Bill Text: CA SB607 | 2021-2022 | Regular Session | Amended

California Senate Bill 607 (Prior Session Legislation)

NOTE: There are more recent revisions of this legislation. Read Latest Draft

Bill Title: Business and professions.

Sponsorship: Partisan Bill (Democrat 2)

Status: (Passed) 2021-09-28 - Chaptered by Secretary of State. Chapter 367, Statutes of 2021. [SB607 Detail]

Download: California-2021-SB607-Amended.html

Amended IN Senate May 20, 2021

Amended IN Senate May 12, 2021

Amended IN Senate April 13, 2021

CALIFORNIA LEGISLATURE— 2021–2022 REGULAR SESSION

Senate Bill

No. 607

Introduced by Senator Roth

February 18, 2021

An act to amend Sections 115.5, 1724, 1753, 1753.55, 1753.6, 7137, 7583.22, 7583.23, 7583.24, 7583.27, 7583.29, and 7583.47 of, to amend, repeal, and add Sections 7071.6, 7071.8, and 7071.9 of, to add Sections ~~101.8, 1636.5,~~ 1636.5 and 5650.5 to, and to repeal Section 1753.4 of, the Business and Professions Code, and to amend Section 17973 of the Health and Safety Code, relating to professions and vocations, and making an appropriation therefor.

LEGISLATIVE COUNSEL'S DIGEST

SB 607, as amended, Roth. Professions and vocations.

(1) Existing law provides for the licensure and regulation of various professions and vocations by boards within the Department of Consumer Affairs. Existing law generally authorizes a board to charge fees for the reasonable regulatory cost of administering the regulatory program for the profession or vocation. Existing law establishes the Professions and Vocations Fund in the State Treasury, which consists of specified special funds and accounts, some of which are continuously appropriated.

Existing law provides for the issuance of temporary licenses in certain fields where the applicant, among other requirements, has a license to practice within that field in another jurisdiction, as specified. Existing law requires a board within the department to expedite the licensure process for an applicant who holds a current license in another jurisdiction in the same profession or vocation and who supplies satisfactory evidence of being married to, or in a domestic partnership or other legal union with, an active duty member of the Armed Forces of the United States who is assigned to a duty station in California under official active duty military orders.

This bill would require a board to waive all fees associated with the application and initial license for an applicant who meets these expedited licensing requirements.

(2) Existing law, the Dental Practice Act, provides for the licensure and regulation of dentists and dental auxiliaries, including registered dental assistants in extended functions, by the Dental Board of California within the Department of Consumer Affairs. Existing law requires a person who applies to the board for a license as a registered dental assistant in extended functions on and after January 1, 2010, to successfully complete a clinical or practical examination administered by the board. Existing law authorizes a registered dental assistant in extended functions who was licensed before January 1, 2010, to perform certain additional duties only if they pass the clinical or practical examination.

This bill would delete the clinical or practical examination requirement for registered dental assistants in extended functions and make related technical amendments.

The Dental Practice Act authorizes a dentist to administer or order the administration of minimal sedation on pediatric patients under 13 years of age if the dentist possesses specified licensing credentials, including holding a pediatric minimal sedation permit, and follows certain procedures. Existing law requires a dentist who desires to administer or order the administration of minimal sedation to apply to the board, as specified, and to submit an application fee.

This bill would specify that the application fee for a pediatric minimal sedation permit cannot exceed $1,000, and the renewal fee cannot exceed $600.

The Dental Practice Act requires the board to approve foreign dental schools based on specified standards. The act requires a foreign dental school seeking approval to submit an application to the board, including, among other things, a finding that the educational program of the foreign dental school is equivalent to that of similar accredited institutions in the United States and adequately prepares its students for the practice of dentistry. The act requires an approved institution to submit a renewal application every 7 years and to pay a specified renewal fee. The act prohibits the board from accepting new applications for approval of foreign dental schools by January 1, 2020, and requires foreign dental schools seeking approval after this date to complete the international consultative and accreditation process with the Commission on Dental Accreditation of the American Dental Association (CODA) or a comparable accrediting body approved by the board. The act also requires previously approved foreign dental schools to complete the CODA or comparable accreditation by January 1, 2024, to remain approved.

This bill would provide, notwithstanding this latter approval requirement, that a foreign dental school that was approved prior to January 1, 2020, through a date between January 1, 2024, and December 31, 2026, maintains that approval through that date. The bill would further provide that, upon the expiration of that board approval, the foreign dental school is required to comply with the CODA or comparable accreditation process.

(3) Existing law provides for the licensure and regulation of landscape architects by the California Architects Board and the Landscape Architects Technical Committee of the California Architects Board within the Department of Consumer Affairs.

This bill would authorize the board to obtain and review criminal offender record information and would require an applicant, as a condition of licensure, to furnish to the Department of Justice a full set of fingerprints for the purpose of conducting a criminal history record check and criminal offender record information search. The bill would require the Department of Justice to transmit fingerprint images and related information to the Federal Bureau of Investigation for the purposes of the background check, and would require the Department of Justice to provide a state or federal response to the board. The bill would require the applicant to pay the reasonable regulatory costs for furnishing the fingerprints and conducting the searches, and would require the applicant to certify, under penalty of perjury, whether the applicant’s fingerprints have been furnished to the Department of Justice. By expanding the crime of perjury, the bill would impose a state-mandated local program.

(4) Existing law, the ~~Contractors’~~ Contractors State License Law, provides for the licensure and regulation of contractors by the ~~Contractors’~~ Contractors State License Board within the Department of Consumer Affairs. Existing law authorizes the issuance of contractors’ licenses to individual owners, partnerships, corporations, and limited liability companies, and authorizes those persons and entities to qualify for a license if specified conditions are met. Existing law requires an applicant or licensee to file or have on file with the board a contractor’s bond in the sum of $15,000, as provided. Existing law requires an applicant or licensee who is not a proprietor, a general partner, or a joint licensee to additionally file or have on file with the board a qualifying individual’s bond in the sum of $12,500, unless an exception is met. Existing law additionally authorizes the board to set fees by regulation, including various application, examination scheduling, and license and registration fees, according to a prescribed schedule. Existing law requires the fees received under this law to be deposited in the Contractors License Fund, a fund that is partially continuously appropriated for the purposes of the law.

This bill, beginning January 1, 2023, would instead require an applicant or licensee to file or have on file with the board a contractor’s bond in the sum of $25,000, and would, if applicable, require a qualifying individual’s bond in the sum of $25,000.

This bill would revise and recast the board’s authority to set fees by regulation and would increase various fee amounts. In connection with initial license fees and renewal fees for active and inactive licenses, the bill would differentiate between an individual owner as opposed to a partnership, corporation, limited liability company, or joint venture, and would authorize higher fees for the latter categories of licensees. The bill would additionally authorize the board to set fees for the processing and issuance of a duplicate copy of any certificate of licensure, to change the business name of a license, and for a dishonored check, as specified.

Because the increased and new fees would be deposited into the Contractors License Fund, a continuously appropriated fund, the bill would make an appropriation.

(5) Existing law provides authority for an enforcement agency to enter and inspect any buildings or premises whenever necessary to secure compliance with or prevent a violation of the building standards published in the California Building Standards Code and other rules and regulations that the enforcement agency has the power to enforce. Existing law requires an inspection of exterior elevated elements and associated waterproofing elements, as defined, including decks and balconies, for buildings with 3 or more multifamily dwelling units by a licensed architect, licensed civil or structural engineer, a building contractor holding specified licenses, or an individual certified as a building inspector or building official, as specified. Existing law prohibits a contractor performing the inspection from bidding on the repair work.

This bill would eliminate the prohibition against a contractor performing the inspection from bidding on the repair work. By altering the enforcement duties for local enforcement entities, the bill would impose a state-mandated local program.

