diagnosing and treating problems of mental 84167
illness or mental retardation under the supervision of a 84168
psychologist who is licensed or who holds a diploma issued by the 84169
American board of professional psychology, or whose qualifications 84170
are substantially similar to those required for licensure by the 84171
state board of psychology when the supervision has occurred prior 84172
to enactment of laws governing the practice of psychology;84173

       (2) Meets the educational requirements set forth in division 84174
(B) of section 4732.15 of the Revised Code and has a minimum of 84175
four years' full-time professional experience, or the equivalent 84176
as determined by rule of the state board of psychology, in 84177
clinical psychological work in a public or private hospital or 84178
clinic or in private practice, diagnosing and treating problems of 84179
mental illness or mental retardation under supervision, as set 84180
forth in division (I)(1) of this section.84181

       (J) "Health officer" means any public health physician; 84182
public health nurse; or other person authorized by or designated 84183
by a city health district; a general health district; or a board 84184
of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services to perform 84185
the duties of a health officer under this chapter.84186

       (K) "Chief clinical officer" means the medical director of a 84187
hospital, or a community mental health agencyservices provider, 84188
or a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services, 84189
or, if there is no medical director, the licensed physician 84190
responsible for the treatment a hospital or community mental 84191
health agencyservices provider provides. The chief clinical 84192
officer may delegate to the attending physician responsible for a 84193
patient's care the duties imposed on the chief clinical officer by 84194
this chapter. Within a community mental health agencyservices 84195
provider, the chief clinical officer shall be designated by the 84196
governing body of the agencyservices provider and shall be a 84197
licensed physician or licensed clinical psychologist who 84198
supervises diagnostic and treatment services. A licensed physician 84199
or licensed clinical psychologist designated by the chief clinical 84200
officer may perform the duties and accept the responsibilities of 84201
the chief clinical officer in the chief clinical officer's 84202
absence.84203

       (L) "Working day" or "court day" means Monday, Tuesday, 84204
Wednesday, Thursday, and Friday, except when such day is a 84205
holiday.84206

       (M) "Indigent" means unable without deprivation of 84207
satisfaction of basic needs to provide for the payment of an 84208
attorney and other necessary expenses of legal representation, 84209
including expert testimony.84210

       (N) "Respondent" means the person whose detention, 84211
commitment, hospitalization, continued hospitalization or 84212
commitment, or discharge is being sought in any proceeding under 84213
this chapter.84214

       (O) "Ohio protection and advocacy system" has the same 84215
meaning as in section 5123.60 of the Revised Code.84216

       (P) "Independent expert evaluation" means an evaluation 84217
conducted by a licensed clinical psychologist, psychiatrist, or 84218
licensed physician who has been selected by the respondent or the 84219
respondent's counsel and who consents to conducting the 84220
evaluation.84221

       (Q) "Court" means the probate division of the court of common 84222
pleas.84223

       (R) "Expunge" means:84224

       (1) The removal and destruction of court files and records, 84225
originals and copies, and the deletion of all index references;84226

       (2) The reporting to the person of the nature and extent of 84227
any information about the person transmitted to any other person 84228
by the court;84229

       (3) Otherwise insuring that any examination of court files 84230
and records in question shall show no record whatever with respect 84231
to the person;84232

       (4) That all rights and privileges are restored, and that the 84233
person, the court, and any other person may properly reply that no 84234
such record exists, as to any matter expunged.84235

       (S) "Residence" means a person's physical presence in a 84236
county with intent to remain there, except that:84237

       (1) If a person is receiving a mental health service at a 84238
facility that includes nighttime sleeping accommodations, 84239
residence means that county in which the person maintained the 84240
person's primary place of residence at the time the person entered 84241
the facility;84242

       (2) If a person is committed pursuant to section 2945.38, 84243
2945.39, 2945.40, 2945.401, or 2945.402 of the Revised Code, 84244
residence means the county where the criminal charges were filed.84245

       When the residence of a person is disputed, the matter of 84246
residence shall be referred to the department of mental health84247
mental health and addiction services for investigation and 84248
determination. Residence shall not be a basis for a board's 84249
denying services to any person present in the board's service 84250
district, and the board shall provide services for a person whose 84251
residence is in dispute while residence is being determined and 84252
for a person in an emergency situation.84253

       (T) "Admission" to a hospital or other place means that a 84254
patient is accepted for and stays at least one night at the 84255
hospital or other place.84256

       (U) "Prosecutor" means the prosecuting attorney, village 84257
solicitor, city director of law, or similar chief legal officer 84258
who prosecuted a criminal case in which a person was found not 84259
guilty by reason of insanity, who would have had the authority to 84260
prosecute a criminal case against a person if the person had not 84261
been found incompetent to stand trial, or who prosecuted a case in 84262
which a person was found guilty.84263

       (V) "Treatment plan" means a written statement of reasonable 84264
objectives and goals for an individual established by the 84265
treatment team, with specific criteria to evaluate progress 84266
towards achieving those objectives. The active participation of 84267
the patient in establishing the objectives and goals shall be 84268
documented. The treatment plan shall be based on patient needs and 84269
include services to be provided to the patient while the patient 84270
is hospitalized and after the patient is discharged. The treatment 84271
plan shall address services to be provided upon discharge, 84272
including but not limited to housing, financial, and vocational 84273
services.84274

       (W) "Community control sanction" has the same meaning as in 84275
section 2929.01 of the Revised Code.84276

       (X) "Post-release control sanction" has the same meaning as 84277
in section 2967.01 of the Revised Code.84278

       Sec. 5122.03.  A patient admitted under section 5122.02 of 84279
the Revised Code who requests release in writing, or whose release 84280
is requested in writing by the patient's counsel, legal guardian, 84281
parent, spouse, or adult next of kin shall be released forthwith, 84282
except that when:84283

       (A) The patient was admitted on the patient's own application 84284
and the request for release is made by a person other than the 84285
patient, release may be conditional upon the agreement of the 84286
patient; or84287

       (B) The chief clinical officer of the hospital, within three 84288
court days from the receipt of the request for release, files or 84289
causes to be filed with the court of the county where the patient 84290
is hospitalized or of the county where the patient is a resident, 84291
an affidavit under section 5122.11 of the Revised Code. Release 84292
may be postponed until the hearing held under section 5122.141 of 84293
the Revised Code. A telephone communication within three court 84294
days from the receipt of the request for release from the chief 84295
clinical officer to the court, indicating that the required 84296
affidavit has been mailed, is sufficient compliance with the time 84297
limit for filing such affidavit.84298

       Unless the patient is released within three days from the 84299
receipt of the request by the chief clinical officer, the request 84300
shall serve as a request for an initial hearing under section 84301
5122.141 of the Revised Code. If the court finds that the patient 84302
is a mentally ill person subject to hospitalization by court 84303
order, all provisions of this chapter with respect to involuntary 84304
hospitalization apply to such person.84305

       Judicial proceedings for hospitalization shall not be 84306
commenced with respect to a voluntary patient except pursuant to 84307
this section.84308

       Sections 5121.30 to 5121.56 of the Revised Code apply to 84309
persons received in a hospital operated by the department of84310
mental healthmental health and addiction services on a voluntary 84311
application.84312

       The chief clinical officer of the hospital shall provide 84313
reasonable means and arrangements for informing patients of their 84314
rights to release as provided in this section and for assisting 84315
them in making and presenting requests for release or for a 84316
hearing under section 5122.141 of the Revised Code.84317

       Before a patient is released from a public hospital, the 84318
chief clinical officer shall, when possible, notify the board of 84319
the patient's county of residence of the patient's pending release 84320
after the chief clinical officer has informed the patient that the 84321
board will be so notified.84322

       Sec. 5122.10.  Any psychiatrist, licensed clinical 84323
psychologist, licensed physician, health officer, parole officer, 84324
police officer, or sheriff may take a person into custody, or the 84325
chief of the adult parole authority or a parole or probation 84326
officer with the approval of the chief of the authority may take a 84327
parolee, an offender under a community control sanction or a 84328
post-release control sanction, or an offender under transitional 84329
control into custody and may immediately transport the parolee, 84330
offender on community control or post-release control, or offender 84331
under transitional control to a hospital or, notwithstanding 84332
section 5119.205119.33 of the Revised Code, to a general hospital 84333
not licensed by the department of mental healthmental health and 84334
addiction services where the parolee, offender on community 84335
control or post-release control, or offender under transitional 84336
control may be held for the period prescribed in this section, if 84337
the psychiatrist, licensed clinical psychologist, licensed 84338
physician, health officer, parole officer, police officer, or 84339
sheriff has reason to believe that the person is a mentally ill 84340
person subject to hospitalization by court order under division 84341
(B) of section 5122.01 of the Revised Code, and represents a 84342
substantial risk of physical harm to self or others if allowed to 84343
remain at liberty pending examination.84344

       A written statement shall be given to such hospital by the 84345
transporting psychiatrist, licensed clinical psychologist, 84346
licensed physician, health officer, parole officer, police 84347
officer, chief of the adult parole authority, parole or probation 84348
officer, or sheriff stating the circumstances under which such 84349
person was taken into custody and the reasons for the 84350
psychiatrist's, licensed clinical psychologist's, licensed 84351
physician's, health officer's, parole officer's, police officer's, 84352
chief of the adult parole authority's, parole or probation 84353
officer's, or sheriff's belief. This statement shall be made 84354
available to the respondent or the respondent's attorney upon 84355
request of either.84356

       Every reasonable and appropriate effort shall be made to take 84357
persons into custody in the least conspicuous manner possible. A 84358
person taking the respondent into custody pursuant to this section 84359
shall explain to the respondent: the name,and professional 84360
designation, and agency affiliation of the person taking the 84361
respondent into custody; that the custody-taking is not a criminal 84362
arrest; and that the person is being taken for examination by 84363
mental health professionals at a specified mental health facility 84364
identified by name.84365

       If a person taken into custody under this section is 84366
transported to a general hospital, the general hospital may admit 84367
the person, or provide care and treatment for the person, or both, 84368
notwithstanding section 5119.205119.33 of the Revised Code, but 84369
by the end of twenty-four hours after arrival at the general 84370
hospital, the person shall be transferred to a hospital as defined 84371
in section 5122.01 of the Revised Code.84372

       A person transported or transferred to a hospital or 84373
community mental health agencyservices provider under this 84374
section shall be examined by the staff of the hospital or agency84375
services provider within twenty-four hours after arrival at the 84376
hospital or agencyservices provider. If to conduct the 84377
examination requires that the person remain overnight, the 84378
hospital or agencyservices provider shall admit the person in an 84379
unclassified status until making a disposition under this section. 84380
After the examination, if the chief clinical officer of the 84381
hospital or agencyservices provider believes that the person is 84382
not a mentally ill person subject to hospitalization by court 84383
order, the chief clinical officer shall release or discharge the 84384
person immediately unless a court has issued a temporary order of 84385
detention applicable to the person under section 5122.11 of the 84386
Revised Code. After the examination, if the chief clinical officer 84387
believes that the person is a mentally ill person subject to 84388
hospitalization by court order, the chief clinical officer may 84389
detain the person for not more than three court days following the 84390
day of the examination and during such period admit the person as 84391
a voluntary patient under section 5122.02 of the Revised Code or 84392
file an affidavit under section 5122.11 of the Revised Code. If 84393
neither action is taken and a court has not otherwise issued a 84394
temporary order of detention applicable to the person under 84395
section 5122.11 of the Revised Code, the chief clinical officer 84396
shall discharge the person at the end of the three-day period 84397
unless the person has been sentenced to the department of 84398
rehabilitation and correction and has not been released from the 84399
person's sentence, in which case the person shall be returned to 84400
that department.84401

       Sec. 5122.11.  Proceedings for the hospitalization of a 84402
person pursuant to sections 5122.11 to 5122.15 of the Revised Code 84403
shall be commenced by the filing of an affidavit in the manner and 84404
form prescribed by the department of mental healthmental health 84405
and addiction services, by any person or persons with the court, 84406
either on reliable information or actual knowledge, whichever is 84407
determined to be proper by the court. This section does not apply 84408
to the hospitalization of a person pursuant to section 2945.39, 84409
2945.40, 2945.401, or 2945.402 of the Revised Code.84410

       The affidavit shall contain an allegation setting forth the 84411
specific category or categories under division (B) of section 84412
5122.01 of the Revised Code upon which the jurisdiction of the 84413
court is based and a statement of alleged facts sufficient to 84414
indicate probable cause to believe that the person is a mentally 84415
ill person subject to hospitalization by court order. The 84416
affidavit may be accompanied, or the court may require that the 84417
affidavit be accompanied, by a certificate of a psychiatrist, or a 84418
certificate signed by a licensed clinical psychologist and a 84419
certificate signed by a licensed physician stating that the person 84420
who issued the certificate has examined the person and is of the 84421
opinion that the person is a mentally ill person subject to 84422
hospitalization by court order, or shall be accompanied by a 84423
written statement by the applicant, under oath, that the person 84424
has refused to submit to an examination by a psychiatrist, or by a 84425
licensed clinical psychologist and licensed physician.84426

       Upon receipt of the affidavit, if a judge of the court or a 84427
referee who is an attorney at law appointed by the court has 84428
probable cause to believe that the person named in the affidavit 84429
is a mentally ill person subject to hospitalization by court 84430
order, the judge or referee may issue a temporary order of 84431
detention ordering any health or police officer or sheriff to take 84432
into custody and transport the person to a hospital or other place 84433
designated in section 5122.17 of the Revised Code, or may set the 84434
matter for further hearing.84435

       The person may be observed and treated until the hearing 84436
provided for in section 5122.141 of the Revised Code. If no such 84437
hearing is held, the person may be observed and treated until the 84438
hearing provided for in section 5122.15 of the Revised Code.84439

       Sec. 5122.12.  After receipt of the affidavit required by 84440
section 5122.11 of the Revised Code, the court shall cause written 84441
notice by mail or otherwise of any hearing as the court directs to 84442
be given to the following persons:84443

       (A) The respondent;84444

       (B) The respondent's legal guardian, if any, the respondent's 84445
spouse, if any, and the respondent's parents, if the respondent is 84446
a minor, if these persons' addresses are known to the court or can 84447
be obtained through exercise of reasonable diligence;84448

       (C) The person who filed the affidavit;84449

       (D) Any one person designated by the respondent; but if the 84450
respondent does not make a selection, the notice shall be sent to 84451
the adult next of kin other than the person who filed the 84452
affidavit if that person's address is known to the court or can be 84453
obtained through exercise of reasonable diligence;84454

       (E) The respondent's counsel;84455

       (F) The director, chief clinical officer, or the respective 84456
designee of the hospital, board, agencycommunity mental health 84457
services provider, or facility to which the person has been 84458
committed;84459

       (G) The board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 84460
services serving the respondent's county of residence or an agency84461
a services provider the board designates.84462

       Any person entitled to notice under this section, with the 84463
exception of the respondent, may waive the notice.84464

       A copy of the affidavit and temporary order of detention 84465
shall be served with the notice to the parties and to respondent's 84466
counsel, if counsel has been appointed or retained.84467

       Sec. 5122.13.  Upon receipt of the affidavit required by 84468
section 5122.11 of the Revised Code, the court shall refer the 84469
affidavit to the board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental 84470
health services or an agencycommunity mental health services 84471
provider the board designates to assist the court in determining 84472
whether the respondent is subject to hospitalization and whether 84473
alternative services are available, unless the agencyservices 84474
provider or board has already performed such screening. The board 84475
or agencyservices provider shall review the allegations of the 84476
affidavit and other information relating to whether or not the 84477
person named in the affidavit or statement is a mentally ill 84478
person subject to hospitalization by court order, and the 84479
availability of appropriate treatment alternatives.84480

       The person who conducts the investigation shall promptly make 84481
a report to the court, in writing, in open court or in chambers, 84482
as directed by the court and a full record of the report shall be 84483
made by the court. The report is not admissible as evidence for 84484
the purpose of establishing whether or not the respondent is a 84485
mentally ill person subject to hospitalization by court order, but 84486
shall be considered by the court in its determination of an 84487
appropriate placement for any person after that person is found to 84488
be a mentally ill person subject to hospitalization.84489

       The court, prior to the hearing under section 5122.141 of the 84490
Revised Code, shall release a copy of the investigative report to 84491
the respondent's counsel.84492

       Nothing in this section precludes a judge or referee from 84493
issuing a temporary order of detention pursuant to section 5122.11 84494
of the Revised Code.84495

       Sec. 5122.15.  (A) Full hearings shall be conducted in a 84496
manner consistent with this chapter and with due process of law. 84497
The hearings shall be conducted by a judge of the probate court or 84498
a referee designated by a judge of the probate court and may be 84499
conducted in or out of the county in which the respondent is held. 84500
Any referee designated under this division shall be an attorney.84501

       (1) With the consent of the respondent, the following shall 84502
be made available to counsel for the respondent:84503

       (a) All relevant documents, information, and evidence in the 84504
custody or control of the state or prosecutor;84505

       (b) All relevant documents, information, and evidence in the 84506
custody or control of the hospital in which the respondent 84507
currently is held, or in which the respondent has been held 84508
pursuant to this chapter;84509

       (c) All relevant documents, information, and evidence in the 84510
custody or control of any hospital, facility, or person not 84511
included in division (A)(1)(a) or (b) of this section.84512

       (2) The respondent has the right to attend the hearing and to 84513
be represented by counsel of the respondent's choice. The right to 84514
attend the hearing may be waived only by the respondent or counsel 84515
for the respondent after consultation with the respondent.84516

       (3) If the respondent is not represented by counsel, is 84517
absent from the hearing, and has not validly waived the right to 84518
counsel, the court shall appoint counsel immediately to represent 84519
the respondent at the hearing, reserving the right to tax costs of 84520
appointed counsel to the respondent, unless it is shown that the 84521
respondent is indigent. If the court appoints counsel, or if the 84522
court determines that the evidence relevant to the respondent's 84523
absence does not justify the absence, the court shall continue the 84524
case.84525

       (4) The respondent shall be informed that the respondent may 84526
retain counsel and have independent expert evaluation. If the 84527
respondent is unable to obtain an attorney, the respondent shall 84528
be represented by court-appointed counsel. If the respondent is 84529
indigent, court-appointed counsel and independent expert 84530
evaluation shall be provided as an expense under section 5122.43 84531
of the Revised Code.84532

       (5) The hearing shall be closed to the public, unless counsel 84533
for the respondent, with the permission of the respondent, 84534
requests that the hearing be open to the public.84535

       (6) If the hearing is closed to the public, the court, for 84536
good cause shown, may admit persons who have a legitimate interest 84537
in the proceedings. If the respondent, the respondent's counsel, 84538
or the designee of the director or of the chief clinical officer 84539
objects to the admission of any person, the court shall hear the 84540
objection and any opposing argument and shall rule upon the 84541
admission of the person to the hearing.84542

       (7) The affiant under section 5122.11 of the Revised Code 84543
shall be subject to subpoena by either party.84544

       (8) The court shall examine the sufficiency of all documents 84545
filed and shall inform the respondent, if present, and the 84546
respondent's counsel of the nature and content of the documents 84547
and the reason for which the respondent is being detained, or for 84548
which the respondent's placement is being sought.84549

       (9) The court shall receive only reliable, competent, and 84550
material evidence.84551

       (10) Unless proceedings are initiated pursuant to section 84552
5120.17 or 5139.08 of the Revised Code or proceedings are 84553
initiated regarding a resident of the service district of a board 84554
of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services that elects 84555
under division (C)(2) of section 5119.62 of the Revised Code not 84556
to accept the amount allocated to it under that section, an 84557
attorney that the board designates shall present the case 84558
demonstrating that the respondent is a mentally ill person subject 84559
to hospitalization by court order. The attorney shall offer 84560
evidence of the diagnosis, prognosis, record of treatment, if any, 84561
and less restrictive treatment plans, if any. In proceedings 84562
pursuant to section 5120.17 or 5139.08 of the Revised Code and in 84563
proceedings in which the respondent is a resident of a service 84564
district of a board that elects under division (C)(2) of section 84565
5119.62 of the Revised Code not to accept the amount allocated to 84566
it under that section, the attorney general shall designate an 84567
attorney who shall present the case demonstrating that the 84568
respondent is a mentally ill person subject to hospitalization by 84569
court order. The attorney shall offer evidence of the diagnosis, 84570
prognosis, record of treatment, if any, and less restrictive 84571
treatment plans, if any.84572

       (11) The respondent or the respondent's counsel has the right 84573
to subpoena witnesses and documents and to examine and 84574
cross-examine witnesses.84575

       (12) The respondent has the right, but shall not be 84576
compelled, to testify, and shall be so advised by the court.84577

       (13) On motion of the respondent or the respondent's counsel 84578
for good cause shown, or on the court's own motion, the court may 84579
order a continuance of the hearing.84580

       (14) If the respondent is represented by counsel and the 84581
respondent's counsel requests a transcript and record, or if the 84582
respondent is not represented by counsel, the court shall make and 84583
maintain a full transcript and record of the proceeding. If the 84584
respondent is indigent and the transcript and record is made, a 84585
copy shall be provided to the respondent upon request and be 84586
treated as an expense under section 5122.43 of the Revised Code.84587

       (15) To the extent not inconsistent with this chapter, the 84588
Rules of Civil Procedure are applicable.84589

       (B) Unless, upon completion of the hearing the court finds by 84590
clear and convincing evidence that the respondent is a mentally 84591
ill person subject to hospitalization by court order, it shall 84592
order the respondent's discharge immediately.84593

       (C) If, upon completion of the hearing, the court finds by 84594
clear and convincing evidence that the respondent is a mentally 84595
ill person subject to hospitalization by court order, the court 84596
shall order the respondent for a period not to exceed ninety days 84597
to any of the following:84598

       (1) A hospital operated by the department of mental health84599
mental health and addiction services if the respondent is 84600
committed pursuant to section 5139.08 of the Revised Code;84601

       (2) A nonpublic hospital;84602

       (3) The veterans' administration or other agency of the 84603
United States government;84604

       (4) A board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 84605
services or agencyservices provider the board designates;84606

       (5) Receive private psychiatric or psychological care and 84607
treatment;84608

       (6) Any other suitable facility or person consistent with the 84609
diagnosis, prognosis, and treatment needs of the respondent.84610

       (D) Any order made pursuant to division (C)(2), (3), (5), or 84611
(6) of this section shall be conditioned upon the receipt by the 84612
court of consent by the hospital, facility, agency, or person to 84613
accept the respondent.84614

       (E) In determining the place to which, or the person with 84615
whom, the respondent is to be committed, the court shall consider 84616
the diagnosis, prognosis, preferences of the respondent and the 84617
projected treatment plan for the respondent and shall order the 84618
implementation of the least restrictive alternative available and 84619
consistent with treatment goals. If the court determines that the 84620
least restrictive alternative available that is consistent with 84621
treatment goals is inpatient hospitalization, the court's order 84622
shall so state.84623

       (F) During such ninety-day period the hospital; facility; 84624
board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services; 84625
agencyservices provider the board designates; or person shall 84626
examine and treat the individual. If, at any time prior to the 84627
expiration of the ninety-day period, it is determined by the 84628
hospital, facility, board, agencyservices provider, or person 84629
that the respondent's treatment needs could be equally well met in 84630
an available and appropriate less restrictive environment, both of 84631
the following apply:84632

       (1) The respondent shall be released from the care of the 84633
hospital, agencyservices provider, facility, or person 84634
immediately and shall be referred to the court together with a 84635
report of the findings and recommendations of the hospital, agency84636
services provider, facility, or person; and84637

       (2) The hospital, agencyservices provider, facility, or 84638
person shall notify the respondent's counsel or the attorney 84639
designated by a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental 84640
health services or, if the respondent was committed to a board or 84641
an agencya services provider designated by the board, it shall 84642
place the respondent in the least restrictive environment 84643
available consistent with treatment goals and notify the court and 84644
the respondent's counsel of the placement.84645

       The court shall dismiss the case or order placement in the 84646
least restrictive environment.84647

       (G)(1) Except as provided in divisions (G)(2) and (3) of this 84648
section, any person who has been committed under this section, or 84649
for whom proceedings for hospitalization have been commenced 84650
pursuant to section 5122.11 of the Revised Code, may apply at any 84651
time for voluntary admission to the hospital, facility, agencyor 84652
services provider that the board designates, or person to which 84653
the person was committed. Upon admission as a voluntary patient 84654
the chief clinical officer of the hospital, agencyservices 84655
provider, or other facility, or the person immediately shall 84656
notify the court, the patient's counsel, and the attorney 84657
designated by the board, if the attorney has entered the 84658
proceedings, in writing of that fact, and, upon receipt of the 84659
notice, the court shall dismiss the case. 84660

       (2) A person who is found incompetent to stand trial or not 84661
guilty by reason of insanity and who is committed pursuant to 84662
section 2945.39, 2945.40, 2945.401, or 2945.402 of the Revised 84663
Code shall not voluntarily commit the person pursuant to this 84664
section until after the final termination of the commitment, as 84665
described in division (J) of section 2945.401 of the Revised Code.84666

       (H) If, at the end of the first ninety-day period or any 84667
subsequent period of continued commitment, there has been no 84668
disposition of the case, either by discharge or voluntary 84669
admission, the hospital, facility, board, agencyservices 84670
provider, or person shall discharge the patient immediately, 84671
unless at least ten days before the expiration of the period the 84672
attorney the board designates or the prosecutor files with the 84673
court an application for continued commitment. The application of 84674
the attorney or the prosecutor shall include a written report 84675
containing the diagnosis, prognosis, past treatment, a list of 84676
alternative treatment settings and plans, and identification of 84677
the treatment setting that is the least restrictive consistent 84678
with treatment needs. The attorney the board designates or the 84679
prosecutor shall file the written report at least three days prior 84680
to the full hearing. A copy of the application and written report 84681
shall be provided to the respondent's counsel immediately.84682

       The court shall hold a full hearing on applications for 84683
continued commitment at the expiration of the first ninety-day 84684
period and at least every two years after the expiration of the 84685
first ninety-day period.84686

       Hearings following any application for continued commitment 84687
are mandatory and may not be waived.84688

       Upon request of a person who is involuntarily committed under 84689
this section, or the person's counsel, that is made more than one 84690
hundred eighty days after the person's last full hearing, 84691
mandatory or requested, the court shall hold a full hearing on the 84692
person's continued commitment. Upon the application of a person 84693
involuntarily committed under this section, supported by an 84694
affidavit of a psychiatrist or licensed clinical psychologist, 84695
alleging that the person no longer is a mentally ill person 84696
subject to hospitalization by court order, the court for good 84697
cause shown may hold a full hearing on the person's continued 84698
commitment prior to the expiration of one hundred eighty days 84699
after the person's last full hearing. Section 5122.12 of the 84700
Revised Code applies to all hearings on continued commitment.84701

       If the court, after a hearing for continued commitment finds 84702
by clear and convincing evidence that the respondent is a mentally 84703
ill person subject to hospitalization by court order, the court 84704
may order continued commitment at places specified in division (C) 84705
of this section.84706

       (I) Unless the admission is pursuant to section 5120.17 or 84707
5139.08 of the Revised Code, the chief clinical officer of the 84708
hospital or agencyservices provider admitting a respondent 84709
pursuant to a judicial proceeding, within ten working days of the 84710
admission, shall make a report of the admission to the board of 84711
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services serving the 84712
respondent's county of residence.84713

       (J) A referee appointed by the court may make all orders that 84714
a judge may make under this section and sections 5122.11 and 84715
5122.141 of the Revised Code, except an order of contempt of 84716
court. The orders of a referee take effect immediately. Within 84717
fourteen days of the making of an order by a referee, a party may 84718
file written objections to the order with the court. The filed 84719
objections shall be considered a motion, shall be specific, and 84720
shall state their grounds with particularity. Within ten days of 84721
the filing of the objections, a judge of the court shall hold a 84722
hearing on the objections and may hear and consider any testimony 84723
or other evidence relating to the respondent's mental condition. 84724
At the conclusion of the hearing, the judge may ratify, rescind, 84725
or modify the referee's order.84726

       (K) An order of the court under division (C), (H), or (J) of 84727
this section is a final order.84728

       (L) Before a board, or an agencya services provider the 84729
board designates, may place an unconsenting respondent in an 84730
inpatient setting from a less restrictive placement, the board or 84731
agencyservices provider shall do all of the following:84732

       (1) Determine that the respondent is in immediate need of 84733
treatment in an inpatient setting because the respondent 84734
represents a substantial risk of physical harm to the respondent 84735
or others if allowed to remain in a less restrictive setting;84736

       (2) On the day of placement in the inpatient setting or on 84737
the next court day, file with the court a motion for transfer to 84738
an inpatient setting or communicate to the court by telephone that 84739
the required motion has been mailed;84740

       (3) Ensure that every reasonable and appropriate effort is 84741
made to take the respondent to the inpatient setting in the least 84742
conspicuous manner possible;84743

       (4) Immediately notify the board's designated attorney and 84744
the respondent's attorney.84745

       At the respondent's request, the court shall hold a hearing 84746
on the motion and make a determination pursuant to division (E) of 84747
this section within five days of the placement.84748

       (M) Before a board, or an agencya services provider the 84749
board designates, may move a respondent from one residential 84750
placement to another, the board or agencyservices provider shall 84751
consult with the respondent about the placement. If the respondent 84752
objects to the placement, the proposed placement and the need for 84753
it shall be reviewed by a qualified mental health professional who 84754
otherwise is not involved in the treatment of the respondent.84755

       Sec. 5122.17.  Pending his removal to a hospital, a person 84756
taken into custody or ordered to be hospitalized pursuant to this 84757
chapter may be detained for not more than forty-eight hours in a 84758
licensed rest or nursing home, a licensed or unlicensed hospital, 84759
a community mental health agencyservices provider, or a county 84760
home, but hethe person shall not be detained in a nonmedical 84761
facility used for detention of persons charged with or convicted 84762
of penal offenses unless the court finds that a less restrictive 84763
alternative cannot be made available.84764

       Sec. 5122.18.  Whenever a person has been involuntarily 84765
detained at or admitted to a hospital, community mental health 84766
agencyservices provider, or other facility at the request of 84767
anyone other than the person's legal guardian, spouse, or next of 84768
kin under this chapter, the chief clinical officer of the 84769
hospital, agencyservices provider, or other facility in which the 84770
person is temporarily detained under section 5122.17 of the 84771
Revised Code shall immediately notify the person's legal guardian, 84772
spouse or next of kin, and counsel, if these persons can be 84773
ascertained through exercise of reasonable diligence. If a person 84774
voluntarily remains at or is admitted to a hospital, agency84775
services provider, or other facility, such notification shall not 84776
be given without histhe person's consent. The chief clinical 84777
officer of the hospital, agencyservices provider, or other 84778
facility shall inform a person voluntarily remaining at or 84779
admitted to a hospital, agencyservices provider, or other 84780
facility that hethe person may authorize such notification.84781

       Sec. 5122.19.  Every person transported to a hospital or 84782
community mental health agencyservices provider pursuant to 84783
sections 5122.11 to 5122.16 of the Revised Code, shall be examined 84784
by the staff of the hospital or agencyservices provider as soon 84785
as practicable after his arrival at the hospital or agency84786
services provider. Such an examination shall be held within 84787
twenty-four hours after the time of arrival, and if the chief 84788
clinical officer fails after such an examination to certify that 84789
in histhe chief clinical officer's opinion the person is a 84790
mentally ill person subject to hospitalization by court order, the 84791
person shall be immediately released.84792

       Sec. 5122.20.  The director of mental healthmental health 84793
and addiction services or the director's designee may transfer, or 84794
authorize the transfer of, an involuntary patient, or a consenting 84795
voluntary patient hospitalized pursuant to section 5122.02 or 84796
sections 5122.11 to 5122.15 of the Revised Code, from one public 84797
hospital to another, or to a hospital, community mental health 84798
agencyservices provider, or other facility offering treatment or 84799
other services for mental illness, if the medical director of the 84800
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services84801
determines that it would be consistent with the medical needs of 84802
the patient to do so. If such a transfer is made to a private 84803
facility, the transfer shall be conditioned upon the consent of 84804
the facility.84805

       Before an involuntary patient may be transferred to a more 84806
restrictive setting, the chief clinical officer shall file a 84807
motion with the court requesting the court to amend its order of 84808
placement issued under section 5122.15 of the Revised Code. At the 84809
patient's request, the court shall hold a hearing on the motion at 84810
which the patient has the same rights as at a full hearing under 84811
section 5122.15 of the Revised Code. The hearing shall be held 84812
within ten days after the date on which the respondent was 84813
transferred to the more restrictive setting or on which the motion 84814
was filed, whichever is earlier. On the motion of the respondent, 84815
the respondent's counsel, or the chief clinical officer, or on its 84816
own motion, and for good cause shown, the court may order a 84817
continuance of the hearing for up to ten days.84818

       Whenever an involuntary patient is transferred, written 84819
notice of the transfer shall be given to the patient's legal 84820
guardian, parents, spouse, and counsel, or, if none is known, to 84821
the patient's nearest known relative or friend. If the patient is 84822
a minor, the department, before making such a transfer, shall make 84823
a minute of the order for the transfer and the reason for it upon 84824
its record and shall send a certified copy at least seven days 84825
prior to the transfer to the person shown by its record to have 84826
had the care or custody of the minor immediately prior to the 84827
minor's commitment. Whenever a consenting voluntary patient is 84828
transferred, the notification shall be given only at the patient's 84829
request. The chief clinical officer shall advise a voluntary 84830
patient who is being transferred that the patient may decide if 84831
the notification shall be given. In all such transfers, due 84832
consideration shall be given to the wishes of the patient, and the 84833
relationship of the patient to the patient's family, legal 84834
guardian, or friends, so as to maintain the relationship and 84835
encourage visits beneficial to the patient.84836

       When a voluntary patient whose medical or psychological needs 84837
are found by the chief clinical officer to warrant a transfer 84838
refuses to be transferred to an alternate facility, the chief 84839
clinical officer may file an affidavit for a hearing under section 84840
5122.11 of the Revised Code.84841

       Sec. 5122.21.  (A) The chief clinical officer shall as 84842
frequently as practicable, and at least once every thirty days, 84843
examine or cause to be examined every patient, and, whenever the 84844
chief clinical officer determines that the conditions justifying 84845
involuntary hospitalization or commitment no longer obtain, shall 84846
discharge the patient not under indictment or conviction for crime 84847
and immediately make a report of the discharge to the department 84848
of mental healthmental health and addiction services. The chief 84849
clinical officer may discharge a patient who is under an 84850
indictment, a sentence of imprisonment, a community control 84851
sanction, or a post-release control sanction or on parole ten days 84852
after written notice of intent to discharge the patient has been 84853
given by personal service or certified mail, return receipt 84854
requested, to the court having criminal jurisdiction over the 84855
patient. Except when the patient was found not guilty by reason of 84856
insanity and the defendant's commitment is pursuant to section 84857
2945.40 of the Revised Code, the chief clinical officer has final 84858
authority to discharge a patient who is under an indictment, a 84859
sentence of imprisonment, a community control sanction, or a 84860
post-release control sanction or on parole.84861

       (B) After a finding pursuant to section 5122.15 of the 84862
Revised Code that a person is a mentally ill person subject to 84863
hospitalization by court order, the chief clinical officer of the 84864
hospital or agencycommunity mental health services provider to 84865
which the person is ordered or to which the person is transferred 84866
under section 5122.20 of the Revised Code, may grant a discharge 84867
without the consent or authorization of any court.84868

       Upon discharge, the chief clinical officer shall notify the 84869
court that caused the judicial hospitalization of the discharge 84870
from the hospital.84871

       Sec. 5122.23.  The chief clinical officer of a public 84872
hospital shall immediately report to the department of mental 84873
healthmental health and addiction services and the board of 84874
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services serving the 84875
patient's county of residence the removal, death, escape, 84876
discharge, or trial visit of any patient hospitalized under 84877
section 5122.15 of the Revised Code, or the return of such an 84878
escaped or visiting patient to the department, the probate judge 84879
of the county from which such patient was hospitalized, and the 84880
probate judge of the county of residence of such patient. In case 84881
of death, the chief clinical officer also shall notify one or more 84882
of the nearest relatives of the deceased patient, if known to him84883
the chief clinical officer, by letter, telegram, or telephone. If 84884
the place of residence of such relative is unknown to the chief 84885
clinical officer, immediately upon receiving notification the 84886
probate judge shall in the speediest manner possible notify such 84887
relatives, if known to himthe probate judge.84888

       The chief clinical officer of a public hospital, upon the 84889
request of the probate judge of the county from which a patient 84890
was hospitalized or the probate judge of the county of residence 84891
of such a patient, shall make a report to the judge of the 84892
condition of any patient under the care, treatment, custody, or 84893
control of the chief clinical officer.84894

       Sec. 5122.25.  Upon the request of a hospital, person, board,84895
agencycommunity mental health services provider, or facility who 84896
has custody of a patient hospitalized pursuant to section 5122.15 84897
of the Revised Code, or on the order of the court, such patient 84898
may be called for a rehearing at such place within the county of 84899
histhe patient's residence or the county where such patient is 84900
hospitalized as the court designates. The hearing shall be 84901
conducted pursuant to section 5122.15 of the Revised Code.84902

       Sec. 5122.26.  (A) If a patient is absent without leave, on a 84903
verbal or written order issued within five days of the time of the 84904
unauthorized absence by the department of mental healthmental 84905
health and addiction services, the chief clinical officer of the 84906
hospital from which the patient is absent without leave, or the 84907
court of either the county from which the patient was committed or 84908
in which the patient is found, any health or police officer or 84909
sheriff may take the patient into custody and transport the 84910
patient to the hospital in which the patient was hospitalized or 84911
to a place that is designated in the order. The officer 84912
immediately shall report such fact to the agencyentity that 84913
issued the order.84914

       The chief clinical officer of a hospital may discharge a 84915
patient who is under an indictment, a sentence of imprisonment, a 84916
community control sanction, or a post-release control sanction or 84917
on parole and who has been absent without leave for more than 84918
thirty days but shall give written notice of the discharge to the 84919
court with criminal jurisdiction over the patient. The chief 84920
clinical officer of a hospital may discharge any other patient who 84921
has been absent without leave for more than fourteen days.84922

       The chief clinical officer shall take all proper measures for 84923
the apprehension of an escaped patient. The expense of the return 84924
of an escaped patient shall be borne by the hospital where the 84925
patient is hospitalized.84926

       (B)(1) Subject to division (B)(2) of this section, no patient 84927
hospitalized under Chapter 5122. of the Revised Code whose absence 84928
without leave was caused or contributed to by the patient's mental 84929
illness shall be subject to a charge of escape.84930

       (2) Division (B)(1) of this section does not apply to any 84931
person who was hospitalized, institutionalized, or confined in a 84932
facility under an order made pursuant to or under authority of 84933
section 2945.37, 2945.371, 2945.38, 2945.39, 2945.40, 2945.401, or 84934
2945.402 of the Revised Code and who escapes from the facility, 84935
from confinement in a vehicle for transportation to or from the 84936
facility, or from supervision by an employee of the facility that 84937
is incidental to hospitalization, institutionalization, or 84938
confinement in the facility and that occurs outside the facility, 84939
in violation of section 2921.34 of the Revised Code.84940

       Sec. 5122.27.  The chief clinical officer of the hospital or 84941
the chief clinical officer's designee shall assure that all 84942
patients hospitalized or committed pursuant to this chapter shall:84943

       (A) Receive, within twenty days of their admission sufficient 84944
professional care to assure that an evaluation of current status, 84945
differential diagnosis, probable prognosis, and description of the 84946
current treatment plan is stated on the official chart;84947

       (B) Have a written treatment plan consistent with the 84948
evaluation, diagnosis, prognosis, and goals which shall be 84949
provided, upon request of the patient or patient's counsel, to the 84950
patient's counsel and to any private physician or licensed 84951
clinical psychologist designated by the patient or the patient's 84952
counsel or to the Ohio protection and advocacy system;84953

       (C) Receive treatment consistent with the treatment plan. The 84954
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services84955
shall set standards for treatment provided to such patients, 84956
consistent wherever possible with standards set by the joint 84957
commission on accreditation of healthcare organizations.84958

       (D) Receive periodic reevaluations of the treatment plan by 84959
the professional staff at intervals not to exceed ninety days;84960

       (E) Be provided with adequate medical treatment for physical 84961
disease or injury;84962

       (F) Receive humane care and treatment, including without 84963
limitation, the following:84964

       (1) The least restrictive environment consistent with the 84965
treatment plan;84966

       (2) The necessary facilities and personnel required by the 84967
treatment plan;84968

       (3) A humane psychological and physical environment;84969

       (4) The right to obtain current information concerning the 84970
patient's treatment program and expectations in terms that the 84971
patient can reasonably understand;84972

       (5) Participation in programs designed to afford the patient 84973
substantial opportunity to acquire skills to facilitate return to 84974
the community or to terminate an involuntary commitment;84975

       (6) The right to be free from unnecessary or excessive 84976
medication;84977

       (7) Freedom from restraints or isolation unless it is stated 84978
in a written order by the chief clinical officer or the chief 84979
clinical officer's designee, or the patient's individual physician 84980
or psychologist in a private or general hospital.84981

       If the chief clinical officer of the hospital is unable to 84982
provide the treatment required by divisions (C), (E), and (F) of 84983
this section for any patient hospitalized pursuant to Chapter 84984
5122. of the Revised Code, the chief clinical officer shall 84985
immediately notify the patient, the court, the Ohio protection and 84986
advocacy system, the director of mental healthmental health and 84987
addiction services, and the patient's counsel and legal guardian, 84988
if known. If within ten days after receipt of such notification by 84989
the director, the director is unable to effect a transfer of the 84990
patient, pursuant to section 5122.20 of the Revised Code, to a 84991
hospital, community mental health agencyservices provider, or 84992
other medical facility where treatment is available, or has not 84993
received an order of the court to the contrary, the involuntary 84994
commitment of any patient hospitalized pursuant to Chapter 5122. 84995
of the Revised Code and defined as a mentally ill person subject 84996
to hospitalization by court order under division (B)(4) of section 84997
5122.01 of the Revised Code shall automatically be terminated.84998

       Sec. 5122.271.  (A) Except as provided in divisions (C), (D), 84999
and (E) of this section, the chief clinical officer or, in a 85000
nonpublic hospital, the attending physician responsible for a 85001
patient's care shall provide all information, including expected 85002
physical and medical consequences, necessary to enable any patient 85003
of a hospital for the mentally ill to give a fully informed, 85004
intelligent, and knowing consent, the opportunity to consult with 85005
independent specialists and counsel, and the right to refuse 85006
consent for any of the following:85007

       (1) Surgery;85008

       (2) Convulsive therapy;85009

       (3) Major aversive interventions;85010

       (4) Sterilizations;85011

       (5) Any unusually hazardous treatment procedures;85012

       (6) Psycho-surgery.85013

       (B) No patient shall be subjected to any of the procedures 85014
listed in divisions (A)(4) to (6) of this section until both the 85015
patient's informed, intelligent, and knowing consent and the 85016
approval of the court have been obtained, except that court 85017
approval is not required for a legally competent and voluntary 85018
patient in a nonpublic hospital.85019

       (C) If, after providing the information required under 85020
division (A) of this section to the patient, the chief clinical 85021
officer or attending physician concludes that a patient is 85022
physically or mentally unable to receive the information required 85023
for surgery under division (A)(1) of this section, or has been 85024
adjudicated incompetent, the information may be provided to the 85025
patient's natural or court-appointed guardian, who may give an 85026
informed, intelligent, and knowing written consent.85027

       If a patient is physically or mentally unable to receive the 85028
information required for surgery under division (A)(1) of this 85029
section and has no guardian, the information, the recommendation 85030
of the chief clinical officer, and the concurring judgment of a 85031
licensed physician who is not a full-time employee of the state 85032
may be provided to the court in the county in which the hospital 85033
is located, which may approve the surgery. Before approving the 85034
surgery, the court shall notify the Ohio protection and advocacy 85035
system created by section 5123.60 of the Revised Code, and shall 85036
notify the patient of the rights to consult with counsel, to have 85037
counsel appointed by the court if the patient is indigent, and to 85038
contest the recommendation of the chief clinical officer.85039

       (D) If, in a medical emergency, and after providing the 85040
information required under division (A) of this section to the 85041
patient, it is the judgment of one licensed physician that delay 85042
in obtaining surgery would create a grave danger to the health of 85043
the patient, it may be administered without the consent of the 85044
patient or the patient's guardian if the necessary information is 85045
provided to the patient's spouse or next of kin to enable that 85046
person to give informed, intelligent, and knowing written consent. 85047
If no spouse or next of kin can reasonably be contacted, or if the 85048
spouse or next of kin is contacted, but refuses to consent, the 85049
surgery may be performed upon the written authorization of the 85050
chief clinical officer or, in a nonpublic hospital, upon the 85051
written authorization of the attending physician responsible for 85052
the patient's care, and after the approval of the court has been 85053
obtained. However, if delay in obtaining court approval would 85054
create a grave danger to the life of the patient, the chief 85055
clinical officer or, in a nonpublic hospital, the attending 85056
physician responsible for the patient's care may authorize 85057
surgery, in writing, without court approval. If the surgery is 85058
authorized without court approval, the chief clinical officer or 85059
the attending physician who made the authorization and the 85060
physician who performed the surgery shall each execute an 85061
affidavit describing the circumstances constituting the emergency 85062
and warranting the surgery and the circumstances warranting their 85063
not obtaining prior court approval. The affidavit shall be filed 85064
with the court with which the request for prior approval would 85065
have been filed within five court days after the surgery, and a 85066
copy of the affidavit shall be placed in the patient's file and be 85067
given to the guardian, spouse, or next of kin of the patient, to 85068
the hospital at which the surgery was performed, and to the Ohio 85069
protection and advocacy system as defined in section 5123.60 of 85070
the Revised Code.85071

       (E) Major aversive interventions shall not be used unless a 85072
patient continues to engage in behavior destructive to self or 85073
others after other forms of therapy have been attempted. Major 85074
aversive interventions may be applied if approved by the director 85075
of mental healthmental health and addiction services. Major 85076
aversive interventions shall not be applied to a voluntary patient 85077
without the informed, intelligent, and knowing written consent of 85078
the patient or the patient's guardian.85079

       (F) Unless there is substantial risk of physical harm to self 85080
or others, or other than under division (D) of this section, this 85081
chapter does not authorize any form of compulsory medical, 85082
psychological, or psychiatric treatment of any patient who is 85083
being treated by spiritual means through prayer alone in 85084
accordance with a recognized religious method of healing without 85085
specific court authorization.85086

       (G) For purposes of this section, "convulsive therapy" does 85087
not include defibrillation.85088

       Sec. 5122.31.  (A) All certificates, applications, records, 85089
and reports made for the purpose of this chapter and sections 85090
2945.38, 2945.39, 2945.40, 2945.401, and 2945.402 of the Revised 85091
Code, other than court journal entries or court docket entries, 85092
and directly or indirectly identifying a patient or former patient 85093
or person whose hospitalization has been sought under this 85094
chapter, shall be kept confidential and shall not be disclosed by 85095
any person except:85096

       (1) If the person identified, or the person's legal guardian, 85097
if any, or if the person is a minor, the person's parent or legal 85098
guardian, consents, and if the disclosure is in the best interests 85099
of the person, as may be determined by the court for judicial 85100
records and by the chief clinical officer for medical records;85101

       (2) When disclosure is provided for in this chapter, Chapters 85102
340. or 5119., Title XLVII, or section 5123.601 of the Revised 85103
Code;85104

       (3) That hospitals, boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and 85105
mental health services, and community mental health agencies85106
services providers may release necessary medical information to 85107
insurers and other third-party payers, including government 85108
entities responsible for processing and authorizing payment, to 85109
obtain payment for goods and services furnished to the patient;85110

       (4) Pursuant to a court order signed by a judge;85111

       (5) That a patient shall be granted access to the patient's 85112
own psychiatric and medical records, unless access specifically is 85113
restricted in a patient's treatment plan for clear treatment 85114
reasons;85115

       (6) That hospitals and other institutions and facilities 85116
within the department of mental healthmental health and addiction 85117
services may exchange psychiatric records and other pertinent 85118
information with other hospitals, institutions, and facilities of 85119
the department, and with community mental health agenciesservices 85120
providers and boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 85121
services with which the department has a current agreement for 85122
patient care or services. Records and information that may be 85123
released pursuant to this division shall be limited to medication 85124
history, physical health status and history, financial status, 85125
summary of course of treatment in the hospital, summary of 85126
treatment needs, and a discharge summary, if any.85127

       (7) That hospitals within the department,and other 85128
institutions and facilities within the department, hospitals 85129
licensed by the department under section 5119.20 of the Revised 85130
Code, and community mental health agencies may exchange 85131
psychiatric records and other pertinent information with payers 85132
and other providers of treatment and health services if the 85133
purpose of the exchange is to facilitate continuity of care for a 85134
patient or for the emergency treatment of an individual;85135

       (8) That a patient's family member who is involved in the 85136
provision, planning, and monitoring of services to the patient may 85137
receive medication information, a summary of the patient's 85138
diagnosis and prognosis, and a list of the services and personnel 85139
available to assist the patient and the patient's family, if the 85140
patient's treating physician determines that the disclosure would 85141
be in the best interests of the patient. No such disclosure shall 85142
be made unless the patient is notified first and receives the 85143
information and does not object to the disclosure.85144

       (9) That community mental health agenciesservices providers85145
may exchange psychiatric records and certain other information 85146
with the board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 85147
services and other agenciesservices providers in order to 85148
provide services to a person involuntarily committed to a board. 85149
Release of records under this division shall be limited to 85150
medication history, physical health status and history, financial 85151
status, summary of course of treatment, summary of treatment 85152
needs, and discharge summary, if any.85153

       (10) That information may be disclosed to the executor or the 85154
administrator of an estate of a deceased patient when the 85155
information is necessary to administer the estate;85156

       (11) That records in the possession of the Ohio historical 85157
society may be released to the closest living relative of a 85158
deceased patient upon request of that relative;85159

       (12) That information may be disclosed to staff members of 85160
the appropriate board or to staff members designated by the 85161
director of mental health for the purpose of evaluating the 85162
quality, effectiveness, and efficiency of services and determining 85163
if the services meet minimum standards. Information obtained 85164
during such evaluations shall not be retained with the name of any 85165
patient.85166

       (13) That records pertaining to the patient's diagnosis, 85167
course of treatment, treatment needs, and prognosis shall be 85168
disclosed and released to the appropriate prosecuting attorney if 85169
the patient was committed pursuant to section 2945.38, 2945.39, 85170
2945.40, 2945.401, or 2945.402 of the Revised Code, or to the 85171
attorney designated by the board for proceedings pursuant to 85172
involuntary commitment under this chapter.85173

       (14)(13) That the department of mental healthmental health 85174
and addiction services may exchange psychiatric hospitalization 85175
records, other mental health treatment records, and other 85176
pertinent information with the department of rehabilitation and 85177
correction and with the department of youth services to ensure 85178
continuity of care for inmates or offenders who are receiving 85179
mental health services in an institution of the department of 85180
rehabilitation and correction or the department of youth services 85181
and may exchange psychiatric hospitalization records, other mental 85182
health treatment records, and other pertinent information with 85183
boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services and 85184
community mental health services providers to ensure continuity of 85185
care for inmates or offenders who are receiving mental health 85186
services in an institution and are scheduled for release within 85187
six months. The department shall not disclose those records unless 85188
the inmate or offender is notified, receives the information, and 85189
does not object to the disclosure. The release of records under 85190
this division is limited to records regarding an inmate's or 85191
offender's medication history, physical health status and history, 85192
summary of course of treatment, summary of treatment needs, and a 85193
discharge summary, if any.85194

       (15) That a community mental health agency that ceases to 85195
operate may transfer to either a community mental health agency 85196
that assumes its caseload or to the board of alcohol, drug 85197
addiction, and mental health services of the service district in 85198
which the patient resided at the time services were most recently 85199
provided any treatment records that have not been transferred 85200
elsewhere at the patient's request.85201

       (B) Before records are disclosed pursuant to divisions 85202
(A)(3), (6), and (9) of this section, the custodian of the records 85203
shall attempt to obtain the patient's consent for the disclosure. 85204
No person shall reveal the contents of a medical record of a 85205
patient except as authorized by law.85206

       (C) The managing officer of a hospital who releases necessary 85207
medical information under division (A)(3) of this section to allow 85208
an insurance carrier or other third party payor to comply with 85209
section 5121.43 of the Revised Code shall neither be subject to 85210
criminal nor civil liability.85211

       Sec. 5122.311. (A) Notwithstanding any provision of the 85212
Revised Code to the contrary, if, on or after the effective date 85213
of this sectionApril 8, 2004, an individual is found by a court 85214
to be a mentally ill person subject to hospitalization by court 85215
order or becomes an involuntary patient other than one who is a 85216
patient only for purposes of observation, the probate judge who 85217
made the adjudication or the chief clinical officer of the 85218
hospital, agencycommunity mental health services provider, or 85219
facility in which the person is an involuntary patient shall 85220
notify the bureau of criminal identification and investigation, on 85221
the form described in division (C) of this section, of the 85222
identity of the individual. The notification shall be transmitted 85223
by the judge or the chief clinical officer not later than seven 85224
days after the adjudication or commitment.85225

       (B) The bureau of criminal identification and investigation 85226
shall compile and maintain the notices it receives under division 85227
(A) of this section and shall use them for the purpose of 85228
conducting incompetency records checks pursuant to section 311.41 85229
of the Revised Code. The notices and the information they contain 85230
are confidential, except as provided in this division, and are not 85231
public records.85232

       (C) The attorney general, by rule adopted under Chapter 119. 85233
of the Revised Code, shall prescribe and make available to all 85234
probate judges and all chief clinical officers a form to be used 85235
by them for the purpose of making the notifications required by 85236
division (A) of this section.85237

       Sec. 5122.32.  (A) As used in this section:85238

       (1) "Quality assurance committee" means a committee that is 85239
appointed in the central office of the department of mental health85240
mental health and addiction services by the director of mental 85241
healthmental health and addiction services, a committee of a 85242
hospital or community setting program, a committee established 85243
pursuant to section 5119.47 of the Revised Code of the department 85244
of mental health appointed by the managing officer of the hospital 85245
or program, or a duly authorized subcommittee of a committee of 85246
that nature and that is designated to carry out quality assurance 85247
program activities.85248

       (2) "Quality assurance program" means a comprehensive program 85249
within the department of mental healthmental health and addiction 85250
services to systematically review and improve the quality of 85251
medical and mental health services within the department and its 85252
hospitals and community setting programs, the safety and security 85253
of persons receiving medical and mental health services within the 85254
department and its hospitals and community setting programs, and 85255
the efficiency and effectiveness of the utilization of staff and 85256
resources in the delivery of medical and mental health services 85257
within the department and its hospitals and community setting 85258
programs. "Quality assurance program" includes the central office 85259
quality assurance committees, morbidity and mortality review 85260
committees, quality assurance programs of community setting 85261
programs, quality assurance committees of hospitals operated by 85262
the department of mental healthmental health and addiction 85263
services, and the office of licensure and certification of the 85264
department.85265

       (3) "Quality assurance program activities" include collecting 85266
or compiling information and reports required by a quality 85267
assurance committee, receiving, reviewing, or implementing the 85268
recommendations made by a quality assurance committee, and 85269
credentialing, privileging, infection control, tissue review, peer 85270
review, utilization review including access to patient care 85271
records, patient care assessment records, and medical and mental 85272
health records, medical and mental health resource management, 85273
mortality and morbidity review, and identification and prevention 85274
of medical or mental health incidents and risks, whether performed 85275
by a quality assurance committee or by persons who are directed by 85276
a quality assurance committee.85277

       (4) "Quality assurance records" means the proceedings, 85278
discussion, records, findings, recommendations, evaluations, 85279
opinions, minutes, reports, and other documents or actions that 85280
emanate from quality assurance committees, quality assurance 85281
programs, or quality assurance program activities. "Quality 85282
assurance records" does not include aggregate statistical 85283
information that does not disclose the identity of persons 85284
receiving or providing medical or mental health services in 85285
department of mental health institutionsmental health and 85286
addiction services hospitals or community setting programs .85287

       (B)(1) Except as provided in division (E) of this section, 85288
quality assurance records are confidential and are not public 85289
records under section 149.43 of the Revised Code, and shall be 85290
used only in the course of the proper functions of a quality 85291
assurance program. 85292

       (2) Except as provided in division (E) of this section, no 85293
person who possesses or has access to quality assurance records 85294
and who knows that the records are quality assurance records shall 85295
willfully disclose the contents of the records to any person or 85296
entity.85297

       (C)(1) Except as provided in division (E) of this section, no 85298
quality assurance record shall be subject to discovery in, and is 85299
not admissible in evidence, in any judicial or administrative 85300
proceeding.85301

       (2) Except as provided in division (E) of this section, no 85302
member of a quality assurance committee or a person who is 85303
performing a function that is part of a quality assurance program 85304
shall be permitted or required to testify in a judicial or 85305
administrative proceeding with respect to quality assurance 85306
records or with respect to any finding, recommendation, 85307
evaluation, opinion, or other action taken by the committee, 85308
member, or person.85309

       (3) Information, documents, or records otherwise available 85310
from original sources are not to be construed as being unavailable 85311
for discovery or admission in evidence in a judicial or 85312
administrative proceeding merely because they were presented to a 85313
quality assurance committee. No person testifying before a quality 85314
assurance committee or person who is a member of a quality 85315
assurance committee shall be prevented from testifying as to 85316
matters within the person's knowledge, but the witness cannot be 85317
asked about the witness' testimony before the quality assurance 85318
committee or about an opinion formed by the person as a result of 85319
the quality assurance committee proceedings.85320

       (D)(1) A person who, without malice and in the reasonable 85321
belief that the information is warranted by the facts known to the 85322
person, provides information to a person engaged in quality 85323
assurance program activities is not liable for damages in a civil 85324
action for injury, death, or loss to person or property to any 85325
person as a result of providing the information.85326

       (2) A member of a quality assurance committee, a person 85327
engaged in quality assurance program activities, and an employee 85328
of the department of mental healthmental health and addiction 85329
services shall not be liable in damages in a civil action for 85330
injury, death, or loss to person or property to any person for any 85331
acts, omissions, decisions, or other conduct within the scope of 85332
the functions of the quality assurance program.85333

       (3) Nothing in this section shall relieve any institution or 85334
individual from liability arising from the treatment of a patient.85335

       (E) Quality assurance records may be disclosed, and testimony 85336
may be provided concerning quality assurance records, only to the 85337
following persons or entities:85338

       (1) Persons who are employed or retained by the department of 85339
mental healthmental health and addiction services and who have 85340
authority to evaluate or implement the recommendations of a 85341
state-operated hospital, community setting program, or central 85342
office quality assurance committee;85343

       (2) Public or private agencies or organizations if needed to 85344
perform a licensing or accreditation function related to 85345
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services85346
hospitals or community setting programs, or to perform monitoring 85347
of a hospital or program of that nature as required by law.85348

       (F) A disclosure of quality assurance records pursuant to 85349
division (E) of this section does not otherwise waive the 85350
confidential and privileged status of the disclosed quality 85351
assurance records.85352

       (G) Nothing in this section shall limit the access of the 85353
Ohio protection and advocacy system to records or personnel as 85354
required under section 5123.601 of the Revised Code. Nothing in 85355
this section shall limit the admissibility of documentary or 85356
testimonial evidence in an action brought by the Ohio protection 85357
and advocacy system in its own name or on behalf of a client.85358

       Sec. 5122.33.  The department of mental healthmental health 85359
and addiction services may prescribe the form of applications, 85360
reports, records, and medical certificates provided for under this 85361
chapter, and the information required to be contained therein; 85362
require reports from the chief clinical officer of any public 85363
hospital relating to the admission, examination, diagnosis, 85364
release, or discharge of any patient; visit each such hospital 85365
regularly to review the admission procedures of all new patients 85366
admitted between visits; investigate by personal visit complaints 85367
made by any patient or by any person on behalf of a patient; and 85368
adopt such rules as are reasonably necessary to effectuate the 85369
provisions of this chapter.85370

       Sec. 5122.34.  (A) Persons, including, but not limited to, 85371
boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services and 85372
community mental health agenciesservices providers, acting in 85373
good faith, either upon actual knowledge or information thought by 85374
them to be reliable, who procedurally or physically assist in the 85375
hospitalization or discharge, determination of appropriate 85376
placement, or in judicial proceedings of a person under this 85377
chapter, do not come within any criminal provisions, and are free 85378
from any liability to the person hospitalized or to any other 85379
person. 85380

       (B) Regardless of whether any affirmative action has been 85381
taken under this chapter with respect to a mental health client or 85382
patient and except as otherwise provided in section 2305.51 of the 85383
Revised Code, no person shall be liable for any harm that results 85384
to any other person as a result of failing to disclose any 85385
confidential information about the mental health client or 85386
patient, or failing to otherwise attempt to protect such other 85387
person from harm by such client or patient. 85388

       (C) This section applies to expert witnesses who testify at 85389
hearings under this chapter.85390

       (D) The immunity from liability conferred by this section is 85391
in addition to and not in limitation of any immunity conferred by 85392
any other section of the Revised Code or by judicial precedent.85393

       Sec. 5122.341.  (A) As used in this section:85394

       (1) "Facility or agencyprovider" means, in the context of a 85395
person committed to the department of mental healthmental health 85396
and addiction services under sections 2945.37 to 2945.402 of the 85397
Revised Code, any entity in which the department of mental health85398
mental health and addiction services places such a person. 85399

       (2) "Person committed to the department" means a person 85400
committed to the department of mental healthmental health and 85401
addiction services under sections 2945.37 to 2945.402 of the 85402
Revised Code.85403

       (B) No member of a board of directors, or employee, of a 85404
facility or agencyprovider in which the department of mental 85405
healthmental health and addiction services places a person 85406
committed to the department is liable for injury or damages caused 85407
by any action or inaction taken within the scope of the board 85408
member's official duties or employee's employment relating to the 85409
commitment of, and services provided to, the person committed to 85410
the department, unless the action or inaction constitutes willful 85411
or wanton misconduct. A board member's or employee's action or 85412
inaction does not constitute willful or wanton misconduct if the 85413
board member or employee acted in good faith and reasonably under 85414
the circumstances and with the knowledge reasonably attributable 85415
to the board member or employee.85416

       The immunity from liability conferred by this section is in 85417
addition to and not in limitation of any immunity conferred by any 85418
other section of the Revised Code or by judicial precedent.85419

       Sec. 5122.39.  (A) Mentally ill minors shall remain under the 85420
natural guardianship of their parents, notwithstanding 85421
hospitalization pursuant to this chapter, unless parental rights 85422
have been terminated pursuant to a court finding that the minor is 85423
neglected or dependent. Where a mentally ill minor is found to be 85424
dependent or neglected, the public children's services agency in 85425
the county of residence has final guardianship authority and 85426
responsibility.85427

       (B) In no case shall the guardianship of a mentally ill 85428
person be assigned to the chief medical officer or any staff 85429
member of a hospital, board, or agencyprovider from which the 85430
person is receiving mental health services.85431

       Sec. 5122.43.  (A) Costs, fees, and expenses of all 85432
proceedings held under this chapter shall be paid as follows:85433

       (1) To police and health officers, other than sheriffs or 85434
their deputies, the same fees allowed to constables, to be paid 85435
upon the approval of the probate judge;85436

       (2) To sheriffs or their deputies, the same fees allowed for 85437
similar services in the court of common pleas;85438

       (3) To physicians or licensed clinical psychologists acting 85439
as expert witnesses and to other expert witnesses designated by 85440
the court, an amount determined by the court;85441

       (4) To other witnesses, the same fees and mileage as for 85442
attendance at the court of common pleas, to be paid upon the 85443
approval of the probate judge;85444

       (5) To a person, other than the sheriff or the sheriff's 85445
deputies, for taking a mentally ill person to a hospital or 85446
removing a mentally ill person from a hospital, the actual 85447
necessary expenses incurred, specifically itemized, and approved 85448
by the probate judge;85449

       (6) To assistants who convey mentally ill persons to the 85450
hospital when authorized by the probate judge, a fee set by the 85451
probate court, provided the assistants are not drawing a salary 85452
from the state or any political subdivision of the state, and 85453
their actual necessary expenses incurred, provided that the 85454
expenses are specifically itemized and approved by the probate 85455
judge;85456

       (7) To an attorney appointed by the probate division for an 85457
indigent who allegedly is a mentally ill person pursuant to any 85458
section of this chapter, the fees that are determined by the 85459
probate division. When those indigent persons are before the 85460
court, all filing and recording fees shall be waived.85461

       (8) To a referee who is appointed to conduct proceedings 85462
under this chapter that involve a respondent whose domicile is or, 85463
before the respondent's hospitalization, was not the county in 85464
which the proceedings are held, compensation as fixed by the 85465
probate division, but not more than the compensation paid for 85466
similar proceedings for respondents whose domicile is in the 85467
county in which the proceedings are held;85468

       (9) To a court reporter appointed to make a transcript of 85469
proceedings under this chapter, the compensation and fees allowed 85470
in other cases under section 2101.08 of the Revised Code.85471

       (B) A county shall pay for the costs, fees, and expenses 85472
described in division (A) of this section with money appropriated 85473
pursuant to section 2101.11 of the Revised Code. A county may seek 85474
reimbursement from the department of mental healthmental health 85475
and addiction services by submitting a request and certification 85476
by the county auditor of the costs, fees, and expenses to the 85477
department within two months of the date the costs, fees, and 85478
expenses are incurred by the county.85479

       Each fiscal year, based on past allocations, historical 85480
utilization, and other factors the department considers 85481
appropriate, the department shall allocate for each county an 85482
amount for reimbursements under this section. The total of all the 85483
allocations shall equal the amount appropriated for the fiscal 85484
year to the department specifically for the purposes of this 85485
section.85486

       On receipt, the department shall review each request for 85487
reimbursement and prepare a voucher for the amount of the costs, 85488
fees, and expenses incurred by the county, provided that the total 85489
amount of money paid to all counties in each fiscal year shall not 85490
exceed the total amount of moneys specifically appropriated to the 85491
department for these purposes. 85492

       The department's total reimbursement to each county shall be 85493
the lesser of the full amount requested or the amount allocated 85494
for the county under this division. In addition, the department 85495
shall distribute any surplus remaining from the money appropriated 85496
for the fiscal year to the department for the purposes of this 85497
section as follows to counties whose full requests exceed their 85498
allocations:85499

       (1) If the surplus is sufficient to reimburse such counties 85500
the full amount of their requests, each such county shall receive 85501
the full amount of its request;85502

       (2) If the surplus is insufficient, each such county shall 85503
receive a percentage of the surplus determined by dividing the 85504
difference between the county's full request and its allocation by 85505
the difference between the total of the full requests of all such 85506
counties and the total of the amounts allocated for all such 85507
counties. 85508

       The department may adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 85509
119. of the Revised Code to implement the payment of costs, fees, 85510
and expenses under this section.85511

       Sec. 5122.44.  As used in sections 5122.44 to 5122.47 of the 85512
Revised Code:85513

       (A) "Compilation" means a written list of the following 85514
information, as the department of mental healthmental health and 85515
addiction services is able to reasonably ascertain, for every 85516
patient who was buried, entombed, or inurned prior to the 85517
effective date of this sectionMarch 31, 2005, in a cemetery 85518
located on the grounds of or adjacent to the grounds of a public 85519
hospital:85520

       (1) Name;85521

       (2) Date of birth;85522

       (3) Date of death or burial;85523

       (4) Specific physical location of the burial, entombment, or 85524
inurnment, including the plot or grave site number if available.85525

       (B) "Patient" means an individual who died while admitted to 85526
a public hospital that was under the control of the department of 85527
mental healthmental health and addiction services.85528

       (C) "Record" has the same meaning as in section 149.011 of 85529
the Revised Code.85530

       (D) "State agency" means every organized body, office, or 85531
agency established by the laws of the state for the exercise of 85532
any function of state government.85533

       Sec. 5122.45.  The department of mental healthmental health 85534
and addiction services shall create a separate compilation for 85535
each cemetery located on the grounds of or adjacent to the grounds 85536
of a public hospital that is under the control of the department 85537
on the effective date of this sectionMarch 31, 2005. The 85538
compilation shall be created within a reasonable time not 85539
exceeding three years after the effective date of this section85540
March 31, 2005. The department shall use its best efforts to 85541
create the most complete compilations possible using records in 85542
the department's possession and records obtained in accordance 85543
with section 5122.46 of the Revised Code.85544

       Sec. 5122.46.  The Ohio historical society and each state 85545
agency shall, at the request of the department of mental health85546
mental health and addiction services, provide the department 85547
access to records and information in the possession of the 85548
historical society or state agency for purposes of creating 85549
compilations.85550

       Sec. 5122.47.  The department of mental healthmental health 85551
and addiction services shall deposit a copy of each compilation 85552
with the Ohio historical society and the state library as soon as 85553
a compilation is completed. The department shall not disclose any 85554
record or information used to create a compilation except as 85555
provided in sections 149.43 and 5122.31 of the Revised Code.85556

       Sec. 5123.01.  As used in this chapter:85557

       (A) "Chief medical officer" means the licensed physician 85558
appointed by the managing officer of an institution for the 85559
mentally retarded with the approval of the director of 85560
developmental disabilities to provide medical treatment for 85561
residents of the institution.85562

       (B) "Chief program director" means a person with special 85563
training and experience in the diagnosis and management of the 85564
mentally retarded, certified according to division (C) of this 85565
section in at least one of the designated fields, and appointed by 85566
the managing officer of an institution for the mentally retarded 85567
with the approval of the director to provide habilitation and care 85568
for residents of the institution.85569

       (C) "Comprehensive evaluation" means a study, including a 85570
sequence of observations and examinations, of a person leading to 85571
conclusions and recommendations formulated jointly, with 85572
dissenting opinions if any, by a group of persons with special 85573
training and experience in the diagnosis and management of persons 85574
with mental retardation or a developmental disability, which group 85575
shall include individuals who are professionally qualified in the 85576
fields of medicine, psychology, and social work, together with 85577
such other specialists as the individual case may require.85578

       (D) "Education" means the process of formal training and 85579
instruction to facilitate the intellectual and emotional 85580
development of residents.85581

       (E) "Habilitation" means the process by which the staff of 85582
the institution assists the resident in acquiring and maintaining 85583
those life skills that enable the resident to cope more 85584
effectively with the demands of the resident's own person and of 85585
the resident's environment and in raising the level of the 85586
resident's physical, mental, social, and vocational efficiency. 85587
Habilitation includes but is not limited to programs of formal, 85588
structured education and training.85589

       (F) "Health officer" means any public health physician, 85590
public health nurse, or other person authorized or designated by a 85591
city or general health district.85592

       (G) "Home and community-based services" means medicaid-funded 85593
home and community-based services specified in division (B)(A)(1) 85594
of section 5111.875166.20 of the Revised Code provided under the 85595
medicaid waiver components the department of developmental 85596
disabilities administers pursuant to section 5111.8715166.21 of 85597
the Revised Code. Except as provided in section 5123.0412 of the 85598
Revised Code, home and community-based services provided under the 85599
medicaid waiver component known as the transitions developmental 85600
disabilities waiver are to be considered to be home and 85601
community-based services for the purposes of this chapter, and 85602
Chapters 5124. and 5126. of the Revised Code, only to the extent, 85603
if any, provided by the contract required by section 5111.87185604
5166.21 of the Revised Code regarding the waiver.85605

       (H) "ICF/MR" has the same meaning as in section 5124.01 of 85606
the Revised Code.85607

       (I) "Indigent person" means a person who is unable, without 85608
substantial financial hardship, to provide for the payment of an 85609
attorney and for other necessary expenses of legal representation, 85610
including expert testimony.85611

       (I)(J) "Institution" means a public or private facility, or a 85612
part of a public or private facility, that is licensed by the 85613
appropriate state department and is equipped to provide 85614
residential habilitation, care, and treatment for the mentally 85615
retarded.85616

       (J)(K) "Licensed physician" means a person who holds a valid 85617
certificate issued under Chapter 4731. of the Revised Code 85618
authorizing the person to practice medicine and surgery or 85619
osteopathic medicine and surgery, or a medical officer of the 85620
government of the United States while in the performance of the 85621
officer's official duties.85622

       (K)(L) "Managing officer" means a person who is appointed by 85623
the director of developmental disabilities to be in executive 85624
control of an institution for the mentally retarded under the 85625
jurisdiction of the department.85626

       (L) "Medicaid" has the same meaning as in section 5111.01 of 85627
the Revised Code.85628

       (M) "Medicaid case management services" means case management 85629
services provided to an individual with mental retardation or 85630
other developmental disability that the state medicaid plan 85631
requires.85632

       (N) "Mentally retarded person" means a person having 85633
significantly subaverage general intellectual functioning existing 85634
concurrently with deficiencies in adaptive behavior, manifested 85635
during the developmental period.85636

       (O) "Mentally retarded person subject to institutionalization 85637
by court order" means a person eighteen years of age or older who 85638
is at least moderately mentally retarded and in relation to whom, 85639
because of the person's retardation, either of the following 85640
conditions exist:85641

       (1) The person represents a very substantial risk of physical 85642
impairment or injury to self as manifested by evidence that the 85643
person is unable to provide for and is not providing for the 85644
person's most basic physical needs and that provision for those 85645
needs is not available in the community;85646

       (2) The person needs and is susceptible to significant 85647
habilitation in an institution.85648

       (P) "A person who is at least moderately mentally retarded" 85649
means a person who is found, following a comprehensive evaluation, 85650
to be impaired in adaptive behavior to a moderate degree and to be 85651
functioning at the moderate level of intellectual functioning in 85652
accordance with standard measurements as recorded in the most 85653
current revision of the manual of terminology and classification 85654
in mental retardation published by the American association on 85655
mental retardation.85656

       (Q) As used in this division, "substantial functional 85657
limitation," "developmental delay," and "established risk" have 85658
the meanings established pursuant to section 5123.011 of the 85659
Revised Code.85660

       "Developmental disability" means a severe, chronic disability 85661
that is characterized by all of the following:85662

       (1) It is attributable to a mental or physical impairment or 85663
a combination of mental and physical impairments, other than a 85664
mental or physical impairment solely caused by mental illness as 85665
defined in division (A) of section 5122.01 of the Revised Code.85666

       (2) It is manifested before age twenty-two.85667

       (3) It is likely to continue indefinitely.85668

       (4) It results in one of the following:85669

       (a) In the case of a person under three years of age, at 85670
least one developmental delay or an established risk;85671

       (b) In the case of a person at least three years of age but 85672
under six years of age, at least two developmental delays or an 85673
established risk;85674

       (c) In the case of a person six years of age or older, a 85675
substantial functional limitation in at least three of the 85676
following areas of major life activity, as appropriate for the 85677
person's age: self-care, receptive and expressive language, 85678
learning, mobility, self-direction, capacity for independent 85679
living, and, if the person is at least sixteen years of age, 85680
capacity for economic self-sufficiency.85681

       (5) It causes the person to need a combination and sequence 85682
of special, interdisciplinary, or other type of care, treatment, 85683
or provision of services for an extended period of time that is 85684
individually planned and coordinated for the person.85685

       (R) "Developmentally disabled person" means a person with a 85686
developmental disability.85687

       (S) "State institution" means an institution that is 85688
tax-supported and under the jurisdiction of the department.85689

       (T) "Residence" and "legal residence" have the same meaning 85690
as "legal settlement," which is acquired by residing in Ohio for a 85691
period of one year without receiving general assistance prior to 85692
July 17, 1995, under former Chapter 5113. of the Revised Code, 85693
financial assistance under Chapter 5115. of the Revised Code, or 85694
assistance from a private agency that maintains records of 85695
assistance given. A person having a legal settlement in the state 85696
shall be considered as having legal settlement in the assistance 85697
area in which the person resides. No adult person coming into this 85698
state and having a spouse or minor children residing in another 85699
state shall obtain a legal settlement in this state as long as the 85700
spouse or minor children are receiving public assistance, care, or 85701
support at the expense of the other state or its subdivisions. For 85702
the purpose of determining the legal settlement of a person who is 85703
living in a public or private institution or in a home subject to 85704
licensing by the department of job and family services, the 85705
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services, 85706
or the department of developmental disabilities, the residence of 85707
the person shall be considered as though the person were residing 85708
in the county in which the person was living prior to the person's 85709
entrance into the institution or home. Settlement once acquired 85710
shall continue until a person has been continuously absent from 85711
Ohio for a period of one year or has acquired a legal residence in 85712
another state. A woman who marries a man with legal settlement in 85713
any county immediately acquires the settlement of her husband. The 85714
legal settlement of a minor is that of the parents, surviving 85715
parent, sole parent, parent who is designated the residential 85716
parent and legal custodian by a court, other adult having 85717
permanent custody awarded by a court, or guardian of the person of 85718
the minor, provided that:85719

       (1) A minor female who marries shall be considered to have 85720
the legal settlement of her husband and, in the case of death of 85721
her husband or divorce, she shall not thereby lose her legal 85722
settlement obtained by the marriage.85723

       (2) A minor male who marries, establishes a home, and who has 85724
resided in this state for one year without receiving general 85725
assistance prior to July 17, 1995, under former Chapter 5113. of 85726
the Revised Code, financial assistance under Chapter 5115. of the 85727
Revised Code, or assistance from a private agency that maintains 85728
records of assistance given shall be considered to have obtained a 85729
legal settlement in this state.85730

       (3) The legal settlement of a child under eighteen years of 85731
age who is in the care or custody of a public or private child 85732
caring agency shall not change if the legal settlement of the 85733
parent changes until after the child has been in the home of the 85734
parent for a period of one year.85735

       No person, adult or minor, may establish a legal settlement 85736
in this state for the purpose of gaining admission to any state 85737
institution.85738

       (U)(1) "Resident" means, subject to division (R)(U)(2) of 85739
this section, a person who is admitted either voluntarily or 85740
involuntarily to an institution or other facility pursuant to 85741
section 2945.39, 2945.40, 2945.401, or 2945.402 of the Revised 85742
Code subsequent to a finding of not guilty by reason of insanity 85743
or incompetence to stand trial or under this chapter who is under 85744
observation or receiving habilitation and care in an institution.85745

       (2) "Resident" does not include a person admitted to an 85746
institution or other facility under section 2945.39, 2945.40, 85747
2945.401, or 2945.402 of the Revised Code to the extent that the 85748
reference in this chapter to resident, or the context in which the 85749
reference occurs, is in conflict with any provision of sections 85750
2945.37 to 2945.402 of the Revised Code.85751

       (V) "Respondent" means the person whose detention, 85752
commitment, or continued commitment is being sought in any 85753
proceeding under this chapter.85754

       (W) "Working day" and "court day" mean Monday, Tuesday, 85755
Wednesday, Thursday, and Friday, except when such day is a legal 85756
holiday.85757

       (X) "Prosecutor" means the prosecuting attorney, village 85758
solicitor, city director of law, or similar chief legal officer 85759
who prosecuted a criminal case in which a person was found not 85760
guilty by reason of insanity, who would have had the authority to 85761
prosecute a criminal case against a person if the person had not 85762
been found incompetent to stand trial, or who prosecuted a case in 85763
which a person was found guilty.85764

       (Y) "Court" means the probate division of the court of common 85765
pleas.85766

       (Z) "Supported living" and "residential services" have the 85767
same meanings as in section 5126.01 of the Revised Code.85768

       Sec. 5123.021.  (A) As used in this section, "mentally 85769
retarded individual" and "specialized services" have the same 85770
meanings as in section 5111.2025165.03 of the Revised Code.85771

       (B)(1) Except as provided in division (B)(2) of this section 85772
and rules adopted under division (E)(3) of this section, for 85773
purposes of section 5111.2025165.03 of the Revised Code, the 85774
department of developmental disabilities shall determine in 85775
accordance with section 1919(e)(7) of the "Social Security Act," 85776
49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended, and regulations 85777
adopted under section 1919(f)(8)(A) of that act whether, because 85778
of the individual's physical and mental condition, a mentally 85779
retarded individual seeking admission to a nursing facility 85780
requires the level of services provided by a nursing facility and, 85781
if the individual requires that level of services, whether the 85782
individual requires specialized services for mental retardation.85783

       (2) A determination under this division is not required for 85784
any of the following:85785

       (a) An individual seeking readmission to a nursing facility 85786
after having been transferred from a nursing facility to a 85787
hospital for care;85788

       (b) An individual who meets all of the following conditions:85789

       (i) The individual is admitted to the nursing facility 85790
directly from a hospital after receiving inpatient care at the 85791
hospital;85792

       (ii) The individual requires nursing facility services for 85793
the condition for which the individual received care in the 85794
hospital;85795

       (iii) The individual's attending physician has certified, 85796
before admission to the nursing facility, that the individual is 85797
likely to require less than thirty days of nursing facility 85798
services.85799

       (c) An individual transferred from one nursing facility to 85800
another nursing facility, with or without an intervening hospital 85801
stay.85802

       (C) Except as provided in rules adopted under division (F)(3) 85803
of this section, the department of developmental disabilities 85804
shall review and determine, for each resident of a nursing 85805
facility who is mentally retarded, whether the resident, because 85806
of the resident's physical and mental condition, requires the 85807
level of services provided by a nursing facility and whether the 85808
resident requires specialized services for mental retardation. The 85809
review and determination shall be conducted in accordance with 85810
section 1919(e)(7) of the "Social Security Act" and the 85811
regulations adopted under section 1919(f)(8)(A) of the act. The 85812
review and determination shall be completed promptly after a 85813
nursing facility has notified the department that there has been a 85814
significant change in the resident's mental or physical condition.85815

       (D)(1) In the case of a nursing facility resident who has 85816
continuously resided in a nursing facility for at least thirty 85817
months before the date of a review and determination under 85818
division (C) of this section, if the resident is determined not to 85819
require the level of services provided by a nursing facility, but 85820
is determined to require specialized services for mental 85821
retardation, the department, in consultation with the resident's 85822
family or legal representative and care givers, shall do all of 85823
the following:85824

       (a) Inform the resident of the institutional and 85825
noninstitutional alternatives covered under the state plan for 85826
medical assistance;85827

       (b) Offer the resident the choice of remaining in the nursing 85828
facility or receiving covered services in an alternative 85829
institutional or noninstitutional setting;85830

       (c) Clarify the effect on eligibility for services under the 85831
state plan for medical assistance if the resident chooses to leave 85832
the facility, including its effect on readmission to the facility;85833

       (d) Provide for or arrange for the provision of specialized 85834
services for the resident's mental retardation in the setting 85835
chosen by the resident.85836

       (2) In the case of a nursing facility resident who has 85837
continuously resided in a nursing facility for less than thirty 85838
months before the date of the review and determination under 85839
division (C) of this section, if the resident is determined not to 85840
require the level of services provided by a nursing facility, but 85841
is determined to require specialized services for mental 85842
retardation, or if the resident is determined to require neither 85843
the level of services provided by a nursing facility nor 85844
specialized services for mental retardation, the department shall 85845
act in accordance with its alternative disposition plan approved 85846
by the United States department of health and human services under 85847
section 1919(e)(7)(E) of the "Social Security Act."85848

       (3) In the case of an individual who is determined under 85849
division (B) or (C) of this section to require both the level of 85850
services provided by a nursing facility and specialized services 85851
for mental retardation, the department of developmental 85852
disabilities shall provide or arrange for the provision of the 85853
specialized services needed by the individual or resident while 85854
residing in a nursing facility.85855

       (E) The department of developmental disabilities shall adopt 85856
rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code that do 85857
all of the following:85858

       (1) Establish criteria to be used in making the 85859
determinations required by divisions (B) and (C) of this section. 85860
The criteria shall not exceed the criteria established by 85861
regulations adopted by the United States department of health and 85862
human services under section 1919(f)(8)(A) of the "Social Security 85863
Act."85864

       (2) Specify information to be provided by the individual or 85865
nursing facility resident being assessed;85866

       (3) Specify any circumstances, in addition to circumstances 85867
listed in division (B) of this section, under which determinations 85868
under divisions (B) and (C) of this section are not required to be 85869
made.85870

       Sec. 5123.022. It(A) As used in this section:85871

       (1) "Community employment" means competitive employment that 85872
takes place in an integrated setting.85873

       (2) "Competitive employment" means full-time or part-time 85874
work in the competitive labor market in which payment is at or 85875
above the minimum wage but not less than the customary wage and 85876
level of benefits paid by the employer for the same or similar 85877
work performed by persons who are not disabled.85878

       (3) "Integrated setting" means a setting typically found in 85879
the community where individuals with developmental disabilities 85880
interact with individuals who do not have disabilities to the same 85881
extent that individuals in comparable positions who are not 85882
disabled interact with other individuals, including in employment 85883
settings in which employees interact with the community through 85884
technology.85885

       (B) It is hereby declared to be the policy of this state that 85886
employment services for individuals with developmental 85887
disabilities be directed at placement whenever possible of each 85888
individual in a position in the community in which the individual 85889
is integrated with the employer's other workers who are not 85890
developmentally disabledemployment. TheEvery individual with a 85891
developmental disability is presumed capable of community 85892
employment unless proven otherwise through an individualized 85893
assessment process.85894

       The departments of developmental disabilities, education, 85895
medicaid, job and family services, and mental healthmental health 85896
and addiction services; the rehabilitation services commission ; 85897
and each other state agency that provides employment services to 85898
individuals with developmental disabilities shall implement this85899
the policy of this state and ensure that it is followed whenever 85900
employment services are provided to individuals with developmental 85901
disabilities.85902

       The department of developmental disabilities shall coordinate 85903
the actions taken by state agencies to comply with the state's 85904
policy. Agencies shall collaborate within their divisions and with 85905
each other to ensure that state programs, policies, procedures, 85906
and funding support competitive and integrated employment of 85907
individuals with developmental disabilities. State agencies shall 85908
share information with the department, and the department shall 85909
track progress toward full implementation of the policy. The 85910
department, in coordination with any task force established by the 85911
governor, shall compile data and annually submit to the governor a 85912
report on implementation of the policy.85913

       The department and state agencies may adopt rules to 85914
implement the state's policy.85915

       (C) The state's policy articulated in this section is 85916
intended to promote the right of each individual with a 85917
developmental disability to informed choice; however, nothing in 85918
this section requires any employer to give preference in hiring to 85919
an individual because the individual has a disability.85920

       Sec. 5123.023.  (A) The director of developmental 85921
disabilities may establish an employment first task force 85922
consisting of the departments of developmental disabilities, 85923
education, medicaid, job and family services, and mental health 85924
and addiction services; and the opportunities for Ohioans with 85925
disabilities agency. The purpose of the task force shall be to 85926
improve the coordination of the state's efforts to address the 85927
needs of individuals with developmental disabilities who seek 85928
community employment as defined in section 5123.022 of the Revised 85929
Code.85930

       (B) The department of developmental disabilities may enter 85931
into interagency agreements with any of the government entities on 85932
the task force. The interagency agreements may specify either or 85933
both of the following:85934

       (1) The roles and responsibilities of the government entities 85935
that are members of the task force, including any money to be 85936
contributed by those entities;85937

       (2) The projects and activities of the task force.85938

       (C) There is hereby created in the state treasury the 85939
employment first taskforce fund. Any money received by the task 85940
force from its members shall be credited to the fund. The 85941
department of developmental disabilities shall use the fund to 85942
support the work of the task force.85943

       (D) The task force shall cease to exist on January 1, 2020. 85944
Any money, assets, or employees of the department of developmental 85945
disabilities that on that date are dedicated to the work of the 85946
task force shall be reallocated by the department for employment 85947
services for individuals with developmental disabilities.85948

       Sec. 5123.03.  (A) The department of developmental 85949
disabilities shall do all of the following:85950

       (1) Maintain, operate, manage, and govern all state 85951
institutions for the care, treatment, and training of the mentally 85952
retarded;85953

       (2) Designate all such institutions by appropriate names;85954

       (3) Provide and designate facilities for the custody, care, 85955
and special treatment of persons of the following classes:85956

       (a) Dangerous persons in state institutions for the mentally 85957
retarded who represent a serious threat to the safety of the other 85958
patients of the institution;85959

       (b) Persons charged with crimes who are found incompetent to 85960
stand trial or not guilty by reason of insanity and who are also 85961
mentally retarded persons subject to institutionalization by court 85962
order.85963

       (4) Have control of all institutions maintained in part by 85964
the state for the care, treatment, and training of the mentally 85965
retarded;85966

       (5) Administer the laws relative to persons in such 85967
institutions in an efficient, economical, and humane manner;85968

       (6) Ascertain by actual examinations and inquiry whether 85969
institutionalizations are made according to law.85970

       (B) The department may do any of the following:85971

       (1) Subject to section 5139.08 of the Revised Code, receive 85972
from the department of youth services for observation, diagnosis, 85973
care, habilitation, or placement any children in the custody of 85974
the department of youth services;85975

       (2) Receive for observation any minor from a public 85976
institution other than an institution under the jurisdiction of 85977
the department of developmental disabilities, from a private 85978
charitable institution, or from a person having legal custody of 85979
such a minor, upon such terms as are proper;85980

       (3) Receive from the department of mental healthmental 85981
health and addiction services any patient in the custody of the 85982
department who is transferred to the department of developmental 85983
disabilities upon such terms and conditions as may be agreed upon 85984
by the two departments.85985

       (C) In addition to the powers and duties expressly conferred 85986
by this section, the department may take any other action 85987
necessary for the full and efficient executive, administrative, 85988
and fiscal supervision of the state institutions described in this 85989
section.85990

       Sec. 5123.0412. (A) The department of developmental 85991
disabilities shall charge each county board of developmental 85992
disabilities an annual fee equal to one and one-quarter per cent 85993
of the total value of all medicaid paid claims for home and 85994
community-based services provided during the year to an individual 85995
eligible for services from the county board. However, the 85996
department shall not charge the fee for home and community-based 85997
services provided under the medicaid waiver component known as the 85998
transitions developmental disabilities waiver. No county board 85999
shall pass the cost of a fee charged to the county board under 86000
this section on to another provider of these services.86001

       (B) The fees collected under this section shall be deposited 86002
into the ODDD administration and oversight fund and the ODJFS 86003
administration and oversight fund, both of , which areis hereby 86004
created in the state treasury. The portion of the fees to be 86005
deposited into the ODDD administration and oversight fund and the 86006
portion of the fees to be deposited into the ODJFS administration 86007
and oversight fund shall be the portion specified in an 86008
interagency agreement entered into under division (C) of this 86009
section. The department of developmental disabilities shall use 86010
the money in the ODDD administration and oversight fund and the 86011
department of job and family services shall use the money in the 86012
ODJFS administration and oversight fund for both of the following 86013
purposes:86014

       (1) Medicaid administrative costs, including administrative 86015
and oversight costs of medicaid case management services and home 86016
and community-based services. The administrative and oversight 86017
costs of medicaid case management services and home and 86018
community-based services shall include costs for staff, systems, 86019
and other resources the departments needdepartment needs and 86020
dedicatededicates solely to the following duties associated with 86021
the services:86022

       (a) Eligibility determinations;86023

       (b) Training;86024

       (c) Fiscal management;86025

       (d) Claims processing;86026

       (e) Quality assurance oversight;86027

       (f) Other duties the departments identifydepartment 86028
identifies.86029

       (2) Providing technical support to county boards' local 86030
administrative authority under section 5126.055 of the Revised 86031
Code for the services.86032

       (C) The departments of developmental disabilities and job and 86033
family services shall enter into an interagency agreement to do 86034
both of the following: 86035

       (1) Specify which portion of the fees collected under this 86036
section is to be deposited into the ODDD administration and 86037
oversight fund and which portion is to be deposited into the ODJFS 86038
administration and oversight fund; 86039

       (2) Provide for the departments to coordinate the staff whose 86040
costs are paid for with money in the ODDD administration and 86041
oversight fund and the ODJFS administration and oversight fund. 86042

       (D) The departmentsdepartment shall submit an annual report 86043
to the director of budget and management certifying how the 86044
departmentsdepartment spent the money in the ODDD administration 86045
and oversight fund and the ODJFS administration and oversight fund86046
for the purposes specified in division (B) of this section.86047

       Sec. 5123.0417. (A) The director of developmental 86048
disabilities shall establish one or more programs for individuals 86049
under twenty-two years of age who have intensive behavioral needs, 86050
including such individuals with a primary diagnosis of autism 86051
spectrum disorder. The programs may include one or more medicaid 86052
waiver components that the director administers pursuant to 86053
section 5111.8715166.21 of the Revised Code. The programs may do 86054
one or more of the following:86055

        (1) Establish models that incorporate elements common to 86056
effective intervention programs and evidence-based practices in 86057
services for children with intensive behavioral needs;86058

       (2) Design a template for individualized education plans and 86059
individual service plans that provide consistent intervention 86060
programs and evidence-based practices for the care and treatment 86061
of children with intensive behavioral needs;86062

        (3) Disseminate best practice guidelines for use by families 86063
of children with intensive behavioral needs and professionals 86064
working with such families;86065

       (4) Develop a transition planning model for effectively 86066
mainstreaming school-age children with intensive behavioral needs 86067
to their public school district;86068

        (5) Contribute to the field of early and effective 86069
identification and intervention programs for children with 86070
intensive behavioral needs by providing financial support for 86071
scholarly research and publication of clinical findings.86072

        (B) The director of developmental disabilities shall 86073
collaborate with the medicaid director of job and family services86074
and consult with the executive director of the Ohio center for 86075
autism and low incidence and university-based programs that 86076
specialize in services for individuals with developmental 86077
disabilities when establishing programs under this section.86078

       Sec. 5123.09.  Subject to the rules of the department of 86079
developmental disabilities, each institution under the 86080
jurisdiction of the department shall be under the control of a 86081
managing officer to be known as a superintendent or by other 86082
appropriate title. The managing officer shall be appointed by the 86083
director of developmental disabilities and shall be in the 86084
unclassified service and serve at the pleasure of the director. 86085
Each managing officer shall be of good moral character and have 86086
skill, ability, and experience in the managing officer's 86087
profession. Appointment to the position of managing officer of an 86088
institution may be made from persons holding positions in the 86089
classified service in the department.86090

       The managing officer, under the director, shall have entire 86091
executive charge of the institution for which the managing officer 86092
is appointed, except as provided in section 5119.165119.44 of the 86093
Revised Code. Subject to civil service rules and rules adopted by 86094
the department, the managing officer shall appoint the necessary 86095
employees, and the managing officer or the director may remove 86096
those employees for cause. A report of all appointments, 86097
resignations, and discharges shall be filed with the appropriate 86098
division at the close of each month.86099

       After conference with the managing officer of each 86100
institution, the director shall determine the number of employees 86101
to be appointed to the various institutions and clinics.86102

       Sec. 5123.171.  As used in this section, "respite care" means 86103
appropriate, short-term, temporary care provided to a mentally 86104
retarded or developmentally disabled person to sustain the family 86105
structure or to meet planned or emergency needs of the family.86106

       The department of developmental disabilities shall provide 86107
respite care services to persons with mental retardation or a 86108
developmental disability for the purpose of promoting 86109
self-sufficiency and normalization, preventing or reducing 86110
inappropriate institutional care, and furthering the unity of the 86111
family by enabling the family to meet the special needs of a 86112
mentally retarded or developmentally disabled person.86113

       In order to be eligible for respite care services under this 86114
section, the mentally retarded or developmentally disabled person 86115
must be in need of habilitation services as defined in section 86116
5126.01 of the Revised Code.86117

       Respite care may be provided in a residential facility 86118
licensed under section 5123.19 of the Revised Code (, including a 86119
residential facility certified as an intermediate care facility 86120
for the mentally retarded under Title XIX of the "Social Security 86121
Act," 79 Stat. 344 (1965), 42 U.S.C. 1396, et seq., as amended)86122
ICF/MR, and a respite care home certified under section 5126.05 of 86123
the Revised Code.86124

       The department shall develop a system for locating vacant 86125
beds that are available for respite care and for making 86126
information on vacant beds available to users of respite care 86127
services. Facilities certified as intermediate care facilities for 86128
the mentally retardedICFs/MR shall report vacant beds to the 86129
department but shall not be required to accept respite care 86130
clients.86131

       The director of developmental disabilities shall adopt, and 86132
may amend or rescind, rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 86133
Revised Code for both of the following:86134

       (A) Certification by county boards of developmental 86135
disabilities of respite care homes;86136

       (B) Provision of respite care services authorized by this 86137
section. Rules adopted under this division shall establish all of 86138
the following:86139

       (1) A formula for distributing funds appropriated for respite 86140
care services;86141

       (2) Standards for supervision, training and quality control 86142
in the provision of respite care services;86143

       (3) Eligibility criteria for emergency respite care services.86144

       Sec. 5123.19.  (A) As used in sections 5123.19 to 5123.20 of 86145
the Revised Code:86146

       (1) "Independent living arrangement" means an arrangement in 86147
which a mentally retarded or developmentally disabled person 86148
resides in an individualized setting chosen by the person or the 86149
person's guardian, which is not dedicated principally to the 86150
provision of residential services for mentally retarded or 86151
developmentally disabled persons, and for which no financial 86152
support is received for rendering such service from any 86153
governmental agency by a provider of residential services.86154

        (2) "Intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded" 86155
has the same meaning as in section 1905(d) of the "Social Security 86156
Act," 101 Stat. 1330-204 (1987), 42 U.S.C. 1396d(d), as amended.86157

        (3) "Licensee" means the person or government agency that has 86158
applied for a license to operate a residential facility and to 86159
which the license was issued under this section.86160

       (4)(3) "Political subdivision" means a municipal corporation, 86161
county, or township.86162

       (5)(4) "Related party" has the same meaning as in section 86163
5123.16 of the Revised Code except that "provider" as used in the 86164
definition of "related party" means a person or government entity 86165
that held or applied for a license to operate a residential 86166
facility, rather than a person or government entity certified to 86167
provide supported living.86168

       (6)(5)(a) Except as provided in division (A)(6)(5)(b) of this 86169
section, "residential facility" means a home or facility, 86170
including a facility certified as an intermediate care facility 86171
for the mentally retardedan ICF/MR, in which an individual with 86172
mental retardation or a developmental disability resides.86173

        (b) "Residential facility" does not mean any of the 86174
following:86175

        (i) The home of a relative or legal guardian in which an 86176
individual with mental retardation or a developmental disability 86177
resides;86178

        (ii) A respite care home certified under section 5126.05 of 86179
the Revised Code;86180

        (iii) A county home or district home operated pursuant to 86181
Chapter 5155. of the Revised Code;86182

        (iv) A dwelling in which the only residents with mental 86183
retardation or developmental disabilities are in independent 86184
living arrangements or are being provided supported living.86185

       (B) Every person or government agency desiring to operate a 86186
residential facility shall apply for licensure of the facility to 86187
the director of developmental disabilities unless the residential 86188
facility is subject to section 3721.02, 5103.03, 5119.205119.33, 86189
or division (A)(9)(b) of section 5119.225119.34 of the Revised 86190
Code. 86191

       (C) Subject to section 5123.196 of the Revised Code, the 86192
director of developmental disabilities shall license the operation 86193
of residential facilities. An initial license shall be issued for 86194
a period that does not exceed one year, unless the director denies 86195
the license under division (D) of this section. A license shall be 86196
renewed for a period that does not exceed three years, unless the 86197
director refuses to renew the license under division (D) of this 86198
section. The director, when issuing or renewing a license, shall 86199
specify the period for which the license is being issued or 86200
renewed. A license remains valid for the length of the licensing 86201
period specified by the director, unless the license is 86202
terminated, revoked, or voluntarily surrendered.86203

       (D) If it is determined that an applicant or licensee is not 86204
in compliance with a provision of this chapter that applies to 86205
residential facilities or the rules adopted under such a 86206
provision, the director may deny issuance of a license, refuse to 86207
renew a license, terminate a license, revoke a license, issue an 86208
order for the suspension of admissions to a facility, issue an 86209
order for the placement of a monitor at a facility, issue an order 86210
for the immediate removal of residents, or take any other action 86211
the director considers necessary consistent with the director's 86212
authority under this chapter regarding residential facilities. In 86213
the director's selection and administration of the sanction to be 86214
imposed, all of the following apply:86215

       (1) The director may deny, refuse to renew, or revoke a 86216
license, if the director determines that the applicant or licensee 86217
has demonstrated a pattern of serious noncompliance or that a 86218
violation creates a substantial risk to the health and safety of 86219
residents of a residential facility.86220

       (2) The director may terminate a license if more than twelve 86221
consecutive months have elapsed since the residential facility was 86222
last occupied by a resident or a notice required by division (K) 86223
of this section is not given.86224

       (3) The director may issue an order for the suspension of 86225
admissions to a facility for any violation that may result in 86226
sanctions under division (D)(1) of this section and for any other 86227
violation specified in rules adopted under division (H)(2) of this 86228
section. If the suspension of admissions is imposed for a 86229
violation that may result in sanctions under division (D)(1) of 86230
this section, the director may impose the suspension before 86231
providing an opportunity for an adjudication under Chapter 119. of 86232
the Revised Code. The director shall lift an order for the 86233
suspension of admissions when the director determines that the 86234
violation that formed the basis for the order has been corrected.86235

       (4) The director may order the placement of a monitor at a 86236
residential facility for any violation specified in rules adopted 86237
under division (H)(2) of this section. The director shall lift the 86238
order when the director determines that the violation that formed 86239
the basis for the order has been corrected.86240

       (5) If the director determines that two or more residential 86241
facilities owned or operated by the same person or government 86242
entity are not being operated in compliance with a provision of 86243
this chapter that applies to residential facilities or the rules 86244
adopted under such a provision, and the director's findings are 86245
based on the same or a substantially similar action, practice, 86246
circumstance, or incident that creates a substantial risk to the 86247
health and safety of the residents, the director shall conduct a 86248
survey as soon as practicable at each residential facility owned 86249
or operated by that person or government entity. The director may 86250
take any action authorized by this section with respect to any 86251
facility found to be operating in violation of a provision of this 86252
chapter that applies to residential facilities or the rules 86253
adopted under such a provision.86254

       (6) When the director initiates license revocation 86255
proceedings, no opportunity for submitting a plan of correction 86256
shall be given. The director shall notify the licensee by letter 86257
of the initiation of the proceedings. The letter shall list the 86258
deficiencies of the residential facility and inform the licensee 86259
that no plan of correction will be accepted. The director shall 86260
also send a copy of the letter to the county board of 86261
developmental disabilities. The county board shall send a copy of 86262
the letter to each of the following:86263

        (a) Each resident who receives services from the licensee;86264

        (b) The guardian of each resident who receives services from 86265
the licensee if the resident has a guardian;86266

        (c) The parent or guardian of each resident who receives 86267
services from the licensee if the resident is a minor.86268

       (7) Pursuant to rules which shall be adopted in accordance 86269
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, the director may order the 86270
immediate removal of residents from a residential facility 86271
whenever conditions at the facility present an immediate danger of 86272
physical or psychological harm to the residents.86273

       (8) In determining whether a residential facility is being 86274
operated in compliance with a provision of this chapter that 86275
applies to residential facilities or the rules adopted under such 86276
a provision, or whether conditions at a residential facility 86277
present an immediate danger of physical or psychological harm to 86278
the residents, the director may rely on information obtained by a 86279
county board of developmental disabilities or other governmental 86280
agencies.86281

       (9) In proceedings initiated to deny, refuse to renew, or 86282
revoke licenses, the director may deny, refuse to renew, or revoke 86283
a license regardless of whether some or all of the deficiencies 86284
that prompted the proceedings have been corrected at the time of 86285
the hearing.86286

       (E) The director shall establish a program under which public 86287
notification may be made when the director has initiated license 86288
revocation proceedings or has issued an order for the suspension 86289
of admissions, placement of a monitor, or removal of residents. 86290
The director shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of 86291
the Revised Code to implement this division. The rules shall 86292
establish the procedures by which the public notification will be 86293
made and specify the circumstances for which the notification must 86294
be made. The rules shall require that public notification be made 86295
if the director has taken action against the facility in the 86296
eighteen-month period immediately preceding the director's latest 86297
action against the facility and the latest action is being taken 86298
for the same or a substantially similar violation of a provision 86299
of this chapter that applies to residential facilities or the 86300
rules adopted under such a provision. The rules shall specify a 86301
method for removing or amending the public notification if the 86302
director's action is found to have been unjustified or the 86303
violation at the residential facility has been corrected.86304

       (F)(1) Except as provided in division (F)(2) of this section, 86305
appeals from proceedings initiated to impose a sanction under 86306
division (D) of this section shall be conducted in accordance with 86307
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.86308

       (2) Appeals from proceedings initiated to order the 86309
suspension of admissions to a facility shall be conducted in 86310
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, unless the order 86311
was issued before providing an opportunity for an adjudication, in 86312
which case all of the following apply:86313

       (a) The licensee may request a hearing not later than ten 86314
days after receiving the notice specified in section 119.07 of the 86315
Revised Code.86316

       (b) If a timely request for a hearing that includes the 86317
licensee's current address is made, the hearing shall commence not 86318
later than thirty days after the department receives the request.86319

       (c) After commencing, the hearing shall continue 86320
uninterrupted, except for Saturdays, Sundays, and legal holidays, 86321
unless other interruptions are agreed to by the licensee and the 86322
director.86323

       (d) If the hearing is conducted by a hearing examiner, the 86324
hearing examiner shall file a report and recommendations not later 86325
than ten days after the last of the following:86326

       (i) The close of the hearing;86327

       (ii) If a transcript of the proceedings is ordered, the 86328
hearing examiner receives the transcript;86329

        (iii) If post-hearing briefs are timely filed, the hearing 86330
examiner receives the briefs.86331

       (e) A copy of the written report and recommendation of the 86332
hearing examiner shall be sent, by certified mail, to the licensee 86333
and the licensee's attorney, if applicable, not later than five 86334
days after the report is filed.86335

        (f) Not later than five days after the hearing examiner files 86336
the report and recommendations, the licensee may file objections 86337
to the report and recommendations.86338

       (g) Not later than fifteen days after the hearing examiner 86339
files the report and recommendations, the director shall issue an 86340
order approving, modifying, or disapproving the report and 86341
recommendations.86342

       (h) Notwithstanding the pendency of the hearing, the director 86343
shall lift the order for the suspension of admissions when the 86344
director determines that the violation that formed the basis for 86345
the order has been corrected.86346

       (G) Neither a person or government agency whose application 86347
for a license to operate a residential facility is denied nor a 86348
related party of the person or government agency may apply for a 86349
license to operate a residential facility before the date that is 86350
one year after the date of the denial. Neither a licensee whose 86351
residential facility license is revoked nor a related party of the 86352
licensee may apply for a residential facility license before the 86353
date that is five years after the date of the revocation.86354

        (H) In accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, the 86355
director shall adopt and may amend and rescind rules for licensing 86356
and regulating the operation of residential facilities. The rules 86357
for residential facilities that are intermediate care facilities 86358
for the mentally retardedICFs/MR may differ from those for other 86359
residential facilities. The rules shall establish and specify the 86360
following:86361

       (1) Procedures and criteria for issuing and renewing 86362
licenses, including procedures and criteria for determining the 86363
length of the licensing period that the director must specify for 86364
each license when it is issued or renewed;86365

       (2) Procedures and criteria for denying, refusing to renew, 86366
terminating, and revoking licenses and for ordering the suspension 86367
of admissions to a facility, placement of a monitor at a facility, 86368
and the immediate removal of residents from a facility;86369

       (3) Fees for issuing and renewing licenses, which shall be 86370
deposited into the program fee fund created under section 5123.033 86371
of the Revised Code;86372

       (4) Procedures for surveying residential facilities;86373

       (5) Requirements for the training of residential facility 86374
personnel;86375

       (6) Classifications for the various types of residential 86376
facilities;86377

       (7) Certification procedures for licensees and management 86378
contractors that the director determines are necessary to ensure 86379
that they have the skills and qualifications to properly operate 86380
or manage residential facilities;86381

       (8) The maximum number of persons who may be served in a 86382
particular type of residential facility;86383

       (9) Uniform procedures for admission of persons to and 86384
transfers and discharges of persons from residential facilities;86385

       (10) Other standards for the operation of residential 86386
facilities and the services provided at residential facilities;86387

       (11) Procedures for waiving any provision of any rule adopted 86388
under this section.86389

       (I) Before issuing a license, the director of the department 86390
or the director's designee shall conduct a survey of the 86391
residential facility for which application is made. The director 86392
or the director's designee shall conduct a survey of each licensed 86393
residential facility at least once during the period the license 86394
is valid and may conduct additional inspections as needed. A 86395
survey includes but is not limited to an on-site examination and 86396
evaluation of the residential facility, its personnel, and the 86397
services provided there.86398

       In conducting surveys, the director or the director's 86399
designee shall be given access to the residential facility; all 86400
records, accounts, and any other documents related to the 86401
operation of the facility; the licensee; the residents of the 86402
facility; and all persons acting on behalf of, under the control 86403
of, or in connection with the licensee. The licensee and all 86404
persons on behalf of, under the control of, or in connection with 86405
the licensee shall cooperate with the director or the director's 86406
designee in conducting the survey.86407

       Following each survey, unless the director initiates a 86408
license revocation proceeding, the director or the director's 86409
designee shall provide the licensee with a report listing any 86410
deficiencies, specifying a timetable within which the licensee 86411
shall submit a plan of correction describing how the deficiencies 86412
will be corrected, and, when appropriate, specifying a timetable 86413
within which the licensee must correct the deficiencies. After a 86414
plan of correction is submitted, the director or the director's 86415
designee shall approve or disapprove the plan. A copy of the 86416
report and any approved plan of correction shall be provided to 86417
any person who requests it.86418

       The director shall initiate disciplinary action against any 86419
department employee who notifies or causes the notification to any 86420
unauthorized person of an unannounced survey of a residential 86421
facility by an authorized representative of the department.86422

       (J) In addition to any other information which may be 86423
required of applicants for a license pursuant to this section, the 86424
director shall require each applicant to provide a copy of an 86425
approved plan for a proposed residential facility pursuant to 86426
section 5123.042 of the Revised Code. This division does not apply 86427
to renewal of a license or to an applicant for an initial or 86428
modified license who meets the requirements of section 5123.197 of 86429
the Revised Code.86430

       (K) A licensee shall notify the owner of the building in 86431
which the licensee's residential facility is located of any 86432
significant change in the identity of the licensee or management 86433
contractor before the effective date of the change if the licensee 86434
is not the owner of the building.86435

       Pursuant to rules which shall be adopted in accordance with 86436
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, the director may require 86437
notification to the department of any significant change in the 86438
ownership of a residential facility or in the identity of the 86439
licensee or management contractor. If the director determines that 86440
a significant change of ownership is proposed, the director shall 86441
consider the proposed change to be an application for development 86442
by a new operator pursuant to section 5123.042 of the Revised Code 86443
and shall advise the applicant within sixty days of the 86444
notification that the current license shall continue in effect or 86445
a new license will be required pursuant to this section. If the 86446
director requires a new license, the director shall permit the 86447
facility to continue to operate under the current license until 86448
the new license is issued, unless the current license is revoked, 86449
refused to be renewed, or terminated in accordance with Chapter 86450
119. of the Revised Code.86451

       (L) A county board of developmental disabilities and any 86452
interested person may file complaints alleging violations of 86453
statute or department rule relating to residential facilities with 86454
the department. All complaints shall be in writing and shall state 86455
the facts constituting the basis of the allegation. The department 86456
shall not reveal the source of any complaint unless the 86457
complainant agrees in writing to waive the right to 86458
confidentiality or until so ordered by a court of competent 86459
jurisdiction.86460

       The department shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 86461
119. of the Revised Code establishing procedures for the receipt, 86462
referral, investigation, and disposition of complaints filed with 86463
the department under this division.86464

       (M) The department shall establish procedures for the 86465
notification of interested parties of the transfer or interim care 86466
of residents from residential facilities that are closing or are 86467
losing their license.86468

       (N) Before issuing a license under this section to a 86469
residential facility that will accommodate at any time more than 86470
one mentally retarded or developmentally disabled individual, the 86471
director shall, by first class mail, notify the following:86472

       (1) If the facility will be located in a municipal 86473
corporation, the clerk of the legislative authority of the 86474
municipal corporation;86475

       (2) If the facility will be located in unincorporated 86476
territory, the clerk of the appropriate board of county 86477
commissioners and the fiscal officer of the appropriate board of 86478
township trustees.86479

       The director shall not issue the license for ten days after 86480
mailing the notice, excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and legal 86481
holidays, in order to give the notified local officials time in 86482
which to comment on the proposed issuance.86483

       Any legislative authority of a municipal corporation, board 86484
of county commissioners, or board of township trustees that 86485
receives notice under this division of the proposed issuance of a 86486
license for a residential facility may comment on it in writing to 86487
the director within ten days after the director mailed the notice, 86488
excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and legal holidays. If the director 86489
receives written comments from any notified officials within the 86490
specified time, the director shall make written findings 86491
concerning the comments and the director's decision on the 86492
issuance of the license. If the director does not receive written 86493
comments from any notified local officials within the specified 86494
time, the director shall continue the process for issuance of the 86495
license.86496

       (O) Any person may operate a licensed residential facility 86497
that provides room and board, personal care, habilitation 86498
services, and supervision in a family setting for at least six but 86499
not more than eight persons with mental retardation or a 86500
developmental disability as a permitted use in any residential 86501
district or zone, including any single-family residential district 86502
or zone, of any political subdivision. These residential 86503
facilities may be required to comply with area, height, yard, and 86504
architectural compatibility requirements that are uniformly 86505
imposed upon all single-family residences within the district or 86506
zone.86507

       (P) Any person may operate a licensed residential facility 86508
that provides room and board, personal care, habilitation 86509
services, and supervision in a family setting for at least nine 86510
but not more than sixteen persons with mental retardation or a 86511
developmental disability as a permitted use in any multiple-family 86512
residential district or zone of any political subdivision, except 86513
that a political subdivision that has enacted a zoning ordinance 86514
or resolution establishing planned unit development districts may 86515
exclude these residential facilities from those districts, and a 86516
political subdivision that has enacted a zoning ordinance or 86517
resolution may regulate these residential facilities in 86518
multiple-family residential districts or zones as a conditionally 86519
permitted use or special exception, in either case, under 86520
reasonable and specific standards and conditions set out in the 86521
zoning ordinance or resolution to:86522

       (1) Require the architectural design and site layout of the 86523
residential facility and the location, nature, and height of any 86524
walls, screens, and fences to be compatible with adjoining land 86525
uses and the residential character of the neighborhood;86526

       (2) Require compliance with yard, parking, and sign 86527
regulation;86528

       (3) Limit excessive concentration of these residential 86529
facilities.86530

       (Q) This section does not prohibit a political subdivision 86531
from applying to residential facilities nondiscriminatory 86532
regulations requiring compliance with health, fire, and safety 86533
regulations and building standards and regulations.86534

       (R) Divisions (O) and (P) of this section are not applicable 86535
to municipal corporations that had in effect on June 15, 1977, an 86536
ordinance specifically permitting in residential zones licensed 86537
residential facilities by means of permitted uses, conditional 86538
uses, or special exception, so long as such ordinance remains in 86539
effect without any substantive modification.86540

       (S)(1) The director may issue an interim license to operate a 86541
residential facility to an applicant for a license under this 86542
section if either of the following is the case:86543

       (a) The director determines that an emergency exists 86544
requiring immediate placement of persons in a residential 86545
facility, that insufficient licensed beds are available, and that 86546
the residential facility is likely to receive a permanent license 86547
under this section within thirty days after issuance of the 86548
interim license.86549

       (b) The director determines that the issuance of an interim 86550
license is necessary to meet a temporary need for a residential 86551
facility.86552

       (2) To be eligible to receive an interim license, an 86553
applicant must meet the same criteria that must be met to receive 86554
a permanent license under this section, except for any differing 86555
procedures and time frames that may apply to issuance of a 86556
permanent license.86557

       (3) An interim license shall be valid for thirty days and may 86558
be renewed by the director for a period not to exceed one hundred 86559
fifty days.86560

       (4) The director shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 86561
119. of the Revised Code as the director considers necessary to 86562
administer the issuance of interim licenses.86563

       (T) Notwithstanding rules adopted pursuant to this section 86564
establishing the maximum number of persons who may be served in a 86565
particular type of residential facility, a residential facility 86566
shall be permitted to serve the same number of persons being 86567
served by the facility on the effective date of the rules or the 86568
number of persons for which the facility is authorized pursuant to 86569
a current application for a certificate of need with a letter of 86570
support from the department of developmental disabilities and 86571
which is in the review process prior to April 4, 1986.86572

       (U) The director or the director's designee may enter at any 86573
time, for purposes of investigation, any home, facility, or other 86574
structure that has been reported to the director or that the 86575
director has reasonable cause to believe is being operated as a 86576
residential facility without a license issued under this section.86577

       The director may petition the court of common pleas of the 86578
county in which an unlicensed residential facility is located for 86579
an order enjoining the person or governmental agency operating the 86580
facility from continuing to operate without a license. The court 86581
may grant the injunction on a showing that the person or 86582
governmental agency named in the petition is operating a 86583
residential facility without a license. The court may grant the 86584
injunction, regardless of whether the residential facility meets 86585
the requirements for receiving a license under this section.86586

       Sec. 5123.192. (A) A person or government agency operating, 86587
on the effective date of this sectionSeptember 10, 2012, an 86588
intermediate care facility for the mentally retardedICF/MR86589
pursuant to a nursing home license issued under Chapter 3721. of 86590
the Revised Code shall do both of the following as a condition of 86591
continuing to operate the facilityICF/MR on and after July 1, 86592
2013:86593

        (1) Not later than February 1, 2013, apply to the director of 86594
developmental disabilities for a residential facility license 86595
under section 5123.19 of the Revised Code for the facility86596
ICF/MR;86597

        (2) Not later than July 1, 2013, obtain the residential 86598
facility license for the facilityICF/MR.86599

        (B) The nursing home license of an intermediate care facility 86600
for the mentally retardedICF/MR shall cease to be valid at the 86601
earliest of the following:86602

        (1) The date that the facility'sICF/MR's nursing home 86603
license is revoked or voided under section 3721.07 of the Revised 86604
Code;86605

        (2) The date that a residential facility license is obtained 86606
for the facilityICF/MR under section 5123.19 of the Revised Code;86607

        (3) July 1, 2013.86608

        (C) Except for existing nursing home beds not certified as 86609
intermediate care facility for the mentally retardedICF/MR beds 86610
and relocated in accordance with a move authorized by a 86611
certificate of need under Chapter 3702. of the Revised Code, no 86612
bed that is part of an intermediate care facility for the mentally 86613
retardedICF/MR that is licensed as a nursing home on the 86614
effective date of this sectionSeptember 10, 2012, may be used as 86615
part of a nursing home on and after the earlier of the following:86616

        (1) The date that a residential facility license is obtained 86617
for the facilityICF/MR under section 5123.19 of the Revised Code;86618

        (2) July 1, 2013.86619

       Sec. 5123.197.  Neither an applicant for an initial 86620
residential facility license under section 5123.19 of the Revised 86621
Code nor an applicant for a modification of an existing 86622
residential facility license under that section is required to 86623
obtain approval of a plan for the proposed new residential 86624
facility or modification to the existing residential facility 86625
pursuant to section 5123.042 of the Revised Code if all of the 86626
following apply:86627

       (A) The new residential facility or modification to the 86628
existing residential facility is to serve individuals who have 86629
diagnoses or special care needs for which a medicaid reimbursement86630
payment rate is set pursuant to section 5111.2585124.153 of the 86631
Revised Code;86632

       (B) The directors of job and family servicesmedicaid 86633
director and director of developmental disabilities determine that 86634
there is a need under the medicaid program for the proposed new 86635
residential facility or modification to the existing residential 86636
facility and that approving the application for the initial 86637
residential facility license or modification to the existing 86638
residential facility license is fiscally prudent for the medicaid 86639
program;86640

       (C) The director of budget and management notifies the 86641
directors of job and family servicesmedicaid director and 86642
director of developmental disabilities that the director of budget 86643
and management agrees with the directors' determination under 86644
division (B) of this section.86645

       Sec. 5123.198. (A) As used in this section, "date of the 86646
commitment" means the date that an individual specified in 86647
division (B) of this section begins to reside in a state-operated 86648
intermediate care facility for the mentally retardedICF/MR after 86649
being committed to the facilityICF/MR pursuant to sections 86650
5123.71 to 5123.76 of the Revised Code.86651

       (B) Except as provided in division (C) of this section, 86652
whenever a resident of a residential facility is committed to a 86653
state-operated intermediate care facility for the mentally 86654
retardedICF/MR pursuant to sections 5123.71 to 5123.76 of the 86655
Revised Code, the department of developmental disabilities, 86656
pursuant to an adjudication order issued in accordance with 86657
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, shall reduce by one the number 86658
of residents for which the residential facility in which the 86659
resident resided is licensed. 86660

       (C) The department shall not reduce under division (B) of 86661
this section the number of residents for which a residential 86662
facility is licensed if any of the following are the case:86663

       (1) The resident of the residential facility who is committed 86664
to a state-operated intermediate care facility for the mentally 86665
retardedICF/MR resided in the residential facility because of the 86666
closure, on or after June 26, 2003, of another state-operated 86667
intermediate care facility for the mentally retardedICF/MR;86668

       (2) The residential facility admits within ninety days of the 86669
date of the commitment an individual who resides on the date of 86670
the commitment in a state-operated intermediate care facility for 86671
the mentally retardedICF/MR or another residential facility;86672

       (3) The department fails to do either of the following within 86673
ninety days of the date of the commitment:86674

       (a) Identify an individual to whom all of the following 86675
applies:86676

       (i) Resides on the date of the commitment in a state-operated 86677
intermediate care facility for the mentally retardedICF/MR or 86678
another residential facility;86679

       (ii) Has indicated to the department an interest in 86680
relocating to the residential facility or has a parent or guardian 86681
who has indicated to the department an interest for the individual 86682
to relocate to the residential facility;86683

       (iii) The department determines the individual has needs that 86684
the residential facility can meet.86685

       (b) Provide the residential facility with information about 86686
the individual identified under division (C)(2)(a) of this section 86687
that the residential facility needs in order to determine whether 86688
the facility can meet the individual's needs.86689

       (4) If the department completes the actions specified in 86690
divisions (C)(3)(a) and (b) of this section not later than ninety 86691
days after the date of the commitment and except as provided in 86692
division (D) of this section, the residential facility does all of 86693
the following not later than ninety days after the date of the 86694
commitment:86695

       (a) Evaluates the information provided by the department;86696

       (b) Assesses the identified individual's needs;86697

       (c) Determines that the residential facility cannot meet the 86698
identified individual's needs.86699

       (5) If the department completes the actions specified in 86700
divisions (C)(3)(a) and (b) of this section not later than ninety 86701
days after the date of the commitment and the residential facility 86702
determines that the residential facility can meet the identified 86703
individual's needs, the individual, or a parent or guardian of the 86704
individual, refuses placement in the residential facility.86705

       (D) The department may reduce under division (B) of this 86706
section the number of residents for which a residential facility 86707
is licensed even though the residential facility completes the 86708
actions specified in division (C)(4) of this section not later 86709
than ninety days after the date of the commitment if all of the 86710
following are the case:86711

       (1) The department disagrees with the residential facility's 86712
determination that the residential facility cannot meet the 86713
identified individual's needs.86714

       (2) The department issues a written decision pursuant to the 86715
uniform procedures for admissions, transfers, and discharges 86716
established by rules adopted under division (H)(9) of section 86717
5123.19 of the Revised Code that the residential facility should 86718
admit the identified individual.86719

       (3) After the department issues the written decision 86720
specified in division (D)(2) of this section, the residential 86721
facility refuses to admit the identified individual.86722

       (E) A residential facility that admits, refuses to admit, 86723
transfers, or discharges a resident under this section shall 86724
comply with the uniform procedures for admissions, transfers, and 86725
discharges established by rules adopted under division (H)(9) of 86726
section 5123.19 of the Revised Code.86727

       (F) The department of developmental disabilities may notify 86728
the department of job and family services of any reduction under 86729
this section in the number of residents for which a residential 86730
facility that is an intermediate care facility for the mentally 86731
retarded is licensed. On receiving the notice, the department of 86732
job and family services may transfer to the department of 86733
developmental disabilities the savings in the nonfederal share of 86734
medicaid expenditures for each fiscal year after the year of the 86735
commitment to be used for costs of the resident's care in the 86736
state-operated intermediate care facility for the mentally 86737
retarded. In determining the amount saved, the department of job 86738
and family services shall consider medicaid payments for the 86739
remaining residents of the facility in which the resident resided.86740

       Sec. 5123.38. (A) Except as provided in division (B) of this 86741
section, if an individual receiving supported living or home and 86742
community-based services funded by a county board of developmental 86743
disabilities is committed to a state-operated intermediate care 86744
facility for the mentally retardedICF/MR pursuant to sections 86745
5123.71 to 5123.76 of the Revised Code, the county board is 86746
responsible for the nonfederal share of medicaid expenditures for 86747
the individual's care in the state-operated facilityICF/MR. The 86748
department of developmental disabilities shall collect the amount 86749
of the nonfederal share from the county board by either 86750
withholding that amount from funds the department has otherwise 86751
allocated to the county board or submitting an invoice for payment 86752
of that amount to the county board.86753

       (B) Division (A) of this section does not apply under any of 86754
the following circumstances:86755

       (1) The county board, not later than ninety days after the 86756
date of the commitment of a person receiving supported living, 86757
commences funding of supported living for an individual who 86758
resides in a state-operated intermediate care facility for the 86759
mentally retardedICF/MR on the date of the commitment or another 86760
eligible individual designated by the department.86761

        (2) The county board, not later than ninety days after the 86762
date of the commitment of a person receiving home and 86763
community-based services, commences funding of home and 86764
community-based services for an individual who resides in a 86765
state-operated intermediate care facility for the mentally 86766
retardedICF/MR on the date of the commitment or another eligible 86767
individual designated by the department.86768

       (3) The director of developmental disabilities, after 86769
determining that circumstances warrant granting a waiver in an 86770
individual's case, grants the county board a waiver that exempts 86771
the county board from responsibility for the nonfederal share for 86772
that case.86773

       Sec. 5123.61.  (A) As used in this section:86774

       (1) "Law enforcement agency" means the state highway patrol, 86775
the police department of a municipal corporation, or a county 86776
sheriff.86777

       (2) "Abuse" has the same meaning as in section 5123.50 of the 86778
Revised Code, except that it includes a misappropriation, as 86779
defined in that section.86780

       (3) "Neglect" has the same meaning as in section 5123.50 of 86781
the Revised Code.86782

       (B) The department of developmental disabilities shall 86783
establish a registry office for the purpose of maintaining reports 86784
of abuse, neglect, and other major unusual incidents made to the 86785
department under this section and reports received from county 86786
boards of developmental disabilities under section 5126.31 of the 86787
Revised Code. The department shall establish committees to review 86788
reports of abuse, neglect, and other major unusual incidents.86789

       (C)(1) Any person listed in division (C)(2) of this section, 86790
having reason to believe that a person with mental retardation or 86791
a developmental disability has suffered or faces a substantial 86792
risk of suffering any wound, injury, disability, or condition of 86793
such a nature as to reasonably indicate abuse or neglect of that 86794
person, shall immediately report or cause reports to be made of 86795
such information to the entity specified in this division. Except 86796
as provided in section 5120.173 of the Revised Code or as 86797
otherwise provided in this division, the person making the report 86798
shall make it to a law enforcement agency or to the county board 86799
of developmental disabilities. If the report concerns a resident 86800
of a facility operated by the department of developmental 86801
disabilities the report shall be made either to a law enforcement 86802
agency or to the department. If the report concerns any act or 86803
omission of an employee of a county board of developmental 86804
disabilities, the report immediately shall be made to the 86805
department and to the county board.86806

       (2) All of the following persons are required to make a 86807
report under division (C)(1) of this section:86808

       (a) Any physician, including a hospital intern or resident, 86809
any dentist, podiatrist, chiropractor, practitioner of a limited 86810
branch of medicine as specified in section 4731.15 of the Revised 86811
Code, hospital administrator or employee of a hospital, nurse 86812
licensed under Chapter 4723. of the Revised Code, employee of an 86813
ambulatory health facility as defined in section 5101.61 of the 86814
Revised Code, employee of a home health agency, employee of a 86815
residential facility licensed under section 5119.225119.34 of the 86816
Revised Code that provides accommodations, supervision, and person 86817
care services for three to sixteen unrelated adults, or employee 86818
of a community mental health facility;86819

       (b) Any school teacher or school authority, social worker, 86820
psychologist, attorney, peace officer, coroner, or residents' 86821
rights advocate as defined in section 3721.10 of the Revised Code;86822

       (c) A superintendent, board member, or employee of a county 86823
board of developmental disabilities; an administrator, board 86824
member, or employee of a residential facility licensed under 86825
section 5123.19 of the Revised Code; an administrator, board 86826
member, or employee of any other public or private provider of 86827
services to a person with mental retardation or a developmental 86828
disability, or any MR/DD employee, as defined in section 5123.50 86829
of the Revised Code;86830

       (d) A member of a citizen's advisory council established at 86831
an institution or branch institution of the department of 86832
developmental disabilities under section 5123.092 of the Revised 86833
Code;86834

       (e) A member of the clergy who is employed in a position that 86835
includes providing specialized services to an individual with 86836
mental retardation or another developmental disability, while 86837
acting in an official or professional capacity in that position, 86838
or a person who is employed in a position that includes providing 86839
specialized services to an individual with mental retardation or 86840
another developmental disability and who, while acting in an 86841
official or professional capacity, renders spiritual treatment 86842
through prayer in accordance with the tenets of an organized 86843
religion.86844

       (3)(a) The reporting requirements of this division do not 86845
apply to employees of the Ohio protection and advocacy system.86846

       (b) An attorney or physician is not required to make a report 86847
pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section concerning any 86848
communication the attorney or physician receives from a client or 86849
patient in an attorney-client or physician-patient relationship, 86850
if, in accordance with division (A) or (B) of section 2317.02 of 86851
the Revised Code, the attorney or physician could not testify with 86852
respect to that communication in a civil or criminal proceeding, 86853
except that the client or patient is deemed to have waived any 86854
testimonial privilege under division (A) or (B) of section 2317.02 86855
of the Revised Code with respect to that communication and the 86856
attorney or physician shall make a report pursuant to division 86857
(C)(1) of this section, if both of the following apply:86858

       (i) The client or patient, at the time of the communication, 86859
is a person with mental retardation or a developmental disability.86860

       (ii) The attorney or physician knows or suspects, as a result 86861
of the communication or any observations made during that 86862
communication, that the client or patient has suffered or faces a 86863
substantial risk of suffering any wound, injury, disability, or 86864
condition of a nature that reasonably indicates abuse or neglect 86865
of the client or patient.86866

       (4) Any person who fails to make a report required under 86867
division (C) of this section and who is an MR/DD employee, as 86868
defined in section 5123.50 of the Revised Code, shall be eligible 86869
to be included in the registry regarding misappropriation, abuse, 86870
neglect, or other specified misconduct by MR/DD employees 86871
established under section 5123.52 of the Revised Code.86872

       (D) The reports required under division (C) of this section 86873
shall be made forthwith by telephone or in person and shall be 86874
followed by a written report. The reports shall contain the 86875
following:86876

       (1) The names and addresses of the person with mental 86877
retardation or a developmental disability and the person's 86878
custodian, if known;86879

       (2) The age of the person with mental retardation or a 86880
developmental disability;86881

       (3) Any other information that would assist in the 86882
investigation of the report.86883

       (E) When a physician performing services as a member of the 86884
staff of a hospital or similar institution has reason to believe 86885
that a person with mental retardation or a developmental 86886
disability has suffered injury, abuse, or physical neglect, the 86887
physician shall notify the person in charge of the institution or 86888
that person's designated delegate, who shall make the necessary 86889
reports.86890

       (F) Any person having reasonable cause to believe that a 86891
person with mental retardation or a developmental disability has 86892
suffered or faces a substantial risk of suffering abuse or neglect 86893
may report or cause a report to be made of that belief to the 86894
entity specified in this division. Except as provided in section 86895
5120.173 of the Revised Code or as otherwise provided in this 86896
division, the person making the report shall make it to a law 86897
enforcement agency or the county board of developmental 86898
disabilities. If the person is a resident of a facility operated 86899
by the department of developmental disabilities, the report shall 86900
be made to a law enforcement agency or to the department. If the 86901
report concerns any act or omission of an employee of a county 86902
board of developmental disabilities, the report immediately shall 86903
be made to the department and to the county board.86904

       (G)(1) Upon the receipt of a report concerning the possible 86905
abuse or neglect of a person with mental retardation or a 86906
developmental disability, the law enforcement agency shall inform 86907
the county board of developmental disabilities or, if the person 86908
is a resident of a facility operated by the department of 86909
developmental disabilities, the director of the department or the 86910
director's designee.86911

       (2) On receipt of a report under this section that includes 86912
an allegation of action or inaction that may constitute a crime 86913
under federal law or the law of this state, the department of 86914
developmental disabilities shall notify the law enforcement 86915
agency.86916

       (3) When a county board of developmental disabilities 86917
receives a report under this section that includes an allegation 86918
of action or inaction that may constitute a crime under federal 86919
law or the law of this state, the superintendent of the board or 86920
an individual the superintendent designates under division (H) of 86921
this section shall notify the law enforcement agency. The 86922
superintendent or individual shall notify the department of 86923
developmental disabilities when it receives any report under this 86924
section.86925

       (4) When a county board of developmental disabilities 86926
receives a report under this section and believes that the degree 86927
of risk to the person is such that the report is an emergency, the 86928
superintendent of the board or an employee of the board the 86929
superintendent designates shall attempt a face-to-face contact 86930
with the person with mental retardation or a developmental 86931
disability who allegedly is the victim within one hour of the 86932
board's receipt of the report.86933

       (H) The superintendent of the board may designate an 86934
individual to be responsible for notifying the law enforcement 86935
agency and the department when the county board receives a report 86936
under this section.86937

       (I) An adult with mental retardation or a developmental 86938
disability about whom a report is made may be removed from the 86939
adult's place of residence only by law enforcement officers who 86940
consider that the adult's immediate removal is essential to 86941
protect the adult from further injury or abuse or in accordance 86942
with the order of a court made pursuant to section 5126.33 of the 86943
Revised Code.86944

       (J) A law enforcement agency shall investigate each report of 86945
abuse or neglect it receives under this section. In addition, the 86946
department, in cooperation with law enforcement officials, shall 86947
investigate each report regarding a resident of a facility 86948
operated by the department to determine the circumstances 86949
surrounding the injury, the cause of the injury, and the person 86950
responsible. The investigation shall be in accordance with the 86951
memorandum of understanding prepared under section 5126.058 of the 86952
Revised Code. The department shall determine, with the registry 86953
office which shall be maintained by the department, whether prior 86954
reports have been made concerning an adult with mental retardation 86955
or a developmental disability or other principals in the case. If 86956
the department finds that the report involves action or inaction 86957
that may constitute a crime under federal law or the law of this 86958
state, it shall submit a report of its investigation, in writing, 86959
to the law enforcement agency. If the person with mental 86960
retardation or a developmental disability is an adult, with the 86961
consent of the adult, the department shall provide such protective 86962
services as are necessary to protect the adult. The law 86963
enforcement agency shall make a written report of its findings to 86964
the department.86965

       If the person is an adult and is not a resident of a facility 86966
operated by the department, the county board of developmental 86967
disabilities shall review the report of abuse or neglect in 86968
accordance with sections 5126.30 to 5126.33 of the Revised Code 86969
and the law enforcement agency shall make the written report of 86970
its findings to the county board.86971

       (K) Any person or any hospital, institution, school, health 86972
department, or agency participating in the making of reports 86973
pursuant to this section, any person participating as a witness in 86974
an administrative or judicial proceeding resulting from the 86975
reports, or any person or governmental entity that discharges 86976
responsibilities under sections 5126.31 to 5126.33 of the Revised 86977
Code shall be immune from any civil or criminal liability that 86978
might otherwise be incurred or imposed as a result of such actions 86979
except liability for perjury, unless the person or governmental 86980
entity has acted in bad faith or with malicious purpose.86981

       (L) No employer or any person with the authority to do so 86982
shall discharge, demote, transfer, prepare a negative work 86983
performance evaluation, reduce pay or benefits, terminate work 86984
privileges, or take any other action detrimental to an employee or 86985
retaliate against an employee as a result of the employee's having 86986
made a report under this section. This division does not preclude 86987
an employer or person with authority from taking action with 86988
regard to an employee who has made a report under this section if 86989
there is another reasonable basis for the action.86990

       (M) Reports made under this section are not public records as 86991
defined in section 149.43 of the Revised Code. Information 86992
contained in the reports on request shall be made available to the 86993
person who is the subject of the report, to the person's legal 86994
counsel, and to agencies authorized to receive information in the 86995
report by the department or by a county board of developmental 86996
disabilities.86997

       (N) Notwithstanding section 4731.22 of the Revised Code, the 86998
physician-patient privilege shall not be a ground for excluding 86999
evidence regarding the injuries or physical neglect of a person 87000
with mental retardation or a developmental disability or the cause 87001
thereof in any judicial proceeding resulting from a report 87002
submitted pursuant to this section.87003

       Sec. 5123.86.  (A) Except as provided in divisions (C), (D), 87004
(E), and (F) of this section, the chief medical officer shall 87005
provide all information, including expected physical and medical 87006
consequences, necessary to enable any resident of an institution 87007
for the mentally retarded to give a fully informed, intelligent, 87008
and knowing consent if any of the following procedures are 87009
proposed:87010

       (1) Surgery;87011

       (2) Convulsive therapy;87012

       (3) Major aversive interventions;87013

       (4) Sterilization;87014

       (5) Experimental procedures;87015

       (6) Any unusual or hazardous treatment procedures.87016

       (B) No resident shall be subjected to any of the procedures 87017
listed in division (A)(4), (5), or (6) of this section without the 87018
resident's informed consent.87019

       (C) If a resident is physically or mentally unable to receive 87020
the information required for surgery under division (A)(1) of this 87021
section, or has been adjudicated incompetent, the information may 87022
be provided to the resident's natural or court-appointed guardian, 87023
including an agency providing guardianship services under contract 87024
with the department of developmental disabilities under sections 87025
5123.55 to 5123.59 of the Revised Code, who may give the informed, 87026
intelligent, and knowing written consent for surgery. Consent for 87027
surgery shall not be provided by a guardian who is an officer or 87028
employee of the department of mental healthmental health and 87029
addiction services or the department of developmental 87030
disabilities.87031

       If a resident is physically or mentally unable to receive the 87032
information required for surgery under division (A)(1) of this 87033
section and has no guardian, then the information, the 87034
recommendation of the chief medical officer, and the concurring 87035
judgment of a licensed physician who is not a full-time employee 87036
of the state may be provided to the court in the county in which 87037
the institution is located, which may approve the surgery. Before 87038
approving the surgery, the court shall notify the Ohio protection 87039
and advocacy system created by section 5123.60 of the Revised 87040
Code, and shall notify the resident of the resident's rights to 87041
consult with counsel, to have counsel appointed by the court if 87042
the resident is indigent, and to contest the recommendation of the 87043
chief medical officer.87044

       (D) If, in the judgment of two licensed physicians, delay in 87045
obtaining consent for surgery would create a grave danger to the 87046
health of a resident, emergency surgery may be performed without 87047
the consent of the resident if the necessary information is 87048
provided to the resident's guardian, including an agency providing 87049
guardianship services under contract with the department of 87050
developmental disabilities under sections 5123.55 to 5123.59 of 87051
the Revised Code, or to the resident's spouse or next of kin to 87052
enable that person or agency to give an informed, intelligent, and 87053
knowing written consent.87054

       If the guardian, spouse, or next of kin cannot be contacted 87055
through exercise of reasonable diligence, or if the guardian, 87056
spouse, or next of kin is contacted, but refuses to consent, then 87057
the emergency surgery may be performed upon the written 87058
authorization of the chief medical officer and after court 87059
approval has been obtained. However, if delay in obtaining court 87060
approval would create a grave danger to the life of the resident, 87061
the chief medical officer may authorize surgery, in writing, 87062
without court approval. If the surgery is authorized without court 87063
approval, the chief medical officer who made the authorization and 87064
the physician who performed the surgery shall each execute an 87065
affidavit describing the circumstances constituting the emergency 87066
and warranting the surgery and the circumstances warranting their 87067
not obtaining prior court approval. The affidavit shall be filed 87068
with the court with which the request for prior approval would 87069
have been filed within five court days after the surgery, and a 87070
copy of the affidavit shall be placed in the resident's file and 87071
shall be given to the guardian, spouse, or next of kin of the 87072
resident, to the hospital at which the surgery was performed, and 87073
to the Ohio protection and advocacy system created by section 87074
5123.60 of the Revised Code.87075

       (E)(1) If it is the judgment of two licensed physicians, as 87076
described in division (E)(2) of this section, that a medical 87077
emergency exists and delay in obtaining convulsive therapy creates 87078
a grave danger to the life of a resident who is both mentally 87079
retarded and mentally ill, convulsive therapy may be administered 87080
without the consent of the resident if the resident is physically 87081
or mentally unable to receive the information required for 87082
convulsive therapy and if the necessary information is provided to 87083
the resident's natural or court-appointed guardian, including an 87084
agency providing guardianship services under contract with the 87085
department of developmental disabilities under sections 5123.55 to 87086
5123.59 of the Revised Code, or to the resident's spouse or next 87087
of kin to enable that person or agency to give an informed, 87088
intelligent, and knowing written consent. If neither the 87089
resident's guardian, spouse, nor next of kin can be contacted 87090
through exercise of reasonable diligence, or if the guardian, 87091
spouse, or next of kin is contacted, but refuses to consent, then 87092
convulsive therapy may be performed upon the written authorization 87093
of the chief medical officer and after court approval has been 87094
obtained.87095

       (2) The two licensed physicians referred to in division 87096
(E)(1) of this section shall not be associated with each other in 87097
the practice of medicine or surgery by means of a partnership or 87098
corporate arrangement, other business arrangement, or employment. 87099
At least one of the physicians shall be a psychiatrist as defined 87100
in division (E) of section 5122.01 of the Revised Code.87101

       (F) Major aversive interventions shall not be used unless a 87102
resident continues to engage in behavior destructive to self or 87103
others after other forms of therapy have been attempted. Major 87104
aversive interventions shall not be applied to a voluntary 87105
resident without the informed, intelligent, and knowing written 87106
consent of the resident or the resident's guardian, including an 87107
agency providing guardianship services under contract with the 87108
department of developmental disabilities under sections 5123.55 to 87109
5123.59 of the Revised Code.87110

       (G)(1) This chapter does not authorize any form of compulsory 87111
medical or psychiatric treatment of any resident who is being 87112
treated by spiritual means through prayer alone in accordance with 87113
a recognized religious method of healing.87114

       (2) For purposes of this section, "convulsive therapy" does 87115
not include defibrillation.87116

       Sec. 5124.01.  As used in this chapter:87117

       (A) "Affiliated operator" means an operator affiliated with 87118
either of the following:87119

       (1) The exiting operator for whom the affiliated operator is 87120
to assume liability for the entire amount of the exiting 87121
operator's debt under the medicaid program or the portion of the 87122
debt that represents the franchise permit fee the exiting operator 87123
owes;87124

       (2) The entering operator involved in the change of operator 87125
with the exiting operator specified in division (A)(1) of this 87126
section.87127

       (B) "Allowable costs" means an ICF/MR's costs that the 87128
department of developmental disabilities determines are 87129
reasonable. Fines paid under section 5124.99 of the Revised Code 87130
are not allowable costs.87131

       (C) "Capital costs" means an ICF/MR's costs of ownership and 87132
costs of nonextensive renovation.87133

       (D) "Case-mix score" means the measure determined under 87134
section 5124.192 of the Revised Code of the relative direct-care 87135
resources needed to provide care and habilitation to an ICF/MR 87136
resident.87137

       (E) "Change of operator" means an entering operator becoming 87138
the operator of an ICF/MR in the place of the exiting operator.87139

       (1) Actions that constitute a change of operator include the 87140
following:87141

       (a) A change in an exiting operator's form of legal 87142
organization, including the formation of a partnership or 87143
corporation from a sole proprietorship;87144

       (b) A transfer of all the exiting operator's ownership 87145
interest in the operation of the ICF/MR to the entering operator, 87146
regardless of whether ownership of any or all of the real property 87147
or personal property associated with the ICF/MR is also 87148
transferred;87149

       (c) A lease of the ICF/MR to the entering operator or the 87150
exiting operator's termination of the exiting operator's lease;87151

       (d) If the exiting operator is a partnership, dissolution of 87152
the partnership;87153

       (e) If the exiting operator is a partnership, a change in 87154
composition of the partnership unless both of the following apply:87155

       (i) The change in composition does not cause the 87156
partnership's dissolution under state law.87157

       (ii) The partners agree that the change in composition does 87158
not constitute a change in operator.87159

       (f) If the operator is a corporation, dissolution of the 87160
corporation, a merger of the corporation into another corporation 87161
that is the survivor of the merger, or a consolidation of one or 87162
more other corporations to form a new corporation.87163

       (2) The following, alone, do not constitute a change of 87164
operator:87165

       (a) A contract for an entity to manage an ICF/MR as the 87166
operator's agent, subject to the operator's approval of daily 87167
operating and management decisions;87168

       (b) A change of ownership, lease, or termination of a lease 87169
of real property or personal property associated with an ICF/MR if 87170
an entering operator does not become the operator in place of an 87171
exiting operator;87172

       (c) If the operator is a corporation, a change of one or more 87173
members of the corporation's governing body or transfer of 87174
ownership of one or more shares of the corporation's stock, if the 87175
same corporation continues to be the operator.87176

       (F) "Cost center" means the following:87177

       (1) Capital costs;87178

       (2) Direct care costs;87179

       (3) Indirect care costs;87180

       (4) Other protected costs.87181

       (G) "Costs of nonextensive renovations" means the actual 87182
expense incurred by an ICF/MR for depreciation or amortization and 87183
interest on renovations that are not extensive renovations.87184

       (H)(1) "Costs of ownership" means the actual expenses 87185
incurred by an ICF/MR for all of the following:87186

       (a) Subject to division (H)(2) of this section, depreciation 87187
and interest on any capital assets that cost five hundred dollars 87188
or more per item, including the following:87189

       (i) Buildings;87190

       (ii) Building improvements that are not approved as 87191
nonextensive renovations under section 5124.17 of the Revised 87192
Code;87193

       (iii) Equipment;87194

       (iv) Extensive renovations;87195

       (v) Transportation equipment.87196

       (b) Amortization and interest on land improvements and 87197
leasehold improvements;87198

       (c) Amortization of financing costs;87199

       (d) Except as provided in division (Z) of this section, lease 87200
and rent of land, building, and equipment.87201

       (2) The costs of capital assets of less than five hundred 87202
dollars per item may be considered costs of ownership in 87203
accordance with an ICF/MR provider's practice.87204

       (I)(1) "Date of licensure" means the following:87205

       (a) In the case of an ICF/MR that was originally licensed as 87206
a nursing home under Chapter 3721. of the Revised Code, the date 87207
that it was originally so licensed, regardless that it was 87208
subsequently licensed as a residential facility under section 87209
5123.19 of the Revised Code;87210

       (b) In the case of an ICF/MR that was originally licensed as 87211
a residential facility under section 5123.19 of the Revised Code, 87212
the date it was originally so licensed;87213

       (c) In the case of an ICF/MR that was not required by law to 87214
be licensed as a nursing home or residential facility when it was 87215
originally operated as a residential facility, the date it first 87216
was operated as a residential facility, regardless of the date the 87217
ICF/MR was first licensed as a nursing home or residential 87218
facility.87219

       (2) If, after an ICF/MR's original date of licensure, more 87220
residential facility beds are added to the ICF/MR or all or part 87221
of the ICF/MR undergoes an extensive renovation, the ICF/MR has a 87222
different date of licensure for the additional beds or extensively 87223
renovated portion of the ICF/MR. This does not apply, however, to 87224
additional beds when both of the following apply:87225

       (a) The additional beds are located in a part of the ICF/MR 87226
that was constructed at the same time as the continuing beds 87227
already located in that part of the ICF/MR;87228

       (b) The part of the ICF/MR in which the additional beds are 87229
located was constructed as part of the ICF/MR at a time when the 87230
ICF/MR was not required by law to be licensed as a nursing home or 87231
residential facility.87232

       (3) The definition of "date of licensure" in this section 87233
applies in determinations of ICFs/MR's medicaid payment rates but 87234
does not apply in determinations of ICFs/MR's franchise permit 87235
fees under sections 5168.60 to 5168.71 of the Revised Code.87236

       (J) "Desk-reviewed" means that an ICF/MR's costs as reported 87237
on a cost report filed under section 5124.10 or 5124.101 of the 87238
Revised Code have been subjected to a desk review under section 87239
5124.108 of the Revised Code and preliminarily determined to be 87240
allowable costs.87241

       (K) "Developmental center" means a residential facility that 87242
is maintained and operated by the department of developmental 87243
disabilities.87244

       (L) "Direct care costs" means all of the following costs 87245
incurred by an ICF/MR:87246

       (1) Costs for registered nurses, licensed practical nurses, 87247
and nurse aides employed by the ICF/MR;87248

       (2) Costs for direct care staff, administrative nursing 87249
staff, medical directors, respiratory therapists, physical 87250
therapists, physical therapy assistants, occupational therapists, 87251
occupational therapy assistants, speech therapists, audiologists, 87252
habilitation staff (including habilitation supervisors), qualified 87253
intellectual disability professionals, program directors, social 87254
services staff, activities staff, off-site day programming, 87255
psychologists, psychology assistants, social workers, counselors, 87256
and other persons holding degrees qualifying them to provide 87257
therapy;87258

       (3) Costs of purchased nursing services;87259

       (4) Costs of training and staff development, employee 87260
benefits, payroll taxes, and workers' compensation premiums or 87261
costs for self-insurance claims and related costs as specified in 87262
rules adopted under section 5124.03 of the Revised Code, for 87263
personnel listed in divisions (L)(1), (2), and (3) of this 87264
section;87265

       (5) Costs of quality assurance;87266

       (6) Costs of consulting and management fees related to direct 87267
care;87268

       (7) Allocated direct care home office costs;87269

       (8) Costs of other direct-care resources that are specified 87270
as direct care costs in rules adopted under section 5124.03 of the 87271
Revised Code.87272

       (M) "Downsized ICF/MR" means an ICF/MR that permanently 87273
reduced its medicaid-certified capacity pursuant to a plan 87274
approved by the department of developmental disabilities under 87275
section 5123.042 of the Revised Code.87276

       (N) "Effective date of a change of operator" means the day 87277
the entering operator becomes the operator of the ICF/MR.87278

       (O) "Effective date of a facility closure" means the last day 87279
that the last of the residents of the ICF/MR resides in the 87280
ICF/MR.87281

       (P) "Effective date of an involuntary termination" means the 87282
date the department of medicaid terminates the operator's provider 87283
agreement for the ICF/MR or the last day that such a provider 87284
agreement is in effect when the department cancels or refuses to 87285
revalidate it.87286

       (Q) "Effective date of a voluntary termination" means the day 87287
the ICF/MR ceases to accept medicaid recipients.87288

       (R) "Entering operator" means the person or government entity 87289
that will become the operator of an ICF/MR when a change of 87290
operator occurs or following an involuntary termination.87291

       (S) "Exiting operator" means any of the following:87292

       (1) An operator that will cease to be the operator of an 87293
ICF/MR on the effective date of a change of operator;87294

       (2) An operator that will cease to be the operator of an 87295
ICF/MR on the effective date of a facility closure;87296

       (3) An operator of an ICF/MR that is undergoing or has 87297
undergone a voluntary termination;87298

       (4) An operator of an ICF/MR that is undergoing or has 87299
undergone an involuntary termination.87300

       (T)(1) "Extensive renovation" means the following:87301

       (a) An ICF/MR's betterment, improvement, or restoration to 87302
which both of the following apply:87303

       (i) It was started before July 1, 1993;87304

       (ii) It meets the definition of "extensive renovation" 87305
established in rules that were adopted by the director of job and 87306
family services and in effect on December 22, 1992.87307

       (b) An ICF/MR's betterment, improvement, or restoration to 87308
which all of the following apply:87309

       (i) It was started on or after July 1, 1993;87310

       (ii) Except as provided in division (T)(2) of this section, 87311
it costs more than sixty-five per cent and not more than 87312
eighty-five per cent of the cost of constructing a new bed;87313

       (iii) It extends the useful life of the assets for at least 87314
ten years.87315

       (2) The department of developmental disabilities may treat a 87316
renovation that costs more than eighty-five per cent of the cost 87317
of constructing new beds as an extensive renovation if the 87318
department determines that the renovation is more prudent than 87319
construction of new beds.87320

       (3) For the purpose of division (T)(1)(b)(ii) of this 87321
section, the cost of constructing a new bed shall be considered to 87322
be forty thousand dollars, adjusted for the estimated rate of 87323
inflation from January 1, 1993, to the end of the calendar year 87324
during which the extensive renovation is completed, using the 87325
consumer price index for shelter costs for all urban consumers for 87326
the north central region, as published by the United States bureau 87327
of labor statistics.87328

       (U)(1) Subject to divisions (U)(2) and (3) of this section, 87329
"facility closure" means either of the following:87330

       (a) Discontinuance of the use of the building, or part of the 87331
building, that houses the facility as an ICF/MR that results in 87332
the relocation of all of the facility's residents;87333

       (b) Conversion of the building, or part of the building, that 87334
houses an ICF/MR to a different use with any necessary license or 87335
other approval needed for that use being obtained and one or more 87336
of the facility's residents remaining in the facility to receive 87337
services under the new use. 87338

       (2) A facility closure occurs regardless of any of the 87339
following:87340

       (a) The operator completely or partially replacing the ICF/MR 87341
by constructing a new ICF/MR or transferring the ICF/MR's license 87342
to another ICF/MR;87343

       (b) The ICF/MR's residents relocating to another of the 87344
operator's ICFs/MR;87345

       (c) Any action the department of health takes regarding the 87346
ICF/MR's medicaid certification that may result in the transfer of 87347
part of the ICF/MR's survey findings to another of the operator's 87348
ICFs/MR;87349

       (d) Any action the department of developmental disabilities 87350
takes regarding the ICF/MR's license under section 5123.19 of the 87351
Revised Code.87352

       (3) A facility closure does not occur if all of the ICF/MR's 87353
residents are relocated due to an emergency evacuation and one or 87354
more of the residents return to a medicaid-certified bed in the 87355
ICF/MR not later than thirty days after the evacuation occurs.87356

       (V) "Fiscal year" means the fiscal year of this state, as 87357
specified in section 9.34 of the Revised Code.87358

       (W) "Franchise permit fee" means the fee imposed by sections 87359
5168.60 to 5168.71 of the Revised Code.87360

       (X) "Home and community-based services" has the same meaning 87361
as in section 5123.01 of the Revised Code.87362

       (Y) "ICF/MR services" means ICF/IID services as defined in 42 87363
C.F.R. 440.150.87364

       (Z)(1) "Indirect care costs" means all reasonable costs 87365
incurred by an ICF/MR other than capital costs, direct care costs, 87366
and other protected costs. "Indirect care costs" includes costs of 87367
habilitation supplies, pharmacy consultants, medical and 87368
habilitation records, program supplies, incontinence supplies, 87369
food, enterals, dietary supplies and personnel, laundry, 87370
housekeeping, security, administration, liability insurance, 87371
bookkeeping, purchasing department, human resources, 87372
communications, travel, dues, license fees, subscriptions, home 87373
office costs not otherwise allocated, legal services, accounting 87374
services, minor equipment, maintenance and repair expenses, 87375
help-wanted advertising, informational advertising, start-up 87376
costs, organizational expenses, other interest, property 87377
insurance, employee training and staff development, employee 87378
benefits, payroll taxes, and workers' compensation premiums or 87379
costs for self-insurance claims and related costs, as specified in 87380
rules adopted under section 5124.03of the Revised Code, for 87381
personnel listed in this division. Notwithstanding division (H) of 87382
this section, "indirect care costs" also means the cost of 87383
equipment, including vehicles, acquired by operating lease 87384
executed before December 1, 1992, if the costs are reported as 87385
administrative and general costs on the ICF/MR's cost report for 87386
the cost reporting period ending December 31, 1992.87387

       (2) For the purpose of division (Z)(1) of this section, an 87388
operating lease shall be construed in accordance with generally 87389
accepted accounting principles.87390

       (AA) "Inpatient days" means both of the following:87391

       (1) All days during which a resident, regardless of payment 87392
source, occupies a bed in an ICF/MR that is included in the 87393
ICF/MR's medicaid-certified capacity;87394

       (2) All days for which payment is made under section 5124.34 87395
of the Revised Code.87396

       (BB) "Intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded" 87397
and "ICF/MR" mean an intermediate care facility for the mentally 87398
retarded as defined in the "Social Security Act," section 1905(d), 87399
42 U.S.C. 1396d(d).87400

       (CC) "Involuntary termination" means the department of 87401
medicaid's termination of, cancellation of, or refusal to 87402
revalidate the operator's provider agreement for the ICF/MR when 87403
such action is not taken at the operator's request.87404

       (DD) "Low resource utilization resident" means a medicaid 87405
recipient residing in an ICF/MR who is placed in the typical 87406
adaptive needs and nonsignificant behaviors classification 87407
pursuant to the resident assessment instrument and grouper 87408
methodology established in rules authorized by sections 5124.191 87409
and 5124.192 of the Revised Code.87410

       (EE) "Maintenance and repair expenses" means, except as 87411
provided in division (UU)(2)(b) of this section, expenditures that 87412
are necessary and proper to maintain an asset in a normally 87413
efficient working condition and that do not extend the useful life 87414
of the asset two years or more. "Maintenance and repair expenses" 87415
includes the costs of ordinary repairs such as painting and 87416
wallpapering.87417

       (FF) "Medicaid-certified capacity" means the number of an 87418
ICF/MR's beds that are certified for participation in medicaid as 87419
ICF/IID beds.87420

       (GG) "Medicaid days" means both of the following:87421

       (1) All days during which a resident who is a medicaid 87422
recipient eligible for ICF/MR services occupies a bed in an ICF/MR 87423
that is included in the ICF/MR's medicaid-certified capacity;87424

       (2) All days for which payment is made under section 5124.34 87425
of the Revised Code. 87426

       (HH)(1) "New ICF/MR" means an ICF/MR for which the provider 87427
obtains an initial provider agreement following the director of 87428
health's medicaid certification of the ICF/MR, including such an 87429
ICF/MR that replaces one or more ICFs/MR for which a provider 87430
previously held a provider agreement.87431

       (2) "New ICF/MR" does not mean either of the following:87432

       (a) An ICF/MR for which the entering operator seeks a 87433
provider agreement pursuant to section 5124.511 or 5124.512 or 87434
(pursuant to section 5124.515) section 5124.07 of the Revised 87435
Code;87436

       (b) A downsized ICF/MR or partially converted ICF/MR.87437

       (II) "Nursing home" has the same meaning as in section 87438
3721.01 of the Revised Code.87439

       (JJ) "Operator" means the person or government entity 87440
responsible for the daily operating and management decisions for 87441
an ICF/MR.87442

       (KK) "Other protected costs" means costs incurred by an 87443
ICF/MR for medical supplies; real estate, franchise, and property 87444
taxes; natural gas, fuel oil, water, electricity, sewage, and 87445
refuse and hazardous medical waste collection; allocated other 87446
protected home office costs; and any additional costs defined as 87447
other protected costs in rules adopted under section 5124.03 of 87448
the Revised Code.87449

       (LL)(1) "Owner" means any person or government entity that 87450
has at least five per cent ownership or interest, either directly, 87451
indirectly, or in any combination, in any of the following 87452
regarding an ICF/MR:87453

       (a) The land on which the ICF/MR is located;87454

       (b) The structure in which the ICF/MR is located;87455

       (c) Any mortgage, contract for deed, or other obligation 87456
secured in whole or in part by the land or structure on or in 87457
which the ICF/MR is located;87458

       (d) Any lease or sublease of the land or structure on or in 87459
which the ICF/MR is located.87460

       (2) "Owner" does not mean a holder of a debenture or bond 87461
related to an ICF/MR and purchased at public issue or a regulated 87462
lender that has made a loan related to the ICF/MR unless the 87463
holder or lender operates the ICF/MR directly or through a 87464
subsidiary.87465

       (MM) "Partially converted ICF/MR" means an ICF/MR that 87466
converted some, but not all, of its beds to providing home and 87467
community-based services under the individual options waiver 87468
pursuant to section 5124.60 of the Revised Code. 87469

       (NN)(1) Except as provided in divisions (NN)(2) and (3) of 87470
this section, "per diem" means an ICF/MR's desk-reviewed, actual, 87471
allowable costs in a given cost center in a cost reporting period, 87472
divided by the facility's inpatient days for that cost reporting 87473
period.87474

       (2) When determining capital costs for the purpose of section 87475
5124.17 of the Revised Code, "per diem" means an ICF/MR's actual, 87476
allowable capital costs in a cost-reporting period divided by the 87477
greater of the facility's inpatient days for that period or the 87478
number of inpatient days the ICF/MR would have had during that 87479
period if its occupancy rate had been ninety-five per cent.87480

       (3) When determining indirect care costs for the purpose of 87481
section 5124.21 of the Revised Code, "per diem" means an ICF/MR's 87482
actual, allowable indirect care costs in a cost-reporting period 87483
divided by the greater of the ICF/MR's inpatient days for that 87484
period or the number of inpatient days the ICF/MR would have had 87485
during that period if its occupancy rate had been eighty-five per 87486
cent.87487

       (OO) "Provider" means an operator with a valid provider 87488
agreement.87489

       (PP) "Provider agreement" means a provider agreement, as 87490
defined in section 5164.01 of the Revised Code, that is between 87491
the department of medicaid and the operator of an ICF/MR for the 87492
provision of ICF/MR services under the medicaid program.87493

       (QQ) "Purchased nursing services" means services that are 87494
provided in an ICF/MR by registered nurses, licensed practical 87495
nurses, or nurse aides who are not employees of the ICF/MR.87496

       (RR) "Reasonable" means that a cost is an actual cost that is 87497
appropriate and helpful to develop and maintain the operation of 87498
resident care facilities and activities, including normal standby 87499
costs, and that does not exceed what a prudent buyer pays for a 87500
given item or services. Reasonable costs may vary from provider to 87501
provider and from time to time for the same provider.87502

       (SS) "Related party" means an individual or organization 87503
that, to a significant extent, has common ownership with, is 87504
associated or affiliated with, has control of, or is controlled 87505
by, a provider.87506

       (1) An individual who is a relative of an owner is a related 87507
party.87508

       (2) Common ownership exists when an individual or individuals 87509
possess significant ownership or equity in both the provider and 87510
the other organization. Significant ownership or equity exists 87511
when an individual or individuals possess five per cent ownership 87512
or equity in both the provider and a supplier. Significant 87513
ownership or equity is presumed to exist when an individual or 87514
individuals possess ten per cent ownership or equity in both the 87515
provider and another organization from which the provider 87516
purchases or leases real property.87517

       (3) Control exists when an individual or organization has the 87518
power, directly or indirectly, to significantly influence or 87519
direct the actions or policies of an organization.87520

       (4) An individual or organization that supplies goods or 87521
services to a provider shall not be considered a related party if 87522
all of the following conditions are met:87523

       (a) The supplier is a separate bona fide organization.87524

       (b) A substantial part of the supplier's business activity of 87525
the type carried on with the provider is transacted with others 87526
than the provider and there is an open, competitive market for the 87527
types of goods or services the supplier furnishes.87528

       (c) The types of goods or services are commonly obtained by 87529
other ICFs/MR from outside organizations and are not a basic 87530
element of resident care ordinarily furnished directly to 87531
residents by the ICFs/MR.87532

       (d) The charge to the provider is in line with the charge for 87533
the goods or services in the open market and no more than the 87534
charge made under comparable circumstances to others by the 87535
supplier.87536

       (TT) "Relative of owner" means an individual who is related 87537
to an owner of an ICF/MR by one of the following relationships:87538

       (1) Spouse;87539

       (2) Natural parent, child, or sibling;87540

       (3) Adopted parent, child, or sibling;87541

       (4) Stepparent, stepchild, stepbrother, or stepsister;87542

       (5) Father-in-law, mother-in-law, son-in-law, 87543
daughter-in-law, brother-in-law, or sister-in-law;87544

       (6) Grandparent or grandchild;87545

       (7) Foster caregiver, foster child, foster brother, or foster 87546
sister.87547

       (UU)(1) "Renovation" means the following:87548

       (a) An ICF/MR's betterment, improvement, or restoration to 87549
which both of the following apply:87550

       (i) It was started before July 1, 1993;87551

       (ii) It meets the definition of "renovation" established in 87552
rules that were adopted by the director of job and family services 87553
and in effect on December 22, 1992.87554

       (b) An ICF/MR's betterment, improvement, or restoration to 87555
which both of the following apply:87556

       (i) It was started on or after July 1, 1993;87557

       (ii) It betters, improves, or restores the ICF/MR beyond its 87558
current functional capacity through a structural change that costs 87559
at least five hundred dollars per bed.87560

       (2) A renovation started on or after July 1, 1993, may 87561
include both of the following:87562

       (a) A betterment, improvement, restoration, or replacement of 87563
assets that are affixed to a building and have a useful life of at 87564
least five years;87565

       (b) Costs that otherwise would be considered maintenance and 87566
repair expenses if they are an integral part of the structural 87567
change that makes up the renovation project.87568

       (3) "Renovation" does not mean construction of additional 87569
space for beds that will be added to an ICF/MR's licensed capacity 87570
or medicaid-certified capacity.87571

       (VV) "Residential facility" has the same meaning as in 87572
section 5123.19 of the Revised Code.87573

       (WW) "Sponsor" means an adult relative, friend, or guardian 87574
of an ICF/MR resident who has an interest or responsibility in the 87575
resident's welfare.87576

       (XX) "Title XIX" means Title XIX of the "Social Security 87577
Act," 42 U.S.C. 1396, et seq.87578

       (YY) "Title XVIII" means Title XVIII of the "Social Security 87579
Act," 42 U.S.C. 1395, et seq.87580

       (ZZ) "Voluntary termination" means an operator's voluntary 87581
election to terminate the participation of an ICF/MR in the 87582
medicaid program but to continue to provide service of the type 87583
provided by a residential facility as defined in section 5123.19 87584
of the Revised Code.87585

       Sec. 5111.226.        Sec. 5124.02. Subject, if needed, to the approval 87586
of the United States secretary of health and human services, the87587
The department of job and family servicesmedicaid shall enter 87588
into a contract with the department of developmental disabilities 87589
under section 5111.915162.35 of the Revised Code that provides 87590
for the department of developmental disabilities to assume the 87591
powers and duties of the department of job and family services87592
medicaid with regard to the medicaid program's coverage of ICF/MR87593
services provided by intermediate care facilities for the 87594
mentally retarded. The contract shall include a schedule for the 87595
assumption of the powers and duties. Except as otherwise 87596
authorized by the United States secretary of health and human 87597
services, no provision of the contract may violate a federal law 87598
or regulation governing the medicaid program. Once the contract 87599
goes into effect, all references to the department of job and 87600
family services, and all references to the director of job and 87601
family services, with regard to intermediate care facilities for 87602
the mentally retarded that are in law enacted by the general 87603
assembly shall be deemed to be references to the department of 87604
developmental disabilities and director of developmental 87605
disabilities, respectively, to the extent necessary to implement 87606
the terms of the contract.87607

       Sec. 5124.03.  To the extent authorized by rules authorized 87608
by section 5162.021 of the Revised Code, the director of 87609
developmental disabilities shall adopt rules in accordance with 87610
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code as necessary to implement this 87611
chapter.87612

       Sec. 5124.05.  The medicaid program shall cover ICF/MR 87613
services when all of the following apply:87614

       (A) The ICF/MR services are provided to a medicaid recipient 87615
eligible for the services.87616

       (B) The ICF/MR services are provided by an ICF/MR for which 87617
the provider has a valid provider agreement.87618

       (C) Federal financial participation is available for the 87619
ICF/MR services.87620

       Sec. 5124.06.  (A) Subject to section 5124.072 of the Revised 87621
Code, an ICF/MR operator is eligible to enter into a provider 87622
agreement for an ICF/MR if all of the following apply:87623

       (1) The ICF/MR is certified by the director of health for 87624
participation in medicaid;87625

       (2) The ICF/MR is licensed by the director of developmental 87626
disabilities as a residential facility;87627

       (3) Subject to division (B) of this section, the operator and 87628
ICF/MR comply with all applicable state and federal statutes and 87629
rules.87630

       (B) A state rule that requires an ICF/MR operator to have 87631
received approval of a plan for the proposed ICF/MR pursuant to 87632
section 5123.042 of the Revised Code as a condition of the 87633
operator being eligible to receive medicaid payments for ICF/MR 87634
services the ICF/MR provides does not apply if, under former 87635
section 5123.193 of the Revised Code as enacted by Am. Sub. H.B. 1 87636
of the 128th general assembly or section 5123.197 of the Revised 87637
Code, a residential facility license was obtained or modified for 87638
the ICF/MR without obtaining approval of such a plan.87639

       Sec. 5124.07.  (A) Except as provided in section 5124.072 of 87640
the Revised Code, the department of medicaid shall enter into a 87641
provider agreement with an ICF/MR operator who applies, and is 87642
eligible, for the provider agreement.87643

       (B) A provider agreement shall require the department of 87644
developmental disabilities, pursuant to its agreement with the 87645
department of medicaid under section 5124.02 of the Revised Code, 87646
to make medicaid payments to the provider in accordance with this 87647
chapter for ICF/MR services the ICF/MR provides to its residents 87648
who are medicaid recipients eligible for ICF/MR services.87649

       (C) A provider agreement shall require the provider to do all 87650
of the following:87651

       (1) Maintain eligibility for the provider agreement as 87652
provided in section 5124.06 of the Revised Code;87653

       (2) Keep records relating to a cost reporting period for the 87654
greater of seven years after the cost report is filed or, if the 87655
department of developmental disabilities issues an audit report in 87656
accordance with section 5124.109 of the Revised Code, six years 87657
after all appeal rights relating to the audit report are 87658
exhausted;87659

       (3) File reports as the department of developmental 87660
disabilities requires;87661

       (4) Open all records relating to the costs of the ICF/MR's 87662
services for inspection and audit by the department of 87663
developmental disabilities;87664

       (5) Open its premises for inspection by the department of 87665
developmental disabilities, department of health, and any other 87666
state or local authority having authority to inspect;87667

       (6) Supply to the department of developmental disabilities 87668
such information as it requires concerning the ICF/MR's services 87669
to residents who are, or are eligible to be, medicaid recipients;87670

       (7) Comply with section 5124.08 of the Revised Code.87671

       (D) A provider agreement may contain other provisions that 87672
are consistent with law and considered necessary by the department 87673
of medicaid or the department of developmental disabilities.87674

       Sec. 5124.071.  An ICF/MR operator may enter into provider 87675
agreements for more than one ICF/MR.87676

       Sec. 5124.072.  The department of medicaid, in accordance 87677
with rules adopted under section 5165.02 of the Revised Code, may 87678
elect not to enter into, not to revalidate, or to terminate an 87679
ICF/MR provider agreement when the department determines that such 87680
an agreement would not be in the best interests of medicaid 87681
recipients or the state. The department shall not revalidate an 87682
ICF/MR provider agreement if the provider fails to maintain 87683
eligibility for the provider agreement as provided in section 87684
5124.06 of the Revised Code.87685

       Sec. 5124.08.  (A) Every provider agreement with an ICF/MR 87686
provider shall do both of the following:87687

       (1) Except as provided by division (B) of this section, 87688
include any part of the ICF/MR that meets federal and state 87689
standards for medicaid certification;87690

       (2) Prohibit the provider from doing either of the following:87691

       (a) Discriminating against a resident on the basis of race, 87692
color, sex, creed, or national origin;87693

       (b) Subject to division (D) of this section, failing or 87694
refusing to do either of the following:87695

       (i) Admit as a resident of the ICF/MR an individual because 87696
the individual is, or may (as a resident of the ICF/MR) become, a 87697
medicaid recipient if less than eighty per cent of the ICF/MR's 87698
residents are medicaid recipients;87699

       (ii) Retain as a resident of the ICF/MR an individual because 87700
the individual is, or may (as a resident of the ICF/MR) become, a 87701
medicaid recipient.87702

       (B) Unless otherwise required by federal law, an ICF/MR bed 87703
is not required to be included in a provider agreement if the bed 87704
is designated for respite care under a medicaid waiver component 87705
operated pursuant to a waiver sought under section 5166.20 of the 87706
Revised Code.87707

       (C) For the purpose of division (A)(2)(b)(ii) of this 87708
section, a medicaid recipient who is a resident of an ICF/MR shall 87709
be considered a resident of the ICF/MR during any hospital stays 87710
totaling less than twenty-five days during any twelve-month 87711
period. A medicaid recipient identified by the department of 87712
developmental disabilities or its designee as requiring the level 87713
of care of an ICF/MR shall not be subject to a maximum period of 87714
absences during which the recipient is considered to be an ICF/MR 87715
resident if prior authorization of the department for visits with 87716
relatives and friends and participation in therapeutic programs is 87717
obtained in accordance with rules adopted under section 5124.03 of 87718
the Revised Code.87719

       (D) Nothing in this section shall bar a provider from doing 87720
any of the following:87721

       (1) If the provider is a religious organization operating a 87722
religious or denominational ICF/MR, giving preference to persons 87723
of the same religion or denomination;87724

       (2) Giving preference to persons with whom the provider has 87725
contracted to provide continuing care;87726

       (3) Retaining residents who have resided in the provider's 87727
ICF/MR for not less than one year as private pay residents and who 87728
subsequently become medicaid recipients but refusing to admit as a 87729
resident an individual who is, or may (as a resident of the 87730
ICF/MR) become, a medicaid recipient, if all of the following 87731
apply:87732

       (a) The provider does not refuse to retain a resident who has 87733
resided in the provider's ICF/MR for not less than one year as a 87734
private pay resident because the resident becomes a medicaid 87735
recipient, except as necessary to comply with division (D)(3)(b) 87736
of this section.87737

       (b) The number of medicaid recipients retained under division 87738
(D)(3) of this section does not at any time exceed ten per cent of 87739
all the ICF/MR's residents.87740

       (c) On July 1, 1980, all the ICF/MR's residents were private 87741
pay residents.87742

       (E) No provider shall violate the provider agreement 87743
obligations imposed by this section.87744

       Sec. 5124.081.  An ICF/MR resident has a cause of action 87745
against the provider of the ICF/MR for breach of the provider 87746
agreement obligations or other duties imposed by section 5124.08 87747
of the Revised Code. The action may be commenced by the resident, 87748
or on the resident's behalf by the resident's sponsor, by the 87749
filing of a civil action in the court of common pleas of the 87750
county in which the ICF/MR is located or in the court of common 87751
pleas of Franklin county.87752

       If a court of common pleas finds that a provider has breached 87753
a provider agreement obligation or other duty imposed by section 87754
5124.08 of the Revised Code, the court may do one or more of the 87755
following:87756

       (A) Enjoin the provider from engaging in the practice;87757

       (B) Order such affirmative relief as may be necessary;87758

       (C) Award to a resident and a sponsor that brings the action 87759
on behalf of a resident actual damages, costs, and reasonable 87760
attorney's fees.87761

       Sec. 5124.10.  (A) Except as provided in division (D) of this 87762
section and division (E)(2) of section 5124.101 of the Revised 87763
Code, each ICF/MR provider shall file with the department of 87764
developmental disabilities an annual cost report for each of the 87765
provider's ICFs/MR for which the provider has a valid provider 87766
agreement. The cost report for a year shall cover the calendar 87767
year or portion of the calendar year during which the ICF/MR 87768
participated in the medicaid program. Except as provided in 87769
division (E) of this section, the cost report is due not later 87770
than ninety days after the end of the calendar year, or portion of 87771
the calendar year, that the cost report covers.87772

       (B)(1) If an ICF/MR undergoes a change of provider that the 87773
department determines, in accordance with rules adopted under 87774
section 5124.03 of the Revised Code, is not an arms length 87775
transaction, the new provider shall file the ICF/MR's cost report 87776
in accordance with division (A) of this section and the cost 87777
report shall cover the portion of the calendar year during which 87778
the new provider operated the ICF/MR and the portion of the 87779
calendar year during which the previous provider operated the 87780
ICF/MR.87781

       (2) If an ICF/MR undergoes a change of provider that the 87782
department determines, in accordance with rules adopted under 87783
section 5124.03 of the Revised Code, is an arms length 87784
transaction, the new provider shall file with the department a 87785
cost report for the ICF/MR not later than, except as provided in 87786
division (E) of this section, ninety days after the end of the 87787
ICF/MR's first three full calendar months of operation under the 87788
new provider. The cost report shall cover the period that begins 87789
with the ICF/MR's first day of operation under the new provider 87790
and ends on the first day of the month immediately following the 87791
first three full months of operation under the new provider.87792

       (C) If the medicaid payment rate for a new ICF/MR was most 87793
recently determined in accordance with section 5124.151 of the 87794
Revised Code, the provider shall file with the department a cost 87795
report for the new ICF/MR not later than, except as provided in 87796
division (E) of this section, ninety days after the end of the new 87797
ICF/MR's first three full calendar months of operation. The cost 87798
report shall cover the period that begins with the ICF/MR's first 87799
day of operation and ends on the first day of the month 87800
immediately following the first three full months of operation.87801

       (D) An ICF/MR provider is not required to file a cost report 87802
for an ICF/MR for a calendar year in accordance with division (A) 87803
of this section if the provider files a cost report for the ICF/MR 87804
under division (B)(2) or (C) of this section and that cost report 87805
covers a period that begins after the first day of October of that 87806
calendar year. The provider shall file a cost report for the 87807
ICF/MR in accordance with division (A) of this section for the 87808
immediately following calendar year.87809

       (E) The department may grant to a provider a fourteen-day 87810
extension to file a cost report under this section or section 87811
5124.101 of the Revised Code if the provider provides the 87812
department a written request for the extension and the department 87813
determines that there is good cause for the extension.87814

       Sec. 5124.101. (A) The provider of an ICF/MR that becomes a 87815
downsized ICF/MR or partially converted ICF/MR may file with the 87816
department of developmental disabilities a cost report covering 87817
the period specified in division (B) of this section if the ICF/MR 87818
has both of the following on the day it becomes a downsized ICF/MR 87819
or partially converted ICF/MR:87820

       (1) A medicaid-certified capacity that is at least ten per 87821
cent less than its medicaid-certified capacity on the day 87822
immediately preceding the day it becomes a downsized ICF/MR or 87823
partially converted ICF/MR;87824

       (2) At least five fewer beds certified as ICF/MR beds than it 87825
has on the day immediately preceding the day it becomes a 87826
downsized ICF/MR or partially converted ICF/MR.87827

       (B) A cost report filed under division (A) of this section 87828
shall cover the period that begins with the day that the ICF/MR 87829
becomes a downsized ICF/MR or partially converted ICF/MR and ends 87830
on the first day of the month immediately following the first 87831
three full months of operation as a downsized ICF/MR or partially 87832
converted ICF/MR.87833

       (C) The department shall refuse to accept a cost report filed 87834
under division (A) of this section if either of the following 87835
apply:87836

       (1) Except as provided in division (E) of section 5124.10 of 87837
the Revised Code, the provider fails to file the cost report with 87838
the department not later than ninety days after the last day of 87839
the period the cost report covers;87840

       (2) The cost report is incomplete or inadequate.87841

       (D) If the department accepts a cost report filed under 87842
division (A) of this section, the department shall determine the 87843
ICF/MR's medicaid payment rate in accordance with this chapter 87844
using that cost report. The provider shall be paid that rate for 87845
ICF/MR services the ICF/MR provides during the period that begins 87846
and ends as follows:87847

       (1) The period begins on the following:87848

       (a) The day that the ICF/MR becomes a downsized ICF/MR or 87849
partially converted ICF/MR if that day is the first day of a 87850
month;87851

       (b) The first day of the month immediately following the 87852
month that the ICF/MR becomes a downsized ICF/MR or partially 87853
converted ICF/MR if division (D)(1)(a) of this section does not 87854
apply.87855

       (2) The period ends on the first day of the fiscal year for 87856
which the ICF/MR begins to be paid a rate determined using a cost 87857
report that division (E) of this section requires be filed in 87858
accordance with division (A) of section 5124.10 of the Revised 87859
Code.87860

       (E)(1) If the department accepts a cost report filed under 87861
division (A) of this section for an ICF/MR that becomes a 87862
downsized ICF/MR or partially converted ICF/MR on or before the 87863
first day of October of a calendar year, the provider also shall 87864
file a cost report for the ICF/MR in accordance with division (A) 87865
of section 5124.10 of the Revised Code for the portion of that 87866
calendar year that the ICF/MR operated as a downsized ICF/MR or 87867
partially converted ICF/MR.87868

       (2) If the department accepts a cost report filed under 87869
division (A) of this section for an ICF/MR that becomes a 87870
downsized ICF/MR or partially converted ICF/MR after the first day 87871
of October of a calendar year, the provider is not required to 87872
file a cost report for that calendar year in accordance with 87873
division (A) of section 5124.10 of the Revised Code. The provider 87874
shall file a cost report for the ICF/MR in accordance with 87875
division (A) of section 5124.10 of the Revised Code for the 87876
immediately following calendar year.87877

       Sec. 5124.102.  No ICF/MR provider shall report fines paid 87878
under section 5124.99 of the Revised Code in a cost report filed 87879
under section 5124.10, 5124.101, or 5124.522 of the Revised Code.87880

       Sec. 5124.103.  Cost reports shall be completed using the 87881
form prescribed under section 5124.104 of the Revised Code and in 87882
accordance with the guidelines established under that section.87883

       Sec. 5124.104.  The department of developmental disabilities 87884
shall do all of the following:87885

       (A) Prescribe the form to be used for completing a cost 87886
report and a uniform chart of accounts for the purpose of 87887
reporting costs on the form;87888

       (B) Distribute a paper copy of the form, or computer software 87889
for electronic submission of the form, to each provider at least 87890
sixty days before the date the cost report is due;87891

       (C) Establish guidelines for completing the form.87892

       Sec. 5124.105.  The department of developmental disabilities 87893
shall develop an addendum to the cost report form that an ICF/MR 87894
provider may use to set forth costs that the provider believes the 87895
department may dispute. The department may consider such costs in 87896
determining an ICF/MR's medicaid payment rate. If the department 87897
does not consider such costs in determining an ICF/MR's medicaid 87898
payment rate, the provider may seek reconsideration of the 87899
determination in accordance with section 5124.38 of the Revised 87900
Code. If the department subsequently includes such costs in an 87901
ICF/MR's medicaid payment rate, the department shall pay the 87902
provider interest at a reasonable rate established in rules 87903
adopted under section 5124.03 of the Revised Code for the period 87904
that the rate excluded the costs.87905

       Sec. 5124.106.  If an ICF/MR provider required by section 87906
5124.10 of the Revised Code to file a cost report for the ICF/MR 87907
fails to file the cost report by the date it is due or the date, 87908
if any, to which the due date is extended pursuant to division (E) 87909
of that section, or files an incomplete or inadequate report for 87910
the ICF/MR under that section, the department of developmental 87911
disabilities shall provide immediate written notice to the 87912
provider that the provider agreement for the ICF/MR will be 87913
terminated in thirty days unless the provider submits a complete 87914
and adequate cost report for the ICF/MR within thirty days. During 87915
the thirty-day termination period or any additional time allowed 87916
for an appeal of the proposed termination of a provider agreement, 87917
the provider shall be paid the ICF/MR's then current per medicaid 87918
day payment rate, minus the dollar amount by which ICFs/MR's per 87919
medicaid day payment rates are reduced during fiscal year 2013 in 87920
accordance with division (A)(2) of section 5111.26 of the Revised 87921
Code (renumbered as section 5165.10 of the Revised Code by H.B. 59 87922
of the 130th general assembly) as that section existed on the day 87923
immediately preceding the effective date of this section. On the 87924
first day of each July, the department shall adjust the amount of 87925
the reduction in effect during the previous twelve months to 87926
reflect the rate of inflation during the preceding twelve months, 87927
as shown in the consumer price index for all items for all urban 87928
consumers for the north central region, published by the United 87929
States bureau of labor statistics.87930

       Sec. 5124.107.  (A) Except as provided in division (B) of 87931
this section and not later than three years after an ICF/MR 87932
provider files a cost report with the department of developmental 87933
disabilities under section 5124.10 or 5124.101 of the Revised 87934
Code, the provider may amend the cost report if the provider 87935
discovers a material error in the cost report or additional 87936
information to be included in the cost report. The department 87937
shall review the amended cost report for accuracy and notify the 87938
provider of its determination.87939

       (B) An ICF/MR provider may not amend a cost report if the 87940
department has notified the provider that an audit of the cost 87941
report or a cost report of the provider for a subsequent cost 87942
reporting period is to be conducted under section 5124.109 of the 87943
Revised Code. The provider may, however, provide the department 87944
information that affects the costs included in the cost report. 87945
Such information may not be provided after the adjudication of the 87946
final settlement of the cost report.87947

       Sec. 5124.108.  The department of developmental disabilities 87948
shall conduct a desk review of all cost reports it receives under 87949
sections 5124.10, 5124.101, and 5124.522 of the Revised Code. 87950
Based on the desk review, the department shall make a preliminary 87951
determination of whether the reported costs are allowable costs. 87952
The department shall notify each ICF/MR provider of whether any of 87953
the reported costs are preliminarily determined not to be 87954
allowable costs, the medicaid payment rate determined under this 87955
chapter as a result of the determination regarding allowable 87956
costs, and the reasons for the determination and resulting rate. 87957
The department shall allow the provider to verify the calculation 87958
and submit additional information.87959

       Sec. 5124.109.  (A) The department of developmental 87960
disabilities may conduct an audit, as defined in rules adopted 87961
under section 5124.03 of the Revised Code, of any cost report 87962
filed under section 5124.10, 5124.101, or 5124.522 of the Revised 87963
Code. The decision whether to conduct an audit and the scope of 87964
the audit, which may be a desk or field audit, may be determined 87965
based on prior performance of the provider, a risk analysis, or 87966
other evidence that gives the department reason to believe that 87967
the provider has reported costs improperly. A desk or field audit 87968
may be performed annually, but is required whenever a provider 87969
does not pass the risk analysis tolerance factors.87970

       (B) Audits shall be conducted by auditors under contract with 87971
the department, auditors working for firms under contract with the 87972
department, or auditors employed by the department.87973

        The department may establish a contract for the auditing of 87974
ICFs/MR by outside firms. Each contract entered into by bidding 87975
shall be effective for one to two years.87976

       (C) The department shall notify a provider of the findings of 87977
an audit of a cost report by issuing an audit report. The 87978
department shall issue the audit report not later than three years 87979
after the earlier of the following:87980

       (1) The date the cost report is filed;87981

       (2) The date a desk or field audit of the cost report or a 87982
cost report for a subsequent cost reporting period is completed.87983

       (D) The department shall prepare a written summary of any 87984
audit disallowance that is made after the effective date of the 87985
rate that is based on the cost. Where the provider is pursuing 87986
judicial or administrative remedies in good faith regarding the 87987
disallowance, the department shall not withhold from the 87988
provider's current payments any amounts the department claims to 87989
be due from the provider pursuant to section 5124.41 of the 87990
Revised Code.87991

       (E)(1) The department shall establish an audit manual and 87992
program for field audits conducted under this section. Each 87993
auditor conducting a field audit under this section shall follow 87994
the audit manual and program, regardless of whether the auditor is 87995
under contract with the department, works for a firm under 87996
contract with the department, or is employed by the department. 87997
The manual and program shall do both of the following:87998

       (a) Require each field audit to be conducted by an auditor to 87999
whom all of the following apply:88000

       (i) During the period of the auditor's contract, firm's 88001
contract, or auditor's employment with the department, the auditor 88002
or firm does not have and is not committed to acquire any direct 88003
or indirect financial interest in the ownership, financing, or 88004
operation of ICFs/MR in this state.88005

       (ii) The auditor does not audit any provider that has been a 88006
client of the auditor or the auditor's firm.88007

       (iii) The auditor is otherwise independent as determined by 88008
the standards of independence included in the government auditing 88009
standards produced by the United States government accountability 88010
office.88011

       (b) Require each auditor conducting a field audit to do all 88012
of the following:88013

       (i) Comply with applicable rules prescribed pursuant to Title 88014
XIX;88015

       (ii) Consider generally accepted auditing standards 88016
prescribed by the American institute of certified public 88017
accountants;88018

       (iii) Include a written summary as to whether the costs 88019
included in the cost report examined during the audit are 88020
allowable and are presented in accordance with state and federal 88021
laws and regulations, and whether, in all material respects, 88022
allowable costs are documented, reasonable, and related to patient 88023
care;88024

       (iv) Complete the audit within the time period specified by 88025
the department;88026

       (v) Provide to the provider complete written interpretations 88027
that explain in detail the application of all relevant contract 88028
provisions, regulations, auditing standards, rate formulae, and 88029
departmental policies, with explanations and examples, that are 88030
sufficient to permit the provider to calculate with reasonable 88031
certainty those costs that are allowable and the rate to which the 88032
provider's ICF/MR is entitled.88033

       (2) For the purpose of division (E)(1)(a)(i) of this section, 88034
employment of a member of an auditor's family by an ICF/MR that 88035
the auditor does not audit does not constitute a direct or 88036
indirect financial interest in the ownership, financing, or 88037
operation of the ICF/MR.88038

       Sec. 5111.224.        Sec. 5124.15.  (A) Except as otherwise provided by 88039
sections 5111.205124.151 to 5111.3315124.155 of the Revised Code 88040
and by division (B) of this section, the paymentstotal per 88041
medicaid day payment rate that the department of job and family 88042
servicesdevelopmental disabilities shall agree to makepay to the88043
an ICF/MR provider of an intermediate care facility for the 88044
mentally retarded pursuant to a provider agreementfor ICF/MR 88045
services the provider's ICF/MR provides during a fiscal year shall 88046
equal the sum of all of the following:88047

       (1) The per medicaid day payment rate for capital costs 88048
determined for the ICF/MR under section 5124.17 of the Revised 88049
Code;88050

       (2) The per medicaid day payment rate for direct care costs 88051
determined for the facilityICF/MR under section 5111.235124.1988052
of the Revised Code;88053

       (2)(3) The per medicaid day payment rate for indirect care 88054
costs determined for the ICF/MR under section 5124.21 of the 88055
Revised Code;88056

       (4) The per medicaid day payment rate for other protected 88057
costs determined for the facilityICF/MR under section 5111.23588058
5124.23 of the Revised Code;88059

       (3) The rate for indirect care costs determined for the 88060
facility under section 5111.241 of the Revised Code;88061

       (4) The rate for capital costs determined for the facility 88062
under section 5111.251 of the Revised Code.88063

       (B) The department shall adjust the total rate otherwise 88064
determined under division (A) of this section as directed by the 88065
general assembly through the enactment of law governing medicaid 88066
payments to ICF/MR providers of intermediate care facilities for 88067
the mentally retarded.88068

       (C) In addition to paying an ICF/MR provider the total rate 88069
determined for the provider's ICF/MR under divisions (A) and (B) 88070
of this section for a fiscal year, the department, in accordance 88071
with section 5124.25 of the Revised Code, may pay the provider a 88072
rate add-on for pediatric ventilator-dependent outlier ICF/MR 88073
services if the rate add-on is to be paid under that section and 88074
the department approves the provider's application for the rate 88075
add-on. The rate add-on is not to be part of the ICF/MR's total 88076
rate.88077

       Sec. 5111.255.        Sec. 5124.151.  (A) The department of job and family 88078
services shall establish initial rates for an intermediate care 88079
facility for the mentally retarded with a first date of licensure 88080
that is on or after January 1, 1993, including a facility that 88081
replaces one or more existing facilities, or for an intermediate 88082
care facility for the mentally retarded with a first date of 88083
licensure before that date that was initially certified for the 88084
medicaid program on or after that date,total per medicaid day 88085
payment rate determined under section 5124.15 of the Revised Code 88086
shall not be the initial rate for ICF/MR services provided by a 88087
new ICF/MR. Instead, the initial total per medicaid day payment 88088
rate for ICF/MR services provided by a new ICF/MR shall be 88089
determined in the following manner:88090

       (1) The initial rate for capital costs shall be determined 88091
under section 5124.17 of the Revised Code using the greater of the 88092
new ICF/MR's actual inpatient days or an imputed occupancy rate of 88093
eighty per cent. 88094

       (2) The initial rate for direct care costs shall be 88095
determined as follows:88096

       (a) If there are no cost or resident assessment data for the 88097
new ICF/MR as necessary to calculatedetermine a rate under 88098
section 5111.235124.19 of the Revised Code, the rate shall be 88099
determined as follows:88100

       (i) Determine the median cost per case-mix unit calculated88101
determined under division (B)(1) of that section 5124.19 of the 88102
Revised Code for the relevantnew ICF/MR's peer group for the 88103
calendar year preceding the fiscal year in which the rate will be 88104
paid, multiplied;88105

       (ii) Multiply the amount determined under division 88106
(A)(2)(a)(i) of this section by the median annual average case-mix 88107
score for the new ICF/MR's peer group for that period and;88108

       (iii) Adjust the product determined under division 88109
(A)(2)(a)(ii) of this section by the rate of inflation estimated 88110
under division (B)(3)(D) of that section 5124.19 of the Revised 88111
Code. This rate shall be recalculated to reflect the facility's 88112
actual quarterly average case-mix score, in accordance with that 88113
section, after it submits its first quarterly assessment data that 88114
qualifies for use in calculating a case-mix score in accordance 88115
with rules authorized by division (E) of section 5111.232 of the 88116
Revised Code. If the facility's first two quarterly submissions do 88117
not contain assessment data that qualifies for use in calculating 88118
a case-mix score, the department shall continue to calculate the 88119
rate using the median annual case-mix score for the peer group in 88120
lieu of an assigned quarterly case-mix score. The department shall 88121
assign a case-mix score or, if necessary, a cost per case-mix unit 88122
under division (D) of section 5111.232 of the Revised Code for any 88123
subsequent submissions that do not contain assessment data that 88124
qualifies for use in calculating a case-mix score.88125

       (b) If the facilitynew ICF/MR is a replacement facility88126
ICF/MR and the facilityICF/MR or facilitiesICFs/MR that are 88127
being replaced are in operation immediately before the replacement 88128
facilitynew ICF/MR opens, the rate shall be the same as the rate 88129
for the replaced facilityICF/MR or facilitiesICFs/MR, 88130
proportionate to the number of ICF/MR beds in each replaced 88131
facilityICF/MR. If one or more of the replaced facilities is88132

       (c) If the new ICF/MR is a replacement ICF/MR and the ICF/MR 88133
or ICFs/MR that are being replaced are not in operation 88134
immediately before the replacement facilitynew ICF/MR opens, its 88135
proportionthe rate shall be determined under division 88136
(A)(1)(2)(a) of this section.88137

       (2)(3) The initial rate for indirect care costs shall be the 88138
maximum rate for the new ICF/MR's peer group as determined for the 88139
fiscal year in accordance with division (C) of section 5124.21 of 88140
the Revised Code.88141

       (4) The initial rate for other protected costs shall be one 88142
hundred fifteen per cent of the median rate for intermediate care 88143
facilities for the mentally retarded calculatedICFs/MR determined88144
for the fiscal year under section 5111.2355124.23 of the Revised 88145
Code.88146

       (3) The rate for indirect care costs shall be the applicable 88147
maximum rate for the facility's peer group as specified in 88148
division (B) of section 5111.241 of the Revised Code.88149

       (4) The rate for capital costs shall be determined under 88150
section 5111.251 of the Revised Code using the greater of actual 88151
inpatient days or an imputed occupancy rate of eighty per cent. 88152

       (B) If a new ICF/MR's initial rate for direct care costs is 88153
determined under division (A)(2)(a) of this section, the 88154
department shall redetermine the rate in accordance with section 88155
5124.19 of the Revised Code to reflect the new ICF/MR's actual 88156
quarterly case-mix score, after the provider, in accordance with 88157
section 5124.191 of the Revised Code, submits the first quarterly 88158
resident assessment data for the ICF/MR that qualifies for use in 88159
determining a case-mix score. If the first two quarterly 88160
submissions for the ICF/MR do not contain resident assessment data 88161
that qualifies for use in determining a case-mix score, the 88162
department shall continue to determine the ICF/MR's rate using the 88163
median annual case-mix score for the peer group in lieu of an 88164
assigned quarterly case-mix score. The department shall assign a 88165
case-mix score or, if necessary, a cost per case-mix unit under 88166
division (B) of section 5124.192 of the Revised Code for any 88167
subsequent submissions that do not contain resident assessment 88168
data that qualifies for use in determining a case-mix score.88169

       (C) The department shall adjust the rates establisheda new 88170
ICF/MR's initial total per medicaid day payment rate determined88171
under division (A) of this section at both of the following 88172
times:88173

       (1) Effective the first day of July, to reflect new rate 88174
calculationsdeterminations for all facilitiesICFs/MR under 88175
sections 5111.20 to 5111.331 of the Revised Codethis chapter;88176

       (2) Following the provider's submission of the facility's88177
ICF/MR's cost report under division (A)(1)(b)(C) of section 88178
5111.265124.10 of the Revised Code.88179

       The department shall pay the rate adjusted based on the cost 88180
report beginning the first day of the calendar quarter that begins 88181
more than ninety days after the department receives the cost 88182
report.88183

       Sec. 5124.152.  The total per medicaid day payment rate 88184
determined under section 5124.15 of the Revised Code shall not be 88185
paid for ICF/MR services provided on or after July 1, 2014, to low 88186
resource utilization residents. Instead, the total per medicaid 88187
day payment rate for such ICF/MR services shall be a flat rate set 88188
in rules adopted under section 5124.03 of the Revised Code.88189

       Sec. 5124.153.  (A) The total per medicaid day payment rate 88190
determined under section 5124.15 of the Revised Code shall not be 88191
paid for ICF/MR services provided by an ICF/MR, or discrete unit 88192
of an ICF/MR, designated by the department of developmental 88193
disabilities as an outlier ICF/MR or unit. Instead, the provider 88194
of a designated outlier ICF/MR or unit shall be paid each fiscal 88195
year a total per medicaid day payment rate that the department 88196
shall prospectively determine in accordance with a methodology 88197
established in rules authorized by this section.88198

       (B) The department may designate an ICF/MR, or discrete unit 88199
of an ICF/MR, as an outlier ICF/MR or unit if the ICF/MR or unit 88200
serves residents who have either of the following:88201

       (1) Diagnoses or special care needs that require direct care 88202
resources that are not measured adequately by the resident 88203
assessment instrument specified in rules authorized by section 88204
5124.191 of the Revised Code;88205

       (2) Diagnoses or special care needs that are specified in 88206
rules authorized by this section as otherwise qualifying for 88207
consideration under this section.88208

       (C) Notwithstanding any other provision of this chapter, the 88209
costs incurred by a designated outlier ICF/MR or unit shall not be 88210
considered in establishing medicaid payment rates for other 88211
ICFs/MR or units.88212

       (D) The director of developmental disabilities shall adopt 88213
rules under section 5124.03 of the Revised Code as necessary to 88214
implement this section.88215

       (1)(a) The rules shall do both of the following:88216

       (i) Specify the criteria and procedures the department will 88217
apply when designating an ICF/MR, or discrete unit of an ICF/MR, 88218
as an outlier ICF/MR or unit;88219

       (ii) Establish a methodology for prospectively determining 88220
the total per medicaid day payment rate that will be paid each 88221
fiscal year for ICF/MR services provided by a designated outlier 88222
ICF/MR or unit.88223

       (b) The rules adopted under division (D)(1)(a)(i) of this 88224
section regarding the criteria for designating outlier ICFs/MR and 88225
units shall do both of the following:88226

       (i) Provide for consideration of whether all of the allowable 88227
costs of an ICF/MR, or discrete unit of an ICF/MR, would be paid 88228
by the rate determined under section 5124.15 of the Revised Code;88229

       (ii) Specify the minimum number of ICF/MR beds that an 88230
ICF/MR, or discrete unit of an ICF/MR, must have to be designated 88231
an outlier ICF/MR or unit.88232

       (c) The rules authorized by division (D)(1)(a)(i) of this 88233
section regarding the criteria for designating outlier ICFs/MR and 88234
units shall not limit the designation to ICFs/MR, or discrete 88235
units of ICFs/MR, located in large cities.88236

       (d) The rules authorized by division (D)(1)(a)(ii) of this 88237
section regarding the methodology for prospectively determining 88238
the rates of designated outlier ICFs/MR and units shall provide 88239
for the methodology to consider the historical costs of providing 88240
ICF/MR services to the residents of designated outlier ICFs/MR and 88241
units.88242

       (2)(a) The rules may do both of the following:88243

       (i) Include for designation as an outlier ICF/MR or unit, an 88244
ICF/MR, or discrete unit of an ICF/MR, that serves residents who 88245
have complex medical conditions or severe behavioral problems;88246

       (ii) Require that a designated outlier ICF/MR or unit receive 88247
authorization from the department before admitting or retaining a 88248
resident.88249

       (b) If the director adopts rules authorized by division 88250
(D)(2)(a)(ii) of this section regarding the authorization of a 88251
designated outlier ICF/MR or unit to admit or retain a resident, 88252
the rules shall specify the criteria and procedures the department 88253
will apply when granting the authorization.88254

       Sec. 5124.154.  (A) To the extent, if any, provided for in 88255
rules authorized by this section, the total per medicaid day 88256
payment rate determined under section 5124.15 of the Revised Code 88257
shall not be paid for ICF/MR services that an ICF/MR not 88258
designated as an outlier ICF/MR or unit provides to a resident who 88259
meets the criteria for admission to a designated outlier ICF/MR or 88260
unit, as specified in rules authorized by section 5124.153 of the 88261
Revised Code. Instead, the provider of an ICF/MR providing ICF/MR 88262
services to such a resident shall be paid each fiscal year a total 88263
per medicaid day payment rate that the department shall 88264
prospectively determine in accordance with a methodology 88265
established in rules authorized by this section.88266

       (B) The director of developmental disabilities may adopt 88267
rules under section 5124.03 of the Revised Code to implement this 88268
section. The rules may require that an ICF/MR receive 88269
authorization from the department before admitting or retaining a 88270
resident who meets the criteria for admission to a designated 88271
outlier ICF/MR or unit. If the director adopts such rules, the 88272
rules shall specify the criteria and procedures the department 88273
will apply when granting the authorization.88274

       Sec. 5111.291.        Sec. 5124.155. Notwithstanding sections 5111.20 to 88275
5111.331 of the Revised CodeThe department of developmental 88276
disabilities is not required to pay the total per medicaid day 88277
payment rates determined under section 5124.15 of the Revised Code 88278
for ICF/MR services provided by developmental centers. Instead, 88279
the department of job and family services may computedetermine88280
the ratemedicaid payment rates for intermediate care facilities 88281
for the mentally retarded operated by the department of88282
developmental disabilities or the department of mental health88283
centers according to the reasonable cost principles of Title 88284
XVIII.88285

       Sec. 5111.251.        Sec. 5124.17.  (A) TheFor each fiscal year, the88286
department of job and family servicesdevelopmental disabilities88287
shall pay a provider forprospectively determine each of the 88288
provider's eligible intermediate care facilities for the mentally 88289
retarded for its reasonable capital costs, aICF/MR's per 88290
resident permedicaid day payment rate established prospectively 88291
each fiscal year for each intermediate care facility for the 88292
mentally retardedfor reasonable capital costs. Except as 88293
otherwise provided in sections 5111.20 to 5111.331 of the Revised 88294
Codethis chapter, thean ICF/MR's rate shall be based on the 88295
facility'sICF/MR's capital costs for the calendar year preceding 88296
the fiscal year in which the rate will be paid. TheSubject to 88297
section 5124.28, an ICF/MR's rate shall equal the sum of the 88298
following:88299

       (1) The facility'sICF/MR's desk-reviewed, actual, allowable, 88300
per diem costcosts of ownership for the immediately preceding 88301
cost reporting period, limited as provided in divisions (B) and88302
(C) and (F) of this section;88303

       (2) Any efficiency incentive determined under division (B) of 88304
this section;88305

       (3) Any amounts forThe ICF/MR's per medicaid day payment for 88306
the ICF/MR's per diem capitalized costs of nonextensive88307
renovations determined under division (D)(1) of this section if 88308
the ICF/MR qualifies for a payment for such costs as specified in 88309
division (D)(2) of this section;88310

       (4) Any amounts for return on equity determined under 88311
division (H) of this section(3) The ICF/MR's per medicaid day 88312
efficiency incentive payment determined under division (E) of this 88313
section.88314

       Buildings shall be depreciated using the straight line method 88315
over forty years or over a different period approved by the 88316
department. Components and equipment shall be depreciated using 88317
the straight line method over a period designated by the director 88318
of job and family services in rules adopted under section 5111.02 88319
of the Revised Code, consistent with the guidelines of the 88320
American hospital association, or over a different period approved 88321
by the department of job and family services. Any rules authorized 88322
by this division that specify useful lives of buildings, 88323
components, or equipment apply only to assets acquired on or after 88324
July 1, 1993. Depreciation for costs paid or reimbursed by any 88325
government agency shall not be included in costs of ownership or 88326
renovation unless that part of the payment under sections 5111.20 88327
to 5111.331 of the Revised Code is used to reimburse the 88328
government agency. 88329

       (B) The department of job and family services shall pay to a 88330
provider for each of the provider's eligible intermediate care 88331
facilities for the mentally retarded an efficiency incentive equal 88332
to fifty per cent of the difference between any desk-reviewed, 88333
actual, allowable cost of ownership and the applicable limit on 88334
cost of ownership payments under division (C) of this section. For 88335
purposes of computing the efficiency incentive, depreciation for 88336
costs paid or reimbursed by any government agency shall be 88337
considered as a cost of ownership, and the applicable limit under 88338
division (C) of this section shall apply both to facilities with 88339
more than eight beds and facilities with eight or fewer beds. The 88340
efficiency incentive paid to a provider for a facility with eight 88341
or fewer beds shall not exceed three dollars per patient day, 88342
adjusted annually for the inflation rate for the twelve-month 88343
period beginning on the first day of July of the calendar year 88344
preceding the calendar year that precedes the fiscal year for 88345
which the efficiency incentive is determined and ending on the 88346
thirtieth day of the following June, using the consumer price 88347
index for shelter costs for all urban consumers for the north 88348
central region, as published by the United States bureau of labor 88349
statistics.88350

       (C) CostThe costs of ownership paymentsper diem payment 88351
rates for intermediate care facilities for the mentally retarded88352
ICFs/MR with more than eight beds shall not exceed the following 88353
limits:88354

       (1) For facilitiesICFs/MR with dates of licensure prior to 88355
January 1, l958, not exceeding two dollars and fifty cents per 88356
patient day;88357

       (2) For facilitiesICFs/MR with dates of licensure after 88358
December 31, l957, but prior to January 1, l968, not exceeding:88359

       (a) Three dollars and fifty cents per patient day if the cost 88360
of construction was three thousand five hundred dollars or more 88361
per bed;88362

       (b) Two dollars and fifty cents per patient day if the cost 88363
of construction was less than three thousand five hundred dollars 88364
per bed.88365

       (3) For facilitiesICFs/MR with dates of licensure after 88366
December 31, l967, but prior to January 1, l976, not exceeding:88367

       (a) Four dollars and fifty cents per patient day if the cost 88368
of construction was five thousand one hundred fifty dollars or 88369
more per bed;88370

       (b) Three dollars and fifty cents per patient day if the cost 88371
of construction was less than five thousand one hundred fifty 88372
dollars per bed, but exceeds three thousand five hundred dollars 88373
per bed;88374

       (c) Two dollars and fifty cents per patient day if the cost 88375
of construction was three thousand five hundred dollars or less 88376
per bed.88377

       (4) For facilitiesICFs/MR with dates of licensure after 88378
December 31, l975, but prior to January 1, l979, not exceeding:88379

       (a) Five dollars and fifty cents per patient day if the cost 88380
of construction was six thousand eight hundred dollars or more per 88381
bed;88382

       (b) Four dollars and fifty cents per patient day if the cost 88383
of construction was less than six thousand eight hundred dollars 88384
per bed but exceeds five thousand one hundred fifty dollars per 88385
bed;88386

       (c) Three dollars and fifty cents per patient day if the cost 88387
of construction was five thousand one hundred fifty dollars or 88388
less per bed, but exceeds three thousand five hundred dollars per 88389
bed;88390

       (d) Two dollars and fifty cents per patient day if the cost 88391
of construction was three thousand five hundred dollars or less 88392
per bed.88393

       (5) For facilitiesICFs/MR with dates of licensure after 88394
December 31, l978, but prior to January 1, l980, not exceeding:88395

       (a) Six dollars per patient day if the cost of construction 88396
was seven thousand six hundred twenty-five dollars or more per 88397
bed;88398

       (b) Five dollars and fifty cents per patient day if the cost 88399
of construction was less than seven thousand six hundred 88400
twenty-five dollars per bed but exceeds six thousand eight hundred 88401
dollars per bed;88402

       (c) Four dollars and fifty cents per patient day if the cost 88403
of construction was six thousand eight hundred dollars or less per 88404
bed but exceeds five thousand one hundred fifty dollars per bed;88405

       (d) Three dollars and fifty cents per patient day if the cost 88406
of construction was five thousand one hundred fifty dollars or 88407
less but exceeds three thousand five hundred dollars per bed;88408

       (e) Two dollars and fifty cents per patient day if the cost 88409
of construction was three thousand five hundred dollars or less 88410
per bed.88411

       (6) For facilitiesICFs/MR with dates of licensure after 88412
December 31, 1979, but prior to January 1, 1981, not exceeding:88413

       (a) Twelve dollars per patient day if the beds were 88414
originally licensed as residential facility beds by the department 88415
of developmental disabilities;88416

       (b) Six dollars per patient day if the beds were originally 88417
licensed as nursing home beds by the department of health.88418

       (7) For facilitiesICFs/MR with dates of licensure after 88419
December 31, 1980, but prior to January 1, 1982, not exceeding:88420

       (a) Twelve dollars per patient day if the beds were 88421
originally licensed as residential facility beds by the department 88422
of developmental disabilities;88423

       (b) Six dollars and forty-five cents per patient day if the 88424
beds were originally licensed as nursing home beds by the 88425
department of health.88426

       (8) For facilitiesICFs/MR with dates of licensure after 88427
December 31, 1981, but prior to January 1, 1983, not exceeding:88428

       (a) Twelve dollars per patient day if the beds were 88429
originally licensed as residential facility beds by the department 88430
of developmental disabilities;88431

       (b) Six dollars and seventy-nine cents per patient day if the 88432
beds were originally licensed as nursing home beds by the 88433
department of health.88434

       (9) For facilitiesICFs/MR with dates of licensure after 88435
December 31, 1982, but prior to January 1, 1984, not exceeding:88436

       (a) Twelve dollars per patient day if the beds were 88437
originally licensed as residential facility beds by the department 88438
of developmental disabilities;88439

       (b) Seven dollars and nine cents per patient day if the beds 88440
were originally licensed as nursing home beds by the department of 88441
health.88442

       (10) For facilitiesICFs/MR with dates of licensure after 88443
December 31, 1983, but prior to January 1, 1985, not exceeding:88444

       (a) Twelve dollars and twenty-four cents per patient day if 88445
the beds were originally licensed as residential facility beds by 88446
the department of developmental disabilities;88447

       (b) Seven dollars and twenty-three cents per patient day if 88448
the beds were originally licensed as nursing home beds by the 88449
department of health.88450

       (11) For facilitiesICFs/MR with dates of licensure after 88451
December 31, 1984, but prior to January 1, 1986, not exceeding:88452

       (a) Twelve dollars and fifty-three cents per patient day if 88453
the beds were originally licensed as residential facility beds by 88454
the department of developmental disabilities;88455

       (b) Seven dollars and forty cents per patient day if the beds 88456
were originally licensed as nursing home beds by the department of 88457
health.88458

       (12) For facilitiesICFs/MR with dates of licensure after 88459
December 31, 1985, but prior to January 1, 1987, not exceeding:88460

       (a) Twelve dollars and seventy cents per patient day if the 88461
beds were originally licensed as residential facility beds by the 88462
department of developmental disabilities;88463

       (b) Seven dollars and fifty cents per patient day if the beds 88464
were originally licensed as nursing home beds by the department of 88465
health.88466

       (13) For facilitiesICFs/MR with dates of licensure after 88467
December 31, 1986, but prior to January 1, 1988, not exceeding:88468

       (a) Twelve dollars and ninety-nine cents per patient day if 88469
the beds were originally licensed as residential facility beds by 88470
the department of developmental disabilities;88471

       (b) Seven dollars and sixty-seven cents per patient day if 88472
the beds were originally licensed as nursing home beds by the 88473
department of health.88474

       (14) For facilitiesICFs/MR with dates of licensure after 88475
December 31, 1987, but prior to January 1, 1989, not exceeding 88476
thirteen dollars and twenty-six cents per patient day;88477

       (15) For facilitiesICFs/MR with dates of licensure after 88478
December 31, 1988, but prior to January 1, 1990, not exceeding 88479
thirteen dollars and forty-six cents per patient day;88480

       (16) For facilitiesICFs/MR with dates of licensure after 88481
December 31, 1989, but prior to January 1, 1991, not exceeding 88482
thirteen dollars and sixty cents per patient day;88483

       (17) For facilitiesICFs/MR with dates of licensure after 88484
December 31, 1990, but prior to January 1, 1992, not exceeding 88485
thirteen dollars and forty-nine cents per patient day;88486

       (18) For facilitiesICFs/MR with dates of licensure after 88487
December 31, 1991, but prior to January 1, 1993, not exceeding 88488
thirteen dollars and sixty-seven cents per patient day;88489

       (19) For facilitiesICFs/MR with dates of licensure after 88490
December 31, 1992, not exceeding fourteen dollars and twenty-eight 88491
cents per patient day.88492

       (C)(1) The costs of ownership per diem payment rate for an 88493
ICF/MR with eight or fewer beds shall not exceed the following 88494
limits:88495

       (a) Eighteen dollars and thirty cents as adjusted for 88496
inflation pursuant to division (C)(2) of this section if any of 88497
the following apply to the ICF/MR:88498

       (i) The ICF/MR has a date of licensure, or was granted 88499
project authorization by the department of developmental 88500
disabilities, before July 1, 1993.88501

       (ii) The ICF/MR has a date of licensure, or was granted 88502
project authorization by the department, on or after July 1, 1993, 88503
and the provider demonstrates that the provider made substantial 88504
commitments of funds for the ICF/MR before that date.88505

       (iii) The ICF/MR has a date of licensure, or was granted 88506
project authorization by the department, on or after July 1, 1993, 88507
the provider made no substantial commitment of funds for the 88508
ICF/MR before that date, and the department of job and family 88509
services or department of developmental disabilities gave prior 88510
approval for the ICF/MR's construction.88511

       (b) If division (C)(1)(a) of this section does not apply to 88512
the ICF/MR, the amount that would apply to the ICF/MR under 88513
division (B) of this section if it had more than eight beds.88514

       (2) The eighteen-dollar and thirty-cent payment rate 88515
specified in division (C)(1)(a) of this section shall be increased 88516
as follows:88517

       (a) For the period beginning June 30, 1990, and ending July 88518
1, 1993, by the change in the "Dodge building cost indexes, 88519
northeastern and north central states," published by Marshall and 88520
Swift;88521

       (b) For each fiscal year thereafter, in accordance with 88522
division (F) of this section.88523

       (D)(1) Beginning January 1, 1981, regardless of the original 88524
date of licensure, the department of job and family services shall 88525
pay apayment rate for the per diem capitalized costs of 88526
nonextensive renovations to intermediate care facilities for the 88527
mentally retarded made after January 1, l981, to a qualifying 88528
ICF/MR, shall not exceedingexceed six dollars per patient88529
medicaid day using 1980 as the base year and adjusting the amount 88530
annually until June 30, 1993, for fluctuations in construction 88531
costs calculated by the department using the "Dodge building cost 88532
indexes, northeastern and north central states," published by 88533
Marshall and Swift. The payment rate shall be further adjusted in 88534
accordance with division (F) of this section. The payment provided 88535
for in this division is the only payment that shall be made for 88536
thean ICF/MR's capitalized costs of a nonextensive renovation of 88537
an intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded88538
renovations. Nonextensive renovation costsCosts of nonextensive 88539
renovations shall not be included in costcosts of ownership, and 88540
a nonextensive renovation shall not affect the date of licensure 88541
for purposes of division (B) or (C) of this section. This division 88542
applies to nonextensive renovations regardless of whether they are 88543
made by an owner or a lessee. If the tenancy of a lessee that has 88544
made nonextensive renovations ends before the depreciation expense 88545
for the renovation costs of nonextensive renovations has been 88546
fully reported, the former lessee shall not report the 88547
undepreciated balance as an expense.88548

       For a nonextensive renovation to qualify(2) An ICF/MR 88549
qualifies for a payment under this division, bothfor costs of 88550
nonextensive renovations if all of the following conditions must 88551
be metapply:88552

       (1)(a) The ICF/MR has eight or fewer beds.88553

       (b) At least five years have elapsed since the ICF/MR's date 88554
of licensure or date of an extensive renovation of the portion of 88555
the facilityICF/MR that is proposed to be nonextensively88556
renovated, except that this condition does not apply ifunless the 88557
nonextensive renovation is necessary to meet the requirements of 88558
federal, state, or local statutes, ordinances, rules, or policies.88559

       (2)(c) The provider has obtained prior approval from the 88560
department of job and family services. The provider shall submit88561
of the ICF/MR does both of the following:88562

       (i) Submits to the department a plan that describes in detail 88563
the changes in capital assets to be accomplished by means of the 88564
nonextensive renovation and the timetable for completing the 88565
project. The time for completion of the project, which shall be no88566
not more than eighteen months after the nonextensive renovation 88567
begins;88568

       (ii) Obtains prior approval from the department for the 88569
nonextensive renovation. The88570

       (3) The director of job and family servicesdevelopmental 88571
disabilities shall adopt rules under section 5111.025124.03 of 88572
the Revised Code that specify criteria and procedures for prior 88573
approval of nonextensive renovation projects. No provider shall 88574
separate a project with the intent to evade the characterization 88575
of the project as a renovation or as an extensive renovation. No 88576
provider shall increase the scope of a project after it is 88577
approved by the department of job and family services unless the 88578
increase in scope is approved by the department.88579

       (E)(1) Subject to division (E)(2) of this section, an 88580
ICF/MR's per medicaid day efficiency incentive payment rate shall 88581
equal the following percentage of the difference between the 88582
ICF/MR's desk-reviewed, actual, allowable per diem costs of 88583
ownership and the applicable limit on costs of ownership payment 88584
rates established by division (B) of this section:88585

       (a) In the case of an ICF/MR with more than eight beds, 88586
twenty-five per cent;88587

       (b) In the case of an ICF/MR with eight or fewer beds, fifty 88588
per cent.88589

       (2) The efficiency incentive payment rate for an ICF/MR with 88590
eight or fewer beds shall not exceed three dollars per medicaid 88591
day, adjusted annually in accordance with division (F) of this 88592
section. For the purpose of determining an ICF/MR's efficiency 88593
incentive payment rate, both of the following apply:88594

       (a) Depreciation for costs paid or reimbursed by any 88595
government agency shall be considered as a cost of ownership;88596

       (b) The applicable limit under division (B) of this section 88597
shall apply both to ICFs/MR with more than eight beds and ICFs/MR 88598
with eight or fewer beds.88599

       (F) The amounts specified in divisions (B), (C) and, (D), and 88600
(E) of this section shall be adjusted beginning July 1, 1993, for 88601
the estimated inflation rate for the twelve-month period beginning 88602
on the first day of July of the calendar year immediately88603
preceding the calendar year that immediately precedes the fiscal 88604
year for which rate will be paid and ending on the thirtieth day 88605
of the following June, using the consumer price index for shelter 88606
costs for all urban consumers for the north central region, as 88607
published by the United States bureau of labor statistics.88608

       (F)(1) For facilities of eight or fewer beds that have dates 88609
of licensure or have been granted project authorization by the 88610
department of developmental disabilities before July 1, 1993, and 88611
for facilities of eight or fewer beds that have dates of licensure 88612
or have been granted project authorization after that date if the 88613
providers of the facilities demonstrate that they made substantial 88614
commitments of funds on or before that date, cost of ownership 88615
shall not exceed eighteen dollars and thirty cents per resident 88616
per day. The eighteen-dollar and thirty-cent amount shall be 88617
increased by the change in the "Dodge building cost indexes, 88618
northeastern and north central states," published by Marshall and 88619
Swift, during the period beginning June 30, 1990, and ending July 88620
1, 1993, and by the change in the consumer price index for shelter 88621
costs for all urban consumers for the north central region, as 88622
published by the United States bureau of labor statistics, 88623
annually thereafter.88624

       (2) For facilities with eight or fewer beds that have dates 88625
of licensure or have been granted project authorization by the 88626
department of developmental disabilities on or after July 1, 1993, 88627
for which substantial commitments of funds were not made before 88628
that date, cost of ownership payments shall not exceed the 88629
applicable amount calculated under division (F)(1) of this 88630
section, if the department of job and family services gives prior 88631
approval for construction of the facility. If the department does 88632
not give prior approval, cost of ownership payments shall not 88633
exceed the amount specified in division (C) of this section.88634

       (3)(G) Notwithstanding divisions (C) and (D) and (F)(1) and 88635
(2) of this section, the total payment rate for costcosts of 88636
ownership, cost of ownership efficiency incentive, and capitalized 88637
costs of nonextensive renovations, and the efficiency incentive88638
for an intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded88639
ICF/MR with eight or fewer beds shall not exceed the sum of the 88640
limitations specified in divisions (C) and (D) of this section.88641

       (G) Notwithstanding any provision of this section or section 88642
5111.241 of the Revised Code, the director of job and family 88643
services may adopt rules under section 5111.02 of the Revised Code 88644
that provide for a calculation of a combined maximum payment limit 88645
for indirect care costs and cost of ownership for intermediate 88646
care facilities for the mentally retarded with eight or fewer 88647
beds.88648

       (H) The department of job and family services shall pay a 88649
provider for each of the provider's eligible proprietary 88650
intermediate care facilities for the mentally retarded a return on 88651
the facility's net equity computed at the rate of one and one-half 88652
times the average of interest rates on special issues of public 88653
debt obligations issued to the federal hospital insurance trust 88654
fund for the cost reporting period. No facility's return on net 88655
equity paid under this division shall exceed one dollar per 88656
patient day. 88657

       In calculating the rate for return on net equity, the 88658
department shall use the greater of the facility's inpatient days 88659
during the applicable cost reporting period or the number of 88660
inpatient days the facility would have had during that period if 88661
its occupancy rate had been ninety-five per cent.(1) For the 88662
purpose of determining ICFs/MR's medicaid payment rates for 88663
capital costs:88664

       (a) Buildings shall be depreciated using the straight line 88665
method over forty years or over a different period approved by the 88666
department.88667

       (b) Components and equipment shall be depreciated using the 88668
straight line method over a period designated by the director of 88669
developmental disabilities in rules adopted under section 5124.03 88670
of the Revised Code, consistent with the guidelines of the 88671
American hospital association, or over a different period approved 88672
by the department.88673

       (2) Any rules authorized by division (H)(1) of this section 88674
that specify useful lives of buildings, components, or equipment 88675
apply only to assets acquired on or after July 1, 1993. 88676
Depreciation for costs paid or reimbursed by any government agency 88677
shall not be included in costs of ownership or costs of 88678
nonextensive renovations unless that part of the payment under 88679
this chapter is used to reimburse the government agency.88680

       (I)(1) Except as provided in division (I)(2) of this section, 88681
if a provider leases or transfers an interest in a facilityan 88682
ICF/MR to another provider who is a related party, the related 88683
party's allowable costcosts of ownership shall include the lesser 88684
of the following:88685

       (a) The annual lease expense or actual cost of ownership, 88686
whichever is applicable;88687

       (b) The reasonable cost to the lessor or provider making the 88688
transfer.88689

       (2) If a provider leases or transfers an interest in a 88690
facilityan ICF/MR to another provider who is a related party, 88691
regardless of the date of the lease or transfer, the related 88692
party's allowable cost of ownership shall include the annual lease 88693
expense or actual cost of ownership, whichever is applicable, 88694
subject to the limitations specified in divisions (B) to (H) of 88695
this section, if all of the following conditions are met:88696

       (a) The related party is a relative of owner;88697

       (b) In the case of a lease, if the lessor retains any 88698
ownership interest, it is, except as provided in division 88699
(I)(2)(d)(ii) of this section, in only the real property and any 88700
improvements on the real property;88701

       (c) In the case of a transfer, the provider making the 88702
transfer retains, except as provided in division (I)(2)(d)(iv) of 88703
this section, no ownership interest in the facilityICF/MR;88704

       (d) The department of job and family services determines that 88705
the lease or transfer is an arm's length transaction pursuant to 88706
rules adopted under section 5111.025124.03 of the Revised Code. 88707
The rules shall provide that a lease or transfer is an arm's 88708
length transaction if all of the following, as applicable, apply:88709

       (i) In the case of a lease, once the lease goes into effect, 88710
the lessor has no direct or indirect interest in the lessee or, 88711
except as provided in division (I)(2)(b) of this section, the 88712
facilityICF/MR itself, including interest as an owner, officer, 88713
director, employee, independent contractor, or consultant, but 88714
excluding interest as a lessor.88715

       (ii) In the case of a lease, the lessor does not reacquire an 88716
interest in the facilityICF/MR except through the exercise of a 88717
lessor's rights in the event of a default. If the lessor 88718
reacquires an interest in the facilityICF/MR in this manner, the 88719
department shall treat the facilityICF/MR as if the lease never 88720
occurred when the department calculatesdetermines its 88721
reimbursement ratespayment rate for capital costs.88722

       (iii) In the case of a transfer, once the transfer goes into 88723
effect, the provider that made the transfer has no direct or 88724
indirect interest in the provider that acquires the facility88725
ICF/MR or the facilityICF/MR itself, including interest as an 88726
owner, officer, director, employee, independent contractor, or 88727
consultant, but excluding interest as a creditor.88728

       (iv) In the case of a transfer, the provider that made the 88729
transfer does not reacquire an interest in the facilityICF/MR88730
except through the exercise of a creditor's rights in the event of 88731
a default. If the provider reacquires an interest in the facility88732
ICF/MR in this manner, the department shall treat the facility88733
ICF/MR as if the transfer never occurred when the department 88734
calculatesdetermines its reimbursement ratespayment rate for 88735
capital costs.88736

       (v) The lease or transfer satisfies any other criteria 88737
specified in the rules.88738

       (e) Except in the case of hardship caused by a catastrophic 88739
event, as determined by the department, or in the case of a lessor 88740
or provider making the transfer who is at least sixty-five years 88741
of age, not less than twenty years have elapsed since, for the 88742
same facilityICF/MR, allowable cost of ownership was determined 88743
most recently under this division.88744

       Sec. 5111.23.        Sec. 5124.19.  (A)(1) The department of job and 88745
family servicesdevelopmental disabilities shall pay a provider 88746
forprospectively determine each of the provider's eligible 88747
intermediate care facilities for the mentally retarded aICF/MR's88748
per resident permedicaid day payment rate for direct care costs 88749
established prospectively for each facility. The department shall 88750
establish each facility's rate for direct care costs quarterlyas 88751
follows:88752

       (a) Multiply the lesser of the following by the ICF/MR's 88753
case-mix score determined or assigned under section 5124.192 of 88754
the Revised Code for the calendar quarter that preceded the 88755
immediately preceding calendar quarter:88756

       (i) The ICF/MR's cost per case-mix unit for the calendar year 88757
immediately preceding the fiscal year in which the rate will be 88758
paid, as determined under division (B) of this section;88759

       (ii) The maximum cost per case-mix unit for the ICF/MR's peer 88760
group for the fiscal year in which the rate will be paid, as set 88761
under division (C) of this section;88762

       (b) Adjust the product determined under division (A)(1)(a) of 88763
this section by the inflation rate estimated under division (D)(1) 88764
of this section and modified under division (D)(2) of this 88765
section.88766

       (2) Except as otherwise directed by law enacted by the 88767
general assembly, the department shall prospectively determine 88768
each ICF/MR's rate for direct care costs for each quarter of every 88769
fiscal year.88770

       (B) Each facility's rate for direct care costs shall be based 88771
on the facility's cost per case-mix unit, subject to the maximum 88772
costs per case-mix unit established under division (B)(2) of this 88773
section, from the calendar year preceding the fiscal year in which 88774
the rate is paid. To determine the rate, the department shall do 88775
all of the following:88776

       (1) Determine each facility'san ICF/MR's cost per case-mix 88777
unit for the calendar year immediately preceding the fiscal year 88778
in which the rate will be paid by dividing, the facility's88779
department shall divide the ICF/MR's desk-reviewed, actual, 88780
allowable, per diem direct care costs for that calendar year by 88781
its annual average case-mix score determined under section 88782
5111.2325124.192 of the Revised Code for the same calendar year.88783

       (2)(a) Set(C)(1) For each fiscal year for which a rate will 88784
be paid, the department shall set the maximum cost per case-mix 88785
unit for each peer group of intermediate care facilities for the 88786
mentally retardedICFs/MR with more than eight beds specified in 88787
rules adopted under division (F) of this section at a percentage 88788
above the cost per case-mix unit ofdetermined under division (B) 88789
of this section for the facilityICF/MR in the peer group that has 88790
the peer group's median number of medicaid daydays for the 88791
calendar year immediately preceding the fiscal year in which the 88792
rate will be paid, as calculated under division (B)(1) of this 88793
section, that is. The percentage shall be no less than the 88794
percentage calculated under division (E)(2) of this sectionabove 88795
the cost per case-mix unit determined under division (B) of this 88796
section for the ICF/MR that has the median number of medicaid days 88797
for calendar year 1992 for all ICFs/MR with more than eight beds 88798
that would result in payment of all desk-reviewed, actual, 88799
allowable direct care costs for eighty and one-half per cent of 88800
the medicaid days for such ICFs/MR for calendar year 1992.88801

       (b) Set(2) For each fiscal year for which a rate will be 88802
paid, the department shall set the maximum cost per case-mix unit 88803
for each peer group of intermediate care facilities for the 88804
mentally retardedICFs/MR with eight or fewer beds specified in 88805
rules adopted under division (F) of this section at a percentage 88806
above the cost per case-mix unit ofdetermined under division (B) 88807
of this section for the facilityICF/MR in the peer group that has 88808
the peer group's median number of medicaid daydays for the 88809
calendar year immediately preceding the fiscal year in which the 88810
rate will be paid, as calculated under division (B)(1) of this 88811
section, that is. The percentage shall be no less than the 88812
percentage calculated under division (E)(3) of this sectionabove 88813
the cost per case-mix unit determined under division (B) of this 88814
section for the ICF/MR that has the median number of medicaid days 88815
for calendar year 1992 for all ICFs/MR with eight or fewer beds 88816
that would result in payment of all desk-reviewed, actual, 88817
allowable direct care costs for eighty and one-half per cent of 88818
the medicaid days for such ICFs/MR for calendar year 1992.88819

       (c)(3) In calculatingdetermining the maximum cost per 88820
case-mix unit under divisions (B)(2)(a)(C)(1) and (b)(2) of this 88821
section for each peer group, the department shall exclude from its 88822
calculationsdeterminations the cost per case-mix unit of any 88823
facilityICF/MR in the peer group that participated in the 88824
medicaid program under the same operatorprovider for less than 88825
twelve months during the calendar year immediately preceding the 88826
fiscal year in which the rate will be paid.88827

       (3) Estimate(4) The department shall not reset a peer 88828
group's maximum cost per case-mix unit for a fiscal year under 88829
division (C)(1) or (2) of this section based on additional 88830
information that it receives after it sets the maximum for that 88831
fiscal year. The department shall reset a peer group's maximum 88832
cost per case-mix unit for a fiscal year only if it made an error 88833
in setting the maximum for that fiscal year based on information 88834
available to the department at the time it originally sets the 88835
maximum for that fiscal year.88836

       (D)(1) The department shall estimate the rate of inflation 88837
for the eighteen-month period beginning on the first day of July 88838
of the calendar year preceding the fiscal year in which thea rate 88839
will be paid and ending on the thirty-first day of December of the 88840
fiscal year in which the rate will be paid, using the index 88841
specified in division (C) of this section. If the estimated 88842
inflation rate for the eighteen-month period is different from the 88843
actual inflation rate for that period, as measured using the same 88844
index, the difference shall be added to or subtracted from the 88845
inflation rate estimated under division (B)(3) of this section for 88846
the following fiscal year.88847

       (4) The department shall not recalculate a maximum cost per 88848
case-mix unit under division (B)(2) of this section or a 88849
percentage under division (E) of this section based on additional 88850
information that it receives after the maximum costs per case-mix 88851
unit or percentages are set. The department shall recalculate a 88852
maximum cost per case-mix units or percentage only if it made an 88853
error in computing the maximum cost per case-mix unit or 88854
percentage based on information available at the time of the 88855
original calculation.88856

       (C) The department shall use the following index for the 88857
purpose of division (B)(3) of this section:88858

       (1) The(a) Subject to division (D)(1)(b) of this section, 88859
the employment cost index for total compensation, health services 88860
component, published by the United States bureau of labor 88861
statistics;88862

       (2)(b) If the United States bureau of labor statistics ceases 88863
to publish the index specified in division (C)(D)(1)(a) of this 88864
section, the index that is subsequently published by the bureau 88865
and covers nursing facilities'the staff costs of ICFs/MR.88866

       (D) Each facility's rate for direct care costs shall be 88867
determined as follows for each calendar quarter within a fiscal 88868
year:88869

       (1) Multiply the lesser of the following by the facility's 88870
average case-mix score determined under section 5111.232 of the 88871
Revised Code for the calendar quarter that preceded the 88872
immediately preceding calendar quarter: 88873

       (a) The facility's cost per case-mix unit for the calendar 88874
year preceding the fiscal year in which the rate will be paid, as 88875
determined under division (B)(1) of this section;88876

       (b) The maximum cost per case-mix unit established for the 88877
fiscal year in which the rate will be paid for the facility's peer 88878
group under division (B)(2) of this section; 88879

       (2) Adjust the product determined under division (D)(1) of 88880
this section by the inflation rate estimated under division (B)(3) 88881
of this section.88882

       (E)(1) The department shall calculate the percentage above 88883
the median cost per case-mix unit determined under division (B)(1) 88884
of this section for the facility that has the median medicaid day 88885
for calendar year 1992 for all intermediate care facilities for 88886
the mentally retarded with more than eight beds that would result 88887
in payment of all desk-reviewed, actual, allowable direct care 88888
costs for eighty and one-half per cent of the medicaid days for 88889
such facilities for calendar year 1992.88890

       (2) The department shall calculate the percentage above the 88891
median cost per case-mix unit determined under division (B)(1) of 88892
this section for the facility that has the median medicaid day for 88893
calendar year 1992 for all intermediate care facilities for the 88894
mentally retarded with eight or fewer beds that would result in 88895
payment of all desk-reviewed, actual, allowable direct care costs 88896
for eighty and one-half per cent of the medicaid days for such 88897
facilities for calendar year 1992.88898

       (F)(2) If the estimated inflation rate for the eighteen-month 88899
period specified in division (D)(1) of this section is different 88900
from the actual inflation rate for that period, as measured using 88901
the same index, the difference shall be added to or subtracted 88902
from the inflation rate estimated under division (D)(1) of this 88903
section for the following fiscal year.88904

       (E) The director of job and family servicesdevelopmental 88905
disabilities shall adopt rules under section 5111.025124.03 of 88906
the Revised Code that specify peer groups of intermediate care 88907
facilities for the mentally retardedICFs/MR with more than eight 88908
beds and intermediate care facilities for the mentally retarded88909
peer groups of ICFs/MR with eight or fewer beds, based on findings 88910
of significant per diem direct care cost differences due to 88911
geography and facility bed-size. The rules also may specify peer 88912
groups based on findings of significant per diem direct care cost 88913
differences due to other factors which may include case-mix.88914

       (G) The department, in accordance with division (D) of 88915
section 5111.232 of the Revised Code and rules adopted under 88916
division (F) of that section, may assign case-mix scores or costs 88917
per case-mix unit if a provider fails to submit assessment data 88918
necessary to calculate an intermediate care facility for the 88919
mentally retarded's case-mix score in accordance with that 88920
section.88921

       Sec. 5124.191.  Each calendar quarter, each ICF/MR provider 88922
shall compile complete assessment data for each resident of each 88923
of the provider's ICFs/MR, regardless of payment source, who is in 88924
the ICF/MR, or on hospital or therapeutic leave from the ICF/MR, 88925
on the last day of the quarter. A resident assessment instrument 88926
specified in rules adopted under section 5124.03 of the Revised 88927
Code shall be used to compile the resident assessment data. Each 88928
provider shall submit the resident assessment data to the 88929
department of developmental disabilities not later than fifteen 88930
days after the end of the calendar quarter for which the data is 88931
compiled. The resident assessment data shall be submitted to the 88932
department through the medium or media specified in rules adopted 88933
under section 5124.03 of the Revised Code.88934

       Sec. 5124.192.  (A) Except as provided in division (B) of 88935
this section, the department of developmental disabilities shall 88936
do both of the following:88937

       (1) For each calendar quarter, determine a case-mix score for 88938
each ICF/MR using the resident assessment data submitted to the 88939
department under section 5124.191 of the Revised Code and the 88940
grouper methodology prescribed in rules authorized by this 88941
section;88942

       (2) After the end of each calendar year and in accordance 88943
with rules authorized by this section, determine an annual average 88944
case-mix score for each ICF/MR using the ICF/MR's quarterly 88945
case-mix scores for that calendar year.88946

       (B)(1) Subject to division (B)(2) of this section, the 88947
department, for one or more months of a calendar quarter, may 88948
assign to an ICF/MR a case-mix score that is five per cent less 88949
than the ICF/MR's case-mix score for the immediately preceding 88950
calendar quarter if any of the following apply:88951

       (a) The provider does not timely submit complete and accurate 88952
resident assessment data necessary to determine the ICF/MR's 88953
case-mix score for the calendar quarter;88954

       (b) The ICF/MR was subject to an exception review under 88955
section 5124.193 of the Revised Code for the immediately preceding 88956
calendar quarter;88957

       (c) The ICF/MR was assigned a case-mix score for the 88958
immediately preceding calendar quarter.88959

       (2) Before assigning a case-mix score to an ICF/MR due to the 88960
submission of incorrect resident assessment data, the department 88961
shall permit the provider to correct the data. The department may 88962
assign the case-mix score if the provider fails to submit the 88963
corrected resident assessment data not later than eighty days 88964
after the end of the calendar quarter to which the data pertains 88965
or later due date specified in rules authorized by this section.88966

       (3) If, for more than six months during a calendar year, a 88967
provider is paid a rate determined for an ICF/MR using a case-mix 88968
score assigned to the ICF/MR under division (B)(1) of this 88969
section, the department may assign the ICF/MR a cost per case-mix 88970
unit that is five per cent less than the ICF/MR's actual or 88971
assigned cost per case-mix unit for the immediately preceding 88972
calendar year. The department may use the assigned cost per 88973
case-mix unit, instead of determining the ICF/MR's actual cost per 88974
case-mix unit in accordance with section 5124.19 of the Revised 88975
Code, to establish the ICF/MR's rate for direct care costs for the 88976
fiscal year immediately following the calendar year for which the 88977
cost per case-mix unit is assigned.88978

       (4) The department shall take action under division (B)(1), 88979
(2), or (3) of this section only in accordance with rules 88980
authorized by this section. The department shall not take an 88981
action that affects medicaid payment rates for prior payment 88982
periods except in accordance with sections 5124.41 and 5124.42 of 88983
the Revised Code.88984

       (C) The director of developmental disabilities shall adopt 88985
rules under section 5124.03 of the Revised Code as necessary to 88986
implement this section.88987

       (1) The rules shall do all of the following:88988

       (a) Prescribe a grouper methodology to be used when 88989
determining the case-mix scores for ICFs/MR;88990

       (b) Specify the process for determining the annual average 88991
case-mix scores for ICFs/MR;88992

       (c) Establish procedures under which resident assessment data 88993
is to be reviewed for accuracy and providers are to be notified of 88994
any data that requires correction;88995

       (d) Establish procedures for providers to correct resident 88996
assessment data and, if necessary, specify a due date for 88997
corrections that is later than the due date specified in division 88998
(B)(2) of this section.88999

       (e) Specify when and how the department will assign a 89000
case-mix score or cost per case-mix unit to an ICF/MR under 89001
division (B) of this section if information necessary to calculate 89002
the ICF/MR's case-mix score is not provided or corrected in 89003
accordance with the procedures established by the rules.89004

       (2) Notwithstanding any other provision of this chapter, the 89005
rules may provide for excluding case-mix scores assigned to an 89006
ICF/MR under division (B) of this section from the determination 89007
of the ICF/MR's annual average case-mix score and the maximum cost 89008
per case-mix unit for the ICF/MR's peer group.89009

       Sec. 5124.193.  (A) The department of developmental 89010
disabilities may, pursuant to rules authorized by this section, 89011
conduct an exception review of resident assessment data submitted 89012
by an ICF/MR provider under section 5124.191 of the Revised Code. 89013
The department may conduct an exception review based on the 89014
findings of a medicaid certification survey conducted by the 89015
department of health, a risk analysis, or prior performance of the 89016
provider.89017

       Exception reviews shall be conducted at the ICF/MR by 89018
appropriate health professionals under contract with or employed 89019
by the department. The professionals may review resident 89020
assessment forms and supporting documentation, conduct interviews, 89021
and observe residents to identify any patterns or trends of 89022
inaccurate resident assessments and resulting inaccurate case-mix 89023
scores.89024

       (B) If an exception review is conducted before the effective 89025
date of an ICF/MR's rate for direct care costs that is based on 89026
the resident assessment data being reviewed and the review results 89027
in findings that exceed tolerance levels specified in the rules 89028
authorized by this section, the department, in accordance with the 89029
rules authorized by this section, may use the findings to 89030
redetermine individual resident case-mix scores, the ICF/MR's 89031
case-mix score for the quarter, and the ICF/MR's annual average 89032
case-mix score. The department may use the ICF/MR's redetermined 89033
quarterly and annual average case-mix scores to determine the 89034
ICF/MR's rate for direct care costs for the appropriate calendar 89035
quarter or quarters.89036

       (C) The department shall prepare a written summary of any 89037
exception review finding that is made after the effective date of 89038
an ICF/MR's rate for direct care costs that is based on the 89039
resident assessment data that was reviewed. Where the provider is 89040
pursuing judicial or administrative remedies in good faith 89041
regarding the finding, the department shall not withhold from the 89042
provider's current payments any amounts the department claims to 89043
be due from the provider pursuant to section 5124.41 of the 89044
Revised Code.89045

       (D)(1) The director of developmental disabilities shall adopt 89046
rules under section 5124.03 of the Revised Code as necessary to 89047
implement this section. The rules shall establish an exception 89048
review program that does all of the following:89049

       (a) Requires each exception review to comply with Title XIX;89050

       (b) Requires a written summary for each exception review that 89051
states whether resident assessment forms have been completed 89052
accurately;89053

       (c) Prohibits each health professional who conducts an 89054
exception review from doing either of the following:89055

       (i) During the period of the professional's contract or 89056
employment with the department, having or being committed to 89057
acquire any direct or indirect financial interest in the 89058
ownership, financing, or operation of ICFs/MR in this state;89059

       (ii) Reviewing any provider that has been a client of the 89060
professional.89061

       (2) For the purposes of division (D)(1)(c)(i) of this 89062
section, employment of a member of a health professional's family 89063
by an ICF/MR that the professional does not review does not 89064
constitute a direct or indirect financial interest in the 89065
ownership, financing, or operation of the ICF/MR.89066

       Sec. 5111.233.        Sec. 5124.194.  The costs of day programming shall 89067
be part of the direct care costs of an intermediate care facility 89068
for the mentally retardedICF/MR as off-site day programming if 89069
the area in which the day programming is provided is not certified 89070
by the director of health as an intermediate care facility for the 89071
mentally retardedICF/MR under Title XIX and regardless of either 89072
of the following:89073

       (A) Whether or not the area in which the day programming is 89074
provided is less than two hundred feet away from the intermediate 89075
care facility for the mentally retardedICF/MR;89076

       (B) Whether or not the day programming is provided by an 89077
individual who, or organization that, is a related party to the 89078
provider of the intermediate care facility for the mentally 89079
retardedICF/MR.89080

       Sec. 5111.241.        Sec. 5124.21.  (A) TheFor each fiscal year, the89081
department of job and family servicesdevelopmental disabilities89082
shall pay a provider forprospectively determine each of the 89083
provider's eligible intermediate care facilities for the mentally 89084
retarded aICF/MR's per resident permedicaid day payment rate 89085
for indirect care costs established prospectively each fiscal year 89086
for each facility. TheSubject to section 5124.28 of the Revised 89087
Code, an ICF/MR's rate for each intermediate care facility for the 89088
mentally retarded shall be the sum of the following, but shall not 89089
exceedlesser of the individual rate determined under division (B) 89090
of this section and the maximum rate establisheddetermined for 89091
the facility'sICF/MR's peer group under division (B)(C) of this 89092
section.89093

       (B) An ICF/MR's individual rate is the sum of the following:89094

       (1) The facility'sICF/MR's desk-reviewed, actual, allowable, 89095
per diem indirect care costs from the calendar year immediately89096
preceding the fiscal year in which the rate will be paid, adjusted 89097
for the inflation rate estimated under division (C)(D)(1) of this 89098
section;89099

       (2) An efficiency incentive in the following amount:89100

       (a) For fiscal years ending in even-numbered calendar years:89101

       (i) In the case of intermediate care facilities for the 89102
mentally retarded withIf the ICF/MR has more than eight beds, 89103
the following:89104

       (i) For fiscal year 2014, seven and one-tenth per cent of the 89105
maximum rate established for the facility'sICF/MR's peer group 89106
under division (B)(C) of this section;89107

       (ii) In the case of intermediate care facilities for the 89108
mentally retarded withFor fiscal years 2015 and 2016 and each 89109
fiscal year thereafter ending in an even-numbered calendar year, 89110
three and fifty-five hundredths per cent of the maximum rate 89111
established for the ICF/MR's peer group under division (C) of this 89112
section;89113

       (iii) For fiscal year 2017 and each fiscal year thereafter 89114
ending in an odd-numbered calendar year, the amount calculated for 89115
the immediately preceding fiscal year under division (B)(2)(a)(ii) 89116
of this section.89117

       (b) If the ICF/MR has eight or fewer beds, the following:89118

       (i) For each fiscal year ending in an even-numbered calendar 89119
year, seven per cent of the maximum rate established for the 89120
facility'sICF/MR's peer group under division (B)(C) of this 89121
section;89122

       (b)(ii) For each fiscal yearsyear ending in an odd-numbered 89123
calendar yearsyear, the amount calculated for the immediately89124
preceding fiscal year under division (A)(B)(2)(a)(b)(i) of this 89125
section.89126

       (B)(C)(1) The maximum rate for indirect care costs for each 89127
peer group of intermediate care facilities for the mentally 89128
retardedICFs/MR with more than eight beds specified in rules 89129
adopted under division (D) of this section shall be determined as 89130
follows:89131

       (a) For each fiscal yearsyear ending in an even-numbered 89132
calendar yearsyear, the maximum rate for each such peer group 89133
shall be the rate that is no less than twelve and four-tenths per 89134
cent above the median desk-reviewed, actual, allowable, per diem 89135
indirect care cost for all intermediate care facilities for the 89136
mentally retarded with more than eight bedsICFs/MR in the peer89137
group,(excluding facilitiesICFs/MR in the peer group whose 89138
indirect care costs for that period are more than three standard 89139
deviations from the mean desk-reviewed, actual, allowable, per 89140
diem indirect care cost for all intermediate care facilities for 89141
the mentally retardedICFs/MR with more than eight beds,) for the 89142
calendar year immediately preceding the fiscal year in which the 89143
rate will be paid, adjusted by the inflation rate estimated under 89144
division (C)(D)(1) of this section.89145

       (b) For each fiscal yearsyear ending in an odd-numbered 89146
calendar yearsyear, the maximum rate for each such peer group is 89147
the peer group's maximum rate for the previous fiscal year, 89148
adjusted for the inflation rate estimated under division (C)(D)(2) 89149
of this section.89150

       (2) The maximum rate for indirect care costs for each peer 89151
group of intermediate care facilities for the mentally retarded89152
ICFs/MR with eight or fewer beds specified in rules adopted under 89153
division (D) of this section shall be determined as follows:89154

       (a) For each fiscal yearsyear ending in an even-numbered 89155
calendar yearsyear, the maximum rate for each such peer group 89156
shall be the rate that is no less than ten and three-tenths per 89157
cent above the median desk-reviewed, actual, allowable, per diem 89158
indirect care cost for all intermediate care facilities for the 89159
mentally retarded with eight or fewer bedsICFs/MR in the peer89160
group,(excluding facilitiesICFs/MR in the peer group whose 89161
indirect care costs are more than three standard deviations from 89162
the mean desk-reviewed, actual, allowable, per diem indirect care 89163
cost for all intermediate care facilities for the mentally 89164
retardedICFs/MR with eight or fewer beds,) for the calendar year 89165
immediately preceding the fiscal year in which the rate will be 89166
paid, adjusted by the inflation rate estimated under division 89167
(C)(D)(1) of this section.89168

       (b) For each fiscal years that endyear ending in an89169
odd-numbered calendar yearsyear, the maximum rate for each such89170
peer group is the peer group's maximum rate for the previous 89171
fiscal year, adjusted for the inflation rate estimated under 89172
division (C)(D)(2) of this section.89173

       (3) The department shall not recalculateredetermine a 89174
maximum rate for indirect care costs under division (B)(C)(1) or 89175
(2) of this section based on additional information that it 89176
receives after the maximum rate is set. The department shall 89177
recalculateredetermine the maximum rate for indirect care costs 89178
only if it made an error in computing the maximum rate based on 89179
the information available to the department at the time of the 89180
original calculation.89181

       (C)(D)(1) When adjusting rates for inflation under divisions 89182
(A)(B)(1), (B)(C)(1)(a), and (B)(C)(2)(a) of this section, the 89183
department shall estimate the rate of inflation for the 89184
eighteen-month period beginning on the first day of July of the 89185
calendar year immediately preceding the fiscal year in which the 89186
rate will be paid and ending on the thirty-first day of December 89187
of the fiscal year in which the rate will be paid. To estimate the 89188
rate of inflation, the department shall use the following:89189

       (a) TheSubject to division (D)(1)(b) of this section, the89190
consumer price index for all items for all urban consumers for the 89191
north central region, published by the United States bureau of 89192
labor statistics;89193

       (b) If the United States bureau of labor statistics ceases to 89194
publish the index specified in division (C)(D)(1)(a) of this 89195
section, a comparable index that the bureau publishes and the 89196
department determines is appropriate.89197

       (2) When adjusting rates for inflation under divisions 89198
(B)(C)(1)(b) and (B)(C)(2)(b) of this section, the department 89199
shall estimate the rate of inflation for the twelve-month period 89200
beginning on the first day of January of the fiscal year 89201
immediately preceding the fiscal year in which the rate will be 89202
paid and ending on the thirty-first day of December of the fiscal 89203
year in which the rate will be paid. To estimate the rate of 89204
inflation, the department shall use the following:89205

       (a) TheSubject to division (D)(2)(b) of this section, the89206
consumer price index for all items for all urban consumers for the 89207
north central region, published by the United States bureau of 89208
labor statistics;89209

       (b) If the United States bureau of labor statistics ceases to 89210
publish the index specified in division (C)(D)(2)(a) of this 89211
section, a comparable index that the bureau publishes and the 89212
department determines is appropriate.89213

       (3) If an inflation rate estimated under division (C)(D)(1) 89214
or (2) of this section is different from the actual inflation rate 89215
for the relevant time period, as measured using the same index, 89216
the difference shall be added to or subtracted from the inflation 89217
rate estimated pursuant to this division for the following fiscal 89218
year.89219

       (D)(E) The director of job and family servicesdevelopmental 89220
disabilities shall adopt rules under section 5111.025124.03 of 89221
the Revised Code that specify peer groups of intermediate care 89222
facilities for the mentally retardedICFs/MR with more than eight 89223
beds, and peer groups of intermediate care facilities for the 89224
mentally retardedICFs/MR with eight or fewer beds, based on 89225
findings of significant per diem indirect care cost differences 89226
due to geography and facility bed-size. The rules also may specify 89227
peer groups based on findings of significant per diem indirect 89228
care cost differences due to other factors, including case-mix.89229

       Sec. 5111.235.        Sec. 5124.23. (A) TheFor each fiscal year, the89230
department of job and family servicesdevelopmental disabilities89231
shall pay a provider forprospectively determine each of the 89232
provider's eligible intermediate care facilities for the mentally 89233
retarded aICF/MR's per resident permedicaid day payment rate 89234
for other protected costs established prospectively each fiscal 89235
year for each facility. TheAn ICF/MR's rate for each facility89236
shall be the facility'sICF/MR's desk-reviewed, actual, allowable, 89237
per diem other protected costs from the calendar year immediately89238
preceding the fiscal year in which the rate will be paid, all 89239
adjusted for the estimated inflation rate for the eighteen-month 89240
period beginning on the first day of July of the calendar year 89241
immediately preceding the fiscal year in which the rate will be 89242
paid and ending on the thirty-first day of December of that fiscal 89243
year. The department shall estimate inflation using the index 89244
specified in division (B) of this section. If the estimated 89245
inflation rate for the eighteen-month period is different from the 89246
actual inflation rate for that period, the difference shall be 89247
added to or subtracted from the inflation rate estimated for the 89248
following year.89249

       (B) The department shall use the following index for the 89250
purpose of division (A) of this section:89251

       (1) TheSubject to division (B)(2) of this section, the89252
consumer price index for all urban consumers for nonprescription 89253
drugs and medical supplies, as published by the United States 89254
bureau of labor statistics;89255

       (2) If the United States bureau of labor statistics ceases to 89256
publish the index specified in division (B)(1) of this section, 89257
the index that is subsequently published by the bureau and covers 89258
nonprescription drugs and medical supplies.89259

       Sec. 5124.25.  (A) Subject to division (D) of this section, 89260
the department of developmental disabilities may pay a medicaid 89261
rate add-on to an ICF/MR provider for outlier ICF/MR services the 89262
ICF/MR provides to qualifying ventilator-dependent residents on or 89263
after July 1, 2014, if the provider applies to the department of 89264
developmental disabilities to receive the rate add-on and the 89265
department approves the application. The department of 89266
developmental disabilities may approve a provider's application if 89267
all of the following apply:89268

       (1) The provider submits to the department of developmental 89269
disabilities a best practices protocol for providing outlier 89270
ICF/MR services under this section and the department of 89271
developmental disabilities determines that the protocol is 89272
acceptable;89273

       (2) The provider executes with the department of medicaid an 89274
addendum to its provider agreement for the ICF/MR regarding the 89275
outlier ICF/MR services;89276

       (3) The provider and ICF/MR meet all other eligibility 89277
requirements for the rate add-on established in rules authorized 89278
by this section. 89279

       (B) An ICF/MR that has been approved by the department of 89280
developmental disabilities to provider outlier ICF/MR services 89281
under this section shall provide the services in accordance with 89282
both of the following:89283

       (1) The best practices protocol the department of 89284
developmental disabilities determined is acceptable;89285

       (2) Requirements regarding the services established in rules 89286
authorized by this section.89287

       (C) To qualify to receive outlier ICF/MR services from an 89288
ICF/MR under this section, a resident of the ICF/MR must be a 89289
medicaid recipient, be under twenty-two years of age, be dependent 89290
on a ventilator, and meet all other eligibility requirements 89291
established in rules authorized by this section.89292

       (D) The department of developmental disabilities shall 89293
negotiate the amount of the medicaid payment rate add-on, if any, 89294
to be paid under this section, or the method by which that amount 89295
is to be determined, with the department of medicaid. The 89296
department of developmental disabilities shall not pay the rate 89297
add-on unless the department has approved the amount of the rate 89298
add-on or method by which the amount is to be determined.89299

       Sec. 5124.28.  Notwithstanding any provision of section 89300
5124.17 or 5124.21 of the Revised Code, the director of 89301
developmental disabilities may adopt rules under section 5124.03 89302
of the Revised Code that provide for the determination of a 89303
combined maximum payment limit for indirect care costs and costs 89304
of ownership for ICFs/MR with eight or fewer beds.89305

       Sec. 5111.263.        Sec. 5124.29.  Except as otherwise provided in 89306
section 5111.2645124.30 of the Revised Code, the department of 89307
job and family servicesdevelopmental disabilities, in determining 89308
whether an intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded's89309
ICF/MR's direct care costs and indirect care costs are allowable, 89310
shall place no limit on specific categories of reasonable costs 89311
other than compensation of owners, compensation of relatives of 89312
owners, and compensation of administrators.89313

       Compensation cost limits for owners and relatives of owners 89314
shall be based on compensation costs for individuals who hold 89315
comparable positions but who are not owners or relatives of 89316
owners, as reported on facilityICFs/MR's cost reports. As used in 89317
this section, "comparable position" means the position that is 89318
held by the owner or the owner's relative, if that position is 89319
listed separately on the cost report form, or if the position is 89320
not listed separately, the group of positions that is listed on 89321
the cost report form and that includes the position held by the 89322
owner or the owner's relative. In the case of an owner or owner's 89323
relative who serves the facilityICFs/MR in a capacity such as 89324
corporate officer, proprietor, or partner for which no comparable 89325
position or group of positions is listed on the cost report form, 89326
the compensation cost limit shall be based on civil service 89327
equivalents and shall be specified in rules adopted under section 89328
5111.025124.03 of the Revised Code.89329

       Compensation cost limits for administrators shall be based on 89330
compensation costs for administrators who are not owners or 89331
relatives of owners, as reported on facilityICFs/MR's cost 89332
reports. Compensation cost limits for administrators of four or 89333
more intermediate care facilities for the mentally retarded89334
ICFs/MR shall be the same as the limits for administrators of 89335
intermediate care facilities for the mentally retardedICFs/MR89336
with one hundred fifty or more beds.89337

       Sec. 5124.30.  Except as provided in section 5124.17 of the 89338
Revised Code, the costs of goods, services, and facilities, 89339
furnished to an ICF/MR provider by a related party are includable 89340
in the allowable costs of the provider at the reasonable cost to 89341
the related party.89342

       Sec. 5124.31.  The department of developmental disabilities 89343
shall adjust medicaid payment rates determined under this chapter 89344
to account for reasonable additional costs that must be incurred 89345
by ICFs/MR to comply with requirements of federal or state 89346
statutes, rules, or policies enacted or amended after January 1, 89347
1992, or with orders issued by state or local fire authorities.89348

       Sec. 5124.32.  The department of developmental disabilities 89349
shall not reduce an ICF/MR's medicaid payment rate determined 89350
under this chapter on the basis that the provider charges a lower 89351
rate to any resident who is not eligible for medicaid.89352

       Sec. 5124.33.  No medicaid payment shall be made to an ICF/MR 89353
provider for the day a medicaid recipient is discharged from the 89354
ICF/MR.89355

       Sec. 5111.33.        Sec. 5124.34. Reimbursement to a(A) The department 89356
of developmental disabilities shall pay an ICF/MR provider of an 89357
intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded under 89358
sections 5111.20 to 5111.331 of the Revised Code shall include 89359
payments to the provider, at a rate equal to the percentageone 89360
hundred per cent of the per residenttotal per medicaid day rates 89361
that the department of job and family services has established89362
payment rate determined for the provider's facilityICF/MR under 89363
sections 5111.20 to 5111.331 of the Revised Code for the fiscal 89364
year for which the cost of services is reimbursed,this chapter to 89365
reserve a bed for a resident who is a medicaid recipient during a 89366
temporary absence under conditions prescribed by the department, 89367
to include hospitalization for an acute condition, visits with 89368
relatives and friends, and participation in therapeutic programs 89369
outside the facility, when theif all of the following apply:89370

       (1) The recipient is temporarily absent from the ICF/MR for a 89371
reason that makes the absence qualified for payments under this 89372
section as specified in rules authorized by this section;89373

       (2) The resident's plan of care provides for suchthe absence 89374
and federal;89375

       (3) Federal financial participation in the payments is 89376
available for the payments. The89377

       (B) The maximum period during which medicaid payments may be 89378
made to reserve a bed shall not exceed the maximum period 89379
specified underin federal regulations, and shall not be more 89380
than thirty days during any calendar year for hospital stays, 89381
visits with relatives and friends, and participation in 89382
therapeutic programs.89383

       Recipientsprograms. However, a resident shall not be subject 89384
to a maximum period during which payments may be made to reserve a 89385
bed in an intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded if 89386
prior authorization of the department is obtained for hospital 89387
stays, visits with relatives and friends, and participation in 89388
therapeutic programs. The89389

       (C)(1) The director of job and family servicesdevelopmental 89390
disabilities shall adopt rules under section 5111.025124.03 of 89391
the Revised Code establishingas necessary to implement this 89392
section, including rules that do the following:89393

       (a) Specify the reasons for which a temporary absence from an 89394
ICF/MR makes the absence qualify for payments under this section;89395

       (b) Establish conditions under which prior authorization may 89396
be obtained for the purpose of division (B) of this section.89397

       (2) The rules authorized by division (C)(1)(a) of this 89398
section shall include the following as reasons for which a 89399
temporary absence from an ICF/MR qualifies for payments under this 89400
section:89401

       (a) Hospitalization for acute conditions;89402

       (b) Visits with relatives and friends;89403

       (c) Participation in therapeutic programs outside the ICF/MR.89404

       Sec. 5124.35.  Medicaid payments may be made for ICF/MR 89405
services provided not later than thirty days after the effective 89406
date of an involuntary termination of the ICF/MR that provides the 89407
services if the services are provided to a medicaid recipient who 89408
is eligible for the services and resided in the ICF/MR before the 89409
effective date of the involuntary termination.89410

       Sec. 5124.37.  The department of developmental disabilities 89411
shall make its best efforts each year to determine ICFs/MR's 89412
medicaid payment rates under this chapter in time to pay the rates 89413
by August fifteenth of each fiscal year. If the department is 89414
unable to calculate the rates so that they can be paid by that 89415
date, the department shall pay each provider the rate calculated 89416
for the provider's ICFs/MR under those sections at the end of the 89417
previous fiscal year. If the department also is unable to 89418
calculate the rates to make the payments due by the fifteenth day 89419
of September and the fifteenth day of October, the department 89420
shall pay the previous fiscal year's rate to make those payments. 89421
The department may increase by five per cent the previous fiscal 89422
year's rate paid for any ICF/MR pursuant to this section at the 89423
request of the provider. The department shall use rates calculated 89424
for the current fiscal year to make the payments due by the 89425
fifteenth day of November.89426

       If an ICF/MR's medicaid payment rate paid under this section 89427
is lower than the rate calculated for it for the current fiscal 89428
year, the department shall pay the provider the difference between 89429
the two rates for the number of days for which the provider is 89430
paid the lower rate. If an ICF/MR's medicaid payment rate paid 89431
under this section is higher than the rate calculated for it for 89432
the current fiscal year, the provider shall refund to the 89433
department the difference between the two rates for the number of 89434
days for which the provider is paid the higher rate.89435

       Sec. 5124.38.  (A) The director of developmental disabilities 89436
shall establish a process under which an ICF/MR provider, or a 89437
group or association of ICF/MR providers, may seek reconsideration 89438
of medicaid payment rates established under this chapter, 89439
including a rate for direct care costs redetermined before the 89440
effective date of the rate as a result of an exception review 89441
conducted under section 5124.193 of the Revised Code. Except as 89442
provided in divisions (B) to (D) of this section, the only issue 89443
that a provider, group, or association may raise in the rate 89444
reconsideration is whether the rate was calculated in accordance 89445
with this chapter and the rules adopted under section 5124.03 of 89446
the Revised Code. The provider, group, or association may submit 89447
written arguments or other materials that support its position. 89448
The provider, group, or association and department shall take 89449
actions regarding the rate reconsideration within time frames 89450
specified in rules authorized by this section.89451

       If the department determines, as a result of the rate 89452
reconsideration, that the rate established for one or more ICFs/MR 89453
is less than the rate to which the ICF/MR is entitled, the 89454
department shall increase the rate. If the department has paid the 89455
incorrect rate for a period of time, the department shall pay the 89456
provider of the ICF/MR the difference between the amount the 89457
provider was paid for that period for the ICF/MR and the amount 89458
the provider should have been paid for the ICF/MR.89459

       (B)(1) The department, through the rate reconsideration 89460
process, may increase during a fiscal year the medicaid payment 89461
rate determined for an ICF/MR under this chapter if the provider 89462
demonstrates that the ICF/MR's actual, allowable costs have 89463
increased because of any of the following extreme circumstances:89464

       (a) A natural disaster;89465

       (b) A nonextensive renovation approved under division (D) of 89466
section 5124.17 of the Revised Code;89467

       (c) If the ICF/MR has an appropriate claims management 89468
program, an increase in the ICF/MR's workers' compensation 89469
experience rating of greater than five per cent;89470

       (d) If the ICF/MR is an inner-city ICF/MR, increased security 89471
costs;89472

       (e) A change of ownership that results from bankruptcy, 89473
foreclosure, or findings by the department of health of violations 89474
of medicaid certification requirements;89475

       (f) Other extreme circumstances specified in rules authorized 89476
by this section.89477

       (2) An ICF/MR may qualify for a rate increase under this 89478
division only if its per diem, actual, allowable costs have 89479
increased to a level that exceeds its total rate. An increase 89480
under this division is subject to any rate limitations or maximum 89481
rates established by this chapter for specific cost centers. Any 89482
rate increase granted under this division shall take effect on the 89483
first day of the first month after the department receives the 89484
request.89485

       (C) The department, through the rate reconsideration process, 89486
may increase an ICF/MR's rate as determined under this chapter if 89487
the department, in the department's sole discretion, determines 89488
that the rate as determined under those sections works an extreme 89489
hardship on the ICF/MR.89490

       (D) When beds certified for the medicaid program are added to 89491
an existing ICF/MR or replaced at the same site, the department, 89492
through the rate reconsideration process, shall increase the 89493
ICF/MR's rate for capital costs proportionately, as limited by any 89494
applicable limitation under section 5124.17 of the Revised Code, 89495
to account for the costs of the beds that are added or replaced. 89496
The department shall make this increase one month after the first 89497
day of the month after the department receives sufficient 89498
documentation of the costs. Any rate increase granted under this 89499
division after June 30, 1993, shall remain in effect until the 89500
effective date of a rate for capital costs determined under 89501
section 5124.17 of the Revised Code that includes costs incurred 89502
for a full calendar year for the bed addition or bed replacement. 89503
The ICF/MR shall report double accumulated depreciation in an 89504
amount equal to the depreciation included in the rate adjustment 89505
on its cost report for the first year of operation. During the 89506
term of any loan used to finance a project for which a rate 89507
adjustment is granted under this division, if the ICF/MR is 89508
operated by the same provider, the provider shall subtract from 89509
the interest costs it reports on its cost report an amount equal 89510
to the difference between the following:89511

       (1) The actual, allowable interest costs for the loan during 89512
the calendar year for which the costs are being reported;89513

       (2) The actual, allowable interest costs attributable to the 89514
loan that were used to calculate the rates paid to the provider 89515
for the ICF/MR during the same calendar year.89516

       (E) The department's decision at the conclusion of the 89517
reconsideration process is not subject to any administrative 89518
proceedings under Chapter 119. or any other provision of the 89519
Revised Code.89520

       (F) The director of developmental disabilities shall adopt 89521
rules under section 5124.03 of the Revised Code as necessary to 89522
implement this section.89523

       Sec. 5124.40.  If an ICF/MR provider properly amends a cost 89524
report for an ICF/MR under section 5124.107 of the Revised Code 89525
and the amended report shows that the provider received a lower 89526
medicaid payment rate under the original cost report than the 89527
provider was entitled to receive, the department of developmental 89528
disabilities shall adjust the provider's rate for the ICF/MR 89529
prospectively to reflect the corrected information. The department 89530
shall pay the adjusted rate beginning two months after the first 89531
day of the month after the provider files the amended cost report.89532

       If the department finds, from an exception review of resident 89533
assessment data conducted pursuant to section 5124.193 of the 89534
Revised Code after the effective date of an ICF/MR's rate for 89535
direct care costs that is based on the resident assessment data, 89536
that inaccurate resident assessment data resulted in the provider 89537
receiving a lower rate for the ICF/MR than the provider was 89538
entitled to receive, the department prospectively shall adjust the 89539
provider's rate for the ICF/MR accordingly. The department shall 89540
make payments to the provider using the adjusted rate for the 89541
remainder of the calendar quarter for which the resident 89542
assessment data is used to determine the rate, beginning one month 89543
after the first day of the month after the exception review is 89544
completed.89545

       Sec. 5124.41.  (A) The department of developmental 89546
disabilities shall redetermine a provider's medicaid payment rate 89547
for an ICF/MR using revised information if any of the following 89548
results in a determination that the provider received a higher 89549
medicaid payment rate for the ICF/MR than the provider was 89550
entitled to receive:89551

       (1) The provider properly amends a cost report for the ICF/MR 89552
under section 5124.107 of the Revised Code;89553

       (2) The department makes a finding based on an audit under 89554
section 5124.109 of the Revised Code;89555

       (3) The department makes a finding based on an exception 89556
review of resident assessment data conducted under section 89557
5124.193 of the Revised Code after the effective date of the 89558
ICF/MR's rate for direct care costs that is based on the resident 89559
assessment data.89560

       (B) The department shall apply the redetermined rate to the 89561
periods when the provider received the incorrect rate to determine 89562
the amount of the overpayment. The provider shall refund the 89563
amount of the overpayment. The department may charge the provider 89564
the following amount of interest from the time the overpayment was 89565
made:89566

       (1) If the overpayment resulted from costs reported for 89567
calendar year 1993, the interest shall be not greater than one and 89568
one-half times the current average bank prime rate.89569

       (2) If the overpayment resulted from costs reported for a 89570
subsequent calendar year:89571

       (a) The interest shall be not greater than two times the 89572
current average bank prime rate if the overpayment was not more 89573
than one per cent of the total medicaid payments to the provider 89574
for the fiscal year for which the incorrect information was used 89575
to determine a rate.89576

       (b) The interest shall be not greater than two and one-half 89577
times the current average bank prime rate if the overpayment was 89578
more than one per cent of the total medicaid payments to the 89579
provider for the fiscal year for which the incorrect information 89580
was used to determine a rate.89581

       Sec. 5124.42.  In addition to the other penalties authorized 89582
by this chapter, the department of developmental disabilities may 89583
impose the following penalties on an ICF/MR provider:89584

       (A) If the provider does not furnish invoices or other 89585
documentation that the department requests during an audit within 89586
sixty days after the request, a fine of not more than the greater 89587
of the following:89588

       (1) One thousand dollars per audit;89589

       (2) Twenty-five per cent of the cumulative amount by which 89590
the costs for which documentation was not furnished increased the 89591
total medicaid payments to the provider during the fiscal year for 89592
which the costs were used to determine a rate.89593

       (B) If an exiting operator or owner fails to provide notice 89594
of a facility closure or voluntary termination as required by 89595
section 5124.50 of the Revised Code, or an exiting operator or 89596
owner and entering operator fail to provide notice of a change of 89597
operator as required by section 5124.51 of the Revised Code, a 89598
fine of not more than the current average bank prime rate plus 89599
four per cent of the last two monthly payments.89600

       Sec. 5124.43.  For the purposes of sections 5124.41 and 89601
5124.42 of the Revised Code, the department of developmental 89602
disabilities shall determine the current average bank prime rate 89603
using statistical release H.15, "selected interest rates," a 89604
weekly publication of the federal reserve board, or any successor 89605
publication. If statistical release H.15, or its successor, ceases 89606
to contain the bank prime rate information or ceases to be 89607
published, the department shall request a written statement of the 89608
average bank prime rate from the federal reserve bank of Cleveland 89609
or the federal reserve board.89610

       Sec. 5124.44.  (A) Except as provided in division (B) of this 89611
section, the department of developmental disabilities shall deduct 89612
the following from the next available medicaid payment the 89613
department makes to an ICF/MR provider who continues to 89614
participate in medicaid:89615

       (1) Any amount the provider is required to refund, and any 89616
interest charged, under section 5124.41 of the Revised Code;89617

       (2) The amount of any penalty imposed on the provider under 89618
section 5124.42 of the Revised Code.89619

       (B) The department and an ICF/MR provider may enter into an 89620
agreement under which a deduction required by division (A) of this 89621
section is taken in installments from payments the department 89622
makes to the provider.89623

       Sec. 5124.45.  The department of developmental disabilities 89624
shall transmit to the treasurer of state for deposit in the 89625
general revenue fund amounts collected from the following:89626

       (A) Refunds required by, and interest charged under, section 89627
5124.41 of the Revised Code;89628

       (B) Amounts collected from penalties imposed under section 89629
5124.42 of the Revised Code.89630

       Sec. 5124.46.  All of the following are subject to an 89631
adjudication conducted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 89632
Revised Code:89633

       (A) Any audit disallowance that the department of 89634
developmental disabilities makes as the result of an audit under 89635
section 5124.109 of the Revised Code;89636

       (B) Any adverse finding that results from an exception review 89637
of resident assessment data conducted for an ICF/MR under section 89638
5124.193 of the Revised Code after the effective date of the 89639
ICF/MR's medicaid payment rate for direct care costs that is based 89640
on the resident assessment data;89641

       (C) Any medicaid payment deemed an overpayment under section 89642
5124.523 of the Revised Code;89643

       (D) Any penalty the department imposes under section 5124.42 89644
of the Revised Code or section 5124.523 of the Revised Code.89645

       Sec. 5124.50.  An exiting operator or owner of an ICF/MR 89646
participating in the medicaid program shall provide the department 89647
of developmental disabilities and department of medicaid written 89648
notice of a facility closure or voluntary termination not less 89649
than ninety days before the effective date of the facility closure 89650
or voluntary termination. The written notice shall be provided to 89651
the department of developmental disabilities and department of 89652
medicaid in accordance with the method specified in rules 89653
authorized by section 5124.53 of the Revised Code.89654

       The written notice shall include all of the following:89655

       (A) The name of the exiting operator and, if any, the exiting 89656
operator's authorized agent;89657

       (B) The name of the ICF/MR that is the subject of the written 89658
notice;89659

       (C) The exiting operator's medicaid provider agreement number 89660
for the ICF/MR that is the subject of the written notice;89661

       (D) The effective date of the facility closure or voluntary 89662
termination;89663

       (E) The signature of the exiting operator's or owner's 89664
representative.89665

       Sec. 5124.51.  (A) An exiting operator or owner and entering 89666
operator shall provide the department of developmental 89667
disabilities and department of medicaid written notice of a change 89668
of operator if the ICF/MR participates in the medicaid program and 89669
the entering operator seeks to continue the ICF/MR's 89670
participation. The written notice shall be provided to the 89671
department of developmental disabilities and department of 89672
medicaid in accordance with the method specified in rules 89673
authorized by section 5124.53 of the Revised Code. The written 89674
notice shall be provided to the department of developmental 89675
disabilities and department of medicaid not later than forty-five 89676
days before the effective date of the change of operator if the 89677
change of operator does not entail the relocation of residents. 89678
The written notice shall be provided to the department of 89679
developmental disabilities and department of medicaid not later 89680
than ninety days before the effective date of the change of 89681
operator if the change of operator entails the relocation of 89682
residents. 89683

       The written notice shall include all of the following:89684

       (1) The name of the exiting operator and, if any, the exiting 89685
operator's authorized agent;89686

       (2) The name of the ICF/MR that is the subject of the change 89687
of operator;89688

       (3) The exiting operator's seven-digit medicaid legacy number 89689
and ten-digit national provider identifier number for the ICF/MR 89690
that is the subject of the change of operator;89691

       (4) The name of the entering operator;89692

       (5) The effective date of the change of operator;89693

       (6) The manner in which the entering operator becomes the 89694
ICF/MR's operator, including through sale, lease, merger, or other 89695
action;89696

       (7) If the manner in which the entering operator becomes the 89697
ICF/MR's operator involves more than one step, a description of 89698
each step;89699

       (8) Written authorization from the exiting operator or owner 89700
and entering operator for the department of medicaid to process a 89701
provider agreement for the entering operator;89702

       (9) The names and addresses of the persons to whom the 89703
department of developmental disabilities and department of 89704
medicaid should send initial correspondence regarding the change 89705
of operator;89706

       (10) The signature of the exiting operator's or owner's 89707
representative.89708

       (B) An exiting operator or owner and entering operator 89709
immediately shall provide the department of developmental 89710
disabilities and department of medicaid notice of any changes to 89711
information included in a written notice of a change of operator 89712
that occur after that notice is provided to the department of 89713
developmental disabilities and department of medicaid. The notice 89714
of the changes shall be provided to the department of 89715
developmental disabilities and department of medicaid in 89716
accordance with the method specified in rules authorized by 89717
section 5124.53 of the Revised Code.89718

       Sec. 5124.511.  The department of medicaid may enter into a 89719
provider agreement with an entering operator that goes into effect 89720
at 12:01 a.m. on the effective date of the change of operator if 89721
all of the following requirements are met:89722

       (A) The department receives a properly completed written 89723
notice required by section 5124.51 of the Revised Code on or 89724
before the date required by that section.89725

       (B) The department receives both of the following in 89726
accordance with the method specified in rules authorized by 89727
section 5124.53 of the Revised Code and not later than ten days 89728
after the effective date of the change of operator:89729

       (1) From the entering operator, a completed application for a 89730
provider agreement and all other forms and documents specified in 89731
rules authorized by section 5124.53 of the Revised Code;89732

       (2) From the exiting operator or owner, all forms and 89733
documents specified in rules authorized by section 5124.53 of the 89734
Revised Code.89735

       (C) The entering operator is eligible to enter into a 89736
provider agreement for the ICF/MR as provided in section 5124.06 89737
of the Revised Code.89738

       Sec. 5124.512.  (A) The department of medicaid may enter into 89739
a provider agreement with an entering operator that goes into 89740
effect at 12:01 a.m. on the date determined under division (B) of 89741
this section if all of the following are the case:89742

       (1) The department receives a properly completed written 89743
notice required by section 5124.51 of the Revised Code.89744

       (2) The department receives, from the entering operator and 89745
in accordance with the method specified in rules authorized by 89746
section 5124.53 of the Revised Code, a completed application for a 89747
provider agreement and all other forms and documents specified in 89748
rules adopted under that section.89749

       (3) The department receives, from the exiting operator or 89750
owner and in accordance with the method specified in rules 89751
authorized by section 5124.53 of the Revised Code, all forms and 89752
documents specified in rules adopted under that section.89753

       (4) One or more of the following apply:89754

       (a) The requirement of division (A)(1) of this section is met 89755
after the time required by section 5124.51 of the Revised Code;89756

       (b) The requirement of division (A)(2) of this section is met 89757
more than ten days after the effective date of the change of 89758
operator;89759

       (c) The requirement of division (A)(3) of this section is met 89760
more than ten days after the effective date of the change of 89761
operator.89762

       (5) The entering operator is eligible to enter into a 89763
provider agreement for the ICF/MR as provided in section 5124.06 89764
of the Revised Code.89765

       (B) The department shall determine the date a provider 89766
agreement entered into under this section is to go into effect as 89767
follows:89768

       (1) The effective date shall give the department sufficient 89769
time to process the change of operator and give the department 89770
sufficient time to assure no duplicate payments are made and make 89771
the withholding required by section 5124.521 of the Revised Code.89772

       (2) The effective date shall be not earlier than the latest 89773
of the following:89774

       (a) The effective date of the change of operator;89775

       (b) The date that the entering operator complies with section 89776
5124.51 of the Revised Code and division (A)(2) of this section;89777

       (c) The date that the exiting operator or owner complies with 89778
section 5124.51 of the Revised Code and division (A)(3) of this 89779
section.89780

       (3) The effective date shall be not later than the following 89781
after the later of the dates specified in division (B)(2) of this 89782
section:89783

       (a) Forty-five days if the change of operator does not entail 89784
the relocation of residents;89785

       (b) Ninety days if the change of operator entails the 89786
relocation of residents.89787

       Sec. 5124.513.  A provider that enters into a provider 89788
agreement with the department of medicaid under section 5124.511 89789
or 5124.512 of the Revised Code shall do all of the following:89790

       (A) Comply with all applicable federal statutes and 89791
regulations;89792

       (B) Comply with section 5124.07 of the Revised Code and all 89793
other applicable state statutes and rules;89794

       (C) Comply with all the terms and conditions of the exiting 89795
operator's provider agreement, including all of the following:89796

       (1) Any plan of correction;89797

       (2) Compliance with health and safety standards;89798

       (3) Compliance with the ownership and financial interest 89799
disclosure requirements of 42 C.F.R. 455.104, 455.105, and 1002.3;89800

       (4) Compliance with the civil rights requirements of 45 89801
C.F.R. parts 80, 84, and 90;89802

       (5) Compliance with additional requirements imposed by the 89803
department;89804

       (6) Any sanctions relating to remedies for violation of the 89805
provider agreement, including deficiencies, compliance periods, 89806
accountability periods, monetary penalties, notification for 89807
correction of contract violations, and history of deficiencies.89808

       Sec. 5124.514.  In the case of a change of operator, the 89809
exiting operator shall be considered to be the operator of the 89810
ICF/MR for purposes of the medicaid program, including medicaid 89811
payments, until the effective date of the entering operator's 89812
provider agreement if the provider agreement is entered into under 89813
section 5124.511 or 5124.512 of the Revised Code.89814

       Sec. 5124.515.  The department of medicaid may enter into a 89815
provider agreement as provided in section 5124.07 of the Revised 89816
Code, rather than section 5124.511 or 5124.512 of the Revised 89817
Code, with an entering operator if the entering operator does not 89818
agree to a provider agreement that satisfies the requirements of 89819
division (C) of section 5124.513 of the Revised Code. The 89820
department may not enter into the provider agreement unless the 89821
department of health certifies the ICF/MR under Title XIX. The 89822
effective date of the provider agreement shall not precede any of 89823
the following:89824

       (A) The date that the department of health certifies the 89825
ICF/MR;89826

       (B) The effective date of the change of operator;89827

       (C) The date the requirement of section 5124.51 of the 89828
Revised Code is satisfied.89829

       Sec. 5124.516.  The director of developmental disabilities 89830
may adopt rules under section 5124.03 of the Revised Code 89831
governing adjustments to the medicaid reimbursement rate for an 89832
ICF/MR that undergoes a change of operator. No rate adjustment 89833
resulting from a change of operator shall be effective before the 89834
effective date of the entering operator's provider agreement. This 89835
is the case regardless of whether the provider agreement is 89836
entered into under section 5124.511, section 5124.512, or, 89837
pursuant to section 5124.515, section 5124.07 of the Revised Code.89838

       Sec. 5124.517.  The department of developmental disabilities' 89839
determination that a change of operator has or has not occurred 89840
for purposes of licensure under section 5123.19 of the Revised 89841
Code shall not affect either of the following:89842

       (A) A determination by the department of developmental 89843
disabilities or department of medicaid of whether or when a change 89844
of operator occurs;89845

       (B) The department of medicaid's determination of the 89846
effective date of an entering operator's provider agreement under 89847
section 5124.511, section 5124.512, or, pursuant to section 89848
5124.515, section 5124.07 of the Revised Code.89849

       Sec. 5124.52.  (A) On receipt of a written notice under 89850
section 5124.50 of the Revised Code of a facility closure or 89851
voluntary termination, on receipt of a written notice under 89852
section 5124.51 of the Revised Code of a change of operator, or on 89853
the effective date of an involuntary termination, the department 89854
of developmental disabilities shall estimate the amount of any 89855
overpayments made under the medicaid program to the exiting 89856
operator, including overpayments the exiting operator disputes, 89857
and other actual and potential debts the exiting operator owes or 89858
may owe to the department and United States centers for medicare 89859
and medicaid services under the medicaid program, including a 89860
franchise permit fee.89861

       (B) In estimating the exiting operator's other actual and 89862
potential debts to the department and the United States centers 89863
for medicare and medicaid services under the medicaid program, the 89864
department shall use a debt estimation methodology the director of 89865
developmental disabilities shall establish in rules authorized by 89866
section 5124.53 of the Revised Code. The methodology shall provide 89867
for estimating all of the following that the department determines 89868
are applicable:89869

       (1) Refunds due the department under section 5124.41 of the 89870
Revised Code;89871

       (2) Interest owed to the department and United States centers 89872
for medicare and medicaid services;89873

       (3) Final civil monetary and other penalties for which all 89874
right of appeal has been exhausted;89875

       (4) Money owed the department and United States centers for 89876
medicare and medicaid services from any outstanding final fiscal 89877
audit, including a final fiscal audit for the last fiscal year or 89878
portion thereof in which the exiting operator participated in the 89879
medicaid program;89880

       (5) Other amounts the department determines are applicable.89881

       (C) The department shall provide the exiting operator written 89882
notice of the department's estimate under division (A) of this 89883
section not later than thirty days after the department receives 89884
the notice under section 5124.50 of the Revised Code of the 89885
facility closure or voluntary termination; the department receives 89886
the notice under section 5124.51 of the Revised Code of the change 89887
of operator; or the effective date of the involuntary termination. 89888
The department's written notice shall include the basis for the 89889
estimate.89890

       Sec. 5124.521.  (A) Except as provided in divisions (B), (C), 89891
and (D) of this section, the department of developmental 89892
disabilities may withhold from payment due an exiting operator 89893
under the medicaid program the total amount specified in the 89894
notice provided under division (C) of section 5124.52 of the 89895
Revised Code that the exiting operator owes or may owe to the 89896
department and United States centers for medicare and medicaid 89897
services under the medicaid program.89898

       (B) In the case of a change of operator and subject to 89899
division (E) of this section, the following shall apply regarding 89900
a withholding under division (A) of this section if the exiting 89901
operator or entering operator or an affiliated operator executes a 89902
successor liability agreement meeting the requirements of division 89903
(F) of this section:89904

       (1) If the exiting operator, entering operator, or affiliated 89905
operator assumes liability for the total, actual amount of debt 89906
the exiting operator owes the department and the United States 89907
centers for medicare and medicaid services under the medicaid 89908
program as determined under section 5124.525 of the Revised Code, 89909
the department shall not make the withholding.89910

       (2) If the exiting operator, entering operator, or affiliated 89911
operator assumes liability for only the portion of the amount 89912
specified in division (B)(1) of this section that represents the 89913
franchise permit fee the exiting operator owes, the department 89914
shall withhold not more than the difference between the total 89915
amount specified in the notice provided under division (C) of 89916
section 5124.52 of the Revised Code and the amount for which the 89917
exiting operator, entering operator, or affiliated operator 89918
assumes liability.89919

       (C) In the case of a voluntary termination or facility 89920
closure and subject to division (E) of this section, the following 89921
shall apply regarding a withholding under division (A) of this 89922
section if the exiting operator or an affiliated operator executes 89923
a successor liability agreement meeting the requirements of 89924
division (F) of this section:89925

       (1) If the exiting operator or affiliated operator assumes 89926
liability for the total, actual amount of debt the exiting 89927
operator owes the department and the United States centers for 89928
medicare and medicaid services under the medicaid program as 89929
determined under section 5124.525 of the Revised Code, the 89930
department shall not make the withholding.89931

       (2) If the exiting operator or affiliated operator assumes 89932
liability for only the portion of the amount specified in division 89933
(C)(1) of this section that represents the franchise permit fee 89934
the exiting operator owes, the department shall withhold not more 89935
than the difference between the total amount specified in the 89936
notice provided under division (C) of section 5124.52 of the 89937
Revised Code and the amount for which the exiting operator or 89938
affiliated operator assumes liability.89939

       (D) In the case of an involuntary termination and subject to 89940
division (E) of this section, the following shall apply regarding 89941
a withholding under division (A) of this section if the exiting 89942
operator, the entering operator, or an affiliated operator 89943
executes a successor liability agreement meeting the requirements 89944
of division (F) of this section and the department approves the 89945
successor liability agreement:89946

       (1) If the exiting operator, entering operator, or affiliated 89947
operator assumes liability for the total, actual amount of debt 89948
the exiting operator owes the department and the United States 89949
centers for medicare and medicaid services under the medicaid 89950
program as determined under section 5124.525 of the Revised Code, 89951
the department shall not make the withholding.89952

       (2) If the exiting operator, entering operator, or affiliated 89953
operator assumes liability for only the portion of the amount 89954
specified in division (D)(1) of this section that represents the 89955
franchise permit fee the exiting operator owes, the department 89956
shall withhold not more than the difference between the total 89957
amount specified in the notice provided under division (C) of 89958
section 5124.52 of the Revised Code and the amount for which the 89959
exiting operator, entering operator, or affiliated operator 89960
assumes liability.89961

       (E) For an exiting operator or affiliated operator to be 89962
eligible to enter into a successor liability agreement under 89963
division (B), (C), or (D) of this section, both of the following 89964
must apply:89965

       (1) The exiting operator or affiliated operator must have one 89966
or more valid provider agreements, other than the provider 89967
agreement for the ICF/MR that is the subject of the involuntary 89968
termination, voluntary termination, facility closure, or change of 89969
operator;89970

       (2) During the twelve-month period preceding either the 89971
effective date of the involuntary termination or the month in 89972
which the department receives the notice of the voluntary 89973
termination or facility closure under section 5124.50 of the 89974
Revised Code or the notice of the change of operator under section 89975
5124.51 of the Revised Code, the average monthly medicaid payment 89976
made to the exiting operator or affiliated operator pursuant to 89977
the exiting operator's or affiliated operator's one or more 89978
provider agreements, other than the provider agreement for the 89979
ICF/MR that is the subject of the involuntary termination, 89980
voluntary termination, facility closure, or change of operator, 89981
must equal at least ninety per cent of the sum of the following:89982

       (a) The average monthly medicaid payment made to the exiting 89983
operator pursuant to the exiting operator's provider agreement for 89984
the ICF/MR that is the subject of the involuntary termination, 89985
voluntary termination, facility closure, or change of operator;89986

       (b) Whichever of the following apply:89987

       (i) If the exiting operator or affiliated operator has 89988
assumed liability under one or more other successor liability 89989
agreements, the total amount for which the exiting operator or 89990
affiliated operator has assumed liability under the other 89991
successor liability agreements;89992

       (ii) If the exiting operator or affiliated operator has not 89993
assumed liability under any other successor liability agreements, 89994
zero.89995

       (F) A successor liability agreement executed under this 89996
section must comply with all of the following:89997

       (1) It must provide for the operator who executes the 89998
successor liability agreement to assume liability for either of 89999
the following as specified in the agreement:90000

       (a) The total, actual amount of debt the exiting operator 90001
owes the department and the United States centers for medicare and 90002
medicaid services under the medicaid program as determined under 90003
section 5124.525 of the Revised Code;90004

       (b) The portion of the amount specified in division (F)(1)(a) 90005
of this section that represents the franchise permit fee the 90006
exiting operator owes.90007

       (2) It may not require the operator who executes the 90008
successor liability agreement to furnish a surety bond.90009

       (3) It must provide that the department, after determining 90010
under section 5124.525 of the Revised Code the actual amount of 90011
debt the exiting operator owes the department and United States 90012
centers for medicare and medicaid services under the medicaid 90013
program, may deduct the lesser of the following from medicaid 90014
payments made to the operator who executes the successor liability 90015
agreement:90016

       (a) The total, actual amount of debt the exiting operator 90017
owes the department and the United States centers for medicare and 90018
medicaid services under the medicaid program as determined under 90019
section 5124.525 of the Revised Code;90020

       (b) The amount for which the operator who executes the 90021
successor liability agreement assumes liability under the 90022
agreement.90023

       (4) It must provide that the deductions authorized by 90024
division (F)(3) of this section are to be made for a number of 90025
months, not to exceed six, agreed to by the operator who executes 90026
the successor liability agreement and the department or, if the 90027
operator who executes the successor liability agreement and 90028
department cannot agree on a number of months that is less than 90029
six, a greater number of months determined by the attorney general 90030
pursuant to a claims collection process authorized by statute of 90031
this state.90032

       (5) It must provide that, if the attorney general determines 90033
the number of months for which the deductions authorized by 90034
division (F)(3) of this section are to be made, the operator who 90035
executes the successor liability agreement shall pay, in addition 90036
to the amount collected pursuant to the attorney general's claims 90037
collection process, the part of the amount so collected that, if 90038
not for division (H) of this section, would be required by section 90039
109.081 of the Revised Code to be paid into the attorney general 90040
claims fund.90041

       (G) Execution of a successor liability agreement does not 90042
waive an exiting operator's right to contest the amount specified 90043
in the notice the department provides the exiting operator under 90044
division (C) of section 5124.52 of the Revised Code.90045

       (H) Notwithstanding section 109.081 of the Revised Code, the 90046
entire amount that the attorney general, whether by employees or 90047
agents of the attorney general or by special counsel appointed 90048
pursuant to section 109.08 of the Revised Code, collects under a 90049
successor liability agreement, other than the additional amount 90050
the operator who executes the agreement is required by division 90051
(F)(5) of this section to pay, shall be paid to the department of 90052
developmental disabilities for deposit into the appropriate fund. 90053
The additional amount that the operator is required to pay shall 90054
be paid into the state treasury to the credit of the attorney 90055
general claims fund created under section 109.081 of the Revised 90056
Code.90057

       Sec. 5124.522.  (A) Except as provided in division (B) of 90058
this section, an exiting operator shall file with the department 90059
of developmental disabilities a cost report not later than ninety 90060
days after the last day the exiting operator's provider agreement 90061
is in effect. The cost report shall cover the period that begins 90062
with the day after the last day covered by the operator's most 90063
recent previous cost report filed under section 5124.10 or 90064
5124.101 of the Revised Code and ends on the last day the exiting 90065
operator's provider agreement is in effect. The cost report shall 90066
include, as applicable, all of the following:90067

       (1) The sale price of the ICF/MR;90068

       (2) A final depreciation schedule that shows which assets are 90069
transferred to the buyer and which assets are not transferred to 90070
the buyer;90071

       (3) Any other information the department requires.90072

       (B) The department, at its sole discretion, may waive the 90073
requirement that an exiting operator file a cost report in 90074
accordance with division (A) of this section.90075

       Sec. 5124.523.  If an exiting operator required by section 90076
5124.522 of the Revised Code to file a cost report with the 90077
department of developmental disabilities fails to file the cost 90078
report in accordance with that section, all payments under the 90079
medicaid program for the period the cost report is required to 90080
cover are deemed overpayments until the date the department 90081
receives the properly completed cost report. The department may 90082
impose on the exiting operator a penalty of one hundred dollars 90083
for each calendar day the properly completed cost report is late.90084

       Sec. 5124.524.  The department of developmental disabilities 90085
may not provide an exiting operator final payment under the 90086
medicaid program until the department receives all properly 90087
completed cost reports the exiting operator is required to file 90088
under sections 5124.10 and 5124.522 of the Revised Code.90089

       Sec. 5124.525.  The department of developmental disabilities 90090
shall determine the actual amount of debt an exiting operator owes 90091
the department and the United States centers for medicare and 90092
medicaid services under the medicaid program by completing all 90093
final fiscal audits not already completed and performing all other 90094
appropriate actions the department determines to be necessary. The 90095
department shall issue an initial debt summary report on this 90096
matter not later than sixty days after the date the exiting 90097
operator files the properly completed cost report required by 90098
section 5124.522 of the Revised Code with the department or, if 90099
the department waives the cost report requirement for the exiting 90100
operator, sixty days after the date the department waives the cost 90101
report requirement. The initial debt summary report becomes the 90102
final debt summary report thirty-one days after the department 90103
issues the initial debt summary report unless the exiting 90104
operator, or an affiliated operator who executes a successor 90105
liability agreement under section 5124.521 of the Revised Code, 90106
requests a review before that date.90107

       The exiting operator, and an affiliated operator who executes 90108
a successor liability agreement under section 5124.521 of the 90109
Revised Code, may request a review to contest any of the 90110
department's findings included in the initial debt summary report. 90111
The request for the review must be submitted to the department not 90112
later than thirty days after the date the department issues the 90113
initial debt summary report. The department shall conduct the 90114
review on receipt of a timely request and issue a revised debt 90115
summary report. If the department has withheld money from payment 90116
due the exiting operator under division (A) of section 5124.521 of 90117
the Revised Code, the department shall issue the revised debt 90118
summary report not later than ninety days after the date the 90119
department receives the timely request for the review unless the 90120
department and exiting operator or affiliated operator agree to a 90121
later date. The exiting operator or affiliated operator may submit 90122
information to the department explaining what the operator 90123
contests before and during the review, including documentation of 90124
the amount of any debt the department owes the operator. The 90125
exiting operator or affiliated operator may submit additional 90126
information to the department not later than thirty days after the 90127
department issues the revised debt summary report. The revised 90128
debt summary report becomes the final debt summary report 90129
thirty-one days after the department issues the revised debt 90130
summary report unless the exiting operator or affiliated operator 90131
timely submits additional information to the department. If the 90132
exiting operator or affiliated operator timely submits additional 90133
information to the department, the department shall consider the 90134
additional information and issue a final debt summary report not 90135
later than sixty days after the department issues the revised debt 90136
summary report unless the department and exiting operator or 90137
affiliated operator agree to a later date.90138

       Each debt summary report the department issues under this 90139
section shall include the department's findings and the amount of 90140
debt the department determines the exiting operator owes the 90141
department and United States centers for medicare and medicaid 90142
services under the medicaid program. The department shall explain 90143
its findings and determination in each debt summary report.90144

       The exiting operator, and an affiliated operator who executes 90145
a successor liability agreement under section 5124.521 of the 90146
Revised Code, may request, in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 90147
Revised Code, an adjudication regarding a finding in a final debt 90148
summary report that pertains to an audit or alleged overpayment 90149
made under the medicaid program to the exiting operator. The 90150
adjudication shall be consolidated with any other uncompleted 90151
adjudication that concerns a matter addressed in the final debt 90152
summary report.90153

       Sec. 5124.526.  The department of developmental disabilities 90154
shall release the actual amount withheld under division (A) of 90155
section 5124.521 of the Revised Code, less any amount the exiting 90156
operator owes the department and United States centers for 90157
medicare and medicaid services under the medicaid program, as 90158
follows:90159

       (A) Unless the department issues the initial debt summary 90160
report required by section 5124.525 of the Revised Code not later 90161
than sixty days after the date the exiting operator files the 90162
properly completed cost report required by section 5124.522 of the 90163
Revised Code, sixty-one days after the date the exiting operator 90164
files the properly completed cost report;90165

       (B) If the department issues the initial debt summary report 90166
required by section 5124.525 of the Revised Code not later than 90167
sixty days after the date the exiting operator files a properly 90168
completed cost report required by section 5124.522 of the Revised 90169
Code, not later than the following:90170

       (1) Thirty days after the deadline for requesting an 90171
adjudication under section 5124.525 of the Revised Code regarding 90172
the final debt summary report if the exiting operator, and an 90173
affiliated operator who executes a successor liability agreement 90174
under section 5124.521 of the Revised Code, fail to request the 90175
adjudication on or before the deadline;90176

       (2) Thirty days after the completion of an adjudication of 90177
the final debt summary report if the exiting operator, or an 90178
affiliated operator who executes a successor liability agreement 90179
under section 5124.521 of the Revised Code, requests the 90180
adjudication on or before the deadline for requesting the 90181
adjudication.90182

       (C) Unless the department issues the initial debt summary 90183
report required by section 5124.525 of the Revised Code not later 90184
than sixty days after the date the department waives the cost 90185
report requirement of section 5124.522 of the Revised Code, 90186
sixty-one days after the date the department waives the cost 90187
report requirement;90188

       (D) If the department issues the initial debt summary report 90189
required by section 5124.525 of the Revised Code not later than 90190
sixty days after the date the department waives the cost report 90191
requirement of section 5124.522 of the Revised Code, not later 90192
than the following:90193

       (1) Thirty days after the deadline for requesting an 90194
adjudication under section 5124.525 of the Revised Code regarding 90195
the final debt summary report if the exiting operator, and an 90196
affiliated operator who executes a successor liability agreement 90197
under section 5124.521 of the Revised Code, fail to request the 90198
adjudication on or before the deadline;90199

       (2) Thirty days after the completion of an adjudication of 90200
the final debt summary report if the exiting operator, or an 90201
affiliated operator who executes a successor liability agreement 90202
under section 5124.521 of the Revised Code, requests the 90203
adjudication on or before the deadline for requesting the 90204
adjudication.90205

       Sec. 5124.527.  The department of developmental disabilities, 90206
at its sole discretion, may release the amount withheld under 90207
division (A) of section 5124.521 of the Revised Code if the 90208
exiting operator submits to the department written notice of a 90209
postponement of a change of operator, facility closure, or 90210
voluntary termination and the transactions leading to the change 90211
of operator, facility closure, or voluntary termination are 90212
postponed for at least thirty days but less than ninety days after 90213
the date originally proposed for the change of operator, facility 90214
closure, or voluntary termination as reported in the written 90215
notice required by section 5124.50 or 5124.51 of the Revised Code. 90216
The department shall release the amount withheld if the exiting 90217
operator submits to the department written notice of a 90218
cancellation or postponement of a change of operator, facility 90219
closure, or voluntary termination and the transactions leading to 90220
the change of operator, facility closure, or voluntary termination 90221
are canceled or postponed for more than ninety days after the date 90222
originally proposed for the change of operator, facility closure, 90223
or voluntary termination as reported in the written notice 90224
required by section 5124.50 or 5124.51 of the Revised Code. A 90225
written notice shall be provided to the department in accordance 90226
with the method specified in rules authorized by section 5124.53 90227
of the Revised Code.90228

       After the department receives a written notice regarding a 90229
cancellation or postponement of a facility closure or voluntary 90230
termination, the exiting operator or owner shall provide new 90231
written notice to the department under section 5124.50 of the 90232
Revised Code regarding any transactions leading to a facility 90233
closure or voluntary termination at a future time. After the 90234
department receives a written notice regarding a cancellation or 90235
postponement of a change of operator, the exiting operator or 90236
owner and entering operator shall provide new written notice to 90237
the department under section 5124.51 of the Revised Code regarding 90238
any transactions leading to a change of operator at a future time.90239

       Sec. 5124.528.  (A) All amounts withheld under section 90240
5124.521 of the Revised Code from payment due an exiting operator 90241
under the medicaid program shall be deposited into the medicaid 90242
payment withholding fund created by the controlling board pursuant 90243
to section 131.35 of the Revised Code. Money in the fund shall be 90244
used as follows:90245

       (1) To pay an exiting operator when a withholding is released 90246
to the exiting operator under section 5124.526 or 5124.527 of the 90247
Revised Code;90248

       (2) To pay the department of medicaid or department of 90249
developmental disabilities, and United States centers for medicare 90250
and medicaid services, the amount an exiting operator owes the 90251
department of medicaid or department of developmental disabilities 90252
and United States centers under the medicaid program.90253

       (B) Amounts paid from the medicaid payment withholding fund 90254
pursuant to division (A)(2) of this section shall be deposited 90255
into the appropriate fund.90256

       Sec. 5124.53.  The director of developmental disabilities 90257
shall adopt rules under section 5124.03 of the Revised Code to 90258
implement sections 5124.50 to 5124.53 of the Revised Code. The 90259
rules shall specify all of the following:90260

       (A) The method by which written notices to the department 90261
required by sections 5124.50 to 5124.53 of the Revised Code are to 90262
be provided;90263

       (B) The forms and documents that are to be provided to the 90264
department under sections 5124.511 and 5124.512 of the Revised 90265
Code, which shall include, in the case of such forms and documents 90266
provided by entering operators, all the fully executed leases, 90267
management agreements, merger agreements and supporting documents, 90268
and fully executed sales contracts and any other supporting 90269
documents culminating in the change of operator;90270

       (C) The method by which the forms and documents identified in 90271
division (B) of this section are to be provided to the department.90272

       Sec. 5111.874.        Sec. 5124.60.  (A) As used in sections 5111.874 to 90273
5111.8710 of the Revised Code:90274

       "Home and community-based services" has the same meaning as 90275
in section 5123.01 of the Revised Code.90276

       "ICF/MR services" means intermediate care facility for the 90277
mentally retarded services covered by the medicaid program that an 90278
intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded provides to a 90279
resident of the facility who is a medicaid recipient eligible for 90280
medicaid-covered intermediate care facility for the mentally 90281
retarded services.90282

       "Intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded" means 90283
an intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded that is 90284
certified as in compliance with applicable standards for the 90285
medicaid program by the director of health in accordance with 90286
Title XIX of the "Social Security Act," 79 Stat. 286 (1965), 42 90287
U.S.C. 1396, as amended, and licensed as a residential facility 90288
under section 5123.19 of the Revised Code.90289

       "Residential facility" has the same meaning as in section 90290
5123.19 of the Revised Code.90291

       (B) For the purpose of increasing the number of slots 90292
available for home and community-based services and subject to 90293
sections 5111.8775124.63 and 5111.8785124.64 of the Revised 90294
Code, the operator of an intermediate care facility for the 90295
mentally retardedICF/MR may convert some or all of the beds in 90296
the facilityICF/MR from providing ICF/MR services to providing 90297
home and community-based services if all of the following 90298
requirements are met:90299

       (1) The operator provides the directors of health and 90300
developmental disabilities at least ninety days' notice of the 90301
operator's intent to make the conversion.90302

       (2) The operator complies with the requirements of sections 90303
5111.655124.50 to 5111.6895124.53 of the Revised Code regarding 90304
a voluntary termination as defined in section 5111.65 of the 90305
Revised Code if those requirements are applicable.90306

       (3) If the operator intends to convert all of the facility's90307
ICF/MR's beds, the operator notifies each of the facility's90308
ICF/MR's residents that the facilityICF/MR is to cease providing 90309
ICF/MR services and inform each resident that the resident may do 90310
either of the following:90311

       (a) Continue to receive ICF/MR services by transferring to 90312
another facilityICF/MR that is an intermediate care facility for 90313
the mentally retarded willing and able to accept the resident if 90314
the resident continues to qualify for ICF/MR services;90315

       (b) Begin to receive home and community-based services 90316
instead of ICF/MR services from any provider of home and 90317
community-based services that is willing and able to provide the 90318
services to the resident if the resident is eligible for the 90319
services and a slot for the services is available to the resident.90320

       (4) If the operator intends to convert some but not all of 90321
the facility'sICF/MR's beds, the operator notifies each of the 90322
facility'sICF/MR's residents that the facilityICF/MR is to 90323
convert some of its beds from providing ICF/MR services to 90324
providing home and community-based services and inform each 90325
resident that the resident may do either of the following:90326

       (a) Continue to receive ICF/MR services from any provider of 90327
services ICF/MR that is willing and able to provide the services 90328
to the resident if the resident continues to qualify for ICF/MR 90329
services;90330

       (b) Begin to receive home and community-based services 90331
instead of ICF/MR services from any provider of home and 90332
community-based services that is willing and able to provide the 90333
services to the resident if the resident is eligible for the 90334
services and a slot for the services is available to the resident.90335

       (5) The operator meets the requirements for providing home 90336
and community-based services, including the following:90337

       (a) Such requirements applicable to a residential facility if 90338
the operator maintains the facility's license as a residential 90339
facility;90340

       (b) Such requirements applicable to a facility that is not 90341
licensed as a residential facility if the operator surrenders the 90342
facility's license as a residential facility under section 5123.19 90343
of the Revised Code.90344

       (6) The director of developmental disabilities approves the 90345
conversion.90346

       (C)(B) A decision by the director of developmental 90347
disabilities to approve or refuse to approve a proposed conversion 90348
of beds is final. In making a decision, the director shall 90349
consider all of the following:90350

       (1) The fiscal impact on the facilityICF/MR if some but not 90351
all of the beds are converted;90352

       (2) The fiscal impact on the medical assistancemedicaid90353
program;90354

       (3) The availability of home and community-based services.90355

       (D)(C) The notice provided to the directors under division 90356
(B)(A)(1) of this section shall specify whether some or all of the 90357
facility'sICF/MR's beds are to be converted. If some but not all 90358
of the beds are to be converted, the notice shall specify how many 90359
of the facility'sICF/MR's beds are to be converted and how many 90360
of the beds are to continue to provide ICF/MR services. The notice 90361
to the director of developmental disabilities shall specify 90362
whether the operator wishes to surrender the facility'sICF/MR's90363
license as a residential facility under section 5123.19 of the 90364
Revised Code.90365

       (E)(D)(1) If the director of developmental disabilities 90366
approves a conversion under division (C)(B) of this section, the 90367
director of health shall do the following:90368

       (a) Terminate the ICF/MR's medicaid certification of the 90369
intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded if the notice 90370
specifies that all of the facility'sICF/MR's beds are to be 90371
converted;90372

       (b) Reduce the facility's certifiedICF/MR's 90373
medicaid-certified capacity by the number of beds being converted 90374
if the notice specifies that some but not all of the beds are to 90375
be converted. 90376

       (2) The director of health shall notify the medicaid director 90377
of job and family services of the termination or reduction. On 90378
receipt of the director of health's notice, the medicaid director 90379
of job and family services shall do the following:90380

       (a) Terminate the operator's medicaid provider agreement that 90381
authorizes the operator to provide ICF/MR services at the 90382
facilityICF/MR if the facility'sICF/MR's certification was 90383
terminated;90384

       (b) Amend the operator's medicaid provider agreement to 90385
reflect the facility'sICF/MR's reduced certified90386
medicaid-certified capacity if the facility's certifiedICF/MR's 90387
medicaid-certified capacity is reduced. 90388

       (3) In the case of action taken under division (E)(D)(2)(a) 90389
of this section, the operator is not entitled to notice or a 90390
hearing under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code before the medicaid90391
director of job and family services terminates the medicaid 90392
provider agreement.90393

       Sec. 5111.875.        Sec. 5124.61. (A) For the purpose of increasing the 90394
number of slots available for home and community-based services 90395
and subject to sections 5111.8775124.63 and 5111.8785124.64 of 90396
the Revised Code, a person who acquires, through a request for 90397
proposals issued by the director of developmental disabilities, a 90398
residential facility that is an intermediate care facility for the 90399
mentally retarded andan ICF/MR for which thea residential 90400
facility license as a residential facility was previously 90401
surrendered or revoked may convert some or all of the facility's90402
ICF/MR's beds from providing ICF/MR services to providing home and 90403
community-based services if all of the following requirements are 90404
met:90405

       (1) The person provides the directors of health, job and 90406
family services, and developmental disabilities and medicaid 90407
director at least ninety days' notice of the person's intent to 90408
make the conversion.90409

       (2) The person complies with the requirements of sections 90410
5111.655124.50 to 5111.6895124.53 of the Revised Code regarding 90411
a voluntary termination as defined in section 5111.65 of the 90412
Revised Code if those requirements are applicable.90413

       (3) If the person intends to convert all of the facility's90414
ICF/MR's beds, the person notifies each of the facility's90415
ICF/MR's residents that the facilityICF/MR is to cease providing 90416
ICF/MR services and informs each resident that the resident may do 90417
either of the following:90418

       (a) Continue to receive ICF/MR services by transferring to 90419
another facility that is an intermediate care facility for the 90420
mentally retardedICF/MR willing and able to accept the resident 90421
if the resident continues to qualify for ICF/MR services;90422

       (b) Begin to receive home and community-based services 90423
instead of ICF/MR services from any provider of home and 90424
community-based services that is willing and able to provide the 90425
services to the resident if the resident is eligible for the 90426
services and a slot for the services is available to the resident.90427

       (4) If the person intends to convert some but not all of the 90428
facility'sICF/MR's beds, the person notifies each of the 90429
facility'sICF/MR's residents that the facilityICF/MR is to 90430
convert some of its beds from providing ICF/MR services to 90431
providing home and community-based services and inform each 90432
resident that the resident may do either of the following:90433

       (a) Continue to receive ICF/MR services from any provider of 90434
ICF/MR services that is willing and able to provide the services 90435
to the resident if the resident continues to qualify for ICF/MR 90436
services;90437

       (b) Begin to receive home and community-based services 90438
instead of ICF/MR services from any provider of home and 90439
community-based services that is willing and able to provide the 90440
services to the resident if the resident is eligible for the 90441
services and a slot for the services is available to the resident.90442

       (5) The person meets the requirements for providing home and 90443
community-based services at a residential facility.90444

       (B) The notice provided to the directors under division 90445
(A)(1) of this section shall specify whether some or all of the 90446
facility'sICF/MR's beds are to be converted. If some but not all 90447
of the beds are to be converted, the notice shall specify how many 90448
of the facility'sICF/MR's beds are to be converted and how many 90449
of the beds are to continue to provide ICF/MR services.90450

       (C) On receipt of a notice under division (A)(1) of this 90451
section, the director of health shall do the following:90452

       (1) Terminate the ICF/MR's medicaid certification of the 90453
intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded if the notice 90454
specifies that all of the facility's beds are to be converted;90455

       (2) Reduce the facility's certifiedICF/MR's 90456
medicaid-certified capacity by the number of beds being converted 90457
if the notice specifies that some but not all of the beds are to 90458
be converted.90459

       (D) The director of health shall notify the medicaid director 90460
of job and family services of the termination or reduction under 90461
division (C) of this section. On receipt of the director of 90462
health's notice, the medicaid director of job and family services90463
shall do the following:90464

       (1) Terminate the person's medicaid provider agreement that 90465
authorizes the person to provide ICF/MR services at the facility90466
ICF/MR if the facility'sICF/MR's medicaid certification was 90467
terminated;90468

       (2) Amend the person's medicaid provider agreement to reflect 90469
the facility'sICF/MR's reduced certifiedmedicaid-certified90470
capacity if the facility's certifiedICF/MR's medicaid-certified90471
capacity is reduced.90472

       The person is not entitled to notice or a hearing under 90473
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code before the medicaid director of 90474
job and family services terminates or amends the medicaid provider 90475
agreement.90476

       Sec. 5111.876.        Sec. 5124.62.  Subject to section 5111.8775124.6390477
of the Revised Code, the director of developmental disabilities 90478
may request that the medicaid director of job and family services90479
seek the approval of the United States secretary of health and 90480
human services to increase the number of slots available for home 90481
and community-based services by a number not exceeding the number 90482
of beds that were part of the licensed capacity of a residential 90483
facility that had its license revoked or surrendered under section 90484
5123.19 of the Revised Code if the residential facility was an 90485
intermediate care facility for the mentally retardedICF/MR at the 90486
time of the license revocation or surrender. The revocation or 90487
surrender may have occurred before, or may occur on or after, June 90488
24, 2008. The request may include beds the director of 90489
developmental disabilities removed from such a residential 90490
facility's licensed capacity before transferring ownership or 90491
operation of the residential facility pursuant to a request for 90492
proposals.90493

       Sec. 5111.877.        Sec. 5124.63. The medicaid director of job and 90494
family services may seek approval from the United States secretary 90495
of health and human services for not more than a total of five 90496
hundred slots for home and community-based services for the 90497
purposes of sections 5111.8745124.60, 5111.8755124.61, and 90498
5111.8765124.62 of the Revised Code.90499

       Sec. 5111.878.        Sec. 5124.64. Not more than a total of five hundred 90500
beds may be converted from providing ICF/MR services to providing 90501
home and community-based services under sections 5111.8745124.6090502
and 5111.8755124.61 of the Revised Code.90503

       Sec. 5111.879.        Sec. 5124.65. No person or government entity may 90504
reconvert a bed to be used for ICF/MR services if the bed was 90505
converted to use for home and community-based services under 90506
section 5111.8745124.60 or 5111.8755124.61 of the Revised Code. 90507
This prohibition applies regardless of either of the following:90508

       (A) The bed is part of the licensed capacity of a residential 90509
facility.90510

       (B) The bed has been sold, leased, or otherwise transferred 90511
to another person or government entity.90512

       Sec. 5124.99.  Whoever violates section 5124.102 or division 90513
(E) of section 5124.08 of the Revised Code shall be fined not less 90514
than five hundred dollars nor more than one thousand dollars for 90515
the first offense and not less than one thousand dollars nor more 90516
than five thousand dollars for each subsequent offense.90517

       Fines paid under this section shall be deposited in the state 90518
treasury to the credit of the general revenue fund.90519

       Sec. 5126.01.  As used in this chapter:90520

       (A) As used in this division, "adult" means an individual who 90521
is eighteen years of age or over and not enrolled in a program or 90522
service under Chapter 3323. of the Revised Code and an individual 90523
sixteen or seventeen years of age who is eligible for adult 90524
services under rules adopted by the director of developmental 90525
disabilities pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.90526

       (1) "Adult services" means services provided to an adult 90527
outside the home, except when they are provided within the home 90528
according to an individual's assessed needs and identified in an 90529
individual service plan, that support learning and assistance in 90530
the area of self-care, sensory and motor development, 90531
socialization, daily living skills, communication, community 90532
living, social skills, or vocational skills.90533

       (2) "Adult services" includes all of the following:90534

       (a) Adult day habilitation services;90535

       (b) Adult day care;90536

       (c) Prevocational services;90537

       (d) Sheltered employment;90538

       (e) Educational experiences and training obtained through 90539
entities and activities that are not expressly intended for 90540
individuals with mental retardation and developmental 90541
disabilities, including trade schools, vocational or technical 90542
schools, adult education, job exploration and sampling, unpaid 90543
work experience in the community, volunteer activities, and 90544
spectator sports;90545

       (f) Community employment services and supported employment 90546
services.90547

       (B)(1) "Adult day habilitation services" means adult services 90548
that do the following:90549

       (a) Provide access to and participation in typical activities 90550
and functions of community life that are desired and chosen by the 90551
general population, including such activities and functions as 90552
opportunities to experience and participate in community 90553
exploration, companionship with friends and peers, leisure 90554
activities, hobbies, maintaining family contacts, community 90555
events, and activities where individuals without disabilities are 90556
involved;90557

       (b) Provide supports or a combination of training and 90558
supports that afford an individual a wide variety of opportunities 90559
to facilitate and build relationships and social supports in the 90560
community.90561

       (2) "Adult day habilitation services" includes all of the 90562
following:90563

       (a) Personal care services needed to ensure an individual's 90564
ability to experience and participate in vocational services, 90565
educational services, community activities, and any other adult 90566
day habilitation services;90567

       (b) Skilled services provided while receiving adult day 90568
habilitation services, including such skilled services as behavior 90569
management intervention, occupational therapy, speech and language 90570
therapy, physical therapy, and nursing services;90571

       (c) Training and education in self-determination designed to 90572
help the individual do one or more of the following: develop 90573
self-advocacy skills, exercise the individual's civil rights, 90574
acquire skills that enable the individual to exercise control and 90575
responsibility over the services received, and acquire skills that 90576
enable the individual to become more independent, integrated, or 90577
productive in the community;90578

       (d) Recreational and leisure activities identified in the 90579
individual's service plan as therapeutic in nature or assistive in 90580
developing or maintaining social supports;90581

       (e) Counseling and assistance provided to obtain housing, 90582
including such counseling as identifying options for either rental 90583
or purchase, identifying financial resources, assessing needs for 90584
environmental modifications, locating housing, and planning for 90585
ongoing management and maintenance of the housing selected;90586

       (f) Transportation necessary to access adult day habilitation 90587
services;90588

       (g) Habilitation management, as described in section 5126.14 90589
of the Revised Code.90590

       (3) "Adult day habilitation services" does not include 90591
activities that are components of the provision of residential 90592
services, family support services, or supported living services.90593

       (C) "Appointing authority" means the following:90594

       (1) In the case of a member of a county board of 90595
developmental disabilities appointed by, or to be appointed by, a 90596
board of county commissioners, the board of county commissioners;90597

       (2) In the case of a member of a county board appointed by, 90598
or to be appointed by, a senior probate judge, the senior probate 90599
judge.90600

       (D) "Community employment," "competitive employment," and 90601
"integrated setting" have the same meanings as in section 5123.022 90602
of the Revised Code.90603

       (E) "Community employment services" or "supported employment 90604
services" means job training and other services related to 90605
employment outside a sheltered workshop. "Community employment 90606
services" or "supported employment services" include all of the 90607
following:90608

       (1) Job training resulting in the attainment of competitive 90609
workcommunity employment, supported work in a typical work 90610
environment, or self-employment;90611

       (2) Supervised work experience through an employer paid to 90612
provide the supervised work experience;90613

       (3) Ongoing work in a competitive work environment at a wage 90614
commensurate with workers without disabilitiescommunity 90615
employment;90616

       (4) Ongoing supervision by an employer paid to provide the 90617
supervision.90618

       (E)(F) As used in this division, "substantial functional 90619
limitation," "developmental delay," and "established risk" have 90620
the meanings established pursuant to section 5123.011 of the 90621
Revised Code.90622

       "Developmental disability" means a severe, chronic disability 90623
that is characterized by all of the following:90624

       (1) It is attributable to a mental or physical impairment or 90625
a combination of mental and physical impairments, other than a 90626
mental or physical impairment solely caused by mental illness as 90627
defined in division (A) of section 5122.01 of the Revised Code;90628

       (2) It is manifested before age twenty-two;90629

       (3) It is likely to continue indefinitely;90630

       (4) It results in one of the following:90631

       (a) In the case of a person under age three, at least one 90632
developmental delay or an established risk;90633

       (b) In the case of a person at least age three but under age 90634
six, at least two developmental delays or an established risk;90635

       (c) In the case of a person age six or older, a substantial 90636
functional limitation in at least three of the following areas of 90637
major life activity, as appropriate for the person's age: 90638
self-care, receptive and expressive language, learning, mobility, 90639
self-direction, capacity for independent living, and, if the 90640
person is at least age sixteen, capacity for economic 90641
self-sufficiency.90642

       (5) It causes the person to need a combination and sequence 90643
of special, interdisciplinary, or other type of care, treatment, 90644
or provision of services for an extended period of time that is 90645
individually planned and coordinated for the person.90646

       (F)(G) "Early childhood services" means a planned program of 90647
habilitation designed to meet the needs of individuals with mental 90648
retardation or other developmental disabilities who have not 90649
attained compulsory school age.90650

       (G)(H)(1) "Environmental modifications" means the physical 90651
adaptations to an individual's home, specified in the individual's 90652
service plan, that are necessary to ensure the individual's 90653
health, safety, and welfare or that enable the individual to 90654
function with greater independence in the home, and without which 90655
the individual would require institutionalization.90656

       (2) "Environmental modifications" includes such adaptations 90657
as installation of ramps and grab-bars, widening of doorways, 90658
modification of bathroom facilities, and installation of 90659
specialized electric and plumbing systems necessary to accommodate 90660
the individual's medical equipment and supplies.90661

       (3) "Environmental modifications" does not include physical 90662
adaptations or improvements to the home that are of general 90663
utility or not of direct medical or remedial benefit to the 90664
individual, including such adaptations or improvements as 90665
carpeting, roof repair, and central air conditioning.90666

       (H)(I) "Family support services" means the services provided 90667
under a family support services program operated under section 90668
5126.11 of the Revised Code.90669

       (I)(J) "Habilitation" means the process by which the staff of 90670
the facility or agency assists an individual with mental 90671
retardation or other developmental disability in acquiring and 90672
maintaining those life skills that enable the individual to cope 90673
more effectively with the demands of the individual's own person 90674
and environment, and in raising the level of the individual's 90675
personal, physical, mental, social, and vocational efficiency. 90676
Habilitation includes, but is not limited to, programs of formal, 90677
structured education and training.90678

       (J)(K) "Home and community-based services" means 90679
medicaid-funded home and community-based services specified in 90680
division (B)(1) of section 5111.87 of the Revised Code and 90681
provided under the medicaid waiver components the department of 90682
developmental disabilities administers pursuant tohas the same 90683
meaning as in section 5111.8715123.01 of the Revised Code. 90684
However, home and community-based services provided under the 90685
medicaid waiver component known as the transitions developmental 90686
disabilities waiver are to be considered to be home and 90687
community-based services for the purposes of this chapter only to 90688
the extent, if any, provided by the contract required by section 90689
5111.871 of the Revised Code regarding the waiver.90690

       (K)(L) "ICF/MR" has the same meaning as in section 5124.01 of 90691
the Revised Code.90692

       (M) "Immediate family" means parents, grandparents, brothers, 90693
sisters, spouses, sons, daughters, aunts, uncles, mothers-in-law, 90694
fathers-in-law, brothers-in-law, sisters-in-law, sons-in-law, and 90695
daughters-in-law.90696

       (L) "Medicaid" has the same meaning as in section 5111.01 of 90697
the Revised Code.90698

       (M)(N) "Medicaid case management services" means case 90699
management services provided to an individual with mental 90700
retardation or other developmental disability that the state 90701
medicaid plan requires.90702

       (N)(O) "Mental retardation" means a mental impairment 90703
manifested during the developmental period characterized by 90704
significantly subaverage general intellectual functioning existing 90705
concurrently with deficiencies in the effectiveness or degree with 90706
which an individual meets the standards of personal independence 90707
and social responsibility expected of the individual's age and 90708
cultural group.90709

       (O)(P) "Residential services" means services to individuals 90710
with mental retardation or other developmental disabilities to 90711
provide housing, food, clothing, habilitation, staff support, and 90712
related support services necessary for the health, safety, and 90713
welfare of the individuals and the advancement of their quality of 90714
life. "Residential services" includes program management, as 90715
described in section 5126.14 of the Revised Code.90716

       (P)(Q) "Resources" means available capital and other assets, 90717
including moneys received from the federal, state, and local 90718
governments, private grants, and donations; appropriately 90719
qualified personnel; and appropriate capital facilities and 90720
equipment.90721

       (Q)(R) "Senior probate judge" means the current probate judge 90722
of a county who has served as probate judge of that county longer 90723
than any of the other current probate judges of that county. If a 90724
county has only one probate judge, "senior probate judge" means 90725
that probate judge.90726

       (R)(S) "Service and support administration" means the duties 90727
performed by a service and support administrator pursuant to 90728
section 5126.15 of the Revised Code.90729

       (S)(T)(1) "Specialized medical, adaptive, and assistive 90730
equipment, supplies, and supports" means equipment, supplies, and 90731
supports that enable an individual to increase the ability to 90732
perform activities of daily living or to perceive, control, or 90733
communicate within the environment.90734

       (2) "Specialized medical, adaptive, and assistive equipment, 90735
supplies, and supports" includes the following:90736

       (a) Eating utensils, adaptive feeding dishes, plate guards, 90737
mylatex straps, hand splints, reaches, feeder seats, adjustable 90738
pointer sticks, interpreter services, telecommunication devices 90739
for the deaf, computerized communications boards, other 90740
communication devices, support animals, veterinary care for 90741
support animals, adaptive beds, supine boards, prone boards, 90742
wedges, sand bags, sidelayers, bolsters, adaptive electrical 90743
switches, hand-held shower heads, air conditioners, humidifiers, 90744
emergency response systems, folding shopping carts, vehicle lifts, 90745
vehicle hand controls, other adaptations of vehicles for 90746
accessibility, and repair of the equipment received.90747

       (b) Nondisposable items not covered by medicaid that are 90748
intended to assist an individual in activities of daily living or 90749
instrumental activities of daily living.90750

       (T)(U) "Supportive home services" means a range of services 90751
to families of individuals with mental retardation or other 90752
developmental disabilities to develop and maintain increased 90753
acceptance and understanding of such persons, increased ability of 90754
family members to teach the person, better coordination between 90755
school and home, skills in performing specific therapeutic and 90756
management techniques, and ability to cope with specific 90757
situations.90758

       (U)(V)(1) "Supported living" means services provided for as 90759
long as twenty-four hours a day to an individual with mental 90760
retardation or other developmental disability through any public 90761
or private resources, including moneys from the individual, that 90762
enhance the individual's reputation in community life and advance 90763
the individual's quality of life by doing the following:90764

       (a) Providing the support necessary to enable an individual 90765
to live in a residence of the individual's choice, with any number 90766
of individuals who are not disabled, or with not more than three 90767
individuals with mental retardation and developmental disabilities 90768
unless the individuals are related by blood or marriage;90769

       (b) Encouraging the individual's participation in the 90770
community;90771

       (c) Promoting the individual's rights and autonomy;90772

       (d) Assisting the individual in acquiring, retaining, and 90773
improving the skills and competence necessary to live successfully 90774
in the individual's residence.90775

       (2) "Supported living" includes the provision of all of the 90776
following:90777

       (a) Housing, food, clothing, habilitation, staff support, 90778
professional services, and any related support services necessary 90779
to ensure the health, safety, and welfare of the individual 90780
receiving the services;90781

       (b) A combination of lifelong or extended-duration 90782
supervision, training, and other services essential to daily 90783
living, including assessment and evaluation and assistance with 90784
the cost of training materials, transportation, fees, and 90785
supplies;90786

       (c) Personal care services and homemaker services;90787

       (d) Household maintenance that does not include modifications 90788
to the physical structure of the residence;90789

       (e) Respite care services;90790

       (f) Program management, as described in section 5126.14 of 90791
the Revised Code.90792

       Sec. 5126.026.  Except as otherwise provided in this section 90793
and section 5126.0218 of the Revised Code, a member of a county 90794
board of developmental disabilities may be reappointed to the 90795
county board. Prior to making a reappointment, the appointing 90796
authority shall ascertain, through written communication with the 90797
board, that the member being considered for reappointment meets 90798
the requirements of sections 5126.022 and 5126.0218 of the Revised 90799
Code.90800

        A member who has served during each of three consecutive 90801
terms shall not be reappointed for a subsequent term until two 90802
years after ceasing to be a member of the county board, except 90803
that a member who has served for ten years or less within three 90804
consecutive terms may be reappointed for a subsequent term before 90805
becoming ineligible for reappointment for two years.90806

       If, however, a county board experiences extenuating 90807
circumstances that would severely restrict the board from being 90808
able to fill a pending vacancy of a board member who will become 90809
ineligible for service on the board after serving three 90810
consecutive terms, the appointing authority may request a waiver 90811
from the director of developmental disabilities to allow that 90812
member to serve an additional four-year term subsequent to serving 90813
three consecutive four-year terms. The director shall determine if 90814
the extenuating circumstances associated with the board warrant 90815
the granting of such a waiver.90816

       Sec. 5126.05.  (A) Subject to the rules established by the 90817
director of developmental disabilities pursuant to Chapter 119. of 90818
the Revised Code for programs and services offered pursuant to 90819
this chapter, and subject to the rules established by the state 90820
board of education pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code 90821
for programs and services offered pursuant to Chapter 3323. of the 90822
Revised Code, the county board of developmental disabilities 90823
shall:90824

       (1) Administer and operate facilities, programs, and services 90825
as provided by this chapter and Chapter 3323. of the Revised Code 90826
and establish policies for their administration and operation;90827

       (2) Coordinate, monitor, and evaluate existing services and 90828
facilities available to individuals with mental retardation and 90829
developmental disabilities;90830

       (3) Provide early childhood services, supportive home 90831
services, and adult services, according to the plan and priorities 90832
developed under section 5126.04 of the Revised Code;90833

       (4) Provide or contract for special education services 90834
pursuant to Chapters 3317. and 3323. of the Revised Code and 90835
ensure that related services, as defined in section 3323.01 of the 90836
Revised Code, are available according to the plan and priorities 90837
developed under section 5126.04 of the Revised Code;90838

       (5) Adopt a budget, authorize expenditures for the purposes 90839
specified in this chapter and do so in accordance with section 90840
319.16 of the Revised Code, approve attendance of board members 90841
and employees at professional meetings and approve expenditures 90842
for attendance, and exercise such powers and duties as are 90843
prescribed by the director;90844

       (6) Submit annual reports of its work and expenditures, 90845
pursuant to sections 3323.09 and 5126.12 of the Revised Code, to 90846
the director, the superintendent of public instruction, and the 90847
board of county commissioners at the close of the fiscal year and 90848
at such other times as may reasonably be requested;90849

       (7) Authorize all positions of employment, establish 90850
compensation, including but not limited to salary schedules and 90851
fringe benefits for all board employees, approve contracts of 90852
employment for management employees that are for a term of more 90853
than one year, employ legal counsel under section 309.10 of the 90854
Revised Code, and contract for employee benefits;90855

       (8) Provide service and support administration in accordance 90856
with section 5126.15 of the Revised Code;90857

       (9) Certify respite care homes pursuant to rules adopted 90858
under section 5123.171 of the Revised Code by the director of 90859
developmental disabilities;90860

       (10) Implement an employment first policy that clearly 90861
identifies community employment as the desired outcome for every 90862
individual of working age who receives services from the board;90863

       (11) Set benchmarks for improving community employment 90864
outcomes;90865

       (12) Establish a list of services, from least to most 90866
integrated, that improve community employment outcomes.90867

       (B) To the extent that rules adopted under this section apply 90868
to the identification and placement of children with disabilities 90869
under Chapter 3323. of the Revised Code, they shall be consistent 90870
with the standards and procedures established under sections 90871
3323.03 to 3323.05 of the Revised Code.90872

       (C) Any county board may enter into contracts with other such 90873
boards and with public or private, nonprofit, or profit-making 90874
agencies or organizations of the same or another county, to 90875
provide the facilities, programs, and services authorized or 90876
required, upon such terms as may be agreeable, and in accordance 90877
with this chapter and Chapter 3323. of the Revised Code and rules 90878
adopted thereunder and in accordance with sections 307.86 and 90879
5126.071 of the Revised Code.90880

       (D) A county board may combine transportation for children 90881
and adults enrolled in programs and services offered under Chapter 90882
5126. of the Revised Code with transportation for children 90883
enrolled in classes funded under sectionsections 3317.0213 and90884
3317.20 or units approved under section 3317.05 of the Revised 90885
Code.90886

       (E) A county board may purchase all necessary insurance 90887
policies, may purchase equipment and supplies through the 90888
department of administrative services or from other sources, and 90889
may enter into agreements with public agencies or nonprofit 90890
organizations for cooperative purchasing arrangements.90891

       (F) A county board may receive by gift, grant, devise, or 90892
bequest any moneys, lands, or property for the benefit of the 90893
purposes for which the board is established and hold, apply, and 90894
dispose of the moneys, lands, and property according to the terms 90895
of the gift, grant, devise, or bequest. All money received by 90896
gift, grant, bequest, or disposition of lands or property received 90897
by gift, grant, devise, or bequest shall be deposited in the 90898
county treasury to the credit of such board and shall be available 90899
for use by the board for purposes determined or stated by the 90900
donor or grantor, but may not be used for personal expenses of the 90901
board members. Any interest or earnings accruing from such gift, 90902
grant, devise, or bequest shall be treated in the same manner and 90903
subject to the same provisions as such gift, grant, devise, or 90904
bequest.90905

       (G) The board of county commissioners shall levy taxes and 90906
make appropriations sufficient to enable the county board of 90907
developmental disabilities to perform its functions and duties, 90908
and may utilize any available local, state, and federal funds for 90909
such purpose.90910

       Sec. 5126.051.  (A) To the extent that resources are 90911
available, a county board of developmental disabilities shall 90912
provide for or arrange residential services and supported living 90913
for individuals with mental retardation and developmental 90914
disabilities.90915

       A county board may acquire, convey, lease, or sell property 90916
for residential services and supported living and enter into loan 90917
agreements, including mortgages, for the acquisition of such 90918
property. A county board is not required to comply with provisions 90919
of Chapter 307. of the Revised Code providing for competitive 90920
bidding or sheriff sales in the acquisition, lease, conveyance, or 90921
sale of property under this division, but the acquisition, lease, 90922
conveyance, or sale must be at fair market value determined by 90923
appraisal of one or more disinterested persons appointed by the 90924
board.90925

       Any action taken by a county board under this division that 90926
will incur debt on the part of the county shall be taken in 90927
accordance with Chapter 133. of the Revised Code. A county board 90928
shall not incur any debt on the part of the county without the 90929
prior approval of the board of county commissioners.90930

       (B)(1) To the extent that resources are available, in 90931
addition to sheltered employment and work activities provided asa 90932
county board shall provide or arrange for the provision of adult 90933
services pursuant to division (A)(3) of section 5126.05 of the 90934
Revised Code, a county board of developmental disabilities may 90935
provide or arrange forincluding job training, vocational 90936
evaluation, and community employment services to mentally retarded 90937
and developmentally disabled individuals who are age eighteen and 90938
older and not enrolled in a program or service under Chapter 3323. 90939
of the Revised Code or age sixteen or seventeen and eligible for 90940
adult services under rules adopted by the director of 90941
developmental disabilities under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. 90942
These services shall be provided in accordance with the 90943
individual's individual service or habilitation plan and shall 90944
include support services specified in the plan.90945

       (2) A county board may, in cooperation with the Ohio 90946
rehabilitation services commission, seek federal funds for job 90947
training and community employment services.90948

       (3) A county board may contract with any agency, board, or 90949
other entity that is accredited by the commission on accreditation 90950
of rehabilitation facilities to provide services. A county board 90951
that is accredited by the commission on accreditation of 90952
rehabilitation facilities may provide services for which it is 90953
certified by the commission.90954

       (C) To the extent that resources are available, a county 90955
board may provide services to an individual with mental 90956
retardation or other developmental disability in addition to those 90957
provided pursuant to this section, section 5126.05 of the Revised 90958
Code, or any other section of this chapter. The services shall be 90959
provided in accordance with the individual's habilitation or 90960
service plan and may be provided in collaboration with other 90961
entities of state or local government.90962

       Sec. 5126.054.  (A) Each county board of developmental 90963
disabilities shall, by resolution, develop a three-calendar year 90964
plan that includes the following three components:90965

       (1) An assessment component that includes all of the 90966
following:90967

       (a) The number of individuals with mental retardation or 90968
other developmental disability residing in the county who need the 90969
level of care provided by an intermediate care facility for the 90970
mentally retardedICF/MR, may seek home and community-based 90971
services, and are given priority on a waiting list established for 90972
the services pursuant to section 5126.042 of the Revised Code; the 90973
service needs of those individuals; and the projected annualized 90974
cost for services;90975

       (b) The source of funds available to the county board to pay 90976
the nonfederal share of medicaid expenditures that the county 90977
board is required by sections 5126.059 and 5126.0510 of the 90978
Revised Code to pay;90979

       (c) Any other applicable information or conditions that the 90980
department of developmental disabilities requires as a condition 90981
of approving the component under section 5123.046 of the Revised 90982
Code.90983

       (2) A preliminary implementation component that specifies the 90984
number of individuals to be provided, during the first year that 90985
the plan is in effect, home and community-based services pursuant 90986
to the waiting list priority given to them under section 5126.042 90987
of the Revised Code and the types of home and community-based 90988
services the individuals are to receive;90989

       (3) A component that provides for the implementation of 90990
medicaid case management services and home and community-based 90991
services for individuals who begin to receive the services on or 90992
after the date the plan is approved under section 5123.046 of the 90993
Revised Code. A county board shall include all of the following in 90994
the component:90995

       (a) If the department of developmental disabilities or 90996
department of job and family servicesmedicaid requires, an 90997
agreement to pay the nonfederal share of medicaid expenditures 90998
that the county board is required by sections 5126.059 and 90999
5126.0510 of the Revised Code to pay;91000

       (b) How the services are to be phased in over the period the 91001
plan covers, including how the county board will serve individuals 91002
who have priority on a waiting list established under section 91003
5126.042 of the Revised Code;91004

       (c) Any agreement or commitment regarding the county board's 91005
funding of home and community-based services that the county board 91006
has with the department at the time the county board develops the 91007
component;91008

       (d) Assurances adequate to the department that the county 91009
board will comply with all of the following requirements:91010

       (i) To provide the types of home and community-based services 91011
specified in the preliminary implementation component required by 91012
division (A)(2) of this section to at least the number of 91013
individuals specified in that component;91014

       (ii) To use any additional funds the county board receives 91015
for the services to improve the county board's resource 91016
capabilities for supporting such services available in the county 91017
at the time the component is developed and to expand the services 91018
to accommodate the unmet need for those services in the county;91019

       (iii) To employ or contract with a business manager or enter 91020
into an agreement with another county board of developmental 91021
disabilities that employs or contracts with a business manager to 91022
have the business manager serve both county boards. No 91023
superintendent of a county board may serve as the county board's 91024
business manager.91025

       (iv) To employ or contract with a medicaid services manager 91026
or enter into an agreement with another county board of 91027
developmental disabilities that employs or contracts with a 91028
medicaid services manager to have the medicaid services manager 91029
serve both county boards. No superintendent of a county board may 91030
serve as the county board's medicaid services manager.91031

       (e) Programmatic and financial accountability measures and 91032
projected outcomes expected from the implementation of the plan;91033

       (f) Any other applicable information or conditions that the 91034
department requires as a condition of approving the component 91035
under section 5123.046 of the Revised Code.91036

       (B) A county board whose plan developed under division (A) of 91037
this section is approved by the department under section 5123.046 91038
of the Revised Code shall update and renew the plan in accordance 91039
with a schedule the department shall develop.91040

       Sec. 5126.055.  (A) Except as provided in section 5126.056 of 91041
the Revised Code, a county board of developmental disabilities has 91042
medicaid local administrative authority to, and shall, do all of 91043
the following for an individual with mental retardation or other 91044
developmental disability who resides in the county that the county 91045
board serves and seeks or receives home and community-based 91046
services:91047

       (1) Perform assessments and evaluations of the individual. As 91048
part of the assessment and evaluation process, the county board 91049
shall do all of the following:91050

       (a) Make a recommendation to the department of developmental 91051
disabilities on whether the department should approve or deny the 91052
individual's application for the services, including on the basis 91053
of whether the individual needs the level of care an intermediate 91054
care facility for the mentally retardedICF/MR provides;91055

       (b) If the individual's application is denied because of the 91056
county board's recommendation and the individual requests a 91057
hearing underappeals pursuant to section 5101.355160.31 of the 91058
Revised Code, present, with the department of developmental 91059
disabilities or department of job and family servicesmedicaid, 91060
whichever denies the application, the reasons for the 91061
recommendation and denial at the hearing;91062

       (c) If the individual's application is approved, recommend to 91063
the departments of developmental disabilities and job and family 91064
servicesmedicaid the services that should be included in the 91065
individual's individualized service plan and, if either department 91066
approves, reduces, denies, or terminates a service included in the 91067
individual's individualized service plan under section 5111.87191068
5166.20 of the Revised Code because of the county board's 91069
recommendation, present, with the department that made the 91070
approval, reduction, denial, or termination, the reasons for the 91071
recommendation and approval, reduction, denial, or termination at 91072
a hearing held pursuant to an appeal made under section 5101.3591073
5160.31 of the Revised Code.91074

       (2) Perform any duties assigned to the county board in rules 91075
adopted under section 5126.046 of the Revised Code regarding the 91076
individual's right to choose a qualified and willing provider of 91077
the services and, at a hearing held pursuant to an appeal made91078
under section 5101.355160.31 of the Revised Code, present 91079
evidence of the process for appropriate assistance in choosing 91080
providers;91081

       (3) If the county board is certified under section 5123.161 91082
of the Revised Code to provide the services and agrees to provide 91083
the services to the individual and the individual chooses the 91084
county board to provide the services, furnish, in accordance with 91085
the county board's medicaid provider agreement and for the 91086
authorized reimbursement rate, the services the individual 91087
requires;91088

       (4) Monitor the services provided to the individual and 91089
ensure the individual's health, safety, and welfare. The 91090
monitoring shall include quality assurance activities. If the 91091
county board provides the services, the department of 91092
developmental disabilities shall also monitor the services.91093

       (5) Develop, with the individual and the provider of the 91094
individual's services, an effective individualized service plan 91095
that includes coordination of services, recommend that the 91096
departments of developmental disabilities and job and family 91097
servicesmedicaid approve the plan, and implement the plan unless 91098
either department disapproves it. The individualized service plan 91099
shall include a summary page, agreed to by the county board, 91100
provider, and individual receiving services, that clearly outlines 91101
the amount, duration, and scope of services to be provided under 91102
the plan.91103

       (6) Have an investigative agent conduct investigations under 91104
section 5126.313 of the Revised Code that concern the individual;91105

       (7) Have a service and support administrator perform the 91106
duties under division (B)(9) of section 5126.15 of the Revised 91107
Code that concern the individual.91108

       (B) A county board shall perform its medicaid local 91109
administrative authority under this section in accordance with all 91110
of the following:91111

       (1) The county board's plan that the department of 91112
developmental disabilities approves under section 5123.046 of the 91113
Revised Code;91114

       (2) All applicable federal and state laws;91115

       (3) All applicable policies of the departments of 91116
developmental disabilities and job and family servicesmedicaid91117
and the United States department of health and human services;91118

       (4) The department of job and family services'medicaid's91119
supervision under its authority under section 5111.01 of the 91120
Revised Code to act as the single state medicaid agency;91121

       (5) The department of developmental disabilities' oversight.91122

       (C) The departments of developmental disabilities and job and 91123
family servicesmedicaid shall communicate with and provide 91124
training to county boards regarding medicaid local administrative 91125
authority granted by this section. The communication and training 91126
shall include issues regarding audit protocols and other standards 91127
established by the United States department of health and human 91128
services that the departments determine appropriate for 91129
communication and training. County boards shall participate in the 91130
training. The departments shall assess the county board's 91131
compliance against uniform standards that the departments shall 91132
establish.91133

       (D) A county board may not delegate its medicaid local 91134
administrative authority granted under this section but may 91135
contract with a person or government entity, including a council 91136
of governments, for assistance with its medicaid local 91137
administrative authority. A county board that enters into such a 91138
contract shall notify the director of developmental disabilities. 91139
The notice shall include the tasks and responsibilities that the 91140
contract gives to the person or government entity. The person or 91141
government entity shall comply in full with all requirements to 91142
which the county board is subject regarding the person or 91143
government entity's tasks and responsibilities under the contract. 91144
The county board remains ultimately responsible for the tasks and 91145
responsibilities.91146

       (E) A county board that has medicaid local administrative 91147
authority under this section shall, through the departments of 91148
developmental disabilities and job and family servicesmedicaid, 91149
reply to, and cooperate in arranging compliance with, a program or 91150
fiscal audit or program violation exception that a state or 91151
federal audit or review discovers. The department of job and 91152
family servicesmedicaid shall timely notify the department of 91153
developmental disabilities and the county board of any adverse 91154
findings. After receiving the notice, the county board, in 91155
conjunction with the department of developmental disabilities, 91156
shall cooperate fully with the department of job and family 91157
servicesmedicaid and timely prepare and send to the department a 91158
written plan of correction or response to the adverse findings. 91159
The county board is liable for any adverse findings that result 91160
from an action it takes or fails to take in its implementation of 91161
medicaid local administrative authority.91162

       (F) If the department of developmental disabilities or 91163
department of job and family servicesmedicaid determines that a 91164
county board's implementation of its medicaid local administrative 91165
authority under this section is deficient, the department that 91166
makes the determination shall require that county board do the 91167
following:91168

       (1) If the deficiency affects the health, safety, or welfare 91169
of an individual with mental retardation or other developmental 91170
disability, correct the deficiency within twenty-four hours;91171

       (2) If the deficiency does not affect the health, safety, or 91172
welfare of an individual with mental retardation or other 91173
developmental disability, receive technical assistance from the 91174
department or submit a plan of correction to the department that 91175
is acceptable to the department within sixty days and correct the 91176
deficiency within the time required by the plan of correction.91177

       Sec. 5126.131.  (A)(1) Each regional council established 91178
under section 5126.13 of the Revised Code shall file with the 91179
department of developmental disabilities an annual cost report 91180
detailing the regional council's income and expenditures.91181

       (2) Each county board of developmental disabilities shall 91182
file with the department an annual cost report detailing the 91183
board's income and expenditures.91184

       (B)(1)(a) Unless the department establishes a later date for 91185
all regional council cost reports, each council shall file its 91186
cost report not later than the last day of April. At the written 91187
request of a regional council, the department may grant a 91188
fourteen-day extension for filing the cost report.91189

       (b) Unless the department establishes a later date for all 91190
county board cost reports, each board shall file its cost report 91191
not later than the last day of May. At the written request of a 91192
board, the department may grant a fourteen-day extension for 91193
filing the board's cost report.91194

       (2) The cost report shall contain information on the previous 91195
calendar year's income and expenditures. Once filed by a regional 91196
council or board, no changes may be made to the cost report, 91197
including the submission of additional documentation, except as 91198
otherwise provided in this section.91199

       (C) Each cost report filed under this section by a regional 91200
council or board shall be audited by the department or an entity 91201
designated by the department. The department or designated entity 91202
shall notify the regional council or board of the date on which 91203
the audit is to begin. The department may permit a regional 91204
council or board to submit changes to the cost report before the 91205
audit begins.91206

       If the department or designated entity determines that a 91207
filed cost report is not auditable, it shall provide written 91208
notification to the regional council or board of the cost report's 91209
deficiencies and may request additional documentation. If the 91210
department or designated entity requests additional documentation, 91211
the regional council or board shall be given sixty days after the 91212
request is made to provide the additional documentation. After 91213
sixty days, the department or designated entity shall determine 91214
whether the cost report is auditable with any additional 91215
documentation provided and shall notify the regional council or 91216
board of its determination. The determination of the department or 91217
designated entity is final.91218

       (D) The department or designated entity shall certify its 91219
audit as complete and file a copy of the certified audit in the 91220
office of the clerk of the governing body, executive officer of 91221
the governing body, and chief fiscal officer of the audited 91222
regional council or board. Changes may not be made to a cost 91223
report once the department or designated entity files the 91224
certified audit. The cost report is not a public record under 91225
section 149.43 of the Revised Code until copies of the cost report 91226
are filed pursuant to this section.91227

       (E) The department may withhold any funds that it distributes 91228
to a regional council or board as subsidy payments if either of 91229
the following is the case:91230

       (1) The cost report is not timely filed by the regional 91231
council or board with the department in accordance with division 91232
(B) of this section.91233

       (2) The cost report is determined not auditable under 91234
division (C) of this section after the department or designated 91235
entity gives the regional council or board sixty days to provide 91236
additional documentation.91237

       (F) Cost reports shall be retained by regional councils and 91238
boards for seven years. The department shall provide annual 91239
training to regional council and board employees regarding cost 91240
reports required by this section.91241

       (G) The department, in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 91242
Revised Code, may adopt any rules necessary to implement this 91243
section.91244

       Sec. 5126.24.  (A) As used in this section:91245

       (1) "License" means an educator license issued by the state 91246
board of education under section 3319.22 of the Revised Code or a 91247
certificate issued by the department of developmental 91248
disabilities.91249

       (2) "Teacher" means a person employed by a county board of 91250
developmental disabilities in a position that requires a license.91251

       (3) "Nonteaching employee" means a person employed by a 91252
county board of developmental disabilities in a position that does 91253
not require a license.91254

       (4) "Years of service" includes all service described in 91255
division (A) of section 3317.133317.14 of the Revised Code.91256

       (B) Subject to rules established by the director of 91257
developmental disabilities pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised 91258
Code, each county board of developmental disabilities shall 91259
annually adopt separate salary schedules for teachers and 91260
nonteaching employees.91261

       (C) The teachers' salary schedule shall provide for 91262
increments based on training and years of service. The board may 91263
establish its own service requirements provided no teacher 91264
receives less than the salary the teacher would be paid under 91265
section 3317.13 of the Revised Code if the teacher were employed 91266
by a school district board of education and provided full credit 91267
for a minimum of five years of actual teaching and military 91268
experience as defined in division (A) of such section is given to 91269
each teacher.91270

       Each teacher who has completed training that would qualify 91271
the teacher for a higher salary bracket pursuant to this section 91272
shall file by the fifteenth day of September with the fiscal 91273
officer of the board, satisfactory evidence of the completion of 91274
such additional training. The fiscal officer shall then 91275
immediately place the teacher, pursuant to this section, in the 91276
proper salary bracket in accordance with training and years of 91277
service. No teacher shall be paid less than the salary to which 91278
the teacher would be entitled under section 3317.13 of the Revised 91279
Code if the teacher were employed by a school district board of 91280
education.91281

