Bill Title: Amends the Regulatory Sunset Act. Extends the repeal date of the Boxing and Full-contact Martial Arts Act, the Cemetery Oversight Act, the Community Association Manager Licensing and Disciplinary Act, the Detection of Deception Examiners Act, the Home Inspector License Act, the Massage Therapy Practice Act, the Medical Practice Act of 1987, the Petroleum Equipment Contractors Licensing Act, the Radiation Protection Act of 1990, the Real Estate Appraiser Licensing Act of 2002, and the Registered Interior Designers Act from January 1, 2022 to January 1, 2027. Amends the Mercury Thermostat Collection Act to change the repeal date of the Act from January 1, 2022 to January 1, 2023. Amends the Boxing and Full-contact Martial Arts Act. Provides that, on and after January 1, 2023, a promoter for an amateur full-contact martial arts contest shall obtain a permit issued by the Department under the requirements and standards set forth in the Act and the rules of the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation and that the Department shall not approve a sanctioning body. Allows for electronic notice or delivery in various situations. Requires additional documentation to be submitted to the Department by a promoter. Provides that an applicant over age 35 who has not competed in a professional or amateur contest within the last 12 (rather than 36) months preceding the application may be required to appear before the Department to determine his or her fitness to participate in a contest. Increases from $35,000 to $50,000 the maximum amount of fees charged on amounts over $500,000 and increases the time in which to pay the fees to the Department. Makes changes related to addresses and email addresses of record, State of Illinois Athletic Board membership and terms, powers of the Board, powers and duties of the Department, restricted contests and events, licenses, discipline and sanctions, investigations and hearings, fines, fees for amateur full-contact martial arts events, violations of the Act, and medical suspensions. Repeals or reorganizes provisions relating to the Director of Professional Regulation, registration of amateurs, unlicensed practice, qualifications for registration, and others. Amends the Cemetery Oversight Act. Provides that all applicants and licensees under the Act shall provide a valid address and email address to the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation. Provides that all information collected by the Department in the course of an investigation shall be maintained for the confidential use of the Department. Provides that the Secretary of Financial and Professional Regulation has the authority to appoint an attorney licensed in Illinois to serve as a hearing officer in specified actions. Makes changes in provisions concerning definitions; the powers and duties of the Department; application for original license; qualifications for licensure; certification; renewal, reinstatement, or restoration of a license; contracts; fees; exemptions; citations; grounds for disciplinary action; injunction and cease and desist orders; investigation, notice, and hearings; motions for rehearing; record of proceedings; restoration of licenses from discipline; administrative review; and unlicensed practice. Makes other changes. Repeals provisions concerning denial of license or exemption from licensure; findings and recommendations; rehearing; secretary, rehearing; certifications of record, costs; civil action and civil penalties; whistleblower protection; rules; roster; and the Cemetery Oversight Board. Amends the Department of Professional Regulation Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois. Makes changes in provisions concerning the prohibited uses of roster information and board reports. Amends the Community Association Manager Licensing and Disciplinary Act. Makes various changes concerning definitions, licensing, exemptions from licensing, the Community Association Manager Licensing and Disciplinary Board, immunity from liability, the powers and duties of the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, qualifications for licensure, examinations, insurance, licensing, the Community Association Manager Licensing and Disciplinary Fund, fines, endorsement, discipline, citations, violations, investigations, hearings, limitations, rights of action, home rule, and other matters. Amends the Detection of Deception Examiners Act. Provides that all applicants and licensees under the Act shall provide a valid address and email address to the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, which shall serve as the address of record and email address of record, and shall inform the Department of any change of address of record or email address of record within 14 days after such change. Repeals a provision authorizing the Secretary of Financial and Professional Regulation to appoint a Detection of Deception Examiners Act Coordinator to assist the Department in the administration of this Act (and makes conforming changes throughout the Act). Repeals a provision that requires the Department to maintain a roster of the names and addresses of all licensees and registrants and of all persons whose licenses have been suspended or revoked within the previous year. Removes language providing that exhibits shall be certified without cost as part of a judicial review proceeding. Amends the Home Inspector License Act. Makes various changes concerning definitions, licensing, endorsement, education, insurance, records, discipline, citations, investigations, review, fees, violations, education providers, and other matters. Amends the Massage Licensing Act. Changes the name of the Act to the Massage Therapy Practice Act. Provides that all applicants and licensees under the Act shall provide a valid address and email address to the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, which shall serve as the address and email address of record. Authorizes certain notices to be emailed to the licensee's email address of record. Removes a provision that allows an applicant to satisfy licensure requirements by holding a current license from another jurisdiction having licensure requirements that include the completion of a massage therapy program of at least 500 hours. Provides that a massage therapist shall include the current license number issued by the Department on all advertisements and that failure to do so is grounds for discipline. Makes changes in provisions concerning exemptions under the Act. Provides that every displayed license shall have the license number visible. Makes other changes. Amends the Professional Service Corporation Act to make corresponding changes. Amends the Medical Practice Act of 1987. Creates the Illinois State Medical Board to carry out the duties of the Medical Disciplinary Board and the Medical Licensing Board under the Act (and makes conforming changes). Provides for membership of the Illinois State Medical Board. Provides that all members of the Medical Licensing Board and the Medical Disciplinary Board shall serve as members of the Medical Board. Requires that a majority of the Illinois State Medical Board members shall be appointed within 260 days after the effective date of the amendatory Act. Repeals provisions concerning the Medical Licensing Board and Medical Disciplinary Board one year after the effective date of the amendatory Act. Provides that the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation may close a complaint, after investigation and approval of the Chief Medical Coordinator, if certain standards are not met. Makes changes to provisions concerning definitions; withdrawal of applications; the Complaint Committee; findings and recommendations; and administrative review. Amends the Petroleum Equipment Contractors Licensing Act. Provides that, if a corporation or business entity does not have evidence of current registration, such as a Secretary of State issued Certificate of Good Standing, the Office of the State Fire Marshal has the authority to deny or revoke the license of such a corporation or business entity. Provides that a lapsed license may not be reinstated until an application (rather than a written application) is filed. Removes language providing that, if a license or certificate is lost, a duplicate shall be issued upon payment of the required fee. Removes language providing that licensees shall be subject to disciplinary action for being a habitual drunk or having a habitual addiction to the use of morphine, cocaine, controlled substances, or other habit-forming drugs. Allows the Office of the State Fire Marshal to adopt rules to permit the issuance of citations for certain violations of the Act or the rules adopted under the Act. Amends the Real Estate Appraiser Licensing Act. Provides that all applicants and licensees under the Act shall provide a valid address and email address to the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation. Creates provisions concerning inactive licenses; citations; and illegal discrimination. Makes changes in provisions concerning private rights of action, necessity of license, use of title, exemptions; applications for State certified general real estate appraiser; application for State certified residential real estate appraiser; application for associate real estate trainee appraiser; duration of application; criminal history records checks; renewal of license; qualifying education requirements; scope of practice; standards of practice; unlicensed practice; grounds for disciplinary action; investigation, notice, and hearing; credit card charges; course approval; the Real Estate Appraisal Administration and Disciplinary Board; Department powers and duties; rules; and savings provisions. Repeals provisions concerning surveys and the Appraisal Administration Fund. Makes other changes. Amends the Appraisal Management Company Registration Act. Provides that nothing in the Act shall apply to a department or division of an entity that provides appraisal management services only to that entity. Makes changes to definitions. Makes amendatory changes to the Boxing and Full-contact Martial Arts Act, the Cemetery Oversight Act, the Community Association Manager Licensing and Disciplinary Act, the Department of Professional Regulation Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois, the Detection of Deception Examiners Act, the Home Inspector License Act, the Massage Licensing Act, the Medical Practice Act of 1987, the Petroleum Equipment Contractors Licensing Act, the Professional Service Corporation Act, the Radiation Protection Act of 1990, the Real Estate Appraiser Licensing Act of 2002, and the Registered Interior Designers Act. Amends the Registered Interior Designers Act. Provides that all applicants and registrants under the Act shall provide a valid address and email address to the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, which shall serve as the address of record and email address of record. Provides that nothing in the Act shall authorize registered interior designers to advertise services that they are prohibited to perform, including architecture or engineering services. Makes changes in provisions concerning the Board of Registered Interior Design Professionals; board recommendations; investigations and notice of hearings; restoration of registrations; the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act; confidentiality of information; and the General Professions Dedicated Fund. Makes other changes. Effective January 1, 2022, except provisions amending the Regulatory Sunset Act, the Department of Professional Regulation Law of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois, and the Cemetery Oversight Act take effect immediately.
Spectrum: Partisan Bill (Democrat 5-0)
Status: (Passed) 2021-06-25 - Public Act . . . . . . . . . 102-0020
[HB0806 Detail]Download: Illinois-2021-HB0806-Chaptered.html
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Public Act 102-0020
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HB0806 Enrolled | LRB102 02614 SPS 12617 b |
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AN ACT concerning regulation.
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Be it enacted by the People of the State of Illinois,
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represented in the General Assembly:
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Section 5. The Regulatory Sunset Act is amended by |
changing Sections 4.32 and 4.37 as follows:
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(5 ILCS 80/4.32) |
Sec. 4.32. Acts repealed on January 1, 2022. The following |
Acts are repealed on January 1, 2022: |
The Boxing and Full-contact Martial Arts Act. |
The Cemetery Oversight Act. |
The Collateral Recovery Act. |
The Community Association Manager Licensing and |
Disciplinary Act. |
The Crematory Regulation Act. |
The Detection of Deception Examiners Act.
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The Home Inspector License Act.
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The Illinois Health Information Exchange and Technology |
Act. |
The Medical Practice Act of 1987. |
The Registered Interior Designers Act.
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The Massage Licensing Act.
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The Petroleum Equipment Contractors Licensing Act.
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The Radiation Protection Act of 1990. |
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The Real Estate Appraiser Licensing Act of 2002. |
The Water Well and Pump Installation Contractor's License |
Act. |
(Source: P.A. 100-920, eff. 8-17-18; 101-316, eff. 8-9-19; |
101-614, eff. 12-20-19; 101-639, eff. 6-12-20.)
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(5 ILCS 80/4.37) |
Sec. 4.37. Acts and Articles repealed on January 1, 2027. |
The following are repealed on January 1, 2027: |
The Clinical Psychologist Licensing Act.
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The Illinois Optometric Practice Act of 1987. |
Articles II, III, IV, V, VI, VIIA, VIIB, VIIC, XVII, XXXI,
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XXXI 1/4, and XXXI 3/4 of the Illinois Insurance Code.
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The Boiler and Pressure Vessel Repairer Regulation Act. |
The Marriage and Family Therapy Licensing Act. |
The Boxing and Full-contact Martial Arts Act. |
The Cemetery Oversight Act. |
The Community Association Manager Licensing and |
Disciplinary Act. |
The Detection of Deception Examiners Act. |
The Home Inspector License Act. |
The Massage Licensing Act. |
The Medical Practice Act of 1987. |
The Petroleum Equipment Contractors Licensing Act. |
The Radiation Protection Act of 1990. |
The Real Estate Appraiser Licensing Act of 2002. |
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The Registered Interior Designers Act. |
(Source: P.A. 99-572, eff. 7-15-16; 99-909, eff. 12-16-16; |
99-910, eff. 12-16-16; 99-911, eff. 12-16-16; 100-201, eff. |
8-18-17; 100-372, eff. 8-25-17.)
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Section 10. The Department of Professional Regulation Law |
of the
Civil Administrative Code of Illinois is amended by |
changing Sections 2105-35 and 2105-120 as follows:
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(20 ILCS 2105/2105-35) |
Sec. 2105-35. Prohibited uses of roster of information. |
Notwithstanding any other provision of law to the contrary, |
any roster of information including, but not limited to, the |
licensee's name, address, and profession, shall not be used by |
a third party for the purpose of marketing goods or services |
not related to the licensee's profession. Rosters provided by |
the Department shall comply with the requirements set forth |
under the Freedom of Information Act.
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(Source: P.A. 96-978, eff. 7-2-10.)
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(20 ILCS 2105/2105-120) (was 20 ILCS 2105/60g)
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Sec. 2105-120. Board's report; licensee's or applicant's |
motion for rehearing.
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(a) The board shall present to the Secretary Director its |
written report of its
findings and recommendations. A copy of |
the report shall be served upon the licensee or applicant, |
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either personally or by mail or email as provided in Section
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2105-100 for the service of the notice. The Secretary may |
issue an order that deviates from the board's report and is not |
required to provide the board with an explanation of the |
deviation.
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(b) Within 20 days after the service required under |
subsection (a), the licensee or applicant
may present to the |
Department a motion in writing for a rehearing.
The written |
motion shall specify the particular grounds for a rehearing. |
If
the licensee or applicant orders and pays for a transcript |
of the record as provided in
Section 2105-115, the time |
elapsing thereafter and before the
transcript is ready for |
delivery to the licensee or applicant shall not be counted as
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part of the 20 days.
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(Source: P.A. 99-227, eff. 8-3-15; 100-262, eff. 8-22-17.)
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Section 15. The Massage Licensing Act is amended by |
changing Sections 1, 10, 15, 25, 32, 45, 50, 60, and 95 and by |
adding Section 12 as follows:
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(225 ILCS 57/1)
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(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
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Sec. 1. Short title. This Act may be cited as the Massage |
Therapy Practice Licensing Act.
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(Source: P.A. 92-860, eff. 6-1-03 .)
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(225 ILCS 57/10)
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(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
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Sec. 10. Definitions. As used in this Act:
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"Address of Record" means the designated address recorded |
by the Department in the applicant's or licensee's application |
file or license file as maintained by the Department's |
licensure maintenance unit. It is the duty of the applicant or |
licensee to inform the Department of any change of address and |
those changes must be made either through the Department's |
website or by contacting the Department. |
"Approved massage school" means a facility which meets |
minimum
standards for training and curriculum as determined by |
the Department.
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"Board" means the Massage Licensing Board appointed by the |
Secretary.
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"Compensation" means the payment, loan, advance, donation, |
contribution,
deposit, or
gift of money or anything of value.
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"Department" means the Department of Financial and |
Professional Regulation.
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"Email address of record" means the designated email |
address recorded by the Department in the applicant's |
application file or the licensee's license file, as maintained |
by the Department's licensure maintenance unit. |
"Massage" or "massage therapy" means a system of |
structured palpation or
movement of the soft tissue of the |
body. The system may include, but is
not limited to, |
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techniques such as effleurage or stroking and gliding,
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petrissage or kneading, tapotement or percussion, friction, |
vibration,
compression, and stretching activities as they |
pertain to
massage therapy. These techniques may be applied by |
a licensed massage
therapist
with or without the aid of |
lubricants, salt or herbal preparations,
hydromassage, thermal |
massage, or a massage device that mimics or enhances the
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actions possible by human hands.
The purpose of the practice |
of massage, as licensed under this Act, is to
enhance the |
general
health and well-being of the mind and body of the |
recipient. "Massage"
does not include the
diagnosis of a |
specific
pathology. "Massage" does not include those acts of |
physical therapy or
therapeutic or corrective measures that |
are outside the scope of massage
therapy practice as defined |
in this Section.
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"Massage therapist" means a person who is licensed by the
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Department
and administers massage for compensation.
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"Professional massage or bodywork therapy association" |
means a
state or
nationally chartered organization that is |
devoted to the massage specialty and
therapeutic approach and
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meets the following requirements:
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(1) The organization requires that its members meet |
minimum educational
requirements. The educational |
requirements must include anatomy, physiology,
hygiene,
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sanitation, ethics, technical theory, and application of |
techniques.
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(2) The organization has an established code of ethics |
and has procedures
for the
suspension and revocation of |
membership of persons violating the code of
ethics.
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"Secretary" means the Secretary of Financial and |
Professional Regulation. |
(Source: P.A. 97-514, eff. 8-23-11.)
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(225 ILCS 57/12 new) |
Sec. 12. Address of record; email address of record. All |
applicants and licensees shall: |
(1) provide a valid address and email address to the |
Department, which shall serve as the address of record and |
email address of record, respectively, at the time of |
application for licensure or renewal of a license; and |
(2) inform the Department of any change of address of |
record or email address of record within 14 days after |
such change either through the Department's website or by |
contacting the Department's licensure maintenance unit.
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(225 ILCS 57/15)
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(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
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Sec. 15. Licensure requirements.
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(a) Persons
engaged in massage for
compensation
must be |
licensed by the Department. The Department shall issue a |
license to
an individual who meets all of the following |
requirements:
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(1) The applicant has applied in writing on the |
prescribed forms and has
paid the
required fees.
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(2) The applicant is at least 18 years of age and of |
good moral character.
In
determining good
moral character, |
the Department may take into consideration
conviction of |
any crime under the laws of the United States or any state |
or
territory
thereof that is a felony or a misdemeanor or |
any crime that is directly related
to the practice of the |
profession.
Such a conviction shall not operate |
automatically as a complete
bar to a license,
except in |
the case of any conviction for prostitution, rape, or |
sexual
misconduct,
or where the applicant is a registered |
sex offender.
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(3) The applicant has met one of the following |
requirements:
(A) has successfully completed a massage |
therapy program approved by the Department that requires
a |
minimum
of 500 hours, except applicants applying on or |
after January 1, 2014 shall meet a minimum requirement of |
600 hours,
and has
passed a
competency examination
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approved by the Department . ;
(B) holds a current license |
from another jurisdiction having licensure
requirements |
that include the completion of a massage therapy program |
of at least 500 hours; or
(C) (blank).
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(b) Each applicant for licensure as a massage therapist |
shall have his or her fingerprints submitted to the Department |
of State Police in an electronic format that complies with the |
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form and manner for requesting and furnishing criminal history |
record information as prescribed by the Department of State |
Police. These fingerprints shall be checked against the |
Department of State Police and Federal Bureau of Investigation |
criminal history record databases now and hereafter filed. The |
Department of State Police shall charge applicants a fee for |
conducting the criminal history records check, which shall be |
deposited into the State Police Services Fund and shall not |
exceed the actual cost of the records check. The Department of |
State Police shall furnish, pursuant to positive |
identification, records of Illinois convictions to the |
Department. The Department may require applicants to pay a |
separate fingerprinting fee, either to the Department or to a |
vendor. The Department, in its discretion, may allow an |
applicant who does not have reasonable access to a designated |
vendor to provide his or her fingerprints in an alternative |
manner. The Department may adopt any rules necessary to |
implement this Section.
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(Source: P.A. 97-514, eff. 8-23-11.)
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(225 ILCS 57/25)
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(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
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Sec. 25. Exemptions.
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(a) This Act does not prohibit a person licensed
under any |
other Act
in this State
from
engaging in the practice for which |
he or she is licensed.
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(b) Persons exempted under this Section include, but are |
not limited to,
physicians,
podiatric physicians, naprapaths, |
and physical therapists.
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(c) Nothing in this Act prohibits qualified members of |
other
professional groups,
including but not limited to |
nurses, occupational therapists,
cosmetologists, and
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estheticians, from performing massage in a manner consistent |
with their
training and the
code of ethics of their respective |
professions.
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(d) Nothing in this Act prohibits a student of an approved |
massage
school or
program from performing massage, provided |
that the student does not hold
himself or herself out
as a |
licensed massage therapist and does not receive compensation, |
including tips, for massage therapy
services.
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(e) Nothing in this Act prohibits practitioners that do |
not involve
intentional soft tissue manipulation, including |
but not limited to Alexander
Technique, Feldenkrais, Reike, |
and Therapeutic Touch, from practicing.
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(f) Practitioners of certain service marked bodywork |
approaches that do
involve intentional soft tissue |
manipulation, including but not limited to
Rolfing, Trager |
Approach, Polarity Therapy, and Orthobionomy, are exempt from
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this Act if they are approved by their governing body based on |
a minimum level
of training, demonstration of competency, and |
adherence to ethical standards.
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(g) Until January 1, 2024 2020 , practitioners of Asian |
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bodywork approaches are exempt from this Act if
they are |
members of the American Organization for of Bodywork Therapies |
of Asia are exempt from licensure under this Act as
certified |
practitioners or if they are approved by an Asian bodywork
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organization based on a minimum level of training, |
demonstration of competency,
and adherence to ethical |
standards set by their governing body .
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(h) Practitioners of other forms of bodywork who restrict |
manipulation of
soft tissue to the feet, hands, and ears, and |
who do not have the client
disrobe, such as reflexology, are |
exempt from this Act.
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(i) Nothing in this Act applies to massage therapists from |
other states or
countries when providing educational programs |
or services for a period not
exceeding 30 days within a |
calendar year.
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(j) Nothing in this Act prohibits a person from treating |
ailments by
spiritual means through prayer alone in accordance |
with the tenets and
practices of a recognized church or |
religious denomination.
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(k) Nothing in this Act applies to the practice of massage |
therapy by a person either actively licensed as a massage |
therapist in another state or currently certified by the |
National Certification Board of Therapeutic Massage and |
Bodywork or other national certifying body if said person's |
state does not license massage therapists, if he or she is |
performing his or her duties for a Department-approved |
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educational program for less than 30 days in a calendar year, a |
Department-approved continuing education program for less than |
30 days in a calendar year, a non-Illinois based team or |
professional organization, or for a national athletic event |
held in this State, so long as he or she restricts his or her |
practice to his or her team or organization or to event |
participants during the course of his or her team's or |
organization's stay in this State or for the duration of the |
event. |
(Source: P.A. 101-421, eff. 8-16-19.)
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(225 ILCS 57/32) |
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022) |
Sec. 32. Display. Every holder of a license shall display |
it, or a copy, in a conspicuous place in the holder's principal |
office or any other location where the holder renders massage |
therapy services. Every displayed license shall have the |
license number visible.
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(Source: P.A. 97-514, eff. 8-23-11.)
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(225 ILCS 57/45)
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(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
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Sec. 45. Grounds for discipline.
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(a) The Department may refuse to issue or renew, or may |
revoke, suspend,
place
on
probation, reprimand, or take other |
disciplinary or non-disciplinary action, as the Department
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considers appropriate,
including the imposition of fines not |
to exceed $10,000 for each violation, with
regard to any |
license or licensee
for any one or more of the following:
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(1) violations of this Act or of the rules adopted |
under this Act;
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(2) conviction by plea of guilty or nolo contendere, |
finding of guilt, jury verdict, or entry of judgment or by |
sentencing of any crime, including, but not limited to, |
convictions, preceding sentences of supervision, |
conditional discharge, or first offender probation, under |
the laws of any jurisdiction of the United States: (i) |
that is a felony; or (ii) that is a misdemeanor, an |
essential element of which is dishonesty, or that is |
directly related to the practice of the profession;
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(3) professional incompetence;
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(4) advertising in a false, deceptive, or misleading |
manner , including failing to use the massage therapist's |
own license number in an advertisement ; |
(5) aiding, abetting, assisting, procuring, advising, |
employing, or contracting with any unlicensed person to |
practice massage contrary to any rules or provisions of |
this Act; |
(6) engaging in immoral conduct in the commission of |
any act, such as
sexual abuse, sexual misconduct, or |
sexual exploitation, related to the
licensee's practice;
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(7) engaging in dishonorable, unethical, or |
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unprofessional conduct of a
character
likely to deceive, |
defraud, or harm the public;
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(8) practicing or offering to practice beyond the |
scope permitted by law
or
accepting and performing |
professional responsibilities which the licensee knows
or |
has reason to
know that he or she is not competent to |
perform;
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(9) knowingly delegating professional |
responsibilities to a person
unqualified by
training, |
experience, or licensure to perform;
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(10) failing to provide information in response to a |
written request made
by the
Department within 60 days;
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(11) having a habitual or excessive use of or |
addiction to alcohol,
narcotics,
stimulants, or
any other |
chemical agent or drug which results in the inability to |
practice
with reasonable
judgment, skill, or safety;
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(12) having a pattern of practice or other behavior |
that demonstrates
incapacity
or
incompetence to practice |
under this Act;
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(13) discipline by another state, District of |
Columbia, territory, or foreign nation, if at least one of |
the grounds for the discipline is the same or |
substantially equivalent to those set forth in this |
Section; |
(14) a finding by the Department that the licensee, |
after having his or her license placed on probationary |
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status, has violated the terms of probation; |
(15) willfully making or filing false records or |
reports in his or her practice, including, but not limited |
to, false records filed with State agencies or |
departments; |
(16) making a material misstatement in furnishing |
information to the
Department or
otherwise making |
misleading, deceptive, untrue, or fraudulent |
representations
in violation of this
Act or otherwise in |
the practice of the profession;
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(17) fraud or misrepresentation in applying for or |
procuring a license under this Act or in connection with |
applying for renewal of a license under this Act;
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(18) inability to practice the profession with |
reasonable judgment, skill, or safety as a result of |
physical illness, including, but not limited to, |
deterioration through the aging process, loss of motor |
skill, or a mental illness or disability;
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(19) charging for professional services not rendered, |
including filing false statements for the collection of |
fees for which services are not rendered; |
(20) practicing under a false or, except as provided |
by law, an assumed name; or |
(21) cheating on or attempting to subvert the |
licensing examination administered under this Act. |
All fines shall be paid within 60 days of the effective |
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date of the order imposing the fine. |
(b) A person not licensed under this Act and engaged in the |
business of offering massage therapy services through others, |
shall not aid, abet, assist, procure, advise, employ, or |
contract with any unlicensed person to practice massage |
therapy contrary to any rules or provisions of this Act. A |
person violating this subsection (b) shall be treated as a |
licensee for the purposes of disciplinary action under this |
Section and shall be subject to cease and desist orders as |
provided in Section 90 of this Act. |
(c) The Department shall revoke any license issued under |
this Act of any person who is convicted of prostitution, rape, |
sexual misconduct, or any crime that subjects the licensee to |
compliance with the requirements of the Sex Offender |
Registration Act and any such conviction shall operate as a |
permanent bar in the State of Illinois to practice as a massage |
therapist. |
(d) The Department may refuse to issue or may suspend the |
license of any
person who
fails to file a tax return, to pay |
the tax, penalty, or interest shown in a
filed
tax return, or |
to pay any final
assessment of tax, penalty, or interest, as |
required by any tax Act
administered by the Illinois
|
Department of Revenue, until such time as the requirements of |
the tax Act are
satisfied in accordance with subsection (g) of |
Section 2105-15 of the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.
|
(e) (Blank). |
|
(f) In cases where the Department of Healthcare and Family |
Services has previously determined that a licensee or a |
potential licensee is more than 30 days delinquent in the |
payment of child support and has subsequently certified the |
delinquency to the Department, the Department may refuse to |
issue or renew or may revoke or suspend that person's license |
or may take other disciplinary action against that person |
based solely upon the certification of delinquency made by the |
Department of Healthcare and Family Services in accordance |
with item (5) of subsection (a) of Section 2105-15 of the Civil |
Administrative Code of Illinois. |
(g) The determination by a circuit court that a licensee |
is
subject
to involuntary admission or judicial admission, as |
provided in the Mental
Health and
Developmental Disabilities |
Code, operates as an automatic suspension. The
suspension
will |
end only upon a finding by a court that the patient is no |
longer
subject to
involuntary admission or judicial admission |
and the issuance of a court
order so finding
and discharging |
the patient.
|
(h) In enforcing this Act, the Department or Board, upon a |
showing of a
possible violation, may compel an individual |
licensed to practice under this
Act, or who
has applied for |
licensure under this Act, to submit to a mental or physical
|
examination, or
both, as required by and at the expense of the |
Department. The Department or
Board may
order the examining |
physician to present testimony concerning the mental or
|
|
physical
examination of the licensee or applicant. No |
information shall be excluded by
reason of
any common law or |
statutory privilege relating to communications between the
|
licensee
or applicant and the examining physician. The |
examining physicians shall be
specifically
designated by the |
Board or Department. The individual to be examined may have,
|
at his
or her own expense, another physician of his or her |
choice present during all aspects of
this examination. The |
examination shall be performed by a physician licensed
to |
practice
medicine in all its branches. Failure of an |
individual to submit to a mental
or physical
examination, when |
directed, shall result in an automatic suspension without |
hearing.
|
A person holding a license under this Act or who has |
applied for a license under this Act who, because of a physical |
or mental illness or disability, including, but not limited |
to, deterioration through the aging process or loss of motor |
skill, is unable to practice the profession with reasonable |
judgment, skill, or safety, may be required by the Department |
to submit to care, counseling, or treatment by physicians |
approved or designated by the Department as a condition, term, |
or restriction for continued, reinstated, or renewed licensure |
to practice. Submission to care, counseling, or treatment as |
required by the Department shall not be considered discipline |
of a license. If the licensee refuses to enter into a care, |
counseling, or treatment agreement or fails to abide by the |
|
terms of the agreement, the Department may file a complaint to |
revoke, suspend, or otherwise discipline the license of the |
individual. The Secretary may order the license suspended |
immediately, pending a hearing by the Department. Fines shall |
not be assessed in disciplinary actions involving physical or |
mental illness or impairment.
|
In instances in which the Secretary immediately suspends a |
person's license
under
this Section, a hearing on that |
person's license must be convened by the
Department
within 15 |
days after the suspension and completed without appreciable |
delay.
The
Department and Board shall have the authority to |
review the subject
individual's record
of treatment and |
counseling regarding the impairment to the extent permitted by
|
applicable federal statutes and regulations safeguarding the |
confidentiality of
medical
records.
|
An individual licensed under this Act and affected under |
this Section shall
be
afforded an opportunity to demonstrate |
to the Department or Board that he or
she can
resume practice |
in compliance with acceptable and prevailing standards under
|
the
provisions of his or her license.
|
(Source: P.A. 100-872, eff. 8-14-18.)
|
(225 ILCS 57/50)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
|
Sec. 50. Advertising. It is a misdemeanor for any person, |
organization,
or corporation to advertise massage services
|
|
unless the person providing the service holds a valid license |
under this Act,
except for those excluded licensed |
professionals who are allowed to include
massage in their |
scope of practice.
A massage therapist may not advertise |
unless he or she has a current license
issued by this State. A |
massage therapist shall include the current license number |
issued by the Department on all advertisements in accordance |
with paragraph (4) of subsection (a) of Section 45. |
"Advertise" as used in this Section includes, but is not
|
limited to, the
issuance of any
card, sign, or device to any |
person; the causing, permitting, or allowing of
any sign or |
marking
on or in any building, vehicle, or structure; |
advertising in any newspaper or
magazine; any listing
or |
advertising in any directory under a classification or heading |
that includes
the words
"massage", "massage therapist", |
"therapeutic massage", or "massage
therapeutic"; or |
commercials broadcast by any means.
|
(Source: P.A. 92-860, eff. 6-1-03 .)
|
(225 ILCS 57/60)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
|
Sec. 60. Illinois Administrative Procedure Act. The |
Illinois Administrative
Procedure Act is hereby expressly |
adopted and incorporated herein as if all of
the provisions of |
that Act were included in this Act, except that the provision
|
of subsection (d) of Section 10-65 of the Illinois |
|
Administrative Procedure Act
that provides that at hearings |
the licensee has the right to show compliance
with all lawful |
requirements for retention, continuation, or renewal of the
|
license is specifically excluded. For the purposes of this Act |
the notice
required under Section 10-25 of the Illinois |
Administrative Procedure Act is deemed
sufficient when mailed |
to the address of record or emailed to the email address of |
record of a party.
|
(Source: P.A. 97-514, eff. 8-23-11.)
|
(225 ILCS 57/95)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
|
Sec. 95. Investigations; notice and hearing. The |
Department may investigate the actions of any applicant or of |
any person or persons rendering or offering to render massage |
therapy services or any person holding or claiming to hold a |
license as a massage therapist. The Department shall, before |
refusing to issue or renew a license or to discipline a |
licensee under Section 45, at least 30 days prior to the date |
set for the hearing, (i) notify the accused in writing of the |
charges made and the time and place for the hearing on the |
charges, (ii) direct him or her to file a written answer with |
the Department under oath within 20 days after the service of |
the notice, and (iii) inform the applicant or licensee that |
failure to file an answer will result in a default judgment |
being entered against the applicant or licensee. At the time |
|
and place fixed in the notice, the Department shall proceed to |
hear the charges and the parties of their counsel shall be |
accorded ample opportunity to present any pertinent |
statements, testimony, evidence, and arguments. The Department |
may continue the hearing from time to time. In case the person, |
after receiving the notice, fails to file an answer, his or her |
license may, in the discretion of the Department, be revoked, |
suspended, placed on probationary status, or the Department |
may take whatever disciplinary actions considered proper, |
including limiting the scope, nature, or extent of the |
person's practice or the imposition of a fine, without a |
hearing, if the act or acts charged constitute sufficient |
grounds for that action under the Act. The written notice may |
be served by personal delivery , or by certified mail to the |
accused's address of record , or by email to the accused's |
email address of record .
|
(Source: P.A. 97-514, eff. 8-23-11.)
|
Section 20. The Medical Practice Act of 1987 is amended by |
changing Sections 2, 7, 7.5, 8, 8.1, 9, 9.3, 17, 18, 19, 21, |
22, 23, 24, 25, 35, 36, 37, 38, 39, 40, 41, 42, 44, and 47 and |
by adding Sections 7.1 and 7.2 as follows:
|
(225 ILCS 60/2) (from Ch. 111, par. 4400-2)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
|
Sec. 2. Definitions. For purposes of this Act, the
|
|
following definitions shall have the following meanings,
|
except where the context requires otherwise:
|
"Act" means the Medical Practice Act of 1987.
|
"Address of record" means the designated address recorded |
by the Department in the applicant's or licensee's application |
file or license file as maintained by the Department's |
licensure maintenance unit. |
"Chiropractic physician" means a person licensed to treat |
human ailments without the use of drugs and without operative |
surgery. Nothing in this Act shall be construed to prohibit a |
chiropractic physician from providing advice regarding the use |
of non-prescription products or from administering atmospheric |
oxygen. Nothing in this Act shall be construed to authorize a |
chiropractic physician to prescribe drugs. |
"Department" means the Department of Financial and |
Professional Regulation.
|
"Disciplinary action" means revocation,
suspension, |
probation, supervision, practice modification,
reprimand, |
required education, fines or any other action
taken by the |
Department against a person holding a license.
|
"Disciplinary Board" means the Medical Disciplinary
Board.
|
"Email address of record" means the designated email |
address recorded by the Department in the applicant's |
application file or the licensee's license file, as maintained |
by the Department's licensure maintenance unit. |
"Final determination" means the governing body's
final |
|
action taken under the procedure followed by a health
care |
institution, or professional association or society,
against |
any person licensed under the Act in accordance with
the |
bylaws or rules and regulations of such health care
|
institution, or professional association or society.
|
"Fund" means the Illinois State Medical Disciplinary Fund.
|
"Impaired" means the inability to practice
medicine with |
reasonable skill and safety due to physical or
mental |
disabilities as evidenced by a written determination
or |
written consent based on clinical evidence including
|
deterioration through the aging process or loss of motor
|
skill, or abuse of drugs or alcohol, of sufficient degree to
|
diminish a person's ability to deliver competent patient
care.
|
"Licensing Board" means the Medical Licensing Board.
|
"Medical Board" means the Illinois State Medical Board. |
"Physician" means a person licensed under the
Medical |
Practice Act to practice medicine in all of its
branches or a |
chiropractic physician.
|
"Professional association" means an association or
society |
of persons licensed under this Act, and operating
within the |
State of Illinois, including but not limited to,
medical |
societies, osteopathic organizations, and
chiropractic |
organizations, but this term shall not be
deemed to include |
hospital medical staffs.
|
"Program of care, counseling, or treatment" means
a |
written schedule of organized treatment, care, counseling,
|
|
activities, or education, satisfactory to the Medical |
Disciplinary
Board, designed for the purpose of restoring an |
impaired
person to a condition whereby the impaired person can
|
practice medicine with reasonable skill and safety of a
|
sufficient degree to deliver competent patient care.
|
"Reinstate" means to change the status of a license from |
inactive or nonrenewed status to active status. |
"Restore" means to remove an encumbrance from a license |
due to probation, suspension, or revocation. |
"Secretary" means the Secretary of the Department of |
Financial and Professional Regulation. |
(Source: P.A. 99-933, eff. 1-27-17; 100-429, eff. 8-25-17 .)
|
(225 ILCS 60/7) (from Ch. 111, par. 4400-7)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
|
Sec. 7. Medical Disciplinary Board.
|
(A) There is hereby created the Illinois
State Medical |
Disciplinary Board. The Disciplinary Board shall
consist of 11 |
members, to be appointed by the Governor by and
with the advice |
and consent of the Senate. All members shall be
residents of |
the State, not more than 6 of whom shall be
members of the same |
political party. All members shall be voting members. Five |
members shall be
physicians licensed to practice medicine in |
all of its
branches in Illinois possessing the degree of |
doctor of
medicine. One member shall be a physician licensed |
to practice medicine in all its branches in Illinois |
|
possessing the degree of doctor of osteopathy or osteopathic |
medicine. One member shall be a chiropractic physician |
licensed to practice in Illinois and possessing the degree of |
doctor of chiropractic. Four members shall be members of the |
public, who shall not
be engaged in any way, directly or |
indirectly, as providers
of health care.
|
(B) Members of the Disciplinary Board shall be appointed
|
for terms of 4 years. Upon the expiration of the term of
any |
member, their successor shall be appointed for a term of
4 |
years by the Governor by and with the advice and
consent of the |
Senate. The Governor shall fill any vacancy
for the remainder |
of the unexpired term with the
advice and consent of the |
Senate. Upon recommendation of
the Board, any member of the |
Disciplinary Board may be
removed by the Governor for |
misfeasance, malfeasance, or
wilful neglect of duty, after |
notice, and a public hearing,
unless such notice and hearing |
shall be expressly waived in
writing. Each member shall serve |
on the Disciplinary Board
until their successor is appointed |
and qualified. No member
of the Disciplinary Board shall serve |
more than 2
consecutive 4 year terms.
|
In making appointments the Governor shall attempt to
|
insure that the various social and geographic regions of the
|
State of Illinois are properly represented.
|
In making the designation of persons to act for the
|
several professions represented on the Disciplinary Board,
the |
Governor shall give due consideration to recommendations
by |
|
members of the respective professions and by
organizations |
therein.
|
(C) The Disciplinary Board shall annually elect one of
its |
voting members as chairperson and one as vice
chairperson. No |
officer shall be elected more than twice
in succession to the |
same office. Each officer shall serve
until their successor |
has been elected and qualified.
|
(D) (Blank).
|
(E) Six voting members of the Disciplinary Board, at least |
4 of whom are physicians,
shall constitute a quorum. A vacancy |
in the membership of
the Disciplinary Board shall not impair |
the right of a
quorum to exercise all the rights and perform |
all the duties
of the Disciplinary Board. Any action taken by |
the
Disciplinary Board under this Act may be authorized by
|
resolution at any regular or special meeting and each such
|
resolution shall take effect immediately. The Disciplinary
|
Board shall meet at least quarterly.
|
(F) Each member, and member-officer, of the
Disciplinary |
Board shall receive a per diem stipend
as the
Secretary shall |
determine. Each member shall be paid their necessary
expenses |
while engaged in the performance of their duties.
|
(G) The Secretary shall select a Chief Medical
Coordinator |
and not less than 2 Deputy Medical Coordinators
who shall not
|
be members of the Disciplinary Board. Each medical
coordinator |
shall be a physician licensed to practice
medicine in all of |
its branches, and the Secretary shall set
their rates of |
|
compensation. The Secretary shall assign at least
one
medical
|
coordinator to
a region composed of Cook County and
such other |
counties as the Secretary may deem appropriate,
and such |
medical coordinator or coordinators shall locate their office |
in
Chicago. The Secretary shall assign at least one medical
|
coordinator to a region composed of the balance of counties
in |
the State, and such medical coordinator or coordinators shall |
locate
their office in Springfield. The Chief Medical |
Coordinator shall be the chief enforcement officer of this |
Act. None of the functions, powers, or duties of the |
Department with respect to policies regarding enforcement or |
discipline under this Act, including the adoption of such |
rules as may be necessary for the administration of this Act, |
shall be exercised by the Department except upon review of the |
Disciplinary Board.
|
The Secretary shall employ, in conformity with the
|
Personnel Code, investigators who are college graduates with |
at least 2
years of investigative experience or one year of |
advanced medical
education. Upon the written request of the |
Disciplinary
Board, the Secretary shall employ, in conformity |
with the
Personnel Code, such other professional, technical,
|
investigative, and clerical help, either on a full or
|
part-time basis as the Disciplinary Board deems necessary
for |
the proper performance of its duties.
|
(H) Upon the specific request of the Disciplinary
Board, |
signed by either the chairperson, vice chairperson, or a
|
|
medical coordinator of the Disciplinary Board, the
Department |
of Human Services, the Department of Healthcare and Family |
Services, the
Department of State Police, or any other law |
enforcement agency located in this State shall make available |
any and all
information that they have in their possession |
regarding a
particular case then under investigation by the |
Disciplinary
Board.
|
(I) Members of the Disciplinary Board shall be immune
from |
suit in any action based upon any disciplinary
proceedings or |
other acts performed in good faith as members
of the |
Disciplinary Board.
|
(J) The Disciplinary Board may compile and establish a
|
statewide roster of physicians and other medical
|
professionals, including the several medical specialties, of
|
such physicians and medical professionals, who have agreed
to |
serve from time to time as advisors to the medical
|
coordinators. Such advisors shall assist the medical
|
coordinators or the Disciplinary Board in their investigations |
and participation in
complaints against physicians. Such |
advisors shall serve
under contract and shall be reimbursed at |
a reasonable rate for the services
provided, plus reasonable |
expenses incurred.
While serving in this capacity, the |
advisor, for any act
undertaken in good faith and in the |
conduct of his or her duties
under this Section, shall be |
immune from civil suit.
|
(K) This Section is inoperative when a majority of the |
|
Medical Board is appointed. This Section is repealed one year |
after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 102nd |
General Assembly. |
(Source: P.A. 97-622, eff. 11-23-11; 98-1140, eff. 12-30-14 .)
|
(225 ILCS 60/7.1 new) |
Sec. 7.1. Medical Board. |
(A) There is hereby created the Illinois
State Medical |
Board. The Medical Board shall
consist of 17 members, to be |
appointed by the Governor by and
with the advice and consent of |
the Senate. All members shall be
residents of the State, not |
more than 8 of whom shall be
members of the same political |
party. All members shall be voting members. Eight members |
shall be
physicians licensed to practice medicine in all of |
its
branches in Illinois possessing the degree of doctor of
|
medicine. Two members shall be physicians licensed to practice |
medicine in all its branches in Illinois possessing the degree |
of doctor of osteopathy or osteopathic medicine. Two of the |
physician members shall be physicians who collaborate with |
physician assistants. Two members shall be chiropractic |
physicians licensed to practice in Illinois and possessing the |
degree of doctor of chiropractic. Two members shall be |
physician assistants licensed to practice in Illinois. Three |
members shall be members of the public, who shall not
be |
engaged in any way, directly or indirectly, as providers
of |
health care. |
|
(B) Members of the Medical Board shall be appointed
for |
terms of 4 years. Upon the expiration of the term of
any |
member, their successor shall be appointed for a term of
4 |
years by the Governor by and with the advice and
consent of the |
Senate. The Governor shall fill any vacancy
for the remainder |
of the unexpired term with the
advice and consent of the |
Senate. Upon recommendation of
the Medical Board, any member |
of the Medical Board may be
removed by the Governor for |
misfeasance, malfeasance, or
willful neglect of duty, after |
notice, and a public hearing,
unless such notice and hearing |
shall be expressly waived in
writing. Each member shall serve |
on the Medical Board
until their successor is appointed and |
qualified. No member
of the Medical Board shall serve more |
than 2
consecutive 4-year terms. |
In making appointments the Governor shall attempt to
|
ensure that the various social and geographic regions of the
|
State of Illinois are properly represented. |
In making the designation of persons to act for the
|
several professions represented on the Medical Board,
the |
Governor shall give due consideration to recommendations
by |
members of the respective professions and by
organizations |
therein. |
(C) The Medical Board shall annually elect one of
its |
voting members as chairperson and one as vice
chairperson. No |
officer shall be elected more than twice
in succession to the |
same office. Each officer shall serve
until their successor |
|
has been elected and qualified. |
(D) A majority of the Medical Board members currently |
appointed shall constitute a quorum. A vacancy in the |
membership of
the Medical Board shall not impair the right of a
|
quorum to exercise all the rights and perform all the duties
of |
the Medical Board. Any action taken by the Medical Board under |
this Act may be authorized by
resolution at any regular or |
special meeting and each such
resolution shall take effect |
immediately. The Medical Board shall meet at least quarterly. |
(E) Each member shall be paid their necessary
expenses |
while engaged in the performance of their duties. |
(F) The Secretary shall select a Chief Medical
Coordinator |
and not less than 2 Deputy Medical Coordinators
who shall not
|
be members of the Medical Board. Each medical
coordinator |
shall be a physician licensed to practice
medicine in all of |
its branches, and the Secretary shall set
their rates of |
compensation. The Secretary shall assign at least
one
medical
|
coordinator to
a region composed of Cook County and
such other |
counties as the Secretary may deem appropriate,
and such |
medical coordinator or coordinators shall locate their office |
in
Chicago. The Secretary shall assign at least one medical
|
coordinator to a region composed of the balance of counties
in |
the State, and such medical coordinator or coordinators shall |
locate
their office in Springfield. The Chief Medical |
Coordinator shall be the chief enforcement officer of this |
Act. None of the functions, powers, or duties of the |
|
Department with respect to policies regarding enforcement or |
discipline under this Act, including the adoption of such |
rules as may be necessary for the administration of this Act, |
shall be exercised by the Department except upon review of the |
Medical Board. |
(G) The Secretary shall employ, in conformity with the
|
Personnel Code, investigators who are college graduates with |
at least 2
years of investigative experience or one year of |
advanced medical
education. Upon the written request of the |
Medical Board, the Secretary shall employ, in conformity with |
the
Personnel Code, such other professional, technical,
|
investigative, and clerical help, either on a full or
|
part-time basis as the Medical Board deems necessary
for the |
proper performance of its duties. |
(H) Upon the specific request of the Medical Board, signed |
by either the chairperson, vice chairperson, or a
medical |
coordinator of the Medical Board, the
Department of Human |
Services, the Department of Healthcare and Family Services, |
the
Department of State Police, or any other law enforcement |
agency located in this State shall make available any and all
|
information that they have in their possession regarding a
|
particular case then under investigation by the Medical Board. |
(I) Members of the Medical Board shall be immune
from suit |
in any action based upon any disciplinary
proceedings or other |
acts performed in good faith as members
of the Medical Board. |
(J) The Medical Board may compile and establish a
|
|
statewide roster of physicians and other medical
|
professionals, including the several medical specialties, of
|
such physicians and medical professionals, who have agreed
to |
serve from time to time as advisors to the medical
|
coordinators. Such advisors shall assist the medical
|
coordinators or the Medical Board in their investigations and |
participation in
complaints against physicians. Such advisors |
shall serve
under contract and shall be reimbursed at a |
reasonable rate for the services
provided, plus reasonable |
expenses incurred.