(6) Existing law, the Private Security Services Act, establishes the Bureau of Security and Investigative Services within the Department of Consumer Affairs to license and regulate persons employed by any lawful business as security guards or patrolpersons. Existing law prohibits a person required to be registered as a security guard from engaging in specified conduct, including, but not limited to, carrying or using a firearm unless they possess a valid and current firearms permit.

Existing law requires the applicant for a firearms permit to complete specified requirements, including an assessment that evaluates whether the applicant possesses appropriate judgment, restraint, and self-control for the purposes of carrying and using a firearm during the course of the applicant’s security guard duties. Existing law requires the results of the assessment be provided to the bureau within 30 days.

Existing law requires the bureau to automatically revoke a firearm permit upon notification from the Department of Justice that the holder of the firearm permit is prohibited from possessing, receiving, or purchasing a firearm under state or federal law. Existing law additionally requires the bureau to seek an emergency order against the holder of the firearms permit if a specified event occurs, including that the permitholder was arrested for assault or battery, or the permitholder has been determined incapable of exercising appropriate judgment, restraint, and self-control, among other events, and the bureau determines that the holder of the firearm permit presents an undue hazard to public safety that may result in substantial injury to another.

This bill would specify that a security guard is required to complete the assessment to be issued a firearms permit prior to carrying a firearm. ~~This~~ The bill would prohibit an applicant who fails the assessment from completing another assessment within 90 days after the results are provided to the bureau.

This bill would instead authorize the bureau to revoke a firearm permit upon notification from the Department of Justice that the holder of the firearm permit is prohibited from possessing, receiving, or purchasing a firearm under state or federal law, and would instead authorize the bureau to seek an emergency order against a permitholder if a specified event occurs. The bill would remove from the list of specified events the determination that a permitholder is incapable of exercising appropriate judgment, restraint, and self-control.
(7)The Bagley-Keene Open Meeting Act (Bagley-Keene Act), requires, with specified exceptions, that all meetings of a state body, as defined, be open and public, and all persons be permitted to attend any meeting of a state body, except as provided. The Bagley-Keene Act, among other things, requires a state body that elects to conduct a meeting or proceeding by teleconference to make the portion of the meeting that is required to be open to the public audible to the public at the location specified in the notice of the meeting. The Bagley-Keene Act requires a state body that elects to conduct a meeting or proceeding by teleconference to post agendas at all teleconference locations, identify each teleconference location in the notice and agenda of the meeting or proceeding, and requires each teleconference location to be accessible to the public. Existing law requires that when a member of a multimember state advisory body participates remotely the body provide a means by which the public may remotely hear audio of the meeting or remotely observe the meeting. Existing law requires a multimember state advisory body to end or adjourn a meeting if it discovers that a required means of remote access has failed during the meeting, and, if the meeting is to adjourn and reconvene on the same day, that law requires the body to communicate, among other things, how a member of the public may hear audio of the meeting or observe the meeting.
This bill would additionally authorize a state body that is organized within the Department of Consumer Affairs, to hold an open or closed meeting by teleconference if specified requirements are met. The bill would specify that the meeting notice and agenda is not required to disclose a member’s remote location, would not require the state body to post the agenda at a remote location, and would not require the state body to designate a physical meeting location where members of the public may physically attend the meeting and participate. The bill would require the state body to provide a means by which the public may remotely hear audio of the meeting and remotely observe the meeting, and would prescribe notice requirements if a meeting is adjourned and reconvened.
~~(8)~~

(7) The California Constitution requires the state to reimburse local agencies and school districts for certain costs mandated by the state. Statutory provisions establish procedures for making that reimbursement.

This bill would provide that with regard to certain mandates no reimbursement is required by this act for a specified reason.

With regard to any other mandates, this bill would provide that, if the Commission on State Mandates determines that the bill contains costs so mandated by the state, reimbursement for those costs shall be made pursuant to the statutory provisions noted above.

Vote: MAJORITY Appropriation: YES Fiscal Committee: YES Local Program: YES

The people of the State of California do enact as follows:

SECTION 1.Section 101.8 is added to the Business and Professions Code, to read:
101.8.
(a)In addition to the authorization to hold a meeting by teleconference pursuant to Sections 11123 and 11123.5 of the Government Code, a state body that is organized within the Department of Consumer Affairs, including those identified in Section 101, may hold an open or closed meeting by teleconference pursuant to the requirements in this section and that complies with all other applicable requirements of Article 9 (commencing with Section 11120) of Chapter 1 of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code, except as set forth in this section.
(b)Any of the members of a state body may participate in a teleconference meeting from one or more remote locations. If minutes of the meeting are taken, the minutes shall include which member or members of the state body participated from a remote location.
(c)The meeting notice and agenda shall not be required to disclose any information regarding a member’s remote location, and remote locations are not required to be accessible to the public. The state body shall not be required to post the agenda at a remote location.
(d)The state body shall not be required to designate a physical meeting location where members of the public may physically attend the meeting and participate, but if the state body designates a physical meeting location, the notice of the meeting shall include the physical meeting location. A member of the state body shall not be required to participate at the designated physical meeting location. The state body shall post the agenda at the physical meeting location.
~~(e)This section shall not affect the time within which the state body must provide notice of a meeting in accordance with Section 11125, 11125.4, or 11125.5 of the Government Code.~~
~~(f)All actions taken during a meeting by teleconference shall be by rollcall vote.~~
(g)The state body shall provide a means by which the public may remotely hear audio of the meeting and remotely observe the meeting, if applicable, and remotely participate in the meeting. The applicable teleconference phone number or internet website, or other information indicating how the public can access the meeting remotely, shall be included in the meeting notice.
(h)Upon discovering that a means of remote access required by subdivision (g) has failed during a meeting, the state body shall end or adjourn the meeting in accordance with Section 11128.5 of the Government Code. In addition to any other requirements that may apply, the state body shall provide notice of the meeting’s end or adjournment on its internet website and by email to any person who has requested notice of meetings of the state body. If the meeting will be adjourned and reconvened on the same day, further notice shall be provided by an automated message on a telephone line included on the state body’s agenda, or by a similar means, that will communicate when the state body intends to reconvene the meeting and how a member of the public may hear audio of the meeting or observe the meeting, as applicable.
~~(i)For purposes of this section, the following definitions shall apply:~~
~~(1)“State body” has the same meaning as in Sections 11121 and 11121.1 of the Government Code.~~
~~(2)“Meeting” has the same meaning as in Section 11122.5 of the Government Code.~~
(3)“Remote location” means a location where a member of a state body participates in a teleconference meeting subject to this section, other than a physical meeting location described in subdivision (d).
~~(4)“Teleconference” has the meaning prescribed in paragraph (2) of subdivision (b) of Section 11123 of the Government Code, and includes meetings conducted via online and internet platforms.~~
(j)This section does not limit or affect the ability of a state body to hold a teleconference meeting under another provision of Article 9 (commencing with Section 11120) of Chapter 1 of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code.
~~(k)State bodies that meet at least two times each calendar year pursuant to this section shall be deemed to have met the requirements of subdivision (a) of Section 101.7.~~

SEC. 2.SECTION 1.

Section 115.5 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:

115.5.

(a) A board within the department shall expedite the licensure process and waive all fees charged by the board associated with the application and initial license for an applicant who meets both of the following requirements:

(1) Supplies evidence satisfactory to the board that the applicant is married to, or in a domestic partnership or other legal union with, an active duty member of the Armed Forces of the United States who is assigned to a duty station in this state under official active duty military orders.

(2) Holds a current license in another state, district, or territory of the United States in the profession or vocation for which the applicant seeks a license from the board.

(b) A board may adopt regulations necessary to administer this section.

SEC. 3.SEC. 2.

Section 1636.5 is added to the Business and Professions Code, to read:

1636.5.