       The superintendent of each county board, on or before the 91282
fifteenth day of October of each year, shall certify to the state 91283
board of education the name of each teacher employed, on an annual 91284
salary, in each special education program operated pursuant to 91285
section 3323.09 of the Revised Code during the first full school 91286
week of October. The superintendent further shall certify, for 91287
each teacher, the number of years of training completed at a 91288
recognized college, the degrees earned from a college recognized 91289
by the state board, the type of license held, the number of months 91290
employed by the board, the annual salary, and other information 91291
that the state board may request.91292

       (D) The nonteaching employees' salary schedule established by 91293
the board shall be based on training, experience, and 91294
qualifications with initial salaries no less than salaries in 91295
effect on July 1, 1985. Each board shall prepare and may amend 91296
from time to time, specifications descriptive of duties, 91297
responsibilities, requirements, and desirable qualifications of 91298
the classifications of employees required to perform the duties 91299
specified in the salary schedule. All nonteaching employees shall 91300
be notified of the position classification to which they are 91301
assigned and the salary for the classification. The compensation 91302
of all nonteaching employees working for a particular board shall 91303
be uniform for like positions except as compensation would be 91304
affected by salary increments based upon length of service.91305

       On the fifteenth day of October of each year the nonteaching 91306
employees' salary schedule and list of job classifications and 91307
salaries in effect on that date shall be filed by each board with 91308
the superintendent of public instruction. If such salary schedule 91309
and classification plan is not filed, the superintendent of public 91310
instruction shall order the board to file such schedule and list 91311
forthwith. If this condition is not corrected within ten days 91312
after receipt of the order from the superintendent, no money shall 91313
be distributed to the board under Chapter 3317. of the Revised 91314
Code until the superintendent has satisfactory evidence of the 91315
board's full compliance with such order.91316

       Sec. 5139.03.  The department of youth services shall control 91317
and manage all state institutions or facilities established or 91318
created for the training or rehabilitation of delinquent children 91319
committed to the department, except where the control and 91320
management of an institution or facility is vested by law in 91321
another agency. The department shall employ, in addition to other 91322
personnel authorized under Chapter 5139. of the Revised Code, 91323
sufficient personnel to maintain food service and buildings and 91324
grounds operations.91325

       The department of youth services shall, insofar as 91326
practicable, purchase foods and other commodities incident to food 91327
service operations from the department of mental healthmental 91328
health and addiction services. The department of youth services 91329
may enter into agreements with the department of mental health91330
mental health and addiction services providing for assistance and 91331
consultation in the construction of, or major modifications to, 91332
capital facilities of the department of youth services.91333

       The directors of mental healthmental health and addiction 91334
services and of youth services shall enter into written agreements 91335
to implement this section. Such directors may, from time to time, 91336
amend any agreements entered into under this section for the 91337
purposes of making more efficient use of personnel, taking 91338
advantage of economies in quantity purchasing, or for any other 91339
purpose which is mutually advantageous to both the department of 91340
youth services and the department of mental healthmental health 91341
and addiction services.91342

       The department of youth services may transfer any of its 91343
excess or surplus supplies to a community corrections facility. 91344
These supplies shall remain the property of the department for a 91345
period of five years from the date of the transfer. After the 91346
five-year period, the supplies shall become the property of the 91347
facility.91348

       Sec. 5139.04.  The department of youth services shall do all 91349
of the following:91350

       (A) Support service districts through a central 91351
administrative office that shall have as its administrative head a 91352
deputy director who shall be appointed by the director of the 91353
department. When a vacancy occurs in the office of that deputy 91354
director, an assistant deputy director shall act as that deputy 91355
director until the vacancy is filled. The position of deputy 91356
director and assistant deputy director described in this division 91357
shall be in the unclassified civil service of the state.91358

       (B) Receive custody of all children committed to it under 91359
Chapter 2152. of the Revised Code, cause a study to be made of 91360
those children, and issue any orders, as it considers best suited 91361
to the needs of any of those children and the interest of the 91362
public, for the treatment of each of those children;91363

       (C) Obtain personnel necessary for the performance of its 91364
duties;91365

       (D) Adopt rules that regulate its organization and operation, 91366
that implement sections 5139.34 and 5139.41 to 5139.43 of the 91367
Revised Code, and that pertain to the administration of other 91368
sections of this chapter;91369

       (E) Submit reports of its operations to the governor and the 91370
general assembly by the thirty-first day of January of each 91371
odd-numbered year;91372

       (F) Conduct a program of research in diagnosis, training, and 91373
treatment of delinquent children to evaluate the effectiveness of 91374
the department's services and to develop more adequate methods;91375

       (G) Develop a standard form for the disposition investigation 91376
report that a juvenile court is required pursuant to section 91377
2152.18 of the Revised Code to complete and provide to the 91378
department when the court commits a child to the legal custody of 91379
the department;91380

       (H) Allow the state public defender the access authorized 91381
under division (I) of section 120.06 of the Revised Code in order 91382
to fulfill the department's constitutional obligation to provide 91383
juveniles who have been committed to the department's care access 91384
to the courts.91385

        (I) Do all other acts necessary or desirable to carry out 91386
this chapter.91387

       Sec. 5139.08.  The department of youth services may enter 91388
into an agreement with the director of rehabilitation and 91389
correction pursuant to which the department of youth services, in 91390
accordance with division (C)(2) of section 5139.06 and section 91391
5120.162 of the Revised Code, may transfer to a correctional 91392
medical center established by the department of rehabilitation and 91393
correction, children who are within its custody for diagnosis or 91394
treatment of an illness, physical condition, or other medical 91395
problem. The department of youth services may enter into any other 91396
agreements with the director of job and family services, the 91397
director of mental healthmental health and addiction services, 91398
the director of developmental disabilities, the director of 91399
rehabilitation and correction, with the courts having probation 91400
officers or other public officials, and with private agencies or 91401
institutions for separate care or special treatment of children 91402
subject to the control of the department of youth services. The 91403
department of youth services may, upon the request of a juvenile 91404
court not having a regular probation officer, provide probation 91405
services for such court.91406

       Upon request by the department of youth services, any public 91407
agency or group care facility established or administered by the 91408
state for the care and treatment of children and youth shall, 91409
consistent with its functions, accept and care for any child whose 91410
custody is vested in the department in the same manner as it would 91411
be required to do if custody had been vested by a court in such 91412
agency or group care facility. If the department has reasonable 91413
grounds to believe that any child or youth whose custody is vested 91414
in it is mentally ill or mentally retarded, the department may 91415
file an affidavit under section 5122.11 or 5123.76 of the Revised 91416
Code. The department's affidavit for admission of a child or youth 91417
to such institution shall be filed with the probate court of the 91418
county from which the child was committed to the department. Such 91419
court may request the probate court of the county in which the 91420
child is held to conduct the hearing on the application, in which 91421
case the court making such request shall bear the expenses of the 91422
proceeding. If the department files such an affidavit, the child 91423
or youth may be kept in such institution until a final decision on 91424
the affidavit is made by the appropriate court.91425

       Sec. 5139.34.  (A) Funds may be appropriated to the 91426
department of youth services for the purpose of granting state 91427
subsidies to counties. A county or the juvenile court that serves 91428
a county shall use state subsidies granted to the county pursuant 91429
to this section only in accordance with divisions (B)(2)(a) and 91430
(3)(a) of section 5139.43 of the Revised Code and the rules 91431
pertaining to the state subsidy funds that the department adopts 91432
pursuant to division (D) of section 5139.04 of the Revised Code. 91433
The department shall not grant financial assistance pursuant to 91434
this section for the provision of care and services for children 91435
in a placement facility unless the facility has been certified, 91436
licensed, or approved by a state or national agency with 91437
certification, licensure, or approval authority, including, but 91438
not limited to, the department of job and family services, 91439
department of education, department of mental healthmental health 91440
and addiction services, department of developmental disabilities, 91441
or American correctional association. For the purposes of this 91442
section, placement facilities do not include a state institution 91443
or a county or district children's home.91444

       The department also shall not grant financial assistance 91445
pursuant to this section for the provision of care and services 91446
for children, including, but not limited to, care and services in 91447
a detention facility, in another facility, or in out-of-home 91448
placement, unless the minimum standards applicable to the care and 91449
services that the department prescribes in rules adopted pursuant 91450
to division (D) of section 5139.04 of the Revised Code have been 91451
satisfied.91452

       (B) The department of youth services shall apply the 91453
following formula to determine the amount of the annual grant that 91454
each county is to receive pursuant to division (A) of this 91455
section, subject to the appropriation for this purpose to the 91456
department made by the general assembly:91457

       (1) Each county shall receive a basic annual grant of fifty 91458
thousand dollars.91459

       (2) The sum of the basic annual grants provided under 91460
division (B)(1) of this section shall be subtracted from the total 91461
amount of funds appropriated to the department of youth services 91462
for the purpose of making grants pursuant to division (A) of this 91463
section to determine the remaining portion of the funds 91464
appropriated. The remaining portion of the funds appropriated 91465
shall be distributed on a per capita basis to each county that has 91466
a population of more than twenty-five thousand for that portion of 91467
the population of the county that exceeds twenty-five thousand.91468

       (C)(1) Prior to a county's receipt of an annual grant 91469
pursuant to this section, the juvenile court that serves the 91470
county shall prepare, submit, and file in accordance with division 91471
(B)(3)(a) of section 5139.43 of the Revised Code an annual grant 91472
agreement and application for funding that is for the combined 91473
purposes of, and that satisfies the requirements of, this section 91474
and section 5139.43 of the Revised Code. In addition to the 91475
subject matters described in division (B)(3)(a) of section 5139.43 91476
of the Revised Code or in the rules that the department adopts to 91477
implement that division, the annual grant agreement and 91478
application for funding shall address fiscal accountability and 91479
performance matters pertaining to the programs, care, and services 91480
that are specified in the agreement and application and for which 91481
state subsidy funds granted pursuant to this section will be used.91482

       (2) The county treasurer of each county that receives an 91483
annual grant pursuant to this section shall deposit the state 91484
subsidy funds so received into the county's felony delinquent care 91485
and custody fund created pursuant to division (B)(1) of section 91486
5139.43 of the Revised Code. Subject to exceptions prescribed in 91487
section 5139.43 of the Revised Code that may apply to the 91488
disbursement, the department shall disburse the state subsidy 91489
funds to which a county is entitled in a lump sum payment that 91490
shall be made in July of each calendar year.91491

       (3) Upon an order of the juvenile court that serves a county 91492
and subject to appropriation by the board of county commissioners 91493
of that county, a county treasurer shall disburse from the 91494
county's felony delinquent care and custody fund the state subsidy 91495
funds granted to the county pursuant to this section for use only 91496
in accordance with this section, the applicable provisions of 91497
section 5139.43 of the Revised Code, and the county's approved 91498
annual grant agreement and application for funding.91499

       (4) The moneys in a county's felony delinquent care and 91500
custody fund that represent state subsidy funds granted pursuant 91501
to this section are subject to appropriation by the board of 91502
county commissioners of the county; shall be disbursed by the 91503
county treasurer as required by division (C)(3) of this section; 91504
shall be used in the manners referred to in division (C)(3) of 91505
this section; shall not revert to the county general fund at the 91506
end of any fiscal year; shall carry over in the felony delinquent 91507
care and custody fund from the end of any fiscal year to the next 91508
fiscal year; shall be in addition to, and shall not be used to 91509
reduce, any usual annual increase in county funding that the 91510
juvenile court is eligible to receive or the current level of 91511
county funding of the juvenile court and of any programs, care, or 91512
services for alleged or adjudicated delinquent children, unruly 91513
children, or juvenile traffic offenders or for children who are at 91514
risk of becoming delinquent children, unruly children, or juvenile 91515
traffic offenders; and shall not be used to pay for the care and 91516
custody of felony deliquentsdelinquents who are in the care and 91517
custody of an institution pursuant to a commitment, recommitment, 91518
or revocation of a release on parole by the juvenile court of that 91519
county or who are in the care and custody of a community 91520
corrections facility pursuant to a placement by the department 91521
with the consent of the juvenile court as described in division 91522
(E) of section 5139.36 of the Revised Code.91523

       (5) As a condition of the continued receipt of state subsidy 91524
funds pursuant to this section, each county and the juvenile court 91525
that serves each county that receives an annual grant pursuant to 91526
this section shall comply with divisions (B)(3)(b), (c), and (d) 91527
of section 5139.43 of the Revised Code.91528

       Sec. 5145.162.  (A) There is hereby created the office of 91529
enterprise development advisory council of directors for prison 91530
labor consistingboard to advise and assist the department of 91531
rehabilitation and correction with the creation of training 91532
programs and jobs for inmates and releasees through partnerships 91533
with private sector businesses. The board shall consist of at 91534
least five appointed members and the executive director of the 91535
office of the correctional institution inspection committee, who 91536
shall serve as an ex officio member. Each member shall have 91537
experience in labor relations, marketing, business management, or 91538
business. The members and chairperson shall be appointed by the 91539
governordirector of the department of rehabilitation and 91540
correction. Within thirty days after April 9, 1981, the governor 91541
shall make the initial appointments to the council of directors. 91542
Of the initial appointments made to the council of directors, two 91543
shall be for a term ending one year after April 9, 1981, two shall 91544
be for a term ending two years after that date, and one shall be 91545
for a term ending three years after that date. After the 91546
expiration of the initial terms, the terms of office for the 91547
members shall be for three years, each term ending on the same day 91548
of the same month of the year as did the term that it succeeds. 91549
Each member shall hold office from the date of appointment until 91550
the end of the term for which the member was appointed. Any 91551
vacancy on the advisory council shall be filled by the governor. 91552
Any member appointed to fill a vacancy occurring prior to the 91553
expiration of the term for which the member's predecessor was 91554
appointed shall hold office for the remainder of the predecessor's 91555
term. Any member shall continue in office subsequent to the 91556
expiration date of the member's term until a successor takes 91557
office, or until a period of sixty days has elapsed, whichever 91558
occurs first.91559

       (B) Each member of the advisory council, while engaged in the 91560
performance of the business of the advisory council,board shall 91561
receive no compensation but may be reimbursed for expenses 91562
actually and necessarily incurred in the performance of official 91563
duties of the board. Members of the board who are state employees 91564
shall be reimbursed for expenses pursuant to travel rules 91565
promulgated by the office of budget and management.91566

       (C) The advisory councilboard shall adopt procedures for the 91567
conduct of the board's meetings. The board shall meet within two 91568
weeks after the initial members have been appointed at a time and 91569
place determined by the governor. At its first meeting, the 91570
advisory council shall elect a chairperson and shall adopt rules 91571
for its procedures. The advisory council shall elect a new 91572
chairperson annually at its January meeting. The advisory council 91573
shall meet at least once every January and at least once every two 91574
months thereafterquarter, and otherwise shall meet at the call of 91575
the chairperson or upon the written request of at least a quorum 91576
of the members. Threedirector of the department of rehabilitation 91577
and correction. Sixty per cent of the members constitutesshall 91578
constitute a quorum, and no action. No transaction of the board's 91579
business shall be taken without the concurrence of a quorum of the 91580
members. The board may have committees with persons who are not 91581
members of the board but whose experience and expertise is 91582
relevant and useful to the work of the committee.91583

       (D) The advisory councilboard shall advise and assist the 91584
department of rehabilitation and correction when the department 91585
adopts rules pursuant to division (B) of section 5145.03 of the 91586
Revised Code, establishes prices for goods, products, services, or 91587
labor produced or supplied by prisoners, and otherwise establishes 91588
and administers the program for employment of prisoners 91589
established by the department pursuant to division (A) of section 91590
5145.16 of the Revised Code. The department shall consider the 91591
advice and assistance of the advisory council that is provided 91592
pursuant to this section, and shall cooperate with the advisory 91593
council. The advisory council may recommendhave the following 91594
duties:91595

       (1) Solicit business proposals offering job training, 91596
apprenticeship, education programs, and employment opportunities 91597
for inmates and releasees;91598

       (2) Provide information and input to the office of enterprise 91599
development to support the job training and employment program of 91600
inmates and releasees and any additional, related duties as 91601
requested by the director of the department of rehabilitation and 91602
correction;91603

       (3) Recommend to the general assemblyoffice of enterprise 91604
development any further legislation, administrative rule, or 91605
department policy change that itthe board believes is necessary 91606
to implement the department's program of employment of prisoners;91607

       (4) Promote public awareness of the office of enterprise 91608
development and the office's employment program;91609

       (5) Familiarize itself and the public with avenues to access 91610
the office of enterprise development on employment program 91611
concerns;91612

       (6) Advocate for the needs and concerns of the office of 91613
enterprise development in local communities, counties, and the 91614
state;91615

       (7) Play an active role in the office of enterprise 91616
development's efforts to reduce recidivism in the state by doing 91617
all of the following:91618

       (a) Providing input and making recommendations for the 91619
office's consideration in monitoring employment program compliance 91620
and effectiveness;91621

       (b) Making suggestions on the appropriate priorities for the 91622
office's grant award criteria;91623

       (c) Being a liaison between the office and constituents of 91624
the board's members;91625

       (d) Working to develop constituent groups interested in 91626
employment program issues;91627

       (8) Aid in the employment program development process by 91628
playing a leadership role in professional associations by 91629
discussing employment program issues.91630

       (E) The department of rehabilitation and correction shall 91631
initially screen each proposal obtained under division (D)(1) of 91632
this section to ensure that the proposal is a viable venture to 91633
pursue. If the department determines that a proposal is a viable 91634
venture to pursue, the department shall submit the proposal to the 91635
board for objective review against established guidelines. The 91636
board shall determine whether to recommend the implementation of 91637
the program to the department.91638

       Sec. 5145.18.  Any printing or binding performed in a state 91639
correctional institution may be performed for the use of the 91640
institution, the departments of mental healthmental health and 91641
addiction services, developmental disabilities, and rehabilitation 91642
and correction, the department of public safety in connection with 91643
the registration of motor vehicles, and for any other purpose 91644
authorized by division (B) of section 5145.03 and by sections 91645
5145.16 and 5145.161 of the Revised Code.91646

       Sec. 5153.16.  (A) Except as provided in section 2151.422 of 91647
the Revised Code, in accordance with rules adopted under section 91648
5153.166 of the Revised Code, and on behalf of children in the 91649
county whom the public children services agency considers to be in 91650
need of public care or protective services, the public children 91651
services agency shall do all of the following:91652

       (1) Make an investigation concerning any child alleged to be 91653
an abused, neglected, or dependent child;91654

       (2) Enter into agreements with the parent, guardian, or other 91655
person having legal custody of any child, or with the department 91656
of job and family services, department of mental healthmental 91657
health and addiction services, department of developmental 91658
disabilities, other department, any certified organization within 91659
or outside the county, or any agency or institution outside the 91660
state, having legal custody of any child, with respect to the 91661
custody, care, or placement of any child, or with respect to any 91662
matter, in the interests of the child, provided the permanent 91663
custody of a child shall not be transferred by a parent to the 91664
public children services agency without the consent of the 91665
juvenile court;91666

       (3) Accept custody of children committed to the public 91667
children services agency by a court exercising juvenile 91668
jurisdiction;91669

       (4) Provide such care as the public children services agency 91670
considers to be in the best interests of any child adjudicated to 91671
be an abused, neglected, or dependent child the agency finds to be 91672
in need of public care or service;91673

       (5) Provide social services to any unmarried girl adjudicated 91674
to be an abused, neglected, or dependent child who is pregnant 91675
with or has been delivered of a child;91676

       (6) Make available to the bureau for children with medical 91677
handicaps of the department of health at its request any 91678
information concerning a crippled child found to be in need of 91679
treatment under sections 3701.021 to 3701.028 of the Revised Code 91680
who is receiving services from the public children services 91681
agency;91682

       (7) Provide temporary emergency care for any child considered 91683
by the public children services agency to be in need of such care, 91684
without agreement or commitment;91685

       (8) Find certified foster homes, within or outside the 91686
county, for the care of children, including handicapped children 91687
from other counties attending special schools in the county;91688

       (9) Subject to the approval of the board of county 91689
commissioners and the state department of job and family services, 91690
establish and operate a training school or enter into an agreement 91691
with any municipal corporation or other political subdivision of 91692
the county respecting the operation, acquisition, or maintenance 91693
of any children's home, training school, or other institution for 91694
the care of children maintained by such municipal corporation or 91695
political subdivision;91696

       (10) Acquire and operate a county children's home, establish, 91697
maintain, and operate a receiving home for the temporary care of 91698
children, or procure certified foster homes for this purpose;91699

       (11) Enter into an agreement with the trustees of any 91700
district children's home, respecting the operation of the district 91701
children's home in cooperation with the other county boards in the 91702
district;91703

       (12) Cooperate with, make its services available to, and act 91704
as the agent of persons, courts, the department of job and family 91705
services, the department of health, and other organizations within 91706
and outside the state, in matters relating to the welfare of 91707
children, except that the public children services agency shall 91708
not be required to provide supervision of or other services 91709
related to the exercise of parenting time rights granted pursuant 91710
to section 3109.051 or 3109.12 of the Revised Code or 91711
companionship or visitation rights granted pursuant to section 91712
3109.051, 3109.11, or 3109.12 of the Revised Code unless a 91713
juvenile court, pursuant to Chapter 2151. of the Revised Code, or 91714
a common pleas court, pursuant to division (E)(6) of section 91715
3113.31 of the Revised Code, requires the provision of supervision 91716
or other services related to the exercise of the parenting time 91717
rights or companionship or visitation rights;91718

       (13) Make investigations at the request of any superintendent 91719
of schools in the county or the principal of any school concerning 91720
the application of any child adjudicated to be an abused, 91721
neglected, or dependent child for release from school, where such 91722
service is not provided through a school attendance department;91723

       (14) Administer funds provided under Title IV-E of the 91724
"Social Security Act," 94 Stat. 501 (1980), 42 U.S.C.A. 671, as 91725
amended, in accordance with rules adopted under section 5101.141 91726
of the Revised Code;91727

       (15) In addition to administering Title IV-E adoption 91728
assistance funds, enter into agreements to make adoption 91729
assistance payments under section 5153.163 of the Revised Code;91730

       (16) Implement a system of safety and risk assessment, in 91731
accordance with rules adopted by the director of job and family 91732
services, to assist the public children services agency in 91733
determining the risk of abuse or neglect to a child;91734

       (17) Enter into a plan of cooperation with the board of 91735
county commissioners under section 307.983 of the Revised Code and 91736
comply with each fiscal agreement the board enters into under 91737
section 307.98 of the Revised Code that include family services 91738
duties of public children services agencies and contracts the 91739
board enters into under sections 307.981 and 307.982 of the 91740
Revised Code that affect the public children services agency;91741

       (18) Make reasonable efforts to prevent the removal of an 91742
alleged or adjudicated abused, neglected, or dependent child from 91743
the child's home, eliminate the continued removal of the child 91744
from the child's home, or make it possible for the child to return 91745
home safely, except that reasonable efforts of that nature are not 91746
required when a court has made a determination under division 91747
(A)(2) of section 2151.419 of the Revised Code;91748

       (19) Make reasonable efforts to place the child in a timely 91749
manner in accordance with the permanency plan approved under 91750
division (E) of section 2151.417 of the Revised Code and to 91751
complete whatever steps are necessary to finalize the permanent 91752
placement of the child;91753

       (20) Administer a Title IV-A program identified under 91754
division (A)(4)(c) or (f)(g) of section 5101.80 of the Revised 91755
Code that the department of job and family services provides for 91756
the public children services agency to administer under the 91757
department's supervision pursuant to section 5101.801 of the 91758
Revised Code;91759

       (21) Administer the kinship permanency incentive program 91760
created under section 5101.802 of the Revised Code under the 91761
supervision of the director of job and family services;91762

       (22) Provide independent living services pursuant to sections 91763
2151.81 to 2151.84 of the Revised Code;91764

       (23) File a missing child report with a local law enforcement 91765
agency upon becoming aware that a child in the custody of the 91766
public children services agency is or may be missing.91767

       (B) The public children services agency shall use the system 91768
implemented pursuant to division (A)(16) of this section in 91769
connection with an investigation undertaken pursuant to division 91770
(F)(1) of section 2151.421 of the Revised Code to assess both of 91771
the following:91772

       (1) The ongoing safety of the child;91773

       (2) The appropriateness of the intensity and duration of the 91774
services provided to meet child and family needs throughout the 91775
duration of a case.91776

       (C) Except as provided in section 2151.422 of the Revised 91777
Code, in accordance with rules of the director of job and family 91778
services, and on behalf of children in the county whom the public 91779
children services agency considers to be in need of public care or 91780
protective services, the public children services agency may do 91781
the following:91782

       (1) Provide or find, with other child serving systems, 91783
specialized foster care for the care of children in a specialized 91784
foster home, as defined in section 5103.02 of the Revised Code, 91785
certified under section 5103.03 of the Revised Code;91786

       (2)(a) Except as limited by divisions (C)(2)(b) and (c) of 91787
this section, contract with the following for the purpose of 91788
assisting the agency with its duties:91789

       (i) County departments of job and family services;91790

       (ii) Boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 91791
services;91792

       (iii) County boards of developmental disabilities;91793

       (iv) Regional councils of political subdivisions established 91794
under Chapter 167. of the Revised Code;91795

       (v) Private and government providers of services;91796

       (vi) Managed care organizations and prepaid health plans.91797

       (b) A public children services agency contract under division 91798
(C)(2)(a) of this section regarding the agency's duties under 91799
section 2151.421 of the Revised Code may not provide for the 91800
entity under contract with the agency to perform any service not 91801
authorized by the department's rules.91802

       (c) Only a county children services board appointed under 91803
section 5153.03 of the Revised Code that is a public children 91804
services agency may contract under division (C)(2)(a) of this 91805
section. If an entity specified in division (B) or (C) of section 91806
5153.02 of the Revised Code is the public children services agency 91807
for a county, the board of county commissioners may enter into 91808
contracts pursuant to section 307.982 of the Revised Code 91809
regarding the agency's duties.91810

       Sec. 5160.01.  As used in this chapter:91811

       (A) "Dual eligible individual" has the same meaning as in the 91812
"Social Security Act," section 1915(h)(2)(B), 42 U.S.C. 91813
1396n(h)(2)(B). A dual eligible individual is a medicare-medicaid 91814
enrollee (MME).91815

       (B) "Exchange" has the same meaning as in 45 C.F.R. 155.20.91816

       (C) "Federal financial participation" means the federal 91817
government's share of expenditures made by an entity in 91818
implementing a medical assistance program.91819

       (D) "Medical assistance program" means all of the following:91820

       (1) The medicaid program;91821

       (2) The children's health insurance program;91822

       (3) The refugee medical assistance program;91823

       (4) Any other program that provides medical assistance and 91824
state statutes authorize the department of medicaid to administer.91825

       (E) "Medical assistance recipient" means a recipient of a 91826
medical assistance program. To the extent appropriate in the 91827
context, "medical assistance recipient" includes an individual 91828
applying for a medical assistance program, a former medical 91829
assistance recipient, or both.91830

       (F) "Medicaid managed care organization" has the same meaning 91831
as in section 5167.01 of the Revised Code.91832

       (G) "Refugee medical assistance program" means the program 91833
that the department of medicaid administers pursuant to section 91834
5160.50 of the Revised Code.91835

       Sec. 5160.011.  References to the department or director of 91836
public welfare, department or director of human services, 91837
department or director of job and family services, office of 91838
medical assistance, or medical assistance director in any statute, 91839
rule, contract, grant, or other document is deemed to refer to the 91840
department of medicaid or medicaid director, as the case may be, 91841
to the extent the reference is about a duty or authority of the 91842
department of medicaid or medicaid director regarding a medical 91843
assistance program.91844

       Sec. 5160.02.  The medicaid director shall adopt rules as 91845
necessary to implement this chapter.91846

       Sec. 5160.021.  (A) When the medicaid director is authorized 91847
by a statute to adopt a rule, the director shall adopt the rule in 91848
accordance with the following:91849

       (1) Chapter 119. of the Revised Code if either of the 91850
following applies:91851

       (a) The statute authorizing the rule requires that the rule 91852
be adopted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.91853

       (b) Unless division (A)(2)(b) of this section applies, the 91854
statute authorizing the rule does not specify the procedure for 91855
the rule's adoption.91856

       (2) Section 111.15 of the Revised Code, excluding divisions 91857
(D) and (E) of that section, if either of the following applies:91858

       (a) The statute authorizing the rule requires that the rule 91859
be adopted in accordance with section 111.15 of the Revised Code 91860
and, by the terms of division (D) of that section, division (D) of 91861
that section does not apply to the rule.91862

       (b) The statute authorizing the rule does not specify the 91863
procedure for the rule's adoption and the rule concerns the 91864
day-to-day staff procedures and operations of the department of 91865
medicaid or financial and operational matters between the 91866
department and a person or government entity receiving a grant 91867
from the department.91868

       (3) Section 111.15 of the Revised Code, including divisions 91869
(D) and (E) of that section, if the statute authorizing the rule 91870
requires that the rule be adopted in accordance with that section 91871
and the rule is not exempt from the application of division (D) of 91872
that section.91873

       (B) Except as otherwise required by a statute, the adoption 91874
of a rule in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code does 91875
not make the department of medicaid subject to the notice, 91876
hearing, or other requirements of sections 119.06 to 119.13 of the 91877
Revised Code.91878

       Sec. 5160.03.  The medicaid director is the executive head of 91879
the department of medicaid. All duties conferred on the department 91880
by law or order of the director are under the director's control 91881
and shall be performed in accordance with rules the director 91882
adopts.91883

       Sec. 5160.04.  The medicaid director shall appoint one 91884
assistant director for the department of medicaid. The assistant 91885
director shall exercise powers, and perform duties, as ordered by 91886
the medicaid director. The assistant director shall act as the 91887
medicaid director in the medicaid director's absence or disability 91888
and when the position of medicaid director is vacant.91889

       Sec. 5160.05.  The medicaid director may appoint such 91890
employees as are necessary for the efficient operation of the 91891
department of medicaid. The director may prescribe the title and 91892
duties of the employees.91893

       Sec. 5160.051.  If the medicaid director determines that a 91894
position with the department of medicaid can best be filled in 91895
accordance with division (A)(2) of section 124.30 of the Revised 91896
Code or without regard to a residency requirement established by a 91897
rule adopted by the director of administrative services, the 91898
medicaid director shall provide the director of administrative 91899
services certification of the determination.91900

       Sec. 5160.052.  The department of medicaid shall collaborate 91901
with the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification 91902
and investigation to develop procedures and formats necessary to 91903
produce the notices described in division (C) of section 109.5721 91904
of the Revised Code in a format that is acceptable for use by the 91905
department. The medicaid director may adopt rules under section 91906
5160.02 of the Revised Code necessary for such collaboration. Any 91907
such rules shall be adopted in accordance with section 111.15 of 91908
the Revised Code as if they were internal management rules.91909

       The medicaid director may adopt rules under section 5160.02 91910
of the Revised Code necessary for utilizing the information 91911
received pursuant to section 109.5721 of the Revised Code. The 91912
rules shall be adopted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 91913
Revised Code.91914

       Sec. 5160.06.  The medicaid director may require any of the 91915
employees of the department of medicaid who may be charged with 91916
custody or control of any public money or property or who is 91917
required to give bond, to give a bond, properly conditioned, in a 91918
sum to be fixed by the director which when approved by the 91919
director, shall be filed in the office of the secretary of state. 91920
The cost of such bonds, when approved by the director, shall be 91921
paid from funds available for the department. The bonds required 91922
or authorized by this section may, in the discretion of the 91923
director, be individual, schedule, or blanket bonds.91924

       Sec. 5160.10.  The medicaid director may expend funds 91925
appropriated or available to the department of medicaid from 91926
persons and government entities. For purposes of this section, the 91927
director may enter into contracts or agreements with persons and 91928
government entities and make grants to persons and government 91929
entities. To the extent permitted by federal law, the director may 91930
advance funds to a grantee when necessary for the grantee to 91931
perform duties under the grant as specified by the director.91932

       The director may adopt rules under section 5160.02 of the 91933
Revised Code as necessary to define terms and adopt procedures and 91934
other provisions necessary to implement this section.91935

       Sec. 5160.11.  The state health care grants fund is hereby 91936
created in the state treasury. Money the department of medicaid 91937
receives from private foundations in support of pilot projects 91938
that promote exemplary programs that enhance programs the 91939
department administers shall be credited to the fund. The 91940
department may expend the money on such projects, may use the 91941
money, to the extent allowable, to match federal financial 91942
participation in support of such projects, and shall comply with 91943
requirements the foundations have stipulated in their agreements 91944
with the department as to the purposes for which the money may be 91945
expended.91946

       Sec. 5160.12.  (A) As used in this section, "entity" includes 91947
an agency, board, commission, or department of the state or a 91948
political subdivision of the state; a private, nonprofit entity; a 91949
school district; a private school; or a public or private 91950
institution of higher education.91951

       (B) This section does not apply to contracts entered into 91952
under section 5162.32 or 5162.35 of the Revised Code.91953

       (C) At the request of any public entity having authority to 91954
implement a program administered by the department of medicaid or 91955
any private entity under contract with a public entity to 91956
implement a program administered by the department, the department 91957
may seek to obtain federal financial participation for costs 91958
incurred by the entity. Federal financial participation may be 91959
sought from programs operated pursuant to Title XIX of the "Social 91960
Security Act," 42 U.S.C. 1396, et seq., and any other statute or 91961
regulation under which federal financial participation may be 91962
available, except that federal financial participation may be 91963
sought only for expenditures made with funds for which federal 91964
financial participation is available under federal law.91965

       (D) All funds collected by the department pursuant to 91966
division (C) of this section shall be distributed to the entities 91967
that incurred the costs.91968

       (E) In distributing federal financial participation pursuant 91969
to this section, the department may either enter into an agreement 91970
with the entity that is to receive the funds or distribute the 91971
funds in accordance with rules authorized by division (H) of this 91972
section. If the department decides to enter into an agreement to 91973
distribute the funds, the agreement may include terms that do any 91974
of the following:91975

       (1) Provide for the whole or partial reimbursement of any 91976
cost incurred by the entity in implementing the program;91977

       (2) In the event that federal financial participation is 91978
disallowed or otherwise unavailable for any expenditure, require 91979
the department or the entity, whichever party caused the 91980
disallowance or unavailability of federal financial participation, 91981
to assume responsibility for the expenditures;91982

       (3) Require the entity to certify to the department the 91983
availability of sufficient unencumbered funds to match the federal 91984
financial participation the entity receives under this section;91985

       (4) Establish the length of the agreement, which may be for a 91986
fixed or a continuing period of time;91987

       (5) Establish any other requirements determined by the 91988
department to be necessary for the efficient administration of the 91989
agreement.91990

       (F) An entity that receives federal financial participation 91991
pursuant to this section for a program aiding children and their 91992
families shall establish a process for collaborative planning with 91993
the department for the use of the funds to improve and expand the 91994
program.91995

       (G) Federal financial participation received pursuant to this 91996
section shall not be included in any calculation made under 91997
section 5101.16 or 5101.161 of the Revised Code.91998

       (H) The medicaid director may adopt rules under section 91999
5160.02 of the Revised Code as necessary to implement this 92000
section, including rules for the distribution of federal financial 92001
participation pursuant to this section. The rules shall be adopted 92002
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.92003

       Sec. 5160.13.  The department of medicaid may enter into 92004
contracts with private entities to maximize federal revenue 92005
without the expenditure of state money. In selecting private 92006
entities with which to contract, the department shall engage in a 92007
request for proposals process. The department, subject to the 92008
approval of the controlling board, may also directly enter into 92009
contracts with public entities providing revenue maximization 92010
services.92011

       Sec. 5160.16.  The department of medicaid may appoint and 92012
commission any competent person to serve as a special agent, 92013
investigator, or representative to perform a designated duty for 92014
and on behalf of the department. Specific credentials shall be 92015
given by the department to each person so designated, and each 92016
credential shall state the following:92017

       (A) The person's name;92018

       (B) The agency with which the person is connected;92019

       (C) The purpose of the appointment;92020

       (D) The date the appointment expires, if appropriate;92021

       (E) Such information as the department considers proper.92022

       Sec. 5160.20.  (A) The department of medicaid may conduct any 92023
audits or investigations that are necessary in the performance of 92024
the department's duties, and to that end, the department has the 92025
same power as a judge of a county court to administer oaths and to 92026
enforce the attendance and testimony of witnesses and the 92027
production of books or papers.92028

       The department shall keep a record of the department's audits 92029
and investigations stating the time, place, charges, or subject; 92030
witnesses summoned and examined; and the department's conclusions.92031

       Witnesses shall be paid the fees and mileage provided for 92032
under section 119.094 of the Revised Code.92033

       (B) Any judge of any division of the court of common pleas, 92034
on application of the department, may compel the attendance of 92035
witnesses, the production of books or papers, and the giving of 92036
testimony before the department, by a judgment for contempt or 92037
otherwise, in the same manner as in cases before those courts.92038

       (C) Until an audit report is formally released by the 92039
department, the audit report or any working paper or other 92040
document or record prepared by the department and related to the 92041
audit that is the subject of the audit report is not a public 92042
record under section 149.43 of the Revised Code.92043

       (D) The medicaid director may adopt rules under section 92044
5160.02 of the Revised Code as necessary to implement this 92045
section. The rules shall be adopted in accordance with section 92046
111.15 of the Revised Code as if they were internal management 92047
rules.92048

       Sec. 5160.21.  On the request of the medicaid director, the 92049
auditor of state may conduct an audit of any medical assistance 92050
recipient. If the auditor decides to conduct an audit under this 92051
section, the auditor shall enter into an interagency agreement 92052
with the department of medicaid that specifies that the auditor 92053
agrees to comply with section 5160.45 of the Revised Code with 92054
respect to any information the auditor receives pursuant to the 92055
audit.92056

       Sec. 5160.22.  (A) The auditor of state and attorney general, 92057
or their designees, may examine any records, whether in computer 92058
or printed format, in the possession of the medicaid director or 92059
any county director of job and family services, regarding medical 92060
assistance programs. The auditor of state and attorney general 92061
shall do both of the following regarding the records:92062

       (1) Provide safeguards that restrict access to the records to 92063
purposes directly connected with an audit or investigation, 92064
prosecution, or criminal or civil proceeding conducted in 92065
connection with the administration of the programs;92066

       (2) Comply, and ensure that their designees comply, with 92067
section 5160.45 of the Revised Code and rules of the medicaid 92068
director restricting the disclosure of information regarding 92069
medical assistance recipients.92070

       (B) Any person who fails to comply with the restriction 92071
specified in division (A) of this section is disqualified from 92072
acting as an agent or employee or in any other capacity under 92073
appointment or employment of any state board, commission, or 92074
agency.92075

       Sec. 5160.23.  The auditor of state is responsible for the 92076
costs the auditor incurs in carrying out the auditor's duties 92077
under sections 5160.21 and 5160.22 of the Revised Code.92078

       Sec. 5160.30.  (A) Except as provided in divisions (B) and 92079
(C) of this section, the department of medicaid may accept 92080
applications, determine eligibility, redetermine eligibility, and 92081
perform related administrative activities for medical assistance 92082
programs.92083

       (B) The department may enter into agreements with one or more 92084
agencies of the federal government, the state, other states, and 92085
local governments of this or other states to accept applications, 92086
determine eligibility, redetermine eligibility, and perform 92087
related administrative activities on behalf of the department with 92088
respect to medical assistance programs.92089

       (C) If federal law requires a face-to-face interview to 92090
complete an eligibility determination for a medical assistance 92091
program, the department shall not conduct the face-to-face 92092
interview.92093

       (D) Subject to division (C) of this section, if the 92094
department elects to accept applications, determine eligibility, 92095
redetermine eligibility, and perform related administrative 92096
activities for a medical assistance program, both of the following 92097
apply:92098

       (1) An individual may apply for the medical assistance 92099
program to the department or an agency authorized by an agreement 92100
entered into under division (B) of this section to accept the 92101
individual's application;92102

       (2) The department is subject to federal statutes and 92103
regulations and state statutes and rules that require, permit, or 92104
prohibit an action regarding accepting applications, determining 92105
or redetermining eligibility, and performing related 92106
administrative activities for the medical assistance program.92107

       Sec. 5160.31.  (A) A medical assistance recipient may appeal 92108
a decision regarding the recipient's eligibility for a medical 92109
assistance program or services available to the recipient under a 92110
medical assistance program.92111

       (B) Regarding appeals authorized by this section, the 92112
department of medicaid shall do one or more of the following:92113

       (1) Administer an appeals process similar to the appeals 92114
process established under section 5101.35 of the Revised Code;92115

        (2) Contract with the department of job and family services 92116
pursuant to section 5162.35 of the Revised Code to provide for the 92117
department of job and family services to hear the appeals in 92118
accordance with section 5101.35 of the Revised Code;92119

        (3) Delegate authority to hear appeals to an exchange or 92120
exchange appeals entity.92121

       (C) If a medical assistance recipient files an appeal as 92122
authorized by this section, the department of medicaid may do 92123
either or both of the following:92124

       (1) Take corrective action regarding the matter being 92125
appealed before a hearing decision regarding the matter is issued;92126

       (2) If a hearing decision, administrative appeal decision, or 92127
court ruling is against the recipient, take action in favor of the 92128
recipient despite the contrary decision or ruling, unless, in the 92129
case of a court's ruling, the ruling prohibits the department from 92130
taking the action.92131

       Sec. 5101.571.        Sec. 5160.35.  As used in sections 5101.5715160.3592132
to 5101.5915160.43 of the Revised Code:92133

       (A) "Information" means all of the following:92134

       (1) An individual's name, address, date of birth, and social 92135
security number;92136

       (2) The group or plan number, or other identifier, assigned 92137
by a third party to a policy held by an individual or a plan in 92138
which the individual participates and the nature of the coverage;92139

       (3) Any other data the medicaid director of job and family 92140
services specifies in rules adopted underauthorized by section 92141
5101.5915160.43 of the Revised Code.92142

       (B) "Medical assistance" means medical items or services 92143
provided under any of the following:92144

       (1) Medicaid, as defined in section 5111.01 of the Revised 92145
Code;92146

       (2) The children's health insurance program part I, part II, 92147
and part III established under sections 5101.50, 5101.51, and 92148
5101.52 of the Revised Code.92149

       (C) "Medical support" means support specified as support for 92150
the purpose of medical care by order of a court or administrative 92151
agency.92152

       (D) "Public assistance" means medical assistance or 92153
assistance under the Ohio works first program established under 92154
Chapter 5107. of the Revised Code.92155

       (E)(C)(1) Subject to division (E)(C)(2) of this section, and 92156
except as provided in division (E)(C)(3) of this section, "third 92157
party" means all of the following:92158

       (a) A person authorized to engage in the business of sickness 92159
and accident insurance under Title XXXIX of the Revised Code;92160

       (b) A person or governmental entity providing coverage for 92161
medical services or items to individuals on a self-insurance 92162
basis;92163

       (c) A health insuring corporation as defined in section 92164
1751.01 of the Revised Code;92165

       (d) A group health plan as defined in 29 U.S.C. 1167;92166

       (e) A service benefit plan as referenced in 42 U.S.C. 92167
1396a(a)(25);92168

       (f) A managed care organization;92169

       (g) A pharmacy benefit manager;92170

       (h) A third party administrator;92171

       (i) Any other person or governmental entity that is, by law, 92172
contract, or agreement, responsible for the payment or processing 92173
of a claim for a medical item or service for a publicmedical92174
assistance recipient or participant.92175

       (2) Except when otherwise provided by the "Social Security 92176
Act," section 1862(b), 42 U.S.C. 1395y(b), a person or 92177
governmental entity listed in division (E)(C)(1) of this section 92178
is a third party even if the person or governmental entity limits 92179
or excludes payments for a medical item or service in the case of 92180
a public assistance recipient.92181

       (3) "Third party" does not include the program for medically 92182
handicapped children established under section 3701.023 of the 92183
Revised Code.92184

       Sec. 5160.36.  Enrollment in a medical assistance program 92185
gives a right of subrogation to the department of medicaid for any 92186
workers' compensation benefits payable to a person who is subject 92187
to a support order, as defined in section 3119.01 of the Revised 92188
Code, on behalf of the medical assistance recipient, to the extent 92189
of any payments made under the medical assistance program on the 92190
recipient's behalf. If the department, in consultation with a 92191
child support enforcement agency and the administrator of the 92192
bureau of workers' compensation, determines that a person 92193
responsible for support payments to a medical assistance recipient 92194
is receiving workers' compensation, the department shall notify 92195
the administrator of the amount of the benefit to be paid to the 92196
department.92197

       Sec. 5101.58.        Sec. 5160.37. (A) The acceptance of publicA medical 92198
assistance recipient's enrollment in a medical assistance program92199
gives an automatic right of recovery to the department of job and 92200
family servicesmedicaid and a county department of job and family 92201
services against the liability of a third party for the cost of 92202
medical assistance paid on behalf of the public assistance92203
recipient or participant. When an action or claim is brought 92204
against a third party by a publicmedical assistance recipient or 92205
participant, any payment, settlement or compromise of the action 92206
or claim, or any court award or judgment, is subject to the 92207
recovery right of the department of job and family services92208
medicaid or county department of job and family services. Except 92209
in the case of a medical assistance recipient or participant who 92210
receives medical assistance through a medicaid managed care 92211
organization, the department's or county department's claim shall 92212
not exceed the amount of medical assistance paid by athe 92213
department or county department on behalf of the recipient or 92214
participant. A payment, settlement, compromise, judgment, or award 92215
that excludes the cost of medical assistance paid for by athe 92216
department or county department shall not preclude a department 92217
from enforcing its rights under this section.92218

       (B) In the case of a medical assistance recipient or 92219
participant who receives medical assistance through a medicaid92220
managed care organization, the amount of the department's or 92221
county department's claim shall be the amount the medicaid managed 92222
care organization pays for medical assistance rendered to the 92223
recipient or participant, even if that amount is more than the 92224
amount athe department or county department pays to the medicaid92225
managed care organization for the recipient's or participant's92226
medical assistance.92227

        (C) A medical assistance recipient or participant, and the 92228
recipient's or participant's attorney, if any, shall cooperate 92229
with the departments. In furtherance of this requirement, the 92230
medical assistance recipient or participant, or the recipient's or 92231
participant's attorney, if any, shall, not later than thirty days 92232
after initiating informal recovery activity or filing a legal 92233
recovery action against a third party, provide written notice of 92234
the activity or action to the department of job and family 92235
services whenmedicaid or county department if it has paid for92236
medical assistance under medicaid has been paida medical 92237
assistance program.92238

       (D) The written notice that must be given under division (C) 92239
of this section shall disclose the identity and address of any 92240
third party against whom the medical assistance recipient or 92241
participant has or may have a right of recovery.92242

       (E) No settlement, compromise, judgment, or award or any 92243
recovery in any action or claim by a medical assistance recipient 92244
or participant where the departments havedepartment or county 92245
department has a right of recovery shall be made final without 92246
first giving the appropriate departmentsdepartment or county 92247
department written notice as described in division (C) of this 92248
section and a reasonable opportunity to perfect theirits rights 92249
of recovery. If the departments aredepartment or county 92250
department is not given the appropriate written notice, the 92251
medical assistance recipient or participant and, if there is one, 92252
the recipient's or participant's attorney, are liable to reimburse 92253
the departmentsdepartment or county department for the recovery 92254
received to the extent of medical assistance payments made by the 92255
departmentsdepartment or county department.92256

       (F) The departmentsdepartment or county department shall be 92257
permitted to enforce theirits recovery rights against the third 92258
party even though theyit accepted prior payments in discharge of 92259
theirits rights under this section if, at the time the 92260
departmentsdepartment or county department received such 92261
payments, they wereit was not aware that additional medical 92262
expenses had been incurred but had not yet been paid by the 92263
departmentsdepartment or county department. The third party 92264
becomes liable to the department of job and family services or 92265
county department of job and family services as soon as the third 92266
party is notified in writing of the valid claims for recovery 92267
under this section.92268

        (G)(1) Subject to division (G)(2) of this section, the right 92269
of recovery of athe department or county department does not 92270
apply to that portion of any judgment, award, settlement, or 92271
compromise of a claim, to the extent of attorneys' fees, costs, or 92272
other expenses incurred by a medical assistance recipient or 92273
participant in securing the judgment, award, settlement, or 92274
compromise, or to the extent of medical, surgical, and hospital 92275
expenses paid by such recipient or participant from the 92276
recipient's or participant's own resources.92277

        (2) Reasonable attorneys' fees, not to exceed one-third of 92278
the total judgment, award, settlement, or compromise, plus costs 92279
and other expenses incurred by the medical assistance recipient or 92280
participant in securing the judgment, award, settlement, or 92281
compromise, shall first be deducted from the total judgment, 92282
award, settlement, or compromise. After fees, costs, and other 92283
expenses are deducted from the total judgment, award, settlement, 92284
or compromise, the department of job and family servicesmedicaid92285
or appropriate county department of job and family services shall 92286
receive no less than one-half of the remaining amount, or the 92287
actual amount of medical assistance paid, whichever is less.92288

       (H) A right of recovery created by this section may be 92289
enforced separately or jointly by the department of job and family 92290
servicesmedicaid or the appropriate county department of job and 92291
family services. To enforce theirits recovery rights, the 92292
departmentsdepartment or county department may do any of the 92293
following:92294

       (1) Intervene or join in any action or proceeding brought by 92295
the medical assistance recipient or participant or on the 92296
recipient's or participant's behalf against any third party who 92297
may be liable for the cost of medical assistance paid;92298

       (2) Institute and pursue legal proceedings against any third 92299
party who may be liable for the cost of medical assistance paid;92300

       (3) Initiate legal proceedings in conjunction with any 92301
injured, diseased, or disabled medical assistance recipient or 92302
participant or the recipient's or participant's attorney or 92303
representative.92304

       (I) A medical assistance recipient or participant shall not 92305
assess attorney fees, costs, or other expenses against the 92306
department of job and family servicesmedicaid or a county 92307
department of job and family services when the department or 92308
county department enforces its right of recovery created by this 92309
section.92310

       (J) The right of recovery given to the department under this 92311
section does not include rights to support from any other person 92312
assigned to the state under sections 5107.20 and 5115.07 of the 92313
Revised Code, but includes payments made by a third party under 92314
contract with a person having a duty to support.92315

       (K) The department of medicaid may assign to a medical 92316
assistance provider the right of recovery given to the department 92317
under this section with respect to any claim for which the 92318
department has notified the provider that the department intends 92319
to recoup the department's prior payment for the claim.92320

       Sec. 5160.371.  In addition to the requirement of division 92321
(C) of section 5160.37 of the Revised Code to cooperate with the 92322
department of medicaid and county department of job and family 92323
services, a medical assistance recipient and the recipient's 92324
attorney, if any, shall cooperate with each medical provider of 92325
the recipient. Cooperation with a medical provider shall consist 92326
of disclosing to the provider all information the recipient and 92327
attorney, if any, possess that would assist the provider in 92328
determining each third party that is responsible for the payment 92329
or processing of a claim for medical assistance provided to the 92330
recipient. If disclosure is not made in accordance with this 92331
section, the recipient and the recipient's attorney, if any, are 92332
liable to reimburse the department or county department for the 92333
amount that would have been paid by a third party had the third 92334
party been disclosed to the provider by the recipient or the 92335
recipient's attorney.92336

       Sec. 5101.59.        Sec. 5160.38.  (A) The application for, or acceptance 92337
ofenrollment in, publica medical assistance program constitutes 92338
an automatic assignment of certain rights specified in division 92339
(B) of this section to the department of job and family services92340
medicaid. This assignment includes the rights of the applicant,92341
medical assistance recipient, or participant and also the rights 92342
of any other member of the assistance group for whom the 92343
applicant, recipient, or participant can legally make an 92344
assignment.92345

       (B) Pursuant to this section, the applicant,a medical 92346
assistance recipient, or participant assigns to the department any 92347
rights to medical support available to the applicant, recipient, 92348
or participant or for other members of the recipient's assistance 92349
group under an order of a court or administrative agency, and any 92350
rights to payments by a liable third party for the cost of medical 92351
assistance paid on behalf of a public assistancethe recipient or 92352
participantor other members of the assistance group. The 92353
recipient or participant shall cooperate with the department in 92354
obtaining such payments.92355

       Medicare benefits shall not be assigned pursuant to this 92356
section. Benefits assigned to the department by operation of this 92357
section are directly reimbursable to the department by liable 92358
third parties.92359

       (C) Refusal by the applicant,a medical assistance recipient, 92360
or participant to cooperate in obtaining medical assistance paid 92361
for self or any other member of the recipient's assistance group 92362
renders the applicant, recipient, or participant ineligible for 92363
publica medical assistance program, unless cooperation is waived 92364
by the department. Eligibility shall continue for any individual 92365
who cannot legally assign the individual's own rights and who 92366
would have been eligible for publica medical assistance program92367
but for the refusal to assign the individual's rights or to 92368
cooperate as required by this section by another person legally 92369
able to assign the individual's rights.92370

       (D) If the applicant,a medical assistance recipient, or 92371
participant or any member of the recipient's assistance group 92372
becomes ineligible for publica medical assistance program, the 92373
department shall restore to the applicant, recipient, participant,92374
or member of the assistance group member any future rights to 92375
benefits assigned under this section.92376

       (E) The rights of assignment given to the department under 92377
this section do not include rights to support assigned under 92378
section 5107.20 or 5115.07 of the Revised Code.92379

       Sec. 5101.572.        Sec. 5160.39.  (A) A third party shall cooperate 92380
with the department of job and family servicesmedicaid in 92381
identifying individuals for the purpose of establishing third 92382
party liability pursuant to Title XIX of the Social Security Act, 92383
as amendedregarding medical assistance programs.92384

       (B) In furtherance of the requirement in division (A) of this 92385
section and to allow the department to determine any period that 92386
the individual or the individual's spouse or dependent may have 92387
been covered by the third party and the nature of the coverage, a 92388
third party shall provide, as the department so chooses, 92389
information or access to information, or both, in the third 92390
party's electronic data system on the department's request and in 92391
accordance with division (C) of this section.92392

       (C)(1) If the department chooses to receive information 92393
directly, the third party shall provide the information under all 92394
of the following circumstances:92395

       (a) In a medium, format, and manner prescribed by the 92396
director of job and family services in rules adopted under92397
authorized by section 5101.5915160.43 of the Revised Code;92398

       (b) Free of charge;92399

       (c) Not later than the end of the thirtieth day after the 92400
department makes its request, unless a different time is agreed to 92401
by the director in writing.92402

       (2) If the department chooses to receive access to 92403
information, the third party shall provide access by a method 92404
prescribed by the director of job and family services in rules 92405
adopted underauthorized by section 5101.5915160.43 of the 92406
Revised Code. In facilitating access, the department may enter 92407
into a trading partner agreement with the third party to permit 92408
the exchange of information via "ASC X 12N 270/271 Health Care 92409
Eligibility Benefit Inquiry and Response" transactions.92410

       (D) All of the following apply with respect to information 92411
provided by a third party to the department under this section:92412

       (1) The information is confidential and not a public record 92413
under section 149.43 of the Revised Code.92414

       (2) The release of information to the department is not to be 92415
considered a violation of any right of confidentiality or contract 92416
that the third party may have with covered persons including, but 92417
not limited to, contractees, beneficiaries, heirs, assignees, and 92418
subscribers.92419

       (3) The third party is immune from any liability that it may 92420
otherwise incur through its release of information to the 92421
department.92422

       The department of job and family services shall limit its use 92423
of information gained from third parties to purposes directly 92424
connected with the administration of the medicaid program and the 92425
child support program authorized by Title IV-D of the "Social 92426
Security Act.," 42 U.S.C. 651 et seq.92427

       (E) No third party shall disclose to other parties or make 92428
use of any information regarding medical assistance recipients of 92429
aid under Chapter 5107. or 5111. of the Revised Code that it 92430
obtains from the department, except in the manner provided for by 92431
the director of job and family services in administrative rules 92432
authorized by section 5160.43 of the Revised Code.92433

       Sec. 5101.573.        Sec. 5160.40. (A) Subject to divisions (B) and (C) 92434
of this section, a third party shall do all of the following:92435

       (1) Accept the department of job and family services'92436
medicaid's right of recovery under section 5101.585160.37 of the 92437
Revised Code and the assignment of rights to the department that 92438
are described in section 5101.595160.38 of the Revised Code;92439

       (2) Respond to an inquiry by the department regarding a claim 92440
for payment of a medical item or service that was submitted to the 92441
third party not later than six years after the date of the 92442
provision of such medical item or service;92443

       (3) Not charge a fee to do either of the following for a 92444
claim described in division (A)(2) of this section:92445

       (a) Determine whether the claim should be paid;92446

       (b) Process the claim.92447

       (4) Pay a claim described in division (A)(2) of this section;92448

       (5) Not deny a claim submitted by the department solely on 92449
the basis of the date of submission of the claim, type or format 92450
of the claim form, or a failure by the medical assistance 92451
recipient who is the subject of the claim to present proper 92452
documentation of coverage at the time of service, if both of the 92453
following are truehave occurred:92454

       (a) The claim was submitted by the department not later than 92455
six years after the date of the provision of the medical item or 92456
service.92457

       (b) An action by the department to enforce its right of 92458
recovery under section 5101.585160.37 of the Revised Code on the 92459
claim was commenced not later than six years after the 92460
department's submission of the claim.92461

       (6) Consider the department's payment of a claim for a 92462
medical item or service to be the equivalent of the medical 92463
assistance recipient having obtained prior authorization for the 92464
item or service from the third party;92465

       (7) Not deny a claim described in division (A)(6) of this 92466
section that is submitted by the department solely on the basis of 92467
the medical assistance recipient's failure to obtain prior 92468
authorization for the medical item or service.92469

       (B) For purposes of the requirements in division (A) of this 92470
section, a third party shall treat a medicaid managed care 92471
organization as the department for a claim in which both of the 92472
following are true:92473

       (1) Theif the individual who is the subject of the claim 92474
received a medical item or service through a medicaid managed care 92475
organization that has entered into a contract with the department 92476
of job and family services under section 5111.17 of the Revised 92477
Code;92478

       (2) Theand the department has assigned its right of recovery 92479
for the claim to the medicaid managed care organization.92480

       (C) If the department of medicaid, as permitted by division 92481
(K) of section 5160.37 of the Revised Code, assigns to a medical 92482
assistance provider the department's right of recovery for a claim 92483
for which it has notified the provider that it intends to recoup 92484
its prior payment for a claim, a third party shall treat the 92485
provider as the department and shall pay the provider the greater 92486
of the following:92487

        (1) The amount the department intends to recoup from the 92488
provider for the claim.92489

        (2) If the third party and the provider have an agreement 92490
that requires the third party to pay the provider at the time the 92491
provider presents the claim to the third party, the amount that is 92492
to be paid under that agreement.92493

        (D) The time limitations associated with the requirements in 92494
divisions (A)(2) and (5) of this section apply only to submissions 92495
of claims to, and payments of claims by, a health insurer to which 92496
the "Social Security Act," section 1902(a)(25)(I), 42 U.S.C. 92497
1396a(a)(25)(I), applies.92498

       Sec. 5101.574.        Sec. 5160.41.  No third party shall consider whether 92499
an individual is eligible for or receivesenrolled in a medical 92500
assistance program when either of the following applies:92501

       (A) The individual seeks to obtain a policy or enroll in a 92502
plan or program operated or administered by the third party;92503

       (B) The individual, or a person or governmental entity on the 92504
individual's behalf, seeks payment for a medical item or service 92505
provided to the individual.92506

       Sec. 5101.575.        Sec. 5160.42. (A) If a third party violates section 92507
5101.5725160.39, 5101.5735160.40, or 5101.5745160.41 of the 92508
Revised Code, a governmental entity that is responsible for 92509
issuing a license, certificate of authority, registration, or 92510
approval that authorizes the third party to do business in this 92511
state may impose a fine against the third party or deny, revoke, 92512
or terminate the third party's license, certificate, registration, 92513
or approval to do business in this state. The governmental entity 92514
shall determine which sanction is to be imposed. All actions to 92515
impose the sanction shall be taken in accordance with Chapter 119. 92516
of the Revised Code.92517

       (B) In addition to the sanctions that may be imposed under 92518
division (A) of this section for a violation of section 5101.57292519
5160.39, 5101.5735160.40, or 5101.5745160.41 of the Revised 92520
Code, the attorney general may petition a court of common pleas to 92521
enjoin the violation.92522

       Sec. 5101.591.        Sec. 5160.43. (A) Except as provided in division (B) 92523
of this section, theThe medicaid director of job and family 92524
services may adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119.under 92525
section 5160.02 of the Revised Code to implement sections 5101.57192526
5160.35 to 5101.595160.43 of the Revised Code, including rules 92527
that specify what constitutes cooperating with efforts to obtain 92528
support or payments, or medical assistance payments, and when 92529
cooperation may be waived. 92530

       (B) The department shall adopt rules in accordance with 92531
Chapter 119.under section 5160.02 of the Revised Code to do all 92532
of the following:92533

       (1) For purposes of the definition of "information" in 92534
division (A) of section 5101.5715160.35 of the Revised Code, any 92535
data other than the data specified in that division that should be 92536
included in the definition.92537

       (2) For purposes of division (C)(1)(a) of section 5101.57292538
5160.39 of the Revised Code, the medium, format, and manner in 92539
which a third party must provide information to the department.92540

       (3) For purposes of division (C)(2) of section 5101.57292541
5160.39 of the Revised Code, the method by which a third party 92542
must provide the department with access to information.92543

       (C) Rules authorized by division (A) of this section may be 92544
adopted in accordance with section 111.15 of the Revised Code. 92545
Rules authorized by division (B) of this section shall be adopted 92546
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.92547

       Sec. 5101.271.        Sec. 5160.45. (A) As used in sections 5160.45 to 92548
5160.481 of the Revised Code, "information" means all of the 92549
following:92550

       (1) Records, as defined in section 149.011 of the Revised 92551
Code;92552

       (2) Any other documents in any format;92553

       (3) Data derived from records and documents that are 92554
generated, acquired, or maintained by the department of medicaid, 92555
a county department of job and family services, or an entity 92556
performing duties on behalf of the department or a county 92557
department.92558

       (B) Except as permitted by this section, section 5101.27392559
5160.47, or rules adopted underauthorized by section 5101.3092560
5160.48 or 5160.481 of the Revised Code, or when required by 92561
federal law, no person or government entity shall use or disclose 92562
information regarding a medical assistance recipient for any 92563
purpose not directly connected with the administration of thea92564
medical assistance program.92565

       (B)(C) Both of the following shall be considered to be 92566
purposes directly connected with the administration of thea92567
medical assistance program:92568

       (1) Treatment, payment, or other operations or activities 92569
authorized by 42 C.F.R. Chapter IV;92570

       (2) Any administrative function or duty the department of job 92571
and family servicesmedicaid performs alone or jointly with a 92572
federal government entity, another state government entity, or a 92573
local government entity implementing a provision of federal law.92574

       (C)(D) The department or a county agencydepartment of job 92575
and family services may disclose information regarding a medical 92576
assistance recipient to any of the following:92577

       (1) The recipient or the recipient's authorized 92578
representative;92579

       (2) The recipient's legal guardian in accordance with 92580
division (C) of section 2111.13 of the Revised Code;92581

       (3) The attorney of the recipient, if the department or 92582
county agencydepartment has obtained authorization from the 92583
recipient,or the recipient's authorized representative, or the 92584
recipient's legal guardian that meets all requirements of the 92585
Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996, Pub. 92586
L. 104-191, 110 Stat. 1955, 42 U.S.C. 1320d et seq., as amended,92587
regulations promulgated by the United States department of health 92588
and human services to implement the act, section 5101.2725160.4692589
of the Revised Code, and any rules the director of job and family 92590
services adopts underauthorized by section 5101.305160.48 of the 92591
Revised Code;92592

       (4) A health information or health records management entity 92593
that has executed with the department a business associate 92594
agreement required by 45 C.F.R 164.502(e)(2) and has been 92595
authorized by the recipient,or the recipient's authorized 92596
representative, or the recipient's legal guardian to receive the 92597
recipient's electronic health records in accordance with rules the 92598
director of job and family services adopts underauthorized by92599
section 5101.305160.48 of the Revised Code;92600

       (5) A court if pursuant to a written order of the court. 92601

       (D)(E) The department may receive from county departments of 92602
job and family services information regarding any medical 92603
assistance recipient for purposes of training and verifying the 92604
accuracy of eligibility determinations for a medical assistance 92605
program. The department may assemble information received under 92606
this division into a report if the report is in a form specified 92607
by the department. Information received and assembled into a 92608
report under this division shall remain confidential and not be 92609
subject to disclosure pursuant to section 149.43 or 1347.08 of the 92610
Revised Code.92611

       (E)(F) The department shall notify courts in this state 92612
regarding its authority, under division (C)(D)(5) of this section, 92613
to disclose information regarding a medical assistance recipient 92614
pursuant to a written court order.92615

       Sec. 5160.46.  (A) For the purposes of section 5160.45 of the 92616
Revised Code, an authorization shall be made on a form that uses 92617
language understandable to the average person and contains all of 92618
the following:92619

       (1) A description of the information to be used or disclosed 92620
that identifies the information in a specific and meaningful 92621
fashion;92622

       (2) The name or other specific identification of the person 92623
or class of persons authorized to make the requested use or 92624
disclosure;92625

       (3) The name or other specific identification of the person 92626
or government entity to which the information may be released;92627

       (4) A description of each purpose of the requested use or 92628
disclosure of the information;92629

       (5) The date on which the authorization expires or an event 92630
related either to the individual who is the subject of the request 92631
or to the purposes of the requested use or disclosure, the 92632
occurrence of which will cause the authorization to expire;92633

       (6) A statement that the information used or disclosed 92634
pursuant to the authorization may be disclosed by the recipient of 92635
the information and may no longer be protected from disclosure;92636

       (7) The signature of the individual or the individual's 92637
authorized representative and the date on which the authorization 92638
was signed;92639

       (8) If signed by an authorized representative, a description 92640
of the representative's authority to act for the individual;92641

       (9) A statement of the individual or authorized 92642
representative's right to prospectively revoke the written 92643
authorization in writing, along with either of the following:92644

       (a) A description of how the individual or authorized 92645
representative may revoke the authorization;92646

       (b) If the department of medicaid has established a privacy 92647
notice that contains a description of how the individual or 92648
authorized representative may revoke the authorization, a 92649
reference to the privacy notice.92650

       (10) A statement that treatment, payment, enrollment, or 92651
eligibility for a medical assistance program cannot be conditioned 92652
on signing the authorization unless the authorization is necessary 92653
for determining eligibility for the program.92654

       (B) An authorization for the release of information regarding 92655
a medical assistance recipient to the recipient's attorney under 92656
division (D)(3) of section 5160.45 of the Revised Code may include 92657
a provision specifically authorizing the release of the 92658
recipient's electronic health records, if any, in accordance with 92659
rules authorized by section 5160.48 or 5160.481 of the Revised 92660
Code.92661

       (C) When an individual requests information pursuant to 92662
section 5160.45 of the Revised Code regarding the individual's 92663
enrollment in a medical assistance program and does not wish to 92664
provide a statement of purpose, the statement "at request of the 92665
individual" is a sufficient description for purposes of division 92666
(A)(4) of this section.92667

       Sec. 5160.47.  The department of medicaid shall enter into 92668
any necessary agreements with the United States department of 92669
health and human services and neighboring states to join and 92670
participate as an active member in the public assistance reporting 92671
information system. The department may disclose information 92672
regarding a medical assistance recipient to the extent necessary 92673
to participate as an active member in the system.92674

       Sec. 5160.48.  (A) The medicaid director shall adopt rules 92675
under section 5160.02 of the Revised Code implementing sections 92676
5160.45 to 5160.481 of the Revised Code and governing the custody, 92677
use, disclosure, and preservation of the information generated or 92678
received by the department of medicaid, county departments of job 92679
and family services, other state and county entities, contractors, 92680
grantees, private entities, or officials participating in the 92681
administration of medical assistance programs. The rules shall be 92682
adopted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. The 92683
rules may define who is an "authorized representative" for 92684
purposes of sections 5160.45 and 5160.46 of the Revised Code. The 92685
rules shall specify conditions and procedures for the release of 92686
information, which may include both of the following:92687

       (1) Permitting a provider of a service under a medical 92688
assistance program limited access to information that is essential 92689
for the provider to render the service or to bill for the service 92690
rendered;92691

       (2) Permitting a contractor, grantee, or other state or 92692
county entity limited access to information that is essential for 92693
the contractor, grantee, or entity to perform administrative or 92694
other duties on behalf of the department or a county department.92695

       (B) The department of aging, when investigating a complaint 92696
under section 173.20 of the Revised Code, shall be granted any 92697
limited access permitted in the rules authorized by division 92698
(A)(1) of this section.92699

       A contractor, grantee, or entity given access to information 92700
pursuant to the rules authorized by division (A)(2) of this 92701
section is bound by the director's rules. Disclosure of the 92702
information by the contractor, grantee, or entity in a manner not 92703
authorized by the rules is a violation of section 5160.45 of the 92704
Revised Code. 92705

       Sec. 5160.481.  Whenever names, addresses, or other 92706
information relating to medical assistance recipients is held by 92707
any agency other than the department of medicaid or a county 92708
department of job and family services, that other agency shall 92709
adopt rules consistent with sections 5160.45 to 5160.481 of the 92710
Revised Code to prevent the publication or disclosure of names, 92711
lists, or other information concerning those recipients.92712

       Sec. 5160.50.  The department of medicaid shall administer 92713
the refugee medical assistance program authorized by the 92714
"Immigration and Nationality Act," section 412(e), 8 U.S.C. 92715
1522(e).92716

       Sec. 5160.52.  The medicaid director may provide for the 92717
department of medicaid to develop, participate in the development 92718
of, negotiate, and enter into one or more interstate compacts on 92719
behalf of this state with agencies of any other states, for the 92720
provision of medical assistance to children in relation to whom 92721
all of the following apply:92722

       (A) They have special needs.92723

       (B) This state or another state that is a party to the 92724
interstate compact is providing adoption assistance on their 92725
behalf.92726

       (C) They move into this state from another state or move out 92727
of this state to another state.92728

       Sec. 5160.99.  Whoever violates division (B) of section 92729
5160.45 of the Revised Code is guilty of a misdemeanor of the 92730
first degree.92731

       Sec. 5161.01.  (A) As used in the Revised Code, "children's 92732
health insurance program" and, when used as an acronym for the 92733
children's health insurance program, "CHIP" mean the program of 92734
child health assistance authorized by Title XXI of the "Social 92735
Security Act," 42 U.S.C. 1397aa et seq. CHIP part I, CHIP part II, 92736
and CHIP part III, as authorized by this chapter, are components 92737
of CHIP. Any reference in statute enacted by the general assembly 92738
to medicaid or the medicaid program also means CHIP to the extent, 92739
if any, that CHIP is provided under the medicaid program.92740

       (B) As used in this chapter, "federal poverty line" means the 92741
official poverty line defined by the United States office of 92742
management and budget based on the most recent data available from 92743
the United States bureau of the census and revised by the United 92744
States secretary of health and human services pursuant to the 92745
"Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1981," section 673(2), 42 92746
U.S.C. 9902(2).92747

       Sec. 5101.502.        Sec. 5161.02.  The medicaid director of job and 92748
family services may adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of 92749
the Revised Code as necessary for the efficient administration of 92750
the children's health insurance program part I, including rules 92751
that establish all of the following:92752

       (A) The conditions under which health assistance services92753
the program will be reimbursedpay for health benefits coverage;92754

       (B) The method of reimbursement applicable to services 92755
reimbursable under the programpayment;92756

       (C) The amount of reimbursementpayment, or the method by 92757
which the amount is to be determined, for each reimbursable92758
service included in the health benefits coverage.92759

       Sec. 5101.50.        Sec. 5161.05. (A) As used in sections 5101.50 to 92760
5101.529 of the Revised Code:92761

       (1) "Children's health insurance program" means the program 92762
authorized by Title XXI of the "Social Security Act," 111 Stat. 92763
552 (1997), 42 U.S.C.A. 1397aa.92764

       (2) "Federal poverty guidelines" has the same meaning as in 92765
section 5101.46 of the Revised Code.92766

       (B) The medicaid director of job and family services may 92767
continue to operate the component of the children's health 92768
insurance program initially authorized by an executive order 92769
issued under section 107.17 of the Revised Code as long as federal 92770
financial participation is available for the program. If operated, 92771
the programcomponent shall provide health assistance topay for 92772
part or all of the cost of health benefits coverage for uninsured 92773
individuals under nineteen years of age with family incomes not 92774
exceeding one hundred fifty per cent of the federal poverty 92775
guidelinesline. In accordance with 42 U.S.C.A. 1397aa, the 92776
director may provide for the health assistance to meet the 92777
requirements of 42 U.S.C.A. 1397cc, to be provided under the 92778
medicaid program established under Chapter 5111. of the Revised 92779
Code, or to be a combination of both.92780

       Sec. 5101.501.        Sec. 5161.06. Health assistance provided underThe 92781
component of the children's health insurance program authorized by92782
section 5101.505161.05 of the Revised Code shall be known as the 92783
children's health insurance programCHIP part I.92784

       Sec. 5101.51.        Sec. 5161.10.  In accordance with federal law 92785
governing the children's health insurance program, the medicaid92786
director of job and family services may submit a state child 92787
health plan to the United States secretary of health and human 92788
services to providepay, except as provided in section 5101.51692789
5161.22 of the Revised Code, health assistance tofor part or all 92790
of the cost of health benefits coverage for uninsured individuals 92791
under nineteen years of age with family incomes above one hundred 92792
fifty per cent of the federal poverty guidelinesline but not 92793
exceeding two hundred per cent of the federal poverty guidelines92794
line. If the director submits the plan, the director shall include 92795
both of the followingstipulate in the plan:92796

       (A) The health assistance will not begin before January 1, 92797
2000.92798

       (B) The health assistancethat the payments will be available 92799
only while federal financial participation is available for it92800
them. 92801

       Sec. 5101.511.        Sec. 5161.11. Health assistance provided underThe 92802
component of the children's health insurance program authorized by92803
section 5101.515161.10 of the Revised Code shall be known as the 92804
children's health insurance programCHIP part II. 92805

       Sec. 5101.512.        Sec. 5161.12.  If the medicaid director of job and 92806
family services submits a state child health plan to the United 92807
States secretary of health and human services under section 92808
5101.515161.10 of the Revised Code and the secretary approves the 92809
plan, the director shall implement the children's health insurance 92810
programCHIP part II in accordance with the plan. The director may 92811
adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code as 92812
necessary for the efficient administration of the program, 92813
including rules that establish all of the following:92814

       (A) The conditions under which health assistance services 92815
will be reimbursed;92816

       (B) The method of reimbursement applicable to services 92817
reimbursable under the program;92818

       (C) The amount of reimbursement, or the method by which the 92819
amount is to be determined, for each reimbursable service.92820

       Sec. 5101.52.        Sec. 5161.15.  In accordance with federal law 92821
governing the children's health insurance program, the medicaid92822
director of job and family services may submit a request for a 92823
federal waiver to the United States secretary of health and human 92824
services to providepay, except as provided in section 5101.52692825
5161.22 of the Revised Code, health assistance tofor part or all 92826
of the cost of health benefits coverage for individuals under 92827
nineteen years of age with family incomes above two hundred per 92828
cent of the federal poverty guidelinesline but not exceeding 92829
three hundred per cent of the federal poverty guidelinesline. If 92830
the director submits the planwaiver request, the director shall 92831
stipulate in the planrequest that the health assistancepayments92832
will be available only while federal financial participation is 92833
available for it and that health assistance shall not begin before 92834
January 1, 2008them.92835

       Sec. 5101.521.        Sec. 5161.16. Health assistance provided underThe 92836
component of the children's health insurance program authorized by92837
section 5101.525161.15 of the Revised Code shall be known as the 92838
children's health insurance programCHIP part III.92839

       Sec. 5101.522.        Sec. 5161.17.  If the medicaid director of job and 92840
family services submits a waiver request to the United States 92841
secretary of health and human services under section 5101.5292842
5161.15 of the Revised Code and the secretary grants the waiver, 92843
the director shall implement the children's health insurance 92844
programCHIP part III in accordance with the waiver. The director 92845
may adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised 92846
Code as necessary for the efficient administration of the program, 92847
including rules that establish all of the following:92848

       (A) The conditions under which health assistance services 92849
will be reimbursed;92850

       (B) The method of reimbursement applicable to services 92851
reimbursable under the program;92852

       (C) The amount of reimbursement, or the method by which the 92853
amount is to be determined, for each reimbursable service.92854

       Sec. 5101.524.        Sec. 5161.20.  In accordance with the "Social 92855
Security Act," section 2101, 42 U.S.C. 1397aa, the director of job 92856
and family services shall provide for health assistance under the 92857
children's health insurance program part III to meetshall 92858
provide payments for obtaining health benefits coverage through 92859
any of the following:92860

       (A) Obtaining coverage that meets the requirements the 92861
"Social Security Act," section 2103, of 42 U.S.C. 1397cc, to be 92862
provided;92863

       (B) Providing benefits under the medicaid program established 92864
under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code, or to be a;92865

       (C) A combination of bothdivisions (A) and (B) of this 92866
section.92867

       Sec. 5101.516.        Sec. 5161.22.  If the medicaid director of job and 92868
family services determines that federal financial participation 92869
for the children's health insurance programCHIP part II, part 92870
III, or both parts is insufficient to provide health assistance 92871
topay for part or all of the costs of health benefits coverage 92872
for all the individuals the director anticipates are eligible for 92873
the programpart or parts, the director may refuse to accept new 92874
applications for the programpart or parts or may make the 92875
program's eligibility requirements more restrictive for the part 92876
or parts.92877

       Sec. 5101.517.        Sec. 5161.24.  To the extent permitted by the 92878
"Social Security Act," section 2103(e), 42 U.S.C.A. 1397cc(e), the 92879
medicaid director of job and family services may require an 92880
individual receiving health assistance under the children's health 92881
insurance programseeking to enroll, or who is enrolled, in CHIP92882
part II to pay a premium, deductible, coinsurance payment, or 92883
other cost-sharing expense. 92884

       Sec. 5101.527.        Sec. 5161.25. To the extent permitted by the "Social 92885
Security Act," section 2103(e), 42 U.S.C. 1397cc(e), the medicaid92886
director of job and family services shall require an individual 92887
receiving health assistance under the children's health insurance 92888
programseeking to enroll, or who is enrolled, in CHIP part III to 92889
pay the following as a term of participation in the program92890
enrollment:92891

       (A) A premium of not less than forty dollars per month for a 92892
family with one individual receiving health assistance under92893
seeking to enroll, or who is enrolled, in the programpart;92894

       (B) A premium of not less than eighty dollars per month for a 92895
family with two individuals receiving health assistance under92896
seeking to enroll, or who is enrolled, in the programpart;92897

       (C) A premium of not less than one hundred twenty dollars per 92898
month for a family with three or more individuals receiving health 92899
assistance underseeking to enroll, or who are enrolled, in the 92900
programpart.92901

       Sec. 5101.519.        Sec. 5161.27.  A completed application for medical 92902
assistance under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Codemedicaid shall 92903
be treated as an application for health assistance under the 92904
children's health insurance program part II if the application is 92905
for an assistance group that includes a child under nineteen years 92906
of age and is denied.92907

       Sec. 5101.513.        Sec. 5161.30.  The medicaid director of job and 92908
family services may contract with a government entity or person to 92909
perform the director's administrative duties regarding the 92910
children's health insurance programCHIP part I, part II, part 92911
III, two of the parts, or all three parts, other than the duty to 92912
submit a state child health plan to the United States secretary of 92913
health and human services under section 5101.515161.10 of the 92914
Revised Code, the duty to submit a waiver request under section 92915
5161.15 of the Revised Code, and the duty to adopt rules under 92916
section 5101.5125161.02 of the Revised Code.92917

       Sec. 5101.5110.        Sec. 5161.35.  (A) The medicaid director of job and 92918
family services may submit a waiver request to the United States 92919
secretary of health and human services to provide health 92920
assistance to any individual who meets all of the following 92921
requirements:92922

       (1) Is the parent of a child who is under nineteen years of 92923
age who, resides with the parent, and is eligible for health 92924
assistance underenrolled in the children's health insurance 92925
program part I or II or the medicaid program established under 92926
Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code;92927

       (2) Is uninsured;92928

       (3) Has a family income that does not exceed one hundred per 92929
cent of the federal poverty guidelinesline.92930

       (B) A waiver request the director submits under division (A) 92931
of this section may seek federal funds allotted to the state under 92932
Title XXI of the "Social Security Act," 111 Stat. 558 (1997)92933
section 2104, 42 U.S.C.A. 1397dd, as amended, that are not 92934
otherwise used to fund the children's health insurance program 92935
parts I and II.92936

       (C) If a waiver request the director submits under division 92937
(A) of this section is granted, the director may adopt rules in 92938
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code as necessary for 92939
the efficient administration of the program authorization by the 92940
waiver.92941

       Sec. 5162.01.  (A) As used in the Revised Code:92942

       (1) "Medicaid" and "medicaid program" mean the program of 92943
medical assistance established by Title XIX of the "Social 92944
Security Act," 42 U.S.C. 1396 et seq., including any medical 92945
assistance provided under the medicaid state plan or a federal 92946
medicaid waiver granted by the United States secretary of health 92947
and human services.92948

       (2) "Medicare" and "medicare program" mean the federal health 92949
insurance program established by Title XVIII of the "Social 92950
Security Act," 42 U.S.C. 1395 et seq.92951

       (B) As used in this chapter:92952

       (1) "Dual eligible individual" has the same meaning as in 92953
section 5160.01 of the Revised Code.92954

       (2) "Federal financial participation" has the same meaning as 92955
in section 5160.01 of the Revised Code.92956

       (3) "Federal poverty line" means the official poverty line 92957
defined by the United States office of management and budget based 92958
on the most recent data available from the United States bureau of 92959
the census and revised by the United States secretary of health 92960
and human services pursuant to the "Omnibus Budget Reconciliation 92961
Act of 1981," section 673(2), 42 U.S.C. 9902(2).92962

       (4) "Healthy start component" means the component of the 92963
medicaid program that covers pregnant women and children and is 92964
identified in rules adopted under section 5162.02 of the Revised 92965
Code as the healthy start component.92966

       (5) "ICF/MR" has the same meaning as in section 5124.01 of 92967
the Revised Code.92968

       (6) "Medicaid managed care organization" has the same meaning 92969
as in section 5167.01 of the Revised Code.92970

       (7) "Medicaid provider" has the same meaning as in section 92971
5164.01 of the Revised Code.92972

       (8) "Medicaid services" has the same meaning as in section 92973
5164.01 of the Revised Code.92974

       (9) "Nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 92975
5165.01 of the Revised Code.92976

       (10) "Political subdivision" means a municipal corporation, 92977
township, county, school district, or other body corporate and 92978
politic responsible for governmental activities only in a 92979
geographical area smaller than that of the state.92980

       (11) "Prescribed drug" has the same meaning as in section 92981
5164.01 of the Revised Code.92982

       (12) "Provider agreement" has the same meaning as in section 92983
5164.01 of the Revised Code.92984

       (13) "Qualified medicaid school provider" means the board of 92985
education of a city, local, or exempted village school district, 92986
the governing authority of a community school established under 92987
Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code, the state school for the deaf, 92988
and the state school for the blind to which both of the following 92989
apply:92990

       (a) It holds a valid provider agreement.92991

       (b) It meets all other conditions for participation in the 92992
medicaid school component of the medicaid program established in 92993
rules authorized by section 5162.364 of the Revised Code.92994

       (14) "State agency" means every organized body, office, or 92995
agency, other than the department of medicaid, established by the 92996
laws of the state for the exercise of any function of state 92997
government.92998

       (15) "Vendor offset" means a reduction of a medicaid payment 92999
to a medicaid provider to correct a previous, incorrect medicaid 93000
payment to that provider.93001

       Sec. 5162.02.  The medicaid director shall adopt rules as 93002
necessary to implement this chapter.93003

       Sec. 5162.021.  The medicaid director shall adopt rules under 93004
sections 5160.02, 5162.02, 5163.03, 5164.04, 5165.05, 5166.02, and 93005
5167.02 of the Revised Code as necessary to authorize the 93006
directors of other state agencies to adopt rules regarding 93007
medicaid components, or aspects of medicaid components, the other 93008
state agencies administer pursuant to contracts entered into under 93009
section 5162.35 of the Revised Code.93010

       Sec. 5162.022.  The medicaid director's rules governing 93011
medicaid are binding on other state agencies and political 93012
subdivisions that administer one or more components of the 93013
medicaid program, or one or more aspects of a component, pursuant 93014
to contracts entered into under section 5162.35 of the Revised 93015
Code. No state agency or political subdivision may establish, by 93016
rule or otherwise, a policy governing medicaid that is 93017
inconsistent with a medicaid policy established, in rule or 93018
otherwise, by the director.93019

       Sec. 5111.01.        Sec. 5162.03. (A) As used in this chapter:93020

       "Children's health insurance program" means the children's 93021
health insurance program part I, children's health insurance 93022
program part II, and children's health insurance program part III 93023
authorized by sections 5101.50 to 5101.529 of the Revised Code.93024

       "Medical assistance program" or "medicaid" means the program 93025
that is authorized by this chapter and provided by the office of 93026
medical assistance under this chapter, Title XIX of the "Social 93027
Security Act," 79 Stat. 286 (1965), 42 U.S.C. 1396, et seq., as 93028
amended, and the waivers of Title XIX requirements granted to the 93029
office by the centers for medicare and medicaid services of the 93030
United States department of health and human services.93031

       (B) There is hereby established the office of medical 93032
assistance as a work unit within the department of job and family 93033
services. The chief of the office shall hold the title of medical 93034
assistance director. Notwithstanding section 5101.06 of the 93035
Revised Code, the governor shall appoint the medical assistance 93036
director and the medical assistance director shall serve at the 93037
governor's pleasure. The medical assistance director is not an 93038
assistant director of the department of job and family services 93039
for purposes of section 121.05 or 5101.03 of the Revised Code or 93040
any other purpose.93041

       Subject to appropriations for the medicaid program and 93042
children's health insurance program, the department of job and 93043
family services shall provide staff and support services as 93044
necessary for the operation of the office of medical assistance.93045

       If a statute, rule, contract, or other legal authority 93046
requires the director of job and family services or department of 93047
job and family services to take an action regarding the medicaid 93048
program or children's health insurance program, the medical 93049
assistance director or office of medical assistance shall take the 93050
action in place of the director of job and family services or 93051
department of job and family services. If a statute, rule, 93052
contract, or other legal authority permits the director of job and 93053
family services or department of job and family services to take 93054
an action regarding the medicaid program or children's health 93055
insurance program, the medical assistance director or office of 93056
medical assistance shall take the action in place of the director 93057
of job and family services or department of job and family 93058
services if the action is to be taken.93059

       The officeFor the purpose of the "Social Security Act," 93060
section 1902(a)(5), 42 U.S.C. 1396a(a)(5), the department of 93061
medical assistancemedicaid shall act as the single state agency 93062
to supervise the administration of the medicaid program. As the 93063
single state agency, the officedepartment shall comply with 42 93064
C.F.R. 431.10(e) and all other federal requirements applicable to 93065
the single state agency. The office's rules governing medicaid are 93066
binding on other agencies that administer components of the 93067
medicaid program. No agency may establish, by rule or otherwise, a 93068
policy governing medicaid that is inconsistent with a medicaid 93069
policy established, in rule or otherwise, by the medical 93070
assistance director.93071

       (C) The office of medical assistance may provide medical 93072
assistance under the medicaid program as long as federal funds are 93073
provided for such assistance, to the following:93074

       (1) Families with children that meet either of the following 93075
conditions:93076

       (a) The family meets the income, resource, and family 93077
composition requirements in effect on July 16, 1996, for the 93078
former aid to dependent children program as those requirements 93079
were established by Chapter 5107. of the Revised Code, federal 93080
waivers granted pursuant to requests made under former section 93081
5101.09 of the Revised Code, and rules adopted by the department 93082
or any changes the department makes to those requirements in 93083
accordance with paragraph (a)(2) of section 114 of the "Personal 93084
Responsibility and Work Opportunity Reconciliation Act of 1996," 93085
110 Stat. 2177, 42 U.S.C.A. 1396u-1, for the purpose of 93086
implementing section 5111.0120 of the Revised Code. An adult loses 93087
eligibility for medicaid under division (C)(1)(a) of this section 93088
pursuant to division (E) of section 5107.16 of the Revised Code.93089

       (b) The family does not meet the requirements specified in 93090
division (C)(1)(a) of this section but is eligible for medicaid 93091
pursuant to section 5101.18 of the Revised Code.93092

       (2) Aged, blind, and disabled persons who meet the following 93093
conditions:93094

       (a) Receive federal aid under Title XVI of the "Social 93095
Security Act," or are eligible for but are not receiving such aid, 93096
provided that the income from all other sources for individuals 93097
with independent living arrangements shall not exceed one hundred 93098
seventy-five dollars per month. The income standards hereby 93099
established shall be adjusted annually at the rate that is used by 93100
the United States department of health and human services to 93101
adjust the amounts payable under Title XVI.93102

       (b) Do not receive aid under Title XVI, but meet any of the 93103
following criteria:93104

       (i) Would be eligible to receive such aid, except that their 93105
income, other than that excluded from consideration as income 93106
under Title XVI, exceeds the maximum under division (C)(2)(a) of 93107
this section, and incurred expenses for medical care, as 93108
determined under federal regulations applicable to section 209(b) 93109
of the "Social Security Amendments of 1972," 86 Stat. 1381, 42 93110
U.S.C. 1396a(f), as amended, equal or exceed the amount by which 93111
their income exceeds the maximum under division (C)(2)(a) of this 93112
section;93113

       (ii) Received aid for the aged, aid to the blind, or aid for 93114
the permanently and totally disabled prior to January 1, 1974, and 93115
continue to meet all the same eligibility requirements;93116

       (iii) Are eligible for medicaid pursuant to section 5101.18 93117
of the Revised Code.93118

       (3) Persons to whom federal law requires, as a condition of 93119
state participation in the medicaid program, that medicaid be 93120
provided;93121

       (4) Persons under age twenty-one who meet the income 93122
requirements for the Ohio works first program established under 93123
Chapter 5107. of the Revised Code but do not meet other 93124
eligibility requirements for the program. The medical assistance 93125
director shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 93126
Revised Code specifying which Ohio works first requirements shall 93127
be waived for the purpose of providing medicaid eligibility under 93128
division (C)(4) of this section.93129

       (D) If sufficient funds are appropriated for the medicaid 93130
program, the office of medical assistance may provide medical 93131
assistance under the medicaid program to persons in groups 93132
designated by federal law as groups to which a state, at its 93133
option, may provide medical assistance under the medicaid program.93134

       (E) The office of medical assistance may expand eligibility 93135
for the medicaid program to include individuals under age nineteen 93136
with family incomes at or below one hundred fifty per cent of the 93137
federal poverty guidelines, except that the eligibility expansion 93138
shall not occur unless the office receives the approval of the 93139
federal government. The office may implement the eligibility 93140
expansion authorized under this division on any date selected by 93141
the office, but not sooner than January 1, 1998.93142

       (F) In addition to any other authority or requirement to 93143
adopt rules under this chapter, the medical assistance director 93144
may adopt rules in accordance with section 111.15 of the Revised 93145
Code as the director considers necessary to establish standards, 93146
procedures, and other requirements regarding the provision of 93147
medical assistance under the medicaid program. The rules may 93148
establish requirements to be followed in applying for medicaid, 93149
making determinations of eligibility for medicaid, and verifying 93150
eligibility for medicaid. The rules may include special conditions 93151
as the office determines appropriate for making applications, 93152
determining eligibility, and verifying eligibility for any medical 93153
assistance that the office may provide under the medicaid program 93154
pursuant to division (E) of this section and section 5111.014 or 93155
5111.0120 of the Revised Code.93156

       Sec. 5111.98.        Sec. 5162.031.  (A) The medicaid director of job and 93157
family services may do all of the following as necessary for the 93158
department of job and family servicesmedicaid to fulfill the 93159
duties it has, as the single state agency for the medicaid 93160
program, under the "Medicare Prescription Drug, Improvement, and 93161
Modernization Act of 2003" Pub. L. No. 108-173, 117 Stat. 2066:93162

       (1) Adopt rules in accordance with division (B) of this 93163
section;93164

       (2) Assign duties to county departments of job and family 93165
services;93166

       (3) Make payments to the United States department of health 93167
and human services from appropriations made to the department of 93168
job and family servicesmedicaid for this purpose.93169

       (B) Rules adopted underauthorized by division (A)(1) of this 93170
section shall be adopted as follows:93171

       (1) If the rules concern the department's duties regarding 93172
servicemedicaid providers, in accordance with Chapter 119.under 93173
sections 5164.02 and 5165.02 of the Revised Code, as appropriate;93174

       (2) If the rules concern the department's duties concerning 93175
individuals' eligibility for medicaid services, in accordance with93176
under section 111.155163.02 of the Revised Code;93177

       (3) If the rules concern the department's duties concerning 93178
financial and operational matters between the department and 93179
county departments of job and family services, in accordance with93180
under section 111.155162.02 of the Revised Code as if the rules 93181
were internal management rules.93182

       Sec. 5111.102.        Sec. 5162.04. As used in this section, "state 93183
agency" has the same meaning as in section 9.23 of the Revised 93184
Code.93185

       No provision of Title LI of the Revised Code or any other law 93186
of this state that incorporates any provision of federal Medicaid93187
medicaid law, Title XIX of the Social Security Act, 79 Stat. 286 93188
(1965), 42 U.S.C. 1396, or that may be construed as requiring the 93189
state, a state agency, or any state official or employee to comply 93190
with that federal provision, shall be construed as creating a 93191
cause of action to enforce such state law beyond the causes of 93192
action available under federal law for enforcement of the 93193
provision of federal law.93194

       Sec. 5162.05.  The medicaid program shall be implemented in 93195
accordance with all of the following:93196

       (A) The medicaid state plan approved by the United States 93197
secretary of health and human services, including amendments to 93198
the plan approved by the United States secretary;93199

       (B) Federal medicaid waivers granted by the United States 93200
secretary, including amendments to waivers approved by the United 93201
States secretary;93202

       (C) Other types of federal approval, including demonstration 93203
grants, that establish requirements for components of the medicaid 93204
program;93205

       (D) Except as otherwise authorized by a federal medicaid 93206
waiver granted by the United States secretary, all applicable 93207
federal statutes, regulations, and policy guidances;93208

       (E) All applicable state statutes.93209

       Sec. 5162.06.  (A) Notwithstanding any other state statute, 93210
no component, or aspect of a component, of the medicaid program 93211
shall be implemented without all of the following:93212

       (1) Subject to division (B) of this section, if the 93213
component, or aspect of the component, requires federal approval, 93214
receipt of the federal approval;93215

       (2) Sufficient federal financial participation for the 93216
component or aspect of the component;93217

       (3) Sufficient nonfederal funds for the component or aspect 93218
of the component that qualify as funds needed to obtain the 93219
federal financial participation.93220

        (B) A component, or aspect of a component, of the medicaid 93221
program that requires federal approval may begin to be implemented 93222
before receipt of the federal approval if federal law authorizes 93223
implementation to begin before receipt of the federal approval. 93224
Implementation shall cease if the federal approval is ultimately 93225
denied.93226

       Sec. 5162.07.  The medicaid director shall seek federal 93227
approval for all components, and aspects of components, of the 93228
medicaid program for which federal approval is needed, except that 93229
the director is permitted rather than required to seek federal 93230
approval for components, and aspects of components, that state 93231
statutes permit rather than require be implemented. Federal 93232
approval shall be sought in the following forms as appropriate:93233

       (A) The medicaid state plan;93234

       (B) Amendments to the medicaid state plan;93235

       (C) Federal medicaid waivers;93236

       (D) Amendments to federal medicaid waivers;93237

       (E) Other types of federal approval, including demonstration 93238
grants.93239

       Sec. 5111.10.        Sec. 5162.10.  The medicaid director of job and 93240
family services may conduct reviews of the medicaid program. The 93241
reviews may include physical inspections of records and sites 93242
where medicaid-fundedmedicaid services are provided and 93243
interviews of medicaid providers and medicaid recipients of the 93244
services. If the director determines pursuant to a review that a 93245
person or government entity has violated a rule governing the 93246
medicaid program, the director may establish a corrective action 93247
plan for the violator and impose fiscal, administrative, or both 93248
types of sanctions on the violator in accordance with rules 93249
governing the medicaid programadopted under section 5162.02 of 93250
the Revised Code. 93251

       Sec. 5111.915.        Sec. 5162.11.  (A) The department of job and family 93252
servicesmedicaid shall enter into an agreement with the 93253
department of administrative services for the department of 93254
administrative services to contract through competitive selection 93255
pursuant to section 125.07 of the Revised Code with a vendor to 93256
perform an assessment of the data collection and data warehouse 93257
functions of the medicaid data warehouse system, including the 93258
ability to link the data sets of all agencies serving medicaid 93259
recipients. 93260

       The assessment of the data system shall include functions 93261
related to fraud and abuse detection, program management and 93262
budgeting, and performance measurement capabilities of all 93263
agencies serving medicaid recipients, including the departments of 93264
aging, alcohol and drug addiction services, health, job and family 93265
services, medicaid, mental healthmental health and addiction 93266
services, and developmental disabilities.93267

       The department of administrative services shall enter into 93268
this contract within thirty days after September 29, 2005. The 93269
contract shall require the vendor to complete the assessment 93270
within ninety days after September 29, 2005.93271

       A qualified vendor with whom the department of administrative 93272
services contracts to assess the data system shall also assist the 93273
medicaid agencies in the definition of the requirements for an 93274
enhanced data system or a new data system and assist the 93275
department of administrative services in the preparation of a 93276
request for proposal to enhance or develop a data system.93277

       (B) Based on the assessment performed pursuant to division 93278
(A) of this section, the department of administrative services 93279
shall seek a qualified vendor through competitive selection 93280
pursuant to section 125.07 of the Revised Code to develop or 93281
enhance a data collection and data warehouse system for the 93282
department of job and family servicesmedicaid and all agencies 93283
serving medicaid recipients.93284

       Within ninety days after September 29, 2005, theThe93285
department of job and family servicesmedicaid shall seek enhanced 93286
federal fundingfinancial participation for ninety per cent of 93287
the funds required to establish or enhance the data system. The 93288
department of administrative services shall not award a contract 93289
for establishing or enhancing the data system until the department 93290
of job and family servicesmedicaid receives approval from the 93291
secretary of the United States departmentsecretary of health and 93292
human services for the ninety per cent federal matchfinancial 93293
participation.93294

       Sec. 5162.12.  (A) The medicaid director may enter into a 93295
contract with one or more persons to receive and process, on the 93296
director's behalf, requests for medicaid recipient or claims 93297
payment data, data from reports of audits conducted under section 93298
5165.109 of the Revised Code, or extracts or analyses of any of 93299
the foregoing data made by persons who intend to use the items for 93300
commercial or academic purposes. 93301

       (B) At a minimum, a contract entered into under this section 93302
shall do both of the following:93303

       (1) Authorize the contracting person to engage in the 93304
activities described in division (A) of this section for 93305
compensation, which must be stated as a percentage of the fees 93306
paid by persons who are provided the items;93307

       (2) Specify the schedule of fees the contracting person is to 93308
charge for the items.93309

       (C) Except as required by federal or state law and subject to 93310
division (E) of this section, both of the following conditions 93311
apply with respect to a request for data described in division (A) 93312
of this section:93313

       (1) The request shall be made through a person who has 93314
entered into a contract with the medicaid director under this 93315
section. 93316

       (2) An item prepared pursuant to the request may be provided 93317
to the department of medicaid and is confidential and not subject 93318
to disclosure under section 149.43 or 1347.08 of the Revised Code.93319

       (D) The medicaid director shall use fees the director 93320
receives pursuant to a contract entered into under this section to 93321
pay obligations specified in contracts entered under this section. 93322
Any money remaining after the obligations are paid shall be 93323
deposited in the health care services administration fund created 93324
under section 5162.54 of the Revised Code. 93325

       (E) This section does not apply to requests for medicaid 93326
recipient or claims payment data, data from reports of audits 93327
conducted under section 5165.109 of the Revised Code, or extracts 93328
or analyses of any of the foregoing data that are for any of the 93329
following purposes:93330

       (1) Treatment of medicaid recipients;93331

       (2) Payment of medicaid claims; 93332

       (3) Establishment or management of medicaid third party 93333
liability pursuant to sections 5160.35 to 5160.43 of the Revised 93334
Code;93335

       (4) Compliance with the terms of an agreement the medicaid 93336
director enters into for purposes of administering the medicaid 93337
program;93338

       (5) Compliance with an operating protocol the executive 93339
director of the office of health transformation or the executive 93340
director's designee adopts under division (D) of section 191.06 of 93341
the Revised Code.93342

       Sec. 5111.09.        Sec. 5162.13.  On or before the first day of January 93343
of each year, the department of job and family servicesmedicaid93344
shall submit to the speaker and minority leader of the house of 93345
representatives and the president and minority leader of the 93346
senate, and shall make available to the public, a report on the 93347
effectiveness of the Ohio works first program established under 93348
Chapter 5107. of the Revised Code and the medical assistance93349
medicaid program established under this chapter in meeting the 93350
health care needs of low-income pregnant women, infants, and 93351
children. The report shall include: the estimated number of 93352
persons eligible for health care services to pregnant women, 93353
infants, and children under the programseligible for the 93354
program; the actual number of eligible persons servedenrolled in 93355
the program; the number of prenatal, postpartum, and child health 93356
visits; a report on birth outcomes, including a comparison of 93357
low-birthweight births and infant mortality rates of program 93358
participantsmedicaid recipients with the general female 93359
child-bearing and infant population in this state; and a 93360
comparison of the prenatal, delivery, and child health costs of 93361
the programsprogram with such costs of similar programs in other 93362
states, where available.93363

       Sec. 5111.091.        Sec. 5162.131.  Semiannually, the medicaid director 93364
of job and family services shall submit to the president and 93365
minority leader of the senate, speaker and minority leader of the 93366
house of representatives, and the chairpersons of the standing 93367
committees of the senate and house of representatives with primary 93368
responsibility for legislation making biennial appropriations a 93369
report on the establishment and implementation of programs 93370
designed to control the increase of the cost of the medicaid 93371
program, increase the efficiency of the medicaid program, and 93372
promote better health outcomes. In each calendar year, one report 93373
shall be submitted not later than the last day of June and the 93374
subsequent report shall be submitted not later than the last day 93375
of December.93376

       Sec. 5111.092.        Sec. 5162.132. (A) Not later than January 1, 2010, 93377
and each year thereafterAnnually, the department of job and 93378
family servicesmedicaid shall prepare a report on the 93379
department's efforts to minimize fraud, waste, and abuse in the 93380
medicaid program.93381

       (B) Each report shall be made available on the department's 93382
web site. The department shall submit a copy of each report to the 93383
governor and, in accordance with section 101.68 of the Revised 93384
Code, the general assembly. Copies of the report also shall be 93385
made available to the public on request.93386

       Sec. 5111.101.        Sec. 5162.15. (A) As used in this section;93387

        "Agent" and "contractor" include any agent, contractor, 93388
subcontractor, or other person who, on behalf of an entity, 93389
furnishes or authorizes the furnishing of health care items or93390
medicaid services under the medicaid program, performs billing or 93391
coding functions, or is involved in monitoring of health care that 93392
an entity provides.93393

       "Employee" includes any officer or employee (including 93394
management employees) of an entity.93395

       "Entity" includes a governmental entity or an organization, 93396
unit, corporation, partnership, or other business arrangement, 93397
including any medicaid managed care organization, irrespective of 93398
the form of business structure or arrangement by which it exists, 93399
whether for-profit or not-for-profit. "Entity" does not include a 93400
government entity that administers one or more components of the 93401
medicaid program, unless the government entity receives medicaid 93402
payments for providing items ormedicaid services.93403

       "Federal health care programs" has the same meaning as in the 93404
"Social Security Act," section 1128B, 42 U.S.C. 1320a-7b(f).93405

       (B) Each entity that receives or makes in a federal fiscal 93406
year payments under the medicaid program, either through the 93407
medicaid state medicaid plan or a federal medicaid waiver, 93408
totaling at least five million dollars shall, as a condition of 93409
receiving such payments, do all of the following not later than 93410
the first day of the succeeding calendar year:93411

       (1) Establish written policies for all of the entity's 93412
employees, contractors, and agents that provide detailed 93413
information about the role of all of the following in preventing 93414
and detecting fraud, waste, and abuse in federal health care 93415
programs:93416

       (a) Federal false claims law under 31 U.S.C. 3729 to 3733;93417

       (b) Federal administrative remedies for false claims and 93418
statements available under 31 U.S.C. 3801 to 3812;93419

       (c) Sections 124.341, 2913.40, 2913.401, and 2921.13 of the 93420
Revised Code and any other state laws pertaining to civil or 93421
criminal penalties for false claims and statements;93422

       (d) Whistleblower protections under the laws specified in 93423
divisions (B)(1)(a) to (c) of this section.93424

       (2) Include as part of the written policies required by 93425
division (B)(1) of this section detailed provisions regarding the 93426
entity's policies and procedures for preventing and detecting 93427
fraud, waste, and abuse.93428

       (3) Disseminate the written policies required by division 93429
(B)(1) of this section to each of the entity's employees, 93430
contractors, and agents in a paper or electronic form and make the 93431
written policies readily available to the entity's employees, 93432
contractors, and agents.93433

       (4) If the entity has an employee handbook, include in the 93434
employee handbook a specific discussion of the laws specified in 93435
division (B)(1) of this section, the rights of employees to be 93436
protected as whistleblowers, and the entity's policies and 93437
procedures for preventing and detecting fraud, waste, and abuse.93438

       (5) Require the entity's contractors and agents to adopt the 93439
entity's written policies required by division (B)(1) of this 93440
section.93441

       (C) An entity that furnishes items ormedicaid services at 93442
multiple locations or under multiple contractual or other payment 93443
arrangements is required to comply with division (B) of this 93444
section if the entity receives in a federal fiscal year medicaid 93445
payments totaling in the aggregate at least five million dollars. 93446
This applies regardless of whether the entity submits claims for 93447
medicaid payments using multiple provider identification or tax 93448
identification numbers.93449

       Sec. 5111.0112.        Sec. 5162.20.  (A) The directordepartment of job 93450
and family servicesmedicaid shall institute a cost-sharing 93451
program underrequirements for the medicaid program. In 93452
instituting the cost-sharing program, the director shall comply 93453
with federal law. The cost-sharing programrequirements shall 93454
establishinclude a copayment requirement for at least dental 93455
services, vision services, nonemergency emergency department 93456
services, and prescriptionprescribed drugs, other than generic 93457
drugs. The cost-sharing programrequirements also shall establish93458
include requirements regarding premiums, enrollment fees, 93459
deductions, and similar charges. The director shall adopt rules 93460
under section 5111.02 of the Revised Code governing the 93461
cost-sharing program.93462

       (B) The cost-sharing program shall, to the extent permitted 93463
by federal law, provide for all of the following with regard to 93464
any providers participating in the medicaid program:93465

        (1) No provider shall refuse to provide a service to a 93466
medicaid recipient who is unable to pay a required copayment for 93467
the service.93468

        (2) Division (B)(1) of this section shall not be considered 93469
to do either of the following with regard to a medicaid recipient 93470
who is unable to pay a required copayment:93471

       (a) Relieve the medicaid recipient from the obligation to pay 93472
a copayment;93473

        (b) Prohibit the provider from attempting to collect an 93474
unpaid copayment.93475

       (3)(C) Except as provided in division (C)(F) of this section, 93476
no provider shall waive a medicaid recipient's obligation to pay 93477
the provider a copayment.93478

       (4)(D) No provider or drug manufacturer, including the 93479
manufacturer's representative, employee, independent contractor, 93480
or agent, shall pay any copayment on behalf of a medicaid 93481
recipient.93482

       (5)(E) If it is the routine business practice of thea93483
provider to refuse service to any individual who owes an 93484
outstanding debt to the provider, the provider may consider an 93485
unpaid copayment imposed by the cost-sharing programrequirements93486
as an outstanding debt and may refuse service to a medicaid 93487
recipient who owes the provider an outstanding debt. If the 93488
provider intends to refuse service to a medicaid recipient who 93489
owes the provider an outstanding debt, the provider shall notify 93490
the individualrecipient of the provider's intent to refuse 93491
servicesservice.93492

       (C)(F) In the case of a provider that is a hospital, the 93493
cost-sharing program shall permit the hospital to take action to 93494
collect a copayment by providing, at the time services are 93495
rendered to a medicaid recipient, notice that a copayment may be 93496
owed. If the hospital provides the notice and chooses not to take 93497
any further action to pursue collection of the copayment, the 93498
prohibition against waiving copayments specified in division 93499
(B)(3)(C) of this section does not apply.93500

       (D)(G) The department of job and family servicesmedicaid may 93501
workcollaborate with a state agency that is administering, 93502
pursuant to a contract entered into under section 5111.915162.3593503
of the Revised Code, one or more components of the medicaid 93504
program, or one or more aspects of a component, of the medicaid 93505
program as necessary for the state agency to apply the 93506
cost-sharing programrequirements to the components or aspects of 93507
the medicaid programa component that the state agency 93508
administers.93509

       Sec. 5111.11.        Sec. 5162.21.  (A) As used in this section and 93510
section 5111.1115162.211 of the Revised Code:93511

       (1) "Estate" includes both of the following:93512

       (a) All real and personal property and other assets to be 93513
administered under Title XXI of the Revised Code and property that 93514
would be administered under that title if not for section 2113.03 93515
or 2113.031 of the Revised Code;93516

        (b) Any other real and personal property and other assets in 93517
which an individual had any legal title or interest at the time of 93518
death (to the extent of the interest), including assets conveyed 93519
to a survivor, heir, or assign of the individual through joint 93520
tenancy, tenancy in common, survivorship, life estate, living 93521
trust, or other arrangement.93522

        (2) "Institution" means a nursing facility, intermediate care 93523
facility for the mentally retardedICF/MR, or a medical 93524
institution.93525

        (3) "Intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded" 93526
and "nursing facility" have the same meanings as in section 93527
5111.20 of the Revised Code.93528

       (4) "Permanently institutionalized individual" means an 93529
individual to whom all of the following apply:93530

        (a) Is an inpatient in an institution;93531

        (b) Is required, as a condition of the medicaid program 93532
paying for the individual's services in the institution, to spend 93533
for costs of medical or nursing care all of the individual's 93534
income except for an amount for personal needs specified by the 93535
department of job and family servicesmedicaid;93536

        (c) Cannot reasonably be expected to be discharged from the 93537
institution and return home as determined by the department of job 93538
and family servicesmedicaid.93539

       (5)(4) "Qualified state long-term care insurance partnership 93540
program" means the program established under section 5111.1893541
5164.86 of the Revised Code.93542

       (6)(5) "Time of death" shall not be construed to mean a time 93543
after which a legal title or interest in real or personal property 93544
or other asset may pass by survivorship or other operation of law 93545
due to the death of the decedent or terminate by reason of the 93546
decedent's death.93547

       (B) To the extent permitted by federal law, the department of 93548
job and family servicesmedicaid shall institute a medicaid estate 93549
recovery program under which the department shall, except as 93550
provided in divisions (C) and (E) of this section, and subject to 93551
division (D) of this section, do all of the following:93552

        (1) For the costs of medicaid services the medicaid program 93553
correctly paid or will pay on behalf of a permanently 93554
institutionalized individual of any age, seek adjustment or 93555
recovery from the individual's estate or on the sale of property 93556
of the individual or spouse that is subject to a lien imposed 93557
under section 5111.1115162.211 of the Revised Code;93558

        (2) For the costs of medicaid services the medicaid program 93559
correctly paid or will pay on behalf of an individual fifty-five 93560
years of age or older who is not a permanently institutionalized 93561
individual, seek adjustment or recovery from the individual's 93562
estate;93563

       (3) Seek adjustment or recovery from the estate of other 93564
individuals as permitted by federal law.93565

        (C)(1) No adjustment or recovery may be made under division 93566
(B)(1) of this section from a permanently institutionalized 93567
individual's estate or on the sale of property of a permanently 93568
institutionalized individual that is subject to a lien imposed 93569
under section 5111.1115162.211 of the Revised Code or under 93570
division (B)(2) or (3) of this section from an individual's estate 93571
while either of the following are alive:93572

        (a) The spouse of the permanently institutionalized 93573
individual or individual;93574

        (b) The son or daughter of a permanently institutionalized 93575
individual or individual if the son or daughter is under age 93576
twenty-one or, under the "Social Security Act," section 1614, 42 93577
U.S.C. 1382c, is considered blind or disabled.93578

        (2) No adjustment or recovery may be made under division 93579
(B)(1) of this section from a permanently institutionalized 93580
individual's home that is subject to a lien imposed under section 93581
5111.1115162.211 of the Revised Code while either of the 93582
following lawfully reside in the home:93583

        (a) The permanently institutionalized individual's sibling 93584
who resided in the home for at least one year immediately before 93585
the date of the permanently institutionalized individual's 93586
admission to the institution and on a continuous basis since that 93587
time;93588

        (b) The permanently institutionalized individual's son or 93589
daughter who provided care to the permanently institutionalized 93590
individual that delayed the permanently institutionalized 93591
individual's institutionalization and resided in the home for at 93592
least two years immediately before the date of the permanently 93593
institutionalized individual's admission to the institution and on 93594
a continuous basis since that time.93595

        (D) In the case of a participant of the qualified state 93596
long-term care insurance partnership program, adjustment or 93597
recovery required by this section may be reduced in accordance 93598
with rules adopted underauthorized by division (G) of this 93599
section.93600

        (E) The department shall, in accordance with procedures and 93601
criteria established in rules adopted underauthorized by division 93602
(G) of this section, waive seeking an adjustment or recovery 93603
otherwise required by this section if the medicaid director of job 93604
and family services determines that adjustment or recovery would 93605
work an undue hardship. The department may limit the duration of 93606
the waiver to the period during which the undue hardship exists.93607

       (F) For the purpose of determining whether an individual 93608
meets the definition of "permanently institutionalized individual" 93609
established for this section, a rebuttable presumption exists that 93610
the individual cannot reasonably be expected to be discharged from 93611
an institution and return home if either of the following is the 93612
case:93613

       (1) The individual declares that he or she does not intend to 93614
return home.93615

       (2) The individual has been an inpatient in an institution 93616
for at least six months.93617

       (G) The director of job and family services shall adopt rules 93618
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code regarding the 93619
medicaid estate recovery program, including rules thatRules 93620
adopted under section 5162.02 of the Revised Code shall do both of 93621
the following: 93622

        (1) For the purpose of division (D) of this section and 93623
consistent with the "Social Security Act," section 1917(b)(1)(C),93624
42 U.S.C. 1396p(b)(1)(C), provide for reducing an adjustment or 93625
recovery in the case of a participant of the qualified state 93626
long-term care insurance partnership program;93627

        (2) For the purpose of division (E) of this section and 93628
consistent with the standards specified by the United States 93629
secretary of health and human services under the "Social Security 93630
Act," section 1917(b)(3), 42 U.S.C. 1396p(b)(3), establish 93631
procedures and criteria for waiving adjustment or recovery due to 93632
an undue hardship.93633

       Sec. 5111.111.        Sec. 5162.211.  (A) Except as provided in division 93634
(B) of this section and section 5111.125162.23 of the Revised 93635
Code, no lien may be imposed against the property of an individual 93636
before the individual's death on account of medicaid services 93637
correctly paid or to be paid on the individual's behalf.93638

        (B) Except as provided in division (C) of this section, the 93639
department of job and family servicesmedicaid may impose a lien 93640
against the real property of a medicaid recipient who is a 93641
permanently institutionalized individual and against the real 93642
property of the recipient's spouse, including any real property 93643
that is jointly held by the recipient and spouse. The lien may be 93644
imposed on account of medicaid paid or to be paid on the 93645
recipient's behalf.93646

        (C) No lien may be imposed under division (B) of this section 93647
against the home of a medicaid recipient if any of the following 93648
lawfully resides in the home:93649

        (1) The recipient's spouse;93650

        (2) The recipient's son or daughter who is under twenty-one 93651
years of age or, under the "Social Security Act," section 1614, 42 93652
U.S.C. 1382c, considered to be blind or disabled;93653

        (3) The recipient's sibling who has an equity interest in the 93654
home and resided in the home for at least one year immediately 93655
before the date of the recipient's admission to the institution.93656

        (D) The medicaid director of job and family services or a 93657
person designated by the director shall sign a certificate to 93658
effectuate a lien required to be imposed under this section. The 93659
county department of job and family services shall file for 93660
recording and indexing the certificate, or a certified copy, in 93661
the real estate mortgage records in the office of the county 93662
recorder in every county in which real property of the recipient 93663
or spouse is situated. From the time of filing the certificate in 93664
the office of the county recorder, the lien attaches to all real 93665
property of the recipient or spouse described in the certificate 93666
for all amounts for which adjustment or recovery may be made under 93667
section 5111.115162.21 of the Revised Code and, except as 93668
provided in division (E) of this section, shall remain a lien 93669
until satisfied.93670

       Upon filing the certificate in the office of the recorder, 93671
all persons are charged with notice of the lien and the rights of 93672
the department of job and family servicesmedicaid thereunder.93673

       The county recorder shall keep a record of every certificate 93674
filed showing its date, the time of filing, the name and residence 93675
of the recipient or spouse, and any release, waivers, or 93676
satisfaction of the lien.93677

       The priority of the lien shall be established in accordance 93678
with state and federal law.93679

       The department may waive the priority of its lien to provide 93680
for the costs of the last illness as determined by the department, 93681
administration, attorney fees, administrator fees, a sum for the 93682
payment of the costs of burial, which shall be computed by 93683
deducting from five hundred dollars whatever amount is available 93684
for the same purpose from all other sources, and a similar sum for 93685
the spouse of the decedent.93686

       (E) A lien imposed with respect to a medicaid recipient under 93687
this section shall dissolve on the recipient's discharge from the 93688
institution and return home.93689

       Sec. 5111.112.        Sec. 5162.212.  The department of job and family 93690
servicesmedicaid shall certify amounts due under the medicaid 93691
estate recovery program instituted under section 5111.115162.2193692
of the Revised Code to the attorney general pursuant to section 93693
131.02 of the Revised Code. The attorney general may enter into a 93694
contract with any person or government entity to collect the 93695
amounts due on behalf of the attorney general.93696

        The attorney general, in entering into a contract under this 93697
section, shall comply with all of the requirements that must be 93698
met for the state to receive federal financial participation for 93699
the costs incurred in entering into the contract and carrying out 93700
actions under the contract. The contract may provide for the 93701
person or government entity with which the attorney general 93702
contracts to be compensated from the property recovered under the 93703
medicaid estate recovery program or may provide for another manner 93704
of compensation agreed to by the parties to the contract.93705

        Regardless of whether the attorney general collects the 93706
amounts due under the medicaid estate recovery program or 93707
contracts with a person or government entity to collect the 93708
amounts due on behalf of the attorney general, the amounts due 93709
shall be collected in accordance with applicable requirements of 93710
federal statutes and regulations and state statutes and rules.93711

       Sec. 5111.113.        Sec. 5162.22.  (A) As used in this section:93712

       (1) "Commissioner" means a person appointed by a probate 93713
court under division (E) of section 2113.03 of the Revised Code to 93714
act as a commissioner.93715

       (2) "Home" has the same meaning as in section 3721.10 of the 93716
Revised Code.93717

       (3) "Personal needs allowance account" means an account or 93718
petty cash fund that holds the money of a resident of an adult 93719
carea residential facility or home and that the facility or home 93720
manages for the resident.93721

       (4) "Residential facility" means a residential facility 93722
licensed under section 5119.225119.34 of the Revised Code that 93723
provides accommodations, supervision, and personal care services 93724
for three to sixteen unrelated adults.93725

       (B) Except as provided in divisions (C) and (D) of this 93726
section, the owner or operator of a home or residential facility 93727
shall transfer to the department of job and family services93728
medicaid the money in the personal needs allowance account of a 93729
resident of the home or facility who was a medicaid recipient of 93730
the medical assistance program no earlier than sixty days but not 93731
later than ninety days after the resident dies. The home or 93732
facility shall transfer the money even though the owner or 93733
operator of the facility or home has not been issued letters 93734
testamentary or letters of administration concerning the 93735
resident's estate.93736

       (C) If funeral or burial expenses for a resident of a home or 93737
residential facility who has died have not been paid and the only 93738
resource the resident had that could be used to pay for the 93739
expenses is the money in the resident's personal needs allowance 93740
account, or all other resources of the resident are inadequate to 93741
pay the full cost of the expenses, the money in the resident's 93742
personal needs allowance account shall be used to pay for the 93743
expenses rather than being transferred to the department of job 93744
and family servicesmedicaid pursuant to division (B) of this 93745
section.93746

       (D) If, not later than sixty days after a resident of a home 93747
or residential facility dies, letters testamentary or letters of 93748
administration are issued, or an application for release from 93749
administration is filed under section 2113.03 of the Revised Code, 93750
concerning the resident's estate, the owner or operator of the 93751
home or facility shall transfer the money in the resident's 93752
personal needs allowance account to the administrator, executor, 93753
commissioner, or person who filed the application for release from 93754
administration.93755

       (E) The transfer or use of money in a resident's personal 93756
needs allowance account in accordance with division (B), (C), or 93757
(D) of this section discharges and releases the home or 93758
residential facility, and the owner or operator of the home, from 93759
any claim for the money from any source.93760

       (F) If, sixty-one or more days after a resident of a home or 93761
residential facility dies, letters testamentary or letters of 93762
administration are issued, or an application for release from 93763
administration under section 2113.03 of the Revised Code is filed, 93764
concerning the resident's estate, the department of job and family 93765
servicesmedicaid shall transfer the funds to the administrator, 93766
executor, commissioner, or person who filed the application, 93767
unless the department is entitled to recover the money under the 93768
medicaid estate recovery program instituted under section 5111.1193769
5162.21 of the Revised Code.93770

       Sec. 5111.12.        Sec. 5162.23.  (A) The medicaid director of job and 93771
family services shall establishadopt rules under whichsection 93772
5162.02 of the Revised Code permitting county departments of job 93773
and family services mayto take action to recover benefits 93774
incorrectly paid on behalf of medicaid recipients of medical 93775
assistance. The rules shall provide for recovery by the following 93776
methods:93777

       (1) Soliciting voluntary payments from recipients or from 93778
persons holding property in which a recipient has a legal or 93779
equitable interest;93780

       (2) Obtaining a lien on property pursuant to division (B) of 93781
this section.93782

       (B) A county department of job and family services may bring 93783
a civil action in a court of common pleas against a medicaid93784
recipient of medical assistance for the recovery of any medical 93785
assistance benefitsmedicaid payments determined by the court to 93786
have been paid incorrectly on behalf of the recipient. All persons 93787
holding property in which the recipient has a legal or equitable 93788
interest may be joined as parties. The court may issue 93789
pre-judgment orders, including injunctive relief or attachment 93790
under Chapter 2715. of the Revised Code, for the preservation of 93791
real or personal property in which the recipient may have a legal 93792
or equitable interest. If the court determines that benefits93793
medicaid payments were paidmade incorrectly and issues a judgment 93794
to that effect, the county department may obtain a lien upon 93795
property of the recipient in accordance with Chapter 2329. of the 93796
Revised Code.93797

       (C) The county department of job and family services shall 93798
retain fifty per cent of the balance remaining after deduction 93799
from the recovery of the amount required to be returned to the 93800
federal government and shall pay the other fifty per cent of the 93801
balance to the department of job and family servicesmedicaid.93802

       (D) Recovery of medical assistance benefitsmedicaid payments93803
incorrectly paid tomade on behalf of a medicaid recipient may not 93804
be accomplished by reducing the amount of benefits the recipient 93805
is entitled to receive under another government assistance 93806
program.93807

       (E) The remedies provided pursuant to this section do not 93808
affect any other remedies county departments of job and family 93809
services may have to recover benefits incorrectly paid on behalf 93810
of medicaid recipients of medical assistance.93811

       Sec. 5111.121.        Sec. 5162.24.  (A) As used in this section, "third 93812
party" has the same meaning as in section 5101.5715160.35 of the 93813
Revised Code.93814

       (B) In addition to the authority granted under section 93815
5101.595160.38 of the Revised Code, the department of job and 93816
family servicesmedicaid may, to the extent necessary to reimburse 93817
its costs, garnish the wages, salary, or other employment income 93818
of, and withhold amounts from state tax refunds to, any person to 93819
whom both of the following apply:93820

       (1) The person is required by a court or administrative order 93821
to provide coverage of the cost of health care services to a child 93822
eligible for medical assistance under this chaptermedicaid.93823

       (2) The person has received payment from a third party for 93824
the costs of such services but has not used the payment to 93825
reimburse either the other parent or guardian of the child or the 93826
provider of the services.93827

       (C) Claims for current and past due child support shall take 93828
priority over claims under division (B) of this section.93829

       Sec. 5162.31.  Local funds, whether from public or private 93830
sources, expended by a county department of job and family 93831
services for administration of the healthy start component shall 93832
be considered to have been expended by the state for the purpose 93833
of determining the extent to which the state has complied with any 93834
federal requirement that the state provide funds to match federal 93835
financial participation for the medicaid program. This section 93836
does not affect the amount of funds a county is entitled to 93837
receive under sections 5101.16 and 5101.161 of the Revised Code.93838

       Sec. 5111.90.        Sec. 5162.32. (A) As used in sections 5111.90 to 93839
5111.93 of the Revised Code:93840

       (1) "Political subdivision" means a municipal corporation, 93841
township, county, school district, or other body corporate and 93842
politic responsible for governmental activities only in a 93843
geographical area smaller than that of the state.93844

       (2) "State agency" means every organized body, office, or 93845
agency, other than the department of job and family services, 93846
established by the laws of the state for the exercise of any 93847
function of state government.93848

       (B) To the extent permitted by Title XIX of the "Social 93849
Security Act," 79 Stat. 286 (1965), 42 U.S.C.A. 1396, as amended, 93850
and regulations adopted under that title, theThe department of 93851
job and family servicesmedicaid may enter into contracts with 93852
political subdivisions to use funds of the political subdivision 93853
to pay the nonfederal share of expenditures under the medicaid 93854
program. The determination and provision of federal financial 93855
reimbursementparticipation to a subdivision entering into a 93856
contract under this section shall be determined by the department, 93857
subject to section 5111.925162.40 of the Revised Code, approval 93858
by the United States secretary of health and human services, and 93859
the availability of federal financial participation.93860

       Sec. 5111.91.        Sec. 5162.35. The department of job and family 93861
servicesmedicaid may enter into contracts with one or more other 93862
state agencies or political subdivisions to have the state agency 93863
or political subdivision administer one or more components of the 93864
medicaid program, or one or more aspects of a component, under the 93865
department's supervision. A state agency or political subdivision 93866
that enters into such a contract shall comply with the terms of 93867
the contract and any rules the medicaid director of job and family 93868
services has adopted governing the component, or aspect of the 93869
component, that the state agency or political subdivision is to 93870
administer, including any rules establishing review, audit, and 93871
corrective action plan requirements. A contract with a state 93872
agency shall be in the form of an interagency agreement.93873

       A state agency or political subdivision that enters into a 93874
contract with the department under this section shall reimburse 93875
the department for the nonfederal share of the cost to the 93876
department of performing, or contracting for the performance of, a 93877
fiscal audit of the component of the medicaid program, or aspect 93878
of the component, that the state agency or political subdivision 93879
administers if rules governing the component, or aspect of the 93880
component, require that a fiscal audit be conducted.93881

       There is hereby created in the state treasury the medicaid 93882
administrative reimbursement fund. The department shall use money 93883
in the fund to pay for the nonfederal share of the cost of a 93884
fiscal audit for which a state agency or political subdivision is 93885
required by this section to reimburse the department. The 93886
department shall deposit the reimbursements into the fund.93887

       Sec. 5111.71.        Sec. 5162.36. (A) As used in sections 5111.71 to 93888
5111.715 of the Revised Code, "qualified medicaid school provider" 93889
means the board of education of a city, local, or exempted village 93890
school district, the governing authority of a community school 93891
established under Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code, the state 93892
school for the deaf, and the state school for the blind to which 93893
both of the following apply:93894

       (1) It holds a valid medicaid provider agreement.93895

       (2) It meets all other conditions for participation in the 93896
medicaid school component of the medicaid program established in 93897
rules adopted under section 5111.715 of the Revised Code.93898

        (B) The medicaid director of job and family services shall 93899
submit a state medicaid plan amendment to the United States 93900
secretary of health and human services for the purpose of creating93901
create, in accordance with sections 5111.715162.36 to 5111.71593902
5162.364 of the Revised Code, the medicaid school component of the 93903
medicaid program. The director shall create the medicaid school 93904
component on receipt of the United States secretary's approval of 93905
the amendment.93906

       Sec. 5111.711.        Sec. 5162.361.  A qualified medicaid school provider 93907
participating in the medicaid school component of the medicaid 93908
program may submit a claim to the department of job and family 93909
servicesmedicaid for federal financial participation for 93910
providing, in schools, services covered by the medicaid school 93911
component to medicaid recipients who are eligible for the 93912
services. No qualified medicaid school provider may submit such a 93913
claim before the provider incurs the cost of providing the 93914
service.93915

       The claim shall include certification of the qualified 93916
medicaid school provider's expenditures for the service. The 93917
certification shall show that the money the qualified medicaid 93918
school provider used for the expenditures was nonfederal money the 93919
provider may legally use for providing the service and that the 93920
amount of the expenditures was sufficient to pay the full cost of 93921
the service.93922

       Except as otherwise provided in sections 5111.715162.36 to 93923
5111.7155162.364 of the Revised Code and rules adopted under93924
authorized by sections 5111.7135162.363 and 5111.7155162.364 of 93925
the Revised Code, a qualified medicaid school provider is subject 93926
to all conditions of participation in the medicaid program that 93927
generally apply to providers of goods and services under the 93928
medicaid program, including conditions regarding audits and 93929
recovery of overpayments.93930

       Sec. 5111.712.        Sec. 5162.362.  The department of job and family 93931
servicesmedicaid shall seek federal financial participation for 93932
each claim a qualified medicaid school provider properly submits 93933
to the department under section 5111.7115162.361 of the Revised 93934
Code. The department shall disburse the federal financial 93935
participation the department receives from the federal government 93936
for such a claim to the qualified medicaid school provider that 93937
submitted the claim. The department may not pay the qualified 93938
medicaid school provider the nonfederal share of the cost of the 93939
services for which the claim was submitted.93940

       Sec. 5111.713.        Sec. 5162.363.  The department of job and family 93941
servicesmedicaid shall enter into an interagency agreement with 93942
the department of education under section 5111.915162.35 of the 93943
Revised Code that provides for the department of education to 93944
administer the medicaid school component of the medicaid program 93945
other than the aspects of the component that sections 5111.7193946
5162.36 to 5111.7155162.364 of the Revised Code require the 93947
department of job and family servicesmedicaid to administer. The 93948
interagency agreement may include a provision that provides for 93949
the department of education to pay to the department of job and 93950
family servicesmedicaid the nonfederal share of a portion of the 93951
administrative expenses the department of job and family services93952
medicaid incurs in administering the aspects of the component that 93953
the department of job and family servicesmedicaid administers.93954

       TheTo the extent authorized by rules authorized by section 93955
5162.021 of the Revised Code, the department of education shall 93956
establish, in rules adopted under Chapter 119.section 5162.02 of 93957
the Revised Code, a process by which qualified medicaid school 93958
providers participating in the medicaid school component pay to 93959
the department of education the nonfederal share of the 93960
department's expenses incurred in administering the component. The 93961
rules shall be adopted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 93962
Revised Code.93963

       Sec. 5111.715.        Sec. 5162.364.  The medicaid director of job and 93964
family services shall adopt rules under Chapter 119.section 93965
5162.02 of the Revised Code as necessary to implement the medicaid 93966
school component of the medicaid program, including rules that 93967
establish or specify all of the following:93968

       (A) Conditions a board of education of a city, local, or 93969
exempted school district, governing authority of a community 93970
school established under Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code, the 93971
state school for the deaf, and the state school for the blind must 93972
meet to participate in the component;93973

       (B) Services the component covers;93974

       (C) ReimbursementPayment rates for the services the 93975
component covers.93976

       The rules shall be adopted in accordance with Chapter 119. of 93977
the Revised Code.93978

       Sec. 5111.911.        Sec. 5162.37. Any contract the department of job and 93979
family servicesmedicaid enters into with the department of mental 93980
health or department of alcohol and drug addiction servicesmental 93981
health and addiction services under section 5111.915162.35 of the 93982
Revised Code is subject to the approval of the director of budget 93983
and management and shall require or specify all of the following:93984

        (A) In the case of a contract with the department of mental 93985
health, thatThat section 5111.9125162.371 of the Revised Code 93986
be complied with;93987

        (B) In the case of a contract with the department of alcohol 93988
and drug addiction services, that section 5111.913 of the Revised 93989
Code be complied with;93990

       (C) How providers will be paid for providing the services;93991

        (D)(C) The department of mental health's or department of 93992
alcohol and drug addiction services' responsibilities of the 93993
department of mental health and addiction services with regard to 93994
providers, including program oversight and quality assurance.93995

       Sec. 5111.912.        Sec. 5162.371. If the department of job and family 93996
servicesmedicaid enters into a contract with the department of 93997
mental healthmental health and addiction services under section 93998
5111.915162.35 of the Revised Code, the department of job and 93999
family servicesmedicaid shall pay the nonfederal share of any 94000
medicaid payment to a provider for services under the component, 94001
or aspect of the component, the department of mental healthmental 94002
health and addiction services administers. If necessary, the 94003
director of job and family services shall submit a medicaid state 94004
plan amendment to the United States secretary of health and human 94005
services regarding the department of job and family services' duty 94006
under this section.94007

       Sec. 5111.92.        Sec. 5162.40.  (A)(1) Except as provided in division 94008
(B) of this section, if a state agency or political subdivision 94009
administers one or more components of the medicaid program that 94010
the United States department of health and human services 94011
approved, and for which federal financial participation was 94012
initially obtained, prior to January 1, 2002, or administers one 94013
or more aspects of such a component, the department of job and 94014
family servicesmedicaid may retain or collect not more than ten 94015
per cent of the federal financial participation the state agency 94016
or political subdivision obtains through an approved, 94017
administrative claim regarding the component or aspect of the 94018
component. If the department retains or collects a percentage of 94019
such federal financial participation, the percentage the 94020
department retains or collects shall be specified in a contract 94021
the department enters into with the state agency or political 94022
subdivision under section 5111.915162.35 of the Revised Code.94023

       (2) Except as provided in division (B) of this section, if a 94024
state agency or political subdivision administers one or more 94025
components of the medicaid program that the United States 94026
department of health and human services approved on or after 94027
January 1, 2002, or administers one or more aspects of such a 94028
component, the department of job and family servicesmedicaid94029
shall retain or collect not less than three and not more than ten 94030
per cent of the federal financial participation the state agency 94031
or political subdivision obtains through an approved, 94032
administrative claim regarding the component or aspect of the 94033
component. The percentage the department retains or collects shall 94034
be specified in a contract the department enters into with the 94035
state agency or political subdivision under section 5111.9194036
5162.35 of the Revised Code.94037

       (B) The department of job and family services may retain or 94038
collect a percentage of federal financial participation under 94039
divisions (A)(1) and (2) of this section only to the extent 94040
permitted by federal statutes and regulations.94041

       (C) All amounts the department retains or collects under this 94042
section shall be deposited into the health care services 94043
administration fund created under section 5111.945162.54 of the 94044
Revised Code.94045

       Sec. 5111.93.        Sec. 5162.41.  The department of job and family 94046
servicesmedicaid may retain or collect a percentage of the 94047
federal financial participation included in a supplemental 94048
medicaid payment to one or more medicaid providers owned or 94049
operated by a state agency or political subdivision that brings 94050
the payment to such provider or providers to the upper payment 94051
limit established by 42 C.F.R. 447.272. If the department retains 94052
or collects a percentage of that federal financial participation, 94053
the departmentmedicaid director shall adopt a rule under Chapter 94054
119.section 5162.02 of the Revised Code specifying the percentage 94055
the department is to retain or collect. All amounts the department 94056
retains or collects under this section shall be deposited into the 94057
health care services administration fund created under section 94058
5111.945162.54 of the Revised Code.94059

       Sec. 5111.943.        Sec. 5162.50. (A) The health care - federal fund is 94060
hereby created in the state treasury. All of the following shall 94061
be credited to the fund:94062

       (1) Funds that division (B) of section 5112.185168.11 of the 94063
Revised Code requires be credited to the fund;94064

       (2) The federal share of all rebates paid by drug 94065
manufacturers to the department of job and family services94066
medicaid in accordance with a rebate agreement required by the 94067
"Social Security Act," section 1927, 42 U.S.C. 1396r-8;94068

       (3) The federal share of all supplemental rebates paid by 94069
drug manufacturers to the department of job and family services94070
medicaid in accordance with the supplemental drug rebate program 94071
established under section 5111.0815164.755 of the Revised Code;94072

       (4) Except as otherwise provided by statute or as authorized 94073
by the controlling board, the federal share of all other 94074
medicaid-related revenues, collections, and recoveries.94075

       (B) All money credited to the health care - federal fund 94076
pursuant to division (B) of section 5112.185168.11 of the Revised 94077
Code shall be used solely for distributing funds to hospitals 94078
under section 5112.085168.09 of the Revised Code. The department 94079
of job and family servicesmedicaid shall use all other money 94080
credited to the fund to pay for other medicaid services and 94081
contracts.94082

       Sec. 5111.941.        Sec. 5162.52.  (A) The health care/medicaid support 94083
and recoveries fund is hereby created in the state treasury. All 94084
of the following shall be credited to the fund:94085

       (1) Except as otherwise provided by statute or as authorized 94086
by the controlling board, the nonfederal share of all 94087
medicaid-related revenues, collections, and recoveries;94088

       (2) Federal reimbursement received for payment adjustments 94089
made pursuant to section 1923 of the "Social Security Act," 101 94090
Stat. 1330-148 (1987)section 1923, 42 U.S.C. 1396r-4, as amended,94091
under the medicaid program to state mental health hospitals 94092
maintained and operated by the department of mental healthmental 94093
health and addiction services under division (A) of section 94094
5119.025119.14 of the Revised Code;94095

       (3) Revenues the department of job and family services94096
medicaid receives from another state agency for medicaid services 94097
pursuant to an interagency agreement, other than such revenues 94098
required to be deposited into the health care services 94099
administration fund created under section 5111.945162.54 of the 94100
Revised Code;94101

       (4) The first seven hundred fifty thousand dollars the 94102
department receives in a fiscal year for performing eligibility 94103
verification services necessary for compliance with the 94104
independent, certified audit requirement of 42 C.F.R. 455.304;94105

       (5) The nonfederal share of all rebates paid by drug 94106
manufacturers to the department of medicaid in accordance with a 94107
rebate agreement required by the "Social Security Act," section 94108
1927, 42 U.S.C. 1396r-8;94109

       (6) The nonfederal share of all supplemental rebates paid by 94110
drug manufacturers to the department of medicaid in accordance 94111
with the supplemental drug rebate program established under 94112
section 5164.755 of the Revised Code.94113

       (B) The department of job and family servicesmedicaid shall 94114
use money credited to the health care/medicaid support and 94115
recoveries fund to pay for medicaid services and contracts.94116

       Sec. 5111.94.        Sec. 5162.54.  (A) As used in this section, "vendor 94117
offset" means a reduction of a medicaid payment to a medicaid 94118
provider to correct a previous, incorrect medicaid payment to that 94119
provider.94120

       (B) There is hereby created in the state treasury the health 94121
care services administration fund. Except as provided in division 94122
(C) of this section, all the following shall be deposited into the 94123
fund:94124

       (1) Amounts deposited into the fund pursuant to sections 94125
5111.925162.12, 5162.40, and 5111.935162.41 of the Revised Code;94126

       (2) The amount of the state share of all money the department 94127
of job and family services, in fiscal year 2003 and each fiscal 94128
year thereafter,medicaid recovers each fiscal year pursuant to a 94129
tort action under the department's right of recovery under section 94130
5101.585160.37 of the Revised Code that exceeds the state share 94131
of all money the department, in fiscal year 2002, recovers 94132
pursuant to a tort action under that right of recovery;94133

       (3) Subject to division (D)(B) of this section, the amount of 94134
the state share of all money the department of job and family 94135
servicesmedicaid, in fiscal year 2003 and each fiscal year 94136
thereafter, recovers through audits of medicaid providers that 94137
exceeds the state share of all money the department, in fiscal 94138
year 2002, recovers through such audits;94139

       (4) Amounts from assessments on hospitals under section 94140
5112.065168.06 of the Revised Code and intergovernmental 94141
transfers by governmental hospitals under section 5112.075168.0794142
of the Revised Code that are deposited into the fund in accordance 94143
with the law;94144

       (5) Amounts that the department of education pays to the 94145
department of job and family servicesmedicaid, if any, pursuant 94146
to an interagency agreement entered into underauthorized by94147
section 5111.7135162.363 of the Revised Code;94148

       (6) The application fees charged to providers under section 94149
5111.0635164.31 of the Revised Code;94150

       (7) The fines collected under section 5111.2715165.1010 of 94151
the Revised Code;94152

       (8) Money the department receives in a fiscal year for 94153
performing eligibility verification services necessary for 94154
compliance with the independent, certified audit requirement of 42 94155
C.F.R. 455.304, other than the amounts of such money that are to 94156
be credited to the health care/medicaid support and recoveries 94157
fund under section 5162.52 of the Revised Code.94158

       (C) No funds shall be deposited into the health care services 94159
administration fund in violation of federal statutes or 94160
regulations.94161

       (D)(B) In determining under division (B)(A)(3) of this 94162
section the amount of money the department, in a fiscal year, 94163
recovers through audits of medicaid providers, the amount 94164
recovered in the form of vendor offset shall be excluded.94165

       (E)(C) The directordepartment of job and family services94166
medicaid shall use funds available in the health care services 94167
administration fund to pay for costs associated with the 94168
administration of the medicaid program.94169

       Sec. 5111.945.        Sec. 5162.56. There is created in the state treasury 94170
the health care special activities fund. The department of job and 94171
family servicesmedicaid shall deposit all funds it receives 94172
pursuant to the administration of the medicaid program into the 94173
fund, other than any such funds that are required by law to be 94174
deposited into another fund. The department shall use the money in 94175
the fund to pay for expenses related to the services provided 94176
under, and the administration of, the medicaid program.94177

       Sec. 5111.944.        Sec. 5162.58. (A) As used in this section:94178

       "Dual eligible individual" has the same meaning as in section 94179
1915(h)(2)(B) of the "Social Security Act," 124 Stat. 315 (2010), 94180
42 U.S.C. 1396n(h)(2)(B).94181

       "Dual eligible integrated care demonstration project" means 94182
the demonstration project authorized by section 5111.981 of the 94183
Revised Code.94184

       "Medicare program" means the program created under Title 94185
XVIII of the "Social Security Act," 79 Stat. 286 (1965), 42 U.S.C. 94186
1395, as amended.94187

       (B) There is created in the state treasury the integrated 94188
care delivery systems fund. If the terms of the federal approval 94189
for the dual eligible integrated care demonstration project 94190
authorized by section 5164.91 of the Revised Code provide for the 94191
state to receive a portion of the amounts that the demonstration 94192
project saves the medicare program, such amounts shall be 94193
deposited into the fund. The department of job and family services94194
medicaid shall use the money in the fund to further develop 94195
integrated delivery systems and improved care coordination for 94196
dual eligible individuals.94197

       Sec. 5162.60.  (A) There is hereby created in the state 94198
treasury the managed care performance payment fund. The fund shall 94199
consist of all of the following:94200

       (1) Amounts transferred to it by the director of budget and 94201
management for the purpose of the managed care performance payment 94202
program established under section 5167.30 of the Revised Code;94203

       (2) All fines imposed on and collected from medicaid managed 94204
care organizations for failure to meet performance standards or 94205
other requirements specified in provider agreements or rules 94206
adopted under section 5167.02 of the Revised Code;94207

       (3) All investment earnings of the fund.94208

       (B) Amounts in the fund may be used for the following:94209

        (1) To make performance payments to medicaid managed care 94210
organizations in accordance with section 5167.30 of the Revised 94211
Code;94212

       (2) To meet obligations specified in the provider agreements;94213

       (3) To pay for medicaid services provided by a medicaid 94214
managed care organization;94215

       (4) To reimburse a medicaid managed care organization that 94216
has paid a fine for failure to meet performance standards or other 94217
requirements specified in provider agreements or rules adopted 94218
under section 5167.02 of the Revised Code if that organization 94219
comes into compliance with those standards or requirements.94220

       Sec. 5162.62.  There is hereby created in the state treasury 94221
the medicaid administrative reimbursement fund. The department of 94222
medicaid shall use money in the fund to pay for the nonfederal 94223
share of the cost of a fiscal audit for which a state agency or 94224
political subdivision is required by section 5162.35 of the 94225
Revised Code to reimburse the department. The department shall 94226
deposit the reimbursements into the fund.94227

       Sec. 5111.714.        Sec. 5162.64.  (A) There is hereby created in the 94228
state treasury the medicaid school program administrative fund. 94229

       (B) Both of the following shall be deposited into the 94230
medicaid school program administrative fund:94231

       (1) The federal funds the department of education receives 94232
for the expenses the department incurs in administering the 94233
medicaid school component of the medicaid program created under 94234
section 5162.36 of the Revised Code;94235

       (2) The money the department collects from qualified medicaid 94236
school providers in the process established in rules adopted under94237
authorized by section 5111.7135162.363 of the Revised Code.94238

       (C) No funds shall be deposited into the medicaid school 94239
program administrative fund in violation of federal statutes or 94240
regulations.94241

       (D) The department of education shall use money in the 94242
medicaid school program administrative fund for both of the 94243
following purposes:94244

       (1) Paying for the expenses the department incurs in 94245
administering the medicaid school component of the medicaid 94246
program;94247

       (2) Paying a qualified medicaid school provider a refund for 94248
any overpayment the provider makes to the department under the 94249
process established in rules adopted underauthorized by section 94250
5111.7135162.363 of the Revised Code if the process results in an 94251
overpayment.94252

       Sec. 5111.62.        Sec. 5162.66. TheAs used in this section, 94253
"deficiency" has the same meaning as in section 5165.60 of the 94254
Revised Code.94255

       The proceeds of all fines, including interest, collected 94256
under sections 5111.355165.60 to 5111.625165.89 of the Revised 94257
Code shall be deposited in the state treasury to the credit of the 94258
residents protection fund, which is hereby created. The proceeds 94259
of all fines, including interest, collected under section 173.42 94260
of the Revised Code shall be deposited in the state treasury to 94261
the credit of the residents protection fund.94262

        Money in the fund shall be used for the protection of the 94263
health or property of residents of nursing facilities in which the 94264
department of health finds deficiencies, including payment for the 94265
costs of relocation of residents to other facilities, maintenance 94266
of operation of a facility pending correction of deficiencies or 94267
closure, and reimbursement of residents for the loss of money 94268
managed by the facility under section 3721.15 of the Revised Code. 94269
Money in the fund may also be used to make payments under section 94270
5111.5115165.78 of the Revised Code.94271

       The fund shall be maintained and administered by the 94272
department of job and family servicesmedicaid under rules 94273
developed in consultation with the departments of health and aging 94274
and adopted by the director of job and family services under 94275
Chapter 119.section 5162.02 of the Revised Code. The rules shall 94276
be adopted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.94277

       Sec. 5163.01. As used in this chapter:94278

       "Federal financial participation" has the same meaning as in 94279
section 5160.01 of the Revised Code.94280

       "Healthy start component" has the same meaning as in section 94281
5162.01 of the Revised Code.94282

       "Intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded" and 94283
"ICF/MR" have the same meanings as in section 5124.01 of the 94284
Revised Code.94285

       "Mandatory eligibility groups" means the groups of 94286
individuals that must be covered by the medicaid state plan as a 94287
condition of the state receiving federal financial participation 94288
for the medicaid program.94289

       "Medicaid services" has the same meaning as in section 94290
5164.01 of the Revised Code.94291

       "Medicaid waiver component" has the same meaning as in 94292
section 5166.01 of the Revised Code.94293

       "Nursing facility" and "nursing facility services" have the 94294
same meanings as in section 5165.01 of the Revised Code.94295

       "Optional eligibility groups" means the groups of individuals 94296
who may be covered by the medicaid state plan or a federal 94297
medicaid waiver and for whom the medicaid program receives federal 94298
financial participation.94299

       "Other medicaid-funded long-term care services" has the 94300
meaning specified in rules adopted under section 5163.02 of the 94301
Revised Code.94302

       "Supplemental security income program" means the program 94303
established by Title XVI of the "Social Security Act," 42 U.S.C. 94304
1381 et seq.94305

       Sec. 5111.011.        Sec. 5163.02. (A) The medicaid director of job and 94306
family services shall adopt rules establishingas necessary to 94307
implement this chapter. The rules shall establish eligibility 94308
requirements for the medicaid program. The rules may establish 94309
requirements for applying for medicaid and determining and 94310
verifying eligibility for medicaid. The rules shall be adopted 94311
pursuant toin accordance with section 111.15 of the Revised Code 94312
and shall be consistent with federal and state law. The rules 94313
shall include rules that do all of the following:94314

       (1) Establish standards consistent with federal law for 94315
allocating income and resources as income and resources of the 94316
spouse, children, parents, or stepparents of a recipient of or 94317
applicant for medicaid;94318

       (2) Define the term "resources" as used in division (A)(1) of 94319
this section;94320

       (3) Specify the number of months that is to be used for the 94321
purpose of the term "look-back date" used in section 5111.0116 of 94322
the Revised Code;94323

       (4) Establish processes to be used to determine both of the 94324
following:94325

       (a) The date an institutionalized individual's ineligibility 94326
for services under section 5111.0116 of the Revised Code is to 94327
begin;94328

       (b) The number of months an institutionalized individual's 94329
ineligibility for such services is to continue.94330

       (5) For the purpose of division (C) of section 5111.0116 of 94331
the Revised Code, establish procedures for granting waivers of all 94332
or a portion of the period of ineligibility that an 94333
institutionalized individual would otherwise be subject to under 94334
that section and additional reasons for which such waivers may be 94335
granted;94336

       (6) Define the term "other medicaid-funded long-term care 94337
services" as used in sections 5111.0117 and 5111.0118 of the 94338
Revised Code;94339

       (7) For the purpose of division (C)(2)(c) of section 94340
5111.0117 of the Revised Code, establish the process to determine 94341
whether the child of an aged, blind, or disabled individual is 94342
financially dependent on the individual for housing.94343

       (B) Notwithstanding any provision of state law, including 94344
statutes, administrative rules, common law, and court rules, 94345
regarding real or personal property or domestic relations, the 94346
standards established under rules adopted under division (A)(1) of94347
this section shall be used to determine eligibility for medicaid.94348

       Sec. 5163.03.  (A) Subject to sections 5163.04 and 5163.05 of 94349
the Revised Code, the medicaid program shall cover all mandatory 94350
eligibility groups.94351

       (B) The medicaid program shall cover all of the optional 94352
eligibility groups that state statutes require the medicaid 94353
program to cover.94354

       (C) The medicaid program may cover any of the optional 94355
eligibility groups to which either of the following applies:94356

       (1) State statutes expressly permit the medicaid program to 94357
cover the optional eligibility group.94358

       (2) State statutes do not address whether the medicaid 94359
program may cover the optional eligibility group.94360

       (D) The medicaid program shall not cover any eligibility 94361
group that state statutes prohibit the medicaid program from 94362
covering.94363

       Sec. 5163.04.  The medicaid program shall not cover the group 94364
described in the "Social Security Act," section 94365
1902(a)(10)(A)(i)(VIII), 42 U.S.C. 1396a(a)(10)(A)(i)(VIII).94366

       This section does not affect the medicaid eligibility of any 94367
individual who enrolls in the metrohealth care plus medicaid 94368
waiver component on or after February 5, 2013.94369

       Sec. 5163.05.  The medicaid program's eligibility 94370
requirements for aged, blind, and disabled individuals may be more 94371
restrictive than the eligibility requirements for the supplemental 94372
security income program. Any such more restrictive eligibility 94373
requirements shall be consistent with the 209(b) option described 94374
in the "Social Security Act," section 1902(f), 42 U.S.C. 1396a(f).94375

       Sec. 5163.06.  Beginning January 1, 2014, the medicaid 94376
director may alter the eligibility requirements for, and terminate 94377
the medicaid program's coverage of, one or more optional 94378
eligibility groups or subgroups, including the following:94379

       (A) Children placed with adoptive parents who may be covered 94380
by medicaid pursuant to the "Social Security Act," section 94381
1902(a)(10)(A)(ii)(VIII), 42 U.S.C. 1396a(a)(10)(A)(ii)(VIII);94382

       (B) Low income women and children who may be covered by 94383
medicaid pursuant to the "Social Security Act," section 94384
1902(a)(10)(A)(ii)(IX), 42 U.S.C. 1396a(a)(10)(A)(ii)(IX);94385

       (C) Employed individuals with disabilities who may be covered 94386
by medicaid pursuant to the "Social Security Act," section 94387
1902(a)(10)(A)(ii)(XV), 42 U.S.C. 1396a(a)(10)(A)(ii)(XV);94388

       (D) Employed individuals with medically improved disabilities 94389
who may be covered by medicaid pursuant to the "Social Security 94390
Act," section 1902(a)(10)(A)(ii)(XVI), 42 U.S.C. 94391
1396a(a)(10)(A)(ii)(XVI);94392

       (E) Independent foster care adolescents who may be covered by 94393
medicaid pursuant to the "Social Security Act," section 94394
1902(a)(10)(A)(ii)(XVII), 42 U.S.C. 1396a(a)(10)(A)(ii)(XVII);94395

       (F) Pregnant women who may be determined presumptively 94396
eligible for medicaid pursuant to the "Social Security Act," 94397
section 1920, 42 U.S.C. 1396r-1;94398

       (G) Children who may be determined presumptively eligible for 94399
medicaid pursuant to the "Social Security Act," section 1920A, 42 94400
U.S.C. 1396r-1a.94401

       Sec. 5163.061.  If the medicaid director alters the 94402
eligibility requirements for, or terminates the medicaid program's 94403
coverage of, an optional eligibility group or subgroup pursuant to 94404
section 5163.06 of the Revised Code, all of the following apply:94405

       (A) In the case of an optional eligibility group or subgroup 94406
for which the eligibility requirements are altered:94407

       (1) No individual enrolled, before the effective date of the 94408
altered eligibility requirements, in medicaid as part of the group 94409
or subgroup shall remain enrolled in medicaid on and after that 94410
effective date unless the individual meets the altered eligibility 94411
requirements for the group or subgroup or meets the eligibility 94412
requirements for another eligibility group or subgroup.94413

       (2) Beginning on the effective date of the altered 94414
eligibility requirements, no individual may enroll in medicaid as 94415
part of the group or subgroup unless the individual meets the 94416
altered eligibility requirements for the group or subgroup or 94417
meets the eligibility requirements for another eligibility group 94418
or subgroup.94419

       (B) In the case of an optional eligibility group or subgroup 94420
whose medicaid coverage is terminated:94421

       (1) No individual enrolled, before the effective date of the 94422
termination, in medicaid as part of the group or subgroup shall 94423
remain enrolled in medicaid on and after that effective date 94424
unless the individual meets the eligibility requirements for 94425
another eligibility group or subgroup.94426

       (2) Beginning on the effective date of the termination, no 94427
individual may enroll in medicaid as part of the group or subgroup 94428
but may enroll in medicaid as part of another group or subgroup 94429
for which the individual meets the eligibility requirements.94430

       (C) The department of medicaid shall take actions as the 94431
department determines necessary, including requiring actions from 94432
county departments of job and family services, to do both of the 94433
following:94434

       (1) Inform medicaid recipients about the altered eligibility 94435
requirements or termination of the medicaid program's coverage of 94436
the group or subgroup;94437

       (2) In the case of medicaid recipients who will cease to be 94438
eligible for medicaid as part of the group or subgroup because of 94439
the altered eligibility requirements or termination of the group's 94440
or subgroup's coverage, offer to assist the recipients with the 94441
following:94442

       (a) To continue to be enrolled in medicaid as part of another 94443
eligibility group or subgroup for which they meet the eligibility 94444
requirements;94445

       (b) Transition to other health coverage options available to 94446
them.94447

       (D) Regarding appeals authorized by section 5160.31 of the 94448
Revised Code:94449

       (1) No individual may appeal a denial of medicaid eligibility 94450
as part of a group or subgroup whose medicaid coverage is 94451
terminated if the denial is for medicaid eligibility that would 94452
begin or continue on or after the effective date of the 94453
termination.94454

       (2) An individual may initiate or continue, on or after the 94455
effective date of the termination, an appeal concerning the 94456
individual's eligibility for medicaid as part of the group or 94457
subgroup if the decision being appealed concerns the individual's 94458
eligibility for medicaid as part of the group or subgroup before 94459
the effective date of the termination.94460

       (3) An appeal initiated or continued pursuant to division 94461
(D)(2) of this section may not result in the appellant being 94462
enrolled, or continuing to be enrolled, in medicaid as part of the 94463
group or subgroup on or after the effective date of the 94464
termination.94465

       (E) The altered eligibility requirements or termination of 94466
the medicaid program's coverage of the group or subgroup has no 94467
effect on either of the following:94468

       (1) An automatic right of recovery given under section 94469
5160.37 of the Revised Code;94470

       (2) An automatic assignment of rights under section 5160.38 94471
of the Revised Code.94472

       (F) All rules, standards, guidelines, or orders regarding the 94473
group or subgroup issued by the medicaid director before the 94474
effective date of the altered eligibility requirements or 94475
termination of the medicaid program's coverage of the group or 94476
subgroup shall be used for the purpose of determining the state's 94477
legal obligations for claims related to the group or subgroup that 94478
arise from any of the following:94479

       (1) Eligibility determinations regarding enrollment in 94480
medicaid before that effective date;94481

       (2) Claims for payment for medicaid services provided before 94482
that effective date;94483

       (3) Recoveries of erroneous medicaid payments.94484

       Sec. 5163.07.  (A) As used in this section, "actual income" 94485
means the amount of an individual's income before any disregarded 94486
amounts or other deductions are applied pursuant to an income 94487
eligibility methodology.94488

       (B) In transitioning to the use of modified adjusted gross 94489
income and household income methodologies to determine an 94490
individual's income eligibility for the medicaid program pursuant 94491
to the "Social Security Act," section 1902(e)(14), 42 U.S.C. 94492
1396a(e)(14), and except as provided in division (C) of this 94493
section, the medicaid director shall provide for both of the 94494
following to qualify for the medicaid program:94495

       (1) All individuals who would qualify for medicaid pursuant 94496
to former section 5111.0110 or 5111.0120 of the Revised Code using 94497
the applicable income eligibility methodology in effect on the day 94498
immediately preceding the effective date of this section;94499

       (2) All individuals who would qualify for medicaid pursuant 94500
to the optional eligibility group specified in the "Social 94501
Security Act," section 1902(a)(a)(10)(A)(ii)(XXI), 42 U.S.C. 94502
1396a(a)(10)(A)(ii)(XXI), using the applicable income eligibility 94503
methodology in effect on the day immediately preceding the 94504
effective date of this section.94505

       (C) An individual whose actual income exceeds one hundred 94506
thirty-eight per cent of the federal poverty line may not qualify 94507
for medicaid pursuant to division (B) of this section.94508

       Sec. 5163.08.  The medicaid director shall implement the 94509
option authorized by the "Social Security Act," section 94510
1925(a)(5), 42 U.S.C. 1396r-6(a)(5), regarding the single 94511
twelve-month eligibility period for transitional medicaid.94512

       Sec. 5111.15.        Sec. 5163.20.  If a medicaid recipient of medical 94513
assistance is the beneficiary of a trust created pursuant to 94514
section 5815.28 of the Revised Code, then, notwithstanding any 94515
contrary provision of this chapter or of a rule adopted pursuant 94516
to this chapterunder section 5163.02 of the Revised Code, 94517
divisions (C) and (D) of that section shall apply in determining 94518
the assets or resources of the recipient, the recipient's estate, 94519
the settlor, or the settlor's estate and to claims arising under 94520
this chapter against the recipient, the recipient's estate, the 94521
settlor, or the settlor's estate.94522

       Sec. 5111.151.        Sec. 5163.21. (A)(1) This section applies only to 94523
either of the following:94524

       (a) Initial eligibility determinations for the medicaid 94525
program made by the department of job and family services pursuant 94526
to section 5101.47 of the Revised Code or by a county department 94527
of job and family services pursuant to section 5111.012 of the 94528
Revised Code;94529

       (b) An appeal from aan initial eligibility determination 94530
described in division (A)(1)(a) of this section pursuant to 94531
section 5101.355160.31 of the Revised Code. 94532

       (2)(a) Except as provided in division (A)(2)(b) of this 94533
section, this section shall not be used by a court to determine 94534
the effect of a trust on an individual's initial eligibility for 94535
the medicaid program. 94536

       (b) The prohibition in division (A)(2)(a) of this section 94537
does not apply to an appeal described in division (A)(1)(b) of 94538
this section.94539

        (B) As used in this section:94540

        (1) "Trust" means any arrangement in which a grantor 94541
transfers real or personal property to a trust with the intention 94542
that it be held, managed, or administered by at least one trustee 94543
for the benefit of the grantor or beneficiaries. "Trust" includes 94544
any legal instrument or device similar to a trust.94545

        (2) "Legal instrument or device similar to a trust" includes, 94546
but is not limited to, escrow accounts, investment accounts, 94547
partnerships, contracts, and other similar arrangements that are 94548
not called trusts under state law but are similar to a trust and 94549
to which all of the following apply:94550

        (a) The property in the trust is held, managed, retained, or 94551
administered by a trustee.94552

        (b) The trustee has an equitable, legal, or fiduciary duty to 94553
hold, manage, retain, or administer the property for the benefit 94554
of the beneficiary.94555

        (c) The trustee holds identifiable property for the 94556
beneficiary.94557

        (3) "Grantor" is a person who creates a trust, including all 94558
of the following:94559

        (a) An individual;94560

        (b) An individual's spouse;94561

        (c) A person, including a court or administrative body, with 94562
legal authority to act in place of or on behalf of an individual 94563
or an individual's spouse;94564

        (d) A person, including a court or administrative body, that 94565
acts at the direction or on request of an individual or the 94566
individual's spouse.94567

        (4) "Beneficiary" is a person or persons, including a 94568
grantor, who benefits in some way from a trust.94569

        (5) "Trustee" is a person who manages a trust's principal and 94570
income for the benefit of the beneficiaries.94571

        (6) "Person" has the same meaning as in section 1.59 of the 94572
Revised Code and includes an individual, corporation, business 94573
trust, estate, trust, partnership, and association.94574

        (7) "Applicant" is an individual who applies for medicaid or 94575
the individual's spouse.94576

        (8) "Recipient" is an individual who receives medicaid or the 94577
individual's spouse.94578

        (9) "Revocable trust" is a trust that can be revoked by the 94579
grantor or the beneficiary, including all of the following, even 94580
if the terms of the trust state that it is irrevocable:94581

        (a) A trust that provides that the trust can be terminated 94582
only by a court;94583

        (b) A trust that terminates on the happening of an event, but 94584
only if the event occurs at the direction or control of the 94585
grantor, beneficiary, or trustee.94586

        (10) "Irrevocable trust" is a trust that cannot be revoked by 94587
the grantor or terminated by a court and that terminates only on 94588
the occurrence of an event outside of the control or direction of 94589
the beneficiary or grantor.94590

        (11) "Payment" is any disbursal from the principal or income 94591
of the trust, including actual cash, noncash or property 94592
disbursements, or the right to use and occupy real property.94593

        (12) "Payments to or for the benefit of the applicant or 94594
recipient" is a payment to any person resulting in a direct or 94595
indirect benefit to the applicant or recipient.94596

        (13) "Testamentary trust" is a trust that is established by a 94597
will and does not take effect until after the death of the person 94598
who created the trust.94599

        (C)(1) If an applicant or recipient is a beneficiary of a 94600
trust, the applicant or recipient shall submit a complete copy of 94601
the trust instrument to the county department of job and family 94602
services and the department of medicaid. A copy shall be 94603
considered complete if it contains all pages of the trust 94604
instrument and all schedules, attachments, and accounting 94605
statements referenced in or associated with the trust. The copy is 94606
confidential and is not subject to disclosure under section 149.43 94607
of the Revised Code.94608

        (2) On receipt of a copy of a trust instrument or otherwise 94609
determining that an applicant or recipient is a beneficiary of a 94610
trust, the county department of job and family services shall 94611
determine what type of trust it is and shall treat the trust in 94612
accordance with the appropriate provisions of this section and 94613
rules adopted by the department of job and family servicesunder 94614
section 5163.02 of the Revised Code governing trusts. The county 94615
department of job and family services may determine that any of 94616
the following is the case regarding the trust or portion of the 94617
trust:94618

        (a) IsIt is a resource available to the applicant or 94619
recipient;94620

        (b) ContainsIt contains income available to the applicant or 94621
recipient;94622

        (c) Constitutes both items described in divisionsDivisions94623
(C)(1)(2)(a) and (b) of this section are both applicable;94624

        (d) Is neither an item described inNeither division 94625
(C)(1)(2)(a) nor (C)(1)(b) of this section is applicable.94626

       (2)(3) Except as provided in division (F) of this section, a 94627
trust or portion of a trust that is a resource available to the 94628
applicant or recipient or contains income available to the 94629
applicant or recipient shall be counted for purposes of 94630
determining medicaid eligibility.94631

        (D)(1) A trust or legal instrument or device similar to a 94632
trust shall be considered a medicaid qualifying trust if all of 94633
the following apply:94634

       (a) The trust was established on or prior to August 10, 1993.94635

       (b) The trust was not established by a will.94636

       (c) The trust was established by an applicant or recipient.94637

       (d) The applicant or recipient is or may become the 94638
beneficiary of all or part of the trust.94639

       (e) Payment from the trust is determined by one or more 94640
trustees who are permitted to exercise any discretion with respect 94641
to the distribution to the applicant or recipient.94642

       (2) If a trust meets the requirement of division (D)(1) of 94643
this section, the amount of the trust that is considered by the 94644
county department of job and family services to be a resource 94645
available to the applicant or recipient shall be the maximum 94646
amount of payments permitted under the terms of the trust to be 94647
distributed to the applicant or recipient, assuming the full 94648
exercise of discretion by the trustee or trustees. The maximum 94649
amount shall include only amounts that are permitted to be 94650
distributed but are not distributed from either the income or 94651
principal of the trust.94652

       (3) Amounts that are actually distributed from a medicaid 94653
qualifying trust to a beneficiary for any purpose shall be treated 94654
in accordance with rules adopted by the department of job and 94655
family servicesunder section 5163.02 of the Revised Code94656
governing income.94657

       (4) Availability of a medicaid qualifying trust shall be 94658
considered without regard to any of the following:94659

       (a) Whether or not the trust is irrevocable or was 94660
established for purposes other than to enable a grantor to qualify 94661
for medicaid, medical assistance for covered families and 94662
children, or as a qualified medicare beneficiary, specified 94663
low-income medicare beneficiary, qualifying individual-1, or 94664
qualifying individual-2;94665

       (b) Whether or not the trustee actually exercises discretion.94666

       (5) If any real or personal property is transferred to a 94667
medicaid qualifying trust that is not distributable to the 94668
applicant or recipient, the transfer shall be considered an 94669
improper disposition of assets and shall be subject to section 94670
5111.01165163.30 of the Revised Code and rules to implement that 94671
section adopted under section 5111.0115163.02 of the Revised 94672
Code.94673

       (6) The baseline date for the look-back period for 94674
disposition of assets involving a medicaid qualifying trust shall 94675
be the date on which the applicant or recipient is both 94676
institutionalized and first applies for medicaid.94677

       (E)(1) A trust or legal instrument or device similar to a 94678
trust shall be considered a self-settled trust if all of the 94679
following apply:94680

        (a) The trust was established on or after August 11, 1993.94681

        (b) The trust was not established by a will.94682

        (c) The trust was established by an applicant or recipient, 94683
spouse of an applicant or recipient, or a person, including a 94684
court or administrative body, with legal authority to act in place 94685
of or on behalf of an applicant, recipient, or spouse, or acting 94686
at the direction or on request of an applicant, recipient, or 94687
spouse.94688

        (2) A trust that meets the requirements of division (E)(1) of 94689
this section and is a revocable trust shall be treated by the 94690
county department of job and family services as follows:94691

        (a) The corpus of the trust shall be considered a resource 94692
available to the applicant or recipient.94693

        (b) Payments from the trust to or for the benefit of the 94694
applicant or recipient shall be considered unearned income of the 94695
applicant or recipient.94696

        (c) Any other payments from the trust shall be considered an 94697
improper disposition of assets and shall be subject to section 94698
5111.01165163.30 of the Revised Code and rules to implement that 94699
section adopted under section 5111.0115163.02 of the Revised 94700
Code.94701

        (3) A trust that meets the requirements of division (E)(1) of 94702
this section and is an irrevocable trust shall be treated by the 94703
county department of job and family services as follows:94704

        (a) If there are any circumstances under which payment from 94705
the trust could be made to or for the benefit of the applicant or 94706
recipient, including a payment that can be made only in the 94707
future, the portion from which payments could be made shall be 94708
considered a resource available to the applicant or recipient. The 94709
county department of job and family services shall not take into 94710
account when payments can be made.94711

        (b) Any payment that is actually made to or for the benefit 94712
of the applicant or recipient from either the corpus or income 94713
shall be considered unearned income.94714

        (c) If a payment is made to someone other than to the 94715
applicant or recipient and the payment is not for the benefit of 94716
the applicant or recipient, the payment shall be considered an 94717
improper disposition of assets and shall be subject to section 94718
5111.01165163.30 of the Revised Code and rules to implement that 94719
section adopted under section 5111.0115163.02 of the Revised 94720
Code.94721

        (d) The date of the disposition shall be the later of the 94722
date of establishment of the trust or the date of the occurrence 94723
of the event.94724

        (e) When determining the value of the disposed asset under 94725
this provision, the value of the trust shall be its value on the 94726
date payment to the applicant or recipient was foreclosed.94727

        (f) Any income earned or other resources added subsequent to 94728
the foreclosure date shall be added to the total value of the 94729
trust.94730

        (g) Any payments to or for the benefit of the applicant or 94731
recipient after the foreclosure date but prior to the application 94732
date shall be subtracted from the total value. Any other payments 94733
shall not be subtracted from the value.94734

        (h) Any addition of assets after the foreclosure date shall 94735
be considered a separate disposition.94736

        (4) If a trust is funded with assets of another person or 94737
persons in addition to assets of the applicant or recipient, the 94738
applicable provisions of this section and rules adopted by the 94739
department of job and family servicesunder section 5163.02 of the 94740
Revised Code governing trusts shall apply only to the portion of 94741
the trust attributable to the applicant or recipient.94742

        (5) The availability of a self-settled trust shall be 94743
considered without regard to any of the following:94744

        (a) The purpose for which the trust is established;94745

        (b) Whether the trustees have exercised or may exercise 94746
discretion under the trust;94747

        (c) Any restrictions on when or whether distributions may be 94748
made from the trust;94749

        (d) Any restrictions on the use of distributions from the 94750
trust.94751

        (6) The baseline date for the look-back period for 94752
dispositions of assets involving a self-settled trust shall be the 94753
date on which the applicant or recipient is both institutionalized 94754
and first applies for medicaid.94755

        (F) The principal or income from any of the following shall 94756
not be a resource available to the applicant or recipient:94757

        (1)(a) A special needs trust that meets all of the following 94758
requirements:94759

        (i) The trust contains assets of an applicant or recipient 94760
under sixty-five years of age and may contain the assets of other 94761
individuals.94762

        (ii) The applicant or recipient is disabled as defined in 94763
rules adopted by the department of job and family servicesunder 94764
section 5163.02 of the Revised Code.94765

        (iii) The trust is established for the benefit of the 94766
applicant or recipient by a parent, grandparent, legal guardian, 94767
or a court.94768

        (iv) The trust requires that on the death of the applicant or 94769
recipient the state will receive all amounts remaining in the 94770
trust up to an amount equal to the total amount of medicaid paid94771
payments made on behalf of the applicant or recipient.94772

        (b) If a special needs trust meets the requirements of 94773
division (F)(1)(a) of this section and has been established for a 94774
disabled applicant or recipient under sixty-five years of age, the 94775
exemption for the trust granted pursuant to division (F) of this 94776
section shall continue after the disabled applicant or recipient 94777
becomes sixty-five years of age if the applicant or recipient 94778
continues to be disabled as defined in rules adopted by the 94779
department of job and family servicesunder section 5163.02 of the 94780
Revised Code. Except for income earned by the trust, the grantor 94781
shall not add to or otherwise augment the trust after the 94782
applicant or recipient attains sixty-five years of age. An 94783
addition or augmentation of the trust by the applicant or 94784
recipient with the applicant's own assets after the applicant or 94785
recipient attains sixty-five years of age shall be treated as an 94786
improper disposition of assets.94787

        (c) Cash distributions to the applicant or recipient shall be 94788
counted as unearned income. All other distributions from the trust 94789
shall be treated as provided in rules adopted by the department of 94790
job and family servicesunder section 5163.02 of the Revised Code94791
governing in-kind income.94792

        (d) Transfers of assets to a special needs trust shall not be 94793
treated as an improper transfer of resources. An asset held prior 94794
to the transfer to the trust shall be considered as a resource 94795
available to the applicant or recipient, income available to the 94796
applicant or recipient, or both a resource and income available to 94797
the individual.94798

        (2)(a) A qualifying income trust that meets all of the 94799
following requirements:94800

        (i) The trust is composed only of pension, social security, 94801
and other income to the applicant or recipient, including 94802
accumulated interest in the trust.94803

        (ii) The income is received by the individual and the right 94804
to receive the income is not assigned or transferred to the trust.94805

        (iii) The trust requires that on the death of the applicant 94806
or recipient the state will receive all amounts remaining in the 94807
trust up to an amount equal to the total amount of medicaid paid94808
payments made on behalf of the applicant or recipient.94809

        (b) No resources shall be used to establish or augment the 94810
trust.94811

        (c) If an applicant or recipient has irrevocably transferred 94812
or assigned the applicant's or recipient's right to receive income 94813
to the trust, the trust shall not be considered a qualifying 94814
income trust by the county department of job and family services.94815

        (d) Income placed in a qualifying income trust shall not be 94816
counted in determining an applicant's or recipient's eligibility 94817
for medicaid. The recipient of the funds may place any income 94818
directly into a qualifying income trust without those funds 94819
adversely affecting the applicant's or recipient's eligibility for 94820
medicaid. Income generated by the trust that remains in the trust 94821
shall not be considered as income to the applicant or recipient.94822

        (e) All income placed in a qualifying income trust shall be 94823
combined with any income available to the individual that is not 94824
placed in the trust to arrive at a base income figure to be used 94825
for spend down calculations.94826

        (f) The base income figure shall be used for post-eligibility 94827
deductions, including personal needs allowance, monthly income 94828
allowance, family allowance, and medical expenses not subject to 94829
third party payment. Any income remaining shall be used toward 94830
payment of patient liability. Payments made from a qualifying 94831
income trust shall not be combined with the base income figure for 94832
post-eligibility calculations.94833

        (g) The base income figure shall be used when determining the 94834
spend down budget for the applicant or recipient. Any income 94835
remaining after allowable deductions are permitted as provided 94836
under rules adopted by the department of job and family services94837
under section 5163.02 of the Revised Code shall be considered the 94838
applicant's or recipient's spend down liability.94839

        (3)(a) A pooled trust that meets all of the following 94840
requirements:94841

        (i) The trust contains the assets of the applicant or 94842
recipient of any age who is disabled as defined in rules adopted 94843
by the department of job and family servicesunder section 5163.02 94844
of the Revised Code.94845

        (ii) The trust is established and managed by a nonprofit 94846
organization.94847

        (iii) A separate account is maintained for each beneficiary 94848
of the trust but, for purposes of investment and management of 94849
funds, the trust pools the funds in these accounts.94850

        (iv) Accounts in the trust are established by the applicant 94851
or recipient, the applicant's or recipient's parent, grandparent, 94852
or legal guardian, or a court solely for the benefit of 94853
individuals who are disabled.94854

        (v) The trust requires that, to the extent that any amounts 94855
remaining in the beneficiary's account on the death of the 94856
beneficiary are not retained by the trust, the trust pay to the 94857
state the amounts remaining in the trust up to an amount equal to 94858
the total amount of medicaid paidpayments made on behalf of the 94859
beneficiary.94860

        (b) Cash distributions to the applicant or recipient shall be 94861
counted as unearned income. All other distributions from the trust 94862
shall be treated as provided in rules adopted by the department of 94863
job and family servicesunder section 5163.02 of the Revised Code94864
governing in-kind income.94865

        (c) Transfers of assets to a pooled trust shall not be 94866
treated as an improper disposition of assets. An asset held prior 94867
to the transfer to the trust shall be considered as a resource 94868
available to the applicant or recipient, income available to the 94869
applicant or recipient, or both a resource and income available to 94870
the applicant or recipient.94871

        (4) A supplemental services trust that meets the requirements 94872
of section 5815.28 of the Revised Code and to which all of the 94873
following apply:94874

        (a) A person may establish a supplemental services trust 94875
pursuant to section 5815.28 of the Revised Code only for another 94876
person who is eligible to receive services through one of the 94877
following agencies:94878

        (i) The department of developmental disabilities;94879

        (ii) A county board of developmental disabilities;94880

        (iii) The department of mental healthmental health and 94881
addiction services;94882

        (iv) A board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 94883
services.94884

        (b) A county department of job and family services shall not 94885
determine eligibility for another agency's program. An applicant 94886
or recipient shall do one of the following:94887

        (i) Provide documentation from one of the agencies listed in 94888
division (F)(4)(a) of this section that establishes that the 94889
applicant or recipient was determined to be eligible for services 94890
from the agency at the time of the creation of the trust;94891

        (ii) Provide an order from a court of competent jurisdiction 94892
that states that the applicant or recipient was eligible for 94893
services from one of the agencies listed in division (F)(4)(a) of 94894
this section at the time of the creation of the trust.94895

        (c) At the time the trust is created, the trust principal 94896
does not exceed the maximum amount permitted. The maximum amount 94897
permitted in calendar year 2006 is two hundred twenty-two thousand 94898
dollars. Each year thereafter, the maximum amount permitted is the 94899
prior year's amount plus two thousand dollars.94900

        (d) A county department of job and family services shall 94901
review the trust to determine whether it complies with the 94902
provisions of section 5815.28 of the Revised Code.94903

        (e) Payments from supplemental services trusts shall be 94904
exempt as long as the payments are for supplemental services as 94905
defined in rules adopted by the department of job and family 94906
servicesunder section 5163.02 of the Revised Code. All 94907
supplemental services shall be purchased by the trustee and shall 94908
not be purchased through direct cash payments to the beneficiary.94909

        (f) If a trust is represented as a supplemental services 94910
trust and a county department of job and family services 94911
determines that the trust does not meet the requirements provided 94912
in division (F)(4) of this section and section 5815.28 of the 94913
Revised Code, the county department of job and family services 94914
shall not consider it an exempt trust.94915

        (G)(1) A trust or legal instrument or device similar to a 94916
trust shall be considered a trust established by an individual for 94917
the benefit of the applicant or recipient if all of the following 94918
apply:94919

        (a) The trust is created by a person other than the applicant 94920
or recipient.94921

        (b) The trust names the applicant or recipient as a 94922
beneficiary.94923

        (c) The trust is funded with assets or property in which the 94924
applicant or recipient has never held an ownership interest prior 94925
to the establishment of the trust.94926

        (2) Any portion of a trust that meets the requirements of 94927
division (G)(1) of this section shall be a resource available to 94928
the applicant or recipient only if the trust permits the trustee 94929
to expend principal, corpus, or assets of the trust for the 94930
applicant's or recipient's medical care, care, comfort, 94931
maintenance, health, welfare, general well being, or any 94932
combination of these purposes.94933

        (3) A trust that meets the requirements of division (G)(1) of 94934
this section shall be considered a resource available to the 94935
applicant or recipient even if the trust contains any of the 94936
following types of provisions:94937

        (a) A provision that prohibits the trustee from making 94938
payments that would supplant or replace medicaid or other public 94939
assistance;94940

        (b) A provision that prohibits the trustee from making 94941
payments that would impact or have an effect on the applicant's or 94942
recipient's right, ability, or opportunity to receive medicaid or 94943
other public assistance;94944

        (c) A provision that attempts to prevent the trust or its 94945
corpus or principal from being a resource available to the 94946
applicant or recipient.94947

        (4) A trust that meets the requirements of division (G)(1) of 94948
this section shall not be counted as a resource available to the 94949
applicant or recipient if at least one of the following 94950
circumstances applies:94951

        (a) If a trust contains a clear statement requiring the 94952
trustee to preserve a portion of the trust for another beneficiary 94953
or remainderman, that portion of the trust shall not be counted as 94954
a resource available to the applicant or recipient. Terms of a 94955
trust that grant discretion to preserve a portion of the trust 94956
shall not qualify as a clear statement requiring the trustee to 94957
preserve a portion of the trust.94958

        (b) If a trust contains a clear statement requiring the 94959
trustee to use a portion of the trust for a purpose other than 94960
medical care, care, comfort, maintenance, welfare, or general well 94961
being of the applicant or recipient, that portion of the trust 94962
shall not be counted as a resource available to the applicant or 94963
recipient. Terms of a trust that grant discretion to limit the use 94964
of a portion of the trust shall not qualify as a clear statement 94965
requiring the trustee to use a portion of the trust for a 94966
particular purpose.94967

        (c) If a trust contains a clear statement limiting the 94968
trustee to making fixed periodic payments, the trust shall not be 94969
counted as a resource available to the applicant or recipient and 94970
payments shall be treated in accordance with rules adopted by the 94971
department of job and family servicesunder section 5163.02 of the 94972
Revised Code governing income. Terms of a trust that grant 94973
discretion to limit payments shall not qualify as a clear 94974
statement requiring the trustee to make fixed periodic payments.94975

        (d) If a trust contains a clear statement that requires the 94976
trustee to terminate the trust if it is counted as a resource 94977
available to the applicant or recipient, the trust shall not be 94978
counted as such. Terms of a trust that grant discretion to 94979
terminate the trust do not qualify as a clear statement requiring 94980
the trustee to terminate the trust.94981

        (e) If a person obtains a judgment from a court of competent 94982
jurisdiction that expressly prevents the trustee from using part 94983
or all of the trust for the medical care, care, comfort, 94984
maintenance, welfare, or general well being of the applicant or 94985
recipient, the trust or that portion of the trust subject to the 94986
court order shall not be counted as a resource available to the 94987
applicant or recipient.94988

        (f) If a trust is specifically exempt from being counted as a 94989
resource available to the applicant or recipient by a provision of 94990
the Revised Code, rules, or federal law, the trust shall not be 94991
counted as such.94992

        (g) If an applicant or recipient presents a final judgment 94993
from a court demonstrating that the applicant or recipient was 94994
unsuccessful in a civil action against the trustee to compel 94995
payments from the trust, the trust shall not be counted as a 94996
resource available to the applicant or recipient.94997

        (h) If an applicant or recipient presents a final judgment 94998
from a court demonstrating that in a civil action against the 94999
trustee the applicant or recipient was only able to compel limited 95000
or periodic payments, the trust shall not be counted as a resource 95001
available to the applicant or recipient and payments shall be 95002
treated in accordance with rules adopted by the department of job 95003
and family servicesunder section 5163.02 of the Revised Code95004
governing income.95005

        (i) If an applicant or recipient provides written 95006
documentation showing that the cost of a civil action brought to 95007
compel payments from the trust would be cost prohibitive, the 95008
trust shall not be counted as a resource available to the 95009
applicant or recipient.95010

        (5) Any actual payments to the applicant or recipient from a 95011
trust that meet the requirements of division (G)(1) of this 95012
section, including trusts that are not counted as a resource 95013
available to the applicant or recipient, shall be treated as 95014
provided in rules adopted by the department of job and family 95015
servicesunder section 5163.02 of the Revised Code governing 95016
income. Payments to any person other than the applicant or 95017
recipient shall not be considered income to the applicant or 95018
recipient. Payments from the trust to a person other than the 95019
applicant or recipient shall not be considered an improper 95020
disposition of assets.95021

       Sec. 5111.181.        Sec. 5163.22.  (A) The general assembly hereby finds 95022
that the state has an insurable interest in medical assistance95023
medicaid recipients because of the state's statutory right to 95024
recover from the estate of a recipient state funds used to provide 95025
the recipient with medical care andmedicaid services.95026

       (B) As used in this section:95027

       (1) "Beneficiary" means the person or entity designated in a 95028
life insurance policy to receive the proceeds of the policy on the 95029
death of the insured or maturity of the policy.95030

       (2) "Owner" means the person who has the right to designate 95031
the beneficiary of a life insurance policy and to change the 95032
designation.95033

       (C) Notwithstanding section 5111.011 of the Revised Code, the95034
The value of a life insurance policy that would otherwise be 95035
considered a resource in determining eligibility for the medical 95036
assistancemedicaid program shall be excluded from any 95037
determination of a person's eligibility for the medical assistance95038
medicaid program if the owner designates the department of job and 95039
family servicesmedicaid as beneficiary of the policy. The 95040
department may pay premiums to keep the policy in force. Premiums 95041
paid by the department are medical assistancemedicaid payments 95042
correctly paid on behalf of a medical assistancemedicaid95043
recipient and subject to recovery under section 5111.115162.21 of 95044
the Revised Code.95045

       (D) The medicaid director of job and family services shall 95046
deposit the proceeds of a life insurance policy that do not exceed 95047
the amount the department may recover against the property and 95048
estate of the owner under section 5111.115162.21 of the Revised 95049
Code into the general revenue fund. The director shall pay any 95050
remaining proceeds to the person designated by the owner. If the 95051
owner failed to designate a person, the director shall pay the 95052
remaining proceeds to the surviving spouse, or, if there is no 95053
surviving spouse, to the estate of the owner.95054

       (E) If the owner designates the department of job and family 95055
servicesmedicaid as the policy's beneficiary, the department 95056
shall notify the owner that the owner may designate a person to 95057
receive proceeds of the policy that exceed the amount the 95058
department may recover against the owner's property and estate 95059
under section 5111.115162.21 of the Revised Code. The designation 95060
shall be made on a form provided by the department.95061

       (F) The department of job and family services shall not 95062
implement this section if implementation would violate any federal 95063
requirement unless the department receives a waiver of the 95064
requirement from the United States department of health and human 95065
services.95066

       Sec. 5111.0116.        Sec. 5163.30.  (A) As used in this section:95067

       (1) "Assets" include all of an individual's income and 95068
resources and those of the individual's spouse, including any 95069
income or resources the individual or spouse is entitled to but 95070
does not receive because of action by any of the following:95071

       (a) The individual or spouse;95072

       (b) A person or government entity, including a court or 95073
administrative agency, with legal authority to act in place of or 95074
on behalf of the individual or spouse;95075

       (c) A person or government entity, including a court or 95076
administrative agency, acting at the direction or on the request 95077
of the individual or spouse.95078

       (2) "Home and community-based services" means home and 95079
community-based services furnished under a medicaid waiver granted 95080
by the United States secretary of health and human services under 95081
the "Social Security Act," section 1915(c) or (d), 42 U.S.C. 95082
1396n(c) or (d).95083

       (3) "Institutionalized individual" means a resident of a 95084
nursing facility, an inpatient in a medical institution for whom a 95085
payment is made based on a level of care provided in a nursing 95086
facility, or an individual described in the "Social Security Act," 95087
section 1902(a)(10)(A)(ii)(VI), 42 U.S.C. 1396a(a)(10)(A)(ii)(VI).95088

       (4) "Look-back date" means the date that is a number of 95089
months specified in rules adopted under section 5111.0115163.0295090
of the Revised Code immediately before either of the following:95091

       (a) The date an individual becomes an institutionalized 95092
individual if the individual is eligible for medicaid on that 95093
date;95094

       (b) The date an individual applies for medicaid while an 95095
institutionalized individual.95096

       (5) "Nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 95097
5111.20 of the Revised Code.95098

       (6) "Nursing facility equivalent services" means services 95099
that are covered by the medicaid program, equivalent to nursing 95100
facility services, provided by an institution that provides the 95101
same level of care as a nursing facility, and provided to an 95102
inpatient of the institution who is a medicaid recipient eligible 95103
for medicaid-covered nursing facility equivalent services.95104

       (7) "Nursing facility services" means nursing facility 95105
services covered by the medicaid program that a nursing facility 95106
provides to a resident of the nursing facility who is a medicaid 95107
recipient eligible for medicaid-covered nursing facility services.95108

       (8)(6) "Undue hardship" means being deprived of either of the 95109
following:95110

       (a) Medical care such that an individual's health or life is 95111
endangered;95112

       (b) Food, clothing, shelter, or other necessities of life.95113

       (B) Except as provided in division (C) of this section and 95114
rules adopted under section 5111.0115163.02 of the Revised Code, 95115
an institutionalized individual is ineligible for nursing facility 95116
services, nursing facility equivalent services, and home and 95117
community-based services if the individual or individual's spouse 95118
disposes of assets for less than fair market value on or after the 95119
look-back date. The institutionalized individual's ineligibility 95120
shall begin on a date determined in accordance with rules adopted 95121
under section 5111.0115163.02 of the Revised Code and shall 95122
continue for a number of months determined in accordance with such 95123
rules.95124

       (C) An institutionalized individual may be granted a waiver 95125
of all or a portion of the period of ineligibility to which the 95126
individual would otherwise be subjected under division (B) of this 95127
section if the ineligibility would cause an undue hardship for the 95128
individual. An institutionalized individual shall be granted a 95129
waiver of all or a portion of the period of ineligibility if the 95130
administrator of the nursing facility in which the individual 95131
resides has notified the individual of a proposed transfer or 95132
discharge under section 3721.16 of the Revised Code due to failure 95133
to pay for the care the nursing facility has provided to the 95134
individual, the individual or the individual's sponsor requests a 95135
hearing on the proposed transfer or discharge in accordance with 95136
section 3721.161 of the Revised Code, and the transfer or 95137
discharge is upheld by a final determination that is not subject 95138
to further appeal. Waivers shall be granted in accordance with 95139
rules adopted under section 5111.0115163.02 of the Revised Code.95140

       (D) To secure compliance with this section, the medicaid95141
director of job and family services may require an individual, as 95142
a condition of initial or continued eligibility for medicaid, to 95143
provide documentation of the individual's assets up to five years 95144
before the date the individual becomes an institutionalized 95145
individual if the individual is eligible for medicaid on that date 95146
or the date the individual applies for medicaid while an 95147
institutionalized individual. Documentation may include tax 95148
returns, records from financial institutions, and real property 95149
records.95150

       Sec. 5111.0117.        Sec. 5163.31.  (A) As used in this section and 95151
section 5111.0118 of the Revised Code:95152

       (1) "ICF/MR services" means intermediate care facility for 95153
the mentally retarded services covered by the medicaid program 95154
that an intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded 95155
provides to a resident of the facility who is a medicaid recipient 95156
eligible for medicaid-covered intermediate care facility for the 95157
mentally retarded services.95158

       (2) "Intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded" 95159
has the same meaning as in section 5111.20 of the Revised Code.95160

       (3) "Nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 95161
5111.20 of the Revised Code.95162

       (4) "Nursing facility services" means nursing facility 95163
services covered by the medicaid program that a nursing facility 95164
provides to a resident of the nursing facility who is a medicaid 95165
recipient eligible for medicaid-covered nursing facility services.95166

       (5) "Other medicaid-funded long-term care services" has the 95167
meaning specified in rules adopted under section 5111.011 of the 95168
Revised Code.95169

       (B) Except as provided by division (C)(A) of this section and 95170
for the purpose of determining whether an aged, blind, or disabled 95171
individual is eligible for nursing facility services, ICF/MR 95172
services, or other medicaid-funded long-term care services, the 95173
medicaid director of job and family services may consider an aged, 95174
blind, or disabled individual's real property to not be the 95175
individual's homestead or principal place of residence once the 95176
individual has resided in a nursing facility, intermediate care 95177
facility for the mentally retardedICF/MR, or other medical 95178
institution for at least thirteen months.95179

       (C)(B) Division (B)(A) of this section does not apply to an 95180
individual if any of the following reside in the individual's real 95181
property that, because of this division, continues to be 95182
considered the individual's homestead or principal place of 95183
residence:95184

       (1) The individual's spouse;95185

       (2) The individual's child if any of the following apply:95186

       (a) The child is under twenty-one years of age.95187

       (b) The child is considered blind or disabled under the 95188
"Social Security Act," section 1614, 42 U.S.C. 1382c.95189

       (c) The child is financially dependent on the individual for 95190
housing as determined in accordance with rules adopted under 95191
section 5111.0115163.02 of the Revised Code.95192

       (3) The individual's sibling if the sibling has a verified 95193
equity interest in the real property and resided in the real 95194
property for at least one year immediately before the date the 95195
individual was admitted to the nursing facility, intermediate care 95196
facility for the mentally retardedICF/MR, or other medical 95197
institution.95198

       Sec. 5111.0118.        Sec. 5163.32.  (A) Except as otherwise provided by 95199
this section, no individual shall qualify for nursing facility 95200
services or other medicaid-funded long-term care services if the 95201
individual's equity interest in the individual's home exceeds five 95202
hundred thousand dollars. The medicaid director of job and family 95203
services shall increase this amount effective January 1, 2011, and 95204
the first day of each year thereafter, by the percentage increase 95205
in the consumer price index for all urban consumers (all items; 95206
United States city average), rounded to the nearest one thousand 95207
dollars.95208

       (B) This section does not apply to an individual if either of 95209
the following applies:95210

       (1) Either of the following lawfully reside in the 95211
individual's home:95212

       (a) The individual's spouse;95213

       (b) The individual's child if the child is under twenty-one 95214
years of age or, under the "Social Security Act," section 1614, 42 95215
U.S.C. 1382c, considered blind or disabled.95216

       (2) The individual qualifies, pursuant to the process 95217
established under division (C) of this section, for a waiver of 95218
this section due to a demonstrated hardship.95219

       (C) The director shall establish a process by which 95220
individuals may obtain a waiver of this section due to a 95221
demonstrated hardship. The process shall be consistent with the 95222
process for such waivers established by the United States 95223
secretary of health and human services under the "Social Security 95224
Act," section 1917(f)(4), 42 U.S.C. 1396p(f)(4).95225

       (D) Nothing in this section shall be construed as preventing 95226
an individual from using a reverse mortgage or home equity loan to 95227
reduce the individual's total equity interest in the home.95228

       Sec. 5111.114.        Sec. 5163.33. As used in this section, "nursing 95229
facility" and "intermediate care facility for the mentally 95230
retarded" have the same meanings as in section 5111.20 of the 95231
Revised Code.95232

       (A) In determining the amount of income that a medicaid95233
recipient of medical assistance must apply monthly toward payment 95234
of the cost of care in a nursing facility or intermediate care 95235
facility for the mentally retardedICF/MR, thea county department 95236
of job and family services shall deduct from the recipient's 95237
monthly income a monthly personal needs allowance in accordance 95238
with section 1902 of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 95239
(1935)section 1902(q), 42 U.S.C.A. 1396a, as amended1396a(q).95240

       For(B) In the case of a resident of a nursing facility, the 95241
monthly personal needs allowance shall be as follows:95242

       (1) Prior to January 1, 2014, not less than forty dollars for 95243
an individual resident and not less than eighty dollars for a 95244
married couple if both spouses are residents of a nursing facility 95245
and their incomes are considered available to each other in 95246
determining eligibility;95247

       (2) For calendar year 2014, not less than forty-five dollars 95248
for an individual resident and not less than ninety dollars for a 95249
married couple if both spouses are residents of a nursing facility 95250
and their incomes are considered available to each other in 95251
determining eligibility;95252

       (3) For calendar year 2015 and each calendar year thereafter, 95253
not less than fifty dollars for an individual resident and not 95254
less than one hundred dollars for a married couple if both spouses 95255
are residents of a nursing facility and their incomes are 95256
considered available to each other in determining eligibility.95257

       For(C) In the case of a resident of an intermediate care 95258
facility for the mentally retardedICF/MR, the monthly personal 95259
needs allowance shall be forty dollars unless the resident has 95260
earned income, in which case the monthly personal needs allowance 95261
shall be determined by the state department of job and family 95262
servicesmedicaid, or the department's designee, but shall not 95263
exceed one hundred five dollars.95264

       Sec. 5111.013.        Sec. 5163.40.  (A) The provision of medical 95265
assistance to pregnant women and young children who are eligible 95266
for medical assistance under division (C)(3) of section 5111.01 of 95267
the Revised Code, but who are not otherwise eligible for medical 95268
assistance under that section, shall be known as the healthy start 95269
program.95270

       (B) The department of job and family servicesmedicaid shall 95271
do all of the following with regard to the application procedures 95272
for the healthy start component of the medicaid program:95273

       (1) Establish a short application form for the program95274
component that requires the applicant to provide no more 95275
information than is necessary for making determinations of 95276
eligibility for the healthy start programcomponent, except that 95277
the form may require applicants to provide their social security 95278
numbers. The form shall include a statement, which must be signed 95279
by the applicant, indicating that she does not choose at the time 95280
of making application for the programcomponent to apply for 95281
assistance provided under any other program administered by the 95282
department or the department of job and family services and that 95283
she understands that she is permitted at any other time to apply 95284
at the county department of job and family services of the county 95285
in which she resides for any other assistance administered by the 95286
department or the department of job and family services.95287

       (2) To the extent permitted by federal law, doDo one or both 95288
of the following:95289

       (a) Distribute the application form for the programcomponent95290
to each public or private entity that serves as a women, infants, 95291
and children clinic or as a child and family health clinic and to 95292
each administrative body for such clinics and train employees of 95293
each such agencyclinic or entityadministrative body to provide 95294
applicants assistance in completing the form;95295

       (b) In cooperation with the department of health, develop 95296
arrangements under which employees of county departments of job 95297
and family services are stationed at public or private agencies or95298
entities selected by the department of job and family services95299
medicaid that serve as women, infants, and children clinics; child 95300
and family health clinics; or administrative bodies for such 95301
clinics for the purpose both of assisting applicants for the 95302
programcomponent in completing the application form and of making 95303
determinations at that location of eligibility for the program95304
component.95305

       (3) Establish performance standards by which a county 95306
department of job and family services' level of enrollment of 95307
persons potentially eligible for the programcomponent can be 95308
measured, and establish acceptable levels of enrollment for each 95309
county department.95310

       (4) Direct any county department of job and family services 95311
whose rate of enrollment of potentially eligible enrollees in the 95312
programcomponent is below acceptable levels established under 95313
division (B)(A)(3) of this section to implement corrective 95314
action. Corrective action may include but is not limited to any 95315
one or more of the following to the extent permitted by federal 95316
law:95317

       (a) Establishing formal referral and outreach methods with 95318
local health departments and local entities receiving funding 95319
through the bureau of maternal and child health;95320

       (b) Designating a specialized intake unit within the county 95321
department for healthy start applicants;95322

       (c) Establishing abbreviated timeliness requirements to 95323
shorten the time between receipt of an application and the 95324
scheduling of an initial application interview;95325

       (d) Establishing a system for telephone scheduling of intake 95326
interviews for applicants;95327

       (e) Establishing procedures to minimize the time an applicant 95328
must spend in completing the application and eligibility 95329
determination process, including permitting applicants to complete 95330
the process at times other than the regular business hours of the 95331
county department and at locations other than the offices of the 95332
county department.95333

       (C) To the extent permitted by federal law, local funds, 95334
whether from public or private sources, expended by a county 95335
department for administration of the healthy start program shall 95336
be considered to have been expended by the state for the purpose 95337
of determining the extent to which the state has complied with any 95338
federal requirement that the state provide funds to match federal 95339
funds for medical assistance, except that this division shall not 95340
affect the amount of funds the county is entitled to receive under 95341
section 5101.16, 5101.161, or 5111.012 of the Revised Code.95342

       (D)(B) A county department of job and family services that 95343
maintains offices at more than one location shall accept 95344
applications for the healthy start programcomponent at all of 95345
those locations.95346

       (E) The director of job and family services shall adopt rules 95347
in accordance with section 111.15 of the Revised Code as necessary 95348
to implement this section.95349

       Sec. 5111.0119.        Sec. 5163.45.  (A)(1) As used in this section, 95350
subject to division (A)(2) of this section, "state or local 95351
correctional facility" means any of the following:95352

       (a) A "state correctional institution," as defined in section 95353
2967.01 of the Revised Code;95354

       (b) A "local correctional facility," as defined in section 95355
2903.13 of the Revised Code;95356

       (c) A correctional facility that is privately operated and 95357
managed pursuant to section 9.06 of the Revised Code.95358

       (2) "State or local correctional facility" does not include 95359
any facility operated directly by or at the direction of the 95360
department of youth services.95361

       (B) If a person who is confined in a state or local 95362
correctional facility was a medicaid recipient immediately prior 95363
to being confined in the facility, all of the following apply:95364

       (1) The person's eligibility for medicaid while so confined 95365
shall be suspended due to the confinement.95366

       (2) No medicaid payment shall be made for any care, services, 95367
or supplies provided to the person during the suspension described 95368
in division (B)(1) of this section. 95369

       (3) The suspension described in division (B)(1) of this 95370
section shall end upon the release of the person from the 95371
confinement.95372

       (4) Except as provided in division (C) of this section, the 95373
person shall not be required to reapply or undergo a 95374
redetermination of eligibility for medicaid when the suspension 95375
described in division (B)(1) of this section ends. 95376

       (C) A person may be disenrolled from medicaid any time after 95377
the suspension described in division (B)(1) of this section ends 95378
if the person is no longer eligible for medicaid. A person may be 95379
required to undergo a redetermination of eligibility for medicaid 95380
any time after the suspension described in division (B)(1) of this 95381
section ends if it is time or past time for the person's 95382
eligibility redetermination or the person's circumstances have 95383
changed in a manner warranting a redetermination.95384

       (D) The department of job and family services shall take the 95385
steps necessary to begin implementation of this section not later 95386
than September 1, 2009.95387

       Sec. 5164.01.  As used in this chapter:95388

       (A) "Early and periodic screening, diagnostic, and treatment 95389
services" has the same meaning as in the "Social Security Act," 95390
section 1905(r), 42 U.S.C. 1396d(r).95391

       (B) "Federal financial participation" has the same meaning as 95392
in section 5160.01 of the Revised Code.95393

       (C) "Healthcheck" means the component of the medicaid program 95394
that provides early and periodic screening, diagnostic, and 95395
treatment services.95396

       (D) "Home and community-based services medicaid waiver 95397
component" has the same meaning as in section 5166.01 of the 95398
Revised Code.95399

       (E) "Hospital" has the same meaning as in section 3727.01 of 95400
the Revised Code. 95401

       (F) "ICF/MR" has the same meaning as in section 5124.01 of 95402
the Revised Code.95403

       (G) "Mandatory services" means the health care services and 95404
items that must be covered by the medicaid state plan as a 95405
condition of the state receiving federal financial participation 95406
for the medicaid program.95407

       (H) "Medicaid managed care organization" has the same meaning 95408
as in section 5167.01 of the Revised Code.95409

       (I) "Medicaid provider" means a person or government entity 95410
with a valid provider agreement to provide medicaid services to 95411
medicaid recipients. To the extent appropriate in the context, 95412
"medicaid provider" includes a person or government entity 95413
applying for a provider agreement, a former medicaid provider, or 95414
both.95415

       (J) "Medicaid services" means either or both of the 95416
following:95417

       (1) Mandatory services;95418

       (2) Optional services that the medicaid program covers.95419

       (K) "Nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 95420
5165.01 of the Revised Code.95421

       (L) "Optional services" means the health care services and 95422
items that may be covered by the medicaid state plan or a federal 95423
medicaid waiver and for which the medicaid program receives 95424
federal financial participation.95425

       (M) "Prescribed drug" has the same meaning as in 42 C.F.R. 95426
440.120.95427

       (N) "Provider agreement" means an agreement to which all of 95428
the following apply:95429

       (1) It is between a medicaid provider and the department of 95430
medicaid;95431

       (2) It provides for the medicaid provider to provide medicaid 95432
services to medicaid recipients;95433

       (3) It complies with 42 C.F.R. 431.107(b).95434

       (O) "Terminal distributor of dangerous drugs" has the same 95435
meaning as in section 4729.01 of the Revised Code.95436

       Sec. 5111.02.        Sec. 5164.02. (A) The director of job and family 95437
services shall adopt, and may amend or rescind, rules under95438
medicaid director shall adopt rules as necessary to implement this 95439
chapter. The rules shall be adopted in accordance with Chapter 95440
119. of the Revised Code establishing the amount, duration, and 95441
scope of medicaid services. The rules shall be consistent with 95442
federal and state law. The rules may be different for different 95443
medicaid services. The95444

       (B) The rules shall establish all of the following:95445

        (A) The conditions under which the medicaid program shall 95446
cover and reimburse medicaid services;95447

        (B) The method of reimbursement applicable to each medicaid 95448
service(1) The amount, duration, and scope of the medicaid 95449
services covered by the medicaid program;95450

       (C)(2) The payment amount of reimbursementfor each medicaid 95451
service or, in lieu of amountsthe payment amount, methodsthe 95452
method by which amounts arethe payment amount is to be determined 95453
for each medicaid service;95454

        (D)(3) Procedures for enforcing the rules adopted under this 95455
section that provide due process protections, including procedures 95456
for corrective action plans for, and imposing financial and 95457
administrative sanctions on, persons and government entities that 95458
violate the rules.95459

       (C) The rules may be different for different medicaid 95460
services.95461

       (D) The medicaid director is not required to adopt a rule 95462
establishing the payment amount for a medicaid service if the 95463
director adopts a rule establishing the method by which the 95464
payment amount is to be determined for the medicaid service and 95465
makes the payment amount available on the internet web site 95466
maintained by the department of medicaid.95467

       Sec. 5164.03.  (A) The medicaid program shall cover all 95468
mandatory services.95469

       (B) The medicaid program shall cover all of the optional 95470
services that state statutes require the medicaid program to 95471
cover.95472

       (C) The medicaid program may cover any of the optional 95473
services to which either of the following applies:95474

       (1) State statutes expressly permit the medicaid program to 95475
cover the optional service;95476

       (2) State statutes do not address whether the medicaid 95477
program may cover the optional service.95478

       (D) The medicaid program shall not cover any optional 95479
services that state statutes prohibit the medicaid program from 95480
covering.95481

       Sec. 5111.04.        Sec. 5164.05.  (A) As used in this section:95482

       (1) "Outpatient health facility" means a facility that 95483
provides comprehensive primary health services by or under the 95484
direction of a physician at least five days per week on a 95485
forty-hour per week basis to outpatients, is operated by the board 95486
of health of a city or general health district or another public 95487
agency or by a nonprofit private agency or organization under the 95488
direction and control of a governing board that has no 95489
health-related responsibilities other than the direction and 95490
control of one or more such outpatient health facilities, and 95491
receives at least seventy-five per cent of its operating funds 95492
from public sources, except that it does not include an outpatient 95493
hospital facility or a federally qualified health center as 95494
defined in Sec. 1905(l) (2)(B) of the "Social Security Act," 103 95495
Stat. 2264 (1989)section 1905(l)(2)(B), 42 U.S.C.A.95496
1396d(l)(2)(B).95497

       (2) "Comprehensive primary health services" means preventive, 95498
diagnostic, therapeutic, rehabilitative, or palliative items or 95499
services that include all of the following:95500

       (a) Services of physicians, physician assistants, and 95501
certified nurse practitioners;95502

       (b) Diagnostic laboratory and radiological services;95503

       (c) Preventive health services, such as children's eye and 95504
ear examinations, perinatal services, well child services, and 95505
family planning services;95506

       (d) Arrangements for emergency medical services;95507

       (e) Transportation services.95508

       (3) "Certified nurse practitioner" has the same meaning as in 95509
section 4723.01 of the Revised Code.95510

       (B) OutpatientSubject to division (C) of this section, the 95511
medicaid program shall cover comprehensive primary health services 95512
provided by outpatient health facilities are a separate category 95513
of medical care provider under the rules governing the 95514
administration of the medical assistance program established under 95515
section 5111.01 of the Revised Codewith valid provider 95516
agreements. Rates of reimbursement for items and services provided 95517
by an outpatient health facility under this section shall be 95518
prospectively determined by theThe department of job and family 95519
servicesmedicaid shall prospectively determine the medicaid 95520
payment rates for such comprehensive primary health services not 95521
less often than once each year,. The rates shall not be subject to 95522
retroactive adjustment based on actual costs incurred, and. The 95523
rates shall not exceed the maximum fee schedule or rates of 95524
payment, limitations based on reasonable costs or customary 95525
charges, and limitations based on combined payments received for 95526
furnishing comparable services, as are applicable to outpatient 95527
hospital facilities under Title XVIII of the "Social Security Act95528
medicare program." In determining rates of reimbursementan 95529
outpatient health facility's rate prospectively, the department 95530
shall take into account the historic expenses of the facility, the 95531
operating requirements and services offered by the facility, and 95532
the geographical location of the facility, shall provide 95533
incentives for the efficient and economical utilization of the 95534
facility's resources, and shall ensure that the facility does not 95535
discriminate between classes of persons for whom or by whom 95536
payment for items andthe services is made.95537

       (C) AAn outpatient health facility does not qualify for 95538
classification as an outpatient health facilitymedicaid payments95539
under this section unless it:95540

       (1) Has health and medical care policies developed with the 95541
advice of and subject to review by an advisory committee of 95542
professional personnel, including one or more physicians, one or 95543
more dentists if dental care is provided, and one or more 95544
registered nurses;95545

       (2) Has a medical director, a dental director, if dental care 95546
is provided, and a nursing director responsible for the execution 95547
of such policies, and has physicians, dentists, nursing, and 95548
ancillary staff appropriate to the scope of services provided;95549

       (3) Requires that the care of every patient be under the 95550
supervision of a physician, provides for medical care in case of 95551
emergency, has in effect a written agreement with one or more 95552
hospitals and one or more other outpatient facilities, and has an 95553
established system for the referral of patients to other resources 95554
and a utilization review plan and program;95555

       (4) Maintains clinical records on all patients;95556

       (5) Provides nursing services and other therapeutic services 95557
in compliance with applicable laws and rules and under the 95558
supervision of a registered nurse, and has a registered nurse on 95559
duty at all times when the facility is in operation;95560

       (6) Follows approved methods and procedures for the 95561
dispensing and administration of drugs and biologicals;95562

       (7) Maintains the accounting and record-keeping system 95563
required under federal laws and regulations for the determination 95564
of reasonable and allowable costs.95565

       Sec. 5111.029.        Sec. 5164.06. The medicaid program shall cover 95566
occupational therapy services provided by an occupational 95567
therapist licensed under section 4755.08 of the Revised Code. 95568
Coverage shall not be limited to services provided in a hospital 95569
or nursing facility. Any licensed occupational therapist may enter 95570
into a medicaid provider agreement with the department of job and 95571
family servicesmedicaid to provide occupational therapy services 95572
under the medicaid program.95573

       Sec. 5111.018.        Sec. 5164.07.  (A) The provision of medical 95574
assistance under this chaptermedicaid program shall include 95575
coverage of inpatient care and follow-up care for a mother and her 95576
newborn as follows:95577

       (1) The medical assistance medicaid program shall cover a 95578
minimum of forty-eight hours of inpatient care following a normal 95579
vaginal delivery and a minimum of ninety-six hours of inpatient 95580
care following a cesarean delivery. Services covered as inpatient 95581
care shall include medical, educational, and any other services 95582
that are consistent with the inpatient care recommended in the 95583
protocols and guidelines developed by national organizations that 95584
represent pediatric, obstetric, and nursing professionals.95585

       (2) The medical assistancemedicaid program shall cover a 95586
physician-directed source of follow-up care. Services covered as 95587
follow-up care shall include physical assessment of the mother and 95588
newborn, parent education, assistance and training in breast or 95589
bottle feeding, assessment of the home support system, performance 95590
of any medically necessary and appropriate clinical tests, and any 95591
other services that are consistent with the follow-up care 95592
recommended in the protocols and guidelines developed by national 95593
organizations that represent pediatric, obstetric, and nursing 95594
professionals. The coverage shall apply to services provided in a 95595
medical setting or through home health care visits. The coverage 95596
shall apply to a home health care visit only if the health care 95597
professional who conducts the visit is knowledgeable and 95598
experienced in maternity and newborn care.95599

       When a decision is made in accordance with division (B) of 95600
this section to discharge a mother or newborn prior to the 95601
expiration of the applicable number of hours of inpatient care 95602
required to be covered, the coverage of follow-up care shall apply 95603
to all follow-up care that is provided within forty-eight hours 95604
after discharge. When a mother or newborn receives at least the 95605
number of hours of inpatient care required to be covered, the 95606
coverage of follow-up care shall apply to follow-up care that is 95607
determined to be medically necessary by the health care 95608
professionals responsible for discharging the mother or newborn.95609

       (B) Any decision to shorten the length of inpatient stay to 95610
less than that specified under division (A)(1) of this section 95611
shall be made by the physician attending the mother or newborn, 95612
except that if a nurse-midwife is attending the mother in 95613
collaboration with a physician, the decision may be made by the 95614
nurse-midwife. Decisions regarding early discharge shall be made 95615
only after conferring with the mother or a person responsible for 95616
the mother or newborn. For purposes of this division, a person 95617
responsible for the mother or newborn may include a parent, 95618
guardian, or any other person with authority to make medical 95619
decisions for the mother or newborn.95620

       (C) The department of job and family servicesmedicaid, in 95621
administering the medical assistancemedicaid program, may not do 95622
either of the following:95623

       (1) Terminate the participationprovider agreement of a 95624
health care professional or health care facility as a provider 95625
under the program solely for making recommendations for inpatient 95626
or follow-up care for a particular mother or newborn that are 95627
consistent with the care required to be covered by this section;95628

       (2) Establish or offer monetary or other financial incentives 95629
for the purpose of encouraging a person to decline the inpatient 95630
or follow-up care required to be covered by this section.95631

       (D) This section does not do any of the following:95632

       (1) Require the medical assistancemedicaid program to cover 95633
inpatient or follow-up care that is not received in accordance 95634
with the program's terms pertaining to the health care 95635
professionals and facilities from which an individuala medicaid 95636
recipient is authorized to receive health care services.95637

       (2) Require a mother or newborn to stay in a hospital or 95638
other inpatient setting for a fixed period of time following 95639
delivery;95640

       (3) Require a child to be delivered in a hospital or other 95641
inpatient setting;95642

       (4) Authorize a nurse-midwife to practice beyond the 95643
authority to practice nurse-midwifery in accordance with Chapter 95644
4723. of the Revised Code;95645

       (5) Establish minimum standards of medical diagnosis, care, 95646
or treatment for inpatient or follow-up care for a mother or 95647
newborn. A deviation from the care required to be covered under 95648
this section shall not, on the basis of this section, give rise to 95649
a medical claim or derivative medical claim, as those terms are 95650
defined in section 2305.113 of the Revised Code.95651

       Sec. 5111.024.        Sec. 5164.08.  (A) As used in this section, 95652
"screening mammography" means a radiologic examination utilized to 95653
detect unsuspected breast cancer at an early stage in asymptomatic 95654
women and includes the x-ray examination of the breast using 95655
equipment that is dedicated specifically for mammography, 95656
including the x-ray tube, filter, compression device, screens, 95657
film, and cassettes, and that has an average radiation exposure 95658
delivery of less than one rad mid-breast. "Screening mammography" 95659
includes two views for each breast. The term also includes the 95660
professional interpretation of the film.95661

       "Screening mammography" does not include diagnostic 95662
mammography.95663

       (B) In addition to any other services required to be included 95664
in the program or for which federal approval is received, the 95665
medical assistanceThe medicaid program shall includecover both 95666
of the following if approval for use of federal funds is granted 95667
to the department by the federal agency responsible for 95668
distributing funds under Title XIX of the "Social Security Act," 95669
49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended:95670

       (1) Effective July 1, 1993, screeningScreening mammography 95671
to detect the presence of breast cancer in adult women;95672

       (2) Effective January 1, 1993, cytologicCytologic screening 95673
for the presence of cervical cancer.95674

       (C) The service provided undermedicaid program's coverage of 95675
screening mammography pursuant to division (B)(1) of this section 95676
shall be provided in accordance with all of the following:95677

       (1) If a woman is at least thirty-five years of age but under 95678
forty years of age, one screening mammography;95679

       (2) If a woman is at least forty years of age but under fifty 95680
years of age, either of the following:95681

       (a) One screening mammography every two years;95682

       (b) If a licensed physician has determined that the woman has 95683
risk factors to breast cancer, one screening mammography every 95684
year.95685

       (3) If a woman is at least fifty years of age but under 95686
sixty-five years of age, one screening mammography every year.95687

       (D) The service provided undermedicaid program's coverage of 95688
screening mammographies pursuant to division (B)(1) of this 95689
section shall be provided only for screening mammographies that 95690
are performed in a facility or mobile mammography screening unit 95691
that is accredited under the American college of radiology 95692
mammography accreditation program or in a hospital as defined in 95693
section 3727.01 of the Revised Code.95694

       (E) The service provided undermedicaid program's coverage of 95695
cytologic screenings pursuant to division (B)(2) of this section 95696
shall be provided only for cytologic screenings that are processed 95697
and interpreted in a laboratory certified by the college of 95698
American pathologists or in a hospital as defined in section 95699
3727.01 of the Revised Code.95700

       Sec. 5111.023.        Sec. 5164.15.  (A) As used in this section:95701

       (1) "Community mental health agencyservices provider or 95702
facility" means a community mental health agencyservices provider95703
or facility that has its community mental health services 95704
certified by the department of mental healthmental health and 95705
addiction services under section 5119.6115119.36 of the Revised 95706
Code or by the department of job and family services under section 95707
5103.03 of the Revised Code.95708

        (2) "Mental health professional" means a person qualified to 95709
work with mentally ill persons under the standards established by 95710
the director of mental healthmental health and addiction services95711
pursuant to section 5119.6115119.36 of the Revised Code.95712

        (B) The state medicaid planprogram may include provision of95713
cover the following mental health services when provided by 95714
community mental health agenciesservices providers or facilities:95715

       (1) Outpatient mental health services, including, but not 95716
limited to, preventive, diagnostic, therapeutic, rehabilitative, 95717
and palliative interventions rendered to individuals in an 95718
individual or group setting by a mental health professional in 95719
accordance with a plan of treatment appropriately established, 95720
monitored, and reviewed;95721

       (2) Partial-hospitalization mental health services rendered 95722
by persons directly supervised by a mental health professional;95723

       (3) Unscheduled, emergency mental health services of a kind 95724
ordinarily provided to persons in crisis when rendered by persons 95725
supervised by a mental health professional;95726

       (4) Subject to receipt of federal approval, assertive95727
Assertive community treatment and intensive home-based mental 95728
health services.95729

       (C) The department of job and family servicesmedicaid shall 95730
enter into a separate contract with the department of mental 95731
healthmental health and addiction services under section 5111.9195732
5162.35 of the Revised Code with regard to the component ofmental 95733
health services the medicaid program provided for bycovers 95734
pursuant to this section.95735

       Sec. 5111.027.        Sec. 5164.20. If the medicaid program provides 95736
prescription drug services to medicaid recipients, theThe 95737
medicaid program shall not provide reimbursement for prescription95738
cover prescribed drugs for treatment of erectile dysfunction.95739

       Sec. 5111.042.        Sec. 5164.25.  The departments of developmental 95740
disabilities and job and family servicesmedicaid may approve, 95741
reduce, deny, or terminate a medicaid service included in the 95742
individualized service plan developed for a medicaid recipient 95743
with mental retardation or other developmental disability who is 95744
eligible for medicaid case management services. If either 95745
department approves, reduces, denies, or terminates a service, 95746
that department shall timely notify the medicaid recipient that 95747
the recipient may request a hearing underappeal pursuant to95748
section 5101.355160.31 of the Revised Code.95749

       Sec. 5111.016.        Sec. 5164.26. (A) As used in this section, 95750
"healthcheck" has the same meaning as in section 3313.714 of the 95751
Revised Code.95752

       (B) The department of job and family servicesmedicaid shall 95753
adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code 95754
establishingestablish a combination of written and oral methods 95755
designed to provide information about healthcheck to all persons 95756
eligible for the program or their parents or guardians. The 95757
department shall ensure that its methods of providing information 95758
are effective. The methods shall comply with federal law and 95759
regulations.95760

       Each county department of job and family services or other95761
entity that distributes or accepts applications for medical 95762
assistancemedicaid shall prominently display a notice that 95763
complies with the rules adoptedmethods of providing information 95764
about healthcheck established under this divisionsection.95765

       Sec. 5164.30.  No person or government entity may participate 95766
in the medicaid program as a medicaid provider without a valid 95767
provider agreement with the department of medicaid.95768

       Sec. 5111.053.        Sec. 5164.301. (A) As used in this section, "group 95769
practice" has the same meaning as in section 4731.65 of the 95770
Revised Code.95771

        (B) The department of job and family servicesmedicaid shall 95772
establish a process by which a physician assistant may enter into 95773
a medicaid provider agreement.95774

       (C)(1) Subject to division (C)(2) of this section, a claim 95775
for reimbursementmedicaid payment for a medicaid service provided 95776
by a physician assistant to a medicaid recipient may be submitted 95777
by the physician assistant who provided the service or the 95778
physician, group practice, clinic, or other health care facility 95779
that employs the physician assistant.95780

       (2) A claim for reimbursementmedicaid payment may be 95781
submitted by the physician assistant who provided the service only 95782
if the physician assistant has a valid provider agreement. When 95783
submitting the claim, the physician assistant shall use only the 95784
medicaid provider number the department has assigned to the 95785
physician assistant.95786

       (D) The director of job and family services may adopt rules 95787
under section 5111.02 of the Revised Code to implement this 95788
section.95789

       Sec. 5111.063.        Sec. 5164.31. (A) For the purpose of raising funds 95790
necessary to pay the expenses of implementing the provider 95791
screening requirements of subpart E of 42 C.F.R. Part 455 and 95792
except as provided in division (B) of this section, the department 95793
of job and family servicesmedicaid shall chargecollect an 95794
application fee tofrom a medicaid provider seeking to enter into 95795
or renew a medicaid provider agreement, unless the provider is 95796
exempt from paying the application fee under 42 C.F.R. 455.460(a)95797
before doing any of the following:95798

       (1) Entering into a provider agreement with a medicaid 95799
provider that seeks initial enrollment as a provider;95800

       (2) Entering into a provider agreement with a former medicaid 95801
provider that seeks re-enrollment as a provider;95802

       (3) Revalidating a medicaid provider's continued enrollment 95803
as a provider. The95804

       (B) The department is not to collect an application fee from 95805
a medicaid provider that is exempt from paying the fee under 42 95806
C.F.R. 455.460(a).95807

       (C) The application fees shall be deposited into the health 95808
care services administration fund created under section 5111.9495809
5162.54 of the Revised Code. Application fees are nonrefundable 95810
when collected in accordance with 42 C.F.R. 455.460(a).95811

       (D) The medicaid director of job and family services shall 95812
adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119.under section 5164.0295813
of the Revised Code as necessary to implement this section, 95814
including a rule establishing the amount of the application fee 95815
that is chargedto be collected under this section. The amount of 95816
the application fee shall not be set at an amount that is more 95817
than necessary to pay for the expenses of implementing the 95818
provider screening requirements.95819

       Sec. 5111.028.        Sec. 5164.32.  (A) Pursuant to section 5111.02 of 95820
the Revised Code, the director of job and family services shall 95821
adopt rules establishing procedures for the use of time-limited 95822
provider agreements under the medicaid program. Except as provided 95823
in division (E) of this section, all provider agreements shall be 95824
time-limited in accordance with the procedures established in the 95825
rules.95826

       The department of job and family services shall phase-in the 95827
use of time-limited provider agreements pursuant to this section 95828
during a period commencing not later than January 1, 2008, and 95829
ending January 1, 2015.95830

       (B) In the use of time-limited provider agreements pursuant 95831
to this section, all of the following apply:95832

       (1) Each medicaid provider agreement shall expire not later 95833
than sevenfive years from theits effective date of the 95834
agreement.95835

       (2) During the phase-in period specified in division (A) of 95836
this section, the department may provide for the conversion of. If95837
a provider agreement without a time limitentered into before the 95838
effective date of this amendment does not have a time limit, the 95839
department of medicaid shall convert the agreement to a provider 95840
agreement with a time limit. The department may take an action to 95841
convert the provider agreement by sending a notice by regular mail 95842
to the address of the provider on record with the department 95843
advising the provider of the conversion.95844

       (3) The department may make the effective date of a provider 95845
agreement retroactive for a period not to exceed one year from the 95846
date of the provider's application for the agreement, as long as 95847
the provider met all medicaid program requirements during that 95848
period.95849

       (C)(B) The medicaid director shall adopt rules under section 95850
5164.02 of the Revised Code as necessary to implement this 95851
section. The rules for use of time-limited provider agreements 95852
pursuant to this section shall be consistent with subpart E of 42 95853
C.F.R. Part 455 and include a process for re-enrollment of 95854
providersrevalidating medicaid providers' continued enrollments 95855
as providers. All of the following apply to the re-enrollment95856
revalidation process:95857

       (1) The department of job and family services may terminate a 95858
time-limited provider agreement or deny re-enrollmentshall refuse 95859
to revalidate a provider's provider agreement when athe provider 95860
fails to file ando either of the following:95861

       (a) File a complete application for re-enrollment95862
revalidation within the time and in the manner required under the 95863
re-enrollmentrevalidation process;95864

       (b) Provide required supporting documentation not later than 95865
thirty days after the date the provider timely applies for 95866
revalidation.95867

       (2) If a provider files an application for re-enrollment95868
revalidation within the time and in the manner required under the 95869
re-enrollmentrevalidation process and timely provides required 95870
supporting documentation, but the provider agreement expires 95871
before the department acts on the application or before the 95872
effective date of the department's decision on the application, 95873
the provider, subject to division (B)(3) of this section, may 95874
continue operating under the terms of the expired provider 95875
agreement until the effective date of the department's decision.95876

       (3) A decision by the department to approve an application 95877
for re-enrollment becomes effective on the date of the 95878
department's decision. A decision by the department to deny 95879
re-enrollment shall take effect not sooner than thirty days after 95880
the date the department mails written notice of the decision to 95881
the provider. The department shall specify in the notice the date 95882
on which the provider is required to cease operating under the 95883
provider agreementIf a provider continues operating under the 95884
terms of an expired provider agreement pursuant to division (B)(2) 95885
of this section and the department denies the provider's 95886
application for revalidation, medicaid payments shall not be made 95887
for services or items the provider provides during the period 95888
beginning on the date the provider agreement expired and ending on 95889
the effective date of a subsequent provider agreement, if any, the 95890
department enters into with the provider.95891

       (D) Pursuant to section 5111.06 of the Revised Code, the 95892
department is not required to take the actions specified in 95893
division (C)(1) of this section by issuing an order pursuant to an 95894
adjudication conducted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 95895
Revised Code.95896

       (E) The use of time-limited provider agreements pursuant to 95897
this section does not apply to provider agreements issued to the 95898
following, including any provider agreements issued to the 95899
following that are otherwise time-limited under the medicaid 95900
program:95901

       (1) A managed care organization under contract with the 95902
department pursuant to section 5111.17 of the Revised Code;95903

       (2) A nursing facility, as defined in section 5111.20 of the 95904
Revised Code;95905

       (3) An intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded, 95906
as defined in section 5111.20 of the Revised Code;95907

       (4) A hospital.95908

       Sec. 5164.33.  (A) The medicaid director may do the following 95909
for any reason permitted or required by federal law:95910

       (1) Deny or terminate a provider agreement;95911

       (2) Exclude an individual, provider of services or goods, or 95912
other entity from participation in the medicaid program.95913

       (B) No individual, provider, or entity excluded from 95914
participation in the medicaid program under this section shall do 95915
any of the following:95916

       (1) Own, or provide services to, any other medicaid provider 95917
or risk contractor;95918

       (2) Arrange for, render, or order services for medicaid 95919
recipients during the period of exclusion;95920

       (3) During the period of exclusion, receive direct payments 95921
under the medicaid program or indirect payments of medicaid funds 95922
in the form of salary, shared fees, contracts, kickbacks, or 95923
rebates from or through any other medicaid provider or risk 95924
contractor.95925

       (C) An individual, provider, or entity excluded from 95926
participation in the medicaid program under this section may 95927
request a reconsideration of the exclusion. The director shall 95928
adopt rules under section 5164.02 of the Revised Code governing 95929
the process for requesting a reconsideration.95930

       (D) Nothing in this section limits the applicability of 95931
section 5164.38 of the Revised Code to a medicaid provider.95932

       Sec. 5111.032.        Sec. 5164.34. (A) As used in this section:95933

       (1) "Criminal records check" has the same meaning as in 95934
section 109.572 of the Revised Code.95935

       (2) "Disqualifying offense" means any of the offenses listed 95936
or described in divisions (A)(3)(a) to (e) of section 109.572 of 95937
the Revised Code.95938

       (3) "Owner" means a person who has an ownership interest in a 95939
medicaid provider or applicant to be a provider in an amount 95940
designated in rules adopted underauthorized by this section.95941

       (4) "Person subject to the criminal records check 95942
requirement" means the following:95943

       (a) A medicaid provider or applicant to be a provider who is 95944
notified under division (E)(1) of this section that the provider 95945
or applicant is subject to a criminal records check;95946

       (b) An owner or prospective owner, officer or prospective 95947
officer, or board member or prospective board member of a medicaid95948
provider or applicant to be a provider if, pursuant to division 95949
(E)(1)(a) of this section, the owner or prospective owner, officer 95950
or prospective officer, or board member or prospective board 95951
member is specified in information given to the provider or 95952
applicant under division (E)(1) of this section;95953

       (c) An employee or prospective employee of a medicaid95954
provider or applicant to be a provider if both of the following 95955
apply:95956

       (i) The employee or prospective employee is specified, 95957
pursuant to division (E)(1)(b) of this section, in information 95958
given to the provider or applicant under division (E)(1) of this 95959
section.95960

       (ii) The provider or applicant is not prohibited by division 95961
(D)(3)(b) of this section from employing the employee or 95962
prospective employee.95963

        (5) "Provider" means a person, institution, or entity that 95964
has a medicaid provider agreement with the department of job and 95965
family services.95966

       (6) "Responsible entity" means the following:95967

       (a) With respect to a criminal records check required under 95968
this section for a medicaid provider or applicant to be a 95969
provider, the department of job and family servicesmedicaid or 95970
the department's designee;95971

       (b) With respect to a criminal records check required under 95972
this section for an owner or prospective owner, officer or 95973
prospective officer, board member or prospective board member, or 95974
employee or prospective employee of a medicaid provider or 95975
applicant to be a provider, the provider or applicant.95976

       (B) This section does not apply to any individual who is 95977
subject to a criminal records check under section 3712.09, 95978
3721.121, 5111.034, 5123.081, or 5123.169, or 5164.341 of the 95979
Revised Code or any individual who is subject to a database review 95980
or criminal records check under section 173.394173.38, 3701.881, 95981
or 5111.0335164.342 of the Revised Code.95982

       (C) The department of job and family servicesmedicaid may do 95983
any of the following:95984

       (1) Require that any medicaid provider or applicant to be a 95985
provider submit to a criminal records check as a condition of 95986
havingobtaining or maintaining a medicaid provider agreement;95987

       (2) Require that any medicaid provider or applicant to be a 95988
provider require an owner or prospective owner, officer or 95989
prospective officer, or board member or prospective board member 95990
of the provider or applicant submit to a criminal records check as 95991
a condition of being an owner, officer, or board member of the 95992
provider or applicant;95993

       (3) Require that any medicaid provider or applicant to be a 95994
provider do the following:95995

       (a) If so required by rules adopted underauthorized by this 95996
section, determine pursuant to a database review conducted under 95997
division (F)(1)(a) of this section whether any employee or 95998
prospective employee of the provider or applicant is included in a 95999
database;96000

       (b) Unless the provider or applicant is prohibited by 96001
division (D)(3)(b) of this section from employing the employee or 96002
prospective employee, require the employee or prospective employee 96003
to submit to a criminal records check as a condition of being an 96004
employee of the provider or applicant.96005

       (D)(1) The department or the department's designee shall deny 96006
or terminate a medicaid provider's medicaid provider agreement or 96007
deny an applicant's application for a medicaid provider agreement96008
if the provider or applicant is a person subject to the criminal 96009
records check requirement and either of the following applies:96010

       (a) The provider or applicant fails to obtain the criminal 96011
records check after being given the information specified in 96012
division (G)(1) of this section.96013

       (b) Except as provided in rules adopted underauthorized by96014
this section, the provider or applicant is found by the criminal 96015
records check to have been convicted of,or have pleaded guilty 96016
to, or been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction 96017
for a disqualifying offense, regardless of the date of the 96018
conviction,or the date of entry of the guilty plea, or the date 96019
the applicant or provider was found eligible for intervention in 96020
lieu of conviction.96021

       (2) No medicaid provider or applicant to be a provider shall 96022
permit a person to be an owner, officer, or board member of the 96023
provider or applicant if the person is a person subject to the 96024
criminal records check requirement and either of the following 96025
applies:96026

       (a) The person fails to obtain the criminal records check 96027
after being given the information specified in division (G)(1) of 96028
this section.96029

       (b) Except as provided in rules adopted underauthorized by96030
this section, the person is found by the criminal records check to 96031
have been convicted of,or have pleaded guilty to, or been found 96032
eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for a 96033
disqualifying offense, regardless of the date of the conviction,96034
or the date of entry of the guilty plea, or the date the person 96035
was found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction.96036

       (3) No medicaid provider or applicant to be a provider shall 96037
employ a person if any of the following apply:96038

       (a) The person has been excluded from providing services or 96039
items under thebeing a medicaid programprovider, thea medicare 96040
program operated pursuant to Title XVIII of the "Social Security 96041
Actprovider," or provider for any other federal health care 96042
program.96043

       (b) If the person is subject to a database review conducted 96044
under division (F)(1)(a) of this section, the person is found by 96045
the database review to be included in a database and the rules 96046
adopted underauthorized by this section regarding the database 96047
review prohibit the provider or applicant from employing a person 96048
included in the database.96049

       (c) If the person is a person subject to the criminal records 96050
check requirement, either of the following applies:96051

       (i) The person fails to obtain the criminal records check 96052
after being given the information specified in division (G)(1) of 96053
this section.96054

       (ii) Except as provided in rules adopted underauthorized by96055
this section, the person is found by the criminal records check to 96056
have been convicted of,or have pleaded guilty to, or been found 96057
eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for a 96058
disqualifying offense, regardless of the date of the conviction,96059
or the date of entry of the guilty plea, or the date the person 96060
was found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction.96061

       (E)(1) The department or the department's designee shall 96062
inform each medicaid provider or applicant to be a provider96063
whether the provider or applicant is subject to a criminal records 96064
check. For providers with valid provider agreements, the 96065
information shall be given at times designated in rules adopted 96066
underauthorized by this section. For applicantsproviders 96067
applying to be medicaid providers, the information shall be given 96068
at the time of initial application. When the information is given, 96069
the department or the department's designee shall specify the 96070
following:96071

       (a) Which of the provider's or applicant's owners or 96072
prospective owners, officers or prospective officers, or board 96073
members or prospective board members are subject to a criminal 96074
records check;96075

       (b) Which of the provider's or applicant's employees or 96076
prospective employees are subject to division (C)(3) of this 96077
section.96078

       (2) At times designated in rules adopted underauthorized by96079
this section, a medicaid provider or applicant to be a provider96080
that is a person subject to the criminal records check requirement 96081
shall do the following:96082

       (a) Inform each person specified under division (E)(1)(a) of 96083
this section that the person is required to submit to a criminal 96084
records check as a condition of being an owner, officer, or board 96085
member of the provider or applicant;96086

       (b) Inform each person specified under division (E)(1)(b) of 96087
this section that the person is subject to division (C)(3) of this 96088
section.96089

       (F)(1) If a medicaid provider or applicant to be a provider96090
is a person subject to the criminal records check requirement, the 96091
department or the department's designee shall require the conduct 96092
of a criminal records check by the superintendent of the bureau of 96093
criminal identification and investigation. A medicaid provider or 96094
applicant to be a provider shall require the conduct of a criminal 96095
records check by the superintendent with respect to each of the 96096
persons specified under division (E)(1)(a) of this section. With 96097
respect to each employee and prospective employee specified under 96098
division (E)(1)(b) of this section, a medicaid provider or 96099
applicant to be a provider shall do the following:96100

       (a) If rules adopted underauthorized by this section require 96101
the provider or applicant to conduct a database review to 96102
determine whether the employee or prospective employee is included 96103
in a database, conduct the database review in accordance with the 96104
rules;96105

       (b) Unless the provider or applicant is prohibited by 96106
division (D)(3)(b) of this section from employing the employee or 96107
prospective employee, require the conduct of a criminal records 96108
check of the employee or prospective employee by the 96109
superintendent.96110

       (2) If a person subject to the criminal records check 96111
requirement does not present proof of having been a resident of 96112
this state for the five-year period immediately prior to the date 96113
the criminal records check is requested or provide evidence that 96114
within that five-year period the superintendent has requested 96115
information about the person from the federal bureau of 96116
investigation in a criminal records check, the responsible entity 96117
shall require the person to request that the superintendent obtain 96118
information from the federal bureau of investigation as part of 96119
the criminal records check of the person. Even if the person 96120
presents proof of having been a resident of this state for the 96121
five-year period, the responsible entity may require that the 96122
person request that the superintendent obtain information from the 96123
federal bureau of investigation and include it in the criminal 96124
records check of the person.96125

       (G) Criminal records checks required by this section shall be 96126
obtained as follows:96127

       (1) The responsible entity shall provide each person subject 96128
to the criminal records check requirement information about 96129
accessing and completing the form prescribed pursuant to division 96130
(C)(1) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code and the standard 96131
impression sheet prescribed pursuant to division (C)(2) of that 96132
section.96133

       (2) The person subject to the criminal records check 96134
requirement shall submit the required form and one complete set of 96135
the person's fingerprint impressions directly to the 96136
superintendent for purposes of conducting the criminal records 96137
check using the applicable methods prescribed by division (C) of 96138
section 109.572 of the Revised Code. The person shall pay all fees 96139
associated with obtaining the criminal records check.96140

       (3) The superintendent shall conduct the criminal records 96141
check in accordance with section 109.572 of the Revised Code. The 96142
person subject to the criminal records check requirement shall 96143
instruct the superintendent to submit the report of the criminal 96144
records check directly to the responsible entity. If the 96145
department or the department's designee is not the responsible 96146
entity, the department or designee may require the responsible 96147
entity to submit the report to the department or designee.96148

       (H)(1) A medicaid provider or applicant to be a provider may 96149
employ conditionally a person for whom a criminal records check is 96150
required by this section prior to obtaining the results of the 96151
criminal records check if both of the following apply:96152

       (a) The provider or applicant is not prohibited by division 96153
(D)(3)(b) of this section from employing the person.96154

        (b) The person submits a request for the criminal records 96155
check not later than five business days after the person begins 96156
conditional employment.96157

       (2) A medicaid provider or applicant to be a provider that 96158
employs a person conditionally under division (H)(1) of this 96159
section shall terminate the person's employment if the results of 96160
the criminal records check request are not obtained within the 96161
period ending sixty days after the date the request is made. 96162
Regardless of when the results of the criminal records check are 96163
obtained, if the results indicate that the person has been 96164
convicted of,or has pleaded guilty to, or has been found eligible 96165
for intervention in lieu of conviction for a disqualifying 96166
offense, the provider or applicant shall terminate the person's 96167
employment unless circumstances specified in rules adopted under96168
authorized by this section exist that permit the provider or 96169
applicant to employ the person and the provider or applicant96170
chooses to employ the person.96171

       (I) The report of a criminal records check conducted pursuant 96172
to this section is not a public record for the purposes of section 96173
149.43 of the Revised Code and shall not be made available to any 96174
person other than the following:96175

       (1) The person who is the subject of the criminal records 96176
check or the person's representative;96177

       (2) The medicaid director of job and family services and the 96178
staff of the department who are involved in the administration of 96179
the medicaid program;96180

       (3) The department's designee;96181

       (4) The medicaid provider or applicant to be a provider who 96182
required the person who is the subject of the criminal records 96183
check to submit to the criminal records check;96184

        (5) An individual receiving or deciding whether to receive, 96185
from the subject of the criminal records check, home and 96186
community-based services available under the medicaid state plan;96187

       (6) A court, hearing officer, or other necessary individual 96188
involved in a case dealing with any of the following:96189

       (a) The denial or termination of a medicaid provider 96190
agreement;96191

        (b) A person's denial of employment, termination of 96192
employment, or employment or unemployment benefits;96193

       (c) A civil or criminal action regarding the medicaid 96194
program.96195

       (J) The medicaid director of job and family services may 96196
adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119.under section 5164.0296197
of the Revised Code to implement this section. If the director 96198
adopts such rules, the rules shall designate the times at which a 96199
criminal records check must be conducted under this section. The 96200
rules may do any of the following:96201

       (1) Designate the categories of persons who are subject to a 96202
criminal records check under this section;96203

        (2) Specify circumstances under which the department or the 96204
department's designee may continue a medicaid provider agreement 96205
or issue a medicaid provider agreement to an applicant when the 96206
medicaid provider or applicant is found by a criminal records 96207
check to have been convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or been found 96208
eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for a 96209
disqualifying offense;96210

       (3) Specify circumstances under which a medicaid provider or 96211
applicant to be a provider may permit a person to be an employee, 96212
owner, officer, or board member of the provider or applicant, when 96213
the person is found by a criminal records check conducted pursuant 96214
to this section to have been convicted of,or have pleaded guilty 96215
to, or been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction 96216
for a disqualifying offense;96217

       (4) Specify all of the following:96218

       (a) The circumstances under which a database review must be 96219
conducted under division (F)(1)(a) of this section to determine 96220
whether an employee or prospective employee of a medicaid provider 96221
or applicant to be a provider is included in a database;96222

       (b) The procedures for conducting the database review;96223

       (c) The databases that are to be checked;96224

       (d) The circumstances under which a medicaid provider or 96225
applicant to be a provider is prohibited from employing a person 96226
who is found by the database review to be included in a database.96227

       Sec. 5111.034.        Sec. 5164.341.  (A) As used in this section:96228

        "Anniversary date" means the later of the effective date of 96229
the provider agreement relating to the independent provider or 96230
sixty days after September 26, 2003.96231

        "Applicant" means a person who has applied for a medicaid96232
provider agreement to provide home and community-based services as 96233
an independent provider under a home and community-based medicaid 96234
waiver component administered by the department of job and family 96235
servicesmedicaid.96236

       "Criminal records check" has the same meaning as in section 96237
109.572 of the Revised Code.96238

        "Disqualifying offense" means any of the offenses listed or 96239
described in divisions (A)(3)(a) to (e) of section 109.572 of the 96240
Revised Code.96241

       "Independent provider" means a person who has a medicaid96242
provider agreement to provide home and community-based services as 96243
an independent provider in a home and community-based services 96244
medicaid waiver component administered by the department of job 96245
and family servicesmedicaid. 96246

        "Home and community-based services medicaid waiver component" 96247
has the same meaning as in section 5111.85 of the Revised Code.96248

       (B) The department of job and family servicesmedicaid or the 96249
department's designee shall deny an applicant's application for a 96250
medicaid provider agreement and shall terminate an independent 96251
provider's medicaid provider agreement if either of the following 96252
applies:96253

       (1) After the applicant or independent provider is given the 96254
information and notification required by divisions (D)(2)(a) and 96255
(b) of this section, the applicant or independent provider fails 96256
to do either of the following:96257

       (a) Access, complete, or forward to the superintendent of the 96258
bureau of criminal identification and investigation the form 96259
prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of section 109.572 of the 96260
Revised Code or the standard impression sheet prescribed pursuant 96261
to division (C)(2) of that section;96262

       (b) Instruct the superintendent to submit the completed 96263
report of the criminal records check required by this section 96264
directly to the department or the department's designee.96265

       (2) Except as provided in rules adopted underauthorized by96266
this section, the applicant or independent provider is found by a 96267
criminal records check required by this section to have been 96268
convicted of,or have pleaded guilty to, or been found eligible 96269
for intervention in lieu of conviction for a disqualifying 96270
offense, regardless of the date of the conviction,or the date of 96271
entry of the guilty plea, or the date the applicant or independent 96272
provider was found eligible for intervention in lieu of 96273
conviction.96274

       (C)(1) The department or the department's designee shall 96275
inform each applicant, at the time of initial application for a 96276
medicaid provider agreement, that the applicant is required to 96277
provide a set of the applicant's fingerprint impressions and that 96278
a criminal records check is required to be conducted as a 96279
condition of the department's approving the application.96280

       (2) Beginning on September 26, 2003, the department or the 96281
department's designee shall inform each independent provider on or 96282
before the time of the anniversary date of the medicaid provider 96283
agreement that the independent provider is required to provide a 96284
set of the independent provider's fingerprint impressions and that 96285
a criminal records check is required to be conducted.96286

       (D)(1) The department or the department's designee shall 96287
require an applicant to complete a criminal records check prior to 96288
entering into a medicaid provider agreement with the applicant. 96289
The department or the department's designee shall require an 96290
independent provider to complete a criminal records check at least 96291
annually. If an applicant or independent provider for whom a 96292
criminal records check is required by this section does not 96293
present proof of having been a resident of this state for the 96294
five-year period immediately prior to the date the criminal 96295
records check is requested or provide evidence that within that 96296
five-year period the superintendent of the bureau of criminal 96297
identification and investigation has requested information about 96298
the applicant or independent provider from the federal bureau of 96299
investigation in a criminal records check, the department or the 96300
department's designee shall request that the applicant or 96301
independent provider obtain through the superintendent a criminal 96302
records request from the federal bureau of investigation as part 96303
of the criminal records check of the applicant or independent 96304
provider. Even if an applicant or independent provider for whom a 96305
criminal records check request is required by this section 96306
presents proof of having been a resident of this state for the 96307
five-year period, the department or the department's designee may 96308
request that the applicant or independent provider obtain 96309
information through the superintendent from the federal bureau of 96310
investigation in the criminal records check.96311

       (2) The department or the department's designee shall provide 96312
the following to each applicant and independent provider for whom 96313
a criminal records check is required by this section:96314

       (a) Information about accessing, completing, and forwarding 96315
to the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and 96316
investigation the form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of 96317
section 109.572 of the Revised Code and the standard impression 96318
sheet prescribed pursuant to division (C)(2) of that section;96319

       (b) Written notification that the applicant or independent 96320
provider is to instruct the superintendent to submit the completed 96321
report of the criminal records check directly to the department or 96322
the department's designee.96323

       (3) Each applicant and independent provider for whom a 96324
criminal records check is required by this section shall pay to 96325
the bureau of criminal identification and investigation the fee 96326
prescribed pursuant to division (C)(3) of section 109.572 of the 96327
Revised Code for the criminal records check conducted of the 96328
applicant or independent provider.96329

       (E) The report of any criminal records check conducted by the 96330
bureau of criminal identification and investigation in accordance 96331
with section 109.572 of the Revised Code and pursuant to a request 96332
made under this section is not a public record for the purposes of 96333
section 149.43 of the Revised Code and shall not be made available 96334
to any person other than the following:96335

       (1) The person who is the subject of the criminal records 96336
check or the person's representative;96337

       (2) The medicaid director of job and family services and the 96338
staff of the department who are involved in the administration of 96339
the medicaid program;96340

       (3) The department's designee;96341

       (4) An individual who receivesreceiving or deciding whether 96342
to receive home and community-based services from the person who 96343
is the subject of the criminal records check;96344

        (5) A court, hearing officer, or other necessary individual 96345
involved in a case dealing with either of the following:96346

       (a) A denial or termination of a provider agreement related 96347
to the criminal records check;96348

       (b) A civil or criminal action regarding the medicaid 96349
program.96350

       (F) The medicaid director of job and family services shall 96351
adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119.under section 5164.0296352
of the Revised Code to implement this section. The rules shall 96353
specify circumstances under which the department or the 96354
department's designee may either approve an applicant's 96355
application or allow an independent provider to maintain an 96356
existing medicaid provider agreement even though the applicant or 96357
independent provider is found by a criminal records check required 96358
by this section to have been convicted of,or have pleaded guilty 96359
to, or been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction 96360
for a disqualifying offense.96361

       Sec. 5111.033.        Sec. 5164.342.  (A) As used in this section:96362

        "Applicant" means a person who is under final consideration 96363
for employment with a waiver agency in a full-time, part-time, or 96364
temporary position that involves providing home and 96365
community-based services..96366

        "Community-based long-term care agencyprovider" has the same 96367
meaningmeans a provider as defined in section 173.39 of the 96368
Revised Code.96369

       "Community-based long-term care subcontractor" means a 96370
subcontractor as defined in section 173.38 of the Revised Code.96371

        "Criminal records check" has the same meaning as in section 96372
109.572 of the Revised Code.96373

        "Disqualifying offense" means any of the offenses listed or 96374
described in divisions (A)(3)(a) to (e) of section 109.572 of the 96375
Revised Code.96376

       "Employee" means a person employed by a waiver agency in a 96377
full-time, part-time, or temporary position that involves 96378
providing home and community-based services.96379

       "Home and community-based services medicaid waiver component" 96380
has the same meaning as in section 5111.85 of the Revised Code.96381

       "Waiver agency" means a person or government entity that 96382
provides home and community-based services under a home and 96383
community-based services medicaid waiver component administered by 96384
the department of job and family servicesmedicaid, other than 96385
such a person or government entity that is certified under the 96386
medicare program. "Waiver agency" does not mean an independent 96387
provider as defined in section 5111.0345164.341 of the Revised 96388
Code.96389

       (B) This section does not apply to any individual who is 96390
subject to a database review or criminal records check under 96391
section 3701.881 of the Revised Code. If a waiver agency also is a 96392
community-based long-term care agencyprovider or community-based 96393
long-term care subcontractor, the waiver agency may provide for 96394
applicants and employees to undergo database reviews and criminal 96395
records checks in accordance with section 173.394173.38 of the 96396
Revised Code rather than this section.96397

        (C) No waiver agency shall employ an applicant or continue to 96398
employ an employee in a position that involves providing home and 96399
community-based services if any of the following apply:96400

       (1) A review of the databases listed in division (E) of this 96401
section reveals any of the following:96402

       (a) That the applicant or employee is included in one or more 96403
of the databases listed in divisions (E)(1) to (5) of this 96404
section;96405

       (b) That there is in the state nurse aide registry 96406
established under section 3721.32 of the Revised Code a statement 96407
detailing findings by the director of health that the applicant or 96408
employee neglected or abused a long-term care facility or 96409
residential care facility resident or misappropriated property of 96410
such a resident;96411

       (c) That the applicant or employee is included in one or more 96412
of the databases, if any, specified in rules adopted under96413
authorized by this section and the rules prohibit the waiver 96414
agency from employing an applicant or continuing to employ an 96415
employee included in such a database in a position that involves 96416
providing home and community-based services.96417

       (2) After the applicant or employee is given the information 96418
and notification required by divisions (F)(2)(a) and (b) of this 96419
section, the applicant or employee fails to do either of the 96420
following:96421

       (a) Access, complete, or forward to the superintendent of the 96422
bureau of criminal identification and investigation the form 96423
prescribed to division (C)(1) of section 109.572 of the Revised 96424
Code or the standard impression sheet prescribed pursuant to 96425
division (C)(2) of that section;96426

       (b) Instruct the superintendent to submit the completed 96427
report of the criminal records check required by this section 96428
directly to the chief administrator of the waiver agency.96429

       (3) Except as provided in rules adopted underauthorized by96430
this section, the applicant or employee is found by a criminal 96431
records check required by this section to have been convicted of,96432
or have pleaded guilty to, or been found eligible for intervention 96433
in lieu of conviction for a disqualifying offense, regardless of 96434
the date of the conviction,or date of entry of the guilty plea, 96435
or the date the applicant or employee was found eligible for 96436
intervention in lieu of conviction.96437

       (D) At the time of each applicant's initial application for 96438
employment in a position that involves providing home and 96439
community-based services, the chief administrator of a waiver 96440
agency shall inform the applicant of both of the following:96441

       (1) That a review of the databases listed in division (E) of 96442
this section will be conducted to determine whether the waiver 96443
agency is prohibited by division (C)(1) of this section from 96444
employing the applicant in the position;96445

       (2) That, unless the database review reveals that the 96446
applicant may not be employed in the position, a criminal records 96447
check of the applicant will be conducted and the applicant is 96448
required to provide a set of the applicant's fingerprint 96449
impressions as part of the criminal records check.96450

       (E) As a condition of employing any applicant in a position 96451
that involves providing home and community-based services, the 96452
chief administrator of a waiver agency shall conduct a database 96453
review of the applicant in accordance with rules adopted under96454
authorized by this section. If rules adopted underauthorized by96455
this section so require, the chief administrator of a waiver 96456
agency shall conduct a database review of an employee in 96457
accordance with the rules as a condition of continuing to employ 96458
the employee in a position that involves providing home and 96459
community-based services. A database review shall determine 96460
whether the applicant or employee is included in any of the 96461
following:96462

       (1) The excluded parties list system that is maintained by 96463
the United States general services administration pursuant to 96464
subpart 9.4 of the federal acquisition regulation and available at 96465
the federal web site known as the system for award management;96466

       (2) The list of excluded individuals and entities maintained 96467
by the office of inspector general in the United States department 96468
of health and human services pursuant to section 1128 of the 96469
"Social Security Act," 94 Stat. 2619 (1980)sections 1128 and 96470
1156, 42 U.S.C. 1320a-7, as amended, and section 1156 of the 96471
"Social Security Act," 96 Stat. 388 (1982), 42 U.S.C. 1320c-5, as 96472
amended;96473

       (3) The registry of MR/DD employees established under section 96474
5123.52 of the Revised Code;96475

       (4) The internet-based sex offender and child-victim offender 96476
database established under division (A)(11) of section 2950.13 of 96477
the Revised Code;96478

       (5) The internet-based database of inmates established under 96479
section 5120.66 of the Revised Code;96480

       (6) The state nurse aide registry established under section 96481
3721.32 of the Revised Code;96482

       (7) Any other database, if any, specified in rules adopted 96483
underauthorized by this section.96484

       (F)(1) As a condition of employing any applicant in a 96485
position that involves providing home and community-based 96486
services, the chief administrator of a waiver agency shall require 96487
the applicant to request that the superintendent of the bureau of 96488
criminal identification and investigation conduct a criminal 96489
records check of the applicant. If rules adopted underauthorized 96490
by this section so require, the chief administrator of a waiver 96491
agency shall require an employee to request that the 96492
superintendent conduct a criminal records check of the employee at 96493
times specified in the rules as a condition of continuing to 96494
employ the employee in a position that involves providing home and 96495
community-based services. However, a criminal records check is not 96496
required for an applicant or employee if the waiver agency is 96497
prohibited by division (C)(1) of this section from employing the 96498
applicant or continuing to employ the employee in a position that 96499
involves providing home and community-based services. If an 96500
applicant or employee for whom a criminal records check request is 96501
required by this section does not present proof of having been a 96502
resident of this state for the five-year period immediately prior 96503
to the date the criminal records check is requested or provide 96504
evidence that within that five-year period the superintendent has 96505
requested information about the applicant or employee from the 96506
federal bureau of investigation in a criminal records check, the 96507
chief administrator shall require the applicant or employee to 96508
request that the superintendent obtain information from the 96509
federal bureau of investigation as part of the criminal records 96510
check. Even if an applicant or employee for whom a criminal 96511
records check request is required by this section presents proof 96512
of having been a resident of this state for the five-year period, 96513
the chief administrator may require the applicant or employee to 96514
request that the superintendent include information from the 96515
federal bureau of investigation in the criminal records check.96516

       (2) The chief administrator shall provide the following to 96517
each applicant and employee for whom a criminal records check is 96518
required by this section:96519

       (a) Information about accessing, completing, and forwarding 96520
to the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and 96521
investigation the form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of 96522
section 109.572 of the Revised Code and the standard impression 96523
sheet prescribed pursuant to division (C)(2) of that section;96524

       (b) Written notification that the applicant or employee is to 96525
instruct the superintendent to submit the completed report of the 96526
criminal records check directly to the chief administrator.96527

       (3) A waiver agency shall pay to the bureau of criminal 96528
identification and investigation the fee prescribed pursuant to 96529
division (C)(3) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code for any 96530
criminal records check required by this section. However, a waiver 96531
agency may require an applicant to pay to the bureau the fee for a 96532
criminal records check of the applicant. If the waiver agency pays 96533
the fee for an applicant, it may charge the applicant a fee not 96534
exceeding the amount the waiver agency pays to the bureau under 96535
this section if the waiver agency notifies the applicant at the 96536
time of initial application for employment of the amount of the 96537
fee and that, unless the fee is paid, the applicant will not be 96538
considered for employment.96539

       (G)(1) A waiver agency may employ conditionally an applicant 96540
for whom a criminal records check is required by this section 96541
prior to obtaining the results of the criminal records check if 96542
both of the following apply:96543

       (a) The waiver agency is not prohibited by division (C)(1) of 96544
this section from employing the applicant in a position that 96545
involves providing home and community-based services.96546

        (b) The chief administrator of the waiver agency requires the 96547
applicant to request a criminal records check regarding the 96548
applicant in accordance with division (F)(1) of this section not 96549
later than five business days after the applicant begins 96550
conditional employment.96551

       (2) A waiver agency that employs an applicant conditionally 96552
under division (G)(1) of this section shall terminate the 96553
applicant's employment if the results of the criminal records 96554
check, other than the results of any request for information from 96555
the federal bureau of investigation, are not obtained within the 96556
period ending sixty days after the date the request for the 96557
criminal records check is made. Regardless of when the results of 96558
the criminal records check are obtained, if the results indicate 96559
that the applicant has been convicted of,or has pleaded guilty 96560
to, or has been found eligible for intervention in lieu of 96561
conviction for a disqualifying offense, the waiver agency shall 96562
terminate the applicant's employment unless circumstances 96563
specified in rules adopted underauthorized by this section exist 96564
that permit the waiver agency to employ the applicant and the 96565
waiver agency chooses to employ the applicant.96566

       (H) The report of any criminal records check conducted 96567
pursuant to a request made under this section is not a public 96568
record for the purposes of section 149.43 of the Revised Code and 96569
shall not be made available to any person other than the 96570
following:96571

       (1) The applicant or employee who is the subject of the 96572
criminal records check or the representative of the applicant or 96573
employee;96574

       (2) The chief administrator of the waiver agency that 96575
requires the applicant or employee to request the criminal records 96576
check or the administrator's representative;96577

       (3) The medicaid director of job and family services and the 96578
staff of the department who are involved in the administration of 96579
the medicaid program;96580

       (4) The director of aging or the director's designee if the 96581
waiver agency also is a community-based long-term care agency96582
provider or community-based long-term care subcontractor;96583

        (5) An individual receiving or deciding whether to receive 96584
home and community-based services from the subject of the criminal 96585
records check;96586

       (6) A court, hearing officer, or other necessary individual 96587
involved in a case dealing with any of the following:96588

       (a) A denial of employment of the applicant or employee;96589

       (b) Employment or unemployment benefits of the applicant or 96590
employee;96591

       (c) A civil or criminal action regarding the medicaid 96592
program.96593

       (I) The medicaid director of job and family services shall 96594
adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119.under section 5164.0296595
of the Revised Code to implement this section. 96596

       (1) The rules may do the following:96597

       (a) Require employees to undergo database reviews and 96598
criminal records checks under this section;96599

       (b) If the rules require employees to undergo database 96600
reviews and criminal records checks under this section, exempt one 96601
or more classes of employees from the requirements;96602

       (c) For the purpose of division (E)(7) of this section, 96603
specify other databases that are to be checked as part of a 96604
database review conducted under this section.96605

       (2) The rules shall specify all of the following:96606

       (a) The procedures for conducting a database review under 96607
this section;96608

       (b) If the rules require employees to undergo database 96609
reviews and criminal records checks under this section, the times 96610
at which the database reviews and criminal records checks are to 96611
be conducted;96612

       (c) If the rules specify other databases to be checked as 96613
part of a database review, the circumstances under which a waiver 96614
agency is prohibited from employing an applicant or continuing to 96615
employ an employee who is found by the database review to be 96616
included in one or more of those databases;96617

        (d) The circumstances under which a waiver agency may employ 96618
an applicant or employee who is found by a criminal records check 96619
required by this section to have been convicted of,or have96620
pleaded guilty to, or been found eligible for intervention in lieu 96621
of conviction for a disqualifying offense.96622

       (J) The amendments made by H.B. 487 of the 129th general 96623
assembly to this section do not preclude the department of job 96624
and family servicesmedicaid from taking action against a person 96625
for failure to comply with former division (H) of this section as 96626
that division existed on the day preceding the effective date of 96627
this amendmentJanuary 1, 2013.96628

       Sec. 5111.03.        Sec. 5164.35.  (A) As used in this section, "owner" 96629
means any person having at least five per cent ownership in a 96630
medicaid provider.96631

       (B)(1) No medicaid provider of services or goods contracting 96632
with the department of job and family services pursuant to the 96633
medicaid program shall, bydo any of the following:96634

       (a) By deception, obtain or attempt to obtain payments under 96635
this chapterthe medicaid program to which the provider is not 96636
entitled pursuant to the provider's provider agreement, or the 96637
rules of the federal government or the department of job and 96638
family servicesmedicaid director relating to the program. No 96639
provider shall willfully;96640

       (b) Willfully receive payments to which the provider is not 96641
entitled, or willfully;96642

       (c) Willfully receive payments in a greater amount than that 96643
to which the provider is entitled; nor shall any provider falsify96644

       (d) Falsify any report or document required by state or 96645
federal law, rule, or provider agreement relating to medicaid 96646
payments. As used in this section, a96647

       (2) A medicaid provider engages in "deception" for the 96648
purpose of this section when the provider, acting with actual 96649
knowledge of the representation or information involved, acting in 96650
deliberate ignorance of the truth or falsity of the representation 96651
or information involved, or acting in reckless disregard of the 96652
truth or falsity of the representation or information involved, 96653
deceives another or causes another to be deceived by any false or 96654
misleading representation, by withholding information, by 96655
preventing another from acquiring information, or by any other 96656
conduct, act, or omission that creates, confirms, or perpetuates a 96657
false impression in another, including a false impression as to 96658
law, value, state of mind, or other objective or subjective fact. 96659
No proof of specific intent to defraud is required to show, for 96660
purposes of this section, that a medicaid provider has engaged in 96661
deception.96662

       (B)(C) Any medicaid provider who violates division (A)(B) of 96663
this section shall be liable, in addition to any other penalties 96664
provided by law, for all of the following civil penalties:96665

       (1) Payment of interest on the amount of the excess payments 96666
at the maximum interest rate allowable for real estate mortgages 96667
under section 1343.01 of the Revised Code on the date the payment 96668
was made to the provider for the period from the date upon which 96669
payment was made, to the date upon which repayment is made to the 96670
state;96671

       (2) Payment of an amount equal to three times the amount of 96672
any excess payments;96673

       (3) Payment of a sum of not less than five thousand dollars 96674
and not more than ten thousand dollars for each deceptive claim or 96675
falsification;96676

       (4) All reasonable expenses which the court determines have 96677
been necessarily incurred by the state in the enforcement of this 96678
section.96679

       (C) As used in this division, "intermediate care facility for 96680
the mentally retarded" and "nursing facility" have the same 96681
meanings given in section 5111.20 of the Revised Code.96682

       (D) In addition to the civil penalties provided in division 96683
(B)(C) of this section, the medicaid director of job and family 96684
services, upon the conviction of, or the entry of a judgment in 96685
either a criminal or civil action against, a medicaid provider or 96686
its owner, officer, authorized agent, associate, manager, or 96687
employee in an action brought pursuant to section 109.85 of the 96688
Revised Code, shall terminate the provider's provider agreement 96689
between the department and the provider and stop reimbursement96690
payment to the provider for medicaid services rendered from the 96691
date of conviction or entry of judgment. As used in this division, 96692
"owner" means any person having at least five per cent ownership 96693
in the medicaid provider. No such medicaid provider, owner, 96694
officer, authorized agent, associate, manager, or employee shall 96695
own or provide medicaid services to any other medicaid provider or 96696
risk contractor or arrange for, render, or order medicaid services 96697
for medicaid recipients, nor shall such provider, owner, officer, 96698
authorized agent, associate, manager, or employee receive 96699
reimbursement in the form of direct payments from the department96700
under the medicaid program or indirect payments of medicaid funds 96701
in the form of salary, shared fees, contracts, kickbacks, or 96702
rebates from or through any participatingother medicaid provider 96703
or risk contractor. The provider agreement shall not be terminated 96704
or reimbursement, and payment shall not be terminated, if the 96705
medicaid provider or owner can demonstrate that the provider or 96706
owner did not directly or indirectly sanction the action of its 96707
authorized agent, associate, manager, or employee that resulted in 96708
the conviction or entry of a judgment in a criminal or civil 96709
action brought pursuant to section 109.85 of the Revised Code. 96710
Nothing in this division prohibits any owner, officer, authorized 96711
agent, associate, manager, or employee of a medicaid provider from 96712
entering into a medicaid provider agreement if the person can 96713
demonstrate that the person had no knowledge of an action of the 96714
medicaid provider the person was formerly associated with that 96715
resulted in the conviction or entry of a judgment in a criminal or 96716
civil action brought pursuant to section 109.85 of the Revised 96717
Code.96718

        Nursing facility or intermediate care facility for the 96719
mentally retardedand ICF/MR providers whose provider agreements 96720
are terminated pursuant to this section may continue to receive 96721
reimbursementmedicaid payments for up to thirty days after the 96722
effective date of the termination if the provider makes reasonable 96723
efforts to transfer medicaid recipients to another facility or to 96724
alternate care and if federal funds arefinancial participation is96725
provided for such reimbursementthe payments.96726

       (D) For any reason permitted or required by federal law, the 96727
director of job and family services may deny a provider agreement 96728
or terminate a provider agreement.96729

       For any reason permitted or required by federal law, the 96730
director may exclude an individual, provider of services or goods, 96731
or other entity from participation in the medicaid program. No 96732
individual, provider, or entity excluded under this division shall 96733
own or provide services to any other medicaid provider or risk 96734
contractor or arrange for, render, or order services for medicaid 96735
recipients during the period of exclusion, nor, during the period 96736
of exclusion, shall such individual, provider, or entity receive 96737
reimbursement in the form of direct payments from the department 96738
or indirect payments of medicaid funds in the form of salary, 96739
shared fees, contracts, kickbacks, or rebates from or through any 96740
participating provider or risk contractor. An excluded individual, 96741
provider, or entity may request a reconsideration of the 96742
exclusion. The director shall adopt rules in accordance with 96743
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code governing the process for 96744
requesting a reconsideration.96745

       Nothing in this division limits the applicability of section 96746
5111.06 of the Revised Code to a medicaid provider.96747

       (E) Any provider of services or goods contracting with the 96748
department of job and family services pursuant to Title XIX of the 96749
"Social Security Act," who, without intent, obtains payments under 96750
this chapter in excess of the amount to which the provider is 96751
entitled, thereby becomes liable for payment of interest on the 96752
amount of the excess payments at the maximum real estate mortgage 96753
rate on the date the payment was made to the provider for the 96754
period from the date upon which payment was made to the date upon 96755
which repayment is made to the state.96756

       (F)(E) The attorney general on behalf of the state may 96757
commence proceedings to enforce this section in any court of 96758
competent jurisdiction; and the attorney general may settle or 96759
compromise any case brought under this section with the approval 96760
of the department of job and family servicesmedicaid. 96761
Notwithstanding any other provision of law providing a shorter 96762
period of limitations, the attorney general may commence a 96763
proceeding to enforce this section at any time within six years 96764
after the conduct in violation of this section terminates.96765

       (G) The authority, under state and federal law, of the 96766
department of job and family services or a county department of 96767
job and family services to recover excess payments made to a 96768
provider is not limited by the availability of remedies under 96769
sections 5111.11 and 5111.12 of the Revised Code for recovering 96770
benefits paid on behalf of recipients of medical assistance.96771

       The penalties under this chapter apply to any overpayment, 96772
billing, or falsification occurring on and after April 24, 1978.96773
(F) All moneys collected by the state pursuant to this section 96774
shall be deposited in the state treasury to the credit of the 96775
general revenue fund.96776

       Sec. 5111.035.        Sec. 5164.36.  (A) As used in this section:96777

       (1) "CreditableCredible allegation of fraud" has the same 96778
meaning as in 42 C.F.R. 455.2, except that for purposes of this 96779
section any reference in that regulation to the "state" or the 96780
"state medicaid agency" means the department of job and family 96781
servicesmedicaid.96782

       (2) "Provider" has the same meaning as in section 5111.032 of 96783
the Revised Code.96784

       (3) "Owner" has the same meaning as in section 5111.03196785
5164.37 of the Revised Code.96786

       (B)(1) Except as provided in division (C) of this section and 96787
in rules adoptedauthorized by the department of job and family 96788
services under division (J) of this section, on determining there 96789
is a creditablecredible allegation of fraud for which an 96790
investigation is pending under the medicaid program against a 96791
medicaid provider, the department of medicaid shall suspend the 96792
provider agreement held by the provider. Subject to division (C) 96793
of this section, the department shall also terminate medicaid 96794
reimbursementpayments to the provider for services rendered.96795

       (2)(a) The suspension shall continue in effect until either 96796
of the following is the case:96797

       (i) The department or a prosecuting authority determines that 96798
there is insufficient evidence of fraud by the medicaid provider;96799

       (ii) The proceedings in any related criminal case are 96800
completed through dismissal of the indictment or through 96801
conviction, entry of a guilty plea, or finding of not guilty.96802

       (b) If the department commences a process to terminate the 96803
suspended provider agreement, the suspension shall also continue 96804
in effect until the termination process is concluded.96805

       (3) Pursuant to section 5111.06 of the Revised Code, the 96806
department is not required to take action under division (B)(1) of 96807
this section by issuing an order pursuant to an adjudication in 96808
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.96809

       (4) When subject to a suspension under this section, a 96810
medicaid provider, owner, officer, authorized agent, associate, 96811
manager, or employee shall not own or provide services to any 96812
other medicaid provider or risk contractor or arrange for, render, 96813
or order services to any other medicaid provider or risk 96814
contractor or arrange for, render, or order services for medicaid 96815
recipients during the period of suspension. During the period of 96816
suspension, the provider, owner, officer, authorized agent, 96817
associate, manager, or employee shall not receive reimbursement in 96818
the form of direct payments from the departmentunder the medicaid 96819
program or indirect payments of medicaid funds in the form of 96820
salary, shared fees, contracts, kickbacks, or rebates from or 96821
through any participatingother medicaid provider or risk 96822
contractor.96823

       (C) The department shall not suspend a provider agreement or 96824
terminate medicaid reimbursementpayments under division (B) of 96825
this section if the medicaid provider or owner can demonstrate 96826
through the submission of written evidence that the provider or 96827
owner did not directly or indirectly sanction the action of its 96828
authorized agent, associate, manager, or employee that resulted in 96829
the creditablecredible allegation of fraud. 96830

       (D) The termination of medicaid reimbursementpayment under 96831
division (B) of this section applies only to payments for medicaid 96832
services rendered subsequent to the date on which the notice 96833
required by division (E) of this section is sent. Claims for 96834
reimbursementpayment of medicaid services rendered by the 96835
medicaid provider prior to the issuance of the notice may be 96836
subject to prepayment review procedures whereby the department 96837
reviews claims to determine whether they are supported by 96838
sufficient documentation, are in compliance with state and federal 96839
statutes and rules, and are otherwise complete.96840

       (E) After suspending a provider agreement under division (B) 96841
of this section, the department shall, as specified in 42 C.F.R. 96842
455.23(b), send notice of the suspension to the affected medicaid96843
provider or owner in accordance with the following timeframes:96844

       (1) Not later than five days after the suspension, unless a 96845
law enforcement agency makes a written request to temporarily 96846
delay the notice;96847

       (2) If a law enforcement agency makes a written request to 96848
temporarily delay the notice, not later than thirty days after the 96849
suspension occurs subject to the conditions specified in division 96850
(F) of this section. 96851

       (F) A written request for a temporary delay described in 96852
division (E)(2) of this section may be renewed in writing by a law 96853
enforcement agency not more than two times except that under no 96854
circumstances shall the notice be issued more than ninety days 96855
after the suspension occurs.96856

       (G) The notice required by division (E) of this section shall 96857
do all of the following:96858

       (1) State that payments are being suspended in accordance 96859
with this section and 42 C.F.R. 455.23;96860

       (2) Set forth the general allegations related to the nature 96861
of the conduct leading to the suspension, except that it is not 96862
necessary to disclose any specific information concerning an 96863
ongoing investigation;96864

       (3) State that the suspension continues to be in effect until 96865
either of the following is the case:96866

       (a) The department or a prosecuting authority determines that 96867
there is insufficient evidence of fraud by the provider;96868

       (b) The proceedings in any related criminal case are 96869
completed through dismissal of the indictment or through 96870
conviction, entry of a guilty plea, or finding of not guilty and, 96871
if the department commences a process to terminate the suspended 96872
provider agreement, until the termination process is concluded.96873

       (4) Specify, if applicable, the type or types of medicaid 96874
claims or business units of the medicaid provider that are 96875
affected by the suspension;96876

       (5) Inform the medicaid provider or owner of the opportunity 96877
to submit to the department, not later than thirty days after 96878
receiving the notice, a request for reconsideration of the 96879
suspension in accordance with division (H) of this section.96880

       (H)(1) Pursuant to the procedure specified in division (H)(2) 96881
of this section, a medicaid provider or owner subject to a 96882
suspension under this section may request a reconsideration of the 96883
suspension. The request shall be made not later than thirty days 96884
after receipt of a notice required by division (E) of this 96885
section. The reconsideration is not subject to an adjudication 96886
hearing pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.96887

       (2) In requesting a reconsideration, the medicaid provider or 96888
owner shall submit written information and documents to the 96889
department. The information and documents may pertain to any of 96890
the following issues:96891

       (a) Whether the determination to suspend the provider 96892
agreement was based on a mistake of fact, other than the validity 96893
of an indictment in a related criminal case.96894

       (b) If there has been an indictment in a related criminal 96895
case, whether any offense charged in the indictment resulted from 96896
an offense specified in division (E) of section 5111.0315164.3796897
of the Revised Code. 96898

       (c) Whether the provider or owner can demonstrate that the 96899
provider or owner did not directly or indirectly sanction the 96900
action of its authorized agent, associate, manager, or employee 96901
that resulted in the suspension under this section or an 96902
indictment in a related criminal case.96903

       (I) The department shall review the information and documents 96904
submitted in a request made under division (H) of this section for 96905
reconsideration of a suspension. After the review, the suspension 96906
may be affirmed, reversed, or modified, in whole or in part. The 96907
department shall notify the affected provider or owner of the 96908
results of the review. The review and notification of its results 96909
shall be completed not later than forty-five days after receiving 96910
the information and documents submitted in a request for 96911
reconsideration.96912

       (J) The department may adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 96913
119. of the Revised Code to implement this section. The rules96914
Rules adopted under section 5164.02 of the Revised Code may 96915
specify circumstances under which the department would not suspend 96916
a provider agreement pursuant to this section.96917

       Sec. 5111.031.        Sec. 5164.37. (A) As used in this section:96918

       (1) "Independent provider" has the same meaning as in section 96919
5111.0345164.341 of the Revised Code.96920

       (2) "Intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded" 96921
and "nursing facility" have the same meanings as in section 96922
5111.20 of the Revised Code.96923

       (3) "Noninstitutional medicaid provider" means any person or 96924
entity with a medicaid provider agreement other than a hospital, 96925
nursing facility, or intermediate care facility for the mentally 96926
retardedICF/MR.96927

       (4)(3) "Owner" means any person having at least five per cent 96928
ownership in a noninstitutional medicaid provider.96929

       (B) Notwithstanding any provision of this chapter to the 96930
contrary, the department of job and family servicesmedicaid shall 96931
take action under this section against a noninstitutional medicaid 96932
provider or its owner, officer, authorized agent, associate, 96933
manager, or employee.96934

       (C) Except as provided in division (D) of this section and in 96935
rules adoptedauthorized by the department under division (H) of96936
this section, on receiving notice and a copy of an indictment that 96937
is issued on or after September 29, 2007, and charges a 96938
noninstitutional medicaid provider or its owner, officer, 96939
authorized agent, associate, manager, or employee with committing 96940
an offense specified in division (E) of this section, the 96941
department shall suspend the provider agreement held by the 96942
noninstitutional medicaid provider. Subject to division (D) of 96943
this section, the department shall also terminate medicaid 96944
reimbursementpayments to the provider for medicaid services 96945
rendered.96946

       The suspension shall continue in effect until the proceedings 96947
in the criminal case are completed through dismissal of the 96948
indictment or through conviction, entry of a guilty plea, or 96949
finding of not guilty. If the department commences a process to 96950
terminate the suspended provider agreement, the suspension shall 96951
also continue in effect until the termination process is 96952
concluded. 96953

       Pursuant to section 5111.06 of the Revised Code, the 96954
department is not required to take action under this division by 96955
issuing an order pursuant to an adjudication conducted in 96956
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.96957

       When subject to a suspension under this division, a provider, 96958
owner, officer, authorized agent, associate, manager, or employee 96959
shall not own or provide medicaid services to any other medicaid 96960
provider or risk contractor or arrange for, render, or order 96961
medicaid services for medicaid recipients during the period of 96962
suspension. During the period of suspension, the provider, owner, 96963
officer, authorized agent, associate, manager, or employee shall 96964
not receive reimbursement in the form of direct payments from96965
under the departmentmedicaid program or indirect payments of 96966
medicaid funds in the form of salary, shared fees, contracts, 96967
kickbacks, or rebates from or through any participatingother 96968
medicaid provider or risk contractor.96969

       (D)(1) The department shall not suspend a provider agreement 96970
or terminate medicaid reimbursementpayments under division (C) of 96971
this section if the provider or owner can demonstrate through the 96972
submission of written evidence that the provider or owner did not 96973
directly or indirectly sanction the action of its authorized 96974
agent, associate, manager, or employee that resulted in the 96975
indictment.96976

       (2) The termination of medicaid reimbursementpayments96977
applies only to payments for medicaid services rendered subsequent 96978
to the date on which the notice required under division (F) of 96979
this section is sent. Claims for reimbursementpayment for 96980
medicaid services rendered by the provider prior to the issuance 96981
of the notice may be subject to prepayment review procedures 96982
whereby the department reviews claims to determine whether they 96983
are supported by sufficient documentation, are in compliance with 96984
state and federal statutes and rules, and are otherwise complete.96985

       (E)(1) In the case of a noninstitutional medicaid provider 96986
that is not an independent provider, the suspension of a provider 96987
agreement under division (C) of this section applies when an 96988
indictment charges a person with committing an act that would be a 96989
felony or misdemeanor under the laws of this state and the act 96990
relates to or results from either of the following:96991

       (a) Furnishing or billing for medical care,medicaid96992
services, or supplies under the medicaid program;96993

       (b) Participating in the performance of management or 96994
administrative services relating to furnishing medical care,96995
medicaid services, or supplies under the medicaid program.96996

       (2) In the case of a noninstitutional medicaid provider that 96997
is an independent provider, the suspension of a provider agreement 96998
under division (C) of this section applies when an indictment 96999
charges a person with committing an act that would constitute a 97000
disqualifying offense as defined in section 5111.0325164.34 of 97001
the Revised Code.97002

       (F) Not later than five days after suspending a provider 97003
agreement under division (C) of this section, the department shall 97004
send notice of the suspension to the affected provider or owner. 97005
In providing the notice, the department shall do all of the 97006
following:97007

       (1) Describe the indictment that was the cause of the 97008
suspension, without necessarily disclosing specific information 97009
concerning any ongoing civil or criminal investigation;97010

       (2) State that the suspension will continue in effect until 97011
the proceedings in the criminal case are completed through 97012
dismissal of the indictment or through conviction, entry of a 97013
guilty plea, or finding of not guilty and, if the department 97014
commences a process to terminate the suspended provider agreement, 97015
until the termination process is concluded;97016

       (3) Inform the provider or owner of the opportunity to submit 97017
to the department, not later than thirty days after receiving the 97018
notice, a request for a reconsideration pursuant to division (G) 97019
of this section. 97020

       (G)(1) Pursuant to the procedure specified in division (G)(2) 97021
of this section, a noninstitutional medicaid provider or owner 97022
subject to a suspension under this section may request a 97023
reconsideration. The request shall be made not later than thirty 97024
days after receipt of the notice provided under division (F) of 97025
this section. The reconsideration is not subject to an 97026
adjudication hearing pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.97027

       (2) In requesting a reconsideration, the provider or owner 97028
shall submit written information and documents to the department. 97029
The information and documents may pertain to any of the following 97030
issues:97031

       (a) Whether the determination to suspend the provider 97032
agreement was based on a mistake of fact, other than the validity 97033
of the indictment;97034

       (b) Whether any offense charged in the indictment resulted 97035
from an offense specified in division (E) of this section;97036

       (c) Whether the provider or owner can demonstrate that the 97037
provider or owner did not directly or indirectly sanction the 97038
action of its authorized agent, associate, manager, or employee 97039
that resulted in the indictment.97040

       (3) The department shall review the information and documents 97041
submitted in a request for reconsideration. After the review, the 97042
suspension may be affirmed, reversed, or modified, in whole or in 97043
part. The department shall notify the affected provider or owner 97044
of the results of the review. The review and notification of its 97045
results shall be completed not later than forty-five days after 97046
receiving the information and documents submitted in a request for 97047
reconsideration.97048

       (H) The department may adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 97049
119. of the Revised Code to implement this section. The rules97050
Rules adopted under section 5164.02 of the Revised Code may 97051
specify circumstances under which the department would not suspend 97052
a provider agreement pursuant to this section.97053

       Sec. 5111.06.        Sec. 5164.38.  (A)(1) As used in this section and in 97054
sections 5111.061 and 5111.063 of the Revised Code:97055

       (a) "Provider" means any person, institution, or entity that 97056
furnishes medicaid services under a provider agreement with the 97057
department of job and family services pursuant to Title XIX of the 97058
"Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as 97059
amended.97060

       (b) "Party" has the same meaning as in division (G) of 97061
section 119.01 of the Revised Code.97062

       (c)(1) "Adjudication" has the same meaning as in division (D) 97063
of section 119.01 of the Revised Code.97064

       (2) "Party" has the same meaning as in division (G) of 97065
section 119.01 of the Revised Code.97066

       (3) "Revalidate" means to approve a medicaid provider's 97067
continued enrollment as a medicaid provider in accordance with the 97068
revalidation process established in rules authorized by section 97069
5164.32 of the Revised Code.97070

       (B) This section does not apply to either of the following:97071

       (a)(1) Any action taken or decision made by the department of 97072
job and family servicesmedicaid with respect to entering into or 97073
refusing to enter into a contract with a managed care organization 97074
pursuant to section 5111.175167.10 of the Revised Code;97075

       (b)(2) Any action taken by the department under sections 97076
5111.355165.60 to 5111.625165.89 of the Revised Code.97077

       (B)(C) Except as provided in division (D)(E) of this section 97078
and section 5111.9145164.58 of the Revised Code, the department 97079
shall do eitherany of the following by issuing an order pursuant 97080
to an adjudication conducted in accordance with Chapter 119. of 97081
the Revised Code:97082

       (1) Enter into or refuse to enter into a provider agreement 97083
with a medicaid provider, or suspend,;97084

       (2) Revalidate or refuse to revalidate a medicaid provider's 97085
provider agreement;97086

       (3) Suspend or terminate, renew, or refuse to renew an 97087
existinga medicaid provider's provider agreement with a provider;97088

       (2)(4) Take any action based upon a final fiscal audit of a 97089
medicaid provider.97090

       (C)(D) Any party who is adversely affected by the issuance of 97091
an adjudication order under division (B)(C) of this section may 97092
appeal to the court of common pleas of Franklin county in 97093
accordance with section 119.12 of the Revised Code.97094

       (D)(E) The department is not required to comply with division 97095
(B)(C)(1), (2), or (3) of this section whenever any of the 97096
following occur:97097

       (1) The terms of a provider agreement require the medicaid97098
provider to hold a license, permit, or certificate or maintain a 97099
certification issued by an official, board, commission, 97100
department, division, bureau, or other agency of state or federal 97101
government other than the department of job and family services97102
medicaid, and the license, permit, certificate, or certification 97103
has been denied, revoked, not renewed, suspended, or otherwise 97104
limited.97105

       (2) The terms of a provider agreement require the medicaid97106
provider to hold a license, permit, or certificate or maintain 97107
certification issued by an official, board, commission, 97108
department, division, bureau, or other agency of state or federal 97109
government other than the department of job and family services97110
medicaid, and the provider has not obtained the license, permit, 97111
certificate, or certification.97112

       (3) The medicaid provider's application for a provider 97113
agreement is denied, or the provider's provider agreement is97114
terminated, or not renewed duerevalidated, because of or 97115
pursuant to theany of the following:97116

       (a) The termination, refusal to renew, or denial of a 97117
license, permit, certificate, or certification by an official, 97118
board, commission, department, division, bureau, or other agency 97119
of this state other than the department of job and family services97120
medicaid, notwithstanding the fact that the provider may hold a 97121
license, permit, certificate, or certification from an official, 97122
board, commission, department, division, bureau, or other agency 97123
of another state.97124

       (4) The provider agreement is denied, terminated, or not 97125
renewed pursuant to division (C);97126

       (b) Division (D) or (F)(E) of section 5111.035164.35 of the 97127
Revised Code.97128

       (5) The provider agreement is denied, terminated, or not 97129
renewed due to the;97130

       (c) The provider's termination, suspension, or exclusion from 97131
the medicare program established under Title XVIII of the "Social 97132
Security Act" or from another state's medicaid program and, in 97133
either case, the termination, suspension, or exclusion is binding 97134
on the provider's participation in the medicaid program in this 97135
state.97136

       (6) The provider agreement is denied, terminated, or not 97137
renewed due to the;97138

       (d) The provider's pleading guilty to or being convicted of a 97139
criminal activity materially related to either the medicare or 97140
medicaid program;97141

       (e) The provider or its owner, officer, authorized agent, 97142
associate, manager, or employee having been convicted of one of 97143
the offenses that caused the provider's provider agreement to be 97144
suspended pursuant to section 5164.36 of the Revised Code;97145

       (f) The provider's failure to provide the department the 97146
national provider identifier assigned the provider by the national 97147
provider system pursuant to 45 C.F.R. 162.408.97148

       (7)(4) The medicaid provider's application for a provider 97149
agreement is denied, or the provider's provider agreement is97150
terminated, or suspended, as a result of action by the United 97151
States department of health and human services and that action is 97152
binding on the provider's medicaid participation in the medicaid 97153
program.97154

       (8)(5) Pursuant to either section 5111.0315164.36 or 97155
5111.0355164.37 of the Revised Code, the medicaid provider's97156
provider agreement is suspended and payments to the provider are 97157
suspended pending indictment of the provider.97158

       (9) The provider agreement is denied, terminated, or not 97159
renewed because the provider or its owner, officer, authorized 97160
agent, associate, manager, or employee has been convicted of one 97161
of the offenses that caused the provider agreement to be suspended 97162
pursuant to section 5111.031 of the Revised Code.97163

       (10)(6) The medicaid provider's application for a provider 97164
agreement is denied because the provider's application was not 97165
complete;97166

       (7) The medicaid provider's provider agreement is converted 97167
under section 5111.0285164.32 of the Revised Code from a 97168
provider agreement that is not time-limited to a provider 97169
agreement that is time-limited.97170

       (11) The provider agreement is terminated or an application 97171
for re-enrollment is denied because the provider has failed to 97172
apply for re-enrollment within the time or in the manner specified 97173
for re-enrollment(8) Unless the medicaid provider is a nursing 97174
facility or ICF/MR, the provider's provider agreement is not 97175
revalidated pursuant to division (B)(1) of section 5111.02897176
5164.32 of the Revised Code.97177

       (12)(9) The medicaid provider's provider agreement is 97178
suspended or, terminated, or an application for enrollment or 97179
re-enrollment is denied, for anynot revalidated because of either 97180
of the following:97181

       (a) Any reason authorized or required by one or more of the 97182
following: 42 C.F.R. 455.106, 455.23, 455.416, 455.434, or 97183
455.450.97184

       (13) The provider agreement is terminated or not renewed 97185
because the;97186

       (b) The provider has not billed or otherwise submitted a 97187
medicaid claim to the department for two years or longer.97188

       (14) The provider agreement is denied, terminated, or not 97189
renewed because the provider fails to provide to the department 97190
the national provider identifier assigned the provider by the 97191
national provider system pursuant to 45 C.F.R. 162.408.97192

       (F) In the case of a medicaid provider described in division 97193
(D)(13)(E)(3)(f), (6), (7), or (14)(9)(b) of this section, the 97194
department may take its proposed action against a provider 97195
agreement by sending a notice explaining the proposed action to 97196
the provider. The notice shall be sent to the medicaid provider's 97197
address on record with the department. The notice may be sent by 97198
regular mail.97199

       (E)(G) The department may withhold payments for medicaid97200
services rendered by a medicaid provider under the medicaid 97201
program during the pendency of proceedings initiated under 97202
division (B)(C)(1), (2), or (3) of this section. If the 97203
proceedings are initiated under division (B)(2)(C)(4) of this 97204
section, the department may withhold payments only to the extent 97205
that they equal amounts determined in a final fiscal audit as 97206
being due the state. This division does not apply if the 97207
department fails to comply with section 119.07 of the Revised 97208
Code, requests a continuance of the hearing, or does not issue a 97209
decision within thirty days after the hearing is completed. This 97210
division does not apply to nursing facilities and intermediate 97211
care facilities for the mentally retarded as defined in section 97212
5111.20 of the Revised CodeICFs/MR.97213

       Sec. 5111.062.        Sec. 5164.39. In any action taken by the department 97214
of job and family servicesmedicaid under section 5111.065164.3897215
or 5111.0615164.57 of the Revised Code or any other provision of 97216
this chapterstate statute governing the medicaid program that 97217
requires the department to give notice of an opportunity for a 97218
hearing in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, if 97219
the department gives notice of the opportunity for a hearing but 97220
the medicaid provider or other entity subject to the notice does 97221
not request a hearing or timely request a hearing in accordance 97222
with section 119.07 of the Revised Code, the department is not 97223
required to hold a hearing. The medicaid director of job and 97224
family service may proceed by issuing a final adjudication order 97225
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.97226

       Sec. 5111.05.        Sec. 5164.45.  (A) The department of job and family 97227
servicesmedicaid may contract with any person or persons as a 97228
fiscal agent for the examination, processing, and determination of 97229
medical assistancemedicaid claims under this chapter. The 97230
contracting party may provide any of the following services, as 97231
required by the contract:97232

       (1) Design and operate medicaid management information 97233
systems, including the provision of data processing services;97234

       (2) Determine the amounts of payments to be made upon claims 97235
for medical assistancemedicaid;97236

       (3) Prepare and furnish to the department lists and computer 97237
tapes of such claims for payment;97238

       (4) In addition to audits which may be conducted by the 97239
department and by the auditor of state, make audits of providers 97240
and the claims of medicaid providers of medical assistance97241
according to the standards set forth in the contract;97242

       (5) Assist medicaid providers of medical assistance in the 97243
development of procedures relating to utilization practices, make 97244
studies of the effectiveness of such procedures and methods for 97245
their improvement, implement and enforce standards of medical 97246
policy, and assist in the application of safeguards against 97247
unnecessary utilization;97248

       (6) Assist any institution, facility, or agency to qualify as 97249
a medicaid provider of medical assistance;97250

       (7) Establish and maintain fiscal records for the medical 97251
assistancemedicaid program;97252

       (8) Perform statistical and research studies;97253

       (9) Develop and implement programs for medical assistance97254
medicaid cost containment;97255

       (10) Perform such other duties as are necessary to carry out 97256
the medical assistancemedicaid program.97257

       (B) The department of job and family services may contract 97258
with any person or persons as an insuring agent for the 97259
examination, processing, and determination of medical assistance97260
medicaid claims, as provided in division (A) of this section, and 97261
for the payment of medical assistancemedicaid claims through an 97262
underwritten program in which the state pays the insuring agent a 97263
monthly premium and the insuring agent pays for medicalmedicaid97264
services authorized under the state's medical assistance program. 97265
The person with whom the department contracts, with respect to the 97266
awarding, provisions, and performance of such contract, shall not 97267
be subject to the provisions of Title XXXIX of the Revised Code or 97268
to regulation by the department of insurance, nor to taxation as 97269
an insurance company pursuant to section 5725.18 or 5729.03 of the 97270
Revised Code. A contract with an insuring agent shall specify the 97271
qualifications, including capital and surplus requirements, and 97272
other conditions with which the insuring agent must comply.97273

       (C) In entering into a contract under this section, the 97274
department, in cooperation with the director of budget and 97275
management, shall determine that the contracting party is 97276
qualified to perform the required services and shall follow 97277
applicable procedures required of the department of administrative 97278
services in sections 125.07 to 125.11 of the Revised Code. A 97279
contract shall be awarded to the bidder who, with due 97280
consideration to the bidder's experience and financial capability, 97281
offers the lowest and best bid to the state for control of the 97282
costs of the medical assistancemedicaid program consistent with 97283
meeting the obligations under that program for fair and equitable 97284
treatment of medicaid recipients and medicaid providers of medical 97285
services. Any arrangement whereby funds are paid to an insuring or 97286
fiscal agent for administrative functions under this section 97287
shall, for the purposes of section 125.081 of the Revised Code, be 97288
deemed to be a contract or purchase by the department of 97289
administrative services; however, money to be used by an insuring 97290
agent to pay for medicalmedicaid services authorized under the 97291
state's medical assistance program shall not be deemed a contract 97292
or purchase within the meaning of such section.97293

       Sec. 5111.052.        Sec. 5164.46.  (A) As used in this section, 97294
"electronic claims submission process" means any of the following:97295

       (1) Electronic interchange of data;97296

       (2) Direct entry of data through an internet-based mechanism 97297
implemented by the department of job and family servicesmedicaid;97298

       (3) Any other process for the electronic submission of claims 97299
that is specified in rules adopted under this section 5162.02 of 97300
the Revised Code.97301

       (B) Not later than January 1, 2013, and except as provided in 97302
division (C) of this section, each medicaid provider of services 97303
to medicaid recipients shall do both of the following:97304

       (1) Use only an electronic claims submission process to 97305
submit to the department of job and family servicesmedicaid97306
claims for medicaid reimbursementpayment for medicaid services 97307
provided to medicaid recipients;97308

       (2) Arrange to receive medicaid reimbursementpayment from 97309
the department by means of electronic funds transfer.97310

       (C) Division (B) of this section does not apply to any of the 97311
following:97312

       (1) A nursing facility, as defined in section 5111.20 of the 97313
Revised Code;97314

       (2) An intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded, 97315
as defined in section 5111.20 of the Revised CodeICF/MR;97316

       (3) A medicaid managed care organization under contract with 97317
the department pursuant to section 5111.17 of the Revised Code;97318

       (4) Any other medicaid provider or type of medicaid provider 97319
designated in rules adopted under this section 5162.02 of the 97320
Revised Code.97321

       (D) The department shall not process a medicaid claim 97322
submitted on or after January 1, 2013, unless the claim is 97323
submitted through an electronic claims submission process in 97324
accordance with this section.97325

       (E) The director of job and family services may adopt rules 97326
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code as the 97327
director considers necessary to implement this section.97328

       Sec. 5111.054.        Sec. 5164.47.  (A) As used in this section:97329

       (1) "Federal financial participation" means the federal 97330
government's share of expenditures made by an entity in 97331
implementing the medicaid program.97332

       (2), "OCHSPS" means the private, not-for-profit corporation 97333
known as the Ohio children's hospital solutions for patient 97334
safety, which was formed for the purpose of improving pediatric 97335
patient care in this state, which performs functions that are 97336
included within the functions of a peer review committee as 97337
defined in section 2305.25 of the Revised Code, and which consists 97338
of all of the following members: Akron children's hospital, 97339
Cincinnati children's hospital medical center, Cleveland clinic 97340
children's hospital, Dayton children's medical center, mercy 97341
children's hospital, nationwide children's hospital, rainbow 97342
babies & children's hospital, and Toledo children's hospital.97343

       (B) If, as authorized by section 5101.105160.10 of the 97344
Revised Code, the department of job and family servicesmedicaid 97345
director chooses to contract with a person to perform either or 97346
both of the following services, itthe director may contract with 97347
any qualified person, including OCHSPS, to perform the service or 97348
services on the department's behalf of the department of medicaid:97349

       (1) Review and analyze claims for medical assistance made 97350
under this chaptermedicaid services provided to children in 97351
accordance with all state and federal laws governing the 97352
confidentiality of patient-identifying information;97353

       (2) Perform quality assurance and quality review functions, 97354
other than those described in division (B)(1) of this section, 97355
related to medical assistance made under this chaptermedicaid 97356
services provided to children. 97357

       The functions specified in division (B)(2) of this section 97358
may include those recommended by the best evidence for advancing 97359
child health in Ohio now (BEACON) council. 97360

       (C) If the departmentdirector enters into a contract with 97361
OCHSPS for OCHSPS to perform either or both of the services 97362
described in division (B) of this section, OCHSPS shall, only for 97363
purposes of section 5101.115160.12 of the Revised Code, be 97364
considered a public entity and the departmentdirector shall seek 97365
federal financial participation for costs incurred by OCHSPS in 97366
performing the service or services.97367

       Sec. 5111.051.        Sec. 5164.48.  The medicaid director of job and 97368
family services may submit a medicaid state plan amendment or 97369
request for a federal waiver to the United States secretary of 97370
health and human services as necessary to implement, at the 97371
director's discretion, a system under which medicaid payments for 97372
medical assistance provided under the medicaid programservices97373
are made to an organization on behalf of themedicaid providers of 97374
the medical assistance. The system may not provide for an 97375
organization to receive an amount that exceeds, in aggregate, the 97376
amount the departmentmedicaid program would have paid directly to 97377
themedicaid providers if not for this section.97378

       Sec. 5164.55.  The department of medicaid may conduct final 97379
fiscal audits of medicaid providers in accordance with the 97380
applicable requirements set forth in federal laws and regulations 97381
and determine any amounts the provider may owe the state. When 97382
conducting final fiscal audits, the department shall consider 97383
generally accepted auditing standards, which include the use of 97384
statistical sampling.97385

       Sec. 5111.022.        Sec. 5164.56.  Under the medicaid program, any 97386
amount determined to be owed the state by a final fiscal audit 97387
conducted pursuant to division (D) of section 5111.0215164.55 of 97388
the Revised Code, upon the issuance of an adjudication order 97389
pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code that contains a 97390
finding that there is a preponderance of the evidence that thea 97391
medicaid provider will liquidate assets or file bankruptcy in 97392
order to prevent payment of the amount determined to be owed the 97393
state, becomes a lien upon the real and personal property of the 97394
provider. Upon failure of the provider to pay the amount to the 97395
state, the medicaid director of job and family services shall file 97396
notice of the lien, for which there shall be no charge, in the 97397
office of the county recorder of the county in which it is 97398
ascertained that the provider owns real or personal property. The 97399
director shall notify the provider by mail of the lien, but 97400
absence of proof that the notice was sent does not affect the 97401
validity of the lien. The lien is not valid as against the claim 97402
of any mortgagee, pledgee, purchaser, judgment creditor, or other 97403
lienholder of record at the time the notice is filed.97404

       If the provider acquires real or personal property after 97405
notice of the lien is filed, the lien shall not be valid as 97406
against the claim of any mortgagee, pledgee, subsequent bona fide 97407
purchaser for value, judgment creditor, or other lienholder of 97408
record to such after-acquired property unless the notice of lien 97409
is refiled after the property is acquired by the provider and 97410
before the competing lien attaches to the after-acquired property 97411
or before the conveyance to the subsequent bona fide purchaser for 97412
value.97413

       When the amount has been paid, the provider may record with 97414
the recorder notice of the payment. For recording such notice of 97415
payment, the recorder shall charge and receive from the provider a 97416
base fee of one dollar for services and a housing trust fund fee 97417
of one dollar pursuant to section 317.36 of the Revised Code.97418

       In the event of a distribution of athe provider's assets 97419
pursuant to an order of any court under the law of this state 97420
including any receivership, assignment for benefit of creditors, 97421
adjudicated insolvency, or similar proceedings, amounts then or 97422
thereafter due the state under this chapterthe medicaid program97423
have the same priority as provided by law for the payment of taxes 97424
due the state and shall be paid out of the receivership trust fund 97425
or other such trust fund in the same manner as provided for claims 97426
for unpaid taxes due the state.97427

       If the attorney general finds after investigation that any 97428
amount due the state under this chapterthe medicaid program is 97429
uncollectable, in whole or in part, the attorney general shall 97430
recommend to the director the cancellation of all or part of the 97431
claim. The director may thereupon effect the cancellation.97432

       Sec. 5111.061.        Sec. 5164.57. (A) As used in this section, 97433
"adjudication" has the same meaning as in section 119.01 of the 97434
Revised Code.97435

       (B)(1) Except as provided in division (A)(B)(2) of this 97436
section, the department of job and family servicesmedicaid may 97437
recover a medicaid payment or portion of a payment made to a 97438
medicaid provider to which the provider is not entitled if the 97439
department notifies the provider of the overpayment during the 97440
five-year period immediately following the end of the state fiscal 97441
year in which the overpayment was made.97442

       (2) In the case of a hospital medicaid provider, if the 97443
department determines as a result of a medicare or medicaid cost 97444
report settlement that the provider received an amount under the 97445
medicaid program to which the provider is not entitled, the 97446
department may recover the overpayment if the department notifies 97447
the provider of the overpayment during the later of the following:97448

       (a) The five-year period immediately following the end of the 97449
state fiscal year in which the overpayment was made;97450

       (b) The one-year period immediately following the date the 97451
department receives from the United States centers for medicare 97452
and medicaid services a completed, audited, medicare cost report 97453
for the provider that applies to the state fiscal year in which 97454
the overpayment was made.97455

       (B)(C) Among the overpayments that may be recovered under 97456
this section are the following:97457

       (1) Payment for a medicaid service, or a day of service, not 97458
rendered;97459

       (2) Payment for a day of service at a full per diem rate that 97460
should have been paid at a percentage of the full per diem rate;97461

       (3) Payment for a medicaid service, or day of service, that 97462
was paid by, or partially paid by, a third party, as defined in 97463
section 5101.5715160.35 of the Revised Code, and the third 97464
party's payment or partial payment was not offset against the 97465
amount paid by the medicaid program to reduce or eliminate the 97466
amount that was paid by the medicaid program;97467

       (4) Payment when a medicaid recipient's responsibility for 97468
payment was understated and resulted in an overpayment to the 97469
provider.97470

       (C)(D) The department may recover an overpayment under this 97471
section prior to or after any of the following:97472

       (1) Adjudication of a final fiscal audit that section 5111.0697473
5164.38 of the Revised Code requires to be conducted in accordance 97474
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code;97475

       (2) Adjudication of a finding under any other provision of 97476
this chapterstate statutes governing the medicaid program or the 97477
rules adopted under itthose statutes;97478

       (3) Expiration of the time to issue a final fiscal audit that 97479
section 5111.065164.38 of the Revised Code requires to be 97480
conducted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code;97481

       (4) Expiration of the time to issue a finding under any other 97482
provision of this chapterstate statutes governing the medicaid 97483
program or the rules adopted under itthose statutes.97484

       (D)(E)(1) Subject to division (D)(E)(2) of this section, the 97485
recovery of an overpayment under this section does not preclude 97486
the department from subsequently doing the following:97487

       (a) Issuing a final fiscal audit in accordance with Chapter 97488
119. of the Revised Code, as required under section 5111.0697489
5164.38 of the Revised Code;97490

       (b) Issuing a finding under any other provision of this 97491
chapterstate statutes governing the medicaid program or the rules 97492
adopted under itthose statutes.97493

       (2) A final fiscal audit or finding issued subsequent to the 97494
recovery of an overpayment under this section shall be reduced by 97495
the amount of the prior recovery, as appropriate.97496

       (E)(F) Nothing in this section limits the department's 97497
authority to recover overpayments pursuant to any other provision 97498
of the Revised Code.97499

       Sec. 5111.914.        Sec. 5164.58. (A) As used in this section, 97500
"provider" has the same meaning as in section 5111.06 of the 97501
Revised Code.97502

       (B) If a state agency that enters into a contract with the 97503
department of job and family servicesmedicaid under section 97504
5111.915162.35 of the Revised Code identifies that a medicaid 97505
overpayment has been made to a medicaid provider, the state agency 97506
may commence actions to recover the overpayment on behalf of the 97507
department.97508

       (C)(B) In recovering an overpayment pursuant to this section, 97509
a state agency shall comply with the following procedures:97510

       (1) The state agency shall attempt to recover the overpayment 97511
by notifying the medicaid provider of the overpayment and 97512
requesting voluntary repayment. Not later than five business days 97513
after notifying the medicaid provider, the state agency shall 97514
notify the department in writing of the overpayment. The state 97515
agency may negotiate a settlement of the overpayment and notify 97516
the department of the settlement. A settlement negotiated by the 97517
state agency is not valid and shall not be implemented until the 97518
department has given its written approval of the settlement.97519

       (2) If the state agency is unable to obtain voluntary 97520
repayment of an overpayment, the agency shall give the medicaid97521
provider notice of an opportunity for a hearing in accordance with 97522
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. If the medicaid provider timely 97523
requests a hearing in accordance with section 119.07 of the 97524
Revised Code, the state agency shall conduct the hearing to 97525
determine the legal and factual validity of the overpayment. On 97526
completion of the hearing, the state agency shall submit its 97527
hearing officer's report and recommendation and the complete 97528
record of proceedings, including all transcripts, to the medicaid97529
director of job and family services for final adjudication. The 97530
director may issue a final adjudication order in accordance with 97531
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. The state agency shall pay any 97532
attorney's fees imposed under section 119.092 of the Revised Code. 97533
The department of job and family servicesmedicaid shall pay any 97534
attorney's fees imposed under section 2335.39 of the Revised Code.97535

       (D)(C) In any action taken by a state agency under this 97536
section that requires the agency to give notice of an opportunity 97537
for a hearing in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, 97538
if the agency gives notice of the opportunity for a hearing but 97539
the medicaid provider subject to the notice does not request a 97540
hearing or timely request a hearing in accordance with section 97541
119.07 of the Revised Code, the agency is not required to hold a 97542
hearing. The agency may request that the medicaid director of job 97543
and family services issue a final adjudication order in accordance 97544
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.97545

       (E)(D) This section does not preclude the department of job 97546
and family servicesmedicaid from adjudicating a final fiscal 97547
audit under section 5111.065164.38 of the Revised Code, 97548
recovering overpayments under section 5111.0615164.57 of the 97549
Revised Code, or making findings or taking other actions 97550
authorized by this chapterstate statutes governing the medicaid 97551
program.97552

       Sec. 5164.59.  The department of medicaid may deduct from 97553
medicaid payments for medicaid services rendered by a medicaid 97554
provider any amounts the provider owes the state as the result of 97555
incorrect medicaid payments the department has made to the 97556
provider.97557

       Sec. 5164.60.  Any medicaid provider who, without intent, 97558
obtains payments under the medicaid program in excess of the 97559
amount to which the provider is entitled is liable for payment of 97560
interest on the amount of the excess payments at the maximum 97561
interest rate allowable for real estate mortgages under section 97562
1343.01 of the Revised Code on the date the payment was made to 97563
the provider for the period from the date on which payment was 97564
made to the date on which repayment is made to the state.97565

       Sec. 5164.61.  The authority, under state and federal law, of 97566
the department of medicaid or a county department of job and 97567
family services to recover excess medicaid payments made to a 97568
medicaid provider is not limited by the availability of remedies 97569
under sections 5162.21 and 5162.23 of the Revised Code for 97570
recovering benefits paid on behalf of medicaid recipients.97571

       Sec. 5111.021.        Sec. 5164.70. Under the medicaid program:97572

       (A) Except as otherwise required by federal statute or 97573
regulation, the department of job and family services shall not 97574
reimburse a medical providerno medicaid payment for any medical 97575
assistance rendered under the program an amount that exceeds97576
medicaid service shall exceed the following:97577

       (1)(A) If the medicaid provider is a hospital, nursing 97578
facility, or intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded97579
ICF/MR, the limits established under Subpart C of 42 C.F.R. Part 97580
447;97581

       (2)(B) If the medicaid provider is other than a provider 97582
described in division (A)(1) of this section, the authorized 97583
reimbursementpayment limits for the same service under the 97584
medicare program established under Title XVIII of the "Social 97585
Security Act," 79 Stat. 286 (1965), 42 U.S.C. 1395, as amended.97586

       (B) Reimbursement for freestanding medical laboratory charges 97587
shall not exceed the customary and usual fee for laboratory 97588
profiles.97589

       (C) The department may deduct from payments for services 97590
rendered by a medicaid provider under the medicaid program any 97591
amounts the provider owes the state as the result of incorrect 97592
medicaid payments the department has made to the provider.97593

       (D) The department may conduct final fiscal audits in 97594
accordance with the applicable requirements set forth in federal 97595
laws and regulations and determine any amounts the provider may 97596
owe the state. When conducting final fiscal audits, the department 97597
shall consider generally accepted auditing standards, which 97598
include the use of statistical sampling.97599

       (E) The number of days of inpatient hospital care for which 97600
reimbursement is made on behalf of a medicaid recipient to a 97601
hospital that is not paid under a diagnostic-related-group 97602
prospective payment system shall not exceed thirty days during a 97603
period beginning on the day of the recipient's admission to the 97604
hospital and ending sixty days after the termination of that 97605
hospital stay, except that the department may make exceptions to 97606
this limitation. The limitation does not apply to children 97607
participating in the program for medically handicapped children 97608
established under section 3701.023 of the Revised Code.97609

       (F) The division of any reimbursement between a collaborating 97610
physician or podiatrist and a clinical nurse specialist, certified 97611
nurse-midwife, or certified nurse practitioner for services 97612
performed by the nurse shall be determined and agreed on by the 97613
nurse and collaborating physician or podiatrist. In no case shall 97614
reimbursement exceed the payment that the physician or podiatrist 97615
would have received had the physician or podiatrist provided the 97616
entire service.97617

       Sec. 5164.71.  Medicaid payments for freestanding medical 97618
laboratory charges shall not exceed the customary and usual fee 97619
for laboratory profiles.97620

       Sec. 5164.72.  The number of days of inpatient hospital care 97621
for which a medicaid payment is made on behalf of a medicaid 97622
recipient to a hospital that is not paid under a 97623
diagnostic-related-group prospective payment system shall not 97624
exceed thirty days during a period beginning on the day of the 97625
recipient's admission to the hospital and ending sixty days after 97626
the termination of that hospital stay, except that the department 97627
of medicaid may make exceptions to this limitation. The limitation 97628
does not apply to children participating in the program for 97629
medically handicapped children established under section 3701.023 97630
of the Revised Code.97631

       Sec. 5164.73.  The division of any medicaid payment between a 97632
collaborating physician or podiatrist and a clinical nurse 97633
specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or certified nurse 97634
practitioner for services performed by the nurse shall be 97635
determined and agreed on by the nurse and collaborating physician 97636
or podiatrist. In no case shall the medicaid payment exceed the 97637
medicaid payment that the physician or podiatrist would have 97638
received had the physician or podiatrist provided the entire 97639
service.97640

       Sec. 5111.19.        Sec. 5164.74.  The medicaid director of job and 97641
family services shall adopt rules under section 5164.02 of the 97642
Revised Code governing the calculation and payment of, and the 97643
allocation of payments for, graduate medical education costs 97644
associated with medicaid services rendered to medicaid recipients 97645
after June 30, 1994. Subject to section 5111.1915164.741 of the 97646
Revised Code, the rules shall provide for reimbursementpayment97647
of graduate medical education costs associated with medicaid97648
services rendered to medicaid recipients, including recipients 97649
enrolled in a medicaid managed care organization under contract 97650
with the department office under section 5111.17 of the Revised 97651
Code, that the department of medicaid determines are allowable and 97652
reasonable.97653

       If the department requires a managed care organization to pay 97654
a provider for graduate medical education costs associated with 97655
the delivery of services to medicaid recipients enrolled in the 97656
organization, the department shall include in its payment to the 97657
organization an amount sufficient for the organization to pay such 97658
costs. If the department does not include in its payments to the 97659
managed care organization amounts for graduate medical education 97660
costs of providers, all of the following apply:97661

       (A) Except as provided in section 5111.191 of the Revised 97662
Code, the department shall pay the provider for graduate medical 97663
education costs associated with the delivery of services to 97664
medicaid recipients enrolled in the organization;97665

       (B) No provider shall seek reimbursement from the 97666
organization for such costs;97667

       (C) The organization is not required to pay providers for 97668
such costs.97669

       Sec. 5111.191.        Sec. 5164.741.  (A) Except as provided in division 97670
(B) of this section, the department of job and family services97671
medicaid may deny medicaid payment to a hospital for direct 97672
graduate medical education costs associated with the delivery of 97673
medicaid services to any medicaid recipient if the hospital 97674
refuses without good cause to contract with a medicaid managed 97675
care organization that serves participants in the care management 97676
system established under section 5111.16 of the Revised Code who 97677
are required to be enrolled in a managed care organization and the 97678
managed care organization serves the area in which the hospital is 97679
located.97680

       (B) A hospital is not subject to division (A) of this section 97681
if all of the following are the case:97682

        (1) The hospital is located in a county in which participants 97683
in the care management system are required before January 1, 2006, 97684
to be enrolled in a medicaid managed care organization that is a 97685
health insuring corporation.97686

        (2) The hospital has entered into a contract before January 97687
1, 2006, with at least one health insuring corporation serving the 97688
participants specified in division (B)(1) of this section.97689

        (3) The hospital remains under contract with at least one 97690
health insuring corporation serving participants in the care 97691
management system who are required to be enrolled in a health 97692
insuring corporation.97693

       (C) The medicaid director of job and family services shall 97694
specify in the rules adopted under section 5111.195164.02 of the 97695
Revised Code what constitutes good cause for a hospital to refuse 97696
to contract with a medicaid managed care organization.97697

       Sec. 5111.086.        Sec. 5164.75.  As used in this section, "federal 97698
upper reimbursement limit" means the limit established pursuant to 97699
section 1927(e) of the "Social Security Act," 104 Stat. 1388-151 97700
(1990)section 1927(e), 42 U.S.C. 1396r-8(e), as amended.97701

       The medicaid payment for a drug that is subject to a federal 97702
upper reimbursement limit shall not exceed, in the aggregate, the 97703
federal upper reimbursement limit for the drug. The director of 97704
job and family services shall adopt rules under section 5111.02 of 97705
the Revised Code as necessary to implement this section.97706

       Sec. 5111.082.        Sec. 5164.751. (A) As used in this section:97707

       (1) "State, "state maximum allowable cost" means the per unit 97708
amount the department of job and family services reimburses97709
medicaid program pays a terminal distributor of dangerous drugs 97710
for a prescriptionprescribed drug included in the state maximum 97711
allowable cost program established under division (B) of this 97712
section. "State maximum allowable cost" excludes dispensing fees 97713
and copayments, coinsurance, or other cost-sharing charges, if 97714
any.97715

        (2) "Terminal distributor of dangerous drugs" has the same 97716
meaning as in section 4729.01 of the Revised Code.97717

        (B) The medicaid director of job and family services shall 97718
establish a state maximum allowable cost program for purposes of 97719
managing reimbursementmedicaid payments to terminal distributors 97720
of dangerous drugs for prescriptionprescribed drugs identified by 97721
the director pursuant to this division. The director shall do all 97722
of the following with respect to the program:97723

        (1) Identify and create a list of prescription prescribed97724
drugs to be included in the program.97725

        (2) Update the list of prescriptionprescribed drugs 97726
described in division (B)(1) of this section on a weekly basis.97727

        (3) Review the state maximum allowable cost for each 97728
prescribed drug included on the list described in division (B)(1) 97729
of this section on a weekly basis.97730

       (C) The director may adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 97731
119. of the Revised Code to implement this section.97732

       Sec. 5111.07.        Sec. 5164.752. Commencing inIn July, 1986, andof97733
every second July thereaftereven-numbered year, the department 97734
of job and family servicesmedicaid shall initiate a private97735
confidential survey of retail pharmacy operationsthe cost of 97736
dispensing drugs incurred by terminal distributors of dangerous 97737
drugs in thethis state. The survey shall be used as the basis for 97738
establishing a current maximumthe medicaid program's dispensing 97739
fee for licensed pharmacists who are providers of drugs under this 97740
chapter. Theterminal distributors in accordance with section 97741
5164.753 of the Revised Code. The survey shall be completed and 97742
its results published not later than the last day of October of 97743
the year in which it is conducted.97744

        Each terminal distributor that is a provider of drugs under 97745
the medicaid program shall participate in the survey. Except as 97746
necessary to publish the survey's results, a terminal 97747
distributor's responses to the survey are confidential and not a 97748
public record under section 149.43 of the Revised Code.97749

        The survey shall be conducted in conformance with the 97750
requirements set forth in 42 C.F.R. 447.331 through 447.333, as 97751
amended or superseded, and447.500 to 447.518. The survey shall 97752
include operational data and direct prescription expenses, 97753
professional services and personnel costs, and usual and 97754
customary overhead expenses, and profit data of the retail 97755
pharmaciesterminal distributors surveyed. The survey shall be 97756
completed and its results published no later than the last day of 97757
October of the year in which the survey is conducted, and the97758
survey shall compute and report the cost of dispensing fees on a 97759
basis of the usual and customary charges by retail pharmacies97760
terminal distributors to their customers for dispensing drugs. The 97761
director of job and family services shall take into account the 97762
results of the survey in establishing a dispensing fee.97763

       Sec. 5111.071.        Sec. 5164.753. Commencing inIn December, 1986, and97764
of every second December thereaftereven-numbered year, the 97765
medicaid director of job and family services shall establish a 97766
dispensing fee, effective the following JanuaryJuly, for licensed 97767
pharmaciststerminal distributors of dangerous drugs who are 97768
providers of drugs under this chapterthe medicaid program. TheIn 97769
establishing the dispensing fee, the director shall take into 97770
consideration the results of the survey conducted under section 97771
5111.075164.752 of the Revised Code and the extent to which each 97772
terminal distributor participates in the medicaid program as a 97773
provider of drugs.97774

       Sec. 5111.0114.        Sec. 5164.754. (A) As used in this section, 97775
"dangerous drug" and "manufacturer of dangerous drugs" have the 97776
same meaning as in section 4729.01 of the Revised Code.97777

        (B) The medicaid director of job and family services may 97778
enter into or administer an agreement or cooperative arrangement 97779
with other states to create or join a multiple-state prescription 97780
drug purchasing program for the purpose of negotiating with 97781
manufacturers of dangerous drugs to receive discounts or rebates 97782
for dangerous drugs dispensed undercovered by the medicaid 97783
program.97784

       Sec. 5111.081.        Sec. 5164.755.  The medicaid director of job and 97785
family services, in rules adopted under section 5111.025164.02 of 97786
the Revised Code, may establish and implement a supplemental drug 97787
rebate program under which drug manufacturers may be required to 97788
provide the department of job and family servicesmedicaid a 97789
supplemental rebate as a condition of having the drug 97790
manufacturers' drug products covered by the medicaid program 97791
without prior approval. The department may receive a supplemental 97792
rebate negotiated under the program for a drug dispensed to a 97793
medicaid recipient pursuant to a prescription or a drug purchased 97794
by a medicaid provider for administration to a medicaid recipient 97795
in the provider's primary place of business. If necessary, the 97796
director may apply to the United States secretary of health and 97797
human services for a waiver of federal statutes and regulations to 97798
establish the supplemental drug rebate program.97799

       If the director establishes a supplemental drug rebate 97800
program, the director shall consult with drug manufacturers 97801
regarding the establishment and implementation of the program.97802

       Sec. 5101.31.        Sec. 5164.756. Any record, data, pricing information, 97803
or other information regarding a drug rebate agreement or a 97804
supplemental drug rebate agreement for the medicaid program 97805
established under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code that the 97806
department of job and family servicesmedicaid receives from a 97807
pharmaceutical manufacturer or creates pursuant to negotiation of 97808
the agreement is not a public record under section 149.43 of the 97809
Revised Code and shall be treated by the department as 97810
confidential information.97811

       Sec. 5111.083.        Sec. 5164.757. (A) As used in this section, 97812
"licensed health professional authorized to prescribe drugs" has 97813
the same meaning as in section 4729.01 of the Revised Code.97814

        (B) The medicaid director of job and family services may 97815
establish anacquire or specify technologies to provide 97816
information regarding medicaid recipient eligibility, claims 97817
history, and drug coverage to medicaid providers through 97818
electronic health record and e-prescribing system for the 97819
medicaid program under whichapplications.97820

        If such technologies are acquired or specified, the 97821
e-prescribing applications shall enable a medicaid provider who 97822
is a licensed health professional authorized to prescribe drugs 97823
shallto use an electronic system to prescribe a drug for a 97824
medicaid recipient when required to do so by division (C) of this 97825
section. The e-prescribingpurpose of the electronic system shall97826
is to eliminate the need for such medicaid providers to makeissue97827
prescriptions for medicaid recipients by handwriting or telephone. 97828
The e-prescribing systemtechnologies acquired or specified by the 97829
director also shall provide such medicaid providers with an 97830
up-to-date, clinically relevant drug information database and a 97831
system of electronically monitoring medicaid recipients' medical 97832
history, drug regimen compliance, and fraud and abuse.97833

       (C) If the director establishes an e-prescribing system under 97834
division (B) of this section, the director shall do all of the 97835
following:97836

       (1) Require that a medicaid provider who is a licensed health 97837
professional authorized to prescribe drugs use the e-prescribing 97838
system during a fiscal year if the medicaid provider was one of 97839
the ten medicaid providers who, during the calendar year that 97840
precedes that fiscal year, issued the most prescriptions for 97841
medicaid recipients receiving hospital services;97842

       (2) Before the beginning of each fiscal year, determine the 97843
ten medicaid providers that issued the most prescriptions for 97844
medicaid recipients receiving hospital services during the 97845
calendar year that precedes the upcoming fiscal year and notify 97846
those medicaid providers that they must use the e-prescribing 97847
system for the upcoming fiscal year;97848

       (3) Seek the most federal financial participation available 97849
for the development and implementation of the e-prescribing 97850
system.97851

       Sec. 5111.085.        Sec. 5164.758. Not later than July 1, 2012, the 97852
department of job and family servicesThe medicaid director shall 97853
adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119.under section 5164.0297854
of the Revised Code to implement a coordinated services program 97855
for medicaid recipients who are found to have obtained 97856
prescriptionprescribed drugs under the medicaid program at a 97857
frequency or in an amount that is not medically necessary. The 97858
program shall be implemented in a manner that is consistent with 97859
section 1915(a)(2) of the "Social Security Act," 95 Stat. 810 97860
(1981)section 1915(a)(2), 42 U.S.C. 1396n(a)(2), as amended, and 97861
42 C.F.R. 431.54(e).97862

       Sec. 5111.08.        Sec. 5164.759.  In accordance with subsection (g) of 97863
section 1927 of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 320 (1935)97864
section 1927(g), 42 U.S.C.A. 1396r-8(g), as amended, the 97865
department of job and family servicesmedicaid shall establish an 97866
outpatient drug use review program to assure that prescriptions 97867
obtained by medicaid recipients of medical assistance under this 97868
chapter are appropriate, medically necessary, and unlikely to 97869
cause adverse medical results.97870

       Sec. 5111.084.        Sec. 5164.7510.  (A) There is hereby established the 97871
pharmacy and therapeutics committee of the department of job and 97872
family servicesmedicaid. The committee shall assist the 97873
department with developing and maintaining a preferred drug list 97874
for the medicaid program.97875

       The committee shall review and recommend to the medicaid97876
director of job and family services the drugs that should be 97877
included on the preferred drug list. The recommendations shall be 97878
made based on the evaluation of competent evidence regarding the 97879
relative safety, efficacy, and effectiveness of prescription97880
prescribed drugs within a class or classes of prescription97881
prescribed drugs.97882

       (B) The committee shall consist of ten members and shall be 97883
appointed by the medicaid director of job and family services. The 97884
director shall seek recommendations for membership from relevant 97885
professional organizations. A candidate for membership recommended 97886
by a professional organization shall have professional experience 97887
working with medicaid recipients.97888

       The membership of the committee shall include:97889

       (1) Three pharmacists licensed under Chapter 4729. of the 97890
Revised Code;97891

       (2) Two doctors of medicine and two doctors of osteopathy who 97892
hold certificates to practice issued under Chapter 4731. of the 97893
Revised Code, one of whom is a family practice physician;97894

       (3) A registered nurse licensed under Chapter 4723. of the 97895
Revised Code;97896

       (4) A pharmacologist who has a doctoral degree;97897

       (5) A psychiatrist who holds a certificate to practice issued 97898
under Chapter 4731. of the Revised Code and specializes in 97899
psychiatry.97900

       (C) The committee shall elect from among its members a 97901
chairperson. Five committee members constitute a quorum.97902

       The committee shall establish guidelines necessary for the 97903
committee's operation.97904

       The committee may establish one or more subcommittees to 97905
investigate and analyze issues consistent with the duties of the 97906
committee under this section. The subcommittees may submit 97907
proposals regarding the issues to the committee and the committee 97908
may adopt, reject, or modify the proposals.97909

       A vote by a majority of a quorum is necessary to make 97910
recommendations to the director. In the case of a tie, the 97911
chairperson shall decide the outcome.97912

       (D) The director shall act on the committee's recommendations 97913
not later than thirty days after the recommendation is posted on 97914
the department's web site under division (F) of this section. If 97915
the director does not accept a recommendation of the committee, 97916
the director shall present the basis for this determination not 97917
later than fourteen days after making the determination or at the 97918
next scheduled meeting of the committee, whichever is sooner. 97919

       (E) An interested party may request, and shall be permitted, 97920
to make a presentation or submit written materials to the 97921
committee during a committee meeting. The presentation or other 97922
materials shall be relevant to an issue under consideration by the 97923
committee and any written material, including a transcript of 97924
testimony to be given on the day of the meeting, may be submitted 97925
to the committee in advance of the meeting.97926

       (F) The department shall post the following on the 97927
department's web site:97928

       (1) Guidelines established by the committee under division 97929
(C) of this section;97930

       (2) A detailed committee agenda not later than fourteen days 97931
prior to the date of a regularly scheduled meeting and not later 97932
than seventy-two hours prior to the date of a special meeting 97933
called by the committee;97934

       (3) Committee recommendations not later than seven days after 97935
the meeting at which the recommendation was approved;97936

       (4) The director's final determination as to the 97937
recommendations made by the committee under this section.97938

       Sec. 5111.025.        Sec. 5164.76. (A) In rules adopted under section 97939
5111.025164.02 of the Revised Code, the medicaid director of job 97940
and family services shall modify the manner or establish a new 97941
manner in which the following are paid under medicaid:97942

        (1) Community mental health agenciesservice providers or 97943
facilities for providing community mental health services included 97944
incovered by the state medicaid planprogram pursuant to section 97945
5111.0235164.15 of the Revised Code;97946

        (2) Providers of alcohol and drug addiction services for 97947
providing alcohol and drug addiction services included incovered 97948
by the medicaid program pursuant to rules adopted under section 97949
5111.02 of the Revised Code.97950

       (B) The director's authority to modify the manner, or to 97951
establish a new manner, for medicaid to pay for the services 97952
specified in division (A) of this section is not limited by any 97953
rules adopted under section 5111.02 or 5119.615119.22 or 5164.0297954
of the Revised Code that are in effect on June 26, 2003, and 97955
govern the way medicaid pays for those services. This is the case 97956
regardless of what state agency adopted the rules.97957

       Sec. 5111.0213.        Sec. 5164.77.  (A) As used in this section:97958

       (1) "Aide services" means all of the following:97959

       (a) Home health aide services available under the home health 97960
services benefit pursuant to 42 C.F.R. 440.70(b)(2);97961

       (b) Home care attendant services available under a home and 97962
community-based services medicaid waiver component;97963

       (c) Personal care aide services available under a home and 97964
community-based services medicaid waiver component.97965

       (2) "Home and community-based services medicaid waiver 97966
component" has the same meaning as in section 5111.85 of the 97967
Revised Code.97968

       (3) "Independent provider" means an individual who personally 97969
provides aide services or nursing services and is not employed by, 97970
under contract with, or affiliated with another entity that 97971
provides those services.97972

       (4)(3) "Nursing services" means all of the following:97973

       (a) Nursing services available under the home health services 97974
benefit pursuant to 42 C.F.R. 440.70(b)(1);97975

       (b) Private duty nursing services as defined in 42 C.F.R. 97976
440.80;97977

       (c) Nursing services available under a home and 97978
community-based services medicaid waiver component.97979

       (B) The department of job and family servicesmedicaid shall 97980
do bothall of the following:97981

       (1) Effective October 1, 2011, reduce the medicaid program's 97982
first-hour-unit price for aide services to ninety-seven per cent 97983
of the price paid on June 30, 2011, and for nursing services to 97984
ninety-five per cent of the price paid on June 30, 2011;97985

       (2) Effective October 1, 2011, pay for a service that is an 97986
aide service or a nursing service provided by an independent 97987
provider eighty per cent of the price it pays for the same service 97988
provided by a provider that is not an independent provider;97989

       (3) Not sooner than July 1, 2012, adjust the medicaid 97990
reimbursementpayment rates for aide services and nursing services 97991
in a manner that reflects, at a minimum, labor market data, 97992
education and licensure status, home health agency and independent 97993
provider status, and length of service visit.97994

       (C) The department shall strive to have the adjustment made 97995
under division (B)(3) of this section go into effect on July 1, 97996
2012. The reductions made under divisions (B)(1) and (2) of this 97997
section shall remain in effect until the adjustment made under 97998
division (B)(3) of this section goes into effect.97999

       (D) The director of job and family services shall adopt rules 98000
under sections 5111.02 and 5111.85 of the Revised Code as 98001
necessary to implement this section.98002

       Sec. 5111.0212.        Sec. 5164.80.  As necessary to comply with section 98003
1902(a)(13)(A) of the "Social Security Act," 111 Stat. 507 (1997)98004
section 1902(a)(13)(A), 42 U.S.C. 1396a(a)(13)(A), as amended, and 98005
any other federal law that requires public notice of proposed 98006
changes to reimbursementpayment rates for medical assistance 98007
provided under the medicaid programservices, the medicaid98008
director of job and family services shall give public notice in 98009
the register of Ohio of any change to a method or standard used to 98010
determine the medicaid reimbursementpayment rate for medical 98011
assistancea medicaid service.98012

       Sec. 5111.0214.        Sec. 5164.82. The department of job and family 98013
servicesmedicaid shall not knowingly make a medicaid payment for 98014
a provider-preventable condition for which federal financial 98015
participation is prohibited by regulations adopted under section 98016
2702 of the "Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act," 124 98017
Stat. 318 (2010)section 2702, 42 U.S.C. 1396b-1. The director of 98018
job and family services shall adopt rules under section 5111.02 of 98019
the Revised Code as necessary to implement this section.98020

       Sec. 5164.83. (A) As used in this section:98021

       (1) "Core competencies," "direct care services," and "direct 98022
care worker" have the same meanings as in section 191.061 of the 98023
Revised Code.98024

       (2) "Direct payment" means payment by the medicaid program 98025
for direct care services provided by a direct care worker to a 98026
medicaid recipient that is delivered directly to the worker.98027

       (3) "Indirect payment" means payment by the medicaid program 98028
for direct care services provided by a direct care worker to a 98029
medicaid recipient that is delivered to a third party but later 98030
transferred to the worker.98031

       (B) The department of medicaid shall not do either of the 98032
following unless a direct care worker demonstrates core 98033
competencies in accordance with section 191.061 of the Revised 98034
Code:98035

       (1) Permit a direct or indirect payment to be made to the 98036
worker for a direct care service provided by the worker on or 98037
after October 1, 2015;98038

       (2) Enter into a provider agreement with the direct care 98039
worker on or after October 1, 2015. 98040

       Sec. 5111.13.        Sec. 5164.85.  (A) As used in this section, 98041
"cost-effective" and "group health plan" have the same meanings as 98042
in section 1906 of the "Social Security Act," 104 Stat. 1388-161 98043
(1990)section 1906, 42 U.S.C. 1396e, as amended, and any 98044
regulations adopted under that section.98045

       (B) The department of job and family servicesmedicaid may 98046
submit a medicaid state plan amendment to the United States 98047
secretary of health and human services for the purpose of 98048
implementingimplement a program pursuant to section 1906 of the 98049
"Social Security Act," 104 Stat. 1388-161 (1990)section 1906, 42 98050
U.S.C. 1396e, as amended, for the enrollment of medicaid-eligible 98051
individuals in group health plans when the department determines 98052
that enrollment is cost-effective.98053

       (C) The director of job and family services may adopt rules 98054
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code as necessary 98055
to implement this section.98056

       Sec. 5111.18.        Sec. 5164.86. Not later than September 1, 2007, the98057
The medicaid director of job and family services shall establish 98058
a qualified state long-term care insurance partnership program 98059
consistent with the definition of that term in the "Social 98060
Security Act," section 1917(b)(1)(C)(iii), 42 U.S.C. 98061
1396p(b)(1)(C)(iii). An individual participating in the program 98062
who is subject to the medicaid estate recovery program instituted 98063
under section 5111.115162.21 of the Revised Code shall be 98064
eligible for the reduced adjustment or recovery under division (D) 98065
of that section.98066

        The director of job and family services may adopt rules in 98067
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code as necessary to 98068
implement this section.98069

       Sec. 5111.14.        Sec. 5164.88. The medicaid director of job and family 98070
services may submit to the United States secretary of health and 98071
human services an amendment to the medicaid state plan in order to98072
implement within the medicaid program a system under which 98073
medicaid recipients with chronic conditions are provided with 98074
coordinated care through health homes, as authorized by section 98075
1945 of the "Social Security Act," 124 Stat. 319 (2010)section 98076
1945, 42 U.S.C. 1396w-4.98077

       The director may adopt rules under section 5111.02 of the 98078
Revised Code to implement this section.98079

       Sec. 5111.141.        Sec. 5164.89.  The department of job and family 98080
servicesmedicaid may require county departments of job and 98081
family services to provide case management of nonemergency 98082
transportation services provided under the medical assistance98083
medicaid program. County departments shall provide the case 98084
management if required by the department in accordance with rules 98085
adopted by the director of job and family servicesunder section 98086
5164.02 of the Revised Code.98087

       The department shall determine, for the purposes of claiming 98088
federal reimbursement under the medical assistance program98089
financial participation, whether it will claim expenditures for 98090
nonemergency transportation services as administrative or program 98091
expenditures.98092

       Sec. 5111.96.        Sec. 5164.90.  (A) As used in this section, "MFP 98093
demonstration project" means a money follows the person 98094
demonstration project that the United States secretary of health 98095
and human services is authorized to award under section 6071 of 98096
the "Deficit Reduction Act of 2005" (Pub. L. No. 109-171, as 98097
amended).98098

        (B) To the extent funds are available under an MFP 98099
demonstration project awarded to the department of job and family 98100
servicesmedicaid, the director of job and family services98101
medicaid may operate the helping Ohioans move, expanding (HOME) 98102
choice demonstration component of the medicaid program to 98103
transition medicaid recipients who qualify for the demonstration 98104
component to community settings. The director may adopt rules in 98105
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code for the 98106
administration and operation of the demonstration component.98107

       Sec. 5111.981.        Sec. 5164.91. (A) As used in this section and 98108
section 5111.982 of the Revised Code:98109

       "Dual eligible individual" has the same meaning as in the 98110
"Social Security Act," section 1915(h)(2)(B), 42 U.S.C. 98111
1396n(h)(2)(B).98112

       "Medicare" means the program created in the "Social Security 98113
Act," Title XVIII, 42 U.S.C. 1395 et seq., as amended.98114

       (B) Subject to division (C) of this section, the medical 98115
assistanceThe medicaid director may implement a demonstration 98116
project called the integrated care delivery system to test and 98117
evaluate the integration of the care that dual eligible 98118
individuals receive under medicare and medicaid. No provision of 98119
Title LI of the Revised Code applies to the integrated care 98120
delivery system if that provision implements or incorporates a 98121
provision of federal law governing medicaid and that provision of 98122
federal law does not apply to the system.98123

       (C) Before implementing the integrated care delivery system 98124
under division (B) of this section, the director shall obtain the 98125
approval of the United States secretary of health and human 98126
services in the form of a federal medicaid waiver, medicaid state 98127
plan amendment, or demonstration grant. The director is required 98128
to seek the federal approval only if the director seeks to 98129
implement the integrated care delivery system. The director shall 98130
implement the integrated care delivery system in accordance with 98131
the terms of the federal approval, including the terms regarding 98132
the duration of the system.98133

       Sec. 5111.0210.        Sec. 5164.92.  As used in this section, "advanced 98134
diagnostic imaging services" means magnetic resonance imaging 98135
services, computed tomography services, positron emission 98136
tomography services, cardiac nuclear medicine services, and 98137
similar imaging services.98138

       Not later than January 1, 2010, theThe department of job and 98139
family servicesmedicaid shall implement evidence-based, best 98140
practice guidelines or protocols and decision support tools for 98141
advanced diagnostic imaging services available undercovered by98142
the fee-for-service component of the medicaid program.98143

       Sec. 5111.0215.        Sec. 5164.93. (A) The department of job and family 98144
servicesmedicaid may establish a program under which it provides 98145
incentive payments, as authorized by the "Health Information 98146
Technology for Economic and Clinical HealthSocial Security Act," 98147
123 Stat. 489 (2009)section 1903(a)(3)(F) and (t), 42 U.S.C. 98148
1396b(a)(3)(F) and 1396b(t), as amended, to encourage the adoption 98149
and use of electronic health record technology by medicaid 98150
providers who are identified under that federal law as eligible 98151
professionals.98152

       (B) After the department has made a determination regarding 98153
the amount of a medicaid provider's electronic health record 98154
incentive payment or the denial of an incentive payment, the 98155
department shall notify the provider. The provider may request 98156
that the department reconsider its determination.98157

       A request for reconsideration shall be submitted in writing 98158
to the department not later than fifteen days after the provider 98159
receives notification of the determination. The request shall be 98160
accompanied by written materials setting forth the basis for, and 98161
supporting, the reconsideration request.98162

       On receipt of a timely request, the department shall 98163
reconsider the determination. On the basis of the written 98164
materials accompanying the request, the department may uphold, 98165
reverse, or modify its original determination. The department 98166
shall mail to the provider by certified mail a written notice of 98167
the reconsideration decision.98168

       In accordance with Chapter 2505. of the Revised Code, the 98169
medicaid provider may appeal the reconsideration decision by 98170
filing a notice of appeal with the court of common pleas of 98171
Franklin county. The notice shall identify the decision being 98172
appealed and the specific grounds for the appeal. The notice of 98173
appeal shall be filed not later than fifteen days after the 98174
department mails its notice of the reconsideration decision. A 98175
copy of the notice of appeal shall be filed with the department 98176
not later than three days after the notice is filed with the 98177
court.98178

       (C) The medicaid director of job and family services may 98179
adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119.under section 5162.0298180
of the Revised Code as necessary to implement this section. The 98181
rules, if any, shall be adopted in accordance with Chapter 119. of 98182
the Revised Code.98183

       Sec. 5111.20.        Sec. 5165.01.  As used in sections 5111.20 to 98184
5111.331 of the Revised Codethis chapter:98185

       (A) "Affiliated operator" means an operator affiliated with 98186
either of the following:98187

       (1) The exiting operator for whom the affiliated operator is 98188
to assume liability for the entire amount of the exiting 98189
operator's debt under the medicaid program or the portion of the 98190
debt that represents the franchise permit fee the exiting operator 98191
owes;98192

       (2) The entering operator involved in the change of operator 98193
with the exiting operator specified in division (A)(1) of this 98194
section.98195

       (B) "Allowable costs" are thosea nursing facility's costs 98196
determined bythat the department of job and family services to be98197
medicaid determines are reasonable and do not include fines. Fines98198
paid under sections 5111.355165.60 to 5111.615165.89 and section 98199
5111.995165.99 of the Revised Code are not allowable costs.98200

       (B)(C) "Ancillary and support costs" means all reasonable 98201
costs incurred by a nursing facility other than direct care costs, 98202
tax costs, or capital costs. "Ancillary and support costs" 98203
includes, but is not limited to, costs of activities, social 98204
services, pharmacy consultants, habilitation supervisors, 98205
qualified mental retardation professionals, program directors, 98206
medical and habilitation records, program supplies, incontinence 98207
supplies, food, enterals, dietary supplies and personnel, laundry, 98208
housekeeping, security, administration, medical equipment, 98209
utilities, liability insurance, bookkeeping, purchasing 98210
department, human resources, communications, travel, dues, license 98211
fees, subscriptions, home office costs not otherwise allocated, 98212
legal services, accounting services, minor equipment, maintenance 98213
and repairs, help-wanted advertising, informational advertising, 98214
start-up costs, organizational expenses, other interest, property 98215
insurance, employee training and staff development, employee 98216
benefits, payroll taxes, and workers' compensation premiums or 98217
costs for self-insurance claims and related costs as specified in 98218
rules adopted by the director of job and family services under 98219
section 5111.025165.02 of the Revised Code, for personnel listed 98220
in this division. "Ancillary and support costs" also means the 98221
cost of equipment, including vehicles, acquired by operating lease 98222
executed before December 1, 1992, if the costs are reported as 98223
administrative and general costs on the nursing facility's cost 98224
report for the cost reporting period ending December 31, 1992.98225

       (C)(D)(1) "Capital costs" means costs of ownership and, in 98226
the case of an intermediate care facility for the mentally 98227
retarded, costs of nonextensive renovationthe actual expense 98228
incurred by a nursing facility for all of the following:98229

        (a) Depreciation and interest on any capital assets that cost 98230
five hundred dollars or more per item, including the following:98231

        (i) Buildings;98232

        (ii) Building improvements;98233

        (iii) Except as provided in division (C) of this section, 98234
equipment;98235

        (iv) Transportation equipment.98236

        (b) Amortization and interest on land improvements and 98237
leasehold improvements;98238

        (c) Amortization of financing costs;98239

        (d) Lease and rent of land, buildings, and equipment.98240

        (2) The costs of capital assets of less than five hundred 98241
dollars per item may be considered capital costs in accordance 98242
with a provider's practice.98243

       (1) "Cost of ownership" means the actual expense incurred for 98244
all of the following:98245

       (a) Depreciation and interest on any capital assets that cost 98246
five hundred dollars or more per item, including the following:98247

       (i) Buildings;98248

       (ii) Building improvements that are not approved as 98249
nonextensive renovations under section 5111.251 of the Revised 98250
Code;98251

       (iii) Except as provided in division (B) of this section, 98252
equipment;98253

       (iv) In the case of an intermediate care facility for the 98254
mentally retarded, extensive renovations;98255

       (v) Transportation equipment.98256

       (b) Amortization and interest on land improvements and 98257
leasehold improvements;98258

       (c) Amortization of financing costs;98259

       (d) Except as provided in division (K) of this section, lease 98260
and rent of land, building, and equipment.98261

        The costs of capital assets of less than five hundred dollars 98262
per item may be considered capital costs in accordance with a 98263
provider's practice.98264

       (2) "Costs of nonextensive renovation" means the actual 98265
expense incurred by an intermediate care facility for the mentally 98266
retarded for depreciation or amortization and interest on 98267
renovations that are not extensive renovations.98268

       (D)(E) "Capital lease" and "operating lease" shall be 98269
construed in accordance with generally accepted accounting 98270
principles.98271

       (E) "Case-mix score" means the measure determined under 98272
section 5111.232 of the Revised Code of the relative direct-care 98273
resources needed to provide care and habilitation to a resident of 98274
a nursing facility or intermediate care facility for the mentally 98275
retarded.98276

       (F) "Case-mix score" means a measure determined under section 98277
5165.192 of the Revised Code of the relative direct-care resources 98278
needed to provide care and habilitation to a nursing facility 98279
resident.98280

       (G) "Change of operator" means an entering operator becoming 98281
the operator of a nursing facility in the place of the exiting 98282
operator.98283

       (1) Actions that constitute a change of operator include the 98284
following:98285

       (a) A change in an exiting operator's form of legal 98286
organization, including the formation of a partnership or 98287
corporation from a sole proprietorship;98288

       (b) A transfer of all the exiting operator's ownership 98289
interest in the operation of the nursing facility to the entering 98290
operator, regardless of whether ownership of any or all of the 98291
real property or personal property associated with the nursing 98292
facility is also transferred;98293

       (c) A lease of the nursing facility to the entering operator 98294
or the exiting operator's termination of the exiting operator's 98295
lease;98296

       (d) If the exiting operator is a partnership, dissolution of 98297
the partnership;98298

       (e) If the exiting operator is a partnership, a change in 98299
composition of the partnership unless both of the following apply:98300

       (i) The change in composition does not cause the 98301
partnership's dissolution under state law.98302

       (ii) The partners agree that the change in composition does 98303
not constitute a change in operator.98304

       (f) If the operator is a corporation, dissolution of the 98305
corporation, a merger of the corporation into another corporation 98306
that is the survivor of the merger, or a consolidation of one or 98307
more other corporations to form a new corporation.98308

       (2) The following, alone, do not constitute a change of 98309
operator:98310

       (a) A contract for an entity to manage a nursing facility as 98311
the operator's agent, subject to the operator's approval of daily 98312
operating and management decisions;98313

       (b) A change of ownership, lease, or termination of a lease 98314
of real property or personal property associated with a nursing 98315
facility if an entering operator does not become the operator in 98316
place of an exiting operator;98317

       (c) If the operator is a corporation, a change of one or more 98318
members of the corporation's governing body or transfer of 98319
ownership of one or more shares of the corporation's stock, if the 98320
same corporation continues to be the operator.98321

       (H) "Cost center" means the following:98322

       (1) Ancillary and support costs;98323

       (2) Capital costs;98324

       (3) Direct care costs;98325

       (4) Tax costs.98326

       (I) "Custom wheelchair" means a wheelchair to which both of 98327
the following apply:98328

       (1) It has been measured, fitted, or adapted in consideration 98329
of either of the following:98330

       (a) The body size or disability of the individual who is to 98331
use the wheelchair;98332

       (b) The individual's period of need for, or intended use of, 98333
the wheelchair.98334

       (2) It has customized features, modifications, or components, 98335
such as adaptive seating and positioning systems, that the 98336
supplier who assembled the wheelchair, or the manufacturer from 98337
which the wheelchair was ordered, added or made in accordance with 98338
the instructions of the physician of the individual who is to use 98339
the wheelchair.98340

       (J)(1) "Date of licensure," for ameans the following:98341

       (a) In the case of a nursing facility originallythat was 98342
required by law to be licensed as a nursing home under Chapter 98343
3721. of the Revised Code when it originally began to be operated 98344
as a nursing home, means the date specific beds werethe nursing 98345
facility was originally so licensed as nursing home beds under 98346
that chapter, regardless of whether they were subsequently 98347
licensed as residential facility beds under section 5123.19 of the 98348
Revised Code. For a facility originally licensed as a residential 98349
facility under section 5123.19 of the Revised Code, "date of 98350
licensure" means the date specific beds were originally licensed 98351
as residential facility beds under that section.;98352

       If(b) In the case of a nursing home beds licensed under 98353
Chapter 3721. of the Revised Code or residential facility beds 98354
licensed under section 5123.19 of the Revised Code werefacility 98355
that was not required by law to be licensed as a nursing home when 98356
they wereit originally used to providebegan to be operated as a98357
nursing home or residential facility services, "date of licensure" 98358
means the date the bedsit first were used to providebegan to be 98359
operated as a nursing home or residential facility services, 98360
regardless of the date the present provider obtained licensure98361
nursing facility was first licensed as a nursing home.98362

       (2) If a facility adds, after a nursing facility's original 98363
date of licensure, more nursing home beds or residential facility 98364
beds or extensively renovatesall or part of the facility after 98365
its original date of licensureare added to the nursing facility, 98366
it will havethe nursing facility has a different date of 98367
licensure for the additional beds or extensively renovated portion 98368
of the facility, unless the beds are added in a space. This does 98369
not apply, however, to additional beds when both of the following 98370
apply:98371

       (a) The additional beds are located in a part of the nursing 98372
facility that was constructed at the same time as the previously 98373
licensedcontinuing beds butalready located in that part of the 98374
nursing facility;98375

       (b) The part of the nursing facility in which the additional 98376
beds are located was constructed as part of the nursing facility 98377
at a time when the nursing facility was not required by law to be98378
licensed under Chapter 3721. or section 5123.19 of the Revised 98379
Code at that timeas a nursing home.98380

       (2)(3) The definition of "date of licensure" in this section 98381
applies in determinations of thenursing facilities' medicaid 98382
reimbursement rate for a nursing facility or intermediate care 98383
facility for the mentally retardedpayment rates but does not 98384
apply in determinations of thenursing facilities' franchise 98385
permit fee for a nursing facility or intermediate care facility 98386
for the mentally retardedfees.98387

       (G)(K) "Desk-reviewed" means that a nursing facility's costs 98388
as reported on a cost report submitted under section 5111.2698389
5165.10 of the Revised Code have been subjected to a desk review 98390
under division (A) of section 5111.275165.108 of the Revised Code 98391
and preliminarily determined to be allowable costs.98392

       (H)(L) "Direct care costs" means all of the following costs 98393
incurred by a nursing facility:98394

       (1)(a) Costs for registered nurses, licensed practical 98395
nurses, and nurse aides employed by the nursing facility;98396

       (b)(2) Costs for direct care staff, administrative nursing 98397
staff, medical directors, respiratory therapists, and except as 98398
provided in division (H)(2)(L)(8) of this section, other persons 98399
holding degrees qualifying them to provide therapy;98400

       (c)(3) Costs of purchased nursing services;98401

       (d)(4) Costs of quality assurance;98402

       (e)(5) Costs of training and staff development, employee 98403
benefits, payroll taxes, and workers' compensation premiums or 98404
costs for self-insurance claims and related costs as specified in 98405
rules adopted by the director of job and family services in 98406
accordance with Chapter 119.under section 5165.02 of the Revised 98407
Code, for personnel listed in divisions (H)(L)(1)(a), (b)(2), and 98408
(d)(4), and (8) of this section;98409

       (f)(6) Costs of consulting and management fees related to 98410
direct care;98411

       (g)(7) Allocated direct care home office costs.98412

       (2) In addition to the costs specified in division (H)(1) of 98413
this section, for nursing facilities only, direct care costs 98414
include costs;98415

       (8) Costs of habilitation staff (other than habilitation 98416
supervisors), medical supplies, oxygen, over-the-counter pharmacy 98417
products, behavioral and mental health services, physical 98418
therapists, physical therapy assistants, occupational therapists, 98419
occupational therapy assistants, speech therapists, audiologists, 98420
habilitation supplies, wheelchairs, resident transportation, and 98421
universal precautions supplies.;98422

       (3) In addition to the costs specified in division (H)(1) of 98423
this section, for intermediate care facilities for the mentally 98424
retarded only, direct care costs include both of the following:98425