While serving in this capacity, the |
advisor, for any act
undertaken in good faith and in the |
conduct of his or her duties
under this Section, shall be |
immune from civil suit.
|
(225 ILCS 60/7.2 new) |
Sec. 7.2. Medical Board appointment. All members of the |
Medical Licensing Board and the Medical Disciplinary Board |
shall serve as members of the Medical Board. A majority of the |
Medical Board members shall be appointed within 260 days after |
the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 102nd General |
Assembly. The Medical Licensing Board and Medical Disciplinary |
Board shall exercise all functions, powers, and duties |
enumerated in this Act to the Medical Board. All functions, |
powers, and duties enumerated in this Act to the Medical |
Licensing Board and Medical Disciplinary Board shall dissolve |
at such time when a majority of the Medical Board is appointed. |
|
This Section is repealed one year after the effective date of |
this amendatory Act of the 102nd General Assembly.
|
(225 ILCS 60/7.5)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
|
Sec. 7.5. Complaint Committee.
|
(a) There shall be a Complaint Committee of the Medical |
Disciplinary Board
composed of at least one of the medical |
coordinators established by subsection
(G) of Section 7 of |
this Act, the Chief of Medical Investigations (person
employed |
by the Department who is in charge of investigating complaints |
against
physicians and physician assistants), the Chief of |
Medical Prosecutions (the person employed by the Department |
who is in charge of prosecuting formal complaints against |
physicians and physician assistants), and at least 3 members |
of the Medical
Disciplinary Board (at least 2 of whom shall be |
physicians) designated by the
Chairperson of the Medical |
Disciplinary Board with the approval of the Medical
|
Disciplinary Board.
|
(b) The Complaint Committee shall meet at least twice a |
month to
exercise its functions and duties set forth in |
subsection (c) below. At least 2
members of the Medical |
Disciplinary Board shall be in attendance in order for any
|
business to be transacted by the Complaint Committee. The |
Complaint Committee
shall make every effort to consider |
expeditiously and take prompt action on
each item on its |
|
agenda.
|
(c) The Complaint Committee shall have the following |
duties and functions:
|
(1) To recommend to the Medical Disciplinary Board |
that a complaint file be
closed.
|
(2) To refer a complaint file to the office of the |
Chief of Medical
Prosecutions for review.
|
(3) To make a decision in conjunction with the Chief |
of Medical
Prosecutions regarding action to be taken on a |
complaint file.
|
(d) In determining what action to take or whether to |
proceed with
prosecution of a complaint, the Complaint |
Committee shall consider, but not be
limited to, the following |
factors: sufficiency of the evidence presented,
prosecutorial |
merit under Section 22 of this Act, any recommendation made by |
the Department, and insufficient cooperation
from complaining |
parties.
|
(e) Notwithstanding any provision of this Act, the |
Department may close a complaint, after investigation and |
approval of the Chief Medical Coordinator without review of |
the Complaint Committee, in which the allegations of the |
complaint if proven would not constitute a violation of the |
Act, there is insufficient evidence to prove a violation of |
the Act, or there is insufficient cooperation from complaining |
parties, as determined by the Department. |
(Source: P.A. 97-622, eff. 11-23-11; 98-1140, eff. 12-30-14 .)
|
|
(225 ILCS 60/8) (from Ch. 111, par. 4400-8)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
|
Sec. 8. Medical Licensing Board.
|
(A) There is hereby created a Medical
Licensing Board. The |
Licensing Board shall be composed
of 7 members, to be |
appointed by the Governor by and with
the advice and consent of |
the Senate; 5 of whom shall be
reputable physicians licensed |
to practice medicine in all of
its branches in Illinois, |
possessing the degree of doctor of
medicine; one member shall |
be a reputable physician licensed
in Illinois to practice |
medicine in all of its branches,
possessing the degree of |
doctor of osteopathy or osteopathic medicine; and
one
member |
shall be a reputable chiropractic physician licensed to |
practice
in Illinois and possessing the degree of doctor of
|
chiropractic. Of the 5 members holding the degree of doctor
of |
medicine, one shall be a full-time or part-time teacher
of |
professorial rank in the clinical department of an
Illinois |
school of medicine.
|
(B) Members of the
Licensing Board shall be appointed for |
terms of 4 years, and until their successors are appointed and
|
qualified. Appointments to fill vacancies shall be made in
the |
same manner as original appointments, for the unexpired
|
portion of the vacated term. No more than 4 members of
the |
Licensing Board shall be members of the same political
party |
and all members shall be residents of this State. No
member of |
|
the Licensing Board may be appointed to more than
2 successive |
4 year terms.
|
(C) Members of the Licensing Board shall be immune
from |
suit in any action based upon any licensing proceedings
or |
other acts performed in good faith as members of the
Licensing |
Board.
|
(D) (Blank).
|
(E) The Licensing Board shall annually elect one of
its |
members as chairperson and one as vice chairperson. No member
|
shall be elected more than twice in succession to the same
|
office. Each officer shall serve until his or her successor |
has
been elected and qualified.
|
(F) None of the functions, powers or duties of the
|
Department with respect to policies regarding licensure and |
examination
under
this Act, including the promulgation of such |
rules as may be
necessary for the administration of this Act, |
shall be
exercised by the Department except upon review of the
|
Licensing Board.
|
(G) The Licensing Board shall receive the same
|
compensation as the members of the
Disciplinary Board, which |
compensation shall be paid out of
the Illinois State Medical |
Disciplinary Fund.
|
(H) This Section is inoperative when a majority of the |
Medical Board is appointed. This Section is repealed one year |
after the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 102nd |
General Assembly. |
|
(Source: P.A. 97-622, eff. 11-23-11 .)
|
(225 ILCS 60/8.1) |
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022) |
Sec. 8.1. Matters concerning advanced practice registered |
nurses. Any proposed rules, amendments, second notice |
materials and adopted rule or amendment materials, and policy |
statements concerning advanced practice registered nurses |
shall be presented to the Medical Licensing Board for review |
and comment. The recommendations of both the Board of Nursing |
and the Medical Licensing Board shall be presented to the |
Secretary for consideration in making final decisions. |
Whenever the Board of Nursing and the Medical Licensing Board |
disagree on a proposed rule or policy, the Secretary shall |
convene a joint meeting of the officers of each Board to |
discuss the resolution of any such disagreements.
|
(Source: P.A. 100-513, eff. 1-1-18 .)
|
(225 ILCS 60/9) (from Ch. 111, par. 4400-9)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
|
Sec. 9. Application for license. Each applicant for a |
license shall:
|
(A) Make application on blank forms prepared and
|
furnished by the Department.
|
(B) Submit evidence satisfactory to the Department
|
that the applicant:
|
|
(1) is of good moral character. In determining |
moral
character under this Section, the Department may |
take into
consideration whether the applicant has |
engaged in conduct
or activities which would |
constitute grounds for discipline
under this Act. The |
Department may also request the
applicant to submit, |
and may consider as evidence of moral
character, |
endorsements from 2 or 3 individuals licensed
under |
this Act;
|
(2) has the preliminary and professional education
|
required by this Act;
|
(3) (blank); and
|
(4) is physically, mentally, and professionally |
capable
of practicing medicine with reasonable |
judgment, skill, and
safety. In determining physical |
and mental
capacity under this Section, the Medical |
Licensing Board
may, upon a showing of a possible |
incapacity or conduct or activities that would |
constitute grounds for discipline under this Act, |
compel any
applicant to submit to a mental or physical |
examination and evaluation, or
both, as provided for |
in Section 22 of this Act. The Medical Licensing Board |
may condition or restrict any
license, subject to the |
same terms and conditions as are
provided for the |
Medical Disciplinary Board under Section 22
of this |
Act. Any such condition of a restricted license
shall |
|
provide that the Chief Medical Coordinator or Deputy
|
Medical Coordinator shall have the authority to review |
the
subject physician's compliance with such |
conditions or
restrictions, including, where |
appropriate, the physician's
record of treatment and |
counseling regarding the impairment,
to the extent |
permitted by applicable federal statutes and
|
regulations safeguarding the confidentiality of |
medical
records of patients.
|
In determining professional capacity under this
|
Section, an individual may be required to
complete such |
additional testing, training, or remedial
education as the |
Medical Licensing Board may deem necessary in order
to |
establish the applicant's present capacity to practice
|
medicine with reasonable judgment, skill, and safety. The |
Medical Licensing Board may consider the following |
criteria, as they relate to an applicant, as part of its |
determination of professional capacity:
|
(1) Medical research in an established research |
facility, hospital, college or university, or private |
corporation. |
(2) Specialized training or education. |
(3) Publication of original work in learned, |
medical, or scientific journals. |
(4) Participation in federal, State, local, or |
international public health programs or organizations. |
|
(5) Professional service in a federal veterans or |
military institution. |
(6) Any other professional activities deemed to |
maintain and enhance the clinical capabilities of the |
applicant. |
Any applicant applying for a license to practice |
medicine in all of its branches or for a license as a |
chiropractic physician who has not been engaged in the |
active practice of medicine or has not been enrolled in a |
medical program for 2 years prior to application must |
submit proof of professional capacity to the Medical |
Licensing Board. |
Any applicant applying for a temporary license that |
has not been engaged in the active practice of medicine or |
has not been enrolled in a medical program for longer than |
5 years prior to application must submit proof of |
professional capacity to the Medical Licensing Board. |
(C) Designate specifically the name, location, and
|
kind of professional school, college, or institution of
|
which the applicant is a graduate and the category under
|
which the applicant seeks, and will undertake, to |
practice.
|
(D) Pay to the Department at the time of application
|
the required fees.
|
(E) Pursuant to Department rules, as required, pass an
|
examination authorized by the Department to determine
the |
|
applicant's fitness to receive a license.
|
(F) Complete the application process within 3 years |
from the date of
application. If the process has not been |
completed within 3 years, the
application shall expire, |
application fees shall be forfeited, and the
applicant
|
must reapply and meet the requirements in effect at the |
time of
reapplication.
|
(Source: P.A. 97-622, eff. 11-23-11; 98-1140, eff. 12-30-14 .)
|
(225 ILCS 60/9.3) |
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022) |
Sec. 9.3. Withdrawal of application. Any applicant |
applying for a license or permit under this Act may withdraw |
his or her application at any time. If an applicant withdraws |
his or her application after receipt of a written Notice of |
Intent to Deny License or Permit, then the withdrawal shall be |
reported to the Federation of State Medical Boards and the |
National Practitioner Data Bank .
|
(Source: P.A. 98-601, eff. 12-30-13; 98-1140, eff. 12-30-14 .)
|
(225 ILCS 60/17) (from Ch. 111, par. 4400-17)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
|
Sec. 17. Temporary license. Persons holding the degree of |
Doctor of
Medicine, persons
holding the degree of Doctor of
|
Osteopathy or Doctor of Osteopathic Medicine, and persons |
holding the degree
of Doctor of Chiropractic or persons who |
|
have satisfied
the requirements
therefor and are eligible to |
receive such degree from
a medical, osteopathic, or |
chiropractic school, who wish to
pursue programs
of graduate |
or specialty training in this State, may receive
without |
examination, in the discretion of the Department, a
3-year |
temporary license. In order to receive a 3-year
temporary |
license hereunder, an applicant shall submit evidence
|
satisfactory to the Department that the applicant:
|
(A) Is of good moral character. In determining moral
|
character under this Section, the Department may take into
|
consideration whether the applicant has engaged in conduct
|
or activities which would constitute grounds for |
discipline
under this Act. The Department may also request |
the
applicant to submit, and may consider as evidence of |
moral
character, endorsements from 2 or 3 individuals |
licensed
under this Act;
|
(B) Has been accepted or appointed for specialty or
|
residency training by a hospital situated in this State or |
a
training program in hospitals or facilities maintained |
by
the State of Illinois or affiliated training facilities
|
which is approved by the Department for the purpose of |
such
training under this Act. The applicant shall indicate |
the
beginning and ending dates of the period for which the
|
applicant has been accepted or appointed;
|
(C) Has or will satisfy the professional education
|
requirements of Section 11 of this Act which are effective
|
|
at the date of application except for postgraduate |
clinical
training;
|
(D) Is physically, mentally, and professionally |
capable
of practicing medicine or treating human ailments |
without the use of drugs and without
operative surgery |
with reasonable judgment, skill, and
safety. In |
determining physical, mental and professional
capacity |
under this Section, the Medical Licensing Board
may, upon |
a showing of a possible incapacity, compel an
applicant to |
submit to a mental or physical examination and evaluation, |
or
both, and may condition or restrict any temporary |
license,
subject to the same terms and conditions as are |
provided for
the Medical Disciplinary Board under Section |
22 of this Act.
Any such condition of restricted temporary |
license shall
provide that the Chief Medical Coordinator |
or Deputy Medical
Coordinator shall have the authority to |
review the subject
physician's compliance with such |
conditions or restrictions,
including, where appropriate, |
the physician's record of
treatment and counseling |
regarding the impairment, to the
extent permitted by |
applicable federal statutes and
regulations safeguarding |
the confidentiality of medical
records of patients.
|
Three-year temporary licenses issued pursuant to this
|
Section shall be valid only for the period of time
designated |
therein, and may be extended or renewed pursuant
to the rules |
of the Department, and if a temporary license
is thereafter |
|
extended, it shall not extend beyond
completion of the |
residency program. The holder of a valid
3-year temporary |
license shall be entitled thereby to
perform only such acts as |
may be prescribed by and
incidental to his or her program of |
residency training; he or she
shall not be entitled to |
otherwise engage in the practice of
medicine in this State |
unless fully licensed in this State.
|
A 3-year temporary license may be revoked or suspended by |
the
Department upon proof that the holder thereof has engaged |
in
the practice of medicine in this State outside of the
|
program of his or her residency or specialty training, or if |
the
holder shall fail to supply the Department, within 10 days
|
of its request, with information as to his or her current |
status
and activities in his or her specialty training |
program. Such a revocation or suspension shall comply with the |
procedures set forth in subsection (d) of Section 37 of this |
Act.
|
(Source: P.A. 97-622, eff. 11-23-11; 98-1140, eff. 12-30-14 .)
|
(225 ILCS 60/18) (from Ch. 111, par. 4400-18)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
|
Sec. 18. Visiting professor, physician, or resident |
permits.
|
(A) Visiting professor permit.
|
(1) A visiting professor permit shall
entitle a person |
to practice medicine in all of its branches
or to practice |
|
the treatment of human ailments without the
use of drugs |
and without operative surgery provided:
|
(a) the person maintains an equivalent |
authorization
to practice medicine in all of its |
branches or to practice
the treatment of human |
ailments without the use of drugs
and without |
operative surgery in good standing in his or her
|
native licensing jurisdiction during the period of the
|
visiting professor permit;
|
(b) the person has received a faculty appointment |
to
teach in a medical, osteopathic or chiropractic |
school in
Illinois; and
|
(c) the Department may prescribe the information |
necessary to
establish
an applicant's eligibility for |
a permit. This information shall include
without |
limitation (i) a statement from the dean of the |
medical school at which
the
applicant will be employed |
describing the applicant's qualifications and (ii)
a |
statement from the dean of the medical school listing |
every affiliated
institution in which the applicant |
will be providing instruction as part of the
medical |
school's education program and justifying any clinical |
activities at
each of the institutions listed by the |
dean.
|
(2) Application for visiting professor permits shall
|
be made to the Department, in writing, on forms prescribed
|
|
by the Department and shall be accompanied by the required
|
fee established by rule, which shall not be refundable. |
Any application
shall require the information as, in the |
judgment of the Department, will
enable the Department to |
pass on the qualifications of the applicant.
|
(3) A visiting professor permit shall be valid for no |
longer than 2
years from the date of issuance or until the |
time the
faculty appointment is terminated, whichever |
occurs first,
and may be renewed only in accordance with |
subdivision (A)(6) of this
Section.
|
(4) The applicant may be required to appear before the |
Medical
Licensing Board for an interview prior to, and as |
a
requirement for, the issuance of the original permit and |
the
renewal.
|
(5) Persons holding a permit under this Section shall
|
only practice medicine in all of its branches or practice
|
the treatment of human ailments without the use of drugs
|
and without operative surgery in the State of Illinois in
|
their official capacity under their contract
within the |
medical school itself and any affiliated institution in |
which the
permit holder is providing instruction as part |
of the medical school's
educational program and for which |
the medical school has assumed direct
responsibility.
|
(6) After the initial renewal of a visiting professor |
permit, a visiting professor permit shall be valid until |
the last day of the
next physician license renewal period, |
|
as set by rule, and may only be
renewed for applicants who |
meet the following requirements:
|
(i) have obtained the required continuing |
education hours as set by
rule; and
|
(ii) have paid the fee prescribed for a license |
under Section 21 of this
Act.
|
For initial renewal, the visiting professor must |
successfully pass a
general competency examination authorized |
by the Department by rule, unless he or she was issued an |
initial visiting professor permit on or after January 1, 2007, |
but prior to July 1, 2007.
|
(B) Visiting physician permit.
|
(1) The Department may, in its discretion, issue a |
temporary visiting
physician permit, without examination, |
provided:
|
(a) (blank);
|
(b) that the person maintains an equivalent |
authorization to practice
medicine in all of its |
branches or to practice the treatment of human
|
ailments without the use of drugs and without |
operative surgery in good
standing in his or her |
native licensing jurisdiction during the period of the
|
temporary visiting physician permit;
|
(c) that the person has received an invitation or |
appointment to study,
demonstrate, or perform a
|
|
specific medical, osteopathic, chiropractic or |
clinical subject or
technique in a medical, |
osteopathic, or chiropractic school, a state or |
national medical, osteopathic, or chiropractic |
professional association or society conference or |
meeting, a hospital
licensed under the Hospital |
Licensing Act, a hospital organized
under the |
University of Illinois Hospital Act, or a facility |
operated
pursuant to the Ambulatory Surgical Treatment |
Center Act; and
|
(d) that the temporary visiting physician permit |
shall only permit the
holder to practice medicine in |
all of its branches or practice the
treatment of human |
ailments without the use of drugs and without |
operative
surgery within the scope of the medical, |
osteopathic, chiropractic, or
clinical studies, or in |
conjunction with the state or national medical, |
osteopathic, or chiropractic professional association |
or society conference or meeting, for which the holder |
was invited or appointed.
|
(2) The application for the temporary visiting |
physician permit shall be
made to the Department, in |
writing, on forms prescribed by the
Department, and shall |
be accompanied by the required fee established by
rule, |
which shall not be refundable. The application shall |
require
information that, in the judgment of the |
|
Department, will enable the
Department to pass on the |
qualification of the applicant, and the necessity
for the |
granting of a temporary visiting physician permit.
|
(3) A temporary visiting physician permit shall be |
valid for no longer than (i) 180
days
from the date of |
issuance or (ii) until the time the medical, osteopathic,
|
chiropractic, or clinical studies are completed, or the |
state or national medical, osteopathic, or chiropractic |
professional association or society conference or meeting |
has concluded, whichever occurs first. The temporary |
visiting physician permit may be issued multiple times to |
a visiting physician under this paragraph (3) as long as |
the total number of days it is active do not exceed 180 |
days within a 365-day period.
|
(4) The applicant for a temporary visiting physician |
permit may be
required to appear before the Medical |
Licensing Board for an interview
prior to, and as a |
requirement for, the issuance of a temporary visiting
|
physician permit.
|
(5) A limited temporary visiting physician permit |
shall be issued to a
physician licensed in another state |
who has been requested to perform emergency
procedures in |
Illinois if he or she meets the requirements as |
established by
rule.
|
(C) Visiting resident permit.
|
|
(1) The Department may, in its discretion, issue a |
temporary visiting
resident permit, without examination, |
provided:
|
(a) (blank);
|
(b) that the person maintains an equivalent |
authorization to practice
medicine in all of its |
branches or to practice the treatment of human
|
ailments without the use of drugs and without |
operative surgery in good
standing in his or her |
native licensing jurisdiction during the period of
the |
temporary visiting resident permit;
|
(c) that the applicant is enrolled in a |
postgraduate clinical training
program outside the |
State of Illinois that is approved by the Department;
|
(d) that the individual has been invited or |
appointed for a specific
period of time to perform a |
portion of that post graduate clinical training
|
program under the supervision of an Illinois licensed |
physician in an
Illinois patient care clinic or |
facility that is affiliated with the
out-of-State post |
graduate training program; and
|
(e) that the temporary visiting resident permit |
shall only permit the
holder to practice medicine in |
all of its branches or practice the
treatment of human |
ailments without the use of drugs and without |
operative
surgery within the scope of the medical, |
|
osteopathic, chiropractic or
clinical studies for |
which the holder was invited or appointed.
|
(2) The application for the temporary visiting |
resident permit shall be
made to the Department, in |
writing, on forms prescribed by the Department,
and shall |
be accompanied by the required fee established by rule. |
The
application shall require information that, in the |
judgment of the
Department, will enable the Department to |
pass on the qualifications of
the applicant.
|
(3) A temporary visiting resident permit shall be |
valid for 180 days from
the date of issuance or until the |
time the medical, osteopathic,
chiropractic, or clinical |
studies are completed, whichever occurs first.
|
(4) The applicant for a temporary visiting resident |
permit may be
required to appear before the Medical |
Licensing Board for an interview
prior to, and as a |
requirement for, the issuance of a temporary visiting
|
resident permit.
|
(Source: P.A. 97-622, eff. 11-23-11; 98-1140, eff. 12-30-14 .)
|
(225 ILCS 60/19) (from Ch. 111, par. 4400-19)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
|
Sec. 19. Licensure by endorsement. The Department may, in |
its
discretion,
issue a license by endorsement to any person |
who is currently licensed
to practice medicine in all of its |
branches,
or a chiropractic physician, in any other state,
|
|
territory, country or province, upon the following
conditions |
and submitting evidence satisfactory to the Department of the |
following:
|
(A) (Blank);
|
(B) That the applicant is of good moral character. In
|
determining moral character under this Section, the
|
Department may take into consideration whether the |
applicant
has engaged in conduct or activities which would |
constitute
grounds for discipline under this Act. The |
Department may
also request the applicant to submit, and |
may consider as
evidence of moral character, endorsements |
from 2 or 3
individuals licensed under this Act;
|
(C) That the applicant is physically, mentally and
|
professionally capable of practicing medicine with
|
reasonable judgment, skill and safety. In determining
|
physical, mental and professional capacity under this
|
Section the Medical Licensing Board may, upon a showing of
|
a possible incapacity, compel an applicant to submit to a
|
mental or physical examination and evaluation, or both, in |
the same manner as provided in Section 22 and may |
condition
or restrict any license, subject to the same |
terms and
conditions as are provided for the Medical |
Disciplinary
Board under Section 22 of this Act.
|
(D) That if the applicant seeks to practice medicine
|
in all of its branches:
|
(1) if the applicant was licensed in another |
|
jurisdiction prior to
January
1,
1988, that the |
applicant has satisfied the educational
requirements |
of paragraph (1) of subsection (A) or paragraph (2) of
|
subsection (A) of Section 11 of
this Act; or
|
(2) if the applicant was licensed in another |
jurisdiction after December
31,
1987, that the |
applicant has
satisfied the educational requirements |
of paragraph (A)(2)
of Section 11 of this Act; and
|
(3) the requirements for a license to practice
|
medicine in all of its branches in the particular |
state,
territory, country or province in which the |
applicant is
licensed are deemed by the Department to |
have been
substantially equivalent to the requirements |
for a license
to practice medicine in all of its |
branches in force in this
State at the date of the |
applicant's license;
|
(E) That if the applicant seeks to treat human
|
ailments without the use of drugs and without operative
|
surgery:
|
(1) the applicant is a graduate of a chiropractic
|
school or college approved by the Department at the |
time of
their graduation;
|
(2) the requirements for the applicant's license |
to
practice the treatment of human ailments without |
the use of
drugs are deemed by the Department to have |
been
substantially equivalent to the requirements for |
|
a license
to practice in this State at the date of the |
applicant's
license;
|
(F) That the Department may, in its discretion, issue |
a
license by endorsement to any graduate of a
medical or |
osteopathic college, reputable and
in good standing in the
|
judgment of the Department, who has passed an examination
|
for admission to the United States Public Health Service, |
or
who has passed any other examination deemed by the
|
Department to have been at least equal in all substantial
|
respects to the examination required for admission to any
|
such medical corps;
|
(G) That applications for licenses by endorsement
|
shall be filed with the Department, under oath, on forms
|
prepared and furnished by the Department, and shall set
|
forth, and applicants therefor shall supply such |
information
respecting the life, education, professional |
practice, and
moral character of applicants as the |
Department may require
to be filed for its use;
|
(H) That the applicant undergo
the criminal background |
check established under Section 9.7 of this Act.
|
In the exercise of its discretion under this Section,
the |
Department is empowered to consider and evaluate each
|
applicant on an individual basis. It may take into account,
|
among other things: the extent to which the applicant will |
bring unique experience and skills to the State of Illinois or |
the extent to which there is or is not
available to the |
|
Department authentic and definitive
information concerning the |
quality of medical education and
clinical training which the |
applicant has had. Under no
circumstances shall a license be |
issued under the provisions
of this Section to any person who |
has previously taken and
failed the written examination |
conducted by the Department
for such license. In the exercise |
of its discretion under this Section, the Department may |
require an applicant to successfully complete an examination |
as recommended by the Medical Licensing Board. The Department |
may
also request the applicant to submit, and may consider as
|
evidence of moral character, evidence from 2 or 3
individuals |
licensed under this Act.
Applicants have 3 years from the date |
of application to complete the
application process. If the |
process has not been completed within 3 years, the
application |
shall be denied, the fees shall be forfeited, and the |
applicant
must reapply and meet the requirements in effect at |
the time of
reapplication.
|
(Source: P.A. 97-622, eff. 11-23-11; 98-1140, eff. 12-30-14 .)
|
(225 ILCS 60/21) (from Ch. 111, par. 4400-21)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
|
Sec. 21. License renewal; reinstatement; inactive status; |
disposition and
collection of fees. |
(A) Renewal. The expiration date and renewal period for |
each
license issued under this Act shall be set by rule. The |
holder of a
license may renew the license by paying the |
|
required fee. The
holder of a
license may also renew the |
license within 90 days after its expiration by
complying with |
the requirements for renewal and payment of an additional
fee. |
A license renewal within 90 days after expiration shall be |
effective
retroactively to the expiration date.
|
The Department shall attempt to provide through electronic |
means to each licensee under this Act, at least 60 days in |
advance of the expiration date of his or her license, a renewal |
notice. No such license shall be deemed to have lapsed until 90 |
days after the expiration date and after the Department has |
attempted to provide such notice as herein provided. |
(B) Reinstatement. Any licensee who has permitted his or |
her
license to lapse or who has had his or her license on |
inactive
status may have his or her license reinstated by |
making application
to the Department and filing proof |
acceptable to the
Department of his or her fitness to have the
|
license reinstated,
including evidence certifying to active |
practice in another
jurisdiction satisfactory to the |
Department, proof of meeting the continuing
education |
requirements for one renewal period, and by paying
the |
required reinstatement fee.
|
If the licensee has not maintained an active practice
in |
another jurisdiction satisfactory to the Department, the |
Medical
Licensing Board shall determine, by an evaluation |
program
established by rule, the applicant's fitness to resume |
active
status
and may require the licensee to complete a |
|
period of
evaluated clinical experience and may require |
successful
completion of a practical examination specified by |
the Medical Licensing Board.
|
However, any registrant whose license has expired while
he |
or she has been engaged (a) in Federal Service on active
duty
|
with the Army of the United States, the United States Navy,
the |
Marine Corps, the Air Force, the Coast Guard, the Public
|
Health Service or the State Militia called into the service
or |
training of the United States of America, or (b) in
training or |
education under the supervision of the United
States |
preliminary to induction into the military service,
may have |
his or her license reinstated without paying
any lapsed |
renewal fees, if within 2 years after honorable
termination of |
such service, training, or education, he or she
furnishes to |
the Department with satisfactory evidence to the
effect that |
he or she has been so engaged and that his or
her
service, |
training, or education has been so terminated.
|
(C) Inactive licenses. Any licensee who notifies the
|
Department, in writing on forms prescribed by the
Department, |
may elect to place his or her license on an inactive
status and |
shall, subject to rules of the Department, be
excused from |
payment of renewal fees until he or she notifies the
|
Department in writing of his or her desire to resume active
|
status.
|
Any licensee requesting reinstatement from inactive
status |
shall be required to pay the current renewal fee, provide |
|
proof of
meeting the continuing education requirements for the |
period of time the
license is inactive not to exceed one |
renewal period, and
shall be required to reinstate his or her |
license as provided
in
subsection (B).
|
Any licensee whose license is in an inactive status
shall |
not practice in the State of Illinois.
|
(D) Disposition of monies collected. All monies
collected |
under this Act by the Department shall be
deposited in the |
Illinois State Medical Disciplinary Fund in
the State |
Treasury, and used only for the following
purposes: (a) by the |
Medical Disciplinary
Board and Licensing Board in the exercise |
of its powers and performance of its
duties, as such use is |
made by the Department with full
consideration of all |
recommendations of the Medical
Disciplinary Board and |
Licensing Board, (b) for costs directly related to
persons |
licensed under this Act, and (c) for direct and allocable |
indirect
costs related to the public purposes of the |
Department.
|
Moneys in the Fund may be transferred to the Professions |
Indirect Cost Fund
as authorized under Section 2105-300 of the |
Department of Professional
Regulation Law of the Civil |
Administrative Code of Illinois.
|
All earnings received from investment of monies in the
|
Illinois State Medical Disciplinary Fund shall be deposited
in |
the Illinois State Medical Disciplinary Fund and shall be
used |
for the same purposes as fees deposited in such Fund.
|
|
(E) Fees. The following fees are nonrefundable.
|
(1) Applicants for any examination shall be required
|
to pay, either to the Department or to the designated
|
testing service, a fee covering the cost of determining |
the
applicant's eligibility and providing the examination.
|
Failure to appear for the examination on the scheduled |
date,
at the time and place specified, after the |
applicant's
application for examination has been received |
and
acknowledged by the Department or the designated |
testing
service, shall result in the forfeiture of the |
examination
fee.
|
(2) Before July 1, 2018, the fee for a license under |
Section 9 of this Act
is $700. Beginning on July 1, 2018, |
the fee for a license under Section 9 of this Act is $500.
|
(3) Before July 1, 2018, the fee for a license under |
Section 19 of this Act
is $700. Beginning on July 1, 2018, |
the fee for a license under Section 19 of this Act is $500.
|
(4) Before July 1, 2018, the fee for the renewal of a |
license for a resident of Illinois
shall be calculated at |
the rate of $230 per year, and beginning on July 1, 2018 |
and until January 1, 2020, the fee for the renewal of a |
license shall be $167, except for licensees
who were |
issued a license within 12 months of the expiration date |
of the
license, before July 1, 2018, the fee for the |
renewal shall be $230, and beginning on July 1, 2018 and |
until January 1, 2020 that fee will be $167. Before July 1, |
|
2018, the fee for the renewal
of a license for a |
nonresident shall be calculated at the rate of $460 per
|
year, and beginning on July 1, 2018 and until January 1, |
2020, the fee for the renewal of a license for a |
nonresident shall be $250, except for licensees
who were |
issued a license within 12 months of the expiration date |
of the
license, before July 1, 2018, the fee for the |
renewal shall be $460, and beginning on July 1, 2018 and |
until January 1, 2020 that fee will be $250. Beginning on |
January 1, 2020, the fee for renewal of a license for a |
resident or nonresident is $181 per year.
|
(5) The fee for the reinstatement of a license other
|
than from inactive status, is $230. In addition, payment |
of all
lapsed renewal fees not to exceed $1,400 is |
required.
|
(6) The fee for a 3-year temporary license under
|
Section 17 is $230.
|
(7) The fee for the issuance of a
license with a change |
of name or address other than during
the renewal period is |
$20. No fee is required for name and
address changes on |
Department records when no updated
license is issued.
|
(8) The fee to be paid for a license record for any
|
purpose is $20.
|
(9) The fee to be paid to have the scoring of an
|
examination, administered by the Department, reviewed and
|
verified, is $20 plus any fees charged by the applicable
|
|
testing service.
|
(F) Any person who delivers a check or other payment to the |
Department that
is returned to the Department unpaid by the |
financial institution upon
which it is drawn shall pay to the |
Department, in addition to the amount
already owed to the |
Department, a fine of $50. The fines imposed by this Section |
are in addition
to any other discipline provided under this |
Act for unlicensed
practice or practice on a nonrenewed |
license. The Department shall notify
the person that payment |
of fees and fines shall be paid to the Department
by certified |
check or money order within 30 calendar days of the
|
notification. If, after the expiration of 30 days from the |
date of the
notification, the person has failed to submit the |
necessary remittance, the
Department shall automatically |
terminate the license or permit or deny
the application, |
without hearing. If, after termination or denial, the
person |
seeks a license or permit, he or she shall apply to the
|
Department for reinstatement or issuance of the license or |
permit and
pay all fees and fines due to the Department. The |
Department may establish
a fee for the processing of an |
application for reinstatement of a license or permit
to pay |
all expenses of processing this application. The Secretary
may |
waive the fines due under this Section in individual cases |
where the
Secretary finds that the fines would be unreasonable |
or unnecessarily
burdensome.
|
(Source: P.A. 101-316, eff. 8-9-19; 101-603, eff. 1-1-20.)
|
|
(225 ILCS 60/22) (from Ch. 111, par. 4400-22)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
|
Sec. 22. Disciplinary action.
|
(A) The Department may revoke, suspend, place on |
probation, reprimand, refuse to issue or renew, or take any |
other disciplinary or non-disciplinary action as the |
Department may deem proper
with regard to the license or |
permit of any person issued
under this Act, including imposing |
fines not to exceed $10,000 for each violation, upon any of the |
following grounds:
|
(1) (Blank).
|
(2) (Blank).
|
(3) A plea of guilty or nolo contendere, finding of |
guilt, jury verdict, or entry of judgment or sentencing, |
including, but not limited to, convictions, preceding |
sentences of supervision, conditional discharge, or first |
offender probation, under the laws of any jurisdiction of |
the United States of any crime that is a felony.
|
(4) Gross negligence in practice under this Act.
|
(5) Engaging in dishonorable, unethical , or |
unprofessional
conduct of a
character likely to deceive, |
defraud or harm the public.
|
(6) Obtaining any fee by fraud, deceit, or
|
misrepresentation.
|
(7) Habitual or excessive use or abuse of drugs |
|
defined in law
as
controlled substances, of alcohol, or of |
any other substances which results in
the inability to |
practice with reasonable judgment, skill , or safety.
|
(8) Practicing under a false or, except as provided by |
law, an
assumed
name.
|
(9) Fraud or misrepresentation in applying for, or |
procuring, a
license
under this Act or in connection with |
applying for renewal of a license under
this Act.
|
(10) Making a false or misleading statement regarding |
their
skill or the
efficacy or value of the medicine, |
treatment, or remedy prescribed by them at
their direction |
in the treatment of any disease or other condition of the |
body
or mind.
|
(11) Allowing another person or organization to use |
their
license, procured
under this Act, to practice.
|
(12) Adverse action taken by another state or |
jurisdiction
against a license
or other authorization to |
practice as a medical doctor, doctor of osteopathy,
doctor |
of osteopathic medicine or
doctor of chiropractic, a |
certified copy of the record of the action taken by
the |
other state or jurisdiction being prima facie evidence |
thereof. This includes any adverse action taken by a State |
or federal agency that prohibits a medical doctor, doctor |
of osteopathy, doctor of osteopathic medicine, or doctor |
of chiropractic from providing services to the agency's |
participants.
|
|
(13) Violation of any provision of this Act or of the |
Medical
Practice Act
prior to the repeal of that Act, or |
violation of the rules, or a final
administrative action |
of the Secretary, after consideration of the
|
recommendation of the Medical Disciplinary Board.
|
(14) Violation of the prohibition against fee |
splitting in Section 22.2 of this Act.
|
(15) A finding by the Medical Disciplinary Board that |
the
registrant after
having his or her license placed on |
probationary status or subjected to
conditions or |
restrictions violated the terms of the probation or failed |
to
comply with such terms or conditions.
|
(16) Abandonment of a patient.
|
(17) Prescribing, selling, administering, |
distributing, giving ,
or
self-administering any drug |
classified as a controlled substance (designated
product) |
or narcotic for other than medically accepted therapeutic
|
purposes.
|
(18) Promotion of the sale of drugs, devices, |
appliances , or
goods provided
for a patient in such manner |
as to exploit the patient for financial gain of
the |
physician.
|
(19) Offering, undertaking , or agreeing to cure or |
treat
disease by a secret
method, procedure, treatment , or |
medicine, or the treating, operating , or
prescribing for |
any human condition by a method, means , or procedure which |
|
the
licensee refuses to divulge upon demand of the |
Department.
|
(20) Immoral conduct in the commission of any act |
including,
but not limited to, commission of an act of |
sexual misconduct related to the
licensee's
practice.
|
(21) Willfully making or filing false records or |
reports in his
or her
practice as a physician, including, |
but not limited to, false records to
support claims |
against the medical assistance program of the Department |
of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly Department of
|
Public Aid)
under the Illinois Public Aid Code.
|
(22) Willful omission to file or record, or willfully |
impeding
the filing or
recording, or inducing another |
person to omit to file or record, medical
reports as |
required by law, or willfully failing to report an |
instance of
suspected abuse or neglect as required by law.
|
(23) Being named as a perpetrator in an indicated |
report by
the Department
of Children and Family Services |
under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting
Act, and |
upon proof by clear and convincing evidence that the |
licensee has
caused a child to be an abused child or |
neglected child as defined in the
Abused and Neglected |
Child Reporting Act.
|
(24) Solicitation of professional patronage by any
|
corporation, agents or
persons, or profiting from those |
representing themselves to be agents of the
licensee.
|
|
(25) Gross and willful and continued overcharging for
|
professional services,
including filing false statements |
for collection of fees for which services are
not |
rendered, including, but not limited to, filing such false |
statements for
collection of monies for services not |
rendered from the medical assistance
program of the |
Department of Healthcare and Family Services (formerly |
Department of Public Aid)
under the Illinois Public Aid
|
Code.
|
(26) A pattern of practice or other behavior which
|
demonstrates
incapacity
or incompetence to practice under |
this Act.
|
(27) Mental illness or disability which results in the
|
inability to
practice under this Act with reasonable |
judgment, skill , or safety.
|
(28) Physical illness, including, but not limited to,
|
deterioration through
the aging process, or loss of motor |
skill which results in a physician's
inability to practice |
under this Act with reasonable judgment, skill , or
safety.
|
(29) Cheating on or attempt to subvert the licensing
|
examinations
administered under this Act.
|
(30) Willfully or negligently violating the |
confidentiality
between
physician and patient except as |
required by law.
|
(31) The use of any false, fraudulent, or deceptive |
statement
in any
document connected with practice under |
|
this Act.
|
(32) Aiding and abetting an individual not licensed |
under this
Act in the
practice of a profession licensed |
under this Act.
|
(33) Violating state or federal laws or regulations |
relating
to controlled
substances, legend
drugs, or |
ephedra as defined in the Ephedra Prohibition Act.
|
(34) Failure to report to the Department any adverse |
final
action taken
against them by another licensing |
jurisdiction (any other state or any
territory of the |
United States or any foreign state or country), by any |
peer
review body, by any health care institution, by any |
professional society or
association related to practice |
under this Act, by any governmental agency, by
any law |
enforcement agency, or by any court for acts or conduct |
similar to acts
or conduct which would constitute grounds |
for action as defined in this
Section.
|
(35) Failure to report to the Department surrender of |
a
license or
authorization to practice as a medical |
doctor, a doctor of osteopathy, a
doctor of osteopathic |
medicine, or doctor
of chiropractic in another state or |
jurisdiction, or surrender of membership on
any medical |
staff or in any medical or professional association or |
society,
while under disciplinary investigation by any of |
those authorities or bodies,
for acts or conduct similar |
to acts or conduct which would constitute grounds
for |
|
action as defined in this Section.
|
(36) Failure to report to the Department any adverse |
judgment,
settlement,
or award arising from a liability |
claim related to acts or conduct similar to
acts or |
conduct which would constitute grounds for action as |
defined in this
Section.
|
(37) Failure to provide copies of medical records as |
required
by law.
|
(38) Failure to furnish the Department, its |
investigators or
representatives, relevant information, |
legally requested by the Department
after consultation |
with the Chief Medical Coordinator or the Deputy Medical
|
Coordinator.
|
(39) Violating the Health Care Worker Self-Referral
|
Act.
|
(40) Willful failure to provide notice when notice is |
required
under the
Parental Notice of Abortion Act of |
1995.
|
(41) Failure to establish and maintain records of |
patient care and
treatment as required by this law.
|
(42) Entering into an excessive number of written |
collaborative
agreements with licensed advanced practice |
registered nurses resulting in an inability to
adequately |
collaborate.
|
(43) Repeated failure to adequately collaborate with a |
licensed advanced practice registered nurse. |
|
(44) Violating the Compassionate Use of Medical |
Cannabis Program Act.
|
(45) Entering into an excessive number of written |
collaborative agreements with licensed prescribing |
psychologists resulting in an inability to adequately |
collaborate. |
(46) Repeated failure to adequately collaborate with a |
licensed prescribing psychologist. |
(47) Willfully failing to report an instance of |
suspected abuse, neglect, financial exploitation, or |
self-neglect of an eligible adult as defined in and |
required by the Adult Protective Services Act. |
(48) Being named as an abuser in a verified report by |
the Department on Aging under the Adult Protective |
Services Act, and upon proof by clear and convincing |
evidence that the licensee abused, neglected, or |
financially exploited an eligible adult as defined in the |
Adult Protective Services Act. |
(49) Entering into an excessive number of written |
collaborative agreements with licensed physician |
assistants resulting in an inability to adequately |
collaborate. |
(50) Repeated failure to adequately collaborate with a |
physician assistant. |
Except
for actions involving the ground numbered (26), all |
proceedings to suspend,
revoke, place on probationary status, |
|
or take any
other disciplinary action as the Department may |
deem proper, with regard to a
license on any of the foregoing |
grounds, must be commenced within 5 years next
after receipt |
by the Department of a complaint alleging the commission of or
|
notice of the conviction order for any of the acts described |
herein. Except
for the grounds numbered (8), (9), (26), and |
(29), no action shall be commenced more
than 10 years after the |
date of the incident or act alleged to have violated
this |
Section. For actions involving the ground numbered (26), a |
pattern of practice or other behavior includes all incidents |
alleged to be part of the pattern of practice or other behavior |
that occurred, or a report pursuant to Section 23 of this Act |
received, within the 10-year period preceding the filing of |
the complaint. In the event of the settlement of any claim or |
cause of action
in favor of the claimant or the reduction to |
final judgment of any civil action
in favor of the plaintiff, |
such claim, cause of action , or civil action being
grounded on |
the allegation that a person licensed under this Act was |
negligent
in providing care, the Department shall have an |
additional period of 2 years
from the date of notification to |
the Department under Section 23 of this Act
of such settlement |
or final judgment in which to investigate and
commence formal |
disciplinary proceedings under Section 36 of this Act, except
|
as otherwise provided by law. The time during which the holder |
of the license
was outside the State of Illinois shall not be |
included within any period of
time limiting the commencement |
|
of disciplinary action by the Department.
|
The entry of an order or judgment by any circuit court |
establishing that any
person holding a license under this Act |
is a person in need of mental treatment
operates as a |
suspension of that license. That person may resume his or her |
their
practice only upon the entry of a Departmental order |
based upon a finding by
the Medical Disciplinary Board that |
the person has they have been determined to be recovered
from |
mental illness by the court and upon the Medical Disciplinary |
Board's
recommendation that the person they be permitted to |
resume his or her their practice.
|
The Department may refuse to issue or take disciplinary |
action concerning the license of any person
who fails to file a |
return, or to pay the tax, penalty , or interest shown in a
|
filed return, or to pay any final assessment of tax, penalty , |
or interest, as
required by any tax Act administered by the |
Illinois Department of Revenue,
until such time as the |
requirements of any such tax Act are satisfied as
determined |
by the Illinois Department of Revenue.
|
The Department, upon the recommendation of the Medical |
Disciplinary Board, shall
adopt rules which set forth |
standards to be used in determining:
|
(a) when a person will be deemed sufficiently |
rehabilitated to warrant the
public trust;
|
(b) what constitutes dishonorable, unethical , or |
unprofessional conduct of
a character likely to deceive, |
|
defraud, or harm the public;
|
(c) what constitutes immoral conduct in the commission |
of any act,
including, but not limited to, commission of |
an act of sexual misconduct
related
to the licensee's |
practice; and
|
(d) what constitutes gross negligence in the practice |
of medicine.
|
However, no such rule shall be admissible into evidence in |
any civil action
except for review of a licensing or other |
disciplinary action under this Act.
|
In enforcing this Section, the Medical Disciplinary Board |
or the Licensing Board,
upon a showing of a possible |
violation, may compel , in the case of the Disciplinary Board, |
any individual who is licensed to
practice under this Act or |
holds a permit to practice under this Act, or , in the case of |
the Licensing Board, any individual who has applied for |
licensure or a permit
pursuant to this Act, to submit to a |
mental or physical examination and evaluation, or both,
which |
may include a substance abuse or sexual offender evaluation, |
as required by the Medical Licensing Board or Disciplinary |
Board and at the expense of the Department. The Medical |
Disciplinary Board or Licensing Board shall specifically |
designate the examining physician licensed to practice |
medicine in all of its branches or, if applicable, the |
multidisciplinary team involved in providing the mental or |
physical examination and evaluation, or both. The |
|
multidisciplinary team shall be led by a physician licensed to |
practice medicine in all of its branches and may consist of one |
or more or a combination of physicians licensed to practice |
medicine in all of its branches, licensed chiropractic |
physicians, licensed clinical psychologists, licensed clinical |
social workers, licensed clinical professional counselors, and |
other professional and administrative staff. Any examining |
physician or member of the multidisciplinary team may require |
any person ordered to submit to an examination and evaluation |
pursuant to this Section to submit to any additional |
supplemental testing deemed necessary to complete any |
examination or evaluation process, including, but not limited |
to, blood testing, urinalysis, psychological testing, or |
neuropsychological testing.
The Medical Disciplinary Board, |
the Licensing Board , or the Department may order the examining
|
physician or any member of the multidisciplinary team to |
provide to the Department , the Disciplinary Board, or the |
Medical Licensing Board any and all records, including |
business records, that relate to the examination and |
evaluation, including any supplemental testing performed. The |
Medical Disciplinary Board, the Licensing Board , or the |
Department may order the examining physician or any member of |
the multidisciplinary team to present testimony concerning |
this examination
and evaluation of the licensee, permit |
holder, or applicant, including testimony concerning any |
supplemental testing or documents relating to the examination |
|
and evaluation. No information, report, record, or other |
documents in any way related to the examination and evaluation |
shall be excluded by reason of
any common
law or statutory |
privilege relating to communication between the licensee, |
permit holder, or
applicant and
the examining physician or any |
member of the multidisciplinary team.