Notwithstanding Section 1636.4, any foreign dental school whose program was approved prior to January 1, 2020, through any date between January 1, 2024, and December 31, 2026, shall maintain approval through that date. Upon expiration of the approval, the foreign dental school shall be required to comply with the provisions of Section 1636.4.

SEC. 4.SEC. 3.

Section 1724 of the Business and Professions Code, as added by Section 13 of Chapter 929 of the Statutes of 2018, is amended to read:

1724.

The amount of charges and fees for dentists licensed pursuant to this chapter shall be established by the board as is necessary for the purpose of carrying out the responsibilities required by this chapter as it relates to dentists, subject to the following limitations:

(a) The fee for an application for licensure qualifying pursuant to paragraph (1) of subdivision (c) of Section 1632 shall not exceed one thousand five hundred dollars ($1,500). The fee for an application for licensure qualifying pursuant to paragraph (2) of subdivision (c) of Section 1632 shall not exceed one thousand dollars ($1,000).

(b) The fee for an application for licensure qualifying pursuant to Section 1634.1 shall not exceed one thousand dollars ($1,000).

(c) The fee for an application for licensure qualifying pursuant to Section 1635.5 shall not exceed one thousand dollars ($1,000).

(d) The fee for an initial license and for the renewal of a license is five hundred twenty-five dollars ($525). On and after January 1, 2016, the fee for an initial license shall not exceed six hundred fifty dollars ($650), and the fee for the renewal of a license shall not exceed six hundred fifty dollars ($650). On and after January 1, 2018, the fee for an initial license shall not exceed eight hundred dollars ($800), and the fee for the renewal of a license shall not exceed eight hundred dollars ($800).

(e) The fee for an application for a special permit shall not exceed one thousand dollars ($1,000), and the renewal fee for a special permit shall not exceed six hundred dollars ($600).

(f) The delinquency fee shall be 50 percent of the renewal fee for such a license or permit in effect on the date of the renewal of the license or permit.

(g) The penalty for late registration of change of place of practice shall not exceed seventy-five dollars ($75).

(h) The fee for an application for an additional office permit shall not exceed seven hundred fifty dollars ($750), and the fee for the renewal of an additional office permit shall not exceed three hundred seventy-five dollars ($375).

(i) The fee for issuance of a replacement pocket license, replacement wall certificate, or replacement engraved certificate shall not exceed one hundred twenty-five dollars ($125).

(j) The fee for a provider of continuing education shall not exceed five hundred dollars ($500) per year.

(k) The fee for application for a referral service permit and for renewal of that permit shall not exceed twenty-five dollars ($25).

(l) The fee for application for an extramural facility permit and for the renewal of a permit shall not exceed twenty-five dollars ($25).

(m) The fee for an application for an elective facial cosmetic surgery permit shall not exceed four thousand dollars ($4,000), and the fee for the renewal of an elective facial cosmetic surgery permit shall not exceed eight hundred dollars ($800).

(n) The fee for an application for an oral and maxillofacial surgery permit shall not exceed one thousand dollars ($1,000), and the fee for the renewal of an oral and maxillofacial surgery permit shall not exceed one thousand two hundred dollars ($1,200).

(o) The fee for an application for a general anesthesia permit shall not exceed one thousand dollars ($1,000), and the fee for the renewal of a general anesthesia permit shall not exceed six hundred dollars ($600).

(p) The fee for an onsite inspection and evaluation related to a general anesthesia or moderate sedation permit shall not exceed four thousand five hundred dollars ($4,500).

(q) The fee for an application for a moderate sedation permit shall not exceed one thousand dollars ($1,000), and the fee for the renewal of a conscious sedation permit shall not exceed six hundred dollars ($600).

(r) The fee for an application for an oral conscious sedation permit shall not exceed one thousand dollars ($1,000), and the fee for the renewal of an oral conscious sedation permit shall not exceed six hundred dollars ($600).

(s) The fee for an application for a pediatric minimal sedation permit shall not exceed one thousand dollars ($1,000), and the fee for the renewal of a pediatric minimal sedation permit shall not exceed six hundred dollars ($600).

(t) The fee for a certification of licensure shall not exceed one hundred twenty-five dollars ($125).

(u) The fee for an application for the law and ethics examination shall not exceed two hundred fifty dollars ($250).

(v) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2022.

SEC. 5.SEC. 4.

Section 1753 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:

1753.

(a) On and after January 1, 2010, the board may license as a registered dental assistant in extended functions a person who submits written evidence, satisfactory to the board, of all of the following eligibility requirements:

(1) Current licensure as a registered dental assistant or completion of the requirements for licensure as a registered dental assistant.

(2) Successful completion of a board-approved course in the application of pit and fissure sealants.

(3) Successful completion of either of the following:

(A) An extended functions postsecondary program approved by the board in all of the procedures specified in Section 1753.5.

(B) An extended functions postsecondary program approved by the board to teach the duties that registered dental assistants in extended functions were allowed to perform pursuant to board regulations prior to January 1, 2010, and a course approved by the board in the procedures specified in paragraphs (1), (2), (5), and (7) to (11), inclusive, of subdivision (b) of Section 1753.5.

(4) Passage of a written examination administered by the board. The board shall designate whether the written examination shall be administered by the board or by the board-approved extended functions program.

(b) A registered dental assistant in extended functions may apply for an orthodontic assistant permit or a dental sedation assistant permit, or both, by providing written evidence of the following:

(1) Successful completion of a board-approved orthodontic assistant or dental sedation assistant course, as applicable.

(2) Passage of a written examination administered by the board that shall encompass the knowledge, skills, and abilities necessary to competently perform the duties of the particular permit.

(c) A registered dental assistant in extended functions with permits in either orthodontic assisting or dental sedation assisting shall be referred to as an “RDAEF with orthodontic assistant permit,” or “RDAEF with dental sedation assistant permit,” as applicable. These terms shall be used for reference purposes only and do not create additional categories of licensure.

(d) Completion of the continuing education requirements established by the board pursuant to Section 1645 by a registered dental assistant in extended functions who also holds a permit as an orthodontic assistant or dental sedation assistant shall fulfill the continuing education requirement for such permit or permits.

SEC. 6.SEC. 5.

Section 1753.4 of the Business and Professions Code is repealed.

SEC. 7.SEC. 6.

Section 1753.55 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:

1753.55.

(a) A registered dental assistant in extended functions is authorized to perform the additional duties as set forth in subdivision (b) pursuant to the order, control, and full professional responsibility of a supervising dentist, if the licensee meets one of the following requirements:

(1) Is licensed on or after January 1, 2010.

(2) Is licensed prior to January 1, 2010, and has successfully completed a board-approved course in the additional procedures specified in paragraphs (1), (2), (5), and (7) to (11), inclusive, of subdivision (b) of Section 1753.5.

(b) (1) Determine which radiographs to perform on a patient who has not received an initial examination by the supervising dentist for the specific purpose of the dentist making a diagnosis and treatment plan for the patient. In these circumstances, the dental assistant in extended functions shall follow protocols established by the supervising dentist. This paragraph only applies in the following settings:

(A) In a dental office setting.

(B) In public health settings, using telehealth, as defined by Section 2290.5, for the purpose of communication with the supervising dentist, including, but not limited to, schools, head start and preschool programs, and community clinics, under the general supervision of a dentist.

(2) Place protective restorations, which for this purpose are identified as interim therapeutic restorations, and defined as a direct provisional restoration placed to stabilize the tooth until a licensed dentist diagnoses the need for further definitive treatment. An interim therapeutic restoration consists of the removal of soft material from the tooth using only hand instrumentation, without the use of rotary instrumentation, and subsequent placement of an adhesive restorative material. Local anesthesia shall not be necessary for interim therapeutic restoration placement. Interim therapeutic restorations shall be placed only in accordance with both of the following:

(A) In either of the following settings:

(i) In a dental office setting, under the direct or general supervision of a dentist as determined by the dentist.