       (a) Costs for physical therapists and physical therapy 98426
assistants, occupational therapists and occupational therapy 98427
assistants, speech therapists, audiologists, habilitation staff 98428
(including habilitation supervisors), qualified mental retardation 98429
professionals, program directors, social services staff, 98430
activities staff, off-site day programming, psychologists and 98431
psychology assistants, and social workers and counselors;98432

       (b) Costs of training and staff development, employee 98433
benefits, payroll taxes, and workers' compensation premiums or 98434
costs for self-insurance claims and related costs as specified in 98435
rules adopted under section 5111.02 of the Revised Code, for 98436
personnel listed in division (H)(3)(a) of this section. 98437

       (4)(9) Costs of wheelchairs other than the following:98438

       (a) Custom wheelchairs;98439

       (b) Repairs to and replacements of custom wheelchairs and 98440
parts that are made in accordance with the instructions of the 98441
physician of the individual who uses the custom wheelchair.98442

       (10) Costs of other direct-care resources that are specified 98443
as direct care costs in rules adopted under section 5111.0298444
5165.02 of the Revised Code.98445

       (I)(M) "Dual eligible individual" has the same meaning as in 98446
section 5160.01 of the Revised Code.98447

       (N) "Effective date of a change of operator" means the day 98448
the entering operator becomes the operator of the nursing 98449
facility.98450

       (O) "Effective date of a facility closure" means the last day 98451
that the last of the residents of the nursing facility resides in 98452
the nursing facility.98453

       (P) "Effective date of an involuntary termination" means the 98454
date the department of medicaid terminates the operator's provider 98455
agreement for the nursing facility.98456

       (Q) "Effective date of a voluntary withdrawal of 98457
participation" means the day the nursing facility ceases to accept 98458
new medicaid residents other than the individuals who reside in 98459
the nursing facility on the day before the effective date of the 98460
voluntary withdrawal of participation.98461

       (R) "Entering operator" means the person or government entity 98462
that will become the operator of a nursing facility when a change 98463
of operator occurs or following an involuntary termination.98464

       (S) "Exiting operator" means any of the following:98465

       (1) An operator that will cease to be the operator of a 98466
nursing facility on the effective date of a change of operator;98467

       (2) An operator that will cease to be the operator of a 98468
nursing facility on the effective date of a facility closure;98469

       (3) An operator of a nursing facility that is undergoing or 98470
has undergone a voluntary withdrawal of participation;98471

       (4) An operator of a nursing facility that is undergoing or 98472
has undergone an involuntary termination.98473

       (T)(1) Subject to divisions (T)(2) and (3) of this section, 98474
"facility closure" means either of the following:98475

       (a) Discontinuance of the use of the building, or part of the 98476
building, that houses the facility as a nursing facility that 98477
results in the relocation of all of the nursing facility's 98478
residents;98479

       (b) Conversion of the building, or part of the building, that 98480
houses a nursing facility to a different use with any necessary 98481
license or other approval needed for that use being obtained and 98482
one or more of the nursing facility's residents remaining in the 98483
building, or part of the building, to receive services under the 98484
new use.98485

       (2) A facility closure occurs regardless of any of the 98486
following:98487

       (a) The operator completely or partially replacing the 98488
nursing facility by constructing a new nursing facility or 98489
transferring the nursing facility's license to another nursing 98490
facility;98491

       (b) The nursing facility's residents relocating to another of 98492
the operator's nursing facilities;98493

       (c) Any action the department of health takes regarding the 98494
nursing facility's medicaid certification that may result in the 98495
transfer of part of the nursing facility's survey findings to 98496
another of the operator's nursing facilities;98497

       (d) Any action the department of health takes regarding the 98498
nursing facility's license under Chapter 3721. of the Revised 98499
Code.98500

       (3) A facility closure does not occur if all of the nursing 98501
facility's residents are relocated due to an emergency evacuation 98502
and one or more of the residents return to a medicaid-certified 98503
bed in the nursing facility not later than thirty days after the 98504
evacuation occurs.98505

       (U) "Fiscal year" means the fiscal year of this state, as 98506
specified in section 9.34 of the Revised Code.98507

       (J)(V) "Franchise permit fee" means the following: 98508

       (1) In the context of nursing facilities, the fee imposed by 98509
sections 3721.505168.40 to 3721.585168.56 of the Revised Code;98510

       (2) In the context of intermediate care facilities for the 98511
mentally retarded, the fee imposed by sections 5112.30 to 5112.39 98512
of the Revised Code.98513

        (K) "Indirect care costs" means all reasonable costs incurred 98514
by an intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded other 98515
than direct care costs, other protected costs, or capital costs. 98516
"Indirect care costs" includes but is not limited to costs of 98517
habilitation supplies, pharmacy consultants, medical and 98518
habilitation records, program supplies, incontinence supplies, 98519
food, enterals, dietary supplies and personnel, laundry, 98520
housekeeping, security, administration, liability insurance, 98521
bookkeeping, purchasing department, human resources, 98522
communications, travel, dues, license fees, subscriptions, home 98523
office costs not otherwise allocated, legal services, accounting 98524
services, minor equipment, maintenance and repairs, help-wanted 98525
advertising, informational advertising, start-up costs, 98526
organizational expenses, other interest, property insurance, 98527
employee training and staff development, employee benefits, 98528
payroll taxes, and workers' compensation premiums or costs for 98529
self-insurance claims and related costs as specified in rules 98530
adopted under section 5111.02 of the Revised Code, for personnel 98531
listed in this division. Notwithstanding division (C)(1) of this 98532
section, "indirect care costs" also means the cost of equipment, 98533
including vehicles, acquired by operating lease executed before 98534
December 1, 1992, if the costs are reported as administrative and 98535
general costs on the facility's cost report for the cost reporting 98536
period ending December 31, 1992. 98537

       (L)(W) "Inpatient days" means the following: 98538

       (1) In the context of a nursing facility, both of the 98539
following:98540

       (a)(1) All days during which a resident, regardless of 98541
payment source, occupies a bed in a nursing facility that is 98542
included in the nursing facility's certifiedmedicaid-certified98543
capacity under Title XIX;98544

       (b)(2) Fifty per cent of the days for which payment is made 98545
under section 5111.3315165.34 of the Revised Code. 98546

       (2) In the context of an intermediate care facility for the 98547
mentally retarded, both of the following:98548

       (a) All days during which a resident, regardless of payment 98549
source, occupies a bed in an intermediate care facility for the 98550
mentally retarded that is included in the facility's certified 98551
capacity under Title XIX;98552

       (b) All days for which payment is made under section 5111.33 98553
of the Revised Code. 98554

       (M) "Intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded" 98555
means an intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded 98556
certified as in compliance with applicable standards for the 98557
medicaid program by the director of health in accordance with 98558
Title XIX.98559

       (N)(X) "Involuntary termination" means the department of 98560
medicaid's termination of the operator's provider agreement for 98561
the nursing facility when the termination is not taken at the 98562
operator's request.98563

       (Y) "Low resource utilization resident" means a medicaid 98564
recipient residing in a nursing facility who, for purposes of 98565
calculating the nursing facility's medicaid payment rate for 98566
direct care costs, is placed in either of the two lowest resource 98567
utilization groups, excluding any resource utilization group that 98568
is a default group used for residents with incomplete assessment 98569
data.98570

       (Z) "Maintenance and repair expenses" means, except as 98571
provided in division (BB)(2) of this section,a nursing facility's98572
expenditures that are necessary and proper to maintain an asset in 98573
a normally efficient working condition and that do not extend the 98574
useful life of the asset two years or more. "Maintenance and 98575
repair expenses" includes but is not limited to the costcosts of 98576
ordinary repairs such as painting and wallpapering.98577

       (O)(AA) "Medicaid-certified capacity" means the number of a 98578
nursing facility's beds that are certified for participation in 98579
medicaid as nursing facility beds.98580

       (BB) "Medicaid days" means the following: 98581

       (1) In the context of a nursing facility, both of the 98582
following:98583

       (a)(1) All days during which a resident who is a medicaid 98584
recipient eligible for nursing facility services occupies a bed in 98585
a nursing facility that is included in the nursing facility's 98586
certifiedmedicaid-certified capacity under Title XIX;98587

       (b)(2) Fifty per cent of the days for which payment is made 98588
under section 5111.3315165.34 of the Revised Code. 98589

       (2) In the context of an intermediate care facility for the 98590
mentally retarded, both of the following: 98591

       (a) All days during which a resident who is a medicaid 98592
recipient eligible for intermediate care facility for the mentally 98593
retarded services occupies a bed in an intermediate care facility 98594
for the mentally retarded that is included in the facility's 98595
certified capacity under Title XIX; 98596

       (b) All days for which payment is made under section 5111.33 98597
of the Revised Code. 98598

       (P)(CC)(1) "New nursing facility" means a nursing facility 98599
for which the provider obtains an initial provider agreement 98600
following medicaid certification of the nursing facility by the 98601
director of health, including such a nursing facility that 98602
replaces one or more nursing facilities for which a provider 98603
previously held a provider agreement.98604

       (2) "New nursing facility" does not mean a nursing facility 98605
for which the entering operator seeks a provider agreement 98606
pursuant to section 5165.511 or 5165.512 or (pursuant to section 98607
5165.515) section 5165.07 of the Revised Code.98608

       (DD) "Nursing facility" means a facility, or a distinct part 98609
of a facility, that is certified as a nursing facility by the 98610
director of health in accordance with Title XIX and is not an 98611
intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded. "Nursing 98612
facility" includes a facility, or a distinct part of a facility, 98613
that is certified as a nursing facility by the director of health 98614
in accordance with Title XIX and is certified as a skilled nursing 98615
facility by the director in accordance with Title XVIIIhas the 98616
same meaning as in the "Social Security Act," section 1919(a), 42 98617
U.S.C. 1396r(a).98618

       (Q)(EE) "Nursing facility services" has the same meaning as 98619
in the "Social Security Act," section 1905(f), 42 U.S.C. 1396d(f).98620

       (FF) "Nursing home" has the same meaning as in section 98621
3721.01 of the Revised Code.98622

       (GG) "Operator" means the person or government entity 98623
responsible for the daily operating and management decisions for a 98624
nursing facility or intermediate care facility for the mentally 98625
retarded.98626

       (R) "Other protected costs" means costs incurred by an 98627
intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded for medical 98628
supplies; real estate, franchise, and property taxes; natural gas, 98629
fuel oil, water, electricity, sewage, and refuse and hazardous 98630
medical waste collection; allocated other protected home office 98631
costs; and any additional costs defined as other protected costs 98632
in rules adopted under section 5111.02 of the Revised Code.98633

       (S)(HH)(1) "Owner" means any person or government entity that 98634
has at least five per cent ownership or interest, either directly, 98635
indirectly, or in any combination, in any of the following 98636
regarding a nursing facility or intermediate care facility for the 98637
mentally retarded:98638

       (a) The land on which the nursing facility is located;98639

       (b) The structure in which the nursing facility is located;98640

       (c) Any mortgage, contract for deed, or other obligation 98641
secured in whole or in part by the land or structure on or in 98642
which the nursing facility is located;98643

       (d) Any lease or sublease of the land or structure on or in 98644
which the nursing facility is located.98645

       (2) "Owner" does not mean a holder of a debenture or bond 98646
related to the nursing facility or intermediate care facility for 98647
the mentally retarded and purchased at public issue or a regulated 98648
lender that has made a loan related to the nursing facility unless 98649
the holder or lender operates the nursing facility directly or 98650
through a subsidiary.98651

       (T) "Patient" includes "resident."98652

       (U) Except as provided in divisions (U)(1) and (2) of this 98653
section, "per(II) "Per diem" means a nursing facility's or 98654
intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded's actual, 98655
allowable costs in a given cost center in a cost reporting period, 98656
divided by the nursing facility's inpatient days for that cost 98657
reporting period.98658

       (1) When calculating indirect care costs for the purpose of 98659
establishing rates under section 5111.241 of the Revised Code, 98660
"per diem" means an intermediate care facility for the mentally 98661
retarded's actual, allowable indirect care costs in a cost 98662
reporting period divided by the greater of the facility's 98663
inpatient days for that period or the number of inpatient days the 98664
facility would have had during that period if its occupancy rate 98665
had been eighty-five per cent. 98666

       (2) When calculating capital costs for the purpose of 98667
establishing rates under section 5111.251 of the Revised Code, 98668
"per diem" means a facility's actual, allowable capital costs in a 98669
cost reporting period divided by the greater of the facility's 98670
inpatient days for that period or the number of inpatient days the 98671
facility would have had during that period if its occupancy rate 98672
had been ninety-five per cent.98673

       (V)(JJ) "Provider" means an operator with a provider 98674
agreement.98675

       (W)(KK) "Provider agreement" means a contractprovider 98676
agreement, as defined in section 5164.01 of the Revised Code, that 98677
is between the department of job and family servicesmedicaid and 98678
the operator of a nursing facility or intermediate care facility 98679
for the mentally retarded for the provision of nursing facility 98680
services or intermediate care facility services for the mentally 98681
retarded under the medicaid program.98682

       (X)(LL) "Purchased nursing services" means services that are 98683
provided in a nursing facility by registered nurses, licensed 98684
practical nurses, or nurse aides who are not employees of the 98685
nursing facility.98686

       (Y)(MM) "Reasonable" means that a cost is an actual cost that 98687
is appropriate and helpful to develop and maintain the operation 98688
of patient care facilities and activities, including normal 98689
standby costs, and that does not exceed what a prudent buyer pays 98690
for a given item or services. Reasonable costs may vary from 98691
provider to provider and from time to time for the same provider.98692

       (Z)(NN) "Related party" means an individual or organization 98693
that, to a significant extent, has common ownership with, is 98694
associated or affiliated with, has control of, or is controlled 98695
by, the provider.98696

       (1) An individual who is a relative of an owner is a related 98697
party.98698

       (2) Common ownership exists when an individual or individuals 98699
possess significant ownership or equity in both the provider and 98700
the other organization. Significant ownership or equity exists 98701
when an individual or individuals possess five per cent ownership 98702
or equity in both the provider and a supplier. Significant 98703
ownership or equity is presumed to exist when an individual or 98704
individuals possess ten per cent ownership or equity in both the 98705
provider and another organization from which the provider 98706
purchases or leases real property.98707

       (3) Control exists when an individual or organization has the 98708
power, directly or indirectly, to significantly influence or 98709
direct the actions or policies of an organization.98710

       (4) An individual or organization that supplies goods or 98711
services to a provider shall not be considered a related party if 98712
all of the following conditions are met:98713

       (a) The supplier is a separate bona fide organization.98714

       (b) A substantial part of the supplier's business activity of 98715
the type carried on with the provider is transacted with others 98716
than the provider and there is an open, competitive market for the 98717
types of goods or services the supplier furnishes.98718

       (c) The types of goods or services are commonly obtained by 98719
other nursing facilities or intermediate care facilities for the 98720
mentally retarded from outside organizations and are not a basic 98721
element of patient care ordinarily furnished directly to patients 98722
by thenursing facilities.98723

       (d) The charge to the provider is in line with the charge for 98724
the goods or services in the open market and no more than the 98725
charge made under comparable circumstances to others by the 98726
supplier.98727

       (AA)(OO) "Relative of owner" means an individual who is 98728
related to an owner of a nursing facility or intermediate care 98729
facility for the mentally retarded by one of the following 98730
relationships:98731

       (1) Spouse;98732

       (2) Natural parent, child, or sibling;98733

       (3) Adopted parent, child, or sibling;98734

       (4) Stepparent, stepchild, stepbrother, or stepsister;98735

       (5) Father-in-law, mother-in-law, son-in-law, 98736
daughter-in-law, brother-in-law, or sister-in-law;98737

       (6) Grandparent or grandchild;98738

       (7) Foster caregiver, foster child, foster brother, or foster 98739
sister.98740

       (BB) "Renovation" and "extensive renovation" mean:98741

       (1) Any betterment, improvement, or restoration of an 98742
intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded started 98743
before July 1, 1993, that meets the definition of a renovation or 98744
extensive renovation established in rules adopted by the director 98745
of job and family services in effect on December 22, 1992.98746

       (2) In the case of betterments, improvements, and 98747
restorations of intermediate care facilities for the mentally 98748
retarded started on or after July 1, 1993: 98749

       (a) "Renovation" means the betterment, improvement, or 98750
restoration of an intermediate care facility for the mentally 98751
retarded beyond its current functional capacity through a 98752
structural change that costs at least five hundred dollars per 98753
bed. A renovation may include betterment, improvement, 98754
restoration, or replacement of assets that are affixed to the 98755
building and have a useful life of at least five years. A 98756
renovation may include costs that otherwise would be considered 98757
maintenance and repair expenses if they are an integral part of 98758
the structural change that makes up the renovation project. 98759
"Renovation" does not mean construction of additional space for 98760
beds that will be added to a facility's licensed or certified 98761
capacity. 98762

       (b) "Extensive renovation" means a renovation that costs more 98763
than sixty-five per cent and no more than eighty-five per cent of 98764
the cost of constructing a new bed and that extends the useful 98765
life of the assets for at least ten years. 98766

       For the purposes of division (BB)(2) of this section, the 98767
cost of constructing a new bed shall be considered to be forty 98768
thousand dollars, adjusted for the estimated rate of inflation 98769
from January 1, 1993, to the end of the calendar year during which 98770
the renovation is completed, using the consumer price index for 98771
shelter costs for all urban consumers for the north central 98772
region, as published by the United States bureau of labor 98773
statistics. 98774

       The department of job and family services may treat a 98775
renovation that costs more than eighty-five per cent of the cost 98776
of constructing new beds as an extensive renovation if the 98777
department determines that the renovation is more prudent than 98778
construction of new beds.98779

       (CC)(PP) "Residents' rights advocate" has the same meaning as 98780
in section 3721.10 of the Revised Code.98781

       (QQ) "Skilled nursing facility" has the same meaning as in 98782
the "Social Security Act," section 1819(a), 42 U.S.C. 1395i-3(a).98783

       (RR) "Sponsor" has the same meaning as in section 3721.10 of 98784
the Revised Code.98785

       (SS) "Tax costs" means the costs of taxes imposed under 98786
Chapter 5751. of the Revised Code, real estate taxes, personal 98787
property taxes, and corporate franchise taxes.98788

       (DD)(TT) "Title XIX" means Title XIX of the "Social Security 98789
Act," 79 Stat. 286 (1965), 42 U.S.C. 1396, as amendedet seq.98790

       (EE)(UU) "Title XVIII" means Title XVIII of the "Social 98791
Security Act," 79 Stat. 286 (1965), 42 U.S.C. 1395, as amendedet 98792
seq.98793

       (VV) "Voluntary withdrawal of participation" means an 98794
operator's voluntary election to terminate the participation of a 98795
nursing facility in the medicaid program but to continue to 98796
provide service of the type provided by a nursing facility.98797

       Sec. 5111.201.        Sec. 5165.011. Whenever(A) Except as provided in 98798
division (B) of this section, whenever "skilled nursing facility," 98799
"intermediate care facility," or "dual skilled nursing and 98800
intermediate care facility" is referred to or designated in any 98801
statute, rule, contract, provider agreement, or other document 98802
pertaining to the medical assistancemedicaid program, the 98803
reference or designation is deemed to refer to a nursing facility, 98804
except that a.98805

       (B) A reference to or designation of an "intermediate care 98806
facility for the mentally retarded" or "ICF/MR" is not deemed to 98807
refer to a nursing facility.98808

       Sec. 5165.02.  The medicaid director shall adopt rules as 98809
necessary to implement this chapter. The rules shall be adopted in 98810
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.98811

       Sec. 5111.202.        Sec. 5165.03.  (A) As used in this section:98812

       (1) "Dementia" includes Alzheimer's disease or a related 98813
disorder.98814

       (2) "Serious mental illness" means "serious mental illness," 98815
as defined by the United States department of health and human 98816
services in regulations adopted under section 1919(e)(7)(G)(i) of98817
the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935)section 98818
1919(e)(7)(G)(i), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended1396r(e)(7)(G)(i).98819

       (3) "Mentally ill individual" means an individual who has a 98820
serious mental illness other than either of the following:98821

       (a) A primary diagnosis of dementia;98822

       (b) A primary diagnosis that is not a primary diagnosis of 98823
dementia and a primary diagnosis of something other than a serious 98824
mental illness.98825

       (4) "Mentally retarded individual" means an individual who is 98826
mentally retarded or has a related condition, as described in 98827
section 1905(d) of the "Social Security Act.," section 1905(d), 42 98828
U.S.C. 1396d(d).98829

       (5) "Specialized services" means the services specified by 98830
the United States department of health and human services in 98831
regulations adopted under section 1919(e)(7)(G)(iii) of the 98832
"Social Security Act.," section 1919(e)(7)(G)(iii), 42 U.S.C. 98833
1396r(e)(7)(G)(iii).98834

       (B)(1) Except as provided in division (D) of this section, no 98835
nursing facility shall admit as a resident any mentally ill 98836
individual unless the facility has received evidence that the 98837
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services98838
has determined both of the following under section 5119.06198839
5119.40 of the Revised Code:98840

       (a) That the individual requires the level of services 98841
provided by a nursing facility because of the individual's 98842
physical and mental condition;98843

       (b) Whether the individual requires specialized services for 98844
mental illness.98845

       (2) Except as provided in division (D) of this section, no 98846
nursing facility shall admit as a resident any mentally retarded 98847
individual unless the facility has received evidence that the 98848
department of developmental disabilities has determined both of 98849
the following under section 5123.021 of the Revised Code:98850

       (a) That the individual requires the level of services 98851
provided by a nursing facility because of the individual's 98852
physical and mental condition;98853

       (b) Whether the individual requires specialized services for 98854
mental retardation.98855

       (C) The department of job and family servicesmedicaid shall 98856
not make medicaid payments under the medical assistance program to 98857
a nursing facility on behalf of any individual who is admitted to 98858
the facility in violation of division (B) of this section for the 98859
period beginning on the date of admission and ending on the date 98860
the requirements of division (B) of this section are met.98861

       (D) A determination under division (B) of this section is not 98862
required for any individual who is exempted from the requirement 98863
that a determination be made by division (B)(2) of section 98864
5119.0615119.40 of the Revised Code or rules adopted by the 98865
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services98866
under division (E)(3) of that section, or by division (B)(2) of 98867
section 5123.021 of the Revised Code or rules adopted by the 98868
department of developmental disabilities under division (E)(3) of 98869
that section.98870

       Sec. 5111.203.        Sec. 5165.031. Regardless of whether or not an 98871
applicantAn individual who applies for admission to a nursing 98872
facility or resident ofresides in a nursing facility is an 98873
applicant for or recipient of medical assistance, the department 98874
of job and family services shall provide notice and an opportunity 98875
for a hearing to any applicant for admission to a nursing facility 98876
or resident of a nursing facility who ismay appeal if adversely 98877
affected by a determination made by the department of mental 98878
healthmental health and addiction services under section 98879
5119.0615119.40 of the Revised Code or by the department of 98880
developmental disabilities under section 5123.021 of the Revised 98881
Code. The hearing shall be conducted in the same manner as 98882
hearings conducted underIf the individual is an applicant for or 98883
recipient of medicaid, the individual may appeal pursuant to 98884
section 5160.31 of the Revised Code. If the individual is not an 98885
applicant for or recipient of medicaid, the individual may appeal 98886
pursuant to a process the department of medicaid shall establish, 98887
which shall be similar to the appeals process established by98888
section 5101.35 of the Revised Code. The department of medicaid 98889
shall provide notice of the right to appeal to individuals 98890
adversely affected by determinations made under sections 5119.40 98891
and 5123.021 of the Revised Code. Any decision made by the 98892
department of job and family services on the basis of the hearing98893
such an appeal is binding on the department of mental health98894
mental health and addiction services and the department of 98895
developmental disabilities.98896

       Sec. 5111.204.        Sec. 5165.04.  (A) As used in this section, 98897
"representative" means a person acting on behalf of an applicant 98898
for or recipient of medicaid. A representative may be a family 98899
member, attorney, hospital social worker, or any other person 98900
chosen to act on behalf of an applicant or recipient.98901

       (B) The department of job and family servicesmedicaid may 98902
require each applicant for or recipient of medicaid who applies or 98903
intends to apply for admission to a nursing facility or resides in 98904
a nursing facility to undergo an assessment to determine whether 98905
the applicant or recipient needs the level of care provided by a 98906
nursing facility. The assessment may be performed concurrently 98907
with a long-term care consultation provided under section 173.42 98908
of the Revised Code.98909

       To the maximum extent possible, the assessment shall be based 98910
on information from the resident assessment instrument specified 98911
in rules adoptedauthorized by the director of job and family 98912
services under division (E) of section 5111.2325165.191 of the 98913
Revised Code. The assessment shall also be based on criteria and 98914
procedures established in rules adopted underauthorized by98915
division (F) of this section and information provided by the 98916
person being assessed or the person's representative. 98917

       The department of job and family servicesmedicaid, or if the 98918
assessment is performed by an agency under contract with the 98919
department pursuant to division (G) of this section, the agency, 98920
shall, not later than the time the level of care determination 98921
based on the assessment is required to be provided under division 98922
(C) of this section, give written notice of its conclusions and 98923
the basis for them to the person assessed and, if the department 98924
of job and family services or agency under contract with the 98925
department has been informed that the person has a representative, 98926
to the representative.98927

       (C) The department of job and family services or agency under 98928
contract with the department, whichever performs the assessment, 98929
shall provide a level of care determination based on the 98930
assessment as follows:98931

       (1) In the case of a person applying or intending to apply 98932
for admission to a nursing facility while hospitalized, not later 98933
than one of the following:98934

       (a) One working day after the person or the person's 98935
representative submits the application or notifies the department 98936
of the person's intention to apply and submits all information 98937
required for providing the level of care determination, as 98938
specified in rules adopted underauthorized by division (F)(2) of 98939
this section;98940

       (b) A later date requested by the person or the person's 98941
representative.98942

       (2) In the case of a person applying or intending to apply 98943
for admission to a nursing facility who is not hospitalized, not 98944
later than one of the following:98945

       (a) Five calendar days after the person or the person's 98946
representative submits the application or notifies the department 98947
of the person's intention to apply and submits all information 98948
required for providing the level of care determination, as 98949
specified in rules adopted underauthorized by division (F)(2) of 98950
this section;98951

       (b) A later date requested by the person or the person's 98952
representative.98953

       (3) In the case of a person who resides in a nursing 98954
facility, not later than one of the following:98955

        (a) Five calendar days after the person or the person's 98956
representative submits an application for medical assistance98957
medicaid and submits all information required for providing the 98958
level of care determination, as specified in rules adopted under98959
authorized by division (F)(2) of this section;98960

        (b) A later date requested by the person or the person's 98961
representative.98962

        (4) In the case of an emergency, as specified in rules 98963
adopted underauthorized by division (F)(4) of this section, 98964
within the number of days specified in the rules.98965

       (D) A person assessed under this section or the person's 98966
representative may request a state hearing to disputeappeal the 98967
conclusions reached by the department of job and family services98968
or agency under contract with the department on the basis of the 98969
assessment. The request for a state hearingappeal shall be made 98970
in accordance withpursuant to section 5101.355160.31 of the 98971
Revised Code. The department of job and family services or agency 98972
under contract with the department shall provide to the person or 98973
the person's representative and the nursing facility written 98974
notice of the person's right to request a state hearing. The 98975
notice shall include an explanation of the procedure for 98976
requesting a state hearing. If a state hearing is requested, the 98977
state shall be represented in the hearing by the department of job 98978
and family services or the agency under contract with the 98979
department, whichever performed the assessment.98980

       (E) A nursing facility that admits or retains a person 98981
determined pursuant to an assessment required under this section 98982
not to need the level of care provided by the nursing facility 98983
shall not be reimbursedpaid under the medicaid program for the 98984
person's care.98985

       (F) The medicaid director of job and family services shall 98986
adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119.under section 5165.0298987
of the Revised Code to implement and administer this section. The 98988
rules shall include all of the following:98989

       (1) Criteria and procedures to be used in determining whether 98990
admission to a nursing facility or continued stay in a nursing 98991
facility is appropriate for the person being assessed;98992

       (2) Information the person being assessed or the person's 98993
representative must provide to the department or agency under 98994
contract with the department for purposes of the assessment and 98995
providing a level of care determination based on the assessment;98996

       (3) Circumstances under which a person is not required to be 98997
assessed;98998

       (4) Circumstances that constitute an emergency for purposes 98999
of division (C)(4) of this section and the number of days within 99000
which a level of care determination must be provided in the case 99001
of an emergency.99002

       (G) Pursuant to section 5111.915162.35 of the Revised Code, 99003
the department of job and family servicesmedicaid may enter into 99004
contracts in the form of interagency agreements with one or more 99005
other state agencies to perform the assessments required under 99006
this section. The interagency agreements shall specify the 99007
responsibilities of each agency in the performance of the 99008
assessments.99009

       Sec. 5111.21.        Sec. 5165.06. (A) In order to beSubject to section 99010
5165.072 of the Revised Code, an operator is eligible for medicaid 99011
payments, the operator ofto enter into a provider agreement for a 99012
nursing facility or intermediate care facility for the mentally 99013
retarded shall doif all of the following apply:99014

       (1) Enter into a provider agreement with the department as 99015
provided in section 5111.22, 5111.671, or 5111.672 of the Revised 99016
Code(A) The nursing facility is certified by the director of 99017
health for participation in medicaid;99018

       (2) Apply for and maintain a valid license to operate(B) The 99019
nursing facility is licensed by the director of health as a 99020
nursing home if so required by law;99021

       (3) Subject to division (B) of this section,(C) The operator 99022
and nursing facility comply with all applicable state and federal 99023
laws and rules.99024

       (B) A state rule that requires the operator of an 99025
intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded to have 99026
received approval of a plan for the proposed facility pursuant to 99027
section 5123.042 of the Revised Code as a condition of the 99028
operator being eligible for medicaid payments for the facility 99029
does not apply if, under former section 5123.193 of the Revised 99030
Code as enacted by Am. Sub. H.B. 1 of the 128th general assembly 99031
or section 5123.197 of the Revised Code, a residential facility 99032
license was obtained or modified for the facility without 99033
obtaining approval of such a plan.99034

       (C)(1) Except as provided in division (C)(2) of this section, 99035
the operator of a nursing facility that elects to obtain and 99036
maintain eligibility for payments under the medicaid program shall 99037
qualify all of the facility's medicaid-certified beds in the 99038
medicare program established by Title XVIII. The director of job 99039
and family services may adopt rules under section 5111.02 of the 99040
Revised Code to establish the time frame in which a nursing 99041
facility must comply with this requirement.99042

       (2) The department of veterans services is not required to 99043
qualify all of the medicaid-certified beds in a nursing facility 99044
the agency maintains and operates under section 5907.01 of the 99045
Revised Code in the medicare program.99046

       Sec. 5111.22.        Sec. 5165.07. (A) Except as provided in section 99047
5165.072 of the Revised Code, the department of medicaid shall 99048
enter into a provider agreement with a nursing facility operator 99049
who applies, and is eligible, for the provider agreement.99050

       (B) A provider agreement between the department of job and 99051
family services and the provider of a nursing facility or 99052
intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded shall contain99053
require the following provisions:99054

       (A) The department agrees to make medicaid payments to the 99055
provider, as provided in sections 5111.20 to 5111.331 of the 99056
Revised Code,in accordance with this chapter for medicaid-covered99057
nursing facility services the nursing facility provides to a 99058
resident of theits residents who are medicaid recipients eligible 99059
for nursing facility who is a medicaid recipientservices. No 99060
payment shall be made for the day a medicaid recipient is 99061
discharged from the facility.99062

       (B) The(C) A provider agreement shall require the provider 99063
agrees to do all of the following:99064

       (1) Maintain eligibility for the provider agreement as 99065
provided in section 5111.215165.06 of the Revised Code;99066

       (2) Keep records relating to a cost reporting period for the 99067
greater of seven years after the cost report is filed or, if the 99068
department issues an audit report in accordance with division (B) 99069
of section 5111.275165.109 of the Revised Code, six years after 99070
all appeal rights relating to the audit report are exhausted;99071

       (3) File reports as required by the department;99072

       (4) Open all records relating to the costs of itsthe nursing 99073
facility's services for inspection and audit by the department;99074

       (5) Open its premises for inspection by the department, the 99075
department of health, and any other state or local authority 99076
having authority to inspect;99077

       (6) Supply to the department such information as it requires 99078
concerning the nursing facility's services to residents who are,99079
or are eligible to be, medicaid recipients;99080

       (7) Comply with section 5111.315165.08 of the Revised Code.99081

       The(D) A provider agreement may contain other provisions 99082
that are consistent with law and considered necessary by the 99083
department.99084

       A provider agreement shall be effective for no longer than 99085
twelve months, except that if federal statute or regulations 99086
authorize a longer term, it may be effective for a longer term so 99087
authorized. A provider agreement may be renewed only if the 99088
facility is certified by the department of health for 99089
participation in the medicaid program.99090

       The department of job and family services, in accordance with 99091
rules adopted under section 5111.02 of the Revised Code, may elect 99092
not to enter into, not to renew, or to terminate a provider 99093
agreement when the department determines that such an agreement 99094
would not be in the best interests of medicaid recipients or of 99095
the state.99096

       Sec. 5111.223.        Sec. 5165.071. TheA nursing facility operator of a 99097
nursing facility or intermediate care facility for the mentally 99098
retarded may enter into provider agreements for more than one 99099
nursing facility or intermediate care facility for the mentally 99100
retarded.99101

       Sec. 5165.072.  The department of medicaid, in accordance 99102
with rules adopted under section 5165.02 of the Revised Code, may 99103
elect not to enter into, not to revalidate, or to terminate a 99104
nursing facility provider agreement when the department determines 99105
that such an agreement would not be in the best interests of 99106
medicaid recipients or the state. The department shall not 99107
revalidate a nursing facility provider agreement if the provider 99108
fails to maintain eligibility for the provider agreement as 99109
provided in section 5165.06 of the Revised Code.99110

       Sec. 5111.30.        Sec. 5165.073.  The department of job and family 99111
servicesmedicaid shall terminate the provider agreement with a 99112
nursing facility provider that does not comply with the 99113
requirements of section 3721.071 of the Revised Code for the 99114
installation of fire extinguishing and fire alarm systems.99115

       Sec. 5111.31.        Sec. 5165.08.  (A) Every provider agreement with the99116
a nursing facility provider of a nursing facility or intermediate 99117
care facility for the mentally retarded shall do both of the 99118
following:99119

       (1) Except as provided by division (B)(1) of this section, 99120
include any part of the nursing facility that meets federal and 99121
state standards for medicaid certification;99122

       (2) Prohibit the provider from doing either of the following:99123

       (a) Discriminating against a resident on the basis of race, 99124
color, sex, creed, or national origin;99125

       (b) Subject to division (D) of this section, failing or 99126
refusing to retaindo either of the following:99127

       (i) Except as otherwise prohibited under section 5165.82 of 99128
the Revised Code, admit as a resident of the nursing facility an 99129
individual because the individual is, or may (as a resident of the 99130
nursing facility) become, a medicaid recipient if less than eighty 99131
per cent of the nursing facility's residents are medicaid 99132
recipients;99133

       (ii) Retain as a patient any personresident of the nursing 99134
facility an individual because the personindividual is, becomes,99135
or may (as a resident of the nursing facility) become, as a 99136
patient in the facility, become a medicaid recipient. For the 99137
purposes of this division, a medicaid recipient who is a patient 99138
in a facility shall be considered a patient in the facility during 99139
any hospital stays totaling less than twenty-five days during any 99140
twelve-month period. Recipients who have been identified by the 99141
department of job and family services or its designee as requiring 99142
the level of care of an intermediate care facility for the 99143
mentally retarded shall not be subject to a maximum period of 99144
absences during which they are considered patients if prior 99145
authorization of the department for visits with relatives and 99146
friends and participation in therapeutic programs is obtained 99147
under rules adopted under section 5111.02 of the Revised Code.99148

       (2) Except as provided by division (B)(1) of this section, 99149
include any part of the facility that meets standards for 99150
certification of compliance with federal and state laws and rules 99151
for participation in the medicaid program.99152

       (3) Prohibit the provider from discriminating against any 99153
patient on the basis of race, color, sex, creed, or national 99154
origin.99155

       (4) Except as otherwise prohibited under section 5111.55 of 99156
the Revised Code, prohibit the provider from failing or refusing 99157
to accept a patient because the patient is, becomes, or may, as a 99158
patient in the facility, become a medicaid recipient if less than 99159
eighty per cent of the patients in the facility are medicaid 99160
recipients.99161

       (B)(1) Except as provided by division (B)(2) of this section, 99162
the followingbeds added during the period beginning July 1, 1987, 99163
and ending July 1, 1993, to a nursing home licensed under Chapter 99164
3721. of the Revised Code are not required to be included in a 99165
provider agreement unless otherwise required by federal law:99166

       (a) Beds added during the period beginning July 1, 1987, and 99167
ending July 1, 1993, to a nursing home licensed under Chapter 99168
3721. of the Revised Code;99169

       (b) Beds in an intermediate care facility for the mentally 99170
retarded that are designated for respite care under a medicaid 99171
waiver component operated pursuant to a waiver sought under 99172
section 5111.87 of the Revised Code.99173

        (2) If a provider chooses to include a bed specified in 99174
division (B)(1)(a) of this section in a provider agreement, the 99175
bed may not be removed from the provider agreement unless the 99176
provider withdraws the nursing facility in which the bed is 99177
located from the medicaid program.99178

       (C) For the purpose of division (A)(2)(b)(ii) of this 99179
section, a medicaid recipient who is a resident of a nursing 99180
facility shall be considered a resident of the nursing facility 99181
during any hospital stays totaling less than twenty-five days 99182
during any twelve-month period.99183

       (D) Nothing in this section shall bar a provider thatfrom 99184
doing any of the following:99185

       (1) If the provider is a religious organization operating a 99186
religious or denominational nursing facility or intermediate care 99187
facility for the mentally retarded from giving preference to 99188
persons of the same religion or denomination. Nothing in this 99189
section shall bar any provider from giving;99190

       (2) Giving preference to persons with whom the provider has 99191
contracted to provide continuing care.99192

       (D) Nothing in this section shall bar the provider of;99193

       (3) If the nursing facility is a county home organized under 99194
Chapter 5155. of the Revised Code from, admitting residents 99195
exclusively from the county in which the county home is located.99196

       (E) No provider of a nursing facility or intermediate care 99197
facility for the mentally retarded for which a provider agreement 99198
is in effect shall violate the provider contract obligations 99199
imposed under this section.99200

       (F) Nothing in divisions (A) and (C) of this section shall 99201
bar a provider from retaining patients;99202

       (4) Retaining residents who have resided in the provider's 99203
nursing facility for not less than one year as private pay 99204
patients and who subsequently become medicaid recipients, but 99205
refusing to accept as a patientresident any person who is, or 99206
may,(as a patient inresident of the nursing facility,) become a 99207
medicaid recipient, if all of the following apply:99208

       (1)(a) The provider does not refuse to retain any patient99209
resident who has resided in the provider's nursing facility for 99210
not less than one year as a private pay patientresident because 99211
the patientresident becomes a medicaid recipient, except as 99212
necessary to comply with division (F)(2)(D)(4)(b) of this section;99213

       (2)(b) The number of medicaid recipients retained under this99214
division (D)(4) of this section does not at any time exceed ten 99215
per cent of all the patientsresidents in the nursing facility;99216

       (3)(c) On July 1, 1980, all the patientsresidents in the 99217
nursing facility were private pay patientsresidents.99218

       (E) No provider shall violate the provider agreement 99219
obligations imposed by this section.99220

       Sec. 5111.32.        Sec. 5165.081. Any patientA nursing facility 99221
resident has a cause of action against thea nursing facility99222
provider of a nursing facility or intermediate care facility for 99223
the mentally retarded for breach of the provider agreement 99224
obligations or other duties imposed by section 5111.315165.08 of 99225
the Revised Code. The action may be commenced by the patient99226
resident, or on the patient'sresident's behalf by the patient's99227
resident's sponsor or a residents' rights advocate, as either is 99228
defined under section 3721.10 of the Revised Code, by the filing 99229
of a civil action in the court of common pleas of the county in 99230
which the nursing facility is located, or in the court of common 99231
pleas of Franklin county.99232

       If thea court of common pleas finds that a breach of the99233
provider has breached a provider agreement obligationsobligation 99234
or other duty imposed by section 5111.315165.08 of the Revised 99235
Code has occurred, the court may enjoindo one or more of the 99236
following:99237

       (A) Enjoin the provider from engaging in the practice, order;99238

       (B) Order such affirmative relief as may be necessary, and 99239
award;99240

       (C) Award to the patienta resident and a personsponsor or 99241
public agencygovernment entity that brings anthe action on 99242
behalf of a patientresident actual damages, costs, and reasonable 99243
attorney's fees.99244

       Sec. 5165.082.  (A) Except as provided in division (B) of 99245
this section, the operator of a nursing facility that elects to 99246
have the nursing facility participate in the medicaid program 99247
shall qualify all of the nursing facility's medicaid-certified 99248
beds in the medicare program. The medicaid director may adopt 99249
rules under section 5165.02 of the Revised Code to establish the 99250
time frame in which a nursing facility must comply with this 99251
requirement.99252

       (B) The department of veterans services is not required to 99253
qualify all of the medicaid-certified beds in a nursing facility 99254
the department maintains and operates under section 5907.01 of the 99255
Revised Code in the medicare program.99256

       Sec. 5111.26.        Sec. 5165.10.  (A)(1)(a) Except as provided in 99257
division (A)(1)(b)(D) of this section, each nursing facility99258
provider shall file with the department of job and family services99259
medicaid an annual cost report for each of the provider's nursing 99260
facilities and intermediate care facilities for the mentally 99261
retarded that participate in the medicaid program. A provider 99262
shall prepare the reports in accordance with guidelines 99263
established by the department. AThe cost report for a year shall 99264
cover athe calendar year or the portion of athe calendar year 99265
during which the nursing facility participated in the medicaid 99266
program. A provider shall file the reports withinExcept as 99267
provided in division (E) of this section, the cost report is due 99268
not later than ninety days after the end of the calendar year, or 99269
portion of the calendar year, that the cost report covers. The 99270
department, for good cause, may grant a fourteen-day extension of 99271
the time for filing cost reports upon written request from a 99272
provider. The director of job and family services shall prescribe, 99273
in rules adopted under section 5111.02 of the Revised Code, the 99274
cost reporting form and a uniform chart of accounts for the 99275
purpose of cost reporting, and shall distribute cost reporting 99276
forms or computer software for electronic submission of the cost 99277
report to each provider at least sixty days before the reporting 99278
date.99279

       (b) If rates for a provider's nursing facility or 99280
intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded were most 99281
recently established under section 5111.254 or 5111.255 of the 99282
Revised Code, the provider shall submit a cost report for that 99283
facility no later than ninety days after the end of the facility's 99284
first three full calendar months of operation. If a nursing 99285
facility or intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded 99286
undergoes a change of provider that the department determines, in 99287
accordance with rules adopted under section 5111.02 of the Revised 99288
Code, is an arm's length transaction, the new provider shall 99289
submit a cost report for that facility not later than ninety days 99290
after the end of the facility's first three full calendar months 99291
of operation under the new provider. The provider of a facility 99292
that opens or undergoes a change of provider that is an arm's 99293
length transaction after the first day of October in any calendar 99294
year is not required to file a cost report for that calendar year.99295

       (c)(B) If a nursing facility undergoes a change of provider 99296
that the department determines, in accordance with rules adopted 99297
under section 5111.025165.02 of the Revised Code, is not an arms99298
arm's length transaction, the new provider shall file athe 99299
nursing facility's cost report underin accordance with division 99300
(A)(1)(a) of this section for the facility. Theand the cost 99301
report shall cover the portion of the calendar year during which 99302
the new provider operated the nursing facility and the portion of 99303
the calendar year during which the previous provider operated the 99304
nursing facility.99305

       (2) If a provider required to submit a cost report for a 99306
nursing facility or intermediate care facility for the mentally 99307
retarded does not file the report within the required time period 99308
or within fourteen days thereafter if an extension is granted 99309
under division (A)(1)(a) of this section, or files an incomplete 99310
or inadequate report for the facility, the department shall 99311
provide immediate written notice to the provider that the provider 99312
agreement for the facility will be terminated in thirty days 99313
unless the provider submits a complete and adequate cost report 99314
for the facility within thirty days. During the thirty-day 99315
termination period or any additional time allowed for an appeal of 99316
the proposed termination of a provider agreement, the provider 99317
shall be paid the facility's then current per resident per day 99318
rate, minus two dollars. On July 1, 1994, the department shall 99319
adjust the two-dollar reduction to reflect the rate of inflation 99320
during the preceding twelve months, as shown in the consumer price 99321
index for all items for all urban consumers for the north central 99322
region, published by the United States bureau of labor statistics. 99323
On July 1, 1995, and the first day of July of each year 99324
thereafter, the department shall adjust the amount of the 99325
reduction in effect during the previous twelve months to reflect 99326
the rate of inflation during the preceding twelve months, as shown 99327
in the same index.99328

       (B) No provider shall report fines paid under sections 99329
5111.35 to 5111.62 or section 5111.99 of the Revised Code in any 99330
cost report filed under this section.99331

       (C) The department shall develop an addendum to the cost 99332
report form that a provider may use to set forth costs that the 99333
provider believes may be disputed by the department. Any costs 99334
reported by the provider on the addendum may be considered by the 99335
department in setting the facility's rate. If the department does 99336
not consider the costs listed on the addendum in setting the 99337
facility's rate, the provider may seek reconsideration of that 99338
determination under section 5111.29 of the Revised Code. If the 99339
department subsequently includes the costs listed in the addendum 99340
in the facility's rate, the department shall pay the provider 99341
interest at a reasonable rate established in rules adopted under 99342
section 5111.02 of the Revised Code for the time that the rate 99343
paid excluded the costs.If the medicaid payment rate for a new 99344
nursing facility was most recently determined in accordance with 99345
section 5165.151 of the Revised Code, the provider shall file with 99346
the department a cost report for the new nursing facility not 99347
later than, except as provided in division (E) of this section, 99348
ninety days after the end of the new nursing facility's first 99349
three full calendar months of operation. The cost report shall 99350
cover the period that begins with the nursing facility's first day 99351
of operation and ends on the first day of the month immediately 99352
following the first three full months of operation.99353

       (D) A nursing facility provider is not required to file a 99354
cost report for a nursing facility for a calendar year in 99355
accordance with division (A) of this section if the provider files 99356
a cost report for the nursing facility under division (C) of this 99357
section and that cost report covers a period that begins after the 99358
first day of October of that calendar year. The provider shall 99359
file a cost report for the nursing facility in accordance with 99360
division (A) of this section for the immediately following 99361
calendar year.99362

       (E) The department may grant to a provider a fourteen-day 99363
extension to file a cost report under this section if the provider 99364
provides the department a written request for the extension and 99365
the department determines that there is good cause for the 99366
extension.99367

       Sec. 5111.266.        Sec. 5165.101.  A nursing facility provider of a 99368
nursing facility filing the nursing facility's cost report with 99369
the department of job and family servicesmedicaid under section 99370
5111.265165.10 or 5165.522 of the Revised Code shall report as a 99371
nonreimbursable expense the cost of the nursing facility's 99372
franchise permit fee.99373

       Sec. 5165.102.  No nursing facility provider shall report 99374
fines paid under sections 5165.60 to 5165.89 or section 5165.99 of 99375
the Revised Code in a cost report filed under section 5165.10 or 99376
5165.522 of the Revised Code.99377

       Sec. 5165.103.  Cost reports shall be completed using the 99378
form prescribed under section 5165.104 of the Revised Code and in 99379
accordance with the guidelines established under that section.99380

       Sec. 5165.104.  The department of medicaid shall do all of 99381
the following:99382

       (A) Prescribe the form to be used for completing a cost 99383
report and a uniform chart of accounts for the purpose of 99384
reporting costs on the form;99385

       (B) Distribute a paper copy of the form, or computer software 99386
for electronic submission of the form, to each provider at least 99387
sixty days before the date the cost report is due;99388

       (C) Establish guidelines for completing the form.99389

       Sec. 5165.105.  The department of medicaid shall develop an 99390
addendum to the cost report form that a nursing facility provider 99391
may use to set forth costs that the provider believes the 99392
department may dispute. The department may consider such costs in 99393
determining a nursing facility's medicaid payment rate. If the 99394
department does not consider such costs in determining a nursing 99395
facility's medicaid payment rate, the provider may seek 99396
reconsideration of the determination in accordance with section 99397
5165.38 of the Revised Code. If the department subsequently 99398
includes such costs in a nursing facility's medicaid payment rate, 99399
the department shall pay the provider interest at a reasonable 99400
rate established in rules adopted under section 5165.02 of the 99401
Revised Code for the period that the rate excluded the costs.99402

       Sec. 5165.106.  If a nursing facility provider required by 99403
section 5165.10 of the Revised Code to file a cost report for the 99404
nursing facility fails to file the cost report by the date it is 99405
due or the date, if any, to which the due date is extended 99406
pursuant to division (E) of that section, or files an incomplete 99407
or inadequate report for the nursing facility under that section, 99408
the department of medicaid shall provide immediate written notice 99409
to the provider that the provider agreement for the nursing 99410
facility will be terminated in thirty days unless the provider 99411
submits a complete and adequate cost report for the nursing 99412
facility within thirty days. During the thirty-day termination 99413
period or any additional time allowed for an appeal of the 99414
proposed termination of a provider agreement, the provider shall 99415
be paid the nursing facility's then current per medicaid day 99416
payment rate, minus the dollar amount by which nursing facility's 99417
per medicaid day payment rates are reduced during fiscal year 2013 99418
in accordance with division (A)(2) of section 5111.26 of the 99419
Revised Code (renumbered as section 5165.10 of the Revised Code by 99420
H.B. 59 of the 130th general assembly) as that section existed on 99421
the day immediately preceding the effective date of this section. 99422
On the first day of each July, the department shall adjust the 99423
amount of the reduction in effect during the previous twelve 99424
months to reflect the rate of inflation during the preceding 99425
twelve months, as shown in the consumer price index for all items 99426
for all urban consumers for the north central region, published by 99427
the United States bureau of labor statistics.99428

       Sec. 5111.261.        Sec. 5165.107.  (A) Except as provided in division 99429
(B) of this section and not later than three years after a nursing 99430
facility provider files a cost report with the department of job 99431
and family servicesmedicaid under section 5111.265165.10 of the 99432
Revised Code, the provider may amend the cost report if the 99433
provider discovers a material error in the cost report or 99434
additional information to be included in the cost report. The 99435
department shall review the amended cost report for accuracy and 99436
notify the provider of its determination.99437

       (B) A provider may not amend a cost report if the department 99438
has notified the provider that an audit of the cost report or a 99439
cost report of the provider for a subsequent cost reporting period 99440
is to be conducted under section 5111.275165.109 of the Revised 99441
Code. The provider may, however, provide the department 99442
information that affects the costs included in the cost report. 99443
Such information may not be provided after the adjudication of the 99444
final settlement of the cost report.99445

       Sec. 5111.27.        Sec. 5165.108.  (A) The department of job and family 99446
servicesmedicaid shall conduct a desk review of each cost report 99447
it receives under section 5111.265165.10 or 5165.522 of the 99448
Revised Code. Based on the desk review, the department shall make 99449
a preliminary determination of whether the reported costs are 99450
allowable costs. The department shall notify each nursing facility99451
provider of whether any of the reported costs are preliminarily 99452
determined not to be allowable, the medicaid payment rate 99453
calculationdetermined under sections 5111.20 to 5111.331 of the 99454
Revised Codethis chapter that results from that determination, 99455
and the reasons for the determination and resulting rate. The 99456
department shall allow the provider to verify the calculation and 99457
submit additional information.99458

       (B) The department may conduct an audit, as defined by rule 99459
adopted under section 5111.02 of the Revised Code, of any cost 99460
report. The decision whether to conduct an audit and the scope of 99461
the audit, which may be a desk or field audit, may be determined 99462
based on prior performance of the provider, a risk analysis, or 99463
other evidence that gives the department reason to believe that 99464
the provider has reported costs improperly. A desk or field audit 99465
may be performed annually, but is required whenever a provider 99466
does not pass the risk analysis tolerance factors. An audit shall 99467
be conducted by auditors under contract with or employed by the 99468
department. The department shall notify a provider of the findings 99469
of an audit by issuing an audit report. An audit report regarding 99470
a nursing facility shall include notice of any fine imposed under 99471
section 5111.271 of the Revised Code. The department shall issue 99472
the audit report no later than three years after the cost report 99473
is filed, or upon the completion of a desk or field audit on the 99474
report or a report for a subsequent cost reporting period, 99475
whichever is earlier.99476

       The department may establish a contract for the auditing of 99477
facilities by outside firms. Each contract entered into by bidding 99478
shall be effective for one to two years. The department shall 99479
establish an audit manual and program which shall require that all 99480
field audits, conducted either pursuant to a contract or by 99481
department employees:99482

       (1) Comply with the applicable rules prescribed pursuant to 99483
Titles XVIII and XIX;99484

       (2) Consider generally accepted auditing standards prescribed 99485
by the American institute of certified public accountants;99486

       (3) Include a written summary as to whether the costs 99487
included in the report examined during the audit are allowable and 99488
are presented in accordance with state and federal laws and 99489
regulations, and whether, in all material respects, allowable 99490
costs are documented, reasonable, and related to patient care;99491

       (4) Are conducted by accounting firms or auditors who, during 99492
the period of the auditors' professional engagement or employment 99493
and during the period covered by the cost reports, do not have nor 99494
are committed to acquire any direct or indirect financial interest 99495
in the ownership, financing, or operation of a nursing facility or 99496
intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded in this 99497
state;99498

       (5) Are conducted by accounting firms or auditors who, as a 99499
condition of the contract or employment, shall not audit any 99500
facility that has been a client of the firm or auditor;99501

       (6) Are conducted by auditors who are otherwise independent 99502
as determined by the standards of independence included in the 99503
government auditing standards produced by the United States 99504
government accountability office;99505

       (7) Are completed within the time period specified by the 99506
department;99507

       (8) Provide to the provider complete written interpretations 99508
that explain in detail the application of all relevant contract 99509
provisions, regulations, auditing standards, rate formulae, and 99510
departmental policies, with explanations and examples, that are 99511
sufficient to permit the provider to calculate with reasonable 99512
certainty those costs that are allowable and the rate to which the 99513
provider's facility is entitled.99514

       For the purposes of division (B)(4) of this section, 99515
employment of a member of an auditor's family by a nursing 99516
facility or intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded 99517
that the auditor does not review does not constitute a direct or 99518
indirect financial interest in the ownership, financing, or 99519
operation of the facility.99520

       (C) The department, pursuant to rules adopted under section 99521
5111.02 of the Revised Code, may conduct an exception review of 99522
assessment data submitted under section 5111.232 of the Revised 99523
Code. The department may conduct an exception review based on the 99524
findings of a certification survey conducted by the department of 99525
health, a risk analysis, or prior performance of the provider.99526

       Exception reviews shall be conducted at the facility by 99527
appropriate health professionals under contract with or employed 99528
by the department of job and family services. The professionals 99529
may review resident assessment forms and supporting documentation, 99530
conduct interviews, and observe residents to identify any patterns 99531
or trends of inaccurate assessments and resulting inaccurate 99532
case-mix scores.99533

       The rules shall establish an exception review program that 99534
requires that exception reviews do all of the following:99535

       (1) Comply with Titles XVIII and XIX;99536

       (2) Provide a written summary that states whether the 99537
resident assessment forms have been completed accurately;99538

       (3) Are conducted by health professionals who, during the 99539
period of their professional engagement or employment with the 99540
department, neither have nor are committed to acquire any direct 99541
or indirect financial interest in the ownership, financing, or 99542
operation of a nursing facility or intermediate care facility for 99543
the mentally retarded in this state;99544

       (4) Are conducted by health professionals who, as a condition 99545
of their engagement or employment with the department, shall not 99546
review any provider that has been a client of the professional.99547

       For the purposes of division (C)(3) of this section, 99548
employment of a member of a health professional's family by a 99549
nursing facility or intermediate care facility for the mentally 99550
retarded that the professional does not review does not constitute 99551
a direct or indirect financial interest in the ownership, 99552
financing, or operation of the facility.99553

       If an exception review is conducted before the effective date 99554
of the rate that is based on the case-mix data subject to the 99555
review and the review results in findings that exceed tolerance 99556
levels specified in the rules adopted under this division, the 99557
department, in accordance with those rules, may use the findings 99558
to recalculate individual resident case-mix scores, quarterly 99559
average facility case-mix scores, and annual average facility 99560
case-mix scores. The department may use the recalculated quarterly 99561
and annual facility average case-mix scores to calculate the 99562
facility's rate for direct care costs for the appropriate calendar 99563
quarter or quarters.99564

       (D) The department shall prepare a written summary of any 99565
audit disallowance or exception review finding that is made after 99566
the effective date of the rate that is based on the cost or 99567
case-mix data. Where the provider is pursuing judicial or 99568
administrative remedies in good faith regarding the disallowance 99569
or finding, the department shall not withhold from the provider's 99570
current payments any amounts the department claims to be due from 99571
the provider pursuant to section 5111.28 of the Revised Code.99572

       (E) The department shall not reduce rates calculated under 99573
sections 5111.20 to 5111.331 of the Revised Code on the basis that 99574
the provider charges a lower rate to any resident who is not 99575
eligible for the medicaid program.99576

       (F) The department shall adjust the rates calculated under 99577
sections 5111.20 to 5111.331 of the Revised Code to account for 99578
reasonable additional costs that must be incurred by intermediate 99579
care facilities for the mentally retarded to comply with 99580
requirements of federal or state statutes, rules, or policies 99581
enacted or amended after January 1, 1992, or with orders issued by 99582
state or local fire authorities.99583

       Sec. 5165.109.  (A) The department of medicaid may conduct an 99584
audit, as defined in rules adopted under section 5165.02 of the 99585
Revised Code, of any cost report filed under section 5165.10 or 99586
5165.522 of the Revised Code. The decision whether to conduct an 99587
audit and the scope of the audit, which may be a desk or field 99588
audit, may be determined based on prior performance of the 99589
provider, a risk analysis, or other evidence that gives the 99590
department reason to believe that the provider has reported costs 99591
improperly. A desk or field audit may be performed annually, but 99592
is required whenever a provider does not pass the risk analysis 99593
tolerance factors.99594

       (B) Audits shall be conducted by auditors under contract with 99595
the department, auditors working for firms under contract with the 99596
department, or auditors employed by the department. 99597

       The department may establish a contract for the auditing of 99598
nursing facilities by outside firms. Each contract entered into by 99599
bidding shall be effective for one to two years.99600

       (C) The department shall notify a provider of the findings of 99601
an audit of a cost report by issuing an audit report. The audit 99602
report shall include notice of any fine imposed under section 99603
5165.1010 of the Revised Code. The department shall issue the 99604
audit report not later than three years after the earlier of the 99605
following:99606

       (1) The date the cost report is filed;99607

       (2) The date a desk or field audit of the cost report or a 99608
cost report for a subsequent cost reporting period is completed.99609

       (D) The department shall prepare a written summary of any 99610
audit disallowance that is made after the effective date of the 99611
rate that is based on the cost. Where the provider is pursuing 99612
judicial or administrative remedies in good faith regarding the 99613
disallowance, the department shall not withhold from the 99614
provider's current payments any amounts the department claims to 99615
be due from the provider pursuant to section 5165.41 of the 99616
Revised Code.99617

       (E)(1) The department shall establish an audit manual and 99618
program for field audits conducted under this section. Each 99619
auditor conducting a field audit under this section shall follow 99620
the audit manual and program, regardless of whether the auditor is 99621
under contract with the department, works for a firm under 99622
contract with the department, or is employed by the department. 99623
The manual and program shall do both of the following:99624

       (a) Require each field audit to be conducted by an auditor to 99625
whom all of the following apply:99626

       (i) During the period of the auditor's contract, firm's 99627
contract, or auditor's employment with the department, the auditor 99628
or firm does not have and is not committed to acquire any direct 99629
or indirect financial interest in the ownership, financing, or 99630
operation of nursing facilities in this state.99631

       (ii) The auditor does not audit any provider that has been a 99632
client of the auditor or the auditor's firm.99633

       (iii) The auditor is otherwise independent as determined by 99634
the standards of independence included in the government auditing 99635
standards produced by the United States government accountability 99636
office.99637

       (b) Require each auditor conducting a field audit to do all 99638
of the following:99639

       (i) Comply with applicable rules prescribed pursuant to Title 99640
XVIII and Title XIX;99641

       (ii) Consider generally accepted auditing standards 99642
prescribed by the American institute of certified public 99643
accountants;99644

       (iii) Include a written summary as to whether the costs 99645
included in the cost report examined during the audit are 99646
allowable and are presented in accordance with state and federal 99647
laws and regulations, and whether, in all material respects, 99648
allowable costs are documented, reasonable, and related to patient 99649
care;99650

       (iv) Complete the audit within the time period specified by 99651
the department;99652

       (v) Provide to the provider complete written interpretations 99653
that explain in detail the application of all relevant contract 99654
provisions, regulations, auditing standards, rate formulae, and 99655
departmental policies, with explanations and examples, that are 99656
sufficient to permit the provider to calculate with reasonable 99657
certainty those costs that are allowable and the rate to which the 99658
provider's nursing facility is entitled.99659

       (2) For the purpose of division (E)(1)(a)(i) of this section, 99660
employment of a member of an auditor's family by a nursing 99661
facility that the auditor does not audit does not constitute a 99662
direct or indirect financial interest in the ownership, financing, 99663
or operation of the nursing facility.99664

       Sec. 5111.271.        Sec. 5165.1010.  (A) Subject to division (D) of this 99665
section, the department of job and family servicesmedicaid shall 99666
fine the provider of a nursing facility if the report of an audit 99667
conducted under division (B) of section 5111.275165.109 of the 99668
Revised Code regarding a cost report for the nursing facility 99669
includes either of the following:99670

       (1) Adverse findings that exceed three per cent of the total 99671
amount of medicaid-reimbursablemedicaid-allowable costs reported 99672
in the cost report;99673

       (2) Adverse findings that exceed twenty per cent of 99674
medicaid-reimbursablemedicaid-allowable costs for a particular 99675
cost center reported in the cost report.99676

       (B) A fine issued under this section shall equal the greatest 99677
of the following:99678

       (1) If the adverse findings exceed three per cent but do not 99679
exceed ten per cent of the total amount of medicaid-reimbursable99680
medicaid-allowable costs reported in the cost report, the greater 99681
of three per cent of those reported costs or ten thousand dollars;99682

       (2) If the adverse findings exceed ten per cent but do not 99683
exceed twenty per cent of the total amount of 99684
medicaid-reimbursablemedicaid-allowable costs reported in the 99685
cost report, the greater of six per cent of those reported costs 99686
or twenty-five thousand dollars;99687

       (3) If the adverse findings exceed twenty per cent of the 99688
total amount of medicaid-reimbursablemedicaid-allowable costs 99689
reported in the cost report, the greater of ten per cent of those 99690
reported costs or fifty thousand dollars;99691

       (4) If the adverse findings exceed twenty per cent but do not 99692
exceed twenty-five per cent of medicaid-reimbursable99693
medicaid-allowable costs for a particular cost center reported in 99694
the cost report, the greater of three per cent of the total amount 99695
of medicaid-reimbursablemedicaid-allowable costs reported in the 99696
cost report or ten thousand dollars;99697

       (5) If the adverse findings exceed twenty-five per cent but 99698
do not exceed thirty per cent of medicaid-reimbursable99699
medicaid-allowable costs for a particular cost center reported in 99700
the cost report, the greater of six per cent of the total amount 99701
of medicaid-reimbursablemedicaid-allowable costs reported in the 99702
cost report or twenty-five thousand dollars;99703

       (6) If the adverse findings exceed thirty per cent of 99704
medicaid-reimbursablemedicaid-allowable costs for a particular 99705
cost center reported in the cost report, the greater of ten per 99706
cent of the total amount of medicaid-reimbursable99707
medicaid-allowable costs reported in the cost report or fifty 99708
thousand dollars.99709

       (C) Fines paid under this section shall be deposited into the 99710
health care services administration fund created under section 99711
5111.945162.54 of the Revised Code.99712

       (D) The department may not collect a fine under this section 99713
until all appeal rights relating to the audit report that is the 99714
basis for the fine are exhausted.99715

       Sec. 5111.222.        Sec. 5165.15.  (A) As used in this section, "low 99716
resource utilization resident" means a medicaid recipient residing 99717
in a nursing facility who, for purposes of calculating the nursing 99718
facility's medicaid reimbursement rate for direct care costs, is 99719
placed in either of the two lowest resource utilization groups, 99720
excluding any resource utilization group that is a default group 99721
used for residents with incomplete assessment data.99722

       (B) Except as otherwise provided by sections 5111.205165.15199723
to 5111.3315165.156 and 5165.34 of the Revised Code and by 99724
division (C) of this section, the total per medicaid day payment99725
rate that the department of job and family servicesmedicaid shall 99726
agree to pay for a fiscal year to the provider of a nursing 99727
facility pursuant to a provider agreementprovider for nursing 99728
facility services the provider's nursing facility provides during 99729
a fiscal year shall equal the sum of all of the following:99730

        (1) The rate for direct care costs determined for the nursing 99731
facility under section 5111.231 of the Revised Code;99732

       (2) The per medicaid day payment rate for ancillary and 99733
support costs determined for the nursing facility's ancillary and 99734
support cost peer groupfacility under section 5111.245165.16 of 99735
the Revised Code;99736

        (3)(2) The per medicaid day payment rate for capital costs 99737
determined for the nursing facility under section 5165.17 of the 99738
Revised Code;99739

       (3) The per medicaid day payment rate for direct care costs 99740
determined for the nursing facility under section 5165.19 of the 99741
Revised Code;99742

       (4) The per medicaid day payment rate for tax costs 99743
determined for the nursing facility under section 5111.2425165.2199744
of the Revised Code;99745

       (4) The quality incentive payment paid to the nursing 99746
facility under section 5111.244 of the Revised Code;99747

        (5) If the nursing facility qualifies as a critical access 99748
nursing facility, the nursing facility's critical access incentive 99749
payment paid to the nursing facility under section 5111.24699750
5165.23 of the Revised Code;99751

       (6) The rate for capital costs determined for the nursing 99752
facility's capital costs peer group under section 5111.25quality 99753
incentive payment paid to the nursing facility under section 99754
5165.25 of the Revised Code.99755

       (C) The total rate determined under division (B) of this 99756
section shall not be paid for nursing facility services provided 99757
to low resource utilization residents. Instead, the total rate for 99758
nursing facility services that a nursing facility provides to low 99759
resource utilization residents shall be one hundred thirty dollars 99760
per medicaid day.99761

       (D)(B) In addition to paying a nursing facility provider the 99762
nursing facility's total rate determined under division (B) or 99763
(C)(A) of this section for a fiscal year, the department shall pay 99764
the provider a quality bonus under section 5111.2455165.26 of the 99765
Revised Code for that fiscal year if the provider's nursing 99766
facility is a qualifying nursing facility, as defined in that 99767
section, for that fiscal year. The quality bonus shall not be part 99768
of the total rate.99769

       Sec. 5111.254.        Sec. 5165.151.  (A) The department of job and family 99770
services shall establish initial rates for a nursing facility with 99771
a first date of licensure that is on or after July 1, 2006, 99772
including a facility that replaces one or more existing 99773
facilities, or for a nursing facility with a first date of 99774
licensure before that date that was initially certified for the 99775
medicaid program on or after that date,total per medicaid day 99776
payment rate determined under section 5165.15 of the Revised Code 99777
shall not be the initial rate for nursing facility services 99778
provided by a new nursing facility. Instead, the initial total per 99779
medicaid day payment rate for nursing facility services provided 99780
by a new nursing facility shall be determined in the following 99781
manner:99782

       (1) The initial rate for ancillary and support costs shall be 99783
the rate for the new nursing facility's peer group determined 99784
under division (D) of section 5165.16 of the Revised Code.99785

       (2) The initial rate for capital costs shall be the rate for 99786
the new nursing facility's peer group determined under division 99787
(D) of section 5165.17 of the Revised Code;99788

       (3) The initial rate for direct care costs shall be the 99789
product of the cost per case-mix unit determined under division 99790
(D) of section 5111.2315165.19 of the Revised Code for the new 99791
nursing facility's peer group and the new nursing facility's 99792
case-mix score determined under division (B) of this section. For 99793
the purpose of division (A)(1) of this section, the nursing 99794
facility's case-mix score shall be the following:99795

       (a) Unless the nursing facility replaces an existing nursing 99796
facility that participated in the medicaid program immediately 99797
before the replacement nursing facility begins participating in 99798
the medicaid program, the median annual average case-mix score for 99799
the nursing facility's peer group;99800

        (b) If the nursing facility replaces an existing nursing 99801
facility that participated in the medicaid program immediately 99802
before the replacement nursing facility begins participating in 99803
the medicaid program, the semiannual case-mix score most recently 99804
determined under section 5111.232 of the Revised Code for the 99805
replaced nursing facility as adjusted, if necessary, to reflect 99806
any difference in the number of beds in the replaced and 99807
replacement nursing facilities.99808

       (2) The rate for ancillary and support costs shall be the 99809
rate for the facility's peer group determined under division (D) 99810
of section 5111.24 of the Revised Code.99811

       (3) The rate for capital costs shall be the rate for the 99812
facility's peer group determined under division (D) of section 99813
5111.25 of the Revised Code.99814

       (4) The initial rate for tax costs shall be the median rate 99815
for tax costs for the new nursing facility's peer group in which 99816
the nursing facility is placed under division (C) of section 99817
5111.245165.16 of the Revised Code.99818

       (5) The quality incentive payment shall be the mean payment 99819
made to nursing facilities under section 5111.2445165.25 of the 99820
Revised Code.99821

       (B) For the purpose of division (A)(3) of this section, a new 99822
nursing facility's case-mix score shall be the following:99823

       (1) Unless the new nursing facility replaces an existing 99824
nursing facility that participated in the medicaid program 99825
immediately before the new nursing facility begins participating 99826
in the medicaid program, the median annual average case-mix score 99827
for the new nursing facility's peer group;99828

       (2) If the nursing facility replaces an existing nursing 99829
facility that participated in the medicaid program immediately 99830
before the new nursing facility begins participating in the 99831
medicaid program, the semiannual case-mix score most recently 99832
determined under section 5165.192 of the Revised Code for the 99833
replaced nursing facility as adjusted, if necessary, to reflect 99834
any difference in the number of beds in the replaced and new 99835
nursing facilities.99836

       (C) Subject to division (C)(D) of this section, the 99837
department shall adjust the rates established under division (A) 99838
of this section effective the first day of July, to reflect new 99839
rate calculations for all nursing facilities under sections 99840
5111.20 to 5111.331 of the Revised Codethis chapter.99841

       (C)(D) If a rate for direct care costs is determined under 99842
this section for a new nursing facility using the median annual 99843
average case-mix score for the new nursing facility's peer group, 99844
the rate shall be redetermined to reflect the replacementnew99845
nursing facility's actual semiannual average case-mix score 99846
determined under section 5111.2325165.192 of the Revised Code 99847
after the new nursing facility submits its first two quarterly 99848
assessment data that qualify for use in calculating a case-mix 99849
score in accordance with rules authorized by division (E) of99850
section 5111.2325165.192 of the Revised Code. If the new nursing 99851
facility's quarterly submissions do not qualify for use in 99852
calculating a case-mix score, the department shall continue to use 99853
the median annual average case-mix score for the new nursing 99854
facility's peer group in lieu of the new nursing facility's 99855
semiannual case-mix score until the new nursing facility submits 99856
two consecutive quarterly assessment data that qualify for use in 99857
calculating a case-mix score.99858

       Sec. 5165.152.  The total per medicaid day payment rate 99859
determined under section 5165.15 of the Revised Code shall not be 99860
paid for nursing facility services provided to low resource 99861
utilization residents. Instead, the total rate for such nursing 99862
facility services shall be one hundred thirty dollars per medicaid 99863
day.99864

       Sec. 5111.258.        Sec. 5165.153.  (A) Notwithstanding sections 5111.20 99865
to 5111.331 of the Revised Code (except section 5111.259 of the 99866
Revised Code), the director of job and family services shall adopt 99867
rules under section 5111.02 of the Revised Code that establish a 99868
methodology for calculating the prospective rates that will be 99869
paid each fiscal year to a provider for each of the provider's 99870
eligible nursing facilities and intermediate care facilities for 99871
the mentally retarded, and discrete units of the provider's 99872
nursing facilities or intermediate care facilities for the 99873
mentally retarded, that serve residents who have diagnosesThe 99874
total per medicaid day payment rate determined under section 99875
5165.15 of the Revised Code shall not be paid for nursing facility 99876
services provided by a nursing facility, or discrete unit of a 99877
nursing facility, designated by the department of medicaid as an 99878
outlier nursing facility or unit. Instead, the provider of a 99879
designated outlier nursing facility or unit shall be paid each 99880
fiscal year a total per medicaid day payment rate that the 99881
department shall prospectively determine in accordance with a 99882
methodology established in rules authorized by this section.99883

       (B) The department may designate a nursing facility, or 99884
discrete unit of a nursing facility, as an outlier nursing 99885
facility or unit if the nursing facility or unit serves residents 99886
who have either of the following:99887

       (1) Diagnoses or special care needs that require direct care 99888
resources that are not measured adequately by the applicable99889
resident assessment instrument specified in rules authorized by 99890
section 5111.2325165.191 of the Revised Code, or who have 99891
diagnoses;99892

       (2) Diagnoses or special care needs specified in the rules 99893
authorized by this section as otherwise qualifying for 99894
consideration under this section. The facilities and units of 99895
facilities whose rates are established under this division may 99896
include, but shall not be limited to, any of the following:99897

       (1) In the case of nursing facilities, facilities and units 99898
of facilities that serve medically fragile pediatric residents, 99899
residents who are dependent on ventilators, or residents who have 99900
severe traumatic brain injury, end-stage Alzheimer's disease, or 99901
end-stage acquired immunodeficiency syndrome;99902

       (2) In the case of intermediate care facilities for the 99903
mentally retarded, facilities and units of facilities that serve 99904
residents who have complex medical conditions or severe behavioral 99905
problems.99906

       The department shall use the methodology established under 99907
this division to pay for services rendered by such facilities and 99908
units after June 30, 1993.99909

       (C) Notwithstanding any other provision of this chapter 99910
(except section 5165.156 of the Revised Code), the costs incurred 99911
by a designated outlier nursing facility or unit shall not be 99912
considered in establishing medicaid payment rates for other 99913
nursing facilities or units.99914

       (D) The medicaid director shall adopt rules under section 99915
5165.02 of the Revised Code as necessary to implement this 99916
section.99917

       (1)(a) The rules authorized by this division shall specifydo 99918
both of the following:99919

       (i) Specify the criteria and procedures the department will 99920
apply when designating facilities and units that qualify for 99921
calculation of rates under this divisiona nursing facility, or 99922
discrete unit of a nursing facility, as an outlier nursing 99923
facility or unit;99924

       (ii) Establish a methodology for prospectively determining 99925
the total per medicaid day payment rate that will be paid each 99926
fiscal year for nursing facility services provided by a designated 99927
outlier nursing facility or unit. The criteria shall include99928

       (b) The rules authorized by division (D)(1)(a)(i) of this 99929
section regarding the criteria for designating outlier nursing 99930
facilities and units shall do both of the following:99931

       (i) Provide for consideration of whether all of the allowable 99932
costs of thea nursing facility, or discrete unit of a nursing 99933
facility, would be paid by rates establisheda rate determined99934
under sections 5111.20 to 5111.331section 5165.15 of the Revised 99935
Code, and shall establish a;99936

       (ii) Specify the minimum bed size for anumber of nursing 99937
facility beds that a nursing facility, or discrete unit to qualify 99938
toof a nursing facility, must have its rates established under 99939
this divisionto be designated an outlier nursing facility or 99940
unit, which may vary based on the diagnoses or special care needs 99941
of the residents served by the nursing facility or unit. The 99942
criteria shall not be designed to require that residents be served 99943
only in99944

       (c) The rules authorized by division (D)(1)(a)(i) of this 99945
section regarding the criteria for designating outlier nursing 99946
facilities and units shall not limit the designation to nursing99947
facilities, or discrete units of nursing facilities, located in 99948
large cities. The99949

       (d) The rules authorized by division (D)(1)(a)(ii) of this 99950
section regarding the methodology for prospectively determining 99951
the rates of designated outlier nursing facilities and units shall 99952
provide for the methodology established by the rules shallto99953
consider the historical costs of providing carenursing facility 99954
services to the residents of thedesignated outlier nursing99955
facilities orand units.99956

       (2)(a) The rules may requiredo both of the following:99957

       (i) Include for designation as an outlier nursing facility or 99958
unit, a nursing facility, or discrete unit of a nursing facility, 99959
that serves medically fragile pediatric residents; residents who 99960
are dependent on ventilators; residents who have severe traumatic 99961
brain injury, end-stage Alzheimer's disease, or end-stage acquired 99962
immunodeficiency syndrome; or residents with other diagnoses or 99963
special care needs specified in the rules;99964

       (ii) Require that a designated outlier nursing facility 99965
designated under this division or containing a unit designated 99966
under this division receive authorization from the department to 99967
admitbefore admitting or retainretaining a resident to the 99968
facility or unit and.99969

       (b) If the director adopts rules authorized by division 99970
(D)(2)(a)(ii) of this section regarding the authorization of a 99971
designated outlier nursing facility or unit to admit or retain a 99972
resident, the rules shall specify the criteria and procedures the 99973
department will apply when granting that authorization.99974

       Notwithstanding any other provision of sections 5111.20 to 99975
5111.331 of the Revised Code (except section 5111.259 of the 99976
Revised Code), the costs incurred by facilities or units whose 99977
rates are established under this division shall not be considered 99978
in establishing payment rates for other facilities or units.99979

       (B) The director may adopt rules under section 5111.02 of the 99980
Revised Code under which the department, notwithstanding any other 99981
provision of sections 5111.20 to 5111.331 of the Revised Code 99982
(except section 5111.259 of the Revised Code), may adjust the 99983
rates determined under sections 5111.20 to 5111.331 of the Revised 99984
Code for a facility that serves a resident who has a diagnosis or 99985
special care need that, in the rules authorized by division (A) of 99986
this section, would qualify a facility or unit of a facility to 99987
have its rate determined under that division, but who is not in 99988
such a unit. The rules may require that a facility that qualifies 99989
for a rate adjustment under this division receive authorization 99990
from the department to admit or retain a resident who qualifies 99991
the facility for the rate adjustment and shall specify the 99992
criteria and procedures the department will apply when granting 99993
that authorization.99994

       Sec. 5165.154.  (A) To the extent, if any, provided for in 99995
rules authorized by this section, the total per medicaid day 99996
payment rate determined under section 5165.15 of the Revised Code 99997
shall not be paid for nursing facility services that a nursing 99998
facility not designated as an outlier nursing facility or unit 99999
provides to a resident who meets the criteria for admission to a 100000
designated outlier nursing facility or unit, as specified in rules 100001
authorized by section 5165.153 of the Revised Code. Instead, the 100002
provider of a nursing facility providing nursing facility services 100003
to such a resident shall be paid each fiscal year a total per 100004
medicaid day payment rate that the department of medicaid shall 100005
prospectively determine in accordance with a methodology 100006
established in rules authorized by this section.100007

       (B) The medicaid director may adopt rules under section 100008
5165.02 of the Revised Code to implement this section. The rules 100009
may require that a nursing facility receive authorization from the 100010
department before admitting or retaining a resident who meets the 100011
criteria for admission to a designated outlier nursing facility or 100012
unit. If the director adopts such rules, the rules shall specify 100013
the criteria and procedures the department will apply when 100014
granting the authorization.100015

       Sec. 5111.225.        Sec. 5165.155.  (A) As used in this section:100016

       "Dual eligible individual" has the same meaning as in section 100017
1915(h)(2)(B) of the "Social Security Act," 124 Stat. 315 (2010), 100018
42 U.S.C. 1396n(h)(2)(B).100019

       "Medicaid, "medicaid maximum allowable amount" means one 100020
hundred per cent of a nursing facility's total per diemmedicaid 100021
day payment rate for a medicaid day.100022

       (B) TheInstead of paying the total per medicaid day payment 100023
rate determined under section 5165.15 of the Revised Code, the100024
department of job and family servicesmedicaid shall pay the 100025
provider of a nursing facility the lesser of the following for 100026
nursing facility services the nursing facility provides on or 100027
after January 1, 2012, to a dual eligible individual who is 100028
eligible for nursing facility services under the medicaid program 100029
and post-hospital extended care services under Part A of Title 100030
XVIII:100031

       (1) The coinsurance amount for the services as provided under 100032
Part A of Title XVIII;100033

       (2) The medicaid maximum allowable amount for the services, 100034
less the amount paid under Part A of Title XVIII for the services.100035

       Sec. 5111.259.        Sec. 5165.156. The medicaid director of job and 100036
family services may submit a request to the United States 100037
secretary of health and human services for approval to establish a 100038
centers of excellence component of the medicaid program. The 100039
purpose of the centers of excellence component is to increase the 100040
efficiency and quality of nursing facility services provided to 100041
medicaid recipients with complex nursing facility service needs. 100042
If federal approval for the centers of excellence component is 100043
granted, theThe director may adopt rules under section 5111.02100044
5165.02 of the Revised Code governing the component, including 100045
rules that establish a method of determining the medicaid 100046
reimbursementpayment rates for nursing facilities providing 100047
nursing facility services to medicaid recipients participating in 100048
the component. The rules may specify the extent to which, if any, 100049
of the provisions of section 5111.258sections 5165.153 and 100050
5165.154 of the Revised Code are to apply to the centers of 100051
excellence component. If such rules are adopted, the nursing 100052
facilities that provide nursing facility services to medicaid 100053
recipients participating in the centers of excellence component 100054
shall be paid for those services in accordance with the method 100055
established in the rules notwithstanding anything to the contrary 100056
in sections 5111.20 to 5111.331instead of the total per medicaid 100057
day payment rate determined under section 5165.15 of the Revised 100058
Code.100059

       Sec. 5111.24.        Sec. 5165.16. (A) As used in this section:100060

       (1) "Applicable calendar year" means the following:100061

       (a) For the purpose of the department of job and family 100062
services'medicaid's initial determination under division (D) of 100063
this section of each peer group's rate for ancillary and support 100064
costs, calendar year 2003;100065

       (b) For the purpose of the department's rebasings, the 100066
calendar year the department selects.100067

       (2) "Rebasing" means a redetermination under division (D) of 100068
this section of each peer groups'group's rate for ancillary and 100069
support costs using information from cost reports for an 100070
applicable calendar year that is later than the applicable 100071
calendar year used for the previous determination of such rates.100072

        (B) The department of job and family servicesmedicaid shall 100073
pay a provider fordetermine each of the provider's eligible100074
nursing facilities afacility's per resident permedicaid day 100075
payment rate for ancillary and support costs determined for the. 100076
A nursing facility's peer grouprate shall be the rate determined100077
under division (D) of this section for the nursing facility's peer 100078
group. However, for the period beginning October 1, 2013, and 100079
ending on the first day of the first rebasing, the rate for a 100080
nursing facility located in Mahoning or Stark county shall be the 100081
rate determined for the following:100082

        (1) If the nursing facility has fewer than one hundred beds, 100083
the nursing facilities in peer group three;100084

        (2) If the nursing facility has one hundred or more beds, the 100085
nursing facilities in peer group four. 100086

        (C) For the purpose of determining nursing facilities' rate100087
rates for ancillary and support costs, the department shall 100088
establish six peer groups.100089

       Each(1) Until the first rebasing occurs, the peer groups 100090
shall be composed as follows:100091

       (a) Each nursing facility located in any of the following 100092
counties shall be placed in peer group one or two: Brown, Butler, 100093
Clermont, Clinton, Hamilton, and Warren. Each nursing facility 100094
located in any of those counties that has fewer than one hundred 100095
beds shall be placed in peer group one. Each nursing facility 100096
located in any of those counties that has one hundred or more beds 100097
shall be placed in peer group two.100098

       (b) Each nursing facility located in any of the following 100099
counties shall be placed in peer group three or four: Ashtabula, 100100
Champaign, Clark, Cuyahoga, Darke, Delaware, Fairfield, Fayette, 100101
Franklin, Fulton, Geauga, Greene, Hancock, Knox, Lake, Licking, 100102
Lorain, Lucas, Madison, Marion, Medina, Miami, Montgomery, Morrow, 100103
Ottawa, Pickaway, Portage, Preble, Ross, Sandusky, Seneca, Summit, 100104
Union, and Wood. Each nursing facility located in any of those 100105
counties that has fewer than one hundred beds shall be placed in 100106
peer group three. Each nursing facility located in any of those 100107
counties that has one hundred or more beds shall be placed in peer 100108
group four.100109

       (c) Each nursing facility located in any of the following 100110
counties shall be placed in peer group five or six: Adams, Allen, 100111
Ashland, Athens, Auglaize, Belmont, Carroll, Columbiana, 100112
Coshocton, Crawford, Defiance, Erie, Gallia, Guernsey, Hardin, 100113
Harrison, Henry, Highland, Hocking, Holmes, Huron, Jackson, 100114
Jefferson, Lawrence, Logan, Mahoning, Meigs, Mercer, Monroe, 100115
Morgan, Muskingum, Noble, Paulding, Perry, Pike, Putnam, Richland, 100116
Scioto, Shelby, Stark, Trumbull, Tuscarawas, Van Wert, Vinton, 100117
Washington, Wayne, Williams, and Wyandot. Each nursing facility 100118
located in any of those counties that has fewer than one hundred 100119
beds shall be placed in peer group five. Each nursing facility 100120
located in any of those counties that has one hundred or more beds 100121
shall be placed in peer group six.100122

       (2) Beginning with the first rebasing, the peer groups shall 100123
be composed as they are under division (C)(1) of this section 100124
except as follows:100125

        (a) Each nursing facility that has fewer than one hundred 100126
beds and is located in Mahoning or Stark county shall be placed in 100127
peer group three rather than peer group five.100128

        (b) Each nursing facility that has one hundred or more beds 100129
and is located in Mahoning or Stark county shall be placed in peer 100130
group four rather than peer group six. 100131

        (D)(1) The department shall determine the rate for ancillary 100132
and support costs for each peer group established under division 100133
(C) of this section. The department is not required to conduct a 100134
rebasing more than once every ten years. Except as necessary to 100135
implement the amendments made to this section by Am. Sub. H.B. 153 100136
and Sub. H.B. 303, both of the 129th general assembly, the rate 100137
for ancillary and support costs determined under this division for 100138
a peer group shall be used for subsequent years until the 100139
department conducts a rebasing. To determine a peer group's rate 100140
for ancillary and support costs, the department shall do all of 100141
the following:100142

        (a) Subject to division (D)(2) of this section, determine the 100143
rate for ancillary and support costs for each nursing facility in 100144
the peer group for the applicable calendar year by using the 100145
greater of the nursing facility's actual inpatient days for the 100146
applicable calendar year or the inpatient days the nursing 100147
facility would have had for the applicable calendar year if its 100148
occupancy rate had been ninety per cent;100149

        (b) Subject to division (D)(3) of this section, identify 100150
which nursing facility in the peer group is at the twenty-fifth 100151
percentile of the rate for ancillary and support costs for the 100152
applicable calendar year determined under division (D)(1)(a) of 100153
this section;100154

        (c) Multiply the rate for ancillary and support costs 100155
determined under division (D)(1)(a) of this section for the 100156
nursing facility identified under division (D)(1)(b) of this 100157
section by the rate of inflation for the eighteen-month period 100158
beginning on the first day of July of the applicable calendar year 100159
and ending the last day of December of the calendar year 100160
immediately following the applicable calendar year using the 100161
following:100162

       (i) Until the first rebasing occurs, the consumer price index 100163
for all items for all urban consumers for the north central 100164
region, published by the United States bureau of labor statistics, 100165
as that index existed on July 1, 2005;100166

       (ii) Effective with the first rebasing and except as provided 100167
in division (D)(1)(c)(iii) of this section, the consumer price 100168
index for all items for all urban consumers for the midwest 100169
region, published by the United States bureau of labor statistics;100170

       (iii) If the United States bureau of labor statistics ceases 100171
to publish the index specified in division (D)(1)(c)(ii) of this 100172
section, the index the bureau subsequently publishes that covers 100173
urban consumers' prices for items for the region that includes 100174
this state.100175

       (d) Until the first rebasing occurs, increase the amount 100176
calculated under division (D)(1)(c) of this section by five and 100177
eight hundredths per cent.100178

        (2) For the purpose of determining a nursing facility's 100179
occupancy rate under division (D)(1)(a) of this section, the 100180
department shall include any beds that the nursing facility 100181
removes from its medicaid-certified capacity unless the nursing 100182
facility also removes the beds from its licensed bed capacity.100183

       (3) In making the identification under division (D)(1)(b) of 100184
this section, the department shall exclude both of the following:100185

        (a) Nursing facilities that participated in the medicaid 100186
program under the same provider for less than twelve months in the 100187
applicable calendar year;100188

        (b) Nursing facilities whose ancillary and support costs are 100189
more than one standard deviation from the mean desk-reviewed, 100190
actual, allowable, per diem ancillary and support cost for all 100191
nursing facilities in the nursing facility's peer group for the 100192
applicable calendar year.100193

        (4) The department shall not redetermine a peer group's rate 100194
for ancillary and support costs under this division based on 100195
additional information that it receives after the rate is 100196
determined. The department shall redetermine a peer group's rate 100197
for ancillary and support costs only if the department made an 100198
error in determining the rate based on information available to 100199
the department at the time of the original determination.100200

       Sec. 5111.25.        Sec. 5165.17.  (A) As used in this section:100201

       (1) "Applicable calendar year" means the following:100202

       (a) For the purpose of the department of job and family 100203
services'medicaid's initial determination under division (D) of 100204
this section of each peer group's rate for capital costs, calendar 100205
year 2003;100206

       (b) For the purpose of the department's rebasings, the 100207
calendar year the department selects.100208

       (2) "Rebasing" means a redetermination under division (D) of 100209
this section of each peer groups'group's rate for capital costs 100210
using information from cost reports for an applicable calendar 100211
year that is later than the applicable calendar year used for the 100212
previous determination of such rates.100213

        (B) The department of job and family servicesmedicaid shall 100214
pay a provider fordetermine each of the provider's eligible100215
nursing facilities afacility's per resident permedicaid day 100216
payment rate for capital costs determined for the. A nursing 100217
facility's peer grouprate shall be the rate determined under 100218
division (D) of this section. However, for the period beginning 100219
October 1, 2013, and ending on the first day of the first 100220
rebasing, the rate for a nursing facility located in Mahoning or 100221
Stark county shall be the rate determined for the following:100222

        (1) If the nursing facility has fewer than one hundred beds, 100223
the nursing facilities in peer group three;100224

        (2) If the nursing facility has one hundred or more beds, the 100225
nursing facilities in peer group four. 100226

        (C) For the purpose of determining nursing facilities' rate100227
rates for capital costs, the department shall establish six peer 100228
groups.100229

       Each(1) Until the first rebasing occurs, the peer groups 100230
shall be composed as follows:100231

       (a) Each nursing facility located in any of the following 100232
counties shall be placed in peer group one or two: Brown, Butler, 100233
Clermont, Clinton, Hamilton, and Warren. Each nursing facility 100234
located in any of those counties that has fewer than one hundred 100235
beds shall be placed in peer group one. Each nursing facility 100236
located in any of those counties that has one hundred or more beds 100237
shall be placed in peer group two.100238

       (b) Each nursing facility located in any of the following 100239
counties shall be placed in peer group three or four: Ashtabula, 100240
Champaign, Clark, Cuyahoga, Darke, Delaware, Fairfield, Fayette, 100241
Franklin, Fulton, Geauga, Greene, Hancock, Knox, Lake, Licking, 100242
Lorain, Lucas, Madison, Marion, Medina, Miami, Montgomery, Morrow, 100243
Ottawa, Pickaway, Portage, Preble, Ross, Sandusky, Seneca, Summit, 100244
Union, and Wood. Each nursing facility located in any of those 100245
counties that has fewer than one hundred beds shall be placed in 100246
peer group three. Each nursing facility located in any of those 100247
counties that has one hundred or more beds shall be placed in peer 100248
group four.100249

       (c) Each nursing facility located in any of the following 100250
counties shall be placed in peer group five or six: Adams, Allen, 100251
Ashland, Athens, Auglaize, Belmont, Carroll, Columbiana, 100252
Coshocton, Crawford, Defiance, Erie, Gallia, Guernsey, Hardin, 100253
Harrison, Henry, Highland, Hocking, Holmes, Huron, Jackson, 100254
Jefferson, Lawrence, Logan, Mahoning, Meigs, Mercer, Monroe, 100255
Morgan, Muskingum, Noble, Paulding, Perry, Pike, Putnam, Richland, 100256
Scioto, Shelby, Stark, Trumbull, Tuscarawas, Van Wert, Vinton, 100257
Washington, Wayne, Williams, and Wyandot. Each nursing facility 100258
located in any of those counties that has fewer than one hundred 100259
beds shall be placed in peer group five. Each nursing facility 100260
located in any of those counties that has one hundred or more beds 100261
shall be placed in peer group six.100262

       (2) Beginning with the first rebasing, the peer groups shall 100263
be composed as they are under division (C)(1) of this section 100264
except as follows:100265

        (a) Each nursing facility that has fewer than one hundred 100266
beds and is located in Mahoning or Stark county shall be placed in 100267
peer group three rather than peer group five.100268

        (b) Each nursing facility that has one hundred or more beds 100269
and is located in Mahoning or Stark county shall be placed in peer 100270
group four rather than peer group six. 100271

        (D)(1) The department shall determine the rate for capital 100272
costs for each peer group established under division (C) of this 100273
section. The department is not required to conduct a rebasing more 100274
than once every ten years. Except as necessary to implement the 100275
amendments made to this section by Am. Sub. H.B. 153 and Sub. H.B. 100276
303, both of the 129th general assembly, the rate for capital 100277
costs determined under this division for a peer group shall be 100278
used for subsequent years until the department conducts a 100279
rebasing. To determine a peer group's rate for capital costs, the 100280
department shall do both of the following:100281

       (a) Determine the rate for capital costs for the nursing 100282
facility in the peer group that is at the twenty-fifth percentile 100283
of the rate for capital costs for the applicable calendar year;100284

       (b) Until the first rebasing occurs, increase the amount 100285
calculated under division (D)(1)(a) of this section by five and 100286
eight hundredths per cent. 100287

       (2) To identify the nursing facility in a peer group that is 100288
at the twenty-fifth percentile of the rate for capital costs for 100289
the applicable calendar year, the department shall do both of the 100290
following:100291

        (a) Subject to division (D)(3) of this section, use the 100292
greater of each nursing facility's actual inpatient days for the 100293
applicable calendar year or the inpatient days the nursing 100294
facility would have had for the applicable calendar year if its 100295
occupancy rate had been one hundred per cent;100296

        (b) Exclude both of the following:100297

        (i) Nursing facilities that participated in the medicaid 100298
program under the same provider for less than twelve months in the 100299
applicable calendar year;100300

        (ii) Nursing facilities whose capital costs are more than one 100301
standard deviation from the mean desk-reviewed, actual, allowable, 100302
per diem capital cost for all nursing facilities in the nursing 100303
facility's peer group for the applicable calendar year.100304

       (3) For the purpose of determining a nursing facility's 100305
occupancy rate under division (D)(2)(a) of this section, the 100306
department shall include any beds that the nursing facility 100307
removes from its medicaid-certified capacity after June 30, 2005, 100308
unless the nursing facility also removes the beds from its 100309
licensed bed capacity.100310

       (4) The department shall not redetermine a peer group's rate 100311
for capital costs under this division based on additional 100312
information that it receives after the rate is determined. The 100313
department shall redetermine a peer group's rate for capital costs 100314
only if the department made an error in determining the rate based 100315
on information available to the department at the time of the 100316
original determination.100317

       (E) Buildings shall be depreciated using the straight line 100318
method over forty years or over a different period approved by the 100319
department. Components and equipment shall be depreciated using 100320
the straight-line method over a period designated in rules adopted 100321
under section 5111.025165.02 of the Revised Code, consistent with 100322
the guidelines of the American hospital association, or over a 100323
different period approved by the department. Any rules authorized 100324
by this division that specify useful lives of buildings, 100325
components, or equipment apply only to assets acquired on or after 100326
July 1, 1993. Depreciation for costs paid or reimbursed by any 100327
government agency shall not be included in capital costs unless 100328
that part of the payment under sections 5111.20 to 5111.331 of the 100329
Revised Codethis chapter is used to reimburse the government 100330
agency.100331

       (F) The capital cost basis of nursing facility assets shall 100332
be determined in the following manner:100333

        (1) Except as provided in division (F)(3) of this section, 100334
for purposes of calculating the rates to be paid for facilities 100335
with dates of licensure on or before June 30, 1993, the capital 100336
cost basis of each asset shall be equal to the desk-reviewed, 100337
actual, allowable, capital cost basis that is listed on the 100338
facility's cost report for the calendar year preceding the fiscal 100339
year during which the rate will be paid.100340

       (2) For facilities with dates of licensure after June 30, 100341
1993, the capital cost basis shall be determined in accordance 100342
with the principles of the medicare program established under 100343
Title XVIII, except as otherwise provided in sections 5111.20 to 100344
5111.331 of the Revised Codethis chapter.100345

       (3) Except as provided in division (F)(4) of this section, if 100346
a provider transfers an interest in a facility to another provider 100347
after June 30, 1993, there shall be no increase in the capital 100348
cost basis of the asset if the providers are related parties or 100349
the provider to which the interest is transferred authorizes the 100350
provider that transferred the interest to continue to operate the 100351
facility under a lease, management agreement, or other 100352
arrangement. If the previous sentence does not prohibit the 100353
adjustment of the capital cost basis under this division, the 100354
basis of the asset shall be adjusted by one-half of the change in 100355
the consumer price index for all items for all urban consumers, as 100356
published by the United States bureau of labor statistics, during 100357
the time that the transferor held the asset.100358

       (4) If a provider transfers an interest in a facility to 100359
another provider who is a related party, the capital cost basis of 100360
the asset shall be adjusted as specified in division (F)(3) of 100361
this section if all of the following conditions are met:100362

       (a) The related party is a relative of owner;100363

       (b) Except as provided in division (F)(4)(c)(ii) of this 100364
section, the provider making the transfer retains no ownership 100365
interest in the facility;100366

       (c) The department of job and family services determines that 100367
the transfer is an arm's length transaction pursuant to rules 100368
adopted under section 5111.025165.02 of the Revised Code. The 100369
rules shall provide that a transfer is an arm's length transaction 100370
if all of the following apply:100371

       (i) Once the transfer goes into effect, the provider that 100372
made the transfer has no direct or indirect interest in the 100373
provider that acquires the facility or the facility itself, 100374
including interest as an owner, officer, director, employee, 100375
independent contractor, or consultant, but excluding interest as a 100376
creditor.100377

       (ii) The provider that made the transfer does not reacquire 100378
an interest in the facility except through the exercise of a 100379
creditor's rights in the event of a default. If the provider 100380
reacquires an interest in the facility in this manner, the 100381
department shall treat the facility as if the transfer never 100382
occurred when the department calculates its reimbursement rates 100383
for capital costs.100384

       (iii) The transfer satisfies any other criteria specified in 100385
the rules.100386

       (d) Except in the case of hardship caused by a catastrophic 100387
event, as determined by the department, or in the case of a 100388
provider making the transfer who is at least sixty-five years of 100389
age, not less than twenty years have elapsed since, for the same 100390
facility, the capital cost basis was adjusted most recently under 100391
division (F)(4) of this section or actual, allowable cost of 100392
ownershipcapital costs was determined most recently under 100393
division (G)(9) of this section.100394

       (G) As used in this division:100395

       "Imputed interest" means the lesser of the prime rate plus 100396
two per cent or ten per cent.100397

       "Lease expense" means lease payments in the case of an 100398
operating lease and depreciation expense and interest expense in 100399
the case of a capital lease. 100400

       "New lease" means a lease, to a different lessee, of a 100401
nursing facility that previously was operated under a lease.100402

       (1) Subject to division (B) of this section, for a lease of a 100403
facility that was effective on May 27, 1992, the entire lease 100404
expense is an actual, allowable capital cost during the term of 100405
the existing lease. The entire lease expense also is an actual, 100406
allowable capital cost if a lease in existence on May 27, 1992, is 100407
renewed under either of the following circumstances:100408

       (a) The renewal is pursuant to a renewal option that was in 100409
existence on May 27, 1992;100410

       (b) The renewal is for the same lease payment amount and 100411
between the same parties as the lease in existence on May 27, 100412
1992.100413

       (2) Subject to division (B) of this section, for a lease of a 100414
facility that was in existence but not operated under a lease on 100415
May 27, 1992, actual, allowable capital costs shall include the 100416
lesser of the annual lease expense or the annual depreciation 100417
expense and imputed interest expense that would be calculated at 100418
the inception of the lease using the lessor's entire historical 100419
capital asset cost basis, adjusted by one-half of the change in 100420
the consumer price index for all items for all urban consumers, as 100421
published by the United States bureau of labor statistics, during 100422
the time the lessor held each asset until the beginning of the 100423
lease.100424

       (3) Subject to division (B) of this section, for a lease of a 100425
facility with a date of licensure on or after May 27, 1992, that 100426
is initially operated under a lease, actual, allowable capital 100427
costs shall include the annual lease expense if there was a 100428
substantial commitment of money for construction of the facility 100429
after December 22, 1992, and before July 1, 1993. If there was not 100430
a substantial commitment of money after December 22, 1992, and 100431
before July 1, 1993, actual, allowable capital costs shall include 100432
the lesser of the annual lease expense or the sum of the 100433
following:100434

       (a) The annual depreciation expense that would be calculated 100435
at the inception of the lease using the lessor's entire historical 100436
capital asset cost basis;100437

       (b) The greater of the lessor's actual annual amortization of 100438
financing costs and interest expense at the inception of the lease 100439
or the imputed interest expense calculated at the inception of the 100440
lease using seventy per cent of the lessor's historical capital 100441
asset cost basis.100442

       (4) Subject to division (B) of this section, for a lease of a 100443
facility with a date of licensure on or after May 27, 1992, that 100444
was not initially operated under a lease and has been in existence 100445
for ten years, actual, allowable capital costs shall include the 100446
lesser of the annual lease expense or the annual depreciation 100447
expense and imputed interest expense that would be calculated at 100448
the inception of the lease using the entire historical capital 100449
asset cost basis of one-half of the change in the consumer price 100450
index for all items for all urban consumers, as published by the 100451
United States bureau of labor statistics, during the time the 100452
lessor held each asset until the beginning of the lease.100453

       (5) Subject to division (B) of this section, for a new lease 100454
of a facility that was operated under a lease on May 27, 1992, 100455
actual, allowable capital costs shall include the lesser of the 100456
annual new lease expense or the annual old lease payment. If the 100457
old lease was in effect for ten years or longer, the old lease 100458
payment from the beginning of the old lease shall be adjusted by 100459
one-half of the change in the consumer price index for all items 100460
for all urban consumers, as published by the United States bureau 100461
of labor statistics, from the beginning of the old lease to the 100462
beginning of the new lease.100463

       (6) Subject to division (B) of this section, for a new lease 100464
of a facility that was not in existence or that was in existence 100465
but not operated under a lease on May 27, 1992, actual, allowable 100466
capital costs shall include the lesser of annual new lease expense 100467
or the annual amount calculated for the old lease under division 100468
(G)(2), (3), (4), or (6) of this section, as applicable. If the 100469
old lease was in effect for ten years or longer, the lessor's 100470
historical capital asset cost basis shall be, for purposes of 100471
calculating the annual amount under division (G)(2), (3), (4), or 100472
(6) of this section, adjusted by one-half of the change in the 100473
consumer price index for all items for all urban consumers, as 100474
published by the United States bureau of labor statistics, from 100475
the beginning of the old lease to the beginning of the new lease.100476

       In the case of a lease under division (G)(3) of this section 100477
of a facility for which a substantial commitment of money was made 100478
after December 22, 1992, and before July 1, 1993, the old lease 100479
payment shall be adjusted for the purpose of determining the 100480
annual amount.100481

       (7) For any revision of a lease described in division (G)(1), 100482
(2), (3), (4), (5), or (6) of this section, or for any subsequent 100483
lease of a facility operated under such a lease, other than 100484
execution of a new lease, the portion of actual, allowable capital 100485
costs attributable to the lease shall be the same as before the 100486
revision or subsequent lease.100487

       (8) Except as provided in division (G)(9) of this section, if 100488
a provider leases an interest in a facility to another provider 100489
who is a related party or previously operated the facility, the 100490
related party's or previous operator's actual, allowable capital 100491
costs shall include the lesser of the annual lease expense or the 100492
reasonable cost to the lessor.100493

       (9) If a provider leases an interest in a facility to another 100494
provider who is a related party, regardless of the date of the 100495
lease, the related party's actual, allowable capital costs shall 100496
include the annual lease expense, subject to the limitations 100497
specified in divisions (G)(1) to (7) of this section, if all of 100498
the following conditions are met:100499

       (a) The related party is a relative of owner;100500

       (b) If the lessor retains an ownership interest, it is, 100501
except as provided in division (G)(9)(c)(ii) of this section, in 100502
only the real property and any improvements on the real property;100503

       (c) The department of job and family services determines that 100504
the lease is an arm's length transaction pursuant to rules adopted 100505
under section 5111.025165.02 of the Revised Code. The rules shall 100506
provide that a lease is an arm's length transaction if all of the 100507
following apply:100508

       (i) Once the lease goes into effect, the lessor has no direct 100509
or indirect interest in the lessee or, except as provided in 100510
division (G)(9)(b) of this section, the facility itself, including 100511
interest as an owner, officer, director, employee, independent 100512
contractor, or consultant, but excluding interest as a lessor.100513

       (ii) The lessor does not reacquire an interest in the 100514
facility except through the exercise of a lessor's rights in the 100515
event of a default. If the lessor reacquires an interest in the 100516
facility in this manner, the department shall treat the facility 100517
as if the lease never occurred when the department calculates its 100518
reimbursement rates for capital costs.100519

       (iii) The lease satisfies any other criteria specified in the 100520
rules.100521

       (d) Except in the case of hardship caused by a catastrophic 100522
event, as determined by the department, or in the case of a lessor 100523
who is at least sixty-five years of age, not less than twenty 100524
years have elapsed since, for the same facility, the capital cost 100525
basis was adjusted most recently under division (F)(4) of this 100526
section or actual, allowable capital costs were determined most 100527
recently under division (G)(9) of this section.100528

       (10) This division does not apply to leases of specific items 100529
of equipment.100530

       Sec. 5111.231.        Sec. 5165.19. (A) As used in this section:100531

       (1) "Applicable calendar year" means the following:100532

       (a) For the purpose of the department of job and family 100533
services'medicaid's initial determination under division (D) of 100534
this section of each peer group's cost per case-mix unit, calendar 100535
year 2003;100536

        (b) For the purpose of the department's rebasings, the 100537
calendar year the department selects.100538

       (2) "Rebasing" means a redetermination under division (D) of 100539
this section of each peer groups'group's cost per case-mix unit 100540
using information from cost reports for an applicable calendar 100541
year that is later than the applicable calendar year used for the 100542
previous determination of such costs.100543

        (B) TheSemiannually, the department of job and family 100544
servicesmedicaid shall pay a provider fordetermine each of the 100545
provider's eligible nursing facilities afacility's per resident 100546
permedicaid day payment rate for direct care costs determined 100547
semiannually by multiplying the cost per case-mix unit determined 100548
under division (D) of this section for the facility's peer group 100549
by the facility's semiannual case-mix score determined under 100550
section 5111.2325165.192 of the Revised Code by the cost per 100551
case-mix unit determined under division (D) of this section for 100552
the facility's peer group. However, for the period beginning 100553
October 1, 2013, and ending on the first day of the first 100554
rebasing, the rate for a nursing facility located in Mahoning or 100555
Stark county shall be determined semiannually by multiplying the 100556
facility's semiannual case-mix score determined under section 100557
5165.192 of the Revised Code by the cost per case-mix unit 100558
determined under division (D) of this section for the nursing 100559
facilities in peer group two.100560

        (C) For the purpose of determining nursing facilities' rate100561
rates for direct care costs, the department shall establish three 100562
peer groups.100563

       Each(1) Until the first rebasing occurs, the peer groups 100564
shall be composed as follows:100565

       (a) Each nursing facility located in any of the following 100566
counties shall be placed in peer group one: Brown, Butler, 100567
Clermont, Clinton, Hamilton, and Warren.100568

       (b) Each nursing facility located in any of the following 100569
counties shall be placed in peer group two: Ashtabula, Champaign, 100570
Clark, Cuyahoga, Darke, Delaware, Fairfield, Fayette, Franklin, 100571
Fulton, Geauga, Greene, Hancock, Knox, Lake, Licking, Lorain, 100572
Lucas, Madison, Marion, Medina, Miami, Montgomery, Morrow, Ottawa, 100573
Pickaway, Portage, Preble, Ross, Sandusky, Seneca, Summit, Union, 100574
and Wood.100575

       (c) Each nursing facility located in any of the following 100576
counties shall be placed in peer group three: Adams, Allen, 100577
Ashland, Athens, Auglaize, Belmont, Carroll, Columbiana, 100578
Coshocton, Crawford, Defiance, Erie, Gallia, Guernsey, Hardin, 100579
Harrison, Henry, Highland, Hocking, Holmes, Huron, Jackson, 100580
Jefferson, Lawrence, Logan, Mahoning, Meigs, Mercer, Monroe, 100581
Morgan, Muskingum, Noble, Paulding, Perry, Pike, Putnam, Richland, 100582
Scioto, Shelby, Stark, Trumbull, Tuscarawas, Van Wert, Vinton, 100583
Washington, Wayne, Williams, and Wyandot.100584

       (2) Beginning with the first rebasing, the peer groups shall 100585
be composed as they are under division (C)(1) of this section 100586
except that each nursing facility located in Mahoning or Stark 100587
county shall be placed in peer group two rather than peer group 100588
three.100589

        (D)(1) The department shall determine a cost per case-mix 100590
unit for each peer group established under division (C) of this 100591
section. The department is not required to conduct a rebasing more 100592
than once every ten years. Except as necessary to implement the 100593
amendments made to this section by Am. Sub. H.B. 153 and Sub. H.B. 100594
303, both of the 129th general assembly, and H.B... of the 130th 100595
general assembly, the cost per case-mix unit determined under this 100596
division for a peer group shall be used for subsequent years until 100597
the department conducts a rebasing. To determine a peer group's 100598
cost per case-mix unit, the department shall do all of the 100599
following:100600

        (a) Determine the cost per case-mix unit for each nursing 100601
facility in the peer group for the applicable calendar year by 100602
dividing each facility's desk-reviewed, actual, allowable, per 100603
diem direct care costs for the applicable calendar year by the 100604
facility's annual average case-mix score determined under section 100605
5111.2325165.192 of the Revised Code for the applicable calendar 100606
year;100607

        (b) Subject to division (D)(2) of this section, identify 100608
which nursing facility in the peer group is at the twenty-fifth 100609
percentile of the cost per case-mix units determined under 100610
division (D)(1)(a) of this section;100611

        (c) Calculate the amount that is two per cent above the cost 100612
per case-mix unit determined under division (D)(1)(a) of this 100613
section for the nursing facility identified under division 100614
(D)(1)(b) of this section;100615

        (d) Using the index specified in division (D)(3) of this 100616
section, multiply the rate of inflation for the eighteen-month 100617
period beginning on the first day of July of the applicable 100618
calendar year and ending the last day of December of the calendar 100619
year immediately following the applicable calendar year by the 100620
amount calculated under division (D)(1)(c) of this section;100621

       (e) Until the first rebasing occurs, add one dollar and 100622
eighty-eightfifty-six cents to the amount calculated under 100623
division (D)(1)(d) of this section;100624

       (f) Until the first rebasing occurs, increase the amount 100625
calculated under division (D)(1)(e) of this section by five and 100626
eight hundredths per cent.100627

        (2) In making the identification under division (D)(1)(b) of 100628
this section, the department shall exclude both of the following:100629

        (a) Nursing facilities that participated in the medicaid 100630
program under the same provider for less than twelve months in the 100631
applicable calendar year;100632

        (b) Nursing facilities whose cost per case-mix unit is more 100633
than one standard deviation from the mean cost per case-mix unit 100634
for all nursing facilities in the nursing facility's peer group 100635
for the applicable calendar year.100636

        (3) The following index shall be used for the purpose of the 100637
calculation made under division (D)(1)(d) of this section:100638

       (a) Until the first rebasing occurs, the employment cost 100639
index for total compensation, health services component, published 100640
by the United States bureau of labor statistics, as the index 100641
existed on July 1, 2005;100642

       (b) Effective with the first rebasing and except as provided 100643
in division (D)(3)(c) of this section, the employment cost index 100644
for total compensation, nursing and residential care facilities 100645
occupational group, published by the United States bureau of labor 100646
statistics;100647

       (c) If the United States bureau of labor statistics ceases to 100648
publish the index specified in division (D)(3)(b) of this section, 100649
the index the bureau subsequently publishes that covers nursing 100650
facilities' staff costs.100651

        (4) The department shall not redetermine a peer group's cost 100652
per case-mix unit under this division based on additional 100653
information that it receives after the peer group's per case-mix 100654
unit is determined. The department shall redetermine a peer 100655
group's cost per case-mix unit only if it made an error in 100656
determining the peer group's cost per case-mix unit based on 100657
information available to the department at the time of the 100658
original determination.100659

       Sec. 5165.191.  Each calendar quarter, each nursing facility 100660
provider shall compile complete assessment data for each resident 100661
of each of the provider's nursing facilities, regardless of 100662
payment source, who is in the nursing facility, or on hospital or 100663
therapeutic leave from the nursing facility, on the last day of 100664
the quarter. A resident assessment instrument specified in rules 100665
authorized by this section shall be used to compile the resident 100666
assessment data. Each provider shall submit the resident 100667
assessment data to the department of health and, if required by 100668
the rules, the department of medicaid. The resident assessment 100669
data shall be submitted not later than fifteen days after the end 100670
of the calendar quarter for which the data is compiled. If the 100671
resident assessment data is to be submitted to the department of 100672
medicaid, it shall be submitted to the department through the 100673
medium or media specified in the rules.100674

       Rules adopted under section 5165.02 of the Revised Code shall 100675
do all of the following:100676

       (A) In a manner consistent with the "Social Security Act," 100677
section 1919(e)(5), 42 U.S.C. 1396r(e)(5), specify a resident 100678
assessment instrument to be used by nursing facility providers 100679
under this section;100680

       (B) Specify whether nursing facility providers must submit 100681
the resident assessment data to the department of medicaid;100682

       (C) If the rules specify that nursing facility providers must 100683
submit the resident assessment data to the department, specify the 100684
medium or media through which the data is to be submitted.100685

       Sec. 5111.232.        Sec. 5165.192.  (A)(1) TheExcept as provided in 100686
division (B) of this section and in accordance with the process 100687
specified in rules authorized by this section, the department of 100688
job and family servicesmedicaid shall do all of the following:100689

       (a) Every quarter, determine the following two case-mix 100690
scores for each nursing facility:100691

       (i) A quarterly case-mix score that includes each resident 100692
who is a medicaid recipient and is not a low resource utilization 100693
resident;100694

        (ii) A quarterly case-mix score that includes each resident 100695
regardless of payment source.100696

       (b) Every six months, determine a semiannual and annual100697
average case-mix scoresscore for each nursing facilitiesfacility100698
by using all of the following:quarterly case-mix scores 100699
determined for the nursing facility pursuant to division 100700
(A)(1)(a)(i) of this section;100701

        (c) After the end of each calendar year, determine an annual 100702
average case-mix score for each nursing facility by using the 100703
quarterly case-mix scores determined for the nursing facility 100704
pursuant to division (A)(1)(a)(ii) of this section.100705

        (2) When determining case-mix scores under division (A)(1) of 100706
this section, the department shall use all of the following:100707

        (a) Data from a resident assessment instrument specified in 100708
rules adopted underauthorized by section 5111.025165.191 of the 100709
Revised Code pursuant to section 1919(e)(5) of the "Social 100710
Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 1396r(e)(5), as 100711
amended, for the following residents:100712

        (i) When determining semiannual case-mix scores for fiscal 100713
year 2012, each resident who is a medicaid recipient;100714

        (ii) When determining semiannual case-mix scores for fiscal 100715
year 2013 and thereafter, each resident who is a medicaid 100716
recipient and not placed in either of the two lowest resource 100717
utilization groups, excluding any resource utilization group that 100718
is a default group used for residents with incomplete assessment 100719
data;100720

       (iii) When determining annual average case-mix scores, each 100721
resident regardless of payment source.100722

        (b) Except as provided in rules authorized by divisions 100723
(A)(2)(a) and (b) of this section, the case-mix values established 100724
by the United States department of health and human services;100725

       (c) Except as modified in rules authorized by division 100726
(A)(2)(c) of this section, the grouper methodology used on June 100727
30, 1999, by the United States department of health and human 100728
services for prospective payment of skilled nursing facilities 100729
under the medicare program established by Title XVIII.100730

       (2) The director of job and family services may adopt rules 100731
under section 5111.02 of the Revised Code that do any of the 100732
following:100733

       (a) Adjust the case-mix values specified in division 100734
(A)(1)(b) of this section to reflect changes in relative wage 100735
differentials that are specific to this state;100736

       (b) Express all of those case-mix values in numeric terms 100737
that are different from the terms specified by the United States 100738
department of health and human services but that do not alter the 100739
relationship of the case-mix values to one another;100740

       (c) Modify the grouper methodology specified in division 100741
(A)(1)(c) of this section as follows:100742

       (i) Establish a different hierarchy for assigning residents 100743
to case-mix categories under the methodology;100744

       (ii) Prohibit the use of the index maximizer element of the 100745
methodology;100746

       (iii) Incorporate changes to the methodology the United 100747
States department of health and human services makes after June 100748
30, 1999;100749

       (iv) Make other changes the department determines are 100750
necessary.100751

       (B) The department shall determine case-mix scores for 100752
intermediate care facilities for the mentally retarded using data 100753
for each resident, regardless of payment source, from a resident 100754
assessment instrument and grouper methodology prescribed in rules 100755
adopted under section 5111.02 of the Revised Code and expressed in 100756
case-mix values established by the department in those rules.100757

       (C) Each calendar quarter, each provider shall compile 100758
complete assessment data, from the resident assessment instrument 100759
specified in rules authorized by division (A) or (B) of this 100760
section, for each resident of each of the provider's facilities, 100761
regardless of payment source, who was in the facility or on 100762
hospital or therapeutic leave from the facility on the last day of 100763
the quarter. Providers of a nursing facility shall submit the data 100764
to the department of health and, if required by rules, the 100765
department of job and family services. Providers of an 100766
intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded shall submit 100767
the data to the department of job and family services. The data 100768
shall be submitted not later than fifteen days after the end of 100769
the calendar quarter for which the data is compiled.100770

       Except as provided in division (D) of this section, the 100771
department, every six months and after the end of each calendar 100772
year, shall calculate a semiannual and annual average case-mix 100773
score for each nursing facility using the facility's quarterly 100774
case-mix scores for that six-month period or calendar year. Also 100775
except as provided in division (D) of this section, the 100776
department, after the end of each calendar year, shall calculate 100777
an annual average case-mix score for each intermediate care 100778
facility for the mentally retarded using the facility's quarterly 100779
case-mix scores for that calendar year. The department shall make 100780
the calculations pursuant to procedures specified in rules adopted 100781
under section 5111.02 of the Revised Code.100782

       (D)(1) If aSubject to division (B)(2) of this section, the 100783
department, for one or more months of a calendar quarter, may 100784
assign to a nursing facility a case-mix score that is five per 100785
cent less than the nursing facility's case-mix score for the 100786
immediately preceding calendar quarter if any of the following 100787
apply:100788

       (a) The provider does not timely submit informationcomplete 100789
and accurate resident assessment data necessary to determine the 100790
nursing facility's case-mix score for athe calendar quarter 100791
necessary to calculate a facility's case-mix score, or submits 100792
incomplete or inaccurate information for a calendar quarter, the 100793
department may assign the facility a quarterly average case-mix 100794
score that is five per cent less than the facility's quarterly 100795
average case-mix score for the preceding calendar quarter. If the;100796

       (b) The nursing facility was subject to an exception review 100797
under division (C) of section 5111.275165.193 of the Revised Code 100798
for the immediately preceding calendar quarter, the department may 100799
assign a quarterly average case-mix score that is five per cent 100800
less than the score determined by the exception review. If the;100801

       (c) The nursing facility was assigned a quarterly average100802
case-mix score for the immediately preceding calendar quarter, the 100803
department may assign a quarterly average case-mix score that is 100804
five per cent less than that score assigned for the preceding 100805
quarter.100806

       The department may use a quarterly average case-mix score 100807
assigned under division (D)(1) of this section, instead of a 100808
quarterly average case-mix score calculated based on the 100809
provider's submitted information, to calculate the facility's rate 100810
for direct care costs being established under section 5111.23 or100811
5111.231 of the Revised Code for one or more months, as specified 100812
in rules authorized by division (E) of this section, of the 100813
quarter for which the rate established under section 5111.23 or100814
5111.231 of the Revised Code will be paid.100815

       (2) Before taking action under division (D)(1) of this 100816
sectionassigning a case-mix score to a nursing facility due to 100817
the submission of incorrect resident assessment data, the 100818
department shall permit the provider a reasonable period of time, 100819
specified in rules authorized by division (E) of this section, to 100820
correct the informationdata. In the case of an intermediate care 100821
facility for the mentally retarded, the department shall not 100822
assign a quarterly average case-mix score due to late submission 100823
of corrections to assessment information unless the provider fails 100824
to submit corrected information prior to the eighty-first day 100825
after the end of the calendar quarter to which the information 100826
pertains. In the case of a nursing facility, theThe department 100827
shall notmay assign a quarterly averagethe case-mix score due to 100828
late submission of corrections to assessment information unlessif100829
the provider fails to submit the corrected information prior to100830
resident assessment data not later than the earlier of the 100831
forty-sixthforty-fifth day after the end of the calendar quarter 100832
to which the informationdata pertains or the deadline for 100833
submission of such corrections established by regulations adopted 100834
by the United States department of health and human services under 100835
TitlesTitle XVIII and Title XIX.100836

       (2)(3) If, for more than six months in a calendar year, a 100837
provider is paid a rate determined for a nursing facility 100838
calculated using a quarterly average case-mix score assigned to 100839
the nursing facility under division (D)(B)(1) of this section for 100840
more than six months in a calendar year, the department may assign 100841
the nursing facility a cost per case-mix unit that is five per 100842
cent less than the nursing facility's actual or assigned cost per 100843
case-mix unit for the immediately preceding calendar year. The 100844
department may use the assigned cost per case-mix unit, instead of 100845
calculatingdetermining the nursing facility's actual cost per 100846
case-mix unit in accordance with section 5111.23 or 5111.231100847
5165.19 of the Revised Code, to establish the nursing facility's 100848
rate for direct care costs for the following fiscal year 100849
immediately following the calendar year for which the cost per 100850
case-mix unit is assigned.100851

       (3)(4) The department shall take action under division 100852
(D)(B)(1) or, (2), or (3) of this section only in accordance with 100853
rules authorized by division (E) of this section. The department 100854
shall not take an action that affects rates for prior payment 100855
periods except in accordance with sections 5111.275165.41 and 100856
5111.285165.42 of the Revised Code.100857

       (E)(C) The medicaid director shall adopt rules under section 100858
5111.025165.02 of the Revised Code thatas necessary to implement 100859
this section.100860

       (1) The rules shall do all of the following:100861

       (1) Specify whether providers of a nursing facility must 100862
submit the assessment data to the department of job and family 100863
services;100864

       (2) Specify the medium or media through which the completed 100865
assessment data shall be submitted;100866

       (3)(a) Specify the process for determining the semiannual and 100867
annual average case-mix scores for nursing facilities;100868

       (b) Adjust the case-mix values specified in division 100869
(A)(2)(b) of this section to reflect changes in relative wage 100870
differentials that are specific to this state;100871

       (c) Express all of those case-mix values in numeric terms 100872
that are different from the terms specified by the United States 100873
department of health and human services but that do not alter the 100874
relationship of the case-mix values to one another;100875

       (d) Modify the grouper methodology specified in division 100876
(A)(2)(c) of this section as follows:100877

       (i) Establish a different hierarchy for assigning residents 100878
to case-mix categories under the methodology;100879

       (ii) Prohibit the use of the index maximizer element of the 100880
methodology;100881

       (iii) Incorporate changes to the methodology the United 100882
States department of health and human services makes after June 100883
30, 1999;100884

       (iv) Make other changes the department determines are 100885
necessary.100886

       (e) Establish procedures under which theresident assessment 100887
data shall be reviewed for accuracy and providers shall be 100888
notified of any data that requires correction;100889

       (4)(f) Establish procedures for providers to correct resident100890
assessment data and specify a reasonable period of time by which 100891
providers shall submit the corrections. The procedures may limit 100892
the content of corrections by providers of nursing facilities in 100893
the manner required by regulations adopted by the United States 100894
department of health and human services under TitlesTitle XVIII 100895
and Title XIX.100896

       (5)(g) Specify when and how the department will assign 100897
case-mix scores or costs per case-mix unit to a nursing facility100898
under division (D)(B) of this section if information necessary to 100899
calculate the nursing facility's case-mix score is not provided or 100900
corrected in accordance with the procedures established by the 100901
rules. Notwithstanding100902

       (2) Notwithstanding any other provision of sections 5111.20 100903
to 5111.331 of the Revised Codethis chapter, the rules also may 100904
provide for the following:100905

       (a) Exclusion of case-mix scores assigned under division (D) 100906
of this section from calculation of an intermediate care facility 100907
for the mentally retarded's annual average case-mix score and the 100908
maximum cost per case-mix unit for the facility's peer group;100909

       (b) Exclusionexclusion of case-mix scores assigned to a 100910
nursing facility under division (D)(B) of this section from 100911
calculationthe determination of athe nursing facility's 100912
semiannual or annual average case-mix score and the cost per 100913
case-mix unit for the nursing facility's peer group.100914

       Sec. 5165.193.  (A) The department of medicaid may, pursuant 100915
to rules authorized by this section, conduct an exception review 100916
of resident assessment data submitted by a nursing facility 100917
provider under section 5165.191 of the Revised Code. The 100918
department may conduct an exception review based on the findings 100919
of a medicaid certification survey conducted by the department of 100920
health, a risk analysis, or prior performance of the provider.100921

       Exception reviews shall be conducted at the nursing facility 100922
by appropriate health professionals under contract with or 100923
employed by the department. The professionals may review resident 100924
assessment forms and supporting documentation, conduct interviews, 100925
and observe residents to identify any patterns or trends of 100926
inaccurate resident assessments and resulting inaccurate case-mix 100927
scores.100928

       (B) If an exception review is conducted before the effective 100929
date of a nursing facility's rate for direct care costs that is 100930
based on the resident assessment data being reviewed and the 100931
review results in findings that exceed tolerance levels specified 100932
in the rules authorized by this section, the department, in 100933
accordance with those rules, may use the findings to redetermine 100934
individual resident case-mix scores, the nursing facility's 100935
case-mix score for the quarter, and the nursing facility's annual 100936
average case-mix score. The department may use the nursing 100937
facility's redetermined quarterly and annual average case-mix 100938
scores to determine the nursing facility's rate for direct care 100939
costs for the appropriate calendar quarter or quarters.100940

       (C) The department shall prepare a written summary of any 100941
exception review finding that is made after the effective date of 100942
a nursing facility's rate for direct care costs that is based on 100943
the resident assessment data that was reviewed. Where the provider 100944
is pursuing judicial or administrative remedies in good faith 100945
regarding the finding, the department shall not withhold from the 100946
provider's current payments any amounts the department claims to 100947
be due from the provider pursuant to section 5165.41 of the 100948
Revised Code.100949

       (D)(1) The medicaid director shall adopt rules under section 100950
5165.02 of the Revised Code as necessary to implement this 100951
section. The rules shall establish an exception review program 100952
that does all of the following:100953

       (a) Requires each exception review to comply with Title XVIII 100954
and Title XIX;100955

       (b) Requires a written summary for each exception review that 100956
states whether resident assessment forms have been completed 100957
accurately;100958

       (c) Prohibits each health professional who conducts an 100959
exception review from doing either of the following:100960

       (i) During the period of the professional's contract or 100961
employment with the department, having or being committed to 100962
acquire any direct or indirect financial interest in the 100963
ownership, financing, or operation of nursing facilities in this 100964
state;100965

       (ii) Reviewing any provider that has been a client of the 100966
professional.100967

       (2) For the purposes of division (D)(1)(c)(i) of this 100968
section, employment of a member of a health professional's family 100969
by a nursing facility that the professional does not review does 100970
not constitute a direct or indirect financial interest in the 100971
ownership, financing, or operation of the nursing facility.100972

       Sec. 5111.242.        Sec. 5165.21. (A) As used in this section:100973

       (1) "Applicable calendar year" means the following:100974

       (a) For the purpose of the department of job and family 100975
services'medicaid's initial determination under this section of 100976
nursing facilities' rate for tax costs, calendar year 2003;100977

       (b) For the purpose of the department's rebasings, the 100978
calendar year the department selects.100979

       (2) "Rebasing" means a redetermination under division (C)(B)100980
of this section of each nursing facility's rate for tax costs 100981
using information from cost reports for an applicable calendar 100982
year that is later than the applicable calendar year used for the 100983
previous determination of such rates.100984

        (B) The department of job and family services shall pay a 100985
provider for each of the provider's eligible nursing facilities a 100986
per resident per day rate for tax costs determined under division 100987
(C) of this section.100988

        (C) The department of medicaid shall determine theeach 100989
nursing facility's per medicaid day payment rate for tax costs for 100990
each nursing facility. The department is not required to conduct a 100991
rebasing more than once every ten years. Except as necessary to 100992
implement the amendments made to this section by Sub. H.B. 303 of 100993
the 129th general assembly, the rate for tax costs determined 100994
under this division for a nursing facility shall be used for 100995
subsequent years until the department conducts a rebasing. To 100996
determine a nursing facility's rate for tax costs and except as 100997
provided in division (D)(C) of this section, the department shall 100998
do both of the following:100999

       (1) Divide the nursing facility's desk-reviewed, actual, 101000
allowable tax costs paid for the applicable calendar year by the 101001
number of inpatient days the nursing facility would have had if 101002
its occupancy rate had been one hundred per cent during the 101003
applicable calendar year;101004

       (2) Until the first rebasing occurs, increase the amount 101005
calculated under division (C)(B)(1) of this section by five and 101006
eight hundredths per cent.101007

       (D)(C) If a nursing facility had a credit regarding its real 101008
estate taxes reflected on its cost report for calendar year 2003, 101009
the department shall determine, as follows, its rate for tax costs 101010
for the period beginning on July 1, 2010, and ending on the first 101011
day of the fiscal year for which the department first conducts a 101012
rebasing:101013

       (1) Divide the nursing facility's desk-reviewed, actual, 101014
allowable tax costs paid for calendar year 2004 by the number of 101015
inpatient days the nursing facility would have had if its 101016
occupancy rate had been one hundred per cent during calendar year 101017
2004;101018

        (2) Until the first rebasing occurs, increase the amount 101019
calculated under division (D)(C)(1) of this section by five and 101020
eight hundredths per cent.101021

       Sec. 5111.246.        Sec. 5165.23.  (A) Each fiscal year, the department 101022
of job and family servicesmedicaid shall pay adetermine the101023
critical access incentive payment to the provider offor each 101024
nursing facility that qualifies as a critical access nursing 101025
facility. To qualify as a critical access nursing facility for a 101026
fiscal year, a nursing facility must meet all of the following 101027
requirements:101028

       (1) The nursing facility must be located in an area that, on 101029
December 31, 2011, was designated an empowerment zone under 101030
section 1391 of the "Internal Revenue Code of 1986," 107 Stat. 543101031
section 1391, 26 U.S.C. 1391, as amended.101032

       (2) The nursing facility must have an occupancy rate of at 101033
least eighty-five per cent as of the last day of the calendar year 101034
immediately preceding the fiscal year.101035

       (3) The nursing facility must have a medicaid utilization 101036
rate of at least sixty-five per cent as of the last day of the 101037
calendar year immediately preceding the fiscal year.101038

       (4) The nursing facility must have been awarded at least five 101039
points for meeting accountability measures under section 5165.25 101040
of the Revised Code for the fiscal year and at least one of the 101041
five points must have been awarded for meeting the following:101042

       (a) For fiscal year 2014, the accountability measures 101043
identified in divisions (C)(10), (11), (12), and (13) of section 101044
5165.25 of the Revised Code;101045

       (b) For fiscal year 2015 and each fiscal year thereafter, the 101046
accountability measures identified in divisions (D)(9), (10), 101047
(11), (12), and (14) of section 5165.25 of the Revised Code.101048

       (B) A critical access nursing facility's critical access 101049
incentive payment for a fiscal year shall equal five per cent of 101050
the portion of the nursing facility's total rate for the fiscal 101051
year that is the sum of the rates and payment identified in 101052
divisions (B)(A)(1) to (4) and (6) of section 5111.2225165.15 of 101053
the Revised Code.101054

       Sec. 5111.244.        Sec. 5165.25.  (A) As used in this section:101055

       (1) "Applicable percentage" means, for the accountability 101056
measures identified in divisions (C)(10) to (13) of this section, 101057
the following: 101058

       (a) For fiscal year 2013, whichever of the following applies: 101059

       (i) The percentage that the department of job and family 101060
services specifies for an accountability measure pursuant to 101061
division (E)(1)(b) or (E)(2)(a)(ii) of this section; 101062

       (ii) The percentage specified for an accountability measure 101063
in division (E)(2)(b), (ii), (iii), (iv), or (v) of this section. 101064

       (b) For fiscal year 2014, whichever of the following applies: 101065

       (i) The percentage used pursuant to division (F)(2) of this 101066
section; 101067

       (ii) The percentage that the department specifies for an 101068
accountability measure pursuant to division (F)(3)(a) of this 101069
section. 101070

       (c) For fiscal year 2015 and thereafter, whichever of the 101071
following applies:101072

       (i) The percentage used pursuant to division (F)(2) of this 101073
section;101074

       (ii) The percentage used pursuant to division (F)(3)(b) of 101075
this section.101076

       (2) "Complaint surveys" has the same meaning as in 42 C.F.R. 101077
488.30.101078

       (3)(2) "Customer satisfaction survey" means the annual survey 101079
of long-term care facilities required by section 173.47 of the 101080
Revised Code.101081

       (4)(3) "Deficiency" has the same meaning as in 42 C.F.R. 101082
488.301.101083

       (4) "Exempted hospital discharge" has the same meaning as in 101084
42 C.F.R. 483.106(b)(2)(i).101085

       (5) "Family satisfaction survey" means a customer 101086
satisfaction survey, or part of a customer satisfaction survey, 101087
that contains the results of information obtained from the 101088
families of a nursing facility's residents.101089

       (6) "Minimum data set" means the standardized, uniform 101090
comprehensive assessment of nursing facility residents that is 101091
used to identify potential problems, strengths, and preferences of 101092
residents and is part of the resident assessment instrument 101093
required by section 1919(e)(5) of the "Social Security Act," 101 101094
Stat. 1330-197 (1987)section 1919(e)(5), 42 U.S.C. 1396r(e)(5), 101095
as amended.101096

       (7) "National voluntary consensus standards for nursing 101097
homes" means measures used to determine the quality of care 101098
provided by nursing facilities as endorsed by the national quality 101099
forum.101100

       (8) "Nurse aide" has the same meaning as in section 3721.21 101101
of the Revised Code.101102

       (9)(8) "Resident satisfaction survey" means a customer 101103
satisfaction survey, or part of a customer satisfaction survey, 101104
that contains the results of information obtained from a nursing 101105
facility's residents.101106

       (10)(9) "Room mirror" means a mirror that is located in 101107
either of the following rooms:101108

       (a) A resident bathroom if the sink used by a resident after 101109
the resident uses the resident bathroom is in the resident 101110
bathroom;101111

       (b) A resident's room if the sink used by a resident after 101112
the resident uses the resident bathroom is in the resident's room.101113

       (11)(10) "Room sink" means a sink that is located in either 101114
of the following rooms:101115

       (a) A resident bathroom if the sink used by a resident after 101116
the resident uses the resident bathroom is in the resident 101117
bathroom;101118

       (b) A resident's room if the sink used by a resident after 101119
the resident uses the resident bathroom is in the resident's room.101120

       (12)(11) "Standard survey" has the same meaning as in 42 101121
C.F.R. 488.301.101122

       (12) "Special focus facility list" means the list of nursing 101123
facilities that the United States department of health and human 101124
services creates under the special focus facility program required 101125
by the "Social Security Act," section 1919(f)(10), 42 U.S.C. 101126
1396r(f)(10).101127

       (13) "Substantial wall" means a permanent structure that 101128
reaches from floor to ceiling and divides a semiprivate room into 101129
two distinct living spaces, each with its own window.101130

       (14) "Table B of the special focus facility list" means the 101131
table included in the special focus facility list that identifies 101132
nursing facilities that have not improved.101133

       (B)(1) Each fiscal year, the department of job and family 101134
servicesmedicaid shall pay adetermine each nursing facility's101135
quality incentive payment to the provider of each nursing facility 101136
that is awarded one or more points for meeting accountability 101137
measures under division (C) of this section. Subject to division101138
divisions (B)(2) and (3) of this section, the per medicaid day 101139
amount of a quality incentive payment paid to a nursing facility101140
provider shall be the product of the following:101141

       (a) The number of points the provider's nursing facility is 101142
awarded for meeting accountability measures under division (C) of101143
this section;101144

       (b) Three dollars and twenty-nine cents. 101145

       (2) The maximum quality incentive payment that may be paid to 101146
the provider of a nursing facility provider for a fiscal year 2014101147
shall be sixteen dollars and forty-four cents per medicaid day.101148

       (3) The maximum quality incentive payment that may be paid to 101149
a nursing facility provider for fiscal year 2015 and each fiscal 101150
year thereafter shall be the following:101151

       (a) Sixteen dollars and forty-four cents if at least one of 101152
the points awarded to the nursing facility for meeting 101153
accountability measures is for an accountability measure 101154
identified in division (D)(9), (10), (11), (12), or (14) of this 101155
section;101156

       (b) Thirteen dollars and sixteen cents if division (B)(3)(a) 101157
of this section does not apply.101158

        (C) SubjectFor fiscal year 2014 only and subject to 101159
divisions (D),division (E), and (F) of this section, the 101160
department shall award each nursing facility participating in the 101161
medicaid program one point for each of the following 101162
accountability measures the facility meets:101163

       (1) The facility's overall score on its resident satisfaction 101164
survey is at least eighty-six.101165

       (2) The facility's overall score on its family satisfaction 101166
survey is at least eighty-eight.101167

       (3) The facility satisfies the requirements for participation 101168
in the advancing excellence in America's nursing homes campaign.101169

       (4) The facility had neither of the following on the 101170
facility's most recent standard survey conducted not later than 101171
the last day of the calendar year immediately preceding the fiscal 101172
year for which the point is to be awarded or any complaint surveys 101173
conducted in the calendar year immediately preceding the fiscal 101174
year for which the point is to be awarded:101175

       (a) A health deficiency with a scope and severity level 101176
greater than F;101177

       (b) A deficiency that constitutes a substandard quality of 101178
care.101179

       (5) The facility offers at least fifty per cent of its 101180
residents at least one of the following dining choices for at 101181
least one meal each day:101182

       (a) Restaurant-style dining in which food is brought from the 101183
food preparation area to residents per the residents' orders;101184

       (b) Buffet-style dining in which residents obtain their own 101185
food, or have the facility's staff bring food to them per the 101186
residents' directions, from the buffet;101187

       (c) Family-style dining in which food is customarily served 101188
on a serving dish and shared by residents;101189

       (d) Open dining in which residents have at least a two-hour 101190
period to choose when to have a meal;101191

       (e) Twenty-four-hour dining in which residents may order 101192
meals from the facility any time of the day.101193

       (6) At least fifty per cent of the facility's residents are 101194
able to take a bath or shower as often as they choose.101195

       (7) The facility has at least both of the following scores on 101196
its resident satisfaction survey:101197

       (a) With regard to the question in the survey regarding 101198
residents' ability to choose when to go to bed in the evening, at 101199
least eighty-nine;101200

       (b) With regard to the question in the survey regarding 101201
residents' ability to choose when to get out of bed in the 101202
morning, at least seventy-six.101203

       (8) The facility has at least both of the following scores on 101204
its family satisfaction survey:101205

       (a) With regard to the question in the survey regarding 101206
residents' ability to choose when to go to bed in the evening, at 101207
least eighty-eight;101208

       (b) With regard to the question in the survey regarding 101209
residents' ability to choose when to get out of bed in the 101210
morning, at least seventy-five.101211

       (9) All of the following apply to the facility:101212

       (a) At least seventy-five per cent of the facility's 101213
residents have the opportunity, following admission to the 101214
facility and before completing or quarterly updating their 101215
individual plans of care, to discuss their goals for the care they 101216
are to receive at the facility, including their preferences for 101217
advance care planning, with a member of the residents' healthcare101218
health care teams that the facility, residents, and residents' 101219
sponsors consider appropriate.101220

       (b) The facility records the residents' care goals, including 101221
the residents' advance care planning preferences, in their medical 101222
records.101223

       (c) The facility uses the residents' care goals, including 101224
the residents' advance care planning preferences, in the 101225
development of the residents' individual plans of care.101226

       (10) Not more than the applicable percentagethirteen and 101227
thirty-five hundredths per cent of the facility's long-stay 101228
residents report severe to moderate pain during the minimum data 101229
set assessment process.101230

       (11) Not more than the applicable percentagefive and 101231
seventy-three hundredths per cent of the facility's long-stay, 101232
high-risk residents have been assessed as having one or more stage 101233
two, three, or four pressure ulcers during the minimum data set 101234
assessment process.101235

       (12) Not more than the applicable percentageone and 101236
fifty-two hundredths per cent of the facility's long-stay 101237
residents were physically restrained as reported during the 101238
minimum data set assessment process.101239

       (13) Less than the applicable percentageseven and 101240
seventy-eight hundredths per cent of the facility's long-stay 101241
residents had a urinary tract infection as reported during the 101242
minimum data set assessment process.101243

       (14) The facility uses a tool for tracking residents' 101244
admissions to hospitals.101245

       (15) An average of at least fifty per cent of the facility's 101246
medicaid-certified beds are in private rooms.101247

       (16) The facility has accessible resident bathrooms, all of 101248
which meet at least two of the following standards and at least 101249
some of which meet all of the following standards:101250

       (a) There are room mirrors that are accessible to residents 101251
in wheelchairs, can be adjusted so as to be visible to residents 101252
who are seated or standing, or both.101253

       (b) There are room sinks that are accessible to residents in 101254
wheelchairs and have clearance for wheelchairs.101255

       (c) There are room sinks that have faucets with adaptive or 101256
easy-to-use lever or paddle handles.101257

       (17) The facility does both of the following:101258

       (a) Maintains a written policy that prohibits the use of 101259
overhead paging systems or limits the use of overhead paging 101260
systems to emergencies, as defined in the policy;101261

       (b) Communicates the policy to its staff, residents, and 101262
families of residents.101263

       (18) The facility has a score of at least ninety on its 101264
resident satisfaction survey with regard to the question in the 101265
survey regarding residents' ability to personalize their rooms 101266
with personal belongings.101267

       (19) The facility has a score of at least ninety-five on its 101268
family satisfaction survey with regard to the question in the 101269
survey regarding residents' ability to personalize their rooms 101270
with personal belongings.101271

       (20) The facility does both of the following:101272

       (a) Maintains a written policy that requires consistent 101273
assignment of nurse aides and specifies the goal of having a 101274
resident receive nurse aide care from not more than eight 101275
different nurse aides during a thirty-day period;101276

       (b) Communicates the policy to its staff, residents, and 101277
families of residents.101278

       (21) The facility's staff retention rate is at least 101279
seventy-five per cent.101280

       (22) The facility's turnover rate for nurse aides is not 101281
higher than sixty-five per cent.101282

       (23) For at least fifty per cent of the resident care 101283
conferences in the facility, a nurse aide who is a primary 101284
caregiver for the resident attends and participates in the 101285
conference.101286

       (D) For fiscal year 2015 and each fiscal year thereafter and 101287
subject to division (E) of this section, the department shall 101288
award each nursing facility participating in the medicaid program 101289
one point for each of the following accountability measures the 101290
facility meets:101291

       (1) The facility's overall score on its resident satisfaction 101292
survey is at least eighty-seven and five-tenths.101293

       (2) The facility's overall score on its family satisfaction 101294
survey is at least eighty-five and nine-tenths.101295

       (3) The facility satisfies the requirements for participation 101296
in the advancing excellence in America's nursing homes campaign.101297

       (4) Both of the following apply to the facility:101298

       (a) The facility had not been listed on table B of the 101299
special focus facility list for eighteen or more consecutive 101300
months during any time during the calendar year immediately 101301
preceding the fiscal year for which the point is to be awarded.101302

       (b) The facility had neither of the following on the 101303
facility's most recent standard survey conducted not later than 101304
the last day of the calendar year immediately preceding the fiscal 101305
year for which the point is to be awarded or any complaint surveys 101306
conducted in the calendar year immediately preceding the fiscal 101307
year for which the point is to be awarded:101308

       (i) A health deficiency with a scope and severity level 101309
greater than F;101310

       (ii) A deficiency that constitutes a substandard quality of 101311
care.101312

       (5) The facility does all of the following:101313

       (a) Offers at least fifty per cent of its residents at least 101314
one of the following dining choices for at least two meals each 101315
day:101316

       (i) Restaurant-style dining in which food is brought from the 101317
food preparation area to residents per the residents' orders;101318

       (ii) Buffet-style dining in which residents obtain their own 101319
food, or have the facility's staff bring food to them per the 101320
residents' directions, from the buffet;101321

       (iii) Family-style dining in which food is customarily served 101322
on a serving dish and shared by residents;101323

       (iv) Open dining in which residents have at least a two-hour 101324
period to choose when to have a meal;101325

       (v) Twenty-four-hour dining in which residents may order 101326
meals from the facility any time of the day.101327

       (b) Maintains a written policy specifying the manner or 101328
manners in which residents' dining choices for meals are offered;101329

       (c) Communicates the policy to its staff, residents, and 101330
families of residents.101331

       (6) The facility does all of the following:101332

       (a) Enables at least fifty per cent of the facility's 101333
residents to take a bath or shower when they choose;101334

       (b) Maintains a written policy regarding residents' choices 101335
in bathing;101336

       (c) Communicates the policy to its staff, residents, and 101337
families of residents.101338

       (7) The facility has at least both of the following scores on 101339
its resident satisfaction survey:101340

       (a) With regard to the question in the survey regarding 101341
residents' ability to choose when to go to bed in the evening, at 101342
least eighty-nine;101343

       (b) With regard to the question in the survey regarding 101344
residents' ability to choose when to get out of bed in the 101345
morning, at least seventy-six.101346

       (8) The facility has at least both of the following scores on 101347
its family satisfaction survey:101348

       (a) With regard to the question in the survey regarding 101349
residents' ability to choose when to go to bed in the evening, at 101350
least eighty-eight;101351

       (b) With regard to the question in the survey regarding 101352
residents' ability to choose when to get out of bed in the 101353
morning, at least seventy-five.101354

       (9) Not more than thirteen and thirty-five hundredths per 101355
cent of the facility's long-stay residents report severe to 101356
moderate pain during the minimum data set assessment process.101357

       (10) Not more than five and sixteen hundredths per cent of 101358
the facility's long-stay, high-risk residents have been assessed 101359
as having one or more stage two, three, or four pressure ulcers 101360
during the minimum data set assessment process.101361

       (11) Not more than one and fifty-two hundredths per cent of 101362
the facility's long-stay residents were physically restrained as 101363
reported during the minimum data set assessment process.101364

       (12) Less than seven per cent of the facility's long-stay 101365
residents had a urinary tract infection as reported during the 101366
minimum data set assessment process.101367

       (13) The facility does both of the following:101368

       (a) Uses a tool for tracking residents' admissions to 101369
hospitals;101370

       (b) Annually reports to the department data on hospital 101371
admissions by month for all residents.101372

       (14) Both of the following apply:101373

       (a) At least ninety-five per cent of the facility's long-stay 101374
residents are vaccinated against pneumococcal pneumonia, decline 101375
the vaccination, or are not vaccinated because the vaccination is 101376
medically contraindicated.101377

       (b) At least ninety-three per cent of the facility's 101378
long-stay residents are vaccinated against seasonal influenza, 101379
decline the vaccination, or are not vaccinated because the 101380
vaccination is medically contraindicated.101381

       (15) An average of at least fifty per cent of the facility's 101382
medicaid-certified beds are in either, or in a combination of 101383
both, of the following:101384

       (a) Private rooms;101385

       (b) Semiprivate rooms to which all of the following apply:101386

       (i) Each room provides a distinct territory for each resident 101387
occupying the room.101388

       (ii) Each distinct territory has a window and is separated by 101389
a substantial wall from the other distinct territories in the 101390
room.101391

       (iii) Each resident is able to enter and exit the distinct 101392
territory of the resident's room without entering or exiting 101393
another resident's distinct territory.101394

       (iv) Complete visual privacy for each distinct territory may 101395
be obtained by drawing a curtain or other screen.101396

       (16) The facility obtains at least a ninety-five per cent 101397
compliance rate with requesting resident reviews required by 42 101398
C.F.R. 483.106(b)(2)(ii) for individuals who are exempted hospital 101399
discharges.101400

       (17) The facility does both of the following:101401

       (a) Maintains a written policy that requires consistent 101402
assignment of nurse aides and specifies the goal of having a 101403
resident receive nurse aide care from not more than twelve 101404
different nurse aides during a thirty-day period;101405

       (b) Communicates the policy to its staff, residents, and 101406
families of residents.101407

       (18) The facility's staff retention rate is at least 101408
seventy-five per cent.101409

       (19) The facility's turnover rate for nurse aides is not 101410
higher than sixty-five per cent.101411

       (20) For at least fifty per cent of the resident care 101412
conferences in the facility, a nurse aide who is a primary 101413
caregiver for the resident attends and participates in the 101414
conference.101415

       (21) All of the following apply to the facility:101416

       (a) At least seventy-five per cent of the facility's 101417
residents have the opportunity, following admission to the 101418
facility and before completing or quarterly updating their 101419
individual plans of care, to discuss their goals for the care they 101420
are to receive at the facility, including their preferences for 101421
advance care planning, with a member of the residents' health care 101422
teams that the facility, residents, and residents' sponsors 101423
consider appropriate.101424

       (b) The facility records the residents' care goals, including 101425
the residents' advance care planning preferences, in their medical 101426
records.101427

       (c) The facility uses the residents' care goals, including 101428
the residents' advance care planning preferences, in the 101429
development of the residents' individual plans of care.101430

       (22) The facility does both of the following:101431

       (a) Maintains a written policy that prohibits the use of 101432
overhead paging systems or limits the use of overhead paging 101433
systems to emergencies, as defined in the policy;101434

       (b) Communicates the policy to its staff, residents, and 101435
families of residents.101436

       (E)(1) To be awarded a point for meeting an accountability 101437
measure under division (C) or (D) of this section other than the 101438
accountability measure identified in divisiondivisions (C)(4) and 101439
(D)(4)(b) of this section, a nursing facility must meet the 101440
accountability measure in the calendar year immediately preceding 101441
the fiscal year for which the point is to be awarded. However, a 101442
nursing facility must meet the accountability measures specified 101443
in divisions (C)(3), (5), (6), (9), (14) to (17), (20), (22), and 101444
(23) of this section in the period beginning January 1, 2012, and 101445
ending March 31, 2012, to be awarded points for those 101446
accountability measures for fiscal year 2013.101447

       (2) The department shall award points pursuant to division101448
divisions (C)(1), (7), orand (18) and (D)(1) and (7) of this 101449
section to a nursing facility only if a resident satisfaction 101450
survey was initiated under section 173.47 of the Revised Code for 101451
the nursing facility in the calendar year immediately preceding 101452
the fiscal year for which the points are to be awarded.101453

       (3) The department shall award points pursuant to division101454
divisions (C)(2), (8), orand (19) and (D)(2) and (8) of this 101455
section to a nursing facility only if a family satisfaction survey 101456
was initiated under section 173.47 of the Revised Code for the 101457
nursing facility in the calendar year immediately preceding the 101458
fiscal year for which the points are to be awarded.101459

       (4) The department shall award points pursuant to divisions 101460
(D)(21) and (22) of this section only for fiscal year 2015.101461

       (5) Not later than July 1, 2013, the department shall adjust 101462
the score used for the purpose of division (C)(8)(b) of this 101463
section in a manner that causes at least fifty per cent of nursing 101464
facilities to meet division (C)(8)(b) of this section.101465

       (E) For the purposes of awarding points under divisions 101466
(C)(10) to (13) of this section for fiscal year 2013, the 101467
following apply:101468

       (1) If, by July 1, 2012, the United States centers for 101469
medicare and medicaid services makes calculations using the 3.0 101470
version of the minimum data set that indicate whether nursing 101471
facilities meet those accountability measures, the department 101472
shall do both of the following: 101473

       (a) Rely on those calculations; 101474

       (b) Specify the percentages to be used for the purposes of 101475
those accountability measures and, in specifying the percentages, 101476
provide for at least fifty per cent of nursing facilities to earn 101477
points for meeting those accountability measures.101478

       (2) If, by July 1, 2012, the United States centers for 101479
medicare and medicaid services does not make calculations using 101480
the 3.0 version of the minimum data set that indicate whether 101481
nursing facilities meet those accountability measures, the 101482
department shall do either of the following: 101483

       (a) Do both of the following:101484

       (i) Make the calculations using the 3.0 version of the 101485
minimum data set in accordance with the national voluntary 101486
consensus standards for nursing homes;101487

       (ii) Specify the percentages to be used for the purposes of 101488
those accountability measures and, in specifying the percentages, 101489
provide for at least fifty per cent of nursing facilities to earn 101490
points for meeting those accountability measures. 101491

       (b) Do all of the following:101492

       (i) Rely on the most recent calculations the United States 101493
centers for medicare and medicaid services made using the 2.0 101494
version of the minimum data set that indicate whether nursing 101495
facilities meet those accountability measures;101496

       (ii) Use four per cent as the applicable percentage for the 101497
accountability measure identified in division (C)(10) of this 101498
section;101499

       (iii) Use nine per cent as the applicable percentage for the 101500
accountability measure identified in division (C)(11) of this 101501
section; 101502

       (iv) Use two per cent as the applicable percentage for the 101503
accountability measure identified in division (C)(12) of this 101504
section;101505

       (v) Use ten per cent as the applicable percentage for the 101506
accountability measure identified in division (C)(13) of this 101507
section.101508

       (F) For the purposes of awarding points under divisions 101509
(C)(10) to (13) of this section for fiscal year 2014 and 101510
thereafter, the department shall do the following: 101511

       (1) Rely on calculations the United States centers for 101512
medicare and medicaid services makes using the 3.0 version of the 101513
minimum data set that indicate whether nursing facilities meet 101514
those accountability measures; 101515

       (2) If the department takes action pursuant to division 101516
(E)(1) of this section for fiscal year 2013, continue to use the 101517
percentages the department specifies pursuant to division 101518
(E)(1)(b) of this section for the purposes of those accountability 101519
measures; 101520

       (3) If the department takes action pursuant to division 101521
(E)(2) of this section for fiscal year 2013, do the following:101522

       (a) For fiscal year 2014, specify the percentages to be used 101523
for the purposes of those accountability measures and, in 101524
specifying the percentages, provide for at least fifty per cent of 101525
nursing facilities to earn points for meeting those accountability 101526
measures; 101527

       (b) For fiscal year 2015 and thereafter, continue to use the 101528
percentages the department specifies pursuant to division 101529
(F)(3)(a) of this section for the purposes of those accountability 101530
measures.Not later than July 1, 2014, the department shall 101531
submit, in accordance with section 101.68 of the Revised Code, 101532
recommendations to the general assembly for accountability 101533
measures to replace the accountability measures identified in 101534
divisions (D)(21) and (22) of this section.101535

       (G) The director of job and family services shall adopt rules 101536
under section 5111.02 of the Revised Code as necessary to 101537
implement this section.101538

       The rulesRules adopted under section 5165.02 of the Revised 101539
Code may specify what is meant by "some" as that word is used in 101540
division (C)(16) of this section.101541

       Sec. 5111.245.        Sec. 5165.26.  (A) As used in this section:101542

       (1) "Budgeted amount for quality incentive payments for a 101543
fiscal year" means the amount determined for a fiscal year as 101544
follows:101545

        (a) Multiply the total number of medicaid days in the 101546
immediately preceding fiscal year by sixteen dollars and 101547
forty-four cents;101548

        (b) Determine the total amount of quality incentive payments 101549
that was paid under section 5165.25 of the Revised Code to all 101550
nursing facility providers for the immediately preceding fiscal 101551
year;101552

        (c) Subtract the amount determined under division (A)(1)(b) 101553
of this section from the product calculated under division 101554
(A)(1)(a) of this section;101555

        (d) Add thirty million dollars to the difference calculated 101556
under division (A)(1)(c) of this section.101557

        (2) "Point days for a fiscal year" means the product of the 101558
following:101559

       (a) A qualifying nursing facility's quality bonus points for 101560
the fiscal year;101561

       (b) The number of the qualifying nursing facility's medicaid 101562
days in the immediately preceding fiscal year.101563

       (2)(3) "Qualifying nursing facility" means a nursing facility 101564
that qualifies for a quality bonus for a fiscal year as determined 101565
under division (B) of this section.101566

       (3)(4) "Quality bonus points for a fiscal year" means the 101567
amount determined by subtracting five from the number of points 101568
awarded to a qualifying nursing facility for meeting 101569
accountability measures under division (C) of section 5111.244101570
5165.25 of the Revised Code for a fiscal year.101571

       (4) "Residual budgeted amount for quality incentive payments 101572
for a fiscal year" means the amount determined for a fiscal year 101573
as follows:101574

       (a) Multiply the total number of medicaid days in the fiscal 101575
year by sixteen dollars and forty-four cents;101576

       (b) Determine the total amount of quality incentive payments 101577
that was paid under section 5111.244 of the Revised Code to all 101578
nursing facility providers for the fiscal year;101579

       (c) Subtract the amount determined under division (A)(4)(b) 101580
of this section from the product calculated under division 101581
(A)(4)(a) of this section.101582

       (B) TheNot later than the first day of November of each 101583
fiscal year, the department of job and family servicesmedicaid101584
shall pay a nursing facility provider a quality bonus for athe101585
fiscal year if both of the following apply:101586

       (1) The provider's nursing facility is awarded more than five 101587
points for meeting accountability measures under division (C) of101588
section 5111.2445165.25 of the Revised Code for the fiscal year 101589
and the following applies:101590

        (1) For fiscal year 2014, at least two of the points are 101591
awarded to the nursing facility pursuant to division (C)(10), 101592
(11), (12), (13), or (14) of section 5165.25 of the Revised Code.101593

        (2) For fiscal year 2015 and each fiscal year thereafter, at 101594
least two of the points are awarded to the nursing facility 101595
pursuant to division (D)(9), (10), (11), (12), (13), or (14) of 101596
section 5165.25 of the Revised Code.101597

       (2) The residual budgeted amount for quality incentive 101598
payments for the fiscal year is greater than zero.101599

       (C) The total quality bonus to be paid to the provider of a 101600
qualifying nursing facility for a fiscal year shall equal the 101601
product of the following:101602

       (1) The quality bonus per medicaid day for the fiscal year 101603
determined for the provider's qualifying nursing facility under 101604
division (D) of this section;101605

       (2) The number of the qualifying nursing facility's medicaid 101606
days in the immediately preceding fiscal year.101607

       (D) A qualifying nursing facility's quality bonus per 101608
medicaid day for a fiscal year shall be the product of the 101609
following: 101610

       (1) The nursing facility's quality bonus points for the 101611
fiscal year;101612

       (2) The quality bonus per point for the fiscal year 101613
determined under division (E) of this section.101614

       (E) The quality bonus per point for a fiscal year shall be 101615
determined as follows:101616

       (1) Determine the number of each qualifying nursing 101617
facility's point days for the fiscal year;101618

       (2) Determine the sum of all qualifying nursing facilities' 101619
point days for the fiscal year;101620

       (3) Divide the residual budgeted amount for quality incentive 101621
payments for the fiscal year by the sum determined under division 101622
(E)(2) of this section.101623

       (F) The calculation of a qualifying nursing facility's bonus 101624
payment is not subject to appeal under Chapter 119. of the Revised 101625
Code.101626

       (G) The director of job and family services may adopt rules 101627
under section 5111.02 of the Revised Code as necessary to 101628
implement this section.101629

       Sec. 5111.257.        Sec. 5165.28.  If a provider of a nursing facility 101630
adds or replaces one or more medicaid certified beds to or at the 101631
nursing facility, or renovates one or more of the nursing 101632
facility's beds, the medicaid payment rate for the added, 101633
replaced, or renovated beds shall be the same as the medicaid 101634
payment rate for the nursing facility's existing beds.101635

       Sec. 5111.265.        Sec. 5165.29.  If one or more medicaid-certified 101636
beds are relocated from one nursing facility to another nursing 101637
facility owned by a different person or government entity and the 101638
application for the certificate of need authorizing the relocation 101639
is filed with the director of health on or after the effective 101640
date of this sectionJuly 1, 2005, amortization of the cost of 101641
acquiring operating rights for the relocated beds is not an 101642
allowable cost for the purpose of determining the nursing 101643
facility's medicaid reimbursementpayment rate.101644

       Sec. 5111.264.        Sec. 5165.30.  Except as provided in section 5111.25 101645
or 5111.2515165.17 of the Revised Code, the costs of goods, 101646
services, and facilities, furnished to a nursing facility provider 101647
by a related party are includable in the allowable costs of the 101648
provider at the reasonable cost to the related party.101649

       Sec. 5165.32.  The department of medicaid shall not reduce a 101650
nursing facility's medicaid payment rate determined under this 101651
chapter on the basis that the provider charges a lower rate to any 101652
resident who is not eligible for medicaid.101653

       Sec. 5165.33.  No medicaid payment shall be made to a nursing 101654
facility provider for the day a medicaid recipient is discharged 101655
from the nursing facility.101656

       Sec. 5111.331.        Sec. 5165.34.  (A) The department of job and family 101657
servicesmedicaid may make medicaid payments to a nursing 101658
facility provider of a nursing facility under sections 5111.20 to 101659
5111.331 of the Revised Codethis chapter to reserve a bed for a 101660
recipient during a temporary absence under conditions prescribed 101661
by the department, to include hospitalization for an acute 101662
condition, visits with relatives and friends, and participation in 101663
therapeutic programs outside the facility, when the resident's 101664
plan of care provides for such absence and federal financial101665
participation infor the payments is available.101666

       (B) The maximum period for which payments may be made to 101667
reserve a bed in a nursing facility shall not exceed thirty days 101668
in a calendar year.101669

       (C) The department shall establish the per diemmedicaid day 101670
payment rates to be paid to providers of nursing facilities for 101671
reserving beds under this section. In establishing the per diem101672
medicaid day payment rates, the department shall do the following:101673

       (1) In the case of a payment to reserve a bed for a day 101674
during calendar year 2011, set the per diem rate at an amount not 101675
exceeding fifty per cent of the per diem rate the provider would 101676
be paid if the recipient were not absent from the nursing facility 101677
that day;101678

       (2) In the case of a payment to reserve a bed for a day 101679
during calendar year 2012 and each calendar year thereafter, set 101680
the per diemmedicaid day payment rate at an amount equal to the 101681
following:101682

       (a)(1) In the case of a nursing facility that had an 101683
occupancy rate in the preceding calendar year exceeding 101684
ninety-five per cent, an amount not exceeding fifty per cent of 101685
the per diemmedicaid day payment rate the provider would be paid 101686
if the recipient were not absent from the nursing facility that 101687
day;101688

       (b)(2) In the case of a nursing facility that had an 101689
occupancy rate in the preceding calendar year not exceeding 101690
ninety-five per cent, an amount not exceeding eighteen per cent of 101691
the per diemmedicaid day payment rate the provider would be paid 101692
if the recipient were not absent from the nursing facility that 101693
day.101694

       (D) For the purpose of setting a nursing facility's per 101695
medicaid day payment rate to reserve a bed for a day during the 101696
period beginning on the effective date of this amendment and 101697
ending December 31, 2013, the department shall determine the 101698
nursing facility's occupancy rate by using information reported on 101699
the nursing facility's cost report for calendar year 2012. For the 101700
purpose of setting a nursing facility's per medicaid day payment 101701
rate to reserve a bed for January 1, 2014, or thereafter, the 101702
department shall determine the nursing facility's occupancy rate 101703
by using information reported on the nursing facility's cost 101704
report for the calendar year preceding the fiscal year in which 101705
the reservation falls.101706

       Sec. 5111.212.        Sec. 5165.35. As used in this section, "effective 101707
date of an involuntary termination" and "involuntary termination" 101708
have the same meanings as in section 5111.65 of the Revised Code.101709

       Medicaid payments may be made for nursing facility services 101710
and intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded services101711
provided not later than thirty days after the effective date of an 101712
involuntary termination of the nursing facility that provides the 101713
services if the services are provided to a medicaid recipient who 101714
is eligible for the services and resided in the nursing facility 101715
before the effective date of the involuntary termination.101716

       Sec. 5111.221.        Sec. 5165.37.  The department of job and family 101717
servicesmedicaid shall make its best efforts each year to 101718
calculate nursing facilities' medicaid payment rates under 101719
sections 5111.20 to 5111.331 of the Revised Codethis chapter in 101720
time to use them to makepay the payments due to providersrates101721
by the fifteenth day of August of each fiscal year. If the 101722
department is unable to calculate the rates so that they can be 101723
paid by that date, the department shall pay each provider the rate 101724
calculated for the provider's nursing facilities and intermediate 101725
care facilities for the mentally retarded under those sections101726
this chapter at the end of the previous fiscal year. If the 101727
department also is unable to calculate the rates to make the 101728
payments duepay the rates by the fifteenth day of September and 101729
the fifteenth day of October, the department shall pay the 101730
previous fiscal year's rate to make those payments. The department 101731
may increase by five per cent the previous fiscal year's rate paid 101732
for any nursing facility pursuant to this section at the request 101733
of the provider. The department shall use rates calculated for the 101734
current fiscal year to make the payments due by the fifteenth day 101735
of November.101736

       If the rate paid to a provider for a nursing facility 101737
pursuant to this section is lower than the rate calculated for the 101738
nursing facility for the current fiscal year, the department shall 101739
pay the provider the difference between the two rates for the 101740
number of days for which the provider was paid for the nursing101741
facility pursuant to this section. If the rate paid for a nursing101742
facility pursuant to this section is higher than the rate 101743
calculated for it for the current fiscal year, the provider shall 101744
refund to the department the difference between the two rates for 101745
the number of days for which the provider was paid for the nursing101746
facility pursuant to this section.101747

       Sec. 5111.29.        Sec. 5165.38. (A) The medicaid director of job and 101748
family services shall adopt rules under section 5111.025165.02 of 101749
the Revised Code that establish a process under which a nursing 101750
facility provider, or a group or association of nursing facility101751
providers, may seek reconsideration of medicaid payment rates 101752
established under sections 5111.20 to 5111.331 of the Revised 101753
Codethis chapter, including a rate for direct care costs 101754
recalculated before the effective date of the rate as a result of 101755
an exception review of resident assessment informationdata101756
conducted under section 5111.275165.193 of the Revised Code. The101757

       (1) Except as provided in divisions (A)(2) to (4) of this 101758
section, the only issue that a provider, group, or association may 101759
raise in the rate reconsideration shall be whether the rate was 101760
calculated in accordance with sections 5111.20 to 5111.331 of the 101761
Revised Codethis chapter and the rules adopted under section 101762
5111.025165.02 of the Revised Code. The rules shall permit a101763
provider, group, or association tomay submit written arguments or 101764
other materials that support its position. The rules shall specify101765
provider, group, or association and department of medicaid shall 101766
take actions regarding the rate reconsideration within time frames 101767
within which the provider, group, or association and the 101768
department must actspecified in rules authorized by this section. 101769
If101770

       If the department determines, as a result of the rate 101771
reconsideration, that the rate establisheddetermined for one or 101772
more nursing facilities of a provider is less than the rate to 101773
which the nursing facility is entitled, the department shall 101774
increase the rate. If the department has paid the incorrect rate 101775
for a period of time, the department shall pay the provider the 101776
difference between the amount the provider was paid for that 101777
period for the nursing facility and the amount the provider should 101778
have been paid for the nursing facility.101779

       (2) The rules shall provide that during a fiscal year, the 101780
department, by means of the rate reconsideration process, may 101781
increase the rate determined for an intermediate care facility for 101782
the mentally retarded as calculated under sections 5111.20 to 101783
5111.331 of the Revised Code if the provider of the facility 101784
demonstrates that the facility's actual, allowable costs have 101785
increased because of extreme circumstances. A facility may qualify 101786
for a rate increase only if the facility's per diem, actual, 101787
allowable costs have increased to a level that exceeds its total 101788
rate. The rules shall specify the circumstances that would justify 101789
a rate increase under division (A)(2) of this section. The rules 101790
shall provide that the extreme circumstances include natural 101791
disasters, renovations approved under division (D) of section 101792
5111.251 of the Revised Code, an increase in workers' compensation 101793
experience rating of greater than five per cent for a facility 101794
that has an appropriate claims management program, increased 101795
security costs for an inner-city facility, and a change of 101796
ownership that results from bankruptcy, foreclosure, or findings 101797
of violations of certification requirements by the department of 101798
health. An increase under division (A)(2) of this section is 101799
subject to any rate limitations or maximum rates established by 101800
sections 5111.20 to 5111.331 of the Revised Code for specific cost 101801
centers. Any rate increase granted under division (A)(2) of this 101802
section shall take effect on the first day of the first month 101803
after the department receives the request.101804

       (3) The rules shall provide that the department, through the 101805
rate reconsideration process, may increase an intermediate care 101806
facility for the mentally retarded's rate as calculated under 101807
sections 5111.20 to 5111.331 of the Revised Code if the 101808
department, in the department's sole discretion, determines that 101809
the rate as calculated under those sections works an extreme 101810
hardship on the facility.101811

       (4) The rules shall provide that when beds certified for the 101812
medicaid program are added to an existing intermediate care 101813
facility for the mentally retarded or replaced at the same site, 101814
the department, through the rate reconsideration process, shall 101815
increase the intermediate care facility for the mentally 101816
retarded's rate for capital costs proportionately, as limited by 101817
any applicable limitation under section 5111.251 of the Revised 101818
Code, to account for the costs of the beds that are added or 101819
replaced. The department shall make this increase one month after 101820
the first day of the month after the department receives 101821
sufficient documentation of the costs. Any rate increase granted 101822
under division (A)(4) of this section after June 30, 1993, shall 101823
remain in effect until the effective date of a rate calculated 101824
under section 5111.251 of the Revised Code that includes costs 101825
incurred for a full calendar year for the bed addition or bed 101826
replacement. The facility shall report double accumulated 101827
depreciation in an amount equal to the depreciation included in 101828
the rate adjustment on its cost report for the first year of 101829
operation. During the term of any loan used to finance a project 101830
for which a rate adjustment is granted under division (A)(4) of 101831
this section, if the facility is operated by the same provider, 101832
the provider shall subtract from the interest costs it reports on 101833
its cost report an amount equal to the difference between the 101834
following:101835

       (a) The actual, allowable interest costs for the loan during 101836
the calendar year for which the costs are being reported;101837

       (b) The actual, allowable interest costs attributable to the 101838
loan that were used to calculate the rates paid to the provider 101839
for the facility during the same calendar year.101840

       (5) The department's decision at the conclusion of the 101841
reconsideration process shall not be subject to any administrative 101842
proceedings under Chapter 119. or any other provision of the 101843
Revised Code.101844

       (B) All of the following are subject to an adjudication 101845
conducted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code:101846

       (1) Any audit disallowance that the department makes as the 101847
result of an audit under section 5111.27 of the Revised Code;101848

       (2) Any adverse finding that results from an exception review 101849
of resident assessment information conducted under section 5111.27 101850
of the Revised Code after the effective date of the facility's 101851
rate that is based on the assessment information;101852

       (3) Any medicaid payment deemed an overpayment under section 101853
5111.683 of the Revised Code;101854

       (4) Any penalty the department imposes under division (C) of 101855
section 5111.28 of the Revised Code or section 5111.683 of the 101856
Revised Code.101857

       Sec. 5111.28.        Sec. 5165.40. (A) If a nursing facility provider 101858
properly amends itsa cost report for the nursing facility under 101859
section 5111.2615165.107 of the Revised Code and the amended 101860
report shows that the provider received a lower medicaid payment101861
rate under the original cost report than itthe provider was 101862
entitled to receive, the department of job and family services101863
medicaid shall adjust the provider's rate for the nursing facility101864
prospectively to reflect the corrected information. The department 101865
shall pay the adjusted rate beginning two months after the first 101866
day of the month after the provider files the amended cost report. 101867
If101868

       If the department finds, from an exception review of resident 101869
assessment informationdata conducted pursuant to section 5165.193 101870
of the Revised Code after the effective date of thea nursing 101871
facility's rate for direct care costs that is based on the 101872
resident assessment informationdata, that inaccurate resident101873
assessment informationdata resulted in the provider receiving a 101874
lower rate for the nursing facility than it was entitled to 101875
receive, the department prospectively shall adjust the provider's 101876
rate accordingly and. The department shall make payments to the 101877
provider using the adjusted rate for the remainder of the calendar 101878
quartersix-month period for which the resident assessment 101879
informationdata is used to determine the rate, beginning one 101880
month after the first day of the month after the exception review 101881
is completed.101882

       (B) If the provider properly amends its cost report under 101883
section 5111.261 of the Revised Code, the department makes a 101884
finding based on an audit under section 5111.27 of the Revised 101885
Code, or the department makes a finding based on an exception 101886
review of resident assessment information conducted under section 101887
5111.27 of the Revised Code after the effective date of the rate 101888
for direct care costs that is based on the assessment information, 101889
any of which results in a determination that the provider has 101890
received a higher rate than it was entitled to receive, the 101891
department shall recalculate the provider's rate using the revised 101892
information. The department shall apply the recalculated rate to 101893
the periods when the provider received the incorrect rate to 101894
determine the amount of the overpayment. The provider shall refund 101895
the amount of the overpayment.101896

       In addition to requiring a refund under this division, the 101897
department may charge the provider interest at the applicable rate 101898
specified in this division from the time the overpayment was made.101899

       (1) If the overpayment resulted from costs reported for 101900
calendar year 1993, the interest shall be no greater than one and 101901
one-half times the average bank prime rate.101902

       (2) If the overpayment resulted from costs reported for 101903
subsequent calendar years:101904

       (a) The interest shall be no greater than two times the 101905
average bank prime rate if the overpayment was equal to or less 101906
than one per cent of the total medicaid payments to the provider 101907
for the fiscal year for which the incorrect information was used 101908
to establish a rate.101909

       (b) The interest shall be no greater than two and one-half 101910
times the current average bank prime rate if the overpayment was 101911
greater than one per cent of the total medicaid payments to the 101912
provider for the fiscal year for which the incorrect information 101913
was used to establish a rate.101914

       (C) The department also may impose the following penalties:101915

       (1) If a provider does not furnish invoices or other 101916
documentation that the department requests during an audit within 101917
sixty days after the request, no more than the greater of one 101918
thousand dollars per audit or twenty-five per cent of the 101919
cumulative amount by which the costs for which documentation was 101920
not furnished increased the total medicaid payments to the 101921
provider during the fiscal year for which the costs were used to 101922
establish a rate;101923

       (2) If an exiting operator or owner fails to provide notice 101924
of a facility closure, voluntary termination, or voluntary 101925
withdrawal of participation in the medicaid program as required by 101926
section 5111.66 of the Revised Code, or an exiting operator or 101927
owner and entering operator fail to provide notice of a change of 101928
operator as required by section 5111.67 of the Revised Code, no 101929
more than the current average bank prime rate plus four per cent 101930
of the last two monthly payments.101931

       (D) If the provider continues to participate in the medicaid 101932
program, the department shall deduct any amount that the provider 101933
is required to refund under this section, and the amount of any 101934
interest charged or penalty imposed under this section, from the 101935
next available payment from the department to the provider. The 101936
department and the provider may enter into an agreement under 101937
which the amount, together with interest, is deducted in 101938
installments from payments from the department to the provider. 101939

       (E) The department shall transmit refunds and penalties to 101940
the treasurer of state for deposit in the general revenue fund.101941

       (F) For the purpose of this section, the department shall 101942
determine the average bank prime rate using statistical release 101943
H.15, "selected interest rates," a weekly publication of the 101944
federal reserve board, or any successor publication. If 101945
statistical release H.15, or its successor, ceases to contain the 101946
bank prime rate information or ceases to be published, the 101947
department shall request a written statement of the average bank 101948
prime rate from the federal reserve bank of Cleveland or the 101949
federal reserve board.101950

       Sec. 5165.41.  (A) The department of medicaid shall 101951
redetermine a provider's medicaid payment rate for a nursing 101952
facility using revised information if any of the following results 101953
in a determination that the provider received a higher medicaid 101954
payment rate for the nursing facility than the provider was 101955
entitled to receive:101956

       (1) The provider properly amends a cost report for the 101957
nursing facility under section 5165.107 of the Revised Code;101958

       (2) The department makes a finding based on an audit under 101959
section 5165.109 of the Revised Code;101960

       (3) The department makes a finding based on an exception 101961
review of resident assessment data conducted under section 101962
5165.193 of the Revised Code after the effective date of the 101963
nursing facility's rate for direct care costs that is based on the 101964
resident assessment data;101965

       (4) The department makes a finding based on a post-payment 101966
review conducted under section 5165.49 of the Revised Code.101967

       (B) The department shall apply the redetermined rate to the 101968
periods when the provider received the incorrect rate to determine 101969
the amount of the overpayment. The provider shall refund the 101970
amount of the overpayment. The department may charge the provider 101971
the following amount of interest from the time the overpayment was 101972
made:101973

       (1) If the overpayment resulted from costs reported for 101974
calendar year 1993, the interest shall be no greater than one and 101975
one-half times the current average bank prime rate.101976

       (2) If the overpayment resulted from costs reported for a 101977
subsequent calendar year:101978

       (a) The interest shall be no greater than two times the 101979
current average bank prime rate if the overpayment was no more 101980
than one per cent of the total medicaid payments to the provider 101981
for the fiscal year for which the overpayment was made.101982

       (b) The interest shall be no greater than two and one-half 101983
times the current average bank prime rate if the overpayment was 101984
more than one per cent of the total medicaid payments to the 101985
provider for the fiscal year for which the overpayment was made.101986

       Sec. 5165.42.  In addition to the other penalties authorized 101987
by this chapter, the department of medicaid may impose the 101988
following penalties on a nursing facility provider:101989

       (A) If the provider does not furnish invoices or other 101990
documentation that the department requests during an audit within 101991
sixty days after the request, a fine of no more than the greater 101992
of the following:101993

       (1) One thousand dollars per audit;101994

       (2) Twenty-five per cent of the cumulative amount by which 101995
the costs for which documentation was not furnished increased the 101996
total medicaid payments to the provider during the fiscal year for 101997
which the costs were used to determine a rate.101998

       (B) If an exiting operator or owner fails to provide notice 101999
of a facility closure or voluntary withdrawal of participation in 102000
the medicaid program as required by section 5165.50 of the Revised 102001
Code, or an exiting operator or owner and entering operator fail 102002
to provide notice of a change of operator as required by section 102003
5165.51 of the Revised Code, a fine of not more than the current 102004
average bank prime rate plus four per cent of the last two monthly 102005
payments.102006

       Sec. 5165.43.  For the purposes of sections 5165.41 and 102007
5165.42 of the Revised Code, the department of medicaid shall 102008
determine the current average bank prime rate using statistical 102009
release H.15, "selected interest rates," a weekly publication of 102010
the federal reserve board, or any successor publication. If 102011
statistical release H.15, or its successor, ceases to contain the 102012
bank prime rate information or ceases to be published, the 102013
department shall request a written statement of the average bank 102014
prime rate from the federal reserve bank of Cleveland or the 102015
federal reserve board.102016

       Sec. 5165.44.  (A) Except as provided in division (B) of this 102017
section, the department of medicaid shall deduct the following 102018
from the next available medicaid payment the department makes to a 102019
nursing facility provider who continues to participate in 102020
medicaid:102021

       (1) Any amount the provider is required to refund, and any 102022
interest charged, under section 5165.41 of the Revised Code;102023

       (2) The amount of any penalty imposed on the provider under 102024
section 5165.42 of the Revised Code.102025

       (B) The department and a nursing facility provider may enter 102026
into an agreement under which a deduction required by division (A) 102027
of this section is taken in installments from payments the 102028
department makes to the provider.102029

       Sec. 5165.45.  The department of medicaid shall transmit to 102030
the treasurer of state for deposit in the general revenue fund 102031
amounts collected from the following:102032

       (A) Refunds required by, and interest charged under, section 102033
5165.41 of the Revised Code;102034

       (B) Amounts collected from penalties imposed under section 102035
5165.42 of the Revised Code.102036

       Sec. 5165.46.  All of the following are subject to an 102037
adjudication conducted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 102038
Revised Code:102039

       (A) Any audit disallowance that the department of medicaid 102040
makes as the result of an audit under section 5165.109 of the 102041
Revised Code;102042

       (B) Any adverse finding that results from an exception review 102043
of resident assessment data conducted for a nursing facility under 102044
section 5165.193 of the Revised Code after the effective date of 102045
the nursing facility's medicaid payment rate for direct care costs 102046
that is based on the resident assessment data;102047

       (C) Any medicaid payment deemed an overpayment under section 102048
5165.523 of the Revised Code;102049

       (D) Any penalty the department imposes under section 5165.42 102050
of the Revised Code or section 5165.523 of the Revised Code.102051

       Sec. 5111.262.        Sec. 5165.47. No person, other than thea nursing 102052
facility provider of a nursing facility, shall submit a claim for 102053
medicaid reimbursementpayment for a service provided to a 102054
nursing facility resident if the service is included in a medicaid 102055
payment made to the nursing facility provider of a nursing 102056
facility under sections 5111.20 to 5111.33 of the Revised Code102057
this chapter or in the reimbursableallowable expenses reported 102058
on a provider's cost report for a nursing facility. No nursing 102059
facility provider of a nursing facility shall submit a separate 102060
claim for medicaid reimbursementpayment for a service provided 102061
to a resident of the nursing facility if the service is included 102062
in a medicaid payment made to the provider under sections 5111.20 102063
to 5111.331 of the Revised Codethis chapter or in the 102064
reimbursableallowable expenses on the provider's cost report for 102065
the nursing facility.102066

       Sec. 5111.0211.        Sec. 5165.48. As used in this section, "nursing 102067
facility" and "provider" have the same meanings as in section 102068
5111.20 of the Revised Code.102069

       The provider of a nursing facility is not required to submit 102070
a claim to the department of job and family servicesmedicaid102071
regarding the medicare cost-sharing expenses of a resident of the 102072
nursing facility who, under federal law, is eligible to have the 102073
medicaid program pay for a part of the cost-sharing expenses if 102074
the provider determines that, under rules adopted under section 102075
5111.025165.02 of the Revised Code, the nursing facility would 102076
not receive a medicaid payment for any part of the medicare 102077
cost-sharing expenses. In such a situation, a claim for the 102078
medicare cost-sharing expenses shall be considered to have been 102079
adjudicated at no payment.102080

       Sec. 5165.49.  The department of medicaid may conduct a 102081
post-payment review of a claim submitted by a nursing facility 102082
provider and paid by the medicaid program to determine whether the 102083
provider was overpaid. The department shall provide the provider a 102084
written summary of the review's results. The review's results are 102085
not subject to an adjudication under Chapter 119. of the Revised 102086
Code; however, the provider may request that the medicaid director 102087
reconsider the review's results. The director shall reconsider the 102088
review's results on receipt of a request made in good faith. The 102089
department shall not deduct any amounts the department claims to 102090
be due from the provider as a result of the review from the 102091
provider's medicaid payments pursuant to section 5165.44 of the 102092
Revised Code until the conclusion of the director's 102093
reconsideration, if any, of the review.102094

       Sec. 5111.66.        Sec. 5165.50. An exiting operator or owner of a 102095
nursing facility or intermediate care facility for the mentally 102096
retarded participating in the medicaid program shall provide the 102097
department of job and family servicesmedicaid written notice of a 102098
facility closure, voluntary termination, or voluntary withdrawal 102099
of participation not less than ninety days before the effective 102100
date of the facility closure, voluntary termination, or voluntary 102101
withdrawal of participation. The written notice shall be provided 102102
to the department in accordance with the method specified in rules 102103
adopted underauthorized by section 5111.6895165.53 of the 102104
Revised Code.102105

       The written notice shall include all of the following:102106

        (A) The name of the exiting operator and, if any, the exiting 102107
operator's authorized agent;102108

        (B) The name of the nursing facility or intermediate care 102109
facility for the mentally retarded that is the subject of the 102110
written notice;102111

        (C) The exiting operator's medicaid provider agreement number 102112
for the nursing facility that is the subject of the written 102113
notice;102114

        (D) The effective date of the facility closure, voluntary 102115
termination, or voluntary withdrawal of participation;102116

        (E) The signature of the exiting operator's or owner's 102117
representative.102118

       Sec. 5111.661.        Sec. 5165.501. An operator shall comply with section 102119
1919(c)(2)(F) of the "Social Security Act," 79 Stat. 286 (1965)102120
section 1919(c)(2)(F), 42 U.S.C. 1396r(c)(2)(F) if the operator's 102121
nursing facility undergoes a voluntary withdrawal of 102122
participation.102123

       Sec. 5111.67.        Sec. 5165.51. (A) An exiting operator or owner and 102124
entering operator shall provide the department of job and family 102125
servicesmedicaid written notice of a change of operator if the 102126
nursing facility or intermediate care facility for the mentally 102127
retarded participates in the medicaid program and the entering 102128
operator seeks to continue the nursing facility's participation. 102129
The written notice shall be provided to the department in 102130
accordance with the method specified in rules adopted under102131
authorized by section 5111.6895165.53 of the Revised Code. The 102132
written notice shall be provided to the department not later than 102133
forty-five days before the effective date of the change of 102134
operator if the change of operator does not entail the relocation 102135
of residents. The written notice shall be provided to the 102136
department not later than ninety days before the effective date of 102137
the change of operator if the change of operator entails the 102138
relocation of residents. 102139

       The written notice shall include all of the following:102140

        (1) The name of the exiting operator and, if any, the exiting 102141
operator's authorized agent;102142

        (2) The name of the nursing facility or intermediate care 102143
facility for the mentally retarded that is the subject of the 102144
change of operator;102145

        (3) The exiting operator's seven-digit medicaid legacy number 102146
and ten-digit national provider identifier number for the nursing102147
facility that is the subject of the change of operator;102148

        (4) The name of the entering operator;102149

        (5) The effective date of the change of operator;102150

        (6) The manner in which the entering operator becomes the 102151
nursing facility's operator, including through sale, lease, 102152
merger, or other action;102153

        (7) If the manner in which the entering operator becomes the 102154
nursing facility's operator involves more than one step, a 102155
description of each step;102156

        (8) Written authorization from the exiting operator or owner 102157
and entering operator for the department to process a provider 102158
agreement for the entering operator;102159

        (9) The names and addresses of the persons to whom the 102160
department should send initial correspondence regarding the change 102161
of operator;102162

       (10) If the nursing facility also participates in the 102163
medicare program, notification of whether the entering operator 102164
intends to accept assignment of the exiting operator's medicare 102165
provider agreement;102166

       (11) The signature of the exiting operator's or owner's 102167
representative.102168

        (B) An exiting operator or owner and entering operator 102169
immediately shall provide the department written notice of any 102170
changes to information included in a written notice of a change of 102171
operator that occur after that notice is provided to the 102172
department. The notice of the changes shall be provided to the 102173
department in accordance with the method specified in rules 102174
adopted underauthorized by section 5111.6895165.53 of the 102175
Revised Code.102176

       Sec. 5111.671.        Sec. 5165.511. The department of job and family 102177
servicesmedicaid may enter into a provider agreement with an 102178
entering operator that goes into effect at 12:01 a.m. on the 102179
effective date of the change of operator if all of the following 102180
requirements are met:102181

       (A) The department receives a properly completed written 102182
notice required by section 5111.675165.51 of the Revised Code on 102183
or before the date required by that section.102184

        (B) The department receives both of the following in 102185
accordance with the method specified in rules adopted under102186
authorized by section 5111.6895165.53 of the Revised Code and not 102187
later than ten days after the effective date of the change of 102188
operator:102189

        (1) From the entering operator, a completed application for a 102190
provider agreement and all other forms and documents specified in 102191
rules adopted underauthorized by section 5111.6895165.53 of the 102192
Revised Code;102193

       (2) From the exiting operator or owner, all forms and 102194
documents specified in rules adopted underauthorized by section 102195
5111.6895165.53 of the Revised Code.102196

        (C) The entering operator is eligible for medicaid payments 102197
as provided in section 5111.215165.06 of the Revised Code.102198

       Sec. 5111.672.        Sec. 5165.512. (A) The department of job and family 102199
servicesmedicaid may enter into a provider agreement with an 102200
entering operator that goes into effect at 12:01 a.m. on the date 102201
determined under division (B) of this section if all of the 102202
following are the case:102203

        (1) The department receives a properly completed written 102204
notice required by section 5111.675165.51 of the Revised Code.102205

        (2) The department receives, from the entering operator and 102206
in accordance with the method specified in rules adopted under102207
authorized by section 5111.6895165.53 of the Revised Code, a 102208
completed application for a provider agreement and all other forms 102209
and documents specified in rules adopted under that section. 102210

       (3) The department receives, from the exiting operator or 102211
owner and in accordance with the method specified in rules adopted 102212
underauthorized by section 5111.6895165.53 of the Revised Code, 102213
all forms and documents specified in rules adopted under that 102214
section.102215

        (4) One or more of the following apply:102216

       (a) The requirement of division (A)(1) of this section is met 102217
after the time required by section 5111.675165.51 of the Revised 102218
Code;102219

       (b) The requirement of division (A)(2) of this section is met 102220
more than ten days after the effective date of the change of 102221
operator;102222

       (c) The requirement of division (A)(3) of this section is met 102223
more than ten days after the effective date of the change of 102224
operator.102225

        (5) The entering operator is eligible for medicaid payments 102226
as provided in section 5111.215165.06 of the Revised Code.102227

        (B) The department shall determine the date a provider 102228
agreement entered into under this section is to go into effect as 102229
follows:102230

        (1) The effective date shall give the department sufficient 102231
time to process the change of operator, assure no duplicate 102232
payments are made, and make the withholding required by section 102233
5111.6815165.521 of the Revised Code.102234

        (2) The effective date shall be not earlier than the latest 102235
of the following:102236

       (a) The effective date of the change of operator;102237

       (b) The date that the entering operator complies with section 102238
5111.675165.51 of the Revised Code and division (A)(2) of this 102239
section;102240

       (c) The date that the exiting operator or owner complies with 102241
section 5111.675165.51 of the Revised Code and division (A)(3) of 102242
this section.102243

        (3) The effective date shall be not later than the following 102244
after the later of the dates specified in division (B)(2) of this 102245
section:102246

        (a) Forty-five days if the change of operator does not entail 102247
the relocation of residents;102248

        (b) Ninety days if the change of operator entails the 102249
relocation of residents.102250

       Sec. 5111.673.        Sec. 5165.513. A provider that enters into a 102251
provider agreement with the department of job and family services102252
medicaid under section 5111.6715165.511 or 5111.6725165.512 of 102253
the Revised Code shall do all of the following:102254

        (A) Comply with all applicable federal statutes and 102255
regulations;102256

        (B) Comply with section 5111.225165.07 of the Revised Code 102257
and all other applicable state statutes and rules;102258

        (C) Comply with all the terms and conditions of the exiting 102259
operator's provider agreement, including, but not limited to, all 102260
of the following:102261

        (1) Any plan of correction;102262

        (2) Compliance with health and safety standards;102263

        (3) Compliance with the ownership and financial interest 102264
disclosure requirements of 42 C.F.R. 455.104, 455.105, and 1002.3;102265

        (4) Compliance with the civil rights requirements of 45 102266
C.F.R. parts 80, 84, and 90;102267

        (5) Compliance with additional requirements imposed by the 102268
department;102269

        (6) Any sanctions relating to remedies for violation of the 102270
provider agreement, including deficiencies, compliance periods, 102271
accountability periods, monetary penalties, notification for 102272
correction of contract violations, and history of deficiencies.102273

       Sec. 5111.674.        Sec. 5165.514. In the case of a change of operator, 102274
the exiting operator shall be considered to be the operator of the 102275
nursing facility or intermediate care facility for the mentally 102276
retarded for purposes of the medicaid program, including medicaid 102277
payments, until the effective date of the entering operator's 102278
provider agreement if the provider agreement is entered into under 102279
section 5111.6715165.511 or 5111.6725165.512 of the Revised 102280
Code.102281

       Sec. 5111.675.        Sec. 5165.515. The department of job and family 102282
servicesmedicaid may enter into a provider agreement as provided 102283
in section 5111.225165.07 of the Revised Code, rather than 102284
section 5111.6715165.511 or 5111.6725165.512 of the Revised 102285
Code, with an entering operator if the entering operator does not 102286
agree to a provider agreement that satisfies the requirements of 102287
division (C) of section 5111.6735165.513 of the Revised Code. The 102288
department may not enter into the provider agreement unless the 102289
department of health certifies the nursing facility or 102290
intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded under Title 102291
XIX of the "Social Security Act," 79 Stat. 286 (1965), 42 U.S.C. 102292
1396, as amendedfor participation in medicaid. The effective date 102293
of the provider agreement shall not precede any of the following:102294

        (A) The date that the department of health certifies the 102295
nursing facility;102296

        (B) The effective date of the change of operator;102297

        (C) The date the requirement of section 5111.675165.51 of 102298
the Revised Code is satisfied.102299

       Sec. 5111.676.        Sec. 5165.516. The medicaid director of job and 102300
family services may adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119.102301
under section 5165.02 of the Revised Code governing adjustments 102302
to the medicaid reimbursementpayment rate for a nursing facility 102303
or intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded that 102304
undergoes a change of operator. No rate adjustment resulting from 102305
a change of operator shall be effective before the effective date 102306
of the entering operator's provider agreement. This is the case 102307
regardless of whether the provider agreement is entered into under 102308
section 5111.6715165.511, section 5111.6725165.512, or, pursuant 102309
to section 5111.6755165.515, section 5111.225165.07 of the 102310
Revised Code.102311

       Sec. 5111.677.        Sec. 5165.517. Neither of the followingThe 102312
department of health's determination that a change of operator has 102313
or has not occurred for purposes of licensure under Chapter 3721. 102314
of the Revised Code shall not affect the department of job and 102315
family services'medicaid's determination of whether or when a 102316
change of operator occurs or the effective date of an entering 102317
operator's provider agreement under section 5111.6715165.511, 102318
section 5111.6725165.512, or, pursuant to section 5111.675102319
5165.515, section 5111.225165.07 of the Revised Code:102320

       (A) The department of health's determination that a change of 102321
operator has or has not occurred for purposes of licensure under 102322
Chapter 3721. of the Revised Code;102323

        (B) The department of developmental disabilities' 102324
determination that a change of operator has or has not occurred 102325
for purposes of licensure under section 5123.19 of the Revised 102326
Code.102327

       Sec. 5111.68.        Sec. 5165.52. (A) On receipt of a written notice 102328
under section 5111.665165.50 of the Revised Code of a facility 102329
closure, voluntary termination, or voluntary withdrawal of 102330
participation, on receipt of a written notice under section 102331
5111.675165.51 of the Revised Code of a change of operator, or on 102332
the effective date of an involuntary termination, the department 102333
of job and family servicesmedicaid shall estimate the amount of 102334
any overpayments made under the medicaid program to the exiting 102335
operator, including overpayments the exiting operator disputes, 102336
and other actual and potential debts the exiting operator owes or 102337
may owe to the department and United States centers for medicare 102338
and medicaid services under the medicaid program, including a 102339
franchise permit fee. 102340

       (B) In estimating the exiting operator's other actual and 102341
potential debts to the department and the United States centers 102342
for medicare and medicaid services under the medicaid program, the 102343
department shall use a debt estimation methodology the medicaid102344
director of job and family services shall establish in rules 102345
adopted underauthorized by section 5111.6895165.53 of the 102346
Revised Code. The methodology shall provide for estimating all of 102347
the following that the department determines are applicable:102348

        (1) Refunds due the department under section 5111.275165.41102349
of the Revised Code;102350

        (2) Interest owed to the department and United States centers 102351
for medicare and medicaid services;102352

        (3) Final civil monetary and other penalties for which all 102353
right of appeal has been exhausted;102354

        (4) Money owed the department and United States centers for 102355
medicare and medicaid services from any outstanding final fiscal 102356
audit, including a final fiscal audit for the last fiscal year or 102357
portion thereof in which the exiting operator participated in the 102358
medicaid program;102359

       (5) Other amounts the department determines are applicable.102360

       (C) The department shall provide the exiting operator written 102361
notice of the department's estimate under division (A) of this 102362
section not later than thirty days after the department receives 102363
the notice under section 5111.665165.50 of the Revised Code of 102364
the facility closure, voluntary termination, or voluntary 102365
withdrawal of participation; the department receives the notice 102366
under section 5111.675165.51 of the Revised Code of the change 102367
of operator; or the effective date of the involuntary termination. 102368
The department's written notice shall include the basis for the 102369
estimate.102370

       Sec. 5111.681.        Sec. 5165.521. (A) Except as provided in divisions 102371
(B), (C), and (D) of this section, the department of job and 102372
family servicesmedicaid may withhold from payment due an exiting 102373
operator under the medicaid program the total amount specified in 102374
the notice provided under division (C) of section 5111.685165.52102375
of the Revised Code that the exiting operator owes or may owe to 102376
the department and United States centers for medicare and medicaid 102377
services under the medicaid program.102378

       (B) In the case of a change of operator and subject to 102379
division (E) of this section, the following shall apply regarding 102380
a withholding under division (A) of this section if the exiting 102381
operator or entering operator or an affiliated operator executes a 102382
successor liability agreement meeting the requirements of division 102383
(F) of this section:102384

        (1) If the exiting operator, entering operator, or affiliated 102385
operator assumes liability for the total, actual amount of debt 102386
the exiting operator owes the department and the United States 102387
centers for medicare and medicaid services under the medicaid 102388
program as determined under section 5111.6855165.525 of the 102389
Revised Code, the department shall not make the withholding.102390

       (2) If the exiting operator, entering operator, or affiliated 102391
operator assumes liability for only the portion of the amount 102392
specified in division (B)(1) of this section that represents the 102393
franchise permit fee the exiting operator owes, the department 102394
shall withhold not more than the difference between the total 102395
amount specified in the notice provided under division (C) of 102396
section 5111.685165.52 of the Revised Code and the amount for 102397
which the exiting operator, entering operator, or affiliated 102398
operator assumes liability.102399

        (C) In the case of a voluntary termination, voluntary 102400
withdrawal of participation, or facility closure and subject to 102401
division (E) of this section, the following shall apply regarding 102402
a withholding under division (A) of this section if the exiting 102403
operator or an affiliated operator executes a successor liability 102404
agreement meeting the requirements of division (F) of this 102405
section:102406

        (1) If the exiting operator or affiliated operator assumes 102407
liability for the total, actual amount of debt the exiting 102408
operator owes the department and the United States centers for 102409
medicare and medicaid services under the medicaid program as 102410
determined under section 5111.6855165.525 of the Revised Code, 102411
the department shall not make the withholding.102412

        (2) If the exiting operator or affiliated operator assumes 102413
liability for only the portion of the amount specified in division 102414
(C)(1) of this section that represents the franchise permit fee 102415
the exiting operator owes, the department shall withhold not more 102416
than the difference between the total amount specified in the 102417
notice provided under division (C) of section 5111.685165.52 of 102418
the Revised Code and the amount for which the exiting operator or 102419
affiliated operator assumes liability.102420

        (D) In the case of an involuntary termination and subject to 102421
division (E) of this section, the following shall apply regarding 102422
a withholding under division (A) of this section if the exiting 102423
operator, the entering operator, or an affiliated operator 102424
executes a successor liability agreement meeting the requirements 102425
of division (F) of this section and the department approves the 102426
successor liability agreement:102427

       (1) If the exiting operator, entering operator, or affiliated 102428
operator assumes liability for the total, actual amount of debt 102429
the exiting operator owes the department and the United States 102430
centers for medicare and medicaid services under the medicaid 102431
program as determined under section 5111.6855165.525 of the 102432
Revised Code, the department shall not make the withholding.102433

       (2) If the exiting operator, entering operator, or affiliated 102434
operator assumes liability for only the portion of the amount 102435
specified in division (D)(1) of this section that represents the 102436
franchise permit fee the exiting operator owes, the department 102437
shall withhold not more than the difference between the total 102438
amount specified in the notice provided under division (C) of 102439
section 5111.685165.52 of the Revised Code and the amount for 102440
which the exiting operator, entering operator, or affiliated 102441
operator assumes liability.102442

       (E) For an exiting operator or affiliated operator to be 102443
eligible to enter into a successor liability agreement under 102444
division (B), (C), or (D) of this section, both of the following 102445
must apply:102446

        (1) The exiting operator or affiliated operator must have one 102447
or more valid provider agreements, other than the provider 102448
agreement for the nursing facility or intermediate care facility 102449
for the mentally retarded that is the subject of the involuntary 102450
termination, voluntary termination, voluntary withdrawal of 102451
participation, facility closure, or change of operator;102452

        (2) During the twelve-month period preceding either the 102453
effective date of the involuntary termination or the month in 102454
which the department receives the notice of the voluntary 102455
termination, voluntary withdrawal of participation, or facility 102456
closure under section 5111.665165.50 of the Revised Code or the 102457
notice of the change of operator under section 5111.675165.51 of 102458
the Revised Code, the average monthly medicaid payment made to the 102459
exiting operator or affiliated operator pursuant to the exiting 102460
operator's or affiliated operator's one or more provider 102461
agreements, other than the provider agreement for the nursing 102462
facility or intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded102463
that is the subject of the involuntary termination, voluntary 102464
termination, voluntary withdrawal of participation, facility 102465
closure, or change of operator, must equal at least ninety per 102466
cent of the sum of the following:102467

        (a) The average monthly medicaid payment made to the exiting 102468
operator pursuant to the exiting operator's provider agreement for 102469
the nursing facility or intermediate care facility for the 102470
mentally retarded that is the subject of the involuntary 102471
termination, voluntary termination, voluntary withdrawal of 102472
participation, facility closure, or change of operator;102473

        (b) Whichever of the following apply:102474

       (i) If the exiting operator or affiliated operator has 102475
assumed liability under one or more other successor liability 102476
agreements, the total amount for which the exiting operator or 102477
affiliated operator has assumed liability under the other 102478
successor liability agreements;102479

       (ii) If the exiting operator or affiliated operator has not 102480
assumed liability under any other successor liability agreements, 102481
zero.102482

        (F) A successor liability agreement executed under this 102483
section must comply with all of the following:102484

        (1) It must provide for the operator who executes the 102485
successor liability agreement to assume liability for either of 102486
the following as specified in the agreement:102487

        (a) The total, actual amount of debt the exiting operator 102488
owes the department and the United States centers for medicare and 102489
medicaid services under the medicaid program as determined under 102490
section 5111.6855165.525 of the Revised Code;102491

        (b) The portion of the amount specified in division (F)(1)(a) 102492
of this section that represents the franchise permit fee the 102493
exiting operator owes.102494

        (2) It may not require the operator who executes the 102495
successor liability agreement to furnish a surety bond.102496

        (3) It must provide that the department, after determining 102497
under section 5111.6855165.525 of the Revised Code the actual 102498
amount of debt the exiting operator owes the department and United 102499
States centers for medicare and medicaid services under the 102500
medicaid program, may deduct the lesser of the following from 102501
medicaid payments made to the operator who executes the successor 102502
liability agreement:102503

        (a) The total, actual amount of debt the exiting operator 102504
owes the department and the United States centers for medicare and 102505
medicaid services under the medicaid program as determined under 102506
section 5111.6855165.525 of the Revised Code;102507

        (b) The amount for which the operator who executes the 102508
successor liability agreement assumes liability under the 102509
agreement.102510

        (4) It must provide that the deductions authorized by 102511
division (F)(3) of this section are to be made for a number of 102512
months, not to exceed six, agreed to by the operator who executes 102513
the successor liability agreement and the department or, if the 102514
operator who executes the successor liability agreement and 102515
department cannot agree on a number of months that is less than 102516
six, a greater number of months determined by the attorney general 102517
pursuant to a claims collection process authorized by statute of 102518
this state.102519

        (5) It must provide that, if the attorney general determines 102520
the number of months for which the deductions authorized by 102521
division (F)(3) of this section are to be made, the operator who 102522
executes the successor liability agreement shall pay, in addition 102523
to the amount collected pursuant to the attorney general's claims 102524
collection process, the part of the amount so collected that, if 102525
not for division (H) of this section, would be required by section 102526
109.081 of the Revised Code to be paid into the attorney general 102527
claims fund.102528

        (G) Execution of a successor liability agreement does not 102529
waive an exiting operator's right to contest the amount specified 102530
in the notice the department provides the exiting operator under 102531
division (C) of section 5111.685165.52 of the Revised Code. 102532

       (H) Notwithstanding section 109.081 of the Revised Code, the 102533
entire amount that the attorney general, whether by employees or 102534
agents of the attorney general or by special counsel appointed 102535
pursuant to section 109.08 of the Revised Code, collects under a 102536
successor liability agreement, other than the additional amount 102537
the operator who executes the agreement is required by division 102538
(F)(5) of this section to pay, shall be paid to the department of 102539
job and family servicesmedicaid for deposit into the appropriate 102540
fund. The additional amount that the operator is required to pay 102541
shall be paid into the state treasury to the credit of the 102542
attorney general claims fund created under section 109.081 of the 102543
Revised Code.102544

       Sec. 5111.682.        Sec. 5165.522. (A) Except as provided in division 102545
(B) of this section, an exiting operator shall file with the 102546
department of job and family servicesmedicaid a cost report not 102547
later than ninety days after the last day the exiting operator's 102548
provider agreement is in effect or, in the case of a voluntary 102549
withdrawal of participation, the effective date of the voluntary 102550
withdrawal of participation. The cost report shall cover the 102551
period that begins with the day after the last day covered by the 102552
operator's most recent previous cost report required by section 102553
5111.265165.10 of the Revised Code and ends on the last day the 102554
exiting operator's provider agreement is in effect or, in the case 102555
of a voluntary withdrawal of participation, the effective date of 102556
the voluntary withdrawal of participation. The cost report shall 102557
include, as applicable, all of the following:102558

        (1) The sale price of the nursing facility or intermediate 102559
care facility for the mentally retarded;102560

        (2) A final depreciation schedule that shows which assets are 102561
transferred to the buyer and which assets are not transferred to 102562
the buyer;102563

        (3) Any other information the department requires.102564

        (B) The department, at its sole discretion, may waive the 102565
requirement that an exiting operator file a cost report in 102566
accordance with division (A) of this section.102567

       Sec. 5111.683.        Sec. 5165.523. If an exiting operator required by 102568
section 5111.6825165.522 of the Revised Code to file a cost 102569
report with the department of job and family servicesmedicaid102570
fails to file the cost report in accordance with that section, all 102571
payments under the medicaid program for the period the cost report 102572
is required to cover are deemed overpayments until the date the 102573
department receives the properly completed cost report. The 102574
department may impose on the exiting operator a penalty of one 102575
hundred dollars for each calendar day the properly completed cost 102576
report is late.102577

       Sec. 5111.684.        Sec. 5165.524. The department of job and family 102578
servicesmedicaid may not provide an exiting operator final 102579
payment under the medicaid program until the department receives 102580
all properly completed cost reports the exiting operator is 102581
required to file under sections 5111.265165.10 and 5111.682102582
5165.522 of the Revised Code.102583

       Sec. 5111.685.        Sec. 5165.525. The department of job and family 102584
servicesmedicaid shall determine the actual amount of debt an 102585
exiting operator owes the department and the United States centers 102586
for medicare and medicaid services under the medicaid program by 102587
completing all final fiscal audits not already completed and 102588
performing all other appropriate actions the department determines 102589
to be necessary. The department shall issue an initial debt 102590
summary report on this matter not later than sixty days after the 102591
date the exiting operator files the properly completed cost report 102592
required by section 5111.6825165.522 of the Revised Code with the 102593
department or, if the department waives the cost report 102594
requirement for the exiting operator, sixty days after the date 102595
the department waives the cost report requirement. The initial 102596
debt summary report becomes the final debt summary report 102597
thirty-one days after the department issues the initial debt 102598
summary report unless the exiting operator, or an affiliated 102599
operator who executes a successor liability agreement under 102600
section 5111.6815165.521 of the Revised Code, requests a review 102601
before that date.102602

        The exiting operator, and an affiliated operator who executes 102603
a successor liability agreement under section 5111.6815165.521 of 102604
the Revised Code, may request a review to contest any of the 102605
department's findings included in the initial debt summary report. 102606
The request for the review must be submitted to the department not 102607
later than thirty days after the date the department issues the 102608
initial debt summary report. The department shall conduct the 102609
review on receipt of a timely request and issue a revised debt 102610
summary report. If the department has withheld money from payment 102611
due the exiting operator under division (A) of section 5111.681102612
5165.521 of the Revised Code, the department shall issue the 102613
revised debt summary report not later than ninety days after the 102614
date the department receives the timely request for the review 102615
unless the department and exiting operator or affiliated operator 102616
agree to a later date. The exiting operator or affiliated operator 102617
may submit information to the department explaining what the 102618
operator contests before and during the review, including 102619
documentation of the amount of any debt the department owes the 102620
operator. The exiting operator or affiliated operator may submit 102621
additional information to the department not later than thirty 102622
days after the department issues the revised debt summary report. 102623
The revised debt summary report becomes the final debt summary 102624
report thirty-one days after the department issues the revised 102625
debt summary report unless the exiting operator or affiliated 102626
operator timely submits additional information to the department. 102627
If the exiting operator or affiliated operator timely submits 102628
additional information to the department, the department shall 102629
consider the additional information and issue a final debt summary 102630
report not later than sixty days after the department issues the 102631
revised debt summary report unless the department and exiting 102632
operator or affiliated operator agree to a later date.102633

       Each debt summary report the department issues under this 102634
section shall include the department's findings and the amount of 102635
debt the department determines the exiting operator owes the 102636
department and United States centers for medicare and medicaid 102637
services under the medicaid program. The department shall explain 102638
its findings and determination in each debt summary report.102639

       The exiting operator, and an affiliated operator who executes 102640
a successor liability agreement under section 5111.6815165.521 of 102641
the Revised Code, may request, in accordance with Chapter 119. of 102642
the Revised Code, an adjudication regarding a finding in a final 102643
debt summary report that pertains to an audit or alleged 102644
overpayment made under the medicaid program to the exiting 102645
operator. The adjudication shall be consolidated with any other 102646
uncompleted adjudication that concerns a matter addressed in the 102647
final debt summary report.102648

       Sec. 5111.686.        Sec. 5165.526. The department of job and family 102649
servicesmedicaid shall release the actual amount withheld under 102650
division (A) of section 5111.6815165.521 of the Revised Code, 102651
less any amount the exiting operator owes the department and 102652
United States centers for medicare and medicaid services under the 102653
medicaid program, as follows:102654

        (A) Unless the department issues the initial debt summary 102655
report required by section 5111.6855165.525 of the Revised Code 102656
not later than sixty days after the date the exiting operator 102657
files the properly completed cost report required by section 102658
5111.6825165.522 of the Revised Code, sixty-one days after the 102659
date the exiting operator files the properly completed cost 102660
report;102661

        (B) If the department issues the initial debt summary report 102662
required by section 5111.6855165.525 of the Revised Code not 102663
later than sixty days after the date the exiting operator files a 102664
properly completed cost report required by section 5111.682102665
5165.522 of the Revised Code, not later than the following:102666

        (1) Thirty days after the deadline for requesting an 102667
adjudication under section 5111.6855165.525 of the Revised Code 102668
regarding the final debt summary report if the exiting operator, 102669
and an affiliated operator who executes a successor liability 102670
agreement under section 5111.6815165.521 of the Revised Code, 102671
fail to request the adjudication on or before the deadline;102672

       (2) Thirty days after the completion of an adjudication of 102673
the final debt summary report if the exiting operator, or an 102674
affiliated operator who executes a successor liability agreement 102675
under section 5111.6815165.521 of the Revised Code, requests the 102676
adjudication on or before the deadline for requesting the 102677
adjudication.102678

        (C) Unless the department issues the initial debt summary 102679
report required by section 5111.6855165.525 of the Revised Code 102680
not later than sixty days after the date the department waives the 102681
cost report requirement of section 5111.6825165.522 of the 102682
Revised Code, sixty-one days after the date the department waives 102683
the cost report requirement;102684

        (D) If the department issues the initial debt summary report 102685
required by section 5111.6855165.525 of the Revised Code not 102686
later than sixty days after the date the department waives the 102687
cost report requirement of section 5111.6825165.522 of the 102688
Revised Code, not later than the following:102689

        (1) Thirty days after the deadline for requesting an 102690
adjudication under section 5111.6855165.525 of the Revised Code 102691
regarding the final debt summary report if the exiting operator, 102692
and an affiliated operator who executes a successor liability 102693
agreement under section 5111.6815165.521 of the Revised Code, 102694
fail to request the adjudication on or before the deadline;102695

        (2) Thirty days after the completion of an adjudication of 102696
the final debt summary report if the exiting operator, or an 102697
affiliated operator who executes a successor liability agreement 102698
under section 5111.6815165.521 of the Revised Code, requests the 102699
adjudication on or before the deadline for requesting the 102700
adjudication.102701

       Sec. 5111.687.        Sec. 5165.527. The department of job and family 102702
servicesmedicaid, at its sole discretion, may release the amount 102703
withheld under division (A) of section 5111.6815165.521 of the 102704
Revised Code if the exiting operator submits to the department 102705
written notice of a postponement of a change of operator, facility 102706
closure, voluntary termination, or voluntary withdrawal of 102707
participation and the transactions leading to the change of 102708
operator, facility closure, voluntary termination, or voluntary 102709
withdrawal of participation are postponed for at least thirty days 102710
but less than ninety days after the date originally proposed for 102711
the change of operator, facility closure, voluntary termination,102712
or voluntary withdrawal of participation as reported in the 102713
written notice required by section 5111.665165.50 or 5111.67102714
5165.51 of the Revised Code. The department shall release the 102715
amount withheld if the exiting operator submits to the department 102716
written notice of a cancellation or postponement of a change of 102717
operator, facility closure, voluntary termination, or voluntary 102718
withdrawal of participation and the transactions leading to the 102719
change of operator, facility closure, voluntary termination, or 102720
voluntary withdrawal of participation are canceled or postponed 102721
for more than ninety days after the date originally proposed for 102722
the change of operator, facility closure, voluntary termination,102723
or voluntary withdrawal of participation as reported in the 102724
written notice required by section 5111.665165.50 or 5111.67102725
5165.51 of the Revised Code. A written notice shall be provided to 102726
the department in accordance with the method specified in rules 102727
adopted underauthorized by section 5111.6895165.53 of the 102728
Revised Code.102729

        After the department receives a written notice regarding a 102730
cancellation or postponement of a facility closure, voluntary 102731
termination, or voluntary withdrawal of participation, the exiting 102732
operator or owner shall provide new written notice to the 102733
department under section 5111.665165.50 of the Revised Code 102734
regarding any transactions leading to a facility closure, 102735
voluntary termination, or voluntary withdrawal of participation at 102736
a future time. After the department receives a written notice 102737
regarding a cancellation or postponement of a change of operator, 102738
the exiting operator or owner and entering operator shall provide 102739
new written notice to the department under section 5111.675165.51102740
of the Revised Code regarding any transactions leading to a change 102741
of operator at a future time.102742

       Sec. 5111.688.        Sec. 5165.528. (A) All amounts withheld under 102743
section 5111.6815165.521 of the Revised Code from payment due an 102744
exiting operator under the medicaid program shall be deposited 102745
into the medicaid payment withholding fund created by the 102746
controlling board pursuant to section 131.35 of the Revised Code. 102747
Money in the fund shall be used as follows:102748

       (1) To pay an exiting operator when a withholding is released 102749
to the exiting operator under section 5111.6865165.526 or 102750
5111.6875165.527 of the Revised Code;102751

       (2) To pay the department of job and family servicesmedicaid102752
and United States centers for medicare and medicaid services the 102753
amount an exiting operator owes the department and United States 102754
centers under the medicaid program.102755

       (B) Amounts paid from the medicaid payment withholding fund 102756
pursuant to division (A)(2) of this section shall be deposited 102757
into the appropriate department fund.102758

       Sec. 5111.689.        Sec. 5165.53.  The medicaid director of job and 102759
family services shall adopt rules under section 5111.025165.02 of 102760
the Revised Code to implement sections 5111.655165.50 to 5111.689102761
5165.53 of the Revised Code, including rules applicable to an 102762
exiting operator that provides written notification under section 102763
5111.665165.50 of the Revised Code of a voluntary withdrawal of 102764
participation. Rules adopted under this section shall comply with 102765
section 1919(c)(2)(F) of the "Social Security Act," 79 Stat. 286 102766
(1965)section 1919(c)(2)(F), 42 U.S.C. 1396r(c)(2)(F), regarding 102767
restrictions on transfers or discharges of nursing facility 102768
residents in the case of a voluntary withdrawal of participation. 102769
The rules may prescribe a medicaid reimbursementpayment102770
methodology and other procedures that are applicable after the 102771
effective date of a voluntary withdrawal of participation that 102772
differ from the reimbursementpayment methodology and other 102773
procedures that would otherwise apply. The rules shall specify all 102774
of the following: 102775

       (A) The method by which written notices to the department 102776
required by sections 5111.655165.50 to 5111.6895165.53 of the 102777
Revised Code are to be provided;102778

       (B) The forms and documents that are to be provided to the 102779
department of medicaid under sections 5111.6715165.511 and 102780
5111.6725165.512 of the Revised Code, which shall include, in the 102781
case of such forms and documents provided by entering operators, 102782
all the fully executed leases, management agreements, merger 102783
agreements and supporting documents, and fully executed sales 102784
contracts and any other supporting documents culminating in the 102785
change of operator;102786

       (C) The method by which the forms and documents identified in 102787
division (B) of this section are to be provided to the department.102788

       Sec. 5111.35.        Sec. 5165.60.  As used in this section, "a resident's 102789
rights" means the rights of a nursing facility resident under 102790
sections 3721.10 to 3721.17 of the Revised Code and subsection (c) 102791
of section 1819 or 1919 of, the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 102792
620 (1935)sections 1819(c) and 1919(c), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as 102793
amended1395i-3(c) and 1396r(c), and federal regulations issued 102794
under those subsectionssections of the "Social Security Act."102795

       As used in sections 5111.355165.60 to 5111.625165.89 of the 102796
Revised Code:102797

       (A) "Certification requirements" means the requirements for 102798
nursing facilities established under sections 1819 and 1919 of the 102799
"Social Security Act.," sections 1819 and 1919, 42 U.S.C. 1395i-3 102800
and 1396r.102801

       (B) "Compliance" means substantially meeting all applicable 102802
certification requirements.102803

       (C) "Contracting agency" means a state agency that has 102804
entered into a contract with the department of job and family 102805
servicesmedicaid under section 5111.385165.63 of the Revised 102806
Code.102807

       (D)(1) "Deficiency" means a finding cited by the department 102808
of health during a survey, on the basis of one or more actions, 102809
practices, situations, or incidents occurring at a nursing 102810
facility, that constitutes a severity level three finding, 102811
severity level four finding, scope level three finding, or scope 102812
level four finding. Whenever the finding is a repeat finding, 102813
"deficiency" also includes any finding that is a severity level 102814
two and scope level one finding, a severity level two and scope 102815
level two finding, or a severity level one and scope level two 102816
finding.102817

       (2) "Cluster of deficiencies" means deficiencies that result 102818
from noncompliance with two or more certification requirements and 102819
are causing or resulting from the same action, practice, 102820
situation, or incident.102821

       (E) "Emergency" means either of the following:102822

       (1) A deficiency or cluster of deficiencies that creates a 102823
condition of immediate jeopardy;102824

       (2) An unexpected situation or sudden occurrence of a serious 102825
or urgent nature that creates a substantial likelihood that one or 102826
more residents of a nursing facility may be seriously harmed if 102827
allowed to remain in the facility, including the following:102828

       (a) A flood or other natural disaster, civil disaster, or 102829
similar event;102830

       (b) A labor strike that suddenly causes the number of staff 102831
members in a nursing facility to be below that necessary for 102832
resident care.102833

       (F) "Finding" means a finding of noncompliance with 102834
certification requirements determined by the department of health 102835
under section 5111.415165.66 of the Revised Code.102836

       (G) "Immediate jeopardy" means that one or more residents of 102837
a nursing facility are in imminent danger of serious physical or 102838
life-threatening harm.102839

       (H) "Medicaid eligible resident" means a person who is a 102840
resident of a nursing facility, or is applying for admission to a 102841
nursing facility, and is eligible to receive financial assistance102842
for nursing facility services under the medical assistance102843
medicaid program for the care the person receives in such a 102844
facility.102845

       (I) "Noncompliance" means failure to substantially meet all 102846
applicable certification requirements.102847

       (J) "Nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 102848
5111.20 of the Revised Codeincludes a skilled nursing facility to 102849
the extent the context requires.102850

       (K) "Provider" means a person, institution, or entity that 102851
furnishes nursing facility services under a medical assistance 102852
program provider agreement.102853

       (L) "Provider agreement" means a contract between the 102854
department of job and family services and a provider for the 102855
provision of nursing facility services under the medicaid program.102856

       (M) "Repeat finding" or "repeat deficiency" means a finding 102857
or deficiency cited pursuant to a survey, to which both of the 102858
following apply:102859

       (1) The finding or deficiency involves noncompliance with the 102860
same certification requirement, and the same kind of actions, 102861
practices, situations, or incidents caused by or resulting from 102862
the noncompliance, as were cited in the immediately preceding 102863
standard survey or another survey conducted subsequent to the 102864
immediately preceding standard survey of the facility. For 102865
purposes of this division, actions, practices, situations, or 102866
incidents may be of the same kind even though they involve 102867
different residents, staff, or parts of the facility.102868

       (2) The finding or deficiency is cited subsequent to a 102869
determination by the department of health that the finding or 102870
deficiency cited on the immediately preceding standard survey, or 102871
another survey conducted subsequent to the immediately preceding 102872
standard survey, had been corrected.102873

       (N)(L)(1) "Scope level one finding" means a finding of 102874
noncompliance by a nursing facility in which the actions, 102875
situations, practices, or incidents causing or resulting from the 102876
noncompliance affect one or a very limited number of facility 102877
residents and involve one or a very limited number of facility 102878
staff members.102879

       (2) "Scope level two finding" means a finding of 102880
noncompliance by a nursing facility in which the actions, 102881
situations, practices, or incidents causing or resulting from the 102882
noncompliance affect more than a limited number of facility 102883
residents or involve more than a limited number of facility staff 102884
members, but the number or percentage of facility residents 102885
affected or staff members involved and the number or frequency of 102886
the actions, situations, practices, or incidents in short 102887
succession does not establish any reasonable degree of 102888
predictability of similar actions, situations, practices, or 102889
incidents occurring in the future.102890

       (3) "Scope level three finding" means a finding of 102891
noncompliance by a nursing facility in which the actions, 102892
situations, practices, or incidents causing or resulting from the 102893
noncompliance affect more than a limited number of facility 102894
residents or involve more than a limited number of facility staff 102895
members, and the number or percentage of facility residents 102896
affected or staff members involved or the number or frequency of 102897
the actions, situations, practices, or incidents in short 102898
succession establishes a reasonable degree of predictability of 102899
similar actions, situations, practices, or incidents occurring in 102900
the future.102901

       (4) "Scope level four finding" means a finding of 102902
noncompliance by a nursing facility causing or resulting from 102903
actions, situations, practices, or incidents that involve a 102904
sufficient number or percentage of facility residents or staff 102905
members or occur with sufficient regularity over time that the 102906
noncompliance can be considered systemic or pervasive in the 102907
facility.102908

       (O)(M)(1) "Severity level one finding" means a finding of 102909
noncompliance by a nursing facility that has not caused and, if 102910
continued, is unlikely to cause physical harm to a facility 102911
resident, mental or emotional harm to a resident, or a violation 102912
of a resident's rights that results in physical, mental, or 102913
emotional harm to the resident.102914

       (2) "Severity level two finding" means a finding of 102915
noncompliance by a nursing facility that, if continued over time, 102916
will cause, or is likely to cause, physical harm to a facility 102917
resident, mental or emotional harm to a resident, or a violation 102918
of a resident's rights that results in physical, mental, or 102919
emotional harm to the resident.102920

       (3) "Severity level three finding" means a finding of 102921
noncompliance by a nursing facility that has caused physical harm 102922
to a facility resident, mental or emotional harm to a resident, or 102923
a violation of a resident's rights that results in physical, 102924
mental, or emotional harm to the resident.102925

       (4) "Severity level four finding" means a finding of 102926
noncompliance by a nursing facility that has caused 102927
life-threatening harm to a facility resident or caused a 102928
resident's death.102929

       (P)(N) "State agency" has the same meaning as in section 1.60 102930
of the Revised Code.102931

       (Q)(O) "Substandard care" means care furnished in a facility 102932
in which the department of health has cited a deficiency or 102933
deficiencies that constitute one of the following:102934

       (1) A severity level four finding, regardless of scope;102935

       (2) A severity level three and scope level four finding, in 102936
the quality of care provided to residents;102937

       (3) A severity level three and scope level three finding, in 102938
the quality of care provided to residents.102939

       (R)(P)(1) "Survey" means a survey of a nursing facility 102940
conducted under section 5111.395165.64 of the Revised Code.102941

       (2) "Standard survey" means a survey conducted by the 102942
department of health under division (A) of section 5111.395165.64102943
of the Revised Code and includes an extended survey.102944

       (3) "Follow-up survey" means a survey conducted by the 102945
department of health to determine whether a nursing facility has 102946
substantially corrected deficiencies cited in a previous survey.102947

       Sec. 5111.36.        Sec. 5165.61.  The medicaid director of job and 102948
family services may adopt rules under Chapter 119.section 5165.02102949
of the Revised Code that are consistent with regulations, 102950
guidelines, and procedures issued by the United States secretary 102951
of health and human services under sections 1819 and 1919 of the 102952
"Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935)sections 1819 and 1919, 102953
42 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended1395i-3 and 1396r, and necessary for 102954
administration and enforcement of sections 5111.355165.60 to 102955
5111.625165.89 of the Revised Code. If the secretary does not 102956
issue appropriate regulations for enforcement of those sections 102957
1819 and 1919 of the "Social Security Act" on or before December 102958
13, 1990, the medicaid director of job and family services may 102959
adopt, under Chapter 119.section 5165.02 of the Revised Code, 102960
rules that are consistent with those sections and with sections 102961
5111.355165.60 to 5111.625165.89 of the Revised Code.102962

       Sec. 5111.37.        Sec. 5165.62.  The department of job and family 102963
servicesmedicaid is hereby authorized to enforce sections 102964
5111.355165.60 to 5111.625165.89 of the Revised Code. The 102965
department may enforce the sections directly or through 102966
contracting agencies. The department and agencies shall enforce 102967
the sections in accordance with the requirements of sections 1819 102968
and 1919 of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935)102969
sections 1819 and 1919, 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended1395i-3 and 102970
1396r, that apply to nursing facilities; with regulations, 102971
guidelines, and procedures adopted by the United States secretary 102972
of health and human services for the enforcement of those sections 102973
1819 and 1919 of the "Social Security Act"; and with the rules 102974
adopted underauthorized by section 5111.365165.61 of the Revised 102975
Code. The department and agencies shall enforce sections 5111.35102976
5165.60 to 5111.625165.89 of the Revised Code for purposes of the 102977
medicare program, Title XVIII of the "Social Security Act," only 102978
to the extent prescribed by the regulations, guidelines, and 102979
procedures issued by the secretary under section 1819 of that act102980
the "Social Security Act," section 1819, 42 U.S.C. 1395i-3.102981

       Sec. 5111.38.        Sec. 5165.63.  The department of job and family 102982
servicesmedicaid may enter into contracts with other state 102983
agencies pursuant to section 5162.35 of the Revised Code that 102984
authorize the agencies to perform all or part of the duties 102985
assigned to the department of job and family servicesmedicaid102986
under sections 5111.355165.60 to 5111.625165.89 of the Revised 102987
Code. Each contract shall specify the duties the agency is 102988
authorized to perform and the sections of the Revised Code under 102989
which the agency is authorized to perform those duties.102990

       Sec. 5111.39.        Sec. 5165.64.  (A) The department of health shall 102991
conduct a survey, titled a standard survey, of every nursing 102992
facility in this state on a statewide average of not more than 102993
once every twelve months. Each nursing facility shall undergo a 102994
standard survey at least once every fifteen months as a condition 102995
of meeting certification requirements. The department may extend a 102996
standard survey; such a survey is titled an extended survey.102997

       (B) The department may conduct surveys in addition to 102998
standard surveys when it considers them necessary.102999

       (C) The department shall conduct surveys in accordance with 103000
the regulations, guidelines, and procedures issued by the United 103001
States secretary of health and human services under TitlesTitle103002
XVIII and Title XIX of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 103003
(1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended, sections 5111.405165.65 to 103004
5111.425165.68 of the Revised Code, and rules adopted under 103005
section 3721.022 of the Revised Code.103006

       Sec. 5111.40.        Sec. 5165.65.  (A) At the conclusion of each survey, 103007
the department of health survey team shall conduct an exit 103008
interview with the administrator or other person in charge of the 103009
nursing facility and any other facility staff members designated 103010
by the administrator or person in charge of the facility. During 103011
the exit interview, at the request of the administrator or other 103012
person in charge of the facility, the survey team shall provide 103013
one of the following, as selected by the survey team:103014

       (1) Copies of all survey notes and any other written 103015
materials created during the survey;103016

       (2) A written summary of the survey team's recommendations 103017
regarding findings of noncompliance with certification 103018
requirements;103019

       (3) An audio or audiovisual recording of the interview. If 103020
the survey team selects this option, at least two copies of the 103021
recording shall be made and the survey team shall select one copy 103022
to be kept by the survey team for use by the department of health.103023

       (B) All expenses of copying under division (A)(1) of this 103024
section or recording under division (A)(3) of this section, 103025
including the cost of the copy of the recording kept by the survey 103026
team, shall be paid by the facility.103027

       Sec. 5111.41.        Sec. 5165.66.  (A) Except as provided in section 103028
3721.17 of the Revised Code, a finding shall be cited only on the 103029
basis of a survey and a determination that one or more actions, 103030
practices, situations, or incidents at a nursing facility caused 103031
or resulted from the facility's failure to comply with one or more 103032
certification requirements. The department of health shall 103033
determine whether the actions, practices, situations, or incidents 103034
can be justified by either of the following:103035

       (1) The actions, practices, situations, or incidents resulted 103036
from a resident exercising the resident's rights guaranteed under 103037
the laws of the United States or of this state;103038

       (2) The actions, practices, situations, or incidents resulted 103039
from a facility following the orders of a person licensed under 103040
Chapter 4731. of the Revised Code to practice medicine or surgery 103041
or osteopathic medicine and surgery.103042

       (B) If the department of health determines both that the 103043
actions, practices, situations, or incidents cannot be justified 103044
by the factors identified in division (A) of this section and that 103045
one or more of the following are applicable, the department shall 103046
declare that the actions, practices, situations, or incidents 103047
constitute a finding:103048

       (1) The actions, practices, situations, or incidents could 103049
have been prevented by one or more persons involved in the 103050
facility's operation;103051

       (2) No person involved in the facility's operation identified 103052
the actions, practices, situations, or incidents prior to the 103053
survey;103054

       (3) Prior to the survey, no person involved in the facility's 103055
operation initiated action to correct the noncompliance caused by 103056
or resulting in the actions, practices, situations, or incidents;103057

       (4) The facility does not have in effect, if needed, a 103058
contingency plan that is reasonably calculated to prevent 103059
physical, mental, or emotional harm to residents while permanent 103060
corrective action is being taken.103061

       (C) The department of health shall determine the severity 103062
level and scope level of each finding.103063

       (D) A deficiency that is substantially corrected within the 103064
time limits specified in sections 5111.525165.79 to 103065
5111.565165.83 of the Revised Code and for which no remedy is 103066
imposed, shall be counted as a deficiency for the purpose of 103067
determining whether a deficiency is a repeat deficiency.103068

       (E) Whenever the department of health determines that during 103069
the period between two surveys a finding existed at the facility, 103070
but the facility substantially corrected it prior to the second 103071
survey, the department shall cite it. However, the department of 103072
job and family servicesmedicaid or a contracting agency shall 103073
impose a remedy only as provided in division (C) of section 103074
5111.465165.72 of the Revised Code.103075

       (F) Immediately upon determining the severity and scope of a 103076
finding at a nursing facility, the department of health shall 103077
notify the department of job and family servicesmedicaid and any 103078
contracting agency of the finding, the severity and scope of the 103079
finding, and whether the finding creates immediate jeopardy. 103080
Immediately upon determining that an emergency exists at a 103081
facility that does not result from a deficiency that creates 103082
immediate jeopardy, the department of health shall notify the 103083
department of job and family servicesmedicaid and any contracting 103084
agency.103085

       Sec. 5111.411.        Sec. 5165.67.  The results of a survey of a nursing 103086
facility that is conducted under section 5111.395165.64 of the 103087
Revised Code, including any statement of deficiencies and all 103088
findings and deficiencies cited in the statement on the basis of 103089
the survey, shall be used solely to determine the nursing 103090
facility's compliance with certification requirements or with this 103091
chapter or another chapter of the Revised Code. Those results of a 103092
survey, that statement of deficiencies, and the findings and 103093
deficiencies cited in that statement shall not be used in any 103094
court or in any action or proceeding that is pending in any court 103095
and are not admissible in evidence in any action or proceeding 103096
unless that action or proceeding is an appeal of an administrative 103097
action by the department of job and family servicesmedicaid or 103098
contracting agency under this chapter or is an action by any 103099
department or agency of the state to enforce this chapter or 103100
another chapter of the Revised Code.103101

       Nothing in this section prohibits the results of a survey, a 103102
statement of deficiencies, or the findings and deficiencies cited 103103
in that statement on the basis of the survey under this section 103104
from being used in a criminal investigation or prosecution.103105

       Sec. 5111.42.        Sec. 5165.68.  (A) Not later than ten days after an 103106
exit interview, the department of health shall deliver to the 103107
nursing facility a detailed statement, titled a statement of 103108
deficiencies, setting forth all findings and deficiencies cited on 103109
the basis of the survey, including any finding cited pursuant to 103110
division (E) of section 5111.415165.66 of the Revised Code. The 103111
statement shall indicate the severity and scope level of each 103112
finding and fully describe the incidents or other facts that form 103113
the basis of the department's determination of the existence of 103114
each finding and deficiency. A failure by the survey team to 103115
completely disclose in the exit interview every finding that may 103116
result from the survey does not affect the validity of any finding 103117
or deficiency cited in the statement of deficiencies. On request 103118
of the facility, the department shall provide a copy of any 103119
written worksheet or other document produced by the survey team in 103120
making recommendations regarding scope and severity levels of 103121
findings and deficiencies.103122

       (B) At the same time the department of health delivers a 103123
statement of deficiencies, it also shall deliver to the facility a 103124
separate written notice that states all of the following:103125

       (1) That the department of job and family servicesmedicaid103126
or a contracting agency will issue an order under section 5111.57103127
5165.84 of the Revised Code denying payment for any medicaid 103128
eligible residents admitted on and after the effective date of the 103129
order if the facility does not substantially correct, within 103130
ninety days after the exit interview, the deficiency or 103131
deficiencies cited in the statement of deficiencies in accordance 103132
with the plan of correction it submitted under section 5111.43103133
5165.69 of the Revised Code;103134

       (2) If a condition of substandard care has been cited on the 103135
basis of a standard survey and a condition of substandard care was 103136
also cited on the immediately preceding standard survey, that the 103137
department of job and family servicesmedicaid or a contracting 103138
agency will issue an order under section 5111.575165.84 of the 103139
Revised Code denying payment for any medicaid eligible residents 103140
admitted on and after the effective date of the order if a 103141
condition of substandard care is cited on the basis of the next 103142
standard survey;103143

       (3) That the department of job and family servicesmedicaid103144
or a contracting agency will issue an order under section 5111.58103145
5165.88 of the Revised Code terminating the facility's 103146
participation in the medical assistancemedicaid program if either 103147
of the following applies:103148

       (a) The facility does not substantially correct the 103149
deficiency or deficiencies in accordance with the plan of 103150
correction it submitted under section 5111.435165.69 of the 103151
Revised Code within six months after the exit interview.103152

       (b) The facility substantially corrects the deficiency or 103153
deficiencies within the six-month period, but after correcting it, 103154
the department of health, based on a follow-up survey conducted 103155
during the remainder of the six-month period, determines that the 103156
facility has failed to maintain compliance with certification 103157
requirements.103158

       Sec. 5111.43.        Sec. 5165.69. (A) Whenever a nursing facility 103159
receives a statement of deficiencies under section 5111.425165.68103160
of the Revised Code, the facility shall submit to the department 103161
of health for its approval a plan of correction for each finding 103162
cited in the statement. The plan shall describeinclude all of the 103163
following:103164

       (1) Detailed descriptions of the actions the facility will 103165
take to correct each finding and specify the, including actions 103166
the facility will take to protect residents situated similarly to 103167
the residents affected by the causes of the findings;103168

       (2) The date by which each finding will be corrected. In the 103169
case of;103170

       (3) A detailed description of an ongoing monitoring and 103171
improvement process to be used at the facility that is focused on 103172
preventing any recurrence of the causes of the findings;103173

       (4) If the plan concerns a finding assigned a severity level 103174
indicating that a resident was harmed or immediate jeopardy 103175
exists, all of the following:103176

       (a) Detailed analyses of the facts and circumstances of the 103177
finding, including identification of its root cause;103178

       (b) A detailed explanation of how the corrective actions 103179
described pursuant to division (A)(1) of this section relate to 103180
the root cause of the finding identified pursuant to division 103181
(A)(4)(a) of this section;103182

       (c) A detailed explanation of the relationship between the 103183
ongoing monitoring and improvement process described pursuant to 103184
division (A)(3) of this section and the root cause of the finding 103185
identified pursuant to division (A)(4)(a) of this section.103186

       (5) If the plan concerns a finding cited pursuant to division 103187
(E) of section 5111.415165.66 of the Revised Code, the plan shall 103188
describea description of the actions the facility took to correct 103189
the finding and the date on which it was corrected.103190

       (B)(1) The department shall approve any plan, and any 103191
modification of an existing plan a nursing facility submits to the 103192
department, that conformsdoes both of the following:103193

       (a) Conforms to the requirements for approval of plans of 103194
corrections, and modifications, established in the regulations, 103195
guidelines, and procedures issued by the United States secretary 103196
of health and human services under TitlesTitle XVIII and Title103197
XIX of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 103198
301, as amended;103199

       (b) Includes all the information required by division (A) of 103200
this section. The department also shall approve any modification 103201
of an existing plan submitted by a facility, if the plan as 103202
modified conforms to those regulations, guidelines, and 103203
procedures. The103204

       (2) The department shall consult with the department of 103205
medicaid, department of aging, and office of the state long-term 103206
care ombudsman program when determining whether a plan, or 103207
modification of an existing plan, to which division (A)(4) of this 103208
section applies conforms to the requirements for approval. The103209
department shall not reject a facility's plan of correction or 103210
modification on the ground that the facility disputes the finding, 103211
if the plan or modification is reasonably calculated to correct 103212
the finding.103213

       (C) A facility that complies with this section shall not be 103214
considered to have admitted the existence of a finding cited by 103215
the department.103216

       Sec. 5111.44.        Sec. 5165.70.  The department of health may appoint 103217
employees of the department to conduct on-site monitoring of a 103218
nursing facility whenever a finding is cited, including any 103219
finding cited pursuant to division (E) of section 5111.415165.66103220
of the Revised Code, or an emergency is found to exist. 103221
Appointment of monitors under this section is not subject to 103222
appeal under section 5111.605165.87 or any other section of the 103223
Revised Code. No employee of a facility for which monitors are 103224
appointed, no person employed by the facility within the previous 103225
two years, and no person who currently has a consulting or other 103226
contract with the department or the facility, shall be appointed 103227
as a monitor under this section. Every monitor appointed under 103228
this section shall have the professional qualifications necessary 103229
to monitor correction of the finding or elimination of the 103230
emergency.103231

       Sec. 5111.45.        Sec. 5165.71.  (A) If the department of health cites 103232
a deficiency or deficiencies that was not substantially corrected 103233
before a survey and that does not constitute a severity level four 103234
finding or create immediate jeopardy, the department of job and 103235
family servicesmedicaid or a contracting agency shall permit the 103236
nursing facility to continue participating in the medical 103237
assistancemedicaid program for up to six months after the exit 103238
interview, if all of the following apply:103239

       (1) The facility meets the requirements, established in 103240
regulations issued by the United States secretary of health and 103241
human services under Title XIX of the "Social Security Act," 49 103242
Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended, for certification 103243
of nursing facilities that have a deficiency.103244

       (2) The department of health has approved a plan of 103245
correction submitted by the facility under section 5111.435165.69103246
of the Revised Code for each deficiency.103247

       (3) The provider agrees to repay the department of job and 103248
family servicesmedicaid, in accordance with section 5111.58103249
5165.85 of the Revised Code, the federal share of all payments 103250
made by the department to the facility during the six-month period 103251
following the exit interview if the facility does not within the 103252
six-month period substantially correct the deficiency or 103253
deficiencies in accordance with the plan of correction submitted 103254
under section 5111.435165.69 of the Revised Code.103255

       (B) If any of the conditions in divisions (A)(1) to (3) of 103256
this section do not apply, the department of job and family 103257
servicesmedicaid or contracting agency shall issue an order 103258
terminating the facility's participation in the medical assistance103259
medicaid program. An order issued under this division is subject 103260
to appeal under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. The order shall 103261
not take effect prior to the later of the thirtieth day after it 103262
is delivered to the facility or, if the order is appealed, the 103263
date on which a final adjudication order upholding the termination 103264
becomes effective pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.103265

       (C) At the time the department of job and family services103266
medicaid or contracting agency issues an order under division (B) 103267
of this section terminating a nursing facility's participation in 103268
the medical assistancemedicaid program, it may also impose, 103269
subject to section 5111.505165.76 of the Revised Code, other 103270
remedies under sections 5111.465165.72 to 5111.485165.74 of the 103271
Revised Code.103272

       Sec. 5111.46.        Sec. 5165.72.  (A) If the department of health cites 103273
a deficiency, or cluster of deficiencies, that was not 103274
substantially corrected before a survey and constitutes a severity 103275
level four finding, the department of job and family services103276
medicaid or contracting agency shall, subject to sections 5111.52103277
5165.79 to 5111.565165.83 of the Revised Code, impose a remedy 103278
for the deficiency or cluster of deficiencies. The department or 103279
agency may act under either division (A)(1) or (2) of this 103280
section:103281

       (1) The department or agency may impose one or more of the 103282
following remedies:103283

       (a) Issue an order terminating the nursing facility's 103284
participation in the medical assistancemedicaid program.103285

       (b) Do either of the following:103286

       (i) Regardless of whether the provider consents, appoint a 103287
temporary manager of the facility.103288

       (ii) Apply to the common pleas court of the county in which 103289
the facility is located for such injunctive or other equitable 103290
relief as is necessary for the appointment of a special master 103291
with such powers and authority over the facility and length of 103292
appointment as the court considers necessary.103293

       (c) Do either of the following:103294

       (i) Issue an order denying paymentmedicaid payments to the 103295
facility under the medical assistance program for all medicaid 103296
eligible residents admitted after the effective date of the order;103297

       (ii) Impose a fine.103298

       (d) Issue an order denying paymentmedicaid payments to the 103299
facility under the medical assistance program for medicaid 103300
eligible residents admitted after the effective date of the order 103301
who have certain diagnoses or special care needs specified by the 103302
department or agency.103303

       (2) The department or agency may impose one or more of the 103304
following remedies:103305

       (a) Appoint, subject to the continuing consent of the 103306
provider, a temporary manager of the facility;103307

       (b) Do either of the following:103308

       (i) Regardless of whether the provider consents, appoint a 103309
temporary manager of the facility;103310

       (ii) Apply to the common pleas court of the county in which 103311
the facility is located for such injunctive or other equitable 103312
relief as is necessary for the appointment of a special master 103313
with such powers and authority over the facility and length of 103314
appointment as the court considers necessary.103315

       (c) Do either of the following:103316

       (i) Issue an order denying paymentmedicaid payments to the 103317
facility under the medical assistance program for all medicaid 103318
eligible residents admitted after the effective date of the order;103319

       (ii) Impose a fine.103320

       (d) Issue an order denying paymentmedicaid payments to the 103321
facility under the medical assistance program for medicaid 103322
eligible residents admitted after the effective date of the order 103323
who have certain diagnoses or special care needs specified by the 103324
department or agency;103325

       (e) Issue an order requiring the facility to correct the 103326
deficiency or cluster of deficiencies under the plan of correction 103327
submitted by the facility and approved by the department of health 103328
under section 5111.435165.69 of the Revised Code.103329

       (B) The department of job and family servicesmedicaid or 103330
contracting agency shall deliver a written order issued under 103331
division (A)(1) of this section terminating a nursing facility's 103332
participation in the medical assistancemedicaid program to the 103333
facility within five days after the exit interview. If the 103334
facility alleges, at any time prior to the later of the twentieth 103335
day after the exit interview or the fifteenth day after it 103336
receives the order, that the deficiency or cluster of deficiencies 103337
for which the order was issued has been substantially corrected, 103338
the department of health shall conduct a follow-up survey to 103339
determine whether the deficiency or cluster of deficiencies has 103340
been substantially corrected. The order shall take effect and the 103341
facility's participation shall terminate on the twentieth day 103342
after the exit interview, unless the facility has substantially 103343
corrected the deficiency or cluster of deficiencies that 103344
constituted a severity level four finding or did not receive 103345
notice from the department of job and family servicesmedicaid or 103346
contracting agency within five days after the exit interview. In 103347
the latter case, the order shall take effect and the facility's 103348
participation shall terminate on the fifteenth day after the 103349
facility received the order.103350

       (C) If the department of health cites a deficiency or cluster 103351
of deficiencies pursuant to division (E) of section 5111.41103352
5165.66 of the Revised Code that constituted a severity level four 103353
finding, the department of job and family servicesmedicaid or a 103354
contracting agency shall, subject to section 5111.565165.83 of 103355
the Revised Code, impose a fine. The fine shall be in effect for a 103356
period equal to the number of days the deficiency or cluster of 103357
deficiencies existed at the facility.103358

       Sec. 5111.47.        Sec. 5165.73.  If the department of health cites a 103359
deficiency, or cluster of deficiencies, that was not substantially 103360
corrected before a survey and constitutes a severity level three 103361
and scope level three or four finding, the department of job and 103362
family servicesmedicaid or a contracting agency may, subject to 103363
sections 5111.555165.82 and 5111.565165.83 of the Revised Code, 103364
impose one or more of the following remedies:103365

       (A) Do either of the following:103366

       (1) Issue an order denying paymentmedicaid payments to the 103367
facility under the medical assistance program for all medicaid 103368
eligible residents admitted after the effective date of the order;103369

       (2) Impose a fine.103370

       (B) Issue an order denying paymentmedicaid payments to the 103371
facility under the medical assistance program for medicaid 103372
eligible residents admitted after the effective date of the order 103373
who have certain diagnoses or special care needs specified by the 103374
department or agency;103375

       (C) Issue an order requiring the facility to correct the 103376
deficiency or cluster of deficiencies under the plan of correction 103377
submitted by the facility and approved by the department of health 103378
under section 5111.435165.69 of the Revised Code.103379

       Sec. 5111.48.        Sec. 5165.74.  (A) If the department of health cites 103380
a deficiency, or cluster of deficiencies, that was not 103381
substantially corrected before a survey and constitutes a severity 103382
level three and scope level two finding, the department of job and 103383
family servicesmedicaid or a contracting agency may, subject to 103384
sections 5111.555165.82 and 5111.565165.83 of the Revised Code, 103385
impose one or more of the following remedies:103386

       (1) Do either of the following:103387

       (a) Issue an order denying paymentmedicaid payments to the 103388
facility under the medical assistance program for all medicaid 103389
eligible residents admitted after the effective date of the order;103390

       (b) Impose a fine.103391

       (2) Issue an order denying paymentmedicaid payments to the 103392
facility under the medical assistance program for medicaid 103393
eligible residents admitted after the effective date of the order 103394
who have certain diagnoses or special care needs specified by the 103395
department or agency;103396

       (3) Issue an order requiring the facility to correct the 103397
deficiency or cluster of deficiencies under the plan of correction 103398
proposed by the facility and approved by the department of health 103399
under section 5111.435165.69 of the Revised Code.103400

       (B) If the department of health cites a deficiency, or 103401
cluster of deficiencies, that was not substantially corrected 103402
before a survey and constitutes a severity level three and scope 103403
level one finding, the department of job and family services103404
medicaid or a contracting agency may, subject to sections 5111.55103405
5165.82 and 5111.565165.83 of the Revised Code, impose one or 103406
more of the following remedies:103407

       (1) Impose a fine;103408

       (2) Issue an order denying paymentmedicaid payments to the 103409
facility under the medical assistance program for medicaid 103410
eligible residents admitted after the effective date of the order 103411
who have certain diagnoses or special care needs specified by the 103412
department or agency;103413

       (3) Issue an order requiring the facility to correct the 103414
deficiency or cluster of deficiencies under the plan of correction 103415
proposed by the facility and approved by the department of health 103416
under section 5111.435165.69 of the Revised Code.103417

       (C) If the department of health cites a deficiency, or 103418
cluster of deficiencies, that was not substantially corrected 103419
before a survey and constitutes a severity level two and a scope 103420
level three or four finding, the department of job and family 103421
servicesmedicaid or a contracting agency may, subject to sections 103422
5111.555165.82 and 5111.565165.83 of the Revised Code, impose 103423
one or more of the following remedies:103424

       (1) Impose a fine;103425

       (2) Issue an order denying paymentmedicaid payments to the 103426
facility under the medical assistance program for medicaid 103427
eligible residents admitted after the effective date of the order 103428
who have certain diagnoses or special care needs specified by the 103429
department or agency;103430

       (3) Issue an order requiring the facility to correct the 103431
deficiency or cluster of deficiencies under the plan of correction 103432
submitted by the facility and approved by the department of health 103433
under section 5111.435165.69 of the Revised Code.103434

       (D) If the department of health cites a deficiency, or 103435
cluster of deficiencies, that was not substantially corrected 103436
before a survey, constitutes a severity level two and scope level 103437
one or two finding, and is a repeat finding, the department of job 103438
and family servicesmedicaid or a contracting agency may issue an 103439
order requiring the facility to correct the deficiency or cluster 103440
of deficiencies under the plan of correction submitted by the 103441
facility and approved by the department of health under section 103442
5111.435165.69 of the Revised Code.103443

       (E) If the department of health cites a deficiency, or 103444
cluster of deficiencies, that was not substantially corrected 103445
before a survey and constitutes a severity level one and scope 103446
level three or four finding, the department of job and family 103447
servicesmedicaid or a contracting agency may issue an order 103448
requiring the facility to correct the deficiency or cluster of 103449
deficiencies under the plan of correction submitted by the 103450
facility and approved by the department of health under section 103451
5111.435165.69 of the Revised Code.103452

       (F) If the department of health cites a deficiency, or 103453
cluster of deficiencies, that was not substantially corrected 103454
before a survey, constitutes a severity level one and scope level 103455
two finding, and is a repeat finding, the department of job and 103456
family servicesmedicaid or a contracting agency may issue an 103457
order requiring the facility to correct the deficiency or cluster 103458
of deficiencies under the plan of correction submitted by the 103459
facility and approved by the department of health under section 103460
5111.435165.69 of the Revised Code.103461

       Sec. 5111.49.        Sec. 5165.75.  (A) In determining which remedies to 103462
impose under section 5111.465165.72, 5111.475165.73, or 5111.48103463
5165.74 of the Revised Code, including whether a fine should be 103464
imposed, the department of job and family servicesmedicaid or a 103465
contracting agency shall do both of the following:103466

       (1) Impose the remedies that are most likely to achieve 103467
correction of deficiencies, encourage sustained compliance with 103468
certification requirements, and protect the health, safety, and 103469
rights of facility residents, but that are not directed at 103470
punishment of the facility;103471

       (2) Consider all of the following:103472

       (a) The presence or absence of immediate jeopardy;103473

       (b) The relationships of groups of deficiencies to each 103474
other;103475

       (c) The facility's history of compliance with certification 103476
requirements generally and in the specific area of the deficiency 103477
or deficiencies;103478

       (d) Whether the deficiency or deficiencies are directly 103479
related to resident care;103480

       (e) The corrective, long-term compliance, resident 103481
protective, and nonpunitive outcomes sought by the department or 103482
agency;103483

       (f) The nature, scope, and duration of the noncompliance with 103484
certification requirements;103485

       (g) The existence of repeat deficiencies;103486

       (h) The category of certification requirements with which the 103487
facility is out of compliance;103488

       (i) Any period of noncompliance with certification 103489
requirements that occurred between two certifications by the 103490
department of health that the facility was in compliance with 103491
certification requirements;103492

       (j) The facility's degree of culpability;103493

       (k) The accuracy, extent, and availability of facility 103494
records;103495

       (l) The facility's financial condition, exclusive of any 103496
moneys donated to a facility that is an organization described in 103497
subsection 501(c)(3) and is tax exempt under subsection 501(a) of 103498
the "Internal Revenue Code of 1986," 100 Stat. 2085, 26 U.S.C.A. 103499
1;103500

       (m) Any adverse effect that the action or fine would have on 103501
the health and safety of facility residents;103502

       (n) If the noncompliance that resulted in the citation of a 103503
deficiency or cluster of deficiencies existed before a change in 103504
ownership of the facility, whether the new owner or owners have 103505
had sufficient time to correct the noncompliance.103506

       (B) Whenever the department or agency imposes remedies under 103507
section 5111.465165.72, 5111.475165.73, or 5111.485165.74 of 103508
the Revised Code, it shall provide a written statement to the 103509
nursing facility that specifies all of the following:103510

       (1) The effective date of each remedy;103511

       (2) The deficiency or cluster of deficiencies for which each 103512
remedy is imposed;103513

       (3) The severity and scope of the deficiency or cluster of 103514
deficiencies;103515

       (4) The rationale, including all applicable factors specified 103516
in division (A) of this section, for imposing the remedies.103517

       Sec. 5111.50.        Sec. 5165.76.  At the time the department of job and 103518
family servicesmedicaid or a contracting agency, under section 103519
5111.455165.71, 5111.465165.72, or 5111.515165.77 of the 103520
Revised Code, issues an order terminating a nursing facility's 103521
participation in the medical assistancemedicaid program, the 103522
department or agency may also impose a fine, in accordance with 103523
sections 5111.465165.72 to 5111.485165.74 and 5111.565165.83 of 103524
the Revised Code, to be collected in the event the termination 103525
order does not take effect. The department or agency shall not 103526
collect this fine if the termination order takes effect.103527

       Sec. 5111.51.        Sec. 5165.77.  (A) If the department of health finds 103528
during a survey that an emergency exists at a nursing facility, as 103529
the result of a deficiency or cluster of deficiencies that creates 103530
immediate jeopardy, the department of job and family services103531
medicaid or a contracting agency shall impose one or more of the 103532
remedies described in division (A)(1) of this section and, in 103533
addition, may take one or both of the actions described in 103534
division (A)(2) of this section.103535

       (1) The department or agency shall impose one or more of the 103536
following remedies:103537

       (a) Appoint, subject to the continuing consent of the 103538
provider, a temporary manager of the facility;103539

       (b) Apply to the common pleas court of the county in which 103540
the facility is located for a temporary restraining order, 103541
preliminary injunction, or such other injunctive or equitable 103542
relief as is necessary to close the facility, transfer one or more 103543
residents to other nursing facilities or other appropriate care 103544
settings, or otherwise eliminate the condition of immediate 103545
jeopardy. If the court grants such an order, injunction, or 103546
relief, it may appoint a special master empowered to implement the 103547
court's judgment under the court's direct supervision.103548

       (c) Issue an order terminating the facility's participation 103549
in the medical assistancemedicaid program;103550

       (d) Regardless of whether the provider consents, appoint a 103551
temporary manager of the facility.103552

       (2) The department or agency may do one or both of the 103553
following:103554

       (a) Issue an order denying paymentmedicaid payments to the 103555
facility for all medicaid eligible residents admitted after the 103556
effective date of the order;103557

       (b) Impose remedies under sections 5111.465165.72 to 5111.48103558
5165.74 of the Revised Code appropriate to the severity and scope 103559
of the deficiency or cluster of deficiencies, except that the 103560
department or agency shall not impose a fine for the same 103561
deficiency for which the department or agency has issued an order 103562
under division (A)(2)(a) of this section.103563

       (B) If the department of health, department of job and family 103564
servicesmedicaid, or a contracting agency finds on the basis of a 103565
survey or other visit to the facility by representatives of that 103566
department or agency that an emergency exists at a facility that 103567
is not the result of a deficiency or cluster of deficiencies that 103568
constitutes immediate jeopardy, the department of job and family 103569
servicesmedicaid or contracting agency may do either of the 103570
following:103571

       (1) Appoint, subject to the continuing consent of the 103572
provider, a temporary manager of the facility;103573

       (2) Apply to the common pleas court of the county in which 103574
the facility is located for a temporary restraining order, 103575
preliminary injunction, or such other injunctive or equitable 103576
relief as is necessary to close the facility, transfer one or more 103577
residents to other nursing facilities or other appropriate care 103578
settings, or otherwise eliminate the emergency. If the court 103579
grants such an order, injunction, or relief, it may appoint a 103580
special master empowered to implement the court's judgment under 103581
the court's direct supervision.103582

       (C)(1) Prior to acting under division (A)(1)(b), (c), (d), or 103583
(2), or (B)(2) of this section, the department of job and family 103584
servicesmedicaid or contracting agency shall give written notice 103585
to the facility specifying all of the following:103586

       (a) The nature of the emergency, including the nature of any 103587
deficiency or deficiencies that caused the emergency;103588

       (b) The nature of the action the department or agency intends 103589
to take unless the department of health determines that the 103590
facility, in the absence of state intervention, possesses the 103591
capacity to eliminate the emergency;103592

       (c) The rationale for taking the action.103593

       (2) If the department of health determines that the facility 103594
does not possess the capacity to eliminate the emergency in the 103595
absence of state intervention, the department of job and family 103596
servicesmedicaid or contracting agency may immediately take 103597
action under division (A) or (B) of this section. If the 103598
department of health determines that the facility possesses the 103599
capacity to eliminate the emergency, the department of job and 103600
family servicesmedicaid or contracting agency shall direct the 103601
facility to eliminate the emergency within five days after the 103602
facility's receipt of the notice. At the end of the five-day 103603
period, the department of health shall conduct a follow-up survey 103604
that focuses on the emergency. If the department of health 103605
determines that the facility has eliminated the emergency within 103606
the time period, the department of job and family services103607
medicaid or contracting agency shall not act under division 103608
(A)(1)(b), (c), (d), or (2)(a), or (B)(2) of this section. If the 103609
department of health determines that the facility has failed to 103610
eliminate the emergency within the five-day period, the department 103611
of job and family servicesmedicaid or contracting agency shall 103612
take appropriate action under division (A)(1)(b), (c), (d), or 103613
(2), or (B)(2) of this section.103614

       (3) Until the written notice required by division (C)(1) of 103615
this section is actually delivered, no action taken by the 103616
department of job and family servicesmedicaid or contracting 103617
agency under division (A)(1)(b), (c), (d), or (2), or (B)(2) of 103618
this section shall have any legal effect. In addition to the 103619
written notice, the department of health survey team shall give 103620
oral notice to the facility, at the time of the survey, concerning 103621
any recommendations the survey team intends to make that could 103622
form the basis of a determination that an emergency exists.103623

       (D) The department of job and family servicesmedicaid or 103624
contracting agency shall deliver a written order issued under 103625
division (A)(1) of this section terminating a nursing facility's 103626
participation in the medical assistancemedicaid program to the 103627
facility within five days after the exit interview. If the 103628
facility alleges, at any time prior to the later of the twentieth 103629
day after the exit interview or the fifteenth day after it 103630
receives the order, that the condition of immediate jeopardy for 103631
which the order was issued has been eliminated, the department of 103632
health shall conduct a follow-up survey to determine whether the 103633
immediate jeopardy has been eliminated. The order shall take 103634
effect and the facility's participation shall terminate on the 103635
twentieth day after the exit interview, unless the facility has 103636
eliminated the immediate jeopardy or did not receive notice from 103637
the department of job and family servicesmedicaid or contracting 103638
agency within five days after the exit interview. In the latter 103639
case, the order shall take effect and the facility's participation 103640
shall terminate on the fifteenth day after the facility received 103641
the order.103642

       (E) Any action taken by the department of job and family 103643
servicesmedicaid or a contracting agency under division 103644
(A)(1)(c), (d), or (2)(a) of this section is subject to appeal 103645
under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, except that the department 103646
or agency may take such action prior to and during the pendency of 103647
any proceeding under that chapter. No action taken by a facility 103648
under division (C) of this section to eliminate an emergency cited 103649
by the department of health shall be considered an admission by 103650
the facility of the existence of an emergency.103651

       Sec. 5165.771.  (A) As used in this section:103652

       "SFF list" means the list of nursing facilities that the 103653
United States department of health and human services creates 103654
under the special focus facility program. 103655

       "Special focus facility program" means the program conducted 103656
by the United States secretary of health and human services 103657
pursuant to the "Social Security Act," section 1919(f)(10), 42 103658
U.S.C. 1396r(f)(10).103659

       "Table A" means the table included in the SFF list that 103660
identifies nursing facilities that are newly added to the SFF 103661
list.103662

       "Table B" means the table included in the SFF list that 103663
identifies nursing facilities that have not improved.103664

       "Table C" means the table included in the SFF list that 103665
identifies nursing facilities that have shown improvement.103666

       "Table D" means the table included in the SFF list that 103667
identifies nursing facilities that have recently graduated from 103668
the special focus facility program.103669

       (B) The department of medicaid shall issue an order 103670
terminating a nursing facility's participation in the medicaid 103671
program if any of the following apply:103672

       (1) The nursing facility is listed in table A or table B on 103673
the effective date of this section and fails to be placed in table 103674
C not later than twelve months after the effective date of this 103675
section;103676

       (2) The nursing facility is listed in table A, table B, or 103677
table C on the effective date of this section and fails to be 103678
placed in table D not later than twenty-four months after the 103679
effective date of this section;103680

       (3) The nursing facility is placed in table A after the 103681
effective date of this section and fails to be placed in table C 103682
not later than twelve months after the nursing facility is placed 103683
in table A;103684

       (4) The nursing facility is placed in table A after the 103685
effective date of this section and fails to be placed in table D 103686
not later than twenty-four months after the nursing facility is 103687
placed in table A.103688

       (C) An order issued under this section is not subject to 103689
appeal under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.103690

       (D) To help a nursing facility avoid having its participation 103691
in the medicaid program terminated pursuant to division (B) of 103692
this section, the department of aging shall provide the nursing 103693
facility technical assistance through the nursing home quality 103694
initiative established under section 173.60 of the Revised Code at 103695
least four months before the department of medicaid would be 103696
required to terminate the nursing facility's participation.103697

       Sec. 5111.511.        Sec. 5165.78.  (A) If the department of job and 103698
family servicesmedicaid determines that a nursing facility is 103699
experiencing or is likely to experience a serious financial loss 103700
or failure that jeopardizes or is likely to jeopardize the health, 103701
safety, and welfare of its residents, the department, subject to 103702
the provider's consent, may appoint a temporary resident safety 103703
assurance manager in the nursing facility to take actions the 103704
department determines are appropriate to ensure the health, 103705
safety, and welfare of the residents.103706

       (B) A temporary resident safety assurance manager appointed 103707
under this section is vested with the authority necessary to take 103708
actions the department of job and family servicesmedicaid103709
determines are appropriate to ensure the health, safety, and 103710
welfare of the residents.103711

       (C) A temporary resident safety assurance manager appointed 103712
under this section may use any of the following funds to pay for 103713
costs the manager incurs on behalf of the nursing facility:103714

       (1) Medicaid payments made in accordance with the provider 103715
agreement for the nursing facility;103716

       (2) Funds from the residents protection fund that the 103717
department provides the manager under section 5111.625162.66 of 103718
the Revised Code;103719

       (3) Other funds the department determines are appropriate if 103720
such use of the funds is consistent with the appropriations that 103721
authorize the use of the funds and all other state and federal 103722
laws governing the use of the funds.103723

       (D) The provider is liable to the department for the amount 103724
of any payments the department makes to the temporary resident 103725
safety assurance manager, other than payments specified in 103726
division (C)(1) of this section. The department may recover the 103727
amount the provider owes the department by doing any of the 103728
following:103729

       (1) Offsetting medicaid payments made to the provider in 103730
accordance with the provider agreement;103731

       (2) Placing a lien on any of the provider's real and personal 103732
property;103733

       (3) Initiating other collection actions.103734

       (E) No action the department takes under this section is 103735
subject to appeal under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.103736

       (F) In rules adopted underauthorized by section 5111.36103737
5165.61 of the Revised Code, the medicaid director of job and 103738
family services may establish all of the following:103739

       (1) Qualifications persons must meet to be appointed 103740
temporary resident safety assurance managers under this section;103741

       (2) Procedures for maintaining a list of qualified temporary 103742
resident safety assurance managers;103743

       (3) Procedures consistent with federal law for paying for the 103744
services of temporary resident safety assurance managers;103745

       (4) Accounting and reporting requirements for temporary 103746
resident safety assurance managers;103747

       (5) Other procedures and requirements the director determines 103748
are necessary to implement this section.103749

       Sec. 5111.52.        Sec. 5165.79.  (A) As used in this section, 103750
"terminating" includes not renewing.103751

       (B) A nursing facility's participation in the medical 103752
assistancemedicaid program shall be terminated under sections 103753
5111.355165.60 to 5111.625165.89 of the Revised Code as 103754
follows:103755

       (1) If the department of job and family servicesmedicaid is 103756
terminating the facility's participation, it shall issue an order 103757
terminating the facility's provider agreement.103758

       (2) If the department of health, acting as a contracting 103759
agency, is terminating the facility's participation, it shall 103760
issue an order terminating certification of the facility's 103761
compliance with certification requirements. When the department of 103762
health terminates certification, the department of job and family 103763
servicesmedicaid shall terminate the facility's provider 103764
agreement. The department of job and family servicesmedicaid is 103765
not required to provide an adjudication hearing when it terminates 103766
a provider agreement following termination of certification by the 103767
department of health.103768

       (3) If a state agency other than the department of health, 103769
acting as a contracting agency, is terminating the facility's 103770
participation, it shall notify the department of job and family 103771
servicesmedicaid, and the department of job and family services103772
medicaid shall issue an order terminating the facility's provider 103773
agreement. The contracting agency shall conduct any administrative 103774
proceedings concerning the order.103775

       (C) If the following conditions are met, the department of 103776
job and family servicesmedicaid may make medical assistance103777
medicaid payments to a nursing facility for a period not exceeding 103778
thirty days after the effective date of termination under sections 103779
5111.355165.60 to 5111.625165.89 of the Revised Code of the 103780
facility's participation in the medical assistancemedicaid103781
program:103782

       (1) The payments are for medicaid eligible residents admitted 103783
to the facility prior to the effective date of the termination;103784

       (2) The provider is making reasonable efforts to transfer 103785
medicaid eligible residents to other care settings.103786

       The period during which payments may be made under this 103787
division begins on the later of the effective date of the 103788
termination or, if the facility has appealed a termination order, 103789
the date of issuance of the adjudication order upholding 103790
termination.103791

       Sec. 5111.53.        Sec. 5165.80.  (A) Whenever a nursing facility is 103792
closed under sections 5111.355165.60 to 5111.625165.89 of the 103793
Revised Code, the department of job and family servicesmedicaid103794
or contracting agency shall arrange for the safe and orderly 103795
transfer of all residents, including residents who are not 103796
medicaid eligible residents, to other appropriate care settings. 103797
Whenever a nursing facility's participation in the medical 103798
assistancemedicaid program is terminated under sections 5111.35103799
5165.60 to 5111.625165.89 of the Revised Code, the department or 103800
agency shall arrange for the safe and orderly transfer of all 103801
medicaid eligible residents or, if the termination results in the 103802
closure of the facility, of all residents. The provider and all 103803
persons involved in the facility's operation shall cooperate with 103804
and assist in the transfer of residents.103805

       (B) After a nursing facility's participation in the medical 103806
assistancemedicaid program is terminated under section 5111.45103807
5165.71, 5111.465165.72, 5111.515165.77, 5165.771, or 5111.58103808
5165.85 of the Revised Code, the department of job and family 103809
servicesmedicaid or contracting agency may appoint a temporary 103810
manager subject to the continuing consent of the provider, or may 103811
apply to the common pleas court of the county in which the 103812
facility is located for such injunctive relief as is necessary for 103813
the appointment of a special master, to ensure the transfer of 103814
medicaid eligible residents to other appropriate care settings 103815
and, if applicable, the orderly closure of the facility.103816

       Sec. 5111.54.        Sec. 5165.81.  (A) A temporary manager of a nursing 103817
facility appointed by the department of job and family services103818
medicaid or a contracting agency under sections 5111.355165.60 to 103819
5111.625165.89 of the Revised Code shall meet all of the 103820
following qualifications:103821

       (1) Be licensed as a nursing home administrator under Chapter 103822
4751. of the Revised Code;103823

       (2) Have demonstrated competence as a nursing home 103824
administrator;103825

       (3) Have had no disciplinary action taken against the 103826
temporary manager by any licensing board or professional society 103827
in this state.103828

       (B) The salary of a temporary manager or special master 103829
appointed under sections 5111.355165.60 to 5111.625165.89 of the 103830
Revised Code shall be paid by the facility and set by the 103831
department of job and family servicesmedicaid or contracting 103832
agency, in the case of a temporary manager, or by the court, in 103833
the case of a special master, at a rate not to exceed the maximum 103834
allowable compensation for an administrator under the medical 103835
assistancemedicaid program. The extent to which this compensation 103836
is allowable under the medical assistancemedicaid program is 103837
subject to and limited by this chapter and rules of the department103838
adopted under section 5165.02 of the Revised Code.103839

       Subject to division (C) of this section, any costs incurred 103840
on behalf of a nursing facility by a temporary manager or special 103841
master appointed under sections 5111.355165.60 to 5111.625165.89103842
of the Revised Code shall be paid by the facility. The 103843
allowability of these costs under the medical assistancemedicaid103844
program shall be subject to and governed by this chapter and the103845
rules of the departmentadopted under section 5165.02 of the 103846
Revised Code. This division does not prohibit a facility from 103847
applying for or receiving any waiver of cost ceilings available 103848
under the rules of the department.103849

       (C) No temporary manager or special master appointed under 103850
sections 5111.355165.60 to 5111.625165.89 of the Revised Code 103851
shall enter into any employment contract on behalf of a facility, 103852
or purchase any capital goods using facility funds totaling more 103853
than ten thousand dollars, unless the temporary manager or special 103854
master has obtained prior approval for the contract or purchase 103855
from either the provider or the court.103856

       (D)(1) A temporary manager appointed for a nursing facility 103857
under section 5111.465165.72 of the Revised Code is hereby 103858
vested, subject to division (C) of this section, with the legal 103859
authority necessary to correct any deficiency or cluster of 103860
deficiencies at a facility, bring the facility into compliance 103861
with certification requirements, and otherwise ensure the health 103862
and safety of the residents.103863

       (2) A temporary manager appointed under section 5111.51103864
5165.77 of the Revised Code is hereby vested, subject to division 103865
(C) of this section, with the authority necessary to eliminate the 103866
emergency, bring the facility into compliance with certification 103867
requirements, and otherwise ensure the health and safety of the 103868
residents.103869

       (3) A temporary manager appointed under section 5111.53103870
5165.80 of the Revised Code is hereby vested, subject to division 103871
(C) of this section, with the authority necessary to ensure the 103872
transfer of medicaid eligible residents to other appropriate care 103873
settings and, if applicable, the orderly closure of the facility, 103874
and to otherwise ensure the health and safety of the residents.103875

       (E) Prior to acting under division (A)(1)(b) or (2)(b) of 103876
section 5111.465165.72 of the Revised Code to appoint a temporary 103877
manager or apply for a special master, the department of job and 103878
family servicesmedicaid or contracting agency shall order the 103879
facility to substantially correct the deficiency or deficiencies 103880
within five days after receiving the statement and inform the 103881
facility, in the statement it provides pursuant to division (B) of 103882
section 5111.495165.75 of the Revised Code, of the order and 103883
that it will not take that action unless the facility fails to 103884
substantially correct the deficiency or deficiencies within that 103885
five-day period. At the end of the five-day period, the department 103886
of health shall conduct a follow-up survey that focuses on the 103887
deficiency or deficiencies. If the department of health determines 103888
that the facility has substantially corrected the deficiency or 103889
deficiencies within that time, the department of job and family 103890
servicesmedicaid or contracting agency shall not appoint a 103891
temporary manager or apply for a special master. If the department 103892
of health determines that the facility has failed to substantially 103893
correct the deficiency or deficiencies within that time, the 103894
department of job and family servicesmedicaid or contracting 103895
agency may proceed with appointment of the temporary manager or 103896
application for a special master. Until the statement required 103897
under division (B) of section 5111.495165.75 of the Revised Code 103898
is actually delivered, no action taken by the department or agency 103899
to appoint a temporary manager or apply for a temporary manager 103900
under division (A)(1)(b) or (2)(b) of section 5111.465165.72 of 103901
the Revised Code shall have any legal effect. No action taken by a 103902
facility under this division to substantially correct a deficiency 103903
or deficiencies shall be considered an admission by the facility 103904
of the existence of a deficiency or deficiencies.103905

       (F) Appointment of a temporary manager under division 103906
(A)(1)(b) or (2)(b) of section 5111.465165.72 or division 103907
(A)(1)(d) of section 5111.515165.77 of the Revised Code shall 103908
expire at the end of the seventh day following the appointment. If 103909
the department of job and family servicesmedicaid or contracting 103910
agency finds that the deficiency or deficiencies that prompted the 103911
appointment under division (A)(1)(b) or (2)(b) of section 5111.46103912
5165.72 of the Revised Code cannot be substantially corrected, or 103913
the condition of immediate jeopardy that prompted the appointment 103914
under division (A)(1)(d) of section 5111.515165.77 of the Revised 103915
Code cannot be eliminated, prior to the expiration of the 103916
appointment, it may take one of the following actions:103917

       (1) Appoint, subject to the continuing consent of the 103918
provider, a temporary manager for the facility;103919

       (2) Apply to the common pleas court of the county in which 103920
the facility is located for an order appointing a special master 103921
who, under the authority and direct supervision of the court and 103922
subject to divisions (B) and (C) of this section, may take such 103923
additional actions as are necessary to correct the deficiency or 103924
deficiencies or eliminate the condition of immediate jeopardy and 103925
bring the facility into compliance with certification 103926
requirements.103927

       (G) The court, on finding that the deficiency or deficiencies 103928
for which a special master was appointed under division (F)(2) of 103929
this section or division (A)(1)(b) or (2)(b) of section 5111.46103930
5165.72 of the Revised Code has been substantially corrected, or 103931
the emergency for which a special master was appointed under 103932
division (F)(2) of this section or division (A)(1)(b) or (B)(2) of 103933
section 5111.515165.77 of the Revised Code has been eliminated, 103934
that the facility has been brought into compliance with 103935
certification requirements, and that the provider has established 103936
the management capability to ensure continued compliance with the 103937
certification requirements, shall immediately terminate its 103938
jurisdiction over the facility and return control and management 103939
of the facility to the provider. If the deficiency or deficiencies 103940
cannot be substantially corrected, or the emergency cannot be 103941
eliminated practicably within a reasonable time following 103942
appointment of the special master, the court may order the special 103943
master to close the facility and transfer all residents to other 103944
nursing facilities or other appropriate care settings.103945

       (H) This section does not apply to temporary resident safety 103946
assurance managers appointed under section 5111.5115165.78 of the 103947
Revised Code.103948

       Sec. 5111.55.        Sec. 5165.82.  (A) An order issued under section 103949
5111.465165.72, 5111.475165.73, 5111.485165.74, 5111.51103950
5165.77, or 5111.575165.84 of the Revised Code denying payment103951
medicaid payments to a nursing facility for all medicaid eligible 103952
residents admitted after its effective date, or an order issued 103953
under section 5111.465165.72, 5111.475165.73, or 5111.485165.74103954
of the Revised Code denying paymentmedicaid payments to a 103955
nursing facility for medicaid eligible residents admitted after 103956
the effective date of the order who have specified diagnoses or 103957
special care needs, shall also apply to individuals admitted to 103958
the facility on and after the effective date of the order who are 103959
not medicaid eligible residents but become medicaid eligible 103960
residents after admission. Such an order shall not apply to any of 103961
the following:103962

       (1) An individual who was a medicaid eligible resident of the 103963
facility on the day immediately preceding the effective date of 103964
the order and continues to be a medicaid eligible resident on and 103965
after that date;103966

       (2) An individual who was a resident of the facility on the 103967
day immediately preceding the effective date of the order, 103968
continues to be a resident on and after that date, and becomes 103969
medicaid eligible on or after that date;103970

       (3) An individual who was a medicaid eligible resident of the 103971
facility prior to the effective date of the order, is temporarily 103972
absent from the facility on that or a subsequent date due to 103973
hospitalization or participation in therapeutic programs outside 103974
the facility, and chooses to return to the facility;103975

       (4) An individual who was a resident of the facility prior to 103976
the effective date of the order, is temporarily absent from the 103977
facility on that or a subsequent date due to hospitalization or 103978
participation in therapeutic programs outside the facility, 103979
becomes medicaid eligible on or after that date, and chooses to 103980
return to the facility.103981

       (B) An order issued under section 5111.465165.72 of the 103982
Revised Code denying paymentmedicaid payments to a nursing 103983
facility for all medicaid eligible residents admitted after its 103984
effective date, or denying paymentmedicaid payments to a facility 103985
for medicaid eligible residents admitted after the effective date 103986
of the order who have specified diagnoses or special care needs 103987
shall not take effect prior to the fifth day after the order is 103988
delivered to the facility. Such an order issued under section 103989
5111.475165.73 or 5111.485165.74 of the Revised Code shall not 103990
take effect prior to the twentieth day after it is delivered to 103991
the facility.103992

       (C) No nursing facility that has received an order under 103993
section 5111.465165.72, 5111.475165.73, 5111.485165.74, 5111.51103994
5165.77, or 5111.575165.84 of the Revised Code denying payment103995
medicaid payments for all new admissions of medicaid eligible 103996
residents shall admit a medicaid eligible resident on or after the 103997
effective date of the order, unless the resident is described in 103998
division (A)(3) or (4) of this section, until the order is 103999
terminated pursuant to this section. No nursing facility that has 104000
received an order under section 5111.465165.72, 5111.475165.73, 104001
or 5111.485165.74 of the Revised Code denying paymentmedicaid 104002
payments to a nursing facility for new admissions of medicaid 104003
eligible residents with specified diagnoses or special care needs 104004
shall admit such a resident on or after the effective date of the 104005
order, unless the resident is described in division (A)(3) or (4) 104006
of this section, until the order is terminated pursuant to this 104007
section.104008

       (D) In the case of an order imposed under division (B) of 104009
section 5111.575165.84 of the Revised Code, the department or 104010
agency shall appoint monitors in accordance with section 5111.44104011
5165.70 of the Revised Code to conduct on-site monitoring.104012

       (E)(1) A facility may give written notice to the department 104013
of health whenever any of the following apply:104014

       (a) With respect to an order denying payment issued under 104015
section 5111.465165.72, 5111.475165.73, or 5111.485165.74 of 104016
the Revised Code, either of the following is the case:104017

       (i) The facility has completed implementation of the plan of 104018
correction it submitted under section 5111.435165.69 of the 104019
Revised Code and substantially corrected all deficiencies for 104020
which the order was issued.104021

       (ii) The facility has reduced the severity or scope of all of 104022
the deficiencies to a level at which sections 5111.465165.72 to 104023
5111.485165.74 of the Revised Code do not authorize the order.104024

       (b) With respect to an order denying payment issued under 104025
section 5111.515165.77 of the Revised Code, the facility has 104026
eliminated the immediate jeopardy.104027

       (c) With respect to an order denying paymentmedicaid 104028
payments issued under division (A) of section 5111.575165.84 of 104029
the Revised Code, the facility has completed implementation of the 104030
plan of correction it submitted under section 5111.435165.69 of 104031
the Revised Code and substantially corrected all deficiencies for 104032
which the order was issued.104033

       (d) With respect to an order denying paymentmedicaid 104034
payments issued under division (B) of section 5111.575165.84 of 104035
the Revised Code, both of the following are the case:104036

       (i) The facility has completed implementation of the plan of 104037
correction it submitted under section 5111.435165.69 of the 104038
Revised Code and substantially corrected all deficiencies for 104039
which the order was issued.104040

       (ii) The facility is in compliance with certification 104041
requirements and has provided adequate assurance that it will 104042
remain in compliance with them.104043

       (2) Within ten working days after it receives the notice 104044
under division (E)(1) of this section, the department of health 104045
shall conduct a follow-up survey that focuses on the cited 104046
deficiency or deficiencies, unless the department is able to 104047
determine, on the basis of documentation provided by the facility, 104048
that the facility has completed the applicable action described in 104049
divisions (E)(1)(a) to (d) of this section. If the department of 104050
health makes that determination on the basis of the documentation, 104051
the department of job and family servicesmedicaid or contracting 104052
agency shall terminate the order denying paymentmedicaid payments104053
as of the date the facility completed the applicable action, as 104054
subsequently verified by the department of health. If the 104055
department of health conducts a follow-up survey, the department 104056
of job and family servicesmedicaid or contracting agency shall 104057
terminate the order denying paymentmedicaid payments as of the 104058
date the department of health makes the determination that the 104059
facility completed the applicable action.104060

       (F) The department of job and family servicesmedicaid or 104061
contracting agency shall provide public notice implementing an 104062
order under section 5111.465165.72, 5111.475165.73, 5111.48104063
5165.74, 5111.515165.77, or 5111.575165.84 of the Revised Code 104064
denying paymentmedicaid payments to a nursing facility under the 104065
medical assistance program for all medicaid eligible residents by 104066
publishing in a newspaper of general circulation in the county in 104067
which the facility is located an announcement stating: "By order 104068
of the (Ohio Department of Job and Family ServicesMedicaid or 104069
name of contracting agency), effective on and after (effective 104070
date of order), (name of facility) is no longer authorized to 104071
admit Medicaid eligible residents." Immediately following 104072
termination of any such order, the department or agency shall 104073
publish in a newspaper of general circulation in the county in 104074
which the facility is located an announcement stating: "By order 104075
of the (Ohio Department of Job and Family ServicesMedicaid or 104076
name of contracting agency), effective on and after (effective 104077
date of termination), (name of facility) is hereby authorized to 104078
admit Medicaid eligible residents." Neither the department nor the 104079
contracting agency shall issue public notice of an order under 104080
section 5111.465165.72, 5111.475165.73, or 5111.485165.74 of 104081
the Revised Code denying payment to a nursing facility for 104082
medicaid eligible residents with specified diagnoses or special 104083
care needs; public notice is not required for such an order to 104084
take effect.104085

       (G) A facility that complies with division (E) of this 104086
section shall not be considered to have admitted to the existence 104087
of the deficiency that constitutes the basis of the department's 104088
or agency's order.104089

       Sec. 5111.56.        Sec. 5165.83.  (A) As used in this section, 104090
"certified beds" means beds certified under Title XVIII or Title104091
XIX of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 104092
301, as amended.104093

       (B) If the department of job and family servicesmedicaid or 104094
a contracting agency imposes a fine on a nursing facility under 104095
section 5111.465165.72, 5111.475165.73, or 5111.485165.74 of 104096
the Revised Code, it may impose one or more of the following:104097

       (1) One hundred sixty per cent of the amount calculated under 104098
division (C) of this section for any deficiency or cluster of 104099
deficiencies that constitutes a severity level four and scope 104100
level four finding;104101

       (2) One hundred forty per cent of the amount calculated under 104102
division (C) of this section for any deficiency or cluster of 104103
deficiencies that constitutes a severity level four and scope 104104
level three finding;104105

       (3) One hundred twenty per cent of the amount calculated 104106
under division (C) of this section for any deficiency or cluster 104107
of deficiencies that constitutes a severity level four and scope 104108
level two finding;104109

       (4) The amount calculated under division (C) of this section 104110
for any deficiency or cluster of deficiencies that constitutes a 104111
severity level four and scope level one finding or any deficiency 104112
or cluster of deficiencies that constitutes a severity level three 104113
and scope level four finding;104114

       (5) Ninety per cent of the amount calculated under division 104115
(C) of this section for any deficiency or cluster of deficiencies 104116
that constitutes a severity level three and scope level three 104117
finding;104118

       (6) Eighty per cent of the amount calculated under division 104119
(C) of this section for any deficiency or cluster of deficiencies 104120
that constitutes a severity level three and scope level two 104121
finding;104122

       (7) Seventy per cent of the amount calculated under division 104123
(C) of this section for any deficiency or cluster of deficiencies 104124
that constitutes a severity level three and scope level one 104125
finding;104126

       (8) Fifty per cent of the amount calculated under division 104127
(C) of this section for any deficiency or cluster of deficiencies 104128
that constitutes a severity level two and scope level four 104129
finding;104130

       (9) Forty per cent of the amount calculated under division 104131
(C) of this section for any deficiency or cluster of deficiencies 104132
that constitutes a severity level two and scope level three 104133
finding.104134

       (C) The amount subject to division (B) of this section shall 104135
be the product of multiplying two dollars and fifty cents for each 104136
day the fine is in effect by the total number of licensed nursing 104137
home beds or certified beds, whichever is greater, in the facility 104138
as of the date the deficiency or cluster of deficiencies that is 104139
the reason for the fine was cited.104140

       (D)(1) The department of job and family servicesmedicaid or 104141
contracting agency shall not impose on a facility, at any one 104142
time, more than four fines as a result of any one survey.104143

       (2) The department of job and family servicesmedicaid or 104144
contracting agency shall not impose more than one fine based on a 104145
deficiency or cluster of deficiencies. However, if the department 104146
of health, in a follow-up or other subsequent survey, finds a 104147
change in the scope or severity of the deficiency or cluster of 104148
deficiencies, the department of job and family servicesmedicaid104149
or contracting agency may increase or decrease the fine in 104150
accordance with division (B) of this section to reflect the change 104151
in scope or severity. The department or agency shall give the 104152
facility written notice of the change in the amount of the fine. 104153
The change shall take effect on the date the follow-up or other 104154
subsequent survey is completed.104155

       If the department of health finds that a deficiency is a 104156
repeat deficiency, the department of job and family services104157
medicaid or contracting agency may impose a fine that is one 104158
hundred per cent greater than the fine specified in division (B) 104159
of this section for the deficiency.104160

       (E) The total amount of fines the department of job and 104161
family servicesmedicaid or contracting agency may impose on a 104162
facility in a single calendar year shall not exceed five hundred 104163
dollars for each licensed nursing home bed or certified bed, 104164
whichever is greater in number, in the facility.104165

       (F)(1) Except as provided in division (F)(2) of this section, 104166
the department of job and family servicesmedicaid or contracting 104167
agency shall not impose a fine under section 5111.465165.72, 104168
5111.475165.73, or 5111.485165.74 of the Revised Code if the 104169
deficiency or cluster of deficiencies is substantially corrected 104170
within twenty days after the nursing facility receives the 104171
statement provided under division (B) of section 5111.495165.75104172
of the Revised Code. The department or agency shall inform the 104173
nursing facility in that statement that the fine will not be 104174
imposed if the deficiency or cluster of deficiencies is 104175
substantially corrected within the twenty-day period.104176

       (2) If a nursing facility has substantially corrected a 104177
deficiency or cluster of deficiencies within six months after the 104178
exit interview of a survey that was the basis for citing a 104179
deficiency or cluster of deficiencies, but after correcting it has 104180
been cited for the same deficiency or cluster of deficiencies by 104181
the department of health on the basis of a subsequent survey 104182
conducted during the remainder of the six-month period, the 104183
department of job and family servicesmedicaid or contracting 104184
agency may impose a fine beginning on the date of the exit 104185
interview of the subsequent survey.104186

       (G) Whenever a facility believes that it has completed 104187
implementation of the plan of correction it submitted under 104188
section 5111.435165.69 of the Revised Code and substantially 104189
corrected the cited deficiency or cluster of deficiencies that is 104190
the basis for a fine, it may give written notice to that effect to 104191
the department of health. After receiving the notice, the 104192
department shall conduct a follow-up survey of the facility that 104193
focuses on the deficiency or cluster, unless the department is 104194
able to determine, on the basis of documentation provided by the 104195
facility, that the facility has substantially corrected the 104196
deficiency or cluster. If, based on the follow-up survey, the 104197
department establishes that the facility had not completed 104198
implementation of the plan of correction at the time the 104199
department received the notice, any fine based on the deficiency 104200
or cluster shall be doubled effective from the date the department 104201
received the notice. A facility that complies with this division 104202
shall not be considered to have admitted the existence of the 104203
deficiency or cluster that is the basis for the fine.104204

       (H) Except for a fine imposed under division (C) of section 104205
5111.465165.72 of the Revised Code and as provided in division 104206
(F)(2) of this section, the department of job and family services104207
medicaid or contracting agency shall impose a fine only if the 104208
facility fails to give notice under division (G) of this section 104209
within twenty days after it receives the statement required by 104210
division (B) of section 5111.495165.75 of the Revised Code or if 104211
the department of health determines, based on a follow-up survey, 104212
that the deficiency or cluster of deficiencies for which the fine 104213
is proposed has not been substantially corrected within the 104214
twenty-day period. The fine shall be imposed effective on the 104215
twenty-first day after the facility receives the statement under 104216
division (B) of section 5111.495165.75 of the Revised Code. The 104217
fine shall remain in effect until the earliest of the following:104218

       (1) The date the department of health receives notice under 104219
division (G) of this section, unless the department determines, on 104220
the basis of a follow-up survey, that the deficiency or cluster of 104221
deficiencies that is the basis for the fine has not been 104222
substantially corrected as of that date;104223

       (2) The date on which the department of health makes a 104224
determination, on the basis of a follow-up survey, that the 104225
deficiency or cluster of deficiencies has been substantially 104226
corrected;104227

       (3) The date the facility substantially corrected the 104228
deficiency or cluster, as subsequently determined by the 104229
department of health on the basis of documentation provided by the 104230
facility.104231

       (I) Any fine imposed by the department of job and family 104232
servicesmedicaid or contracting agency under this section is 104233
subject to appeal under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. If the 104234
facility does not request a hearing under Chapter 119. of the 104235
Revised Code and either pays or agrees in writing to pay the fine 104236
when payment becomes due under division (J) of this section, the 104237
department or agency shall reduce the fine by fifty per cent. The 104238
department or agency may compromise any claim for payment of a 104239
fine under sections 5111.355165.60 to 5111.625165.89 of the 104240
Revised Code.104241

       (J) The department of job and family servicesmedicaid or 104242
contracting agency shall collect interest on fines, at the rate 104243
per calendar month that equals one-twelfth of the rate per year 104244
prescribed by section 5703.47 of the Revised Code for the calendar 104245
year that includes the month for which the interest charge 104246
accrues. Payment of a fine is due, and interest begins to accrue 104247
on the unpaid fine or balance, on the thirty-first day after the 104248
department or agency issues a final adjudication order imposing 104249
the fine. If the deficiency or deficiencies on which the fine is 104250
based have not been corrected when the final adjudication order is 104251
issued, the payment is due, and interest begins to accrue on the 104252
unpaid fine or balance, on the thirty-first day after the 104253
deficiency or deficiencies are corrected and the department or 104254
agency mails a notice specifying the amount of the fine to the 104255
facility.104256

       (K) The department of job and family servicesmedicaid or 104257
contracting agency shall collect fines and interest imposed under 104258
this section through one of the following means:104259

       (1) A lump sum payment from the provider;104260

       (2) Periodic payments for a period not to exceed twelve 104261
months, in accordance with a schedule approved by the department 104262
or agency;104263

       (3) Appropriately reducing the amounts of medicaid payments 104264
made to the facility for carenursing facility services provided 104265
to medicaid eligible residents for a period not to exceed twelve 104266
months following the date on which payment of the fine becomes due 104267
under division (J) of this section. An amount equal to the amount 104268
by which each payment is reduced shall be deposited to the credit 104269
of the residents protection fund in accordance with section 104270
5111.625162.66 of the Revised Code.104271

       Sec. 5111.57.        Sec. 5165.84.  (A) The department of job and family 104272
servicesmedicaid or a contracting agency shall issue an order 104273
denying paymentmedicaid payments to a nursing facility for all 104274
medicaid eligible residents admitted to the facility on or after 104275
the effective date of the order, if the facility has failed to 104276
substantially correct within ninety days after the exit interview 104277
a deficiency or cluster of deficiencies in accordance with the 104278
plan of correction it submitted under section 5111.435165.69 of 104279
the Revised Code, as determined by the department of health on the 104280
basis of a follow-up survey.104281

       (B) The department of job and family servicesmedicaid or 104282
contracting agency shall issue an order denying paymentmedicaid 104283
payments to a nursing facility for all medicaid eligible residents 104284
admitted to the facility on or after the effective date of the 104285
order, if during three consecutive standard surveys conducted 104286
after December 13, 1990, the department of health has found a 104287
condition of substandard care in a facility.104288

       (C) An order issued under division (A) or (B) of this section 104289
shall take effect on the later of the date the facility receives 104290
the order or the date the public notice required under division 104291
(F) of section 5111.555165.82 of the Revised Code is published. 104292
The order is subject to appeal under Chapter 119. of the Revised 104293
Code; however the order may take effect prior to or during the 104294
pendency of any hearing under that chapter. In that case, the 104295
department or agency shall provide the facility an opportunity for 104296
a hearing in accordance with section 5111.605165.87 of the 104297
Revised Code.104298

       Sec. 5111.58.        Sec. 5165.85.  (A) If a nursing facility notifies the 104299
department of job and family servicesmedicaid or a contracting 104300
agency, at any time during the six-month period following the exit 104301
interview of a survey that was the basis for citing a deficiency 104302
or deficiencies, that the deficiency or deficiencies have been 104303
substantially corrected in accordance with the plan of correction 104304
submitted and approved under section 5111.435165.69 of the 104305
Revised Code, the department of health shall conduct a follow-up 104306
survey to determine whether the deficiency or deficiencies have 104307
been substantially corrected in accordance with the plan.104308

       (B) The department of job and family servicesmedicaid or a 104309
contracting agency shall terminate a nursing facility's 104310
participation in the medical assistancemedicaid program whenever 104311
the facility has not substantially corrected, within six months 104312
after the exit interview of the survey on the basis of which it 104313
was cited, a deficiency or deficiencies in accordance with the 104314
plan of correction submitted under section 5111.435165.69 of the 104315
Revised Code, as determined by the department of health on the 104316
basis of a follow-up survey.104317

       (C) Unless the facility has substantially corrected the 104318
deficiency or deficiencies in accordance with the plan of 104319
correction, as determined by the department of health on the basis 104320
of a follow-up survey, the department of job and family services104321
medicaid or contracting agency shall deliver to the facility, at 104322
least thirty days prior to the day that is six months after the 104323
exit interview, a written order terminating the facility's 104324
participation in the medical assistancemedicaid program. The 104325
order shall take effect and the facility's participation shall 104326
terminate on the day that is six months after the exit interview. 104327
The order shall not take effect if, after it is delivered to the 104328
facility and prior to the effective date of the order, the 104329
department of health determines on the basis of a follow-up survey 104330
that the facility has corrected the deficiency or deficiencies.104331

       An order issued under this section is subject to appeal under 104332
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code; however, the order may take 104333
effect prior to or during the pendency of any hearing under that 104334
chapter. In that case, the department of job and family services104335
medicaid or contracting agency shall provide the facility an 104336
opportunity for a hearing in accordance with section 5111.60104337
5165.87 of the Revised Code.104338

       (D) Except as provided in division (E) of this section, 104339
whenever the department of job and family servicesmedicaid or a 104340
contracting agency terminates a facility's participation in the 104341
medical assistancemedicaid program pursuant to this section, the 104342
provider shall repay the department the federal share of all 104343
medicaid payments made by the department to the facility under the 104344
medical assistance program during the six-month period following 104345
the exit interview of the survey that was the basis for citing the 104346
deficiency or cluster of deficiencies. The provider shall repay 104347
the department within thirty days after the department repays to 104348
the federal government the federal share of medicaid payments made 104349
to the facility during that six-month period.104350

       (E) A provider is not required to repay the department of job 104351
and family servicesmedicaid if either of the following is the 104352
case:104353

       (1) The facility has brought an appeal under Chapter 119. of 104354
the Revised Code of termination of its participation in the 104355
medical assistancemedicaid program, except that the provider 104356
shall repay the department of job and family servicesmedicaid104357
within thirty days after the facility exhausts its right to appeal 104358
under that chapter.104359

       (2) The facility complied with the plan of correction 104360
approved by the department of health and the obligation to repay 104361
resulted from the department's failure to provide timely 104362
verification to the United States department of health and human 104363
services of the facility's compliance with the plan of correction.104364

       (F) If a provider's obligation to repay the department of job 104365
and family servicesmedicaid under division (D) of this section 104366
results from disallowance of federal financial participation by 104367
the United States department of health and human services, the 104368
provider shall not be required to repay the department of job and 104369
family servicesmedicaid until the federal disallowance becomes 104370
final.104371

       (G) Any fines paid under sections 5111.355165.60 to 5111.62104372
5165.89 of the Revised Code during any period for which the 104373
facility is required to repay the department of job and family 104374
servicesmedicaid under division (D) of this section shall be 104375
offset against the amount the provider is required to repay the 104376
department for that period.104377

       (H) Prior to a change of ownership of a facility for which a 104378
provider has an obligation to repay the department of job and 104379
family servicesmedicaid under division (D) of this section that 104380
has not become final, or has become final but not been paid, the 104381
department may do one or more of the following:104382

       (1) Require the provider to place money in escrow, or obtain 104383
a bond, in sufficient amount to indemnify the state against the 104384
provider's failure to repay the department after the change of 104385
ownership occurs;104386

       (2) Place a lien on the facility's real property;104387

       (3) Use any method to recover the medicaid payments that is 104388
available to the attorney general to recover payments on behalf of 104389
the department of job and family servicesmedicaid.104390

       Sec. 5111.59.        Sec. 5165.86.  The department of job and family 104391
servicesmedicaid, the department of health, and any contracting 104392
agency shall deliver a written notice, statement, or order to a 104393
nursing facility under sections 5111.355165.60 to 5111.415165.66104394
and 5111.435165.69 to 5111.625165.89 of the Revised Code by 104395
certified mail or hand delivery. If the notice, statement, or 104396
order is mailed, it shall be addressed to the administrator of the 104397
facility as indicated in the department's or agency's records. If 104398
it is hand delivered, it shall be delivered to a person at the 104399
facility who would appear to the average prudent person to have 104400
authority to accept it.104401

       Delivery of written notice by a nursing facility to the 104402
department of health, the department of job and family services104403
medicaid, or a contracting agency under sections 5111.355165.60104404
to 5111.625165.89 of the Revised Code shall be by certified mail 104405
or hand delivery to the appropriate department or the agency.104406

       Sec. 5111.60.        Sec. 5165.87.  (A) Except as provided in division (B) 104407
of this section, the following remedies are subject to appeal 104408
under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code:104409

       (1) An order issued under section 5111.455165.71, 5111.46104410
5165.72, 5111.515165.77, or 5111.585165.85 of the Revised Code 104411
terminating a nursing facility's participation in the medical 104412
assistancemedicaid program;104413

       (2) Appointment of a temporary manager of a facility under 104414
division (A)(1)(b) or (2)(b) of section 5111.465165.72, or 104415
division (A)(1)(d) of section 5111.515165.77 of the Revised Code;104416

       (3) An order issued under section 5111.465165.72, 5111.47104417
5165.73, 5111.485165.74, 5111.515165.77, or 5111.575165.84 of 104418
the Revised Code denying paymentmedicaid payments to a facility 104419
under the medical assistance program for all medicaid eligible 104420
residents admitted after the effective date of the order;104421

       (4) An order issued under section 5111.465165.72, 5111.47104422
5165.73, or 5111.485165.74 of the Revised Code denying payment104423
medicaid payments to a facility under the medical assistance 104424
program for medicaid eligible residents admitted after the 104425
effective date of the order who have certain diagnoses or special 104426
care needs specified by the department or agency;104427

       (5) A fine imposed under section 5111.465165.72, 5111.47104428
5165.73, or 5111.485165.74 of the Revised Code.104429

       (B) The department of job and family servicesmedicaid or 104430
contracting agency may do any of the following prior to or during 104431
the pendency of any proceeding under Chapter 119. of the Revised 104432
Code:104433

       (1) Issue and execute an order under section 5111.465165.72, 104434
5111.515165.77, or 5111.585165.85 of the Revised Code 104435
terminating a nursing facility's participation in the medical 104436
assistancemedicaid program;104437

       (2) Appoint a temporary manager under division (A)(1)(b) or 104438
(2)(b) of section 5111.465165.72 or division (A)(1)(d) of section 104439
5111.515165.77 of the Revised Code;104440

       (3) Issue and execute an order under section 5111.465165.72, 104441
5111.475165.73, 5111.515165.77, or 5111.575165.84 of the 104442
Revised Code denying paymentmedicaid payments to a facility for 104443
all medicaid eligible residents admitted after the effective date 104444
of the order;104445

       (4) Issue and execute an order under section 5111.465165.72104446
or 5111.475165.73 or division (A), (B), or (C) of section 104447
5111.485165.74 of the Revised Code denying paymentmedicaid 104448
payments to a facility for medicaid eligible residents admitted 104449
after the effective date of the order who have specified diagnoses 104450
or special care needs.104451

       (C) Whenever the department or agency imposes a remedy listed 104452
in division (B) of this section prior to or during the pendency of 104453
a proceeding, all of the following apply:104454

       (1) The provider against whom the action is taken shall have 104455
ten days after the date the facility actually receives the notice 104456
specified in section 119.07 of the Revised Code to request a 104457
hearing.104458

       (2) The hearing shall commence within thirty days after the 104459
date the department or agency receives the provider's request for 104460
a hearing.104461

       (3) The hearing shall continue uninterrupted from day to day, 104462
except for Saturdays, Sundays, and legal holidays, unless other 104463
interruptions are agreed to by the provider and the department or 104464
agency.104465

       (4) If the hearing is conducted by a hearing examiner, the 104466
hearing examiner shall file a report and recommendations within 104467
ten days after the close of the hearing.104468

       (5) The provider shall have five days after the date the 104469
hearing officer files the report and recommendations within which 104470
to file objections to the report and recommendations.104471

       (6) Not later than fifteen days after the date the hearing 104472
officer files the report and recommendations, the medicaid104473
director of job and family services or the director of the 104474
contracting agency shall issue an order approving, modifying, or 104475
disapproving the report and recommendations of the hearing 104476
examiner.104477

       (D) If the department or agency imposes more than one remedy 104478
as the result of deficiencies cited in a single survey, the 104479
proceedings for all of the remedies shall be consolidated. If any 104480
of the remedies are imposed during the pendency of a hearing, as 104481
permitted by division (B) of this section, the consolidated 104482
hearing shall be conducted in accordance with division (C) of this 104483
section. The consolidation of the remedies for purposes of a 104484
hearing does not affect the effective dates prescribed in sections 104485
5111.355165.60 to 5111.585168.85 of the Revised Code.104486

       (E) If a contracting agency conducts administrative 104487
proceedings pertaining to remedies imposed under sections 5111.35104488
5165.60 to 5111.625165.89 of the Revised Code, the department of 104489
job and family servicesmedicaid shall not be considered a party 104490
to the proceedings.104491

       Sec. 5111.61.        Sec. 5165.88.  (A)(1) Except as required by court 104492
order, as necessary for the administration or enforcement of any 104493
statute relating to nursing facilities, or as provided in division 104494
(C) of this section, the department of job and family services104495
medicaid and any contracting agency shall not release any of the 104496
following information without the permission of the individual or 104497
the individual's legal representative:104498

       (a) The identity of any resident of a nursing facility;104499

       (b) The identity of any individual who submits a complaint 104500
about a nursing facility;104501

       (c) The identity of any individual who provides the 104502
department or agency with information about a nursing facility and 104503
has requested confidentiality;104504

       (d) Any information that reasonably would tend to disclose 104505
the identity of any individual described in division (A)(1)(a) to 104506
(c) of this section.104507

       (2) An agency or individual to whom the department or 104508
contracting agency is required, by court order or for the 104509
administration or enforcement of a statute relating to nursing 104510
facilities, to release information described in division (A)(1) of 104511
this section shall not release the information without the 104512
permission of the individual who would be or would reasonably tend 104513
to be identified, or of the individual's legal representative, 104514
unless the agency or individual is required to release it by 104515
division (C) of this section, by court order, or for the 104516
administration or enforcement of a statute relating to nursing 104517
facilities.104518

       (B) Except as provided in division (C) of this section, any 104519
record that identifies an individual described in division (A)(1) 104520
of this section or that reasonably would tend to identify such an 104521
individual is not a public record for the purposes of section 104522
149.43 of the Revised Code, and is not subject to inspection and 104523
copying under section 1347.08 of the Revised Code.104524

       (C) If the department or a contracting agency, or an agency 104525
or individual to whom the department or contracting agency was 104526
required by court order or for administration or enforcement of a 104527
statute relating to nursing facilities to release information 104528
described in division (A)(1) of this section, uses information in 104529
any administrative or judicial proceeding against a facility that 104530
reasonably would tend to identify an individual described in 104531
division (A)(1) of this section, the department, agency, or 104532
individual shall disclose that information to the facility. 104533
However, the department, agency, or individual shall not disclose 104534
information that directly identifies an individual described in 104535
divisions (A)(1)(a) to (c) of this section, unless the individual 104536
is to testify in the proceedings.104537

       (D) No person shall knowingly register a false complaint 104538
about a nursing facility with the department or a contracting 104539
agency, or knowingly swear or affirm the truth of a false 104540
complaint, when the allegation is made for the purpose of 104541
incriminating another.104542

       Sec. 5111.63.        Sec. 5165.89. For the purposes of this section, 104543
"facility," "medicare," and "medicaid" have the same meanings as 104544
in section 3721.10 of the Revised Code.104545

       The department of health shall be the designee of the 104546
department of job and family servicesmedicaid for the purpose of 104547
conducting a hearing pursuant to section 3721.162 of the Revised 104548
Code concerning a nursing facility's decision to transfer or 104549
discharge a resident if the resident is a medicaid recipient or 104550
medicare beneficiary.104551

       Sec. 5111.99.        Sec. 5165.99.  (A) Whoever violates division (B) of104552
section 5111.265165.102 or division (E) of section 5111.31104553
5165.08 of the Revised Code shall be fined not less than five 104554
hundred dollars nor more than one thousand dollars for the first 104555
offense and not less than one thousand dollars nor more than five 104556
thousand dollars for each subsequent offense. Fines paid under 104557
this section shall be deposited in the state treasury to the 104558
credit of the general revenue fund.104559

       (B) Whoever violates division (D) of section 5111.615165.88104560
of the Revised Code is guilty of registering a false complaint, a 104561
misdemeanor of the first degree.104562

       Sec. 5166.01.  As used in this chapter:104563

       "Administrative agency" means, with respect to a home and 104564
community-based services medicaid waiver component, the department 104565
of medicaid or, if a state agency or political subdivision 104566
contracts with the department under section 5162.35 of the Revised 104567
Code to administer the component, that state agency or political 104568
subdivision.104569

       "Dual eligible individual" has the same meaning as in section 104570
5160.01 of the Revised Code.104571

       "Home and community-based services medicaid waiver component" 104572
means a medicaid waiver component under which home and 104573
community-based services are provided as an alternative to 104574
hospital services, nursing facility services, or ICF/MR services.104575

       "Hospital" has the same meaning as in section 3727.01 of the 104576
Revised Code.104577

       "Hospital long-term care unit" has the same meaning as in 104578
section 5168.40 of the Revised Code.104579

       "ICDS participant" means a dual eligible individual who 104580
participates in the integrated care delivery system.104581

       "ICF/MR" and "ICF/MR services" have the same meanings as in 104582
section 5124.01 of the Revised Code.104583

       "Integrated care delivery system" and "ICDS" mean the 104584
demonstration project authorized by section 5164.91 of the Revised 104585
Code.104586

       "Level of care determination" means a determination of 104587
whether an individual needs the level of care provided by a 104588
hospital, nursing facility, or ICF/MR and whether the individual, 104589
if determined to need that level of care, would receive hospital 104590
services, nursing facility services, or ICF/MR services if not for 104591
a home and community-based services medicaid waiver component.104592

       "Medicaid services" has the same meaning as in section 104593
5164.01 of the Revised Code. 104594

       "Medicaid waiver component" means a component of the medicaid 104595
program authorized by a waiver granted by the United States 104596
department of health and human services under the "Social Security 104597
Act," section 1115 or 1915, 42 U.S.C. 1315 or 1396n. "Medicaid 104598
waiver component" does not include a care management system 104599
established under section 5167.03 of the Revised Code.104600

       "Nursing facility" and "nursing facility services" have the 104601
same meanings as in section 5165.01 of the Revised Code.104602

       "Ohio home care waiver program" means the home and 104603
community-based services medicaid waiver component that is known 104604
as Ohio home care and was created pursuant to section 5166.11 of 104605
the Revised Code.104606

       "Ohio transitions II aging carve-out program" means the home 104607
and community-based services medicaid waiver component that is 104608
known as Ohio transitions II aging carve-out and was created 104609
pursuant to section 5166.11 of the Revised Code.104610

       "Provider agreement" has the same meaning as in section 104611
5164.01 of the Revised Code.104612

       "Residential treatment facility" means a residential facility 104613
licensed by the department of mental health and addiction services 104614
under section 5119.34 of the Revised Code, or an institution 104615
certified by the department of job and family services under 104616
section 5103.03 of the Revised Code, that serves children and 104617
either has more than sixteen beds or is part of a campus of 104618
multiple facilities or institutions that, combined, have a total 104619
of more than sixteen beds.104620

       "Skilled nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 104621
5165.01 of the Revised Code.104622

       "Unified long-term services and support medicaid waiver 104623
component" means the medicaid waiver component authorized by 104624
section 5166.14 of the Revised Code.104625

       Sec. 5111.85.        Sec. 5166.02.  (A) As used in this section and 104626
sections 5111.851 to 5111.856 of the Revised Code:104627

       "Home and community-based services medicaid waiver component" 104628
means a medicaid waiver component under which home and 104629
community-based services are provided as an alternative to 104630
hospital, nursing facility, or intermediate care facility for the 104631
mentally retarded services.104632

       "Hospital" has the same meaning as in section 3727.01 of the 104633
Revised Code.104634

       "Intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded" has 104635
the same meaning as in section 5111.20 of the Revised Code.104636

       "Medicaid waiver component" means a component of the medicaid 104637
program authorized by a waiver granted by the United States 104638
department of health and human services under section 1115 or 1915 104639
of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 104640
1315 or 1396n. "Medicaid waiver component" does not include a care 104641
management system established under section 5111.16 of the Revised 104642
Code.104643

       "Nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 5111.20 104644
of the Revised Code.104645

       (B) The medicaid director of job and family services may104646
shall adopt rules underin accordance with Chapter 119. of the 104647
Revised Code governing medicaid waiver components that. The rules 104648
may establish all of the following:104649

       (1) Eligibility requirements for the medicaid waiver 104650
components;104651

       (2) The type, amount, duration, and scope of medicaid104652
services the medicaid waiver components providecover;104653

       (3) The conditions under which the medicaid waiver components 104654
cover medicaid services;104655

       (4) The amountamounts the medicaid waiver components pay for 104656
medicaid services or the methodmethods by which the amount is104657
amounts are determined;104658

       (5) The mannermanners in which the medicaid waiver 104659
components pay for medicaid services;104660

       (6) Safeguards for the health and welfare of medicaid 104661
recipients receiving medicaid services under a medicaid waiver 104662
component;104663

       (7) Procedures for prioritizing and approving for enrollment 104664
individuals who are eligible for a home and community-based 104665
services medicaid waiver component and choose to be enrolled in 104666
the component;104667

       (8) Procedures for enforcing the rules, including 104668
establishing corrective action plans for, and imposing financial 104669
and administrative sanctions on, persons and government entities 104670
that violate the rules. Sanctions shall include terminating 104671
medicaid provider agreements. The procedures shall include due 104672
process protections.104673

       (9) Other policies necessary for the efficient administration 104674
of the medicaid waiver components.104675

       (C)(B) The director of job and family services may adopt 104676
different rules for the different medicaid waiver components. The 104677
rules shall be consistent with the terms of the waiver authorizing 104678
the medicaid waiver component.104679

       (D)(C) The following apply to procedures established under 104680
division (B)(A)(7) of this section:104681

       (1) Any such procedures established for the medicaid-funded 104682
component of the PASSPORT program shall be consistent with section 104683
173.401173.521 of the Revised Code. 104684

       (2) Any such procedures established for the medicaid-funded 104685
component of the assisted living program shall be consistent with 104686
section 173.542 of the Revised Code.104687

       (3) Any such procedures established for the Ohio home care 104688
waiver program shall be consistent with section 5111.8625166.121104689
of the Revised Code.104690

       (3)(4) Any such procedures established for the unified 104691
long-term services and support medicaid waiver program shall be 104692
consistent with section 5111.8655166.141 of the Revised Code.104693

        (4) Any such procedures established for the medicaid-funded 104694
component of the assisted living program shall be consistent with 104695
section 5111.894 of the Revised Code.104696

       Sec. 5111.84.        Sec. 5166.03. The medicaid director of job and family 104697
services may not submit a request to the United States secretary 104698
of health and human services for a medicaid waiver under section 104699
1115 of the "Social Security Act of 1935," section 1115, 42 U.S.C. 104700
1315, unless the director provides the speaker of the house of 104701
representatives and president of the senate written notice of the 104702
director's intent to submit the request at least ten days before 104703
the date the director submits the request to the United States 104704
secretary. The notice shall include a detailed explanation of the 104705
medicaid waiver the director proposes to seek.104706

       Sec. 5111.851.        Sec. 5166.04. (A) As used in sections 5111.851 to 104707
5111.855 of the Revised Code:104708

       "Administrative agency" means, with respect to a home and 104709
community-based services medicaid waiver component, the department 104710
of job and family services or, if a state agency or political 104711
subdivision contracts with the department under section 5111.91 104712
of the Revised Code to administer the component, that state agency 104713
or political subdivision.104714

        "Level of care determination" means a determination of 104715
whether an individual needs the level of care provided by a 104716
hospital, nursing facility, or intermediate care facility for the 104717
mentally retarded and whether the individual, if determined to 104718
need that level of care, would receive hospital, nursing facility, 104719
or intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded services 104720
if not for a home and community-based services medicaid waiver 104721
component.104722

       "Medicaid buy-in for workers with disabilities program" means 104723
the component of the medicaid program established under sections 104724
5111.70 to 5111.7011 of the Revised Code.104725

       "Skilled nursing facility" means a facility certified as a 104726
skilled nursing facility under Title XVIII of the "Social Security 104727
Act," 79 Stat. 286 (1965), 42 U.S.C. 1395, as amended.104728

       (B) The following requirements apply to each home and 104729
community-based services medicaid waiver component:104730

       (1)(A) Only an individual who qualifies for a component shall 104731
receive that component's medicaid services.104732

       (2)(B) A level of care determination shall be made as part of 104733
the process of determining whether an individual qualifies for a 104734
component and shall be made each year after the initial 104735
determination if, during such a subsequent year, the 104736
administrative agency determines there is a reasonable indication 104737
that the individual's needs have changed.104738

       (3)(C) A written plan of care or individual service plan 104739
based on an individual assessment of the medicaid services that an 104740
individual needs to avoid needing admission to a hospital, nursing 104741
facility, or intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded104742
ICF/MR shall be created for each individual determined eligible 104743
for a component.104744

       (4)(D) Each individual determined eligible for a component 104745
shall receive that component's medicaid services in accordance 104746
with the individual's level of care determination and written plan 104747
of care or individual service plan.104748

       (5)(E) No individual may receive medicaid services under a 104749
component while the individual is a hospital inpatient or resident 104750
of a skilled nursing facility, nursing facility, or intermediate 104751
care facility for the mentally retardedICF/MR.104752

       (6)(F) No individual may receive prevocational, educational, 104753
or supported employment services under a component if the 104754
individual is eligible for such services that are funded with 104755
federal funds provided under 29 U.S.C. 730 or the "Individuals 104756
with Disabilities Education Act," 111 Stat. 37 (1997), 20 U.S.C. 104757
1400, as amended.104758

       (7)(G) Safeguards shall be taken to protect the health and 104759
welfare of individuals receiving medicaid services under a 104760
component, including safeguards established in rules adopted under 104761
section 5111.855166.02 of the Revised Code and safeguards 104762
established by licensing and certification requirements that are 104763
applicable to the providers of that component's medicaid services.104764

        (8)(H) No medicaid services may be provided under a component 104765
by a provider that is subject to standards that the "Social 104766
Security Act," section 1616(e)(1), 42 U.S.C. 1382e(e)(1), requires 104767
be established if the provider fails to comply with the standards 104768
applicable to the provider.104769

       (9)(I) Individuals determined to be eligible for a component, 104770
or such individuals' representatives, shall be informed of that 104771
component's medicaid services, including any choices that the 104772
individual or representative may make regarding the component's 104773
medicaid services, and given the choice of either receiving 104774
medicaid services under that component or, as appropriate, 104775
hospital services, nursing facility services, or intermediate care 104776
facility for the mentally retardedICF/MR services.104777

       (10) No individual shall lose eligibility for services under 104778
a component, or have the services reduced or otherwise disrupted, 104779
on the basis that the individual also receives services under the 104780
medicaid buy-in for workers with disabilities program.104781

       (11) No individual shall lose eligibility for services under 104782
a component, or have the services reduced or otherwise disrupted, 104783
on the basis that the individual's income or resources increase to 104784
an amount above the eligibility limit for the component if the 104785
individual is participating in the medicaid buy-in for workers 104786
with disabilities program and the amount of the individual's 104787
income or resources does not exceed the eligibility limit for the 104788
medicaid buy-in for workers with disabilities program.104789

       (12) No individual receiving services under a component shall 104790
be required to pay any cost sharing expenses for the services for 104791
any period during which the individual also participates in the 104792
medicaid buy-in for workers with disabilities program.104793

       Sec. 5111.852.        Sec. 5166.05.  The department of job and family 104794
servicesmedicaid may review and approve, modify, or deny written 104795
plans of care and individual service plans that section 5111.851104796
5166.04 of the Revised Code requires be created for individuals 104797
determined eligible for a home and community-based services 104798
medicaid waiver component. If a state agency or political 104799
subdivision contracts with the department under section 5111.91104800
5162.35 of the Revised Code to administer a home and 104801
community-based services medicaid waiver component and approves, 104802
modifies, or denies a written plan of care or individual service 104803
plan pursuant to the agency's or subdivision's administration of 104804
the component, the department may review the agency's or 104805
subdivision's approval, modification, or denial and order the 104806
agency or subdivision to reverse or modify the approval, 104807
modification, or denial. The state agency or political subdivision 104808
shall comply with the department's order.104809

       The department of job and family servicesmedicaid shall be 104810
granted full and immediate access to any records the department 104811
needs to implement its duties under this section.104812

       Sec. 5111.853.        Sec. 5166.06.  Each administrative agency shall 104813
maintain, for a period of time the department of job and family 104814
servicesmedicaid shall specify, financial records documenting 104815
the costs of medicaid services provided under the home and 104816
community-based services medicaid waiver components that the 104817
agency administers, including records of independent audits. The 104818
administrative agency shall make the financial records available 104819
on request to the United States secretary of health and human 104820
services, United States comptroller general, and their designees.104821

       Sec. 5111.854.        Sec. 5166.07.  Each administrative agency is 104822
financially accountable for funds expended for medicaid services 104823
provided undercovered by the home and community-based services 104824
medicaid waiver components that the agency administers.104825

       Sec. 5111.855.        Sec. 5166.08.  Each state agency and political 104826
subdivision that enters into a contract with the department of job 104827
and family servicesmedicaid under section 5111.915162.35 of the 104828
Revised Code to administer a home and community-based services 104829
medicaid waiver component, or one or more aspects of such a 104830
component, shall provide the department a written assurance that 104831
the agency or subdivision will not violate any of the requirements 104832
of sections 5111.855166.01 to 5111.8545166.07 of the Revised 104833
Code.104834

       Sec. 5111.856.        Sec. 5166.10.  To the extent necessary for the 104835
efficient and economical administration of medicaid waiver 104836
components, the department of job and family servicesmedicaid may 104837
transfer an individual enrolled in a medicaid waiver component 104838
administered by the department to another medicaid waiver 104839
component the department administers if the individual is eligible 104840
for the medicaid waiver component and the transfer does not 104841
jeopardize the individual's health or safety.104842

       Sec. 5111.86.        Sec. 5166.11. (A) As used in this section:104843

       (1) "Hospital" has the same meaning as in section 3727.01 of 104844
the Revised Code.104845

       (2) "Medicaid waiver component" has the same meaning as in 104846
section 5111.85 of the Revised Code.104847

       (3) "Nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 104848
5111.20 of the Revised Code.104849

       (4), "Ohio home care program" means the program the 104850
department of job and family servicesmedicaid administers that 104851
provides state plan services and medicaid waiver component 104852
services pursuant to rules adopted under sections 5111.01 and 104853
5111.02 of the Revised Codefor the medicaid program and a 104854
medicaid waiver that went into effect July 1, 1998.104855

       (B) The directordepartment of job and family services104856
medicaid may submit requests to the United States secretary of 104857
health and human services pursuant to section 1915 of the "Social 104858
Security Act," 79 Stat. 286 (1965), 42 U.S.C. 1396n, as amended, 104859
to obtain waivers of federal medicaid requirements that would 104860
otherwise be violated in the creation and implementation ofcreate 104861
and administer two or more medicaid waiver components under which 104862
home and community-based services are provided to eligible 104863
individuals who need the level of care provided by a nursing 104864
facility or hospital. In administering the requestsmedicaid 104865
waiver components, the directordepartment may specify the 104866
following:104867

        (1) The maximum number of individuals who may be enrolled in 104868
each of the medicaid waiver components included in the requests;104869

        (2) The maximum amount the medicaid program may expend each 104870
year for each individual enrolled in the medicaid waiver 104871
components;104872

        (3) The maximum amount the medicaid program may expend each 104873
year for all individuals enrolled in the medicaid waiver 104874
components;104875

        (4) Any other requirements the directordepartment selects 104876
for the medicaid waiver components.104877

       (C) If the secretary approves the medicaid waivers requested 104878
under this section, the director may create and implement the 104879
medicaid waiver components in accordance with the provisions of 104880
the approved waivers. The department of job and family services 104881
shall administer the medicaid waiver components.104882

       (D) After the first of any of the medicaid waiver components 104883
createdthat the department administers under this section begins 104884
to enroll eligible individuals, the directordepartment may 104885
submit to the United States secretary of health and human services 104886
an amendment to a medicaid waiver component of the Ohio home care 104887
program authorizing the department to cease enrollingto enroll104888
additional individuals in thata medicaid waiver component of the 104889
Ohio home care program. If the secretary approves the amendment, 104890
the director may cease to enroll additional individuals in that 104891
medicaid waiver component of the Ohio home care program.104892

       Sec. 5111.861.        Sec. 5166.12.  (A) As used in this section:104893

       "Medicaid waiver component" has the same meaning as in 104894
section 5111.85 of the Revised Code.104895

       "Unified long-term services and support medicaid waiver 104896
component" means the medicaid waiver component authorized by 104897
section 5111.864 of the Revised Code.104898

       (B) Subject to division (C) of this section, there is hereby 104899
created the Ohio home care program. The program shall provide home 104900
and community-based services. The department of job and family 104901
services medicaid shall administer the program.104902

       (C) If the unified long-term services and support medicaid 104903
waiver component is created, the departments of aging and job and 104904
family servicesmedicaid shall work togethercollaborate to 104905
determine whether the Ohio home care waiver program should 104906
continue to operate as a separate medicaid waiver component or be 104907
terminated. If the departments determine that the Ohio home care 104908
waiver program should be terminated, the program shall cease to 104909
exist on a date the departments shall specify.104910

       Sec. 5111.862.        Sec. 5166.121.  (A) As used in this section:104911

       "Hospital long-term care unit" has the same meaning as in 104912
section 3721.50 of the Revised Code.104913

       "Nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 5111.20 104914
of the Revised Code.104915

       "Ohio home care program" means the medicaid waiver component 104916
created under section 5111.861 of the Revised Code.104917

       "Residential treatment facility" means a residential facility 104918
licensed by the department of mental health under section 5119.22 104919
of the Revised Code, or an institution certified by the department 104920
of job and family services under section 5103.03 of the Revised 104921
Code, that serves children and either has more than sixteen beds 104922
or is part of a campus of multiple facilities or institutions 104923
that, combined, have a total of more than sixteen beds.104924

       (B) Subject to division (C) ofUnless the Ohio home care 104925
waiver program is terminated pursuant to section 5111.8615165.12104926
of the Revised Code, the department of job and family services104927
medicaid shall establish a home first component for the Ohio home 104928
care waiver program. An individual is eligible for the Ohio home 104929
care waiver program's home first component if the individual has 104930
been determined to be eligible for the Ohio home care waiver104931
program and at least one of the following applies:104932

       (1) If the individual is under twenty-one years of age, the 104933
individual received inpatient hospital services for at least 104934
fourteen consecutive days, or had at least three inpatient 104935
hospital stays during the twelve months, immediately preceding the 104936
date the individual applies for the Ohio home care waiver program.104937

       (2) If the individual is at least twenty-one but less than 104938
sixty years of age, the individual received inpatient hospital 104939
services for at least fourteen consecutive days immediately 104940
preceding the date the individual applies for the Ohio home care 104941
waiver program.104942

       (3) The individual received private duty nursing services 104943
under the medicaid program for at least twelve consecutive months 104944
immediately preceding the date the individual applies for the Ohio 104945
home care waiver program.104946

       (4) The individual does not reside in a nursing facility or 104947
hospital long-term care unit at the time the individual applies 104948
for the Ohio home care waiver program but is at risk of imminent 104949
admission to a nursing facility or hospital long-term care unit 104950
due to a documented loss of a primary caregiver.104951

       (5) The individual resides in a nursing facility at the time 104952
the individual applies for the Ohio home care waiver program.104953

       (6) At the time the individual applies for the Ohio home care 104954
waiver program, the individual participates in the money follows 104955
the person demonstration project authorized by section 6071 of the 104956
"Deficit Reduction Act of 2005," Pub. L. No. 109-171, as amended, 104957
and either resides in a residential treatment facility or 104958
inpatient hospital setting.104959

       (C)(B) An individual determined to be eligible for the home 104960
first component of the Ohio home care waiver program shall be 104961
enrolled in the Ohio home care program in accordance with rules 104962
adopted under section 5111.855166.02 of the Revised Code.104963

       Sec. 5111.863.        Sec. 5166.13. (A) As used in this section:104964

       "Medicaid waiver component" has the same meaning as in 104965
section 5111.85 of the Revised Code.104966

       "Unified long-term services and support medicaid waiver 104967
component" means the medicaid waiver component authorized by 104968
section 5111.864 of the Revised Code.104969

       (B) Subject to division (C) of this section, there is hereby 104970
created the Ohio transitions II aging carve-out program. The 104971
program shall provide home and community-based services. The 104972
department of job and family services shall administer the 104973
program.104974

       (C) If the unified long-term services and support medicaid 104975
waiver component is created, the departments of aging and job and 104976
family servicesmedicaid shall work togethercollaborate to 104977
determine whether the Ohio transitions II aging carve-out program 104978
should continue to operate as a separate medicaid waiver component 104979
or be terminated. If the departments determine that the Ohio 104980
transitions II aging carve-out program should be terminated, the 104981
program shall cease to exist on a date the departments shall 104982
specify.104983

       Sec. 5111.864.        Sec. 5166.14. (A) As used in this section:104984

       "Medicaid waiver component" has the same meaning as in 104985
section 5111.85 of the Revised Code.104986

       "Nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 5111.20 104987
of the Revised Code.104988

       (B) The directordepartment of job and family services104989
medicaid shall submit a request to the United States secretary of 104990
health and human services pursuant to section 1915n of the "Social 104991
Security Act," 95 Stat. 809 (1981), 42 U.S.C. 1396n, as amended, 104992
to obtain approval to create a unified long-term services and 104993
support medicaid waiver component to provide home and 104994
community-based services to eligible individuals of any age who 104995
require the level of care provided by nursing facilities. The 104996
directordepartment of job and family servicesmedicaid shall work104997
collaborate with the directordepartment of aging in seeking 104998
approval of the unified long-term services and support medicaid 104999
waiver component and, if the approval is obtained, in creating and 105000
implementing the component.105001

       If the request to create the unified long-term services and 105002
support medicaid waiver component is approved, theThe medicaid105003
director of job and family services, workingshall collaborate105004
with the director of aging, shall adoptwhen adopting rules under 105005
section 5111.855166.02 of the Revised Code to implement the 105006
component. The rules may authorize the director of aging to adopt 105007
rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code 105008
governing aspects of the unified long-term services and support 105009
medicaid waiver component.105010

       Sec. 5111.865.        Sec. 5166.141. (A) As used in this section, 105011
"unified long-term services and support medicaid waiver program" 105012
or "program" means the medicaid waiver component authorized by 105013
section 5111.864 of the Revised Code.105014

       (B) If the United States secretary of health and human 105015
services approves the request submitted under section 5111.864 of 105016
the Revised Code to create the unified long-term services and 105017
support medicaid waiver program, theThe department of job and 105018
family servicesmedicaid shall establish a home first component 105019
for the unified long-term services and support medicaid waiver105020
program. The home first component shall be similar to the home 105021
first component of the medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT 105022
program established under section 173.401173.521 of the Revised 105023
Code, the home first component of the Ohio home care program 105024
established under section 5111.862 of the Revised Code, and the 105025
home first component of the medicaid-funded component of the 105026
assisted living program established under section 5111.894173.542105027
of the Revised Code, and the home first component of the Ohio home 105028
care waiver program established under section 5166.121 of the 105029
Revised Code.105030

       Sec. 5166.16.  (A) As used in this section, "ODA or MCD 105031
medicaid waiver component" means all of the following: 105032

       (1) The medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program, 105033
unless it is terminated pursuant to division (C) of section 173.52 105034
of the Revised Code;105035

       (2) The choices program, unless it is terminated pursuant to 105036
division (B) of section 173.53 of the Revised Code;105037

       (3) The medicaid-funded component of the assisted living 105038
program, unless it is terminated pursuant to division (C) of 105039
section 173.54 of the Revised Code;105040

       (4) The Ohio home care waiver program, unless it is 105041
terminated pursuant to section 5166.12 of the Revised Code;105042

       (5) The Ohio transitions II aging carve-out program, unless 105043
it is terminated pursuant to section 5166.13 of the Revised Code.105044

       (B) The medicaid director may create a home and 105045
community-based services medicaid waiver component as part of the 105046
integrated care delivery system. If the ICDS medicaid waiver 105047
component is created, both of the following apply:105048

       (1) The department of medicaid shall administer it;105049

       (2) When it begins to accept enrollments, no ICDS participant 105050
who is eligible for the ICDS medicaid waiver component shall be 105051
enrolled in an ODA or MCD medicaid waiver component regardless of 105052
whether the participant prefers to remain or be enrolled in an ODA 105053
or MCD medicaid waiver component.105054

       (C) A dual eligible individual who is eligible for an ODA or 105055
MCD medicaid waiver component may enroll in the component before 105056
the individual becomes an ICDS participant. The dual eligible 105057
individual shall disenroll from the ODA or MCD medicaid waiver 105058
component and enroll in the ICDS medicaid waiver component once 105059
the individual becomes an ICDS participant and it is possible to 105060
enroll the individual in the ICDS medicaid waiver component. The 105061
disenrollment from the ODA or MCD medicaid waiver component and 105062
enrollment into the ICDS medicaid waiver component shall occur 105063
regardless of whether the individual prefers to remain enrolled in 105064
the ODA or MCD medicaid waiver component.105065

       (D) An ICDS participant's disenrollment from an ODA or MCD 105066
medicaid waiver component and enrollment in the ICDS medicaid 105067
waiver component resulting from division (B)(2) or (C) of this 105068
section shall be accomplished without a disruption in the 105069
participant's services under the components.105070

       Sec. 5111.87.        Sec. 5166.20. (A) As used in this section and section 105071
5111.871 of the Revised Code:105072

       (1) "Intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded" 105073
has the same meaning as in section 5111.20 of the Revised Code.105074

       (2) "Medicaid waiver component" has the same meaning as in 105075
section 5111.85 of the Revised Code.105076

       (B) The directordepartment of job and family services105077
medicaid may apply to the United States secretary of health and 105078
human services for both ofcreate the following:105079

       (1) One or more medicaid waiver components under which home 105080
and community-based services are provided to individuals with 105081
mental retardation or other developmental disability as an 105082
alternative to placement in an intermediate care facility for the 105083
mentally retardedICFs/MR;105084

        (2) One or more medicaid waiver components under which home 105085
and community-based services are provided in the form of any of 105086
the following:105087

        (a) Early intervention and supportive services for children 105088
under three years of age who have developmental delays or 105089
disabilities the directordepartment determines are significant;105090

        (b) Therapeutic services for children who have autism;105091

        (c) Specialized habilitative services for individuals who are 105092
eighteen years of age or older and have autism. 105093

       (C)(B) No medicaid waiver component authorized bycreated 105094
pursuant to division (B)(A)(2)(b) or (c) of this section shall 105095
provide services that are available under another medicaid waiver 105096
component. No medicaid waiver component authorized bycreated 105097
pursuant to division (B)(A)(2)(b) of this section shall provide 105098
services to an individual that the individual is eligible to 105099
receive through an individualized education program as defined in 105100
section 3323.01 of the Revised Code.105101

        (D)(C) The director of developmental disabilities orand105102
director of health may request that the directordepartment of job 105103
and family services apply formedicaid create one or more medicaid 105104
waiverswaiver components under this section.105105

       (E)(D) Before applying forcreating a medicaid waiver 105106
component under this section, the directordepartment of job and 105107
family servicesmedicaid shall seek, accept, and consider public 105108
comments.105109

       Sec. 5111.871.        Sec. 5166.21.  The department of job and family 105110
servicesmedicaid shall enter into a contract with the department 105111
of developmental disabilities under section 5111.915162.35 of the 105112
Revised Code with regard to one or more of the medicaid waiver 105113
components establishedcreated by the department of job and 105114
family servicesmedicaid under section 5111.875166.20 of the 105115
Revised Code. Subject, if needed, to the approval of the United 105116
States secretary of health and human services, theThe contract 105117
shall include the medicaid waiver component known as the 105118
transitions developmental disabilities waiver. The contract shall 105119
provide for the department of developmental disabilities to 105120
administer the components in accordance with the terms of the 105121
federal medicaid waivers authorizing the components. The contract 105122
shall include a schedule for the department of developmental 105123
disabilities to begin administering the transitions developmental 105124
disabilities waiver. The directors of job and family services and 105125
developmental disabilities shall adopt rules in accordance with 105126
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code governing the components.105127

       If the department of developmental disabilities or the 105128
department of job and family servicesmedicaid denies an 105129
individual's application for home and community-based services 105130
provided under any of these medicaid components, the department 105131
that denied the services shall give timely notice to the 105132
individual that the individual may request a hearing underappeal 105133
pursuant to section 5101.355160.31 of the Revised Code.105134

       The departments of developmental disabilities and job and 105135
family servicesmedicaid may approve, reduce, deny, or terminate a 105136
medicaid service included in the individualized service plan 105137
developed for a medicaid recipient eligible for home and 105138
community-based services provided under any of these medicaid 105139
components. The departments shall consider the recommendations a 105140
county board of developmental disabilities makes under division 105141
(A)(1)(c) of section 5126.055 of the Revised Code. If either 105142
department approves, reduces, denies, or terminates a medicaid105143
service, that department shall give timely notice to the medicaid 105144
recipient that the recipient may request a hearing underappeal 105145
pursuant to section 5101.355160.31 of the Revised Code.105146

       If supported living, as defined in section 5126.01 of the 105147
Revised Code, is to be provided as a medicaid service under any of 105148
these components, any person or government entity with a current, 105149
valid medicaid provider agreement and a current, valid 105150
certificate under section 5123.161 of the Revised Code may provide 105151
the medicaid service.105152

       If a medicaid service is to be provided under any of these 105153
components by a residential facility, as defined in section 105154
5123.19 of the Revised Code, any person or government entity with 105155
a current, valid medicaid provider agreement and a current, valid 105156
license under section 5123.19 of the Revised Code may provide the 105157
medicaid service.105158

       Sec. 5111.872.        Sec. 5166.22.  (A) Subject to division (B) of this 105159
section, when the department of developmental disabilities 105160
allocates enrollment numbers to a county board of developmental 105161
disabilities for home and community-based services specified in 105162
division (B)(A)(1) of section 5111.875166.20 of the Revised Code 105163
and provided under any of the medicaid waiver components that the 105164
department administers under section 5111.8715166.21 of the 105165
Revised Code, the department shall consider all of the following:105166

       (1) The number of individuals with mental retardation or 105167
other developmental disability who are on a waiting list the 105168
county board establishes under section 5126.042 of the Revised 105169
Code for those services and are given priority on the waiting 105170
list;105171

       (2) The implementation component required by division (A)(3) 105172
of section 5126.054 of the Revised Code of the county board's plan 105173
approved under section 5123.046 of the Revised Code;105174

       (3) Anything else the department considers necessary to 105175
enable county boards to provide those services to individuals in 105176
accordance with the priority requirements for waiting lists 105177
established under section 5126.042 of the Revised Code for those 105178
services.105179

       (B) Division (A) of this section applies to home and 105180
community-based services provided under the medicaid waiver 105181
component known as the transitions developmental disabilities 105182
waiver only to the extent, if any, provided by the contract 105183
required by section 5111.8715166.21 of the Revised Code regarding 105184
the waivercomponent.105185

       Sec. 5111.873.        Sec. 5166.23.  (A) Subject to division (D) of this 105186
section, the medicaid director of job and family services shall 105187
adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119.under section 5166.02105188
of the Revised Code establishing the amount of reimbursement105189
payment amounts or the methods by which the payment amounts of 105190
reimbursement are to be determined for home and community-based 105191
services specified in division (B)(A)(1) of section 5111.87105192
5166.20 of the Revised Code and provided under the components of 105193
the medicaid program that the department of developmental 105194
disabilities administers under section 5111.8715166.21 of the 105195
Revised Code. With respect to these rules, all of the following 105196
apply:105197

       (1) The rules shall establish procedures for the department 105198
of developmental disabilities to follow in arranging for the 105199
initial and ongoing collection of cost information from a 105200
comprehensive, statistically valid sample of persons and 105201
government entities providing the services at the time the 105202
information is obtained.105203

       (2) The rules shall establish procedures for the collection 105204
of consumer-specific information through an assessment instrument 105205
the department of developmental disabilities shall provide to the 105206
department of job and family servicesmedicaid.105207

       (3) With the information collected pursuant to divisions 105208
(A)(1) and (2) of this section, an analysis of that information, 105209
and other information the director determines relevant, the rules 105210
shall establish reimbursementpayment standards that do all of the 105211
following:105212

       (a) Assure that reimbursement ispayment amounts are105213
consistent with efficiency, economy, and quality of care;105214

       (b) Consider the intensity of consumer resource need;105215

       (c) Recognize variations in different geographic areas 105216
regarding the resources necessary to assure the health and welfare 105217
of consumers;105218

       (d) Recognize variations in environmental supports available 105219
to consumers.105220

       (B) As part of the process of adopting rules underauthorized 105221
by this section, the director shall consult with the director of 105222
developmental disabilities, representatives of county boards of 105223
developmental disabilities, persons who provide the home and 105224
community-based services, and other persons and government 105225
entities the director identifies.105226

       (C) The directors of job and family servicesmedicaid 105227
director and director of developmental disabilities shall review 105228
the rules adopted underauthorized by this section at times they 105229
determine are necessary to ensure that the amount of reimbursement105230
payment amounts or the methods by which the payment amounts of 105231
reimbursement are to be determined continue to meet the 105232
reimbursementpayment standards established under division (A)(3) 105233
of this section.105234

       (D) This section applies to home and community-based services 105235
provided under the medicaid waiver component known as the 105236
transitions developmental disabilities waiver only to the extent, 105237
if any, provided by the contract required by section 5111.871105238
5166.21 of the Revised Code regarding the waivercomponent.105239

       Sec. 5111.88.        Sec. 5166.30.  (A) As used in sections 5111.88105240
5166.30 to 5111.88115166.3010 of the Revised Code:105241

       (1) "Adult" means an individual at least eighteen years of 105242
age.105243

       (2) "Appropriate director" means the following:105244

       (a) The medicaid director in the context of all of the 105245
following:105246

       (i) The Ohio home care waiver program, unless it is 105247
terminated pursuant to section 5166.12 of the Revised Code; 105248

       (ii) The Ohio transitions II aging carve-out program, unless 105249
it is terminated pursuant to section 5166.13 of the Revised Code;105250

       (iii) The integrated care delivery system medicaid waiver 105251
component authorized by section 5166.16 of the Revised Code.105252

       (b) The director of aging in the context of the 105253
medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program, unless it is 105254
terminated pursuant to division (C) of section 173.52 of the 105255
Revised Code.105256

       (3) "Authorized representative" means the following:105257

       (a) In the case of a consumer who is a minor, the consumer's 105258
parent, custodian, or guardian;105259

       (b) In the case of a consumer who is an adult, an individual 105260
selected by the consumer pursuant to section 5111.88105166.3010105261
of the Revised Code to act on the consumer's behalf for purposes 105262
regarding home care attendant services.105263

       (3)(4) "Authorizing health care professional" means a health 105264
care professional who, pursuant to section 5111.8875166.307 of 105265
the Revised Code, authorizes a home care attendant to assist a 105266
consumer with self-administration of medication, nursing tasks, or 105267
both.105268

       (4)(5) "Consumer" means an individual to whom all of the 105269
following apply:105270

       (a) The individual is enrolled in a participating medicaid 105271
waiver component.105272

       (b) The individual has a medically determinable physical 105273
impairment to which both of the following apply:105274

       (i) It is expected to last for a continuous period of not 105275
less than twelve months.105276

       (ii) It causes the individual to require assistance with 105277
activities of daily living, self-care, and mobility, including 105278
either assistance with self-administration of medication or the 105279
performance of nursing tasks, or both.105280

       (c) In the case of an individual who is an adult, the 105281
individual is mentally alert and is, or has an authorized 105282
representative who is, capable of selecting, directing the actions 105283
of, and dismissing a home care attendant.105284

       (d) In the case of an individual who is a minor, the 105285
individual has an authorized representative who is capable of 105286
selecting, directing the actions of, and dismissing a home care 105287
attendant.105288

       (5)(6) "Controlled substance" has the same meaning as in 105289
section 3719.01 of the Revised Code.105290

       (6)(7) "Custodian" has the same meaning as in section 105291
2151.011 of the Revised Code.105292

       (7)(8) "Gastrostomy tube" means a percutaneously inserted 105293
catheter that terminates in the stomach.105294

       (8)(9) "Guardian" has the same meaning as in section 2111.01 105295
of the Revised Code.105296

       (9)(10) "Health care professional" means a physician or 105297
registered nurse.105298

       (10)(11) "Home care attendant" means an individual holding a 105299
valid medicaid provider agreement in accordance with section 105300
5111.8815166.301 of the Revised Code that authorizes the 105301
individual to provide home care attendant services to consumers.105302

       (11)(12) "Home care attendant services" means all of the 105303
following as provided by a home care attendant:105304

       (a) Personal care aide services;105305

       (b) Assistance with the self-administration of medication;105306

       (c) Assistance with nursing tasks.105307

       (12)(13) "Jejunostomy tube" means a percutaneously inserted 105308
catheter that terminates in the jejunum.105309

       (13) "Medicaid waiver component" has the same meaning as in 105310
section 5111.85 of the Revised Code.105311

       (14) "Medication" means a drug as defined in section 4729.01 105312
of the Revised Code.105313

       (15) "Minor" means an individual under eighteen years of age.105314

       (16) "Participating medicaid waiver component" means both105315
all of the following:105316

       (a) The medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program, 105317
unless it is terminated pursuant to division (C) of section 173.52 105318
of the Revised Code;105319

       (b) The Ohio home care waiver program created under, unless 105320
it is terminated pursuant to section 5111.8615166.12 of the 105321
Revised Code;105322

       (b)(c) The Ohio transitions II aging carve-out program 105323
created under, unless it is terminated pursuant to section 105324
5111.8635166.13 of the Revised Code;105325

       (d) The integrated care delivery system medicaid waiver 105326
component authorized by section 5166.16 of the Revised Code.105327

       (17) "Physician" means an individual authorized under Chapter 105328
4731. of the Revised Code to practice medicine and surgery or 105329
osteopathic medicine and surgery.105330

       (18) "Practice of nursing as a registered nurse," "practice 105331
of nursing as a licensed practical nurse," and "registered nurse" 105332
have the same meanings as in section 4723.01 of the Revised Code. 105333
"Registered nurse" includes an advanced practice registered nurse, 105334
as defined in section 4723.01 of the Revised Code.105335

       (19) "Schedule II," "schedule III," "schedule IV," and 105336
"schedule V" have the same meanings as in section 3719.01 of the 105337
Revised Code.105338

       (B) The director of job and family services may submit 105339
requests to the United States secretary of health and human 105340
services to amend the federal medicaid waivers authorizing the 105341
participatingParticipating medicaid waiver components to have 105342
those componentsmay cover home care attendant services in 105343
accordance with sections 5111.885166.30 to 5111.88105166.3010 of 105344
the Revised Code and rules adopted under section 5111.88115166.02105345
of the Revised Code. Notwithstanding sections 5111.881 to 105346
5111.8811 of the Revised Code, those sections shall be implemented 105347
regarding a participating medicaid waiver component only if the 105348
secretary approves a waiver amendment for the component.105349

       Sec. 5111.881.        Sec. 5166.301.  The medicaid director of job and 105350
family services shall enter into a medicaid provider agreement 105351
with an individual to authorize the individual to provide home 105352
care attendant services to consumers if the individual does both 105353
of the following:105354

       (A) Agrees to comply with the requirements of sections 105355
5111.885166.30 to 5111.88105166.3010 and rules adopted under 105356
section 5111.88115166.02 of the Revised Code;105357

       (B) Provides the director evidence satisfactory to the 105358
director of all of the following:105359

       (1) That the individual either meets the personnel 105360
qualifications specified in 42 C.F.R. 484.4 for home health aides 105361
or has successfully completed at least one of the following:105362

       (a) A competency evaluation program or training and 105363
competency evaluation program approved or conducted by the 105364
director of health under section 3721.31 of the Revised Code;105365

       (b) A training program approved by the department of job and 105366
family servicesappropriate director that includes training in at 105367
least all of the following and provides training equivalent to a 105368
training and competency evaluation program specified in division 105369
(B)(1)(a) of this section or meets the requirements of 42 C.F.R. 105370
484.36(a):105371

       (i) Basic home safety;105372

       (ii) Universal precautions for the prevention of disease 105373
transmission, including hand-washing and proper disposal of bodily 105374
waste and medical instruments that are sharp or may produce sharp 105375
pieces if broken;105376

       (iii) Personal care aide services;105377

       (iv) The labeling, counting, and storage requirements for 105378
schedule II, III, IV, and V medications.105379

       (2) That the individual has obtained a certificate of 105380
completion of a course in first aid from a first aid course to 105381
which all of the following apply:105382

       (a) It is not provided solely through the internet.105383

       (b) It includes hands-on training provided by a first aid 105384
instructor who is qualified to provide such training according to 105385
standards set in rules adopted under section 5111.88115166.02 of 105386
the Revised Code.105387

       (c) It requires the individual to demonstrate successfully 105388
that the individual has learned the first aid taught in the 105389
course.105390

       (3) That the individual meets any other requirements for the 105391
medicaid provider agreement specified in rules adopted under 105392
section 5111.88115166.02 of the Revised Code.105393

       Sec. 5111.882.        Sec. 5166.302.  A home care attendant shall complete 105394
not less than twelve hours of in-service continuing education 105395
regarding home care attendant services each year and provide the 105396
appropriate director of job and family services evidence 105397
satisfactory to the appropriate director that the attendant 105398
satisfied this requirement. The evidence shall be submitted to the 105399
appropriate director not later than the annual anniversary of the 105400
issuance of the home care attendant's initial medicaid provider 105401
agreement.105402

       Sec. 5111.883.        Sec. 5166.303.  A home care attendant shall do all 105403
of the following:105404

       (A) Maintain a clinical record for each consumer to whom the 105405
attendant provides home care attendant services in a manner that 105406
protects the consumer's privacy;105407

       (B) Participate in a face-to-face visit every ninety days 105408
with all of the following to monitor the health and welfare of 105409
each of the consumers to whom the attendant provides home care 105410
attendant services:105411

       (1) The consumer;105412

       (2) The consumer's authorized representative, if any;105413

       (3) A registered nurse who agrees to answer any questions 105414
that the attendant, consumer, or authorized representative has 105415
about consumer care needs, medications, and other issues.105416

       (C) Document the activities of each visit required by 105417
division (B) of this section in the consumer's clinical record 105418
with the assistance of the registered nurse.105419

       Sec. 5111.884.        Sec. 5166.304.  (A) A home care attendant may assist 105420
a consumer with nursing tasks or self-administration of medication 105421
only after the attendant does both of the following:105422

       (1) Subject to division (B) of this section, completes 105423
consumer-specific training in how to provide the assistance that 105424
the authorizing health care professional authorizes the attendant 105425
to provide to the consumer;105426

       (2) At the request of the consumer, consumer's authorized 105427
representative, or authorizing health care professional, 105428
successfully demonstrates that the attendant has learned how to 105429
provide the authorized assistance to the consumer.105430

       (B) The training required by division (A)(1) of this section 105431
shall be provided by either of the following:105432

       (1) The authorizing health care professional;105433

       (2) The consumer or consumer's authorized representative in 105434
cooperation with the authorizing health care professional.105435

       Sec. 5111.885.        Sec. 5166.305.  A home care attendant shall comply 105436
with both of the following when assisting a consumer with nursing 105437
tasks or self-administration of medication:105438