No authorization is |
necessary from the licensee, permit holder, or applicant |
ordered to undergo an evaluation and examination for the |
examining physician or any member of the multidisciplinary |
team to provide information, reports, records, or other |
documents or to provide any testimony regarding the |
examination and evaluation. The individual to be examined may |
have, at his or her own expense, another
physician of his or |
her choice present during all aspects of the examination.
|
Failure of any individual to submit to mental or physical |
examination and evaluation, or both, when
directed, shall |
result in an automatic suspension, without hearing, until such |
time
as the individual submits to the examination. If the |
Medical Disciplinary Board or Licensing Board finds a |
physician unable
to practice following an examination and |
evaluation because of the reasons set forth in this Section, |
the Medical Disciplinary
Board or Licensing Board shall |
require such physician to submit to care, counseling, or |
treatment
by physicians, or other health care professionals, |
approved or designated by the Medical Disciplinary Board, as a |
condition
for issued, continued, reinstated, or renewed |
|
licensure to practice. Any physician,
whose license was |
granted pursuant to Sections 9, 17, or 19 of this Act, or,
|
continued, reinstated, renewed, disciplined or supervised, |
subject to such
terms, conditions , or restrictions who shall |
fail to comply with such terms,
conditions , or restrictions, |
or to complete a required program of care,
counseling, or |
treatment, as determined by the Chief Medical Coordinator or
|
Deputy Medical Coordinators, shall be referred to the |
Secretary for a
determination as to whether the licensee shall |
have his or her their license suspended
immediately, pending a |
hearing by the Medical Disciplinary Board. In instances in
|
which the Secretary immediately suspends a license under this |
Section, a hearing
upon such person's license must be convened |
by the Medical Disciplinary Board within 15
days after such |
suspension and completed without appreciable delay. The |
Medical
Disciplinary Board shall have the authority to review |
the subject physician's
record of treatment and counseling |
regarding the impairment, to the extent
permitted by |
applicable federal statutes and regulations safeguarding the
|
confidentiality of medical records.
|
An individual licensed under this Act, affected under this |
Section, shall be
afforded an opportunity to demonstrate to |
the Medical Disciplinary Board that he or she they can
resume |
practice in compliance with acceptable and prevailing |
standards under
the provisions of his or her their license.
|
The Department may promulgate rules for the imposition of |
|
fines in
disciplinary cases, not to exceed
$10,000 for each |
violation of this Act. Fines
may be imposed in conjunction |
with other forms of disciplinary action, but
shall not be the |
exclusive disposition of any disciplinary action arising out
|
of conduct resulting in death or injury to a patient. Any funds |
collected from
such fines shall be deposited in the Illinois |
State Medical Disciplinary Fund.
|
All fines imposed under this Section shall be paid within |
60 days after the effective date of the order imposing the fine |
or in accordance with the terms set forth in the order imposing |
the fine. |
(B) The Department shall revoke the license or
permit |
issued under this Act to practice medicine or a chiropractic |
physician who
has been convicted a second time of committing |
any felony under the
Illinois Controlled Substances Act or the |
Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, or who |
has been convicted a second time of
committing a Class 1 felony |
under Sections 8A-3 and 8A-6 of the Illinois Public
Aid Code. A |
person whose license or permit is revoked
under
this |
subsection B shall be prohibited from practicing
medicine or |
treating human ailments without the use of drugs and without
|
operative surgery.
|
(C) The Department shall not revoke, suspend, place on |
probation, reprimand, refuse to issue or renew, or take any |
other disciplinary or non-disciplinary action against the |
license or permit issued under this Act to practice medicine |
|
to a physician: |
(1) based solely upon the recommendation of the |
physician to an eligible patient regarding, or |
prescription for, or treatment with, an investigational |
drug, biological product, or device; or |
(2) for experimental treatment for Lyme disease or |
other tick-borne diseases, including, but not limited to, |
the prescription of or treatment with long-term |
antibiotics. |
(D) The Medical Disciplinary Board shall recommend to the
|
Department civil
penalties and any other appropriate |
discipline in disciplinary cases when the Medical
Board finds |
that a physician willfully performed an abortion with actual
|
knowledge that the person upon whom the abortion has been |
performed is a minor
or an incompetent person without notice |
as required under the Parental Notice
of Abortion Act of 1995. |
Upon the Medical Board's recommendation, the Department shall
|
impose, for the first violation, a civil penalty of $1,000 and |
for a second or
subsequent violation, a civil penalty of |
$5,000.
|
(Source: P.A. 100-429, eff. 8-25-17; 100-513, eff. 1-1-18; |
100-605, eff. 1-1-19; 100-863, eff. 8-14-18; 100-1137, eff. |
1-1-19; 101-13, eff. 6-12-19; 101-81, eff. 7-12-19; 101-363, |
eff. 8-9-19; revised 9-20-19.)
|
(225 ILCS 60/23) (from Ch. 111, par. 4400-23)
|
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
|
Sec. 23. Reports relating to professional conduct
and |
capacity. |
(A) Entities required to report.
|
(1) Health care institutions. The chief administrator
|
or executive officer of any health care institution |
licensed
by the Illinois Department of Public Health shall |
report to
the Medical Disciplinary Board when any person's |
clinical privileges
are terminated or are restricted based |
on a final
determination made in accordance with that |
institution's by-laws
or rules and regulations that a |
person has either committed
an act or acts which may |
directly threaten patient care or that a person may have a |
mental or physical disability that may endanger patients
|
under that person's care. Such officer also shall report |
if
a person accepts voluntary termination or restriction |
of
clinical privileges in lieu of formal action based upon |
conduct related
directly to patient care or in lieu of |
formal action
seeking to determine whether a person may |
have a mental or physical disability that may endanger |
patients
under that person's care. The Medical |
Disciplinary Board
shall, by rule, provide for the |
reporting to it by health care institutions of all
|
instances in which a person, licensed under this Act, who |
is
impaired by reason of age, drug or alcohol abuse or |
physical
or mental impairment, is under supervision and, |
|
where
appropriate, is in a program of rehabilitation. Such
|
reports shall be strictly confidential and may be reviewed
|
and considered only by the members of the Medical |
Disciplinary
Board, or by authorized staff as provided by |
rules of the Medical
Disciplinary Board. Provisions shall |
be made for the
periodic report of the status of any such |
person not less
than twice annually in order that the |
Medical Disciplinary Board
shall have current information |
upon which to determine the
status of any such person. |
Such initial and periodic
reports of impaired physicians |
shall not be considered
records within the meaning of The |
State Records Act and
shall be disposed of, following a |
determination by the Medical
Disciplinary Board that such |
reports are no longer required,
in a manner and at such |
time as the Medical Disciplinary Board shall
determine by |
rule. The filing of such reports shall be
construed as the |
filing of a report for purposes of
subsection (C) of this |
Section.
|
(1.5) Clinical training programs. The program director |
of any post-graduate clinical training program shall |
report to the Medical Disciplinary Board if a person |
engaged in a post-graduate clinical training program at |
the institution, including, but not limited to, a |
residency or fellowship, separates from the program for |
any reason prior to its conclusion. The program director |
shall provide all documentation relating to the separation |
|
if, after review of the report, the Medical Disciplinary |
Board determines that a review of those documents is |
necessary to determine whether a violation of this Act |
occurred. |
(2) Professional associations. The President or chief
|
executive officer of any association or society, of |
persons
licensed under this Act, operating within this |
State shall
report to the Medical Disciplinary Board when |
the association or
society renders a final determination |
that a person has
committed unprofessional conduct related |
directly to patient
care or that a person may have a mental |
or physical disability that may endanger patients under |
that person's
care.
|
(3) Professional liability insurers. Every insurance
|
company which offers policies of professional liability
|
insurance to persons licensed under this Act, or any other
|
entity which seeks to indemnify the professional liability
|
of a person licensed under this Act, shall report to the |
Medical
Disciplinary Board the settlement of any claim or |
cause of
action, or final judgment rendered in any cause |
of action,
which alleged negligence in the furnishing of |
medical care
by such licensed person when such settlement |
or final
judgment is in favor of the plaintiff.
|
(4) State's Attorneys. The State's Attorney of each
|
county shall report to the Medical Disciplinary Board, |
within 5 days, any instances
in which a person licensed |
|
under this Act is convicted of any felony or Class A |
misdemeanor. The State's Attorney
of each county may |
report to the Medical Disciplinary Board through a |
verified
complaint any instance in which the State's |
Attorney believes that a physician
has willfully violated |
the notice requirements of the Parental Notice of
Abortion |
Act of 1995.
|
(5) State agencies. All agencies, boards,
commissions, |
departments, or other instrumentalities of the
government |
of the State of Illinois shall report to the Medical
|
Disciplinary Board any instance arising in connection with
|
the operations of such agency, including the |
administration
of any law by such agency, in which a |
person licensed under
this Act has either committed an act |
or acts which may be a
violation of this Act or which may |
constitute unprofessional
conduct related directly to |
patient care or which indicates
that a person licensed |
under this Act may have a mental or physical disability |
that may endanger patients
under that person's care.
|
(B) Mandatory reporting. All reports required by items |
(34), (35), and
(36) of subsection (A) of Section 22 and by |
Section 23 shall be submitted to the Medical Disciplinary |
Board in a timely
fashion. Unless otherwise provided in this |
Section, the reports shall be filed in writing within 60
days |
after a determination that a report is required under
this |
Act. All reports shall contain the following
information:
|
|
(1) The name, address and telephone number of the
|
person making the report.
|
(2) The name, address and telephone number of the
|
person who is the subject of the report.
|
(3) The name and date of birth of any
patient or |
patients whose treatment is a subject of the
report, if |
available, or other means of identification if such |
information is not available, identification of the |
hospital or other
healthcare facility where the care at |
issue in the report was rendered,
provided, however, no |
medical records may be
revealed.
|
(4) A brief description of the facts which gave rise
|
to the issuance of the report, including the dates of any
|
occurrences deemed to necessitate the filing of the |
report.
|
(5) If court action is involved, the identity of the
|
court in which the action is filed, along with the docket
|
number and date of filing of the action.
|
(6) Any further pertinent information which the
|
reporting party deems to be an aid in the evaluation of the
|
report.
|
The Medical Disciplinary Board or Department may also |
exercise the power under Section
38 of this Act to subpoena |
copies of hospital or medical records in mandatory
report |
cases alleging death or permanent bodily injury. Appropriate
|
rules shall be adopted by the Department with the approval of |
|
the Medical Disciplinary
Board.
|
When the Department has received written reports |
concerning incidents
required to be reported in items (34), |
(35), and (36) of subsection (A) of
Section 22, the licensee's |
failure to report the incident to the Department
under those |
items shall not be the sole grounds for disciplinary action.
|
Nothing contained in this Section shall act to in any
way, |
waive or modify the confidentiality of medical reports
and |
committee reports to the extent provided by law. Any
|
information reported or disclosed shall be kept for the
|
confidential use of the Medical Disciplinary Board, the |
Medical
Coordinators, the Medical Disciplinary Board's |
attorneys, the
medical investigative staff, and authorized |
clerical staff,
as provided in this Act, and shall be afforded |
the same
status as is provided information concerning medical |
studies
in Part 21 of Article VIII of the Code of Civil |
Procedure, except that the Department may disclose information |
and documents to a federal, State, or local law enforcement |
agency pursuant to a subpoena in an ongoing criminal |
investigation or to a health care licensing body or medical |
licensing authority of this State or another state or |
jurisdiction pursuant to an official request made by that |
licensing body or medical licensing authority. Furthermore, |
information and documents disclosed to a federal, State, or |
local law enforcement agency may be used by that agency only |
for the investigation and prosecution of a criminal offense, |
|
or, in the case of disclosure to a health care licensing body |
or medical licensing authority, only for investigations and |
disciplinary action proceedings with regard to a license. |
Information and documents disclosed to the Department of |
Public Health may be used by that Department only for |
investigation and disciplinary action regarding the license of |
a health care institution licensed by the Department of Public |
Health.
|
(C) Immunity from prosecution. Any individual or
|
organization acting in good faith, and not in a wilful and
|
wanton manner, in complying with this Act by providing any
|
report or other information to the Medical Disciplinary Board |
or a peer review committee, or
assisting in the investigation |
or preparation of such
information, or by voluntarily |
reporting to the Medical Disciplinary Board
or a peer review |
committee information regarding alleged errors or negligence |
by a person licensed under this Act, or by participating in |
proceedings of the Medical
Disciplinary Board or a peer review |
committee, or by serving as a member of the Medical
|
Disciplinary Board or a peer review committee, shall not, as a |
result of such actions,
be subject to criminal prosecution or |
civil damages.
|
(D) Indemnification. Members of the Medical Disciplinary
|
Board, the Licensing Board, the Medical Coordinators, the |
Medical Disciplinary Board's
attorneys, the medical |
investigative staff, physicians
retained under contract to |
|
assist and advise the medical
coordinators in the |
investigation, and authorized clerical
staff shall be |
indemnified by the State for any actions
occurring within the |
scope of services on the Medical Disciplinary
Board or |
Licensing Board, done in good faith and not wilful and wanton |
in
nature. The Attorney General shall defend all such actions
|
unless he or she determines either that there would be a
|
conflict of interest in such representation or that the
|
actions complained of were not in good faith or were wilful
and |
wanton.
|
Should the Attorney General decline representation, the
|
member shall have the right to employ counsel of his or her
|
choice, whose fees shall be provided by the State, after
|
approval by the Attorney General, unless there is a
|
determination by a court that the member's actions were not
in |
good faith or were wilful and wanton.
|
The member must notify the Attorney General within 7
days |
of receipt of notice of the initiation of any action
involving |
services of the Medical Disciplinary Board. Failure to so
|
notify the Attorney General shall constitute an absolute
|
waiver of the right to a defense and indemnification.
|
The Attorney General shall determine within 7 days
after |
receiving such notice, whether he or she will
undertake to |
represent the member.
|
(E) Deliberations of Medical Disciplinary Board. Upon the
|
receipt of any report called for by this Act, other than
those |
|
reports of impaired persons licensed under this Act
required |
pursuant to the rules of the Medical Disciplinary Board,
the |
Medical Disciplinary Board shall notify in writing, by |
certified
mail or email , the person who is the subject of the |
report. Such
notification shall be made within 30 days of |
receipt by the Medical
Disciplinary Board of the report.
|
The notification shall include a written notice setting
|
forth the person's right to examine the report. Included in
|
such notification shall be the address at which the file is
|
maintained, the name of the custodian of the reports, and
the |
telephone number at which the custodian may be reached.
The |
person who is the subject of the report shall submit a written |
statement responding,
clarifying, adding to, or proposing the |
amending of the
report previously filed. The person who is the |
subject of the report shall also submit with the written |
statement any medical records related to the report. The |
statement and accompanying medical records shall become a
|
permanent part of the file and must be received by the Medical
|
Disciplinary Board no more than
30 days after the date on
which |
the person was notified by the Medical Disciplinary Board of |
the existence of
the
original report.
|
The Medical Disciplinary Board shall review all reports
|
received by it, together with any supporting information and
|
responding statements submitted by persons who are the
subject |
of reports. The review by the Medical Disciplinary Board
shall |
be in a timely manner but in no event, shall the Medical
|
|
Disciplinary Board's initial review of the material
contained |
in each disciplinary file be less than 61 days nor
more than |
180 days after the receipt of the initial report
by the Medical |
Disciplinary Board.
|
When the Medical Disciplinary Board makes its initial |
review of
the materials contained within its disciplinary |
files, the Medical
Disciplinary Board shall, in writing, make |
a determination
as to whether there are sufficient facts to |
warrant further
investigation or action. Failure to make such |
determination
within the time provided shall be deemed to be a
|
determination that there are not sufficient facts to warrant
|
further investigation or action.
|
Should the Medical Disciplinary Board find that there are |
not
sufficient facts to warrant further investigation, or
|
action, the report shall be accepted for filing and the
matter |
shall be deemed closed and so reported to the Secretary. The |
Secretary
shall then have 30 days to accept the Medical |
Disciplinary Board's decision or
request further |
investigation. The Secretary shall inform the Medical Board
of |
the decision to request further investigation, including the |
specific
reasons for the decision. The
individual or entity |
filing the original report or complaint
and the person who is |
the subject of the report or complaint
shall be notified in |
writing by the Secretary of
any final action on their report or |
complaint. The Department shall disclose to the individual or |
entity who filed the original report or complaint, on request, |
|
the status of the Medical Disciplinary Board's review of a |
specific report or complaint. Such request may be made at any |
time, including prior to the Medical Disciplinary Board's |
determination as to whether there are sufficient facts to |
warrant further investigation or action.
|
(F) Summary reports. The Medical Disciplinary Board shall
|
prepare, on a timely basis, but in no event less than once
|
every other month, a summary report of final disciplinary |
actions taken
upon disciplinary files maintained by the |
Medical Disciplinary Board.
The summary reports shall be made |
available to the public upon request and payment of the fees |
set by the Department. This publication may be made available |
to the public on the Department's website. Information or |
documentation relating to any disciplinary file that is closed |
without disciplinary action taken shall not be disclosed and |
shall be afforded the same status as is provided by Part 21 of |
Article VIII of the Code of Civil Procedure.
|
(G) Any violation of this Section shall be a Class A
|
misdemeanor.
|
(H) If any such person violates the provisions of this
|
Section an action may be brought in the name of the People
of |
the State of Illinois, through the Attorney General of
the |
State of Illinois, for an order enjoining such violation
or |
for an order enforcing compliance with this Section.
Upon |
filing of a verified petition in such court, the court
may |
issue a temporary restraining order without notice or
bond and |
|
may preliminarily or permanently enjoin such
violation, and if |
it is established that such person has
violated or is |
violating the injunction, the court may
punish the offender |
for contempt of court. Proceedings
under this paragraph shall |
be in addition to, and not in
lieu of, all other remedies and |
penalties provided for by
this Section.
|
(Source: P.A. 98-601, eff. 12-30-13; 99-143, eff. 7-27-15 .)
|
(225 ILCS 60/24) (from Ch. 111, par. 4400-24)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
|
Sec. 24. Report of violations; medical associations. |
(a) Any physician
licensed under this Act, the
Illinois |
State Medical Society, the Illinois Association of
Osteopathic |
Physicians and Surgeons, the Illinois
Chiropractic Society, |
the Illinois Prairie State Chiropractic Association,
or any |
component societies of any of
these 4 groups, and any other |
person, may report to the Medical
Disciplinary Board any |
information the physician,
association, society, or person may |
have that appears to
show that a physician is or may be in |
violation of any of
the provisions of Section 22 of this Act.
|
(b) The Department may enter into agreements with the
|
Illinois State Medical Society, the Illinois Association of
|
Osteopathic Physicians and Surgeons, the Illinois Prairie |
State Chiropractic
Association, or the Illinois
Chiropractic |
Society to allow these
organizations to assist the Medical |
Disciplinary Board in the review
of alleged violations of this |
|
Act. Subject to the approval
of the Department, any |
organization party to such an
agreement may subcontract with |
other individuals or
organizations to assist in review.
|
(c) Any physician, association, society, or person
|
participating in good faith in the making of a report under
|
this Act or participating in or assisting with an
|
investigation or review under this Act shall have
immunity |
from any civil, criminal, or other liability that might result |
by reason of those actions.
|
(d) The medical information in the custody of an entity
|
under contract with the Department participating in an
|
investigation or review shall be privileged and confidential
|
to the same extent as are information and reports under the
|
provisions of Part 21 of Article VIII of the Code of Civil
|
Procedure.
|
(e) Upon request by the Department after a mandatory |
report has been filed with the Department, an attorney for any |
party seeking to recover damages for
injuries or death by |
reason of medical, hospital, or other healing art
malpractice |
shall provide patient records related to the physician |
involved in the disciplinary proceeding to the Department |
within 30 days of the Department's request for use by the |
Department in any disciplinary matter under this Act. An |
attorney who provides patient records to the Department in |
accordance with this requirement shall not be deemed to have |
violated any attorney-client privilege. Notwithstanding any |
|
other provision of law, consent by a patient shall not be |
required for the provision of patient records in accordance |
with this requirement.
|
(f) For the purpose of any civil or criminal proceedings,
|
the good faith of any physician, association, society
or |
person shall be presumed.
|
(Source: P.A. 97-622, eff. 11-23-11; 98-1140, eff. 12-30-14 .)
|
(225 ILCS 60/25) (from Ch. 111, par. 4400-25)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
|
Sec. 25. The Secretary of the Department may, upon receipt |
of a written
communication from the Secretary of Human |
Services, the Director of Healthcare and Family Services |
(formerly Director of
Public Aid), or the Director of Public |
Health
that continuation of practice of a person licensed |
under
this Act constitutes an immediate danger to the public, |
and
after consultation with the Chief Medical Coordinator or
|
Deputy Medical Coordinator, immediately suspend the license
of |
such person without a hearing. In instances in which the
|
Secretary immediately suspends a license under this Section,
a |
hearing upon such person's license must be convened by the |
Medical
Disciplinary Board within 15 days after such |
suspension and
completed without appreciable delay. Such |
hearing is to be
held to determine whether to recommend to the |
Secretary that
the person's license be revoked, suspended, |
placed on
probationary status or reinstated, or whether such |
|
person
should be subject to other disciplinary action. In the
|
hearing, the written communication and any other evidence
|
submitted therewith may be introduced as evidence against
such |
person; provided however, the person, or their
counsel, shall |
have the opportunity to discredit, impeach
and submit evidence |
rebutting such evidence.
|
(Source: P.A. 97-622, eff. 11-23-11 .)
|
(225 ILCS 60/35) (from Ch. 111, par. 4400-35)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
|
Sec. 35.
The Secretary shall have the authority to
appoint |
an attorney duly licensed to practice law in the
State of |
Illinois to serve as the hearing officer in any
action to |
suspend, revoke, place on probationary status, or
take any |
other disciplinary action with regard to a license.
The |
hearing officer shall have full authority to conduct the
|
hearing. The hearing officer shall report his findings and
|
recommendations to the Medical Disciplinary Board or Licensing |
Board within 30 days of
the receipt of the record. The Medical |
Disciplinary Board or Licensing Board shall
have 60 days from |
receipt of the report to review the report
of the hearing |
officer and present their findings of fact,
conclusions of law |
and recommendations to the Secretary.
|
(Source: P.A. 100-429, eff. 8-25-17 .)
|
(225 ILCS 60/36) (from Ch. 111, par. 4400-36)
|
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
|
Sec. 36. Investigation; notice. |
(a) Upon the motion of either the Department
or the |
Medical Disciplinary Board or upon the verified complaint in
|
writing of any person setting forth facts which, if proven,
|
would constitute grounds for suspension or revocation under
|
Section 22 of this Act, the Department shall investigate the
|
actions of any person, so accused, who holds or represents
|
that he or she holds a license. Such person is hereinafter |
called
the accused.
|
(b) The Department shall, before suspending, revoking,
|
placing on probationary status, or taking any other
|
disciplinary action as the Department may deem proper with
|
regard to any license at least 30 days prior to the date set
|
for the hearing, notify the accused in writing of any
charges |
made and the time and place for a hearing of the
charges before |
the Medical Disciplinary Board, direct him or her to file his |
or her
written answer thereto to the Medical Disciplinary |
Board under
oath within 20 days after the service on him or her |
of such notice
and inform him or her that if he or she fails to |
file such answer
default will be taken against him or her and |
his or her license may be
suspended, revoked, placed on |
probationary status, or have
other disciplinary action, |
including limiting the scope,
nature or extent of his or her |
practice, as the Department may
deem proper taken with regard |
thereto. The Department shall, at least 14 days prior to the |
|
date set for the hearing, notify in writing any person who |
filed a complaint against the accused of the time and place for |
the hearing of the charges against the accused before the |
Medical Disciplinary Board and inform such person whether he |
or she may provide testimony at the hearing.
|
(c) (Blank).
|
(d) Such written notice and any notice in such proceedings
|
thereafter may be served by personal delivery, email to the |
respondent's email address of record, or mail to the |
respondent's address of record.
|
(e) All information gathered by the Department during its |
investigation
including information subpoenaed
under Section |
23 or 38 of this Act and the investigative file shall be kept |
for
the confidential use of the Secretary, the Medical |
Disciplinary Board, the Medical
Coordinators, persons employed |
by contract to advise the Medical Coordinator or
the |
Department, the Medical
Disciplinary Board's attorneys, the |
medical investigative staff, and authorized
clerical staff, as |
provided in this Act and shall be afforded the same status
as |
is provided information concerning medical studies in Part 21 |
of Article
VIII of the Code of Civil Procedure, except that the |
Department may disclose information and documents to a |
federal, State, or local law enforcement agency pursuant to a |
subpoena in an ongoing criminal investigation to a health care |
licensing body of this State or another state or jurisdiction |
pursuant to an official request made by that licensing body. |
|
Furthermore, information and documents disclosed to a federal, |
State, or local law enforcement agency may be used by that |
agency only for the investigation and prosecution of a |
criminal offense or, in the case of disclosure to a health care |
licensing body, only for investigations and disciplinary |
action proceedings with regard to a license issued by that |
licensing body.
|
(Source: P.A. 101-13, eff. 6-12-19; 101-316, eff. 8-9-19; |
revised 9-20-19.)
|
(225 ILCS 60/37) (from Ch. 111, par. 4400-37)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
|
Sec. 37. Disciplinary actions. |
(a) At the time and place fixed in the
notice, the Medical |
Disciplinary Board provided for in this Act
shall proceed to |
hear the charges, and the accused
person shall be accorded |
ample
opportunity to present in person, or by counsel, such
|
statements, testimony, evidence and argument as may be
|
pertinent to the charges or to any defense thereto. The |
Medical
Disciplinary Board may continue such hearing from time |
to
time. If the Medical Disciplinary Board is not sitting at |
the time
and place fixed in the notice or at the time and place |
to
which the hearing has been continued, the Department shall
|
continue such hearing for a period not to exceed 30 days.
|
(b) In case the accused person, after receiving notice,
|
fails to file an answer, their license may, in the
discretion |
|
of the Secretary, having received first the
recommendation of |
the Medical Disciplinary Board, be suspended,
revoked or |
placed on probationary status, or the Secretary
may take |
whatever disciplinary action as he or she may deem
proper, |
including limiting the scope, nature, or extent of
said |
person's practice, without a hearing, if the act or
acts |
charged constitute sufficient grounds for such action
under |
this Act.
|
(c) The Medical Disciplinary Board has the authority to |
recommend
to the Secretary that probation be granted or that |
other
disciplinary or non-disciplinary action, including the |
limitation of the scope,
nature or extent of a person's |
practice, be taken as it
deems proper. If disciplinary or |
non-disciplinary action, other than suspension
or revocation, |
is taken the Medical Disciplinary Board may recommend
that the |
Secretary impose reasonable limitations and
requirements upon |
the accused registrant to ensure insure
compliance with the |
terms of the probation or other
disciplinary action including, |
but not limited to, regular
reporting by the accused to the |
Department of their actions,
placing themselves under the care |
of a qualified physician
for treatment, or limiting their |
practice in such manner as
the Secretary may require.
|
(d) The Secretary, after consultation with the Chief |
Medical
Coordinator or Deputy Medical Coordinator, may |
temporarily
suspend the license of a physician without a |
hearing,
simultaneously with the institution of proceedings |
|
for a
hearing provided under this Section if the Secretary |
finds
that evidence in his or her possession indicates that a
|
physician's continuation in practice would constitute an
|
immediate danger to the public. In the event that the
|
Secretary suspends, temporarily, the license of a physician
|
without a hearing, a hearing by the Medical Disciplinary Board |
shall
be held within 15 days after such suspension has |
occurred
and shall be concluded without appreciable delay.
|
(Source: P.A. 97-622, eff. 11-23-11; 98-1140, eff. 12-30-14 .)
|
(225 ILCS 60/38) (from Ch. 111, par. 4400-38)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
|
Sec. 38. Subpoena; oaths. |
(a) The Medical Disciplinary Board or Department has
power |
to subpoena and bring before it any person in this
State and to |
take testimony either orally or by deposition,
or both, with |
the same fees and mileage and in the same
manner as is |
prescribed by law for judicial procedure in
civil cases.
|
(b) The Medical Disciplinary Board or Department , upon a |
determination that
probable cause exists that a violation of |
one or more of the
grounds for discipline listed in Section 22 |
has occurred or
is occurring, may subpoena the medical and |
hospital records
of individual patients of physicians licensed |
under this
Act, provided, that prior to the submission of such |
records
to the Medical Disciplinary Board, all information |
indicating the
identity of the patient shall be removed and |
|
deleted.
Notwithstanding the foregoing, the Medical |
Disciplinary Board and Department shall
possess the power to |
subpoena copies of hospital or medical records in
mandatory |
report cases under Section 23 alleging death or permanent |
bodily
injury when consent to obtain records is not provided |
by a patient or legal
representative. Prior to submission of |
the records to the Medical Disciplinary Board,
all
information |
indicating the identity of the patient shall be removed and
|
deleted. All
medical records and other information received |
pursuant to subpoena shall
be
confidential and shall be |
afforded the same status as is proved information
concerning |
medical studies in Part 21 of Article VIII of the Code of Civil
|
Procedure.
The
use of such records shall be restricted to |
members of the Medical
Disciplinary Board, the medical |
coordinators, and
appropriate staff of the Department |
designated
by the Medical Disciplinary Board for the
purpose |
of determining the existence of one or more grounds
for |
discipline of the physician as provided for by Section
22 of |
this Act. Any such review of individual patients'
records |
shall be conducted by the Medical Disciplinary Board in
strict |
confidentiality, provided that such patient records
shall be |
admissible in a disciplinary hearing, before the Medical
|
Disciplinary Board, when necessary to substantiate the
grounds |
for discipline alleged against the physician
licensed under |
this Act, and provided further, that nothing
herein shall be |
deemed to supersede the provisions of Part
21 of Article VIII |
|
of the " Code of Civil Procedure ", as now
or hereafter amended , |
to the extent applicable.
|
(c) The Secretary, hearing officer, and any member of the |
Medical Disciplinary Board
each have power to administer oaths |
at any hearing which the
Medical Disciplinary Board or |
Department is authorized by law to
conduct.
|
(d) The Medical Disciplinary Board, upon a determination |
that
probable cause exists that a violation of one or more of |
the
grounds for discipline listed in Section 22 has occurred |
or
is occurring on the business premises of a physician
|
licensed under this Act, may issue an order authorizing an
|
appropriately qualified investigator employed by the
|
Department to enter upon the business premises with due
|
consideration for patient care of the subject of the
|
investigation so as to inspect the physical premises and
|
equipment and furnishings therein. No such order shall
include |
the right of inspection of business, medical, or
personnel |
records located on the premises. For purposes of
this Section, |
"business premises" is defined as the office
or offices where |
the physician conducts the practice of
medicine. Any such |
order shall expire and become void five
business days after |
its issuance by the Medical Disciplinary Board.
The execution |
of any such order shall be valid only during
the normal |
business hours of the facility or office to be
inspected.
|
(Source: P.A. 101-316, eff. 8-9-19.)
|
|
(225 ILCS 60/39) (from Ch. 111, par. 4400-39)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
|
Sec. 39. Certified shorthand reporter; record. The |
Department, at its expense, shall
provide a certified |
shorthand reporter to take down the testimony and
preserve a |
record of all proceedings at the hearing of any
case wherein a |
license may be revoked, suspended, placed on
probationary |
status, or other disciplinary action taken with
regard thereto |
in accordance with Section 2105-115 of the Department of |
Professional Regulation Law of the Civil Administrative Code |
of Illinois. The notice of hearing, complaint and all
other |
documents in the nature of pleadings and written
motions filed |
in the proceedings, the transcript of
testimony, the report of |
the hearing officer, exhibits, the report of the Medical |
Board, and the orders
of the Department constitute the record |
of the proceedings.
|
(Source: P.A. 100-429, eff. 8-25-17; 101-316, eff. 8-9-19.)
|
(225 ILCS 60/40) (from Ch. 111, par. 4400-40)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
|
Sec. 40. Findings and recommendations; rehearing. |
(a) The Medical Disciplinary Board shall present to
the |
Secretary a written report of its findings and
|
recommendations. A copy of such report shall be served upon
|
the accused person, either personally or by mail or email. |
Within 20 days after such service, the
accused person may |
|
present to the Department his or her motion,
in writing, for a |
rehearing, which written motion shall
specify the particular |
ground therefor. If the accused
person orders and pays for a |
transcript of the record as
provided in Section 39, the time |
elapsing thereafter and
before such transcript is ready for |
delivery to them shall
not be counted as part of such 20 days.
|
(b) At the expiration of the time allowed for filing a
|
motion for rehearing, the Secretary may take the action
|
recommended by the Medical Disciplinary Board. Upon the |
suspension,
revocation, placement on probationary status, or |
the taking
of any other disciplinary action, including the |
limiting of
the scope, nature, or extent of one's practice, |
deemed
proper by the Department, with regard to the license or |
permit, the accused shall
surrender his or her license or |
permit to the Department, if ordered to do
so by the |
Department, and upon his or her failure or refusal so
to do, |
the Department may seize the same.
|
(c) Each order of revocation, suspension, or
other |
disciplinary action shall contain a brief, concise
statement |
of the ground or grounds upon which the
Department's action is |
based, as well as the specific terms
and conditions of such |
action. This document shall be
retained as a permanent record |
by the Department Disciplinary Board and
the Secretary .
|
(d) (Blank). The Department shall at least annually |
publish a list
of the names of all persons disciplined under |
this Act in
the preceding 12 months. Such lists shall be |
|
available by the
Department on its website.
|
(e) In those instances where an order of revocation,
|
suspension, or other disciplinary action has been rendered
by |
virtue of a physician's physical illness, including, but
not |
limited to, deterioration through the aging process, or
loss |
of motor skill which results in a physician's inability
to |
practice medicine with reasonable judgment, skill, or
safety, |
the Department shall only permit this document, and
the record |
of the hearing incident thereto, to be observed,
inspected, |
viewed, or copied pursuant to court order.
|
(Source: P.A. 101-316, eff. 8-9-19.)
|
(225 ILCS 60/41) (from Ch. 111, par. 4400-41)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
|
Sec. 41. Administrative review; certification of record. |
(a) All final
administrative decisions of the Department |
are subject to judicial review
pursuant to the Administrative |
Review Law and its rules. The term
"administrative decision" |
is defined as in Section 3-101 of the Code of Civil
Procedure.
|
(b) Proceedings for judicial review shall be commenced in |
the circuit court of
the county in which the party applying for |
review resides; but if the party is
not a resident of this |
State, the venue shall be in Sangamon County.
|
(c) The Department shall not be required to certify any |
record to the court, to
file an answer in court, or to |
otherwise appear in any court in a judicial review
proceeding |
|
unless and until the Department has received from the |
plaintiff payment of the costs of furnishing and
certifying |
the record, which costs shall be determined by the Department. |
Exhibits shall be certified without cost. Failure
on the part |
of the plaintiff to file a receipt in court shall be grounds |
for
dismissal of the action. During the pendency and hearing |
of any and all
judicial proceedings incident to the |
disciplinary action the sanctions imposed
upon the accused by |
the Department because of acts or omissions related to
the |
delivery of direct patient care as specified in the |
Department's final
administrative decision, shall as a matter |
of public policy remain in full
force and effect in order to |
protect the public pending final resolution of
any of the |
proceedings.
|
(Source: P.A. 97-622, eff. 11-23-11; 98-1140, eff. 12-30-14 .)
|
(225 ILCS 60/42) (from Ch. 111, par. 4400-42)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
|
Sec. 42.
An order of revocation, suspension,
placing the |
license on probationary status, or other formal
disciplinary |
action as the Department may deem proper, or a
certified copy |
thereof, over the seal of the Department and
purporting to be |
signed by the Secretary, is prima facie
proof that:
|
(a) Such signature is the genuine signature of the
|
Secretary;
|
(b) The Secretary is duly appointed and qualified; and
|
|
(c) The Medical Disciplinary Board and the members |
thereof are
qualified.
|
Such proof may be rebutted.
|
(Source: P.A. 97-622, eff. 11-23-11 .)
|
(225 ILCS 60/44) (from Ch. 111, par. 4400-44)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
|
Sec. 44.
None of the disciplinary functions, powers
and |
duties enumerated in this Act shall be exercised by the
|
Department except upon the action and report in writing of
the |
Medical Disciplinary Board.
|
In all instances, under this Act, in which the Medical
|
Disciplinary Board has rendered a recommendation to the
|
Secretary with respect to a particular physician, the
|
Secretary may take action contrary to the recommendation of |
the Medical Board. In shall, in the event that the Secretary he |
or she disagrees with
or takes action contrary to the |
recommendation of the Medical
Disciplinary Board, file with |
the Medical Disciplinary Board his or her specific written |
reasons of
disagreement with the Medical Disciplinary Board. |
Such reasons
shall be filed within 30 days of the occurrence of |
the
Secretary's contrary position having been taken.
|
The action and report in writing of a majority of the |
Medical
Disciplinary Board designated is sufficient authority |
upon
which the Secretary may act.
|
Whenever the Secretary is satisfied that substantial
|
|
justice has not been done either in an examination, or in a
|
formal disciplinary action, or refusal to restore a license,
|
he or she may order a reexamination or rehearing by the
same or |
other examiners .
|
(Source: P.A. 97-622, eff. 11-23-11 .)
|
(225 ILCS 60/47) (from Ch. 111, par. 4400-47)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
|
Sec. 47. Administrative Procedure Act. The Illinois |
Administrative
Procedure Act is hereby expressly adopted and |
incorporated herein as if all of
the provisions of that Act |
were included in this Act, except that the provision
of |
subsection (d) of Section 10-65 of the Illinois Administrative |
Procedure Act
that provides that at hearings the licensee has |
the right to show compliance
with all lawful requirements for |
retention, continuation or renewal of the
license is |
specifically excluded. For the purposes of this Act the notice
|
required under Section 10-25 of the Illinois Administrative |
Procedure Act is
deemed sufficient when mailed or emailed to |
the address of record of a party.
|
(Source: P.A. 97-622, eff. 11-23-11 .)
|
Section 25. The Boxing and Full-contact Martial Arts Act |
is amended by changing Sections 1, 2, 5, 6, 7, 8, 10, 11, 12, |
13, 15, 16, 17, 17.7, 17.8, 17.9, 18, 19, 19.1, 19.5, 20, 21, |
22, 23, 23.1, 24, 24.5, and 25.1 and by adding Sections 1.4 and |
|
2.5 as follows:
|
(225 ILCS 105/1) (from Ch. 111, par. 5001)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
|
Sec. 1. Short title and definitions.
|
(a) This Act may be cited as the Boxing and Full-contact |
Martial Arts Act.
|
(b) As used in this Act:
|
"Department" means the Department of Financial and
|
Professional Regulation.
|
"Secretary" means the Secretary
of Financial and |
Professional Regulation or a person authorized by the |
Secretary to act in the Secretary's stead .
|
"Board" means the State of Illinois Athletic Board
|
established pursuant to this Act .
|
"License" means the license issued for
promoters,
|
professionals, amateurs, or officials
in accordance with |
this Act.
|
" Contest Professional contest " means a
boxing or |
full-contact martial arts competition in which all of the |
participants competing against one another are |
professionals or amateurs and where the public is able to |
attend or a fee is charged.
|
"Permit" means the authorization from the Department |
to a
promoter
to conduct professional or amateur contests, |
or a combination of both.
|
|
"Promoter" means a person who is licensed and
who
|
holds a permit to conduct professional or amateur |
contests, or a combination of both.
|
Unless the context indicates otherwise, "person" |
includes, but is not limited to, an individual,
|
association, organization, business entity, gymnasium, or |
club.
|
"Judge" means a person licensed by the Department who |
is
located at ringside or adjacent to the fighting area
|
during a professional contest
and who has the |
responsibility of scoring the performance of the
|
participants in that professional or amateur contest.
|
"Referee" means a person licensed by the Department |
who
has the
general
supervision of
and is present inside |
of the ring or fighting area during a professional or |
amateur contest.
|
"Amateur" means a person licensed registered by the |
Department who is not competing for, and has never |
received or
competed for, any
purse or other
article of |
value, directly or indirectly, either for participating in |
any contest or for the
expenses of training therefor,
|
other than a non-monetary prize that does not exceed $50 |
in value.
|
"Professional" means a person licensed by the
|
Department who
competes for a
money prize, purse, or other |
type of compensation in a professional contest held in
|
|
Illinois.
|
"Second" means a person licensed by the Department who |
is
present at any professional or amateur
contest to |
provide assistance or advice to a professional during the |
contest.
|
"Matchmaker" means a person licensed by the Department |
who
brings
together professionals or amateurs to compete |
in
contests.
|
"Manager" means a person licensed by the Department |
who is
not a
promoter and
who, under contract, agreement, |
or other arrangement, undertakes
to, directly or
|
indirectly, control or administer the affairs of |
contestants professionals .
|
"Timekeeper" means a person licensed by the Department |
who
is the
official timer of
the length of rounds and the |
intervals between the rounds.
|
"Purse" means the financial guarantee or any other
|
remuneration for
which contestants
are participating in a |
professional contest.
|
"Physician" means a person licensed to practice |
medicine
in all its
branches under the Medical Practice |
Act of 1987.
|
"Martial arts" means a discipline or combination of |
different disciplines that utilizes sparring techniques |
without the intent to injure, disable, or incapacitate |
one's opponent, such as, but not limited to, Karate, Kung |
|
Fu, Judo, Jujutsu, and Tae Kwon Do , and Kyuki-Do . |
"Full-contact martial arts" means the use of a |
singular discipline or a combination of techniques from |
different disciplines of the martial arts, including, |
without limitation, full-force grappling, kicking, and |
striking with the intent to injure, disable, or |
incapacitate one's opponent.
|
"Amateur contest" means a boxing or full-contact |
martial arts competition in which all of the participants |
competing against one another are amateurs and where the |
public is able to attend or a fee is charged. |
"Contestant" means a person who competes in either a |
boxing or full-contact martial arts contest. |
"Address of record" means the designated address |
recorded by the Department in the applicant's or |
licensee's application file or , license file , or |
registration file as maintained by the Department's |
licensure maintenance unit. It is the duty of the |
applicant or licensee to inform the Department of any |
change of address and those changes must be made either |
through the Department's website or by contacting the |
Department. |
"Bout" means one match between 2 contestants. |
"Sanctioning body" means an organization approved by |
the Department under the requirements and standards stated |
in this Act and the rules adopted under this Act to act as |
|
a governing body that sanctions professional or amateur |
full-contact martial arts contests. |
"Email address of record" means the designated email |
address recorded by the Department in the applicant's |
application file or the licensee's license file as |
maintained by the Department's licensure maintenance unit. |
(Source: P.A. 96-663, eff. 8-25-09; 97-119, eff. 7-14-11; |
97-1123, eff. 8-27-12.)
|
(225 ILCS 105/1.4 new) |
Sec. 1.4. Address of record; email address of record. All |
applicants and licensees shall: |
(1) provide a valid address and email address to the |
Department, which shall serve as the address of record and |
email address of record, respectively, at the time of |
application for licensure or renewal of a license; and |
(2) inform the Department of any change of address of |
record or email address of record within 14 days after |
such change either through the Department's website or by |
contacting the Department's licensure maintenance unit.
|
(225 ILCS 105/2) (from Ch. 111, par. 5002)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
|
Sec. 2. State of Illinois Athletic Board. |
(a) The Secretary shall appoint members to the State of |
Illinois Athletic Board. The Board shall consist of 7 members |
|
who shall serve in an advisory capacity to the Secretary. |
There is
created the State of Illinois Athletic Board |
consisting
of 6 persons who shall be appointed by and shall |
serve in an advisory
capacity
to the Secretary, and the State |
Professional Boxing Board shall be disbanded. One member of |
the Board shall be a physician licensed to
practice medicine |
in all of its branches. One member of the Board shall be a |
member of the full-contact martial arts community . One and one |
member of the Board shall be a member of either the |
full-contact martial arts community or the boxing community. |
The Secretary shall appoint
each member to serve for a term of |
3 years and until
his or her successor is appointed and |
qualified.
One member of the board shall
be designated as the |
Chairperson and one member shall be designated as the
|
Vice-chairperson.
No member shall be appointed to the Board |
for a term which would cause
continuous service to be
more than |
9 years.