(ii) In public health settings, using telehealth, as defined by Section 2290.5, for the purpose of communication with the supervising dentist, including, but not limited to, schools, head start and preschool programs, and community clinics, under the general supervision of a dentist.

(B) After the diagnosis, treatment plan, and instruction to perform the procedure provided by a dentist.

(c) The functions described in subdivision (b) may be performed by a registered dental assistant in extended functions only after completion of a program that includes training in performing those functions, or after providing evidence, satisfactory to the board, of having completed a board-approved course in those functions.

(d) No later than January 1, 2018, the board shall adopt regulations to establish requirements for courses of instruction for the procedures authorized to be performed by a registered dental assistant in extended functions pursuant to this section using the competency-based training protocols established by the Health Workforce Pilot Project (HWPP) No. 172 through the Office of Statewide Health Planning and Development. The board shall submit to the committee proposed regulatory language for the curriculum for the Interim Therapeutic Restoration to the committee for the purpose of promulgating regulations for registered dental hygienists and registered dental hygienists in alternative practice as described in Section 1910.5. The language submitted by the board shall mirror the instructional curriculum for the registered dental assistant in extended functions. Any subsequent amendments to the regulations that are promulgated by the board for the Interim Therapeutic Restoration curriculum shall be submitted to the committee.

(e) The board may issue a permit to a registered dental assistant in extended functions who files a completed application, including the fee, to provide the duties specified in this section after the board has determined the registered dental assistant in extended functions has completed the coursework required in subdivision (c).

(f) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2018.

SEC. 8.SEC. 7.

Section 1753.6 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:

1753.6.

(a) Each person who holds a license as a registered dental assistant in extended functions on the operative date of this section may only perform those procedures that a registered dental assistant is allowed to perform as specified in and limited by Section 1752.4, and the procedures specified in paragraphs (1) to (6), inclusive, until the person provides evidence of having completed a board-approved course in the additional procedures specified in paragraphs (1), (2), (5), and (7) to (11), inclusive, of subdivision (b) of Section 1753.5:

(1) Cord retraction of gingiva for impression procedures.

(2) Take final impressions for permanent indirect restorations.

(3) Formulate indirect patterns for endodontic post and core castings.

(4) Fit trial endodontic filling points.

(5) Apply pit and fissure sealants.

(6) Remove excess cement from subgingival tooth surfaces with a hand instrument.

(b) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2010.

SEC. 9.SEC. 8.

Section 5650.5 is added to the Business and Professions Code, to read:

5650.5.

(a) Pursuant to Section 144, the board has the authority to obtain and review criminal offender record information. The information obtained as a result of the fingerprinting shall be used in accordance with Section 11105 of the Penal Code to determine whether the applicant is subject to denial, suspension, or revocation of a license pursuant to Division 1.5 (commencing with Section 475) or Section 5660, 5675, or 5676.

(b) As a condition of application for a license, each applicant shall furnish to the Department of Justice a full set of fingerprints for the purpose of conducting a criminal history record check and to undergo a state- and federal- level criminal offender record information search conducted through the Department of Justice, as follows:

(1) The board shall electronically submit to the Department of Justice fingerprint images and related information required by the Department of Justice of all landscape architect license applicants for the purpose of obtaining information as to the existence and content of a record of state or federal arrests and state or federal convictions and also information as to the existence and content of a record of state or federal arrests for which the Department of Justice establishes that the person is free on bail or on their recognizance pending trial or appeal.

(2) When received, the Department of Justice shall transmit fingerprint images and related information received pursuant to this section, to the Federal Bureau of Investigation for the purpose of obtaining a federal criminal history records check. The Department of Justice shall review the information returned from the Federal Bureau of Investigation and compile and disseminate a response to the board.

(3) The Department of Justice shall provide a state or federal response to the board pursuant to subdivision (p) of Section 11105 of the Penal Code.

(4) The board shall request from the Department of Justice subsequent notification service, as provided pursuant to Section 11105.2 of the Penal Code, for persons described in paragraph (1).

(5) The Department of Justice shall charge the applicant a fee sufficient to cover the cost of processing the request described in this subdivision.

(c) The applicant shall certify, under penalty of perjury, when applying for a license whether the applicant’s fingerprints have been furnished to the Department of Justice in compliance with this section.

(d) Failure to comply with the requirements of this section renders the application for a license incomplete, and the application shall not be considered until the applicant demonstrates compliance with all requirements of this section.

(e) Notwithstanding any other law, the results of any criminal offender record information request by either state or federal law enforcement authorities shall not be released by the board except in accordance with state and federal requirements.

(f) As used in this section, the term “applicant” shall be limited to an initial applicant who has never been registered or licensed by the board or to an applicant for a new licensure or registration category.

(g) As a condition of petitioning the board for reinstatement of a revoked or surrendered license, an applicant shall comply with subdivision (a).

SEC. 10.SEC. 9.

Section 7071.6 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:

7071.6.

(a) The board shall require as a condition precedent to the issuance, reinstatement, reactivation, renewal, or continued maintenance of a license, that the applicant or licensee file or have on file a contractor’s bond in the sum of fifteen thousand dollars ($15,000).

(b) Excluding the claims brought by the beneficiaries specified in subdivision (a) of Section 7071.5, the aggregate liability of a surety on claims brought against a bond required by this section shall not exceed the sum of seven thousand five hundred dollars ($7,500). The bond proceeds in excess of seven thousand five hundred dollars ($7,500) shall be reserved exclusively for the claims of the beneficiaries specified in subdivision (a) of Section 7071.5. However, nothing in this section shall be construed so as to prevent any beneficiary specified in subdivision (a) of Section 7071.5 from claiming or recovering the full measure of the bond required by this section.

(c) A bond shall not be required of a holder of a license that has been inactivated on the official records of the board during the period the license is inactive.

(d) Notwithstanding any other law, as a condition precedent to licensure, the board may require an applicant to post a contractor’s bond in twice the amount required pursuant to subdivision (a) until the time that the license is renewed, under the following conditions:

(1) The applicant has either been convicted of a violation of Section 7028 or has been cited pursuant to Section 7028.7.

(2) If the applicant has been cited pursuant to Section 7028.7, the citation has been reduced to a final order of the registrar.

(3) The violation of Section 7028, or the basis for the citation issued pursuant to Section 7028.7, constituted a substantial injury to the public.

(e) (1) The board shall conduct a study to obtain information to evaluate whether the current fifteen-thousand-dollar ($15,000) amount of the contractor bond is sufficient, or whether an increase may be necessary.

(2) The board shall report its findings and recommendations to the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature, in accordance with Section 9795 of the Government Code, by January 1, 2021.

(f) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2023, and as of that date is repealed.

SEC. 11.SEC. 10.

Section 7071.6 is added to the Business and Professions Code, to read:

7071.6.

(c) A bond shall not be required of a holder of a license that has been inactivated on the official records of the board during the period the license is inactive.

(1) The applicant has either been convicted of a violation of Section 7028 or has been cited pursuant to Section 7028.7.

(2) If the applicant has been cited pursuant to Section 7028.7, the citation has been reduced to a final order of the registrar.

(3) The violation of Section 7028, or the basis for the citation issued pursuant to Section 7028.7, constituted a substantial injury to the public.

(e) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2023.

SEC. 12.SEC. 11.

Section 7071.8 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:

7071.8.

(a) This section applies to an application for a license, for renewal or restoration of a license, an application to change officers or members of a corporation or a limited liability company, or for continued valid use of a license which has been disciplined, whether or not the disciplinary action has been stayed, made by any of the following persons or firms:

(1) A person whose license has been suspended or revoked as a result of disciplinary action, or a person who was a qualifying individual for a licensee at any time during which cause for disciplinary action occurred resulting in suspension or revocation of the licensee’s license, whether or not the qualifying individual had knowledge or participated in the prohibited act or omission.