       (A) The written consent of the consumer or consumer's 105439
authorized representative provided to the appropriate director of 105440
job and family services under section 5111.8865166.306 of the 105441
Revised Code;105442

       (B) The authorizing health care professional's written 105443
authorization provided to the appropriate director under section 105444
5111.8875166.307 of the Revised Code.105445

       Sec. 5111.886.        Sec. 5166.306.  To consent to a home care attendant 105446
assisting a consumer with nursing tasks or self-administration of 105447
medication, the consumer or consumer's authorized representative 105448
shall provide the appropriate director of job and family services105449
a written statement signed by the consumer or authorized 105450
representative under which the consumer or authorized 105451
representative consents to both of the following:105452

       (A) Having the attendant assist the consumer with nursing 105453
tasks or self-administration of medication;105454

       (B) Assuming responsibility for directing the attendant when 105455
the attendant assists the consumer with nursing tasks or 105456
self-administration of medication.105457

       Sec. 5111.887.        Sec. 5166.307.  To authorize a home care attendant 105458
to assist a consumer with nursing tasks or self-administration of 105459
medication, a health care professional shall provide the 105460
appropriate director of job and family services a written 105461
statement signed by the health care professional that includes all 105462
of the following:105463

       (A) The consumer's name and address;105464

       (B) A description of the nursing tasks or self-administration 105465
of medication with which the attendant is to assist the consumer, 105466
including, in the case of assistance with self-administration of 105467
medication, the name and dosage of the medication;105468

       (C) The times or intervals when the attendant is to assist 105469
the consumer with the self-administration of each dosage of the 105470
medication or nursing tasks;105471

       (D) The dates the attendant is to begin and cease providing 105472
the assistance;105473

       (E) A list of severe adverse reactions the attendant must 105474
report to the health care professional should the consumer 105475
experience one or more of the reactions;105476

       (F) At least one telephone number at which the attendant can 105477
reach the health care professional in an emergency;105478

       (G) Instructions the attendant is to follow when assisting 105479
the consumer with nursing tasks or self-administration of 105480
medication, including instructions for maintaining sterile 105481
conditions and for storage of task-related equipment and supplies;105482

       (H) The health care professional's attestation of both of the 105483
following:105484

       (1) That the consumer or consumer's authorized representative 105485
has demonstrated to the health care professional the ability to 105486
direct the attendant;105487

       (2) That the attendant has demonstrated to the health care 105488
professional the ability to provide the consumer assistance with 105489
nursing tasks or self-administration of medication that the health 105490
care professional has specifically authorized the attendant to 105491
provide and that the consumer or consumer's authorized 105492
representative has indicated to the health care professional that 105493
the consumer or authorized representative is satisfied with the 105494
attendant's demonstration.105495

       Sec. 5111.888.        Sec. 5166.308.  When authorizing a home care 105496
attendant to assist a consumer with nursing tasks or 105497
self-administration of medication, a health care professional may 105498
not authorize a home care attendant to do any of the following:105499

       (A) Perform a task that is outside of the health care 105500
professional's scope of practice;105501

       (B) Assist the consumer with the self-administration of a 105502
medication, including a schedule II, schedule III, schedule IV, or 105503
schedule V drug unless both of the following apply:105504

        (1) The medication is administered orally, topically, or via 105505
a gastrostomy tube or jejunostomy tube, including through any of 105506
the following:105507

        (a) In the case of an oral medication, a metered dose 105508
inhaler;105509

        (b) In the case of a topical medication, including a 105510
transdermal medication, either of the following:105511

        (i) An eye, ear, or nose drop or spray;105512

        (ii) A vaginal or rectal suppository.105513

        (c) In the case of a gastrostomy tube or jejunostomy tube, 105514
only through a pre-programmed pump.105515

        (2) The medication is in its original container and the label 105516
attached to the container displays all of the following:105517

       (a) The consumer's full name in print;105518

       (b) The medication's dispensing date, which must not be more 105519
than twelve months before the date the attendant assists the 105520
consumer with self-administration of the medication;105521

       (c) The exact dosage and means of administration that match 105522
the health care professional's authorization to the attendant.105523

       (C) Assist the consumer with the self-administration of a 105524
schedule II, schedule III, schedule IV, or schedule V medication 105525
unless, in addition to meeting the requirements of division (B) of 105526
this section, all of the following apply:105527

       (1) The medication has a warning label on its container.105528

       (2) The attendant counts the medication in the consumer's or 105529
authorized representative's presence when the medication is 105530
administered to the consumer and records the count on a form used 105531
for the count as specified in rules adopted under section 105532
5111.88115166.02 of the Revised Code.105533

       (3) The attendant recounts the medication in the consumer's 105534
or authorized representative's presence at least monthly and 105535
reconciles the recount on a log located in the consumer's clinical 105536
record.105537

       (4) The medication is stored separately from all other 105538
medications and is secured and locked at all times when not being 105539
administered to the consumer to prevent unauthorized access.105540

       (D) Perform an intramuscular injection;105541

       (E) Perform a subcutaneous injection unless it is for a 105542
routine dose of insulin;105543

       (F) Program a pump used to deliver a medication unless the 105544
pump is used to deliver a routine dose of insulin;105545

       (G) Insert, remove, or discontinue an intravenous access 105546
device;105547

       (H) Engage in intravenous medication administration;105548

       (I) Insert or initiate an infusion therapy;105549

       (J) Perform a central line dressing change.105550

       Sec. 5111.889.        Sec. 5166.309.  A home care attendant who provides 105551
home care attendant services to a consumer in accordance with the 105552
authorizing health care professional's authorization does not 105553
engage in the practice of nursing as a registered nurse or in the 105554
practice of nursing as a licensed practical nurse in violation of 105555
section 4723.03 of the Revised Code.105556

       A consumer or the consumer's authorized representative shall 105557
report to the appropriate director of job and family services if a 105558
home care attendant engages in the practice of nursing as a 105559
registered nurse or the practice of nursing as a licensed 105560
practical nurse beyond the authorizing health care professional's 105561
authorization. The appropriate director shall forward a copy of 105562
each report to the board of nursing.105563

       Sec. 5111.8810.        Sec. 5166.3010.  A consumer who is an adult may 105564
select an individual to act on the consumer's behalf for purposes 105565
regarding home care attendant services by submitting a written 105566
notice of the consumer's selection of an authorized representative 105567
to the appropriate director of job and family services. The 105568
notice shall specifically identify the individual the consumer 105569
selects as authorized representative and may limit what the 105570
authorized representative may do on the consumer's behalf 105571
regarding home care attendant services. A consumer may not select 105572
the consumer's home care attendant to be the consumer's authorized 105573
representative.105574

       Sec. 5111.97.        Sec. 5166.35.  (A) As used in this section:105575

       (1) "Home and community-based services medicaid waiver 105576
component" has the same meaning as in section 5111.85 of the 105577
Revised Code.105578

       (2) "Nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 105579
5111.20 of the Revised Code.105580

       (B) To the extent funds are available, theThe medicaid105581
director of job and family services may establish the Ohio access 105582
success project to help medicaid recipients make the transition 105583
from residing in a nursing facilityfacilities to residing in a105584
community settingsettings. The project may be established as a 105585
separate nonmedicaid program or integrated into a new or existing 105586
home and community-based services medicaid waiver component. The 105587
director shall permit any medicaid recipient of medicaid-funded105588
receiving nursing facility services to apply for participation in 105589
the project, but may limit the number of project participants. 105590

       The director shall ensure that an assessment of an applicant 105591
is conducted as soon as practicable to determine whether the 105592
applicant is eligible for participation in the project. To the 105593
maximum extent possible, the assessment and eligibility 105594
determination shall be completed not later than the date that 105595
occurs six months after the applicant became a recipient of 105596
medicaid-fundedbegins to receive nursing facility services.105597

       (C)(B) To be eligible for benefits under the project, a 105598
medicaid recipient must satisfy all of the following requirements:105599

       (1) The medicaid recipient must be a recipient of 105600
medicaid-fundedreceiving nursing facility services, at the time 105601
of applying for the project benefits.105602

       (2) If the project is established as a nonmedicaid program, 105603
the medicaid recipient must be able to remain in the community as 105604
a result of receiving project benefits and the projected cost of 105605
the benefits to the project does not exceed eighty per cent of the 105606
average monthly medicaid cost of a medicaid recipient in a nursing 105607
facility.105608

       (3) If the project is integrated into a home and 105609
community-based services medicaid waiver component, the medicaid 105610
recipient must meet the waiver component's enrollment criteria.105611

        (D)(C) If the director establishes the Ohio access success 105612
project, the benefits provided under the project may include 105613
payment of all of the following:105614

       (1) The first month's rent in a community setting;105615

       (2) Rental deposits;105616

       (3) Utility deposits;105617

       (4) Moving expenses;105618

       (5) Other expenses not covered by the medicaid program that 105619
facilitate a medicaid recipient's move from a nursing facility to 105620
a community setting.105621

       (E)(D) If the project is established as a nonmedicaid 105622
program, no participant may receive more than two thousand 105623
dollars' worth of benefits under the project.105624

       (F)(E) If the department of job and family servicesmedicaid105625
enters into a contract with an entity to provide fiscal management 105626
services regarding the project, the contract may provide for a 105627
portion of a participant's benefits under the project to be paid 105628
to the contracting entity. The contract shall specify the portion 105629
to be paid to the contracting entity.105630

       (G) The director may submit a request to the United States 105631
secretary of health and human services pursuant to section 1915 of 105632
the "Social Security Act," 95 Stat. 809 (1981), 42 U.S.C. 1396n, 105633
as amended, to create a home and community-based services medicaid 105634
waiver component to serve individuals who meet the criteria for 105635
participation in the Ohio access success project.105636

       (H)(F) The director may adopt rules in accordance with 105637
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code for the administration and 105638
operation of the project. If the project is integrated into a home 105639
and community-based services medicaid waiver component, the rules 105640
shall be adopted under section 5111.855166.02 of the Revised 105641
Code.105642

       Sec. 5167.01.  As used in this chapter:105643

       (A) "Controlled substance" has the same meaning as in section 105644
3719.01 of the Revised Code.105645

       (B) "Dual eligible individual" has the same meaning as in 105646
section 5160.01 of the Revised Code.105647

       (C) "Emergency services" has the same meaning as in the 105648
"Social Security Act," section 1932(b)(2), 42 U.S.C. 105649
1396u-2(b)(2).105650

       (D) "Home and community-based services medicaid waiver 105651
component" has the same meaning as in section 5166.01 of the 105652
Revised Code.105653

       (E) "Medicaid managed care organization" means a managed care 105654
organization under contract with the department of medicaid 105655
pursuant to section 5167.10 of the Revised Code.105656

       (F) "Medicaid waiver component" has the same meaning as in 105657
section 5166.01 of the Revised Code.105658

       (G) "Nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 105659
5165.01 of the Revised Code.105660

       (H) "Prescribed drug" has the same meaning as in section 105661
5164.01 of the Revised Code.105662

        (I) "Provider" means any person or government entity that 105663
furnishes services to a medicaid recipient enrolled in a medicaid 105664
managed care organization, regardless of whether the person or 105665
entity has a provider agreement.105666

       (J) "Provider agreement" has the same meaning as in section 105667
5164.01 of the Revised Code.105668

       Sec. 5167.02.  The medicaid director shall adopt rules as 105669
necessary to implement this chapter. The rules shall be adopted in 105670
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.105671

       Sec. 5111.16.        Sec. 5167.03. (A) As part of the medicaid program, 105672
the department of job and family servicesmedicaid shall establish 105673
a care management system. The department shall submit, if 105674
necessary, applications to the United States department of health 105675
and human services for waivers of federal medicaid requirements 105676
that would otherwise be violated in the implementation of the 105677
system.105678

       (B) The department shall implement the care management system 105679
in some or all counties and shall designate the medicaid 105680
recipients who are required or permitted to participate in the 105681
system. In the department's implementation of the system and 105682
designation of participants, all of the following apply:105683

       (1) In the case of individuals who receive medicaid on the 105684
basis of being included in the category identified by the 105685
department as covered families and children, the department shall 105686
implement the care management system in all counties. All 105687
individuals included in the category shall be designated for 105688
participation, except for individuals included in one or more of 105689
the medicaid recipient groups specified in 42 C.F.R. 438.50(d). 105690
The department shall ensure that all participants are enrolled in 105691
medicaid managed care organizations that are health insuring 105692
corporations under contract with the department pursuant to 105693
section 5111.17 of the Revised Code.105694

       (2) In the case of individuals who receive medicaid on the 105695
basis of being aged, blind, or disabled, as specified in division 105696
(C)(2) of section 5111.01 of the Revised Code, the department 105697
shall implement the care management system in all counties. Except 105698
as provided in division (C) of this section, all individuals 105699
included in the category shall be designated for participation. 105700
The department shall ensure that all participants are enrolled in 105701
medicaid managed care organizations that are health insuring 105702
corporations under contract with the department pursuant to 105703
section 5111.17 of the Revised Code.105704

        (3) Alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services 105705
covered by medicaid shall not be included in any component of the 105706
care management system when the nonfederal share of the cost of 105707
those services is provided by a board of alcohol, drug addiction, 105708
and mental health services or a state agency other than the 105709
department of job and family servicesmedicaid, but the recipients 105710
of those services may otherwise be designated for participation in 105711
the system.105712

        (C)(1) In designating participants who receive medicaid on 105713
the basis of being aged, blind, or disabled, the department shall 105714
not include any of the following, except as provided under 105715
division (C)(2) of this section:105716

        (a) Individuals who are under twenty-one years of age;105717

        (b) Individuals who are institutionalized;105718

        (c) Individuals who become eligible for medicaid by spending 105719
down their income or resources to a level that meets the medicaid 105720
program's financial eligibility requirements;105721

        (d) Individuals who are duallyDual eligible under the 105722
medicaid program and the medicare program established under Title 105723
XVIII of the "Social Security Act," 79 Stat. 286 (1965), 42 U.S.C. 105724
1395, as amendedindividuals;105725

        (e) Individuals to the extent that they are receiving 105726
medicaid services through a medicaid waiver component, as defined 105727
in section 5111.85 of the Revised Code.105728

       (2) If any necessary waiver of federal medicaid requirements 105729
is granted, theThe department may designate any of the following 105730
individuals who receive medicaid on the basis of being aged, 105731
blind, or disabled as individuals who are permitted or required to 105732
participate in the care management system:105733

       (a) Individuals who are under twenty-one years of age;105734

        (b) Individuals who reside in a nursing facility, as defined 105735
in section 5111.20 of the Revised Code;105736

       (c) Individuals who, as an alternative to receiving nursing 105737
facility services, are participating in a home and community-based 105738
services medicaid waiver component, as defined in section 5111.85 105739
of the Revised Code;105740

       (d) Individuals who are duallyDual eligible under the 105741
medicaid program and the medicare programindividuals.105742

       (D) Subject to division (B) of this section, the department 105743
may do both of the following under the care management system:105744

       (1) Require or permit participants in the system to obtain 105745
health care services from providers designated by the department;105746

       (2) Require or permit participants in the system to obtain 105747
health care services through medicaid managed care organizations 105748
under contract with the department pursuant to section 5111.17 of 105749
the Revised Code.105750

       (E)(1) The department shall prepare an annual report on the 105751
care management system. The report shall address the department's 105752
ability to implement the system, including all of the following 105753
components:105754

       (a) The required designation of participants included in the 105755
category identified by the department as covered families and 105756
children;105757

       (b) The required designation of participants included in the 105758
aged, blind, or disabled category of medicaid recipients;105759

       (c) The use of any programs for enhanced care management.105760

       (2) The department shall submit each annual report to the 105761
general assembly. The first report shall be submitted not later 105762
than October 1, 2007.105763

       (F) The director of job and family services may adopt rules 105764
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement 105765
this section.105766

       Sec. 5111.161.        Sec. 5167.031.  (A) As used in this section:105767

       (1) "Children's care network" means any of the following:105768

       (a) A children's hospital;105769

       (b) A group of children's hospitals;105770

       (c) A group of pediatric physicians.105771

       (2) "Children's hospital" has the same meaning as in section 105772
2151.86 of the Revised Code.105773

       (B) If the department of job and family servicesmedicaid105774
includes in the care management system, pursuant to section 105775
5111.165167.03 of the Revised Code, individuals under twenty-one 105776
years of age who are included in the category of individuals who 105777
receive medicaid on the basis of being aged, blind, or disabled, 105778
as specified in division (C)(2) of section 5111.01 of the Revised 105779
Code, the department shall develop a system tomay recognize 105780
entities as pediatric accountable care organizations. The purpose 105781
of the recognition system shall be to meet the complex medical and 105782
behavioral needs of disabled children through new approaches to 105783
care coordination. The department shall implement the recognition 105784
system not later than July 1, 2012.105785

       An entity recognized by the department as a pediatric 105786
accountable care organization may develop innovative partnerships 105787
between relevant groups and may contract directly or subcontract 105788
with the state to provide care coordination and other services to 105789
the medicaid recipients under twenty-one years of age described in 105790
this division who are permitted or required to participate in the 105791
care management system. 105792

       (C)(1) To be recognized by the department as a pediatric 105793
accountable care organization, an entity shall meet the standards 105794
established in rules adopted under this sectionby the department. 105795
Unless required by sectionssection 2706 and 3022 of the "Patient 105796
Protection and Affordable Care Act," 124 Stat. 325 (2010) and 105797
Title XVIII of the "Social Security Act," 124 Stat. 395 (2010)105798
section 1895, 42 U.S.C. 1395jjj, the regulations adopted pursuant 105799
to those sections, and the laws of this state, the department 105800
shall not require that an entity be a health insuring corporation 105801
as a condition of receiving the department's recognition.105802

       (2) Any of the following entities may receive the 105803
department's recognition, if the standards for recognition have 105804
been met:105805

       (a) A children's care network;105806

       (b) A children's care network that may include one or more 105807
other entities, including, but not limited to, health insuring 105808
corporations or other managed care organizations;105809

       (c) Any other entity the department determines is qualified.105810

       (D) The departmentmedicaid director shall consult with all 105811
of the following in adopting rules underauthorized by division 105812
(E) of this section necessary for an entity to be recognized by 105813
the department as a pediatric accountable care organization:105814

       (1) The superintendent of insurance;105815

       (2) Children's hospitals;105816

       (3) ManagedMedicaid managed care organizations under 105817
contract pursuant to section 5111.17 of the Revised Code;105818

       (4) Any other relevant entities, as determined necessary by 105819
the department, with interests in pediatric accountable care 105820
organizations.105821

       (E) The department shall adopt rules in accordance with 105822
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code as necessary to implement this 105823
section. In adopting the rules under section 5167.02 of the 105824
Revised Code, the departmentmedicaid director shall do all of the 105825
following:105826

       (1) Establish application procedures to be followed by an 105827
entity seeking recognition as a pediatric accountable care 105828
organization;105829

       (2) Ensure that the standards for recognition as a pediatric 105830
accountable care organization are the same as and do not conflict 105831
with those specified in sectionssection 2706 and 3022 of the 105832
"Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act," 124 Stat. 325 (2010) 105833
and Title XVIII of the "Social Security Act," 124 Stat. 395 105834
(2010)section 1895, 42 U.S.C. 1395jjj or the regulations adopted 105835
pursuant to those sections;105836

       (3) Establish requirements regarding the access to pediatric 105837
specialty care provided through or by a pediatric accountable care 105838
organization;105839

       (4) Establish accountability and financial requirements for 105840
an entity recognized as a pediatric accountable care organization;105841

       (5) Establish quality improvement initiatives consistent with 105842
any state medicaid quality plan established by the department;105843

       (6) Establish transparency and consumer protection 105844
requirements for an entity recognized as a pediatric accountable 105845
care organization;105846

       (7) Establish a process for sharing data.105847

       (F) This section does not limit the authority of the 105848
department of insurance to regulate the business of insurance in 105849
this state.105850

       Sec. 5167.032.  (A) The department of medicaid shall prepare 105851
an annual report on the care management system established under 105852
this chapter. The report shall address the department's ability to 105853
implement the system, including all of the following components:105854

       (1) The required designation of participants included in the 105855
category identified by the department as covered families and 105856
children;105857

       (2) The required designation of participants included in the 105858
aged, blind, or disabled category of medicaid recipients;105859

       (3) The use of any programs for enhanced care management.105860

       (B) The department shall submit each annual report to the 105861
general assembly in accordance with section 101.68 of the Revised 105862
Code.105863

       Sec. 5111.17.        Sec. 5167.10.  (A) The department of job and family 105864
servicesmedicaid may enter into contracts with managed care 105865
organizations, including health insuring corporations, under which 105866
the organizations are authorized to provide, or arrange for the 105867
provision of, health care services to medical assistancemedicaid105868
recipients who are required or permitted to obtain health care 105869
services through managed care organizations as part of the care 105870
management system established under section 5111.165167.03 of the 105871
Revised Code.105872

       (B) The(1) Subject to division (B)(2)(a) of this section, 105873
the department or its actuary shall base the hospital inpatient 105874
capital payment portion of the payment made to managed care 105875
organizations on data for services provided to all recipients 105876
enrolled in managed care organizations with which the department 105877
contracts, as reported by hospitals on relevant cost reports 105878
submitted pursuant to rules adopted under this section 5167.02 of 105879
the Revised Code.105880

       (2)(a) The hospital inpatient capital payment portion of the 105881
payment made to medicaid managed care organizations shall not 105882
exceed any maximum rate established by the department pursuant to 105883
rules adopted under this section.105884

        (b) If a maximum rate is established, a medicaid managed care 105885
organization shall not compensate hospitals for inpatient capital 105886
costs in an amount that exceeds that rate. 105887

       (C) The director of job and family services may adopt rules 105888
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement 105889
this section. 105890

       (D) The department of job and family servicesmedicaid shall 105891
allow a medicaid managed care organization to use providers to 105892
render care upon completion of the medicaid managed care 105893
organization's credentialing process.105894

       Sec. 5111.177.        Sec. 5167.11.  When contracting under section 105895
5111.175167.10 of the Revised Code with a health insuring 105896
corporation that holds a certificate of authority under Chapter 105897
1751. of the Revised Code, the department of job and family 105898
servicesmedicaid shall require the health insuring corporation to 105899
provide a grievance process for medicaid recipients in accordance 105900
with 42 C.F.R. 438, subpart F.105901

       Sec. 5111.172.        Sec. 5167.12.  (A) When contracting under section 105902
5111.175167.10 of the Revised Code with a managed care 105903
organization that is a health insuring corporation, the department 105904
of job and family servicesmedicaid shall require the health 105905
insuring corporation to provide coverage of prescription105906
prescribed drugs for medicaid recipients enrolled in the health 105907
insuring corporation. In providing the required coverage, the 105908
health insuring corporation may, subject to the department's 105909
approval and the limitations specified in division (B) of this 105910
section, use strategies for the management of drug utilization.105911

       (B) The department shall not permit a health insuring 105912
corporation to impose a prior authorization requirement in the 105913
case of a drug to which all of the following apply:105914

       (1) The drug is an antidepressant or antipsychotic.105915

       (2) The drug is administered or dispensed in a standard 105916
tablet or capsule form, except that in the case of an 105917
antipsychotic, the drug also may be administered or dispensed in a 105918
long-acting injectable form.105919

       (3) The drug is prescribed by either of the following:105920

       (a) A physician whom the health insuring corporation, 105921
pursuant to division (C) of section 5111.175167.10 of the Revised 105922
Code, has credentialed to provide care as a psychiatrist;105923

       (b) A psychiatrist practicing at a community mental health 105924
agencyservices provider certified by the department of mental 105925
healthmental health and addiction services under section 105926
5119.6115119.36 of the Revised Code.105927

       (4) The drug is prescribed for a use that is indicated on the 105928
drug's labeling, as approved by the federal food and drug 105929
administration.105930

       (C) As used in this division, "controlled substance" has the 105931
same meaning as in section 3719.01 of the Revised Code.105932

        The department shall permit a health insuring corporation to 105933
develop and implement a pharmacy utilization management program 105934
under which prior authorization through the program is established 105935
as a condition of obtaining a controlled substance pursuant to a 105936
prescription.105937

       Sec. 5167.121. (A) A medicaid managed care organization or 105938
its third party administrator shall provide advance notice of both 105939
of the following:105940

       (1) In the case of any provider, termination of the 105941
provider's status as a managed care network provider unless the 105942
termination is implemented because of fraud, illegal conduct, 105943
bankruptcy, insolvency, or any other reason specified by contract 105944
with the provider for which notification is not required;105945

       (2) In the case of a pharmacy provider, removal of a 105946
prescribed drug from the formulary or preferred drug list used by 105947
the organization or administrator or any change in the terms 105948
governing access to the drug.105949

       (B) The minimum period of specified advance notice to be 105950
provided under this section shall be either the period specified 105951
in the contract with the provider or, if there is no period 105952
specified in the contract, ninety days. The organization or 105953
administrator shall notify the provider in the same manner it 105954
notifies the provider for other purposes.105955

       Sec. 5111.179.        Sec. 5167.13.  Each contract the department of job 105956
and family servicesmedicaid enters into with a managed care 105957
organization under section 5111.175167.10 of the Revised Code 105958
shall require the managed care organization to implement a 105959
coordinated services program for medicaid recipients enrolled in 105960
the organization who are found to have obtained prescription105961
prescribed drugs under the medicaid program at a frequency or in 105962
an amount that is not medically necessary. The program shall be 105963
implemented in a manner that is consistent with section 1915(a)(2) 105964
of the "Social Security Act," 95 Stat. 810 (1981)section 105965
1915(a)(2), 42 U.S.C. 1396n(a)(2), as amended, and 42 C.F.R. 105966
431.54(e).105967

       Sec. 5111.1710.        Sec. 5167.14.  Each contract the department of job 105968
and family servicesmedicaid enters into with a managed care 105969
organization under section 5111.175167.10 of the Revised Code 105970
shall require the managed care organization to enter into a data 105971
security agreement with the state board of pharmacy governing the 105972
managed care organization's use of the board's drug database 105973
established and maintained under section 4729.75 of the Revised 105974
Code.105975

       This section does not apply if the board no longer maintains 105976
the drug database.105977

       Sec. 5111.162.        Sec. 5167.20.  (A) As used in this section:105978

       (1) "Emergency services" has the same meaning as in section 105979
1932(b)(2) of the "Social Security Act," 79 Stat. 286 (1965), 42 105980
U.S.C. 1396u-2(b)(2), as amended.105981

       (2) "Medicaid managed care organization" means a managed care 105982
organization that has entered into a contract with the department 105983
of job and family services pursuant to section 5111.17 of the 105984
Revised Code.105985

       (B) Except as provided in division (C)(B) of this section, 105986
when a participant in the care management system established under 105987
section 5111.16 of the Revised Codethis chapter is enrolled in a 105988
medicaid managed care organization and the organization refers the 105989
participant to receive services, other than emergency services 105990
provided on or after January 1, 2007, at a hospital that 105991
participates in the medicaid program but is not under contract 105992
with the organization, the hospital shall provide the service for 105993
which the referral was made and shall accept from the 105994
organization, as payment in full, the amount derived from the 105995
reimbursementpayment rate used by the department to reimbursepay105996
other hospitals of the same type for providing the same service to 105997
a medicaid recipient who is not enrolled in a medicaid managed 105998
care organization.105999

       (C)(B) A hospital is not subject to division (B)(A) of this 106000
section if all of the following are the case:106001

        (1) The hospital is located in a county in which participants 106002
in the care management system are required before January 1, 2006, 106003
to be enrolled in a medicaid managed care organization that is a 106004
health insuring corporation;106005

        (2) The hospital has entered into a contract before January 106006
1, 2006, with at least one health insuring corporation serving the 106007
participants specified in division (C)(B)(1) of this section;106008

        (3) The hospital remains under contract with at least one 106009
health insuring corporation serving participants in the care 106010
management system who are required to be enrolled in a health 106011
insuring corporation.106012

       (D)(C) The medicaid director of job and family services shall 106013
adopt rules under section 5167.02 of the Revised Code specifying 106014
the circumstances under which a medicaid managed care organization 106015
is permitted to refer a participant in the care management system 106016
to a hospital that is not under contract with the organization. 106017
The director may adopt any other rules necessary to implement this 106018
section. All rules adopted under this section shall be adopted in 106019
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.106020

       Sec. 5111.163.        Sec. 5167.201. (A) As used in this section:106021

       (1) "Emergency services" has the same meaning as in section 106022
1932(b)(2) of the "Social Security Act," 79 Stat. 286 (1965), 42 106023
U.S.C. 1396u-2(b)(2), as amended.106024

       (2) "Medicaid managed care organization" has the same meaning 106025
as in section 5111.162 of the Revised Code.106026

       (3) "Provider" means any person, institution, or entity that 106027
furnishes emergency services to a medicaid recipient enrolled in a 106028
medicaid managed care organization, regardless of whether the 106029
person, institution, or entity has a provider agreement with the 106030
department of job and family services pursuant to Title XIX of the 106031
"Social Security Act."106032

       (B) When a participant in the care management system 106033
established under section 5111.16 of the Revised Codethis chapter106034
is enrolled in a medicaid managed care organization and receives 106035
emergency services on or after January 1, 2007, from a provider 106036
that is not under contract with the organization, the provider 106037
shall accept from the organization, as payment in full, not more 106038
than the amounts (less any payments for indirect costs of medical 106039
education and direct costs of graduate medical education) that the 106040
provider could collect if the participant received medicaid other 106041
than through enrollment in a managed care organization.106042

       An agreement entered into by a participant, a participant's 106043
parent, or a participant's legal guardian that requires payment 106044
for emergency services in violation of this section is void and 106045
unenforceable.106046

       Sec. 5111.982.        Sec. 5167.21.  (A) As used in this section:106047

       (1) "Covered skilled nursing facility services" has the same 106048
meaning as in the "Social Security Act," section 1888(e)(2)(A), 42 106049
U.S.C. 1395yy(e)(2)(A).106050

       (2) "Current medicare fee-for-service rate" means the 106051
fee-for-service rate in effect for a covered skilled nursing 106052
facility service under medicare at the time the service is 106053
provided.106054

       (3) "Skilled nursing facility" has the same meaning as in the 106055
"Social Security Act," section 1819(a), 42 U.S.C. 1395i-3(a).106056

       (B) Except as provided in division (C) of this section, a 106057
medicaid managed care organization shall pay a skilled nursing 106058
facility at least the current medicare fee-for-service rate, 106059
without deduction for any coinsurance, for covered skilled nursing 106060
facility services that the skilled nursing facility provides to a 106061
dual eligible individual if the medicaid managed care organization 106062
is responsible for the payment under the terms of a contract that 106063
the medicaid managed care organization, medical assistance106064
medicaid director, and United States secretary of health and human 106065
services jointly enter into under the integrated care delivery 106066
system authorized by section 5111.9815164.91 of the Revised Code.106067

       (C) A medicaid managed care organization is required to pay 106068
the rate specified in division (B) of this section for covered 106069
skilled nursing facility services only if all of the following 106070
apply:106071

       (1) The United States secretary agrees to the payment rate as 106072
part of the contract that the medicaid managed care organization, 106073
medical assistancemedicaid director, and United States secretary 106074
jointly enter into under the integrated care delivery system;106075

       (2) The medicaid managed care organization receives a federal 106076
capitation payment that is an actuarially sufficient amount for 106077
the costs that the medicaid managed care organization incurs in 106078
paying the rate;106079

       (3) No state funds are used for any part of the costs that 106080
the medicaid managed care organization incurs in paying the rate;106081

       (4) The integrated care delivery system provides for dual 106082
eligible individuals to receive the covered skilled nursing 106083
facility services as part of the system.106084

       Sec. 5111.178.        Sec. 5167.25. (A) The medicaid director of job and 106085
family services shall determine whether a waiver of federal 106086
medicaid requirements is necessary to fulfill the requirements of 106087
section 3901.3814 of the Revised Code. If the director determines 106088
a waiver is necessary, the department of job and family services106089
medicaid shall apply to the United States secretary of health and 106090
human services for the waiver.106091

       (B)(1) If the director determines that section 3901.3814 of 106092
the Revised Code can be implemented without a waiver or a waiver 106093
is granted, the department shall notify the department of 106094
insurance that the section can be implemented. Implementation of 106095
the section shall be effective eighteen months after the notice is 106096
sent.106097

        (2) At the time the notice is given under division (B)(1) of 106098
this section, the department shall also give notice to each health 106099
insuring corporation that provides coverage to medicaid 106100
recipients. The notice shall inform the corporation that sections 106101
3901.38 and 3901.381 to 3901.3814 of the Revised Code apply to 106102
claims for services rendered to recipients on the date determined 106103
under division (B)(1) of this section, instead of the prompt 106104
payment requirements of 42 C.F.R. 447.46. That date shall be 106105
specified in the notice.106106

       Sec. 5111.175.        Sec. 5167.26. For the purpose of determining the 106107
amount the department of job and family servicesmedicaid pays 106108
hospitals under section 5112.085168.09 of the Revised Code and 106109
the amount of disproportionate share hospital payments paid by the 106110
medicare program established under Title XVIII ofpursuant to the 106111
"Social Security Act," 79 Stat. 286 (1965)section 1915, 42 U.S.C. 106112
1396n, as amended, a medicaid managed care organization under 106113
contract with the department pursuant to section 5111.17 of the 106114
Revised Code authorizing the organization to provide, or arrange 106115
for the provision of, hospital services to medicaid recipients106116
shall keep detailed records for each hospital with which it 106117
contracts about, including records regarding the cost to the 106118
hospital of providing thehospital services for the organization, 106119
payments made by the organization to the hospital for the 106120
services, utilization of hospital services by medicaid recipients 106121
enrolled in the organization, and other utilization data required 106122
by the department.106123

       Sec. 5111.1711.        Sec. 5167.30.  (A)(1) The department of job and 106124
family servicesmedicaid shall establish a managed care 106125
performance payment program. Under the program, the department may 106126
provide payments to medicaid managed care organizations under 106127
contract with the department pursuant to section 5111.17 of the 106128
Revised Code that meet performance standards established by the 106129
department.106130

       (2) In establishing performance standards, the department may 106131
consult any of the following:106132

       (a) Any quality measurements developed under the pediatric 106133
quality measures program established pursuant to the "Social 106134
Security Act," section 1139A, 42 U.S.C. 1320b-9a;106135

       (b) Any core set of adult health quality measures for 106136
medicaid eligible adults used for purposes of the "Social Security 106137
Act," section 1139A, 42 U.S.C. 1320b-9b, and any adult health 106138
quality used for purposes of the medicaid quality measurement 106139
program when the program is established under 42 U.S.C. 1320b-9b106140
that section of the "Social Security Act";106141

       (c) The most recent healthcare effectiveness data and 106142
information set and quality measurement tool established by the 106143
national committee for quality assurance.106144

       (3) The standards that must be met to receive the payments 106145
may be specified in the contract the department enters into with a 106146
medicaid managed care organization.106147

       (4) If a medicaid managed care organization meets the 106148
performance standards established by the department, the 106149
department shall make one or more performance payments to the 106150
organization. The amount of each performance payment, the number 106151
of payments, and the schedule for making the payments shall be 106152
established by the department. The payments shall be discontinued 106153
if the department determines that the organization no longer meets 106154
the performance standards. The department shall not make or 106155
discontinue payments based on any performance standard that has 106156
been in effect as part of the organization's contract for less 106157
than six months.106158

       (B) For purposes of the program, the department shall 106159
establish an amount that is to be withheld each time a premium 106160
payment is made to a medicaid managed care organization. The 106161
amount shall be established as a percentage of each premium 106162
payment. The percentage shall be the same for all medicaid managed 106163
care organizations under contract with the department. The sum of 106164
all withholdings under this division shall not exceed onetwo per 106165
cent of the total of all premium payments made to all medicaid106166
managed care organizations under contract with the department.106167

       Each medicaid managed care organization shall agree to the 106168
withholding as a condition of receiving or maintaining its 106169
medicaid provider agreement with the department.106170

       When the amount is established and each time the amount is 106171
modified thereafter, the department shall certify the amount to 106172
the director of budget and management and begin withholding the 106173
amount from each premium the department pays to a medicaid managed 106174
care organization.106175

       (C) There is hereby created in the state treasury the managed 106176
care performance payment fund. The fund shall consist of amounts 106177
transferred to it by the director of budget and management for the 106178
purpose of the program. All investment earnings of the fund shall 106179
be credited to the fund. Amounts in the fund shall be used solely 106180
to make performance payments to managed care organizations in 106181
accordance with this section.106182

       (D) The department may adopt rules as necessary to implement 106183
this section. The rules shall be adopted in accordance with 106184
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.106185

       Sec. 5111.171.        Sec. 5167.31.  The department of job and family 106186
servicesmedicaid may provide financial incentive awards to 106187
medicaid managed care organizations under contract with the 106188
department pursuant to section 5111.17 of the Revised Code that 106189
meet or exceed performance standards specified in provider 106190
agreements or rules adopted by the departmentmedicaid director 106191
under section 5167.02 of the Revised Code. The department may 106192
specify in a contract with a medicaid managed care organization 106193
the amounts of financial incentive awards, methodology for 106194
distributing awards, types of awards, and standards for 106195
administration by the department.106196

       Sec. 5111.173.        Sec. 5167.40.  The department of job and family 106197
servicesmedicaid shall appoint a temporary manager for a 106198
medicaid managed care organization under contract with the 106199
department pursuant to section 5111.17 of the Revised Code if the 106200
department determines that the medicaid managed care organization 106201
has repeatedly failed to meet substantive requirements specified 106202
in section 1903(m) of the "Social Security Act," 79 Stat. 286 106203
(1965)sections 1903(m) and 1932, 42 U.S.C. 1396b(m), as amended; 106204
section 1932 of the Social Security Act, 42 U.S.C.and 1396u-2, as 106205
amended; or 42 C.F.R. 438 Part I. The appointment of a temporary 106206
manager does not preclude the department from imposing other 106207
sanctions available to the department against the medicaid managed 106208
care organization.106209

       The medicaid managed care organization shall pay all costs of 106210
having the temporary manager perform the temporary manager's 106211
duties, including all costs the temporary manager incurs in 106212
performing those duties. If the temporary manager incurs costs or 106213
liabilities on behalf of the medicaid managed care organization, 106214
the medicaid managed care organization shall pay those costs and 106215
be responsible for those liabilities. 106216

       The appointment of a temporary manager is not subject to 106217
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, but the managed care 106218
organization may request a reconsideration of the appointment. 106219
Reconsiderations shall be requested and conducted in accordance 106220
with rules the director of job and family servicesmedicaid 106221
director shall adopt in accordance with Chapter 119. ofunder 106222
section 5167.02 of the Revised Code.106223

       The appointment of a temporary manager does not cause the 106224
medicaid managed care organization to lose the right to appeal, in 106225
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, any proposed 106226
termination or any decision not to renewrevalidate the medicaid106227
managed care organization's medicaid provider agreement or the 106228
right to initiate the sale of the medicaid managed care 106229
organization or its assets.106230

       In addition to the rules required to be adopted under this 106231
section, the director may adopt any other rules necessary to 106232
implement this section. The rules shall be adopted in accordance 106233
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.106234

       Sec. 5111.174.        Sec. 5167.41.  The department of job and family 106235
servicesmedicaid may disenroll some or all medicaid recipients 106236
enrolled in a medicaid managed care organization under contract 106237
with the department pursuant to section 5111.17 of the Revised 106238
Code if the department proposes to terminate or not to renew106239
revalidate the contract and determines that the recipients' access 106240
to medically necessary services is jeopardized by the proposal to 106241
terminate or not to renewrevalidate the contract. The 106242
disenrollment is not subject to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, 106243
but the medicaid managed care organization may request a 106244
reconsideration of the disenrollment. Reconsiderations shall be 106245
requested and conducted in accordance with rules the medicaid106246
director of job and family services shall adopt in accordance with 106247
Chapter 119.under section 5167.02 of the Revised Code. The 106248
request for, or conduct of, a reconsideration regarding a proposed 106249
disenrollment shall not delay the disenrollment.106250

       In addition to the rules required to be adopted under this 106251
section, the director may adopt any other rules necessary to 106252
implement this section. The rules shall be adopted in accordance 106253
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. 106254

       Sec. 5112.01.        Sec. 5168.01.  As used in sections 5112.035168.01 to 106255
5112.215168.14 of the Revised Code:106256

       (A) "Bad debt," "charity care," "courtesy care," and 106257
"contractual allowances" have the same meanings given these terms 106258
in regulations adopted under Title XVIII of the "Social Security 106259
Act," 42 U.S.C. 1395 et seq.106260

       (B) "Cost reporting period" means the twelve-month period 106261
used by a hospital in reporting costs for purposes of Title XVIII 106262
of the "Social Security Act," 42 U.S.C. 1395 et seq.106263

       (C) "Disproportionate share hospital" means a hospital that 106264
meets the definition of a disproportionate share hospital in rules 106265
adopted under section 5168.02 of the Revised Code.106266

       (D) "Federal poverty line" means the official poverty line 106267
defined by the United States office of management and budget based 106268
on the most recent data available from the United States bureau of 106269
the census and revised by the United States secretary of health 106270
and human services pursuant to the "Omnibus Budget Reconciliation 106271
Act of 1981," section 673(2), 42 U.S.C. 9902(2).106272

       (E) "Governmental hospital" means a county hospital with more 106273
than five hundred registered beds or a state-owned and -operated 106274
hospital with more than five hundred registered beds.106275

       (F)(1) "Hospital" means a nonfederal hospital to which either 106276
of the following applies:106277

       (a) The hospital is registered under section 3701.07 of the 106278
Revised Code as a general medical and surgical hospital or a 106279
pediatric general hospital, and provides inpatient hospital 106280
services, as defined in 42 C.F.R. 440.10;106281

       (b) The hospital is recognized under the medicare program 106282
established by Title XVIII of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 106283
620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended, as a cancer hospital and 106284
is exempt from the medicare prospective payment system.106285

       (2) "Hospital" does not include a hospital operated by a 106286
health insuring corporation that has been issued a certificate of 106287
authority under section 1751.05 of the Revised Code or a hospital 106288
that does not charge patients for services.106289

       (2) "Disproportionate share hospital" means a hospital that 106290
meets the definition of a disproportionate share hospital in rules 106291
adopted under section 5112.03 of the Revised Code.106292

       (B) "Bad debt," "charity care," "courtesy care," and 106293
"contractual allowances" have the same meanings given these terms 106294
in regulations adopted under Title XVIII of the "Social Security 106295
Act."106296

       (C) "Cost reporting period" means the twelve-month period 106297
used by a hospital in reporting costs for purposes of Title XVIII 106298
of the "Social Security Act."106299

       (D) "Governmental hospital" means a county hospital with more 106300
than five hundred registered beds or a state-owned and -operated 106301
hospital with more than five hundred registered beds.106302

       (E)(G) "Indigent care pool" means the sum of the following:106303

       (1) The total of assessments to be paid in a program year by 106304
all hospitals under section 5112.065168.06 of the Revised Code, 106305
less the assessments deposited into the legislative budget 106306
services fund under section 5112.195168.12 of the Revised Code 106307
and into the health care services administration fund created 106308
under section 5111.945162.54 of the Revised Code;106309

       (2) The total amount of intergovernmental transfers required 106310
to be made in the same program year by governmental hospitals 106311
under section 5112.075168.07 of the Revised Code, less the amount 106312
of transfers deposited into the legislative budget services fund 106313
under section 5112.195168.12 of the Revised Code and into the 106314
health care services administration fund created under section 106315
5111.945162.54 of the Revised Code;106316

       (3) The total amount of federal matching funds that will be 106317
made available in the same program year as a result of funds 106318
distributed by the department of job and family servicesmedicaid106319
to hospitals under section 5112.085168.09 of the Revised Code.106320

       (F)(H) "Intergovernmental transfer" means any transfer of 106321
money by a governmental hospital under section 5112.075168.07 of 106322
the Revised Code.106323

       (G) "Medical assistance program" means the program of medical 106324
assistance established under section 5111.01 of the Revised Code 106325
and Title XIX of the "Social Security Act."106326

       (H)(I) "Medicaid services" has the same meaning as in section 106327
5164.01 of the Revised Code.106328

       (J) "Program year" means a period beginning the first day of 106329
October, or a later date designated in rules adopted under section 106330
5112.035168.02 of the Revised Code, and ending the thirtieth day 106331
of September, or an earlier date designated in rules adopted under 106332
that section.106333

       (I)(K) "Registered beds" means the total number of hospital 106334
beds registered with the department of health, as reported in the 106335
most recent "directory of registered hospitals" published by the 106336
department of health.106337

       (J)(L) "Third-party payer" means any person or government 106338
entity that may be liable by law or contract to make payment to or 106339
on behalf of an individual for health care services. "Third-party 106340
payer" does not include a hospital.106341

       (M) "Total facility costs" means the total costs for all 106342
services rendered to all patients, including the direct, indirect, 106343
and overhead cost to the hospital of all services, supplies, 106344
equipment, and capital related to the care of patients, regardless 106345
of whether patients are enrolled in a health insuring corporation, 106346
excluding costs associated with providing skilled nursing services 106347
in distinct-part nursing facility units, as shown on the 106348
hospital's cost report filed under section 5112.045168.05 of the 106349
Revised Code. Effective October 1, 1993, if rules adopted under 106350
section 5112.035168.02 of the Revised Code so provide, "total 106351
facility costs" may exclude costs associated with providing care 106352
to recipients of any of the governmental programs listed in 106353
division (B) of that section.106354

       (K)(N) "Uncompensated care" means bad debt and charity care.106355

       Sec. 5112.03.        Sec. 5168.02.  (A) The director of job and family 106356
services shall adopt, and may amend and rescind,medicaid director 106357
shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised 106358
Code for the purpose of administering sections 5112.015168.01 to 106359
5112.215168.14 of the Revised Code, including rules that do all 106360
of the following:106361

       (1) Define as a "disproportionate share hospital" any 106362
hospital included under subsection (b) of section 1923 of the 106363
"Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935)section 1923(b), 42 106364
U.S.C.A. 1396r-4(b), as amended, and any other hospital the 106365
director determines appropriate;106366

       (2) Prescribe the form for submission of cost reports under 106367
section 5112.045168.05 of the Revised Code;106368

       (3) Establish, in accordance with division (A) of section 106369
5112.065168.06 of the Revised Code, the assessment rate or rates 106370
to be applied to hospitals under that section;106371

       (4) Establish schedules for hospitals to pay installments on 106372
their assessments under section 5112.065168.06 of the Revised 106373
Code and for governmental hospitals to pay installments on their 106374
intergovernmental transfers under section 5112.075168.07 of the 106375
Revised Code;106376

       (5) Establish procedures to notify hospitals of adjustments 106377
made under division (B)(2)(b) of section 5112.065168.06 of the 106378
Revised Code in the amount of installments on their assessment;106379

       (6) Establish procedures to notify hospitals of adjustments 106380
made under division (D) of section 5112.095168.08 of the Revised 106381
Code in the total amount of their assessment and to adjust for the 106382
remainder of the program year the amount of the installments on 106383
the assessments;106384

       (7) Establish, in accordance with section 5112.085168.09 of 106385
the Revised Code, the methodology for paying hospitals under that 106386
section.106387

       The director shall consult with hospitals when adopting the 106388
rules required by divisions (A)(4) and (5) of this section in 106389
order to minimize hospitals' cash flow difficulties.106390

       (B) Rules adopted under this section may provide that "total 106391
facility costs" excludes costs associated with any of the 106392
following:106393

       (1) Recipients of the medical assistance programMedicaid 106394
recipients;106395

       (2) Recipients of disability financial assistance provided 106396
under Chapter 5115. of the Revised Code;106397

       (3) Recipients of the program for medically handicapped 106398
children established under section 3701.023 of the Revised Code;106399

       (4) Recipients of the medicare program established under 106400
Title XVIII of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 106401
U.S.C.A. 301, as amended:Medicare beneficiaries;106402

       (5) Recipients of Title V of the "Social Security Act," 42 106403
U.S.C. 701 et seq.,;106404

       (6) Any other category of costs deemed appropriate by the 106405
director in accordance with Title XIX of the "Social Security 106406
Act," 42 U.S.C. 1396 et seq., and the rules adopted under that 106407
title.106408

       Sec. 5112.05.        Sec. 5168.03.  The requirements of sections 5112.06106409
5168.06 to 5112.095168.09 of the Revised Code apply only as long 106410
as the United States health care financing administration 106411
determines that the assessment imposed under section 5112.06106412
5168.06 of the Revised Code is a permissible health care-related 106413
tax pursuant to section 1903(w) of the "Social Security Act," 49 106414
Stat. 620 (1935)section 1903(w), 42 U.S.C.A. 1396b(w), as 106415
amended. Whenever the department of job and family services106416
medicaid is informed that the assessment is an impermissible 106417
health care-related tax, the department shall promptly refund to 106418
each hospital the amount of money currently in the hospital care 106419
assurance program fund created by section 5112.185168.11 of the 106420
Revised Code that has been paid by the hospital under section 106421
5112.065168.06 or 5112.075168.07 of the Revised Code, plus any 106422
investment earnings on that amount.106423

       Sec. 5112.10.        Sec. 5168.04.  The department of job and family 106424
servicesmedicaid shall operate the hospital care assurance 106425
program established by sections 5112.015168.01 to 5112.215168.14106426
of the Revised Code on a program year basis. The department shall 106427
complete all program requirements on or before the thirtieth day 106428
of September each year.106429

       Sec. 5112.04.        Sec. 5168.05.  (A) Except as provided in division (C) 106430
of this section, each hospital, on or before the first day of July 106431
of each year or at a later date approved by the medicaid director 106432
of job and family services, shall submit to the department of job 106433
and family servicesmedicaid a financial statement for the 106434
preceding calendar year that accurately reflects the income, 106435
expenses, assets, liabilities, and net worth of the hospital, and 106436
accompanying notes. A hospital that has a fiscal year different 106437
from the calendar year shall file its financial statement within 106438
one hundred eighty days of the end of its fiscal year or at a 106439
later date approved by the director of job and family services. 106440
The financial statement shall be prepared by an independent 106441
certified public accountant and reflect an official audit report 106442
prepared in a manner consistent with generally accepted accounting 106443
principles. The financial statement shall, to the extent that the 106444
hospital has sufficient financial records, show bad debt and 106445
charity care separately from courtesy care and contractual 106446
allowances.106447

       (B) Except as provided in division (C) of this section, each 106448
hospital, within one hundred eighty days after the end of the 106449
hospital's cost reporting period, shall submit to the department a 106450
cost report in a format prescribed in rules adopted by the 106451
director of job and family services under section 5112.035168.02106452
of the Revised Code. The department shall grant a hospital an 106453
extension of the one hundred eighty day period if the health care 106454
financing administration of the United States department of health 106455
and human services extends the date by which the hospital must 106456
submit its cost report for the hospital's cost reporting period.106457

       (C) The director of job and family services may adopt rules 106458
under section 5112.035168.02 of the Revised Code specifying 106459
financial information that must be submitted by hospitals for 106460
which no financial statement or cost report is available. The 106461
rules shall specify deadlines for submitting the information. Each 106462
such hospital shall submit the information specified in the rules 106463
not later than the deadline specified in the rules.106464

       Sec. 5112.06.        Sec. 5168.06.  (A) For the purpose of distributing 106465
funds to hospitals under the medical assistancemedicaid program 106466
pursuant to sections 5112.015168.01 to 5112.215168.14 of the 106467
Revised Code and depositing funds into the legislative budget 106468
services fund under section 5112.195168.12 of the Revised Code 106469
and into the health care services administration fund created 106470
under section 5111.945162.54 of the Revised Code, there is hereby 106471
imposed an assessment on all hospitals. Each hospital's assessment 106472
shall be based on total facility costs. All hospitals shall be 106473
assessed according to the rate or rates established each program 106474
year by the department of job and family services in rules adopted 106475
under section 5112.035168.02 of the Revised Code. The department 106476
shall assess all hospitals uniformly and in a manner consistent 106477
with federal statutes and regulations. During any program year, 106478
the department shall not assess any hospital more than two per 106479
cent of the hospital's total facility costs.106480

       The department shall establish an assessment rate or rates 106481
each program year that will do both of the following:106482

       (1) Yield funds that, when combined with intergovernmental 106483
transfers and federal matching funds, will produce a program of 106484
sufficient size to pay a substantial portion of the indigent care 106485
provided by hospitals;106486

       (2) Yield funds that, when combined with intergovernmental 106487
transfers and federal matching funds, will produce amounts for 106488
distribution to disproportionate share hospitals that do not 106489
exceed, in the aggregate, the limits prescribed by the United 106490
States health care financing administration under subsection (f) 106491
of section 1923 of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935)106492
section 1923(f), 42 U.S.C.A. 1396r-4(f), as amended.106493

       (B)(1) Except as provided in division (B)(3) of this section, 106494
each hospital shall pay its assessment in periodic installments in 106495
accordance with a schedule established by the director of job and 106496
family services in rules adopted under section 5112.035168.02 of 106497
the Revised Code.106498

       (2) The installments shall be equal in amount, unless either 106499
of the following applies:106500

       (a) The department makes adjustments during a program year 106501
under division (D) of section 5112.095168.08 of the Revised Code 106502
in the total amount of hospitals' assessments;106503

       (b) The medicaid director of job and family services106504
determines that adjustments in the amounts of installments are 106505
necessary for the administration of sections 5112.015168.01 to 106506
5112.215168.14 of the Revised Code and that unequal installments 106507
will not create cash flow difficulties for hospitals.106508

       (3) The director may adopt rules under section 5112.03106509
5168.02 of the Revised Code establishing alternate schedules for 106510
hospitals to pay assessments under this section in order to reduce 106511
hospitals' cash flow difficulties.106512

       Sec. 5112.07.        Sec. 5168.07.  (A) The department of job and family 106513
servicesmedicaid may require governmental hospitals to make 106514
intergovernmental transfers each program year for the purpose of 106515
distributing funds to hospitals under the medical assistance106516
medicaid program pursuant to sections 5112.015168.01 to 5112.21106517
5168.14 of the Revised Code and depositing funds into the 106518
legislative budget services fund under section 5112.195168.12 of 106519
the Revised Code and into the health care services administration 106520
fund created under section 5111.945162.54 of the Revised Code. 106521
The department shall not require transfers in an amount that, when 106522
combined with hospital assessments paid under section 5112.06106523
5168.06 of the Revised Code and federal matching funds, produce 106524
amounts for distribution to disproportionate share hospitals that, 106525
in the aggregate, exceed limits prescribed by the United States 106526
health care financing administration under subsection (f) of 106527
section 1923 of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935)106528
section 1923(f), 42 U.S.C.A. 1396r-4(f), as amended.106529

       (B) Before or during each program year, the department shall 106530
notify each governmental hospital of the amount of the 106531
intergovernmental transfer it is required to make during the 106532
program year. Each governmental hospital shall make 106533
intergovernmental transfers as required by the department under 106534
this section in periodic installments, executed by electronic fund 106535
transfer, in accordance with a schedule established in rules 106536
adopted under section 5112.035168.02 of the Revised Code.106537

       Sec. 5112.09.        Sec. 5168.08.  (A) Before or during each program 106538
year, the department of job and family servicesmedicaid shall 106539
mail to each hospital by certified mail, return receipt requested, 106540
the preliminary determination of the amount that the hospital is 106541
assessed under section 5112.065168.06 of the Revised Code during 106542
the program year. The preliminary determination of a hospital's 106543
assessment shall be calculated for a cost-reporting period that is 106544
specified in rules adopted under section 5112.035168.02 of the 106545
Revised Code.106546

       The department shall consult with hospitals each year when 106547
determining the date on which it will mail the preliminary 106548
determinations in order to minimize hospitals' cash flow 106549
difficulties.106550

       If no hospital submits a request for reconsideration under 106551
division (B) of this section, the preliminary determination 106552
constitutes the final reconciliation of each hospital's assessment 106553
under section 5112.065168.06 of the Revised Code. The final 106554
reconciliation is subject to adjustments under division (D) of 106555
this section.106556

       (B) Not later than fourteen days after the preliminary 106557
determinations are mailed, any hospital may submit to the 106558
department a written request to reconsider the preliminary 106559
determinations. The request shall be accompanied by written 106560
materials setting forth the basis for the reconsideration. If one 106561
or more hospitals submit a request, the department shall hold a 106562
public hearing not later than thirty days after the preliminary 106563
determinations are mailed to reconsider the preliminary 106564
determinations. The department shall mail to each hospital a 106565
written notice of the date, time, and place of the hearing at 106566
least ten days prior to the hearing. On the basis of the evidence 106567
submitted to the department or presented at the public hearing, 106568
the department shall reconsider and may adjust the preliminary 106569
determinations. The result of the reconsideration is the final 106570
reconciliation of the hospital's assessment under section 5112.06106571
5168.06 of the Revised Code. The final reconciliation is subject 106572
to adjustments under division (D) of this section.106573

       (C) The department shall mail to each hospital a written 106574
notice of its assessment for the program year under the final 106575
reconciliation. A hospital may appeal the final reconciliation of 106576
its assessment to the court of common pleas of Franklin county. 106577
While a judicial appeal is pending, the hospital shall pay, in 106578
accordance with the schedules required by division (B) of section 106579
5112.065168.06 of the Revised Code, any amount of its assessment 106580
that is not in dispute into the hospital care assurance program 106581
fund created in section 5112.185168.11 of the Revised Code.106582

       (D) In the course of any program year, the department may 106583
adjust the assessment rate or rates established in rules pursuant 106584
to section 5112.065168.06 of the Revised Code or adjust the 106585
amounts of intergovernmental transfers required under section 106586
5112.075168.07 of the Revised Code and, as a result of the 106587
adjustment, adjust each hospital's assessment and 106588
intergovernmental transfer, to reflect refinements made by the 106589
United States health care financing administration during that 106590
program year to the limits it prescribed under subsection (f) of 106591
section 1923 of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935)106592
section 1923(f), 42 U.S.C.A. 1396r-4(f), as amended. When 106593
adjusted, the assessment rate or rates must comply with division 106594
(A) of section 5112.065168.06 of the Revised Code. An adjusted 106595
intergovernmental transfer must comply with division (A) of 106596
section 5112.075168.07 of the Revised Code. The department shall 106597
notify hospitals of adjustments made under this division and 106598
adjust for the remainder of the program year the installments paid 106599
by hospitals under sections 5112.065168.06 and 5112.075168.07 of 106600
the Revised Code in accordance with rules adopted under section 106601
5112.035168.02 of the Revised Code.106602

       Sec. 5112.08.        Sec. 5168.09.  The medicaid director of job and 106603
family services shall adopt rules under section 5112.035168.02 of 106604
the Revised Code establishing a methodology to pay hospitals that 106605
is sufficient to expend all money in the indigent care pool. Under 106606
the rules:106607

       (A) The department of job and family servicesmedicaid may 106608
classify similar hospitals into groups and allocate funds for 106609
distribution within each group.106610

       (B) The department shall establish a method of allocating 106611
funds to hospitals, taking into consideration the relative amount 106612
of indigent care provided by each hospital or group of hospitals. 106613
The amount to be allocated shall be based on any combination of 106614
the following indicators of indigent care that the director 106615
considers appropriate:106616

       (1) Total costs, volume, or proportion of services to 106617
recipients of the medical assistance program, including recipients 106618
enrolled in health insuring corporations;106619

       (2) Total costs, volume, or proportion of services to 106620
low-income patients in addition to medicaid recipients of the 106621
medical assistance program, which may include recipients of Title 106622
V of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 106623
301701 et seq., as amended, and recipients of disability106624
financial assistance provided under Chapter 5115. of the Revised 106625
Code;106626

       (3) The amount of uncompensated care provided by the hospital 106627
or group of hospitals;106628

       (4) Other factors that the director considers to be 106629
appropriate indicators of indigent care.106630

       (C) The department shall distribute funds to each hospital or 106631
group of hospitals in a manner that first may provide for an 106632
additional distribution to individual hospitals that provide a 106633
high proportion of indigent care in relation to the total care 106634
provided by the hospital or in relation to other hospitals. The 106635
department shall establish a formula to distribute the remainder 106636
of the funds. The formula shall be consistent with section 1923 of106637
the "Social Security Act," section 1923, 42 U.S.C.A. 1396r-4, as 106638
amended,and shall be based on any combination of the indicators 106639
of indigent care listed in division (B) of this section that the 106640
director considers appropriate.106641

       (D) The department shall distribute funds to each hospital in 106642
installments not later than ten working days after the deadline 106643
established in rules for each hospital to pay an installment on 106644
its assessment under section 5112.065168.06 of the Revised Code. 106645
In the case of a governmental hospital that makes 106646
intergovernmental transfers, the department shall pay an 106647
installment under this section not later than ten working days 106648
after the earlier of that deadline or the deadline established in 106649
rules for the governmental hospital to pay an installment on its 106650
intergovernmental transfer. If the amount in the hospital care 106651
assurance program fund created under section 5112.185168.11 of 106652
the Revised Code and the portion of the health care - federal fund 106653
created under section 5111.9435162.50 of the Revised Code that is 106654
credited to that fund pursuant to division (B) of section 5112.18106655
5168.11 of the Revised Code are insufficient to make the total 106656
distributions for which hospitals are eligible to receive in any 106657
period, the department shall reduce the amount of each 106658
distribution by the percentage by which the amount and portion are 106659
insufficient. The department shall distribute to hospitals any 106660
amounts not distributed in the period in which they are due as 106661
soon as moneys are available in the funds.106662

       Sec. 5112.11.        Sec. 5168.10.  Except for moneys deposited into the 106663
legislative budget services fund under section 5112.195168.12 of 106664
the Revised Code and the health care services administration fund 106665
created under section 5111.945162.54 of the Revised Code, the 106666
department of job and family servicesmedicaid shall not use money 106667
paid to the department under sections 5112.065168.06 and 5112.07106668
5168.07 of the Revised Code or money that the department pays to 106669
hospitals under section 5112.085168.09 of the Revised Code to 106670
replace any funds appropriated by the general assembly for the 106671
medical assistancemedicaid program.106672

       Sec. 5112.18.        Sec. 5168.11.  (A) Except as provided in section 106673
5112.195168.12 of the Revised Code, all payments of assessments 106674
by hospitals under section 5112.065168.06 of the Revised Code and 106675
all intergovernmental transfers under section 5112.075168.07 of 106676
the Revised Code shall be deposited in the state treasury to the 106677
credit of the hospital care assurance program fund, hereby 106678
created. All investment earnings of the hospital care assurance 106679
program fund shall be credited to the fund. The department of job 106680
and family servicesmedicaid shall maintain records that show the 106681
amount of money in the hospital care assurance program fund at any 106682
time that has been paid by each hospital and the amount of any 106683
investment earnings on that amount. All moneys credited to the 106684
hospital care assurance program fund shall be used solely to make 106685
payments to hospitals under division (D) of this section and 106686
section 5112.085168.09 of the Revised Code.106687

       (B) All federal matching funds received as a result of the 106688
department distributing funds from the hospital care assurance 106689
program fund to hospitals under section 5112.085168.09 of the 106690
Revised Code shall be credited to the health care - federal fund 106691
created under section 5111.9435162.50 of the Revised Code. 106692

       (C) All distributions of funds to hospitals under section 106693
5112.085168.09 of the Revised Code are conditional on:106694

       (1) Expiration of the time for appeals under section 5112.09106695
5168.08 of the Revised Code without the filing of an appeal, or on 106696
court determinations, in the event of appeals, that the hospital 106697
is entitled to the funds;106698

       (2) The sum of the following being sufficient to distribute 106699
the funds after the final determination of any appeals:106700

       (a) The available money in the hospital care assurance 106701
program fund;106702

       (b) The available portion of the money in the health care - 106703
federal fund that is credited to that fund pursuant to division 106704
(B) of this section.106705

       (3) The hospital's compliance with section 5112.175168.14 of 106706
the Revised Code.106707

       (D) If an audit conducted by the department of the amounts of 106708
payments made and funds received by hospitals under sections 106709
5112.065168.06, 5112.075168.07, and 5112.085168.09 of the 106710
Revised Code identifies amounts that, due to errors by the 106711
department, a hospital should not have been required to pay but 106712
did pay, should have been required to pay but did not pay, should 106713
not have received but did receive, or should have received but did 106714
not receive, the department shall:106715

       (1) Make payments to any hospital that the audit reveals paid 106716
amounts it should not have been required to pay or did not receive 106717
amounts it should have received;106718

       (2) Take action to recover from a hospital any amounts that 106719
the audit reveals it should have been required to pay but did not 106720
pay or that it should not have received but did receive.106721

       Payments made under division (D)(1) of this section shall be 106722
made from the hospital care assurance program fund. Amounts 106723
recovered under division (D)(2) of this section shall be deposited 106724
to the credit of that fund. Any hospital may appeal the amount the 106725
hospital is to be paid under division (D)(1) or the amount that is 106726
to be recovered from the hospital under division (D)(2) of this 106727
section to the court of common pleas of Franklin county.106728

       Sec. 5112.19.        Sec. 5168.12.  From the first installment of 106729
assessments paid under section 5112.065168.06 of the Revised Code 106730
and intergovernmental transfers made under section 5112.075168.07106731
of the Revised Code during each program year beginning in an 106732
odd-numbered calendar year, the department of job and family 106733
servicesmedicaid shall deposit into the state treasury to the 106734
credit of the legislative budget services fund, which is hereby 106735
created, a total amount equal to the amount by which the biennial 106736
appropriation from that fund exceeds the amount of unexpended, 106737
unencumbered moneys in that fund. All investment earnings of the 106738
legislative budget services fund shall be credited to that fund. 106739
Money in the legislative budget services fund shall be used solely 106740
to pay the expenses of the legislative budget office of the 106741
legislative service commission.106742

       Sec. 5112.21.        Sec. 5168.13.  Except as specifically required by 106743
sections 5112.015168.01 to 5112.195168.14 of the Revised Code, 106744
information filed under those sections shall not include any 106745
patient-identifying material. Information that includes 106746
patient-identifying material is not a public record under section 106747
149.43 of the Revised Code, and no patient-identifying material 106748
shall be released publicly by the department of job and family 106749
servicesmedicaid or by any person under contract with the 106750
department who has access to such information.106751

       Sec. 5112.17.        Sec. 5168.14.  (A) As used in this section:106752

       (1) "Federal poverty guideline" means the official poverty 106753
guideline as revised annually by the United States secretary of 106754
health and human services in accordance with section 673 of the 106755
"Community Service Block Grant Act," 95 Stat. 511 (1981), 42 106756
U.S.C.A. 9902, as amended, for a family size equal to the size of 106757
the family of the person whose income is being determined.106758

       (2) "Third-party payer" means any private or public entity or 106759
program that may be liable by law or contract to make payment to 106760
or on behalf of an individual for health care services. 106761
"Third-party payer" does not include a hospital.106762

       (B) Each hospital that receives funds distributed under 106763
sections 5112.015168.01 to 5112.215168.14 of the Revised Code 106764
shall provide, without charge to the individual, basic, medically 106765
necessary hospital-level services to individuals who are residents 106766
of this state, are not medicaid recipients of the medical 106767
assistance program, and whose income is at or below the federal 106768
poverty guidelineline. Recipients of disability financial 106769
assistance provided under Chapter 5115. of the Revised Code 106770
qualify for services under this section. The medicaid director of 106771
job and family services shall adopt rules under section 5112.03106772
5168.02 of the Revised Code specifying the hospital services to be 106773
provided under this section.106774

       (C)(B) Nothing in this section shall be construed to prevent 106775
a hospital from requiring an individual to apply for eligibility 106776
under the medical assistancemedicaid program before the hospital 106777
processes an application under this section. Hospitals may bill 106778
any third-party payer for services rendered under this section. 106779
Hospitals may bill the medical assistancemedicaid program, in 106780
accordance with Chapter 5111. of the Revised Codestate statutes 106781
governing the medicaid program and the rules adopted under that 106782
chapterthose statutes, for medicaid services rendered under this 106783
section if the individual becomes a medicaid recipient of the 106784
program. Hospitals may bill individuals for services under this 106785
section if all of the following apply:106786

       (1) The hospital has an established post-billing procedure 106787
for determining the individual's income and canceling the charges 106788
if the individual is found to qualify for services under this 106789
section.106790

       (2) The initial bill, and at least the first follow-up bill, 106791
is accompanied by a written statement that does all of the 106792
following:106793

       (a) Explains that individuals with income at or below the 106794
federal poverty guidelineline are eligible for services without 106795
charge;106796

       (b) Specifies the federal poverty guidelineline for 106797
individuals and families of various sizes at the time the bill is 106798
sent;106799

       (c) Describes the procedure required by division (C)(1) of 106800
this section.106801

       (3) The hospital complies with any additional rules the 106802
department adoptsadopted under section 5112.035168.02 of the 106803
Revised Code.106804

       Notwithstanding division (B) of this section, a hospital 106805
providing care to an individual under this section is subrogated 106806
to the rights of any individual to receive compensation or 106807
benefits from any person or governmental entity for the hospital 106808
goods and services rendered.106809

       (D)(C) Each hospital shall collect and report to the 106810
department of medicaid, in the form and manner prescribed by the 106811
department, information on the number and identity of patients 106812
served pursuant to this section.106813

       (E)(D) This section applies beginning May 22, 1992, 106814
regardless of whether the department has adopted rules specifying 106815
the services to be provided have been adopted. Nothing in this 106816
section alters the scope or limits the obligation of any 106817
governmental entity or program, including the program awarding 106818
reparations to victims of crime under sections 2743.51 to 2743.72 106819
of the Revised Code and the program for medically handicapped 106820
children established under section 3701.023 of the Revised Code, 106821
to pay for hospital services in accordance with state or local 106822
law.106823

       Sec. 5112.40.        Sec. 5168.20.  As used in sections 5112.405168.20 to 106824
5112.485168.28 of the Revised Code:106825

       (A) "Applicable assessment percentage" means the percentage 106826
specified in rules adopted under section 5112.465168.26 of the 106827
Revised Code that is used in calculating a hospital's assessment 106828
under section 5112.415168.21 of the Revised Code.106829

       (B) "Assessment program year" means the twelve-month period 106830
beginning the first day of October of a calendar year and ending 106831
the last day of September of the following calendar year.106832

       (C) "Cost reporting period" means the period of time used by 106833
a hospital in reporting costs for purposes of the medicare 106834
program.106835

       (D) "Federal fiscal year" means the twelve-month period 106836
beginning the first day of October of a calendar year and ending 106837
the last day of September of the following calendar year.106838

       (E)(1) Except as provided in division (E)(2) of this section, 106839
"hospital" means a hospital to which any of the following applies:106840

       (a) The hospital is registered under section 3701.07 of the 106841
Revised Code as a general medical and surgical hospital or a 106842
pediatric general hospital and provides inpatient hospital 106843
services, as defined in 42 C.F.R. 440.10.106844

       (b) The hospital is recognized under the medicare program as 106845
a cancer hospital and is exempt from the medicare prospective 106846
payment system.106847

       (c) The hospital is a psychiatric hospital licensed under 106848
section 5119.205119.33 of the Revised Code.106849

       (2) "Hospital" does not include either of the following:106850

       (a) A federal hospital;106851

       (b) A hospital that does not charge any of its patients for 106852
its services.106853

       (F) "Hospital care assurance program" means the program 106854
established under sections 5112.015168.01 to 5112.215168.14 of 106855
the Revised Code.106856

       (G) "Medicaid" has the same meaning as in section 5111.01 of 106857
the Revised Code.106858

       (H) "Medicare" means the program established under Title 106859
XVIII of the Social Security Act.106860

       (I) "State fiscal year" means the twelve-month period 106861
beginning the first day of July of a calendar year and ending the 106862
last day of June of the following calendar year.106863

       (J)(H)(1) Except as provided in divisions (J)(H)(2) and (3) 106864
of this section, "total facility costs" means the total costs to a 106865
hospital for all care provided to all patients, including the 106866
direct, indirect, and overhead costs to the hospital of all 106867
services, supplies, equipment, and capital related to the care of 106868
patients, regardless of whether patients are enrolled in a health 106869
insuring corporation.106870

       (2) "Total facility costs" excludes all of the following of a 106871
hospital's costs as shown on the cost-reporting data used for 106872
purposes of determining the hospital's assessment under section 106873
5112.415168.21 of the Revised Code:106874

       (a) Skilled nursing services provided in distinct-part 106875
nursing facility units;106876

       (b) Home health services;106877

       (c) Hospice services;106878

       (d) Ambulance services;106879

       (e) Renting durable medical equipment;106880

       (f) Selling durable medical equipment.106881

       (3) "Total facility costs" excludes any costs excluded from a 106882
hospital's total facility costs pursuant to rules, if any, adopted 106883
under division (B)(1) of section 5112.465168.26 of the Revised 106884
Code.106885

       Sec. 5112.41.        Sec. 5168.21.  (A) For the purposes specified in 106886
section 5112.455168.25 of the Revised Code and subject to 106887
section 5112.485168.28 of the Revised Code, there is hereby 106888
imposed an assessment on all hospitals each assessment program 106889
year. The amount of a hospital's assessment for an assessment 106890
program year shall equal the applicable assessment percentage of 106891
the hospital's total facility costs for the period of time 106892
specified in division (B) of this section. The amount of a 106893
hospital's total facility costs shall be derived from 106894
cost-reporting data for the hospital submitted to the department 106895
of job and family servicesmedicaid for purposes of the hospital 106896
care assurance program. If a hospital has not submitted that 106897
cost-reporting data to the department, the amount of a hospital's 106898
total facility costs shall be derived from other financial 106899
statements that the hospital shall provide to the department as 106900
directed by the department. The cost-reporting data or financial 106901
statements used to determine a hospital's assessment is subject to 106902
the same type of adjustments made to the cost-reporting data under 106903
the hospital care assurance program.106904

       (B) The period of time specified in this division is the 106905
hospital's cost reporting period that ends in the state fiscal 106906
year that ends in the federal fiscal year that precedes the 106907
federal fiscal year that precedes the assessment program year for 106908
which the assessment is imposed. 106909

       (C) The assessment imposed by this section on a hospital is 106910
in addition to the assessment imposed by section 5112.065168.06106911
of the Revised Code.106912

       Sec. 5112.42.        Sec. 5168.22.  (A) Before or during each assessment 106913
program year, the department of job and family servicesmedicaid106914
shall mail to each hospital by certified mail, return receipt 106915
requested, the preliminary determination of the amount that the 106916
hospital is assessed under section 5112.415168.21 of the Revised 106917
Code for the assessment program year. Except as provided in 106918
division (B) of this section, the preliminary determination 106919
becomes the final determination for the assessment program year 106920
fifteen days after the preliminary determination is mailed to the 106921
hospital.106922

       (B) A hospital may request that the department reconsider the 106923
preliminary determination mailed to the hospital under division 106924
(A) of this section by submitting to the department a written 106925
request for a reconsideration not later than fourteen days after 106926
the hospital's preliminary determination is mailed to the 106927
hospital. The request must be accompanied by written materials 106928
setting forth the basis for the reconsideration. On receipt of the 106929
timely request, the department shall reconsider the preliminary 106930
determination and may adjust the preliminary determination on the 106931
basis of the written materials accompanying the request. The 106932
result of the reconsideration is the final determination of the 106933
hospital's assessment under section 5112.415168.21 of the Revised 106934
Code for the assessment program year.106935

       (C) The department shall mail to each hospital a written 106936
notice of the final determination of its assessment for the 106937
assessment program year. A hospital may appeal the final 106938
determination to the court of common pleas of Franklin county. 106939
While a judicial appeal is pending, the hospital shall pay, in 106940
accordance with section 5112.435168.23 of the Revised Code, any 106941
amount of its assessment that is not in dispute.106942

       Sec. 5112.43.        Sec. 5168.23.  Unless rules adopted under section 106943
5112.465168.26 of the Revised Code establish a different payment 106944
schedule, each hospital shall pay the amount it is assessed under 106945
section 5112.415168.21 of the Revised Code in accordance with the 106946
following payment schedule:106947

       (A) Twenty-eight per cent of a hospital's assessment is due 106948
on the last business day of October of each assessment program 106949
year.106950

       (B) Thirty-one per cent of a hospital's assessment is due on 106951
the last business day of February of each assessment program year.106952

       (C) Forty-one per cent of a hospital's assessment is due on 106953
the last business day of May of each assessment program year.106954

       Sec. 5112.44.        Sec. 5168.24.  The department of job and family 106955
servicesmedicaid may audit a hospital to ensure that the hospital 106956
properly pays the amount it is assessed under section 5112.41106957
5168.21 of the Revised Code. The department shall take action to 106958
recover from a hospital any amount the audit reveals that the 106959
hospital should have paid but did not pay.106960

       Sec. 5112.45.        Sec. 5168.25.  There is hereby created in the state 106961
treasury the hospital assessment fund. All installment payments 106962
made by hospitals under section 5112.435168.23 of the Revised 106963
Code and all recoveries the department of job and family services106964
medicaid makes under section 5112.445168.24 of the Revised Code 106965
shall be deposited into the fund. All investment earnings of the 106966
fund shall be credited to the fund. The department shall use money 106967
in the fund to pay for the costs of the medicaid program, 106968
including the program's administrative costs.106969

       Sec. 5112.46.        Sec. 5168.26.  (A) The director of job and family 106970
services shall adopt, amend, and rescindmedicaid director shall 106971
adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code as 106972
necessary to implement sections 5112.405168.20 to 5112.485168.28106973
of the Revised Code, including rules that specify the percentage 106974
of hospitals' total facility costs to be used in calculating 106975
hospitals' assessments under section 5112.415168.21 of the 106976
Revised Code.106977

       (B) The rules adopted under this section may do the 106978
following:106979

       (1) Provide that a hospital's total facility costs for the 106980
purpose of the assessment under section 5112.415168.21 of the 106981
Revised Code exclude any of the following:106982

       (a) A hospital's costs associated with providing care to 106983
recipients of any of the following:106984

       (i) The medicaid program;106985

       (ii) The medicare program;106986

       (iii) The disability financial assistance program established 106987
under Chapter 5115. of the Revised Code;106988

       (iv) The program for medically handicapped children 106989
established under section 3701.023 of the Revised Code;106990

       (v) Services provided under the maternal and child health 106991
services block grant established under Title V of the "Social 106992
Security Act," 42 U.S.C. 701 et seq.106993

       (b) Any other category of hospital costs the director deems 106994
appropriate under federal law and regulations governing the 106995
medicaid program.106996

       (2) Subject to division (C) of this section, provide for the 106997
percentage of hospitals' total facility costs used in calculating 106998
hospitals' assessments to vary for different hospitals;106999

       (3) To reduce hospitals' cash flow difficulties, establish a 107000
schedule for hospitals to pay their assessments that is different 107001
from the schedule established under section 5112.435168.23 of the 107002
Revised Code.107003

       (C) Before adopting rules authorized by division (B)(2) of 107004
this section that establish varied percentages to be used in 107005
calculating hospitals' assessments, the director shall obtain a 107006
waiver from the United States secretary of health and human 107007
services under section 1903(w)(3)(E) of the "Social Security Act," 107008
105 Stat. 1796 (1991)section 1903(w)(3)(E), 42 U.S.C. 107009
1396b(w)(3)(E), as amended, if the varied percentages would cause 107010
the assessments to not be imposed uniformly.107011

       Sec. 5112.47.        Sec. 5168.27.  The medicaid director of job and 107012
family services shall implement the assessment imposed by section 107013
5112.415168.21 of the Revised Code in a manner that does not 107014
cause a reduction in federal financial participation for the 107015
medicaid program under the "Social Security Act," section 1903(w),107016
42 U.S.C. 1396b(w).107017

       Sec. 5112.48.        Sec. 5168.28.  If the United States secretary of 107018
health and human services determines that the assessment imposed 107019
by section 5112.415168.21 of the Revised Code is an 107020
impermissible health care-related tax under the "Social Security 107021
Act," section 1903(w), 42 U.S.C. 1396b(w), the medicaid director 107022
of job and family services shall take all necessary actions to 107023
cease implementation of sections 5112.405168.20 to 5112.47107024
5168.27 of the Revised Code and shall promptly refund to each 107025
hospital the amount of money in the hospital assessment fund at 107026
the time the refund is to be made that the hospital paid under 107027
section 5112.435168.23 of the Revised Code, plus any 107028
corresponding investment earnings on that amount.107029

       Sec. 3721.50.        Sec. 5168.40.  As used in sections 3721.505168.40 to 107030
3721.585168.56 of the Revised Code:107031

       (A) "Bed surrender" means the following:107032

        (1) In the case of a nursing home, the removal of a bed from 107033
a nursing home's licensed capacity in a manner that reduces the 107034
total licensed capacity of all nursing homes;107035

        (2) In the case of a hospital, the removal of a hospital bed 107036
from registration under section 3701.07 of the Revised Code as a 107037
skilled nursing facility bed or long-term care bed in a manner 107038
that reduces the total number of hospital beds registered under 107039
that section as skilled nursing facility beds or long-term care 107040
beds.107041

        (B) "Change of operator" means an entering operator becoming 107042
the operator of a nursing home or hospital in the place of the 107043
exiting operator.107044

       (1) Actions that constitute a change of operator include the 107045
following:107046

       (a) A change in an exiting operator's form of legal 107047
organization, including the formation of a partnership or 107048
corporation from a sole proprietorship;107049

       (b) A transfer of all the exiting operator's ownership 107050
interest in the operation of the nursing home or hospital to the 107051
entering operator, regardless of whether ownership of any or all 107052
of the real property or personal property associated with the 107053
nursing home or hospital is also transferred;107054

       (c) A lease of the nursing home or hospital to the entering 107055
operator or the exiting operator's termination of the exiting 107056
operator's lease;107057

       (d) If the exiting operator is a partnership, dissolution of 107058
the partnership;107059

       (e) If the exiting operator is a partnership, a change in 107060
composition of the partnership unless both of the following apply:107061

       (i) The change in composition does not cause the 107062
partnership's dissolution under state law.107063

       (ii) The partners agree that the change in composition does 107064
not constitute a change in operator.107065

       (f) If the operator is a corporation, dissolution of the 107066
corporation, a merger of the corporation into another corporation 107067
that is the survivor of the merger, or a consolidation of one or 107068
more other corporations to form a new corporation.107069

       (2) The following, alone, do not constitute a change of 107070
operator:107071

       (a) A contract for an entity to manage a nursing home or 107072
hospital as the operator's agent, subject to the operator's 107073
approval of daily operating and management decisions;107074

       (b) A change of ownership, lease, or termination of a lease 107075
of real property or personal property associated with a nursing 107076
home or hospital if an entering operator does not become the 107077
operator in place of an exiting operator;107078

       (c) If the operator is a corporation, a change of one or more 107079
members of the corporation's governing body or transfer of 107080
ownership of one or more shares of the corporation's stock, if the 107081
same corporation continues to be the operator.107082

       (C) "Effective date of a change of operator" means the day an 107083
entering operator becomes the operator of a nursing home or 107084
hospital.107085

       (D) "Entering operator" means the person or government entity 107086
that will become the operator of a nursing home or hospital on the 107087
effective date of a change of operator.107088

       (E) "Exiting operator" means an operator that will cease to 107089
be the operator of a nursing home or hospital on the effective 107090
date of a change of operator.107091

       (F) "Franchise permit fee rate" means the following:107092

       (1) For fiscal year 2012, eleven dollars and forty-seven 107093
cents;107094

       (2) For fiscal year 2013 and each fiscal year thereafter, 107095
eleven dollars and sixty-seven centsrate determined in accordance 107096
with section 5168.41 of the Revised Code.107097

       (G) "Hospital" has the same meaning as in section 3727.01 of 107098
the Revised Code.107099

       (H) "Hospital long-term care unit" means any distinct part of 107100
a hospital in which any of the following beds are located:107101

       (1) Beds registered pursuant to section 3701.07 of the 107102
Revised Code as skilled nursing facility beds or long-term care 107103
beds;107104

       (2) Beds licensed as nursing home beds under section 3721.02 107105
or 3721.09 of the Revised Code.107106

       (I) "Indirect guarantee percentage" means the percentage 107107
specified in section 1903(w)(4)(C)(ii) of the "Social Security 107108
Act," 120 Stat. 2994 (2006)section 1903(w)(4)(C)(ii), 42 U.S.C. 107109
1396b(w)(4)(C)(ii), that is to be used in determining whether a 107110
class of providers is indirectly held harmless for any portion of 107111
the costs of a broad-based health-care-related tax. If the 107112
indirect guarantee percentage changes during a fiscal year, the 107113
indirect guarantee percentage is the following:107114

       (1) For the part of the fiscal year before the change takes 107115
effect, the percentage in effect before the change;107116

       (2) For the part of the fiscal year beginning with the date 107117
the indirect guarantee percentage changes, the new percentage.107118

       (J) "Medicaid days" has the same meaning as in section 107119
5111.01 of the Revised Code.107120

       (K) "Medicare" means the program established by Title XVIII.107121

       (L)and "Nursingnursing facility" hashave the same meaning107122
meanings as in section 5111.205165.01 of the Revised Code.107123

       (M)(K)(1) "Nursing home" means all of the following:107124

       (a) A nursing home licensed under section 3721.02 or 3721.09 107125
of the Revised Code, including any part of a home for the aging 107126
licensed as a nursing home;107127

       (b) A facility or part of a facility, other than a hospital, 107128
that is certified as a skilled nursing facility under Title XVIII;107129

       (c) A nursing facility, other than a portion of a hospital 107130
certified as a nursing facility.107131

       (2) "Nursing home" does not include either of the following:107132

       (a) A county home, county nursing home, or district home 107133
operated pursuant to Chapter 5155. of the Revised Code;107134

       (b) A nursing home maintained and operated by the department 107135
of veterans services under section 5907.01 of the Revised Code. 107136

       (N)(L) "Operator" means the person or government entity 107137
responsible for the daily operating and management decisions for a 107138
nursing home or hospital.107139

       (O)(M) "Title XIX" means Title XIX of the "Social Security 107140
Act," 79 Stat. 286 (1965), 42 U.S.C. 1396, as amendedet seq.107141

       (P)(N) "Title XVIII" means Title XVIII of the "Social 107142
Security Act," 79 Stat. 286 (1965), 42 U.S.C. 1395, as amendedet 107143
seq.107144

       Sec. 5168.41.  (A) The franchise permit fee rate shall be 107145
determined for each fiscal year as follows:107146

       (1) Determine the estimated total net patient revenues for 107147
all nursing homes and hospital long-term care units for the fiscal 107148
year;107149

       (2) Multiply the estimated total net patient revenues 107150
determined under division (A)(1) of this section by the lesser of 107151
the following:107152

       (a) The indirect guarantee percentage;107153

       (b) Six per cent.107154

       (3) Divide the product determined under division (A)(2) of 107155
this section by the number of days in the fiscal year;107156

       (4) Determine the sum of the following:107157

       (a) The total number of beds in all nursing homes and 107158
hospital long-term care units that are subject to the franchise 107159
permit fee for the fiscal year;107160

       (b) The total number of nursing home beds that are exempt 107161
from the franchise permit fee for the fiscal year because of the 107162
waiver obtained pursuant to section 5168.43 of the Revised Code.107163

       (5) Divide the quotient determined under division (A)(3) of 107164
this section by the sum determined under division (A)(4) of this 107165
section.107166

       (B) In determining the estimated total net patient revenues 107167
for all nursing homes and hospital long-term care units for a 107168
fiscal year, the department of medicaid shall use at least all of 107169
the following:107170

       (1) Information from medicaid cost reports filed under 107171
section 5165.10 of the Revised Code that are the most recent at 107172
the time the determination is made;107173

       (2) The projected total medicaid payment rates for nursing 107174
facility services for the fiscal year;107175

       (3) The projected total number of medicaid days for the 107176
fiscal year.107177

       Sec. 3721.51.        Sec. 5168.42.  The department of job and family 107178
servicesmedicaid shall do all of the following:107179

       (A) Subject to sections 3721.5125168.44, 3721.5135168.45, 107180
and 3721.5315168.48 of the Revised Code and divisions (C) and (D) 107181
of this section and for the purposes specified in section 3721.56107182
5168.54 of the Revised Code, determine an annual franchise permit 107183
fee on each nursing home in an amount equal to the franchise 107184
permit fee rate multiplied by the product of the following:107185

       (1) The number of beds licensed as nursing home beds, plus 107186
any other beds certified as skilled nursing facility beds under 107187
Title XVIII or nursing facility beds under Title XIX on the first 107188
day of May of the calendar year in which the fee is determined 107189
pursuant to division (A) of section 3721.535168.47 of the Revised 107190
Code;107191

       (2) The number of days in the fiscal year beginning on the 107192
first day of July of the calendar year in which the fee is 107193
determined pursuant to division (A) of section 3721.535168.47 of 107194
the Revised Code.107195

       (B) Subject to sections 3721.5125168.44, 3721.5135168.45, 107196
and 3721.5315168.48 of the Revised Code and divisions (C) and (D) 107197
of this section and for the purposes specified in section 3721.56107198
5168.54 of the Revised Code, determine an annual franchise permit 107199
fee on each hospital in an amount equal to the franchise permit 107200
fee rate multiplied by the product of the following:107201

       (1) The number of beds registered pursuant to section 3701.07 107202
of the Revised Code as skilled nursing facility beds or long-term 107203
care beds, plus any other beds licensed as nursing home beds under 107204
section 3721.02 or 3721.09 of the Revised Code, on the first day 107205
of May of the calendar year in which the fee is determined 107206
pursuant to division (A) of section 3721.535168.47 of the Revised 107207
Code;107208

       (2) The number of days in the fiscal year beginning on the 107209
first day of July of the calendar year in which the fee is 107210
determined pursuant to division (A) of section 3721.535168.47 of 107211
the Revised Code.107212

       (C) If the total amount of the franchise permit fee assessed 107213
under divisions (A) and (B) of this section for a fiscal year 107214
exceeds the indirect guarantee percentage of the actual net 107215
patient revenue for all nursing homes and hospital long-term care 107216
units for that fiscal year and seventy-five per cent or more of 107217
the combined total number of nursing homes and hospital long-term 107218
care units receive enhanced medicaid payments or other state 107219
payments equal to seventy-five per cent or more of their total 107220
franchise permit fee assessments, do both of the following:107221

       (1) Recalculate the assessments under divisions (A) and (B) 107222
of this section using a per bed per day rate equal to the indirect 107223
guarantee percentage of actual net patient revenue for all nursing 107224
homes and hospital long-term care units for that fiscal year;107225

       (2) Refund the difference between the amount of the franchise 107226
permit fee assessed for that fiscal year under divisions (A) and 107227
(B) of this section and the amount recalculated under division 107228
(C)(1) of this section as a credit against the assessments imposed 107229
under divisions (A) and (B) of this section for the subsequent 107230
fiscal year.107231

       (D) If the United States centers for medicare and medicaid 107232
services determines that the franchise permit fee established by 107233
sections 3721.505168.40 to 3721.585168.56 of the Revised Code is 107234
an impermissible health care-related tax under section 1903(w) of107235
the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935)section 1903(w), 42 107236
U.S.C. 1396b(w), as amended, take all necessary actions to cease 107237
implementation of sections 3721.505168.40 to 3721.585168.56 of 107238
the Revised Code in accordance with rules adopted under section 107239
3721.585168.56 of the Revised Code.107240

       Sec. 3721.511.        Sec. 5168.43.  (A) Not later than four months after 107241
July 17, 2009, the department of job and family servicesmedicaid107242
shall apply to the United States secretary of health and human 107243
services for a waiver under the "Social Security Act," section 107244
1903(w)(3)(E), 42 U.S.C. 1396b(w)(3)(E), as necessary to do both 107245
of the following regarding the franchise permit fee assessed under 107246
section 3721.515168.42 of the Revised Code:107247

       (1) Reduce the franchise permit fee rate to zero dollars for 107248
each nursing home licensed under section 3721.02 or 3721.09 of the 107249
Revised Code to which either of the following applies:107250

       (a) The nursing home:107251

       (i) Is exempt from state taxation under section 140.08 of the 107252
Revised Code or is exempt from state taxation as a home for the 107253
aged as defined in section 5701.13 of the Revised Code;107254

       (ii) Is exempt from federal income taxation under section 501 107255
of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986;107256

       (iii) Does not participate in medicaid or medicare; and107257

       (iv) Provides services for the life of each resident without 107258
regard to the resident's ability to secure payment for the 107259
services.107260

       (b) The nursing home:107261

       (i) Has had a written affiliation agreement with a university 107262
in this state for education and research related to Alzheimer's 107263
disease for each of the twenty years preceding July 17, 2009, and 107264
has such an agreement on July 17, 2009;107265

       (ii) Was constructed pursuant to a certificate of need 107266
granted under Section 3 of Am. Sub. S.B. 256 of the 116th general 107267
assembly; and107268

       (iii) Does not participate in medicaid or medicare.107269

       (2) For each nursing facility with more than two hundred beds 107270
certified as nursing facility beds under Title XIX, reduce the 107271
franchise permit fee rate for a number of the nursing facility's 107272
beds specified by the department to the amount necessary to obtain 107273
approval of the waiver sought under this section.107274

       (B) The effective date of the waiver sought under this 107275
section shall be the first day of the quarter beginning after the 107276
United States secretary approves the waiver.107277

       Sec. 3721.512.        Sec. 5168.44.  If the United States secretary of 107278
health and human services approves the waiver sought under section 107279
3721.5115168.43 of the Revised Code, the department of job and 107280
family servicesmedicaid shall, for each nursing home and hospital 107281
that qualifies for a reduction of its franchise permit fee rate 107282
under the waiver, reduce the franchise permit fee rate in 107283
accordance with the terms of the waiver. For purposes of the first 107284
fiscal year during which the waiver takes effect, the department 107285
shall determine the amount of the reduction not later than the 107286
effective date of the waiver and shall mail to each nursing home 107287
and hospital qualifying for the reduction notice of the reduction 107288
not later than the last day of the first month of the quarter that 107289
begins after the United States secretary approves the waiver. For 107290
purposes of subsequent fiscal years, the department shall make 107291
such determinations and mail such notices in accordance with 107292
section 3721.535168.47 of the Revised Code.107293

       Sec. 3721.513.        Sec. 5168.45.  (A) If the United States secretary of 107294
health and human services approves the waiver sought under section 107295
3721.5115168.43 of the Revised Code, the department of job and 107296
family servicesmedicaid may do both of the following regarding 107297
the franchise permit fee assessed under section 3721.515168.42 of 107298
the Revised Code:107299

       (1) Determine how much money the franchise permit fee would 107300
have raised in a fiscal year if not for the waiver;107301

       (2) For each nursing home and hospital subject to the 107302
franchise permit fee, other than a nursing home or hospital that 107303
has its franchise permit fee rate reduced under section 3721.512107304
5168.44 of the Revised Code, uniformly increase the amount of the 107305
franchise permit fee rate for a fiscal year to an amount that will 107306
have the franchise permit fee raise an amount of money that does 107307
not exceed the amount determined under division (A)(1) of this 107308
section for that fiscal year.107309

       (B) If the department increases the franchise permit fee rate 107310
in accordance with division (A) of this section for the first 107311
fiscal year during which the waiver takes effect, the department 107312
shall determine the amount of the increase not later than the 107313
effective date of the waiver and shall mail to each nursing home 107314
and hospital subject to the increase notice of the increase not 107315
later than the last day of the first month of the quarter that 107316
begins after the United States secretary approves the waiver. If 107317
the department increases the franchise permit fee rate in 107318
accordance with division (A) of this section for a subsequent 107319
fiscal year, the department shall make such determinations and 107320
mail such notices in accordance with section 3721.535168.47 of 107321
the Revised Code.107322

       Sec. 3721.52.        Sec. 5168.46.  The department of health shall do all 107323
of the following:107324

       (A) For the purpose of the determinations made under 107325
divisions (A) and (B) of section 3721.515168.42 of the Revised 107326
Code and not later than the first day of each June, report to the 107327
department of job and family servicesmedicaid the following:107328

       (1) For each nursing home, the number of beds in the nursing 107329
home licensed on the preceding first day of May under section 107330
3721.02 or 3721.09 of the Revised Code or certified on that date 107331
under Title XVIII or Title XIX;107332

       (2) For each hospital, the number of beds in the hospital 107333
registered on the preceding first day of May pursuant to section 107334
3701.07 of the Revised Code as skilled nursing facility or 107335
long-term care beds or licensed on that date under section 3721.02 107336
or 3721.09 of the Revised Code as nursing home beds.107337

       (B) For the purpose of the redetermination under section 107338
3721.5315168.48 of the Revised Code and not later than the 107339
fifteenth day of each January, report to the department of job and 107340
family servicesmedicaid, for each nursing home and hospital, the 107341
number of beds for which a bed surrender occurred during the 107342
period beginning on the first day of May of the preceding calendar 107343
year and ending on the first day of January of the calendar year 107344
in which the redetermination is made.107345

       Sec. 3721.53.        Sec. 5168.47.  (A) Not later than the fifteenth day 107346
of September of each year, the department of job and family 107347
servicesmedicaid shall determine the annual franchise permit fee 107348
for each nursing home and hospital in accordance with section 107349
3721.515168.42 of the Revised Code and any adjustments made in 107350
accordance with sections 3721.5125168.44 and 3721.5135168.45 of 107351
the Revised Code.107352

       (B) Not later than the first day of October of each year, the 107353
department shall mail to each nursing home and hospital notice of 107354
the amount of the franchise permit fee that has been determined 107355
for the nursing home or hospital.107356

       (C) Subject to section 3721.5315168.48 of the Revised Code, 107357
each nursing home and hospital shall pay its fee under section 107358
3721.515168.42 of the Revised Code, as adjusted in accordance 107359
with sections 3721.5125168.44 and 3721.5135168.45 of the 107360
Revised Code, to the department in four installment payments not 107361
later than forty-five days after the last day of each October, 107362
December, March, and June.107363

       Sec. 3721.531.        Sec. 5168.48. (A) Not later than the last day of 107364
February of each year, the department of job and family services107365
medicaid shall redetermine each nursing home's and hospital's 107366
franchise permit fee if one or more bed surrenders occur during 107367
the period beginning on the first day of May of the preceding 107368
calendar year and ending on the first day of January of the 107369
calendar year in which the redetermination is made.107370

        (B) In redetermining nursing homes' and hospitals' franchise 107371
permit fees under this section, the department shall do both of 107372
the following:107373

        (1) Provide for the redetermination to be conducted in a 107374
manner consistent with the terms of the waiver sought under 107375
section 3721.5115168.43 of the Revised Code; 107376

       (2) Recalculate each nursing home's and hospital's franchise 107377
permit fee in accordance with division (A) or (B) of section 107378
3721.515168.42 of the Revised Code with the following changes:107379

        (a) In the case of a nursing home or hospital for which one 107380
or more bed surrenders occurred during the period beginning on the 107381
first day of May of the preceding calendar year and ending on the 107382
first day of January of the calendar year in which the 107383
redetermination is made, the number of beds included in the 107384
calculation for the purpose of division (A)(1) or (B)(1) of 107385
section 3721.515168.42 of the Revised Code shall exclude the beds 107386
for which bed surrenders occurred during that period.107387

        (b) The number of days used in the calculation under division 107388
(A)(2) or (B)(2) of section 3721.515168.42 of the Revised Code 107389
shall be the number of days in the first half of the calendar year 107390
in which the redetermination is made.107391

        (c) The franchise permit fee rate shall reflect adjustments 107392
made under sections 3721.5125168.44 and 3721.5135168.45 of the 107393
Revised Code.107394

        (C) Not later than the first day of March of each year, the 107395
department shall mail to each nursing home and hospital notice of 107396
the amount of its redetermined franchise permit fee.107397

        (D) Each nursing home and hospital shall pay its redetermined 107398
fee to the department in two installment payments not later than 107399
forty-five days after the last day of March and June of the 107400
calendar year in which the redetermination is made.107401

       Sec. 3721.532.        Sec. 5168.49.  If a nursing home or hospital 107402
undergoes a change of operator during a fiscal year, the 107403
responsibility for paying the franchise permit fee that was 107404
determined for the nursing home or hospital under section 3721.53107405
5168.47 of the Revised Code, or redetermined for the nursing home 107406
or hospital under section 3721.5315168.48 of the Revised Code, 107407
for that fiscal year shall be divided proportionally. The exiting 107408
operator shall be responsible for paying the amount of the fee 107409
that is for the part of the fiscal year that ends on the day 107410
before the effective date of the change of operator. The entering 107411
operator shall be responsible for paying the amount of the fee 107412
that is for the part of the fiscal year that begins on the 107413
effective date of the change of operator. The department of job 107414
and family servicesmedicaid is not required to mail a notice to 107415
the entering operator regarding the amount of that fiscal year's 107416
fee for which the entering operator is responsible.107417

       Sec. 3721.533.        Sec. 5168.50.  No nursing home or hospital shall 107418
directly bill its residents for the franchise permit fee paid 107419
under section 3721.535168.47 or 3721.5315168.48 of the Revised 107420
Code or otherwise directly pass the fee through to its residents.107421

       Sec. 3721.54.        Sec. 5168.51.  If a nursing home or hospital fails to 107422
pay the full amount of a franchise permit fee installment when 107423
due, the department of job and family servicesmedicaid may assess 107424
a five per cent penalty on the amount due for each month or 107425
fraction thereof the installment is overdue.107426

       Sec. 3721.541.        Sec. 5168.52.  (A) In addition to assessing a 107427
penalty pursuant to section 3721.545168.51 of the Revised Code, 107428
the department of job and family servicesmedicaid may do any of 107429
the following if a nursing facility or hospital fails to pay the 107430
full amount of a franchise permit fee installment when due:107431

        (1) Withhold an amount less than or equal to the installment 107432
and penalty assessed under section 3721.545168.51 of the Revised 107433
Code from a medicaid payment due the nursing facility or hospital 107434
until the nursing facility or hospital pays the installment and 107435
penalty;107436

        (2) Offset an amount less than or equal to the installment 107437
and penalty assessed under section 3721.545168.51 of the Revised 107438
Code from a Medicaidmedicaid payment due the nursing facility or 107439
hospital;107440

       (3) Terminate the nursing facility or hospital's medicaid 107441
provider agreement.107442

        (B) The department may offset a medicaid payment under 107443
division (A) of this section without providing notice to the 107444
nursing facility or hospital and without conducting an 107445
adjudication under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.107446

       Sec. 3721.55.        Sec. 5168.53.  (A) A nursing home or hospital may 107447
appeal the fee assessed under section 3721.515168.42 of the 107448
Revised Code, as adjusted under section 3721.5125168.44 or 107449
3721.5135168.45 of the Revised Code, and redetermined under 107450
section 3721.5315168.48 of the Revised Code solely on the grounds 107451
that the department of job and family servicesmedicaid committed 107452
a material error in determining or redetermining the amount of the 107453
fee. A request for an appeal must be received by the department 107454
not later than fifteen days after the date the department mails 107455
the notice of the fee and must include written materials setting 107456
forth the basis for the appeal.107457

       (B) If a nursing home or hospital submits a request for an 107458
appeal within the time required under division (A) of this 107459
section, the department of job and family services shall hold a 107460
public hearing in Columbus not later than thirty days after the 107461
date the department receives the request for an appeal. The 107462
department shall, not later than ten days before the date of the 107463
hearing, mail a notice of the date, time, and place of the hearing 107464
to the nursing home or hospital. The department may hear all the 107465
requested appeals in one public hearing.107466

       (C) On the basis of the evidence presented at the hearing or 107467
any other evidence submitted by the nursing home or hospital, the 107468
department may adjust a fee. The department's decision is final.107469

       Sec. 3721.56.        Sec. 5168.54.  (A) There is hereby created in the 107470
state treasury the nursing home franchise permit fee fund. All 107471
payments and penalties paid by nursing homes and hospitals under 107472
sections 3721.535168.47, 3721.5315168.48, and 3721.545168.51107473
of the Revised Code shall be deposited into the fund. The fund 107474
shall also consist of money deposited into it pursuant to sections 107475
3769.08 and 3769.26 of the Revised Code. Subject to division (B) 107476
of section 3769.08 of the Revised Code, the department of job and 107477
family servicesmedicaid shall use the money in the fund to make 107478
medicaid payments to providers of nursing facility services and 107479
providers of home and community-based services. Money in the fund 107480
may also be used for the residential state supplement program 107481
established under section 5119.695119.41 of the Revised Code.107482

        (B) Any money remaining in the nursing home franchise permit 107483
fee fund after payments specified in division (A) of this section 107484
are made shall be retained in the fund. Any interest or other 107485
investment proceeds earned on money in the fund shall be credited 107486
to the fund and used to make medicaid payments in accordance with 107487
division (A) of this section.107488

       Sec. 3721.57.        Sec. 5168.55.  The department of job and family 107489
servicesmedicaid may make any investigation it considers 107490
appropriate to obtain information necessary to fulfill its duties 107491
under sections 3721.505168.40 to 3721.585168.56 of the Revised 107492
Code. At the request of the department, the attorney general shall 107493
aid in any such investigations. The attorney general shall 107494
institute and prosecute all necessary actions for the enforcement 107495
of sections 3721.505168.40 to 3721.585168.56 of the Revised 107496
Code, except that at the request of the attorney general, the 107497
county prosecutor of the county in which a nursing home or 107498
hospital that has failed to comply with sections 3721.505168.40107499
to 3721.585168.56 of the Revised Code is located shall institute 107500
and prosecute any necessary action against the nursing home or 107501
hospital.107502

       Sec. 3721.58.        Sec. 5168.56.  The medicaid director of job and 107503
family services shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. 107504
of the Revised Code to do both of the following:107505

       (A) Prescribe the actions the department of job and family 107506
servicesmedicaid will take to cease implementation of sections 107507
3721.50 through 3721.575168.40 to 5168.56 of the Revised Code if 107508
the United States centers for medicare and medicaid services 107509
determines that the franchise permit fee established by those 107510
sections is an impermissible health-care related tax under section 107511
1903(w) of the "Social Security Act," 105 Stat. 1793 (1991)107512
section 1903(w), 42 U.S.C. 1396b(w), as amended;107513

       (B) Establish any requirements or procedures the director 107514
considers necessary to implement sections 3721.505168.40 to 107515
3721.585168.56 of the Revised Code.107516

       Sec. 5112.30.        Sec. 5168.60.  As used in sections 5112.305168.60 to 107517
5112.395168.71 of the Revised Code:107518

       (A) "Franchise permit fee rate" means the following:107519

       (1) For fiscal year 20122014, seventeeneighteen dollars and 107520
ninety-ninetwenty-four cents;107521

       (2) For fiscal year 20132015 and each fiscal year 107522
thereafter, eighteen dollars and thirty-twoseventeen cents.107523

       (B) "Indirect guarantee percentage" means the percentage 107524
specified in section 1903(w)(4)(C)(ii) of the "Social Security 107525
Act," 120 Stat. 2994 (2006)section 1903(w)(4)(C)(ii), 42 U.S.C. 107526
1396b(w)(4)(C)(ii), as amended, that is to be used in determining 107527
whether a class of providers is indirectly held harmless for any 107528
portion of the costs of a broad-based health-care-related tax. If 107529
the indirect guarantee percentage changes during a fiscal year, 107530
the indirect guarantee percentage is the following:107531

       (1) For the part of the fiscal year before the change takes 107532
effect, the percentage in effect before the change;107533

       (2) For the part of the fiscal year beginning with the date 107534
the indirect guarantee percentage changes, the new percentage.107535

       (C) "Intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded107536
ICF/MR" has the same meaning as in section 5111.205124.01 of the 107537
Revised Code, except that, until August 1, 2009, it does not 107538
include any such facility operated by the department of 107539
developmental disabilities.107540

       (D) "MedicaidMedicaid-certified capacity" has the same 107541
meaning as in section 5111.015124.01 of the Revised Code. 107542

       (E) "Provider agreement" has the same meaning as in section 107543
5124.01 of the Revised Code.107544

       Sec. 5112.31.        Sec. 5168.61.  The department of job and family 107545
servicesdevelopmental disabilities shall do all of the 107546
following:107547

       (A) Subject to section 5112.3315168.64 of the Revised Code 107548
and divisions (B) and (C) of this section and for the purposes 107549
specified in section 5112.3715168.69 of the Revised Code, assess 107550
for each fiscal year each intermediate care facility for the 107551
mentally retardedICF/MR a franchise permit fee equal to the 107552
franchise permit fee rate multiplied by the product of the 107553
following:107554

       (1) The number of beds certified under Title XIX of the 107555
"Social Security Act"ICF/MR's medicaid-certified capacity on the 107556
first day of May of the calendar year in which the assessment is 107557
determined pursuant to division (A) of section 5112.335168.63 of 107558
the Revised Code;107559

       (2) The number of days in the fiscal year.107560

       (B) If the total amount of the franchise permit fee assessed 107561
under division (A) of this section for a fiscal year exceeds the 107562
indirect guarantee percentage of the actual net patient revenue 107563
for all intermediate care facilities for the mentally retarded107564
ICFs/MR for that fiscal year and seventy-five per cent or more of 107565
the total number of intermediate care facilities for the mentally 107566
retardedICFs/MR receive enhanced medicaid payments or other 107567
state payments equal to seventy-five per cent or more of their 107568
total franchise permit fee assessments, do both of the following:107569

       (1) Recalculate the assessments under division (A) of this 107570
section using a per bed per day rate equal to the indirect 107571
guarantee percentage of actual net patient revenue for all 107572
intermediate care facilities for the mentally retardedICFs/MR for 107573
that fiscal year;107574

       (2) Refund the difference between the amount of the franchise 107575
permit fee assessed for that fiscal year under division (A) of 107576
this section and the amount recalculated under division (B)(1) of 107577
this section as a credit against the assessments imposed under 107578
division (A) of this section for the subsequent fiscal year.107579

       (C) If the United States secretary of health and human 107580
services determines that the franchise permit fee established by 107581
sections 5112.305168.60 to 5112.395168.71 of the Revised Code 107582
would be an impermissible health care-related tax under section 107583
1903(w) of the "Social Security Act," 105 Stat. 1793 (1991)107584
section 1903(w), 42 U.S.C. 1396b(w), as amended, take all 107585
necessary actions to cease implementation of those sections in 107586
accordance with rules adopted under section 5112.395168.71 of the 107587
Revised Code.107588

       Sec. 5112.32.        Sec. 5168.62.  For the purpose of the franchise 107589
permit fee imposed under section 5112.315168.61 of the Revised 107590
Code and not later than the first day of each June, the department 107591
of developmental disabilities shall:107592

       (A) Not later than August 1, 1993, report to the department 107593
of job and family services the number of beds in each intermediate 107594
care facility for the mentally retarded certified on July 1, 1993, 107595
under Title XIX of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 107596
42 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended;107597

       (B) Not later than June 1, 1994, and the first day of each 107598
June thereafter, report to the department of job and family 107599
servicesmedicaid the number of beds in each such facility 107600
certifiedICF/MR on the preceding first day of May under that 107601
title.107602

       Sec. 5112.33.        Sec. 5168.63.  (A) Not later than the fifteenth day 107603
of August of each year, the department of job and family services107604
developmental disabilities shall determine the annual franchise 107605
permit fee for each intermediate care facility for the mentally 107606
retardedICF/MR in accordance with section 5112.315168.61 of the 107607
Revised Code.107608

       (B) Not later than the first day of September of each year, 107609
the department shall mail to each intermediate care facility for 107610
the mentally retardedICF/MR notice of the amount of the franchise 107611
permit fee the facilityICF/MR has been assessed under section 107612
5112.315168.61 of the Revised Code.107613

       (C) Subject to section 5112.3315168.64 of the Revised Code, 107614
each intermediate care facility for the mentally retardedICF/MR107615
shall pay its fee under section 5112.315168.61 of the Revised 107616
Code to the department in quarterly installment payments not later 107617
than forty-five days after the last day of each September, 107618
December, March, and June.107619

       Sec. 5112.331.        Sec. 5168.64.  (A) If, during the period beginning 107620
on the first day of May of a calendar year and ending on the first 107621
day of January of the immediately following calendar year, the 107622
operator of an intermediate care facility for the mentally 107623
retardedICF/MR converts, pursuant to section 5111.8745124.60 of 107624
the Revised Code, one or more of the facility'sICF/MR's beds to 107625
providing home and community-based services, the department of 107626
job and family servicesdevelopmental disabilities shall do the 107627
following:107628

       (1) If the facility'sICF/MR's medicaid certification is 107629
terminated because of the conversion, terminate the facility's107630
ICF/MR's franchise permit fee effective on the first day of the 107631
quarter immediately following the quarter in which the department 107632
receives the notice of the conversion from the director of health;107633

       (2) If the facility's certifiedICF/MR's medicaid-certified107634
capacity under medicaid is reduced because of the conversion, 107635
redetermine the facility'sICF/MR's franchise permit fee in 107636
accordance with division (B) of this section for the second half 107637
of the fiscal year for which the fee is assessed. 107638

       (B)(1) To redetermine an intermediate care facility for the 107639
mentally retarded'sICF/MR's franchise permit fee, the department 107640
shall multiply the franchise permit fee rate by the product of the 107641
following:107642

       (a) The number of the facility's beds that remain certified 107643
under Title XIX of the "Social Security Act"ICF/MR's 107644
medicaid-certified capacity as of the date the conversion takes 107645
effect;107646

       (b) The number of days in the second half of the fiscal year 107647
for which the redetermination is made.107648

       (2) The intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded107649
ICF/MR shall pay its franchise permit fee as redetermined under 107650
division (B)(1) of this section in installment payments not later 107651
than forty-five days after the last day of March and June of the 107652
fiscal year for which the redetermination is made.107653

       Sec. 5112.34.        Sec. 5168.65.  If an intermediate care facility for 107654
the mentally retardedICF/MR fails to pay the full amount of an 107655
installment when due, the department of job and family services107656
developmental disabilities may assess a five per cent penalty on 107657
the amount due for each month or fraction thereof the installment 107658
is overdue.107659

       Sec. 5112.341.        Sec. 5168.66.  (A) In addition to assessing a 107660
penalty pursuant to section 5112.345168.65 of the Revised Code, 107661
the department of job and family servicesdevelopmental 107662
disabilities may do any of the following if an intermediate care 107663
facility for the mentally retardedICF/MR fails to pay the full 107664
amount of a franchise permit fee installment when due:107665

        (1) Withhold an amount less than or equal to the installment 107666
and penalty assessed under section 5112.345168.65 of the Revised 107667
Code from a medicaid payment due the facilityICF/MR until the 107668
facilityICF/MR pays the installment and penalty;107669

        (2) Offset an amount less than or equal to the installment 107670
and penalty assessed under section 5112.345168.65 of the Revised 107671
Code from a medicaid payment due the facilityICF/MR;107672

       (3) TerminateProvide for the department of medicaid to 107673
terminate the facility's medicaidICF/MR's provider agreement.107674

        (B) The department may offset a medicaid payment under 107675
division (A) of this section without providing notice to the 107676
intermediate care facility for the mentally retardedICF/MR and 107677
without conducting an adjudication under Chapter 119. of the 107678
Revised Code.107679

       Sec. 5112.35.        Sec. 5168.67.  (A) An intermediate care facility for 107680
the mentally retardedICF/MR may appeal the franchise permit fee 107681
imposed under section 5112.315168.61 of the Revised Code solely 107682
on the grounds that the department of job and family services107683
developmental disabilities committed a material error in 107684
determining the amount of the fee. A request for an appeal must be 107685
received by the department not later than fifteen days after the 107686
date the department mails the notice of the fee and must include 107687
written materials setting forth the basis for the appeal.107688

       (B) If an intermediate care facility for the mentally 107689
retardedICF/MR submits a request for an appeal within the time 107690
required under division (A) of this section, the department shall 107691
hold a public hearing in Columbus not later than thirty days after 107692
the date the department receives the request for an appeal. The 107693
department shall, not later than ten days before the date of the 107694
hearing, mail a notice of the date, time, and place of the hearing 107695
to the facilityICF/MR. The department may hear all requested 107696
appeals in one public hearing.107697

       (C) On the basis of the evidence presented at the hearing or 107698
any other evidence submitted by the intermediate care facility for 107699
the mentally retardedICF/MR, the department may adjust a fee. The 107700
department's decision is final.107701

       Sec. 5112.37.        Sec. 5168.68.  There is hereby created in the state 107702
treasury the home and community-based services for the mentally 107703
retarded and developmentally disabled fund. All installment 107704
payments and penalties paid by an intermediate care facility for 107705
the mentally retardedICF/MR under sections 5112.335168.63 and 107706
5112.345168.65 of the Revised Code shall be deposited into the 107707
fund. As soon as possible after the end of each quarter, the 107708
medicaid director of job and family services shall certify to the 107709
director of budget and management the amount of money that is in 107710
the fund as of the last day of that quarter. On receipt of a 107711
certification, the director of budget and management shall 107712
transfer the amount so certified from the home and community-based 107713
services for the mentally retarded and developmentally disabled 107714
fund to the department of developmental disabilities operating and 107715
services fund created under section 5112.3715168.69 of the 107716
Revised Code.107717

       Sec. 5112.371.        Sec. 5168.69. There is hereby created in the state 107718
treasury the department of developmental disabilities operating 107719
and services fund. The fund shall consist of the money transferred 107720
to it under section 5112.375168.68 of the Revised Code. The money 107721
in the fund shall be used for the expenses of the programs that 107722
the department of developmental disabilities administers and the 107723
department's administrative expenses.107724

       Sec. 5112.38.        Sec. 5168.70.  The department of job and family 107725
servicesdevelopmental disabilities may make any investigation it 107726
considers appropriate to obtain information necessary to fulfill 107727
its duties under sections 5112.305168.60 to 5112.395168.71 of 107728
the Revised Code. At the request of the department, the attorney 107729
general shall aid in any such investigations. The attorney general 107730
shall institute and prosecute all necessary actions for the 107731
enforcement of sections 5112.305168.60 to 5112.395168.71 of the 107732
Revised Code, except that at the request of the attorney general, 107733
the county prosecutor of the county in which an intermediate care 107734
facility for the mentally retardedICF/MR that has failed to 107735
comply with those sections is located shall institute and 107736
prosecute any necessary action against the facilityICF/MR.107737

       Sec. 5112.39.        Sec. 5168.71. TheTo the extent authorized by rules 107738
authorized by section 5162.021 of the Revised Code, the director 107739
of job and family servicesdevelopmental disabilities shall adopt 107740
rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to do 107741
both of the following:107742

       (A) Prescribe the actions the department of developmental 107743
disabilities will take to cease implementation of sections 5112.30107744
5168.60 to 5112.395168.71 of the Revised Code if the United 107745
States secretary of health and human services determines that the 107746
franchise permit fee imposed under section 5112.315168.61 of the 107747
Revised Code is an impermissible health care-related tax under 107748
section 1903(w) of the "Social Security Act," 105 Stat. 1793 107749
(1991)section 1903(w), 42 U.S.C. 1396b(w), as amended;107750

       (B) Establish any other requirements or procedures the 107751
director considers necessary to implement sections 5112.305168.60107752
to 5112.395168.71 of the Revised Code.107753

       Sec. 5112.99.        Sec. 5168.99.  (A) The medicaid director of job and 107754
family services shall impose a penalty for each day that a 107755
hospital fails to report the information required under section 107756
5112.045168.05 of the Revised Code on or before the dates 107757
specified in that section. The amount of the penalty shall be 107758
established by the director in rules adopted under section 5112.03107759
5168.02 of the Revised Code.107760

       (B) In addition to any other remedy available to the 107761
department of job and family servicesmedicaid under law to 107762
collect unpaid assessments and transfers under sections 5112.01107763
5168.01 to 5112.215168.14 of the Revised Code, the director 107764
shall impose a penalty of ten per cent of the amount due on any 107765
hospital that fails to pay assessments or make intergovernmental 107766
transfers by the dates required by rules adopted under section 107767
5112.035168.02 of the Revised Code.107768

       (C) In addition to any other remedy available to the 107769
department of job and family servicesmedicaid under law to 107770
collect unpaid assessments imposed under section 5112.415168.21107771
of the Revised Code, the director shall impose a penalty of ten 107772
per cent of the amount due on any hospital that fails to pay the 107773
assessment by the date it is due.107774

       (D) The director shall waive the penalties provided for in 107775
this section for good cause shown by the hospital.107776

       (E) All penalties imposed under this section shall be 107777
deposited into the health care administration fund created by 107778
section 5111.945162.54 of the Revised Code.107779

       Sec. 5112.991.        Sec. 5168.991.  The department of job and family 107780
servicesmedicaid may offset the amount of a hospital's unpaid 107781
penalty imposed under section 5112.995168.99 of the Revised Code 107782
from one or more payments due the hospital under the medicaid 107783
program. The total amount that may be offset from one or more 107784
payments shall not exceed the amount of the unpaid penalty.107785

       Sec. 5302.221. (A) As used in this section:107786

       "Estate" has the same meaning as in section 5111.115162.21107787
of the Revised Code.107788

       "Medicaid estate recovery program" means the program 107789
instituted under section 5111.115162.21 of the Revised Code.107790

       (B) The administrator of the medicaid estate recovery program 107791
shall prescribe a form on which a beneficiary of a transfer on 107792
death designation affidavit as provided in section 5302.22 of the 107793
Revised Code, who survives the deceased owner of the real property 107794
or an interest in the real property or that is in existence on the 107795
date of death of the deceased owner, or that beneficiary's 107796
representative is to indicate both of the following:107797

       (1) Whether the deceased owner was either of the following:107798

       (a) A decedent subject to the medicaid estate recovery 107799
program;107800

       (b) The spouse of a decedent subject to the medicaid estate 107801
recovery program.107802

       (2) Whether the real property or interest in the real 107803
property was part of the estate of a decedent subject to the 107804
medicaid estate recovery program.107805

       (C) A county recorder shall obtain a properly completed form 107806
prescribed under division (B) of this section from the beneficiary 107807
of a transfer on death designation affidavit or the beneficiary's 107808
representative and send a copy of the form to the administrator of 107809
the medicaid estate recovery program before recording the transfer 107810
of the real property or interest in the real property under 107811
section 5302.222 of the Revised Code.107812

       Sec. 5309.082. (A) As used in this section:107813

       "Estate" has the same meaning as in section 5111.115162.21107814
of the Revised Code.107815

       "Medicaid estate recovery program" means the program 107816
instituted under section 5111.115162.21 of the Revised Code.107817

       (B) The administrator of the medicaid estate recovery program 107818
shall prescribe a form on which a surviving tenant under a 107819
survivorship tenancy or such a surviving tenant's representative 107820
is to indicate both of the following:107821

       (1) Whether the deceased survivorship tenant was either of 107822
the following:107823

       (a) A decedent subject to the medicaid estate recovery 107824
program;107825

       (b) The spouse of a decedent subject to the medicaid estate 107826
recovery program.107827

       (2) Whether the registered land under a survivorship tenancy 107828
was part of the estate of a decedent subject to the medicaid 107829
estate recovery program.107830

       (C) A county recorder shall obtain a properly completed form 107831
prescribed under division (B) of this section from the surviving 107832
tenant under a survivorship tenancy or the surviving tenant's 107833
representative and send a copy of the form to the administrator of 107834
the medicaid estate recovery program before registering the title 107835
in the surviving tenants under section 5309.081 of the Revised 107836
Code.107837

       Sec. 5505.12.  (A) The state highway patrol retirement board 107838
shall have prepared annually by or under the supervision of an 107839
actuary an actuarial valuation of the pension assets, liabilities, 107840
and funding requirements of the state highway patrol retirement 107841
system as established pursuant to this chapter. The actuary shall 107842
complete the valuation in accordance with actuarial standards of 107843
practice promulgated by the actuarial standards board of the 107844
American academy of actuaries and prepare a report of the 107845
valuation. The report shall include all of the following:107846

       (1) A summary of the benefit provisions evaluated;107847

       (2) A summary of the census data and financial information 107848
used in the valuation;107849

       (3) A description of the actuarial assumptions, actuarial 107850
cost method, and asset valuation method used in the valuation, 107851
including a statement of the assumed rate of payroll growth and 107852
assumed rate of growth or decline in the number of members 107853
contributing to the retirement system;107854

       (4) A summary of findings that includes a statement of the 107855
actuarial accrued pension liabilities and unfunded actuarial 107856
accrued pension liabilities;107857

       (5) A schedule showing the effect of any changes in the 107858
benefit provisions, actuarial assumptions, or cost methods since 107859
the last annual actuarial valuation;107860

       (6) A statement of whether contributions to the retirement 107861
system are expected to be sufficient to satisfy the funding 107862
objectives established by the board.107863

       The board shall submit the report to the Ohio retirement 107864
study council, the director of budget and management, and the 107865
standing committees of the house of representatives and the senate 107866
with primary responsibility for retirement legislation immediately 107867
upon its availability and not later than the first day of July 107868
following the year for which the valuation was made.107869

       (B) At such times as the state highway patrol retirement 107870
board determines, and at least once in each five-year period after 107871
January 1, 1966, the board shall have prepared by or under the 107872
supervision of an actuary an actuarial investigation of the 107873
mortality, service, and other experience of the members, 107874
retirants, and beneficiaries to update the actuarial assumptions 107875
used in the actuarial valuation required by division (A) of this 107876
section. The actuary shall prepare a report of the actuarial 107877
investigation. The report shall be prepared and any recommended 107878
changes in actuarial assumptions shall be made in accordance with 107879
the actuarial standards of practice promulgated by the actuarial 107880
standards board of the American academy of actuaries. The report 107881
shall include all of the following:107882

       (1) A summary of relevant decrement and economic assumption 107883
experience observed over the period of the investigation;107884

       (2) Recommended changes in actuarial assumptions to be used 107885
in subsequent actuarial valuations required by division (A) of 107886
this section;107887

       (3) A measurement of the financial effect of the recommended 107888
changes in actuarial assumptions;107889

       (4) If the investigation required by this division includes 107890
the investigation required by division (F) of this section, a 107891
report of the result of that investigation.107892

       The board shall submit the report to the Ohio retirement 107893
study council and the standing committees of the house of 107894
representatives and the senate with primary responsibility for 107895
retirement legislation not later than the first day of November 107896
following the last fiscal year of the period the report covers.107897

       (C) The board may at any time request the actuary to make any 107898
studies or actuarial valuations to determine the adequacy of the 107899
rates of contributions provided by section 5505.15 of the Revised 107900
Code.107901

       (D) The board shall have prepared by or under the supervision 107902
of an actuary an actuarial analysis of any introduced legislation 107903
expected to have a measurable financial impact on the retirement 107904
system. The actuarial analysis shall be completed in accordance 107905
with the actuarial standards of practice promulgated by the 107906
actuarial standards board of the American academy of actuaries. 107907
The actuary shall prepare a report of the actuarial analysis, 107908
which shall include all of the following:107909

       (1) A summary of the statutory changes that are being 107910
evaluated;107911

       (2) A description of or reference to the actuarial 107912
assumptions and actuarial cost method used in the report;107913

       (3) A description of the participant group or groups included 107914
in the report;107915

       (4) A statement of the financial impact of the legislation, 107916
including the resulting increase, if any, in the employer normal 107917
cost percentage; the increase, if any, in actuarial accrued 107918
liabilities; and the per cent of payroll that would be required to 107919
amortize the increase in actuarial accrued liabilities as a level 107920
per cent of covered payroll for all active members over a period 107921
not to exceed thirty years;107922

       (5) A statement of whether the scheduled contributions to the 107923
system after the proposed change is enacted are expected to be 107924
sufficient to satisfy the funding objectives established by the 107925
board.107926

       Not later than sixty days from the date of introduction of 107927
the legislation, the board shall submit a copy of the actuarial 107928
analysis to the legislative service commission, the standing 107929
committees of the house of representatives and the senate with 107930
primary responsibility for retirement legislation, and the Ohio 107931
retirement study council.107932

       (E) The board shall have prepared annually a report giving a 107933
full accounting of the revenues and costs relating to the 107934
provision of benefits under section 5505.28 of the Revised Code. 107935
The report shall be made as of December 31, 1997, and the 107936
thirty-first day of December of each year thereafter. The report 107937
shall include the following:107938

       (1) A description of the statutory authority for the benefits 107939
provided;107940

       (2) A summary of the benefits;107941

       (3) A summary of the eligibility requirements for the 107942
benefits;107943

       (4) A statement of the number of participants eligible for 107944
the benefits;107945

       (5) A description of the accounting, asset valuation, and 107946
funding method used to provide the benefits;107947

       (6) A statement of the net assets available for the provision 107948
of the benefits as of the last day of the fiscal year;107949

       (7) A statement of any changes in the net assets available 107950
for the provision of benefits, including participant and employer 107951
contributions, net investment income, administrative expenses, and 107952
benefits provided to participants, as of the last day of the 107953
fiscal year;107954

       (8) For the last six consecutive fiscal years, a schedule of 107955
the net assets available for the benefits, the annual cost of 107956
benefits, administrative expenses incurred, and annual employer 107957
contributions allocated for the provision of benefits;107958

       (9) A description of any significant changes that affect the 107959
comparability of the report required under this division;107960

       (10) A statement of the amount paid under division (B) of 107961
section 5505.28 of the Revised Code.107962

       The board shall submit the report to the Ohio retirement 107963
study council, the director of budget and management, and the 107964
standing committees of the house of representatives and the senate 107965
with primary responsibility for retirement legislation immediately 107966
upon its availability and not later than the thirtieth day of June 107967
following the year for which the report was made.107968

       (F) At least once in each five-year period, the board shall 107969
have prepared by or under the supervision of an actuary an 107970
actuarial investigation of the deferred retirement option plan 107971
established under section 5505.50 of the Revised Code. The 107972
investigation shall include an examination of the financial 107973
impact, if any, on the retirement system of offering the plan to 107974
members.107975

       The actuary shall prepare a report of the actuarial 107976
investigation. The report shall include a determination of whether 107977
the plan, as established or modified, has a negative financial 107978
impact on the retirement system and, if so, recommendations on how 107979
to modify the plan to eliminate the negative financial impact. If 107980
the actuarial report indicates that the plan has a negative 107981
financial impact on the retirement system, the board shall modify 107982
the plan. If the board modifies the plan, the rights and 107983
obligations of members who have already elected to participate 107984
shall not be altered.107985

       The state's contributions to the employer accumulation fund 107986
shall not be increased to offset any negative financial impact of 107987
the deferred retirement option plan.107988

       The board may include the actuarial investigation required 107989
under this division as part of the actuarial investigation 107990
required under division (B) of this section. If the report of the 107991
actuarial investigation required by this division is not included 107992
in the report required by division (B) of this section, the board 107993
shall submit the report required by this division to the Ohio 107994
retirement study council and the standing committees of the house 107995
of representatives and the senate with primary responsibility for 107996
retirement legislation not later than the first day of November 107997
following the last fiscal year of the period the report covers.107998

       Sec. 5507.46. (A) Prior to January 1, 2014:107999

       (1) A wireless service provider or reseller, not later than 108000
the last day of each month, shall remit the full amount of all 108001
wireless 9-1-1 charges it collected under division (A) of section 108002
5507.42 of the Revised Code for the second preceding calendar 108003
month to the Ohio 9-1-1 coordinator, with the exception of charges 108004
equivalent to the amount authorized as a billing and collection 108005
fee under division (A)(2) of this section. In doing so, the 108006
provider or reseller may remit the requisite amount in any 108007
reasonable manner consistent with its existing operating or 108008
technological capabilities, such as by customer address, location 108009
associated with the wireless telephone number, or another 108010
allocation method based on comparable, relevant data. If the 108011
wireless service provider or reseller receives a partial payment 108012
for a bill from a wireless service subscriber, the wireless 108013
service provider or reseller shall apply the payment first against 108014
the amount the subscriber owes the wireless service provider or 108015
reseller and shall remit to the coordinator such lesser amount, if 108016
any, as results from that invoice.108017

       (2) A wireless service provider or reseller may retain as a 108018
billing and collection fee two per cent of the total wireless 108019
9-1-1 charges it collects in a month and shall account to the 108020
coordinator for the amount retained.108021

       (3) The coordinator shall return to, or credit against the 108022
next month's remittance of, a wireless service provider or 108023
reseller the amount of any remittances the coordinator determines 108024
were erroneously submitted by the provider or reseller.108025

       (B) Beginning January 1, 2014:108026

       (1) Each seller of a prepaid wireless calling service, 108027
wireless service provider, and reseller shall, on or before the 108028
twenty-third day of each month, except as provided in divisions 108029
(B)(2) and (3) of this section, do both of the following: 108030

       (a) Make and file a return for the preceding month, in the 108031
form prescribed by the tax commissioner, showing the amount of the 108032
wireless 9-1-1 charges due under section 5507.42 of the Revised 108033
Code for that month; 108034

        (b) Remit the full amount due, as shown on the return, with 108035
the exception of charges equivalent to the amount authorized as a 108036
collection fee under division (B)(4) of this section.108037

       (2) The commissioner may grant one or more thirty-day 108038
extensions for making and filing returns and remitting amounts 108039
due. 108040

       (3) If a seller is required to collect prepaid wireless 9-1-1 108041
charges in amounts that do not merit monthly returns, the 108042
commissioner may authorize the seller to make and file returns 108043
less frequently. The commissioner shall ascertain whether this 108044
authorization is warranted upon the basis of administrative costs 108045
to the state. 108046

       (4) A wireless service provider, reseller, and seller may 108047
each retain as a collection fee three per cent of the total 108048
wireless 9-1-1 charges required to be collected under section 108049
5507.42 of the Revised Code, and shall account to the tax 108050
commissioner for the amount retained.108051

       (5) The return required under division (B)(1)(a) of this 108052
section shall be filed electronically using the Ohio business 108053
gateway, as defined in section 718.051 of the Revised Code, the 108054
Ohio telefile system, or any other electronic means prescribed by 108055
the tax commissioner. Remittance of the amount due shall be made 108056
electronically in a manner approved by the commissioner. A 108057
wireless service provider, reseller, or seller may apply to the 108058
commissioner on a form prescribed by the commissioner to be 108059
excused from either electronic requirement of this division. For 108060
good cause shown, the commissioner may excuse the provider, 108061
reseller, or seller from either or both of the requirements and 108062
may permit the provider, reseller, or seller to file returns or 108063
make remittances by nonelectronic means.108064

       (C)(1) Prior to January 1, 2014, each subscriber on which a 108065
wireless 9-1-1 charge is imposed under division (A) of section 108066
5507.42 of the Revised Code is liable to the state for the amount 108067
of the charge. If a wireless service provider or reseller fails to 108068
collect the charge under that division from a subscriber of 108069
prepaid wireless service, or fails to bill any other subscriber 108070
for the charge, the wireless service provider or reseller is 108071
liable to the state for the amount not collected or billed. If a 108072
wireless service provider or reseller collects charges under that 108073
division and fails to remit the money to the coordinator, the 108074
wireless service provider or reseller is liable to the state for 108075
any amount collected and not remitted. 108076

       (2) Beginning January 1, 2014:108077

       (a) Each subscriber or consumer on which a wireless 9-1-1 108078
charge is imposed under section 5507.42 of the Revised Code is 108079
liable to the state for the amount of the charge. If a wireless 108080
service provider or reseller fails to bill or collect the charge, 108081
or if a seller fails to collect the charge, the provider, 108082
reseller, or seller is liable to the state for the amount not 108083
billed or collected. If a provider, reseller, or seller fails to 108084
remit money to the tax commissioner as required under this 108085
section, the provider, reseller, or seller is liable to the state 108086
for the amount not remitted, regardless of whether the amount was 108087
collected. 108088

       (b) No provider of a prepaid wireless calling service shall 108089
be liable to the state for any wireless 9-1-1 charge imposed under 108090
division (B)(1) of section 5507.42 of the Revised Code that was 108091
not collected or remitted.108092

       (D) Prior to January 1, 2014:108093

       (1) If the public utilities commission has reason to believe 108094
that a wireless service provider or reseller has failed to bill, 108095
collect, or remit the wireless 9-1-1 charge as required by 108096
divisions (A)(1) and (C)(1) of this section or has retained more 108097
than the amount authorized under division (A)(2) of this section, 108098
and after written notice to the provider or reseller, the 108099
commission may audit the provider or reseller for the sole purpose 108100
of making such a determination. The audit may include, but is not 108101
limited to, a sample of the provider's or reseller's billings, 108102
collections, remittances, or retentions for a representative 108103
period, and the commission shall make a good faith effort to reach 108104
agreement with the provider or reseller in selecting that sample.108105

       (2) Upon written notice to the wireless service provider or 108106
reseller, the commission, by order after completion of the audit, 108107
may make an assessment against the provider or reseller if, 108108
pursuant to the audit, the commission determines that the provider 108109
or reseller has failed to bill, collect, or remit the wireless 108110
9-1-1 charge as required by divisions (A)(1) and (C)(1) of this 108111
section or has retained more than the amount authorized under 108112
division (A)(2) of this section. The assessment shall be in the 108113
amount of any remittance that was due and unpaid on the date 108114
notice of the audit was sent by the commission to the provider or 108115
reseller or, as applicable, in the amount of the excess amount 108116
under division (A)(2) of this section retained by the provider or 108117
reseller as of that date.108118

       (3) The portion of any assessment not paid within sixty days 108119
after the date of service by the commission of the assessment 108120
notice under division (D)(2) of this section shall bear interest 108121
from that date until paid at the rate per annum prescribed by 108122
section 5703.47 of the Revised Code. That interest may be 108123
collected by making an assessment under division (D)(2) of this 108124
section. An assessment under this division and any interest due 108125
shall be remitted in the same manner as the wireless 9-1-1 charge 108126
imposed under division (A) of section 5507.42 of the Revised Code.108127

       (4) An assessment is final and due and payable and shall be 108128
remitted to the commission unless the assessed party petitions for 108129
rehearing under section 4903.10 of the Revised Code. The 108130
proceedings of the commission specified in division (D)(4) of this 108131
section are subject to and governed by Chapter 4903. of the 108132
Revised Code, except that the court of appeals of Franklin county 108133
has exclusive, original jurisdiction to review, modify, or vacate 108134
an order of the commission under division (D)(2) of this section. 108135
The court shall hear and determine such appeal in the same manner 108136
and under the same standards as the Ohio supreme court hears and 108137
determines appeals under Chapter 4903. of the Revised Code.108138

       The judgment of the court of appeals is final and conclusive 108139
unless reversed, vacated, or modified on appeal. Such an appeal 108140
may be made by the commission or the person to whom the order 108141
under division (D)(2) of this section was issued and shall proceed 108142
as in the case of appeals in civil actions as provided in Chapter 108143
2505. of the Revised Code.108144

        (5) After an assessment becomes final, if any portion of the 108145
assessment remains unpaid, including accrued interest, a certified 108146
copy of the commission's entry making the assessment final may be 108147
filed in the office of the clerk of the court of common pleas in 108148
the county in which the place of business of the assessed party is 108149
located. If the party maintains no place of business in this 108150
state, the certified copy of the entry may be filed in the office 108151
of the clerk of the court of common pleas of Franklin county. 108152
Immediately upon the filing, the clerk shall enter a judgment for 108153
the state against the assessed party in the amount shown on the 108154
entry. The judgment may be filed by the clerk in a loose-leaf book 108155
entitled "special judgments for wireless 9-1-1 charges" and shall 108156
have the same effect as other judgments. The judgment shall be 108157
executed upon the request of the commission.108158

       (6) An assessment under this division does not discharge a 108159
subscriber's liability to reimburse the provider or reseller for 108160
the wireless 9-1-1 charge imposed under division (A) of section 108161
5507.42 of the Revised Code. If, after the date of service of the 108162
audit notice under division (D)(1) of this section, a subscriber 108163
pays a wireless 9-1-1 charge for the period covered by the 108164
assessment, the payment shall be credited against the assessment.108165

       (7) All money collected by the commission under division (D) 108166
of this section shall be paid to the treasurer of state, for 108167
deposit to the credit of the wireless 9-1-1 government assistance 108168
fund.108169

       (E) Beginning January 1, 2014:108170

       (1) If the tax commissioner has reason to believe that a 108171
wireless service provider, reseller, or seller has failed to bill, 108172
collect, or remit the wireless 9-1-1 charge as required by this 108173
section and section 5507.42 of the Revised Code or has retained 108174
more than the amount authorized under division (B)(4) of this 108175
section, and after written notice to the provider, reseller, or 108176
seller, the tax commissioner may audit the provider, reseller, or 108177
seller for the sole purpose of making such a determination. The 108178
audit may include, but is not limited to, a sample of the 108179
provider's, reseller's, or seller's billings, collections, 108180
remittances, or retentions for a representative period, and the 108181
tax commissioner shall make a good faith effort to reach agreement 108182
with the provider, reseller, or seller in selecting that sample. 108183

       (2) Upon written notice to the wireless service provider, 108184
reseller, or seller, the tax commissioner, after completion of the 108185
audit, may make an assessment against the provider, reseller, or 108186
seller if, pursuant to the audit, the tax commissioner determines 108187
that the provider, reseller, or seller has failed to bill, 108188
collect, or remit the wireless 9-1-1 charge as required by this 108189
section and section 5507.42 of the Revised Code or has retained 108190
more than the amount authorized under division (B)(4) of this 108191
section. The assessment shall be in the amount of any remittance 108192
that was due and unpaid on the date notice of the audit was sent 108193
by the tax commissioner to the provider, reseller, or seller or, 108194
as applicable, in the amount of the excess amount under division 108195
(B)(4) of this section retained by the provider, reseller, or 108196
seller as of that date.108197

       (3) The portion of any assessment consisting of wireless 108198
9-1-1 charges due and not paid within sixty days after the date of 108199
service by the tax commissioner ofthat the assessment noticewas 108200
made under division (E)(2) of this section shall bear interest 108201
from that date until paid at the rate per annum prescribed by 108202
section 5703.47 of the Revised Code. That interest may be 108203
collected by making an assessment under division (E)(2) of this 108204
section. An assessment under this division and any interest due 108205
shall be remitted in the same manner as the wireless 9-1-1 charges 108206
imposed under section 5507.42 of the Revised Code.108207

       (4) The portion of the assessment not paid within sixty days 108208
after the day the assessment was issued shall bear interest at the 108209
rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of the Revised Code 108210
from the day the commissioner issues the assessment until it is 108211
paid. Interest shall be remitted in the same manner as the 9-1-1 108212
charges and may be collected by the issuance of an assessment 108213
under division (E) of this section.108214

       (5) Unless the provider, reseller, or seller assessed files 108215
with the tax commissioner within sixty days after service of the 108216
notice of assessment, either personally or by certified mail, a 108217
written petition for reassessment, signed by the party assessed or 108218
that party's authorized agent having knowledge of the facts, the 108219
assessment shall become final and the amount of the assessment 108220
shall be due and payable from the party assessed to the treasurer 108221
of state, for deposit to the next generation 9-1-1 fund, which is 108222
created under section 5507.54 of the Revised Code. The petition 108223
shall indicate the objections of the party assessed, but 108224
additional objections may be raised in writing if received by the 108225
commissioner prior to the date shown on the final determination. 108226
If the petition has been properly filed, the commissioner shall 108227
proceed under section 5703.60 of the Revised Code.108228

       (6)(5) After an assessment becomes final, if any portion of 108229
the assessment remains unpaid, including accrued interest, a 108230
certified copy of the final assessment may be filed in the office 108231
of the clerk of the court of common pleas in the county in which 108232
the business of the assessed party is conducted. If the party 108233
assessed maintains no place of business in this state, the 108234
certified copy of the final assessment may be filed in the office 108235
of the clerk of the court of common pleas of Franklin county. 108236
Immediately upon the filing, the clerk shall enter a judgment for 108237
the state against the assessed party in the amount shown on the 108238
final assessment. The judgment may be filed by the clerk in a 108239
loose-leaf book entitled "special judgments for wireless 9-1-1 108240
charges" and shall have the same effect as other judgments. The 108241
judgment shall be executed upon the request of the tax 108242
commissioner.108243

       (7)(6) If the commissioner determines that the commissioner 108244
erroneously has refunded a wireless 9-1-1 charge to any person, 108245
the commissioner may make an assessment against that person for 108246
recovery of the erroneously refunded charge.108247

       (8)(7) An assessment under division (E) of this section does 108248
not discharge a subscriber's or consumer's liability to reimburse 108249
the provider, reseller, or seller for a wireless 9-1-1 charge. If, 108250
after the date of service of the audit notice under division 108251
(E)(1) of this section, a subscriber or consumer pays a wireless 108252
9-1-1 charge for the period covered by the assessment, the payment 108253
shall be credited against the assessment.108254

       Sec. 5511.03.  The director of transportation shall examine 108255
the existing highway facilities serving the several hospitals, 108256
educational institutions, and correctional and other similar 108257
institutions belonging to the state, and located outside municipal 108258
corporations. Where the director finds that any such state 108259
institution is not located on a state highway or connected with a 108260
highway by a suitable road, affording in its present condition 108261
adequate transportation facilities to those having occasion to 108262
visit such institution, the director may establish a state highway 108263
leading to such institution from a convenient point on an existing 108264
highway. Where the director finds that any such institution is not 108265
served by adequate highway facilities connecting it with the 108266
railroad delivery point from which it principally obtains fuel, 108267
provisions, and supplies, the director may establish a highway 108268
connecting such institution and railroad delivery point. 108269
Limitations imposed on the mileage of state highways shall not 108270
apply to highways established under this section.108271

       The director may construct at state expense all highways 108272
established under authority of this section and pay the entire 108273
cost thereof from the state highway operating fund. Such highways 108274
shall be maintained by the department of transportation and the 108275
cost shall be paid from the highway operating fund of the 108276
department.108277

       The directors of transportation, mental healthmental health 108278
and addiction services, developmental disabilities, and 108279
rehabilitation and correction may cooperate in the establishment, 108280
construction, reconstruction, maintenance, and repair of roads 108281
within the limits of state institutions. The cost shall be paid 108282
from funds appropriated for highway purposes and from the funds 108283
appropriated to the department of mental healthmental health and 108284
addiction services, department of developmental disabilities, or 108285
the department of rehabilitation and correction for capital 108286
improvements or maintenance in such proportion as may be agreed 108287
upon by the directors of transportation, mental healthmental 108288
health and addiction services, developmental disabilities, and 108289
rehabilitation and correction.108290

       Sec. 5701.13.  (A) As used in this section:108291

       (1) "Nursing home" means a nursing home or a home for the 108292
aging, as those terms are defined in section 3721.01 of the 108293
Revised Code, that is issued a license pursuant to section 3721.02 108294
of the Revised Code.108295

       (2) "Residential care facility" means a residential care 108296
facility, as defined in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code, that 108297
is issued a license pursuant to section 3721.02 of the Revised 108298
Code.108299

       (3) "Residential facility" means a residential facility 108300
licensed under section 5119.225119.34 of the Revised Code that 108301
provides accommodations, supervision, and personal care services 108302
for three to sixteen unrelated adults.108303

       (B) As used in Title LVII of the Revised Code, and for the 108304
purpose of other sections of the Revised Code that refer 108305
specifically to Chapter 5701. or section 5701.13 of the Revised 108306
Code, a "home for the aged" means either of the following:108307

       (1) A place of residence for aged and infirm persons that 108308
satisfies divisions (B)(1)(a) to (e) of this section:108309

       (a) It is a nursing home, residential care facility, or 108310
residential facility.108311

       (b) It is owned by a corporation, unincorporated nonprofit 108312
association, or trust of a charitable, religious, or fraternal 108313
nature, that is organized and operated not for profit, is not 108314
formed for the pecuniary gain or profit of, and whose net earnings 108315
or any part of whose net earnings is not distributable to, its 108316
members, trustees, officers, or other private persons, and is 108317
exempt from federal income taxation under section 501 of the 108318
"Internal Revenue Code of 1986," 100 Stat. 2085, 26 U.S.C. 1.108319

       (c) It is open to the public without regard to race, color, 108320
or national origin.108321

       (d) It does not pay, directly or indirectly, compensation for 108322
services rendered, interest on debts incurred, or purchase price 108323
for land, building, equipment, supplies, or other goods or 108324
chattels, which compensation, interest, or purchase price is 108325
unreasonably high.108326

       (e) It provides services for the life of each resident 108327
without regard to the resident's ability to continue payment for 108328
the full cost of the services.108329

       (2) A place of residence that satisfies divisions (B)(1)(b), 108330
(d), and (e) of this section; that satisfies the definition of 108331
"nursing home" or "residential care facility" under section 108332
3721.01 of the Revised Code or the definition of "residential 108333
facility" under division (A)(3) of this section regardless of 108334
whether it is licensed as such a home or facility; and that is 108335
provided at no charge to individuals on account of their service 108336
without compensation to a charitable, religious, fraternal, or 108337
educational institution, which individuals are aged or infirm and 108338
are members of the corporation, association, or trust that owns 108339
the place of residence. For the purposes of division (B)(2) of 108340
this section, "compensation" does not include furnishing room and 108341
board, clothing, health care, or other necessities, or stipends or 108342
other de minimis payments to defray the cost thereof.108343

       Exemption from taxation shall be accorded, on proper 108344
application, only to those homes or parts of homes that meet the 108345
standards and provide the services specified in this section.108346

       Nothing in this section shall be construed as preventing a 108347
home from requiring a resident with financial need to apply for 108348
any applicable financial assistance or requiring a home to retain 108349
a resident who willfully refuses to pay for services for which the 108350
resident has contracted even though the resident has sufficient 108351
resources to do so.108352

       (C)(1) If a corporation, unincorporated nonprofit 108353
association, or trust described in division (B)(1)(b) of this 108354
section is granted a certificate of need pursuant to section 108355
3702.52 of the Revised Code to construct, add to, or otherwise 108356
modify a nursing home, or is given approval pursuant to section 108357
3791.04 of the Revised Code to construct, add to, or otherwise 108358
modify a residential care facility or residential facility and if 108359
the corporation, association, or trust submits an affidavit to the 108360
tax commissioner stating that, commencing on the date of licensure 108361
and continuing thereafter, the home or facility will be operated 108362
in accordance with the requirements of divisions (B)(1)(a) to (e) 108363
of this section, the corporation, association, or trust shall be 108364
considered to be operating a "home for the aged" within the 108365
meaning of division (B)(1) of this section, beginning on the first 108366
day of January of the year in which such certificate is granted or 108367
approval is given.108368

       (2) If a corporation, association, or trust is considered to 108369
be operating a "home for the aged" pursuant to division (C)(1) of 108370
this section, the corporation, association, or trust shall notify 108371
the tax commissioner in writing upon the occurrence of any of the 108372
following events:108373

       (a) The corporation, association, or trust no longer intends 108374
to complete the construction of, addition to, or modification of 108375
the home or facility, to obtain the appropriate license for the 108376
home or facility, or to commence operation of the home or facility 108377
in accordance with the requirements of divisions (B)(1)(a) to (e) 108378
of this section;108379

       (b) The certificate of approval referred to in division 108380
(C)(1) of this section expires, is revoked, or is otherwise 108381
terminated prior to the completion of the construction of, 108382
addition to, or modification of the home or facility;108383

       (c) The license to operate the home or facility is not 108384
granted by the director of health within one year following 108385
completion of the construction of, addition to, or modification of 108386
the home or facility;108387

       (d) The license to operate the home or facility is not 108388
granted by the director of health within four years following the 108389
date upon which the certificate or approval referred to in 108390
division (C)(1) of this section was granted or given;108391

       (e) The home or facility is granted a license to operate as a 108392
nursing home, residential care facility, or residential facility.108393

       (3) Upon the occurrence of any of the events referred to in 108394
divisions (C)(2)(a), (b), (c), (d), and (e) of this section, the 108395
corporation, association, or trust shall no longer be considered 108396
to be operating a "home for the aged" pursuant to division (C)(1) 108397
of this section, except that the tax commissioner, for good cause 108398
shown and to the extent the commissioner considers appropriate, 108399
may extend the time period specified in division (C)(2)(c) or (d) 108400
of this section, or both. Nothing in division (C)(3) of this 108401
section shall be construed to prevent a nursing home, residential 108402
care facility, or residential facility from qualifying as a "home 108403
for the aged" if, upon proper application made pursuant to 108404
division (B) of this section, it is found to meet the requirements 108405
of divisions (A) and (B) of this section.108406

       Sec. 5703.052.  (A) There is hereby created in the state 108407
treasury the tax refund fund, from which refunds shall be paid for 108408
taxes illegally or erroneously assessed or collected, or for any 108409
other reason overpaid, that are levied by Chapter 4301., 4305., 108410
5726., 5728., 5729., 5731., 5733., 5735., 5739., 5741., 5743., 108411
5747., 5748., 5749., 5751., or 5753. and sections 3737.71, 108412
3905.35, 3905.36, 4303.33, 5707.03, 5725.18, 5727.28, 5727.38, 108413
5727.81, and 5727.811 of the Revised Code. Refunds for fees 108414
illegally or erroneously assessed or collected, or for any other 108415
reason overpaid, that are levied by sections 3734.90 to 3734.9014 108416
of the Revised Code also shall be paid from the fund. Refunds for 108417
amounts illegally or erroneously assessed or collected by the tax 108418
commissioner, or for any other reason overpaid, that are due under 108419
section 1509.50 of the Revised Code shall be paid from the fund. 108420
However, refunds for taxes levied under section 5739.101 of the 108421
Revised Code shall not be paid from the tax refund fund, but shall 108422
be paid as provided in section 5739.104 of the Revised Code.108423

       (B)(1) Upon certification by the tax commissioner to the 108424
treasurer of state of a tax refund, a fee refund, or an other108425
another amount refunded, or by the superintendent of insurance of 108426
a domestic or foreign insurance tax refund, the treasurer of state 108427
shall place the amount certified to the credit of the fund. The 108428
certified amount transferred shall be derived from currentthe108429
receipts of the same tax, fee, or other amount from which the 108430
refund arose. If current receipts from the tax, fee, or other 108431
amount from which the refund arose are inadequate to make the 108432
transfer of the amount so certified, the treasurer of state shall 108433
transfer such certified amount from current receipts of the sales 108434
tax levied by section 5739.02 of the Revised Code.108435

       (2) When the treasurer of state provides for the payment of a 108436
refund of a tax, fee, or other amount from the current receipts of 108437
the sales tax, and thea refund is for a tax, fee, or other amount 108438
that is not levied by the state, the tax commissioner shall 108439
recover the amount of that refund from the next distribution of 108440
that tax, fee, or other amount that otherwise would be made to the 108441
taxing jurisdiction. If the amount to be recovered would exceed 108442
twenty-five per cent of the next distribution of that tax, fee, or 108443
other amount, the commissioner may spread the recovery over more 108444
than one future distribution, taking into account the amount to be 108445
recovered and the amount of the anticipated future distributions. 108446
In no event may the commissioner spread the recovery over a period 108447
to exceed twenty-four months.108448

       Sec. 5703.059. (A) The tax commissioner may adopt rules 108449
requiring returns, including any accompanying schedule or 108450
statement, for any of the following taxes to be filed 108451
electronically using the Ohio business gateway as defined in 108452
section 718.051 of the Revised Code, filed telephonically using 108453
the system known as the Ohio telefile system, or filed by any 108454
other electronic means prescribed by the commissioner:108455

       (1) Employer income tax withholding under Chapter 5747. of 108456
the Revised Code;108457

       (2) Motor fuel tax under Chapter 5735. of the Revised Code;108458

       (3) Cigarette and tobacco product tax under Chapter 5743. of 108459
the Revised Code;108460

       (4) Severance tax under Chapter 5749. of the Revised Code;108461

       (5) Use tax under Chapter 5741. of the Revised Code;108462

       (6) Commercial activity tax under Chapter 5751. of the 108463
Revised Code;108464

       (7) Financial institutions tax under Chapter 5726. of the 108465
Revised Code.108466

       (B) The tax commissioner may adopt rules requiring any 108467
payment of tax shown on such a return to be due to be made 108468
electronically in a manner approved by the commissioner.108469

       (C) A rule adopted under this section does not apply to 108470
returns or reports filed or payments made before six months after 108471
the effective date of the rule. The commissioner shall publicize 108472
any new electronic filing requirement on the department's web 108473
site. The commissioner shall educate the public of the requirement 108474
through seminars, workshops, conferences, or other outreach 108475
activities.108476

       (D) Any person required to file returns and make payments 108477
electronically under rules adopted under this section may apply to 108478
the commissioner, on a form prescribed by the commissioner, to be 108479
excused from that requirement. For good cause shown, the 108480
commissioner may excuse the applicant from the requirement and 108481
permit the applicant to file the returns or reports or make the 108482
payments required under this section by nonelectronic means.108483

       (E) Beginning July 1, 2014, and thereafter for each year that 108484
the department of taxation has published at least one method 108485
acceptable to the tax commissioner for filing returns required 108486
under section 5747.08 of the Revised Code electronically, the 108487
department shall publish on the department's official web site a 108488
method for any individual, trust, or pass-through entity, 108489
including individuals, trusts, and pass-through entities filing an 108490
income tax return in this state for the first time, to register 108491
electronically for that method of filing.108492

       Sec. 5703.21.  (A) Except as provided in divisions (B) and 108493
(C) of this section, no agent of the department of taxation, 108494
except in the agent's report to the department or when called on 108495
to testify in any court or proceeding, shall divulge any 108496
information acquired by the agent as to the transactions, 108497
property, or business of any person while acting or claiming to 108498
act under orders of the department. Whoever violates this 108499
provision shall thereafter be disqualified from acting as an 108500
officer or employee or in any other capacity under appointment or 108501
employment of the department.108502

       (B)(1) For purposes of an audit pursuant to section 117.15 of 108503
the Revised Code, or an audit of the department pursuant to 108504
Chapter 117. of the Revised Code, or an audit, pursuant to that 108505
chapter, the objective of which is to express an opinion on a 108506
financial report or statement prepared or issued pursuant to 108507
division (A)(7) or (9) of section 126.21 of the Revised Code, the 108508
officers and employees of the auditor of state charged with 108509
conducting the audit shall have access to and the right to examine 108510
any state tax returns and state tax return information in the 108511
possession of the department to the extent that the access and 108512
examination are necessary for purposes of the audit. Any 108513
information acquired as the result of that access and examination 108514
shall not be divulged for any purpose other than as required for 108515
the audit or unless the officers and employees are required to 108516
testify in a court or proceeding under compulsion of legal 108517
process. Whoever violates this provision shall thereafter be 108518
disqualified from acting as an officer or employee or in any other 108519
capacity under appointment or employment of the auditor of state.108520

       (2) For purposes of an internal audit pursuant to section 108521
126.45 of the Revised Code, the officers and employees of the 108522
office of internal auditingaudit in the office of budget and 108523
management charged with conductingdirecting the internal audit 108524
shall have access to and the right to examine any state tax 108525
returns and state tax return information in the possession of the 108526
department to the extent that the access and examination are 108527
necessary for purposes of the internal audit. Any information 108528
acquired as the result of that access and examination shall not be 108529
divulged for any purpose other than as required for the internal 108530
audit or unless the officers and employees are required to testify 108531
in a court or proceeding under compulsion of legal process. 108532
Whoever violates this provision shall thereafter be disqualified 108533
from acting as an officer or employee or in any other capacity 108534
under appointment or employment of the office of internal auditing108535
audit.108536

        (3) As provided by section 6103(d)(2) of the Internal Revenue 108537
Code, any federal tax returns or federal tax information that the 108538
department has acquired from the internal revenue service, through 108539
federal and state statutory authority, may be disclosed to the 108540
auditor of state or the office of internal auditingaudit solely 108541
for purposes of an audit of the department.108542

       (4) For purposes of Chapter 3739. of the Revised Code, an 108543
agent of the department of taxation may share information with the 108544
division of state fire marshal that the agent finds during the 108545
course of an investigation.108546

       (C) Division (A) of this section does not prohibit any of the 108547
following:108548

       (1) Divulging information contained in applications, 108549
complaints, and related documents filed with the department under 108550
section 5715.27 of the Revised Code or in applications filed with 108551
the department under section 5715.39 of the Revised Code;108552

       (2) Providing information to the office of child support 108553
within the department of job and family services pursuant to 108554
section 3125.43 of the Revised Code;108555

       (3) Disclosing to the motor vehicle repair board any 108556
information in the possession of the department that is necessary 108557
for the board to verify the existence of an applicant's valid 108558
vendor's license and current state tax identification number under 108559
section 4775.07 of the Revised Code;108560

       (4) Providing information to the administrator of workers' 108561
compensation pursuant to sections 4123.271 and 4123.591 of the 108562
Revised Code;108563

       (5) Providing to the attorney general information the 108564
department obtains under division (J) of section 1346.01 of the 108565
Revised Code;108566

       (6) Permitting properly authorized officers, employees, or 108567
agents of a municipal corporation from inspecting reports or 108568
information pursuant to rules adopted under section 5745.16 of the 108569
Revised Code;108570

       (7) Providing information regarding the name, account number, 108571
or business address of a holder of a vendor's license issued 108572
pursuant to section 5739.17 of the Revised Code, a holder of a 108573
direct payment permit issued pursuant to section 5739.031 of the 108574
Revised Code, or a seller having a use tax account maintained 108575
pursuant to section 5741.17 of the Revised Code, or information 108576
regarding the active or inactive status of a vendor's license, 108577
direct payment permit, or seller's use tax account;108578

       (8) Releasing invoices or invoice information furnished under 108579
section 4301.433 of the Revised Code pursuant to that section;108580

       (9) Providing to a county auditor notices or documents 108581
concerning or affecting the taxable value of property in the 108582
county auditor's county. Unless authorized by law to disclose 108583
documents so provided, the county auditor shall not disclose such 108584
documents;108585

       (10) Providing to a county auditor sales or use tax return or 108586
audit information under section 333.06 of the Revised Code;108587

       (11) Subject to section 4301.441 of the Revised Code, 108588
disclosing to the appropriate state agency information in the 108589
possession of the department of taxation that is necessary to 108590
verify a permit holder's gallonage or noncompliance with taxes 108591
levied under Chapter 4301. or 4305. of the Revised Code;108592

       (12) Disclosing to the department of natural resources 108593
information in the possession of the department of taxation that 108594
is necessary for the department of taxation to verify the 108595
taxpayer's compliance with division (A)(1), (5), (6), (8), or (9) 108596
of section 5749.02 of the Revised Code and information received 108597
pursuant to section 1509.50 of the Revised Code concerning the 108598
amount due under that sectionor to allow the department of 108599
natural resources to enforce Chapter 1509. of the Revised Code;108600

       (13) Disclosing to the department of job and family services, 108601
industrial commission, and bureau of workers' compensation 108602
information in the possession of the department of taxation solely 108603
for the purpose of identifying employers that misclassify 108604
employees as independent contractors or that fail to properly 108605
report and pay employer tax liabilities. The department of 108606
taxation shall disclose only such information that is necessary to 108607
verify employer compliance with law administered by those 108608
agencies.108609

       (14) Disclosing to the Ohio casino control commission 108610
information in the possession of the department of taxation that 108611
is necessary to verify a casino operator's compliance with section 108612
5747.063 or 5753.02 of the Revised Code and sections related 108613
thereto;108614

       (15) Disclosing to the state lottery commission information 108615
in the possession of the department of taxation that is necessary 108616
to verify a lottery sales agent's compliance with section 5747.064 108617
of the Revised Code.108618

       Sec. 5703.37.  (A)(1) Except as provided in division (B) of 108619
this section, whenever service of a notice or order is required in 108620
the manner provided in this section, a copy of the notice or order 108621
shall be served upon the person affected thereby either by 108622
personal service, by certified mail, or by a delivery service 108623
authorized under section 5703.056 of the Revised Code that 108624
notifies the tax commissioner of the date of delivery.108625

       (2) In lieu of serving a copy of a notice or order through 108626
one of the means provided in division (A)(1) of this section, the 108627
commissioner may serve a notice or order upon the person affected 108628
thereby through alternative means as provided in this section, 108629
including, but not limited to, delivery by secure electronic mail 108630
as provided in division (F) of this section. Delivery by such 108631
means satisfies the requirements for delivery under this section.108632

       (B)(1)(a) If certified mail is returned because of an 108633
undeliverable address, the commissioner shall first utilize 108634
reasonable means to ascertain a new last known address, including 108635
the use of a change of address service offered by the United 108636
States postal service or an authorized delivery service under 108637
section 5703.056 of the Revised Code. If, after using reasonable 108638
means, the commissioner is unable to ascertain a new last known 108639
address, the assessment is final for purposes of section 131.02 of 108640
the Revised Code sixty days after the notice or order sent by 108641
certified mail is first returned to the commissioner, and the 108642
commissioner shall certify the notice or order, if applicable, to 108643
the attorney general for collection under section 131.02 of the 108644
Revised Code.108645

       (b) Notwithstanding certification to the attorney general 108646
under division (B)(1)(a) of this section, once the commissioner or 108647
attorney general, or the designee of either, makes an initial 108648
contact with the person to whom the notice or order is directed, 108649
the person may protest an assessment by filing a petition for 108650
reassessment within sixty days after the initial contact. The 108651
certification of an assessment under division (B)(1)(a) of this 108652
section is prima-facie evidence that delivery is complete and that 108653
the notice or order is served.108654

       (2) If mailing of a notice or order by certified mail is 108655
returned for some cause other than an undeliverable address or if 108656
a person does not access an electronic notice or order within the 108657
time provided in division (F) of this section, the commissioner 108658
shall resend the notice or order by ordinary mail. The notice or 108659
order shall show the date the commissioner sends the notice or 108660
order and include the following statement:108661

       "This notice or order is deemed to be served on the addressee 108662
under applicable law ten days from the date this notice or order 108663
was mailed by the commissioner as shown on the notice or order, 108664
and all periods within which an appeal may be filed apply from and 108665
after that date."108666

       Unless the mailing is returned because of an undeliverable 108667
address, the mailing of that information is prima-facie evidence 108668
that delivery of the notice or order was completed ten days after 108669
the commissioner sent the notice or order by ordinary mail and 108670
that the notice or order was served.108671

       If the ordinary mail is subsequently returned because of an 108672
undeliverable address, the commissioner shall proceed under 108673
division (B)(1)(a) of this section. A person may challenge the 108674
presumption of delivery and service under this division in 108675
accordance with division (C) of this section.108676

       (C)(1) A person disputing the presumption of delivery and 108677
service under division (B) of this section bears the burden of 108678
proving by a preponderance of the evidence that the address to 108679
which the notice or order was sent was not an address with which 108680
the person was associated at the time the commissioner originally 108681
mailed the notice or order by certified mail. For the purposes of 108682
this section, a person is associated with an address at the time 108683
the commissioner originally mailed the notice or order if, at that 108684
time, the person was residing, receiving legal documents, or 108685
conducting business at the address; or if, before that time, the 108686
person had conducted business at the address and, when the notice 108687
or order was mailed, the person's agent or the person's affiliate 108688
was conducting business at the address. For the purposes of this 108689
section, a person's affiliate is any other person that, at the 108690
time the notice or order was mailed, owned or controlled at least 108691
twenty per cent, as determined by voting rights, of the 108692
addressee's business.108693

       (2) If the person elects to protest an assessment certified 108694
to the attorney general for collection, the person must do so 108695
within sixty days after the attorney general's initial contact 108696
with the person. The attorney general may enter into a compromise 108697
with the person under sections 131.02 and 5703.06 of the Revised 108698
Code if the person does not file a petition for reassessment with 108699
the commissioner.108700

       (D) Nothing in this section prohibits the commissioner or the 108701
commissioner's designee from delivering a notice or order by 108702
personal service.108703

       (E) Collection actions taken pursuant to section 131.02 of 108704
the Revised Code upon any assessment being challenged under 108705
division (B)(1)(b) of this section shall be stayed upon the 108706
pendency of an appeal under this section. If a petition for 108707
reassessment is filed pursuant to this section on a claim that has 108708
been certified to the attorney general for collection, the claim 108709
shall be uncertified.108710

       (F) The commissioner may serve a notice or order upon the 108711
person affected by the notice or order through secure electronic 108712
means only with the person's consent. The commissioner must inform 108713
the recipient, electronically or by mail, that a notice or order 108714
is available for electronic review and provide instructions to 108715
access and print the notice or order. The recipient's electronic 108716
access of the notice or order satisfies the requirements for 108717
delivery under this section. If the recipient fails to access the 108718
notice or order electronically within ten business days, then the 108719
commissioner shall inform the recipient a second time, 108720
electronically or by mail, that a notice or order is available for 108721
electronic review and provide instructions to access and print the 108722
notice or order. If the recipient fails to access the notice or 108723
order electronically within ten business days of the second 108724
notification, the notice or order shall be served upon the person 108725
through one of the means provided in division (A)(1)(B)(2) of this 108726
section. 108727

       (G) As used in this section:108728

       (1) "Last known address" means the address the department has 108729
at the time the document is originally sent by certified mail, or 108730
any address the department can ascertain using reasonable means 108731
such as the use of a change of address service offered by the 108732
United States postal service or an authorized delivery service 108733
under section 5703.056 of the Revised Code.108734

       (2) "Undeliverable address" means an address to which the 108735
United States postal service or an authorized delivery service 108736
under section 5703.056 of the Revised Code is not able to deliver 108737
a notice or order, except when the reason for nondelivery is 108738
because the addressee fails to acknowledge or accept the notice or 108739
order.108740

       Sec. 5703.75.  This section applies to any tax payable to the 108741
state and administered by the tax commissioner. If the total 108742
amount of any such tax shown to be due on a return, amended 108743
return, or notice does not exceed one dollar, the taxpayer shall 108744
not be required to remit the amount due. If the total amount of a 108745
taxpayer's overpayment of any such tax does not exceed one dollar, 108746
the tax commissioner shall not be required to refund the 108747
overpayment.108748

       Sec. 5703.76. Any payment or distribution of money that the 108749
tax commissioner is required by law to make to a political 108750
subdivision of this state, an officer thereof, or a political 108751
party shall be made by electronic funds transfer. The commissioner 108752
shall promulgate any rules necessary to administer this section.108753

       Sec. 5703.82. (A) Not later than April 1, 2009, the 108754
department of taxation shall acquire the necessary hardware, 108755
software, and services to establish and implement a tax discovery 108756
data system to increase the efficiency of tax collections in the 108757
state. The system must be fully integrated and pre-staged for the 108758
purposes of assisting in revenue analysis, discovering 108759
noncompliant taxpayers, and collecting taxes from those taxpayers. 108760
The system shall consolidate tax data from various mainframe 108761
systems and operate as a single tax discovery data system. The 108762
department shall contract, pursuant to a competitive bidding 108763
process, for the necessary hardware, software, and services to 108764
implement the tax discovery data system.108765

       (B) There is hereby created in the state treasury the 108766
discovery project fund. All money to the credit of the fund shall 108767
be used to pay the costs of implementing and operating the tax 108768
discovery data system and to defray the costs incurred by the 108769
department of taxation in administering the system.108770

       (C) Beginning July 1, 2009, on or before the first day of 108771
January, April, July, and October of each calendar year, the tax 108772
commissioner shall determine and certify to the director of budget 108773
and management the amount needed to pay the costs of operating the 108774
tax discovery data system in the previous calendar quarter and the 108775
costs incurred in the previous calendar quarter by the department 108776
of taxation in administering the system. The director shall 108777
provide for payment from the general revenue fund to the discovery 108778
project fund of the amount so certified.108779

       Sec. 5703.90.  If any tax administered by the tax 108780
commissioner remains unpaid after the date the tax is due, the 108781
commissioner may issue an assessment for the unpaid tax, and for 108782
any related penalties and interest, against any person liable for 108783
the amount due, including, but not limited to, a person that is 108784
jointly and severally liable for the amount under Chapter 5726., 108785
5748., 5749., or 5751. of the Revised Code, a partner liable for 108786
the tax liability of a partnership, a director, shareholder, or 108787
officer of a corporation that has dissolved or had its articles of 108788
incorporation canceled by the secretary of state, or any other 108789
person liable for the tax liability of another person under the 108790
Revised Code. The commissioner shall issue the assessment in 108791
accordance with any other provision of the Revised Code applicable 108792
to assessments for the tax for which the person to be assessed is 108793
liable.108794

       Sec. 5705.01.  As used in this chapter:108795

       (A) "Subdivision" means any county; municipal corporation; 108796
township; township police district; joint police district; 108797
township fire district; joint fire district; joint ambulance 108798
district; joint emergency medical services district; fire and 108799
ambulance district; joint recreation district; township waste 108800
disposal district; township road district; community college 108801
district; technical college district; detention facility district; 108802
a district organized under section 2151.65 of the Revised Code; a 108803
combined district organized under sections 2152.41 and 2151.65 of 108804
the Revised Code; a joint-county alcohol, drug addiction, and 108805
mental health service district; a drainage improvement district 108806
created under section 6131.52 of the Revised Code; a lake 108807
facilities authority created under Chapter 353. of the Revised 108808
Code; a union cemetery district; a county school financing 108809
district; a city, local, exempted village, cooperative education, 108810
or joint vocational school district; or a regional student 108811
education district created under section 3313.83 of the Revised 108812
Code.108813

       (B) "Municipal corporation" means all municipal corporations, 108814
including those that have adopted a charter under Article XVIII, 108815
Ohio Constitution.108816

       (C) "Taxing authority" or "bond issuing authority" means, in 108817
the case of any county, the board of county commissioners; in the 108818
case of a municipal corporation, the council or other legislative 108819
authority of the municipal corporation; in the case of a city, 108820
local, exempted village, cooperative education, or joint 108821
vocational school district, the board of education; in the case of 108822
a community college district, the board of trustees of the 108823
district; in the case of a technical college district, the board 108824
of trustees of the district; in the case of a detention facility 108825
district, a district organized under section 2151.65 of the 108826
Revised Code, or a combined district organized under sections 108827
2152.41 and 2151.65 of the Revised Code, the joint board of county 108828
commissioners of the district; in the case of a township, the 108829
board of township trustees; in the case of a joint police 108830
district, the joint police district board; in the case of a joint 108831
fire district, the board of fire district trustees; in the case of 108832
a joint recreation district, the joint recreation district board 108833
of trustees; in the case of a joint-county alcohol, drug 108834
addiction, and mental health service district, the district's 108835
board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services; in 108836
the case of a joint ambulance district or a fire and ambulance 108837
district, the board of trustees of the district; in the case of a 108838
union cemetery district, the legislative authority of the 108839
municipal corporation and the board of township trustees, acting 108840
jointly as described in section 759.341 of the Revised Code; in 108841
the case of a drainage improvement district, the board of county 108842
commissioners of the county in which the drainage district is 108843
located; in the case of a lake facilities authority, the board of 108844
directors; in the case of a joint emergency medical services 108845
district, the joint board of county commissioners of all counties 108846
in which all or any part of the district lies; and in the case of 108847
a township police district, a township fire district, a township 108848
road district, or a township waste disposal district, the board of 108849
township trustees of the township in which the district is 108850
located. "Taxing authority" also means the educational service 108851
center governing board that serves as the taxing authority of a 108852
county school financing district as provided in section 3311.50 of 108853
the Revised Code, and the board of directors of a regional student 108854
education district created under section 3313.83 of the Revised 108855
Code.108856

       (D) "Fiscal officer" in the case of a county, means the 108857
county auditor; in the case of a municipal corporation, the city 108858
auditor or village clerk, or an officer who, by virtue of the 108859
charter, has the duties and functions of the city auditor or 108860
village clerk, except that in the case of a municipal university 108861
the board of directors of which have assumed, in the manner 108862
provided by law, the custody and control of the funds of the 108863
university, the chief accounting officer of the university shall 108864
perform, with respect to the funds, the duties vested in the 108865
fiscal officer of the subdivision by sections 5705.41 and 5705.44 108866
of the Revised Code; in the case of a school district, the 108867
treasurer of the board of education; in the case of a county 108868
school financing district, the treasurer of the educational 108869
service center governing board that serves as the taxing 108870
authority; in the case of a township, the township fiscal officer; 108871
in the case of a joint police district, the treasurer of the 108872
district; in the case of a joint fire district, the clerk of the 108873
board of fire district trustees; in the case of a joint ambulance 108874
district, the clerk of the board of trustees of the district; in 108875
the case of a joint emergency medical services district, the 108876
person appointed as fiscal officer pursuant to division (D) of 108877
section 307.053 of the Revised Code; in the case of a fire and 108878
ambulance district, the person appointed as fiscal officer 108879
pursuant to division (B) of section 505.375 of the Revised Code; 108880
in the case of a joint recreation district, the person designated 108881
pursuant to section 755.15 of the Revised Code; in the case of a 108882
union cemetery district, the clerk of the municipal corporation 108883
designated in section 759.34 of the Revised Code; in the case of a 108884
children's home district, educational service center, general 108885
health district, joint-county alcohol, drug addiction, and mental 108886
health service district, county library district, detention 108887
facility district, district organized under section 2151.65 of the 108888
Revised Code, a combined district organized under sections 2152.41 108889
and 2151.65 of the Revised Code, or a metropolitan park district 108890
for which no treasurer has been appointed pursuant to section 108891
1545.07 of the Revised Code, the county auditor of the county 108892
designated by law to act as the auditor of the district; in the 108893
case of a metropolitan park district which has appointed a 108894
treasurer pursuant to section 1545.07 of the Revised Code, that 108895
treasurer; in the case of a drainage improvement district, the 108896
auditor of the county in which the drainage improvement district 108897
is located; in the case of a lake facilities authority, the fiscal 108898
officer designated under section 353.02 of the Revised Code; in 108899
the case of a regional student education district, the fiscal 108900
officer appointed pursuant to section 3313.83 of the Revised Code; 108901
and in all other cases, the officer responsible for keeping the 108902
appropriation accounts and drawing warrants for the expenditure of 108903
the moneys of the district or taxing unit.108904

       (E) "Permanent improvement" or "improvement" means any 108905
property, asset, or improvement with an estimated life or 108906
usefulness of five years or more, including land and interests 108907
therein, and reconstructions, enlargements, and extensions thereof 108908
having an estimated life or usefulness of five years or more.108909

       (F) "Current operating expenses" and "current expenses" mean 108910
the lawful expenditures of a subdivision, except those for 108911
permanent improvements, and except payments for interest, sinking 108912
fund, and retirement of bonds, notes, and certificates of 108913
indebtedness of the subdivision.108914

       (G) "Debt charges" means interest, sinking fund, and 108915
retirement charges on bonds, notes, or certificates of 108916
indebtedness.108917

       (H) "Taxing unit" means any subdivision or other governmental 108918
district having authority to levy taxes on the property in the 108919
district or issue bonds that constitute a charge against the 108920
property of the district, including conservancy districts, 108921
metropolitan park districts, sanitary districts, road districts, 108922
and other districts.108923

       (I) "District authority" means any board of directors, 108924
trustees, commissioners, or other officers controlling a district 108925
institution or activity that derives its income or funds from two 108926
or more subdivisions, such as the educational service center, the 108927
trustees of district children's homes, the district board of 108928
health, a joint-county alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 108929
service district's board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental 108930
health services, detention facility districts, a joint recreation 108931
district board of trustees, districts organized under section 108932
2151.65 of the Revised Code, combined districts organized under 108933
sections 2152.41 and 2151.65 of the Revised Code, and other such 108934
boards.108935

       (J) "Tax list" and "tax duplicate" mean the general tax lists 108936
and duplicates prescribed by sections 319.28 and 319.29 of the 108937
Revised Code.108938

       (K) "Property" as applied to a tax levy means taxable 108939
property listed on general tax lists and duplicates.108940

       (L) "Association library district" means a territory, the 108941
boundaries of which are defined by the state library board 108942
pursuant to division (I) of section 3375.01 of the Revised Code, 108943
in which a library association or private corporation maintains a 108944
free public library.108945

       (M) "Library district" means a territory, the boundaries of 108946
which are defined by the state library board pursuant to section 108947
3375.01 of the Revised Code, in which the board of trustees of a 108948
county, municipal corporation, school district, or township public 108949
library maintains a free public library.108950

       (N) "Qualifying library levy" means either of the following:108951

       (1) A levy for the support of a library association or 108952
private corporation that has an association library district with 108953
boundaries that are not identical to those of a subdivision;108954

       (2) A levy proposed under section 5705.23 of the Revised Code 108955
for the support of the board of trustees of a public library that 108956
has a library district with boundaries that are not identical to 108957
those of a subdivision.108958

       (O) "School library district" means a school district in 108959
which a free public library has been established that is under the 108960
control and management of a board of library trustees as provided 108961
in section 3375.15 of the Revised Code.108962

       Sec. 5705.19.  This section does not apply to school 108963
districts or, county school financing districts, or lake 108964
facilities authorities.108965

       The taxing authority of any subdivision at any time and in 108966
any year, by vote of two-thirds of all the members of the taxing 108967
authority, may declare by resolution and certify the resolution to 108968
the board of elections not less than ninety days before the 108969
election upon which it will be voted that the amount of taxes that 108970
may be raised within the ten-mill limitation will be insufficient 108971
to provide for the necessary requirements of the subdivision and 108972
that it is necessary to levy a tax in excess of that limitation 108973
for any of the following purposes:108974

       (A) For current expenses of the subdivision, except that the 108975
total levy for current expenses of a detention facility district 108976
or district organized under section 2151.65 of the Revised Code 108977
shall not exceed two mills and that the total levy for current 108978
expenses of a combined district organized under sections 2151.65 108979
and 2152.41 of the Revised Code shall not exceed four mills;108980

       (B) For the payment of debt charges on certain described 108981
bonds, notes, or certificates of indebtedness of the subdivision 108982
issued subsequent to January 1, 1925;108983

       (C) For the debt charges on all bonds, notes, and 108984
certificates of indebtedness issued and authorized to be issued 108985
prior to January 1, 1925;108986

       (D) For a public library of, or supported by, the subdivision 108987
under whatever law organized or authorized to be supported;108988

       (E) For a municipal university, not to exceed two mills over 108989
the limitation of one mill prescribed in section 3349.13 of the 108990
Revised Code;108991

       (F) For the construction or acquisition of any specific 108992
permanent improvement or class of improvements that the taxing 108993
authority of the subdivision may include in a single bond issue;108994

       (G) For the general construction, reconstruction, 108995
resurfacing, and repair of streets, roads, and bridges in 108996
municipal corporations, counties, or townships;108997

       (H) For parks and recreational purposes;108998

       (I) For the purpose of providing and maintaining fire 108999
apparatus, appliances, buildings, or sites therefor, or sources of 109000
water supply and materials therefor, or the establishment and 109001
maintenance of lines of fire alarm telegraph, or the payment of 109002
firefighting companies or permanent, part-time, or volunteer 109003
firefighting, emergency medical service, administrative, or 109004
communications personnel to operate the same, including the 109005
payment of any employer contributions required for such personnel 109006
under section 145.48 or 742.34 of the Revised Code, or the 109007
purchase of ambulance equipment, or the provision of ambulance, 109008
paramedic, or other emergency medical services operated by a fire 109009
department or firefighting company;109010

       (J) For the purpose of providing and maintaining motor 109011
vehicles, communications, other equipment, buildings, and sites 109012
for such buildings used directly in the operation of a police 109013
department, or the payment of salaries of permanent or part-time 109014
police, communications, or administrative personnel to operate the 109015
same, including the payment of any employer contributions required 109016
for such personnel under section 145.48 or 742.33 of the Revised 109017
Code, or the payment of the costs incurred by townships as a 109018
result of contracts made with other political subdivisions in 109019
order to obtain police protection, or the provision of ambulance 109020
or emergency medical services operated by a police department;109021

       (K) For the maintenance and operation of a county home or 109022
detention facility;109023

       (L) For community mental retardation and developmental 109024
disabilities programs and services pursuant to Chapter 5126. of 109025
the Revised Code, except that the procedure for such levies shall 109026
be as provided in section 5705.222 of the Revised Code;109027

       (M) For regional planning;109028

       (N) For a county's share of the cost of maintaining and 109029
operating schools, district detention facilities, forestry camps, 109030
or other facilities, or any combination thereof, established under 109031
section 2151.65 or 2152.41 of the Revised Code or both of those 109032
sections;109033

       (O) For providing for flood defense, providing and 109034
maintaining a flood wall or pumps, and other purposes to prevent 109035
floods;109036

       (P) For maintaining and operating sewage disposal plants and 109037
facilities;109038

       (Q) For the purpose of purchasing, acquiring, constructing, 109039
enlarging, improving, equipping, repairing, maintaining, or 109040
operating, or any combination of the foregoing, a county transit 109041
system pursuant to sections 306.01 to 306.13 of the Revised Code, 109042
or of making any payment to a board of county commissioners 109043
operating a transit system or a county transit board pursuant to 109044
section 306.06 of the Revised Code;109045

       (R) For the subdivision's share of the cost of acquiring or 109046
constructing any schools, forestry camps, detention facilities, or 109047
other facilities, or any combination thereof, under section 109048
2151.65 or 2152.41 of the Revised Code or both of those sections;109049

       (S) For the prevention, control, and abatement of air 109050
pollution;109051

       (T) For maintaining and operating cemeteries;109052

       (U) For providing ambulance service, emergency medical 109053
service, or both;109054

       (V) For providing for the collection and disposal of garbage 109055
or refuse, including yard waste;109056

       (W) For the payment of the police officer employers' 109057
contribution or the firefighter employers' contribution required 109058
under sections 742.33 and 742.34 of the Revised Code;109059

       (X) For the construction and maintenance of a drainage 109060
improvement pursuant to section 6131.52 of the Revised Code;109061

       (Y) For providing or maintaining senior citizens services or 109062
facilities as authorized by section 307.694, 307.85, 505.70, or 109063
505.706 or division (EE) of section 717.01 of the Revised Code;109064

       (Z) For the provision and maintenance of zoological park 109065
services and facilities as authorized under section 307.76 of the 109066
Revised Code;109067

       (AA) For the maintenance and operation of a free public 109068
museum of art, science, or history;109069

       (BB) For the establishment and operation of a 9-1-1 system, 109070
as defined in section 5507.01 of the Revised Code;109071

       (CC) For the purpose of acquiring, rehabilitating, or 109072
developing rail property or rail service. As used in this 109073
division, "rail property" and "rail service" have the same 109074
meanings as in section 4981.01 of the Revised Code. This division 109075
applies only to a county, township, or municipal corporation.109076

       (DD) For the purpose of acquiring property for, constructing, 109077
operating, and maintaining community centers as provided for in 109078
section 755.16 of the Revised Code;109079

       (EE) For the creation and operation of an office or joint 109080
office of economic development, for any economic development 109081
purpose of the office, and to otherwise provide for the 109082
establishment and operation of a program of economic development 109083
pursuant to sections 307.07 and 307.64 of the Revised Code, or to 109084
the extent that the expenses of a county land reutilization 109085
corporation organized under Chapter 1724. of the Revised Code are 109086
found by the board of county commissioners to constitute the 109087
promotion of economic development, for the payment of such 109088
operations and expenses;109089

       (FF) For the purpose of acquiring, establishing, 109090
constructing, improving, equipping, maintaining, or operating, or 109091
any combination of the foregoing, a township airport, landing 109092
field, or other air navigation facility pursuant to section 505.15 109093
of the Revised Code;109094

       (GG) For the payment of costs incurred by a township as a 109095
result of a contract made with a county pursuant to section 109096
505.263 of the Revised Code in order to pay all or any part of the 109097
cost of constructing, maintaining, repairing, or operating a water 109098
supply improvement;109099

       (HH) For a board of township trustees to acquire, other than 109100
by appropriation, an ownership interest in land, water, or 109101
wetlands, or to restore or maintain land, water, or wetlands in 109102
which the board has an ownership interest, not for purposes of 109103
recreation, but for the purposes of protecting and preserving the 109104
natural, scenic, open, or wooded condition of the land, water, or 109105
wetlands against modification or encroachment resulting from 109106
occupation, development, or other use, which may be styled as 109107
protecting or preserving "greenspace" in the resolution, notice of 109108
election, or ballot form. Except as otherwise provided in this 109109
division, land is not acquired for purposes of recreation, even if 109110
the land is used for recreational purposes, so long as no 109111
building, structure, or fixture used for recreational purposes is 109112
permanently attached or affixed to the land. Except as otherwise 109113
provided in this division, land that previously has been acquired 109114
in a township for these greenspace purposes may subsequently be 109115
used for recreational purposes if the board of township trustees 109116
adopts a resolution approving that use and no building, structure, 109117
or fixture used for recreational purposes is permanently attached 109118
or affixed to the land. The authorization to use greenspace land 109119
for recreational use does not apply to land located in a township 109120
that had a population, at the time it passed its first greenspace 109121
levy, of more than thirty-eight thousand within a county that had 109122
a population, at that time, of at least eight hundred sixty 109123
thousand.109124

       (II) For the support by a county of a crime victim assistance 109125
program that is provided and maintained by a county agency or a 109126
private, nonprofit corporation or association under section 307.62 109127
of the Revised Code;109128

       (JJ) For any or all of the purposes set forth in divisions 109129
(I) and (J) of this section. This division applies only to a 109130
township.109131

       (KK) For a countywide public safety communications system 109132
under section 307.63 of the Revised Code. This division applies 109133
only to counties.109134

       (LL) For the support by a county of criminal justice services 109135
under section 307.45 of the Revised Code;109136

       (MM) For the purpose of maintaining and operating a jail or 109137
other detention facility as defined in section 2921.01 of the 109138
Revised Code;109139

       (NN) For purchasing, maintaining, or improving, or any 109140
combination of the foregoing, real estate on which to hold, and 109141
the operating expenses of, agricultural fairs operated by a county 109142
agricultural society or independent agricultural society under 109143
Chapter 1711. of the Revised Code. This division applies only to a 109144
county.109145

       (OO) For constructing, rehabilitating, repairing, or 109146
maintaining sidewalks, walkways, trails, bicycle pathways, or 109147
similar improvements, or acquiring ownership interests in land 109148
necessary for the foregoing improvements;109149

       (PP) For both of the purposes set forth in divisions (G) and 109150
(OO) of this section.109151

       (QQ) For both of the purposes set forth in divisions (H) and 109152
(HH) of this section. This division applies only to a township.109153

       (RR) For the legislative authority of a municipal 109154
corporation, board of county commissioners of a county, or board 109155
of township trustees of a township to acquire agricultural 109156
easements, as defined in section 5301.67 of the Revised Code, and 109157
to supervise and enforce the easements.109158

       (SS) For both of the purposes set forth in divisions (BB) and 109159
(KK) of this section. This division applies only to a county.109160

       (TT) For the maintenance and operation of a facility that is 109161
organized in whole or in part to promote the sciences and natural 109162
history under section 307.761 of the Revised Code.109163

       (UU) For the creation and operation of a county land 109164
reutilization corporation and for any programs or activities of 109165
the corporation found by the board of directors of the corporation 109166
to be consistent with the purposes for which the corporation is 109167
organized;109168

       (VV) For construction and maintenance of improvements and 109169
expenses of soil and water conservation district programs under 109170
Chapter 1515. of the Revised Code;109171

        (WW) For the Ohio cooperativeOSU extension service fund 109172
created under section 3335.35 of the Revised Code for the purposes 109173
prescribed under section 3335.36 of the Revised Code for the 109174
benefit of the citizens of a county. This division applies only to 109175
a county.109176

       (XX) For a municipal corporation that withdraws or proposes 109177
by resolution to withdraw from a regional transit authority under 109178
section 306.55 of the Revised Code to provide transportation 109179
services for the movement of persons within, from, or to the 109180
municipal corporation;109181

       (YY) For any combination of the purposes specified in 109182
divisions (NN), (VV), and (WW) of this section. This division 109183
applies only to a county.109184

       The resolution shall be confined to the purpose or purposes 109185
described in one division of this section, to which the revenue 109186
derived therefrom shall be applied. The existence in any other 109187
division of this section of authority to levy a tax for any part 109188
or all of the same purpose or purposes does not preclude the use 109189
of such revenues for any part of the purpose or purposes of the 109190
division under which the resolution is adopted.109191

       The resolution shall specify the amount of the increase in 109192
rate that it is necessary to levy, the purpose of that increase in 109193
rate, and the number of years during which the increase in rate 109194
shall be in effect, which may or may not include a levy upon the 109195
duplicate of the current year. The number of years may be any 109196
number not exceeding five, except as follows:109197

       (1) When the additional rate is for the payment of debt 109198
charges, the increased rate shall be for the life of the 109199
indebtedness.109200

       (2) When the additional rate is for any of the following, the 109201
increased rate shall be for a continuing period of time:109202

       (a) For the current expenses for a detention facility 109203
district, a district organized under section 2151.65 of the 109204
Revised Code, or a combined district organized under sections 109205
2151.65 and 2152.41 of the Revised Code;109206

       (b) For providing a county's share of the cost of maintaining 109207
and operating schools, district detention facilities, forestry 109208
camps, or other facilities, or any combination thereof, 109209
established under section 2151.65 or 2152.41 of the Revised Code 109210
or under both of those sections.109211

       (3) When the additional rate is for either of the following, 109212
the increased rate may be for a continuing period of time:109213

       (a) For the purposes set forth in division (I), (J), (U), or 109214
(KK) of this section;109215

       (b) For the maintenance and operation of a joint recreation 109216
district.109217

       (4) When the increase is for the purpose or purposes set 109218
forth in division (D), (G), (H), (CC), or (PP) of this section, 109219
the tax levy may be for any specified number of years or for a 109220
continuing period of time, as set forth in the resolution.109221

       (5) When the additional rate is for the purpose described in 109222
division (Z) of this section, the increased rate shall be for any 109223
number of years not exceeding ten.109224

       A levy for one of the purposes set forth in division (G), 109225
(I), (J), or (U) of this section may be reduced pursuant to 109226
section 5705.261 or 5705.31 of the Revised Code. A levy for one of 109227
the purposes set forth in division (G), (I), (J), or (U) of this 109228
section may also be terminated or permanently reduced by the 109229
taxing authority if it adopts a resolution stating that the 109230
continuance of the levy is unnecessary and the levy shall be 109231
terminated or that the millage is excessive and the levy shall be 109232
decreased by a designated amount.109233

       A resolution of a detention facility district, a district 109234
organized under section 2151.65 of the Revised Code, or a combined 109235
district organized under both sections 2151.65 and 2152.41 of the 109236
Revised Code may include both current expenses and other purposes, 109237
provided that the resolution shall apportion the annual rate of 109238
levy between the current expenses and the other purpose or 109239
purposes. The apportionment need not be the same for each year of 109240
the levy, but the respective portions of the rate actually levied 109241
each year for the current expenses and the other purpose or 109242
purposes shall be limited by the apportionment.109243

       Whenever a board of county commissioners, acting either as 109244
the taxing authority of its county or as the taxing authority of a 109245
sewer district or subdistrict created under Chapter 6117. of the 109246
Revised Code, by resolution declares it necessary to levy a tax in 109247
excess of the ten-mill limitation for the purpose of constructing, 109248
improving, or extending sewage disposal plants or sewage systems, 109249
the tax may be in effect for any number of years not exceeding 109250
twenty, and the proceeds of the tax, notwithstanding the general 109251
provisions of this section, may be used to pay debt charges on any 109252
obligations issued and outstanding on behalf of the subdivision 109253
for the purposes enumerated in this paragraph, provided that any 109254
such obligations have been specifically described in the 109255
resolution.109256

       A resolution adopted by the legislative authority of a 109257
municipal corporation that is for the purpose in division (XX) of 109258
this section may be combined with the purpose provided in section 109259
306.55 of the Revised Code, by vote of two-thirds of all members 109260
of the legislative authority. The legislative authority may 109261
certify the resolution to the board of elections as a combined 109262
question. The question appearing on the ballot shall be as 109263
provided in section 5705.252 of the Revised Code.109264

       The resolution shall go into immediate effect upon its 109265
passage, and no publication of the resolution is necessary other 109266
than that provided for in the notice of election.109267

       When the electors of a subdivision or, in the case of a 109268
qualifying library levy for the support of a library association 109269
or private corporation, the electors of the association library 109270
district, have approved a tax levy under this section, the taxing 109271
authority of the subdivision may anticipate a fraction of the 109272
proceeds of the levy and issue anticipation notes in accordance 109273
with section 5705.191 or 5705.193 of the Revised Code.109274

       Sec. 5705.192.  (A) For the purposes of this section only, 109275
"taxing authority" includes a township board of park commissioners 109276
appointed under section 511.18 of the Revised Code.109277

       (B) A taxing authority may propose to replace an existing 109278
levy that the taxing authority is authorized to levy, regardless 109279
of the section of the Revised Code under which the authority is 109280
granted, except a school district emergency levy proposed pursuant 109281
to sections 5705.194 to 5705.197 of the Revised Code. The taxing 109282
authority may propose to replace the existing levy in its entirety 109283
at the rate at which it is authorized to be levied; may propose to 109284
replace a portion of the existing levy at a lesser rate; or may 109285
propose to replace the existing levy in its entirety and increase 109286
the rate at which it is levied. If the taxing authority proposes 109287
to replace an existing levy, the proposed levy shall be called a 109288
replacement levy and shall be so designated on the ballot. Except 109289
as otherwise provided in this division, a replacement levy shall 109290
be limited to the purpose of the existing levy, and shall appear 109291
separately on the ballot from, and shall not be conjoined with, 109292
the renewal of any other existing levy. In the case of an existing 109293
school district levy imposed under section 5705.21 of the Revised 109294
Code for the purpose specified in division (F) of section 5705.19 109295
of the Revised Code, or in the case of an existing school district 109296
levy imposed under section 5705.217 of the Revised Code for the 109297
acquisition, construction, enlargement, renovation, and financing 109298
of permanent improvements, the replacement for that existing levy 109299
may be for the same purpose or for the purpose of general 109300
permanent improvements as defined in section 5705.21 of the 109301
Revised Code.109302

        The resolution proposing a replacement levy shall specify the 109303
purpose of the levy; its proposed rate expressed in mills; whether 109304
the proposed rate is the same as the rate of the existing levy, a 109305
reduction, or an increase; the extent of any reduction or increase 109306
expressed in mills; the first calendar year in which the levy will 109307
be due; and the term of the levy, expressed in years or, if 109308
applicable, that it will be levied for a continuing period of 109309
time.109310

       The sections of the Revised Code governing the maximum rate 109311
and term of the existing levy, the contents of the resolution that 109312
proposed the levy, the adoption of the resolution, the 109313
arrangements for the submission of the question of the levy, and 109314
notice of the election also govern the respective provisions of 109315
the proposal to replace the existing levy, except as provided in 109316
divisions (B)(1) to (3) of this section:109317

        (1) In the case of an existing school district levy that is109318
imposed under section 5705.21 of the Revised Code for the purpose 109319
specified in division (F) of section 5705.19 of the Revised Code 109320
or under section 5705.17 of the Revised Code for the acquistion, 109321
construction, enlargement, renovation, and financing of permanent 109322
improvements, and that is to be replaced by a levy for general 109323
permanent improvements, the maximum term of the replacement levy 109324
is not limited to the term of the existing levy and may be for a 109325
continuing period of time.109326

       (2) The date on which the election is held shall be as 109327
follows:109328

       (a) For the replacement of a levy with a fixed term of years, 109329
the date of the general election held during the last year the 109330
existing levy may be extended on the real and public utility 109331
property tax list and duplicate, or the date of any election held 109332
in the ensuing year;109333

       (b) For the replacement of a levy imposed for a continuing 109334
period of time, the date of any election held in any year after 109335
the year the levy to be replaced is first approved by the 109336
electors, except that only one election on the question of 109337
replacing the levy may be held during any calendar year.109338

       The failure by the electors to approve a proposal to replace 109339
a levy imposed for a continuing period of time does not terminate 109340
the existing continuing levy.109341

       (3) In the case of an existing school district levy imposed 109342
under division (B) of section 5705.21, division (C) of section 109343
5705.212, or division (J) of section 5705.218 of the Revised Code, 109344
the rates allocated to the municipal school district and to 109345
partnering community schools each may be increased or decreased or 109346
remain the same, and the total rate may be increased, decreased, 109347
or remain the same.109348

       (C) The form of the ballot at the election on the question of 109349
a replacement levy shall be as follows:109350

       "A replacement of a tax for the benefit of .......... (name 109351
of subdivision or public library) for the purpose of .......... 109352
(the purpose stated in the resolution) at a rate not exceeding 109353
.......... mills for each one dollar of valuation, which amounts 109354
to .......... (rate expressed in dollars and cents) for each one 109355
hundred dollars in valuation, for .......... (number of years levy 109356
is to run, or that it will be levied for a continuous period of 109357
time)109358

        109359

 FOR THE TAX LEVY 109360
 AGAINST THE TAX LEVY  " 109361

        109362

       If the replacement levy is proposed by a municipal school 109363
district to replace an existing tax levied under division (B) of 109364
section 5705.21, division (C)(1) of section 5705.212, or division 109365
(J) of section 5705.218 of the Revised Code, the form of the 109366
ballot shall be modified by adding, after the phrase "each one 109367
dollar of valuation," the following: "(of which ...... mills is to 109368
be allocated to partnering community schools)."109369

       If the proposal is to replace an existing levy and increase 109370
the rate of the existing levy, the form of the ballot shall be 109371
changed by adding the words ".......... mills of an existing levy 109372
and an increase of .......... mills, to constitute" after the 109373
words "a replacement of." If the proposal is to replace only a 109374
portion of an existing levy, the form of the ballot shall be 109375
changed by adding the words "a portion of an existing levy, being 109376
a reduction of .......... mills, to constitute" after the words "a 109377
replacement of." If the existing levy is imposed under division 109378
(B) of section 5705.21, division (C)(1) of section 5705.212, or 109379
division (J) of section 5705.218 of the Revised Code, the form of 109380
the ballot also shall state the portion of the total increased 109381
rate or of the total rate as reduced that is to be allocated to 109382
partnering community schools. 109383

       If the tax is to be placed on the tax list of the current tax 109384
year, the form of the ballot shall be modified by adding at the 109385
end of the form the phrase ", commencing in .......... (first year 109386
the replacement tax is to be levied), first due in calendar year 109387
.......... (first calendar year in which the tax shall be due)."109388

       The question covered by the resolution shall be submitted as 109389
a separate proposition, but may be printed on the same ballot with 109390
any other proposition submitted at the same election, other than 109391
the election of officers. More than one such question may be 109392
submitted at the same election.109393

       (D) Two existing levies, or any portion of those levies, may 109394
be combined into one replacement levy, so long as both of the 109395
existing levies are for the same purpose and either both are due 109396
to expire the same year or both are for a continuing period of 109397
time. The question of combining all or portions of the two 109398
existing levies into the replacement levy shall appear as one 109399
ballot proposition before the electors. If the electors approve 109400
the ballot proposition, all or the stated portions of the two 109401
existing levies are replaced by one replacement levy.109402

       (E) A levy approved in excess of the ten-mill limitation 109403
under this section shall be certified to the tax commissioner. In 109404
the first year of a levy approved under this section, the levy 109405
shall be extended on the tax lists after the February settlement 109406
succeeding the election at which the levy was approved. If the 109407
levy is to be placed on the tax lists of the current year, as 109408
specified in the resolution providing for its submission, the 109409
result of the election shall be certified immediately after the 109410
canvass by the board of elections to the taxing authority, which 109411
shall forthwith make the necessary levy and certify it to the 109412
county auditor, who shall extend it on the tax lists for 109413
collection. After the first year, the levy shall be included in 109414
the annual tax budget that is certified to the county budget 109415
commission.109416

       If notes are authorized to be issued in anticipation of the 109417
proceeds of the existing levy, notes may be issued in anticipation 109418
of the proceeds of the replacement levy, and such issuance is 109419
subject to the terms and limitations governing the issuance of 109420
notes in anticipation of the proceeds of the existing levy.109421

       (F) This section does not authorize a tax to be levied in any 109422
year after the year in which revenue is not needed for the purpose 109423
for which the tax is levied.109424

       Sec. 5705.217.  (A) The board of education of a city, local, 109425
or exempted village school district, at any time by a vote of 109426
two-thirds of all its members, may declare by resolution that the 109427
amount of taxes that can be raised within the ten-mill limitation 109428
will be insufficient to provide an adequate amount for the present 109429
and future requirements of the school district; that it is 109430
necessary to levy an additional tax in excess of that limitation 109431
for the purposes of providing funds for current operating expenses 109432
and for the acquisition, construction, enlargement, renovation, 109433
and financing ofgeneral permanent improvements as defined in 109434
section 5705.21 of the Revised Code; and that the question of the 109435
tax shall be submitted to the electors of the district at a 109436
special election. The tax may be levied for a specified number of 109437
years not exceeding five or, if the tax is for current operating 109438
expenses or for general, on-going permanent improvements, for a 109439
continuing period of time. The resolution shall specify the 109440
proposed tax rate, the first year the tax will be levied, and the 109441
number of years it will be levied, or that it will be levied for a 109442
continuing period of time. The resolution shall apportion the 109443
annual rate of the tax between current operating expenses and 109444
permanent improvements. The apportionment may but need not be the 109445
same for each year of the tax, but the respective portions of the 109446
rate actually levied each year for current operating expenses and 109447
permanent improvements shall be limited by the apportionment.109448

       The resolution shall specify the date of holding the special 109449
election, which shall not be earlier than ninety days after 109450
certification of the resolution to the board of elections and 109451
shall be consistent with the requirements of section 3501.01 of 109452
the Revised Code. The resolution shall go into immediate effect 109453
upon its passage, and no publication of it is necessary other than 109454
that provided in the notice of election. The board of education 109455
shall certify a copy of the resolution to the board of elections 109456
immediately after its adoption. Section 5705.25 of the Revised 109457
Code governs the arrangements and form of the ballot for the 109458
submission of the question to the electors.109459

       If a majority of the electors voting on the question vote in 109460
favor of the tax, the board of education may make the levy at the 109461
additional rate, or at any lesser rate in excess of the ten-mill 109462
limitation. If the tax is for a continuing period of time, it may 109463
be decreased in accordance with section 5705.261 of the Revised 109464
Code.109465

       A board of education may adopt a resolution to renew one or 109466
more existing levies imposed under this section, or to increase or 109467
decrease the rate of a tax levied under this section, for the 109468
purpose of providing funds for either current expenses and general 109469
permanent improvements or solely for general permanent 109470
improvements.109471

       (B)(1) After the approval of a tax for current operating 109472
expenses under this section and prior to the time the first 109473
collection and distribution from the levy can be made, the board 109474
of education may anticipate a fraction of the proceeds of such 109475
levy and issue anticipation notes in a principal amount not 109476
exceeding fifty per cent of the total estimated proceeds of the 109477
tax to be collected during the first year of the levy.109478

       (2) After the approval of a tax under this section for 109479
general permanent improvements having a specific purposelevied 109480
under this section for a specified number of years, the board of 109481
education may anticipate a fraction of the proceeds of such tax 109482
and issue anticipation notes in a principal amount not exceeding 109483
fifty per cent of the total estimated proceeds of the tax 109484
remaining to be collected in each year over a specified period of 109485
five years, not exceeding the number of years for which the tax 109486
was levied, after issuance of the notes.109487

       (3) After the approval of a tax for general, on-going109488
permanent improvements levied under this section for a continuing 109489
period of time, the board of education may anticipate a fraction 109490
of the proceeds of such tax and issue anticipation notes in a 109491
principal amount not exceeding fifty per cent of the total 109492
estimated proceeds of the tax to be collected in each year over a 109493
specified period of years, not exceeding ten, after issuance of 109494
the notes.109495

       Anticipation notes under this section shall be issued as 109496
provided in section 133.24 of the Revised Code. Notes issued under 109497
division (B)(1) or (2) of this section shall have principal 109498
payments during each year after the year of their issuance over a 109499
period not to exceed five years, and may have a principal payment 109500
in the year of their issuance. Notes issued under division (B)(3) 109501
of this section shall have principal payments during each year 109502
after the year of their issuance over a period not to exceed ten 109503
years, and may have a principal payment in the year of their 109504
issuance.109505

       (C) The submission of a question to the electors under this 109506
section is subject to the limitation on the number of elections 109507
that can be held in a year under section 5705.214 of the Revised 109508
Code.109509

       Sec. 5705.218.  (A) The board of education of a city, local, 109510
or exempted village school district, at any time by a vote of 109511
two-thirds of all its members, may declare by resolution that it 109512
may be necessary for the school district to issue general 109513
obligation bonds for permanent improvements. The resolution shall 109514
state all of the following:109515

       (1) The necessity and purpose of the bond issue;109516

       (2) The date of the special election at which the question 109517
shall be submitted to the electors;109518

       (3) The amount, approximate date, estimated rate of interest, 109519
and maximum number of years over which the principal of the bonds 109520
may be paid;109521

       (4) The necessity of levying a tax outside the ten-mill 109522
limitation to pay debt charges on the bonds and any anticipatory 109523
securities.109524

       On adoption of the resolution, the board shall certify a copy 109525
of it to the county auditor. The county auditor promptly shall 109526
estimate and certify to the board the average annual property tax 109527
rate required throughout the stated maturity of the bonds to pay 109528
debt charges on the bonds, in the same manner as under division 109529
(C) of section 133.18 of the Revised Code.109530

       (B) After receiving the county auditor's certification under 109531
division (A) of this section, the board of education of the city, 109532
local, or exempted village school district, by a vote of 109533
two-thirds of all its members, may declare by resolution that the 109534
amount of taxes that can be raised within the ten-mill limitation 109535
will be insufficient to provide an adequate amount for the present 109536
and future requirements of the school district; that it is 109537
necessary to issue general obligation bonds of the school district 109538
for permanent improvements and to levy an additional tax in excess 109539
of the ten-mill limitation to pay debt charges on the bonds and 109540
any anticipatory securities; that it is necessary for a specified 109541
number of years or for a continuing period of time to levy 109542
additional taxes in excess of the ten-mill limitation to provide 109543
funds for the acquisition, construction, enlargement, renovation, 109544
and financing of permanent improvements or to pay for current 109545
operating expenses, or both; and that the question of the bonds 109546
and taxes shall be submitted to the electors of the school 109547
district at a special election, which shall not be earlier than 109548
ninety days after certification of the resolution to the board of 109549
elections, and the date of which shall be consistent with section 109550
3501.01 of the Revised Code. The resolution shall specify all of 109551
the following:109552

       (1) The county auditor's estimate of the average annual 109553
property tax rate required throughout the stated maturity of the 109554
bonds to pay debt charges on the bonds;109555

       (2) The proposed rate of the tax, if any, for current 109556
operating expenses, the first year the tax will be levied, and the 109557
number of years it will be levied, or that it will be levied for a 109558
continuing period of time;109559

       (3) The proposed rate of the tax, if any, for permanent 109560
improvements, the first year the tax will be levied, and the 109561
number of years it will be levied, or that it will be levied for a 109562
continuing period of time.109563

       The resolution shall apportion the annual rate of the tax 109564
between current operating expenses and permanent improvements, if 109565
both taxes are proposed. The apportionment may but need not be the 109566
same for each year of the tax, but the respective portions of the 109567
rate actually levied each year for current operating expenses and 109568
permanent improvements shall be limited by the apportionment. The 109569
resolution shall go into immediate effect upon its passage, and no 109570
publication of it is necessary other than that provided in the 109571
notice of election. The board of education shall certify a copy of 109572
the resolution, along with copies of the auditor's estimate and 109573
its resolution under division (A) of this section, to the board of 109574
elections immediately after its adoption.109575

       (C) The board of elections shall make the arrangements for 109576
the submission to the electors of the school district of the 109577
question proposed under division (B) or (J) of this section, and 109578
the election shall be conducted, canvassed, and certified in the 109579
same manner as regular elections in the district for the election 109580
of county officers. The resolution shall be put before the 109581
electors as one ballot question, with a favorable vote indicating 109582
approval of the bond issue, the levy to pay debt charges on the 109583
bonds and any anticipatory securities, the current operating 109584
expenses levy, the permanent improvements levy, and the levy for 109585
the current expenses of a municipal school district and of 109586
partnering community schools, as those levies may be proposed. The 109587
board of elections shall publish notice of the election in a 109588
newspaper of general circulation in the school district once a 109589
week for two consecutive weeks, or as provided in section 7.16 of 109590
the Revised Code, prior to the election. If a board of elections 109591
operates and maintains a web site, that board also shall post 109592
notice of the election on its web site for thirty days prior to 109593
the election. The notice of election shall state all of the 109594
following:109595

       (1) The principal amount of the proposed bond issue;109596

       (2) The permanent improvements for which the bonds are to be 109597
issued;109598

       (3) The maximum number of years over which the principal of 109599
the bonds may be paid;109600

       (4) The estimated additional average annual property tax rate 109601
to pay the debt charges on the bonds, as certified by the county 109602
auditor;109603

       (5) The proposed rate of the additional tax, if any, for 109604
current operating expenses and, if the question is proposed under 109605
division (J) of this section, the portion of the rate to be 109606
allocated to the school district and the portion to be allocated 109607
to partnering community schools;109608

       (6) The number of years the current operating expenses tax 109609
will be in effect, or that it will be in effect for a continuing 109610
period of time;109611

       (7) The proposed rate of the additional tax, if any, for 109612
permanent improvements;109613

       (8) The number of years the permanent improvements tax will 109614
be in effect, or that it will be in effect for a continuing period 109615
of time;109616

       (9) The time and place of the special election.109617

       (D) The form of the ballot for an election under this section 109618
is as follows:109619

       "Shall the .......... school district be authorized to do the 109620
following:109621

       (1) Issue bonds for the purpose of .......... in the 109622
principal amount of $......, to be repaid annually over a maximum 109623
period of ...... years, and levy a property tax outside the 109624
ten-mill limitation, estimated by the county auditor to average 109625
over the bond repayment period ...... mills for each one dollar of 109626
tax valuation, which amounts to ...... (rate expressed in cents or 109627
dollars and cents, such as "36 cents" or "$1.41") for each $100 of 109628
tax valuation, to pay the annual debt charges on the bonds, and to 109629
pay debt charges on any notes issued in anticipation of those 109630
bonds?"109631

       If either a levy for permanent improvements or a levy for 109632
current operating expenses is proposed, or both are proposed, the 109633
ballot also shall contain the following language, as appropriate:109634

       "(2) Levy an additional property tax to provide funds for the 109635
acquisition, construction, enlargement, renovation, and financing 109636
of permanent improvements at a rate not exceeding ....... mills 109637
for each one dollar of tax valuation, which amounts to ....... 109638
(rate expressed in cents or dollars and cents) for each $100 of 109639
tax valuation, for ...... (number of years of the levy, or a 109640
continuing period of time)?109641

       (3) Levy an additional property tax to pay current operating 109642
expenses at a rate not exceeding ....... mills for each one dollar 109643
of tax valuation, which amounts to ....... (rate expressed in 109644
cents or dollars and cents) for each $100 of tax valuation, for 109645
....... (number of years of the levy, or a continuing period of 109646
time)?109647

        109648

  FOR THE BOND ISSUE AND LEVY (OR LEVIES) 109649
  AGAINST THE BOND ISSUE AND LEVY (OR LEVIES)   " 109650

        109651

       If the question is proposed under division (J) of this 109652
section, the form of the ballot shall be modified as prescribed by 109653
division (J)(4) of this section.109654

       (E) The board of elections promptly shall certify the results 109655
of the election to the tax commissioner and the county auditor of 109656
the county in which the school district is located. If a majority 109657
of the electors voting on the question vote for it, the board of 109658
education may proceed with issuance of the bonds and with the levy 109659
and collection of the property tax or taxes at the additional rate 109660
or any lesser rate in excess of the ten-mill limitation. Any 109661
securities issued by the board of education under this section are 109662
Chapter 133. securities, as that term is defined in section 133.01 109663
of the Revised Code.109664

       (F)(1) After the approval of a tax for current operating 109665
expenses under this section and prior to the time the first 109666
collection and distribution from the levy can be made, the board 109667
of education may anticipate a fraction of the proceeds of such 109668
levy and issue anticipation notes in a principal amount not 109669
exceeding fifty per cent of the total estimated proceeds of the 109670
tax to be collected during the first year of the levy.109671

       (2) After the approval of a tax under this section for 109672
permanent improvements having a specific purpose, the board of 109673
education may anticipate a fraction of the proceeds of such tax 109674
and issue anticipation notes in a principal amount not exceeding 109675
fifty per cent of the total estimated proceeds of the tax 109676
remaining to be collected in each year over a period of five years 109677
after issuance of the notes.109678

       (3) After the approval of a tax under this section for 109679
general, on-going permanent improvements as defined under this109680
section 5705.21 of the Revised Code, the board of education may 109681
anticipate a fraction of the proceeds of such tax and issue 109682
anticipation notes in a principal amount not exceeding fifty per 109683
cent of the total estimated proceeds of the tax to be collected in 109684
each year over a specified period of years, not exceeding ten, 109685
after issuance of the notes.109686

       Anticipation notes under this section shall be issued as 109687
provided in section 133.24 of the Revised Code. Notes issued under 109688
division (F)(1) or (2) of this section shall have principal 109689
payments during each year after the year of their issuance over a 109690
period not to exceed five years, and may have a principal payment 109691
in the year of their issuance. Notes issued under division (F)(3) 109692
of this section shall have principal payments during each year 109693
after the year of their issuance over a period not to exceed ten 109694
years, and may have a principal payment in the year of their 109695
issuance.109696

       (G) A tax for current operating expenses or for permanent 109697
improvements levied under this section for a specified number of 109698
years may be renewed or replaced in the same manner as a tax for 109699
current operating expenses or for permanent improvements levied 109700
under section 5705.21 of the Revised Code. A tax for current 109701
operating expenses or for permanent improvements levied under this 109702
section for a continuing period of time may be decreased in 109703
accordance with section 5705.261 of the Revised Code.109704

       (H) The submission of a question to the electors under this 109705
section is subject to the limitation on the number of elections 109706
that can be held in a year under section 5705.214 of the Revised 109707
Code.109708

       (I) A school district board of education proposing a ballot 109709
measure under this section to generate local resources for a 109710
project under the school building assistance expedited local 109711
partnership program under section 3318.36 of the Revised Code may 109712
combine the questions under division (D) of this section with a 109713
question for the levy of a property tax to generate moneys for 109714
maintenance of the classroom facilities acquired under that 109715
project as prescribed in section 3318.361 of the Revised Code.109716

       (J)(1) After receiving the county auditor's certification 109717
under division (A) of this section, the board of education of a 109718
municipal school district, by a vote of two-thirds of all its 109719
members, may declare by resolution that it is necessary to levy a 109720
tax in excess of the ten-mill limitation for the purpose of paying 109721
the current expenses of the school district and of partnering 109722
community schools, as defined in section 5705.21 of the Revised 109723
Code; that it is necessary to issue general obligation bonds of 109724
the school district for permanent improvements of the district and 109725
to levy an additional tax in excess of the ten-mill limitation to 109726
pay debt charges on the bonds and any anticipatory securities; and 109727
that the question of the bonds and taxes shall be submitted to the 109728
electors of the school district at a special election, which shall 109729
not be earlier than ninety days after certification of the 109730
resolution to the board of elections, and the date of which shall 109731
be consistent with section 3505.01 of the Revised Code.109732

       The levy of taxes for the current expenses of a partnering 109733
community school under division (J) of this section and the 109734
distribution of proceeds from the tax by a municipal school 109735
district to partnering community schools is hereby determined to 109736
be a proper public purpose.109737

        (2) The tax for the current expenses of the school district 109738
and of partnering community schools is subject to the requirements 109739
of divisions (B)(3), (4), and (5) of section 5705.21 of the 109740
Revised Code.109741

        (3) In addition to the required specifications of the 109742
resolution under division (B) of this section, the resolution 109743
shall express the rate of the tax in mills per dollar of taxable 109744
value, state the number of the mills to be levied for the current 109745
expenses of the partnering community schools and the number of the 109746
mills to be levied for the current expenses of the school 109747
district, specify the number of years (not exceeding ten) the tax 109748
will be levied or that it will be levied for a continuing period 109749
of time, and state the first year the tax will be levied.109750

       The resolution shall go into immediate effect upon its 109751
passage, and no publication of it is necessary other than that 109752
provided in the notice of election. The board of education shall 109753
certify a copy of the resolution, along with copies of the 109754
auditor's estimate and its resolution under division (A) of this 109755
section, to the board of elections immediately after its adoption.109756

        (4) The form of the ballot shall be modified by replacing the 109757
ballot form set forth in division (D)(3) of this section with the 109758
following:109759

        "Levy an additional property tax for the purpose of the 109760
current expenses of the school district and of partnering 109761
community schools at a rate not exceeding ...... (insert the 109762
number of mills) mills for each one dollar of valuation (of which 109763
...... (insert the number of mills to be allocated to partnering 109764
community schools) mills is to be allocated to partnering 109765
community schools), which amounts to ...... (insert the rate 109766
expressed in dollars and cents) for each one hundred dollars of 109767
valuation, for ...... (insert the number of years the levy is to 109768
be imposed, or that it will be levied for a continuing period of 109769
time)?109770

  FOR THE BOND ISSUE AND LEVY (OR LEVIES) 109771
  AGAINST THE BOND ISSUE AND LEVY (OR LEVIES)   " 109772

        (5) After the approval of a tax for the current expenses of 109773
the school district and of partnering community schools under 109774
division (J) of this section, and prior to the time the first 109775
collection and distribution from the levy can be made, the board 109776
of education may anticipate a fraction of the proceeds of the levy 109777
for the current expenses of the school district and issue 109778
anticipation notes in a principal amount not exceeding fifty per 109779
cent of the estimated proceeds of the levy to be collected during 109780
the first year of the levy and allocated to the school district. 109781
The portion of levy proceeds to be allocated to partnering 109782
community schools shall not be included in the estimated proceeds 109783
anticipated under this division and shall not be used to pay debt 109784
charges on any anticipation notes.109785

        The notes shall be issued as provided in section 133.24 of 109786
the Revised Code, shall have principal payments during each year 109787
after the year of their issuance over a period not to exceed five 109788
years, and may have a principal payment in the year of their 109789
issuance.109790

        (6) A tax for the current expenses of the school district and 109791
of partnering community schools levied under division (J) of this 109792
section for a specified number of years may be renewed or replaced 109793
in the same manner as a tax for the current expenses of a school 109794
district and of partnering community schools levied under division 109795
(B) of section 5705.21 of the Revised Code. A tax for the current 109796
expenses of the school district and of partnering community 109797
schools levied under this division for a continuing period of time 109798
may be decreased in accordance with section 5705.261 of the 109799
Revised Code.109800

        (7) The proceeds from the issuance of the general obligation 109801
bonds under division (J) of this section shall be used solely to 109802
pay for permanent improvements of the school district and not for 109803
permanent improvements of partnering community schools.109804

       Sec. 5705.221.  (A) At any time, the board of county 109805
commissioners of any county by a majority vote of the full 109806
membership may declare by resolution and certify to the board of 109807
elections of the county that the amount of taxes which may be 109808
raised within the ten-mill limitation by levies on the current tax 109809
duplicate will be insufficient to provide the necessary 109810
requirements of the county's alcohol, drug addiction, and mental 109811
health service district established pursuant to Chapter 340. of 109812
the Revised Code, or the county's contribution to a joint-county 109813
district of which the county is a part, and that it is necessary 109814
to levy a tax in excess of such limitation for the operation of 109815
alcohol and drugcommunity addiction programsservices providers109816
and community mental health programsservices providers and the 109817
acquisition, construction, renovation, financing, maintenance, and 109818
operation of alcohol and drug addiction facilities and mental 109819
health facilities.109820

       Such resolution shall conform to section 5705.19 of the 109821
Revised Code, except that the increased rate may be in effect for 109822
any number of years not exceeding ten.109823

       The resolution shall be certified and submitted in the manner 109824
provided in section 5705.25 of the Revised Code, except that it 109825
may be placed on the ballot in any election, and shall be 109826
certified to the board of elections not less than ninety days 109827
before the election at which it will be voted upon.109828

       If the majority of the electors voting on a levy to 109829
supplement general fund appropriations for the support of the 109830
comprehensive alcohol and drugcommunity addiction and mental 109831
health programservices providers vote in favor of the levy, the 109832
board may levy a tax within the county at the additional rate 109833
outside the ten-mill limitation during the specified or continuing 109834
period, for the purpose stated in the resolution.109835

       (B) When electors have approved a tax levy under this 109836
section, the board of county commissioners may anticipate a 109837
fraction of the proceeds of the levy and, from time to time, issue 109838
anticipation notes in accordance with section 5705.191 or 5705.193 109839
of the Revised Code.109840

       (C) The county auditor who is the fiscal officer of the 109841
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health service district, upon 109842
receipt of a resolution from the board of alcohol, drug addiction, 109843
and mental health services, shall establish for the district a 109844
capital improvements account or a reserve balance account, or 109845
both, as specified in the resolution. The capital improvements 109846
account shall be a contingency fund for the necessary acquisition, 109847
replacement, renovation, or construction of facilities and movable 109848
and fixed equipment. Upon the request of the board, funds not 109849
needed to pay for current expenses may be appropriated to the 109850
capital improvements account, in amounts such that the account 109851
does not exceed twenty-five per cent of the replacement value of 109852
all capital facilities and equipment currently used by the board 109853
for programs and services. Other funds which are available for 109854
current capital expenses from federal, state, or local sources may 109855
also be appropriated to this account.109856

       The reserve balance account shall contain those funds that 109857
are not needed to pay for current operating expenses and not 109858
deposited in the capital improvements account but that will be 109859
needed to pay for operating expenses in the future. Upon the 109860
request of a board, such funds shall be appropriated to the 109861
reserve balance account. Payments from the capital improvements 109862
account and the reserve balance account shall be made by the 109863
county treasurer who is the custodian of funds for the district 109864
upon warrants issued by the county auditor who is the fiscal 109865
officer of the district pursuant to orders of the board.109866

       Sec. 5705.25.  (A) A copy of any resolution adopted as 109867
provided in section 5705.19 or 5705.2111 of the Revised Code shall 109868
be certified by the taxing authority to the board of elections of 109869
the proper county not less than ninety days before the general 109870
election in any year, and the board shall submit the proposal to 109871
the electors of the subdivision at the succeeding November 109872
election. In the case of a qualifying library levy, the board 109873
shall submit the question to the electors of the library district 109874
or association library district. Except as otherwise provided in 109875
this division, a resolution to renew an existing levy, regardless 109876
of the section of the Revised Code under which the tax was 109877
imposed, shall not be placed on the ballot unless the question is 109878
submitted at the general election held during the last year the 109879
tax to be renewed or replaced may be extended on the real and 109880
public utility property tax list and duplicate, or at any election 109881
held in the ensuing year. The limitation of the foregoing sentence 109882
does not apply to a resolution to renew and increase or to renew 109883
part of an existing levy that was imposed under section 5705.191 109884
of the Revised Code to supplement the general fund for the purpose 109885
of making appropriations for one or more of the following 109886
purposes: for public assistance, human or social services, relief, 109887
welfare, hospitalization, health, and support of general 109888
hospitals. The limitation of the second preceding sentence also 109889
does not apply to a resolution that proposes to renew two or more 109890
existing levies imposed under section 5705.21 or 5705.217 of the 109891
Revised Code, in which case the question shall be submitted on the 109892
date of the general or primary election held during the last year 109893
at least one of the levies to be renewed may be extended on the 109894
real and public utility property tax list and duplicate, or at any 109895
election held during the ensuing year. For purposes of this 109896
section, a levy shall be considered to be an "existing levy" 109897
through the year following the last year it can be placed on that 109898
tax list and duplicate.109899

       The board shall make the necessary arrangements for the 109900
submission of such questions to the electors of such subdivision, 109901
library district, or association library district, and the 109902
election shall be conducted, canvassed, and certified in the same 109903
manner as regular elections in such subdivision, library district, 109904
or association library district for the election of county 109905
officers. Notice of the election shall be published in a newspaper 109906
of general circulation in the subdivision, library district, or 109907
association library district once a week for two consecutive 109908
weeks, or as provided in section 7.16 of the Revised Code, prior 109909
to the election. If the board of elections operates and maintains 109910
a web site, the board of elections shall post notice of the 109911
election on its web site for thirty days prior to the election. 109912
The notice shall state the purpose, the proposed increase in rate 109913
expressed in dollars and cents for each one hundred dollars of 109914
valuation as well as in mills for each one dollar of valuation, 109915
the number of years during which the increase will be in effect, 109916
the first month and year in which the tax will be levied, and the 109917
time and place of the election.109918

       (B) The form of the ballots cast at an election held pursuant 109919
to division (A) of this section shall be as follows:109920

       "An additional tax for the benefit of (name of subdivision or 109921
public library) .......... for the purpose of (purpose stated in 109922
the resolution) .......... at a rate not exceeding ...... mills 109923
for each one dollar of valuation, which amounts to (rate expressed 109924
in dollars and cents) ............ for each one hundred dollars of 109925
valuation, for ...... (life of indebtedness or number of years the 109926
levy is to run).109927

        109928

 For the Tax Levy 109929
 Against the Tax Levy  " 109930

        109931

       (C) If the levy is to be in effect for a continuing period of 109932
time, the notice of election and the form of ballot shall so state 109933
instead of setting forth a specified number of years for the levy.109934

       If the tax is to be placed on the current tax list, the form 109935
of the ballot shall be modified by adding, after the statement of 109936
the number of years the levy is to run, the phrase ", commencing 109937
in .......... (first year the tax is to be levied), first due in 109938
calendar year .......... (first calendar year in which the tax 109939
shall be due)."109940

       If the levy submitted is a proposal to renew, increase, or 109941
decrease an existing levy, the form of the ballot specified in 109942
division (B) of this section may be changed by substituting for 109943
the words "An additional" at the beginning of the form, the words 109944
"A renewal of a" in case of a proposal to renew an existing levy 109945
in the same amount; the words "A renewal of ........ mills and an 109946
increase of ...... mills to constitute a" in the case of an 109947
increase; or the words "A renewal of part of an existing levy, 109948
being a reduction of ...... mills, to constitute a" in the case of 109949
a decrease in the proposed levy.109950

       If the levy submitted is a proposal to renew two or more 109951
existing levies imposed under section 5705.21 or 5705.217 of the 109952
Revised Code, the form of the ballot specified in division (B) of 109953
this section shall be modified by substituting for the words "an 109954
additional tax" the words "a renewal of ....(insert the number of 109955
levies to be renewed) existing taxes."109956

       If the levy submitted is a levy under section 5705.72 of the 109957
Revised Code or a proposal to renew, increase, or decrease an 109958
existing levy imposed under that section, the name of the 109959
subdivision shall be "the unincorporated area of .......... (name 109960
of township)." 109961

       The question covered by such resolution shall be submitted as 109962
a separate proposition but may be printed on the same ballot with 109963
any other proposition submitted at the same election, other than 109964
the election of officers. More than one such question may be 109965
submitted at the same election.109966

       (D) A levy voted in excess of the ten-mill limitation under 109967
this section shall be certified to the tax commissioner. In the 109968
first year of the levy, it shall be extended on the tax lists 109969
after the February settlement succeeding the election. If the 109970
additional tax is to be placed upon the tax list of the current 109971
year, as specified in the resolution providing for its submission, 109972
the result of the election shall be certified immediately after 109973
the canvass by the board of elections to the taxing authority, who 109974
shall make the necessary levy and certify it to the county 109975
auditor, who shall extend it on the tax lists for collection. 109976
After the first year, the tax levy shall be included in the annual 109977
tax budget that is certified to the county budget commission.109978

       Sec. 5705.412.  (A) As used in this section, "qualifying 109979
contract" means any agreement for the expenditure of money under 109980
which aggregate payments from the funds included in the school 109981
district's five-year forecast under section 5705.391 of the 109982
Revised Code will exceed the lesser of the following amounts:109983

       (1) Five hundred thousand dollars;109984

       (2) One per cent of the total revenue to be credited in the 109985
current fiscal year to the district's general fund, as specified 109986
in the district's most recent certificate of estimated resources 109987
certified under section 5705.36 of the Revised Code.109988

       (B)(1) Notwithstanding section 5705.41 of the Revised Code, 109989
no school district shall adopt any appropriation measure, make any 109990
qualifying contract, or increase during any school year any wage 109991
or salary schedule unless there is attached thereto a certificate, 109992
signed as required by this section, that the school district has 109993
in effect the authorization to levy taxes including the renewal or 109994
replacement of existing levies which, when combined with the 109995
estimated revenue from all other sources available to the district 109996
at the time of certification, are sufficient to provide the 109997
operating revenues necessary to enable the district to maintain 109998
all personnel and programs for all the days set forth in its 109999
adopted school calendars for the current fiscal year and for a 110000
number of days in succeeding fiscal years equal to the number of 110001
days instruction was held or is scheduled for the current fiscal 110002
year, as follows:110003

       (a) A certificate attached to an appropriation measure under 110004
this section shall cover only the fiscal year in which the 110005
appropriation measure is effective and shall not consider the 110006
renewal or replacement of an existing levy as the authority to 110007
levy taxes that are subject to appropriation in the current fiscal 110008
year unless the renewal or replacement levy has been approved by 110009
the electors and is subject to appropriation in the current fiscal 110010
year. 110011

       (b) A certificate attached, in accordance with this section, 110012
to any qualifying contract shall cover the term of the contract. 110013

       (c) A certificate attached under this section to a wage or 110014
salary schedule shall cover the term of the schedule.110015

       If the board of education has not adopted a school calendar 110016
for the school year beginning on the first day of the fiscal year 110017
in which a certificate is required, the certificate attached to an 110018
appropriation measure shall include the number of days on which 110019
instruction was held in the preceding fiscal year and other 110020
certificates required under this section shall include that number 110021
of days for the fiscal year in which the certificate is required 110022
and any succeeding fiscal years that the certificate must cover. 110023

       The certificate shall be signed by the treasurer and 110024
president of the board of education and the superintendent of the 110025
school district, unless the district is in a state of fiscal 110026
emergency declared under Chapter 3316. of the Revised Code. In 110027
that case, the certificate shall be signed by a member of the 110028
district's financial planning and supervision commission who is 110029
designated by the commission for this purpose.110030

       (2) In lieu of the certificate required under division (B) of 110031
this section, an alternative certificate stating the following may 110032
be attached:110033

        (a) The contract is a multi-year contract for materials, 110034
equipment, or nonpayroll services essential to the education 110035
program of the district;110036

        (b) The multi-year contract demonstrates savings over the 110037
duration of the contract as compared to costs that otherwise would 110038
have been demonstrated in a single year contract, and the terms 110039
will allow the district to reduce the deficit it is currently 110040
facing in future years as demonstrated in its five-year forecast 110041
adopted in accordance with section 5705.391 of the Revised Code.110042

        The certificate shall be signed by the treasurer and 110043
president of the board of education and the superintendent of the 110044
school district, unless the district is in a state of fiscal 110045
emergency declared under Chapter 3316. of the Revised Code. In 110046
that case, the certificate shall be signed by a member of the 110047
district's financial planning and supervision commission who is 110048
designated by the commission for this purpose. 110049

       (C) Every qualifying contract made or wage or salary schedule 110050
adopted or put into effect without such a certificate shall be 110051
void, and no payment of any amount due thereon shall be made. 110052

       (D) The department of education and the auditor of state 110053
jointly shall adopt rules governing the methods by which 110054
treasurers, presidents of boards of education, superintendents, 110055
and members of financial planning and supervision commissions 110056
shall estimate revenue and determine whether such revenue is 110057
sufficient to provide necessary operating revenue for the purpose 110058
of making certifications required by this section.110059

       (E) The auditor of state shall be responsible for determining 110060
whether school districts are in compliance with this section. At 110061
the time a school district is audited pursuant to section 117.11 110062
of the Revised Code, the auditor of state shall review each 110063
certificate issued under this section since the district's last 110064
audit, and the appropriation measure, contract, or wage and salary 110065
schedule to which such certificate was attached. If the auditor of 110066
state determines that a school district has not complied with this 110067
section with respect to any qualifying contract or wage or salary 110068
schedule, the auditor of state shall notify the prosecuting 110069
attorney for the county, the city director of law, or other chief 110070
law officer of the school district. That officer may file a civil 110071
action in any court of appropriate jurisdiction to seek a 110072
declaration that the contract or wage or salary schedule is void, 110073
to recover for the school district from the payee the amount of 110074
payments already made under it, or both, except that the officer 110075
shall not seek to recover payments made under any collective 110076
bargaining agreement entered into under Chapter 4117. of the 110077
Revised Code. If the officer does not file such an action within 110078
one hundred twenty days after receiving notice of noncompliance 110079
from the auditor of state, any taxpayer may institute the action 110080
in the taxpayer's own name on behalf of the school district.110081

       (F) This section does not apply to any contract or increase 110082
in any wage or salary schedule that is necessary in order to 110083
enable a board of education to comply with division (B) of section 110084
3317.13 of the Revised Code, provided the contract or increase 110085
does not exceed the amount required to be paid to be in compliance 110086
with such division.110087

       (G) Any officer, employee, or other person who expends or 110088
authorizes the expenditure of any public funds or authorizes or 110089
executes any contract or schedule contrary to this section, 110090
expends or authorizes the expenditure of any public funds on the 110091
void contract or schedule, or issues a certificate under this 110092
section which contains any false statements is liable to the 110093
school district for the full amount paid from the district's funds 110094
on the contract or schedule. The officer, employee, or other 110095
person is jointly and severally liable in person and upon any 110096
official bond that the officer, employee, or other person has 110097
given to the school district to the extent of any payments on the 110098
void claim, not to exceed ten thousand dollars. However, no 110099
officer, employee, or other person shall be liable for a mistaken 110100
estimate of available resources made in good faith and based upon 110101
reasonable grounds. If an officer, employee, or other person is 110102
found to have complied with rules jointly adopted by the 110103
department of education and the auditor of state under this 110104
section governing methods by which revenue shall be estimated and 110105
determined sufficient to provide necessary operating revenue for 110106
the purpose of making certifications required by this section, the 110107
officer, employee, or other person shall not be liable under this 110108
section if the estimates and determinations made according to 110109
those rules do not, in fact, conform with actual revenue. The 110110
prosecuting attorney of the county, the city director of law, or 110111
other chief law officer of the district shall enforce this 110112
liability by civil action brought in any court of appropriate 110113
jurisdiction in the name of and on behalf of the school district. 110114
If the prosecuting attorney, city director of law, or other chief 110115
law officer of the district fails, upon the written request of any 110116
taxpayer, to institute action for the enforcement of the 110117
liability, the attorney general, or the taxpayer in the taxpayer's 110118
own name, may institute the action on behalf of the subdivision.110119

       (H)(G) This section does not require the attachment of an 110120
additional certificate beyond that required by section 5705.41 of 110121
the Revised Code for current payrolls of, or contracts of 110122
employment with, any employees or officers of the school district.110123

       This section does not require the attachment of a certificate 110124
to a temporary appropriation measure if all of the following 110125
apply:110126

       (1) The amount appropriated does not exceed twenty-five per 110127
cent of the total amount from all sources available for 110128
expenditure from any fund during the preceding fiscal year;110129

       (2) The measure will not be in effect on or after the 110130
thirtieth day following the earliest date on which the district 110131
may pass an annual appropriation measure;110132

       (3) An amended official certificate of estimated resources 110133
for the current year, if required, has not been certified to the 110134
board of education under division (B) of section 5705.36 of the 110135
Revised Code.110136

       Sec. 5705.55.  (A) The board of directors of a lake 110137
facilities authority, by a vote of two-thirds of all its members, 110138
may at any time declare by resolution that the amount of taxes 110139
which may be raised within the ten-mill limitation by levies on 110140
the current tax duplicate will be insufficient to provide an 110141
adequate amount for the necessary requirements of the authority, 110142
that it is necessary to levy a tax in excess of such limitation 110143
for any of the purposes specified in divisions (A), (B), (F), and 110144
(H) of section 5705.19 of the Revised Code, and that the question 110145
of such additional tax levy shall be submitted by the board to the 110146
electors residing within the boundaries of the impacted lake 110147
district on the day of a primary or general election. The 110148
resolution shall conform to section 5705.19 of the Revised Code, 110149
except that the tax levy may be in effect for no more than five 110150
years, as set forth in the resolution, unless the levy is for the 110151
payment of debt charges, and the total number of mills levied for 110152
each dollar of taxable valuation that may be levied under this 110153
section for any tax year shall not exceed one mill. If the levy is 110154
for the payment of debt charges, the levy shall be for the life of 110155
the bond indebtedness.110156

       The resolution shall specify the date of holding the 110157
election, which shall not be earlier than ninety days after the 110158
adoption and certification of the resolution to the board of 110159
elections. The resolution shall not include a levy on the current 110160
tax list and duplicate unless the election is to be held at or 110161
prior to the first Tuesday after the first Monday in November of 110162
the current tax year.110163

       The resolution shall be certified to the board of elections 110164
of the proper county or counties not less than ninety days before 110165
the date of the election. The resolution shall go into immediate 110166
effect upon its passage, and no publication of the resolution 110167
shall be necessary other than that provided in the notice of 110168
election. Section 5705.25 of the Revised Code shall govern the 110169
arrangements for the submission of such question and other matters 110170
concerning the election, to which that section refers, except that 110171
the election shall be held on the date specified in the 110172
resolution. If a majority of the electors voting on the question 110173
so submitted in an election vote in favor of the levy, the board 110174
of directors may forthwith make the necessary levy within the 110175
boundaries of the impacted lake district at the additional rate in 110176
excess of the ten-mill limitation on the tax list, for the purpose 110177
stated in the resolution. The tax levy shall be included in the 110178
next annual tax budget that is certified to the county budget 110179
commission.110180

       (B) The form of the ballot in an election held on the 110181
question of levying a tax proposed pursuant to this section shall 110182
be as follows or in any other form acceptable to the secretary of 110183
state:110184

       "A tax for the benefit of (name of lake facilities authority) 110185
.......... for the purpose of .......... at a rate not exceeding 110186
......... mills for each one dollar of valuation, which amounts to 110187
(rate expressed in dollars and cents) ............ for each one 110188
hundred dollars of valuation, for ............ (life of 110189
indebtedness or number of years the levy is to run).110190

        110191

 For the Tax Levy 110192
 Against the Tax Levy  " 110193

        110194

       (C) On approval of the levy, notes may be issued in 110195
anticipation of the collection of the proceeds of the tax levy, 110196
other than the proceeds to be received for the payment of bond 110197
debt charges, in the amount and manner and at the times as are 110198
provided in section 5705.193 of the Revised Code, for the issuance 110199
of notes by a county in anticipation of the proceeds of a tax 110200
levy. The lake facilities authority may borrow money in 110201
anticipation of the collection of current revenues as provided in 110202
section 133.10 of the Revised Code.110203

       (D) If a tax is levied under this section in a tax year, no 110204
other taxing authority of a subdivision or taxing unit, including 110205
a port authority, may levy a tax on property in the impacted lake 110206
district in the same tax year if the purpose of the levy is 110207
substantially the same as the purpose for which the lake 110208
facilities authority of the impacted lake district was created.110209

       Sec. 5709.17.  The following property shall be exempted from 110210
taxation:110211

       (A) Real estate held or occupied by an association or 110212
corporation, organized or incorporated under the laws of this 110213
state relative to soldiers' memorial associations, monumental 110214
building associations, or cemetery associations or corporations, 110215
which in the opinion of the trustees, directors, or managers 110216
thereof is necessary and proper to carry out the object intended 110217
for such association or corporation;110218

       (B) Real estate and tangible personal property held or 110219
occupied by a veterans' organization that qualifies for exemption 110220
from taxation under section 501(c)(19) or 501(c)(23) of the 110221
"Internal Revenue Code of 1986," 100 Stat. 2085, 26 U.S.C.A. 1, as 110222
amended, and is incorporated under the laws of this state or the 110223
United States, except real estate held by such organization for 110224
the production of rental or other income in excess of the 110225
designated amount, before accounting for any cost or expense 110226
incurred in the production of such income. For the purposes of 110227
this division, the designated amount equals seven thousand five 110228
hundred dollars in tax year 2002, and shall be increased by two 110229
hundred fifty dollars each year thereafter until tax year 2012, 110230
when it shall equal ten thousand dollars. For tax years 2013 and 110231
thereafter, the designated amount shall equal ten thousand 110232
dollars.110233

       (C) Tangible personal property held by a corporation 110234
chartered under 112 Stat. 1335, 36 U.S.C.A. 40701, described in 110235
section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code, and exempt from 110236
taxation under section 501(a) of the Internal Revenue Code shall 110237
be exempt from taxation if it is property obtained as described in 110238
112 Stat. 1335-1341, 36 U.S.C.A. Chapter 407.110239

       (D) Real estate held or occupied by a fraternal organization 110240
and used primarily for meetings of and the administration of the 110241
fraternal organization. As used in this division, "fraternal 110242
organization" means a domestic fraternal society, order, or 110243
association operating under the lodge, council, or grange system 110244
that qualifies for exemption from taxation under section 110245
501(c)(5), 501(c)(8), or 501(c)(10) of the "Internal Revenue Code 110246
of 1986," 100 Stat. 2085, 26 U.S.C. 1, as amended; that provides 110247
financial support for charitable purposes, as defined in division 110248
(B)(12) of section 5739.02 of the Revised Code; and that has been 110249
operating in this state with a state governing body for at least 110250
one hundred years.110251

       Sec. 5709.212.  (A) With every application for an exempt 110252
facility certificate filed pursuant to section 5709.21 of the 110253
Revised Code, the applicant shall pay a fee equal to one-half of 110254
one per cent of the total exempt facility project cost, not to 110255
exceed two thousand dollars. One-half of the fee received with 110256
applications for exempt facility certificates shall be credited to 110257
the exempt facility administrative fund, which is hereby created 110258
in the state treasury, for appropriation to the department of 110259
taxation for use in administering sections 5709.20 to 5709.27 of 110260
the Revised Code. If the director of environmental protection is 110261
required to provide the opinion for an application, one-half of 110262
the fee shall be credited to the non-Title V clean air fund 110263
created in section 3704.035 of the Revised Code for use in 110264
administering section 5709.211 of the Revised Code, unless the 110265
application is for an industrial water pollution control facility. 110266
If the application is for an industrial water pollution control 110267
facility, one-half of the fee shall be credited to the surface 110268
water protection fund created in section 6111.038 of the Revised 110269
Code for use in administering section 5709.211 of the Revised 110270
Code. If the director of development is required to provide the 110271
opinion for an application, one-half of the fee for each exempt 110272
facility application shall be credited to the exempt facility 110273
inspection fund, which is hereby created in the state treasury, 110274
for appropriation to the department of development for use in 110275
administering section 5709.211 of the Revised Code.110276

       An applicant is not entitled to any tax exemption under 110277
section 5709.25 of the Revised Code until the fee required by this 110278
section is paid. The fee required by this section is not 110279
refundable, and is due with the application for an exempt facility 110280
certificate even if an exempt facility certificate ultimately is 110281
not issued or is withdrawn. Any application submitted without 110282
payment of the fee shall be deemed incomplete until the fee is 110283
paid.110284

       (B) The application fee imposed under division (A) of this 110285
section for a jointly owned facility shall be equal to one-half of 110286
one per cent of the total exempt facility project cost, not to 110287
exceed two thousand dollars for each facility that is the subject 110288
of the application.110289

       Sec. 5709.75. (A) Any township that receives service payments 110290
in lieu of taxes under section 5709.74 of the Revised Code shall 110291
establish a township public improvement tax increment equivalent 110292
fund into which those payments shall be deposited. If the board of 110293
township trustees has adopted a resolution under division (C) of 110294
section 5709.73 of the Revised Code, the township shall establish 110295
at least one account in that fund with respect to resolutions 110296
adopted under division (B) of that section, and one account with 110297
respect to each incentive district created by a resolution adopted 110298
under division (C) of that section. If a resolution adopted under 110299
division (C) of section 5709.73 of the Revised Code also 110300
authorizes the use of service payments for housing renovations 110301
within the incentive district, the township shall establish 110302
separate accounts for the service payments designated for public 110303
infrastructure improvements and for the service payments 110304
authorized for the purpose of housing renovations.110305

       (B) Except as otherwise provided in division (C) or (D) of 110306
this section, money deposited in an account of the township public 110307
improvement tax increment equivalent fund shall be used by the 110308
township to pay the costs of public infrastructure improvements 110309
designated in or the housing renovations authorized by the 110310
resolution with respect to which the account is established, 110311
including any interest on and principal of the notes; in the case 110312
of an account established with respect to a resolution adopted 110313
under division (C) of that section, money in the account shall be 110314
used to finance the public infrastructure improvements designated, 110315
or the housing renovations authorized, for each incentive district 110316
created in the resolution. Money in an account shall not be used 110317
to finance or support housing renovations that take place after 110318
the incentive district has expired.110319

       (C)(1)(a) A township may distribute money in such an account 110320
to any school district in which the exempt property is located in 110321
an amount not to exceed the amount of real property taxes that 110322
such school district would have received from the improvement if 110323
it were not exempt from taxation. The resolution establishing the 110324
fund shall set forth the percentage of such maximum amount that 110325
will be distributed to any affected school district.110326

       (b) A township also may distribute money in such an account 110327
as follows:110328

       (i) To a board of county commissioners, in the amount that is 110329
owed to the board pursuant to division (E) of section 5709.73 of 110330
the Revised Code;110331

       (ii) To a county in accordance with section 5709.913 of the 110332
Revised Code.110333

       (2) Money from an account in a township public improvement 110334
tax increment equivalent fund may be distributed under division 110335
(C)(1)(b) of this section, regardless of the date a resolution was 110336
adopted under section 5709.73 of the Revised Code that prompted 110337
the establishment of the account, even if the resolution was 110338
adopted prior to March 30, 2006.110339

       (D) A board of township trustees that adopted a resolution 110340
under division (B) of section 5709.73 of the Revised Code before 110341
January 1, 1995, and that, with respect to property exempted under 110342
such a resolution, is party to a hold-harmless or service110343
agreement, may appropriate and expend unencumbered money in the 110344
fund to pay current public safety expenses of the township. A 110345
township appropriating and expending money under this division 110346
shall reimburse the fund for the sum so appropriated and expended 110347
not later than the day the exemption granted under the resolution 110348
expires. For the purposes of this division, a "hold-harmless 110349
agreement" is an agreement with the board of education of a city, 110350
local, or exempted village school district under which the board 110351
of township trustees agrees to compensate the school district for 110352
one hundred per cent of the tax revenue the school district would 110353
have received from improvements to parcels designated in the 110354
resolution were it not for the exemption granted by the 110355
resolution.110356

       (E) Any incidental surplusunencumbered money remaining in 110357
the township public improvement tax increment equivalent fund or 110358
an account of that fund upon dissolution of the account or fund 110359
shall be transferred to the general fund of the township.110360

       Sec. 5725.18.  (A) An annual franchise tax on the privilege 110361
of being an insurance company is hereby levied on each domestic 110362
insurance company. In the month of May, annually, the treasurer of 110363
state shall charge for collection from each domestic insurance 110364
company a franchise tax in the amount computed in accordance with 110365
the following, as applicable:110366

       (1) With respect to a domestic insurance company that is a 110367
health insuring corporation, one per cent of all premium rate 110368
payments received, exclusive of payments received under the 110369
medicare program established under Title XVIII of the "Social 110370
Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended,110371
and exclusive of payments received pursuant to the medical 110372
assistancemedicaid program established under Chapter 5111. of the 110373
Revised Code for the period ending September 30, 2009, as 110374
reflected in its annual report for the preceding calendar year;110375

       (2) With respect to a domestic insurance company that is not 110376
a health insuring corporation, one and four-tenths per cent of the 110377
gross amount of premiums received from policies covering risks 110378
within this state, exclusive of premiums received under the 110379
medicare program established under Title XVIII of the "Social 110380
Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended,110381
and exclusive of payments received pursuant to the medical 110382
assistancemedicaid program established under Chapter 5111. of the 110383
Revised Code for the period ending September 30, 2009, as 110384
reflected in its annual statement for the preceding calendar year, 110385
and, if the company operates a health insuring corporation as a 110386
line of business, one per cent of all premium rate payments 110387
received from that line of business, exclusive of payments 110388
received under the medicare program established under Title XVIII 110389
of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 110390
301, as amended, and exclusive of payments received pursuant to 110391
the medical assistancemedicaid program established under Chapter 110392
5111. of the Revised Code for the period ending September 30, 110393
2009, as reflected in its annual statement for the preceding 110394
calendar year.110395

       Domestic insurance companies, including health insuring 110396
corporations, receiving payments pursuant to the medical 110397
assistancemedicaid program established under Chapter 5111. of the 110398
Revised Code during the period beginning October 1, 2009, and 110399
ending December 31, 2009, shall file with the 2009 annual 110400
statement to the superintendent a schedule that reflects those 110401
payments received pursuant to the medical assistancemedicaid110402
program for that period. The payments reflected in the schedule, 110403
plus all other taxable premiums, are subject to the annual 110404
franchise tax due to be paid in 2010.110405

       (B) The gross amount of premium rate payments or premiums 110406
used to compute the applicable tax in accordance with division (A) 110407
of this section is subject to the deductions prescribed by section 110408
5729.03 of the Revised Code for foreign insurance companies. The 110409
objects of such tax are those declared in section 5725.24 of the 110410
Revised Code, to which only such tax shall be applied.110411

       (C) In no case shall such tax be less than two hundred fifty 110412
dollars.110413

       Sec. 5725.34.  (A) As used in this section, "certificate 110414
owner" has the same meaning as in section 149.311 of the Revised 110415
Code.110416

       (B) There is allowed a credit against the tax imposed by 110417
section 5725.18 of the Revised Code for an insurance company 110418
subject to that tax that is a certificate owner of a 110419
rehabilitation tax credit certificate issued under section 149.311 110420
of the Revised Code. The credit shall equal twenty-five per cent 110421
of the dollar amount indicated on the certificate, but the amount 110422
of the credit allowed for any company for any year shall not 110423
exceed fiveten million dollars. The credit shall be claimed in 110424
the calendar year specified in the certificate and in the order 110425
required under section 5725.98 of the Revised Code. If the credit 110426
exceeds the amount of tax otherwise due in that year, the excess 110427
shall be refunded to the company but, if any amount of the credit 110428
is refunded, the sum of the amount refunded and the amount applied 110429
to reduce the tax otherwise due in that year shall not exceed 110430
three million dollars. The company may carry forward any balance 110431
of the credit in excess of the amount claimed in that year for not 110432
more than five ensuing years, and shall deduct any amount claimed 110433
in any such year from the amount claimed in an ensuing year.110434

       (C) An insurance company claiming a credit under this section 110435
shall retain the rehabilitation tax credit certificate for four 110436
years following the end of the year in which the credit was 110437
claimed, and shall make the certificate available for inspection 110438
by the tax commissioner upon the request of the tax commissioner 110439
during that period.110440

       Sec. 5726.20. (A) The tax commissioner may make an 110441
assessment, based on any information in the commissioner's 110442
possession, against any person that fails to file a return or 110443
report or pay any tax as required by this chapter. The reporting 110444
person for a taxpayer shall file the annual report required under 110445
section 5726.02 of the Revised Code and remit the tax imposed by 110446
this chapter. Each person included in the annual report of the 110447
taxpayer is jointly and severally liable for the tax imposed by 110448
this chapter and any penalties and interest thereon. If the 110449
reporting person fails, for any reason, to file and remit any tax, 110450
the amount due may be collected by assessment against the 110451
reporting person and against any or all other persons required to 110452
be included in the annual report of the taxpayer in the manner 110453
provided by this sectionas provided in section 5703.90 of the 110454
Revised Code. The commissioner shall make the assessment in the 110455
manner provided in this section. The commissioner shall give the 110456
person assessed written notice of the assessment as provided in 110457
section 5703.37 of the Revised Code. With the notice, the 110458
commissioner shall provide instructions on the manner in which to 110459
petition for reassessment and request a hearing with respect to 110460
the petition.110461

       (B) No assessment shall be made or issued against a person 110462
under this section more than four years after the later of the 110463
final date the report subject to assessment was required to be 110464
filed or the date such report was filed. Such time limit may be 110465
extended if both the person and the commissioner consent in 110466
writing to the extension or if an agreement waiving or extending 110467
the time limit has been entered into pursuant to section 122.171 110468
of the Revised Code. Any such extension shall extend the four-year 110469
time limit prescribed in division (A) of section 5726.30 of the 110470
Revised Code for the same period of time. There shall be no bar or 110471
limit to an assessment against a person that fails to file a 110472
report subject to assessment as required by this chapter, or that 110473
files a fraudulent report.110474

       (C) Unless the person assessed, within sixty days after 110475
service of the notice of assessment, files with the tax 110476
commissioner, either in person or by certified mail, a written 110477
petition for reassessment signed by the person or the person's 110478
authorized agent having knowledge of the facts, the assessment 110479
shall become final, and the amount of the assessment is due and 110480
payable from the person assessed to the treasurer of state. A 110481
petition shall indicate the objections of the person assessed, but 110482
additional objections may be raised in writing if received by the 110483
commissioner prior to the date shown on the final determination. 110484
If a petition for reassessment has been properly filed, the 110485
commissioner shall proceed under section 5703.60 of the Revised 110486
Code.110487

       (D)(1) After an assessment becomes final, if any portion of 110488
the assessment, including any accrued interest, remains unpaid, a 110489
certified copy of the tax commissioner's entry making the 110490
assessment final may be filed in the office of the clerk of the 110491
court of common pleas in the county in which the person resides or 110492
has its principal place of business in this state, or in the 110493
office of the clerk of court of common pleas of Franklin county.110494

       (2) Immediately upon the filing of the entry, the clerk shall 110495
enter judgment for the state against the person assessed in the 110496
amount shown on the entry. The judgment may be filed by the clerk 110497
in a loose-leaf book entitled, "special judgments for the 110498
financial institution tax" and shall have the same effect as other 110499
judgments. Execution shall issue upon the judgment at the request 110500
of the tax commissioner, and all laws applicable to sales on 110501
execution shall apply to sales made under the judgment.110502

       (3) The portion ofIf the assessment is not paid in its 110503
entirety within sixty days after the day the assessment was 110504
issued, the portion of the assessment consisting of tax due shall 110505
bear interest at the rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 110506
of the Revised Code from the date the tax commissioner issues the 110507
assessment until the date the assessment is paid or until it is 110508
certified to the attorney general for collection under section 110509
131.02 of the Revised Code, whichever comes first. If the unpaid 110510
portion of the assessment is certified to the attorney general for 110511
collection, the entire unpaid portion of the assessment shall bear 110512
interest at the rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of 110513
the Revised Code from the date of certification until the date it 110514
is paid in its entirety. Interest shall be paid in the same manner 110515
as the tax and may be collected by the issuance of an assessment 110516
under this section.110517

       (E) If the tax commissioner believes that collection of the 110518
tax imposed by this chapter will be jeopardized unless proceedings 110519
to collect or secure collection of the tax are instituted without 110520
delay, the commissioner may issue a jeopardy assessment against 110521
the person liable for the tax. Immediately upon the issuance of 110522
the jeopardy assessment, the commissioner shall file an entry with 110523
the clerk of the court of common pleas in the manner prescribed by 110524
division (D) of this section. Notice of the jeopardy assessment 110525
shall be served on the person assessed or the person's authorized 110526
agent in the manner provided in section 5703.37 of the Revised 110527
Code within five days of the filing of the entry with the clerk. 110528
The total amount assessed shall be immediately due and payable, 110529
unless the person assessed files a petition for reassessment in 110530
accordance with division (C) of this section and provides security 110531
in a form satisfactory to the commissioner and in an amount 110532
sufficient to satisfy the unpaid balance of the assessment. Full 110533
or partial payment of the assessment shall not prejudice the 110534
commissioner's consideration of the petition for reassessment.110535

       (F) The tax commissioner shall immediately forward to the 110536
treasurer of state all amounts the commissioner receives under 110537
this section. Such amounts shall be considered as revenue arising 110538
from the tax imposed by this chapter.110539

       (G) If the tax commissioner possesses information indicating 110540
that the amount of tax a taxpayer is required to pay under this 110541
chapter exceeds the amount the reporting person for the taxpayer 110542
paid, the tax commissioner may audit a sample of the taxpayer's 110543
gross receipts over a representative period of time to ascertain 110544
the amount of tax due, and may issue an assessment based on the 110545
audit. The tax commissioner shall make a good faith effort to 110546
reach agreement with the taxpayer in selecting a representative 110547
sample. The tax commissioner may apply a sampling method only if 110548
the commissioner has prescribed the method by rule.110549

       (H) If the whereabouts of a person subject to this chapter is 110550
not known to the tax commissioner, the secretary of state is 110551
hereby deemed to be that person's agent for purposes of service of 110552
process or notice of any assessment, action, or proceedings 110553
instituted in this state against the person under this chapter. 110554
Such process or notice shall be served on such person by the 110555
commissioner or by an agent of the commissioner by leaving a true 110556
and attested copy of the process or notice at the office of the 110557
secretary of state at least fifteen days before the return day of 110558
such process or notice, and by sending a copy of the process or 110559
notice to such person by ordinary mail, with an endorsement 110560
thereon of the service upon the secretary of state, addressed to 110561
such person at the person's last known address.110562

       Sec. 5726.52. (A) As used in this section, "certificate 110563
owner" has the same meaning as in section 149.311 of the Revised 110564
Code.110565

       (B) A taxpayer may claim a refundable credit against the tax 110566
imposed by this chapter for each person included in the annual 110567
report of a taxpayer that is a certificate owner of a 110568
rehabilitation tax credit certificate issued under section 149.311 110569
of the Revised Code. The credit shall equal twenty-five per cent 110570
of the dollar amount indicated on each certificate, but shall not 110571
exceed fiveten million dollars for each certificate.110572

       The credit shall be claimed for the calendar year specified 110573
in the certificate and in the order required under section 5726.98 110574
of the Revised Code. If the credit exceeds the amount of tax 110575
otherwise due in that year, the excess shall be refunded to the 110576
taxpayer, provided that, if any amount of the credit is refunded, 110577
the sum of the amount refunded and the amount applied to reduce 110578
the tax otherwise due in that year shall not exceed three million 110579
dollars. The taxpayer may carry forward any balance of the credit 110580
in excess of the amount claimed in that year for not more than 110581
five ensuing years, and shall deduct any amount claimed in any 110582
such year from the amount claimed in an ensuing year. A taxpayer 110583
may claim against the tax imposed by this chapter any unused 110584
portion of the credit authorized under section 5725.151 of the 110585
Revised Code, but only to the extent of the five-year carry 110586
forward period authorized by that section.110587

       (C) A taxpayer claiming a credit under this section shall 110588
retain the rehabilitation tax credit certificate for four years 110589
following the end of the year to which the credit was applied, and 110590
shall make the certificate available for inspection by the tax 110591
commissioner upon the request of the commissioner during that 110592
period.110593

       Sec. 5727.26.  (A) The tax commissioner may make an 110594
assessment, based on any information in the commissioner's 110595
possession, against any natural gas company or combined company 110596
that fails to file a return or pay any tax, interest, or 110597
additional charge as required by sections 5727.24 to 5727.29 of 110598
the Revised Code. The commissioner shall give the company assessed 110599
written notice of the assessment as provided in section 5703.37 of 110600
the Revised Code. With the notice, the commissioner shall provide 110601
instructions on how to petition for reassessment and request a 110602
hearing on the petition. A penalty of up to fifteen per cent may 110603
be added to all amounts assessed under this section. The tax 110604
commissioner may adopt rules providing for the imposition and 110605
remission of the penalty.110606

       (B) Unless the company assessed, within sixty days after 110607
service of the notice of assessment, files with the tax 110608
commissioner, either personally or by certified mail, a written 110609
petition signed by the company's authorized agent having knowledge 110610
of the facts, the assessment becomes final, and the amount of the 110611
assessment is due and payable from the company assessed to the 110612
treasurer of state. The petition shall indicate the objections of 110613
the company assessed, but additional objections may be raised in 110614
writing if received by the commissioner prior to the date shown on 110615
the final determination.110616

       If a petition for reassessment has been properly filed, the 110617
commissioner shall proceed under section 5703.60 of the Revised 110618
Code.110619

       (C) After an assessment becomes final, if any portion of the 110620
assessment, including accrued interest, remains unpaid, a 110621
certified copy of the tax commissioner's entry making the 110622
assessment final may be filed in the office of the clerk of the 110623
court of common pleas in the county in which the natural gas 110624
company's or combined company's principal place of business is 110625
located, or in the office of the clerk of court of common pleas of 110626
Franklin county.110627

       Immediately on the filing of the entry, the clerk shall enter 110628
judgment for the state against the company assessed in the amount 110629
shown on the entry. The judgment may be filed by the clerk in a 110630
loose-leaf book entitled, "special judgments for the public 110631
utility excise tax on natural gas and combined companies," and 110632
shall have the same effect as other judgments. Execution shall 110633
issue upon the judgment at the request of the tax commissioner, 110634
and all laws applicable to sales on execution shall apply to sales 110635
made under the judgment.110636

       The portion ofIf the assessment is not paid in its entirety110637
within sixty days after the day the assessment was issued, the 110638
portion of the assessment consisting of tax due shall bear 110639
interest at the rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of 110640
the Revised Code from the day the tax commissioner issues the 110641
assessment until it is paid or until it is certified to the 110642
attorney general for collection under section 131.02 of the 110643
Revised Code, whichever comes first. If the unpaid portion of the 110644
assessment is certified to the attorney general for collection, 110645
the entire unpaid portion of the assessment shall bear interest at 110646
the rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of the Revised 110647
Code from the date of certification until the date it is paid in 110648
its entirety. Interest shall be paid in the same manner as the tax 110649
and may be collected by the issuance of an assessment under this 110650
section.110651

       (D) If the tax commissioner believes that collection of the 110652
tax will be jeopardized unless proceedings to collect or secure 110653
collection of the tax are instituted without delay, the 110654
commissioner may issue a jeopardy assessment against the company 110655
liable for the tax. Immediately upon the issuance of the jeopardy 110656
assessment, the commissioner shall file an entry with the clerk of 110657
the court of common pleas in the manner prescribed by division (C) 110658
of this section. Notice of the jeopardy assessment shall be served 110659
on the company assessed or the company's authorized agent in the 110660
manner provided in section 5703.37 of the Revised Code within five 110661
days of the filing of the entry with the clerk. The total amount 110662
assessed is immediately due and payable, unless the company 110663
assessed files a petition for reassessment in accordance with 110664
division (B) of this section and provides security in a form 110665
satisfactory to the commissioner and in an amount sufficient to 110666
satisfy the unpaid balance of the assessment. Full or partial 110667
payment of the assessment does not prejudice the commissioner's 110668
consideration of the petition for reassessment.110669

       (E) The tax commissioner shall immediately forward to the 110670
treasurer of state all amounts that the tax commissioner receives 110671
under this section, and such amounts shall be considered revenue 110672
arising from the tax imposed by section 5727.24 of the Revised 110673
Code.110674

       (F) No assessment shall be made or issued against a natural 110675
gas company or combined company for the tax imposed by section 110676
5727.24 of the Revised Code more than four years after the return 110677
date for the period in which the tax was reported, or more than 110678
four years after the return for the period was filed, whichever is 110679
later.110680

       Sec. 5727.75.  (A) For purposes of this section: 110681

       (1) "Qualified energy project" means an energy project 110682
certified by the director of development services pursuant to this 110683
section. 110684

       (2) "Energy project" means a project to provide electric 110685
power through the construction, installation, and use of an energy 110686
facility. 110687

       (3) "Alternative energy zone" means a county declared as such 110688
by the board of county commissioners under division (E)(1)(b) or 110689
(c) of this section. 110690

       (4) "Full-time equivalent employee" means the total number of 110691
employee-hours for which compensation was paid to individuals 110692
employed at a qualified energy project for services performed at 110693
the project during the calendar year divided by two thousand 110694
eighty hours. 110695

       (5) "Solar energy project" means an energy project composed 110696
of an energy facility using solar panels to generate electricity. 110697

       (B)(1) Tangible personal property of a qualified energy 110698
project using renewable energy resources is exempt from taxation 110699
for tax years 2011, 2012, 2013, and 2014through 2019 if all of 110700
the following conditions are satisfied: 110701

       (a) On or before December 31, 20132018, the owner or a 110702
lessee pursuant to a sale and leaseback transaction of the project 110703
submits an application to the power siting board for a certificate 110704
under section 4906.20 of the Revised Code, or if that section does 110705
not apply, submits an application for any approval, consent, 110706
permit, or certificate or satisfies any condition required by a 110707
public agency or political subdivision of this state for the 110708
construction or initial operation of an energy project. 110709

       (b) Construction or installation of the energy facility 110710
begins on or after January 1, 2009, and before January 1, 2014110711
2019. For the purposes of this division, construction begins on 110712
the earlier of the date of application for a certificate or other 110713
approval or permit described in division (B)(1)(a) of this 110714
section, or the date the contract for the construction or 110715
installation of the energy facility is entered into. 110716

       (c) For a qualified energy project with a nameplate capacity 110717
of five megawatts or greater, a board of county commissioners of a 110718
county in which property of the project is located has adopted a 110719
resolution under division (E)(1)(b) or (c) of this section to 110720
approve the application submitted under division (E) of this 110721
section to exempt the property located in that county from 110722
taxation. A board's adoption of a resolution rejecting an 110723
application or its failure to adopt a resolution approving the 110724
application does not affect the tax-exempt status of the qualified 110725
energy project's property that is located in another county. 110726

       (2) If tangible personal property of a qualified energy 110727
project using renewable energy resources was exempt from taxation 110728
under this section beginning in any of tax years 2011, 2012, 2013, 110729
or 2014, 2015, 2016, 2017, 2018, or 2019, and the certification 110730
under division (E)(2) of this section has not been revoked, the 110731
tangible personal property of the qualified energy project is 110732
exempt from taxation for tax year 20152020 and all ensuing tax 110733
years if the property was placed into service before January 1, 110734
20152020, as certified in the construction progress report 110735
required under division (F)(2) of this section. Tangible personal 110736
property that has not been placed into service before that date is 110737
taxable property subject to taxation. An energy project for which 110738
certification has been revoked is ineligible for further exemption 110739
under this section. Revocation does not affect the tax-exempt 110740
status of the project's tangible personal property for the tax 110741
year in which revocation occurs or any prior tax year.110742

       (C) Tangible personal property of a qualified energy project 110743
using clean coal technology, advanced nuclear technology, or 110744
cogeneration technology is exempt from taxation for the first tax 110745
year that the property would be listed for taxation and all 110746
subsequent years if all of the following circumstances are met: 110747

       (1) The property was placed into service before January 1, 110748
20192024. Tangible personal property that has not been placed 110749
into service before that date is taxable property subject to 110750
taxation. 110751

       (2) For such a qualified energy project with a nameplate 110752
capacity of five megawatts or greater, a board of county 110753
commissioners of a county in which property of the qualified 110754
energy project is located has adopted a resolution under division 110755
(E)(1)(b) or (c) of this section to approve the application 110756
submitted under division (E) of this section to exempt the 110757
property located in that county from taxation. A board's adoption 110758
of a resolution rejecting the application or its failure to adopt 110759
a resolution approving the application does not affect the 110760
tax-exempt status of the qualified energy project's property that 110761
is located in another county. 110762

       (3) The certification for the qualified energy project issued 110763
under division (E)(2) of this section has not been revoked. An 110764
energy project for which certification has been revoked is 110765
ineligible for exemption under this section. Revocation does not 110766
affect the tax-exempt status of the project's tangible personal 110767
property for the tax year in which revocation occurs or any prior 110768
tax year. 110769

       (D) Except as otherwise provided in this section, real 110770
property of a qualified energy project is exempt from taxation for 110771
any tax year for which the tangible personal property of the 110772
qualified energy project is exempted under this section. 110773

       (E)(1)(a) A person may apply to the director of development 110774
services for certification of an energy project as a qualified 110775
energy project on or before the following dates: 110776

       (i) December 31, 20132018, for an energy project using 110777
renewable energy resources; 110778

       (ii) December 31, 20152020, for an energy project using 110779
clean coal technology, advanced nuclear technology, or 110780
cogeneration technology. 110781

       (b) The director shall forward a copy of each application for 110782
certification of an energy project with a nameplate capacity of 110783
five megawatts or greater to the board of county commissioners of 110784
each county in which the project is located and to each taxing 110785
unit with territory located in each of the affected counties. Any 110786
board that receives from the director a copy of an application 110787
submitted under this division shall adopt a resolution approving 110788
or rejecting the application unless it has adopted a resolution 110789
under division (E)(1)(c) of this section. A resolution adopted 110790
under division (E)(1)(b) or (c) of this section may require an 110791
annual service payment to be made in addition to the service 110792
payment required under division (G) of this section. The sum of 110793
the service payment required in the resolution and the service 110794
payment required under division (G) of this section shall not 110795
exceed nine thousand dollars per megawatt of nameplate capacity 110796
located in the county. The resolution shall specify the time and 110797
manner in which the payments required by the resolution shall be 110798
paid to the county treasurer. The county treasurer shall deposit 110799
the payment to the credit of the county's general fund to be used 110800
for any purpose for which money credited to that fund may be used.110801

       The board shall send copies of the resolution by certified 110802
mail to the owner of the facility and the director within thirty 110803
days after receipt of the application, or a longer period of time 110804
if authorized by the director. 110805

       (c) A board of county commissioners may adopt a resolution 110806
declaring the county to be an alternative energy zone and 110807
declaring all applications submitted to the director of 110808
development services under this division after the adoption of the 110809
resolution, and prior to its repeal, to be approved by the board. 110810

       All tangible personal property and real property of an energy 110811
project with a nameplate capacity of five megawatts or greater is 110812
taxable if it is located in a county in which the board of county 110813
commissioners adopted a resolution rejecting the application 110814
submitted under this division or failed to adopt a resolution 110815
approving the application under division (E)(1)(b) or (c) of this 110816
section. 110817

       (2) The director shall certify an energy project if all of 110818
the following circumstances exist: 110819

       (a) The application was timely submitted. 110820

       (b) For an energy project with a nameplate capacity of five 110821
megawatts or greater, a board of county commissioners of at least 110822
one county in which the project is located has adopted a 110823
resolution approving the application under division (E)(1)(b) or 110824
(c) of this section. 110825

       (c) No portion of the project's facility was used to supply 110826
electricity before December 31, 2009. 110827

       (3) The director shall deny a certification application if 110828
the director determines the person has failed to comply with any 110829
requirement under this section. The director may revoke a 110830
certification if the director determines the person, or subsequent 110831
owner or lessee pursuant to a sale and leaseback transaction of 110832
the qualified energy project, has failed to comply with any 110833
requirement under this section. Upon certification or revocation, 110834
the director shall notify the person, owner, or lessee, the tax 110835
commissioner, and the county auditor of a county in which the 110836
project is located of the certification or revocation. Notice 110837
shall be provided in a manner convenient to the director. 110838

       (F) The owner or a lessee pursuant to a sale and leaseback 110839
transaction of a qualified energy project shall do each of the 110840
following: 110841

       (1) Comply with all applicable regulations; 110842

       (2) File with the director of development services a 110843
certified construction progress report before the first day of 110844
March of each year during the energy facility's construction or 110845
installation indicating the percentage of the project completed, 110846
and the project's nameplate capacity, as of the preceding 110847
thirty-first day of December. Unless otherwise instructed by the 110848
director of development services, the owner or lessee of an energy 110849
project shall file a report with the director on or before the 110850
first day of March each year after completion of the energy 110851
facility's construction or installation indicating the project's 110852
nameplate capacity as of the preceding thirty-first day of 110853
December. Not later than sixty days after June 17, 2010, the owner 110854
or lessee of an energy project, the construction of which was 110855
completed before June 17, 2010, shall file a certificate 110856
indicating the project's nameplate capacity. 110857

       (3) File with the director of development services, in a 110858
manner prescribed by the director, a report of the total number of 110859
full-time equivalent employees, and the total number of full-time 110860
equivalent employees domiciled in Ohio, who are employed in the 110861
construction or installation of the energy facility; 110862

       (4) For energy projects with a nameplate capacity of five 110863
megawatts or greater, repair all roads, bridges, and culverts 110864
affected by construction as reasonably required to restore them to 110865
their preconstruction condition, as determined by the county 110866
engineer in consultation with the local jurisdiction responsible 110867
for the roads, bridges, and culverts. In the event that the county 110868
engineer deems any road, bridge, or culvert to be inadequate to 110869
support the construction or decommissioning of the energy 110870
facility, the road, bridge, or culvert shall be rebuilt or 110871
reinforced to the specifications established by the county 110872
engineer prior to the construction or decommissioning of the 110873
facility. The owner or lessee of the facility shall post a bond in 110874
an amount established by the county engineer and to be held by the 110875
board of county commissioners to ensure funding for repairs of 110876
roads, bridges, and culverts affected during the construction. The 110877
bond shall be released by the board not later than one year after 110878
the date the repairs are completed. The energy facility owner or 110879
lessee pursuant to a sale and leaseback transaction shall post a 110880
bond, as may be required by the Ohio power siting board in the 110881
certificate authorizing commencement of construction issued 110882
pursuant to section 4906.10 of the Revised Code, to ensure funding 110883
for repairs to roads, bridges, and culverts resulting from 110884
decommissioning of the facility. The energy facility owner or 110885
lessee and the county engineer may enter into an agreement 110886
regarding specific transportation plans, reinforcements, 110887
modifications, use and repair of roads, financial security to be 110888
provided, and any other relevant issue. 110889

       (5) Provide or facilitate training for fire and emergency 110890
responders for response to emergency situations related to the 110891
energy project and, for energy projects with a nameplate capacity 110892
of five megawatts or greater, at the person's expense, equip the 110893
fire and emergency responders with proper equipment as reasonably 110894
required to enable them to respond to such emergency situations; 110895

       (6) Maintain a ratio of Ohio-domiciled full-time equivalent 110896
employees employed in the construction or installation of the 110897
energy project to total full-time equivalent employees employed in 110898
the construction or installation of the energy project of not less 110899
than eighty per cent in the case of a solar energy project, and 110900
not less than fifty per cent in the case of any other energy 110901
project. In the case of an energy project for which certification 110902
from the power siting board is required under section 4906.20 of 110903
the Revised Code, the number of full-time equivalent employees 110904
employed in the construction or installation of the energy project 110905
equals the number actually employed or the number projected to be 110906
employed in the certificate application, if such projection is 110907
required under regulations adopted pursuant to section 4906.03 of 110908
the Revised Code, whichever is greater. For all other energy 110909
projects, the number of full-time equivalent employees employed in 110910
the construction or installation of the energy project equals the 110911
number actually employed or the number projected to be employed by 110912
the director of development services, whichever is greater. To 110913
estimate the number of employees to be employed in the 110914
construction or installation of an energy project, the director 110915
shall use a generally accepted job-estimating model in use for 110916
renewable energy projects, including but not limited to the job 110917
and economic development impact model. The director may adjust an 110918
estimate produced by a model to account for variables not 110919
accounted for by the model. 110920

       (7) For energy projects with a nameplate capacity in excess 110921
of two megawatts, establish a relationship with a member of the 110922
university system of Ohio as defined in section 3345.011 of the 110923
Revised Code or with a person offering an apprenticeship program 110924
registered with the employment and training administration within 110925
the United States department of labor or with the apprenticeship 110926
council created by section 4139.02 of the Revised Code, to educate 110927
and train individuals for careers in the wind or solar energy 110928
industry. The relationship may include endowments, cooperative 110929
programs, internships, apprenticeships, research and development 110930
projects, and curriculum development. 110931

       (8) Offer to sell power or renewable energy credits from the 110932
energy project to electric distribution utilities or electric 110933
service companies subject to renewable energy resource 110934
requirements under section 4928.64 of the Revised Code that have 110935
issued requests for proposal for such power or renewable energy 110936
credits. If no electric distribution utility or electric service 110937
company issues a request for proposal on or before December 31, 110938
2010, or accepts an offer for power or renewable energy credits 110939
within forty-five days after the offer is submitted, power or 110940
renewable energy credits from the energy project may be sold to 110941
other persons. Division (F)(8) of this section does not apply if: 110942

        (a) The owner or lessee is a rural electric company or a 110943
municipal power agency as defined in section 3734.058 of the 110944
Revised Code. 110945

        (b) The owner or lessee is a person that, before completion 110946
of the energy project, contracted for the sale of power or 110947
renewable energy credits with a rural electric company or a 110948
municipal power agency. 110949

        (c) The owner or lessee contracts for the sale of power or 110950
renewable energy credits from the energy project before June 17, 110951
2010. 110952

       (9) Make annual service payments as required by division (G) 110953
of this section and as may be required in a resolution adopted by 110954
a board of county commissioners under division (E) of this 110955
section. 110956

       (G) The owner or a lessee pursuant to a sale and leaseback 110957
transaction of a qualified energy project shall make annual 110958
service payments in lieu of taxes to the county treasurer on or 110959
before the final dates for payments of taxes on public utility 110960
personal property on the real and public utility personal property 110961
tax list for each tax year for which property of the energy 110962
project is exempt from taxation under this section. The county 110963
treasurer shall allocate the payment on the basis of the project's 110964
physical location. Upon receipt of a payment, or if timely payment 110965
has not been received, the county treasurer shall certify such 110966
receipt or non-receipt to the director of development services and 110967
tax commissioner in a form determined by the director and 110968
commissioner, respectively. Each payment shall be in the following 110969
amount: 110970

       (1) In the case of a solar energy project, seven thousand 110971
dollars per megawatt of nameplate capacity located in the county 110972
as of December 31, 2010, for tax year 2011, as of December 31, 110973
2011, for tax year 2012, as of December 31, 2012, for tax year 110974
2013, as of December 31, 2013, for tax year 2014, and as of 110975
December 31, 2014, for tax year 2015, as of December 31, 2015, for 110976
tax year 2016, as of December 31, 2016, for tax year 2017, as of 110977
December 31, 2017, for tax year 2018, as of December 31, 2018, for 110978
tax year 2019, and as of December 31, 2019, for tax year 2020 and 110979
each tax year thereafter; 110980

       (2) In the case of any other energy project using renewable 110981
energy resources, the following: 110982

       (a) If the project maintains during the construction or 110983
installation of the energy facility a ratio of Ohio-domiciled 110984
full-time equivalent employees to total full-time equivalent 110985
employees of not less than seventy-five per cent, six thousand 110986
dollars per megawatt of nameplate capacity located in the county 110987
as of the thirty-first day of December of the preceding tax year; 110988

       (b) If the project maintains during the construction or 110989
installation of the energy facility a ratio of Ohio-domiciled 110990
full-time equivalent employees to total full-time equivalent 110991
employees of less than seventy-five per cent but not less than 110992
sixty per cent, seven thousand dollars per megawatt of nameplate 110993
capacity located in the county as of the thirty-first day of 110994
December of the preceding tax year; 110995

       (c) If the project maintains during the construction or 110996
installation of the energy facility a ratio of Ohio-domiciled 110997
full-time equivalent employees to total full-time equivalent 110998
employees of less than sixty per cent but not less than fifty per 110999
cent, eight thousand dollars per megawatt of nameplate capacity 111000
located in the county as of the thirty-first day of December of 111001
the preceding tax year. 111002

       (3) In the case of an energy project using clean coal 111003
technology, advanced nuclear technology, or cogeneration 111004
technology, the following: 111005

       (a) If the project maintains during the construction or 111006
installation of the energy facility a ratio of Ohio-domiciled 111007
full-time equivalent employees to total full-time equivalent 111008
employees of not less than seventy-five per cent, six thousand 111009
dollars per megawatt of nameplate capacity located in the county 111010
as of the thirty-first day of December of the preceding tax year; 111011

       (b) If the project maintains during the construction or 111012
installation of the energy facility a ratio of Ohio-domiciled 111013
full-time equivalent employees to total full-time equivalent 111014
employees of less than seventy-five per cent but not less than 111015
sixty per cent, seven thousand dollars per megawatt of nameplate 111016
capacity located in the county as of the thirty-first day of 111017
December of the preceding tax year; 111018

       (c) If the project maintains during the construction or 111019
installation of the energy facility a ratio of Ohio-domiciled 111020
full-time equivalent employees to total full-time equivalent 111021
employees of less than sixty per cent but not less than fifty per 111022
cent, eight thousand dollars per megawatt of nameplate capacity 111023
located in the county as of the thirty-first day of December of 111024
the preceding tax year. 111025

       (H) The director of development services in consultation with 111026
the tax commissioner shall adopt rules pursuant to Chapter 119. of 111027
the Revised Code to implement and enforce this section.111028

       Sec. 5727.84.  (A) As used in this section and sections 111029
5727.85, 5727.86, and 5727.87 of the Revised Code:111030

       (1) "School district" means a city, local, or exempted 111031
village school district.111032

       (2) "Joint vocational school district" means a joint 111033
vocational school district created under section 3311.16 of the 111034
Revised Code, and includes a cooperative education school district 111035
created under section 3311.52 or 3311.521 of the Revised Code and 111036
a county school financing district created under section 3311.50 111037
of the Revised Code.111038

       (3) "Local taxing unit" means a subdivision or taxing unit, 111039
as defined in section 5705.01 of the Revised Code, a park district 111040
created under Chapter 1545. of the Revised Code, or a township 111041
park district established under section 511.23 of the Revised 111042
Code, but excludes school districts and joint vocational school 111043
districts.111044

       (4) "State education aid," for a school district, means the 111045
following:111046

       (a) For fiscal years prior to fiscal year 2010, the sum of 111047
state aid amounts computed for the district under former sections 111048
3317.029, 3317.052, and 3317.053 of the Revised Code and the 111049
following provisions, as they existed for the applicable fiscal 111050
year: divisions (A), (C)(1), (C)(4), (D), (E), and (F) of section 111051
3317.022; divisions (B), (C), and (D) of section 3317.023; 111052
divisions (G), (L), and (N) of section 3317.024; and sections 111053
3317.029, 3317.0216, 3317.0217, 3317.04, and 3317.05, 3317.052, 111054
and 3317.053 of the Revised Code; and the adjustments required by: 111055
division (C) of section 3310.08; division (C)(2) of section 111056
3310.41; division (C) of section 3314.08; division (D)(2) of 111057
section 3314.091; division (D) of former section 3314.13; 111058
divisions (E), (K), (L), (M), and (N) of section 3317.023; 111059
division (C) of section 3317.20; and sections 3313.979 and 111060
3313.981 of the Revised Code. However, when calculating state 111061
education aid for a school district for fiscal years 2008 and 111062
2009, include the amount computed for the district under Section 111063
269.20.80 of H.B. 119 of the 127th general assembly, as 111064
subsequently amended, instead of division (D) of section 3317.022 111065
of the Revised Code; and include amounts calculated under Section 111066
269.30.80 of H.B. 119 of the 127th general assembly, as 111067
subsequently amended.111068

       (b) For fiscal years 2010 and 2011, the sum of the amounts 111069
computed for the district under former sections 3306.052, 3306.12, 111070
3306.13, 3306.19, 3306.191, and 3306.192, 3317.052, and 3317.053111071
of the Revised Code and the following provisions, as they existed 111072
for the applicable fiscal year: division (G) of section 3317.024; 111073
sectionssection 3317.05, 3317.052, and 3317.053 of the Revised 111074
Code; and the adjustments required by division (C) of section 111075
3310.08; division (C)(2) of section 3310.41; division (C) of 111076
section 3314.08; division (D)(2) of section 3314.091; division (D) 111077
of former section 3314.13; divisions (E), (K), (L), (M), and (N) 111078
of section 3317.023; division (C) of section 3317.20; and sections 111079
3313.979, 3313.981, and 3326.33 of the Revised Code.111080

       (c) For fiscal years 2012 and 2013, the amount paid in 111081
accordance with the section of H.B. 153 of the 129th general 111082
assembly entitled "FUNDING FOR CITY, EXEMPTED VILLAGE, AND LOCAL 111083
SCHOOL DISTRICTS" and the adjustments required by division (C) of 111084
section 3310.08; division (C)(2) of section 3310.41; section 111085
3310.55; division (C) of section 3314.08; division (D)(2) of 111086
section 3314.091; division (D) of former section 3314.13; 111087
divisions (B), (H), (I), (J), and (K) of section 3317.023; 111088
division (C) of section 3317.20; and sections 3313.979 and 111089
3313.981 of the Revised Code;111090

       (d) For fiscal year 2014 and each fiscal year thereafter, the 111091
sum of amounts computed for and paid to the district under section 111092
3317.022 of the Revised Code; and the adjustments required by 111093
division (C) of section 3310.08, division (C)(2) of section 111094
3310.41, section 3310.55, division (C) of section 3314.08, 111095
division (D)(2) of section 3314.091, divisions (B), (H), (J), and 111096
(K) of section 3317.023, and sections 3313.978, 3313.981, 111097
3317.0212, 3317.0213, 3317.0214, and 3326.33 of the Revised Code. 111098
However, for fiscal years 2014 and 2015, the amount computed for 111099
the district under the section of this act entitled "TRANSITIONAL 111100
AID FOR CITY, LOCAL, AND EXEMPTED VILLAGE SCHOOL DISTRICTS" also 111101
shall be included.111102

       (5) "State education aid," for a joint vocational school 111103
district, means the following:111104

       (a) For fiscal years prior to fiscal year 2010, the sum of 111105
the state aid amounts computed for the district under division (N) 111106
of section 3317.024 and section 3317.16 of the Revised Code. 111107
However, when calculating state education aid for a joint 111108
vocational school district for fiscal years 2008 and 2009, include 111109
the amount computed for the district under Section 269.30.90 of 111110
H.B. 119 of the 127th general assembly, as subsequently amended.111111

       (b) For fiscal years 2010 and 2011, the amount computed for 111112
the district in accordance with the section of H.B. 1 of the 128th 111113
general assembly entitled "FUNDING FOR JOINT VOCATIONAL SCHOOL 111114
DISTRICTS"."111115

       (c) For fiscal years 2012 and 2013, the amount paid in 111116
accordance with the section of H.B. 153 of the 129th general 111117
assembly entitled "FUNDING FOR JOINT VOCATIONAL SCHOOL DISTRICTS."111118

       (d) For fiscal year 2014 and each fiscal year thereafter, the 111119
amount computed for the district under section 3317.16 of the 111120
Revised Code; except that, for fiscal years 2014 and 2015, the 111121
amount computed for the district under the section of this act 111122
entitled "TRANSITIONAL AID FOR JOINT VOCATIONAL SCHOOL DISTRICTS" 111123
shall be included.111124

        (6) "State education aid offset" means the amount determined 111125
for each school district or joint vocational school district under 111126
division (A)(1) of section 5727.85 of the Revised Code.111127

       (7) "Recognized valuation" has the same meaning as inmeans 111128
the amount computed for a school district pursuant to section 111129
3317.023317.015 of the Revised Code.111130

       (8) "Electric company tax value loss" means the amount 111131
determined under division (D) of this section.111132

       (9) "Natural gas company tax value loss" means the amount 111133
determined under division (E) of this section.111134

       (10) "Tax value loss" means the sum of the electric company 111135
tax value loss and the natural gas company tax value loss.111136

       (11) "Fixed-rate levy" means any tax levied on property other 111137
than a fixed-sum levy.111138

       (12) "Fixed-rate levy loss" means the amount determined under 111139
division (G) of this section.111140

       (13) "Fixed-sum levy" means a tax levied on property at 111141
whatever rate is required to produce a specified amount of tax 111142
money or levied in excess of the ten-mill limitation to pay debt 111143
charges, and includes school district emergency levies charged and 111144
payable pursuant to section 5705.194 of the Revised Code.111145

       (14) "Fixed-sum levy loss" means the amount determined under 111146
division (H) of this section.111147

       (15) "Consumer price index" means the consumer price index 111148
(all items, all urban consumers) prepared by the bureau of labor 111149
statistics of the United States department of labor.111150

       (16) "Total resources" and "total library resources" have the 111151
same meanings as in section 5751.20 of the Revised Code.111152

       (17) "2011 current expense S.B. 3 allocation" means the sum 111153
of payments received by a school district or joint vocational 111154
school district in fiscal year 2011 for current expense levy 111155
losses pursuant to division (C)(2) of section 5727.85 of the 111156
Revised Code. If a fixed-rate levy eligible for reimbursement is 111157
not charged and payable in any year after tax year 2010, "2011 111158
current expense S.B. 3 allocation" used to compute payments to be 111159
made under division (C)(3) of section 5727.85 of the Revised Code 111160
in the tax years following the last year the levy is charged and 111161
payable shall be reduced to the extent that those payments are 111162
attributable to the fixed-rate levy loss of that levy.111163

       (18) "2010 current expense S.B. 3 allocation" means the sum 111164
of payments received by a municipal corporation in calendar year 111165
2010 for current expense levy losses pursuant to division (A)(1) 111166
of section 5727.86 of the Revised Code, excluding any such 111167
payments received for current expense levy losses attributable to 111168
a tax levied under section 5705.23 of the Revised Code. If a 111169
fixed-rate levy eligible for reimbursement is not charged and 111170
payable in any year after tax year 2010, "2010 current expense 111171
S.B. 3 allocation" used to compute payments to be made under 111172
division (A)(1)(d) or (e) of section 5727.86 of the Revised Code 111173
in the tax years following the last year the levy is charged and 111174
payable shall be reduced to the extent that those payments are 111175
attributable to the fixed-rate levy loss of that levy.111176

       (19) "2010 S.B. 3 allocation" means the sum of payments 111177
received by a local taxing unit during calendar year 2010 pursuant 111178
to division (A)(1) of section 5727.86 of the Revised Code, 111179
excluding any such payments received for fixed-rate levy losses 111180
attributable to a tax levied under section 5705.23 of the Revised 111181
Code. If a fixed-rate levy eligible for reimbursement is not 111182
charged and payable in any year after tax year 2010, "2010 S.B. 3 111183
allocation" used to compute payments to be made under division 111184
(A)(1)(d) or (e) of section 5727.86 of the Revised Code in the tax 111185
years following the last year the levy is charged and payable 111186
shall be reduced to the extent that those payments are 111187
attributable to the fixed-rate levy loss of that levy.111188

       (20) "Total S.B. 3 allocation" means, in the case of a school 111189
district or joint vocational school district, the sum of the 111190
payments received in fiscal year 2011 pursuant to divisions (C)(2) 111191
and (D) of section 5727.85 of the Revised Code. In the case of a 111192
local taxing unit, "total S.B. 3 allocation" means the sum of 111193
payments received by the unit in calendar year 2010 pursuant to 111194
divisions (A)(1) and (4) of section 5727.86 of the Revised Code, 111195
excluding any such payments received for fixed-rate levy losses 111196
attributable to a tax levied under section 5705.23 of the Revised 111197
Code. If a fixed-rate levy eligible for reimbursement is not 111198
charged and payable in any year after tax year 2010, "total S.B. 3 111199
allocation" used to compute payments to be made under division 111200
(C)(3) of section 5727.85 or division (A)(1)(d) or (e) of section 111201
5727.86 of the Revised Code in the tax years following the last 111202
year the levy is charged and payable shall be reduced to the 111203
extent that those payments are attributable to the fixed-rate levy 111204
loss of that levy as would be computed under division (C)(2) of 111205
section 5727.85 or division (A)(1)(b) of section 5727.86 of the 111206
Revised Code.111207

       (21) "2011 non-current expense S.B. 3 allocation" means the 111208
difference of a school district's or joint vocational school 111209
district's total S.B. 3 allocation minus the sum of the school 111210
district's 2011 current expense S.B. 3 allocation and the portion 111211
of the school district's total S.B. 3 allocation constituting 111212
reimbursement for debt levies pursuant to division (D) of section 111213
5727.85 of the Revised Code.111214

       (22) "2010 non-current expense S.B. 3 allocation" means the 111215
difference of a municipal corporation's total S.B. 3 allocation 111216
minus the sum of its 2010 current expense S.B. 3 allocation and 111217
the portion of its total S.B. 3 allocation constituting 111218
reimbursement for debt levies pursuant to division (A)(4) of 111219
section 5727.86 of the Revised Code. 111220

       (23) "S.B. 3 allocation for library purposes" means, in the 111221
case of a county, municipal corporation, school district, or 111222
township public library that receives the proceeds of a tax levied 111223
under section 5705.23 of the Revised Code, the sum of the payments 111224
received by the public library in calendar year 2010 pursuant to 111225
section 5727.86 of the Revised Code for fixed-rate levy losses 111226
attributable to a tax levied under section 5705.23 of the Revised 111227
Code. If a fixed-rate levy authorized under section 5705.23 of the 111228
Revised Code that is eligible for reimbursement is not charged and 111229
payable in any year after tax year 2010, "S.B. 3 allocation for 111230
library purposes" used to compute payments to be made under 111231
division (A)(1)(f) of section 5727.86 of the Revised Code in the 111232
tax years following the last year the levy is charged and payable 111233
shall be reduced to the extent that those payments are 111234
attributable to the fixed-rate levy loss of that levy as would be 111235
computed under division (A)(1)(b) of section 5727.86 of the 111236
Revised Code.111237

        (24) "Threshold per cent" means, in the case of a school 111238
district or joint vocational school district, two per cent for 111239
fiscal year 2012 and four per cent for fiscal years 2013 and 111240
thereafter. In the case of a local taxing unit or public library 111241
that receives the proceeds of a tax levied under section 5705.23 111242
of the Revised Code, "threshold per cent" means two per cent for 111243
calendar year 2011, four per cent for calendar year 2012, and six 111244
per cent for calendar years 2013 and thereafter.111245

       (B) The kilowatt-hour tax receipts fund is hereby created in 111246
the state treasury and shall consist of money arising from the tax 111247
imposed by section 5727.81 of the Revised Code. All money in the 111248
kilowatt-hour tax receipts fund shall be credited as follows:111249

Fiscal Year General Revenue Fund School District Property Tax Replacement Fund Local Government Property Tax Replacement Fund 111250
2001-2011 63.0% 25.4% 11.6% 111251
2012 and thereafter 88.0% 9.0% 3.0% 111252

       (C) The natural gas tax receipts fund is hereby created in 111253
the state treasury and shall consist of money arising from the tax 111254
imposed by section 5727.811 of the Revised Code. All money in the 111255
fund shall be credited as follows:111256

       (1) For fiscal years before fiscal year 2012:111257

       (a) Sixty-eight and seven-tenths per cent shall be credited 111258
to the school district property tax replacement fund for the 111259
purpose of making the payments described in section 5727.85 of the 111260
Revised Code.111261

       (b) Thirty-one and three-tenths per cent shall be credited to 111262
the local government property tax replacement fund for the purpose 111263
of making the payments described in section 5727.86 of the Revised 111264
Code.111265

       (2) For fiscal years 2012 and thereafter, one hundred per 111266
cent to the general revenue fund.111267

       (D) Not later than January 1, 2002, the tax commissioner 111268
shall determine for each taxing district its electric company tax 111269
value loss, which is the sum of the applicable amounts described 111270
in divisions (D)(1) to (4) of this section:111271

       (1) The difference obtained by subtracting the amount 111272
described in division (D)(1)(b) from the amount described in 111273
division (D)(1)(a) of this section.111274

       (a) The value of electric company and rural electric company 111275
tangible personal property as assessed by the tax commissioner for 111276
tax year 1998 on a preliminary assessment, or an amended 111277
preliminary assessment if issued prior to March 1, 1999, and as 111278
apportioned to the taxing district for tax year 1998;111279

       (b) The value of electric company and rural electric company 111280
tangible personal property as assessed by the tax commissioner for 111281
tax year 1998 had the property been apportioned to the taxing 111282
district for tax year 2001, and assessed at the rates in effect 111283
for tax year 2001.111284

       (2) The difference obtained by subtracting the amount 111285
described in division (D)(2)(b) from the amount described in 111286
division (D)(2)(a) of this section.111287

       (a) The three-year average for tax years 1996, 1997, and 1998 111288
of the assessed value from nuclear fuel materials and assemblies 111289
assessed against a person under Chapter 5711. of the Revised Code 111290
from the leasing of them to an electric company for those 111291
respective tax years, as reflected in the preliminary assessments;111292

       (b) The three-year average assessed value from nuclear fuel 111293
materials and assemblies assessed under division (D)(2)(a) of this 111294
section for tax years 1996, 1997, and 1998, as reflected in the 111295
preliminary assessments, using an assessment rate of twenty-five 111296
per cent.111297

       (3) In the case of a taxing district having a nuclear power 111298
plant within its territory, any amount, resulting in an electric 111299
company tax value loss, obtained by subtracting the amount 111300
described in division (D)(1) of this section from the difference 111301
obtained by subtracting the amount described in division (D)(3)(b) 111302
of this section from the amount described in division (D)(3)(a) of 111303
this section.111304

        (a) The value of electric company tangible personal property 111305
as assessed by the tax commissioner for tax year 2000 on a 111306
preliminary assessment, or an amended preliminary assessment if 111307
issued prior to March 1, 2001, and as apportioned to the taxing 111308
district for tax year 2000;111309

        (b) The value of electric company tangible personal property 111310
as assessed by the tax commissioner for tax year 2001 on a 111311
preliminary assessment, or an amended preliminary assessment if 111312
issued prior to March 1, 2002, and as apportioned to the taxing 111313
district for tax year 2001.111314

       (4) In the case of a taxing district having a nuclear power 111315
plant within its territory, the difference obtained by subtracting 111316
the amount described in division (D)(4)(b) of this section from 111317
the amount described in division (D)(4)(a) of this section, 111318
provided that such difference is greater than ten per cent of the 111319
amount described in division (D)(4)(a) of this section.111320

        (a) The value of electric company tangible personal property 111321
as assessed by the tax commissioner for tax year 2005 on a 111322
preliminary assessment, or an amended preliminary assessment if 111323
issued prior to March 1, 2006, and as apportioned to the taxing 111324
district for tax year 2005;111325

        (b) The value of electric company tangible personal property 111326
as assessed by the tax commissioner for tax year 2006 on a 111327
preliminary assessment, or an amended preliminary assessment if 111328
issued prior to March 1, 2007, and as apportioned to the taxing 111329
district for tax year 2006.111330

       (E) Not later than January 1, 2002, the tax commissioner 111331
shall determine for each taxing district its natural gas company 111332
tax value loss, which is the sum of the amounts described in 111333
divisions (E)(1) and (2) of this section:111334

       (1) The difference obtained by subtracting the amount 111335
described in division (E)(1)(b) from the amount described in 111336
division (E)(1)(a) of this section.111337

       (a) The value of all natural gas company tangible personal 111338
property, other than property described in division (E)(2) of this 111339
section, as assessed by the tax commissioner for tax year 1999 on 111340
a preliminary assessment, or an amended preliminary assessment if 111341
issued prior to March 1, 2000, and apportioned to the taxing 111342
district for tax year 1999;111343

       (b) The value of all natural gas company tangible personal 111344
property, other than property described in division (E)(2) of this 111345
section, as assessed by the tax commissioner for tax year 1999 had 111346
the property been apportioned to the taxing district for tax year 111347
2001, and assessed at the rates in effect for tax year 2001.111348

       (2) The difference in the value of current gas obtained by 111349
subtracting the amount described in division (E)(2)(b) from the 111350
amount described in division (E)(2)(a) of this section.111351

       (a) The three-year average assessed value of current gas as 111352
assessed by the tax commissioner for tax years 1997, 1998, and 111353
1999 on a preliminary assessment, or an amended preliminary 111354
assessment if issued prior to March 1, 2001, and as apportioned in 111355
the taxing district for those respective years;111356

       (b) The three-year average assessed value from current gas 111357
under division (E)(2)(a) of this section for tax years 1997, 1998, 111358
and 1999, as reflected in the preliminary assessment, using an 111359
assessment rate of twenty-five per cent.111360

       (F) The tax commissioner may request that natural gas 111361
companies, electric companies, and rural electric companies file a 111362
report to help determine the tax value loss under divisions (D) 111363
and (E) of this section. The report shall be filed within thirty 111364
days of the commissioner's request. A company that fails to file 111365
the report or does not timely file the report is subject to the 111366
penalty in section 5727.60 of the Revised Code.111367

       (G) Not later than January 1, 2002, the tax commissioner 111368
shall determine for each school district, joint vocational school 111369
district, and local taxing unit its fixed-rate levy loss, which is 111370
the sum of its electric company tax value loss multiplied by the 111371
tax rate in effect in tax year 1998 for fixed-rate levies and its 111372
natural gas company tax value loss multiplied by the tax rate in 111373
effect in tax year 1999 for fixed-rate levies.111374

       (H) Not later than January 1, 2002, the tax commissioner 111375
shall determine for each school district, joint vocational school 111376
district, and local taxing unit its fixed-sum levy loss, which is 111377
the amount obtained by subtracting the amount described in 111378
division (H)(2) of this section from the amount described in 111379
division (H)(1) of this section:111380

       (1) The sum of the electric company tax value loss multiplied 111381
by the tax rate in effect in tax year 1998, and the natural gas 111382
company tax value loss multiplied by the tax rate in effect in tax 111383
year 1999, for fixed-sum levies for all taxing districts within 111384
each school district, joint vocational school district, and local 111385
taxing unit. For the years 2002 through 2006, this computation 111386
shall include school district emergency levies that existed in 111387
1998 in the case of the electric company tax value loss, and 1999 111388
in the case of the natural gas company tax value loss, and all 111389
other fixed-sum levies that existed in 1998 in the case of the 111390
electric company tax value loss and 1999 in the case of the 111391
natural gas company tax value loss and continue to be charged in 111392
the tax year preceding the distribution year. For the years 2007 111393
through 2016 in the case of school district emergency levies, and 111394
for all years after 2006 in the case of all other fixed-sum 111395
levies, this computation shall exclude all fixed-sum levies that 111396
existed in 1998 in the case of the electric company tax value loss 111397
and 1999 in the case of the natural gas company tax value loss, 111398
but are no longer in effect in the tax year preceding the 111399
distribution year. For the purposes of this section, an emergency 111400
levy that existed in 1998 in the case of the electric company tax 111401
value loss, and 1999 in the case of the natural gas company tax 111402
value loss, continues to exist in a year beginning on or after 111403
January 1, 2007, but before January 1, 2017, if, in that year, the 111404
board of education levies a school district emergency levy for an 111405
annual sum at least equal to the annual sum levied by the board in 111406
tax year 1998 or 1999, respectively, less the amount of the 111407
payment certified under this division for 2002.111408

       (2) The total taxable value in tax year 1999 less the tax 111409
value loss in each school district, joint vocational school 111410
district, and local taxing unit multiplied by one-fourth of one 111411
mill.111412

       If the amount computed under division (H) of this section for 111413
any school district, joint vocational school district, or local 111414
taxing unit is greater than zero, that amount shall equal the 111415
fixed-sum levy loss reimbursed pursuant to division (F) of section 111416
5727.85 of the Revised Code or division (A)(2) of section 5727.86 111417
of the Revised Code, and the one-fourth of one mill that is 111418
subtracted under division (H)(2) of this section shall be 111419
apportioned among all contributing fixed-sum levies in the 111420
proportion of each levy to the sum of all fixed-sum levies within 111421
each school district, joint vocational school district, or local 111422
taxing unit.111423

       (I) Notwithstanding divisions (D), (E), (G), and (H) of this 111424
section, in computing the tax value loss, fixed-rate levy loss, 111425
and fixed-sum levy loss, the tax commissioner shall use the 111426
greater of the 1998 tax rate or the 1999 tax rate in the case of 111427
levy losses associated with the electric company tax value loss, 111428
but the 1999 tax rate shall not include for this purpose any tax 111429
levy approved by the voters after June 30, 1999, and the tax 111430
commissioner shall use the greater of the 1999 or the 2000 tax 111431
rate in the case of levy losses associated with the natural gas 111432
company tax value loss.111433

       (J) Not later than January 1, 2002, the tax commissioner 111434
shall certify to the department of education the tax value loss 111435
determined under divisions (D) and (E) of this section for each 111436
taxing district, the fixed-rate levy loss calculated under 111437
division (G) of this section, and the fixed-sum levy loss 111438
calculated under division (H) of this section. The calculations 111439
under divisions (G) and (H) of this section shall separately 111440
display the levy loss for each levy eligible for reimbursement.111441

       (K) Not later than September 1, 2001, the tax commissioner 111442
shall certify the amount of the fixed-sum levy loss to the county 111443
auditor of each county in which a school district with a fixed-sum 111444
levy loss has territory.111445

       Sec. 5727.89.  (A) The tax commissioner may make an 111446
assessment, based on any information in the commissioner's 111447
possession, against any natural gas distribution company, electric 111448
distribution company, self-assessing purchaser, or qualified end 111449
user that fails to file a return or pay any tax, interest, or 111450
additional charge as required by sections 5727.80 to 5727.95 of 111451
the Revised Code.111452

       When information in the possession of the tax commissioner 111453
indicates that a person liable for the tax imposed by section 111454
5727.81 or 5727.811 of the Revised Code has not paid the full 111455
amount of tax due, the commissioner may audit a representative 111456
sample of the person's business and may issue an assessment based 111457
on the audit. The commissioner shall give the person assessed 111458
written notice of the assessment in the manner provided in section 111459
5703.37 of the Revised Code. With the notice, the commissioner 111460
shall provide instructions on how to petition for reassessment and 111461
request a hearing on the petition.111462

       The tax commissioner may issue an assessment for which the 111463
tax imposed by section 5727.81 or 5727.811 of the Revised Code was 111464
due and unpaid on the date the person was informed by an agent of 111465
the tax commissioner of an investigation or audit of the person. 111466
Any payment of the tax for the period covered by the assessment, 111467
after the person is so informed, shall be credited against the 111468
assessment.111469

       A penalty of up to fifteen per cent may be added to all 111470
amounts assessed under this section. The commissioner may adopt 111471
rules providing for the imposition and remission of penalties.111472

       (B) Unless the party assessed files with the tax commissioner 111473
within sixty days after service of the notice of assessment, 111474
either personally or by certified mail, a written petition for 111475
reassessment signed by the party assessed or that party's 111476
authorized agent having knowledge of the facts, the assessment 111477
becomes final and the amount of the assessment is due and payable 111478
from the party assessed to the treasurer of state. The petition 111479
shall indicate the objections of the party assessed, but 111480
additional objections may be raised in writing if received by the 111481
commissioner prior to the date shown on the final determination. 111482
If the petition has been properly filed, the commissioner shall 111483
proceed under section 5703.60 of the Revised Code.111484

       (C) After an assessment becomes final, if any portion of the 111485
assessment, including accrued interest, remains unpaid, a 111486
certified copy of the tax commissioner's entry making the 111487
assessment final may be filed in the office of the clerk of the 111488
court of common pleas in the county in which the party assessed 111489
resides or in which the party's business is conducted. If the 111490
party assessed maintains no place of business in this state and is 111491
not a resident of this state, the certified copy of the entry may 111492
be filed in the office of the clerk of the court of common pleas 111493
of Franklin county.111494

       Immediately upon the filing of the entry, the clerk shall 111495
enter a judgment for the state against the person assessed in the 111496
amount shown on the entry. The judgment may be filed by the clerk 111497
in a loose-leaf book entitled "special judgments for the 111498
distribution excise taxes," and shall have the same effect as 111499
other judgments. Execution shall issue upon the judgment at the 111500
request of the tax commissioner, and all laws applicable to sales 111501
on execution shall apply to sales made under the judgment.111502

       The portion ofIf the assessment is not paid in its entirety111503
within sixty days after the day the assessment was issued, the 111504
portion of the assessment consisting of tax due shall bear 111505
interest at the rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of 111506
the Revised Code from the day the tax commissioner issues the 111507
assessment until the day the assessment is paid or until it is 111508
certified to the attorney general for collection under section 111509
131.02 of the Revised Code, whichever comes first. If the unpaid 111510
portion of the assessment is certified to the attorney general for 111511
collection, the entire unpaid portion of the assessment shall bear 111512
interest at the rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of 111513
the Revised Code from the date of certification until the date it 111514
is paid in its entirety. Interest shall be paid in the same manner 111515
as the tax and may be collected by the issuance of an assessment 111516
under this section.111517

       (D) If the tax commissioner believes that collection of the 111518
tax imposed by section 5727.81 or 5727.811 of the Revised Code 111519
will be jeopardized unless proceedings to collect or secure 111520
collection of the tax are instituted without delay, the 111521
commissioner may issue a jeopardy assessment against the person 111522
liable for the tax. Immediately upon the issuance of the jeopardy 111523
assessment, the commissioner shall file an entry with the clerk of 111524
the court of common pleas in the manner prescribed by division (C) 111525
of this section. Notice of the jeopardy assessment shall be served 111526
on the party assessed or the party's legal representative within 111527
five days of the filing of the entry with the clerk. The total 111528
amount assessed is immediately due and payable, unless the party 111529
assessed files a petition for reassessment in accordance with 111530
division (B) of this section and provides security in a form 111531
satisfactory to the commissioner and in an amount sufficient to 111532
satisfy the unpaid balance of the assessment. Full or partial 111533
payment of the assessment does not prejudice the commissioner's 111534
consideration of the petition for reassessment.111535

       (E) All money collected by the tax commissioner under this 111536
section shall be paid to the treasurer of state, and when paid 111537
shall be considered as revenue arising from the taxes imposed by 111538
sections 5727.81 and 5727.811 of the Revised Code.111539

       Sec. 5728.10.  (A) If any person required to file a fuel use 111540
tax return by sections 5728.01 to 5728.14 of the Revised Code, 111541
fails to file the return within the time prescribed by those 111542
sections, files an incomplete return, files an incorrect return, 111543
or fails to remit the full amount of the tax due for the period 111544
covered by the return, the tax commissioner may make an assessment 111545
against the person, based upon any information in the 111546
commissioner's possession, for the period for which the tax was 111547
due.111548

       No assessment shall be made against any person for any tax 111549
imposed by this chapter more than four years after the return date 111550
for the period for which the tax was due or more than four years 111551
after the return for the period was filed, whichever is later. 111552
This section does not bar an assessment against any person who 111553
fails to file a fuel use tax return as required by this chapter, 111554
or who files a fraudulent fuel use tax return.111555

       A penalty of up to fifteen per cent may be added to the 111556
amount of every assessment made pursuant to this section. The 111557
commissioner may adopt rules providing for the imposition and 111558
remission of penalties added to assessments made under this 111559
section.111560

       The commissioner shall give the party assessed written notice 111561
of the assessment in the manner provided in section 5703.37 of the 111562
Revised Code. With the notice, the commissioner shall provide 111563
instructions on how to petition for reassessment and request a 111564
hearing on the petition.111565

       (B) Unless the party assessed files with the tax commissioner 111566
within sixty days after service of the notice of assessment, 111567
either personally or by certified mail, a written petition for 111568
reassessment, signed by the party assessed, or by the party's 111569
authorized agent having knowledge of the facts, the assessment 111570
becomes final and the amount of the assessment is due and payable 111571
from the party assessed to the treasurer of state. The petition 111572
shall indicate the objections of the party assessed, but 111573
additional objections may be raised in writing if received by the 111574
commissioner prior to the date shown on the final determination. 111575
If the petition has been properly filed, the commissioner shall 111576
proceed under section 5703.60 of the Revised Code.111577

       (C) After an assessment becomes final, if any portion of the 111578
assessment remains unpaid, including accrued interest, a certified 111579
copy of the tax commissioner's entry making the assessment final 111580
may be filed in the office of the clerk of the court of common 111581
pleas in the county in which the party's place of business is 111582
located or the county in which the party assessed resides. If the 111583
party maintains no office in this state and is not a resident of 111584
this state, the certified copy of the entry may be filed in the 111585
office of the clerk of the court of common pleas of Franklin 111586
county.111587

       Immediately upon the filing of the entry, the clerk shall 111588
enter a judgment for the state of Ohio against the party assessed 111589
in the amount shown on the entry. The judgment may be filed by the 111590
clerk in a loose-leaf book entitled "special judgments for state 111591
fuel use tax," and shall have the same effect as other judgments. 111592
Execution shall issue upon the judgment upon the request of the 111593
commissioner, and all laws applicable to sales on execution shall 111594
apply to sales made under the judgment.111595

       The portion ofIf the assessment is not paid within sixty 111596
days after the day the assessment was issued, the portion of the 111597
assessment consisting of tax due shall bear interest at the rate 111598
per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of the Revised Code from 111599
the day the commissioner issues the assessment until it is paid or 111600
until it is certified to the attorney general for collection under 111601
section 131.02 of the Revised Code, whichever comes first. If the 111602
unpaid portion of the assessment is certified to the attorney 111603
general for collection, the entire unpaid portion of the 111604
assessment shall bear interest at the rate per annum prescribed by 111605
section 5703.47 of the Revised Code from the date of certification 111606
until the date it is paid in its entirety. Interest shall be paid 111607
in the same manner as the tax and may be collected by the issuance 111608
of an assessment under this section.111609

       (D) All money collected by the tax commissioner under this 111610
section shall be paid into the state treasury in the same manner 111611
as the revenues deriving from the taxes imposed by section 5728.06 111612
of the Revised Code.111613

       Sec. 5729.03.  (A) If the superintendent of insurance finds 111614
the annual statement required by section 5729.02 of the Revised 111615
Code to be correct, the superintendent shall compute the following 111616
amount, as applicable, of the balance of such gross amount, after 111617
deducting such return premiums and considerations received for 111618
reinsurance, and charge such amount to such company as a tax upon 111619
the business done by it in this state for the period covered by 111620
such annual statement:111621

       (1) If the company is a health insuring corporation, one per 111622
cent of the balance of premium rate payments received, exclusive 111623
of payments received under the medicare program established under 111624
Title XVIII of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 111625
U.S.C.A. 301, as amended, and exclusive of payments received 111626
pursuant to the medical assistancemedicaid program established 111627
under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code for the period ending 111628
September 30, 2009, as reflected in its annual report;111629

       (2) If the company is not a health insuring corporation, one 111630
and four-tenths per cent of the balance of premiums received, 111631
exclusive of premiums received under the medicare program 111632
established under Title XVIII of the "Social Security Act," 49 111633
Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended, and exclusive of 111634
payments received pursuant to the medical assistancemedicaid111635
program established under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code for 111636
the period ending September 30, 2009, as reflected in its annual 111637
statement, and, if the company operates a health insuring 111638
corporation as a line of business, one per cent of the balance of 111639
premium rate payments received from that line of business, 111640
exclusive of payments received under the medicare program 111641
established under Title XVIII of the "Social Security Act," 49 111642
Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended, and exclusive of 111643
payments received pursuant to the medical assistancemedicaid111644
program established under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code for 111645
the period ending September 30, 2009, as reflected in its annual 111646
statement.111647

       Each foreign insurance company, including health insuring 111648
corporations, receiving payments pursuant to the medical 111649
assistancemedicaid program established under Chapter 5111. of the 111650
Revised Code during the period beginning October 1, 2009, and 111651
ending December 31, 2009, shall file with the 2009 annual 111652
statement to the superintendent a schedule that reflects those 111653
payments received pursuant to the medical assistancemedicaid111654
program for that period. The payments reflected in the schedule, 111655
plus all other taxable premiums, are subject to the annual 111656
franchise tax due to be paid in 2010.111657

       (B) Any insurance policies that were not issued in violation 111658
of Title XXXIX of the Revised Code and that were issued prior to 111659
April 15, 1967, by a life insurance company organized and operated 111660
without profit to any private shareholder or individual, 111661
exclusively for the purpose of aiding educational or scientific 111662
institutions organized and operated without profit to any private 111663
shareholder or individual, are not subject to the tax imposed by 111664
this section. All taxes collected pursuant to this section shall 111665
be credited to the general revenue fund.111666

       (C) In no case shall the tax imposed under this section be 111667
less than two hundred fifty dollars.111668

       Sec. 5729.17.  (A) As used in this section, "certificate 111669
owner" has the same meaning as in section 149.311 of the Revised 111670
Code.111671

       (B) There is allowed a credit against the tax imposed by 111672
section 5729.03 of the Revised Code for an insurance company 111673
subject to that tax that is a certificate owner of a 111674
rehabilitation tax credit certificate issued under section 149.311 111675
of the Revised Code. The credit shall equal twenty-five per cent 111676
of the dollar amount indicated on the certificate, but the amount 111677
of the credit allowed for any company for any year shall not 111678
exceed fiveten million dollars. The credit shall be claimed in 111679
the calendar year specified in the certificate and in the order 111680
required under section 5729.98 of the Revised Code. If the credit 111681
exceeds the amount of tax otherwise due in that year, the excess 111682
shall be refunded to the company but, if any amount of the credit 111683
is refunded, the sum of the amount refunded and the amount applied 111684
to reduce the tax otherwise due in that year shall not exceed 111685
three million dollars. The company may carry forward any balance 111686
of the credit in excess of the amount claimed in that year for not 111687
more than five ensuing years, and shall deduct any amount claimed 111688
in any such year from the amount claimed in an ensuing year.111689

       (C) An insurance company claiming a credit under this section 111690
shall retain the rehabilitation tax credit certificate for four 111691
years following the end of the year in which the credit was 111692
claimed, and shall make the certificate available for inspection 111693
by the tax commissioner upon the request of the tax commissioner 111694
during that period.111695

       Sec. 5731.39.  This section does not apply to, and the 111696
written permission of the tax commissioner is not required for 111697
asset transfers with respect to, decedents dying on or after 111698
January 1, 2013.111699

       (A) No corporation organized or existing under the laws of 111700
this state shall transfer on its books or issue a new certificate 111701
for any share of its capital stock registered in the name of a 111702
decedent, or in trust for a decedent, or in the name of a decedent 111703
and another person or persons, without the written consent of the 111704
tax commissioner.111705

       (B) No safe deposit company, trust company, financial 111706
institution as defined in division (A) of section 5725.01 of the 111707
Revised Code, or other corporation or person, having in 111708
possession, control, or custody a deposit standing in the name of 111709
a decedent, or in trust for a decedent, or in the name of a 111710
decedent and another person or persons, shall deliver or transfer 111711
an amount in excess of three-fourths of the total value of such 111712
deposit, including accrued interest and dividends, as of the date 111713
of decedent's death, without the written consent of the tax 111714
commissioner. The written consent of the tax commissioner need not 111715
be obtained prior to the delivery or transfer of amounts having a 111716
value of three-fourths or less of said total value.111717

       (C) No life insurance company shall pay the proceeds of an 111718
annuity or matured endowment contract, or of a life insurance 111719
contract payable to the estate of a decedent, or of any other 111720
insurance contract taxable under Chapter 5731. of the Revised 111721
Code, without the written consent of the tax commissioner. Any 111722
life insurance company may pay the proceeds of any insurance 111723
contract not specified in this division (C) without the written 111724
consent of the tax commissioner.111725

       (D) No trust company or other corporation or person shall pay 111726
the proceeds of any death benefit, retirement, pension, or 111727
profit-sharing plan in excess of two thousand dollars, without the 111728
written consent of the tax commissioner. Such trust company or 111729
other corporation or person, however, may pay the proceeds of any 111730
death benefit, retirement, pension, or profit-sharing plan which 111731
consists of insurance on the life of the decedent payable to a 111732
beneficiary other than the estate of the insured without the 111733
written consent of the tax commissioner.111734

       (E) No safe deposit company, trust company, financial 111735
institution as defined in division (A) of section 5725.01 of the 111736
Revised Code, or other corporation or person, having in 111737
possession, control, or custody securities, assets, or other 111738
property (including the shares of the capital stock of, or other 111739
interest in, such safe deposit company, trust company, financial 111740
institution as defined in division (A) of section 5725.01 of the 111741
Revised Code, or other corporation), standing in the name of a 111742
decedent, or in trust for a decedent, or in the name of a decedent 111743
and another person or persons, and the transfer of which is 111744
taxable under Chapter 5731. of the Revised Code, shall deliver or 111745
transfer any such securities, assets, or other property which have 111746
a value as of the date of decedent's death in excess of 111747
three-fourths of the total value thereof, without the written 111748
consent of the tax commissioner. The written consent of the tax 111749
commissioner need not be obtained prior to the delivery or 111750
transfer of any such securities, assets, or other property having 111751
a value of three-fourths or less of said total value.111752

       (F) No safe deposit company, financial institution as defined 111753
in division (A) of section 5725.01 of the Revised Code, or other 111754
corporation or person having possession or control of a safe 111755
deposit box or similar receptacle standing in the name of a 111756
decedent or in the name of the decedent and another person or 111757
persons, or to which the decedent had a right of access, except 111758
when such safe deposit box or other receptacle stands in the name 111759
of a corporation or partnership, or in the name of the decedent as 111760
guardian or executor, shall deliver any of the contents thereof 111761
unless the safe deposit box or similar receptacle has been opened 111762
and inventoried in the presence of the tax commissioner or the 111763
commissioner's agent, and a written consent to transfer issued; 111764
provided, however, that a safe deposit company, financial 111765
institution, or other corporation or person having possession or 111766
control of a safe deposit box may deliver wills, deeds to burial 111767
lots, and insurance policies to a representative of the decedent, 111768
but that a representative of the safe deposit company, financial 111769
institution, or other corporation or person must supervise the 111770
opening of the box and make a written record of the wills, deeds, 111771
and policies removed. Such written record shall be included in the 111772
tax commissioner's inventory records.111773

       (G) Notwithstanding any provision of this section:111774

       (1) The tax commissioner may authorize any delivery or 111775
transfer or waive any of the foregoing requirements under such 111776
terms and conditions as the commissioner may prescribe;111777

       (2) A home, as defined in section 3721.10 of the Revised 111778
Code, or a residential facility licensed under section 5119.22111779
5119.34 of the Revised Code that provides accommodations, 111780
supervision, and personal care services for three to sixteen 111781
unrelated adults, may transfer or use the money in a personal 111782
needs allowance account in accordance with section 5111.113111783
5162.22 of the Revised Code without the written consent of the tax 111784
commissioner, and without the account having been opened and 111785
inventoried in the presence of the commissioner or the 111786
commissioner's agent. 111787

       Failure to comply with this section shall render such safe 111788
deposit company, trust company, life insurance company, financial 111789
institution as defined in division (A) of section 5725.01 of the 111790
Revised Code, or other corporation or person liable for the amount 111791
of the taxes and interest due under the provisions of Chapter 111792
5731. of the Revised Code on the transfer of such stock, deposit, 111793
proceeds of an annuity or matured endowment contract or of a life 111794
insurance contract payable to the estate of a decedent, or other 111795
insurance contract taxable under Chapter 5731. of the Revised 111796
Code, proceeds of any death benefit, retirement, pension, or 111797
profit-sharing plan in excess of two thousand dollars, or 111798
securities, assets, or other property of any resident decedent, 111799
and in addition thereto, to a penalty of not less than five 111800
hundred or more than five thousand dollars.111801

       Sec. 5733.01.  (A) The tax provided by this chapter for 111802
domestic corporations shall be the amount charged against each 111803
corporation organized for profit under the laws of this state and 111804
each nonprofit corporation organized pursuant to Chapter 1729. of 111805
the Revised Code, except as provided in sections 5733.09 and 111806
5733.10 of the Revised Code, for the privilege of exercising its 111807
franchise during the calendar year in which that amount is 111808
payable, and the tax provided by this chapter for foreign 111809
corporations shall be the amount charged against each corporation 111810
organized for profit and each nonprofit corporation organized or 111811
operating in the same or similar manner as nonprofit corporations 111812
organized under Chapter 1729. of the Revised Code, under the laws 111813
of any state or country other than this state, except as provided 111814
in sections 5733.09 and 5733.10 of the Revised Code, for the 111815
privilege of doing business in this state, owning or using a part 111816
or all of its capital or property in this state, holding a 111817
certificate of compliance with the laws of this state authorizing 111818
it to do business in this state, or otherwise having nexus in or 111819
with this state under the Constitution of the United States, 111820
during the calendar year in which that amount is payable.111821

       (B) A corporation is subject to the tax imposed by section 111822
5733.06 of the Revised Code for each calendar year prior to 2014 111823
that it is so organized, doing business, owning or using a part or 111824
all of its capital or property, holding a certificate of 111825
compliance, or otherwise having nexus in or with this state under 111826
the Constitution of the United States, on the first day of January 111827
of that calendar year. No credit authorized by this chapter may be 111828
claimed for tax year 2014 or any tax year thereafter.111829

       (C) Any corporation subject to this chapter that is not 111830
subject to the federal income tax shall file its returns and 111831
compute its tax liability as required by this chapter in the same 111832
manner as if that corporation were subject to the federal income 111833
tax.111834

       (D) For purposes of this chapter, a federally chartered 111835
financial institution shall be deemed to be organized under the 111836
laws of the state within which its principal office is located.111837

       (E) For purposes of this chapter, any person, as defined in 111838
section 5701.01 of the Revised Code, shall be treated as a 111839
corporation if the person is classified for federal income tax 111840
purposes as an association taxable as a corporation, and an equity 111841
interest in the person shall be treated as capital stock of the 111842
person.111843

       (F) For the purposes of this chapter, "disregarded entity" 111844
has the same meaning as in division (D) of section 5745.01 of the 111845
Revised Code.111846

       (1) A person's interest in a disregarded entity, whether held 111847
directly or indirectly, shall be treated as the person's ownership 111848
of the assets and liabilities of the disregarded entity, and the 111849
income, including gain or loss, shall be included in the person's 111850
net income under this chapter.111851

       (2) Any sale, exchange, or other disposition of the person's 111852
interest in the disregarded entity, whether held directly or 111853
indirectly, shall be treated as a sale, exchange, or other 111854
disposition of the person's share of the disregarded entity's 111855
underlying assets or liabilities, and the gain or loss from such 111856
sale, exchange, or disposition shall be included in the person's 111857
net income under this chapter.111858

       (3) The disregarded entity's payroll, property, and sales 111859
factors shall be included in the person's factors.111860

       (G) The tax a corporation is required to pay under this 111861
chapter shall be as follows:111862

        (1)(a) For financial institutions, the greater of the minimum 111863
payment required under division (E) of section 5733.06 of the 111864
Revised Code or the difference between all taxes charged the 111865
financial institution under this chapter, without regard to 111866
division (G)(2) of this section, less any credits allowable 111867
against such tax.111868

       (b) A corporation satisfying the description in division 111869
(E)(5), (6), (7), (8), or (10) of section 5751.01 of the Revised 111870
Code, as that section existed before its amendment by H.B. 510 of 111871
the 129th general assembly, that is not a financial institution, 111872
insurance company, or dealer in intangibles is subject to the 111873
taxes imposed under this chapter as a corporation and not subject 111874
to tax as a financial institution, and shall pay the greater of 111875
the minimum payment required under division (E) of section 5733.06 111876
of the Revised Code or the difference between all the taxes 111877
charged under this chapter, without regard to division (G)(2) of 111878
this section, less any credits allowable against such tax.111879

        (2) For all corporations other than those persons described 111880
in division (G)(1)(a) or (b) of this section, the amount under 111881
division (G)(2)(a) of this section applicable to the tax year 111882
specified less the amount under division (G)(2)(b) of this 111883
section:111884

        (a)(i) For tax year 2005, the greater of the minimum payment 111885
required under division (E) of section 5733.06 of the Revised Code 111886
or the difference between all taxes charged the corporation under 111887
this chapter and any credits allowable against such tax;111888

        (ii) For tax year 2006, the greater of the minimum payment 111889
required under division (E) of section 5733.06 of the Revised Code 111890
or four-fifths of the difference between all taxes charged the 111891
corporation under this chapter and any credits allowable against 111892
such tax, except the qualifying pass-through entity tax credit 111893
described in division (A)(30) and the refundable credits described 111894
in divisions (A)(31) to (35) of section 5733.98 of the Revised 111895
Code;111896

        (iii) For tax year 2007, the greater of the minimum payment 111897
required under division (E) of section 5733.06 of the Revised Code 111898
or three-fifths of the difference between all taxes charged the 111899
corporation under this chapter and any credits allowable against 111900
such tax, except the qualifying pass-through entity tax credit 111901
described in division (A)(30) and the refundable credits described 111902
in divisions (A)(31) to (35) of section 5733.98 of the Revised 111903
Code;111904

        (iv) For tax year 2008, the greater of the minimum payment 111905
required under division (E) of section 5733.06 of the Revised Code 111906
or two-fifths of the difference between all taxes charged the 111907
corporation under this chapter and any credits allowable against 111908
such tax, except the qualifying pass-through entity tax credit 111909
described in division (A)(30) and the refundable credits described 111910
in divisions (A)(31) to (35) of section 5733.98 of the Revised 111911
Code;111912

        (v) For tax year 2009, the greater of the minimum payment 111913
required under division (E) of section 5733.06 of the Revised Code 111914
or one-fifth of the difference between all taxes charged the 111915
corporation under this chapter and any credits allowable against 111916
such tax, except the qualifying pass-through entity tax credit 111917
described in division (A)(30) and the refundable credits described 111918
in divisions (A)(31), (32), (33), and (34) of section 5733.98 of 111919
the Revised Code;111920

        (vi) For tax year 2010 and each tax year thereafter, no tax.111921

        (b) A corporation shall subtract from the amount calculated 111922
under division (G)(2)(a)(ii), (iii), (iv), or (v) of this section 111923
any qualifying pass-through entity tax credit described in 111924
division (A)(30) and any refundable credits described in divisions 111925
(A)(31) to (35) of section 5733.98 of the Revised Code to which 111926
the corporation is entitled. Any unused qualifying pass-through 111927
entity tax credit is not refundable.111928

        (c) For the purposes of computing the amount of a credit that 111929
may be carried forward to a subsequent tax year under division 111930
(G)(2) of this section, a credit is utilized against the tax for a 111931
tax year to the extent the credit applies against the tax for that 111932
tax year, even if the difference is then multiplied by the 111933
applicable fraction under division (G)(2)(a) of this section.111934

       (d) References in division (G)(2) of this section to section 111935
5733.98 of the Revised Code is to that section before its 111936
amendment by H.B. 59 of the 130th general assembly.111937

       (3) Nothing in division (G) of this section eliminates or 111938
reduces the tax imposed by section 5733.41 of the Revised Code on 111939
a qualifying pass-through entity.111940

       Sec. 5733.06.  For tax years prior to tax year 2014, the tax 111941
hereby charged each corporation subject to this chapter shall be 111942
the greater of the sum of divisions (A) and (B) of this section, 111943
after the reduction, if any, provided by division (J) of this 111944
section, or division (C) of this section, after the reduction, if 111945
any, provided by division (J) of this section, except that the tax 111946
hereby charged each financial institution subject to this chapter 111947
shall be the amount computed under division (D) of this section:111948

       (A) Except as set forth in division (F) of this section, five 111949
and one-tenth per cent upon the first fifty thousand dollars of 111950
the value of the taxpayer's issued and outstanding shares of stock 111951
as determined under division (B) of section 5733.05 of the Revised 111952
Code;111953

       (B) Except as set forth in division (F) of this section, 111954
eight and one-half per cent upon the value so determined in excess 111955
of fifty thousand dollars; or111956

       (C)(1) Except as otherwise provided under division (G) of 111957
this section, four mills times that portion of the value of the 111958
issued and outstanding shares of stock as determined under 111959
division (C) of section 5733.05 of the Revised Code. For the 111960
purposes of division (C) of this section, division (C)(2) of 111961
section 5733.065, and division (C) of section 5733.066 of the 111962
Revised Code, the value of the issued and outstanding shares of 111963
stock of an eligible corporation for tax year 2003 through tax 111964
year 2007, or of a qualifying holding company, is zero.111965

       (2) As used in division (C) of this section, "eligible 111966
corporation" means a person treated as a corporation for federal 111967
income tax purposes that meets all of the following criteria:111968

       (a) The corporation conducts business for an entire taxable 111969
year as a qualified trade or business as defined by division (C) 111970
of section 122.15 of the Revised Code, as that section existed 111971
before its repeal by H.B. 59 of the 130th general assembly.111972

       (b) The corporation uses more than fifty per cent of the 111973
corporation's assets, based on net book value, that are located in 111974
Ohio solely to conduct activities that constitute a qualified 111975
trade or business as defined by section 122.15 of the Revised 111976
Code, as that section existed before its repeal by H.B. 59 of the 111977
130th general assembly.111978

       (c) The corporation has been formed or organized not more 111979
than three years before the report required to be filed by section 111980
5733.02 of the Revised Code is due, without regard to any 111981
extensions.111982

       (d) The corporation is not a related member, as defined in 111983
section 5733.042 of the Revised Code, at any time during the 111984
taxable year with respect to another person treated as a 111985
corporation for federal income tax purposes. A corporation is not 111986
a related member if during the entire taxable year at least 111987
seventy-five per cent of the corporation's stock is owned directly 111988
or through a pass-through entity by individuals, estates, and 111989
grantor trusts, and the individuals, estates, and grantor trusts 111990
do not directly or indirectly own more than twenty per cent of the 111991
value of another person treated as a corporation for federal 111992
income tax purposes that is conducting a qualified trade or 111993
business.111994

       (D) The tax charged each financial institution subject to 111995
this chapter shall be that portion of the value of the issued and 111996
outstanding shares of stock as determined under division (A) of 111997
section 5733.05 of the Revised Code, multiplied by the following 111998
amounts:111999

       (1) For tax years prior to the 1999 tax year, fifteen mills;112000

       (2) For the 1999 tax year, fourteen mills;112001

       (3) For tax year 2000 and thereafter, thirteen mills.112002

       (E) No tax shall be charged from any corporation that has 112003
been adjudicated bankrupt, or for which a receiver has been 112004
appointed, or that has made a general assignment for the benefit 112005
of creditors, except for the portion of the then current tax year 112006
during which the tax commissioner finds such corporation had the 112007
power to exercise its corporate franchise unimpaired by such 112008
proceedings or act. The minimum payment for each corporation shall 112009
be as follows:112010

       (1) One thousand dollars in the case of a corporation having 112011
gross receipts for the taxable year equal to at least five million 112012
dollars from activities within or outside this state or in the 112013
case of a corporation employing at least three hundred employees 112014
at some time during the taxable year within or outside this state;112015

       (2) Fifty dollars in the case of any other corporation.112016

       The tax charged to corporations under this chapter for the 112017
privilege of engaging in business in this state, which is an 112018
excise tax levied on the value of the issued and outstanding 112019
shares of stock, shall in no manner be construed as prohibiting or 112020
otherwise limiting the powers of municipal corporations, joint 112021
economic development zones created under section 715.691 of the 112022
Revised Code, and joint economic development districts created 112023
under section 715.70 or 715.71 or sections 715.72 to 715.81 of the 112024
Revised Code in this state to impose an income tax on the income 112025
of such corporations.112026

       (F) If two or more taxpayers satisfy the ownership or control 112027
requirements of division (A) of section 5733.052 of the Revised 112028
Code, each such taxpayer shall substitute "the taxpayer's pro-rata 112029
amount" for "fifty thousand dollars" in divisions (A) and (B) of 112030
this section. For purposes of this division, "the taxpayer's 112031
pro-rata amount" is an amount that, when added to the other such 112032
taxpayers' pro-rata amounts, does not exceed fifty thousand 112033
dollars. For the purpose of making that computation, the 112034
taxpayer's pro-rata amount shall not be less than zero. Nothing in 112035
this division derogates from or eliminates the requirement to make 112036
the alternative computation of tax under division (C) of this 112037
section.112038

       (G) The tax liability of any corporation under division (C) 112039
of this section shall not exceed one hundred fifty thousand 112040
dollars.112041

       (H)(1) For the purposes of division (H) of this section, 112042
"exiting corporation" means a corporation that satisfies all of 112043
the following conditions:112044

       (a) The corporation had nexus with or in this state under the 112045
Constitution of the United States during any portion of a calendar 112046
year;112047

       (b) The corporation was not a corporation described in 112048
division (A) of section 5733.01 of the Revised Code on the first 112049
day of January immediately following that calendar year;112050

       (c) The corporation was not a financial institution on the 112051
first day of January immediately following that calendar year;112052

       (d) If the corporation was a transferor as defined in section 112053
5733.053 of the Revised Code, the corporation's transferee was not 112054
required to add to the transferee's net income the income of the 112055
transferor pursuant to division (B) of that section;112056

       (e) During any portion of that calendar year, or any portion 112057
of the immediately preceding calendar year, the corporation had 112058
net income that was not included in a report filed by the 112059
corporation or its transferee pursuant to section 5733.02, 112060
5733.021, 5733.03, 5733.031, or 5733.053 of the Revised Code;112061

       (f) The corporation would have been subject to the tax 112062
computed under divisions (A), (B), (C), (F), and (G) of this 112063
section if the corporation is assumed to be a corporation 112064
described in division (A) of section 5733.01 of the Revised Code 112065
on the first day of January immediately following the calendar 112066
year to which division (H)(1)(a) of this section refers.112067

       (2) For the purposes of division (H) of this section, 112068
"unreported net income" means net income that was not previously 112069
included in a report filed pursuant to section 5733.02, 5733.021, 112070
5733.03, 5733.031, or 5733.053 of the Revised Code and that was 112071
realized or recognized during the calendar year to which division 112072
(H)(1) of this section refers or the immediately preceding 112073
calendar year.112074

       (3) Each exiting corporation shall pay a tax computed by 112075
first allocating and apportioning the unreported net income 112076
pursuant to division (B) of section 5733.05 and section 5733.051 112077
and, if applicable, section 5733.052 of the Revised Code. The 112078
exiting corporation then shall compute the tax due on its 112079
unreported net income allocated and apportioned to this state by 112080
applying divisions (A), (B), and (F) of this section to that 112081
income.112082

       (4) Divisions (C) and (G) of this section, division (D)(2) of 112083
section 5733.065, and division (C) of section 5733.066 of the 112084
Revised Code do not apply to an exiting corporation, but exiting 112085
corporations are subject to every other provision of this chapter.112086

       (5) Notwithstanding division (B) of section 5733.01 or 112087
sections 5733.02, 5733.021, and 5733.03 of the Revised Code to the 112088
contrary, each exiting corporation shall report and pay the tax 112089
due under division (H) of this section on or before the 112090
thirty-first day of May immediately following the calendar year to 112091
which division (H)(1)(a) of this section refers. The exiting 112092
corporation shall file that report on the form most recently 112093
prescribed by the tax commissioner for the purposes of complying 112094
with sections 5733.02 and 5733.03 of the Revised Code. Upon 112095
request by the corporation, the tax commissioner may extend the 112096
date for filing the report.112097

       (6) If, on account of the application of section 5733.053 of 112098
the Revised Code, net income is subject to the tax imposed by 112099
divisions (A) and (B) of this section, such income shall not be 112100
subject to the tax imposed by division (H)(3) of this section.112101

       (7) The amendments made to division (H) of this section by 112102
Am. Sub. S.B. 287 of the 123rd general assembly do not apply to 112103
any transfer, as defined in section 5733.053 of the Revised Code, 112104
for which negotiations began prior to January 1, 2001, and that 112105
was commenced in and completed during calendar year 2001, unless 112106
the taxpayer makes an election prior to December 31, 2001, to 112107
apply those amendments.112108

       (8) The tax commissioner may adopt rules governing division 112109
(H) of this section.112110

       (I) Any reference in the Revised Code to "the tax imposed by 112111
section 5733.06 of the Revised Code" or "the tax due under section 112112
5733.06 of the Revised Code" includes the taxes imposed under 112113
sections 5733.065 and 5733.066 of the Revised Code.112114

       (J)(1) Division (J) of this section applies solely to a 112115
combined company. Section 5733.057 of the Revised Code shall apply 112116
when calculating the adjustments required by division (J) of this 112117
section.112118

       (2) Subject to division (J)(4) of this section, the total tax 112119
calculated in divisions (A) and (B) of this section shall be 112120
reduced by an amount calculated by multiplying such tax by a 112121
fraction, the numerator of which is the total taxable gross 112122
receipts attributed to providing public utility activity other 112123
than as an electric company under section 5727.03 of the Revised 112124
Code for the year upon which the taxable gross receipts are 112125
measured immediately preceding the tax year, and the denominator 112126
of which is the total gross receipts from all sources for the year 112127
upon which the taxable gross receipts are measured immediately 112128
preceding the tax year. Nothing herein shall be construed to 112129
exclude from the denominator any item of income described in 112130
section 5733.051 of the Revised Code.112131

       (3) Subject to division (J)(4) of this section, the total tax 112132
calculated in division (C) of this section shall be reduced by an 112133
amount calculated by multiplying such tax by the fraction 112134
described in division (J)(2) of this section.112135

       (4) In no event shall the reduction provided by division 112136
(J)(2) or (J)(3) of this section exceed the amount of the excise 112137
tax paid in accordance with section 5727.38 of the Revised Code, 112138
for the year upon which the taxable gross receipts are measured 112139
immediately preceding the tax year.112140

       Sec. 5733.11.  (A) If any corporation required to file a 112141
report under this chapter fails to file the report within the time 112142
prescribed, files an incorrect report, or fails to remit the full 112143
amount of the tax due for the period covered by the report, the 112144
tax commissioner may make an assessment against the corporation 112145
for any deficiency for the period for which the report or tax is 112146
due, based upon any information in the commissioner's possession.112147

       No assessment shall be made or issued against a corporation 112148
more than three years after the later of the final date the report 112149
subject to assessment was required to be filed or the date the 112150
report was filed. Such time limit may be extended if both the 112151
corporation and the commissioner consent in writing to the 112152
extension or if an agreement waiving or extending the time limit 112153
has been entered into pursuant to section 122.171 of the Revised 112154
Code. Any such extension shall extend the three-year time limit in 112155
division (B) of section 5733.12 of the Revised Code for the same 112156
period of time. There shall be no bar or limit to an assessment 112157
against a corporation that fails to file a report subject to 112158
assessment as required by this chapter, or that files a fraudulent 112159
report.112160

       The commissioner shall give the corporation assessed written 112161
notice of the assessment in the manner provided in section 5703.37 112162
of the Revised Code. With the notice, the commissioner shall 112163
provide instructions on how to petition for reassessment and 112164
request a hearing on the petition.112165

       (B) Unless the corporation assessed files with the tax 112166
commissioner within sixty days after service of the notice of 112167
assessment, either personally or by certified mail, a written 112168
petition for reassessment, signed by the corporations112169
corporation's authorized agent having knowledge of the facts,, the 112170
assessment becomes final, and the amount of the assessment is due 112171
and payable from the corporation assessed to the treasurer of 112172
state. The petition shall indicate the corporation's objections, 112173
but additional objections may be raised in writing if received by 112174
the commissioner prior to the date shown on the final 112175
determination. If the petition has been properly filed, the 112176
commissioner shall proceed under section 5703.60 of the Revised 112177
Code.112178

       (C) After an assessment becomes final, if any portion of the 112179
assessment remains unpaid, including accrued interest, a certified 112180
copy of the tax commissioner's entry making the assessment final 112181
may be filed in the office of the clerk of the court of common 112182
pleas in the county in which the corporation has an office or 112183
place of business in this state, the county in which the 112184
corporation's statutory agent is located, or Franklin county.112185

       Immediately upon the filing of the entry, the clerk shall 112186
enter a judgment against the corporation assessed in the amount 112187
shown on the entry. The judgment may be filed by the clerk in a 112188
loose-leaf book entitled "special judgments for state corporate 112189
franchise and litter taxes," and shall have the same effect as 112190
other judgments. Execution shall issue upon the judgment upon the 112191
request of the tax commissioner, and all laws applicable to sales 112192
on execution shall apply to sales made under the judgment.112193

       The portion of anIf the assessment is not paid within sixty 112194
days after the day the assessment was issued, the portion of the 112195
assessment consisting of tax due shall bear interest at the rate 112196
per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of the Revised Code from 112197
the day the tax commissioner issues the assessment until the 112198
assessment is paid or until it is certified to the attorney 112199
general for collection under section 131.02 of the Revised Code, 112200
whichever comes first. If the unpaid portion of the assessment is 112201
certified to the attorney general for collection, the entire 112202
unpaid portion of the assessment shall bear interest at the rate 112203
per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of the Revised Code from 112204
the date of certification until the date it is paid in its 112205
entirety. Interest shall be paid in the same manner as the tax and 112206
may be collected by issuing an assessment under this section.112207

       (D) All money collected under this section shall be 112208
considered as revenue arising from the taxes imposed by this 112209
chapter.112210

       (E) The portion of an assessment that must be paid upon the 112211
filing of a petition for reassessment shall be as follows:112212

       (1) If the sole item objected to is the assessed penalty or 112213
interest, payment of the assessment, including interest but not 112214
penalty, is required;112215

       (2) If the corporation assessed failed to file, prior to the 112216
date of issuance of the assessment, the annual report required by 112217
section 5733.02 of the Revised Code, any amended report required 112218
by division (C) of section 5733.031 of the Revised Code for the 112219
tax year at issue, or any amended report required by division (D) 112220
of section 5733.067 of the Revised Code to indicate a reduction in 112221
the amount of the credit provided under that section, payment of 112222
the assessment, including interest but not penalty, is required;112223

       (3) If the corporation assessed filed, prior to the date of 112224
issuance of the assessment, the annual report required by section 112225
5733.02 of the Revised Code, all amended reports required by 112226
division (C) of section 5733.031 of the Revised Code for the tax 112227
year at issue, and all amended reports required by division (D) of 112228
section 5733.067 of the Revised Code to indicate a reduction in 112229
the amount of the credit provided under that section, and a 112230
balance of the taxes shown due on the reports as computed on the 112231
reports remains unpaid, payment of only that portion of the 112232
assessment representing the unpaid balance of tax and interest is 112233
required;112234

       (4) If the corporation assessed does not dispute that it is a 112235
taxpayer but claims the protections of section 101 of Public Law 112236
86-272, 73 Stat. 555, 15 U.S.C.A. 381, as amended, payment of only 112237
that portion of the assessment representing any balance of taxes 112238
shown due on the corporation's annual report required by section 112239
5733.02 of the Revised Code, as computed on the report, that 112240
remains unpaid, and that represents taxes imposed by division (C) 112241
of section 5733.06, division (C)(2) of section 5733.065, and 112242
division (C) of section 5733.066 of the Revised Code, together 112243
with all related interest, is required;112244

       (5) If none of the conditions specified in divisions (E)(1) 112245
to (4) of this section apply, or if the corporation assessed 112246
disputes that it is a taxpayer, no payment is required.112247

       (F) Notwithstanding the fact that a petition for reassessment 112248
is pending, the corporation may pay all or a portion of the 112249
assessment that is the subject of the petition. The acceptance of 112250
a payment by the treasurer of state does not prejudice any claim 112251
for refund upon final determination of the petition.112252

       If upon final determination of the petition an error in the 112253
assessment is corrected by the tax commissioner, upon petition so 112254
filed or pursuant to a decision of the board of tax appeals or any 112255
court to which the determination or decision has been appealed, so 112256
that the amount due from the corporation under the corrected 112257
assessment is less than the portion paid, there shall be issued to 112258
the corporation, its assigns, or legal representative a refund in 112259
the amount of the overpayment as provided by section 5733.12 of 112260
the Revised Code, with interest on that amount as provided by 112261
section 5733.26 of the Revised Code, subject to section 5733.121 112262
of the Revised Code.112263

       Sec. 5733.98.  (A) To provide a uniform procedure for 112264
calculating the amount of tax imposed by section 5733.06 of the 112265
Revised Code that is due under this chapter, a taxpayer shall 112266
claim any credits to which it is entitled in the following order, 112267
except as otherwise provided in section 5733.058 of the Revised 112268
Code:112269

       (1) For tax year 2005, the credit for taxes paid by a 112270
qualifying pass-through entity allowed under section 5733.0611 of 112271
the Revised Code;112272

       (2) The credit allowed for financial institutions under 112273
section 5733.45 of the Revised Code;112274

       (3) The credit for qualifying affiliated groups under section 112275
5733.068 of the Revised Code;112276

       (4) The subsidiary corporation credit under section 5733.067 112277
of the Revised Code;112278

       (5) The savings and loan assessment credit under section 112279
5733.063 of the Revised Code;112280

       (6) The credit for recycling and litter prevention donations 112281
under section 5733.064 of the Revised Code;112282

       (7) The credit for employers that enter into agreements with 112283
child day-care centers under section 5733.36 of the Revised Code;112284

       (8) The credit for employers that reimburse employee child 112285
care expenses under section 5733.38 of the Revised Code;112286

       (9) The credit for maintaining railroad active grade crossing 112287
warning devices under section 5733.43 of the Revised Code;112288

       (10) The credit for purchases of lights and reflectors under 112289
section 5733.44 of the Revised Code;112290

       (11) The nonrefundable job retention credit under division 112291
(B) of section 5733.0610 of the Revised Code;112292

       (12) The credit for tax years 2008 and 2009 for selling 112293
alternative fuel under section 5733.48 of the Revised Code;112294

       (13) The second credit for purchases of new manufacturing 112295
machinery and equipment under section 5733.33 of the Revised Code;112296

       (14) The job training credit under section 5733.42 of the 112297
Revised Code;112298

       (15) The credit for qualified research expenses under section 112299
5733.351 of the Revised Code;112300