Each member of the board shall receive compensation |
for each day he or she is
engaged in transacting the business |
of
the board
and, in addition, shall be reimbursed for his or |
her authorized and
approved expenses necessarily incurred
in |
relation to such service in accordance with the travel |
regulations
applicable
to the Department at the time the |
expenses are incurred.
|
(b) Board members shall serve 5-year terms and until their |
successors are appointed and qualified. |
(c) In appointing members to the Board, the Secretary |
|
shall give due consideration to recommendations by members and |
organizations of the martial arts and boxing industry. |
(d) The membership of the Board should reasonably reflect |
representation from the geographic areas in this State. |
(e) No member shall be appointed to the Board for a term |
that would cause his or her continuous service on the Board to |
be longer than 2 consecutive 5-year terms. |
(f) The Secretary may terminate the appointment of any |
member for cause that in the opinion of the Secretary |
reasonably justified such termination, which may include, but |
is not limited to, a Board member who does not attend 2 |
consecutive meetings. |
(g) Appointments to fill vacancies shall be made in the |
same manner as original appointments, for the unexpired |
portion of the vacated term. |
(h) Four members of the Board shall constitute a quorum. A |
quorum is required for Board decisions. |
(i) Members of the Board shall have no liability in any |
action based upon activity performed in good faith as members |
of the Board. |
(j) Members of the Board may be reimbursed for all |
legitimate, necessary, and authorized expenses. |
Four members shall constitute a quorum.
|
The members of the Board shall be immune from suit in any |
action based upon
any disciplinary proceedings or other acts |
performed in good faith as members
of the Board.
|
|
The Secretary may remove any member of the Board for |
misconduct, incapacity,
or neglect of duty. The Secretary |
shall reduce to writing any causes for
removal.
|
(Source: P.A. 97-119, eff. 7-14-11.)
|
(225 ILCS 105/2.5 new) |
Sec. 2.5. Powers and duties of the Board. |
(a) Subject to the provisions of this Act, the Board shall |
exercise the following functions, powers, and duties: |
(1) The Board shall hold at least one meeting each |
year. |
(2) The Board shall elect a chairperson and a vice |
chairperson. |
(b) The Department may, at any time, seek the expert |
advice and knowledge of the Board on any matter relating to the |
enforcement of this Act.
|
(225 ILCS 105/5) (from Ch. 111, par. 5005)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
|
Sec. 5. Powers and duties of the Department. The |
Department shall, subject to the provisions of this Act, |
exercise the following functions, powers, and duties: |
(1) Ascertain the qualifications and fitness of |
applicants for license and permits. |
(2) Adopt rules required for the administration of |
this Act. |
|
(3) Conduct hearings on proceedings to refuse to |
issue, renew, or restore licenses and revoke, suspend, |
place on probation, or reprimand those licensed under the |
provisions of this Act. |
(4) Issue licenses to those who meet the |
qualifications of this Act and its rules. |
(5) Conduct investigations related to possible |
violations of this Act. |
The Department shall exercise, but subject to the provisions
|
of this Act, the following functions, powers, and duties: (a) |
to
ascertain the
qualifications and fitness of applicants for |
licenses and
permits; (b) to prescribe rules and regulations |
for the administration of
the
Act; (c) to conduct hearings on |
proceedings to refuse to issue, refuse to
renew,
revoke, |
suspend, or subject to reprimand licenses or permits
under |
this Act; and (d) to revoke, suspend, or refuse issuance or
|
renewal
of such
licenses or permits.
|
(Source: P.A. 92-499, eff. 1-1-02 .)
|
(225 ILCS 105/6) (from Ch. 111, par. 5006)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
|
Sec. 6. Restricted contests and events. |
(a) All professional and amateur contests, or a |
combination of both, in which
physical contact is made are |
prohibited in Illinois unless authorized by the Department |
pursuant to the requirements and standards stated in this Act |
|
and the rules adopted pursuant to this Act. This subsection |
(a) does not apply to any of the following: |
(1) Amateur boxing or full-contact martial arts |
contests conducted by accredited secondary schools, |
colleges, or universities, although a fee may be charged. |
(2) Amateur boxing contests that are sanctioned by USA |
Boxing or any other sanctioning organization approved by |
the Department as determined by rule Association of Boxing |
Commissions . |
(3) Amateur boxing or full-contact martial arts |
contests conducted by a State, county, or municipal |
entity , including those events held by any agency |
organized under these entities . |
(4) Amateur martial arts contests that are not defined |
as full-contact martial arts contests under this Act , |
including, but not limited to, Karate, Kung Fu, Judo, |
Jujutsu, Tae Kwon Do, and Kyuki-Do . |
(5) Full-contact martial arts
contests, as defined by |
this Act, that are recognized by
the International Olympic |
Committee or are contested in
the Olympic Games and are |
not conducted in an enclosed
fighting area or ring. |
No other amateur boxing or full-contact martial arts |
contests shall be permitted unless authorized by the |
Department. |
(b) The Department shall have the authority to determine |
whether a professional or amateur contest is exempt for |
|
purposes of this Section.
|
(Source: P.A. 96-663, eff. 8-25-09; 97-119, eff. 7-14-11; |
97-1123, eff. 8-27-12.)
|
(225 ILCS 105/7) (from Ch. 111, par. 5007)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
|
Sec. 7. Authorization to conduct contests; sanctioning |
bodies. |
(a) In order to conduct a professional contest or, |
beginning 6 months after the adoption of rules pertaining to |
an amateur contest , an amateur contest, or a combination of |
both,
in this State, a promoter shall obtain a permit issued by |
the Department
in accordance with this Act and the rules and |
regulations adopted pursuant
thereto. This permit shall |
authorize one or more professional or amateur contests, or a |
combination of both. |
(b) Before January 1, 2023, amateur Amateur full-contact |
martial arts contests must be registered and sanctioned by a |
sanctioning body approved by the Department for that purpose |
under the requirements and standards stated in this Act and |
the rules adopted under this Act. |
(c) On and after January 1, 2023, a promoter for an amateur |
full-contact martial arts contest shall obtain a permit issued |
by the Department under the requirements and standards set |
forth in this Act and the rules adopted under this Act. |
(d) On and after January 1, 2023, the Department shall not |
|
approve any sanctioning body. A sanctioning body's approval by |
the Department that was received before January 1, 2023 is |
withdrawn on January 1, 2023. |
(e) A permit issued under this Act is not transferable.
|
(Source: P.A. 96-663, eff. 8-25-09; 97-119, eff. 7-14-11.)
|
(225 ILCS 105/8) (from Ch. 111, par. 5008)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
|
Sec. 8. Permits.
|
(a) A promoter who desires to obtain a permit to conduct a |
professional or amateur
contest, or a combination of both, |
shall apply to the Department at least 30 calendar 20 days |
prior to the
event,
in writing or electronically , on forms |
prescribed furnished by the Department. The application shall
|
be accompanied by the required fee and shall
contain, but not |
be limited to, the following information to be submitted at |
times specified by rule:
|
(1) the legal names and addresses of the promoter;
|
(2) the name of the matchmaker;
|
(3) the time and exact location of the professional or |
amateur
contest, or a combination of both. It is the |
responsibility of the promoter to ensure that the building |
to be used for the event complies with all laws, |
ordinances, and regulations in the city, town, village, or |
county where the contest is to be held;
|
(4) the signed and executed copy of the event venue |
|
lease agreement; and proof of adequate security measures, |
as determined by Department rule, to ensure the protection |
of the
safety of contestants and the general public while |
attending professional or amateur contests, or a |
combination of both;
|
(5) proof of adequate medical supervision, as |
determined by Department rule, to ensure the protection of |
the health and safety of professionals' or amateurs' while |
participating in the contest;
|
(5) (6) the initial list of names of the professionals |
or amateurs competing subject to Department approval . ;
|
(7) proof of insurance for not less than $50,000 as |
further defined by rule for each professional or amateur
|
participating in a professional or amateur
contest, or a |
combination of both; insurance required under this |
paragraph (7) shall cover (i)
hospital, medication, |
physician, and other such expenses as would
accrue in the |
treatment of an injury as a result of the professional or |
amateur contest; (ii) payment to the estate of the |
professional or amateur in the event of
his or her death as |
a result
of his or her participation in the professional |
or amateur contest; and (iii) accidental death and |
dismemberment; the terms of the insurance coverage must |
not require the contestant to pay a deductible. The |
promoter may not carry an insurance policy with a |
deductible in an amount greater than $500 for the medical, |
|
surgical, or hospital care for injuries a contestant |
sustains while engaged in a contest, and if a licensed or |
registered contestant pays for the medical, surgical, or |
hospital care, the insurance proceeds must be paid to the |
contestant or his or her beneficiaries as reimbursement |
for such payment;
|
(8) the amount of the purses to be paid to the |
professionals for the event; the Department shall adopt |
rules for payment of the purses;
|
(9) organizational or internationally accepted rules, |
per discipline, for professional or amateur full-contact |
martial arts contests where the Department does not |
provide the rules; |
(10) proof of contract indicating the requisite |
registration and sanctioning by a Department approved |
sanctioning body for any full-contact martial arts contest |
with scheduled amateur bouts; and |
(11) any other information that the Department may |
require to determine whether a permit shall be issued. |
(b)
The Department may issue a permit to any promoter who |
meets the requirements of
this Act
and the rules. The permit |
shall only be issued for a specific date and location
of a |
professional or amateur contest, or a combination of both, and
|
shall not be transferable. The
Department may allow a promoter |
to amend a permit
application to hold a professional or |
amateur contest, or a combination of both, in a different
|
|
location other than the
application specifies if all |
requirements of this Section are met, waiving the 30-day |
provision of subsection (a) and may allow the promoter to |
substitute professionals or amateurs, respectively .
|
(c) The Department shall be responsible for assigning the |
judges,
timekeepers, referees, and physicians , for a |
professional contest , an amateur contest, or a combination of |
both . Compensation shall be determined by the Department, and |
it
shall be the responsibility of the promoter to pay the
|
individuals utilized.
|
(d) The promoter shall submit the following documents to |
the Department at times specified by rule: |
(1) proof of adequate security measures, as determined |
by rule, to ensure the protection of the safety of |
contestants and the general public while attending |
professional contests, amateur contests, or a combination |
of both; |
(2) proof of adequate medical supervision, as |
determined by rule, to ensure the protection of the health |
and safety of professionals or amateurs while |
participating in contests; |
(3) the complete and final list of names of the |
professionals or amateurs competing, subject to Department |
approval, which shall be submitted up to 48 hours prior to |
the event date specified in the permit; |
(4) proof of insurance for not less than $50,000 as |
|
further defined by rule for each professional or amateur |
participating in a professional or amateur contest, or a |
combination of both; insurance required under this |
paragraph shall cover: (i) hospital, medication, |
physician, and other such expenses as would accrue in the |
treatment of an injury as a result of the professional or |
amateur contest; (ii) payment to the estate of the |
professional or amateur in the event of his or her death as |
a result of his or her participation in the professional |
or amateur contest; and (iii) accidental death and |
dismemberment; the terms of the insurance coverage shall |
require the promoter, not the licensed contestant, to pay |
the policy deductible for the medical, surgical, or |
hospital care of a contestant for injuries a contestant |
sustained while engaged in a contest; if a licensed |
contestant pays for the medical, surgical, or hospital |
care, the insurance proceeds shall be paid to the |
contestant or his or her beneficiaries as reimbursement |
for such payment; |
(5) the amount of the purses to be paid to the |
professionals for the event as determined by rule; |
(6) organizational or internationally accepted rules, |
per discipline, for professional or amateur full-contact |
martial arts contests if the Department does not provide |
the rules for Department approval; and |
(7) any other information the Department may require, |
|
as determined by rule, to issue a permit. |
(e) If the accuracy, relevance, or sufficiency of any |
submitted documentation is questioned by the Department |
because of lack of information, discrepancies, or conflicts in |
information given or a need for clarification, the promoter |
seeking a permit may be required to provide additional |
information. |
(Source: P.A. 97-119, eff. 7-14-11; 98-756, eff. 7-16-14.)
|
(225 ILCS 105/10) (from Ch. 111, par. 5010)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
|
Sec. 10. Who must be licensed. |
(a) In order to participate in professional
contests the |
following persons
must each be licensed and in good standing |
with the Department: (a) professionals and amateurs ,
(b) |
seconds, (c) referees, (d) judges, (e) managers, (f)
|
matchmakers, and (g) timekeepers.
|
(b) In order to participate in professional or amateur |
contests or a combination of both, promoters must be licensed |
and in good standing with the Department. |
(c) Announcers may participate in professional or amateur |
contests, or a combination of both, without being licensed |
under this Act. It shall be the responsibility of
the promoter |
to ensure that announcers comply
with the Act, and all rules |
and regulations promulgated pursuant to this
Act.
|
(d) A licensed promoter may not act as, and cannot be |
|
licensed as, a second, professional, referee, timekeeper, |
judge, or manager. If he or she is so licensed, he
or she must |
relinquish any of these licenses to the Department for
|
cancellation.
A person possessing a valid
promoter's license |
may act as a matchmaker.
|
(e) Participants in amateur full-contact martial arts |
contests taking place before January 1, 2023 are not required |
to obtain licenses by the Department, except for promoters of |
amateur contests. |
(Source: P.A. 97-119, eff. 7-14-11.)
|
(225 ILCS 105/11) (from Ch. 111, par. 5011)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
|
Sec. 11. Qualifications for license. The Department shall |
grant
licenses to the following persons
if the following |
qualifications are met:
|
(1) An applicant for licensure as a professional or |
amateur must:
(1) be 18 years old, (2) be of good moral |
character, (3) file an application
stating
the applicant's |
legal name (and no assumed or ring name may be used
unless |
such name is registered with the Department along with the |
applicant's
legal name), date and place of birth, place of |
current residence, and a
sworn statement that he or she is |
not currently in violation of any federal, State or
local |
laws or rules governing
boxing or full-contact martial |
arts, (4) file a certificate from a physician licensed to |
|
practice medicine
in all of its branches which attests |
that the applicant is physically fit
and qualified to |
participate in professional or amateur contests, and (5) |
pay
the required fee
and meet any other requirements as |
determined by rule .
Applicants over age 35 who have not |
competed in a professional or amateur contest within the
|
12 last 36
months preceding their application for |
licensure or have insufficient experience to participate |
in a professional or amateur contest may be required to |
appear before the Department to determine their fitness to
|
participate in a professional or amateur contest. A |
picture identification card shall be issued to
all |
professionals
licensed by the Department
who are residents |
of
Illinois or who are residents of any jurisdiction, |
state, or country that does
not regulate professional |
boxing or full-contact martial arts. The identification |
card shall be
presented to the
Department or its |
representative upon request at weigh-ins.
|
(2) An applicant for licensure as a referee, judge,
|
manager, second, matchmaker, or timekeeper must: (1) be of |
good
moral character, (2) file
an application stating the |
applicant's name, date and place of birth, and
place of |
current residence along with a certifying statement that
|
he or she is not
currently in violation of any federal, |
State, or local laws or rules
governing
boxing, or |
full-contact martial arts, (3) have had satisfactory |
|
experience in his or her field as defined by rule , (4) pay |
the
required fee, and (5) meet any other requirements as |
determined by rule.
|
(3) An applicant for licensure as a promoter must: (1) |
be of good
moral character, (2) file an application with |
the Department stating the
applicant's name, date and |
place of birth, place of current residence along
with
a |
certifying statement that he or she is not currently in |
violation of any federal,
State, or local laws or rules |
governing boxing or full-contact martial arts, (3) pay the |
required fee and meet any other requirements as |
established by rule,
and (4) in addition to the foregoing, |
an applicant for licensure as a promoter of professional |
or amateur contests or a combination of both professional |
and amateur bouts in one contest shall also provide (i) |
proof of a surety bond of no less than $5,000 to cover |
financial obligations under this Act, payable to the |
Department and conditioned for the payment of the tax |
imposed by this Act and compliance with this Act, and the |
rules adopted under this Act, and (ii) a financial |
statement, prepared by a certified public accountant,
|
showing
liquid working capital of $10,000 or more, or a |
$10,000 performance bond
guaranteeing payment of all |
obligations relating to the promotional activities payable |
to the Department and conditioned for the payment of the |
tax imposed by this Act and its rules .
|
|
(4) All applicants shall submit an application to the |
Department, in writing or electronically , on forms |
prescribed provided by the Department, containing such |
information as determined by rule. |
In determining good moral character, the Department may |
take into
consideration any violation of any of the provisions |
of Section 16 of this
Act as to referees, judges, managers, |
matchmakers, timekeepers, or promoters and any felony |
conviction of the applicant, but such a conviction shall
not
|
operate as a bar to licensure. No license issued under this Act |
is
transferable.
|
The Department may issue temporary licenses as provided
by |
rule.
|
(Source: P.A. 96-663, eff. 8-25-09; 97-119, eff. 7-14-11.)
|
(225 ILCS 105/12) (from Ch. 111, par. 5012)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
|
Sec. 12. Professional or amateur contests. |
(a) The professional or amateur contest, or a combination |
of both,
shall be held in an area where adequate neurosurgical
|
facilities are immediately available for skilled emergency
|
treatment of an injured professional or amateur. |
(b) Each professional or amateur shall be examined before |
the contest
and promptly after each bout by a physician. The |
physician
shall determine, prior to
the contest, if each |
professional or amateur is physically fit to compete in the |
|
contest.
After the bout the physician shall examine the |
professional or amateur to
determine
possible injury. If the |
professional's or amateur's physical condition so indicates, |
the
physician shall recommend to the Department immediate |
medical suspension. The physician or a licensed paramedic must |
check the vital signs of all contestants as established by |
rule. |
(c)
The physician may, at any time during the professional |
or amateur bout, stop the professional or amateur bout to
|
examine a professional or amateur contestant and may direct |
the referee to terminate the bout when, in the physician's |
opinion,
continuing the bout could result in serious injury to |
the professional or amateur. If the professional's or |
amateur's physical condition so indicates, the physician shall |
recommend to the Department immediate medical suspension. The
|
physician shall certify to the condition of the professional |
or amateur in writing, over
his or her signature on forms |
prescribed provided by the Department. Such reports shall
be |
submitted to the Department in a timely manner.
|
(d) No professional or amateur contest, or a combination |
of
both, shall be allowed to begin or be held unless
at least |
one physician, at least one EMT and one paramedic, and one |
ambulance have been contracted
with solely for the care of |
professionals or amateurs who are competing as defined by |
rule.
|
(e) No professional boxing bout shall be more than 12 |
|
rounds in length. The rounds
shall not
be more than 3 minutes |
each with a minimum one-minute one minute interval between |
them, and
no professional boxer shall be allowed to |
participate in more than one contest within a 7-day period. |
The number and length of rounds for all other professional |
or amateur boxing or full-contact martial
arts contests, or a |
combination of both, shall be determined by rule. |
(f) The number and types of officials required for each |
professional or amateur contest, or a combination of both, |
shall be determined by rule.
|
(g) The Department or its representative shall have
|
discretion to declare
a price, remuneration,
or purse or any |
part of it belonging to the professional withheld if in the
|
judgment of the Department or its representative the |
professional
is not honestly competing. |
(h)
The Department shall have the authority to prevent a |
professional or amateur contest, or a combination of
both,
|
from being held and shall have the authority to stop a |
professional or amateur contest, or a combination of
both, for |
noncompliance
with any part of this Act or rules or when, in |
the judgment of the Department,
or its representative, |
continuation of the event would endanger the health,
safety, |
and welfare of the professionals or amateurs or spectators. |
The Department's authority to stop a contest on the basis that |
the professional or amateur contest, or a combination of
both, |
would endanger the health, safety, and welfare of the |
|
professionals or amateurs or spectators shall extend to any |
professional or amateur contest, or a combination of
both, |
regardless of whether that amateur contest is exempted from |
the prohibition in Section 6 of this Act. Department staff, or |
its representative, may be present at any full-contact martial |
arts contest with scheduled amateur bouts. |
(i) A professional shall only compete against another |
professional. An amateur shall only compete against another |
amateur.
|
(Source: P.A. 97-119, eff. 7-14-11; 98-973, eff. 8-15-14.)
|
(225 ILCS 105/13) (from Ch. 111, par. 5013)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
|
Sec. 13. Tickets; tax. Tickets to professional or amateur |
contests, or a combination of
both, shall be printed in such |
form as
the Department shall prescribe. A certified inventory |
of all
tickets printed
for any professional or amateur |
contest, or a combination of
both, shall be mailed to the |
Department by the
promoter
not less
than 7 days before the |
contest. The total number of
tickets sold
printed shall not |
exceed the total seating capacity of the premises in which
the |
professional or amateur contest, or a combination of
both, is |
to be held. No tickets of admission to any professional or |
amateur
contest, or a combination of
both,
shall be sold |
except those declared on an
official ticket inventory as |
described in this Section.
|
|
A promoter who conducts a professional contest, an amateur |
contest, or a combination of both a professional and amateur |
contest under this
Act shall, within 7 business days 24 hours |
after such a contest: |
(1)
furnish to the Department a written or electronic |
report verified by the promoter or his
or her authorized |
designee showing the number of tickets sold for such a
|
contest or the
actual ticket stubs of tickets sold and the
|
amount of the gross proceeds thereof; and |
(2) pay to the Department a tax
of 5% of gross receipts
|
from the sale of admission tickets, not to exceed $75,000 |
$52,500 , to be collected by the Department and placed in |
the General Professions Dedicated Athletics Supervision |
and Regulation Fund , a special fund created in the State |
Treasury to be administered by the Department . |
Moneys in the General Professions Dedicated Athletics |
Supervision and Regulation Fund shall be used by the |
Department, subject to appropriation, for expenses incurred in |
administering this Act. Moneys in the Fund may be transferred |
to the Professions Indirect Cost Fund, as authorized under |
Section 2105-300 of the Department of Professional Regulation |
Law.
|
In addition to the payment of any other taxes and money due
|
under this Section, every promoter of a professional or a |
combination of a professional and amateur contest shall pay to |
the Department
3% of the first $500,000 and 4% thereafter, |
|
which shall not exceed $50,000 $35,000 in total from the
total |
gross receipts from the sale, lease, or other exploitation of |
broadcasting, including, but not limited to,
Internet, cable, |
television, and motion picture rights for that
professional |
contest, amateur contest, or professional and amateur |
combination of both, contest or exhibition without any
|
deductions for commissions, brokerage fees, distribution fees, |
advertising, professional contestants' purses, or any other
|
expenses or charges. These fees shall be paid to the
|
Department within 7 business days 72 hours after the |
conclusion of the broadcast of the contest and placed in the |
General Professions Dedicated Athletics Supervision and |
Regulation Fund. |
(Source: P.A. 97-119, eff. 7-14-11; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12.)
|
(225 ILCS 105/15) (from Ch. 111, par. 5015)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
|
Sec. 15. Inspectors. The Secretary may appoint
inspectors |
to
assist the Department staff in the administration of the |
Act.
Each inspector appointed
by the
Secretary shall receive
|
compensation
for each day he or she is engaged in the |
transacting of
business of the Department.
Each inspector |
shall carry a card issued by the Department to authorize
him or |
her to act in such capacity. The inspector or inspectors shall
|
supervise
each professional contest , amateur contest, or |
combination of both and, at the
Department's discretion, may |
|
supervise any contest to ensure that the provisions of the Act |
are
strictly enforced.
|
(Source: P.A. 97-119, eff. 7-14-11.)
|
(225 ILCS 105/16) (from Ch. 111, par. 5016)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
|
Sec. 16. Discipline and sanctions.
|
(a) The Department may refuse to issue a
permit or , |
license , or registration, refuse to renew, suspend, revoke,
|
reprimand, place on
probation, or take such other disciplinary |
or non-disciplinary action as the Department may
deem proper, |
including the imposition of fines not to exceed $10,000 for
|
each violation, with regard to any permit or , license , or |
registration for one
or
any combination of the following |
reasons:
|
(1) gambling, betting, or wagering on the result of or |
a
contingency connected
with a professional or amateur |
contest, or a combination of
both, or permitting such |
activity to
take place;
|
(2) participating in or permitting a sham or fake |
professional or amateur
contest, or a combination of
both;
|
(3) holding the professional or amateur contest, or a |
combination of
both, at any other time or
place than
is |
stated
on the permit application;
|
(4) permitting any professional or amateur other than |
those
stated on the
permit application to participate in a |
|
professional or amateur
contest, or a combination of
both, |
except as provided
in Section 9;
|
(5) violation or aiding in the violation of any of the
|
provisions of this
Act or any rules or regulations |
promulgated thereto;
|
(6) violation of any federal, State or local laws of |
the
United States or other jurisdiction governing |
professional or amateur
contests or any regulation
|
promulgated pursuant thereto;
|
(7) charging a greater rate or rates of admission than |
is
specified on the permit application;
|
(8) failure to obtain all the necessary permits ,
|
registrations, or licenses as required under this Act;
|
(9) failure to file the necessary bond or to pay the |
gross
receipts or broadcast
tax as required by this Act;
|
(10) engaging in dishonorable, unethical or |
unprofessional
conduct
of a character likely to deceive, |
defraud or harm the public, or which
is detrimental to |
honestly conducted contests;
|
(11) employment of fraud, deception or any unlawful |
means in
applying
for or securing a permit or license |
under this
Act;
|
(12) permitting a physician making the physical |
examination
to
knowingly certify falsely to the physical |
condition of a professional or amateur;
|
(13) permitting professionals or amateurs of widely |
|
disparate weights or
abilities
to engage in professional |
or amateur contests, respectively;
|
(14) participating in a professional contest as a |
professional
while under medical suspension in this State |
or
in
any other
state, territory or country;
|
(15) physical illness, including, but not limited to,
|
deterioration
through the aging process, or loss of motor |
skills which results in the
inability to participate in |
contests with
reasonable judgment,
skill, or safety;
|
(16) allowing one's license or permit issued
under
|
this Act to be used by another person;
|
(17) failing, within a reasonable time, to provide any
|
information
requested by the Department as a result of a |
formal or informal
complaint;
|
(18) professional incompetence;
|
(19) failure to file a return, or to pay the tax, |
penalty or
interest
shown in a filed return, or to pay any |
final assessment of tax, penalty or
interest, as required |
by any tax Act administered by the Illinois
Department of |
Revenue, until such time as the requirements of any such |
tax
Act are satisfied;
|
(20) (blank);
|
(21) habitual or excessive use or addiction to |
alcohol, narcotics,
stimulants, or any other
chemical |
agent or drug that results in an inability to participate |
in an
event;
|
|
(22) failure to stop a professional or amateur |
contest, or a combination of
both, when requested to do so |
by
the Department;
|
(23) failure of a promoter to adequately supervise and
|
enforce this Act and its rules as applicable to amateur
|
contests, as set forth in rule; or |
(24) a finding by the Department that the licensee, |
after
having his or her license placed on probationary |
status,
has violated the terms of probation. |
(b) The determination by a circuit court that a licensee |
is subject to
involuntary admission or
judicial admission as |
provided in the Mental Health and Developmental
Disabilities |
Code operates as
an automatic suspension. The suspension will |
end only upon a finding by a court
that the licensee is no
|
longer subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission, |
issuance of an
order so finding and
discharging the licensee.
|
(c) In enforcing this Section, the Department, upon a |
showing of a possible
violation,
may compel any
individual |
licensed to practice under this Act, or who has
applied for |
licensure pursuant to this Act, to submit to a mental or |
physical
examination, or both, as required
by and at the |
expense of the Department. The examining physicians or |
clinical
psychologists shall be
those specifically designated |
by the Department. The Department may
order the examining
|
physician or clinical psychologist to present testimony |
concerning this mental
or physical examination
of the licensee |
|
or applicant. No information shall be excluded
by
reason of |
any common
law or statutory privilege relating to |
communications between the licensee or applicant
and the |
examining physician or clinical psychologist. Eye examinations |
may be
provided by a physician licensed to practice medicine |
in all of its branches or a
licensed and certified therapeutic |
optometrist. The individual to be examined
may have, at his or |
her
own expense, another physician of his or her choice |
present during all aspects
of the examination.
Failure of any |
individual to submit to a mental or physical examination, when
|
directed, shall be
grounds for suspension or revocation of a |
license.
|
(d) A contestant who tests positive for a banned |
substance, as defined by rule, shall have his or her license |
immediately suspended. The license shall be subject to other |
discipline as authorized in this Section. |
(Source: P.A. 96-663, eff. 8-25-09; 97-119, eff. 7-14-11.)
|
(225 ILCS 105/17) (from Ch. 111, par. 5017)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
|
Sec. 17. Administrative Procedure Act. The Illinois |
Administrative
Procedure Act is hereby expressly adopted and |
incorporated herein as if all of
the provisions of that Act |
were included in this Act. The Department shall not be |
required to annually verify email addresses as specified in |
paragraph (2) subsection (a) of Section 10-75 of the Illinois |
|
Administrative Procedure Act. For the purposes of this
Act the |
notice required under Section 10-25 of the Illinois |
Administrative Procedure Act
is deemed sufficient when mailed |
to the last known address of record or emailed to the email |
address of record a party .
|
(Source: P.A. 88-45 .)
|
(225 ILCS 105/17.7)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
|
Sec. 17.7. Restoration of license from discipline. |
(a) At any time after the successful completion of a term |
of indefinite probation, suspension, or revocation of a |
license under this Act, the Department may restore the license |
to the licensee unless, after an investigation and a hearing, |
the Secretary determines that restoration is not in the public |
interest. |
(b) If circumstances of suspension or revocation so |
indicate, the Department may require an examination of the |
licensee prior to restoring his or her license. |
(c) No person whose license has been revoked as authorized |
in this Act may apply for restoration of that license until |
allowed under the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois. |
(d) A license that has been suspended or revoked shall be |
considered nonrenewed for purposes of restoration under this |
Section and a licensee restoring his or her license from |
suspension or revocation must comply with the requirements for |
|
renewal as set forth in this Act and its rules. |
At any time after the
successful completion of a term of |
indefinite probation,
suspension, or revocation of a license, |
the Department may
restore the license to the licensee, unless |
after an
investigation and hearing the Secretary determines |
that
restoration is not in the public interest. No person or
|
entity whose license, certificate, or authority has been
|
revoked as authorized in this Act may apply for restoration of
|
that license, certification, or authority until such time as
|
provided for in the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois.
|
(Source: P.A. 97-119, eff. 7-14-11.)
|
(225 ILCS 105/17.8)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
|
Sec. 17.8. Surrender of license. Upon the revocation or
|
suspension of a
license or registration , the licensee
shall |
immediately surrender his or her license to the
Department. If |
the
licensee fails to do so, the
Department has the right to |
seize the license.
|
(Source: P.A. 91-408, eff. 1-1-00; 92-499, eff. 1-1-02 .)
|
(225 ILCS 105/17.9)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
|
Sec. 17.9. Summary suspension of a license or |
registration . The Secretary
may summarily
suspend a license or |
registration without a hearing if the Secretary finds that |
|
evidence in
the
Secretary's possession
indicates that the |
continuation of practice would constitute an imminent
danger |
to the public, participants, including any professional |
contest officials, or the
individual involved or cause harm to |
the profession. If the Secretary summarily suspends the
|
license
without a hearing, a hearing must be commenced within |
30 days after the
suspension has occurred
and concluded as |
expeditiously as practical.
|
(Source: P.A. 97-119, eff. 7-14-11.)
|
(225 ILCS 105/18) (from Ch. 111, par. 5018)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
|
Sec. 18. Investigations; notice and hearing. |
(a) The Department may investigate the actions of any |
applicant or of any person or entity holding or claiming to |
hold a license under this Act. |
(b) The Department shall, before disciplining an applicant |
or licensee, at least 30 days prior to the date set for the |
hearing: (i) notify, in writing, the accused of the charges |
made and the time and place for the hearing on the charges; |
(ii) direct him or her to file a written answer to the charges, |
under oath, within 20 days after service of the notice; and |
(iii) inform the applicant or licensee that failure to file an |
answer will result in a default being entered against the |
applicant or licensee. |
(c) Written or electronic notice, and any notice in the |
|
subsequent proceedings, may be served by personal delivery, by |
email, or by mail to the applicant or licensee at his or her |
address of record or email address of record. |
(d) At the time and place fixed in the notice, the hearing |
officer appointed by the Secretary shall proceed to hear the |
charges, and the parties or their counsel shall be accorded |
ample opportunity to present any statement, testimony, |
evidence, and argument as may be pertinent to the charges or to |
their defense. The hearing officer may continue the hearing |
from time to time. |
(e) If the licensee or applicant, after receiving the |
notice, fails to file an answer, his or her license may, in the |
discretion of the Secretary, be suspended, revoked, or placed |
on probationary status or be subject to whatever disciplinary |
action the Secretary considers proper, including limiting the |
scope, nature, or extent of the person's practice or |
imposition of a fine, without hearing, if the act or acts |
charged constitute sufficient grounds for the action under |
this Act. |
The Department may investigate the
actions
of any applicant or |
of
any person or persons promoting or participating in a |
professional or amateur contest
or
any person holding or
|
claiming to hold a license. The Department shall, before
|
revoking, suspending,
placing on probation,
reprimanding, or |
taking any other disciplinary action under this Act, at least
|
30 days before the date
set for the hearing, (i) notify the |
|
accused in writing of the charges made and
the time and place |
for
the hearing on the charges, (ii) direct him or her to file |
a written answer to
the charges with the Department
under oath |
within 20 days after the service on him or her of the notice, |
and
(iii) inform the accused
that, if he or she fails to |
answer, default will be taken against him or her or
that his or |
her license may
be suspended, revoked, or placed on |
probationary status or that other
disciplinary action may be |
taken with regard
to the license, including limiting the |
scope, nature, or
extent
of his or her
practice, as the |
Department
may consider proper. At the time and place fixed in |
the notice, the hearing officer shall
proceed to hear the
|
charges, and the parties or their counsel shall be accorded |
ample opportunity
to present any pertinent
statements, |
testimony, evidence, and arguments. The hearing officer may |
continue the
hearing from time to
time. In case the person, |
after receiving the notice, fails to file an answer,
his or her |
license may, in
the discretion of the Department, be |
suspended, revoked, or placed on
probationary status or the
|
Department may take whatever disciplinary action considered |
proper, including
limiting the scope,
nature, or extent of the |
person's practice or the imposition of a fine, without
a |
hearing, if the act or
acts charged constitute sufficient |
grounds for that action under this Act. The
written notice may |
be
served by personal delivery or by certified mail to the |
person's address of record.
|
|
(Source: P.A. 97-119, eff. 7-14-11.)
|
(225 ILCS 105/19) (from Ch. 111, par. 5019)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
|
Sec. 19. Hearing; Motion for rehearing Findings and |
recommendations . |
(a) The hearing officer appointed by the Secretary shall |
hear evidence in support of the formal charges and evidence |
produced by the applicant or licensee. At the conclusion of |
the hearing, the hearing officer shall present to the |
Secretary a written report of his or her findings of fact, |
conclusions of law, and recommendations. |
(b) A copy of the hearing officer's report shall be served |
upon the applicant or licensee, either personally or as |
provided in this Act for the service of the notice of hearing. |
Within 20 calendar days after such service, the applicant or |
licensee may present to the Department a motion, in writing, |
for a rehearing that shall specify the particular grounds for |
rehearing. The Department may respond to the motion for |
rehearing within 20 calendar days after its service on the |
Department. If no motion for rehearing is filed, then upon the |
expiration of the time specified for filing such a motion, or |
upon denial of a motion for rehearing, the Secretary may enter |
an order in accordance with the recommendations of the hearing |
officer. If the applicant or licensee orders from the |
reporting service and pays for a transcript of the record |
|
within the time for filing a motion for rehearing, the 20 |
calendar day period within which a motion may be filed shall |
commence upon delivery of the transcript to the applicant or |
licensee. |
(c) If the Secretary disagrees in any regard with the |
report of the hearing officer, the Secretary may issue an |
order contrary to the report. |
(d) Whenever the Secretary is not satisfied that |
substantial justice has been done, the Secretary may order a |
hearing by the same or another hearing officer. |
(e) At any point in any investigation or disciplinary |
proceeding provided for in this Act, both parties may agree to |
a negotiated consent order. The consent order shall be final |
upon signature of the Secretary. |
At the conclusion of the hearing, the hearing officer
shall |
present to the
Secretary a written report of its findings, |
conclusions of law, and
recommendations. The report shall
|
contain a finding of whether the accused person violated this |
Act or its
rules or failed to comply
with the conditions |
required in this Act or its rules. The hearing officer shall |
specify
the nature of any
violations or failure to comply and |
shall make its recommendations to the
Secretary. In making
|
recommendations for any disciplinary actions, the hearing |
officer may take into
consideration all facts and
|
circumstances bearing upon the reasonableness of the conduct |
of the accused and
the potential for future harm to the public |
|
including, but not limited to,
previous discipline of the |
accused by the Department, intent, degree of harm to
the |
public and likelihood of harm in the future, any restitution |
made by the
accused, and whether the incident or incidents |
contained in the complaint
appear to be isolated or represent |
a continuing pattern of conduct. In making
its recommendations |
for discipline,
the hearing officer shall endeavor to ensure |
that the severity of the discipline
recommended is reasonably |
related to the severity of the violation.
|
The report of findings of fact, conclusions of law, and |
recommendation of the hearing officer
shall be
the basis for |
the Department's order refusing to issue, restore, or renew a
|
license, or otherwise
disciplining a licensee. If the |
Secretary disagrees with the
recommendations of the hearing |
officer, the Secretary
may issue an order in contravention of |
the hearing officer's recommendations. The finding is not |
admissible in evidence against the person in a
criminal |
prosecution
brought for a violation of this Act, but the |
hearing and finding are not a bar
to a criminal prosecution
|
brought for a violation of this Act.
|
(Source: P.A. 97-119, eff. 7-14-11.)
|
(225 ILCS 105/19.1) (from Ch. 111, par. 5019.1)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
|
Sec. 19.1. Hearing officer Appointment of a hearing |
officer . Notwithstanding any provision of this Act, the |
|
Secretary has the authority to appoint an attorney duly |
licensed to practice law in the State of Illinois to serve as |
the hearing officer in any action for refusal to issue or renew |
a license or discipline a license. The hearing officer shall |
have full authority to conduct the hearing. The hearing |
officer shall report his or her findings of fact, conclusions |
of law, and recommendations to the Secretary The Secretary has
|
the authority to appoint any attorney duly licensed to |
practice law in the
State of Illinois to serve as the hearing |
officer in any action for refusal
to issue, restore, or renew a |
license or
discipline of
a licensee. The hearing officer has
|
full authority to
conduct the hearing. The hearing officer |
shall report his or her findings
of fact,
conclusions of law, |
and
recommendations to the Secretary. If the Secretary |
determines that the hearing officer's report is
contrary to |
the manifest weight of the evidence, he may issue an order in
|
contravention of the recommendation .
|
(Source: P.A. 97-119, eff. 7-14-11.)
|
(225 ILCS 105/19.5)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
|
Sec. 19.5. Order or certified copy; prima facie proof. An |
order or
certified copy thereof, over
the seal of the |
Department and purporting to be signed by the Secretary, is
|
prima facie proof that:
|
(1) the signature is the genuine signature of the |
|
Secretary; and
|
(2) the Secretary is duly appointed and qualified ; |
and .
|
(3) the hearing officer is qualified to act. |
(Source: P.A. 97-119, eff. 7-14-11.)
|
(225 ILCS 105/20) (from Ch. 111, par. 5020)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
|
Sec. 20. Record of proceeding Stenographer; transcript . |
(a) The Department, at its expense, shall provide a |
certified shorthand reporter to take down the testimony and |
preserve a record of all proceedings at the hearing of any case |
in which a licensee may be revoked, suspended, placed on |
probationary status, reprimanded, fined, or subjected to other |
disciplinary action with reference to the license when a |
disciplinary action is authorized under this Act and rules. |
The notice of hearing, complaint, and all other documents in |
the nature of pleadings and written portions filed in the |
proceedings, the transcript of the testimony, the report of |
the hearing officer, and the orders of the Department shall be |
the record of the proceedings. The record may be made |
available to any person interested in the hearing upon payment |
of the fee required by Section 2105-115 of the Department of |
Professional Regulation Law of the Civil Administrative Code |
of Illinois. |
(b) The Department may contract for court reporting |
|
services, and, if it does so, the Department shall provide the |
name and contact information for the certified shorthand |
reporter who transcribed the testimony at a hearing to any |
person interested, who may obtain a copy of the transcript of |
any proceedings at a hearing upon payment of the fee specified |
by the certified shorthand reporter. |
The Department, at its expense,
shall provide a stenographer
|
to take down the testimony and preserve a record of all |
proceedings at
the hearing of any case wherein a license or |
permit is subjected to
disciplinary action. The notice of |
hearing, complaint and all other
documents in the nature of |
pleadings and written motions filed in the
proceedings, the |
transcript of testimony, the report of the hearing officer and |
the
orders of the Department shall be the record of the |
proceedings.
The
Department shall furnish a transcript of the |
record to any person
interested in the hearing upon payment of |
the fee required under
Section
2105-115 of the Department of |
Professional Regulation Law (20 ILCS
2105/2105-115).
|
(Source: P.A. 97-119, eff. 7-14-11.)
|
(225 ILCS 105/21) (from Ch. 111, par. 5021)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
|
Sec. 21. Injunctive action; cease and desist order.
|
(a) If a person violates the provisions of this Act, the |
Secretary Director , in the
name of the People of
the State of |
Illinois, through the Attorney General or the State's Attorney |
|
of
the county in which the
violation is alleged to have |
occurred, may petition for an order enjoining the
violation or |
for an order
enforcing compliance with this Act. Upon the |
filing of a verified petition, the
court with appropriate
|
jurisdiction may issue a temporary restraining order, without |
notice or bond,
and may preliminarily
and permanently enjoin |
the violation. If it is established that the person has
|
violated or is violating the
injunction, the court may punish |
the offender for contempt of court.
Proceedings under this |
Section
are in addition to, and not in lieu of, all other |
remedies and penalties
provided by this Act.
|
(b) Whenever, in the opinion of the Department, a person |
violates any
provision of this Act, the
Department may issue a |
rule to show cause why an order to cease and desist
should not |
be entered
against that person. The rule shall clearly set |
forth the grounds relied upon
by the Department and
shall |
allow at least 7 days from the date of the rule to file an |
answer
satisfactory to the Department.
Failure to answer to |
the satisfaction of the Department shall cause an order to
|
cease and desist to be
issued.
|
(Source: P.A. 91-408, eff. 1-1-00 .)
|
(225 ILCS 105/22) (from Ch. 111, par. 5022)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
|
Sec. 22.
The expiration date and renewal period for each |
license
issued under this Act shall be set by rule. The holder |
|
of a license
may renew such license during the month preceding |
the expiration date
thereof by paying the required fee and |
meeting additional requirements as determined by rule .
|
(Source: P.A. 82-522 .)
|
(225 ILCS 105/23) (from Ch. 111, par. 5023)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
|
Sec. 23. Fees. |
(a) The fees for the administration and enforcement of
|
this Act including, but not limited to, original licensure, |
renewal, and
restoration shall be set by rule. The fees shall |
not be refundable. All
Beginning July 1, 2003, all of the fees, |
taxes, and fines collected under
this Act shall be deposited |
into the General Professions Dedicated Fund.
|
(b) Before January 1, 2023, there shall be no fees for |
amateur full-contact martial arts events; except that until |
January 1, 2023, the applicant fees for promoters of amateur |
events where only amateur bouts are held shall be $300. |
(Source: P.A. 92-16, eff. 6-28-01;
92-499, eff. 1-1-02; 93-32, |
eff. 7-1-03 .)
|
(225 ILCS 105/23.1) (from Ch. 111, par. 5023.1)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
|
Sec. 23.1. Returned checks; fines. Any person who delivers |
a check or other
payment to the Department that is returned to |
the Department unpaid by the
financial institution upon which |
|
it is drawn shall pay to the Department, in
addition to the |
amount already owed to the Department, a fine of $50. The
fines |
imposed by this Section are in addition to any other |
discipline provided
under this Act for unlicensed practice or |
practice on a nonrenewed license.
The Department shall notify |
the person that payment of fees and fines shall be
paid to the |
Department by certified check or money order within 30 |
calendar
days of the notification. If, after the expiration of |
30 days from the date of
the notification, the person has |
failed to submit the necessary remittance,
the Department |
shall automatically terminate the license or deny the
|
application, without hearing. If, after termination or denial, |
the person
seeks a license, he or she shall apply to the |
Department for restoration or
issuance of the license and pay |
all fees and fines due to the Department.
The Department may |
establish a fee for the processing of an application for
|
restoration of a license to pay all expenses of processing |
this application.
The Secretary Director may waive the fines |
due under this Section in individual cases
where the Secretary |
Director finds that the fines would be unreasonable or |
unnecessarily
burdensome.
|
(Source: P.A. 92-146, eff. 1-1-02; 92-499, eff. 1-1-02 .)
|
(225 ILCS 105/24) (from Ch. 111, par. 5024)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
|
Sec. 24. Unlicensed practice; violations; civil penalty. |
|
(a) Any person who practices, offers to practice, attempts |
to practice, or holds himself or herself out as being able to |
engage in practices requiring a license under this Act without |
being licensed or exempt under this Act shall, in addition to |
any other penalty provided by law, pay a civil penalty to the |
Department in an amount not to exceed $10,000 for each |
offense, as determined by the Department. The civil penalty |
shall be assessed by the Department after a hearing is held in |
accordance with the provision set forth in this Act regarding |
the provision of a hearing for the discipline of a licensee. |
(b) The Department may investigate any actual, alleged, or |
suspected unlicensed activity. |
(c) The civil penalty shall be paid within 60 days after |
the effective date of the order imposing the civil penalty. |
The order shall constitute a judgment and may be filed and |
executed thereon in the same manner as any judgment from any |
court of record. |
(d) A person or entity not licensed under this Act who has |
violated any provision of this Act or its rules is guilty of a |
Class A misdemeanor for the first offense and a Class 4 felony |
for a second and subsequent offenses. |
A person who violates a provision of this Act is guilty
of a |
Class A Misdemeanor. On conviction of a second or subsequent |
offense
the violator shall be guilty of a Class 4 felony.
|
(Source: P.A. 86-615 .)
|
|
(225 ILCS 105/24.5) |
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022) |
Sec. 24.5. Confidentiality. All information collected by |
the Department in the course of an examination or |
investigation of a licensee , registrant, or applicant, |
including, but not limited to, any complaint against a |
licensee or registrant filed with the Department and |
information collected to investigate any such complaint, shall |
be maintained for the confidential use of the Department and |
shall not be disclosed. The Department may not disclose such |
information to anyone other than law enforcement officials, |
other regulatory agencies that have an appropriate regulatory |
interest as determined by the Secretary, or a party presenting |
a lawful subpoena to the Department. Information and documents |
disclosed to a federal, State, county, or local law |
enforcement agency shall not be disclosed by the agency for |
any purpose to any other agency or person. A formal complaint |
filed against a licensee or registrant by the Department or |
any order issued by the Department against a licensee , |
registrant, or applicant shall be a public record, except as |
otherwise prohibited by law.
|
(Source: P.A. 97-119, eff. 7-14-11.)
|
(225 ILCS 105/25.1)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
|
Sec. 25.1. Medical Suspension. |
|
(a) A licensee or registrant who is determined by the
|
examining
physician or Department to
be unfit to compete or |
officiate shall be prohibited from participating in a contest |
in Illinois and, if actively licensed, shall be medically |
suspended immediately suspended until it is
shown that he or |
she is fit for
further competition or officiating. If the |
licensee or registrant disagrees with a medical
suspension set |
at the
discretion of the ringside physician, he or she may |
request a hearing to show
proof of fitness. The
hearing shall |
be provided at the earliest opportunity after the Department
|
receives a written request
from the licensee.
|
(b) If the referee has stopped the bout or rendered a |
decision of technical knockout against a professional or |
amateur
or if
the professional or amateur is knocked out other |
than by a blow to the head , the professional or amateur
shall |
be medically
immediately suspended immediately for a period of |
not less than 30 days. |
(c) In a full-contact martial arts contest, if the |
professional or amateur has tapped out , or has submitted, or |
the referee has stopped the bout, shall stop the professional |
or amateur contest and the ringside physician shall determine |
the length of suspension.
|
(d) If the professional or amateur has been knocked |
unconscious out by a blow to the head , he or
she shall be |
medically
suspended immediately for a period of not less than |
45 days.
|
|
(e) A licensee may receive a medical suspension for any |
injury sustained as a result of a bout that shall not be less |
than 7 days. |
(f) A licensee may receive additional terms and conditions |
for a medical suspension beyond a prescribed passage of time |
as authorized under this Section. |
(g) If a licensee receives a medical suspension that |
includes terms and conditions in addition to the prescribed |
passage of time as authorized under this Section, before the |
removal of the medical suspension, a licensee shall: |
(1) satisfactorily pass a medical examination; |
(2) provide those examination results to the |
Department; |
(3) provide any additional requested documentation as |
directed by the licensee's examining physician or |
Department where applicable; and |
(4) if the licensee's examining physician requires any |
necessary additional medical procedures during the |
examination related to the injury that resulted in the |
medical suspension, those results shall be provided to the |
Department. |
(h) Any medical suspension imposed as authorized under |
this Act against a licensee shall be reported to the |
Department's record keeper as determined by rule. |
(i) A medical suspension as authorized under this Section |
shall not be considered a suspension under Section 16 of this |
|
Act. A violation of the terms of a medical suspension |
authorized under this Section shall subject a licensee to |
discipline under Section 16 of this Act. |
(j) A professional or amateur contestant who has been |
placed on medical suspension under the laws of another state, |
the District of Columbia, or a territory of the United States |
for substantially similar reasons as this Section shall be |
prohibited from participating in a contest as authorized under |
this Act until the requirements of subsection (g) of this |
Section have been met or the medical suspension has been |
removed by that jurisdiction. |
(k) A medical suspension authorized under this Section |
shall begin the day after the bout a licensee participated in. |
Prior to reinstatement, any professional or amateur |
suspended for his or her
medical protection shall
|
satisfactorily pass a medical examination upon the direction |
of the
Department. The examining
physician may require any |
necessary medical procedures during the
examination.
|
(Source: P.A. 96-663, eff. 8-25-09; 97-119, eff. 7-14-11.)
|
(225 ILCS 105/0.10 rep.) |
(225 ILCS 105/10.1 rep.) |
(225 ILCS 105/10.5 rep.) |
(225 ILCS 105/11.5 rep.) |
(225 ILCS 105/17.11 rep.) |
(225 ILCS 105/17.12 rep.) |
|
(225 ILCS 105/19.4 rep.) |
Section 30. The Boxing and Full-contact Martial Arts Act |
is amended by repealing Sections 0.10, 10.1, 10.5, 11.5, |
17.11, 17.12, and 19.4.
|
Section 35. The Registered Interior Designers Act is |
amended by changing Section 3, 4, 4.5, 6, 7, 11, 14, 20, 23, |
29, 30 and by adding Section 3.1 as follows:
|
(225 ILCS 310/3) (from Ch. 111, par. 8203)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022) |
Sec. 3. Definitions. As used in this Act:
|
"Address of record" means the designated address recorded |
by the Department in the applicant's application file or the |
registrant's registration file as maintained by the |
Department's licensure maintenance unit. |
"Board" means the Board of Registered Interior Design |
Professionals established
under Section 6 of this Act.
|
"Department" means the Department of Financial and |
Professional Regulation. |
"Email address of record" means the designated email |
address recorded by the Department in the applicant's |
application file or the registrant's registration file as |
maintained by the Department's licensure maintenance unit. |
"The profession of interior design", within the meaning |
and intent
of this Act, refers to persons qualified by |
|
education, experience, and
examination, who administer |
contracts for fabrication, procurement, or
installation in the |
implementation of designs, drawings, and specifications
for |
any interior design project and offer or furnish professional |
services,
such as consultations, studies, drawings, and |
specifications in connection
with the location of lighting |
fixtures, lamps and specifications of ceiling
finishes as |
shown in reflected ceiling plans, space planning, furnishings,
|
or the fabrication of non-loadbearing structural elements |
within and
surrounding interior spaces of buildings but |
specifically excluding
mechanical and electrical systems, |
except for specifications of fixtures
and their location |
within interior spaces. |
"Public member" means a person who is not an interior |
designer,
educator in the field, architect, structural |
engineer, or professional
engineer. For purposes of board |
membership, any person with a significant
financial interest |
in the design or construction service or profession is
not a |
public member.
|
"Registered interior designer" means a person who has |
received registration
under Section 8 of this Act. A person |
represents himself or herself to be a "registered interior |
designer" within the meaning of this Act if he or she holds |
himself or herself out to the public by any title |
incorporating the words "registered interior designer" or any |
title that includes the words "registered interior design".
|
|
"Secretary" means the Secretary of Financial and |
Professional Regulation.
|
(Source: P.A. 100-920, eff. 8-17-18.)
|
(225 ILCS 310/3.1 new) |
Sec. 3.1. Address of record; email address of record. All |
applicants and registrants shall: |
(1) provide a valid address and email address to
the |
Department, which shall serve as the address of record and |
email address of record, respectively, at the time of |
application for registration or renewal of a registration; |
and |
(2) inform the Department of any change of address
of |
record or email address of record within 14 days after |
such change either through the Department's website or by |
contacting the Department's licensure maintenance unit.