(2) A person who was an officer, director, manager, partner, or member of the personnel of record of a licensee at any time during which cause for disciplinary action occurred resulting in suspension or revocation of the licensee’s license and who had knowledge of or participated in the act or omission which was the cause for the disciplinary action.

(3) A partnership, corporation, limited liability company, firm, or association of which an existing or new officer, director, manager, partner, qualifying person, or member of the personnel of record has had a license suspended or revoked as a result of disciplinary action.

(4) A partnership, corporation, limited liability company, firm, or association of which a member of the personnel of record, including, but not limited to, an officer, director, manager, partner, or qualifying person was, likewise, a manager, officer, director, or partner of a licensee at any time during which cause for disciplinary action occurred resulting in suspension or revocation of the license, and who had knowledge of or participated in the act or omission which was the cause for the disciplinary action.

(b) The board shall require as a condition precedent to the issuance, reissuance, renewal, or restoration of a license to the applicant, or to the approval of an application to change officers of a corporation or a limited liability company, or removal of suspension, or to the continued valid use of a license which has been suspended or revoked, but which suspension or revocation has been stayed, that the applicant or licensee file or have on file a contractor’s bond in a sum to be fixed by the registrar based upon the seriousness of the violation, but which sum shall not be less than fifteen thousand dollars ($15,000) nor more than 10 times that amount required by Section 7071.6.

(c) The bond is in addition to, may not be combined with, and does not replace any other type of bond required by this chapter. The bond shall remain on file with the registrar for a period of at least two years and for any additional time that the registrar determines. The bond period shall run only while the license is current, active, and in good standing, and shall be extended until the license has been current, active, and in good standing for the required period. Each applicant or licensee shall be required to file only one disciplinary contractor’s bond of the type described in this section for each application or license subject to this bond requirement.

(d) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2023, and as of that date is repealed.

SEC. 13.SEC. 12.

Section 7071.8 is added to the Business and Professions Code, to read:

7071.8.

(b) The board shall require as a condition precedent to the issuance, reissuance, renewal, or restoration of a license to the applicant, or to the approval of an application to change officers of a corporation or a limited liability company, or removal of suspension, or to the continued valid use of a license which has been suspended or revoked, but which suspension or revocation has been stayed, that the applicant or licensee file or have on file a contractor’s bond in a sum to be fixed by the registrar based upon the seriousness of the violation, but which sum shall not be less than twenty-five thousand dollars ($25,000) nor more than 10 times that amount required by Section 7071.6.

(d) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2023.

SEC. 14.SEC. 13.

Section 7071.9 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:

7071.9.

(a) If the qualifying individual, as referred to in Sections 7068 and 7068.1, is neither the proprietor, a general partner, nor a joint licensee, the qualifying individual shall file or have on file a qualifying individual’s bond as provided in Section 7071.10 in the sum of twelve thousand five hundred dollars ($12,500). This bond is in addition to, and shall not be combined with, any contractor’s bond required by Sections 7071.5 to 7071.8, inclusive, and is required for the issuance, reinstatement, reactivation, or continued valid use of a license.

(b) Excluding the claims brought by the beneficiaries specified in paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) of Section 7071.10, the aggregate liability of a surety on claims brought against the bond required by this section shall not exceed the sum of seven thousand five hundred dollars ($7,500). The bond proceeds in excess of seven thousand five hundred dollars ($7,500) shall be reserved exclusively for the claims of the beneficiaries specified in paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) of Section 7071.10. However, nothing in this section shall be construed to prevent any beneficiary specified in paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) of Section 7071.10 from claiming or recovering the full measure of the bond required by this section. This bond is in addition to, and shall not be combined with, any contractor’s bond required by Sections 7071.5 to 7071.8, inclusive, and is required for the issuance, reinstatement, reactivation, or continued valid use of a license.

(c) The responsible managing officer of a corporation shall not be required to file or have on file a qualifying individual’s bond, if the responsible managing officer owns 10 percent or more of the voting stock of the corporation and certifies to that fact on a form prescribed by the registrar.

(d) The qualifying individual for a limited liability company shall not be required to file or have on file a qualifying individual’s bond if the qualifying individual owns at least a 10-percent membership interest in the limited liability company and certifies to that fact on a form prescribed by the registrar.

(e) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2023, and as of that date is repealed.

SEC. 15.SEC. 14.

Section 7071.9 is added to the Business and Professions Code, to read:

7071.9.

(a) If the qualifying individual, as referred to in Sections 7068 and 7068.1, is neither the proprietor, a general partner, nor a joint licensee, the qualifying individual shall file or have on file a qualifying individual’s bond as provided in Section 7071.10 in the sum of twenty-five thousand dollars ($25,000). This bond is in addition to, and shall not be combined with, any contractor’s bond required by Sections 7071.5 to 7071.8, inclusive, and is required for the issuance, reinstatement, reactivation, or continued valid use of a license.

(e) This section shall become operative on January 1, 2023.

SEC. 16.SEC. 15.

Section 7137 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:

7137.

(a) The board may set fees by regulation. These fees shall be set according to the following schedule:

(1) Application fees shall be set as follows:

(A) The application fee for an original license in a single classification shall be four hundred fifty dollars ($450) and may be increased to not more than five hundred sixty-three dollars ($563).

(B) The application fee for each additional classification applied for in connection with an original license shall be one hundred fifty dollars ($150) and may be increased to not more than one hundred eighty-eight dollars ($188).

(C) The application fee for each additional classification pursuant to Section 7059 shall be two hundred thirty dollars ($230) and may be increased to not more than two hundred eighty-eight dollars ($288).

(D) The application fee to replace a responsible managing officer, responsible managing manager, responsible managing member, or responsible managing employee pursuant to Section 7068.2 shall be two hundred thirty dollars ($230) and may be increased to not more than two hundred eighty-eight dollars ($288).

(E) The application fee to add personnel, other than a qualifying individual, to an existing license shall be one hundred twenty-five dollars ($125) and may be increased to not more than one hundred fifty-seven dollars ($157).

(F) The application fee for an asbestos certification examination shall be one hundred twenty-five dollars ($125) and may be increased to not more than one hundred fifty-seven dollars ($157).

(G) The application fee for a hazardous substance removal or remedial action certification examination shall be one hundred twenty-five dollars ($125) and may be increased to not more than one hundred fifty-seven dollars ($157).

(2) Examination scheduling fees shall be set as follows:

(A) The fee for rescheduling an examination for an applicant who has applied for an original license, additional classification, a change of responsible managing officer, responsible managing manager, responsible managing member, or responsible managing employee, or for an asbestos certification or hazardous substance removal certification, shall be one hundred dollars ($100) and may be increased to not more than one hundred twenty-five dollars ($125).

(B) The fee for scheduling or rescheduling an examination for a licensee who is required to take the examination as a condition of probation shall be one hundred dollars ($100) and may be increased to not more than one hundred twenty-five dollars ($125).

(3) Initial license and registration fees shall be set as follows:

(A) The initial license fee for an active or inactive license for an individual owner shall be two hundred dollars ($200) and may be increased to not more than two hundred fifty dollars ($250).

(B) The initial license fee for an active or inactive license for a partnership, corporation, limited liability company, or joint venture shall be three hundred fifty dollars ($350) and may be increased to not more than four hundred thirty-eight dollars ($438).

(C) The registration fee for a home improvement salesperson shall be two hundred dollars ($200) and may be increased to not more than two hundred fifty dollars ($250).

(4) License and registration renewal fees shall be set as follows:

(A) The renewal fee for an active license for an individual owner shall be four hundred fifty dollars ($450) and may be increased to not more than five hundred sixty-three dollars ($563).