       (16) The enterprise zone credit under section 5709.66 of the 112301
Revised Code;112302

       (17) The credit for the eligible costs associated with a 112303
voluntary action under section 5733.34 of the Revised Code;112304

       (18) The credit for employers that establish on-site child 112305
day-care centers under section 5733.37 of the Revised Code;112306

       (19) The ethanol plant investment credit under section 112307
5733.46 of the Revised Code;112308

       (20) The credit for purchases of qualifying grape production 112309
property under section 5733.32 of the Revised Code;112310

       (21) The export sales credit under section 5733.069 of the 112311
Revised Code;112312

       (22) The credit for research and development and technology 112313
transfer investors under section 5733.35 of the Revised Code;112314

       (23) The enterprise zone credits under section 5709.65 of the 112315
Revised Code;112316

       (24)(23) The credit for using Ohio coal under section 5733.39 112317
of the Revised Code;112318

       (25)(24) The credit for purchases of qualified low-income 112319
community investments under section 5733.58 of the Revised Code;112320

       (26)(25) The credit for small telephone companies under 112321
section 5733.57 of the Revised Code;112322

       (27)(26) The credit for eligible nonrecurring 9-1-1 charges 112323
under section 5733.55 of the Revised Code;112324

       (28)(27) For tax year 2005, the credit for providing programs 112325
to aid the communicatively impaired under division (A) of section 112326
5733.56 of the Revised Code;112327

       (29)(28) The research and development credit under section 112328
5733.352 of the Revised Code;112329

       (30)(29) For tax years 2006 and subsequent tax years, the 112330
credit for taxes paid by a qualifying pass-through entity allowed 112331
under section 5733.0611 of the Revised Code;112332

       (31)(30) The refundable credit for rehabilitating a historic 112333
building under section 5733.47 of the Revised Code;112334

       (32)(31) The refundable jobs creation credit or job retention 112335
credit under division (A) of section 5733.0610 of the Revised 112336
Code;112337

       (33)(32) The refundable credit for tax withheld under 112338
division (B)(2) of section 5747.062 of the Revised Code;112339

       (34)(33) The refundable credit under section 5733.49 of the 112340
Revised Code for losses on loans made to the Ohio venture capital 112341
program under sections 150.01 to 150.10 of the Revised Code;112342

       (35)(34) For tax years 2006, 2007, and 2008, the refundable 112343
credit allowable under division (B) of section 5733.56 of the 112344
Revised Code;112345

       (36)(35) The refundable motion picture production credit 112346
under section 5733.59 of the Revised Code.112347

       (B) For any credit except the refundable credits enumerated 112348
in this section, the amount of the credit for a tax year shall not 112349
exceed the tax due after allowing for any other credit that 112350
precedes it in the order required under this section. Any excess 112351
amount of a particular credit may be carried forward if authorized 112352
under the section creating that credit.112353

       Sec. 5735.012. AmountsWith respect to liquid motor fuel 112354
other than liquid natural gas, amounts of motor fuel reported 112355
under this chapter shall be measured in gross gallons, except that 112356
amounts reported for terminal to terminal transactions shall be 112357
measured in net gallons and amounts reported for terminal to Ohio 112358
licensed dealer transactions shall be measured in both net gallons 112359
and gross gallons. Amounts of liquid natural gas shall be measured 112360
in gallon equivalents as described in section 5735.013 of the 112361
Revised Code.112362

       Sec. 5735.013.  For the purposes of this chapter, if the 112363
national conference on weights and measures has adopted a diesel 112364
gallon equivalent standard for liquid natural gas, that standard 112365
shall be the equivalent of one gallon of motor fuel. If the 112366
national conference on weights and measures has not adopted such a 112367
standard, six and six one-hundredths pounds of liquid natural gas 112368
shall be the equivalent of one gallon of motor fuel.112369

       Sec. 5735.12.  (A) Any motor fuel dealer required by this 112370
chapter to file reports and pay the tax levied by this chapter who 112371
fails to file the report within the time prescribed, may be liable 112372
for an additional charge not exceeding the greater of ten per cent 112373
of the motor fuel dealer's tax liability for that month or fifty 112374
dollars. The tax commissioner may remit all or a portion of the 112375
additional charge and may adopt rules relating to the remission of 112376
all or a portion of the charge.112377

       If any person required by this chapter to file reports and 112378
pay the taxes, interest, or additional charge levied by this 112379
chapter fails to file the report, files an incomplete or incorrect 112380
report, or fails to remit the full amount of the tax, interest, or 112381
additional charge due for the period covered by the report, the 112382
commissioner may make an assessment against the person based upon 112383
any information in the commissioner's possession.112384

       No assessment shall be made against any motor fuel dealer for 112385
taxes imposed by this chapter more than four years after the date 112386
on which the report on which the assessment was based was due or 112387
was filed, whichever is later. This section does not bar an 112388
assessment against any motor fuel dealer who fails to file a 112389
report required by section 5735.06 of the Revised Code, or who 112390
files a fraudulent motor fuel tax report.112391

       A penalty of up to fifteen per cent may be added to the 112392
amount of every assessment made under this section. The 112393
commissioner may adopt rules providing for the imposition and 112394
remission of penalties added to assessments made under this 112395
section.112396

       The commissioner shall give the party assessed written notice 112397
of the assessment in the manner provided in section 5703.37 of the 112398
Revised Code. With the notice, the commissioner shall provide 112399
instructions on how to petition for reassessment and request a 112400
hearing on the petition.112401

       (B) Unless the party assessed files with the tax commissioner 112402
within sixty days after service of the notice of assessment, 112403
either personally or by certified mail, a written petition for 112404
reassessment in writing, signed by the party assessed or that 112405
party's authorized agent having knowledge of the facts, the 112406
assessment becomes final and the amount of the assessment is due 112407
and payable from the party assessed to the treasurer of state. The 112408
petition shall indicate the objections of the party assessed, but 112409
additional objections may be raised in writing if received by the 112410
commissioner prior to the date shown on the final determination. 112411
If the petition has been properly filed, the commissioner shall 112412
proceed under section 5703.60 of the Revised Code.112413

       (C) After an assessment becomes final, if any portion of the 112414
assessment remains unpaid, including accrued interest, a certified 112415
copy of the tax commissioner's entry making the assessment final 112416
may be filed in the office of the clerk of the court of common 112417
pleas in the county in which the party assessed resides or in 112418
which the business of the party assessed is conducted. If the 112419
party assessed maintains no place of business in this state and is 112420
not a resident of this state, the certified copy of the entry may 112421
be filed in the office of the clerk of the court of common pleas 112422
of Franklin county.112423

       Immediately upon the filing of the entry, the clerk shall 112424
enter a judgment for the state against the party assessed in the 112425
amount shown on the entry. The judgment may be filed by the clerk 112426
in a loose-leaf book entitled "special judgments for state motor 112427
fuel tax," and shall have the same effect as other judgments. 112428
Execution shall issue upon the judgment upon the request of the 112429
tax commissioner, and all laws applicable to sales on execution 112430
shall apply to sales made under the judgment.112431

       The portion ofIf the assessment is not paid in its entirety112432
within sixty days after the day the assessment was issued, the 112433
portion of the assessment consisting of tax due shall bear 112434
interest at the rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of 112435
the Revised Code from the day the commissioner issues the 112436
assessment until it is paid or until it is certified to the 112437
attorney general for collection under section 131.02 of the 112438
Revised Code, whichever comes first. If the unpaid portion of the 112439
assessment is certified to the attorney general for collection, 112440
the entire unpaid portion of the assessment shall bear interest at 112441
the rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of the Revised 112442
Code from the date of certification until the date it is paid in 112443
its entirety. Interest shall be paid in the same manner as the tax 112444
and may be collected by the issuance of an assessment under this 112445
section.112446

       (D) All money collected by the tax commissioner under this 112447
section shall be paid to the treasurer of state, and when paid 112448
shall be considered as revenue arising from the tax imposed by 112449
this chapter.112450

       (E) If the tax commissioner determines that the commissioner 112451
has erroneously refunded motor fuel tax to any person, the 112452
commissioner may make an assessment against the person for 112453
recovery of the erroneously refunded tax.112454

       Sec. 5735.34.  (A) If any motor fuel dealer sells that motor 112455
fuel dealer's entire business or discontinues operating that 112456
business, the taxes and any interest and penalties imposed under 112457
this chapter that arose prior to the date of sale or 112458
discontinuation become due and payable immediately. TheWithin 112459
fifteen days after the date of the sale or discontinuation of the 112460
business, the motor fuel dealer shall make a final return within 112461
fifteen days after the date of the sale or discontinuation of the 112462
businessand provide written notification to the tax commissioner 112463
of the sale or discontinuation and the name and contact 112464
information of the purchaser, if applicable. The purchaser of the 112465
business shall withhold a sufficient amount of the purchase money 112466
to cover the amount of such taxes, interest, and penalties due and 112467
unpaid until the seller produces a receipt from the tax 112468
commissioner showing that the taxes, interest, and penalties have 112469
been paid, or until the seller produces a certificate indicating 112470
that no taxes, interest, and penalties are due.112471

       (B) If the purchaser of the business fails to withhold the 112472
purchase money required to be withheld under this section, the 112473
purchaser of the business is personally liable for the payment of 112474
the taxes, interest, and penalties accrued and unpaid during the 112475
operation of the business by the seller, but only to the extent of 112476
the consideration offered for the entire business.112477

       (C) For purposes of this section, "entire business" means 112478
substantially all of the seller's assets determined without regard 112479
to any then existing mortgages, liens, security interests or other 112480
encumbrances attaching to those assets. A person is considered to 112481
have sold the entire business only if the person ceases to qualify 112482
as a motor fuel dealer and has relinquished or the tax 112483
commissioner has canceled the person's motor fuel dealer's 112484
license.112485

       Sec. 5739.01.  As used in this chapter:112486

       (A) "Person" includes individuals, receivers, assignees, 112487
trustees in bankruptcy, estates, firms, partnerships, 112488
associations, joint-stock companies, joint ventures, clubs, 112489
societies, corporations, the state and its political subdivisions, 112490
and combinations of individuals of any form.112491

       (B) "Sale" and "selling" include all of the following 112492
transactions for a consideration in any manner, whether absolutely 112493
or conditionally, whether for a price or rental, in money or by 112494
exchange, and by any means whatsoever:112495

       (1) All transactions by which title or possession, or both, 112496
of tangible personal property, is or is to be transferred, or a 112497
license to use or consume tangible personal property is or is to 112498
be granted;112499

       (2) All transactions by which lodging by a hotel is or is to 112500
be furnished to transient guests;112501

       (3) All transactions by which:112502

       (a) An item of tangible personal property is or is to be 112503
repaired, except property, the purchase of which would not be 112504
subject to the tax imposed by section 5739.02 of the Revised Code;112505

       (b) An item of tangible personal property is or is to be 112506
installed, except property, the purchase of which would not be 112507
subject to the tax imposed by section 5739.02 of the Revised Code 112508
or property that is or is to be incorporated into and will become 112509
a part of a production, transmission, transportation, or 112510
distribution system for the delivery of a public utility service;112511

       (c) The service of washing, cleaning, waxing, polishing, or 112512
painting a motor vehicle is or is to be furnished;112513

       (d) Until August 1, 2003, industrial laundry cleaning 112514
services are or are to be provided and, on and after August 1, 112515
2003, laundry and dry cleaning services are or are to be provided;112516

       (e) Automatic data processing, computer services, or 112517
electronic information services are or are to be provided for use 112518
in business when the true object of the transaction is the receipt 112519
by the consumer of automatic data processing, computer services, 112520
or electronic information services rather than the receipt of 112521
personal or professional services to which automatic data 112522
processing, computer services, or electronic information services 112523
are incidental or supplemental. Notwithstanding any other 112524
provision of this chapter, such transactions that occur between 112525
members of an affiliated group are not sales. An "affiliated 112526
group" means two or more persons related in such a way that one 112527
person owns or controls the business operation of another member 112528
of the group. In the case of corporations with stock, one 112529
corporation owns or controls another if it owns more than fifty 112530
per cent of the other corporation's common stock with voting 112531
rights.112532

       (f) Telecommunications service, including prepaid calling 112533
service, prepaid wireless calling service, or ancillary service, 112534
is or is to be provided, but not including coin-operated telephone 112535
service;112536

       (g) Landscaping and lawn care service is or is to be 112537
provided;112538

       (h) Private investigation and security service is or is to be 112539
provided;112540

       (i) Information services or tangible personal property is 112541
provided or ordered by means of a nine hundred telephone call;112542

       (j) Building maintenance and janitorial service is or is to 112543
be provided;112544

       (k) Employment service is or is to be provided;112545

       (l) Employment placement service is or is to be provided;112546

       (m) Exterminating service is or is to be provided;112547

       (n) Physical fitness facility service is or is to be 112548
provided;112549

       (o) Recreation and sports club service is or is to be 112550
provided;112551

       (p) On and after August 1, 2003, satellite broadcasting 112552
service is or is to be provided;112553

       (q) On and after August 1, 2003, personal care service is or 112554
is to be provided to an individual. As used in this division, 112555
"personal care service" includes skin care, the application of 112556
cosmetics, manicuring, pedicuring, hair removal, tattooing, body 112557
piercing, tanning, massage, and other similar services. "Personal 112558
care service" does not include a service provided by or on the 112559
order of a licensed physician or licensed chiropractor, or the 112560
cutting, coloring, or styling of an individual's hair.112561

       (r) On and after August 1, 2003, the transportation of 112562
persons by motor vehicle or aircraft is or is to be provided, when 112563
the transportation is entirely within this state, except for 112564
transportation provided by an ambulance service, by a transit bus, 112565
as defined in section 5735.01 of the Revised Code, and 112566
transportation provided by a citizen of the United States holding 112567
a certificate of public convenience and necessity issued under 49 112568
U.S.C. 41102;112569

       (s) On and after August 1, 2003, motor vehicle towing service 112570
is or is to be provided. As used in this division, "motor vehicle 112571
towing service" means the towing or conveyance of a wrecked, 112572
disabled, or illegally parked motor vehicle.112573

        (t) On and after August 1, 2003, snow removal service is or 112574
is to be provided. As used in this division, "snow removal 112575
service" means the removal of snow by any mechanized means, but 112576
does not include the providing of such service by a person that 112577
has less than five thousand dollars in sales of such service 112578
during the calendar year.112579

       (u) Electronic publishing service is or is to be provided to 112580
a consumer for use in business, except that such transactions 112581
occurring between members of an affiliated group, as defined in 112582
division (B)(3)(e) of this section, are not sales.112583

       (4) All transactions by which printed, imprinted, 112584
overprinted, lithographic, multilithic, blueprinted, photostatic, 112585
or other productions or reproductions of written or graphic matter 112586
are or are to be furnished or transferred;112587

       (5) The production or fabrication of tangible personal 112588
property for a consideration for consumers who furnish either 112589
directly or indirectly the materials used in the production of 112590
fabrication work; and include the furnishing, preparing, or 112591
serving for a consideration of any tangible personal property 112592
consumed on the premises of the person furnishing, preparing, or 112593
serving such tangible personal property. Except as provided in 112594
section 5739.03 of the Revised Code, a construction contract 112595
pursuant to which tangible personal property is or is to be 112596
incorporated into a structure or improvement on and becoming a 112597
part of real property is not a sale of such tangible personal 112598
property. The construction contractor is the consumer of such 112599
tangible personal property, provided that the sale and 112600
installation of carpeting, the sale and installation of 112601
agricultural land tile, the sale and erection or installation of 112602
portable grain bins, or the provision of landscaping and lawn care 112603
service and the transfer of property as part of such service is 112604
never a construction contract.112605

       As used in division (B)(5) of this section:112606

       (a) "Agricultural land tile" means fired clay or concrete 112607
tile, or flexible or rigid perforated plastic pipe or tubing, 112608
incorporated or to be incorporated into a subsurface drainage 112609
system appurtenant to land used or to be used primarily in 112610
production by farming, agriculture, horticulture, or floriculture. 112611
The term does not include such materials when they are or are to 112612
be incorporated into a drainage system appurtenant to a building 112613
or structure even if the building or structure is used or to be 112614
used in such production.112615

       (b) "Portable grain bin" means a structure that is used or to 112616
be used by a person engaged in farming or agriculture to shelter 112617
the person's grain and that is designed to be disassembled without 112618
significant damage to its component parts.112619

       (6) All transactions in which all of the shares of stock of a 112620
closely held corporation are transferred, or an ownership interest 112621
in a pass-through entity, as defined in section 5733.04 of the 112622
Revised Code, is transferred, if the corporation or pass-through 112623
entity is not engaging in business and its entire assets consist 112624
of boats, planes, motor vehicles, or other tangible personal 112625
property operated primarily for the use and enjoyment of the 112626
shareholders or owners;112627

       (7) All transactions in which a warranty, maintenance or 112628
service contract, or similar agreement by which the vendor of the 112629
warranty, contract, or agreement agrees to repair or maintain the 112630
tangible personal property of the consumer is or is to be 112631
provided;112632

       (8) The transfer of copyrighted motion picture films used 112633
solely for advertising purposes, except that the transfer of such 112634
films for exhibition purposes is not a sale;112635

       (9) On and after August 1, 2003, all transactions by which 112636
tangible personal property is or is to be stored, except such 112637
property that the consumer of the storage holds for sale in the 112638
regular course of business;112639

       (10) All transactions in which "guaranteed auto protection" 112640
is provided whereby a person promises to pay to the consumer the 112641
difference between the amount the consumer receives from motor 112642
vehicle insurance and the amount the consumer owes to a person 112643
holding title to or a lien on the consumer's motor vehicle in the 112644
event the consumer's motor vehicle suffers a total loss under the 112645
terms of the motor vehicle insurance policy or is stolen and not 112646
recovered, if the protection and its price are included in the 112647
purchase or lease agreement;112648

       (11)(a) Except as provided in division (B)(11)(b) of this 112649
section, on and after October 1, 2009, all transactions by which 112650
health care services are paid for, reimbursed, provided, 112651
delivered, arranged for, or otherwise made available by a medicaid 112652
health insuring corporation pursuant to the corporation's contract 112653
with the state.112654

       (b) If the centers for medicare and medicaid services of the 112655
United States department of health and human services determines 112656
that the taxation of transactions described in division (B)(11)(a) 112657
of this section constitutes an impermissible health care-related 112658
tax under section 1903(w) of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 112659
620 (1935)section 1903(w), 42 U.S.C. 1396b(w), as amended, and 112660
regulations adopted thereunder, the medicaid director of job and 112661
family services shall notify the tax commissioner of that 112662
determination. Beginning with the first day of the month following 112663
that notification, the transactions described in division 112664
(B)(11)(a) of this section are not sales for the purposes of this 112665
chapter or Chapter 5741. of the Revised Code. The tax commissioner 112666
shall order that the collection of taxes under sections 5739.02, 112667
5739.021, 5739.023, 5739.026, 5741.02, 5741.021, 5741.022, and 112668
5741.023 of the Revised Code shall cease for transactions 112669
occurring on or after that date.112670

       Except as provided in this section, "sale" and "selling" do 112671
not include transfers of interest in leased property where the 112672
original lessee and the terms of the original lease agreement 112673
remain unchanged, or professional, insurance, or personal service 112674
transactions that involve the transfer of tangible personal 112675
property as an inconsequential element, for which no separate 112676
charges are made.112677

       (C) "Vendor" means the person providing the service or by 112678
whom the transfer effected or license given by a sale is or is to 112679
be made or given and, for sales described in division (B)(3)(i) of 112680
this section, the telecommunications service vendor that provides 112681
the nine hundred telephone service; if two or more persons are 112682
engaged in business at the same place of business under a single 112683
trade name in which all collections on account of sales by each 112684
are made, such persons shall constitute a single vendor.112685

       Physicians, dentists, hospitals, and veterinarians who are 112686
engaged in selling tangible personal property as received from 112687
others, such as eyeglasses, mouthwashes, dentifrices, or similar 112688
articles, are vendors. Veterinarians who are engaged in 112689
transferring to others for a consideration drugs, the dispensing 112690
of which does not require an order of a licensed veterinarian or 112691
physician under federal law, are vendors.112692

       (D)(1) "Consumer" means the person for whom the service is 112693
provided, to whom the transfer effected or license given by a sale 112694
is or is to be made or given, to whom the service described in 112695
division (B)(3)(f) or (i) of this section is charged, or to whom 112696
the admission is granted.112697

       (2) Physicians, dentists, hospitals, and blood banks operated 112698
by nonprofit institutions and persons licensed to practice 112699
veterinary medicine, surgery, and dentistry are consumers of all 112700
tangible personal property and services purchased by them in 112701
connection with the practice of medicine, dentistry, the rendition 112702
of hospital or blood bank service, or the practice of veterinary 112703
medicine, surgery, and dentistry. In addition to being consumers 112704
of drugs administered by them or by their assistants according to 112705
their direction, veterinarians also are consumers of drugs that 112706
under federal law may be dispensed only by or upon the order of a 112707
licensed veterinarian or physician, when transferred by them to 112708
others for a consideration to provide treatment to animals as 112709
directed by the veterinarian.112710

       (3) A person who performs a facility management, or similar 112711
service contract for a contractee is a consumer of all tangible 112712
personal property and services purchased for use in connection 112713
with the performance of such contract, regardless of whether title 112714
to any such property vests in the contractee. The purchase of such 112715
property and services is not subject to the exception for resale 112716
under division (E)(1) of this section.112717

       (4)(a) In the case of a person who purchases printed matter 112718
for the purpose of distributing it or having it distributed to the 112719
public or to a designated segment of the public, free of charge, 112720
that person is the consumer of that printed matter, and the 112721
purchase of that printed matter for that purpose is a sale.112722

       (b) In the case of a person who produces, rather than 112723
purchases, printed matter for the purpose of distributing it or 112724
having it distributed to the public or to a designated segment of 112725
the public, free of charge, that person is the consumer of all 112726
tangible personal property and services purchased for use or 112727
consumption in the production of that printed matter. That person 112728
is not entitled to claim exemption under division (B)(42)(f) of 112729
section 5739.02 of the Revised Code for any material incorporated 112730
into the printed matter or any equipment, supplies, or services 112731
primarily used to produce the printed matter.112732

       (c) The distribution of printed matter to the public or to a 112733
designated segment of the public, free of charge, is not a sale to 112734
the members of the public to whom the printed matter is 112735
distributed or to any persons who purchase space in the printed 112736
matter for advertising or other purposes.112737

       (5) A person who makes sales of any of the services listed in 112738
division (B)(3) of this section is the consumer of any tangible 112739
personal property used in performing the service. The purchase of 112740
that property is not subject to the resale exception under 112741
division (E)(1) of this section.112742

       (6) A person who engages in highway transportation for hire 112743
is the consumer of all packaging materials purchased by that 112744
person and used in performing the service, except for packaging 112745
materials sold by such person in a transaction separate from the 112746
service.112747

       (7) In the case of a transaction for health care services 112748
under division (B)(11) of this section, a medicaid health insuring 112749
corporation is the consumer of such services. The purchase of such 112750
services by a medicaid health insuring corporation is not subject 112751
to the exception for resale under division (E)(1) of this section 112752
or to the exemptions provided under divisions (B)(12), (18), (19), 112753
and (22) of section 5739.02 of the Revised Code.112754

       (E) "Retail sale" and "sales at retail" include all sales, 112755
except those in which the purpose of the consumer is to resell the 112756
thing transferred or benefit of the service provided, by a person 112757
engaging in business, in the form in which the same is, or is to 112758
be, received by the person.112759

       (F) "Business" includes any activity engaged in by any person 112760
with the object of gain, benefit, or advantage, either direct or 112761
indirect. "Business" does not include the activity of a person in 112762
managing and investing the person's own funds.112763

       (G) "Engaging in business" means commencing, conducting, or 112764
continuing in business, and liquidating a business when the 112765
liquidator thereof holds itself out to the public as conducting 112766
such business. Making a casual sale is not engaging in business.112767

       (H)(1)(a) "Price," except as provided in divisions (H)(2), 112768
(3), and (4) of this section, means the total amount of 112769
consideration, including cash, credit, property, and services, for 112770
which tangible personal property or services are sold, leased, or 112771
rented, valued in money, whether received in money or otherwise, 112772
without any deduction for any of the following:112773

       (i) The vendor's cost of the property sold;112774

       (ii) The cost of materials used, labor or service costs, 112775
interest, losses, all costs of transportation to the vendor, all 112776
taxes imposed on the vendor, including the tax imposed under 112777
Chapter 5751. of the Revised Code, and any other expense of the 112778
vendor;112779

       (iii) Charges by the vendor for any services necessary to 112780
complete the sale;112781

       (iv) On and after August 1, 2003, delivery charges. As used 112782
in this division, "delivery charges" means charges by the vendor 112783
for preparation and delivery to a location designated by the 112784
consumer of tangible personal property or a service, including 112785
transportation, shipping, postage, handling, crating, and packing.112786

       (v) Installation charges;112787

       (vi) Credit for any trade-in.112788

       (b) "Price" includes consideration received by the vendor 112789
from a third party, if the vendor actually receives the 112790
consideration from a party other than the consumer, and the 112791
consideration is directly related to a price reduction or discount 112792
on the sale; the vendor has an obligation to pass the price 112793
reduction or discount through to the consumer; the amount of the 112794
consideration attributable to the sale is fixed and determinable 112795
by the vendor at the time of the sale of the item to the consumer; 112796
and one of the following criteria is met:112797

       (i) The consumer presents a coupon, certificate, or other 112798
document to the vendor to claim a price reduction or discount 112799
where the coupon, certificate, or document is authorized, 112800
distributed, or granted by a third party with the understanding 112801
that the third party will reimburse any vendor to whom the coupon, 112802
certificate, or document is presented;112803

       (ii) The consumer identifies the consumer's self to the 112804
seller as a member of a group or organization entitled to a price 112805
reduction or discount. A preferred customer card that is available 112806
to any patron does not constitute membership in such a group or 112807
organization.112808

       (iii) The price reduction or discount is identified as a 112809
third party price reduction or discount on the invoice received by 112810
the consumer, or on a coupon, certificate, or other document 112811
presented by the consumer.112812

       (c) "Price" does not include any of the following:112813

       (i) Discounts, including cash, term, or coupons that are not 112814
reimbursed by a third party that are allowed by a vendor and taken 112815
by a consumer on a sale;112816

       (ii) Interest, financing, and carrying charges from credit 112817
extended on the sale of tangible personal property or services, if 112818
the amount is separately stated on the invoice, bill of sale, or 112819
similar document given to the purchaser;112820

       (iii) Any taxes legally imposed directly on the consumer that 112821
are separately stated on the invoice, bill of sale, or similar 112822
document given to the consumer. For the purpose of this division, 112823
the tax imposed under Chapter 5751. of the Revised Code is not a 112824
tax directly on the consumer, even if the tax or a portion thereof 112825
is separately stated.112826

       (iv) Notwithstanding divisions (H)(1)(b)(i) to (iii) of this 112827
section, any discount allowed by an automobile manufacturer to its 112828
employee, or to the employee of a supplier, on the purchase of a 112829
new motor vehicle from a new motor vehicle dealer in this state.112830

       (v) The dollar value of a gift card that is not sold by a 112831
vendor or purchased by a consumer and that is redeemed by the 112832
consumer in purchasing tangible personal property or services if 112833
the vendor is not reimbursed and does not receive compensation 112834
from a third party to cover all or part of the gift card value. 112835
For the purposes of this division, a gift card is not sold by a 112836
vendor or purchased by a consumer if it is distributed pursuant to 112837
an awards, loyalty, or promotional program. Past and present 112838
purchases of tangible personal property or services by the 112839
consumer shall not be treated as consideration exchanged for a 112840
gift card.112841

       (2) In the case of a sale of any new motor vehicle by a new 112842
motor vehicle dealer, as defined in section 4517.01 of the Revised 112843
Code, in which another motor vehicle is accepted by the dealer as 112844
part of the consideration received, "price" has the same meaning 112845
as in division (H)(1) of this section, reduced by the credit 112846
afforded the consumer by the dealer for the motor vehicle received 112847
in trade.112848

       (3) In the case of a sale of any watercraft or outboard motor 112849
by a watercraft dealer licensed in accordance with section 112850
1547.543 of the Revised Code, in which another watercraft, 112851
watercraft and trailer, or outboard motor is accepted by the 112852
dealer as part of the consideration received, "price" has the same 112853
meaning as in division (H)(1) of this section, reduced by the 112854
credit afforded the consumer by the dealer for the watercraft, 112855
watercraft and trailer, or outboard motor received in trade. As 112856
used in this division, "watercraft" includes an outdrive unit 112857
attached to the watercraft.112858

       (4) In the case of transactions for health care services 112859
under division (B)(11) of this section, "price" means the amount 112860
of managed care premiums received each month by a medicaid health 112861
insuring corporation.112862

       (I) "Receipts" means the total amount of the prices of the 112863
sales of vendors, provided that the dollar value of gift cards 112864
distributed pursuant to an awards, loyalty, or promotional 112865
program, and cash discounts allowed and taken on sales at the time 112866
they are consummated are not included, minus any amount deducted 112867
as a bad debt pursuant to section 5739.121 of the Revised Code. 112868
"Receipts" does not include the sale price of property returned or 112869
services rejected by consumers when the full sale price and tax 112870
are refunded either in cash or by credit.112871

       (J) "Place of business" means any location at which a person 112872
engages in business.112873

       (K) "Premises" includes any real property or portion thereof 112874
upon which any person engages in selling tangible personal 112875
property at retail or making retail sales and also includes any 112876
real property or portion thereof designated for, or devoted to, 112877
use in conjunction with the business engaged in by such person.112878

       (L) "Casual sale" means a sale of an item of tangible 112879
personal property that was obtained by the person making the sale, 112880
through purchase or otherwise, for the person's own use and was 112881
previously subject to any state's taxing jurisdiction on its sale 112882
or use, and includes such items acquired for the seller's use that 112883
are sold by an auctioneer employed directly by the person for such 112884
purpose, provided the location of such sales is not the 112885
auctioneer's permanent place of business. As used in this 112886
division, "permanent place of business" includes any location 112887
where such auctioneer has conducted more than two auctions during 112888
the year.112889

       (M) "Hotel" means every establishment kept, used, maintained, 112890
advertised, or held out to the public to be a place where sleeping 112891
accommodations are offered to guests, in which five or more rooms 112892
are used for the accommodation of such guests, whether the rooms 112893
are in one or several structures, except as otherwise provided in 112894
division (G) of section 5739.09 of the Revised Code.112895

       (N) "Transient guests" means persons occupying a room or 112896
rooms for sleeping accommodations for less than thirty consecutive 112897
days.112898

       (O) "Making retail sales" means the effecting of transactions 112899
wherein one party is obligated to pay the price and the other 112900
party is obligated to provide a service or to transfer title to or 112901
possession of the item sold. "Making retail sales" does not 112902
include the preliminary acts of promoting or soliciting the retail 112903
sales, other than the distribution of printed matter which 112904
displays or describes and prices the item offered for sale, nor 112905
does it include delivery of a predetermined quantity of tangible 112906
personal property or transportation of property or personnel to or 112907
from a place where a service is performed.112908

       (P) "Used directly in the rendition of a public utility 112909
service" means that property that is to be incorporated into and 112910
will become a part of the consumer's production, transmission, 112911
transportation, or distribution system and that retains its 112912
classification as tangible personal property after such 112913
incorporation; fuel or power used in the production, transmission, 112914
transportation, or distribution system; and tangible personal 112915
property used in the repair and maintenance of the production, 112916
transmission, transportation, or distribution system, including 112917
only such motor vehicles as are specially designed and equipped 112918
for such use. Tangible personal property and services used 112919
primarily in providing highway transportation for hire are not 112920
used directly in the rendition of a public utility service. In 112921
this definition, "public utility" includes a citizen of the United 112922
States holding, and required to hold, a certificate of public 112923
convenience and necessity issued under 49 U.S.C. 41102.112924

       (Q) "Refining" means removing or separating a desirable 112925
product from raw or contaminated materials by distillation or 112926
physical, mechanical, or chemical processes.112927

       (R) "Assembly" and "assembling" mean attaching or fitting 112928
together parts to form a product, but do not include packaging a 112929
product.112930

       (S) "Manufacturing operation" means a process in which 112931
materials are changed, converted, or transformed into a different 112932
state or form from which they previously existed and includes 112933
refining materials, assembling parts, and preparing raw materials 112934
and parts by mixing, measuring, blending, or otherwise committing 112935
such materials or parts to the manufacturing process. 112936
"Manufacturing operation" does not include packaging.112937

       (T) "Fiscal officer" means, with respect to a regional 112938
transit authority, the secretary-treasurer thereof, and with 112939
respect to a county that is a transit authority, the fiscal 112940
officer of the county transit board if one is appointed pursuant 112941
to section 306.03 of the Revised Code or the county auditor if the 112942
board of county commissioners operates the county transit system.112943

       (U) "Transit authority" means a regional transit authority 112944
created pursuant to section 306.31 of the Revised Code or a county 112945
in which a county transit system is created pursuant to section 112946
306.01 of the Revised Code. For the purposes of this chapter, a 112947
transit authority must extend to at least the entire area of a 112948
single county. A transit authority that includes territory in more 112949
than one county must include all the area of the most populous 112950
county that is a part of such transit authority. County population 112951
shall be measured by the most recent census taken by the United 112952
States census bureau.112953

       (V) "Legislative authority" means, with respect to a regional 112954
transit authority, the board of trustees thereof, and with respect 112955
to a county that is a transit authority, the board of county 112956
commissioners.112957

       (W) "Territory of the transit authority" means all of the 112958
area included within the territorial boundaries of a transit 112959
authority as they from time to time exist. Such territorial 112960
boundaries must at all times include all the area of a single 112961
county or all the area of the most populous county that is a part 112962
of such transit authority. County population shall be measured by 112963
the most recent census taken by the United States census bureau.112964

       (X) "Providing a service" means providing or furnishing 112965
anything described in division (B)(3) of this section for 112966
consideration.112967

       (Y)(1)(a) "Automatic data processing" means processing of 112968
others' data, including keypunching or similar data entry services 112969
together with verification thereof, or providing access to 112970
computer equipment for the purpose of processing data.112971

       (b) "Computer services" means providing services consisting 112972
of specifying computer hardware configurations and evaluating 112973
technical processing characteristics, computer programming, and 112974
training of computer programmers and operators, provided in 112975
conjunction with and to support the sale, lease, or operation of 112976
taxable computer equipment or systems.112977

       (c) "Electronic information services" means providing access 112978
to computer equipment by means of telecommunications equipment for 112979
the purpose of either of the following:112980

       (i) Examining or acquiring data stored in or accessible to 112981
the computer equipment;112982

       (ii) Placing data into the computer equipment to be retrieved 112983
by designated recipients with access to the computer equipment.112984

       For transactions occurring on or after the effective date of 112985
the amendment of this section by H.B. 157 of the 127th general 112986
assembly, December 21, 2007, "electronic information services" 112987
does not include electronic publishing as defined in division 112988
(LLL) of this section.112989

       (d) "Automatic data processing, computer services, or 112990
electronic information services" shall not include personal or 112991
professional services.112992

       (2) As used in divisions (B)(3)(e) and (Y)(1) of this 112993
section, "personal and professional services" means all services 112994
other than automatic data processing, computer services, or 112995
electronic information services, including but not limited to:112996

       (a) Accounting and legal services such as advice on tax 112997
matters, asset management, budgetary matters, quality control, 112998
information security, and auditing and any other situation where 112999
the service provider receives data or information and studies, 113000
alters, analyzes, interprets, or adjusts such material;113001

       (b) Analyzing business policies and procedures;113002

       (c) Identifying management information needs;113003

       (d) Feasibility studies, including economic and technical 113004
analysis of existing or potential computer hardware or software 113005
needs and alternatives;113006

       (e) Designing policies, procedures, and custom software for 113007
collecting business information, and determining how data should 113008
be summarized, sequenced, formatted, processed, controlled, and 113009
reported so that it will be meaningful to management;113010

       (f) Developing policies and procedures that document how 113011
business events and transactions are to be authorized, executed, 113012
and controlled;113013

       (g) Testing of business procedures;113014

       (h) Training personnel in business procedure applications;113015

       (i) Providing credit information to users of such information 113016
by a consumer reporting agency, as defined in the "Fair Credit 113017
Reporting Act," 84 Stat. 1114, 1129 (1970), 15 U.S.C. 1681a(f), or 113018
as hereafter amended, including but not limited to gathering, 113019
organizing, analyzing, recording, and furnishing such information 113020
by any oral, written, graphic, or electronic medium;113021

       (j) Providing debt collection services by any oral, written, 113022
graphic, or electronic means.113023

       The services listed in divisions (Y)(2)(a) to (j) of this 113024
section are not automatic data processing or computer services.113025

       (Z) "Highway transportation for hire" means the 113026
transportation of personal property belonging to others for 113027
consideration by any of the following:113028

       (1) The holder of a permit or certificate issued by this 113029
state or the United States authorizing the holder to engage in 113030
transportation of personal property belonging to others for 113031
consideration over or on highways, roadways, streets, or any 113032
similar public thoroughfare;113033

       (2) A person who engages in the transportation of personal 113034
property belonging to others for consideration over or on 113035
highways, roadways, streets, or any similar public thoroughfare 113036
but who could not have engaged in such transportation on December 113037
11, 1985, unless the person was the holder of a permit or 113038
certificate of the types described in division (Z)(1) of this 113039
section;113040

       (3) A person who leases a motor vehicle to and operates it 113041
for a person described by division (Z)(1) or (2) of this section.113042

       (AA)(1) "Telecommunications service" means the electronic 113043
transmission, conveyance, or routing of voice, data, audio, video, 113044
or any other information or signals to a point, or between or 113045
among points. "Telecommunications service" includes such 113046
transmission, conveyance, or routing in which computer processing 113047
applications are used to act on the form, code, or protocol of the 113048
content for purposes of transmission, conveyance, or routing 113049
without regard to whether the service is referred to as voice-over 113050
internet protocol service or is classified by the federal 113051
communications commission as enhanced or value-added. 113052
"Telecommunications service" does not include any of the 113053
following:113054

        (a) Data processing and information services that allow data 113055
to be generated, acquired, stored, processed, or retrieved and 113056
delivered by an electronic transmission to a consumer where the 113057
consumer's primary purpose for the underlying transaction is the 113058
processed data or information;113059

        (b) Installation or maintenance of wiring or equipment on a 113060
customer's premises;113061

        (c) Tangible personal property;113062

       (d) Advertising, including directory advertising;113063

        (e) Billing and collection services provided to third 113064
parties;113065

        (f) Internet access service;113066

        (g) Radio and television audio and video programming 113067
services, regardless of the medium, including the furnishing of 113068
transmission, conveyance, and routing of such services by the 113069
programming service provider. Radio and television audio and video 113070
programming services include, but are not limited to, cable 113071
service, as defined in 47 U.S.C. 522(6), and audio and video 113072
programming services delivered by commercial mobile radio service 113073
providers, as defined in 47 C.F.R. 20.3;113074

        (h) Ancillary service;113075

        (i) Digital products delivered electronically, including 113076
software, music, video, reading materials, or ring tones.113077

        (2) "Ancillary service" means a service that is associated 113078
with or incidental to the provision of telecommunications service, 113079
including conference bridging service, detailed telecommunications 113080
billing service, directory assistance, vertical service, and voice 113081
mail service. As used in this division:113082

        (a) "Conference bridging service" means an ancillary service 113083
that links two or more participants of an audio or video 113084
conference call, including providing a telephone number. 113085
"Conference bridging service" does not include telecommunications 113086
services used to reach the conference bridge.113087

        (b) "Detailed telecommunications billing service" means an 113088
ancillary service of separately stating information pertaining to 113089
individual calls on a customer's billing statement.113090

        (c) "Directory assistance" means an ancillary service of 113091
providing telephone number or address information.113092

        (d) "Vertical service" means an ancillary service that is 113093
offered in connection with one or more telecommunications 113094
services, which offers advanced calling features that allow 113095
customers to identify callers and manage multiple calls and call 113096
connections, including conference bridging service.113097

        (e) "Voice mail service" means an ancillary service that 113098
enables the customer to store, send, or receive recorded messages. 113099
"Voice mail service" does not include any vertical services that 113100
the customer may be required to have in order to utilize the voice 113101
mail service.113102

        (3) "900 service" means an inbound toll telecommunications 113103
service purchased by a subscriber that allows the subscriber's 113104
customers to call in to the subscriber's prerecorded announcement 113105
or live service, and which is typically marketed under the name 113106
"900" service" and any subsequent numbers designated by the 113107
federal communications commission. "900 service" does not include 113108
the charge for collection services provided by the seller of the 113109
telecommunications service to the subscriber, or services or 113110
products sold by the subscriber to the subscriber's customer.113111

        (4) "Prepaid calling service" means the right to access 113112
exclusively telecommunications services, which must be paid for in 113113
advance and which enables the origination of calls using an access 113114
number or authorization code, whether manually or electronically 113115
dialed, and that is sold in predetermined units or dollars of 113116
which the number declines with use in a known amount.113117

        (5) "Prepaid wireless calling service" means a 113118
telecommunications service that provides the right to utilize 113119
mobile telecommunications service as well as other 113120
non-telecommunications services, including the download of digital 113121
products delivered electronically, and content and ancillary 113122
services, that must be paid for in advance and that is sold in 113123
predetermined units or dollars of which the number declines with 113124
use in a known amount.113125

        (6) "Value-added non-voice data service" means a 113126
telecommunications service in which computer processing 113127
applications are used to act on the form, content, code, or 113128
protocol of the information or data primarily for a purpose other 113129
than transmission, conveyance, or routing.113130

        (7) "Coin-operated telephone service" means a 113131
telecommunications service paid for by inserting money into a 113132
telephone accepting direct deposits of money to operate.113133

        (8) "Customer" has the same meaning as in section 5739.034 of 113134
the Revised Code.113135

       (BB) "Laundry and dry cleaning services" means removing soil 113136
or dirt from towels, linens, articles of clothing, or other fabric 113137
items that belong to others and supplying towels, linens, articles 113138
of clothing, or other fabric items. "Laundry and dry cleaning 113139
services" does not include the provision of self-service 113140
facilities for use by consumers to remove soil or dirt from 113141
towels, linens, articles of clothing, or other fabric items.113142

       (CC) "Magazines distributed as controlled circulation 113143
publications" means magazines containing at least twenty-four 113144
pages, at least twenty-five per cent editorial content, issued at 113145
regular intervals four or more times a year, and circulated 113146
without charge to the recipient, provided that such magazines are 113147
not owned or controlled by individuals or business concerns which 113148
conduct such publications as an auxiliary to, and essentially for 113149
the advancement of the main business or calling of, those who own 113150
or control them.113151

       (DD) "Landscaping and lawn care service" means the services 113152
of planting, seeding, sodding, removing, cutting, trimming, 113153
pruning, mulching, aerating, applying chemicals, watering, 113154
fertilizing, and providing similar services to establish, promote, 113155
or control the growth of trees, shrubs, flowers, grass, ground 113156
cover, and other flora, or otherwise maintaining a lawn or 113157
landscape grown or maintained by the owner for ornamentation or 113158
other nonagricultural purpose. However, "landscaping and lawn care 113159
service" does not include the providing of such services by a 113160
person who has less than five thousand dollars in sales of such 113161
services during the calendar year.113162

       (EE) "Private investigation and security service" means the 113163
performance of any activity for which the provider of such service 113164
is required to be licensed pursuant to Chapter 4749. of the 113165
Revised Code, or would be required to be so licensed in performing 113166
such services in this state, and also includes the services of 113167
conducting polygraph examinations and of monitoring or overseeing 113168
the activities on or in, or the condition of, the consumer's home, 113169
business, or other facility by means of electronic or similar 113170
monitoring devices. "Private investigation and security service" 113171
does not include special duty services provided by off-duty police 113172
officers, deputy sheriffs, and other peace officers regularly 113173
employed by the state or a political subdivision.113174

       (FF) "Information services" means providing conversation, 113175
giving consultation or advice, playing or making a voice or other 113176
recording, making or keeping a record of the number of callers, 113177
and any other service provided to a consumer by means of a nine 113178
hundred telephone call, except when the nine hundred telephone 113179
call is the means by which the consumer makes a contribution to a 113180
recognized charity.113181

       (GG) "Research and development" means designing, creating, or 113182
formulating new or enhanced products, equipment, or manufacturing 113183
processes, and also means conducting scientific or technological 113184
inquiry and experimentation in the physical sciences with the goal 113185
of increasing scientific knowledge which may reveal the bases for 113186
new or enhanced products, equipment, or manufacturing processes.113187

       (HH) "Qualified research and development equipment" means 113188
capitalized tangible personal property, and leased personal 113189
property that would be capitalized if purchased, used by a person 113190
primarily to perform research and development. Tangible personal 113191
property primarily used in testing, as defined in division (A)(4) 113192
of section 5739.011 of the Revised Code, or used for recording or 113193
storing test results, is not qualified research and development 113194
equipment unless such property is primarily used by the consumer 113195
in testing the product, equipment, or manufacturing process being 113196
created, designed, or formulated by the consumer in the research 113197
and development activity or in recording or storing such test 113198
results.113199

       (II) "Building maintenance and janitorial service" means 113200
cleaning the interior or exterior of a building and any tangible 113201
personal property located therein or thereon, including any 113202
services incidental to such cleaning for which no separate charge 113203
is made. However, "building maintenance and janitorial service" 113204
does not include the providing of such service by a person who has 113205
less than five thousand dollars in sales of such service during 113206
the calendar year.113207

       (JJ) "Employment service" means providing or supplying 113208
personnel, on a temporary or long-term basis, to perform work or 113209
labor under the supervision or control of another, when the 113210
personnel so provided or supplied receive their wages, salary, or 113211
other compensation from the provider or supplier of the employment 113212
service or from a third party that provided or supplied the 113213
personnel to the provider or supplier. "Employment service" does 113214
not include:113215

       (1) Acting as a contractor or subcontractor, where the 113216
personnel performing the work are not under the direct control of 113217
the purchaser.113218

       (2) Medical and health care services.113219

       (3) Supplying personnel to a purchaser pursuant to a contract 113220
of at least one year between the service provider and the 113221
purchaser that specifies that each employee covered under the 113222
contract is assigned to the purchaser on a permanent basis.113223

       (4) Transactions between members of an affiliated group, as 113224
defined in division (B)(3)(e) of this section.113225

       (5) Transactions where the personnel so provided or supplied 113226
by a provider or supplier to a purchaser of an employment service 113227
are then provided or supplied by that purchaser to a third party 113228
as an employment service, except "employment service" does include 113229
the transaction between that purchaser and the third party.113230

       (KK) "Employment placement service" means locating or finding 113231
employment for a person or finding or locating an employee to fill 113232
an available position.113233

       (LL) "Exterminating service" means eradicating or attempting 113234
to eradicate vermin infestations from a building or structure, or 113235
the area surrounding a building or structure, and includes 113236
activities to inspect, detect, or prevent vermin infestation of a 113237
building or structure.113238

       (MM) "Physical fitness facility service" means all 113239
transactions by which a membership is granted, maintained, or 113240
renewed, including initiation fees, membership dues, renewal fees, 113241
monthly minimum fees, and other similar fees and dues, by a 113242
physical fitness facility such as an athletic club, health spa, or 113243
gymnasium, which entitles the member to use the facility for 113244
physical exercise.113245

       (NN) "Recreation and sports club service" means all 113246
transactions by which a membership is granted, maintained, or 113247
renewed, including initiation fees, membership dues, renewal fees, 113248
monthly minimum fees, and other similar fees and dues, by a 113249
recreation and sports club, which entitles the member to use the 113250
facilities of the organization. "Recreation and sports club" means 113251
an organization that has ownership of, or controls or leases on a 113252
continuing, long-term basis, the facilities used by its members 113253
and includes an aviation club, gun or shooting club, yacht club, 113254
card club, swimming club, tennis club, golf club, country club, 113255
riding club, amateur sports club, or similar organization.113256

       (OO) "Livestock" means farm animals commonly raised for food, 113257
food production, or other agricultural purposes, including, but 113258
not limited to, cattle, sheep, goats, swine, poultry, and captive 113259
deer. "Livestock" does not include invertebrates, amphibians, 113260
reptiles, domestic pets, animals for use in laboratories or for 113261
exhibition, or other animals not commonly raised for food or food 113262
production.113263

       (PP) "Livestock structure" means a building or structure used 113264
exclusively for the housing, raising, feeding, or sheltering of 113265
livestock, and includes feed storage or handling structures and 113266
structures for livestock waste handling.113267

       (QQ) "Horticulture" means the growing, cultivation, and 113268
production of flowers, fruits, herbs, vegetables, sod, mushrooms, 113269
and nursery stock. As used in this division, "nursery stock" has 113270
the same meaning as in section 927.51 of the Revised Code.113271

       (RR) "Horticulture structure" means a building or structure 113272
used exclusively for the commercial growing, raising, or 113273
overwintering of horticultural products, and includes the area 113274
used for stocking, storing, and packing horticultural products 113275
when done in conjunction with the production of those products.113276

       (SS) "Newspaper" means an unbound publication bearing a title 113277
or name that is regularly published, at least as frequently as 113278
biweekly, and distributed from a fixed place of business to the 113279
public in a specific geographic area, and that contains a 113280
substantial amount of news matter of international, national, or 113281
local events of interest to the general public.113282

       (TT) "Professional racing team" means a person that employs 113283
at least twenty full-time employees for the purpose of conducting 113284
a motor vehicle racing business for profit. The person must 113285
conduct the business with the purpose of racing one or more motor 113286
racing vehicles in at least ten competitive professional racing 113287
events each year that comprise all or part of a motor racing 113288
series sanctioned by one or more motor racing sanctioning 113289
organizations. A "motor racing vehicle" means a vehicle for which 113290
the chassis, engine, and parts are designed exclusively for motor 113291
racing, and does not include a stock or production model vehicle 113292
that may be modified for use in racing. For the purposes of this 113293
division:113294

       (1) A "competitive professional racing event" is a motor 113295
vehicle racing event sanctioned by one or more motor racing 113296
sanctioning organizations, at which aggregate cash prizes in 113297
excess of eight hundred thousand dollars are awarded to the 113298
competitors.113299

       (2) "Full-time employee" means an individual who is employed 113300
for consideration for thirty-five or more hours a week, or who 113301
renders any other standard of service generally accepted by custom 113302
or specified by contract as full-time employment.113303

        (UU)(1) "Lease" or "rental" means any transfer of the 113304
possession or control of tangible personal property for a fixed or 113305
indefinite term, for consideration. "Lease" or "rental" includes 113306
future options to purchase or extend, and agreements described in 113307
26 U.S.C. 7701(h)(1) covering motor vehicles and trailers where 113308
the amount of consideration may be increased or decreased by 113309
reference to the amount realized upon the sale or disposition of 113310
the property. "Lease" or "rental" does not include:113311

       (a) A transfer of possession or control of tangible personal 113312
property under a security agreement or a deferred payment plan 113313
that requires the transfer of title upon completion of the 113314
required payments;113315

       (b) A transfer of possession or control of tangible personal 113316
property under an agreement that requires the transfer of title 113317
upon completion of required payments and payment of an option 113318
price that does not exceed the greater of one hundred dollars or 113319
one per cent of the total required payments;113320

       (c) Providing tangible personal property along with an 113321
operator for a fixed or indefinite period of time, if the operator 113322
is necessary for the property to perform as designed. For purposes 113323
of this division, the operator must do more than maintain, 113324
inspect, or set-upset up the tangible personal property.113325

       (2) "Lease" and "rental," as defined in division (UU) of this 113326
section, shall not apply to leases or rentals that exist before 113327
June 26, 2003.113328

       (3) "Lease" and "rental" have the same meaning as in division 113329
(UU)(1) of this section regardless of whether a transaction is 113330
characterized as a lease or rental under generally accepted 113331
accounting principles, the Internal Revenue Code, Title XIII of 113332
the Revised Code, or other federal, state, or local laws.113333

       (VV) "Mobile telecommunications service" has the same meaning 113334
as in the "Mobile Telecommunications Sourcing Act," Pub. L. No. 113335
106-252, 114 Stat. 631 (2000), 4 U.S.C.A. 124(7), as amended, and, 113336
on and after August 1, 2003, includes related fees and ancillary 113337
services, including universal service fees, detailed billing 113338
service, directory assistance, service initiation, voice mail 113339
service, and vertical services, such as caller ID and three-way 113340
calling.113341

       (WW) "Certified service provider" has the same meaning as in 113342
section 5740.01 of the Revised Code.113343

       (XX) "Satellite broadcasting service" means the distribution 113344
or broadcasting of programming or services by satellite directly 113345
to the subscriber's receiving equipment without the use of ground 113346
receiving or distribution equipment, except the subscriber's 113347
receiving equipment or equipment used in the uplink process to the 113348
satellite, and includes all service and rental charges, premium 113349
channels or other special services, installation and repair 113350
service charges, and any other charges having any connection with 113351
the provision of the satellite broadcasting service.113352

       (YY) "Tangible personal property" means personal property 113353
that can be seen, weighed, measured, felt, or touched, or that is 113354
in any other manner perceptible to the senses. For purposes of 113355
this chapter and Chapter 5741. of the Revised Code, "tangible 113356
personal property" includes motor vehicles, electricity, water, 113357
gas, steam, and prewritten computer software.113358

       (ZZ) "Direct mail" means printed material delivered or 113359
distributed by United States mail or other delivery service to a 113360
mass audience or to addressees on a mailing list provided by the 113361
consumer or at the direction of the consumer when the cost of the 113362
items are not billed directly to the recipients. "Direct mail" 113363
includes tangible personal property supplied directly or 113364
indirectly by the consumer to the direct mail vendor for inclusion 113365
in the package containing the printed material. "Direct mail" does 113366
not include multiple items of printed material delivered to a 113367
single address.113368

       (AAA) "Computer" means an electronic device that accepts 113369
information in digital or similar form and manipulates it for a 113370
result based on a sequence of instructions.113371

       (BBB) "Computer software" means a set of coded instructions 113372
designed to cause a computer or automatic data processing 113373
equipment to perform a task.113374

       (CCC) "Delivered electronically" means delivery of computer 113375
software from the seller to the purchaser by means other than 113376
tangible storage media.113377

       (DDD) "Prewritten computer software" means computer software, 113378
including prewritten upgrades, that is not designed and developed 113379
by the author or other creator to the specifications of a specific 113380
purchaser. The combining of two or more prewritten computer 113381
software programs or prewritten portions thereof does not cause 113382
the combination to be other than prewritten computer software. 113383
"Prewritten computer software" includes software designed and 113384
developed by the author or other creator to the specifications of 113385
a specific purchaser when it is sold to a person other than the 113386
purchaser. If a person modifies or enhances computer software of 113387
which the person is not the author or creator, the person shall be 113388
deemed to be the author or creator only of such person's 113389
modifications or enhancements. Prewritten computer software or a 113390
prewritten portion thereof that is modified or enhanced to any 113391
degree, where such modification or enhancement is designed and 113392
developed to the specifications of a specific purchaser, remains 113393
prewritten computer software; provided, however, that where there 113394
is a reasonable, separately stated charge or an invoice or other 113395
statement of the price given to the purchaser for the modification 113396
or enhancement, the modification or enhancement shall not 113397
constitute prewritten computer software.113398

       (EEE)(1) "Food" means substances, whether in liquid, 113399
concentrated, solid, frozen, dried, or dehydrated form, that are 113400
sold for ingestion or chewing by humans and are consumed for their 113401
taste or nutritional value. "Food" does not include alcoholic 113402
beverages, dietary supplements, soft drinks, or tobacco.113403

       (2) As used in division (EEE)(1) of this section:113404

       (a) "Alcoholic beverages" means beverages that are suitable 113405
for human consumption and contain one-half of one per cent or more 113406
of alcohol by volume.113407

       (b) "Dietary supplements" means any product, other than 113408
tobacco, that is intended to supplement the diet and that is 113409
intended for ingestion in tablet, capsule, powder, softgel, 113410
gelcap, or liquid form, or, if not intended for ingestion in such 113411
a form, is not represented as conventional food for use as a sole 113412
item of a meal or of the diet; that is required to be labeled as a 113413
dietary supplement, identifiable by the "supplement facts" box 113414
found on the label, as required by 21 C.F.R. 101.36; and that 113415
contains one or more of the following dietary ingredients:113416

       (i) A vitamin;113417

       (ii) A mineral;113418

       (iii) An herb or other botanical;113419

       (iv) An amino acid;113420

       (v) A dietary substance for use by humans to supplement the 113421
diet by increasing the total dietary intake;113422

       (vi) A concentrate, metabolite, constituent, extract, or 113423
combination of any ingredient described in divisions 113424
(EEE)(2)(b)(i) to (v) of this section.113425

       (c) "Soft drinks" means nonalcoholic beverages that contain 113426
natural or artificial sweeteners. "Soft drinks" does not include 113427
beverages that contain milk or milk products, soy, rice, or 113428
similar milk substitutes, or that contains greater than fifty per 113429
cent vegetable or fruit juice by volume.113430

       (d) "Tobacco" means cigarettes, cigars, chewing or pipe 113431
tobacco, or any other item that contains tobacco.113432

       (FFF) "Drug" means a compound, substance, or preparation, and 113433
any component of a compound, substance, or preparation, other than 113434
food, dietary supplements, or alcoholic beverages that is 113435
recognized in the official United States pharmacopoeia, official 113436
homeopathic pharmacopoeia of the United States, or official 113437
national formulary, and supplements to them; is intended for use 113438
in the diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment, or prevention of 113439
disease; or is intended to affect the structure or any function of 113440
the body.113441

       (GGG) "Prescription" means an order, formula, or recipe 113442
issued in any form of oral, written, electronic, or other means of 113443
transmission by a duly licensed practitioner authorized by the 113444
laws of this state to issue a prescription.113445

       (HHH) "Durable medical equipment" means equipment, including 113446
repair and replacement parts for such equipment, that can 113447
withstand repeated use, is primarily and customarily used to serve 113448
a medical purpose, generally is not useful to a person in the 113449
absence of illness or injury, and is not worn in or on the body. 113450
"Durable medical equipment" does not include mobility enhancing 113451
equipment.113452

       (III) "Mobility enhancing equipment" means equipment, 113453
including repair and replacement parts for such equipment, that is 113454
primarily and customarily used to provide or increase the ability 113455
to move from one place to another and is appropriate for use 113456
either in a home or a motor vehicle, that is not generally used by 113457
persons with normal mobility, and that does not include any motor 113458
vehicle or equipment on a motor vehicle normally provided by a 113459
motor vehicle manufacturer. "Mobility enhancing equipment" does 113460
not include durable medical equipment.113461

       (JJJ) "Prosthetic device" means a replacement, corrective, or 113462
supportive device, including repair and replacement parts for the 113463
device, worn on or in the human body to artificially replace a 113464
missing portion of the body, prevent or correct physical deformity 113465
or malfunction, or support a weak or deformed portion of the body. 113466
As used in this division, "prosthetic device" does not include 113467
corrective eyeglasses, contact lenses, or dental prosthesis.113468

       (KKK)(1) "Fractional aircraft ownership program" means a 113469
program in which persons within an affiliated group sell and 113470
manage fractional ownership program aircraft, provided that at 113471
least one hundred airworthy aircraft are operated in the program 113472
and the program meets all of the following criteria:113473

       (a) Management services are provided by at least one program 113474
manager within an affiliated group on behalf of the fractional 113475
owners.113476

       (b) Each program aircraft is owned or possessed by at least 113477
one fractional owner.113478

       (c) Each fractional owner owns or possesses at least a 113479
one-sixteenth interest in at least one fixed-wing program 113480
aircraft.113481

       (d) A dry-lease aircraft interchange arrangement is in effect 113482
among all of the fractional owners.113483

       (e) Multi-year program agreements are in effect regarding the 113484
fractional ownership, management services, and dry-lease aircraft 113485
interchange arrangement aspects of the program.113486

       (2) As used in division (KKK)(1) of this section:113487

       (a) "Affiliated group" has the same meaning as in division 113488
(B)(3)(e) of this section.113489

        (b) "Fractional owner" means a person that owns or possesses 113490
at least a one-sixteenth interest in a program aircraft and has 113491
entered into the agreements described in division (KKK)(1)(e) of 113492
this section.113493

       (c) "Fractional ownership program aircraft" or "program 113494
aircraft" means a turbojet aircraft that is owned or possessed by 113495
a fractional owner and that has been included in a dry-lease 113496
aircraft interchange arrangement and agreement under divisions 113497
(KKK)(1)(d) and (e) of this section, or an aircraft a program 113498
manager owns or possesses primarily for use in a fractional 113499
aircraft ownership program.113500

       (d) "Management services" means administrative and aviation 113501
support services furnished under a fractional aircraft ownership 113502
program in accordance with a management services agreement under 113503
division (KKK)(1)(e) of this section, and offered by the program 113504
manager to the fractional owners, including, at a minimum, the 113505
establishment and implementation of safety guidelines; the 113506
coordination of the scheduling of the program aircraft and crews; 113507
program aircraft maintenance; program aircraft insurance; crew 113508
training for crews employed, furnished, or contracted by the 113509
program manager or the fractional owner; the satisfaction of 113510
record-keeping requirements; and the development and use of an 113511
operations manual and a maintenance manual for the fractional 113512
aircraft ownership program.113513

       (e) "Program manager" means the person that offers management 113514
services to fractional owners pursuant to a management services 113515
agreement under division (KKK)(1)(e) of this section.113516

       (LLL) "Electronic publishing" means providing access to one 113517
or more of the following primarily for business customers, 113518
including the federal government or a state government or a 113519
political subdivision thereof, to conduct research: news; 113520
business, financial, legal, consumer, or credit materials; 113521
editorials, columns, reader commentary, or features; photos or 113522
images; archival or research material; legal notices, identity 113523
verification, or public records; scientific, educational, 113524
instructional, technical, professional, trade, or other literary 113525
materials; or other similar information which has been gathered 113526
and made available by the provider to the consumer in an 113527
electronic format. Providing electronic publishing includes the 113528
functions necessary for the acquisition, formatting, editing, 113529
storage, and dissemination of data or information that is the 113530
subject of a sale.113531

       (MMM) "Medicaid health insuring corporation" means a health 113532
insuring corporation that holds a certificate of authority under 113533
Chapter 1751. of the Revised Code and is under contract with the 113534
department of job and family services pursuant to section 5111.17 113535
of the Revised Code.113536

       (NNN) "Managed care premium" means any premium, capitation, 113537
or other payment a medicaid health insuring corporation receives 113538
for providing or arranging for the provision of health care 113539
services to its members or enrollees residing in this state.113540

       (OOO) "Captive deer" means deer and other cervidae that have 113541
been legally acquired, or their offspring, that are privately 113542
owned for agricultural or farming purposes.113543

       (PPP) "Gift card" means a document, card, certificate, or 113544
other record, whether tangible or intangible, that may be redeemed 113545
by a consumer for a dollar value when making a purchase of 113546
tangible personal property or services.113547

       (QQQ) "Hotel intermediary" means a person, other than a 113548
hotel, that contracts with hotels to sell reservations for lodging 113549
at such hotels to transient guests.113550

       Sec. 5739.02.  For the purpose of providing revenue with 113551
which to meet the needs of the state, for the use of the general 113552
revenue fund of the state, for the purpose of securing a thorough 113553
and efficient system of common schools throughout the state, for 113554
the purpose of affording revenues, in addition to those from 113555
general property taxes, permitted under constitutional 113556
limitations, and from other sources, for the support of local 113557
governmental functions, and for the purpose of reimbursing the 113558
state for the expense of administering this chapter, an excise tax 113559
is hereby levied on each retail sale made in this state.113560

       (A)(1) The tax shall be collected as provided in section 113561
5739.025 of the Revised Code. The rate of the tax shall be five 113562
and one-half per cent. The tax applies and is collectible when the 113563
sale is made, regardless of the time when the price is paid or 113564
delivered.113565

        (2) In the case of the lease or rental, with a fixed term of 113566
more than thirty days or an indefinite term with a minimum period 113567
of more than thirty days, of any motor vehicles designed by the 113568
manufacturer to carry a load of not more than one ton, watercraft, 113569
outboard motor, or aircraft, or of any tangible personal property, 113570
other than motor vehicles designed by the manufacturer to carry a 113571
load of more than one ton, to be used by the lessee or renter 113572
primarily for business purposes, the tax shall be collected by the 113573
vendor at the time the lease or rental is consummated and shall be 113574
calculated by the vendor on the basis of the total amount to be 113575
paid by the lessee or renter under the lease agreement. If the 113576
total amount of the consideration for the lease or rental includes 113577
amounts that are not calculated at the time the lease or rental is 113578
executed, the tax shall be calculated and collected by the vendor 113579
at the time such amounts are billed to the lessee or renter. In 113580
the case of an open-end lease or rental, the tax shall be 113581
calculated by the vendor on the basis of the total amount to be 113582
paid during the initial fixed term of the lease or rental, and for 113583
each subsequent renewal period as it comes due. As used in this 113584
division, "motor vehicle" has the same meaning as in section 113585
4501.01 of the Revised Code, and "watercraft" includes an outdrive 113586
unit attached to the watercraft.113587

       A lease with a renewal clause and a termination penalty or 113588
similar provision that applies if the renewal clause is not 113589
exercised is presumed to be a sham transaction. In such a case, 113590
the tax shall be calculated and paid on the basis of the entire 113591
length of the lease period, including any renewal periods, until 113592
the termination penalty or similar provision no longer applies. 113593
The taxpayer shall bear the burden, by a preponderance of the 113594
evidence, that the transaction or series of transactions is not a 113595
sham transaction.113596

       (3) Except as provided in division (A)(2) of this section, in 113597
the case of a sale, the price of which consists in whole or in 113598
part of the lease or rental of tangible personal property, the tax 113599
shall be measured by the installments of that lease or rental.113600

       (4) In the case of a sale of a physical fitness facility 113601
service or recreation and sports club service, the price of which 113602
consists in whole or in part of a membership for the receipt of 113603
the benefit of the service, the tax applicable to the sale shall 113604
be measured by the installments thereof.113605

       (B) The tax does not apply to the following:113606

       (1) Sales to the state or any of its political subdivisions, 113607
or to any other state or its political subdivisions if the laws of 113608
that state exempt from taxation sales made to this state and its 113609
political subdivisions;113610

       (2) Sales of food for human consumption off the premises 113611
where sold;113612

       (3) Sales of food sold to students only in a cafeteria, 113613
dormitory, fraternity, or sorority maintained in a private, 113614
public, or parochial school, college, or university;113615

       (4) Sales of newspapers and of magazine subscriptions and 113616
sales or transfers of magazines distributed as controlled 113617
circulation publications;113618

       (5) The furnishing, preparing, or serving of meals without 113619
charge by an employer to an employee provided the employer records 113620
the meals as part compensation for services performed or work 113621
done;113622

       (6) Sales of motor fuel upon receipt, use, distribution, or 113623
sale of which in this state a tax is imposed by the law of this 113624
state, but this exemption shall not apply to the sale of motor 113625
fuel on which a refund of the tax is allowable under division (A) 113626
of section 5735.14 of the Revised Code; and the tax commissioner 113627
may deduct the amount of tax levied by this section applicable to 113628
the price of motor fuel when granting a refund of motor fuel tax 113629
pursuant to division (A) of section 5735.14 of the Revised Code 113630
and shall cause the amount deducted to be paid into the general 113631
revenue fund of this state;113632

       (7) Sales of natural gas by a natural gas company, of water 113633
by a water-works company, or of steam by a heating company, if in 113634
each case the thing sold is delivered to consumers through pipes 113635
or conduits, and all sales of communications services by a 113636
telegraph company, all terms as defined in section 5727.01 of the 113637
Revised Code, and sales of electricity delivered through wires;113638

       (8) Casual sales by a person, or auctioneer employed directly 113639
by the person to conduct such sales, except as to such sales of 113640
motor vehicles, watercraft or outboard motors required to be 113641
titled under section 1548.06 of the Revised Code, watercraft 113642
documented with the United States coast guard, snowmobiles, and 113643
all-purpose vehicles as defined in section 4519.01 of the Revised 113644
Code;113645

       (9)(a) Sales of services or tangible personal property, other 113646
than motor vehicles, mobile homes, and manufactured homes, by 113647
churches, organizations exempt from taxation under section 113648
501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, or nonprofit 113649
organizations operated exclusively for charitable purposes as 113650
defined in division (B)(12) of this section, provided that the 113651
number of days on which such tangible personal property or 113652
services, other than items never subject to the tax, are sold does 113653
not exceed six in any calendar year, except as otherwise provided 113654
in division (B)(9)(b) of this section. If the number of days on 113655
which such sales are made exceeds six in any calendar year, the 113656
church or organization shall be considered to be engaged in 113657
business and all subsequent sales by it shall be subject to the 113658
tax. In counting the number of days, all sales by groups within a 113659
church or within an organization shall be considered to be sales 113660
of that church or organization.113661

       (b) The limitation on the number of days on which tax-exempt 113662
sales may be made by a church or organization under division 113663
(B)(9)(a) of this section does not apply to sales made by student 113664
clubs and other groups of students of a primary or secondary 113665
school, or a parent-teacher association, booster group, or similar 113666
organization that raises money to support or fund curricular or 113667
extracurricular activities of a primary or secondary school.113668

       (c) Divisions (B)(9)(a) and (b) of this section do not apply 113669
to sales by a noncommercial educational radio or television 113670
broadcasting station.113671

       (10) Sales not within the taxing power of this state under 113672
the Constitution or laws of the United States or the Constitution 113673
of this state;113674

       (11) Except for transactions that are sales under division 113675
(B)(3)(r) of section 5739.01 of the Revised Code, the 113676
transportation of persons or property, unless the transportation 113677
is by a private investigation and security service;113678

       (12) Sales of tangible personal property or services to 113679
churches, to organizations exempt from taxation under section 113680
501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, and to any other 113681
nonprofit organizations operated exclusively for charitable 113682
purposes in this state, no part of the net income of which inures 113683
to the benefit of any private shareholder or individual, and no 113684
substantial part of the activities of which consists of carrying 113685
on propaganda or otherwise attempting to influence legislation; 113686
sales to offices administering one or more homes for the aged or 113687
one or more hospital facilities exempt under section 140.08 of the 113688
Revised Code; and sales to organizations described in division (D) 113689
of section 5709.12 of the Revised Code.113690

       "Charitable purposes" means the relief of poverty; the 113691
improvement of health through the alleviation of illness, disease, 113692
or injury; the operation of an organization exclusively for the 113693
provision of professional, laundry, printing, and purchasing 113694
services to hospitals or charitable institutions; the operation of 113695
a home for the aged, as defined in section 5701.13 of the Revised 113696
Code; the operation of a radio or television broadcasting station 113697
that is licensed by the federal communications commission as a 113698
noncommercial educational radio or television station; the 113699
operation of a nonprofit animal adoption service or a county 113700
humane society; the promotion of education by an institution of 113701
learning that maintains a faculty of qualified instructors, 113702
teaches regular continuous courses of study, and confers a 113703
recognized diploma upon completion of a specific curriculum; the 113704
operation of a parent-teacher association, booster group, or 113705
similar organization primarily engaged in the promotion and 113706
support of the curricular or extracurricular activities of a 113707
primary or secondary school; the operation of a community or area 113708
center in which presentations in music, dramatics, the arts, and 113709
related fields are made in order to foster public interest and 113710
education therein; the production of performances in music, 113711
dramatics, and the arts; or the promotion of education by an 113712
organization engaged in carrying on research in, or the 113713
dissemination of, scientific and technological knowledge and 113714
information primarily for the public.113715

       Nothing in this division shall be deemed to exempt sales to 113716
any organization for use in the operation or carrying on of a 113717
trade or business, or sales to a home for the aged for use in the 113718
operation of independent living facilities as defined in division 113719
(A) of section 5709.12 of the Revised Code.113720

       (13) Building and construction materials and services sold to 113721
construction contractors for incorporation into a structure or 113722
improvement to real property under a construction contract with 113723
this state or a political subdivision of this state, or with the 113724
United States government or any of its agencies; building and 113725
construction materials and services sold to construction 113726
contractors for incorporation into a structure or improvement to 113727
real property that are accepted for ownership by this state or any 113728
of its political subdivisions, or by the United States government 113729
or any of its agencies at the time of completion of the structures 113730
or improvements; building and construction materials sold to 113731
construction contractors for incorporation into a horticulture 113732
structure or livestock structure for a person engaged in the 113733
business of horticulture or producing livestock; building 113734
materials and services sold to a construction contractor for 113735
incorporation into a house of public worship or religious 113736
education, or a building used exclusively for charitable purposes 113737
under a construction contract with an organization whose purpose 113738
is as described in division (B)(12) of this section; building 113739
materials and services sold to a construction contractor for 113740
incorporation into a building under a construction contract with 113741
an organization exempt from taxation under section 501(c)(3) of 113742
the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 when the building is to be used 113743
exclusively for the organization's exempt purposes; building and 113744
construction materials sold for incorporation into the original 113745
construction of a sports facility under section 307.696 of the 113746
Revised Code; building and construction materials and services 113747
sold to a construction contractor for incorporation into real 113748
property outside this state if such materials and services, when 113749
sold to a construction contractor in the state in which the real 113750
property is located for incorporation into real property in that 113751
state, would be exempt from a tax on sales levied by that state; 113752
and, until one calendar year after the construction of a 113753
convention center that qualifies for property tax exemption under 113754
section 5709.084 of the Revised Code is completed, building and 113755
construction materials and services sold to a construction 113756
contractor for incorporation into the real property comprising 113757
that convention center;113758

       (14) Sales of ships or vessels or rail rolling stock used or 113759
to be used principally in interstate or foreign commerce, and 113760
repairs, alterations, fuel, and lubricants for such ships or 113761
vessels or rail rolling stock;113762

       (15) Sales to persons primarily engaged in any of the 113763
activities mentioned in division (B)(42)(a), (g), or (h) of this 113764
section, to persons engaged in making retail sales, or to persons 113765
who purchase for sale from a manufacturer tangible personal 113766
property that was produced by the manufacturer in accordance with 113767
specific designs provided by the purchaser, of packages, including 113768
material, labels, and parts for packages, and of machinery, 113769
equipment, and material for use primarily in packaging tangible 113770
personal property produced for sale, including any machinery, 113771
equipment, and supplies used to make labels or packages, to 113772
prepare packages or products for labeling, or to label packages or 113773
products, by or on the order of the person doing the packaging, or 113774
sold at retail. "Packages" includes bags, baskets, cartons, 113775
crates, boxes, cans, bottles, bindings, wrappings, and other 113776
similar devices and containers, but does not include motor 113777
vehicles or bulk tanks, trailers, or similar devices attached to 113778
motor vehicles. "Packaging" means placing in a package. Division 113779
(B)(15) of this section does not apply to persons engaged in 113780
highway transportation for hire.113781

       (16) Sales of food to persons using supplemental nutrition 113782
assistance program benefits to purchase the food. As used in this 113783
division, "food" has the same meaning as in 7 U.S.C. 2012 and 113784
federal regulations adopted pursuant to the Food and Nutrition Act 113785
of 2008.113786

       (17) Sales to persons engaged in farming, agriculture, 113787
horticulture, or floriculture, of tangible personal property for 113788
use or consumption primarily in the production by farming, 113789
agriculture, horticulture, or floriculture of other tangible 113790
personal property for use or consumption primarily in the 113791
production of tangible personal property for sale by farming, 113792
agriculture, horticulture, or floriculture; or material and parts 113793
for incorporation into any such tangible personal property for use 113794
or consumption in production; and of tangible personal property 113795
for such use or consumption in the conditioning or holding of 113796
products produced by and for such use, consumption, or sale by 113797
persons engaged in farming, agriculture, horticulture, or 113798
floriculture, except where such property is incorporated into real 113799
property;113800

       (18) Sales of drugs for a human being that may be dispensed 113801
only pursuant to a prescription; insulin as recognized in the 113802
official United States pharmacopoeia; urine and blood testing 113803
materials when used by diabetics or persons with hypoglycemia to 113804
test for glucose or acetone; hypodermic syringes and needles when 113805
used by diabetics for insulin injections; epoetin alfa when 113806
purchased for use in the treatment of persons with medical 113807
disease; hospital beds when purchased by hospitals, nursing homes, 113808
or other medical facilities; and medical oxygen and medical 113809
oxygen-dispensing equipment when purchased by hospitals, nursing 113810
homes, or other medical facilities;113811

       (19) Sales of prosthetic devices, durable medical equipment 113812
for home use, or mobility enhancing equipment, when made pursuant 113813
to a prescription and when such devices or equipment are for use 113814
by a human being.113815

       (20) Sales of emergency and fire protection vehicles and 113816
equipment to nonprofit organizations for use solely in providing 113817
fire protection and emergency services, including trauma care and 113818
emergency medical services, for political subdivisions of the 113819
state;113820

       (21) Sales of tangible personal property manufactured in this 113821
state, if sold by the manufacturer in this state to a retailer for 113822
use in the retail business of the retailer outside of this state 113823
and if possession is taken from the manufacturer by the purchaser 113824
within this state for the sole purpose of immediately removing the 113825
same from this state in a vehicle owned by the purchaser;113826

       (22) Sales of services provided by the state or any of its 113827
political subdivisions, agencies, instrumentalities, institutions, 113828
or authorities, or by governmental entities of the state or any of 113829
its political subdivisions, agencies, instrumentalities, 113830
institutions, or authorities;113831

       (23) Sales of motor vehicles to nonresidents of this state 113832
under the circumstances described in division (B) of section 113833
5739.029 of the Revised Code;113834

       (24) Sales to persons engaged in the preparation of eggs for 113835
sale of tangible personal property used or consumed directly in 113836
such preparation, including such tangible personal property used 113837
for cleaning, sanitizing, preserving, grading, sorting, and 113838
classifying by size; packages, including material and parts for 113839
packages, and machinery, equipment, and material for use in 113840
packaging eggs for sale; and handling and transportation equipment 113841
and parts therefor, except motor vehicles licensed to operate on 113842
public highways, used in intraplant or interplant transfers or 113843
shipment of eggs in the process of preparation for sale, when the 113844
plant or plants within or between which such transfers or 113845
shipments occur are operated by the same person. "Packages" 113846
includes containers, cases, baskets, flats, fillers, filler flats, 113847
cartons, closure materials, labels, and labeling materials, and 113848
"packaging" means placing therein.113849

       (25)(a) Sales of water to a consumer for residential use;113850

       (b) Sales of water by a nonprofit corporation engaged 113851
exclusively in the treatment, distribution, and sale of water to 113852
consumers, if such water is delivered to consumers through pipes 113853
or tubing.113854

       (26) Fees charged for inspection or reinspection of motor 113855
vehicles under section 3704.14 of the Revised Code;113856

       (27) Sales to persons licensed to conduct a food service 113857
operation pursuant to section 3717.43 of the Revised Code, of 113858
tangible personal property primarily used directly for the 113859
following:113860

       (a) To prepare food for human consumption for sale;113861

       (b) To preserve food that has been or will be prepared for 113862
human consumption for sale by the food service operator, not 113863
including tangible personal property used to display food for 113864
selection by the consumer;113865

       (c) To clean tangible personal property used to prepare or 113866
serve food for human consumption for sale.113867

       (28) Sales of animals by nonprofit animal adoption services 113868
or county humane societies;113869

       (29) Sales of services to a corporation described in division 113870
(A) of section 5709.72 of the Revised Code, and sales of tangible 113871
personal property that qualifies for exemption from taxation under 113872
section 5709.72 of the Revised Code;113873

       (30) Sales and installation of agricultural land tile, as 113874
defined in division (B)(5)(a) of section 5739.01 of the Revised 113875
Code;113876

       (31) Sales and erection or installation of portable grain 113877
bins, as defined in division (B)(5)(b) of section 5739.01 of the 113878
Revised Code;113879

       (32) The sale, lease, repair, and maintenance of, parts for, 113880
or items attached to or incorporated in, motor vehicles that are 113881
primarily used for transporting tangible personal property 113882
belonging to others by a person engaged in highway transportation 113883
for hire, except for packages and packaging used for the 113884
transportation of tangible personal property;113885

       (33) Sales to the state headquarters of any veterans' 113886
organization in this state that is either incorporated and issued 113887
a charter by the congress of the United States or is recognized by 113888
the United States veterans administration, for use by the 113889
headquarters;113890

       (34) Sales to a telecommunications service vendor, mobile 113891
telecommunications service vendor, or satellite broadcasting 113892
service vendor of tangible personal property and services used 113893
directly and primarily in transmitting, receiving, switching, or 113894
recording any interactive, one- or two-way electromagnetic 113895
communications, including voice, image, data, and information, 113896
through the use of any medium, including, but not limited to, 113897
poles, wires, cables, switching equipment, computers, and record 113898
storage devices and media, and component parts for the tangible 113899
personal property. The exemption provided in this division shall 113900
be in lieu of all other exemptions under division (B)(42)(a) or 113901
(n) of this section to which the vendor may otherwise be entitled, 113902
based upon the use of the thing purchased in providing the 113903
telecommunications, mobile telecommunications, or satellite 113904
broadcasting service.113905

       (35)(a) Sales where the purpose of the consumer is to use or 113906
consume the things transferred in making retail sales and 113907
consisting of newspaper inserts, catalogues, coupons, flyers, gift 113908
certificates, or other advertising material that prices and 113909
describes tangible personal property offered for retail sale.113910

       (b) Sales to direct marketing vendors of preliminary 113911
materials such as photographs, artwork, and typesetting that will 113912
be used in printing advertising material; and of printed matter 113913
that offers free merchandise or chances to win sweepstake prizes 113914
and that is mailed to potential customers with advertising 113915
material described in division (B)(35)(a) of this section;113916

       (c) Sales of equipment such as telephones, computers, 113917
facsimile machines, and similar tangible personal property 113918
primarily used to accept orders for direct marketing retail sales.113919

       (d) Sales of automatic food vending machines that preserve 113920
food with a shelf life of forty-five days or less by refrigeration 113921
and dispense it to the consumer.113922

       For purposes of division (B)(35) of this section, "direct 113923
marketing" means the method of selling where consumers order 113924
tangible personal property by United States mail, delivery 113925
service, or telecommunication and the vendor delivers or ships the 113926
tangible personal property sold to the consumer from a warehouse, 113927
catalogue distribution center, or similar fulfillment facility by 113928
means of the United States mail, delivery service, or common 113929
carrier.113930

       (36) Sales to a person engaged in the business of 113931
horticulture or producing livestock of materials to be 113932
incorporated into a horticulture structure or livestock structure;113933

       (37) Sales of personal computers, computer monitors, computer 113934
keyboards, modems, and other peripheral computer equipment to an 113935
individual who is licensed or certified to teach in an elementary 113936
or a secondary school in this state for use by that individual in 113937
preparation for teaching elementary or secondary school students;113938

       (38) Sales to a professional racing team of any of the 113939
following:113940

       (a) Motor racing vehicles;113941

       (b) Repair services for motor racing vehicles;113942

       (c) Items of property that are attached to or incorporated in 113943
motor racing vehicles, including engines, chassis, and all other 113944
components of the vehicles, and all spare, replacement, and 113945
rebuilt parts or components of the vehicles; except not including 113946
tires, consumable fluids, paint, and accessories consisting of 113947
instrumentation sensors and related items added to the vehicle to 113948
collect and transmit data by means of telemetry and other forms of 113949
communication.113950

       (39) Sales of used manufactured homes and used mobile homes, 113951
as defined in section 5739.0210 of the Revised Code, made on or 113952
after January 1, 2000;113953

       (40) Sales of tangible personal property and services to a 113954
provider of electricity used or consumed directly and primarily in 113955
generating, transmitting, or distributing electricity for use by 113956
others, including property that is or is to be incorporated into 113957
and will become a part of the consumer's production, transmission, 113958
or distribution system and that retains its classification as 113959
tangible personal property after incorporation; fuel or power used 113960
in the production, transmission, or distribution of electricity; 113961
energy conversion equipment as defined in section 5727.01 of the 113962
Revised Code; and tangible personal property and services used in 113963
the repair and maintenance of the production, transmission, or 113964
distribution system, including only those motor vehicles as are 113965
specially designed and equipped for such use. The exemption 113966
provided in this division shall be in lieu of all other exemptions 113967
in division (B)(42)(a) or (n) of this section to which a provider 113968
of electricity may otherwise be entitled based on the use of the 113969
tangible personal property or service purchased in generating, 113970
transmitting, or distributing electricity.113971

       (41) Sales to a person providing services under division 113972
(B)(3)(r) of section 5739.01 of the Revised Code of tangible 113973
personal property and services used directly and primarily in 113974
providing taxable services under that section.113975

       (42) Sales where the purpose of the purchaser is to do any of 113976
the following:113977

       (a) To incorporate the thing transferred as a material or a 113978
part into tangible personal property to be produced for sale by 113979
manufacturing, assembling, processing, or refining; or to use or 113980
consume the thing transferred directly in producing tangible 113981
personal property for sale by mining, including, without 113982
limitation, the extraction from the earth of all substances that 113983
are classed geologically as minerals, production of crude oil and 113984
natural gas, or directly in the rendition of a public utility 113985
service, except that the sales tax levied by this section shall be 113986
collected upon all meals, drinks, and food for human consumption 113987
sold when transporting persons. Persons engaged in rendering 113988
services in the exploration for, and production of, crude oil and 113989
natural gas for others are deemed engaged directly in the 113990
exploration for, and production of, crude oil and natural gas. 113991
This paragraph does not exempt from "retail sale" or "sales at 113992
retail" the sale of tangible personal property that is to be 113993
incorporated into a structure or improvement to real property.113994

       (b) To hold the thing transferred as security for the 113995
performance of an obligation of the vendor;113996

       (c) To resell, hold, use, or consume the thing transferred as 113997
evidence of a contract of insurance;113998

       (d) To use or consume the thing directly in commercial 113999
fishing;114000

       (e) To incorporate the thing transferred as a material or a 114001
part into, or to use or consume the thing transferred directly in 114002
the production of, magazines distributed as controlled circulation 114003
publications;114004

       (f) To use or consume the thing transferred in the production 114005
and preparation in suitable condition for market and sale of 114006
printed, imprinted, overprinted, lithographic, multilithic, 114007
blueprinted, photostatic, or other productions or reproductions of 114008
written or graphic matter;114009

       (g) To use the thing transferred, as described in section 114010
5739.011 of the Revised Code, primarily in a manufacturing 114011
operation to produce tangible personal property for sale;114012

       (h) To use the benefit of a warranty, maintenance or service 114013
contract, or similar agreement, as described in division (B)(7) of 114014
section 5739.01 of the Revised Code, to repair or maintain 114015
tangible personal property, if all of the property that is the 114016
subject of the warranty, contract, or agreement would not be 114017
subject to the tax imposed by this section;114018

       (i) To use the thing transferred as qualified research and 114019
development equipment;114020

       (j) To use or consume the thing transferred primarily in 114021
storing, transporting, mailing, or otherwise handling purchased 114022
sales inventory in a warehouse, distribution center, or similar 114023
facility when the inventory is primarily distributed outside this 114024
state to retail stores of the person who owns or controls the 114025
warehouse, distribution center, or similar facility, to retail 114026
stores of an affiliated group of which that person is a member, or 114027
by means of direct marketing. This division does not apply to 114028
motor vehicles registered for operation on the public highways. As 114029
used in this division, "affiliated group" has the same meaning as 114030
in division (B)(3)(e) of section 5739.01 of the Revised Code and 114031
"direct marketing" has the same meaning as in division (B)(35) of 114032
this section.114033

       (k) To use or consume the thing transferred to fulfill a 114034
contractual obligation incurred by a warrantor pursuant to a 114035
warranty provided as a part of the price of the tangible personal 114036
property sold or by a vendor of a warranty, maintenance or service 114037
contract, or similar agreement the provision of which is defined 114038
as a sale under division (B)(7) of section 5739.01 of the Revised 114039
Code;114040

       (l) To use or consume the thing transferred in the production 114041
of a newspaper for distribution to the public;114042

       (m) To use tangible personal property to perform a service 114043
listed in division (B)(3) of section 5739.01 of the Revised Code, 114044
if the property is or is to be permanently transferred to the 114045
consumer of the service as an integral part of the performance of 114046
the service;114047

       (n) To use or consume the thing transferred primarily in 114048
producing tangible personal property for sale by farming, 114049
agriculture, horticulture, or floriculture. Persons engaged in 114050
rendering farming, agriculture, horticulture, or floriculture 114051
services for others are deemed engaged primarily in farming, 114052
agriculture, horticulture, or floriculture. This paragraph does 114053
not exempt from "retail sale" or "sales at retail" the sale of 114054
tangible personal property that is to be incorporated into a 114055
structure or improvement to real property.114056

       (o) To use or consume the thing transferred in acquiring, 114057
formatting, editing, storing, and disseminating data or 114058
information by electronic publishing.114059

       As used in division (B)(42) of this section, "thing" includes 114060
all transactions included in divisions (B)(3)(a), (b), and (e) of 114061
section 5739.01 of the Revised Code.114062

       (43) Sales conducted through a coin operated device that 114063
activates vacuum equipment or equipment that dispenses water, 114064
whether or not in combination with soap or other cleaning agents 114065
or wax, to the consumer for the consumer's use on the premises in 114066
washing, cleaning, or waxing a motor vehicle, provided no other 114067
personal property or personal service is provided as part of the 114068
transaction.114069

       (44) Sales of replacement and modification parts for engines, 114070
airframes, instruments, and interiors in, and paint for, aircraft 114071
used primarily in a fractional aircraft ownership program, and 114072
sales of services for the repair, modification, and maintenance of 114073
such aircraft, and machinery, equipment, and supplies primarily 114074
used to provide those services.114075

       (45) Sales of telecommunications service that is used 114076
directly and primarily to perform the functions of a call center. 114077
As used in this division, "call center" means any physical 114078
location where telephone calls are placed or received in high 114079
volume for the purpose of making sales, marketing, customer 114080
service, technical support, or other specialized business 114081
activity, and that employs at least fifty individuals that engage 114082
in call center activities on a full-time basis, or sufficient 114083
individuals to fill fifty full-time equivalent positions.114084

        (46) Sales by a telecommunications service vendor of 900 114085
service to a subscriber. This division does not apply to 114086
information services, as defined in division (FF) of section 114087
5739.01 of the Revised Code.114088

        (47) Sales of value-added non-voice data service. This 114089
division does not apply to any similar service that is not 114090
otherwise a telecommunications service.114091

       (48)(a) Sales of machinery, equipment, and software to a 114092
qualified direct selling entity for use in a warehouse or 114093
distribution center primarily for storing, transporting, or 114094
otherwise handling inventory that is held for sale to independent 114095
salespersons who operate as direct sellers and that is held 114096
primarily for distribution outside this state;114097

       (b) As used in division (B)(48)(a) of this section:114098

       (i) "Direct seller" means a person selling consumer products 114099
to individuals for personal or household use and not from a fixed 114100
retail location, including selling such product at in-home product 114101
demonstrations, parties, and other one-on-one selling.114102

       (ii) "Qualified direct selling entity" means an entity 114103
selling to direct sellers at the time the entity enters into a tax 114104
credit agreement with the tax credit authority pursuant to section 114105
122.17 of the Revised Code, provided that the agreement was 114106
entered into on or after January 1, 2007. Neither contingencies 114107
relevant to the granting of, nor later developments with respect 114108
to, the tax credit shall impair the status of the qualified direct 114109
selling entity under division (B)(48) of this section after 114110
execution of the tax credit agreement by the tax credit authority.114111

       (c) Division (B)(48) of this section is limited to machinery, 114112
equipment, and software first stored, used, or consumed in this 114113
state within the period commencing June 24, 2008, and ending on 114114
the date that is five years after that date.114115

       (49) Sales of materials, parts, equipment, or engines used in 114116
the repair or maintenance of aircraft or avionics systems of such 114117
aircraft, and sales of repair, remodeling, replacement, or 114118
maintenance services in this state performed on aircraft or on an 114119
aircraft's avionics, engine, or component materials or parts. As 114120
used in division (B)(49) of this section, "aircraft" means 114121
aircraft of more than six thousand pounds maximum certified 114122
takeoff weight or used exclusively in general aviation.114123

       (50) Sales of full flight simulators that are used for pilot 114124
or flight-crew training, sales of repair or replacement parts or 114125
components, and sales of repair or maintenance services for such 114126
full flight simulators. "Full flight simulator" means a replica of 114127
a specific type, or make, model, and series of aircraft cockpit. 114128
It includes the assemblage of equipment and computer programs 114129
necessary to represent aircraft operations in ground and flight 114130
conditions, a visual system providing an out-of-the-cockpit view, 114131
and a system that provides cues at least equivalent to those of a 114132
three-degree-of-freedom motion system, and has the full range of 114133
capabilities of the systems installed in the device as described 114134
in appendices A and B of part 60 of chapter 1 of title 14 of the 114135
Code of Federal Regulations.114136

       (51) Any transfer or lease of tangible personal property 114137
between the state and a successful proposer in accordance with 114138
sections 126.60 to 126.605 of the Revised Code, provided the 114139
property is part of a project as defined in section 126.60 of the 114140
Revised Code and the state retains ownership of the project or 114141
part thereof that is being transferred or leased, between the 114142
state and JobsOhio in accordance with section 4313.02 of the 114143
Revised Code.114144

       (C) For the purpose of the proper administration of this 114145
chapter, and to prevent the evasion of the tax, it is presumed 114146
that all sales made in this state are subject to the tax until the 114147
contrary is established.114148

       (D) The levy of this tax on retail sales of recreation and 114149
sports club service shall not prevent a municipal corporation from 114150
levying any tax on recreation and sports club dues or on any 114151
income generated by recreation and sports club dues.114152

       (E) The tax collected by the vendor from the consumer under 114153
this chapter is not part of the price, but is a tax collection for 114154
the benefit of the state, and of counties levying an additional 114155
sales tax pursuant to section 5739.021 or 5739.026 of the Revised 114156
Code and of transit authorities levying an additional sales tax 114157
pursuant to section 5739.023 of the Revised Code. Except for the 114158
discount authorized under section 5739.12 of the Revised Code and 114159
the effects of any rounding pursuant to section 5703.055 of the 114160
Revised Code, no person other than the state or such a county or 114161
transit authority shall derive any benefit from the collection or 114162
payment of the tax levied by this section or section 5739.021, 114163
5739.023, or 5739.026 of the Revised Code.114164

       Sec. 5739.026.  (A) A board of county commissioners may levy 114165
a tax of one-fourth or one-half of one per cent on every retail 114166
sale in the county, except sales of watercraft and outboard motors 114167
required to be titled pursuant to Chapter 1548. of the Revised 114168
Code and sales of motor vehicles, and may increase an existing 114169
rate of one-fourth of one per cent to one-half of one per cent, to 114170
pay the expenses of administering the tax and, except as provided 114171
in division (A)(6) of this section, for any one or more of the 114172
following purposes provided that the aggregate levy for all such 114173
purposes does not exceed one-half of one per cent:114174

       (1) To provide additional revenues for the payment of bonds 114175
or notes issued in anticipation of bonds issued by a convention 114176
facilities authority established by the board of county 114177
commissioners under Chapter 351. of the Revised Code and to 114178
provide additional operating revenues for the convention 114179
facilities authority;114180

       (2) To provide additional revenues for a transit authority 114181
operating in the county;114182

       (3) To provide additional revenue for the county's general 114183
fund;114184

       (4) To provide additional revenue for permanent improvements 114185
within the county to be distributed by the community improvements 114186
board in accordance with section 307.283 and to pay principal, 114187
interest, and premium on bonds issued under section 307.284 of the 114188
Revised Code;114189

       (5) To provide additional revenue for the acquisition, 114190
construction, equipping, or repair of any specific permanent 114191
improvement or any class or group of permanent improvements, which 114192
improvement or class or group of improvements shall be enumerated 114193
in the resolution required by division (D) of this section, and to 114194
pay principal, interest, premium, and other costs associated with 114195
the issuance of bonds or notes in anticipation of bonds issued 114196
pursuant to Chapter 133. of the Revised Code for the acquisition, 114197
construction, equipping, or repair of the specific permanent 114198
improvement or class or group of permanent improvements;114199

       (6) To provide revenue for the implementation and operation 114200
of a 9-1-1 system in the county. If the tax is levied or the rate 114201
increased exclusively for such purpose, the tax shall not be 114202
levied or the rate increased for more than five years. At the end 114203
of the last year the tax is levied or the rate increased, any 114204
balance remaining in the special fund established for such purpose 114205
shall remain in that fund and be used exclusively for such purpose 114206
until the fund is completely expended, and, notwithstanding 114207
section 5705.16 of the Revised Code, the board of county 114208
commissioners shall not petition for the transfer of money from 114209
such special fund, and the tax commissioner shall not approve such 114210
a petition.114211

       If the tax is levied or the rate increased for such purpose 114212
for more than five years, the board of county commissioners also 114213
shall levy the tax or increase the rate of the tax for one or more 114214
of the purposes described in divisions (A)(1) to (5) of this 114215
section and shall prescribe the method for allocating the revenues 114216
from the tax each year in the manner required by division (C) of 114217
this section.114218

       (7) To provide additional revenue for the operation or 114219
maintenance of a detention facility, as that term is defined under 114220
division (F) of section 2921.01 of the Revised Code;114221

       (8) To provide revenue to finance the construction or 114222
renovation of a sports facility, but only if the tax is levied for 114223
that purpose in the manner prescribed by section 5739.028 of the 114224
Revised Code.114225

       As used in division (A)(8) of this section:114226

       (a) "Sports facility" means a facility intended to house 114227
major league professional athletic teams.114228

       (b) "Constructing" or "construction" includes providing 114229
fixtures, furnishings, and equipment.114230

       (9) To provide additional revenue for the acquisition of 114231
agricultural easements, as defined in section 5301.67 of the 114232
Revised Code; to pay principal, interest, and premium on bonds 114233
issued under section 133.60 of the Revised Code; and for the 114234
supervision and enforcement of agricultural easements held by the 114235
county;114236

       (10) To provide revenue for the provision of ambulance, 114237
paramedic, or other emergency medical services;114238

       (11) To provide revenue for the operation of a lake 114239
facilities authority and the remediation of an impacted watershed 114240
by a lake facilities authority, as provided in Chapter 353. of the 114241
Revised Code.114242

       Pursuant to section 755.171 of the Revised Code, a board of 114243
county commissioners may pledge and contribute revenue from a tax 114244
levied for the purpose of division (A)(5) of this section to the 114245
payment of debt charges on bonds issued under section 755.17 of 114246
the Revised Code.114247

       The rate of tax shall be a multiple of one-fourth of one per 114248
cent, unless a portion of the rate of an existing tax levied under 114249
section 5739.023 of the Revised Code has been reduced, and the 114250
rate of tax levied under this section has been increased, pursuant 114251
to section 5739.028 of the Revised Code, in which case the 114252
aggregate of the rates of tax levied under this section and 114253
section 5739.023 of the Revised Code shall be a multiple of 114254
one-fourth of one per cent. The tax shall be levied and the rate 114255
increased pursuant to a resolution adopted by a majority of the 114256
members of the board. The board shall deliver a certified copy of 114257
the resolution to the tax commissioner, not later than the 114258
sixty-fifth day prior to the date on which the tax is to become 114259
effective, which shall be the first day of a calendar quarter.114260

       Prior to the adoption of any resolution to levy the tax or to 114261
increase the rate of tax exclusively for the purpose set forth in 114262
division (A)(3) of this section, the board of county commissioners 114263
shall conduct two public hearings on the resolution, the second 114264
hearing to be no fewer than three nor more than ten days after the 114265
first. Notice of the date, time, and place of the hearings shall 114266
be given by publication in a newspaper of general circulation in 114267
the county, or as provided in section 7.16 of the Revised Code, 114268
once a week on the same day of the week for two consecutive weeks. 114269
The second publication shall be no fewer than ten nor more than 114270
thirty days prior to the first hearing. Except as provided in 114271
division (E) of this section, the resolution shall be subject to a 114272
referendum as provided in sections 305.31 to 305.41 of the Revised 114273
Code. If the resolution is adopted as an emergency measure 114274
necessary for the immediate preservation of the public peace, 114275
health, or safety, it must receive an affirmative vote of all of 114276
the members of the board of county commissioners and shall state 114277
the reasons for the necessity.114278

       If the tax is for more than one of the purposes set forth in 114279
divisions (A)(1) to (7), (9), and (10) of this section, or is 114280
exclusively for one of the purposes set forth in division (A)(1), 114281
(2), (4), (5), (6), (7), (9), or (10) of this section, the 114282
resolution shall not go into effect unless it is approved by a 114283
majority of the electors voting on the question of the tax.114284

       (B) The board of county commissioners shall adopt a 114285
resolution under section 351.02 of the Revised Code creating the 114286
convention facilities authority, or under section 307.283 of the 114287
Revised Code creating the community improvements board, before 114288
adopting a resolution levying a tax for the purpose of a 114289
convention facilities authority under division (A)(1) of this 114290
section or for the purpose of a community improvements board under 114291
division (A)(4) of this section.114292

       (C)(1) If the tax is to be used for more than one of the 114293
purposes set forth in divisions (A)(1) to (7), (9), and (10) of 114294
this section, the board of county commissioners shall establish 114295
the method that will be used to determine the amount or proportion 114296
of the tax revenue received by the county during each year that 114297
will be distributed for each of those purposes, including, if 114298
applicable, provisions governing the reallocation of a convention 114299
facilities authority's allocation if the authority is dissolved 114300
while the tax is in effect. The allocation method may provide that 114301
different proportions or amounts of the tax shall be distributed 114302
among the purposes in different years, but it shall clearly 114303
describe the method that will be used for each year. Except as 114304
otherwise provided in division (C)(2) of this section, the 114305
allocation method established by the board is not subject to 114306
amendment during the life of the tax.114307

       (2) Subsequent to holding a public hearing on the proposed 114308
amendment, the board of county commissioners may amend the 114309
allocation method established under division (C)(1) of this 114310
section for any year, if the amendment is approved by the 114311
governing board of each entity whose allocation for the year would 114312
be reduced by the proposed amendment. In the case of a tax that is 114313
levied for a continuing period of time, the board may not so amend 114314
the allocation method for any year before the sixth year that the 114315
tax is in effect.114316

       (a) If the additional revenues provided to the convention 114317
facilities authority are pledged by the authority for the payment 114318
of convention facilities authority revenue bonds for as long as 114319
such bonds are outstanding, no reduction of the authority's 114320
allocation of the tax shall be made for any year except to the 114321
extent that the reduced authority allocation, when combined with 114322
the authority's other revenues pledged for that purpose, is 114323
sufficient to meet the debt service requirements for that year on 114324
such bonds.114325

       (b) If the additional revenues provided to the county are 114326
pledged by the county for the payment of bonds or notes described 114327
in division (A)(4) or (5) of this section, for as long as such 114328
bonds or notes are outstanding, no reduction of the county's or 114329
the community improvements board's allocation of the tax shall be 114330
made for any year, except to the extent that the reduced county or 114331
community improvements board allocation is sufficient to meet the 114332
debt service requirements for that year on such bonds or notes.114333

       (c) If the additional revenues provided to the transit 114334
authority are pledged by the authority for the payment of revenue 114335
bonds issued under section 306.37 of the Revised Code, for as long 114336
as such bonds are outstanding, no reduction of the authority's 114337
allocation of tax shall be made for any year, except to the extent 114338
that the authority's reduced allocation, when combined with the 114339
authority's other revenues pledged for that purpose, is sufficient 114340
to meet the debt service requirements for that year on such bonds.114341

       (d) If the additional revenues provided to the county are 114342
pledged by the county for the payment of bonds or notes issued 114343
under section 133.60 of the Revised Code, for so long as the bonds 114344
or notes are outstanding, no reduction of the county's allocation 114345
of the tax shall be made for any year, except to the extent that 114346
the reduced county allocation is sufficient to meet the debt 114347
service requirements for that year on the bonds or notes.114348

       (D)(1) The resolution levying the tax or increasing the rate 114349
of tax shall state the rate of the tax or the rate of the 114350
increase; the purpose or purposes for which it is to be levied; 114351
the number of years for which it is to be levied or that it is for 114352
a continuing period of time; the allocation method required by 114353
division (C) of this section; and if required to be submitted to 114354
the electors of the county under division (A) of this section, the 114355
date of the election at which the proposal shall be submitted to 114356
the electors of the county, which shall be not less than ninety 114357
days after the certification of a copy of the resolution to the 114358
board of elections and, if the tax is to be levied exclusively for 114359
the purpose set forth in division (A)(3) of this section, shall 114360
not occur in February or August of any year. Upon certification of 114361
the resolution to the board of elections, the board of county 114362
commissioners shall notify the tax commissioner in writing of the 114363
levy question to be submitted to the electors. If approved by a 114364
majority of the electors, the tax shall become effective on the 114365
first day of a calendar quarter next following the sixty-fifth day 114366
following the date the board of county commissioners and tax 114367
commissioner receive from the board of elections the certification 114368
of the results of the election, except as provided in division (E) 114369
of this section.114370

       (2)(a) A resolution specifying that the tax is to be used 114371
exclusively for the purpose set forth in division (A)(3) of this 114372
section that is not adopted as an emergency measure may direct the 114373
board of elections to submit the question of levying the tax or 114374
increasing the rate of the tax to the electors of the county at a 114375
special election held on the date specified by the board of county 114376
commissioners in the resolution, provided that the election occurs 114377
not less than ninety days after the resolution is certified to the 114378
board of elections and the election is not held in February or 114379
August of any year. Upon certification of the resolution to the 114380
board of elections, the board of county commissioners shall notify 114381
the tax commissioner in writing of the levy question to be 114382
submitted to the electors. No resolution adopted under division 114383
(D)(2)(a) of this section shall go into effect unless approved by 114384
a majority of those voting upon it and, except as provided in 114385
division (E) of this section, not until the first day of a 114386
calendar quarter following the expiration of sixty-five days from 114387
the date the tax commissioner receives notice from the board of 114388
elections of the affirmative vote.114389

       (b) A resolution specifying that the tax is to be used 114390
exclusively for the purpose set forth in division (A)(3) of this 114391
section that is adopted as an emergency measure shall become 114392
effective as provided in division (A) of this section, but may 114393
direct the board of elections to submit the question of repealing 114394
the tax or increase in the rate of the tax to the electors of the 114395
county at the next general election in the county occurring not 114396
less than ninety days after the resolution is certified to the 114397
board of elections. Upon certification of the resolution to the 114398
board of elections, the board of county commissioners shall notify 114399
the tax commissioner in writing of the levy question to be 114400
submitted to the electors. The ballot question shall be the same 114401
as that prescribed in section 5739.022 of the Revised Code. The 114402
board of elections shall notify the board of county commissioners 114403
and the tax commissioner of the result of the election immediately 114404
after the result has been declared. If a majority of the qualified 114405
electors voting on the question of repealing the tax or increase 114406
in the rate of the tax vote for repeal of the tax or repeal of the 114407
increase, the board of county commissioners, on the first day of a 114408
calendar quarter following the expiration of sixty-five days after 114409
the date the board and tax commissioner received notice of the 114410
result of the election, shall, in the case of a repeal of the tax, 114411
cease to levy the tax, or, in the case of a repeal of an increase 114412
in the rate of the tax, cease to levy the increased rate and levy 114413
the tax at the rate at which it was imposed immediately prior to 114414
the increase in rate.114415

       (c) A board of county commissioners, by resolution, may 114416
reduce the rate of a tax levied exclusively for the purpose set 114417
forth in division (A)(3) of this section to a lower rate 114418
authorized by this section. Any such reduction shall be made 114419
effective on the first day of the calendar quarter next following 114420
the sixty-fifth day after the tax commissioner receives a 114421
certified copy of the resolution from the board.114422

       (E) If a vendor makes a sale in this state by printed catalog 114423
and the consumer computed the tax on the sale based on local rates 114424
published in the catalog, any tax levied or repealed or rate 114425
changed under this section shall not apply to such a sale until 114426
the first day of a calendar quarter following the expiration of 114427
one hundred twenty days from the date of notice by the tax 114428
commissioner pursuant to division (G) of this section.114429

       (F) The tax levied pursuant to this section shall be in 114430
addition to the tax levied by section 5739.02 of the Revised Code 114431
and any tax levied pursuant to section 5739.021 or 5739.023 of the 114432
Revised Code.114433

       A county that levies a tax pursuant to this section shall 114434
levy a tax at the same rate pursuant to section 5741.023 of the 114435
Revised Code.114436

       The additional tax levied by the county shall be collected 114437
pursuant to section 5739.025 of the Revised Code.114438

       Any tax levied pursuant to this section is subject to the 114439
exemptions provided in section 5739.02 of the Revised Code and in 114440
addition shall not be applicable to sales not within the taxing 114441
power of a county under the Constitution of the United States or 114442
the Ohio Constitution.114443

       (G) Upon receipt from a board of county commissioners of a 114444
certified copy of a resolution required by division (A) of this 114445
section, or from the board of elections a notice of the results of 114446
an election required by division (D)(1), (2)(a), (b), or (c) of 114447
this section, the tax commissioner shall provide notice of a tax 114448
rate change in a manner that is reasonably accessible to all 114449
affected vendors. The commissioner shall provide this notice at 114450
least sixty days prior to the effective date of the rate change. 114451
The commissioner, by rule, may establish the method by which 114452
notice will be provided.114453

       Sec. 5739.081. A legislative authority of a municipal 114454
corporation may not adopt or amend a resolution or ordinance 114455
levying a tax on transactions by which lodging by a hotel is or is 114456
to be furnished to transient guests pursuant to section 5739.08 of 114457
the Revised Code on or after October 1, 2013, unless the 114458
legislative authority levies the tax on any transaction by which a 114459
transient guest obtains or will obtain lodging in a hotel using a 114460
hotel intermediary. The legislative authority shall levy the tax 114461
on any amount the purchaser pays to the hotel intermediary for the 114462
intermediary's services plus any amount paid for the furnishing of 114463
lodging in a hotel to the transient guest.114464

       The hotel intermediary shall collect and remit all tax paid 114465
by the purchaser to the municipal corporation that levies the tax 114466
pursuant to section 5739.08 of the Revised Code. If the hotel 114467
intermediary does not collect or remit the full amount of tax, the 114468
hotel in which the transient guest will lodge shall collect and 114469
remit to the municipal corporation the uncollected or unremitted 114470
tax.114471

       Sec. 5739.09.  (A)(1) A board of county commissioners may, by 114472
resolution adopted by a majority of the members of the board, levy 114473
an excise tax not to exceed three per cent on transactions by 114474
which lodging by a hotel is or is to be furnished to transient 114475
guests. The board shall establish all regulations necessary to 114476
provide for the administration and allocation of the tax. The 114477
regulations may prescribe the time for payment of the tax, and may 114478
provide for the imposition of a penalty or interest, or both, for 114479
late payments, provided that the penalty does not exceed ten per 114480
cent of the amount of tax due, and the rate at which interest 114481
accrues does not exceed the rate per annum prescribed pursuant to 114482
section 5703.47 of the Revised Code. Except as provided in 114483
divisions (A)(2), (3), (4), (5), (6), and (7) of this section, the 114484
regulations shall provide, after deducting the real and actual 114485
costs of administering the tax, for the return to each municipal 114486
corporation or township that does not levy an excise tax on the 114487
transactions, a uniform percentage of the tax collected in the 114488
municipal corporation or in the unincorporated portion of the 114489
township from each transaction, not to exceed thirty-three and 114490
one-third per cent. The remainder of the revenue arising from the 114491
tax shall be deposited in a separate fund and shall be spent 114492
solely to make contributions to the convention and visitors' 114493
bureau operating within the county, including a pledge and 114494
contribution of any portion of the remainder pursuant to an 114495
agreement authorized by section 307.695 of the Revised Code, 114496
provided that if the board of county commissioners of an eligible 114497
county as defined in section 307.695 of the Revised Code adopts a 114498
resolution amending a resolution levying a tax under this division 114499
to provide that the revenue from the tax shall be used by the 114500
board as described in division (H) of section 307.695 of the 114501
Revised Code, the remainder of the revenue shall be used as 114502
described in the resolution making that amendment. Except as 114503
provided in division (A)(2), (3), (4), (5), (6), or (7) or (H) of 114504
this section, on and after May 10, 1994, a board of county 114505
commissioners may not levy an excise tax pursuant to this division 114506
in any municipal corporation or township located wholly or partly 114507
within the county that has in effect an ordinance or resolution 114508
levying an excise tax pursuant to division (B) of this section. 114509
The board of a county that has levied a tax under division (C) of 114510
this section may, by resolution adopted within ninety days after 114511
July 15, 1985, by a majority of the members of the board, amend 114512
the resolution levying a tax under this division to provide for a 114513
portion of that tax to be pledged and contributed in accordance 114514
with an agreement entered into under section 307.695 of the 114515
Revised Code. A tax, any revenue from which is pledged pursuant to 114516
such an agreement, shall remain in effect at the rate at which it 114517
is imposed for the duration of the period for which the revenue 114518
from the tax has been so pledged.114519

       The board of county commissioners of an eligible county as 114520
defined in section 307.695 of the Revised Code may, by resolution 114521
adopted by a majority of the members of the board, amend a 114522
resolution levying a tax under this division to provide that the 114523
revenue from the tax shall be used by the board as described in 114524
division (H) of section 307.695 of the Revised Code, in which case 114525
the tax shall remain in effect at the rate at which it was imposed 114526
for the duration of any agreement entered into by the board under 114527
section 307.695 of the Revised Code, the duration during which any 114528
securities issued by the board under that section are outstanding, 114529
or the duration of the period during which the board owns a 114530
project as defined in section 307.695 of the Revised Code, 114531
whichever duration is longest.114532

       (2) A board of county commissioners that levies an excise tax 114533
under division (A)(1) of this section on June 30, 1997, at a rate 114534
of three per cent, and that has pledged revenue from the tax to an 114535
agreement entered into under section 307.695 of the Revised Code 114536
or, in the case of the board of county commissioners of an 114537
eligible county as defined in section 307.695 of the Revised Code, 114538
has amended a resolution levying a tax under division (C) of this 114539
section to provide that proceeds from the tax shall be used by the 114540
board as described in division (H) of section 307.695 of the 114541
Revised Code, may, at any time by a resolution adopted by a 114542
majority of the members of the board, amend the resolution levying 114543
a tax under division (A)(1) of this section to provide for an 114544
increase in the rate of that tax up to seven per cent on each 114545
transaction; to provide that revenue from the increase in the rate 114546
shall be used as described in division (H) of section 307.695 of 114547
the Revised Code or be spent solely to make contributions to the 114548
convention and visitors' bureau operating within the county to be 114549
used specifically for promotion, advertising, and marketing of the 114550
region in which the county is located; and to provide that the 114551
rate in excess of the three per cent levied under division (A)(1) 114552
of this section shall remain in effect at the rate at which it is 114553
imposed for the duration of the period during which any agreement 114554
is in effect that was entered into under section 307.695 of the 114555
Revised Code by the board of county commissioners levying a tax 114556
under division (A)(1) of this section, the duration of the period 114557
during which any securities issued by the board under division (I) 114558
of section 307.695 of the Revised Code are outstanding, or the 114559
duration of the period during which the board owns a project as 114560
defined in section 307.695 of the Revised Code, whichever duration 114561
is longest. The amendment also shall provide that no portion of 114562
that revenue need be returned to townships or municipal 114563
corporations as would otherwise be required under division (A)(1) 114564
of this section.114565

       (3) A board of county commissioners that levies a tax under 114566
division (A)(1) of this section on March 18, 1999, at a rate of 114567
three per cent may, by resolution adopted not later than 114568
forty-five days after March 18, 1999, amend the resolution levying 114569
the tax to provide for all of the following:114570

       (a) That the rate of the tax shall be increased by not more 114571
than an additional four per cent on each transaction;114572

       (b) That all of the revenue from the increase in the rate 114573
shall be pledged and contributed to a convention facilities 114574
authority established by the board of county commissioners under 114575
Chapter 351. of the Revised Code on or before November 15, 1998, 114576
and used to pay costs of constructing, maintaining, operating, and 114577
promoting a facility in the county, including paying bonds, or 114578
notes issued in anticipation of bonds, as provided by that 114579
chapter;114580

       (c) That no portion of the revenue arising from the increase 114581
in rate need be returned to municipal corporations or townships as 114582
otherwise required under division (A)(1) of this section;114583

       (d) That the increase in rate shall not be subject to 114584
diminution by initiative or referendum or by law while any bonds, 114585
or notes in anticipation of bonds, issued by the authority under 114586
Chapter 351. of the Revised Code to which the revenue is pledged, 114587
remain outstanding in accordance with their terms, unless 114588
provision is made by law or by the board of county commissioners 114589
for an adequate substitute therefor that is satisfactory to the 114590
trustee if a trust agreement secures the bonds.114591

       Division (A)(3) of this section does not apply to the board 114592
of county commissioners of any county in which a convention center 114593
or facility exists or is being constructed on November 15, 1998, 114594
or of any county in which a convention facilities authority levies 114595
a tax pursuant to section 351.021 of the Revised Code on that 114596
date.114597

       As used in division (A)(3) of this section, "cost" and 114598
"facility" have the same meanings as in section 351.01 of the 114599
Revised Code, and "convention center" has the same meaning as in 114600
section 307.695 of the Revised Code.114601

       (4)(a) A board of county commissioners that levies a tax 114602
under division (A)(1) of this section on June 30, 2002, at a rate 114603
of three per cent may, by resolution adopted not later than 114604
September 30, 2002, amend the resolution levying the tax to 114605
provide for all of the following:114606

       (i) That the rate of the tax shall be increased by not more 114607
than an additional three and one-half per cent on each 114608
transaction;114609

       (ii) That all of the revenue from the increase in rate shall 114610
be pledged and contributed to a convention facilities authority 114611
established by the board of county commissioners under Chapter 114612
351. of the Revised Code on or before May 15, 2002, and be used to 114613
pay costs of constructing, expanding, maintaining, operating, or 114614
promoting a convention center in the county, including paying 114615
bonds, or notes issued in anticipation of bonds, as provided by 114616
that chapter;114617

       (iii) That no portion of the revenue arising from the 114618
increase in rate need be returned to municipal corporations or 114619
townships as otherwise required under division (A)(1) of this 114620
section;114621

       (iv) That the increase in rate shall not be subject to 114622
diminution by initiative or referendum or by law while any bonds, 114623
or notes in anticipation of bonds, issued by the authority under 114624
Chapter 351. of the Revised Code to which the revenue is pledged, 114625
remain outstanding in accordance with their terms, unless 114626
provision is made by law or by the board of county commissioners 114627
for an adequate substitute therefor that is satisfactory to the 114628
trustee if a trust agreement secures the bonds.114629

       (b) Any board of county commissioners that, pursuant to 114630
division (A)(4)(a) of this section, has amended a resolution 114631
levying the tax authorized by division (A)(1) of this section may 114632
further amend the resolution to provide that the revenue referred 114633
to in division (A)(4)(a)(ii) of this section shall be pledged and 114634
contributed both to a convention facilities authority to pay the 114635
costs of constructing, expanding, maintaining, or operating one or 114636
more convention centers in the county, including paying bonds, or 114637
notes issued in anticipation of bonds, as provided in Chapter 351. 114638
of the Revised Code, and to a convention and visitors' bureau to 114639
pay the costs of promoting one or more convention centers in the 114640
county.114641

       As used in division (A)(4) of this section, "cost" has the 114642
same meaning as in section 351.01 of the Revised Code, and 114643
"convention center" has the same meaning as in section 307.695 of 114644
the Revised Code.114645

       (5)(a) As used in division (A)(5) of this section:114646

        (i) "Port authority" means a port authority created under 114647
Chapter 4582. of the Revised Code.114648

        (ii) "Port authority military-use facility" means port 114649
authority facilities on which or adjacent to which is located an 114650
installation of the armed forces of the United States, a reserve 114651
component thereof, or the national guard and at least part of 114652
which is made available for use, for consideration, by the armed 114653
forces of the United States, a reserve component thereof, or the 114654
national guard.114655

        (b) For the purpose of contributing revenue to pay operating 114656
expenses of a port authority that operates a port authority 114657
military-use facility, the board of county commissioners of a 114658
county that created, participated in the creation of, or has 114659
joined such a port authority may do one or both of the following:114660

        (i) Amend a resolution previously adopted under division 114661
(A)(1) of this section to designate some or all of the revenue 114662
from the tax levied under the resolution to be used for that 114663
purpose, notwithstanding that division;114664

       (ii) Amend a resolution previously adopted under division 114665
(A)(1) of this section to increase the rate of the tax by not more 114666
than an additional two per cent and use the revenue from the 114667
increase exclusively for that purpose.114668

        (c) If a board of county commissioners amends a resolution to 114669
increase the rate of a tax as authorized in division (A)(5)(b)(ii) 114670
of this section, the board also may amend the resolution to 114671
specify that the increase in rate of the tax does not apply to 114672
"hotels," as otherwise defined in section 5739.01 of the Revised 114673
Code, having fewer rooms used for the accommodation of guests than 114674
a number of rooms specified by the board.114675

       (6) A board of county commissioners of a county organized 114676
under a county charter adopted pursuant to Article X, Section 3, 114677
Ohio Constitution, and that levies an excise tax under division 114678
(A)(1) of this section at a rate of three per cent and levies an 114679
additional excise tax under division (E) of this section at a rate 114680
of one and one-half per cent may, by resolution adopted not later 114681
than January 1, 2008, by a majority of the members of the board, 114682
amend the resolution levying a tax under division (A)(1) of this 114683
section to provide for an increase in the rate of that tax by not 114684
more than an additional one per cent on transactions by which 114685
lodging by a hotel is or is to be furnished to transient guests. 114686
Notwithstanding divisions (A)(1) and (E) of this section, the 114687
resolution shall provide that all of the revenue from the increase 114688
in rate, after deducting the real and actual costs of 114689
administering the tax, shall be used to pay the costs of 114690
improving, expanding, equipping, financing, or operating a 114691
convention center by a convention and visitors' bureau in the 114692
county. The increase in rate shall remain in effect for the period 114693
specified in the resolution, not to exceed ten years. The increase 114694
in rate shall be subject to the regulations adopted under division 114695
(A)(1) of this section, except that the resolution may provide 114696
that no portion of the revenue from the increase in the rate shall 114697
be returned to townships or municipal corporations as would 114698
otherwise be required under that division.114699

       (7) Division (A)(7) of this section applies only to a county 114700
with a population greater than sixty-five thousand and less than 114701
seventy thousand according to the most recent federal decennial 114702
census and in which, on December 31, 2006, an excise tax is levied 114703
under division (A)(1) of this section at a rate not less than and 114704
not greater than three per cent, and in which the most recent 114705
increase in the rate of that tax was enacted or took effect in 114706
November 1984.114707

       The board of county commissioners of a county to which this 114708
division applies, by resolution adopted by a majority of the 114709
members of the board, may increase the rate of the tax by not more 114710
than one per cent on transactions by which lodging by a hotel is 114711
or is to be furnished to transient guests. The increase in rate 114712
shall be for the purpose of paying expenses deemed necessary by 114713
the convention and visitors' bureau operating in the county to 114714
promote travel and tourism. The increase in rate shall remain in 114715
effect for the period specified in the resolution, not to exceed 114716
twenty years, provided that the increase in rate may not continue 114717
beyond the time when the purpose for which the increase is levied 114718
ceases to exist. If revenue from the increase in rate is pledged 114719
to the payment of debt charges on securities, the increase in rate 114720
is not subject to diminution by initiative or referendum or by law 114721
for so long as the securities are outstanding, unless provision is 114722
made by law or by the board of county commissioners for an 114723
adequate substitute for that revenue that is satisfactory to the 114724
trustee if a trust agreement secures payment of the debt charges. 114725
The increase in rate shall be subject to the regulations adopted 114726
under division (A)(1) of this section, except that the resolution 114727
may provide that no portion of the revenue from the increase in 114728
the rate shall be returned to townships or municipal corporations 114729
as would otherwise be required under division (A)(1) of this 114730
section. A resolution adopted under division (A)(7) of this 114731
section is subject to referendum under sections 305.31 to 305.99 114732
of the Revised Code.114733

       (B)(1) The legislative authority of a municipal corporation 114734
or the board of trustees of a township that is not wholly or 114735
partly located in a county that has in effect a resolution levying 114736
an excise tax pursuant to division (A)(1) of this section may, by 114737
ordinance or resolution, levy an excise tax not to exceed three 114738
per cent on transactions by which lodging by a hotel is or is to 114739
be furnished to transient guests. The legislative authority of the 114740
municipal corporation or the board of trustees of the township 114741
shall deposit at least fifty per cent of the revenue from the tax 114742
levied pursuant to this division into a separate fund, which shall 114743
be spent solely to make contributions to convention and visitors' 114744
bureaus operating within the county in which the municipal 114745
corporation or township is wholly or partly located, and the 114746
balance of that revenue shall be deposited in the general fund. 114747
The municipal corporation or township shall establish all 114748
regulations necessary to provide for the administration and 114749
allocation of the tax. The regulations may prescribe the time for 114750
payment of the tax, and may provide for the imposition of a 114751
penalty or interest, or both, for late payments, provided that the 114752
penalty does not exceed ten per cent of the amount of tax due, and 114753
the rate at which interest accrues does not exceed the rate per 114754
annum prescribed pursuant to section 5703.47 of the Revised Code. 114755
The levy of a tax under this division is in addition to any tax 114756
imposed on the same transaction by a municipal corporation or a 114757
township as authorized by division (A) of section 5739.08 of the 114758
Revised Code.114759

       (2)(a) The legislative authority of the most populous 114760
municipal corporation located wholly or partly in a county in 114761
which the board of county commissioners has levied a tax under 114762
division (A)(4) of this section may amend, on or before September 114763
30, 2002, that municipal corporation's ordinance or resolution 114764
that levies an excise tax on transactions by which lodging by a 114765
hotel is or is to be furnished to transient guests, to provide for 114766
all of the following:114767

       (i) That the rate of the tax shall be increased by not more 114768
than an additional one per cent on each transaction;114769

       (ii) That all of the revenue from the increase in rate shall 114770
be pledged and contributed to a convention facilities authority 114771
established by the board of county commissioners under Chapter 114772
351. of the Revised Code on or before May 15, 2002, and be used to 114773
pay costs of constructing, expanding, maintaining, operating, or 114774
promoting a convention center in the county, including paying 114775
bonds, or notes issued in anticipation of bonds, as provided by 114776
that chapter;114777

       (iii) That the increase in rate shall not be subject to 114778
diminution by initiative or referendum or by law while any bonds, 114779
or notes in anticipation of bonds, issued by the authority under 114780
Chapter 351. of the Revised Code to which the revenue is pledged, 114781
remain outstanding in accordance with their terms, unless 114782
provision is made by law, by the board of county commissioners, or 114783
by the legislative authority, for an adequate substitute therefor 114784
that is satisfactory to the trustee if a trust agreement secures 114785
the bonds.114786

       (b) The legislative authority of a municipal corporation 114787
that, pursuant to division (B)(2)(a) of this section, has amended 114788
its ordinance or resolution to increase the rate of the tax 114789
authorized by division (B)(1) of this section may further amend 114790
the ordinance or resolution to provide that the revenue referred 114791
to in division (B)(2)(a)(ii) of this section shall be pledged and 114792
contributed both to a convention facilities authority to pay the 114793
costs of constructing, expanding, maintaining, or operating one or 114794
more convention centers in the county, including paying bonds, or 114795
notes issued in anticipation of bonds, as provided in Chapter 351. 114796
of the Revised Code, and to a convention and visitors' bureau to 114797
pay the costs of promoting one or more convention centers in the 114798
county.114799

       As used in division (B)(2) of this section, "cost" has the 114800
same meaning as in section 351.01 of the Revised Code, and 114801
"convention center" has the same meaning as in section 307.695 of 114802
the Revised Code.114803

       (C) For the purposes described in section 307.695 of the 114804
Revised Code and to cover the costs of administering the tax, a 114805
board of county commissioners of a county where a tax imposed 114806
under division (A)(1) of this section is in effect may, by 114807
resolution adopted within ninety days after July 15, 1985, by a 114808
majority of the members of the board, levy an additional excise 114809
tax not to exceed three per cent on transactions by which lodging 114810
by a hotel is or is to be furnished to transient guests. The tax 114811
authorized by this division shall be in addition to any tax that 114812
is levied pursuant to division (A) of this section, but it shall 114813
not apply to transactions subject to a tax levied by a municipal 114814
corporation or township pursuant to the authorization granted by 114815
division (A) of section 5739.08 of the Revised Code. The board 114816
shall establish all regulations necessary to provide for the 114817
administration and allocation of the tax. The regulations may 114818
prescribe the time for payment of the tax, and may provide for the 114819
imposition of a penalty or interest, or both, for late payments, 114820
provided that the penalty does not exceed ten per cent of the 114821
amount of tax due, and the rate at which interest accrues does not 114822
exceed the rate per annum prescribed pursuant to section 5703.47 114823
of the Revised Code. All revenues arising from the tax shall be 114824
expended in accordance with section 307.695 of the Revised Code. 114825
The board of county commissioners of an eligible county as defined 114826
in section 307.695 of the Revised Code may, by resolution adopted 114827
by a majority of the members of the board, amend the resolution 114828
levying a tax under this division to provide that the revenue from 114829
the tax shall be used by the board as described in division (H) of 114830
section 307.695 of the Revised Code. A tax imposed under this 114831
division shall remain in effect at the rate at which it is imposed 114832
for the duration of the period during which any agreement entered 114833
into by the board under section 307.695 of the Revised Code is in 114834
effect, the duration of the period during which any securities 114835
issued by the board under division (I) of section 307.695 of the 114836
Revised Code are outstanding, or the duration of the period during 114837
which the board owns a project as defined in section 307.695 of 114838
the Revised Code, whichever duration is longest.114839

       (D) For the purpose of providing contributions under division 114840
(B)(1) of section 307.671 of the Revised Code to enable the 114841
acquisition, construction, and equipping of a port authority 114842
educational and cultural facility in the county and, to the extent 114843
provided for in the cooperative agreement authorized by that 114844
section, for the purpose of paying debt service charges on bonds, 114845
or notes in anticipation of bonds, described in division (B)(1)(b) 114846
of that section, a board of county commissioners, by resolution 114847
adopted within ninety days after December 22, 1992, by a majority 114848
of the members of the board, may levy an additional excise tax not 114849
to exceed one and one-half per cent on transactions by which 114850
lodging by a hotel is or is to be furnished to transient guests. 114851
The excise tax authorized by this division shall be in addition to 114852
any tax that is levied pursuant to divisions (A), (B), and (C) of 114853
this section, to any excise tax levied pursuant to section 5739.08 114854
of the Revised Code, and to any excise tax levied pursuant to 114855
section 351.021 of the Revised Code. The board of county 114856
commissioners shall establish all regulations necessary to provide 114857
for the administration and allocation of the tax that are not 114858
inconsistent with this section or section 307.671 of the Revised 114859
Code. The regulations may prescribe the time for payment of the 114860
tax, and may provide for the imposition of a penalty or interest, 114861
or both, for late payments, provided that the penalty does not 114862
exceed ten per cent of the amount of tax due, and the rate at 114863
which interest accrues does not exceed the rate per annum 114864
prescribed pursuant to section 5703.47 of the Revised Code. All 114865
revenues arising from the tax shall be expended in accordance with 114866
section 307.671 of the Revised Code and division (D) of this 114867
section. The levy of a tax imposed under this division may not 114868
commence prior to the first day of the month next following the 114869
execution of the cooperative agreement authorized by section 114870
307.671 of the Revised Code by all parties to that agreement. The 114871
tax shall remain in effect at the rate at which it is imposed for 114872
the period of time described in division (C) of section 307.671 of 114873
the Revised Code for which the revenue from the tax has been 114874
pledged by the county to the corporation pursuant to that section, 114875
but, to any extent provided for in the cooperative agreement, for 114876
no lesser period than the period of time required for payment of 114877
the debt service charges on bonds, or notes in anticipation of 114878
bonds, described in division (B)(1)(b) of that section.114879

       (E) For the purpose of paying the costs of acquiring, 114880
constructing, equipping, and improving a municipal educational and 114881
cultural facility, including debt service charges on bonds 114882
provided for in division (B) of section 307.672 of the Revised 114883
Code, and for any additional purposes determined by the county in 114884
the resolution levying the tax or amendments to the resolution, 114885
including subsequent amendments providing for paying costs of 114886
acquiring, constructing, renovating, rehabilitating, equipping, 114887
and improving a port authority educational and cultural performing 114888
arts facility, as defined in section 307.674 of the Revised Code, 114889
and including debt service charges on bonds provided for in 114890
division (B) of section 307.674 of the Revised Code, the 114891
legislative authority of a county, by resolution adopted within 114892
ninety days after June 30, 1993, by a majority of the members of 114893
the legislative authority, may levy an additional excise tax not 114894
to exceed one and one-half per cent on transactions by which 114895
lodging by a hotel is or is to be furnished to transient guests. 114896
The excise tax authorized by this division shall be in addition to 114897
any tax that is levied pursuant to divisions (A), (B), (C), and 114898
(D) of this section, to any excise tax levied pursuant to section 114899
5739.08 of the Revised Code, and to any excise tax levied pursuant 114900
to section 351.021 of the Revised Code. The legislative authority 114901
of the county shall establish all regulations necessary to provide 114902
for the administration and allocation of the tax. The regulations 114903
may prescribe the time for payment of the tax, and may provide for 114904
the imposition of a penalty or interest, or both, for late 114905
payments, provided that the penalty does not exceed ten per cent 114906
of the amount of tax due, and the rate at which interest accrues 114907
does not exceed the rate per annum prescribed pursuant to section 114908
5703.47 of the Revised Code. All revenues arising from the tax 114909
shall be expended in accordance with section 307.672 of the 114910
Revised Code and this division. The levy of a tax imposed under 114911
this division shall not commence prior to the first day of the 114912
month next following the execution of the cooperative agreement 114913
authorized by section 307.672 of the Revised Code by all parties 114914
to that agreement. The tax shall remain in effect at the rate at 114915
which it is imposed for the period of time determined by the 114916
legislative authority of the county. That period of time shall not 114917
exceed fifteen years, except that the legislative authority of a 114918
county with a population of less than two hundred fifty thousand 114919
according to the most recent federal decennial census, by 114920
resolution adopted by a majority of its members before the 114921
original tax expires, may extend the duration of the tax for an 114922
additional period of time. The additional period of time by which 114923
a legislative authority extends a tax levied under this division 114924
shall not exceed fifteen years.114925

       (F) The legislative authority of a county that has levied a 114926
tax under division (E) of this section may, by resolution adopted 114927
within one hundred eighty days after January 4, 2001, by a 114928
majority of the members of the legislative authority, amend the 114929
resolution levying a tax under that division to provide for the 114930
use of the proceeds of that tax, to the extent that it is no 114931
longer needed for its original purpose as determined by the 114932
parties to a cooperative agreement amendment pursuant to division 114933
(D) of section 307.672 of the Revised Code, to pay costs of 114934
acquiring, constructing, renovating, rehabilitating, equipping, 114935
and improving a port authority educational and cultural performing 114936
arts facility, including debt service charges on bonds provided 114937
for in division (B) of section 307.674 of the Revised Code, and to 114938
pay all obligations under any guaranty agreements, reimbursement 114939
agreements, or other credit enhancement agreements described in 114940
division (C) of section 307.674 of the Revised Code. The 114941
resolution may also provide for the extension of the tax at the 114942
same rate for the longer of the period of time determined by the 114943
legislative authority of the county, but not to exceed an 114944
additional twenty-five years, or the period of time required to 114945
pay all debt service charges on bonds provided for in division (B) 114946
of section 307.672 of the Revised Code and on port authority 114947
revenue bonds provided for in division (B) of section 307.674 of 114948
the Revised Code. All revenues arising from the amendment and 114949
extension of the tax shall be expended in accordance with section 114950
307.674 of the Revised Code, this division, and division (E) of 114951
this section.114952

       (G) For purposes of a tax levied by a county, township, or 114953
municipal corporation under this section or section 5739.08 of the 114954
Revised Code, a board of county commissioners, board of township 114955
trustees, or the legislative authority of a municipal corporation 114956
may adopt a resolution or ordinance at any time specifying that 114957
"hotel," as otherwise defined in section 5739.01 of the Revised 114958
Code, includes the following:114959

       (1) Establishments in which fewer than five rooms are used 114960
for the accommodation of guests. 114961

       (2) Establishments at which rooms are used for the 114962
accommodation of guests regardless of whether each room is 114963
accessible through its own keyed entry or several rooms are 114964
accessible through the same keyed entry; and, in determining the 114965
number of rooms, all rooms are included regardless of the number 114966
of structures in which the rooms are situated or the number of 114967
parcels of land on which the structures are located if the 114968
structures are under the same ownership and the structures are not 114969
identified in advertisements of the accommodations as distinct 114970
establishments. For the purposes of division (G)(2) of this 114971
section, two or more structures are under the same ownership if 114972
they are owned by the same person, or if they are owned by two or 114973
more persons the majority of the ownership interests of which are 114974
owned by the same person.114975

        The resolution or ordinance may apply to a tax imposed 114976
pursuant to this section prior to the adoption of the resolution 114977
or ordinance if the resolution or ordinance so states, but the tax 114978
shall not apply to transactions by which lodging by such an 114979
establishment is provided to transient guests prior to the 114980
adoption of the resolution or ordinance.114981

       (H)(1) As used in this division:114982

       (a) "Convention facilities authority" has the same meaning as 114983
in section 351.01 of the Revised Code.114984

       (b) "Convention center" has the same meaning as in section 114985
307.695 of the Revised Code.114986

       (2) Notwithstanding any contrary provision of division (D) of 114987
this section, the legislative authority of a county with a 114988
population of one million or more according to the most recent 114989
federal decennial census that has levied a tax under division (D) 114990
of this section may, by resolution adopted by a majority of the 114991
members of the legislative authority, provide for the extension of 114992
such levy and may provide that the proceeds of that tax, to the 114993
extent that they are no longer needed for their original purpose 114994
as defined by a cooperative agreement entered into under section 114995
307.671 of the Revised Code, shall be deposited into the county 114996
general revenue fund. The resolution shall provide for the 114997
extension of the tax at a rate not to exceed the rate specified in 114998
division (D) of this section for a period of time determined by 114999
the legislative authority of the county, but not to exceed an 115000
additional forty years.115001

       (3) The legislative authority of a county with a population 115002
of one million or more that has levied a tax under division (A)(1) 115003
of this section may, by resolution adopted by a majority of the 115004
members of the legislative authority, increase the rate of the tax 115005
levied by such county under division (A)(1) of this section to a 115006
rate not to exceed five per cent on transactions by which lodging 115007
by a hotel is or is to be furnished to transient guests. 115008
Notwithstanding any contrary provision of division (A)(1) of this 115009
section, the resolution may provide that all collections resulting 115010
from the rate levied in excess of three per cent, after deducting 115011
the real and actual costs of administering the tax, shall be 115012
deposited in the county general fund.115013

       (4) The legislative authority of a county with a population 115014
of one million or more that has levied a tax under division (A)(1) 115015
of this section may, by resolution adopted on or before August 30, 115016
2004, by a majority of the members of the legislative authority, 115017
provide that all or a portion of the proceeds of the tax levied 115018
under division (A)(1) of this section, after deducting the real 115019
and actual costs of administering the tax and the amounts required 115020
to be returned to townships and municipal corporations with 115021
respect to the first three per cent levied under division (A)(1) 115022
of this section, shall be deposited in the county general fund, 115023
provided that such proceeds shall be used to satisfy any pledges 115024
made in connection with an agreement entered into under section 115025
307.695 of the Revised Code.115026

       (5) No amount collected from a tax levied, extended, or 115027
required to be deposited in the county general fund under division 115028
(H) of this section shall be contributed to a convention 115029
facilities authority, corporation, or other entity created after 115030
July 1, 2003, for the principal purpose of constructing, 115031
improving, expanding, equipping, financing, or operating a 115032
convention center unless the mayor of the municipal corporation in 115033
which the convention center is to be operated by that convention 115034
facilities authority, corporation, or other entity has consented 115035
to the creation of that convention facilities authority, 115036
corporation, or entity. Notwithstanding any contrary provision of 115037
section 351.04 of the Revised Code, if a tax is levied by a county 115038
under division (H) of this section, the board of county 115039
commissioners of that county may determine the manner of 115040
selection, the qualifications, the number, and terms of office of 115041
the members of the board of directors of any convention facilities 115042
authority, corporation, or other entity described in division 115043
(H)(5) of this section.115044

       (6)(a) No amount collected from a tax levied, extended, or 115045
required to be deposited in the county general fund under division 115046
(H) of this section may be used for any purpose other than paying 115047
the direct and indirect costs of constructing, improving, 115048
expanding, equipping, financing, or operating a convention center 115049
and for the real and actual costs of administering the tax, 115050
unless, prior to the adoption of the resolution of the legislative 115051
authority of the county authorizing the levy, extension, increase, 115052
or deposit, the county and the mayor of the most populous 115053
municipal corporation in that county have entered into an 115054
agreement as to the use of such amounts, provided that such 115055
agreement has been approved by a majority of the mayors of the 115056
other municipal corporations in that county. The agreement shall 115057
provide that the amounts to be used for purposes other than paying 115058
the convention center or administrative costs described in 115059
division (H)(6)(a) of this section be used only for the direct and 115060
indirect costs of capital improvements, including the financing of 115061
capital improvements.115062

       (b) If the county in which the tax is levied has an 115063
association of mayors and city managers, the approval of that 115064
association of an agreement described in division (H)(6)(a) of 115065
this section shall be considered to be the approval of the 115066
majority of the mayors of the other municipal corporations for 115067
purposes of that division.115068

       (7) Each year, the auditor of state shall conduct an audit of 115069
the uses of any amounts collected from taxes levied, extended, or 115070
deposited under division (H) of this section and shall prepare a 115071
report of the auditor of state's findings. The auditor of state 115072
shall submit the report to the legislative authority of the county 115073
that has levied, extended, or deposited the tax, the speaker of 115074
the house of representatives, the president of the senate, and the 115075
leaders of the minority parties of the house of representatives 115076
and the senate.115077

       (I)(1) As used in this division:115078

       (a) "Convention facilities authority" has the same meaning as 115079
in section 351.01 of the Revised Code.115080

       (b) "Convention center" has the same meaning as in section 115081
307.695 of the Revised Code.115082

       (2) Notwithstanding any contrary provision of division (D) of 115083
this section, the legislative authority of a county with a 115084
population of one million two hundred thousand or more according 115085
to the most recent federal decennial census or the most recent 115086
annual population estimate published or released by the United 115087
States census bureau at the time the resolution is adopted placing 115088
the levy on the ballot, that has levied a tax under division (D) 115089
of this section may, by resolution adopted by a majority of the 115090
members of the legislative authority, provide for the extension of 115091
such levy and may provide that the proceeds of that tax, to the 115092
extent that the proceeds are no longer needed for their original 115093
purpose as defined by a cooperative agreement entered into under 115094
section 307.671 of the Revised Code and after deducting the real 115095
and actual costs of administering the tax, shall be used for 115096
paying the direct and indirect costs of constructing, improving, 115097
expanding, equipping, financing, or operating a convention center. 115098
The resolution shall provide for the extension of the tax at a 115099
rate not to exceed the rate specified in division (D) of this 115100
section for a period of time determined by the legislative 115101
authority of the county, but not to exceed an additional forty 115102
years.115103

       (3) The legislative authority of a county with a population 115104
of one million two hundred thousand or more that has levied a tax 115105
under division (A)(1) of this section may, by resolution adopted 115106
by a majority of the members of the legislative authority, 115107
increase the rate of the tax levied by such county under division 115108
(A)(1) of this section to a rate not to exceed five per cent on 115109
transactions by which lodging by a hotel is or is to be furnished 115110
to transient guests. Notwithstanding any contrary provision of 115111
division (A)(1) of this section, the resolution shall provide that 115112
all collections resulting from the rate levied in excess of three 115113
per cent, after deducting the real and actual costs of 115114
administering the tax, shall be used for paying the direct and 115115
indirect costs of constructing, improving, expanding, equipping, 115116
financing, or operating a convention center.115117

       (4) The legislative authority of a county with a population 115118
of one million two hundred thousand or more that has levied a tax 115119
under division (A)(1) of this section may, by resolution adopted 115120
on or before July 1, 2008, by a majority of the members of the 115121
legislative authority, provide that all or a portion of the 115122
proceeds of the tax levied under division (A)(1) of this section, 115123
after deducting the real and actual costs of administering the tax 115124
and the amounts required to be returned to townships and municipal 115125
corporations with respect to the first three per cent levied under 115126
division (A)(1) of this section, shall be used to satisfy any 115127
pledges made in connection with an agreement entered into under 115128
section 307.695 of the Revised Code or shall otherwise be used for 115129
paying the direct and indirect costs of constructing, improving, 115130
expanding, equipping, financing, or operating a convention center.115131

       (5) Any amount collected from a tax levied or extended under 115132
division (I) of this section may be contributed to a convention 115133
facilities authority created before July 1, 2005, but no amount 115134
collected from a tax levied or extended under division (I) of this 115135
section may be contributed to a convention facilities authority, 115136
corporation, or other entity created after July 1, 2005, unless 115137
the mayor of the municipal corporation in which the convention 115138
center is to be operated by that convention facilities authority, 115139
corporation, or other entity has consented to the creation of that 115140
convention facilities authority, corporation, or entity.115141

       (J) A board of commissioners of a county or board of trustees 115142
of a township may not adopt or amend a resolution levying a tax on 115143
transactions by which lodging by a hotel is or is to be furnished 115144
to transient guests pursuant to this section on or after October 115145
1, 2013, unless the board levies the tax on any transaction by 115146
which a transient guest obtains or will obtain lodging in a hotel 115147
using a hotel intermediary. The board shall levy the tax on any 115148
amount the purchaser pays to the hotel intermediary for the 115149
intermediary's services plus any amount paid for the furnishing of 115150
lodging in a hotel to the transient guest.115151

       The hotel intermediary shall collect and remit all tax paid 115152
by the purchaser to the county or township, as applicable, that 115153
levies the tax pursuant to this section. If the hotel intermediary 115154
does not collect or remit the full amount of tax, the hotel in 115155
which the transient guest will lodge shall attempt to collect and 115156
remit to the county or township, as applicable, the uncollected or 115157
unremitted tax.115158

       Sec. 5739.12. (A)(1) Each person who has or is required to 115159
have a vendor's license, on or before the twenty-third day of each 115160
month, shall make and file a return for the preceding month in the 115161
form prescribed by the tax commissioner, and shall pay the tax 115162
shown on the return to be due. The return shall be filed 115163
electronically using the Ohio business gateway, as defined in 115164
section 718.051 of the Revised Code, the Ohio telefile system, or 115165
any other electronic means prescribed by the commissioner. Payment 115166
of the tax shown on the return to be due shall be made 115167
electronically in a manner approved by the commissioner. The 115168
commissioner may require a vendor that operates from multiple 115169
locations or has multiple vendor's licenses to report all tax 115170
liabilities on one consolidated return. The return shall show the 115171
amount of tax due from the vendor to the state for the period 115172
covered by the return and such other information as the 115173
commissioner deems necessary for the proper administration of this 115174
chapter. The commissioner may extend the time for making and 115175
filing returns and paying the tax, and may require that the return 115176
for the last month of any annual or semiannual period, as 115177
determined by the commissioner, be a reconciliation return 115178
detailing the vendor's sales activity for the preceding annual or 115179
semiannual period. The reconciliation return shall be filed by the 115180
last day of the month following the last month of the annual or 115181
semiannual period. The commissioner may remit all or any part of 115182
amounts or penalties that may become due under this chapter and 115183
may adopt rules relating thereto. Such return shall be filed 115184
electronically as directed by the tax commissioner, and payment of 115185
the amount of tax shown to be due thereon, after deduction of any 115186
discount provided for under this section, shall be made 115187
electronically in a manner approved by the tax commissioner.115188

       (2) Any person required to file returns and make payments 115189
electronically under division (A)(1) of this section may apply to 115190
the tax commissioner on a form prescribed by the commissioner to 115191
be excused from that requirement. For good cause shown, the 115192
commissioner may excuse the person from that requirement and may 115193
permit the person to file the returns and make the payments 115194
required by this section by nonelectronic means.115195

       (B)(1) If the return is filed and the amount of tax shown 115196
thereon to be due is paid on or before the date such return is 115197
required to be filed, the vendor shall be entitled to a discount 115198
of three-fourths of one per cent of the amount shown to be due on 115199
the return.115200

       (2) A vendor that has selected a certified service provider 115201
as its agent shall not be entitled to the discount if the 115202
certified service provider receives a monetary allowance pursuant 115203
to section 5739.06 of the Revised Code for performing the vendor's 115204
sales and use tax functions in this state. Amounts paid to the 115205
clerk of courts pursuant to section 4505.06 of the Revised Code 115206
shall be subject to the applicable discount. The discount shall be 115207
in consideration for prompt payment to the clerk of courts and for 115208
other services performed by the vendor in the collection of the 115209
tax.115210

       (C)(1) Upon application to the tax commissioner, a vendor who 115211
is required to file monthly returns may be relieved of the 115212
requirement to report and pay the actual tax due, provided that 115213
the vendor agrees to remit to the commissioner payment of not less 115214
than an amount determined by the commissioner to be the average 115215
monthly tax liability of the vendor, based upon a review of the 115216
returns or other information pertaining to such vendor for a 115217
period of not less than six months nor more than two years 115218
immediately preceding the filing of the application. Vendors who 115219
agree to the above conditions shall make and file an annual or 115220
semiannual reconciliation return, as prescribed by the 115221
commissioner. The reconciliation return shall be filed 115222
electronically as directed by the tax commissioner, and payment of 115223
the amount of tax shown to be due thereon, after deduction of any 115224
discount provided in this section, shall be made electronically in 115225
a manner approved by the commissioner. Failure of a vendor to 115226
comply with any of the above conditions may result in immediate 115227
reinstatement of the requirement of reporting and paying the 115228
actual tax liability on each monthly return, and the commissioner 115229
may at the commissioner's discretion deny the vendor the right to 115230
report and pay based upon the average monthly liability for a 115231
period not to exceed two years. The amount ascertained by the 115232
commissioner to be the average monthly tax liability of a vendor 115233
may be adjusted, based upon a review of the returns or other 115234
information pertaining to the vendor for a period of not less than 115235
six months nor more than two years preceding such adjustment.115236

       (2) The commissioner may authorize vendors whose tax 115237
liability is not such as to merit monthly returns, as ascertained 115238
by the commissioner upon the basis of administrative costs to the 115239
state, to make and file returns at less frequent intervals. When 115240
returns are filed at less frequent intervals in accordance with 115241
such authorization, the vendor shall be allowed the discount 115242
provided in this section in consideration for prompt payment with 115243
the return, provided the return is filed and payment is made of 115244
the amount of tax shown to be due thereon, at the time specified 115245
by the commissioner, but a vendor that has selected a certified 115246
service provider as its agent shall not be entitled to the 115247
discount.115248

       (D) Any vendor who fails to file a return or to pay the full 115249
amount of the tax shown on the return to be due in the manner 115250
prescribed under this section and the rules of the commissioner 115251
may, for each such return, be required to forfeit and pay into the 115252
state treasury an additional charge not exceeding fifty dollars or 115253
ten per cent of the tax required to be paid for the reporting 115254
period, whichever is greater, as revenue arising from the tax 115255
imposed by this chapter, and such sum may be collected by 115256
assessment in the manner provided in section 5739.13 of the 115257
Revised Code. The commissioner may remit all or a portion of the 115258
additional charge and may adopt rules relating to the imposition 115259
and remission of the additional charge.115260

       (E) If the amount required to be collected by a vendor from 115261
consumers is in excess of the applicable percentage of the 115262
vendor's receipts from sales that are taxable under section 115263
5739.02 of the Revised Code, or in the case of sales subject to a 115264
tax levied pursuant to section 5739.021, 5739.023, or 5739.026 of 115265
the Revised Code, in excess of the percentage equal to the 115266
aggregate rate of such taxes and the tax levied by section 5739.02 115267
of the Revised Code, such excess shall be remitted along with the 115268
remittance of the amount of tax due under section 5739.10 of the 115269
Revised Code.115270

       (F) The commissioner, if the commissioner deems it necessary 115271
in order to insure the payment of the tax imposed by this chapter, 115272
may require returns and payments to be made for other than monthly 115273
periods.115274

       (G) Any vendor required to file a return and pay the tax 115275
under this section whose total payment for a year equals or 115276
exceeds the amount shown in division (A) of section 5739.122 of 115277
the Revised Code is subject to the accelerated tax payment 115278
requirements in divisions (B) and (C) of that section. For a 115279
vendor that operates from multiple locations or has multiple 115280
vendor's licenses, in determining whether the vendor's total 115281
payment equals or exceeds the amount shown in division (A) of that 115282
section, the vendor's total payment amount shall be the amount of 115283
the vendor's total tax liability for the previous calendar year 115284
for all of the vendor's locations or licenses.115285

       (H) If a vendor that is a hotel intermediary does not collect 115286
and remit the full amount of tax due, the hotel in which the 115287
transient guest will lodge shall attempt to collect and remit any 115288
remaining amount of tax from the transient guest.115289

       Sec. 5739.13.  (A) If any vendor collects the tax imposed by 115290
or pursuant to section 5739.02, 5739.021, 5739.023, or 5739.026 of 115291
the Revised Code, and fails to remit the tax to the state as 115292
prescribed, or on the sale of a motor vehicle, watercraft, or 115293
outboard motor required to be titled, fails to remit payment to a 115294
clerk of a court of common pleas as provided in section 1548.06 or 115295
4505.06 of the Revised Code, the vendor shall be personally liable 115296
for any tax collected and not remitted. The tax commissioner may 115297
make an assessment against such vendor based upon any information 115298
in the commissioner's possession.115299

       If any vendor fails to collect the tax or any consumer fails 115300
to pay the tax imposed by or pursuant to section 5739.02, 115301
5739.021, 5739.023, or 5739.026 of the Revised Code, on any 115302
transaction subject to the tax, the vendor or consumer shall be 115303
personally liable for the amount of the tax applicable to the 115304
transaction. The commissioner may make an assessment against 115305
either the vendor or consumer, as the facts may require, based 115306
upon any information in the commissioner's possession.115307

       An assessment against a vendor when the tax imposed by or 115308
pursuant to section 5739.02, 5739.021, 5739.023, or 5739.026 of 115309
the Revised Code has not been collected or paid, shall not 115310
discharge the purchaser's or consumer's liability to reimburse the 115311
vendor for the tax applicable to such transaction.115312

       An assessment issued against either, pursuant to this 115313
section, shall not be considered an election of remedies, nor a 115314
bar to an assessment against the other for the tax applicable to 115315
the same transaction, provided that no assessment shall be issued 115316
against any person for the tax due on a particular transaction if 115317
the tax on that transaction actually has been paid by another.115318

       The commissioner may make an assessment against any vendor 115319
who fails to file a return or remit the proper amount of tax 115320
required by this chapter, or against any consumer who fails to pay 115321
the proper amount of tax required by this chapter. When 115322
information in the possession of the commissioner indicates that 115323
the amount required to be collected or paid under this chapter is 115324
greater than the amount remitted by the vendor or paid by the 115325
consumer, the commissioner may audit a sample of the vendor's 115326
sales or the consumer's purchases for a representative period, to 115327
ascertain the per cent of exempt or taxable transactions or the 115328
effective tax rate and may issue an assessment based on the audit. 115329
The commissioner shall make a good faith effort to reach agreement 115330
with the vendor or consumer in selecting a representative sample.115331

       The commissioner may make an assessment, based on any 115332
information in histhe commissioner's possession, against any 115333
person who fails to file a return or remit the proper amount of 115334
tax required by section 5739.102 of the Revised Code.115335

       The commissioner may issue an assessment on any transaction 115336
for which any tax imposed under this chapter or Chapter 5741. of 115337
the Revised Code was due and unpaid on the date the vendor or 115338
consumer was informed by an agent of the tax commissioner of an 115339
investigation or audit. If the vendor or consumer remits any 115340
payment of the tax for the period covered by the assessment after 115341
the vendor or consumer was informed of the investigation or audit, 115342
the payment shall be credited against the amount of the 115343
assessment.115344

       The commissioner shall give the party assessed written notice 115345
of the assessment in the manner provided in section 5703.37 of the 115346
Revised Code. With the notice, the commissioner shall provide 115347
instructions on how to petition for reassessment and request a 115348
hearing on the petition.115349

       (B) Unless the party assessed files with the commissioner 115350
within sixty days after service of the notice of assessment, 115351
either personally or by certified mail, a written petition for 115352
reassessment, signed by the party assessed or that party's 115353
authorized agent having knowledge of the facts, the assessment 115354
becomes final and the amount of the assessment is due from the 115355
party assessed and payable to the treasurer of state and remitted 115356
to the tax commissioner. The petition shall indicate the 115357
objections of the party assessed, but additional objections may be 115358
raised in writing if received by the commissioner prior to the 115359
date shown on the final determination. If the petition has been 115360
properly filed, the commissioner shall proceed under section 115361
5703.60 of the Revised Code.115362

       (C) After an assessment becomes final, if any portion of the 115363
assessment remains unpaid, including accrued interest, a certified 115364
copy of the commissioner's entry making the assessment final may 115365
be filed in the office of the clerk of the court of common pleas 115366
in the county in which the place of business of the party assessed 115367
is located or the county in which the party assessed resides. If 115368
the party assessed maintains no place of business in this state 115369
and is not a resident of this state, the certified copy of the 115370
entry may be filed in the office of the clerk of the court of 115371
common pleas of Franklin county.115372

       Immediately upon the filing of the entry, the clerk shall 115373
enter a judgment for the state against the party assessed in the 115374
amount shown on the entry. The judgment may be filed by the clerk 115375
in a loose-leaf book entitled "special judgments for state, 115376
county, and transit authority retail sales tax" or, if 115377
appropriate, "special judgments for resort area excise tax," and 115378
shall have the same effect as other judgments. Execution shall 115379
issue upon the judgment upon the request of the tax commissioner, 115380
and all laws applicable to sales on execution shall apply to sales 115381
made under the judgment except as otherwise provided in this 115382
chapter.115383

       The portion ofIf the assessment is not paid in its entirety115384
within sixty days after the date the assessment was issued, the 115385
portion of the assessment consisting of tax due shall bear 115386
interest at the rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of 115387
the Revised Code from the day the tax commissioner issues the 115388
assessment until the assessment is paid or until it is certified 115389
to the attorney general for collection under section 131.02 of the 115390
Revised Code, whichever comes first. If the unpaid portion of the 115391
assessment is certified to the attorney general for collection, 115392
the entire unpaid portion of the assessment shall bear interest at 115393
the rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of the Revised 115394
Code from the date of certification until the date it is paid in 115395
its entirety. Interest shall be paid in the same manner as the tax 115396
and may be collected by issuing an assessment under this section.115397

       (D) All money collected by the tax commissioner under this 115398
section shall be paid to the treasurer of state, and when paid 115399
shall be considered as revenue arising from the taxes imposed by 115400
or pursuant to sections 5739.01 to 5739.31 of the Revised Code.115401

       Sec. 5741.01.  As used in this chapter:115402

       (A) "Person" includes individuals, receivers, assignees, 115403
trustees in bankruptcy, estates, firms, partnerships, 115404
associations, joint-stock companies, joint ventures, clubs, 115405
societies, corporations, business trusts, governments, and 115406
combinations of individuals of any form.115407

       (B) "Storage" means and includes any keeping or retention in 115408
this state for use or other consumption in this state.115409

       (C) "Use" means and includes the exercise of any right or 115410
power incidental to the ownership of the thing used. A thing is 115411
also "used" in this state if its consumer gives or otherwise 115412
distributes it, without charge, to recipients in this state.115413

       (D) "Purchase" means acquired or received for a 115414
consideration, whether such acquisition or receipt was effected by 115415
a transfer of title, or of possession, or of both, or a license to 115416
use or consume; whether such transfer was absolute or conditional, 115417
and by whatever means the transfer was effected; and whether the 115418
consideration was money, credit, barter, or exchange. Purchase 115419
includes production, even though the article produced was used, 115420
stored, or consumed by the producer. The transfer of copyrighted 115421
motion picture films for exhibition purposes is not a purchase, 115422
except such films as are used solely for advertising purposes.115423

       (E) "Seller" means the person from whom a purchase is made, 115424
and includes every person engaged in this state or elsewhere in 115425
the business of selling tangible personal property or providing a 115426
service for storage, use, or other consumption or benefit in this 115427
state; and when, in the opinion of the tax commissioner, it is 115428
necessary for the efficient administration of this chapter, to 115429
regard any salesmansalesperson, representative, peddler, or 115430
canvasser as the agent of a dealer, distributor, supervisor, or 115431
employer under whom the person operates, or from whom the person 115432
obtains tangible personal property, sold by the person for 115433
storage, use, or other consumption in this state, irrespective of 115434
whether or not the person is making such sales on the person's own 115435
behalf, or on behalf of such dealer, distributor, supervisor, or 115436
employer, the commissioner may regard the person as such agent, 115437
and may regard such dealer, distributor, supervisor, or employer 115438
as the seller. "Seller" does not include any person to the extent 115439
the person provides a communications medium, such as, but not 115440
limited to, newspapers, magazines, radio, television, or cable 115441
television, by means of which sellers solicit purchases of their 115442
goods or services.115443

       (F) "Consumer" means any person who has purchased tangible 115444
personal property or has been provided a service for storage, use, 115445
or other consumption or benefit in this state. "Consumer" does not 115446
include a person who receives, without charge, tangible personal 115447
property or a service.115448

       A person who performs a facility management or similar 115449
service contract for a contractee is a consumer of all tangible 115450
personal property and services purchased for use in connection 115451
with the performance of such contract, regardless of whether title 115452
to any such property vests in the contractee. The purchase of such 115453
property and services is not subject to the exception for resale 115454
under division (E) of section 5739.01 of the Revised Code.115455

       (G)(1) "Price," except as provided in divisions (G)(2) to (6) 115456
of this section, has the same meaning as in division (H)(1) of 115457
section 5739.01 of the Revised Code.115458

       (2) In the case of watercraft, outboard motors, or new motor 115459
vehicles, "price" has the same meaning as in divisions (H)(2) and 115460
(3) of section 5739.01 of the Revised Code.115461

       (3) In the case of a nonresident business consumer that 115462
purchases and uses tangible personal property outside this state 115463
and subsequently temporarily stores, uses, or otherwise consumes 115464
such tangible personal property in the conduct of business in this 115465
state, the consumer or the tax commissioner may determine the 115466
price based on the value of the temporary storage, use, or other 115467
consumption, in lieu of determining the price pursuant to division 115468
(G)(1) of this section. A price determination made by the consumer 115469
is subject to review and redetermination by the commissioner.115470

       (4) In the case of tangible personal property held in this 115471
state as inventory for sale or lease, and that is temporarily 115472
stored, used, or otherwise consumed in a taxable manner, the price 115473
is the value of the temporary use. A price determination made by 115474
the consumer is subject to review and redetermination by the 115475
commissioner.115476

       (5) In the case of tangible personal property originally 115477
purchased and used by the consumer outside this state, and that 115478
becomes permanently stored, used, or otherwise consumed in this 115479
state more than six months after its acquisition by the consumer, 115480
the consumer or the commissioner may determine the price based on 115481
the current value of such tangible personal property, in lieu of 115482
determining the price pursuant to division (G)(1) of this section. 115483
A price determination made by the consumer is subject to review 115484
and redetermination by the commissioner.115485

       (6) If a consumer produces tangible personal property for 115486
sale and removes that property from inventory for the consumer's 115487
own use, the price is the produced cost of that tangible personal 115488
property.115489

       (H) "Nexus with this state" means that the seller engages in 115490
continuous and widespread solicitation of purchases from residents 115491
of this state or otherwise purposefully directs its business 115492
activities at residents of this state.115493

       (I)(1) "Substantial nexus with this state" means that the 115494
seller has sufficient contact with this state, in accordance with 115495
Section 8 of Article I of the Constitution of the United States, 115496
to allow the state to require the seller to collect and remit use 115497
tax on sales of tangible personal property or services made to 115498
consumers in this state. "Substantial115499

       (2) "Substantial nexus with this state" existsis presumed to 115500
exist when the seller does any of the following:115501

       (1) Maintains a(a) Uses an office, distribution facility, 115502
warehouse, storage facility, or similar place of business within 115503
this state, whether operated by employees or agents of the seller, 115504
by a member of an affiliated group, as defined in division 115505
(B)(3)(e) of section 5739.01 of the Revised Code, of which the 115506
seller is a member, or by a franchisee using a trade name of the 115507
seller;or any other person, other than a common carrier acting in 115508
its capacity as a common carrier.115509

       (2)(b) Regularly hasuses employees, agents, representatives, 115510
solicitors, installers, repairmenrepairers, salesmen115511
salespersons, or other individualspersons in this state (i) for 115512
the purpose of conducting the business of the seller;, or that 115513
(ii) engage in a business with the same or a similar industry 115514
classification as the seller selling a similar product or line of 115515
products as the seller, or (iii) use trademarks, service marks, or 115516
trade names in this state that are the same or substantially 115517
similar to those used by the seller.115518

       (3)(c) Uses aany person, other than a common carrier acting 115519
in its capacity as a common carrier, in this state for any of the 115520
purpose of receivingfollowing purposes:115521

       (i) Receiving or processing orders of the seller's goods or 115522
services;115523

       (ii) Using that person's employees or facilities in this 115524
state to advertise, promote, or facilitate sales by the seller to 115525
customers; 115526

       (iii) Delivering, installing, assembling, or performing 115527
maintenance services for the seller's customers;115528

       (iv) Facilitating the seller's delivery of tangible personal 115529
property to customers in this state by allowing the seller's 115530
customers to pick up property sold by the seller at an office, 115531
distribution facility, warehouse, storage facility, or similar 115532
place of business.115533

       (4)(d) Makes regular deliveries of tangible personal property 115534
into this state by means other than common carrier;.115535

       (5) Has membership in an affiliated group, as described in 115536
division (B)(3)(e) of section 5739.01 of the Revised Code, at 115537
least one other member of which has substantial nexus with this 115538
state;115539

       (6)(e) Owns tangible personal property that is rented or 115540
leased to a consumer in this state, or offers tangible personal 115541
property, on approval, to consumers in this state;.115542

       (7) Except as provided in section 5703.65 of the Revised 115543
Code, is registered with the secretary of state to do business in 115544
this state or is registered or licensed by any state agency, 115545
board, or commission to transact business in this state or to make 115546
sales to persons in this state;115547

       (8) Has any other contact with this state that would allow 115548
this state to require the seller to collect and remit use tax 115549
under Section 8 of Article I of the Constitution of the United 115550
States(f) Is a hotel intermediary that furnishes lodging in 115551
hotels located in this state to transient guests.115552

       (g) Enters into an agreement with one or more residents of 115553
this state under which the resident, for a commission or other 115554
consideration, directly or indirectly refers potential customers 115555
to the seller, whether by a link on a web site, an in-person oral 115556
presentation, telemarketing, or otherwise, provided the cumulative 115557
gross receipts from sales to consumers referred to the seller by 115558
all such residents exceeded ten thousand dollars during the 115559
preceding twelve months.115560

       (3) A seller presumed to have substantial nexus with this 115561
state under divisions (I)(2)(a) to (f) of this section may rebut 115562
that presumption by demonstrating that activities described in any 115563
of those divisions that are conducted by a person in this state on 115564
the seller's behalf are not significantly associated with the 115565
seller's ability to establish or maintain a market in this state 115566
for the seller's sales.115567

       (4) A seller presumed to have substantial nexus with this 115568
state under division (I)(2)(g) of this section may rebut that 115569
presumption by submitting proof that each resident engaged by the 115570
seller as described in that division did not engage in any 115571
activity within this state during the preceding twelve months that 115572
was significantly associated with the seller's ability to 115573
establish or maintain the seller's market in this state during the 115574
preceding twelve months. Such proof may consist of sworn written 115575
statements from all the residents with whom the seller has an 115576
agreement stating that the resident did not engage in any 115577
solicitation in this state on behalf of the seller during the 115578
preceding twelve months if such statements are provided and 115579
obtained in good faith.115580

       (5) A seller that does not have substantial nexus with this 115581
state, and any affiliated person of the seller, before selling or 115582
leasing tangible personal property or services to a state agency, 115583
shall register with the tax commissioner in the same manner as a 115584
seller described in division (A)(1) of section 5741.17 of the 115585
Revised Code.115586

       (6) As used in division (I) of this section:115587

       (a) "Affiliated person" means any person that is a member of 115588
the same controlled group of corporations as the seller or any 115589
other person that, notwithstanding the form of organization, bears 115590
the same ownership relationship to the seller as a corporation 115591
that is a member of the same controlled group of corporations.115592

       (b) "Controlled group of corporations" has the same meaning 115593
as in section 1536(a) of the Internal Revenue Code.115594

       (c) "State agency" has the same meaning as in section 1.60 of 115595
the Revised Code.115596

       (J) "Fiscal officer" means, with respect to a regional 115597
transit authority, the secretary-treasurer thereof, and with 115598
respect to a county which is a transit authority, the fiscal 115599
officer of the county transit board appointed pursuant to section 115600
306.03 of the Revised Code or, if the board of county 115601
commissioners operates the county transit system, the county 115602
auditor.115603

       (K) "Territory of the transit authority" means all of the 115604
area included within the territorial boundaries of a transit 115605
authority as they from time to time exist. Such territorial 115606
boundaries must at all times include all the area of a single 115607
county or all the area of the most populous county which is a part 115608
of such transit authority. County population shall be measured by 115609
the most recent census taken by the United States census bureau.115610

       (L) "Transit authority" means a regional transit authority 115611
created pursuant to section 306.31 of the Revised Code or a county 115612
in which a county transit system is created pursuant to section 115613
306.01 of the Revised Code. For the purposes of this chapter, a 115614
transit authority must extend to at least the entire area of a 115615
single county. A transit authority which includes territory in 115616
more than one county must include all the area of the most 115617
populous county which is a part of such transit authority. County 115618
population shall be measured by the most recent census taken by 115619
the United States census bureau.115620

       (M) "Providing a service" has the same meaning as in division 115621
(X) of section 5739.01 of the Revised Code.115622

       (N) "Other consumption" includes receiving the benefits of a 115623
service.115624

       (O) "Lease" or "rental" has the same meaning as in division 115625
(UU) of section 5739.01 of the Revised Code.115626

       (P) "Certified service provider" has the same meaning as in 115627
section 5740.01 of the Revised Code.115628

       (Q) "Hotel intermediary," "hotel," and "transient guest" have 115629
the same meanings as in section 5739.01 of the Revised Code.115630

       (R) "Remote sale" means a sale for which the seller could not 115631
be legally required to pay, collect, or remit a tax imposed under 115632
this chapter or Chapter 5739. of the Revised Code, unless 115633
otherwise provided by the laws of the United States.115634

       (S) "Remote seller" means a seller that makes remote sales to 115635
one or more consumers.115636

       (T) "Remote small seller" means a remote seller that has 115637
gross annual receipts from remote sales in the United States not 115638
exceeding one million dollars for the preceding calendar year. For 115639
the purposes of determining whether a person is a small remote 115640
seller, the sales of all persons related within the meaning of 115641
subsection (b) or (c) of section 267 or section 707(b)(1) of the 115642
Internal Revenue Code shall be aggregated, and persons with one or 115643
more ownership relationships shall be aggregated if those 115644
relationships were designed with the principal purpose to qualify 115645
as a remote small seller.115646

       Sec. 5741.03.  (A) One hundred per cent of all money 115647
deposited into the state treasury under sections 5741.01 to 115648
5741.22 of the Revised Code that is not required to be distributed 115649
as provided in division (B) of this section shall be credited to 115650
the general revenue fund.115651

       (B) In any case where any county or transit authority has 115652
levied a tax or taxes pursuant to section 5741.021, 5741.022, or 115653
5741.023 of the Revised Code, the tax commissioner shall, within 115654
forty-five days after the end of each month, determine and certify 115655
to the director of budget and management the amount of the 115656
proceeds of such tax or taxes from billings and assessments 115657
received during that month, or shown on tax returns or reports 115658
filed during that month, to be returned to the county or transit 115659
authority levying the tax or taxes, which amounts shall be 115660
determined in the manner provided in section 5739.21 of the 115661
Revised Code. The director of budget and management shall 115662
transfer, from the general revenue fund, to the permissive tax 115663
distribution fund created by division (B)(1) of section 4301.423 115664
of the Revised Code and to the local sales tax administrative fund 115665
created by division (C) of section 5739.21 of the Revised Code, 115666
the amounts certified by the tax commissioner. The tax 115667
commissioner shall then, on or before the twentieth day of the 115668
month in which such certification is made, provide for payment of 115669
such respective amounts to the county treasurer or to the fiscal 115670
officer of the transit authority levying the tax or taxes. The 115671
amount transferred to the local sales tax administrative fund is 115672
for use by the tax commissioner in defraying costs the 115673
commissioner incurs in administering such taxes levied by a county 115674
or transit authority.115675

       (C) Within forty-five days after the end of each month, the 115676
tax commissioner shall determine and certify to the director of 115677
budget and management the amount of tax collected under this 115678
chapter from remote sellers during the preceding month, reduced by 115679
any refunds issued to remote sellers from the tax refund fund 115680
created by section 5703.052 of the Revised Code, and the director 115681
of budget and management shall transfer the amount so certified 115682
from the general revenue fund to the income tax reduction fund. 115683
Amounts transferred to the income tax reduction fund under this 115684
section shall be included in the determination of the percentage 115685
under division (B)(2) of section 131.44 of the Revised Code.115686

       Sec. 5741.032.  There is hereby created in the state treasury 115687
the remote seller administration fund for the purpose of paying 115688
the expenses incurred by the department of taxation in the 115689
administration of this chapter with respect to remote sellers. 115690
Annually, before the thirty-first day of July, the treasurer of 115691
state shall transfer to the remote seller administration fund 115692
one-half of one per cent of the taxes collected from remote 115693
sellers under this chapter during the preceding fiscal year.115694

       Sec. 5741.12.  (A) Each seller required by section 5741.17 of 115695
the Revised Code to register with the tax commissioner, and any 115696
seller authorized by the commissioner to collect the tax imposed 115697
by or pursuant to section 5741.02, 5741.021, 5741.022, or 5741.023 115698
of the Revised Code is subject to the same requirements and 115699
entitled to the same deductions and discount for prompt payments 115700
as are vendors under section 5739.12 of the Revised Code, and the 115701
same monetary allowances as are vendors under section 5739.06 of 115702
the Revised Code. The powers and duties of the commissioner with 115703
respect to returns and tax remittances under this section shall be 115704
identical with those prescribed in section 5739.12 of the Revised 115705
Code.115706

       (B) Every person storing, using, or consuming tangible 115707
personal property or receiving the benefit of a service, the 115708
storage, use, consumption, or receipt of which is subject to the 115709
tax imposed by or pursuant to section 5741.02, 5741.021, 5741.022, 115710
or 5741.023 of the Revised Code, when such tax was not paid to a 115711
seller, shall, on or before the twenty-third day of each month, 115712
file with the tax commissioner a return for the preceding month in 115713
such form as is prescribed by the commissioner, showing such 115714
information as the commissioner deems necessary, and shall pay the 115715
tax shown on the return to be due. Remittance shall be made 115716
payable to the treasurer of state. The commissioner may require 115717
consumers to file returns and pay the tax at other than monthly 115718
intervals, if the commissioner determines that such filing is 115719
necessary for the efficient administration of the tax. If the 115720
commissioner determines that a consumer's tax liability is not 115721
such as to merit monthly filing, the commissioner may authorize 115722
the consumer to file returns and pay tax at less frequent 115723
intervals.115724

       Any consumer required to file a return and pay the tax under 115725
this section whose payment for any year equals or exceeds the 115726
amount shown in division (A) of section 5741.121 of the Revised 115727
Code is subject to the accelerated tax payment requirements in 115728
divisions (B) and (C) of that section.115729

       (C) Every person storing, using, or consuming a motor 115730
vehicle, watercraft, or outboard motor, the ownership of which 115731
must be evidenced by certificate of title, shall file the return 115732
required by this section and pay the tax due at or prior to the 115733
time of filing an application for certificate of title.115734

       (D) If a seller that is a hotel intermediary does not collect 115735
and remit the full amount of tax due, the hotel in which the 115736
transient guest will lodge shall attempt to collect and remit any 115737
remaining amount of tax from the transient guest.115738

       Sec. 5741.17.  (A)(1) Except as otherwise provided in 115739
divisions (A)(2), (3), and (4) of this section, every seller of 115740
tangible personal property or services who has substantial nexus 115741
with this state shall register with the tax commissioner and 115742
supply any information concerning histhe seller's contacts with 115743
this state that may be required by the commissioner.115744

       (2) A seller who is licensed as a vendor pursuant to section 115745
5739.17 of the Revised Code shall not be required to register with 115746
the commissioner pursuant to this section if all sales to 115747
consumers in this state are made under the authority of histhe 115748
seller's vendor's license.115749

       (3) AUnless the seller has substantial nexus with this state 115750
pursuant to division (I)(2)(g) of section 5741.01 of the Revised 115751
Code, a seller is not required to register under this section if 115752
the seller has no contact with this state other than an agency 115753
relationship with a person engaged in the business of 115754
telemarketing in this state and engaged by the seller exclusively 115755
for the purpose of solicitation of customers in other states.115756

       (4) A seller is not required to register under this section 115757
if the seller has no contact with this state other than the 115758
ownership of property that is located at the facility of a printer 115759
with which the seller has contracted for printing and that 115760
consists of the final printed product, property that becomes a 115761
part of the final printed product, or copy from which the final 115762
printed product is produced.115763

       (B) A seller who does not have substantial nexus with this 115764
state may voluntarily register with the commissioner. A seller who 115765
voluntarily registers with the commissioner under this section is 115766
entitled to the same benefits and is subject to the same duties 115767
and requirements as a seller required to be registered with the 115768
commissioner under this chapter.115769

       The commissioner shall maintain an alphabetical index of all 115770
sellers registered under this chapter and records of the use tax 115771
reported and paid. Upon request, this information shall be made 115772
available to the treasurer of state.115773

       (C) A remote small seller is not required to register under 115774
this section.115775

       Sec. 5743.081.  (A) If any wholesale dealer or retail dealer 115776
fails to pay the tax levied under section 5743.02, 5743.021, 115777
5743.024, or 5743.026 of the Revised Code as required by sections 115778
5743.01 to 5743.20 of the Revised Code, and by the rules of the 115779
tax commissioner, or fails to collect the tax from the purchaser 115780
or consumer, the commissioner may make an assessment against the 115781
wholesale or retail dealer based upon any information in the 115782
commissioner's possession.115783

       The commissioner may make an assessment against any wholesale 115784
or retail dealer who fails to file a return required by section 115785
5743.03 or 5743.025 of the Revised Code.115786

       No assessment shall be made against any wholesale or retail 115787
dealer for any taxes imposed under section 5743.02, 5743.021, 115788
5743.024, or 5743.026 of the Revised Code more than three years 115789
after the last day of the calendar month that immediately follows 115790
the semiannual period prescribed in section 5743.03 of the Revised 115791
Code in which the sale was made, or more than three years after 115792
the semiannual return for such period is filed, whichever is 115793
later. This section does not bar an assessment against any 115794
wholesale or retail dealer who fails to file a return as required 115795
by section 5743.025 or 5743.03 of the Revised Code, or who files a 115796
fraudulent return.115797

       A penalty of up to thirty per cent may be added to the amount 115798
of every assessment made under this section. The commissioner may 115799
adopt rules providing for the imposition and remission of 115800
penalties added to assessments made under this section.115801

       The commissioner shall give the party assessed written notice 115802
of the assessment in the manner provided in section 5703.37 of the 115803
Revised Code. The notice shall specify separately any portion of 115804
the assessment that represents a county tax. With the notice, the 115805
commissioner shall provide instructions on how to petition for 115806
reassessment and request a hearing on the petition.115807

       (B) Unless the party assessed files with the tax commissioner 115808
within sixty days after service of the notice of assessment, 115809
either personally or by certified mail, a written petition for 115810
reassessment signed by the party assessed or that party's 115811
authorized agent having knowledge of the facts, the assessment 115812
becomes final and the amount of the assessment is due and payable 115813
from the party assessed to the treasurer of state. The petition 115814
shall indicate the objections of the party assessed, but 115815
additional objections may be raised in writing if received by the 115816
commissioner prior to the date shown on the final determination. 115817
If the petition has been properly filed, the commissioner shall 115818
proceed under section 5703.60 of the Revised Code.115819

       (C) After an assessment becomes final, if any portion of the 115820
assessment remains unpaid, including accrued interest, a certified 115821
copy of the tax commissioner's entry making the assessment final 115822
may be filed in the office of the clerk of the court of common 115823
pleas in the county in which the wholesale or retail dealer's 115824
place of business is located or the county in which the party 115825
assessed resides. If the party assessed maintains no place of 115826
business in this state and is not a resident of this state, the 115827
certified copy of the entry may be filed in the office of the 115828
clerk of the court of common pleas of Franklin county.115829

       Immediately upon the filing of the commissioner's entry, the 115830
clerk shall enter a judgment for the state against the party 115831
assessed in the amount shown on the entry. The judgment may be 115832
filed by the clerk in a loose-leaf book entitled "special 115833
judgments for state cigarette sales tax," and shall have the same 115834
effect as other judgments. Execution shall issue upon the judgment 115835
upon the request of the tax commissioner, and all laws applicable 115836
to sales on execution shall apply to sales made under the 115837
judgment, except as otherwise provided in sections 5743.01 to 115838
5743.20 of the Revised Code.115839

       The portion ofIf the assessment is not paid in its entirety115840
within sixty days after the assessment was issued, the portion of 115841
the assessment consisting of tax due shall bear interest at the 115842
rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of the Revised Code 115843
from the day the commissioner issues the assessment until it is 115844
paid or until it is certified to the attorney general for 115845
collection under section 131.02 of the Revised Code, whichever 115846
comes first. If the unpaid portion of the assessment is certified 115847
to the attorney general for collection, the entire unpaid portion 115848
of the assessment shall bear interest at the rate per annum 115849
prescribed by section 5703.47 of the Revised Code from the date of 115850
certification until the date it is paid in its entirety. Interest 115851
shall be paid in the same manner as the tax and may be collected 115852
by the issuance of an assessment under this section.115853

       (D) All money collected by the tax commissioner under this 115854
section shall be paid to the treasurer of state, and when paid 115855
shall be considered as revenue arising from the taxes imposed by 115856
sections 5743.01 to 5743.20 of the Revised Code.115857

       Sec. 5743.15.  (A) Except as otherwise provided in this 115858
division, no person shall engage in this state in the wholesale or 115859
retail business of trafficking in cigarettes or in the business of 115860
a manufacturer or importer of cigarettes without having a license 115861
to conduct each such activity issued by a county auditor under 115862
division (B) of this section or the tax commissioner under 115863
divisions (C) and (F) of this section. On dissolution of a 115864
partnership by death, the surviving partner may operate under the 115865
license of the partnership until expiration of the license, and 115866
the heirs or legal representatives of deceased persons, and 115867
receivers and trustees in bankruptcy appointed by any competent 115868
authority, may operate under the license of the person succeeded 115869
in possession by such heir, representative, receiver, or trustee 115870
in bankruptcy if the partner or successor notifies the issuer of 115871
the license of the dissolution or succession within thirty days 115872
after the dissolution or succession.115873

       (B)(1) Each applicant for a license to engage in the retail 115874
business of trafficking in cigarettes under this section, 115875
annually, on or before the fourth Monday of May, shall make and 115876
deliver to the county auditor of the county in which the applicant 115877
desires to engage in the retail business of trafficking in 115878
cigarettes, upon a blank form furnished by such auditor for that 115879
purpose, a statement showing the name of the applicant, each 115880
physical place in the county where the applicant's business is 115881
conducted, the nature of the business, and any other information 115882
the tax commissioner requires in the form of statement prescribed 115883
by the commissioner. If the applicant is a firm, partnership, or 115884
association other than a corporation, the application shall state 115885
the name and address of each of its members. If the applicant is a 115886
corporation, the application shall state the name and address of 115887
each of its officers. At the time of making the application 115888
required by this section, every person desiring to engage in the 115889
retail business of trafficking in cigarettes shall pay an 115890
application fee in the sum of one hundred twenty-five dollars for 115891
each physical place where the person proposes to carry on such 115892
business. Each place of business shall be deemed such space, under 115893
lease or license to, or under the control of, or under the 115894
supervision of the applicant, as is contained in one or more 115895
contiguous, adjacent, or adjoining buildings constituting an 115896
industrial plant or a place of business operated by, or under the 115897
control of, one person, or under one roof and connected by doors, 115898
halls, stairways, or elevators, which space may contain any number 115899
of points at which cigarettes are offered for sale, provided that 115900
each additional point at which cigarettes are offered for sale 115901
shall be listed in the application.115902

        (2) Upon receipt of the application and exhibition of the 115903
county treasurer's receipt showing the payment of the application 115904
fee, the county auditor shall issue to the applicant a license for 115905
each place of business designated in the application, authorizing 115906
the applicant to engage in such business at such place for one 115907
year commencing on the fourth Monday of May. The form of the 115908
license shall be prescribed by the commissioner. A duplicate 115909
license may be obtained from the county auditor upon payment of a 115910
five-dollar fee if the original license is lost, destroyed, or 115911
defaced. When an application is filed after the fourth Monday of 115912
May, the application fee required to be paid shall be proportioned 115913
in amount to the remainder of the license year, except that it 115914
shall not be less than twenty-five dollars in any one year.115915

       (3) The holder of a retail dealer's cigarette license may 115916
transfer the license to a place of business within the same county 115917
other than that designated on the license on condition that the 115918
licensee's ownership interest and business structure remain 115919
unchanged, and that the licensee applies to the county auditor 115920
therefor, upon forms approved by the commissioner and the payment 115921
of a fee of five dollars into the county treasury.115922

       (C)(1) Each applicant for a license to engage in the 115923
wholesale business of trafficking in cigarettes under this 115924
section, annually, on or before the fourth Monday in May, shall 115925
make and deliver to the tax commissioner, upon a blank form 115926
furnished by the commissioner for that purpose, a statement 115927
showing the name of the applicant, physical street address where 115928
the applicant's business is conducted, the nature of the business, 115929
and any other information required by the commissioner. If the 115930
applicant is a firm, partnership, or association other than a 115931
corporation, the applicant shall state the name and address of 115932
each of its members. If the applicant is a corporation, the 115933
applicant shall state the name and address of each of its 115934
officers. At the time of making the application required by this 115935
section, every person desiring to engage in the wholesale business 115936
of trafficking in cigarettes shall pay an application fee of one 115937
thousand dollars for each physical place where the person proposes 115938
to carry on such business. Each place of business shall be deemed 115939
such space, under lease or license to, or under the control of, or 115940
under the supervision of the applicant, as is contained in one or 115941
more contiguous, adjacent, or adjoining buildings constituting an 115942
industrial plant or a place of business operated by, or under the 115943
control of, one person, or under one roof and connected by doors, 115944
halls, stairways, or elevators. A duplicate license may be 115945
obtained from the commissioner upon payment of a 115946
twenty-five-dollar fee if the original license is lost, destroyed, 115947
or defaced.115948

       (2) Upon receipt of the application and payment of any 115949
application fee required by this section, the commissioner shall 115950
verify that the applicant is in good standing undernot in 115951
violation of any provision of Chapter 1346. andor Title LVII of 115952
the Revised Code. The commissioner shall also verify that the 115953
applicant has filed any returns, submitted any information, and 115954
paid any outstanding taxes or fees as required by the 115955
commissioner, to the extent that the commissioner is aware of the 115956
returns, information, taxes, or fees at the time of the 115957
application. Upon approval, the commissioner shall issue to the 115958
applicant a license for each physical place of business designated 115959
in the application authorizing the applicant to engage in business 115960
at that location for one year commencing on the fourth Monday in 115961
May. For licenses issued after the fourth Monday in May, the 115962
application fee shall be reduced proportionately by the remainder 115963
of the twelve-month period for which the license is issued, except 115964
that the application fee required to be paid under this section 115965
shall be not less than two hundred dollars in any one year.115966

       (3) The holder of a wholesale dealer cigarette license may 115967
transfer the license to a place of business other than that 115968
designated on the license on condition that the licensee's 115969
ownership or business structure remains unchanged, and that the 115970
licensee applies to the commissioner for such a transfer upon a 115971
form promulgated by the commissioner and pays a fee of twenty-five 115972
dollars, which shall be deposited into the cigarette tax 115973
enforcement fund created in division (E) of this section.115974

       (D)(1) The wholesale cigarette license application fees 115975
collected under this section shall be paid into the cigarette tax 115976
enforcement fund.115977

       (2) The retail cigarette license application fees collected 115978
under this section shall be distributed as follows:115979

       (a) Thirty per cent shall be paid upon the warrant of the 115980
county auditor into the treasury of the municipal corporation or 115981
township in which the places of business for which the tax revenue 115982
was received are located;115983

       (b) Ten per cent shall be credited to the general fund of the 115984
county;115985

       (c) Sixty per cent shall be paid into the cigarette tax 115986
enforcement fund.115987

       (3) The remainder of the revenues and fines collected under 115988
this section and the penal laws relating to cigarettes shall be 115989
distributed as follows:115990

       (a) Three-fourths shall be paid upon the warrant of the 115991
county auditor into the treasury of the municipal corporation or 115992
township in which the place of business, on account of which the 115993
revenues and fines were received, is located;115994

       (b) One-fourth shall be credited to the general fund of the 115995
county.115996

       (E) There is hereby created within the state treasury the 115997
cigarette tax enforcement fund for the purpose of providing funds 115998
to assist in paying the costs of enforcing sections 1333.11 to 115999
1333.21 and Chapter 5743. of the Revised Code.116000

       The portion of cigarette license application fees received by 116001
a county auditor during the annual application period that ends on 116002
the fourth Monday in May and that is required to be deposited in 116003
the cigarette tax enforcement fund shall be sent to the treasurer 116004
of state by the thirtieth day of June each year accompanied by the 116005
form prescribed by the tax commissioner. The portion of cigarette 116006
license application fees received by each county auditor after the 116007
fourth Monday in May and that is required to be deposited in the 116008
cigarette tax enforcement fund shall be sent to the treasurer of 116009
state by the last day of the month following the month in which 116010
such fees were collected.116011

       (F)(1) Every person who desires to engage in the business of 116012
a manufacturer or importer of cigarettes shall, annually, on or 116013
before the fourth Monday of May, make and deliver to the tax 116014
commissioner, upon a blank form furnished by the commissioner for 116015
that purpose, a statement showing the name of the applicant, the 116016
nature of the applicant's business, and any other information 116017
required by the commissioner. If the applicant is a firm, 116018
partnership, or association other than a corporation, the 116019
applicant shall state the name and address of each of its members. 116020
If the applicant is a corporation, the applicant shall state the 116021
name and address of each of its officers.116022

       (2) Upon receipt of the application required under this 116023
section, the commissioner shall verify that the applicant is in 116024
good standing undernot in violation of any provision of Chapter 116025
1346. andor Title LVII of the Revised Code. The commissioner 116026
shall also verify that the applicant has filed any returns, 116027
submitted any information, and paid any outstanding taxes or fees 116028
as required by the commissioner, to the extent that the 116029
commissioner is aware of the returns, information, taxes, or fees 116030
at the time of the application. Upon approval, the commissioner 116031
shall issue to the applicant a license authorizing the applicant 116032
to engage in the business of manufacturer or importer, whichever 116033
the case may be, for one year commencing on the fourth Monday of 116034
May.116035

       (3) The issuing of a license under division (F)(1) of this 116036
section to a manufacturer does not excuse a manufacturer from the 116037
certification process required under section 1346.05 of the 116038
Revised Code. A manufacturer who is issued a license under 116039
division (F)(1) of this section and who is not listed on the 116040
directory required under section 1346.05 of the Revised Code shall 116041
not be permitted to sell cigarettes in this state other than to a 116042
licensed cigarette wholesaler for sale outside this state. Such a 116043
manufacturer shall provide documentation to the commissioner 116044
evidencing that the cigarettes are legal for sale in another 116045
state.116046

       (G) The tax commissioner may adopt rules necessary to 116047
administer this section.116048

       Sec. 5743.56.  (A) Any person required to pay the tax imposed 116049
by section 5743.51, 5743.62, or 5743.63 of the Revised Code is 116050
personally liable for the tax. The tax commissioner may make an 116051
assessment, based upon any information in the commissioner's 116052
possession, against any person who fails to file a return or pay 116053
any tax, interest, or additional charge as required by this 116054
chapter. The commissioner shall give the person assessed written 116055
notice of such assessment in the manner provided in section 116056
5703.37 of the Revised Code. With the notice, the commissioner 116057
shall provide instructions on how to petition for reassessment and 116058
request a hearing on the petition.116059

       (B) When the information in the possession of the tax 116060
commissioner indicates that a person liable for the tax imposed by 116061
section 5743.51, 5743.62, or 5743.63 of the Revised Code has not 116062
paid the full amount of tax due, the commissioner may audit a 116063
representative sample of the person's business and may issue an 116064
assessment based on such audit.116065

       (C) A penalty of up to fifteen per cent may be added to all 116066
amounts assessed under this section. The tax commissioner may 116067
adopt rules providing for the imposition and remission of such 116068
penalties.116069

       (D) Unless the person assessed files with the tax 116070
commissioner within sixty days after service of the notice of 116071
assessment, either personally or by certified mail, a written 116072
petition for reassessment signed by the person assessed or that 116073
person's authorized agent having knowledge of the facts, the 116074
assessment becomes final and the amount of the assessment is due 116075
and payable from the person assessed to the treasurer of state. A 116076
petition shall indicate the objections of the person assessed, but 116077
additional objections may be raised in writing if received by the 116078
commissioner prior to the date shown on the final determination. 116079
If the petition has been properly filed, the commissioner shall 116080
proceed under section 5703.60 of the Revised Code.116081

       (E) After an assessment becomes final, if any portion of the 116082
assessment, including accrued interest, remains unpaid, a 116083
certified copy of the tax commissioner's entry making the 116084
assessment final may be filed in the office of the clerk of the 116085
court of common pleas in the county in which the person assessed 116086
resides or in which the person assessed conducts business. If the 116087
person assessed maintains no place of business in this state and 116088
is not a resident of this state, the certified copy of the entry 116089
may be filed in the office of the clerk of the court of common 116090
pleas of Franklin county.116091

       Immediately upon the filing of the entry, the clerk shall 116092
enter a judgment for the state against the person assessed in the 116093
amount shown on the entry. The judgment may be filed by the clerk 116094
in a loose-leaf book entitled "special judgments for state tobacco 116095
products tax," and shall have the same effect as other judgments. 116096
Execution shall issue upon the judgment upon the request of the 116097
commissioner, and all laws applicable to sales on execution shall 116098
apply to sales made under the judgment.116099

       The portion ofIf the assessment is not paid in its entirety116100
within sixty days after the day the assessment is issued, the 116101
portion of the assessment consisting of tax due shall bear 116102
interest at the rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of 116103
the Revised Code from the day the commissioner issues the 116104
assessment until the assessment is paid or until it is certified 116105
to the attorney general for collection under section 131.02 of the 116106
Revised Code, whichever comes first. If the unpaid portion of the 116107
assessment is certified to the attorney general for collection, 116108
the entire unpaid portion of the assessment shall bear interest at 116109
the rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of the Revised 116110
Code from the date of certification until the date it is paid in 116111
its entirety. Interest shall be paid in the same manner as the tax 116112
and may be collected by issuing an assessment under this section.116113

       (F) If the tax commissioner believes that collection of the 116114
tax will be jeopardized unless proceedings to collect or secure 116115
collection of the tax are instituted without delay, the 116116
commissioner may issue a jeopardy assessment against the person 116117
liable for the tax. Immediately upon the issuance of the jeopardy 116118
assessment, the commissioner shall file an entry with the clerk of 116119
the court of common pleas in the manner prescribed by division (E) 116120
of this section. Notice of the jeopardy assessment shall be served 116121
on the person assessed or the legal representative of the person 116122
assessed, as provided in section 5703.37 of the Revised Code, 116123
within five days of the filing of the entry with the clerk. The 116124
total amount assessed is immediately due and payable, unless the 116125
person assessed files a petition for reassessment in accordance 116126
with division (D) of this section and provides security in a form 116127
satisfactory to the commissioner and in an amount sufficient to 116128
satisfy the unpaid balance of the assessment. Full or partial 116129
payment of the assessment does not prejudice the commissioner's 116130
consideration of the petition for reassessment.116131

       (G) All money collected by the tax commissioner under this 116132
section shall be paid to the treasurer of state as revenue arising 116133
from the tax imposed by sections 5743.51, 5743.62, and 5743.63 of 116134
the Revised Code.116135

       Sec. 5745.12.  (A) If any taxpayer required to file a report 116136
under this chapter fails to file the report within the time 116137
prescribed, files an incorrect report, or fails to remit the full 116138
amount of the tax due for the period covered by the report, the 116139
tax commissioner may make an assessment against the taxpayer for 116140
any deficiency for the period for which the report or tax is due, 116141
based upon any information in the commissioner's possession.116142

       The tax commissioner shall not make or issue an assessment 116143
against a taxpayer more than three years after the later of the 116144
final date the report subject to assessment was required to be 116145
filed or the date the report was filed. Such time limit may be 116146
extended if both the taxpayer and the commissioner consent in 116147
writing to the extension. Any such extension shall extend the 116148
three-year time limit in section 5745.11 of the Revised Code for 116149
the same period of time. There shall be no bar or limit to an 116150
assessment against a taxpayer that fails to file a report subject 116151
to assessment as required by this chapter, or that files a 116152
fraudulent report. The commissioner shall give the taxpayer 116153
assessed written notice of the assessment as provided in section 116154
5703.37 of the Revised Code. With the notice, the commissioner 116155
shall provide instructions on how to petition for reassessment and 116156
request a hearing on the petition.116157

       (B) Unless the taxpayer assessed files with the tax 116158
commissioner within sixty days after service of the notice of 116159
assessment, either personally or by certified mail, a written 116160
petition for reassessment signed by the authorized agent of the 116161
taxpayer assessed having knowledge of the facts, the assessment 116162
becomes final, and the amount of the assessment is due and payable 116163
from the taxpayer to the treasurer of state. The petition shall 116164
indicate the taxpayer's objections, but additional objections may 116165
be raised in writing if received by the commissioner prior to the 116166
date shown on the final determination. If the petition has been 116167
properly filed, the commissioner shall proceed under section 116168
5703.60 of the Revised Code.116169

       (C) After an assessment becomes final, if any portion of the 116170
assessment remains unpaid, including accrued interest, a certified 116171
copy of the tax commissioner's entry making the assessment final 116172
may be filed in the office of the clerk of the court of common 116173
pleas in the county in which the taxpayer has an office or place 116174
of business in this state, the county in which the taxpayer's 116175
statutory agent is located, or Franklin county.116176

       Immediately upon the filing of the entry, the clerk shall 116177
enter a judgment against the taxpayer assessed in the amount shown 116178
on the entry. The judgment may be filed by the clerk in a 116179
loose-leaf book entitled "special judgments for municipal income 116180
taxes," and shall have the same effect as other judgments. 116181
Execution shall issue upon the judgment upon the request of the 116182
tax commissioner, and all laws applicable to sales on execution 116183
shall apply to sales made under the judgment.116184

       The portion of anIf the assessment is not paid in its 116185
entirety within sixty days after the day the assessment was 116186
issued, the portion of the assessment consisting of tax due shall 116187
bear interest at the rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 116188
of the Revised Code from the day the commissioner issues the 116189
assessment until the assessment is paid or until it is certified 116190
to the attorney general for collection under section 131.02 of the 116191
Revised Code, whichever comes first. If the unpaid portion of the 116192
assessment is certified to the attorney general for collection, 116193
the entire unpaid portion of the assessment shall bear interest at 116194
the rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of the Revised 116195
Code from the date of certification until the date it is paid in 116196
its entirety. Interest shall be paid in the same manner as the tax 116197
and may be collected by issuing an assessment under this section.116198

       (D) All money collected under this section shall be credited 116199
and distributed to the municipal corporation to which the money is 116200
owed based on the assessment issued under this section.116201

       (E) If the tax commissioner believes that collection of the 116202
tax imposed by this chapter will be jeopardized unless proceedings 116203
to collect or secure collection of the tax are instituted without 116204
delay, the commissioner may issue a jeopardy assessment against 116205
the taxpayer liable for the tax. Immediately upon the issuance of 116206
the jeopardy assessment, the commissioner shall file an entry with 116207
the clerk of the court of common pleas in the manner prescribed by 116208
division (C) of this section. Notice of the jeopardy assessment 116209
shall be served on the taxpayer assessed or the taxpayer's legal 116210
representative in the manner provided in section 5703.37 of the 116211
Revised Code within five days of the filing of the entry with the 116212
clerk. The total amount assessed is immediately due and payable, 116213
unless the taxpayer assessed files a petition for reassessment in 116214
accordance with division (B) of this section and provides security 116215
in a form satisfactory to the commissioner and in an amount 116216
sufficient to satisfy the unpaid balance of the assessment. Full 116217
or partial payment of the assessment does not prejudice the 116218
commissioner's consideration of the petition for reassessment.116219

       (F) Notwithstanding the fact that a petition for reassessment 116220
is pending, the taxpayer may pay all or a portion of the 116221
assessment that is the subject of the petition. The acceptance of 116222
a payment by the treasurer of state does not prejudice any claim 116223
for refund upon final determination of the petition.116224

       If upon final determination of the petition an error in the 116225
assessment is corrected by the tax commissioner, upon petition so 116226
filed or pursuant to a decision of the board of tax appeals or any 116227
court to which the determination or decision has been appealed, so 116228
that the amount due from the taxpayer under the corrected 116229
assessment is less than the portion paid, there shall be issued to 116230
the taxpayer, its assigns, or legal representative a refund in the 116231
amount of the overpayment as provided by section 5745.11 of the 116232
Revised Code, with interest on that amount as provided by section 116233
5745.11 of the Revised Code.116234

       Sec. 5747.01.  Except as otherwise expressly provided or 116235
clearly appearing from the context, any term used in this chapter 116236
that is not otherwise defined in this section has the same meaning 116237
as when used in a comparable context in the laws of the United 116238
States relating to federal income taxes or if not used in a 116239
comparable context in those laws, has the same meaning as in 116240
section 5733.40 of the Revised Code. Any reference in this chapter 116241
to the Internal Revenue Code includes other laws of the United 116242
States relating to federal income taxes.116243

       As used in this chapter:116244

       (A) "Adjusted gross income" or "Ohio adjusted gross income" 116245
means federal adjusted gross income, as defined and used in the 116246
Internal Revenue Code, adjusted as provided in this section:116247

       (1) Add interest or dividends on obligations or securities of 116248
any state or of any political subdivision or authority of any 116249
state, other than this state and its subdivisions and authorities.116250

       (2) Add interest or dividends on obligations of any 116251
authority, commission, instrumentality, territory, or possession 116252
of the United States to the extent that the interest or dividends 116253
are exempt from federal income taxes but not from state income 116254
taxes.116255

       (3) Deduct interest or dividends on obligations of the United 116256
States and its territories and possessions or of any authority, 116257
commission, or instrumentality of the United States to the extent 116258
that the interest or dividends are included in federal adjusted 116259
gross income but exempt from state income taxes under the laws of 116260
the United States.116261

       (4) Deduct disability and survivor's benefits to the extent 116262
included in federal adjusted gross income.116263

       (5) Deduct benefits under Title II of the Social Security Act 116264
and tier 1 railroad retirement benefits to the extent included in 116265
federal adjusted gross income under section 86 of the Internal 116266
Revenue Code.116267

       (6) In the case of a taxpayer who is a beneficiary of a trust 116268
that makes an accumulation distribution as defined in section 665 116269
of the Internal Revenue Code, add, for the beneficiary's taxable 116270
years beginning before 2002, the portion, if any, of such 116271
distribution that does not exceed the undistributed net income of 116272
the trust for the three taxable years preceding the taxable year 116273
in which the distribution is made to the extent that the portion 116274
was not included in the trust's taxable income for any of the 116275
trust's taxable years beginning in 2002 or thereafter. 116276
"Undistributed net income of a trust" means the taxable income of 116277
the trust increased by (a)(i) the additions to adjusted gross 116278
income required under division (A) of this section and (ii) the 116279
personal exemptions allowed to the trust pursuant to section 116280
642(b) of the Internal Revenue Code, and decreased by (b)(i) the 116281
deductions to adjusted gross income required under division (A) of 116282
this section, (ii) the amount of federal income taxes attributable 116283
to such income, and (iii) the amount of taxable income that has 116284
been included in the adjusted gross income of a beneficiary by 116285
reason of a prior accumulation distribution. Any undistributed net 116286
income included in the adjusted gross income of a beneficiary 116287
shall reduce the undistributed net income of the trust commencing 116288
with the earliest years of the accumulation period.116289

       (7) Deduct the amount of wages and salaries, if any, not 116290
otherwise allowable as a deduction but that would have been 116291
allowable as a deduction in computing federal adjusted gross 116292
income for the taxable year, had the targeted jobs credit allowed 116293
and determined under sections 38, 51, and 52 of the Internal 116294
Revenue Code not been in effect.116295

       (8) Deduct any interest or interest equivalent on public 116296
obligations and purchase obligations to the extent that the 116297
interest or interest equivalent is included in federal adjusted 116298
gross income.116299

       (9) Add any loss or deduct any gain resulting from the sale, 116300
exchange, or other disposition of public obligations to the extent 116301
that the loss has been deducted or the gain has been included in 116302
computing federal adjusted gross income.116303

       (10) Deduct or add amounts, as provided under section 5747.70 116304
of the Revised Code, related to contributions to variable college 116305
savings program accounts made or tuition units purchased pursuant 116306
to Chapter 3334. of the Revised Code.116307

       (11)(a) Deduct, to the extent not otherwise allowable as a 116308
deduction or exclusion in computing federal or Ohio adjusted gross 116309
income for the taxable year, the amount the taxpayer paid during 116310
the taxable year for medical care insurance and qualified 116311
long-term care insurance for the taxpayer, the taxpayer's spouse, 116312
and dependents. No deduction for medical care insurance under 116313
division (A)(11) of this section shall be allowed either to any 116314
taxpayer who is eligible to participate in any subsidized health 116315
plan maintained by any employer of the taxpayer or of the 116316
taxpayer's spouse, or to any taxpayer who is entitled to, or on 116317
application would be entitled to, benefits under part A of Title 116318
XVIII of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C. 116319
301, as amended. For the purposes of division (A)(11)(a) of this 116320
section, "subsidized health plan" means a health plan for which 116321
the employer pays any portion of the plan's cost. The deduction 116322
allowed under division (A)(11)(a) of this section shall be the net 116323
of any related premium refunds, related premium reimbursements, or 116324
related insurance premium dividends received during the taxable 116325
year.116326

       (b) Deduct, to the extent not otherwise deducted or excluded 116327
in computing federal or Ohio adjusted gross income during the 116328
taxable year, the amount the taxpayer paid during the taxable 116329
year, not compensated for by any insurance or otherwise, for 116330
medical care of the taxpayer, the taxpayer's spouse, and 116331
dependents, to the extent the expenses exceed seven and one-half 116332
per cent of the taxpayer's federal adjusted gross income.116333

       (c) Deduct, to the extent not otherwise deducted or excluded 116334
in computing federal or Ohio adjusted gross income, any amount 116335
included in federal adjusted gross income under section 105 or not 116336
excluded under section 106 of the Internal Revenue Code solely 116337
because it relates to an accident and health plan for a person who 116338
otherwise would be a "qualifying relative" and thus a "dependent" 116339
under section 152 of the Internal Revenue Code but for the fact 116340
that the person fails to meet the income and support limitations 116341
under section 152(d)(1)(B) and (C) of the Internal Revenue Code. 116342

       (d) For purposes of division (A)(11) of this section, 116343
"medical care" has the meaning given in section 213 of the 116344
Internal Revenue Code, subject to the special rules, limitations, 116345
and exclusions set forth therein, and "qualified long-term care" 116346
has the same meaning given in section 7702B(c) of the Internal 116347
Revenue Code. Solely for purposes of divisions (A)(11)(a) and (c) 116348
of this section, "dependent" includes a person who otherwise would 116349
be a "qualifying relative" and thus a "dependent" under section 116350
152 of the Internal Revenue Code but for the fact that the person 116351
fails to meet the income and support limitations under section 116352
152(d)(1)(B) and (C) of the Internal Revenue Code.116353

       (12)(a) Deduct any amount included in federal adjusted gross 116354
income solely because the amount represents a reimbursement or 116355
refund of expenses that in any year the taxpayer had deducted as 116356
an itemized deduction pursuant to section 63 of the Internal 116357
Revenue Code and applicable United States department of the 116358
treasury regulations. The deduction otherwise allowed under 116359
division (A)(12)(a) of this section shall be reduced to the extent 116360
the reimbursement is attributable to an amount the taxpayer 116361
deducted under this section in any taxable year.116362

       (b) Add any amount not otherwise included in Ohio adjusted 116363
gross income for any taxable year to the extent that the amount is 116364
attributable to the recovery during the taxable year of any amount 116365
deducted or excluded in computing federal or Ohio adjusted gross 116366
income in any taxable year.116367

       (13) Deduct any portion of the deduction described in section 116368
1341(a)(2) of the Internal Revenue Code, for repaying previously 116369
reported income received under a claim of right, that meets both 116370
of the following requirements:116371

       (a) It is allowable for repayment of an item that was 116372
included in the taxpayer's adjusted gross income for a prior 116373
taxable year and did not qualify for a credit under division (A) 116374
or (B) of section 5747.05 of the Revised Code for that year;116375

       (b) It does not otherwise reduce the taxpayer's adjusted 116376
gross income for the current or any other taxable year.116377

       (14) Deduct an amount equal to the deposits made to, and net 116378
investment earnings of, a medical savings account during the 116379
taxable year, in accordance with section 3924.66 of the Revised 116380
Code. The deduction allowed by division (A)(14) of this section 116381
does not apply to medical savings account deposits and earnings 116382
otherwise deducted or excluded for the current or any other 116383
taxable year from the taxpayer's federal adjusted gross income.116384

       (15)(a) Add an amount equal to the funds withdrawn from a 116385
medical savings account during the taxable year, and the net 116386
investment earnings on those funds, when the funds withdrawn were 116387
used for any purpose other than to reimburse an account holder 116388
for, or to pay, eligible medical expenses, in accordance with 116389
section 3924.66 of the Revised Code;116390

       (b) Add the amounts distributed from a medical savings 116391
account under division (A)(2) of section 3924.68 of the Revised 116392
Code during the taxable year.116393

       (16) Add any amount claimed as a credit under section 116394
5747.059 or 5747.65 of the Revised Code to the extent that such 116395
amount satisfies either of the following:116396

       (a) The amount was deducted or excluded from the computation 116397
of the taxpayer's federal adjusted gross income as required to be 116398
reported for the taxpayer's taxable year under the Internal 116399
Revenue Code;116400

       (b) The amount resulted in a reduction of the taxpayer's 116401
federal adjusted gross income as required to be reported for any 116402
of the taxpayer's taxable years under the Internal Revenue Code.116403

       (17) Deduct the amount contributed by the taxpayer to an 116404
individual development account program established by a county 116405
department of job and family services pursuant to sections 329.11 116406
to 329.14 of the Revised Code for the purpose of matching funds 116407
deposited by program participants. On request of the tax 116408
commissioner, the taxpayer shall provide any information that, in 116409
the tax commissioner's opinion, is necessary to establish the 116410
amount deducted under division (A)(17) of this section.116411

       (18) Beginning in taxable year 2001 but not for any taxable 116412
year beginning after December 31, 2005, if the taxpayer is married 116413
and files a joint return and the combined federal adjusted gross 116414
income of the taxpayer and the taxpayer's spouse for the taxable 116415
year does not exceed one hundred thousand dollars, or if the 116416
taxpayer is single and has a federal adjusted gross income for the 116417
taxable year not exceeding fifty thousand dollars, deduct amounts 116418
paid during the taxable year for qualified tuition and fees paid 116419
to an eligible institution for the taxpayer, the taxpayer's 116420
spouse, or any dependent of the taxpayer, who is a resident of 116421
this state and is enrolled in or attending a program that 116422
culminates in a degree or diploma at an eligible institution. The 116423
deduction may be claimed only to the extent that qualified tuition 116424
and fees are not otherwise deducted or excluded for any taxable 116425
year from federal or Ohio adjusted gross income. The deduction may 116426
not be claimed for educational expenses for which the taxpayer 116427
claims a credit under section 5747.27 of the Revised Code.116428

       (19) Add any reimbursement received during the taxable year 116429
of any amount the taxpayer deducted under division (A)(18) of this 116430
section in any previous taxable year to the extent the amount is 116431
not otherwise included in Ohio adjusted gross income.116432

       (20)(a)(i) Subject to divisions (A)(20)(a)(iii), (iv), and 116433
(v) of this section, add five-sixths of the amount of depreciation 116434
expense allowed by subsection (k) of section 168 of the Internal 116435
Revenue Code, including the taxpayer's proportionate or 116436
distributive share of the amount of depreciation expense allowed 116437
by that subsection to a pass-through entity in which the taxpayer 116438
has a direct or indirect ownership interest.116439

       (ii) Subject to divisions (A)(20)(a)(iii), (iv), and (v) of 116440
this section, add five-sixths of the amount of qualifying section 116441
179 depreciation expense, including the taxpayer's proportionate 116442
or distributive share of the amount of qualifying section 179 116443
depreciation expense allowed to any pass-through entity in which 116444
the taxpayer has a direct or indirect ownership interest. 116445

       (iii) Subject to division (A)(20)(a)(v) of this section, for 116446
taxable years beginning in 2012 or thereafter, if the increase in 116447
income taxes withheld by the taxpayer is equal to or greater than 116448
ten per cent of income taxes withheld by the taxpayer during the 116449
taxpayer's immediately preceding taxable year, "two-thirds" shall 116450
be substituted for "five-sixths" for the purpose of divisions 116451
(A)(20)(a)(i) and (ii) of this section.116452

       (iv) Subject to division (A)(20)(a)(v) of this section, for 116453
taxable years beginning in 2012 or thereafter, a taxpayer is not 116454
required to add an amount under division (A)(20) of this section 116455
if the increase in income taxes withheld by the taxpayer and by 116456
any pass-through entity in which the taxpayer has a direct or 116457
indirect ownership interest is equal to or greater than the sum of 116458
(I) the amount of qualifying section 179 depreciation expense and 116459
(II) the amount of depreciation expense allowed to the taxpayer by 116460
subsection (k) of section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code, and 116461
including the taxpayer's proportionate or distributive shares of 116462
such amounts allowed to any such pass-through entities.116463

       (v) If a taxpayer directly or indirectly incurs a net 116464
operating loss for the taxable year for federal income tax 116465
purposes, to the extent such loss resulted from depreciation 116466
expense allowed by subsection (k) of section 168 of the Internal 116467
Revenue Code and by qualifying section 179 depreciation expense, 116468
"the entire" shall be substituted for "five-sixths of the" for the 116469
purpose of divisions (A)(20)(a)(i) and (ii) of this section.116470

       The tax commissioner, under procedures established by the 116471
commissioner, may waive the add-backs related to a pass-through 116472
entity if the taxpayer owns, directly or indirectly, less than 116473
five per cent of the pass-through entity.116474

       (b) Nothing in division (A)(20) of this section shall be 116475
construed to adjust or modify the adjusted basis of any asset.116476

       (c) To the extent the add-back required under division 116477
(A)(20)(a) of this section is attributable to property generating 116478
nonbusiness income or loss allocated under section 5747.20 of the 116479
Revised Code, the add-back shall be sitused to the same location 116480
as the nonbusiness income or loss generated by the property for 116481
the purpose of determining the credit under division (A) of 116482
section 5747.05 of the Revised Code. Otherwise, the add-back shall 116483
be apportioned, subject to one or more of the four alternative 116484
methods of apportionment enumerated in section 5747.21 of the 116485
Revised Code.116486

       (d) For the purposes of division (A)(20)(a)(v) of this 116487
section, net operating loss carryback and carryforward shall not 116488
include the allowance of any net operating loss deduction 116489
carryback or carryforward to the taxable year to the extent such 116490
loss resulted from depreciation allowed by section 168(k) of the 116491
Internal Revenue Code and by the qualifying section 179 116492
depreciation expense amount.116493

       (e) For the purposes of divisions (A)(20) and (21) of this 116494
section:116495

        (i) "Income taxes withheld" means the total amount withheld 116496
and remitted under sections 5747.06 and 5747.07 of the Revised 116497
Code by an employer during the employer's taxable year.116498

        (ii) "Increase in income taxes withheld" means the amount by 116499
which the amount of income taxes withheld by an employer during 116500
the employer's current taxable year exceeds the amount of income 116501
taxes withheld by that employer during the employer's immediately 116502
preceding taxable year.116503

        (iii) "Qualifying section 179 depreciation expense" means the 116504
difference between (I) the amount of depreciation expense directly 116505
or indirectly allowed to a taxpayer under section 179 of the 116506
Internal Revised Code, and (II) the amount of depreciation expense 116507
directly or indirectly allowed to the taxpayer under section 179 116508
of the Internal Revenue Code as that section existed on December 116509
31, 2002.116510

       (21)(a) If the taxpayer was required to add an amount under 116511
division (A)(20)(a) of this section for a taxable year, deduct one 116512
of the following:116513

       (i) One-fifth of the amount so added for each of the five 116514
succeeding taxable years if the amount so added was five-sixths of 116515
qualifying section 179 depreciation expense or depreciation 116516
expense allowed by subsection (k) of section 168 of the Internal 116517
Revenue Code;116518

       (ii) One-half of the amount so added for each of the two 116519
succeeding taxable years if the amount so added was two-thirds of 116520
such depreciation expense;116521

       (iii) One-sixth of the amount so added for each of the six 116522
succeeding taxable years if the entire amount of such depreciation 116523
expense was so added.116524

       (b) If the amount deducted under division (A)(21)(a) of this 116525
section is attributable to an add-back allocated under division 116526
(A)(20)(c) of this section, the amount deducted shall be sitused 116527
to the same location. Otherwise, the add-back shall be apportioned 116528
using the apportionment factors for the taxable year in which the 116529
deduction is taken, subject to one or more of the four alternative 116530
methods of apportionment enumerated in section 5747.21 of the 116531
Revised Code.116532

       (c) No deduction is available under division (A)(21)(a) of 116533
this section with regard to any depreciation allowed by section 116534
168(k) of the Internal Revenue Code and by the qualifying section 116535
179 depreciation expense amount to the extent that such 116536
depreciation results in or increases a federal net operating loss 116537
carryback or carryforward. If no such deduction is available for a 116538
taxable year, the taxpayer may carry forward the amount not 116539
deducted in such taxable year to the next taxable year and add 116540
that amount to any deduction otherwise available under division 116541
(A)(21)(a) of this section for that next taxable year. The 116542
carryforward of amounts not so deducted shall continue until the 116543
entire addition required by division (A)(20)(a) of this section 116544
has been deducted.116545

        (d) No refund shall be allowed as a result of adjustments 116546
made by division (A)(21) of this section.116547

       (22) Deduct, to the extent not otherwise deducted or excluded 116548
in computing federal or Ohio adjusted gross income for the taxable 116549
year, the amount the taxpayer received during the taxable year as 116550
reimbursement for life insurance premiums under section 5919.31 of 116551
the Revised Code.116552

        (23) Deduct, to the extent not otherwise deducted or excluded 116553
in computing federal or Ohio adjusted gross income for the taxable 116554
year, the amount the taxpayer received during the taxable year as 116555
a death benefit paid by the adjutant general under section 5919.33 116556
of the Revised Code.116557

       (24) Deduct, to the extent included in federal adjusted gross 116558
income and not otherwise allowable as a deduction or exclusion in 116559
computing federal or Ohio adjusted gross income for the taxable 116560
year, military pay and allowances received by the taxpayer during 116561
the taxable year for active duty service in the United States 116562
army, air force, navy, marine corps, or coast guard or reserve 116563
components thereof or the national guard. The deduction may not be 116564
claimed for military pay and allowances received by the taxpayer 116565
while the taxpayer is stationed in this state.116566

       (25) Deduct, to the extent not otherwise allowable as a 116567
deduction or exclusion in computing federal or Ohio adjusted gross 116568
income for the taxable year and not otherwise compensated for by 116569
any other source, the amount of qualified organ donation expenses 116570
incurred by the taxpayer during the taxable year, not to exceed 116571
ten thousand dollars. A taxpayer may deduct qualified organ 116572
donation expenses only once for all taxable years beginning with 116573
taxable years beginning in 2007.116574

       For the purposes of division (A)(25) of this section:116575

        (a) "Human organ" means all or any portion of a human liver, 116576
pancreas, kidney, intestine, or lung, and any portion of human 116577
bone marrow.116578

        (b) "Qualified organ donation expenses" means travel 116579
expenses, lodging expenses, and wages and salary forgone by a 116580
taxpayer in connection with the taxpayer's donation, while living, 116581
of one or more of the taxpayer's human organs to another human 116582
being.116583

       (26) Deduct, to the extent not otherwise deducted or excluded 116584
in computing federal or Ohio adjusted gross income for the taxable 116585
year, amounts received by the taxpayer as retired military116586
personnel pay for service in the United States army, navy, air 116587
force, coast guard, or marine corpsuniformed services or reserve 116588
components thereof, or the national guard, or received by the 116589
surviving spouse or former spouse of such a taxpayer under the 116590
survivor benefit plan on account of such a taxpayer's death. If 116591
the taxpayer receives income on account of retirement paid under 116592
the federal civil service retirement system or federal employees 116593
retirement system, or under any successor retirement program 116594
enacted by the congress of the United States that is established 116595
and maintained for retired employees of the United States 116596
government, and such retirement income is based, in whole or in 116597
part, on credit for the taxpayer's militaryuniformed service, the 116598
deduction allowed under this division shall include only that 116599
portion of such retirement income that is attributable to the 116600
taxpayer's militaryuniformed service, to the extent that portion 116601
of such retirement income is otherwise included in federal 116602
adjusted gross income and is not otherwise deducted under this 116603
section. Any amount deducted under division (A)(26) of this 116604
section is not included in a taxpayer's adjusted gross income for 116605
the purposes of section 5747.055 of the Revised Code. No amount 116606
may be deducted under division (A)(26) of this section on the 116607
basis of which a credit was claimed under section 5747.055 of the 116608
Revised Code.116609

       (27) Deduct, to the extent not otherwise deducted or excluded 116610
in computing federal or Ohio adjusted gross income for the taxable 116611
year, the amount the taxpayer received during the taxable year 116612
from the military injury relief fund created in section 5101.98 of 116613
the Revised Code.116614

       (28) Deduct, to the extent not otherwise deducted or excluded 116615
in computing federal or Ohio adjusted gross income for the taxable 116616
year, the amount the taxpayer received as a veterans bonus during 116617
the taxable year from the Ohio department of veterans services as 116618
authorized by Section 2r of Article VIII, Ohio Constitution.116619

       (29) Deduct, to the extent not otherwise deducted or excluded 116620
in computing federal or Ohio adjusted gross income for the taxable 116621
year, any loss from wagering transactions that is allowed as an 116622
itemized deduction under section 165 of the Internal Revenue Code 116623
and that the taxpayer deducted in computing federal taxable 116624
income.116625

       (30) Deduct, to the extent not otherwise deducted or excluded 116626
in computing federal or Ohio adjusted gross income for the taxable 116627
year, any income derived from a transfer agreement or from the 116628
enterprise transferred under that agreement under section 4313.02 116629
of the Revised Code.116630

       (31) Deduct, to the extent not otherwise deducted or excluded 116631
in computing federal or Ohio adjusted gross income for the taxable 116632
year, Ohio college opportunity or federal Pell grant amounts 116633
received by the taxpayer or the taxpayer's spouse or dependent 116634
pursuant to section 3333.122 of the Revised Code or 20 U.S.C. 116635
1070a, et seq., and used to pay room or board furnished by the 116636
educational institution for which the grant was awarded at the 116637
institution's facilities, including meal plans administered by the 116638
institution. For the purposes of this division, receipt of a grant 116639
includes the distribution of a grant directly to an educational 116640
institution and the crediting of the grant to the enrollee's 116641
account with the institution.116642

       (B) "Business income" means income, including gain or loss, 116643
arising from transactions, activities, and sources in the regular 116644
course of a trade or business and includes income, gain, or loss 116645
from real property, tangible property, and intangible property if 116646
the acquisition, rental, management, and disposition of the 116647
property constitute integral parts of the regular course of a 116648
trade or business operation. "Business income" includes income, 116649
including gain or loss, from a partial or complete liquidation of 116650
a business, including, but not limited to, gain or loss from the 116651
sale or other disposition of goodwill.116652

       (C) "Nonbusiness income" means all income other than business 116653
income and may include, but is not limited to, compensation, rents 116654
and royalties from real or tangible personal property, capital 116655
gains, interest, dividends and distributions, patent or copyright 116656
royalties, or lottery winnings, prizes, and awards.116657

       (D) "Compensation" means any form of remuneration paid to an 116658
employee for personal services.116659

       (E) "Fiduciary" means a guardian, trustee, executor, 116660
administrator, receiver, conservator, or any other person acting 116661
in any fiduciary capacity for any individual, trust, or estate.116662

       (F) "Fiscal year" means an accounting period of twelve months 116663
ending on the last day of any month other than December.116664

       (G) "Individual" means any natural person.116665

       (H) "Internal Revenue Code" means the "Internal Revenue Code 116666
of 1986," 100 Stat. 2085, 26 U.S.C.A. 1, as amended.116667

       (I) "Resident" means any of the following, provided that 116668
division (I)(3) of this section applies only to taxable years of a 116669
trust beginning in 2002 or thereafter:116670

       (1) An individual who is domiciled in this state, subject to 116671
section 5747.24 of the Revised Code;116672

       (2) The estate of a decedent who at the time of death was 116673
domiciled in this state. The domicile tests of section 5747.24 of 116674
the Revised Code are not controlling for purposes of division 116675
(I)(2) of this section.116676

       (3) A trust that, in whole or part, resides in this state. If 116677
only part of a trust resides in this state, the trust is a 116678
resident only with respect to that part.116679

       For the purposes of division (I)(3) of this section:116680

       (a) A trust resides in this state for the trust's current 116681
taxable year to the extent, as described in division (I)(3)(d) of 116682
this section, that the trust consists directly or indirectly, in 116683
whole or in part, of assets, net of any related liabilities, that 116684
were transferred, or caused to be transferred, directly or 116685
indirectly, to the trust by any of the following:116686

        (i) A person, a court, or a governmental entity or 116687
instrumentality on account of the death of a decedent, but only if 116688
the trust is described in division (I)(3)(e)(i) or (ii) of this 116689
section;116690

       (ii) A person who was domiciled in this state for the 116691
purposes of this chapter when the person directly or indirectly 116692
transferred assets to an irrevocable trust, but only if at least 116693
one of the trust's qualifying beneficiaries is domiciled in this 116694
state for the purposes of this chapter during all or some portion 116695
of the trust's current taxable year;116696

       (iii) A person who was domiciled in this state for the 116697
purposes of this chapter when the trust document or instrument or 116698
part of the trust document or instrument became irrevocable, but 116699
only if at least one of the trust's qualifying beneficiaries is a 116700
resident domiciled in this state for the purposes of this chapter 116701
during all or some portion of the trust's current taxable year. If 116702
a trust document or instrument became irrevocable upon the death 116703
of a person who at the time of death was domiciled in this state 116704
for purposes of this chapter, that person is a person described in 116705
division (I)(3)(a)(iii) of this section.116706

        (b) A trust is irrevocable to the extent that the transferor 116707
is not considered to be the owner of the net assets of the trust 116708
under sections 671 to 678 of the Internal Revenue Code.116709

       (c) With respect to a trust other than a charitable lead 116710
trust, "qualifying beneficiary" has the same meaning as "potential 116711
current beneficiary" as defined in section 1361(e)(2) of the 116712
Internal Revenue Code, and with respect to a charitable lead trust 116713
"qualifying beneficiary" is any current, future, or contingent 116714
beneficiary, but with respect to any trust "qualifying 116715
beneficiary" excludes a person or a governmental entity or 116716
instrumentality to any of which a contribution would qualify for 116717
the charitable deduction under section 170 of the Internal Revenue 116718
Code.116719

        (d) For the purposes of division (I)(3)(a) of this section, 116720
the extent to which a trust consists directly or indirectly, in 116721
whole or in part, of assets, net of any related liabilities, that 116722
were transferred directly or indirectly, in whole or part, to the 116723
trust by any of the sources enumerated in that division shall be 116724
ascertained by multiplying the fair market value of the trust's 116725
assets, net of related liabilities, by the qualifying ratio, which 116726
shall be computed as follows:116727

        (i) The first time the trust receives assets, the numerator 116728
of the qualifying ratio is the fair market value of those assets 116729
at that time, net of any related liabilities, from sources 116730
enumerated in division (I)(3)(a) of this section. The denominator 116731
of the qualifying ratio is the fair market value of all the 116732
trust's assets at that time, net of any related liabilities.116733

        (ii) Each subsequent time the trust receives assets, a 116734
revised qualifying ratio shall be computed. The numerator of the 116735
revised qualifying ratio is the sum of (1) the fair market value 116736
of the trust's assets immediately prior to the subsequent 116737
transfer, net of any related liabilities, multiplied by the 116738
qualifying ratio last computed without regard to the subsequent 116739
transfer, and (2) the fair market value of the subsequently 116740
transferred assets at the time transferred, net of any related 116741
liabilities, from sources enumerated in division (I)(3)(a) of this 116742
section. The denominator of the revised qualifying ratio is the 116743
fair market value of all the trust's assets immediately after the 116744
subsequent transfer, net of any related liabilities.116745

       (iii) Whether a transfer to the trust is by or from any of 116746
the sources enumerated in division (I)(3)(a) of this section shall 116747
be ascertained without regard to the domicile of the trust's 116748
beneficiaries.116749

        (e) For the purposes of division (I)(3)(a)(i) of this 116750
section:116751

        (i) A trust is described in division (I)(3)(e)(i) of this 116752
section if the trust is a testamentary trust and the testator of 116753
that testamentary trust was domiciled in this state at the time of 116754
the testator's death for purposes of the taxes levied under 116755
Chapter 5731. of the Revised Code.116756

        (ii) A trust is described in division (I)(3)(e)(ii) of this 116757
section if the transfer is a qualifying transfer described in any 116758
of divisions (I)(3)(f)(i) to (vi) of this section, the trust is an 116759
irrevocable inter vivos trust, and at least one of the trust's 116760
qualifying beneficiaries is domiciled in this state for purposes 116761
of this chapter during all or some portion of the trust's current 116762
taxable year.116763

        (f) For the purposes of division (I)(3)(e)(ii) of this 116764
section, a "qualifying transfer" is a transfer of assets, net of 116765
any related liabilities, directly or indirectly to a trust, if the 116766
transfer is described in any of the following:116767

        (i) The transfer is made to a trust, created by the decedent 116768
before the decedent's death and while the decedent was domiciled 116769
in this state for the purposes of this chapter, and, prior to the 116770
death of the decedent, the trust became irrevocable while the 116771
decedent was domiciled in this state for the purposes of this 116772
chapter.116773

        (ii) The transfer is made to a trust to which the decedent, 116774
prior to the decedent's death, had directly or indirectly 116775
transferred assets, net of any related liabilities, while the 116776
decedent was domiciled in this state for the purposes of this 116777
chapter, and prior to the death of the decedent the trust became 116778
irrevocable while the decedent was domiciled in this state for the 116779
purposes of this chapter.116780

        (iii) The transfer is made on account of a contractual 116781
relationship existing directly or indirectly between the 116782
transferor and either the decedent or the estate of the decedent 116783
at any time prior to the date of the decedent's death, and the 116784
decedent was domiciled in this state at the time of death for 116785
purposes of the taxes levied under Chapter 5731. of the Revised 116786
Code.116787

        (iv) The transfer is made to a trust on account of a 116788
contractual relationship existing directly or indirectly between 116789
the transferor and another person who at the time of the 116790
decedent's death was domiciled in this state for purposes of this 116791
chapter.116792

        (v) The transfer is made to a trust on account of the will of 116793
a testator who was domiciled in this state at the time of the 116794
testator's death for purposes of the taxes levied under Chapter 116795
5731. of the Revised Code.116796

        (vi) The transfer is made to a trust created by or caused to 116797
be created by a court, and the trust was directly or indirectly 116798
created in connection with or as a result of the death of an 116799
individual who, for purposes of the taxes levied under Chapter 116800
5731. of the Revised Code, was domiciled in this state at the time 116801
of the individual's death.116802

       (g) The tax commissioner may adopt rules to ascertain the 116803
part of a trust residing in this state.116804

       (J) "Nonresident" means an individual or estate that is not a 116805
resident. An individual who is a resident for only part of a 116806
taxable year is a nonresident for the remainder of that taxable 116807
year.116808

       (K) "Pass-through entity" has the same meaning as in section 116809
5733.04 of the Revised Code.116810

       (L) "Return" means the notifications and reports required to 116811
be filed pursuant to this chapter for the purpose of reporting the 116812
tax due and includes declarations of estimated tax when so 116813
required.116814

       (M) "Taxable year" means the calendar year or the taxpayer's 116815
fiscal year ending during the calendar year, or fractional part 116816
thereof, upon which the adjusted gross income is calculated 116817
pursuant to this chapter.116818

       (N) "Taxpayer" means any person subject to the tax imposed by 116819
section 5747.02 of the Revised Code or any pass-through entity 116820
that makes the election under division (D) of section 5747.08 of 116821
the Revised Code.116822

       (O) "Dependents" means dependents as defined in the Internal 116823
Revenue Code and as claimed in the taxpayer's federal income tax 116824
return for the taxable year or which the taxpayer would have been 116825
permitted to claim had the taxpayer filed a federal income tax 116826
return.116827

       (P) "Principal county of employment" means, in the case of a 116828
nonresident, the county within the state in which a taxpayer 116829
performs services for an employer or, if those services are 116830
performed in more than one county, the county in which the major 116831
portion of the services are performed.116832

       (Q) As used in sections 5747.50 to 5747.55 of the Revised 116833
Code:116834

       (1) "Subdivision" means any county, municipal corporation, 116835
park district, or township.116836

       (2) "Essential local government purposes" includes all 116837
functions that any subdivision is required by general law to 116838
exercise, including like functions that are exercised under a 116839
charter adopted pursuant to the Ohio Constitution.116840

       (R) "Overpayment" means any amount already paid that exceeds 116841
the figure determined to be the correct amount of the tax.116842

       (S) "Taxable income" or "Ohio taxable income" applies only to 116843
estates and trusts, and means federal taxable income, as defined 116844
and used in the Internal Revenue Code, adjusted as follows:116845

       (1) Add interest or dividends, net of ordinary, necessary, 116846
and reasonable expenses not deducted in computing federal taxable 116847
income, on obligations or securities of any state or of any 116848
political subdivision or authority of any state, other than this 116849
state and its subdivisions and authorities, but only to the extent 116850
that such net amount is not otherwise includible in Ohio taxable 116851
income and is described in either division (S)(1)(a) or (b) of 116852
this section:116853

        (a) The net amount is not attributable to the S portion of an 116854
electing small business trust and has not been distributed to 116855
beneficiaries for the taxable year;116856

        (b) The net amount is attributable to the S portion of an 116857
electing small business trust for the taxable year.116858

       (2) Add interest or dividends, net of ordinary, necessary, 116859
and reasonable expenses not deducted in computing federal taxable 116860
income, on obligations of any authority, commission, 116861
instrumentality, territory, or possession of the United States to 116862
the extent that the interest or dividends are exempt from federal 116863
income taxes but not from state income taxes, but only to the 116864
extent that such net amount is not otherwise includible in Ohio 116865
taxable income and is described in either division (S)(1)(a) or 116866
(b) of this section;116867

       (3) Add the amount of personal exemption allowed to the 116868
estate pursuant to section 642(b) of the Internal Revenue Code;116869

       (4) Deduct interest or dividends, net of related expenses 116870
deducted in computing federal taxable income, on obligations of 116871
the United States and its territories and possessions or of any 116872
authority, commission, or instrumentality of the United States to 116873
the extent that the interest or dividends are exempt from state 116874
taxes under the laws of the United States, but only to the extent 116875
that such amount is included in federal taxable income and is 116876
described in either division (S)(1)(a) or (b) of this section;116877

       (5) Deduct the amount of wages and salaries, if any, not 116878
otherwise allowable as a deduction but that would have been 116879
allowable as a deduction in computing federal taxable income for 116880
the taxable year, had the targeted jobs credit allowed under 116881
sections 38, 51, and 52 of the Internal Revenue Code not been in 116882
effect, but only to the extent such amount relates either to 116883
income included in federal taxable income for the taxable year or 116884
to income of the S portion of an electing small business trust for 116885
the taxable year;116886

       (6) Deduct any interest or interest equivalent, net of 116887
related expenses deducted in computing federal taxable income, on 116888
public obligations and purchase obligations, but only to the 116889
extent that such net amount relates either to income included in 116890
federal taxable income for the taxable year or to income of the S 116891
portion of an electing small business trust for the taxable year;116892

       (7) Add any loss or deduct any gain resulting from sale, 116893
exchange, or other disposition of public obligations to the extent 116894
that such loss has been deducted or such gain has been included in 116895
computing either federal taxable income or income of the S portion 116896
of an electing small business trust for the taxable year;116897

       (8) Except in the case of the final return of an estate, add 116898
any amount deducted by the taxpayer on both its Ohio estate tax 116899
return pursuant to section 5731.14 of the Revised Code, and on its 116900
federal income tax return in determining federal taxable income;116901

       (9)(a) Deduct any amount included in federal taxable income 116902
solely because the amount represents a reimbursement or refund of 116903
expenses that in a previous year the decedent had deducted as an 116904
itemized deduction pursuant to section 63 of the Internal Revenue 116905
Code and applicable treasury regulations. The deduction otherwise 116906
allowed under division (S)(9)(a) of this section shall be reduced 116907
to the extent the reimbursement is attributable to an amount the 116908
taxpayer or decedent deducted under this section in any taxable 116909
year.116910

       (b) Add any amount not otherwise included in Ohio taxable 116911
income for any taxable year to the extent that the amount is 116912
attributable to the recovery during the taxable year of any amount 116913
deducted or excluded in computing federal or Ohio taxable income 116914
in any taxable year, but only to the extent such amount has not 116915
been distributed to beneficiaries for the taxable year.116916

       (10) Deduct any portion of the deduction described in section 116917
1341(a)(2) of the Internal Revenue Code, for repaying previously 116918
reported income received under a claim of right, that meets both 116919
of the following requirements:116920

       (a) It is allowable for repayment of an item that was 116921
included in the taxpayer's taxable income or the decedent's 116922
adjusted gross income for a prior taxable year and did not qualify 116923
for a credit under division (A) or (B) of section 5747.05 of the 116924
Revised Code for that year.116925

       (b) It does not otherwise reduce the taxpayer's taxable 116926
income or the decedent's adjusted gross income for the current or 116927
any other taxable year.116928

       (11) Add any amount claimed as a credit under section 116929
5747.059 or 5747.65 of the Revised Code to the extent that the 116930
amount satisfies either of the following:116931

       (a) The amount was deducted or excluded from the computation 116932
of the taxpayer's federal taxable income as required to be 116933
reported for the taxpayer's taxable year under the Internal 116934
Revenue Code;116935

       (b) The amount resulted in a reduction in the taxpayer's 116936
federal taxable income as required to be reported for any of the 116937
taxpayer's taxable years under the Internal Revenue Code.116938

       (12) Deduct any amount, net of related expenses deducted in 116939
computing federal taxable income, that a trust is required to 116940
report as farm income on its federal income tax return, but only 116941
if the assets of the trust include at least ten acres of land 116942
satisfying the definition of "land devoted exclusively to 116943
agricultural use" under section 5713.30 of the Revised Code, 116944
regardless of whether the land is valued for tax purposes as such 116945
land under sections 5713.30 to 5713.38 of the Revised Code. If the 116946
trust is a pass-through entity investor, section 5747.231 of the 116947
Revised Code applies in ascertaining if the trust is eligible to 116948
claim the deduction provided by division (S)(12) of this section 116949
in connection with the pass-through entity's farm income.116950

        Except for farm income attributable to the S portion of an 116951
electing small business trust, the deduction provided by division 116952
(S)(12) of this section is allowed only to the extent that the 116953
trust has not distributed such farm income. Division (S)(12) of 116954
this section applies only to taxable years of a trust beginning in 116955
2002 or thereafter.116956

       (13) Add the net amount of income described in section 641(c) 116957
of the Internal Revenue Code to the extent that amount is not 116958
included in federal taxable income.116959

       (14) Add or deduct the amount the taxpayer would be required 116960
to add or deduct under division (A)(20) or (21) of this section if 116961
the taxpayer's Ohio taxable income were computed in the same 116962
manner as an individual's Ohio adjusted gross income is computed 116963
under this section. In the case of a trust, division (S)(14) of 116964
this section applies only to any of the trust's taxable years 116965
beginning in 2002 or thereafter.116966

       (T) "School district income" and "school district income tax" 116967
have the same meanings as in section 5748.01 of the Revised Code.116968

       (U) As used in divisions (A)(8), (A)(9), (S)(6), and (S)(7) 116969
of this section, "public obligations," "purchase obligations," and 116970
"interest or interest equivalent" have the same meanings as in 116971
section 5709.76 of the Revised Code.116972

       (V) "Limited liability company" means any limited liability 116973
company formed under Chapter 1705. of the Revised Code or under 116974
the laws of any other state.116975

       (W) "Pass-through entity investor" means any person who, 116976
during any portion of a taxable year of a pass-through entity, is 116977
a partner, member, shareholder, or equity investor in that 116978
pass-through entity.116979

       (X) "Banking day" has the same meaning as in section 1304.01 116980
of the Revised Code.116981

       (Y) "Month" means a calendar month.116982

       (Z) "Quarter" means the first three months, the second three 116983
months, the third three months, or the last three months of the 116984
taxpayer's taxable year.116985

       (AA)(1) "Eligible institution" means a state university or 116986
state institution of higher education as defined in section 116987
3345.011 of the Revised Code, or a private, nonprofit college, 116988
university, or other post-secondary institution located in this 116989
state that possesses a certificate of authorization issued by the 116990
Ohio board of regents pursuant to Chapter 1713. of the Revised 116991
Code or a certificate of registration issued by the state board of 116992
career colleges and schools under Chapter 3332. of the Revised 116993
Code.116994

       (2) "Qualified tuition and fees" means tuition and fees 116995
imposed by an eligible institution as a condition of enrollment or 116996
attendance, not exceeding two thousand five hundred dollars in 116997
each of the individual's first two years of post-secondary 116998
education. If the individual is a part-time student, "qualified 116999
tuition and fees" includes tuition and fees paid for the academic 117000
equivalent of the first two years of post-secondary education 117001
during a maximum of five taxable years, not exceeding a total of 117002
five thousand dollars. "Qualified tuition and fees" does not 117003
include:117004

       (a) Expenses for any course or activity involving sports, 117005
games, or hobbies unless the course or activity is part of the 117006
individual's degree or diploma program;117007

       (b) The cost of books, room and board, student activity fees, 117008
athletic fees, insurance expenses, or other expenses unrelated to 117009
the individual's academic course of instruction;117010

       (c) Tuition, fees, or other expenses paid or reimbursed 117011
through an employer, scholarship, grant in aid, or other 117012
educational benefit program.117013

       (BB)(1) "Modified business income" means the business income 117014
included in a trust's Ohio taxable income after such taxable 117015
income is first reduced by the qualifying trust amount, if any.117016

       (2) "Qualifying trust amount" of a trust means capital gains 117017
and losses from the sale, exchange, or other disposition of equity 117018
or ownership interests in, or debt obligations of, a qualifying 117019
investee to the extent included in the trust's Ohio taxable 117020
income, but only if the following requirements are satisfied:117021

        (a) The book value of the qualifying investee's physical 117022
assets in this state and everywhere, as of the last day of the 117023
qualifying investee's fiscal or calendar year ending immediately 117024
prior to the date on which the trust recognizes the gain or loss, 117025
is available to the trust.117026

       (b) The requirements of section 5747.011 of the Revised Code 117027
are satisfied for the trust's taxable year in which the trust 117028
recognizes the gain or loss.117029

        Any gain or loss that is not a qualifying trust amount is 117030
modified business income, qualifying investment income, or 117031
modified nonbusiness income, as the case may be.117032

       (3) "Modified nonbusiness income" means a trust's Ohio 117033
taxable income other than modified business income, other than the 117034
qualifying trust amount, and other than qualifying investment 117035
income, as defined in section 5747.012 of the Revised Code, to the 117036
extent such qualifying investment income is not otherwise part of 117037
modified business income.117038

       (4) "Modified Ohio taxable income" applies only to trusts, 117039
and means the sum of the amounts described in divisions (BB)(4)(a) 117040
to (c) of this section:117041

       (a) The fraction, calculated under section 5747.013, and 117042
applying section 5747.231 of the Revised Code, multiplied by the 117043
sum of the following amounts:117044

        (i) The trust's modified business income;117045

        (ii) The trust's qualifying investment income, as defined in 117046
section 5747.012 of the Revised Code, but only to the extent the 117047
qualifying investment income does not otherwise constitute 117048
modified business income and does not otherwise constitute a 117049
qualifying trust amount.117050

       (b) The qualifying trust amount multiplied by a fraction, the 117051
numerator of which is the sum of the book value of the qualifying 117052
investee's physical assets in this state on the last day of the 117053
qualifying investee's fiscal or calendar year ending immediately 117054
prior to the day on which the trust recognizes the qualifying 117055
trust amount, and the denominator of which is the sum of the book 117056
value of the qualifying investee's total physical assets 117057
everywhere on the last day of the qualifying investee's fiscal or 117058
calendar year ending immediately prior to the day on which the 117059
trust recognizes the qualifying trust amount. If, for a taxable 117060
year, the trust recognizes a qualifying trust amount with respect 117061
to more than one qualifying investee, the amount described in 117062
division (BB)(4)(b) of this section shall equal the sum of the 117063
products so computed for each such qualifying investee.117064

       (c)(i) With respect to a trust or portion of a trust that is 117065
a resident as ascertained in accordance with division (I)(3)(d) of 117066
this section, its modified nonbusiness income.117067

        (ii) With respect to a trust or portion of a trust that is 117068
not a resident as ascertained in accordance with division 117069
(I)(3)(d) of this section, the amount of its modified nonbusiness 117070
income satisfying the descriptions in divisions (B)(2) to (5) of 117071
section 5747.20 of the Revised Code, except as otherwise provided 117072
in division (BB)(4)(c)(ii) of this section. With respect to a 117073
trust or portion of a trust that is not a resident as ascertained 117074
in accordance with division (I)(3)(d) of this section, the trust's 117075
portion of modified nonbusiness income recognized from the sale, 117076
exchange, or other disposition of a debt interest in or equity 117077
interest in a section 5747.212 entity, as defined in section 117078
5747.212 of the Revised Code, without regard to division (A) of 117079
that section, shall not be allocated to this state in accordance 117080
with section 5747.20 of the Revised Code but shall be apportioned 117081
to this state in accordance with division (B) of section 5747.212 117082
of the Revised Code without regard to division (A) of that 117083
section.117084

       If the allocation and apportionment of a trust's income under 117085
divisions (BB)(4)(a) and (c) of this section do not fairly 117086
represent the modified Ohio taxable income of the trust in this 117087
state, the alternative methods described in division (C) of 117088
section 5747.21 of the Revised Code may be applied in the manner 117089
and to the same extent provided in that section.117090

       (5)(a) Except as set forth in division (BB)(5)(b) of this 117091
section, "qualifying investee" means a person in which a trust has 117092
an equity or ownership interest, or a person or unit of government 117093
the debt obligations of either of which are owned by a trust. For 117094
the purposes of division (BB)(2)(a) of this section and for the 117095
purpose of computing the fraction described in division (BB)(4)(b) 117096
of this section, all of the following apply:117097

        (i) If the qualifying investee is a member of a qualifying 117098
controlled group on the last day of the qualifying investee's 117099
fiscal or calendar year ending immediately prior to the date on 117100
which the trust recognizes the gain or loss, then "qualifying 117101
investee" includes all persons in the qualifying controlled group 117102
on such last day.117103

        (ii) If the qualifying investee, or if the qualifying 117104
investee and any members of the qualifying controlled group of 117105
which the qualifying investee is a member on the last day of the 117106
qualifying investee's fiscal or calendar year ending immediately 117107
prior to the date on which the trust recognizes the gain or loss, 117108
separately or cumulatively own, directly or indirectly, on the 117109
last day of the qualifying investee's fiscal or calendar year 117110
ending immediately prior to the date on which the trust recognizes 117111
the qualifying trust amount, more than fifty per cent of the 117112
equity of a pass-through entity, then the qualifying investee and 117113
the other members are deemed to own the proportionate share of the 117114
pass-through entity's physical assets which the pass-through 117115
entity directly or indirectly owns on the last day of the 117116
pass-through entity's calendar or fiscal year ending within or 117117
with the last day of the qualifying investee's fiscal or calendar 117118
year ending immediately prior to the date on which the trust 117119
recognizes the qualifying trust amount.117120

        (iii) For the purposes of division (BB)(5)(a)(iii) of this 117121
section, "upper level pass-through entity" means a pass-through 117122
entity directly or indirectly owning any equity of another 117123
pass-through entity, and "lower level pass-through entity" means 117124
that other pass-through entity.117125

        An upper level pass-through entity, whether or not it is also 117126
a qualifying investee, is deemed to own, on the last day of the 117127
upper level pass-through entity's calendar or fiscal year, the 117128
proportionate share of the lower level pass-through entity's 117129
physical assets that the lower level pass-through entity directly 117130
or indirectly owns on the last day of the lower level pass-through 117131
entity's calendar or fiscal year ending within or with the last 117132
day of the upper level pass-through entity's fiscal or calendar 117133
year. If the upper level pass-through entity directly and 117134
indirectly owns less than fifty per cent of the equity of the 117135
lower level pass-through entity on each day of the upper level 117136
pass-through entity's calendar or fiscal year in which or with 117137
which ends the calendar or fiscal year of the lower level 117138
pass-through entity and if, based upon clear and convincing 117139
evidence, complete information about the location and cost of the 117140
physical assets of the lower pass-through entity is not available 117141
to the upper level pass-through entity, then solely for purposes 117142
of ascertaining if a gain or loss constitutes a qualifying trust 117143
amount, the upper level pass-through entity shall be deemed as 117144
owning no equity of the lower level pass-through entity for each 117145
day during the upper level pass-through entity's calendar or 117146
fiscal year in which or with which ends the lower level 117147
pass-through entity's calendar or fiscal year. Nothing in division 117148
(BB)(5)(a)(iii) of this section shall be construed to provide for 117149
any deduction or exclusion in computing any trust's Ohio taxable 117150
income.117151

       (b) With respect to a trust that is not a resident for the 117152
taxable year and with respect to a part of a trust that is not a 117153
resident for the taxable year, "qualifying investee" for that 117154
taxable year does not include a C corporation if both of the 117155
following apply:117156

       (i) During the taxable year the trust or part of the trust 117157
recognizes a gain or loss from the sale, exchange, or other 117158
disposition of equity or ownership interests in, or debt 117159
obligations of, the C corporation.117160

       (ii) Such gain or loss constitutes nonbusiness income.117161

        (6) "Available" means information is such that a person is 117162
able to learn of the information by the due date plus extensions, 117163
if any, for filing the return for the taxable year in which the 117164
trust recognizes the gain or loss.117165

        (CC) "Qualifying controlled group" has the same meaning as in 117166
section 5733.04 of the Revised Code.117167

        (DD) "Related member" has the same meaning as in section 117168
5733.042 of the Revised Code.117169

       (EE)(1) For the purposes of division (EE) of this section: 117170

       (a) "Qualifying person" means any person other than a 117171
qualifying corporation.117172

       (b) "Qualifying corporation" means any person classified for 117173
federal income tax purposes as an association taxable as a 117174
corporation, except either of the following:117175

       (i) A corporation that has made an election under subchapter 117176
S, chapter one, subtitle A, of the Internal Revenue Code for its 117177
taxable year ending within, or on the last day of, the investor's 117178
taxable year;117179

       (ii) A subsidiary that is wholly owned by any corporation 117180
that has made an election under subchapter S, chapter one, 117181
subtitle A of the Internal Revenue Code for its taxable year 117182
ending within, or on the last day of, the investor's taxable year.117183

       (2) For the purposes of this chapter, unless expressly stated 117184
otherwise, no qualifying person indirectly owns any asset directly 117185
or indirectly owned by any qualifying corporation.117186

       (FF) For purposes of this chapter and Chapter 5751. of the 117187
Revised Code:117188

       (1) "Trust" does not include a qualified pre-income tax 117189
trust.117190

       (2) A "qualified pre-income tax trust" is any pre-income tax 117191
trust that makes a qualifying pre-income tax trust election as 117192
described in division (FF)(3) of this section.117193

       (3) A "qualifying pre-income tax trust election" is an 117194
election by a pre-income tax trust to subject to the tax imposed 117195
by section 5751.02 of the Revised Code the pre-income tax trust 117196
and all pass-through entities of which the trust owns or controls, 117197
directly, indirectly, or constructively through related interests, 117198
five per cent or more of the ownership or equity interests. The 117199
trustee shall notify the tax commissioner in writing of the 117200
election on or before April 15, 2006. The election, if timely 117201
made, shall be effective on and after January 1, 2006, and shall 117202
apply for all tax periods and tax years until revoked by the 117203
trustee of the trust.117204

       (4) A "pre-income tax trust" is a trust that satisfies all of 117205
the following requirements:117206

       (a) The document or instrument creating the trust was 117207
executed by the grantor before January 1, 1972;117208

       (b) The trust became irrevocable upon the creation of the 117209
trust; and117210

       (c) The grantor was domiciled in this state at the time the 117211
trust was created.117212

       (GG) "Uniformed services" has the same meaning as in 10 117213
U.S.C. 101.117214

       Sec. 5747.02.  (A) For the purpose of providing revenue for 117215
the support of schools and local government functions, to provide 117216
relief to property taxpayers, to provide revenue for the general 117217
revenue fund, and to meet the expenses of administering the tax 117218
levied by this chapter, there is hereby levied on every 117219
individual, trust, and estate residing in or earning or receiving 117220
income in this state, on every individual, trust, and estate 117221
earning or receiving lottery winnings, prizes, or awards pursuant 117222
to Chapter 3770. of the Revised Code, on every individual, trust, 117223
and estate earning or receiving winnings on casino gaming, and on 117224
every individual, trust, and estate otherwise having nexus with or 117225
in this state under the Constitution of the United States, an 117226
annual tax measured in the case of individuals by Ohio adjusted 117227
gross income less an exemption for the taxpayer, the taxpayer's 117228
spouse, and each dependent as provided in section 5747.025 of the 117229
Revised Code; measured in the case of trusts by modified Ohio 117230
taxable income under division (D) of this section; and measured in 117231
the case of estates by Ohio taxable income. The tax imposed by 117232
this section on the balance thus obtained is hereby levied as 117233
follows: 117234

       (1) For taxable years beginning in 2004: 117235

OHIO ADJUSTED GROSS INCOME LESS EXEMPTIONS (INDIVIDUALS) 117236
OR 117237
MODIFIED OHIO 117238
TAXABLE INCOME (TRUSTS) 117239
OR 117240
OHIO TAXABLE INCOME (ESTATES) TAX 117241

$5,000 or less .743% 117242
More than $5,000 but not more than $10,000 $37.15 plus 1.486% of the amount in excess of $5,000 117243
More than $10,000 but not more than $15,000 $111.45 plus 2.972% of the amount in excess of $10,000 117244
More than $15,000 but not more than $20,000 $260.05 plus 3.715% of the amount in excess of $15,000 117245
More than $20,000 but not more than $40,000 $445.80 plus 4.457% of the amount in excess of $20,000 117246
More than $40,000 but not more than $80,000 $1,337.20 plus 5.201% of the amount in excess of $40,000 117247
More than $80,000 but not more than $100,000 $3,417.60 plus 5.943% of the amount in excess of $80,000 117248
More than $100,000 but not more than $200,000 $4,606.20 plus 6.9% of the amount in excess of $100,000 117249
More than $200,000 $11,506.20 plus 7.5% of the amount in excess of $200,000 117250

       (2) For taxable years beginning in 2005: 117251

OHIO ADJUSTED GROSS INCOME LESS EXEMPTIONS (INDIVIDUALS) 117252
OR 117253
MODIFIED OHIO 117254
TAXABLE INCOME (TRUSTS) 117255
OR 117256
OHIO TAXABLE INCOME (ESTATES) TAX 117257

$5,000 or less .712% 117258
More than $5,000 but not more than $10,000 $35.60 plus 1.424% of the amount in excess of $5,000 117259
More than $10,000 but not more than $15,000 $106.80 plus 2.847% of the amount in excess of $10,000 117260
More than $15,000 but not more than $20,000 $249.15 plus 3.559% of the amount in excess of $15,000 117261
More than $20,000 but not more than $40,000 $427.10 plus 4.27% of the amount in excess of $20,000 117262
More than $40,000 but not more than $80,000 $1,281.10 plus 4.983% of the amount in excess of $40,000 117263
More than $80,000 but not more than $100,000 $3,274.30 plus 5.693% of the amount in excess of $80,000 117264
More than $100,000 but not more than $200,000 $4,412.90 plus 6.61% of the amount in excess of $100,000 117265
More than $200,000 $11,022.90 plus 7.185% of the amount in excess of $200,000 117266

       (3) For taxable years beginning in 2006: 117267

OHIO ADJUSTED GROSS INCOME LESS EXEMPTIONS (INDIVIDUALS) 117268
OR 117269
MODIFIED OHIO 117270
TAXABLE INCOME (TRUSTS) 117271
OR 117272
OHIO TAXABLE INCOME (ESTATES) TAX 117273

$5,000 or less .681% 117274
More than $5,000 but not more than $10,000 $34.05 plus 1.361% of the amount in excess of $5,000 117275
More than $10,000 but not more than $15,000 $102.10 plus 2.722% of the amount in excess of $10,000 117276
More than $15,000 but not more than $20,000 $238.20 plus 3.403% of the amount in excess of $15,000 117277
More than $20,000 but not more than $40,000 $408.35 plus 4.083% of the amount in excess of $20,000 117278
More than $40,000 but not more than $80,000 $1,224.95 plus 4.764% of the amount in excess of $40,000 117279
More than $80,000 but not more than $100,000 $3,130.55 plus 5.444% of the amount in excess of $80,000 117280
More than $100,000 but not more than $200,000 $4,219.35 plus 6.32% of the amount in excess of $100,000 117281
More than $200,000 $10,539.35 plus 6.87% of the amount in excess of $200,000 117282

       (4) For taxable years beginning in 2007: 117283

OHIO ADJUSTED GROSS INCOME LESS EXEMPTIONS (INDIVIDUALS) 117284
OR 117285
MODIFIED OHIO 117286
TAXABLE INCOME (TRUSTS) 117287
OR 117288
OHIO TAXABLE INCOME (ESTATES) TAX 117289

$5,000 or less .649% 117290
More than $5,000 but not more than $10,000 $32.45 plus 1.299% of the amount in excess of $5,000 117291
More than $10,000 but not more than $15,000 $97.40 plus 2.598% of the amount in excess of $10,000 117292
More than $15,000 but not more than $20,000 $227.30 plus 3.247% of the amount in excess of $15,000 117293
More than $20,000 but not more than $40,000 $389.65 plus 3.895% of the amount in excess of $20,000 117294
More than $40,000 but not more than $80,000 $1,168.65 plus 4.546% of the amount in excess of $40,000 117295
More than $80,000 but not more than $100,000 $2,987.05 plus 5.194% of the amount in excess of $80,000 117296
More than $100,000 but not more than $200,000 $4,025.85 plus 6.031% of the amount in excess of $100,000 117297
More than $200,000 $10,056.85 plus 6.555% of the amount in excess of $200,000 117298

       (5) For taxable years beginning in 2008, 2009, or 2010: 117299

OHIO ADJUSTED GROSS INCOME LESS EXEMPTIONS (INDIVIDUALS) 117300
OR 117301
MODIFIED OHIO 117302
TAXABLE INCOME (TRUSTS) 117303
OR 117304
OHIO TAXABLE INCOME (ESTATES) TAX 117305

$5,000 or less .618% 117306
More than $5,000 but not more than $10,000 $30.90 plus 1.236% of the amount in excess of $5,000 117307
More than $10,000 but not more than $15,000 $92.70 plus 2.473% of the amount in excess of $10,000 117308
More than $15,000 but not more than $20,000 $216.35 plus 3.091% of the amount in excess of $15,000 117309
More than $20,000 but not more than $40,000 $370.90 plus 3.708% of the amount in excess of $20,000 117310
More than $40,000 but not more than $80,000 $1,112.50 plus 4.327% of the amount in excess of $40,000 117311
More than $80,000 but not more than $100,000 $2,843.30 plus 4.945% of the amount in excess of $80,000 117312
More than $100,000 but not more than $200,000 $3,832.30 plus 5.741% of the amount in excess of $100,000 117313
More than $200,000 $9,573.30 plus 6.24% of the amount in excess of $200,000 117314

       (6) For taxable years beginning in 2011 or thereafter2012: 117315

OHIO ADJUSTED GROSS INCOME LESS EXEMPTIONS (INDIVIDUALS) 117316
OR 117317
MODIFIED OHIO 117318
TAXABLE INCOME (TRUSTS) 117319
OR 117320
OHIO TAXABLE INCOME (ESTATES) TAX 117321

$5,000 or less .587% 117322
More than $5,000 but not more than $10,000 $29.35 plus 1.174% of the amount in excess of $5,000 117323
More than $10,000 but not more than $15,000 $88.05 plus 2.348% of the amount in excess of $10,000 117324
More than $15,000 but not more than $20,000 $205.45 plus 2.935% of the amount in excess of $15,000 117325
More than $20,000 but not more than $40,000 $352.20 plus 3.521% of the amount in excess of $20,000 117326
More than $40,000 but not more than $80,000 $1,056.40 plus 4.109% of the amount in excess of $40,000 117327
More than $80,000 but not more than $100,000 $2,700.00 plus 4.695% of the amount in excess of $80,000 117328
More than $100,000 but not more than $200,000 $3,639.00 plus 5.451% of the amount in excess of $100,000 117329
More than $200,000 $9,090.00 plus 5.925% of the amount in excess of $200,000 117330

       (7) For taxable years beginning in 2013 or thereafter:117331

OHIO ADJUSTED GROSS INCOME LESS EXEMPTIONS (INDIVIDUALS) 117332
OR 117333
MODIFIED OHIO 117334
TAXABLE INCOME (TRUSTS) 117335
OR 117336
OHIO TAXABLE INCOME (ESTATES) TAX 117337

$5,000 or less .546% 117338
More than $5,000 but not more than $10,000 $27.30 plus 1.092% of the amount in excess of $5,000 117339
More than $10,000 but not more than $15,000 $81.89 plus 2.184% of the amount in excess of $10,000 117340
More than $15,000 but not more than $20,000 $191.07 plus 2.730% of the amount in excess of $15,000 117341
More than $20,000 but not more than $40,000 $327.55 plus 3.275% of the amount in excess of $20,000 117342
More than $40,000 but not more than $80,000 $982.45 plus 3.821% of the amount in excess of $40,000 117343
More than $80,000 but not more than $100,000 $2,511.00 plus 4.366% of the amount in excess of $80,000 117344
More than $100,000 but not more than $200,000 $3,384.27 plus 5.069% of the amount in excess of $100,000 117345
More than $200,000 $8,453.70 plus 5.510% of the amount in excess of $200,000 117346

       In JulyAugust of each year, beginning in 2010, the tax 117347
commissioner shall adjust the income amounts prescribed in this 117348
division by multiplying the percentage increase in the gross 117349
domestic product deflator computed that year under section 117350
5747.025 of the Revised Code by each of the income amounts 117351
resulting from the adjustment under this division in the preceding 117352
year, adding the resulting product to the corresponding income 117353
amount resulting from the adjustment in the preceding year, and 117354
rounding the resulting sum to the nearest multiple of fifty 117355
dollars. The tax commissioner also shall recompute each of the tax 117356
dollar amounts to the extent necessary to reflect the adjustment 117357
of the income amounts. The rates of taxation shall not be 117358
adjusted. 117359

       The adjusted amounts apply to taxable years beginning in the 117360
calendar year in which the adjustments are made. The tax 117361
commissioner shall not make such adjustments in any year in which 117362
the amount resulting from the adjustment would be less than the 117363
amount resulting from the adjustment in the preceding year. 117364

       (B) If the director of budget and management makes a 117365
certification to the tax commissioner under division (B) of 117366
section 131.44 of the Revised Code, the amount of tax as 117367
determined under division (A) of this section shall be reduced by 117368
the percentage prescribed in that certification for taxable years 117369
beginning in the calendar year in which that certification is 117370
made. 117371

       (C) The levy of this tax on income does not prevent a 117372
municipal corporation, a joint economic development zone created 117373
under section 715.691, or a joint economic development district 117374
created under section 715.70 or 715.71 or sections 715.72 to 117375
715.81 of the Revised Code from levying a tax on income. 117376

       (D) This division applies only to taxable years of a trust 117377
beginning in 2002 or thereafter. 117378

       (1) The tax imposed by this section on a trust shall be 117379
computed by multiplying the Ohio modified taxable income of the 117380
trust by the rates prescribed by division (A) of this section. 117381

       (2) A resident trust may claim a credit against the tax 117382
computed under division (D) of this section equal to the lesser of 117383
(1) the tax paid to another state or the District of Columbia on 117384
the resident trust's modified nonbusiness income, other than the 117385
portion of the resident trust's nonbusiness income that is 117386
qualifying investment income as defined in section 5747.012 of the 117387
Revised Code, or (2) the effective tax rate, based on modified 117388
Ohio taxable income, multiplied by the resident trust's modified 117389
nonbusiness income other than the portion of the resident trust's 117390
nonbusiness income that is qualifying investment income. The 117391
credit applies before any other applicable credits. 117392

       (3) The credits enumerated in divisions (A)(1) to (13) of 117393
section 5747.98 of the Revised Code do not apply to a trust 117394
subject to division (D) of this section. Any credits enumerated in 117395
other divisions of section 5747.98 of the Revised Code apply to a 117396
trust subject to division (D) of this section. To the extent that 117397
the trust distributes income for the taxable year for which a 117398
credit is available to the trust, the credit shall be shared by 117399
the trust and its beneficiaries. The tax commissioner and the 117400
trust shall be guided by applicable regulations of the United 117401
States treasury regarding the sharing of credits. 117402

       (E) For the purposes of this section, "trust" means any trust 117403
described in Subchapter J of Chapter 1 of the Internal Revenue 117404
Code, excluding trusts that are not irrevocable as defined in 117405
division (I)(3)(b) of section 5747.01 of the Revised Code and that 117406
have no modified Ohio taxable income for the taxable year, 117407
charitable remainder trusts, qualified funeral trusts and preneed 117408
funeral contract trusts established pursuant to sections 4717.31 117409
to 4717.38 of the Revised Code that are not qualified funeral 117410
trusts, endowment and perpetual care trusts, qualified settlement 117411
trusts and funds, designated settlement trusts and funds, and 117412
trusts exempted from taxation under section 501(a) of the Internal 117413
Revenue Code. 117414

       Sec. 5747.022.  An individual subject to the tax imposed by 117415
section 5747.02 of the Revised Code may claim a credit equal to 117416
twenty dollars times the number of exemptions allowed for the 117417
taxpayer, histhe taxpayer's spouse, and each dependent under 117418
section 5747.02 of the Revised Code. The credit shall be claimed 117419
in the order required under section 5747.98 of the Revised Code. 117420
The credit shall not be considered in determining the taxes 117421
required to be withheld under section 5747.06 of the Revised Code 117422
or the estimated taxes required to be paid under section 5747.09 117423
of the Revised Code. In the case of an individual with respect to 117424
whom an exemption under section 5747.02 of the Revised Code is 117425
allowable to another taxpayer for a taxable year beginning in the 117426
calendar year in which the individual's taxable year begins, the 117427
"number of exemptions allowed" for purposes of calculating the 117428
credit allowed under this section to such individual for the 117429
individual's taxable year shall not include an exemption for the 117430
individual.117431

       Sec. 5747.025.  (A) TheExcept as otherwise provided in this 117432
division, the personal exemption for the taxpayer and the 117433
taxpayer's spouse shall be seven hundred fifty dollars each for 117434
the taxable year beginning in 1996, eight hundred fifty dollars 117435
each for the taxable year beginning in 1997, nine hundred fifty 117436
dollars each for the taxable year beginning in 1998, and one 117437
thousand fifty dollars each for the taxable year beginning in 1999 117438
and taxable years beginning after 1999. The personal exemption 117439
amount prescribed in this division for taxable years beginning 117440
after 1999 shall be adjusted each year in the manner prescribed in 117441
division (C) of this section. In the case of an individual with 117442
respect to whom an exemption under section 5747.02 of the Revised 117443
Code is allowable to another taxpayer for a taxable year beginning 117444
in the calendar year in which the individual's taxable year 117445
begins, the exemption amount applicable to such individual for 117446
such individual's taxable year shall be zero.117447

       (B) The personal exemption for each dependent shall be eight 117448
hundred fifty dollars for the taxable year beginning in 1996, and 117449
one thousand fifty dollars for the taxable year beginning in 1997 117450
and taxable years beginning after 1997. The personal exemption 117451
amount prescribed in this division for taxable years beginning 117452
after 1999 shall be adjusted each year in the manner prescribed in 117453
division (C) of this section.117454

       (C) In SeptemberAugust of each year, beginning in 2000, the 117455
tax commissioner shall determine the percentage increase in the 117456
gross domestic product deflator determined by the bureau of 117457
economic analysis of the United States department of commerce from 117458
the first day of January of the preceding calendar year to the 117459
last day of December of the preceding year, and adjust the 117460
personal exemption amount for taxable years beginning in the 117461
current calendar year by multiplying that amount by the percentage 117462
increase in the gross domestic product deflator for that period; 117463
adding the resulting product to the personal exemption amount for 117464
taxable years beginning in the preceding calendar year; and 117465
rounding the resulting sum upward to the nearest multiple of fifty 117466
dollars. The commissioner shall not make such an adjustment in any 117467
calendar year in which the amount resulting from the adjustment 117468
would be less than the amount resulting from the adjustment in the 117469
preceding calendar year.117470

       Sec. 5747.08.  An annual return with respect to the tax 117471
imposed by section 5747.02 of the Revised Code and each tax 117472
imposed under Chapter 5748. of the Revised Code shall be made by 117473
every taxpayer for any taxable year for which the taxpayer is 117474
liable for the tax imposed by that section or under that chapter, 117475
unless the total credits allowed under divisions (E), (F), and (G) 117476
of section 5747.05 of the Revised Code for the year are equal to 117477
or exceed the tax imposed by section 5747.02 of the Revised Code, 117478
in which case no return shall be required unless the taxpayer is 117479
liable for a tax imposed pursuant to Chapter 5748. of the Revised 117480
Code.117481

       (A) If an individual is deceased, any return or notice 117482
required of that individual under this chapter shall be made and 117483
filed by that decedent's executor, administrator, or other person 117484
charged with the property of that decedent.117485

       (B) If an individual is unable to make a return or notice 117486
required by this chapter, the return or notice required of that 117487
individual shall be made and filed by the individual's duly 117488
authorized agent, guardian, conservator, fiduciary, or other 117489
person charged with the care of the person or property of that 117490
individual.117491

       (C) Returns or notices required of an estate or a trust shall 117492
be made and filed by the fiduciary of the estate or trust.117493

       (D)(1)(a) Except as otherwise provided in division (D)(1)(b) 117494
of this section, any pass-through entity may file a single return 117495
on behalf of one or more of the entity's investors other than an 117496
investor that is a person subject to the tax imposed under section 117497
5733.06 of the Revised Code. The single return shall set forth the 117498
name, address, and social security number or other identifying 117499
number of each of those pass-through entity investors and shall 117500
indicate the distributive share of each of those pass-through 117501
entity investor's income taxable in this state in accordance with 117502
sections 5747.20 to 5747.231 of the Revised Code. Such 117503
pass-through entity investors for whom the pass-through entity 117504
elects to file a single return are not entitled to the exemption 117505
or credit provided for by sections 5747.02 and 5747.022 of the 117506
Revised Code; shall calculate the tax before business credits at 117507
the highest rate of tax set forth in section 5747.02 of the 117508
Revised Code for the taxable year for which the return is filed; 117509
and are entitled to only their distributive share of the business 117510
credits as defined in division (D)(2) of this section. A single 117511
check drawn by the pass-through entity shall accompany the return 117512
in full payment of the tax due, as shown on the single return, for 117513
such investors, other than investors who are persons subject to 117514
the tax imposed under section 5733.06 of the Revised Code.117515

       (b)(i) A pass-through entity shall not include in such a 117516
single return any investor that is a trust to the extent that any 117517
direct or indirect current, future, or contingent beneficiary of 117518
the trust is a person subject to the tax imposed under section 117519
5733.06 of the Revised Code.117520

       (ii) A pass-through entity shall not include in such a single 117521
return any investor that is itself a pass-through entity to the 117522
extent that any direct or indirect investor in the second 117523
pass-through entity is a person subject to the tax imposed under 117524
section 5733.06 of the Revised Code.117525

       (c) Nothing in division (D) of this section precludes the tax 117526
commissioner from requiring such investors to file the return and 117527
make the payment of taxes and related interest, penalty, and 117528
interest penalty required by this section or section 5747.02, 117529
5747.09, or 5747.15 of the Revised Code. Nothing in division (D) 117530
of this section precludes such an investor from filing the annual 117531
return under this section, utilizing the refundable credit equal 117532
to the investor's proportionate share of the tax paid by the 117533
pass-through entity on behalf of the investor under division (J) 117534
of this section, and making the payment of taxes imposed under 117535
section 5747.02 of the Revised Code. Nothing in division (D) of 117536
this section shall be construed to provide to such an investor or 117537
pass-through entity any additional deduction or credit, other than 117538
the credit provided by division (J) of this section, solely on 117539
account of the entity's filing a return in accordance with this 117540
section. Such a pass-through entity also shall make the filing and 117541
payment of estimated taxes on behalf of the pass-through entity 117542
investors other than an investor that is a person subject to the 117543
tax imposed under section 5733.06 of the Revised Code.117544

       (2) For the purposes of this section, "business credits" 117545
means the credits listed in section 5747.98 of the Revised Code 117546
excluding the following credits:117547

       (a) The retirement credit under division (B) of section 117548
5747.055 of the Revised Code;117549

       (b) The senior citizen credit under division (C) of section 117550
5747.05 of the Revised Code;117551

       (c) The lump sum distribution credit under division (D) of 117552
section 5747.05 of the Revised Code;117553

       (d) The dependent care credit under section 5747.054 of the 117554
Revised Code;117555

       (e) The lump sum retirement income credit under division (C) 117556
of section 5747.055 of the Revised Code;117557

       (f) The lump sum retirement income credit under division (D) 117558
of section 5747.055 of the Revised Code;117559

       (g) The lump sum retirement income credit under division (E) 117560
of section 5747.055 of the Revised Code;117561

       (h) The credit for displaced workers who pay for job training 117562
under section 5747.27 of the Revised Code;117563

       (i) The twenty-dollar personal exemption credit under section 117564
5747.022 of the Revised Code;117565

       (j) The joint filing credit under division (G) of section 117566
5747.05 of the Revised Code;117567

       (k) The nonresident credit under division (A) of section 117568
5747.05 of the Revised Code;117569

       (l) The credit for a resident's out-of-state income under 117570
division (B) of section 5747.05 of the Revised Code;117571

       (m) The low-income credit under section 5747.056 of the 117572
Revised Code.117573

       (3) The election provided for under division (D) of this 117574
section applies only to the taxable year for which the election is 117575
made by the pass-through entity. Unless the tax commissioner 117576
provides otherwise, this election, once made, is binding and 117577
irrevocable for the taxable year for which the election is made. 117578
Nothing in this division shall be construed to provide for any 117579
deduction or credit that would not be allowable if a nonresident 117580
pass-through entity investor were to file an annual return.117581

       (4) If a pass-through entity makes the election provided for 117582
under division (D) of this section, the pass-through entity shall 117583
be liable for any additional taxes, interest, interest penalty, or 117584
penalties imposed by this chapter if the tax commissioner finds 117585
that the single return does not reflect the correct tax due by the 117586
pass-through entity investors covered by that return. Nothing in 117587
this division shall be construed to limit or alter the liability, 117588
if any, imposed on pass-through entity investors for unpaid or 117589
underpaid taxes, interest, interest penalty, or penalties as a 117590
result of the pass-through entity's making the election provided 117591
for under division (D) of this section. For the purposes of 117592
division (D) of this section, "correct tax due" means the tax that 117593
would have been paid by the pass-through entity had the single 117594
return been filed in a manner reflecting the commissioner's 117595
findings. Nothing in division (D) of this section shall be 117596
construed to make or hold a pass-through entity liable for tax 117597
attributable to a pass-through entity investor's income from a 117598
source other than the pass-through entity electing to file the 117599
single return.117600

       (E) If a husband and wife file a joint federal income tax 117601
return for a taxable year, they shall file a joint return under 117602
this section for that taxable year, and their liabilities are 117603
joint and several, but, if the federal income tax liability of 117604
either spouse is determined on a separate federal income tax 117605
return, they shall file separate returns under this section.117606

       If either spouse is not required to file a federal income tax 117607
return and either or both are required to file a return pursuant 117608
to this chapter, they may elect to file separate or joint returns, 117609
and, pursuant to that election, their liabilities are separate or 117610
joint and several. If a husband and wife file separate returns 117611
pursuant to this chapter, each must claim the taxpayer's own 117612
exemption, but not both, as authorized under section 5747.02 of 117613
the Revised Code on the taxpayer's own return.117614

       (F) Each return or notice required to be filed under this 117615
section shall contain the signature of the taxpayer or the 117616
taxpayer's duly authorized agent and of the person who prepared 117617
the return for the taxpayer, and shall include the taxpayer's 117618
social security number. Each return shall be verified by a 117619
declaration under the penalties of perjury. The tax commissioner 117620
shall prescribe the form that the signature and declaration shall 117621
take.117622

       (G) Each return or notice required to be filed under this 117623
section shall be made and filed as required by section 5747.04 of 117624
the Revised Code, on or before the fifteenth day of April of each 117625
year, on forms that the tax commissioner shall prescribe, together 117626
with remittance made payable to the treasurer of state in the 117627
combined amount of the state and all school district income taxes 117628
shown to be due on the form, unless the combined amount shown to 117629
be due is one dollar or less, in which case that amount need not 117630
be remitted.117631

       Upon good cause shown, the commissioner may extend the period 117632
for filing any notice or return required to be filed under this 117633
section and may adopt rules relating to extensions. If the 117634
extension results in an extension of time for the payment of any 117635
state or school district income tax liability with respect to 117636
which the return is filed, the taxpayer shall pay at the time the 117637
tax liability is paid an amount of interest computed at the rate 117638
per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of the Revised Code on 117639
that liability from the time that payment is due without extension 117640
to the time of actual payment. Except as provided in section 117641
5747.132 of the Revised Code, in addition to all other interest 117642
charges and penalties, all taxes imposed under this chapter or 117643
Chapter 5748. of the Revised Code and remaining unpaid after they 117644
become due, except combined amounts due of one dollar or less, 117645
bear interest at the rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 117646
of the Revised Code until paid or until the day an assessment is 117647
issued under section 5747.13 of the Revised Code, whichever occurs 117648
first.117649

       If the commissioner considers it necessary in order to ensure 117650
the payment of the tax imposed by section 5747.02 of the Revised 117651
Code or any tax imposed under Chapter 5748. of the Revised Code, 117652
the commissioner may require returns and payments to be made 117653
otherwise than as provided in this section.117654

       To the extent that any provision in this division conflicts 117655
with any provision in section 5747.026 of the Revised Code, the 117656
provision in that section prevails.117657

       (H) If any report, claim, statement, or other document 117658
required to be filed, or any payment required to be made, within a 117659
prescribed period or on or before a prescribed date under this 117660
chapter is delivered after that period or that date by United 117661
States mail to the agency, officer, or office with which the 117662
report, claim, statement, or other document is required to be 117663
filed, or to which the payment is required to be made, the date of 117664
the postmark stamped on the cover in which the report, claim, 117665
statement, or other document, or payment is mailed shall be deemed 117666
to be the date of delivery or the date of payment.117667

       If a payment is required to be made by electronic funds 117668
transfer pursuant to section 5747.072 of the Revised Code, the 117669
payment is considered to be made when the payment is received by 117670
the treasurer of state or credited to an account designated by the 117671
treasurer of state for the receipt of tax payments.117672

       "The date of the postmark" means, in the event there is more 117673
than one date on the cover, the earliest date imprinted on the 117674
cover by the United States postal service.117675

       (I) The amounts withheld by an employer pursuant to section 117676
5747.06 of the Revised Code, a casino operator pursuant to section 117677
5747.063 of the Revised Code, or a lottery sales agent pursuant to 117678
section 5747.064 of the Revised Code shall be allowed to the 117679
recipient of the compensation casino winnings, or lottery prize 117680
award as credits against payment of the appropriate taxes imposed 117681
on the recipient by section 5747.02 and under Chapter 5748. of the 117682
Revised Code.117683

       (J) If, in accordance with division (D) of this section, a 117684
pass-through entity elects to file a single return under division 117685
(D) of this section and if any investor is required to file the 117686
annual return and make the payment of taxes required by this 117687
chapter on account of the investor's other income that is not 117688
included in a single return filed by a pass-through entity or any 117689
other investor elects to file the annual return, the investor is 117690
entitled to a refundable credit equal to the investor's 117691
proportionate share of the tax paid by the pass-through entity on 117692
behalf of the investor. The investor shall claim the credit for 117693
the investor's taxable year in which or with which ends the 117694
taxable year of the pass-through entity. Nothing in this chapter 117695
shall be construed to allow any credit provided in this chapter to 117696
be claimed more than once. For the purposespurpose of computing 117697
any interest, penalty, or interest penalty, the investor shall be 117698
deemed to have paid the refundable credit provided by this 117699
division on the day that the pass-through entity paid the 117700
estimated tax or the tax giving rise to the credit.117701

       (K) The tax commissioner shall ensure that each return 117702
required to be filed under this section includes a box that the 117703
taxpayer may check to authorize a paid tax preparer who prepared 117704
the return to communicate with the department of taxation about 117705
matters pertaining to the return. The return or instructions 117706
accompanying the return shall indicate that by checking the box 117707
the taxpayer authorizes the department of taxation to contact the 117708
preparer concerning questions that arise during the processing of 117709
the return and authorizes the preparer only to provide the 117710
department with information that is missing from the return, to 117711
contact the department for information about the processing of the 117712
return or the status of the taxpayer's refund or payments, and to 117713
respond to notices about mathematical errors, offsets, or return 117714
preparation that the taxpayer has received from the department and 117715
has shown to the preparer.117716

       (L) The tax commissioner shall permit individual taxpayers to 117717
instruct the department of taxation to cause any refund of 117718
overpaid taxes to be deposited directly into a checking account, 117719
savings account, or an individual retirement account or individual 117720
retirement annuity, or preexisting college savings plan or program 117721
account offered by the Ohio tuition trust authority under Chapter 117722
3334. of the Revised Code, as designated by the taxpayer, when the 117723
taxpayer files the annual return required by this section 117724
electronically.117725

       (M) The tax commissioner may adopt rules to administer this 117726
section.117727

       Sec. 5747.10.  If any of the facts, figures, computations, or 117728
attachments required in a taxpayer's annual return to determine 117729
the tax charged by this chapter or Chapter 5748. of the Revised 117730
Code must be altered as the result of an adjustment to the 117731
taxpayer's federal income tax return, whether initiated by the 117732
taxpayer or the internal revenue service, and such alteration 117733
affects the taxpayer's tax liability under this chapter or Chapter 117734
5748. of the Revised Code, the taxpayer shall file an amended 117735
return with the tax commissioner in such form as the commissioner 117736
requires. The amended return shall be filed not later than sixty 117737
days after the adjustment has been agreed to or finally determined 117738
for federal income tax purposes or any federal income tax 117739
deficiency or refund, or the abatement or credit resulting 117740
therefrom, has been assessed or paid, whichever occurs first.117741

       (A) In the case of an underpayment, the amended return shall 117742
be accompanied by payment of any combined additional tax due 117743
together with interest thereon. If the combined tax shown to be 117744
due is one dollar or less, such amount need not accompany the 117745
amended return. An amended return required by this section is a 117746
return subject to assessment under section 5747.13 of the Revised 117747
Code for the purpose of assessing any additional tax due under 117748
this section, together with any applicable penalty and interest. 117749
It shall not reopen those facts, figures, computations, or 117750
attachments from a previously filed return no longer subject to 117751
assessment that are not affected, either directly or indirectly, 117752
by the adjustment to the taxpayer's federal income tax return.117753

       (B) In the case of an overpayment, an application for refund 117754
may be filed under this division within the sixty-day period 117755
prescribed for filing the amended return even if it is filed 117756
beyond the period prescribed in section 5747.11 of the Revised 117757
Code if it otherwise conforms to the requirements of such section. 117758
An application filed under this division shall claim refund of 117759
overpayments resulting from alterations to only those facts, 117760
figures, computations, or attachments required in the taxpayer's 117761
annual return that are affected, either directly or indirectly, by 117762
the adjustment to the taxpayer's federal income tax return unless 117763
it is also filed within the time prescribed in section 5747.11 of 117764
the Revised Code. It shall not reopen those facts, figures, 117765
computations, or attachments that are not affected, either 117766
directly or indirectly, by the adjustment to the taxpayer's 117767
federal income tax return.117768

       Sec. 5747.11.  (A) The tax commissioner shall refund to 117769
employers, qualifying entities, or taxpayers, with respect to any117770
subject to a tax imposed under section 5733.41, 5747.02, or 117771
5747.41, or Chapter 5748. of the Revised Code:117772

       (1) Overpayments of more than one dollar;117773

       (2) Amounts in excess of one dollar paid illegally or 117774
erroneously;117775

       (3) Amounts in excess of one dollar paid on an illegal, 117776
erroneous, or excessive assessmentthe amount of any overpayment 117777
of such tax.117778

       (B) Except as otherwise provided under divisions (D) and (E) 117779
of this section, applications for refund shall be filed with the 117780
tax commissioner, on the form prescribed by the commissioner, 117781
within four years from the date of the illegal, erroneous, or 117782
excessive payment of the tax, or within any additional period 117783
allowed by division (B)(3)(b) of section 5747.05, division (B) of 117784
section 5747.10, division (A) of section 5747.13, or division (C) 117785
of section 5747.45 of the Revised Code.117786

       On filing of the refund application, the commissioner shall 117787
determine the amount of refund due and, if that amount exceeds one 117788
dollar, certify such amount to the director of budget and 117789
management and treasurer of state for payment from the tax refund 117790
fund created by section 5703.052 of the Revised Code. Payment 117791
shall be made as provided in division (C) of section 126.35 of the 117792
Revised Code.117793

       (C)(1) Interest shall be allowed and paid upon any illegal or 117794
erroneous assessment in excess of one dollar in respect of the tax 117795
imposed under section 5747.02 or Chapter 5748. of the Revised Code 117796
at the rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of the Revised 117797
Code from the date of the payment of the illegal or erroneous 117798
assessment until the date the refund of such amount is paid. If 117799
such refund results from the filing of a return or report, or the 117800
payment accompanying such return or report, by an employer or 117801
taxpayer, rather than from an assessment by the commissioner, such 117802
interest shall run from a period ninety days after the final 117803
filing date of the annual return until the date the refund is 117804
paid.117805

       (2) Interest shall be allowed and paid at the rate per annum 117806
prescribed by section 5703.47 of the Revised Code upon any 117807
overpayment in excess of one dollar in respect ofon amounts 117808
refunded with respect to the tax imposed under section 5747.02 or 117809
Chapter 5748. of the Revised Code from the date of the overpayment 117810
until the date of the refund of the overpayment, except that if 117811
any overpayment is refunded within ninety days after the final 117812
filing date of the annual return or ninety days after the return 117813
is filed, whichever is later, no interest shall be allowed on such 117814
overpayment. If the overpayment results from the carryback of a 117815
net operating loss or net capital loss to a previous taxable year, 117816
the overpayment is deemed not to have been made prior to the 117817
filing date, including any extension thereof, for the taxable year 117818
in which the net operating loss or net capital loss arises. For 117819
purposes of the payment of interest on overpayments, no amount of 117820
tax, for any taxable year, shall be treated as having been paid 117821
before the date on which the tax return for that year was due 117822
without regard to any extension of time for filing such return.117823

       (3)(2) Interest shall be allowed at the rate per annum 117824
prescribed by section 5703.47 of the Revised Code on amounts 117825
refunded with respect to the taxes imposed under sections 5733.41 117826
and 5747.41 of the Revised Code. The interest shall run from 117827
whichever of the following days is the latest until the day the 117828
refund is paid: the day the illegal, erroneous, or excessive 117829
payment was made; the ninetieth day after the final day the annual 117830
report was required to be filed under section 5747.42 of the 117831
Revised Code; or the ninetieth day after the day that report was 117832
filed.117833

       (D) "Ninety days" shall be substituted for "four years" in 117834
division (B) of this section if the taxpayer satisfies both of the 117835
following conditions:117836

       (1) The taxpayer has applied for a refund based in whole or 117837
in part upon section 5747.059 of the Revised Code;117838

       (2) The taxpayer asserts that either the imposition or 117839
collection of the tax imposed or charged by this chapter or any 117840
portion of such tax violates the Constitution of the United States 117841
or the Constitution of Ohio.117842

       (E)(1) Division (E)(2) of this section applies only if all of 117843
the following conditions are satisfied:117844

       (a) A qualifying entity pays an amount of the tax imposed by 117845
section 5733.41 or 5747.41 of the Revised Code;117846

       (b) The taxpayer is a qualifying investor as to that 117847
qualifying entity;117848

       (c) The taxpayer did not claim the credit provided for in 117849
section 5747.059 of the Revised Code as to the tax described in 117850
division (E)(1)(a) of this section;117851

       (d) The four-year period described in division (B) of this 117852
section has ended as to the taxable year for which the taxpayer 117853
otherwise would have claimed that credit.117854

       (2) A taxpayer shall file an application for refund pursuant 117855
to division (E) of this section within one year after the date the 117856
payment described in division (E)(1)(a) of this section is made. 117857
An application filed under division (E)(2) of this section shall 117858
claim refund only of overpayments resulting from the taxpayer's 117859
failure to claim the credit described in division (E)(1)(c) of 117860
this section. Nothing in division (E) of this section shall be 117861
construed to relieve a taxpayer from complying with division 117862
(A)(16) of section 5747.01 of the Revised Code.117863

       Sec. 5747.113. (A) Any taxpayer claiming a refund under 117864
section 5747.11 of the Revised Code who wishes to contribute any 117865
part of the taxpayer's refund to the natural areas and preserves 117866
fund created in section 1517.11 of the Revised Code, the nongame 117867
and endangered wildlife fund created in section 1531.26 of the 117868
Revised Code, the military injury relief fund created in section 117869
5101.98 of the Revised Code, the Ohio historical society income 117870
tax contribution fund created in section 149.308 of the Revised 117871
Code, or all of those funds may designate on the taxpayer's income 117872
tax return the amount that the taxpayer wishes to contribute to 117873
the fund or funds. A designated contribution is irrevocable upon 117874
the filing of the return and shall be made in the full amount 117875
designated if the refund found due the taxpayer upon the initial 117876
processing of the taxpayer's return, after any deductions 117877
including those required by section 5747.12 of the Revised Code, 117878
is greater than or equal to the designated contribution. If the 117879
refund due as initially determined is less than the designated 117880
contribution, the contribution shall be made in the full amount of 117881
the refund. The tax commissioner shall subtract the amount of the 117882
contribution from the amount of the refund initially found due the 117883
taxpayer and shall certify the difference to the director of 117884
budget and management and treasurer of state for payment to the 117885
taxpayer in accordance with section 5747.11 of the Revised Code. 117886
For the purpose of any subsequent determination of the taxpayer's 117887
net tax payment, the contribution shall be considered a part of 117888
the refund paid to the taxpayer.117889

       (B) The tax commissioner shall provide a space on the income 117890
tax return form in which a taxpayer may indicate that the taxpayer 117891
wishes to make a donation in accordance with this section. The tax 117892
commissioner shall also print in the instructions accompanying the 117893
income tax return form a description of the purposes for which the 117894
natural areas and preserves fund, the nongame and endangered 117895
wildlife fund, the military injury relief fund, and the Ohio 117896
historical society income tax contribution fund were created and 117897
the use of moneys from the income tax refund contribution system 117898
established in this section. No person shall designate on the 117899
person's income tax return any part of a refund claimed under 117900
section 5747.11 of the Revised Code as a contribution to any fund 117901
other than the natural areas and preserves fund, the nongame and 117902
endangered wildlife fund, the military injury relief fund, or the 117903
Ohio historical society income tax contribution fund.117904

       (C) The money collected under the income tax refund 117905
contribution system established in this section shall be deposited 117906
by the tax commissioner into the natural areas and preserves fund, 117907
the nongame and endangered wildlife fund, the military injury 117908
relief fund, and the Ohio historical society income tax 117909
contribution fund in the amounts designated on the tax returns.117910

       (D) No later than the thirtieth day of September each year, 117911
the tax commissioner shall determine the total amount contributed 117912
to each fund under this section during the preceding eight months, 117913
any adjustments to prior months, and the cost to the department of 117914
taxation of administering the income tax refund contribution 117915
system during that eight-month period. The commissioner shall make 117916
an additional determination no later than the thirty-first day of 117917
January of each year of the total amount contributed to each fund 117918
under this section during the preceding four calendar months, any 117919
adjustments to prior years made during that four-month period, and 117920
the cost to the department of taxation of administering the income 117921
tax contribution system during that period. The cost of 117922
administering the income tax contribution system shall be 117923
certified by the tax commissioner to the director of budget and 117924
management, who shall transfer an amount equal to one-fourth of 117925
such administrative costs from the natural areas and preserves 117926
fund, one-fourth of such costs from the nongame and endangered 117927
wildlife fund, one-fourth of such costs from the military injury 117928
relief fund, and one-fourth of such costs from the Ohio historical 117929
society income tax contribution fund to the litter control and 117930
natural resourceincome tax administrationcontribution fund, 117931
which is hereby created, provided that the moneys that the 117932
department receives to pay the cost of administering the income 117933
tax refund contribution system in any year shall not exceed two 117934
and one-half per cent of the total amount contributed under that 117935
system during that year.117936

       (E)(1) The director of natural resources, in January of every 117937
odd-numbered year, shall report to the general assembly on the 117938
effectiveness of the income tax refund contribution system as it 117939
pertains to the natural areas and preserves fund and the nongame 117940
and endangered wildlife fund. The report shall include the amount 117941
of money contributed to each fund in each of the previous five 117942
years, the amount of money contributed directly to each fund in 117943
addition to or independently of the income tax refund contribution 117944
system in each of the previous five years, and the purposes for 117945
which the money was expended.117946

       (2) The director of job and family services and the director 117947
of the Ohio historical society, in January of every odd-numbered 117948
year, each shall report to the general assembly on the 117949
effectiveness of the income tax refund contribution system as it 117950
pertains to the military injury relief fund and the Ohio 117951
historical society income tax contribution fund, respectively. The 117952
report shall include the amount of money contributed to the fund 117953
in each of the previous five years, the amount of money 117954
contributed directly to the fund in addition to or independently 117955
of the income tax refund contribution system in each of the 117956
previous five years, and the purposes for which the money was 117957
expended.117958

       Sec. 5747.122.  (A) The tax commissioner, in accordance with 117959
section 5101.184 of the Revised Code, shall cooperate with the 117960
director of job and family services to collect overpayments of 117961
assistance under Chapter 5107., 5111., or 5115., former Chapter 117962
5113., or section 5101.54 of the Revised Code from refunds of 117963
state income taxes for taxable year 1992 and thereafter that are 117964
payable to the recipients of such overpayments.117965

       (B) At the request of the department of job and family 117966
services in connection with the collection of an overpayment of 117967
assistance from a refund of state income taxes pursuant to this 117968
section and section 5101.184 of the Revised Code, the tax 117969
commissioner shall release to the department the home address and 117970
social security number of any recipient of assistance whose 117971
overpayment may be collected from a refund of state income taxes 117972
under those sections.117973

       (C) In the case of a joint income tax return for two people 117974
who were not married to each other at the time one of them 117975
received an overpayment of assistance, only the portion of a 117976
refund that is due to the recipient of the overpayment shall be 117977
available for collection of the overpayment under this section and 117978
section 5101.184 of the Revised Code. The tax commissioner shall 117979
determine such portion. A recipient's spouse who objects to the 117980
portion as determined by the commissioner may file a complaint 117981
with the commissioner within twenty-one days after receiving 117982
notice of the collection, and the commissioner shall afford the 117983
spouse an opportunity to be heard on the complaint. The 117984
commissioner shall waive or extend the twenty-one-day period if 117985
the recipient's spouse establishes that such action is necessary 117986
to avoid unjust, unfair, or unreasonable results. After the 117987
hearing, the commissioner shall make a final determination of the 117988
portion of the refund available for collection of the overpayment.117989

       (D) The welfare overpayment intercept fund is hereby created 117990
in the state treasury. The tax commissioner shall deposit amounts 117991
collected from income tax refunds under this section to the credit 117992
of the welfare overpayment intercept fund. The director of job and 117993
family services shall distribute money in the fund in accordance 117994
with appropriate federal or state laws and procedures regarding 117995
collection of welfare overpayments.117996

       Sec. 5747.13.  (A) If any employer collects the tax imposed 117997
by section 5747.02 or under Chapter 5748. of the Revised Code and 117998
fails to remit the tax as required by law, or fails to collect the 117999
tax, the employer is personally liable for any amount collected 118000
that the employer fails to remit, or any amount that the employer 118001
fails to collect. If any taxpayer fails to file a return or fails 118002
to pay the tax imposed by section 5747.02 or under Chapter 5748. 118003
of the Revised Code, the taxpayer is personally liable for the 118004
amount of the tax.118005

       If any employer, taxpayer, or qualifying entity required to 118006
file a return under this chapter fails to file the return within 118007
the time prescribed, files an incorrect return, fails to remit the 118008
full amount of the taxes due for the period covered by the return, 118009
or fails to remit any additional tax due as a result of a 118010
reduction in the amount of the credit allowed under division (B) 118011
of section 5747.05 of the Revised Code together with interest on 118012
the additional tax within the time prescribed by that division, 118013
the tax commissioner may make an assessment against any person 118014
liable for any deficiency for the period for which the return is 118015
or taxes are due, based upon any information in the commissioner's 118016
possession.118017

       An assessment issued against either the employer or the 118018
taxpayer pursuant to this section shall not be considered an 118019
election of remedies or a bar to an assessment against the other 118020
for failure to report or pay the same tax. No assessment shall be 118021
issued against any person if the tax actually has been paid by 118022
another.118023

       No assessment shall be made or issued against an employer, 118024
taxpayer, or qualifying entity more than four years after the 118025
final date the return subject to assessment was required to be 118026
filed or the date the return was filed, whichever is later. 118027
However, the commissioner may assess any balance due as the result 118028
of a reduction in the credit allowed under division (B) of section 118029
5747.05 of the Revised Code, including applicable penalty and 118030
interest, within four years of the date on which the taxpayer 118031
reports a change in either the portion of the taxpayer's adjusted 118032
gross income subjected to an income tax or tax measured by income 118033
in another state or the District of Columbia, or the amount of 118034
liability for an income tax or tax measured by income to another 118035
state or the District of Columbia, as required by division (B)(3) 118036
of section 5747.05 of the Revised Code. Such time limits may be 118037
extended if both the employer, taxpayer, or qualifying entity and 118038
the commissioner consent in writing to the extension or if an 118039
agreement waiving or extending the time limits has been entered 118040
into pursuant to section 122.171 of the Revised Code. Any such 118041
extension shall extend the four-year time limit in division (B) of 118042
section 5747.11 of the Revised Code for the same period of time. 118043
There shall be no bar or limit to an assessment against an 118044
employer for taxes withheld from employees and not remitted to the 118045
state, against an employer, taxpayer, or qualifying entity that 118046
fails to file a return subject to assessment as required by this 118047
chapter, or against an employer, taxpayer, or qualifying entity 118048
that files a fraudulent return.118049

       The commissioner shall give the party assessed written notice 118050
of the assessment in the manner provided in section 5703.37 of the 118051
Revised Code. With the notice, the commissioner shall provide 118052
instructions on how to petition for reassessment and request a 118053
hearing on the petition.118054

       (B) Unless the party assessed files with the tax commissioner 118055
within sixty days after service of the notice of assessment, 118056
either personally or by certified mail, a written petition for 118057
reassessment, signed by the party assessed or that party's 118058
authorized agent having knowledge of the facts, the assessment 118059
becomes final, and the amount of the assessment is due and payable 118060
from the party assessed to the commissioner with remittance made 118061
payable to the treasurer of state. The petition shall indicate the 118062
objections of the party assessed, but additional objections may be 118063
raised in writing if received by the commissioner prior to the 118064
date shown on the final determination. If the petition has been 118065
properly filed, the commissioner shall proceed under section 118066
5703.60 of the Revised Code.118067

       (C) After an assessment becomes final, if any portion of the 118068
assessment remains unpaid, including accrued interest, a certified 118069
copy of the tax commissioner's entry making the assessment final 118070
may be filed in the office of the clerk of the court of common 118071
pleas in the county in which the employer's, taxpayer's, or 118072
qualifying entity's place of business is located or the county in 118073
which the party assessed resides. If the party assessed is not a 118074
resident of this state, the certified copy of the entry may be 118075
filed in the office of the clerk of the court of common pleas of 118076
Franklin county.118077

       Immediately upon the filing of the entry, the clerk shall 118078
enter a judgment against the party assessed in the amount shown on 118079
the entry. The judgment shall be filed by the clerk in one of two 118080
loose-leaf books, one entitled "special judgments for state and 118081
school district income taxes," and the other entitled "special 118082
judgments for qualifying entity taxes." The judgment shall have 118083
the same effect as other judgments. Execution shall issue upon the 118084
judgment upon the request of the tax commissioner, and all laws 118085
applicable to sales on execution shall apply to sales made under 118086
the judgment.118087

       The portion ofIf the assessment is not paid in its entirety118088
within sixty days after the assessment was issued, the portion of 118089
the assessment consisting of tax due shall bear interest at the 118090
rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of the Revised Code 118091
from the day the tax commissioner issues the assessment until it 118092
is paid or until it is certified to the attorney general for 118093
collection under section 131.02 of the Revised Code, whichever 118094
comes first. If the unpaid portion of the assessment is certified 118095
to the attorney general for collection, the entire unpaid portion 118096
of the assessment shall bear interest at the rate per annum 118097
prescribed by section 5703.47 of the Revised Code from the date of 118098
certification until the date it is paid in its entirety. Interest 118099
shall be paid in the same manner as the tax and may be collected 118100
by the issuance of an assessment under this section.118101

       (D) All money collected under this section shall be 118102
considered as revenue arising from the taxes imposed by this 118103
chapter or Chapter 5733. or 5748. of the Revised Code, as 118104
appropriate.118105

       (E) If the party assessed files a petition for reassessment 118106
under division (B) of this section, the person, on or before the 118107
last day the petition may be filed, shall pay the assessed amount, 118108
including assessed interest and assessed penalties, if any of the 118109
following conditions exists:118110

       (1) The person files a tax return reporting Ohio adjusted 118111
gross income, less the exemptions allowed by section 5747.025 of 118112
the Revised Code, in an amount less than one cent, and the 118113
reported amount is not based on the computations required under 118114
division (A) of section 5747.01 or section 5747.025 of the Revised 118115
Code.118116

       (2) The person files a tax return that the tax commissioner 118117
determines to be incomplete, false, fraudulent, or frivolous.118118

        (3) The person fails to file a tax return, and the basis for 118119
this failure is not either of the following:118120

        (a) An assertion that the person has no nexus with this 118121
state;118122

        (b) The computations required under division (A) of section 118123
5747.01 of the Revised Code or the application of credits allowed 118124
under this chapter has the result that the person's tax liability 118125
is less than one dollar and one cent.118126

       (F) Notwithstanding the fact that a petition for reassessment 118127
is pending, the petitioner may pay all or a portion of the 118128
assessment that is the subject of the petition. The acceptance of 118129
a payment by the treasurer of state does not prejudice any claim 118130
for refund upon final determination of the petition.118131

       If upon final determination of the petition an error in the 118132
assessment is corrected by the tax commissioner, upon petition so 118133
filed or pursuant to a decision of the board of tax appeals or any 118134
court to which the determination or decision has been appealed, so 118135
that the amount due from the party assessed under the corrected 118136
assessment is less than the portion paid, there shall be issued to 118137
the petitioner or to the petitioner's assigns or legal 118138
representative a refund in the amount of the overpayment as 118139
provided by section 5747.11 of the Revised Code, with interest on 118140
that amount as provided by such section, subject to section 118141
5747.12 of the Revised Code.118142

       Sec. 5747.21. (A) This section applies solely for the 118143
purposes of computing the credit allowed under division (A) of 118144
section 5747.05 of the Revised Code, computing income taxable in 118145
this state under division (D) of section 5747.08 of the Revised 118146
Code, and computing the credit allowed under section 5747.057 of 118147
the Revised Code.118148

       (B) Except as otherwise provided under sections 5747.211 and118149
section 5747.212 of the Revised Code, all items of business income 118150
and business deduction shall be apportioned to this state by 118151
multiplying the adjusted gross income by the fraction calculated 118152
under division (B)(2) of section 5733.05 and section 5733.057 of 118153
the Revised Code as if the taxpayer's business were a corporation 118154
subject to the tax imposed by section 5733.06 of the Revised Code.118155

       (C) If the allocation and apportionment provisions of 118156
sections 5747.20 to 5747.23 of the Revised Code or of any rule 118157
adopted by the tax commissioner, do not fairly represent the 118158
extent of business activity in this state of a taxpayer or 118159
pass-through entity, the taxpayer or pass-through entity may 118160
request, which request must be in writing accompanying thea 118161
timely filed return or timely filed amended return, or the tax 118162
commissioner may require, in respect of all or any part of the 118163
business activity, if reasonable, any one or more of the 118164
following:118165

       (1) Separate accounting;118166

       (2) The exclusion of one or more factors;118167

       (3) The inclusion of one or more additional factors which 118168
will fairly represent the business activity in this state;118169

       (4) The employment of any other method to effectuate an 118170
equitable allocation and apportionment of such business in this 118171
state. An alternative method will be effective only with approval 118172
of the tax commissioner.118173

       The tax commissioner may adopt rules in the manner provided 118174
by sections 5703.14 and 5747.18 of the Revised Code providing for 118175
alternative methods of calculating business income and nonbusiness 118176
income applicable to all taxpayers and pass-through entities, to 118177
classes of taxpayers and pass-through entities, or only to 118178
taxpayers and pass-through entities within a certain industry.118179

       Sec. 5747.47. (A)(1) By the twentiethtwenty-fifth day of 118180
July of each year, the tax commissioner shall estimate and certify 118181
the following for each county to its county auditor:118182

       (a) Its guaranteed share of the ensuing year's fund balance;118183

       (b) Its share of the excess of the ensuing year's fund 118184
balance;118185

       (c) Its total entitlement.118186

       (2) In December and in June following such estimations and 118187
certifications, the commissioner shall revise such estimates and 118188
certify such revised estimates to the respective county auditors.118189

       (B) By the tenth day of each month the commissioner shall 118190
distribute the amount credited to the public library fund in the 118191
current month under section 131.51 of the Revised Code. The 118192
distributions shall be made as follows:118193

       (1) During the first six months of each year, each county 118194
shall be paid a percentage of the balance that is the same per 118195
cent that the revised estimate of the county's total entitlement 118196
certified in December under division (A)(2) of this section is of 118197
the sum of such revised estimates of the total entitlements for 118198
all counties.118199

       (2) During the last six months, each county shall be paid a 118200
percentage of the balance that is the same per cent that the 118201
revised estimate of the county's total entitlement certified in 118202
June under division (A)(2) of this section is of the sum of such 118203
revised estimates of the total entitlements for all counties.118204

       (3) During each of the first six months of each year, the 118205
payments made to each county shall be adjusted as follows:118206

       (a) If the county received an overpayment during the 118207
preceding distribution year, reduce the sum of the payments by the 118208
amount of such overpayment. The reduction shall be apportioned 118209
over the six months.118210

       (b) If the county received an underpayment during the 118211
preceding distribution year, increase the sum of the payments by 118212
the amount of such underpayment. The increase shall be apportioned 118213
over the six months.118214

       (C) By the twentieth day of December of each year, the tax 118215
commissioner shall determine and certify to the auditor of each 118216
county each of the following with respect to the current 118217
distribution year:118218

       (1) The year's fund balance;118219

       (2) Each county's guaranteed share;118220

       (3) Each county's share of the excess;118221

       (4) Each county's total entitlement;118222

       (5) Each county's net distribution;118223

       (6) The amount by which each county's net distribution 118224
exceeded or was less than its total entitlement, which amount 118225
shall constitute the county's overpayment or underpayment for 118226
purposes of division (B)(3) of this section in the ensuing 118227
distribution year.118228

       Sec. 5747.501.  (A) On or before the twenty-fifth day of July 118229
of each year, the tax commissioner shall estimate and certify to 118230
each county auditor the amount to be distributed from the local 118231
government fund to each undivided local government fund during the 118232
following calendar year under section 5747.50 of the Revised Code. 118233
The estimate shall equal the sum of the separate amounts computed 118234
under divisions (B)(1) and (2) of this section.118235

       (B)(1) The product obtained by multiplying the percentage 118236
described in division (B)(1)(a) of this section by the amount 118237
described in division (B)(1)(b) of this section.118238

       (a) Each county's proportionate share of the total amount 118239
distributed to the counties from the local government fund and the 118240
local government revenue assistance fund during calendar year 118241
2007. In fiscal year 2014 and thereafter, the amount distributed 118242
to any county undivided local government fund shall be an amount 118243
not less than seven hundred fifty thousand dollars or the amount 118244
distributed to such fund in fiscal year 2013, whichever amount is 118245
smaller. To the extent necessary to implement this minimum 118246
distribution requirement, the proportionate shares computed under 118247
this division shall be adjusted accordingly.118248

       (b) The total amount distributed to counties from the local 118249
government fund and the local government revenue assistance fund 118250
during calendar year 2007 adjusted downward if, and to the extent 118251
that, total local government fund distributions to counties for 118252
the following year are projected to be less than what was 118253
distributed to counties from the local government fund and local 118254
government revenue assistance fund during calendar year 2007.118255

       (2) The product obtained by multiplying the percentage 118256
described in division (B)(2)(a) of this section by the amount 118257
described in division (B)(2)(b) of this section.118258

       (a) Each county's proportionate share of the state's 118259
population as reflected in the most recent federal decennial 118260
census or the federal government's most recent census estimates, 118261
whichever represents the most recent year.118262

       (b) The amount by which total estimated distributions from 118263
the local government fund during the immediately succeeding 118264
calendar year, less the total estimated amount to be distributed 118265
from the fund to municipal corporations under division (C) of 118266
section 5747.50 of the Revised Code during the immediately 118267
succeeding calendar year, exceed the total amount distributed to 118268
counties from the local government fund and local government 118269
revenue assistance fund during calendar year 2007.118270

       Sec. 5747.76. (A) As used in this section, "certificate 118271
owner" has the same meaning as in section 149.311 of the Revised 118272
Code.118273

       (B) There is allowed a credit against the tax imposed under 118274
section 5747.02 of the Revised Code for a taxpayer that is the 118275
certificate owner of a rehabilitation tax credit certificate 118276
issued under section 149.311 of the Revised Code. The credit shall 118277
equal twenty-five per cent of the dollar amount indicated on the 118278
certificate, but the amount of credit allowed for any taxpayer 118279
shall not exceed fiveten million dollars. The credit shall be 118280
claimed for the taxable year specified in the certificate and in 118281
the order required under section 5747.98 of the Revised Code. 118282

       (C) Nothing in this section limits or disallows pass-through 118283
treatment of the credit if the certificate owner is a pass-through 118284
entity. If the certificate owner is a pass-through entity, the 118285
amount of the credit allowed for the pass-through entity shall not 118286
exceed five million dollars. If the certificate owner is a 118287
pass-through entity, the credit may be allocated among the 118288
entity's equity owners in proportion to their ownership interests 118289
or in such proportions or amounts as the equity owners mutually 118290
agree.118291

       (D) If the credit allowed for any taxable year exceeds the 118292
tax otherwise due under section 5747.02 of the Revised Code, after 118293
allowing for any other credits preceding the credit in the order 118294
prescribed by section 5747.98 of the Revised Code, the excess 118295
shall be refunded to the taxpayer but, if any amount of the credit 118296
is refunded, the sum of the amount refunded and the amount applied 118297
to reduce the tax otherwise due for that year shall not exceed 118298
three million dollars or, if the certificate owner is a 118299
pass-through entity, shall not exceed the taxpayer's distributive 118300
or proportionate share, as allocated under division (C) of this 118301
section, of three million dollars. The taxpayer may carry forward 118302
any balance of the credit in excess of the amount claimed for that 118303
year for not more than five ensuing taxable years, and shall 118304
deduct any amount claimed for any such year from the amount 118305
claimed in an ensuing year.118306

       (E) A taxpayer claiming a credit under this section shall 118307
retain the rehabilitation tax credit certificate for four years 118308
following the end of the taxable year to which the credit was 118309
applied, and shall make the certificate available for inspection 118310
by the tax commissioner upon the request of the tax commissioner 118311
during that period.118312

       Sec. 5747.98.  (A) To provide a uniform procedure for 118313
calculating the amount of tax due under section 5747.02 of the 118314
Revised Code, a taxpayer shall claim any credits to which the 118315
taxpayer is entitled in the following order:118316

       (1) The retirement income credit under division (B) of 118317
section 5747.055 of the Revised Code;118318

       (2) The senior citizen credit under division (C) of section 118319
5747.05 of the Revised Code;118320

       (3) The lump sum distribution credit under division (D) of 118321
section 5747.05 of the Revised Code;118322

       (4) The dependent care credit under section 5747.054 of the 118323
Revised Code;118324

       (5) The lump sum retirement income credit under division (C) 118325
of section 5747.055 of the Revised Code;118326

       (6) The lump sum retirement income credit under division (D) 118327
of section 5747.055 of the Revised Code;118328

       (7) The lump sum retirement income credit under division (E) 118329
of section 5747.055 of the Revised Code;118330

       (8) The low-income credit under section 5747.056 of the 118331
Revised Code;118332

       (9) The credit for displaced workers who pay for job training 118333
under section 5747.27 of the Revised Code;118334

       (10) The campaign contribution credit under section 5747.29 118335
of the Revised Code;118336

       (11) The twenty-dollar personal exemption credit under 118337
section 5747.022 of the Revised Code;118338

       (12) The joint filing credit under division (G) of section 118339
5747.05 of the Revised Code;118340

       (13) The nonresident credit under division (A) of section 118341
5747.05 of the Revised Code;118342

       (14) The credit for a resident's out-of-state income under 118343
division (B) of section 5747.05 of the Revised Code;118344

       (15) The credit for employers that enter into agreements with 118345
child day-care centers under section 5747.34 of the Revised Code;118346

       (16) The credit for employers that reimburse employee child 118347
care expenses under section 5747.36 of the Revised Code;118348

       (17) The credit for adoption of a minor child under section 118349
5747.37 of the Revised Code;118350

       (18) The credit for purchases of lights and reflectors under 118351
section 5747.38 of the Revised Code;118352

       (19) The nonrefundable job retention credit under division 118353
(B) of section 5747.058 of the Revised Code;118354

       (20) The credit for selling alternative fuel under section 118355
5747.77 of the Revised Code;118356

       (21) The second credit for purchases of new manufacturing 118357
machinery and equipment and the credit for using Ohio coal under 118358
section 5747.31 of the Revised Code;118359

       (22) The job training credit under section 5747.39 of the 118360
Revised Code;118361

       (23) The enterprise zone credit under section 5709.66 of the 118362
Revised Code;118363

       (24) The credit for the eligible costs associated with a 118364
voluntary action under section 5747.32 of the Revised Code;118365

       (25) The credit for employers that establish on-site child 118366
day-care centers under section 5747.35 of the Revised Code;118367

       (26) The ethanol plant investment credit under section 118368
5747.75 of the Revised Code;118369

       (27) The credit for purchases of qualifying grape production 118370
property under section 5747.28 of the Revised Code;118371

       (28) The small business investment credit under section 118372
5747.81 of the Revised Code;118373

       (29) The credit for research and development and technology 118374
transfer investors under section 5747.33 of the Revised Code;118375

       (30) The enterprise zone credits under section 5709.65 of the 118376
Revised Code;118377

       (31)(30) The research and development credit under section 118378
5747.331 of the Revised Code;118379

       (32)(31) The credit for rehabilitating a historic building 118380
under section 5747.76 of the Revised Code;118381

       (33)(32) The refundable credit for rehabilitating a historic 118382
building under section 5747.76 of the Revised Code;118383

       (34)(33) The refundable jobs creation credit or job retention 118384
credit under division (A) of section 5747.058 of the Revised Code;118385

       (35)(34) The refundable credit for taxes paid by a qualifying 118386
entity granted under section 5747.059 of the Revised Code;118387

       (36)(35) The refundable credits for taxes paid by a 118388
qualifying pass-through entity granted under division (J) of 118389
section 5747.08 of the Revised Code;118390

       (37)(36) The refundable credit under section 5747.80 of the 118391
Revised Code for losses on loans made to the Ohio venture capital 118392
program under sections 150.01 to 150.10 of the Revised Code;118393

       (38)(37) The refundable motion picture production credit 118394
under section 5747.66 of the Revised Code.118395

       (39)(38) The refundable credit for financial institution 118396
taxes paid by a pass-through entity granted under section 5747.65 118397
of the Revised Code.118398

       (B) For any credit, except the refundable credits enumerated 118399
in this section and the credit granted under division (I) of 118400
section 5747.08 of the Revised Code, the amount of the credit for 118401
a taxable year shall not exceed the tax due after allowing for any 118402
other credit that precedes it in the order required under this 118403
section. Any excess amount of a particular credit may be carried 118404
forward if authorized under the section creating that credit. 118405
Nothing in this chapter shall be construed to allow a taxpayer to 118406
claim, directly or indirectly, a credit more than once for a 118407
taxable year.118408

       Sec. 5749.02.  (A) For the purpose of providing revenue to 118409
administer the state's coal mining and reclamation regulatory 118410
program, to meet the environmental and resource management needs 118411
of this state, and to reclaim land affected by mining, an excise 118412
tax is hereby levied on the privilege of engaging in the severance 118413
of natural resources from the soil or water of this state. The tax 118414
shall be imposed upon the severer and shall beat the rates 118415
prescribed by divisions (A)(1) to (9) of this section:118416

       (1) Ten cents per ton of coal;118417

       (2) Four cents per ton of salt;118418

       (3) Two cents per ton of limestone or dolomite;118419

       (4) Two cents per ton of sand and gravel;118420

       (5) Ten cents per barrel of oil;118421

       (6) Two and one-half cents per thousand cubic feet of natural 118422
gas;118423

       (7) One cent per ton of clay, sandstone or conglomerate, 118424
shale, gypsum, or quartzite;118425

       (8) Except as otherwise provided in this division or in rules 118426
adopted by the reclamation forfeiture fund advisory board under 118427
section 1513.182 of the Revised Code, an additional fourteen cents 118428
per ton of coal produced from an area under a coal mining and 118429
reclamation permit issued under Chapter 1513. of the Revised Code 118430
for which the performance security is provided under division 118431
(C)(2) of section 1513.08 of the Revised Code. Beginning July 1, 118432
2007, if at the end of a fiscal biennium the balance of the 118433
reclamation forfeiture fund created in section 1513.18 of the 118434
Revised Code is equal to or greater than ten million dollars, the 118435
rate levied shall be twelve cents per ton. Beginning July 1, 2007, 118436
if at the end of a fiscal biennium the balance of the fund is at 118437
least five million dollars, but less than ten million dollars, the 118438
rate levied shall be fourteen cents per ton. Beginning July 1, 118439
2007, if at the end of a fiscal biennium the balance of the fund 118440
is less than five million dollars, the rate levied shall be 118441
sixteen cents per ton. Beginning July 1, 2009, not later than 118442
thirty days after the close of a fiscal biennium, the chief of the 118443
division of mineral resources management shall certify to the tax 118444
commissioner the amount of the balance of the reclamation 118445
forfeiture fund as of the close of the fiscal biennium. Any 118446
necessary adjustment of the rate levied shall take effect on the 118447
first day of the following January and shall remain in effect 118448
during the calendar biennium that begins on that date.118449

       (9) An additional one and two-tenths cents per ton of coal 118450
mined by surface mining methods.118451

       (B) OfAfter the director of budget and management transfers 118452
money from the severance tax receipts fund as required in division 118453
(H) of section 5749.06 of the Revised Code, money remaining in the 118454
severance tax receipts fund, except for money in the fund from the 118455
amounts due under section 1509.50 of the Revised Code, shall be 118456
credited as follows:118457

       (1) Of the moneys received by the treasurer of statein the 118458
fund from the tax levied in division (A)(1) of this section, four 118459
and seventy-six-hundredths per cent shall be credited to the 118460
geological mapping fund created in section 1505.09 of the Revised 118461
Code, eighty and ninety-five-hundredths per cent shall be credited 118462
to the coal mining administration and reclamation reserve fund 118463
created in section 1513.181 of the Revised Code, and fourteen and 118464
twenty-nine-hundredths per cent shall be credited to the 118465
unreclaimed lands fund created in section 1513.30 of the Revised 118466
Code.118467

       (2) The money received by the treasurer of statein the fund118468
from the tax levied in division (A)(2) of this section shall be 118469
credited to the geological mapping fund.118470

       (3) Of the moneys received by the treasurer of statein the 118471
fund from the tax levied in divisions (A)(3) and (4) of this 118472
section, seven and five-tenths per cent shall be credited to the 118473
geological mapping fund, forty-two and five-tenths per cent shall 118474
be credited to the unreclaimed lands fund, and the remainder shall 118475
be credited to the surface mining fund created in section 1514.06 118476
of the Revised Code.118477

       (4) Of the moneys received by the treasurer of statein the 118478
fund from the tax levied in divisions (A)(5) and (6) of this 118479
section, ninety per cent shall be credited to the oil and gas well 118480
fund created in section 1509.02 of the Revised Code and ten per 118481
cent shall be credited to the geological mapping fund. All of the 118482
moneys received by the treasurer of statein the fund from the 118483
tax levied in division (A)(7) of this section shall be credited to 118484
the surface mining fund.118485

       (5) All of the moneys received by the treasurer of statein 118486
the fund from the tax levied in division (A)(8) of this section 118487
shall be credited to the reclamation forfeiture fund.118488

       (6) All of the moneys received by the treasurer of statein 118489
the fund from the tax levied in division (A)(9) of this section 118490
shall be credited to the unreclaimed lands fund.118491

       (C) When, at the close of any fiscal year, the chief finds 118492
that the balance of the reclamation forfeiture fund, plus 118493
estimated transfers to it from the coal mining administration and 118494
reclamation reserve fund under section 1513.181 of the Revised 118495
Code, plus the estimated revenues from the tax levied by division 118496
(A)(8) of this section for the remainder of the calendar year that 118497
includes the close of the fiscal year, are sufficient to complete 118498
the reclamation of all lands for which the performance security 118499
has been provided under division (C)(2) of section 1513.08 of the 118500
Revised Code, the purposes for which the tax under division (A)(8) 118501
of this section is levied shall be deemed accomplished at the end 118502
of that calendar year. The chief, within thirty days after the 118503
close of the fiscal year, shall certify those findings to the tax 118504
commissioner, and the tax levied under division (A)(8) of this 118505
section shall cease to be imposed for the subsequent calendar year 118506
after the last day of that calendar year on coal produced under a 118507
coal mining and reclamation permit issued under Chapter 1513. of 118508
the Revised Code if the permittee has made tax payments under 118509
division (A)(8) of this section during each of the preceding five 118510
full calendar years. Not later than thirty days after the close of 118511
a fiscal year, the chief shall certify to the tax commissioner the 118512
identity of any permittees who accordingly no longer are required 118513
to pay the tax levied under division (A)(8) of this section for 118514
the subsequent calendar year.118515

       Sec. 5749.06.  (A)(1) Each severer liable for the tax imposed 118516
by section 5749.02 of the Revised Code and each severer or owner 118517
liable for the amounts due under section 1509.50 of the Revised 118518
Code shall make and file returns with the tax commissioner in the 118519
prescribed form and as of the prescribed times, computing and 118520
reflecting therein the tax as required by this chapter and amounts 118521
due under section 1509.50 of the Revised Code.118522

       (2) The returns shall be filed for every quarterly period, 118523
which periods shall end on the thirty-first day of March, the 118524
thirtieth day of June, the thirtieth day of September, and the 118525
thirty-first day of December of each year, as required by this 118526
section, unless a different return period is prescribed for a 118527
taxpayer by the commissioner.118528

       (B)(1) A separate return shall be filed for each calendar 118529
quarterly period, or other period, or any part thereof, during 118530
which the severer holds a license as provided by section 5749.04 118531
of the Revised Code, or is required to hold the license, or during 118532
which an owner is required to file a return, and the. The return 118533
shall be filed within forty-five days after the last day of each 118534
such calendar month, or other period, or any part thereof, for 118535
which the return is required and shall include remittance payable 118536
to the treasurer of state of the amount of. The tax due is payable 118537
along with the return. All such returns shall contain such 118538
information as the commissioner may require to fairly administer 118539
the tax.118540

       (2) All returns shall be signed by the severer or owner, as 118541
applicable, shall contain the full and complete information 118542
requested, and shall be made under penalty of perjury.118543

       (C) If the commissioner believes that quarterly payments of 118544
tax would result in a delay that might jeopardize the collection 118545
of such tax payments, the commissioner may order that such 118546
payments be made weekly, or more frequently if necessary, such 118547
payments to be made not later than seven days following the close 118548
of the period for which the jeopardy payment is required. Such an 118549
order shall be delivered to the taxpayer personally or by 118550
certified mail and shall remain in effect until the commissioner 118551
notifies the taxpayer to the contrary.118552

       (D) Upon good cause the commissioner may extend for thirty 118553
days the period for filing any notice or return required to be 118554
filed under this section, and may remit all or a part of penalties 118555
that may become due under this chapter.118556

       (E) Any tax and any amount due under section 1509.50 of the 118557
Revised Code not paid by the day the tax or amount is due shall 118558
bear interest computed at the rate per annum prescribed by section 118559
5703.47 of the Revised Code on that amount due from the day that 118560
the amount was originally required to be paid to the day of actual 118561
payment or to the day an assessment was issued under section 118562
5749.07 or 5749.10 of the Revised Code, whichever occurs first.118563

       (F) The severer shall make all payments payable to the 118564
treasurer of state. Except for the amounts due under section 118565
1509.50 of the Revised Code, allA severer or owner, as 118566
applicable, that fails to file a complete return or pay the full 118567
amount due under this chapter within the time prescribed, 118568
including any extensions of time granted by the commissioner, 118569
shall be subject to a penalty not to exceed the greater of fifty 118570
dollars or ten per cent of the amount due for the period.118571

       (G)(1) A severer or owner, as applicable, shall remit 118572
payments electronically and, if required by the commissioner, file 118573
each return electronically. The commissioner may require that the 118574
severer or owner use the Ohio business gateway, as defined in 118575
section 718.051 of the Revised Code, or another electronic means 118576
to file returns and remit payments electronically.118577

       (2) A severer or owner that is required to remit payments 118578
electronically under this section may apply to the commissioner, 118579
in the manner prescribed by the commissioner, to be excused from 118580
that requirement. The commissioner may excuse a severer or owner 118581
from the requirements of division (G) of this section for good 118582
cause.118583

       (3) If a severer or owner that is required to remit payments 118584
or file returns electronically under this section fails to do so, 118585
the commissioner may impose a penalty on the severer or owner not 118586
to exceed the following:118587

       (a) For the first or second payment or return the severer or 118588
owner fails to remit or file electronically, the greater of five 118589
per cent of the amount of the payment that was required to be 118590
remitted or twenty-five dollars;118591

       (b) For every payment or return after the second that the 118592
severer or owner fails to remit or file electronically, the 118593
greater of ten per cent of the amount of the payment that was 118594
required to be remitted or fifty dollars.118595

       (H)(1) All amounts that the tax commissioner receives under 118596
this section shall be deemed to be revenue from taxes imposed 118597
under this chapter. The commissioner shall immediately forward to 118598
the treasurer of state all amounts received under this sectionor 118599
from the amount due under section 1509.50 of the Revised Code, as 118600
applicable, and shall be deposited in the severance tax receipts 118601
fund, which is hereby created in the state treasury.118602

       (2) The director of budget and management shall transfer from 118603
the severance tax receipts fund to the tax refund fund amounts 118604
equal to the refunds certified by the commissioner under section 118605
5749.08 of the Revised Code. Any amount transferred under division 118606
(H)(2) of this section shall be derived from receipts of the same 118607
tax or other amount from which the refund arose.118608

       (3) After the director of budget and management makes any 118609
transfer required by division (H)(2) of this section, but not 118610
later than the fifteenth day of the month following the end of 118611
each calendar quarter, the commissioner shall certify to the 118612
director the total amount remaining in the severance tax receipts 118613
fund organized according to the amount attributable to each 118614
natural resource and according to the amount attributable to a tax 118615
imposed by this chapter and the amounts due under section 1509.50 118616
of the Revised Code.118617

       (I) Penalties imposed under this section are in addition to 118618
any other penalty imposed under this chapter and shall be 118619
considered as revenue arising from the tax levied under this 118620
chapter or the amount due under section 1509.50 of the Revised 118621
Code, as applicable. The commissioner may collect any penalty or 118622
interest imposed under this section in the same manner as provided 118623
for the making of an assessment in section 5749.07 of the Revised 118624
Code. The commissioner may abate all or a portion of such interest 118625
or penalties and may adopt rules governing such abatements.118626

       Sec. 5749.07.  (A) If any severer required by this chapter to 118627
make and file returns and pay the tax levied by section 5749.02 of 118628
the Revised Code, or any severer or owner liable for the amounts 118629
due under section 1509.50 of the Revised Code, fails to make such 118630
return or pay such tax or amounts, the tax commissioner may make 118631
an assessment against the severer or owner based upon any 118632
information in the commissioner's possession.118633

       No assessment shall be made or issued against any severer for 118634
any tax imposed by section 5749.02 of the Revised Code or against 118635
any severer or owner for any amount due under section 1509.50 of 118636
the Revised Code more than four years after the return was due or 118637
was filed, whichever is later. This section does not bar an 118638
assessment against a severer or owner who fails to file a return 118639
as required by this chapter, or who files a fraudulent return.118640

       The commissioner shall give the party assessed written notice 118641
of such assessment in the manner provided in section 5703.37 of 118642
the Revised Code. With the notice, the commissioner shall provide 118643
instructions on how to petition for reassessment and request a 118644
hearing on the petition.118645

       (B) Unless the party assessed files with the commissioner 118646
within sixty days after service of the notice of assessment, 118647
either personally or by certified mail, a written petition for 118648
reassessment signed by the party assessed or that party's 118649
authorized agent having knowledge of the facts, the assessment 118650
becomes final and the amount of the assessment is due and payable 118651
from the party assessed to the treasurer of state. The petition 118652
shall indicate the objections of the party assessed, but 118653
additional objections may be raised in writing if received by the 118654
commissioner prior to the date shown on the final determination. 118655
If the petition has been properly filed, the commissioner shall 118656
proceed under section 5703.60 of the Revised Code.118657

       (C) After an assessment becomes final, if any portion of the 118658
assessment remains unpaid, including accrued interest, a certified 118659
copy of the commissioner's entry making the assessment final may 118660
be filed in the office of the clerk of the court of common pleas 118661
in the county in which the party assessed resides or in which the 118662
party's business is conducted. If the party assessed maintains no 118663
place of business in this state and is not a resident of this 118664
state, the certified copy of the entry may be filed in the office 118665
of the clerk of the court of common pleas of Franklin county.118666

       Immediately upon the filing of such entry, the clerk shall 118667
enter a judgment for the state against the party assessed in the 118668
amount shown on the entry. The judgment may be filed by the clerk 118669
in a loose-leaf book entitled "special judgments for state 118670
severance tax," and shall have the same effect as other judgments. 118671
Execution shall issue upon the judgment upon the request of the 118672
commissioner, and all laws applicable to sales on execution shall 118673
apply to sales made under the judgment.118674

       The portion ofIf the assessment is not paid in its entirety118675
within sixty days after the day the assessment is issued, the 118676
portion of the assessment consisting of tax due or amounts due 118677
under section 1509.50 of the Revised Code shall bear interest at 118678
the rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of the Revised 118679
Code from the day the commissioner issues the assessment until it 118680
is paid or until it is certified to the attorney general for 118681
collection under section 131.02 of the Revised Code, whichever 118682
comes first. If the unpaid portion of the assessment is certified 118683
to the attorney general for collection, the entire unpaid portion 118684
of the assessment shall bear interest at the rate per annum 118685
prescribed by section 5703.47 of the Revised Code from the date of 118686
certification until the date it is paid in its entirety. Interest 118687
shall be paid in the same manner as the tax and may be collected 118688
by the issuance of an assessment under this section.118689

       (D) All money collected by the commissioner under this 118690
section shall be paid to the treasurer of state, and when paid 118691
shall be considered as revenue arising from the tax imposed by 118692
section 5749.02 of the Revised Code and the amount due under 118693
section 1509.50 of the Revised Code, as applicable.118694

       Sec. 5749.17. AnyExcept for purposes of enforcing Chapter 118695
1509. of the Revised Code, any information provided to the 118696
department of natural resources by the department of taxation in 118697
accordance with division (C)(12) of section 5703.21 of the Revised 118698
Code shall not be disclosed publicly by the department of natural 118699
resources, but. However the department of natural resources may 118700
provide such information to the attorney general for purposes of 118701
enforcement of the lawChapter 1509. of the Revised Code.118702

       Sec. 5751.01.  As used in this chapter:118703

       (A) "Person" means, but is not limited to, individuals, 118704
combinations of individuals of any form, receivers, assignees, 118705
trustees in bankruptcy, firms, companies, joint-stock companies, 118706
business trusts, estates, partnerships, limited liability 118707
partnerships, limited liability companies, associations, joint 118708
ventures, clubs, societies, for-profit corporations, S 118709
corporations, qualified subchapter S subsidiaries, qualified 118710
subchapter S trusts, trusts, entities that are disregarded for 118711
federal income tax purposes, and any other entities. 118712

       (B) "Consolidated elected taxpayer" means a group of two or 118713
more persons treated as a single taxpayer for purposes of this 118714
chapter as the result of an election made under section 5751.011 118715
of the Revised Code.118716

       (C) "Combined taxpayer" means a group of two or more persons 118717
treated as a single taxpayer for purposes of this chapter under 118718
section 5751.012 of the Revised Code.118719

       (D) "Taxpayer" means any person, or any group of persons in 118720
the case of a consolidated elected taxpayer or combined taxpayer 118721
treated as one taxpayer, required to register or pay tax under 118722
this chapter. "Taxpayer" does not include excluded persons.118723

        (E) "Excluded person" means any of the following:118724

       (1) Any person with not more than one hundred fifty thousand 118725
dollars of taxable gross receipts during the calendar year. 118726
Division (E)(1) of this section does not apply to a person that is 118727
a member of a consolidated elected taxpayer;118728

        (2) A public utility that paid the excise tax imposed by 118729
section 5727.24 or 5727.30 of the Revised Code based on one or 118730
more measurement periods that include the entire tax period under 118731
this chapter, except that a public utility that is a combined 118732
company is a taxpayer with regard to the following gross receipts:118733

        (a) Taxable gross receipts directly attributed to a public 118734
utility activity, but not directly attributed to an activity that 118735
is subject to the excise tax imposed by section 5727.24 or 5727.30 118736
of the Revised Code;118737

        (b) Taxable gross receipts that cannot be directly attributed 118738
to any activity, multiplied by a fraction whose numerator is the 118739
taxable gross receipts described in division (E)(2)(a) of this 118740
section and whose denominator is the total taxable gross receipts 118741
that can be directly attributed to any activity;118742

        (c) Except for any differences resulting from the use of an 118743
accrual basis method of accounting for purposes of determining 118744
gross receipts under this chapter and the use of the cash basis 118745
method of accounting for purposes of determining gross receipts 118746
under section 5727.24 of the Revised Code, the gross receipts 118747
directly attributed to the activity of a natural gas company shall 118748
be determined in a manner consistent with division (D) of section 118749
5727.03 of the Revised Code.118750

        As used in division (E)(2) of this section, "combined 118751
company" and "public utility" have the same meanings as in section 118752
5727.01 of the Revised Code.118753

       (3) A financial institution, as defined in section 5726.01 of 118754
the Revised Code, that paid the tax imposed by section 5726.02 of 118755
the Revised Code based on one or more taxable years that include 118756
the entire tax period under this chapter;118757

       (4) A person directly or indirectly owned by one or more 118758
financial institutions, as defined in section 5726.01 of the 118759
Revised Code, that paid the tax imposed by section 5726.02 of the 118760
Revised Code based on one or more taxable years that include the 118761
entire tax period under this chapter.118762

        For the purposes of division (E)(4) of this section, a person 118763
owns another person under the following circumstances:118764

        (a) In the case of corporations issuing capital stock, one 118765
corporation owns another corporation if it owns fifty per cent or 118766
more of the other corporation's capital stock with current voting 118767
rights;118768

        (b) In the case of a limited liability company, one person 118769
owns the company if that person's membership interest, as defined 118770
in section 1705.01 of the Revised Code, is fifty per cent or more 118771
of the combined membership interests of all persons owning such 118772
interests in the company;118773

        (c) In the case of a partnership, trust, or other 118774
unincorporated business organization other than a limited 118775
liability company, one person owns the organization if, under the 118776
articles of organization or other instrument governing the affairs 118777
of the organization, that person has a beneficial interest in the 118778
organization's profits, surpluses, losses, or distributions of 118779
fifty per cent or more of the combined beneficial interests of all 118780
persons having such an interest in the organization.118781

        (5) A domestic insurance company or foreign insurance 118782
company, as defined in section 5725.01 of the Revised Code, that 118783
paid the insurance company premiums tax imposed by section 5725.18 118784
or Chapter 5729. of the Revised Code, or an unauthorized insurance 118785
company whose gross premiums are subject to tax under section 118786
3905.36 of the Revised Code based on one or more measurement 118787
periods that include the entire tax period under this chapter;118788

       (6) A person that solely facilitates or services one or more 118789
securitizations of phase-in-recovery property pursuant to a final 118790
financing order as those terms are defined in section 4928.23 of 118791
the Revised Code. For purposes of this division, "securitization" 118792
means transferring one or more assets to one or more persons and 118793
then issuing securities backed by the right to receive payment 118794
from the asset or assets so transferred.118795

       (7) Except as otherwise provided in this division, a 118796
pre-income tax trust as defined in division (FF)(4) of section 118797
5747.01 of the Revised Code and any pass-through entity of which 118798
such pre-income tax trust owns or controls, directly, indirectly, 118799
or constructively through related interests, more than five per 118800
cent of the ownership or equity interests. If the pre-income tax 118801
trust has made a qualifying pre-income tax trust election under 118802
division (FF)(3) of section 5747.01 of the Revised Code, then the 118803
trust and the pass-through entities of which it owns or controls, 118804
directly, indirectly, or constructively through related interests, 118805
more than five per cent of the ownership or equity interests, 118806
shall not be excluded persons for purposes of the tax imposed 118807
under section 5751.02 of the Revised Code.118808

       (8) Nonprofit organizations or the state and its agencies, 118809
instrumentalities, or political subdivisions.118810

       (F) Except as otherwise provided in divisions (F)(2), (3), 118811
and (4) of this section, "gross receipts" means the total amount 118812
realized by a person, without deduction for the cost of goods sold 118813
or other expenses incurred, that contributes to the production of 118814
gross income of the person, including the fair market value of any 118815
property and any services received, and any debt transferred or 118816
forgiven as consideration. 118817

       (1) The following are examples of gross receipts:118818

       (a) Amounts realized from the sale, exchange, or other 118819
disposition of the taxpayer's property to or with another;118820

       (b) Amounts realized from the taxpayer's performance of 118821
services for another;118822

       (c) Amounts realized from another's use or possession of the 118823
taxpayer's property or capital;118824

       (d) Any combination of the foregoing amounts.118825

       (2) "Gross receipts" excludes the following amounts:118826

       (a) Interest income except interest on credit sales;118827

       (b) Dividends and distributions from corporations, and 118828
distributive or proportionate shares of receipts and income from a 118829
pass-through entity as defined under section 5733.04 of the 118830
Revised Code;118831

       (c) Receipts from the sale, exchange, or other disposition of 118832
an asset described in section 1221 or 1231 of the Internal Revenue 118833
Code, without regard to the length of time the person held the 118834
asset. Notwithstanding section 1221 of the Internal Revenue Code, 118835
receipts from hedging transactions also are excluded to the extent 118836
the transactions are entered into primarily to protect a financial 118837
position, such as managing the risk of exposure to (i) foreign 118838
currency fluctuations that affect assets, liabilities, profits, 118839
losses, equity, or investments in foreign operations; (ii) 118840
interest rate fluctuations; or (iii) commodity price fluctuations. 118841
As used in division (F)(2)(c) of this section, "hedging 118842
transaction" has the same meaning as used in section 1221 of the 118843
Internal Revenue Code and also includes transactions accorded 118844
hedge accounting treatment under statement of financial accounting 118845
standards number 133 of the financial accounting standards board. 118846
For the purposes of division (F)(2)(c) of this section, the actual 118847
transfer of title of real or tangible personal property to another 118848
entity is not a hedging transaction.118849

       (d) Proceeds received attributable to the repayment, 118850
maturity, or redemption of the principal of a loan, bond, mutual 118851
fund, certificate of deposit, or marketable instrument;118852

       (e) The principal amount received under a repurchase 118853
agreement or on account of any transaction properly characterized 118854
as a loan to the person;118855

       (f) Contributions received by a trust, plan, or other 118856
arrangement, any of which is described in section 501(a) of the 118857
Internal Revenue Code, or to which Title 26, Subtitle A, Chapter 118858
1, Subchapter (D) of the Internal Revenue Code applies;118859

       (g) Compensation, whether current or deferred, and whether in 118860
cash or in kind, received or to be received by an employee, former 118861
employee, or the employee's legal successor for services rendered 118862
to or for an employer, including reimbursements received by or for 118863
an individual for medical or education expenses, health insurance 118864
premiums, or employee expenses, or on account of a dependent care 118865
spending account, legal services plan, any cafeteria plan 118866
described in section 125 of the Internal Revenue Code, or any 118867
similar employee reimbursement;118868

       (h) Proceeds received from the issuance of the taxpayer's own 118869
stock, options, warrants, puts, or calls, or from the sale of the 118870
taxpayer's treasury stock;118871

       (i) Proceeds received on the account of payments from 118872
insurance policies, except those proceeds received for the loss of 118873
business revenue;118874

       (j) Gifts or charitable contributions received; membership 118875
dues received by trade, professional, homeowners', or condominium 118876
associations; and payments received for educational courses, 118877
meetings, meals, or similar payments to a trade, professional, or 118878
other similar association; and fundraising receipts received by 118879
any person when any excess receipts are donated or used 118880
exclusively for charitable purposes;118881

       (k) Damages received as the result of litigation in excess of 118882
amounts that, if received without litigation, would be gross 118883
receipts;118884

       (l) Property, money, and other amounts received or acquired 118885
by an agent on behalf of another in excess of the agent's 118886
commission, fee, or other remuneration;118887

       (m) Tax refunds, other tax benefit recoveries, and 118888
reimbursements for the tax imposed under this chapter made by 118889
entities that are part of the same combined taxpayer or 118890
consolidated elected taxpayer group, and reimbursements made by 118891
entities that are not members of a combined taxpayer or 118892
consolidated elected taxpayer group that are required to be made 118893
for economic parity among multiple owners of an entity whose tax 118894
obligation under this chapter is required to be reported and paid 118895
entirely by one owner, pursuant to the requirements of sections 118896
5751.011 and 5751.012 of the Revised Code;118897

       (n) Pension reversions;118898

       (o) Contributions to capital;118899

       (p) Sales or use taxes collected as a vendor or an 118900
out-of-state seller on behalf of the taxing jurisdiction from a 118901
consumer or other taxes the taxpayer is required by law to collect 118902
directly from a purchaser and remit to a local, state, or federal 118903
tax authority;118904

       (q) In the case of receipts from the sale of cigarettes or 118905
tobacco products by a wholesale dealer, retail dealer, 118906
distributor, manufacturer, or seller, all as defined in section 118907
5743.01 of the Revised Code, an amount equal to the federal and 118908
state excise taxes paid by any person on or for such cigarettes or 118909
tobacco products under subtitle E of the Internal Revenue Code or 118910
Chapter 5743. of the Revised Code;118911

       (r) In the case of receipts from the sale of motor fuel by a 118912
licensed motor fuel dealer, licensed retail dealer, or licensed 118913
permissive motor fuel dealer, all as defined in section 5735.01 of 118914
the Revised Code, an amount equal to federal and state excise 118915
taxes paid by any person on such motor fuel under section 4081 of 118916
the Internal Revenue Code or Chapter 5735. of the Revised Code;118917

       (s) In the case of receipts from the sale of beer or 118918
intoxicating liquor, as defined in section 4301.01 of the Revised 118919
Code, by a person holding a permit issued under Chapter 4301. or 118920
4303. of the Revised Code, an amount equal to federal and state 118921
excise taxes paid by any person on or for such beer or 118922
intoxicating liquor under subtitle E of the Internal Revenue Code 118923
or Chapter 4301. or 4305. of the Revised Code;118924

        (t) Receipts realized by a new motor vehicle dealer or used 118925
motor vehicle dealer, as defined in section 4517.01 of the Revised 118926
Code, from the sale or other transfer of a motor vehicle, as 118927
defined in that section, to another motor vehicle dealer for the 118928
purpose of resale by the transferee motor vehicle dealer, but only 118929
if the sale or other transfer was based upon the transferee's need 118930
to meet a specific customer's preference for a motor vehicle;118931

       (u) Receipts from a financial institution described in 118932
division (E)(3) of this section for services provided to the 118933
financial institution in connection with the issuance, processing, 118934
servicing, and management of loans or credit accounts, if such 118935
financial institution and the recipient of such receipts have at 118936
least fifty per cent of their ownership interests owned or 118937
controlled, directly or constructively through related interests, 118938
by common owners;118939

       (v) Receipts realized from administering anti-neoplastic 118940
drugs and other cancer chemotherapy, biologicals, therapeutic 118941
agents, and supportive drugs in a physician's office to patients 118942
with cancer;118943

       (w) Funds received or used by a mortgage broker that is not a 118944
dealer in intangibles, other than fees or other consideration, 118945
pursuant to a table-funding mortgage loan or warehouse-lending 118946
mortgage loan. Terms used in division (F)(2)(w) of this section 118947
have the same meanings as in section 1322.01 of the Revised Code, 118948
except "mortgage broker" means a person assisting a buyer in 118949
obtaining a mortgage loan for a fee or other consideration paid by 118950
the buyer or a lender, or a person engaged in table-funding or 118951
warehouse-lending mortgage loans that are first lien mortgage 118952
loans.118953

        (x) Property, money, and other amounts received by a 118954
professional employer organization, as defined in section 4125.01 118955
of the Revised Code, from a client employer, as defined in that 118956
section, in excess of the administrative fee charged by the 118957
professional employer organization to the client employer;118958

       (y) In the case of amounts retained as commissions by a 118959
permit holder under Chapter 3769. of the Revised Code, an amount 118960
equal to the amounts specified under that chapter that must be 118961
paid to or collected by the tax commissioner as a tax and the 118962
amounts specified under that chapter to be used as purse money;118963

       (z) Qualifying distribution center receipts.118964

       (i) For purposes of division (F)(2)(z) of this section:118965

       (I) "Qualifying distribution center receipts" means receipts 118966
of a supplier from qualified property that is delivered to a 118967
qualified distribution center, multiplied by a quantity that 118968
equals one minus the Ohio delivery percentage. If the qualified 118969
distribution center is a refining facility, "supplier" includes 118970
all dealers, brokers, processors, sellers, vendors, cosigners, and 118971
distributors of qualified property.118972

       (II) "Qualified property" means tangible personal property 118973
delivered to a qualified distribution center that is shipped to 118974
that qualified distribution center solely for further shipping by 118975
the qualified distribution center to another location in this 118976
state or elsewhere or, in the case of gold, silver, platinum, or 118977
palladium delivered to a refining facility solely for refining to 118978
a grade and fineness acceptable for delivery to a registered 118979
commodities exchange. "Further shipping" includes storing and 118980
repackaging property into smaller or larger bundles, so long as 118981
the property is not subject to further manufacturing or 118982
processing. "Refining" is limited to extracting impurities from 118983
gold, silver, platinum, or palladium through smelting or some 118984
other process at a refining facility.118985

       (III) "Qualified distribution center" means a warehouse, a 118986
facility similar to a warehouse, or a refining facility in this 118987
state that, for the qualifying year, is operated by a person that 118988
is not part of a combined taxpayer group and that has a qualifying 118989
certificate. All warehouses or facilities similar to warehouses 118990
that are operated by persons in the same taxpayer group and that 118991
are located within one mile of each other shall be treated as one 118992
qualified distribution center. All refining facilities that are 118993
operated by persons in the same taxpayer group and that are 118994
located in the same or adjacent counties may be treated as one 118995
qualified distribution center.118996

       (IV) "Qualifying year" means the calendar year to which the 118997
qualifying certificate applies.118998

       (V) "Qualifying period" means the period of the first day of 118999
July of the second year preceding the qualifying year through the 119000
thirtieth day of June of the year preceding the qualifying year.119001

       (VI) "Qualifying certificate" means the certificate issued by 119002
the tax commissioner after the operator of a distribution center 119003
files an annual application with the commissioner. The application 119004
and annual fee shall be filed and paid for each qualified 119005
distribution center on or before the first day of September before 119006
the qualifying year or within forty-five days after the 119007
distribution center opens, whichever is later.119008

       The applicant must substantiate to the commissioner's 119009
satisfaction that, for the qualifying period, all persons 119010
operating the distribution center have more than fifty per cent of 119011
the cost of the qualified property shipped to a location such that 119012
it would be sitused outside this state under the provisions of 119013
division (E) of section 5751.033 of the Revised Code. The 119014
applicant must also substantiate that the distribution center 119015
cumulatively had costs from its suppliers equal to or exceeding 119016
five hundred million dollars during the qualifying period. (For 119017
purposes of division (F)(2)(z)(i)(VI) of this section, "supplier" 119018
excludes any person that is part of the consolidated elected 119019
taxpayer group, if applicable, of the operator of the qualified 119020
distribution center.) The commissioner may require the applicant 119021
to have an independent certified public accountant certify that 119022
the calculation of the minimum thresholds required for a qualified 119023
distribution center by the operator of a distribution center has 119024
been made in accordance with generally accepted accounting 119025
principles. The commissioner shall issue or deny the issuance of a 119026
certificate within sixty days after the receipt of the 119027
application. A denial is subject to appeal under section 5717.02 119028
of the Revised Code. If the operator files a timely appeal under 119029
section 5717.02 of the Revised Code, the operator shall be granted 119030
a qualifying certificate, provided thateffective for the 119031
remainder of the qualifying year or until the appeal is finalized, 119032
whichever is earlier. If the operator is liable for any tax, 119033
interest, or penalty upon amounts claimed as qualifying 119034
distribution center receipts, other than those receipts exempt 119035
under division (C)(1) of section 5751.011 of the Revised Code, 119036
that would have otherwise not been owed by its suppliers if the 119037
qualifying certificate was validdoes not prevail in the appeal, 119038
the operator shall pay the operator's supplier tax liability.119039