|
(225 ILCS 310/4) (from Ch. 111, par. 8204)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022) |
Sec. 4. Title; application of Act. |
(a) No individual shall, without a valid registration as |
an
interior designer issued by the Department, in any manner |
hold himself or herself out
to the public as a registered |
interior designer or attach the title "registered interior
|
designer" or any other name or designation which would in any |
way imply
that he or she is able to use the title "registered |
|
interior designer" as defined in this Act.
|
(a-5) Nothing in this Act shall be construed as preventing |
or restricting
the services offered or advertised by an |
interior designer who is registered
under this Act.
|
(b) Nothing in this Act shall prevent the employment, by a |
registered interior
designer association, partnership, or a
|
corporation furnishing interior design services
for |
remuneration, of persons not registered as interior designers |
to perform services in various capacities as
needed, provided |
that the persons do not represent themselves as, or use the
|
title of, "registered interior designer".
|
(c) Nothing in this Act shall be construed to limit the |
activities and
use of the title "interior designer" on
the |
part of a person not registered under this Act who is a |
graduate of an
interior design program and a full-time |
employee of a duly chartered
institution of higher education |
insofar as such person engages in public
speaking, with or |
without remuneration, provided that such person does not
|
represent himself or herself to be a registered interior |
designer or use the title "registered
interior designer".
|
(d) Nothing contained in this Act shall restrict any |
person not
registered under this Act from carrying out any of |
the activities
listed in the definition of "the profession of |
interior design" in
Section 3 if such person does not |
represent himself or herself or
his or her services in any |
manner prohibited by this Act.
|
|
(e) Nothing in this Act shall be construed as preventing |
or restricting
the practice, services, or activities of any |
person licensed in this State
under any other law from |
engaging in the profession or occupation for which
he or she is |
licensed.
|
(f) Nothing in this Act shall be construed as preventing |
or restricting
the practice, services, or activities of |
engineers licensed under the
Professional Engineering Practice |
Act of 1989 or the Structural
Engineering Practice Act of |
1989; architects licensed
pursuant to the
Illinois |
Architectural Practice Act of 1989; any interior decorator or
|
individual offering interior decorating services including, |
but not limited
to, the selection of surface materials, window |
treatments, wall coverings,
furniture, accessories, paint, |
floor coverings, and lighting fixtures; or
builders, home |
furnishings salespersons, and similar purveyors of goods and
|
services relating to homemaking.
|
(g) Nothing in this Act or any other Act shall prevent a |
licensed
architect from practicing interior design services. |
Nothing in this
Act shall be construed as requiring the |
services of a registered interior designer for the interior |
designing of a single family
residence.
|
(h) Nothing in this Act shall authorize registered |
interior designers to perform services, including life safety |
services that
they are prohibited from performing, or any |
practice (i) that is restricted in
the Illinois Architecture |
|
Practice Act of 1989, the Professional Engineering
Practice |
Act of 1989, or the Structural Engineering Practice
Act of |
1989, or (ii) that they are not authorized to perform under the
|
Environmental Barriers Act.
|
(i) Nothing in this Act shall authorize registered |
interior designers to advertise services that they are |
prohibited to perform, including architecture or engineering |
services, nor to use the title "architect" in any form. |
(Source: P.A. 95-1023, eff. 6-1-09; 96-1334, eff. 7-27-10 .)
|
(225 ILCS 310/4.5)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022) |
Sec. 4.5. Unregistered practice; violation; civil penalty.
|
(a) Any person who holds himself or herself out to be
a |
registered interior designer without being registered under |
this Act shall, in
addition to any other penalty provided by |
law, pay a civil penalty to the
Department in an amount not to |
exceed $5,000 for each offense as determined
by the |
Department. The civil penalty shall be assessed by the |
Department
after a hearing is held in accordance with the |
provisions set forth in this
Act regarding the provision of a |
hearing for the discipline of a registrant licensee .
|
(b) The Department has the authority and power to |
investigate any
illegal use of the title of registered |
interior designer.
|
(c) The civil penalty shall be paid within 60 days after |
|
the effective date
of the order imposing the civil penalty. |
The order shall constitute a judgment
and may be filed and |
execution had thereon in the same manner as any judgment
from |
any court of record.
|
(Source: P.A. 95-1023, eff. 6-1-09; 96-1334, eff. 7-27-10 .)
|
(225 ILCS 310/6) (from Ch. 111, par. 8206)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022) |
Sec. 6. Board of Registered Interior Design Professionals. |
The Secretary shall appoint a Board of Registered Interior |
Design Professionals consisting of 5 members who shall serve |
in an advisory capacity to the Secretary. All members of the |
Board shall be residents of Illinois. Four members shall (i) |
hold a valid registration as an interior designer in Illinois |
and have held the registration under this Act for the |
preceding 10 years; and (ii) not have been disciplined within |
the preceding 10 years under this Act. In addition to the 4 |
registered interior designer members, there shall be one |
public member. The public member shall be a voting member and |
shall not be licensed or registered under this Act or any other |
design profession licensing Act that the Department |
administers. |
Board members shall serve 5-year terms and until their |
successors are appointed and qualified. In appointing members |
to the Board, the Secretary shall give due consideration to |
recommendations by members and organizations of the interior |
|
design profession. |
The membership of the Board should reasonably reflect |
representation from the geographic areas in this State. |
No member shall be reappointed to the Board for a term that |
would cause his or her continuous service on the Board to be |
longer than 2 consecutive 5-year terms. |
Appointments to fill vacancies shall be made in the same |
manner as original appointments for the unexpired portion of |
the vacated term. |
Three members of the Board shall constitute a quorum. A |
quorum is required for Board decisions. |
The Secretary may remove any member of the Board for |
misconduct, incompetence, or neglect of duty or for reasons |
prescribed by law for removal of State officials. |
The Secretary may remove a member of the Board who does not |
attend 2 consecutive meetings. |
Notice of proposed rulemaking may be transmitted to the |
Board and the Department may review the response of the Board |
and any recommendations made therein. The Department may, at |
any time, seek the expert advice and knowledge of the Board on |
any matter relating to the administration or enforcement of |
this Act. |
Members of the Board are not liable for damages in any |
action or proceeding as a result of activities performed as |
members of the Board, except upon proof of actual malice. |
Members of the Board shall be reimbursed for all |
|
legitimate, necessary, and authorized expenses. |
There is created a
Board of Registered Interior Design |
Professionals to be composed of persons designated
from time |
to time by the Director, as follows:
|
(a) For the first year, 5 persons, 4 of whom have been |
interior
designers for a period of 5 years or more who |
would qualify upon
application to the Department under |
this Act to be
registered interior designers, and one |
public member. After the initial
appointments, each |
interior design member shall hold a valid registration as |
a registered interior designer. The Board shall annually |
elect a chairman.
|
(b) Terms for all members shall be 3 years. For |
initial
appointments, one member shall be appointed to |
serve for one year, 2
shall be appointed to serve for 2 |
years, and the remaining shall be
appointed to serve for 3 |
years and until their successors are appointed
and |
qualified. Initial terms shall begin on the effective date |
of this
Act. Partial terms over 2 years in length shall be |
considered as full
terms. A member may be reappointed for |
a successive term, but no member shall
serve more than 2 |
full terms.
|
(c) The membership of the Board should reasonably |
reflect representation
from the various geographic areas |
of the State.
|
(d) In making appointments to the Board, the Director |
|
shall give due
consideration to recommendations by |
national and state organizations of the
interior design |
profession
and shall promptly give due notice to such |
organizations of any vacancy in the
membership of the |
Board. The Director may terminate the appointment of any
|
member for any cause, which in the opinion of the |
Director, reasonably
justifies such termination.
|
(e) Three members shall constitute a quorum. A quorum |
is required for all Board decisions.
|
(f) The members of the Board shall each receive as |
compensation a
reasonable sum as determined by the |
Director for each day actually engaged
in the duties of |
the office, and all legitimate and necessary expenses
|
incurred in attending the meeting of the Board.
|
(g) Members of the Board shall be immune from suit in |
any action based
upon any disciplinary proceedings or |
other activities performed in good
faith as members of the |
Board.
|
(Source: P.A. 95-1023, eff. 6-1-09; 96-1334, eff. 7-27-10 .)
|
(225 ILCS 310/7) (from Ch. 111, par. 8207)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
|
Sec. 7. Board recommendations. The Secretary Director |
shall consider the
recommendations of the Board in |
establishing guidelines for professional
conduct, for the |
conduct of formal disciplinary proceedings brought under
this |
|
Act, and for establishing guidelines for qualifications of |
applicants.
Notice of proposed rulemaking may shall be |
transmitted to the Board and the
Department shall review the |
response of the Board and any recommendations
made in their |
response. The Department, at any time, may seek the expert
|
advice and knowledge of the Board on any matter relating to the
|
administration or enforcement of this Act.
|
(Source: P.A. 86-1404 .)
|
(225 ILCS 310/11) (from Ch. 111, par. 8211)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
|
Sec. 11. Fees. The Department shall provide by rule for a |
schedule of
fees for the administration and enforcement of |
this Act, including but not
limited to original registration |
licensure , renewal, and restoration. The fees shall be
|
nonrefundable.
|
All fees collected under this Act shall be deposited into |
the
General Professions Dedicated Fund and shall be |
appropriated to the Department
for the ordinary and contingent |
expenses of the Department in the
administration of this Act.
|
(Source: P.A. 91-454, eff. 1-1-00 .)
|
(225 ILCS 310/14) (from Ch. 111, par. 8214)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
|
Sec. 14. Investigations; Notice of hearing. Upon the |
motion of
either the Department or the Board, or upon the |
|
verified complaint in
writing of any person setting forth |
facts which, if proven, would
constitute grounds for refusal, |
suspension, or revocation of registration
under this Act, the |
Board shall investigate the actions of any person,
hereinafter |
called the "registrant", who holds or represents that he holds
|
a certificate of registration. All such motions or complaints |
shall be
brought to the Board.
|
The Director shall, before suspending, revoking, placing |
on probationary
status, or taking any other disciplinary |
action as the Director may deem
proper with regard to any |
registration, at least 30 days prior to the date
set for the |
hearing, notify the registrant in writing of any charges made
|
and the time and place for a hearing on the charges before the |
Board. The
Board shall also direct the registrant to file his |
written answer to the
charges with the Board under oath within |
20 days after the service on him
of such notice, and inform him |
that if he fails to file such answer, his
certificate of |
registration may be suspended, revoked, placed on
probationary |
status or other disciplinary action may be taken with regard
|
thereto, as the Director may deem proper.
|
The written notice and any notice in such proceeding may |
be
served by delivery personally to the registrant, by email, |
or by registered or
certified mail to the address specified by |
the registrant in his last
notification to the Director.
|
The Department, at its expense, shall preserve a record of |
all
proceedings at the formal hearing of any case involving |
|
the refusal to
issue or renew a registration, or discipline of |
a registrant. The notice
of hearing, complaint, and all other |
documents in the nature of pleadings
and written motions filed |
in the proceedings, the transcript of testimony,
the report of |
the Board, and the orders of the Department shall be the
record |
of such proceedings.
|
(Source: P.A. 86-1404 .)
|
(225 ILCS 310/20) (from Ch. 111, par. 8220)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
|
Sec. 20. Restoration. At any time after suspension, |
revocation,
placement on probationary status, or the taking of |
any other disciplinary
action with regard to any registration, |
the Department may restore the
certificate of registration, or |
take any other action to reinstate the
registration to good |
standing, without further examination , upon the written
|
recommendation of the Board .
|
(Source: P.A. 86-1404 .)
|
(225 ILCS 310/23) (from Ch. 111, par. 8223)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
|
Sec. 23. Confidentiality. Confidential information; |
Disclosure. All information collected by the Department in the |
course of an examination or investigation of a registrant or |
applicant, including, but not limited to, any complaint |
against a registrant filed with the Department and information |
|
collected to investigate any such complaint, shall be |
maintained for the confidential use of the Department and may |
not be disclosed. The Department may not disclose the |
information to anyone other than law enforcement officials, |
other regulatory agencies that have an appropriate regulatory |
interest as determined by the Secretary, or a party presenting |
a lawful subpoena to the Department. Information and documents |
disclosed to a federal, State, county, or local law |
enforcement agency may not be disclosed by the agency for any |
purpose to any other agency or person. A formal complaint |
filed by the Department against a registrant or applicant is a |
public record, except as otherwise prohibited by law. In |
hearings conducted
under this Act, information presented into |
evidence that was acquired by an
interior designer in serving |
any individual in a professional capacity, and
necessary to |
professionally serve such individual, shall be deemed strictly
|
confidential and shall only be made available either as part |
of the record
of a hearing hereunder or otherwise:
|
(a) when the record is required, in its entirety, for |
purposes of judicial
review;
|
(b) upon the express written consent of the individual |
served, or in the
case of his or her death or disability, the |
consent of his or her personal
representative.
|
(Source: P.A. 86-1404 .)
|
(225 ILCS 310/29) (from Ch. 111, par. 8229)
|
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
|
Sec. 29. Illinois Administrative Procedure Act. The |
Illinois
Administrative
Procedure Act is hereby expressly |
adopted and incorporated herein as if all of
the provisions of |
that Act were included in this Act, except that the provision
|
of subsection (d) of Section 10-65 of the Illinois |
Administrative Procedure Act
that provides that at hearings |
the registrant has the right to show compliance
with all |
lawful requirements for retention, continuation, or renewal of |
the
registration is specifically excluded. For the purposes of |
this Act, the
notice required under Section 10-25 of the |
Illinois Administrative
Procedure Act is
deemed sufficient |
when mailed or emailed to the last known address of a party.
|
(Source: P.A. 91-357, eff. 7-29-99 .)
|
(225 ILCS 310/30) (from Ch. 111, par. 8230)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
|
Sec. 30. Fund; appropriations; investments; audits |
Interior Design Administration and Investigation Fund . All of |
the fees collected pursuant to this Act shall be deposited |
into the
General Professions Dedicated Fund.
|
On January 1, 2000 the State Comptroller shall transfer |
the balance of the
monies in the Interior Design |
Administration and Investigation Fund into the
General |
Professions Dedicated Fund. Amounts appropriated for fiscal |
year 2000
out of the Interior Design Administration and |
|
Investigation Fund may be paid
out of the General Professions |
Dedicated Fund.
|
The moneys monies deposited in the General Professions |
Dedicated Fund may be used
for the expenses of the Department |
in the administration of this Act.
|
Moneys from the Fund may also be used for direct and |
allocable indirect
costs related to the public purposes of the |
Department of Professional
Regulation. Moneys in the Fund may |
be transferred to the Professions
Indirect Cost Fund as |
authorized by Section 2105-300 of the Department
of |
Professional Regulation Law (20 ILCS 2105/2105-300) .
|
Upon the completion of any audit of the Department as |
prescribed by the
Illinois State Auditing Act that includes an |
audit of the General Professions Dedicated Fund Interior
|
Design Administration and Investigation Fund , the Department |
shall make the
audit open to inspection by any interested |
person. The copy of the audit
report required to be submitted |
to the Department by this Section is in
addition to copies of |
audit reports required to be submitted to other State
officers |
and agencies by Section 3-14 of the Illinois State Auditing |
Act.
|
(Source: P.A. 91-239, eff. 1-1-00; 91-454, eff. 1-1-00; 92-16, |
eff.
6-28-01 .)
|
Section 40. The Cemetery Oversight Act is amended by |
changing Sections 5-15, 5-20, 5-25, 10-20, 10-21, 10-25, |
|
10-40, 10-55, 20-10, 25-3, 25-5, 25-10, 25-15, 25-25, 25-30, |
25-35, 25-90, 25-95, 25-105, 25-115, 35-5, 35-15, and 75-45 |
and by adding Sections 5-16, 5-26, and 25-26 as follows:
|
(225 ILCS 411/5-15) |
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
|
Sec. 5-15. Definitions. In this Act: |
"Address of record" means the designated address recorded |
by the Department in the applicant's or licensee's application |
file or license file. It is the duty of the applicant or |
licensee to inform the Department of any change of address |
within 14 days either through the Department's website or by |
contacting the Department's licensure maintenance unit. The |
address of record for a cemetery authority shall be the |
permanent street address of the cemetery. |
"Applicant" means a person applying for licensure under |
this Act as a cemetery authority, cemetery manager, or |
customer service employee. Any applicant or any person who |
holds himself or herself out as an applicant is considered a |
licensee for purposes of enforcement, investigation, hearings, |
and the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act. |
"Burial permit" means a permit provided by a licensed |
funeral director for the disposition of a dead human body. |
"Care" means the maintenance of a cemetery and of the |
lots, graves, crypts, niches, family mausoleums, memorials, |
and markers therein, including: (i) the cutting and trimming |
|
of lawn, shrubs, and trees at reasonable intervals; (ii) |
keeping in repair the drains, water lines, roads, buildings, |
fences, and other structures, in keeping with a |
well-maintained cemetery as provided for in Section 20-5 of |
this Act and otherwise as required by rule; (iii) maintenance |
of machinery, tools, and equipment for such care; (iv) |
compensation of cemetery workers, any discretionary payment of |
insurance premiums, and any reasonable payments for workers' |
pension and other benefits plans; and (v) the payment of |
expenses necessary for such purposes and for maintaining |
necessary records of lot ownership, transfers, and burials. |
"Cemetery" means any land or structure in this State |
dedicated to and used, or intended to be used, for the |
interment, inurnment, or entombment of human remains. |
"Cemetery authority" means any individual or legal entity |
that owns or controls cemetery lands or property. |
"Cemetery manager" means an individual directly |
responsible or holding himself or herself directly responsible |
for the operation, maintenance, development, or improvement of |
a cemetery that is or shall be licensed under this Act or shall |
be licensed pursuant to Section 10-39 of this Act , |
irrespective of whether the individual is paid by the licensed |
cemetery authority or a third party. This definition does not |
include a volunteer who receives no compensation, either |
directly or indirectly, for his or her work as a cemetery |
manager. |
|
"Cemetery merchandise" means items of personal property |
normally sold by a cemetery authority not covered under the |
Illinois Funeral or Burial Funds Act, including, but not |
limited to: (1) memorials, (2) markers, (3) monuments, (4) |
foundations and installations, and (5) outer burial |
containers. |
"Cemetery operation" means to engage in any or all of the |
following, whether on behalf of, or in the absence of, a |
cemetery authority: (i) the interment, entombment, or |
inurnment of human remains, (ii) the sale of interment, |
entombment, or inurnment rights, cemetery merchandise, or |
cemetery services, (iii) the maintenance of interment rights |
ownership records, (iv) the maintenance of or reporting of |
interment, entombment, or inurnment records, (v) the |
maintenance of cemetery property, (vi) the development or |
improvement of cemetery grounds, or (vii) the maintenance and |
execution of business documents, including State and federal |
government reporting and the payment of taxes, for a cemetery |
business entity. |
"Cemetery Oversight Database" means a database certified |
by the Department as effective in tracking the interment, |
entombment, or inurnment of human remains.
|
"Cemetery services" means those services customarily |
performed by cemetery personnel in connection with the |
interment, entombment, or inurnment of a dead human body. |
"Certificate of organization" means the document received |
|
by a cemetery association from the Secretary of State that |
indicates that the cemetery association shall be deemed fully |
organized as a body corporate under the name adopted and in its |
corporate name may sue and be sued. |
"Comptroller" means the Comptroller of the State of |
Illinois. |
"Confidential information" means unique identifiers, |
including a person's Social Security number, home address, |
home phone number, personal phone number, personal email |
address, personal financial information, and any other |
information protected by law. |
"Consumer" means an individual who purchases or who is |
considering purchasing cemetery, burial, or cremation products |
or services from a cemetery authority, whether for themselves |
or for another person. |
"Customer service employee" means an individual who has |
direct contact with consumers to explain cemetery merchandise, |
services, and interment rights and to execute the sale of |
those items to consumers, whether at the cemetery or an |
off-site location, irrespective of whether compensation is |
paid by the cemetery authority or a third party. This |
definition does not include a volunteer who receives no |
compensation, either directly or indirectly, for his or her |
work as a customer service employee. |
"Department" means the Department of Financial and |
Professional Regulation. |
|
"Email address of record" means the designated email |
address recorded by the Department in the applicant's |
application file or the licensee's license file as maintained |
by the Department's licensure maintenance unit. |
"Employee" means an individual who works for a cemetery |
authority where the cemetery authority has the right to |
control what work is performed and the details of how the work |
is performed regardless of whether federal or State payroll |
taxes are withheld. |
"Entombment right" means the right to place individual |
human remains or individual cremated human remains in a |
specific mausoleum crypt or lawn crypt selected by a consumer |
for use as a final resting place. |
"Family burying ground" means a cemetery in which no lots, |
crypts, or niches are sold to the public and in which |
interments, inurnments, and entombments are restricted to the |
immediate family or a group of individuals related to each |
other by blood or marriage. |
"Full exemption" means an exemption granted to a cemetery |
authority pursuant to subsection (a) of Section 5-20. |
"Funeral director" means a funeral director as defined by |
the Funeral Directors and Embalmers Licensing Code. |
"Grave" means a space of ground in a cemetery used or |
intended to be used for burial. |
"Green burial or cremation disposition" means burial or |
cremation practices that reduce the greenhouse gas emissions, |
|
waste, and toxic chemicals ordinarily created in burial or |
cremation or, in the case of greenhouse gas emissions, |
mitigate or offset emissions. Such practices include any |
standards or method for burial or cremation that the |
Department may name by rule. |
"Immediate family" means the designated agent of a person |
or the persons given priority for the disposition of a |
person's remains under the Disposition of Remains Act and |
shall include a person's spouse, parents, grandparents, |
children, grandchildren and siblings. |
"Individual" means a natural person. |
"Interment right" means the right to place individual |
human remains or cremated human remains in a specific |
underground location selected by a consumer for use as a final |
resting place. |
"Inurnment right" means the right to place individual |
cremated human remains in a specific niche selected by the |
consumer for use as a final resting place. |
"Lawn crypt" means a permanent underground crypt installed |
in multiple units for the entombment of human remains. |
"Licensee" means a person licensed under this Act as a |
cemetery authority, cemetery manager, or customer service |
employee. Anyone who holds himself or herself out as a |
licensee or who is accused of unlicensed practice is |
considered a licensee for purposes of enforcement, |
investigation, hearings, and the Illinois Administrative |
|
Procedure Act. |
"Mausoleum crypt" means a grouping of spaces constructed |
of reinforced concrete or similar material constructed or |
assembled above the ground for entombing remains. |
"Niche" means a space in a columbarium or mausoleum used, |
or intended to be used, for inurnment of cremated human |
remains. |
"Partial exemption" means an exemption granted to a |
cemetery authority pursuant to subsection (b) of Section 5-20. |
"Parcel identification number" means a unique number |
assigned by the Cemetery Oversight Database to a grave, plot, |
crypt, or niche that enables the Department to ascertain the |
precise location of a decedent's remains interred, entombed, |
or inurned after the effective date of this Act. |
"Person" means any individual, firm, partnership, |
association, corporation, limited liability company, trustee, |
government or political subdivision, or other entity. |
"Public cemetery" means a cemetery owned, operated, |
controlled, or managed by the federal government, by any |
state, county, city, village, incorporated town, township, |
multi-township, public cemetery district, or other municipal |
corporation, political subdivision, or instrumentality thereof |
authorized by law to own, operate, or manage a cemetery. |
"Religious burying ground" means a cemetery in which no |
lots, crypts, or niches are sold and in which interments, |
inurnments, and entombments are restricted to a group of |
|
individuals all belonging to a religious order or granted |
burial rights by special consideration of the religious order. |
"Religious cemetery" means a cemetery owned, operated, |
controlled, and managed by any recognized church, religious |
society, association, or denomination, or by any cemetery |
authority or any corporation administering, or through which |
is administered, the temporalities of any recognized church, |
religious society, association, or denomination. |
"Secretary" means the Secretary of Financial and |
Professional Regulation or a person authorized by the |
Secretary to act in the Secretary's stead . |
"Term burial" means a right of interment sold to a |
consumer in which the cemetery authority retains the right to |
disinter and relocate the remains, subject to the provisions |
of subsection (d) of Section 35-15 of this Act. |
"Trustee" means any person authorized to hold funds under |
this Act. |
"Unique personal identifier" means the parcel |
identification number in addition to the term of burial in |
years; the numbered level or depth in the grave, plot, crypt, |
or niche; and the year of death for human remains interred, |
entombed, or inurned after the effective date of this Act. The |
unique personal identifier is assigned by the Cemetery |
Oversight Database.
|
(Source: P.A. 96-863, eff. 3-1-10; 97-679, eff. 2-6-12 .)
|
|
(225 ILCS 411/5-16 new) |
Sec. 5-16. Address of record; email address of record. All |
applicants and licensees shall: |
(1) provide a valid address and email address to the |
Department, which shall serve as the address of record and |
email address of record, respectively, at the time of |
application for licensure or renewal of a license; and |
(2) inform the Department of any change of address of |
record or email address of record within 14 days after |
such change either through the Department's website or by |
contacting the Department's licensure maintenance unit.
|
(225 ILCS 411/5-20) |
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
|
Sec. 5-20. Exemptions.
|
(a) Full exemption. Except as provided in this subsection, |
this Act does not apply to (1) any cemetery authority |
operating as a family burying ground or religious burying |
ground, (2) any cemetery authority that has not engaged in an |
interment, inurnment, or entombment of human remains within |
the last 10 years, or (3) any cemetery authority that is less |
than 3 acres. For purposes of determining the applicability of |
this subsection, the number of interments, inurnments, and |
entombments shall be aggregated for each calendar year. A |
cemetery authority claiming a full exemption shall apply for |
exempt status as provided for in Section 10-20 of this Act. A |
|
cemetery authority claiming a full exemption shall be subject |
to Sections 10-40, 10-55, and 10-60 of this Act. A cemetery |
authority that performs activities that would disqualify it |
from a full exemption is required to apply for licensure |
within one year following the date on which its activities |
would disqualify it for a full exemption. A cemetery authority |
that previously qualified for and maintained a full exemption |
that fails to timely apply for licensure shall be deemed to |
have engaged in unlicensed practice and shall be subject to |
discipline in accordance with Article 25 of this Act. |
(b) Partial exemption. If a cemetery authority does not |
qualify for a full exemption and (1) engages in 25 or fewer |
interments, inurnments, or entombments of human remains for |
each of the preceding 2 calendar years, (2) operates as a |
public cemetery, or (3) operates as a religious cemetery, then |
the cemetery authority is partially exempt from this Act but |
shall be required to comply with Sections 10-23, 10-40, 10-55, |
10-60, subsections (a), (b), (b-5), (c), (d), (f), (g), and |
(h) of Section 20-5, Sections 20-6, 20-8, 20-10, 20-12, 20-30, |
20-35, 20-40, 25-3, and 25-120, and Article 35 of this Act. |
Cemetery authorities claiming a partial exemption shall apply |
for the partial exemption as provided in Section 10-20 of this |
Act. A cemetery authority that changes to a status that would |
disqualify it from a partial exemption is required to apply |
for licensure within one year following the date on which it |
changes its status. A cemetery authority that maintains a |
|
partial exemption that fails to timely apply for licensure |
shall be deemed to have engaged in unlicensed practice and |
shall be subject to discipline in accordance with Article 25 |
of this Act.
|
(c) Nothing in this Act applies to the City of Chicago in |
its exercise of its powers under the O'Hare Modernization Act |
or limits the authority of the City of Chicago to acquire |
property or otherwise exercise its powers under the O'Hare |
Modernization Act, or requires the City of Chicago, or any |
person acting on behalf of the City of Chicago, to comply with |
the licensing, regulation, or investigation , or mediation |
requirements of this Act in exercising its powers under the |
O'Hare Modernization Act.
|
(d) A cemetery manager and customer service employee |
license may be in active status only during the period that |
such a licensee is employed by a cemetery authority that is |
licensed under this Act. In the event that a cemetery manager |
or customer service employee commences work for a cemetery |
granted an exemption under this Section, it shall be a duty of |
both the cemetery authority and the individual licensee to |
immediately notify the Department so that the license may be |
placed on inactive status. During the period that a license is |
in inactive status, the involved person may not hold himself |
or herself out as licensed. Upon returning to employment by a |
cemetery licensed under this Act, such a cemetery manager or |
customer service employee may reinstate the license to active |
|
status simply by notifying the Department and paying the |
applicable fee. |
(Source: P.A. 96-863, eff. 3-1-10; 97-679, eff. 2-6-12 .)
|
(225 ILCS 411/5-25) |
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
|
Sec. 5-25. Powers and duties of the Department. The |
Department shall, subject Subject to the provisions of this |
Act, the Department may exercise the following functions, |
powers , and duties : |
(1) Authorize certification programs to ascertain the |
qualifications and fitness of applicants for licensing as |
a licensed cemetery manager or as a customer service |
employee to ascertain whether they possess the requisite |
level of knowledge for such position. |
(2) Examine a licensed cemetery authority's records |
from any year or any other aspects of cemetery operation |
as the Department deems appropriate. |
(3) Investigate any and all cemetery operations. |
(4) Conduct hearings on proceedings to refuse to |
issue , or renew , or restore licenses or to revoke, |
suspend, place on probation, or reprimand , or otherwise |
discipline a licensee license under this Act or take other |
non-disciplinary action . |
(5) Adopt reasonable rules required for the |
administration of this Act. |
|
(6) Prescribe forms to be issued for the |
administration and enforcement of this Act. |
(7) (Blank). Maintain rosters of the names and |
addresses of all licensees and all persons whose licenses |
have been suspended, revoked, denied renewal, or otherwise |
disciplined within the previous calendar year. These |
rosters shall be available upon written request and |
payment of the required fee as established by rule. |
(8) Work with the Office of the Comptroller and the |
Department of Public Health, Division of Vital Records to |
exchange information and request additional information |
relating to a licensed cemetery authority. |
(9) Investigate cemetery contracts, grounds, or |
employee records. |
(10) Issue licenses to those who meet the requirements |
of this Act. |
(11) Conduct investigations related to possible |
violations of this Act. |
If the Department exercises its authority to conduct |
investigations under this Section, the Department shall |
provide the cemetery authority with information sufficient to |
challenge the allegation. If the complainant consents, then |
the Department shall provide the cemetery authority with the |
identity of and contact information for the complainant so as |
to allow the cemetery authority and the complainant to resolve |
the complaint directly. Except as otherwise provided in this |
|
Act, any complaint received by the Department and any |
information collected to investigate the complaint shall be |
maintained by the Department for the confidential use of the |
Department and shall not be disclosed. The Department may not |
disclose the information to anyone other than law enforcement |
officials or other regulatory agencies or persons that have an |
appropriate regulatory interest, as determined by the |
Secretary, or to a party presenting a lawful subpoena to the |
Department. Information and documents disclosed to a federal, |
state, county, or local law enforcement agency shall not be |
disclosed by the agency for any purpose to any other agency or |
person. A formal complaint filed against a licensee by the |
Department or any order issued by the Department against a |
licensee or applicant shall be a public record, except as |
otherwise prohibited by law.
|
(Source: P.A. 99-78, eff. 7-20-15 .)
|
(225 ILCS 411/5-26 new) |
Sec. 5-26. Confidentiality. All information collected by |
the Department in the course of an examination or |
investigation of a licensee or applicant, including, but not |
limited to, any complaint against a licensee filed with the |
Department and information collected to investigate any such |
complaint, shall be maintained for the confidential use of the |
Department and shall not be disclosed. The Department may not |
disclose the information to anyone other than law enforcement |
|
officials, other regulatory agencies that have an appropriate |
regulatory interest as determined by the Secretary, or a party |
presenting a lawful subpoena to the Department. Information |
and documents disclosed to a federal, State, county, or local |
law enforcement agency shall not be disclosed by the agency |
for any purpose to any other agency or person. A formal |
complaint filed against a licensee by the Department or any |
order issued by the Department against a licensee or applicant |
shall be a public record, except as otherwise prohibited by |
law.
|
(225 ILCS 411/10-20) |
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
|
Sec. 10-20. Application for original license or exemption. |
(a) Applications for original licensure as a cemetery |
authority, cemetery manager, or customer service employee |
authorized by this Act, or application for exemption from |
licensure as a cemetery authority, shall be made to the |
Department in writing on forms or electronically as prescribed |
by the Department, which shall include the applicant's Social |
Security number or FEIN number, or both, and shall be |
accompanied by the required fee that shall not be refundable. |
as set by Section 10-55 of this Act and further refined by |
rule. Applications for partial or full exemption from |
licensure as a cemetery authority shall be submitted to the |
Department within 6 months after the Department adopts rules |
|
under this Act. If the person fails to submit the application |
for partial or full exemption within this period, the person |
shall be subject to discipline in accordance with Article 25 |
of this Act. The process for renewing a full or partial |
exemption shall be set by rule. If a cemetery authority seeks |
to practice at more than one location, it shall meet all |
licensure requirements at each location as required by this |
Act and by rule, including submission of an application and |
fee. All applications shall contain information that, in the |
judgment of the Department, will enable the Department to pass |
on the qualifications of the applicant for a license under |
this Act. |
(b) (Blank). |
(c) After initial licensure, if any person comes to obtain |
at least 51% of the ownership over the licensed cemetery |
authority, then the cemetery authority shall have to apply for |
a new license and receive licensure in the required time as set |
by rule. The current license remains in effect until the |
Department takes action on the application for a new license. |
(d) (Blank). All applications shall contain the |
information that, in the judgment of the Department, will |
enable the Department to pass on the qualifications of the |
applicant for an exemption from licensure or for a license to |
practice as a cemetery authority, cemetery manager, or |
customer service employee as set by rule.
|
(Source: P.A. 96-863, eff. 3-1-10; 97-679, eff. 2-6-12 .)
|
|
(225 ILCS 411/10-21) |
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
|
Sec. 10-21. Qualifications for licensure. |
(a) A cemetery authority shall apply for licensure on |
forms prescribed by the Department and pay the required fee. |
An applicant is qualified for licensure as a cemetery |
authority if the applicant meets all of the following |
qualifications: |
(1) The applicant has not committed any act or offense |
in any jurisdiction that would constitute the basis for |
discipline under this Act. When considering such license, |
the Department shall take into consideration the |
following: |
(A) the applicant's record of compliance with the |
Code of Professional Conduct and Ethics, and whether |
the applicant has been found to have engaged in any |
unethical or dishonest practices in the cemetery |
business; |
(B) whether the applicant has been adjudicated, |
civilly or criminally, to have committed fraud or to |
have violated any law of any state involving unfair |
trade or business practices, has been convicted of a |
misdemeanor of which fraud is an essential element or |
which involves any aspect of the cemetery business, or |
has been convicted of any felony; |
|
(C) whether the applicant has willfully violated |
any provision of this Act or a predecessor law or any |
regulations relating thereto; |
(D) whether the applicant has been permanently or |
temporarily suspended, enjoined, or barred by any |
court of competent jurisdiction in any state from |
engaging in or continuing any conduct or practice |
involving any aspect of the cemetery or funeral |
business; and |
(E) whether the applicant has ever had any license |
to practice any profession or occupation suspended, |
denied, fined, or otherwise acted against or |
disciplined by the applicable licensing authority. |
If the applicant is a corporation, limited liability |
company, partnership, or other entity permitted by law, |
then the Department shall determine whether each |
principal, owner, member, officer, and shareholder holding |
25% or more of corporate stock has met the requirements of |
this item (1) of subsection (a) of this Section. |
(2) The applicant must provide a statement of its |
assets and liabilities to the Department. |
(3) The applicant has not, within the preceding 10 |
years, been convicted of or entered a plea of guilty or |
nolo contendere to (i) a Class X felony or (ii) a felony, |
an essential element of which was fraud or dishonesty |
under the laws of this State, another state, the United |
|
States, or a foreign jurisdiction that is directly related |
to the practice of cemetery operations . If the applicant |
is a corporation, limited liability company, partnership, |
or other entity permitted by law, then each principal, |
owner, member, officer, and shareholder holding 25% or |
more of corporate stock has not, within the preceding 10 |
years, been convicted of or entered a plea of guilty or |
nolo contendere to (i) a Class X felony or (ii) a felony, |
an essential element of which was fraud or dishonesty |
under the laws of this State, another state, the United |
States, or a foreign jurisdiction that is directly related |
to the practice of cemetery operations . |
(4) The applicant shall authorize the Department to |
conduct a criminal background check that does not involve |
fingerprinting. |
(5) In the case of a person or entity applying for |
renewal of his, her, or its license, the applicant has |
complied with all other requirements of this Act and the |
rules adopted for the implementation of this Act. |
(b) The cemetery manager and customer service employees of |
a licensed cemetery authority shall apply for licensure as a |
cemetery manager or customer service employee on forms |
prescribed by the Department and pay the required fee. A |
person is qualified for licensure as a cemetery manager or |
customer service employee if he or she meets all of the |
following requirements: |
|
(1) Is at least 18 years of age. |
(2) Has acted in an ethical manner as set forth in |
Section 10-23 of this Act. In determining qualifications |
of licensure, the Department shall take into consideration |
the factors outlined in item (1) of subsection (a) of this |
Section. |
(3) Submits proof of successful completion of a high |
school education or its equivalent as established by rule. |
(4) The applicant shall authorize the Department to |
conduct a criminal background check that does not involve |
fingerprinting. |
(5) Has not committed a violation of this Act or any |
rules adopted under this Act that, in the opinion of the |
Department, renders the applicant unqualified to be a |
cemetery manager. |
(6) Submits proof of successful completion of a |
certification course recognized by the Department for a |
cemetery manager or customer service employee, whichever |
the case may be. |
(7) Has not, within the preceding 10 years, been |
convicted of or entered a plea of guilty or nolo |
contendere to (i) a Class X felony or (ii) a felony, an |
essential element of which was fraud or dishonesty under |
the laws of this State, another state, the United States, |
or a foreign jurisdiction that is directly related to the |
practice of cemetery operations . |
|
(8) (Blank). |
(9) In the case of a person applying for renewal of his |
or her license, has complied with all other requirements |
of this Act and the rules adopted for implementation of |
this Act. |
(c) Each applicant for a cemetery authority, cemetery |
manager, or customer service employee license shall authorize |
the Department to conduct a criminal background check that |
does not involve fingerprinting. The Department must, in turn, |
conduct the criminal background check on each applicant. The |
Department shall adopt rules to implement this subsection (c), |
but in no event shall the Department impose a fee upon the |
applicant for the background check.
|
(Source: P.A. 96-863, eff. 3-1-10; 97-679, eff. 2-6-12 .)
|
(225 ILCS 411/10-25) |
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
|
Sec. 10-25. Certification. |
(a) The Department shall authorize certification programs |
for cemetery manager and customer service employee applicants. |
The certification programs must consist of education and |
training in cemetery ethics, cemetery law, and cemetery |
practices. Cemetery ethics shall include, without limitation, |
the Code of Professional Conduct and Ethics as set forth in |
Section 10-23 of this Act. Cemetery law shall include, without |
limitation, the Cemetery Oversight Act, the Cemetery Care Act, |
|
the Disposition of Remains Act, and the Cemetery Protection |
Act. Cemetery practices shall include, without limitation, |
treating the dead and their family members with dignity and |
respect. The certification program shall include an |
examination administered by the entity providing the |
certification. |
(a-5) An entity seeking to offer a certification program |
to cemetery manager applicants and customer service employee |
applicants must receive approval of its program from the |
Department in a manner and form prescribed by the Department |
by rule. As part of this process, the entity must submit to the |
Department the examination it offers or intends to offer as |
part of its certification program. |
(a-10) A cemetery manager applicant or customer service |
employee applicant may choose any entity that has been |
approved by the Department from which to obtain certification. |
(b) Cemetery manager applicants and customer service |
employee applicants shall pay the fee for the certification |
program directly to the entity offering the program. |
(c) If the cemetery manager applicant or customer service |
employee applicant neglects, fails, or refuses to become |
certified within one year after filing an application, then |
the application shall be denied. However, the applicant may |
thereafter submit a new application accompanied by the |
required fee. The applicant shall meet the requirements in |
force at the time of making the new application. |
|
(d) A cemetery manager applicant or customer service |
employee applicant who has completed a certification program |
offered by an entity that has not received the Department's |
approval as required by this Section has not met the |
qualifications for licensure as set forth in Section 10-21 of |
this Act. |
(e) The Department may approve shall recognize any |
certification program that is conducted by a death care trade |
association in Illinois that has been in existence for more |
than 5 years that, in the determination of the Department, |
provides adequate education and training in cemetery law, |
cemetery ethics, and cemetery practices and administers an |
examination covering the same. |
(f) The Department may, without a hearing, summarily |
withdraw its approval of a certification program that, in the |
judgment of the Department, fails to meet the requirements of |
this Act or the rules adopted under this Act. A certification |
program that has had its approval withdrawn by the Department |
may reapply for approval, but shall provide such additional |
information as may be required by the Department, including, |
but not limited to, evidence to the Department's satisfaction |
that the program is in compliance with this Act and the rules |
adopted under this Act.
|
(Source: P.A. 96-863, eff. 3-1-10; 97-679, eff. 2-6-12 .)
|
(225 ILCS 411/10-40) |
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
|
Sec. 10-40. Renewal, reinstatement, or restoration of |
license Expiration and renewal of license . |
(a) The expiration date and renewal period for each |
license issued under this Act shall be set by rule. The holder |
of a license may renew such license during the month preceding |
the expiration date thereof by paying the required fee. |
(b) A licensee under this Act who has permitted his or her |
license to expire or has had his or her license placed on |
inactive status may have his or her license restored by making |
application to the Department and filing proof acceptable to |
the Department of his or her fitness of having his or her |
license restored, including, but not limited to, sworn |
evidence certifying to active practice in another jurisdiction |
satisfactory to the Department, and by paying the required fee |
as determined by rule. Every cemetery authority, cemetery |
manager, and customer service employee license shall expire |
every 2 years. Every registration as a fully exempt cemetery |
authority or partially exempt cemetery authority shall expire |
every 4 years. The expiration date, renewal period, and other |
requirements for each license and registration shall be |
further refined by rule.
|
(Source: P.A. 96-863, eff. 3-1-10; 97-679, eff. 2-6-12 .)
|
(225 ILCS 411/10-55) |
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
|
|
Sec. 10-55. Fees. |
(a) Except as provided in this Section, the fees for the |
administration and enforcement of this Act shall be set by the |
Department by rule. The fees shall be reasonable and shall not |
be refundable. |
(b) Cemetery manager applicants and customer service |
employee applicants shall pay any certification program or |
continuing education program fee directly to the entity |
offering the program. |
(c) The Department may waive fees based upon hardship. |
(d) Nothing shall prohibit a cemetery authority from |
paying, on behalf of its cemetery managers or customer service |
employees, their application, renewal, or restoration fees. |
(e) All fees and other moneys collected under this Act |
shall be deposited in the Cemetery Oversight Licensing and |
Disciplinary Fund.
|
(f) The fee for application as a cemetery authority |
seeking a full exemption is $0. |
(g) The fee to renew registration as a fully exempt |
cemetery authority is $0. As provided in Section 10-40 of this |
Act and as further refined by rule, each registration as a |
fully exempt cemetery authority shall expire every 4 years. |
(h) The fee for application as a cemetery authority |
seeking a partial exemption is $150. |
(i) The fee to renew registration as a partially exempt |
cemetery authority is $150. As provided in Section 10-40 of |
|
this Act and as further refined by rule, each registration as a |
partially exempt cemetery authority shall expire every 4 |
years. |
(j) The fee for original licensure, renewal, and |
restoration as a cemetery authority not seeking a full or |
partial exemption is $75. As provided in Section 10-40 of this |
Act and as further refined by rule, each cemetery authority |
license shall expire every 2 years. |
(k) The fee for original licensure, renewal, and |
restoration as a cemetery manager is $25. As provided in |
Section 10-40 of this Act and as further refined by rule, each |
cemetery manager license shall expire every 2 years. |
(l) The fee for original licensure, renewal, and |
restoration as a customer service employee is $25. As provided |
in Section 10-40 of this Act and as further refined by rule, |
each customer service employee license shall expire every 2 |
years. |
(Source: P.A. 96-863, eff. 3-1-10; 97-679, eff. 2-6-12 .)
|
(225 ILCS 411/20-10) |
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
|
Sec. 20-10. Contract. At the time cemetery arrangements |
are made and prior to rendering the cemetery services, a |
cemetery authority shall create a completed written contract |
to be provided to the consumer, signed by both parties by their |
actual written signatures on either paper or electronic form , |
|
that shall contain: (i) the date on which the arrangements |
were made; (ii) the price of the service selected and the |
services and merchandise included for that price; (iii) the |
supplemental items of service and merchandise requested and |
the price of each item; (iv) the terms or method of payment |
agreed upon; and (v) a statement as to any monetary advances |
made on behalf of the family. The cemetery authority shall |
maintain a copy of such written contract in its permanent |
records.
|
(Source: P.A. 96-863, eff. 3-1-10; 97-679, eff. 2-6-12 .)
|
(225 ILCS 411/25-3) |
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
|
Sec. 25-3. Exemption , investigation, mediation . All |
cemetery authorities maintaining a partial exemption must |
submit to the following investigation and mediation procedure |
by the Department in the event of a consumer complaint: |
(a) Complaints to cemetery: |
(1) the cemetery authority shall make every effort |
to first resolve a consumer complaint; and
|
(2) if the complaint is not resolved, then the |
cemetery authority shall advise the consumer of his or |
her right to file a complaint with seek investigation |
and mediation by the Department. |
(b) Complaints to the Department: |
(1) if the Department receives a complaint, the |
|
Department shall make an initial determination as to |
whether the complaint has a reasonable basis and |
pertains to this Act;
|
(2) if the Department determines that the |
complaint has a reasonable basis and pertains to this |
Act, it shall inform the cemetery authority of the |
complaint and give it 30 days to tender a response;
|
(3) upon receiving the cemetery authority's |
response, or after the 30 days provided in subsection |
(2) of this subsection, whichever comes first, the |
Department shall attempt to resolve the complaint |
telephonically with the parties involved;
|
(4) if the complaint still is not resolved, then |
the Department shall conduct an investigation and |
mediate the complaint as provided for by rule;
|
(5) if the Department conducts an on-site |
investigation and face-to-face mediation with the |
parties, then it may charge the cemetery authority a |
single investigation and mediation fee, which fee |
shall be set by rule and shall be calculated on an |
hourly basis; and
|
(6) if all attempts to resolve the consumer |
complaint as provided for in paragraphs (1) through |
(5) fail, then the cemetery authority may be subject |
to proceedings for penalties and discipline under this |
Article when it is determined by the Department that |
|
the cemetery authority may have engaged in any of the |
following: (i) gross malpractice; (ii) dishonorable, |
unethical, or unprofessional conduct of a character |
likely to deceive, defraud, or harm the public; (iii) |
gross, willful, or continued overcharging for |
services; (iv) incompetence; (v) unjustified failure |
to honor its contracts; or (vi) failure to adequately |
maintain its premises. The Department may issue a |
citation or institute disciplinary action and cause |
the matter to be prosecuted and may thereafter issue |
and enforce its final order as provided in this Act.
|
(Source: P.A. 96-863, eff. 3-1-10 .)
|
(225 ILCS 411/25-5) |
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
|
Sec. 25-5. Citations. |
(a) The Department may adopt rules to permit the issuance |
of citations for non-frivolous complaints. The citation shall |
be issued to the licensee and shall contain the licensee's |
name and address, the licensee's license number, a brief |
factual statement, the Sections of the law allegedly violated, |
and the penalty imposed. The citation must clearly state that |
the licensee may choose, in lieu of accepting the citation, to |
request a hearing. If the licensee does not dispute the matter |
in the citation with the Department within 30 days after the |
citation is served, then the citation shall become a final |
|
order and shall constitute discipline. The penalty shall be a |
fine or other conditions as established by rule. |
(b) The Department shall adopt rules designating |
violations for which a citation may be issued. Such rules |
shall designate as citation violations those violations for |
which there is no substantial threat to the public health, |
safety, and welfare. Citations shall not be utilized if there |
was any significant consumer harm resulting from the |
violation. |
(c) A citation must be issued within 6 months after the |
reporting of a violation that is the basis for the citation. |
(d) Service of a citation may be made by personal service , |
regular mail, or email or certified mail to the licensee at the |
licensee's address of record.