(B) The renewal fee for an inactive license for an individual owner shall be three hundred dollars ($300) and may be increased to not more than three hundred seventy-five dollars ($375).

(C) The renewal fee for an active license for a partnership, corporation, limited liability company, or joint venture shall be seven hundred dollars ($700) and may be increased to not more than eight hundred seventy-five dollars ($875).

(D) The renewal fee for an inactive license for a partnership, corporation, limited liability company, or joint venture shall be five hundred dollars ($500) and may be increased to not more than six hundred twenty-five dollars ($625).

(E) The renewal fee for a home improvement salesperson registration shall be two hundred dollars ($200) and may be increased to not more than two hundred fifty dollars ($250).

(5) The delinquency fee is an amount equal to 50 percent of the renewal fee, if the license is renewed after its expiration.

(6) Miscellaneous fees shall be set as follows:

(A) In addition to any other fees charged to C-10 contractors, the board shall charge a fee of twenty dollars ($20), to be assessed with the renewal fee for an active license, which shall be used by the board to enforce provisions of the Labor Code related to electrician certification.

(B) The service fee to deposit with the registrar lawful money or cashier’s check pursuant to paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) of Section 995.710 of the Code of Civil Procedure for purposes of compliance with any provision of Article 5 (commencing with Section 7065) shall be one hundred dollars ($100), which shall be used by the board only to process each deposit filed with the registrar, to cover the reasonable costs to the registrar for holding money or cashier’s checks in trust in interest bearing deposit or share accounts, and to offset the costs of processing payment of lawful claims against a deposit in a civil action.

(C) The fee for the processing and issuance of a duplicate copy of any certificate of licensure or other form evidencing licensure or renewal of licensure pursuant to Section 122 shall be twenty-five dollars ($25).

(D) The fee to change the business name of a license as it is recorded under this chapter shall be one hundred dollars ($100) and may be increased to not more than one hundred twenty-five dollars ($125).

(E) The service charge for a dishonored check authorized by Section 6157 of the Government Code shall be twenty-five dollars ($25) for each check.

(b) The board shall, by regulation, establish criteria for the approval of expedited processing of applications. Approved expedited processing of applications for licensure or registration, as required by other provisions of law, shall not be subject to this subdivision.

SEC. 17.SEC. 16.

Section 7583.22 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:

7583.22.

(a) A licensee, qualified manager of a licensee, or security guard who, in the course of their employment, may be required to carry a firearm shall, prior to carrying a firearm, do both of the following:

(1) Complete a course of training in the carrying and use of firearms.

(2) Receive a firearms qualification card or be otherwise qualified to carry a firearm as provided in Section 7583.12.

(b) A security guard who, in the course of their employment, may be required to carry a firearm, shall, prior to carrying a firearm, be found capable of exercising appropriate judgment, restraint, and self-control for the purposes of carrying and using a firearm during the course of their duties, pursuant to Section 7583.47.

(c) A licensee shall not permit an employee to carry or use a loaded or unloaded firearm, whether or not it is serviceable or operative, unless the employee possesses a valid and current firearms qualification card issued by the bureau or is so otherwise qualified to carry a firearm as provided in Section 7583.12.

(d) A pocket card issued by the bureau pursuant to Section 7582.13 may also serve as a firearms qualification card if so indicated on the face of the card.

(e) Paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) shall not apply to a peace officer as defined in Chapter 4.5 (commencing with Section 830) of Title 3 of Part 2 of the Penal Code, who has successfully completed a course of study in the use of firearms or to a federal qualified law enforcement officer, as defined in Section 926B of Title 18 of the United States Code, who has successfully completed a course of study in the use of firearms.

SEC. 18.SEC. 17.

Section 7583.23 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:

7583.23.

The bureau shall issue a firearms permit when all of the following conditions are satisfied:

(a) The applicant is a licensee, a qualified manager of a licensee, or a registered security guard subject to the following:

(1) The firearms permit may only be associated with the following:

(A) A sole owner of a sole ownership licensee, pursuant to Section 7582.7 or 7525.1.

(B) A partner of a partnership licensee, pursuant to Section 7582.7 or 7525.1.

(D) A security guard registrant.

(2) If the firearms permit is associated with a security guard registration, they are subject to the provisions of Section 7583.47, regardless of any other license possessed or associated with the firearms permit.

(b) A certified firearms training instructor has certified that the applicant has successfully completed a written examination prepared by the bureau and training course in the carrying and use of firearms approved by the bureau.

(c) The applicant has filed with the bureau a classifiable fingerprint card, a completed application for a firearms permit on a form prescribed by the director, dated and signed by the applicant, certifying under penalty of perjury that the information in the application is true and correct. In lieu of a classifiable fingerprint card, the applicant may submit fingerprints into an electronic fingerprinting system administered by the Department of Justice. An applicant who submits their fingerprints by electronic means shall have their fingerprints entered into the system through a terminal operated by a law enforcement agency or other facility authorized by the Department of Justice to conduct electronic fingerprinting. The terminal operator may charge a fee sufficient to reimburse it for the costs incurred in providing this service.

(d) The applicant is at least 21 years of age and the bureau has determined, after investigation, that the carrying and use of a firearm by the applicant, in the course of their duties, presents no apparent threat to the public safety, or that the carrying and use of a firearm by the applicant is not in violation of the Penal Code.

(e) The applicant has produced evidence to the firearm training facility that the applicant is a citizen of the United States or has permanent legal alien status in the United States. Evidence of citizenship or permanent legal alien status shall be deemed sufficient by the bureau to ensure compliance with federal laws prohibiting possession of firearms by persons unlawfully in the United States and may include, but not be limited to, United States Department of Justice, Immigration and Naturalization Service Form I-151 or I-551, Alien Registration Receipt Card, naturalization documents, or birth certificates evidencing lawful residence or status in the United States.

(f) The application is accompanied by the application fees prescribed in this chapter.

(g) The applicant is a registered security guard and they have been found capable of exercising appropriate judgment, restraint, and self-control, for the purposes of carrying and using a firearm during the course of their duties, pursuant to Section 7583.47.

SEC. 19.SEC. 18.

Section 7583.24 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:

7583.24.

(a) The bureau shall not issue a firearm permit if the applicant is prohibited from possessing, receiving, owning, or purchasing a firearm pursuant to state or federal law.

(b) Before issuing an initial firearm permit the bureau shall provide the Department of Justice with the name, address, social security number, and fingerprints of the applicant.

(c) The Department of Justice shall inform the bureau, within 60 days from receipt of the information specified in subdivision (b), of the applicant’s eligibility to possess, receive, purchase, or own a firearm pursuant to state and federal law.

(d) An applicant who has been denied a firearm permit based upon subdivision (a) may reapply for the permit after the prohibition expires. The bureau shall treat this application as an initial application and shall follow the required screening process as specified in this section.

SEC. 19.

Section 7583.27 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:

7583.27.

(a) A firearm permit ~~shall be automatically~~ may be revoked if at any time the Department of Justice notifies the bureau that the holder of the firearm permit is prohibited from possessing, receiving, or purchasing a firearm pursuant to state or federal law. Following the automatic revocation, an administrative hearing shall be provided upon written request to the bureau in accordance with Chapter 5 (commencing with Section 11500) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code.

(b) The bureau ~~shall~~ may seek an emergency order pursuant to Article 13 (commencing with Section 11460.10) of Chapter 4.5 of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code against the holder of the firearms permit if, after the bureau’s investigation relating to any of the following events, the bureau determines that the holder of the firearms permit presents an undue hazard to public safety that may result in substantial injury to another:

(1) Receipt of subsequent arrest information of an arrest for any of the following:

(A) Assault.

(B) Battery.

(2) A report from a bureau-approved firearms training facility or instructor made pursuant to Section 7585.18.