       (VII) "Ohio delivery percentage" means the proportion of the 119040
total property delivered to a destination inside Ohio from the 119041
qualified distribution center during the qualifying period 119042
compared with total deliveries from such distribution center 119043
everywhere during the qualifying period.119044

       (VIII) "Refining facility" means one or more buildings 119045
located in a county in the Appalachian region of this state as 119046
defined by section 107.21 of the Revised Code and utilized for 119047
refining or smelting gold, silver, platinum, or palladium to a 119048
grade and fineness acceptable for delivery to a registered 119049
commodities exchange.119050

        (IX) "Registered commodities exchange" means a board of 119051
trade, such as New York mercantile exchange, inc. or commodity 119052
exchange, inc., designated as a contract market by the commodity 119053
futures trading commission under the "Commodity Exchange Act," 7 119054
U.S.C. 1 et seq., as amended.119055

       (X) "Supplier tax liability" means an amount equal to the tax 119056
liability of all suppliers of a distribution center had the 119057
distribution center not been issued a qualifying certificate for 119058
the qualifying year, less the amount actually paid by the 119059
suppliers for the qualifying year. Supplier tax liability shall 119060
not include interest or penalties. The tax commissioner shall 119061
determine an operator's supplier tax liability based on 119062
information that the commissioner may request from the operator of 119063
the distribution center. An operator shall provide a list of all 119064
suppliers of the distribution center and the corresponding costs 119065
of qualified property for the qualifying year at issue within 119066
sixty days of a request by the commissioner under this division.119067

       (ii)(I) If the distribution center is new and was not open 119068
for the entire qualifying period, the operator of the distribution 119069
center may request that the commissioner grant a qualifying 119070
certificate. If the certificate is granted and it is later 119071
determined that more than fifty per cent of the qualified property 119072
during that year was not shipped to a location such that it would 119073
be sitused outside of this state under the provisions of division 119074
(E) of section 5751.033 of the Revised Code or if it is later 119075
determined that the person that operates the distribution center 119076
had average monthly costs from its suppliers of less than forty 119077
million dollars during that year, then the operator of the 119078
distribution center shall pay a penalty for that year equal to 119079
five hundred thousand dollarsthe operator's supplier tax 119080
liability. (For purposes of division (F)(2)(z)(ii) of this 119081
section, "supplier" excludes any person that is part of the 119082
consolidated elected taxpayer group, if applicable, of the 119083
operator of the qualified distribution center.)119084

       (II) The commissioner may grant a qualifying certificate to a 119085
distribution center that does not qualify as a qualified 119086
distribution center for an entire qualifying period if the 119087
operator of the distribution center demonstrates that the business 119088
operations of the distribution center have changed or will change 119089
such that the distribution center will qualify as a qualified 119090
distribution center within thirty-six months after the date the 119091
operator first applies for a certificate. If, at the end of that 119092
thirty-six-month period, the business operations of the 119093
distribution center have not changed such that the distribution 119094
center qualifies as a qualified distribution center, the operator 119095
of the distribution center shall pay a penalty equal to five 119096
hundred thousand dollarsthe operator's supplier tax liability for 119097
each year that the distribution center received a certificate but 119098
did not qualify as a qualified distribution center. For each year 119099
the distribution center receives a certificate under division 119100
(F)(2)(z)(ii)(II) of this section, the distribution center shall 119101
pay all applicable fees required under division (F)(2)(z) of this 119102
section and shall submit an updated business plan showing the 119103
progress the distribution center made toward qualifying as a 119104
qualified distribution center during the preceding year. 119105

       (III) An operator may appeal the imposition of a penalty 119106
imposeddetermination under division (F)(2)(z)(ii)(I) or (II) of 119107
this section that the operator is liable for the operator's 119108
supplier tax liability as a result of not qualifying as a 119109
qualified distribution center, as provided in section 5717.02 of 119110
the Revised Code. 119111

       (iii) When filing an application for a qualifying certificate 119112
under division (F)(2)(z)(i)(VI) of this section, the operator of a 119113
qualified distribution center also shall provide documentation, as 119114
the commissioner requires, for the commissioner to ascertain the 119115
Ohio delivery percentage. The commissioner, upon issuing the 119116
qualifying certificate, also shall certify the Ohio delivery 119117
percentage. The operator of the qualified distribution center may 119118
appeal the commissioner's certification of the Ohio delivery 119119
percentage in the same manner as an appeal is taken from the 119120
denial of a qualifying certificate under division (F)(2)(z)(i)(VI) 119121
of this section.119122

       Within thirty days after all appeals have been exhausted, the 119123
operator of the qualified distribution center shall provide the 119124
commissioner with a list of all affected suppliers of qualified 119125
property. The commissioner shall notify all such suppliers that 119126
the suppliers are required to file, within sixty days after 119127
receiving the notice, amended reports for the affected calendar 119128
quarter or quarters or calendar year, whichever the case may be. 119129
Any additional tax liability or tax overpayment shall be subject 119130
to interest but shall not be subject to the imposition of any 119131
penalty so long as the amended returns are timely filed. The 119132
supplier of tangible personal property delivered to the qualified 119133
distribution center shall include in its report of taxable gross 119134
receipts the receipts from the total sales of property delivered 119135
to the qualified distribution center for the calendar quarter or 119136
calendar year, whichever the case may be, multiplied by the Ohio 119137
delivery percentage for the qualifying year. Nothing in division 119138
(F)(2)(z)(iii) of this section shall be construed as imposing 119139
liability on the operator of a qualified distribution center for 119140
the tax imposed by this chapter arising from any change to the 119141
Ohio delivery percentage.119142

       (iv)(I) In the case where the distribution center is new and 119143
not open for the entire qualifying period, the operator shall make 119144
a good faith estimate of an Ohio delivery percentage for use by 119145
suppliers in their reports of taxable gross receipts for the 119146
remainder of the qualifying period. The operator of the facility 119147
shall disclose to the suppliers that such Ohio delivery percentage 119148
is an estimate and is subject to recalculation. By the due date of 119149
the next application for a qualifying certificate, the operator 119150
shall determine the actual Ohio delivery percentage for the 119151
estimated qualifying period and proceed as provided in division 119152
(F)(2)(z)(iii) of this section with respect to the calculation and 119153
recalculation of the Ohio delivery percentage. The supplier is 119154
required to file, within sixty days after receiving notice from 119155
the operator of the qualified distribution center, amended reports 119156
for the impacted calendar quarter or quarters or calendar year, 119157
whichever the case may be. Any additional tax liability or tax 119158
overpayment shall be subject to interest but shall not be subject 119159
to the imposition of any penalty so long as the amended returns 119160
are timely filed.119161

       (II) The operator of a distribution center that receives a 119162
qualifying certificate under division (F)(2)(z)(ii)(II) of this 119163
section shall make a good faith estimate of the Ohio delivery 119164
percentage that the operator estimates will apply to the 119165
distribution center at the end of the thirty-six-month period 119166
after the operator first applied for a qualifying certificate 119167
under that division. The result of the estimate shall be 119168
multiplied by a factor of one and seventy-five one-hundredths. The 119169
product of that calculation shall be the Ohio delivery percentage 119170
used by suppliers in their reports of taxable gross receipts for 119171
each qualifying year that the distribution center receives a 119172
qualifying certificate under division (F)(2)(z)(ii)(II) of this 119173
section, except that, if the product is less than five per cent, 119174
the Ohio delivery percentage used shall be five per cent and that, 119175
if the product exceeds forty-nine per cent, the Ohio delivery 119176
percentage used shall be forty-nine per cent.119177

       (v) Qualifying certificates and Ohio delivery percentages 119178
issued by the commissioner shall be open to public inspection and 119179
shall be timely published by the commissioner. A supplier relying 119180
in good faith on a certificate issued under this division shall 119181
not be subject to tax on the qualifying distribution center 119182
receipts under division (F)(2)(z) of this section. A person 119183
receiving a qualifying certificate is liable for a penalty equal 119184
to five hundred thousand dollarsthe person's supplier tax 119185
liability for each year the person received a certificate that 119186
should not have been issued because the statutory requirements 119187
were in fact not metbut did not qualify as a qualified 119188
distribution center.119189

       (vi) The annual fee for a qualifying certificate shall be one 119190
hundred thousand dollars for each qualified distribution center. 119191
If a qualifying certificate is not issued, the annual fee is 119192
subject to refund after the exhaustion of all appeals provided for 119193
in division (F)(2)(z)(i)(VI) of this section. The fee imposed 119194
under this division may be assessed in the same manner as the tax 119195
imposed under this chapter. The first one hundred thousand dollars 119196
of the annual application fees collected each calendar year shall 119197
be credited to the revenue enhancement fund. The remainder of the 119198
annual application fees collected shall be distributed in the same 119199
manner required under section 5751.20 of the Revised Code.119200

       (vii) The tax commissioner may require that adequate security 119201
be posted by the operator of the distribution center on appeal 119202
when the commissioner disagrees that the applicant has met the 119203
minimum thresholds for a qualified distribution center as set 119204
forth in divisions (F)(2)(z)(i)(VI) anddivision (F)(2)(z)(ii) of 119205
this section.119206

       (aa) Receipts of an employer from payroll deductions relating 119207
to the reimbursement of the employer for advancing moneys to an 119208
unrelated third party on an employee's behalf;119209

        (bb) Cash discounts allowed and taken;119210

       (cc) Returns and allowances;119211

       (dd) Bad debts from receipts on the basis of which the tax 119212
imposed by this chapter was paid in a prior quarterly tax payment 119213
period. For the purpose of this division, "bad debts" means any 119214
debts that have become worthless or uncollectible between the 119215
preceding and current quarterly tax payment periods, have been 119216
uncollected for at least six months, and that may be claimed as a 119217
deduction under section 166 of the Internal Revenue Code and the 119218
regulations adopted under that section, or that could be claimed 119219
as such if the taxpayer kept its accounts on the accrual basis. 119220
"Bad debts" does not include repossessed property, uncollectible 119221
amounts on property that remains in the possession of the taxpayer 119222
until the full purchase price is paid, or expenses in attempting 119223
to collect any account receivable or for any portion of the debt 119224
recovered;119225

       (ee) Any amount realized from the sale of an account 119226
receivable to the extent the receipts from the underlying 119227
transaction giving rise to the account receivable were included in 119228
the gross receipts of the taxpayer;119229

       (ff) Any receipts directly attributed to a transfer agreement 119230
or to the enterprise transferred under that agreement under 119231
section 4313.02 of the Revised Code.119232

       (gg)(i) As used in this division:119233

       (I) "Qualified uranium receipts" means receipts from the 119234
sale, exchange, lease, loan, production, processing, or other 119235
disposition of uranium within a uranium enrichment zone certified 119236
by the tax commissioner under division (F)(2)(gg)(ii) of this 119237
section. "Qualified uranium receipts" does not include any 119238
receipts with a situs in this state outside a uranium enrichment 119239
zone certified by the tax commissioner under division 119240
(F)(2)(gg)(ii) of this section.119241

       (II) "Uranium enrichment zone" means all real property that 119242
is part of a uranium enrichment facility licensed by the United 119243
States nuclear regulatory commission and that was or is owned or 119244
controlled by the United States department of energy or its 119245
successor.119246

       (ii) Any person that owns, leases, or operates real or 119247
tangible personal property constituting or located within a 119248
uranium enrichment zone may apply to the tax commissioner to have 119249
the uranium enrichment zone certified for the purpose of excluding 119250
qualified uranium receipts under division (F)(2)(gg) of this 119251
section. The application shall include such information that the 119252
tax commissioner prescribes. Within sixty days after receiving the 119253
application, the tax commissioner shall certify the zone for that 119254
purpose if the commissioner determines that the property qualifies 119255
as a uranium enrichment zone as defined in division (F)(2)(gg) of 119256
this section, or, if the tax commissioner determines that the 119257
property does not qualify, the commissioner shall deny the 119258
application or request additional information from the applicant. 119259
If the tax commissioner denies an application, the commissioner 119260
shall state the reasons for the denial. The applicant may appeal 119261
the denial of an application to the board of tax appeals pursuant 119262
to section 5717.02 of the Revised Code. If the applicant files a 119263
timely appeal, the tax commissioner shall conditionally certify 119264
the applicant's property. The conditional certification shall 119265
expire when all of the applicant's appeals are exhausted. Until 119266
final resolution of the appeal, the applicant shall retain the 119267
applicant's records in accordance with section 5751.12 of the 119268
Revised Code, notwithstanding any time limit on the preservation 119269
of records under that section.119270

       (hh) Amounts realized by licensed motor fuel dealers or 119271
licensed permissive motor fuel dealers from the exchange of 119272
petroleum products, including motor fuel, between such dealers, 119273
provided that delivery of the petroleum products occurs at a 119274
refinery, terminal, pipeline, or marine vessel and that the 119275
exchanging dealers agree neither dealer shall require monetary 119276
compensation from the other for the value of the exchanged 119277
petroleum products other than such compensation for differences in 119278
product location or grade. Division (F)(2)(hh) of this section 119279
does not apply to amounts realized as a result of differences in 119280
location or grade of exchanged petroleum products or from 119281
handling, lubricity, dye, or other additive injections fees, 119282
pipeline security fees, or similar fees. As used in this division, 119283
"motor fuel," "licensed motor fuel dealer," "licensed permissive 119284
motor fuel dealer," and "terminal" have the same meanings as in 119285
section 5735.01 of the Revised Code.119286

       (ii) In the case of amounts collected by a licensed casino 119287
operator from casino gaming, amounts in excess of the casino 119288
operator's gross casino revenue. In this division, "casino 119289
operator" and "casino gaming" have the meanings defined in section 119290
3772.01 of the Revised Code, and "gross casino revenue" has the 119291
meaning defined in section 5753.01 of the Revised Code.119292

       (jj) Receipts realized from the sale of agricultural 119293
commodities by an agricultural commodity handler, both as defined 119294
in section 926.01 of the Revised Code, that is licensed by the 119295
director of agriculture to handle agricultural commodities in this 119296
state.119297

       (kk) Any receipts for which the tax imposed by this chapter 119298
is prohibited by the constitution or laws of the United States or 119299
the constitution of this state.119300

        (3) In the case of a taxpayer when acting as a real estate 119301
broker, "gross receipts" includes only the portion of any fee for 119302
the service of a real estate broker, or service of a real estate 119303
salesperson associated with that broker, that is retained by the 119304
broker and not paid to an associated real estate salesperson or 119305
another real estate broker. For the purposes of this division, 119306
"real estate broker" and "real estate salesperson" have the same 119307
meanings as in section 4735.01 of the Revised Code.119308

       (4) A taxpayer's method of accounting for gross receipts for 119309
a tax period shall be the same as the taxpayer's method of 119310
accounting for federal income tax purposes for the taxpayer's 119311
federal taxable year that includes the tax period. If a taxpayer's 119312
method of accounting for federal income tax purposes changes, its 119313
method of accounting for gross receipts under this chapter shall 119314
be changed accordingly.119315

       (G) "Taxable gross receipts" means gross receipts sitused to 119316
this state under section 5751.033 of the Revised Code.119317

       (H) A person has "substantial nexus with this state" if any 119318
of the following applies. The person:119319

       (1) Owns or uses a part or all of its capital in this state;119320

       (2) Holds a certificate of compliance with the laws of this 119321
state authorizing the person to do business in this state;119322

       (3) Has bright-line presence in this state;119323

       (4) Otherwise has nexus with this state to an extent that the 119324
person can be required to remit the tax imposed under this chapter 119325
under the Constitution of the United States.119326

       (I) A person has "bright-line presence" in this state for a 119327
reporting period and for the remaining portion of the calendar 119328
year if any of the following applies. The person:119329

       (1) Has at any time during the calendar year property in this 119330
state with an aggregate value of at least fifty thousand dollars. 119331
For the purpose of division (I)(1) of this section, owned property 119332
is valued at original cost and rented property is valued at eight 119333
times the net annual rental charge.119334

       (2) Has during the calendar year payroll in this state of at 119335
least fifty thousand dollars. Payroll in this state includes all 119336
of the following:119337

       (a) Any amount subject to withholding by the person under 119338
section 5747.06 of the Revised Code;119339

       (b) Any other amount the person pays as compensation to an 119340
individual under the supervision or control of the person for work 119341
done in this state; and119342

       (c) Any amount the person pays for services performed in this 119343
state on its behalf by another.119344

       (3) Has during the calendar year taxable gross receipts of at 119345
least five hundred thousand dollars.119346

       (4) Has at any time during the calendar year within this 119347
state at least twenty-five per cent of the person's total 119348
property, total payroll, or total gross receipts.119349

       (5) Is domiciled in this state as an individual or for 119350
corporate, commercial, or other business purposes.119351

       (J) "Tangible personal property" has the same meaning as in 119352
section 5739.01 of the Revised Code.119353

       (K) "Internal Revenue Code" means the Internal Revenue Code 119354
of 1986, 100 Stat. 2085, 26 U.S.C. 1, as amended. Any term used in 119355
this chapter that is not otherwise defined has the same meaning as 119356
when used in a comparable context in the laws of the United States 119357
relating to federal income taxes unless a different meaning is 119358
clearly required. Any reference in this chapter to the Internal 119359
Revenue Code includes other laws of the United States relating to 119360
federal income taxes.119361

       (L) "Calendar quarter" means a three-month period ending on 119362
the thirty-first day of March, the thirtieth day of June, the 119363
thirtieth day of September, or the thirty-first day of December.119364

       (M) "Tax period" means the calendar quarter or calendar year 119365
on the basis of which a taxpayer is required to pay the tax 119366
imposed under this chapter.119367

       (N) "Calendar year taxpayer" means a taxpayer for which the 119368
tax period is a calendar year.119369

       (O) "Calendar quarter taxpayer" means a taxpayer for which 119370
the tax period is a calendar quarter.119371

       (P) "Agent" means a person authorized by another person to 119372
act on its behalf to undertake a transaction for the other, 119373
including any of the following:119374

        (1) A person receiving a fee to sell financial instruments;119375

        (2) A person retaining only a commission from a transaction 119376
with the other proceeds from the transaction being remitted to 119377
another person;119378

        (3) A person issuing licenses and permits under section 119379
1533.13 of the Revised Code;119380

        (4) A lottery sales agent holding a valid license issued 119381
under section 3770.05 of the Revised Code;119382

        (5) A person acting as an agent of the division of liquor 119383
control under section 4301.17 of the Revised Code.119384

       (Q) "Received" includes amounts accrued under the accrual 119385
method of accounting.119386

       (R) "Reporting person" means a person in a consolidated 119387
elected taxpayer or combined taxpayer group that is designated by 119388
that group to legally bind the group for all filings and tax 119389
liabilities and to receive all legal notices with respect to 119390
matters under this chapter, or, for the purposes of section 119391
5751.04 of the Revised Code, a separate taxpayer that is not a 119392
member of such a group.119393

       Sec. 5751.014.  All members of a consolidated elected 119394
taxpayer or combined taxpayer group during the tax period or 119395
periods for which additional tax, penalty, or interest is owed are 119396
jointly and severally liable for such amounts. Although the 119397
reporting person will be assessed for the liability, such amounts 119398
due may be collected by assessment against any member of the group 119399
as provided in section 5703.90 of the Revised Code or pursued 119400
against any member of the group when a liability is certified to 119401
the attorney general under section 131.02 of the Revised Code.119402

       Sec. 5751.07.  (A) Any person required to file returns for a 119403
calendar quarterunder this chapter shall remit each tax payment, 119404
and, if required by the tax commissioner, file the tax return or 119405
the annual report, electronically. The commissioner may require 119406
taxpayers to use the Ohio business gateway as defined in section 119407
718.051 of the Revised Code to file returns and remit the tax, or 119408
may provide another means for taxpayers to file and remit the tax 119409
electronically.119410

       (B) A person required by this section to remit taxes or file 119411
returns electronically may apply to the tax commissioner, on the 119412
form prescribed by the commissioner, to be excused from that 119413
requirement. The commissioner may excuse a person from the 119414
requirements of this division for good cause.119415

       (C)(1) If a person required to remit taxes or file a return 119416
electronically under this section fails to do so, the commissioner 119417
may impose a penalty not to exceed the following:119418

       (a) For either of the first two calendar quarterstax periods119419
the person so fails, the greater of twenty-five dollars or five 119420
per cent of the amount of the payment that was required to be 119421
remitted;119422

       (b) For the third and any subsequent calendar quarterstax 119423
periods the person so fails, the greater of fifty dollars or ten 119424
per cent of the amount of the payment that was required to be 119425
remitted.119426

       (2) The penalty imposed under division (C)(1) of this section 119427
is in addition to any other penalty imposed under this chapter and 119428
shall be considered as revenue arising from the tax imposed under 119429
this chapter. A penalty may be collected by assessment in the 119430
manner prescribed by section 5751.09 of the Revised Code. The tax 119431
commissioner may abate all or a portion of such a penalty.119432

       (D) The tax commissioner may adopt rules necessary to 119433
administer this section.119434

       Sec. 5751.081.  As used in this section, "debt to this state" 119435
means unpaid taxes due the state, unpaid workers' compensation 119436
premiums due under section 4123.35 of the Revised Code, unpaid 119437
unemployment compensation contributions due under section 4141.25 119438
of the Revised Code, unpaid unemployment compensation payment in 119439
lieu of contribution under section 4141.241 of the Revised Code, 119440
unpaid fee payable to the state or to the clerk of courts pursuant 119441
to section 4505.06 of the Revised Code, incorrect medical 119442
assistance payments for medicaid services under section 5111.02 of 119443
the Revised Codethe medicaid program, or any unpaid charge, 119444
penalty, or interest arising from any of the foregoing.119445

       If a taxpayer entitled to a refund under section 5751.08 of 119446
the Revised Code owes any debt to this state, the amount 119447
refundable may be applied in satisfaction of the debt. If the 119448
amount refundable is less than the amount of the debt, it may be 119449
applied in partial satisfaction of the debt. If the amount 119450
refundable is greater than the amount of the debt, the amount 119451
remaining after satisfaction of the debt shall be refunded. This 119452
section applies only to debts that have become final. For the 119453
purposes of this section, a debt becomes final when, under the 119454
applicable law, any time provided for petition for reassessment, 119455
request for reconsideration, or other appeal of the legality or 119456
validity of the amount giving rise to the debt expires without an 119457
appeal having been filed in the manner provided by law.119458

       Sec. 5751.09.  (A) The tax commissioner may make an 119459
assessment, based on any information in the commissioner's 119460
possession, against any person that fails to file a return or pay 119461
any tax as required by this chapter. The commissioner shall give 119462
the person assessed written notice of the assessment as provided 119463
in section 5703.37 of the Revised Code. With the notice, the 119464
commissioner shall provide instructions on the manner in which to 119465
petition for reassessment and request a hearing with respect to 119466
the petition. The commissioner shall send any assessments against 119467
consolidated elected taxpayer and combined taxpayer groups under 119468
section 5751.011 or 5751.012 of the Revised Code to the taxpayer's 119469
"reporting person" as defined under division (R) of section 119470
5751.01 of the Revised Code. The reporting person shall notify all 119471
members of the group of the assessment and all outstanding taxes, 119472
interest, and penalties for which the assessment is issued.119473

       (B) Unless the person assessed, within sixty days after 119474
service of the notice of assessment, files with the tax 119475
commissioner, either personally or by certified mail, a written 119476
petition signed by the person or the person's authorized agent 119477
having knowledge of the facts, the assessment becomes final, and 119478
the amount of the assessment is due and payable from the person 119479
assessed to the treasurer of state. The petition shall indicate 119480
the objections of the person assessed, but additional objections 119481
may be raised in writing if received by the commissioner prior to 119482
the date shown on the final determination.119483

       If a petition for reassessment has been properly filed, the 119484
commissioner shall proceed under section 5703.60 of the Revised 119485
Code.119486

       (C)(1) After an assessment becomes final, if any portion of 119487
the assessment, including accrued interest, remains unpaid, a 119488
certified copy of the tax commissioner's entry making the 119489
assessment final may be filed in the office of the clerk of the 119490
court of common pleas in the county in which the person resides or 119491
has its principal place of business in this state, or in the 119492
office of the clerk of court of common pleas of Franklin county.119493

       (2) Immediately upon the filing of the entry, the clerk shall 119494
enter judgment for the state against the person assessed in the 119495
amount shown on the entry. The judgment may be filed by the clerk 119496
in a loose-leaf book entitled, "special judgments for the 119497
commercial activity tax" and shall have the same effect as other 119498
judgments. Execution shall issue upon the judgment at the request 119499
of the tax commissioner, and all laws applicable to sales on 119500
execution shall apply to sales made under the judgment.119501

       (3) The portion ofIf the assessment is not paid in its 119502
entirety within sixty days after the day the assessment was 119503
issued, the portion of the assessment consisting of tax due shall 119504
bear interest at the rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 119505
of the Revised Code from the day the tax commissioner issues the 119506
assessment until it is paid or until it is certified to the 119507
attorney general for collection under section 131.02 of the 119508
Revised Code, whichever comes first. If the unpaid portion of the 119509
assessment is certified to the attorney general for collection, 119510
the entire unpaid portion of the assessment shall bear interest at 119511
the rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of the Revised 119512
Code from the date of certification until the date it is paid in 119513
its entirety. Interest shall be paid in the same manner as the tax 119514
and may be collected by the issuance of an assessment under this 119515
section.119516

       (D) If the tax commissioner believes that collection of the 119517
tax will be jeopardized unless proceedings to collect or secure 119518
collection of the tax are instituted without delay, the 119519
commissioner may issue a jeopardy assessment against the person 119520
liable for the tax. Immediately upon the issuance of the jeopardy 119521
assessment, the commissioner shall file an entry with the clerk of 119522
the court of common pleas in the manner prescribed by division (C) 119523
of this section. Notice of the jeopardy assessment shall be served 119524
on the person assessed or the person's authorized agent in the 119525
manner provided in section 5703.37 of the Revised Code within five 119526
days of the filing of the entry with the clerk. The total amount 119527
assessed is immediately due and payable, unless the person 119528
assessed files a petition for reassessment in accordance with 119529
division (B) of this section and provides security in a form 119530
satisfactory to the commissioner and in an amount sufficient to 119531
satisfy the unpaid balance of the assessment. Full or partial 119532
payment of the assessment does not prejudice the commissioner's 119533
consideration of the petition for reassessment.119534

       (E) The tax commissioner shall immediately forward to the 119535
treasurer of state all amounts the commissioner receives under 119536
this section, and such amounts shall be considered as revenue 119537
arising from the tax imposed under this chapter.119538

       (F) Except as otherwise provided in this division, no 119539
assessment shall be made or issued against a taxpayer for the tax 119540
imposed under this chapter more than four years after the due date 119541
for the filing of the return for the tax period for which the tax 119542
was reported, or more than four years after the return for the tax 119543
period was filed, whichever is later. The time limit may be 119544
extended if both the taxpayer and the commissioner consent in 119545
writing to the extension or enter into an agreement waiving or 119546
extending the time limit. Any such extension shall extend the 119547
four-year time limit in division (B) of section 5751.08 of the 119548
Revised Code for the same period of time. Nothing in this division 119549
bars an assessment against a taxpayer that fails to file a return 119550
required by this chapter or that files a fraudulent return.119551

       (G) If the tax commissioner possesses information that 119552
indicates that the amount of tax a taxpayer is required to pay 119553
under this chapter exceeds the amount the taxpayer paid, the tax 119554
commissioner may audit a sample of the taxpayer's gross receipts 119555
over a representative period of time to ascertain the amount of 119556
tax due, and may issue an assessment based on the audit. The tax 119557
commissioner shall make a good faith effort to reach agreement 119558
with the taxpayer in selecting a representative sample. The tax 119559
commissioner may apply a sampling method only if the commissioner 119560
has prescribed the method by rule.119561

       (H) If the whereabouts of a person subject to this chapter is 119562
not known to the tax commissioner, the commissioner shall follow 119563
the procedures under section 5703.37 of the Revised Code.119564

       Sec. 5751.20.  (A) As used in sections 5751.20 to 5751.22 of 119565
the Revised Code:119566

       (1) "School district," "joint vocational school district," 119567
"local taxing unit," "recognized valuation," "fixed-rate levy," 119568
and "fixed-sum levy" have the same meanings as used in section 119569
5727.84 of the Revised Code.119570

       (2) "State education aid" for a school district means the 119571
following:119572

       (a) For fiscal years prior to fiscal year 2010, the sum of 119573
state aid amounts computed for the district under the following 119574
provisions, as they existed for the applicable fiscal year: 119575
division (A) of section 3317.022 of the Revised Code, including 119576
the amounts calculated under sectionsformer section 3317.029 and 119577
section 3317.0217 of the Revised Code; divisions (C)(1), (C)(4), 119578
(D), (E), and (F) of section 3317.022; divisions (B), (C), and (D) 119579
of section 3317.023; divisions (L) and (N) of section 3317.024; 119580
section 3317.0216; and any unit payments for gifted student 119581
services paid under sectionssection 3317.05,and former sections119582
3317.052, and 3317.053 of the Revised Code; except that, for 119583
fiscal years 2008 and 2009, the amount computed for the district 119584
under Section 269.20.80 of H.B. 119 of the 127th general assembly 119585
and as that section subsequently may be amended shall be 119586
substituted for the amount computed under division (D) of section 119587
3317.022 of the Revised Code, and the amount computed under 119588
Section 269.30.80 of H.B. 119 of the 127th general assembly and as 119589
that section subsequently may be amended shall be included.119590

       (b) For fiscal years 2010 and 2011, the sum of the amounts 119591
computed under former sections 3306.052, 3306.12, 3306.13, 119592
3306.19, 3306.191, and 3306.192 of the Revised Code;119593

       (c) For fiscal years 2012 and 2013, the sum of the amounts 119594
paid under Sections 267.30.50, 267.30.53, and 267.30.56 of H.B. 119595
153 of the 129th general assembly;119596

       (d) For fiscal year 2014 and each fiscal year thereafter, the 119597
sum of state amounts computed for the district under section 119598
3317.022 of the Revised Code; except that, for fiscal years 2014 119599
and 2015, the amount computed for the district under the section 119600
of this act entitled "TRANSITIONAL AID FOR CITY, LOCAL, AND 119601
EXEMPTED VILLAGE SCHOOL DISTRICTS" shall be included.119602

       (3) "State education aid" for a joint vocational school 119603
district means the following:119604

       (a) For fiscal years prior to fiscal year 2010, the sum of 119605
the state aid computed for the district under division (N) of 119606
section 3317.024 and former section 3317.16 of the Revised Code, 119607
except that, for fiscal years 2008 and 2009, the amount computed 119608
under Section 269.30.80 of H.B. 119 of the 127th general assembly 119609
and as that section subsequently may be amended shall be included.119610

       (b) For fiscal years 2010 and 2011, the amount paid in 119611
accordance with Section 265.30.50 of H.B. 1 of the 128th general 119612
assembly.119613

       (c) For fiscal years 2012 and 2013, the amount paid in 119614
accordance with Section 267.30.60 of H.B. 153 of the 129th general 119615
assembly.119616

       (d) For fiscal year 2014 and each fiscal year thereafter, the 119617
amount computed for the district under section 3317.16 of the 119618
Revised Code; except that, for fiscal years 2014 and 2015, the 119619
amount computed for the district under the section of this act 119620
entitled "TRANSITIONAL AID FOR JOINT VOCATIONAL SCHOOL DISTRICTS" 119621
shall be included.119622

        (4) "State education aid offset" means the amount determined 119623
for each school district or joint vocational school district under 119624
division (A)(1) of section 5751.21 of the Revised Code.119625

       (5) "Machinery and equipment property tax value loss" means 119626
the amount determined under division (C)(1) of this section.119627

       (6) "Inventory property tax value loss" means the amount 119628
determined under division (C)(2) of this section.119629

       (7) "Furniture and fixtures property tax value loss" means 119630
the amount determined under division (C)(3) of this section.119631

        (8) "Machinery and equipment fixed-rate levy loss" means the 119632
amount determined under division (D)(1) of this section.119633

       (9) "Inventory fixed-rate levy loss" means the amount 119634
determined under division (D)(2) of this section.119635

       (10) "Furniture and fixtures fixed-rate levy loss" means the 119636
amount determined under division (D)(3) of this section.119637

       (11) "Total fixed-rate levy loss" means the sum of the 119638
machinery and equipment fixed-rate levy loss, the inventory 119639
fixed-rate levy loss, the furniture and fixtures fixed-rate levy 119640
loss, and the telephone company fixed-rate levy loss.119641

       (12) "Fixed-sum levy loss" means the amount determined under 119642
division (E) of this section.119643

       (13) "Machinery and equipment" means personal property 119644
subject to the assessment rate specified in division (F) of 119645
section 5711.22 of the Revised Code.119646

       (14) "Inventory" means personal property subject to the 119647
assessment rate specified in division (E) of section 5711.22 of 119648
the Revised Code.119649

       (15) "Furniture and fixtures" means personal property subject 119650
to the assessment rate specified in division (G) of section 119651
5711.22 of the Revised Code.119652

       (16) "Qualifying levies" are levies in effect for tax year 119653
2004 or applicable to tax year 2005 or approved at an election 119654
conducted before September 1, 2005. For the purpose of determining 119655
the rate of a qualifying levy authorized by section 5705.212 or 119656
5705.213 of the Revised Code, the rate shall be the rate that 119657
would be in effect for tax year 2010.119658

       (17) "Telephone property" means tangible personal property of 119659
a telephone, telegraph, or interexchange telecommunications 119660
company subject to an assessment rate specified in section 119661
5727.111 of the Revised Code in tax year 2004.119662

       (18) "Telephone property tax value loss" means the amount 119663
determined under division (C)(4) of this section.119664

       (19) "Telephone property fixed-rate levy loss" means the 119665
amount determined under division (D)(4) of this section.119666

       (20) "Taxes charged and payable" means taxes charged and 119667
payable after the reduction required by section 319.301 of the 119668
Revised Code but before the reductions required by sections 119669
319.302 and 323.152 of the Revised Code.119670

       (21) "Median estate tax collections" means, in the case of a 119671
municipal corporation to which revenue from the taxes levied in 119672
Chapter 5731. of the Revised Code was distributed in each of 119673
calendar years 2006, 2007, 2008, and 2009, the median of those 119674
distributions. In the case of a municipal corporation to which no 119675
distributions were made in one or more of those years, "median 119676
estate tax collections" means zero. 119677

       (22) "Total resources," in the case of a school district, 119678
means the sum of the amounts in divisions (A)(22)(a) to (h) of 119679
this section less any reduction required under division (A)(32) or 119680
(33) of this section.119681

       (a) The state education aid for fiscal year 2010; 119682

       (b) The sum of the payments received by the school district 119683
in fiscal year 2010 for current expense levy losses pursuant to 119684
division (C)(2) of section 5727.85 and divisions (C)(8) and (9) of 119685
section 5751.21 of the Revised Code, excluding the portion of such 119686
payments attributable to levies for joint vocational school 119687
district purposes; 119688

       (c) The sum of fixed-sum levy loss payments received by the 119689
school district in fiscal year 2010 pursuant to division (E)(1) of 119690
section 5727.85 and division (E)(1) of section 5751.21 of the 119691
Revised Code for fixed-sum levies charged and payable for a 119692
purpose other than paying debt charges; 119693

       (d) Fifty per cent of the school district's taxes charged and 119694
payable against all property on the tax list of real and public 119695
utility property for current expense purposes for tax year 2008, 119696
including taxes charged and payable from emergency levies charged 119697
and payable under section 5709.194 of the Revised Code and 119698
excluding taxes levied for joint vocational school district 119699
purposes;119700

       (e) Fifty per cent of the school district's taxes charged and 119701
payable against all property on the tax list of real and public 119702
utility property for current expenses for tax year 2009, including 119703
taxes charged and payable from emergency levies and excluding 119704
taxes levied for joint vocational school district purposes;119705

       (f) The school district's taxes charged and payable against 119706
all property on the general tax list of personal property for 119707
current expenses for tax year 2009, including taxes charged and 119708
payable from emergency levies;119709

       (g) The amount certified for fiscal year 2010 under division 119710
(A)(2) of section 3317.08 of the Revised Code;119711

       (h) Distributions received during calendar year 2009 from 119712
taxes levied under section 718.09 of the Revised Code.119713

       (23) "Total resources," in the case of a joint vocational 119714
school district, means the sum of amounts in divisions (A)(23)(a) 119715
to (g) of this section less any reduction required under division 119716
(A)(32) of this section.119717

       (a) The state education aid for fiscal year 2010; 119718

       (b) The sum of the payments received by the joint vocational 119719
school district in fiscal year 2010 for current expense levy 119720
losses pursuant to division (C)(2) of section 5727.85 and 119721
divisions (C)(8) and (9) of section 5751.21 of the Revised Code; 119722

       (c) Fifty per cent of the joint vocational school district's 119723
taxes charged and payable against all property on the tax list of 119724
real and public utility property for current expense purposes for 119725
tax year 2008;119726

       (d) Fifty per cent of the joint vocational school district's 119727
taxes charged and payable against all property on the tax list of 119728
real and public utility property for current expenses for tax year 119729
2009;119730

       (e) Fifty per cent of a city, local, or exempted village 119731
school district's taxes charged and payable against all property 119732
on the tax list of real and public utility property for current 119733
expenses of the joint vocational school district for tax year 119734
2008;119735

       (f) Fifty per cent of a city, local, or exempted village 119736
school district's taxes charged and payable against all property 119737
on the tax list of real and public utility property for current 119738
expenses of the joint vocational school district for tax year 119739
2009;119740

       (g) The joint vocational school district's taxes charged and 119741
payable against all property on the general tax list of personal 119742
property for current expenses for tax year 2009.119743

       (24) "Total resources," in the case of county mental health 119744
and disability related functions, means the sum of the amounts in 119745
divisions (A)(24)(a) and (b) of this section less any reduction 119746
required under division (A)(32) of this section.119747

       (a) The sum of the payments received by the county for mental 119748
health and developmental disability related functions in calendar 119749
year 2010 under division (A)(1) of section 5727.86 and divisions 119750
(A)(1) and (2) of section 5751.22 of the Revised Code as they 119751
existed at that time;119752

       (b) With respect to taxes levied by the county for mental 119753
health and developmental disability related purposes, the taxes 119754
charged and payable for such purposes against all property on the 119755
tax list of real and public utility property for tax year 2009.119756

       (25) "Total resources," in the case of county senior services 119757
related functions, means the sum of the amounts in divisions 119758
(A)(25)(a) and (b) of this section less any reduction required 119759
under division (A)(32) of this section. 119760

       (a) The sum of the payments received by the county for senior 119761
services related functions in calendar year 2010 under division 119762
(A)(1) of section 5727.86 and divisions (A)(1) and (2) of section 119763
5751.22 of the Revised Code as they existed at that time; 119764

       (b) With respect to taxes levied by the county for senior 119765
services related purposes, the taxes charged and payable for such 119766
purposes against all property on the tax list of real and public 119767
utility property for tax year 2009. 119768

       (26) "Total resources," in the case of county children's 119769
services related functions, means the sum of the amounts in 119770
divisions (A)(26)(a) and (b) of this section less any reduction 119771
required under division (A)(32) of this section. 119772

       (a) The sum of the payments received by the county for 119773
children's services related functions in calendar year 2010 under 119774
division (A)(1) of section 5727.86 and divisions (A)(1) and (2) of 119775
section 5751.22 of the Revised Code as they existed at that time; 119776

       (b) With respect to taxes levied by the county for children's 119777
services related purposes, the taxes charged and payable for such 119778
purposes against all property on the tax list of real and public 119779
utility property for tax year 2009. 119780

       (27) "Total resources," in the case of county public health 119781
related functions, means the sum of the amounts in divisions 119782
(A)(27)(a) and (b) of this section less any reduction required 119783
under division (A)(32) of this section. 119784

       (a) The sum of the payments received by the county for public 119785
health related functions in calendar year 2010 under division 119786
(A)(1) of section 5727.86 and divisions (A)(1) and (2) of section 119787
5751.22 of the Revised Code as they existed at that time; 119788

       (b) With respect to taxes levied by the county for public 119789
health related purposes, the taxes charged and payable for such 119790
purposes against all property on the tax list of real and public 119791
utility property for tax year 2009. 119792

       (28) "Total resources," in the case of all county functions 119793
not included in divisions (A)(24) to (27) of this section, means 119794
the sum of the amounts in divisions (A)(28)(a) to (d) of this 119795
section less any reduction required under division (A)(32) or (33) 119796
of this section. 119797

       (a) The sum of the payments received by the county for all 119798
other purposes in calendar year 2010 under division (A)(1) of 119799
section 5727.86 and divisions (A)(1) and (2) of section 5751.22 of 119800
the Revised Code as they existed at that time; 119801

       (b) The county's percentage share of county undivided local 119802
government fund allocations as certified to the tax commissioner 119803
for calendar year 2010 by the county auditor under division (J) of 119804
section 5747.51 of the Revised Code or division (F) of section 119805
5747.53 of the Revised Code multiplied by the total amount 119806
actually distributed in calendar year 2010 from the county 119807
undivided local government fund; 119808

       (c) With respect to taxes levied by the county for all other 119809
purposes, the taxes charged and payable for such purposes against 119810
all property on the tax list of real and public utility property 119811
for tax year 2009, excluding taxes charged and payable for the 119812
purpose of paying debt charges; 119813

       (d) The sum of the amounts distributed to the county in 119814
calendar year 2010 for the taxes levied pursuant to sections 119815
5739.021 and 5741.021 of the Revised Code. 119816

       (29) "Total resources," in the case of a municipal 119817
corporation, means the sum of the amounts in divisions (A)(29)(a) 119818
to (g) of this section less any reduction required under division 119819
(A)(32) or (33) of this section. 119820

       (a) The sum of the payments received by the municipal 119821
corporation in calendar year 2010 for current expense levy losses 119822
under division (A)(1) of section 5727.86 and divisions (A)(1) and 119823
(2) of section 5751.22 of the Revised Code as they existed at that 119824
time; 119825

       (b) The municipal corporation's percentage share of county 119826
undivided local government fund allocations as certified to the 119827
tax commissioner for calendar year 2010 by the county auditor 119828
under division (J) of section 5747.51 of the Revised Code or 119829
division (F) of section 5747.53 of the Revised Code multiplied by 119830
the total amount actually distributed in calendar year 2010 from 119831
the county undivided local government fund;119832

       (c) The sum of the amounts distributed to the municipal 119833
corporation in calendar year 2010 pursuant to section 5747.50 of 119834
the Revised Code; 119835

       (d) With respect to taxes levied by the municipal 119836
corporation, the taxes charged and payable against all property on 119837
the tax list of real and public utility property for current 119838
expenses, defined in division (A)(35) of this section, for tax 119839
year 2009; 119840

       (e) The amount of admissions tax collected by the municipal 119841
corporation in calendar year 2008, or if such information has not 119842
yet been reported to the tax commissioner, in the most recent year 119843
before 2008 for which the municipal corporation has reported data 119844
to the commissioner; 119845

       (f) The amount of income taxes collected by the municipal 119846
corporation in calendar year 2008, or if such information has not 119847
yet been reported to the tax commissioner, in the most recent year 119848
before 2008 for which the municipal corporation has reported data 119849
to the commissioner;119850

       (g) The municipal corporation's median estate tax 119851
collections.119852

       (30) "Total resources," in the case of a township, means the 119853
sum of the amounts in divisions (A)(30)(a) to (c) of this section 119854
less any reduction required under division (A)(32) or (33) of this 119855
section. 119856

       (a) The sum of the payments received by the township in 119857
calendar year 2010 pursuant to division (A)(1) of section 5727.86 119858
of the Revised Code and divisions (A)(1) and (2) of section 119859
5751.22 of the Revised Code as they existed at that time, 119860
excluding payments received for debt purposes;119861

       (b) The township's percentage share of county undivided local 119862
government fund allocations as certified to the tax commissioner 119863
for calendar year 2010 by the county auditor under division (J) of 119864
section 5747.51 of the Revised Code or division (F) of section 119865
5747.53 of the Revised Code multiplied by the total amount 119866
actually distributed in calendar year 2010 from the county 119867
undivided local government fund; 119868

       (c) With respect to taxes levied by the township, the taxes 119869
charged and payable against all property on the tax list of real 119870
and public utility property for tax year 2009 excluding taxes 119871
charged and payable for the purpose of paying debt charges.119872

       (31) "Total resources," in the case of a local taxing unit 119873
that is not a county, municipal corporation, or township, means 119874
the sum of the amounts in divisions (A)(31)(a) to (e) of this 119875
section less any reduction required under division (A)(32) of this 119876
section.119877

       (a) The sum of the payments received by the local taxing unit 119878
in calendar year 2010 pursuant to division (A)(1) of section 119879
5727.86 of the Revised Code and divisions (A)(1) and (2) of 119880
section 5751.22 of the Revised Code as they existed at that time;119881

       (b) The local taxing unit's percentage share of county 119882
undivided local government fund allocations as certified to the 119883
tax commissioner for calendar year 2010 by the county auditor 119884
under division (J) of section 5747.51 of the Revised Code or 119885
division (F) of section 5747.53 of the Revised Code multiplied by 119886
the total amount actually distributed in calendar year 2010 from 119887
the county undivided local government fund; 119888

       (c) With respect to taxes levied by the local taxing unit, 119889
the taxes charged and payable against all property on the tax list 119890
of real and public utility property for tax year 2009 excluding 119891
taxes charged and payable for the purpose of paying debt charges;119892

       (d) The amount received from the tax commissioner during 119893
calendar year 2010 for sales or use taxes authorized under 119894
sections 5739.023 and 5741.022 of the Revised Code;119895

       (e) For institutions of higher education receiving tax 119896
revenue from a local levy, as identified in section 3358.02 of the 119897
Revised Code, the final state share of instruction allocation for 119898
fiscal year 2010 as calculated by the board of regents and 119899
reported to the state controlling board.119900

       (32) If a fixed-rate levy that is a qualifying levy is not 119901
charged and payable in any year after tax year 2010, "total 119902
resources" used to compute payments to be made under division 119903
(C)(12) of section 5751.21 or division (A)(1)(b) or (c) of section 119904
5751.22 of the Revised Code in the tax years following the last 119905
year the levy is charged and payable shall be reduced to the 119906
extent that the payments are attributable to the fixed-rate levy 119907
loss of that levy as would be computed under division (C)(2) of 119908
section 5727.85, division (A)(1) of section 5727.85, divisions 119909
(C)(8) and (9) of section 5751.21, or division (A)(1) of section 119910
5751.22 of the Revised Code.119911

       (33) In the case of a county, municipal corporation, school 119912
district, or township with fixed-rate levy losses attributable to 119913
a tax levied under section 5705.23 of the Revised Code, "total 119914
resources" used to compute payments to be made under division 119915
(C)(3) of section 5727.85, division (A)(1)(d) of section 5727.86, 119916
division (C)(12) of section 5751.21, or division (A)(1)(c) of 119917
section 5751.22 of the Revised Code shall be reduced by the 119918
amounts described in divisions (A)(34)(a) to (c) of this section 119919
to the extent that those amounts were included in calculating the 119920
"total resources" of the school district or local taxing unit 119921
under division (A)(22), (28), (29), or (30) of this section.119922

        (34) "Total library resources," in the case of a county, 119923
municipal corporation, school district, or township public library 119924
that receives the proceeds of a tax levied under section 5705.23 119925
of the Revised Code, means the sum of the amounts in divisions 119926
(A)(34)(a) to (c) of this section less any reduction required 119927
under division (A)(32) of this section.119928

        (a) The sum of the payments received by the county, municipal 119929
corporation, school district, or township public library in 119930
calendar year 2010 pursuant to sections 5727.86 and 5751.22 of the 119931
Revised Code, as they existed at that time, for fixed-rate levy 119932
losses attributable to a tax levied under section 5705.23 of the 119933
Revised Code for the benefit of the public library;119934

        (b) The public library's percentage share of county undivided 119935
local government fund allocations as certified to the tax 119936
commissioner for calendar year 2010 by the county auditor under 119937
division (J) of section 5747.51 of the Revised Code or division 119938
(F) of section 5747.53 of the Revised Code multiplied by the total 119939
amount actually distributed in calendar year 2010 from the county 119940
undivided local government fund;119941

        (c) With respect to a tax levied pursuant to section 5705.23 119942
of the Revised Code for the benefit of the public library, the 119943
amount of such tax that is charged and payable against all 119944
property on the tax list of real and public utility property for 119945
tax year 2009 excluding any tax that is charged and payable for 119946
the purpose of paying debt charges.119947

        (35) "Municipal current expense property tax levies" means 119948
all property tax levies of a municipality, except those with the 119949
following levy names: airport resurfacing; bond or any levy name 119950
including the word "bond"; capital improvement or any levy name 119951
including the word "capital"; debt or any levy name including the 119952
word "debt"; equipment or any levy name including the word 119953
"equipment," unless the levy is for combined operating and 119954
equipment; employee termination fund; fire pension or any levy 119955
containing the word "pension," including police pensions; 119956
fireman's fund or any practically similar name; sinking fund; road 119957
improvements or any levy containing the word "road"; fire truck or 119958
apparatus; flood or any levy containing the word "flood"; 119959
conservancy district; county health; note retirement; sewage, or 119960
any levy containing the words "sewage" or "sewer"; park 119961
improvement; parkland acquisition; storm drain; street or any levy 119962
name containing the word "street"; lighting, or any levy name 119963
containing the word "lighting"; and water.119964

       (36) "Current expense TPP allocation" means, in the case of a 119965
school district or joint vocational school district, the sum of 119966
the payments received by the school district in fiscal year 2011 119967
pursuant to divisions (C)(10) and (11) of section 5751.21 of the 119968
Revised Code to the extent paid for current expense levies. In the 119969
case of a municipal corporation, "current expense TPP allocation" 119970
means the sum of the payments received by the municipal 119971
corporation in calendar year 2010 pursuant to divisions (A)(1) and 119972
(2) of section 5751.22 of the Revised Code to the extent paid for 119973
municipal current expense property tax levies as defined in 119974
division (A)(35) of this section, excluding any such payments 119975
received for current expense levy losses attributable to a tax 119976
levied under section 5705.23 of the Revised Code. If a fixed-rate 119977
levy that is a qualifying levy is not charged and payable in any 119978
year after tax year 2010, "current expense TPP allocation" used to 119979
compute payments to be made under division (C)(12) of section 119980
5751.21 or division (A)(1)(b) or (c) of section 5751.22 of the 119981
Revised Code in the tax years following the last year the levy is 119982
charged and payable shall be reduced to the extent that the 119983
payments are attributable to the fixed-rate levy loss of that levy 119984
as would be computed under divisions (C)(10) and (11) of section 119985
5751.21 or division (A)(1) of section 5751.22 of the Revised Code.119986

       (37) "TPP allocation" means the sum of payments received by a 119987
local taxing unit in calendar year 2010 pursuant to divisions 119988
(A)(1) and (2) of section 5751.22 of the Revised Code, excluding 119989
any such payments received for fixed-rate levy losses attributable 119990
to a tax levied under section 5705.23 of the Revised Code. If a 119991
fixed-rate levy that is a qualifying levy is not charged and 119992
payable in any year after tax year 2010, "TPP allocation" used to 119993
compute payments to be made under division (A)(1)(b) or (c) of 119994
section 5751.22 of the Revised Code in the tax years following the 119995
last year the levy is charged and payable shall be reduced to the 119996
extent that the payments are attributable to the fixed-rate levy 119997
loss of that levy as would be computed under division (A)(1) of 119998
that section.119999

       (38) "Total TPP allocation" means, in the case of a school 120000
district or joint vocational school district, the sum of the 120001
amounts received in fiscal year 2011 pursuant to divisions (C)(10) 120002
and (11) and (D) of section 5751.21 of the Revised Code. In the 120003
case of a local taxing unit, "total TPP allocation" means the sum 120004
of payments received by the unit in calendar year 2010 pursuant to 120005
divisions (A)(1), (2), and (3) of section 5751.22 of the Revised 120006
Code. If a fixed-rate levy that is a qualifying levy is not 120007
charged and payable in any year after tax year 2010, "total TPP 120008
allocation" used to compute payments to be made under division 120009
(C)(12) of section 5751.21 or division (A)(1)(b) or (c) of section 120010
5751.22 of the Revised Code in the tax years following the last 120011
year the levy is charged and payable shall be reduced to the 120012
extent that the payments are attributable to the fixed-rate levy 120013
loss of that levy as would be computed under divisions (C)(10) and 120014
(11) of section 5751.21 or division (A)(1) of section 5751.22 of 120015
the Revised Code.120016

       (39) "Non-current expense TPP allocation" means the 120017
difference of total TPP allocation minus the sum of current 120018
expense TPP allocation and the portion of total TPP allocation 120019
constituting reimbursement for debt levies, pursuant to division 120020
(D) of section 5751.21 of the Revised Code in the case of a school 120021
district or joint vocational school district and pursuant to 120022
division (A)(3) of section 5751.22 of the Revised Code in the case 120023
of a municipal corporation. 120024

       (40) "TPP allocation for library purposes" means the sum of 120025
payments received by a county, municipal corporation, school 120026
district, or township public library in calendar year 2010 120027
pursuant to section 5751.22 of the Revised Code for fixed-rate 120028
levy losses attributable to a tax levied under section 5705.23 of 120029
the Revised Code. If a fixed-rate levy authorized under section 120030
5705.23 of the Revised Code that is a qualifying levy is not 120031
charged and payable in any year after tax year 2010, "TPP 120032
allocation for library purposes" used to compute payments to be 120033
made under division (A)(1)(d) of section 5751.22 of the Revised 120034
Code in the tax years following the last year the levy is charged 120035
and payable shall be reduced to the extent that the payments are 120036
attributable to the fixed-rate levy loss of that levy as would be 120037
computed under division (A)(1) of section 5751.22 of the Revised 120038
Code.120039

        (41) "Threshold per cent" means, in the case of a school 120040
district or joint vocational school district, two per cent for 120041
fiscal year 2012 and four per cent for fiscal years 2013 and 120042
thereafter. In the case of a local taxing unit or public library 120043
that receives the proceeds of a tax levied under section 5705.23 120044
of the Revised Code, "threshold per cent" means two per cent for 120045
tax year 2011, four per cent for tax year 2012, and six per cent 120046
for tax years 2013 and thereafter.120047

       (B)(1) The commercial activities tax receipts fund is hereby 120048
created in the state treasury and shall consist of money arising 120049
from the tax imposed under this chapter. Eighty-five 120050
one-hundredths of one per cent of the money credited to that fund 120051
shall be credited to the revenue enhancement fund and shall be 120052
used to defray the costs incurred by the department of taxation in 120053
administering the tax imposed by this chapter and in implementing 120054
tax reform measures. The remainder of the money in the commercial 120055
activities tax receipts fund shall first be credited to the 120056
commercial activity tax motor fuel receipts fund, pursuant to 120057
division (B)(2) of this section, and the remainder shall be 120058
credited in the following percentages each fiscal year to the 120059
general revenue fund, to the school district tangible property tax 120060
replacement fund, which is hereby created in the state treasury 120061
for the purpose of making the payments described in section 120062
5751.21 of the Revised Code, and to the local government tangible 120063
property tax replacement fund, which is hereby created in the 120064
state treasury for the purpose of making the payments described in 120065
section 5751.22 of the Revised Code, in the following percentages:120066

Fiscal year General Revenue Fund School District Tangible Property Tax Replacement Fund Local Government Tangible Property Tax Replacement Fund 120067
2006 67.7% 22.6% 9.7% 120068
2007 0% 70.0% 30.0% 120069
2008 0% 70.0% 30.0% 120070
2009 0% 70.0% 30.0% 120071
2010 0% 70.0% 30.0% 120072
2011 0% 70.0% 30.0% 120073
2012 25.0% 52.5% 22.5% 120074
2013 and thereafter 50.0% 35.0% 15.0% 120075

       (2) Not later than the twentieth day of February, May, 120076
August, and November of each year, the commissioner shall provide 120077
for payment from the commercial activities tax receipts fund to 120078
the commercial activity tax motor fuel receipts fund an amount 120079
that bears the same ratio to the balance in the commercial 120080
activities tax receipts fund that (a) the taxable gross receipts 120081
attributed to motor fuel used for propelling vehicles on public 120082
highways as indicated by returns filed by the tenth day of that 120083
month for a liability that is due and payable on or after July 1, 120084
2013, bears to (b) all taxable gross receipts as indicated by 120085
those returns for such liabilities.120086

       (C) Not later than September 15, 2005, the tax commissioner 120087
shall determine for each school district, joint vocational school 120088
district, and local taxing unit its machinery and equipment, 120089
inventory property, furniture and fixtures property, and telephone 120090
property tax value losses, which are the applicable amounts 120091
described in divisions (C)(1), (2), (3), and (4) of this section, 120092
except as provided in division (C)(5) of this section:120093

       (1) Machinery and equipment property tax value loss is the 120094
taxable value of machinery and equipment property as reported by 120095
taxpayers for tax year 2004 multiplied by:120096

       (a) For tax year 2006, thirty-three and eight-tenths per 120097
cent;120098

       (b) For tax year 2007, sixty-one and three-tenths per cent;120099

       (c) For tax year 2008, eighty-three per cent;120100

       (d) For tax year 2009 and thereafter, one hundred per cent.120101

       (2) Inventory property tax value loss is the taxable value of 120102
inventory property as reported by taxpayers for tax year 2004 120103
multiplied by:120104

       (a) For tax year 2006, a fraction, the numerator of which is 120105
five and three-fourths and the denominator of which is 120106
twenty-three;120107

        (b) For tax year 2007, a fraction, the numerator of which is 120108
nine and one-half and the denominator of which is twenty-three;120109

        (c) For tax year 2008, a fraction, the numerator of which is 120110
thirteen and one-fourth and the denominator of which is 120111
twenty-three;120112

        (d) For tax year 2009 and thereafter a fraction, the 120113
numerator of which is seventeen and the denominator of which is 120114
twenty-three.120115

        (3) Furniture and fixtures property tax value loss is the 120116
taxable value of furniture and fixture property as reported by 120117
taxpayers for tax year 2004 multiplied by:120118

        (a) For tax year 2006, twenty-five per cent;120119

        (b) For tax year 2007, fifty per cent;120120

        (c) For tax year 2008, seventy-five per cent;120121

        (d) For tax year 2009 and thereafter, one hundred per cent.120122

       The taxable value of property reported by taxpayers used in 120123
divisions (C)(1), (2), and (3) of this section shall be such 120124
values as determined to be final by the tax commissioner as of 120125
August 31, 2005. Such determinations shall be final except for any 120126
correction of a clerical error that was made prior to August 31, 120127
2005, by the tax commissioner.120128

       (4) Telephone property tax value loss is the taxable value of 120129
telephone property as taxpayers would have reported that property 120130
for tax year 2004 if the assessment rate for all telephone 120131
property for that year were twenty-five per cent, multiplied by:120132

       (a) For tax year 2006, zero per cent;120133

       (b) For tax year 2007, zero per cent;120134

       (c) For tax year 2008, zero per cent;120135

       (d) For tax year 2009, sixty per cent;120136

       (e) For tax year 2010, eighty per cent;120137

       (f) For tax year 2011 and thereafter, one hundred per cent.120138

       (5) Division (C)(5) of this section applies to any school 120139
district, joint vocational school district, or local taxing unit 120140
in a county in which is located a facility currently or formerly 120141
devoted to the enrichment or commercialization of uranium or 120142
uranium products, and for which the total taxable value of 120143
property listed on the general tax list of personal property for 120144
any tax year from tax year 2001 to tax year 2004 was fifty per 120145
cent or less of the taxable value of such property listed on the 120146
general tax list of personal property for the next preceding tax 120147
year.120148

       In computing the fixed-rate levy losses under divisions 120149
(D)(1), (2), and (3) of this section for any school district, 120150
joint vocational school district, or local taxing unit to which 120151
division (C)(5) of this section applies, the taxable value of such 120152
property as listed on the general tax list of personal property 120153
for tax year 2000 shall be substituted for the taxable value of 120154
such property as reported by taxpayers for tax year 2004, in the 120155
taxing district containing the uranium facility, if the taxable 120156
value listed for tax year 2000 is greater than the taxable value 120157
reported by taxpayers for tax year 2004. For the purpose of making 120158
the computations under divisions (D)(1), (2), and (3) of this 120159
section, the tax year 2000 valuation is to be allocated to 120160
machinery and equipment, inventory, and furniture and fixtures 120161
property in the same proportions as the tax year 2004 values. For 120162
the purpose of the calculations in division (A) of section 5751.21 120163
of the Revised Code, the tax year 2004 taxable values shall be 120164
used.120165

       To facilitate the calculations required under division (C) of 120166
this section, the county auditor, upon request from the tax 120167
commissioner, shall provide by August 1, 2005, the values of 120168
machinery and equipment, inventory, and furniture and fixtures for 120169
all single-county personal property taxpayers for tax year 2004.120170

       (D) Not later than September 15, 2005, the tax commissioner 120171
shall determine for each tax year from 2006 through 2009 for each 120172
school district, joint vocational school district, and local 120173
taxing unit its machinery and equipment, inventory, and furniture 120174
and fixtures fixed-rate levy losses, and for each tax year from 120175
2006 through 2011 its telephone property fixed-rate levy loss. 120176
Except as provided in division (F) of this section, such losses 120177
are the applicable amounts described in divisions (D)(1), (2), 120178
(3), and (4) of this section:120179

       (1) The machinery and equipment fixed-rate levy loss is the 120180
machinery and equipment property tax value loss multiplied by the 120181
sum of the tax rates of fixed-rate qualifying levies.120182

       (2) The inventory fixed-rate loss is the inventory property 120183
tax value loss multiplied by the sum of the tax rates of 120184
fixed-rate qualifying levies.120185

        (3) The furniture and fixtures fixed-rate levy loss is the 120186
furniture and fixture property tax value loss multiplied by the 120187
sum of the tax rates of fixed-rate qualifying levies.120188

       (4) The telephone property fixed-rate levy loss is the 120189
telephone property tax value loss multiplied by the sum of the tax 120190
rates of fixed-rate qualifying levies.120191

       (E) Not later than September 15, 2005, the tax commissioner 120192
shall determine for each school district, joint vocational school 120193
district, and local taxing unit its fixed-sum levy loss. The 120194
fixed-sum levy loss is the amount obtained by subtracting the 120195
amount described in division (E)(2) of this section from the 120196
amount described in division (E)(1) of this section:120197

       (1) The sum of the machinery and equipment property tax value 120198
loss, the inventory property tax value loss, and the furniture and 120199
fixtures property tax value loss, and, for 2008 through 2010, the 120200
telephone property tax value loss of the district or unit 120201
multiplied by the sum of the fixed-sum tax rates of qualifying 120202
levies. For 2006 through 2010, this computation shall include all 120203
qualifying levies remaining in effect for the current tax year and 120204
any school district levies charged and payable under section 120205
5705.194 or 5705.213 of the Revised Code that are qualifying 120206
levies not remaining in effect for the current year. For 2011 120207
through 2017 in the case of school district levies charged and 120208
payable under section 5705.194 or 5705.213 of the Revised Code and 120209
for all years after 2010 in the case of other fixed-sum levies, 120210
this computation shall include only qualifying levies remaining in 120211
effect for the current year. For purposes of this computation, a 120212
qualifying school district levy charged and payable under section 120213
5705.194 or 5705.213 of the Revised Code remains in effect in a 120214
year after 2010 only if, for that year, the board of education 120215
levies a school district levy charged and payable under section 120216
5705.194, 5705.199, 5705.213, or 5705.219 of the Revised Code for 120217
an annual sum at least equal to the annual sum levied by the board 120218
in tax year 2004 less the amount of the payment certified under 120219
this division for 2006.120220

       (2) The total taxable value in tax year 2004 less the sum of 120221
the machinery and equipment, inventory, furniture and fixtures, 120222
and telephone property tax value losses in each school district, 120223
joint vocational school district, and local taxing unit multiplied 120224
by one-half of one mill per dollar.120225

       (3) For the calculations in divisions (E)(1) and (2) of this 120226
section, the tax value losses are those that would be calculated 120227
for tax year 2009 under divisions (C)(1), (2), and (3) of this 120228
section and for tax year 2011 under division (C)(4) of this 120229
section.120230

       (4) To facilitate the calculation under divisions (D) and (E) 120231
of this section, not later than September 1, 2005, any school 120232
district, joint vocational school district, or local taxing unit 120233
that has a qualifying levy that was approved at an election 120234
conducted during 2005 before September 1, 2005, shall certify to 120235
the tax commissioner a copy of the county auditor's certificate of 120236
estimated property tax millage for such levy as required under 120237
division (B) of section 5705.03 of the Revised Code, which is the 120238
rate that shall be used in the calculations under such divisions.120239

       If the amount determined under division (E) of this section 120240
for any school district, joint vocational school district, or 120241
local taxing unit is greater than zero, that amount shall equal 120242
the reimbursement to be paid pursuant to division (E) of section 120243
5751.21 or division (A)(3) of section 5751.22 of the Revised Code, 120244
and the one-half of one mill that is subtracted under division 120245
(E)(2) of this section shall be apportioned among all contributing 120246
fixed-sum levies in the proportion that each levy bears to the sum 120247
of all fixed-sum levies within each school district, joint 120248
vocational school district, or local taxing unit.120249

       (F) If a school district levies a tax under section 5705.219 120250
of the Revised Code, the fixed-rate levy loss for qualifying 120251
levies, to the extent repealed under that section, shall equal the 120252
sum of the following amounts in lieu of the amounts computed for 120253
such levies under division (D) of this section:120254

       (1) The sum of the rates of qualifying levies to the extent 120255
so repealed multiplied by the sum of the machinery and equipment, 120256
inventory, and furniture and fixtures tax value losses for 2009 as 120257
determined under that division;120258

       (2) The sum of the rates of qualifying levies to the extent 120259
so repealed multiplied by the telephone property tax value loss 120260
for 2011 as determined under that division.120261

       The fixed-rate levy losses for qualifying levies to the 120262
extent not repealed under section 5705.219 of the Revised Code 120263
shall be as determined under division (D) of this section. The 120264
revised fixed-rate levy losses determined under this division and 120265
division (D) of this section first apply in the year following the 120266
first year the district levies the tax under section 5705.219 of 120267
the Revised Code.120268

       (G) Not later than October 1, 2005, the tax commissioner 120269
shall certify to the department of education for every school 120270
district and joint vocational school district the machinery and 120271
equipment, inventory, furniture and fixtures, and telephone 120272
property tax value losses determined under division (C) of this 120273
section, the machinery and equipment, inventory, furniture and 120274
fixtures, and telephone fixed-rate levy losses determined under 120275
division (D) of this section, and the fixed-sum levy losses 120276
calculated under division (E) of this section. The calculations 120277
under divisions (D) and (E) of this section shall separately 120278
display the levy loss for each levy eligible for reimbursement.120279

       (H) Not later than October 1, 2005, the tax commissioner 120280
shall certify the amount of the fixed-sum levy losses to the 120281
county auditor of each county in which a school district, joint 120282
vocational school district, or local taxing unit with a fixed-sum 120283
levy loss reimbursement has territory.120284

       (I) Not later than the twenty-eighth day of February each 120285
year beginning in 2011 and ending in 2014, the tax commissioner 120286
shall certify to the department of education for each school 120287
district first levying a tax under section 5705.219 of the Revised 120288
Code in the preceding year the revised fixed-rate levy losses 120289
determined under divisions (D) and (F) of this section.120290

       (J) There is hereby created in the state treasury the 120291
commercial activity tax motor fuel receipts fund.120292

       Sec. 5751.21.  (A) Not later than the thirtieth day of July 120293
of 2007 through 2010, the department of education shall consult 120294
with the director of budget and management and determine the 120295
following for each school district and each joint vocational 120296
school district eligible for payment under division (B) of this 120297
section:120298

       (1) The state education aid offset, which, except as provided 120299
in division (A)(1)(c) of this section, is the difference obtained 120300
by subtracting the amount described in division (A)(1)(b) of this 120301
section from the amount described in division (A)(1)(a) of this 120302
section:120303

       (a) The state education aid computed for the school district 120304
or joint vocational school district for the current fiscal year as 120305
of the thirtieth day of July;120306

       (b) The state education aid that would be computed for the 120307
school district or joint vocational school district for the 120308
current fiscal year as of the thirtieth day of July if the 120309
valuation used in the calculation in division (B)(1) of section 120310
3306.13 of the Revised Code as that division existed for fiscal 120311
years 2010 and 2011 included the machinery and equipment, 120312
inventory, furniture and fixtures, and telephone property tax 120313
value losses for the school district or joint vocational school 120314
district for the second preceding tax year, and if taxes charged 120315
and payable associated with the tax value losses are accounted for 120316
in any state education aid computation dependent on taxes charged 120317
and payable.120318

       (c) The state education aid offset for fiscal year 2010 and 120319
fiscal year 2011 equals the greater of the state education aid 120320
offset calculated for that fiscal year under divisions (A)(1)(a) 120321
and (b) of this section and the state education aid offset 120322
calculated for fiscal year 2009. For fiscal year 2012 and 2013, 120323
the state education aid offset equals the state education aid 120324
offset for fiscal year 2011.120325

       (2) For fiscal years 2008 through 2011, the greater of zero 120326
or the difference obtained by subtracting the state education aid 120327
offset determined under division (A)(1) of this section from the 120328
sum of the machinery and equipment fixed-rate levy loss, the 120329
inventory fixed-rate levy loss, furniture and fixtures fixed-rate 120330
levy loss, and telephone property fixed-rate levy loss certified 120331
under divisions (G) and (I) of section 5751.20 of the Revised Code 120332
for all taxing districts in each school district and joint 120333
vocational school district for the second preceding tax year.120334

       By the thirtieth day of July of each such year, the 120335
department of education and the director of budget and management 120336
shall agree upon the amount to be determined under division (A)(1) 120337
of this section.120338

       (B) On or before the thirty-first day of August of 2008, 120339
2009, and 2010, the department of education shall recalculate the 120340
offset described under division (A) of this section for the 120341
previous fiscal year and recalculate the payments made under 120342
division (C) of this section in the preceding fiscal year using 120343
the offset calculated under this division. If the payments 120344
calculated under this division differ from the payments made under 120345
division (C) of this section in the preceding fiscal year, the 120346
difference shall either be paid to a school district or recaptured 120347
from a school district through an adjustment at the same times 120348
during the current fiscal year that the payments under division 120349
(C) of this section are made. In August and October of the current 120350
fiscal year, the amount of each adjustment shall be three-sevenths 120351
of the amount calculated under this division. In May of the 120352
current fiscal year, the adjustment shall be one-seventh of the 120353
amount calculated under this division.120354

       (C) The department of education shall pay from the school 120355
district tangible property tax replacement fund to each school 120356
district and joint vocational school district all of the following 120357
for fixed-rate levy losses certified under divisions (G) and (I) 120358
of section 5751.20 of the Revised Code:120359

       (1) On or before May 31, 2006, one-seventh of the total 120360
fixed-rate levy loss for tax year 2006;120361

       (2) On or before August 31, 2006, and October 31, 2006, 120362
one-half of six-sevenths of the total fixed-rate levy loss for tax 120363
year 2006;120364

       (3) On or before May 31, 2007, one-seventh of the total 120365
fixed-rate levy loss for tax year 2007;120366

       (4) On or before August 31, 2007, and October 31, 2007, 120367
forty-three per cent of the amount determined under division 120368
(A)(2) of this section for fiscal year 2008, but not less than 120369
zero, plus one-half of six-sevenths of the difference between the 120370
total fixed-rate levy loss for tax year 2007 and the total 120371
fixed-rate levy loss for tax year 2006.120372

       (5) On or before May 31, 2008, fourteen per cent of the 120373
amount determined under division (A)(2) of this section for fiscal 120374
year 2008, but not less than zero, plus one-seventh of the 120375
difference between the total fixed-rate levy loss for tax year 120376
2008 and the total fixed-rate levy loss for tax year 2006.120377

       (6) On or before August 31, 2008, and October 31, 2008, 120378
forty-three per cent of the amount determined under division 120379
(A)(2) of this section for fiscal year 2009, but not less than 120380
zero, plus one-half of six-sevenths of the difference between the 120381
total fixed-rate levy loss in tax year 2008 and the total 120382
fixed-rate levy loss in tax year 2007.120383

       (7) On or before May 31, 2009, fourteen per cent of the 120384
amount determined under division (A)(2) of this section for fiscal 120385
year 2009, but not less than zero, plus one-seventh of the 120386
difference between the total fixed-rate levy loss for tax year 120387
2009 and the total fixed-rate levy loss for tax year 2007.120388

       (8) On or before August 31, 2009, and October 31, 2009, 120389
forty-three per cent of the amount determined under division 120390
(A)(2) of this section for fiscal year 2010, but not less than 120391
zero, plus one-half of six-sevenths of the difference between the 120392
total fixed-rate levy loss in tax year 2009 and the total 120393
fixed-rate levy loss in tax year 2008.120394

       (9) On or before May 31, 2010, fourteen per cent of the 120395
amount determined under division (A)(2) of this section for fiscal 120396
year 2010, but not less than zero, plus one-seventh of the 120397
difference between the total fixed-rate levy loss in tax year 2010 120398
and the total fixed-rate levy loss in tax year 2008.120399

       (10) On or before August 31, 2010, and October 31, 2010, 120400
forty-three per cent of the amount determined under division 120401
(A)(2) of this section for fiscal year 2011, but not less than 120402
zero, plus one-half of six-sevenths of the difference between the 120403
telephone property fixed-rate levy loss for tax year 2010 and the 120404
telephone property fixed-rate levy loss for tax year 2009.120405

       (11) On or before May 31, 2011, fourteen per cent of the 120406
amount determined under division (A)(2) of this section for fiscal 120407
year 2011, but not less than zero, plus one-seventh of the 120408
difference between the telephone property fixed-rate levy loss for 120409
tax year 2011 and the telephone property fixed-rate levy loss for 120410
tax year 2009.120411

       (12) For fiscal years 2012 and thereafter, the sum of the 120412
amounts in divisions (C)(12)(a) or (b) and (c) of this section 120413
shall be paid on or before the twentiethlast day of November and 120414
the last day of May:120415

       (a) If the ratio of current expense TPP allocation to total 120416
resources is equal to or less than the threshold per cent, zero;120417

       (b) If the ratio of current expense TPP allocation to total 120418
resources is greater than the threshold per cent, fifty per cent 120419
of the difference of current expense TPP allocation minus the 120420
product of total resources multiplied by the threshold per cent;120421

       (c) Fifty per cent of the product of non-current expense TPP 120422
allocation multiplied by seventy-five per cent for fiscal year 120423
2012 and fifty per cent for fiscal years 2013 and thereafter.120424

       The department of education shall report to each school 120425
district and joint vocational school district the apportionment of 120426
the payments among the school district's or joint vocational 120427
school district's funds based on the certifications under 120428
divisions (G) and (I) of section 5751.20 of the Revised Code.120429

       (D) For taxes levied within the ten-mill limitation for debt 120430
purposes in tax year 2005, payments shall be made equal to one 120431
hundred per cent of the loss computed as if the tax were a 120432
fixed-rate levy, but those payments shall extend from fiscal year 120433
2006 through fiscal year 2018, as long as the qualifying levy 120434
continues to be used for debt purposes. If the purpose of such a 120435
qualifying levy is changed, that levy becomes subject to the 120436
payments determined in division (C) of this section.120437

       (E)(1) Not later than January 1, 2006, for each fixed-sum 120438
levy of each school district or joint vocational school district 120439
and for each year for which a determination is made under division 120440
(E) of section 5751.20 of the Revised Code that a fixed-sum levy 120441
loss is to be reimbursed, the tax commissioner shall certify to 120442
the department of education the fixed-sum levy loss determined 120443
under that division. The certification shall cover a time period 120444
sufficient to include all fixed-sum levies for which the 120445
commissioner made such a determination. On or before the last day 120446
of May of the current year, the department shall pay from the 120447
school district property tax replacement fund to the school 120448
district or joint vocational school district one-third of the 120449
fixed-sum levy loss so certified, plus one-third of the amount 120450
certified under division (I) of section 5751.20 of the Revised 120451
Code, and on or before the twentiethlast day of November, 120452
two-thirds of the fixed-sum levy loss so certified, plus 120453
two-thirds of the amount certified under division (I) of section 120454
5751.20 of the Revised Code. Payments under this division of the 120455
amounts certified under division (I) of section 5751.20 of the 120456
Revised Code shall continue until the levy adopted under section 120457
5705.219 of the Revised Code expires.120458

       (2) Beginning in 2006, by the first day of January of each 120459
year, the tax commissioner shall review the certification 120460
originally made under division (E)(1) of this section. If the 120461
commissioner determines that a debt levy that had been scheduled 120462
to be reimbursed in the current year has expired, a revised 120463
certification for that and all subsequent years shall be made to 120464
the department of education.120465

       (F) Beginning in September 2007 and through June 2013, the 120466
director of budget and management shall transfer from the school 120467
district tangible property tax replacement fund to the general 120468
revenue fund each of the following:120469

       (1) On the first day of September, one-fourth of the amount 120470
determined for that fiscal year under division (A)(1) of this 120471
section;120472

       (2) On the first day of December, one-fourth of the amount 120473
determined for that fiscal year under division (A)(1) of this 120474
section;120475

       (3) On the first day of March, one-fourth of the amount 120476
determined for that fiscal year under division (A)(1) of this 120477
section;120478

       (4) On the first day of June, one-fourth of the amount 120479
determined for that fiscal year under division (A)(1) of this 120480
section.120481

       If, when a transfer is required under division (F)(1), (2), 120482
(3), or (4) of this section, there is not sufficient money in the 120483
school district tangible property tax replacement fund to make the 120484
transfer in the required amount, the director shall transfer the 120485
balance in the fund to the general revenue fund and may make 120486
additional transfers on later dates as determined by the director 120487
in a total amount that does not exceed one-fourth of the amount 120488
determined for the fiscal year.120489

       (G) If the total amount in the school district tangible 120490
property tax replacement fund is insufficient to make all payments 120491
under divisions (C), (D), and (E) of this section at the times the 120492
payments are to be made, the director of budget and management 120493
shall transfer from the general revenue fund to the school 120494
district tangible property tax replacement fund the difference 120495
between the total amount to be paid and the amount in the school 120496
district tangible property tax replacement fund. 120497

       (H) On the fifteenth day of June of each year, the director 120498
of budget and management may transfer any balance in the school 120499
district tangible property tax replacement fund to the general 120500
revenue fund. 120501

       (I) If all of the territory of a school district or joint 120502
vocational school district is merged with another district, or if 120503
a part of the territory of a school district or joint vocational 120504
school district is transferred to an existing or newly created 120505
district, the department of education, in consultation with the 120506
tax commissioner, shall adjust the payments made under this 120507
section as follows:120508

       (1) For a merger of two or more districts, the fixed-sum levy 120509
losses, total resources, current expense TPP allocation, total TPP 120510
allocation, and non-current expense TPP allocation of the 120511
successor district shall be the sum of such items for each of the 120512
districts involved in the merger.120513

       (2) If property is transferred from one district to a 120514
previously existing district, the amount of total resources, 120515
current expense TPP allocation, total TPP allocation, and 120516
non-current expense TPP allocation that shall be transferred to 120517
the recipient district shall be an amount equal to total 120518
resources, current expense TPP allocation, total TPP allocation, 120519
and non-current expense TPP allocation of the transferor district 120520
times a fraction, the numerator of which is the number of pupils 120521
being transferred to the recipient district, measured, in the case 120522
of a school district, by average daily membership as reported 120523
under division (A) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code or, in 120524
the case of a joint vocational school district, by formula ADM as 120525
reported in division (D) of that section, and the denominator of 120526
which is the average daily membership or formula ADM of the 120527
transferor district.120528

       (3) After December 31, 2010, if property is transferred from 120529
one or more districts to a district that is newly created out of 120530
the transferred property, the newly created district shall be 120531
deemed not to have any total resources, current expense TPP 120532
allocation, total TPP allocation, or non-current expense TPP 120533
allocation.120534

       (4) If the recipient district under division (I)(2) of this 120535
section or the newly created district under division (I)(3) of 120536
this section is assuming debt from one or more of the districts 120537
from which the property was transferred and any of the districts 120538
losing the property had fixed-sum levy losses, the department of 120539
education, in consultation with the tax commissioner, shall make 120540
an equitable division of the fixed-sum levy loss reimbursements.120541

       Sec. 5753.01.  As used in Chapter 5753. of the Revised Code 120542
and for no other purpose under Title LVII of the Revised Code:120543

       (A) "Casino facility" has the same meaning as in section 120544
3772.01 of the Revised Code.120545

       (B) "Casino gaming" has the same meaning as in section 120546
3772.01 of the Revised Code.120547

       (C) "Casino operator" has the same meaning as in section 120548
3772.01 of the Revised Code.120549

       (D) "Gross casino revenue" means the total amount of money 120550
exchanged for the purchase of chips, tokens, tickets, electronic 120551
cards, or similar objects by casino patrons, less winnings paid to 120552
wagerers. "Gross casino revenue" does not include the:120553

       (1) The issuance to casino patrons or wagering by casino 120554
patrons of any promotional gaming credit as defined in section 120555
3772.01 of the Revised Code. When issuance of the promotional 120556
gaming credit requires money exchanged as a match from the patron, 120557
the excludible portion of the promotional gaming credit does not 120558
include the portion of the wager purchased by the patron.120559

       (2) Bad debts from receipts on the basis of which the tax 120560
imposed by this chapter was paid in a prior tax period to the 120561
extent not previously excluded. For the purposes of this division, 120562
"bad debts" means any debts that have become worthless or 120563
uncollectible in a prior tax period, have been uncollected for at 120564
least six months, and that may be claimed as a deduction under 120565
section 166 of the Internal Revenue Code and the regulations 120566
adopted under that section, or that could be claimed as such if 120567
the taxpayer kept its accounts on the accrual basis. "Bad debts" 120568
does not include repossessed property, uncollectible amounts on 120569
property that remains in the possession of the casino operator 120570
until the full purchase price is paid, or expenses in attempting 120571
to collect any account receivable or for any portion of the debt 120572
recovered. 120573

       (E) "Person" has the same meaning as in section 3772.01 of 120574
the Revised Code.120575

       (F) "Slot machine" has the same meaning as in section 3772.01 120576
of the Revised Code.120577

       (G) "Table game" has the same meaning as in section 3772.01 120578
of the Revised Code.120579

       (H) "Tax period" means one twenty-four-hour period with 120580
regard to which a casino operator is required to pay the tax 120581
levied by this chapter.120582

       Sec. 5753.03.  (A) For the purpose of receiving and 120583
distributing, and accounting for, revenue received from the tax 120584
levied by section 5753.02 of the Revised Code, the following funds 120585
are created in the state treasury:120586

       (1) The casino tax revenue fund;120587

       (2) The gross casino revenue county fund;120588

       (3) The gross casino revenue county student fund;120589

       (4) The gross casino revenue host city fund;120590

       (5) The Ohio state racing commission fund;120591

       (6) The Ohio law enforcement training fund;120592

       (7) The problem casino gambling and addictions fund;120593

       (8) The casino control commission fund;120594

       (9) The casino tax administration fund;120595

       (10) The peace officer training academy fund;120596

       (11) The criminal justice services casino tax revenue fund.120597

       (B) All moneys collected from the tax levied under this 120598
chapter shall be deposited into the casino tax revenue fund.120599

       (C) From the casino tax revenue fund the director of budget 120600
and management shall transfer as needed to the tax refund fund 120601
amounts equal to the refunds certified by the tax commissioner 120602
under section 5753.06 of the Revised Code.120603

       (D) After making any transfers required by division (C) of 120604
this section, but not later than the fifteenth day of the month 120605
following the end of each calendar quarter, the director of budget 120606
and management shall transfer amounts to each fund as follows:120607

       (1) Fifty-one per cent to the gross casino revenue county 120608
fund to make payments as required by Section 6(C)(3)(a) of Article 120609
XV, Ohio Constitution;120610

       (2) Thirty-four per cent to the gross casino revenue county 120611
student fund to make payments as required by Section 6(C)(3)(b) of 120612
Article XV, Ohio Constitution and as provided in section 5753.11 120613
of the Revised Code;120614

       (3) Five per cent to the gross casino revenue host city fund 120615
for the benefit of the cities in which casino facilities are 120616
located;120617

       (4) Three per cent to the Ohio state racing commission fund 120618
to support the efforts and activities of the Ohio state racing 120619
commission to promote horse racing in this state at which the 120620
pari-mutuel system of wagering is conducted;120621

       (5) Two per cent to the Ohio law enforcement training fund to 120622
support law enforcement functions in the state;120623

       (6) Two per cent to the problem casino gambling and 120624
addictions fund to support efforts of the department of alcohol 120625
and drug addiction servicesmental health and addiction services120626
to alleviate problem gambling and substance abuse and related 120627
research in the state under section 3793.0325119.47 of the 120628
Revised Code;120629

       (7) Three per cent to the casino control commission fund to 120630
support the operations of the Ohio casino control commission and 120631
to defray the cost of administering the tax levied under section 120632
5753.02 of the Revised Code.120633

       Payments under divisions (D)(1) and (3) of this section shall 120634
be made by the end of the month following the end of the quarterly 120635
period. The tax commissioner shall make the data available to the 120636
director of budget and management for this purpose.120637

       Money in the Ohio state racing commission fund shall be 120638
distributed at the discretion of the Ohio state racing commission 120639
for the purpose stated in division (D)(4) of this section by the 120640
end of the month following the end of the quarterly period. The 120641
commission may retain up to five per cent of the amount 120642
transferred to the fund under division (D)(4) of this section for 120643
operating expenses necessary for the administration of the fund.120644

       Payments from the gross casino revenue county student fund as 120645
required under section 5753.11 of the Revised Code shall be made 120646
by the last day of January and by the last day of August of each 120647
year, beginning in 2013. The tax commissioner shall make the data 120648
available to the director of budget and management for this 120649
purpose.120650

       Of the money credited to the Ohio law enforcement training 120651
fund, the director of budget and management shall distribute 120652
eighty-five per cent of the money to the police officer training 120653
academy fund for the purpose of supporting the law enforcement 120654
training efforts of the Ohio peace officer training academy and 120655
fifteen per cent of the money to the criminal justice services 120656
casino tax revenue fund for the purpose of supporting the law 120657
enforcement training efforts of the division of criminal justice 120658
services.120659

       (E)(1) The tax commissioner shall serve as an agent of the 120660
counties of this state only for the purposes of this division and 120661
solely to make payments directly to municipal corporations and 120662
school districts, as applicable, on the counties' behalf.120663

       (2) On or before the last day of the month following the end 120664
of each calendar quarter, the tax commissioner shall provide for 120665
payment from the funds referenced in divisions (D)(1) and (3) of 120666
this section to each county and municipal corporation as 120667
prescribed in those divisions.120668

       (3) On or before the last day of January and the last day of 120669
August each year, the commissioner shall provide for payments from 120670
the fund referenced in division (D)(2) of this section to each 120671
school district as prescribed in that division.120672

        (F) The director of budget and management shall transfer one 120673
per cent of the money credited to the casino control commission 120674
fund to the casino tax administration fund. The tax commissioner 120675
shall use the casino tax administration fund to defray the costs 120676
incurred in administering the tax levied by this chapter.120677

       (G) All investment earnings of the gross casino revenue 120678
county student fund shall be credited to the fund.120679

       Sec. 5753.07.  (A)(1) The tax commissioner may issue an 120680
assessment, based on any information in the tax commissioner's 120681
possession, against a casino operator who fails to pay the tax 120682
levied under section 5753.02 of the Revised Code or to file a 120683
return under section 5753.04 of the Revised Code. The tax 120684
commissioner shall give the casino operator written notice of the 120685
assessment under section 5703.37 of the Revised Code. With the 120686
notice, the tax commissioner shall include instructions on how to 120687
petition for reassessment and on how to request a hearing with 120688
respect to the petition.120689

       (2) Unless the casino operator, within sixty days after 120690
service of the notice of assessment, files with the tax 120691
commissioner, either personally or by certified mail, a written 120692
petition signed by the casino operator, or by the casino 120693
operator's authorized agent who has knowledge of the facts, the 120694
assessment becomes final, and the amount of the assessment is due 120695
and payable from the casino operator to the treasurer of state. 120696
The petition shall indicate the casino operator's objections to 120697
the assessment. Additional objections may be raised in writing if 120698
they are received by the tax commissioner before the date shown on 120699
the final determination.120700

       (3) If a petition for reassessment has been properly filed, 120701
the tax commissioner shall proceed under section 5703.60 of the 120702
Revised Code.120703

       (4) After an assessment becomes final, if any portion of the 120704
assessment, including penalties and accrued interest, remains 120705
unpaid, the tax commissioner may file a certified copy of the 120706
entry making the assessment final in the office of the clerk of 120707
the court of common pleas of Franklin county or in the office of 120708
the clerk of the court of common pleas of the county in which the 120709
casino operator resides, the casino operator's casino facility is 120710
located, or the casino operator's principal place of business in 120711
this state is located. Immediately upon the filing of the entry, 120712
the clerk shall enter a judgment for the state against the 120713
taxpayer assessed in the amount shown on the entry. The judgment 120714
may be filed by the clerk in a loose-leaf book entitled, "special 120715
judgments for the gross casino revenue tax." The judgment has the 120716
same effect as other judgments. Execution shall issue upon the 120717
judgment at the request of the tax commissioner, and all laws 120718
applicable to sales on execution apply to sales made under the 120719
judgment.120720

       (5) The portion of anIf the assessment is not paid in its 120721
entirety within sixty days after the day the assessment was issued 120722
bears, the portion of the assessment consisting of tax due shall 120723
bear interest at the rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 120724
of the Revised Code from the day the tax commissioner issued the 120725
assessment until the assessment is paid or until it is certified 120726
to the attorney general for collection under section 131.02 of the 120727
Revised Code, whichever comes first. If the unpaid portion of the 120728
assessment is certified to the attorney general for collection, 120729
the entire unpaid portion of the assessment shall bear interest at 120730
the rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of the Revised 120731
Code from the date of certification until the date it is paid in 120732
its entirety. Interest shall be paid in the same manner as the tax 120733
levied under section 5753.02 of the Revised Code and may be 120734
collected by the issuance of an assessment under this section.120735

       (B) If the tax commissioner believes that collection of the 120736
tax levied under section 5753.02 of the Revised Code will be 120737
jeopardized unless proceedings to collect or secure collection of 120738
the tax are instituted without delay, the commissioner may issue a 120739
jeopardy assessment against the casino operator who is liable for 120740
the tax. Immediately upon the issuance of a jeopardy assessment, 120741
the tax commissioner shall file an entry with the clerk of the 120742
court of common pleas in the manner prescribed by division (A)(4) 120743
of this section, and the clerk shall proceed as directed in that 120744
division. Notice of the jeopardy assessment shall be served on the 120745
casino operator or the casino operator's authorized agent under 120746
section 5703.37 of the Revised Code within five days after the 120747
filing of the entry with the clerk. The total amount assessed is 120748
immediately due and payable, unless the casino operator assessed 120749
files a petition for reassessment under division (A)(2) of this 120750
section and provides security in a form satisfactory to the tax 120751
commissioner that is in an amount sufficient to satisfy the unpaid 120752
balance of the assessment. If a petition for reassessment has been 120753
filed, and if satisfactory security has been provided, the tax 120754
commissioner shall proceed under division (A)(3) of this section. 120755
Full or partial payment of the assessment does not prejudice the 120756
tax commissioner's consideration of the petition for reassessment.120757

       (C) The tax commissioner shall immediately forward to the 120758
treasurer of state all amounts the tax commissioner receives under 120759
this section, and the amounts forwarded shall be treated as if 120760
they were revenue arising from the tax levied under section 120761
5753.02 of the Revised Code.120762

       (D) Except as otherwise provided in this division, no 120763
assessment shall be issued against a casino operator for the tax 120764
levied under section 5753.02 of the Revised Code more than four 120765
years after the due date for filing the return for the tax period 120766
for which the tax was reported, or more than four years after the 120767
return for the tax period was filed, whichever is later. This 120768
division does not bar an assessment against a casino operator who 120769
fails to file a return as required by section 5753.04 of the 120770
Revised Code or who files a fraudulent return, or when the casino 120771
operator and the tax commissioner waive in writing the time 120772
limitation.120773

       (E) If the tax commissioner possesses information that 120774
indicates that the amount of tax a casino operator is liable to 120775
pay under section 5753.02 of the Revised Code exceeds the amount 120776
the casino operator paid, the tax commissioner may audit a sample 120777
of the casino operator's gross casino revenue over a 120778
representative period of time to ascertain the amount of tax due, 120779
and may issue an assessment based on the audit. The tax 120780
commissioner shall make a good faith effort to reach agreement 120781
with the casino operator in selecting a representative sample. The 120782
tax commissioner may apply a sampling method only if the tax 120783
commissioner has prescribed the method by rule.120784

       (F) If the whereabouts of a casino operator who is liable for 120785
the tax levied under section 5753.02 of the Revised Code are 120786
unknown to the tax commissioner, the tax commissioner shall 120787
proceed under section 5703.37 of the Revised Code.120788

       (G) If a casino operator fails to pay the tax levied under 120789
section 5753.02 of the Revised Code within a period of one year 120790
after the due date for remitting the tax, the Ohio casino control 120791
commission may suspend the casino operator's license.120792

       Sec. 5815.28.  (A) As used in this section:120793

       (1) "Ascertainable standard" includes a standard in a trust 120794
instrument requiring the trustee to provide for the care, comfort, 120795
maintenance, welfare, education, or general well-being of the 120796
beneficiary.120797

       (2) "Disability" means any substantial, medically 120798
determinable impairment that can be expected to result in death or 120799
that has lasted or can be expected to last for a continuous period 120800
of at least twelve months, except that "disability" does not 120801
include an impairment that is the result of abuse of alcohol or 120802
drugs.120803

       (3) "Political subdivision" and "state" have the same 120804
meanings as in section 2744.01 of the Revised Code.120805

       (4) "Supplemental services" means services specified by rule 120806
of the department of mental healthmental health and addiction 120807
services under section 5119.015119.10 of the Revised Code or the 120808
department of developmental disabilities under section 5123.04 of 120809
the Revised Code that are provided to an individual with a 120810
disability in addition to services the individual is eligible to 120811
receive under programs authorized by federal or state law.120812

       (B) Any person may create a trust under this section to 120813
provide funding for supplemental services for the benefit of 120814
another individual who meets either of the following conditions:120815

       (1) The individual has a physical or mental disability and is 120816
eligible to receive services through the department of 120817
developmental disabilities or a county board of developmental 120818
disabilities;120819

       (2) The individual has a mental disability and is eligible to 120820
receive services through the department of mental healthmental 120821
health and addiction services or a board of alcohol, drug 120822
addiction, and mental health services.120823

       The trust may confer discretion upon the trustee and may 120824
contain specific instructions or conditions governing the exercise 120825
of the discretion.120826

       (C) The general division of the court of common pleas and the 120827
probate court of the county in which the beneficiary of a trust 120828
authorized by division (B) of this section resides or is confined 120829
have concurrent original jurisdiction to hear and determine 120830
actions pertaining to the trust. In any action pertaining to the 120831
trust in a court of common pleas or probate court and in any 120832
appeal of the action, all of the following apply to the trial or 120833
appellate court:120834

       (1) The court shall render determinations consistent with the 120835
testator's or other settlor's intent in creating the trust, as 120836
evidenced by the terms of the trust instrument.120837

       (2) The court may order the trustee to exercise discretion 120838
that the trust instrument confers upon the trustee only if the 120839
instrument contains specific instructions or conditions governing 120840
the exercise of that discretion and the trustee has failed to 120841
comply with the instructions or conditions. In issuing an order 120842
pursuant to this division, the court shall require the trustee to 120843
exercise the trustee's discretion only in accordance with the 120844
instructions or conditions.120845

       (3) The court may order the trustee to maintain the trust and 120846
distribute assets in accordance with rules adopted by the director 120847
of mental healthmental health and addiction services under 120848
section 5119.015119.10 of the Revised Code or the director of 120849
developmental disabilities under section 5123.04 of the Revised 120850
Code if the trustee has failed to comply with such rules.120851

       (D) To the extent permitted by federal law and subject to the 120852
provisions of division (C)(2) of this section pertaining to the 120853
enforcement of specific instructions or conditions governing a 120854
trustee's discretion, a trust authorized by division (B) of this 120855
section that confers discretion upon the trustee shall not be 120856
considered an asset or resource of the beneficiary, the 120857
beneficiary's estate, the settlor, or the settlor's estate and 120858
shall be exempt from the claims of creditors, political 120859
subdivisions, the state, other governmental entities, and other 120860
claimants against the beneficiary, the beneficiary's estate, the 120861
settlor, or the settlor's estate, including claims regarding the 120862
medicaid program or based on provisions of Chapters 5111., 5121.,120863
or 5123. of the Revised Code and claims sought to be satisfied by 120864
way of a civil action, subrogation, execution, garnishment, 120865
attachment, judicial sale, or other legal process, if all of the 120866
following apply:120867

       (1) At the time the trust is created, the trust principal 120868
does not exceed the maximum amount determined under division (E) 120869
of this section;120870

       (2) The trust instrument contains a statement of the 120871
settlor's intent, or otherwise clearly evidences the settlor's 120872
intent, that the beneficiary does not have authority to compel the 120873
trustee under any circumstances to furnish the beneficiary with 120874
minimal or other maintenance or support, to make payments from the 120875
principal of the trust or from the income derived from the 120876
principal, or to convert any portion of the principal into cash, 120877
whether pursuant to an ascertainable standard specified in the 120878
instrument or otherwise;120879

       (3) The trust instrument provides that trust assets can be 120880
used only to provide supplemental services, as defined by rule of 120881
the director of mental healthmental health and addiction services120882
under section 5119.015119.10 of the Revised Code or the director 120883
of developmental disabilities under section 5123.04 of the Revised 120884
Code, to the beneficiary;120885

       (4) The trust is maintained and assets are distributed in 120886
accordance with rules adopted by the director of mental health120887
mental health and addiction services under section 5119.015119.10120888
of the Revised Code or the director of developmental disabilities 120889
under section 5123.04 of the Revised Code;120890

       (5) The trust instrument provides that on the death of the 120891
beneficiary, a portion of the remaining assets of the trust, which 120892
shall be not less than fifty per cent of such assets, will be 120893
deposited to the credit of the services fund for individuals with 120894
mental illness created by section 5119.175119.51 of the Revised 120895
Code or the services fund for individuals with mental retardation 120896
and developmental disabilities created by section 5123.40 of the 120897
Revised Code.120898

       (E) In 1994, the trust principal maximum amount for a trust 120899
created under this section shall be two hundred thousand dollars. 120900
The maximum amount for a trust created under this section prior to 120901
November 11, 1994, may be increased to two hundred thousand 120902
dollars.120903

       In 1995, the maximum amount for a trust created under this 120904
section shall be two hundred two thousand dollars. Each year 120905
thereafter, the maximum amount shall be the prior year's amount 120906
plus two thousand dollars.120907

       (F) This section does not limit or otherwise affect the 120908
creation, validity, interpretation, or effect of any trust that is 120909
not created under this section.120910

       (G) Once a trustee takes action on a trust created by a 120911
settlor under this section and disburses trust funds on behalf of 120912
the beneficiary of the trust, then the trust may not be terminated 120913
or otherwise revoked by a particular event or otherwise without 120914
payment into the services fund created pursuant to section 5119.17120915
5119.51 or 5123.40 of the Revised Code of an amount that is equal 120916
to the disbursements made on behalf of the beneficiary for medical 120917
care by the state from the date the trust vests but that is not 120918
more than fifty per cent of the trust corpus.120919

       Sec. 5905.02.  Whenever it appears that a person is eligible 120920
for care or treatment by the veterans' administration or other 120921
agency of the United States, and hospitalization is necessary for 120922
the proper care or treatment of such person, the probate court, 120923
upon receipt of a certificate from the veterans' administration or 120924
such other agency showing that facilities are available and such 120925
person is eligible for care or treatment therein, may order such 120926
person to said veterans' administration or other agency for care 120927
and treatment.120928

       Upon admission, such person shall be subject to the 120929
applicable regulations of the veterans' administration or other 120930
agency of the United States. The chief officer of any hospital to 120931
which any person is admitted pursuant to hospitalization as 120932
provided in sections 5905.01 to 5905.19 of the Revised Code, or 120933
under the law in effect at the time of such admission, shall have 120934
the same powers as are exercised by heads of hospitals for mental 120935
diseases and the department of mental healthmental health and 120936
addiction services with respect to the retention, transfer, 120937
parole, or discharge of the person hospitalized; provided no 120938
person shall be transferred to a hospital operated by the state or 120939
any political subdivision thereof without the consent of such 120940
department.120941

       The right of such person to appear and defend shall not be 120942
denied.120943

       The judgment or order of hospitalization by a court of 120944
competent jurisdiction of another state ordering a person to the 120945
veterans' administration or other agency of the United States, or 120946
any hospital operated by any such agency, for care or treatment 120947
shall have the same effect as to such person while in this state 120948
as in the state in which the court entering such judgment or 120949
making such order is situated, provided that no nonresident 120950
ordered to a veterans' administration facility located in Ohio 120951
shall thereby acquire a legal settlement in Ohio.120952

       Upon receipt of a certificate that facilities are available 120953
in any such hospital operated by the United States for the care or 120954
treatment of any person ordered to any hospital for the mentally 120955
ill or other hospital in this state for the care of persons 120956
similarly afflicted, and that such person is eligible for such 120957
care or treatment, such department may transfer any such person to 120958
the veterans' administration or other agency of the United States 120959
in the state. Upon effecting any such transfer, the ordering court 120960
shall be notified thereof by the transferring agency; provided 120961
that no such person shall be transferred if hethe person is 120962
confined pursuant to conviction of any crime or misdemeanor, or if 120963
hethe person has been acquitted of any such charge solely on the 120964
ground of insanity, unless prior to such transfer the court 120965
originally ordering such person enters an order for such transfer 120966
after appropriate motion and hearing.120967

       Any person transferred as provided in this section is ordered 120968
to the veterans' administration or other agency of the United 120969
States pursuant to the original order as though hethe person had 120970
been originally so ordered.120971

       Sec. 5910.02.  There is hereby created an Ohio war orphans 120972
scholarship board as part of the department of veterans services. 120973
The board consists of eight members as follows: the chancellor of 120974
the Ohio board of regents or the chancellor's designee; the 120975
director of veterans services or the director's designee; one 120976
member of the house of representatives, appointed by the speaker; 120977
one member of the senate, appointed by the president of the 120978
senate; and four members appointed by the governor, one of whom 120979
shall be a representative of the American Legion, one of whom 120980
shall be a representative of the Veterans of Foreign Wars, one of 120981
whom shall be a representative of the Disabled American Veterans, 120982
and one of whom shall be a representative of the AMVETS. At least 120983
ninety days prior to the expiration of the term of office of the 120984
representative of a veterans organization appointed by the 120985
governor, the governor shall notify the state headquarters of the 120986
affected organization of the need for an appointment and request 120987
the organization to make at least three nominations. Within sixty 120988
days after making the request for nominations, the governor may 120989
make the appointment from the nominations received, or may reject 120990
all the nominations and request at least three new nominations, 120991
from which the governor shall make an appointment within thirty 120992
days after making the request for the new nominations. If the 120993
governor receives no nominations during this thirty-day period, 120994
the governor may appoint any veteran.120995

       Terms of office for the four members appointed by the 120996
governor shall be for four years, commencing on the first day of 120997
January and ending on the thirty-first day of December, except 120998
that the term of the AMVETS representative shall expire December 120999
31, 1998, and the new term that succeeds it shall commence on 121000
January 1, 1999, and end on December 31, 2002. Each member shall 121001
hold office from the date of the member's appointment until the 121002
end of the term for which the member was appointed. The other 121003
members shall serve during their terms of office. Any vacancy 121004
shall be filled by appointment in the same manner as by original 121005
appointment. Any member appointed to fill a vacancy occurring 121006
prior to the expiration of the term for which the member's 121007
predecessor was appointed shall hold office for the remainder of 121008
such term. Any appointed member shall continue in office 121009
subsequent to the expiration date of the member's term until the 121010
member's successor takes office, or until a period of sixty days 121011
has elapsed, whichever occurs first. The members of the board 121012
shall serve without pay but shall be reimbursed for travel 121013
expenses and for other actual and necessary expenses incurred in 121014
the performance of their duties, not to exceed ten dollars per day 121015
for ten days in any one year to be appropriated out of any moneys 121016
in the state treasury to the credit of the general revenue fund.121017

       The chancellor of the board of regents shall act as secretary 121018
to the board and shall furnish such clerical and other assistance 121019
as may be necessary to the performance of the duties of the board.121020

       The board shall determine the number of scholarships to be 121021
made available, receive applications for scholarships, pass upon 121022
the eligibility of applicants, decide which applicants are to 121023
receive scholarships, and do all other things necessary for the 121024
proper administration of this chapter.121025

       The board may apply for, and may receive and accept, grants, 121026
and may receive and accept gifts, bequests, and contributions, 121027
from public and private sources, including agencies and 121028
instrumentalities of the United States and this state, and shall 121029
deposit the grants, gifts, bequests, or contributions into the 121030
Ohio war orphans scholarship donation fund.121031

       Sec. 5910.07.  The Ohio war orphans scholarship donation fund 121032
is created in the state treasury. The fund shall consist of gifts, 121033
bequests, grants, and contributions made to the fund under section 121034
5910.02 of the Revised Code. Investment earnings of the fund shall 121035
be deposited into the fund. The fund shall be used to operate the 121036
war orphans scholarship program and to provide grants under 121037
sections 5910.01 to 5910.06 of the Revised Code.121038

       Sec. 5910.08. There is hereby created in the state treasury 121039
the war orphans scholarship reserve fund. Not later than the first 121040
day of July of each fiscal year, the chancellor of the Ohio board 121041
of regents shall certify to the director of budget and management 121042
the unencumbered balance of the general revenue fund 121043
appropriations made in the immediately preceding fiscal year for 121044
purposes of the war orphans scholarship program created in Chapter 121045
5910. of the Revised Code. Upon receipt of the certification, the 121046
director may transfer an amount not exceeding the certified amount 121047
from the general revenue fund to the war orphans scholarship 121048
reserve fund. Moneys in the war orphans scholarship reserve fund 121049
shall be used to pay scholarship obligations in excess of the 121050
general revenue fund appropriations made for that purpose.121051

       The director may transfer any unencumbered balance from the 121052
war orphans scholarship reserve fund to the general revenue fund.121053

       Sec. 5919.34.  (A) As used in this section:121054

       (1) "Academic term" means any one of the following:121055

       (a) Fall term, which consists of fall semester or fall 121056
quarter, as appropriate;121057

       (b) Winter term, which consists of winter semester, winter 121058
quarter, or spring semester, as appropriate;121059

       (c) Spring term, which consists of spring quarter;121060

       (d) Summer term, which consists of summer semester or summer 121061
quarter, as appropriate.121062

       (2) "Eligible applicant" means any individual to whom all of 121063
the following apply:121064

       (a) The individual does not possess a baccalaureate degree.121065

       (b) The individual has enlisted, re-enlisted, or extended 121066
current enlistment in the Ohio national guard or is an individual 121067
to which division (F) of this section applies.121068

       (c) The individual is actively enrolled as a full-time or 121069
part-time student for at least three credit hours of course work 121070
in a semester or quarter in a two-year or four-year 121071
degree-granting program at a state institution of higher education 121072
or a private institution of higher education, or in a 121073
diploma-granting program at a state or private institution of 121074
higher education that is a school of nursing.121075

       (d) The individual has not accumulated ninety-six eligibility 121076
units under division (E) of this section.121077

       (3) "State institution of higher education" means any state 121078
university or college as defined in division (A)(1) of section 121079
3345.12 of the Revised Code, community college established under 121080
Chapter 3354. of the Revised Code, state community college 121081
established under Chapter 3358. of the Revised Code, university 121082
branch established under Chapter 3355. of the Revised Code, or 121083
technical college established under Chapter 3357. of the Revised 121084
Code.121085

       (4) "Private institution of higher education" means an Ohio 121086
institution of higher education that is nonprofit and has received 121087
a certificate of authorization pursuant to Chapter 1713. of the 121088
Revised Code, that is a private institution exempt from regulation 121089
under Chapter 3332. of the Revised Code as prescribed in section 121090
3333.046 of the Revised Code, or that holds a certificate of 121091
registration and program authorization issued by the state board 121092
of career colleges and schools pursuant to section 3332.05 of the 121093
Revised Code.121094

       (5) "Tuition" means the charges imposed to attend an 121095
institution of higher education and includes general and 121096
instructional fees. "Tuition" does not include laboratory fees, 121097
room and board, or other similar fees and charges.121098

       (B) There is hereby created a scholarship program to be known 121099
as the Ohio national guard scholarship program.121100

       (C) The adjutant general shall approve scholarships for all 121101
eligible applicants. The adjutant general shall process all 121102
applications for scholarships for each academic term in the order 121103
in which they are received. The scholarships shall be made without 121104
regard to financial need. At no time shall one person be placed in 121105
priority over another because of sex, race, or religion.121106

       (D)(1) Except as provided in divisions (I) and (J) of this 121107
section, for each academic term that an eligible applicant is 121108
approved for a scholarship under this section and either remains a 121109
current member in good standing of the Ohio national guard or is 121110
eligible for a scholarship under division (F)(1) of this section, 121111
the institution of higher education in which the applicant is 121112
enrolled shall, if the applicant's enlistment obligation extends 121113
beyond the end of that academic term or if division (F)(1) of this 121114
section applies, be paid on the applicant's behalf the applicable 121115
one of the following amounts:121116

       (a) If the institution is a state institution of higher 121117
education, an amount equal to one hundred per cent of the 121118
institution's tuition charges;121119

       (b) If the institution is a nonprofit private institution or 121120
a private institution exempt from regulation under Chapter 3332. 121121
of the Revised Code as prescribed in section 3333.046 of the 121122
Revised Code, an amount equal to one hundred per cent of the 121123
average tuition charges of all state universities;121124

       (c) If the institution is an institution that holds a 121125
certificate of registration from the state board of career 121126
colleges and schools, the lesser of the following:121127

       (i) An amount equal to one hundred per cent of the 121128
institution's tuition;121129

       (ii) An amount equal to one hundred per cent of the average 121130
tuition charges of all state universities, as that term is defined 121131
in section 3345.011 of the Revised Code.121132

       (2) An eligible applicant's scholarship shall not be reduced 121133
by the amount of that applicant's benefits under "the Montgomery 121134
G.I. Bill Act of 1984," Pub. L. No. 98-525, 98 Stat. 2553 (1984).121135

       (E) A scholarship recipient under this section shall be 121136
entitled to receive scholarships under this section for the number 121137
of quarters or semesters it takes the recipient to accumulate 121138
ninety-six eligibility units as determined under divisions (E)(1) 121139
to (3) of this section.121140

       (1) To determine the maximum number of semesters or quarters 121141
for which a recipient is entitled to a scholarship under this 121142
section, the adjutant general shall convert a recipient's credit 121143
hours of enrollment for each academic term into eligibility units 121144
in accordance with the following table:121145

The 121146
Number of following The following 121147
credit hours number of number of 121148
of enrollment eligibility eligibility 121149
in an academic units if a units if a 121150
term equals semester or quarter 121151
   121152
12 or more hours 12 units 8 units 121153
9 but less than 12 9 units 6 units 121154
6 but less than 9 6 units 4 units 121155
3 but less than 6 3 units 2 units 121156

       (2) A scholarship recipient under this section may continue 121157
to apply for scholarships under this section until the recipient 121158
has accumulated ninety-six eligibility units.121159

       (3) If a scholarship recipient withdraws from courses prior 121160
to the end of an academic term so that the recipient's enrollment 121161
for that academic term is less than three credit hours, no 121162
scholarship shall be paid on behalf of that person for that 121163
academic term. Except as provided in division (F)(3) of this 121164
section, if a scholarship has already been paid on behalf of the 121165
person for that academic term, the adjutant general shall add to 121166
that person's accumulated eligibility units the number of 121167
eligibility units for which the scholarship was paid.121168

       (F) This division applies to any eligible applicant called 121169
into active duty on or after September 11, 2001. As used in this 121170
division, "active duty" means active duty pursuant to an executive 121171
order of the president of the United States, an act of the 121172
congress of the United States, or section 5919.29 or 5923.21 of 121173
the Revised Code.121174

       (1) For a period of up to five years from when an 121175
individual's enlistment obligation in the Ohio national guard 121176
ends, an individual to whom this division applies is eligible for 121177
scholarships under this section for those academic terms that were 121178
missed or could have been missed as a result of the individual's 121179
call into active duty. Scholarships shall not be paid for the 121180
academic term in which an eligible applicant's enlistment 121181
obligation ends unless an applicant is eligible under this 121182
division for a scholarship for such academic term due to previous 121183
active duty.121184

       (2) When an individual to whom this division applies 121185
withdraws or otherwise fails to complete courses, for which 121186
scholarships have been awarded under this section, because the 121187
individual was called into active duty, the institution of higher 121188
education shall grant the individual a leave of absence from the 121189
individual's education program and shall not impose any academic 121190
penalty for such withdrawal or failure to complete courses. 121191
Division (F)(2) of this section applies regardless of whether or 121192
not the scholarship amount was paid to the institution of higher 121193
education.121194

       (3) If an individual to whom this division applies withdraws 121195
or otherwise fails to complete courses because the individual was 121196
called into active duty, and if scholarships for those courses 121197
have already been paid, either:121198

       (a) The adjutant general shall not add to that person's 121199
accumulated eligibility units calculated under division (E) of 121200
this section the number of eligibility units for the academic 121201
courses or term for which the scholarship was paid and the 121202
institution of higher education shall repay the scholarship amount 121203
to the state.121204

       (b) The adjutant general shall add to that individual's 121205
accumulated eligibility units calculated under division (E) of 121206
this section the number of eligibility units for the academic 121207
courses or term for which the scholarship was paid if the 121208
institution of higher education agrees to permit the individual to 121209
complete the remainder of the academic courses in which the 121210
individual was enrolled at the time the individual was called into 121211
active duty.121212

       (4) No individual who is discharged from the Ohio national 121213
guard under other than honorable conditions shall be eligible for 121214
scholarships under this division.121215

       (G) A scholarship recipient under this section who fails to 121216
complete the term of enlistment, re-enlistment, or extension of 121217
current enlistment the recipient was serving at the time a 121218
scholarship was paid on behalf of the recipient under this section 121219
is liable to the state for repayment of a percentage of all Ohio 121220
national guard scholarships paid on behalf of the recipient under 121221
this section, plus interest at the rate of ten per cent per annum 121222
calculated from the dates the scholarships were paid. This 121223
percentage shall equal the percentage of the current term of 121224
enlistment, re-enlistment, or extension of enlistment a recipient 121225
has not completed as of the date the recipient is discharged from 121226
the Ohio national guard.121227

       The attorney general may commence a civil action on behalf of 121228
the chancellor of the Ohio board of regents to recover the amount 121229
of the scholarships and the interest provided for in this division 121230
and the expenses incurred in prosecuting the action, including 121231
court costs and reasonable attorney's fees. A scholarship 121232
recipient is not liable under this division if the recipient's 121233
failure to complete the term of enlistment being served at the 121234
time a scholarship was paid on behalf of the recipient under this 121235
section is due to the recipient's death or discharge from the 121236
national guard due to disability.121237

       (H) On or before the first day of each academic term, the 121238
adjutant general shall provide an eligibility roster to the 121239
chancellor and to each institution of higher education at which 121240
one or more scholarship recipients have applied for enrollment. 121241
The institution shall use the roster to certify the actual 121242
full-time or part-time enrollment of each scholarship recipient 121243
listed as enrolled at the institution and return the roster to the 121244
adjutant general and the chancellor. Except as provided in 121245
division (J) of this section, the chancellor shall provide for 121246
payment of the appropriate number and amount of scholarships to 121247
each institution of higher education pursuant to division (D) of 121248
this section. If an institution of higher education fails to 121249
certify the actual enrollment of a scholarship recipient listed as 121250
enrolled at the institution within thirty days of the end of an 121251
academic term, the institution shall not be eligible to receive 121252
payment from the Ohio national guard scholarship program or from 121253
the individual enrollee. The adjutant general shall report on a 121254
semiannual basis to the director of budget and management, the 121255
speaker of the house of representatives, the president of the 121256
senate, and the chancellor the number of Ohio national guard 121257
scholarship recipients, the size of the scholarship-eligible 121258
population, and a projection of the cost of the program for the 121259
remainder of the biennium.121260

       (I) The chancellor and the adjutant general may adopt rules 121261
pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code governing the 121262
administration and fiscal management of the Ohio national guard 121263
scholarship program and the procedure by which the chancellor and 121264
the department of the adjutant general may modify the amount of 121265
scholarships a member receives based on the amount of other state 121266
financial aid a member receives.121267

       (J) The adjutant general, the chancellor, and the director, 121268
or their designees, shall jointly estimate the costs of the Ohio 121269
national guard scholarship program for each upcoming fiscal 121270
biennium, and shall report that estimate prior to the beginning of 121271
the fiscal biennium to the chairpersons of the finance committees 121272
in the general assembly. During each fiscal year of the biennium, 121273
the adjutant general, the chancellor, and the director, or their 121274
designees, shall meet regularly to monitor the actual costs of the 121275
Ohio national guard scholarship program and update cost 121276
projections for the remainder of the biennium as necessary. If the 121277
amounts appropriated for the Ohio national guard scholarship 121278
program and any funds in the Ohio national guard scholarship 121279
reserve fund and the Ohio national guard scholarship donation fund121280
are not adequate to provide scholarships in the amounts specified 121281
in division (D)(1) of this section for all eligible applicants, 121282
the chancellor shall do all of the following:121283

       (1) Notify each private institution of higher education, 121284
where a scholarship recipient is enrolled, that, by accepting the 121285
Ohio national guard scholarship program as payment for all or part 121286
of the institution's tuition, the institution agrees that if the 121287
chancellor reduces the amount of each scholarship, the institution 121288
shall provide each scholarship recipient a grant or tuition waiver 121289
in an amount equal to the amount the recipient's scholarship was 121290
reduced by the chancellor.121291

        (2) Reduce the amount of each scholarship under division 121292
(D)(1)(a) of this section proportionally based on the amount of 121293
remaining available funds. Each state institution of higher 121294
education shall provide each scholarship recipient under division 121295
(D)(1)(a) of this section a grant or tuition waiver in an amount 121296
equal to the amount the recipient's scholarship was reduced by the 121297
chancellor.121298

       (K) Notwithstanding division (A) of section 127.14 of the 121299
Revised Code, the controlling board shall not transfer all or part 121300
of any appropriation for the Ohio national guard scholarship 121301
program.121302

       (L) The chancellor and the adjutant general may apply for, 121303
and may receive and accept grants, and may receive and accept 121304
gifts, bequests, and contributions, from public and private 121305
sources, including agencies and instrumentalities of the United 121306
States and this state, and shall deposit the grants, gifts, 121307
bequests, or contributions into the national guard scholarship 121308
reservedonation fund.121309

       Sec. 5919.342.  The national guard scholarship donation fund 121310
is created in the state treasury. The fund shall consist of gifts, 121311
bequests, grants, and contributions made to the fund under 121312
division (L) of section 5919.34 of the Revised Code. Investment 121313
earnings of the fund shall be deposited into the fund. The fund 121314
shall be used to operate the Ohio national guard scholarship 121315
program created under section 5919.34 of the Revised Code.121316

       Sec. 5924.502.  (A) If the issue of an accused's competence 121317
to stand trial is raised or if an accused enters a plea of not 121318
guilty by reason of insanity, the court may order one or more 121319
evaluations of the accused's present mental condition or, in the 121320
case of a plea of not guilty by reason of insanity, of the 121321
accused's mental condition at the time of the offense charged. An 121322
examiner shall conduct the evaluation.121323

       (B) If the court orders more than one evaluation under 121324
division (A) of this section, the trial counsel and the defense 121325
counsel may recommend to the court an examiner whom each prefers 121326
to perform one of the evaluations. If an accused enters a plea of 121327
not guilty by reason of insanity and if the court does not 121328
designate an examiner recommended by the defense counsel, the 121329
court shall inform the accused that the accused may have 121330
independent expert evaluation and that it will be obtained for the 121331
accused at public expense.121332

       (C) If the court orders an evaluation under division (A) of 121333
this section, the accused shall be available at the times and 121334
places established by the examiners who are to conduct the 121335
evaluation. The court may order an accused who is not being held 121336
in pretrial confinement to submit to an evaluation under this 121337
section. If an accused who is not being held in pretrial 121338
confinement refuses to submit to a complete evaluation, the court 121339
may order the sheriff to take the accused into custody and deliver 121340
the accused to a center, program, or facility operated or 121341
certified by the department of mental healthmental health and 121342
addiction services where the accused may be held for evaluation 121343
for a reasonable period of time not to exceed twenty days.121344

       (D) An accused who is being held in pretrial confinement may 121345
be evaluated at the accused's place of detention. Upon the request 121346
of the examiner, the court may order the sheriff to transport the 121347
accused to a program or facility operated or certified by the 121348
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services, 121349
where the accused may be held for evaluation for a reasonable 121350
period of time not to exceed twenty days, and to return the 121351
accused to the place of detention after the evaluation.121352

       (E) If a court orders the evaluation to determine an 121353
accused's mental condition at the time of the offense charged, the 121354
court shall inform the examiner of the offense with which the 121355
accused is charged.121356

       (F) In conducting an evaluation of an accused's mental 121357
condition at the time of the offense charged, the examiner shall 121358
consider all relevant evidence. If the offense charged involves 121359
the use of force against another person, the relevant evidence to 121360
be considered includes, but is not limited to, any evidence that 121361
the accused suffered at the time of the commission of the offense 121362
from the "battered woman syndrome."121363

       (G) The examiner shall file a written report with the court 121364
within thirty days after entry of a court order for evaluation, 121365
and the court shall provide copies of the report to the trial 121366
counsel and defense counsel. The report shall include all of the 121367
following:121368

       (1) The examiner's findings;121369

       (2) The facts in reasonable detail on which the findings are 121370
based;121371

       (3) If the evaluation was ordered to determine the accused's 121372
competence to stand trial, all of the following findings or 121373
recommendations that are applicable:121374

       (a) Whether the accused is capable of understanding the 121375
nature and objective of the proceedings against the accused or of 121376
assisting in the accused's defense;121377

       (b) If the examiner's opinion is that the accused is 121378
incapable of understanding the nature and objective of the 121379
proceedings against the accused or of assisting in the accused's 121380
defense, whether the accused presently is mentally ill;121381

       (c) If the examiner's opinion is that the accused is 121382
incapable of understanding the nature and objective of the 121383
proceedings against the accused or of assisting in the accused's 121384
defense, the examiner's opinion as to the likelihood of the 121385
accused becoming capable of understanding the nature and objective 121386
of the proceedings against the accused and of assisting in the 121387
accused's defense within one year if the accused is provided with 121388
a course of treatment;121389

       (d) If the examiner's opinion is that the accused is 121390
incapable of understanding the nature and objective of the 121391
proceedings against the accused or of assisting in the accused's 121392
defense and that the accused presently is mentally ill, the 121393
examiner's recommendation as to the least restrictive placement or 121394
commitment alternative, consistent with the accused's treatment 121395
needs for restoration to competency and with the safety of the 121396
community;121397

       (e) If the accused is charged before a special or summary 121398
court-martial with an offense that is not a violation of section 121399
5924.120, 5924.127, or 5924.128 of the Revised Code and the 121400
examiner's opinion is that the accused is incapable of 121401
understanding the nature and objective of the proceedings against 121402
the accused or of assisting in the accused's defense and that the 121403
accused is presently mentally ill, the examiner's recommendation 121404
as to whether the accused is amenable to engagement in mental 121405
health treatment.121406

       (4) If the evaluation was ordered to determine the accused's 121407
mental condition at the time of the offense charged, the 121408
examiner's findings as to whether the accused at the time of the 121409
offense charged did not know, as a result of a severe mental 121410
disease or defect, the wrongfulness of the accused's acts charged.121411

       (H) An examiner appointed under divisions (A) and (B) of this 121412
section to evaluate an accused to determine the accused's 121413
competence to stand trial also may be appointed to evaluate an 121414
accused who has entered a plea of not guilty by reason of 121415
insanity, but an examiner of that nature shall prepare separate 121416
reports on the issue of competence to stand trial and the defense 121417
of not guilty by reason of insanity.121418

       (I) No statement that an accused makes in an evaluation or 121419
hearing under divisions (A) to (H) of this section relating to the 121420
accused's competence to stand trial or to the accused's mental 121421
condition at the time of the offense charged may be used against 121422
the accused on the issue of guilt in any criminal action or 121423
proceeding, but, in a criminal action or proceeding, the trial 121424
counsel or defense counsel may call as a witness any person who 121425
evaluated the accused or prepared a report pursuant to a referral 121426
under this section. Neither the appointment nor the testimony of 121427
an examiner appointed under this section precludes the trial 121428
counsel or defense counsel from calling other witnesses or 121429
presenting other evidence on competency or insanity issues.121430

       (J) Persons appointed as examiners under divisions (A) and 121431
(B) of this section or under division (H) of this section shall be 121432
paid a reasonable amount for their services and expenses, as 121433
certified by the court.121434

       Sec. 5924.503.  (A) If the issue of an accused's competence 121435
to stand trial is raised and if the court, upon conducting the 121436
hearing provided for in section 5924.502 of the Revised Code, 121437
finds that the accused is competent to stand trial, the accused 121438
shall be proceeded against as provided by law. If the court finds 121439
the accused competent to stand trial and the accused is receiving 121440
psychotropic drugs or other medication, the court may authorize 121441
the continued administration of the drugs or medication or other 121442
appropriate treatment in order to maintain the accused's 121443
competence to stand trial unless the accused's attending physician 121444
advises the court against continuation of the drugs, other 121445
medication, or treatment.121446

       (B)(1)(a) If, after taking into consideration all relevant 121447
reports, information, and other evidence, the court finds that the 121448
accused is incompetent to stand trial and that there is a 121449
substantial probability that the accused will become competent to 121450
stand trial within one year if the accused is provided with a 121451
course of treatment, the court shall order the accused to undergo 121452
treatment. If the accused is being tried by a general 121453
court-martial and if, after taking into consideration all relevant 121454
reports, information, and other evidence, the court finds that the 121455
accused is incompetent to stand trial, but the court is unable at 121456
that time to determine whether there is a substantial probability 121457
that the accused will become competent to stand trial within one 121458
year if the accused is provided with a course of treatment, the 121459
court shall order continuing evaluation and treatment of the 121460
accused for a period not to exceed four months to determine 121461
whether there is a substantial probability that the accused will 121462
become competent to stand trial within one year if the accused is 121463
provided with a course of treatment.121464

       (b) The court order for the accused to undergo treatment or 121465
continuing evaluation and treatment under division (B)(1)(a) of 121466
this section shall specify that the accused, if determined to 121467
require mental health treatment or continuing evaluation and 121468
treatment, shall be committed to the department of mental health121469
mental health and addiction services for treatment or continuing 121470
evaluation and treatment at a hospital, facility, or agency 121471
determined to be clinically appropriate by the department of 121472
mental healthmental health and addiction services. The order may 121473
restrict the accused's freedom of movement as the court considers 121474
necessary. The trial counsel in the accused's case shall send to 121475
the chief clinical officer of the hospital, facility, or agency121476
services provider where the accused is placed by the department of 121477
mental healthmental health and addiction services or to the 121478
managing officer of the institution, the director of the facility, 121479
or the person to which the accused is committed copies of relevant 121480
investigative reports and other background information that 121481
pertains to the accused and is available to the trial counsel 121482
unless the trial counsel determines that the release of any of the 121483
information in the investigative reports or any of the other 121484
background information to unauthorized persons would interfere 121485
with the effective prosecution of any person or would create a 121486
substantial risk of harm to any person.121487

       In committing the accused to the department of mental health121488
mental health and addiction services, the court shall consider the 121489
extent to which the person is a danger to the person and to 121490
others, the need for security, and the type of crime involved and, 121491
if the court finds that restrictions on the accused's freedom of 121492
movement are necessary, shall specify the least restrictive 121493
limitations on the person's freedom of movement determined to be 121494
necessary to protect public safety. In weighing these factors, the 121495
court shall give preference to protecting public safety.121496

       (c) If the accused is found incompetent to stand trial, if 121497
the chief clinical officer of the hospital, facility, or agency121498
services provider where the accused is placed, or the managing 121499
officer of the institution, the director of the facility, or the 121500
person to which the accused is committed for treatment or 121501
continuing evaluation and treatment under division (B)(1)(b) of 121502
this section determines that medication is necessary to restore 121503
the accused's competency to stand trial, and if the accused lacks 121504
the capacity to give informed consent or refuses medication, the 121505
chief clinical officer of the hospital, facility, or agency121506
services provider where the accused is placed or the managing 121507
officer of the institution, the director of the facility, or the 121508
person to which the accused is committed for treatment or 121509
continuing evaluation and treatment may petition the court for 121510
authorization for the involuntary administration of medication. 121511
The court shall hold a hearing on the petition within five days of 121512
the filing of the petition. Following the hearing, the court may 121513
authorize the involuntary administration of medication or may 121514
dismiss the petition.121515

       (d) If the accused is charged before a special or summary 121516
court-martial with an offense that is not a violation of section 121517
5924.120, 5924.127, or 5924.128 of the Revised Code, the trial 121518
counsel may hold the charges in abeyance while the accused engages 121519
in mental health treatment.121520

       (2) If the court finds that the accused is incompetent to 121521
stand trial and that, even if the accused is provided with a 121522
course of treatment, there is not a substantial probability that 121523
the accused will become competent to stand trial within one year, 121524
the court shall order the discharge of the accused, unless upon 121525
motion of the trial counsel or on its own motion, the court either 121526
seeks to retain jurisdiction over the accused pursuant to division 121527
(A)(2) of section 5924.504 of the Revised Code or files an 121528
affidavit in the probate court for the civil commitment of the 121529
accused pursuant to Chapter 5122. of the Revised Code alleging 121530
that the accused is a mentally ill person subject to 121531
hospitalization by court order. If an affidavit is filed in the 121532
probate court, the trial court shall send to the probate court 121533
copies of all written reports of the accused's mental condition 121534
that were prepared pursuant to section 5924.502 of the Revised 121535
Code.121536

       The trial court may issue the temporary order of detention 121537
that a probate court may issue under section 5122.11 of the 121538
Revised Code, to remain in effect until the probable cause or 121539
initial hearing in the probate court. Further proceedings in the 121540
probate court are civil proceedings governed by Chapter 5122. of 121541
the Revised Code.121542

       (C) No accused shall be required to undergo treatment, 121543
including any continuing evaluation and treatment, under division 121544
(B)(1) of this section for longer than whichever of the following 121545
periods is applicable:121546

       (1) One year, if the accused is being tried by a general 121547
court-martial;121548

       (2) Six months, if the accused is being tried before a 121549
special court-martial;121550

       (3) Sixty days, if the accused is being tried before a 121551
summary court-martial.121552

       (D) Any accused who is committed pursuant to this section 121553
shall not voluntarily admit the accused or be voluntarily admitted 121554
to a hospital or institution pursuant to section 5122.02 or 121555
5122.15 of the Revised Code.121556

       (E) Except as otherwise provided in this division, an accused 121557
who is charged with an offense and is committed by the court under 121558
this section to the department of mental healthmental health and 121559
addiction services with restrictions on the accused's freedom of 121560
movement shall not be granted unsupervised on-grounds movement, 121561
supervised off-grounds movement, or nonsecured status except in 121562
accordance with the court order. The court may grant an accused 121563
supervised off-grounds movement to obtain medical treatment or 121564
specialized habilitation treatment services if the person who 121565
supervises the treatment or the continuing evaluation and 121566
treatment of the accused ordered under division (B)(1)(a) of this 121567
section informs the court that the treatment or continuing 121568
evaluation and treatment cannot be provided at the hospital or 121569
facility where the accused is placed by the department of mental 121570
healthmental health and addiction services. The chief clinical 121571
officer of the hospital or facility where the accused is placed by 121572
the department of mental healthmental health and addiction 121573
services or the managing officer of the institution or director of 121574
the facility to which the accused is committed or a designee of 121575
any of those persons may grant an accused movement to a medical 121576
facility for an emergency medical situation with appropriate 121577
supervision to ensure the safety of the accused, staff, and 121578
community during that emergency medical situation. The chief 121579
clinical officer of the hospital or facility where the accused is 121580
placed by the department of mental healthmental health and 121581
addiction services or the managing officer of the institution or 121582
director of the facility to which the accused is committed shall 121583
notify the court within twenty-four hours of the accused's 121584
movement to the medical facility for an emergency medical 121585
situation under this division.121586

       (F) The person who supervises the treatment or continuing 121587
evaluation and treatment of an accused ordered to undergo 121588
treatment or continuing evaluation and treatment under division 121589
(B)(1)(a) of this section shall file a written report with the 121590
court at the following times:121591

       (1) Whenever the person believes the accused is capable of 121592
understanding the nature and objective of the proceedings against 121593
the accused and of assisting in the accused's defense;121594

       (2) Fourteen days before expiration of the maximum time for 121595
treatment as specified in division (C) of this section and 121596
fourteen days before the expiration of the maximum time for 121597
continuing evaluation and treatment as specified in division 121598
(B)(1)(a) of this section;121599

       (3) At a minimum, after each six months of treatment;121600

       (4) Whenever the person who supervises the treatment or 121601
continuing evaluation and treatment of an accused ordered under 121602
division (B)(1)(a) of this section believes that there is not a 121603
substantial probability that the accused will become capable of 121604
understanding the nature and objective of the proceedings against 121605
the accused or of assisting in the accused's defense even if the 121606
accused is provided with a course of treatment.121607

       (G) A report under division (F) of this section shall contain 121608
the examiner's findings, the facts in reasonable detail on which 121609
the findings are based, and the examiner's opinion as to the 121610
accused's capability of understanding the nature and objective of 121611
the proceedings against the accused and of assisting in the 121612
accused's defense. If, in the examiner's opinion, the accused 121613
remains incapable of understanding the nature and objective of the 121614
proceedings against the accused and of assisting in the accused's 121615
defense and there is a substantial probability that the accused 121616
will become capable of understanding the nature and objective of 121617
the proceedings against the accused and of assisting in the 121618
accused's defense if the accused is provided with a course of 121619
treatment, if in the examiner's opinion the accused remains 121620
mentally ill, and if the maximum time for treatment as specified 121621
in division (C) of this section has not expired, the report also 121622
shall contain the examiner's recommendation as to the least 121623
restrictive placement or commitment alternative that is consistent 121624
with the accused's treatment needs for restoration to competency 121625
and with the safety of the community. The court shall provide 121626
copies of the report to the trial counsel and defense counsel.121627

       (H) If an accused is committed pursuant to division (B)(1) of 121628
this section, within ten days after the treating physician of the 121629
accused or the examiner of the accused who is employed or retained 121630
by the treating facility advises that there is not a substantial 121631
probability that the accused will become capable of understanding 121632
the nature and objective of the proceedings against the accused or 121633
of assisting in the accused's defense even if the accused is 121634
provided with a course of treatment, within ten days after the 121635
expiration of the maximum time for treatment as specified in 121636
division (C) of this section, within ten days after the expiration 121637
of the maximum time for continuing evaluation and treatment as 121638
specified in division (B)(1)(a) of this section, within thirty 121639
days after an accused's request for a hearing that is made after 121640
six months of treatment, or within thirty days after being advised 121641
by the treating physician or examiner that the accused is 121642
competent to stand trial, whichever is the earliest, the court 121643
shall conduct another hearing to determine if the accused is 121644
competent to stand trial and shall do whichever of the following 121645
is applicable:121646

       (1) If the court finds that the accused is competent to stand 121647
trial, the accused shall be proceeded against as provided by law.121648

       (2) If the court finds that the accused is incompetent to 121649
stand trial, but that there is a substantial probability that the 121650
accused will become competent to stand trial if the accused is 121651
provided with a course of treatment, and the maximum time for 121652
treatment as specified in division (C) of this section has not 121653
expired, the court, after consideration of the examiner's 121654
recommendation, shall order that treatment be continued, may 121655
change least restrictive limitations on the accused's freedom of 121656
movement.121657

       (3) If the court finds that the accused is incompetent to 121658
stand trial, if the accused is being tried by a general 121659
court-martial, and if the court finds that there is not a 121660
substantial probability that the accused will become competent to 121661
stand trial even if the accused is provided with a course of 121662
treatment, or if the maximum time for treatment as specified in 121663
division (C) of this section has expired, further proceedings 121664
shall be as provided in sections 5924.504 to 5924.506 of the 121665
Revised Code.121666

       (4) If the court finds that the accused is incompetent to 121667
stand trial, if the accused is being tried before a special 121668
court-martial, and if the court finds that there is not a 121669
substantial probability that the accused will become competent to 121670
stand trial even if the accused is provided with a course of 121671
treatment, or if the maximum time for treatment as specified in 121672
division (C) of this section has expired, the court shall dismiss 121673
the charge against the accused. A dismissal under this division is 121674
not a bar to further prosecution based on the same conduct. The 121675
court shall discharge the accused unless the court or trial 121676
counsel files an affidavit in probate court for civil commitment 121677
pursuant to Chapter 5122. of the Revised Code. If an affidavit for 121678
civil commitment is filed, the court may detain the accused for 121679
ten days pending civil commitment. All of the following provisions 121680
apply to persons being tried by a special court-martial who are 121681
committed by the probate court subsequent to the court's or trial 121682
counsel's filing of an affidavit for civil commitment under 121683
authority of this division:121684

       (a) The chief clinical officer of the entity, hospital, or 121685
facility, the managing officer of the institution, or the person 121686
to which the accused is committed or admitted shall do all of the 121687
following:121688

       (i) Notify the trial counsel in writing of the discharge of 121689
the accused, send the notice at least ten days prior to the 121690
discharge unless the discharge is by the probate court, and state 121691
in the notice the date on which the accused will be discharged;121692

       (ii) Notify the trial counsel in writing when the accused is 121693
absent without leave or is granted unsupervised, off-grounds 121694
movement and send this notice promptly after the discovery of the 121695
absence without leave or prior to the granting of the 121696
unsupervised, off-grounds movement, whichever is applicable;121697

       (iii) Notify the trial counsel in writing of the change of 121698
the accused's commitment or admission to voluntary status, send 121699
the notice promptly upon learning of the change to voluntary 121700
status, and state in the notice the date on which the accused was 121701
committed or admitted on a voluntary status.121702

       (b) The trial counsel shall promptly inform the convening 121703
authority of any notification received under division (H)(4)(a) of 121704
this section. Upon receiving notice that the accused will be 121705
granted unsupervised, off-grounds movement, the convening 121706
authority either shall refer the charges against the accused to an 121707
investigating officer again or promptly notify the court that the 121708
convening authority does not intend to refer the charges against 121709
the accused again.121710

       (I) If an accused is convicted of a crime and sentenced to 121711
confinement, the accused's sentence shall be reduced by the total 121712
number of days the accused is confined for evaluation to determine 121713
the accused's competence to stand trial or treatment under this 121714
section and sections 5924.502 and 5924.504 of the Revised Code or 121715
by the total number of days the accused is confined for evaluation 121716
to determine the accused's mental condition at the time of the 121717
offense charged.121718

       Sec. 5924.504.  (A) If an accused being tried by a general 121719
court-martial is found incompetent to stand trial, after the 121720
expiration of the maximum time for treatment as specified in 121721
division (C) of section 5924.503 of the Revised Code or after the 121722
court finds that there is not a substantial probability that the 121723
accused will become competent to stand trial even if the accused 121724
is provided with a course of treatment, one of the following 121725
applies:121726

       (1) The court or the trial counsel may file an affidavit in 121727
probate court for civil commitment of the accused in the manner 121728
provided in Chapter 5122. of the Revised Code. If the court or 121729
trial counsel files an affidavit for civil commitment, the court 121730
may detain the accused for ten days pending civil commitment. If 121731
the probate court commits the accused subsequent to the court's or 121732
trial counsel's filing of an affidavit for civil commitment, the 121733
chief clinical officer of the entity, hospital, or facility, the 121734
managing officer of the institution, or the person to which the 121735
accused is committed or admitted shall send to the trial counsel 121736
the notices described in divisions (H)(4)(a)(i) to (iii) of 121737
section 5924.503 of the Revised Code within the periods of time 121738
and under the circumstances specified in those divisions.121739

       (2) On the motion of the trial counsel or on its own motion, 121740
the court may retain jurisdiction over the accused if at a hearing 121741
the court finds both of the following by clear and convincing 121742
evidence:121743

       (a) The accused committed the offense with which the accused 121744
is charged.121745

       (b) The accused is a mentally ill person subject to 121746
hospitalization by court order.121747

       (B) In making its determination under division (A)(2) of this 121748
section as to whether to retain jurisdiction over the accused, the 121749
court may consider all relevant evidence, including, but not 121750
limited to, any relevant psychiatric, psychological, or medical 121751
testimony or reports, the acts constituting the offense charged, 121752
and any history of the accused that is relevant to the accused's 121753
ability to conform to the law.121754

       (C) If the court conducts a hearing as described in division 121755
(A)(2) of this section and if the court does not make both 121756
findings described in divisions (A)(2)(a) and (b) of this section 121757
by clear and convincing evidence, the court shall dismiss the 121758
charges against the accused. Upon the dismissal, the court shall 121759
discharge the accused unless the court or trial counsel files an 121760
affidavit in probate court for civil commitment of the accused 121761
pursuant to Chapter 5122. of the Revised Code. If the court or 121762
trial counsel files an affidavit for civil commitment, the court 121763
may order that the accused be detained for up to ten days pending 121764
the civil commitment. If the probate court commits the accused 121765
subsequent to the court's or trial counsel's filing of an 121766
affidavit for civil commitment, the chief clinical officer of the 121767
entity, hospital, or facility, the managing officer of the 121768
institution, or the person to which the accused is committed or 121769
admitted shall send to the trial counsel the notices described in 121770
divisions (H)(4)(a)(i) to (iii) of section 5924.503 of the Revised 121771
Code within the periods of time and under the circumstances 121772
specified in those divisions. A dismissal of charges under this 121773
division is not a bar to further criminal proceedings based on the 121774
same conduct.121775

       (D)(1) If the court conducts a hearing as described in 121776
division (A)(2) of this section and if the court makes the 121777
findings described in divisions (A)(2)(a) and (b) of this section 121778
by clear and convincing evidence, the court shall commit the 121779
accused, if determined to require mental health treatment, to the 121780
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services121781
for treatment at a hospital, facility, or agencyservices provider121782
as determined clinically appropriate by the department of mental 121783
healthmental health and addiction services. In committing the 121784
accused to the department of mental healthmental health and 121785
addiction services, the court shall specify the least restrictive 121786
limitations on the accused's freedom of movement determined to be 121787
necessary to protect public safety.121788

       (2) If a court makes a commitment of an accused under 121789
division (D)(1) of this section, the trial counsel shall send to 121790
the hospital, facility, or agencyservices provider where the 121791
accused is placed by the department of mental healthmental health 121792
and addiction services or to the accused's place of commitment all 121793
reports of the accused's current mental condition and, except as 121794
otherwise provided in this division, any other relevant 121795
information, including, but not limited to, a transcript of the 121796
hearing held pursuant to division (A)(2) of this section, copies 121797
of relevant investigative reports, and copies of any prior arrest 121798
and conviction records that pertain to the accused and that the 121799
trial counsel possesses. The trial counsel shall send the reports 121800
of the accused's current mental condition in every case of 121801
commitment, and, unless the trial counsel determines that the 121802
release of any of the other relevant information to unauthorized 121803
persons would interfere with the effective prosecution of any 121804
person or would create a substantial risk of harm to any person, 121805
the trial counsel also shall send the other relevant information.121806

       (3) If a court makes a commitment under division (D)(1) of 121807
this section, all further proceedings shall be in accordance with 121808
Chapter 5122. of the Revised Code.121809

       Sec. 5924.506.  (A) If an accused person is found not guilty 121810
by reason of insanity, the verdict shall state that finding, and 121811
the trial court shall conduct a full hearing to determine whether 121812
the person is a mentally ill person subject to hospitalization by 121813
court order. Prior to the hearing, if the military judge believes 121814
that there is probable cause that the person found not guilty by 121815
reason of insanity is a mentally ill person subject to 121816
hospitalization by court order, the military judge may issue a 121817
temporary order of detention for that person to remain in effect 121818
for ten court days or until the hearing, whichever occurs first.121819

       Any person detained pursuant to a temporary order of 121820
detention issued under this division shall be held in a suitable 121821
facility, taking into consideration the place and type of 121822
confinement prior to and during trial.121823

       (B) The court shall hold the hearing under division (A) of 121824
this section to determine whether the person found not guilty by 121825
reason of insanity is a mentally ill person subject to 121826
hospitalization by court order within ten court days after the 121827
finding of not guilty by reason of insanity. Failure to conduct 121828
the hearing within the ten-day period shall cause the immediate 121829
discharge of the respondent, unless the judge grants a continuance 121830
for not longer than ten court days for good cause shown or for any 121831
period of time upon motion of the respondent.121832

       (C) If a person is found not guilty by reason of insanity, 121833
the person has the right to attend a hearing conducted pursuant to 121834
this section. At the hearing, the court shall inform the person 121835
that the person has all of the following rights:121836

       (1) The right to be represented by defense counsel or to 121837
retain civilian counsel, if the person so chooses;121838

       (2) The right to have independent expert evaluation;121839

       (3) The right to subpoena witnesses and documents, to present 121840
evidence on the person's behalf, and to cross-examine witnesses 121841
against the person;121842

       (4) The right to testify in the person's own behalf and to 121843
not be compelled to testify;121844

       (5) The right to have copies of any relevant medical or 121845
mental health document in the custody of the state or of any place 121846
of commitment other than a document for which the court finds that 121847
the release to the person of information contained in the document 121848
would create a substantial risk of harm to any person.121849

       (D) The hearing under division (A) of this section shall be 121850
open to the public, and the court shall conduct the hearing in 121851
accordance with regulations prescribed by the adjutant general. 121852
The court shall make and maintain a full transcript and record of 121853
the hearing proceedings. The court may consider all relevant 121854
evidence, including, but not limited to, any relevant psychiatric, 121855
psychological, or medical testimony or reports, the acts 121856
constituting the offense in relation to which the person was found 121857
not guilty by reason of insanity, and any history of the person 121858
that is relevant to the person's ability to conform to the law.121859

       (E) Upon completion of the hearing under division (A) of this 121860
section, if the court finds there is not clear and convincing 121861
evidence that the person is a mentally ill person subject to 121862
hospitalization by court order, the court shall discharge the 121863
person, unless a detainer has been placed upon the person by the 121864
department of rehabilitation and correction, in which case the 121865
person shall be returned to that department.121866

       (F) If, at the hearing under division (A) of this section, 121867
the court finds by clear and convincing evidence that the person 121868
is a mentally ill person subject to hospitalization by court 121869
order, it shall commit the person to the department of mental 121870
healthmental health and addiction services for placement in a 121871
hospital, facility, or agencyservices provider as determined 121872
clinically appropriate by the department of mental healthmental 121873
health and addiction services. Further proceedings shall be in 121874
accordance with Chapter 5122. or 5123. of the Revised Code. In 121875
committing the accused to the department of mental healthmental 121876
health and addiction services, the court shall specify the least 121877
restrictive limitations on the accused's freedom of movement 121878
determined to be necessary to protect public safety.121879

       (G) If a court makes a commitment of a person under division 121880
(F) of this section, the trial counsel shall send to the hospital, 121881
facility, or agencyservices provider where the defendant is 121882
placed by the department of mental healthmental health and 121883
addiction services or to the accused's place of commitment all 121884
reports of the person's current mental condition, and, except as 121885
otherwise provided in this division, any other relevant 121886
information, including, but not limited to, a transcript of the 121887
hearing held pursuant to division (A) of this section, copies of 121888
relevant investigative reports, and copies of any prior arrest and 121889
conviction records that pertain to the person and that the trial 121890
counsel possesses. The trial counsel shall send the reports of the 121891
person's current mental condition in every case of commitment, 121892
and, unless the trial counsel determines that the release of any 121893
of the other relevant information to unauthorized persons would 121894
interfere with the effective prosecution of any person or would 121895
create a substantial risk of harm to any person, the trial counsel 121896
also shall send the other relevant information.121897

       (H) A person who is committed pursuant to this section shall 121898
not voluntarily admit the person or be voluntarily admitted to a 121899
hospital or institution pursuant to sections 5122.02 and 5122.15 121900
of the Revised Code.121901

       Sec. 6109.21.  (A) Except as provided in divisions (I) and 121902
(J) of this section, no person shall operate a public water system 121903
in this state without a license issued by the director of 121904
environmental protection. 121905

        (B)(1) A person who proposes to operate a new public water 121906
system, in addition to complying with section 6109.07 of the 121907
Revised Code and rules adopted under it, shall obtain an initial 121908
license from the director. The person shall submit an application 121909
for the initial license at least forty-five days prior to 121910
commencing the operation of the system.121911

        (C) A license shall expire on the thirtieth day of January in 121912
the year following its issuance.121913

        (D) A license shall be renewed annually. A person proposing 121914
to continue operating a public water system shall apply for a 121915
license renewal at least thirty days prior to the expiration date 121916
of the license.121917

        (E) Through June 30, 2014, eachEach application for a 121918
license or license renewal shall be accompanied by the appropriate 121919
fee established under division (M) of section 3745.11 of the 121920
Revised Code. However, an applicant for an initial license who is 121921
proposing to operate a new public water system shall submit a fee 121922
that equals a prorated amount of the appropriate fee established 121923
under that division for the remainder of the licensing year.121924

       (F) Not later than thirty days after receiving a completed 121925
application and the appropriate license fee for a license or 121926
license renewal for a public water system, the director shall do 121927
one of the following:121928

       (1) Issue the license or license renewal for the public water 121929
system;121930

       (2) Issue the license or license renewal subject to terms and 121931
conditions that the director determines are necessary to ensure 121932
compliance with this chapter and rules adopted under it;121933

       (3) Deny the license or license renewal if the director finds 121934
that the public water system cannot be operated in substantial 121935
compliance with this chapter and rules adopted under it.121936

       (G) The director may condition, suspend, or revoke a license 121937
or license renewal issued under this section at any time if the 121938
director finds that the public water system was not or will not be 121939
operated in substantial compliance with this chapter and rules 121940
adopted under it. 121941

       (H) The director shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 121942
119. of the Revised Code establishing procedures and requirements 121943
governing both of the following:121944

        (1) Information to be included on applications for licenses 121945
and license renewals issued under this section;121946

        (2) The issuance, conditioning, suspension, revocation, and 121947
denial of licenses and license renewals under this section. 121948

       (I)(1) As used in division (I) of this section, "church" 121949
means a fellowship of believers, congregation, society, 121950
corporation, convention, or association that is formed primarily 121951
or exclusively for religious purposes and that is not formed or 121952
operated for the private profit of any person.121953

       (2) This section does not apply to a church that operates or 121954
maintains a public water system solely to provide water for that 121955
church or for a campground that is owned by the church and 121956
operated primarily or exclusively for members of the church and 121957
their families. 121958

       (J) This section does not apply to any public or nonpublic 121959
school that meets minimum standards of the state board of 121960
education that operates or maintains a public water system solely 121961
to provide water for that school.121962

       (K) The environmental protection agency shall collect well 121963
log filing fees on behalf of the division of soil and water 121964
resources in the department of natural resources in accordance 121965
with section 1521.05 of the Revised Code and rules adopted under 121966
it. The fees shall be submitted to the division quarterly as 121967
provided in those rules.121968

       Sec. 6111.037.  (A) There is hereby created in the state 121969
treasury the nonpoint source pollution management fund. The fund 121970
shall consist of grant moneys received underFor purposes of state 121971
nonpoint source pollution management and pursuant to section 319 121972
of the "Federal Water Pollution Control Act," for purposes of 121973
assisting with the development and implementation of a 121974
comprehensive nonpoint source pollution management program 121975
pursuant to that section of the act. Moneys credited to the fund 121976
may be used for purposes of research, planning, water quality 121977
assessments, demonstration projects, enforcement, technical 121978
assistance, education, and training regarding management of 121979
nonpoint sources of water pollution. Thethe director of 121980
environmental protection may enter into agreements to receive 121981
grant moneys for the nonpoint source pollution management fund and121982
for deposit into the state treasury to the credit of the water 121983
quality protection fund created in section 6111.0381 of the 121984
Revised Code. The director may enter into agreements to make 121985
grants of moneys credited to the fund under this section,121986
including, without limitation, passthrough grants to other state 121987
departments or agencies.121988

       (B) The director shall periodically prepare and, by rules 121989
adopted under division (O) of section 6111.036 of the Revised 121990
Code, establish a priority system for identifying activities 121991
eligible for assistance under this section. The priority system 121992
shall ensure that financial assistance available under this 121993
section is first provided to:121994

       (1) Control particularly difficult or serious nonpoint source 121995
pollution problems, including, without limitation, problems 121996
resulting from mining activities;121997

       (2) Implement innovative methods or practices for controlling 121998
nonpoint sources of pollution, including, without limitation, 121999
regulatory programs that the director determines are appropriate;122000

       (3) Control interstate nonpoint source pollution problems;122001

       (4) Implement ground and surface water quality protection 122002
activities that the director determines are part of a 122003
comprehensive nonpoint source pollution control program, which 122004
activities include research, planning, ground water quality122005
assessments, demonstration programs, enforcement, technical 122006
assistance, education, and training to protect ground water 122007
quality from nonpoint sources of pollution.122008

       Section 101.02. That existing sections 9.03, 9.15, 9.231, 122009
9.239, 9.24, 9.833, 9.90, 9.901, 101.39, 101.391, 103.144, 105.41, 122010
107.033, 107.12, 109.06, 109.36, 109.57, 109.572, 109.71, 109.746, 122011
109.77, 109.85, 109.86, 109.90, 111.02, 111.15, 111.28, 113.02, 122012
113.061, 117.03, 117.10, 117.20, 119.01, 120.06, 121.02, 121.03, 122013
121.11, 121.22, 121.35, 121.37, 121.372, 122.075, 122.083, 122.17, 122014
122.28, 122.30, 122.31, 122.32, 122.33, 122.34, 122.35, 122.36, 122015
122.657, 122.658, 122.66, 122.67, 122.68, 122.69, 122.70, 122.701, 122016
122.76, 122.861, 123.01, 123.10, 123.11, 123.201, 123.21, 123.27, 122017
124.11, 124.14, 124.18, 124.30, 124.341, 124.381, 124.57, 125.05, 122018
125.21, 125.212, 125.28, 125.602, 125.603, 125.832, 125.836, 122019
126.07, 126.14, 126.32, 126.35, 126.45, 126.46, 126.47, 126.48, 122020
127.14, 127.16, 133.01, 133.06, 135.80, 140.01, 140.03, 140.05, 122021
145.01, 145.012, 145.22, 149.01, 149.311, 149.43, 151.11, 152.09, 122022
153.692, 154.01, 154.17, 154.20, 154.22, 154.23, 154.25, 156.02, 122023
156.03, 156.04, 156.05, 164.27, 166.02, 166.03, 166.04, 166.08, 122024
166.25, 169.02, 173.03, 173.14, 173.17, 173.19, 173.20, 173.21, 122025
173.23, 173.25, 173.26, 173.27, 173.28, 173.39, 173.391, 173.392, 122026
173.394, 173.40, 173.401, 173.402, 173.403, 173.404, 173.42, 122027
173.43, 173.431, 173.432, 173.434, 173.45, 173.47, 173.48, 173.50, 122028
173.501, 173.99, 189.04, 189.06, 191.01, 191.02, 191.04, 191.06, 122029
301.28, 305.23, 307.07, 307.673, 307.674, 307.86, 309.09, 317.08, 122030
317.32, 317.321, 317.36, 321.35, 321.44, 329.04, 329.051, 329.06, 122031
329.14, 339.02, 339.05, 339.06, 339.07, 340.01, 340.011, 340.02, 122032
340.021, 340.03, 340.031, 340.032, 340.04, 340.05, 340.07, 340.09, 122033
340.091, 340.10, 340.11, 340.12, 340.13, 340.15, 340.16, 341.192, 122034
351.021, 715.691, 721.01, 721.03, 731.091, 737.41, 742.14, 755.06, 122035
901.21, 901.22, 901.23, 903.11, 903.99, 905.06, 909.15, 924.06, 122036
927.54, 955.201, 956.07, 956.18, 991.03, 991.04, 991.06, 1332.26, 122037
1337.11, 1347.08, 1501.011, 1501.45, 1509.01, 1509.02, 1509.062, 122038
1509.10, 1509.11, 1509.50, 1509.73, 1511.02, 1511.022, 1519.05, 122039
1531.06, 1531.17, 1545.071, 1547.99, 1548.02, 1551.33, 1551.35, 122040
1555.15, 1711.07, 1724.03, 1739.061, 1751.01, 1751.11, 1751.12, 122041
1751.14, 1751.271, 1751.31, 1751.60, 1923.14, 2101.24, 2108.05, 122042
2113.041, 2113.06, 2117.061, 2117.25, 2133.01, 2133.25, 2151.011, 122043
2151.3514, 2151.362, 2151.86, 2152.54, 2152.59, 2301.02, 2301.03, 122044
2303.201, 2305.234, 2307.65, 2317.02, 2317.422, 2505.02, 2743.02, 122045
2744.05, 2901.13, 2901.30, 2903.13, 2903.33, 2907.22, 2913.40, 122046
2913.401, 2919.271, 2921.01, 2921.13, 2921.22, 2921.36, 2921.38, 122047
2923.125, 2923.126, 2925.03, 2929.13, 2929.15, 2930.01, 2935.03, 122048
2935.33, 2945.37, 2945.371, 2945.38, 2945.39, 2945.40, 2945.401, 122049
2951.041, 2967.22, 2981.01, 2981.12, 2981.13, 3101.051, 3107.083, 122050
3109.15, 3111.04, 3111.72, 3119.29, 3119.54, 3121.441, 3121.89, 122051
3121.891, 3121.892, 3121.893, 3121.898, 3123.958, 3125.18, 122052
3125.36, 3301.07, 3301.0714, 3301.0715, 3301.0723, 3301.15, 122053
3302.01, 3302.03, 3302.22, 3304.231, 3305.03, 3307.51, 3309.21, 122054
3310.01, 3310.02, 3310.03, 3310.05, 3310.06, 3310.08, 3310.56, 122055
3311.0510, 3311.22, 3311.231, 3311.38, 3311.78, 3312.08, 3313.372, 122056
3313.376, 3313.42, 3313.48, 3313.483, 3313.484, 3313.488, 122057
3313.4810, 3313.533, 3313.539, 3313.603, 3313.6013, 3313.62, 122058
3313.64, 3313.646, 3313.65, 3313.714, 3313.715, 3313.83, 3313.841, 122059
3313.843, 3313.845, 3313.847, 3313.88, 3313.978, 3313.98, 122060
3313.981, 3314.015, 3314.017, 3314.029, 3314.03, 3314.05, 3314.06, 122061
3314.072, 3314.074, 3314.08, 3314.083, 3314.084, 3314.087, 122062
3314.09, 3314.091, 3314.11, 3314.26, 3315.40, 3315.42, 3316.041, 122063
3316.06, 3317.01, 3317.013, 3317.021, 3317.023, 3317.0212, 122064
3317.03, 3317.032, 3317.05, 3317.06, 3317.08, 3317.10, 3317.12, 122065
3317.14, 3317.141, 3317.18, 3317.19, 3317.20, 3317.50, 3317.51, 122066
3318.011, 3318.031, 3318.08, 3318.31, 3318.36, 3318.363, 3319.07, 122067
3319.073, 3319.17, 3319.22, 3319.235, 3319.57, 3321.01, 3321.05, 122068
3323.021, 3323.03, 3323.04, 3323.07, 3323.08, 3323.09, 3323.091, 122069
3323.13, 3323.14, 3323.141, 3323.142, 3326.11, 3326.20, 3326.31, 122070
3326.32, 3326.33, 3326.34, 3326.38, 3326.45, 3327.01, 3333.041, 122071
3333.31, 3333.82, 3335.35, 3335.36, 3335.37, 3335.38, 3345.05, 122072
3345.12, 3353.01, 3353.02, 3353.03, 3353.04, 3353.06, 3353.07, 122073
3365.01, 3365.02, 3365.07, 3365.12, 3383.01, 3383.07, 3501.01, 122074
3599.45, 3701.023, 3701.024, 3701.027, 3701.13, 3701.132, 122075
3701.243, 3701.261, 3701.262, 3701.264, 3701.342, 3701.344, 122076
3701.507, 3701.74, 3701.741, 3701.742, 3701.78, 3701.83, 3701.881, 122077
3701.921, 3701.922, 3701.99, 3702.30, 3702.51, 3702.521, 3702.55, 122078
3702.62, 3702.74, 3702.91, 3704.144, 3706.01, 3707.511, 3709.01, 122079
3709.051, 3709.10, 3712.051, 3712.07, 3712.09, 3713.06, 3714.07, 122080
3717.08, 3718.06, 3719.61, 3721.01, 3721.011, 3721.02, 3721.022, 122081
3721.024, 3721.027, 3721.042, 3721.071, 3721.08, 3721.10, 3721.12, 122082
3721.121, 3721.13, 3721.14, 3721.15, 3721.16, 3721.17, 3721.19, 122083
3721.50, 3721.51, 3721.511, 3721.512, 3721.513, 3721.52, 3721.53, 122084
3721.531, 3721.532, 3721.533, 3721.54, 3721.541, 3721.55, 3721.56, 122085
3721.57, 3721.58, 3727.01, 3734.28, 3734.57, 3734.901, 3734.907, 122086
3735.58, 3737.02, 3737.83, 3737.841, 3737.88, 3742.30, 3742.31, 122087
3742.32, 3742.51, 3745.11, 3745.113, 3769.08, 3769.088, 3770.02, 122088
3770.03, 3770.06, 3772.03, 3772.062, 3772.091, 3781.112, 3793.01, 122089
3793.031, 3793.032, 3793.051, 3793.10, 3793.11, 3793.12, 3793.13, 122090
3793.14, 3793.15, 3793.16, 3793.18, 3793.22, 3793.31, 3793.32, 122091
3793.33, 3793.34, 3793.35, 3793.36, 3793.37, 3793.38, 3793.39, 122092
3798.01, 3901.3814, 3903.14, 3905.40, 3905.483, 3905.862, 3916.06, 122093
3923.24, 3923.241, 3923.281, 3923.443, 3923.49, 3923.50, 3923.601, 122094
3923.83, 3924.41, 3924.42, 3963.01, 3963.04, 4104.33, 4112.02, 122095
4112.12, 4112.31, 4115.034, 4115.32, 4117.06, 4117.14, 4117.15, 122096
4121.50, 4123.32, 4131.03, 4141.162, 4301.10, 4301.30, 4301.43, 122097
4305.131, 4501.01, 4501.21, 4503.62, 4505.02, 4505.09, 4505.101, 122098
4506.07, 4507.03, 4507.06, 4507.51, 4510.038, 4510.45, 4511.19, 122099
4511.191, 4511.69, 4513.60, 4513.61, 4513.62, 4701.03, 4707.02, 122100
4707.073, 4707.10, 4709.11, 4715.36, 4715.372, 4717.03, 4717.06, 122101
4717.07, 4717.10, 4717.14, 4717.15, 4719.01, 4723.18, 4723.35, 122102
4723.481, 4725.03, 4725.16, 4729.51, 4729.54, 4729.69, 4729.80, 122103
4729.81, 4729.99, 4730.411, 4731.151, 4731.23, 4731.65, 4731.71, 122104
4734.41, 4745.01, 4751.01, 4751.02, 4751.03, 4751.04, 4751.041, 122105
4751.05, 4751.06, 4751.07, 4751.08, 4751.10, 4751.11, 4751.12, 122106
4751.13, 4753.071, 4755.481, 4758.10, 4758.11, 4761.01, 4906.20, 122107
5101.01, 5101.11, 5101.141, 5101.16, 5101.162, 5101.18, 5101.181, 122108
5101.183, 5101.184, 5101.26, 5101.271, 5101.272, 5101.273, 122109
5101.30, 5101.31, 5101.34, 5101.35, 5101.36, 5101.46, 5101.461, 122110
5101.47, 5101.49, 5101.50, 5101.501, 5101.502, 5101.51, 5101.511, 122111
5101.512, 5101.513, 5101.516, 5101.517, 5101.519, 5101.5110, 122112
5101.52, 5101.521, 5101.522, 5101.524, 5101.527, 5101.571, 122113
5101.572, 5101.573, 5101.574, 5101.575, 5101.58, 5101.59, 122114
5101.591, 5101.60, 5101.61, 5101.80, 5101.801, 5101.803, 5103.02, 122115
5103.0323, 5103.13, 5103.42, 5104.012, 5104.013, 5104.02, 122116
5104.021, 5104.03, 5104.08, 5104.11, 5104.12, 5104.32, 5107.10, 122117
5107.14, 5107.16, 5107.20, 5107.24, 5107.26, 5107.42, 5107.64, 122118
5111.01, 5111.011, 5111.013, 5111.016, 5111.018, 5111.0112, 122119
5111.0114, 5111.0116, 5111.0117, 5111.0118, 5111.0119, 5111.02, 122120
5111.021, 5111.022, 5111.023, 5111.024, 5111.025, 5111.027, 122121
5111.028, 5111.029, 5111.0210, 5111.0211, 5111.0212, 5111.0213, 122122
5111.0214, 5111.0215, 5111.03, 5111.031, 5111.032, 5111.033, 122123
5111.034, 5111.035, 5111.04, 5111.042, 5111.05, 5111.051, 122124
5111.052, 5111.053, 5111.054, 5111.06, 5111.061, 5111.062, 122125
5111.063, 5111.07, 5111.071, 5111.08, 5111.081, 5111.082, 122126
5111.083, 5111.084, 5111.085, 5111.086, 5111.09, 5111.091, 122127
5111.092, 5111.10, 5111.101, 5111.102, 5111.11, 5111.111, 122128
5111.112, 5111.113, 5111.114, 5111.12, 5111.121, 5111.13, 5111.14, 122129
5111.141, 5111.15, 5111.151, 5111.16, 5111.161, 5111.162, 122130
5111.163, 5111.17, 5111.171, 5111.172, 5111.173, 5111.174, 122131
5111.175, 5111.177, 5111.178, 5111.179, 5111.1710, 5111.1711, 122132
5111.18, 5111.181, 5111.19, 5111.191, 5111.20, 5111.201, 5111.202, 122133
5111.203, 5111.204, 5111.21, 5111.212, 5111.22, 5111.221, 122134
5111.222, 5111.223, 5111.224, 5111.225, 5111.226, 5111.23, 122135
5111.231, 5111.232, 5111.233, 5111.235, 5111.24, 5111.241, 122136
5111.242, 5111.244, 5111.245, 5111.246, 5111.25, 5111.251, 122137
5111.254, 5111.255, 5111.257, 5111.258, 5111.259, 5111.26, 122138
5111.261, 5111.262, 5111.263, 5111.264, 5111.265, 5111.266, 122139
5111.27, 5111.271, 5111.28, 5111.29, 5111.291, 5111.30, 5111.31, 122140
5111.32, 5111.33, 5111.331, 5111.35, 5111.36, 5111.37, 5111.38, 122141
5111.39, 5111.40, 5111.41, 5111.411, 5111.42, 5111.43, 5111.44, 122142
5111.45, 5111.46, 5111.47, 5111.48, 5111.49, 5111.50, 5111.51, 122143
5111.511, 5111.52, 5111.53, 5111.54, 5111.55, 5111.56, 5111.57, 122144
5111.58, 5111.59, 5111.60, 5111.61, 5111.62, 5111.63, 5111.66, 122145
5111.661, 5111.67, 5111.671, 5111.672, 5111.673, 5111.674, 122146
5111.675, 5111.676, 5111.677, 5111.68, 5111.681, 5111.682, 122147
5111.683, 5111.684, 5111.685, 5111.686, 5111.687, 5111.688, 122148
5111.689, 5111.71, 5111.711, 5111.712, 5111.713, 5111.714, 122149
5111.715, 5111.84, 5111.85, 5111.851, 5111.852, 5111.853, 122150
5111.854, 5111.855, 5111.856, 5111.86, 5111.861, 5111.862, 122151
5111.863, 5111.864, 5111.865, 5111.87, 5111.871, 5111.872, 122152
5111.873, 5111.874, 5111.875, 5111.876, 5111.877, 5111.878, 122153
5111.879, 5111.88, 5111.881, 5111.882, 5111.883, 5111.884, 122154
5111.885, 5111.886, 5111.887, 5111.888, 5111.889, 5111.8810, 122155
5111.89, 5111.891, 5111.892, 5111.893, 5111.894, 5111.90, 5111.91, 122156
5111.911, 5111.912, 5111.914, 5111.915, 5111.92, 5111.93, 5111.94, 122157
5111.941, 5111.943, 5111.944, 5111.945, 5111.96, 5111.97, 5111.98, 122158
5111.981, 5111.982, 5111.99, 5112.01, 5112.03, 5112.04, 5112.05, 122159
5112.06, 5112.07, 5112.08, 5112.09, 5112.10, 5112.11, 5112.17, 122160
5112.18, 5112.19, 5112.21, 5112.30, 5112.31, 5112.32, 5112.33, 122161
5112.331, 5112.34, 5112.341, 5112.35, 5112.37, 5112.371, 5112.38, 122162
5112.39, 5112.40, 5112.41, 5112.42, 5112.43, 5112.44, 5112.45, 122163
5112.46, 5112.47, 5112.48, 5112.99, 5112.991, 5115.20, 5117.10, 122164
5119.01, 5119.012, 5119.02, 5119.04, 5119.06, 5119.061, 5119.07, 122165
5119.071, 5119.072, 5119.08, 5119.10, 5119.101, 5119.11, 5119.12, 122166
5119.14, 5119.16, 5119.161, 5119.17, 5119.18, 5119.20, 5119.201, 122167
5119.202, 5119.21, 5119.22, 5119.221, 5119.23, 5119.24, 5119.27, 122168
5119.30, 5119.33, 5119.34, 5119.35, 5119.351, 5119.36, 5119.42, 122169
5119.43, 5119.44, 5119.46, 5119.51, 5119.52, 5119.53, 5119.57, 122170
5119.60, 5119.61, 5119.611, 5119.612, 5119.613, 5119.62, 5119.621, 122171
5119.622, 5119.63, 5119.631, 5119.69, 5119.691, 5119.99, 5120.07, 122172
5120.09, 5120.135, 5120.17, 5120.171, 5120.652, 5120.654, 122173
5121.051, 5121.30, 5121.32, 5121.33, 5121.34, 5121.35, 5121.36, 122174
5121.37, 5121.38, 5121.40, 5121.42, 5121.43, 5121.44, 5121.45, 122175
5121.46, 5121.47, 5121.49, 5121.50, 5121.51, 5121.52, 5121.55, 122176
5122.01, 5122.03, 5122.10, 5122.11, 5122.12, 5122.13, 5122.15, 122177
5122.17, 5122.18, 5122.19, 5122.20, 5122.21, 5122.23, 5122.25, 122178
5122.26, 5122.27, 5122.271, 5122.31, 5122.311, 5122.32, 5122.33, 122179
5122.34, 5122.341, 5122.39, 5122.43, 5122.44, 5122.45, 5122.46, 122180
5122.47, 5123.01, 5123.021, 5123.022, 5123.03, 5123.0412, 122181
5123.0417, 5123.09, 5123.171, 5123.19, 5123.192, 5123.197, 122182
5123.198, 5123.38, 5123.61, 5123.86, 5126.01, 5126.026, 5126.05, 122183
5126.051, 5126.054, 5126.055, 5126.24, 5139.03, 5139.04, 5139.08, 122184
5139.34, 5145.162, 5145.18, 5153.16, 5302.221, 5309.082, 5505.12, 122185
5507.46, 5511.03, 5701.13, 5703.052, 5703.059, 5703.21, 5703.37, 122186
5703.82, 5705.01, 5705.19, 5705.192, 5705.217, 5705.218, 5705.221, 122187
5705.25, 5705.412, 5709.17, 5709.212, 5709.75, 5725.18, 5725.34, 122188
5726.20, 5726.52, 5727.26, 5727.75, 5727.84, 5727.89, 5728.10, 122189
5729.03, 5729.17, 5731.39, 5733.01, 5733.06, 5733.11, 5733.98, 122190
5735.012, 5735.12, 5735.34, 5739.01, 5739.02, 5739.026, 5739.09, 122191
5739.12, 5739.13, 5741.01, 5741.03, 5741.12, 5741.17, 5743.081, 122192
5743.15, 5743.56, 5745.12, 5747.01, 5747.02, 5747.022, 5747.025, 122193
5747.08, 5747.10, 5747.11, 5747.113, 5747.122, 5747.13, 5747.21, 122194
5747.47, 5747.501, 5747.76, 5747.98, 5749.02, 5749.06, 5749.07, 122195
5749.17, 5751.01, 5751.014, 5751.07, 5751.081, 5751.09, 5751.20, 122196
5751.21, 5753.01, 5753.03, 5753.07, 5815.28, 5905.02, 5910.02, 122197
5910.07, 5919.34, 5924.502, 5924.503, 5924.504, 5924.506, 6109.21, 122198
and 6111.037 of the Revised Code are hereby repealed.122199

       Section 105.01. That sections 122.076, 122.15, 122.151, 122200
122.152, 122.153, 122.154, 122.29, 122.97, 123.23, 125.837, 122201
125.838, 166.22, 166.28, 173.425, 173.433, 183.28, 184.04, 122202
340.022, 340.033, 340.06, 340.14, 1513.371, 1531.34, 1547.721, 122203
1547.722, 1547.723, 1547.724, 1547.725, 1547.726, 3302.043, 122204
3313.481, 3313.482, 3313.4811, 3314.088, 3314.13, 3317.012, 122205
3317.014, 3317.018, 3317.02, 3317.022, 3317.029, 3317.0217, 122206
3317.051, 3317.052, 3317.053, 3317.11, 3317.13, 3317.16, 122207
3317.62, 3317.63, 3317.64, 3318.023, 3323.16, 3326.39, 3327.02, 122208
3345.81, 3353.09, 3353.15, 3353.20, 3383.02, 3383.03, 3383.04, 122209
3383.05, 3383.06, 3383.08, 3383.09, 3701.072, 3701.263, 122210
3701.343, 3701.90, 3701.901, 3701.902, 3701.903, 3701.904, 122211
3701.905, 3701.906, 3701.907, 3721.026, 3793.02, 3793.03, 122212
3793.04, 3793.041, 3793.05, 3793.06, 3793.061, 3793.08, 3793.09, 122213
3793.19, 3793.20, 3793.21, 3793.99, 5101.503, 5101.514, 122214
5101.515, 5101.518, 5101.523, 5101.525, 5101.526, 5101.528, 122215
5101.529, 5111.012, 5111.014, 5111.015, 5111.0110, 5111.0111, 122216
5111.0113, 5111.0115, 5111.0120, 5111.0121, 5111.0122, 122217
5111.0123, 5111.0124, 5111.0125, 5111.176, 5111.211, 5111.236, 122218
5111.65, 5111.70, 5111.701, 5111.702, 5111.703, 5111.704, 122219
5111.705, 5111.706, 5111.707, 5111.708, 5111.709, 5111.7011, 122220
5111.83, 5111.8710, 5111.8811, 5111.913, 5111.942, 5111.946, 122221
5119.011, 5119.013, 5119.03, 5119.05, 5119.47, 5119.623, 5119.64, 122222
5119.65, 5119.66, 5119.67, 5119.68, 5707.05, 5727.41, 5733.35, 122223
5747.211, 5747.33, 6101.451, and 6111.029 of the Revised Code are 122224
hereby repealed.122225

       Section 110.10. That section 3313.88 of the Revised Code as 122226
it results from Section 101.01 of this act be amended and 122227
recodified as section 3313.482 of the Revised Code to read as 122228
follows:122229

       Sec. 3313.88.        Sec. 3313.482.  (A)(1) Prior to the first day of 122230
August of each school year, the board of education of any school 122231
district or the governing authority of any chartered nonpublic 122232
school may submit to the department of education a plan to require 122233
students to access and complete classroom lessons posted on the 122234
district's or nonpublic school's web portal or web site in order 122235
to make up dayshours in that school year on which it is 122236
necessary to close schools for any of the reasons specified in 122237
division (B) of section 3317.01 of the Revised Code in excess of 122238
the number of days permitted under sections 3313.48, 3313.481, and 122239
3317.01 of the Revised Codedisease epidemic, hazardous weather 122240
conditions, law enforcement emergencies, inoperability of school 122241
buses or other equipment necessary to the school's operation, 122242
damage to a school building, or other temporary circumstances due 122243
to utility failure rendering the school building unfit for school 122244
use.122245

       Prior to the first day of August of each school year, the 122246
governing authority of any community school established under 122247
Chapter 3314. that is not an internet- or computer-based community 122248
school, as defined in section 3314.02 of the Revised Code, may 122249
submit to the department a plan to require students to access and 122250
complete classroom lessons posted on the school's web portal or 122251
web site in order to make up days or hours in that school year on 122252
which it is necessary to close the school for any of the reasons 122253
specified in division (H)(4) of section 3314.08 of the Revised 122254
Code so that the school is in compliance with the minimum number 122255
of hours required under Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code.122256

        A plan submitted by a school district board or, chartered 122257
nonpublic school governing authority shall provide for making up 122258
any number of days, up to a maximum of three days. A plan 122259
submitted by a, or community school governing authority shall 122260
provide for making up any number of hours, up to a maximum of the 122261
number of hours that are the equivalent of three school days. 122262
Provided the plan meets all requirements of this section, the 122263
department shall permit the board or governing authority to 122264
implement the plan for the applicable school year.122265

       (2) Each plan submitted under this section by a school 122266
district board of education shall include the written consent of 122267
the teachers' employee representative designated under division 122268
(B) of section 4117.04 of the Revised Code.122269

       (3) Each plan submitted under this section shall provide for 122270
the following:122271

       (a) Not later than the first day of November of the school 122272
year, each classroom teacher shall develop a sufficient number of 122273
lessons for each course taught by the teacher that school year to 122274
cover the number of make-up days or hours specified in the plan. 122275
The teacher shall designate the order in which the lessons are to 122276
be posted on the district's, community school's, or nonpublic 122277
school's web portal or web site in the event of a school closure. 122278
Teachers may be granted up to one professional development day to 122279
create lesson plans for those lessons.122280

       (b) To the extent possible and necessary, a classroom teacher 122281
shall update or replace, based on current instructional progress, 122282
one or more of the lesson plans developed under division (A)(3)(a) 122283
of this section before they are posted on the web portal or web 122284
site under division (A)(3)(c) of this section or distributed under 122285
division (B) of this section.122286

       (c) As soon as practicable after a school closure, a district 122287
or school employee responsible for web portal or web site 122288
operations shall make the designated lessons available to students 122289
on the district's, community school's, or nonpublic school's 122290
portal or site. A lesson shall be posted for each course that was 122291
scheduled to meet on the day or hours of the closure.122292

       (d) Each student enrolled in a course for which a lesson is 122293
posted on the portal or site shall be granted a two-week period 122294
from the date of posting to complete the lesson. The student's 122295
classroom teacher shall grade the lesson in the same manner as 122296
other lessons. The student may receive an incomplete or failing 122297
grade if the lesson is not completed on time.122298

       (e) If a student does not have access to a computer at the 122299
student's residence and the plan does not include blizzard bags 122300
under division (B) of this section, the student shall be permitted 122301
to work on the posted lessons at school after the student's school 122302
reopens. If the lessons were posted prior to the reopening, the 122303
student shall be granted a two-week period from the date of the 122304
reopening, rather than from the date of posting as otherwise 122305
required under division (A)(3)(d) of this section, to complete the 122306
lessons. The district board or community school or nonpublic 122307
school governing authority may provide the student access to a 122308
computer before, during, or after the regularly scheduled school 122309
day or may provide a substantially similar paper lesson in order 122310
to complete the lessons.122311

       (B)(1) In addition to posting classroom lessons online under 122312
division (A) of this section, the board of education of any school 122313
district or governing authority of any community or chartered 122314
nonpublic school may include in the plan distribution of "blizzard 122315
bags," which are paper copies of the lessons posted online.122316

        (2) If a school opts to use blizzard bags, teachers shall 122317
prepare paper copies in conjunction with the lessons to be posted 122318
online and update the paper copies whenever the teacher updates 122319
the online lesson plans.122320

        (3) The board of education of any school district or 122321
governing authority of any community or chartered nonpublic school 122322
that opts to use blizzard bags shall specify in the plan the 122323
method of distribution of blizzard bag lessons, which may include, 122324
but not be limited to, requiring distribution by a specific 122325
deadline or requiring distribution prior to anticipated school 122326
closure as directed by the superintendent of a school district or 122327
the principal, director, chief administrative officer, or the 122328
equivalent, of a school.122329

        (4) Students shall turn in completed lessons in accordance 122330
with division (A)(3)(d) of this section. 122331

       (C)(1) No school district that implements a plan in 122332
accordance with this section shall be considered to have failed to 122333
comply with division (B) of section 3317.01 of the Revised Code 122334
with respect to the number of make-up dayshours specified in the 122335
plan.122336

       (2) No community school that implements a plan in accordance 122337
with this section shall be considered to have failed to comply 122338
with the minimum number of hours required under Chapter 3314. of 122339
the Revised Code with respect to the number of make-up hours 122340
specified in the plan.122341

       Section 110.11. That existing section 3313.88 of the Revised 122342
Code is hereby repealed.122343

       Section 110.12. Sections 110.10 and 110.11 of this act shall 122344
take effect July 1, 2014.122345

       Section 110.20. That the versions of sections 109.57, 122346
2151.011, 2923.126, 5104.012, 5104.013, 5104.03, 5104.08, and 122347
5104.32 of the Revised Code that are scheduled to take effect 122348
January 1, 2014, be amended to read as follows:122349

       Sec. 109.57.  (A)(1) The superintendent of the bureau of 122350
criminal identification and investigation shall procure from 122351
wherever procurable and file for record photographs, pictures, 122352
descriptions, fingerprints, measurements, and other information 122353
that may be pertinent of all persons who have been convicted of 122354
committing within this state a felony, any crime constituting a 122355
misdemeanor on the first offense and a felony on subsequent 122356
offenses, or any misdemeanor described in division (A)(1)(a), 122357
(A)(5)(a), or (A)(7)(a) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code, of 122358
all children under eighteen years of age who have been adjudicated 122359
delinquent children for committing within this state an act that 122360
would be a felony or an offense of violence if committed by an 122361
adult or who have been convicted of or pleaded guilty to 122362
committing within this state a felony or an offense of violence, 122363
and of all well-known and habitual criminals. The person in charge 122364
of any county, multicounty, municipal, municipal-county, or 122365
multicounty-municipal jail or workhouse, community-based 122366
correctional facility, halfway house, alternative residential 122367
facility, or state correctional institution and the person in 122368
charge of any state institution having custody of a person 122369
suspected of having committed a felony, any crime constituting a 122370
misdemeanor on the first offense and a felony on subsequent 122371
offenses, or any misdemeanor described in division (A)(1)(a), 122372
(A)(5)(a), or (A)(7)(a) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code or 122373
having custody of a child under eighteen years of age with respect 122374
to whom there is probable cause to believe that the child may have 122375
committed an act that would be a felony or an offense of violence 122376
if committed by an adult shall furnish such material to the 122377
superintendent of the bureau. Fingerprints, photographs, or other 122378
descriptive information of a child who is under eighteen years of 122379
age, has not been arrested or otherwise taken into custody for 122380
committing an act that would be a felony or an offense of violence 122381
who is not in any other category of child specified in this 122382
division, if committed by an adult, has not been adjudicated a 122383
delinquent child for committing an act that would be a felony or 122384
an offense of violence if committed by an adult, has not been 122385
convicted of or pleaded guilty to committing a felony or an 122386
offense of violence, and is not a child with respect to whom there 122387
is probable cause to believe that the child may have committed an 122388
act that would be a felony or an offense of violence if committed 122389
by an adult shall not be procured by the superintendent or 122390
furnished by any person in charge of any county, multicounty, 122391
municipal, municipal-county, or multicounty-municipal jail or 122392
workhouse, community-based correctional facility, halfway house, 122393
alternative residential facility, or state correctional 122394
institution, except as authorized in section 2151.313 of the 122395
Revised Code. 122396

       (2) Every clerk of a court of record in this state, other 122397
than the supreme court or a court of appeals, shall send to the 122398
superintendent of the bureau a weekly report containing a summary 122399
of each case involving a felony, involving any crime constituting 122400
a misdemeanor on the first offense and a felony on subsequent 122401
offenses, involving a misdemeanor described in division (A)(1)(a), 122402
(A)(5)(a), or (A)(7)(a) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code, or 122403
involving an adjudication in a case in which a child under 122404
eighteen years of age was alleged to be a delinquent child for 122405
committing an act that would be a felony or an offense of violence 122406
if committed by an adult. The clerk of the court of common pleas 122407
shall include in the report and summary the clerk sends under this 122408
division all information described in divisions (A)(2)(a) to (f) 122409
of this section regarding a case before the court of appeals that 122410
is served by that clerk. The summary shall be written on the 122411
standard forms furnished by the superintendent pursuant to 122412
division (B) of this section and shall include the following 122413
information: 122414

       (a) The incident tracking number contained on the standard 122415
forms furnished by the superintendent pursuant to division (B) of 122416
this section; 122417

       (b) The style and number of the case; 122418

       (c) The date of arrest, offense, summons, or arraignment; 122419

       (d) The date that the person was convicted of or pleaded 122420
guilty to the offense, adjudicated a delinquent child for 122421
committing the act that would be a felony or an offense of 122422
violence if committed by an adult, found not guilty of the 122423
offense, or found not to be a delinquent child for committing an 122424
act that would be a felony or an offense of violence if committed 122425
by an adult, the date of an entry dismissing the charge, an entry 122426
declaring a mistrial of the offense in which the person is 122427
discharged, an entry finding that the person or child is not 122428
competent to stand trial, or an entry of a nolle prosequi, or the 122429
date of any other determination that constitutes final resolution 122430
of the case; 122431

       (e) A statement of the original charge with the section of 122432
the Revised Code that was alleged to be violated; 122433

       (f) If the person or child was convicted, pleaded guilty, or 122434
was adjudicated a delinquent child, the sentence or terms of 122435
probation imposed or any other disposition of the offender or the 122436
delinquent child. 122437

       If the offense involved the disarming of a law enforcement 122438
officer or an attempt to disarm a law enforcement officer, the 122439
clerk shall clearly state that fact in the summary, and the 122440
superintendent shall ensure that a clear statement of that fact is 122441
placed in the bureau's records. 122442

       (3) The superintendent shall cooperate with and assist 122443
sheriffs, chiefs of police, and other law enforcement officers in 122444
the establishment of a complete system of criminal identification 122445
and in obtaining fingerprints and other means of identification of 122446
all persons arrested on a charge of a felony, any crime 122447
constituting a misdemeanor on the first offense and a felony on 122448
subsequent offenses, or a misdemeanor described in division 122449
(A)(1)(a), (A)(5)(a), or (A)(7)(a) of section 109.572 of the 122450
Revised Code and of all children under eighteen years of age 122451
arrested or otherwise taken into custody for committing an act 122452
that would be a felony or an offense of violence if committed by 122453
an adult. The superintendent also shall file for record the 122454
fingerprint impressions of all persons confined in a county, 122455
multicounty, municipal, municipal-county, or multicounty-municipal 122456
jail or workhouse, community-based correctional facility, halfway 122457
house, alternative residential facility, or state correctional 122458
institution for the violation of state laws and of all children 122459
under eighteen years of age who are confined in a county, 122460
multicounty, municipal, municipal-county, or multicounty-municipal 122461
jail or workhouse, community-based correctional facility, halfway 122462
house, alternative residential facility, or state correctional 122463
institution or in any facility for delinquent children for 122464
committing an act that would be a felony or an offense of violence 122465
if committed by an adult, and any other information that the 122466
superintendent may receive from law enforcement officials of the 122467
state and its political subdivisions. 122468

       (4) The superintendent shall carry out Chapter 2950. of the 122469
Revised Code with respect to the registration of persons who are 122470
convicted of or plead guilty to a sexually oriented offense or a 122471
child-victim oriented offense and with respect to all other duties 122472
imposed on the bureau under that chapter. 122473

       (5) The bureau shall perform centralized recordkeeping 122474
functions for criminal history records and services in this state 122475
for purposes of the national crime prevention and privacy compact 122476
set forth in section 109.571 of the Revised Code and is the 122477
criminal history record repository as defined in that section for 122478
purposes of that compact. The superintendent or the 122479
superintendent's designee is the compact officer for purposes of 122480
that compact and shall carry out the responsibilities of the 122481
compact officer specified in that compact. 122482

       (B) The superintendent shall prepare and furnish to every 122483
county, multicounty, municipal, municipal-county, or 122484
multicounty-municipal jail or workhouse, community-based 122485
correctional facility, halfway house, alternative residential 122486
facility, or state correctional institution and to every clerk of 122487
a court in this state specified in division (A)(2) of this section 122488
standard forms for reporting the information required under 122489
division (A) of this section. The standard forms that the 122490
superintendent prepares pursuant to this division may be in a 122491
tangible format, in an electronic format, or in both tangible 122492
formats and electronic formats. 122493

       (C)(1) The superintendent may operate a center for 122494
electronic, automated, or other data processing for the storage 122495
and retrieval of information, data, and statistics pertaining to 122496
criminals and to children under eighteen years of age who are 122497
adjudicated delinquent children for committing an act that would 122498
be a felony or an offense of violence if committed by an adult, 122499
criminal activity, crime prevention, law enforcement, and criminal 122500
justice, and may establish and operate a statewide communications 122501
network to be known as the Ohio law enforcement gateway to gather 122502
and disseminate information, data, and statistics for the use of 122503
law enforcement agencies and for other uses specified in this 122504
division. The superintendent may gather, store, retrieve, and 122505
disseminate information, data, and statistics that pertain to 122506
children who are under eighteen years of age and that are gathered 122507
pursuant to sections 109.57 to 109.61 of the Revised Code together 122508
with information, data, and statistics that pertain to adults and 122509
that are gathered pursuant to those sections. 122510

       (2) The superintendent or the superintendent's designee shall 122511
gather information of the nature described in division (C)(1) of 122512
this section that pertains to the offense and delinquency history 122513
of a person who has been convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or been 122514
adjudicated a delinquent child for committing a sexually oriented 122515
offense or a child-victim oriented offense for inclusion in the 122516
state registry of sex offenders and child-victim offenders 122517
maintained pursuant to division (A)(1) of section 2950.13 of the 122518
Revised Code and in the internet database operated pursuant to 122519
division (A)(13) of that section and for possible inclusion in the 122520
internet database operated pursuant to division (A)(11) of that 122521
section. 122522

        (3) In addition to any other authorized use of information, 122523
data, and statistics of the nature described in division (C)(1) of 122524
this section, the superintendent or the superintendent's designee 122525
may provide and exchange the information, data, and statistics 122526
pursuant to the national crime prevention and privacy compact as 122527
described in division (A)(5) of this section. 122528

       (4) The attorney general may adopt rules under Chapter 119. 122529
of the Revised Code establishing guidelines for the operation of 122530
and participation in the Ohio law enforcement gateway. The rules 122531
may include criteria for granting and restricting access to 122532
information gathered and disseminated through the Ohio law 122533
enforcement gateway. The attorney general shall permit the state 122534
medical board and board of nursing to access and view, but not 122535
alter, information gathered and disseminated through the Ohio law 122536
enforcement gateway.122537

       The attorney general may appoint a steering committee to 122538
advise the attorney general in the operation of the Ohio law 122539
enforcement gateway that is comprised of persons who are 122540
representatives of the criminal justice agencies in this state 122541
that use the Ohio law enforcement gateway and is chaired by the 122542
superintendent or the superintendent's designee.122543

       (D)(1) The following are not public records under section 122544
149.43 of the Revised Code:122545

       (a) Information and materials furnished to the superintendent 122546
pursuant to division (A) of this section;122547

       (b) Information, data, and statistics gathered or 122548
disseminated through the Ohio law enforcement gateway pursuant to 122549
division (C)(1) of this section;122550

       (c) Information and materials furnished to any board or 122551
person under division (F) or (G) of this section.122552

       (2) The superintendent or the superintendent's designee shall 122553
gather and retain information so furnished under division (A) of 122554
this section that pertains to the offense and delinquency history 122555
of a person who has been convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or been 122556
adjudicated a delinquent child for committing a sexually oriented 122557
offense or a child-victim oriented offense for the purposes 122558
described in division (C)(2) of this section. 122559

       (E)(1) The attorney general shall adopt rules, in accordance 122560
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code and subject to division 122561
(E)(2) of this section, setting forth the procedure by which a 122562
person may receive or release information gathered by the 122563
superintendent pursuant to division (A) of this section. A 122564
reasonable fee may be charged for this service. If a temporary 122565
employment service submits a request for a determination of 122566
whether a person the service plans to refer to an employment 122567
position has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to an offense 122568
listed or described in division (A)(1), (2), or (3) of section 122569
109.572 of the Revised Code, the request shall be treated as a 122570
single request and only one fee shall be charged. 122571

       (2) Except as otherwise provided in this division, a rule 122572
adopted under division (E)(1) of this section may provide only for 122573
the release of information gathered pursuant to division (A) of 122574
this section that relates to the conviction of a person, or a 122575
person's plea of guilty to, a criminal offense. The superintendent 122576
shall not release, and the attorney general shall not adopt any 122577
rule under division (E)(1) of this section that permits the 122578
release of, any information gathered pursuant to division (A) of 122579
this section that relates to an adjudication of a child as a 122580
delinquent child, or that relates to a criminal conviction of a 122581
person under eighteen years of age if the person's case was 122582
transferred back to a juvenile court under division (B)(2) or (3) 122583
of section 2152.121 of the Revised Code and the juvenile court 122584
imposed a disposition or serious youthful offender disposition 122585
upon the person under either division, unless either of the 122586
following applies with respect to the adjudication or conviction:122587

       (a) The adjudication or conviction was for a violation of 122588
section 2903.01 or 2903.02 of the Revised Code.122589

       (b) The adjudication or conviction was for a sexually 122590
oriented offense, the juvenile court was required to classify the 122591
child a juvenile offender registrant for that offense under 122592
section 2152.82, 2152.83, or 2152.86 of the Revised Code, and that 122593
classification has not been removed.122594

       (F)(1) As used in division (F)(2) of this section, "head 122595
start agency" means an entity in this state that has been approved 122596
to be an agency for purposes of subchapter II of the "Community 122597
Economic Development Act," 95 Stat. 489 (1981), 42 U.S.C.A. 9831, 122598
as amended. 122599

       (2)(a) In addition to or in conjunction with any request that 122600
is required to be made under section 109.572, 2151.86, 3301.32, 122601
3301.541, division (C) of section 3310.58, or section 3319.39, 122602
3319.391, 3327.10, 3701.881, 5104.012, 5104.013, 5123.081, or 122603
5153.111 of the Revised Code or that is made under section 122604
3314.41, 3319.392, 3326.25, or 3328.20 of the Revised Code, the 122605
board of education of any school district; the director of 122606
developmental disabilities; any county board of developmental 122607
disabilities; any provider or subcontractor as defined in section 122608
5123.081 of the Revised Code; the chief administrator of any 122609
chartered nonpublic school; the chief administrator of a 122610
registered private provider that is not also a chartered nonpublic 122611
school; the chief administrator of any home health agency; the 122612
chief administrator of or person operating any child day-care 122613
center, type A family day-care home, or type B family day-care 122614
home licensed under Chapter 5104. of the Revised Code; the chief 122615
administrator of any head start agency; the executive director of 122616
a public children services agency; a private company described in 122617
section 3314.41, 3319.392, 3326.25, or 3328.20 of the Revised 122618
Code; or an employer described in division (J)(2) of section 122619
3327.10 of the Revised Code may request that the superintendent of 122620
the bureau investigate and determine, with respect to any 122621
individual who has applied for employment in any position after 122622
October 2, 1989, or any individual wishing to apply for employment 122623
with a board of education may request, with regard to the 122624
individual, whether the bureau has any information gathered under 122625
division (A) of this section that pertains to that individual. On 122626
receipt of the request, subject to division (E)(2) of this 122627
section, the superintendent shall determine whether that 122628
information exists and, upon request of the person, board, or 122629
entity requesting information, also shall request from the federal 122630
bureau of investigation any criminal records it has pertaining to 122631
that individual. The superintendent or the superintendent's 122632
designee also may request criminal history records from other 122633
states or the federal government pursuant to the national crime 122634
prevention and privacy compact set forth in section 109.571 of the 122635
Revised Code. Within thirty days of the date that the 122636
superintendent receives a request, subject to division (E)(2) of 122637
this section, the superintendent shall send to the board, entity, 122638
or person a report of any information that the superintendent 122639
determines exists, including information contained in records that 122640
have been sealed under section 2953.32 of the Revised Code, and, 122641
within thirty days of its receipt, subject to division (E)(2) of 122642
this section, shall send the board, entity, or person a report of 122643
any information received from the federal bureau of investigation, 122644
other than information the dissemination of which is prohibited by 122645
federal law. 122646

       (b) When a board of education or a registered private 122647
provider is required to receive information under this section as 122648
a prerequisite to employment of an individual pursuant to division 122649
(C) of section 3310.58 or section 3319.39 of the Revised Code, it 122650
may accept a certified copy of records that were issued by the 122651
bureau of criminal identification and investigation and that are 122652
presented by an individual applying for employment with the 122653
district in lieu of requesting that information itself. In such a 122654
case, the board shall accept the certified copy issued by the 122655
bureau in order to make a photocopy of it for that individual's 122656
employment application documents and shall return the certified 122657
copy to the individual. In a case of that nature, a district or 122658
provider only shall accept a certified copy of records of that 122659
nature within one year after the date of their issuance by the 122660
bureau. 122661

       (c) Notwithstanding division (F)(2)(a) of this section, in 122662
the case of a request under section 3319.39, 3319.391, or 3327.10 122663
of the Revised Code only for criminal records maintained by the 122664
federal bureau of investigation, the superintendent shall not 122665
determine whether any information gathered under division (A) of 122666
this section exists on the person for whom the request is made.122667

       (3) The state board of education may request, with respect to 122668
any individual who has applied for employment after October 2, 122669
1989, in any position with the state board or the department of 122670
education, any information that a school district board of 122671
education is authorized to request under division (F)(2) of this 122672
section, and the superintendent of the bureau shall proceed as if 122673
the request has been received from a school district board of 122674
education under division (F)(2) of this section. 122675

       (4) When the superintendent of the bureau receives a request 122676
for information under section 3319.291 of the Revised Code, the 122677
superintendent shall proceed as if the request has been received 122678
from a school district board of education and shall comply with 122679
divisions (F)(2)(a) and (c) of this section. 122680

       (5) When a recipient of a classroom reading improvement grant 122681
paid under section 3301.86 of the Revised Code requests, with 122682
respect to any individual who applies to participate in providing 122683
any program or service funded in whole or in part by the grant, 122684
the information that a school district board of education is 122685
authorized to request under division (F)(2)(a) of this section, 122686
the superintendent of the bureau shall proceed as if the request 122687
has been received from a school district board of education under 122688
division (F)(2)(a) of this section. 122689

       (G) In addition to or in conjunction with any request that is 122690
required to be made under section 3701.881, 3712.09, or 3721.121 122691
of the Revised Code with respect to an individual who has applied 122692
for employment in a position that involves providing direct care 122693
to an older adult or adult resident, the chief administrator of a 122694
home health agency, hospice care program, home licensed under 122695
Chapter 3721. of the Revised Code, or adult day-care program 122696
operated pursuant to rules adopted under section 3721.04 of the 122697
Revised Code may request that the superintendent of the bureau 122698
investigate and determine, with respect to any individual who has 122699
applied after January 27, 1997, for employment in a position that 122700
does not involve providing direct care to an older adult or adult 122701
resident, whether the bureau has any information gathered under 122702
division (A) of this section that pertains to that individual. 122703

       In addition to or in conjunction with any request that is 122704
required to be made under section 173.27 of the Revised Code with 122705
respect to an individual who has applied for employment in a 122706
position that involves providing ombudspersonombudsman services 122707
to residents of long-term care facilities or recipients of 122708
community-based long-term care services, the state long-term care 122709
ombudspersonombudsman, ombudsperson's designee, orthe director 122710
of healthaging, a regional long-term care ombudsman program, or 122711
the designee of the ombudsman, director, or program may request 122712
that the superintendent investigate and determine, with respect to 122713
any individual who has applied for employment in a position that 122714
does not involve providing such ombudspersonombudsman services, 122715
whether the bureau has any information gathered under division (A) 122716
of this section that pertains to that applicant. 122717

       In addition to or in conjunction with any request that is 122718
required to be made under section 173.394173.38 of the Revised 122719
Code with respect to an individual who has applied for employment 122720
in a direct-care position that involves providing direct care to 122721
an individual, the chief administrator of a community-based 122722
long-term care agencyprovider, as defined in section 173.39 of 122723
the Revised Code, may request that the superintendent investigate 122724
and determine, with respect to any individual who has applied for 122725
employment in a position that doesis not involve providing direct 122726
carea direct-care position, whether the bureau has any 122727
information gathered under division (A) of this section that 122728
pertains to that applicant. 122729

        In addition to or in conjunction with any request that is 122730
required to be made under section 3712.09 of the Revised Code with 122731
respect to an individual who has applied for employment in a 122732
position that involves providing direct care to a pediatric 122733
respite care patient, the chief administrator of a pediatric 122734
respite care program may request that the superintendent of the 122735
bureau investigate and determine, with respect to any individual 122736
who has applied for employment in a position that does not involve 122737
providing direct care to a pediatric respite care patient, whether 122738
the bureau has any information gathered under division (A) of this 122739
section that pertains to that individual.122740

       On receipt of a request under this division, the 122741
superintendent shall determine whether that information exists 122742
and, on request of the individual requesting information, shall 122743
also request from the federal bureau of investigation any criminal 122744
records it has pertaining to the applicant. The superintendent or 122745
the superintendent's designee also may request criminal history 122746
records from other states or the federal government pursuant to 122747
the national crime prevention and privacy compact set forth in 122748
section 109.571 of the Revised Code. Within thirty days of the 122749
date a request is received, subject to division (E)(2) of this 122750
section, the superintendent shall send to the requester a report 122751
of any information determined to exist, including information 122752
contained in records that have been sealed under section 2953.32 122753
of the Revised Code, and, within thirty days of its receipt, shall 122754
send the requester a report of any information received from the 122755
federal bureau of investigation, other than information the 122756
dissemination of which is prohibited by federal law. 122757

       (H) Information obtained by a government entity or person 122758
under this section is confidential and shall not be released or 122759
disseminated. 122760

       (I) The superintendent may charge a reasonable fee for 122761
providing information or criminal records under division (F)(2) or 122762
(G) of this section. 122763

       (J) As used in this section:122764

       (1) "Pediatric respite care program" and "pediatric care 122765
patient" have the same meanings as in section 3712.01 of the 122766
Revised Code.122767

       (2) "Sexually oriented offense" and "child-victim oriented 122768
offense" have the same meanings as in section 2950.01 of the 122769
Revised Code.122770

       (3) "Registered private provider" means a nonpublic school or 122771
entity registered with the superintendent of public instruction 122772
under section 3310.41 of the Revised Code to participate in the 122773
autism scholarship program or section 3310.58 of the Revised Code 122774
to participate in the Jon Peterson special needs scholarship 122775
program.122776

       Sec. 2151.011.  (A) As used in the Revised Code:122777

       (1) "Juvenile court" means whichever of the following is 122778
applicable that has jurisdiction under this chapter and Chapter 122779
2152. of the Revised Code:122780

       (a) The division of the court of common pleas specified in 122781
section 2101.022 or 2301.03 of the Revised Code as having 122782
jurisdiction under this chapter and Chapter 2152. of the Revised 122783
Code or as being the juvenile division or the juvenile division 122784
combined with one or more other divisions;122785

       (b) The juvenile court of Cuyahoga county or Hamilton county 122786
that is separately and independently created by section 2151.08 or 122787
Chapter 2153. of the Revised Code and that has jurisdiction under 122788
this chapter and Chapter 2152. of the Revised Code;122789

       (c) If division (A)(1)(a) or (b) of this section does not 122790
apply, the probate division of the court of common pleas.122791

       (2) "Juvenile judge" means a judge of a court having 122792
jurisdiction under this chapter.122793

       (3) "Private child placing agency" means any association, as 122794
defined in section 5103.02 of the Revised Code, that is certified 122795
under section 5103.03 of the Revised Code to accept temporary, 122796
permanent, or legal custody of children and place the children for 122797
either foster care or adoption.122798

       (4) "Private noncustodial agency" means any person, 122799
organization, association, or society certified by the department 122800
of job and family services that does not accept temporary or 122801
permanent legal custody of children, that is privately operated in 122802
this state, and that does one or more of the following:122803

       (a) Receives and cares for children for two or more 122804
consecutive weeks;122805

       (b) Participates in the placement of children in certified 122806
foster homes;122807

       (c) Provides adoption services in conjunction with a public 122808
children services agency or private child placing agency.122809

       (B) As used in this chapter:122810

       (1) "Adequate parental care" means the provision by a child's 122811
parent or parents, guardian, or custodian of adequate food, 122812
clothing, and shelter to ensure the child's health and physical 122813
safety and the provision by a child's parent or parents of 122814
specialized services warranted by the child's physical or mental 122815
needs.122816

       (2) "Adult" means an individual who is eighteen years of age 122817
or older.122818

       (3) "Agreement for temporary custody" means a voluntary 122819
agreement authorized by section 5103.15 of the Revised Code that 122820
transfers the temporary custody of a child to a public children 122821
services agency or a private child placing agency.122822

       (4) "Alternative response" means the public children services 122823
agency's response to a report of child abuse or neglect that 122824
engages the family in a comprehensive evaluation of child safety, 122825
risk of subsequent harm, and family strengths and needs and that 122826
does not include a determination as to whether child abuse or 122827
neglect occurred.122828

       (5) "Certified foster home" means a foster home, as defined 122829
in section 5103.02 of the Revised Code, certified under section 122830
5103.03 of the Revised Code.122831

       (6) "Child" means a person who is under eighteen years of 122832
age, except that the juvenile court has jurisdiction over any 122833
person who is adjudicated an unruly child prior to attaining 122834
eighteen years of age until the person attains twenty-one years of 122835
age, and, for purposes of that jurisdiction related to that 122836
adjudication, a person who is so adjudicated an unruly child shall 122837
be deemed a "child" until the person attains twenty-one years of 122838
age.122839

       (7) "Child day camp," "child care," "child day-care center," 122840
"part-time child day-care center," "type A family day-care home," 122841
"licensed type B family day-care home," "type B family day-care 122842
home," "administrator of a child day-care center," "administrator 122843
of a type A family day-care home," and "in-home aide" have the 122844
same meanings as in section 5104.01 of the Revised Code.122845

       (8) "Child care provider" means an individual who is a 122846
child-care staff member or administrator of a child day-care 122847
center, a type A family day-care home, or a type B family day-care 122848
home, or an in-home aide or an individual who is licensed, is 122849
regulated, is approved, operates under the direction of, or 122850
otherwise is certified by the department of job and family 122851
services, department of developmental disabilities, or the early 122852
childhood programs of the department of education.122853

       (9) "Chronic truant" has the same meaning as in section 122854
2152.02 of the Revised Code.122855

       (10) "Commit" means to vest custody as ordered by the court.122856

       (11) "Counseling" includes both of the following:122857

       (a) General counseling services performed by a public 122858
children services agency or shelter for victims of domestic 122859
violence to assist a child, a child's parents, and a child's 122860
siblings in alleviating identified problems that may cause or have 122861
caused the child to be an abused, neglected, or dependent child.122862

       (b) Psychiatric or psychological therapeutic counseling 122863
services provided to correct or alleviate any mental or emotional 122864
illness or disorder and performed by a licensed psychiatrist, 122865
licensed psychologist, or a person licensed under Chapter 4757. of 122866
the Revised Code to engage in social work or professional 122867
counseling.122868

       (12) "Custodian" means a person who has legal custody of a 122869
child or a public children services agency or private child 122870
placing agency that has permanent, temporary, or legal custody of 122871
a child.122872

       (13) "Delinquent child" has the same meaning as in section 122873
2152.02 of the Revised Code.122874

       (14) "Detention" means the temporary care of children pending 122875
court adjudication or disposition, or execution of a court order, 122876
in a public or private facility designed to physically restrict 122877
the movement and activities of children.122878

       (15) "Developmental disability" has the same meaning as in 122879
section 5123.01 of the Revised Code.122880

       (16) "Differential response approach" means an approach that 122881
a public children services agency may use to respond to accepted 122882
reports of child abuse or neglect with either an alternative 122883
response or a traditional response.122884

       (17) "Foster caregiver" has the same meaning as in section 122885
5103.02 of the Revised Code.122886

       (18) "Guardian" means a person, association, or corporation 122887
that is granted authority by a probate court pursuant to Chapter 122888
2111. of the Revised Code to exercise parental rights over a child 122889
to the extent provided in the court's order and subject to the 122890
residual parental rights of the child's parents.122891

       (19) "Habitual truant" means any child of compulsory school 122892
age who is absent without legitimate excuse for absence from the 122893
public school the child is supposed to attend for five or more 122894
consecutive school days, seven or more school days in one school 122895
month, or twelve or more school days in a school year.122896

       (20) "Juvenile traffic offender" has the same meaning as in 122897
section 2152.02 of the Revised Code.122898

       (21) "Legal custody" means a legal status that vests in the 122899
custodian the right to have physical care and control of the child 122900
and to determine where and with whom the child shall live, and the 122901
right and duty to protect, train, and discipline the child and to 122902
provide the child with food, shelter, education, and medical care, 122903
all subject to any residual parental rights, privileges, and 122904
responsibilities. An individual granted legal custody shall 122905
exercise the rights and responsibilities personally unless 122906
otherwise authorized by any section of the Revised Code or by the 122907
court.122908

       (22) A "legitimate excuse for absence from the public school 122909
the child is supposed to attend" includes, but is not limited to, 122910
any of the following:122911

       (a) The fact that the child in question has enrolled in and 122912
is attending another public or nonpublic school in this or another 122913
state;122914

       (b) The fact that the child in question is excused from 122915
attendance at school for any of the reasons specified in section 122916
3321.04 of the Revised Code;122917

       (c) The fact that the child in question has received an age 122918
and schooling certificate in accordance with section 3331.01 of 122919
the Revised Code.122920

       (23) "Mental illness" and "mentally ill person subject to 122921
hospitalization by court order" have the same meanings as in 122922
section 5122.01 of the Revised Code.122923

       (24) "Mental injury" means any behavioral, cognitive, 122924
emotional, or mental disorder in a child caused by an act or 122925
omission that is described in section 2919.22 of the Revised Code 122926
and is committed by the parent or other person responsible for the 122927
child's care.122928

       (25) "Mentally retarded person" has the same meaning as in 122929
section 5123.01 of the Revised Code.122930

       (26) "Nonsecure care, supervision, or training" means care, 122931
supervision, or training of a child in a facility that does not 122932
confine or prevent movement of the child within the facility or 122933
from the facility.122934

       (27) "Of compulsory school age" has the same meaning as in 122935
section 3321.01 of the Revised Code.122936

       (28) "Organization" means any institution, public, 122937
semipublic, or private, and any private association, society, or 122938
agency located or operating in the state, incorporated or 122939
unincorporated, having among its functions the furnishing of 122940
protective services or care for children, or the placement of 122941
children in certified foster homes or elsewhere.122942

       (29) "Out-of-home care" means detention facilities, shelter 122943
facilities, certified children's crisis care facilities, certified 122944
foster homes, placement in a prospective adoptive home prior to 122945
the issuance of a final decree of adoption, organizations, 122946
certified organizations, child day-care centers, type A family 122947
day-care homes, type B family day-care homes, child care provided 122948
by in-home aides, group home providers, group homes, institutions, 122949
state institutions, residential facilities, residential care 122950
facilities, residential camps, day camps, public schools, 122951
chartered nonpublic schools, educational service centers, 122952
hospitals, and medical clinics that are responsible for the care, 122953
physical custody, or control of children.122954

       (30) "Out-of-home care child abuse" means any of the 122955
following when committed by a person responsible for the care of a 122956
child in out-of-home care:122957

       (a) Engaging in sexual activity with a child in the person's 122958
care;122959

       (b) Denial to a child, as a means of punishment, of proper or 122960
necessary subsistence, education, medical care, or other care 122961
necessary for a child's health;122962

       (c) Use of restraint procedures on a child that cause injury 122963
or pain;122964

       (d) Administration of prescription drugs or psychotropic 122965
medication to the child without the written approval and ongoing 122966
supervision of a licensed physician;122967

       (e) Commission of any act, other than by accidental means, 122968
that results in any injury to or death of the child in out-of-home 122969
care or commission of any act by accidental means that results in 122970
an injury to or death of a child in out-of-home care and that is 122971
at variance with the history given of the injury or death.122972

       (31) "Out-of-home care child neglect" means any of the 122973
following when committed by a person responsible for the care of a 122974
child in out-of-home care:122975

       (a) Failure to provide reasonable supervision according to 122976
the standards of care appropriate to the age, mental and physical 122977
condition, or other special needs of the child;122978

       (b) Failure to provide reasonable supervision according to 122979
the standards of care appropriate to the age, mental and physical 122980
condition, or other special needs of the child, that results in 122981
sexual or physical abuse of the child by any person;122982

       (c) Failure to develop a process for all of the following:122983

       (i) Administration of prescription drugs or psychotropic 122984
drugs for the child;122985

       (ii) Assuring that the instructions of the licensed physician 122986
who prescribed a drug for the child are followed;122987

       (iii) Reporting to the licensed physician who prescribed the 122988
drug all unfavorable or dangerous side effects from the use of the 122989
drug.122990

       (d) Failure to provide proper or necessary subsistence, 122991
education, medical care, or other individualized care necessary 122992
for the health or well-being of the child;122993

       (e) Confinement of the child to a locked room without 122994
monitoring by staff;122995

       (f) Failure to provide ongoing security for all prescription 122996
and nonprescription medication;122997

       (g) Isolation of a child for a period of time when there is 122998
substantial risk that the isolation, if continued, will impair or 122999
retard the mental health or physical well-being of the child.123000

       (32) "Permanent custody" means a legal status that vests in a 123001
public children services agency or a private child placing agency, 123002
all parental rights, duties, and obligations, including the right 123003
to consent to adoption, and divests the natural parents or 123004
adoptive parents of all parental rights, privileges, and 123005
obligations, including all residual rights and obligations.123006

       (33) "Permanent surrender" means the act of the parents or, 123007
if a child has only one parent, of the parent of a child, by a 123008
voluntary agreement authorized by section 5103.15 of the Revised 123009
Code, to transfer the permanent custody of the child to a public 123010
children services agency or a private child placing agency.123011

       (34) "Person" means an individual, association, corporation, 123012
or partnership and the state or any of its political subdivisions, 123013
departments, or agencies.123014

       (35) "Person responsible for a child's care in out-of-home 123015
care" means any of the following:123016

       (a) Any foster caregiver, in-home aide, or provider;123017

       (b) Any administrator, employee, or agent of any of the 123018
following: a public or private detention facility; shelter 123019
facility; certified children's crisis care facility; organization; 123020
certified organization; child day-care center; type A family 123021
day-care home; licensed type B family day-care home; group home; 123022
institution; state institution; residential facility; residential 123023
care facility; residential camp; day camp; school district; 123024
community school; chartered nonpublic school; educational service 123025
center; hospital; or medical clinic;123026

       (c) Any person who supervises or coaches children as part of 123027
an extracurricular activity sponsored by a school district, public 123028
school, or chartered nonpublic school;123029

       (d) Any other person who performs a similar function with 123030
respect to, or has a similar relationship to, children.123031

       (36) "Physically impaired" means having one or more of the 123032
following conditions that substantially limit one or more of an 123033
individual's major life activities, including self-care, receptive 123034
and expressive language, learning, mobility, and self-direction:123035

       (a) A substantial impairment of vision, speech, or hearing;123036

       (b) A congenital orthopedic impairment;123037

       (c) An orthopedic impairment caused by disease, rheumatic 123038
fever or any other similar chronic or acute health problem, or 123039
amputation or another similar cause.123040

       (37) "Placement for adoption" means the arrangement by a 123041
public children services agency or a private child placing agency 123042
with a person for the care and adoption by that person of a child 123043
of whom the agency has permanent custody.123044

       (38) "Placement in foster care" means the arrangement by a 123045
public children services agency or a private child placing agency 123046
for the out-of-home care of a child of whom the agency has 123047
temporary custody or permanent custody.123048

       (39) "Planned permanent living arrangement" means an order of 123049
a juvenile court pursuant to which both of the following apply:123050

       (a) The court gives legal custody of a child to a public 123051
children services agency or a private child placing agency without 123052
the termination of parental rights.123053

       (b) The order permits the agency to make an appropriate 123054
placement of the child and to enter into a written agreement with 123055
a foster care provider or with another person or agency with whom 123056
the child is placed.123057

       (40) "Practice of social work" and "practice of professional 123058
counseling" have the same meanings as in section 4757.01 of the 123059
Revised Code.123060

       (41) "Sanction, service, or condition" means a sanction, 123061
service, or condition created by court order following an 123062
adjudication that a child is an unruly child that is described in 123063
division (A)(4) of section 2152.19 of the Revised Code.123064

       (42) "Protective supervision" means an order of disposition 123065
pursuant to which the court permits an abused, neglected, 123066
dependent, or unruly child to remain in the custody of the child's 123067
parents, guardian, or custodian and stay in the child's home, 123068
subject to any conditions and limitations upon the child, the 123069
child's parents, guardian, or custodian, or any other person that 123070
the court prescribes, including supervision as directed by the 123071
court for the protection of the child.123072

       (43) "Psychiatrist" has the same meaning as in section 123073
5122.01 of the Revised Code.123074

       (44) "Psychologist" has the same meaning as in section 123075
4732.01 of the Revised Code.123076

       (45) "Residential camp" means a program in which the care, 123077
physical custody, or control of children is accepted overnight for 123078
recreational or recreational and educational purposes.123079

       (46) "Residential care facility" means an institution, 123080
residence, or facility that is licensed by the department of 123081
mental healthmental health and addiction services under section 123082
5119.225119.34 of the Revised Code and that provides care for a 123083
child.123084

       (47) "Residential facility" means a home or facility that is 123085
licensed by the department of developmental disabilities under 123086
section 5123.19 of the Revised Code and in which a child with a 123087
developmental disability resides.123088

       (48) "Residual parental rights, privileges, and 123089
responsibilities" means those rights, privileges, and 123090
responsibilities remaining with the natural parent after the 123091
transfer of legal custody of the child, including, but not 123092
necessarily limited to, the privilege of reasonable visitation, 123093
consent to adoption, the privilege to determine the child's 123094
religious affiliation, and the responsibility for support.123095

       (49) "School day" means the school day established by the 123096
state board of education of the applicable school district123097
pursuant to section 3313.483313.481 of the Revised Code.123098

       (50) "School month" and "school year" havehas the same 123099
meaningsmeaning as in section 3313.62 of the Revised Code.123100

       (51) "Secure correctional facility" means a facility under 123101
the direction of the department of youth services that is designed 123102
to physically restrict the movement and activities of children and 123103
used for the placement of children after adjudication and 123104
disposition.123105

       (52) "Sexual activity" has the same meaning as in section 123106
2907.01 of the Revised Code.123107

       (53) "Shelter" means the temporary care of children in 123108
physically unrestricted facilities pending court adjudication or 123109
disposition.123110

       (54) "Shelter for victims of domestic violence" has the same 123111
meaning as in section 3113.33 of the Revised Code.123112

       (55) "Temporary custody" means legal custody of a child who 123113
is removed from the child's home, which custody may be terminated 123114
at any time at the discretion of the court or, if the legal 123115
custody is granted in an agreement for temporary custody, by the 123116
person who executed the agreement.123117

       (56) "Traditional response" means a public children services 123118
agency's response to a report of child abuse or neglect that 123119
encourages engagement of the family in a comprehensive evaluation 123120
of the child's current and future safety needs and a fact-finding 123121
process to determine whether child abuse or neglect occurred and 123122
the circumstances surrounding the alleged harm or risk of harm.123123

       (C) For the purposes of this chapter, a child shall be 123124
presumed abandoned when the parents of the child have failed to 123125
visit or maintain contact with the child for more than ninety 123126
days, regardless of whether the parents resume contact with the 123127
child after that period of ninety days.123128

       Sec. 2923.126.  (A) A concealed handgun license that is 123129
issued under section 2923.125 of the Revised Code shall expire 123130
five years after the date of issuance. A licensee who has been 123131
issued a license under that section shall be granted a grace 123132
period of thirty days after the licensee's license expires during 123133
which the licensee's license remains valid. Except as provided in 123134
divisions (B) and (C) of this section, a licensee who has been 123135
issued a concealed handgun license under section 2923.125 or 123136
2923.1213 of the Revised Code may carry a concealed handgun 123137
anywhere in this state if the licensee also carries a valid 123138
license and valid identification when the licensee is in actual 123139
possession of a concealed handgun. The licensee shall give notice 123140
of any change in the licensee's residence address to the sheriff 123141
who issued the license within forty-five days after that change.123142

       If a licensee is the driver or an occupant of a motor vehicle 123143
that is stopped as the result of a traffic stop or a stop for 123144
another law enforcement purpose and if the licensee is 123145
transporting or has a loaded handgun in the motor vehicle at that 123146
time, the licensee shall promptly inform any law enforcement 123147
officer who approaches the vehicle while stopped that the licensee 123148
has been issued a concealed handgun license and that the licensee 123149
currently possesses or has a loaded handgun; the licensee shall 123150
not knowingly disregard or fail to comply with lawful orders of a 123151
law enforcement officer given while the motor vehicle is stopped, 123152
knowingly fail to remain in the motor vehicle while stopped, or 123153
knowingly fail to keep the licensee's hands in plain sight after 123154
any law enforcement officer begins approaching the licensee while 123155
stopped and before the officer leaves, unless directed otherwise 123156
by a law enforcement officer; and the licensee shall not knowingly 123157
have contact with the loaded handgun by touching it with the 123158
licensee's hands or fingers, in any manner in violation of 123159
division (E) of section 2923.16 of the Revised Code, after any law 123160
enforcement officer begins approaching the licensee while stopped 123161
and before the officer leaves. Additionally, if a licensee is the 123162
driver or an occupant of a commercial motor vehicle that is 123163
stopped by an employee of the motor carrier enforcement unit for 123164
the purposes defined in section 5503.04 of the Revised Code and if 123165
the licensee is transporting or has a loaded handgun in the 123166
commercial motor vehicle at that time, the licensee shall promptly 123167
inform the employee of the unit who approaches the vehicle while 123168
stopped that the licensee has been issued a concealed handgun 123169
license and that the licensee currently possesses or has a loaded 123170
handgun. 123171

       If a licensee is stopped for a law enforcement purpose and if 123172
the licensee is carrying a concealed handgun at the time the 123173
officer approaches, the licensee shall promptly inform any law 123174
enforcement officer who approaches the licensee while stopped that 123175
the licensee has been issued a concealed handgun license and that 123176
the licensee currently is carrying a concealed handgun; the 123177
licensee shall not knowingly disregard or fail to comply with 123178
lawful orders of a law enforcement officer given while the 123179
licensee is stopped or knowingly fail to keep the licensee's hands 123180
in plain sight after any law enforcement officer begins 123181
approaching the licensee while stopped and before the officer 123182
leaves, unless directed otherwise by a law enforcement officer; 123183
and the licensee shall not knowingly remove, attempt to remove, 123184
grasp, or hold the loaded handgun or knowingly have contact with 123185
the loaded handgun by touching it with the licensee's hands or 123186
fingers, in any manner in violation of division (B) of section 123187
2923.12 of the Revised Code, after any law enforcement officer 123188
begins approaching the licensee while stopped and before the 123189
officer leaves.123190

        (B) A valid concealed handgun license does not authorize the 123191
licensee to carry a concealed handgun in any manner prohibited 123192
under division (B) of section 2923.12 of the Revised Code or in 123193
any manner prohibited under section 2923.16 of the Revised Code. A 123194
valid license does not authorize the licensee to carry a concealed 123195
handgun into any of the following places:123196

       (1) A police station, sheriff's office, or state highway 123197
patrol station, premises controlled by the bureau of criminal 123198
identification and investigation, a state correctional 123199
institution, jail, workhouse, or other detention facility, an 123200
airport passenger terminal, or an institution that is maintained, 123201
operated, managed, and governed pursuant to division (A) of 123202
section 5119.025119.14 of the Revised Code or division (A)(1) of 123203
section 5123.03 of the Revised Code;123204

        (2) A school safety zone if the licensee's carrying the 123205
concealed handgun is in violation of section 2923.122 of the 123206
Revised Code;123207

       (3) A courthouse or another building or structure in which a 123208
courtroom is located, in violation of section 2923.123 of the 123209
Revised Code;123210

       (4) Any premises or open air arena for which a D permit has 123211
been issued under Chapter 4303. of the Revised Code if the 123212
licensee's carrying the concealed handgun is in violation of 123213
section 2923.121 of the Revised Code;123214

        (5) Any premises owned or leased by any public or private 123215
college, university, or other institution of higher education, 123216
unless the handgun is in a locked motor vehicle or the licensee is 123217
in the immediate process of placing the handgun in a locked motor 123218
vehicle;123219

        (6) Any church, synagogue, mosque, or other place of worship, 123220
unless the church, synagogue, mosque, or other place of worship 123221
posts or permits otherwise;123222

       (7) A child day-care center, a type A family day-care home, 123223
or a type B family day-care home, except that this division does 123224
not prohibit a licensee who resides in a type A family day-care 123225
home or a type B family day-care home from carrying a concealed 123226
handgun at any time in any part of the home that is not dedicated 123227
or used for day-care purposes, or from carrying a concealed 123228
handgun in a part of the home that is dedicated or used for 123229
day-care purposes at any time during which no children, other than 123230
children of that licensee, are in the home;123231

       (8) An aircraft that is in, or intended for operation in, 123232
foreign air transportation, interstate air transportation, 123233
intrastate air transportation, or the transportation of mail by 123234
aircraft;123235

       (9) Any building that is a government facility of this state 123236
or a political subdivision of this state and that is not a 123237
building that is used primarily as a shelter, restroom, parking 123238
facility for motor vehicles, or rest facility and is not a 123239
courthouse or other building or structure in which a courtroom is 123240
located that is subject to division (B)(3) of this section;123241

       (10) A place in which federal law prohibits the carrying of 123242
handguns.123243

       (C)(1) Nothing in this section shall negate or restrict a 123244
rule, policy, or practice of a private employer that is not a 123245
private college, university, or other institution of higher 123246
education concerning or prohibiting the presence of firearms on 123247
the private employer's premises or property, including motor 123248
vehicles owned by the private employer. Nothing in this section 123249
shall require a private employer of that nature to adopt a rule, 123250
policy, or practice concerning or prohibiting the presence of 123251
firearms on the private employer's premises or property, including 123252
motor vehicles owned by the private employer.123253

       (2)(a) A private employer shall be immune from liability in a 123254
civil action for any injury, death, or loss to person or property 123255
that allegedly was caused by or related to a licensee bringing a 123256
handgun onto the premises or property of the private employer, 123257
including motor vehicles owned by the private employer, unless the 123258
private employer acted with malicious purpose. A private employer 123259
is immune from liability in a civil action for any injury, death, 123260
or loss to person or property that allegedly was caused by or 123261
related to the private employer's decision to permit a licensee to 123262
bring, or prohibit a licensee from bringing, a handgun onto the 123263
premises or property of the private employer. As used in this 123264
division, "private employer" includes a private college, 123265
university, or other institution of higher education.123266

       (b) A political subdivision shall be immune from liability in 123267
a civil action, to the extent and in the manner provided in 123268
Chapter 2744. of the Revised Code, for any injury, death, or loss 123269
to person or property that allegedly was caused by or related to a 123270
licensee bringing a handgun onto any premises or property owned, 123271
leased, or otherwise under the control of the political 123272
subdivision. As used in this division, "political subdivision" has 123273
the same meaning as in section 2744.01 of the Revised Code.123274

       (3)(a) Except as provided in division (C)(3)(b) of this 123275
section, the owner or person in control of private land or 123276
premises, and a private person or entity leasing land or premises 123277
owned by the state, the United States, or a political subdivision 123278
of the state or the United States, may post a sign in a 123279
conspicuous location on that land or on those premises prohibiting 123280
persons from carrying firearms or concealed firearms on or onto 123281
that land or those premises. Except as otherwise provided in this 123282
division, a person who knowingly violates a posted prohibition of 123283
that nature is guilty of criminal trespass in violation of 123284
division (A)(4) of section 2911.21 of the Revised Code and is 123285
guilty of a misdemeanor of the fourth degree. If a person 123286
knowingly violates a posted prohibition of that nature and the 123287
posted land or premises primarily was a parking lot or other 123288
parking facility, the person is not guilty of criminal trespass in 123289
violation of division (A)(4) of section 2911.21 of the Revised 123290
Code and instead is subject only to a civil cause of action for 123291
trespass based on the violation.123292

       (b) A landlord may not prohibit or restrict a tenant who is a 123293
licensee and who on or after September 9, 2008, enters into a 123294
rental agreement with the landlord for the use of residential 123295
premises, and the tenant's guest while the tenant is present, from 123296
lawfully carrying or possessing a handgun on those residential 123297
premises.123298

       (c) As used in division (C)(3) of this section:123299

       (i) "Residential premises" has the same meaning as in section 123300
5321.01 of the Revised Code, except "residential premises" does 123301
not include a dwelling unit that is owned or operated by a college 123302
or university.123303

       (ii) "Landlord," "tenant," and "rental agreement" have the 123304
same meanings as in section 5321.01 of the Revised Code.123305

        (D) A person who holds a concealed handgun license issued by 123306
another state that is recognized by the attorney general pursuant 123307
to a reciprocity agreement entered into pursuant to section 109.69 123308
of the Revised Code has the same right to carry a concealed 123309
handgun in this state as a person who was issued a concealed 123310
handgun license under section 2923.125 of the Revised Code and is 123311
subject to the same restrictions that apply to a person who 123312
carries a license issued under that section.123313

       (E) A peace officer has the same right to carry a concealed 123314
handgun in this state as a person who was issued a concealed 123315
handgun license under section 2923.125 of the Revised Code. For 123316
purposes of reciprocity with other states, a peace officer shall 123317
be considered to be a licensee in this state.123318

       (F)(1) A qualified retired peace officer who possesses a 123319
retired peace officer identification card issued pursuant to 123320
division (F)(2) of this section and a valid firearms 123321
requalification certification issued pursuant to division (F)(3) 123322
of this section has the same right to carry a concealed handgun in 123323
this state as a person who was issued a concealed handgun license 123324
under section 2923.125 of the Revised Code and is subject to the 123325
same restrictions that apply to a person who carries a license 123326
issued under that section. For purposes of reciprocity with other 123327
states, a qualified retired peace officer who possesses a retired 123328
peace officer identification card issued pursuant to division 123329
(F)(2) of this section and a valid firearms requalification 123330
certification issued pursuant to division (F)(3) of this section 123331
shall be considered to be a licensee in this state.123332

        (2)(a) Each public agency of this state or of a political 123333
subdivision of this state that is served by one or more peace 123334
officers shall issue a retired peace officer identification card 123335
to any person who retired from service as a peace officer with 123336
that agency, if the issuance is in accordance with the agency's 123337
policies and procedures and if the person, with respect to the 123338
person's service with that agency, satisfies all of the following:123339

        (i) The person retired in good standing from service as a 123340
peace officer with the public agency, and the retirement was not 123341
for reasons of mental instability.123342

        (ii) Before retiring from service as a peace officer with 123343
that agency, the person was authorized to engage in or supervise 123344
the prevention, detection, investigation, or prosecution of, or 123345
the incarceration of any person for, any violation of law and the 123346
person had statutory powers of arrest.123347

        (iii) At the time of the person's retirement as a peace 123348
officer with that agency, the person was trained and qualified to 123349
carry firearms in the performance of the peace officer's duties.123350

        (iv) Before retiring from service as a peace officer with 123351
that agency, the person was regularly employed as a peace officer 123352
for an aggregate of fifteen years or more, or, in the alternative, 123353
the person retired from service as a peace officer with that 123354
agency, after completing any applicable probationary period of 123355
that service, due to a service-connected disability, as determined 123356
by the agency.123357

        (b) A retired peace officer identification card issued to a 123358
person under division (F)(2)(a) of this section shall identify the 123359
person by name, contain a photograph of the person, identify the 123360
public agency of this state or of the political subdivision of 123361
this state from which the person retired as a peace officer and 123362
that is issuing the identification card, and specify that the 123363
person retired in good standing from service as a peace officer 123364
with the issuing public agency and satisfies the criteria set 123365
forth in divisions (F)(2)(a)(i) to (iv) of this section. In 123366
addition to the required content specified in this division, a 123367
retired peace officer identification card issued to a person under 123368
division (F)(2)(a) of this section may include the firearms 123369
requalification certification described in division (F)(3) of this 123370
section, and if the identification card includes that 123371
certification, the identification card shall serve as the firearms 123372
requalification certification for the retired peace officer. If 123373
the issuing public agency issues credentials to active law 123374
enforcement officers who serve the agency, the agency may comply 123375
with division (F)(2)(a) of this section by issuing the same 123376
credentials to persons who retired from service as a peace officer 123377
with the agency and who satisfy the criteria set forth in 123378
divisions (F)(2)(a)(i) to (iv) of this section, provided that the 123379
credentials so issued to retired peace officers are stamped with 123380
the word "RETIRED."123381

        (c) A public agency of this state or of a political 123382
subdivision of this state may charge persons who retired from 123383
service as a peace officer with the agency a reasonable fee for 123384
issuing to the person a retired peace officer identification card 123385
pursuant to division (F)(2)(a) of this section.123386

        (3) If a person retired from service as a peace officer with 123387
a public agency of this state or of a political subdivision of 123388
this state and the person satisfies the criteria set forth in 123389
divisions (F)(2)(a)(i) to (iv) of this section, the public agency 123390
may provide the retired peace officer with the opportunity to 123391
attend a firearms requalification program that is approved for 123392
purposes of firearms requalification required under section 123393
109.801 of the Revised Code. The retired peace officer may be 123394
required to pay the cost of the course.123395

        If a retired peace officer who satisfies the criteria set 123396
forth in divisions (F)(2)(a)(i) to (iv) of this section attends a 123397
firearms requalification program that is approved for purposes of 123398
firearms requalification required under section 109.801 of the 123399
Revised Code, the retired peace officer's successful completion of 123400
the firearms requalification program requalifies the retired peace 123401
officer for purposes of division (F) of this section for five 123402
years from the date on which the program was successfully 123403
completed, and the requalification is valid during that five-year 123404
period. If a retired peace officer who satisfies the criteria set 123405
forth in divisions (F)(2)(a)(i) to (iv) of this section 123406
satisfactorily completes such a firearms requalification program, 123407
the retired peace officer shall be issued a firearms 123408
requalification certification that identifies the retired peace 123409
officer by name, identifies the entity that taught the program, 123410
specifies that the retired peace officer successfully completed 123411
the program, specifies the date on which the course was 123412
successfully completed, and specifies that the requalification is 123413
valid for five years from that date of successful completion. The 123414
firearms requalification certification for a retired peace officer 123415
may be included in the retired peace officer identification card 123416
issued to the retired peace officer under division (F)(2) of this 123417
section.123418

        A retired peace officer who attends a firearms 123419
requalification program that is approved for purposes of firearms 123420
requalification required under section 109.801 of the Revised Code 123421
may be required to pay the cost of the program.123422

        (G) As used in this section:123423

       (1) "Qualified retired peace officer" means a person who 123424
satisfies all of the following:123425

        (a) The person satisfies the criteria set forth in divisions 123426
(F)(2)(a)(i) to (v) of this section.123427

       (b) The person is not under the influence of alcohol or 123428
another intoxicating or hallucinatory drug or substance.123429

        (c) The person is not prohibited by federal law from 123430
receiving firearms.123431

       (2) "Retired peace officer identification card" means an 123432
identification card that is issued pursuant to division (F)(2) of 123433
this section to a person who is a retired peace officer.123434

       (3) "Government facility of this state or a political 123435
subdivision of this state" means any of the following:123436

       (a) A building or part of a building that is owned or leased 123437
by the government of this state or a political subdivision of this 123438
state and where employees of the government of this state or the 123439
political subdivision regularly are present for the purpose of 123440
performing their official duties as employees of the state or 123441
political subdivision;123442

       (b) The office of a deputy registrar serving pursuant to 123443
Chapter 4503. of the Revised Code that is used to perform deputy 123444
registrar functions.123445

       Sec. 5104.012.  (A)(1) At the times specified in this 123446
division, the administrator of a child day-care center or a type A 123447
family day-care home shall request the superintendent of the 123448
bureau of criminal identification and investigation to conduct a 123449
criminal records check with respect to any applicant who has 123450
applied to the center or type A home for employment as a person 123451
responsible for the care, custody, or control of a child. 123452

        The administrator shall request a criminal records check 123453
pursuant to this division at the time of the applicant's initial 123454
application for employment and every fourfive years thereafter. 123455
When the administrator requests pursuant to this division a 123456
criminal records check for an applicant at the time of the 123457
applicant's initial application for employment, the administrator 123458
shall request that the superintendent obtain information from the 123459
federal bureau of investigation as a part of the criminal records 123460
check for the applicant, including fingerprint-based checks of 123461
national crime information databases as described in 42 U.S.C. 123462
671, for the person subject to the criminal records check. In all 123463
other cases in which the administrator requests a criminal records 123464
check for an applicant pursuant to this division, the 123465
administrator may request that the superintendent include 123466
information from the federal bureau of investigation in the 123467
criminal records check, including fingerprint-based checks of 123468
national crime information databases as described in 42 U.S.C. 123469
671.123470

       (2) A person required by division (A)(1) of this section to 123471
request a criminal records check shall provide to each applicant a 123472
copy of the form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of section 123473
109.572 of the Revised Code, provide to each applicant a standard 123474
impression sheet to obtain fingerprint impressions prescribed 123475
pursuant to division (C)(2) of section 109.572 of the Revised 123476
Code, obtain the completed form and impression sheet from each 123477
applicant, and forward the completed form and impression sheet to 123478
the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and 123479
investigation at the time the person requests a criminal records 123480
check pursuant to division (A)(1) of this section. On and after 123481
August 14, 2008, the administrator of a child day-care center or a 123482
type A family day-care home shall review the results of the 123483
criminal records check before the applicant has sole 123484
responsibility for the care, custody, or control of any child.123485

       (3) An applicant who receives pursuant to division (A)(2) of 123486
this section a copy of the form prescribed pursuant to division 123487
(C)(1) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code and a copy of an 123488
impression sheet prescribed pursuant to division (C)(2) of that 123489
section and who is requested to complete the form and provide a 123490
set of fingerprint impressions shall complete the form or provide 123491
all the information necessary to complete the form and shall 123492
provide the impression sheet with the impressions of the 123493
applicant's fingerprints. If an applicant, upon request, fails to 123494
provide the information necessary to complete the form or fails to 123495
provide impressions of the applicant's fingerprints, the center or 123496
type A home shall not employ that applicant for any position for 123497
which a criminal records check is required by division (A)(1) of 123498
this section.123499

       (B)(1) Except as provided in rules adopted under division (E) 123500
of this section, no child day-care center or type A family 123501
day-care home shall employ or contract with another entity for the 123502
services of a person as a person responsible for the care, 123503
custody, or control of a child if the person previously has been 123504
convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the violations described 123505
in division (A)(5) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code.123506

       (2) A child day-care center or type A family day-care home 123507
may employ an applicant conditionally until the criminal records 123508
check required by this section is completed and the center or home 123509
receives the results of the criminal records check. If the results 123510
of the criminal records check indicate that, pursuant to division 123511
(B)(1) of this section, the applicant does not qualify for 123512
employment, the center or home shall release the applicant from 123513
employment.123514

       (C)(1) Each child day-care center and type A family day-care 123515
home shall pay to the bureau of criminal identification and 123516
investigation the fee prescribed pursuant to division (C)(3) of 123517
section 109.572 of the Revised Code for each criminal records 123518
check conducted in accordance with that section upon the request 123519
pursuant to division (A)(1) of this section of the administrator 123520
or provider of the center or home.123521

       (2) A child day-care center and type A family day-care home 123522
may charge an applicant a fee for the costs it incurs in obtaining 123523
a criminal records check under this section. A fee charged under 123524
this division shall not exceed the amount of fees the center or 123525
home pays under division (C)(1) of this section. If a fee is 123526
charged under this division, the center or home shall notify the 123527
applicant at the time of the applicant's initial application for 123528
employment of the amount of the fee and that, unless the fee is 123529
paid, the center or type A home will not consider the applicant 123530
for employment.123531

       (D) The report of any criminal records check conducted by the 123532
bureau of criminal identification and investigation in accordance 123533
with section 109.572 of the Revised Code and pursuant to a request 123534
under division (A)(1) of this section is not a public record for 123535
the purposes of section 149.43 of the Revised Code and shall not 123536
be made available to any person other than the applicant who is 123537
the subject of the criminal records check or the applicant's 123538
representative; the center or type A home requesting the criminal 123539
records check or its representative; the department of job and 123540
family services or a county department of job and family services; 123541
and any court, hearing officer, or other necessary individual 123542
involved in a case dealing with the denial of employment to the 123543
applicant.123544

       (E) The director of job and family services shall adopt rules 123545
pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement this 123546
section, including rules specifying circumstances under which a 123547
center or home may hire a person who has been convicted of an 123548
offense listed in division (B)(1) of this section but who meets 123549
standards in regard to rehabilitation set by the department.123550

       (F) Any person required by division (A)(1) of this section to 123551
request a criminal records check shall inform each person, at the 123552
time of the person's initial application for employment, that the 123553
person is required to provide a set of impressions of the person's 123554
fingerprints and that a criminal records check is required to be 123555
conducted and satisfactorily completed in accordance with section 123556
109.572 of the Revised Code if the person comes under final 123557
consideration for appointment or employment as a precondition to 123558
employment for that position.123559

       (G) As used in this section:123560

       (1) "Applicant" means a person who is under final 123561
consideration for appointment to or employment in a position with 123562
a child day-care center or a type A family day-care home as a 123563
person responsible for the care, custody, or control of a child or 123564
any person who would serve in any position with a child day-care 123565
center or a type A family day-care home as a person responsible 123566
for the care, custody, or control of a child pursuant to a 123567
contract with another entity.123568

       (2) "Criminal records check" has the same meaning as in 123569
section 109.572 of the Revised Code.123570

       Sec. 5104.013.  (A)(1) At the times specified in division 123571
(A)(3) of this section, the director of job and family services, 123572
as part of the process of licensure of child day-care centers, 123573
type A family day-care homes, and licensed type B family day-care 123574
homes shall request the superintendent of the bureau of criminal 123575
identification and investigation to conduct a criminal records 123576
check with respect to the following persons:123577

       (a) Any owner, licensee, or administrator of a child day-care 123578
center;123579

       (b) Any owner, licensee, or administrator of a type A family 123580
day-care home and any person eighteen years of age or older who 123581
resides in a type A family day-care home;123582

        (c) Any administrator of a licensed type B family day-care 123583
home and any person eighteen years of age or older who resides in 123584
a licensed type B family day-care home.123585

       (2) At the time specified in division (A)(3) of this section, 123586
the director of a county department of job and family services, as 123587
part of the process of certification of in-home aides, shall 123588
request the superintendent of the bureau of criminal 123589
identification and investigation to conduct a criminal records 123590
check with respect to any in-home aide.123591

       (3) The director of job and family services shall request a 123592
criminal records check pursuant to division (A)(1) of this section 123593
at the time of the initial application for licensure and every 123594
fourfive years thereafter. The director of a county department of 123595
job and family services shall request a criminal records check 123596
pursuant to division (A)(2) of this section at the time of the 123597
initial application for certification and every fourfive years 123598
thereafter. When the director of job and family services or the 123599
director of a county department of job and family services 123600
requests pursuant to division (A)(1) or (2) of this section a 123601
criminal records check for a person at the time of the person's 123602
initial application for licensure or certification, the director 123603
shall request that the superintendent of the bureau of criminal 123604
identification and investigation obtain information from the 123605
federal bureau of investigation as a part of the criminal records 123606
check for the person, including fingerprint-based checks of 123607
national crime information databases as described in 42 U.S.C. 671 123608
for the person subject to the criminal records check. In all other 123609
cases in which the director of job and family services or the 123610
director of a county department of job and family services 123611
requests a criminal records check for an applicant pursuant to 123612
division (A)(1) or (2) of this section, the director may request 123613
that the superintendent include information from the federal 123614
bureau of investigation in the criminal records check, including 123615
fingerprint-based checks of national crime information databases 123616
as described in 42 U.S.C. 671. 123617

       (4) The director of job and family services shall review the 123618
results of a criminal records check subsequent to a request made 123619
pursuant to divisions (A)(1) and (3) of this section prior to 123620
approval of a license. The director of a county department of job 123621
and family services shall review the results of a criminal records 123622
check subsequent to a request made pursuant to divisions (A)(2) 123623
and (3) of this section prior to approval of certification.123624

       (B) The director of job and family services or the director 123625
of a county department of job and family services shall provide to 123626
each person for whom a criminal records check is required under 123627
this section a copy of the form prescribed pursuant to division 123628
(C)(1) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code and a standard 123629
impression sheet to obtain fingerprint impressions prescribed 123630
pursuant to division (C)(2) of that section, obtain the completed 123631
form and impression sheet from that person, and forward the 123632
completed form and impression sheet to the superintendent of the 123633
bureau of criminal identification and investigation.123634

       (C) A person who receives pursuant to division (B) of this 123635
section a copy of the form and standard impression sheet described 123636
in that division and who is requested to complete the form and 123637
provide a set of fingerprint impressions shall complete the form 123638
or provide all the information necessary to complete the form and 123639
shall provide the impression sheet with the impressions of the 123640
person's fingerprints. If the person, upon request, fails to 123641
provide the information necessary to complete the form or fails to 123642
provide impressions of the person's fingerprints, the director may 123643
consider the failure as a reason to deny licensure or 123644
certification.123645

       (D) Except as provided in rules adopted under division (G) of 123646
this section, the director of job and family services shall not 123647
grant a license to a child day-care center, type A family day-care 123648
home, or type B family day-care home and a county director of job 123649
and family services shall not certify an in-home aide if a person 123650
for whom a criminal records check was required in connection with 123651
the center or home previously has been convicted of or pleaded 123652
guilty to any of the violations described in division (A)(5) of 123653
section 109.572 of the Revised Code.123654

       (E) Each child day-care center, type A family day-care home, 123655
and type B family day-care home shall pay to the bureau of 123656
criminal identification and investigation the fee prescribed 123657
pursuant to division (C)(3) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code 123658
for each criminal records check conducted in accordance with that 123659
section upon a request made pursuant to division (A) of this 123660
section.123661

       (F) The report of any criminal records check conducted by the 123662
bureau of criminal identification and investigation in accordance 123663
with section 109.572 of the Revised Code and pursuant to a request 123664
made under division (A) of this section is not a public record for 123665
the purposes of section 149.43 of the Revised Code and shall not 123666
be made available to any person other than the person who is the 123667
subject of the criminal records check or the person's 123668
representative, the director of job and family services, the 123669
director of a county department of job and family services, the 123670
center, type A home, or type B home involved, and any court, 123671
hearing officer, or other necessary individual involved in a case 123672
dealing with a denial of licensure or certification related to the 123673
criminal records check.123674

       (G) The director of job and family services shall adopt rules 123675
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement 123676
this section, including rules specifying exceptions to the 123677
prohibition in division (D) of this section for persons who have 123678
been convicted of an offense listed in that division but who meet 123679
standards in regard to rehabilitation set by the director.123680

       (H) As used in this section, "criminal records check" has the 123681
same meaning as in section 109.572 of the Revised Code.123682

       Sec. 5104.03.  (A) Any person, firm, organization, 123683
institution, or agency seeking to establish a child day-care 123684
center, type A family day-care home, or licensed type B family 123685
day-care home shall apply for a license to the director of job and 123686
family services on such form as the director prescribes. The 123687
director shall provide at no charge to each applicant for 123688
licensure a copy of the child care license requirements in this 123689
chapter and a copy of the rules adopted pursuant to this chapter. 123690
The copies may be provided in paper or electronic form.123691

       Fees shall be set by the director pursuant to sections 123692
5104.015, 5104.017, and 5104.018 of the Revised Code and shall be 123693
paid at the time of application for a license to operate a center, 123694
type A home, or type B home. Fees collected under this section 123695
shall be paid into the state treasury to the credit of the general 123696
revenue fund.123697

       (B)(1) Upon filing of the application for a license, the 123698
director shall investigate and inspect the center, type A home, or 123699
type B home to determine the license capacity for each age 123700
category of children of the center, type A home, or type B home 123701
and to determine whether the center, type A home, or type B home 123702
complies with this chapter and rules adopted pursuant to this 123703
chapter. When, after investigation and inspection, the director is 123704
satisfied that this chapter and rules adopted pursuant to it are 123705
complied with, subject to division (H) of this section, a license 123706
shall be issued as soon as practicable in such form and manner as 123707
prescribed by the director. The license shall be designated as 123708
provisional and shall be valid for twelve months from the date of 123709
issuance unless revoked.123710

       (2) The director may contract with a government entity or a 123711
private nonprofit entity for the entity to inspect and license 123712
type B family day-care homes pursuant to this section. The 123713
department, government entity, or nonprofit entity shall conduct 123714
the inspection prior to the issuance of a license for the type B 123715
home and, as part of that inspection, ensure that the type B home 123716
is safe and sanitary.123717

       (C)(1) On receipt of an application for licensure as a type B 123718
family day-care home to provide publicly funded child care, the 123719
department shall search the uniform statewide automated child 123720
welfare information system for information concerning any abuse or 123721
neglect report made pursuant to section 2151.421 of the Revised 123722
Code of which the applicant, any other adult residing in the 123723
applicant's home, or a person designated by the applicant to be an 123724
emergency or substitute caregiver for the applicant is the 123725
subject.123726

       (2) The department shall consider any information it 123727
discovers pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section or that is 123728
provided by a public children services agency pursuant to section 123729
5153.175 of the Revised Code. If the department determines that 123730
the information, when viewed within the totality of the 123731
circumstances, reasonably leads to the conclusion that the 123732
applicant may directly or indirectly endanger the health, safety, 123733
or welfare of children, the department shall deny the application 123734
for licensure or revoke the license of a type B family day-care 123735
home. 123736

        (D) The director shall investigate and inspect the center, 123737
type A home, or type B home at least once during operation under a 123738
license designated as provisional. If after the investigation and 123739
inspection the director determines that the requirements of this 123740
chapter and rules adopted pursuant to this chapter are met, 123741
subject to division (H) of this section, the director shall issue 123742
a new license to the center or home.123743

        (E) Each license shall state the name of the licensee, the 123744
name of the administrator, the address of the center, type A home, 123745
or licensed type B home, and the license capacity for each age 123746
category of children. The license shall include thereon, in 123747
accordance with sections 5104.015, 5104.017, and 5104.018 of the 123748
Revised Code, the toll-free telephone number to be used by persons 123749
suspecting that the center, type A home, or licensed type B home 123750
has violated a provision of this chapter or rules adopted pursuant 123751
to this chapter. A license is valid only for the licensee, 123752
administrator, address, and license capacity for each age category 123753
of children designated on the license. The license capacity 123754
specified on the license is the maximum number of children in each 123755
age category that may be cared for in the center, type A home, or 123756
licensed type B home at one time.123757

       The center or type A home licensee shall notify the director 123758
when the administrator of the center or home changes. The director 123759
shall amend the current license to reflect a change in an 123760
administrator, if the administrator meets the requirements of this 123761
chapter and rules adopted pursuant to this chapter, or a change in 123762
license capacity for any age category of children as determined by 123763
the director of job and family services.123764

       (F) If the director revokes the license of a center, a type A 123765
home, or a type B home, the director shall not issue another 123766
license to the owner of the center, type A home, or type B home 123767
until five years have elapsed from the date the license is 123768
revoked. 123769

        If the director denies an application for a license, the 123770
director shall not accept another application from the applicant 123771
until five years have elapsed from the date the application is 123772
denied.123773

       (G) If during the application for licensure process the 123774
director determines that the license of the owner has been 123775
revoked, the investigation of the center, type A home, or type B 123776
home shall cease. This action does not constitute denial of the 123777
application and may not be appealed under division (H) of this 123778
section. 123779

       (H) All actions of the director with respect to licensing 123780
centers, type A homes, or type B homes, refusal to license, and 123781
revocation of a license shall be in accordance with Chapter 119. 123782
of the Revised Code. Any applicant who is denied a license or any 123783
owner whose license is revoked may appeal in accordance with 123784
section 119.12 of the Revised Code.123785

       (I) In no case shall the director issue a license under this 123786
section for a center, type A home, or type B home if the director, 123787
based on documentation provided by the appropriate county 123788
department of job and family services, determines that the 123789
applicant had been certified as a type B family day-care home when 123790
such certifications were issued by county departments prior to the 123791
effective date of this amendmentJanuary 1, 2014, that the county 123792
department revoked that certification within the immediately 123793
preceding five years, that the revocation was based on the 123794
applicant's refusal or inability to comply with the criteria for 123795
certification, and that the refusal or inability resulted in a 123796
risk to the health or safety of children.123797

       (J)(1) Except as provided in division (J)(2) of this section, 123798
an administrator of a type B family day-care home that receives a 123799
license pursuant to this section to provide publicly funded child 123800
care is an independent contractor and is not an employee of the 123801
department of job and family services.123802

       (2) For purposes of Chapter 4141. of the Revised Code, 123803
determinations concerning the employment of an administrator of a 123804
type B family day-care home that receives a license pursuant to 123805
this section shall be determined under Chapter 4141. of the 123806
Revised Code.123807

       Sec. 5104.08. (A) There is hereby created in the department 123808
of job and family services a child care advisory council to advise 123809
and assist the department in the administration of this chapter 123810
and in the development of child care. The council shall consist of 123811
twenty-two voting members appointed by the director of job and 123812
family services with the approval of the governor. The director of 123813
job and family services, the director of developmental 123814
disabilities, the director of mental healthmental health and 123815
addiction services, the superintendent of public instruction, the 123816
director of health, the director of commerce, and the state fire 123817
marshal shall serve as nonvoting members of the council.123818

       Six members shall be representatives of child care centers 123819
subject to licensing, the members to represent a variety of 123820
centers, including nonprofit and proprietary, from different 123821
geographical areas of the state. At least three members shall be 123822
parents, guardians, or custodians of children receiving child care 123823
or publicly funded child care in the child's own home, a center, a 123824
type A home, a head start program, a licensed type B home, or a 123825
type B home at the time of appointment. Three members shall be 123826
representatives of in-home aides, type A homes, licensed type B 123827
homes, or type B homes or head start programs. At least six 123828
members shall represent county departments of job and family 123829
services. The remaining members shall be representatives of the 123830
teaching, child development, and health professions, and other 123831
individuals interested in the welfare of children. At least six 123832
members of the council shall not be employees or licensees of a 123833
child day-care center, head start program, or type A home, or 123834
providers operating a licensed type B home or type B home, or 123835
in-home aides.123836

        Appointments shall be for three-year terms. Vacancies shall 123837
be filled for the unexpired terms. A member of the council is 123838
subject to removal by the director of job and family services for 123839
a willful and flagrant exercise of authority or power that is not 123840
authorized by law, for a refusal or willful neglect to perform any 123841
official duty as a member of the council imposed by law, or for 123842
being guilty of misfeasance, malfeasance, nonfeasance, or gross 123843
neglect of duty as a member of the council.123844

       There shall be two co-chairpersons of the council. One 123845
co-chairperson shall be the director of job and family services or 123846
the director's designee, and one co-chairperson shall be elected 123847
by the members of the council. The council shall meet as often as 123848
is necessary to perform its duties, provided that it shall meet at 123849
least once in each quarter of each calendar year and at the call 123850
of the co-chairpersons. The co-chairpersons or their designee 123851
shall send to each member a written notice of the date, time, and 123852
place of each meeting.123853

       Members of the council shall serve without compensation, but 123854
shall be reimbursed for necessary expenses.123855

       (B) The child care advisory council shall advise the director 123856
on matters affecting the licensing of centers, type A homes, and 123857
type B homes and the certification of in-home aides. The council 123858
shall make an annual report to the director of job and family 123859
services that addresses the availability, affordability, 123860
accessibility, and quality of child care and that summarizes the 123861
recommendations and plans of action that the council has proposed 123862
to the director during the preceding fiscal year. The director of 123863
job and family services shall provide copies of the report to the 123864
governor, speaker and minority leader of the house of 123865
representatives, and the president and minority leader of the 123866
senate and, on request, shall make copies available to the public.123867

       (C) The director of job and family services shall adopt rules 123868
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement 123869
this section.123870

       Sec. 5104.32.  (A) Except as provided in division (C) of this 123871
section, all purchases of publicly funded child care shall be made 123872
under a contract entered into by a licensed child day-care center, 123873
licensed type A family day-care home, licensed type B family 123874
day-care home, certified in-home aide, approved child day camp, 123875
licensed preschool program, licensed school child program, or 123876
border state child care provider and the department of job and 123877
family services. All contracts for publicly funded child care 123878
shall be contingent upon the availability of state and federal 123879
funds. The department shall prescribe a standard form to be used 123880
for all contracts for the purchase of publicly funded child care, 123881
regardless of the source of public funds used to purchase the 123882
child care. To the extent permitted by federal law and 123883
notwithstanding any other provision of the Revised Code that 123884
regulates state contracts or contracts involving the expenditure 123885
of state or federal funds, all contracts for publicly funded child 123886
care shall be entered into in accordance with the provisions of 123887
this chapter and are exempt from any other provision of the 123888
Revised Code that regulates state contracts or contracts involving 123889
the expenditure of state or federal funds.123890

       (B) Each contract for publicly funded child care shall 123891
specify at least the following:123892

       (1) That the provider of publicly funded child care agrees to 123893
be paid for rendering services at the lower of the rate 123894
customarily charged by the provider for children enrolled for 123895
child care or the reimbursement ceiling or rate of payment 123896
established pursuant to section 5104.30 of the Revised Code;123897

       (2) That, if a provider provides child care to an individual 123898
potentially eligible for publicly funded child care who is 123899
subsequently determined to be eligible, the department agrees to 123900
pay for all child care provided between the date the county 123901
department of job and family services receives the individual's 123902
completed application and the date the individual's eligibility is 123903
determined;123904

       (3) Whether the county department of job and family services, 123905
the provider, or a child care resource and referral service 123906
organization will make eligibility determinations, whether the 123907
provider or a child care resource and referral service 123908
organization will be required to collect information to be used by 123909
the county department to make eligibility determinations, and the 123910
time period within which the provider or child care resource and 123911
referral service organization is required to complete required 123912
eligibility determinations or to transmit to the county department 123913
any information collected for the purpose of making eligibility 123914
determinations;123915

       (4) That the provider, other than a border state child care 123916
provider, shall continue to be licensed, approved, or certified 123917
pursuant to this chapter and shall comply with all standards and 123918
other requirements in this chapter and in rules adopted pursuant 123919
to this chapter for maintaining the provider's license, approval, 123920
or certification;123921

       (5) That, in the case of a border state child care provider, 123922
the provider shall continue to be licensed, certified, or 123923
otherwise approved by the state in which the provider is located 123924
and shall comply with all standards and other requirements 123925
established by that state for maintaining the provider's license, 123926
certificate, or other approval;123927

       (6) Whether the provider will be paid by the state department 123928
of job and family services or in some other manner as prescribed 123929
by rules adopted under section 5104.42 of the Revised Code;123930

       (7) That the contract is subject to the availability of state 123931
and federal funds.123932

       (C) Unless specifically prohibited by federal law or by rules 123933
adopted under section 5104.42 of the Revised Code, the county 123934
department of job and family services shall give individuals 123935
eligible for publicly funded child care the option of obtaining 123936
certificates that the individual may use to purchase services from 123937
any provider qualified to provide publicly funded child care under 123938
section 5104.31 of the Revised Code. Providers of publicly funded 123939
child care may present these certificates for payment in 123940
accordance with rules that the director of job and family services 123941
shall adopt. Only providers may receive payment for certificates. 123942
The value of the certificate shall be based on the lower of the 123943
rate customarily charged by the provider or the rate of payment 123944
established pursuant to section 5104.30 of the Revised Code. The 123945
county department may provide the certificates to the individuals 123946
or may contract with child care providers or child care resource 123947
and referral service organizations that make determinations of 123948
eligibility for publicly funded child care pursuant to contracts 123949
entered into under section 5104.34 of the Revised Code for the 123950
providers or resource and referral service organizations to 123951
provide the certificates to individuals whom they determine are 123952
eligible for publicly funded child care.123953

       For each six-month period a provider of publicly funded child 123954
care provides publicly funded child care to the child of an 123955
individual given certificates, the individual shall provide the 123956
provider certificates for days the provider would have provided 123957
publicly funded child care to the child had the child been 123958
present. The maximum number of days providers shall be provided 123959
certificates shall not exceed ten days in a six-month period 123960
during which publicly funded child care is provided to the child 123961
regardless of the number of providers that provide publicly funded 123962
child care to the child during that period.123963

       (D)(1) The department shall establish the Ohio electronic 123964
child care system to track attendance and calculate payments for 123965
publicly funded child care. The system shall include issuing an 123966
electronic child care card to each caretaker parent to swipe 123967
through a point of service device issued to an eligible provider, 123968
as described in section 5104.31 of the Revised Code.123969

        (2) Each eligible provider that provides publicly funded 123970
child care shall participate in the Ohio electronic child care 123971
system. A provider participating in the system shall not do any of 123972
the following:123973

        (a) Use or have possession of an electronic child care card 123974
issued to a caretaker parent;123975

        (b) Falsify attendance records;123976

        (c) Knowingly seek payment for publicly funded child care 123977
that was not provided;123978

        (d) Knowingly accept reimbursement for publicly funded child 123979
care that was not provided.123980

       Section 110.21.  That the existing versions of sections 123981
109.57, 2151.011, 2923.126, 5104.012, 5104.013, 5104.03, 5104.08, 123982
and 5104.32 of the Revised Code that are scheduled to take effect 123983
January 1, 2014, are hereby repealed.123984

       Section 110.22. Sections 110.20 and 110.21 of this act shall 123985
take effect January 1, 2014, except that the amendments by 123986
Sections 110.20 and 110.21 of this act to divisions (B)(49) and 123987
(50) of section 2151.011 of the Revised Code shall take effect 123988
July 1, 2014.123989

       Section 110.30.  That the versions of sections 4501.01 and 123990
4507.06 of the Revised Code that are scheduled to take effect 123991
January 1, 2017, be amended to read as follows:123992

       Sec. 4501.01.  As used in this chapter and Chapters 4503., 123993
4505., 4507., 4509., 4510., 4511., 4513., 4515., and 4517. of the 123994
Revised Code, and in the penal laws, except as otherwise provided:123995

       (A) "Vehicles" means everything on wheels or runners, 123996
including motorized bicycles, but does not mean electric personal 123997
assistive mobility devices, vehicles that are operated exclusively 123998
on rails or tracks or from overhead electric trolley wires, and 123999
vehicles that belong to any police department, municipal fire 124000
department, or volunteer fire department, or that are used by such 124001
a department in the discharge of its functions.124002

       (B) "Motor vehicle" means any vehicle, including mobile homes 124003
and recreational vehicles, that is propelled or drawn by power 124004
other than muscular power or power collected from overhead 124005
electric trolley wires. "Motor vehicle" does not include utility 124006
vehicles as defined in division (VV) of this section, under-speed 124007
vehicles as defined in division (XX) of this section, mini-trucks 124008
as defined in division (BBB) of this section, motorized bicycles, 124009
road rollers, traction engines, power shovels, power cranes, and 124010
other equipment used in construction work and not designed for or 124011
employed in general highway transportation, well-drilling 124012
machinery, ditch-digging machinery, farm machinery, and trailers 124013
that are designed and used exclusively to transport a boat between 124014
a place of storage and a marina, or in and around a marina, when 124015
drawn or towed on a public road or highway for a distance of no 124016
more than ten miles and at a speed of twenty-five miles per hour 124017
or less.124018

       (C) "Agricultural tractor" and "traction engine" mean any 124019
self-propelling vehicle that is designed or used for drawing other 124020
vehicles or wheeled machinery, but has no provisions for carrying 124021
loads independently of such other vehicles, and that is used 124022
principally for agricultural purposes.124023

       (D) "Commercial tractor," except as defined in division (C) 124024
of this section, means any motor vehicle that has motive power and 124025
either is designed or used for drawing other motor vehicles, or is 124026
designed or used for drawing another motor vehicle while carrying 124027
a portion of the other motor vehicle or its load, or both.124028

       (E) "Passenger car" means any motor vehicle that is designed 124029
and used for carrying not more than nine persons and includes any 124030
motor vehicle that is designed and used for carrying not more than 124031
fifteen persons in a ridesharing arrangement.124032

       (F) "Collector's vehicle" means any motor vehicle or 124033
agricultural tractor or traction engine that is of special 124034
interest, that has a fair market value of one hundred dollars or 124035
more, whether operable or not, and that is owned, operated, 124036
collected, preserved, restored, maintained, or used essentially as 124037
a collector's item, leisure pursuit, or investment, but not as the 124038
owner's principal means of transportation. "Licensed collector's 124039
vehicle" means a collector's vehicle, other than an agricultural 124040
tractor or traction engine, that displays current, valid license 124041
tags issued under section 4503.45 of the Revised Code, or a 124042
similar type of motor vehicle that displays current, valid license 124043
tags issued under substantially equivalent provisions in the laws 124044
of other states.124045

       (G) "Historical motor vehicle" means any motor vehicle that 124046
is over twenty-five years old and is owned solely as a collector's 124047
item and for participation in club activities, exhibitions, tours, 124048
parades, and similar uses, but that in no event is used for 124049
general transportation.124050

       (H) "Noncommercial motor vehicle" means any motor vehicle, 124051
including a farm truck as defined in section 4503.04 of the 124052
Revised Code, that is designed by the manufacturer to carry a load 124053
of no more than one ton and is used exclusively for purposes other 124054
than engaging in business for profit.124055

       (I) "Bus" means any motor vehicle that has motor power and is 124056
designed and used for carrying more than nine passengers, except 124057
any motor vehicle that is designed and used for carrying not more 124058
than fifteen passengers in a ridesharing arrangement.124059

       (J) "Commercial car" or "truck" means any motor vehicle that 124060
has motor power and is designed and used for carrying merchandise 124061
or freight, or that is used as a commercial tractor.124062

       (K) "Bicycle" means every device, other than a tricycle that 124063
is designed solely for use as a play vehicle by a child, that is 124064
propelled solely by human power upon which any person may ride, 124065
and that has two tandem wheels, or one wheel in front and two 124066
wheels in the rear, or two wheels in the front and one wheel in 124067
the rear, any of which is more than fourteen inches in diameter.124068

       (L) "Motorized bicycle" or "moped" means any vehicle that 124069
either has two tandem wheels or one wheel in the front and two 124070
wheels in the rear, that may be pedaled, and that is equipped with 124071
a helper motor of not more than fifty cubic centimeters piston 124072
displacement that produces no more than one brake horsepower and 124073
is capable of propelling the vehicle at a speed of no greater than 124074
twenty miles per hour on a level surface.124075

       (M) "Trailer" means any vehicle without motive power that is 124076
designed or used for carrying property or persons wholly on its 124077
own structure and for being drawn by a motor vehicle, and includes 124078
any such vehicle that is formed by or operated as a combination of 124079
a semitrailer and a vehicle of the dolly type such as that 124080
commonly known as a trailer dolly, a vehicle used to transport 124081
agricultural produce or agricultural production materials between 124082
a local place of storage or supply and the farm when drawn or 124083
towed on a public road or highway at a speed greater than 124084
twenty-five miles per hour, and a vehicle that is designed and 124085
used exclusively to transport a boat between a place of storage 124086
and a marina, or in and around a marina, when drawn or towed on a 124087
public road or highway for a distance of more than ten miles or at 124088
a speed of more than twenty-five miles per hour. "Trailer" does 124089
not include a manufactured home or travel trailer.124090

       (N) "Noncommercial trailer" means any trailer, except a 124091
travel trailer or trailer that is used to transport a boat as 124092
described in division (B) of this section, but, where applicable, 124093
includes a vehicle that is used to transport a boat as described 124094
in division (M) of this section, that has a gross weight of no 124095
more than ten thousand pounds, and that is used exclusively for 124096
purposes other than engaging in business for a profit, such as the 124097
transportation of personal items for personal or recreational 124098
purposes.124099

       (O) "Mobile home" means a building unit or assembly of closed 124100
construction that is fabricated in an off-site facility, is more 124101
than thirty-five body feet in length or, when erected on site, is 124102
three hundred twenty or more square feet, is built on a permanent 124103
chassis, is transportable in one or more sections, and does not 124104
qualify as a manufactured home as defined in division (C)(4) of 124105
section 3781.06 of the Revised Code or as an industrialized unit 124106
as defined in division (C)(3) of section 3781.06 of the Revised 124107
Code.124108

       (P) "Semitrailer" means any vehicle of the trailer type that 124109
does not have motive power and is so designed or used with another 124110
and separate motor vehicle that in operation a part of its own 124111
weight or that of its load, or both, rests upon and is carried by 124112
the other vehicle furnishing the motive power for propelling 124113
itself and the vehicle referred to in this division, and includes, 124114
for the purpose only of registration and taxation under those 124115
chapters, any vehicle of the dolly type, such as a trailer dolly, 124116
that is designed or used for the conversion of a semitrailer into 124117
a trailer.124118

       (Q) "Recreational vehicle" means a vehicular portable 124119
structure that meets all of the following conditions:124120

       (1) It is designed for the sole purpose of recreational 124121
travel.124122

       (2) It is not used for the purpose of engaging in business 124123
for profit.124124

       (3) It is not used for the purpose of engaging in intrastate 124125
commerce.124126

       (4) It is not used for the purpose of commerce as defined in 124127
49 C.F.R. 383.5, as amended.124128

       (5) It is not regulated by the public utilities commission 124129
pursuant to Chapter 4905., 4921., or 4923. of the Revised Code.124130

       (6) It is classed as one of the following:124131

       (a) "Travel trailer" or "house vehicle" means a 124132
nonself-propelled recreational vehicle that does not exceed an 124133
overall length of forty feet, exclusive of bumper and tongue or 124134
coupling. "Travel trailer" includes a tent-type fold-out camping 124135
trailer as defined in section 4517.01 of the Revised Code.124136

       (b) "Motor home" means a self-propelled recreational vehicle 124137
that has no fifth wheel and is constructed with permanently 124138
installed facilities for cold storage, cooking and consuming of 124139
food, and for sleeping.124140

       (c) "Truck camper" means a nonself-propelled recreational 124141
vehicle that does not have wheels for road use and is designed to 124142
be placed upon and attached to a motor vehicle. "Truck camper" 124143
does not include truck covers that consist of walls and a roof, 124144
but do not have floors and facilities enabling them to be used as 124145
a dwelling.124146

       (d) "Fifth wheel trailer" means a vehicle that is of such 124147
size and weight as to be movable without a special highway permit, 124148
that is constructed with a raised forward section that allows a 124149
bi-level floor plan, and that is designed to be towed by a vehicle 124150
equipped with a fifth-wheel hitch ordinarily installed in the bed 124151
of a truck.124152

       (e) "Park trailer" means a vehicle that is commonly known as 124153
a park model recreational vehicle, meets the American national 124154
standard institute standard A119.5 (1988) for park trailers, is 124155
built on a single chassis, has a gross trailer area of four 124156
hundred square feet or less when set up, is designed for seasonal 124157
or temporary living quarters, and may be connected to utilities 124158
necessary for the operation of installed features and appliances.124159

       (R) "Pneumatic tires" means tires of rubber and fabric or 124160
tires of similar material, that are inflated with air.124161

       (S) "Solid tires" means tires of rubber or similar elastic 124162
material that are not dependent upon confined air for support of 124163
the load.124164

       (T) "Solid tire vehicle" means any vehicle that is equipped 124165
with two or more solid tires.124166

       (U) "Farm machinery" means all machines and tools that are 124167
used in the production, harvesting, and care of farm products, and 124168
includes trailers that are used to transport agricultural produce 124169
or agricultural production materials between a local place of 124170
storage or supply and the farm, agricultural tractors, threshing 124171
machinery, hay-baling machinery, corn shellers, hammermills, and 124172
machinery used in the production of horticultural, agricultural, 124173
and vegetable products.124174

       (V) "Owner" includes any person or firm, other than a 124175
manufacturer or dealer, that has title to a motor vehicle, except 124176
that, in sections 4505.01 to 4505.19 of the Revised Code, "owner" 124177
includes in addition manufacturers and dealers.124178

       (W) "Manufacturer" and "dealer" include all persons and firms 124179
that are regularly engaged in the business of manufacturing, 124180
selling, displaying, offering for sale, or dealing in motor 124181
vehicles, at an established place of business that is used 124182
exclusively for the purpose of manufacturing, selling, displaying, 124183
offering for sale, or dealing in motor vehicles. A place of 124184
business that is used for manufacturing, selling, displaying, 124185
offering for sale, or dealing in motor vehicles shall be deemed to 124186
be used exclusively for those purposes even though snowmobiles or 124187
all-purpose vehicles are sold or displayed for sale thereat, even 124188
though farm machinery is sold or displayed for sale thereat, or 124189
even though repair, accessory, gasoline and oil, storage, parts, 124190
service, or paint departments are maintained thereat, or, in any 124191
county having a population of less than seventy-five thousand at 124192
the last federal census, even though a department in a place of 124193
business is used to dismantle, salvage, or rebuild motor vehicles 124194
by means of used parts, if such departments are operated for the 124195
purpose of furthering and assisting in the business of 124196
manufacturing, selling, displaying, offering for sale, or dealing 124197
in motor vehicles. Places of business or departments in a place of 124198
business used to dismantle, salvage, or rebuild motor vehicles by 124199
means of using used parts are not considered as being maintained 124200
for the purpose of assisting or furthering the manufacturing, 124201
selling, displaying, and offering for sale or dealing in motor 124202
vehicles.124203

       (X) "Operator" includes any person who drives or operates a 124204
motor vehicle upon the public highways.124205

       (Y) "Chauffeur" means any operator who operates a motor 124206
vehicle, other than a taxicab, as an employee for hire; or any 124207
operator whether or not the owner of a motor vehicle, other than a 124208
taxicab, who operates such vehicle for transporting, for gain, 124209
compensation, or profit, either persons or property owned by 124210
another. Any operator of a motor vehicle who is voluntarily 124211
involved in a ridesharing arrangement is not considered an 124212
employee for hire or operating such vehicle for gain, 124213
compensation, or profit.124214

       (Z) "State" includes the territories and federal districts of 124215
the United States, and the provinces of Canada.124216

       (AA) "Public roads and highways" for vehicles includes all 124217
public thoroughfares, bridges, and culverts.124218

       (BB) "Manufacturer's number" means the manufacturer's 124219
original serial number that is affixed to or imprinted upon the 124220
chassis or other part of the motor vehicle.124221

       (CC) "Motor number" means the manufacturer's original number 124222
that is affixed to or imprinted upon the engine or motor of the 124223
vehicle.124224

       (DD) "Distributor" means any person who is authorized by a 124225
motor vehicle manufacturer to distribute new motor vehicles to 124226
licensed motor vehicle dealers at an established place of business 124227
that is used exclusively for the purpose of distributing new motor 124228
vehicles to licensed motor vehicle dealers, except when the 124229
distributor also is a new motor vehicle dealer, in which case the 124230
distributor may distribute at the location of the distributor's 124231
licensed dealership.124232

       (EE) "Ridesharing arrangement" means the transportation of 124233
persons in a motor vehicle where the transportation is incidental 124234
to another purpose of a volunteer driver and includes ridesharing 124235
arrangements known as carpools, vanpools, and buspools.124236

       (FF) "Apportionable vehicle" means any vehicle that is used 124237
or intended for use in two or more international registration plan 124238
member jurisdictions that allocate or proportionally register 124239
vehicles, that is used for the transportation of persons for hire 124240
or designed, used, or maintained primarily for the transportation 124241
of property, and that meets any of the following qualifications:124242

       (1) Is a power unit having a gross vehicle weight in excess 124243
of twenty-six thousand pounds;124244

       (2) Is a power unit having three or more axles, regardless of 124245
the gross vehicle weight;124246

       (3) Is a combination vehicle with a gross vehicle weight in 124247
excess of twenty-six thousand pounds.124248

       "Apportionable vehicle" does not include recreational 124249
vehicles, vehicles displaying restricted plates, city pick-up and 124250
delivery vehicles, buses used for the transportation of chartered 124251
parties, or vehicles owned and operated by the United States, this 124252
state, or any political subdivisions thereof.124253

       (GG) "Chartered party" means a group of persons who contract 124254
as a group to acquire the exclusive use of a passenger-carrying 124255
motor vehicle at a fixed charge for the vehicle in accordance with 124256
the carrier's tariff, lawfully on file with the United States 124257
department of transportation, for the purpose of group travel to a 124258
specified destination or for a particular itinerary, either agreed 124259
upon in advance or modified by the chartered group after having 124260
left the place of origin.124261

       (HH) "International registration plan" means a reciprocal 124262
agreement of member jurisdictions that is endorsed by the American 124263
association of motor vehicle administrators, and that promotes and 124264
encourages the fullest possible use of the highway system by 124265
authorizing apportioned registration of fleets of vehicles and 124266
recognizing registration of vehicles apportioned in member 124267
jurisdictions.124268

       (II) "Restricted plate" means a license plate that has a 124269
restriction of time, geographic area, mileage, or commodity, and 124270
includes license plates issued to farm trucks under division (J) 124271
of section 4503.04 of the Revised Code.124272

       (JJ) "Gross vehicle weight," with regard to any commercial 124273
car, trailer, semitrailer, or bus that is taxed at the rates 124274
established under section 4503.042 or 4503.65 of the Revised Code, 124275
means the unladen weight of the vehicle fully equipped plus the 124276
maximum weight of the load to be carried on the vehicle.124277

       (KK) "Combined gross vehicle weight" with regard to any 124278
combination of a commercial car, trailer, and semitrailer, that is 124279
taxed at the rates established under section 4503.042 or 4503.65 124280
of the Revised Code, means the total unladen weight of the 124281
combination of vehicles fully equipped plus the maximum weight of 124282
the load to be carried on that combination of vehicles.124283

       (LL) "Chauffeured limousine" means a motor vehicle that is 124284
designed to carry nine or fewer passengers and is operated for 124285
hire on an hourly basis pursuant to a prearranged contract for the 124286
transportation of passengers on public roads and highways along a 124287
route under the control of the person hiring the vehicle and not 124288
over a defined and regular route. "Prearranged contract" means an 124289
agreement, made in advance of boarding, to provide transportation 124290
from a specific location in a chauffeured limousine at a fixed 124291
rate per hour or trip. "Chauffeured limousine" does not include 124292
any vehicle that is used exclusively in the business of funeral 124293
directing.124294

       (MM) "Manufactured home" has the same meaning as in division 124295
(C)(4) of section 3781.06 of the Revised Code.124296

       (NN) "Acquired situs," with respect to a manufactured home or 124297
a mobile home, means to become located in this state by the 124298
placement of the home on real property, but does not include the 124299
placement of a manufactured home or a mobile home in the inventory 124300
of a new motor vehicle dealer or the inventory of a manufacturer, 124301
remanufacturer, or distributor of manufactured or mobile homes.124302

       (OO) "Electronic" includes electrical, digital, magnetic, 124303
optical, electromagnetic, or any other form of technology that 124304
entails capabilities similar to these technologies.124305

       (PP) "Electronic record" means a record generated, 124306
communicated, received, or stored by electronic means for use in 124307
an information system or for transmission from one information 124308
system to another.124309

       (QQ) "Electronic signature" means a signature in electronic 124310
form attached to or logically associated with an electronic 124311
record.124312

       (RR) "Financial transaction device" has the same meaning as 124313
in division (A) of section 113.40 of the Revised Code.124314

       (SS) "Electronic motor vehicle dealer" means a motor vehicle 124315
dealer licensed under Chapter 4517. of the Revised Code whom the 124316
registrar of motor vehicles determines meets the criteria 124317
designated in section 4503.035 of the Revised Code for electronic 124318
motor vehicle dealers and designates as an electronic motor 124319
vehicle dealer under that section.124320

       (TT) "Electric personal assistive mobility device" means a 124321
self-balancing two non-tandem wheeled device that is designed to 124322
transport only one person, has an electric propulsion system of an 124323
average of seven hundred fifty watts, and when ridden on a paved 124324
level surface by an operator who weighs one hundred seventy pounds 124325
has a maximum speed of less than twenty miles per hour.124326

       (UU) "Limited driving privileges" means the privilege to 124327
operate a motor vehicle that a court grants under section 4510.021 124328
of the Revised Code to a person whose driver's or commercial 124329
driver's license or permit or nonresident operating privilege has 124330
been suspended.124331

       (VV) "Utility vehicle" means a self-propelled vehicle 124332
designed with a bed, principally for the purpose of transporting 124333
material or cargo in connection with construction, agricultural, 124334
forestry, grounds maintenance, lawn and garden, materials 124335
handling, or similar activities. 124336

       (WW) "Low-speed vehicle" means a three- or four-wheeled motor 124337
vehicle with an attainable speed in one mile on a paved level 124338
surface of more than twenty miles per hour but not more than 124339
twenty-five miles per hour and with a gross vehicle weight rating 124340
less than three thousand pounds.124341

       (XX) "Under-speed vehicle" means a three- or four-wheeled 124342
vehicle, including a vehicle commonly known as a golf cart, with 124343
an attainable speed on a paved level surface of not more than 124344
twenty miles per hour and with a gross vehicle weight rating less 124345
than three thousand pounds.124346

       (YY) "Motor-driven cycle or motor scooter" means any vehicle 124347
designed to travel on not more than three wheels in contact with 124348
the ground, with a seat for the driver and floor pad for the 124349
driver's feet, and is equipped with a motor with a piston 124350
displacement between fifty and one hundred fifty cubic centimeters 124351
piston displacement that produces not more than five brake 124352
horsepower and is capable of propelling the vehicle at a speed 124353
greater than twenty miles per hour on a level surface.124354

       (ZZ) "Motorcycle" means a motor vehicle with motive power 124355
having a seat or saddle for the use of the operator, designed to 124356
travel on not more than three wheels in contact with the ground, 124357
and having no occupant compartment top or occupant compartment top 124358
that can be installed or removed by the user.124359

       (AAA) "Cab-enclosed motorcycle" means a motor vehicle with 124360
motive power having a seat or saddle for the use of the operator, 124361
designed to travel on not more than three wheels in contact with 124362
the ground, and having an occupant compartment top or an occupant 124363
compartment top that can be installed or removed by the user.124364

       (BBB) "Mini-truck" means a vehicle that has four wheels, is 124365
propelled by an electric motor with a rated power of seven 124366
thousand five hundred watts or less or an internal combustion 124367
engine with a piston displacement capacity of six hundred sixty 124368
cubic centimeters or less, has a total dry weight of nine hundred 124369
to two thousand two hundred pounds, contains an enclosed cabin and 124370
a seat for the vehicle operator, resembles a pickup truck or van 124371
with a cargo area or bed located at the rear of the vehicle, and 124372
was not originally manufactured to meet federal motor vehicle 124373
safety standards.124374

       Sec. 4507.06.  (A)(1) Every application for a driver's 124375
license, motorcycle operator's license or endorsement, or 124376
motor-driven cycle or motor scooter license or endorsement, or 124377
duplicate of any such license or endorsement, shall be made upon 124378
the approved form furnished by the registrar of motor vehicles and 124379
shall be signed by the applicant.124380

       Every application shall state the following:124381

       (a) The applicant's name, date of birth, social security 124382
number if such has been assigned, sex, general description, 124383
including height, weight, color of hair, and eyes, residence 124384
address, including county of residence, duration of residence in 124385
this state, and country of citizenship;124386

       (b) Whether the applicant previously has been licensed as an 124387
operator, chauffeur, driver, commercial driver, or motorcycle 124388
operator and, if so, when, by what state, and whether such license 124389
is suspended or canceled at the present time and, if so, the date 124390
of and reason for the suspension or cancellation;124391

       (c) Whether the applicant is now or ever has been afflicted 124392
with epilepsy, or whether the applicant now is suffering from any 124393
physical or mental disability or disease and, if so, the nature 124394
and extent of the disability or disease, giving the names and 124395
addresses of physicians then or previously in attendance upon the 124396
applicant;124397

       (d) Whether an applicant for a duplicate driver's license, 124398
duplicate license containing a motorcycle operator endorsement, or 124399
duplicate license containing a motor-driven cycle or motor scooter 124400
endorsement has pending a citation for violation of any motor 124401
vehicle law or ordinance, a description of any such citation 124402
pending, and the date of the citation;124403

       (e) WhetherIf an applicant has not certified the applicant's 124404
willingness to make an anatomical gift under section 2108.05 of 124405
the Revised Code, whether the applicant wishes to certify 124406
willingness to make such an anatomical gift under section 2108.05 124407
of the Revised Code, which shall be given no consideration in the 124408
issuance of a license or endorsement;124409

       (f) Whether the applicant has executed a valid durable power 124410
of attorney for health care pursuant to sections 1337.11 to 124411
1337.17 of the Revised Code or has executed a declaration 124412
governing the use or continuation, or the withholding or 124413
withdrawal, of life-sustaining treatment pursuant to sections 124414
2133.01 to 2133.15 of the Revised Code and, if the applicant has 124415
executed either type of instrument, whether the applicant wishes 124416
the applicant's license to indicate that the applicant has 124417
executed the instrument;124418

       (g) On and after October 7, 2009, whether the applicant is a 124419
veteran, active duty, or reservist of the armed forces of the 124420
United States and, if the applicant is such, whether the applicant 124421
wishes the applicant's license to indicate that the applicant is a 124422
veteran, active duty, or reservist of the armed forces of the 124423
United States by a military designation on the license.124424

       (2) Every applicant for a driver's license shall be 124425
photographed in color at the time the application for the license 124426
is made. The application shall state any additional information 124427
that the registrar requires.124428

       (B) The registrar or a deputy registrar, in accordance with 124429
section 3503.11 of the Revised Code, shall register as an elector 124430
any person who applies for a license or endorsement under division 124431
(A) of this section, or for a renewal or duplicate of the license 124432
or endorsement, if the applicant is eligible and wishes to be 124433
registered as an elector. The decision of an applicant whether to 124434
register as an elector shall be given no consideration in the 124435
decision of whether to issue the applicant a license or 124436
endorsement, or a renewal or duplicate.124437

       (C) The registrar or a deputy registrar, in accordance with 124438
section 3503.11 of the Revised Code, shall offer the opportunity 124439
of completing a notice of change of residence or change of name to 124440
any applicant for a driver's license or endorsement under division 124441
(A) of this section, or for a renewal or duplicate of the license 124442
or endorsement, if the applicant is a registered elector who has 124443
changed the applicant's residence or name and has not filed such a 124444
notice.124445

       (D) In addition to any other information it contains, on and 124446
after October 7, 2009, the approved form furnished by the 124447
registrar of motor vehicles for an application for a license or 124448
endorsement or an application for a duplicate of any such license 124449
or endorsement shall inform applicants that the applicant must 124450
present a copy of the applicant's DD-214 or an equivalent document 124451
in order to qualify to have the license or duplicate indicate that 124452
the applicant is a veteran, active duty, or reservist of the armed 124453
forces of the United States based on a request made pursuant to 124454
division (A)(1)(g) of this section.124455

       Section 110.31.  That the existing versions of sections 124456
4501.01 and 4507.06 of the Revised Code that are scheduled to take 124457
effect January 1, 2017, are hereby repealed.124458

       Section 110.32.  Sections 110.30 and 110.31 of this act shall 124459
take effect January 1, 2017.124460

       Section 125.10. (A) Sections 5168.01, 5168.02, 5168.03, 124461
5168.04, 5168.05, 5168.06, 5168.07, 5168.08, 5168.09, 5168.10, 124462
5168.11, 5168.12, 5168.13, 5168.99, and 5168.991 of the Revised 124463
Code are hereby repealed, effective October 16, 2015.124464

        (B) Any money remaining in the Legislative Budget Services 124465
Fund on October 16, 2015, the date that section 5168.12 of the 124466
Revised Code is repealed by division (A) of this section, shall be 124467
used solely for the purposes stated in then former section 5168.12 124468
of the Revised Code. When all money in the Legislative Budget 124469
Services Fund has been spent after then former section 5168.12 of 124470
the Revised Code is repealed under division (A) of this section, 124471
the fund shall cease to exist.124472

       Section 125.11. Sections 5168.20, 5168.21, 5168.22, 5168.23, 124473
5168.24, 5168.25, 5168.26, 5168.27, and 5168.28 of the Revised 124474
Code are hereby repealed, effective October 1, 2015.124475

       Section 125.11.10. That Section 267.60.31 of Am. Sub. H.B. 124476
153 of the 129th General Assembly is hereby repealed.124477

       Section 125.12. That Section 153 of Am. Sub. H.B. 117 of the 124478
121st General Assembly, as most recently amended by Am. Sub. H.B. 124479
153 of the 129th General Assembly, is hereby repealed.124480

       Section 125.13. That Section 125.10 of Am. Sub. H.B. 1 of the 124481
128th General Assembly, as most recently amended by Am. Sub. H.B. 124482
153 of the 129th General Assembly, is hereby repealed.124483

       Section 201.10.  Except as otherwise provided in this act, 124484
all appropriation items in this act are appropriated out of any 124485
moneys in the state treasury to the credit of the designated fund 124486
that are not otherwise appropriated. For all appropriations made 124487
in this act, the amounts in the first column are for fiscal year 124488
2014 and the amounts in the second column are for fiscal year 124489
2015.124490

       Section 203.10. ACC ACCOUNTANCY BOARD OF OHIO124491

General Services Fund Group124492

4J80 889601 CPA Education Assistance $ 325,000 $ 325,000 124493
4K90 889609 Operating Expenses $ 977,500 $ 977,500 124494
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund 124495
Group $ 1,302,500 $ 1,302,500 124496
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 1,302,500 $ 1,302,500 124497


       Section 205.10. ADJ ADJUTANT GENERAL124499

General Revenue Fund124500

GRF 745401 Ohio Military Reserve $ 12,308 $ 12,308 124501
GRF 745404 Air National Guard $ 1,810,606 $ 1,810,606 124502
GRF 745407 National Guard Benefits $ 400,000 $ 400,000 124503
GRF 745409 Central Administration $ 2,682,098 $ 2,682,098 124504
GRF 745499 Army National Guard $ 3,689,871 $ 3,689,871 124505
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 8,594,883 $ 8,594,883 124506

General Services Fund Group124507

5340 745612 Property Operations Management $ 534,304 $ 534,304 124508
5360 745605 Marksmanship Activities $ 128,600 $ 128,600 124509
5360 745620 Camp Perry and Buckeye Inn Operations $ 978,846 $ 978,846 124510
5370 745604 Ohio National Guard Facilities Maintenance $ 62,000 $ 62,000 124511
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 1,703,750 $ 1,703,750 124512

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group124513

3410 745615 Air National Guard Base Security $ 2,919,000 $ 2,919,000 124514
3420 745616 Army National Guard Service Agreement $ 15,063,000 $ 15,063,000 124515
3E80 745628 Air National Guard Operations and Maintenance $ 16,850,000 $ 16,850,000 124516
3R80 745603 Counter Drug Operations $ 15,000 $ 15,000 124517
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue Fund Group $ 34,847,000 $ 34,847,000 124518

State Special Revenue Fund Group124519

5U80 745613 Community Match Armories $ 350,000 $ 350,000 124520
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue Fund Group $ 350,000 $ 350,000 124521

TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 45,495,633 $ 45,495,633 124522

       NATIONAL GUARD BENEFITS124523

       The foregoing appropriation item 745407, National Guard 124524
Benefits, shall be used for purposes of sections 5919.31 and 124525
5919.33 of the Revised Code, and for administrative costs of the 124526
associated programs.124527

       If necessary, in order to pay benefits in a timely manner 124528
pursuant to sections 5919.31 and 5919.33 of the Revised Code, the 124529
Adjutant General may request the Director of Budget and Management 124530
transfer appropriation from any appropriation item used by the 124531
Adjutant General to appropriation item 745407, National Guard 124532
Benefits. The Adjutant General may subsequently seek Controlling 124533
Board approval to restore the appropriation in the appropriation 124534
item from which such a transfer was made.124535

       For active duty members of the Ohio National Guard who died 124536
after October 7, 2001, while performing active duty, the death 124537
benefit, pursuant to section 5919.33 of the Revised Code, shall be 124538
paid to the beneficiary or beneficiaries designated on the 124539
member's Servicemembers' Group Life Insurance Policy.124540

       STATE ACTIVE DUTY COSTS124541

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 745409, Central 124542
Administration, $50,000 in each fiscal year shall be used for the 124543
purpose of paying expenses related to state active duty of members 124544
of the Ohio organized militia, in accordance with a proclamation 124545
of the Governor. Expenses include, but are not limited to, the 124546
cost of equipment, supplies, and services, as determined by the 124547
Adjutant General's Department.124548

       Section 207.10. DAS DEPARTMENT OF ADMINISTRATIVE SERVICES124549

General Revenue Fund124550

GRF 100403 Public Employees Health Care Program $ 309,600 $ 309,600 124551
GRF 100414 MARCS Lease Rental Payments $ 5,133,700 $ 5,135,800 124552
GRF 100415 OAKS Lease Rental Payments $ 22,998,500 $ 22,982,500 124553
GRF 100416 STARS Lease Rental Payments $ 4,976,500 $ 4,973,200 124554
GRF 100447 Administrative Building Lease Rental Payments $ 85,847,800 $ 91,059,600 124555
GRF 100448 Office Building Operating Payments $ 20,000,000 $ 20,000,000 124556
GRF 100449 DAS - Building Operating Payments $ 7,551,571 $ 7,551,571 124557
GRF 100452 Lean Ohio $ 1,059,624 $ 1,059,624 124558
GRF 100456 State IT Services $ 1,739,038 $ 1,739,038 124559
GRF 100457 Equal Opportunity Services $ 1,910,516 $ 1,910,516 124560
GRF 100459 Ohio Business Gateway $ 4,049,094 $ 4,049,094 124561
GRF 100460 Local Government Information Exchange Grants $ 3,500,000 $ 0 124562
GRF 130321 State Agency Support Services $ 2,477,008 $ 2,477,008 124563
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 161,552,951 $ 163,247,551 124564

General Services Fund Group124565

1120 100616 DAS Administration $ 6,127,659 $ 6,147,659 124566
1150 100632 Central Service Agency $ 911,580 $ 927,699 124567
1170 100644 General Services Division - Operating $ 12,993,870 $ 12,993,870 124568
1220 100637 Fleet Management $ 4,200,000 $ 4,200,000 124569
1250 100622 Human Resources Division - Operating $ 16,649,839 $ 16,649,839 124570
1250 100657 Benefits Communication $ 712,316 $ 712,316 124571
1280 100620 Office of Collective Bargaining $ 3,329,507 $ 3,329,507 124572
1300 100606 Risk Management Reserve $ 6,635,784 $ 6,635,784 124573
1320 100631 DAS Building Management $ 19,743,170 $ 19,743,170 124574
1330 100607 IT Services Delivery $ 57,521,975 $ 57,521,975 124575
1880 100649 Equal Opportunity Division - Operating $ 863,013 $ 863,013 124576
2100 100612 State Printing $ 20,459,526 $ 20,459,526 124577
2290 100630 IT Governance $ 16,446,474 $ 16,446,474 124578
2290 100640 Leveraged Enterprise Purchases $ 7,065,639 $ 7,065,639 124579
4270 100602 Investment Recovery $ 3,885,000 $ 2,900,000 124580
4N60 100617 Major IT Purchases $ 56,888,635 $ 56,888,635 124581
4P30 100603 DAS Information Services $ 6,400,070 $ 6,400,070 124582
5C20 100605 MARCS Administration $ 14,292,596 $ 14,512,028 124583
5C30 100608 Minor Construction Project Management $ 204,375 $ 204,375 124584
5EB0 100635 OAKS Support Organization $ 25,813,077 $ 19,813,077 124585
5EB0 100656 OAKS Updates and Developments $ 9,886,923 $ 2,636,923 124586
5HU0 100655 Construction Reform Demo Compliance $ 150,000 $ 150,000 124587
5KZ0 100659 Building Improvement $ 500,000 $ 500,000 124588
5L70 100610 Professional Development $ 2,100,000 $ 2,100,000 124589
5LA0 100660 Building Operation $ 27,000,767 $ 27,214,648 124590
5LJ0 100661 IT Development $ 13,200,000 $ 13,200,000 124591
5V60 100619 Employee Educational Development $ 800,000 $ 800,000 124592
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund 124593
Group $ 334,781,795 $ 321,016,227 124594

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group124595

3AJ0 100654 ARRA Broadband Mapping Grant $ 1,723,009 $ 1,723,009 124596
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 124597
Fund Group $ 1,723,009 $ 1,723,009 124598

State Special Revenue Fund Group124599

5JQ0 100658 Professionals Licensing System $ 3,028,366 $ 990,000 124600
5MV0 100662 Theater Equipment Maintenance $ 80,891 $ 80,891 124601
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 124602
Fund Group $ 3,109,257 $ 1,070,891 124603
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 501,167,012 $ 487,057,678 124604


       Section 207.20. OAKS LEASE RENTAL PAYMENTS124606

       The foregoing appropriation item 100415, OAKS Lease Rental 124607
Payments, shall be used for payments at the times they are 124608
required to be made for the period from July 1, 2013, through June 124609
30, 2015, pursuant to leases and agreements entered into under 124610
Chapter 125. of the Revised Code, as supplemented by Section 124611
281.10 of Am. Sub. H.B. 562 of the 127th General Assembly and 124612
other prior acts of the General Assembly, with respect to 124613
financing the costs associated with the acquisition, development, 124614
installation, and implementation of the Ohio Administrative 124615
Knowledge System. If it is determined that additional 124616
appropriations are necessary for this purpose, the amounts are 124617
hereby appropriated.124618

       Section 207.30. STARS LEASE RENTAL PAYMENTS124619

        The foregoing appropriation item 100416, STARS Lease Rental 124620
Payments, shall be used for payments at the times they are 124621
required to be made for the period from July 1, 2013, through June 124622
30, 2015, pursuant to leases and agreements entered into under 124623
Chapter 125. of the Revised Code, as supplemented by Section 124624
207.10.30 of Am. Sub. H.B. 1 of the 128th General Assembly and 124625
other prior acts of the General Assembly, with respect to 124626
financing the cost for the acquisition, development, installation, 124627
and implementation of the State Taxation Accounting and Revenue 124628
System (STARS). If it is determined that additional appropriations 124629
are necessary for this purpose, the amounts are appropriated.124630

       The State Taxation Accounting and Revenue System (STARS) is 124631
an integrated tax collection and audit system that will replace 124632
all of the state's existing separate tax software and 124633
administration systems for the various taxes collected by the 124634
state. The Department of Administrative Services, in conjunction 124635
with the Department of Taxation, may acquire STARS, including, but 124636
not limited to, the application hardware and software and 124637
installation and implementation thereof, for the use of the 124638
Department of Taxation. Any lease-purchase agreement used under 124639
Chapter 125. of the Revised Code to acquire STARS, including any 124640
fractionalized interests as defined in division (N) of section 124641
133.01 of the Revised Code in the lease payments under that 124642
agreement, shall provide at the end of the lease period that the 124643
financed asset becomes the property of the state. The principal 124644
amount of any new such financing is limited, excluding the 124645
principal amounts of any lease-purchase financing heretofore 124646
completed for STARS, to the amount of $20,000,000.124647

       Section 207.40. MARCS LEASE RENTAL PAYMENTS124648

       The foregoing appropriation item 100414, MARCS Lease Rental 124649
Payments, shall be used for payments at the times they are 124650
required to be made for the period from July 1, 2013, through June 124651
30, 2015, pursuant to leases and agreements entered into under 124652
Chapter 125. of the Revised Code, as supplemented by Section 124653
701.20 of Sub. H.B. 482 of the 129th General Assembly, with 124654
respect to financing the cost for the acquisition, development, 124655
installation, and implementation of the Multi-Agency Radio 124656
Communication System (MARCS) upgrade. If it is determined that 124657
additional appropriations are necessary for this purpose, the 124658
amounts are hereby appropriated.124659

       Section 207.50. MULTI-AGENCY RADIO COMMUNICATION SYSTEM 124660
UPGRADE124661

       The Multi-Agency Radio Communications System (MARCS) is a 124662
statewide computer and communications network designed to provide 124663
instant voice and data communication and supply a communications 124664
backbone to public safety and emergency management. The Department 124665
of Administrative Services may update or add functionality to 124666
MARCS to upgrade the existing system to a 700/800 megahertz voice 124667
and data system specifically designed to support interoperable 124668
communications for public safety law enforcement and first 124669
responders. The improvements may include, but are not limited to, 124670
hardware and software and the installation and implementation 124671
thereof. Any lease-purchase agreement utilized under Chapter 125. 124672
of the Revised Code to acquire MARCS and the enhancements 124673
described above, including any fractionalized interest as defined 124674
in division (N) of section 133.01 of the Revised Code in the lease 124675
payments under that agreement, shall provide at the end of the 124676
lease period that the financed asset becomes the property of the 124677
state. The principal amount of any new such financing is limited, 124678
in addition to the principal amounts of lease-purchase financing 124679
heretofore completed for MARCS, to the amount of $27,000,000. 124680

       Section 207.60. ADMINISTRATIVE BUILDING LEASE RENTAL PAYMENTS124681

       The foregoing appropriation item 100447, Administrative 124682
Building Lease Rental Payments, shall be used to meet all payments 124683
at the times they are required to be made during the period from 124684
July 1, 2013, through June 30, 2015, by the Department of 124685
Administrative Services pursuant to leases and agreements under 124686
Chapters 152. and 154. of the Revised Code. These appropriations 124687
are the source of funds pledged for bond service charges on 124688
related obligations issued under Chapters 152. and 154. of the 124689
Revised Code.124690

        The foregoing appropriation item 100448, Office Building 124691
Operating Payments, shall be used to pay the expenses of vacant 124692
space, space undergoing renovation, agencies funded by the General 124693
Revenue Fund, and the rent expenses of tenants that have been 124694
relocated because of building renovations that occupy space in the 124695
James A. Rhodes State Office Tower, the Vern Riffe Center for 124696
Government and the Arts, the Frank J. Lausche State Office 124697
Building, the Michael V. DiSalle Government Center, and the Oliver 124698
R. Ocasek Government Office Building.124699

       At least once per year, the portion of appropriation item 124700
100448, Office Building Operating Payments, that is not used for 124701
expenses of agencies funded by the General Revenue Fund, vacant 124702
space, space undergoing renovation, and the rent expenses of 124703
tenants that are relocated because of building renovations shall 124704
be processed by the Department of Administrative Services through 124705
intrastate voucher and placed in the Building Improvements Fund 124706
(Fund 5KZ0).124707

       Section 207.70. DAS - BUILDING OPERATING PAYMENTS124708

       The foregoing appropriation item 100449, DAS - Building 124709
Operating Payments, shall be used to pay the rent expenses of 124710
veterans organizations pursuant to section 123.024 of the Revised 124711
Code in fiscal years 2014 and 2015.124712

       The foregoing appropriation item, 100449, DAS - Building 124713
Operating Payments, also may be used to provide funding for the 124714
cost of property appraisals or building studies that the 124715
Department of Administrative Services may be required to obtain 124716
for property that is being sold by the state or property under 124717
consideration to be renovated or purchased by the state.124718

       Notwithstanding section 125.28 of the Revised Code, the 124719
remaining portion of the appropriation may be used to pay the 124720
operating expenses of state facilities maintained by the 124721
Department of Administrative Services that are not billed to 124722
building tenants, or other costs associated with the Voinovich 124723
Center in Youngstown, Ohio. These expenses may include, but are 124724
not limited to, the costs for vacant space and space undergoing 124725
renovation, and the rent expenses of tenants that are relocated 124726
because of building renovations. These payments may be processed 124727
by the Department of Administrative Services through intrastate 124728
transfer vouchers and placed in the Building Management Fund (Fund 124729
1320) or the Information Technology Services Fund (Fund 1330).124730

       CASH TRANSFER FROM THE WORKFORCE DEVELOPMENT FUND TO THE 124731
HUMAN RESOURCES SERVICES FUND124732

       Upon request of the Director of Administrative Services, 124733
during the FY 2014 - FY 2015 biennium, the Director of Budget and 124734
Management shall transfer up to $975,000 from the Workforce 124735
Development Fund (Fund 5D70) to the Human Resources Services Fund 124736
(Fund 1250) to support one-time human resources administration 124737
activities for state agencies. 124738

       Section 207.73. LOCAL GOVERNMENT INFORMATION GRANTS124739

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 100460, Local Government 124740
Information Exchange Grants, up to $100,000 in fiscal year 2014 124741
shall be used by the Director of Administrative Services for 124742
administration and maintenance of the Ohio Local Government 124743
Information Exchange Grant Program and for administration of Local 124744
Government Information Exchange grants. The remainder of the 124745
foregoing appropriation item 100460, Local Government Information 124746
Exchange Grants, shall be used by the Director of Administrative 124747
Services to disburse grant awards to eligible local governments 124748
under section 149.60 of the Revised Code.124749

       On July 1, 2014, or as soon as possible thereafter, the Chief 124750
Information Officer may request that the Director of Budget and 124751
Management approve the reappropriation of the unexpended, 124752
unencumbered balance at the end of fiscal year 2014 of the 124753
foregoing appropriation item 100460, Local Government Information 124754
Exchange Grants, for fiscal year 2015. The Director of Budget and 124755
Management may request additional information necessary for 124756
evaluating the request, and the Director of Administrative 124757
Services shall provide the requested information to the Director 124758
of Budget and Management. Based on the information provided by the 124759
Director of Administrative Services, the Director of Budget and 124760
Management shall determine the amounts to be reappropriated, and 124761
those amounts are hereby reappropriated for fiscal year 2015.124762

       Section 207.80. CENTRAL SERVICE AGENCY FUND124763

       Appropriation item 100632, Central Service Agency, shall be 124764
used to purchase the equipment, products, and services that are 124765
needed to maintain existing automated applications for the 124766
professional licensing boards and the Casino Control Commission to 124767
support board licensing functions in fiscal years 2014 and 2015 124768
until these functions are replaced by the Ohio Professionals 124769
Licensing System. The Department of Administrative Services shall 124770
establish charges for recovering the costs of carrying out these 124771
functions. The charges shall be billed to the professional 124772
licensing boards and the Casino Control Commission, and deposited 124773
via intrastate transfer vouchers to the credit of the Central 124774
Service Agency Fund (Fund 1150).124775

       Upon implementation of the replacement Ohio Professionals 124776
Licensing System and the decommissioning of the existing automated 124777
applications, the Director of Budget and Management may transfer 124778
any cash balances that remain in the Central Service Agency Fund 124779
(Fund 1150) and that are attributable to the operation of the 124780
existing automated applications to the Professions Licensing 124781
System Fund (Fund 5JQ0).124782

       Section 207.90. GENERAL SERVICE CHARGES124783

       The Department of Administrative Services, with the approval 124784
of the Director of Budget and Management, shall establish charges 124785
for recovering the costs of administering the programs funded by 124786
the General Services Fund (Fund 1170) and the State Printing Fund 124787
(Fund 2100). Such charges within Fund 1170 may be used to recover 124788
the cost of paying a vendor to establish reduced pricing for 124789
contracted supplies or services.124790

        If the Director of Administrative Services determines that 124791
additional amounts are necessary to pay for consulting and 124792
administrative costs related to securing lower pricing, the 124793
Director of Administrative Services may request that the Director 124794
of Budget and Management approve additional expenditures. Such 124795
approved additional amounts are appropriated to appropriation item 124796
100644, General Services Division-Operating. 124797

       Section 207.100. COLLECTIVE BARGAINING ARBITRATION EXPENSES124798

       With approval of the Director of Budget and Management, the 124799
Department of Administrative Services may seek reimbursement from 124800
state agencies for the actual costs and expenses the Department 124801
incurs in the collective bargaining arbitration process. The 124802
reimbursements shall be processed through intrastate transfer 124803
vouchers and credited to the Collective Bargaining Fund (Fund 124804
1280).124805

       Section 207.110. EQUAL OPPORTUNITY PROGRAM124806

       The Department of Administrative Services, with the approval 124807
of the Director of Budget and Management, shall establish charges 124808
for recovering the costs of administering the activities supported 124809
by the State EEO Fund (Fund 1880). These charges shall be 124810
deposited to the credit of the State EEO Fund (Fund 1880) upon 124811
payment made by state agencies, state-supported or state-assisted 124812
institutions of higher education, and tax-supported agencies, 124813
municipal corporations, and other political subdivisions of the 124814
state, for services rendered.124815

       Section 207.113. LEVERAGED ENTERPRISE PURCHASES124816

        The foregoing appropriation item 100640, Leveraged Enterprise 124817
Purchases, shall be used by the Department of Administrative 124818
Services to make information technology purchases for the benefit 124819
of one or more government entities as authorized under division 124820
(G) of section 125.18 of the Revised Code. If the Director of 124821
Administrative Services determines that additional amounts are 124822
necessary to pay for pass-through information technology purchases 124823
that will be billed to one or more state agencies, the Director of 124824
Administrative Services shall seek Controlling Board approval for 124825
an increase in appropriation to make the requested purchases.124826

       Section 207.120. INVESTMENT RECOVERY FUND124827

       Notwithstanding division (B) of section 125.14 of the Revised 124828
Code, cash balances in the Investment Recovery Fund (Fund 4270) 124829
may be used to support the operating expenses of the Federal 124830
Surplus Operating Program created in sections 125.84 to 125.90 of 124831
the Revised Code.124832

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 100602, Investment 124833
Recovery, up to $1,618,062 in fiscal year 2014 and up to 124834
$1,638,515 in fiscal year 2015 may be used to pay the operating 124835
expenses of the State Surplus Property Program and the Surplus 124836
Federal Property Program, under Chapter 125. of the Revised Code 124837
and this section. If additional appropriations are necessary for 124838
the operations of these programs, the Director of Administrative 124839
Services shall seek increased appropriations from the Controlling 124840
Board under section 131.35 of the Revised Code.124841

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 100602, Investment 124842
Recovery, up to $2,266,938 in fiscal year 2014 and up to 124843
$1,261,485 in fiscal year 2015 shall be used to transfer proceeds 124844
from the sale of surplus property from the Investment Recovery 124845
Fund to non-General Revenue Funds under division (A)(2) of section 124846
125.14 of the Revised Code. If it is determined by the Director of 124847
Administrative Services that additional amounts are necessary for 124848
the transfer of such sale proceeds, the Director of Administrative 124849
Services may request the Director of Budget and Management to 124850
authorize additional amounts. Such authorized additional amounts 124851
are hereby appropriated.124852

       Section 207.130. MAJOR IT PURCHASES CHARGES124853

       The Department of Administrative Services may bill agencies 124854
for actual expenditures made for major IT purchases if those 124855
expenditures are not recovered as part of the information 124856
technology services rates the Department charges and deposits into 124857
the Information Technology Fund (Fund 1330) created in section 124858
125.15 of the Revised Code. These charges shall be deposited to 124859
the credit of the Major IT Purchases Fund (Fund 4N60).124860

       Section 207.140. DAS INFORMATION SERVICES124861

       There is hereby established in the State Treasury the DAS 124862
Information Services Fund. The foregoing appropriation item 124863
100603, DAS Information Services, shall be used to pay the costs 124864
of providing information systems and services in the Department of 124865
Administrative Services. Any state agency, board, or commission 124866
may use DAS Information Services by paying for the services 124867
rendered.124868

        The Department of Administrative Services shall establish 124869
user charges for all information systems and services that are 124870
allowable in the statewide indirect cost allocation plan submitted 124871
annually to the United States Department of Health and Human 124872
Services. These charges shall comply with federal regulations and 124873
shall be deposited to the credit of the DAS Information Services 124874
Fund (Fund 4P30).124875

       Section 207.150. CASH TRANSFER FROM THE MARCS ADMINISTRATION 124876
FUND TO GRF124877

       Upon the request of the Director of Administrative Services, 124878
the Director of Budget and Management may transfer unobligated 124879
cash in the MARCS Administration Fund (Fund 5C20) to the General 124880
Revenue Fund to reimburse the General Revenue Fund for lease 124881
rental payments made on behalf of the MARCS upgrade.124882

       Section 207.160. PROFESSIONS LICENSING SYSTEM124883

       There is hereby created in the state treasury the Professions 124884
Licensing System Fund (Fund 5JQ0). Appropriation item 100658, Ohio 124885
Professionals Licensing System, shall be used to make payments 124886
from the fund. The fund shall be used to purchase the equipment, 124887
products, and services necessary to develop and maintain a 124888
replacement automated licensing system for the professional 124889
licensing boards. The Director of Budget and Management may 124890
transfer up to a total of $990,000 in cash from the Occupational 124891
Licensing and Regulatory Fund (4K90), the State Medical Board 124892
Operating Fund (Fund 5C60), and the Casino Control Commission – 124893
Operating Fund (Fund 5HS0) to the Professions Licensing System 124894
Fund during the FY 2014 - FY 2015 biennium. These transfers shall 124895
be in proportion to the number of current licensees issued by the 124896
professional licensing boards and current and anticipated licenses 124897
in the case of the Casino Control Commission. The purpose of these 124898
cash transfers is to fund the initial acquisition and development 124899
of the system. Any cash balances not expended in fiscal year 2014 124900
are hereby reappropriated in fiscal year 2015. 124901

       Effective with the implementation of the replacement 124902
licensing system, the Department of Administrative Services shall 124903
establish charges for recovering the costs of ongoing maintenance 124904
of the system. The charges shall be billed to the professional 124905
licensing boards and the Casino Control Commission, and deposited 124906
via intrastate transfer vouchers to the credit of the Professions 124907
Licensing System Fund. 124908

       Section 207.170. BUILDING IMPROVEMENT FUND124909

       The foregoing appropriation item 100659, Building 124910
Improvement, shall be used to make payments from the Building 124911
Improvement Fund (Fund 5KZ0) for major maintenance or improvements 124912
required in the James A. Rhodes State Office Tower, the Vern Riffe 124913
Center for Government and the Arts, the Frank J. Lausche State 124914
Office Building, the Michael V. DiSalle Government Center, and the 124915
Oliver R. Ocasek Government Office. The Department of 124916
Administrative Services shall conduct or contract for regular 124917
assessments of these buildings and shall maintain a cash balance 124918
in the Building Improvement Fund equal to the cost of the repairs 124919
and improvements that are recommended to occur within the next 124920
five years, with the following exception described below.124921

       Upon request of the Director of Administrative Services, the 124922
Director of Budget and Management may permit a cash transfer from 124923
the Building Improvement Fund (Fund 5KZ0) to the Building 124924
Operating Fund (Fund 5LA0) to pay costs of operating and 124925
maintaining the James A. Rhodes State Office Tower, the Vern Riffe 124926
Center for Government and the Arts, the Frank J. Lausche State 124927
Office Building, the Michael V. DiSalle Government Center, and the 124928
Oliver R. Ocasek Government Office that are not charged to tenants 124929
during the same fiscal year.124930

       Should the cash balance in the Building Operating Fund (Fund 124931
5LA0) be determined to be sufficient, the Director of 124932
Administrative Services may request that the Director of Budget 124933
and Management transfer cash from the Building Operating Fund 124934
(Fund 5LA0) to the Building Improvement Fund (Fund 5KZ0) in an 124935
amount equal to the initial cash transfer made under this section 124936
plus applicable interest. 124937

       Section 207.180. PROFESSIONAL DEVELOPMENT FUND124938

       The foregoing appropriation item 100610, Professional 124939
Development, shall be used to make payments from the Professional 124940
Development Fund (Fund 5L70) under section 124.182 of the Revised 124941
Code. If it is determined by the Director of Administrative 124942
Services that additional amounts are necessary, the Director of 124943
Administrative Services may request that the Director of Budget 124944
and Management approve additional amounts. Such approved 124945
additional amounts are hereby appropriated.124946

       Section 207.190. BUILDING OPERATING FUND124947

       The foregoing appropriation item 100660, Building Operation, 124948
shall be used to make payments from the Building Operating Fund 124949
(Fund 5LA0) to pay costs of operating and maintaining the James A. 124950
Rhodes State Office Tower, the Vern Riffe Center for Government 124951
and the Arts, the Frank J. Lausche State Office Building, the 124952
Michael V. DiSalle Government Center, and the Oliver R. Ocasek 124953
Government Office.124954

       The Department of Administrative Services, with the approval 124955
of the Director of Budget and Management, shall establish charges 124956
to be reimbursed for the cost of operating these buildings. These 124957
charges shall include the cost of applicable depreciation on the 124958
buildings and the resulting revenue shall be deposited in the 124959
Building Operating Fund (Fund 5LA0). 124960

       Section 207.200. INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY DEVELOPMENT124961

       The foregoing appropriation item 100661, IT Development, 124962
shall be used by the Department of Administrative Services to pay 124963
the costs of modernizing the state's information technology 124964
management and investment practices away from a limited, 124965
agency-specific focus in favor of a statewide methodology 124966
supporting development of enterprise solutions.124967

       The Department of Administrative Services, with the approval 124968
of the Director of Budget and Management, may charge state 124969
agencies an information technology development assessment based on 124970
state agencies' information technology expenditures or other 124971
methodology. The revenue from this assessment shall be deposited 124972
in the Information Technology Development Fund (Fund 5LJ0), which 124973
is hereby created.124974

       Section  207.210. EMPLOYEE EDUCATIONAL DEVELOPMENT124975

       The foregoing appropriation item 100619, Employee Educational 124976
Development, shall be used to make payments from the Employee 124977
Educational Development Fund (Fund 5V60) under section 124.86 of 124978
the Revised Code. The fund shall be used to pay the costs of 124979
administering educational programs under existing collective 124980
bargaining agreements with District 1199, the Health Care and 124981
Social Service Union; State Council of Professional Educators; 124982
Ohio Education Association and National Education Association; the 124983
Fraternal Order of Police Ohio Labor Council, Unit 2; and the Ohio 124984
State Troopers Association, Units 1 and 15.124985

       If it is determined by the Director of Administrative 124986
Services that additional amounts are necessary, the Director of 124987
Administrative Services may request that the Director of Budget 124988
and Management approve additional amounts. Such approved 124989
additional amounts are hereby appropriated.124990

       Section 207.220.  CASH TRANSFERS TO THE MAJOR IT PURCHASES 124991
FUND124992

       Upon request of the Director of Administrative Services, the 124993
Director of Budget and Management may transfer up to $4,000,000 124994
from the OAKS Support Organization Fund (Fund 5EB0) to the Major 124995
IT Purchases Fund (Fund 4N60). This amount represents cash 124996
transferred from Fund 4N60 during fiscal year 2010 pursuant to 124997
Section 207.30.80 of Am. Sub. H.B. 1 of the 128th General 124998
Assembly. Any portion of appropriation item 100617, Major IT 124999
Purchases, that is unencumbered and unexpended at the end of 125000
fiscal year 2014 is hereby reappropriated for fiscal year 2015.125001

       Section 207.230. MULTI-AGENCY RADIO COMMUNICATION SYSTEM DEBT 125002
SERVICE PAYMENTS125003

       The Director of Administrative Services, in consultation with 125004
the Multi-Agency Radio Communication System (MARCS) Steering 125005
Committee and the Director of Budget and Management, shall 125006
determine the share of debt service payments attributable to 125007
spending for MARCS components that are not specific to any one 125008
agency and that shall be charged to agencies supported by the 125009
motor fuel tax. Such share of debt service payments shall be 125010
calculated for MARCS capital disbursements made beginning July 1, 125011
1997. Within thirty days of any payment made from appropriation 125012
item 100447, Administrative Building Lease Payments, the Director 125013
of Administrative Services shall certify to the Director of Budget 125014
and Management the amount of this share. The Director of Budget 125015
and Management shall transfer such amounts to the General Revenue 125016
Fund from the State Highway Safety Fund (Fund 7036) established in 125017
section 4501.06 of the Revised Code.125018

       The Director of Administrative Services shall consider 125019
renting or leasing existing tower sites at reasonable or current 125020
market rates, so long as these existing sites are equipped with 125021
the technical capabilities to support the MARCS project.125022

       Section 207.240. ENTERPRISE IT STRATEGY IMPLEMENTATION125023

       The Director of Administrative Services shall determine and 125024
implement strategies that benefit the enterprise by improving 125025
efficiency, reducing costs or enhancing capacity of information 125026
technology (IT) services. Such improvements and efficiencies may 125027
result in the consolidation and transfer of such services. As 125028
determined to be necessary for successful implementation of this 125029
section and notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, 125030
the Director of Administrative Services may request the Director 125031
of Budget and Management to consolidate or transfer IT-specific 125032
budget authority between agencies as necessary to implement 125033
enterprise IT cost containment strategies and related 125034
efficiencies. Once the Director of Budget and Management is 125035
satisfied that the proposed initiative is cost advantageous to the 125036
enterprise, the Director of Budget and Management may transfer 125037
appropriations, funds and cash as needed to implement the proposed 125038
initiative. The establishment of any new fund or total increased 125039
appropriation as a result of this section will be subject to 125040
approval by the Controlling Board.125041

       The Director of Budget and Management and the Director of 125042
Administrative Services may transfer any employees, assets, and 125043
liabilities, including, but not limited to, records, contracts, 125044
and agreements in order to facilitate the improvements determined 125045
in accordance with this section.125046

       Section 209.10. AGE DEPARTMENT OF AGING125047

General Revenue Fund125048

GRF 490321 Operating Expenses $ 1,487,418 $ 1,487,418 125049
GRF 490410 Long-Term Care Ombudsman $ 477,448 $ 477,448 125050
GRF 490411 Senior Community Services $ 7,060,844 $ 7,060,844 125051
GRF 490414 Alzheimer's Respite $ 1,995,245 $ 1,995,245 125052
GRF 490506 National Senior Service Corps $ 241,413 $ 241,413 125053
GRF 656423 Long-Term Care Program Support - State $ 3,385,057 $ 3,385,057 125054
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 14,647,425 $ 14,647,425 125055

General Services Fund Group125056

4800 490606 Senior Community Outreach and Education $ 372,523 $ 372,523 125057
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund 125058
Group $ 372,523 $ 372,523 125059

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group125060

3220 490618 Federal Aging Grants $ 12,000,000 $ 12,000,000 125061
3C40 656623 Long-Term Care Program Support - Federal $ 3,385,057 $ 3,385,057 125062
3M40 490612 Federal Independence Services $ 58,655,080 $ 58,655,080 125063
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 125064
Fund Group $ 74,040,137 $ 74,040,137 125065

State Special Revenue Fund Group125066

4C40 490609 Regional Long-Term Care Ombudsman Program $ 935,000 $ 935,000 125067
5BA0 490620 Ombudsman Support $ 1,250,000 $ 1,250,000 125068
5K90 490613 Long-Term Care Consumers Guide $ 1,059,400 $ 1,059,400 125069
5MT0 490627 Board of Executives of LTSS $ 600,000 $ 600,000 125070
5W10 490616 Resident Services Coordinator Program $ 344,700 $ 344,700 125071
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 125072
Fund Group $ 4,189,100 $ 4,189,100 125073
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 93,249,185 $ 93,249,185 125074


       Section 209.20. LONG-TERM CARE125076

       Pursuant to an interagency agreement, the Department of 125077
Medicaid may designate the Department of Aging to perform 125078
assessments under section 5165.04 of the Revised Code. The 125079
Department of Aging shall provide long-term care consultations 125080
under section 173.42 of the Revised Code to assist individuals in 125081
planning for their long-term health care needs. 125082

       The Department of Aging shall administer the Medicaid 125083
waiver-funded PASSPORT Home Care Program, the Choices Program, the 125084
Assisted Living Program, and PACE as delegated by the Department 125085
of Medicaid in an interagency agreement. The foregoing 125086
appropriation items 656423, Long-Term Care Program Support - 125087
State, and 656623, Long-Term Care Program Support - Federal, may 125088
be used to support the Department of Aging's administrative costs 125089
associated with operating the PASSPORT, Choices, Assisted Living, 125090
and PACE programs.125091

       PERFORMANCE-BASED REIMBURSEMENT125092

       The Department of Aging may design and utilize a payment 125093
method for PASSPORT administrative agency operations that includes 125094
a pay-for-performance incentive component that is earned by a 125095
PASSPORT administrative agency when defined consumer and policy 125096
outcomes are achieved.125097

       Section 209.30.  LONG-TERM CARE OMBUDSMAN125098

       The foregoing appropriation item 490410, Long-Term Care 125099
Ombudsman, shall be used to fund ombudsman program activities as 125100
authorized in sections 173.14 to 173.27 and section 173.99 of the 125101
Revised Code.125102

       The State Ombudsman may explore the design of a payment 125103
method for the Ombudsman Program that includes a 125104
pay-for-performance incentive component that is earned by 125105
designated regional long-term care ombudsman programs. 125106

       SENIOR COMMUNITY SERVICES125107

       The foregoing appropriation item 490411, Senior Community 125108
Services, shall be used for services designated by the Department 125109
of Aging, including, but not limited to, home-delivered and 125110
congregate meals, transportation services, personal care services, 125111
respite services, adult day services, home repair, care 125112
coordination, prevention and disease self-management, and decision 125113
support systems. Service priority shall be given to low income, 125114
frail, and cognitively impaired persons 60 years of age and over. 125115
The department shall promote cost sharing by service recipients 125116
for those services funded with senior community services funds, 125117
including, when possible, sliding-fee scale payment systems based 125118
on the income of service recipients.125119

       ALZHEIMER'S RESPITE125120

       The foregoing appropriation item 490414, Alzheimer's Respite, 125121
shall be used to fund only Alzheimer's disease services under 125122
section 173.04 of the Revised Code.125123

       NATIONAL SENIOR SERVICE CORPS125124

       The foregoing appropriation item 490506, National Senior 125125
Service Corps, shall be used by the Department of Aging to fund 125126
grants for three Corporation for National and Community 125127
Service/Senior Corps programs: the Foster Grandparents Program, 125128
the Senior Companion Program, and the Retired Senior Volunteer 125129
Program. A recipient of these grant funds shall use the funds to 125130
support priorities established by the Department and the Ohio 125131
State Office of the Corporation for National and Community 125132
Service. The expenditure of these funds by any grant recipient 125133
shall be in accordance with Senior Corps policies and procedures, 125134
as stated in the Domestic Volunteer Service Act of 1973, as 125135
amended. Neither the Department nor any area agencies on aging 125136
that are involved in the distribution of these funds to 125137
lower-tiered grant recipients may use any portion of these funds 125138
to cover administrative costs. 125139

       SENIOR COMMUNITY OUTREACH AND EDUCATION125140

       The foregoing appropriation item 490606, Senior Community 125141
Outreach and Education, may be used to provide training to workers 125142
in the field of aging pursuant to division (G) of section 173.02 125143
of the Revised Code.125144

       TRANSFER OF APPROPRIATIONS - FEDERAL INDEPENDENCE SERVICES 125145
AND FEDERAL AGING GRANTS125146

       At the request of the Director of Aging, the Director of 125147
Budget and Management may transfer appropriation between 125148
appropriation items 490612, Federal Independence Services, and 125149
490618, Federal Aging Grants. The amounts transferred shall not 125150
exceed 30 per cent of the appropriation from which the transfer is 125151
made. Any transfers shall be reported by the Department of Aging 125152
to the Controlling Board at the next scheduled meeting of the 125153
board.125154

       REGIONAL LONG-TERM CARE OMBUDSMAN PROGRAM125155

       The foregoing appropriation item 490609, Regional Long-Term 125156
Care Ombudsman Program, shall be used to pay the costs of 125157
operating the regional long-term care ombudsman programs 125158
designated by the State Long-Term Care Ombudsman.125159

       TRANSFER OF RESIDENT PROTECTION FUNDS125160

       In each fiscal year, the Director of Budget and Management 125161
may transfer up to $1,250,000 cash from the Resident Protection 125162
Fund (Fund 4E30), which is used by the Department of Medicaid, to 125163
the Ombudsman Support Fund (Fund 5BA0), which is used by the 125164
Department of Aging.125165

       The Director of Aging and the Office of the State Long-Term 125166
Care Ombudsman may use moneys in the Ombudsman Support Fund (Fund 125167
5BA0) to implement a nursing home quality initiative as specified 125168
in section 173.60 of the Revised Code.125169

       LONG-TERM CARE CONSUMERS GUIDE125170

        The foregoing appropriation item 490613, Long-Term Care 125171
Consumers Guide, shall be used to conduct annual consumer 125172
satisfaction surveys and to pay for other administrative expenses 125173
related to the publication of the Ohio Long-Term Care Consumer 125174
Guide.125175

       CASH TRANSFER FROM THE GENERAL OPERATIONS FUND TO THE BOARD 125176
OF EXECUTIVES OF LONG-TERM SERVICES AND SUPPORTS FUND125177

       On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 125178
Director of Health shall certify to the Director of Budget and 125179
Management the cash balance relating to the Board of Examiners of 125180
Nursing Home Administrators in the General Operations Fund (Fund 125181
4700), used by the Department of Health. Upon receiving this 125182
certification, the Director of Budget and Management may transfer 125183
this cash from the General Operations Fund (Fund 4700) to the 125184
Board of Executives of Long-Term Services and Supports Fund (Fund 125185
5MT0), used by the Department of Aging. If this transfer occurs, 125186
the Director of Budget and Management shall cancel any existing 125187
encumbrances pertaining to the Board of Examiners of Nursing Home 125188
Administrators against appropriation item 440647, Fee Supported 125189
Programs, and re-establish them against appropriation item 490627, 125190
Board of Executives of LTSS. The re-established encumbrance 125191
amounts are hereby appropriated. 125192

       Section 209.40. DEPARTMENT OF AGING'S APPROPRIATION ITEM 125193
STRUCTURE125194

        Upon request from the Director of Aging, the Director of 125195
Budget and Management may establish new funds, new appropriation 125196
items, and appropriations in order to support the transition to a 125197
new appropriation item structure in the Department of Aging's 125198
budget. Also, upon request of the Director of Aging, the Director 125199
of Budget and Management may transfer appropriations between GRF 125200
appropriation items, transfer cash between any funds used by the 125201
Department of Aging, abolish existing funds used by the Department 125202
of Aging, and cancel and reestablish encumbrances. Any 125203
establishment of new funds or appropriation items, any transfers 125204
of appropriations or cash, and any increases in appropriation 125205
under this section are subject to Controlling Board approval.125206

       Section 209.50. UPDATING AUTHORIZING STATUTE CITATIONS125207

       As used in this section, "authorizing statute" means a 125208
Revised Code section or provision of a Revised Code section that 125209
is cited in the Ohio Administrative Code as the statute that 125210
authorizes the adoption of a rule.125211

       The Director of Aging is not required to amend any rule for 125212
the sole purpose of updating the citation in the Ohio 125213
Administrative Code to the rule's authorizing statute to reflect 125214
that this act renumbers the authorizing statute or relocates it to 125215
another Revised Code section. Such citations shall be updated as 125216
the Director amends the rules for other purposes.125217

       Section 211.10. AGR DEPARTMENT OF AGRICULTURE125218

General Revenue Fund125219

GRF 700401 Animal Disease Control $ 3,936,687 $ 3,936,687 125220
GRF 700403 Dairy Division $ 1,088,115 $ 1,088,115 125221
GRF 700404 Ohio Proud $ 50,000 $ 50,000 125222
GRF 700406 Consumer Analytical Lab $ 1,287,556 $ 1,287,556 125223
GRF 700407 Food Safety $ 848,792 $ 848,792 125224
GRF 700409 Farmland Preservation $ 72,750 $ 72,750 125225
GRF 700412 Weights and Measures $ 600,000 $ 600,000 125226
GRF 700415 Poultry Inspection $ 542,978 $ 542,978 125227
GRF 700418 Livestock Regulation Program $ 1,108,071 $ 1,108,071 125228
GRF 700424 Livestock Testing and Inspections $ 102,770 $ 102,770 125229
GRF 700426 Dangerous and Restricted Animals $ 800,000 $ 800,000 125230
GRF 700427 High Volume Breeder Kennel Control $ 400,000 $ 200,000 125231
GRF 700499 Meat Inspection Program - State Share $ 4,175,097 $ 4,175,097 125232
GRF 700501 County Agricultural Societies $ 391,415 $ 391,415 125233
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 15,404,231 $ 15,204,231 125234

General Services Fund Group125235

5DA0 700644 Laboratory Administration Support $ 1,115,000 $ 1,115,000 125236
5GH0 700655 Central Support Indirect Cost $ 4,368,013 $ 4,404,073 125237
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 5,483,013 $ 5,519,073 125238

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group125239

3260 700618 Meat Inspection Program - Federal Share $ 4,450,000 $ 4,450,000 125240
3360 700617 Ohio Farm Loan Revolving Fund $ 150,000 $ 150,000 125241
3820 700601 Cooperative Contracts $ 4,500,000 $ 4,500,000 125242
3AB0 700641 Agricultural Easement $ 1,000,000 $ 1,000,000 125243
3J40 700607 Indirect Cost $ 1,100,000 $ 1,100,000 125244
3R20 700614 Federal Plant Industry $ 1,606,000 $ 1,606,000 125245
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 125246
Fund Group $ 12,806,000 $ 12,806,000 125247

State Special Revenue Fund Group125248

4900 700651 License Plates - Sustainable Agriculture $ 10,000 $ 10,000 125249
4940 700612 Agricultural Commodity Marketing Program $ 218,000 $ 213,000 125250
4960 700626 Ohio Grape Industries $ 970,000 $ 970,000 125251
4970 700627 Commodity Handlers Regulatory Program $ 482,672 $ 482,672 125252
4C90 700605 Commercial Feed and Seed $ 1,760,000 $ 1,760,000 125253
4D20 700609 Auction Education $ 35,000 $ 35,000 125254
4E40 700606 Utility Radiological Safety $ 130,000 $ 130,000 125255
4P70 700610 Food Safety Inspection $ 1,017,328 $ 1,017,328 125256
4R00 700636 Ohio Proud Marketing $ 45,500 $ 45,500 125257
4R20 700637 Dairy Industry Inspection $ 1,738,247 $ 1,738,247 125258
4T60 700611 Poultry and Meat Inspection $ 120,000 $ 120,000 125259
5780 700620 Ride Inspection Fees $ 1,175,142 $ 1,175,142 125260
5880 700633 Brand Registration $ 5,000 $ 5,000 125261
5B80 700629 Auctioneers $ 340,000 $ 340,000 125262
5CP0 700652 License Plate Scholarships $ 10,000 $ 10,000 125263
5FC0 700648 Plant Pest Program $ 1,190,000 $ 1,190,000 125264
5H20 700608 Metrology Lab and Scale Certification $ 552,000 $ 552,000 125265
5L80 700604 Livestock Management Program $ 145,000 $ 145,000 125266
5MA0 700657 Dangerous and Restricted Animals $ 195,000 $ 195,000 125267
6520 700634 Animal and Consumer Analytical Laboratory $ 4,966,383 $ 4,966,383 125268
6690 700635 Pesticide, Fertilizer, and Lime Inspection Program $ 3,418,041 $ 3,418,041 125269
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 125270
Fund Group $ 18,523,313 $ 18,518,313 125271

Clean Ohio Conservation Fund Group125272

7057 700632 Clean Ohio Agricultural Easement $ 310,000 $ 310,000 125273
TOTAL CLF Clean Ohio Conservation Fund Group $ 310,000 $ 310,000 125274

TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 52,526,557 $ 52,357,617 125275

       DANGEROUS AND RESTRICTED WILD ANIMALS125276

       The foregoing GRF appropriation item 700426, Dangerous and 125277
Restricted Animals, shall be used to administer the Dangerous and 125278
Restricted Wild Animal Permitting Program.125279

       COUNTY AGRICULTURAL SOCIETIES125280

       The foregoing appropriation item 700501, County Agricultural 125281
Societies, shall be used to reimburse county and independent 125282
agricultural societies for expenses related to Junior Fair 125283
activities.125284

       CLEAN OHIO AGRICULTURAL EASEMENT125285

       The foregoing appropriation item 700632, Clean Ohio 125286
Agricultural Easement, shall be used by the Department of 125287
Agriculture in administering Ohio Agricultural Easement Fund (Fund 125288
7057) projects pursuant to sections 901.21, 901.22, and 5301.67 to 125289
5301.70 of the Revised Code.125290

       Section 213.10. AIR AIR QUALITY DEVELOPMENT AUTHORITY125291

General Services Fund Group125292

5EG0 898608 Energy Strategy Development $ 240,681 $ 240,681 125293
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund $ 240,681 $ 240,681 125294

State Special Revenue Fund Group125295

4Z90 898602 Small Business Ombudsman $ 288,232 $ 288,232 125296
5700 898601 Operating Expenses $ 323,980 $ 323,980 125297
5A00 898603 Small Business Assistance $ 900,000 $ 1,125,000 125298
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue Fund Group $ 1,512,212 $ 1,737,212 125299
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 1,752,893 $ 1,977,893 125300


       Section 213.20.  ENERGY STRATEGY DEVELOPMENT125302

       The Energy Strategy Development Program shall develop energy 125303
initiatives, projects, and policy that align with the energy 125304
policy for the state. Issues addressed by such initiatives, 125305
projects, and policy shall not be limited to those governed by 125306
Chapter 3706. of the Revised Code. The Ohio Air Quality 125307
Development Authority shall be responsible for the monitoring of 125308
the program.125309

       There is hereby created in the state treasury the Energy 125310
Strategy Development Fund (Fund 5EG0). The fund shall consist of 125311
money credited to it and money obtained for advanced energy 125312
projects from federal or private grants, loans, or other sources. 125313
Money in the fund shall be used to carry out the purposes of the 125314
program. Interest earned on the money in the fund shall be 125315
credited to the General Revenue Fund.125316

       On July 1 of each fiscal year, or as soon as possible 125317
thereafter, the Director of Budget and Management may transfer 125318
cash from the funds specified below, up to the amounts specified 125319
below, to the Energy Strategy Development Fund. Fund 5EG0 may 125320
accept contributions and transfers made to the fund. On July 1, 125321
2015, or as soon as possible thereafter, the Director shall 125322
transfer to the General Revenue Fund all cash credited to Fund 125323
5EG0. Upon completion of the transfer, Fund 5EG0 is abolished.125324

Fund Fund Name User FY 2014 FY 2015 125325
1310 State Agency Construction Project Service Ohio Facilities Construction Commission $27,405 $27,439 125326
5GH0 Central Support Indirect Cost Department of Agriculture $27,405 $27,439 125327
1350 Supportive Services Development Services Agency $27,405 $27,439 125328
2190 Central Support Indirect Cost Environmental Protection Agency $27,405 $27,439 125329
1570 Central Support Indirect Chargeback Department of Natural Resources $27,405 $27,439 125330
7002 Highway Operating Department of Transportation $39,150 $39,199 125331

       Section 213.30. REIMBURSEMENT TO AIR QUALITY DEVELOPMENT 125332
AUTHORITY TRUST ACCOUNT125333

       Notwithstanding any other provision of law to the contrary, 125334
the Air Quality Development Authority may reimburse the Air 125335
Quality Development Authority trust account established under 125336
section 3706.10 of the Revised Code from all operating funds of 125337
the agency for expenses pertaining to the administration and 125338
shared costs incurred by the Air Quality Development Authority in 125339
the execution of responsibilities as prescribed in Chapter 3706. 125340
of the Revised Code. Reimbursement shall be made by voucher and 125341
completed in accordance with the administrative indirect costs 125342
allocation plan approved by the Office of Budget and Management.125343

       Section 215.10. ARC STATE BOARD OF EXAMINERS OF ARCHITECTS125344

General Services Fund Group125345

4K90 891609 Operating $ 481,379 $ 485,954 125346
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund 125347
Group $ 481,379 $ 485,954 125348
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 481,379 $ 485,954 125349


       Section 217.10. ART OHIO ARTS COUNCIL125351

General Revenue Fund125352

GRF 370321 Operating Expenses $ 1,599,204 $ 1,599,204 125353
GRF 370502 State Program Subsidies $ 8,850,000 $ 8,850,000 125354
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 10,449,204 $ 10,449,204 125355

General Services Fund Group125356

4600 370602 Management Expenses and Donations $ 247,000 $ 247,000 125357
4B70 370603 Percent for Art Acquisitions $ 247,000 $ 247,000 125358
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 494,000 $ 494,000 125359

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group125360

3140 370601 Federal Support $ 1,000,000 $ 1,000,000 125361
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue Fund Group $ 1,000,000 $ 1,000,000 125362
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 11,943,204 $ 11,943,204 125363

       FEDERAL SUPPORT125364

       Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, the 125365
foregoing appropriation item 370601, Federal Support, shall be 125366
used by the Ohio Arts Council for subsidies only, and not for its 125367
administrative costs, unless the Council is required to use a 125368
portion of the funds for administrative costs under conditions of 125369
the federal grant.125370

       Section 219.10. ATH ATHLETIC COMMISSION125371

General Services Fund Group125372

4K90 175609 Operating Expenses $ 312,000 $ 320,000 125373
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 312,000 $ 320,000 125374
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 312,000 $ 320,000 125375


       Section 221.10. AGO ATTORNEY GENERAL125377

General Revenue Fund125378

GRF 055321 Operating Expenses $ 42,514,169 $ 42,514,169 125379
GRF 055405 Law-Related Education $ 100,000 $ 100,000 125380
GRF 055407 Tobacco Settlement Enforcement $ 1,500,000 $ 1,500,000 125381
GRF 055411 County Sheriffs' Pay Supplement $ 757,921 $ 757,921 125382
GRF 055415 County Prosecutors' Pay Supplement $ 831,499 $ 831,499 125383
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 45,703,589 $ 45,703,589 125384

General Services Fund Group125385

1060 055612 General Reimbursement $ 54,806,192 $ 55,820,716 125386
1950 055660 Workers' Compensation Section $ 8,415,504 $ 8,415,504 125387
4180 055615 Charitable Foundations $ 8,286,000 $ 8,286,000 125388
4200 055603 Attorney General Antitrust $ 1,839,074 $ 1,839,074 125389
4210 055617 Police Officers' Training Academy Fee $ 500,000 $ 500,000 125390
4Z20 055609 BCI Asset Forfeiture and Cost Reimbursement $ 1,000,000 $ 1,000,000 125391
5900 055633 Peace Officer Private Security Fund $ 79,438 $ 95,325 125392
5A90 055618 Telemarketing Fraud Enforcement $ 45,000 $ 10,000 125393
5L50 055619 Law Enforcement Assistance Program $ 375,255 $ 187,627 125394
5LR0 055655 Peace Officer Training - Casino $ 4,629,409 $ 4,629,409 125395
5MP0 055657 Peace Officer Training Commission $ 25,000 $ 25,000 125396
6310 055637 Consumer Protection Enforcement $ 6,700,000 $ 6,834,000 125397
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund 125398
Group $ 86,700,872 $ 87,642,655 125399

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group125400

3060 055620 Medicaid Fraud Control $ 4,537,408 $ 4,628,156 125401
3810 055611 Civil Rights Legal Service $ 75,000 $ 35,574 125402
3830 055634 Crime Victims Assistance $ 15,000,000 $ 15,000,000 125403
3E50 055638 Attorney General Pass-Through Funds $ 599,999 $ 599,999 125404
3FV0 055656 Crime Victim Compensation $ 7,000,000 $ 7,000,000 125405
3R60 055613 Attorney General Federal Funds $ 999,999 $ 999,999 125406
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 125407
Fund Group $ 28,212,406 $ 28,263,728 125408

State Special Revenue Fund Group125409

4020 055616 Victims of Crime $ 16,456,769 $ 16,456,769 125410
4190 055623 Claims Section $ 55,920,716 $ 56,937,131 125411
4L60 055606 DARE Programs $ 3,578,901 $ 3,486,209 125412
4Y70 055608 Title Defect Recision $ 600,000 $ 600,000 125413
6590 055641 Solid and Hazardous Waste Background Investigations $ 310,730 $ 310,730 125414
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 125415
Fund Group $ 76,867,116 $ 77,790,839 125416

Holding Account Redistribution Fund Group125417

R004 055631 General Holding Account $ 1,000,000 $ 1,000,000 125418
R005 055632 Antitrust Settlements $ 1,000 $ 1,000 125419
R018 055630 Consumer Frauds $ 750,000 $ 750,000 125420
R042 055601 Organized Crime Commission Distributions $ 25,025 $ 25,025 125421
R054 055650 Collection Payment Redistribution $ 4,500,000 $ 4,500,000 125422
TOTAL 090 Holding Account 125423
Redistribution Fund Group $ 6,276,025 $ 6,276,025 125424

Tobacco Master Settlement Agreement Fund Group125425

U087 055402 Tobacco Settlement Oversight, Administration, and Enforcement $ 500,000 $ 500,000 125426
TOTAL TSF Tobacco Master Settlement Agreement Fund Group $ 500,000 $ 500,000 125427
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 244,260,008 $ 246,176,836 125428

       COUNTY SHERIFFS' PAY SUPPLEMENT125429

        The foregoing appropriation item 055411, County Sheriffs' Pay 125430
Supplement, shall be used for the purpose of supplementing the 125431
annual compensation of county sheriffs as required by section 125432
325.06 of the Revised Code.125433

       At the request of the Attorney General, the Director of 125434
Budget and Management may transfer appropriation from 125435
appropriation item 055321, Operating Expenses, to appropriation 125436
item 055411, County Sheriffs' Pay Supplement. Any appropriation so 125437
transferred shall be used to supplement the annual compensation of 125438
county sheriffs as required by section 325.06 of the Revised Code.125439

       COUNTY PROSECUTORS' PAY SUPPLEMENT125440

       The foregoing appropriation item 055415, County Prosecutors' 125441
Pay Supplement, shall be used for the purpose of supplementing the 125442
annual compensation of certain county prosecutors as required by 125443
section 325.111 of the Revised Code.125444

       At the request of the Attorney General, the Director of 125445
Budget and Management may transfer appropriation from 125446
appropriation item 055321, Operating Expenses, to appropriation 125447
item 055415, County Prosecutors' Pay Supplement. Any appropriation 125448
so transferred shall be used to supplement the annual compensation 125449
of county prosecutors as required by section 325.111 of the 125450
Revised Code.125451

       CASH TRANSFER FROM THE GENERAL REVENUE FUND TO THE GENERAL 125452
REIMBURSEMENT FUND125453

        Notwithstanding any other provision of law to the contrary, 125454
on July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the Director 125455
of Budget and Management shall transfer $80,000 cash from the 125456
General Revenue Fund to the General Reimbursement Fund (Fund 125457
1060).125458

       WORKERS' COMPENSATION SECTION125459

       The Workers' Compensation Fund (Fund 1950) is entitled to 125460
receive payments from the Bureau of Workers' Compensation and the 125461
Ohio Industrial Commission at the beginning of each quarter of 125462
each fiscal year to fund legal services to be provided to the 125463
Bureau of Workers' Compensation and the Ohio Industrial Commission 125464
during the ensuing quarter. The advance payment shall be subject 125465
to adjustment.125466

       In addition, the Bureau of Workers' Compensation shall 125467
transfer payments at the beginning of each quarter for the support 125468
of the Workers' Compensation Fraud Unit.125469

       All amounts shall be mutually agreed upon by the Attorney 125470
General, the Bureau of Workers' Compensation, and the Ohio 125471
Industrial Commission.125472

       ATTORNEY GENERAL PASS-THROUGH FUNDS125473

        The foregoing appropriation item 055638, Attorney General 125474
Pass-Through Funds, shall be used to receive federal grant funds 125475
provided to the Attorney General by other state agencies, 125476
including, but not limited to, the Department of Youth Services 125477
and the Department of Public Safety.125478

       GENERAL HOLDING ACCOUNT125479

       The foregoing appropriation item 055631, General Holding 125480
Account, shall be used to distribute moneys under the terms of 125481
relevant court orders or other settlements received in a variety 125482
of cases involving the Office of the Attorney General. If it is 125483
determined that additional amounts are necessary for this purpose, 125484
the amounts are hereby appropriated.125485

        ANTITRUST SETTLEMENTS125486

       The foregoing appropriation item 055632, Antitrust 125487
Settlements, shall be used to distribute moneys under the terms of 125488
relevant court orders or other out of court settlements in 125489
antitrust cases or antitrust matters involving the Office of the 125490
Attorney General. If it is determined that additional amounts are 125491
necessary for this purpose, the amounts are hereby appropriated.125492

       CONSUMER FRAUDS125493

        The foregoing appropriation item 055630, Consumer Frauds, 125494
shall be used for distribution of moneys from court-ordered 125495
judgments against sellers in actions brought by the Office of 125496
Attorney General under sections 1334.08 and 4549.48 and division 125497
(B) of section 1345.07 of the Revised Code. These moneys shall be 125498
used to provide restitution to consumers victimized by the fraud 125499
that generated the court-ordered judgments. If it is determined 125500
that additional amounts are necessary for this purpose, the 125501
amounts are hereby appropriated.125502

       ORGANIZED CRIME COMMISSION DISTRIBUTIONS125503

        The foregoing appropriation item 055601, Organized Crime 125504
Commission Distributions, shall be used by the Organized Crime 125505
Investigations Commission, as provided by section 177.011 of the 125506
Revised Code, to reimburse political subdivisions for the expenses 125507
the political subdivisions incur when their law enforcement 125508
officers participate in an organized crime task force. If it is 125509
determined that additional amounts are necessary for this purpose, 125510
the amounts are hereby appropriated.125511

       COLLECTION PAYMENT REDISTRIBUTION125512

        The foregoing appropriation item 055650, Collection Payment 125513
Redistribution, shall be used for the purpose of allocating the 125514
revenue where debtors mistakenly paid the client agencies instead 125515
of the Attorney General's Collections Enforcement Section. If it 125516
is determined that additional amounts are necessary for this 125517
purpose, the amounts are hereby appropriated.125518

       Section 223.10. AUD AUDITOR OF STATE125519

General Revenue Fund125520

GRF 070321 Operating Expenses $ 27,434,452 $ 27,434,452 125521
GRF 070403 Fiscal Watch/Emergency Technical Assistance $ 800,000 $ 800,000 125522
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 28,234,452 $ 28,234,452 125523

Auditor of State Fund Group125524

1090 070601 Public Audit Expense - Intra-State $ 9,069,804 $ 9,196,081 125525
4220 070602 Public Audit Expense - Local Government $ 31,052,999 $ 31,031,044 125526
5840 070603 Training Program $ 181,730 $ 181,250 125527
5JZ0 070606 LEAP Revolving Loans $ 650,000 $ 650,000 125528
6750 070605 Uniform Accounting Network $ 3,241,533 $ 3,160,637 125529
TOTAL AUD Auditor of State Fund 125530
Group $ 44,196,066 $ 44,219,012 125531
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 72,430,518 $ 72,453,464 125532