|
(Source: P.A. 96-863, eff. 3-1-10 .)
|
(225 ILCS 411/25-10) |
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
|
Sec. 25-10. Grounds for disciplinary action. |
(a) The Department may refuse to issue or renew a license |
or may revoke, suspend, place on probation, reprimand, or take |
other disciplinary or non-disciplinary action as the |
Department may deem appropriate, including imposing fines not |
to exceed $10,000 $8,000 for each violation, with regard to |
any license under this Act, for any one or combination of the |
following: |
|
(1) Material misstatement in furnishing information to |
the Department. |
(2) Violations of this Act, except for Section 20-8 , |
or of the rules adopted under this Act . |
(3) Conviction of or entry of a plea of guilty or nolo |
contendere, finding of guilt, jury verdict, or entry of |
judgment or sentencing, including, but not limited to, |
convictions, preceding sentences of supervision, |
conditional discharge, or first offender probation under |
the law of any jurisdiction of the United States that is |
(i) a Class X felony or (ii) a felony, an essential element |
of which is fraud or dishonesty that is directly related |
to the practice of cemetery operations. Conviction of, or |
entry of a plea of guilty or nolo contendere to, any crime |
within the last 10 years that is a Class X felony or higher |
or is a felony involving fraud and dishonesty under the |
laws of the United States or any state or territory |
thereof. |
(4) Fraud or any misrepresentation in applying for or |
procuring a license under this Act or in connection with |
applying for renewal. Making any misrepresentation for the |
purpose of obtaining licensure or violating any provision |
of this Act or the rules adopted under this Act. |
(5) Incompetence or misconduct in the practice of |
cemetery operations. Professional incompetence. |
(6) Gross malpractice.
|
|
(7) Aiding or assisting another person in violating |
any provision of this Act or rules adopted under this Act. |
(8) Failing, within 10 business days, to provide |
information in response to a written request made by the |
Department.
|
(9) Engaging in dishonorable, unethical, or |
unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive, |
defraud, or harm the public. |
(10) Habitual or excessive use or abuse of drugs |
defined in law as controlled substances, alcohol, |
narcotics, stimulants, or any other substances that |
results in the inability to practice pursuant to the |
provisions of this Act with reasonable judgment, skill, or |
safety while acting under the provisions of this Act. |
Inability to practice with reasonable judgment, skill, or |
safety as a result of habitual or excessive use of |
alcohol, narcotics, stimulants, or any other chemical |
agent or drug. |
(11) Discipline by another agency, state, territory, |
foreign country, the District of Columbia, the United |
States government territory , or any other government |
agency foreign nation , if at least one of the grounds for |
the discipline is the same or substantially equivalent to |
those set forth in this Act Section . |
(12) Directly or indirectly giving to or receiving |
from any person, firm, corporation, partnership, or |
|
association any fee, commission, rebate, or other form of |
compensation for professional services not actually or |
personally rendered. |
(13) A finding by the Department that the licensee, |
after having his or her license placed on probationary |
status, has violated the terms of probation or failed to |
comply with such terms . |
(14) Willfully making or filing false records or |
reports in his or her practice, including, but not limited |
to, false records filed with any governmental agency or |
department. |
(15) Inability to practice the profession with |
reasonable judgment, skill, or safety as a result of |
physical illness, including, but not limited to, loss of |
motor skill, mental illness, or disability . |
(16) Failure to comply with an order, decision, or |
finding of the Department made pursuant to this Act. |
(17) Directly or indirectly receiving compensation for |
any professional services not actually performed. |
(18) Practicing under a false or, except as provided |
by law, an assumed name.
|
(19) Using or attempting to use an expired, inactive, |
suspended, or revoked license or impersonating another |
licensee. Fraud or misrepresentation in applying for, or |
procuring, a license under this Act or in connection with |
applying for renewal of a license under this Act. |
|
(20) A finding by the Department that an applicant or |
licensee has failed to pay a fine imposed by the |
Department. Cheating on or attempting to subvert the |
licensing examination administered under this Act. |
(21) Unjustified failure to honor its contracts.
|
(22) Negligent supervision of a cemetery manager, |
customer service employee, employee, or independent |
contractor.
|
(23) (Blank). A pattern of practice or other behavior |
which demonstrates incapacity or incompetence to practice |
under this Act. |
(24) (Blank). Allowing an individual who is not, but |
is required to be, licensed under this Act to perform work |
for the cemetery authority. |
(25) (Blank). |
(b) No action may be taken under this Act against a person |
licensed under this Act for an occurrence or alleged |
occurrence that predates the enactment of this Act unless the |
action is commenced within 5 years after the occurrence of the |
alleged violations, except for a violation of item (3) of |
subsection (a) of this Section. If a person licensed under |
this Act violates item (3) of subsection (a) of this Section, |
then the action may commence within 10 years after the |
occurrence of the alleged violation. A continuing violation |
shall be deemed to have occurred on the date when the |
circumstances last existed that give rise to the alleged |
|
violation .
|
(c) In enforcing this Section, the Department, upon a |
showing of a possible violation, may order a licensee or |
applicant to submit to a mental or physical examination, or |
both, at the expense of the Department. The Department may |
order the examining physician to present testimony concerning |
his or her examination of the licensee or applicant. No |
information shall be excluded by reason of any common law or |
statutory privilege relating to communications between the |
licensee or applicant and the examining physician. The |
examining physicians shall be specifically designated by the |
Department. The licensee or applicant may have, at his or her |
own expense, another physician of his or her choice present |
during all aspects of the examination. Failure of a licensee |
or applicant to submit to any such examination when directed, |
without reasonable cause, shall be grounds for either |
immediate suspending of his or her license or immediate denial |
of his or her application. |
(1) If the Secretary immediately suspends the license |
of a licensee for his or her failure to submit to a mental |
or physical examination when directed, a hearing must be |
convened by the Department within 15 days after the |
suspension and completed without appreciable delay. |
(2) If the Secretary otherwise suspends a license |
pursuant to the results of the licensee's mental or |
physical examination, a hearing must be convened by the |
|
Department within 15 days after the suspension and |
completed without appreciable delay. The Department shall |
have the authority to review the licensee's record of |
treatment and counseling regarding the relevant impairment |
or impairments to the extent permitted by applicable |
federal statutes and regulations safeguarding the |
confidentiality of medical records. |
(3) Any licensee suspended under this subsection shall |
be afforded an opportunity to demonstrate to the |
Department that he or she can resume practice in |
compliance with the acceptable and prevailing standards |
under the provisions of his or her license. |
(d) The determination by a circuit court that a licensee |
is subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission, as |
provided in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities |
Code, operates as an automatic suspension. Such suspension may |
end only upon a finding by a court that the patient is no |
longer subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission, |
the issuance of an order so finding and discharging the |
patient, and the filing of a petition for restoration |
demonstrating fitness to practice. |
(e) In cases where the Department of Healthcare and Family |
Services has previously determined that a licensee or a |
potential licensee is more than 30 days delinquent in the |
payment of child support and has subsequently certified the |
delinquency to the Department, the Department shall refuse to |
|
issue or renew or shall revoke or suspend that person's |
license or shall take other disciplinary action against that |
person based solely upon the certification of delinquency made |
by the Department of Healthcare and Family Services under |
paragraph (5) of subsection (a) of Section 2105-15 of the |
Department of Professional Regulation Law of the Civil |
Administrative Code of Illinois. |
(f) The Department shall refuse to issue or renew or shall |
revoke or suspend a person's license or shall take other |
disciplinary action against that person for his or her failure |
to file a return, to pay the tax, penalty, or interest shown in |
a filed return, or to pay any final assessment of tax, penalty, |
or interest as required by any tax Act administered by the |
Department of Revenue, until the requirements of the tax Act |
are satisfied in accordance with subsection (g) of Section |
2105-15 of the Department of Professional Regulation Law of |
the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois. |
(Source: P.A. 96-863, eff. 3-1-10; 97-679, eff. 2-6-12 .)
|
(225 ILCS 411/25-15) |
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
|
Sec. 25-15. Injunction; cease Cease and desist order . |
(a) If any person or entity violates a provision of this |
Act, the Secretary may, in the name of the People of the State |
of Illinois, through the Attorney General of the State of |
Illinois, petition for an order enjoining such violation or |
|
for an order enforcing compliance with this Act. Upon the |
filing of a verified petition in such court, the court may |
issue a temporary restraining order, without notice or bond, |
and may preliminarily and permanently enjoin such violation. |
If it is established that such person or entity has violated or |
is violating the injunction, the court may punish the offender |
for contempt of court. Proceedings under this Section are in |
addition to, and not in lieu of, all other remedies and |
penalties provided by this Act. The Secretary may issue an |
order to cease and desist to any licensee or other person doing |
business without the required license when, in the opinion of |
the Secretary, the licensee or other person is violating or is |
about to violate any provision of this Act or any rule or |
requirement imposed in writing by the Department. |
(b) Whenever in the opinion of the Department any person |
or entity violates any provision of this Act, the Department |
may issue a rule to show cause why an order to cease and desist |
should not be entered against them. The rule shall clearly set |
forth the grounds relied upon by the Department and shall |
provide a period of 7 days from the date of the rule to file an |
answer to the satisfaction of the Department. Failure to |
answer to the satisfaction of the Department shall cause an |
order to cease and desist to be issued immediately. The |
Secretary may issue an order to cease and desist prior to a |
hearing and such order shall be in full force and effect until |
a final administrative order is entered.
|
|
(c) The Secretary shall serve notice of his or her action, |
designated as an order to cease and desist made pursuant to |
this Section, including a statement of the reasons for the |
action, either personally or by certified mail, return receipt |
requested. Service by certified mail shall be deemed completed |
when the notice is deposited in the United States mail and sent |
to the address of record or, in the case of unlicensed |
activity, the address known to the Department. |
(d) Within 15 days after service of the order to cease and |
desist, the licensee or other person may request, in writing, |
a hearing. |
(e) The Secretary shall schedule a hearing within 30 days |
after the request for a hearing unless otherwise agreed to by |
the parties. |
(f) The Secretary shall have the authority to prescribe |
rules for the administration of this Section. |
(g) If, after hearing, it is determined that the Secretary |
has the authority to issue the order to cease and desist, he or |
she may issue such orders as may be reasonably necessary to |
correct, eliminate, or remedy such conduct. |
(h) The powers vested in the Secretary by this Section are |
additional to any and all other powers and remedies vested in |
the Secretary by law and nothing in this Section shall be |
construed as requiring that the Secretary shall employ the |
power conferred in this Section instead of or as a condition |
precedent to the exercise of any other power or remedy vested |
|
in the Secretary.
|
(Source: P.A. 96-863, eff. 3-1-10 .)
|
(225 ILCS 411/25-25) |
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
|
Sec. 25-25. Investigations, notice, hearings. |
(a) The Department may investigate the actions of any |
applicant or of any person or entity holding or claiming to |
hold a license under this Act. The Department may at any time |
investigate the actions of any applicant or of any person or |
persons rendering or offering to render services as a cemetery |
authority, cemetery manager, or customer service employee of |
or any person holding or claiming to hold a license as a |
licensed cemetery authority, cemetery manager, or customer |
service employee. If it appears to the Department that a |
person has engaged in, is engaging in, or is about to engage in |
any practice declared to be unlawful by this Act, then the |
Department may: (1) require that person to file on such terms |
as the Department prescribes a statement or report in writing, |
under oath or otherwise, containing all information the |
Department may consider necessary to ascertain whether a |
licensee is in compliance with this Act, or whether an |
unlicensed person is engaging in activities for which a |
license is required; (2) examine under oath any individual in |
connection with the books and records pertaining to or having |
an impact upon the operation of a cemetery; (3) examine any |
|
books and records of the licensee that the Department may |
consider necessary to ascertain compliance with this Act; and |
(4) require the production of a copy of any record, book, |
document, account, or paper that is produced in accordance |
with this Act and retain it in his or her possession until the |
completion of all proceedings in connection with which it is |
produced. |
(b) The Department shall, before disciplining an applicant |
or licensee, at least 30 days prior to the date set for the |
hearing: (i) notify, in writing, the accused of the charges |
made and the time and place for the hearing on the charges, |
(ii) direct him or her to file a written answer to the charges |
under oath within 20 days after service of the notice, and |
(iii) inform the applicant or licensee that failure to file an |
answer will result in a default being entered against the |
applicant or licensee. The Secretary may, after 10 days notice |
by certified mail with return receipt requested to the |
licensee at the address of record or to the last known address |
of any other person stating the contemplated action and in |
general the grounds therefor, fine such licensee an amount not |
exceeding $10,000 per violation or revoke, suspend, refuse to |
renew, place on probation, or reprimand any license issued |
under this Act if he or she finds that:
|
(1) the licensee has failed to comply with any |
provision of this Act or any order, decision, finding, |
rule, regulation, or direction of the Secretary lawfully |
|
made pursuant to the authority of this Act; or
|
(2) any fact or condition exists which, if it had |
existed at the time of the original application for the |
license, clearly would have warranted the Secretary in |
refusing to issue the license.
|
(c) Written or electronic notice, and any notice in the |
subsequent proceedings, may be served by personal delivery, by |
email, or by mail to the applicant or licensee at his or her |
address of record or email address of record. The Secretary |
may fine, revoke, suspend, refuse to renew, place on |
probation, reprimand, or take any other disciplinary action as |
to the particular license with respect to which grounds for |
the fine, revocation, suspension, refuse to renew, probation, |
or reprimand, or other disciplinary action occur or exist, but |
if the Secretary finds that grounds for revocation are of |
general application to all offices or to more than one office |
of the licensee, the Secretary shall fine, revoke, suspend, |
refuse to renew, place on probation, reprimand, or otherwise |
discipline every license to which such grounds apply. |
(d) At the time and place fixed in the notice, the hearing |
officer appointed by the Secretary shall proceed to hear the |
charges and the parties or their counsel shall be accorded |
ample opportunity to present any statement, testimony, |
evidence, and argument as may be pertinent to the charges or to |
their defense. The hearing officer may continue the hearing |
from time to time. In every case in which a license is revoked, |
|
suspended, placed on probation, reprimanded, or otherwise |
disciplined, the Secretary shall serve the licensee with |
notice of his or her action, including a statement of the |
reasons for his or her actions, either personally or by |
certified mail, return receipt requested. Service by certified |
mail shall be deemed completed when the notice is deposited in |
the United States mail and sent to the address of record. |
(e) In case the licensee or applicant, after receiving the |
notice, fails to file an answer, his or her license may, in the |
discretion of the Secretary, be suspended, revoked, or placed |
on probationary status, or be subject to whatever disciplinary |
action the Secretary considers proper, including limiting the |
scope, nature, or extent of the person's practice or |
imposition of a fine, without hearing, if the act or acts |
charged constitute sufficient grounds for the action under |
this Act. An order assessing a fine, an order revoking, |
suspending, placing on probation, or reprimanding a license |
or, an order denying renewal of a license shall take effect |
upon service of the order unless the licensee requests, in |
writing, within 20 days after the date of service, a hearing. |
In the event a hearing is requested, an order issued under this |
Section shall be stayed until a final administrative order is |
entered. |
(f) If the licensee requests a hearing, then the Secretary |
shall schedule a hearing within 30 days after the request for a |
hearing unless otherwise agreed to by the parties. The |
|
Secretary shall have the authority to appoint an attorney duly |
licensed to practice law in the State of Illinois to serve as |
the hearing officer in any disciplinary action with regard to |
a license. The hearing officer shall have full authority to |
conduct the hearing. |
(g) The hearing shall be held at the time and place |
designated by the Secretary. |
(h) The Secretary shall have the authority to prescribe |
rules for the administration of this Section. |
(i) Fines imposed and any costs assessed shall be paid |
within 60 days.
|
(Source: P.A. 96-863, eff. 3-1-10; 97-679, eff. 2-6-12 .)
|
(225 ILCS 411/25-26 new) |
Sec. 25-26. Hearing officer. Notwithstanding any provision |
of this Act, the Secretary has the authority to appoint an |
attorney licensed to practice law in the State of Illinois to |
serve as the hearing officer in any action for refusal to issue |
or renew a license or discipline a license. The hearing |
officer shall have full authority to conduct the hearing. The |
hearing officer shall report his or her findings of fact, |
conclusions of law, and recommendations to the Secretary.
|
(225 ILCS 411/25-30) |
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
|
Sec. 25-30. Hearing; motion for rehearing Consent order . |
|
(a) The hearing officer appointed by the Secretary shall |
hear evidence in support of the formal charges and evidence |
produced by the licensee. At the conclusion of the hearing, |
the hearing officer shall present to the Secretary a written |
report of his or her findings of fact, conclusions of law, and |
recommendations. |
(b) At the conclusion of the hearing, a copy of the hearing |
officer's report shall be served upon the applicant or |
licensee, either personally or as provided in this Act for the |
service of the notice of hearing. Within 20 calendar days |
after such service, the applicant or licensee may present to |
the Department a motion, in writing, for a rehearing which |
shall specify the particular grounds for rehearing. The |
Department may respond to the motion for rehearing within 20 |
calendar days after its service on the Department. If no |
motion for rehearing is filed, then upon the expiration of the |
time specified for filing such a motion, or upon denial of a |
motion for rehearing, the Secretary may enter an order in |
accordance with the recommendations of the hearing officer. If |
the applicant or licensee orders from the reporting service |
and pays for a transcript of the record within the time for |
filing a motion for rehearing, the 20 calendar day period |
within which a motion may be filed shall commence upon |
delivery of the transcript to the applicant or licensee. |
(c) If the Secretary disagrees in any regard with the |
report of the hearing officer, the Secretary may issue an |
|
order contrary to the report. |
(d) Whenever the Secretary is not satisfied that |
substantial justice has been done, the Secretary may order a |
hearing by the same or another hearing officer. |
(e) At any point in any investigation or disciplinary |
proceeding provided for in this Act, both parties may agree to |
a negotiated consent order. The consent order shall be final |
upon signature of the Secretary. |
At any point in any investigation or disciplinary proceeding |
provided for in this Act, both parties may agree to a |
negotiated consent order. The consent order shall be final |
upon signature of the Secretary.
|
(Source: P.A. 96-863, eff. 3-1-10 .)
|
(225 ILCS 411/25-35) |
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
|
Sec. 25-35. Record of proceedings ; transcript . |
(a) The Department, at its expense, shall provide a |
certified shorthand reporter to take down the testimony and |
preserve a record of all proceedings at the hearing of any case |
in which a licensee may be revoked, suspended, placed on |
probationary status, reprimanded, fined, or subjected to other |
disciplinary action with reference to the license when a |
disciplinary action is authorized under this Act and rules. |
The notice of hearing, complaint, and all other documents in |
the nature of pleadings and written portions filed in the |
|
proceedings, the transcript of the testimony, the report of |
the hearing officer, and the orders of the Department shall be |
the record of the proceedings. The record may be made |
available to any person interested in the hearing upon payment |
of the fee required by Section 2105-115 of the Department of |
Professional Regulation Law shall preserve a record of all |
proceedings at the formal hearing of any case. Any notice, all |
documents in the nature of pleadings, written motions filed in |
the proceedings, the transcripts of testimony, and orders of |
the Department shall be in the record of the proceeding .
|
(b) The Department may contract for court reporting |
services, and, if it does so, the Department shall provide the |
name and contact information for the certified shorthand |
reporter who transcribed the testimony at a hearing to any |
person interested, who may obtain a copy of the transcript of |
any proceedings at a hearing upon payment of the fee specified |
by the certified shorthand reporter. |
(Source: P.A. 96-863, eff. 3-1-10 .)
|
(225 ILCS 411/25-90) |
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
|
Sec. 25-90. Restoration of license from discipline. |
(a) At any time after the successful completion of a term |
of indefinite probation, suspension, or revocation of a |
license under this Act , the Department may restore the license |
to the licensee, unless after an investigation and a hearing |
|
the Secretary determines that restoration is not in the public |
interest.
|
(b) Where circumstances of suspension or revocation so |
indicate, the Department may require an examination of the |
licensee prior to restoring his or her license. |
(c) No person whose license has been revoked as authorized |
in this Act may apply for restoration of that license until |
such time as provided for in the Civil Administrative Code of |
Illinois. |
(d) A license that has been suspended or revoked shall be |
considered non-renewed for purposes of restoration and a |
licensee restoring his or her license from suspension or |
revocation must comply with the requirements for restoration |
as set forth in Section 10-40. |
(Source: P.A. 96-863, eff. 3-1-10 .)
|
(225 ILCS 411/25-95) |
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
|
Sec. 25-95. Administrative review; venue. |
(a) All final administrative decisions of the Department |
are subject to judicial review under the Administrative Review |
Law and its rules. The term "administrative decision" is |
defined as in Section 3-101 of the Code of Civil Procedure. |
(b) Proceedings for judicial review shall be commenced in |
the circuit court of the county in which the party applying for |
review resides, but if the party is not a resident of Illinois, |
|
the venue shall be in Sangamon County.
|
(c) The Department shall not be required to certify any |
record to the court or file any answer in court, or to |
otherwise appear in any court in a judicial review proceeding, |
unless and until the Department has received from the |
plaintiff payment of the costs of furnishing and certifying |
the record, which costs shall be determined by the Department. |
(d) Failure on the part of the plaintiff to file a receipt |
in court shall be grounds for dismissal of the action. |
(Source: P.A. 96-863, eff. 3-1-10 .)
|
(225 ILCS 411/25-105) |
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
|
Sec. 25-105. Unlicensed practice; violations; civil |
penalty Violations . |
(a) Any person who practices, offers to practice, attempts |
to practice, or hold himself or herself out as a cemetery |
manager or customer service employee as provided in this Act |
without being licensed or exempt under this Act shall, in |
addition to any other penalty provided by law, pay a civil |
penalty to the Department in an amount not to exceed $10,000 |
for each offense, as determined by the Department. The civil |
penalty shall be assessed by the Department after a hearing is |
held in accordance with the provision set forth in this Act |
regarding the provision of a hearing for the discipline of a |
licensee. |
|
(b) The Department may investigate any actual, alleged, or |
suspected unlicensed activity. |
(c) The civil penalty shall be paid within 60 days after |
the effective date of the order imposing the civil penalty. |
The order shall constitute a judgment and may be filed and |
execution had thereon in the same manner as any judgment from |
any court of record. |
(d) A person or entity not licensed under this Act who has |
violated any provision of this Act or its rules is guilty of a |
Class A misdemeanor for the first offense and a Class 4 felony |
for a second and subsequent offenses. |
Each of the following acts is a Class A misdemeanor for the |
first offense and a Class 4 felony for each subsequent |
offense: |
(1) the practice of or attempted practice of or |
holding out as available to practice as a cemetery |
authority, cemetery manager, or customer service employee |
without a license; or |
(2) the obtaining of or the attempt to obtain any |
license or authorization under this Act by fraud or |
misrepresentation.
|
(Source: P.A. 96-863, eff. 3-1-10; 97-679, eff. 2-6-12 .)
|
(225 ILCS 411/25-115) |
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
|
Sec. 25-115. Illinois Administrative Procedure Act; |
|
application. The Illinois Administrative Procedure Act is |
expressly adopted and incorporated in this Act as if all of the |
provisions of that Act were included in this Act, except that |
the provision of paragraph (d) of Section 10-65 of the |
Illinois Administrative Procedure Act, which provides that at |
hearings the licensee has the right to show compliance with |
all lawful requirements for retention or continuation or |
renewal of the license, is specifically excluded. The |
Department shall not be required to annually verify email |
addresses as specified in paragraph (a) of subsection (2) of |
Section 10-75 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act. |
For the purpose of this Act, the notice required under Section |
10-25 of the Illinois Administrative Procedure Act is |
considered sufficient when mailed to the address of record or |
emailed to the email address of record .
|
(Source: P.A. 96-863, eff. 3-1-10 .)
|
(225 ILCS 411/35-5) |
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
|
Sec. 35-5. Penalties. Cemetery authorities shall respect |
the rights of consumers of cemetery products and services as |
put forth in this Article. Failure to abide by the cemetery |
duties listed in this Article or to comply with a request by a |
consumer based on a consumer's privileges under this Article |
may activate the mediation, citation, or disciplinary |
processes in Article 25 of this Act.
|
|
(Source: P.A. 96-863, eff. 3-1-10 .)
|
(225 ILCS 411/35-15) |
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
|
Sec. 35-15. Cemetery duties.
|
(a) Prices for all cemetery-related products offered for |
sale by the cemetery authority must be disclosed to the |
consumer in writing on a standardized price list. |
Memorialization pricing may be disclosed in price ranges. The |
price list shall include the effective dates of the prices. |
The price list shall include not only the range of interment, |
inurnment, and entombment rights, and the cost of extending |
the term of any term burial, but also any related merchandise |
or services offered by the cemetery authority. Charges for |
installation of markers, monuments, and vaults in cemeteries |
must be the same without regard to where the item is purchased. |
(b) A contract for the interment, inurnment, or entombment |
of human remains must be signed by both parties: the consumer |
and the cemetery authority or its representative. Such |
signature shall be personally signed by the signor on either |
paper or electronic format and shall not include a stamp or |
electronic facsimile of the signature. Before a contract is |
signed, the prices for the purchased services and merchandise |
must be disclosed on the contract and in plain language. If a |
contract is for a term burial, the term, the option to extend |
the term, and the subsequent disposition of the human remains |
|
post-term must be in bold print and discussed with the |
consumer. Any contract for the sale of a burial plot, when |
designated, must disclose the exact location of the burial |
plot based on the survey of the cemetery map or plat on file |
with the cemetery authority. |
(c) A cemetery authority that has the legal right to |
extend a term burial shall, prior to disinterment, provide the |
family or other authorized agent under the Disposition of |
Remains Act the opportunity to extend the term of a term burial |
for the cost as stated on the cemetery authority's current |
price list. Regardless of whether the family or other |
authorized agent chooses to extend the term burial, the |
cemetery authority shall, prior to disinterment, provide |
notice to the family or other authorized agent under the |
Disposition of Remains Act of the cemetery authority's |
intention to disinter the remains and to inter different human |
remains in that space. |
(d) If any rules or regulations, including the operational |
or maintenance requirements, of a cemetery change after the |
date a contract is signed for the purchase of cemetery-related |
or funeral-related products or services, the cemetery may not |
require the consumer, purchaser, or such individual's relative |
or representative to purchase any merchandise or service not |
included in the original contract or in the rules and |
regulations in existence when the contract was entered unless |
the purchase is reasonable or required to make the cemetery |
|
authority compliant with applicable law. |
(e) No cemetery authority or its agent may engage in |
deceptive or unfair practices. The cemetery authority and its |
agents may not misrepresent legal or cemetery requirements. |
(f) The Department may adopt rules regarding green burial |
certification, green cremation products and methods, and |
consumer education. |
(g) The contractual requirements contained in this Section |
only apply to contracts executed after the effective date of |
this Act.
|
(Source: P.A. 96-863, eff. 3-1-10 .)
|
(225 ILCS 411/75-45) |
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
|
Sec. 75-45. Fees. The Department shall by rule provide for |
fees for the administration and enforcement of this Act, and |
those fees are nonrefundable. All of the fees , and fines , and |
all other moneys collected under this Act and fees collected |
on behalf of the Department under subsection (1) of Section 25 |
of the Vital Records Act shall be deposited into the Cemetery |
Oversight Licensing and Disciplinary Fund and be appropriated |
to the Department for the ordinary and contingent expenses of |
the Department in the administration and enforcement of this |
Act.
|
(Source: P.A. 96-863, eff. 3-1-10 .)
|
|
(225 ILCS 411/25-1 rep.) |
(225 ILCS 411/25-50 rep.) |
(225 ILCS 411/25-55 rep.) |
(225 ILCS 411/25-60 rep.) |
(225 ILCS 411/25-100 rep.) |
(225 ILCS 411/25-110 rep.) |
(225 ILCS 411/25-120 rep.) |
(225 ILCS 411/25-125 rep.) |
(225 ILCS 411/75-20 rep.) |
(225 ILCS 411/75-35 rep.) |
Section 45. The Cemetery Oversight Act is amended by |
repealing Sections 25-1, 25-50, 25-55, 25-60, 25-100, 25-110, |
25-120, 25-125, 75-20, and 75-35.
|
Section 50. The Community Association Manager Licensing |
and Disciplinary Act is amended by changing Sections 10, 15, |
20, 25, 27, 30, 40, 45, 50, 55, 60, 65, 70, 75, 85, 90, 92, 95, |
115, 120, 140, 145, 155, and 165 and by adding Sections 12, 41, |
85.1, 86, 161, and 162 as follows:
|
(225 ILCS 427/10)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022) |
Sec. 10. Definitions. As used in this Act: |
"Address of record" means the designated street address , |
which may not be a post office box, recorded by the Department |
in the applicant's or licensee's application file or license |
|
file maintained by the Department Department's licensure |
maintenance unit. It is the duty of the applicant or licensee |
to inform the Department of any change of address, and such |
changes must be made either through the Department's website |
or by contacting the Department's licensure maintenance unit . |
"Advertise" means, but is not limited to, issuing or |
causing to be distributed any card, sign or device to any |
person; or causing, permitting or allowing any sign or marking |
on or in any building, structure, newspaper, magazine or |
directory, or on radio or television; or advertising by any |
other means designed to secure public attention , including, |
but not limited to, print, electronic, social media, and |
digital forums . |
"Board" means the Community Association Manager Licensing |
and Disciplinary Board. |
"Community association" means an association in which |
membership is a condition of ownership or shareholder interest |
of a unit in a condominium, cooperative, townhouse, villa, or |
other residential unit which is part of a residential |
development plan and that is authorized to impose an |
assessment, rents, or other costs that may become a lien on the |
unit or lot. |
"Community association funds" means any assessments, fees, |
fines, or other funds collected by the community association |
manager from the community association, or its members, other |
than the compensation paid to the community association |
|
manager for performance of community association management |
services. |
"Community association management firm" means a company, |
corporation, limited liability company , partnership , or other |
entity that engages in community association management |
services. |
"Community association management services" means those |
services listed in the definition of community association |
manager in this Section. |
"Community association manager" means an individual who : |
(1) has an ownership interest in or is employed by a |
community association management firm, or is directly |
employed by or provides services as an independent |
contractor to a community association; and |
(2) administers for remuneration the financial, |
administrative, maintenance, or other duties for the |
community association, including the following services: |
(A) collecting, controlling or disbursing funds of |
the community association or having the authority to |
do so; |
(B) preparing budgets or other financial documents |
for the community association; |
(C) assisting in the conduct of community |
association meetings; |
(D) maintaining association records; and |
(E) administering administrating association |
|
contracts or procuring goods and services in |
accordance with , as stated in the declaration, bylaws, |
proprietary lease, declaration of covenants, or other |
governing document of the community association or at |
the direction of the board of managers; and |
(F) coordinating financial, administrative, |
maintenance, or other duties called for in the |
management contract, including individuals who are |
direct employees of the community association . |
"Community association manager" does not mean support |
staff, including, but not limited to bookkeepers, |
administrative assistants, secretaries, property inspectors, |
or customer service representatives. |
"Department" means the Department of Financial and |
Professional Regulation. |
"Designated community association manager" means a |
licensed community association
manager who: (1) has an |
ownership interest in or is employed by a community |
association
management firm to act as a controlling person; |
and (2) is the authorized signatory or has delegated
signing |
authority for the firm on community association accounts; and |
(3) supervises, manages,
and is responsible for the firm's |
community association manager activities pursuant to Section
|
50 of this Act. |
"Email address of record" means the designated email |
address recorded by the Department in the applicant's |
|
application file or the licensee's license file, as maintained |
by the Department. |
"License" means the privilege conferred by the Department
|
to a person that has fulfilled all requirements prerequisite |
to any type of licensure under this Act license issued to a |
person, corporation, partnership, limited liability company, |
or other legal entity under this Act to provide community |
association management services . |
"Licensee" means a community association manager or a |
community association management firm. |
"Person" means any individual, corporation, partnership, |
limited liability company, or other legal entity. |
"Secretary" means the Secretary of Financial and |
Professional Regulation or the Secretary's designee .
|
"Supervising community association manager" means an |
individual licensed as a community association manager who |
manages and supervises a firm. |
(Source: P.A. 100-201, eff. 8-18-17 .)
|
(225 ILCS 427/12 new) |
Sec. 12. Address of record; email address of record. All |
applicants and licensees shall: |
(1) provide a valid address and email address to the |
Department, which shall serve as the address of record and |
email address of record, respectively, at the time of |
application for licensure or renewal of a license; and |
|
(2) inform the Department of any change of address of |
record or email address of record within 14 days after |
such change through the Department's website or in a |
manner prescribed by the Department.
|
(225 ILCS 427/15)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022) |
Sec. 15. License required. It shall be unlawful for any |
person , corporation, partnership, limited liability company, |
or other entity to provide community association management |
services, provide services as a community association manager, |
or hold the person himself, herself, or itself out as a |
community association manager or community association |
management firm to any community association in this State, |
unless the person holds he, she, or it holds a current and |
valid license issued licensed by the Department or the person |
is otherwise exempt from licensure under this Act.
|
(Source: P.A. 98-365, eff. 1-1-14 .)
|
(225 ILCS 427/20)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022) |
Sec. 20. Exemptions. |
(a) The requirement for holding a license under this Act |
shall not apply to any of the following: |
(1) Any director or , officer , or member of a community |
association providing one or more of the services of a |
|
community association manager to a community association |
without compensation for such services to the association. |
(2) Any person , corporation, partnership, or limited |
liability company providing one or more of the services of |
a community association manager to a community association |
of 10 units or less. |
(3) A licensed attorney acting solely as an incident |
to
the practice of law. |
(4) An individual A person acting as a receiver, |
trustee in bankruptcy, administrator, executor, or |
guardian acting under a court order or under the authority |
of a court will or of a trust instrument . |
(5) A person licensed in this State under any other |
Act who engages in practices or activities specifically |
authorized by the Act pursuant to which the license was |
granted from engaging the practice for which he or she is |
licensed . |
(b) A licensed community association manager may not |
perform or engage in any activities for which a real estate |
managing broker , or real estate broker, or residential leasing |
agent broker's license is required under
the Real Estate |
License Act of 2000, unless the licensee he or she also |
possesses a current and valid license under the Real Estate |
License Act of 2000 and is providing those services as |
provided for in the Real Estate License Act of 2000 and the |
applicable rules.
|
|
(c) (Blank). A person may temporarily act as, or provide |
services as, a community association manager without being |
licensed under this Act if the person (i) is a community |
association manager regulated under the laws of another state |
or territory of the United States or another country and (ii) |
has applied in writing to the Department, on forms prepared |
and furnished by the Department, for licensure under this Act. |
This temporary right to act as a community association manager |
shall expire 6 months after the filing of his or her written |
application to the Department; upon the withdrawal of the |
application for licensure under this Act; or upon delivery of |
a notice of intent to deny the application from the |
Department; or upon the denial of the application by the |
Department, whichever occurs first.
|
(Source: P.A. 98-365, eff. 1-1-14 .)
|
(225 ILCS 427/25)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022) |
Sec. 25. Community Association Manager Licensing and |
Disciplinary Board. |
(a) There is hereby created the Community Association |
Manager Licensing and Disciplinary Board, which shall consist |
of 7 members appointed by the Secretary. All members must be |
residents of the State and must have resided in the State for |
at least 5 years immediately preceding the date of |
appointment. Five members of the Board must be licensees under |
|
this Act , at least two members of which shall be supervising |
community association managers . Two members of the Board shall |
be owners of, or hold a shareholder's interest in, a unit in a |
community association at the time of appointment who are not |
licensees under this Act and have no direct affiliation or |
work experience with the community association's community |
association manager. This Board shall act in an advisory |
capacity to the Department. |
(b) The term of each member Members serving on the Board on |
the effective date of this amendatory Act of the 100th General |
Assembly may serve the remainder of their unexpired terms. |
Thereafter, the members' terms shall be for 4 years or until |
that member's successor is appointed and expire upon |
completion of the term . No member shall be reappointed to the |
Board for a term that would cause the member's his or her |
cumulative service to the Board to exceed 10 years. |
Appointments to fill vacancies shall be made by the Secretary |
for the unexpired portion of the term. The Secretary shall |
remove from the Board any member whose license has become void |
or has been revoked or suspended and may remove any member of |
the Board for neglect of duty, misconduct, or incompetence. A |
member who is subject to formal disciplinary proceedings shall |
be disqualified disqualify himself or herself from all Board |
business until the charge is resolved. A member also shall be |
disqualified disqualify himself or herself from any matter on |
which the member cannot act objectively. |
|
(c) Four Board members shall constitute a quorum. A quorum |
is required for all Board decisions. |
(d) The Board shall elect annually , at its first meeting |
of the fiscal year, a chairperson and vice chairperson. |
(e) Each member shall receive reimbursement as set by the |
Governor's Travel Control Board for expenses incurred in |
carrying out the duties as a Board member. The Board shall be |
compensated as determined by the Secretary. |
(f) The Board may recommend policies, procedures, and |
rules relevant to the administration and enforcement of this |
Act.
|
(Source: P.A. 100-886, eff. 8-14-18 .)
|
(225 ILCS 427/27)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022) |
Sec. 27. Immunity from liability. Any member of the Board, |
any attorney providing
advice to the Board or Department, any |
person acting as a consultant to the Board or Department, and |
any witness testifying in a proceeding authorized under this |
Act, excluding the party making the complaint, shall be immune |
from liability in any civil action brought against him or her |
for acts occurring while acting in one's his or her capacity as |
a Board member, attorney, consultant, or witness, |
respectively, unless the conduct that gave rise to the action |
was willful or wanton misconduct.
|
(Source: P.A. 98-365, eff. 1-1-14 .)
|
|
(225 ILCS 427/30)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022) |
Sec. 30. Powers and duties of the Department. The |
Department may exercise the following functions, powers and |
duties: |
(a) formulate rules for the administration and |
enforcement of this Act; |
(b) prescribe forms to be issued for the |
administration and enforcement of this Act and utilize |
regular or electronic mail, at the discretion of the |
Department, to send notices and other information to |
applicants and licensees ; |
(c) conduct hearings or proceedings to refuse to issue |
or , renew, or to suspend, revoke, place on probation, |
reprimand, or take disciplinary or non-disciplinary action |
as the Department may deem appropriate under this Act; |
(d) (blank); maintain a roster of the names and |
addresses of all licensees in a manner as deemed |
appropriate by the Department; and |
(e) seek the advice and expert knowledge of the Board |
on any matter relating to the
administration and |
enforcement of this Act ; and . |
(f) exercise any and all general powers and duties set |
forth in Section 2105-15 of the Department of Professional |
Regulation Law of the Civil Administrative Code of |
|
Illinois.
|
(Source: P.A. 96-726, eff. 7-1-10 .)
|
(225 ILCS 427/40)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022) |
Sec. 40. Qualifications for licensure as a community |
association manager. |
(a) No person shall be qualified for licensure as a |
community association manager under this Act , unless the |
person he or she has applied in writing on the prescribed forms |
and has paid the required, nonrefundable fees and has met |
meets all of the following qualifications: |
(1) Is He or she is at least 18 years of age. |
(1.5) Successfully completed a 4-year course of study |
in a high school, secondary school, or an equivalent |
course of study approved by the state in which the school |
is located, or possess a high school equivalency |
certificate, which shall be verified under oath by the |
applicant. |
(2) Provided He or she provides satisfactory evidence |
of having completed at least 20 classroom hours in |
community association management courses approved by the |
Board. |
(3) Passed He or she has passed an examination |
authorized by the Department.
|
(4) Has He or she has not committed an act or acts, in |
|
this or any other jurisdiction, that would be a violation |
of this Act. |
(5) Is He or she is of good moral character. In |
determining moral character under this Section, the |
Department may take into consideration whether the |
applicant has engaged in conduct or activities that would |
constitute grounds for discipline under this Act. Good |
moral character is a continuing requirement of licensure. |
Conviction of crimes may be used in determining moral |
character, but shall not constitute an absolute bar to |
licensure. |
(6) Has He or she has not been declared by any court of |
competent jurisdiction to be incompetent by reason of |
mental or physical defect or disease, unless a court has |
subsequently declared by a court him or her to be |
competent. |
(7) Complies He or she complies with any additional |
qualifications for licensure as determined by rule of the |
Department. |
(b) (Blank). The education requirement set forth in item |
(2) of subsection (a) of this Section shall not apply to |
persons holding a real estate managing broker or real estate |
broker license in good standing issued under the Real Estate |
License Act of 2000. |
(c) (Blank). The examination and initial education |
requirement of items (2) and (3) of subsection (a) of this |
|
Section shall not apply to any person who within 6 months from |
the effective date of the requirement for licensure, as set |
forth in Section 170 of this Act, applies for a license by |
providing satisfactory evidence to the Department of |
qualifying experience or education, as may be set forth by |
rule, including without limitation evidence that he or she has |
practiced community association management for a period of 5 |
years. |
(d) Applicants have 3 years from the date of application |
to complete the application process. If the process has not |
been completed within the 3 years, the application shall be |
denied, the fee shall be forfeited, and the applicant must |
reapply and meet the requirements in effect at the time of |
re-application. |
(e) The Department shall not require applicants to report |
the following information and shall not consider the following |
criminal history records in connection with an application for |
licensure: |
(1) juvenile adjudications of delinquent minors as |
defined in Section 5-105 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 |
subject to the restrictions set forth in Section 5-130 of |
that Act; |
(2) law enforcement records, court records, and |
conviction records of an individual who was 17 years old |
at the time of the offense and before January 1, 2014, |
unless the nature of the offense required the individual |
|
to be tried as an adult; |
(3) records of arrest not followed by a charge or |
conviction; |
(4) records of arrest in which the charges were |
dismissed unless related to the practice of the |
profession; however, applicants shall not be asked to |
report any arrests, and an arrest not followed by a |
conviction shall not be the basis of a denial and may be |
used only to assess an applicant's rehabilitation; |
(5) convictions overturned by a higher court; or |
(6) convictions or arrests that have been sealed or |
expunged. |
(f) An applicant or licensee shall report to the |
Department, in a manner prescribed by the Department, and |
within 30 days after the occurrence if during the term of |
licensure: (i) any conviction of or plea of guilty or nolo |
contendere to forgery, embezzlement, obtaining money under |
false pretenses, larceny, extortion, conspiracy to defraud, or |
any similar offense or offenses or any conviction of a felony |
involving moral turpitude; (ii) the entry of an administrative |
sanction by a government agency in this State or any other |
jurisdiction that has as an essential element dishonesty or |
fraud or involves larceny, embezzlement, or obtaining money, |
property, or credit by false pretenses; or (iii) any |
conviction of or plea of guilty or nolo contendere to a crime |
that subjects the licensee to compliance with the requirements |
|
of the Sex Offender Registration Act.
|
(Source: P.A. 100-892, eff. 8-14-18 .)
|
(225 ILCS 427/41 new) |
Sec. 41. Qualifications for licensure as a community |
association management firm. Any person who desires to obtain |
a community association management firm license must: |
(1) apply to the Department on forms prescribed by the |
Department and pay the required fee; |
(2) provide evidence to the Department that the |
community association management firm has a licensed and |
designated community association manager; |
(3) be authorized to conduct business in the State of |
Illinois and provide proof of such authorization to the |
Department; and |
(4) comply with all requirements as may be set forth |
by rule.
|
(225 ILCS 427/45)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022) |
Sec. 45. Examinations. |
(a) The Department shall authorize examinations of |
applicants for licensure as a community association manager at |
such times and places as it may determine. The examination of |
applicants shall be of a character to give a fair test of the |
qualifications of the applicant to practice as a community |
|
association manager. |
(b) Applicants for examination shall be required to pay, |
either to the Department or the designated testing service, a |
fee covering the cost of providing the examination. |
(c) The Department may employ consultants to prepare and |
conduct for the purpose of preparing and conducting |
examinations. |
(d) An applicant shall be eligible to take the examination |
only after successfully completing the education requirements |
set forth in this Act and attaining the minimum education and |
age required
under this Act. |
(e) (Blank). The examination approved by the Department |
should utilize the basic principles of professional testing |
standards utilizing psychometric measurement. The examination |
shall use standards set forth by the National Organization for |
Competency Assurances and shall be approved by the Department.
|
(Source: P.A. 96-726, eff. 7-1-10 .)
|
(225 ILCS 427/50)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022) |
Sec. 50. Community association management firm.
|
(a) No corporation, partnership, limited liability |
company, or other legal entity shall provide or offer to |
provide community association management services, unless it |
has applied in writing on the prescribed forms and has paid the |
required nonrefundable fees and provided evidence to the |
|
Department that the firm has designated a licensed supervising |
community association manager to supervise and manage the |
firm. Having a A designated supervising community association |
manager shall be a continuing requirement of firm licensure. |
No supervising community association manager may be the |
supervising community association manager for more than one |
firm. |
(b) Any corporation, partnership, limited liability |
company, or other legal entity that is providing, or offering |
to provide, community association management services and is |
not in compliance with this Section 50 and other provisions of |
this Act shall be subject to the civil penalties fines , |
injunctions, cease and desist provisions, and penalties |
provided for in Sections 90, 92, and 155 of this Act. |
(c) No community association manager may be the designated |
community association manager licensee-in-charge for more than |
one firm, corporation, limited liability company, partnership, |
or other legal entity. The designated community association |
manager shall supervise and manage all licensed and unlicensed |
employees acting on behalf of the community association |
management firm. The designated community association manager |
shall supervise and manage all independent contractors |
providing community association management services on behalf |
of the community association management firm. The community |
association management firm and the designated community |
association manager shall be responsible for all actions of |
|
which they had knowledge taken on behalf of the community |
association management firm. |
(d) The Department may adopt rules and set all necessary |
requirements for the implementation of this Section.
|
(Source: P.A. 98-365, eff. 1-1-14 .)
|
(225 ILCS 427/55)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022) |
Sec. 55. Fidelity insurance; segregation of accounts. |
(a) The designated supervising community association |
manager or the community association management firm that |
employs the designated community association manager with |
which he or she is employed shall not have access to and |
disburse community association funds unless each of the |
following conditions occur: |
(1) There is fidelity insurance in place to insure |
against loss or for theft of community association funds. |
(2) The fidelity insurance is in the maximum amount of |
coverage available to protect funds in the custody or not |
less than all moneys under the control of the designated |
supervising community association manager or the employing |
community association management firm providing service to |
for the association. |
(3) During the term and coverage period of the |
insurance, the The fidelity insurance shall cover covers |
the : |
|
(A) the designated community association manager ; , |
supervising community association manager, and |
(B) the community association management firm; |
(C) all community association managers; |
(D) all all partners, officers, and employees of |
the community association management firm ; and during |
the term of the insurance coverage, which shall be at |
least for the same term as the service agreement |
between the community association management firm or |
supervising community association manager as well as |
(E) the community association officers, directors, |
and employees. |
(4) The insurance company issuing the fidelity |
insurance may not cancel or refuse to renew the bond |
without giving at least 10 days' prior written notice. |
(5) Unless an agreement between the community |
association and the designated supervising community |
association manager or the community association |
management firm provides to the contrary, a community |
association may secure and pay for the fidelity insurance |
required by this Section. The designated supervising |
community association manager , all other licensees, and or |
the community association management firm must be named as |
additional insured parties on the community association |
policy. |
(b) A community association management firm that provides |
|
community association management services for more than one |
community association shall maintain separate, segregated |
accounts for each community association or, with the consent |
of the community association, combine the accounts of one or |
more community associations, but in that event, separately |
account for the funds of each community association . The funds |
shall not, in any event, be commingled with the supervising |
community association manager's or community association |
management firm's funds. The funds shall not, in any event, be |
commingled with the funds of the community association |
manager, the community association management firm, or any |
other community association. The maintenance of such accounts |
shall be custodial, and such accounts shall be in the name of |
the respective community association or community association |
manager or Community Association Management Agency as the |
agent for the association . |
(c) The designated supervising community association |
manager or community association management firm shall obtain |
the appropriate general liability and errors and omissions |
insurance, as determined by the Department, to cover any |
losses or claims against a the supervising community |
association manager , the designated community association |
manager, or the community association management firm. |
(d) The Department shall have authority to promulgate |
additional rules regarding insurance, fidelity insurance and |
all accounts maintained and to be maintained by a community |
|
association manager, designated supervising community |
association manager , or community association management firm.
|
(Source: P.A. 98-365, eff. 1-1-14 .)
|
(225 ILCS 427/60)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022) |
Sec. 60. Licenses; renewals; restoration; person in |
military service. |
(a) The expiration date , fees, and renewal period for each |
license issued under this Act shall be set by rule. The |
Department may promulgate rules requiring continuing education |
and set all necessary requirements for such, including but not |
limited to fees, approved coursework, number of hours, and |
waivers of continuing education. |
(b) Any licensee who has an expired permitted his, her, or |
its license to expire may have the license restored by |
applying making application to the Department and filing proof |
acceptable to the Department of fitness to have the expired |
his, her, or its license restored, by which may include sworn |
evidence certifying to active practice in another jurisdiction |
satisfactory to the Department, complying with any continuing |
education requirements, and paying the required restoration |
fee. |
(c) Any If the person has not maintained an active |
practice in another jurisdiction satisfactory to the |
Department, the Department shall determine, by an evaluation |
|
program established by rule, the person's fitness to resume |
active status and may require the person to complete a period |
of evaluated clinical experience and successful completion of |
a practical examination.