(3) A report from the permitholder’s employer or former employer that the permitholder may be a threat to public safety.

(4) A complaint filed by any member of the public that the permitholder may be a threat to public safety.

(5)If the permitholder has been determined incapable of exercising appropriate judgment, restraint, and self-control pursuant to the assessment required under Section 7583.47 for a permit associated with a security guard registration.

SEC. 20.

Section 7583.29 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:

7583.29.

~~(a)~~If a firearms permit is denied, the denial of the permit shall be in writing and shall describe the basis for the denial. The denial shall inform the applicant that if the applicant desires a review by a disciplinary review committee to contest the denial, the review shall be requested of the director within 30 days following notice of the issuance of the denial. A review or hearing shall be held pursuant to Section 7581.3. However, no review or hearing shall be granted to an individual who is otherwise prohibited by law from carrying a firearm.

~~(b)Appeals of denials pursuant to this section shall be in accordance with Chapter 5 (commencing with Section 11500) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code.~~

SEC. 21.

Section 7583.47 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:

7583.47.

(a) As used in this section, “assessment” means the application of a testing instrument identified by the bureau that evaluates whether an applicant for a firearms permit who is a registered security guard, at the time of the assessment, possesses appropriate judgment, restraint, and self-control for the purposes of carrying and using a firearm during the course of their security guard duties.

(b) The applicant shall complete the assessment, as specified in this section.

(c) (1) The bureau shall implement a process to administer the assessment specified in this section. The establishment of the assessment and the process for administering the assessment shall not be subject to the requirements of Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code.

(2) The bureau shall consult with a California licensed psychologist, psychologists, or other persons with subject matter expertise, whose minimum duties shall include, but are not limited to, assisting the bureau with all of the following:

(A) Establishing criteria for a contract with a vendor to administer the assessment.

(B) Identifying minimum standards for the assessment.

(D) Providing consultative services on the bids received by the bureau from third-party vendors seeking to administer and interpret the assessment, to ensure both of the following:

(i) Compliance with the applicable standards of care for the administration and interpretation of such assessments.

(ii) The assessment will be administered in accordance with the assessment manufacturer’s requirements.

(3) The bureau shall contract with a third-party vendor to administer the assessment. All third-party vendors seeking to administer the assessment must meet the minimum standards established by the bureau, its consultants, and the assessment manufacturer’s requirements for administering the assessment. Considerations for the third-party vendor contract shall include, but are not limited to, all of the following:

(A) Cost to the applicant to complete the assessment.

(B) Geographic accessibility statewide of the assessment to applicants.

(D) Ensuring an assessment carried out on an applicant complies with the applicable professional standards of care for such assessments, as well as the assessment manufacturer’s requirements for administering the assessment.

(d) Upon the bureau’s verification that the applicant has satisfied subdivisions (a) to (f), inclusive, of Section 7583.23 and upon the applicant’s clearance of a background check by the Department of Justice and the Federal Bureau of Investigation to possess a firearm, the bureau shall notify the applicant that the applicant is to contact the bureau’s vendor to complete the assessment. The applicant, or the applicant’s designee or employer if the employer voluntarily chooses, shall bear the cost of the assessment.

(e) Within 30 days of administering an applicant’s assessment, the vendor shall directly provide the bureau, on a form and in a manner prescribed by the bureau, the applicant’s assessment results. If the results of the applicant’s assessment indicate that the applicant is incapable of exercising appropriate judgment, restraint, and self-control for the purposes of carrying and using a firearm during the course of the applicant’s duties, at the point in time of the evaluation, the bureau shall not issue a firearms permit. If the applicant fails the assessment, the applicant may complete another assessment no earlier than 90 days after the results of the previous assessment are provided to the bureau.

(f) The application shall be deemed incomplete until the bureau receives the ~~applicant’s~~ results of the applicant’s ~~assessment.~~ assessment and the results indicate that the applicant is capable of exercising appropriate judgment, restraint, and self-control for the purposes of carrying and using a firearm during the course of the applicant’s duties.

(g) Notwithstanding any other law, an applicant who fails the assessment shall not be entitled to an administrative hearing or an appeal subject to Chapter 5 (commencing with Section 11500) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code. However, such an applicant who is denied a firearms permit may request review of the denial pursuant to Section 7583.29.
~~(g)~~

(h) The bureau may prescribe, adopt, and enforce emergency regulations, and promulgate regulations to implement this section. Any emergency regulation prescribed, adopted, or enforced pursuant to this section shall be adopted in accordance with Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code, and for purposes of that chapter, including Section 11349.6 of the Government Code, the adoption of the regulation is an emergency and shall be considered by the Office of Administrative Law as necessary for the immediate preservation of the public peace, health and safety, and general welfare.

~~(h)~~

(i) The assessment required pursuant to this section shall be subject to review by the appropriate policy committees of the Legislature. The review shall be performed as if this section was scheduled to be repealed as of January 1, 2025.

SEC. 22.

Section 17973 of the Health and Safety Code is amended to read:

17973.

(a) Exterior elevated elements that include load-bearing components in all buildings containing three or more multifamily dwelling units shall be inspected. The inspection shall be performed by a licensed architect; licensed civil or structural engineer; a building contractor holding any or all of the “A,” “B,” or “C-5” license classifications issued by the ~~Contractors’~~ Contractors State License Board, with a minimum of five years’ experience, as a holder of the aforementioned classifications or licenses, in constructing multistory wood frame buildings; or an individual certified as a building inspector or building official from a recognized state, national, or international association, as determined by the local jurisdiction. These individuals shall not be employed by the local jurisdiction while performing these inspections. The purpose of the inspection is to determine that exterior elevated elements and their associated waterproofing elements are in a generally safe condition, adequate working order, and free from any hazardous condition caused by fungus, deterioration, decay, or improper alteration to the extent that the life, limb, health, property, safety, or welfare of the public or the occupants is not endangered. The person or business performing the inspection shall be hired by the owner of the building.

(b) For purposes of this section, the following terms have the following definitions:

(1) “Associated waterproofing elements” include flashings, membranes, coatings, and sealants that protect the load-bearing components of exterior elevated elements from exposure to water and the elements.

(2) “Exterior elevated element” means the following types of structures, including their supports and railings: balconies, decks, porches, stairways, walkways, and entry structures that extend beyond exterior walls of the building and which have a walking surface that is elevated more than six feet above ground level, are designed for human occupancy or use, and rely in whole or in substantial part on wood or wood-based products for structural support or stability of the exterior elevated element.

(3) “Load-bearing components” are those components that extend beyond the exterior walls of the building to deliver structural loads from the exterior elevated element to the building.

(1) Identification of each type of exterior elevated element that, if found to be defective, decayed, or deteriorated to the extent that it does not meet its load requirements, would, in the opinion of the inspector, constitute a threat to the health or safety of the occupants.

(2) Assessment of the load-bearing components and associated waterproofing elements of the exterior elevated elements identified in paragraph (1) using methods allowing for evaluation of their performance by direct visual examination or comparable means of evaluating their performance. For purposes of this section, a sample of at least 15 percent of each type of exterior elevated element shall be inspected.

(3) The evaluation and assessment shall address each of the following as of the date of the evaluation:

(A) The current condition of the exterior elevated elements.

(B) Expectations of future performance and projected service life.

(4) A written report of the evaluation stamped or signed by the inspector presented to the owner of the building or the owner’s designated agent within 45 days of completion of the inspection. The report shall include photographs, any test results, and narrative sufficient to establish a baseline of the condition of the components inspected that can be compared to the results of subsequent inspections. In addition to the evaluation required by this section, the report shall advise which, if any, exterior elevated element poses an immediate threat to the safety of the occupants, and whether preventing occupant access or conducting emergency repairs, including shoring, are necessary.