       FISCAL WATCH/EMERGENCY TECHNICAL ASSISTANCE125533

       The foregoing appropriation item 070403, Fiscal 125534
Watch/Emergency Technical Assistance, shall be used for expenses 125535
incurred by the Office of the Auditor of State in its role 125536
relating to fiscal watch or fiscal emergency activities under 125537
Chapters 118. and 3316. of the Revised Code. Expenses include, but 125538
are not limited to, the following: duties related to the 125539
determination or termination of fiscal watch or fiscal emergency 125540
of municipal corporations, counties, townships, or school 125541
districts; development of preliminary accounting reports; 125542
performance of annual forecasts; provision of performance audits; 125543
and supervisory, accounting, or auditing services for the 125544
municipal corporations, counties, townships, or school districts.125545

       Section 225.10. BRB BOARD OF BARBER EXAMINERS125546

General Services Fund Group125547

4K90 877609 Operating Expenses $ 670,882 $ 674,272 125548
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund 125549
Group $ 670,882 $ 674,272 125550
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 670,882 $ 674,272 125551


       Section 227.10. OBM OFFICE OF BUDGET AND MANAGEMENT125553

General Revenue Fund125554

GRF 042321 Budget Development and Implementation $ 2,703,189 $ 2,697,483 125555
GRF 042409 Commission Closures $ 304,000 $ 155,000 125556
GRF 042416 Office of Health Transformation $ 484,486 $ 498,571 125557
GRF 042425 Shared Services Development $ 1,250,000 $ 1,250,000 125558
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 4,741,675 $ 4,601,054 125559

General Services Fund Group125560

1050 042603 Financial Management $ 14,060,275 $ 14,451,086 125561
1050 042620 Shared Services Operating $ 8,837,518 $ 8,924,830 125562
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 22,897,793 $ 23,375,916 125563

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group125564

3CM0 042606 Office of Health Transformation - Federal $ 438,723 $ 438,723 125565
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue Fund Group $ 438,723 $ 438,723 125566

Agency Fund Group125567

5EH0 042604 Forgery Recovery $ 40,000 $ 40,000 125568
TOTAL AGY Agency Fund Group $ 40,000 $ 40,000 125569
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 28,118,191 $ 28,455,693 125570

       COMMISSION CLOSURES125571

       The foregoing appropriation item 042409, Commission Closures, 125572
may be used to pay obligations associated with the closure of any 125573
state agency, whether in the executive, legislative, or judicial 125574
branch of government. Notwithstanding any provision of law to the 125575
contrary, this appropriation item may also be used to pay final 125576
payroll expenses occurring after the closure of any state agency, 125577
whether in the executive, legislative, or judicial branch of 125578
government in the event that appropriations or cash in the closing 125579
agency are insufficient to do so. 125580

       The Director of Budget and Management may request Controlling 125581
Board approval for funds to be transferred to appropriation item 125582
042409, Commission Closures, from appropriation item 911614, CB 125583
Emergency Purposes, for anticipated expenses associated with 125584
agency closures.125585

       AUDIT COSTS AND DUES125586

       All centralized audit costs associated with either Single 125587
Audit Schedules or financial statements prepared in conformance 125588
with generally accepted accounting principles for the state shall 125589
be paid from the foregoing appropriation item 042603, Financial 125590
Management.125591

       Costs associated with the audit of the Auditor of State and 125592
national association dues shall be paid from the foregoing 125593
appropriation item 042321, Budget Development and Implementation.125594

       SHARED SERVICES CENTER125595

       The foregoing appropriation items 042425, Shared Services 125596
Development, and 042620, Shared Services Operating, shall be used 125597
by the Director of Budget and Management to support a Shared 125598
Services Center within the Office of Budget and Management for the 125599
purpose of consolidating statewide business functions and common 125600
transactional processes.125601

        The Director of Budget and Management shall include the 125602
recovery of costs to operate the Shared Services Center in the 125603
accounting and budgeting services payroll rate and through a 125604
direct charges using intrastate transfer vouchers to agencies for 125605
services rendered. The Director of Budget and Management shall 125606
determine the cost recovery methodology. Such cost recovery 125607
revenues shall be deposited to the credit of Fund 1050.125608

       INTERNAL AUDIT 125609

       The Director of Budget and Management shall include the 125610
recovery of costs to operate the Internal Audit Program in the 125611
accounting and budgeting services payroll rate and through a 125612
direct charge using intrastate transfer vouchers to agencies 125613
reviewed by the program. The Director of Budget and Management, 125614
with advice from the Internal Audit Advisory Council, shall 125615
determine the cost recovery methodology. Such cost recovery 125616
revenues shall be deposited to the credit of the Accounting and 125617
Budgeting Fund (Fund 1050).125618

       FORGERY RECOVERY125619

       The foregoing appropriation item 042604, Forgery Recovery, 125620
shall be used to reissue warrants that have been certified as 125621
forgeries by the rightful recipient as determined by the Bureau of 125622
Criminal Identification and Investigation and the Treasurer of 125623
State. Upon receipt of funds to cover the reissuance of the 125624
warrant, the Director of Budget and Management shall reissue a 125625
state warrant of the same amount. Any additional amounts needed to 125626
reissue warrants backed by the receipt of funds are hereby 125627
appropriated.125628

       ABOLISHMENT OF FUND 5N40 AND FUND 5Z80125629

       On or before December 31, 2013, the Director of Budget and 125630
Management shall transfer the cash balances of the OAKS Project 125631
Implementation Fund (Fund 5N40) and the Office of Health 125632
Transformation Administration Fund (Fund 5Z80) to the General 125633
Revenue Fund. Upon completion of the transfers, Fund 5N40 and Fund 125634
5Z80 are abolished.125635

       Section 229.10. CSR CAPITOL SQUARE REVIEW AND ADVISORY BOARD125636

General Revenue Fund125637

GRF 874100 Personal Services $ 2,417,467 $ 2,417,467 125638
GRF 874320 Maintenance and Equipment $ 1,161,098 $ 1,161,098 125639
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 3,578,565 $ 3,578,565 125640

General Services Fund Group125641

4G50 874603 Capitol Square Education Center and Arts $ 5,882 $ 5,882 125642
4S70 874602 Statehouse Gift Shop/Events $ 629,409 $ 629,409 125643
TOTAL GSF General Services 125644
Fund Group $ 635,291 $ 635,291 125645

Underground Parking Garage125646

2080 874601 Underground Parking Garage Operations $ 3,039,740 $ 2,981,740 125647
TOTAL UPG Underground Parking 125648
Garage $ 3,039,740 $ 2,981,740 125649
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 7,253,596 $ 7,195,596 125650

       WAREHOUSE PAYMENTS125651

        Of the foregoing appropriation item 874601, Underground 125652
Parking Garage Operations, $48,000 in each fiscal year shall be 125653
used to meet all payments at the times they are required to be 125654
made during the period from July 1, 2013, through June 30, 2015, 125655
to the Department of Administrative Services for bond service 125656
charges relating to the purchase and improvement of a warehouse 125657
acquired pursuant to section 105.41 of the Revised Code, in which 125658
to store items of the Capitol Collection Trust and, whenever 125659
necessary, equipment or other property of the Board.125660

       UNDERGROUND PARKING GARAGE FUND125661

       Notwithstanding division (G) of section 105.41 of the Revised 125662
Code and any other provision to the contrary, moneys in the 125663
Underground Parking Garage Fund (Fund 2080) may be used for 125664
personnel and operating costs related to the operations of the 125665
Statehouse and the Statehouse Underground Parking Garage.125666

       Section 231.10. SCR STATE BOARD OF CAREER COLLEGES AND 125667
SCHOOLS125668

General Services Fund Group125669

4K90 233601 Operating Expenses $ 579,328 $ 579,328 125670
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 579,328 $ 579,328 125671
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 579,328 $ 579,328 125672


       Section 233.10. CAC CASINO CONTROL COMMISSION125674

State Special Revenue Fund Group125675

5HS0 955321 Casino Control - Operating $ 13,121,283 $ 13,542,674 125676
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue Fund Group $ 13,121,283 $ 13,542,674 125677
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 13,121,283 $ 13,542,674 125678


       Section 235.10. CDP CHEMICAL DEPENDENCY PROFESSIONALS BOARD125680

General Services Fund Group125681

4K90 930609 Operating Expenses $ 476,642 $ 469,349 125682
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 476,642 $ 469,349 125683
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 476,642 $ 469,349 125684


       Section 237.10. CHR STATE CHIROPRACTIC BOARD125686

General Services Fund Group125687

4K90 878609 Operating Expenses $ 617,829 $ 630,775 125688
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 617,829 $ 630,775 125689
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 617,829 $ 630,775 125690


       Section 239.10. CIV OHIO CIVIL RIGHTS COMMISSION125692

General Revenue Fund125693

GRF 876321 Operating Expenses $ 4,725,784 $ 4,725,784 125694
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 4,725,784 $ 4,725,784 125695

General Services Fund Group125696

2170 876604 Operations Support $ 4,000 $ 4,000 125697
TOTAL GSF General Services 125698
Fund Group $ 4,000 $ 4,000 125699

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group125700

3340 876601 Federal Programs $ 2,820,670 $ 2,947,983 125701
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 125702
Fund Group $ 2,820,670 $ 2,947,983 125703

TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 7,550,454 $ 7,677,767 125704


       Section 241.10. COM DEPARTMENT OF COMMERCE125706

General Services Fund Group125707

1630 800620 Division of Administration $ 6,200,000 $ 6,200,000 125708
1630 800637 Information Technology $ 6,011,977 $ 6,011,977 125709
5430 800602 Unclaimed Funds-Operating $ 7,737,546 $ 7,737,546 125710
5430 800625 Unclaimed Funds-Claims $ 64,000,000 $ 64,000,000 125711
5F10 800635 Small Government Fire Departments $ 300,000 $ 300,000 125712
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund 125713
Group $ 84,249,523 $ 84,249,523 125714

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group125715

3480 800622 Underground Storage Tanks $ 1,129,518 $ 1,129,518 125716
3480 800624 Leaking Underground Storage Tanks $ 1,556,211 $ 1,556,211 125717
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 125718
Fund Group $ 2,685,729 $ 2,685,729 125719

State Special Revenue Fund Group125720

4B20 800631 Real Estate Appraisal Recovery $ 35,000 $ 35,000 125721
4H90 800608 Cemeteries $ 266,688 $ 266,688 125722
4X20 800619 Financial Institutions $ 1,854,298 $ 1,854,298 125723
5440 800612 Banks $ 6,836,589 $ 6,836,589 125724
5450 800613 Savings Institutions $ 2,259,536 $ 2,259,536 125725
5460 800610 Fire Marshal $ 15,315,738 $ 15,324,574 125726
5460 800639 Fire Department Grants $ 2,198,802 $ 2,198,802 125727
5470 800603 Real Estate Education/Research $ 69,655 $ 69,655 125728
5480 800611 Real Estate Recovery $ 50,000 $ 50,000 125729
5490 800614 Real Estate $ 3,310,412 $ 3,310,412 125730
5500 800617 Securities $ 4,238,814 $ 4,238,814 125731
5520 800604 Credit Union $ 3,297,888 $ 3,297,888 125732
5530 800607 Consumer Finance $ 3,481,692 $ 3,481,692 125733
5560 800615 Industrial Compliance $ 26,612,520 $ 27,104,205 125734
5FW0 800616 Financial Literacy Education $ 200,000 $ 200,000 125735
5GK0 800609 Securities Investor Education/Enforcement $ 432,150 $ 432,150 125736
5HV0 800641 Cigarette Enforcement $ 118,800 $ 118,800 125737
5LP0 800646 Liquor Regulatory Operating Expenses $ 7,988,921 $ 7,844,537 125738
5X60 800623 Video Service $ 337,224 $ 337,224 125739
6530 800629 UST Registration/Permit Fee $ 3,831,888 $ 3,612,588 125740
6A40 800630 Real Estate Appraiser-Operating $ 672,973 $ 672,973 125741
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 125742
Fund Group $ 83,409,588 $ 83,546,425 125743

Liquor Control Fund Group125744

5LC0 800644 Liquor JobsOhio Extraordinary Allowance $ 209,279 $ 198,097 125745
5LN0 800645 Liquor Operating Services $ 5,231,967 $ 4,952,417 125746
TOTAL LCF Liquor Control 125747
Fund Group $ 5,441,246 $ 5,150,514 125748
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 175,786,086 $ 175,632,191 125749

       ADMINISTRATIVE ASSESSMENTS125750

       Notwithstanding any other provision of law to the contrary, 125751
the Division of Administration Fund (Fund 1630) is entitled to 125752
receive assessments from all operating funds of the Department in 125753
accordance with procedures prescribed by the Director of Commerce 125754
and approved by the Director of Budget and Management.125755

       UNCLAIMED FUNDS PAYMENTS125756

       The foregoing appropriation item 800625, Unclaimed 125757
Funds-Claims, shall be used to pay claims under section 169.08 of 125758
the Revised Code. If it is determined that additional amounts are 125759
necessary, the amounts are appropriated.125760

       FIRE DEPARTMENT GRANTS125761

        Of the foregoing appropriation item 800639, Fire Department 125762
Grants, up to $2,198,802 in each fiscal year shall be used to make 125763
annual grants to the following eligible recipients: volunteer fire 125764
departments, fire departments that serve one or more small 125765
municipalities or small townships, joint fire districts comprised 125766
of fire departments that primarily serve small municipalities or 125767
small townships, local units of government responsible for such 125768
fire departments, and local units of government responsible for 125769
the provision of fire protection services for small municipalities 125770
or small townships. For the purposes of these grants, a private 125771
fire company, as that phrase is defined in section 9.60 of the 125772
Revised Code, that is providing fire protection services under a 125773
contract to a political subdivision of the state, is an additional 125774
eligible recipient for a training grant.125775

       Eligible recipients that consist of small municipalities or 125776
small townships that all intend to contract with the same fire 125777
department or private fire company for fire protection services 125778
may jointly apply and be considered for a grant. If a joint 125779
applicant is awarded a grant, the State Fire Marshal shall, if 125780
feasible, proportionately award the grant and any equipment 125781
purchased with grant funds to each of the joint applicants based 125782
upon each applicant's contribution to and demonstrated need for 125783
fire protection services.125784

       If the grant awarded to joint applicants is an equipment 125785
grant and the equipment to be purchased cannot be readily 125786
distributed or possessed by multiple recipients, each of the joint 125787
applicants shall be awarded by the State Fire Marshal an ownership 125788
interest in the equipment so purchased in proportion to each 125789
applicant's contribution to and demonstrated need for fire 125790
protection services. The joint applicants shall then mutually 125791
agree on how the equipment is to be maintained, operated, stored, 125792
or disposed of. If, for any reason, the joint applicants cannot 125793
agree as to how jointly owned equipment is to be maintained, 125794
operated, stored, or disposed of or any of the joint applicants no 125795
longer maintain a contract with the same fire protection service 125796
provider as the other applicants, then the joint applicants shall, 125797
with the assistance of the State Fire Marshal, mutually agree as 125798
to how the jointly owned equipment is to be maintained, operated, 125799
stored, disposed of, or owned. If the joint applicants cannot 125800
agree how the grant equipment is to be maintained, operated, 125801
stored, disposed of, or owned, the State Fire Marshal may, in its 125802
discretion, require all of the equipment acquired by the joint 125803
applicants with grant funds to be returned to the State Fire 125804
Marshal. The State Fire Marshal may then award the returned 125805
equipment to any eligible recipients.125806

       Except as otherwise provided in this section, the grants 125807
shall be used by recipients to purchase firefighting or rescue 125808
equipment or gear or similar items, to provide full or partial 125809
reimbursement for the documented costs of firefighter training, 125810
or, at the discretion of the State Fire Marshal, to cover fire 125811
department costs for providing fire protection services in that 125812
grant recipient's jurisdiction. 125813

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 800639, up to $500,000 125814
per fiscal year may be used to pay for the State Fire Marshal's 125815
costs of providing firefighter I certification classes or other 125816
firefighter classes approved by the Department of Public Safety in 125817
accordance with section 4765.55 of the Revised Code at no cost to 125818
selected students attending the Ohio Fire Academy or other class 125819
providers approved by the State Fire Marshal. The State Fire 125820
Marshal may establish the qualifications and selection processes 125821
for students to attend such classes by written policy, and such 125822
students shall be considered eligible recipients of fire 125823
department grants for the purposes of this portion of the grant 125824
program.125825

       Grant awards for firefighting or rescue equipment or gear or 125826
for fire department costs of providing fire protection services 125827
shall be up to $15,000 per fiscal year, or up to $25,000 per 125828
fiscal year if an eligible entity serves a jurisdiction in which 125829
the Governor declared a natural disaster during the preceding or 125830
current fiscal year in which the grant was awarded. In addition to 125831
any grant funds awarded for rescue equipment or gear, or for fire 125832
department costs associated with the provision of fire protection 125833
services, an eligible entity may receive a grant for up to $15,000 125834
per fiscal year for full or partial reimbursement of the 125835
documented costs of firefighter training. For each fiscal year, 125836
the State Fire Marshal shall determine the total amounts to be 125837
allocated for each eligible purpose.125838

       The grant program shall be administered by the State Fire 125839
Marshal in accordance with rules the State Fire Marshal adopts as 125840
part of the state fire code adopted pursuant to section 3737.82 of 125841
the Revised Code that are necessary for the administration and 125842
operation of the grant program. The rules may further define the 125843
entities eligible to receive grants and establish criteria for the 125844
awarding and expenditure of grant funds, including methods the 125845
State Fire Marshal may use to verify the proper use of grant funds 125846
or to obtain reimbursement for or the return of equipment for 125847
improperly used grant funds. Any amounts in appropriation item 125848
800639, Fire Department Grants, in excess of the amount allocated 125849
for these grants may be used for the administration of the grant 125850
program.125851

       CASH TRANSFERS TO DIVISION OF REAL ESTATE OPERATING FUND125852

       The Director of Budget and Management, upon the request of 125853
the Director of Commerce, may transfer up to $500,000 in cash from 125854
the Real Estate Recovery Fund (Fund 5480) and up to $250,000 in 125855
cash from the Real Estate Appraiser Recovery Fund (Fund 4B20) to 125856
the Division of Real Estate Operating Fund (Fund 5490) during the 125857
biennium ending June 30, 2015.125858

       Section 243.10. OCC OFFICE OF CONSUMERS' COUNSEL125859

General Services Fund Group125860

5F50 053601 Operating Expenses $ 5,641,093 $ 5,641,093 125861
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 5,641,093 $ 5,641,093 125862
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 5,641,093 $ 5,641,093 125863


       Section 245.10. CEB CONTROLLING BOARD125865

General Revenue Fund125866

GRF 911441 Ballot Advertising Costs $ 475,000 $ 475,000 125867
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 475,000 $ 475,000 125868

General Services Fund Group125869

5KM0 911614 CB Emergency Purposes $ 10,000,000 $ 10,000,000 125870
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 10,000,000 $ 10,000,000 125871
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 10,475,000 $ 10,475,000 125872

       FEDERAL SHARE125873

       In transferring appropriations to or from appropriation items 125874
that have federal shares identified in this act, the Controlling 125875
Board shall add or subtract corresponding amounts of federal 125876
matching funds at the percentages indicated by the state and 125877
federal division of the appropriations in this act. Such changes 125878
are hereby appropriated.125879

       DISASTER SERVICES125880

        Pursuant to requests submitted by the Department of Public 125881
Safety, the Controlling Board may approve transfers from the 125882
Disaster Services Fund (5E20) to a fund and appropriation item 125883
used by the Department of Public Safety to provide for assistance 125884
to political subdivisions made necessary by natural disasters or 125885
emergencies. These transfers may be requested and approved prior 125886
to the occurrence of any specific natural disasters or emergencies 125887
in order to facilitate the provision of timely assistance. The 125888
Emergency Management Agency of the Department of Public Safety 125889
shall use the funding to fund the State Disaster Relief Program 125890
for disasters that have a written Governor's authorization, and 125891
the State Individual Assistance Program for disasters that have a 125892
written Governor's authorization and is declared by the federal 125893
Small Business Administration. The Ohio Emergency Management 125894
Agency shall publish and make available application packets 125895
outlining procedures for the State Disaster Relief Program and the 125896
State Individual Assistance Program.125897

       Fund 5E20 shall be used by the Controlling Board, pursuant to 125898
requests submitted by state agencies, to transfer cash and 125899
appropriations to any fund and appropriation item for the payment 125900
of state agency disaster relief program expenses for disasters 125901
that have a written Governor's authorization, if the Director of 125902
Budget and Management determines that sufficient funds exist.125903

       Upon the request of the Department of Public Safety, the 125904
Controlling Board may release up to $3,000,000 for Blanchard River 125905
flood mitigation projects.125906

       BALLOT ADVERTISING COSTS125907

       Pursuant to section 3501.17 of the Revised Code, and upon 125908
requests submitted by the Secretary of State, the Controlling 125909
Board shall approve transfers from the foregoing appropriation 125910
item 911441, Ballot Advertising Costs, to appropriation item 125911
050621, Statewide Ballot Advertising, in order to pay for the cost 125912
of public notices associated with statewide ballot initiatives.125913

       CAPITAL APPROPRIATION INCREASE FOR FEDERAL STIMULUS 125914
ELIGIBILITY125915

        A state agency director shall request that the Controlling 125916
Board increase the amount of the agency's capital appropriations 125917
if the director determines such an increase is necessary for the 125918
agency to receive and use funds under the federal American 125919
Recovery and Reinvestment Act of 2009. The Controlling Board may 125920
increase the capital appropriations pursuant to the request up to 125921
the exact amount necessary under the federal act if the Board 125922
determines it is necessary for the agency to receive and use those 125923
federal funds.125924

       Section 247.10. COS STATE BOARD OF COSMETOLOGY125925

General Services Fund Group125926

4K90 879609 Operating Expenses $ 3,474,030 $ 3,474,030 125927
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund 125928
Group $ 3,474,030 $ 3,474,030 125929
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 3,474,030 $ 3,474,030 125930


       Section 249.10. CSW COUNSELOR, SOCIAL WORKER, AND MARRIAGE 125932
AND FAMILY THERAPIST BOARD125933

General Services Fund Group125934

4K90 899609 Operating Expenses $ 1,265,856 $ 1,281,478 125935
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund 125936
Group $ 1,265,856 $ 1,281,478 125937
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 1,265,856 $ 1,281,478 125938


       Section 251.10. CLA COURT OF CLAIMS125940

General Revenue Fund125941

GRF 015321 Operating Expenses $ 2,501,052 $ 2,501,052 125942
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 2,501,052 $ 2,501,052 125943

State Special Revenue Fund Group125944

5K20 015603 CLA Victims of Crime $ 415,556 $ 415,953 125945
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 125946
Fund Group $ 415,556 $ 415,953 125947
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 2,916,608 $ 2,917,005 125948


       Section 253.10. DEN STATE DENTAL BOARD125950

General Services Fund Group125951

4K90 880609 Operating Expenses $ 1,566,484 $ 1,566,484 125952
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund 125953
Group $ 1,566,484 $ 1,566,484 125954
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 1,566,484 $ 1,566,484 125955


       Section 255.10. BDP BOARD OF DEPOSIT125957

General Services Fund Group125958

4M20 974601 Board of Deposit $ 1,876,000 $ 1,876,000 125959
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund 125960
Group $ 1,876,000 $ 1,876,000 125961
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 1,876,000 $ 1,876,000 125962

       BOARD OF DEPOSIT EXPENSE FUND125963

       Upon receiving certification of expenses from the Treasurer 125964
of State, the Director of Budget and Management shall transfer 125965
cash from the Investment Earnings Redistribution Fund (Fund 6080) 125966
to the Board of Deposit Expense Fund (Fund 4M20). The latter fund 125967
shall be used pursuant to section 135.02 of the Revised Code to 125968
pay for any and all necessary expenses of the Board of Deposit or 125969
for banking charges and fees required for the operation of the 125970
State of Ohio Regular Account.125971

       Section 257.10. DEV DEVELOPMENT SERVICES AGENCY125972

General Revenue Fund125973

GRF 195402 Coal Research Operating $ 261,205 $ 261,405 125974
GRF 195405 Minority Business Development $ 1,693,691 $ 1,693,691 125975
GRF 195407 Travel and Tourism $ 1,300,000 $ 0 125976
GRF 195415 Business Development Services $ 2,413,387 $ 2,413,387 125977
GRF 195426 Redevelopment Assistance $ 468,365 $ 468,365 125978
GRF 195497 CDBG Operating Match $ 1,015,000 $ 1,015,000 125979
GRF 195501 Appalachian Local Development Districts $ 440,000 $ 440,000 125980
GRF 195532 Technology Programs and Grants $ 13,547,341 $ 13,547,341 125981
GRF 195533 Business Assistance $ 4,205,774 $ 4,205,774 125982
GRF 195535 Appalachia Assistance $ 3,846,482 $ 3,846,482 125983
GRF 195537 Ohio-Israel Agricultural Initiative $ 150,000 $ 150,000 125984
GRF 195901 Coal Research & Development General Obligation Debt Service $ 2,858,900 $ 4,327,200 125985
GRF 195905 Third Frontier Research & Development General Obligation Debt Service $ 66,511,600 $ 83,783,000 125986
GRF 195912 Job Ready Site Development General Obligation Debt Service $ 15,498,400 $ 19,124,500 125987
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 114,210,145 $ 135,276,145 125988

General Services Fund Group125989

1350 195684 Development Services Operations $ 10,800,000 $ 10,800,000 125990
4W10 195646 Minority Business Enterprise Loan $ 2,500,000 $ 2,500,000 125991
5KN0 195640 Local Government Innovation $ 19,130,986 $ 20,000,000 125992
5MB0 195623 Business Incentive Grants $ 15,000,000 $ 0 125993
5MK0 195600 Vacant Facilities Grant $ 1,000,000 $ 1,000,000 125994
5W50 195690 Travel and Tourism Cooperative Projects $ 150,000 $ 150,000 125995
6850 195636 Development Services Reimbursable Expenditures $ 700,000 $ 700,000 125996
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund 125997
Group $ 49,280,986 $ 35,150,000 125998

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group125999

3080 195602 Appalachian Regional Commission $ 475,000 $ 475,000 126000
3080 195603 Housing Assistance Programs $ 10,000,000 $ 10,000,000 126001
3080 195609 Small Business Administration Grants $ 5,271,381 $ 5,271,381 126002
3080 195618 Energy Grants $ 9,307,779 $ 4,109,193 126003
3080 195670 Home Weatherization Program $ 17,000,000 $ 17,000,000 126004
3080 195671 Brownfield Redevelopment $ 5,000,000 $ 5,000,000 126005
3080 195672 Manufacturing Extension Partnership $ 5,359,305 $ 5,359,305 126006
3080 195675 Procurement Technical Assistance $ 600,000 $ 600,000 126007
3080 195681 SBDC Disability Consulting $ 1,300,000 $ 1,300,000 126008
3350 195610 Energy Programs $ 200,000 $ 200,000 126009
3AE0 195643 Workforce Development Initiatives $ 1,800,000 $ 1,800,000 126010
3DB0 195642 Federal Stimulus - Energy Efficiency & Conservation Block Grants $ 38,152 $ 0 126011
3FJ0 195626 Small Business Capital Access and Collateral Enhancement Program $ 32,046,846 $ 5,655,326 126012
3FJ0 195661 Technology Targeted Investment Program $ 12,750,410 $ 2,250,072 126013
3K80 195613 Community Development Block Grant $ 65,000,000 $ 65,000,000 126014
3K90 195611 Home Energy Assistance Block Grant $ 172,000,000 $ 172,000,000 126015
3K90 195614 HEAP Weatherization $ 22,000,000 $ 22,000,000 126016
3L00 195612 Community Services Block Grant $ 27,240,217 $ 27,240,217 126017
3V10 195601 HOME Program $ 30,000,000 $ 30,000,000 126018
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 126019
Fund Group $ 417,389,090 $ 375,260,494 126020

State Special Revenue Fund Group126021

4500 195624 Minority Business Bonding Program Administration $ 74,868 $ 74,905 126022
4510 195649 Business Assistance Programs $ 6,300,800 $ 6,700,800 126023
4F20 195639 State Special Projects $ 102,145 $ 102,104 126024
4F20 195699 Utility Community Assistance $ 500,000 $ 500,000 126025
5CG0 195679 Alternative Fuel Transportation $ 750,000 $ 750,000 126026
5HR0 195526 Incumbent Workforce Training Vouchers $ 30,000,000 $ 30,000,000 126027
5HR0 195622 Defense Development Assistance $ 5,000,000 $ 5,000,000 126028
5JR0 195635 Redevelopment Program Support $ 100,000 $ 100,000 126029
5KP0 195645 Historic Rehab Operating $ 650,000 $ 650,000 126030
5LU0 195673 Racetrack Facility Community Economic Redevelopment Fund $ 12,000,000 $ 0 126031
5M40 195659 Low Income Energy Assistance (USF) $ 350,000,000 $ 350,000,000 126032
5M50 195660 Advanced Energy Loan Programs $ 8,000,000 $ 8,000,000 126033
5MH0 195644 SiteOhio Administration $ 100,000 $ 100,000 126034
5MJ0 195683 TourismOhio Administration $ 7,000,000 $ 8,000,000 126035
5W60 195691 International Trade Cooperative Projects $ 18,000 $ 18,000 126036
6170 195654 Volume Cap Administration $ 32,562 $ 32,562 126037
6460 195638 Low- and Moderate- Income Housing Trust Fund $ 53,000,000 $ 53,000,000 126038
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 126039
Fund Group $ 473,628,375 $ 463,028,371 126040

Facilities Establishment Fund Group126041

5S90 195628 Capital Access Loan Program $ 3,000,000 $ 3,000,000 126042
7009 195664 Innovation Ohio $ 15,000,000 $ 15,000,000 126043
7010 195665 Research and Development $ 22,000,000 $ 22,000,000 126044
7037 195615 Facilities Establishment $ 50,000,000 $ 50,000,000 126045
TOTAL 037 Facilities 126046
Establishment Fund Group $ 90,000,000 $ 90,000,000 126047

Clean Ohio Revitalization Fund126048

7003 195663 Clean Ohio Program $ 950,000 $ 950,000 126049
TOTAL 7003 Clean Ohio Revitalization Fund $ 950,000 $ 950,000 126050

Third Frontier Research & Development Fund Group126051

7011 195686 Third Frontier Operating $ 1,149,750 $ 1,149,750 126052
7011 195687 Third Frontier Research & Development Projects $ 90,850,250 $ 90,850,250 126053
7014 195620 Third Frontier Operating - Tax $ 1,700,000 $ 1,700,000 126054
7014 195692 Research & Development Taxable Bond Projects $ 38,300,000 $ 38,300,000 126055
TOTAL 011 Third Frontier Research & Development Fund Group $ 132,000,000 $ 132,000,000 126056

Job Ready Site Development Fund Group126057

7012 195688 Job Ready Site Development $ 800,000 $ 800,000 126058
TOTAL 012 Job Ready Site Development Fund Group $ 800,000 $ 800,000 126059

Tobacco Master Settlement Agreement Fund Group126060

M087 195435 Biomedical Research and Technology Transfer $ 1,896,595 $ 1,906,025 126061
TOTAL TSF Tobacco Master Settlement Agreement Fund Group $ 1,896,595 $ 1,906,025 126062
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 1,280,155,191 $ 1,234,371,035 126063


       Section 257.20. COAL RESEARCH OPERATING126065

       The foregoing appropriation item 195402, Coal Research 126066
Operating, shall be used for the operating expenses of the 126067
Community Services Division in support of the Ohio Coal 126068
Development Office.126069

       TRAVEL AND TOURISM126070

       The foregoing appropriation item 195407, Travel and Tourism, 126071
shall be used for marketing the state of Ohio as a tourism 126072
destination and to support administrative expenses and contracts 126073
necessary to market Ohio.126074

        BUSINESS DEVELOPMENT SERVICES126075

       The foregoing appropriation item 195415, Business Development 126076
Services, shall be used for the operating expenses of the Business 126077
Services Division and the regional economic development offices 126078
and for grants for cooperative economic development ventures.126079

       REDEVELOPMENT ASSISTANCE126080

        The foregoing appropriation item 195426, Redevelopment 126081
Assistance, shall be used to fund the costs of administering the 126082
Clean Ohio Revitalization program and other urban revitalization 126083
programs that may be implemented by the Development Services 126084
Agency.126085

       CDBG OPERATING MATCH126086

       The foregoing appropriation item 195497, CDBG Operating 126087
Match, shall be used as matching funds for grants from the United 126088
States Department of Housing and Urban Development pursuant to the 126089
Housing and Community Development Act of 1974 and regulations and 126090
policy guidelines for the programs pursuant thereto.126091

       APPALACHIAN LOCAL DEVELOPMENT DISTRICTS126092

       The foregoing appropriation item 195501, Appalachian Local 126093
Development Districts, shall be used to support four local 126094
development districts. Of the foregoing appropriation amount in 126095
each fiscal year, up to $135,000 shall be allocated to the Ohio 126096
Valley Regional Development Commission, up to $135,000 shall be 126097
allocated to the Ohio Mid-Eastern Government Association, up to 126098
$135,000 shall be allocated to the Buckeye Hills-Hocking Valley 126099
Regional Development District, and up to $35,000 shall be 126100
allocated to the Eastgate Regional Council of Governments. Local 126101
development districts receiving funding under this section shall 126102
use the funds for the implementation and administration of 126103
programs and duties under section 107.21 of the Revised Code.126104

       TECHNOLOGY PROGRAMS AND GRANTS126105

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 195532, Technology 126106
Programs and Grants, up to $547,341 in each fiscal year shall be 126107
used for operating expenses incurred in administering the Ohio 126108
Third Frontier pursuant to sections 184.10 to 184.20 of the 126109
Revised Code; and up to $13,000,000 in each fiscal year shall be 126110
used for the Thomas Edison Program pursuant to sections 122.28 to 126111
122.38 of the Revised Code, of which not less than $8,700,000 126112
shall be allocated for the Edison Center Network entities defined 126113
in division (C) of section 122.33 of the Revised Code, and not 126114
more than ten per cent shall be used for operating expenses 126115
incurred in administering the program.126116

       BUSINESS ASSISTANCE126117

        The foregoing appropriation item 195533, Business Assistance, 126118
may be used to provide a range of business assistance, including 126119
grants to local organizations to support economic development 126120
activities that promote minority business development, small 126121
business development, entrepreneurship, and exports of Ohio's 126122
goods and services. This appropriation item shall also be used as 126123
matching funds for grants from the United States Small Business 126124
Administration and other federal agencies, pursuant to Public Law 126125
No. 96-302 as amended by Public Law No. 98-395, and regulations 126126
and policy guidelines for the programs pursuant thereto.126127

       APPALACHIA ASSISTANCE126128

       The foregoing appropriation item 195535, Appalachia 126129
Assistance, may be used for the administrative costs of planning 126130
and liaison activities for the Governor's Office of Appalachia, to 126131
provide financial assistance to projects in Ohio's Appalachian 126132
counties, and to pay dues for the Appalachian Regional Commission. 126133
These funds may be used to match federal funds from the 126134
Appalachian Regional Commission.126135

       OHIO-ISRAEL AGRICULTURE INITIATIVE126136

        The foregoing appropriation item 195537, Ohio-Israel 126137
Agricultural Initiative, shall be used for the Ohio-Israel 126138
Agricultural Initiative.126139

       COAL RESEARCH AND DEVELOPMENT GENERAL OBLIGATION DEBT SERVICE126140

       The foregoing appropriation line item 195901, Coal Research 126141
and Development General Obligation Debt Service, shall be used to 126142
pay all debt service and related financing costs during the period 126143
July 1, 2013, through June 30, 2015 for obligations issued under 126144
sections 151.01 and 151.07 of the Revised Code.126145

       THIRD FRONTIER RESEARCH & DEVELOPMENT GENERAL OBLIGATION DEBT 126146
SERVICE126147

       The foregoing appropriation item 195905, Third Frontier 126148
Research & Development General Obligation Debt Service, shall be 126149
used to pay all debt service and related financing costs during 126150
the period from July 1, 2013, through June 30, 2015, on 126151
obligations issued for research and development purposes under 126152
sections 151.01 and 151.10 of the Revised Code.126153

       JOB READY SITE DEVELOPMENT GENERAL OBLIGATION DEBT SERVICE126154

       The foregoing appropriation item 195912, Job Ready Site 126155
Development General Obligation Debt Service, shall be used to pay 126156
all debt service and related financing costs during the period 126157
from July 1, 2013, through June 30, 2015, on obligations issued 126158
for job ready site development purposes under sections 151.01 and 126159
151.11 of the Revised Code.126160

       Section 257.30.  DEVELOPMENT SERVICES OPERATIONS126161

       The Director of Development Services may assess offices of 126162
the agency for the cost of central service operations. An 126163
assessment shall contain the characteristics of administrative 126164
ease and uniform application. A division's payments shall be 126165
credited to the Supportive Services Fund (Fund 1350) using an 126166
intrastate transfer voucher.126167

       LOCAL GOVERNMENT INNOVATION FUND126168

       On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 126169
Director of Budget and Management shall transfer $3,000,000 in 126170
cash from the General Revenue Fund to the Local Government 126171
Innovation Fund (Fund 5KN0). On July 1, 2014, or as soon as 126172
possible thereafter, the Director of Budget and Management shall 126173
transfer $4,000,000 in cash from the General Revenue Fund to the 126174
Local Government Innovation Fund (5KN0).126175

       The foregoing appropriation item 195640, Local Government 126176
Innovation, shall be used for the purposes of making loans and 126177
grants to political subdivisions under the Local Government 126178
Innovation Program in accordance with sections 189.01 to 189.10 of 126179
the Revised Code. Notwithstanding section 189.04 of the Revised 126180
Code, of the foregoing appropriation item 195640, Local Government 126181
Innovation, up to $3,000,000 in fiscal year 2014 and $4,000,000 in 126182
fiscal year 2015 shall be used for grants under the Local 126183
Government Innovation Program established in section 189.02 of the 126184
Revised Code, and up to $175,000 in each fiscal year shall be used 126185
for administrative costs incurred by the Development Services 126186
Agency.126187

       TRAVEL AND TOURISM COOPERATIVE PROJECTS126188

       The foregoing appropriation item 195690, Travel and Tourism 126189
Cooperative Projects, shall consist solely of leveraged private 126190
sector paid advertising dollars received in tourism marketing 126191
assistance and co-op programs. These funds are to be used for the 126192
marketing and promotion of travel and tourism in Ohio.126193

        DEVELOPMENT SERVICES REIMBURSABLE EXPENDITURES126194

       The foregoing appropriation item 195636, Development Services 126195
Reimbursable Expenditures, shall be used for reimbursable costs 126196
incurred by the agency. Revenues to the General Reimbursement Fund 126197
(Fund 6850) shall consist of moneys charged for administrative 126198
costs that are not central service costs.126199

       Section 257.40. WORKFORCE DEVELOPMENT INITIATIVES126200

        Of the foregoing appropriation item 195643, Workforce 126201
Development Initiatives, $500,000 in fiscal year 2014 shall be 126202
used to fund the Heavy Machinery Pilot Program at Central Ohio 126203
Technical College for tuition support and reimbursement to train 126204
approximately 30 students for careers in construction and the oil 126205
and gas industries in Eastern Ohio and statewide.126206

       HEAP WEATHERIZATION 126207

       Not less than fifteen per cent of the federal funds deposited 126208
to the credit of the Home Energy Assistance Block Grant Fund (Fund 126209
3K90) shall be expended from appropriation item 195614, HEAP 126210
Weatherization, to provide home weatherization services in the 126211
state as determined by the Director of Development Services. Any 126212
transfers or increases in appropriation for the foregoing 126213
appropriation items 195614, HEAP Weatherization, or 195611, Home 126214
Energy Assistance Block Grant, shall be subject to approval by the 126215
Controlling Board.126216

       Section 257.50. BUSINESS ASSISTANCE PROGRAMS126217

       The foregoing appropriation item 195649, Business Assistance 126218
Programs, shall be used for administrative expenses associated 126219
with the operation of tax credit programs, loan servicing, the 126220
Ohio Film Office, workforce initiatives, and the Office of 126221
Strategic Business Investments, and for payments to the JobsOhio 126222
corporation established in Chapter 187. of the Revised Code for 126223
services provided for the administration of the 166 Direct Loan 126224
Program, Ohio Enterprise Bond Fund, Research and Development Loan 126225
Program, and Innovation Ohio Loan Program.126226

        STATE SPECIAL PROJECTS126227

       The State Special Projects Fund (Fund 4F20), may be used for 126228
the deposit of private-sector funds from utility companies and for 126229
the deposit of other miscellaneous state funds. State moneys so 126230
deposited may also be used to match federal housing grants for the 126231
homeless. 126232

       MINORITY BUSINESS ENTERPRISE LOAN126233

       All repayments from the Minority Development Financing 126234
Advisory Board Loan Program and the Ohio Mini-Loan Guarantee 126235
Program shall be deposited in the State Treasury to the credit of 126236
the Minority Business Enterprise Loan Fund (Fund 4W10).126237

       MINORITY BUSINESS BONDING FUND126238

       Notwithstanding Chapters 122., 169., and 175. of the Revised 126239
Code, the Director of Development Services may, upon the 126240
recommendation of the Minority Development Financing Advisory 126241
Board, pledge up to $10,000,000 in the fiscal year 2014-fiscal 126242
year 2015 biennium of unclaimed funds administered by the Director 126243
of Commerce and allocated to the Minority Business Bonding Program 126244
under section 169.05 of the Revised Code.126245

       If needed for the payment of losses arising from the Minority 126246
Business Bonding Program, the Director of Budget and Management 126247
may, at the request of the Director of Development Services, 126248
request that the Director of Commerce transfer unclaimed funds 126249
that have been reported by holders of unclaimed funds under 126250
section 169.05 of the Revised Code to the Minority Bonding Fund 126251
(Fund 4490). The transfer of unclaimed funds shall only occur 126252
after proceeds of the initial transfer of $2,700,000 by the 126253
Controlling Board to the Minority Business Bonding Program have 126254
been used for that purpose. If expenditures are required for 126255
payment of losses arising from the Minority Business Bonding 126256
Program, such expenditures shall be made from appropriation item 126257
195658, Minority Business Bonding Contingency in the Minority 126258
Business Bonding Fund, and such amounts are hereby appropriated.126259

        INCUMBENT WORKFORCE TRAINING VOUCHERS126260

       (A) The Director of Budget and Management may transfer up to 126261
$30,000,000 cash in each fiscal year from the Economic Development 126262
Programs Fund (Fund 5JC0) used by the Board of Regents to the Ohio 126263
Incumbent Workforce Job Training Fund (Fund 5HR0) used by the 126264
Development Services Agency.126265

        (B) Of the foregoing appropriation item 195526, Incumbent 126266
Workforce Training Vouchers, up to $30,000,000 in each fiscal year 126267
shall be used to support the Ohio Incumbent Workforce Training 126268
Voucher Program. 126269

        (C) The Ohio Incumbent Workforce Training Voucher Program 126270
shall conform to guidelines for the operation of the program, 126271
including, but not limited to, the following:126272

        (1) A requirement that a training voucher under the program 126273
shall not exceed $6,000 per worker per year;126274

       (2) A provision for an employer of an eligible employee to 126275
apply for a voucher on behalf of the eligible employee;126276

        (3) A provision for an eligible employee to apply directly 126277
for a training voucher with the pre-approval of the employee's 126278
employer; and126279

        (4) A requirement that an employee participating in the 126280
program, or the employee's employer, shall pay for not less than 126281
thirty-three per cent of the training costs under the program.126282

       On July 1, 2014, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 126283
Director of Development Services may request that the Director of 126284
Budget and Management reappropriate any unexpended, unencumbered 126285
balance of the prior fiscal year's appropriation to the foregoing 126286
appropriation item 195526, Incumbent Workforce Training Vouchers, 126287
for fiscal year 2015. The Director of Budget and Management may 126288
request additional information necessary for evaluating the 126289
request, and the Director of Development Services shall provide 126290
the requested information to the Director of Budget and 126291
Management. Based on the information provided by the Director of 126292
Development Services, the Director of Budget and Management shall 126293
determine the amount to be reappropriated, and those amounts are 126294
hereby reappropriated for fiscal year 2015.126295

       DEFENSE DEVELOPMENT ASSISTANCE126296

       The Director of Budget and Management may transfer up to 126297
$5,000,000 in cash in each fiscal year from the Economic 126298
Development Programs Fund (Fund 5JC0) used by the Board of Regents 126299
to the Ohio Incumbent Workforce Job Training Fund (Fund 5HR0) used 126300
by the Development Services Agency. The transferred funds shall be 126301
used for appropriation item 195622, Defense Development 126302
Assistance, for economic development programs and the creation of 126303
new jobs to leverage and support mission gains at Department of 126304
Defense facilities in Ohio by working with future base realignment 126305
and closure activities and ongoing Department of Defense 126306
efficiency initiatives, assisting efforts to secure Department of 126307
Defense support contracts for Ohio companies, assessing and 126308
supporting regional job training and workforce development needs 126309
generated by the Department of Defense and the Ohio aerospace 126310
industry, and for expanding job training and economic development 126311
programs in human performance related initiatives. A portion of 126312
these funds shall be matched by private industry partners or the 126313
Department of Defense.126314

       On July 1, 2014, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 126315
Director of Development Services may request that the Director of 126316
Budget and Management reappropriate any unexpended, unencumbered 126317
balance of the prior fiscal year's appropriation to the foregoing 126318
appropriation item 195622, Defense Development Assistance, for 126319
fiscal year 2015. The Director of Budget and Management may 126320
request additional information necessary for evaluating the 126321
request, and the Director of Development Services shall provide 126322
the requested information to the Director of Budget and 126323
Management. Based on the information provided by the Director of 126324
Development Services, the Director of Budget and Management shall 126325
determine the amount to be reappropriated, and those amounts are 126326
hereby reappropriated for fiscal year 2015. 126327

        ADVANCED ENERGY LOAN PROGRAMS126328

       The foregoing appropriation item 195660, Advanced Energy Loan 126329
Programs, shall be used to provide financial assistance to 126330
customers for eligible advanced energy projects for residential, 126331
commercial, and industrial business, local government, educational 126332
institution, nonprofit, and agriculture customers, and to pay for 126333
the program's administrative costs as provided in sections 4928.61 126334
to 4928.63 of the Revised Code and rules adopted by the Director 126335
of Development Services.126336

       VOLUME CAP ADMINISTRATION126337

       The foregoing appropriation item 195654, Volume Cap 126338
Administration, shall be used for expenses related to the 126339
administration of the Volume Cap Program. Revenues received by the 126340
Volume Cap Administration Fund (Fund 6170) shall consist of 126341
application fees, forfeited deposits, and interest earned from the 126342
custodial account held by the Treasurer of State.126343

       Section 257.60.  CAPITAL ACCESS LOAN PROGRAM126344

       The foregoing appropriation item 195628, Capital Access Loan 126345
Program, shall be used for operating, program, and administrative 126346
expenses of the program. Funds of the Capital Access Loan Program 126347
shall be used to assist participating financial institutions in 126348
making program loans to eligible businesses that face barriers in 126349
accessing working capital and obtaining fixed-asset financing.126350

       INNOVATION OHIO LOAN FUND126351

        The foregoing appropriation item 195664, Innovation Ohio, 126352
shall be used to provide for Innovation Ohio purposes, including 126353
loan guarantees and loans under Chapter 166. and particularly 126354
sections 166.12 to 166.16 of the Revised Code.126355

       RESEARCH AND DEVELOPMENT126356

       The foregoing appropriation item 195665, Research and 126357
Development, shall be used to provide for research and development 126358
purposes, including loans, under Chapter 166. and particularly 126359
sections 166.17 to 166.21 of the Revised Code.126360

       FACILITIES ESTABLISHMENT 126361

       The foregoing appropriation item 195615, Facilities 126362
Establishment, shall be used for the purposes of the Facilities 126363
Establishment Fund (Fund 7037) under Chapter 166. of the Revised 126364
Code.126365

       Notwithstanding Chapter 166. of the Revised Code, an amount 126366
not to exceed $3,000,000 in cash in each fiscal year may be 126367
transferred from the Facilities Establishment Fund (Fund 7037) to 126368
the Business Assistance Fund (Fund 4510). The transfer is subject 126369
to Controlling Board approval under division (B) of section 166.03 126370
of the Revised Code.126371

        Notwithstanding Chapter 166. of the Revised Code, the 126372
Director of Budget and Management may transfer an amount not to 126373
exceed $1,000,000 in cash in each fiscal year from the Facilities 126374
Establishment Fund (Fund 7037) to the Minority Business Enterprise 126375
Loan Fund (Fund 4W10).126376

       Notwithstanding Chapter 166. of the Revised Code, the 126377
Director of Budget and Management may transfer an amount not to 126378
exceed $2,000,000 in cash in each fiscal year from the Facilities 126379
Establishment Fund (Fund 7037) to the Capital Access Loan Fund 126380
(Fund 5S90).126381

       Section 257.70. CLEAN OHIO OPERATING EXPENSES126382

       The foregoing appropriation item 195663, Clean Ohio Program, 126383
shall be used by the Development Services Agency in administering 126384
Clean Ohio Revitalization Fund (Fund 7003) projects pursuant to 126385
sections 122.65 to 122.658 of the Revised Code.126386

       Section 257.80.  THIRD FRONTIER OPERATING126387

       The foregoing appropriation items 195686, Third Frontier 126388
Operating, and 195620, Third Frontier Operating - Tax, shall be 126389
used for operating expenses incurred by the Development Services 126390
Agency in administering projects pursuant to sections 184.10 to 126391
184.20 of the Revised Code. Operating expenses paid from item 126392
195686 shall be limited to the administration of projects funded 126393
from the Third Frontier Research & Development Fund (Fund 7011) 126394
and operating expenses paid from item 195620 shall be limited to 126395
the administration of projects funded from the Third Frontier 126396
Research & Development Taxable Bond Project Fund (Fund 7014).126397

       THIRD FRONTIER RESEARCH AND DEVELOPMENT PROJECTS AND RESEARCH 126398
AND DEVELOPMENT TAXABLE BOND PROJECTS126399

        The foregoing appropriation items 195687, Third Frontier 126400
Research & Development Projects, 195692, Research & Development 126401
Taxable Bond Projects, and 195620, Third Frontier Operating - Tax, 126402
shall be used by the Development Services Agency to fund selected 126403
projects. Eligible costs are those costs of research and 126404
development projects to which the proceeds of the Third Frontier 126405
Research & Development Fund (Fund 7011) and the Research & 126406
Development Taxable Bond Project Fund (Fund 7014) are to be 126407
applied.126408

        TRANSFERS OF THIRD FRONTIER APPROPRIATIONS126409

        The Director of Budget and Management may approve written 126410
requests from the Director of Development Services for the 126411
transfer of appropriations between appropriation items 195687, 126412
Third Frontier Research & Development Projects, and 195692, 126413
Research & Development Taxable Bond Projects, based upon awards 126414
recommended by the Third Frontier Commission. The transfers are 126415
subject to approval by the Controlling Board.126416

       In fiscal year 2015, the Director of Development Services may 126417
request that the Director of Budget and Management reappropriate 126418
any unexpended, unencumbered balances of the prior fiscal year's 126419
appropriation to the foregoing appropriation items 195687, Third 126420
Frontier Research & Development Projects, and 195692, Research & 126421
Development Taxable Bond Projects, for fiscal year 2015. The 126422
Director of Budget and Management may request additional 126423
information necessary for evaluating these requests, and the 126424
Director of Development Services shall provide the requested 126425
information to the Director of Budget and Management. Based on the 126426
information provided by the Director of Development Services, the 126427
Director of Budget and Management shall determine the amounts to 126428
be reappropriated, and those amounts are hereby reappropriated for 126429
fiscal year 2015.126430

        AUTHORITY TO ISSUE AND SELL ORIGINAL OBLIGATIONS126431

        The Ohio Public Facilities Commission is hereby authorized to 126432
issue and sell, in accordance with Section 2p of Article VIII, 126433
Ohio Constitution, and particularly sections 151.01 and 151.10 of 126434
the Revised Code, original obligations of the State of Ohio in an 126435
aggregate amount not to exceed $350,000,000 in addition to the 126436
original issuance of obligations authorized by prior acts of the 126437
General Assembly. The authorized obligations shall be issued and 126438
sold from time to time and in amounts necessary to ensure 126439
sufficient moneys to the credit of the Third Frontier Research and 126440
Development Fund (Fund 7011) and the Third Frontier Research and 126441
Development Taxable Bond Fund (Fund 7014) to pay costs of research 126442
and development projects.126443

       Section 257.90. JOB READY SITE PROGRAM126444

       The foregoing appropriation item 195688, Job Ready Site 126445
Development, shall be used for operating expenses incurred by the 126446
Development Services Agency in administering Job Ready Site 126447
Development Fund (Fund 7012) projects pursuant to sections 122.085 126448
to 122.0820 of the Revised Code. Operating expenses include, but 126449
are not limited to, certain qualified expenses of the District 126450
Public Works Integrating Committees, as applicable, engineering 126451
review of submitted applications by the State Architect or a 126452
third-party engineering firm, audit and accountability activities, 126453
and costs associated with formal certifications verifying that 126454
site infrastructure is in place and is functional.126455

       Section 257.110.  (A) ASSORTED TRANSFERS FOR RESTRUCTURING126456

       On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 126457
Director of Budget and Management may transfer up to the cash 126458
balances in the Tax Incentive Program Operating Fund (Fund 4S00) 126459
and the Tax Credit Operating Fund (Fund 4S10) to the Business 126460
Assistance Fund (Fund 4510).126461

        On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 126462
Director of Budget and Management may transfer up to the cash 126463
balances in the Family Farm Loan Fund (Fund 5H10) and the First 126464
Frontier Fund (Fund 4H40) to the Facility Establishment Fund (Fund 126465
7037).126466

        On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 126467
Director of Budget and Management may transfer up to the cash 126468
balance in the Brownfield Stormwater Loan Fund (Fund 5KD0) to the 126469
New Markets Tax Credit Program Fund (Fund 5JR0).126470

        On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 126471
Director of Budget and Management may transfer up to the cash 126472
balances in the Water and Sewer Fund (Fund 4440) and the Water and 126473
Sewer Administrative Fund (Fund 6110) to the General 126474
Reimbursements Fund (Fund 6850).126475

        On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 126476
Director of Budget and Management may transfer up to the cash 126477
balance in the Local Government Services Collaboration Grant Fund 126478
(Fund 7088) to the Local Government Innovation Fund (Fund 5KN0).126479

        (B) ABOLISHMENT OF FUNDS126480

        On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, upon 126481
completion of a transfer of the cash balance in a fund as 126482
described in division (A) of this section by the Director of 126483
Budget and Management, notwithstanding the establishment authority 126484
of the fund, the fund is hereby abolished.126485

       On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 126486
Director of Budget and Management shall transfer the cash balance 126487
in the Exempt Facility Inspection Fund (Fund 5X10) to the Advanced 126488
Energy Fund (Fund 5M50). After completion of the transfer and on 126489
the effective date of its repeal by this act, Fund 5X10 shall be 126490
abolished.126491

       On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 126492
Director of Budget and Management shall transfer the cash balance 126493
in the Rapid Outreach Loan Fund (Fund 7022) to the Facilities 126494
Establishment Fund (Fund 7037). After completion of the transfer 126495
and on the effective date of its repeal by this act, Fund 7022 126496
shall be abolished.126497

       The following funds, which, like Funds 5HJ0, 5X10, and 7022, 126498
were created in the Revised Code, are determined to be dormant and 126499
shall be abolished on the effective date of their repeal by this 126500
act: Diesel Emissions Grant Fund (Fund 3BD0), Shovel Ready Sites 126501
Fund (Fund 5CA0), Energy Projects Fund (Fund 5DU0), Business 126502
Development and Assistance Fund (Fund 5LK0), Clean Ohio 126503
Revitalization Revolving Loan Fund (Fund 7007), and Logistics & 126504
Distribution Infrastructure Taxable Bond Fund (Fund 7048).126505

       (C) ELIMINATION OF DORMANT FUNDS126506

       On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 126507
Director of Budget and Management may determine whether the 126508
following funds are dormant. If the Director of Budget and 126509
Management determines a fund to be dormant, notwithstanding the 126510
establishment authority of the fund, the fund is hereby abolished. 126511
The funds are: 126512

Fund Number Fund Name 126513
1360 International Trade 126514
3800 Ohio Housing Agency 126515
3BJ0 TANF Heating Assistance 126516
3X30 TANF Housing 126517
4450 OHFA Administration 126518
4480 Ohio Coal Development 126519
4D00 Public & Private Assistance 126520
5CV0 Defense Conversion Assistance 126521
5D10 Port Authority Bond Reserves 126522
5D20 Urban Redevelopment Loan 126523
5F70 Local Government Y2K Loan Program 126524
5X50 Family Homelessness Prevention Pilot 126525
5Y60 Economic Development Contingency 126526
5Z30 Jobs 126527
QA70 Electric Revenue Development 126528

       Section 259.10. DDD DEPARTMENT OF DEVELOPMENTAL DISABILITIES126529

General Revenue Fund126530

GRF 320412 Protective Services $ 1,918,196 $ 1,918,196 126531
GRF 320415 Lease-Rental Payments $ 15,843,300 $ 16,076,700 126532
GRF 322420 Screening and Early Intervention $ 300,000 $ 300,000 126533
GRF 322451 Family Support Services $ 5,932,758 $ 5,932,758 126534
GRF 322501 County Boards Subsidies $ 44,449,280 $ 44,449,280 126535
GRF 322503 Tax Equity $ 14,000,000 $ 14,000,000 126536
GRF 322507 County Board Case Management $ 2,500,000 $ 2,500,000 126537
GRF 322508 Employment First Pilot Program $ 3,000,000 $ 3,000,000 126538
GRF 653321 Medicaid Program Support - State $ 6,186,694 $ 6,186,694 126539
GRF 653407 Medicaid Services $ 430,056,111 $ 435,574,237 126540
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 524,186,339 $ 529,937,865 126541

General Services Fund Group126542

1520 653609 DC and Residential Operating Services $ 3,414,317 $ 3,414,317 126543
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 3,414,317 $ 3,414,317 126544

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group126545

3A50 320613 DD Council $ 3,297,656 $ 3,324,187 126546
3250 322612 Community Social Service Programs $ 10,604,896 $ 10,604,896 126547
3A40 653604 DC & ICF/MR Program Support $ 8,013,611 $ 8,013,611 126548
3A40 653605 DC and Residential Services and Support $ 159,548,565 159,548,565 126549
3A40 653653 ICF/MR $ 354,712,840 $ 353,895,717 126550
3G60 653639 Medicaid Waiver Services $ 932,073,249 $ 1,022,485,423 126551
3G60 653640 Medicaid Waiver Program Support $ 36,934,303 $ 36,170,872 126552
3M70 653650 CAFS Medicaid $ 3,000,000 $ 3,000,000 126553
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue Fund Group $ 1,508,185,120 $ 1,597,043,271 126554

State Special Revenue Fund Group126555

5GE0 320606 Operating and Services $ 7,407,297 $ 7,407,297 126556
2210 322620 Supplement Service Trust $ 150,000 $ 150,000 126557
5DJ0 322625 Targeted Case Management Match $ 33,750,000 $ 37,260,000 126558
5DK0 322629 Capital Replacement Facilities $ 750,000 $ 750,000 126559
5H00 322619 Medicaid Repayment $ 160,000 $ 160,000 126560
5JX0 322651 Interagency Workgroup - Autism $ 45,000 45,000 126561
4890 653632 DC Direct Care Services $ 16,497,169 $ 16,497,169 126562
5CT0 653607 Intensive Behavioral Needs $ 1,000,000 $ 1,000,000 126563
5DJ0 653626 Targeted Case Management Services $ 91,740,000 $ 100,910,000 126564
5EV0 653627 Medicaid Program Support $ 685,000 $ 685,000 126565
5GE0 653606 ICF/MR and Waiver Match $ 40,353,139 $ 39,106,638 126566
5S20 653622 Medicaid Admin and Oversight $ 17,341,201 $ 19,032,154 126567
5Z10 653624 County Board Waiver Match $ 284,740,000 $ 336,480,000 126568
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue Fund Group $ 494,618,806 $ 559,483,258 126569
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 2,530,404,582 $ 2,689,878,711 126570


       Section 259.20. LEASE-RENTAL PAYMENTS126572

       The foregoing appropriation item 320415, Lease-Rental 126573
Payments, shall be used to meet all payments at the times they are 126574
required to be made during the period from July 1, 2013, through 126575
June 30, 2015, by the Department of Developmental Disabilities 126576
under leases and agreements made under section 154.20 of the 126577
Revised Code. These appropriations are the source of funds pledged 126578
for bond service charges on related obligations issued under 126579
Chapter 154. of the Revised Code.126580

       Section 259.30. SCREENING AND EARLY INTERVENTION126581

       The foregoing appropriation item 322420, Screening and Early 126582
Intervention, shall be used for screening and early intervention 126583
programs for children with autism selected by the Director of 126584
Developmental Disabilities.126585

       Section 259.40.  FAMILY SUPPORT SERVICES SUBSIDY126586

        The foregoing appropriation item 322451, Family Support 126587
Services, may be used as follows in fiscal year 2014 and fiscal 126588
year 2015:126589

       (A) The appropriation item may be used to provide a subsidy 126590
to county boards of developmental disabilities for family support 126591
services provided under section 5126.11 of the Revised Code. The 126592
subsidy shall be paid in quarterly installments and allocated to 126593
county boards according to a formula the Director of Developmental 126594
Disabilities shall develop in consultation with representatives of 126595
county boards. A county board shall use not more than seven per 126596
cent of its subsidy for administrative costs.126597

       (B) The appropriation item may be used to distribute funds to 126598
county boards for the purpose of addressing economic hardships and 126599
to promote efficiency of operations. In consultation with 126600
representatives of county boards, the Director shall determine the 126601
amount of funds to distribute for these purposes and the criteria 126602
for distributing the funds.126603

       Section 259.50. STATE SUBSIDY TO COUNTY DD BOARDS126604

       (A) Except as provided in the section of this act titled 126605
"NONFEDERAL SHARE OF ICF/MR SERVICES," the foregoing appropriation 126606
item 322501, County Boards Subsidies, shall be used for the 126607
following purposes:126608

       (1) To provide a subsidy to county boards of developmental 126609
disabilities in quarterly installments and allocated according to 126610
a formula developed by the Director of Developmental Disabilities 126611
in consultation with representatives of county boards. Except as 126612
provided in section 5126.0511 of the Revised Code or in division 126613
(B) of this section, county boards shall use the subsidy for early 126614
childhood services and adult services provided under section 126615
5126.05 of the Revised Code, service and support administration 126616
provided under section 5126.15 of the Revised Code, or supported 126617
living as defined in section 5126.01 of the Revised Code.126618

       (2) To provide funding, as determined necessary by the 126619
Director, for residential services, including room and board, and 126620
support service programs that enable individuals with 126621
developmental disabilities to live in the community.126622

       (3) To distribute funds to county boards of developmental 126623
disabilities to address economic hardships and promote efficiency 126624
of operations. The Director shall determine, in consultation with 126625
representatives of county boards, the amount of funds to 126626
distribute for these purposes and the criteria for distributing 126627
the funds.126628

       (B) In collaboration with the county's family and children 126629
first council, a county board of developmental disabilities may 126630
transfer portions of funds received under this section, to a 126631
flexible funding pool in accordance with the section of this act 126632
titled "FAMILY AND CHILDREN FIRST FLEXIBLE FUNDING POOL." 126633

       Section 259.60. COUNTY BOARD SHARE OF WAIVER SERVICES126634

        As used in this section, "home and community-based services" 126635
has the same meaning as in section 5123.01 of the Revised Code.126636

        The Director of Developmental Disabilities shall establish a 126637
methodology to be used in fiscal year 2014 and fiscal year 2015 to 126638
estimate the quarterly amount each county board of developmental 126639
disabilities is to pay of the nonfederal share of home and 126640
community-based services that section 5126.0510 of the Revised 126641
Code requires county boards to pay. Each quarter, the Director 126642
shall submit to a county board written notice of the amount the 126643
county board is to pay for that quarter. The notice shall specify 126644
when the payment is due.126645

       Section 259.70. TAX EQUITY126646

       Notwithstanding section 5126.18 of the Revised Code, the 126647
foregoing appropriation item 322503, Tax Equity, may be used to 126648
distribute funds to county boards of developmental disabilities to 126649
address economic hardships and promote efficiency of operations. 126650
The Director of Developmental Disabilities shall determine, in 126651
consultation with representatives of county boards, the amount of 126652
funds to distribute for these purposes and the criteria for 126653
distributing the funds.126654

       Section 259.80. MEDICAID SERVICES126655

       Except as provided in section 5123.0416 of the Revised Code, 126656
the purposes for which the foregoing appropriation item 653407, 126657
Medicaid Services, shall be used include the following:126658

       (A) Home and community-based services, as defined in section 126659
5123.01 of the Revised Code;126660

       (B) Implementation of the requirements of the agreement 126661
settling the consent decree in Sermak v. Manuel, Case No. 126662
C-2-80-220, United States District Court for the Southern District 126663
of Ohio, Eastern Division;126664

       (C) Implementation of the requirements of the agreement 126665
settling the consent decree in the Martin v. Strickland, Case No. 126666
89-CV-00362, United States District Court for the Southern 126667
District of Ohio, Eastern Division;126668

       (D) ICF/MR services, as defined in section 5124.01 of the 126669
Revised Code;126670

       (E) Other programs as identified by the Director of 126671
Developmental Disabilities. 126672

       Section 259.90.  EMPLOYMENT FIRST PILOT PROGRAM126673

       The foregoing appropriation item 322508, Employment First 126674
Pilot Program, shall be used to increase employment opportunities 126675
for individuals with developmental disabilities through the 126676
Employment First Initiative in accordance with section 5123.022 of 126677
the Revised Code.126678

       Of the foregoing appropriation item, 322508, Employment First 126679
Pilot Program, the Director of Developmental Disabilities shall 126680
transfer, in each fiscal year, to the Rehabilitation Services 126681
Commission an amount agreed upon by the Director of Developmental 126682
Disabilities and the Administrator of the Rehabilitation Services 126683
Commission. The transfer shall be made via an intrastate transfer 126684
voucher. The transferred funds shall be used to support the 126685
Employment First Pilot Program. The Rehabilitation Services 126686
Commission shall use the funds transferred as state matching funds 126687
to obtain available federal grant dollars for vocational 126688
rehabilitation services. Any federal match dollars received by the 126689
Rehabilitation Services Commission shall be used for the pilot 126690
program. The Director of Developmental Disabilities and the 126691
Administrator of the Rehabilitation Services Commission shall 126692
enter into an interagency agreement in accordance with section 126693
3304.181 of the Revised Code that will specify the 126694
responsibilities of each agency under the pilot program. Under the 126695
interagency agreement, the Rehabilitation Services Commission 126696
shall retain responsibility for eligibility determination, order 126697
of selection, plan approval, plan amendment, and release of vendor 126698
payments.126699

       The remainder of appropriation item 322508, Employment First 126700
Pilot Program, shall be used to develop a long term, sustainable 126701
system that places individuals with developmental disabilities in 126702
community employment, as defined in section 5126.01 of the Revised 126703
Code. 126704

       Section 259.100.  EMPLOYMENT FIRST TASKFORCE FUND126705

       If an employment first task force is established by the 126706
Director of Developmental Disabilities in accordance with section 126707
5123.023 of the Revised Code, the Director of Budget and 126708
Management shall establish an appropriation item from the 126709
Employment First Taskforce Fund for use by the Department of 126710
Developmental Disabilities to support the work of the task force. 126711
In fiscal year 2014 and fiscal year 2015, if an employment first 126712
task force is established, the Director of Developmental 126713
Disabilities shall certify to the Director of Budget and 126714
Management the appropriation amounts necessary for the Department 126715
of Developmental Disabilities to fulfill its obligation to support 126716
the work of the task force. Once the certification required under 126717
this section has been submitted and approved by the Director of 126718
Budget and Management, the appropriations established under this 126719
section are hereby appropriated in the amounts approved by the 126720
Director of Budget and Management. 126721

       Section 259.110. TRANSFER TO OPERATING AND SERVICES FUND126722

       On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 126723
Director of Developmental Disabilities shall request the Director 126724
of Budget and Management to transfer the cash balance in the Home 126725
and Community-Based Services Fund (Fund 4K80) to the Operating and 126726
Services Fund (Fund 5GE0). Upon completion of the transfer, Fund 126727
4K80 is hereby abolished. The Director of Budget and Management 126728
shall cancel any existing encumbrances against appropriation item 126729
322604, Medicaid Waiver – State Match, and reestablish them 126730
against appropriation item 653606, ICF/MR and Waiver Match. The 126731
reestablished encumbrance amounts are hereby appropriated.126732

       Section 259.120. OPERATING AND SERVICES126733

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 320606, Operating and 126734
Services, $100,000 in each fiscal year shall be provided to the 126735
Ohio Center for Autism and Low Incidence to establish a lifespan 126736
autism hub to support families and professionals.126737

       Section 259.130. TARGETED CASE MANAGEMENT SERVICES126738

       County boards of developmental disabilities shall pay the 126739
nonfederal portion of targeted case management costs to the 126740
Department of Developmental Disabilities.126741

       The Director of Developmental Disabilities and the Medicaid 126742
Director may enter into an interagency agreement under which the 126743
Department of Developmental Disabilities shall transfer cash from 126744
the Targeted Case Management Fund (Fund 5DJ0) to the Health 126745
Care/Medicaid Support and Recoveries Fund (Fund 5DL0) used by the 126746
Department of Medicaid in an amount equal to the nonfederal 126747
portion of the cost of targeted case management services paid by 126748
county boards. Under the agreement, the Department of Medicaid 126749
shall pay the total cost of targeted case management claims. The 126750
transfer shall be made using an intrastate transfer voucher.126751

       Section 259.140.  WITHHOLDING OF FUNDS OWED THE DEPARTMENT126752

       If a county board of developmental disabilities does not 126753
fully pay any amount owed to the Department of Developmental 126754
Disabilities by the due date established by the Department, the 126755
Director of Developmental Disabilities may withhold the amount the 126756
county board did not pay from any amounts due to the county board. 126757
The Director may use any appropriation item or fund used by the 126758
Department to transfer cash to any other fund used by the 126759
Department in an amount equal to the amount owed the Department 126760
that the county board did not pay. Transfers under this section 126761
shall be made using an intrastate transfer voucher. 126762

       Section 259.150. DEVELOPMENTAL CENTER BILLING FOR SERVICES126763

       Developmental centers of the Department of Developmental 126764
Disabilities may provide services to persons with mental 126765
retardation or developmental disabilities living in the community 126766
or to providers of services to these persons. The Department may 126767
develop a method for recovery of all costs associated with the 126768
provision of these services.126769

       Section 259.160. TRANSFER OF FUNDS FOR DEVELOPMENTAL CENTER 126770
PHARMACY PROGRAMS126771

       The Director of Developmental Disabilities shall quarterly 126772
transfer cash from the Medicaid - Medicare Fund (Fund 3A40) to the 126773
Health Care/Medicaid Support and Recoveries Fund (Fund 5DL0) used 126774
by the Department of Medicaid, in an amount equal to the 126775
nonfederal share of Medicaid prescription drug claim costs for all 126776
developmental centers paid by the Department of Medicaid. The 126777
quarterly transfer shall be made using an intrastate transfer 126778
voucher.126779

       Section 259.170. NONFEDERAL MATCH FOR ACTIVE TREATMENT 126780
SERVICES126781

        Any county funds received by the Department of Developmental 126782
Disabilities from county boards of developmental disabilities for 126783
active treatment shall be deposited in the Developmental 126784
Disabilities Operating Fund (Fund 4890).126785

       Section 259.180. ODODD INNOVATIVE PILOT PROJECTS126786

       (A) In fiscal year 2014 and fiscal year 2015, the Director of 126787
Developmental Disabilities may authorize the continuation or 126788
implementation of one or more innovative pilot projects that, in 126789
the judgment of the Director, are likely to assist in promoting 126790
the objectives of Chapter 5123. or 5126. of the Revised Code. 126791
Subject to division (B) of this section and notwithstanding any 126792
provision of Chapters 5123. and 5126. of the Revised Code and any 126793
rule adopted under either chapter, a pilot project authorized by 126794
the Director may be continued or implemented in a manner 126795
inconsistent with one or more provisions of either chapter or one 126796
or more rules adopted under either chapter. Before authorizing a 126797
pilot program, the Director shall consult with entities interested 126798
in the issue of developmental disabilities, including the Ohio 126799
Provider Resource Association, Ohio Association of County Boards 126800
of Developmental Disabilities, Ohio Health Care Association/Ohio 126801
Centers for Intellectual Disabilities, and ARC of Ohio.126802

       (B) The Director may not authorize a pilot project to be 126803
implemented in a manner that would cause the state to be out of 126804
compliance with any requirements for a program funded in whole or 126805
in part with federal funds.126806

       Section 259.190. DEPARTMENT OF DEVELOPMENTAL DISABILITIES' 126807
APPROPRIATION ITEM STRUCTURE126808

       Upon request from the Director of Developmental Disabilities, 126809
the Director of Budget and Management may establish new funds, new 126810
appropriation items, and appropriations in order to support the 126811
transition to a new appropriation item structure in the Department 126812
of Developmental Disabilities' budget. Also, upon request of the 126813
Director of Developmental Disabilities, the Director of Budget and 126814
Management may transfer appropriations between GRF appropriation 126815
items, transfer cash between any funds used by the Department of 126816
Developmental Disabilities, abolish existing funds used by the 126817
Department of Developmental Disabilities, and cancel and 126818
reestablish encumbrances. Any establishment of new funds or 126819
appropriation items, any transfers of appropriations or cash, and 126820
any increases in appropriation under this section are subject to 126821
Controlling Board approval.126822

       Section 259.200.  FISCAL YEAR 2014 MEDICAID PAYMENT RATES FOR 126823
ICFs/MR126824

       (A) As used in this section:126825

       "Capped per diem rate" means the per Medicaid day payment 126826
rate calculated for an ICF/MR under division (D) of this section.126827

       "Change of operator," "entering operator," "exiting 126828
operator," "ICF/MR," "ICF/MR services," "Medicaid days," 126829
"provider," and "provider agreement" have the same meanings as in 126830
section 5124.01 of the Revised Code.126831

       "Franchise permit fee" means the fee imposed by sections 126832
5168.60 to 5168.71 of the Revised Code.126833

       "Modified per diem rate" means the per Medicaid day payment 126834
rate calculated for an ICF/MR under division (C) of this section.126835

       "Unmodified per diem rate" means the per Medicaid day payment 126836
rate calculated for an ICF/MR under Chapter 5124. of the Revised 126837
Code.126838

       (B) This section applies to each ICF/MR provider to which 126839
either of the following applies:126840

       (1) The provider has a valid Medicaid provider agreement for 126841
the ICF/MR on June 30, 2013, and a valid Medicaid provider 126842
agreement for the ICF/MR during fiscal year 2014.126843

       (2) The ICF/MR undergoes a change of operator that takes 126844
effect during fiscal year 2014, the exiting operator has a valid 126845
Medicaid provider agreement for the ICF/MR on the day immediately 126846
preceding the effective date of the change of operator, and the 126847
entering operator has a valid Medicaid provider agreement for the 126848
ICF/MR during fiscal year 2014.126849

       (C) An ICF/MR's total modified per diem rate for fiscal year 126850
2014 shall be the ICF/MR's total unmodified per diem rate for that 126851
fiscal year with the following modifications: 126852

       (1) In place of the inflation adjustment otherwise made under 126853
section 5124.23 of the Revised Code, the ICF/MR's desk-reviewed, 126854
actual, allowable, per diem other protected costs, excluding the 126855
franchise permit fee, from calendar year 2012 shall be multiplied 126856
by 1.0123. 126857

       (2) In place of the maximum cost per case-mix unit 126858
established for the ICF/MR's peer group under division (C) of 126859
section 5124.23 of the Revised Code, the ICF/MR's maximum costs 126860
per case-mix unit shall be the following:126861

       (a) In the case of an ICF/MR with more than eight beds, 126862
$108.21;126863

       (b) In the case of an ICF/MR with eight or fewer beds, 126864
$102.21.126865

       (3) In place of the inflation adjustment otherwise calculated 126866
under division (D) of section 5124.19 of the Revised Code for the 126867
purpose of division (A)(1)(b) of that section, an inflation 126868
adjustment of 1.0123 shall be used.126869

       (4) In place of the maximum rate for indirect care costs 126870
established for the ICF/MR's peer group under division (C) of 126871
section 5124.21 of the Revised Code, the maximum rate for indirect 126872
care costs for the ICF/MR's peer group shall be the following:126873

       (a) In the case of an ICF/MR with more than eight beds, 126874
$68.98;126875

       (b) In the case of an ICF/MR with eight or fewer beds, 126876
$59.60.126877

       (5) In place of the inflation adjustment otherwise calculated 126878
under division (D)(1) of section 5124.21 of the Revised Code for 126879
the purpose of division (B)(1) of that section only, an inflation 126880
adjustment of 1.0123 shall be used.126881

       (6) In place of the efficiency incentive otherwise calculated 126882
under division (B)(2) of section 5124.21 of the Revised Code, the 126883
ICF/MR's efficiency incentive for indirect care costs shall be the 126884
following:126885

       (a) In the case of an ICF/MR with more than eight beds, 126886
$3.69;126887

       (b) In the case of an ICF/MR with eight or fewer beds, $3.19. 126888

       (7) The ICF/MR's efficiency incentive for capital costs, as 126889
determined under division (E) of section 5124.17 of the Revised 126890
Code, shall be reduced by 50%.126891

       (D) An ICF/MR's total capped per diem rate for fiscal year 126892
2014 shall be the ICF/MR's total unmodified per diem rate for that 126893
fiscal year reduced by the percentage by which the mean total 126894
unmodified per diem rates for all ICFs/MR in this state for fiscal 126895
year 2014, weighted by May 2013 Medicaid days and calculated as of 126896
July 1, 2013, exceeds $282.84.126897

       (E) Except as otherwise provided by this section, an ICF/MR 126898
provider to which this section applies shall be paid, for ICF/MR 126899
services the ICF/MR provides during fiscal year 2014, a total per 126900
diem rate determined as follows:126901

       (1) Add the ICF/MR's total modified per diem rate to the 126902
ICF/MR's total capped per diem rate;126903

       (2) Divide the amount determined under division (E)(1) of 126904
this section by two.126905

       (F) If the mean total per diem rate for all ICFs/MR to which 126906
this section applies, weighted by May 2013 Medicaid days and 126907
determined under division (E) of this section as of July 1, 2013, 126908
is other than $282.84, the Department of Developmental 126909
Disabilities shall adjust, for fiscal year 2014, the total per 126910
diem rate for each ICF/MR to which this section applies by a 126911
percentage that is equal to the percentage by which the mean total 126912
per diem rate is greater or less than $282.84.126913

       (G) If the United States Centers for Medicare and Medicaid 126914
Services requires that the franchise permit fee be reduced or 126915
eliminated, the Department of Developmental Disabilities shall 126916
reduce the amount it pays ICF/MR providers under this section as 126917
necessary to reflect the loss to the state of the revenue and 126918
federal financial participation generated from the franchise 126919
permit fee.126920

       (H) The Department of Developmental Disabilities shall follow 126921
this section in determining the rate to be paid ICF/MR providers 126922
subject to this section notwithstanding anything to the contrary 126923
in Chapter 5124. of the Revised Code.126924

       Of the foregoing appropriation items 653407, Medicaid 126925
Services, 653606, ICF/MR and Waiver Match, and 653653, ICF/MR, 126926
portions shall be used to pay the Medicaid payment rates 126927
determined in accordance with this section for ICF/MR services 126928
provided during fiscal year 2014. 126929

       Section 259.210. FISCAL YEAR 2015 MEDICAID PAYMENT RATES FOR 126930
ICFs/MR126931

       (A) As used in this section:126932

       "Capped per diem rate" means the per Medicaid day payment 126933
rate calculated for an ICF/MR under division (D) of this section.126934

        "Change of operator," "entering operator," "exiting 126935
operator," "ICF/MR," "ICF/MR services," "Medicaid days," 126936
"provider," and "provider agreement" have the same meanings as in 126937
section 5124.01 of the Revised Code.126938

       "Franchise permit fee" means the fee imposed by sections 126939
5168.60 to 5168.71 of the Revised Code.126940

       "Modified per diem rate" means the per Medicaid day payment 126941
rate calculated for an ICF/MR under division (C) of this section.126942

       "Unmodified per diem rate" means the per Medicaid day payment 126943
rate calculated for an ICF/MR under Chapter 5124. of the Revised 126944
Code.126945

       (B) This section applies to each ICF/MR provider to which 126946
either of the following applies:126947

       (1) The provider has a valid Medicaid provider agreement for 126948
the ICF/MR on June 30, 2014, and a valid Medicaid provider 126949
agreement for the ICF/MR during fiscal year 2015.126950

       (2) The ICF/MR undergoes a change of operator that takes 126951
effect during fiscal year 2015, the exiting operator has a valid 126952
Medicaid provider agreement for the ICF/MR on the day immediately 126953
preceding the effective date of the change of operator, and the 126954
entering operator has a valid Medicaid provider agreement for the 126955
ICF/MR during fiscal year 2015.126956

       (C) An ICF/MR's total modified per diem rate for fiscal year 126957
2015 shall be the ICF/MR's total unmodified per diem rate for that 126958
fiscal year with the following modifications: 126959

       (1) In place of the inflation adjustment otherwise made under 126960
section 5124.23 of the Revised Code, the ICF/MR's desk-reviewed, 126961
actual, allowable, per diem other protected costs, excluding the 126962
franchise permit fee, from calendar year 2013 shall be multiplied 126963
by 1.0123. 126964

       (2) In place of the maximum cost per case-mix unit 126965
established for the ICF/MR's peer group under division (C) of 126966
section 5124.19 of the Revised Code, the ICF/MR's maximum costs 126967
per case-mix unit shall be the following:126968

       (a) In the case of an ICF/MR with more than eight beds, 126969
$108.21;126970

       (b) In the case of an ICF/MR with eight or fewer beds, 126971
$102.21.126972

       (3) In place of the inflation adjustment otherwise calculated 126973
under division (D) of section 5124.19 of the Revised Code for the 126974
purpose of division (A)(1)(b) of that section, an inflation 126975
adjustment of 1.0123 shall be used.126976

       (4) In place of the maximum rate for indirect care costs 126977
established for the ICF/MR's peer group under division (C) of 126978
section 5124.21 of the Revised Code, the maximum rate for indirect 126979
care costs for the ICF/MR's peer group shall be the following:126980

       (a) In the case of an ICF/MR with more than eight beds, 126981
$68.98;126982

       (b) In the case of an ICF/MR with eight or fewer beds, 126983
$59.60. 126984

       (5) In place of the inflation adjustment otherwise calculated 126985
under divisions (D)(1) and (2) of section 5124.21 of the Revised 126986
Code for the purpose of division (B)(1) of that section only, an 126987
inflation adjustment of 1.0123 shall be used.126988

       (6) In place of the efficiency incentive otherwise calculated 126989
under division (B)(2) of section 5124.21 of the Revised Code, the 126990
ICF/MR's efficiency incentive for indirect care costs shall be the 126991
following:126992

       (a) In the case of an ICF/MR with more than eight beds, 126993
$3.69;126994

       (b) In the case of an ICF/MR with eight or fewer beds, $3.19.126995

       (7) The ICF/MR's efficiency incentive for capital costs, as 126996
determined under division (E) of section 5124.17 of the Revised 126997
Code, shall be reduced by 50%.126998

       (D) An ICF/MR's total capped per diem rate for fiscal year 126999
2015 shall be the ICF/MR's total unmodified per diem rate for that 127000
fiscal year reduced by the percentage by which the mean total 127001
unmodified per diem rates for all ICFs/MR in this state for fiscal 127002
year 2015, weighted by May 2014 Medicaid days and calculated as of 127003
July 1, 2014, exceeds $282.77.127004

       (E) Except as otherwise provided by this section, an ICF/MR 127005
provider to which this section applies shall be paid, for ICF/MR 127006
services the ICF/MR provides during fiscal year 2015, a total per 127007
diem rate determined as follows:127008

       (1) Add the ICF/MR's total modified per diem rate to the 127009
ICF/MR's total capped per diem rate;127010

       (2) Divide the amount determined under division (E)(1) of 127011
this section by two.127012

       (F) If the mean total per diem rate for all ICFs/MR to which 127013
this section applies, weighted by May 2014 Medicaid days and 127014
determined under division (E) of this section as of July 1, 2014, 127015
is other than $282.77, the Department of Developmental 127016
Disabilities shall adjust, for fiscal year 2015, the total per 127017
diem rate for each ICF/MR to which this section applies by a 127018
percentage that is equal to the percentage by which the mean total 127019
per diem rate is greater or less than $282.77.127020

       (G) If the United States Centers for Medicare and Medicaid 127021
Services requires that the franchise permit fee be reduced or 127022
eliminated, the Department of Developmental Disabilities shall 127023
reduce the amount it pays ICF/MR providers under this section as 127024
necessary to reflect the loss to the state of the revenue and 127025
federal financial participation generated from the franchise 127026
permit fee.127027

       (H) The Department of Developmental Disabilities shall follow 127028
this section in determining the rate to be paid ICF/MR providers 127029
subject to this section notwithstanding anything to the contrary 127030
in Chapter 5124. of the Revised Code.127031

       Of the foregoing appropriation items 653407, Medicaid 127032
Services, 653606, ICF/MR and Waiver Match, and 653653, ICF/MR, 127033
portions shall be used to pay the Medicaid payment rates 127034
determined in accordance with this section for ICF/MR services 127035
provided during fiscal year 2015.127036

       Section 259.220. TRANSFER OF FUNDS FOR OUTLIER SERVICES 127037
PROVIDED TO PEDIATRIC VENTILATOR-DEPENDENT ICF/MR RESIDENTS127038

       As used in this section, "ICF/MR" and "ICF/MR services" have 127039
the same meanings as in section 5124.01 of the Revised Code.127040

       Each quarter during fiscal year 2015, the Director of 127041
Developmental Disabilities shall certify to the Director of Budget 127042
and Management the amount needed to pay the nonfederal share of 127043
the costs of the Medicaid rate add-on paid to ICFs/MR pursuant to 127044
section 5124.25 of the Revised Code for providing outlier ICF/MR 127045
services to residents who qualify for the services and are 127046
transferred to ICFs/MR from hospitals at which they receive 127047
ventilator services at the time of their transfer to the ICFs/MR.127048

       On receipt of a certification, the Director of Budget and 127049
Management shall transfer appropriations equaling the certified 127050
amount from appropriation item 651525, Medicaid/Health Care 127051
Services, to appropriation item 653407, Medicaid Services, and, in 127052
addition, shall reduce the appropriation in 651525, 127053
Medicaid/Health Care Services, by the corresponding federal share.127054

       If receipts credited to the Developmental Center and 127055
Residential Facility Services and Support Fund (Fund 3A40), used 127056
by the Department of Developmental Disabilities, exceed the 127057
amounts appropriated in appropriation item 653653, ICF/MR, the 127058
Director of Developmental Disabilities may request the Director of 127059
Budget and Management to authorize expenditures from the fund in 127060
excess of the amounts appropriated. Upon approval of the Director 127061
of Budget and Management, the additional amounts are hereby 127062
appropriated.127063

       Section 259.230. ICF/MR MEDICAID RATE WORKGROUP127064

       As used in this section, "ICF/MR," "ICF/MR services," and 127065
"Medicaid-certified capacity" have the same meanings as in section 127066
5124.01 of the Revised Code.127067

       For the purpose of assisting the Department of Developmental 127068
Disabilities during fiscal year 2014 and fiscal year 2015 with an 127069
evaluation of revisions to the formula used to determine Medicaid 127070
payment rates for ICF/MR services, the Department shall retain the 127071
workgroup that was created to assist with the study required by 127072
Section 309.30.80 of Am. Sub. H.B. 153 of the 129th General 127073
Assembly. In conducting the evaluation, the Department and 127074
workgroup shall do both of the following:127075

       (A) Focus primarily on the service needs of individuals with 127076
complex challenges that ICFs/MR are able to meet;127077

       (B) Pursue the goal of reducing the Medicaid-certified 127078
capacity of individual ICFs/MR and the total number of ICF/MR beds 127079
in the state for the purpose of increasing the service choices and 127080
community integration of individuals eligible for ICF/MR services.127081

       Section 259.240. NONFEDERAL SHARE OF ICF/MR SERVICES127082

       (A) As used in this section, "ICF/MR," "ICF/MR services," and 127083
"Medicaid-certified capacity" have the same meanings as in section 127084
5124.01 of the Revised Code.127085

       (B) The Director of Developmental Disabilities shall pay the 127086
nonfederal share of a claim for ICF/MR services using funds 127087
specified in division (C) of this section if all of the following 127088
apply:127089

       (1) Medicaid covers the ICF/MR services.127090

       (2) The ICF/MR services are provided to a Medicaid recipient 127091
to whom both of the following apply:127092

       (a) The Medicaid recipient is eligible for the ICF/MR 127093
services;127094

       (b) The Medicaid recipient does not occupy a bed in the 127095
ICF/MR that used to be included in the Medicaid-certified capacity 127096
of another ICF/MR certified by the Director of Health before June 127097
1, 2003.127098

       (3) The ICF/MR services are provided by an ICF/MR whose 127099
Medicaid certification by the Director of Health was initiated or 127100
supported by a county board of developmental disabilities.127101

       (4) The provider of the ICF/MR services has a valid Medicaid 127102
provider agreement for the services for the time that the services 127103
are provided.127104

       (C) When required by division (B) of this section to pay the 127105
nonfederal share of a claim, the Director of Developmental 127106
Disabilities shall use the following funds to pay the claim:127107

       (1) Funds available from appropriation item 322501, County 127108
Boards Subsidies, that the Director allocates to the county board 127109
that initiated or supported the Medicaid certification of the 127110
ICF/MR that provided the ICF/MR services for which the claim is 127111
made;127112

       (2) If the amount of funds used pursuant to division (C)(1) 127113
of this section is insufficient to pay the claim in full, an 127114
amount of funds that are needed to make up the difference and 127115
available from amounts the Director allocates to other county 127116
boards from appropriation item 322501, County Boards Subsidies.127117

       Section 259.250. FY 2014 AND FY 2015 RATES FOR CERTAIN 127118
HOMEMAKER/PERSONAL CARE SERVICES UNDER IO WAIVER127119

       (A) As used in this section:127120

       "Converted facility" means an ICF/MR, or former ICF/MR, that 127121
converted some or all of its beds to providing home and 127122
community-based services under the IO Waiver pursuant to section 127123
5124.60 of the Revised Code.127124

       "Developmental center" and "ICF/MR" have the same meanings as 127125
in section 5124.01 of the Revised Code.127126

       "H.B. 153 increased Medicaid payment rate" means the total 127127
Medicaid payment rate for each fifteen minutes of routine 127128
homemaker/personal care services that was set by Section 263.20.70 127129
of Am. Sub. H.B. 153 of the 129th General Assembly, as amended by 127130
Am. Sub. H.B. 487 of the 129th General Assembly.127131

       "IO Waiver" means the Medicaid waiver component, as defined 127132
in section 5166.01 of the Revised Code, known as Individual 127133
Options.127134

       "Public hospital" has the same meaning as in section 5122.01 127135
of the Revised Code.127136

       "Regular Medicaid payment rate" means the total Medicaid 127137
payment rate for each fifteen minutes of routine 127138
homemaker/personal care services that are available under the IO 127139
Waiver and to which this section does not apply.127140

       (B) This section applies to routine homemaker/personal care 127141
services to which both of the following apply:127142

       (1) The services are provided to an IO Waiver enrollee to 127143
whom all of the following apply:127144

       (a) The enrollee began to receive the services from the 127145
provider on or after July 1, 2011.127146

       (b) The enrollee resided in a developmental center, converted 127147
facility, or public hospital immediately before enrolling in the 127148
IO Wavier.127149

       (c) The Director of Developmental Disabilities has determined 127150
that the enrollee's special circumstances (including the 127151
enrollee's diagnosis, service needs, or length of stay at the 127152
developmental center, converted facility, or public hospital) 127153
warrants paying the Medicaid payment rate authorized by this 127154
section.127155

       (2) The provider of the services has a valid Medicaid 127156
provider agreement for the services for the period during which 127157
the enrollee receives the services from the provider.127158

       (C) The total Medicaid payment rate for each fifteen minutes 127159
of routine homemaker/personal care services to which this section 127160
applies and that are provided during the period beginning July 1, 127161
2013, and ending June 30, 2015, shall be the greater of the 127162
following:127163

       (1) The H.B. 153 increased Medicaid payment rate;127164

       (2) The regular Medicaid payment rate in effect at the time 127165
the services are provided.127166

       (D) Of the foregoing appropriation items 653407, Medicaid 127167
Services, and 653639, Medicaid Waiver Services, portions shall be 127168
used to pay the Medicaid payment rates determined in accordance 127169
with this section for certain homemaker/personal care services 127170
under the IO Waiver.127171

       Section 259.260. UPDATING AUTHORIZING STATUTE CITATIONS127172

       As used in this section, "authorizing statute" means a 127173
Revised Code section or provision of a Revised Code section that 127174
is cited in the Ohio Administrative Code as the statute that 127175
authorizes the adoption of a rule.127176

       The Director of Developmental Disabilities is not required to 127177
amend any rule for the sole purpose of updating the citation in 127178
the Ohio Administrative Code to the rule's authorizing statute to 127179
reflect that this act renumbers the authorizing statute or 127180
relocates it to another Revised Code section. Such citations shall 127181
be updated as the Director amends the rules for other purposes.127182

       Section 259.270. REASON FOR THE REPEAL OF R.C. 5111.236127183

       This act repeals section 5111.236 of the Revised Code to 127184
carry out the intent of the Governor as indicated in the veto 127185
message regarding Am. Sub. H.B. 1 of the 128th General Assembly 127186
transmitted to the Clerk of the House of Representatives on July 127187
17, 2009. The actual veto removed the section from the title and 127188
enacting clause of H.B. 1 and an earmark related to the section. 127189
However, the actual veto inadvertently showed only division (C) of 127190
the section, rather than the entire section, as being vetoed.127191

       Section 261.10. OBD OHIO BOARD OF DIETETICS127192

General Services Fund Group127193

4K90 860609 Operating Expenses $ 330,592 $ 342,592 127194
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund 127195
Group $ 330,592 $ 342,592 127196
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 330,592 $ 342,592 127197


       Section 263.10. EDU DEPARTMENT OF EDUCATION127199

General Revenue Fund127200

GRF 200321 Operating Expenses $ 13,142,780 $ 13,142,780 127201
GRF 200408 Early Childhood Education $ 23,268,341 $ 25,268,341 127202
GRF 200420 Information Technology Development and Support $ 4,241,296 $ 4,241,296 127203
GRF 200421 Alternative Education Programs $ 7,403,998 $ 7,403,998 127204
GRF 200422 School Management Assistance $ 3,000,000 $ 3,000,000 127205
GRF 200424 Policy Analysis $ 328,558 $ 328,558 127206
GRF 200425 Tech Prep Consortia Support $ 260,542 $ 260,542 127207
GRF 200426 Ohio Educational Computer Network $ 29,625,569 $ 19,625,569 127208
GRF 200427 Academic Standards $ 3,800,000 $ 3,800,000 127209
GRF 200437 Student Assessment $ 55,895,000 $ 75,895,000 127210
GRF 200439 Accountability/Report Cards $ 3,500,000 $ 3,750,000 127211
GRF 200442 Child Care Licensing $ 827,140 $ 827,140 127212
GRF 200446 Education Management Information System $ 6,833,070 $ 6,833,070 127213
GRF 200447 GED Testing $ 879,551 $ 879,551 127214
GRF 200448 Educator Preparation $ 850,000 $ 850,000 127215
GRF 200455 Community Schools and Choice Programs $ 2,438,685 $ 2,491,395 127216
GRF 200464 General Technology Operations $ 192,097 $ 192,097 127217
GRF 200465 Technology Integration and Professional Development $ 1,778,879 $ 1,778,879 127218
GRF 200468 Ready to Learn $ 5,000,000 $ 5,000,000 127219
GRF 200502 Pupil Transportation $ 505,013,527 $ 518,513,527 127220
GRF 200505 School Lunch Match $ 9,100,000 $ 9,100,000 127221
GRF 200511 Auxiliary Services $ 130,547,795 $ 134,881,982 127222
GRF 200532 Nonpublic Administrative Cost Reimbursement $ 58,973,586 $ 60,931,509 127223
GRF 200540 Special Education Enhancements $ 156,871,292 $ 157,871,292 127224
GRF 200545 Career-Technical Education Enhancements $ 9,072,999 $ 9,072,999 127225
GRF 200550 Foundation Funding $ 5,810,807,929 $ 6,004,142,692 127226
GRF 200901 Property Tax Allocation - Education $ 1,138,800,000 $ 1,184,352,000 127227
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 7,982,452,634 $ 8,254,434,217 127228

General Services Fund Group127229

1380 200606 Information Technology Development and Support $ 6,850,090 $ 6,850,090 127230
4520 200638 Fees and Refunds $ 500,000 $ 500,000 127231
4L20 200681 Teacher Certification and Licensure $ 8,313,762 $ 13,658,274 127232
5960 200656 Ohio Career Information System $ 529,761 $ 529,761 127233
5H30 200687 School District Solvency Assistance $ 25,000,000 $ 25,000,000 127234
5KX0 200691 Ohio School Sponsorship Program $ 487,419 $ 487,419 127235
5KY0 200693 Community Schools Temporary Sponsorship $ 83,000 $ 83,000 127236
TOTAL GSF General Services 127237
Fund Group $ 41,764,032 $ 47,108,544 127238

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group127239

3090 200601 Neglected and Delinquent Education $ 2,168,642 $ 2,168,642 127240
3670 200607 School Food Services $ 8,200,664 $ 8,700,149 127241
3700 200624 Education of Exceptional Children $ 1,530,000 $ 1,530,000 127242
3AF0 200603 Schools Medicaid Administrative Claims $ 750,000 $ 750,000 127243
3AN0 200671 School Improvement Grants $ 20,400,000 $ 20,400,000 127244
3BK0 200628 Longitudinal Data Systems $ 1,250,000 $ 0 127245
3C50 200661 Early Childhood Education $ 14,554,749 $ 14,554,749 127246
3CG0 200646 Teacher Incentive $ 15,125,588 $ 15,183,285 127247
3D20 200667 Math Science Partnerships $ 6,000,000 $ 6,000,000 127248
3EC0 200653 Teacher Incentive - Federal Stimulus $ 1,300,000 $ 0 127249
3EH0 200620 Migrant Education $ 2,900,000 $ 2,900,000 127250
3EJ0 200622 Homeless Children Education $ 2,600,000 $ 2,600,000 127251
3EK0 200637 Advanced Placement $ 450,000 $ 450,000 127252
3EN0 200655 State Data Systems - Federal Stimulus $ 1,250,000 $ 0 127253
3FD0 200665 Race to the Top $ 136,000,000 $ 58,074,046 127254
3FN0 200672 Early Learning Challenge - Race to the Top $ 7,040,000 $ 7,040,000 127255
3GE0 200674 Summer Food Service Program $ 13,596,000 $ 14,003,800 127256
3GF0 200675 Miscellaneous Nutrition Grants $ 700,000 $ 700,000 127257
3GG0 200676 Fresh Fruit and Vegetable Program $ 4,738,000 $ 4,880,140 127258
3H90 200605 Head Start Collaboration Project $ 225,000 $ 225,000 127259
3L60 200617 Federal School Lunch $ 350,608,075 $ 361,126,273 127260
3L70 200618 Federal School Breakfast $ 108,480,590 $ 112,819,813 127261
3L80 200619 Child/Adult Food Programs $ 106,992,650 $ 110,202,428 127262
3L90 200621 Career-Technical Education Basic Grant $ 44,663,900 $ 44,663,900 127263
3M00 200623 ESEA Title 1A $ 560,000,000 $ 560,000,000 127264
3M20 200680 Individuals with Disabilities Education Act $ 443,170,050 $ 443,170,050 127265
3T40 200613 Public Charter Schools $ 500,000 $ 0 127266
3Y20 200688 21st Century Community Learning Centers $ 48,201,810 $ 50,611,900 127267
3Y60 200635 Improving Teacher Quality $ 101,900,000 $ 101,900,000 127268
3Y70 200689 English Language Acquisition $ 9,700,000 $ 9,700,000 127269
3Y80 200639 Rural and Low Income Technical Assistance $ 3,300,000 $ 3,300,000 127270
3Z20 200690 State Assessments $ 11,800,000 $ 11,800,000 127271
3Z30 200645 Consolidated Federal Grant Administration $ 7,949,280 $ 7,949,280 127272
TOTAL FED Federal Special 127273
Revenue Fund Group $ 2,038,044,998 $ 1,977,403,455 127274

State Special Revenue Fund Group127275

4540 200610 GED Testing $ 1,050,000 $ 250,000 127276
4550 200608 Commodity Foods $ 24,000,000 $ 24,000,000 127277
4R70 200695 Indirect Operational Support $ 6,600,000 $ 6,600,000 127278
4V70 200633 Interagency Program Support $ 717,725 $ 717,725 127279
5980 200659 Auxiliary Services Reimbursement $ 1,328,910 $ 1,328,910 127280
5BJ0 200626 Half-Mill Maintenance Equalization $ 19,000,000 $ 20,000,000 127281
5MM0 200677 Child Nutrition Refunds $ 500,000 $ 500,000 127282
5T30 200668 Gates Foundation Grants $ 200,000 $ 153,000 127283
5U20 200685 National Education Statistics $ 300,000 $ 300,000 127284
6200 200615 Educational Improvement Grants $ 300,000 $ 300,000 127285
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 127286
Fund Group $ 53,996,635 $ 54,149,635 127287

Lottery Profits Education Fund Group127288

7017 200612 Foundation Funding $ 775,000,000 $ 850,000,000 127289
7017 200648 Straight A Fund $ 50,000,000 $ 100,000,000 127290
7017 200666 EdChoice Expansion $ 8,500,000 $ 17,000,000 127291
7017 200684 Community School Facilities $ 7,500,000 $ 7,500,000 127292
TOTAL LPE Lottery Profits 127293
Education Fund Group $ 841,000,000 $ 974,500,000 127294

Revenue Distribution Fund Group127295

7047 200909 School District Property Tax Replacement-Business $ 482,000,000 $ 482,000,000 127296
7053 200900 School District Property Tax Replacement-Utility $ 28,000,000 $ 28,000,000 127297
TOTAL RDF Revenue Distribution 127298
Fund Group $ 510,000,000 $ 510,000,000 127299
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 11,467,258,299 $ 11,817,595,851 127300


       Section 263.20. OPERATING EXPENSES127302

        A portion of the foregoing appropriation item 200321, 127303
Operating Expenses, shall be used by the Department of Education 127304
to provide matching funds under 20 U.S.C. 2321. 127305

       EARLY CHILDHOOD EDUCATION127306

       The Department of Education shall distribute the foregoing 127307
appropriation item 200408, Early Childhood Education, to pay the 127308
costs of early childhood education programs. 127309

       (A) As used in this section:127310

       (1) "Provider" means a city, local, exempted village, or 127311
joint vocational school district, or an educational service 127312
center.127313

       (2) In the case of a city, local, or exempted village school 127314
district, "new eligible provider" means a district that did not 127315
receive state funding for Early Childhood Education in the 127316
previous fiscal year or demonstrates a need for early childhood 127317
programs as defined in division (D) of this section.127318

       (3) "Eligible child" means a child who is at least three 127319
years of age as of the district entry date for kindergarten, is 127320
not of the age to be eligible for kindergarten, and whose family 127321
earns not more than two hundred per cent of the federal poverty 127322
guidelines as defined in division (A)(3) of section 5101.46 of the 127323
Revised Code. Children with an Individualized Education Program 127324
and where the Early Childhood Education program is the least 127325
restrictive environment may be enrolled on their third birthday.127326

       (4) "Early learning program standards" means early learning 127327
program standards for school readiness developed by the Department 127328
to assess the operation of early learning programs.127329

       (B) In each fiscal year, up to two per cent of the total 127330
appropriation may be used by the Department for program support 127331
and technical assistance. The Department shall distribute the 127332
remainder of the appropriation in each fiscal year to serve 127333
eligible children.127334

       (C) The Department shall provide an annual report to the 127335
Governor, the Speaker of the House of Representatives, and the 127336
President of the Senate and post the report to the Department's 127337
web site, regarding early childhood education programs operated 127338
under this section and the early learning program standards.127339

       (D) After setting aside the amounts to make payments due from 127340
the previous fiscal year, in fiscal year 2014, the Department 127341
shall distribute funds first to recipients of funds for early 127342
childhood education programs under Section 267.10.10 of Am. Sub. 127343
H.B. 153 of the 129th General Assembly, as amended by Am. Sub. 127344
H.B. 487 of the 129th General Assembly, in the previous fiscal 127345
year and the balance to new eligible providers of early childhood 127346
education programs under this section or to existing providers to 127347
serve more eligible children or for purposes of program expansion, 127348
improvement, or special projects to promote quality and 127349
innovation.127350

       After setting aside the amounts to make payments due from the 127351
previous fiscal year, in fiscal year 2015, the Department shall 127352
distribute funds first to providers of early childhood education 127353
programs under this section in the previous fiscal year and the 127354
balance to new eligible providers or to existing providers to 127355
serve more eligible children as outlined under division (E) of 127356
this section or for purposes of program expansion, improvement, or 127357
special projects to promote quality and innovation.127358

       (E) The Department shall distribute any new or remaining 127359
funding to existing providers of early childhood education 127360
programs or any new eligible providers in an effort to invest in 127361
high quality early childhood programs where there is a need as 127362
determined by the Department. The Department shall distribute the 127363
new or remaining funds to existing providers of early childhood 127364
education programs or any new eligible providers to serve 127365
additional eligible children based on community economic 127366
disadvantage, limited access to high quality preschool or 127367
childcare services, and demonstration of high quality preschool 127368
services as determined by the Department using new metrics 127369
developed pursuant to Ohio's Race to the Top—Early Learning 127370
Challenge Grant, awarded to the Department in December 2011.127371

        Awards under divisions (D) and (E) of this section shall be 127372
distributed on a per-pupil basis, and in accordance with division 127373
(I) of this section. The Department may adjust the per-pupil 127374
amount so that the per-pupil amount multiplied by the number of 127375
eligible children enrolled and receiving services on the first day 127376
of December or the business day closest to that date equals the 127377
amount allocated under this section.127378

       (F) Costs for developing and administering an early childhood 127379
education program may not exceed fifteen per cent of the total 127380
approved costs of the program.127381

       All providers shall maintain such fiscal control and 127382
accounting procedures as may be necessary to ensure the 127383
disbursement of, and accounting for, these funds. The control of 127384
funds provided in this program, and title to property obtained, 127385
shall be under the authority of the approved provider for purposes 127386
provided in the program unless, as described in division (K) of 127387
this section, the program waives its right for funding or a 127388
program's funding is eliminated or reduced due to its inability to 127389
meet financial or early learning program standards. The approved 127390
provider shall administer and use such property and funds for the 127391
purposes specified.127392

       (G) The Department may examine a provider's financial and 127393
program records. If the financial practices of the program are not 127394
in accordance with standard accounting principles or do not meet 127395
financial standards outlined under division (F) of this section, 127396
or if the program fails to substantially meet the early learning 127397
program standards, meet a quality rating level in the tiered 127398
quality rating and improvement system developed under section 127399
5104.30 of the Revised Code as prescribed by the Department, or 127400
exhibits below average performance as measured against the 127401
standards, the early childhood education program shall propose and 127402
implement a corrective action plan that has been approved by the 127403
Department. The approved corrective action plan shall be signed by 127404
the chief executive officer and the executive of the official 127405
governing body of the provider. The corrective action plan shall 127406
include a schedule for monitoring by the Department. Such 127407
monitoring may include monthly reports, inspections, a timeline 127408
for correction of deficiencies, and technical assistance to be 127409
provided by the Department or obtained by the early childhood 127410
education program. The Department may withhold funding pending 127411
corrective action. If an early childhood education program fails 127412
to satisfactorily complete a corrective action plan, the 127413
Department may deny expansion funding to the program or withdraw 127414
all or part of the funding to the program and establish a new 127415
eligible provider through a selection process established by the 127416
Department.127417

       (H) Each early childhood education program shall do all of 127418
the following:127419

       (1) Meet teacher qualification requirements prescribed by 127420
section 3301.311 of the Revised Code;127421

       (2) Align curriculum to the early learning content standards 127422
developed by the Department;127423

       (3) Meet any child or program assessment requirements 127424
prescribed by the Department;127425

       (4) Require teachers, except teachers enrolled and working to 127426
obtain a degree pursuant to section 3301.311 of the Revised Code, 127427
to attend a minimum of twenty hours every two years of 127428
professional development as prescribed by the Department;127429

       (5) Document and report child progress as prescribed by the 127430
Department;127431

       (6) Meet and report compliance with the early learning 127432
program standards as prescribed by the Department;127433

       (7) Participate in the tiered quality rating and improvement 127434
system developed under section 5104.30 of the Revised Code. 127435
Effective July 1, 2016, all programs shall be rated through the 127436
system.127437

       (I) Per-pupil funding for programs subject to this section 127438
shall be sufficient to provide eligible children with services for 127439
a standard early childhood schedule which shall be defined in this 127440
section as a minimum of twelve and one-half hours per school week 127441
as defined in section 3313.62 of the Revised Code for the minimum 127442
school year as defined in sections 3313.48, 3313.481, and 3313.482 127443
of the Revised Code. Nothing in this section shall be construed to 127444
prohibit program providers from utilizing other funds to serve 127445
eligible children in programs that exceed the twelve and one-half 127446
hours per week or that exceed the minimum school year. For any 127447
provider for which a standard early childhood education schedule 127448
creates a hardship or for which the provider shows evidence that 127449
the provider is working in collaboration with a preschool special 127450
education program, the provider may submit a waiver to the 127451
Department requesting an alternate schedule. If the Department 127452
approves a waiver for an alternate schedule that provides services 127453
for less time than the standard early childhood education 127454
schedule, the Department may reduce the provider's annual 127455
allocation proportionately. Under no circumstances shall an annual 127456
allocation be increased because of the approval of an alternate 127457
schedule.127458

       (J) Each provider shall develop a sliding fee scale based on 127459
family incomes and shall charge families who earn more than two 127460
hundred per cent of the federal poverty guidelines, as defined in 127461
division (A)(3) of section 5101.46 of the Revised Code, for the 127462
early childhood education program.127463

       The Department shall conduct an annual survey of each 127464
provider to determine whether the provider charges families 127465
tuition or fees, the amount families are charged relative to 127466
family income levels, and the number of families and students 127467
charged tuition and fees for the early childhood program.127468

       (K) If an early childhood education program voluntarily 127469
waives its right for funding, or has its funding eliminated for 127470
not meeting financial standards or the early learning program 127471
standards, the provider shall transfer control of title to 127472
property, equipment, and remaining supplies obtained through the 127473
program to providers designated by the Department and return any 127474
unexpended funds to the Department along with any reports 127475
prescribed by the Department. The funding made available from a 127476
program that waives its right for funding or has its funding 127477
eliminated or reduced may be used by the Department for new grant 127478
awards or expansion grants. The Department may award new grants or 127479
expansion grants to eligible providers who apply. The eligible 127480
providers who apply must do so in accordance with the selection 127481
process established by the Department.127482

       (L) Eligible expenditures for the Early Childhood Education 127483
Program shall be claimed each fiscal year to help meet the state's 127484
TANF maintenance of effort requirement. The Superintendent of 127485
Public Instruction and the Director of Job and Family Services 127486
shall enter into an interagency agreement to carry out the 127487
requirements under this division, which shall include developing 127488
reporting guidelines for these expenditures.127489

       Section 263.30.  INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY DEVELOPMENT AND 127490
SUPPORT127491

       The foregoing appropriation item 200420, Information 127492
Technology Development and Support, shall be used to support the 127493
development and implementation of information technology solutions 127494
designed to improve the performance and services of the Department 127495
of Education. Funds may be used for personnel, maintenance, and 127496
equipment costs related to the development and implementation of 127497
these technical system projects. Implementation of these systems 127498
shall allow the Department to provide greater levels of assistance 127499
to school districts and to provide more timely information to the 127500
public, including school districts, administrators, and 127501
legislators. Funds may also be used to support data-driven 127502
decision-making and differentiated instruction, as well as to 127503
communicate academic content standards and curriculum models to 127504
schools through web-based applications.127505

       Section 263.40. ALTERNATIVE EDUCATION PROGRAMS127506

       The foregoing appropriation item 200421, Alternative 127507
Education Programs, shall be used for the renewal of successful 127508
implementation grants and for competitive matching grants to 127509
school districts for alternative educational programs for existing 127510
and new at-risk and delinquent youth. Programs shall be focused on 127511
youth in one or more of the following categories: those who have 127512
been expelled or suspended, those who have dropped out of school 127513
or who are at risk of dropping out of school, those who are 127514
habitually truant or disruptive, or those on probation or on 127515
parole from a Department of Youth Services facility. Grants shall 127516
be awarded only to programs in which the grant will not serve as 127517
the program's primary source of funding. These grants shall be 127518
administered by the Department of Education.127519

       The Department of Education may waive compliance with any 127520
minimum education standard established under section 3301.07 of 127521
the Revised Code for any alternative school that receives a grant 127522
under this section on the grounds that the waiver will enable the 127523
program to more effectively educate students enrolled in the 127524
alternative school.127525

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200421, Alternative 127526
Education Programs, a portion may be used for program 127527
administration, monitoring, technical assistance, support, 127528
research, and evaluation.127529

       Section 263.50. SCHOOL MANAGEMENT ASSISTANCE127530

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200422, School Management 127531
Assistance, $1,000,000 in each fiscal year shall be used by the 127532
Auditor of State in consultation with the Department of Education 127533
for expenses incurred in the Auditor of State's role relating to 127534
fiscal caution, fiscal watch, and fiscal emergency activities as 127535
defined in Chapter 3316. of the Revised Code, unless an amount 127536
less than $1,000,000 is needed and mutually agreed to by the 127537
Department and the Auditor of State. This set-aside may also be 127538
used by the Auditor of State to conduct performance audits of 127539
other school districts with priority given to districts in fiscal 127540
distress. Districts in fiscal distress shall be determined by the 127541
Auditor of State and shall include districts that the Auditor of 127542
State, in consultation with the Department of Education, 127543
determines are employing fiscal practices or experiencing 127544
budgetary conditions that could produce a state of fiscal watch or 127545
fiscal emergency.127546

       The remainder of appropriation item 200422, School Management 127547
Assistance, shall be used by the Department of Education to 127548
provide fiscal technical assistance and inservice education for 127549
school district management personnel and to administer, monitor, 127550
and implement the fiscal caution, fiscal watch, and fiscal 127551
emergency provisions under Chapter 3316. of the Revised Code.127552

       Section 263.60. POLICY ANALYSIS127553

       The foregoing appropriation item 200424, Policy Analysis, 127554
shall be used by the Department of Education to support a system 127555
of administrative, statistical, and legislative education 127556
information to be used for policy analysis. Staff supported by 127557
this appropriation shall administer the development of reports, 127558
analyses, and briefings to inform education policymakers of 127559
current trends in education practice, efficient and effective use 127560
of resources, and evaluation of programs to improve education 127561
results. The database shall be kept current at all times. These 127562
research efforts shall be used to supply information and analysis 127563
of data to the General Assembly and other state policymakers, 127564
including the Office of Budget and Management, the Governor's 127565
Office of 21st Century Education, and the Legislative Service 127566
Commission.127567

       The Department of Education may use funding from this 127568
appropriation item to purchase or contract for the development of 127569
software systems or contract for policy studies that will assist 127570
in the provision and analysis of policy-related information. 127571
Funding from this appropriation item also may be used to monitor 127572
and enhance quality assurance for research-based policy analysis 127573
and program evaluation to enhance the effective use of education 127574
information to inform education policymakers.127575

       TECH PREP CONSORTIA SUPPORT127576

       The foregoing appropriation item 200425, Tech Prep Consortia 127577
Support, shall be used by the Department of Education to support 127578
state-level activities designed to support, promote, and expand 127579
tech prep programs. Use of these funds shall include, but not be 127580
limited to, administration of grants, program evaluation, 127581
professional development, curriculum development, assessment 127582
development, program promotion, communications, and statewide 127583
coordination of tech prep consortia.127584

       Section 263.70. OHIO EDUCATIONAL COMPUTER NETWORK127585

       The foregoing appropriation item 200426, Ohio Educational 127586
Computer Network, shall be used by the Department of Education to 127587
maintain a system of information technology throughout Ohio and to 127588
provide technical assistance for such a system in support of the 127589
P-16 State Education Technology Plan developed under section 127590
3353.09 of the Revised Code.127591

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200426, Ohio Educational 127592
Computer Network, up to $10,705,569 in each fiscal year shall be 127593
used by the Department of Education to support connection of all 127594
public school buildings and participating chartered nonpublic 127595
schools to the state's education network, to each other, and to 127596
the Internet. In each fiscal year the Department of Education 127597
shall use these funds to assist information technology centers or 127598
school districts with the operational costs associated with this 127599
connectivity. The Department of Education shall develop a formula 127600
and guidelines for the distribution of these funds to information 127601
technology centers or individual school districts. As used in this 127602
section, "public school building" means a school building of any 127603
city, local, exempted village, or joint vocational school 127604
district, any community school established under Chapter 3314. of 127605
the Revised Code, any college preparatory boarding school 127606
established under Chapter 3328. of the Revised Code, any STEM 127607
school established under Chapter 3326. of the Revised Code, any 127608
educational service center building used for instructional 127609
purposes, the Ohio School for the Deaf and the Ohio School for the 127610
Blind, high schools chartered by the Ohio Department of Youth 127611
Services, or high schools operated by Ohio Department of 127612
Rehabilitation and Corrections' Ohio Central School System.127613

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200426, Ohio Educational 127614
Computer Network, up to $2,500,000 in each fiscal year shall be 127615
used for the Union Catalog and InfOhio Network and to support the 127616
provision of electronic resources with priority given to resources 127617
that support the teaching of state academic content standards in 127618
all public schools. Consideration shall be given by the Department 127619
of Education to coordinating the allocation of these moneys with 127620
the efforts of Libraries Connect Ohio, whose members include 127621
OhioLINK, the Ohio Public Information Network, and the State 127622
Library of Ohio.127623

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200426, Ohio Educational 127624
Computer Network, up to $5,220,000 in each fiscal year shall be 127625
used, through a formula and guidelines devised by the Department, 127626
to subsidize the activities of designated information technology 127627
centers, as defined by State Board of Education rules, to provide 127628
school districts and chartered nonpublic schools with 127629
computer-based student and teacher instructional and 127630
administrative information services, including approved 127631
computerized financial accounting, and to ensure the effective 127632
operation of local automated administrative and instructional 127633
systems.127634

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200426, Ohio Educational 127635
Computer Network, up to $10,000,000 in fiscal year 2014 shall be 127636
used for middle mile connections for the information technology 127637
centers established under section 3301.075 of the Revised Code and 127638
select large urban districts to connect to the state broadband 127639
backbone managed by the Ohio Technology Consortium and for other 127640
connectivity upgrades necessary for K-12 school buildings with 127641
severely restricted broadband connections. The Department of 127642
Education shall develop an expenditure plan to facilitate 127643
instructional technology/blended learning initiatives. The State 127644
Chief Information Officer and the Education Technology Division of 127645
the Ohio Board of Regents shall review the plan to ensure it 127646
coincides with State of Ohio and higher education network 127647
strategies and shall either approve or reject the plan. If the 127648
plan is rejected, the State Chief Information Officer and the 127649
Education Technology Division of the Ohio Board of Regents shall 127650
identify deficiencies in the plan and work with the Department to 127651
complete an acceptable plan. "Select large urban districts" are 127652
those districts that connect to the state broadband backbone 127653
directly rather than through an information technology center. At 127654
the request of the Superintendent of Public Instruction, the 127655
Director of Budget and Management may authorize the expenditure in 127656
fiscal year 2015 of any unexpended and unencumbered portion of 127657
this set-aside at the end of fiscal year 2014. The authorized 127658
expenditure is hereby reappropriated to the Department for the 127659
same purpose for fiscal year 2015.127660

       The remainder of appropriation item 200426, Ohio Educational 127661
Computer Network, shall be used to support the work of the 127662
development, maintenance, and operation of a network of uniform 127663
and compatible computer-based information and instructional 127664
systems as well as the teacher student linkage/roster verification 127665
process and the eTranscript/student records exchange initiative. 127666
This technical assistance shall include, but not be restricted to, 127667
development and maintenance of adequate computer software systems 127668
to support network activities. In order to improve the efficiency 127669
of network activities, the Department and information technology 127670
centers may jointly purchase equipment, materials, and services 127671
from funds provided under this appropriation for use by the 127672
network and, when considered practical by the Department, may 127673
utilize the services of appropriate state purchasing agencies.127674

       Section 263.80. ACADEMIC STANDARDS127675

       The foregoing appropriation item 200427, Academic Standards, 127676
shall be used by the Department of Education to develop, revise, 127677
and communicate to school districts academic content standards and 127678
curriculum models and to develop professional development programs 127679
and other tools on the new content standards and model curriculum.127680

       Section 263.90. STUDENT ASSESSMENT127681

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200437, Student 127682
Assessment, up to $95,000 in each fiscal year may be used to 127683
support the assessments required under section 3301.0715 of the 127684
Revised Code.127685

       The remainder of appropriation item 200437, Student 127686
Assessment, shall be used to develop, field test, print, 127687
distribute, score, report results, and support other associated 127688
costs for the tests required under sections 3301.0710, 3301.0711, 127689
and 3301.0712 of the Revised Code and for similar purposes as 127690
required by section 3301.27 of the Revised Code. The funds may 127691
also be used to update and develop diagnostic assessments required 127692
under sections 3301.079, 3301.0715, and 3313.608 of the Revised 127693
Code.127694

       DEPARTMENT OF EDUCATION APPROPRIATION TRANSFERS FOR STUDENT 127695
ASSESSMENT127696

       In fiscal year 2014 and fiscal year 2015, if the 127697
Superintendent of Public Instruction determines that additional 127698
funds are needed to fully fund the requirements of sections 127699
3301.0710, 3301.0711, 3301.0712, and 3301.27 of the Revised Code 127700
and this act for assessments of student performance, the 127701
Superintendent of Public Instruction may recommend the 127702
reallocation of unexpended and unencumbered General Revenue Fund 127703
appropriations within the Department of Education to appropriation 127704
item 200437, Student Assessment, to the Director of Budget and 127705
Management. If the Director of Budget and Management determines 127706
that such a reallocation is required, the Director of Budget and 127707
Management may transfer unexpended and unencumbered appropriations 127708
within the Department of Education as necessary to appropriation 127709
item 200437, Student Assessment. If these transferred 127710
appropriations are not sufficient to fully fund the assessment 127711
requirements in fiscal year 2014 or fiscal year 2015, the 127712
Superintendent of Public Instruction may request that the 127713
Controlling Board transfer up to $9,000,000 cash from the Lottery 127714
Profits Education Reserve Fund (Fund 7018) to the General Revenue 127715
Fund. Upon approval of the Controlling Board, the Director of 127716
Budget and Management shall transfer the cash. These transferred 127717
funds are hereby appropriated for the same purpose as 127718
appropriation item 200437, Student Assessment.127719

       Section 263.100.  Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in 127720
sections 3301.0710 and 3301.0711 of the Revised Code, in the 127721
2013-2014 school year, the Department of Education shall not 127722
furnish, and school districts and schools shall not administer, 127723
the elementary writing and social studies achievement assessments 127724
prescribed by section 3301.0710 of the Revised Code, unless the 127725
Superintendent of Public Instruction determines the Department has 127726
sufficient funds to pay the costs of furnishing and scoring those 127727
assessments.127728

       Section 263.110. ACCOUNTABILITY/REPORT CARDS127729

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200439, 127730
Accountability/Report Cards, a portion in each fiscal year may be 127731
used to train district and regional specialists and district 127732
educators in the use of the value-added progress dimension and in 127733
the use of data as it relates to improving student achievement. 127734
This training may include teacher and administrator professional 127735
development in the use of data to improve instruction and student 127736
learning, and teacher and administrator training in understanding 127737
teacher value-added reports and how they can be used as a 127738
component in measuring teacher and administrator effectiveness. A 127739
portion of this funding may be provided to a credible nonprofit 127740
organization with expertise in value-added progress dimensions.127741

       The remainder of appropriation item 200439, 127742
Accountability/Report Cards, shall be used by the Department to 127743
incorporate a statewide value-added progress dimension into 127744
performance ratings for school districts and for the development 127745
of an accountability system that includes the preparation and 127746
distribution of school report cards, funding and expenditure 127747
accountability reports under sections 3302.03 and 3302.031 of the 127748
Revised Code, and the development and maintenance of teacher 127749
value-added reports.127750

       CHILD CARE LICENSING127751

       The foregoing appropriation item 200442, Child Care 127752
Licensing, shall be used by the Department of Education to license 127753
and to inspect preschool and school-age child care programs under 127754
sections 3301.52 to 3301.59 of the Revised Code.127755

       Section 263.120. EDUCATION MANAGEMENT INFORMATION SYSTEM127756

       The foregoing appropriation item 200446, Education Management 127757
Information System, shall be used by the Department of Education 127758
to improve the Education Management Information System (EMIS).127759

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200446, Education 127760
Management Information System, up to $729,000 in each fiscal year 127761
shall be distributed to designated information technology centers 127762
for costs relating to processing, storing, and transferring data 127763
for the effective operation of the EMIS. These costs may include, 127764
but are not limited to, personnel, hardware, software development, 127765
communications connectivity, professional development, and support 127766
services, and to provide services to participate in the State 127767
Education Technology Plan developed under section 3353.09 of the 127768
Revised Code.127769

       The remainder of appropriation item 200446, Education 127770
Management Information System, shall be used to develop and 127771
support a common core of data definitions and standards as adopted 127772
by the Education Management Information System Advisory Board, 127773
including the ongoing development and maintenance of the data 127774
dictionary and data warehouse. In addition, such funds shall be 127775
used to support the development and implementation of data 127776
standards; the design, development, and implementation of a new 127777
data exchange system; and responsibilities related to the school 127778
report cards prescribed by section 3302.03 of the Revised Code and 127779
value-added progress dimension calculations.127780

       Any provider of software meeting the standards approved by 127781
the Education Management Information System Advisory Board shall 127782
be designated as an approved vendor and may enter into contracts 127783
with local school districts, community schools, STEMS schools, 127784
information technology centers, or other educational entities for 127785
the purpose of collecting and managing data required under Ohio's 127786
education management information system (EMIS) laws. On an annual 127787
basis, the Department of Education shall convene an advisory group 127788
of school districts, community schools, and other 127789
education-related entities to review the Education Management 127790
Information System data definitions and data format standards. The 127791
advisory group shall recommend changes and enhancements based upon 127792
surveys of its members, education agencies in other states, and 127793
current industry practices, to reflect best practices, align with 127794
federal initiatives, and meet the needs of school districts.127795

       School districts, STEM schools, and community schools not 127796
implementing a common and uniform set of data definitions and data 127797
format standards for Education Management Information System 127798
purposes shall have all EMIS funding withheld until they are in 127799
compliance.127800

       Section 263.130. GED TESTING127801

       The foregoing appropriation item 200447, GED Testing, shall 127802
be used to provide General Educational Development (GED) testing 127803
under rules adopted by the State Board of Education.127804

       Section 263.140. EDUCATOR PREPARATION127805

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200448, Educator 127806
Preparation, up to $500,000 in each fiscal year may be used by the 127807
Department of Education to monitor and support Ohio's State System 127808
of Support in accordance with the "No Child Left Behind Act of 127809
2011," 20 U.S.C. 6317, as administered pursuant to the Elementary 127810
and Secondary Education Act flexibility waivers approved for Ohio 127811
by the United States Department of Education.127812

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200448, Educator 127813
Preparation, up to $100,000 in each fiscal year may be used by the 127814
Department to support the Educator Standards Board under section 127815
3319.61 of the Revised Code and reforms under sections 3302.042, 127816
3302.06 through 3302.068, 3302.12, 3302.20 through 3302.22, and 127817
3319.58 of the Revised Code.127818

       The remainder of the foregoing appropriation item 200448, 127819
Educator Preparation, in fiscal year 2015 may be used for 127820
implementation of teacher and principal evaluation systems, 127821
including incorporation of student growth as a metric in those 127822
systems, and teacher value-added reports.127823

       Section 263.150. COMMUNITY SCHOOLS AND CHOICE PROGRAMS127824

       The foregoing appropriation item 200455, Community Schools 127825
and Choice Programs, may be used by the Department of Education 127826
for additional services and responsibilities under section 3314.11 127827
of the Revised Code and for operation of the school choice 127828
programs.127829

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200455, Community Schools 127830
and Choice Programs, a portion in each fiscal year may be used by 127831
the Department of Education for developing and conducting training 127832
sessions for community schools and sponsors and prospective 127833
sponsors of community schools as prescribed in division (A)(1) of 127834
section 3314.015 of the Revised Code, and other schools 127835
participating in school choice programs.127836

       Section 263.160.  TECHNOLOGY INTEGRATION AND PROFESSIONAL 127837
DEVELOPMENT127838

       The foregoing appropriation item 200465, Technology 127839
Integration and Professional Development, shall be used by the 127840
Department of Education to contract with educational television 127841
stations and education technology centers to provide Ohio public 127842
schools with instructional resources and services, with priority 127843
given to resources and services aligned with state academic 127844
content standards. Such resources and services shall be based upon 127845
the advice and approval of the Department, based on a formula used 127846
by the former eTech Ohio Commission unless and until a substitute 127847
formula is developed in consultation with the Ohio Board of 127848
Regents.127849

       Section 263.163. READY TO LEARN127850

       The Department of Education shall distribute the foregoing 127851
appropriation item 200468, Ready to Learn, to contract with 127852
eligible providers of early childhood education programs under 127853
this section. 127854

       (A) As used in this section:127855

       (1) "Eligible provider" means a private early childhood 127856
education program provider that meets at least the third highest 127857
rating level in the tiered quality rating and improvement system 127858
developed under section 5104.30 of the Revised Code or a public 127859
early childhood education provider.127860

       (2) "Eligible child" means a child who is at least three 127861
years of age as of the district entry date for kindergarten, is 127862
not enrolled in kindergarten, and whose family earns not more than 127863
two hundred per cent of the federal poverty guidelines as defined 127864
in division (A)(3) of section 5101.46 of the Revised Code.127865

       (3) "Early learning program standards" means early learning 127866
program standards for school readiness developed by the Department 127867
to assess the operation of early learning programs.127868

       (B) The Department shall distribute funding to eligible 127869
providers on a per-pupil basis. The per-pupil amount shall be such 127870
that funding is provided for 2,200 eligible children in each 127871
fiscal year. The Department shall distribute funding so that at 127872
least three eligible children are funded in each county.127873

       (C) Each early childhood education program receiving funding 127874
under this section shall do all of the following:127875

       (1) Meet teacher qualification requirements prescribed by 127876
section 3301.311 of the Revised Code;127877

       (2) Align curriculum to the early learning content standards 127878
developed by the Department;127879

       (3) Meet any child or program assessment requirements 127880
prescribed by the Department;127881

       (4) Require teachers, except teachers enrolled and working to 127882
obtain a degree pursuant to section 3301.311 of the Revised Code, 127883
to attend a minimum of twenty hours every two years of 127884
professional development as prescribed by the Department;127885

       (5) Document and report child progress as prescribed by the 127886
Department;127887

       (6) Meet and report compliance with the early learning 127888
program standards as prescribed by the Department;127889

       (7) Participate in the tiered quality rating and improvement 127890
system developed under section 5104.30 of the Revised Code.127891

       Section 263.170. PUPIL TRANSPORTATION127892

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200502, Pupil 127893
Transportation, up to $838,930 in each fiscal year may be used by 127894
the Department of Education for training prospective and 127895
experienced school bus drivers in accordance with training 127896
programs prescribed by the Department. Up to $60,469,220 in each 127897
fiscal year may be used by the Department of Education for special 127898
education transportation reimbursements to school districts and 127899
county DD boards for transportation operating costs as provided in 127900
divisions (C) and (F) of section 3317.024 of the Revised Code. Up 127901
to $5,000,000 in fiscal year 2014 may be used by the Department of 127902
Education to reimburse school districts that make payments to 127903
parents in lieu of transportation under section 3327.02 of the 127904
Revised Code and whose transportation is not funded under division 127905
(C) of section 3317.024 of the Revised Code.127906

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200502, Pupil 127907
Transportation, up to $25,300,000 in fiscal year 2014 and up to 127908
$23,100,000 in fiscal year 2015 shall be used for additional 127909
transportation aid for school districts as provided by division 127910
(G)(2) of section 3317.0212 of the Revised Code, as amended by 127911
this act. The Department shall pay each school district a pro rata 127912
portion of the amounts calculated so that the amount appropriated 127913
is not exceeded.127914

       The remainder of appropriation item 200502, Pupil 127915
Transportation, shall be used to distribute the amounts calculated 127916
for transportation aid under division (G)(1) of section 3317.0212 127917
of the Revised Code, as amended by this act.127918

       Section 263.180. SCHOOL LUNCH MATCH127919

       The foregoing appropriation item 200505, School Lunch Match, 127920
shall be used to provide matching funds to obtain federal funds 127921
for the school lunch program.127922

       Any remaining appropriation after providing matching funds 127923
for the school lunch program may be used to partially reimburse 127924
school buildings within school districts that are required to have 127925
a school breakfast program under section 3313.813 of the Revised 127926
Code, at a rate decided by the Department.127927

       Section 263.190. AUXILIARY SERVICES127928

       The foregoing appropriation item 200511, Auxiliary Services, 127929
shall be used by the Department of Education for the purpose of 127930
implementing section 3317.06 of the Revised Code. Of the 127931
appropriation, up to $1,888,106 in fiscal year 2014 and up to 127932
$1,944,949 in fiscal year 2015 may be used for payment of the 127933
Post-Secondary Enrollment Program for nonpublic students, except 127934
that in fiscal year 2014 the Department may spend above the 127935
set-aside to pay for outstanding obligations for the 127936
Post-Secondary Enrollment Options Program in fiscal year 2013.127937

       Section 263.200. NONPUBLIC ADMINISTRATIVE COST REIMBURSEMENT127938

       The foregoing appropriation item 200532, Nonpublic 127939
Administrative Cost Reimbursement, shall be used by the Department 127940
of Education for the purpose of implementing section 3317.063 of 127941
the Revised Code.127942

       Section 263.210. SPECIAL EDUCATION ENHANCEMENTS127943

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200540, Special Education 127944
Enhancements, up to $50,000,000 in each fiscal year shall be used 127945
to fund special education and related services at county boards of 127946
developmental disabilities for eligible students under section 127947
3317.20 of the Revised Code and at institutions for eligible 127948
students under section 3317.201 of the Revised Code. If necessary, 127949
the Department shall proportionately reduce the amount calculated 127950
for each county board of developmental disabilities and 127951
institution so as not to exceed the amount appropriated in each 127952
fiscal year.127953

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200540, Special Education 127954
Enhancements, up to $1,333,468 in each fiscal year shall be used 127955
for parent mentoring programs.127956

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200540, Special Education 127957
Enhancements, up to $2,537,824 in each fiscal year may be used for 127958
school psychology interns.127959

        The remainder of appropriation item 200540, Special Education 127960
Enhancements, shall be distributed by the Department of Education 127961
to school districts and institutions, as defined in section 127962
3323.091 of the Revised Code, for preschool special education 127963
funding under section 3317.0213 of the Revised Code. If necessary, 127964
the Department shall proportionately reduce the amount calculated 127965
for each school district and institution so as not to exceed the 127966
amount appropriated in each fiscal year.127967

       The Department may reimburse school districts and 127968
institutions for services provided by instructional assistants, 127969
related services as defined in rule 3301-51-11 of the 127970
Administrative Code, physical therapy services provided by a 127971
licensed physical therapist or physical therapist assistant under 127972
the supervision of a licensed physical therapist as required under 127973
Chapter 4755. of the Revised Code and Chapter 4755-27 of the 127974
Administrative Code and occupational therapy services provided by 127975
a licensed occupational therapist or occupational therapy 127976
assistant under the supervision of a licensed occupational 127977
therapist as required under Chapter 4755. of the Revised Code and 127978
Chapter 4755-7 of the Administrative Code. Nothing in this section 127979
authorizes occupational therapy assistants or physical therapist 127980
assistants to generate or manage their own caseloads.127981

       The Department of Education shall require school districts, 127982
educational service centers, county DD boards, and institutions 127983
serving preschool children with disabilities to adhere to Ohio's 127984
early learning program standards, participate in the tiered 127985
quality rating and improvement system developed under section 127986
5104.30 of the Revised Code, and document child progress using 127987
research-based indicators prescribed by the Department and report 127988
results annually. The reporting dates and method shall be 127989
determined by the Department. Effective July 1, 2018, all programs 127990
shall be rated through the tiered quality rating and improvement 127991
system.127992

       Section 263.220. CAREER-TECHNICAL EDUCATION ENHANCEMENTS127993

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200545, Career-Technical 127994
Education Enhancements, up to $2,563,568 in each fiscal year shall 127995
be used to fund secondary career-technical education at 127996
institutions using a grant-based methodology, notwithstanding 127997
section 3317.05 of the Revised Code.127998

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200545, Career-Technical 127999
Education Enhancements, up to $2,838,281 in each fiscal year shall 128000
be used by the Department of Education to fund competitive grants 128001
to tech prep consortia that expand the number of students enrolled 128002
in tech prep programs. These grant funds shall be used to directly 128003
support expanded tech prep programs provided to students enrolled 128004
in school districts, including joint vocational school districts, 128005
and affiliated higher education institutions. This support may 128006
include the purchase of equipment.128007

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200545, Career-Technical 128008
Education Enhancements, up to $3,100,850 in each fiscal year shall 128009
be used by the Department of Education to support existing High 128010
Schools That Work (HSTW) sites, develop and support new sites, 128011
fund technical assistance, and support regional centers and middle 128012
school programs. The purpose of HSTW is to combine challenging 128013
academic courses and modern career-technical studies to raise the 128014
academic achievement of students. HSTW provides intensive 128015
technical assistance, focused staff development, targeted 128016
assessment services, and ongoing communications and networking 128017
opportunities.128018

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200545, Career-Technical 128019
Education Enhancements, up to $300,000 in each fiscal year shall 128020
be used by the Department of Education to enable students in 128021
agricultural programs to enroll in a fifth quarter of instruction 128022
based on the agricultural education model of delivering work-based 128023
learning through supervised agricultural experience. The 128024
Department of Education shall determine eligibility criteria and 128025
the reporting process for the Agriculture 5th Quarter Project and 128026
shall fund as many programs as possible given the set aside.128027

       Of the foregoing appropriation item, 200545, Career-Technical 128028
Education Enhancements, up to $162,200 in each fiscal year shall 128029
be distributed to the Cleveland Municipal School District and the 128030
Cincinnati City School District to be used for a VoAg Program in 128031
one at-risk nonvocational school in each district. The amount 128032
distributed to the Cleveland Municipal School District shall be 128033
equal to $78,600 minus the funding allocated to the district under 128034
division (A)(8) of section 3317.022 of the Revised Code for the 128035
students participating in the program. The amount distributed to 128036
the Cincinnati City School District shall be equal to $83,600 128037
minus the funding allocated to the district under section 3317.162 128038
of the Revised Code for the students participating in the program.128039

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200545, Career-Technical 128040
Education Enhancements, $108,100 in each fiscal year shall be used 128041
to prepare students for careers in culinary arts and restaurant 128042
management under the Ohio ProStart school restaurant program.128043

       Section 263.230. FOUNDATION FUNDING128044

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200550, Foundation 128045
Funding, up to $675,000 in each fiscal year shall be used to 128046
support the work of the College of Education and Human Ecology at 128047
the Ohio State University in reviewing and assessing the alignment 128048
of courses offered through the distance learning clearinghouse 128049
established in sections 3333.81 to 3333.88 of the Revised Code 128050
with the academic content standards adopted under division (A) of 128051
section 3301.079 of the Revised Code.128052

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200550, Foundation 128053
Funding, up to $40,000,000 in each fiscal year shall be used to 128054
provide additional state aid to school districts, joint vocational 128055
school districts, community schools, and STEM schools for special 128056
education students under division (C)(3) of section 3314.08, 128057
section 3317.0214, division (B) of section 3317.16, and section 128058
3326.34 of the Revised Code, except that the Controlling Board may 128059
increase these amounts if presented with such a request from the 128060
Department of Education at the final meeting of the fiscal year.128061

        Of the foregoing appropriation item 200550, Foundation 128062
Funding, up to $2,000,000 in each fiscal year shall be reserved 128063
for Youth Services tuition payments under section 3317.024 of the 128064
Revised Code.128065

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200550, Foundation 128066
Funding, up to $3,800,000 in each fiscal year shall be used to 128067
fund gifted education at educational service centers. The 128068
Department shall distribute the funding through the unit-based 128069
funding methodology in place under division (L) of section 128070
3317.024, division (E) of section 3317.05, and divisions (A), (B), 128071
and (C) of section 3317.053 of the Revised Code as they existed 128072
prior to fiscal year 2010.128073

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200550, Foundation 128074
Funding, up to $43,500,000 in fiscal year 2014 and up to 128075
$40,000,000 in fiscal year 2015 shall be reserved to fund the 128076
state reimbursement of educational service centers under the 128077
section of this act entitled "EDUCATIONAL SERVICE CENTERS 128078
FUNDING"; and up to $3,500,000 in each fiscal year shall be 128079
distributed to educational service centers for School Improvement 128080
Initiatives and, in consultation with the Governor's Director of 128081
21st Century Education, for the provision of technical assistance 128082
as required by the Elementary and Secondary Education Act 128083
Flexibility waivers approved for Ohio by the United States 128084
Department of Education. Educational service centers shall be 128085
required to support districts in the development and 128086
implementation of their continuous improvement plans as required 128087
in section 3302.04 of the Revised Code and to provide technical 128088
assistance and support in accordance with Title I of the "No Child 128089
Left Behind Act of 2001," 115 Stat. 1425, 20 U.S.C. 6317, as 128090
administered pursuant to the Elementary and Secondary Education 128091
Act Flexibility waivers approved for Ohio by the United States 128092
Department of Education. 128093

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200550, Foundation 128094
Funding, up to $20,000,000 in each fiscal year shall be reserved 128095
for payments under sections 3317.026, 3317.027, and 3317.028 of 128096
the Revised Code. If this amount is not sufficient, the Department 128097
of Education shall prorate the payment amounts so that the 128098
aggregate amount allocated in this paragraph is not exceeded.128099

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200550, Foundation 128100
Funding, up to $2,000,000 in each fiscal year shall be used to pay 128101
career-technical planning districts for the amounts reimbursed to 128102
students, as prescribed in this paragraph. Each career-technical 128103
planning district shall reimburse individuals taking the online 128104
General Educational Development (GED) test for the first time for 128105
application/test fees in excess of $40. Each career-technical 128106
planning district shall designate a site or sites where 128107
individuals may register and take the exam. For each individual 128108
that registers for the exam, the career-technical planning 128109
district shall make available and offer career counseling 128110
services, including information on adult education programs that 128111
are available.128112

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200550, Foundation 128113
Funding, up to $410,000 in each fiscal year shall be used to pay 128114
career-technical planning districts $500 for each student that 128115
receives a journeyman certification, as recognized by the United 128116
States Department of Labor.128117

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200550, Foundation 128118
Funding, up to $18,713,327 in each fiscal year shall be used to 128119
support school choice programs.128120

       Of the portion of the funds distributed to the Cleveland 128121
Municipal School District under this section, up to $11,901,887 in 128122
each fiscal year shall be used to operate the school choice 128123
program in the Cleveland Municipal School District under sections 128124
3313.974 to 3313.979 of the Revised Code. Notwithstanding 128125
divisions (B) and (C) of section 3313.978 and division (C) of 128126
section 3313.979 of the Revised Code, up to $1,000,000 in each 128127
fiscal year of this amount shall be used by the Cleveland 128128
Municipal School District to provide tutorial assistance as 128129
provided in division (H) of section 3313.974 of the Revised Code. 128130
The Cleveland Municipal School District shall report the use of 128131
these funds in the district's three-year continuous improvement 128132
plan as described in section 3302.04 of the Revised Code in a 128133
manner approved by the Department of Education.128134

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200550, Foundation 128135
Funding, up to $2,000,000 in each fiscal year shall be used to pay 128136
college-preparatory boarding schools the per pupil boarding amount 128137
pursuant to section 3328.34 of the Revised Code.128138

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200550, Foundation 128139
Funding, up to $500,000 in each fiscal year shall be used to 128140
support Jobs for Ohio's Graduates.128141

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200550, Foundation 128142
Funding, up to $250,000 in fiscal year 2015 may be used for 128143
payment of the Post-Secondary Enrollment Options Program for 128144
students instructed at home pursuant to section 3321.04 of the 128145
Revised Code.128146

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200550, Foundation 128147
Funding, an amount shall be available in each fiscal year to be 128148
paid to joint vocational school districts in accordance with 128149
division (A) of section 3317.16 of the Revised Code and the 128150
section of this act entitled "TEMPORARY TRANSITIONAL AID FOR JOINT 128151
VOCATIONAL SCHOOL DISTRICTS."128152

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200550, Foundation 128153
Funding, up to $700,000 in each fiscal year shall be used by the 128154
Department of Education for a program to pay for educational 128155
services for youth who have been assigned by a juvenile court or 128156
other authorized agency to any of the facilities described in 128157
division (A) of the section of this act entitled "PRIVATE 128158
TREATMENT FACILITY PROJECT."128159

       The remainder of appropriation item 200550, Foundation 128160
Funding, shall be used to distribute the amounts calculated for 128161
formula aid under section 3317.022 of the Revised Code and the 128162
section of this act entitled "TEMPORARY TRANSITIONAL AID FOR CITY, 128163
LOCAL, AND EXEMPTED VILLAGE SCHOOL DISTRICTS."128164

       Appropriation items 200502, Pupil Transportation, 200540, 128165
Special Education Enhancements, and 200550, Foundation Funding, 128166
other than specific set-asides, are collectively used in each 128167
fiscal year to pay state formula aid obligations for school 128168
districts, community schools, STEM schools, college preparatory 128169
boarding schools, and joint vocational school districts under this 128170
act. The first priority of these appropriation items, with the 128171
exception of specific set-asides, is to fund state formula aid 128172
obligations. It may be necessary to reallocate funds among these 128173
appropriation items or use excess funds from other general revenue 128174
fund appropriation items in the Department of Education's budget 128175
in each fiscal year, in order to meet state formula aid 128176
obligations. If it is determined that it is necessary to transfer 128177
funds among these appropriation items or to transfer funds from 128178
other General Revenue Fund appropriations in the Department of 128179
Education's budget to meet state formula aid obligations, the 128180
Department of Education shall seek approval from the Controlling 128181
Board to transfer funds as needed.128182

       The Superintendent of Public Instruction shall make payments, 128183
transfers, and deductions, as authorized by Title XXXIII of the 128184
Revised Code and Sections 267.30.50, 267.30.53, 267.30.56, and 128185
267.30.60 of Am. Sub. H.B. 153 of the 129th General Assembly, in 128186
amounts substantially equal to those made in the prior year, or 128187
otherwise, at the discretion of the Superintendent, until at least 128188
the effective date of the amendments and enactments made to Title 128189
XXXIII by this act. If a new school district, community school, or 128190
STEM school opens prior to the effective date of this act, the 128191
Department of Education shall pay to the district or school an 128192
amount of $5,000 per pupil, based upon the estimated number of 128193
students that the district or school is expected to serve. Any 128194
funds paid to districts or schools under this section shall be 128195
credited toward the annual funds calculated for the district or 128196
school after the changes made to Title XXXIII in this act are 128197
effective. Upon the effective date of changes made to Title XXXIII 128198
in this act, funds shall be calculated as an annual amount.128199

       Section 263.240. TEMPORARY TRANSITIONAL AID FOR CITY, LOCAL, 128200
AND EXEMPTED VILLAGE SCHOOL DISTRICTS128201

        The Department of Education shall distribute funds within 128202
appropriation item 200550, Foundation Funding, for temporary 128203
transitional aid in each fiscal year to each qualifying city, 128204
local, and exempted village school district.128205

       (A) For fiscal years 2014 and 2015, the Department shall pay 128206
temporary transitional aid to each city, local, or exempted 128207
village school district that experiences any decrease in its state 128208
foundation funding for the current fiscal year from its 128209
transitional aid guarantee base. The amount of the temporary 128210
transitional aid payment shall equal the difference between its 128211
foundation funding for the current fiscal year and its 128212
transitional aid guarantee base. If the computation made under 128213
this division results in a negative number, the district's funding 128214
under this division shall be zero.128215

       (1) As used in this section, foundation funding for each 128216
city, local, and exempted village school district for a given 128217
fiscal year equals the sum of the amount calculated for the 128218
district under section 3317.022 of the Revised Code, as re-enacted 128219
by this act, and the amounts calculated for the district under 128220
divisions (G)(1) and (2) of section 3317.0212 of the Revised Code, 128221
as amended by this act, for that fiscal year.128222

       (2) The transitional aid guarantee base for each city, local, 128223
and exempted village school district equals the sum of the amounts 128224
computed for the district for fiscal year 2013, under Sections 128225
267.30.50, 267.30.53, and 267.30.56 of Am. Sub. H.B. 153 of the 128226
129th General Assembly.128227

       (B)(1) Notwithstanding section 3317.022 of the Revised Code, 128228
as re-enacted by this act, in fiscal year 2014, no city, local, or 128229
exempted village school district shall be allocated foundation 128230
funding that is greater than 1.06 times the district's 128231
transitional aid guarantee base.128232

       (2) Notwithstanding section 3317.022 of the Revised Code, as 128233
re-enacted by this act, in fiscal year 2015, no city, local, or 128234
exempted village school district shall be allocated foundation 128235
funding that is greater than 1.06 times the amount computed for 128236
foundation funding for the district for fiscal year 2014 plus any 128237
amount calculated for temporary transitional aid for fiscal year 128238
2014 under division (A) of this section and after any reductions 128239
made for fiscal year 2014 under division (B)(1) of this section.128240

        (3) The Department shall reduce a district's payments under 128241
divisions (A)(1), (2), (4), (5), (6), and (7) of section 3317.022 128242
of the Revised Code, as re-enacted by this act, and divisions 128243
(G)(1) and (2) of section 3317.0212 of the Revised Code, as 128244
amended by this act, proportionately as necessary in order to 128245
comply with this division. If those amounts are insufficient, the 128246
Department shall proportionately reduce a district's payments 128247
under divisions (A)(3), (8), and (9) of section 3317.022 of the 128248
Revised Code, as re-enacted by this act.128249

       Section 263.250.  TEMPORARY TRANSITIONAL AID FOR JOINT 128250
VOCATIONAL SCHOOL DISTRICTS128251

       The Department of Education shall distribute funds within 128252
appropriation item 200550, Foundation Funding, for temporary 128253
transitional aid in each fiscal year to each qualifying joint 128254
vocational school district.128255

       (A) For fiscal years 2014 and 2015, the Department shall pay 128256
temporary transitional aid to each joint vocational school 128257
district that experiences any decrease in its state core 128258
foundation funding under division (A) of section 3317.16 of the 128259
Revised Code, as re-enacted by this act, for the current fiscal 128260
year from its transitional aid guarantee base. The amount of the 128261
temporary transitional aid payment shall equal the difference 128262
between the district's funding under division (A) of section 128263
3317.16 of the Revised Code for the current fiscal year and its 128264
transitional aid guarantee base. If the computation made under 128265
this division results in a negative number, the district's funding 128266
under this division shall be zero.128267

       The transitional aid guarantee base for each joint vocational 128268
school district equals the amount computed for the district for 128269
fiscal year 2013, under Section 267.30.60 of Am. Sub. H.B. 153 of 128270
the 129th General Assembly.128271

       (B)(1) Notwithstanding division (A) of section 3317.16 of the 128272
Revised Code, as re-enacted by this act, in fiscal year 2014, no 128273
joint vocational school district shall be allocated state core 128274
foundation funding, as computed under division (A) of section 128275
3317.16 of the Revised Code, as re-enacted by this act, that is 128276
greater than 1.06 times the district's transitional aid guarantee 128277
base.128278

       (2) Notwithstanding division (A) of section 3317.16 of the 128279
Revised Code, as re-enacted by this act, in fiscal year 2015, no 128280
joint vocational school district shall be allocated state core 128281
foundation funding, under division (A) of section 3317.16 of the 128282
Revised Code, as re-enacted by this act, that is greater than 1.06 128283
times the amount computed for state core foundation funding for 128284
the district for fiscal year 2014 under division (A) of section 128285
3317.16 of the Revised Code, as re-enacted by this act, plus any 128286
amount calculated for temporary transitional aid for fiscal year 128287
2014 under division (A) of this section and after any reductions 128288
made for fiscal year 2014 under division (B)(1) of this section.128289

       (3) The Department shall reduce a district's payments under 128290
divisions (A)(1), (3), and (4) of section 3317.16 of the Revised 128291
Code, as re-enacted by this act, proportionately as necessary in 128292
order to comply with this division. If those amounts are 128293
insufficient, the Department shall proportionately reduce a 128294
district's payments under divisions (A)(2), (5), and (6) of 128295
section 3317.16 of the Revised Code, as re-enacted by this act.128296

       Section 263.260. PROPERTY TAX ALLOCATION - EDUCATION128297

       The Superintendent of Public Instruction shall not request, 128298
and the Controlling Board shall not approve, the transfer of 128299
appropriation from appropriation item 200901, Property Tax 128300
Allocation - Education, to any other appropriation item.128301

       The appropriation item 200901, Property Tax Allocation - 128302
Education, is appropriated to pay for the state's costs incurred 128303
because of the homestead exemption, the property tax rollback, and 128304
payments required under division (C) of section 5705.2110 of the 128305
Revised Code. In cooperation with the Department of Taxation, the 128306
Department of Education shall distribute these funds directly to 128307
the appropriate school districts of the state, notwithstanding 128308
sections 321.24 and 323.156 of the Revised Code, which provide for 128309
payment of the homestead exemption and property tax rollback by 128310
the Tax Commissioner to the appropriate county treasurer and the 128311
subsequent redistribution of these funds to the appropriate local 128312
taxing districts by the county auditor.128313

       Upon receipt of these amounts, each school district shall 128314
distribute the amount among the proper funds as if it had been 128315
paid as real or tangible personal property taxes. Payments for the 128316
costs of administration shall continue to be paid to the county 128317
treasurer and county auditor as provided for in sections 319.54, 128318
321.26, and 323.156 of the Revised Code.128319

       Any sums, in addition to the amount specifically appropriated 128320
in appropriation items 200901, Property Tax Allocation - 128321
Education, for the homestead exemption and the property tax 128322
rollback payments, and payments required under division (C) of 128323
section 5705.2110 of the Revised Code, which are determined to be 128324
necessary for these purposes, are hereby appropriated.128325

       Section 263.270. TEACHER CERTIFICATION AND LICENSURE128326

       The foregoing appropriation item 200681, Teacher 128327
Certification and Licensure, shall be used by the Department of 128328
Education in each year of the biennium to administer and support 128329
teacher certification and licensure activities.128330

       SCHOOL DISTRICT SOLVENCY ASSISTANCE128331

       (A) Of the foregoing appropriation item 200687, School 128332
District Solvency Assistance, $20,000,000 in each fiscal year 128333
shall be allocated to the School District Shared Resource Account 128334
and $5,000,000 in each fiscal year shall be allocated to the 128335
Catastrophic Expenditures Account. These funds shall be used to 128336
provide assistance and grants to school districts to enable them 128337
to remain solvent under section 3316.20 of the Revised Code. 128338
Assistance and grants shall be subject to approval by the 128339
Controlling Board. Except as provided under division (C) of this 128340
section, any required reimbursements from school districts for 128341
solvency assistance shall be made to the appropriate account in 128342
the School District Solvency Assistance Fund (Fund 5H30).128343

       (B) Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, 128344
upon the request of the Superintendent of Public Instruction, the 128345
Director of Budget and Management may make transfers to the School 128346
District Solvency Assistance Fund (Fund 5H30) from any fund used 128347
by the Department of Education or the General Revenue Fund to 128348
maintain sufficient cash balances in Fund 5H30 in fiscal years 128349
2014 and 2015. Any cash transferred is hereby appropriated. The 128350
transferred cash may be used by the Department of Education to 128351
provide assistance and grants to school districts to enable them 128352
to remain solvent and to pay unforeseeable expenses of a temporary 128353
or emergency nature that the school district is unable to pay from 128354
existing resources. The Director of Budget and Management shall 128355
notify the members of the Controlling Board of any such transfers.128356

        (C) If the cash balance of the School District Solvency 128357
Assistance Fund (Fund 5H30) is insufficient to pay solvency 128358
assistance in fiscal years 2014 and 2015, at the request of the 128359
Superintendent of Public Instruction, and with the approval of the 128360
Controlling Board, the Director of Budget and Management may 128361
transfer cash from the Lottery Profits Education Reserve Fund 128362
(Fund 7018) to Fund 5H30 to provide assistance and grants to 128363
school districts to enable them to remain solvent and to pay 128364
unforeseeable expenses of a temporary nature that they are unable 128365
to pay from existing resources under section 3316.20 of the 128366
Revised Code. Such transfers are hereby appropriated to 128367
appropriation item 200670, School District Solvency Assistance – 128368
Lottery. Any required reimbursements from school districts for 128369
solvency assistance granted from appropriation item 200670, School 128370
District Solvency Assistance – Lottery, shall be made to Fund 128371
7018.128372

       Section 263.280. SCHOOLS MEDICAID ADMINISTRATIVE CLAIMS128373

       Upon the request of the Superintendent of Public Instruction, 128374
the Director of Budget and Management may transfer up to $750,000 128375
cash in each fiscal year from the General Revenue Fund to the 128376
Schools Medicaid Administrative Claims Fund (Fund 3AF0). The 128377
transferred cash is to be used by the Department of Education to 128378
pay the expenses the Department incurs in administering the 128379
Medicaid School Component of the Medicaid program established 128380
under sections 5162.36 to 5162.364 of the Revised Code. On June 1 128381
of each fiscal year, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 128382
Director of Budget and Management shall transfer cash from Fund 128383
3AF0 back to the General Revenue Fund in an amount equal to the 128384
total amount transferred to Fund 3AF0 in that fiscal year.128385

       The money deposited into Fund 3AF0 under division (B) of 128386
section 5162.64 of the Revised Code is hereby appropriated for 128387
fiscal years 2014 and 2015 and shall be used in accordance with 128388
division (C) of section 5162.64 of the Revised Code.128389

       Section 263.290.  HALF-MILL MAINTENANCE EQUALIZATION128390

        The foregoing appropriation item 200626, Half-Mill 128391
Maintenance Equalization, shall be used to make payments pursuant 128392
to section 3318.18 of the Revised Code.128393

       Section 263.300.  GATES FOUNDATION GRANTS128394

       The foregoing appropriation item 200668, Gates Foundation 128395
Grants, shall be used by the Department of Education to provide 128396
professional development to school district principals, 128397
superintendents, and other administrative staff on the use of 128398
education technology. 128399

       Section 263.310. AUXILIARY SERVICES REIMBURSEMENT128400

       Notwithstanding section 3317.064 of the Revised Code, if the 128401
unexpended, unencumbered cash balance is sufficient, the Treasurer 128402
of State shall transfer $1,500,000 in fiscal year 2014 within 128403
thirty days after the effective date of this section, and 128404
$1,500,000 in fiscal year 2015 by August 1, 2014, from the 128405
Auxiliary Services Personnel Unemployment Compensation Fund to the 128406
Auxiliary Services Reimbursement Fund (Fund 5980) used by the 128407
Department of Education.128408

       Section 263.320. LOTTERY PROFITS EDUCATION FUND128409

       Appropriation item 200612, Foundation Funding (Fund 7017), 128410
shall be used in conjunction with appropriation item 200550, 128411
Foundation Funding (GRF), to provide state foundation payments to 128412
school districts.128413

       The Department of Education, with the approval of the 128414
Director of Budget and Management, shall determine the monthly 128415
distribution schedules of appropriation item 200550, Foundation 128416
Funding (GRF), and appropriation item 200612, Foundation Funding 128417
(Fund 7017). If adjustments to the monthly distribution schedule 128418
are necessary, the Department of Education shall make such 128419
adjustments with the approval of the Director of Budget and 128420
Management.128421

       STRAIGHT A FUND128422

       Of the foregoing appropriation item, 200648, Straight A Fund, 128423
up to $375,000 in each fiscal year shall be used to provide 128424
scholarships to parents of high needs children enrolled in the Get 128425
Ready for Kindergarten pilot program. These scholarships shall be 128426
administered as provided under the section of this act entitled 128427
"GET READY FOR KINDERGARTEN."128428

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200648, Straight A Fund, 128429
up to $500,000 in fiscal year 2014 and up to $3,000,000 in fiscal 128430
year 2015 shall be used for the New Leaders for Ohio Schools Pilot 128431
Project in accordance with Section 733.40 of this act.128432

       The remainder of appropriation item 200648, Straight A Fund, 128433
shall be used to make competitive grants in accordance with 128434
Section 263.325 of this act.128435

       EDCHOICE EXPANSION128436

       The foregoing appropriation item 200666, EdChoice Expansion, 128437
shall be used as follows:128438

       (A) In fiscal year 2014, notwithstanding section 3310.032 of 128439
the Revised Code, the Department of Education shall administer an 128440
expansion of the Educational Choice Scholarship program as 128441
follows:128442

        (1) A student is an "eligible student" for purposes of the 128443
expansion of the Educational Choice Scholarship Pilot Program 128444
under division (A) of this section if the student's resident 128445
district is not a school district in which the pilot project 128446
scholarship program is operating under sections 3313.974 to 128447
3313.979 of the Revised Code and the student's family income is at 128448
or below two hundred per cent of the federal poverty guidelines, 128449
as defined in section 5101.46 of the Revised Code.128450

       (2) The Department shall pay scholarships to attend chartered 128451
nonpublic schools in accordance with section 3310.08 of the 128452
Revised Code. The number of scholarships awarded under division 128453
(A) of this section shall not exceed the number that can be funded 128454
with appropriations made by the general assembly for this purpose.128455

       (3) Scholarships under division (A) of this section shall be 128456
awarded for the 2013-2014 school year, to eligible students who 128457
are entering kindergarten in that school year for the first time.128458

       (4) If the number of eligible students who apply for a 128459
scholarship exceeds the scholarships available based on the 128460
appropriation for division (A) of this section, the department 128461
shall award scholarships in the following order of priority:128462

       (a) First, to eligible students with family incomes at or 128463
below one hundred per cent of the federal poverty guidelines.128464

       (b) Second, to other eligible students who qualify under 128465
division (A) of this section. If the number of students described 128466
in division (A)(4)(b) of this section exceeds the number of 128467
available scholarships after awards are made under division 128468
(A)(4)(a) of this section, the department shall select students 128469
described in division (A)(4)(b) of this section by lot to receive 128470
any remaining scholarships.128471

       (5) A student who receives a scholarship under division (A) 128472
of this section remains an eligible student and may continue to 128473
receive scholarships under section 3310.032 of the Revised Code in 128474
subsequent school years until the student completes grade twelve, 128475
so long as the student satisfies the conditions specified in 128476
divisions (E)(2) and (3) of section 3310.03 of the Revised Code.128477

       Once a scholarship is awarded under this section, the student 128478
shall remain eligible for that scholarship for the current and 128479
subsequent school years, even if the student's family income rises 128480
above the amount specified in division (A) of section 3310.032 of 128481
the Revised Code, provided the student remains enrolled in a 128482
chartered nonpublic school.128483

       (B) In fiscal year 2015, to provide for the scholarships 128484
awarded under the expansion of the educational choice program 128485
established under section 3310.032 of the Revised Code. The number 128486
of scholarships awarded under the expansion of the educational 128487
choice program shall not exceed the number that can be funded with 128488
the appropriations made by the General Assembly for this purpose.128489

       COMMUNITY SCHOOL FACILITIES128490

       The foregoing appropriation item 200684, Community School 128491
Facilities, shall be used to pay each community school established 128492
under Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code that is not an internet- 128493
or computer-based community school an amount equal to $100 for 128494
each full-time equivalent pupil for assistance with the cost 128495
associated with facilities. If the amount appropriated is not 128496
sufficient, the Department of Education shall prorate the amounts 128497
so that the aggregate amount appropriated is not exceeded. 128498

       Section 263.323. GET READY FOR KINDERGARTEN128499

        (A) A preschool is an "eligible preschool" for the purposes 128500
of this section if the preschool has a quality rating in the top 128501
two tiers of the tiered rating improvement system developed under 128502
division (C)(3)(d) of section 5104.30 of the Revised Code.128503

        (B) The Department of Education shall provide scholarships to 128504
parents of high needs children to enroll in eligible preschools as 128505
defined in division (A) of this section.128506

        (C) Scholarships under this section shall be awarded to 128507
students who are at least age three but are not of compulsory 128508
school age, as defined in section 3321.01 of the Revised Code, and 128509
who are not currently enrolled in kindergarten. Students who 128510
receive scholarships under this section shall enroll in eligible 128511
preschools between July 1, 2013, and December 31, 2013.128512

       Section 263.325. (A) The Straight A Program is hereby created 128513
for fiscal years 2014 and 2015 to provide grants to city, local, 128514
exempted village, and joint vocational school districts, 128515
educational service centers, community schools established under 128516
Chapter 3314., STEM schools established under Chapter 3326., 128517
college-preparatory boarding schools established under Chapter 128518
3328. of the Revised Code, individual school buildings, and 128519
education consortia (which may represent a partnership among 128520
school districts, school buildings, community schools, or STEM 128521
schools to partner with institutions of higher education and 128522
private entities) for projects that aim to achieve at least the 128523
following goals:128524

       (1) Increased student achievement and progress;128525

       (2) Improved productivity;128526

       (3) Sustainable cost reduction of operations.128527

       (B)(1) Grants shall be awarded by an eight-member governing 128528
board consisting of the Superintendent of Public Instruction, or 128529
the Superintendent's designee, three members appointed by the 128530
Governor, two members appointed by the Speaker of the House of 128531
Representatives, and two members appointed by the President of the 128532
Senate. The Department of Education shall provide administrative 128533
support to the board. No member shall be compensated for the 128534
member's service on the board.128535

       (2) The board may establish an advisory council consisting of 128536
grant advisors with fiscal expertise and education expertise. 128537
These advisors shall evaluate proposals from grant applicants, 128538
consult with the governing board regarding strategic planning, and 128539
advise the staff administering the program. No advisor shall be 128540
compensated for this service.128541

       (3) The board shall issue an annual report to the Governor, 128542
the Speaker of the House of Representatives, the President of the 128543
Senate, and the chairpersons of the House and Senate committees 128544
that primarily deal with education regarding the types of grants 128545
awarded, the grant recipients, and the effectiveness of the grant 128546
program.128547

       (4) The board shall create a grant application and publish on 128548
the Department's web site the application and timeline for the 128549
submission, review, notification, and awarding of grant proposals.128550

        (5) With the approval of the board, the Department shall 128551
establish a system for evaluating and scoring the grant 128552
applications received under this section. The system shall give 128553
priority to applicants whose goals demonstrate particular attempts 128554
in achieving the following:128555

        (a) Cost reduction in the delivery of services;128556

        (b) Progress in improving literacy in grades kindergarten to 128557
three;128558

        (c) Achievement and progress for each subgroup of students 128559
specified under division (A) of section 3317.40 of the Revised 128560
Code;128561

        (d) Improving the performance measures included in the 128562
Prepared for Success components specified under division (B)(2) of 128563
section 3302.03 of the Revised Code;128564

        (e) Utilizing programs recognized as innovative under the 128565
federal Race to the Top program.128566

       (C) Each grant applicant shall submit a proposal that 128567
includes all of the following:128568

       (1) A description of the project for which the applicant is 128569
seeking a grant, including a description of how the project will 128570
have substantial value and lasting impact;128571

       (2) An explanation of how the project will be 128572
self-sustaining. If the project will result in increased ongoing 128573
spending, the applicant shall show how the spending will be offset 128574
by verifiable, credible, permanent spending reductions.128575

       (3) A description of quantifiable results of the project that 128576
can be benchmarked.128577

       If an education consortia described in division (A) of this 128578
section applies for a grant, the lead applicant shall be the 128579
school district, school building, community school, or STEM school 128580
that is a member of the consortia and shall so indicate on the 128581
grant application.128582

       (D)(1) Within seventy-five days after receiving a grant 128583
application, the board shall issue a decision on the application 128584
of "yes," "no," "hold," or "edit." In making its decision, the 128585
board shall consider whether the project has the capability of 128586
being replicated in other school districts and schools or creates 128587
something that can be used in other districts and schools. A grant 128588
awarded under this section to a school district, educational 128589
service center, community school, STEM school, college-preparatory 128590
boarding school, or individual school building shall not exceed 128591
$500,000. A grant awarded to an education consortia shall not 128592
exceed $1,000,000. 128593

       (2) If the board issues a "hold" or "edit" decision for an 128594
application, it shall, upon returning the application to the 128595
applicant, specify the process for reconsideration of the 128596
application. An applicant may work with the grant advisors and 128597
staff to modify or improve a grant application.128598

       (E) Upon deciding to award a grant to an applicant, the board 128599
shall enter into a grant agreement with the applicant that 128600
includes all of the following:128601

       (1) The content of the applicant's proposal as outlined under 128602
division (C) of this section;128603

       (2) The project's deliverables and a timetable for their 128604
completion;128605

       (3) Conditions for receiving grant funding;128606

       (4) Conditions for receiving funding in future years if the 128607
contract is a multi-year contract;128608

       (5) A provision specifying that funding will be returned to 128609
the board if the applicant fails to implement the agreement, as 128610
determined by the Auditor of State.128611

       (6) A provision specifying that the agreement may be amended 128612
by mutual agreement between the board and the applicant.128613

       (F) Each grant awarded under this section shall be subject to 128614
approval by the Controlling Board prior to execution of the grant 128615
agreement.128616

       Section 263.330. LOTTERY PROFITS EDUCATION RESERVE FUND128617

       (A) There is hereby created the Lottery Profits Education 128618
Reserve Fund (Fund 7018) in the State Treasury. Investment 128619
earnings of the Lottery Profits Education Reserve Fund shall be 128620
credited to the fund.128621

       (B) Notwithstanding any other provision of law to the 128622
contrary, the Director of Budget and Management may transfer cash 128623
from Fund 7018 to the Lottery Profits Education Fund (Fund 7017) 128624
in fiscal year 2014 and fiscal year 2015.128625

       (C) On July 15, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 128626
Director of the Ohio Lottery Commission shall certify to the 128627
Director of Budget and Management the amount by which lottery 128628
profit transfers received by Fund 7017 exceeded $680,500,000 in 128629
fiscal year 2013.128630

       (D) On July 15, 2014, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 128631
Director of the Ohio Lottery Commission shall certify to the 128632
Director of Budget and Management the amount by which lottery 128633
profit transfers received by Fund 7017 exceeded $841,000,000 in 128634
fiscal year 2014.128635

       (E) Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, in 128636
fiscal year 2014 and fiscal year 2015, the Director of Budget and 128637
Management may transfer cash in excess of the amounts necessary to 128638
support appropriations in Fund 7017 from that fund to Fund 7018.128639

       Section 263.340. GENERAL REVENUE FUND TRANSFERS TO SCHOOL 128640
DISTRICT PROPERTY TAX REPLACEMENT - BUSINESS (FUND 7047)128641

       Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, in 128642
fiscal year 2014 and fiscal year 2015 the Director of Budget and 128643
Management may make temporary transfers between the General 128644
Revenue Fund and the School District Property Tax Replacement – 128645
Business Fund (Fund 7047), used by the Department of Education, to 128646
ensure sufficient balances in Fund 7047 and to replenish the 128647
General Revenue Fund for such transfers.128648

       Section 263.350. SCHOOL DISTRICT PROPERTY TAX REPLACEMENT - 128649
BUSINESS128650

       The foregoing appropriation item 200909, School District 128651
Property Tax Replacement – Business, shall be used by the 128652
Department of Education, in consultation with the Department of 128653
Taxation, to make payments to school districts and joint 128654
vocational school districts under section 5751.21 of the Revised 128655
Code. If it is determined by the Director of Budget and Management 128656
that additional appropriations are necessary for this purpose, 128657
such amounts are hereby appropriated.128658

       SCHOOL DISTRICT PROPERTY TAX REPLACEMENT - UTILITY128659

       The foregoing appropriation item 200900, School District 128660
Property Tax Replacement-Utility, shall be used by the Department 128661
of Education, in consultation with the Department of Taxation, to 128662
make payments to school districts and joint vocational school 128663
districts under section 5727.85 of the Revised Code. If it is 128664
determined by the Director of Budget and Management that 128665
additional appropriations are necessary for this purpose, such 128666
amounts are hereby appropriated.128667

       DISTRIBUTION FORMULAS128668

       The Department of Education shall report the following to the 128669
Director of Budget and Management and the Legislative Service 128670
Commission:128671

       (A) Changes in formulas for distributing state 128672
appropriations, including administratively defined formula 128673
factors;128674

       (B) Discretionary changes in formulas for distributing 128675
federal appropriations;128676

       (C) Federally mandated changes in formulas for distributing 128677
federal appropriations.128678

       Any such changes shall be reported two weeks prior to the 128679
effective date of the change.128680

       Section 263.360. EDUCATIONAL SERVICE CENTERS FUNDING128681

       In fiscal year 2014, the Department of Education shall pay 128682
the governing board of each primary educational service center 128683
state funds equal to thirty-seven dollars times its student count, 128684
as calculated under division (G)(2) of section 3313.843 of the 128685
Revised Code.128686

       In fiscal year 2015, the Department of Education shall pay 128687
the governing board of each primary educational service center 128688
state funds equal to thirty-five dollars times its student count, 128689
as calculated under division (G)(2) of section 3313.843 of the 128690
Revised Code.128691

        If the amount earmarked for the state reimbursement of 128692
educational service centers in appropriation item 200550, 128693
Foundation Funding, is not sufficient, the Department of Education 128694
shall prorate the payment amounts so that the appropriation is not 128695
exceeded.128696

       Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, the 128697
Department of Education shall modify the payments under this 128698
section as follows:128699

       (A) If an educational service center ceases operation, the 128700
Department shall redistribute that center's funding, as calculated 128701
under this section, to the remaining centers in proportion to each 128702
center's service center ADM as defined in former section 3317.11 128703
of the Revised Code, as that section existed prior to the date of 128704
its repeal.128705

       (B) If two or more educational service centers merge 128706
operations to create a single service center, the Department shall 128707
distribute the sum of the original service centers' funding, as 128708
calculated under this section, to the new service center.128709

       Section 263.370. SCHOOL DISTRICT PARTICIPATION IN NATIONAL 128710
ASSESSMENT OF EDUCATION PROGRESS128711

       The General Assembly intends for the Superintendent of Public 128712
Instruction to provide for school district participation in the 128713
administration of the National Assessment of Education Progress in 128714
accordance with section 3301.27 of the Revised Code. Each school 128715
and school district selected for participation by the 128716
Superintendent of Public Instruction shall participate.128717

       Section 263.373. COMMUNITY SCHOOL FUNDING GUARANTEE FOR SBH 128718
STUDENTS128719

       (A) As used in this section:128720

       (1) "IEP" has the same meaning as in section 3323.01 of the 128721
Revised Code.128722

       (2) "SBH student" means a student receiving special education 128723
and related services for severe behavior disabilities pursuant to 128724
an IEP.128725

       (B) This section applies only to a community school 128726
established under Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code that in each 128727
of fiscal years 2014 and 2015 enrolls a number of SBH students 128728
equal to at least fifty per cent of the total number of students 128729
enrolled in the school in the applicable fiscal year.128730

       (C) In addition to any state foundation payments made, in 128731
each of fiscal years 2014 and 2015, the Department of Education 128732
shall pay to a community school to which this section applies a 128733
subsidy equal to the difference between the aggregate amount 128734
calculated and paid in that fiscal year to the community school 128735
for special education and related services additional weighted 128736
costs for the SBH students enrolled in the school and the 128737
aggregate amount that would have been calculated for the school 128738
for special education and related services additional weighted 128739
costs for those same students in fiscal year 2001. If the 128740
difference is a negative number, the amount of the subsidy shall 128741
be zero.128742

       (D) The amount of any subsidy paid to a community school 128743
under this section shall not be deducted from the school district 128744
in which any of the students enrolled in the community school are 128745
entitled to attend school under section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the 128746
Revised Code. The amount of any subsidy paid to a community school 128747
under this section shall be paid from funds appropriated to the 128748
Department of Education in appropriation item 200550, Foundation 128749
Funding.128750

       Section 263.380. EARMARK ACCOUNTABILITY128751

       At the request of the Superintendent of Public Instruction, 128752
any entity that receives a budget earmark under the Department of 128753
Education shall submit annually to the chairpersons of the 128754
committees of the House of Representatives and the Senate 128755
primarily concerned with education and to the Department of 128756
Education a report that includes a description of the services 128757
supported by the funds, a description of the results achieved by 128758
those services, an analysis of the effectiveness of the program, 128759
and an opinion as to the program's applicability to other school 128760
districts. For an earmarked entity that received state funds from 128761
an earmark in the prior fiscal year, no funds shall be provided by 128762
the Department of Education to an earmarked entity for a fiscal 128763
year until its report for the prior fiscal year has been 128764
submitted.128765

       Section 263.390. COMMUNITY SCHOOL OPERATING FROM HOME128766

        A community school established under Chapter 3314. of the 128767
Revised Code that was open for operation as a community school as 128768
of May 1, 2005, may operate from or in any home, as defined in 128769
section 3313.64 of the Revised Code, located in the state, 128770
regardless of when the community school's operations from or in a 128771
particular home began.128772

       Section 263.400. USE OF VOLUNTEERS128773

       The Department of Education may utilize the services of 128774
volunteers to accomplish any of the purposes of the Department. 128775
The Superintendent of Public Instruction shall approve for what 128776
purposes volunteers may be used and for these purposes may 128777
recruit, train, and oversee the services of volunteers. The 128778
Superintendent may reimburse volunteers for necessary and 128779
appropriate expenses in accordance with state guidelines and may 128780
designate volunteers as state employees for the purpose of motor 128781
vehicle accident liability insurance under section 9.83 of the 128782
Revised Code, for immunity under section 9.86 of the Revised Code, 128783
and for indemnification from liability incurred in the performance 128784
of their duties under section 9.87 of the Revised Code.128785

       Section 263.410. RESTRICTION OF LIABILITY FOR CERTAIN 128786
REIMBURSEMENTS128787

       (A) Except as expressly required under a court judgment not 128788
subject to further appeals, or a settlement agreement with a 128789
school district executed on or before June 1, 2009, in the case of 128790
a school district for which the formula ADM for fiscal year 2005, 128791
as reported for that fiscal year under division (A) of section 128792
3317.03 of the Revised Code, was reduced based on enrollment 128793
reports for community schools, made under section 3314.08 of the 128794
Revised Code, regarding students entitled to attend school in the 128795
district, which reduction of formula ADM resulted in a reduction 128796
of foundation funding or transitional aid funding for fiscal year 128797
2005, 2006, or 2007, no school district, except a district named 128798
in the court's judgment or the settlement agreement, shall have a 128799
legal claim for reimbursement of the amount of such reduction in 128800
foundation funding or transitional aid funding, and the state 128801
shall not have liability for reimbursement of the amount of such 128802
reduction in foundation funding or transitional aid funding. 128803

       (B) As used in this section: 128804

       (1) "Community school" means a community school established 128805
under Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code.128806

       (2) "Entitled to attend school" means entitled to attend 128807
school in a school district under section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of 128808
the Revised Code. 128809

       (3) "Foundation funding" means payments calculated for the 128810
respective fiscal year under Chapter 3317. of the Revised Code.128811

       (4) "Transitional aid funding" means payments calculated for 128812
the respective fiscal year under Section 41.37 of Am. Sub. H.B. 95 128813
of the 125th General Assembly, as subsequently amended; Section 128814
206.09.39 of Am. Sub. H.B. 66 of the 126th General Assembly, as 128815
subsequently amended; and Section 269.30.80 of Am. Sub. H.B. 119 128816
of the 127th General Assembly. 128817

       Section 263.420.  UNAUDITABLE COMMUNITY SCHOOL128818

       (A) If the Auditor of State or a public accountant, pursuant 128819
to section 117.41 of the Revised Code, declares a community school 128820
established under Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code to be 128821
unauditable, the Auditor of State shall provide written 128822
notification of that declaration to the school, the school's 128823
sponsor, and the Department of Education. The Auditor of State 128824
also shall post the notification on the Auditor of State's web 128825
site.128826

       (B) Notwithstanding any provision to the contrary in Chapter 128827
3314. of the Revised Code or any other provision of law, a sponsor 128828
of a community school that is notified by the Auditor of State 128829
under division (A) of this section that a community school it 128830
sponsors is unauditable shall not enter into contracts with any 128831
additional community schools under section 3314.03 of the Revised 128832
Code until the Auditor of State or a public accountant has 128833
completed a financial audit of that school.128834

       (C) Not later than forty-five days after receiving 128835
notification by the Auditor of State under division (A) of this 128836
section that a community school is unauditable, the sponsor of the 128837
school shall provide a written response to the Auditor of State. 128838
The response shall include the following:128839

       (1) An overview of the process the sponsor will use to review 128840
and understand the circumstances that led to the community school 128841
becoming unauditable;128842

       (2) A plan for providing the Auditor of State with the 128843
documentation necessary to complete an audit of the community 128844
school and for ensuring that all financial documents are available 128845
in the future;128846

       (3) The actions the sponsor will take to ensure that the plan 128847
described in division (C)(2) of this section is implemented.128848

       (D) If a community school fails to make reasonable efforts 128849
and continuing progress to bring its accounts, records, files, or 128850
reports into an auditable condition within ninety days after being 128851
declared unauditable, the Auditor of State, in addition to 128852
requesting legal action under sections 117.41 and 117.42 of the 128853
Revised Code, shall notify the Department of the school's failure. 128854
If the Auditor of State or a public accountant subsequently is 128855
able to complete a financial audit of the school, the Auditor of 128856
State shall notify the Department that the audit has been 128857
completed.128858

       (E) Notwithstanding any provision to the contrary in Chapter 128859
3314. of the Revised Code or any other provision of law, upon 128860
notification by the Auditor of State under division (D) of this 128861
section that a community school has failed to make reasonable 128862
efforts and continuing progress to bring its accounts, records, 128863
files, or reports into an auditable condition following a 128864
declaration that the school is unauditable, the Department shall 128865
immediately cease all payments to the school under Chapter 3314. 128866
of the Revised Code and any other provision of law. Upon 128867
subsequent notification from the Auditor of State under that 128868
division that the Auditor of State or a public accountant was able 128869
to complete a financial audit of the community school, the 128870
Department shall release all funds withheld from the school under 128871
this section.128872

       Section 263.430.  FLEXIBLE FUNDING FOR FAMILIES AND CHILDREN128873

       In collaboration with the County Family and Children First 128874
Council, a city, local, or exempted village school district, 128875
community school, STEM school, joint vocational school district, 128876
educational service center, or county board of developmental 128877
disabilities that receives allocations from the Department of 128878
Education from appropriation item 200550, Foundation Funding, or 128879
appropriation item 200540, Special Education Enhancements, may 128880
transfer portions of those allocations to a flexible funding pool 128881
authorized by the Section of this act entitled "FAMILY AND 128882
CHILDREN FIRST FLEXIBLE FUNDING POOL." Allocations used for 128883
maintenance of effort or for federal or state funding matching 128884
requirements shall not be transferred unless the allocation may 128885
still be used to meet such requirements. 128886

       Section 263.433. The Department of Education shall conduct a 128887
study to determine the appropriate amounts and methods of funding 128888
for each category and sub-category of students identified as 128889
gifted under Chapter 3324. of the Revised Code. Elements of the 128890
study shall include, but not be limited to, costs for effective 128891
and appropriate identification, staffing, professional 128892
development, technology, and materials and supplies at the 128893
district level. In addition, the Department shall determine the 128894
costs of statewide support needed for this population. Not later 128895
than March 31, 2014, the Department shall issue a report of its 128896
findings to the General Assembly in accordance with section 101.68 128897
of the Revised Code.128898

       Section 263.440.  The Department of Education shall conduct a 128899
formative evaluation of the Jon Peterson Special Needs Scholarship 128900
Program established under sections 3310.51 to 3310.64 of the 128901
Revised Code and shall report its findings to the General 128902
Assembly, in accordance with section 101.68 of the Revised Code, 128903
not later than December 31, 2014.128904

        In conducting the evaluation, the Department shall to the 128905
extent possible gather comments from parents who have been awarded 128906
scholarships under the program, school district officials, 128907
representatives of registered private providers, educators, and 128908
representatives of educational organizations for inclusion in the 128909
report required under this section.128910

       Section 263.450. (A) The Ohio Open Enrollment Task Force is 128911
hereby established to review and make recommendations on open 128912
enrollment. The Superintendent of Public Instruction shall consult 128913
with the Governor's Office of 21st Century Education to convene a 128914
taskforce that consists of representatives from school districts 128915
that represent all sectors of Ohio's educational community.128916

       (B) The Superintendent shall designate the chairperson of the 128917
Task Force. All meetings of the Task Force shall be held at the 128918
call of the chairperson.128919

       (C) The Task Force shall review and make recommendations 128920
regarding the process by which students may enroll in other school 128921
districts under open enrollment and the funding mechanisms 128922
associated with open enrollment deductions and credits.128923

       (D) Not later than December 31, 2013, the Task Force shall 128924
issue a report of its findings and recommendations to the 128925
Governor, the President of the Senate, and the Speaker of the 128926
House of Representatives. Upon issuance of the report, the Task 128927
Force shall cease to exist.128928

       Section 263.463. (A) In order to implement the transportation 128929
subsidy prescribed by new section 3327.02 of the Revised Code, as 128930
enacted by this act, the Department of Education shall prescribe 128931
procedures and deadlines for parents or students to apply for that 128932
subsidy for the 2014-2015 school year. The application and notice 128933
procedures and deadlines prescribed by the Department shall allow 128934
sufficient time for school district boards of education to take 128935
the exercise of the parent's or student's option to receive the 128936
subsidy, in lieu of transportation, into account when planning 128937
transportation routes and schedules for the 2014-2015 school year.128938

       (B) The State Board of Education shall adopt rules under 128939
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code prescribing procedures necessary 128940
to implement this section and new section 3327.02 of the Revised 128941
Code, as enacted by this act.128942

       Section 263.470.  (A) On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible 128943
thereafter, notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, 128944
and if requested by the Department of Education, the Director of 128945
Budget and Management shall make budget changes made necessary by 128946
the transfer of the operations and related management functions of 128947
the eTech Ohio Commission to the Department of Education, if any, 128948
including administrative organization, program transfers, the 128949
creation of new funds, the transfer of state funds, and the 128950
consolidation of funds, as authorized by this section. The 128951
Director of Budget and Management may, if necessary, establish 128952
encumbrances or parts of encumbrances in the fiscal year 2014-2015 128953
biennium in the appropriate fund and appropriation item for the 128954
same purpose and for payment to the same vendor. The established 128955
encumbrances plus any additional amounts determined to be 128956
necessary for the Ohio Department of Education to perform the 128957
operations and related management functions of the eTech Ohio 128958
Commission are hereby appropriated.128959

       (B) Effective July 1, 2013, the Director of Budget and 128960
Management shall cancel any existing encumbrances against 128961
appropriation item 935607, Gates Foundation Grants, and 128962
re-establish them against appropriation item 200668, Gates 128963
Foundation Grants. The re-established encumbrance amounts are 128964
hereby appropriated. Any business commenced but not completed 128965
under appropriation item 935607 by July 1, 2013, shall be 128966
completed under appropriation item 200668 in the same manner and 128967
with the same effect as if it were completed with regard to 128968
appropriation item 935607.128969

       (C) Effective July 1, 2013, the Director of Budget and 128970
Management shall cancel existing encumbrances against 128971
appropriation item 935408, General Operations, and re-establish 128972
them, as determined to be appropriate by the Director of Budget 128973
and Management, against appropriation item 200464, General 128974
Technology Operations. The re-established encumbrance amounts are 128975
hereby appropriated. Any business commenced but not completed 128976
under appropriation item 935408 by July 1, 2013, shall be 128977
completed, as determined to be appropriate by the Director of 128978
Budget and Management, under appropriation item 200464 in the same 128979
manner and with the same effect as if it were completed with 128980
regard to appropriation item 935408.128981

       (D) Effective July 1, 2013, the Director of Budget and 128982
Management shall cancel existing encumbrances against 128983
appropriation item 935411, Technology Integration and Professional 128984
Development, and re-establish them, as determined to be 128985
appropriate by the Director of Budget and Management, against 128986
appropriation item 200465, Technology Integration and Professional 128987
Development. The re-established encumbrance amounts are hereby 128988
appropriated. Any business commenced but not completed under 128989
appropriation item 935411 by July 1, 2013, shall be completed, as 128990
determined to be appropriate by the Director of Budget and 128991
Management, under appropriation item 200465 in the same manner and 128992
with the same effect as if it were completed with regard to 128993
appropriation item 935411.128994

       (E) There is hereby created the Educational Technology 128995
Practice Office as a cross-functional office comprised of 128996
employees of the Ohio Board of Regents and the Department of 128997
Education, including former employees of the eTech Ohio Commission 128998
transferred to the Ohio Board of Regents and the Department of 128999
Education. The Office shall work with educational service centers 129000
and information technology centers to develop digital learning, 129001
blended learning, and professional development materials using 129002
shared infrastructure. The Office shall also evaluate new 129003
educational technology and methodologies of teaching and learning 129004
and work with educators to increase awareness of such new 129005
technology and methodologies shown to be helpful to Ohio students.129006

       Section 263.473. Notwithstanding section 3321.01 of the 129007
Revised Code, no student who has been admitted to and has 129008
successfully completed kindergarten in the 2012-2013 school year 129009
shall be required to repeat kindergarten based solely on the age 129010
of the student.129011

       Section 263.480. PRIVATE TREATMENT FACILITY PROJECT129012

       (A) As used in this section:129013

       (1) The following are "participating residential treatment 129014
centers":129015

       (a) Private residential treatment facilities that have 129016
entered into a contract with the Department of Youth Services to 129017
provide services to children placed at the facility by the 129018
Department and which, in fiscal year 2014 or fiscal year 2015 or 129019
both, the Department pays through appropriation item 470401, 129020
RECLAIM Ohio;129021

       (b) Abraxas, in Shelby;129022

       (c) Paint Creek, in Bainbridge;129023

       (d) F.I.R.S.T., in Mansfield.129024

       (2) "Education program" means an elementary or secondary 129025
education program or a special education program and related 129026
services.129027

       (3) "Served child" means any child receiving an education 129028
program pursuant to division (B) of this section.129029

       (4) "School district responsible for tuition" means a city, 129030
exempted village, or local school district that, if tuition 129031
payment for a child by a school district is required under law 129032
that existed in fiscal year 1998, is the school district required 129033
to pay that tuition.129034

       (5) "Residential child" means a child who resides in a 129035
participating residential treatment center and who is receiving an 129036
educational program under division (B) of this section.129037

       (B) A youth who is a resident of the state and has been 129038
assigned by a juvenile court or other authorized agency to a 129039
residential treatment facility specified in division (A) of this 129040
section shall be enrolled in an approved educational program 129041
located in or near the facility. Approval of the educational 129042
program shall be contingent upon compliance with the criteria 129043
established for such programs by the Department of Education. The 129044
educational program shall be provided by a school district or 129045
educational service center, or by the residential facility itself. 129046
Maximum flexibility shall be given to the residential treatment 129047
facility to determine the provider. In the event that a voluntary 129048
agreement cannot be reached and the residential facility does not 129049
choose to provide the educational program, the educational service 129050
center in the county in which the facility is located shall 129051
provide the educational program at the treatment center to 129052
children under twenty-two years of age residing in the treatment 129053
center.129054

       (C) Any school district responsible for tuition for a 129055
residential child shall, notwithstanding any conflicting provision 129056
of the Revised Code regarding tuition payment, pay tuition for the 129057
child for fiscal year 2014 and fiscal year 2015 to the education 129058
program provider and in the amount specified in this division. If 129059
there is no school district responsible for tuition for a 129060
residential child and if the participating residential treatment 129061
center to which the child is assigned is located in the city, 129062
exempted village, or local school district that, if the child were 129063
not a resident of that treatment center, would be the school 129064
district where the child is entitled to attend school under 129065
sections 3313.64 and 3313.65 of the Revised Code, that school 129066
district, notwithstanding any conflicting provision of the Revised 129067
Code, shall pay tuition for the child for fiscal year 2014 and 129068
fiscal year 2015 under this division unless that school district 129069
is providing the educational program to the child under division 129070
(B) of this section.129071

       A tuition payment under this division shall be made to the 129072
school district, educational service center, or residential 129073
treatment facility providing the educational program to the child.129074

       The amount of tuition paid shall be:129075

       (1) The amount of tuition determined for the district under 129076
division (A) of section 3317.08 of the Revised Code;129077

       (2) In addition, for any student receiving special education 129078
pursuant to an individualized education program as defined in 129079
section 3323.01 of the Revised Code, a payment for excess costs. 129080
This payment shall equal the actual cost to the school district, 129081
educational service center, or residential treatment facility of 129082
providing special education and related services to the student 129083
pursuant to the student's individualized education program, minus 129084
the tuition paid for the child under division (C)(1) of this 129085
section.129086

       A school district paying tuition under this division shall 129087
not include the child for whom tuition is paid in the district's 129088
average daily membership certified under division (A) of section 129089
3317.03 of the Revised Code.129090

       (D) In each of fiscal years 2014 and 2015, the Department of 129091
Education shall reimburse, from appropriations made for the 129092
purpose, a school district, educational service center, or 129093
residential treatment facility, whichever is providing the 129094
service, that has demonstrated that it is in compliance with the 129095
funding criteria for each served child for whom a school district 129096
must pay tuition under division (C) of this section. The amount of 129097
the reimbursement shall be the amount appropriated for this 129098
purpose divided by the full-time equivalent number of children for 129099
whom reimbursement is to be made.129100

       (E) Funds provided to a school district, educational service 129101
center, or residential treatment facility under this section shall 129102
be used to supplement, not supplant, funds from other public 129103
sources for which the school district, service center, or 129104
residential treatment facility is entitled or eligible.129105

       (F) The Department of Education shall track the utilization 129106
of funds provided to school districts, educational service 129107
centers, and residential treatment facilities under this section 129108
and monitor the effect of the funding on the educational programs 129109
they provide in participating residential treatment facilities. 129110
The Department shall monitor the programs for educational 129111
accountability.129112

       Section 263.490. (A) The Superintendent of Public Instruction 129113
may establish an academic distress commission for any school 129114
district that is found by the Auditor of State to have knowingly 129115
manipulated student data with evidence of intent to deceive. 129116

       Each commission established under this section shall assist 129117
the district for which it was established in improving the 129118
district's academic performance.129119

        Each commission is a body both corporate and politic, 129120
constituting an agency and instrumentality of the state and 129121
performing essential governmental functions of the state. A 129122
commission shall be known as the "academic distress commission for 129123
......... (name of school district)," and, in that name, may 129124
exercise all authority vested in such a commission by this 129125
section. A separate commission shall be established for each 129126
school district to which this section applies.129127

        (B) The academic distress commission shall consist of five 129128
voting members, three of whom shall be appointed by the 129129
Superintendent of Public Instruction and two of whom shall be 129130
residents of the applicable school district appointed by the mayor 129131
of the largest municipal corporation within the district. When a 129132
school district becomes subject to this section, the 129133
Superintendent of Public Instruction shall provide written 129134
notification of that fact to the mayor described in this division 129135
and shall request the mayor to submit to the Superintendent of 129136
Public Instruction, in writing, the names of the mayor's 129137
appointees to the commission. The Superintendent of Public 129138
Instruction and the mayor shall make appointments to the 129139
commission within thirty days after the district is notified that 129140
it is subject to this section.129141

        Members of the commission shall serve at the pleasure of 129142
their appointing authority during the life of the commission. In 129143
the event of the death, resignation, incapacity, removal, or 129144
ineligibility to serve of a member, the appointing authority shall 129145
appoint a successor within fifteen days after the vacancy occurs. 129146
Members shall serve without compensation, but shall be paid by the 129147
commission their necessary and actual expenses incurred while 129148
engaged in the business of the commission.129149

        (C) An academic distress commission established under this 129150
section shall comply with the requirements of divisions (C) to (K) 129151
of section 3302.10 of the Revised Code.129152

        (D) An academic distress commission established under this 129153
section shall cease to exist based on rules adopted by the State 129154
Board of Education. Upon termination of the commission, the 129155
Department of Education shall compile a final report of the 129156
commission's activities to assist other academic distress 129157
commissions in the conduct of their functions.129158

       (E) Not later than ninety days after the effective date of 129159
this section, the State Board shall adopt rules for the 129160
dissolution of an academic distress commission established under 129161
this section.129162

       Section 265.10. ELC OHIO ELECTIONS COMMISSION129163

General Revenue Fund129164

GRF 051321 Operating Expenses $ 333,117 $ 333,117 129165
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 333,117 $ 333,117 129166

General Services Fund Group129167

4P20 051601 Ohio Elections Commission Fund $ 225,000 $ 225,000 129168
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 225,000 $ 225,000 129169
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 558,117 $ 558,117 129170


       Section 267.10. FUN STATE BOARD OF EMBALMERS AND FUNERAL 129172
DIRECTORS129173

General Services Fund Group129174

4K90 881609 Operating Expenses $ 737,000 $ 741,000 129175
TOTAL GSF General Services 129176
Fund Group $ 737,000 $ 741,000 129177
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 737,000 $ 741,000 129178


       Section 269.10. PAY EMPLOYEE BENEFITS FUNDS129180

Accrued Leave Liability Fund Group129181

8060 995666 Accrued Leave Fund $ 73,494,242 $ 74,964,127 129182
8070 995667 Disability Fund $ 26,593,747 $ 27,345,147 129183
TOTAL ALF Accrued Leave Liability 129184
Fund Group $ 100,087,989 $ 102,309,274 129185

Agency Fund Group129186

1240 995673 Payroll Deductions $ 775,712,468 $ 814,498,091 129187
8080 995668 State Employee Health Benefit Fund $ 689,654,314 $ 758,608,963 129188
8090 995669 Dependent Care Spending Account $ 2,967,711 $ 3,116,097 129189
8100 995670 Life Insurance Investment Fund $ 2,143,053 $ 2,143,053 129190
8110 995671 Parental Leave Benefit Fund $ 3,668,471 $ 3,741,840 129191
8130 995672 Health Care Spending Account $ 8,033,020 $ 8,434,671 129192
TOTAL AGY Agency Fund Group $ 1,482,179,037 $ 1,590,542,715 129193
129194

TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 1,582,267,026 $ 1,692,851,989 129195

       ACCRUED LEAVE LIABILITY FUND129196

       The foregoing appropriation item 995666, Accrued Leave Fund, 129197
shall be used to make payments from the Accrued Leave Liability 129198
Fund (Fund 8060) pursuant to section 125.211 of the Revised Code. 129199
If it is determined by the Director of Budget and Management that 129200
additional amounts are necessary, the amounts are hereby 129201
appropriated.129202

       STATE EMPLOYEE DISABILITY LEAVE BENEFIT FUND129203

       The foregoing appropriation item 995667, Disability Fund, 129204
shall be used to make payments from the State Employee Disability 129205
Leave Benefit Fund (Fund 8070) pursuant to section 124.83 of the 129206
Revised Code. If it is determined by the Director of Budget and 129207
Management that additional amounts are necessary, the amounts are 129208
hereby appropriated.129209

       PAYROLL DEDUCTION FUND129210

       The foregoing appropriation item 995673, Payroll Deductions, 129211
shall be used to make payments from the Payroll Deduction Fund 129212
(Fund 1240) pursuant to section 125.21 of the Revised Code. If it 129213
is determined by the Director of Budget and Management that 129214
additional appropriation amounts are necessary, the amounts are 129215
hereby appropriated.129216

       STATE EMPLOYEE HEALTH BENEFIT FUND129217

       The foregoing appropriation item 995668, State Employee 129218
Health Benefit Fund, shall be used to make payments from the State 129219
Employee Health Benefit Fund (Fund 8080) pursuant to section 129220
124.87 of the Revised Code. If it is determined by the Director of 129221
Budget and Management that additional amounts are necessary, the 129222
amounts are hereby appropriated.129223

       DEPENDENT CARE SPENDING FUND129224

       The foregoing appropriation item 995669, Dependent Care 129225
Spending Account, shall be used to make payments from the 129226
Dependent Care Spending Fund (Fund 8090) to employees eligible for 129227
dependent care expenses pursuant to section 124.822 of the Revised 129228
Code. If it is determined by the Director of Budget and Management 129229
that additional amounts are necessary, the amounts are hereby 129230
appropriated.129231

       LIFE INSURANCE INVESTMENT FUND129232

       The foregoing appropriation item 995670, Life Insurance 129233
Investment Fund, shall be used to make payments from the Life 129234
Insurance Investment Fund (Fund 8100) for the costs and expenses 129235
of the state's life insurance benefit program pursuant to section 129236
125.212 of the Revised Code. If it is determined by the Director 129237
of Budget and Management that additional amounts are necessary, 129238
the amounts are hereby appropriated.129239

       PARENTAL LEAVE BENEFIT FUND129240

       The foregoing appropriation item 995671, Parental Leave 129241
Benefit Fund, shall be used to make payments from the Parental 129242
Leave Benefit Fund (Fund 8110) to employees eligible for parental 129243
leave benefits pursuant to section 124.137 of the Revised Code. If 129244
it is determined by the Director of Budget and Management that 129245
additional amounts are necessary, the amounts are hereby 129246
appropriated.129247

       HEALTH CARE SPENDING ACCOUNT FUND129248

       The foregoing appropriation item 995672, Health Care Spending 129249
Account, shall be used to make payments from the Health Care 129250
Spending Account Fund (Fund 8130) for payments pursuant to state 129251
employees' participation in a flexible spending account for 129252
non-reimbursed health care expenses and section 124.821 of the 129253
Revised Code. If it is determined by the Director of 129254
Administrative Services that additional appropriation amounts are 129255
necessary, the Director of Administrative Services may request 129256
that the Director of Budget and Management increase such amounts. 129257
Such amounts are hereby appropriated.129258

       Section 269.20. CASH TRANSFERS FROM THE COST SAVINGS FUND129259

       On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 129260
Director of Budget and Management shall transfer $735,000 cash 129261
from the Cost Savings Fund (Fund 8140) to the Investment Recovery 129262
Fund (Fund 4270) used by the Department of Administrative 129263
Services, and up to $5,200,000 cash from the Cost Savings Fund 129264
(Fund 8140) to the Accrued Leave Fund (Fund 8060) in order to 129265
support accrued leave payouts to state employees who are 129266
participating in an annual leave conversion or who are separating 129267
from state service.129268

       Section 271.10.  ERB STATE EMPLOYMENT RELATIONS BOARD129269

General Revenue Fund129270

GRF 125321 Operating Expenses $ 3,761,457 $ 3,761,457 129271
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 3,761,457 $ 3,761,457 129272

General Services Fund Group129273

5720 125603 Training and Publications $ 85,000 $ 85,000 129274
TOTAL GSF General Services 129275
Fund Group $ 85,000 $ 85,000 129276
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 3,846,457 $ 3,846,457 129277


       Section 273.10. ENG STATE BOARD OF ENGINEERS AND SURVEYORS129279

General Services Fund Group129280

4K90 892609 Operating $ 996,938 $ 993,889 129281
TOTAL GSF General Services 129282
Fund Group $ 996,938 $ 993,889 129283
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 996,938 $ 993,889 129284


       Section 275.10. EPA ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION AGENCY129286

General Revenue Fund129287

GRF 715502 Auto Emissions e-Check Program $ 10,923,093 $ 10,923,093 129288
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 10,923,093 $ 10,923,093 129289

General Services Fund Group129290

1990 715602 Laboratory Services $ 252,153 $ 326,029 129291
2190 715604 Central Support Indirect $ 10,255,680 $ 10,255,680 129292
4A10 715640 Operating Expenses $ 2,600,000 $ 2,602,000 129293
4D50 715618 Recycled State Materials $ 50,000 $ 50,000 129294
TOTAL GSF General Services 129295
Fund Group $ 13,157,833 $ 13,233,709 129296

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group129297

3530 715612 Public Water Supply $ 2,562,578 $ 2,474,605 129298
3540 715614 Hazardous Waste Management - Federal $ 4,088,383 $ 4,088,383 129299
3570 715619 Air Pollution Control - Federal $ 6,310,203 $ 6,310,203 129300
3620 715605 Underground Injection Control - Federal $ 111,874 $ 111,874 129301
3BU0 715684 Water Quality Protection $ 16,205,000 $ 15,280,000 129302
3CS0 715688 Federal NRD Settlements $ 200,000 $ 200,000 129303
3F20 715630 Revolving Loan Fund - Operating $ 832,543 $ 1,114,543 129304
3F30 715632 Federally Supported Cleanup and Response $ 3,012,021 $ 3,012,991 129305
3FH0 715693 Diesel Emission Reduction Grants $ 10,000,000 $ 10,000,000 129306
3T30 715669 Drinking Water State Revolving Fund $ 2,609,198 $ 2,824,076 129307
3V70 715606 Agencywide Grants $ 600,000 $ 600,000 129308
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 129309
Fund Group $ 46,531,800 $ 46,016,675 129310

State Special Revenue Fund Group129311

4J00 715638 Underground Injection Control $ 389,126 $ 402,697 129312
4K20 715648 Clean Air - Non Title V $ 3,165,400 $ 3,237,450 129313
4K30 715649 Solid Waste $ 15,685,342 $ 16,330,873 129314
4K40 715650 Surface Water Protection $ 6,993,800 $ 7,688,800 129315
4K40 715686 Environmental Laboratory Services $ 2,096,007 $ 2,096,007 129316
4K50 715651 Drinking Water Protection $ 6,316,772 $ 6,476,011 129317
4P50 715654 Cozart Landfill $ 100,000 $ 100,000 129318
4R50 715656 Scrap Tire Management $ 1,059,378 $ 1,070,532 129319
4R90 715658 Voluntary Action Program $ 916,690 $ 945,195 129320
4T30 715659 Clean Air - Title V Permit Program $ 14,528,885 $ 15,080,366 129321
4U70 715660 Construction and Demolition Debris $ 335,000 $ 335,000 129322
5000 715608 Immediate Removal Special Account $ 660,033 $ 660,293 129323
5030 715621 Hazardous Waste Facility Management $ 7,615,403 $ 8,224,041 129324
5050 715623 Hazardous Waste Cleanup $ 14,528,609 $ 14,933,345 129325
5050 715674 Clean Ohio Environmental Review $ 108,104 $ 108,104 129326
5320 715646 Recycling and Litter Control $ 4,514,500 $ 4,535,500 129327
5410 715670 Site Specific Cleanup $ 1,548,101 $ 1,548,101 129328
5420 715671 Risk Management Reporting $ 208,936 $ 214,826 129329
5860 715637 Scrap Tire Market Development $ 1,497,645 $ 1,497,645 129330
5BC0 715617 Clean Ohio $ 611,455 $ 611,455 129331
5BC0 715622 Local Air Pollution Control $ 2,297,980 $ 2,297,980 129332
5BC0 715624 Surface Water $ 9,614,974 $ 9,614,974 129333
5BC0 715672 Air Pollution Control $ 5,684,758 $ 5,684,758 129334
5BC0 715673 Drinking and Ground Water $ 4,863,521 $ 4,863,521 129335
5BC0 715676 Assistance and Prevention $ 695,069 $ 695,069 129336
5BC0 715677 Laboratory $ 1,358,586 $ 1,558,586 129337
5BC0 715678 Corrective Actions $ 705,423 $ 705,423 129338
5BC0 715687 Areawide Planning Agencies $ 450,000 $ 450,000 129339
5BC0 715692 Administration $ 10,582,627 $ 10,582,627 129340
5BC0 715694 Environmental Resource Coordination $ 170,000 $ 170,000 129341
5BT0 715679 C&DD Groundwater Monitoring $ 203,800 $ 203,800 129342
5CD0 715682 Clean Diesel School Buses $ 475,000 $ 475,000 129343
5H40 715664 Groundwater Support $ 128,212 $ 223,212 129344
5Y30 715685 Surface Water Improvement $ 1,800,000 $ 1,800,000 129345
6440 715631 Emergency Response Radiological Safety $ 284,266 $ 290,674 129346
6600 715629 Infectious Waste Management $ 88,764 $ 88,764 129347
6760 715642 Water Pollution Control Loan Administration $ 3,921,605 $ 3,921,605 129348
6780 715635 Air Toxic Release $ 133,636 $ 133,636 129349
6790 715636 Emergency Planning $ 2,623,252 $ 2,623,252 129350
6960 715643 Air Pollution Control Administration $ 1,100,000 $ 1,125,000 129351
6990 715644 Water Pollution Control Administration $ 345,000 $ 345,000 129352
6A10 715645 Environmental Education $ 1,350,000 $ 1,350,000 129353
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue Fund Group $ 131,755,659 $ 135,299,122 129354

Clean Ohio Conservation Fund Group129355

5S10 715607 Clean Ohio - Operating $ 284,124 $ 284,124 129356
TOTAL CLF Clean Ohio Conservation Fund Group $ 284,124 $ 284,124 129357
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 202,652,509 $ 205,756,723 129358

       AREAWIDE PLANNING AGENCIES129359

       The Director of Environmental Protection Agency may award 129360
grants from appropriation item 715687, Areawide Planning Agencies, 129361
to areawide planning agencies engaged in areawide water quality 129362
management and planning activities in accordance with Section 208 129363
of the "Federal Clean Water Act," 33 U.S.C. 1288.129364

       CASH TRANSFERS129365

       On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 129366
Director of Budget and Management may transfer up to $11,400,000 129367
cash from the Hazardous Waste Management Fund (Fund 5030) to the 129368
Hazardous Waste Cleanup Fund (Fund 5050) to support closure and 129369
corrective action programs that were transferred to the Division 129370
of Environmental Response and Revitalization.129371

       On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 129372
Director of Environmental Protection shall certify to the Director 129373
of Budget and Management the cash balance in the Dredge and Fill 129374
Fund (Fund 5N20). The Director of Budget and Management shall 129375
transfer the certified amount from Fund 5N20 to the Surface Water 129376
Protection Fund (Fund 4K40). Any existing encumbrances against 129377
appropriation item 715613, Dredge and Fill, shall be canceled and 129378
reestablished against appropriation item 715650, Surface Water 129379
Protection. The reestablished encumbrance amounts are hereby 129380
appropriated and Fund 5N20 is abolished.129381

       Section 277.10. EBR ENVIRONMENTAL REVIEW APPEALS COMMISSION129382

General Revenue Fund129383

GRF 172321 Operating Expenses $ 545,530 $ 545,530 129384
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 545,530 $ 545,530 129385
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 545,530 $ 545,530 129386


       Section 278.10. ETC BROADCAST EDUCATIONAL MEDIA COMMISSION129388

General Revenue Fund129389

GRF 935401 Statehouse News Bureau $ 215,561 $ 215,561 129390
GRF 935402 Ohio Government Telecommunications Services $ 1,002,089 $ 1,002,089 129391
GRF 935408 General Operations $ 750,000 $ 750,000 129392
GRF 935409 Technology Operations $ 2,500,000 $ 2,500,000 129393
GRF 935410 Content Development, Acquisition, and Distribution $ 2,607,094 $ 2,607,094 129394
GRF 935412 Information Technology $ 500,000 $ 500,000 129395
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 7,574,744 $ 7,574,744 129396

General Services Fund Group129397

4F30 935603 Affiliate Services $ 50,000 $ 0 129398
4T20 935605 Government Television/Telecommunications Operating $ 30,000 $ 0 129399
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 80,000 $ 0 129400

TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 7,654,744 $ 7,574,744 129401


       Section 278.20.  STATEHOUSE NEWS BUREAU129403

       The foregoing appropriation item 935401, Statehouse News 129404
Bureau, shall be used solely to support the operations of the Ohio 129405
Statehouse News Bureau.129406

       OHIO GOVERNMENT TELECOMMUNICATIONS SERVICES129407

       The foregoing appropriation item 935402, Ohio Government 129408
Telecommunications Services, shall be used solely to support the 129409
operations of Ohio Government Telecommunications Services which 129410
include providing multimedia support to the state government and 129411
its affiliated organizations and broadcasting the activities of 129412
the legislative, judicial, and executive branches of state 129413
government, among its other functions.129414

       TECHNOLOGY OPERATIONS129415

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 935409, Technology 129416
Operations, the Broadcast Educational Media Commission shall 129417
provide up to $1,000,000 in each fiscal year to the Board of 129418
Regents in order for the Board of Regents to provide grants on a 129419
competitive basis to public and chartered nonpublic schools for 129420
their participation in the electronic textbook pilot project. 129421
These grants shall be administered as provided under the section 129422
of this act entitled ELECTRONIC TEXTBOOK PILOT PROJECT. On July 1, 129423
2014, or as soon as possible thereafter, the Chancellor of the 129424
Board of Regents may certify to the Director of Budget and 129425
Management the amount of the unexpended, unencumbered balance of 129426
this set aside at the end of fiscal year 2014 to be appropriated 129427
to fiscal year 2015. The amount certified is hereby reappropriated 129428
for the same purpose for fiscal year 2015. 129429

       The remainder of the foregoing appropriation item 935409, 129430
Technology Operations, shall be used by the Broadcast Educational 129431
Media Commission to pay expenses of the network infrastructure, 129432
which includes the television and radio transmission 129433
infrastructure and infrastructure that shall link all public K-12 129434
classrooms to each other and to the Internet, and provide access 129435
to voice, video, other communication services, and data 129436
educational resources for students and teachers. 129437

       CONTENT DEVELOPMENT, ACQUISITION, AND DISTRIBUTION129438

       The foregoing appropriation item 935410, Content Development, 129439
Acquisition, and Distribution, shall be used for the development, 129440
acquisition, and distribution of information resources by public 129441
media and radio reading services and for educational use in the 129442
classroom and online.129443

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 935410, Content 129444
Development, Acquisition, and Distribution, up to $658,099 in each 129445
fiscal year shall be allocated equally among the 12 Ohio 129446
educational television stations. Funds shall be used for the 129447
production of interactive instructional programming series with 129448
priority given to resources aligned with state academic content 129449
standards. The programming shall be targeted to the needs of the 129450
poorest two hundred school districts as determined by the 129451
district's adjusted valuation per pupil as defined in former 129452
section 3317.0213 of the Revised Code as that section existed 129453
prior to June 30, 2005.129454

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 935410, Content 129455
Development, Acquisition, and Distribution, up to $1,749,283 in 129456
each fiscal year shall be distributed by the Broadcast Educational 129457
Media Commission to Ohio's qualified public educational television 129458
stations and educational radio stations to support their 129459
operations. The funds shall be distributed pursuant to an 129460
allocation formula used by the Ohio Educational Telecommunications 129461
Network Commission unless a substitute formula is developed by the 129462
Broadcast Educational Media Commission in consultation with Ohio's 129463
qualified public educational television stations and educational 129464
radio stations.129465

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 935410, Content 129466
Development, Acquisition, and Distribution, up to $199,712 in each 129467
fiscal year shall be distributed by the Broadcast Educational 129468
Media Commission to Ohio's qualified radio reading services to 129469
support their operations. The funds shall be distributed pursuant 129470
to an allocation formula used by the Ohio Educational 129471
Telecommunications Network Commission unless a substitute formula 129472
is developed by the Broadcast Educational Media Commission in 129473
consultation with Ohio's qualified radio reading services.129474

       Section 279.10. ETH OHIO ETHICS COMMISSION129475

General Revenue Fund129476

GRF 146321 Operating Expenses $ 1,409,751 $ 1,381,556 129477
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 1,409,751 $ 1,381,556 129478

General Services Fund Group129479

4M60 146601 Operating Expenses $ 636,388 $ 641,000 129480
TOTAL GSF General Services 129481
Fund Group $ 636,388 $ 641,000 129482
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 2,046,139 $ 2,022,556 129483


       Section 281.10. EXP OHIO EXPOSITIONS COMMISSION129485

General Revenue Fund129486

GRF 723403 Junior Fair Subsidy $ 250,000 $ 250,000 129487
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 250,000 $ 250,000 129488

State Special Revenue Fund Group129489

4N20 723602 Ohio State Fair Harness Racing $ 235,000 $ 235,000 129490
5060 723601 Operating Expenses $ 12,894,000 $ 12,894,000 129491
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 129492
Fund Group $ 13,129,000 $ 13,129,000 129493
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 13,379,000 $ 13,379,000 129494

       STATE FAIR RESERVE129495

       The General Manager of the Expositions Commission, in 129496
consultation with the Director of Budget and Management, may 129497
submit a request to the Controlling Board to use available amounts 129498
in the State Fair Reserve Fund (Fund 6400) if revenues for the 129499
Ohio State Fair for the 2013 or 2014 Ohio State Fair are 129500
unexpectedly low.129501

       Section 282.10. FCC OHIO FACILITIES CONSTRUCTION COMMISSION129502

General Revenue Fund129503

GRF 230401 Lease Rental Payments - Cultural Facilities $ 33,106,400 $ 29,854,500 129504
GRF 230458 State Construction Management Services $ 2,495,751 $ 2,245,751 129505
GRF 230908 Common Schools General Obligation Debt Service $ 351,806,100 $ 377,364,700 129506
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 387,408,251 $ 409,464,951 129507

General Services Fund Group129508

1310 230639 State Construction Management Operations $ 9,463,342 $ 9,463,342 129509
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 9,463,342 $ 9,463,342 129510

State Special Revenue Fund Group129511

4T80 230603 Community Project Administration $ 200,000 $ 200,000 129512
5E30 230644 Operating Expenses $ 8,550,000 $ 8,550,000 129513
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 129514
Fund Group $ 8,750,000 $ 8,750,000 129515
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 405,621,593 $ 427,678,293 129516


       Section 282.20. LEASE RENTAL PAYMENTS129518

       The foregoing appropriation item 230401, Lease Rental 129519
Payments - Cultural Facilities, shall be used to meet all payments 129520
at the times they are required to be made during the period from 129521
July 1, 2013 through June 30, 2015, from the Ohio Facilities 129522
Construction Commission under the primary leases and agreements 129523
for those arts and sports facilities made under Chapters 152. and 129524
154. of the Revised Code. These appropriations are the source of 129525
funds pledged for bond service charges on related obligations 129526
issued under Chapters 152. and 154. of the Revised Code.129527

       COMMON SCHOOLS GENERAL OBLIGATION DEBT SERVICE129528

       The foregoing appropriation item 230908, Common Schools 129529
General Obligation Debt Service, shall be used to pay all debt 129530
service and related financing costs at the times they are required 129531
to be made during the period from July 1, 2013, through June 30, 129532
2015, for obligations issued under sections 151.01 and 151.03 of 129533
the Revised Code.129534

       Section 282.30.  COMMUNITY PROJECT ADMINISTRATION129535

       The foregoing appropriation item 230603, Community Project 129536
Administration, shall be used by the Ohio Facilities Construction 129537
Commission in administering Cultural and Sports Facilities 129538
Building Fund (Fund 7030) projects pursuant to section 123.201 of 129539
the Revised Code.129540

       Section 282.40. OPERATING EXPENSES129541

       The foregoing appropriation item 230644, Operating Expenses, 129542
shall be used by the Ohio School Facilities Commission to carry 129543
out its responsibilities under this section and Chapter 3318. of 129544
the Revised Code.129545

       In both fiscal years 2014 and 2015, the Executive Director of 129546
the Ohio School Facilities Commission shall certify on a quarterly 129547
basis to the Director of Budget and Management the amount of cash 129548
from interest earnings to be transferred from the School Building 129549
Assistance Fund (Fund 7032), the Public School Building Fund (Fund 129550
7021), and the Educational Facilities Trust Fund (Fund N087) to 129551
the Ohio School Facilities Commission Fund (Fund 5E30). The amount 129552
transferred from the School Building Assistance Fund (Fund 7032) 129553
may not exceed investment earnings credited to the fund, less any 129554
amount required to be paid for federal arbitrage rebate purposes.129555

       If the Executive Director of the Ohio Facilities Construction 129556
Commission determines that transferring cash from interest 129557
earnings is insufficient to support operations and carry out its 129558
responsibilities under this section and Chapter 3318. of the 129559
Revised Code, the Commission may, with the approval of the 129560
Controlling Board, transfer cash not generated from interest from 129561
the Public School Building Fund (Fund 7021) and the Educational 129562
Trust Fund (Fund N087) to the Ohio School Facilities Commission 129563
Fund (Fund 5E30).129564

       SCHOOL FACILITIES ENCUMBRANCES AND REAPPROPRIATION129565

       At the request of the Executive Director of the Ohio School 129566
Facilities Commission, the Director of Budget and Management may 129567
cancel encumbrances for school district projects from a previous 129568
biennium if the district has not raised its local share of project 129569
costs within thirteen months of receiving Controlling Board 129570
approval under section 3318.05 or 3318.41 of the Revised Code. The 129571
Executive Director of the Ohio School Facilities Commission shall 129572
certify the amounts of the canceled encumbrances to the Director 129573
of Budget and Management on a quarterly basis. The amounts of the 129574
canceled encumbrances are hereby appropriated.129575

       Section 282.50. CAPITAL DONATIONS FUND CERTIFICATIONS AND 129576
APPROPRIATIONS129577

        The Executive Director of the Facilities Construction 129578
Commission shall certify to the Director of Budget and Management 129579
the amount of cash receipts and related investment income, 129580
irrevocable letters of credit from a bank, or certification of the 129581
availability of funds that have been received from a county or a 129582
municipal corporation for deposit into the Capital Donations Fund 129583
(Fund 5A10) and that are related to an anticipated project. These 129584
amounts are hereby appropriated to appropriation item C37146, 129585
Capital Donations. Prior to certifying these amounts to the 129586
Director, the Executive Director shall make a written agreement 129587
with the participating entity on the necessary cash flows required 129588
for the anticipated construction or equipment acquisition project.129589

       Section 282.60.  AMENDMENT TO PROJECT AGREEMENT FOR 129590
MAINTENANCE LEVY129591

        The Ohio School Facilities Commission shall amend the project 129592
agreement between the Commission and a school district that is 129593
participating in the Accelerated Urban School Building Assistance 129594
Program on the effective date of this section, if the Commission 129595
determines that it is necessary to do so in order to comply with 129596
division (B)(3)(c) of section 3318.38 of the Revised Code.129597

       Section 282.70. Notwithstanding any other provision of law to 129598
the contrary, the Ohio School Facilities Commission may determine 129599
the amount of funding available for disbursement in a given fiscal 129600
year for any project approved under sections 3318.01 to 3318.20 of 129601
the Revised Code in order to keep aggregate state capital spending 129602
within approved limits and may take actions including, but not 129603
limited to, determining the schedule for design or bidding of 129604
approved projects, to ensure appropriate and supportable cash 129605
flow. 129606

       Section 282.80. Notwithstanding division (B) of section 129607
3318.40 of the Revised Code, the Ohio School Facilities Commission 129608
may provide assistance to at least one joint vocational school 129609
district each fiscal year for the acquisition of classroom 129610
facilities in accordance with sections 3318.40 to 3318.45 of the 129611
Revised Code. 129612

       Section 282.90. The Ohio Cultural Facilities Commission is 129613
abolished. Except as otherwise provided in this section, all 129614
obligations of the Ohio Cultural Facilities Commission under 129615
agreements to which the Ohio Cultural Facilities Commission is a 129616
party, and all records and assets of the Ohio Cultural Facilities 129617
Commission, including, without limitation, equipment, inventory, 129618
contract rights, accounts, and general intangibles, are 129619
transferred to the Ohio Facilities Construction Commission.129620

       The Ohio Facilities Construction Commission shall designate 129621
the positions, if any, to be transferred to the Ohio Facilities 129622
Construction Commission, along with any equipment assigned to 129623
those positions. Any employee transferred to the Ohio Facilities 129624
Construction Commission retains the employee's respective 129625
classification, but the Ohio Facilities Construction Commission 129626
may reassign and reclassify the employee's position and 129627
compensation as the Ohio Facilities Construction Commission 129628
determines to be in the best interest of office administration.129629

       The Ohio Facilities Construction Commission shall complete 129630
any activities related to the design, planning, construction, and 129631
related management functions commenced but not completed by the 129632
Ohio Cultural Facilities Commission in the same manner and with 129633
the same effect as if the Ohio Cultural Facilities Commission had 129634
completed them. The consolidation of the commissions shall not 129635
cause the loss or impairment of any validation, cure, right, 129636
privilege, remedy, obligation, or liability, which the Ohio 129637
Facilities Construction Commission shall administer. 129638

        All rules, orders, and determinations related to the design, 129639
planning, and construction and related management functions of the 129640
Ohio Cultural Facilities Commission continue in effect as rules, 129641
orders, and determinations of the Ohio Facilities Construction 129642
Commission until the Ohio Facilities Construction Commission 129643
modifies or rescinds them. The Director of the Legislative Service 129644
Commission shall renumber the rules of the Ohio Cultural 129645
Facilities Commission related to that commission's design, 129646
planning, and construction and related management functions to 129647
reflect their transfer to the Ohio Facilities Construction 129648
Commission.129649

       The transfer of functions from the Ohio Cultural Facilities 129650
Commission to the Ohio Facilities Construction Commission does not 129651
affect any pending judicial or administrative action or proceeding 129652
to which the Ohio Cultural Facilities Commission is a party and 129653
that is related to that commission's design, planning, 129654
construction, capital funding, or related management functions. 129655
Any such action or proceeding shall be prosecuted or defended in 129656
the name of the Ohio Facilities Construction Commission. On 129657
application to the court or agency, the Ohio Facilities 129658
Construction Commission shall be substituted for the Ohio Cultural 129659
Facilities Commission as a party to the action or proceeding.129660

       Effective July 1, 2013, the Director of Budget and Management 129661
shall cancel any existing encumbrances against appropriation item 129662
371603, Project Administration, and re-establish them against 129663
appropriation item 230603, Community Project Administration. The 129664
re-established encumbrance amounts are hereby appropriated. Any 129665
business commenced but not completed under appropriation item 129666
371603 by July 1, 2013, shall be completed under appropriation 129667
item 230603 in the same manner and with the same effect as if it 129668
were completed with regard to appropriation item 371603.129669

       Funds collected as part of a management contract for the 129670
Riffe Theatres, which previously were deposited in the Ohio 129671
Cultural Facilities Commission Administration Fund (Fund 4T80), 129672
shall be credited to the Theater Equipment Maintenance Fund (Fund 129673
5MV0), which is hereby created in the State Treasury. The Director 129674
of Budget and Management shall transfer from the Ohio Cultural 129675
Facilities Commission Administration Fund to the Theater Equipment 129676
Maintenance Fund any remaining cash balances from funds collected 129677
as part of a management contract for the Riffe Theatres. In order 129678
to facilitate this transfer, the Executive Director of the Ohio 129679
Facilities Construction Commission, by July 1, 2013, or as soon as 129680
possible thereafter, shall certify to the Director of Budget and 129681
Management an estimate of the amount to be transferred. The 129682
Department of Administrative Services shall use appropriation item 129683
100662, Theater Equipment Maintenance, to spend cash in the 129684
Theater Equipment Maintenance Fund (Fund 5MV0).129685

       The Ohio Facilities Construction Commission may enter into an 129686
interagency agreement with the Department of Administrative 129687
Services for the Department to perform any of the functions 129688
transferred to the Ohio Facilities Construction Commission under 129689
this section.129690

       Any reference to the Ohio Cultural Facilities Commission in 129691
any statute, rule, contract, grant, or other document is deemed to 129692
refer to the Ohio Facilities Construction Commission.129693

       The Ohio Facilities Construction Commission, the Ohio Public 129694
Facilities Commission, and the issuing authority of any 129695
obligations issued for the financing of capital facilities for 129696
Ohio cultural facilities and Ohio sports facilities may execute 129697
instruments, documents, and agreements and may take necessary or 129698
appropriate actions to effect the orderly transfer of those 129699
obligations from the Ohio Cultural Facilities Commission to the 129700
Ohio Facilities Construction Commission.129701

       This section takes effect July 1, 2013.129702

       Section 283.10. GOV OFFICE OF THE GOVERNOR129703

General Revenue Fund129704

GRF 040321 Operating Expenses $ 2,851,552 $ 2,851,552 129705
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 2,851,552 $ 2,851,552 129706

General Services Fund Group129707

5AK0 040607 Government Relations $ 365,149 $ 365,149 129708
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 365,149 $ 365,149 129709

TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 3,216,701 $ 3,216,701 129710

       GOVERNMENT RELATIONS129711

       A portion of the foregoing appropriation item 040607, 129712
Government Relations, may be used to support Ohio's membership in 129713
national or regional associations.129714

       The Office of the Governor may charge any state agency of the 129715
executive branch using an intrastate transfer voucher such amounts 129716
necessary to defray the costs incurred for the conduct of 129717
governmental relations associated with issues that can be 129718
attributed to the agency. Amounts collected shall be deposited in 129719
the Government Relations Fund (Fund 5AK0).129720

       Section 285.10. DOH DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH129721

General Revenue Fund129722

GRF 440412 Cancer Incidence Surveillance System $ 600,000 $ 600,000 129723
GRF 440413 Local Health Departments $ 823,061 $ 823,061 129724
GRF 440416 Mothers and Children Safety Net Services $ 4,428,015 $ 4,428,015 129725
GRF 440418 Immunizations $ 8,825,829 $ 8,825,829 129726
GRF 440431 Free Clinics Safety Net Services $ 437,326 $ 437,326 129727
GRF 440438 Breast and Cervical Cancer Screening $ 823,217 $ 823,217 129728
GRF 440444 AIDS Prevention and Treatment $ 5,842,315 $ 5,842,315 129729
GRF 440451 Public Health Laboratory $ 3,655,449 $ 3,655,449 129730
GRF 440452 Child and Family Health Services Match $ 630,444 $ 630,444 129731
GRF 440453 Health Care Quality Assurance $ 4,874,361 $ 4,874,361 129732
GRF 440454 Environmental Health $ 1,194,634 $ 1,194,634 129733
GRF 440459 Help Me Grow $ 33,673,987 $ 33,673,987 129734
GRF 440465 Federally Qualified Health Centers $ 2,686,688 $ 2,686,688 129735
GRF 440467 Access to Dental Care $ 540,484 $ 540,484 129736
GRF 440468 Chronic Disease and Injury Prevention $ 2,447,251 $ 2,447,251 129737
GRF 440472 Alcohol Testing $ 1,100,000 $ 1,100,000 129738
GRF 440473 Tobacco Prevention and Cessation $ 1,050,000 $ 1,050,000 129739
GRF 440474 Infant Vitality $ 3,116,688 $ 3,116,688 129740
GRF 440505 Medically Handicapped Children $ 7,512,451 $ 7,512,451 129741
GRF 440507 Targeted Health Care Services Over 21 $ 1,045,414 $ 1,045,414 129742
GRF 654453 Medicaid - Health Care Quality Assurance $ 3,300,000 $ 3,300,000 129743
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 88,607,614 $ 88,607,614 129744

State Highway Safety Fund Group129745

4T40 440603 Child Highway Safety $ 233,894 $ 233,894 129746
TOTAL HSF State Highway Safety 129747
Fund Group $ 233,894 $ 233,894 129748

General Services Fund Group129749

1420 440646 Agency Health Services $ 820,998 $ 820,998 129750
2110 440613 Central Support Indirect Costs $ 30,615,591 $ 31,052,469 129751
4730 440622 Lab Operating Expenses $ 5,000,000 $ 5,000,000 129752
6830 440633 Employee Assistance Program $ 1,100,000 $ 1,100,000 129753
6980 440634 Nurse Aide Training $ 99,265 $ 99,265 129754
TOTAL GSF General Services 129755
Fund Group $ 37,635,854 $ 38,072,732 129756

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group129757

3200 440601 Maternal Child Health Block Grant $ 23,889,057 $ 23,889,057 129758
3870 440602 Preventive Health Block Grant $ 6,000,000 $ 6,000,000 129759
3890 440604 Women, Infants, and Children $ 250,000,000 $ 250,000,000 129760
3910 440606 Medicare Survey and Certification $ 19,449,282 $ 19,961,405 129761
3920 440618 Federal Public Health Programs $ 134,546,304 $ 135,140,586 129762
3GD0 654601 Medicaid Program Support $ 21,126,014 $ 22,392,094 129763
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 129764
Fund Group $ 455,010,657 $ 457,383,142 129765

State Special Revenue Fund Group129766

4700 440647 Fee Supported Programs $ 25,305,250 $ 25,613,586 129767
4710 440619 Certificate of Need $ 878,433 $ 878,433 129768
4770 440627 Medically Handicapped Children Audit $ 3,692,703 $ 3,692,703 129769
4D60 440608 Genetics Services $ 3,311,039 $ 3,311,039 129770
4F90 440610 Sickle Cell Disease Control $ 1,032,824 $ 1,032,824 129771
4G00 440636 Heirloom Birth Certificate $ 5,000 $ 5,000 129772
4G00 440637 Birth Certificate Surcharge $ 5,000 $ 5,000 129773
4L30 440609 HIV Care and Miscellaneous Expenses $ 8,333,164 $ 8,333,164 129774
4P40 440628 Ohio Physician Loan Repayment $ 476,870 $ 476,870 129775
4V60 440641 Save Our Sight $ 2,255,789 $ 2,255,789 129776
5B50 440616 Quality, Monitoring, and Inspection $ 878,997 $ 878,997 129777
5CN0 440645 Choose Life $ 75,000 $ 75,000 129778
5D60 440620 Second Chance Trust $ 1,151,902 $ 1,151,902 129779
5ED0 440651 Smoke Free Indoor Air $ 250,000 $ 250,000 129780
5G40 440639 Adoption Services $ 20,000 $ 20,000 129781
5Z70 440624 Ohio Dentist Loan Repayment $ 140,000 $ 140,000 129782
6100 440626 Radiation Emergency Response $ 1,049,954 $ 1,086,098 129783
6660 440607 Medically Handicapped Children - County Assessments $ 19,739,617 $ 19,739,617 129784
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 129785
Fund Group $ 68,601,542 $ 68,946,022 129786

Holding Account Redistribution Fund Group129787

R014 440631 Vital Statistics $ 44,986 $ 44,986 129788
R048 440625 Refunds, Grants Reconciliation, and Audit Settlements $ 20,000 $ 20,000 129789
TOTAL 090 Holding Account 129790
Redistribution Fund Group $ 64,986 $ 64,986 129791

Tobacco Master Settlement Agreement Fund Group129792

5BX0 440656 Tobacco Use Prevention $ 1,450,000 $ 1,450,000 129793
TOTAL TSF Tobacco Master Settlement Agreement Fund Group $ 1,450,000 $ 1,450,000 129794
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 651,604,547 $ 654,758,390 129795


       Section 285.20.  MOTHERS AND CHILDREN SAFETY NET SERVICES129797

        Of the foregoing appropriation item 440416, Mothers and 129798
Children Safety Net Services, $200,000 in each fiscal year shall 129799
be used to assist families with hearing impaired children under 129800
twenty-one years of age in purchasing hearing aids. The Director 129801
of Health shall adopt rules governing the distribution of these 129802
funds, including rules that do both of the following: (1) 129803
establish eligibility criteria to include families with incomes at 129804
or below four hundred per cent of the federal poverty guidelines 129805
as defined in section 5101.46 of the Revised Code, and (2) develop 129806
a sliding scale of disbursements under this section based on 129807
family income. The Director may adopt other rules as necessary to 129808
implement this section. Rules adopted under this section shall be 129809
adopted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.129810

        The Department shall disburse all of the funds appropriated 129811
under this section.129812

        HIV/AIDS PREVENTION/TREATMENT129813

       The foregoing appropriation item 440444, AIDS Prevention and 129814
Treatment, shall be used to assist persons with HIV/AIDS in 129815
acquiring HIV-related medications and to administer educational 129816
prevention initiatives.129817

       PUBLIC HEALTH LABORATORY129818

       A portion of the foregoing appropriation item 440451, Public 129819
Health Laboratory, shall be used for coordination and management 129820
of prevention program operations and the purchase of drugs for 129821
sexually transmitted diseases.129822

       HELP ME GROW129823

       The foregoing appropriation item 440459, Help Me Grow, shall 129824
be used by the Department of Health to implement the Help Me Grow 129825
Program. Funds shall be distributed to counties through 129826
agreements, contracts, grants, or subsidies in accordance with 129827
section 3701.61 of the Revised Code. Appropriation item 440459, 129828
Help Me Grow, may be used in conjunction with other early 129829
childhood funds and services to promote the optimal development of 129830
young children and family-centered programs and services that 129831
acknowledge and support the social, emotional, cognitive, 129832
intellectual, and physical development of children and the vital 129833
role of families in ensuring the well-being and success of 129834
children. The Department of Health shall enter into interagency 129835
agreements with the Department of Education, Department of 129836
Developmental Disabilities, Department of Job and Family Services, 129837
and Department of Mental Health and Addiction Services to ensure 129838
that all early childhood programs and initiatives are coordinated 129839
and school linked.129840

       The foregoing appropriation item 440459, Help Me Grow, may 129841
also be used for the Developmental Autism and Screening Program.129842

       INFANT VITALITY129843

       The foregoing appropriation item 440474, Infant Vitality, 129844
shall be used to fund the following projects, which are hereby 129845
created: 129846

       (A) The Infant Safe Sleep Campaign to educate parents and 129847
caregivers with a uniform message regarding safe sleep 129848
environments; 129849

       (B) The Progesterone Prematurity Prevention Project to enable 129850
prenatal care providers to identify, screen, treat, and track 129851
outcomes for women eligible for progesterone supplementation; and 129852

       (C) The Prenatal Smoking Cessation Project to enable prenatal 129853
care providers who work with women of reproductive age, including 129854
pregnant women, to have the tools, training, and technical 129855
assistance needed to treat smokers effectively. 129856

       TARGETED HEALTH CARE SERVICES OVER 21129857

       The foregoing appropriation item 440507, Targeted Health Care 129858
Services Over 21, shall be used to administer the Cystic Fibrosis 129859
Program and to implement the Hemophilia Insurance Premium Payment 129860
Program.129861

       The foregoing appropriation item 440507, Targeted Health Care 129862
Services Over 21, shall also be used to provide essential 129863
medications and to pay the copayments for drugs approved by the 129864
Department of Health and covered by Medicare Part D that are 129865
dispensed to Bureau for Children with Medical Handicaps (BCMH) 129866
participants for the Cystic Fibrosis Program.129867

       The Department shall expend all of these funds.129868

       GENETICS SERVICES129869

       The foregoing appropriation item 440608, Genetics Services 129870
(Fund 4D60), shall be used by the Department of Health to 129871
administer programs authorized by sections 3701.501 and 3701.502 129872
of the Revised Code. None of these funds shall be used to counsel 129873
or refer for abortion, except in the case of a medical emergency.129874

       MEDICALLY HANDICAPPED CHILDREN AUDIT129875

       The Medically Handicapped Children Audit Fund (Fund 4770) 129876
shall receive revenue from audits of hospitals and recoveries from 129877
third-party payers. Moneys may be expended for payment of audit 129878
settlements and for costs directly related to obtaining recoveries 129879
from third-party payers and for encouraging Medically Handicapped 129880
Children's Program recipients to apply for third-party benefits. 129881
Moneys also may be expended for payments for diagnostic and 129882
treatment services on behalf of medically handicapped children, as 129883
defined in division (A) of section 3701.022 of the Revised Code, 129884
and Ohio residents who are twenty-one or more years of age and who 129885
are suffering from cystic fibrosis or hemophilia. Moneys may also 129886
be expended for administrative expenses incurred in operating the 129887
Medically Handicapped Children's Program.129888

       MEDICALLY HANDICAPPED CHILDREN - COUNTY ASSESSMENTS129889

       The foregoing appropriation item 440607, Medically 129890
Handicapped Children - County Assessments (Fund 6660), shall be 129891
used to make payments under division (E) of section 3701.023 of 129892
the Revised Code.129893

       CASH TRANSFER FROM THE PUBLIC HEALTH PRIORITIES TRUST FUND TO 129894
THE TOBACCO USE PREVENTION FUND129895

       On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 129896
Director of Budget and Management shall transfer $2,439,230 cash 129897
from the Public Health Priorities Trust Fund (Fund L087) to the 129898
Tobacco Use Prevention Fund (Fund 5BX0) to meet the operating 129899
needs of the Department of Health's tobacco enforcement and 129900
cessation efforts.129901

       Section 285.30. DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH'S APPROPRIATION ITEM 129902
STRUCTURE129903

       Upon request from the Director of Health, the Director of 129904
Budget and Management may establish new funds, new appropriation 129905
items, and appropriations in order to support the transition to a 129906
new appropriation item structure in the Department of Health's 129907
budget. Also, upon request of the Director of Health, the Director 129908
of Budget and Management may transfer appropriations between GRF 129909
appropriation items, transfer cash between any funds used by the 129910
Department of Health, abolish existing funds used by the 129911
Department of Health, and cancel and reestablish encumbrances. Any 129912
establishment of new funds or appropriation items, any transfers 129913
of appropriations or cash, and any increases in appropriation 129914
under this section are subject to Controlling Board approval.129915

       Section 287.10. HEF HIGHER EDUCATIONAL FACILITY COMMISSION129916

Agency Fund Group129917

4610 372601 Operating Expenses $ 12,500 $ 12,500 129918
TOTAL AGY Agency Fund Group $ 12,500 $ 12,500 129919
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 12,500 $ 12,500 129920


       Section 289.10. SPA COMMISSION ON HISPANIC/LATINO AFFAIRS129922

General Revenue Fund129923

GRF 148100 Personal Services $ 279,998 $ 279,998 129924
GRF 148402 Community Programs $ 44,924 $ 44,924 129925
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 324,922 $ 324,922 129926

General Services Fund Group129927

6010 148602 Special Initiatives $ 24,558 $ 24,558 129928
TOTAL GSF General Services 129929
Fund Group $ 24,558 $ 24,558 129930
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 349,480 $ 349,480 129931


       Section 291.10. OHS OHIO HISTORICAL SOCIETY129933

General Revenue Fund129934

GRF 360501 Education and Collections $ 3,618,997 $ 3,618,997 129935
GRF 360502 Site and Museum Operations $ 4,426,288 $ 4,926,288 129936
GRF 360504 Ohio Preservation Office $ 290,000 $ 290,000 129937
GRF 360505 National Afro-American Museum $ 414,798 $ 414,798 129938
GRF 360506 Hayes Presidential Center $ 309,147 $ 309,147 129939
GRF 360508 State Historical Grants $ 400,000 $ 400,000 129940
GRF 360509 Outreach and Partnership $ 90,395 $ 90,395 129941
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 9,549,625 $ 10,049,625 129942

Agency Fund Group129943

5KL0 360602 Ohio History Tax Check-off $ 250,000 $ 250,000 129944
TOTAL AGY Agency Fund Group $ 250,000 $ 250,000 129945
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 9,799,625 $ 10,299,625 129946

       SUBSIDY APPROPRIATION129947

       Upon approval by the Director of Budget and Management, the 129948
foregoing appropriation items shall be released to the Ohio 129949
Historical Society in quarterly amounts that in total do not 129950
exceed the annual appropriations. The funds and fiscal records of 129951
the society for fiscal year 2014 and fiscal year 2015 shall be 129952
examined by independent certified public accountants approved by 129953
the Auditor of State, and a copy of the audited financial 129954
statements shall be filed with the Office of Budget and 129955
Management. The society shall prepare and submit to the Office of 129956
Budget and Management the following:129957

       (A) An estimated operating budget for each fiscal year of the 129958
biennium. The operating budget shall be submitted at or near the 129959
beginning of each calendar year.129960

       (B) Financial reports, indicating actual receipts and 129961
expenditures for the fiscal year to date. These reports shall be 129962
filed at least semiannually during the fiscal biennium.129963

       The foregoing appropriations shall be considered to be the 129964
contractual consideration provided by the state to support the 129965
state's offer to contract with the Ohio Historical Society under 129966
section 149.30 of the Revised Code.129967

       STATE HISTORICAL GRANTS129968

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 360508, State Historical 129969
Grants, $200,000 in each fiscal year shall be used for the 129970
Cincinnati Museum Center, and $200,000 in each fiscal year shall 129971
be used for the Western Reserve Historical Society.129972



       Section 293.10.  REP OHIO HOUSE OF REPRESENTATIVES129974

General Revenue Fund129975

GRF 025321 Operating Expenses $ 21,031,091 $ 21,031,091 129976
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 21,031,091 $ 21,031,091 129977

General Services Fund Group129978

1030 025601 House Reimbursement $ 1,433,664 $ 1,433,664 129979
4A40 025602 Miscellaneous Sales $ 37,849 $ 37,849 129980
TOTAL GSF General Services 129981
Fund Group $ 1,471,513 $ 1,471,513 129982
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 22,502,604 $ 22,502,604 129983

        OPERATING EXPENSES129984

       On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the Chief 129985
Administrative Officer of the House of Representatives may certify 129986
to the Director of Budget and Management the amount of the 129987
unexpended, unencumbered balance of the foregoing appropriation 129988
item 025321, Operating Expenses, at the end of fiscal year 2013 to 129989
be reappropriated to fiscal year 2014. The amount certified is 129990
hereby reappropriated to the same appropriation item for fiscal 129991
year 2014.129992

        On July 1, 2014, or as soon as possible thereafter, the Chief 129993
Administrative Officer of the House of Representatives may certify 129994
to the Director of Budget and Management the amount of the 129995
unexpended, unencumbered balance of the foregoing appropriation 129996
item 025321, Operating Expenses, at the end of fiscal year 2014 to 129997
be reappropriated to fiscal year 2015. The amount certified is 129998
hereby reappropriated to the same appropriation item for fiscal 129999
year 2015.130000

       HOUSE REIMBURSEMENT130001

       If it is determined by the Chief Administrative Officer of 130002
the House of Representatives that additional appropriations are 130003
necessary for the foregoing appropriation item 025601, House 130004
Reimbursement, the amounts are hereby appropriated.130005

       Section 295.10. HFA OHIO HOUSING FINANCE AGENCY130006

State Special Revenue Fund Group130007

5AZ0 997601 Housing Finance Agency Personal Services $ 12,156,982 $ 12,156,982 130008
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue Fund Group $ 12,156,982 $ 12,156,982 130009
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 12,156,982 $ 12,156,982 130010


       Section 297.10. IGO OFFICE OF THE INSPECTOR GENERAL130012

General Revenue Fund130013

GRF 965321 Operating Expenses $ 1,175,598 $ 1,175,598 130014
GRF 965404 Deputy Inspector General for ARRA $ 475,000 $ 350,000 130015
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 1,650,598 $ 1,525,598 130016

General Services Fund Group130017

5FA0 965603 Deputy Inspector General for ODOT $ 400,000 $ 400,000 130018
5FT0 965604 Deputy Inspector General for BWC/OIC $ 425,000 $ 425,000 130019
5GI0 965605 Deputy Inspector General for ARRA $ 25,000 $ 0 130020
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 850,000 $ 825,000 130021
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 2,500,598 $ 2,350,598 130022


       Section 299.10.  INS DEPARTMENT OF INSURANCE130024

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group130025

3EV0 820610 Health Insurance Premium Review $ 1,300,000 $ 1,300,000 130026
3U50 820602 OSHIIP Operating Grant $ 1,970,725 $ 1,970,725 130027
TOTAL FED Federal Special 130028
Revenue Fund Group $ 3,270,725 $ 3,270,725 130029

State Special Revenue Fund Group130030

5540 820601 Operating Expenses - OSHIIP $ 180,000 $ 180,000 130031
5540 820606 Operating Expenses $ 27,570,433 $ 24,910,367 130032
5550 820605 Examination $ 8,184,065 $ 8,184,065 130033
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 130034
Fund Group $ 35,934,498 $ 33,274,432 130035
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 39,205,223 $ 36,545,157 130036

       MARKET CONDUCT EXAMINATION130037

       When conducting a market conduct examination of any insurer 130038
doing business in this state, the Superintendent of Insurance may 130039
assess the costs of the examination against the insurer. The 130040
superintendent may enter into consent agreements to impose 130041
administrative assessments or fines for conduct discovered that 130042
may be violations of statutes or rules administered by the 130043
Superintendent. All costs, assessments, or fines collected shall 130044
be deposited to the credit of the Department of Insurance 130045
Operating Fund (Fund 5540).130046

       EXAMINATIONS OF DOMESTIC FRATERNAL BENEFIT SOCIETIES130047

       The Director of Budget and Management, at the request of the 130048
Superintendent of Insurance, may transfer funds from the 130049
Department of Insurance Operating Fund (Fund 5540), established by 130050
section 3901.021 of the Revised Code, to the Superintendent's 130051
Examination Fund (Fund 5550), established by section 3901.071 of 130052
the Revised Code, only for expenses incurred in examining domestic 130053
fraternal benefit societies as required by section 3921.28 of the 130054
Revised Code.130055

       TRANSFER FROM FUND 5540 TO GENERAL REVENUE FUND130056

        Not later than the thirty-first day of July each fiscal year, 130057
the Director of Budget and Management shall transfer $5,000,000 130058
from the Department of Insurance Operating Fund (Fund 5540) to the 130059
General Revenue Fund.130060

       Section 301.10. JFS DEPARTMENT OF JOB AND FAMILY SERVICES130061

General Revenue Fund130062

GRF 600321 Program Support $ 31,320,964 $ 31,109,751 130063
GRF 600410 TANF State/Maintenance of Effort $ 151,386,934 $ 151,386,934 130064
GRF 600413 Child Care State/Maintenance of Effort $ 84,732,730 $ 84,732,730 130065
GRF 600416 Information Technology Projects $ 54,223,871 $ 54,184,700 130066
GRF 600420 Child Support Programs $ 6,498,667 $ 6,591,048 130067
GRF 600421 Family Assistance Programs $ 3,161,930 $ 3,161,930 130068
GRF 600423 Families and Children Programs $ 6,384,514 $ 6,542,517 130069
GRF 600502 Child Support - Local $ 23,814,103 $ 23,814,103 130070
GRF 600511 Disability Financial Assistance $ 22,000,000 $ 22,000,000 130071
GRF 600521 Family Assistance - Local $ 41,132,751 $ 41,132,751 130072
GRF 600523 Family and Children Services $ 55,605,323 $ 54,105,323 130073
GRF 600528 Adoption Services 130074
State $ 28,623,389 $ 28,623,389 130075
Federal $ 38,202,557 $ 38,202,557 130076
Adoption Services Total $ 66,825,946 $ 66,825,946 130077
GRF 600533 Child, Family, and Adult Community & Protective Services $ 13,500,000 $ 13,500,000 130078
GRF 600534 Adult Protective Services $ 366,003 $ 366,003 130079
GRF 600535 Early Care and Education $ 123,596,474 $ 123,596,474 130080
GRF 600540 Food Banks $ 6,000,000 $ 6,000,000 130081
GRF 600541 Kinship Permanency Incentive Program $ 3,500,000 $ 3,500,000 130082
GRF 655522 Medicaid Program Support - Local $ 31,067,970 $ 31,067,970 130083
GRF 655523 Medicaid Program Support - Local Transportation $ 30,680,495 $ 30,680,495 130084
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund 130085
State $ 717,596,118 $ 716,096,118 130086
Federal $ 38,202,557 $ 38,202,557 130087
GRF Total $ 755,798,675 $ 754,298,675 130088

General Services Fund Group130089

4A80 600658 Public Assistance Activities $ 34,000,000 $ 34,000,000 130090
5DM0 600633 Administration & Operating $ 19,660,339 $ 19,660,339 130091
5HC0 600695 Unemployment Compensation Interest $ 60,000,000 $ 60,000,000 130092
5HL0 600602 State and County Shared Services $ 3,020,000 $ 3,020,000 130093
6130 600645 Training Activities $ 8,100,000 $ 92,989 130094
TOTAL GSF General Services 130095
Fund Group $ 124,780,339 $ 116,773,328 130096

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group130097

3270 600606 Child Welfare $ 29,769,866 $ 29,769,866 130098
3310 600615 Veterans Programs $ 8,000,000 $ 8,000,000 130099
3310 600624 Employment Services Programs $ 26,000,000 $ 26,000,000 130100
3310 600686 Workforce Programs $ 6,260,000 $ 6,260,000 130101
3840 600610 Food Assistance Programs $ 209,333,246 $ 180,381,394 130102
3850 600614 Refugee Services $ 12,564,952 $ 12,564,952 130103
3950 600616 Federal Discretionary Grants $ 2,259,264 $ 2,259,264 130104
3960 600620 Social Services Block Grant $ 47,000,000 $ 47,000,000 130105
3970 600626 Child Support - Federal $ 235,000,000 $ 235,000,000 130106
3980 600627 Adoption Program - Federal $ 174,178,779 $ 174,178,779 130107
3A20 600641 Emergency Food Distribution $ 5,000,000 $ 5,000,000 130108
3D30 600648 Children's Trust Fund Federal $ 3,477,699 $ 3,477,699 130109
3F01 655624 Medicaid Program Support $ 110,680,495 $ 110,680,495 130110
3H70 600617 Child Care Federal $ 241,987,805 $ 222,212,089 130111
3N00 600628 Foster Care Program - Federal $ 311,968,616 $ 311,968,616 130112
3S50 600622 Child Support Projects $ 534,050 $ 534,050 130113
3V00 600688 Workforce Investment Act Programs $ 136,000,000 $ 136,000,000 130114
3V40 600678 Federal Unemployment Programs $ 182,814,212 $ 182,814,212 130115
3V40 600679 UC Review Commission - Federal $ 6,185,788 $ 6,185,788 130116
3V60 600689 TANF Block Grant $ 777,957,809 $ 790,304,845 130117
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 130118
Fund Group $ 2,526,972,581 $ 2,490,592,049 130119

State Special Revenue Fund Group130120

1980 600647 Children's Trust Fund $ 5,873,848 $ 5,873,848 130121
4A90 600607 Unemployment Compensation Administration Fund $ 9,006,000 $ 9,006,000 130122
4E70 600604 Family and Children Services Collections $ 400,000 $ 400,000 130123
4F10 600609 Family and Children Activities $ 683,549 $ 683,549 130124
5DB0 600637 Military Injury Relief Subsidies $ 2,000,000 $ 2,000,000 130125
5DP0 600634 Adoption Assistance Loan $ 500,000 $ 500,000 130126
5ES0 600630 Food Bank Assistance $ 500,000 $ 500,000 130127
5KU0 600611 Unemployment Compensation Support - Other Sources $ 2,000,000 $ 2,000,000 130128
5NG0 600660 Victims of Human Trafficking $ 100,000 $ 100,000 130129
5U60 600663 Family and Children Support $ 4,000,000 $ 4,000,000 130130
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 130131
Fund Group $ 25,063,397 $ 25,063,397 130132

Agency Fund Group130133

1920 600646 Child Support Intercept - Federal $ 129,250,000 $ 129,250,000 130134
5830 600642 Child Support Intercept - State $ 14,000,000 $ 14,000,000 130135
5B60 600601 Food Assistance Intercept $ 1,000,000 $ 1,000,000 130136
TOTAL AGY Agency Fund Group $ 144,250,000 $ 144,250,000 130137

Holding Account Redistribution Fund Group130138

R012 600643 Refunds and Audit Settlements $ 2,200,000 $ 2,200,000 130139
R013 600644 Forgery Collections $ 10,000 $ 10,000 130140
TOTAL 090 Holding Account Redistribution Fund Group $ 2,210,000 $ 2,210,000 130141
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 3,579,074,992 $ 3,533,187,449 130142


       Section 301.20. TRANSFER TO STATE AND COUNTY SHARED SERVICES 130144
FUND130145

       Within thirty days of the effective date of this act, or as 130146
soon as possible thereafter, the Director of Budget and Management 130147
shall transfer the cash balance in the County Technologies Fund 130148
(Fund 5N10) to the State and County Shared Services Fund (Fund 130149
5HL0).130150

       Section 301.30. AGENCY AND HOLDING ACCOUNT REDISTRIBUTION 130151
FUND GROUPS130152

       The Agency Fund Group and Holding Account Redistribution Fund 130153
Group shall be used to hold revenues until the appropriate fund is 130154
determined or until the revenues are directed to the appropriate 130155
governmental agency other than the Department of Job and Family 130156
Services. If receipts credited to the Support Intercept – Federal 130157
Fund (Fund 1920), the Support Intercept – State Fund (Fund 5830), 130158
the Food Stamp Offset Fund (Fund 5B60), the Refunds and Audit 130159
Settlements Fund (Fund R012), or the Forgery Collections Fund 130160
(Fund R013) exceed the amounts appropriated from the fund, the 130161
Director of Job and Family Services may request the Director of 130162
Budget and Management to authorize expenditures from the fund in 130163
excess of the amounts appropriated. Upon the approval of the 130164
Director of Budget and Management, the additional amounts are 130165
hereby appropriated.130166

       Section 301.40. COUNTY ADMINISTRATIVE FUNDS130167

       The foregoing appropriation item 600521, Family Assistance - 130168
Local, may be provided to county departments of job and family 130169
services to administer food assistance and disability assistance 130170
programs. 130171

       The foregoing appropriation item 655522, Medicaid Program 130172
Support - Local, may be provided to county departments of job and 130173
family services to administer the Medicaid program and the State 130174
Children's Health Insurance program. 130175

       At the request of the Director of Job and Family Services, 130176
the Director of Budget and Management may transfer appropriations 130177
between appropriation item 600521, Family Assistance - Local, and 130178
appropriation item 655522, Medicaid Program Support - Local, in 130179
order to ensure county administrative funds are expended from the 130180
proper appropriation item. 130181

       Section 301.43. FAMILY AND CHILDREN SERVICES130182

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 600523, Family and 130183
Children Services, $1,500,000 in fiscal year 2014 shall be used to 130184
support the Famicos Foundation.130185

       Section 301.50. FOOD STAMPS TRANSFER130186

       On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 130187
Director of Budget and Management may transfer up to $1,000,000 130188
cash from the Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program Fund (Fund 130189
3840), to the Food Assistance Fund (Fund 5ES0).130190

       Section 301.60. NAME OF FOOD STAMP PROGRAM130191

       The Director of Job and Family Services is not required to 130192
amend rules regarding the Food Stamp Program to change the name of 130193
the program to the Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program. The 130194
Director may refer to the program as the Food Stamp Program or the 130195
Food Assistance Program in rules and documents of the Department 130196
of Job and Family Services.130197

       Section 301.70. OHIO ASSOCIATION OF FOOD BANKS130198

       The foregoing appropriation item 600540, Food Banks, shall be 130199
used to provide funds to the Ohio Association of Food Banks to 130200
purchase and distribute food products.130201

       Notwithstanding section 5101.46 of the Revised Code and any 130202
other provision in this bill, in addition to funds designated for 130203
the Ohio Association of Food Banks in this section, in fiscal year 130204
2014 and fiscal year 2015, the Director of Job and Family Services 130205
shall provide assistance from eligible funds to the Ohio 130206
Association of Food Banks in an amount up to or equal to the 130207
assistance provided in state fiscal year 2013 from all funds used 130208
by the Department, except the General Revenue Fund.130209

       Eligible nonfederal expenditures made by member food banks of 130210
the Association shall be counted by the Department of Job and 130211
Family Services toward the TANF maintenance of effort requirements 130212
of 42 U.S.C. 609(a)(7). The Director of Job and Family Services 130213
shall enter into an agreement with the Ohio Association of Food 130214
Banks, in accordance with sections 5101.80 and 5101.801 of the 130215
Revised Code, to carry out the requirements under this section. 130216

       Section 301.80. PUBLIC ASSISTANCE ACTIVITIES/TANF MOE130217

       The foregoing appropriation item 600658, Public Assistance 130218
Activities, shall be used by the Department of Job and Family 130219
Services to meet the TANF maintenance of effort requirements of 42 130220
U.S.C. 609(a)(7). When the state is assured that it will meet the 130221
maintenance of effort requirement, the Department of Job and 130222
Family Services may use funds from appropriation item 600658, 130223
Public Assistance Activities, to support public assistance 130224
activities.130225

       Section 301.90. GOVERNOR'S OFFICE OF FAITH-BASED AND 130226
COMMUNITY INITIATIVES130227

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 600689, TANF Block Grant, 130228
up to $6,540,000 in each fiscal year shall be used, in accordance 130229
with sections 5101.80 and 5101.801 of the Revised Code, to provide 130230
support to programs or organizations that provide services that 130231
align with the mission and goals of the Governor's Office of 130232
Faith-Based and Community Initiatives, as outlined in section 130233
107.12 of the Revised Code, and that further at least one of the 130234
four purposes of the TANF program, as specified in 42 U.S.C. 601. 130235

       Section 301.100. INDEPENDENT LIVING INITIATIVE130236

        Of the foregoing appropriation item 600689, TANF Block Grant, 130237
up to $2,000,000 in each fiscal year shall be used, in accordance 130238
with sections 5101.80 and 5101.801 of the Revised Code, to support 130239
the Independent Living Initiative, including life skills training 130240
and work supports for older children in foster care and those who 130241
have recently aged out of foster care.130242

       Section 301.110. KINSHIP PERMANENCY INCENTIVE PROGRAM130243

        Of the foregoing appropriation item 600689, TANF Block Grant, 130244
$1,750,000 in each fiscal year shall be used to support the 130245
activities of the Kinship Permanency Incentive Program established 130246
in section 5101.802 of the Revised Code.130247

       Section 301.120. OHIO COMMISSION ON FATHERHOOD130248

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 600689, TANF Block Grant, 130249
$1,000,000 in each fiscal year shall be provided to the Ohio 130250
Commission on Fatherhood.130251

       Section 301.130. DIFFERENTIAL RESPONSE 130252

       In accordance with an independent evaluation of the Ohio 130253
Alternative Response Pilot Program that recommended statewide 130254
implementation, the Department of Job and Family Services shall 130255
plan the statewide expansion of the Ohio Alternative Response 130256
Pilot Program on a county by county basis, through a schedule 130257
determined by the Department. The program shall be known as the 130258
"differential response" approach as defined in section 2151.011 of 130259
the Revised Code. Notwithstanding provisions of Chapter 2151. of 130260
the Revised Code that refer to "differential response," 130261
"traditional response," and "alternative response," those 130262
provisions shall become effective on the scheduled date of 130263
expansion of the differential response approach to that county. 130264
Prior to statewide implementation, the Department may adopt rules 130265
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code as necessary 130266
to carry out the purposes of this section.130267

       Section 301.140. FLEXIBLE FUNDING FOR FAMILIES AND CHILDREN130268

       In collaboration with the county family and children first 130269
council, a county department of job and family services or public 130270
children services agency that receives an allocation from the 130271
Department of Job and Family Services from the foregoing 130272
appropriation item 600523, Children and Families Services, or 130273
600533, Child, Family, and Adult Community & Protective Services, 130274
may transfer a portion of either or both allocations to a flexible 130275
funding pool as authorized by the section of this act titled 130276
"FAMILY AND CHILDREN FIRST FLEXIBLE FUNDING POOL."130277

       Section 301.150. CHILD, FAMILY, AND ADULT COMMUNITY AND 130278
PROTECTIVE SERVICES130279

        (A) The foregoing appropriation item 600533, Child, Family, 130280
and Adult Community & Protective Services, shall be distributed to 130281
each county department of job and family services using the 130282
formula the Department of Job and Family Services uses when 130283
distributing Title XX funds to county departments of job and 130284
family services under section 5101.46 of the Revised Code. County 130285
departments shall use the funds distributed to them under this 130286
section as follows, in accordance with the written plan of 130287
cooperation entered into under section 307.983 of the Revised 130288
Code:130289

        (1) To assist individuals achieve or maintain 130290
self-sufficiency, including by reducing or preventing dependency 130291
among individuals with family income not exceeding two hundred per 130292
cent of the federal poverty guidelines;130293

        (2) Subject to division (B) of this section, to respond to 130294
reports of abuse, neglect, or exploitation of children and adults, 130295
including through the differential response approach program 130296
developed under Section 309.50.10 of this act;130297

        (3) To provide outreach and referral services regarding home 130298
and community-based services to individuals at risk of placement 130299
in a group home or institution, regardless of the individuals' 130300
family income and without need for a written application;130301

        (4) To provide outreach, referral, application assistance, 130302
and other services to assist individuals receive assistance, 130303
benefits, or services under Medicaid; Title IV-A programs, as 130304
defined in section 5101.80 of the Revised Code; the Supplemental 130305
Nutrition Assistance Program; and other public assistance 130306
programs.130307

        (B) Protective services may be provided to a child or adult 130308
as part of a response, under division (A)(2) of this section, to a 130309
report of abuse, neglect, or exploitation without regard to a 130310
child or adult's family income and without need for a written 130311
application. The protective services may be provided if the case 130312
record documents circumstances of actual or potential abuse, 130313
neglect, or exploitation.130314

       Section 301.160. CHILDREN AND FAMILY SERVICES ACTIVITIES130315

        The foregoing appropriation item 600609, Children and Family 130316
Services Activities, shall be used to expend miscellaneous 130317
foundation funds and grants to support children and family 130318
services activities.130319

       Section 301.170. ADOPTION ASSISTANCE LOAN130320

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 600634, Adoption 130321
Assistance Loan, the Department of Job and Family Services may use 130322
up to ten per cent for administration of adoption assistance loans 130323
pursuant to section 3107.018 of the Revised Code.130324

       Section 301.173. VICTIMS OF HUMAN TRAFFICKING130325

        The foregoing appropriation item 600660, Victims of Human 130326
Trafficking, shall be used to provide treatment, care, 130327
rehabilitation, education, housing, and assistance for victims of 130328
trafficking in persons as specified in section 5101.87 of the 130329
Revised Code. If receipts credited to the Victims of Human 130330
Trafficking Fund (Fund 5NG0) exceed the amounts appropriated to 130331
the fund, the Director of Job and Family Services may request the 130332
Director of Budget and Management to authorize expenditures from 130333
the fund in excess of the amounts appropriated. Upon the approval 130334
of the Director of Budget and Management, the additional amounts 130335
are hereby appropriated.130336

       Section 301.180. FEDERAL UNEMPLOYMENT PROGRAMS130337

       All unexpended funds remaining at the end of fiscal year 2013 130338
that were appropriated and made available to the state under 130339
section 903(d) of the Social Security Act, as amended, in the 130340
foregoing appropriation item 600678, Federal Unemployment Programs 130341
(Fund 3V40), are hereby appropriated to the Department of Job and 130342
Family Services. Upon the request of the Director of Job and 130343
Family Services, the Director of Budget and Management may 130344
increase the appropriation for fiscal year 2014 by the amount 130345
remaining unspent from the fiscal year 2013 appropriation and may 130346
increase the appropriation for fiscal year 2015 by the amount 130347
remaining unspent from the fiscal year 2014 appropriation. The 130348
appropriation shall be used under the direction of the Department 130349
of Job and Family Services to pay for administrative activities 130350
for the Unemployment Insurance Program, employment services, and 130351
other allowable expenditures under section 903(d) of the Social 130352
Security Act, as amended.130353

       The amounts obligated pursuant to this section shall not 130354
exceed at any time the amount by which the aggregate of the 130355
amounts transferred to the account of the state under section 130356
903(d) of the Social Security Act, as amended, exceeds the 130357
aggregate of the amounts obligated for administration and paid out 130358
for benefits and required by law to be charged against the amounts 130359
transferred to the account of the state.130360

       Section 301.190.  UNEMPLOYMENT COMPENSATION INTEREST130361

       The foregoing appropriation item 600695, Unemployment 130362
Compensation Interest, shall be used for payment of interest costs 130363
paid to the United States Secretary of the Treasury for the 130364
repayment of accrued interest related to federal unemployment 130365
account borrowing.130366

       Section 301.200. TRAINING ACTIVITIES130367

        Of the foregoing appropriation item 600645, Training 130368
Activities, $8,000,000 shall be used in fiscal year 2014 for the 130369
Workforce Training Pilot Program for the Economically 130370
Disadvantaged established in Section 751.40 of this act. An amount 130371
equal to the unexpended, unencumbered portion of the foregoing 130372
appropriation item 600645, Training Activities, at the end of 130373
fiscal year 2014 is hereby reappropriated for the same purpose for 130374
fiscal year 2015.130375

       Section 303.10. JCR JOINT COMMITTEE ON AGENCY RULE REVIEW130376

General Revenue Fund130377

GRF 029321 Operating Expenses $ 455,858 $ 456,376 130378
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 455,858 $ 456,376 130379
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 455,858 $ 456,376 130380

       OPERATING GUIDANCE130381

       The Chief Administrative Officer of the House of 130382
Representatives and the Clerk of the Senate shall determine, by 130383
mutual agreement, which of them shall act as fiscal agent for the 130384
Joint Committee on Agency Rule Review. Members of the Committee 130385
shall be paid in accordance with section 101.35 of the Revised 130386
Code.130387

       OPERATING EXPENSES130388

       On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 130389
Executive Director of the Joint Committee on Agency Rule Review 130390
may certify to the Director of Budget and Management the amount of 130391
the unexpended, unencumbered balance of the foregoing 130392
appropriation item 029321, Operating Expenses, at the end of 130393
fiscal year 2013 to be reappropriated to fiscal year 2014. The 130394
amount certified is hereby reappropriated to the same 130395
appropriation item for fiscal year 2014.130396

       On July 1, 2014, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 130397
Executive Director of the Joint Committee on Agency Rule Review 130398
may certify to the Director of Budget and Management the amount of 130399
the unexpended, unencumbered balance of the foregoing 130400
appropriation item 029321, Operating Expenses, at the end of 130401
fiscal year 2014 to be reappropriated to fiscal year 2015. The 130402
amount certified is hereby reappropriated to the same 130403
appropriation item for fiscal year 2015. 130404

       Section 305.10.  JCO JUDICIAL CONFERENCE OF OHIO130405

General Revenue Fund130406

GRF 018321 Operating Expenses $ 824,900 $ 847,200 130407
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 824,900 $ 847,200 130408

General Services Fund Group130409

4030 018601 Ohio Jury Instructions $ 385,000 $ 385,000 130410
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 385,000 $ 385,000 130411
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 1,209,900 $ 1,232,200 130412

       STATE COUNCIL OF UNIFORM STATE LAWS130413

       Notwithstanding section 105.26 of the Revised Code, of the 130414
foregoing appropriation item 018321, Operating Expenses, up to 130415
$84,900 in fiscal year 2014 and up to $88,300 in fiscal year 2015 130416
shall be used to pay the expenses of the State Council of Uniform 130417
State Laws, including membership dues to the National Conference 130418
of Commissioners on Uniform State Laws.130419

       OHIO JURY INSTRUCTIONS FUND130420

       The Ohio Jury Instructions Fund (Fund 4030) shall consist of 130421
grants, royalties, dues, conference fees, bequests, devises, and 130422
other gifts received for the purpose of supporting costs incurred 130423
by the Judicial Conference of Ohio in its activities as a part of 130424
the judicial system of the state as determined by the Judicial 130425
Conference Executive Committee. Fund 4030 shall be used by the 130426
Judicial Conference of Ohio to pay expenses incurred in its 130427
activities as a part of the judicial system of the state as 130428
determined by the Judicial Conference Executive Committee. All 130429
moneys accruing to Fund 4030 in excess of $385,000 in fiscal year 130430
2014 and in excess of $385,000 in fiscal year 2015 are hereby 130431
appropriated for the purposes authorized.130432

       No money in Fund 4030 shall be transferred to any other fund 130433
by the Director of Budget and Management or the Controlling Board.130434

       Section 307.10.  JSC THE JUDICIARY/SUPREME COURT130435

General Revenue Fund130436

GRF 005321 Operating Expenses - Judiciary/Supreme Court $ 138,016,534 $ 140,232,737 130437
GRF 005406 Law-Related Education $ 236,172 $ 236,172 130438
GRF 005409 Ohio Courts Technology Initiative $ 3,350,000 $ 3,350,000 130439
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 141,602,706 $ 143,818,909 130440

General Services Fund Group130441

6720 005601 Continuing Judicial Education $ 101,392 $ 93,563 130442
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 101,392 $ 93,563 130443

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group130444

3J00 005603 Federal Grants $ 1,235,900 $ 1,252,600 130445
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue Fund Group $ 1,235,900 $ 1,252,600 130446

State Special Revenue Fund Group130447

4C80 005605 Attorney Services $ 3,923,101 $ 3,915,721 130448
5HT0 005617 Court Interpreter Certification $ 23,000 $ 23,000 130449
5JY0 005620 County Law Library Resources Boards $ 258,000 $ 258,000 130450
5T80 005609 Grants and Awards $ 25,000 $ 25,000 130451
6A80 005606 Supreme Court Admissions $ 1,283,751 $ 1,308,025 130452
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue Fund Group $ 5,512,852 $ 5,529,746 130453
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 148,452,850 $ 150,694,818 130454

       OPERATING EXPENSES - JUDICIARY/SUPREME COURT130455

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 005321, Operating 130456
Expenses - Judiciary/Supreme Court, up to $206,770 in each fiscal 130457
year may be used to support the functions of the State Criminal 130458
Sentencing Council.130459

       LAW-RELATED EDUCATION130460

       The foregoing appropriation item 005406, Law-Related 130461
Education, shall be distributed directly to the Ohio Center for 130462
Law-Related Education for the purposes of providing continuing 130463
citizenship education activities to primary and secondary 130464
students, expanding delinquency prevention programs, increasing 130465
activities for at-risk youth, and accessing additional public and 130466
private money for new programs.130467

       OHIO COURTS TECHNOLOGY INITIATIVE130468

       The foregoing appropriation item 005409, Ohio Courts 130469
Technology Initiative, shall be used to fund an initiative by the 130470
Supreme Court to facilitate the exchange of information and 130471
warehousing of data by and between Ohio courts and other justice 130472
system partners through the creation of an Ohio Courts Network, 130473
the delivery of technology services to courts throughout the 130474
state, including the provision of hardware, software, and the 130475
development and implementation of educational and training 130476
programs for judges and court personnel, and operation of the 130477
Commission on Technology and the Courts by the Supreme Court for 130478
the promulgation of statewide rules, policies, and uniform 130479
standards, and to aid in the orderly adoption and comprehensive 130480
use of technology in Ohio courts.130481

       CONTINUING JUDICIAL EDUCATION130482

       The Continuing Judicial Education Fund (Fund 6720) shall 130483
consist of fees paid by judges and court personnel for attending 130484
continuing education courses and other gifts and grants received 130485
for the purpose of continuing judicial education. The foregoing 130486
appropriation item 005601, Continuing Judicial Education, shall be 130487
used to pay expenses for continuing education courses for judges 130488
and court personnel. If it is determined by the Administrative 130489
Director of the Supreme Court that additional appropriations are 130490
necessary, the amounts are hereby appropriated.130491

       No money in Fund 6720 shall be transferred to any other fund 130492
by the Director of Budget and Management or the Controlling Board. 130493
Interest earned on money in Fund 6720 shall be credited to the 130494
fund.130495

       FEDERAL GRANTS130496

       The Federal Grants Fund (Fund 3J00) shall consist of grants 130497
and other moneys awarded to the Supreme Court (The Judiciary) by 130498
the United States Government or other entities that receive the 130499
moneys directly from the United States Government and distribute 130500
those moneys to the Supreme Court (The Judiciary). The foregoing 130501
appropriation item 005603, Federal Grants, shall be used in a 130502
manner consistent with the purpose of the grant or award. If it is 130503
determined by the Administrative Director of the Supreme Court 130504
that additional appropriations are necessary, the amounts are 130505
hereby appropriated.130506

       No money in Fund 3J00 shall be transferred to any other fund 130507
by the Director of Budget and Management or the Controlling Board. 130508
However, interest earned on money in Fund 3J00 shall be credited 130509
or transferred to the General Revenue Fund.130510

       ATTORNEY SERVICES130511

       The Attorney Services Fund (Fund 4C80), formerly known as the 130512
Attorney Registration Fund, shall consist of money received by the 130513
Supreme Court (The Judiciary) pursuant to the Rules for the 130514
Government of the Bar of Ohio. In addition to funding other 130515
activities considered appropriate by the Supreme Court, the 130516
foregoing appropriation item 005605, Attorney Services, may be 130517
used to compensate employees and to fund appropriate activities of 130518
the following offices established by the Supreme Court: the Office 130519
of Disciplinary Counsel, the Board of Commissioners on Grievances 130520
and Discipline, the Clients' Security Fund, and the Attorney 130521
Services Division. If it is determined by the Administrative 130522
Director of the Supreme Court that additional appropriations are 130523
necessary, the amounts are hereby appropriated.130524

       No money in Fund 4C80 shall be transferred to any other fund 130525
by the Director of Budget and Management or the Controlling Board. 130526
Interest earned on money in Fund 4C80 shall be credited to the 130527
fund.130528

       COURT INTERPRETER CERTIFICATION130529

       The Court Interpreter Certification Fund (Fund 5HT0) shall 130530
consist of money received by the Supreme Court (The Judiciary) 130531
pursuant to Rules 80 through 87 of the Rules of Superintendence 130532
for the Courts of Ohio. The foregoing appropriation item 005617, 130533
Court Interpreter Certification, shall be used to provide 130534
training, to provide the written examination, and to pay language 130535
experts to rate, or grade, the oral examinations of those applying 130536
to become certified court interpreters. If it is determined by the 130537
Administrative Director that additional appropriations are 130538
necessary, the amounts are hereby appropriated.130539

       No money in Fund 5HT0 shall be transferred to any other fund 130540
by the Director of Budget and Management or the Controlling Board. 130541
Interest earned on money in Fund 5HT0 shall be credited to the 130542
fund.130543

       COUNTY LAW LIBRARY RESOURCES BOARD130544

       The Statewide Consortium of County Law Library Resources 130545
Boards Fund (Fund 5JY0) shall consist of moneys deposited pursuant 130546
to section 307.515 of the Revised Code into a county's law library 130547
resources fund and forwarded by that county's treasurer for 130548
deposit in the state treasury pursuant to division (E)(1) of 130549
section 3375.481 of the Revised Code. The foregoing appropriation 130550
item 005620, County Law Library Resources Board, shall be used for 130551
the operation of the Statewide Consortium of County Law Library 130552
Resources Boards. If it is determined by the Administrative 130553
Director of the Supreme Court that additional appropriations are 130554
necessary, the amounts are hereby appropriated.130555

        No money in Fund 5JY0 shall be transferred to any other fund 130556
by the Director of Budget and Management or the Controlling Board. 130557
Interest earned on money in Fund 5JY0 shall be credited to the 130558
fund.130559

       GRANTS AND AWARDS130560

       The Grants and Awards Fund (Fund 5T80) shall consist of 130561
grants and other money awarded to the Supreme Court (The 130562
Judiciary) by the State Justice Institute, the Division of 130563
Criminal Justice Services, or other entities. The foregoing 130564
appropriation item 005609, Grants and Awards, shall be used in a 130565
manner consistent with the purpose of the grant or award. If it is 130566
determined by the Administrative Director of the Supreme Court 130567
that additional appropriations are necessary, the amounts are 130568
hereby appropriated.130569

       No money in Fund 5T80 shall be transferred to any other fund 130570
by the Director of Budget and Management or the Controlling Board. 130571
However, interest earned on money in Fund 5T80 shall be credited 130572
or transferred to the General Revenue Fund.130573

       SUPREME COURT ADMISSIONS130574

       The foregoing appropriation item 005606, Supreme Court 130575
Admissions, shall be used to compensate Supreme Court employees 130576
who are primarily responsible for administering the attorney 130577
admissions program under the Rules for the Government of the Bar 130578
of Ohio, and to fund any other activities considered appropriate 130579
by the court. Moneys shall be deposited into the Supreme Court 130580
Admissions Fund (Fund 6A80) under the Supreme Court Rules for the 130581
Government of the Bar of Ohio. If it is determined by the 130582
Administrative Director of the Supreme Court that additional 130583
appropriations are necessary, the amounts are hereby appropriated.130584

       No money in Fund 6A80 shall be transferred to any other fund 130585
by the Director of Budget and Management or the Controlling Board. 130586
Interest earned on money in Fund 6A80 shall be credited to the 130587
fund.130588

       Section 309.10. LEC LAKE ERIE COMMISSION130589

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group130590

3EP0 780603 Lake Erie Federal Grants $ 25,000 $ 0 130591
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue Fund Group $ 25,000 $ 0 130592

State Special Revenue Fund Group130593

4C00 780601 Lake Erie Protection Fund $ 200,000 $ 200,000 130594
5D80 780602 Lake Erie Resources Fund $ 298,942 $ 339,637 130595
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 130596
Fund Group $ 498,942 $ 539,637 130597
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 523,942 $ 539,637 130598

       CASH TRANSFERS TO THE LAKE ERIE RESOURCES FUND130599

       On July 1 of each fiscal year, or as soon as possible 130600
thereafter, the Director of Budget and Management may transfer 130601
cash from the funds specified below, up to the amounts specified 130602
below, to the Lake Erie Resources Fund (Fund 5D80). Fund 5D80 may 130603
accept contributions and transfers made to the fund. 130604

Fund Fund Name User FY 2014 FY 2015 130605
5BC0 Environmental Protection Environmental Protection Agency $23,500 $53,500 130606
6690 Pesticide, Fertilizer and Lime Department of Agriculture $23,500 $53,500 130607
4700 General Operations Department of Health $23,500 $53,500 130608
1570 Central Support Indirect Department of Natural Resources $23,500 $53,500 130609

       On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 130610
Director of Budget and Management may transfer $23,500 cash from a 130611
fund used by the Development Services Agency, as specified by the 130612
Director of Development Services, to Fund 5D80.130613

       On July 1, 2014, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 130614
Director of Budget and Management may transfer $53,500 cash from a 130615
fund used by the Development Services Agency, as specified by the 130616
Director of Development Services, to Fund 5D80.130617

       Section 311.10. JLE JOINT LEGISLATIVE ETHICS COMMITTEE130618

General Revenue Fund130619

GRF 028321 Legislative Ethics Committee $ 550,000 $ 550,000 130620
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 550,000 $ 550,000 130621

General Services Fund Group130622

4G70 028601 Joint Legislative Ethics Committee $ 150,000 $ 150,000 130623
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 150,000 $ 150,000 130624
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 700,000 $ 700,000 130625

       Section 313.10. LSC LEGISLATIVE SERVICE COMMISSION130626

General Revenue Fund130627

GRF 035321 Operating Expenses $ 15,117,700 $ 15,117,700 130628
GRF 035402 Legislative Fellows $ 1,022,120 $ 1,022,120 130629
GRF 035405 Correctional Institution Inspection Committee $ 460,845 $ 460,845 130630
GRF 035407 Legislative Task Force on Redistricting $ 320,000 $ 400,000 130631
GRF 035409 National Associations $ 460,560 $ 460,560 130632
GRF 035410 Legislative Information Systems $ 3,861,250 $ 3,861,250 130633
GRF 035411 Ohio Constitutional Modernization Commission $ 750,000 $ 750,000 130634
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 21,992,475 $ 22,072,475 130635

General Services Fund Group130636

4100 035601 Sale of Publications $ 10,000 $ 10,000 130637
4F60 035603 Legislative Budget Services $ 200,000 $ 200,000 130638
5EF0 035607 Legislative Agency Telephone Usage $ 30,000 $ 30,000 130639
TOTAL GSF General Services 130640
Fund Group $ 240,000 $ 240,000 130641
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 22,232,475 $ 22,312,475 130642

        OPERATING EXPENSES130643

       On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 130644
Director of the Legislative Service Commission may certify to the 130645
Director of Budget and Management the amount of the unexpended, 130646
unencumbered balance of the foregoing appropriation item 035321, 130647
Operating Expenses, at the end of fiscal year 2013 to be 130648
reappropriated to fiscal year 2014. The amount certified is hereby 130649
reappropriated to the same appropriation item for fiscal year 130650
2014.130651

        On July 1, 2014, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 130652
Director of the Legislative Service Commission may certify to the 130653
Director of Budget and Management the amount of the unexpended, 130654
unencumbered balance of the foregoing appropriation item 035321, 130655
Operating Expenses, at the end of fiscal year 2014 to be 130656
reappropriated to fiscal year 2015. The amount certified is hereby 130657
reappropriated to the same appropriation item for fiscal year 130658
2015.130659

       LEGISLATIVE TASK FORCE ON REDISTRICTING130660

        An amount equal to the unexpended, unencumbered portion of 130661
the foregoing appropriation item 035407, Legislative Task Force on 130662
Redistricting, at the end of fiscal year 2013 is hereby 130663
reappropriated to the Legislative Service Commission for the same 130664
purpose for fiscal year 2014.130665

       An amount equal to the unexpended, unencumbered portion of 130666
the foregoing appropriation item 035407, Legislative Task Force on 130667
Redistricting, at the end of fiscal year 2014 is hereby 130668
reappropriated to the Legislative Service Commission for the same 130669
purpose for fiscal year 2015.130670

        LEGISLATIVE INFORMATION SYSTEMS130671

       On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 130672
Director of the Legislative Service Commission may certify to the 130673
Director of Budget and Management the amount of the unexpended, 130674
unencumbered balance of the foregoing appropriation item 035410, 130675
Legislative Information Systems, at the end of fiscal year 2013 to 130676
be reappropriated to fiscal year 2014. The amount certified is 130677
hereby reappropriated to the same appropriation item for fiscal 130678
year 2014.130679

        On July 1, 2014, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 130680
Director of the Legislative Service Commission may certify to the 130681
Director of Budget and Management the amount of the unexpended, 130682
unencumbered balance of the foregoing appropriation item 035410, 130683
Legislative Information Systems, at the end of fiscal year 2014 to 130684
be reappropriated to fiscal year 2015. The amount certified is 130685
hereby reappropriated to the same appropriation item for fiscal 130686
year 2015.130687

       OHIO CONSTITUTIONAL MODERNIZATION COMMISSION130688

       The foregoing appropriation item 035411, Ohio Constitutional 130689
Modernization Commission, shall be used to support the operation 130690
and expenses of the Ohio Constitutional Modernization Commission 130691
under sections 103.61 to 103.67 of the Revised Code.130692

        An amount equal to the unexpended, unencumbered portion of 130693
the foregoing appropriation item 035411, Ohio Constitutional 130694
Modernization Commission, at the end of fiscal year 2013 is hereby 130695
reappropriated to the Legislative Service Commission for the same 130696
purpose for fiscal year 2014.130697

       An amount equal to the unexpended, unencumbered portion of 130698
the foregoing appropriation item 035411, Ohio Constitutional 130699
Modernization Commission, at the end of fiscal year 2014 is hereby 130700
reappropriated to the Legislative Service Commission for the same 130701
purpose for fiscal year 2015.130702

       Section 315.10.  LIB STATE LIBRARY BOARD130703

General Revenue Fund130704

GRF 350321 Operating Expenses $ 5,057,364 $ 5,057,364 130705
GRF 350401 Ohioana Rental Payments $ 120,114 $ 120,114 130706
GRF 350502 Regional Library Systems $ 582,469 $ 582,469 130707
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 5,759,947 $ 5,759,947 130708

General Services Fund Group130709

1390 350602 Intra-Agency Service Charges $ 8,000 $ 8,000 130710
4590 350603 Library Service Charges $ 3,237,430 $ 3,526,368 130711
4S40 350604 Ohio Public Library Information Network $ 5,689,788 $ 5,689,788 130712
5GB0 350605 Library for the Blind $ 1,274,194 $ 1,274,194 130713
TOTAL GSF General Services 130714
Fund Group $ 10,209,412 $ 10,498,350 130715

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group130716

3130 350601 LSTA Federal $ 5,303,693 $ 5,120,439 130717
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 130718
Fund Group $ 5,303,693 $ 5,120,439 130719
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 21,273,052 $ 21,378,736 130720

       OHIOANA RENTAL PAYMENTS130721

       The foregoing appropriation item 350401, Ohioana Rental 130722
Payments, shall be used to pay the rental expenses of the Martha 130723
Kinney Cooper Ohioana Library Association under section 3375.61 of 130724
the Revised Code.130725

       REGIONAL LIBRARY SYSTEMS130726

       The foregoing appropriation item 350502, Regional Library 130727
Systems, shall be used to support regional library systems 130728
eligible for funding under sections 3375.83 and 3375.90 of the 130729
Revised Code.130730

       OHIO PUBLIC LIBRARY INFORMATION NETWORK130731

       (A) The foregoing appropriation item 350604, Ohio Public 130732
Library Information Network, shall be used for an information 130733
telecommunications network linking public libraries in the state 130734
and such others as may participate in the Ohio Public Library 130735
Information Network (OPLIN).130736

        The Ohio Public Library Information Network Board of Trustees 130737
created under section 3375.65 of the Revised Code may make 130738
decisions regarding use of the foregoing appropriation item 130739
350604, Ohio Public Library Information Network.130740

       (B) The OPLIN Board shall research and assist or advise local 130741
libraries with regard to emerging technologies and methods that 130742
may be effective means to control access to obscene and illegal 130743
materials. The OPLIN Director shall provide written reports upon 130744
request within ten days to the Governor, the Speaker and Minority 130745
Leader of the House of Representatives, and the President and 130746
Minority Leader of the Senate on any steps being taken by OPLIN 130747
and public libraries in the state to limit and control such 130748
improper usage as well as information on technological, legal, and 130749
law enforcement trends nationally and internationally affecting 130750
this area of public access and service.130751

       (C) The Ohio Public Library Information Network, INFOhio, and 130752
OhioLINK shall, to the extent feasible, coordinate and cooperate 130753
in their purchase or other acquisition of the use of electronic 130754
databases for their respective users and shall contribute funds in 130755
an equitable manner to such effort.130756

       LIBRARY FOR THE BLIND130757

        The foregoing appropriation item 350605, Library for the 130758
Blind, shall be used for the statewide Talking Book Program to 130759
assist the blind and disabled.130760

       TRANSFER TO OPLIN TECHNOLOGY FUND130761

       Notwithstanding sections 5747.03 and 5747.47 of the Revised 130762
Code and any other provision of law to the contrary, in accordance 130763
with a schedule established by the Director of Budget and 130764
Management, the Director of Budget and Management shall transfer 130765
$5,689,788 cash in each fiscal year from the Public Library Fund 130766
(Fund 7065) to the OPLIN Technology Fund (Fund 4S40).130767

       TRANSFER TO LIBRARY FOR THE BLIND FUND130768

        Notwithstanding sections 5747.03 and 5747.47 of the Revised 130769
Code and any other provision of law to the contrary, in accordance 130770
with a schedule established by the Director of Budget and 130771
Management, the Director of Budget and Management shall transfer 130772
$1,274,194 cash in each fiscal year from the Public Library Fund 130773
(Fund 7065) to the Library for the Blind Fund (Fund 5GB0).130774

       Section 317.10. LCO LIQUOR CONTROL COMMISSION130775

State Special Revenue Fund Group130776

5LP0 970601 Commission Operating Expenses $ 784,376 $ 796,368 130777
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue Fund Group $ 784,376 $ 796,368 130778
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 784,376 $ 796,368 130779


       Section 319.10. LOT STATE LOTTERY COMMISSION130781

State Lottery Fund Group130782

2310 950604 Charitable Gaming Oversight $ 1,946,000 $ 1,946,000 130783
7044 950321 Operating Expenses $ 49,778,677 $ 51,173,293 130784
7044 950402 Advertising Contracts $ 23,024,080 $ 23,024,080 130785
7044 950403 Gaming Contracts $ 63,405,851 $ 59,356,988 130786
7044 950601 Direct Prize Payments $ 116,281,000 $ 114,779,000 130787
7044 950605 Problem Gambling $ 2,000,000 $ 3,000,000 130788
8710 950602 Annuity Prizes $ 79,039,985 $ 80,299,167 130789
TOTAL SLF State Lottery Fund 130790
Group $ 335,475,593 $ 333,578,528 130791
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 335,475,593 $ 333,578,528 130792

       OPERATING EXPENSES130793

       Notwithstanding sections 127.14 and 131.35 of the Revised 130794
Code, the Controlling Board may, at the request of the State 130795
Lottery Commission, authorize expenditures from the State Lottery 130796
Fund in excess of the amounts appropriated, up to a maximum of 10 130797
per cent of anticipated total revenue accruing from the sale of 130798
lottery products. Upon the approval of the Controlling Board, the 130799
additional amounts are hereby appropriated.130800

       DIRECT PRIZE PAYMENTS130801

       Any amounts, in addition to the amounts appropriated in 130802
appropriation item 950601, Direct Prize Payments, that the 130803
Director of the State Lottery Commission determines to be 130804
necessary to fund prizes are hereby appropriated.130805

       ANNUITY PRIZES130806

       Upon request of the State Lottery Commission, the Director of 130807
Budget and Management may transfer cash from the State Lottery 130808
Fund (Fund 7044) to the Deferred Prizes Trust Fund (Fund 8710) in 130809
an amount sufficient to fund deferred prizes. The Treasurer of 130810
State, from time to time, shall credit the Deferred Prizes Trust 130811
Fund (Fund 8710) the pro rata share of interest earned by the 130812
Treasurer of State on invested balances.130813

       Any amounts, in addition to the amounts appropriated in 130814
appropriation item 950602, Annuity Prizes, that the Director of 130815
the State Lottery Commission determines to be necessary to fund 130816
deferred prizes and interest earnings are hereby appropriated.130817

       TRANSFERS TO THE LOTTERY PROFITS EDUCATION FUND130818

       Estimated transfers from the State Lottery Fund (Fund 7044) 130819
to the Lottery Profits Education Fund (Fund 7017) are to be 130820
$841,000,000 in fiscal year 2014 and $974,500,000 in fiscal year 130821
2015. The Director of Budget and Management shall transfer such 130822
amounts contingent upon the availability of resources. Transfers 130823
from the State Lottery Fund to the Lottery Profits Education Fund 130824
shall represent the estimated net income from operations for the 130825
Commission in fiscal year 2014 and fiscal year 2015. Transfers by 130826
the Director of Budget and Management to the Lottery Profits 130827
Education Fund shall be administered as the statutes direct.130828

       Section 321.10. MHC MANUFACTURED HOMES COMMISSION130829

General Services Fund Group130830

4K90 996609 Operating Expenses $ 459,134 $ 459,134 130831
TOTAL GSF General Services 130832
Fund Group $ 459,134 $ 459,134 130833

State Special Revenue Fund Group130834

5MC0 996610 Manufactured Homes Regulation $ 747,825 $ 747,825 130835
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue Fund Group $ 747,825 $ 747,825 130836
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 1,206,959 $ 1,206,959 130837


       Section 323.10. MCD DEPARTMENT OF MEDICAID130839

General Revenue Fund130840

GRF 651425 Medicaid Program Support - State $ 149,932,299 $ 156,514,636 130841
GRF 651525 Medicaid/Health Care Services 130842
State $ 4,746,891,777 $ 4,990,922,135 130843
Federal $ 8,999,112,239 $ 9,313,588,718 130844
Medicaid/Health Care Services Total $ 13,746,004,016 $ 14,304,510,853 130845
GRF 651526 Medicare Part D $ 308,749,142 $ 324,920,518 130846
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund 130847
State $ 5,205,573,218 $ 5,472,357,289 130848
Federal $ 8,999,112,239 $ 9,313,588,718 130849
GRF Total $ 14,204,685,457 $ 14,785,946,007 130850

General Services Fund Group130851

5DL0 651639 Medicaid Services - Recoveries $ 462,900,000 $ 514,700,000 130852
5FX0 561638 Medicaid Services - Payment Withholding $ 6,000,000 $ 6,000,000 130853
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 468,900,000 $ 520,700,000 130854

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group 130855

3ER0 651603 Medicaid Health Information Technology $ 123,074,778 $ 123,089,606 130856
3F00 651623 Medicaid Services - Federal $ 2,977,109,943 $ 3,214,589,109 130857
3F00 651624 Medicaid Program Support - Federal $ 409,446,401 $ 409,773,399 130858
3FA0 651680 Health Care Grants - Federal $ 20,000,000 $ 20,000,000 130859
3G50 651655 Medicaid Interagency Pass-Through $ 1,712,881,658 $ 1,895,403,348 130860
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue Fund Group $ 5,242,512,780 $ 5,662,855,462 130861

State Special Revenue Fund Group130862

4E30 651605 Resident Protection Fund $ 2,878,319 $ 2,878,319 130863
5AJ0 651631 Money Follows the Person $ 5,555,000 $ 4,517,500 130864
5GF0 651656 Medicaid Services - Hospitals/UPL $ 531,273,601 $ 531,273,601 130865
5KC0 651682 Health Care Grants - State $ 10,000,000 $ 10,000,000 130866
5R20 651608 Medicaid Services - Long Term Care $ 402,000,000 $ 402,000,000 130867
5U30 651654 Medicaid Program Support $ 36,205,843 $ 35,403,126 130868
6510 651649 Medicaid Services - HCAP $ 215,527,947 $ 215,314,482 130869
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue Fund Group $ 1,203,440,710 $ 1,201,387,028 130870

Holding Account Redistribution Fund Group130871

R055 651644 Refunds and Reconciliations $ 1,000,0000 $ 1,000,000 130872
TOTAL 090 Holding Account Redistribution Fund Group $ 1,000,000 $ 1,000,000 130873
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 21,120,538,947 $ 22,171,888,497 130874


       Section 323.10.10. CREATION OF THE DEPARTMENT OF MEDICAID130876

       (A) As used in this section, "medical assistance program" 130877
means all of the following:130878

        (1) The Medicaid program established by Title XIX of the 130879
"Social Security Act," 42 U.S.C. 1396 et seq.130880

        (2) The Children's Health Insurance Program authorized by 130881
Title XXI of the "Social Security Act," 42 U.S.C. 1397aa et seq.130882

        (3) The Refugee Medical Assistance program authorized by the 130883
"Immigration and Nationality Act," section 412(e), 42 U.S.C. 130884
1522(e).130885

       (B) On July 1, 2013, all of the following apply:130886

       (1) The Department of Medicaid is created.130887

        (2) The Department of Medicaid is to be administered by the 130888
Medicaid Director who is to be appointed by the Governor with the 130889
advice and consent of the Senate.130890

       (3) The Medicaid Director is to hold the Director's office 130891
during the term of the appointing Governor and is subject to 130892
removal at the pleasure of the Governor.130893

        (4) The Medicaid Director is the executive head of the 130894
Department of Medicaid and all duties conferred on the Department 130895
by law or order of the Director are under the Director's control 130896
and shall be performed in accordance with rules the Director 130897
adopts.130898

        (5) The Medicaid Director may appoint such employees as are 130899
necessary for the efficient operation of the Department of 130900
Medicaid and may prescribe the title and duties of the employees.130901

        (6) The Office of Medical Assistance shall cease to exist.130902

       (7) Each reference to the Department or Director of Public 130903
Welfare, Department or Director of Human Services, Department or 130904
Director of Job and Family Services, Office of Medical Assistance, 130905
or Medical Assistance Director in any statute, rule, contract, 130906
grant, or other document is deemed to refer to the Department of 130907
Medicaid or Medicaid Director, as the case may be, to the extent 130908
the reference is about a duty or authority of the Department of 130909
Medicaid or Medicaid Director regarding a medical assistance 130910
program.130911

       (8) Employees of the Office of Medical Assistance are hereby 130912
transferred to the Department of Medicaid. The vehicles and 130913
equipment assigned to the Office's employees are transferred to 130914
the Department.130915

       (9) The assets, liabilities, other equipment not provided 130916
for, and records, irrespective of form or medium, of the Office of 130917
Medical Assistance are transferred to the Department of Medicaid. 130918
The Department is the successor to, assumes the obligations of, 130919
and otherwise constitutes the continuation of, the Office.130920

       (10) Business commenced but not completed on July 1, 2013, by 130921
the Medical Assistance Director, the Office of Medical Assistance, 130922
Director of Job and Family Services, or Department of Job and 130923
Family Services regarding a medical assistance program shall be 130924
completed by the Medicaid Director or Department of Medicaid in 130925
the same manner, and with the same effect, as if completed by the 130926
Medical Assistance Director, Office of Medical Assistance, 130927
Director of Job and Family Services, or Department of Job and 130928
Family Services. No validation, cure, right, privilege, remedy, 130929
obligation, or liability is lost or impaired by reason of the 130930
transfer required by this section but shall be administered by the 130931
Medicaid Director or Department of Medicaid.130932

       (11) For the purpose of the "Social Security Act," section 130933
1902(a)(5), 42 U.S.C. 1396a(a)(5), the Department of Medicaid 130934
shall act as the single state agency to supervise the 130935
administration of the Medicaid program. As the single state 130936
agency, the Department shall comply with 42 C.F.R. 431.10(e) and 130937
all other federal requirements applicable to the single state 130938
agency.130939

       (D) The rules, orders, and determinations pertaining to the 130940
Office of Medical Assistance and Department of Job and Family 130941
Services regarding medical assistance programs continue in effect 130942
as rules, orders, and determinations of the Department of Medicaid 130943
until modified or rescinded by the Department of Medicaid.130944

       (E) No judicial or administrative action or proceeding 130945
pending on July 1, 2013, is affected by the transfer of functions 130946
from the Medical Assistance Director, Office of Medical 130947
Assistance, Director of Job and Family Services, or Department of 130948
Job and Family Services to the Medicaid Director or Department of 130949
Medicaid and shall be prosecuted or defended in the name of the 130950
Medicaid Director or Department of Medicaid. On application to the 130951
court or other tribunal, the Medicaid Director or Department of 130952
Medicaid shall be substituted as a party in such actions and 130953
proceedings.130954

       (F) When the Department of Medicaid created in section 121.02 130955
of the Revised Code comes into effect, it is a continuation of the 130956
Department of Medicaid created in this section.130957

        (G) A portion of the foregoing appropriation items 651425, 130958
Medicaid Program Support – State, 651525, Medicaid/Health Care 130959
Services, 651526, Medicare Part D, 651639, Medicaid Services – 130960
Recoveries, 651638, Medicaid Services - Payment Withholding, 130961
651603, Medicaid Health Information Technology, 651623, Medicaid 130962
Services – Federal, 651624, Medicaid Program Support – Federal, 130963
651680 Health Care Grants – Federal, 651655, Medicaid Interagency 130964
Pass-Through, 651605, Resident Protection Fund, 651631, Money 130965
Follows the Person, 651656, Medicaid Services – Hospitals/UPL, 130966
651682, Health Care Grants – State, 651608, Medicaid Services – 130967
Long Term Care, 651654, Medicaid Program Support, 651649, Medicaid 130968
Services – HCAP, 651644, Refunds and Reconciliations, and 651612, 130969
Managed Care Performance Payments, may be used to pay for Medicaid 130970
services and costs associated with the administration of the 130971
Medicaid program.130972

       Section 323.10.20. TRANSFER OF ENCUMBRANCES AND RECEIVABLES130973

        On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 130974
Medicaid Director shall certify to the Director of Budget and 130975
Management all medical assistance-related encumbrances held by the 130976
Department of Job and Family Services, and specify which of those 130977
encumbrances are requested to be transferred to the Department of 130978
Medicaid. The Director of Budget and Management may cancel any 130979
existing encumbrances, as certified by the Medicaid Director, and 130980
reestablish them in the Department of Medicaid. The reestablished 130981
encumbrance amounts are hereby appropriated. Any business 130982
commenced, but not completed, with regard to the encumbrances 130983
certified shall be completed by the Department of Medicaid in the 130984
same manner and with the same effect as if it were completed by 130985
the Department of Job and Family Services.130986

        On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 130987
Medicaid Director shall certify to the Director of Budget and 130988
Management all medical assistance-related receivables held by the 130989
Department of Job and Family Services, and specify which of those 130990
receivables are requested to be transferred to the Department of 130991
Medicaid. The Director of Budget and Management may cancel any 130992
existing receivables as certified by the Medicaid Director and 130993
reestablish them in the Department of Medicaid.130994

        A portion of the foregoing appropriation items 651425, 130995
Medicaid Program Support – State, 651525, Medicaid/Health Care 130996
Services, 651639, Medicaid Services – Recoveries, 651638, Medicaid 130997
Services-Payment Withholding, 651624, Medicaid Program Support – 130998
Federal, 651680, Health Care Grants – Federal, 651655, Medicaid 130999
Interagency Pass-Through, 651605, Resident Protection Fund, 131000
651631, Money Follows the Person, 651656, Medicaid Services – 131001
Hospitals/UPL, 651682, Health Care Grants – State, 651608, 131002
Medicaid Services – Long Term Care, 651654, Medicaid Program 131003
Support, and 651649, Medicaid Services – HCAP, may be used to pay 131004
for medical assistance services and costs associated with the 131005
administration of the Medicaid program.131006

       Section 323.10.30. TEMPORARY AUTHORITY REGARDING EMPLOYEES131007

       (A) As used in this section, "medical assistance program" has 131008
the same meaning as in the section of this act titled "CREATION OF 131009
THE DEPARTMENT OF MEDICAID."131010

       (B) During the period beginning July 1, 2013, and ending June 131011
30, 2015, all of the following apply:131012

       (1) The Medicaid Director has the authority to establish, 131013
change, and abolish positions for the Department of Medicaid, and 131014
to assign, reassign, classify, reclassify, transfer, reduce, 131015
promote, or demote all employees of the Department of Medicaid who 131016
are not subject to Chapter 4117. of the Revised Code.131017

       (2) As part of the transfer of medical assistance programs to 131018
the Department of Medicaid, the Director of Job and Family 131019
Services has the authority to establish, change, and abolish 131020
positions for the Department of Job and Family Services, and to 131021
assign, reassign, classify, reclassify, transfer, reduce, promote, 131022
or demote all employees of the Department of Job and Family 131023
Services who are not subject to Chapter 4117. of the Revised Code.131024

       (C) The authority granted under division (B) of this section 131025
includes assigning or reassigning an exempt employee, as defined 131026
in section 124.152 of the Revised Code, to a bargaining unit 131027
classification if the Medicaid Director or Director of Job and 131028
Family Services determines that the bargaining unit classification 131029
is the proper classification for that employee. The actions of the 131030
Medicaid Director or Director of Job and Family Services shall be 131031
consistent with the requirements of 5 C.F.R. 900.603 for those 131032
employees subject to such requirements. If an employee in the E-1 131033
pay range is to be assigned, reassigned, classified, reclassified, 131034
transferred, reduced, or demoted to a position in a lower 131035
classification during the period specified in this section, the 131036
Medicaid Director or Director of Job and Family Services, or in 131037
the case of a transfer outside the Department of Medicaid or 131038
Department of Job and Family Services, the Director of 131039
Administrative Services, shall assign the employee to the 131040
appropriate classification and place the employee in Step X. The 131041
employee shall not receive any increase in compensation until the 131042
maximum rate of pay for that classification exceeds the employee's 131043
compensation.131044

       (D) Actions taken by the Medicaid Director, Director of Job 131045
and Family Services, and Director of Administrative Services 131046
pursuant to this section are not subject to appeal to the State 131047
Personnel Board of Review.131048

       (E) A portion of the foregoing appropriation items 651425, 131049
Medicaid Program Support – State, 651603, Medicaid Health 131050
Information Technology, 651624, Medicaid Program Support – 131051
Federal, 651680, Health Care Grants – Federal, 651655, Medicaid 131052
Interagency Pass-Through, 651605, Resident Protection Fund, 131053
651631, Money Follows the Person, 651682, Health Care Grants – 131054
State, and 651654, Medicaid Program Support, may be used to pay 131055
for costs associated with the administration of the Medicaid 131056
program, including the assignment, reassignment, classification, 131057
reclassification, transfer, reduction, promotion, or demotion of 131058
employees authorized by this section.131059

       Section 323.10.40. STAFF TRAINING REGARDING TRANSFERS131060

       As used in this section, "medical assistance program" has the 131061
same meaning as in the section of this act titled "CREATION OF THE 131062
DEPARTMENT OF MEDICAID."131063

       The Medicaid Director and Director of Job and Family Services 131064
may jointly or separately enter into one or more contracts with 131065
public or private entities for staff training and development to 131066
facilitate the transfer of the staff and duties regarding medical 131067
assistance programs to the Department of Medicaid. Division (B) of 131068
section 127.16 of the Revised Code does not apply to contracts 131069
entered into under this section.131070

       A portion of the foregoing appropriation items 651425, 131071
Medicaid Program Support – State, 651624, Medicaid Program Support 131072
– Federal, 651680, Health Care Grants – Federal, 651605, Resident 131073
Protection Fund, 651631, Money Follows the Person, and 651654, 131074
Medicaid Program Support, may be used to pay for costs associated 131075
with the administration of the Medicaid program, including staff 131076
training authorized under this section.131077

       Section 323.10.50. CREATION OF THE DEPARTMENT OF MEDICAID NOT 131078
A COLLECTIVE BARGAINING SUBJECT131079

       As used in this section, "medical assistance program" has the 131080
same meaning as in the section of this act titled "CREATION OF THE 131081
DEPARTMENT OF MEDICAID."131082

       Notwithstanding sections 4117.08 and 4117.10 of the Revised 131083
Code, this act's creation of the Department of Medicaid and 131084
reassignment of the functions and duties of the Office of Medical 131085
Assistance regarding medical assistance programs are not 131086
appropriate subjects for collective bargaining under Chapter 4117. 131087
of the Revised Code.131088

       A portion of the foregoing appropriation items 651425, 131089
Medicaid Program Support – State, 651624, Medicaid Program Support 131090
– Federal, 651680, Health Care Grants – Federal, 651655, Medicaid 131091
Interagency Pass-Through, 651605, Resident Protection Fund, 131092
651631, Money Follows the Person, 651682, Health Care Grants – 131093
State, and 651654, Medicaid Program Support, may be used to pay 131094
for costs associated with the administration of the Medicaid 131095
program, including the reassignment of functions and duties 131096
related to the transition of the Office of Medical Assistance into 131097
the Department of Medicaid.131098

       Section 323.10.60. NEW AND AMENDED GRANT AGREEMENTS131099

       (A) As used in this section:131100

       (1) "Grant agreement" has the same meaning as in section 131101
5101.21 of the Revised Code.131102

       (2) "Medical assistance program" has the same meaning as in 131103
the section of this act titled "CREATION OF THE DEPARTMENT OF 131104
MEDICAID."131105

       (B) The Director of Job and Family Services and boards of 131106
county commissioners may enter into negotiations to amend an 131107
existing grant agreement or to enter into a new grant agreement 131108
regarding the transfer of medical assistance programs to the 131109
Department of Medicaid. Any such amended or new grant agreement 131110
shall be drafted in the name of the Department of Job and Family 131111
Services. The amended or new grant agreement may be executed 131112
before July 1, 2013, if the amendment or agreement does not become 131113
effective sooner than that date.131114

       (C) A portion of the foregoing appropriation items 651525, 131115
Health Care/Medicaid Services, 651603, Medicaid Health Information 131116
Technology, 651623, Medicaid Services – Federal, 651624, Medicaid 131117
Program Support – Federal, 651680, Health Care Grants – Federal, 131118
and 651682, Health Care Grants - State, may be used to pay for 131119
Medicaid services and costs associated with the administration of 131120
the Medicaid program.131121

       Section 323.10.70. LSC TO RENUMBER ADMINISTRATIVE RULES131122

       On and after October 1, 2013, if necessary to ensure the 131123
integrity of the numbering of the Administrative Code, the 131124
Director of the Legislative Service Commission shall renumber the 131125
rules of the Office of Medical Assistance within the Department of 131126
Job and Family Services to reflect its transfer to the Department 131127
of Medicaid.131128

       Section 323.20.  MEDICAID/HEALTH CARE SERVICES131129

       The foregoing appropriation item 651525, Medicaid/Health Care 131130
Services, shall not be limited by section 131.33 of the Revised 131131
Code.131132

       Section 323.23. PROPOSAL TO REFORM MEDICAID AND OHIO'S HEALTH 131133
CARE DELIVERY SYSTEM131134

       (A) Legislation shall be introduced in the House of 131135
Representatives to reform the Medicaid program and Ohio's health 131136
care delivery system. The Director of the Governor's Office of 131137
Health Transformation and the Medicaid Director shall provide 131138
assistance in developing the legislation. The legislation shall 131139
include, but not be limited to, all of the following:131140

       (1) A focus on individuals who have the greatest potential to 131141
obtain the income and resources that would enable them to cease 131142
enrollment in Medicaid and instead obtain health care coverage 131143
through employer-sponsored health insurance or the health 131144
insurance marketplace; 131145

       (2) Strategies to lower Medicaid caseloads by promoting 131146
employment-related services available under Medicaid, including 131147
Medicaid managed care, and promoting other programs that offer 131148
workforce readiness, educational, and wellness services;131149

       (3) Provisions that seek to do both of the following:131150

       (a) Lower net state and federal costs for the Medicaid 131151
program;131152

       (b) Reduce the number of individuals who enroll in Medicaid 131153
over time.131154

       (B) The legislation may call for amending the state Medicaid 131155
plan, obtaining a waiver under the "Social Security Act," section 131156
1115, 42 U.S.C. 1315, or a combination of the two. Subject to 131157
division (c) of this section, the Medicaid Director may submit to 131158
the United States Department of Health and Human Services a state 131159
Medicaid plan amendment, a request for a section 1115 waiver, or a 131160
combination of the two.131161

       (C) Not sooner than September 15, 2013, and not later than 131162
October 1, 2013, the Directors shall submit to the General 131163
Assembly the terms of any federal approval obtained for the 131164
reform. The Directors shall not begin implementation of the reform 131165
unless the General Assembly enacts legislation authorizing 131166
implementation. If the General Assembly does not enact such 131167
legislation on or before December 31, 2013, the Directors shall 131168
cease any activity regarding this reform, including pursuing a 131169
Medicaid plan amendment, section 1115 waiver, or combination of 131170
the two.131171

       Section 323.30.  QUALITY INCENTIVE PROGRAM TO REDUCE 131172
AVOIDABLE ADMISSIONS131173

       (A) The Department of Medicaid may implement, for fiscal year 131174
2014 and fiscal year 2015, a quality incentive program to do both 131175
of the following:131176

       (1) Reduce the number of times that the following persons are 131177
admitted to hospitals and nursing facilities or utilize emergency 131178
department services when the admissions or utilizations are 131179
avoidable:131180

        (a) Medicaid recipients enrolled in a home and 131181
community-based services Medicaid waiver component administered by 131182
the Office;131183

        (b) Medicaid recipients receiving nursing services available 131184
under the home health services benefit pursuant to 42 C.F.R. 131185
440.70(b)(1);131186

        (c) Medicaid recipients receiving home health aide services 131187
available under the home health services benefit pursuant to 42 131188
C.F.R. 440.70(b)(2);131189

        (d) Medicaid recipients receiving private duty nursing 131190
services as defined in 42 C.F.R. 440.80.131191

       (2) Reduce the number of times that Medicaid recipients 131192
receiving nursing facility services are admitted to hospitals or 131193
utilize emergency department services when the admissions or 131194
utilizations are avoidable.131195

        (B) If the quality incentive program is implemented, the 131196
Department shall include in the program methods by which the 131197
Department will determine the program's actual savings to the 131198
Medicaid program and shall distribute not more than fifty per cent 131199
of the savings to participating Medicaid providers.131200

       Section 323.40.  CHILDREN'S HOSPITALS QUALITY OUTCOMES 131201
PROGRAM131202

       (A) As used in this section, "children's hospital" means a 131203
hospital, as defined in section 3727.01 of the Revised Code, that 131204
is located in this state, primarily serves patients eighteen years 131205
of age and younger, is subject to the Medicaid prospective payment 131206
system for hospitals established in rules adopted under section 131207
5164.02 of the Revised Code, and is excluded from Medicare 131208
prospective payments in accordance with 42 C.F.R. 412.23(d).131209

        (B) The Medicaid Director may implement, during fiscal year 131210
2014 and fiscal year 2015, a children's hospitals quality outcomes 131211
program that encourages children's hospitals to develop the 131212
following:131213

        (1) Infrastructures that are needed to care for patients in 131214
the least restrictive setting and promote the care of patients and 131215
their families;131216

        (2) Programs designed to improve birth outcomes and 131217
measurably reduce neonatal intensive care admissions;131218

        (3) Patient-centered methods to measurably reduce utilization 131219
of emergency department services for primary care needs and 131220
nonemergency health conditions;131221

        (4) Other quality-focused reforms the Director identifies.131222

       (C) Up to $6,000,000 state share plus the corresponding 131223
federal share in each fiscal year shall be used to support 131224
payments made to children's hospitals for developing programs that 131225
achieve the outcomes specified under division (B) of this section 131226
and any other measures the Medicaid Director deems appropriate.131227

       Section 323.43. HOSPITAL READMISSIONS PROGRAM ADVISORY 131228
WORKGROUP131229

        There is hereby created for fiscal year 2014 and fiscal year 131230
2015 the Hospital Readmissions Program Advisory Workgroup. The 131231
Workgroup shall serve in an advisory capacity in the state's 131232
development and implementation of a hospital readmissions program 131233
that improves patient outcomes and rewards providers' success in 131234
lowering hospital readmission rates.131235

        The Workgroup shall be convened by the Medicaid Director. It 131236
shall consist of individuals selected to serve as members by the 131237
Ohio Hospital Association, the Ohio Children's Hospital 131238
Association, and the Medicaid Director.131239

       The Medicaid Director or the Director's designee shall serve 131240
as chairperson of the Workgroup. The Department of Medicaid shall 131241
provide staff and other support services for the Workgroup.131242

        The Workgroup, with the assistance of the Department of 131243
Medicaid, shall submit two reports to the General Assembly 131244
regarding a hospital readmissions program. The first report shall 131245
be submitted not later than July 1, 2014. The second report shall 131246
be submitted not later than July 1, 2015. A report due before the 131247
hospital readmissions program is established shall discuss the 131248
progress being made in establishing the program. A report due 131249
after the program is established shall discuss the program's 131250
effectiveness.131251

       Section 323.50. UNIFIED LONG TERM CARE131252

       The foregoing appropriation item 651425, Medicaid Program 131253
Support - State, may be used to provide the preadmission screening 131254
and resident review (PASRR), which includes screening, 131255
assessments, and determinations made under sections 5119.061 131256
(renumbered section 5119.40 of the Revised Code in this act), 131257
5123.021, and 5165.04 of the Revised Code.131258

       The foregoing appropriation item 651425, Medicaid Program 131259
Support - State, may be used to assess and provide long-term care 131260
consultations under section 173.42 of the Revised Code to clients 131261
regardless of Medicaid eligibility.131262

       The foregoing appropriation item 651525, Medicaid/Health Care 131263
Services, may be used to provide nonwaiver funded PASSPORT and 131264
assisted living services to persons who the state department has 131265
determined to be eligible to participate in the nonwaiver funded 131266
PASSPORT and assisted living programs, who applied for but have 131267
not yet been determined to be financially eligible to participate 131268
in the Medicaid waiver component of the PASSPORT Home Care Program 131269
or the Assisted Living Program by a county department of job and 131270
family services, and to persons who are not eligible for Medicaid 131271
but were enrolled in the PASSPORT Program prior to July 1, 1990.131272

       The foregoing appropriation item 651425, Medicaid Program 131273
Support - State, shall be used to provide the required state match 131274
for federal Medicaid funds supporting the Medicaid waiver-funded 131275
PASSPORT Home Care Program, the Choices Program, the Assisted 131276
Living Program, and the PACE Program.131277

       The foregoing appropriation item 651525, Medicaid/Health Care 131278
Services, shall be used to provide the federal matching share of 131279
program costs determined by the Office of Medical Assistance to be 131280
eligible for Medicaid reimbursement for the Medicaid waiver-funded 131281
PASSPORT Home Care Program, the Choices Program, the Assisted 131282
Living Program, and the PACE Program.131283

       Section 323.53. PASSPORT ADMINISTRATIVE AGENCY SITE 131284
OPERATIONS131285

       For fiscal year 2014 and fiscal year 2015, spending for 131286
PASSPORT administrative agencies' site operating functions 131287
relating to screening, assessments, general administrative, and 131288
provider relations for the Medicaid waiver-funded PASSPORT Home 131289
Care Program, Choices Program, Assisted Living Program, and PACE 131290
Program shall be at one hundred five per cent of the level 131291
provided in fiscal year 2013.131292

       Section 323.60.  MANAGED CARE PERFORMANCE PAYMENT PROGRAM 131293

       At the beginning of each quarter, or as soon as possible 131294
thereafter, the Medicaid Director shall certify to the Director of 131295
Budget and Management the amount withheld in accordance with 131296
section 5167.30 of the Revised Code for purposes of the Managed 131297
Care Performance Payment Program. Upon receiving certification, 131298
the Director of Budget and Management shall transfer cash in the 131299
amount certified from the General Revenue Fund to the Managed Care 131300
Performance Payment Fund. Appropriation item 651525, 131301
Medicaid/Health Care Services, is hereby reduced by the amount of 131302
the transfer. Upon request of the Medicaid Director and approval 131303
of the Director of Budget and Management, appropriation up to the 131304
cash balance in the Managed Care Performance Payment Fund is 131305
hereby appropriated.131306

       In addition to any other purpose authorized by law, the 131307
Department of Medicaid may use money in the Managed Care 131308
Performance Payment Fund for the following purposes for fiscal 131309
year 2014 and fiscal year 2015:131310

        (A) To meet obligations specified in provider agreements with 131311
Medicaid managed care organizations;131312

        (B) To pay for Medicaid services provided by a Medicaid 131313
managed care organization;131314

        (C) To reimburse a Medicaid managed care organization that 131315
has paid a fine for failure to meet performance standards or other 131316
requirements specified in provider agreements or rules adopted 131317
under section 5167.02 of the Revised Code if the organization 131318
comes into compliance with the standards or requirements.131319

       Section 323.70.  MEDICAID MANAGED CARE EXEMPTIONS131320

       (A) As used in this section, "individual with disabilities" 131321
means any individual receiving services through the program for 131322
medically handicapped children established under section 3701.023 131323
of the Revised Code who has one or more of the following 131324
conditions:131325

        (1) Cystic fibrosis;131326

        (2) Hemophilia;131327

        (3) Cancer.131328

        (B) Notwithstanding section 5167.03 of the Revised Code, the 131329
Department of Medicaid shall not include in the care management 131330
system established under that section any individual with 131331
disabilities who was not receiving services through the care 131332
management system immediately before June 30, 2011, until the 131333
first day of the thirteenth month that occurs after the date that 131334
the Office first designates any individual who receives Medicaid 131335
on the basis of being aged, blind, or disabled who is under 131336
twenty-one years of age as an individual who is permitted or 131337
required to participate in the care management system.131338

       Section 323.80.  PRIOR AUTHORIZATION FOR COMMUNITY MENTAL 131339
HEALTH SERVICES131340

        (A) As used in this section, "community mental health 131341
services" means mental health services included in the state 131342
Medicaid plan pursuant to section 5164.15 of the Revised Code.131343

        (B) For fiscal year 2014 and fiscal year 2015, a Medicaid 131344
recipient who is under twenty-one years of age automatically 131345
satisfies all requirements for any prior authorization process for 131346
community mental health services provided under a component of the 131347
Medicaid program administered by the Department of Mental Health 131348
and Addiction Services pursuant to an interagency agreement 131349
authorized by section 5162.35 of the Revised Code if any of the 131350
following apply to the recipient:131351

        (1) The recipient is in the temporary custody or permanent 131352
custody of a public children services agency or private child 131353
placing agency or is in a planned permanent living arrangement.131354

       (2) The recipient has been placed in protective supervision 131355
by a juvenile court.131356

        (3) The recipient has been committed to the Department of 131357
Youth Services.131358

        (4) The recipient is an alleged or adjudicated delinquent or 131359
unruly child receiving services under the Felony Delinquent Care 131360
and Custody Program operated under section 5139.43 of the Revised 131361
Code.131362

       Section 323.90.  JOINT LEGISLATIVE COMMITTEE FOR UNIFIED 131363
LONG-TERM SERVICES AND SUPPORTS131364

       (A) The Joint Legislative Committee for Unified Long-Term 131365
Services and Supports created under section 309.30.73 of Am. Sub. 131366
H.B. 153 of the 129th General Assembly, as subsequently amended, 131367
shall continue to exist during fiscal year 2014 and fiscal year 131368
2015. The Committee shall consist of the following members:131369

       (1) Two members of the House of Representatives from the 131370
majority party, appointed by the Speaker of the House of 131371
Representatives;131372

       (2) One member of the House of Representatives from the 131373
minority party, appointed by the Speaker of the House of 131374
Representatives;131375

       (3) Two members of the Senate from the majority party, 131376
appointed by the President of the Senate;131377

       (4) One member of the Senate from the minority party, 131378
appointed by the President of the Senate.131379

       (B) The Speaker of the House of Representatives shall 131380
designate one of the members of the Committee appointed under 131381
division (A)(1) of this section to serve as co-chairperson of the 131382
Committee. The President of the Senate shall designate one of the 131383
members of the Committee appointed under division (A)(3) of this 131384
section to serve as the other co-chairperson of the Committee. The 131385
Committee shall meet at the call of the co-chairpersons. The 131386
co-chairpersons may request assistance for the Committee from the 131387
Legislative Service Commission.131388

       (C) The Committee may examine the following issues:131389

       (1) The implementation of the dual eligible integrated care 131390
demonstration project authorized by section 5164.91 of the Revised 131391
Code;131392

       (2) The implementation of a unified long-term services and 131393
support Medicaid waiver component under section 5166.14 of the 131394
Revised Code;131395

       (3) Providing consumers choices regarding a continuum of 131396
services that meet their health-care needs, promote autonomy and 131397
independence, and improve quality of life;131398

       (4) Ensuring that long-term care services and supports are 131399
delivered in a cost-effective and quality manner;131400

       (5) Subjecting county homes, county nursing homes, and 131401
district homes operated pursuant to Chapter 5155. of the Revised 131402
Code to the franchise permit fee under sections 5168.40 to 5168.56 131403
of the Revised Code;131404

       (6) Other issues of interest to the committee.131405

       (D) The co-chairpersons of the Committee shall provide for 131406
the Medicaid Director to testify before the Committee at least 131407
quarterly regarding the issues that the Committee examines.131408

       Section 323.100.  HOSPITAL INPATIENT AND OUTPATIENT 131409
SUPPLEMENTAL UPPER PAYMENT LIMIT PROGRAM; MEDICAID MANAGED CARE 131410
HOSPITAL INCENTIVE PAYMENT PROGRAM131411

       (A) As used in this section:131412

       (1) "Hospital" has the same meaning as in section 5168.20 of 131413
the Revised Code.131414

       (2) "Hospital Assessment Fund" means the fund created under 131415
section 5168.25 of the Revised Code.131416

       (3) "Medicaid managed care organization" has the same meaning 131417
as in section 5167.01 of the Revised Code.131418

       (B) The Department of Medicaid shall do both of the 131419
following:131420

       (1) Continue the Hospital Inpatient and Outpatient 131421
Supplemental Upper Payment Limit Program that was established 131422
pursuant to Section 309.30.17 of Am. Sub. H.B. 1 of the 128th 131423
General Assembly, with any modifications necessary to implement 131424
the program as described under division (D) of this section;131425

       (2) Continue the Medicaid Managed Care Hospital Incentive 131426
Payment Program, as described under division (E) of this section.131427

       (C) The Department shall use amounts deposited into the 131428
Hospital Assessment Fund in fiscal year 2014 and fiscal year 2015 131429
for the following purposes in each fiscal year:131430

        (1) To pay for costs associated with both of the following:131431

        (a) The Hospital Inpatient and Outpatient Supplemental Upper 131432
Payment Limit Program;131433

        (b) The Medicaid Managed Care Hospital Incentive Payment 131434
Program.131435

        (2) To reduce spending in appropriation item 651525, 131436
Medicaid/Health Care Services.131437

       (D)(1) Under the Hospital Inpatient and Outpatient 131438
Supplemental Upper Payment Limit Program, subject to division 131439
(D)(2) of this section, supplemental Medicaid payments shall be 131440
made to hospitals for Medicaid-covered inpatient and outpatient 131441
services. The Department shall make the payments through amounts 131442
available for the Program pursuant to division (C) of this section 131443
and any federal financial participation available for the Program.131444

       (2) The Department shall take all actions necessary to cease 131445
implementation of the Program if the United States Secretary 131446
determines that the assessment imposed under section 5168.21 of 131447
the Revised Code is an impermissible healthcare-related tax under 131448
the "Social Security Act," section 1903(w), 42 U.S.C. 1396b(w).131449

       (E)(1) The purpose of the Medicaid Managed Care Hospital 131450
Incentive Payment Program is to increase access to hospital 131451
services for Medicaid recipients who are enrolled in Medicaid 131452
managed care organizations.131453

       Under the Program, subject to division (E)(2) of this 131454
section, funds shall be provided to Medicaid managed care 131455
organizations, which shall use the funds to increase payments to 131456
hospitals for providing services to Medicaid recipients who are 131457
enrolled in the organizations. The Department shall provide the 131458
funds through amounts available for the Program pursuant to 131459
division (C) of this section and any federal financial 131460
participation available for the Program.131461

       (2)(a) The Department shall not provide funds to Medicaid 131462
managed care organizations under the Program unless an actuary 131463
selected by the Department certifies that the Program would not 131464
violate the actuarial soundness of the capitation rates paid to 131465
Medicaid managed care organizations.131466

       (b) The Department shall not implement the Program in a 131467
manner that causes a hospital to receive less money from the 131468
Hospital Assessment Fund than the hospital would have received if 131469
the Program were not implemented.131470

       (c) The Department shall not implement the Program in a 131471
manner that causes a Medicaid managed care organization to receive 131472
a lower capitation payment rate solely because funds are made 131473
available to the organization under the Program.131474

       (d) The Department shall take all necessary actions to cease 131475
implementation of the Program if the United States Secretary 131476
determines that the assessment imposed under section 5168.21 of 131477
the Revised Code is an impermissible health care-related tax under 131478
the "Social Security Act," section 1903(w), 42 U.S.C. 1396b(w).131479

       (F) The Director of Budget and Management may authorize 131480
additional expenditures from appropriation item 651623, Medicaid 131481
Services - Federal, appropriation item 651525, Medicaid/Health 131482
Care Services, and appropriation item 651656, Medicaid Services - 131483
Hospital/UPL, in order to implement the programs authorized by 131484
this section. Any amounts authorized are hereby appropriated.131485

       (G) The Medicaid Director shall adopt rules as necessary to 131486
implement this section. The rules shall provide for the applicable 131487
assessment percentage that is used for the purpose of section 131488
5168.21 of the Revised Code to be an amount that raises, from the 131489
assessments imposed on hospitals under that section, an amount the 131490
Director determines is appropriate to fund the purposes specified 131491
in division (C) of this section.131492

       Section 323.103. CONTINUATION OF MEDICAID RATES FOR HOSPITAL 131493
INPATIENT AND OUTPATIENT SERVICES131494

       The Medicaid payment rates for Medicaid-covered hospital 131495
inpatient services and hospital outpatient services that are paid 131496
under the prospective payment system established in rules adopted 131497
under section 5164.02 of the Revised Code and provided during the 131498
period beginning July 1, 2013, and ending June 30, 2015, shall be 131499
not less than the Medicaid payment rates for the services in 131500
effect on June 30, 2013.131501

       Section 323.110. ADMINISTRATIVE ISSUES RELATED TO TERMINATION 131502
OF MEDICAID WAIVER PROGRAMS131503

       (A) As used in this section, "MCD or ODA Medicaid waiver 131504
component" means the following:131505

       (1) The Medicaid waiver component of the PASSPORT program 131506
created under section 173.52 of the Revised Code;131507

       (2) The Choices program created under section 173.53 of the 131508
Revised Code;131509

       (3) The Medicaid waiver component of the Assisted Living 131510
program created under section 173.54 of the Revised Code.131511

       (4) The Ohio Home Care Waiver program as defined in section 131512
5166.01 of the Revised Code;131513

       (5) The Ohio Transitions II Aging Carve-Out program as 131514
defined in section 5166.01 of the Revised Code;131515

       (B) If an MCD or ODA Medicaid waiver component is terminated 131516
under section 173.52, 173.53, 173.54, 5166.12, or 5166.13 of the 131517
Revised Code, all of the following apply:131518

       (1) All applicable statutes, and all applicable rules, 131519
standards, guidelines, or orders issued by the Medicaid Director 131520
or Department of Medicaid or Director or Department of Aging 131521
before the component is terminated, shall remain in full force and 131522
effect on and after that date, but solely for purposes of 131523
concluding the component's operations, including fulfilling the 131524
Departments' legal obligations for claims arising from the 131525
component relating to eligibility determinations, covered medical 131526
assistance provided to eligible persons, and recovering erroneous 131527
overpayments.131528

       (2) Notwithstanding the termination of the component, the 131529
right of subrogation for the cost of medical assistance given 131530
under section 5160.37 of the Revised Code to the Department of 131531
Medicaid and an assignment of the right to medical assistance 131532
given under section 5160.38 of the Revised Code to the Department 131533
continue to apply with respect to the component and remain in 131534
force to the full extent provided under those sections.131535

       (3) The Department of Medicaid and Department of Aging may 131536
use appropriated funds to satisfy any claims or contingent claims 131537
for medical assistance provided under the component before the 131538
component's termination.131539

       (4) Neither the Department of Medicaid nor the Department of 131540
Aging has liability under the component to reimburse any provider 131541
or other person for claims for medical assistance rendered under 131542
the component after it is terminated.131543

       (C) The Medicaid Director and Director of Aging may adopt 131544
rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to 131545
implement this section.131546

       Section 323.120. EXPANSION OF PACE PROGRAM131547

        (A) As used in this section, "PACE Program" means the Program 131548
of All-Inclusive Care for the Elderly.131549

       (B) To effectively administer and manage growth within the 131550
PACE Program, the Director of Aging, in consultation with the 131551
Medicaid Director, may expand the PACE Program to regions of the 131552
state that are not being served by the PACE Program if all of the 131553
following apply:131554

        (1) Funding is available for the expansion.131555

        (2) The Director of Aging and Medicaid Director mutually 131556
determine that the PACE Program is a cost-effective alternative to 131557
nursing home care.131558

       (3) The United States Centers for Medicare and Medicaid 131559
Services agrees to share with the state any savings to the 131560
Medicare program resulting from an expansion of the PACE Program.131561

       (C) If the PACE Program is expanded, the Director of Aging 131562
may not decrease the number of individuals in Cuyahoga and 131563
Hamilton counties and parts of Butler, Clermont, and Warren 131564
counties who are participants in the PACE Program below the number 131565
of individuals in those counties and parts of counties who were 131566
participants in the PACE Program on July 1, 2011.131567

       Section 323.130.  DISPENSING FEE FOR NONCOMPOUNDED DRUGS131568

        The Medicaid dispensing fee for each noncompounded drug 131569
covered by the Medicaid program shall be $1.80 for the period 131570
beginning July 1, 2013, and ending on the effective date of a rule 131571
changing the amount of the fee that the Medicaid Director adopts 131572
under section 5164.02 of the Revised Code.131573

       Section 323.140. MONEY FOLLOWS THE PERSON ENHANCED 131574
REIMBURSEMENT FUND131575

       The federal payments made to the state under subsection (e) 131576
of section 6071 of the "Deficit Reduction Act of 2005," Pub. L. 131577
No. 109-171, as amended, shall be deposited into the Money Follows 131578
the Person Enhanced Reimbursement Fund. The Department of Medicaid 131579
shall continue to use money deposited into the fund for system 131580
reform activities related to the Money Follows the Person 131581
demonstration project.131582

       Section 323.150. MEDICARE PART D131583

       The foregoing appropriation item 651526, Medicare Part D, may 131584
be used by the Department of Medicaid for the implementation and 131585
operation of the Medicare Part D requirements contained in the 131586
"Medicare Prescription Drug, Improvement, and Modernization Act of 131587
2003," Pub. L. No. 108-173, as amended. Upon the request of the 131588
Department of Medicaid, the Director of Budget and Management may 131589
transfer the state share of appropriations between appropriation 131590
item 651525, Medicaid/Health Care Services, or appropriation item 131591
651526, Medicare Part D. If the state share of appropriation item 131592
651525, Medicaid/Health Care Services, is adjusted, the Director 131593
of Budget and Management shall adjust the federal share 131594
accordingly. The Department of Medicaid shall provide notification 131595
to the Controlling Board of any transfers at the next scheduled 131596
Controlling Board meeting.131597

       Section 323.160. REBALANCING LONG-TERM CARE131598

       (A) As used in this section:131599

       "Balancing Incentive Payments Program" means the program 131600
established under section 10202 of the Patient Protection and 131601
Affordable Care Act.131602

       "Long-term services and supports" has the same meaning as in 131603
section 10202(f)(1) of the Patient Protection and Affordable Care 131604
Act.131605

       "Non-institutionally-based long-term services and supports" 131606
has the same meaning as in section 10202(f)(1)(B) of the Patient 131607
Protection and Affordable Care Act.131608

       "Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act" means Public Law 131609
111-148.131610

       (B) The Departments of Aging, Developmental Disabilities, and 131611
Medicaid shall continue efforts to achieve a sustainable and 131612
balanced delivery system for long-term services and supports. In 131613
so doing, the Departments shall strive to realize the following 131614
goals by June 30, 2015:131615

       (1) Having at least fifty per cent of Medicaid recipients who 131616
are sixty years of age or older and need long-term services and 131617
supports utilize non-institutionally-based long-term services and 131618
supports;131619

       (2) Having at least sixty per cent of Medicaid recipients who 131620
are less than sixty years of age and have cognitive or physical 131621
disabilities for which long-term services and supports are needed 131622
utilize non-institutionally-based long-term services and supports.131623

       (C) If the Department of Medicaid determines that 131624
participating in the Balancing Incentive Payments Program will 131625
assist in achieving the goals specified in division (B) of this 131626
section, the Department may apply to the United States Secretary 131627
of Health and Human Services to participate in the program.131628

       Section 323.170. OHIO ACCESS SUCCESS PROJECT131629

        Of the foregoing appropriation item, 651525, Medicaid/Health 131630
Care Services, up to $450,000 in each fiscal year may be used to 131631
provide one-time transitional benefits under the Ohio Access 131632
Success Project that the Medicaid Director may establish under 131633
section 5166.35 of the Revised Code.131634

       Section 323.180. PROVIDER FRANCHISE FEE OFFSETS131635

       (A) At least quarterly, the Medicaid Director shall certify 131636
to the Director of Budget and Management the amount of offsets 131637
withheld under section 5168.52 of the Revised Code from payments 131638
made from the General Revenue Fund. 131639

       (B) The Director of Budget and Management may transfer cash 131640
from the General Revenue Fund to the Nursing Home Franchise Permit 131641
Fee Fund (Fund 5R20), in accordance with section 5168.54 of the 131642
Revised Code.131643

       (C) Amounts transferred pursuant to this section are hereby 131644
appropriated.131645

       Section 323.190. HOSPITAL CARE ASSURANCE MATCH131646

       The foregoing appropriation item 651623, Medicaid Services - 131647
Federal, shall be used by the Department of Medicaid for 131648
distributing the federal share of Medicaid services required under 131649
the section of this act entitled "CREATION OF THE DEPARTMENT OF 131650
MEDICAID," including the federal share of all hospital care 131651
assurance program funds to hospitals under section 5168.09 of the 131652
Revised Code.131653

       If receipts credited to the Health Care Federal Fund (Fund 131654
3F00) exceed the amounts appropriated from the fund for making the 131655
hospital care assurance program distribution, the Medicaid 131656
Director may request the Director of Budget and Management to 131657
authorize expenditures from the fund in excess of the amounts 131658
appropriated. Upon the approval of the Director of Budget and 131659
Management, the additional amounts are hereby appropriated.131660

        The foregoing appropriation item 651649, Medicaid Services – 131661
HCAP, shall be used by the Department of Medicaid for distributing 131662
the state share of all hospital care assurance program funds to 131663
hospitals under section 5168.09 of the Revised Code. If receipts 131664
credited to the Hospital Care Assurance Program Fund (Fund 6510) 131665
exceed the amounts appropriated from the fund for making the 131666
hospital care assurance program distribution, the Medicaid 131667
Director may request the Director of Budget and Management to 131668
authorize expenditures from the fund in excess of the amounts 131669
appropriated. Upon the approval of the Director of Budget and 131670
Management, the additional amounts are hereby appropriated.131671

       Section 323.200. HEALTH CARE SERVICES ADMINISTRATION FUND131672

       Of the amount received by the Department of Medicaid during 131673
fiscal year 2014 and fiscal year 2015 from the first installment 131674
of assessments paid under section 5168.06 of the Revised Code and 131675
intergovernmental transfers made under section 5168.07 of the 131676
Revised Code, the Medicaid Director shall deposit $350,000 in each 131677
fiscal year into the state treasury to the credit of the Health 131678
Care Services Administration Fund (Fund 5U30).131679

       Section 323.210. TRANSFERS OF OFFSETS TO THE HEALTH CARE 131680
SERVICES ADMINISTRATION FUND131681

       (A) As used in this section:131682

       "Hospital offset" means an offset from a hospital's Medicaid 131683
payment authorized by section 5168.991 of the Revised Code.131684

       "Vendor offset" means a reduction of a Medicaid payment to a 131685
Medicaid provider to correct a previous, incorrect Medicaid 131686
payment. 131687

       (B) During fiscal year 2014 and fiscal year 2015, at 131688
intervals selected by the Medicaid Director, the Director shall 131689
certify to the Director of Budget and Management the amount of 131690
hospital offsets and vendor offsets for the period covered by the 131691
certification and the particular funds that would have been used 131692
to make Medicaid payments to providers if not for the offsets. 131693
Each certification shall specify the amount that would have been 131694
taken from each of the funds if not for the hospital offsets and 131695
vendor offsets.131696

       (C) On receipt of a certification under division (B) of this 131697
section, the Director of Budget and Management shall transfer cash 131698
from the funds identified in the certification to the Health Care 131699
Services Administration Fund (Fund 5U30). The amount transferred 131700
from a fund shall equal the amount that would have been taken from 131701
the fund if not for the hospital offsets and vendor offsets as 131702
specified in the certification. The transferred cash is hereby 131703
appropriated. 131704

       Section 323.220. MEDICAID INTERAGENCY PASS-THROUGH131705

       The Medicaid Director may request the Director of Budget and 131706
Management to increase appropriation item 651655, Medicaid 131707
Interagency Pass-Through. Upon the approval of the Director of 131708
Budget and Management, the additional amounts are hereby 131709
appropriated.131710

       Section 323.230. MEDICAID PAYMENTS FOR NONINSTITUTIONAL 131711
SERVICES PROVIDED TO DUAL ELIGIBLE INDIVIDUALS131712

        (A) As used in this section:131713

        "Dual eligible individual" has the same meaning as in the 131714
"Social Security Act," section 1915(h)(2)(B), 42 U.S.C. 131715
1396n(h)(2)(B).131716

        "Medicare Part B" means the Supplementary Medical Insurance 131717
Program for the Aged and Disabled component of the Medicare 131718
program established by Part B of Title XVIII of the "Social 131719
Security Act," 42 U.S.C. 1395j et seq.131720

        "Noninstitutional services" means any services other than 131721
hospital services, nursing facility services, and intermediate 131722
care facilities for the mentally retarded.131723

        (B) Notwithstanding any conflicting state statute, a Medicaid 131724
payment for noninstitutional services, excluding physician 131725
services and including freestanding dialysis center services, 131726
provided during the period beginning January 1, 2014, and ending 131727
July 1, 2015, to a Medicaid recipient who is a dual eligible 131728
individual enrolled for benefits under Medicare Part B shall equal 131729
the lesser of the following:131730

        (1) The sum of the Medicare Part B deductible, coinsurance, 131731
and copayment for the services that are applicable to the 131732
individual;131733

        (2) The greater of the following:131734

        (a) The maximum allowable Medicaid payment for the services 131735
when the services are provided to other Medicaid recipients, less 131736
the total Medicaid payment (if any) most recently paid on the 131737
Medicaid recipient's behalf for such services;131738

        (b) Zero.131739

       Section 323.233. MEDICAID PAYMENTS FOR HOME HEALTH SERVICES 131740
AND PRIVATE DUTY NURSING131741

       (A) As used in this section, "responsible adult" means the 131742
spouse of a Medicaid recipient or, in the case of a Medicaid 131743
recipient who is a minor, the minor's parent, foster caregiver, 131744
stepparent, guardian, legal custodian, or any other person who 131745
stands in loco parentis for the minor.131746

       (B) Except as provided in division (C) of this section, for 131747
fiscal year 2014 and fiscal year 2015, Medicaid payments shall not 131748
be made for any of the following services that are provided to a 131749
Medicaid recipient by an individual who is a responsible adult for 131750
that recipient:131751

       (1) Nursing services available under the home health services 131752
benefit pursuant to 42 C.F.R. 440.70(b)(1);131753

       (2) Home health aide services available under the home health 131754
services benefit pursuant to 42 C.F.R. 440.70(b)(2);131755

        (3) Private duty nursing services, as defined in 42 C.F.R. 131756
440.80.131757

       (C) For fiscal year 2014 and fiscal year 2015, the Medicaid 131758
Director shall establish the conditions under which Medicaid 131759
payments may be made for any of the services described in division 131760
(B) of this section that are provided to a Medicaid recipient by 131761
an individual who is a responsible adult for that recipient. 131762

       (D) The Director shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 131763
119. of the Revised Code necessary to implement this section. The 131764
Director shall consult provider representatives, consumer 131765
representatives, and other stakeholders in developing the rules, 131766
which may include the following: 131767

       (1) Qualification and training requirements necessary for 131768
responsible adults to receive Medicaid payments under division (C) 131769
of this section;131770

       (2) Oversight requirements necessary for responsible adults 131771
to receive Medicaid payments under division (C) of this section;131772

       (3) Procedures designed to protect against fraud, waste, and 131773
abuse that may occur as a result of payments made under division 131774
(C) of this section;131775

       (4) Any other procedures, standards, or requirements the 131776
Director considers appropriate.131777

       Section 323.236.  PURCHASING STRATEGIES FOR WHEELCHAIRS131778

       For fiscal years 2014 and 2015, the Medicaid Director shall 131779
implement strategies for purchasing wheelchairs for Medicaid 131780
recipients residing in nursing facilities. In implementing the 131781
purchasing strategies, the Director shall seek to achieve a more 131782
efficient allocation of resources and price and quality 131783
competition among wheelchair providers. The Director shall 131784
consider one or more of the following when determining the 131785
purchasing strategies to implement:131786

       (A) Establishing selective contracting or competitive 131787
bidding;131788

       (B) Establishing a manufacturer's rebate program;131789

       (C) Another purchasing strategy that saves the Medicaid 131790
program an amount equivalent to the savings that would be realized 131791
from the purchasing strategies specified in division (A) or (B), 131792
or both, of this section.131793

       Section 323.250. REDUCED RATE FOR REPEAT RADIOLOGICAL 131794
SERVICES131795

       (A) The Medicaid Director shall reduce the Medicaid payment 131796
rate for radiological services to which both of the following 131797
apply:131798

       (1) They are provided in a physician's office or an 131799
independent diagnostic testing facility;131800

       (2) They are provided more than once by the same provider for 131801
the same Medicaid recipient during the same session.131802

       (B) The Director shall adopt rules under section 5164.02 of 131803
the Revised Code to implement the rate reduction required by this 131804
section. The rules shall not take effect before January 1, 2014.131805

       Section 323.260. VARYING MEDICAID PAYMENT RATES FOR PHYSICIAN 131806
SERVICES DEPENDING ON LOCATION OF SERVICE131807

       (A) The Medicaid Director shall do both of the following:131808

       (1) Identify physician services for which Medicaid payment 131809
rates should vary depending on where the services are provided;131810

       (2) Adopt rules under section 5164.02 of the Revised Code to 131811
establish the varying Medicaid payment rates.131812

       (B) The rules required by division (A)(2) of this section 131813
shall not take effect before January 1, 2014.131814

       Section 323.263. PAYMENT RATES FOR PASSPORT SERVICES131815

        The Medicaid payment rates for services provided under the 131816
PASSPORT program, other than adult day-care services, during the 131817
period beginning July 1, 2013, and ending June 30, 2015, shall be 131818
not less than ninety-eight and five-tenths per cent of the 131819
Medicaid payment rates for the services in effect on June 30, 131820
2011. The Medicaid payment rates for adult day-care services 131821
provided under the PASSPORT program during the period beginning 131822
July 1, 2013, and ending June 30, 2015, shall be twenty per cent 131823
higher than the amount of the Medicaid payment rates for the 131824
services in effect on June 30, 2013.131825

       Section 323.270. MEDICAID PAYMENT METHODOLOGIES ALIGNED WITH 131826
MEDICARE PAYMENT METHODOLOGIES131827

       (A) The Medicaid Director shall do both of the following:131828

       (1) Identify Medicaid services for which the Medicaid payment 131829
methodologies should be aligned, to the extent the Director 131830
considers appropriate, with Medicare payment methodologies for the 131831
services;131832

       (2) Adopt rules under section 5164.02 of the Revised Code to 131833
so align the payment methodologies for the services.131834

       (B) The rules required by division (A)(2) of this section 131835
shall not take effect before January 1, 2014.131836

       Section 323.280. ALTERNATIVE PURCHASING MODEL FOR NURSING 131837
FACILITY SERVICES131838

       As used in this section, "Medicaid waiver component" has the 131839
same meaning as in section 5166.01 of the Revised Code.131840

       The Medicaid Director may establish, as a Medicaid waiver 131841
component, an alternative purchasing model for nursing facility 131842
services provided, during the period beginning July 1, 2013, and 131843
ending July 1, 2015, to Medicaid recipients with specialized 131844
health care needs, including recipients dependent on ventilators, 131845
recipients who have severe traumatic brain injury, and recipients 131846
who would be admitted to long-term acute care hospitals or 131847
rehabilitation hospitals if they did not receive nursing facility 131848
services. If established, the alternative purchasing model shall 131849
do all of the following:131850

       (A) Recognize a connection between enhanced Medicaid payment 131851
rates and improved health outcomes capable of being measured;131852

       (B) Include criteria for identifying Medicaid recipients with 131853
specialized health care needs;131854

        (C) Include procedures for ensuring that Medicaid recipients 131855
identified pursuant to division (B) of this section receive 131856
nursing facility services under the alternative purchasing model.131857

        The total per Medicaid day payment rate for nursing facility 131858
services provided under the alternative purchasing model may 131859
differ from the rate that would otherwise be paid pursuant to 131860
Chapter 5165. of the Revised Code.131861

       Section 323.290. REVIEW OF LONG-TERM SERVICES TO IMPROVE 131862
EFFICIENCY AND INDIVIDUAL CARE131863

       (A) The Department of Medicaid may review the following 131864
services covered by the Medicaid program to identify opportunities 131865
to improve the efficiency of, and individual care provided by, 131866
long-term care services and supports:131867

       (1) Nursing services available under the home health services 131868
benefit pursuant to 42 C.F.R. 440.70(b)(1);131869

       (2) Home health aide services available under the home health 131870
services benefit pursuant to 42 C.F.R. 440.70(b)(2);131871

       (3) Private duty nursing services as defined in 42 C.F.R. 131872
440.80.131873

       (B) The Department, in its review authorized by division (A) 131874
of this section, may consider establishing the following:131875

       (1) New methods for authorizing and coordinating long-term 131876
care services and supports, including such services and supports 131877
covered by the Medicaid state plan, using case managers or care 131878
coordinators;131879