However, any person whose license |
expired while (i) in federal service on active duty with the |
Armed Forces of the United States or called into service or |
training with the State Militia or (ii) in training or |
education under the supervision of the United States |
preliminary to induction into the military service may have |
the his or her license renewed or restored without paying any |
lapsed renewal fees if, within 2 years after honorable |
termination of the service, training or education, except |
under condition other than honorable, the licensee he or she |
furnishes the Department with satisfactory evidence of |
engagement to the effect that he or she has been so engaged and |
that the service, training, or education has been so honorably |
terminated. |
(d) A community association manager or , community |
association management firm that or supervising community |
association manager who notifies the Department, in a manner |
writing on forms prescribed by the Department, may place the |
his, her, or its license on inactive status for a period not to |
exceed 2 years and shall be excused from the payment of renewal |
fees until the person notifies the Department in writing of |
the intention to resume active practice. |
(e) A community association manager, community association |
|
management firm , or supervising community association manager |
requesting that the his, her, or its license be changed from |
inactive to active status shall be required to pay the current |
renewal fee and shall also demonstrate compliance with the |
continuing education requirements. |
(f) No Any licensee with a nonrenewed or on inactive |
license status or community association management firm |
operation without a designated community association manager |
shall not provide community association management services as |
set forth in this Act. |
(g) Any person violating subsection (f) of this Section |
shall be considered to be practicing without a license and |
will be subject to the disciplinary provisions of this Act. |
(h) The Department shall not renew a license if the |
licensee has an unpaid fine from a disciplinary matter or an |
unpaid fee from a non-disciplinary action imposed by the |
Department until the fine or fee is paid to the Department or |
the licensee has entered into a payment plan and is current on |
the required payments. |
(i) The Department shall not issue a license if the |
applicant has an unpaid fine imposed by the Department for |
unlicensed practice until the fine is paid to the Department |
or the applicant has entered into a payment plan and is current |
on the required payments.
|
(Source: P.A. 98-365, eff. 1-1-14 .)
|
|
(225 ILCS 427/65)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022) |
Sec. 65. Fees; Community Association Manager Licensing and |
Disciplinary Fund. |
(a) The fees for the administration and enforcement of |
this Act, including, but not limited to, initial licensure, |
renewal, and restoration, shall be set by rule of the |
Department. The fees shall be nonrefundable. |
(b) In addition to the application fee, applicants for the |
examination are required to pay, either to the Department or |
the designated testing service, a fee covering the cost of |
determining an applicant's eligibility and providing the |
examination. Failure to appear for the examination on the |
scheduled date, at the time and place specified, after the |
applicant's application and fee for examination have been |
received and acknowledged by the Department or the designated |
testing service, shall result in the forfeiture of the fee. |
(c) All fees, fines, penalties, or other monies received |
or collected pursuant to this Act shall be deposited in the |
Community Association Manager Licensing and Disciplinary Fund.
|
(d) Moneys in the Community Association Manager Licensing |
and Disciplinary Fund may be transferred to the Professions |
Indirect Cost Fund, as authorized under Section 2105-300 of |
the Department of Professional Regulation Law of the Civil |
Administrative Code of Illinois. |
(Source: P.A. 97-1021, eff. 8-17-12; 98-365, eff. 1-1-14 .)
|
|
(225 ILCS 427/70)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022) |
Sec. 70. Penalty for insufficient funds; payments. Any |
person who : |
(1) delivers a check or other payment to the |
Department that is returned to the Department unpaid by |
the financial institution upon which it is drawn ; or |
(2) presents a credit or debit card for payment that |
is invalid or expired or against which charges by the |
Department are declined or dishonored; |
shall pay to the Department, in addition to the amount already |
owed to the Department, a fine of $50. The Department shall |
notify the person that payment of fees and fines shall be paid |
to the Department by certified check or money order within 30 |
calendar days after notification. If, after the expiration of |
30 days from the date of the notification, the person has |
failed to submit the necessary remittance, the Department |
shall automatically terminate the license or deny the |
application, without hearing. After If, after termination or |
denial, the person seeking seeks a license , he, she, or it |
shall apply to the Department for restoration or issuance of |
the license and pay all fees and fines due to the Department. |
The Department may establish a fee for the processing of an |
application for restoration of a license to pay all expenses |
of processing this application. The Secretary may waive the |
|
fines due under this Section in individual cases where the |
Secretary finds that the fines would be unreasonable or |
unnecessarily burdensome.
|
(Source: P.A. 98-365, eff. 1-1-14 .)
|
(225 ILCS 427/75)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022) |
Sec. 75. Endorsement. The Department may issue a |
community association manager or supervising community |
association manager license , without the required examination, |
to an applicant licensed under the laws of another state if the |
requirements for licensure in that state are, on the date of |
licensure, substantially equal to the requirements of this Act |
or to a person who, at the time of his or her application for |
licensure, possessed individual qualifications that were |
substantially equivalent to the requirements then in force in |
this State. An applicant under this Section shall pay all of |
the required fees. |
All applicants under this Act Applicants have 3 years from |
the date of application to complete the application process. |
If the process has not been completed within the 3 years, the |
application shall be denied, the fee shall be forfeited, and |
the applicant must reapply and meet the requirements in effect |
at the time of reapplication.
|
(Source: P.A. 98-365, eff. 1-1-14 .)
|
|
(225 ILCS 427/85)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022) |
Sec. 85. Grounds for discipline; refusal, revocation, or |
suspension. |
(a) The Department may refuse to issue or renew a license, |
or may place on probation, reprimand, suspend, or revoke any |
license, or take any other disciplinary or non-disciplinary |
action as the Department may deem proper and impose a fine not |
to exceed $10,000 for each violation upon any licensee or |
applicant under this Act or any person or entity who holds |
oneself himself, herself, or itself out as an applicant or |
licensee for any one or combination of the following causes: |
(1) Material misstatement in furnishing information to |
the Department. |
(2) Violations of this Act or its rules. |
(3) Conviction of or entry of a plea of guilty or plea |
of nolo contendere , as set forth in subsection (f) of |
Section 40, to (i) a felony or a misdemeanor under the laws |
of the United States, any state, or any other jurisdiction |
or entry of an administrative sanction by a government |
agency in this State or any other jurisdiction or (ii) a |
crime that subjects the licensee to compliance with the |
requirements of the Sex Offender Registration Act; or the |
entry of an administrative sanction by a government agency |
in this State or any other jurisdiction . Action taken |
under this paragraph (3) for a misdemeanor or an |
|
administrative sanction is limited to a misdemeanor or |
administrative sanction that has as an essential element |
dishonesty or fraud, that involves larceny, embezzlement, |
or obtaining money, property, or credit by false pretenses |
or by means of a confidence game, or that is directly |
related to the practice of the profession. |
(4) Making any misrepresentation for the purpose of |
obtaining a license or violating any provision of this Act |
or its rules. |
(5) Professional incompetence. |
(6) Gross negligence. |
(7) Aiding or assisting another person in violating |
any provision of this Act or its rules. |
(8) Failing, within 30 days, to provide information in |
response to a request made by the Department. |
(9) Engaging in dishonorable, unethical, or |
unprofessional conduct of a character likely to deceive, |
defraud or harm the public as defined by the rules of the |
Department, or violating the rules of professional conduct |
adopted by the Department. |
(10) Habitual or excessive use or addiction to |
alcohol, narcotics, stimulants, or any other chemical |
agent or drug that results in the inability to practice |
with reasonable judgment, skill, or safety. |
(11) Having been disciplined by another state, the |
District of Columbia, a territory, a foreign nation, or a |
|
governmental agency authorized to impose discipline if at |
least one of the grounds for the discipline is the same or |
substantially equivalent of one of the grounds for which a |
licensee may be disciplined under this Act. A certified |
copy of the record of the action by the other state or |
jurisdiction shall be prima facie evidence thereof. |
(12) Directly or indirectly giving to or receiving |
from any person, firm, corporation, partnership or |
association any fee, commission, rebate, or other form of |
compensation for any professional services not actually or |
personally rendered. |
(13) A finding by the Department that the licensee, |
after having the his, her, or its license placed on |
probationary status, has violated the terms of probation. |
(14) Willfully making or filing false records or |
reports relating to a licensee's practice, including but |
not limited to false records filed with any State or |
federal agencies or departments. |
(15) Being named as a perpetrator in an indicated |
report by the Department of Children and Family Services |
under the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act and |
upon proof by clear and convincing evidence that the |
licensee has caused a child to be an abused child or |
neglected child as defined in the Abused and Neglected |
Child Reporting Act. |
(16) Physical illness or mental illness or impairment , |
|
including, but not limited to, deterioration through the |
aging process or loss of motor skill that results in the |
inability to practice the profession with reasonable |
judgment, skill, or safety. |
(17) Solicitation of professional services by using |
false or misleading advertising. |
(18) A finding that licensure has been applied for or |
obtained by fraudulent means. |
(19) Practicing or attempting to practice under a name |
other than the full name as shown on the license or any |
other legally authorized name unless approved by the |
Department . |
(20) Gross overcharging for professional services |
including, but not limited to, (i) collection of fees or |
moneys for services that are not rendered; and (ii) |
charging for services that are not in accordance with the |
contract between the licensee and the community |
association. |
(21) Improper commingling of personal and client funds |
in violation of this Act or any rules promulgated thereto. |
(22) Failing to account for or remit any moneys or |
documents coming into the licensee's possession that |
belong to another person or entity. |
(23) Giving differential treatment to a person that is |
to that person's detriment on the basis because of race, |
color, creed, sex, ancestry, age, order of protection |
|
status, marital status, physical or mental disability, |
military status, unfavorable discharge from military |
status, sexual orientation, pregnancy, religion, or |
national origin. |
(24) Performing and charging for services without |
reasonable authorization to do so from the person or |
entity for whom service is being provided. |
(25) Failing to make available to the Department, upon |
request, any books, records, or forms required by this |
Act. |
(26) Purporting to be a designated supervising |
community association manager of a firm without active |
participation in the firm and having been designated as |
such . |
(27) Failing to make available to the Department at |
the time of the request any indicia of licensure or |
registration issued under this Act. |
(28) Failing to maintain and deposit funds belonging |
to a community association in accordance with subsection |
(b) of Section 55 of this Act. |
(29) Violating the terms of a disciplinary order |
issued by the Department. |
(30) Operating a community association management firm |
without a designated community association manager who |
holds an active community association manager license. |
(31) For a designated community association manager, |
|
failing to meet the requirements for acting as a |
designated community association manager. |
(32) Failing to disclose to a community association |
any compensation received by a licensee from a third party |
in connection with or related to a transaction entered |
into by the licensee on behalf of the community |
association. |
(33) Failing to disclose to a community association, |
at the time of making the referral, that a licensee (A) has |
greater than a 1% ownership interest in a third party to |
which it refers the community association; or (B) receives |
or may receive dividends or other profit sharing |
distributions from a third party, other than a publicly |
held or traded company, to which it refers the community |
association. |
(b) (Blank). |
(c) The determination by a circuit court that a licensee |
is subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission, as |
provided in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities |
Code, operates as an automatic suspension. The suspension will |
terminate only upon a finding by a court that the patient is no |
longer subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission |
and the issuance of an order so finding and discharging the |
patient, and upon the recommendation of the Board to the |
Secretary that the licensee be allowed to resume his or her |
practice as a licensed community association manager. |
|
(d) In accordance with subsection (g) of Section 2105-15 |
of the Department of Professional Regulation Law of the Civil |
Administrative Code of Illinois (20 ILCS 2105/2105-15), the |
Department may refuse to issue or renew or may suspend the |
license of any person who fails to file a return, to pay the |
tax, penalty, or interest shown in a filed return, or to pay |
any final assessment of tax, penalty, or interest, as required |
by any tax Act administered by the Department of Revenue, |
until such time as the requirements of that tax Act are |
satisfied.
|
(e) In accordance with subdivision (a)(5) of Section |
2105-15 of the Department of Professional Regulation Law of |
the Civil Administrative Code of Illinois (20 ILCS |
2105/2105-15) and in cases where the Department of Healthcare |
and Family Services (formerly Department of Public Aid) has |
previously determined that a licensee or a potential licensee |
is more than 30 days delinquent in the payment of child support |
and has subsequently certified the delinquency to the |
Department , the Department may refuse to issue or renew or may |
revoke or suspend that person's license or may take other |
disciplinary action against that person based solely upon the |
certification of delinquency made by the Department of |
Healthcare and Family Services. |
(f) (Blank). In enforcing this Section, the Department or |
Board upon a showing of a possible violation may compel a |
licensee or an individual licensed to practice under this Act, |
|
or who has applied for licensure under this Act, to submit to a |
mental or physical examination, or both, as required by and at |
the expense of the Department. The Department or Board may |
order the examining physician to present testimony concerning |
the mental or physical examination of the licensee or |
applicant. No information shall be excluded by reason of any |
common law or statutory privilege relating to communications |
between the licensee or applicant and the examining physician. |
The examining physicians shall be specifically designated by |
the Board or Department. The individual to be examined may |
have, at his or her own expense, another physician of his or |
her choice present during all aspects of this examination. |
Failure of an individual to submit to a mental or physical |
examination, when directed, shall be grounds for suspension of |
his or her license or denial of his or her application or |
renewal until the individual submits to the examination if the |
Department finds, after notice and hearing, that the refusal |
to submit to the examination was without reasonable cause.
|
If the Department or Board finds an individual unable to |
practice because of the reasons set forth in this Section, the |
Department or Board may require that individual to submit to |
care, counseling, or treatment by physicians approved or |
designated by the Department or Board, as a condition, term, |
or restriction for continued, reinstated, or renewed licensure |
to practice; or, in lieu of care, counseling, or treatment, |
the Department may file, or the Board may recommend to the |
|
Department to file, a complaint to immediately suspend, |
revoke, deny, or otherwise discipline the license of the |
individual. An individual whose license was granted, |
continued, reinstated, renewed, disciplined or supervised |
subject to such terms, conditions, or restrictions, and who |
fails to comply with such terms, conditions, or restrictions, |
shall be referred to the Secretary for a determination as to |
whether the individual shall have his or her license suspended |
immediately, pending a hearing by the Department. |
In instances in which the Secretary immediately suspends a |
person's license under this Section, a hearing on that |
person's license must be convened by the Department within 30 |
days after the suspension and completed without appreciable |
delay. The Department and Board shall have the authority to |
review the subject individual's record of treatment and |
counseling regarding the impairment to the extent permitted by |
applicable federal statutes and regulations safeguarding the |
confidentiality of medical records. |
An individual licensed under this Act and affected under |
this Section shall be afforded an opportunity to demonstrate |
to the Department or Board that he or she can resume practice |
in compliance with acceptable and prevailing standards under |
the provisions of his or her license.
|
(Source: P.A. 100-872, eff. 8-14-18 .)
|
(225 ILCS 427/85.1 new) |
|
Sec. 85.1. Citations. |
(a) The Department may adopt rules to permit the issuance |
of citations to any licensee for failure to comply with the |
continuing education requirements set forth in this Act or as |
established by rule. The citation shall be issued to the |
licensee and a copy sent to the licensee's designated |
community association manager, and shall contain the |
licensee's name, the licensee's address, the licensee's |
license number, the number of required hours of continuing |
education that have not been successfully completed by the |
licensee within the renewal period, and the penalty imposed, |
which shall not exceed $2,000. The issuance of any such |
citation shall not excuse the licensee from completing all |
continuing education required for that renewal period. |
(b) Service of a citation shall be made in person, |
electronically, or by mail to the licensee at the licensee's |
address of record or email address of record, and the citation |
must clearly state that if the cited licensee wishes to |
dispute the citation, the cited licensee may make a written |
request, within 30 days after the citation is served, for a |
hearing before the Department. If the cited licensee does not |
request a hearing within 30 days after the citation is served, |
then the citation shall become a final, non-disciplinary |
order, and any fine imposed is due and payable within 60 days |
after that final order. If the cited licensee requests a |
hearing within 30 days after the citation is served, the |
|
Department shall afford the cited licensee a hearing conducted |
in the same manner as a hearing provided for in this Act for |
any violation of this Act and shall determine whether the |
cited licensee committed the violation as charged and whether |
the fine as levied is warranted. If the violation is found, any |
fine shall constitute non-public discipline and be due and |
payable within 30 days after the order of the Secretary, which |
shall constitute a final order of the Department. No change in |
license status may be made by the Department until a final |
order of the Department has been issued. |
(c) Payment of a fine that has been assessed pursuant to |
this Section shall not constitute disciplinary action |
reportable on the Department's website or elsewhere unless a |
licensee has previously received 2 or more citations and been |
assessed 2 or more fines. |
(d) Nothing in this Section shall prohibit or limit the |
Department from taking further action pursuant to this Act and |
rules for additional, repeated, or continuing violations.
|
(225 ILCS 427/86 new) |
Sec. 86. Illegal discrimination.
When there has been an |
adjudication in a civil or criminal proceeding that a |
community association manager or community association |
management firm has illegally discriminated while engaged in |
any activity for which a license is required under this Act, |
the Department, upon the recommendation of the Board as to the |
|
extent of the suspension or revocation, shall suspend or |
revoke the license of that licensee in a timely manner, unless |
the adjudication is in the appeal process. When there has been |
an order in an administrative proceeding finding that a |
licensee has illegally discriminated while engaged in any |
activity for which a license is required under this Act, the |
Department, upon recommendation of the Board as to the nature |
and extent of the discipline, shall take one or more of the |
disciplinary actions provided for in Section 85 in a timely |
manner, unless the administrative order is in the appeal |
process.
|
(225 ILCS 427/90)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022) |
Sec. 90. Violations; injunctions; cease and desist orders. |
(a) If any person violates a provision of this Act, the |
Secretary may, in the name of the People of the State of |
Illinois, through the Attorney General of the State of |
Illinois, petition for an order enjoining the violation or for |
an order enforcing compliance with this Act. Upon the filing |
of a verified petition in court, the court may issue a |
temporary restraining order, without notice or bond, and may |
preliminarily and permanently enjoin the violation. If it is |
established that the person has violated or is violating the |
injunction, the Court may punish the offender for contempt of |
court. Proceedings under this Section are in addition to, and |
|
not in lieu of, all other remedies and penalties provided by |
this Act. |
(b) If any person provides , entity or other business may |
provide community association management services or provides |
provide services as a community association manager to any |
community association in this State without having a valid |
license under this Act or, in the case of a community |
association management firm, without a designated community |
association manager , then any licensee, any interested party , |
or any person injured thereby may, in addition to the |
Secretary, petition for relief as provided in subsection (a) |
of this Section. |
(c) Whenever in the opinion of the Department any person, |
entity or other business violates any provision of this Act, |
the Department may issue a rule to show cause why an order to |
cease and desist should not be entered against such person, |
firm or other entity. The rule shall clearly set forth the |
grounds relied upon by the Department and shall provide a |
period of at least 7 days from the date of the rule to file an |
answer to the satisfaction of the Department. If the person, |
firm or other entity fails to file an answer satisfactory to |
the Department, the matter shall be considered as a default |
and the Department may cause an order to cease and desist to be |
issued immediately.
|
(Source: P.A. 96-726, eff. 7-1-10 .)
|
|
(225 ILCS 427/92)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022) |
Sec. 92. Unlicensed practice; violation; civil penalty. |
(a) Any person, entity or other business who practices, |
offers to practice, attempts to practice, or holds oneself |
himself, herself or itself out to practice as a community |
association manager or community association management firm |
or provides provide services as a community association |
manager or community association management firm to any |
community association in this State without being licensed |
under this Act or, in the case of a community association |
management firm, without a designated community association |
manager shall, in addition to any other penalty provided by |
law, pay a civil penalty to the Department in an amount not to |
exceed $10,000 for each offense, as determined by the |
Department. The civil penalty shall be assessed by the |
Department after a hearing is held in accordance with the |
provisions set forth in this Act regarding the provision of a |
hearing for the discipline of a licensee. |
(b) The Department may investigate any and all unlicensed |
activity. |
(c) The civil penalty shall be paid within 60 days after |
the effective date of the order imposing the civil penalty. |
The order shall constitute a judgment and may be filed and |
execution had thereon in the same manner as any judgment from |
any court of record.
|
|
(Source: P.A. 98-365, eff. 1-1-14 .)
|
(225 ILCS 427/95)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022) |
Sec. 95. Investigation; notice and hearing. The |
Department may investigate the actions or qualifications of a |
person, entity or other business applying for, holding or |
claiming to hold , or holding oneself out as having a license or |
rendering or offering to render services for which a license |
is required by this Act and may notify their designated |
community association manager, if any, of the pending |
investigation . Before suspending, revoking, placing on |
probationary status, or taking any other disciplinary action |
as the Department may deem proper with regard to any license, |
at least 30 days before the date set for the hearing, the |
Department shall (i) notify the accused and their designated |
community association manager, if any, in writing of any |
charges made and the time and place for a hearing on the |
charges before the Board, (ii) direct the accused individual |
or entity to file a written answer to the charges with the |
Board under oath within 20 days after the service on the |
accused him or her of such notice, and (iii) inform the accused |
person, entity or other business that if the accused the |
person, entity, or other business fails to file an answer, |
default will be taken against the accused such person, entity, |
or other business and the license of the accused such person, |
|
entity, or other business may be suspended, revoked, placed on |
probationary status, or other disciplinary action taken with |
regard to the license, including limiting the scope, nature, |
or extent of related his or her practice, as the Department may |
deem proper. The Department shall serve notice under this |
Section by regular or electronic Written notice may be served |
by personal delivery or by registered or certified mail to the |
applicant's or licensee's applicant or licensee at his or her |
last address of record or email address of record as provided |
to with the Department. If the accused In case the person fails |
to file an answer after receiving notice, the his or her |
license may, in the discretion of the Department, be |
suspended, revoked, or placed on probationary status, or the |
Department may take whatever disciplinary action deemed |
proper, including limiting the scope, nature, or extent of the |
person's practice or the imposition of a fine, without a |
hearing, if the act or acts charged constitute sufficient |
grounds for such action under this Act. The written answer |
shall be served by personal delivery or regular , certified |
delivery, or certified or registered mail to the Department. |
At the time and place fixed in the notice, the Department shall |
proceed to hear the charges and the parties or their counsel |
shall be accorded ample opportunity to present such |
statements, testimony, evidence, and argument as may be |
pertinent to the charges or to the defense thereto. The |
Department may continue such hearing from time to time. At the |
|
discretion of the Secretary after having first received the |
recommendation of the Board, the accused person's license may |
be suspended , or revoked , or placed on probationary status or |
the Department may take whatever disciplinary action |
considered proper, including limiting the scope, nature, or |
extent of the person's practice or the imposition of a fine if |
the act or acts charged constitute sufficient grounds for that |
action under this Act. A copy of the Department's final order |
shall be delivered to the accused's designated community |
association manager or, if the accused is directly employed by |
a community association, to the board of managers of that |
association if known to the Department , if the evidence |
constitutes sufficient grounds for such action under this Act .
|
(Source: P.A. 96-726, eff. 7-1-10; 97-333, eff. 8-12-11 .)
|
(225 ILCS 427/115)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022) |
Sec. 115. Rehearing. At the conclusion of a hearing and |
following deliberation by the Board, a copy of the Board's |
report shall be served upon the applicant, licensee, or |
unlicensed person by the Department, either personally or as |
provided in this Act for the service of a notice of hearing. In |
any hearing involving disciplinary action against a licensee, |
a copy of the Board's report shall be served upon the |
respondent by the Department, either personally or as provided |
in this Act for the service of the notice of hearing. Within 20 |
|
calendar days after service, the respondent may present to the |
Department a motion in writing for a rehearing that shall |
specify the particular grounds for rehearing. If no motion for |
rehearing is filed, then upon the expiration of the time |
specified for filing a motion, or if a motion for rehearing is |
denied, then upon denial, the Secretary may enter an order in |
accordance with recommendations of the Board, except as |
provided in this Act. If the respondent orders from the |
reporting service, and pays for, a transcript of the record |
within the time for filing a motion for rehearing, the 20 |
calendar day period within which a motion may be filed shall |
commence upon the delivery of the transcript to the |
respondent.
|
(Source: P.A. 96-726, eff. 7-1-10 .)
|
(225 ILCS 427/120)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022) |
Sec. 120. Appointment of a hearing officer. The Secretary |
has the authority to appoint any attorney duly licensed to |
practice law in the State of Illinois to serve as the hearing |
officer in any action for refusal to issue or renew a license, |
or to discipline a licensee. The hearing officer has full |
authority to conduct the hearing. The hearing officer shall |
report the his findings and recommendations to the Board and |
the Secretary. At its next meeting following The Board has 60 |
calendar days from receipt of the report , the Board shall to |
|
review the report of the hearing officer and present its |
findings of fact, conclusions of law , and recommendations to |
the Secretary. |
If the Board fails to present its report within 30 |
calendar days following its next meeting after receiving the |
report within the 60 calendar day period , the respondent may |
request in writing a direct appeal to the Secretary, in which |
case the Secretary shall, within 7 calendar days after the |
request, issue an order directing the Board to issue its |
findings of fact, conclusions of law, and recommendations to |
the Secretary within 30 calendar days after such order. |
If the Board fails to issue its findings of fact, |
conclusions of law, and recommendations within that time frame |
to the Secretary after the entry of such order, the Secretary |
shall, within 30 calendar days thereafter, issue an order |
based upon the report of the hearing officer and the record of |
the proceedings or issue an order remanding the matter back to |
the hearing officer for additional proceedings in accordance |
with the order. |
If (i) a direct appeal is requested, (ii) the Board fails |
to issue its findings of fact, conclusions of law, and |
recommendations within the 30-day mandate from the Secretary |
or the Secretary fails to order the Board to do so, and (iii) |
the Secretary fails to issue an order within 30 calendar days |
thereafter, then the hearing officer's report is deemed |
accepted and a final decision of the Secretary. |
|
Notwithstanding any other provision of this Section, if |
the Secretary, upon review, determines that substantial |
justice has not been done in the revocation, suspension, or |
refusal to issue or renew a license or other disciplinary |
action taken as the result of the entry of the hearing |
officer's report, the Secretary may order a rehearing by the |
same or other examiners. If the Secretary disagrees with the |
recommendation of the Board or the hearing officer, the |
Secretary may issue an order in contravention of either |
recommendation.
|
(Source: P.A. 96-726, eff. 7-1-10 .)
|
(225 ILCS 427/140)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022) |
Sec. 140. Summary suspension. The Secretary may summarily |
suspend a license without a hearing, simultaneously with the |
institution of proceedings for a hearing provided for in this |
Act, if the Secretary finds that evidence indicating in his or |
her possession indicates that a continuation in practice would |
constitute an imminent danger to the public. In the event that |
the Secretary summarily suspends a license without a hearing, |
a hearing by the Department must be held within 30 calendar |
days after the suspension has occurred.
|
(Source: P.A. 96-726, eff. 7-1-10 .)
|
(225 ILCS 427/145)
|
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022) |
Sec. 145. Judicial review. All final administrative |
decisions of the Department are subject to judicial review |
under the Administrative Review Law and its rules. The term |
"administrative decision" is defined as in Section 3-101 of |
the Code of Civil Procedure. Proceedings for judicial review |
shall be commenced in the circuit court of the county in which |
the party applying for review resides; but if the party is not |
a resident of this State, the venue shall be in Sangamon County |
or Cook County .
|
(Source: P.A. 96-726, eff. 7-1-10 .)
|
(225 ILCS 427/155)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022) |
Sec. 155. Violations; penalties. |
(a) A person who violates any of the following provisions |
shall be guilty of a Class A misdemeanor; a person who commits |
a second or subsequent violation of these provisions is guilty |
of a Class 4 felony: |
(1) Practicing or attempting to The practice of or |
attempted practice of or holding oneself out as available |
to practice as a community association manager or |
supervising community association manager without a |
license. |
(2) Operating or attempting Operation of or attempt to |
operate a community association management firm without a |
|
firm license or a designated supervising community |
association manager. |
(3) Obtaining or attempting The obtaining of or the |
attempt to obtain any license or authorization issued |
under this Act by fraudulent misrepresentation. |
(b) Whenever a licensee is convicted of a felony related |
to the violations set forth in this Section, the clerk of the |
court in any jurisdiction shall promptly report the conviction |
to the Department and the Department shall immediately revoke |
any license authorized under this Act held by that licensee. |
The licensee shall not be eligible for licensure under this |
Act until at least 5 years have elapsed since a felony |
conviction or 3 years since release from confinement for the |
conviction, whichever is later, without a subsequent 10 years |
have elapsed since the time of full discharge from any |
sentence imposed for a felony conviction. If any person in |
making any oath or affidavit required by this Act swears |
falsely, the person is guilty of perjury and may be punished |
accordingly.
|
(Source: P.A. 98-365, eff. 1-1-14; 99-78, eff. 7-20-15 .)
|
(225 ILCS 427/161 new) |
Sec. 161. Statute of limitations. No action may be taken |
under this Act against a person or entity licensed under this |
Act unless the action is commenced within 5 years after the |
occurrence of the alleged violation. A continuing violation is |
|
deemed to have occurred on the date when the circumstances |
last existed that gave rise to the alleged continuing |
violation.
|
(225 ILCS 427/162 new) |
Sec. 162. No private right of action. Except as otherwise |
expressly provided for in this Act, nothing in this Act shall |
be construed to grant to any person a private right of action |
to enforce the provisions of this Act or the rules adopted |
under this Act.
|
(225 ILCS 427/165)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022) |
Sec. 165. Home rule. The regulation and licensing of |
community association managers , supervising community |
association managers, and community association management |
firms are exclusive powers and functions of the State. A home |
rule unit may not regulate or license community association |
managers , supervising community association managers, or |
community association management firms. This Section is a |
denial and limitation of home rule powers and functions under |
subsection (h) of Section 6 of Article VII of the Illinois |
Constitution.
|
(Source: P.A. 98-365, eff. 1-1-14 .)
|
(225 ILCS 427/42 rep.) |
|
(225 ILCS 427/80 rep.) |
(225 ILCS 427/135 rep.) |
(225 ILCS 427/170 rep.) |
Section 55. The Community Association Manager Licensing |
and Disciplinary Act is amended by repealing Sections 42, 80, |
135, and 170.
|
Section 60. The Detection of Deception Examiners Act is |
amended by changing Sections 1, 7.1, 7.3, 17, and 20 and by |
adding Section 10.2 as follows:
|
(225 ILCS 430/1) (from Ch. 111, par. 2401)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
|
Sec. 1. Definitions. As used in this Act, unless the |
context otherwise
requires:
|
"Address of record Record " means the designated address |
recorded by the Department in the applicant's or licensee's |
application file or license file as maintained by the |
Department's licensure maintenance unit. It is the duty of the |
applicant or licensee to inform the Department of any change |
of address and those changes must be made either through the |
Department's website or by contacting the Department. |
"Detection of Deception Examination", hereinafter referred
|
to as "Examination" means any examination in which a device or |
instrument
is used to test or question individuals for the |
purpose of evaluating
truthfulness or untruthfulness.
|
|
"Email address of record" means the designated email |
address recorded by the Department in the applicant's |
application file or the licensee's license file, as maintained |
by the Department's licensure maintenance unit. |
"Examiner" means any person licensed under this Act.
|
"Person" includes any natural person, partnership, |
association,
corporation or trust.
|
"Department" means the Department of Financial and |
Professional Regulation.
|
"Law enforcement agency" means an agency of the State or a |
unit of local
government that is vested by law or ordinance |
with the power to maintain public
order and to
enforce |
criminal laws and ordinances.
|
"Secretary" means the Secretary of Financial and |
Professional Regulation. |
(Source: P.A. 97-168, eff. 7-22-11.)
|
(225 ILCS 430/7.1) (from Ch. 111, par. 2408)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
|
Sec. 7.1. Administrative Procedure Act. The Illinois |
Administrative
Procedure Act is hereby expressly adopted and |
incorporated herein as if all of
the provisions of that Act |
were included in this Act, except that the provision
of |
subsection (d) of Section 10-65 of the Illinois Administrative |
Procedure Act
that provides that at hearings the licensee has |
the right to show compliance
with all lawful requirements for |
|
retention, continuation, or renewal of the
license is |
specifically excluded. For the purposes of this Act, the |
notice
required under Section 10-25 of the Illinois |
Administrative Procedure Act is deemed
sufficient when mailed |
or emailed to the last known address of a party.
|
(Source: P.A. 100-201, eff. 8-18-17.)
|
(225 ILCS 430/7.3)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
|
Sec. 7.3. Appointment of a Hearing Officer. The Secretary |
has the
authority to appoint an attorney, licensed to practice |
law in the State of
Illinois, to serve as a Hearing Officer in |
any action for refusal to issue or
renew a license or to |
discipline a license. The Hearing Officer has full
authority |
to conduct the hearing. The appointed Detection of Deception
|
Coordinator may attend hearings and advise the Hearing Officer |
on technical
matters involving Detection of Deception |
examinations.
|
(Source: P.A. 97-168, eff. 7-22-11.)
|
(225 ILCS 430/10.2 new) |
Sec. 10.2. Address of record; email address of record. |
All applicants and licensees shall: |
(1) provide a valid address and email address to
the |
Department, which shall serve as the address of record and |
email address of record, respectively, at the time of |
|
application for licensure or renewal of a license; and |
(2) inform the Department of any change of address
of |
record or email address of record within 14 days after |
such change either through the Department's website or by |
contacting the Department's licensure maintenance unit.
|
(225 ILCS 430/17) (from Ch. 111, par. 2418)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
|
Sec. 17. Investigations; notice and hearing. The |
Department may investigate the actions of any applicant or any
|
person or
persons rendering or offering to render detection of |
deception services or any person holding or claiming to hold a |
license as a licensed examiner. The Department shall, before
|
refusing to issue or renew a license or to discipline a |
licensee under Section 14, at
least 30 days prior to the date |
set for the hearing, (i) notify the accused in
writing of the |
charges made and the time and place for the hearing on the |
charges, (ii) direct him or her to file a written answer with |
the
Department under
oath within 20 days after the service of |
the notice, and (iii) inform the applicant
or licensee that |
failure to file an answer will result in default being
taken |
against the applicant or licensee. At the time and place fixed |
in the notice, the Department shall proceed to hear the |
charges and the parties or their counsel shall be accorded |
ample opportunity to present any pertinent statements, |
testimony, evidence, and arguments. The Department may |
|
continue the hearing from time to time. In case the person, |
after receiving the notice, fails to file an answer, his or her |
license, may, in the discretion of the Department, be revoked, |
suspended, placed on probationary status, or the Department |
may take whatever disciplinary action considered proper, |
including limiting the scope, nature, or extent of the |
person's practice or the imposition of a fine, without a |
hearing, if the act or acts charged constitute sufficient |
grounds for that action under the Act. The written notice may |
be served by email, by personal delivery , or by certified mail |
to the accused's address of record.
|
(Source: P.A. 97-168, eff. 7-22-11.)
|
(225 ILCS 430/20) (from Ch. 111, par. 2421)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
|
Sec. 20.
Any person affected by a final administrative |
decision of the
Department may have such decision reviewed |
judicially by the circuit court
of the county wherein such |
person resides. If the plaintiff in the review
proceeding is |
not a resident of this State, the venue shall be in Sangamon
|
County. The provisions of the Administrative Review Law, and |
all amendments
and modifications thereof, and the rules |
adopted pursuant thereto, shall
apply to and govern all |
proceedings for the judicial review of final administrative
|
decisions of the Department hereunder. The term |
"administrative decision"
is defined as in Section 3-101 of |
|
the Code of Civil Procedure.
|
The Department shall not be required to certify any record |
to the court
or file any answer in court or otherwise appear in |
any court in a judicial Judicial
review proceeding, unless and |
until the Department has received from the plaintiff payment |
of the costs of
furnishing and certifying the record which |
costs shall be determined by the Department. Exhibits shall be |
certified
without cost. Failure on the part of the plaintiff |
to file a receipt in
court is grounds for dismissal of the |
action.
|
(Source: P.A. 97-168, eff. 7-22-11.)
|
(225 ILCS 430/7.2 rep.) |
(225 ILCS 430/16 rep.) |
Section 65. The Detection of Deception Examiners Act is |
amended by repealing Sections 7.2 and 16.
|
Section 70. The Home Inspector License Act is amended by |
changing Sections 1-10, 5-5, 5-10, 5-12, 5-16, 5-17, 5-20, |
5-25, 5-30, 10-10, 15-10, 15-15, 15-20, 15-55, 15-60, 20-5, |
25-15, and 25-27 and by adding Sections 1-12, 5-50, 15-10.1, |
and 15-36 as follows:
|
(225 ILCS 441/1-10)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
|
Sec. 1-10. Definitions. As used in this Act, unless the |
|
context
otherwise requires:
|
"Address of record" means the designated street address , |
which may not be a post office box, recorded by the Department |
in the applicant's or licensee's application file or license |
file as maintained by the Department's licensure maintenance |
unit. It is the duty of the applicant or licensee to inform the |
Department of any change of address and those changes must be |
made either through the Department's website or by contacting |
the Department. |
"Applicant" means a person who applies to the Department |
for a license under this
Act.
|
"Client" means a person who engages or seeks to engage the |
services of a
home inspector for an inspection assignment.
|
"Department" means the Department of Financial and |
Professional Regulation.
|
"Email address of record" means the designated email |
address recorded by the Department in the applicant's |
application file or the licensee's license file, as maintained |
by the Department. |
"Home inspection" means the examination and evaluation of |
the exterior and
interior components of residential real |
property, which includes the inspection
of any 2 or more of the |
following components of residential real property in
|
connection with or to facilitate the sale, lease, or other |
conveyance of, or
the proposed sale, lease or other conveyance |
of, residential real property:
|
|
(1) heating, ventilation, and air conditioning system;
|
(2) plumbing system;
|
(3) electrical system;
|
(4) structural composition;
|
(5) foundation;
|
(6) roof;
|
(7) masonry structure; or
|
(8) any other residential real property component as |
established by rule.
|
"Home inspector" means a person or entity who, for another |
and for compensation either
direct or indirect, performs home |
inspections.
|
"Home inspection report" or "inspection report" means a |
written evaluation
prepared and issued by a home inspector |
upon completion of a home inspection,
which meets the |
standards of practice as established by the Department.
|
"Inspection assignment" means an engagement for which a |
home inspector is
employed or retained to conduct a home |
inspection and prepare a home inspection
report.
|
"License" means the privilege conferred by the Department |
to a person who has fulfilled all requirements prerequisite to |
any type of licensure under this Act. |
"Licensee" means a home inspector, home inspector entity, |
or home inspector education provider. |
"Person" means individuals, entities, corporations, |
limited liability
companies, registered limited liability |
|
partnerships, and partnerships, foreign
or domestic, except |
that when the context otherwise requires, the term may
refer |
to a single individual or other described entity.
|
"Residential real property" means real property that is |
used or intended to
be used as a residence by one or more |
individuals.
|
"Secretary" means the Secretary of Financial and |
Professional Regulation or the Secretary's designee . |
"Standards of practice" means recognized standards and |
codes to be used in a
home
inspection, as determined by the |
Department and established by rule.
|
(Source: P.A. 97-226, eff. 7-28-11.)
|
(225 ILCS 441/1-12 new) |
Sec. 1-12. Address of record; email address of record. All |
applicants and licensees shall: |
(1) provide a valid address and email address to the |
Department, which shall serve as the address of record and |
email address of record, respectively, at the time of |
application for licensure or renewal of a license; and |
(2) inform the Department of any change of address of |
record or email address of record within 14 days after |
such change through the Department's website or by |
contacting the Department.
|
(225 ILCS 441/5-5)
|
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
|
Sec. 5-5. Necessity of license; use of title; exemptions.
|
(a) It is unlawful for any person, including any
entity, |
to act or assume
to act as a home
inspector, to engage in the |
business of home inspection, to develop a home
inspection |
report, to practice as a home inspector, or to advertise or |
hold oneself
himself, herself, or itself
out to be a home |
inspector without a home inspector license issued under this
|
Act. A person who violates this subsection is guilty of a Class |
A misdemeanor for the first offense and a Class 4 felony for |
the second and any subsequent offenses.
|
(b) It is unlawful for any person, other than a
person who |
holds a valid
home inspector license issued pursuant to this |
Act, to use the title "home
inspector" or
any other title, |
designation, or abbreviation likely to create the impression
|
that the person is licensed as a home inspector pursuant to |
this Act. A person
who violates this subsection is guilty of a |
Class A misdemeanor.
|
(c) The licensing requirements of this Article do not |
apply to:
|
(1) any person who is employed as a code enforcement |
official by the State
of Illinois or any unit of local |
government, while acting within the scope of
that |
government employment;
|
(2) any person licensed in this State by any other law |
who is engaging in the profession or occupation for which |
|
the person is licensed by the State of Illinois while
|
acting within the scope of his or her license ; or
|
(3) any person engaged by the owner or lessor of |
residential real
property for the purpose of preparing a |
bid or estimate as to the work
necessary or the costs |
associated with performing home construction, home
|
remodeling, or home repair work on the residential real |
property, provided
such person does not hold himself or |
herself out, or advertise or hold oneself out as himself |
or
herself, as being engaged in business as a home |
inspector.
|
(d) The licensing of home inspector entities required |
under this Act does not apply to an entity whose ownership |
structure is one licensed home inspector operating a sole |
proprietorship, a single member limited liability company, or |
a single shareholder corporation, and that home inspector is |
the only licensed home inspector performing inspections on the |
entity's behalf. The licensed home inspector who is the sole |
proprietor, sole shareholder, or single member of the company |
or entity shall comply with all other provisions of this Act. |
(Source: P.A. 97-226, eff. 7-28-11.)
|
(225 ILCS 441/5-10)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
|
Sec. 5-10. Application for home inspector license. |
(a) Every natural person
who
desires to obtain a home |
|
inspector license shall:
|
(1) apply to the Department in a manner on forms |
prescribed by the Department and accompanied by the |
required
fee; all applications shall contain the |
information that, in the judgment of the Department, |
enables the Department to pass on the qualifications of |
the applicant for a license to practice as a home |
inspector as set by rule;
|
(2) be at least 18 years of age;
|
(3) successfully complete a 4-year course of study in |
a high school or secondary school or an equivalent course |
of study approved by the state in which the school is |
located, or possess a high school equivalency certificate, |
which shall be verified under oath by the applicant |
provide evidence of having attained a high school diploma |
or completed
an
equivalent course of study as determined |
by an examination conducted by the
Illinois State Board of |
Education ;
|
(4) personally take and pass a written examination and |
a field an examination authorized by the Department; and
|
(5) prior to taking the examination, provide evidence
|
to the Department that the applicant he or she has
|
successfully completed the prerequisite classroom hours of |
instruction in home
inspection, as established by rule.
|
(b) The Department shall not require applicants to report |
the following information and shall not consider the following |
|
criminal history records in connection with an application for |
licensure or registration: |
(1) juvenile adjudications of delinquent minors as |
defined in Section 5-105 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 |
subject to the restrictions set forth in Section 5-130 of |
that Act; |
(2) law enforcement records, court records, and |
conviction records of an individual who was 17 years old |
at the time of the offense and before January 1, 2014, |
unless the nature of the offense required the individual |
to be tried as an adult; |
(3) records of arrest not followed by a charge or |
conviction; |
(4) records of arrest where the charges were dismissed |
unless related to the practice of the profession; however, |
applicants shall not be asked to report any arrests, and |
an arrest not followed by a conviction shall not be the |
basis of denial and may be used only to assess an |
applicant's rehabilitation; |
(5) convictions overturned by a higher court; or |
(6) convictions or arrests that have been sealed or |
expunged. |
(c) An applicant or licensee shall report to the |
Department, in a manner prescribed by the Department, upon |
application and within 30 days after the occurrence, if during |
the term of licensure, (i) any conviction of or plea of guilty |
|
or nolo contendere to forgery, embezzlement, obtaining money |
under false pretenses, larceny, extortion, conspiracy to |
defraud, or any similar offense or offenses or any conviction |
of a felony involving moral turpitude, (ii) the entry of an |
administrative sanction by a government agency in this State |
or any other jurisdiction that has as an essential element |
dishonesty or fraud or involves larceny, embezzlement, or |
obtaining money, property, or credit by false pretenses, or |
(iii) a crime that subjects the licensee to compliance with |
the requirements of the Sex Offender Registration Act. |
(d) Applicants have 3 years after the date of the |
application to complete the application process. If the |
process has not been completed within 3 years, the application |
shall be denied, the fee forfeited, and the applicant must |
reapply and meet the requirements in effect at the time of |
reapplication. |
(Source: P.A. 100-892, eff. 8-14-18.)
|
(225 ILCS 441/5-12)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
|
Sec. 5-12. Application for home inspector license; entity. |
Every
entity that is not a natural person that desires to |
obtain a home inspector
license shall apply to the Department |
in a manner prescribed on forms provided by the Department and
|
accompanied by the required fee.
|
Applicants have 3 years after the date of the application |
|
to complete the application process. If the process has not |
been completed within 3 years, the application shall be |
denied, the fee forfeited, and the applicant must reapply and |
meet the requirements in effect at the time of reapplication. |
A corporation, limited liability company, partnership, or |
entity shall, as a condition of licensure, designate a |
managing licensed home inspector. The managing home inspector |
of any home inspector entity shall be responsible for the |
actions of all licensed and unlicensed employees, agents, and |
representatives of that home inspector entity while it is |
providing a home inspection or home inspection service. All |
other requirements for home inspector entities shall be |
established by rule. |
(Source: P.A. 97-226, eff. 7-28-11.)
|
(225 ILCS 441/5-16)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
|
Sec. 5-16. Renewal of license.
|
(a) The expiration date and renewal period for a home |
inspector license
issued under this Act shall be set by rule. |
Except as otherwise provided in
subsections (b) and (c) of |
this Section, the holder of a license may renew the
license |
within 90 days preceding the expiration date by:
|
(1) completing and submitting to the Department a |
renewal application in a manner prescribed form as
|
provided by the Department;
|
|
(2) paying the required fees; and
|
(3) providing evidence of successful completion of the |
continuing
education requirements through courses approved |
by the Department given by
education providers licensed by |
the Department, as established by rule.
|
(b) A home inspector whose license under this Act has |
expired may
renew the license for a period of 2 years following |
the expiration
date by complying with the requirements of |
subparagraphs (1), (2), and (3) of
subsection (a) of
this
|
Section and paying any late penalties established by rule.