(d) The inspection shall be completed by January 1, 2025, and by January 1 every six years thereafter. The inspector conducting the inspection shall produce an initial report pursuant to paragraph (4) of subdivision (c) and, if requested by the owner, a final report indicating that any required repairs have been completed. A copy of any report that recommends immediate repairs, advises that any building assembly poses an immediate threat to the safety of the occupants, or that preventing occupant access or emergency repairs, including shoring, are necessary, shall be provided by the inspector to the owner of the building and to the local enforcement agency within 15 days of completion of the report. Subsequent inspection reports shall incorporate copies of prior inspection reports, including the locations of the exterior elevated elements inspected. Local enforcement agencies may determine whether any additional information is to be provided in the report and may require a copy of the initial or final reports, or both, be submitted to the local jurisdiction. Copies of all inspection reports shall be maintained in the building owner’s permanent records for not less than two inspection cycles, and shall be disclosed and delivered to the buyer at the time of any subsequent sale of the building.

(e) The inspection of buildings for which a building permit application has been submitted on or after January 1, 2019, shall occur no later than six years following issuance of a certificate of occupancy from the local jurisdiction and shall otherwise comply with the provisions of this section.

(f) If the property was inspected within three years prior to January 1, 2019, by an inspector as described in subdivision (a) and a report of that inspector was issued stating that the exterior elevated elements and associated waterproofing elements are in proper working condition and do not pose a threat to the health and safety of the public, no new inspection pursuant to this section shall be required until January 1, 2025.

(g) An exterior elevated element found by the inspector that is in need of repair or replacement shall be corrected by the owner of the building. All necessary permits for repair or replacement shall be obtained from the local jurisdiction. All repair and replacement work shall be performed by a qualified and licensed contractor in compliance with all of the following:

(1) The recommendations of a licensed professional described in subdivision (a).

(2) Any applicable manufacturer’s specifications.

(3) The California Building Standards Code, consistent with subdivision (d) of Section 17922 of the Health and Safety Code.

(4) All local jurisdictional requirements.

(h) (1) An exterior elevated element that the inspector advises poses an immediate threat to the safety of the occupants, or finds preventing occupant access or emergency repairs, including shoring, or both, are necessary, shall be considered an emergency condition and the owner of the building shall perform required preventive measures immediately. Immediately preventing occupant access to the exterior elevated element until emergency repairs can be completed constitutes compliance with this paragraph. Repairs of emergency conditions shall comply with the requirements of subdivision (g), be inspected by the inspector, and reported to the local enforcement agency.

(2) The owner of the building requiring corrective work to an exterior elevated element that, in the opinion of the inspector, does not pose an immediate threat to the safety of the occupants, shall apply for a permit within 120 days of receipt of the inspection report. Once the permit is approved, the owner of the building shall have 120 days to make the repairs unless an extension of time is granted by the local enforcement agency.

(i) (1) The owner of the building shall be responsible for complying with the requirements of this section.

(2) If the owner of the building does not comply with the repair requirements within 180 days, the inspector shall notify the local enforcement agency and the owner of the building. If within 30 days of the date of the notice the repairs are not completed, the owner of the building shall be assessed a civil penalty based on the fee schedule set by the local authority of not less than one hundred dollars ($100) nor more than five hundred dollars ($500) per day until the repairs are completed, unless an extension of time is granted by the local enforcement agency.

(3) In the event that a civil penalty is assessed pursuant to this section, a building safety lien may be recorded in the county recorder’s office by the local jurisdiction in the county in which the parcel of land is located and from the date of recording shall have the force, effect, and priority of a judgment lien.

(j) (1) A building safety lien authorized by this section shall specify the amount of the lien, the name of the agency on whose behalf the lien is imposed, the street address, the legal description and assessor’s parcel number of the parcel on which the lien is imposed, and the name and address of the recorded owner of the building.

(2) In the event that the lien is discharged, released, or satisfied, either through payment or foreclosure, notice of the discharge containing the information specified in paragraph (1) shall be recorded by the governmental agency. A safety lien and the release of the lien shall be indexed in the grantor-grantee index.

(3) A building safety lien may be foreclosed by an action brought by the appropriate local jurisdiction for a money judgment.

(4) Notwithstanding any other law, the county recorder may impose a fee on the city to reimburse the costs of processing and recording the lien and providing notice to the owner of the building. A city may recover from the owner of the building any costs incurred regarding the processing and recording of the lien and providing notice to the owner of the building as part of its foreclosure action to enforce the lien.

(k) The continued and ongoing maintenance of exterior elevated elements in a safe and functional condition in compliance with these provisions shall be the responsibility of the owner of the building.

(l) Local enforcement agencies shall have the ability to recover enforcement costs associated with the requirements of this section.

(m) For any building subject to the provisions of this section that is proposed for conversion to condominiums to be sold to the public after January 1, 2019, the inspection required by this section shall be conducted prior to the first close of escrow of a separate interest in the project and shall include the inspector’s recommendations for repair or replacement of any exterior elevated element found to be defective, decayed, or deteriorated to the extent that it does not meet its load requirements, and would, in the opinion of the inspector, constitute a threat to the health or safety of the occupants. The inspection report and written confirmation by the inspector that any repairs or replacements recommended by the inspector have been completed shall be submitted to the Department of Real Estate by the proponent of the conversion and shall be a condition to the issuance of the final public report. A complete copy of the inspection report and written confirmation by the inspector that any repairs or replacements recommended by the inspector have been completed shall be included with the written statement of defects required by Section 1134 of the Civil Code, and provided to the local jurisdiction in which the project is located. The inspection, report, and confirmation of completed repairs shall be a condition of the issuance of a final inspection or certificate of occupancy by the local jurisdiction.

(n) This section shall not apply to a common interest development, as defined in Section 4100 of the Civil Code.

(o) The governing body of any city, county, or city and county, may enact ordinances or laws imposing requirements greater than those imposed by this section.

SEC. 23.

No reimbursement is required by this act pursuant to Section 6 of Article XIII B of the California Constitution for certain costs that may be incurred by a local agency or school district because, in that regard, this act creates a new crime or infraction, eliminates a crime or infraction, or changes the penalty for a crime or infraction, within the meaning of Section 17556 of the Government Code, or changes the definition of a crime within the meaning of Section 6 of Article XIII B of the California Constitution.

However, if the Commission on State Mandates determines that this act contains other costs mandated by the state, reimbursement to local agencies and school districts for those costs shall be made pursuant to Part 7 (commencing with Section 17500) of Division 4 of Title 2 of the Government Code.

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Bill Text: CA SB607 | 2021-2022 | Regular Session | Amended

California Senate Bill 607 (Prior Session Legislation)

LEGISLATIVE COUNSEL'S DIGEST

Digest Key

Bill Text

The people of the State of California do enact as follows:

SEC. 2.SECTION 1.

115.5.

SEC. 3.SEC. 2.

1636.5.

SEC. 4.SEC. 3.

1724.

SEC. 5.SEC. 4.

1753.

SEC. 6.SEC. 5.

SEC. 7.SEC. 6.

1753.55.

SEC. 8.SEC. 7.

1753.6.

SEC. 9.SEC. 8.

5650.5.

SEC. 10.SEC. 9.

7071.6.

SEC. 11.SEC. 10.

7071.6.

SEC. 12.SEC. 11.

7071.8.

SEC. 13.SEC. 12.

7071.8.

SEC. 14.SEC. 13.

7071.9.

SEC. 15.SEC. 14.

7071.9.

SEC. 16.SEC. 15.

7137.

SEC. 17.SEC. 16.

7583.22.

SEC. 18.SEC. 17.

7583.23.

SEC. 19.SEC. 18.

7583.24.

SEC. 19.

7583.27.

SEC. 20.

7583.29.

SEC. 21.

7583.47.

SEC. 22.

17973.

SEC. 23.

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