       (2) Competency and training requirements for the case 131880
managers or care coordinators;131881

       (3) Other mechanisms for improving efficiency and individual 131882
care in the delivery of long-term care services and supports.131883

       Section 323.300. PERFORMANCE PAYMENTS FOR MEDICAID MANAGED 131884
CARE131885

       (A) As used in this section:131886

       (1) "Dual eligible individual" has the same meaning as in 131887
section 1915(h)(2)(B) of the "Social Security Act," 124 Stat. 315, 131888
42 U.S.C. 1396n(h)(2)(B).131889

        (2) "Dual eligible integrated care demonstration project" 131890
means the demonstration project authorized by section 5164.91 of 131891
the Revised Code.131892

       (3) "Medicaid managed care organization" has the same meaning 131893
as in section 5167.01 of the Revised Code.131894

       (4) "Participant" means an individual participating in the 131895
dual eligible integrated care demonstration project. 131896

       (B) For fiscal year 2014 and fiscal year 2015, the Department 131897
of Medicaid shall provide performance payments as provided under 131898
this section to Medicaid managed care organizations providing care 131899
under the Dual Eligible Integrated Care Demonstration Project.131900

       (C) If the Department implements the Dual Eligible Integrated 131901
Care Demonstration Project, and if participants receive care 131902
through Medicaid managed care organizations under the project, the 131903
Department shall, in consultation with the United States Centers 131904
for Medicare and Medicaid Services, do both of the following:131905

       (1) Develop quality measures designed specifically to 131906
determine the effectiveness of the health care and other services 131907
provided to participants by Medicaid managed care organizations;131908

       (2) Determine an amount to be withheld from the Medicaid 131909
premium payments paid to Medicaid managed care organizations for 131910
participants.131911

       (D)(1) For the purposes of division (C)(2) of this section, 131912
the Department shall establish an amount that is to be withheld 131913
each time a premium payment is made to a Medicaid managed care 131914
organization for a participant. The amount shall be established as 131915
a percentage of each premium payment. The percentage shall be the 131916
same for all Medicaid managed care organizations providing care to 131917
participants. 131918

       (2) Each Medicaid managed care organization shall agree to 131919
the withholding as a condition of receiving or maintaining its 131920
Medicaid provider agreement with the Department.131921

       (3) When the amount is established and each time the amount 131922
is modified thereafter, the Department shall certify the amount to 131923
the Director of Budget and Management and begin withholding the 131924
amount from each premium the Department pays to a Medicaid managed 131925
care organization for a participant.131926

       (E) The Director of Budget and Management shall transfer the 131927
amounts certified in accordance with division (D) of this section 131928
into the Managed Care Performance Payment Fund created under 131929
section 5162.60 of the Revised Code. The amounts transferred may 131930
be used to make performance payments to Medicaid managed care 131931
organizations providing care to participants in accordance with 131932
rules that may be adopted by the Medicaid Director under Chapter 131933
119. of the Revised Code.131934

       (F) A Medicaid managed care organization subject to this 131935
section is not subject to section 5167.30 of the Revised Code for 131936
premium payments attributed to participants during fiscal year 131937
2014 and fiscal year 2015.131938

       Section 323.310. INTEGRATED CARE DELIVERY SYSTEM PERFORMANCE 131939
PAYMENT PROGRAM131940

       At the beginning of each quarter, or as soon as possible 131941
thereafter, the Medicaid Director may certify to the Director of 131942
Budget and Management the amount withheld in accordance with the 131943
section in this act titled "PERFORMANCE PAYMENTS FOR MEDICAID 131944
MANAGED CARE." On receipt of certification, the Director of Budget 131945
and Management shall transfer cash in the amount certified from 131946
the General Revenue Fund to the Managed Care Performance Payment 131947
Fund (Fund 5KW0). The transferred cash is hereby appropriated. 131948
Appropriation item 651525, Medicaid/Health Care Services, is 131949
hereby reduced by the amount of the transfer.131950

       Section 323.320. VENDOR COLLECTION OF PATIENT LIABILITY131951

       (A) As used in this section:131952

       "Medicaid waiver component" has the same meaning as in 131953
section 5166.01 of the Revised Code.131954

       "Patient liability" means the amount that 42 C.F.R. 435.735 131955
requires be reduced from a Medicaid payment for home and 131956
community-based services available under a Medicaid waiver 131957
component.131958

       (B) The Medicaid Director may contract with a person or 131959
government entity to collect patient liabilities for fiscal year 131960
2014 and fiscal year 2015. The Director may adopt rules under 131961
section 5166.02 of the Revised Code as necessary to implement this 131962
section.131963

       Section 323.330. STATE PLAN HOME AND COMMUNITY-BASED SERVICES131964

       (A) As used in this section:131965

       "Federal poverty line" means the official poverty line 131966
defined by the United States Office of Management and Budget based 131967
on the most recent data available from the United States Bureau of 131968
the Census and revised by the United States Secretary of Health 131969
and Human Services pursuant to the "Omnibus Budget Reconciliation 131970
Act of 1981," section 673(2), 42 U.S.C. 9902(2).131971

       "State plan home and community-based services" means home and 131972
community-based services that may be included in the Medicaid 131973
state plan pursuant to the "Social Security Act," section 1915(i), 131974
42 U.S.C. 1396n(i).131975

       (B) During fiscal year 2014 and fiscal year 2015, the 131976
Medicaid program may cover state plan home and community-based 131977
services for Medicaid recipients of any age who have behavioral 131978
health issues and countable incomes not exceeding one hundred 131979
fifty per cent of the federal poverty line. A Medicaid recipient 131980
is not required to undergo a level of care determination to be 131981
eligible for the state plan home and community-based services.131982

       The Medicaid Director may adopt rules under section 5164.02 131983
of the Revised Code as necessary to implement this section.131984

       Section 323.340. INPATIENT PSYCHIATRIC HOSPITAL SERVICES FOR 131985
INDIVIDUALS UNDER AGE 21131986

       (A) As used in this section:131987

       "Inpatient psychiatric hospital services for individuals 131988
under age 21" has the same meaning as in the "Social Security 131989
Act," section 1905(h), 42 U.S.C. 1396d(h).131990

       "Psychiatric residential treatment facility" has the same 131991
meaning as in 42 C.F.R. 483.352.131992

       (B) During fiscal year 2014 and fiscal year 2015, the 131993
Medicaid program may cover inpatient psychiatric hospital services 131994
for individuals under age 21 that are provided by psychiatric 131995
residential treatment facilities to Medicaid recipients to whom 131996
both of the following apply:131997

       (1) They are in the custody of the Department of Youth 131998
Services.131999

       (2) They have been identified as meeting a clinical criterion 132000
of serious emotional disturbance specified pursuant to division 132001
(C) of this section.132002

       (C) The Department of Youth Services, in collaboration with 132003
the Department of Medicaid and Department of Mental Health and 132004
Addiction Services, shall specify the clinical criterion of 132005
serious emotional disturbance to be used for the purpose of 132006
division (B)(2) of this section.132007

       Section 323.350. MCD COLLABORATION WITH DVS132008

       The Department of Medicaid may collaborate with the 132009
Department of Veterans Services to determine ways to improve the 132010
coordination of the services that the Departments make available 132011
to veterans in a manner that enhances veterans' receipt of the 132012
services. The Departments may implement, during fiscal year 2014 132013
and fiscal year 2015, initiatives that they determine during the 132014
collaboration will maximize the efficiency of the services and 132015
ensure that veterans' needs are met.132016

       Section 323.360. IMPROVED BIRTH OUTCOMES INITIATIVES132017

       (A) The Medicaid Director may develop and implement, during 132018
fiscal year 2014 and fiscal year 2015, initiatives designed to 132019
improve birth outcomes for Medicaid recipients, including 132020
improvements designed to do the following:132021

       (1) Reduce the number of preterm births;132022

       (2) Reduce Medicaid costs;132023

       (3) Improve the quality of Medicaid services.132024

       (B) In developing the initiatives, the Director may consult 132025
with experts in practice improvement, Medicaid managed care 132026
organizations, hospitals, and other types of Medicaid providers. 132027
The Director, Medicaid managed care organizations, and other types 132028
of Medicaid providers involved in the initiatives shall make 132029
information about the initiatives available on their web sites.132030

       Section 323.370. ABOLISHMENT OF THE PRESCRIPTION DRUG REBATES 132031
FUND132032

       On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 132033
Director of Budget and Management shall transfer the cash balance 132034
in the Prescription Drug Rebates Fund (Fund 5P50) to the Health 132035
Care/Medicaid Support and Recoveries Fund (Fund 5DL0). Upon 132036
completion of the transfer, Fund 5P50 is abolished. The Director 132037
shall cancel any existing encumbrances against appropriation item 132038
600692, Health Care/Medicaid Support – Drug Rebates, and 132039
reestablish them against appropriation item 651639, Medicaid 132040
Services - Recoveries. The re-established encumbrance amounts are 132041
hereby appropriated.132042

       All money that would have been deposited into the 132043
Prescription Drug Rebates Fund shall be deposited into the Health 132044
Care/Medicaid Support and Recoveries Fund during fiscal year 2014 132045
and fiscal year 2015.132046

       Section 323.380.  ABOLISHMENT OF THE HEALTHCARE COMPLIANCE 132047
FUND132048

       On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 132049
Medicaid Director shall certify to the Director of Budget and 132050
Management, the cash balance related to managed care obligations 132051
in the Healthcare Compliance Fund (Fund 4Z10). The Director of 132052
Budget and Management shall transfer the amount certified from 132053
Fund 4Z10 to the Managed Care Performance Payment Fund (Fund 132054
5KW0). The Director shall cancel any existing encumbrances related 132055
to managed care obligations against appropriation item 600625, 132056
Healthcare Compliance, and re-establish them against appropriation 132057
item 651612, Managed Care Performance Payment. The re-established 132058
encumbrance amounts are hereby appropriated.132059

       After the cash relating to managed care obligations has been 132060
transferred, the Director of Budget and Management shall transfer 132061
the remaining cash balance in the Healthcare Compliance Fund (Fund 132062
4Z10) to the Health Care Services Administration Fund (Fund 5U30). 132063
Upon completion of the transfer, Fund 4Z10 is abolished. The 132064
Director shall cancel any remaining encumbrances against 132065
appropriation item 600625, Healthcare Compliance, and re-establish 132066
them against appropriation item 651654, Medicaid Program Support. 132067
The re-established encumbrance amounts are hereby appropriated.132068

       All money that would have been deposited into the Health Care 132069
Compliance Fund pursuant to division (B)(2) of former section 132070
5111.946 of the Revised Code shall be deposited into the Health 132071
Care Services Administration Fund during fiscal year 2014 and 132072
fiscal year 2015.132073

       Section 323.390.  ABOLISHMENT OF THE ODJFS ADMINISTRATION AND 132074
OVERSIGHT FUND132075

       On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 132076
Director of Budget and Management shall transfer the cash balance 132077
in the ODJFS Administration and Oversight Fund (Fund 5S30) to the 132078
Health Care Services Administration Fund (Fund 5U30). Upon 132079
completion of the transfer, Fund 5S30 is abolished. The Director 132080
shall cancel any existing encumbrances against appropriation item 132081
600629, Healthcare Program and DDD Support, and re-establish them 132082
against appropriation item 651654, Medicaid Program Support. The 132083
re-established encumbrance amounts are hereby appropriated.132084

       Section 323.400.  REFUNDS AND RECONCILIATION FUND132085

       The Refunds and Reconciliation Fund (Fund R055) shall be used 132086
to hold refund and reconciliation revenues until the appropriate 132087
fund is determined or until the revenues are directed to the 132088
appropriate governmental agency other than the Department of 132089
Medicaid. Any Medicaid refunds or reconciliations received or held 132090
by the Department of Job and Family Services shall be transferred 132091
or credited to this fund. If receipts credited to the Refunds and 132092
Reconciliation Fund exceed the amounts appropriated from the fund, 132093
the Medicaid Director may request the Director of Budget and 132094
Management to authorize expenditures from the fund in excess of 132095
the amounts appropriated. Upon approval of the Director of Budget 132096
and Management, the additional amounts are hereby appropriated.132097

       Section 323.460. NO LOSS OF MEDICAID ELIGIBILITY BEFORE 132098
JANUARY 1, 2014132099

       Notwithstanding the amendments by this act to sections 132100
5101.18, 5111.01 (as renumbered as section 5162.03), and 5111.011 132101
(as renumbered as section 5163.02) and the repeal by this act of 132102
sections 5111.014, 5111.015, 5111.0110, 5111.0111, 5111.0113, 132103
5111.0115, 5111.0120, 5111.0121, 5111.0122, 5111.0123, 5111.0124, 132104
5111.0125, 5111.70, 5111.701, 5111.702, 5111.703, 5111.704, 132105
5111.705, 5111.706, 5111.707, 5111.708, 5111.709, and 5111.7011 of 132106
the Revised Code, no individual eligible for Medicaid pursuant to 132107
those sections shall lose Medicaid eligibility before January 1, 132108
2014, because of the amendments to, or repeal of, those sections. 132109
This section does not preclude an individual from losing Medicaid 132110
eligibility before January 1, 2014, if the individual would cease 132111
to be Medicaid eligible before that date for reasons unrelated to 132112
the amendments to, or repeal of, those sections. Unrelated reasons 132113
include acquiring income or assets exceeding eligibility limits 132114
and failure to comply with eligibility requirements.132115

       Section 323.470. ALTERATIONS TO AND ELIMINATION OF OPTIONAL 132116
MEDICAID ELIGIBILITY GROUPS132117

       The Medicaid Director may initiate, before January 1, 2014, 132118
the rule-making process to alter the eligibility requirements for, 132119
or to eliminate, one or more Medicaid optional eligibility groups 132120
or subgroups pursuant to section 5163.06 of the Revised Code. 132121
However, none of the rules may go into effect before that date.132122

       Section 323.480. UPDATING AUTHORIZING STATUTE CITATIONS132123

       As used in this section, "authorizing statute" means a 132124
Revised Code section or provision of a Revised Code section that 132125
is cited in the Ohio Administrative Code as the statute that 132126
authorizes the adoption of a rule.132127

       The Medicaid Director is not required to amend any rule for 132128
the sole purpose of updating the citation in the Ohio 132129
Administrative Code to the rule's authorizing statute to reflect 132130
that this act renumbers the authorizing statute or relocates it to 132131
another Revised Code section. Such citations shall be updated as 132132
the Director amends the rules for other purposes.132133

       Section 325.10. MED STATE MEDICAL BOARD132134

General Services Fund Group132135

5C60 883609 Operating Expenses $ 9,172,062 $ 9,172,062 132136
TOTAL GSF General Services 132137
Fund Group $ 9,172,062 $ 9,172,062 132138
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 9,172,062 $ 9,172,062 132139


       Section 327.10. MHA DEPARTMENT OF MENTAL HEALTH AND ADDICTION 132141
SERVICES132142

General Revenue Fund132143

GRF 333321 Central Administration $ 13,495,337 $ 13,486,290 132144
GRF 333402 Resident Trainees $ 450,000 $ 450,000 132145
GRF 333415 Lease-Rental Payments $ 15,843,300 $ 16,076,700 132146
GRF 333416 Research Program Evaluation $ 321,998 $ 321,998 132147
GRF 334412 Hospital Services $ 190,514,437 $ 190,514,437 132148
GRF 334506 Court Costs $ 784,210 $ 784,210 132149
GRF 335405 Family & Children First $ 1,386,000 $ 1,386,000 132150
GRF 335406 Prevention and Wellness $ 868,659 $ 868,659 132151
GRF 335421 Continuum of Care Services $ 77,064,296 $ 77,064,296 132152
GRF 335422 Criminal Justice Services $ 4,917,898 $ 4,917,898 132153
GRF 335504 Community Innovations $ 1,500,000 $ 1,500,000 132154
GRF 335506 Residential State Supplement $ 7,502,875 $ 7,502,875 132155
GRF 335507 Community Behavioral Health $ 50,000,000 $ 50,000,000 132156
GRF 652507 Medicaid Support $ 1,727,553 $ 1,736,600 132157
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 366,376,563 $ 366,609,963 132158

General Services Fund Group132159

1490 333609 Central Office Operating $ 1,343,190 $ 1,343,190 132160
5T90 333641 Problem Gambling Services - Administration $ 60,000 $ 60,000 132161
1490 334609 Hospital - Operating Expenses $ 28,190,000 $ 28,190,000 132162
1500 334620 Special Education $ 150,000 $ 150,000 132163
4P90 335604 Community Mental Health Projects $ 250,000 $ 250,000 132164
5T90 335641 Problem Gambling Services $ 275,000 $ 275,000 132165
1510 336601 Office of Support Services $ 115,000,000 $ 115,000,000 132166
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 145,268,190 $ 145,268,190 132167

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group132168

3240 333605 Medicaid/Medicare - Refunds $ 154,500 $ 154,500 132169
3A60 333608 Federal Miscellaneous - Administration $ 140,000 $ 140,000 132170
3A70 333612 Social Services Block Grant - Administration $ 50,000 $ 50,000 132171
3A80 333613 Federal Grants - Administration $ 4,717,000 $ 4,717,000 132172
3A90 333614 Mental Health Block Grant - Administration $ 748,470 $ 748,470 132173
3G40 333618 Substance Abuse Block Grant- Administration $ 3,307,789 $ 3,307,789 132174
3H80 333606 Demonstration Grants - Administration $ 3,237,574 $ 3,237,574 132175
3N80 333639 Administrative Reimbursement $ 300,000 $ 300,000 132176
3240 334605 Medicaid/Medicare - Hospitals $ 28,200,000 $ 28,200,000 132177
3A60 334608 Federal Miscellaneous - Hospitals $ 200,000 $ 200,000 132178
3A80 334613 Federal Letter of Credit $ 200,000 $ 200,000 132179
3A60 335608 Federal Miscellaneous $ 2,170,000 $ 2,170,000 132180
3A70 335612 Social Services Block Grant $ 8,400,000 $ 8,400,000 132181
3A80 335613 Federal Grant - Community Mental Health Board Subsidy $ 2,500,000 $ 2,500,000 132182
3A90 335614 Mental Health Block Grant $ 14,200,000 $ 14,200,000 132183
3FR0 335638 Race to the Top - Early Learning Challenge Grant $ 1,164,000 $ 1,164,000 132184
3G40 335618 Substance Abuse Block Grant $ 62,542,003 $ 62,557,967 132185
3H80 335606 Demonstration Grants $ 5,428,006 $ 5,428,006 132186
3B10 652635 Community Medicaid Legacy Costs $ 5,000,000 $ 0 132187
3B10 652636 Community Medicaid Legacy Support $ 7,000,000 $ 7,000,000 132188
3J80 652609 Medicaid Legacy Costs Support $ 3,000,000 $ 0 132189
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue Fund Group $ 152,659,342 $ 144,675,306 132190

State Special Revenue Fund Group132191

2320 333621 Family and Children First Administration $ 400,000 $ 400,000 132192
4750 333623 Statewide Treatment and Prevention - Administration $ 5,490,667 $ 5,490,667 132193
4850 333632 Mental Health Operating - Refunds $ 134,233 $ 134,233 132194
5JL0 333629 Problem Gambling and Casino Addictions - Administration $ 1,361,592 $ 1,361,592 132195
5V20 333611 Non-Federal Miscellaneous $ 100,000 $ 100,000 132196
6890 333640 Education and Conferences $ 150,000 $ 150,000 132197
4850 334632 Mental Health Operating - Hospitals $ 2,477,500 $ 2,477,500 132198
4750 335623 Statewide Treatment and Prevention $ 10,059,333 $ 10,059,333 132199
5AU0 335615 Behavioral Health Care $ 6,690,000 $ 6,690,000 132200
5JL0 335629 Problem Gambling and Casino Addictions $ 4,084,772 4,084,772 132201
6320 335616 Community Capital Replacement $ 350,000 $ 350,000 132202
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue Fund Group $ 31,298,097 $ 31,298,097 132203
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 695,602,192 $ 687,851,556 132204


       Section 327.20. TRANSITION RELATING TO CONSOLIDATION OF 132206
DEPARTMENTS132207

       Notwithstanding Chapters 340., 3793., 5119., and 5122. of the 132208
Revised Code, and any other provision of law to the contrary, on 132209
July 1, 2013, there is hereby created the Department of Mental 132210
Health and Addiction Services, which shall be administered by the 132211
Director of Mental Health and Addiction Services. The Director of 132212
Mental Health and Addiction Services shall be appointed by the 132213
Governor, with the advice and consent of the Senate, and shall 132214
hold office during the term of the appointing Governor, and is 132215
subject to removal at the pleasure of the Governor. The Director 132216
of Mental Health and Addiction Services is the executive head of 132217
the Department of Mental Health and Addiction Services. The 132218
Department of Alcohol and Drug Addiction Services and the 132219
Department of Mental Health shall be consolidated into the single 132220
Department of Mental Health and Addiction Services. All of the 132221
authority, functions, and assets and liabilities of the Department 132222
of Mental Health and the Department of Alcohol and Drug Addiction 132223
Services are transferred to the Department of Mental Health and 132224
Addiction Services. The Department of Mental Health and Addiction 132225
Services is thereupon and thereafter successor to, assumes the 132226
obligations of, and otherwise constitutes the continuation of the 132227
Department of Alcohol and Drug Addiction Services and the 132228
Department of Mental Health. The Director of Mental Health and 132229
Addiction Services assumes all of the duties, authorities, and 132230
responsibilities of the Director of Alcohol and Drug Addiction 132231
Services and the Director of Mental Health. Any action, license, 132232
or certification that was undertaken or issued by the Director of 132233
Alcohol and Drug Addiction Services or the Director of Mental 132234
Health that is current and valid on the effective date of the 132235
consolidation is deemed to be an action, license, or certification 132236
undertaken or issued by the Department of Mental Health and 132237
Addiction Services under the statute creating that Department. 132238

       Any business commenced but not completed by July 1, 2013, by 132239
the Department of Mental Health or the Department of Alcohol and 132240
Drug Addiction Services shall be completed by the Department of 132241
Mental Health and Addiction Services. The business shall be 132242
completed in the same manner, and with the same effect, as if 132243
completed by the Department of Mental Health or by the Department 132244
of Alcohol and Drug Addiction Services prior to July 1, 2013.132245

       No validation, cure, right, privilege, remedy, obligation, or 132246
liability is lost or impaired by reason of this act's transfer of 132247
responsibility from the Department of Mental Health and the 132248
Department of Alcohol and Drug Addiction Services to the 132249
Department of Mental Health and Addiction Services. Each such 132250
validation, cure, right, remedy, obligation, or liability shall be 132251
administered by the Department of Mental Health and Addiction 132252
Services pursuant to the statute creating that department.132253

       All rules, orders, and determinations made or undertaken 132254
pursuant to the authority and responsibilities of the Department 132255
of Mental Health and the Department of Alcohol and Drug Addiction 132256
Services prior to July 1, 2013, shall continue in effect as rules, 132257
orders, and determinations of the Department of Mental Health and 132258
Addiction Services until modified or rescinded by the Department 132259
of Mental Health and Addiction Services. If necessary to ensure 132260
the integrity of the numbering system of the Administrative Code, 132261
the Director of the Legislative Service Commission shall renumber 132262
the rules to reflect the transfer of authority and responsibility 132263
to the Department of Mental Health and Addiction Services.132264

       Any action or proceeding that is related to the functions or 132265
duties of the Department of Mental Health or the Department of 132266
Alcohol and Drug Addiction Services pending on July 1, 2013, is 132267
not affected by the transfer of responsibility to the Department 132268
of Mental Health and Addiction Services and shall be prosecuted or 132269
defended in the name of the Department of Mental Health and 132270
Addiction Services. In all such actions and proceedings, the 132271
Department of Mental Health and Addiction Services, on application 132272
to the court, shall be substituted as a party.132273

       It is the intention of the Department of Mental Health and 132274
Addiction Services that community subsidies allocated or 132275
distributed by the department will be used to fund mental health 132276
and addiction services in largely the same proportion that such 132277
services were funded when allocated or distributed as separate 132278
funding streams through the separate Department of Mental Health 132279
or Department of Alcohol and Drug Addiction Services.132280

       All employees of the Department of Mental Health and the 132281
Department of Alcohol and Drug Addiction Services shall be 132282
employees of the Department of Mental Health and Addiction 132283
Services and shall serve in the positions previously held within 132284
their respective agencies unless the Department of Mental Health 132285
and Addiction Services determines otherwise. The merger of 132286
Department of Mental Health and Department of Alcohol and Drug 132287
Addiction Services shall not be deemed a transfer of employees 132288
pursuant to division (D)(3)(b) of section 124.11 of the Revised 132289
Code. Any unclassified employee of the Department of Mental Health 132290
and Addiction Services who held a right to resume a position 132291
within the classified service of his or her previous respective 132292
agency of the Department of Mental Health or the Department of 132293
Alcohol and Drug Addiction Services shall retain such a right 132294
subject to section 5119.18 of the Revised Code as may be amended.132295

       On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, 132296
notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, and if 132297
requested by the Department of Mental Health and Addiction 132298
Services, the Director of Budget and Management shall make budget 132299
changes made necessary by the consolidation, if any, including 132300
administrative organization, program transfers, the creation of 132301
new funds, the transfer of state funds, and the consolidation of 132302
funds, as authorized by this section. The Director of Budget and 132303
Management may make any transfer of cash balances between funds. 132304

       On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 132305
Director of Mental Health and Addiction Services shall certify to 132306
the Director of Budget and Management all encumbrances held by the 132307
Department of Mental Health and the Department of Alcohol and Drug 132308
Addiction Services, and specify which of those encumbrances are 132309
requested to be transferred to the Department of Mental Health and 132310
Addiction Services. The Director of Budget and Management may 132311
cancel any existing encumbrances as certified by the Director of 132312
Mental Health and Addiction Services and re-establish them in the 132313
new agency. The re-established encumbrance amounts are hereby 132314
appropriated. Any business commenced but not completed with regard 132315
to the encumbrances certified shall be completed by the Department 132316
of Mental Health and Addiction Services in the same manner and 132317
with the same effect as if it were completed by the Department of 132318
Mental Health or the Department of Alcohol and Drug Addiction 132319
Services. 132320

       Not later than 30 days after the transfer and consolidation 132321
of the operations and related management functions of the 132322
Department of Mental Health and the Department of Alcohol and Drug 132323
Addiction Services to the Department of Mental Health and 132324
Addiction Services, an authorized officer of the former Department 132325
of Mental Health and the former Department of Alcohol and Drug 132326
Addiction Services shall certify to the Director of Mental Health 132327
and Addiction Services the unexpended balance and location of any 132328
funds and accounts designated for building and facility operation 132329
and management functions, and the custody of such funds and 132330
accounts shall be transferred to the Department of Mental Health 132331
and Addiction Services.132332

       Effective July 1, 2013, the Director of Budget and Management 132333
shall cancel any existing encumbrances against appropriation item 132334
038616, Problem Gambling Services, and re-establish them against 132335
appropriation items 333641, Problem Gambling Services - 132336
Administration, and 335641, Problem Gambling Services. The 132337
re-established encumbrance amounts are hereby appropriated. Any 132338
business commenced but not completed under appropriation item 132339
038616 by July 1, 2013, shall be completed under appropriation 132340
items 333641 and 335641 in the same manner and with the same 132341
effect as if it were completed with regard to appropriation item 132342
038616.132343

       Effective July 1, 2013, the Director of Budget and Management 132344
shall cancel any existing encumbrances against appropriation item 132345
038614, Substance Abuse Block Grant, and re-establish them against 132346
appropriation items 333618, Substance Abuse Block Grant - 132347
Administration, and 335618, Substance Abuse Block Grant. The 132348
re-established encumbrance amounts are hereby appropriated. Any 132349
business commenced but not completed under appropriation item 132350
038614 by July 1, 2013, shall be completed under appropriation 132351
items 333618 and 335618 in the same manner and with the same 132352
effect as if it were completed with regard to appropriation item 132353
038614. 132354

       Effective July 1, 2013, the Director of Budget and Management 132355
shall cancel any existing encumbrances against appropriation item 132356
038609, Demonstration Grants, and re-establish them against 132357
appropriation items 333606, Demonstration Grants - Administration, 132358
and 335606, Demonstration Grants. The re-established encumbrance 132359
amounts are hereby appropriated. Any business commenced but not 132360
completed under appropriation item 038609 by July 1, 2013, shall 132361
be completed under appropriation items 333606 and 335606 in the 132362
same manner and with the same effect as if it were completed with 132363
regard to appropriation item 038609.132364

       Effective July 1, 2013, the Director of Budget and Management 132365
shall cancel any existing encumbrances against appropriation item 132366
038621, Statewide Treatment and Prevention, and re-establish them 132367
against appropriation items 333623, Statewide Treatment and 132368
Prevention - Administration, and 335623, Statewide Treatment and 132369
Prevention. The re-established encumbrance amounts are hereby 132370
appropriated. Any business commenced but not completed under 132371
appropriation item 038621 by July 1, 2013, shall be completed 132372
under appropriation items 333623 and 335623 in the same manner and 132373
with the same effect as if it were completed with regard to 132374
appropriation item 038621.132375

       Effective July 1, 2013, the Director of Budget and Management 132376
shall cancel any existing encumbrances against appropriation item 132377
038629, Problem Gambling and Casino Addictions, and re-establish 132378
them against appropriation items 333629, Problem Gambling and 132379
Casino Addictions - Administration, and 335629, Problem Gambling 132380
and Casino Addictions. The re-established encumbrance amounts are 132381
hereby appropriated. Any business commenced but not completed 132382
under appropriation item 038629 by July 1, 2013, shall be 132383
completed under appropriation items 333629 and 335629 in the same 132384
manner and with the same effect as if it were completed with 132385
regard to appropriation item 038629.132386

       Effective July 1, 2013, the Director of Budget and Management 132387
shall cancel any existing encumbrances against appropriation item 132388
038611, Administrative Reimbursement, and re-establish them 132389
against appropriation item 333639, Administrative Reimbursement. 132390
The re-established encumbrance amounts are hereby appropriated. 132391
Any business commenced but not completed under appropriation item 132392
038611 by July 1, 2013, shall be completed under appropriation 132393
item 333639 in the same manner and with the same effect as if it 132394
were completed with regard to appropriation item 038611.132395

       Effective July 1, 2013, the Director of Budget and Management 132396
shall cancel any existing encumbrances against appropriation item 132397
335635, Community Medicaid Expansion, and re-establish them 132398
against appropriation item 652635, Community Medicaid Legacy 132399
Costs. The re-established encumbrance amounts are hereby 132400
appropriated. Any business commenced but not completed under 132401
appropriation item 335635 by July 1, 2013, shall be completed 132402
under appropriation item 652635 in the same manner and with the 132403
same effect as if it were completed with regard to appropriation 132404
item 335635.132405

       Effective July 1, 2013, the Director of Budget and Management 132406
shall cancel any existing encumbrances against appropriation item 132407
333635, Community Medicaid Expansion, and re-establish them 132408
against appropriation item 652636, Community Medicaid Legacy 132409
Support. The re-established encumbrance amounts are hereby 132410
appropriated. Any business commenced but not completed under 132411
appropriation item 333635 by July 1, 2013, shall be completed 132412
under appropriation item 652636 in the same manner and with the 132413
same effect as if it were completed with regard to appropriation 132414
item 333635.132415

       Effective July 1, 2013, the Director of Budget and Management 132416
shall cancel any existing encumbrances against appropriation item 132417
038610, Medicaid, and re-establish them against appropriation item 132418
652609, Medicaid Legacy Costs Support. The re-established 132419
encumbrance amounts are hereby appropriated. Any business 132420
commenced but not completed under appropriation item 038610 by 132421
July 1, 2013, shall be completed under appropriation item 652609 132422
in the same manner and with the same effect as if it were 132423
completed with regard to appropriation item 038610.132424

       Effective July 1, 2013, the Director of Budget and Management 132425
shall cancel any existing encumbrances against appropriation item 132426
038604, Education and Conferences, and re-establish them against 132427
appropriation item 333640, Education and Conferences. The 132428
re-established encumbrance amounts are hereby appropriated. Any 132429
business commenced but not completed under appropriation item 132430
038604 by July 1, 2013, shall be completed under appropriation 132431
item 333640 in the same manner and with the same effect as if it 132432
were completed with regard to appropriation item 038604.132433

       Effective July 1, 2013, the Director of Budget and Management 132434
shall cancel any existing encumbrances against appropriation item 132435
038401, Treatment Services, and re-establish them against 132436
appropriation items 335421, Continuum of Care Services, 335422, 132437
Criminal Justice Services, and 335406, Prevention and Wellness. 132438
The re-established encumbrance amounts are hereby appropriated. 132439
Any business commenced but not completed under appropriation item 132440
038401 by July 1, 2013, shall be completed under appropriation 132441
items 335421, 335422, and 335406 in the same manner and with the 132442
same effect as if it were completed with regard to appropriation 132443
item 038401.132444

       Effective July 1, 2013, the Director of Budget and Management 132445
shall cancel any existing encumbrances against appropriation item 132446
335419, Community Medication Subsidy, and re-establish them 132447
against appropriation item 335421, Continuum of Care Services. The 132448
re-established encumbrance amounts are hereby appropriated. Any 132449
business commenced but not completed under appropriation item 132450
335419 by July 1, 2013, shall be completed under appropriation 132451
item 335421 in the same manner and with the same effect as if it 132452
were completed with regard to appropriation item 335419.132453

       Effective July 1, 2013, the Director of Budget and Management 132454
shall cancel any existing encumbrances against appropriation item 132455
335505, Local Mental Health Systems of Care, and re-establish them 132456
against appropriation item 335421, Continuum of Care Services. The 132457
re-established encumbrance amounts are hereby appropriated. Any 132458
business commenced but not completed under appropriation item 132459
335505 by July 1, 2013, shall be completed under appropriation 132460
item 335421 in the same manner and with the same effect as if it 132461
were completed with regard to appropriation item 335505.132462

       Effective July 1, 2013, the Director of Budget and Management 132463
shall cancel any existing encumbrances against appropriation item 132464
332401, Forensic Services, and re-establish them against 132465
appropriation item 335422, Criminal Justice Services. The 132466
re-established encumbrance amounts are hereby appropriated. Any 132467
business commenced but not completed under appropriation item 132468
332401 by July 1, 2013, shall be completed under appropriation 132469
item 335422 in the same manner and with the same effect as if it 132470
were completed with regard to appropriation item 332401.132471

       Effective July 1, 2013, the Director of Budget and Management 132472
shall cancel any existing encumbrances against appropriation item 132473
333403, Pre-Admission Screening Expenses, and re-establish them 132474
against appropriation item 652507, Medicaid Support. The 132475
re-established encumbrance amounts are hereby appropriated. Any 132476
business commenced but not completed under appropriation item 132477
333403 by July 1, 2013, shall be completed under appropriation 132478
item 652507 in the same manner and with the same effect as if it 132479
were completed with regard to appropriation item 333403.132480

       Effective July 1, 2013, the Director of Budget and Management 132481
shall cancel any existing encumbrances against appropriation item 132482
038900, Indigent Drivers Alcohol Treatment, and re-establish them 132483
against appropriation item 335900, Indigent Drivers Alcohol 132484
Treatment. The re-established encumbrance amounts are hereby 132485
appropriated. Any business commenced but not completed under 132486
appropriation item 038900 by July 1, 2013, shall be completed 132487
under appropriation item 335900 in the same manner and with the 132488
same effect as if it were completed with regard to appropriation 132489
item 038900.132490

       Effective July 1, 2013, the Director of Budget and Management 132491
shall cancel any existing encumbrances against appropriation item 132492
038404, Prevention Services, and re-establish them against 132493
appropriation item 335406, Prevention and Wellness. The 132494
re-established encumbrance amounts are hereby appropriated. Any 132495
business commenced but not completed under appropriation item 132496
038404 by July 1, 2013, shall be completed under appropriation 132497
item 335406 in the same manner and with the same effect as if it 132498
were completed with regard to appropriation item 038404.132499

       Section 327.20.10. Effective July 1, 2013, the Director of 132500
Mental Health and Addiction Services, with respect to all mental 132501
health and addiction facilities and services established and 132502
operated or provided under Chapter 340. of the Revised Code shall 132503
do all of the following:132504

       (A) To the extent the Director determines necessary, and 132505
after consultation with the boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and 132506
mental health services, develop and operate, or contract for the 132507
operation of, a community behavioral health information system or 132508
systems, and shall specify the information that must be provided 132509
by boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services 132510
for inclusion in the system or systems, which may include 132511
information on services provided in whole or in part under 132512
contract with a board, financial information regarding 132513
expenditures of federal, state, or local funds by boards, and 132514
information about persons served under contract with a board. 132515

       (B)(1) Receive and review each board's community mental 132516
health and addiction services plan, budget, and statement of 132517
services to be made available, and approve or disapprove the plan, 132518
budget, and statement of services in whole or in part. 132519

       (2) The Department may withhold all or part of the funds 132520
allocated to a board if it disapproves all or part of a plan, 132521
budget, or statement of service. 132522

       (3) Prior to a final decision to disapprove a plan, budget, 132523
or statement of services, or to withhold funds from a board, a 132524
representative of the Director shall meet with the board to 132525
discuss the reasons for the action and any corrective action that 132526
should be taken to make the plan, budget, or statement of services 132527
acceptable, and give the board a reasonable time in which to 132528
revise the plan, budget, or statement of services. 132529

       (C) Establish procedures for the review of plans, budgets, 132530
and statements of services, and a timetable for submission and 132531
review. Boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 132532
services shall submit to the Department of Mental Health and 132533
Addiction Services the information, plans, budgets, and statements 132534
of services described above in accordance with the guidance or 132535
directives of the Department or Director. After notifying and 132536
consulting with relevant constituents, the Department of Mental 132537
Health and Addiction Services shall establish a methodology for 132538
allocating to boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 132539
services the funds appropriated by the General Assembly to the 132540
Department for the purpose of local mental health and addiction 132541
services continuums of care. Subject to existing provisions of law 132542
that permit the Director to withhold funds from boards of alcohol, 132543
drug addiction, and mental health services for failure to comply 132544
with applicable sections of law, or for discriminating in making 132545
services available, and subject to a board's submission and 132546
approval of the required plan, budget, and statement of services 132547
described above, the Department shall allocate the funds to the 132548
boards in a manner consistent with the methodology and state and 132549
federal laws, rules, and regulations. 132550

       Portions of appropriation items 333609, Central Office 132551
Operating, 333606, Demonstration Grants - Administration, 333612, 132552
Social Services Block Grant - Administration, 333613, Federal 132553
Grants - Administration, 333614, Mental Health Block Grant - 132554
Administration, 333618, Substance Abuse Block Grant - 132555
Administration, 333623, Statewide Treatment and Prevention - 132556
Administration, 333629, Problem Gambling and Casino Addictions - 132557
Administration, 333608, Federal Miscellaneous - Administration, 132558
333641, Problem Gambling Services - Administration, 335406, 132559
Prevention and Wellness, 335421, Continuum of Care Services, 132560
335422, Criminal Justice Services, 335604, Community Mental Health 132561
Projects, 335606, Demonstration Grants, 335612, Social Services 132562
Block Grant, 335613, Federal Grant - Community Mental Health 132563
Subsidy, 335614, Mental Health Block Grant, 335615, Behavioral 132564
Health Care, 335618, Substance Abuse Block Grant, 335623, 132565
Statewide Treatment and Prevention, 335629, Problem Gambling and 132566
Casino Addictions, 335638, Race to the Top - Early Learning 132567
Challenge Grant, and 335900, Indigent Drivers Alcohol Treatment, 132568
may be used to pay for the Department and board functions 132569
enumerated above. 132570

       Section 327.20.20. (A) Effective July 1, 2013, all records 132571
and reports, other than court journal entries or court docket 132572
entries, identifying a person and pertaining to the person's 132573
mental health condition, assessment, provision of care or 132574
treatment, or payment for assessment, care, or treatment that are 132575
maintained in connection with any services certified by the 132576
Department of Mental Health and Addiction Services, or any 132577
hospitals or facilities licensed or operated by the Department, 132578
shall be kept confidential and shall not be disclosed by any 132579
person, with the following exceptions:132580

       (1) If the person identified, or the person's legal guardian, 132581
if any, or if the person is a minor, the person's parent or legal 132582
guardian, consents. 132583

       (2) When disclosure is provided for in Chapters 340., 5119., 132584
or 5122., or in Title 47 of the Revised Code. 132585

       (3) Hospitals, boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental 132586
health services, licensed facilities, and community mental health 132587
services providers may release necessary information to insurers 132588
and other third-party payers, including government entities 132589
responsible for processing and authorizing payment, to obtain 132590
payment for goods and services furnished to the person.132591

       (4) Pursuant to a court order signed by a judge; 132592

       (5) A person shall be granted access to the person's own 132593
psychiatric and medical records unless access specifically is 132594
restricted in a person's treatment plan for clear treatment 132595
reasons. 132596

       (6) The Department of Mental Health and Addiction Services 132597
may exchange psychiatric records and other pertinent information 132598
with community mental health services providers and boards of 132599
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services relating to 132600
the person's care or services. Records and information that may be 132601
exchanged pursuant to this division shall be limited to medication 132602
history, physical health status and history, financial status, 132603
summary of course of treatment, summary of treatment needs, and a 132604
discharge summary, if any.132605

       (7) The Department of Mental Health and Addiction Services, 132606
hospitals, and community providers operated by the Department, 132607
hospitals licensed by the Department under section 5119.20 132608
(5119.33) of the Revised Code and community mental health services 132609
providers may exchange psychiatric records and other pertinent 132610
information with payers and other providers of treatment and 132611
health services if the purpose of the exchange is to facilitate 132612
continuity of care for the person or for the emergency treatment 132613
of the person. 132614

       (8) The Department of Mental Health and Addiction Services 132615
and community mental health services providers may exchange 132616
psychiatric records and other pertinent information with boards of 132617
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services for purposes 132618
of any board function set forth in Chapter 340. of the Revised 132619
Code. Boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 132620
services shall not access or use any personal information from the 132621
Department or providers except as required or permitted by this 132622
section, or Chapters 340. and 5122. of the Revised Code for 132623
purposes related to payment, care coordination, health care 132624
operations, program and service evaluation, reporting activities, 132625
research, system administration, oversight, or other authorized 132626
purposes. 132627

       (9) A person's family member who is involved in the 132628
provision, planning, and monitoring of services to the person may 132629
receive medication information, a summary of the person's 132630
diagnosis and prognosis, and a list of the services and personnel 132631
available to assist the person and the person's family, if the 132632
person's treatment provider determines that the disclosure would 132633
be in the best interests of the person. No such disclosure shall 132634
be made unless the person is notified first and receives the 132635
information and does not object to the disclosure. 132636

       (10) Community mental health services providers may exchange 132637
psychiatric records and certain other information with the board 132638
of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services and other 132639
providers in order to provide services to a person involuntarily 132640
committed to a board. Release of records under this division shall 132641
be limited to medication history, physical health status and 132642
history, financial status, summary of course of treatment, summary 132643
of treatment needs, and discharge summary, if any. 132644

       (11) Information may be disclosed to the executor or the 132645
administrator of an estate of a deceased person when the 132646
information is necessary to administer the estate. 132647

       (12) Information may be disclosed to staff members of the 132648
appropriate board or to staff members designated by the Director 132649
of Mental Health and Addiction Services for the purpose of 132650
evaluating the quality, effectiveness, and efficiency of services 132651
and determining if the services meet minimum standards. 132652
Information obtained during such evaluations shall not be retained 132653
with the name of any person. 132654

       (13) Records pertaining to the person's diagnosis, course of 132655
treatment, treatment needs, and prognosis shall be disclosed and 132656
released to the appropriate prosecuting attorney if the person was 132657
committed pursuant to section 2945.38, 2945.39, 2945.40, 2945.401, 132658
or 2945.402 of the Revised Code, or to the attorney designated by 132659
the board for proceedings pursuant to involuntary commitment under 132660
Chapter 5122. of the Revised Code. 132661

       (14) The Department of Mental Health and Addiction Services 132662
may exchange psychiatric hospitalization records, other mental 132663
health treatment records, and other pertinent information with the 132664
Department of Rehabilitation and Correction and with the 132665
Department of Youth Services to ensure continuity of care for 132666
inmates and offenders who are receiving mental health services in 132667
an institution of the Department of Rehabilitation and Correction 132668
or the Department of Youth Services and may exchange psychiatric 132669
hospitalization records, other mental health treatment records, 132670
and other pertinent information with boards of alcohol, drug 132671
addiction, and mental health services and community mental health 132672
services providers to ensure continuity of care for inmates or 132673
offenders who are receiving mental health services in an 132674
institution and are scheduled for release within six months. The 132675
release of records under this division is limited to records 132676
regarding an inmate's or offender's medication history, physical 132677
health status and history, summary of course of treatment, summary 132678
of treatment needs, and a discharge summary, if any. 132679

       (15) A community mental health services provider that ceases 132680
to operate may transfer to either a community mental health 132681
services provider that assumes its caseload or to the board of 132682
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services of the service 132683
district in which the person resided at the time services were 132684
most recently provided any treatment records that have not been 132685
transferred elsewhere at the person's request. 132686

       (B) Before records are disclosed pursuant to divisions 132687
(A)(3), (6), or (10) of this section, the custodian of the records 132688
shall attempt to obtain the consent of the person in question for 132689
the disclosure. 132690

       (C) No person shall reveal the content of a medical record of 132691
a person except as authorized by the law. 132692

       (D) Portions of appropriation items 333321, Central 132693
Administration, 333416, Research Program Evaluation, 333605, 132694
Medicaid/Medicare - Refunds, 333606, Demonstration Grants - 132695
Administration, 333608, Federal Miscellaneous - Administration, 132696
333609, Central Office Opening, 333611, Non-Federal Miscellaneous, 132697
333612, Social Services Block Grant - Administration, 333613, 132698
Federal Grants - Administration, 333614, Mental Health Block Grant 132699
- Administration, 333618, Substance Abuse Block Grant - 132700
Administration, 333621, Family and Children First Administration, 132701
333623, Statewide Treatment and Prevention - Administration, 132702
333629, Problem Gambling and Casino Addictions - Administration, 132703
333632, Mental Health Operating - Refunds, 333608, Federal 132704
Miscellaneous - Administration, 333640, Education and Conferences, 132705
333641, Problem Gambling Services - Administration, 333639, 132706
Administrative Reimbursement, 334605, Medicaid/Medicare - 132707
Hospitals, 334608, Federal Miscellaneous - Hospitals, 334609, 132708
Hospital - Operating Expenses, 334613, Federal Letter of Credit, 132709
334620, Special Education, 334632, Mental Health Operating - 132710
Hospitals, 335405, Family and Children First, 335406, Prevention 132711
and Wellness, 335421, Continuum of Care Services, 335422, Criminal 132712
Justice Services, 335604, Community Mental Health Projects, 132713
335506, Residential State Supplement, 335608, Federal 132714
Miscellaneous, 335606, Demonstration Grants, 335612, Social 132715
Services Block Grant, 335613, Federal Grant - Community Mental 132716
Health Subsidy, 335614, Mental Health Block Grant, 335615, 132717
Behavioral Health Care, 335618, Substance Abuse Block Grant, 132718
335623, Statewide Treatment and Prevention, 335629, Problem 132719
Gambling and Casino Addictions, 335638, Race to the Top - Early 132720
Learning Challenge Grant, 335900, Indigent Drivers Alcohol 132721
Treatment, 336601, Office of Support Services, 652609, Medicaid 132722
Legacy Costs Support, 652635, Community Medicaid Legacy Costs, and 132723
652636, Community Medicaid Legacy Support, may be used to pay for 132724
the Department and community mental health system functions that 132725
operate under the confidentiality provisions enumerated above. 132726

       Section 327.20.30. Effective July 1, 2013, the Director of 132727
Mental Health and Addiction Services may adopt rules pursuant to 132728
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code governing licensure and operation 132729
of residential facilities, that include procedures for conducting 132730
criminal records checks for operators, employees, and volunteers 132731
who have direct access to facility residents.132732

        Portions of appropriation items 334506, Court Costs, 335406, 132733
Prevention and Wellness, 335421, Continuum of Care Services, 132734
335614, Mental Health Block Grant, 335506, Residential State 132735
Supplement, 335615, Behavioral Health Care, 335618, Substance 132736
Abuse Block Grant, 335623, Statewide Treatment and Prevention, and 132737
335900, Indigent Drivers Alcohol Treatment, may be used to pay for 132738
these regulated activities.132739

       Section 327.20.40.  Effective July 1, 2013, to the extent 132740
funds are available and on application of boards of alcohol, drug 132741
addiction, and mental health services, the Director of Mental 132742
Health and Addiction Services may approve state reimbursement of, 132743
or state grants for, community construction programs, including 132744
residential housing for severely mentally disabled persons and 132745
persons with substance use disorders. The Director may also 132746
approve an application for reimbursement or a grant for such 132747
programs submitted by other governmental entities or by private, 132748
nonprofit organizations after the board of alcohol, drug 132749
addiction, and mental health services has reviewed and approved 132750
the application and the application is consistent with the plan, 132751
budget, and statement of services submitted to and approved by the 132752
Department. The Director shall adopt rules in accordance with 132753
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code that specify procedures for 132754
applying for state reimbursement and for state grants for 132755
community construction programs, including residential housing for 132756
severely mentally disabled persons and persons with substance use 132757
disorders.132758

        Portions of appropriation item 335616, Community Capital 132759
Replacement, may be used to pay for the Department functions 132760
enumerated above.132761

       Section 327.20.50.  Effective July 1, 2013, the Department of 132762
Mental Health and Addiction Services shall collect information 132763
about services delivered and persons served as required for 132764
reporting and evaluation relating to state and federal funds 132765
expended for such purposes. No alcohol, drug addiction, or mental 132766
health program, agency, or services provider shall fail to supply 132767
statistics or other information within its knowledge and with 132768
respect to its programs or services upon the request of the 132769
department.132770

       Portions of appropriation items 333321, Central 132771
Administration, 333609 Central Office Operating, 333606, 132772
Demonstration Grants - Administration, 333612, Social Services 132773
Block Grant - Administration, 333613, Federal Grants - 132774
Administration, 333614, Mental Health Block Grant - 132775
Administration, 333618, Substance Abuse Block Grant - 132776
Administration, 333623, Statewide Treatment and Prevention - 132777
Administration, 333629, Problem Gambling and Casino Addictions - 132778
Administration, 333608, Federal Miscellaneous - Administration, 132779
333641, Problem Gambling Services - Administration, 335406, 132780
Prevention and Wellness, 335421, Continuum of Care Services, 132781
335422, Criminal Justice Services, 335604, Community Mental Health 132782
Projects, 335606, Demonstration Grants, 335612, Social Services 132783
Block Grant, 335613, Federal Grant - Community Mental Health 132784
Subsidy, 335614, Mental Health Block Grant, 335615, Behavioral 132785
Health Care, 335618, Substance Abuse Block Grant, 335623, 132786
Statewide Treatment and Prevention, 335629, Problem Gambling and 132787
Casino Addictions, 335638, Race to the Top - Early Learning 132788
Challenge Grant, and 335900, Indigent Drivers Alcohol Treatment, 132789
652609, Medicaid Legacy Costs Support, and 652636, Community 132790
Medicaid Legacy Support, may be used to pay for the Department 132791
information collection and reporting functions enumerated above.132792

       Section 327.20.60. The Department of Mental Health and 132793
Addiction Services shall administer specified Medicaid services as 132794
delegated by the State's single agency responsible for the 132795
Medicaid program. Effective July 1, 2013, the Department shall use 132796
appropriation item 652507, Medicaid Support, to fund the 132797
Medicaid-related services and supports performed by the 132798
Department.132799

       Section 327.30. RESIDENT TRAINEES132800

       The foregoing appropriation item 333402, Resident Trainees, 132801
shall be used to fund training agreements entered into by the 132802
Director of Mental Health and Addiction Services for the 132803
development of curricula and the provision of training programs to 132804
support public mental health services.132805

       Section 327.40. LEASE-RENTAL PAYMENTS132806

       The foregoing appropriation item 333415, Lease-Rental 132807
Payments, shall be used to meet all payments at the times they are 132808
required to be made during the period from July 1, 2013, through 132809
June 30, 2015, by the Department of Mental Health and Addiction 132810
Services under leases and agreements made under section 154.20 of 132811
the Revised Code. These appropriations are the source of funds 132812
pledged for bond service charges on obligations issued pursuant to 132813
Chapter 154. of the Revised Code.132814

       Section 327.50. HOSPITAL SERVICES132815

       The foregoing appropriation item 334412, Hospital Services, 132816
shall be used for the operation of the State Regional Psychiatric 132817
Hospitals, including, but not limited to, all aspects involving 132818
civil and forensic commitment, treatment, and discharge as 132819
determined by the Director of Mental Health and Addiction 132820
Services. A portion of this appropriation may be used by the 132821
Department of Mental Health and Addiction Services to create, 132822
purchase, or contract for the custody, supervision, control, and 132823
treatment of persons committed to the Department of Mental Health 132824
and Addiction Services in other clinically appropriate 132825
environments, consistent with public safety.132826

       Section 327.60. CONTINUUM OF CARE SERVICES132827

       The foregoing appropriation item 335421, Continuum of Care 132828
Services, shall be used as follows:132829

       (A) A portion of this appropriation may be allocated to 132830
community alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services 132831
boards in accordance with a distribution methodology determined by 132832
the Director of Mental Health and Addiction Services:132833

       (1) For the boards to purchase mental health and addiction 132834
services permitted under Chapter 340. of the Revised Code;132835

       (2) To provide subsidized support for psychotropic medication 132836
needs of indigent citizens in the community to reduce unnecessary 132837
hospitalization due to lack of medication; and132838

       (3) To provide subsidized support for medication assisted 132839
treatment costs.132840

       (B) A portion of this appropriation may be distributed to 132841
community alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services 132842
boards, community addiction and/or mental health services 132843
providers, courts, or other governmental entities to provide 132844
specific grants in support of mental health and addiction services 132845
initiatives.132846

       (C) $665,196 shall be allocated to The Ohio State University 132847
STAR House in each fiscal year.132848

       Section 327.70. CRIMINAL JUSTICE SERVICES132849

       The foregoing appropriation item 335422, Criminal Justice 132850
Services, shall be used to provide forensic psychiatric 132851
evaluations to courts of common pleas and to conduct evaluations 132852
of patients of forensic status in facilities operated or 132853
designated by the Department of Mental Health and Addiction 132854
Services prior to conditional release to the community. A portion 132855
of this appropriation may be allocated through community alcohol, 132856
drug addiction, and mental health services boards to community 132857
addiction and/or mental health services providers in accordance 132858
with a distribution methodology as determined by the Director of 132859
Mental Health and Addiction Services.132860

       Appropriation item 335422, Criminal Justice Services, may 132861
also be used to:132862

       (A) Provide forensic monitoring and tracking of individuals 132863
on conditional release;132864

       (B) Provide forensic training;132865

       (C) Support projects that assist courts and law enforcement 132866
to identify and develop appropriate alternative services to 132867
incarceration for nonviolent mentally ill offenders;132868

       (D) Provide specialized re-entry services to offenders 132869
leaving prisons and jails;132870

       (E) Provide specific grants in support of addiction services 132871
alternatives to incarceration;132872

       (F) Support specialty dockets; and132873

       (G) Support therapeutic communities.132874

       Section 327.80. COMMUNITY INNOVATIONS132875

       The foregoing appropriation item 335504, Community 132876
Innovations, may be used by the Department of Mental Health and 132877
Addiction Services to make targeted investments in programs, 132878
projects, or systems operated by or under the authority of other 132879
state agencies, governmental entities, or private not-for-profit 132880
agencies that impact, or are impacted by, the operations and 132881
functions of the Department, with the goal of achieving a net 132882
reduction in expenditure of state general revenue funds and/or 132883
improved outcomes for Ohio citizens without a net increase in 132884
state general revenue fund spending.132885

       The Director shall identify and evaluate programs, projects, 132886
or systems proposed or operated, in whole or in part, outside of 132887
the authority of the Department, where targeted investment of 132888
these funds in the program, project, or system is expected to 132889
decrease demand for the Department or other resources funded with 132890
state general revenue funds, and/or to measurably improve outcomes 132891
for Ohio citizens with mental illness or with alcohol, drug, or 132892
gambling addictions. The Director shall have discretion to 132893
transfer money from the appropriation item to other state 132894
agencies, governmental entities, or private not-for-profit 132895
agencies in amounts, and subject to conditions, that the Director 132896
determines most likely to achieve state savings and/or improved 132897
outcomes. Distribution of moneys from this appropriation item 132898
shall not be subject to sections 9.23 to 9.239 or Chapter 125. of 132899
the Revised Code. 132900

       The Department shall enter into an agreement with each 132901
recipient of community innovation funds, identifying: allowable 132902
expenditure of the funds; other commitment of funds or other 132903
resources to the program, project, or system; expected state 132904
savings and/or improved outcomes and proposed mechanisms for 132905
measurement of such savings or outcomes; and required reporting 132906
regarding expenditure of funds and savings or outcomes achieved.132907

       The foregoing appropriation item 335504, Community 132908
Innovations, may also be used by the Department to make payments 132909
to the Rehabilitation Services Commission for vocational 132910
rehabilitation services to individuals receiving mental health or 132911
addiction services paid for with public dollars.132912

       Section 327.83. COMMUNITY BEHAVIORAL HEALTH132913

        Of the foregoing appropriation item 335507, Community 132914
Behavioral Health, $30,000,000 in each fiscal year shall be 132915
allocated to community alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 132916
services boards to provide mental health services. The Department 132917
of Mental Health and Addiction Services shall allocate these funds 132918
to the boards using the same methodology used to allocate other 132919
mental health services subsidies.132920

        Of the foregoing appropriation item 335507, Community 132921
Behavioral Health, $20,000,000 in each fiscal year shall be 132922
allocated to community alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 132923
services boards to be used for addiction services including 132924
medication, treatment programs, and counseling. Of this amount, at 132925
least fifty per cent shall be used for drug treatment using 132926
non-opiate drugs. The Department shall allocate these funds to the 132927
boards using the same methodology used to allocate other addiction 132928
services subsidies.132929

       Section 327.90. COMMUNITY OPERATING/PLANNING132930

       Appropriation item 335609, Community Operating/Planning, may 132931
be used by the Department of Mental Health and Addiction Services 132932
to make payments to the Rehabilitation Services Commission for 132933
vocational rehabilitation services to individuals receiving mental 132934
health or addiction services paid for with public dollars.132935

       In addition, appropriation item 335609, Community 132936
Operating/Planning, may be used by the Department to make 132937
incentive payments to operators of residential facilities that are 132938
licensed by the Department of Mental Health and Addiction Services 132939
and provide accommodations and personal care services for one or 132940
two unrelated adults or accommodations, supervision, and personal 132941
care services for three to sixteen unrelated adults. The incentive 132942
payments shall be granted based upon operators demonstrating 132943
linkage between their facilities' residents and community 132944
resources, based on the residents' needs including, but not 132945
limited to, aged, mental health, and physical health issues. The 132946
financial incentive shall be used to support community living for 132947
individuals with a disability or who are aged, and to assist with 132948
costs arising from facility operations.132949

       Appropriation item 335609, Community Operating/Planning, may 132950
also be used by the Department to support non-Medicaid program 132951
costs for individuals moving into community settings.132952

       Section 327.100. RESIDENTIAL STATE SUPPLEMENT132953

       (A) As used in this section:132954

       (1) "Residential facility" means a facility licensed by the 132955
Department of Mental Health and Addiction Services under section 132956
5119.34 of the Revised Code.132957

       (2) "Residential care facility" means a facility licensed by 132958
the Director of Health under Chapter 3721. of the Revised Code or 132959
by a political subdivision certified under section 3721.09 of the 132960
Revised Code.132961

       (B) The foregoing appropriation item 335506, Residential 132962
State Supplement, may be used by the Department of Mental Health 132963
and Addiction Services to provide training for residential 132964
facilities providing accommodations, supervision, and personal 132965
care services to three to sixteen unrelated adults with mental 132966
illness, to transfer cash to the Nursing Home Franchise Permit Fee 132967
Fund (Fund 5R20) used by the Department of Job and Family 132968
Services, and to make benefit payments to residential state 132969
supplement recipients. 132970

       (C) Under the Residential State Supplement Program, the 132971
amount used to determine whether a resident is eligible for 132972
payment, and for determining the amount per month the eligible 132973
resident will receive, shall be as follows: 132974

       (1) $927 for a residential care facility; 132975

       (2) $927 for a residential facility that provides 132976
accommodations, supervision, and personal care services for six to 132977
sixteen unrelated adults as described in section 5119.34 of the 132978
Revised Code;132979

       (3) $824 for a residential facility that provides 132980
accommodations, supervision, and personal care services for one or 132981
two unrelated adults as described in division (A)(9)(b)(ii) of 132982
section 5119.34 of the Revised Code;132983

       (4) $824 for a residential facility providing accommodations, 132984
supervision, and personal care services to three to five unrelated 132985
adults, as described in section 5119.34 of the Revised Code;132986

       (5) $824 for a residential facility that provides 132987
accommodations, supervision, and personal care services for one or 132988
two unrelated persons with mental illness or persons with severe 132989
mental disabilities who are referred by or are receiving mental 132990
health services from a community mental health services provider 132991
or a hospital, as described in division (A)(9)(b)(i) of section 132992
5119.34 of the Revised Code;132993

       (6) $618 for community mental health housing services, as 132994
described in division (D)(1)(c) of section 5119.41 of the Revised 132995
Code.132996

       The Department of Mental Health and Addiction Services shall 132997
reflect these amounts in any applicable rules the Department 132998
adopts under section 5119.41 of the Revised Code.132999

       (D) The Department of Mental Health and Addiction Services 133000
shall, with the input of stakeholders and impacted state agencies, 133001
conduct a review of the state and federal rules and statutes 133002
governing the Residential State Supplement Program and report on 133003
potential improvements to be made in governing the program not 133004
later than January 1, 2014.133005

       Section 327.110. FAMILY AND CHILDREN FIRST FLEXIBLE FUNDING 133006
POOL133007

       A county family and children first council may establish and 133008
operate a flexible funding pool in order to assure access to 133009
needed services by families, children, and older adults in need of 133010
protective services. The operation of the flexible funding pools 133011
shall be subject to the following restrictions:133012

       (A) The county council shall establish and operate the 133013
flexible funding pool in accordance with formal guidance issued by 133014
the Family and Children First Cabinet Council; 133015

       (B) The county council shall produce an annual report on its 133016
use of the pooled funds. The annual report shall conform to a 133017
format prescribed in the formal guidance issued by the Family and 133018
Children First Cabinet Council; 133019

       (C) Unless otherwise restricted, funds transferred to the 133020
flexible funding pool may include state general revenues allocated 133021
to local entities to support the provision of services to families 133022
and children; 133023

       (D) The amounts transferred to the flexible funding pool 133024
shall be limited to amounts that can be redirected without 133025
impairing the achievement of the objectives for which the initial 133026
allocation is designated; and133027

       (E) Each amount transferred to the flexible funding pool from 133028
a specific allocation shall be approved for transfer by the 133029
director of the local agency that was the original recipient of 133030
the allocation. 133031

       Section 329.10. MIH COMMISSION ON MINORITY HEALTH133032

General Revenue Fund133033

GRF 149321 Operating Expenses $ 581,490 $ 591,615 133034
GRF 149501 Minority Health Grants $ 889,100 $ 878,975 133035
GRF 149502 Lupus Program $ 110,047 $ 110,047 133036
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 1,580,637 $ 1,580,637 133037

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group133038

3J90 149602 Federal Grants $ 140,000 $ 140,000 133039
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 133040
Fund Group $ 140,000 $ 140,000 133041

State Special Revenue Fund Group133042

4C20 149601 Minority Health Conference $ 25,000 $ 25,000 133043
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 133044
Fund Group $ 25,000 $ 25,000 133045
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 1,745,637 $ 1,745,637 133046


       Section 331.10. CRB MOTOR VEHICLE REPAIR BOARD133048

General Services Fund Group133049

4K90 865601 Operating Expenses $ 487,592 $ 484,292 133050
TOTAL GSF General Services 133051
Fund Group $ 487,592 $ 484,292 133052
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 487,592 $ 484,292 133053


       Section 333.10. DNR DEPARTMENT OF NATURAL RESOURCES133055

General Revenue Fund133056

GRF 725401 Wildlife-GRF Central Support $ 1,800,000 $ 1,800,000 133057
GRF 725413 Lease Rental Payments $ 21,622,900 $ 23,943,400 133058
GRF 725456 Canal Lands $ 135,000 $ 135,000 133059
GRF 725502 Soil and Water Districts $ 2,900,000 $ 2,900,000 133060
GRF 725505 Healthy Lake Erie Fund $ 350,000 $ 200,000 133061
GRF 725507 Coal and Mine Safety Program $ 2,500,000 $ 2,500,000 133062
GRF 725508 Oil and Gas Program $ 7,200,000 $ 7,350,000 133063
GRF 725903 Natural Resources General Obligation Debt Service $ 24,325,400 $ 25,443,000 133064
GRF 727321 Division of Forestry $ 4,392,002 $ 4,392,001 133065
GRF 728321 Division of Geological Survey $ 800,000 $ 800,000 133066
GRF 729321 Office of Information Technology $ 177,405 $ 177,405 133067
GRF 730321 Division of Parks and Recreation $ 30,000,000 $ 30,000,000 133068
GRF 736321 Division of Engineering $ 2,279,115 $ 2,324,736 133069
GRF 737321 Division of Soil and Water Resources $ 4,782,704 $ 4,782,652 133070
GRF 738321 Division of Real Estate and Land Management $ 715,963 $ 670,342 133071
GRF 741321 Division of Natural Areas and Preserves $ 1,200,000 $ 1,200,000 133072
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 105,180,489 $ 108,618,536 133073

General Services Fund Group133074

1550 725601 Departmental Projects $ 2,109,968 $ 1,839,204 133075
1570 725651 Central Support Indirect $ 4,609,154 $ 4,671,566 133076
2040 725687 Information Services $ 5,179,097 $ 5,288,168 133077
2050 725696 Human Resource Direct Service $ 2,474,345 $ 2,526,662 133078
2070 725690 Real Estate Services $ 50,000 $ 50,000 133079
2230 725665 Law Enforcement Administration $ 2,126,432 $ 2,126,432 133080
2270 725406 Parks Projects Personnel $ 436,500 $ 436,500 133081
4300 725671 Canal Lands $ 883,879 $ 883,879 133082
4S90 725622 NatureWorks Personnel $ 404,657 $ 412,570 133083
4X80 725662 Water Resources Council $ 138,005 $ 138,005 133084
5100 725631 Maintenance - State-owned Residences $ 303,611 $ 303,611 133085
5160 725620 Water Management $ 2,559,292 $ 2,559,292 133086
6350 725664 Fountain Square Facilities Management $ 3,329,935 $ 3,346,259 133087
6970 725670 Submerged Lands $ 852,982 $ 869,145 133088
TOTAL GSF General Services 133089
Fund Group $ 25,457,857 $ 25,451,293 133090

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group133091

3320 725669 Federal Mine Safety Grant $ 265,000 $ 265,000 133092
3B30 725640 Federal Forest Pass-Thru $ 500,000 $ 500,000 133093
3B40 725641 Federal Flood Pass-Thru $ 500,000 $ 500,000 133094
3B50 725645 Federal Abandoned Mine Lands $ 11,851,759 $ 11,851,759 133095
3B60 725653 Federal Land and Water Conservation Grants $ 950,000 $ 950,000 133096
3B70 725654 Reclamation - Regulatory $ 3,200,000 $ 3,200,000 133097
3P10 725632 Geological Survey - Federal $ 933,448 $ 557,146 133098
3P20 725642 Oil and Gas - Federal $ 234,509 $ 234,509 133099
3P30 725650 Coastal Management - Federal $ 2,790,633 $ 2,790,633 133100
3P40 725660 Federal - Soil and Water Resources $ 969,190 $ 1,006,874 133101
3R50 725673 Acid Mine Drainage Abatement/Treatment $ 4,342,280 $ 4,342,280 133102
3Z50 725657 Federal Recreation and Trails $ 1,850,000 $ 1,850,000 133103
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 133104
Fund Group $ 28,386,819 $ 28,048,201 133105

State Special Revenue Fund Group133106

4J20 725628 Injection Well Review $ 128,466 $ 128,466 133107
4M70 725686 Wildfire Suppression $ 100,000 $ 100,000 133108
4U60 725668 Scenic Rivers Protection $ 100,000 $ 100,000 133109
5090 725602 State Forest $ 6,873,330 $ 6,880,158 133110
5110 725646 Ohio Geological Mapping $ 1,220,690 $ 1,993,519 133111
5120 725605 State Parks Operations $ 29,654,880 $ 29,671,044 133112
5140 725606 Lake Erie Shoreline $ 1,559,583 $ 1,559,583 133113
5180 725643 Oil and Gas Permit Fees $ 12,812,311 $ 13,140,201 133114
5180 725677 Oil and Gas Well Plugging $ 1,500,000 $ 1,500,000 133115
5210 725627 Off-Road Vehicle Trails $ 143,490 $ 143,490 133116
5220 725656 Natural Areas and Preserves $ 546,639 $ 546,639 133117
5260 725610 Strip Mining Administration Fee $ 1,800,000 $ 1,800,000 133118
5270 725637 Surface Mining Administration $ 1,941,532 $ 1,941,532 133119
5290 725639 Unreclaimed Land Fund $ 1,804,180 $ 1,804,180 133120
5310 725648 Reclamation Forfeiture $ 500,000 $ 500,000 133121
5B30 725674 Mining Regulation $ 28,135 $ 28,135 133122
5BV0 725658 Heidelberg Water Quality Lab $ 250,000 $ 250,000 133123
5BV0 725683 Soil and Water Districts $ 8,250,000 $ 8,250,000 133124
5EJ0 725608 Forestry Law Enforcement $ 1,000 $ 1,000 133125
5EK0 725611 Natural Areas & Preserves Law Enforcement $ 1,000 $ 1,000 133126
5EL0 725612 Wildlife Law Enforcement $ 12,000 $ 12,000 133127
5EM0 725613 Park Law Enforcement $ 34,000 $ 34,000 133128
5EN0 725614 Watercraft Law Enforcement $ 2,500 $ 2,500 133129
5HK0 725625 Ohio Nature Preserves $ 1,000 $ 1,000 133130
5MF0 725635 Ohio Geology License Plate $ 7,500 $ 7,500 133131
5MW0 725604 Natural Resources Special Purposes $ 6,000,000 $ 6,000,000 133132
6150 725661 Dam Safety $ 943,517 $ 943,517 133133
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 133134
Fund Group $ 76,215,753 $ 77,339,464 133135

Clean Ohio Conservation Fund Group133136

7061 725405 Clean Ohio Operating $ 300,775 $ 300,775 133137
TOTAL CLF Clean Ohio Conservation Fund Group $ 300,775 $ 300,775 133138

Wildlife Fund Group133139

5P20 725634 Wildlife Boater Angler Administration $ 3,000,000 $ 3,000,000 133140
7015 740401 Division of Wildlife Conservation $ 56,466,564 $ 57,075,976 133141
8150 725636 Cooperative Management Projects $ 120,449 $ 120,449 133142
8160 725649 Wetlands Habitat $ 966,885 $ 966,885 133143
8170 725655 Wildlife Conservation Checkoff Fund $ 2,000,000 $ 2,000,000 133144
8180 725629 Cooperative Fisheries Research $ 1,500,000 $ 1,500,000 133145
8190 725685 Ohio River Management $ 203,584 $ 203,584 133146
81B0 725688 Wildlife Habitat Fund $ 1,200,000 $ 1,200,000 133147
TOTAL WLF Wildlife Fund Group $ 65,457,482 $ 66,066,894 133148

Waterways Safety Fund Group133149

7086 725414 Waterways Improvement $ 5,693,671 $ 5,693,671 133150
7086 725418 Buoy Placement $ 52,182 $ 52,182 133151
7086 725501 Waterway Safety Grants $ 120,000 $ 120,000 133152
7086 725506 Watercraft Marine Patrol $ 576,153 $ 576,153 133153
7086 725513 Watercraft Educational Grants $ 366,643 $ 366,643 133154
7086 739401 Division of Watercraft $ 19,467,370 $ 19,297,370 133155
TOTAL WSF Waterways Safety Fund 133156
Group $ 26,276,019 $ 26,106,019 133157

Accrued Leave Liability Fund Group133158

4M80 725675 FOP Contract $ 20,219 $ 20,219 133159
TOTAL ALF Accrued Leave 133160
Liability Fund Group $ 20,219 $ 20,219 133161

Holding Account Redistribution Fund Group133162

R017 725659 Performance Cash Bond Refunds $ 496,263 $ 496,263 133163
R043 725624 Forestry $ 2,100,000 $ 2,100,000 133164
TOTAL 090 Holding Account 133165
Redistribution Fund Group $ 2,596,263 $ 2,596,263 133166
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 329,891,676 $ 334,547,664 133167


       Section 333.20. CENTRAL SUPPORT INDIRECT133169

        With the exception of the Division of Wildlife, whose direct 133170
and indirect central support charges shall be paid out of the 133171
General Revenue Fund from the foregoing appropriation item 725401, 133172
Wildlife-GRF Central Support, the Department of Natural Resources, 133173
with approval of the Director of Budget and Management, shall 133174
utilize a methodology for determining each division's payments 133175
into the Central Support Indirect Fund (Fund 1570). The 133176
methodology used shall contain the characteristics of 133177
administrative ease and uniform application in compliance with 133178
federal grant requirements. It may include direct cost charges for 133179
specific services provided. Payments to Fund 1570 shall be made 133180
using an intrastate transfer voucher.133181

       Section 333.30.  LEASE RENTAL PAYMENTS133182

       The foregoing appropriation item 725413, Lease Rental 133183
Payments, shall be used to meet all payments at the times they are 133184
required to be made during the period from July 1, 2013, through 133185
June 30, 2015, by the Department of Natural Resources pursuant to 133186
leases and agreements made under section 154.22 of the Revised 133187
Code. These appropriations are the source of funds pledged for 133188
bond service charges on related obligations issued under Chapter 133189
154. of the Revised Code.133190

       CANAL LANDS133191

        The foregoing appropriation item 725456, Canal Lands, shall 133192
be used to provide operating expenses for the State Canal Lands 133193
Program.133194

       HEALTHY LAKE ERIE FUND133195

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 725505, Healthy Lake Erie 133196
Fund, up to $350,000 in fiscal year 2014 and up to $200,000 in 133197
fiscal year 2015 shall be used by the Director of Natural 133198
Resources, in consultation with the Director of Agriculture and 133199
the Director of Environmental Protection, to implement 133200
nonstatutory recommendations of the Agriculture Nutrients and 133201
Water Quality Working Group. The Director shall give priority to 133202
recommendations that encourage farmers to adopt agricultural 133203
production guidelines commonly known as 4R nutrient stewardship 133204
practices. Funds may also be used for enhanced soil testing in the 133205
Western Lake Erie Basin, monitoring the quality of Lake Erie and 133206
its tributaries, and conducting research and establishing pilot 133207
projects that have the goal of reducing algae blooms in Lake Erie.133208

       COAL AND MINE SAFETY PROGRAM133209

       The foregoing appropriation item 725507, Coal and Mine Safety 133210
Program, shall be used for the administration of the Mine Safety 133211
Program and the Coal Regulation Program.133212

        OIL AND GAS PROGRAM133213

        The foregoing appropriation item 725508, Oil and Gas Program, 133214
shall be used for the Oil and Gas Program.133215

       NATURAL RESOURCES GENERAL OBLIGATION DEBT SERVICE133216

       The foregoing appropriation item 725903, Natural Resources 133217
General Obligation Debt Service, shall be used to pay all debt 133218
service and related financing costs during the period July 1, 133219
2013, through June 30, 2015, on obligations issued under sections 133220
151.01 and 151.05 of the Revised Code.133221

       Section 333.40. WELL LOG FILING FEES133222

       The Chief of the Division of Soil and Water Resources shall 133223
deposit fees forwarded to the Division pursuant to section 1521.05 133224
of the Revised Code into the Departmental Services – Intrastate 133225
Fund (Fund 1550) for the purposes described in that section.133226

       Section 333.50. HUMAN RESOURCES DIRECT SERVICE133227

        The foregoing appropriation item 725696, Human Resources 133228
Direct Service, shall be used to cover the cost of support, 133229
coordination, and oversight of the Department of Natural 133230
Resources' human resources functions. The Human Resources 133231
Chargeback Fund (Fund 2050) shall consist of cash transferred to 133232
it via intrastate transfer voucher from other funds as determined 133233
by the Director of Natural Resources and the Director of Budget 133234
and Management.133235

       Section 333.60. LAW ENFORCEMENT ADMINISTRATION133236

        The foregoing appropriation item 725665, Law Enforcement 133237
Administration, shall be used to cover the cost of support, 133238
coordination, and oversight of the Department of Natural 133239
Resources' law enforcement functions. The Law Enforcement 133240
Administration Fund (Fund 2230) shall consist of cash transferred 133241
to it via intrastate transfer voucher from other funds as 133242
determined by the Director of Natural Resources and the Director 133243
of Budget and Management.133244

       Section 333.70. FOUNTAIN SQUARE AND ODNR GROUNDS AT THE OHIO 133245
EXPO CENTER133246

       The foregoing appropriation item 725664, Fountain Square 133247
Facilities Management, shall be used for payment of repairs, 133248
renovation, utilities, property management, and building 133249
maintenance expenses for the Fountain Square complex and the 133250
Department of Natural Resources grounds at the Ohio Expo Center. 133251
Cash transferred by intrastate transfer vouchers from various 133252
department funds and rental income received by the Department of 133253
Natural Resources shall be deposited into the Fountain Square 133254
Facilities Management Fund (Fund 6350).133255

       Section 333.80.  SOIL AND WATER DISTRICTS133256

       In addition to state payments to soil and water conservation 133257
districts authorized by section 1515.10 of the Revised Code, the 133258
Department of Natural Resources may use appropriation item 725683, 133259
Soil and Water Districts, to pay any soil and water conservation 133260
district an annual amount not to exceed $40,000, upon receipt of a 133261
request and justification from the district and approval by the 133262
Ohio Soil and Water Conservation Commission. The county auditor 133263
shall credit the payments to the special fund established under 133264
section 1515.10 of the Revised Code for the local soil and water 133265
conservation district. Moneys received by each district shall be 133266
expended for the purposes of the district.133267

       OIL AND GAS WELL PLUGGING133268

       The foregoing appropriation item 725677, Oil and Gas Well 133269
Plugging, shall be used exclusively for the purposes of plugging 133270
wells and to properly restore the land surface of idle and orphan 133271
oil and gas wells pursuant to section 1509.071 of the Revised 133272
Code. No funds from the appropriation item shall be used for 133273
salaries, maintenance, equipment, or other administrative 133274
purposes, except for those costs directly attributed to the 133275
plugging of an idle or orphan well. This appropriation item shall 133276
not be used to transfer cash to any other fund or appropriation 133277
item.133278

       Section 333.90. CLEAN OHIO OPERATING EXPENSES133279

       The foregoing appropriation item 725405, Clean Ohio 133280
Operating, shall be used by the Department of Natural Resources in 133281
administering Clean Ohio Trail Fund (Fund 7061) projects pursuant 133282
to section 1519.05 of the Revised Code.133283

       Section 333.100. WATERCRAFT MARINE PATROL133284

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 739401, Division of 133285
Watercraft, up to $200,000 in each fiscal year shall be expended 133286
for the purchase of equipment for marine patrols qualifying for 133287
funding from the Department of Natural Resources pursuant to 133288
section 1547.67 of the Revised Code. Proposals for equipment shall 133289
accompany the submission of documentation for receipt of a marine 133290
patrol subsidy pursuant to section 1547.67 of the Revised Code and 133291
shall be loaned to eligible marine patrols pursuant to a 133292
cooperative agreement between the Department of Natural Resources 133293
and the eligible marine patrol.133294

       Section 333.110. PARKS CAPITAL EXPENSES FUND133295

        The Director of Natural Resources shall submit to the 133296
Director of Budget and Management the estimated design, 133297
engineering, and planning costs of capital-related work to be done 133298
by Department of Natural Resources staff for parks projects within 133299
the Ohio Parks and Recreation Improvement Fund (Fund 7035). If the 133300
Director of Budget and Management approves the estimated costs, 133301
the Director may release appropriations from appropriation item 133302
C725E6, Project Planning, Fund 7035, for those purposes. Upon 133303
release of the appropriations, the Department of Natural Resources 133304
shall pay for these expenses from the Parks Capital Expenses Fund 133305
(Fund 2270). Expenses paid from Fund 2270 shall be reimbursed by 133306
Fund 7035 using an intrastate transfer voucher.133307

       NATUREWORKS CAPITAL EXPENSES FUND133308

       The Department of Natural Resources shall periodically 133309
prepare and submit to the Director of Budget and Management the 133310
estimated design, planning, and engineering costs of 133311
capital-related work to be done by Department of Natural Resources 133312
staff for each capital improvement project within the Ohio Parks 133313
and Natural Resources Fund (Fund 7031). If the Director of Budget 133314
and Management approves the estimated costs, the Director may 133315
release appropriations from appropriation item C725E5, Project 133316
Planning, in Fund 7031, for those purposes. Upon release of the 133317
appropriations, the Department of Natural Resources shall pay for 133318
these expenses from the Capital Expenses Fund (Fund 4S90). 133319
Expenses paid from Fund 4S90 shall be reimbursed by Fund 7031 by 133320
using an intrastate transfer voucher.133321

       Section 333.120. ELIMINATION OF DORMANT FUNDS133322

       The following funds are hereby abolished and the fund names 133323
and fund numbers shall be stricken from the list of funds falling 133324
within the jurisdiction of the Department of Natural Resources:133325

Fund Number Fund Name 133326
1580 Reprint and Replacement - Intrastate 133327
1610 Parks and Recreation Depreciation Reserve 133328
1620 Civilian Conservation Corps Earned Revenues 133329
2060 General Services 133330
5080 Natural Resources Publications and Promotions 133331
5190 Burr Oak Water Plant 133332
5250 Reclamation Forfeiture 133333
5300 Surface Mining Reclamation 133334
8800 Cooperative Boat Harbor Project 133335
4B80 Forestry Development 133336
5F90 Flood Reimbursement 133337
81A0 Wildlife Education 133338
R029 Reclamation Fee 133339
R030 Surface Mining Reclamation Fee 133340
R040 Wildlife Refunds 133341
3280 Federal Special Revenue 133342
3P00 Natural Areas and Preserves - Federal 133343
5K10 Urban Forestry Grant 133344
5150 Conservancy District Organization 133345
6300 Wild Animal 133346
3CH0 Mined Land Set Aside 133347

       TRANSFER OF ELIMINATED DORMANT FUNDS133348

       The Watercraft Revolving Loan Fund (Fund 5AW0) is hereby 133349
abolished. Any balance remaining in the fund as of July 1, 2013, 133350
shall be transferred into the Waterways Safety Fund (Fund 7086) 133351
and appropriated to appropriation item 739401, Division of 133352
Watercraft.133353

       The Division of Forestry Law Enforcement Fund (Fund 5EJ0) and 133354
the Division of Natural Areas and Preserves Law Enforcement Fund 133355
(Fund 5EK0) are hereby abolished. Any balance remaining in these 133356
funds as of July 1, 2013, shall be transferred into the Park Law 133357
Enforcement Fund (Fund 5EM0) and appropriated to appropriation 133358
item 725613, Park Law Enforcement.133359

       Section 335.10. NUR STATE BOARD OF NURSING133360

General Services Fund Group133361

4K90 884609 Operating Expenses $ 7,181,743 $ 7,273,978 133362
5AC0 884602 Nurse Education Grant Program $ 1,373,506 $ 1,373,506 133363
5P80 884601 Nursing Special Issues $ 2,000 $ 2,000 133364
TOTAL GSF General Services 133365
Fund Group $ 8,557,249 $ 8,649,484 133366
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 8,557,249 $ 8,649,484 133367


       Section 337.10. PYT OCCUPATIONAL THERAPY, PHYSICAL THERAPY, 133369
AND ATHLETIC TRAINERS BOARD133370

General Services Fund Group133371

4K90 890609 Operating Expenses $ 866,169 $ 925,897 133372
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 866,169 $ 925,897 133373
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 866,169 $ 925,897 133374


       Section 339.10.  OLA OHIOANA LIBRARY ASSOCIATION133376

General Revenue Fund133377

GRF 355501 Library Subsidy $ 135,000 $ 140,000 133378
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 135,000 $ 140,000 133379
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 135,000 $ 140,000 133380


       Section 340.10. RSC REHABILITATION SERVICES COMMISSION133382

General Revenue Fund133383

GRF 415402 Independent Living Council $ 252,000 $ 252,000 133384
GRF 415406 Assistive Technology $ 26,618 $ 26,618 133385
GRF 415431 Office for People with Brain Injury $ 126,567 $ 126,567 133386
GRF 415506 Services for People with Disabilities $ 15,277,885 $ 15,277,885 133387
GRF 415508 Services for the Deaf $ 28,000 $ 28,000 133388
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 15,711,070 $ 15,711,070 133389

General Services Fund Group133390

4670 415609 Business Enterprise Operating Expenses $ 962,538 $ 965,481 133391
TOTAL GSF General Services 133392
Fund Group $ 962,538 $ 965,481 133393

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group133394

3170 415620 Disability Determination $ 83,332,186 $ 84,641,911 133395
3790 415616 Federal - Vocational Rehabilitation $ 117,431,895 $ 113,610,728 133396
3L10 415601 Social Security Personal Care Assistance $ 2,748,451 $ 2,752,396 133397
3L10 415605 Social Security Community Centers for the Deaf $ 772,000 $ 772,000 133398
3L10 415608 Social Security Special Programs/Assistance $ 445,258 $ 498,269 133399
3L40 415612 Federal Independent Living Centers or Services $ 638,431 $ 638,431 133400
3L40 415615 Federal - Supported Employment $ 916,727 $ 916,727 133401
3L40 415617 Independent Living/Vocational Rehabilitation Programs $ 1,548,658 $ 1,348,658 133402
TOTAL FED Federal Special 133403
Revenue Fund Group $ 207,833,606 $ 205,179,120 133404

State Special Revenue Fund Group133405

4680 415618 Third Party Funding $ 11,000,000 $ 11,000,000 133406
4L10 415619 Services for Rehabilitation $ 3,502,168 $ 3,502,168 133407
4W50 415606 Program Management Expenses $ 12,369,751 $ 12,594,758 133408
TOTAL SSR State Special 133409
Revenue Fund Group $ 26,871,919 $ 27,096,926 133410
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 251,379,133 $ 248,952,597 133411

       INDEPENDENT LIVING COUNCIL133412

       The foregoing appropriation item 415402, Independent Living 133413
Council, shall be used to fund the operations of the State 133414
Independent Living Council and to support state independent living 133415
centers and independent living services under Title VII of the 133416
Independent Living Services and Centers for Independent Living of 133417
the Rehabilitation Act Amendments of 1992, 106 Stat. 4344, 29 133418
U.S.C. 796d.133419

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 415402, Independent 133420
Living Council, $67,662 in each fiscal year shall be used as state 133421
matching funds for vocational rehabilitation innovation and 133422
expansion activities.133423

       ASSISTIVE TECHNOLOGY133424

       The total amount of the foregoing appropriation item 415406, 133425
Assistive Technology, shall be provided to Assistive Technology of 133426
Ohio to provide grants and assistive technology services for 133427
people with disabilities in the State of Ohio.133428

       OFFICE FOR PEOPLE WITH BRAIN INJURY133429

       The foregoing appropriation item 415431, Office for People 133430
with Brain Injury, shall be used to plan and coordinate 133431
head-injury-related services provided by state agencies and other 133432
government or private entities, to assess the needs for such 133433
services, and to set priorities in this area.133434

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 415431, Office for People 133435
with Brain Injury, $44,067 in each fiscal year shall be used as 133436
state matching funds to provide vocational rehabilitation services 133437
to eligible consumers.133438

       VOCATIONAL REHABILITATION SERVICES133439

       The foregoing appropriation item 415506, Services for People 133440
with Disabilities, shall be used as state matching funds to 133441
provide vocational rehabilitation services to eligible consumers.133442

       SERVICES FOR THE DEAF133443

        The foregoing appropriation item 415508, Services for the 133444
Deaf, shall be used to provide grants to community centers for the 133445
deaf.133446

       INDEPENDENT LIVING/VOCATIONAL REHABILITATION PROGRAMS133447

       The foregoing appropriation item 415617, Independent 133448
Living/Vocational Rehabilitation Programs, shall be used to 133449
support vocational rehabilitation programs.133450

       SOCIAL SECURITY REIMBURSEMENT FUNDS133451

       Reimbursement funds received from the Social Security 133452
Administration, United States Department of Health and Human 133453
Services, for the costs of providing services and training to 133454
return disability recipients to gainful employment shall be 133455
expended from the Social Security Reimbursement Fund (Fund 3L10), 133456
to the extent funds are available, as follows:133457

       (A) Appropriation item 415601, Social Security Personal Care 133458
Assistance, to provide personal care services in accordance with 133459
section 3304.41 of the Revised Code;133460

       (B) Appropriation item 415605, Social Security Community 133461
Centers for the Deaf, to provide grants to community centers for 133462
the deaf in Ohio for services to individuals with hearing 133463
impairments; and133464

       (C) Appropriation item 415608, Social Security Special 133465
Programs/Assistance, to provide vocational rehabilitation services 133466
to individuals with severe disabilities who are Social Security 133467
beneficiaries, to enable them to achieve competitive employment. 133468
This appropriation item shall also be used to pay a portion of 133469
indirect costs of the Personal Care Assistance Program and the 133470
Independent Living Programs as mandated by federal OMB Circular 133471
A-87.133472

       PROGRAM MANAGEMENT EXPENSES133473

       The foregoing appropriation item 415606, Program Management 133474
Expenses, shall be used to support the administrative functions of 133475
the commission related to the provision of vocational 133476
rehabilitation, disability determination services, and ancillary 133477
programs.133478

       Section 341.10. ODB OHIO OPTICAL DISPENSERS BOARD133479

General Services Fund Group133480

4K90 894609 Operating Expenses $ 366,000 $ 365,000 133481
TOTAL GSF General Services 133482
Fund Group $ 366,000 $ 365,000 133483
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 366,000 $ 365,000 133484


       Section 343.10. OPT STATE BOARD OF OPTOMETRY133486

General Services Fund Group133487

4K90 885609 Operating Expenses $ 347,278 $ 347,278 133488
TOTAL GSF General Services 133489
Fund Group $ 347,278 $ 347,278 133490
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 347,278 $ 347,278 133491


       Section 345.10. OPP STATE BOARD OF ORTHOTICS, PROSTHETICS, 133493
AND PEDORTHICS133494

General Services Fund Group133495

4K90 973609 Operating Expenses $ 135,677 $ 140,846 133496
TOTAL GSF General Services 133497
Fund Group $ 135,677 $ 140,846 133498
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 135,677 $ 140,846 133499

       Section 347.10. UST PETROLEUM UNDERGROUND STORAGE TANK 133500
RELEASE COMPENSATION BOARD133501

State Special Revenue Fund Group133502

6910 810632 PUSTRCB Staff $ 1,233,249 $ 1,252,202 133503
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 133504
Fund Group $ 1,233,249 $ 1,252,202 133505
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 1,233,249 $ 1,252,202 133506


       Section 349.10. PRX STATE BOARD OF PHARMACY133508

General Services Fund Group133509

4A50 887605 Drug Law Enforcement $ 150,000 $ 150,000 133510
4K90 887609 Operating Expenses $ 6,701,285 $ 6,701,285 133511
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 6,851,285 $ 6,851,285 133512

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group133513

3BC0 887604 Dangerous Drugs Database $ 390,869 $ 0 133514
3CT0 887606 2008 Developing/Enhancing PMP $ 224,691 $ 112,346 133515
3DV0 887607 Enhancing Ohio's PMP $ 2,000 $ 2,000 133516
3EY0 887603 Administration of PMIX Hub $ 66,335 $ 0 133517
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue Fund Group $ 683,895 $ 114,346 133518
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 7,535,180 $ 6,965,631 133519


       Section 351.10. PSY STATE BOARD OF PSYCHOLOGY133521

General Services Fund Group133522

4K90 882609 Operating Expenses $ 548,000 $ 571,000 133523
TOTAL GSF General Services 133524
Fund Group $ 548,000 $ 571,000 133525
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 548,000 $ 571,000 133526


       Section 353.10. PUB OHIO PUBLIC DEFENDER COMMISSION133528

General Revenue Fund133529

GRF 019401 State Legal Defense Services $ 3,020,855 $ 3,020,855 133530
GRF 019403 Multi-County: State Share $ 1,237,318 $ 1,250,824 133531
GRF 019404 Trumbull County - State Share $ 354,743 $ 359,631 133532
GRF 019405 Training Account $ 50,000 $ 50,000 133533
GRF 019501 County Reimbursement $ 9,768,050 $ 9,885,175 133534
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 14,430,966 $ 14,566,485 133535

General Services Fund Group133536

4070 019604 County Representation $ 351,149 $ 354,248 133537
4080 019605 Client Payments $ 725,144 $ 722,931 133538
5CX0 019617 Civil Case Filing Fee $ 532,136 $ 528,476 133539
TOTAL GSF General Services 133540
Fund Group $ 1,608,429 $ 1,605,655 133541

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group133542

3FX0 019621 Wrongful Conviction Program $ 103,950 $ 103,950 133543
3S80 019608 Federal Representation $ 204,706 $ 202,942 133544
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 133545
Fund Group $ 308,656 $ 306,892 133546

State Special Revenue Fund Group133547

4C70 019601 Multi-County: County Share $ 2,297,876 $ 2,322,959 133548
4X70 019610 Trumbull County - County Share $ 658,809 $ 667,887 133549
5740 019606 Civil Legal Aid $ 20,000,000 $ 20,000,000 133550
5DY0 019618 Indigent Defense Support - County Share $ 40,320,991 $ 41,191,285 133551
5DY0 019619 Indigent Defense Support Fund - State Office $ 5,186,329 $ 5,612,719 133552
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 133553
Fund Group $ 68,464,005 $ 69,794,850 133554
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 84,812,056 $ 86,273,882 133555

       INDIGENT DEFENSE OFFICE133556

       The foregoing appropriation items 019404, Trumbull County - 133557
State Share, and 019610, Trumbull County - County Share, shall be 133558
used to support an indigent defense office for Trumbull County.133559

       MULTI-COUNTY OFFICE133560

       The foregoing appropriation items 019403, Multi-County: State 133561
Share, and 019601, Multi-County: County Share, shall be used to 133562
support the Office of the Ohio Public Defender's Multi-County 133563
Branch Office Program.133564

       TRAINING ACCOUNT133565

       The foregoing appropriation item 019405, Training Account, 133566
shall be used by the Ohio Public Defender to provide legal 133567
training programs at no cost for private appointed counsel who 133568
represent at least one indigent defendant at no cost and for state 133569
and county public defenders and attorneys who contract with the 133570
Ohio Public Defender to provide indigent defense services.133571

       FEDERAL REPRESENTATION133572

       The foregoing appropriation item 019608, Federal 133573
Representation, shall be used to receive reimbursements from the 133574
federal courts when the Ohio Public Defender provides 133575
representation in federal court cases and to support 133576
representation in such cases.133577

       Section 355.10. DPS DEPARTMENT OF PUBLIC SAFETY133578

General Revenue Fund133579

GRF 767420 Investigative Unit - Operating $ 10,500,000 $ 10,500,000 133580
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 10,500,000 $ 10,500,000 133581
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 10,500,000 $ 10,500,000 133582


       Section 357.10. PUC PUBLIC UTILITIES COMMISSION OF OHIO133584

General Services Fund Group133585

5BP0 870623 Wireless 9-1-1 Administration $ 18,035,000 $ 0 133586
5F60 870622 Utility and Railroad Regulation $ 30,619,708 $ 30,619,708 133587
5F60 870624 NARUC/NRRI Subsidy $ 85,000 $ 85,000 133588
5Q50 870626 Telecommunications Relay Service $ 5,000,000 $ 5,000,000 133589
TOTAL GSF General Services 133590
Fund Group $ 53,739,708 $ 35,704,708 133591

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group133592

3330 870601 Gas Pipeline Safety $ 597,959 $ 597,959 133593
3500 870608 Motor Carrier Safety $ 7,351,660 $ 7,351,660 133594
3EA0 870630 Energy Assurance Planning $ 192,001 $ 0 133595
3ED0 870631 State Regulators Assistance $ 115,912 $ 0 133596
3V30 870604 Commercial Vehicle Information Systems/Networks $ 100,000 $ 100,000 133597
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 133598
Fund Group $ 8,357,532 $ 8,049,619 133599

State Special Revenue Fund Group133600

4A30 870614 Grade Crossing Protection Devices-State $ 1,347,357 $ 1,347,357 133601
4L80 870617 Pipeline Safety-State $ 331,992 $ 331,992 133602
5610 870606 Power Siting Board $ 581,618 $ 581,618 133603
5LT0 870640 Intrastate Registration $ 180,000 $ 180,000 133604
5LT0 870641 Unified Carrier Registration $ 420,000 $ 420,000 133605
5LT0 870642 Hazardous Materials Registration $ 743,346 $ 753,346 133606
5LT0 870643 Nonhazardous Materials Civil Forfeiture $ 277,496 $ 277,496 133607
5LT0 870644 Hazardous Materials Civil Forfeiture $ 898,800 $ 898,800 133608
5LT0 870645 Motor Carrier Enforcement $ 4,768,453 $ 4,709,592 133609
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 133610
Fund Group $ 9,549,062 $ 9,500,201 133611
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 71,646,302 $ 53,254,528 133612


       Section 359.10. PWC PUBLIC WORKS COMMISSION133614

General Revenue Fund133615

GRF 150904 Conservation General Obligation Debt Service $ 33,376,600 $ 34,447,700 133616
GRF 150907 State Capital Improvements General Obligation Debt Service $ 227,810,300 $ 228,948,900 133617
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 261,186,900 $ 263,396,600 133618

Clean Ohio Conservation Fund Group133619

7056 150403 Clean Ohio Operating Expenses $ 288,980 $ 288,980 133620
TOTAL 056 Clean Ohio Conservation Fund Group $ 288,980 $ 288,980 133621

TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 261,475,880 $ 263,685,580 133622

       CONSERVATION GENERAL OBLIGATION DEBT SERVICE133623

       The foregoing appropriation item 150904, Conservation General 133624
Obligation Debt Service, shall be used to pay all debt service and 133625
related financing costs during the period from July 1, 2013, 133626
through June 30, 2015, at the times they are required to be made 133627
for obligations issued under sections 151.01 and 151.09 of the 133628
Revised Code.133629

       STATE CAPITAL IMPROVEMENTS GENERAL OBLIGATION DEBT SERVICE133630

       The foregoing appropriation item 150907, State Capital 133631
Improvements General Obligation Debt Service, shall be used to pay 133632
all debt service and related financing costs during the period 133633
from July 1, 2013, through June 30, 2015, at the times they are 133634
required to be made for obligations issued under sections 151.01 133635
and 151.08 of the Revised Code.133636

       CLEAN OHIO OPERATING EXPENSES133637

       The foregoing appropriation item 150403, Clean Ohio Operating 133638
Expenses, shall be used by the Ohio Public Works Commission in 133639
administering Clean Ohio Conservation Fund (Fund 7056) projects 133640
pursuant to sections 164.20 to 164.27 of the Revised Code.133641

       Section 361.10. RAC STATE RACING COMMISSION133642

State Special Revenue Fund Group133643

5620 875601 Thoroughbred Race Fund $ 1,696,456 $ 1,696,456 133644
5630 875602 Standardbred Development Fund $ 1,697,452 $ 1,697,452 133645
5640 875603 Quarter Horse Development Fund $ 1,000 $ 1,000 133646
5650 875604 Racing Commission Operating $ 2,934,178 $ 2,934,178 133647
5C40 875607 Simulcast Horse Racing Purse $ 12,000,000 $ 12,000,000 133648
5JK0 875610 Racing Commission Fund $ 10,000,000 $ 10,000,000 133649
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 133650
Fund Group $ 28,329,086 $ 28,329,086 133651

Holding Account Redistribution Fund Group133652

R021 875605 Bond Reimbursements $ 100,000 $ 100,000 133653
TOTAL 090 Holding Account Redistribution 133654
Fund Group $ 100,000 $ 100,000 133655
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 28,429,086 $ 28,429,086 133656


       Section 363.10. BOR BOARD OF REGENTS133658

General Revenue Fund133659

GRF 235321 Operating Expenses $ 2,850,357 $ 2,850,357 133660
GRF 235401 Lease Rental Payments $ 5,805,300 $ 0 133661
GRF 235402 Sea Grants $ 285,000 $ 285,000 133662
GRF 235406 Articulation and Transfer $ 2,000,000 $ 2,000,000 133663
GRF 235408 Midwest Higher Education Compact $ 95,000 $ 95,000 133664
GRF 235409 HEI Information System $ 1,505,683 $ 1,505,683 133665
GRF 235414 State Grants and Scholarship Administration $ 830,180 $ 830,180 133666
GRF 235417 eStudent Services $ 2,532,688 $ 2,532,688 133667
GRF 235428 Appalachian New Economy Partnership $ 737,366 $ 737,366 133668
GRF 235433 Economic Growth Challenge $ 521,153 $ 521,153 133669
GRF 235438 Choose Ohio First Scholarship $ 16,665,114 $ 16,665,114 133670
GRF 235443 Adult Basic and Literacy Education - State $ 7,552,416 $ 7,552,416 133671
GRF 235444 Post-Secondary Adult Career-Technical Education $ 15,317,547 $ 15,317,547 133672
GRF 235474 Area Health Education Centers Program Support $ 900,000 $ 900,000 133673
GRF 235483 Technology Integration and Professional Development $ 2,378,598 $ 2,378,598 133674
GRF 235501 State Share of Instruction $ 1,784,225,497 $ 1,818,225,497 133675
GRF 235502 Student Support Services $ 632,974 $ 632,974 133676
GRF 235504 War Orphans Scholarships $ 5,500,000 $ 5,500,000 133677
GRF 235505 State Share of Instruction Bridge Funding $ 8,095,005 $ 0 133678
GRF 235506 Ohio Strategic Training Center $ 950,000 $ 0 133679
GRF 235507 OhioLINK $ 6,211,012 $ 6,211,012 133680
GRF 235508 Air Force Institute of Technology $ 1,740,803 $ 1,740,803 133681
GRF 235510 Ohio Supercomputer Center $ 3,747,418 $ 3,747,418 133682
GRF 235511 Cooperative Extension Service $ 23,086,658 $ 23,056,658 133683
GRF 235514 Central State Supplement $ 11,063,468 $ 11,063,468 133684
GRF 235515 Case Western Reserve University School of Medicine $ 2,146,253 $ 2,146,253 133685
GRF 235519 Family Practice $ 3,166,185 $ 3,166,185 133686
GRF 235520 Shawnee State Supplement $ 2,326,097 $ 2,326,097 133687
GRF 235523 Youth STEM Commercialization and Entrepreneurship Program $ 2,000,000 $ 3,000,000 133688
GRF 235524 Police and Fire Protection $ 107,814 $ 107,814 133689
GRF 235525 Geriatric Medicine $ 522,151 $ 522,151 133690
GRF 235526 Primary Care Residencies $ 1,500,000 $ 1,500,000 133691
GRF 235535 Ohio Agricultural Research and Development Center $ 34,126,100 $ 34,126,100 133692
GRF 235536 The Ohio State University Clinical Teaching $ 9,668,941 $ 9,668,941 133693
GRF 235537 University of Cincinnati Clinical Teaching $ 7,952,573 $ 7,952,573 133694
GRF 235538 University of Toledo Clinical Teaching $ 6,198,600 $ 6,198,600 133695
GRF 235539 Wright State University Clinical Teaching $ 3,011,400 $ 3,011,400 133696
GRF 235540 Ohio University Clinical Teaching $ 2,911,212 $ 2,911,212 133697
GRF 235541 Northeast Ohio Medical University Clinical Teaching $ 2,994,178 $ 2,994,178 133698
GRF 235552 Capital Component $ 13,628,639 $ 10,280,387 133699
GRF 235555 Library Depositories $ 1,440,342 $ 1,440,342 133700
GRF 235556 Ohio Academic Resources Network $ 3,172,519 $ 3,172,519 133701
GRF 235558 Long-term Care Research $ 195,300 $ 195,300 133702
GRF 235563 Ohio College Opportunity Grant $ 89,126,474 $ 89,126,474 133703
GRF 235572 The Ohio State University Clinic Support $ 766,533 $ 766,533 133704
GRF 235599 National Guard Scholarship Program $ 16,711,514 $ 17,384,511 133705
GRF 235909 Higher Education General Obligation Debt Service $ 221,168,700 $ 248,822,000 133706
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 2,330,070,762 $ 2,375,168,502 133707

General Services Fund Group133708

2200 235614 Program Approval and Reauthorization $ 903,595 $ 903,595 133709
4560 235603 Sales and Services $ 199,250 $ 199,250 133710
5JC0 235649 Co-op Internship Program $ 8,000,000 $ 8,000,000 133711
TOTAL GSF General Services 133712
Fund Group $ 9,102,845 $ 9,102,845 133713

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group133714

3120 235612 Carl D. Perkins Grant/Plan Administration $ 1,350,000 $ 1,350,000 133715
3120 235617 Improving Teacher Quality Grant $ 3,200,000 $ 3,200,000 133716
3120 235641 Adult Basic and Literacy Education - Federal $ 14,835,671 $ 14,835,671 133717
3120 235672 H-1B Tech Skills Training $ 1,100,000 $ 1,100,000 133718
3BW0 235630 Indirect Cost Recovery - Federal $ 50,000 $ 50,000 133719
3H20 235608 Human Services Project $ 1,000,000 $ 1,000,000 133720
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 133721
Fund Group $ 21,535,671 $ 21,535,671 133722

State Special Revenue Fund Group133723

4E80 235602 Higher Educational Facility Commission Administration $ 29,100 $ 29,100 133724
4X10 235674 Telecommunity and Distance Learning $ 49,150 $ 49,150 133725
5D40 235675 Conferences/Special Purposes $ 1,884,095 $ 1,884,095 133726
5FK0 235676 Media Services $ 491,373 $ 491,373 133727
5FR0 235643 Making Opportunity Affordable $ 230,000 $ 230,000 133728
5P30 235663 Variable Savings Plan $ 8,066,920 $ 8,104,370 133729
6450 235664 Guaranteed Savings Plan $ 1,290,718 $ 1,303,129 133730
6820 235606 Nursing Loan Program $ 891,320 $ 891,320 133731
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 133732
Fund Group $ 12,932,676 $ 12,982,537 133733

Third Frontier Research & Development Fund Group133734

7011 235634 Research Incentive Third Frontier Fund $ 8,000,000 $ 8,000,000 133735
TOTAL 011 Third Frontier Research & Development Fund Group $ 8,000,000 $ 8,000,000 133736
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 2,381,641,954 $ 2,426,789,555 133737


       Section 363.20. LEASE RENTAL PAYMENTS133739

       The foregoing appropriation item 235401, Lease Rental 133740
Payments, shall be used to meet all payments at the times they are 133741
required to be made during the period from July 1, 2013, through 133742
June 30, 2015, by the Chancellor of the Board of Regents under 133743
leases and agreements made under section 154.21 of the Revised 133744
Code. These appropriations are the source of funds pledged for 133745
bond service charges on related obligations issued under Chapter 133746
154. of the Revised Code.133747

       Section 363.23. SEA GRANTS133748

        The foregoing appropriation item 235402, Sea Grants, shall be 133749
used to match federal dollars and leverage additional support by 133750
The Ohio State University's Sea Grant program, including Stone 133751
Laboratory, for research, education, and outreach to enhance the 133752
economic value, public utilization, and responsible management of 133753
Lake Erie and Ohio's coastal resources.133754

       Section 363.30. ARTICULATION AND TRANSFER133755

       The foregoing appropriation item 235406, Articulation and 133756
Transfer, shall be used by the Chancellor of the Board of Regents 133757
to maintain and expand the work of the Articulation and Transfer 133758
Council to develop a system of transfer policies to ensure that 133759
students at state institutions of higher education can transfer 133760
and have coursework apply to their majors and degrees at any other 133761
state institution of higher education without unnecessary 133762
duplication or institutional barriers under sections 3333.16, 133763
3333.161, and 3333.162 of the Revised Code.133764

       Section 363.40. MIDWEST HIGHER EDUCATION COMPACT133765

       The foregoing appropriation item 235408, Midwest Higher 133766
Education Compact, shall be distributed by the Chancellor of the 133767
Board of Regents under section 3333.40 of the Revised Code.133768

       Section 363.50. HEI INFORMATION SYSTEM133769

       The foregoing appropriation item 235409, HEI Information 133770
System, shall be used by the Chancellor of the Board of Regents to 133771
support the development and implementation of information 133772
technology solutions designed to improve the performance and 133773
services of the Chancellor of the Board of Regents and the 133774
University System of Ohio. Information technology solutions may be 133775
provided by the Ohio Academic Research Network (OARnet).133776

       Section 363.60. STATE GRANTS AND SCHOLARSHIP ADMINISTRATION133777

       The foregoing appropriation item 235414, State Grants and 133778
Scholarship Administration, shall be used by the Chancellor of the 133779
Board of Regents to administer the following student financial aid 133780
programs: Ohio College Opportunity Grant, Ohio War Orphans' 133781
Scholarship, Nurse Education Assistance Loan Program, Ohio Safety 133782
Officers College Memorial Fund, and any other student financial 133783
aid programs created by the General Assembly. The appropriation 133784
item also shall be used to support all state financial aid audits 133785
and student financial aid programs created by Congress, and to 133786
provide fiscal services for the Ohio National Guard Scholarship 133787
Program.133788

       Section 363.70. ESTUDENT SERVICES133789

       The foregoing appropriation item 235417, eStudent Services, 133790
shall be used by the Chancellor of the Board of Regents to support 133791
the continued implementation of eStudent Services, a consortium 133792
organized under division (T) of section 3333.04 of the Revised 133793
Code to expand access to dual enrollment opportunities for high 133794
school students, as well as adult and higher education 133795
opportunities through technology. The funds shall be used by 133796
eStudent Services to develop and promote learning and assessment 133797
through the use of technology, to test and provide advice on 133798
emerging learning-directed technologies, to support the distance 133799
learning clearinghouse and platform created under section 3333.82 133800
of the Revised Code, and to facilitate cost-effectiveness through 133801
shared educational technology investments.133802

       Section 363.80. APPALACHIAN NEW ECONOMY PARTNERSHIP133803

       The foregoing appropriation item 235428, Appalachian New 133804
Economy Partnership, shall be distributed to Ohio University to 133805
continue a multi-campus and multi-agency coordinated effort to 133806
link Appalachia to the new economy. Ohio University shall use 133807
these funds to provide leadership in the development and 133808
implementation of initiatives in the areas of entrepreneurship, 133809
management, education, and technology.133810

       Section 363.90. ECONOMIC GROWTH CHALLENGE133811

       The foregoing appropriation item 235433, Economic Growth 133812
Challenge, shall be used for administrative expenses of the 133813
Research Incentive Program and other economic advancement 133814
initiatives undertaken by the Chancellor of the Board of Regents.133815

       The Chancellor of the Board of Regents shall use any 133816
appropriation transfer to the foregoing appropriation item 235433, 133817
Economic Growth Challenge, to enhance the basic research and 133818
commercialization capabilities of public colleges and universities 133819
and accredited Ohio institutions of higher education holding 133820
certificates of authorization issued under section 1713.02 of the 133821
Revised Code, in order to strengthen academic research and 133822
commercialization for pursuing Ohio's economic development goals.133823

       Section 363.100. CHOOSE OHIO FIRST SCHOLARSHIP133824

       The foregoing appropriation item 235438, Choose Ohio First 133825
Scholarship, shall be used to operate the program prescribed in 133826
sections 3333.60 to 3333.70 of the Revised Code.133827

       Section 363.110. ADULT BASIC AND LITERACY EDUCATION133828

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 235443, Adult Basic and 133829
Literacy Education – State, $125,000 in each fiscal year shall be 133830
used to provide a grant for an Ohio public library that provides 133831
remedial coursework instruction for postsecondary students.133832

       The remainder of foregoing appropriation item 235443, Adult 133833
Basic and Literacy Education - State, shall be used to support the 133834
adult basic and literacy education instructional grant program and 133835
state leadership program. The supported programs shall satisfy the 133836
state match and maintenance of effort requirements for the 133837
state-administered grant program.133838

       Section 363.120. POST-SECONDARY ADULT CAREER-TECHNICAL 133839
EDUCATION133840

       The foregoing appropriation item 235444, Post-Secondary Adult 133841
Career-Technical Education, shall be used by the Chancellor of the 133842
Board of Regents, in consultation with the Superintendent of 133843
Public Instruction and the Governor's Office of Workforce 133844
Transformation, to support post-secondary adult career-technical 133845
education. The Chancellor of the Board of Regents, the 133846
Superintendent of Public Instruction, and the Governor's Office of 133847
Workforce Transformation, or their designees, shall hold a series 133848
of consultations with the Ohio Technical Centers during fiscal 133849
year 2014 to develop an appropriate funding formula to distribute 133850
these funds based on student outcomes, beginning in fiscal year 133851
2015.133852

       The Chancellor of the Board of Regents shall establish a 133853
One-Year Option credit articulation system in which graduates of 133854
Ohio Technical Centers receive college technical credit. The 133855
system shall ensure that Ohio Technical Center students that 133856
complete a 900-hour program of study and obtain an 133857
industry-recognized credential shall receive 30 college technical 133858
credit hours, and students that complete a program of study 133859
between 600 and 899 hours and obtain an industry-recognized 133860
credential shall receive a proportional number of college 133861
technical credit hours.133862

       Section 363.130. AREA HEALTH EDUCATION CENTERS133863

       The foregoing appropriation item 235474, Area Health 133864
Education Centers Program Support, shall be used by the Chancellor 133865
of the Board of Regents to support the medical school regional 133866
area health education centers' educational programs for the 133867
continued support of medical and other health professions 133868
education and for support of the Area Health Education Center 133869
Program.133870

       Section 363.180. TECHNOLOGY INTEGRATION AND PROFESSIONAL 133871
DEVELOPMENT133872

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 235483, Technology 133873
Integration and Professional Development, up to $2,000,000 in each 133874
fiscal year shall be used to provide grants on a competitive basis 133875
to public and chartered nonpublic schools for their participation 133876
in the electronic textbook pilot project. These grants shall be 133877
administered as provided under the section of this act entitled 133878
ELECTRONIC TEXTBOOK PILOT PROJECT. On July 1, 2014, or as soon as 133879
possible thereafter, the Chancellor of the Board of Regents may 133880
certify to the Director of Budget and Management the amount of the 133881
unexpended, unencumbered balance of this set aside at the end of 133882
fiscal year 2014 to be appropriated to fiscal year 2015. The 133883
amount certified is hereby reappropriated for the same purpose for 133884
fiscal year 2015.133885

       The remainder of the foregoing appropriation item 235483, 133886
Technology Integration and Professional Development, shall be used 133887
by the Ohio Department of Education and the Chancellor of the 133888
Board of Regents for the provision of staff development, hardware, 133889
software, telecommunications services, and information resources 133890
to support educational uses of technology in the classroom and at 133891
a distance and for professional development for teachers, 133892
administrators, and technology staff on the use of educational 133893
technology in qualifying public schools, including the State 133894
School for the Blind, the School for the Deaf, and the Department 133895
of Youth Services.133896

       Section 363.190. STATE SHARE OF INSTRUCTION FORMULAS133897

       The Chancellor of the Board of Regents shall establish 133898
procedures to allocate the foregoing appropriation item 235501, 133899
State Share of Instruction, based on the formulas detailed in this 133900
section that utilize the enrollment, course completion, degree 133901
attainment, and student achievement factors reported annually by 133902
each state institution of higher education participating in the 133903
Higher Education Information (HEI) system.133904

       (A) FULL-TIME EQUIVALENT (FTE) ENROLLMENTS AND COMPLETIONS133905

       (1) As soon as possible during each fiscal year of the 133906
biennium ending June 30, 2015, in accordance with instructions of 133907
the Board of Regents, each state institution of higher education 133908
shall report its actual data, consistent with the definitions in 133909
the Higher Education Information (HEI) system's enrollment files, 133910
to the Chancellor of the Board of Regents.133911

       (2) In defining the number of full-time equivalent students 133912
for state subsidy instructional cost purposes, the Chancellor of 133913
the Board of Regents shall exclude all undergraduate students who 133914
are not residents of Ohio, except those charged in-state fees in 133915
accordance with reciprocity agreements made under section 3333.17 133916
of the Revised Code or employer contracts entered into under 133917
section 3333.32 of the Revised Code.133918

       (3) In calculating the core subsidy entitlements for 133919
university branch and main campuses, the Chancellor of the Board 133920
of Regents shall use the following count of FTE students:133921

       (a) The subsidy eligible enrollments by model shall equal 133922
only those FTE students who successfully complete the course as 133923
defined and reported through the Higher Education Information 133924
(HEI) system course enrollment file; 133925

       (b) For those undergraduate FTE students with successful 133926
course completions, identified in division (A)(3)(a) of this 133927
section, that had an expected family contribution less than 2190 133928
or were determined to have been in need of remedial education 133929
shall be defined as at-risk students and shall have their eligible 133930
completions weighted by the following:133931

       (i) Campus-specific course completion indexes, where the 133932
indexes are calculated based upon the number of at-risk students 133933
enrolled during the 2010-2012 academic years; and133934

       (ii) A statewide average at-risk course completion weight 133935
determined for each subsidy model. The statewide average at-risk 133936
course completion weight shall be determined by calculating the 133937
difference between the percentage of traditional students who 133938
complete a course and the percentage of at-risk students who 133939
complete the same course.133940

       (4) In calculating the core subsidy entitlements for Medical 133941
II models only, students repeating terms may be no more than five 133942
per cent of current year enrollment.133943

       (B) TOTAL COSTS PER FULL-TIME EQUIVALENT STUDENT133944

       For purposes of calculating state share of instruction 133945
allocations, the total instructional costs per full-time 133946
equivalent student shall be:133947

Model Fiscal Year 2014 Fiscal Year 2015 133948
ARTS AND HUMANITIES 1 $7,803 $7,940 133949
ARTS AND HUMANITIES 2 $10,828 $11,018 133950
ARTS AND HUMANITIES 3 $13,988 $14,234 133951
ARTS AND HUMANITIES 4 $20,242 $20,598 133952
ARTS AND HUMANITIES 5 $33,969 $34,567 133953
ARTS AND HUMANITIES 6 $38,280 $38,954 133954
BUSINESS, EDUCATION & SOCIAL SCIENCES 1 $7,109 $7,235 133955
BUSINESS, EDUCATION & SOCIAL SCIENCES 2 $8,106 $8,249 133956
BUSINESS, EDUCATION & SOCIAL SCIENCES 3 $10,640 $10,827 133957
BUSINESS, EDUCATION & SOCIAL SCIENCES 4 $12,647 $12,869 133958
BUSINESS, EDUCATION & SOCIAL SCIENCES 5 $19,657 $20,003 133959
BUSINESS, EDUCATION & SOCIAL SCIENCES 6 $22,006 $22,393 133960
BUSINESS, EDUCATION & SOCIAL SCIENCES 7 $30,558 $31,096 133961
MEDICAL 1 $53,424 $54,365 133962
MEDICAL 2 $45,873 $46,681 133963
SCIENCE, TECHNOLOGY, ENGINEERING, MATHEMATICS, MEDICINE 1 $7,190 $7,317 133964
SCIENCE, TECHNOLOGY, ENGINEERING, MATHEMATICS, MEDICINE 2 $10,091 $10,268 133965
SCIENCE, TECHNOLOGY, ENGINEERING, MATHEMATICS, MEDICINE 3 $11,928 $12,138 133966
SCIENCE, TECHNOLOGY, ENGINEERING, MATHEMATICS, MEDICINE 4 $15,186 $15,454 133967
SCIENCE, TECHNOLOGY, ENGINEERING, MATHEMATICS, MEDICINE 5 $20,043 $20,396 133968
SCIENCE, TECHNOLOGY, ENGINEERING, MATHEMATICS, MEDICINE 6 $21,633 $22,013 133969
SCIENCE, TECHNOLOGY, ENGINEERING, MATHEMATICS, MEDICINE 7 $26,471 $26,937 133970
SCIENCE, TECHNOLOGY, ENGINEERING, MATHEMATICS, MEDICINE 8 $36,766 $37,413 133971
SCIENCE, TECHNOLOGY, ENGINEERING, MATHEMATICS, MEDICINE 9 $52,170 $53,088 133972

       Doctoral I and Doctoral II models shall be allocated in 133973
accordance with division (D)(3) of this section.133974

       (C) SCIENCE, TECHNOLOGY, ENGINEERING, MATHEMATICS, MEDICAL, 133975
AND GRADUATE WEIGHTS133976

       For the purpose of implementing the recommendations of the 133977
2006 State Share of Instruction Consultation and the Higher 133978
Education Funding Study Council that priority be given to 133979
maintaining state support for science, technology, engineering, 133980
mathematics, medicine, and graduate programs, the costs in 133981
division (B) of this section shall be weighted by the amounts 133982
provided below:133983

Model Fiscal Year 2014 Fiscal Year 2015 133984
ARTS AND HUMANITIES 1 1.0000 1.0000 133985
ARTS AND HUMANITIES 2 1.0000 1.0000 133986
ARTS AND HUMANITIES 3 1.0000 1.0000 133987
ARTS AND HUMANITIES 4 1.0000 1.0000 133988
ARTS AND HUMANITIES 5 1.0425 1.0425 133989
ARTS AND HUMANITIES 6 1.0425 1.0425 133990
BUSINESS, EDUCATION & SOCIAL SCIENCES 1 1.0000 1.0000 133991
BUSINESS, EDUCATION & SOCIAL SCIENCES 2 1.0000 1.0000 133992
BUSINESS, EDUCATION & SOCIAL SCIENCES 3 1.0000 1.0000 133993
BUSINESS, EDUCATION & SOCIAL SCIENCES 4 1.0000 1.0000 133994
BUSINESS, EDUCATION & SOCIAL SCIENCES 5 1.0425 1.0425 133995
BUSINESS, EDUCATION & SOCIAL SCIENCES 6 1.0425 1.0425 133996
BUSINESS, EDUCATION & SOCIAL SCIENCES 7 1.0425 1.0425 133997
MEDICAL 1 1.6456 1.6456 133998
MEDICAL 2 1.7462 1.7462 133999
SCIENCE, TECHNOLOGY, ENGINEERING, MATHEMATICS, MEDICINE 1 1.0000 1.0000 134000
SCIENCE, TECHNOLOGY, ENGINEERING, MATHEMATICS, MEDICINE 2 1.0017 1.0017 134001
SCIENCE, TECHNOLOGY, ENGINEERING, MATHEMATICS, MEDICINE 3 1.6150 1.6150 134002
SCIENCE, TECHNOLOGY, ENGINEERING, MATHEMATICS, MEDICINE 4 1.6920 1.6920 134003
SCIENCE, TECHNOLOGY, ENGINEERING, MATHEMATICS, MEDICINE 5 1.4222 1.4222 134004
SCIENCE, TECHNOLOGY, ENGINEERING, MATHEMATICS, MEDICINE 6 1.8798 1.8798 134005
SCIENCE, TECHNOLOGY, ENGINEERING, MATHEMATICS, MEDICINE 7 1.4380 1.4380 134006
SCIENCE, TECHNOLOGY, ENGINEERING, MATHEMATICS, MEDICINE 8 1.5675 1.5675 134007
SCIENCE, TECHNOLOGY, ENGINEERING, MATHEMATICS, MEDICINE 9 1.1361 1.1361 134008

       (D) CALCULATION OF STATE SHARE OF INSTRUCTION FORMULA 134009
ENTITLEMENTS AND ADJUSTMENTS134010

       (1) Of the foregoing appropriation item 235501, State Share 134011
of Instruction, 25 per cent of the fiscal year 2014 appropriation 134012
for state-supported community colleges, state community colleges, 134013
and technical colleges shall be allocated to colleges in 134014
proportion to their share of college student success factors as 134015
adopted by the Chancellor of the Board of Regents in formal 134016
communication to the Controlling Board on August 30, 2010.134017

       (2) Of the foregoing appropriation item 235501, State Share 134018
of Instruction, 25 per cent of the fiscal year 2014 appropriation 134019
for state-supported community colleges, state community colleges, 134020
and technical colleges shall be reserved for course completion 134021
FTEs as aggregated by the subsidy models defined in division (B) 134022
of this section.134023

       The course completion funding shall be allocated to colleges 134024
in proportion to each campuses' share of the total sector's course 134025
completions, weighted by the instructional cost of the subsidy 134026
models.134027

       To calculate the subsidy entitlements for course completions 134028
at community colleges, state community colleges, and technical 134029
colleges, the Chancellor of the Board of Regents shall use the 134030
following calculations:134031

       (a) In calculating each campus's count of FTE course 134032
completions, the Chancellor of the Board of Regents shall use the 134033
three-year average course completions for the three-year period 134034
ending in the prior year.134035

       (b) The model costs as used in the calculation shall be 134036
augmented by the model weights for science, technology, 134037
engineering, mathematics, and medicine models as established in 134038
division (C) of this section.134039

       (3) Of the foregoing appropriation item 235501, State Share 134040
of Instruction, up to 11.78 per cent of the appropriation for 134041
universities, as established in division (A)(2) of the section of 134042
this act entitled "STATE SHARE OF INSTRUCTION FOR FISCAL YEARS 134043
2014 and 2015," in each fiscal year shall be reserved for support 134044
of doctoral programs to implement the funding recommendations made 134045
by representatives of the universities. The amount so reserved 134046
shall be referred to as the doctoral set-aside.134047

       The doctoral set-aside shall be allocated to universities as 134048
follows:134049

       (a) 50 per cent of the doctoral set-aside in fiscal year 2014 134050
and 40 per cent of the doctoral set-aside in fiscal year 2015 134051
shall be allocated to universities in proportion to their share of 134052
the statewide total of each state institution's three-year average 134053
Doctoral I equivalent FTEs as calculated on an institutional basis 134054
using historical FTEs for the period fiscal year 1994 through 134055
fiscal year 1998 with annualized FTEs for fiscal years 1994 134056
through 1997 and all-term FTEs for fiscal year 1998 as adjusted to 134057
reflect the effects of doctoral review and subsequent changes in 134058
Doctoral I equivalent enrollments. For the purposes of this 134059
calculation, Doctoral I equivalent FTEs shall equal the sum of 134060
Doctoral I FTEs plus 1.5 times the sum of Doctoral II FTEs.134061

       (b) 25 per cent of the doctoral set-aside in fiscal year 2014 134062
and 30 per cent of the doctoral set-aside in fiscal year 2015 134063
shall be allocated to universities in proportion to each campus's 134064
share of the total statewide doctoral degrees, weighted by the 134065
cost of the doctoral discipline. In calculating each campus's 134066
doctoral degrees the Chancellor of the Board of Regents shall use 134067
the three-year average doctoral degrees awarded for the three-year 134068
period ending in the prior year. 134069

       (c) 12.5 per cent of the doctoral set-aside in fiscal year 134070
2014 and 15 per cent of the doctoral set-aside in fiscal year 2015 134071
shall be allocated to universities in proportion to their share of 134072
research grant activity, using a data collection method that is 134073
reviewed and approved by the presidents of Ohio's doctoral degree 134074
granting universities. In the event that the data collection 134075
method is not available, funding for this component shall be 134076
allocated to universities in proportion to their share of research 134077
grant activity published by the National Science Foundation. Grant 134078
awards from the Department of Health and Human Services shall be 134079
weighted at 50 per cent.134080

       (d) 12.5 per cent of the doctoral set-aside in fiscal year 134081
2014 and 15 per cent of the doctoral set-aside in fiscal year 2015 134082
shall be allocated to universities based on other quality measures 134083
that contribute to the advancement of quality doctoral programs. 134084
These other quality measures shall be identified by the Chancellor 134085
in consultation with universities. If for any reason metrics for 134086
distributing the quality component of the doctoral set-aside are 134087
not identified prior to the fiscal year allocation process, this 134088
portion of the doctoral set-aside funds shall be allocated to 134089
universities based on division (D)(3)(a) of this section.134090

       (4) Of the foregoing appropriation item 235501, State Share 134091
of Instruction, 6.41 per cent of the appropriation for 134092
universities, as established in division (A)(2) of the section of 134093
this act entitled "STATE SHARE OF INSTRUCTION FOR FISCAL YEARS 134094
2014 AND 2015," in each fiscal year shall be reserved for support 134095
of Medical II FTEs. The amount so reserved shall be referred to as 134096
the medical II set-aside.134097

       The medical II set-aside shall be allocated to universities 134098
in proportion to their share of the statewide total of each state 134099
institution's three-year average Medical II FTEs as calculated in 134100
division (A) of this section, weighted by model cost.134101

       (5) Of the foregoing appropriation item 235501, State Share 134102
of Instruction, 1.48 per cent of the appropriation for 134103
universities, as established in division (A)(2) of the section of 134104
this act entitled "STATE SHARE OF INSTRUCTION FOR FISCAL YEARS 134105
2014 AND 2015," in each fiscal year shall be reserved for support 134106
of Medical I FTEs. The amount so reserved shall be referred to as 134107
the medical I set-aside.134108

       The medical I set-aside shall be allocated to universities in 134109
proportion to their share of the statewide total of each state 134110
institution's three-year average Medical I FTEs as calculated in 134111
division (A) of this section.134112

        (6) Of the foregoing appropriation item 235501, State Share 134113
of Instruction, 50 per cent of the appropriation in each fiscal 134114
year for universities, net any earmarked funding for university 134115
regional campuses as detailed in division (B)(1) of the section of 134116
this act entitled "STATE SHARE OF INSTRUCTION FOR FISCAL YEARS 134117
2014 AND 2015," shall be reserved for support of associate, 134118
baccalaureate, master's, and professional level degree attainment.134119

       The degree attainment funding shall be allocated to 134120
universities in proportion to each campus's share of the total 134121
statewide degrees granted, weighted by the cost of the degree 134122
programs. The degree cost calculations shall include the model 134123
cost weights for the science, technology, engineering, 134124
mathematics, and medicine models as established in division (C) of 134125
this section.134126

       In calculating the subsidy entitlements for degree attainment 134127
at university main and regional campuses, the Chancellor of the 134128
Board of Regents shall use the following count of degrees and 134129
degree costs:134130

       (a) The subsidy eligible undergraduate degrees shall be 134131
defined as follows:134132

       (i) The subsidy eligible degrees conferred to students 134133
identified as residents of the state of Ohio in any term of their 134134
studies, as reported through the Higher Education Information 134135
(HEI) system student enrollment file, shall be weighted by a 134136
factor of 1.134137

       (ii) The subsidy eligible degrees conferred to students 134138
identified as out-of-state residents during all terms of their 134139
studies, as reported through the Higher Education Information 134140
(HEI) system student enrollment file, which remain in the state of 134141
Ohio at least one year after graduation shall be weighted by a 134142
factor of 50 per cent. For fiscal year 2014, subsidy eligible 134143
degrees conferred to all out-of-state students shall be weighted 134144
by a factor of 25 per cent.134145

       (b) In fiscal year 2014, for those associate degrees awarded 134146
by a state-supported university, the subsidy eligible degrees 134147
granted are defined as only those earned by students attending a 134148
university that received funding under GRF appropriation item 134149
235418, Access Challenge, in fiscal year 2009. In fiscal year 134150
2015, subsidy eligible associate degrees are defined as those 134151
earned by students attending any state-supported university main 134152
or regional campus.134153

       (c) In calculating each campus's count of degrees, the 134154
Chancellor of the Board of Regents shall use the three-year 134155
average associate, baccalaureate, master's, and professional 134156
degrees awarded for the three-year period ending in the prior 134157
year. In fiscal year 2014, university regional campuses are not 134158
eligible for degree completion funding. In fiscal year 2015, all 134159
university campuses are eligible for degree completion funding.134160

       (d) Eligible associate degrees defined in division (D)(6)(b) 134161
of this section and all bachelor's degrees earned by a student 134162
that either had an expected family contribution less than 2190, 134163
was determined to have been in need of remedial education, is 134164
Native American, African American, or Hispanic, or is at least age 134165
26 at the time of graduation, shall be defined as degrees earned 134166
by an at-risk student and shall be weighted by the following:134167

        (i) A campus-specific at-risk index, where the index is 134168
calculated based on the proportion of at-risk students enrolled 134169
during a four-year cohort beginning in fiscal year 2001, 2002, 134170
2003, or 2004; and134171

       (ii) A statewide average at-risk degree completion weight 134172
determined by calculating the difference between the percentage of 134173
non-at-risk students who earned a degree and the percentage of 134174
at-risk students who earned a degree in eight years or less.134175

       (7) State share of instruction base formula earnings shall be 134176
determined as follows:134177

       (a) The instructional costs shall be determined by 134178
multiplying the amounts listed above in divisions (B) and (C) of 134179
this section by the average subsidy-eligible FTEs for the 134180
three-year period ending in the prior year for all models except 134181
Doctoral I and Doctoral II.134182

       (b) The Chancellor of the Board of Regents shall compute a 134183
uniform state share of instructional costs for each sector.134184

       (i) For the state-supported community colleges, state 134185
community colleges, and technical colleges, in fiscal year 2014 134186
the Chancellor of the Board of Regents shall compute the uniform 134187
state share of instructional costs for enrollment by dividing the 134188
sector level appropriation total as determined by the Chancellor 134189
in division (A)(1) of the section of this act entitled "STATE 134190
SHARE OF INSTRUCTION FOR FISCAL YEARS 2014 AND 2015," and adjusted 134191
pursuant to divisions (B) and (C) of that section, less the 134192
student college success allocation as described in division (D)(1) 134193
of this section and less the course completion allocation as 134194
detailed in division (D)(2) of this section, by the sum of all 134195
eligible campuses' instructional costs as calculated in division 134196
(D)(7)(b) of this section.134197

       (ii) For the state-supported university regional campuses, in 134198
fiscal year 2014 the Chancellor of the Board of Regents shall 134199
compute the uniform state share of instructional costs by dividing 134200
the sector level appropriation, as determined by the Chancellor in 134201
division (A)(2) of the section of this act entitled "STATE SHARE 134202
OF INSTRUCTION FOR FISCAL YEARS 2014 AND 2015," and adjusted 134203
pursuant to division (B) of that section by the sum of all 134204
campuses' instructional costs as calculated in division (D)(7)(b) 134205
of this section.134206

       (iii) For the state-supported university main campuses, in 134207
fiscal year 2014 the Chancellor of the Board of Regents shall 134208
compute the uniform state share of instructional costs by dividing 134209
the sector level appropriation, as determined by the Chancellor in 134210
division (A)(3) of the section of this act entitled "STATE SHARE 134211
OF INSTRUCTION FOR FISCAL YEARS 2014 AND 2015," and adjusted 134212
pursuant to division (B) of that section, less the degree 134213
attainment funding as calculated in divisions (D)(3) to (6) of 134214
this section, less the doctoral set-aside, less the medical I 134215
set-aside, and less the medical II set-aside, by the sum of all 134216
campuses' instructional costs as calculated in division (D)(7)(b) 134217
of this section. 134218

       (iv) For the state university regional and main campuses, in 134219
fiscal year 2015 the Chancellor of the Board of Regents shall 134220
compute the uniform state share of instructional costs by dividing 134221
the university appropriation, as determined by the Chancellor in 134222
division (A)(3) of the section of this act entitled "STATE SHARE 134223
OF INSTRUCTION FOR FISCAL YEARS 2014 AND 2015," and adjusted 134224
pursuant to division (B) of that section, less the degree 134225
attainment funding as calculated in divisions (D)(3) to (6) of 134226
this section, less the doctoral set-aside, less the medical I 134227
set-aside, and less the medical II set-aside, by the sum of all 134228
campuses' instructional costs as calculated in division (D)(7)(b) 134229
of this section. 134230

       (c) The formula entitlement shall be determined by 134231
multiplying the uniform state share of instructional costs 134232
calculated in division (D)(7)(c) of this section by the 134233
instructional cost determined in division (D)(7)(b) of this 134234
section.134235

       (8) In addition to the student success allocation, doctoral 134236
set-aside, medical I set-aside, medical II set-aside, and the 134237
degree attainment allocation determined in divisions (D)(1) to (6) 134238
of this section and the formula entitlement determined in division 134239
(D)(7) of this section, an allocation based on facility-based 134240
plant operations and maintenance (POM) subsidy shall be made. For 134241
each eligible university main campus, the amount of the POM 134242
allocation in each fiscal year shall be distributed based on what 134243
each campus received in the fiscal year 2009 POM allocation.134244

       Any POM allocations required by this division shall be funded 134245
by proportionately reducing formula entitlement earnings, 134246
including the POM allocations, for all campuses in that sector.134247

       (9) STABILITY IN STATE SHARE OF INSTRUCTION FUNDING FOR 134248
COMMUNITY, STATE COMMUNITY, AND TECHNICAL COLLEGES134249

       In addition to and after the adjustments noted above, in 134250
fiscal year 2014, no community college, state community college, 134251
or technical college shall receive a state share of instruction 134252
allocation that is less than 97 per cent of the prior year's state 134253
share of instruction earnings. Funds shall be made available to 134254
support this allocation by proportionately reducing formula 134255
entitlement earnings from those campuses, within the community, 134256
state community, and technical college sector, that are not 134257
receiving stability funding. 134258

       (10) CAPITAL COMPONENT DEDUCTION134259

       After all other adjustments have been made, state share of 134260
instruction earnings shall be reduced for each campus by the 134261
amount, if any, by which debt service charged in Am. H.B. 748 of 134262
the 121st General Assembly, Am. Sub. H.B. 850 of the 122nd General 134263
Assembly, Am. Sub. H.B. 640 of the 123rd General Assembly, H.B. 134264
675 of the 124th General Assembly, Am. Sub. H.B. 16 of the 126th 134265
General Assembly, Am. Sub. H.B. 699 of the 126th General Assembly, 134266
Am. Sub. H.B. 496 of the 127th General Assembly, and Am. Sub. H.B. 134267
562 of the 127th General Assembly for that campus exceeds that 134268
campus's capital component earnings. The sum of the amounts 134269
deducted shall be transferred to appropriation item 235552, 134270
Capital Component, in each fiscal year.134271

       (E) EXCEPTIONAL CIRCUMSTANCES134272

       Adjustments may be made to the state share of instruction 134273
payments and other subsidies distributed by the Chancellor of the 134274
Board of Regents to state colleges and universities for 134275
exceptional circumstances. No adjustments for exceptional 134276
circumstances may be made without the recommendation of the 134277
Chancellor and the approval of the Controlling Board.134278

       (F) APPROPRIATION REDUCTIONS TO THE STATE SHARE OF 134279
INSTRUCTION134280

       The standard provisions of the state share of instruction 134281
calculation as described in the preceding sections of temporary 134282
law shall apply to any reductions made to appropriation item 134283
235501, State Share of Instruction, before the Chancellor of the 134284
Board of Regents has formally approved the final allocation of the 134285
state share of instruction funds for any fiscal year.134286

       Any reductions made to appropriation item 235501, State Share 134287
of Instruction, after the Chancellor of the Board of Regents has 134288
formally approved the final allocation of the state share of 134289
instruction funds for any fiscal year, shall be uniformly applied 134290
to each campus in proportion to its share of the final allocation.134291

       (G) DISTRIBUTION OF STATE SHARE OF INSTRUCTION134292

       The state share of instruction payments to the institutions 134293
shall be in substantially equal monthly amounts during the fiscal 134294
year, unless otherwise determined by the Director of Budget and 134295
Management pursuant to section 126.09 of the Revised Code. 134296
Payments during the first six months of the fiscal year shall be 134297
based upon the state share of instruction appropriation estimates 134298
made for the various institutions of higher education according to 134299
the Chancellor of the Board of Regents enrollment, completion, and 134300
performance estimates. Payments during the last six months of the 134301
fiscal year shall be distributed after approval of the Controlling 134302
Board upon the request of the Chancellor.134303

       (H) STUDIES TO DETERMINE IMPROVEMENTS TO THE FISCAL YEAR 2015 134304
STATE SHARE OF INSTRUCTION FORMULAS134305

       (1) STUDY ON IDENTIFYING "AT-RISK" STUDENTS FOR COMMUNITY 134306
COLLEGES134307

       Community college presidents, or their designees, in 134308
consultation with the Chancellor of the Board of Regents, shall 134309
study the most appropriate formula weights for students who come 134310
from "at-risk" populations and recommend how they may be used to 134311
determine allocations of appropriations to community colleges from 134312
appropriation item 235501, State Share of Instruction, in fiscal 134313
year 2015. The study shall identify the socio-economic, 134314
demographic, academic, personal, and other factors that identify a 134315
student as being "at-risk" of academic failure, and recommend how 134316
these factors may be used to determine allocations of the State 134317
Share of Instruction for community colleges in fiscal year 2015. 134318
The study shall be completed by December 31, 2013. Notwithstanding 134319
any provision of law to the contrary, community college 134320
presidents, or their designees, in consultation with the 134321
Chancellor of the Board of Regents, shall use the results of the 134322
study to recommend changes in the determination of the 134323
distribution of the community college allocations beginning in 134324
fiscal year 2015 and shall report any such formula change 134325
recommendations to the Governor, the General Assembly, and the 134326
Office of Budget and Management not later than February 15, 2014.134327

       (2) STUDY ON THE USE OF SUCCESS POINTS AND COMPLETION 134328
MEASURES FOR COMMUNITY COLLEGES134329

       Community college presidents, or their designees, in 134330
consultation with the Chancellor of the Board of Regents, shall 134331
study the most appropriate formula weights for the "success 134332
points" and completion performance measures used in the allocation 134333
of appropriations to community colleges from appropriation item 134334
235501, State Share of Instruction, in fiscal year 2015. The study 134335
shall research the most appropriate success points and completion 134336
measures that occur during the academic career of community 134337
college students and recommend revisions to the current State 134338
Share of Instruction model to fund achievement of the success 134339
points beginning in fiscal year 2015. In addition, community 134340
college presidents, or their designees, in consultation with the 134341
Chancellor of the Board of Regents, shall determine how the 134342
community college's fiscal year 2015 share of State Share of 134343
Instruction funding shall be distributed among its success points, 134344
completion measures and course completion funding, or other 134345
performance and access measures. The study shall be completed by 134346
December 31, 2013. Notwithstanding any provision of law to the 134347
contrary, community college presidents, or their designees, in 134348
consultation with the Chancellor of the Board of Regents, shall 134349
use the results of the study to recommend changes in the 134350
determination of the distribution of the community college 134351
allocations beginning in fiscal year 2015 and shall report any 134352
such formula change recommendations to the Governor, the General 134353
Assembly, and the Office of Budget and Management not later than 134354
February 15, 2014.134355

       (3) STUDY ON THE USE OF STUDENT LEVEL "AT-RISK" WEIGHTS AND 134356
PROPORTIONAL DEGREE COUNTS FOR THE UNIVERSITIES DEGREE COMPLETION 134357
COMPONENT134358

       University presidents, or their designees, in consultation 134359
with the Chancellor of the Board of Regents, shall study the most 134360
appropriate formula weights for students who come from "at-risk" 134361
populations and recommend how they may be used to determine 134362
allocations of appropriations to universities from appropriation 134363
item 235501, State Share of Instruction, in fiscal year 2015. In 134364
addition to studying the "at-risk" student weights, university 134365
presidents, or their designees, in consultation with the 134366
Chancellor of the Board of Regents, shall recommend a methodology 134367
for merging the current main campus and regional campus funding 134368
formulas and distributing degree subsidies in cases where a 134369
student attended more than one institution of higher education. 134370
The study shall be completed by December 31, 2013. Notwithstanding 134371
any provision of law to the contrary, university presidents, or 134372
their designees, in consultation with the Chancellor of the Board 134373
of Regents, shall use the results of the study to recommend 134374
changes in the determination of the distribution of the university 134375
allocations beginning in fiscal year 2015 and shall report any 134376
such formula change recommendations to the Governor, the General 134377
Assembly and the Office of Budget and Management not later than 134378
February 15, 2014.134379

       Section 363.200. STATE SHARE OF INSTRUCTION FOR FISCAL YEARS 134380
2014 AND 2015134381

       (A) The foregoing appropriation item 235501, State Share of 134382
Instruction, shall be distributed according to the section of this 134383
act entitled "STATE SHARE OF INSTRUCTION FORMULAS."134384

       (1) Of the foregoing appropriation item 235501, State Share 134385
of Instruction, $411,257,477 in fiscal year 2014 and $419,101,428 134386
in fiscal year 2015 shall be distributed to state-supported 134387
community colleges, state community colleges, and technical 134388
colleges. 134389

       (2) Of the foregoing appropriation item 235501, State Share 134390
of Instruction, $1,372,968,020 in fiscal year 2014 and 134391
$1,399,124,069 in fiscal year 2015 shall be distributed to 134392
state-supported university main and regional campuses.134393

       (B) Of the amounts earmarked in division (A)(2) of this 134394
section:134395

       (1) $116,181,104 in fiscal year 2014 shall be distributed to 134396
state university regional campuses.134397

       (2) $3,923,764 in each fiscal year shall be distributed to 134398
university main campuses based on each campus's share of the 134399
appropriation item 235418, Access Challenge, in fiscal year 2009. 134400

       (C) The POM adjustment in division (D)(7) of the section of 134401
this act entitled "STATE SHARE OF INSTRUCTION FORMULAS" and the 134402
Access Challenge earmark in division (B) of this section shall 134403
expire on June 30, 2015.134404

       (D) The state share of instruction payments to the 134405
institutions shall be in substantially equal monthly amounts 134406
during the fiscal year, unless otherwise determined by the 134407
Director of Budget and Management pursuant to section 126.09 of 134408
the Revised Code. Payments during the last six months of the 134409
fiscal year shall be distributed after approval of the Controlling 134410
Board upon the request of the Chancellor of the Board of Regents.134411

       Section 363.210. TRANSFER OF INSTRUCTIONAL SUBSIDIES BETWEEN 134412
UNIVERSITIES134413

       Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, in 134414
consultation with the Chancellor of the Board of Regents, a 134415
state-supported university may request to transfer its fiscal year 134416
2014 state share of instruction subsidy allocations of the 134417
foregoing appropriation item 235501, State Share of Instruction, 134418
between a university main campus and any university branch campus 134419
for which the university main campus is affiliated to best 134420
accomplish institutional goals and objectives. At the request of 134421
the Chancellor of the Board of Regents, the Director of Budget and 134422
Management may transfer the requested amounts of state share of 134423
instruction appropriation allocations between affiliated 134424
university branch campuses and university main campuses.134425

       Section 363.213. STATE SHARE OF INSTRUCTION BRIDGE FUNDING134426

       The foregoing appropriation item 235505, State Share of 134427
Instruction Bridge Funding, shall be used by the Chancellor to 134428
supplement each campus receiving a State Share of Instruction 134429
allocation in fiscal year 2014 that is lower than that campus's 134430
State Share of Instruction allocation in fiscal year 2013.134431

       (A) For fiscal year 2014, the Chancellor shall pay temporary 134432
allocations from the foregoing appropriation item 235505, State 134433
Share of Instruction Bridge Funding, to any campus that 134434
experiences any decrease in its State Share of Instruction 134435
funding.134436

        (1) The amount of the temporary allocation payments for all 134437
state institution campuses except Central State University and 134438
Shawnee State University shall be equal to the difference between 134439
the campus's State Share of Instruction funding allocation for 134440
fiscal year 2013, as determined under the formula detailed in 134441
sections 371.20.50 and 371.20.60 of Am. Sub. H.B. 153 of the 129th 134442
General Assembly, and the campus's State Share of Instruction 134443
funding allocation for fiscal year 2014, as determined under the 134444
formula detailed in sections 363.190 and 363.200 of this act. If 134445
the computation made under this division results in a negative 134446
number, the campus's payment under this division shall be zero.134447

        (2) The amount of the temporary allocation payments for 134448
Central State University shall be equal to the difference between 134449
(a) Central State University's State Share of Instruction funding 134450
allocation for fiscal year 2013, as determined under the State 134451
Share of Instruction formula detailed in sections 371.20.50 and 134452
371.20.60 of Am. Sub. H.B. 153 of the 129th General Assembly, 134453
combined with the fiscal year 2013 appropriation for appropriation 134454
item 235514, Central State Supplement, in section 371.10 of Am. 134455
Sub. H.B. 153 of the 129th General Assembly, and (b) Central State 134456
University's State Share of Instruction funding allocation for 134457
fiscal year 2014, as determined under the formula detailed in 134458
sections 363.190 and 363.200 of this act, combined with the fiscal 134459
year 2014 appropriation for the foregoing appropriation item 134460
235514, Central State Supplement. If the computation made under 134461
this division results in a negative number, Central State 134462
University's payment under this division shall be zero.134463

        (3) The amount of the temporary allocation payments for 134464
Shawnee State University shall be equal to the difference between 134465
(a) Shawnee State University's State Share of Instruction funding 134466
allocation for fiscal year 2013, as determined under the State 134467
Share of Instruction formula detailed in sections 371.20.50 and 134468
371.20.60 of Am. Sub. H.B. 153 of the 129th General Assembly, 134469
combined with the fiscal year 2013 appropriation for appropriation 134470
item 235520, Shawnee State Supplement, in section 371.10 of Am. 134471
Sub. H.B. 153 of the 129th General Assembly, and (b) Shawnee State 134472
University's State Share of Instruction funding allocation for 134473
fiscal year 2014, as determined under the formula detailed in 134474
sections 363.190 and 363.200 of this act, combined with the fiscal 134475
year 2014 appropriation for the foregoing appropriation item 134476
235514, Shawnee State Supplement. If the computation made under 134477
this division results in a negative number, Shawnee State 134478
University's payment under this division shall be zero.134479

        (B) In each fiscal year, the Chancellor shall not distribute 134480
an amount greater than what is appropriated under the foregoing 134481
appropriation item 235505, State Share of Instruction Bridge 134482
Funding. If the Chancellor determines that the amounts 134483
appropriated for support of the State Share of Instruction Bridge 134484
Funding program are inadequate to provide full temporary 134485
allocation payments to all eligible campuses, the Chancellor shall 134486
proportionally reduce payment amounts.134487

       Section 363.220. RESTRICTION ON FEE INCREASES134488

       The boards of trustees of state institutions of higher 134489
education shall restrain increases in in-state undergraduate 134490
instructional and general fees. Each state university and the 134491
Northeast Ohio Medical University shall not increase its in-state 134492
undergraduate instructional and general fees by more than 2.0 per 134493
cent or $188, whichever is higher, over what the institution 134494
charged for the preceding academic year.134495

       Each university regional campus shall not increase its 134496
in-state undergraduate instructional and general fees by more than 134497
2.0 per cent or $114, whichever is higher, over what the 134498
institution charged for the preceding academic year.134499

       Each community college, state community college, and 134500
technical college shall not increase its in-state undergraduate 134501
instructional and general fees by more than $100 over what the 134502
institution charged for the preceding academic year.134503

       These limitations shall not apply to increases required to 134504
comply with institutional covenants related to their obligations 134505
or to meet unfunded legal mandates or legally binding obligations 134506
incurred or commitments made prior to the effective date of this 134507
section with respect to which the institution had identified such 134508
fee increases as the source of funds. Any increase required by 134509
such covenants and any such mandates, obligations, or commitments 134510
shall be reported by the Chancellor of the Board of Regents to the 134511
Controlling Board. These limitations may also be modified by the 134512
Chancellor of the Board of Regents, with the approval of the 134513
Controlling Board, to respond to exceptional circumstances as 134514
identified by the Chancellor of the Board of Regents. 134515

       These limitations shall not apply to institutions 134516
participating in an undergraduate tuition guarantee program 134517
pursuant to section 3345.48 of the Revised Code.134518

       Section 363.230. HIGHER EDUCATION - BOARD OF TRUSTEES134519

       (A) Funds appropriated for instructional subsidies at 134520
colleges and universities may be used to provide such branch or 134521
other off-campus undergraduate courses of study and such master's 134522
degree courses of study as may be approved by the Chancellor of 134523
the Board of Regents.134524

       (B) In providing instructional and other services to 134525
students, boards of trustees of state institutions of higher 134526
education shall supplement state subsidies with income from 134527
charges to students. Except as otherwise provided in this act, 134528
each board shall establish the fees to be charged to all students, 134529
including an instructional fee for educational and associated 134530
operational support of the institution and a general fee for 134531
noninstructional services, including locally financed student 134532
services facilities used for the benefit of enrolled students. The 134533
instructional fee and the general fee shall encompass all charges 134534
for services assessed uniformly to all enrolled students. Each 134535
board may also establish special purpose fees, service charges, 134536
and fines as required; such special purpose fees and service 134537
charges shall be for services or benefits furnished individual 134538
students or specific categories of students and shall not be 134539
applied uniformly to all enrolled students. A tuition surcharge 134540
shall be paid by all students who are not residents of Ohio.134541

       The board of trustees of a state institution of higher 134542
education shall not authorize a waiver or nonpayment of 134543
instructional fees or general fees for any particular student or 134544
any class of students other than waivers specifically authorized 134545
by law or approved by the Chancellor. This prohibition is not 134546
intended to limit the authority of boards of trustees to provide 134547
for payments to students for services rendered the institution, 134548
nor to prohibit the budgeting of income for staff benefits or for 134549
student assistance in the form of payment of such instructional 134550
and general fees.134551

       Each state institution of higher education in its statement 134552
of charges to students shall separately identify the instructional 134553
fee, the general fee, the tuition charge, and the tuition 134554
surcharge. Fee charges to students for instruction shall not be 134555
considered to be a price of service but shall be considered to be 134556
an integral part of the state government financing program in 134557
support of higher educational opportunity for students.134558

       (C) The boards of trustees of state institutions of higher 134559
education shall ensure that faculty members devote a proper and 134560
judicious part of their work week to the actual instruction of 134561
students. Total class credit hours of production per academic term 134562
per full-time faculty member is expected to meet the standards set 134563
forth in the budget data submitted by the Chancellor of the Board 134564
of Regents.134565

       (D) The authority of government vested by law in the boards 134566
of trustees of state institutions of higher education shall in 134567
fact be exercised by those boards. Boards of trustees may consult 134568
extensively with appropriate student and faculty groups. 134569
Administrative decisions about the utilization of available 134570
resources, about organizational structure, about disciplinary 134571
procedure, about the operation and staffing of all auxiliary 134572
facilities, and about administrative personnel shall be the 134573
exclusive prerogative of boards of trustees. Any delegation of 134574
authority by a board of trustees in other areas of responsibility 134575
shall be accompanied by appropriate standards of guidance 134576
concerning expected objectives in the exercise of such delegated 134577
authority and shall be accompanied by periodic review of the 134578
exercise of this delegated authority to the end that the public 134579
interest, in contrast to any institutional or special interest, 134580
shall be served.134581

       Section 363.240. STUDENT SUPPORT SERVICES134582

       The foregoing appropriation item 235502, Student Support 134583
Services, shall be distributed by the Chancellor of the Board of 134584
Regents to Ohio's state colleges and universities that incur 134585
disproportionate costs in the provision of support services to 134586
disabled students.134587

       Section 363.250. WAR ORPHANS SCHOLARSHIPS134588

       The foregoing appropriation item 235504, War Orphans 134589
Scholarships, shall be used to reimburse state institutions of 134590
higher education for waivers of instructional fees and general 134591
fees provided by them, to provide grants to institutions that have 134592
received a certificate of authorization from the Chancellor of the 134593
Board of Regents under Chapter 1713. of the Revised Code, in 134594
accordance with the provisions of section 5910.04 of the Revised 134595
Code, and to fund additional scholarship benefits provided by 134596
section 5910.032 of the Revised Code.134597

       Section 363.253. OHIO STRATEGIC TRAINING CENTER134598

       The foregoing appropriation item 235506, Ohio Strategic 134599
Training Center, shall be used for a demonstration project to 134600
purchase portable welding stations made from large shipping 134601
containers and high level advanced training equipment for use at 134602
the Point Industrial Park in South Point.134603

       Section 363.260. OHIOLINK134604

       The foregoing appropriation item 235507, OhioLINK, shall be 134605
used by the Chancellor of the Board of Regents to support 134606
OhioLINK, a consortium organized under division (T) of section 134607
3333.04 of the Revised Code to serve as the state's electronic 134608
library information and retrieval system, which provides access 134609
statewide to an extensive set of electronic databases and 134610
resources, the library holdings of Ohio's public and participating 134611
private nonprofit colleges and universities, and the State Library 134612
of Ohio.134613

       Section 363.270. AIR FORCE INSTITUTE OF TECHNOLOGY134614

       The foregoing appropriation item 235508, Air Force Institute 134615
of Technology, shall be used to: (A) strengthen the research and 134616
educational linkages between the Wright Patterson Air Force Base 134617
and institutions of higher education in Ohio; and (B) support the 134618
Dayton Area Graduate Studies Institute, an engineering graduate 134619
consortium of Wright State University, the University of Dayton, 134620
and the Air Force Institute of Technology, with the participation 134621
of the University of Cincinnati and The Ohio State University. 134622

       Section 363.280. OHIO SUPERCOMPUTER CENTER134623

       The foregoing appropriation item 235510, Ohio Supercomputer 134624
Center, shall be used by the Chancellor of the Board of Regents to 134625
support the operation of the Ohio Supercomputer Center, a 134626
consortium organized under division (T) of section 3333.04 of the 134627
Revised Code, located at The Ohio State University. The Ohio 134628
Supercomputer Center is a statewide resource available to Ohio 134629
research universities both public and private. It is also intended 134630
that the center be made accessible to private industry as 134631
appropriate.134632

       Funds shall be used, in part, to support the Ohio 134633
Supercomputer Center's Computational Science Initiative, which 134634
includes its industrial outreach program, Blue Collar Computing, 134635
and its School of Computational Science. These collaborations 134636
between the Ohio Supercomputer Center and Ohio's colleges and 134637
universities shall be aimed at making Ohio a leader in using 134638
computer modeling to promote economic development.134639

       Section 363.290. COOPERATIVE EXTENSION SERVICE134640

       The foregoing appropriation item 235511, Cooperative 134641
Extension Service, shall be disbursed through the Chancellor of 134642
the Board of Regents to The Ohio State University in monthly 134643
payments, unless otherwise determined by the Director of Budget 134644
and Management under section 126.09 of the Revised Code.134645

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 235511, Cooperative 134646
Extension Service, up to $30,000 in fiscal year 2014 shall be used 134647
to develop an in-school agriculturally based curriculum for 134648
inclusion within the regular classroom curriculum of an elementary 134649
school in the Cleveland Municipal School District and the 134650
Cincinnati City School District.134651

        Of the foregoing appropriation item 235511, Cooperative 134652
Extension Service, up to $73,450 in each fiscal year shall be used 134653
to support a City of Cleveland Program Manager tasked with 134654
preparing regular classroom teachers in one elementary school to 134655
recruit and train volunteers for an after-school 4-H Club.134656

        Of the foregoing appropriation item 235511, Cooperative 134657
Extension Service, $73,450 in each fiscal year shall be used to 134658
support a City of Cincinnati Program Manager tasked with preparing 134659
regular classroom teachers in one elementary school to recruit and 134660
train volunteers for an after-school 4-H Club.134661

       Section 363.300. CENTRAL STATE SUPPLEMENT134662

       The foregoing appropriation item 235514, Central State 134663
Supplement, shall be disbursed by the Chancellor of the Board of 134664
Regents to Central State University in accordance with the plan 134665
developed by the Chancellor and submitted to the Governor and the 134666
General Assembly as directed by Am. Sub. H.B. 153 of the 129th 134667
General Assembly. Funds shall be used in a manner consistent with 134668
the goals of increasing enrollment, improving course completion, 134669
and increasing the number of degrees conferred.134670

        The Chancellor shall monitor the implementation of the plan 134671
and the use of funds. Central State University shall provide any 134672
information requested by the Chancellor related to the 134673
implementation of the plan. If the Chancellor determines that 134674
Central State University's use of supplemental funds is not in 134675
accordance with the plan or if the plan is not having the desired 134676
effect, the Chancellor may notify Central State University that 134677
the plan is suspended. Upon receiving such notice, Central State 134678
University shall avoid all unnecessary expenditures under the 134679
plan. The Chancellor shall notify the Controlling Board of the 134680
suspension of the plan and within sixty days prepare a new plan 134681
for the use of any remaining funds.134682

       Section 363.310. CASE WESTERN RESERVE UNIVERSITY SCHOOL OF 134683
MEDICINE134684

       The foregoing appropriation item 235515, Case Western Reserve 134685
University School of Medicine, shall be disbursed to Case Western 134686
Reserve University through the Chancellor of the Board of Regents 134687
in accordance with agreements entered into under section 3333.10 134688
of the Revised Code, provided that the state support per full-time 134689
medical student shall not exceed that provided to full-time 134690
medical students at state universities.134691

       Section 363.320. FAMILY PRACTICE134692

       The Chancellor of the Ohio Board of Regents shall develop 134693
plans consistent with existing criteria and guidelines as may be 134694
required for the distribution of appropriation item 235519, Family 134695
Practice.134696

       Section 363.330. SHAWNEE STATE SUPPLEMENT134697

       The foregoing appropriation item 235520, Shawnee State 134698
Supplement, shall be disbursed by the Chancellor of the Board of 134699
Regents to Shawnee State University in accordance with the plan 134700
developed by the Chancellor and submitted to the Governor and the 134701
General Assembly as directed by Am. Sub. H.B. 153 of the 129th 134702
General Assembly. Funds shall be used in a manner consistent with 134703
the goals of improving course completion, increasing the number of 134704
degrees conferred, and furthering the university's mission of 134705
service to the Appalachian region.134706

        The Chancellor shall monitor the implementation of the plan 134707
and the use of funds. Shawnee State University shall provide any 134708
information requested by the Chancellor related to the 134709
implementation of the plan. If the Chancellor determines that 134710
Shawnee State University's use of supplemental funds is not in 134711
accordance with the plan or if the plan is not having the desired 134712
effect, the Chancellor may notify Shawnee State University that 134713
the plan is suspended. Upon receiving such notice, Shawnee State 134714
University shall avoid all unnecessary expenditures under the 134715
plan. The Chancellor shall notify the Controlling Board of the 134716
suspension of the plan and within sixty days prepare a new plan 134717
for the use of any remaining funds.134718

       Section 363.333. YOUTH STEM COMMERCIALIZATION AND 134719
ENTREPRENEURSHIP PROGRAM134720

       The foregoing appropriation item 235523, Youth STEM 134721
Commercialization and Entrepreneurship Program, shall be used by 134722
the Chancellor of the Ohio Board of Regents to support the Youth 134723
STEM Commercialization and Entrepreneurship Program. The purpose 134724
of this program is to grow Ohio's next generation of 134725
entrepreneurs, to create jobs in Ohio by focusing on the practical 134726
application of science, technology, engineering, and mathematics 134727
(STEM), including medicine and health fields, and to innovate new 134728
products and services. The Youth STEM Commercialization and 134729
Entrepreneurship Program shall (1) conduct regional STEM forums 134730
for students and educators; (2) develop regional online high 134731
school and collegiate STEM commercialization and entrepreneurship 134732
content and courses; (3) create a statewide STEM commercialization 134733
and entrepreneurship mentoring network available to high school 134734
students anywhere in Ohio; and (4) conduct a statewide STEM 134735
Commercialization and Entrepreneurship Plan competition that 134736
includes incentive awards and scholarships for students and 134737
professional development and incentives for teacher participation. 134738
The competition and all aspects of the program shall be open to 134739
any Ohio high school student and shall include initiatives to 134740
engage minority, rural, and economically disadvantaged students 134741
anywhere in Ohio. The Youth STEM Commercialization and 134742
Entrepreneurship Program shall collaborate with Ohio's colleges 134743
and universities, existing STEM and entrepreneurship programs, and 134744
Ohio's STEM professional and trade associations to implement these 134745
provisions and to create the new products or services of the 134746
future, advance job creation in Ohio, and encourage enrollment at 134747
Ohio institutions of higher education.134748

       Section 363.340. POLICE AND FIRE PROTECTION134749

       The foregoing appropriation item 235524, Police and Fire 134750
Protection, shall be used for police and fire services in the 134751
municipalities of Kent, Athens, Oxford, Fairborn, Bowling Green, 134752
Portsmouth, Xenia Township (Greene County), Rootstown Township, 134753
and the City of Nelsonville that may be used to assist these local 134754
governments in providing police and fire protection for the 134755
central campus of the state-affiliated university located therein. 134756

       Section 363.350. GERIATRIC MEDICINE134757

       The Chancellor of the Board of Regents shall develop plans 134758
consistent with existing criteria and guidelines as may be 134759
required for the distribution of appropriation item 235525, 134760
Geriatric Medicine.134761

       Section 363.360. PRIMARY CARE RESIDENCIES134762

       The Chancellor of the Board of Regents shall develop plans 134763
consistent with existing criteria and guidelines as may be 134764
required for the distribution of appropriation item 235526, 134765
Primary Care Residencies.134766

       The foregoing appropriation item 235526, Primary Care 134767
Residencies, shall be distributed in each fiscal year of the 134768
biennium, based on whether or not the institution has submitted 134769
and gained approval for a plan. If the institution does not have 134770
an approved plan, it shall receive five per cent less funding per 134771
student than it would have received from its annual allocation. 134772
The remaining funding shall be distributed among those 134773
institutions that meet or exceed their targets.134774

       Section 363.370. OHIO AGRICULTURAL RESEARCH AND DEVELOPMENT 134775
CENTER134776

       The foregoing appropriation item 235535, Ohio Agricultural 134777
Research and Development Center, shall be disbursed through the 134778
Chancellor of the Board of Regents to The Ohio State University in 134779
monthly payments, unless otherwise determined by the Director of 134780
Budget and Management under section 126.09 of the Revised Code. 134781
The Ohio Agricultural Research and Development Center shall not be 134782
required to remit payment to The Ohio State University during the 134783
biennium ending June 30, 2015, for cost reallocation assessments. 134784
The cost reallocation assessments include, but are not limited to, 134785
any assessment on state appropriations to the Center.134786

       The Ohio Agricultural Research and Development Center, an 134787
entity of the College of Food, Agricultural, and Environmental 134788
Sciences of The Ohio State University, shall further its mission 134789
of enhancing Ohio's economic development and job creation by 134790
continuing to internally allocate on a competitive basis 134791
appropriated funding of programs based on demonstrated 134792
performance. Academic units, faculty, and faculty-driven programs 134793
shall be evaluated and rewarded consistent with agreed-upon 134794
performance expectations as called for in the College's 134795
Expectations and Criteria for Performance Assessment.134796

       Section 363.380. STATE UNIVERSITY CLINICAL TEACHING134797

       The foregoing appropriation items 235536, The Ohio State 134798
University Clinical Teaching; 235537, University of Cincinnati 134799
Clinical Teaching; 235538, University of Toledo Clinical Teaching; 134800
235539, Wright State University Clinical Teaching; 235540, Ohio 134801
University Clinical Teaching; and 235541, Northeast Ohio Medical 134802
University Clinical Teaching, shall be distributed through the 134803
Chancellor of the Board of Regents.134804

       Section 363.390. CAPITAL COMPONENT134805

       The foregoing appropriation item 235552, Capital Component, 134806
shall be used by the Chancellor of the Board of Regents to provide 134807
funding for prior commitments made pursuant to the state's former 134808
capital funding policy for state colleges and universities that 134809
was originally established in Am. H.B. 748 of the 121st General 134810
Assembly. Appropriations from this item shall be distributed to 134811
all campuses for which the estimated campus debt service 134812
attributable to qualifying capital projects was less than the 134813
campus's formula-determined capital component allocation. Campus 134814
allocations shall be determined by subtracting the estimated 134815
campus debt service attributable to qualifying capital projects 134816
from the campus's formula-determined capital component allocation. 134817
Moneys distributed from this appropriation item shall be 134818
restricted to capital-related purposes.134819

       Any campus for which the estimated campus debt service 134820
attributable to qualifying capital projects is greater than the 134821
campus's formula-determined capital component allocation shall 134822
have the difference subtracted from its State Share of Instruction 134823
allocation in each fiscal year. Appropriation equal to the sum of 134824
all such amounts except that of the Ohio Agricultural Research and 134825
Development Center shall be transferred from appropriation item 134826
235501, State Share of Instruction, to appropriation item 235552, 134827
Capital Component. Appropriation equal to any estimated Ohio 134828
Agricultural Research and Development Center debt service 134829
attributable to qualifying capital projects that is greater than 134830
the Center's formula-determined capital component allocation shall 134831
be transferred from appropriation item 235535, Ohio Agricultural 134832
Research and Development Center, to appropriation item 235552, 134833
Capital Component.134834

       Section 363.400. LIBRARY DEPOSITORIES134835

       The foregoing appropriation item, 235555, Library 134836
Depositories, shall be distributed to the state's five regional 134837
depository libraries for the cost-effective storage of and access 134838
to lesser-used materials in university library collections. The 134839
depositories shall be administrated by the Chancellor of the Board 134840
of Regents, or by OhioLINK at the discretion of the Chancellor.134841

       Section 363.410. OHIO ACADEMIC RESOURCES NETWORK (OARNET)134842

       The foregoing appropriation item 235556, Ohio Academic 134843
Resources Network, shall be used by the Chancellor of the Board of 134844
Regents to support the operations of the Ohio Academic Resources 134845
Network, a consortium organized under division (T) of section 134846
3333.04 of the Revised Code, which shall include support for 134847
Ohio's colleges and universities in maintaining and enhancing 134848
network connections, using new network technologies to improve 134849
research, education, and economic development programs, and 134850
sharing information technology services. To the extent network 134851
capacity is available, OARnet shall support allocating bandwidth 134852
to eligible programs directly supporting Ohio's economic 134853
development.134854

       Section 363.420. LONG-TERM CARE RESEARCH134855

       The foregoing appropriation item 235558, Long-term Care 134856
Research, shall be disbursed to Miami University for long-term 134857
care research.134858

       Section 363.430.  OHIO COLLEGE OPPORTUNITY GRANT134859

       (A) Except as provided in division (C) of this section:134860

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 235563, Ohio College 134861
Opportunity Grant, $41,000,000 in each fiscal year shall be used 134862
by the Chancellor of the Board of Regents to award need-based 134863
financial aid to students enrolled in eligible four-year public 134864
institutions of higher education, excluding early college high 134865
school and post-secondary enrollment option participants.134866

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 235563, Ohio College 134867
Opportunity Grant, $41,000,000 in each fiscal year shall be used 134868
by the Chancellor of the Board of Regents to award need-based 134869
financial aid to students enrolled in eligible private nonprofit 134870
institutions of higher education, excluding early college high 134871
school and post-secondary enrollment option participants.134872

       The remainder of the foregoing appropriation item 235563, 134873
Ohio College Opportunity Grant, shall be used by the Chancellor of 134874
the Board of Regents to award needs-based financial aid to 134875
students enrolled in eligible private for-profit career colleges 134876
and schools.134877

       (B)(1) As used in this section:134878

       (a) "Eligible institution" means any institution described in 134879
divisions (B)(2)(a) to (c) of section 3333.122 of the Revised 134880
Code.134881

       (b) The three "sectors" of institutions of higher education 134882
consist of the following:134883

       (i) State colleges and universities, community colleges, 134884
state community colleges, university branches, and technical 134885
colleges;134886

       (ii) Eligible private nonprofit institutions of higher 134887
education;134888

       (iii) Eligible private for-profit career colleges and 134889
schools.134890

       (2) If the Chancellor determines that the amounts 134891
appropriated for support of the Ohio College Opportunity Grant 134892
program are inadequate to provide grants to all eligible students 134893
as calculated under division (D) of section 3333.122 of the 134894
Revised Code, the Chancellor may create a distribution formula for 134895
fiscal year 2014 and fiscal year 2015 based on the formula used in 134896
fiscal year 2013, or may follow methods established in division 134897
(C)(1)(a) or (b) of section 3333.122 of the Revised Code. The 134898
Chancellor shall notify the Controlling Board of the distribution 134899
method. Any formula calculated under this division shall be 134900
complete and established to coincide with the start of the 134901
2013-2014 academic year. 134902

       (C) Prior to determining the amount of funds available to 134903
award under this section and section 3333.122 of the Revised Code, 134904
the Chancellor shall use the foregoing appropriation item 235563, 134905
Ohio College Opportunity Grant, to pay for renewals or partial 134906
renewals of scholarships students receive under the Ohio Academic 134907
Scholarship Program under sections 3333.21 and 3333.22 of the 134908
Revised Code. In paying for scholarships under this division, the 134909
Chancellor shall deduct funds from the allocations made under 134910
division (A) of this section. Deductions shall be proportionate to 134911
the amounts allocated to each sector from the total amounts 134912
appropriated for each sector under the foregoing appropriation 134913
item 235563, Ohio College Opportunity Grant.134914

       In each fiscal year, the Chancellor shall not distribute or 134915
obligate or commit to be distributed an amount greater than what 134916
is appropriated under the foregoing appropriation item 235563, 134917
Ohio College Opportunity Grant.134918

       (D) The Chancellor shall establish, and post on the Ohio 134919
Board of Regents' web site, award tables based on any formulas 134920
created under division (B) of this section. The Chancellor shall 134921
notify students and institutions of any reductions in awards under 134922
this section.134923

        On or before August 31, 2013, the Chancellor of the Board of 134924
Regents shall submit award tables to the Controlling Board for the 134925
2013-2014 academic year and allocations of Ohio College 134926
Opportunity Grant awards not already specified in section 3333.122 134927
of the Revised Code.134928

       (E) Notwithstanding section 3333.122 of the Revised Code, no 134929
student shall be eligible to receive an Ohio College Opportunity 134930
Grant for more than ten semesters, fifteen quarters, or the 134931
equivalent of five academic years, less the number of semesters or 134932
quarters in which the student received an Ohio Instructional 134933
Grant.134934

       Section 363.440. THE OHIO STATE UNIVERSITY CLINIC SUPPORT134935

       The foregoing appropriation item 235572, The Ohio State 134936
University Clinic Support, shall be distributed through the 134937
Chancellor of the Board of Regents to The Ohio State University 134938
for support of dental and veterinary medicine clinics.134939

       Section 363.450. NATIONAL GUARD SCHOLARSHIP PROGRAM134940

       The Chancellor of the Board of Regents shall disburse funds 134941
from appropriation item 235599, National Guard Scholarship 134942
Program. During each fiscal year, the Chancellor of the Board of 134943
Regents, within ten days of cancellation, may certify to the 134944
Director of Budget and Management the amount of canceled 134945
prior-year encumbrances in appropriation item 235599, National 134946
Guard Scholarship Program. Upon receipt of the certification, the 134947
Director of Budget and Management may transfer cash in an amount 134948
up to the amount certified from the General Revenue Fund to the 134949
National Guard Scholarship Reserve Fund (Fund 5BM0). The 134950
Chancellor of the Board of Regents shall seek Controlling Board 134951
approval to authorize additional expenditures for appropriation 134952
item 235623, National Guard Scholarship Reserve Fund. Upon 134953
approval of the Controlling Board, the additional amounts are 134954
hereby appropriated. The Chancellor of the Board of Regents shall 134955
disburse funds from appropriation item 235623, National Guard 134956
Scholarship Reserve Fund.134957

       Section 363.460. PLEDGE OF FEES134958

       Any new pledge of fees, or new agreement for adjustment of 134959
fees, made in the biennium ending June 30, 2015, to secure bonds 134960
or notes of a state institution of higher education for a project 134961
for which bonds or notes were not outstanding on the effective 134962
date of this section shall be effective only after approval by the 134963
Chancellor of the Board of Regents, unless approved in a previous 134964
biennium.134965

       Section 363.470. HIGHER EDUCATION GENERAL OBLIGATION DEBT 134966
SERVICE134967

       The foregoing appropriation item 235909, Higher Education 134968
General Obligation Debt Service, shall be used to pay all debt 134969
service and related financing costs at the times they are required 134970
to be made during the period from July 1, 2013, through June 30, 134971
2015, for obligations issued under sections 151.01 and 151.04 of 134972
the Revised Code.134973

       Section 363.480. SALES AND SERVICES134974

        The Chancellor of the Board of Regents is authorized to 134975
charge and accept payment for the provision of goods and services. 134976
Such charges shall be reasonably related to the cost of producing 134977
the goods and services. Except as otherwise provided by law, no 134978
charges may be levied for goods or services that are produced as 134979
part of the routine responsibilities or duties of the Chancellor. 134980
All revenues received by the Chancellor of the Board of Regents 134981
shall be deposited into Fund 4560, and may be used by the 134982
Chancellor of the Board of Regents to pay for the costs of 134983
producing the goods and services.134984

       Section 363.483.  CO-OP INTERNSHIP PROGRAM134985

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 235649, Co-op Internship 134986
Program, $75,000 in each fiscal year shall be used by the 134987
Chancellor of the Board of Regents to support the operations of 134988
Ohio University's Voinovich School.134989

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 235649, Co-op Internship 134990
Program, $75,000 in each fiscal year, shall be used by the 134991
Chancellor of the Board of Regents to support the operations of 134992
The Ohio State University's John Glenn School of Public Affairs.134993

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 235649, Co-op Internship 134994
Program, $75,000 in each fiscal year shall be used to support the 134995
Bliss Institute of Applied Politics at the University of Akron.134996

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 235649, Co-op Internship 134997
Program, $75,000 in each fiscal year shall be used to support the 134998
Center for Public Management and Regional Affairs at Miami 134999
University.135000

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 235649, Co-op Internship 135001
Program, $75,000 in each fiscal year shall be used to support the 135002
Washington Center Internship Program.135003

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 235649, Co-op Internship 135004
Program, $75,000 in each fiscal year shall be used to support the 135005
Ohio Center for the Advancement of Women in Public Service at the 135006
Maxine Goodman Levin College of Urban Affairs at Cleveland State 135007
University.135008

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 235649, Co-op Internship 135009
Program, $75,000 in each fiscal year shall be used to support the 135010
University of Cincinnati Internship Program.135011

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 235649, Co-op Internship 135012
Program, $75,000 in each fiscal year shall be used by the 135013
Chancellor of the Board of Regents to support the operations of 135014
the Center for Regional Development at Bowling Green State 135015
University.135016

        Of the foregoing appropriation item 235649, Co-op Internship 135017
Program, $75,000 in each fiscal year shall be used by the 135018
Chancellor of the Board of Regents to support the operations of 135019
the Institute for Defense Studies at Wright State University.135020

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 235649, Co-op Internship 135021
Program, $75,000 in each fiscal year shall be used to support the 135022
Kent State University Columbus Program.135023

       Section 363.490. HIGHER EDUCATIONAL FACILITY COMMISSION 135024
ADMINISTRATION135025

       The foregoing appropriation item 235602, Higher Educational 135026
Facility Commission Administration, shall be used by the 135027
Chancellor of the Board of Regents for operating expenses related 135028
to the Chancellor of the Board of Regents' support of the 135029
activities of the Ohio Higher Educational Facility Commission. 135030
Upon the request of the Chancellor, the Director of Budget and 135031
Management may transfer up to $29,100 cash in each fiscal year 135032
from the HEFC Operating Expenses Fund (Fund 4610) to the HEFC 135033
Administration Fund (Fund 4E80).135034

       Section 363.500. NURSING LOAN PROGRAM135035

       The foregoing appropriation item 235606, Nursing Loan 135036
Program, shall be used to administer the nurse education 135037
assistance program. Up to $50,000 in each fiscal year may be used 135038
for operating expenses associated with the program. Any additional 135039
funds needed for the administration of the program are subject to 135040
Controlling Board approval.135041

       Section 363.510.  TELECOMMUNITY AND DISTANCE LEARNING135042

        Of the foregoing appropriation item 235674, Telecommunity and 135043
Distance Learning, up to $25,000 in each fiscal year shall be 135044
distributed by the Chancellor of the Board of Regents on a grant 135045
basis to eligible school districts to establish "distance 135046
learning" through interactive video technologies in the school 135047
district. Per agreements with eight Ohio local telephone 135048
companies, ALLTEL Ohio, CENTURY Telephone of Ohio, Chillicothe 135049
Telephone Company, Cincinnati Bell Telephone Company, Orwell 135050
Telephone Company, Sprint North Central Telephone, VERIZON, and 135051
Western Reserve Telephone Company, school districts are eligible 135052
for funds if they are within one of the listed telephone company 135053
service areas. Funds to administer the program shall be expended 135054
by the Chancellor of the Board of Regents up to the amount 135055
specified in the agreements with the listed telephone companies.135056

        Within thirty days after the effective date of this section, 135057
the Director of Budget and Management shall transfer to Fund 4X10 135058
in the State Special Revenue Fund Group any investment earnings 135059
from moneys paid by any telephone company as part of any 135060
settlement agreement between the listed companies and the Public 135061
Utilities Commission in fiscal years 1996 and beyond.135062

        Of the foregoing appropriation item 235674, Telecommunity and 135063
Distance Learning, up to $24,150 in each fiscal year shall be 135064
distributed by the Chancellor of the Board of Regents on a grant 135065
basis to eligible school districts to establish "distance 135066
learning" in the school district. Per an agreement with Ameritech, 135067
school districts are eligible for funds if they are within an 135068
Ameritech service area. Funds to administer the program shall be 135069
expended by the Chancellor of the Board of Regents up to the 135070
amount specified in the agreement with Ameritech.135071

        Within thirty days after the effective date of this section, 135072
the Director of Budget and Management shall transfer to Fund 4X10 135073
in the State Special Revenue Fund Group any investment earnings 135074
from moneys paid by any telephone company as part of a settlement 135075
agreement between the company and the Public Utilities Commission 135076
in fiscal year 1995.135077

       Section 363.520. VETERANS PREFERENCES135078

       The Chancellor of the Board of Regents shall work with the 135079
Department of Veterans Services to develop specific veterans 135080
preference guidelines for higher education institutions. These 135081
guidelines shall ensure that the institutions' hiring practices 135082
are in accordance with the intent of Ohio's veterans preference 135083
laws.135084

       Section 363.530. STATE NEED-BASED FINANCIAL AID 135085
RECONCILIATION135086

       By the first day of August in each fiscal year, or as soon as 135087
possible thereafter, the Chancellor of the Board of Regents shall 135088
certify to the Director of Budget and Management the amount 135089
necessary to pay any outstanding prior year obligations to higher 135090
education institutions for the state's need-based financial aid 135091
programs. The amounts certified are hereby appropriated to 135092
appropriation item 235618, State Need-based Financial Aid 135093
Reconciliation, from revenues received in the State Need-based 135094
Financial Aid Reconciliation Fund (Fund 5Y50).135095

       Section 363.540.  (A) As used in this section:135096

       (1) "Board of trustees" includes the managing authority of a 135097
university branch district.135098

       (2) "State institution of higher education" has the same 135099
meaning as in section 3345.011 of the Revised Code.135100

       (B) The board of trustees of any state institution of higher 135101
education, notwithstanding any rule of the institution to the 135102
contrary, may adopt a policy providing for mandatory furloughs of 135103
employees, including faculty, to achieve spending reductions 135104
necessitated by institutional budget deficits.135105

       Section 363.550. EFFICIENCY ADVISORY COMMITTEE135106

        The Chancellor of the Board of Regents shall establish an 135107
efficiency advisory committee for the purpose of generating 135108
optimal efficiency plans for campuses, identifying shared services 135109
opportunities, and sharing best practices. The efficiency advisory 135110
committee shall also attempt to reduce the cost of textbooks and 135111
other education resource materials. The committee shall meet at 135112
the call of the Chancellor or the Chancellor's designee, but at 135113
least quarterly. Each state institution of higher education shall 135114
designate an employee to serve as its efficiency officer 135115
responsible for the evaluation and improvement of operational 135116
efficiencies on campus. Each efficiency officer shall serve on the 135117
efficiency advisory committee.135118

       By December 31 of each year, the Efficiency Advisory 135119
Committee shall provide a report to the Office of Budget and 135120
Management, the Governor, and the General Assembly compiling the 135121
operational efficiency plans for all institutions of higher 135122
education and benchmarking efficiency gains realized over the 135123
preceding year and progress in implementing the prior year's 135124
efficiency plan. The report shall also be made available to the 135125
public on the Ohio Board of Regents web site. 135126

       Section 363.570. (A) FUND ABOLITION135127

       On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 135128
Director of Budget and Management shall transfer the cash balance 135129
in the eTech Ohio Telecommunity Education Fund (Fund 4W90) to the 135130
Distance Learning Fund (Fund 4X10). Upon completion of the 135131
transfer, the eTech Ohio Telecommunity Education Fund (Fund 135132
4W90)is hereby abolished.135133

       (B) ETECH OHIO COMMISSION ABOLISHMENT AND APPROPRIATION LINE 135134
ITEM TRANSFER135135

       Effective July 1, 2013, the Director of Budget and Management 135136
shall cancel any existing encumbrances against appropriation item 135137
935411, Technology Integration and Professional Development, and 135138
re-establish them, as determined to be appropriate by the Director 135139
of Budget and Management, against appropriation item 235483, 135140
Technology Integration and Professional Development. The 135141
re-established encumbrance amounts are hereby appropriated. Any 135142
business commenced but not completed under appropriation item 135143
935411, Technology Integration and Professional Development, by 135144
July 1, 2013, shall be completed, as determined to be appropriate 135145
by the Director of Budget and Management, under appropriation item 135146
235483, Technology Integration and Professional Development, in 135147
the same manner and with the same effect as if it were completed 135148
with regard to appropriation item 935411, Technology Integration 135149
and Professional Development. 135150

       Effective July 1, 2013, the Director of Budget and Management 135151
shall cancel any existing encumbrances against appropriation item 135152
935608, Media Services, and re-establish them against 135153
appropriation item 235676, Media Services. The re-established 135154
encumbrance amounts are hereby appropriated. Any business 135155
commenced but not completed under appropriation item 935608, Media 135156
Services, by July 1, 2013, shall be completed under appropriation 135157
item 235676, Media Services, in the same manner and with the same 135158
effect as if it were completed with regard to appropriation item 135159
935608, Media Services. 135160

       Effective July 1, 2013, the Director of Budget and Management 135161
shall cancel any existing encumbrances against appropriation item 135162
935640, Conference/Special Purposes, and re-establish them against 135163
appropriation item 235675, Conference/Special Purposes. The 135164
re-established encumbrance amounts are hereby appropriated. Any 135165
business commenced but not completed under appropriation item 135166
935640, Conference/Special Purposes, by July 1, 2013, shall be 135167
completed under appropriation item 235675, Conference/Special 135168
Purposes, in the same manner and with the same effect as if it 135169
were completed with regard to appropriation item 935640, 135170
Conference/Special Purposes. 135171

       Effective July 1, 2013, the Director of Budget and Management 135172
shall cancel any existing encumbrances against appropriation item 135173
935630, Telecommunity, and cancel any existing encumbrances 135174
against appropriation item 935634, Distance Learning, and 135175
re-establish them against appropriation item 235674, Telecommunity 135176
and Distance Learning. The re-established encumbrance amounts are 135177
hereby appropriated. Any business commenced but not completed 135178
under appropriation items 935630, Telecommunity, and 935634, 135179
Distance Learning, by July 1, 2013, shall be completed under 135180
appropriation item 235674, Telecommunity and Distance Learning, in 135181
the same manner and with the same effect as if it were completed 135182
with regard to appropriation items 935630, Telecommunity, and 135183
935634, Distance Learning. 135184

       On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 135185
Director of Budget and Management shall cancel any existing 135186
capital appropriations and capital encumbrances of the former 135187
eTech Ohio Commission in the Higher Education Improvement Fund 135188
(Fund 7034), and re-establish them with the Chancellor of the 135189
Board of Regents in the Higher Education Improvement Fund (Fund 135190
7034). The re-established amounts are hereby appropriated. 135191

       Effective July 1, 2013, notwithstanding any provision of the 135192
law to the contrary, the Director of Budget and Management may 135193
make budget changes made necessary by the transfer of the former 135194
eTech Ohio Commission to the Chancellor of the Board of Regents, 135195
if any, including administrative organization, program transfers, 135196
the creation of new funds, the transfer of state funds, the 135197
consolidation of funds, and the transfer of capital 135198
appropriations, as authorized by this section. The Director of 135199
Budget and Management may, if necessary, establish prior year 135200
encumbrances or parts of prior year encumbrances of the former 135201
eTech Ohio Commission with the Chancellor of the Board of Regents 135202
in the appropriate fund and appropriation item for the same 135203
purpose and for payment to the same vendor in fiscal year 2014 or 135204
fiscal year 2015. The established encumbrances plus any additional 135205
amounts determined to be necessary for the Chancellor of the Board 135206
of Regents to perform the operations and related management 135207
functions of the former eTech Ohio Commission are hereby 135208
appropriated.135209

       (C) CONFERENCE OPERATION OFFICE135210

       Beginning in fiscal year 2014, the annual eTech Ohio 135211
Conference will be overseen by a Conference Operation Office 135212
comprised of employees of the Chancellor of the Board of Regents 135213
and Department of Education, including former employees of the 135214
eTech Ohio Commission transferred to the Chancellor of the Board 135215
of Regents and the Department of Education. The Office shall be 135216
responsible for conferences that focus on professional development 135217
in the education field, educational technology, distance learning, 135218
and other education topics pertinent to the State of Ohio.135219

       (D) ETECH ABOLISHMENT135220

       On and after July 1, 2013, the eTech Ohio Commission is 135221
hereby abolished and its duties, personnel, assets, and 135222
liabilities are transferred as provided in divisions (F) and (G) 135223
of this section.135224

       (E) TRANSFER OF CAPITAL DUTIES135225

       As of July 1, 2013, the Chancellor of the Board of Regents 135226
shall succeed to and have and perform all fiduciary duties and 135227
responsibilities previously held by the Director of eTech Ohio for 135228
all outstanding capital appropriations designated for use by eTech 135229
Ohio.135230

       Section 363.580. ELECTRONIC TEXTBOOK PILOT PROJECT 135231

       (A) The Electronic Textbook Pilot Project is hereby 135232
established to provide grants on a competitive basis to public and 135233
chartered nonpublic schools to purchase electronic textbooks 135234
through the learning clearinghouse established in section 3333.81 135235
to 3333.88. The Electronic Textbook Pilot Project shall be 135236
administered by the Chancellor of the Board of Regents.135237

       (B) The Chancellor shall have the authority to set the grant 135238
criteria and to select grant recipients. In awarding grants under 135239
this section, the Chancellor shall establish the criteria for 135240
determining which applicants will be considered a priority for 135241
receiving grant funds.135242

        (C) Not later than January 31, 2014, the Chancellor shall 135243
issue a request for proposals from eligible schools.135244

        (D) Not later than May 31, 2014, the Chancellor shall award 135245
grants for use during the 2014-2015 school year.135246

        (E) The Chancellor and Superintendent of Public Instruction 135247
jointly shall notify schools of and promote participation in the 135248
pilot project.135249

        (F) Not later than December 31, 2015, the Chancellor shall 135250
submit to the Governor and the General Assembly, in accordance 135251
with section 101.68 of the Revised Code, a formative evaluation of 135252
the implementation and results of the pilot project and 135253
legislative recommendations for any changes in the pilot project.135254

       (G) The number of grants awarded under this section shall not 135255
exceed the number that can be funded with appropriations made by 135256
the General Assembly for this purpose.135257

       Section 365.10. DRC DEPARTMENT OF REHABILITATION AND 135258
CORRECTION135259

General Revenue Fund135260

GRF 501321 Institutional Operations $ 883,768,015 $ 873,724,802 135261
GRF 501403 Prisoner Compensation $ 6,000,000 $ 6,000,000 135262
GRF 501405 Halfway House $ 45,049,356 $ 46,024,108 135263
GRF 501406 Lease Rental Payments $ 104,099,500 $ 99,534,800 135264
GRF 501407 Community Nonresidential Programs $ 34,187,858 $ 34,314,390 135265
GRF 501408 Community Misdemeanor Programs $ 12,856,800 $ 12,856,800 135266
GRF 501501 Community Residential Programs - CBCF $ 63,345,972 $ 66,150,781 135267
GRF 503321 Parole and Community Operations $ 64,480,938 $ 65,029,680 135268
GRF 504321 Administrative Operations $ 20,659,664 $ 20,907,476 135269
GRF 505321 Institution Medical Services $ 243,289,774 $ 254,139,452 135270
GRF 506321 Institution Education Services $ 19,102,051 $ 19,112,418 135271
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 1,496,839,928 $ 1,497,794,707 135272

General Services Fund Group135273

1480 501602 Institutional Services $ 3,139,577 $ 3,139,577 135274
2000 501607 Ohio Penal Industries $ 41,393,226 $ 40,609,872 135275
4830 501605 Property Receipts $ 582,086 $ 582,086 135276
4B00 501601 Sewer Treatment Services $ 2,023,671 $ 2,067,214 135277
4D40 501603 Prisoner Programs $ 17,499,255 $ 17,499,255 135278
4L40 501604 Transitional Control $ 1,113,120 $ 1,113,120 135279
4S50 501608 Education Services $ 4,114,782 $ 4,114,782 135280
5710 501606 Training Academy Receipts $ 125,000 $ 125,000 135281
5930 501618 Laboratory Services $ 3,750,000 $ 0 135282
5AF0 501609 State and Non-Federal Awards $ 1,440,000 $ 1,440,000 135283
5H80 501617 Offender Financial Responsibility $ 2,000,000 $ 2,000,000 135284
5L60 501611 Information Technology Services $ 250,000 $ 250,000 135285
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 77,430,717 $ 72,940,906 135286

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group135287

3230 501619 Federal Grants $ 7,132,943 $ 7,132,943 135288
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 135289
Fund Group $ 7,132,943 $ 7,132,943 135290

TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 1,581,403,588 $ 1,577,868,556 135291

       TRANSFER OF OPERATING APPROPRIATIONS TO IMPLEMENT CRIMINAL 135292
SENTENCING REFORMS135293

       For the purposes of implementing criminal sentencing reforms, 135294
and notwithstanding any other provision of law to the contrary, 135295
the Director of Budget and Management, at the request of the 135296
Director of Rehabilitation and Correction, may transfer up to 135297
$14,000,000 in appropriations, in each of fiscal years 2014 and 135298
2015, from appropriation item 501321, Institutional Operations, to 135299
any combination of appropriation items 501405, Halfway House; 135300
501407, Community Residential Programs; 501408, Community 135301
Misdemeanor Programs; and 501501, Community Residential Programs - 135302
CBCF.135303

       LEASE RENTAL PAYMENTS135304

       The foregoing appropriation item 501406, Lease Rental 135305
Payments, shall be used to meet all payments at the times they are 135306
required to be made during the period from July 1, 2013, through 135307
June 30, 2015, by the Department of Rehabilitation and Correction 135308
under the primary leases and agreements for those buildings made 135309
under Chapters 152. and 154. of the Revised Code. These 135310
appropriations are the source of funds pledged for bond service 135311
charges on related obligations issued under Chapters 152. and 154. 135312
of the Revised Code.135313

        OSU MEDICAL CHARGES135314

        Notwithstanding section 341.192 of the Revised Code, at the 135315
request of the Department of Rehabilitation and Correction, The 135316
Ohio State University Medical Center, including the Arthur G. 135317
James Cancer Hospital and Richard J. Solove Research Institute and 135318
the Richard M. Ross Heart Hospital, shall provide necessary care 135319
to persons who are confined in state adult correctional 135320
facilities. The provision of necessary care shall be billed to the 135321
Department at a rate not to exceed the authorized reimbursement 135322
rate for the same service established by the Department of 135323
Medicaid under the Medicaid Program.135324

       CORRECTIVE CASH TRANSFER135325

       At the request of the Director of Rehabilitation and 135326
Correction, the Director of Budget and Management may transfer an 135327
amount not to exceed $2,391 in cash that was mistakenly deposited 135328
in the Federal Grants Fund (Fund 3230) to the General Revenue 135329
Fund.135330

       Section 369.10. RCB RESPIRATORY CARE BOARD135331

General Services Fund Group135332

4K90 872609 Operating Expenses $ 547,576 $ 542,246 135333
TOTAL GSF General Services 135334
Fund Group $ 547,576 $ 542,246 135335
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 547,576 $ 542,246 135336


       Section 371.10. RDF REVENUE DISTRIBUTION FUNDS135338

Special State Revenue Fund Group135339

5JG0 110633 Gross Casino Revenue County Fund $ 158,005,325 $ 168,977,942 135340
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue Fund Group $ 158,005,325 $ 168,977,942 135341

Volunteer Firefighters' Dependents Fund135342

7085 800985 Volunteer Firemen's Dependents Fund $ 300,000 $ 300,000 135343
TOTAL 085 Volunteer Firefighters' 135344
Dependents Fund $ 300,000 $ 300,000 135345

Agency Fund Group135346

4P80 001698 Cash Management Improvement Fund $ 3,100,000 $ 3,100,000 135347
5JH0 110634 Gross Casino Revenue County Student Fund $ 105,336,883 $ 112,651,961 135348
5JJ0 110636 Gross Casino Revenue Host City Fund $ 15,490,718 $ 16,566,465 135349
6080 001699 Investment Earnings $ 30,000,000 $ 30,000,000 135350
7062 110962 Resort Area Excise Tax $ 1,000,000 $ 1,000,000 135351
7063 110963 Permissive Tax Distribution $ 2,066,331,400 $ 2,151,135,100 135352
7067 110967 School District Income Tax $ 346,669,300 $ 365,277,800 135353
7099 762902 Permissive Tax Distribution - Auto Registration $ 184,000,000 $ 184,000,000 135354
TOTAL AGY Agency Fund Group $ 2,751,928,301 $ 2,863,731,326 135355

Holding Account Redistribution135356

R045 110617 International Fuel Tax Distribution $ 40,000,000 $ 40,000,000 135357
TOTAL 090 Holding Account Redistribution Fund $ 40,000,000 $ 40,000,000 135358
Revenue Distribution Fund Group 135359
7049 335900 Indigent Drivers Alcohol Treatment $ 2,250,000 $ 2,250,000 135360
7050 762900 International Registration Plan Distribution $ 30,000,000 $ 30,000,000 135361
7051 762901 Auto Registration Distribution $ 360,000,000 $ 360,000,000 135362
7054 110954 Local Government Property Tax Replacement - Utility $ 5,649,000 $ 5,649,000 135363
7060 110960 Gasoline Excise Tax Fund $ 395,000,000 $ 395,000,000 135364
7065 110965 Public Library Fund $ 359,300,000 $ 369,000,000 135365
7066 800966 Undivided Liquor Permits $ 14,100,000 $ 14,100,000 135366
7068 110968 State and Local Government Highway Distribution $ 196,000,000 $ 196,000,000 135367
7069 110969 Local Government Fund $ 363,600,000 $ 376,400,000 135368
7081 110981 Local Government Property Tax Replacement-Business $ 146,500,000 $ 107,900,000 135369
7082 110982 Horse Racing Tax $ 100,000 $ 100,000 135370
7083 700900 Ohio Fairs Fund $ 1,400,000 $ 1,400,000 135371
TOTAL RDF Revenue Distribution 135372
Fund Group $ 1,873,899,000 $ 1,857,799,000 135373
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 4,824,132,626 $ 4,930,808,268 135374

       ADDITIONAL APPROPRIATIONS135375

       Appropriation items in this section shall be used for the 135376
purpose of administering and distributing the designated revenue 135377
distribution funds according to the Revised Code. If it is 135378
determined that additional appropriations are necessary for this 135379
purpose, such amounts are hereby appropriated.135380

       GENERAL REVENUE FUND TRANSFERS135381

        Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, in 135382
fiscal year 2014 and fiscal year 2015, the Director of Budget and 135383
Management may transfer from the General Revenue Fund to the Local 135384
Government Tangible Property Tax Replacement Fund (Fund 7081) in 135385
the Revenue Distribution Fund Group, those amounts necessary to 135386
reimburse local taxing units under section 5751.22 of the Revised 135387
Code. Also, in fiscal year 2014 and fiscal year 2015, the Director 135388
of Budget and Management may make temporary transfers from the 135389
General Revenue Fund to ensure sufficient balances in the Local 135390
Government Tangible Property Tax Replacement Fund (Fund 7081) and 135391
to replenish the General Revenue Fund for such transfers.135392

       Section 373.10. SAN BOARD OF SANITARIAN REGISTRATION135393

General Services Fund Group135394

4K90 893609 Operating Expenses $ 137,850 $ 129,850 135395
TOTAL GSF General Services 135396
Fund Group $ 137,850 $ 129,850 135397
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 137,850 $ 129,850 135398


       Section 375.10. OSB OHIO STATE SCHOOL FOR THE BLIND135400

General Revenue Fund135401

GRF 226321 Operations $ 7,278,579 $ 7,278,579 135402
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 7,278,579 $ 7,278,579 135403

General Services Fund Group135404

4H80 226602 Education Reform Grants $ 27,000 $ 27,000 135405
TOTAL GSF General Services 135406
Fund Group $ 27,000 $ 27,000 135407

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group135408

3100 226626 Coordinating Unit $ 2,527,104 $ 2,527,104 135409
3DT0 226621 Ohio Transition Collaborative $ 650,000 $ 650,000 135410
3P50 226643 Medicaid Professional Services Reimbursement $ 50,000 $ 50,000 135411
TOTAL FED Federal Special 135412
Revenue Fund Group $ 3,227,104 $ 3,227,104 135413

State Special Revenue Fund Group135414

4M50 226601 Work Study and Technology Investment $ 461,521 $ 461,521 135415
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 135416
Fund Group $ 461,521 $ 461,521 135417
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 10,994,204 $ 10,994,204 135418


       Section 377.10. OSD OHIO SCHOOL FOR THE DEAF135420

General Revenue Fund135421

GRF 221321 Operations $ 8,727,657 $ 8,727,657 135422
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 8,727,657 $ 8,727,657 135423

General Services Fund Group135424

4M10 221602 Education Reform Grants $ 35,000 $ 35,000 135425
TOTAL GSF General Services 135426
Fund Group $ 35,000 $ 35,000 135427

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group135428

3110 221625 Coordinating Unit $ 2,153,245 $ 2,153,245 135429
3R00 221684 Medicaid Professional Services Reimbursement $ 35,000 $ 35,000 135430
TOTAL FED Federal Special 135431
Revenue Fund Group $ 2,188,245 $ 2,188,245 135432

State Special Revenue Fund Group135433

4M00 221601 Educational Program Expenses $ 95,000 $ 95,000 135434
5H60 221609 Even Start Fees and Gifts $ 35,000 $ 35,000 135435
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 135436
Fund Group $ 130,000 $ 130,000 135437
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 11,080,902 $ 11,080,902 135438


       Section 381.10. SOS SECRETARY OF STATE135440

General Revenue Fund135441

GRF 050321 Operating Expenses $ 2,144,030 $ 2,144,030 135442
GRF 050407 Pollworkers Training $ 234,196 $ 234,196 135443
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 2,378,226 $ 2,378,226 135444

General Services Fund Group135445

4120 050609 Notary Commission $ 475,000 $ 475,000 135446
4130 050601 Information Systems $ 49,000 $ 49,000 135447
4S80 050610 Board of Voting Machine Examiners $ 7,200 $ 7,200 135448
5FG0 050620 BOE Reimbursement and Education $ 80,000 $ 80,000 135449
TOTAL General Services Fund Group $ 611,200 $ 611,200 135450

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group135451

3AH0 050614 Election Reform/Health and Human Services $ 300,000 $ 300,000 135452
3AS0 050616 Help America Vote Act (HAVA) $ 1,710,000 $ 1,710,000 135453
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 135454
Fund Group $ 2,010,000 $ 2,010,000 135455

State Special Revenue Fund Group135456

5990 050603 Business Services Operating Expenses $ 14,385,400 $ 14,385,400 135457
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 135458
Fund Group $ 14,385,400 $ 14,385,400 135459

Holding Account Redistribution Fund Group135460

R001 050605 Uniform Commercial Code Refunds $ 30,000 $ 30,000 135461
R002 050606 Corporate/Business Filing Refunds $ 85,000 $ 85,000 135462
TOTAL 090 Holding Account 135463
Redistribution Fund Group $ 115,000 $ 115,000 135464
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 19,499,826 $ 19,499,826 135465

       POLLWORKER TRAINING135466

       The foregoing appropriation item 050407, Pollworkers 135467
Training, shall be used to reimburse county boards of elections 135468
for pollworker training pursuant to section 3501.27 of the Revised 135469
Code. At the end of fiscal year 2014, an amount equal to the 135470
unexpended, unencumbered portion of appropriation item 050407, 135471
Pollworkers Training, is hereby reappropriated in fiscal year 2015 135472
for the same purpose.135473

       BOARD OF VOTING MACHINE EXAMINERS135474

       The foregoing appropriation item 050610, Board of Voting 135475
Machine Examiners, shall be used to pay for the services and 135476
expenses of the members of the Board of Voting Machine Examiners, 135477
and for other expenses that are authorized to be paid from the 135478
Board of Voting Machine Examiners Fund, which is created in 135479
section 3506.05 of the Revised Code. Moneys not used shall be 135480
returned to the person or entity submitting equipment for 135481
examination. If it is determined that additional appropriations 135482
are necessary, such amounts are hereby appropriated.135483

       HAVA FUNDS135484

        An amount equal to the unexpended, unencumbered portion of 135485
appropriation item 050614, Election Reform/Health and Human 135486
Services, at the end of fiscal year 2014 is reappropriated for the 135487
same purpose in fiscal year 2015.135488

       An amount equal to the unexpended, unencumbered portion of 135489
appropriation item 050616, Help America Vote Act (HAVA), at the 135490
end of fiscal year 2014 is reappropriated for the same purpose in 135491
fiscal year 2015.135492

       The Director of Budget and Management shall credit the 135493
ongoing interest earnings from the Election Reform/Health and 135494
Human Services Fund (Fund 3AH0) and the Help America Vote Act 135495
(HAVA) (Fund 3AS0) to the respective funds and distribute these 135496
earnings in accordance with the terms of the grant under which the 135497
money is received.135498

       MISCELLANEOUS FEDERAL GRANTS135499

       On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 135500
Director of Budget and Management shall transfer from the General 135501
Revenue Fund (GRF) all investment earnings and amounts equal to 135502
the interest earnings that were attributable to the Miscellaneous 135503
Federal Grants Fund (Fund 3FM0) in each quarter of fiscal year 135504
2013. The Director of Budget and Management shall credit the 135505
ongoing interest earnings from Fund 3FM0 to that fund and 135506
distribute these earnings in accordance with the terms of the 135507
grant under which the money was received.135508

       HOLDING ACCOUNT REDISTRIBUTION GROUP135509

       The foregoing appropriation items 050605, Uniform Commercial 135510
Code Refunds, and 050606, Corporate/Business Filing Refunds, shall 135511
be used to hold revenues until they are directed to the 135512
appropriate accounts or until they are refunded. If it is 135513
determined that additional appropriations are necessary, such 135514
amounts are hereby appropriated.135515

       Section 383.10. SEN THE OHIO SENATE135516

General Revenue Fund135517

GRF 020321 Operating Expenses $ 11,947,822 $ 11,947,822 135518
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 11,947,822 $ 11,947,822 135519

General Services Fund Group135520

1020 020602 Senate Reimbursement $ 852,001 $ 852,001 135521
4090 020601 Miscellaneous Sales $ 34,497 $ 34,497 135522
TOTAL GSF General Services 135523
Fund Group $ 886,498 $ 886,498 135524
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 12,834,320 $ 12,834,320 135525

       OPERATING EXPENSES135526

       On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the Clerk 135527
of the Senate may certify to the Director of Budget and Management 135528
the amount of the unexpended, unencumbered balance of the 135529
foregoing appropriation item 020321, Operating Expenses, at the 135530
end of fiscal year 2013 to be reappropriated to fiscal year 2014. 135531
The amount certified is hereby reappropriated to the same 135532
appropriation item for fiscal year 2014.135533

        On July 1, 2014, or as soon as possible thereafter, the Clerk 135534
of the Senate may certify to the Director of Budget and Management 135535
the amount of the unexpended, unencumbered balance of the 135536
foregoing appropriation item 020321, Operating Expenses, at the 135537
end of fiscal year 2014 to be reappropriated to fiscal year 2015. 135538
The amount certified is hereby reappropriated to the same 135539
appropriation item for fiscal year 2015.135540

       Section 385.10. CSV COMMISSION ON SERVICE AND VOLUNTEERISM135541

General Revenue Fund135542

GRF 866321 CSV Operations $ 286,661 $ 294,072 135543
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 286,661 $ 294,072 135544

General Services Fund135545

5GN0 866605 Serve Ohio Support $ 30,000 $ 30,000 135546
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund $ 30,000 $ 30,000 135547

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group135548

3R70 866617 AmeriCorps Programs $ 7,447,000 $ 7,447,000 135549
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 135550
Fund Group $ 7,447,000 $ 7,447,000 135551
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 7,763,661 $ 7,771,072 135552


       Section 387.10. CSF COMMISSIONERS OF THE SINKING FUND135554

Debt Service Fund Group135555

7070 155905 Third Frontier Research and Development Bond Retirement Fund $ 66,511,600 $ 83,783,000 135556
7072 155902 Highway Capital Improvement Bond Retirement Fund $ 132,647,900 $ 127,171,800 135557
7073 155903 Natural Resources Bond Retirement Fund $ 24,325,400 $ 25,443,000 135558
7074 155904 Conservation Projects Bond Retirement Fund $ 33,376,600 $ 34,447,700 135559
7076 155906 Coal Research and Development Bond Retirement Fund $ 2,858,900 $ 4,327,200 135560
7077 155907 State Capital Improvement Bond Retirement Fund $ 227,810,300 $ 228,948,900 135561
7078 155908 Common Schools Bond Retirement Fund $ 351,806,100 $ 377,364,700 135562
7079 155909 Higher Education Bond Retirement Fund $ 221,168,700 $ 248,822,000 135563
7080 155901 Persian Gulf, Afghanistan, and Iraq Conflicts Bond Retirement Fund $ 7,542,600 $ 9,914,800 135564
7090 155912 Job Ready Site Development Bond Retirement Fund $ 15,498,400 $ 19,124,500 135565
TOTAL DSF Debt Service Fund Group $ 1,083,546,500 $ 1,159,347,600 135566
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 1,083,546,500 $ 1,159,347,600 135567

       ADDITIONAL APPROPRIATIONS135568

       Appropriation items in this section are for the purpose of 135569
paying debt service and financing costs on bonds or notes of the 135570
state issued under the Ohio Constitution and acts of the General 135571
Assembly. If it is determined that additional amounts are 135572
necessary for this purpose, such amounts are hereby appropriated.135573

       Section 389.10. SOA SOUTHERN OHIO AGRICULTURAL AND COMMUNITY 135574
DEVELOPMENT FOUNDATION135575

Tobacco Master Settlement Agreement Fund Group135576

5M90 945601 Operating Expenses $ 426,800 $ 426,800 135577
TOTAL TMF Tobacco Master Settlement Agreement Fund Group $ 426,800 $ 426,800 135578
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 426,800 $ 426,800 135579


       Section 391.10. SPE BOARD OF SPEECH-LANGUAGE PATHOLOGY & 135581
AUDIOLOGY135582

General Services Fund Group135583

4K90 886609 Operating Expenses $ 472,260 $ 508,660 135584
TOTAL GSF General Services 135585
Fund Group $ 472,260 $ 508,660 135586
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 427,260 $ 508,660 135587


       Section 393.10. BTA BOARD OF TAX APPEALS135589

General Revenue Fund135590

GRF 116321 Operating Expenses $ 1,700,000 $ 1,700,000 135591
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 1,700,000 $ 1,700,000 135592
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 1,700,000 $ 1,700,000 135593


       Section 395.10. TAX DEPARTMENT OF TAXATION135595

General Revenue Fund135596

GRF 110321 Operating Expenses $ 71,068,330 $ 67,968,332 135597
GRF 110404 Tobacco Settlement Enforcement $ 178,200 $ 178,200 135598
GRF 110901 Property Tax Allocation - Taxation $ 666,640,000 $ 693,305,600 135599
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 737,886,530 $ 761,452,132 135600

General Services Fund Group135601

2280 110628 Revenue Enhancement $ 15,500,000 $ 17,500,000 135602
4330 110602 Tape File Account $ 175,000 $ 175,000 135603
5BP0 110639 Wireless 9-1-1 Administration $ 290,000 $ 290,000 135604
5CZ0 110631 Vendor's License Application $ 250,000 $ 250,000 135605
5MN0 110638 STARS Development and Implementation $ 5,000,000 $ 3,000,000 135606
5N50 110605 Municipal Income Tax Administration $ 150,000 $ 150,000 135607
5N60 110618 Kilowatt Hour Tax Administration $ 100,000 $ 100,000 135608
5V80 110623 Property Tax Administration $ 11,978,310 $ 11,978,310 135609
5W70 110627 Exempt Facility Administration $ 49,500 $ 49,500 135610
TOTAL GSF General Services 135611
Fund Group $ 33,492,810 $ 33,492,810 135612

State Special Revenue Fund Group135613

4350 110607 Local Tax Administration $ 20,000,000 $ 20,700,000 135614
4360 110608 Motor Vehicle Audit $ 1,459,609 $ 1,459,609 135615
4370 110606 Income Tax Contribution $ 38,800 $ 38,800 135616
4380 110609 School District Income Tax $ 5,802,044 $ 5,802,044 135617
4C60 110616 International Registration Plan $ 682,415 $ 682,415 135618
4R60 110610 Tire Tax Administration $ 244,193 $ 244,193 135619
5V70 110622 Motor Fuel Tax Administration $ 5,035,374 $ 5,035,374 135620
6390 110614 Cigarette Tax Enforcement $ 1,750,000 $ 1,750,000 135621
6420 110613 Ohio Political Party Distributions $ 500,000 $ 500,000 135622
6880 110615 Local Excise Tax Administration $ 775,015 $ 775,015 135623
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 135624
Fund Group $ 36,287,450 $ 36,987,450 135625

Agency Fund Group135626

4250 110635 Tax Refunds $ 1,546,800,000 $ 1,546,800,000 135627
7095 110995 Municipal Income Tax $ 21,000,000 $ 21,000,000 135628
TOTAL AGY Agency Fund Group $ 1,567,800,000 $ 1,567,800,000 135629

Holding Account Redistribution Fund Group135630

R010 110611 Tax Distributions $ 50,000 $ 50,000 135631
R011 110612 Miscellaneous Income Tax Receipts $ 50,000 $ 50,000 135632
TOTAL 090 Holding Account 135633
Redistribution Fund Group $ 100,000 $ 100,000 135634
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 2,375,566,790 $ 2,399,832,392 135635

       HOMESTEAD EXEMPTION, PROPERTY TAX ROLLBACK135636

       The foregoing appropriation item 110901, Property Tax 135637
Allocation - Taxation, is hereby appropriated to pay for the 135638
state's costs incurred due to the Homestead Exemption, the 135639
Manufactured Home Property Tax Rollback, and the Property Tax 135640
Rollback. The Tax Commissioner shall distribute these funds 135641
directly to the appropriate local taxing districts, except for 135642
school districts, notwithstanding the provisions in sections 135643
321.24 and 323.156 of the Revised Code, which provide for payment 135644
of the Homestead Exemption, the Manufactured Home Property Tax 135645
Rollback, and Property Tax Rollback by the Tax Commissioner to the 135646
appropriate county treasurer and the subsequent redistribution of 135647
these funds to the appropriate local taxing districts by the 135648
county auditor.135649

       Upon receipt of these amounts, each local taxing district 135650
shall distribute the amount among the proper funds as if it had 135651
been paid as real property taxes. Payments for the costs of 135652
administration shall continue to be paid to the county treasurer 135653
and county auditor as provided for in sections 319.54, 321.26, and 135654
323.156 of the Revised Code.135655

       Any sums, in addition to the amounts specifically 135656
appropriated in appropriation item 110901, Property Tax Allocation 135657
- Taxation, for the Homestead Exemption, the Manufactured Home 135658
Property Tax Rollback, and the Property Tax Rollback payments, 135659
which are determined to be necessary for these purposes, are 135660
hereby appropriated.135661

       MUNICIPAL INCOME TAX135662

       The foregoing appropriation item 110995, Municipal Income 135663
Tax, shall be used to make payments to municipal corporations 135664
under section 5745.05 of the Revised Code. If it is determined 135665
that additional appropriations are necessary to make such 135666
payments, such amounts are hereby appropriated.135667

       TAX REFUNDS135668

       The foregoing appropriation item 110635, Tax Refunds, shall 135669
be used to pay refunds under section 5703.052 of the Revised Code. 135670
If it is determined that additional appropriations are necessary 135671
for this purpose, such amounts are hereby appropriated.135672

       INTERNATIONAL REGISTRATION PLAN AUDIT135673

       The foregoing appropriation item 110616, International 135674
Registration Plan, shall be used under section 5703.12 of the 135675
Revised Code for audits of persons with vehicles registered under 135676
the International Registration Plan.135677

       TRAVEL EXPENSES FOR THE STREAMLINED SALES TAX PROJECT135678

        Of the foregoing appropriation item 110607, Local Tax 135679
Administration, the Tax Commissioner may disburse funds, if 135680
available, for the purposes of paying travel expenses incurred by 135681
members of Ohio's delegation to the Streamlined Sales Tax Project, 135682
as appointed under section 5740.02 of the Revised Code. Any travel 135683
expense reimbursement paid for by the Department of Taxation shall 135684
be done in accordance with applicable state laws and guidelines.135685

       TOBACCO SETTLEMENT ENFORCEMENT135686

       The foregoing appropriation item 110404, Tobacco Settlement 135687
Enforcement, shall be used by the Tax Commissioner to pay costs 135688
incurred in the enforcement of divisions (F) and (G) of section 135689
5743.03 of the Revised Code.135690

       STARS DEVELOPMENT AND IMPLEMENTATION FUND135691

       The foregoing appropriation item 110638, STARS Development 135692
and Implementation Fund, shall be used to pay costs incurred in 135693
the development and implementation of the department's State Tax 135694
Accounting and Revenue System. The Director of Budget and 135695
Management, under a plan submitted by the Tax Commissioner, or as 135696
otherwise determined by the Director of Budget and Management, 135697
shall set a schedule to transfer cash from the Tax Reform System 135698
Implementation Fund, Local Tax Administration Fund, School 135699
District Income Tax Fund, Discovery Project Fund, and the Motor 135700
Fuel Tax Administration Fund to the credit of the STARS 135701
Development and Implementation Fund (Fund 5MN0). The transfers of 135702
cash shall not exceed $8,000,000 in the biennium.135703

       Section 397.10. DOT DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION135704

General Revenue Fund135705

GRF 775451 Public Transportation - State $ 7,300,000 $ 7,300,000 135706
GRF 776465 Ohio Rail Development Commission $ 2,000,000 $ 2,000,000 135707
GRF 777471 Airport Improvements - State $ 750,000 $ 750,000 135708
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 10,050,000 $ 10,050,000 135709
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 10,050,000 $ 10,050,000 135710


       Section 399.10. TOS TREASURER OF STATE135712

General Revenue Fund135713

GRF 090321 Operating Expenses $ 7,743,553 $ 7,743,553 135714
GRF 090401 Office of the Sinking Fund $ 502,304 $ 502,304 135715
GRF 090402 Continuing Education $ 377,702 $ 377,702 135716
GRF 090524 Police and Fire Disability Pension Fund $ 6,000 $ 6,000 135717
GRF 090534 Police and Fire Ad Hoc Cost of Living $ 70,000 $ 70,000 135718
GRF 090554 Police and Fire Survivor Benefits $ 507,000 $ 507,000 135719
GRF 090575 Police and Fire Death Benefits $ 20,000,000 $ 20,000,000 135720
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 29,206,559 $ 29,206,559 135721

General Services Fund Group135722

4E90 090603 Securities Lending Income $ 3,765,000 $ 3,765,000 135723
5770 090605 Investment Pool Reimbursement $ 850,000 $ 850,000 135724
5C50 090602 County Treasurer Education $ 170,057 $ 170,057 135725
6050 090609 Treasurer of State Administrative Fund $ 835,000 $ 835,000 135726
TOTAL GSF General Services 135727
Fund Group $ 5,620,057 $ 5,620,057 135728

Agency Fund Group135729

4250 090635 Tax Refunds $ 6,000,000 $ 6,000,000 135730
TOTAL Agency Fund Group $ 6,000,000 $ 6,000,000 135731
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 40,826,616 $ 40,826,616 135732


       Section 399.20. OFFICE OF THE SINKING FUND135734

       The foregoing appropriation item 090401, Office of the 135735
Sinking Fund, shall be used for costs incurred by or on behalf of 135736
the Commissioners of the Sinking Fund and the Ohio Public 135737
Facilities Commission with respect to State of Ohio general 135738
obligation bonds or notes, and the Treasurer of State with respect 135739
to State of Ohio general obligation and special obligation bonds 135740
or notes, including, but not limited to, printing, advertising, 135741
delivery, rating fees and the procurement of ratings, professional 135742
publications, membership in professional organizations, and other 135743
services referred to in division (D) of section 151.01 of the 135744
Revised Code. The General Revenue Fund shall be reimbursed for 135745
such costs relating to the issuance and administration of Highway 135746
Capital Improvement bonds or notes authorized under Ohio 135747
Constitution, Article VIII, Section 2m and Chapter 151. of the 135748
Revised Code. That reimbursement shall be made from appropriation 135749
item 155902, Highway Capital Improvement Bond Retirement Fund, by 135750
intrastate transfer voucher pursuant to a certification by the 135751
Office of the Sinking Fund of the actual amounts used. The amounts 135752
necessary to make such a reimbursement are hereby appropriated 135753
from the Highway Capital Improvement Bond Retirement Fund created 135754
in section 151.06 of the Revised Code.135755

       POLICE AND FIRE DEATH BENEFIT FUND135756

       The foregoing appropriation item 090575, Police and Fire 135757
Death Benefits, shall be disbursed quarterly by the Treasurer of 135758
State at the beginning of each quarter of each fiscal year to the 135759
Board of Trustees of the Ohio Police and Fire Pension Fund. The 135760
Treasurer of State shall certify such amounts quarterly to the 135761
Director of Budget and Management. By the twentieth day of June of 135762
each fiscal year, the Board of Trustees of the Ohio Police and 135763
Fire Pension Fund shall certify to the Treasurer of State the 135764
amount disbursed in the current fiscal year to make the payments 135765
required by section 742.63 of the Revised Code and shall return to 135766
the Treasurer of State moneys received from this appropriation 135767
item but not disbursed.135768

       TAX REFUNDS135769

       The foregoing appropriation item 090635, Tax Refunds, shall 135770
be used to pay refunds under section 5703.052 of the Revised Code. 135771
If the Director of Budget and Management determines that 135772
additional amounts are necessary for this purpose, such amounts 135773
are hereby appropriated.135774

       Section 401.10. VTO VETERANS' ORGANIZATIONS135775

General Revenue Fund135776

VAP AMERICAN EX-PRISONERS OF WAR
135777

GRF 743501 State Support $ 28,910 $ 28,910 135778

VAN ARMY AND NAVY UNION, USA, INC.
135779

GRF 746501 State Support $ 63,539 $ 63,539 135780

VKW KOREAN WAR VETERANS
135781

GRF 747501 State Support $ 57,118 $ 57,118 135782

VJW JEWISH WAR VETERANS
135783

GRF 748501 State Support $ 34,321 $ 34,321 135784

VCW CATHOLIC WAR VETERANS
135785

GRF 749501 State Support $ 66,978 $ 66,978 135786

VPH MILITARY ORDER OF THE PURPLE HEART
135787

GRF 750501 State Support $ 65,116 $ 65,116 135788

VVV VIETNAM VETERANS OF AMERICA
135789

GRF 751501 State Support $ 214,776 $ 214,776 135790

VAL AMERICAN LEGION OF OHIO
135791

GRF 752501 State Support $ 349,189 $ 349,189 135792

VII AMVETS
135793

GRF 753501 State Support $ 332,547 $ 332,547 135794

VAV DISABLED AMERICAN VETERANS
135795

GRF 754501 State Support $ 249,836 $ 249,836 135796

VMC MARINE CORPS LEAGUE
135797

GRF 756501 State Support $ 133,947 $ 133,947 135798

V37 37TH DIVISION VETERANS' ASSOCIATION
135799

GRF 757501 State Support $ 6,868 $ 6,868 135800

VFW VETERANS OF FOREIGN WARS
135801

GRF 758501 State Support $ 284,841 $ 284,841 135802

TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 1,887,986 $ 1,887,986 135803
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 1,887,986 $ 1,887,986 135804

       RELEASE OF FUNDS135805

       The Director of Budget and Management may release the 135806
foregoing appropriation items 743501, 746501, 747501, 748501, 135807
749501, 750501, 751501, 752501, 753501, 754501, 756501, 757501, 135808
and 758501, State Support.135809

       Section 403.10.  DVS DEPARTMENT OF VETERANS SERVICES135810

General Revenue Fund135811

GRF 900321 Veterans' Homes $ 27,369,946 $ 27,369,946 135812
GRF 900402 Hall of Fame $ 107,075 $ 107,075 135813
GRF 900408 Department of Veterans Services $ 2,001,823 $ 2,001,823 135814
GRF 900901 Persian Gulf, Afghanistan, and Iraq Compensation Debt Service $ 7,542,600 $ 9,914,800 135815
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 37,021,444 $ 39,393,644 135816

General Services Fund Group135817

4840 900603 Veterans' Homes Services $ 1,596,894 $ 1,596,894 135818
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 1,596,894 $ 1,596,894 135819

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group135820

3680 900614 Veterans Training $ 684,017 $ 697,682 135821
3740 900606 Troops to Teachers $ 111,822 $ 111,879 135822
3BX0 900609 Medicare Services $ 2,250,000 $ 2,250,000 135823
3L20 900601 Veterans' Homes Operations - Federal $ 24,887,790 $ 25,634,423 135824
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 135825
Fund Group $ 27,933,629 $ 28,693,984 135826

State Special Revenue Fund Group135827

4E20 900602 Veterans' Homes Operating $ 10,614,652 $ 10,837,435 135828
6040 900604 Veterans' Homes Improvement $ 403,663 $ 459,359 135829
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 135830
Fund Group $ 11,018,315 $ 11,296,794 135831

Persian Gulf, Afghanistan, and Iraq Compensation Fund Group135832

7041 900615 Veteran Bonus Program - Administration $ 738,703 $ 629,709 135833
7041 900641 Persian Gulf, Afghanistan, and Iraq Compensation $ 14,500,000 $ 9,400,000 135834
TOTAL 041 Persian Gulf, 135835
Afghanistan, and Iraq 135836
Compensation Fund Group $ 15,238,703 $ 10,029,709 135837
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 92,808,985 $ 91,011,025 135838

       PERSIAN GULF, AFGHANISTAN AND IRAQ COMPENSATION GENERAL 135839
OBLIGATION DEBT SERVICE135840

       The foregoing appropriation item 900901, Persian Gulf, 135841
Afghanistan and Iraq Compensation Debt Service, shall be used to 135842
pay all debt service and related financing costs during the period 135843
from July 1, 2013, through June 30, 2015, on obligations issued 135844
for Persian Gulf, Afghanistan and Iraq Conflicts Compensation 135845
purposes under sections 151.01 and 151.12 of the Revised Code.135846

       Section 405.10. DVM STATE VETERINARY MEDICAL BOARD135847

General Services Fund Group135848

4K90 888609 Operating Expenses $ 337,432 $ 331,695 135849
5BU0 888602 Veterinary Student Loan Program $ 30,000 $ 30,000 135850
TOTAL GSF General Services 135851
Fund Group $ 367,432 $ 361,695 135852
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 367,432 $ 361,695 135853


       Section 407.10. DYS DEPARTMENT OF YOUTH SERVICES135855

General Revenue Fund135856

GRF 470401 RECLAIM Ohio $ 166,862,228 $ 166,862,228 135857
GRF 470412 Lease Rental Payments $ 26,044,800 $ 27,819,700 135858
GRF 470510 Youth Services $ 16,702,728 $ 16,702,728 135859
GRF 472321 Parole Operations $ 10,583,118 $ 10,583,118 135860
GRF 477321 Administrative Operations $ 11,355,389 $ 11,355,389 135861
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 231,548,263 $ 233,323,163 135862

General Services Fund Group135863

1750 470613 Education Reimbursement $ 3,950,000 $ 3,600,000 135864
4790 470609 Employee Food Service $ 125,000 $ 125,000 135865
4A20 470602 Child Support $ 250,000 $ 250,000 135866
4G60 470605 General Operational Funds $ 115,000 $ 115,000 135867
5BN0 470629 E-Rate Program $ 525,000 $ 525,000 135868
TOTAL GSF General Services 135869
Fund Group $ 4,965,000 $ 4,615,000 135870

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group135871

3210 470601 Education $ 1,480,740 $ 1,203,272 135872
3210 470603 Juvenile Justice Prevention $ 300,000 $ 300,000 135873
3210 470606 Nutrition $ 1,033,947 $ 1,033,947 135874
3210 470614 Title IV-E Reimbursements $ 5,755,620 $ 3,714,548 135875
3CP0 470638 Federal Juvenile Programs FFY 09 $ 20,000 $ 5,000 135876
3CR0 470639 Federal Juvenile Programs FFY 10 $ 479,900 $ 126,000 135877
3FB0 470641 Federal Juvenile Programs FFY 11 $ 500,000 $ 105,000 135878
3FC0 470642 Federal Juvenile Programs FFY 12 $ 600,000 $ 50,000 135879
3GB0 470643 Federal Juvenile Programs FFY 13 $ 135,000 $ 600,000 135880
3GC0 470644 Federal Juvenile Programs FFY 14 $ 0 $ 135,000 135881
3V50 470604 Juvenile Justice/Delinquency Prevention $ 1,300,000 $ 1,000,000 135882
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 135883
Fund Group $ 11,605,207 $ 8,272,767 135884

State Special Revenue Fund Group135885

1470 470612 Vocational Education $ 1,795,000 $ 1,795,000 135886
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 135887
Fund Group $ 1,795,000 $ 1,795,000 135888
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 249,913,470 $ 248,005,930 135889

       COMMUNITY PROGRAMS135890

       For purposes of improving community programs, and 135891
notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, of the 135892
foregoing appropriation item 470401, RECLAIM Ohio, the Department 135893
of Youth Services shall use $8,813,811 in each fiscal year to 135894
expand Targeted RECLAIM, the Behavioral Health Juvenile Justice 135895
Initiative, and other evidence-based community programs.135896

       For purposes of implementing juvenile sentencing reforms, and 135897
notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, the 135898
Department of Youth Services may use up to forty-five per cent of 135899
the unexpended, unencumbered balance of the portion of 135900
appropriation item 470401, RECLAIM Ohio, that is allocated to 135901
juvenile correctional facilities in each fiscal year to expand 135902
Targeted RECLAIM, the Behavioral Health Juvenile Justice 135903
Initiative, and other evidence-based community programs.135904

       LEASE RENTAL PAYMENTS135905

       The foregoing appropriation item 470412, Lease Rental 135906
Payments, shall be used to meet all payments at the times they are 135907
required to be made for the period from July 1, 2013, through June 135908
30, 2015, by the Department of Youth Services under the leases and 135909
agreements for facilities made under Chapters 152. and 154. of the 135910
Revised Code. This appropriation is the source of funds pledged 135911
for bond service charges on related obligations issued under 135912
Chapters 152. and 154. of the Revised Code.135913

       EDUCATION REIMBURSEMENT135914

       The foregoing appropriation item 470613, Education 135915
Reimbursement, shall be used to fund the operating expenses of 135916
providing educational services to youth supervised by the 135917
Department of Youth Services. Operating expenses include, but are 135918
not limited to, teachers' salaries, maintenance costs, and 135919
educational equipment. This appropriation item may be used for 135920
capital expenses related to the education program.135921

       EMPLOYEE FOOD SERVICE AND EQUIPMENT135922

       Notwithstanding section 125.14 of the Revised Code, the 135923
foregoing appropriation item 470609, Employee Food Service, may be 135924
used to purchase any food operational items with funds received 135925
into the fund from reimbursements for state surplus property.135926

       FLEXIBLE FUNDING FOR CHILDREN AND FAMILIES135927

       In collaboration with the county family and children first 135928
council, the juvenile court of that county that receives 135929
allocations from one or both of the foregoing appropriation items 135930
470401, RECLAIM Ohio, and 470510, Youth Services, may transfer 135931
portions of those allocations to a flexible funding pool as 135932
authorized by the section of Am. Sub. H.B. 153 of the 129th 135933
General Assembly titled "FAMILY AND CHILDREN FIRST FLEXIBLE 135934
FUNDING POOL."135935

       Section 501.10. SCREENING TOOL FOR HIGH-RISK YOUTH TEAM 135936
EVALUATION135937

       The Office of Health Transformation shall convene a team 135938
comprised of the Department of Youth Services, the Department of 135939
Medicaid, the Department of Job and Family Services, the 135940
Department of Health, and the Department of Mental Health and 135941
Addiction Services. The team shall evaluate the feasibility of 135942
implementing a trauma screening tool for high-risk youth and 135943
create a report with the following information: (A) the 135944
recommended trauma screening tool to be used to evaluate high-risk 135945
youth; (B) training in the administration of the recommended tool; 135946
(C) screening protocols; (D) the persons to whom the recommended 135947
tool should apply; and (E) the implications for treatment. The 135948
report shall be completed by December 1, 2013, and shall be 135949
distributed to the Governor. The Department of Youth Services may 135950
receive funds for piloting the recommended tool in detention 135951
centers.135952

       Section 501.20. All items set forth in this section are 135953
hereby appropriated for the biennium ending on June 30, 2015, out 135954
of any moneys in the state treasury to the credit of the 135955
Administrative Building Fund (Fund 7026) that are not otherwise 135956
appropriated.135957

Appropriations

TOS TREASURER OF STATE
135958

C09001 Treasury Management System $ 10,000,000 135959
TOTAL Treasurer of State $ 10,000,000 135960
TOTAL Administrative Building Fund $ 10,000,000 135961

       The foregoing appropriation item C09001, Treasury Management 135962
System, shall be used to pay costs incurred in the implementation 135963
of the Treasury Management System pursuant to Chapter 125. of the 135964
Revised Code, including, but not limited to, the application 135965
hardware and software and the installation and implementation 135966
thereof, for the use of the Treasurer of State.135967

        The Treasurer of State may acquire and implement a Treasury 135968
Management System pursuant to Chapter 125. of the Revised Code, 135969
including, but not limited to, the application hardware and 135970
software and the installation and implementation thereof, for the 135971
use of the Treasurer of State. The Treasury Management System is 135972
an integrated treasury technology infrastructure system that will 135973
replace the Treasurer of State's existing separate cash, custody, 135974
investment, and accounting software and administration systems for 135975
the various treasury functions performed by the state. Any 135976
purchase agreement utilized under Chapter 125. of the Revised Code 135977
to finance the Treasury Management System, including any 135978
fractionalized interests therein as defined in division (N) of 135979
section 133.01 of the Revised Code, is limited in amount to not 135980
more than $10,000,000, and shall provide at the point of purchase 135981
that the financed asset becomes the property of the state.135982

        The Treasurer of State is hereby authorized to issue and 135983
sell, in accordance with Section 2i of Article VIII, Ohio 135984
Constitution, and Chapter 154. of the Revised Code, particularly 135985
section 154.22 of the Revised Code, original obligations in an 135986
aggregate principal amount not to exceed $10,000,000, in addition 135987
to the original issuance of obligations heretofore authorized by 135988
prior acts of the General Assembly. These authorized obligations 135989
shall be issued, subject to applicable constitutional and 135990
statutory limitations, to pay costs associated with previously 135991
authorized capital facilities and the capital facilities referred 135992
to in this section of the act.135993

       Section 503.10. PERSONAL SERVICE EXPENSES135994

       Unless otherwise prohibited by law, any appropriation from 135995
which personal service expenses are paid shall bear the employer's 135996
share of public employees' retirement, workers' compensation, 135997
disabled workers' relief, and insurance programs; and the costs of 135998
centralized financial services, centralized payroll processing, 135999
and related reports and services; centralized human resources 136000
services, including affirmative action and equal employment 136001
opportunity programs; the Office of Collective Bargaining; the 136002
Employee Assistance Program; centralized information technology 136003
management services; administering the enterprise resource 136004
planning system; and administering the state employee merit system 136005
as required by section 124.07 of the Revised Code. These costs 136006
shall be determined in conformity with the appropriate sections of 136007
law and paid in accordance with procedures specified by the Office 136008
of Budget and Management. Expenditures from appropriation item 136009
070601, Public Audit Expense - Intra-State, may be exempted from 136010
the requirements of this section.136011

       Section 503.20. SATISFACTION OF JUDGMENTS AND SETTLEMENTS 136012
AGAINST THE STATE136013

       Except as otherwise provided in this section, an 136014
appropriation in this act or any other act may be used for the 136015
purpose of satisfying judgments, settlements, or administrative 136016
awards ordered or approved by the Court of Claims or by any other 136017
court of competent jurisdiction in connection with civil actions 136018
against the state. This authorization does not apply to 136019
appropriations to be applied to or used for payment of guarantees 136020
by or on behalf of the state, or for payments under lease 136021
agreements relating to, or debt service on, bonds, notes, or other 136022
obligations of the state. Notwithstanding any other statute to the 136023
contrary, this authorization includes appropriations from funds 136024
into which proceeds of direct obligations of the state are 136025
deposited only to the extent that the judgment, settlement, or 136026
administrative award is for, or represents, capital costs for 136027
which the appropriation may otherwise be used and is consistent 136028
with the purpose for which any related obligations were issued or 136029
entered into. Nothing contained in this section is intended to 136030
subject the state to suit in any forum in which it is not 136031
otherwise subject to suit, and is not intended to waive or 136032
compromise any defense or right available to the state in any suit 136033
against it.136034

       Section 503.30. CAPITAL PROJECT SETTLEMENTS136035

       This section specifies an additional and supplemental 136036
procedure to provide for payments of judgments and settlements if 136037
the Director of Budget and Management determines, pursuant to 136038
division (C)(4) of section 2743.19 of the Revised Code, that 136039
sufficient unencumbered moneys do not exist in the fund to support 136040
a particular appropriation to pay the amount of a final judgment 136041
rendered against the state or a state agency, including the 136042
settlement of a claim approved by a court, in an action upon and 136043
arising out of a contractual obligation for the construction or 136044
improvement of a capital facility if the costs under the contract 136045
were payable in whole or in part from a state capital projects 136046
appropriation. In such a case, the Director may either proceed 136047
pursuant to division (C)(4) of section 2743.19 of the Revised Code 136048
or apply to the Controlling Board to increase an appropriation or 136049
create an appropriation out of any unencumbered moneys in the 136050
state treasury to the credit of the capital projects fund from 136051
which the initial state appropriation was made. The amount of an 136052
increase in appropriation or new appropriation approved by the 136053
Controlling Board is hereby appropriated from the applicable 136054
capital projects fund and made available for the payment of the 136055
judgment or settlement.136056

       If the Director does not make the application authorized by 136057
this section or the Controlling Board disapproves the application, 136058
and the Director does not make application under division (C)(4) 136059
of section 2743.19 of the Revised Code, the Director shall for the 136060
purpose of making that payment make a request to the General 136061
Assembly as provided for in division (C)(5) of that section.136062

       Section 503.40. RE-ISSUANCE OF VOIDED WARRANTS136063

       In order to provide funds for the reissuance of voided 136064
warrants under section 126.37 of the Revised Code, there is hereby 136065
appropriated, out of moneys in the state treasury from the fund 136066
credited as provided in section 126.37 of the Revised Code, that 136067
amount sufficient to pay such warrants when approved by the Office 136068
of Budget and Management.136069

       Section 503.50. REAPPROPRIATION OF UNEXPENDED ENCUMBERED 136070
BALANCES OF OPERATING APPROPRIATIONS136071

       (A) An unexpended balance of an operating appropriation or 136072
reappropriation that a state agency lawfully encumbered prior to 136073
the close of a fiscal year is hereby reappropriated on the first 136074
day of July of the following fiscal year from the fund from which 136075
it was originally appropriated or reappropriated for the following 136076
period and shall remain available only for the purpose of 136077
discharging the encumbrance:136078

       (1) For an encumbrance for personal services, maintenance, 136079
equipment, or items for resale, other than an encumbrance for an 136080
item of special order manufacture not available on term contract 136081
or in the open market or for reclamation of land or oil and gas 136082
wells, for a period of not more than five months from the end of 136083
the fiscal year;136084

       (2) For an encumbrance for an item of special order 136085
manufacture not available on term contract or in the open market, 136086
for a period of not more than five months from the end of the 136087
fiscal year or, with the written approval of the Director of 136088
Budget and Management, for a period of not more than twelve months 136089
from the end of the fiscal year;136090

       (3) For an encumbrance for reclamation of land or oil and gas 136091
wells, for a period ending when the encumbered appropriation is 136092
expended or for a period of two years, whichever is less;136093

       (4) For an encumbrance for any other expense, for such period 136094
as the Director approves, provided such period does not exceed two 136095
years.136096

       (B) Any operating appropriations for which unexpended 136097
balances are reappropriated beyond a five-month period from the 136098
end of the fiscal year by division (A)(2) of this section shall be 136099
reported to the Controlling Board by the Director of Budget and 136100
Management by the thirty-first day of December of each year. The 136101
report on each such item shall include the item, the cost of the 136102
item, and the name of the vendor. The report shall be updated on a 136103
quarterly basis for encumbrances remaining open.136104

       (C) Upon the expiration of the reappropriation period set out 136105
in division (A) of this section, a reappropriation made by this 136106
section lapses, and the Director of Budget and Management shall 136107
cancel the encumbrance of the unexpended reappropriation not later 136108
than the end of the weekend following the expiration of the 136109
reappropriation period.136110

       (D) Notwithstanding division (C) of this section, with the 136111
approval of the Director of Budget and Management, an unexpended 136112
balance of an encumbrance that was reappropriated on the first day 136113
of July by this section for a period specified in division (A)(3) 136114
or (4) of this section and that remains encumbered at the close of 136115
the fiscal biennium is hereby reappropriated on the first day of 136116
July of the following fiscal biennium from the fund from which it 136117
was originally appropriated or reappropriated for the applicable 136118
period specified in division (A)(3) or (4) of this section and 136119
shall remain available only for the purpose of discharging the 136120
encumbrance.136121

       (E) The Director of Budget and Management may correct 136122
accounting errors committed by the staff of the Office of Budget 136123
and Management, such as reestablishing encumbrances or 136124
appropriations cancelled in error, during the cancellation of 136125
operating encumbrances in November and of nonoperating 136126
encumbrances in December.136127

       (F) The Director of Budget and Management may at any time 136128
correct accounting errors committed by the staff of a state agency 136129
or state institution of higher education, as defined in section 136130
3345.011 of the Revised Code, such as reestablishing prior year 136131
nonoperating encumbrances canceled or modified in error. The 136132
reestablished encumbrance amounts are hereby appropriated.136133

       (G) If the Controlling Board approved a purchase, that 136134
approval remains in effect so long as the appropriation used to 136135
make that purchase remains encumbered.136136

       Section 503.60. APPROPRIATIONS RELATED TO CASH TRANSFERS AND 136137
RE-ESTABLISHMENT OF ENCUMBRANCES136138

       Any cash transferred by the Director of Budget and Management 136139
under section 126.15 of the Revised Code is hereby appropriated. 136140
Any amounts necessary to re-establish appropriations or 136141
encumbrances under section 126.15 of the Revised Code are hereby 136142
appropriated.136143

       Section 503.70. INCOME TAX DISTRIBUTION TO COUNTIES136144

       There are hereby appropriated out of any moneys in the state 136145
treasury to the credit of the General Revenue Fund, which are not 136146
otherwise appropriated, funds sufficient to make any payment 136147
required by division (B)(2) of section 5747.03 of the Revised 136148
Code.136149

       Section 503.80. EXPENDITURES AND APPROPRIATION INCREASES 136150
APPROVED BY THE CONTROLLING BOARD136151

       Any money that the Controlling Board approves for expenditure 136152
or any increase in appropriation that the Controlling Board 136153
approves under sections 127.14, 131.35, and 131.39 of the Revised 136154
Code or any other provision of law is hereby appropriated for the 136155
period ending June 30, 2015.136156

       Section 503.90. FUNDS RECEIVED FOR USE OF GOVERNOR'S 136157
RESIDENCE136158

       If the Governor's Residence Fund (Fund 4H20) receives payment 136159
for use of the residence pursuant to section 107.40 of the Revised 136160
Code, the amounts so received are hereby appropriated to 136161
appropriation item 100604, Governor's Residence Gift.136162

       Section 506.10. UTILITY RADIOLOGICAL SAFETY BOARD ASSESSMENTS136163

       Unless the agency and nuclear electric utility mutually agree 136164
to a higher amount by contract, the maximum amounts that may be 136165
assessed against nuclear electric utilities under division (B)(2) 136166
of section 4937.05 of the Revised Code and deposited into the 136167
specified funds are as follows:136168

Fund User FY 2014 FY 2015 136169
Utility Radiological Safety Fund (Fund 4E40) Department of Agriculture $ 130,000 $ 130,000 136170
Radiation Emergency Response Fund (Fund 6100) Department of Health $ 1,049,954 $ 1,086,098 136171
ER Radiological Safety Fund (Fund 6440) Environmental Protection Agency $ 284,266 $ 290,674 136172
Emergency Response Plan Fund (Fund 6570) Department of Public Safety $ 1,415,945 $ 1,415,945 136173

       Section 512.10. TRANSFERS TO THE GENERAL REVENUE FUND OF 136174
INTEREST EARNED136175

       Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, the 136176
Director of Budget and Management, through June 30, 2015, may 136177
transfer interest earned by any state fund to the General Revenue 136178
Fund. This section does not apply to funds whose source of revenue 136179
is restricted or protected by the Ohio Constitution, federal tax 136180
law, or the "Cash Management Improvement Act of 1990," 104 Stat. 136181
1058 (1990), 31 U.S.C. 6501 et seq., as amended.136182

       Section 512.20. CASH TRANSFERS TO THE GENERAL REVENUE FUND 136183
FROM NON-GRF FUNDS136184

        Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, the 136185
Director of Budget and Management may transfer up to $60,000,000 136186
in each fiscal year in cash from non-General Revenue Funds that 136187
are not constitutionally restricted to the General Revenue Fund in 136188
order to ensure that available General Revenue Fund receipts and 136189
balances are sufficient to support General Revenue Fund 136190
appropriations in each fiscal year.136191

       Section 512.30. FISCAL YEAR 2013 GENERAL REVENUE FUND ENDING 136192
BALANCE136193

       Notwithstanding divisions (B) and (C) of section 131.44 of 136194
the Revised Code, the Director of Budget and Management shall 136195
determine the surplus General Revenue Fund revenue that existed on 136196
June 30, 2013, in excess of the amount required under division 136197
(A)(3) of section 131.44 of the Revised Code, and transfer from 136198
the General Revenue Fund, to the extent of the amount so 136199
determined, the following:136200

       (A) To the Disaster Services Fund (Fund 5E20), a cash amount 136201
of up to $15,000,000;136202

       (B) To the Controlling Board Emergency Purposes Fund (Fund 136203
5KM0), a cash amount of up to $20,000,000;136204

       (C) To the Natural Resources Special Purposes Fund (Fund 136205
5MW0), which is hereby created in the state treasury, a cash 136206
amount of up to $12,000,000;136207

       (D) To the Unemployment Compensation Interest Contingency 136208
Fund (Fund 5HC0), a cash amount of up to $120,000,000 for payment 136209
to the United States Secretary of the Treasury of accrued interest 136210
costs related to federal unemployment account borrowing.136211

       Section 512.40.  ACCESS SUCCESS II PROGRAM136212

       To the extent cash is available, the Director of Budget and 136213
Management may transfer cash from the Money Follows the Person 136214
Enhanced Reimbursement Fund (Fund 5AJ0), used by the Department of 136215
Medicaid, to the Sale of Goods and Services Fund (Fund 1490), used 136216
by the Department of Mental Health and Addiction Services. The 136217
transferred cash is hereby appropriated. 136218

       The Department of Mental Health and Addiction Services shall 136219
use the transferred funds to administer the Access Success II 136220
Program to help non-Medicaid patients in any hospital established, 136221
controlled, or supervised by the Department under Chapter 5119. of 136222
the Revised Code to transition from inpatient status to a 136223
community setting. 136224

       Section 512.50. Not later than the first day of September 136225
2013, the Director of Mental Health and the Director of Alcohol 136226
and Drug Addiction Services shall certify to the Director of 136227
Budget and Management the amount of all of the unexpended, 136228
unencumbered balances of general revenue fund appropriations made 136229
to the Department of Mental Health and to the Department of 136230
Alcohol and Drug Addiction Services for FY 2012, excluding funds 136231
appropriated for rental payments to the Ohio Public Facilities 136232
Commission. On receipt of the certification, the Director of 136233
Budget and Management shall transfer cash to the Department of 136234
Mental Health and Addiction Services Trust Fund created in section 136235
5119.46 of the Revised Code (renumbered section 5119.60 of the 136236
Revised Code in this act) in an amount up to, but not exceeding, 136237
the total amounts certified by the Director of Mental Health and 136238
the Director of Alcohol and Drug Addiction Services.136239

       Section 512.70. PROHIBITION ON TRANSFERS136240

        Notwithstanding section 131.44 of the Revised Code, cash 136241
shall not be transferred to the Income Tax Reduction Fund prior to 136242
July 1, 2015.136243

       Section 515.40.  The Department of Aging shall use 136244
appropriation item 490627, Board of Executives of LTSS, to spend 136245
cash in the Board of Executives of Long-Term Services and Supports 136246
Fund (Fund 5MT0), which is hereby established in the State 136247
Treasury. On the effective date of this section, the Board of 136248
Examiners of Nursing Home Administrators is renamed the Board of 136249
Executives of Long-Term Services and Supports. The Board of 136250
Examiners of Nursing Home Administrators' functions and its assets 136251
and liabilities, are transferred to the Board of Executives of 136252
Long-Term Services and Supports. The Board of Executives of 136253
Long-Term Services and Supports is successor to, assumes the 136254
obligations and authority of, and otherwise continues the Board of 136255
Examiners of Nursing Home Administrators. No right, privilege, or 136256
remedy, and no duty, liability, or obligation, accrued under the 136257
Board of Examiners of Nursing Home Administrators is impaired or 136258
lost by reason of the renaming and shall be recognized, 136259
administered, performed, or enforced by the Board of Executives of 136260
Long-Term Services and Supports.136261

       Business commenced but not completed by the Board of 136262
Examiners of Nursing Home Administrators or by the Secretary of 136263
the Board of Examiners of Nursing Home Administrators shall be 136264
completed by the Board of Executives of Long-Term Services and 136265
Supports or the Secretary of the Board of Executives of Long-Term 136266
Services and Supports in the same manner, and with the same 136267
effect, as if completed by the Board of Examiners of Nursing Home 136268
Administrators or by the Secretary of the Board of Examiners of 136269
Nursing Home Administrators.136270

       All of the Board of Examiners of Nursing Home Administrators' 136271
rules, orders, and determinations continue in effect as rules, 136272
orders, and determinations of the Board of Executives of Long-Term 136273
Services and Supports.136274

       Subject to the layoff provisions of sections 124.321 to 136275
124.328 of the Revised Code, all employees of the Board of 136276
Examiners of Nursing Home Administrators who provide 136277
administrative, technical, or other services to the Board of 136278
Examiners of Nursing Home Administrators on a full-time, permanent 136279
basis shall continue with the Board of Executives of Long-Term 136280
Services and Supports and retain their positions and benefits 136281
accruing thereto, except that those employees in the classified 136282
service shall be reclassified into the unclassified service and 136283
shall serve at the pleasure of the Board.136284

        Notwithstanding section 4751.03 of the Revised Code, as 136285
amended by this act, those board members currently serving as 136286
members of the Board of Examiners of Nursing Home Administrators 136287
on the effective date of this act shall continue to serve as 136288
members of the Board of Executives of Long-Term Services and 136289
Supports for the remainder of their appointment period, at which 136290
time new members shall be appointed in a manner consistent with 136291
section 4751.03 of the Revised Code, as amended by this act.136292

       Within ninety days after the effective date of this act, the 136293
Governor shall appoint to the Board of Executives of Long-Term 136294
Services and Supports those new members who are required to be 136295
appointed under divisions (A)(3) and (6) of section 4751.03 of the 136296
Revised Code, as amended by this act, for terms ending on May 27, 136297
2014. Thereafter, appointment for those members shall be as 136298
provided in section 4751.03 of the Revised Code, as amended by 136299
this act.136300

       Whenever the Board of Examiners of Nursing Home 136301
Administrators is referred to in statute, contract, or other 136302
instrument, the reference is deemed to refer to the Board of 136303
Executives of Long-Term Services and Supports.136304

       No pending action or proceeding being prosecuted or defended 136305
in court or before an agency by the Board of Examiners of Nursing 136306
Home Administrators or the Secretary of the Board of Examiners of 136307
Nursing Home Administrators is affected by the renaming and shall 136308
be prosecuted or defended in the name of the Board of Executives 136309
of Long-Term Services and Supports or the Secretary of the Board 136310
of Executives of Long-Term Services and Supports. Upon application 136311
to the court or agency, the Board of Executives of Long-Term 136312
Services and Supports or the Secretary of the Board of Executives 136313
of Long-Term Services and Supports shall be substituted.136314

       Section 515.50. (A) On July 1, 2013, the eTech Ohio 136315
Commission is renamed and reconstituted as the Broadcast 136316
Educational Media Commission, as described in section 3353.02 of 136317
the Revised Code as amended by this act. The Broadcast Educational 136318
Media Commission is thereupon and thereafter successor to, assumes 136319
the obligations of, and otherwise constitutes the continuation of 136320
the eTech Ohio Commission, for all obligations related to the 136321
state's educational broadcasting services, including educational 136322
television, radio, and radio reading services. 136323

       (B) Any business related to the state's educational 136324
television, radio, or radio reading services commenced but not 136325
completed by the eTech Ohio Commission shall be completed by the 136326
Broadcast Educational Media Commission in the same manner, and 136327
with the same effect, as if completed by the eTech Ohio 136328
Commission. No validation, cure, right, privilege, remedy, 136329
obligation, or liability is lost or impaired by reason of the 136330
renaming, and shall be recognized, administered, performed, or 136331
enforced by the Broadcast Educational Media Commission. 136332

       (C) All of the rules of the eTech Ohio Commission related to 136333
the state's educational broadcasting services, including 136334
educational television, radio, or radio reading services, continue 136335
in effect as rules of the Broadcast Educational Media Commission, 136336
until amended or rescinded by the Broadcast Educational Media 136337
Commission. 136338

       (D) No judicial or administrative action or proceeding 136339
related to the state's educational broadcasting services, 136340
including educational television, radio, or radio reading 136341
services, in which the eTech Ohio Commission is a party, that is 136342
pending on the effective date of this section is affected by the 136343
renaming. Such action or proceeding shall be prosecuted or 136344
defended in the name of the Broadcast Educational Media 136345
Commission. On application to the court or other tribunal, the 136346
Broadcast Educational Media Commission shall be substituted for 136347
the eTech Ohio Commission as a party to such action or proceeding. 136348

       (E) Subject to the layoff provisions of sections 124.321 to 136349
124.328 and division (D) of section 3353.03 of the Revised Code, 136350
as amended by this act, all employees of the former eTech Ohio 136351
Commission assigned to activities related to the state's 136352
educational broadcasting services, including educational 136353
television, radio, or radio reading services, continue with the 136354
Broadcast Educational Media Commission and retain their positions 136355
and all benefits accruing thereto. 136356

       (F) All books, records, documents, files, transcripts, 136357
equipment, furniture, supplies, and other materials related to the 136358
state's educational broadcasting services, including educational 136359
television, radio, or radio reading services, assigned to or in 136360
the possession of the former eTech Ohio Commission shall be 136361
transferred to the Broadcast Educational Media Commission. 136362

       (G) Each current member of the eTech Ohio Commission shall 136363
serve until June 30, 2013. On July 1, 2013, or as soon after July 136364
1, 2013, as possible, each member shall either be reappointed or 136365
replaced by another member to serve on the Educational Media 136366
Commission pursuant to section 3353.02 of the Revised Code, as 136367
amended by this act.136368

       Section 515.51. (A) On July 1, 2013, all responsibilities 136369
related to the administration of the Telecommunity Fund and the 136370
Distance Learning Fund, as well as for technology-related teacher 136371
professional development programs, are transferred from the former 136372
eTech Ohio Commission to the Chancellor of the Board of Regents as 136373
described in sections 3319.235, 3317.50, and 3317.51 of the 136374
Revised Code, as amended by this act. The Chancellor is thereupon 136375
and thereafter successor to, assumes the obligations of, and 136376
otherwise constitutes the continuation of the eTech Ohio 136377
Commission relating to the functions, assets, records, and 136378
obligations relating to these responsibilities. 136379

       (B) Any business related to these responsibilities commenced 136380
but not completed by the former eTech Ohio Commission shall be 136381
completed by the Chancellor in the same manner, and with the same 136382
effect, as if completed by the eTech Ohio Commission. No 136383
validation, cure, right, privilege, remedy, obligation, or 136384
liability is lost or impaired by reason of the transfer, and shall 136385
be recognized, administered, performed, or enforced by the 136386
Chancellor. 136387

       (C) All of the rules of the former eTech Ohio Commission 136388
related to these responsibilities continue in effect as rules of 136389
the Chancellor, until amended or rescinded by the Chancellor. 136390

       (D) Any judicial or administrative action or proceeding 136391
related to these responsibilities, in which the eTech Ohio 136392
Commission is a party, that is pending on the effective date of 136393
this section is affected by the transfer. Such action or 136394
proceeding shall be prosecuted or defended in the name of the 136395
Chancellor. On application to the court or other tribunal, the 136396
Chancellor of the Board of Regents shall be substituted for the 136397
eTech Ohio Commission as a party to such action or proceeding. 136398

       (E) Subject to the layoff provisions of sections 124.321 to 136399
124.328 and division (D) of section 3353.03 of the Revised Code, 136400
as amended by this act, all employees of the former eTech Ohio 136401
Commission assigned to these responsibilities continue with the 136402
Chancellor and retain their positions and all benefits accruing 136403
thereto. 136404

       (F) All books, records, documents, files, transcripts, 136405
equipment, furniture, supplies, and other materials related to 136406
these responsibilities assigned to or in the possession of the 136407
former eTech Ohio Commission shall be transferred to the 136408
Chancellor.136409

       (G) All employees of the former eTech Ohio Commission who 136410
transferred to the Chancellor of the Board of Regents upon the 136411
reconstitution of the Commission as prescribed by Section 515.50 136412
of H.B. 59 of the 130th General Assembly and who when employed by 136413
that Commission or a predecessor agency were included in a 136414
bargaining unit established under Chapter 4117. of the Revised 136415
Code, shall continue to be included in that bargaining unit, are 136416
public employees as defined in section 4117.01 of the Revised 136417
Code, and may collectively bargain with the Chancellor in 136418
accordance with that chapter. Otherwise, any employee hired by the 136419
Chancellor after the reconstitution of the Commission, either to 136420
fill vacancies or to fill new positions related to the transferred 136421
employees' duties, shall be exempt from Chapter 4117. of the 136422
Revised Code and shall not be public employees as defined in 136423
section 4117.01 of the Revised Code. 136424

       Section 515.52. (A) On July 1, 2013, all responsibilities of 136425
the former eTech Ohio Commission related to the purchase of 136426
software services and supplies, the redistribution of hardware and 136427
software from closed community schools, and technology-related 136428
teacher professional development programs are transferred from the 136429
former eTech Ohio Commission to the Department of Education as 136430
described in sections 125.05, 3314.074, and 3319.235 of the 136431
Revised Code, as amended by this act. The Department is thereupon 136432
and thereafter successor to, assumes the obligations of, and 136433
otherwise constitutes the continuation of the eTech Ohio 136434
Commission relating to these responsibilities. 136435

       (B) Any business related to these responsibilities commenced 136436
but not completed by the former eTech Ohio Commission shall be 136437
completed by the Department in the same manner, and with the same 136438
effect, as if completed by the eTech Ohio Commission. No 136439
validation, cure, right, privilege, remedy, obligation, or 136440
liability is lost or impaired by reason of the transfer, and shall 136441
be recognized, administered, performed, or enforced by the 136442
Department. 136443

       (C) All of the rules of the eTech Ohio Commission related to 136444
these responsibilities continue in effect as rules of the 136445
Department, until amended or rescinded by the Department. 136446

       (D) Any judicial or administrative action or proceeding 136447
related to these responsibilities, in which the eTech Ohio 136448
Commission is a party, that is pending on the effective date of 136449
this section is affected by the transfer. Such action or 136450
proceeding shall be prosecuted or defended in the name of the 136451
Department. On application to the court or other tribunal, the 136452
Department of Education shall be substituted for the eTech Ohio 136453
Commission as a party to such action or proceeding. 136454

       (E) Subject to the layoff provisions of sections 124.321 to 136455
124.328 and division (D) of section 3353.03 of the Revised Code, 136456
as amended by this act, all employees of the former eTech Ohio 136457
Commission assigned to these responsibilities continue with the 136458
Department and retain their positions and all benefits accruing 136459
thereto. 136460

       (F) All books, records, documents, files, transcripts, 136461
equipment, furniture, supplies, and other materials related to 136462
these responsibilities assigned to or in the possession of the 136463
former eTech Ohio Commission shall be transferred to the 136464
Department.136465

       (G) All employees of the former eTech Ohio Commission who 136466
transferred to the Department of Education upon the reconstitution 136467
of the Commission as prescribed by Section 515.50 of H.B. 59 of 136468
the 130th General Assembly and who when employed by that 136469
Commission or a predecessor agency were included in a bargaining 136470
unit established under Chapter 4117. of the Revised Code, shall 136471
continue to be included in that bargaining unit, are public 136472
employees as defined in section 4117.01 of the Revised Code, and 136473
may collectively bargain with the state Board of Education in 136474
accordance with that chapter. Otherwise, any employee hired by the 136475
Department after the reconstitution of the Commission, either to 136476
fill vacancies or to fill new positions related to the transferred 136477
employees' duties, shall be exempt from Chapter 4117. of the 136478
Revised Code and shall not be public employees as defined in 136479
section 4117.01 of the Revised Code. 136480

       Section 515.53.  Any duties and responsibilities of the 136481
former eTech Ohio Commission not transferred in accordance with 136482
Sections 515.50, 515.51, and 515.52 of this act are eliminated on 136483
July 1, 2013.136484

       Section 518.10. GENERAL OBLIGATION DEBT SERVICE PAYMENTS136485

       Certain appropriations are in this act for the purpose of 136486
paying debt service and financing costs on general obligation 136487
bonds or notes of the state issued pursuant to the Ohio 136488
Constitution and acts of the General Assembly. If it is determined 136489
that additional appropriations are necessary for this purpose, 136490
such amounts are hereby appropriated.136491

       Section 518.20. LEASE RENTAL PAYMENTS FOR DEBT SERVICE136492

       Certain appropriations are in this act for the purpose of 136493
making lease rental payments pursuant to leases and agreements 136494
relating to bonds or notes issued by the Treasurer of State, or 136495
previously by the Ohio Public Facilities Commission or the Ohio 136496
Building Authority, pursuant to the Ohio Constitution and acts of 136497
the General Assembly. If it is determined that additional 136498
appropriations are necessary for this purpose, such amounts are 136499
hereby appropriated.136500

       Section 518.30. AUTHORIZATION FOR TREASURER OF STATE AND OBM 136501
TO EFFECTUATE CERTAIN DEBT SERVICE PAYMENTS136502

       The Office of Budget and Management shall process payments 136503
from general obligation and lease rental payment appropriation 136504
items during the period from July 1, 2013, through June 30, 2015, 136505
relating to bonds or notes issued under Sections 2i, 2k, 2l, 2m, 136506
2n, 2o, 2p, 2q, 2r, and 15 of Article VIII, Ohio Constitution, and 136507
Chapters 151., 152., and 154. of the Revised Code. Payments shall 136508
be made upon certification by the Treasurer of State of the dates 136509
and the amounts due on those dates.136510

       Section 521.20. STATEWIDE INDIRECT COST RECOVERY136511

       Whenever the Director of Budget and Management determines 136512
that an appropriation made to a state agency from a fund of the 136513
state is insufficient to provide for the recovery of statewide 136514
indirect costs under section 126.12 of the Revised Code, the 136515
amount required for such purpose is hereby appropriated from the 136516
available receipts of such fund.136517

       Section 521.30.  TRANSFERS ON BEHALF OF THE STATEWIDE 136518
INDIRECT COST ALLOCATION PLAN136519

       The total transfers made from the General Revenue Fund by the 136520
Director of Budget and Management under this section shall not 136521
exceed the amounts transferred into the General Revenue Fund under 136522
section 126.12 of the Revised Code.136523

       The director of an agency may certify to the Director of 136524
Budget and Management the amount of expenses not allowed to be 136525
included in the Statewide Indirect Cost Allocation Plan under 136526
federal regulations, from any fund included in the Statewide 136527
Indirect Cost Allocation Plan, prepared as required by section 136528
126.12 of the Revised Code.136529

       Upon determining that no alternative source of funding is 136530
available to pay for such expenses, the Director of Budget and 136531
Management may transfer cash from the General Revenue Fund into 136532
the fund for which the certification is made, up to the amount of 136533
the certification. The director of the agency receiving such funds 136534
shall include, as part of the next budget submission prepared 136535
under section 126.02 of the Revised Code, a request for funding 136536
for such activities from an alternative source such that further 136537
federal disallowances would not be required.136538

       The director of an agency may certify to the Director of 136539
Budget and Management the amount of expenses paid in error from a 136540
fund included in the Statewide Indirect Cost Allocation Plan. The 136541
Director of Budget and Management may transfer cash from the fund 136542
from which the expenditure should have been made into the fund 136543
from which the expenses were erroneously paid, up to the amount of 136544
the certification.136545

       The director of an agency may certify to the Director of 136546
Budget and Management the amount of expenses or revenues not 136547
allowed to be included in the Statewide Indirect Cost Allocation 136548
Plan under federal regulations, for any fund included in the 136549
Statewide Indirect Cost Allocation Plan, for which the federal 136550
government requires payment. If the Director of Budget and 136551
Management determines that an appropriation made to a state agency 136552
from a fund of the state is insufficient to pay the amount 136553
required by the federal government, the amount required for such 136554
purpose is hereby appropriated from the available receipts of such 136555
fund, up to the amount of the certification.136556

       Section 521.40. FEDERAL GOVERNMENT INTEREST REQUIREMENTS136557

       Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, on or 136558
before the first day of September of each fiscal year, the 136559
Director of Budget and Management, in order to reduce the payment 136560
of adjustments to the federal government, as determined by the 136561
plan prepared under division (A) of section 126.12 of the Revised 136562
Code, may designate such funds as the Director considers necessary 136563
to retain their own interest earnings.136564

       Section 521.50. FEDERAL CASH MANAGEMENT IMPROVEMENT ACT136565

       Pursuant to the plan for compliance with the Federal Cash 136566
Management Improvement Act required by section 131.36 of the 136567
Revised Code, the Director of Budget and Management may cancel and 136568
re-establish all or part of encumbrances in like amounts within 136569
the funds identified by the plan. The amounts necessary to 136570
re-establish all or part of encumbrances are hereby appropriated.136571

       Section 521.60. FISCAL STABILIZATION AND RECOVERY136572

        To ensure the level of accountability and transparency 136573
required by federal law, the Director of Budget and Management may 136574
issue guidelines to any agency applying for federal money made 136575
available to this state for fiscal stabilization and recovery 136576
purposes, and may prescribe the process by which agencies are to 136577
comply with any reporting requirements established by the federal 136578
government.136579

       Section 605.10. That Section 205.10 of Am. Sub. H.B. 51 of 136580
the 130th General Assembly be amended to read as follows:136581

       Sec. 205.10. DPS DEPARTMENT OF PUBLIC SAFETY136582

State Highway Safety Fund Group136583

4W40 762321 Operating Expense - BMV $ 130,559,268 $ 130,418,957 136584
5V10 762682 License Plate Contribution $ 2,100,000 $ 2,100,000 136585
7036 761321 Operating Expense - Information and Education $ 7,055,066 $ 6,999,331 136586
7036 761401 Lease Rental Payments $ 2,472,300 $ 2,473,100 136587
7036 764033 Minor Capital Projects $ 1,250,000 $ 1,250,000 136588
7036 764321 Operating Expense - Highway Patrol $ 268,232,602 $ 270,232,602 136589
7036 764605 Motor Carrier Enforcement Expenses $ 2,860,000 $ 2,860,000 136590
8300 761603 Salvage and Exchange - Administration $ 20,053 $ 20,053 136591
8310 761610 Information and Education - Federal $ 300,000 $ 300,000 136592
8310 764608 FARS Grant Federal $ 175,000 $ 175,000 136593
8310 764610 Patrol - Federal $ 2,250,000 $ 2,250,000 136594
8310 764659 Transportation Enforcement - Federal $ 5,200,000 $ 5,200,000 136595
8310 765610 EMS - Federal $ 225,000 $ 225,000 136596
8310 769610 Investigative Unit Federal Reimbursement $ 1,400,000 $ 1,400,000 136597
8310 769631 Homeland Security - Federal $ 750,000 $ 400,000 136598
8320 761612 Traffic Safety - Federal $ 22,000,000 $ 22,000,000 136599
8350 762616 Financial Responsibility Compliance $ 5,274,068 $ 5,274,068 136600
8370 764602 Turnpike Policing $ 11,553,959 $ 11,553,959 136601
83C0 764630 Contraband, Forfeiture, Other $ 622,894 $ 622,894 136602
83F0 764657 Law Enforcement Automated Data System $ 8,500,000 $ 8,500,000 136603
83G0 764633 OMVI Enforcement/Education $ 641,927 $ 641,927 136604
83J0 764693 Highway Patrol Justice Contraband $ 2,100,000 $ 2,100,000 136605
83M0 765624 Operating - EMS $ 3,056,069 $ 3,056,069 136606
83M0 765640 EMS - Grants $ 3,300,000 $ 3,300,000 136607
83R0 762639 Local Immobilization Reimbursement $ 450,000 $ 450,000 136608
83T0 764694 Highway Patrol Treasury Contraband $ 21,000 $ 21,000 136609
8400 764607 State Fair Security $ 1,294,354 $ 1,294,354 136610
8400 764617 Security and Investigations $ 8,793,865 $ 9,514,236 136611
8400 764626 State Fairgrounds Police Force $ 1,047,560 $ 1,084,559 136612
8400 769632 Homeland Security - Operating $ 650,000 $ 630,000 136613
8410 764603 Salvage and Exchange - Highway Patrol $ 1,339,399 $ 1,339,399 136614
8460 761625 Motorcycle Safety Education $ 3,280,563 $ 3,280,563 136615
8490 762627 Automated Title Processing Board $ 16,675,513 $ 16,467,293 136616
TOTAL HSF State Highway Safety Fund Group $ 515,450,460 $ 517,434,364 136617

General Services Fund Group136618

4P60 768601 Justice Program Services $ 900,000 $ 875,000 136619
5ET0 768625 Drug Law Enforcement $ 4,250,000 $ 4,250,000 136620
5LM0 768698 Criminal Justice Services Law Enforcement Support $ 850,946 $ 850,946 136621
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 6,290,946 $ 6,265,946 136622

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group136623

3290 763645 Federal Mitigation Program $ 10,413,642 $ 10,413,642 136624
3370 763609 Federal Disaster Relief $ 27,707,636 $ 27,707,636 136625
3390 763647 Emergency Management Assistance and Training $ 70,934,765 $ 70,934,765 136626
3CE0 768611 Justice Assistance Grants – FFY09 $ 400,000 $ 100,000 136627
3DE0 768612 Federal Stimulus - Justice Assistance Grants $ 1,000,000 $ 300,000 136628
3DU0 762628 BMV Grants $ 1,350,000 $ 1,325,000 136629
3EU0 768614 Justice Assistance Grants – FFY10 $ 830,000 $ 500,000 136630
3FK0 768615 Justice Assistance Grants – FFY11 $ 900,000 $ 900,000 136631
3FP0 767620 Ohio Investigative Unit Justice Contraband $ 55,000 $ 55,000 136632
3FY0 768616 Justice Assistance Grants – FFY12 $ 2,200,000 $ 1,500,000 136633
3FZ0 768617 Justice Assistance Grants – FFY13 $ 7,000,000 $ 2,000,000 136634
3GA0 768618 Justice Assistance Grants – FFY14 $ 0 $ 7,500,000 136635
3L50 768604 Justice Program $ 10,500,000 $ 10,500,000 136636
3N50 763644 U.S. Department of Energy Agreement $ 31,672 $ 31,672 136637
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue Fund Group $ 133,322,715 $ 133,767,715 136638

State Special Revenue Fund Group136639

4V30 763662 Storms/NOAA Maintenance $ 4,950,000 $ 4,950,000 136640
5390 762614 Motor Vehicle Dealers Board $ 150,000 $ 140,000 136641
5B90 766632 Private Investigator and Security Guard Provider $ 1,400,000 $ 1,400,000 136642
5BK0 768687 Criminal Justice Services - Operating $ 400,000 $ 400,000 136643
5BK0 768689 Family Violence Shelter Programs $ 750,000 $ 750,000 136644
5CM0 767691 Equitable Share Account $ 300,000 $ 300,000 136645
5DS0 769630 Homeland Security $ 1,414,384 $ 1,414,384 136646
5FF0 762621 Indigent Interlock and Alcohol Monitoring $ 2,000,000 $ 2,000,000 136647
5FL0 769634 Investigations $ 899,300 $ 899,300 136648
5ML0 769635 Infrastructure Protection $ 400,000 $ 400,000 136649
5BP0 5NF0 764609 DPS Wireless 911 Administration $ 290,000 $ 290,000 136650
6220 767615 Investigative Contraband and Forfeiture $ 325,000 $ 325,000 136651
6570 763652 Utility Radiological Safety $ 1,415,945 $ 1,415,945 136652
6810 763653 SARA Title III HAZMAT Planning $ 262,438 $ 262,438 136653
8500 767628 Investigative Unit Salvage $ 92,700 $ 92,700 136654
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue Fund Group $ 15,049,767 $ 15,039,767 136655

Agency Fund Group136656

5J90 761678 Federal Salvage/GSA $ 1,500,000 $ 1,500,000 136657
TOTAL AGY Agency Fund Group $ 1,500,000 $ 1,500,000 136658

Holding Account Redistribution Fund Group136659

R024 762619 Unidentified Motor Vehicle Receipts $ 1,885,000 $ 1,885,000 136660
R052 762623 Security Deposits $ 350,000 $ 350,000 136661
TOTAL 090 Holding Account Redistribution Fund Group $ 2,235,000 $ 2,235,000 136662
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 673,558,888 $ 675,952,792 136663

       MOTOR VEHICLE REGISTRATION136664

       The Registrar of Motor Vehicles may deposit revenues to meet 136665
the cash needs of the State Bureau of Motor Vehicles Fund (Fund 136666
4W40) established in section 4501.25 of the Revised Code, obtained 136667
under sections 4503.02 and 4504.02 of the Revised Code, less all 136668
other available cash. Revenue deposited pursuant to this paragraph 136669
shall support, in part, appropriations for operating expenses and 136670
defray the cost of manufacturing and distributing license plates 136671
and license plate stickers and enforcing the law relative to the 136672
operation and registration of motor vehicles. Notwithstanding 136673
section 4501.03 of the Revised Code, the revenues shall be paid 136674
into Fund 4W40 before any revenues obtained pursuant to sections 136675
4503.02 and 4504.02 of the Revised Code are paid into any other 136676
fund. The deposit of revenues to meet the aforementioned cash 136677
needs shall be in approximately equal amounts on a monthly basis 136678
or as otherwise determined by the Director of Budget and 136679
Management pursuant to a plan submitted by the Registrar of Motor 136680
Vehicles.136681

       OPERATING EXPENSE – BMV136682

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 762321, Operating Expense 136683
– BMV, up to $50,000 in fiscal year 2014 shall be used to pay for 136684
costs associated with improvements to the program to accept 136685
applications for registration transactions of apportionable 136686
vehicles electronically over the internet.136687

       OPERATING EXPENSE - INFORMATION AND EDUCATION136688

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 761321, Operating Expense 136689
– Information and Education, up to $250,000 in each fiscal year 136690
may be used to fund state employees to staff travel information 136691
centers on the border of the state.136692

       The Department of Public Safety shall conduct a study for 136693
partnering with local travel and tourism centers, as well as a 136694
study for the creation of the Ohio Ambassadors Volunteer Program 136695
at rest stops.136696

       LEASE RENTAL PAYMENTS136697

       The foregoing appropriation item 761401, Lease Rental 136698
Payments, shall be used for payments to the Treasurer of State for 136699
the period July 1, 2013, through June 30, 2015, under the primary 136700
leases and agreements for public safety related buildings. The 136701
appropriations are the source of funds pledged for bond service 136702
charges on obligations pursuant to Chapters 152. and 154. of the 136703
Revised Code.136704

       CASH TRANSFERS BETWEEN FUNDS136705

        Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, the 136706
Director of Budget and Management, upon the written request of the 136707
Director of Public Safety, may transfer cash between the following 136708
six funds: the Trauma and Emergency Medical Services Fund (Fund 136709
83M0), the Homeland Security Fund (Fund 5DS0), the Investigations 136710
Fund (Fund 5FL0), the Emergency Management Agency Service and 136711
Reimbursement Fund (Fund 4V30), the Justice Program Services Fund 136712
(Fund 4P60), and the State Bureau of Motor Vehicles Fund (Fund 136713
4W40).136714

       CASH TRANSFER FROM TEEN DRIVER EDUCATION FUND TO LICENSE 136715
PLATE CONTRIBUTION FUND136716

       On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 136717
Director of Budget and Management may transfer the cash balance in 136718
the Teen Driver Education Fund (Fund 5JS0) to the License Plate 136719
Contribution Fund (Fund 5V10). Upon completion of the transfer, 136720
Fund 5JS0 is hereby abolished.136721

       CASH TRANSFER FROM HILLTOP UTILITY REIMBURSEMENT FUND TO 136722
STATE HIGHWAY SAFETY FUND136723

       Not later than January 1, 2014, the Director of Budget and 136724
Management may transfer the cash balance in the Hilltop Utility 136725
Reimbursement Fund (Fund 4S30) to the State Highway Safety Fund 136726
(Fund 7036). Upon completion of the transfer, Fund 4S30 is hereby 136727
abolished. The Director shall cancel any existing encumbrances 136728
against appropriation item 766661, Hilltop Utility Reimbursement, 136729
and reestablish them against appropriation item 761321, Operating 136730
Expense – Information and Education. The reestablished encumbrance 136731
amounts are hereby appropriated.136732

       CASH TRANSFER FROM REGISTRAR RENTAL FUND TO STATE HIGHWAY 136733
SAFETY FUND136734

       On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 136735
Director of Budget and Management shall transfer the cash balance 136736
in the Registrar Rental Fund (Fund 8380) to the State Bureau of 136737
Motor Vehicles Fund (Fund 4W40). Upon completion of the transfer, 136738
Fund 8380 is abolished.136739

       STATE DISASTER RELIEF136740

       The State Disaster Relief Fund (Fund 5330) may accept 136741
transfers of cash and appropriations from Controlling Board 136742
appropriation items for Ohio Emergency Management Agency disaster 136743
response costs and disaster program management costs, and may also 136744
be used for the following purposes:136745

       (A) To accept transfers of cash and appropriations from 136746
Controlling Board appropriation items for Ohio Emergency 136747
Management Agency public assistance and mitigation program match 136748
costs to reimburse eligible local governments and private 136749
nonprofit organizations for costs related to disasters;136750

       (B) To accept and transfer cash to reimburse the costs 136751
associated with Emergency Management Assistance Compact (EMAC) 136752
deployments;136753

       (C) To accept disaster related reimbursement from federal, 136754
state, and local governments. The Director of Budget and 136755
Management may transfer cash from reimbursements received by this 136756
fund to other funds of the state from which transfers were 136757
originally approved by the Controlling Board.136758

       (D) To accept transfers of cash and appropriations from 136759
Controlling Board appropriation items to fund the State Disaster 136760
Relief Program, for disasters that qualify for the program by 136761
written authorization of the Governor, and the State Individual 136762
Assistance Program for disasters that have been declared by the 136763
federal Small Business Administration and that qualify for the 136764
program by written authorization of the Governor. The Ohio 136765
Emergency Management Agency shall publish and make available 136766
application packets outlining procedures for the State Disaster 136767
Relief Program and the State Individual Assistance Program.136768

       JUSTICE ASSISTANCE GRANT FUND136769

       The federal payments made to the state for the Byrne Justice 136770
Assistance Grants Program under Title II of Division A of the 136771
American Recovery and Reinvestment Act of 2009 shall be deposited 136772
to the credit of the Justice Assistance Grant Fund (Fund 3DE0), 136773
which is hereby created in the state treasury. All investment 136774
earnings of the fund shall be credited to the fund.136775

        TRANSFER FROM STATE FIRE MARSHAL FUND TO EMERGENCY MANAGEMENT 136776
AGENCY SERVICE AND REIMBURSEMENT FUND136777

        On July 1 of each fiscal year, or as soon as possible 136778
thereafter, the Director of Budget and Management shall transfer 136779
$200,000 cash from the State Fire Marshal Fund (Fund 5460) to the 136780
Emergency Management Agency Service and Reimbursement Fund (Fund 136781
4V30) to be distributed to the Ohio Task Force One – Urban Search 136782
and Rescue Unit, other similar urban search and rescue units 136783
around the state, and for the maintenance of the statewide fire 136784
emergency response plan by an entity recognized by the Ohio 136785
Emergency Management Agency.136786

       FAMILY VIOLENCE PREVENTION FUND136787

        Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, in each 136788
of fiscal years 2014 and 2015, the first $750,000 received to the 136789
credit of the Family Violence Prevention Fund (Fund 5BK0) is 136790
appropriated to appropriation item 768689, Family Violence Shelter 136791
Programs, and the next $400,000 received to the credit of Fund 136792
5BK0 in each of those fiscal years is appropriated to 136793
appropriation item 768687, Criminal Justice Services - Operating. 136794
Any moneys received to the credit of Fund 5BK0 in excess of the 136795
aforementioned appropriated amounts in each fiscal year shall, 136796
upon the approval of the Controlling Board, be used to provide 136797
grants to family violence shelters in Ohio.136798

       SARA TITLE III HAZMAT PLANNING136799

       The SARA Title III HAZMAT Planning Fund (Fund 6810) is 136800
entitled to receive grant funds from the Emergency Response 136801
Commission to implement the Emergency Management Agency's 136802
responsibilities under Chapter 3750. of the Revised Code.136803

       COLLECTIVE BARGAINING INCREASES136804

       Notwithstanding division (D) of section 127.14 and division 136805
(B) of section 131.35 of the Revised Code, except for the General 136806
Revenue Fund, the Controlling Board may, upon the request of 136807
either the Director of Budget and Management, or the Department of 136808
Public Safety with the approval of the Director of Budget and 136809
Management, authorize expenditures in excess of appropriations and 136810
transfer appropriations, as necessary, for any fund used by the 136811
Department of Public Safety, to assist in paying the costs of 136812
increases in employee compensation that have occurred pursuant to 136813
collective bargaining agreements under Chapter 4117. of the 136814
Revised Code and, for exempt employees, under section 124.152 of 136815
the Revised Code. Any money approved for expenditure under this 136816
paragraph is hereby appropriated.136817

       CASH BALANCE FUND REVIEW136818

       Not later than the first day of April in each fiscal year of 136819
the biennium, the Director of Budget and Management shall review 136820
the cash balances for each fund, except the State Highway Safety 136821
Fund (Fund 7036) and the State Bureau of Motor Vehicles Fund (Fund 136822
4W40), in the State Highway Safety Fund Group, and shall recommend 136823
to the Controlling Board an amount to be transferred to the credit 136824
of Fund 7036 or Fund 4W40, as appropriate.136825

       AUTO REGISTRATION DISTRIBUTION FUND136826

       Notwithstanding the amendment by this act to section 4501.03 136827
of the Revised Code and the enactment by this act of section 136828
4501.031 of the Revised Code, any license tax assessed under 136829
Chapters 4503. or 4504. of the Revised Code, and derived from 136830
registrations processed on business days prior to July 1, 2013, 136831
shall be deposited to the state treasury to the credit of the Auto 136832
Registration Distribution Fund (Fund 7051) created by section 136833
4501.03 of the Revised Code, even if such deposit does not occur 136834
until on or after July 1, 2013. All license tax assessed on 136835
registrations under Chapters 4503. or 4504. of the Revised Code 136836
prior to July 1, 2013, shall be deposited, and distributed, in 136837
accordance with sections 4501.03, 4501.04, 4501.041, 4501.042, and 136838
4501.043 of the Revised Code as they existed prior to the 136839
amendments to those sections by this act.136840

       Section 605.11. That existing Section 205.10 of Am. Sub. H.B. 136841
51 of the 130th General Assembly is hereby repealed.136842

       Section 610.10.  That Sections 201.80, 205.83, and 509.40 of 136843
Sub. H.B. 482 of the 129th General Assembly be amended to read as 136844
follows:136845

       Sec. 201.80. All items set forth in this section are hereby 136846
appropriated out of any moneys in the state treasury to the credit 136847
of the School Building Program Assistance Fund (Fund 7032), that 136848
are not otherwise appropriated.136849

Appropriations

SFC SCHOOL FACILITIES COMMISSION
136850

C23002 School Building Program Assistance $ 425,000,000 413,000,000 136851
C23020 School Security Grant Program $ 12,000,000 136852
Total School Facilities Commission $ 425,000,000 136853
TOTAL School Building Program Assistance Fund $ 425,000,000 136854

       SCHOOL BUILDING PROGRAM ASSISTANCE136855

       The foregoing appropriation item C23002, School Building 136856
Program Assistance, shall be used by the School Facilities 136857
Commission to provide funding to school districts that receive 136858
conditional approval from the Commission pursuant to Chapter 3318. 136859
of the Revised Code.136860

       SCHOOL SECURITY GRANT PROGRAM136861

       The foregoing appropriation item C23020, School Security 136862
Grant Program, shall be used by the School Facilities Commission 136863
to provide funding to all public schools for school security 136864
expenditures including the purchase and installation of one 136865
Multi-Agency Radio Communications System unit per school building 136866
and a security door system, consisting of a security camera, an 136867
intercom, and remote access, at one entrance per school building. 136868
A school may apply to the School Facilities Commission for 136869
reimbursement up to $2,000 for one Multi-Agency Radio 136870
Communications System Unit per school building and up to $5,000 136871
for costs incurred with the purchase of a security door system 136872
installed on or after January 1, 2013.136873

       Sec. 205.83. The Ohio Public Facilities Commission is hereby 136874
authorized to issue and sell, in accordance with Section 2o and 2q 136875
of Article VIII, Ohio Constitution, and pursuant to sections 136876
151.01 and 151.09 of the Revised Code, original obligations of the 136877
state in an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $6,000,000136878
9,250,000 in addition to the original issuance of obligations 136879
heretofore authorized by prior acts of the General Assembly. These 136880
authorized obligations shall be issued and sold from time to time, 136881
subject to applicable constitutional and statutory limitations, as 136882
needed to ensure sufficient moneys to the credit of the Clean Ohio 136883
Trail Fund (Fund 7061) to pay costs of conservation projects.136884

       Sec. 509.40. AGENCY ADMINISTRATION OF CAPITAL FACILITIES 136885
PROJECTS136886

        Notwithstanding sections 123.01 and 123.15section 123.21 of 136887
the Revised Code, the Executive Director of Administrative 136888
Servicesthe Ohio Facilities Construction Commission may authorize 136889
the Departments of Mental Health, Developmental Disabilities, 136890
Agriculture, Job and Family Services, Rehabilitation and 136891
Correction, Youth Services, Public Safety, Transportation, and136892
Veterans Services, and the Bureau of Workers' Compensation to 136893
administer any capital facilities projects, the estimated cost of 136894
which, including design fees, construction, equipment, and 136895
contingency amounts, is less than $1,500,000. Requests for 136896
authorization to administer capital facilities projects shall be 136897
made in writing to the Director of Administrative Servicesthrough 136898
the OAKS-CI application by the applicable state agency within 136899
sixty days after the effective date of the section of law in which 136900
the General Assembly initially makes an appropriation for the 136901
project. Upon the release of funds for the projects by the 136902
Controlling Board or the Director of Budget and Management, the 136903
agency may administer the capital project or projects for which 136904
agency administration has been authorized without the supervision, 136905
control, or approval of the Executive Director of Administrative 136906
Servicesthe Ohio Facilities Construction Commission.136907

        A state agency authorized by the Executive Director of 136908
Administrative Servicesthe Ohio Facilities Construction 136909
Commission to administer capital facilities projects pursuant to 136910
this section shall comply with the applicable procedures and 136911
guidelines established in Chapter 153. of the Revised Code and 136912
shall track all project information in OAKS-CI pursuant to Ohio 136913
Facilities Construction Commission guidelines.136914

       Section 610.11.  That existing Sections 201.80, 205.83, and 136915
509.40 of Sub. H.B. 482 of the 129th General Assembly are hereby 136916
repealed.136917

       Section 610.14. That Sections 301.11, 301.12, and 301.13 of 136918
Am. Sub. H.B. 487 of the 129th General Assembly be amended to read 136919
as follows:136920

       Sec. 301.11.  The items set forth in this section are hereby 136921
appropriated out of any moneys in the state treasury to the credit 136922
of the Clean Ohio Conservation Fund (Fund 7056) that are not 136923
otherwise appropriated.136924

Appropriations

PWC PUBLIC WORKS COMMISSION
136925

C15060 Clean Ohio Conservation $ 36,000,000 55,500,000 136926
Total Public Works Commission $ 36,000,000 55,500,000 136927
TOTAL Clean Ohio Conservation Fund $ 36,000,000 55,500,000 136928

        The foregoing appropriation item C15060, Clean Ohio 136929
Conservation, shall be used in accordance with sections 164.20 to 136930
164.27 of the Revised Code. If the Public Works Commission 136931
receives refunds due to project overpayments that are discovered 136932
during the post-project audit, the Director of the Public Works 136933
Commission may certify to the Director of Budget and Management 136934
that refunds have been received. If the Director of Budget and 136935
Management determines that the project refunds are available to 136936
support additional appropriations, such amounts are hereby 136937
appropriated.136938

       Sec. 301.12. The items set forth in this section are hereby 136939
appropriated out of any moneys in the state treasury to the credit 136940
of the Clean Ohio Agricultural Easement Fund (Fund 7057) that are 136941
not otherwise appropriated.136942

Appropriations

AGR DEPARTMENT OF AGRICULTURE
136943

C70009 Clean Ohio Agricultural Easements $ 6,000,000 9,250,000 136944
Total Department of Agriculture $ 6,000,000 9,250,000 136945
TOTAL Clean Ohio Agricultural Easement Fund $ 6,000,000 9,250,000 136946


       Sec. 301.13. (A) The Ohio Public Facilities Commission is 136948
hereby authorized to issue and sell, in accordance with Section 2o 136949
and 2q of Article VIII, Ohio Constitution, and pursuant to 136950
sections 151.01 and 151.09 of the Revised Code, original 136951
obligations of the state in an aggregate principal amount not to 136952
exceed $36,000,00055,500,000 in addition to the original issuance 136953
of obligations heretofore authorized by prior acts of the General 136954
Assembly. These authorized obligations shall be issued and sold 136955
from time to time, subject to applicable constitutional and 136956
statutory limitations, as needed to ensure sufficient moneys to 136957
the credit of the Clean Ohio Conservation Fund (Fund 7056) to pay 136958
costs of conservation projects.136959

       (B) The Ohio Public Facilities Commission is hereby 136960
authorized to issue and sell, in accordance with Section 2o and 2q 136961
of Article VIII, Ohio Constitution, and pursuant to sections 136962
151.01 and 151.09 of the Revised Code, original obligations of the 136963
state in an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $6,000,000136964
9,250,000 in addition to the original issuance of obligations 136965
heretofore authorized by prior acts of the General Assembly. These 136966
authorized obligations shall be issued and sold from time to time, 136967
subject to applicable constitutional and statutory limitations, as 136968
needed to ensure sufficient moneys to the credit of the Clean Ohio 136969
Agricultural Easement Fund (Fund 7057) to pay costs of 136970
conservation projects.136971

       Section 610.15. That existing Sections 301.11, 301.12, and 136972
301.13 of Am. Sub. H.B. 487 of the 129th General Assembly are 136973
hereby repealed.136974

       Section 610.16. That Section 205.80 of Sub. H.B. 482 of the 136975
129th General Assembly, as amended by Am. Sub. H.B. 487 of the 136976
129th General Assembly, be amended to read as follows:136977

       Sec. 205.80. The items set forth in this section are hereby 136978
appropriated out of any moneys in the state treasury to the credit 136979
of the Clean Ohio Trail Fund (Fund 7061) that are not otherwise 136980
appropriated.136981

DNR DEPARTMENT OF NATURAL RESOURCES
136982

Appropriations

C72514 Clean Ohio Local Grants $ 6,000,000 9,250,000 136983
Total Department of Natural Resources $ 6,000,000 9,250,000 136984
TOTAL Clean Ohio Trail Fund $ 6,000,000 9,250,000 136985


       Section 610.17. That existing Section 205.80 of Sub. H.B. 482 136987
of the 129th General Assembly, as amended by Am. Sub. H.B. 487 of 136988
the 129th General Assembly, is hereby repealed.136989

       Section 610.20. That Section 4 of Sub. S.B. 171 of the 129th 136990
General Assembly, as amended by Am. Sub. H.B. 487 of the 129th 136991
General Assembly, be amended to read as follows:136992

       Sec. 4. The following agencies are retained under division 136993
(D) of section 101.83 of the Revised Code and expire on December 136994
31, 2016:136995

AGENCY NAME REVISED CODE OR UNCODIFIED SECTION 136996
Academic Distress Commission 3302.10 136997
Advisory Board of Governor's Office of Faith-Based and Community Initiatives 107.12 136998
Advisory Board to Assist and Advise in the Operation of the Ohio Center for Autism and Low Incidence 3323.33, 3323.34 136999
Advisory Council on Amusement Ride Safety 1711.51, 1711.52 137000
Advisory Council of Directors for Prison Labor Office of Enterprise Development Advisory Board 5145.162 137001
Advisory Council for Wild, Scenic, or Recreational River Area(s) 1547.84 137002
Advisory Committee on Livestock Exhibitions 901.71 137003
Agricultural Commodity Marketing Programs Operating Committees 924.07 137004
Agricultural Commodity Marketing Programs Coordinating Committee 924.14 137005
Alternative Energy Advisory Committee 4928.64(D) 137006
AMBER Alert Advisory Committee 5502.521 137007
Apprenticeship Council Chapter 4139. 137008
Armory Board of Control 5911.09, 5911.12 137009
Automated Title Processing Board 4505.09(C)(1) 137010
Backflow Advisory Board 3703.21 137011
Banking Commission 1123.01 137012
Board of Directors of the Great Lakes Protection Fund 1506.22 (6161.04) 137013
Board of Directors of the Medical Liability Underwriting Association Stabilization Fund 3929.631 137014
Board of Directors of the Ohio Appalachian Center for Higher Education 3333.58 137015
Board of Directors of the Ohio Health Reinsurance Program 3924.08 - 3924.11 137016
Board of Governors of the Commercial Insurance Joint Underwriting Association 3930.03 137017
Board of Governors of the Medical Liability Underwriting Association 3929.64 137018
Board of Voting Machines Examiners 3506.05 137019
Budget Planning and Management Commission Section 509.10, H.B. 1, 128th G.A. 137020
Brain Injury Advisory Committee 3304.231 137021
Bureau of Workers' Compensation Board of Directors 4121.12 137022
Capitol Square Review and Advisory Board 105.41 137023
Child Care Advisory Council 5104.08 137024
Child Support Guideline Advisory Council 3119.024 137025
Children's Trust Fund Board 3109.15 - 3109.17 137026
Citizen's Advisory Council 5123.092, 5123.093 137027
Clean Ohio Trail Advisory Board 1519.06 137028
Coastal Resources Advisory Council 1506.12 137029
Commission on African-American Males 4112.12, 4112.13 137030
Commission on Hispanic-Latino Affairs 121.31 137031
Commission on Minority Health 3701.78 137032
Committee on Prescriptive Governance 4723.49 - 4723.492 137033
Commodity Advisory Commission 926.32 137034
Consumer Advisory Committee to the Rehabilitation Services Commission 3304.24 137035
Continuing Education Committee 109.80(B) 137036
Council on Alcohol and Drug Addiction Services 3793.09 137037
Council on Unreclaimed Strip Mined Lands 1513.29 137038
County Sheriff's Standard Car Marking and Uniform Commission 311.25 - 311.27 137039
Credential Review Board 3319.65 137040
Credit Union Council 1733.329 137041
Criminal Sentencing Advisory Committee 181.22 137042
Data Collection and Analysis Group 3727.32 137043
Dentist Loan Repayment Advisory Board 3702.92 137044
Department Advisory Council(s) 107.18, 121.13 137045
Development Financing Advisory Council 122.40, 122.41 137046
Early Childhood Advisory Council 3301.90 137047
Education Commission of the States (Interstate Compact for Education) 3301.48, 3301.49 137048
Education Management Information System Advisory Board 3301.0713 137049
Educator Standards Board 3319.60 137050
Electrical Safety Inspector Advisory Committee 3783.08 137051
Emergency Response Commission 3750.02 137052
Engineering Experiment Station Advisory Committee 3335.27 137053
Environmental Education Council 3745.21 137054
Environmental Protection Agency Advisory Board(s) 121.13, 3704.03, 3745.01 137055
eTech Ohio Broadcast Educational Media Commission 3353.02 - 3353.04 137056
Ex-Offender Reentry Coalition 5120.07 137057
Farmland Preservation Advisory Board 901.23 137058
Financial Planning and Supervision Commission(s) for Municipal Corporation, County, or Township 118.05 137059
Financial Planning and Supervision Commission for a school district 3316.05 137060
Forestry Advisory Council 1503.40 137061
Governance Authority for a State University or College 3345.75 137062
Governor's Council on People with Disabilities 3303.41 137063
Governor's Policy Information Working Group Section 313, H.B. 420, 127th G.A. 137064
Governor's Residence Advisory Commission 107.40 137065
Grain Marketing Program Operating Committee 924.20 - 924.30 137066
Great Lakes Commission (Great Lakes Basin Compact) 6161.01 137067
Gubernatorial Transition Committee 107.29, 126.26 137068
Help Me Grow Advisory Council 3701.611 137069
Hemophilia Advisory Subcommittee of the Medically Handicapped Children's Medical Advisory Council 3701.0210 137070
Homeland Security Advisory Council 5502.011(E) 137071
Hospital Measures Advisory Council 3727.31 137072
Housing Trust Fund Advisory Committee 174.06 137073
Industrial Commission Nominating Council 4121.04 137074
Industrial Technology and Enterprise Advisory Council 122.29, 122.30 137075
Infant Hearing Screening Subcommittee 3701.507 137076
Infection Control Group 3727.312(D) 137077
Insurance Agent Education Advisory Council 3905.483 137078
Interstate Rail Passenger Advisory Council 4981.35 137079
Joint Select Committee on Volume Cap 133.021 137080
Labor-Management Government Advisory Council 4121.70 137081
Legislative Programming Committee of the Ohio Government Telecommunications Service 3353.07 137082
Legislative Task Force on Redistricting, Reapportionment, and Demographic Research 103.51 137083
Maternity and Newborn Advisory Council 3711.20, 3711.21 137084
Medically Handicapped Children's Medical Advisory Council 3701.025 137085
Midwest Interstate Passenger Rail Compact Commission 4981.361 137086
Milk Sanitation Board 917.03 - 917.032 137087
Mine Subsidence Insurance Governing Board 3929.51 137088
Minority Development Financing Advisory Board 122.72, 122.73 137089
Multi-Agency Radio Communications System (MARCS) Steering Committee Section 15.02, H.B. 640, 123rd G.A. 137090
National Museum of Afro-American History and Culture Planning Committee 149.303 137091
New African Immigrants Commission 4112.31, 4112.32 137092
Ohio Accountability Task Force 3302.021(E) 137093
Ohio Advisory Council for the Aging 173.03 137094
Ohio Agriculture License Plate Scholarship Fund Board 901.90 137095
Ohio Arts Council Chapter 3379. 137096
Ohio Business Gateway Steering Committee 5703.57 137097
Ohio Cemetery Dispute Resolution Commission 4767.05, 4767.06 137098
Ohio Civil Rights Commission Advisory Agencies and Conciliation Councils 4112.04(B)(4) 137099
Ohio Commercial Market Assistance Plan Executive Committee 3930.02 137100
Ohio Commission on Dispute Resolution and Conflict Management 179.02 - 179.04 137101
Ohio Commission on Fatherhood 5101.34 137102
Ohio Community Service Council 121.40 - 121.404 137103
Ohio Council for Interstate Adult Offender Supervision 5149.22 137104
Ohio Cultural Facilities Commission Chapter 3383. 137105
Ohio Cystic Fibrosis Legislative Task Force 101.38 137106
Ohio Developmental Disabilities Council 5123.35 137107
Ohio Expositions Commission 991.02 137108
Ohio Family and Children First Cabinet Council 121.37 137109
Ohio Geographically Referenced Information Program Council 125.901, 125.902 137110
Ohio Geology Advisory Council 1501.11 137111
Ohio Grape Industries Committee 924.51 - 924.55 137112
Ohio Historic Site Preservation Advisory Board 149.301 137113
Ohio Historical Society Board of Trustees 149.30 137114
Ohio Judicial Conference 105.91 - 105.97 137115
Ohio Lake Erie Commission 1506.21 137116
Ohio Legislative Commission on the Education and Preservation of State History Section 701.05, H.B. 1, 128th G.A. 137117
Ohio Medical Quality Foundation 3701.89 137118
Ohio Parks and Recreation Council 1541.40 137119
Ohio Peace Officer Training Commission 109.71, 109.72 137120
Ohio Private Investigation and Security Services Commission 4749.021, 4743.01 137121
Ohio Public Defender Commission 120.01 - 120.03 137122
Ohio Public Library Information Network Board of Trustees 3375.65, 3375.66 137123
Ohio Quarter Horse Development Commission 3769.086 137124
Ohio Small Government Capital Improvements Commission 164.02(C)(D) 137125
Ohio Soil and Water Conservation Commission 1515.02 137126
Ohio Standardbred Development Commission 3769.085 137127
Ohio Subrogation Rights Commission 2323.44 137128
Ohio Thoroughbred Racing Advisory Committee 3769.084 137129
Ohio Transportation Finance Commission 5531.12(B) to (D) 137130
Ohio Tuition Trust Authority 3334.03, 3334.08 137131
Ohio University College of Osteopathic Medicine Advisory Committee 3337.10, 3337.11 137132
Ohio Vendors Representative Committee 3304.34, 20 USC 107 137133
Ohio War Orphans Scholarship Board 5910.02 - 5910.06 137134
Ohio Water Advisory Council 1521.031 137135
Ohio Water Resources Council Advisory Group 1521.19 137136
Ohio Water Resources Council 1521.19 137137
Oil and Gas Commission 1509.35 137138
Operating Committee of the Oil and Gas Marketing Program 1510.06, 1510.11 137139
Organized Crime Investigations Commission 177.01 137140
Pharmacy and Therapeutics Committee of the Department of Job and Family Services Medicaid 5111.084 5164.7510 137141
Physician Assistant Policy Committee of the State Medical Board 4730.05, 4730.06 137142
Physician Loan Repayment Advisory Board 3702.81 137143
Power Siting Board 4906.02 137144
Prequalification Review Board 5525.07 137145
Private Water Systems Advisory Council 3701.346 137146
Public Utilities Commission Nominating Council 4901.021 137147
Public Utility Property Tax Study Committee 5727.85(K) 137148
Radiation Advisory Council 3748.20 137149
Reclamation Commission 1513.05 137150
Reclamation Forfeiture Fund Advisory Board 1513.182 137151
Recreation and Resources Commission 1501.04 137152
Recycling and Litter Prevention Advisory Council 1502.04 137153
School and Ministerial Lands Divestiture Committee 501.041 137154
Savings and Loan Associations and Savings Banks Board 1181.16 137155
Second Chance Trust Fund Advisory Committee 2108.35 137156
Service Coordination Workgroup Section 751.20, H.B. 1, 128th G.A. 137157
Ski Tramway Board 4169.02 137158
Small Business Stationary Source Technical and Environmental Compliance Assistance Council 3704.19 137159
Solid Waste Management Advisory Council 3734.51 137160
Special Commission to Consider the Suspension of Local Government Officials 3.16 137161
Speed to Scale Task Force Section 375.60.80, H.B. 119, 128th G.A. 137162
State Agency Coordinating Group 1521.19 137163
State Audit Committee 126.46 137164
State Council of Uniform State Laws 105.21 - 105.27 137165
State Criminal Sentencing Commission 181.22 - 181.26 137166
State Fire Council 3737.81 137167
State Library Board 3375.01 137168
State Victims Assistance Advisory Council 109.91(B) and (C) 137169
Statewide Consortium of County Law Library Resource Boards 3375.481 137170
STEM Committee 3326.02 137171
Student Tuition Recovery Authority 3332.081 137172
Sunset Review Committee 101.84 - 101.87 137173
Tax Credit Authority 122.17(M) 137174
Technical Advisory Committee to Assist Director of the Ohio Coal Development Office 1551.35 137175
Technical Advisory Council on Oil and Gas 1509.38 137176
Transportation Review Advisory Council 5512.07 - 5512.09 137177
Unemployment Compensation Advisory Council 4141.08 137178
Unemployment Compensation Review Commission 4141.06 137179
Veterans Advisory Committee 5902.02(K) 137180
Volunteer Fire Fighters' Dependents Fund Boards (private volunteer) 146.02 - 146.06 137181
Volunteer Fire Fighters' Dependents Fund Boards (public) 146.02 - 146.06 137182
Water and Sewer Commission 1525.11(C) 137183
Waterways Safety Council 1547.73 137184
Wildlife Council 1531.03 - 1531.05 137185
Workers' Compensation Board of Directors Nominating Committee 4121.123 137186

       Section 610.21. That existing Section 4 of Sub. S.B. 171 of 137187
the 129th General Assembly, as amended by Am. Sub. H.B. 487 of the 137188
129th General Assembly, is hereby repealed.137189

       Section 620.10. That Section 105.05 of Am. Sub. H.B. 2 of the 137190
128th General Assembly be amended to read as follows:137191

       Sec. 105.05. Section 121.53 of the Revised Code is hereby 137192
repealed, effective SeptemberJune 30, 20132014.137193

       Section 620.11. That existing Section 105.05 of Am. Sub. H.B. 137194
2 of the 128th General Assembly is hereby repealed.137195

       Section 630.10. All items set forth in this section are 137196
hereby appropriated out of any moneys in the state treasury to the 137197
credit of the Administrative Building Fund (Fund 7026) that are 137198
not otherwise appropriated for the biennium ending June 30, 2014:137199

Appropriations

DEV DEVELOPMENT SERVICES AGENCY
137200

C19506 Children's Home $ 100,000 137201
Total Development Services Agency $ 100,000 137202

       CHILDREN'S HOME137203

       The foregoing appropriation item C19506, Children's Home, 137204
shall be used for the Children's Home of Cincinnati.137205

       Section 630.11. That Sections 203.90.10 and 203.90.20 of Sub. 137206
S.B. 312 of the 129th General Assembly be amended to read as 137207
follows:137208

Reappropriations

       Sec. 203.90.10.  DMH DEPARTMENT OF MENTAL HEALTH137209

C58000 Hazardous Materials Abatement $ 118,750 137210
C58001 Community Assistance Projects $ 332,500 232,500 137211
C58002 Campus Consolidation - Automation $ 95,000 137212
C58004 Demolition $ 142,500 137213
C58005 Life Safety/Critical Plant Renovations $ 23,750 137214
C58006 Patient Care/Environment Improvement $ 285,000 137215
C58007 Infrastructure Renovations $ 475,000 137216
C58008 Emergency Improvements $ 285,000 137217
C58009 Patient Environment Improvement Consolidation $ 1,000 137218
C58010 Campus Consolidation $ 23,750,000 137219
C58020 Mandel Jewish Community Center $ 199,500 137220
Total Department of Mental Health $ 25,708,000 25,608,000 137221

       COMMUNITY ASSISTANCE PROJECTS137222

       Of the foregoing appropriation item C58001, Community 137223
Assistance Projects, $100,000 shall be used for the Children's 137224
Home of Cincinnati, $100,000 shall be used for the Shaw JCC, and 137225
$300,000 shall be used for the Berea Children's Home.137226

        The amount reappropriated for the foregoing appropriation 137227
item C58001, Community Assistance Projects, is the unencumbered 137228
unallotted balance, as of June 30, 2012, in appropriation item 137229
C58001, Community Assistance Projects, plus $1,096,159.42. Prior 137230
to the expenditure of this reappropriation, the Director of Mental 137231
Health shall certify to the Director of Budget and Management 137232
canceled encumbrances in the amount of at least $1,096,159.42.137233

        INFRASTRUCTURE RENOVATIONS137234

       The amount reappropriated for the foregoing appropriation 137235
item C58007, Infrastructure Renovations, is the unencumbered and 137236
unallotted balance as of June 30, 2012, in appropriation item 137237
C58007, Infrastructure Renovations, plus $2,995,450.24. Prior to 137238
the expenditure of this reappropriation, the Director of Mental 137239
Health shall certify to the Director of Budget and Management 137240
canceled encumbrances in the amount of at least $2,995,450.24.137241

Reappropriations

       Sec. 203.90.20.  DDD DEPARTMENT OF DEVELOPMENTAL DISABILITIES137242

C59004 Community Assistance Projects $ 13,913,599 137243
C59029 Emergency Generator Replacement $ 460,362 137244
C59034 Statewide Developmental Centers $ 1,407,067 137245
C59050 Emergency Improvements $ 484,984 137246
C59051 Energy Conservation $ 430,500 137247
C59055 Camp McKinley Improvements $ 30,000 137248
C59056 The Hope Learning Center $ 250,000 137249
TOTAL Department of Developmental Disabilities $ 16,976,512 137250
TOTAL Mental Health Facilities Improvement Fund $ 42,684,512 42,584,512 137251

       COMMUNITY ASSISTANCE PROJECTS137252

       The foregoing appropriation item C59004, Community Assistance 137253
Projects, may be used to provide community assistance funds for 137254
the construction or renovation of facilities for day programs or 137255
residential programs that provide services to persons eligible for 137256
services from the Department of Developmental Disabilities or 137257
county boards of developmental disabilities.137258

       The amount reappropriated for the foregoing appropriation 137259
item C59004, Community Assistance Projects, is the unencumbered, 137260
unallotted balance as of June 30, 2012, in appropriation item 137261
C59004, Community Assistance Projects, plus $8,326,255. Prior to 137262
the expenditure of this reappropriation, the Director of 137263
Developmental Disabilities shall certify to the Director of Budget 137264
and Management canceled encumbrances in the Mental Health 137265
Facilities Improvement Fund (Fund 7033) in the amount of at least 137266
$8,326,255.137267

        STATEWIDE DEVELOPMENTAL CENTERS137268

        The amount reappropriated for the foregoing appropriation 137269
item C59034, Statewide Developmental Centers, is the unencumbered, 137270
unallotted balance as of June 30, 2012, in appropriation item 137271
C59034, Statewide Developmental Centers, plus $167,912. Prior to 137272
the expenditure of this reappropriation, the Director of 137273
Developmental Disabilities shall certify to the Director of Budget 137274
and Management canceled encumbrances in the Mental Health 137275
Facilities Improvement Fund (Fund 7033) in the amount of at least 137276
$167,912.137277

       Section 630.12. That existing Sections 203.90.10 and 137278
203.90.20 of Sub. S.B. 312 of the 129th General Assembly are 137279
hereby repealed.137280

       Section 701.10. EXEMPT EMPLOYEE CONSENT TO CERTAIN DUTIES137281

        As used in this section, "appointing authority" has the same 137282
meaning as in section 124.01 of the Revised Code, and "exempt 137283
employee" has the same meaning as in section 124.01 of the Revised 137284
Code.137285

        Notwithstanding section 124.181 of the Revised Code, in cases 137286
where no vacancy exists, an appointing authority may, with the 137287
written consent of an exempt employee, assign duties of a higher 137288
classification to that exempt employee for a period of time not to 137289
exceed two years, and that exempt employee shall receive 137290
compensation at a rate commensurate with the duties of the higher 137291
classification.137292

       Section 701.20. (A) There is hereby created the Legislative 137293
Study Committee on Clean Ohio and Brownfield Funding. The 137294
Committee shall study how to provide long-term funding for the 137295
Clean Ohio brownfield revitalization, conservation, agricultural 137296
easements, and recreational trails programs. 137297

       (B) The Committee shall consist of the following members:137298

       (1) Three members of the House of Representatives, appointed 137299
by the Speaker of the House;137300

       (2) Three members of the House of Representatives, appointed 137301
by the Minority Leader of the House;137302

       (3) Three members of the Senate, appointed by the President 137303
of the Senate;137304

       (4) Three members of the Senate, appointed by the Minority 137305
Leader of the Senate.137306

       Members of the Committee shall serve without additional 137307
compensation beyond the compensation received for their service in 137308
the General Assembly. Members may be reimbursed for actual and 137309
necessary expenses incurred in the conduct of Committee business.137310

       (C) Appointments to the Committee shall be made not later 137311
than thirty days after the effective date of this section. 137312
Vacancies shall be filled in the same manner as the original 137313
appointment. 137314

       (D) The Committee shall hold its first meeting not later than 137315
forty-five days after the effective date of this section and shall 137316
meet at least once per month thereafter. 137317

       (E) A majority of the Committee constitutes a quorum and the 137318
affirmative vote of a majority of Committee members is required 137319
for the conduct of Committee business.137320

       (F) The Committee shall choose from among its members two 137321
co-chairpersons. One co-chairperson shall be a member of the House 137322
of Representatives and one co-chairperson shall be a member of the 137323
Senate. One co-chairperson shall represent the majority political 137324
party and one co-chairperson shall represent the minority 137325
political party.137326

       (G) The Legislative Service Commission shall provide research 137327
support to the Committee and Commission employees shall attend all 137328
Committee meetings. 137329

       (H) Not later than March 1, 2014, the Committee shall submit 137330
a report of its findings and its funding recommendations to the 137331
Governor, Speaker and Minority Leader of the House of 137332
Representatives, and President and Minority Leader of the Senate. 137333
After submission of the report, the Committee shall cease to 137334
exist.137335

       Section 715.10.  Two years after the amendments to section 137336
1501.011 of the Revised Code by this act take effect, the Ohio 137337
Facilities Construction Commission and the Department of Natural 137338
Resources shall review division (C) of that section.137339

       Section 733.10. Notwithstanding section 3317.01 of the 137340
Revised Code, as amended by this act, to determine whether a 137341
school district satisfied the minimum school year in the 2013-2014 137342
school year in order to qualify for state funding under Chapter 137343
3317. of the Revised Code for fiscal year 2015, the Department of 137344
Education shall apply the criteria prescribed in the version of 137345
division (B) of section 3317.01 of the Revised Code in effect 137346
prior to July 1, 2014.137347

       Section 733.20.  The General Assembly hereby declares its 137348
intent, in enacting section 3319.031 of the Revised Code, to 137349
supersede any effect of the decision of the Court of Appeals of 137350
the Eighth Appellate District in OAPSE/AFSCME Local 4 v. Berdine, 137351
174 Ohio App.3d 46 (Cuyahoga County, 2007) to the extent the 137352
decision conflicts with the principle that boards of education may 137353
appoint a licensed business manager, but also may determine 137354
instead to assign the roles and functions of a business manager to 137355
one or more employees or officers of the board, including the 137356
treasurer, in the board's sole discretion.137357

       Section 733.40. (A) The Superintendent of Public Instruction 137358
shall appoint three incorporators who are knowledgeable about the 137359
administration of public schools and about the operation of 137360
nonprofit corporations in Ohio.137361

        (B) The incorporators shall do whatever is necessary and 137362
proper to set up a nonprofit corporation under Chapter 1702. of 137363
the Revised Code. The articles of incorporation, in addition to 137364
meeting the requirements of section 1702.04 of the Revised Code, 137365
shall set forth the following provisions:137366

        (1) That the nonprofit corporation is to create and implement 137367
a pilot program that provides an alternative path for individuals 137368
to receive training and development in the administration of 137369
primary and secondary education and leadership, that will enable 137370
these individuals to earn a degree in public school 137371
administration, that will enable these individuals to obtain 137372
licenses in public school administration, and that promotes the 137373
placement of these individuals in public schools that have a 137374
poverty percentage greater than fifty per cent.137375

        (2) That the Board of Directors are to establish criteria for 137376
program costs, participant selection, and continued participation, 137377
and metrics to document and measure pilot program activities.137378

       (3) That the name of the nonprofit corporation is "New 137379
Leaders for Ohio Schools."137380

       (4) That the Board of Directors is to consist of the 137381
following eight directors:137382

        (a) The Governor or the Governor's designee;137383

        (b) The Superintendent of Public Instruction, or the 137384
Superintendent's designee;137385

        (c) The Chancellor of the Ohio Board of Regents, or the 137386
Chancellor's designee;137387

        (d) A person to represent major business enterprises in Ohio;137388

        (e) Two individuals appointed by the Speaker of the House of 137389
Representatives, one of whom shall be an active duty or retired 137390
military officer;137391

        (f) Two individuals appointed by the President of the Senate, 137392
one of whom shall be a current or retired teacher or principal.137393

        The Dean of The Ohio State University Fisher College of 137394
Business and the Dean of The Ohio State University College of 137395
Education and Human Ecology are to serve as ex-officio nonvoting 137396
members of the Board.137397

       The person on the Board who represents a major business 137398
enterprise in Ohio is to be appointed by an organization selected 137399
by the Governor. The organization is to be nonpartisan and consist 137400
of chief executive officers of corporations organized in Ohio. 137401

       (5) That the Board is to appoint a President of the 137402
corporation.137403

       (6) That the President of the Corporation, subject to the 137404
approval of the Board, is to enter into a contract with The Ohio 137405
State University Fisher College of Business. Under the contract, 137406
the College is to provide oversight to the corporation, is to 137407
serve as fiscal agent for the corporation, and is to provide the 137408
corporation with office space, and with office furniture and 137409
equipment, as is necessary for the corporation successfully to 137410
fulfill its duties.137411

        (7) That the administrative costs of the corporation are not 137412
to exceed fifteen per cent of the annual budget of the 137413
corporation.137414

        (8) That the President is to apply for, and is to receive and 137415
accept, grants, gifts, bequests, and contributions from private 137416
sources.137417

       (9) That the corporation is to submit an annual report to the 137418
General Assembly and Governor beginning December 31, 2013.137419

       (10) That the corporation shall cease operations on the date 137420
that is five years after the effective date of this section and 137421
proceed to wind up its affairs.137422

       Section 751.10.  RECOVERY REQUIRES A COMMUNITY PROGRAM137423

       The Department of Mental Health and Addiction Services, in 137424
consultation with the Department of Medicaid, shall administer the 137425
Recovery Requires a Community Program to identify individuals 137426
residing in nursing facilities who can be successfully moved into 137427
a community setting with the aid of community non-Medicaid 137428
services. 137429

       The Director of Mental Health and Addiction Services and the 137430
Medicaid Director shall agree upon an amount representing the 137431
savings realized from decreased nursing facility utilization to be 137432
transferred within the biennium from the Department of Medicaid to 137433
the Department of Mental Health and Addiction Services to support 137434
non-Medicaid program costs for individuals moving into community 137435
settings.137436

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 651525, Medicaid/Health 137437
Care Services, the Medicaid Director shall transfer the amount 137438
agreed upon representing the savings from the General Revenue Fund 137439
to the Sale of Goods and Services Fund (Fund 1490). The transfer 137440
shall be made using an intrastate transfer voucher. The 137441
transferred cash is hereby appropriated to appropriation item 137442
335609, Community Operating/Planning. 137443

       Section 751.40.  (A) The Workforce Training Pilot Program for 137444
the Economically Disadvantaged is hereby established to provide 137445
grants to provide training in life and technical skills. The 137446
Director of Job and Family Services shall administer the Pilot 137447
Program for a period of two years, beginning July 1, 2013.137448

       (B) The Director of Job and Family Services, in consultation 137449
with the Director of Development Services and JobsOhio, shall 137450
issue a request for proposals to allow an entity to receive a 137451
grant under this section to create and administer a demonstration 137452
project in the field of workforce development. The demonstration 137453
project shall provide training to those individuals located in the 137454
region described in division (C) of this section where the project 137455
is located who the applicant determines are economically 137456
disadvantaged. The request for proposals shall include all of the 137457
following requirements:137458

       (1) That the applicant shall include in the proposal a 137459
description of the manner in which the applicant will determine 137460
whether an individual is economically disadvantaged;137461

       (2) That the demonstration project shall provide life skills 137462
training, to assist an individual to develop character traits 137463
necessary to obtain employment, and technical, field-related 137464
training;137465

       (3) That the applicant is collaborating with an organization 137466
in the region described in division (C) of this section where the 137467
project is located and at least one community-based nonprofit 137468
organization that has experience in life-skill support services 137469
and workforce development;137470

       (4) That the applicant satisfies any other requirements 137471
established in the request for proposals.137472

       (C)(1) The Director of Job and Family Services, in 137473
consultation with the Director of Development Services and 137474
JobsOhio, shall award a grant in fiscal year 2014 for a 137475
demonstration project described in division (B) of this section in 137476
each of the following regions of the state:137477

       (a) The counties of Allen, Crawford, Defiance, Fulton, 137478
Hancock, Hardin, Henry, Lucas, Ottawa, Paulding, Putnam, Sandusky, 137479
Seneca, Van Wert, Williams, Wood, and Wyandot;137480

       (b) The counties of Ashland, Ashtabula, Columbiana, Cuyahoga, 137481
Erie, Geauga, Huron, Lake, Lorain, Mahoning, Medina, Portage, 137482
Richland, Stark, Summit, Trumbull, Tuscarawas, and Wayne;137483

       (c) The counties of Auglaize, Champaign, Clark, Clinton, 137484
Darke, Fayette, Greene, Mercer, Miami, Montgomery, Preble, and 137485
Shelby;137486

       (d) The counties of Delaware, Fairfield, Franklin, Knox, 137487
Licking, Logan, Madison, Marion, Morrow, Pickaway, and Union;137488

       (e) The counties of Adams, Athens, Belmont, Carroll, 137489
Coshocton, Gallia, Guernsey, Harrison, Highland, Hocking, Holmes, 137490
Jackson, Jefferson, Lawrence, Meigs, Monroe, Morgan, Muskingum, 137491
Noble, Perry, Pike, Ross, Scioto, Vinton, and Washington;137492

       (f) The counties of Brown, Butler, Clermont, Hamilton, and 137493
Warren.137494

       (2) The Director of Job and Family Services may award a grant 137495
to one or two demonstration projects located in a region described 137496
in division (C)(1) of this section, however, no region shall 137497
receive more than one million dollars in grant funding under this 137498
section.137499

       (D) The Director of Job and Family Services shall adopt rules 137500
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to establish 137501
reporting requirements for grant recipients under this section. 137502
Those rules shall require a grant recipient to report on the 137503
successful completion rate of project participants, rate of job 137504
placement of participants, tracking of participant's employment 137505
after completion of the project, and any other information 137506
requested by the Director. The Director shall require grant 137507
recipients to report this information during the two-year Pilot 137508
Program and to submit a final report upon the expiration of the 137509
Pilot Program. A grant recipient shall comply with rules adopted 137510
by the Director.137511

       (E) On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 137512
Director of Budget and Management shall transfer $8,000,000 cash 137513
from the Economic Development Projects Fund (Fund 5JC0) used by 137514
the Board of Regents to the Training Activities Fund (Fund 6130) 137515
used by the Department of Job and Family Services. The transferred 137516
funds shall be used for the Pilot Program established in this 137517
section.137518

       Section 755.10. There is hereby created the License Plate 137519
Safety Task Force. The Task Force shall consist of eight members: 137520
three members appointed by the President of the Senate, one member 137521
appointed by the Minority Leader of the Senate, three members 137522
appointed by the Speaker of the House of Representatives, and one 137523
member appointed by the Minority Leader of the House of 137524
Representatives. At least five members shall represent law 137525
enforcement.137526

        The Task Force shall examine the extent of license plate 137527
degradation over time and the impediments to law enforcement 137528
efforts caused by illegible license plates resulting from 137529
degradation. The Task Force also shall examine whether having dual 137530
license plates is beneficial to law enforcement officers and 137531
determine whether the state should continue its dual plate 137532
requirement. Not later than December 31, 2013, the Task Force 137533
shall issue a report of its findings and recommendations to the 137534
Governor, the President of the Senate, the Minority Leader of the 137535
Senate, the Speaker of the House of Representatives, and the 137536
Minority Leader of the House of Representatives. At that time, the 137537
Task Force shall cease to exist.137538

       Section 757.10.  MINIMUM DISTRIBUTION OF LOCAL GOVERNMENT 137539
FUND137540

       Notwithstanding any provision of section 131.51 of the 137541
Revised Code to the contrary, from revenue arising from the 137542
personal income tax levied under Chapter 5747. of the Revised 137543
Code, an amount equal to one hundred per cent of the amount 137544
credited to the Local Government Fund in July 2012 shall be 137545
credited to such fund in July 2013. In July 2013 each county 137546
undivided local government fund shall receive the same amount it 137547
received in July 2012. In July 2013 each municipal corporation 137548
shall receive the same amount it directly received from the Local 137549
Government Fund in July 2012.137550

       Section 757.20. (A) On or before June 15, 2014, the Director 137551
of the Ohio Public Works Commission shall certify to the Director 137552
of Budget and Management the amount of debt service paid from the 137553
General Revenue Fund in fiscal years 2013 and 2014 on bonds issued 137554
to finance or assist in the financing of the cost of local 137555
subdivision public infrastructure capital improvement projects, as 137556
provided for in Sections 2k, 2m, and 2p of Article VIII, Ohio 137557
Constitution, that are attributable to costs for construction, 137558
reconstruction, maintenance, or repair of public highways and 137559
bridges and other statutory highway purposes. That certification 137560
shall allocate the total amount of debt service paid from the 137561
General Revenue Fund and attributable to those costs in each of 137562
fiscal years 2013 and 2014 according to the applicable section of 137563
the Ohio Constitution under which the bonds were originally 137564
issued.137565

        (B) On or before June 15, 2015, the Director of the Ohio 137566
Public Works Commission shall certify to the Director of Budget 137567
and Management the amount of debt service paid from the General 137568
Revenue Fund in fiscal year 2015 on bonds issued to finance or 137569
assist in the financing of the cost of local subdivision public 137570
infrastructure capital improvement projects, as provided for in 137571
Sections 2k, 2m, and 2p of Article VIII, Ohio Constitution, that 137572
are attributable to costs for construction, reconstruction, 137573
maintenance, or repair of public highways and bridges and other 137574
statutory highway purposes. That certification shall allocate the 137575
total amount of debt service paid from the General Revenue Fund 137576
and attributable to those costs in fiscal year 2015 according to 137577
the applicable section of the Ohio Constitution under which the 137578
bonds were originally issued.137579

        (C) On or before June 30 of each fiscal year, the Director of 137580
Budget and Management shall determine an amount up to but not 137581
exceeding the amount certified under division (A) or (B) of this 137582
section and shall reserve that amount from the cash balance in the 137583
Commercial Activity Tax Motor Fuel Receipts Fund for transfer to 137584
the General Revenue Fund at times and in amounts to be determined 137585
by the Director. The Director shall transfer the cash balance in 137586
the Commercial Activity Tax Motor Fuel Receipts Fund in excess of 137587
the amount so reserved to the Highway Operating Fund on or before 137588
June 30 of each fiscal year.137589

       Section 757.30. (A) There is hereby created the Commercial 137590
Activity Tax Review Committee to review and make recommendations 137591
for reforming and improving the tax levied under Chapter 5751. of 137592
the Revised Code. The committee shall be composed of the following 137593
members:137594

        (1) The chair of the standing committee of the House of 137595
Representatives that deals primarily with issues of taxation;137596

        (2) The chair of the standing committee of the Senate that 137597
deals primarily with issues of taxation;137598

        (3) Three members of the House of Representatives appointed 137599
by the Speaker of the House of Representatives, two of whom shall 137600
be members of the minority party; and137601

        (4) Three members of the Senate appointed by the President of 137602
the Senate, two of whom shall be members of the minority party.137603

        (B) The Commercial Activity Tax Review Committee shall be 137604
jointly chaired by the members described in divisions (A)(1) and 137605
(2) of this section. The committee shall meet monthly, beginning 137606
in July 2013, at the call of the chairs and may accept testimony. 137607
The committee is a public body for the purposes of section 121.22 137608
of the Revised Code.137609

       The committee shall, on or before October 31, 2013, submit a 137610
report with the committee's recommendations to the Governor, the 137611
Speaker and Minority Leader of the House of Representatives, and 137612
the President and Minority Leader of the Senate.137613

        (C) The Commercial Activity Tax Review Committee shall cease 137614
to exist after October 31, 2013.137615

       Section 757.40. The purpose of section 3735.661 of the 137616
Revised Code is to clarify the intent of the General Assembly that 137617
"first two amendments," as used in division (B) of Section 3 of 137618
Am. Sub. S.B. 19 of the 120th General Assembly, has, on and after 137619
July 22, 1994, referred and continues to refer to only a 137620
substantive amendment to a community reinvestment area ordinance 137621
or resolution that extends, expands, increases, or otherwise 137622
broadens the availability of tax exemptions provided under the 137623
ordinance or resolution and does not refer to an amendment that 137624
decreases or otherwise limits the availability of tax exemptions 137625
under the ordinance or resolution or that are procedural or 137626
administrative. Therefore, section 3735.661 of the Revised Code 137627
applies retroactively to ordinances and resolutions adopted under 137628
section 3735.66 of the Revised Code before and after the effective 137629
date of section 3735.661 of the Revised Code.137630

       Section 757.50.  The amendment by this act of divisions (R), 137631
(S), and (T) of section 5741.01 and section 5741.03 of the Revised 137632
Code and the enactment of section 5741.032 of the Revised Code are 137633
hereby effectuated with the intent that if the United States 137634
Congress enacts the Marketplace Fairness Act of 2013, or other 137635
similar legislation authorizing states to require sellers that 137636
lack a substantial nexus with the state to pay, collect, or remit 137637
sales or use tax, the General Assembly shall adopt, before the 137638
effective date of such federal legislation, any conforming 137639
amendments required by such federal legislation and requiring the 137640
Tax Commissioner to adopt rules necessary to effectively 137641
administer such taxes with respect to remote sellers, as defined 137642
in division (S) of section 5741.01 of the Revised Code.137643

       This section is not intended to create a nexus between this 137644
state and remote sellers for any tax other than those imposed 137645
under Chapters 5739. and 5741. of the Revised Code. 137646

       Section 803.10. An investor who is issued a tax credit 137647
certificate under section 122.152 of the Revised Code prior to 137648
that section's repeal by this act may continue to claim that 137649
credit in the manner provided for in that section.137650

       Section 803.20. The member of the Farmland Preservation 137651
Advisory Board appointed under division (A)(4) of section 901.23 137652
of the Revised Code, as that section existed prior to its 137653
amendment by this act, who is serving on the effective date of 137654
this act shall continue to serve until the expiration of the term 137655
for which the member was appointed. At the end of that term, a 137656
member shall be appointed in accordance with division (A)(4) of 137657
that section as amended by this act.137658

       Section 803.30.  A member of the technical advisory committee 137659
created in section 1551.35 of the Revised Code, as amended by this 137660
act, who was appointed by the Director of the Ohio Coal 137661
Development Office and who is serving on the committee immediately 137662
prior to the effective date of the amendments to that section 137663
shall continue in office until the expiration of the member's 137664
term. Thereafter, the appointment of a member for that position on 137665
the committee shall be made in accordance with the amendments to 137666
that section by this act.137667

       Section 803.50. The amendments to sections 3313.48, 3313.533, 137668
3313.62, 3317.01, and 3321.05; the repeal and reenactment of 137669
section 3313.481; and the repeal of section 3313.482 of the 137670
Revised Code made by this act do not apply to any collective 137671
bargaining agreement executed under Chapter 4117. of the Revised 137672
Code prior to July 1, 2014. Any collective bargaining agreement or 137673
renewal executed after that date shall comply with the changes 137674
provided for in this act.137675

       Section 803.60. (A) As used in this section:137676

       (1) "State institution of higher education" has the same 137677
meaning as in section 3345.011 of the Revised Code.137678

       (2) "Career-technical planning district" has the same meaning 137679
as in section 3302.033 of the Revised Code.137680

       (B) Nothing in Chapter 3365. of the Revised Code or the 137681
amendment of sections in that chapter by this act shall be 137682
construed to infringe upon or require the alteration of any 137683
existing or future articulation agreement for technical coursework 137684
offered through state-approved career-technical programs of study 137685
or any corresponding payment structure between any state 137686
institution of higher education and a career-technical planning 137687
district.137688

       The Department of Education and the Board of Regents shall 137689
study the implications of applying the changes in Chapter 3365. of 137690
the Revised Code to articulation agreements for technical 137691
coursework offered through state-approved career-technical 137692
programs of study. The Department and the Board also shall make 137693
recommendations on how such career-technical programs of study 137694
might be included under Chapter 3365. of the Revised Code and the 137695
implications of including them. These recommendations shall be 137696
submitted to the Governor's Office of 21st Century Education and 137697
the General Assembly in accordance with section 101.68 of the 137698
Revised Code, not later than July 1, 2014.137699

       Section 803.80. (A) The amendment by this act of section 137700
5747.01 of the Revised Code, amending or enacting divisions 137701
(A)(26) and (GG) of that section, applies to taxable years ending 137702
on or after the effective date of this section.137703

       (B) The amendment by this act of section 5747.022 and 137704
division (A) of section 5747.025 of the Revised Code applies to 137705
taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2013.137706

       (C) The amendment by this act of division (C) of section 137707
5747.025, and of sections 5747.02, 5747.08, and 5747.21, and the 137708
repeal of section 5747.211 of the Revised Code apply to taxable 137709
years beginning on or after January 1, 2013.137710

       Section 803.90. (A) The amendment by this act of section 137711
5751.01 of the Revised Code applies to tax periods ending on or 137712
after the effective date of that amendment.137713

       (B) The amendment by this act of section 5751.07 of Revised 137714
Code applies to original returns filed on or after January 1, 137715
2014.137716

       Section 803.120. (A) The amendment by this act of section 137717
1509.50, division (C)(12) of section 5703.21, section 5749.02, 137718
divisions (D), (F), (H), and (I) of section 5749.06, and section 137719
5749.17 of the Revised Code applies to calendar quarters beginning 137720
on or after October 1, 2013.137721

       (B) The amendment by this act of section 113.061 and division 137722
(G) of section 5749.06 of the Revised Code applies to the 137723
severance of natural resources occurring in calendar quarters 137724
beginning on or after January 1, 2014.137725

       Section 803.150.  A proposal approved by a board of county 137726
commissioners under section 317.321 of the Revised Code as it 137727
existed before the date of the amendment of that section by this 137728
act continues in effect for the number of years approved by the 137729
board of county commissioners under that section. The special fund 137730
established at the request of the board under that section ceases 137731
to exist upon the expiration of the proposal.137732

       Section 803.160. (A) References to the Ohio Cooperative 137733
Extension Service, or use of a similar term, in any contracts, 137734
agreements, or other instruments that were entered into or 137735
executed prior to the effective date of this section pursuant to 137736
state statutes are deemed to be references to OSU Extension as 137737
defined in section 1.611 of the Revised Code as enacted by this 137738
act.137739

        (B) References to the Ohio Cooperative Extension Service, or 137740
use of a similar term, in rules adopted prior to the effective 137741
date of this section pursuant to state statutes are deemed to be 137742
references to OSU Extension.137743

       Section 803.170.  The amendment by this act of section 137744
5709.17 of the Revised Code applies to tax year 2013 and every tax 137745
year thereafter.137746

       Section 803.180. The amendment or enactment by this act of 137747
sections 5735.012 and 5735.013 applies on the first day of the 137748
first month after the effective date of those sections.137749

       Section 803.190. (A) The amendment or enactment by this act 137750
of division (QQQ) of section 5739.01, section 5739.12, division 137751
(I), except for divisions (I)(2)(g) and (I)(4), and division (Q) 137752
of section 5741.01, and section 5741.12 of the Revised Code 137753
applies to the storage, use, or other consumption of tangible 137754
personal property or services occurring on and after the first 137755
month beginning after the effective date of that division and 137756
section.137757

       (B) The amendment by this act of divisions (I)(2)(g) and 137758
(I)(4) of section 5741.01 and section 5741.17 of the Revised Code 137759
applies to the storage, use, or other consumption of tangible 137760
personal property or services occurring on and after October 1, 137761
2013, regardless of the date a seller and a resident entered into 137762
an agreement described in division (I)(2)(g) of section 5741.01 of 137763
the Revised Code. On that date, as used in divisions (I)(2)(g) and 137764
(I)(4) of section 5741.01 of the Revised Code, "preceding twelve 137765
months" means the twelve months beginning October 1, 2012, and 137766
ending September 30, 2013.137767

       Section 803.200.  Until such time as the Registrar of Motor 137768
Vehicles can adopt rules under section 4505.101 of the Revised 137769
Code relating to the valuation of motor vehicles, the Registrar 137770
shall continue to process the affidavits required under section 137771
4505.101 of the Revised Code according to the Registrar's current 137772
policies, procedures, and standards.137773

       Section 806.10. The items of law contained in this act, and 137774
their applications, are severable. If any item of law contained in 137775
this act, or if any application of any item of law contained in 137776
this act, is held invalid, the invalidity does not affect other 137777
items of law contained in this act and their applications that can 137778
be given effect without the invalid item of law or application.137779

       Section 809.10. An item of law, other than an amending, 137780
enacting, or repealing clause, that composes the whole or part of 137781
an uncodified section contained in this act has no effect after 137782
June 30, 2015, unless its context clearly indicates otherwise.137783

       Section 812.10. Except as otherwise provided in this act, the 137784
amendment, enactment, or repeal by this act of a section is 137785
subject to the referendum under Ohio Constitution, Article II, 137786
Section 1c and therefore takes effect on the ninety-first day 137787
after this act is filed with the Secretary of State or, if a later 137788
effective date is specified below, on that date.137789

       The enactment of section 5162.12 of the Revised Code takes 137790
effect January 1, 2014.137791

        The amendment, enactment, or repeal of sections 3313.48, 137792
3313.533, 3313.62, 3314.09, 3314.092, 3321.05, 3326.11, and 137793
3326.20 of the Revised Code takes effect July 1, 2014.137794

        The repeal and reenactment of sections 3313.481 and 3327.02 137795
of the Revised Code take effect July 1, 2014.137796

        The enactment of section 3327.07 of the Revised Code takes 137797
effect on July 1, 2014.137798

       Sections 323.70, 323.110, 323.120, and 323.480 of this act 137799
take effect at the earliest time permitted by law but not earlier 137800
than September 30, 2013.137801

       Section 812.20. The amendment, enactment, or repeal by this 137802
act of the sections listed below is exempt from the referendum 137803
under Ohio Constitution, Article II, Section 1d and section 1.471 137804
of the Revised Code and therefore takes effect immediately when 137805
this act becomes law or, if a later effective date is specified 137806
below, on that date.137807

        Sections 189.04, 189.06, 731.091, 3314.05, 3734.57, 3734.901, 137808
4301.43, 5727.84, 5747.501, and 5753.03 of the Revised Code.137809

        Sections of this act prefixed with section numbers in the 137810
200's, 300's, 400's, and 500's except for sections 323.10.70, 137811
323.70, 323.110, 323.120, 323.480, 363.230, 363.520, 363.540, and 137812
363.550 of this act.137813

       Section 751.40 of this act.137814

       Sections 812.10, 812.20, and 812.30 of this act.137815

       The amendment, enactment, or repeal of sections 105.41, 137816
125.05, 152.09, 154.25, 3313.603, 3314.074, 3317.06, 3317.50, 137817
3317.51, 3319.22, 3319.235, 3345.12, 3353.01, 3353.02, 3353.04, 137818
3353.06, 3353.07, 3353.08, 3353.09, 3353.15, and 3353.20 takes 137819
effect July 1, 2013.137820

       The enactment of section 5168.41 of the Revised Code takes 137821
effect July 1, 2013.137822

       The amendment of sections 120.06 and 5139.04 of the Revised 137823
Code takes effect July 1, 2013.137824

       Section 812.30.  The sections that are listed in the 137825
left-hand column of the following table combine amendments by this 137826
act that are and that are not exempt from the referendum under 137827
Ohio Constitution, Article II, sections 1c and 1d and section 137828
1.471 of the Revised Code.137829

       The middle column identifies the amendments to the listed 137830
sections that are subject to the referendum under Ohio 137831
Constitution, Article II, Section 1c and therefore take effect on 137832
the ninety-first day after this act is filed with the Secretary of 137833
State or, if a later effective date is specified, on that date.137834

       The right-hand column identifies the amendments to the listed 137835
sections that are exempt from the referendum under Ohio 137836
Constitution, Article II, Section 1d and section 1.471 of the 137837
Revised Code and therefore take effect immediately when this act 137838
becomes law or, if a later effective date is specified, on that 137839
date.137840

Section of law Amendments subject to referendum Amendments exempt from referendum 137841
3745.11 Amendments to division (M)(5) All amendments except as described in the middle column 137842
3721.50 (5168.40) All amendments except as described in the right-hand column Amendments to division (F) 137843
5112.30 (5168.60) All amendments except as described in the right-hand column Amendments to division (A) take effect July 1, 2013 137844
5751.20 Amendments to division (J) All amendments except as described in the middle column 137845
6109.21 The stricken sentence in division (E) All amendments except as described in the middle column 137846

       Section 812.40. The amendments to sections 109.572, 169.02, 137847
3317.01, 3317.03, 5101.573 (5160.40), 5101.58 (5160.37), 5111.07 137848
(5164.752), 5111.071 (5164.753), 5111.083 (5164.757), 5111.17 137849
(5167.10), and 5111.19 (5164.74) of the Revised Code are subject 137850
to the referendum under Ohio Constitution, Article II, Section 1c 137851
and section 1.471 of the Revised Code, and therefore take effect 137852
on the ninety-first day after this act is filed with the Secretary 137853
of State. However:137854

       (A) In section 3317.01 of the Revised Code, the amendments to 137855
division (B) take effect July 1, 2014.137856

       (B) In section 3317.03 of the Revised Code, the following 137857
amendments in divisions (A) and (D) take effect July 1, 2014:137858

        (1) The strike through of "the first paragraph of";137859

        (2) The strike through of "(B)" and insertion of "(A)(1)";137860

        (3) The strike through of "3317.01" and insertion of 137861
"3313.482".137862

        (C) In section 5101.573 (5160.40) of the Revised Code, the 137863
new matter inserted into division (C) takes effect January 1, 137864
2014.137865

        (D) In section 5101.58 (5160.37) of the Revised Code, the 137866
insertion of division (K) takes effect January 1, 2014.137867

        (E)(1) In section 5111.07 (5164.752) of the Revised Code, all 137868
of the amendments take effect July 1, 2014, except for the 137869
following amendments:137870

        (a) The renumbering of the section;137871

        (b) The strike through of "job and family services" and 137872
insertion of "medicaid" in the first sentence as the section 137873
appears on the day immediately preceding the effective date of 137874
this section.137875

        (2) The reference to "director of job and family services" in 137876
the last sentence shall be read as if it reads the "director of 137877
medicaid" while the last sentence remains in effect.137878

        (F) In section 5111.071 (5164.753) of the Revised Code, the 137879
insertion in the last sentence of "and the extent to which each 137880
terminal distributor participates in the medicaid program as a 137881
provider of drugs" takes effect July 1, 2014.137882

        (G) In section 5111.083 (5164.757) of the Revised Code, all 137883
of the amendments take effect January 1, 2014, except for the 137884
following amendments:137885

        (1) The renumbering of the section;137886

        (2) The insertion of "medicaid" before "director" in the 137887
first sentence of division (B);137888

        (3) The strike through of "of job and family services".137889

        (H) In section 5111.17 (5167.10) of the Revised Code, the 137890
amendments to division (B)(2) take effect January 1, 2014.137891

       (I) In section 5111.19 (5164.74) of the Revised Code, the 137892
following amendments take effect January 1, 2014:137893

        (1) The insertion of ", and the allocation of payments for," 137894
in the first paragraph;137895

        (2) The strike through of the second paragraph and divisions 137896
(A), (B), and (C).137897

       Section 812.60. (A) Except as provided in division (B) of 137898
this section, the amendments of this act to section 5111.251 of 137899
the Revised Code, including the renumbering of the section as 137900
section 5124.17 of the Revised Code, take effect ninety-one days 137901
after the effective date of this section.137902

       (B) The following amendments by this act to section 5111.251 137903
(5124.17) of the Revised Code take effect July 1, 2014:137904

       (1) The amendments that halve the efficiency incentive 137905
payment for intermediate care facilities for the mentally retarded 137906
that have more than eight beds;137907

       (2) The amendments that eliminate the nonextensive 137908
renovations component of the Medicaid payments for the capital 137909
costs of intermediate care facilities for the mentally retarded 137910
that have more than eight beds;137911

       (3) The amendments that eliminate the return on equity 137912
component of the Medicaid payments for the capital costs of all 137913
intermediate care facilities for the mentally retarded.137914

       Section 812.70. All the amendments by this act to section 137915
3327.01 of the Revised Code are subject to the referendum under 137916
Ohio Constitution, Article II, Section 1c. The amendment adding 137917
division (H) to the section takes effect on the ninety-first day 137918
after this act is filed with the Secretary of State, and all the 137919
other amendments to the section take effect on July 1, 2014.137920

       Section 815.10. The General Assembly, applying the principle 137921
stated in division (B) of section 1.52 of the Revised Code that 137922
amendments are to be harmonized if reasonably capable of 137923
simultaneous operation, finds that the following sections, 137924
presented in this act as composites of the sections as amended by 137925
the acts indicated, are the resulting versions of the sections in 137926
effect prior to the effective date of the sections as presented in 137927
this act:137928

       Section 9.90 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. Sub. 137929
H.B. 153 and Sub. S.B. 171 of the 129th General Assembly.137930

       Section 109.572 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 137931
Sub. H.B. 487 and Am. Sub. S.B. 337 of the 129th General Assembly.137932

       Section 122.17 of the Revised Code as amended by Sub. H.B. 137933
327, Am. Sub. H.B. 510, and Am. Sub. S.B. 314, all of the 129th 137934
General Assembly.137935

       Section 122.33 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 137936
Sub. H.B. 117 and Am. Sub. H.B. 356 of the 121st General Assembly.137937

       Section 124.381 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 137938
Sub. H.B. 1 and Sub. S.B. 79 of the 128th General Assembly.137939

       Section 149.311 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 137940
Sub. H.B. 510 and Am. Sub. S.B. 314 of the 129th General Assembly.137941

       Section 149.43 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 137942
Sub. H.B. 487 and Am. Sub. S.B. 314 of the 129th General Assembly.137943

       Section 329.06 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 137944
Sub. H.B. 1 and Sub. S.B. 79 of the 128th General Assembly.137945

        Section 955.201 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 137946
Sub. H.B. 1 and Am. Sub. H.B. 2 of the 128th General Assembly.137947

       Section 2901.30 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 137948
H.B. 181 and Sub. S.B. 87 of the 127th General Assembly.137949

       Section 2903.13 of the Revised Code as amended by both Sub. 137950
H.B. 525 and Am. Sub. H.B. 62 of the 129th General Assembly.137951

       Section 2921.13 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 137952
Sub. H.B. 495 and Sub. S.B. 343 of the 129th General Assembly.137953

       Section 2923.126 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 137954
Sub. H.B. 495 and Am. Sub. S.B. 316 of the 129th General Assembly, 137955
that is scheduled to take effect January 1, 2014.137956

        Section 2929.13 of the Revised Code as amended by Am. Sub. 137957
H.B. 62, Am. Sub. H.B. 262, and Am. Sub. S.B. 160 of the 129th 137958
General Assembly.137959

       Section 3304.231 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 137960
Sub. H.B. 1 and Sub. S.B. 79 of the 128th General Assembly.137961

       Section 3313.978 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 137962
Sub. H.B. 487 and Am. Sub. S.B. 316 of the 129th General Assembly.137963

       Section 3701.78 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 137964
Sub. H.B. 1 and Sub. S.B. 79 of the 128th General Assembly.137965

       Section 3734.01 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 137966
Sub. H.B. 487 and Sub. S.B. 294 of the 129th General Assembly. 137967

       Section 3745.11 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 137968
Sub. H.B. 487 and Sub. S.B. 294 of the 129th General Assembly.137969

       Section 5104.012 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 137970
Sub. H.B. 487 and Am. Sub. S.B. 316 of the 129th General Assembly, 137971
that is scheduled to take effect January 1, 2014.137972

       Section 5104.013 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 137973
Sub. H.B. 487 and Am. Sub. S.B. 316 of the 129th General Assembly, 137974
that is scheduled to take effect January 1, 2014.137975

       Section 5111.032 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 137976
Sub. H.B. 487 and Am. Sub. S.B. 337 of the 129th General Assembly.137977

       Section 5111.033 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 137978
Sub. H.B. 487 and Am. Sub. S.B. 337 of the 129th General Assembly.137979

       Section 5111.034 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 137980
Sub. H.B. 487 and Am. Sub. S.B. 337 of the 129th General Assembly.137981

       Section 5111.172 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 137982
Sub. H.B. 93 and Am. Sub. H.B. 153 of the 129th General Assembly.137983

       Section 5119.16 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 137984
Sub. H.B. 1 and Sub. S.B. 79 of the 128th General Assembly.137985

       Section 5701.13 of the Revised Code as amended by both Sub. 137986
H.B. 267 and Am. Sub. H.B. 487 of the 129th General Assembly.137987

       Section 5705.25 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 137988
Sub. H.B. 487 and Am. S.B. 321 of the 129th General Assembly.137989

        Section 5731.39 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 137990
Sub. H.B. 487 and Am. Sub. H.B. 508 of the 129th General Assembly.137991

       Section 5739.01 of the Revised Code as amended by Am. Sub. 137992
H.B. 487 and Am. Sub. H.B. 508 of the 129th General Assembly.137993

       Section 5739.02 of the Revised Code as amended by Am. Sub. 137994
H.B. 487 and Am. Sub. H.B. 508 of the 129th General Assembly.137995

       Section 5747.01 of the Revised Code as amended by Am. H.B. 137996
167, Sub. H.B. 365, and Am. Sub. H.B. 510, all of the 129th 137997
General Assembly.137998

       Section 5747.98 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 137999
Sub. H.B. 386 and Am. Sub. H.B. 510 of the 129th General Assembly.138000

       Section 5749.02 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 138001
Sub. H.B. 1 and S.B. 73 of the 128th General Assembly.138002

       Section 5751.01 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 138003
Sub. H.B. 51 and Am. S.B. 28 of the 130th General Assembly.138004

       Section 5751.20 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 138005
Sub. H.B. 508 and Am. Sub. S.B. 316 of the 129th General Assembly.138006

       Section 5753.03 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 138007
Sub. H.B. 487 and Am. Sub. H.B. 386 of the 129th General Assembly.138008

       Section 815.20. The amendment of sections 5104.11 and 5120.07 138009
of the Revised Code by this act is not intended to supersede the 138010
earlier repeal, with delayed effective date, of those sections.138011

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