|
(c) Notwithstanding subsection (b), a
home inspector whose |
license under this Act has expired may renew
the license |
without paying any lapsed
renewal fees or late penalties if |
(i) the license expired while the home
inspector was on
active |
duty with the United States Armed Services, (ii) application |
for renewal
is made within
2 years following the termination |
of the military service or related education,
training, or
|
employment, and (iii) the applicant furnishes to the |
Department an affidavit that the applicant he or
she was so |
engaged.
|
(d) The Department shall provide reasonable care and due |
diligence to ensure that each
licensee under this Act is |
provided a renewal application at least 90 days
prior to the
|
expiration date, but it is the responsibility of each licensee |
to renew the
his or her license prior to its expiration date.
|
(Source: P.A. 97-226, eff. 7-28-11.)
|
|
(225 ILCS 441/5-17)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
|
Sec. 5-17. Renewal of home inspector license; entity.
|
(a) The expiration date and renewal period for a home |
inspector
license for an entity that is not a natural person |
shall be set by rule. The
holder of
a license may renew the |
license within 90 days preceding the
expiration date by |
completing and submitting to the Department a renewal
|
application in a manner prescribed form as provided by the |
Department and paying the required fees.
|
(b) An entity that is not a natural person whose license |
under this Act has
expired may renew the license for a period |
of 2 years following
the expiration date by complying with the |
requirements of subsection
(a) of this Section and paying any |
late penalties established
by rule.
|
(Source: P.A. 97-226, eff. 7-28-11.)
|
(225 ILCS 441/5-20)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
|
Sec. 5-20. Endorsement. The Department may, in its |
discretion, license as a home inspector, by endorsement, on |
payment of the required fee, an applicant who is a home |
inspector licensed under the laws of another state or |
territory, if (i) the requirements for licensure in the state |
or territory in which the applicant was licensed were, at the |
|
date of his or her licensure, substantially equivalent to the |
requirements in force in this State on that date or (ii) there |
were no requirements in force in this State on the date of his |
or her licensure and the applicant possessed individual |
qualifications on that date that are substantially similar to |
the requirements under this Act. The Department may adopt any |
rules necessary to implement this Section. |
Applicants have 3 years after the date of application to |
complete the application process. If the process has not been |
completed within 3 years, the application shall be denied, the |
fee forfeited, and the applicant must reapply and meet the |
requirements in effect at the time of reapplication.
|
(Source: P.A. 97-226, eff. 7-28-11.)
|
(225 ILCS 441/5-25)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
|
Sec. 5-25. Pre-license education requirements. The |
prerequisite curriculum and
classroom hours necessary for a |
person to be approved to sit for the
examination for a home |
inspector shall be established by rule. Approved education, as |
prescribed by this Act and its associated administrative rules |
for licensure as a home inspector, shall be valid for 2 years |
after the date of satisfactory completion of the education.
|
(Source: P.A. 92-239, eff. 8-3-01 .)
|
(225 ILCS 441/5-30)
|
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
|
Sec. 5-30. Continuing education renewal requirements. The |
continuing
education requirements for a person to renew a |
license as a home inspector
shall be established by rule. The |
Department shall establish a continuing education completion |
deadline for home inspector licensees and require evidence of |
compliance with continuing education requirements in a manner |
established by rule before the renewal of a license.
|
(Source: P.A. 100-831, eff. 1-1-19 .)
|
(225 ILCS 441/5-50 new) |
Sec. 5-50. Insurance. |
(a) All applicants for a home inspector license and all |
licensees shall maintain general liability insurance in an |
amount of not less than $100,000. |
(b) Failure of an applicant or a licensee to carry and |
maintain the insurance required by this Section, to timely |
submit proof of coverage upon the Department's request, or to |
timely report any claims made against such policies of |
insurance shall be grounds for the denial of an application to |
renew a license, or the suspension or revocation of the |
license. |
(c) The policies of insurance submitted by an applicant |
for a new license or an applicant for renewal of a license must |
include the name of the applicant as it appears or will appear |
on the license. |
|
(d) A home inspector shall maintain the insurance required |
by this Section for at least one year after the latest home |
inspection report the home inspector delivered. |
(e) The Department may adopt rules to implement this |
Section.
|
(225 ILCS 441/10-10)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
|
Sec. 10-10. Retention of records. A person licensed under |
this Act shall
retain the original or a true and exact copy of |
all written contracts that engage the licensee's engaging
his |
or her services as a home inspector and all home inspection |
reports,
including any supporting data used to develop the |
home inspection report, for a
period of 5 years or 2 years |
after the final disposition of any judicial
proceeding, which |
includes any appeal, in which testimony was given, whichever |
is longer.
|
(Source: P.A. 97-226, eff. 7-28-11.)
|
(225 ILCS 441/15-10)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
|
Sec. 15-10. Grounds for disciplinary action.
|
(a) The Department may refuse to issue or renew, or may |
revoke, suspend, place on probation, reprimand, or take other |
disciplinary or non-disciplinary action as the Department may |
deem appropriate, including imposing fines not to exceed |
|
$25,000 for each violation, with regard to any license for any |
one or combination of the following:
|
(1) Fraud or misrepresentation in applying for, or |
procuring a license under this Act or in connection with |
applying for renewal of a license under this Act.
|
(2) Failing to meet the minimum qualifications for |
licensure as a home
inspector established by this Act.
|
(3) Paying money, other than for the fees provided for |
by this Act, or
anything of value to an employee of the |
Department to procure licensure under this Act.
|
(4) Conviction of, or by plea of guilty or nolo |
contendere, or finding as enumerated in subsection (c) of |
Section 5-10, of guilt, jury verdict, or entry of judgment |
or by sentencing of any crime, including, but not limited |
to, convictions, preceding sentences of supervision, |
conditional discharge, or first offender probation, under |
the laws of any jurisdiction of the United States: (i) |
that is a felony , ; (ii) that is a misdemeanor, or |
administrative sanction, or (ii) an essential element of |
which is dishonesty, or that is directly related to the |
practice of the profession; or (iii) that is a crime that |
subjects the licensee to compliance with the requirements |
of the Sex Offender Registration Act.
|
(5) Committing an act or omission involving |
dishonesty, fraud, or
misrepresentation
with the intent to |
substantially benefit the licensee or another person or |
|
with
the intent to substantially injure another person.
|
(6) Violating a provision or standard for the |
development or
communication of home inspections as |
provided in Section 10-5 of this Act or as
defined in the |
rules.
|
(7) Failing or refusing to exercise reasonable
|
diligence
in the development, reporting, or communication |
of a home inspection report, as
defined
by this Act or the |
rules.
|
(8) Violating a provision of this Act or the rules.
|
(9) Having been disciplined by another state, the |
District of Columbia, a
territory, a foreign nation, a |
governmental agency, or any other entity
authorized to |
impose discipline if at least one of the grounds for
that
|
discipline is the same as or substantially equivalent to |
one of the grounds
for which a licensee may be disciplined |
under this Act.
|
(10) Engaging in dishonorable, unethical, or |
unprofessional conduct of a
character likely to deceive, |
defraud, or harm the public.
|
(11) Accepting an inspection assignment when the |
employment itself is
contingent upon the home inspector |
reporting a predetermined analysis or
opinion, or when the |
fee to be paid is contingent upon the analysis, opinion,
|
or conclusion reached or upon the consequences resulting |
from the home
inspection assignment.
|
|
(12) Developing home inspection opinions or |
conclusions based on the race,
color, religion, sex, |
national origin, ancestry, age, marital status, family
|
status, physical or mental disability, military status, or |
unfavorable discharge from military status discharge , |
sexual orientation, order of protection status, or |
pregnancy, as
defined under the Illinois Human Rights Act, |
of the prospective or present
owners or occupants of the |
area or property under home inspection.
|
(13) Being adjudicated liable in a civil proceeding on |
grounds of
fraud,
misrepresentation, or deceit. In a |
disciplinary proceeding based upon a
finding of civil |
liability, the home inspector shall be
afforded an |
opportunity to present mitigating and extenuating |
circumstances,
but may not collaterally attack the civil |
adjudication.
|
(14) Being adjudicated liable in a civil proceeding |
for violation of
a
State or federal fair housing law.
|
(15) Engaging in misleading or untruthful advertising |
or using a trade
name or insignia of membership in a home |
inspection organization of
which the licensee is not a |
member.
|
(16) Failing, within 30 days, to provide information |
in response to a written request made by the Department.
|
(17) Failing to include within the home inspection |
report the home
inspector's license number and the date of |
|
expiration of the license. The names of (i) all persons |
who conducted the home inspection; and (ii) all persons |
who prepared the subsequent written evaluation or any part |
thereof must be disclosed in the report. All
home |
inspectors providing significant contribution to the |
development and
reporting of a home inspection must be |
disclosed in the home inspection report.
It is a violation |
of this Act for a home inspector to sign a home inspection
|
report knowing that the names of all such persons have a |
person providing a significant contribution to the report
|
has not been disclosed in the home inspection report.
|
(18) Advising a client as to whether the client should |
or should not
engage in a transaction regarding the |
residential real property that is the
subject of the home |
inspection.
|
(19) Performing a home inspection in a manner that |
damages or alters the
residential real property that is |
the subject of the home inspection without
the consent of |
the owner.
|
(20) Performing a home inspection when the home |
inspector is providing
or may also provide other services |
in connection with the residential real
property or |
transaction, or has an interest in the residential real |
property,
without providing prior written notice of the |
potential or actual conflict and
obtaining the prior |
consent of the client as provided by rule.
|
|
(21) Aiding or assisting another person in violating |
any provision of this Act or rules adopted under this Act. |
(22) Inability to practice with reasonable judgment, |
skill, or safety as a result of habitual or excessive use |
or addiction to alcohol, narcotics, stimulants, or any |
other chemical agent or drug. |
(23) A finding by the Department that the licensee, |
after having the his or her license placed on probationary |
status, has violated the terms of probation. |
(24) Willfully making or filing false records or |
reports related to the in his or her practice of home |
inspection , including, but not limited to, false records |
filed with State agencies or departments. |
(25) Charging for professional services not rendered, |
including filing false statements for the collection of |
fees for which services are not rendered. |
(26) Practicing under a false or, except as provided |
by law, an assumed name. |
(27) Cheating on or attempting to subvert the |
licensing examination administered under this Act. |
(28) Engaging in any of the following prohibited |
fraudulent, false, deceptive, or misleading advertising |
practices: |
(i) advertising as a home inspector or operating a |
home inspection business entity unless there is a duly |
licensed home inspector responsible for all inspection |
|
activities and all inspections; |
(ii) advertising that contains a misrepresentation |
of facts or false statements regarding the licensee's |
professional achievements, degrees, training, skills, |
or qualifications in the home inspection profession or |
any other profession requiring licensure; |
(iii) advertising that makes only a partial |
disclosure of relevant facts related to pricing or |
home inspection services; and |
(iv) advertising that claims this State or any of |
its political subdivisions endorse the home inspection |
report or its contents. |
(29) Disclosing, except as otherwise required by law, |
inspection results or client information obtained without |
the client's written consent. A home inspector shall not |
deliver a home inspection report to any person other than |
the client of the home inspector without the client's |
written consent. |
(30) Providing fees, gifts, waivers of liability, or |
other forms of compensation or gratuities to persons |
licensed under any real estate professional licensing act |
in this State as consideration or inducement for the |
referral of business. |
(b) The Department may suspend, revoke,
or refuse to issue
|
or renew an education provider's license, may reprimand, place |
on probation, or
otherwise discipline
an education provider
|
|
licensee, and may suspend or revoke the course approval of any |
course offered
by an education provider, for any of the |
following:
|
(1) Procuring or attempting to procure licensure by |
knowingly making a
false statement, submitting false |
information, making any form of fraud or
|
misrepresentation, or refusing to provide complete |
information in response to a
question in an application |
for licensure.
|
(2) Failing to comply with the covenants certified to |
on the application
for licensure as an education provider.
|
(3) Committing an act or omission involving |
dishonesty, fraud, or
misrepresentation
or allowing any |
such act or omission by any employee or contractor under |
the
control of the education provider.
|
(4) Engaging in misleading or untruthful advertising.
|
(5) Failing to retain competent instructors in |
accordance with rules
adopted under this Act.
|
(6) Failing to meet the topic or time requirements for |
course approval as
the provider of a pre-license |
curriculum course or a continuing education
course.
|
(7) Failing to administer an approved course using the |
course materials,
syllabus, and examinations submitted as |
the basis of the course approval.
|
(8) Failing to provide an appropriate classroom |
environment for
presentation of courses, with |
|
consideration for student comfort, acoustics,
lighting, |
seating, workspace, and visual aid material.
|
(9) Failing to maintain student records in compliance |
with the rules
adopted
under this Act.
|
(10) Failing to provide a certificate, transcript, or |
other student
record to the Department or to a student as |
may be required by rule.
|
(11) Failing to fully cooperate with a Department |
investigation by knowingly
making a false statement, |
submitting false or misleading information, or
refusing to |
provide complete information in
response to written |
interrogatories or a written request for
documentation |
within 30 days of the request.
|
(c) (Blank). In appropriate cases, the Department may |
resolve a complaint against a licensee
through the issuance of |
a Consent to Administrative Supervision order. A
licensee |
subject to a Consent to Administrative Supervision order
shall |
be considered by the Department as an active licensee in good |
standing.
This order shall not be reported as or considered by |
the Department to be a discipline of
the licensee.
The records |
regarding an investigation and a Consent to Administrative
|
Supervision order shall be considered confidential and shall |
not be released by
the Department except as
mandated by law. |
The complainant shall be notified that his or her
complaint |
has been resolved by a Consent to Administrative Supervision |
order.
|
|
(d) The Department may refuse to issue or may suspend |
without hearing, as provided for in the Code of Civil |
Procedure, the license of any person who fails to file a tax |
return, to pay the tax, penalty, or interest shown in a filed |
tax return, or to pay any final assessment of tax, penalty, or |
interest, as required by any tax Act administered by the |
Illinois Department of Revenue, until such time as the |
requirements of the tax Act are satisfied in accordance with |
subsection (g) of Section 2105-15 of the Civil Administrative |
Code of Illinois. |
(e) (Blank). |
(f) In cases where the Department of Healthcare and Family |
Services has previously determined that a licensee or a |
potential licensee is more than 30 days delinquent in the |
payment of child support and has subsequently certified the |
delinquency to the Department, the Department may refuse to |
issue or renew or may revoke or suspend that person's license |
or may take other disciplinary action against that person |
based solely upon the certification of delinquency made by the |
Department of Healthcare and Family Services in accordance |
with item (5) of subsection (a) of Section 2105-15 of the Civil |
Administrative Code of Illinois. |
(g) The determination by a circuit court that a licensee |
is subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission, as |
provided in the Mental Health and Developmental Disabilities |
Code, operates as an automatic suspension. The suspension will |
|
end only upon a finding by a court that the patient is no |
longer subject to involuntary admission or judicial admission |
and the issuance of a court order so finding and discharging |
the patient. |
(h) (Blank). In enforcing this Act, the Department, upon a |
showing of a possible violation, may compel an individual |
licensed to practice under this Act, or who has applied for |
licensure under this Act, to submit to a mental or physical |
examination, or both, as required by and at the expense of the |
Department. The Department may order the examining physician |
to present testimony concerning the mental or physical |
examination of the licensee or applicant. No information shall |
be excluded by reason of any common law or statutory privilege |
relating to communications between the licensee or applicant |
and the examining physician. The examining physician shall be |
specifically designated by the Department. The individual to |
be examined may have, at his or her own expense, another |
physician of his or her choice present during all aspects of |
this examination. The examination shall be performed by a |
physician licensed to practice medicine in all its branches. |
Failure of an individual to submit to a mental or physical |
examination, when directed, shall result in an automatic |
suspension without hearing. |
A person holding a license under this Act or who has |
applied for a license under this Act, who, because of a |
physical or mental illness or disability, including, but not |
|
limited to, deterioration through the aging process or loss of |
motor skill, is unable to practice the profession with |
reasonable judgment, skill, or safety, may be required by the |
Department to submit to care, counseling, or treatment by |
physicians approved or designated by the Department as a |
condition, term, or restriction for continued, reinstated, or |
renewed licensure to practice. Submission to care, counseling, |
or treatment as required by the Department shall not be |
considered discipline of a license. If the licensee refuses to |
enter into a care, counseling, or treatment agreement or fails |
to abide by the terms of the agreement, the Department may file |
a complaint to revoke, suspend, or otherwise discipline the |
license of the individual. The Secretary may order the license |
suspended immediately, pending a hearing by the Department. |
Fines shall not be assessed in disciplinary actions involving |
physical or mental illness or impairment. |
In instances in which the Secretary immediately suspends a |
person's license under this Section, a hearing on that |
person's license must be convened by the Department within 15 |
days after the suspension and completed without appreciable |
delay. The Department shall have the authority to review the |
subject individual's record of treatment and counseling |
regarding the impairment to the extent permitted by applicable |
federal statutes and regulations safeguarding the |
confidentiality of medical records. |
An individual licensed under this Act and affected under |
|
this Section shall be afforded an opportunity to demonstrate |
to the Department that he or she can resume practice in |
compliance with acceptable and prevailing standards under the |
provisions of his or her license. |
(Source: P.A. 100-872, eff. 8-14-18.)
|
(225 ILCS 441/15-10.1 new) |
Sec. 15-10.1. Citations. |
(a) The Department may adopt rules to permit the issuance |
of citations to any licensee for failure to comply with the |
continuing education requirements set forth in this Act or as |
established by rule. The citation shall be issued to the |
licensee and shall contain the licensee's name, the licensee's |
address, the licensee's license number, the number of required |
hours of continuing education that have not been successfully |
completed by the licensee within the renewal period, and the |
penalty imposed, which shall not exceed $2,000. The issuance |
of a citation shall not excuse the licensee from completing |
all continuing education required for that renewal period. |
(b) Service of a citation shall be made in person, |
electronically, or by mail to the licensee at the licensee's |
address of record or email address of record, and the citation |
must clearly state that if the cited licensee wishes to |
dispute the citation, the cited licensee may make a written |
request, within 30 days after the citation is served, for a |
hearing before the Department. If the cited licensee does not |
|
request a hearing within 30 days after the citation is served, |
then the citation shall become a final, non-disciplinary |
order, and any fine imposed is due and payable within 60 days |
after that final order. If the cited licensee requests a |
hearing within 30 days after the citation is served, the |
Department shall afford the cited licensee a hearing conducted |
in the same manner as a hearing provided for in this Act for |
any violation of this Act and shall determine whether the |
cited licensee committed the violation as charged and whether |
the fine as levied is warranted. If the violation is found, any |
fine shall constitute non-public discipline and be due and |
payable within 30 days after the order of the Secretary, which |
shall constitute a final order of the Department. No change in |
license status may be made by the Department until a final |
order of the Department has been issued. |
(c) Payment of a fine that has been assessed pursuant to |
this Section shall not constitute disciplinary action |
reportable on the Department's website or elsewhere unless a |
licensee has previously received 2 or more citations and been |
assessed 2 or more fines. |
(d) Nothing in this Section shall prohibit or limit the |
Department from taking further action pursuant to this Act and |
rules for additional, repeated, or continuing violations.
|
(225 ILCS 441/15-15)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
|
|
Sec. 15-15. Investigation; notice; hearing. The Department |
may investigate the actions of any applicant or licensee or of |
any person or persons rendering or offering to render home |
inspection services or any person holding or claiming to hold |
a license as a home inspector. The Department shall, before |
refusing to issue or renew a license or to discipline a |
licensee pursuant to Section 15-10, at least 30 days prior to |
the date set for the hearing, (i) notify the accused in |
writing, of the charges made and the time and place for the |
hearing on the charges, (ii) direct the licensee or applicant |
him or her to file a written answer with the Department under |
oath within 20 days after the service of the notice, and (iii) |
inform the applicant or licensee that failure to file an |
answer will result in a default judgment being entered against |
the applicant or licensee. At the time and place fixed in the |
notice, the Department shall proceed to hear the charges and |
the parties of their counsel shall be accorded ample |
opportunity to present any pertinent statements, testimony, |
evidence, and arguments. The Department may continue the |
hearing from time to time. In case the person, after receiving |
the notice, fails to file an answer, the his or her license, |
may, in the discretion of the Department, be revoked, |
suspended, placed on probationary status, or the Department |
may take whatever disciplinary actions considered proper, |
including limiting the scope, nature, or extent of the |
person's practice or the imposition of a fine, without a |
|
hearing, if the act or acts charged constitute sufficient |
grounds for that action under the Act. The notice may be served |
by personal delivery, by mail, or, at the discretion of the |
Department, by electronic means to the address of record or |
email address of record specified by the accused as last |
updated with the Department. The written notice may be served |
by personal delivery or by certified mail to the accused's |
address of record.
|
A copy of the hearing officer's report or any Order of |
Default, along with a copy of the original complaint giving |
rise to the action, shall be served upon the applicant, |
licensee, or unlicensed person by the Department to the |
applicant, licensee, or unlicensed individual in the manner |
provided in this Act for the service of a notice of hearing. |
Within 20 days after service, the applicant or licensee may |
present to the Department a motion in writing for a rehearing, |
which shall specify the particular grounds for rehearing. The |
Department may respond to the motion, or if a motion for |
rehearing is denied, then upon denial, the Secretary may enter |
an order in accordance with the recommendations of the hearing |
officer. If the applicant or licensee orders from the |
reporting service and pays for a transcript of the record |
within the time for filing a motion for rehearing, then the |
20-day period during which a motion may be filed shall |
commence upon the delivery of the transcript to the applicant |
or licensee. |
|
(Source: P.A. 97-226, eff. 7-28-11.)
|
(225 ILCS 441/15-20)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
|
Sec. 15-20. Administrative Review Law; certification fees;
|
Illinois Administrative Procedure Act. |
(a) All final administrative decisions of the Department |
under this Act
are subject to
judicial review pursuant to the |
provisions of the Administrative Review Law and
the rules |
adopted pursuant thereto. The term "administrative decision" |
has the
meaning ascribed to it in Section 3-101 of the |
Administrative
Review Law.
|
(b) The Department shall not be required to certify any |
record to the court or file any answer in court or otherwise |
appear in any court in a judicial review proceeding, unless |
and until the Department has received from the plaintiff |
payment of the costs of furnishing and certifying the record, |
which costs shall be determined by the Department. Exhibits |
shall be certified without cost. Failure on the part of the |
plaintiff to file a receipt in court is grounds for dismissal |
of the action.
|
(c) The Illinois Administrative Procedure Act is hereby |
expressly
adopted
and incorporated herein. In the event of a |
conflict between this
Act and the Illinois Administrative |
Procedure Act, this Act shall
control.
|
(d) Proceedings for judicial review shall be commenced in |
|
the circuit court of the county in which the party applying for |
review resides, but if the party is not a resident of Illinois, |
the venue shall be in Sangamon County or Cook County. |
(Source: P.A. 97-226, eff. 7-28-11.)
|
(225 ILCS 441/15-36 new) |
Sec. 15-36. No private right of action. Except as |
otherwise expressly provided for in this Act, nothing in this |
Act shall be construed to grant to any person a private right |
of action to enforce the provisions of this Act or the rules |
adopted under this Act.
|
(225 ILCS 441/15-55)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
|
Sec. 15-55. Returned checks and dishonored credit card |
charges ; penalty fee; revocation termination . A person who
(1) |
delivers a check or other payment to the Department that is |
returned to the Department unpaid by
the financial institution |
upon which it was drawn shall pay to the Department ; or (2) |
presents a credit or debit card for payment that is invalid or |
expired or against which charges by the Department are |
declined or dishonored , in
addition to the amount already |
owed, a penalty fee of $50. The Department shall notify
the |
person , by certified mail return receipt requested, that the
|
his or her
check or
payment was returned or that the credit |
card charge was dishonored and
that the person shall pay to the |
|
Department by certified check or money order the amount
of the |
returned check plus a $50 penalty fee within 30 calendar days |
after the
date of the notification. If, after the expiration |
of 30 calendar days of the
notification, the person has failed |
to remit the necessary funds and penalty,
the Department shall |
automatically revoke terminate the license or deny the |
application without
hearing. If the returned check or other |
payment was for issuance of a license
under this Act and that |
person practices as a home inspector, that person may
be |
subject to discipline for unlicensed practice as provided in |
this Act. If,
after revocation termination or denial, the |
person seeks a license, the applicant or licensee he or she |
shall
petition
the Department for restoration or issuance of |
the license and he or she may be subject to additional |
discipline or
fines. The Secretary may waive the penalties or |
fines due under this
Section in individual cases where the |
Secretary finds that the penalties or
fines would be |
unreasonable or unnecessarily burdensome.
|
(Source: P.A. 97-226, eff. 7-28-11.)
|
(225 ILCS 441/15-60)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
|
Sec. 15-60. Violations; injunction; cease and desist |
orders. |
(a) If any person violates a provision of this Act, the |
Secretary may, in the name of the People of the State of |
|
Illinois, through the Attorney General of the State of |
Illinois or the State's Attorney in the county in which the |
offense occurs, petition for an order enjoining the violation |
or for an order enforcing compliance with this Act. Upon the |
filing of a verified petition in court, the court may issue a |
temporary restraining order, without notice or bond, and may |
preliminarily and permanently enjoin the violation. If it is |
established that the person has violated or is violating the |
injunction, the court may punish the offender for contempt of |
court. Proceedings under this Section shall be in addition to, |
and not in lieu of, all other remedies and penalties provided |
by this Act. |
(b) If any person practices as a home inspector or holds |
oneself himself or herself out as a home inspector without |
being licensed under the provisions of this Act, then the |
Secretary, any licensed home inspector, any interested party, |
or any person injured thereby may petition for relief as |
provided in subsection (a) of this Section or may apply to the |
circuit court of the county in which the violation or some part |
thereof occurred, or in which the person complained of resides |
or has a his or her principal place of business or resides , to |
prevent the violation. The court has jurisdiction to enforce |
obedience by injunction or by other process restricting the |
person complained of from further violation and may enjoin |
enjoining upon the person him or her obedience. |
(c) Whoever knowingly practices or offers to practice home |
|
inspection in this State without a license for that purpose |
shall be guilty of a Class A misdemeanor for the first offense |
and shall be guilty of a Class 4 felony for the second and any |
subsequent offense. |
(d) Whenever, in the opinion of the Department, a person |
violates any provision of this Act, the Department may issue a |
rule to show cause why an order to cease and desist should not |
be entered against that person. The rule shall clearly set |
forth the grounds relied upon by the Department and shall |
provide a period of 7 days from the date of the rule to file an |
answer to the satisfaction of the Department. Failure to |
answer to the satisfaction of the Department shall cause an |
order to cease and desist to be issued.
|
(Source: P.A. 97-226, eff. 7-28-11.)
|
(225 ILCS 441/20-5)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
|
Sec. 20-5. Education provider.
|
(a) Only education providers licensed by the Department |
may
provide
the pre-license and continuing education courses |
required for licensure
under this Act.
|
(b) A person or entity seeking to be licensed as an |
education
provider under this Act shall provide satisfactory |
evidence of the following:
|
(1) a sound financial base for establishing, |
promoting, and delivering the
necessary courses;
|
|
(2) a sufficient number of qualified instructors;
|
(3) adequate support personnel to assist with |
administrative matters and
technical assistance;
|
(4) a written policy dealing with procedures for |
management of grievances
and fee refunds;
|
(5) a qualified school administrator, who is |
responsible for the
administration of the school, courses, |
and the actions of the instructors; and
|
(6) any other requirements provided by rule.
|
(c) All applicants for an education provider's license |
shall make initial
application to the Department in a manner |
prescribed on forms
provided by the Department and pay the |
appropriate fee as provided by rule. In addition to any other |
information required to be contained in the application as |
prescribed by rule, every application for an original or |
renewed license shall include the applicant's tax |
identification number.
The term, expiration date, and renewal |
of an education provider's
license shall be established by |
rule.
|
(d) An education provider shall provide each successful |
course participant
with a certificate of completion signed by |
the school administrator.
The format and content of the |
certificate shall be specified by rule.
|
(e) All education providers shall provide to the |
Department a monthly roster of all
successful course |
participants as
provided by rule.
|
|
(Source: P.A. 97-226, eff. 7-28-11.)
|
(225 ILCS 441/25-15)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
|
Sec. 25-15. Liaison; duties. The Secretary shall appoint |
an employee
of the Department to:
|
(1) (blank);
|
(2) be the direct liaison between the Department, peer |
review advisors, the profession, home inspectors,
and |
related industry organizations and associations; and
|
(3) prepare and circulate to licensees such |
educational and informational
material as the Department |
deems necessary for providing guidance or assistance to
|
licensees.
|
(Source: P.A. 97-226, eff. 7-28-11.)
|
(225 ILCS 441/25-27) |
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022) |
Sec. 25-27. Subpoenas; depositions; oaths. |
(a) The Department may subpoena and bring before it any |
person to take oral or written testimony or compel the |
production of any books, papers, records, or any other |
documents the Secretary or the Secretary's his or her designee |
deems relevant or material to any investigation or hearing |
conducted by the Department with the same fees and in the same |
manner as prescribed in civil cases in the courts of this |
|
State. |
(b) Any circuit court, upon the application of the |
licensee or the Department, may order the attendance and |
testimony of witnesses and the production of relevant |
documents, files, records, books, and papers in connection |
with any hearing or investigation. The circuit court may |
compel obedience to its order by proceedings for contempt. |
(c) The Secretary, the hearing officer, any member of the |
Board, or a certified shorthand court reporter may administer |
oaths at any hearing the Department conducts. Notwithstanding |
any other statute or Department rule to the contrary, all |
requests for testimony, production of documents, or records |
shall be in accordance with this Act.
|
(Source: P.A. 97-226, eff. 7-28-11.)
|
(225 ILCS 441/25-17 rep.) |
Section 75. The Home Inspector License Act is amended by |
repealing Section 25-17.
|
Section 80. The Real Estate Appraiser Licensing Act of |
2002 is amended by changing Sections 1-10, 5-5, 5-10, 5-15, |
5-20, 5-20.5, 5-22, 5-25, 5-30, 5-35, 10-5, 10-10, 15-5, |
15-10, 15-15, 15-55, 20-5, 20-10, 25-10, 25-15, 25-16, 25-20, |
25-25, and 30-5 and by adding Sections 1-12, 5-26, 15-10.1, |
15-11, and 25-35 as follows:
|
|
(225 ILCS 458/1-10)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
|
Sec. 1-10. Definitions. As used in this Act, unless the |
context
otherwise requires:
|
"Accredited college or university, junior college, or |
community college" means a college or university, junior |
college, or community college that is approved or accredited |
by the Board of Higher Education, a regional or national |
accreditation association, or by an accrediting agency that is |
recognized by the U.S. Secretary of Education.
|
"Address of record" means the designated street address , |
which may not be a post office box, recorded by the Department |
in the applicant's or licensee's application file or license |
file as maintained by the Department's licensure maintenance |
unit. It is the duty of the applicant or licensee to inform the |
Department of any change of address and those changes must be |
made either through the Department's website or by contacting |
the Department. |
"Applicant" means person who applies to the Department
for |
a license under this Act.
|
"Appraisal" means
(noun) the act or process of developing |
an opinion
of value; an
opinion of value (adjective) of or |
pertaining to appraising
and related functions, such as |
appraisal practice or appraisal services. |
"Appraisal assignment" means a valuation service provided |
pursuant to as a consequence of an agreement between an |
|
appraiser and a client. |
"Appraisal consulting" means the act or process of |
developing an analysis, recommendation, or opinion to solve a |
problem, where an opinion of value is a component of the |
analysis leading to the assignment results. |
"Appraisal firm" means an appraisal entity that is 100% |
owned and controlled by a person or persons licensed in |
Illinois as a certified general real estate appraiser or a |
certified residential real estate appraiser. "Appraisal firm" |
does not include an appraisal management company. |
"Appraisal management company" means any corporation, |
limited liability company, partnership, sole proprietorship, |
subsidiary, unit, or other business entity that directly or |
indirectly: (1) provides appraisal management services to |
creditors or secondary mortgage market participants , including |
affiliates ; (2) provides appraisal management services in |
connection with valuing the consumer's principal dwelling as |
security for a consumer credit transaction (including consumer |
credit transactions incorporated into securitizations); and |
(3) within a given year, oversees an appraiser panel of any |
size of State-certified appraisers in Illinois; and (4) any |
appraisal management company that, within a given 12-month |
period year , oversees an appraiser panel of 16 or more |
State-certified appraisers in Illinois or 25 or more |
State-certified or State-licensed appraisers in 2 or more |
jurisdictions shall be subject to the appraisal management |
|
company national registry fee in addition to the appraiser |
panel fee . "Appraisal management company" includes a hybrid |
entity. |
"Appraisal practice" means valuation services performed by |
an individual acting as an appraiser, including, but not |
limited to, appraisal or , appraisal review , or appraisal |
consulting .
|
"Appraisal report" means any communication, written or |
oral, of an appraisal or appraisal review that is transmitted |
to a client upon completion of an assignment.
|
"Appraisal review" means the act or process of developing |
and communicating an opinion about the quality of another |
appraiser's work that was performed as part of an appraisal, |
appraisal review, or appraisal assignment.
|
"Appraisal Subcommittee" means the Appraisal Subcommittee |
of the Federal
Financial Institutions
Examination Council as |
established by Title XI.
|
"Appraiser" means a person who performs
real estate or |
real property
appraisals competently and in a manner that is |
independent, impartial, and objective . |
"Appraiser panel" means a network, list, or roster of |
licensed or certified appraisers approved by the appraisal |
management company or by the end-user client to perform |
appraisals as independent contractors for the appraisal |
management company. "Appraiser panel" includes both appraisers |
accepted by an appraisal management company for consideration |
|
for future appraisal assignments and appraisers engaged by an |
appraisal management company to perform one or more |
appraisals. For
the purposes of determining the size of an |
appraiser panel,
only independent contractors of hybrid |
entities shall be
counted towards the appraiser panel.
|
"AQB" means the Appraisal Qualifications Board of the |
Appraisal Foundation.
|
"Associate real estate trainee appraiser" means an |
entry-level appraiser who holds
a license of this |
classification under this Act with restrictions as to the |
scope of practice
in
accordance with this Act.
|
"Automated valuation model" means an automated system that |
is used to derive a property value through the use of available |
property records and various analytic methodologies such as |
comparable sales prices, home characteristics, and price |
changes. |
"Board" means the Real Estate Appraisal Administration and |
Disciplinary Board.
|
"Broker price opinion" means an estimate or analysis of |
the probable selling price of a particular interest in real |
estate, which may provide a varying level of detail about the |
property's condition, market, and neighborhood and information |
on comparable sales. The activities of a real estate broker or |
managing broker engaging in the ordinary course of business as |
a broker, as defined in this Section, shall not be considered a |
broker price opinion if no compensation is paid to the broker |
|
or managing broker, other than compensation based upon the |
sale or rental of real estate. |
"Classroom hour" means 50 minutes of instruction out of |
each 60 minute
segment of coursework.
|
"Client" means the party or parties who engage an |
appraiser by employment or contract in a specific appraisal |
assignment.
|
"Comparative market analysis" is an analysis or opinion |
regarding pricing, marketing, or financial aspects relating to |
a specified interest or interests in real estate that may be |
based upon an analysis of comparative market data, the |
expertise of the real estate broker or managing broker, and |
such other factors as the broker or managing broker may deem |
appropriate in developing or preparing such analysis or |
opinion. The activities of a real estate broker or managing |
broker engaging in the ordinary course of business as a |
broker, as defined in this Section, shall not be considered a |
comparative market analysis if no compensation is paid to the |
broker or managing broker, other than compensation based upon |
the sale or rental of real estate. |
"Coordinator" means the Coordinator of Real Estate |
Appraisal Coordinator created in Section 25-15 of the Division |
of Professional Regulation of the Department of Financial and |
Professional Regulation .
|
"Department" means the Department of Financial and |
Professional Regulation.
|
|
"Email address of record" means the designated email |
address recorded by the Department in the applicant's |
application file or the licensee's license file maintained by |
the Department. |
"Evaluation" means a valuation permitted by the appraisal |
regulations of the Federal Financial Institutions Examination |
Council and its federal agencies for transactions that qualify |
for the appraisal threshold exemption, business loan |
exemption, or subsequent transaction exemption. |
"Federal financial institutions regulatory agencies" means |
the Board of
Governors of the Federal Reserve
System, the |
Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation, the Office of the
|
Comptroller of the Currency, the
Consumer Financial Protection |
Bureau, and the National Credit Union Administration.
|
"Federally related transaction" means any real |
estate-related financial
transaction in which a federal
|
financial institutions regulatory agency
engages in, contracts |
for, or
regulates and requires the services
of an appraiser.
|
"Financial institution" means any bank, savings bank, |
savings and loan
association, credit union,
mortgage broker, |
mortgage banker, licensee under the Consumer Installment Loan
|
Act or the Sales
Finance Agency Act, or a corporate fiduciary, |
subsidiary, affiliate, parent
company, or holding company
of |
any such licensee, or any institution involved in real estate |
financing that
is regulated by state or
federal law.
|
"Hybrid entity" means an appraisal management company that |
|
hires an appraiser as an employee to perform an appraisal and |
engages an independent contractor to perform an appraisal. |
"License" means the privilege conferred by the Department |
to a person that has fulfilled all requirements prerequisite |
to any type of licensure under this Act. |
"Licensee" means any person, as defined in this Section, |
who holds a valid unexpired license. |
"Multi-state licensing system" means a web-based platform |
that allows an applicant to submit the his or her application |
or license renewal application to the Department online. |
"Person" means an individual, entity, sole proprietorship, |
corporation, limited liability company, partnership, and joint |
venture, foreign or domestic, except that when the context |
otherwise requires, the term may refer to more than one |
individual or other described entity. |
"Real estate" means an identified parcel or tract of land, |
including any
improvements.
|
"Real estate related financial transaction" means any |
transaction involving:
|
(1) the sale, lease, purchase, investment in, or |
exchange of real
property,
including interests
in property |
or the financing thereof;
|
(2) the refinancing of real property or interests in |
real property; and
|
(3) the use of real property or interest in property |
as security for a
loan or
investment,
including mortgage |
|
backed securities.
|
"Real property" means the interests, benefits, and rights |
inherent in the
ownership of real estate.
|
"Secretary" means the Secretary of Financial and |
Professional Regulation or the Secretary's designee .
|
"State certified general real estate
appraiser" means an |
appraiser who holds a
license of this classification under |
this Act
and such classification applies to
the appraisal of |
all types of real property without restrictions as to
the |
scope of practice.
|
"State certified residential real estate
appraiser" means |
an appraiser who
holds a
license of this classification
under |
this Act
and such classification applies to
the appraisal of
|
one to 4 units of
residential real property without regard to |
transaction value or complexity,
but with restrictions as to |
the
scope of practice
in a federally related transaction in |
accordance with Title
XI, the provisions of USPAP,
criteria |
established by the AQB, and further defined by rule.
|
"Supervising appraiser" means either (i) an appraiser who |
holds a valid license under this Act as either a State |
certified general real estate appraiser or a State certified |
residential real estate appraiser, who co-signs an appraisal |
report for an associate real estate trainee appraiser or (ii) |
a State certified general real estate appraiser who holds a |
valid license under this Act who co-signs an appraisal report |
for a State certified residential real estate appraiser on |
|
properties other than one to 4 units of residential real |
property without regard to transaction value or complexity.
|
"Title XI" means Title XI of the federal Financial |
Institutions Reform,
Recovery and
Enforcement Act of 1989.
|
"USPAP" means the Uniform Standards of Professional |
Appraisal Practice as
promulgated by the
Appraisal Standards |
Board pursuant to Title XI and by rule.
|
"Valuation services" means services pertaining to aspects |
of property value. |
(Source: P.A. 100-604, eff. 7-13-18.)
|
(225 ILCS 458/1-12 new) |
Sec. 1-12. Address of record; email address of record. All |
applicants and licensees shall: |
(1) provide a valid address and email address to the |
Department, which shall serve as the address of record and |
email address of record, respectively, at the time of |
application for licensure or renewal of a license; and |
(2) inform the Department of any change of address of |
record or email address of record within 14 days after |
such change through the Department's website.
|
(225 ILCS 458/5-5)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
|
Sec. 5-5. Necessity of license; use of title; exemptions.
|
(a) It
is unlawful for a person to (i) act, offer services, |
|
or advertise services
as a State certified general real estate
|
appraiser, State certified residential real estate appraiser, |
or associate real estate trainee appraiser, (ii)
develop a |
real estate appraisal,
(iii)
practice as a real estate
|
appraiser, or (iv)
advertise as or hold himself or herself out |
to be a real estate
appraiser
without a license issued under |
this Act. A person who
violates this subsection is
guilty of a |
Class A misdemeanor for a first offense and a Class 4 felony |
for any subsequent offense.
|
(a-5) It is unlawful for a person, unless registered as an |
appraisal management company, to solicit clients or enter into |
an appraisal engagement with clients without either a |
certified residential real estate appraiser license or a |
certified general real estate appraiser license issued under |
this Act. A person who violates this subsection is guilty of a |
Class A misdemeanor for a first offense and a Class 4 felony |
for any subsequent offense. |
(b) It
is unlawful for a person, other than a
person who |
holds a valid license issued pursuant to this
Act as a State |
certified general real estate appraiser, a
State
certified
|
residential real estate appraiser,
or an associate real estate |
trainee appraiser to use these titles or any other title, |
designation, or
abbreviation likely to create the
impression |
that the person is licensed as a real estate appraiser |
pursuant to
this Act. A person who
violates this subsection is |
guilty of a Class A misdemeanor for a first offense and a Class |
|
4 felony for any subsequent offense.
|
(c)
This Act does not apply to a person who holds a valid |
license as a real estate broker or managing broker pursuant to |
the Real Estate License Act of 2000 who prepares or provides a |
broker price opinion or comparative market analysis in |
compliance with Section 10-45 of the Real Estate License Act |
of 2000. |
(d) Nothing in this Act shall preclude a State certified |
general real estate appraiser, a State certified residential |
real estate appraiser, or an associate real estate trainee |
appraiser from rendering appraisals for or on behalf of a |
partnership, association, corporation, firm, or group. |
However, no State appraisal license or certification shall be |
issued under this Act to a partnership, association, |
corporation, firm, or group.
|
(e) This Act does not apply to a county assessor, township |
assessor, multi-township assessor, county supervisor of |
assessments, or any deputy or employee of any county assessor, |
township assessor, multi-township assessor, or county |
supervisor of assessments in performance of who is performing |
his or her respective duties in accordance with the provisions |
of the Property Tax Code.
|
(e-5) For the purposes of this Act, valuation waivers may |
be prepared by a licensed appraiser notwithstanding any other |
provision of this Act, and the following types of valuations |
are not appraisals and may not be represented to be |
|
appraisals, and a license is not required under this Act to
|
perform such valuations if the valuations are performed by (1) |
an employee of the Illinois Department of Transportation who |
has completed a minimum of 45 hours of course work in real |
estate appraisal, including the principles principals of real |
estate appraisals, appraisal of partial acquisitions, easement |
valuation, reviewing appraisals in eminent domain, appraisal |
for federal aid highway programs, and appraisal review for |
federal aid highway programs and has at least 2 years' |
experience in a field closely related to real estate; (2) a |
county engineer who is a registered professional engineer |
under the Professional Engineering Practice Act of 1989; (3) |
an employee of a municipality who has (i) completed a minimum |
of 45 hours of coursework in real estate appraisal, including |
the principles principals of real estate appraisals, appraisal |
of partial acquisitions, easement valuation, reviewing |
appraisals in eminent domain, appraisal for federal aid |
highway programs, and appraisal review for federal aid highway |
programs and (ii) has either 2 years' experience in a field |
clearly related to real estate or has completed 20 hours of |
additional coursework that is sufficient for a person to |
complete waiver valuations as approved by the Federal Highway |
Administration; or (4) a municipal engineer who has completed |
coursework that is sufficient for his or her waiver valuations |
to be approved by the Federal Highway Administration and who |
is a registered professional engineer under the Professional |
|
Engineering Act of 1989, under the following circumstances: |
(A) a valuation waiver in an amount not to exceed |
$20,000 $10,000 prepared pursuant to the federal Uniform |
Relocation Assistance and Real Property Acquisition |
Policies Act of 1970, or prepared pursuant to the federal |
Uniform Relocation Assistance and Real Property |
Acquisition for Federal and Federally-Assisted Programs |
regulations and which is performed by (1) an employee of |
the Illinois Department of Transportation and co-signed, |
with a license number affixed, by another employee of the |
Illinois Department of Transportation who is a registered |
professional engineer under the Professional Engineering |
Practice Act of 1989 or (2) an employee of a municipality |
and co-signed with a license number affixed by a county or |
municipal engineer who is a registered professional |
engineer under the Professional Engineering Practice Act |
of 1989; and |
(B) a valuation waiver in an amount not to exceed |
$20,000 $10,000 prepared pursuant to the federal Uniform |
Relocation Assistance and Real Property Acquisition |
Policies Act of 1970, or prepared pursuant to the federal |
Uniform Relocation Assistance and Real Property |
Acquisition for Federal and Federally-Assisted Programs |
regulations and which is performed by a county or |
municipal engineer who is employed by a county or |
municipality and is a registered professional engineer |
|
under the Professional Engineering Practice Act of 1989. |
The valuation shall include In addition to his or her |
signature, the county or municipal engineer's signature |
and engineer shall affix his or her license number to the |
valuation . |
Nothing in this subsection (e-5) shall be construed to |
allow the State of Illinois, a political subdivision thereof, |
or any public body to acquire real estate by eminent domain in |
any manner
other than provided for in the Eminent Domain Act. |
(f) A State real estate appraisal certification or license |
is not required under this Act for any of the following: (1) A |
person, partnership, association, or corporation that performs |
appraisals of property owned by that person, partnership, |
association, or corporation for the sole use of that person, |
partnership, association, or corporation. |
(2) A court-appointed commissioner who conducts an |
appraisal pursuant to a judicially ordered evaluation of |
property. |
Any However, any person who is certified or licensed under |
this Act and who performs any of the activities set forth in |
this subsection (f) must comply with the provisions of this |
Act. A person who violates this subsection (f) is guilty of a |
Class A misdemeanor for a first offense and a Class 4 felony |
for any subsequent offense. |
(g) This Act does not apply to an employee, officer, |
director, or member of a credit or loan committee of a |
|
financial institution or any other person engaged by a |
financial institution when performing an evaluation of real |
property for the sole use of the financial institution in a |
transaction for which the financial institution would not be |
required to use the services of a State licensed or State |
certified appraiser pursuant to federal regulations adopted |
under Title XI of the federal Financial Institutions Reform, |
Recovery, and Enforcement Act of 1989 , nor does this Act apply |
to the procurement of an automated valuation model . |
(h) This Act does not apply to the procurement of an |
automated valuation model. |
"Automated valuation model" means an automated system that |
is used to derive a property value through the use of publicly |
available property records and various analytic methodologies |
such as comparable sales prices, home characteristics, and |
historical home price appreciations.
|
(Source: P.A. 98-444, eff. 8-16-13; 98-933, eff. 1-1-15; |
98-1109, eff. 1-1-15; 99-78, eff. 7-20-15.)
|
(225 ILCS 458/5-10)
|
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
|
Sec. 5-10. Application for State
certified general real |
estate appraiser.
|
(a) Every person who
desires to obtain a State certified |
general real estate appraiser license
shall:
|
(1) apply to the Department
on forms provided by the |
|
Department, or through a multi-state licensing system as |
designated by the Secretary,
accompanied by the required |
fee;
|
(2) be at least 18 years of age;
|
(3) (blank);
|
(4) personally take and pass an examination authorized |
by the Department
and endorsed
by the AQB;
|
(5) prior to taking the examination, provide evidence |
to the Department, or through a multi-state licensing |
system as designated by the Secretary, of successful |
completion of in Modular Course format, with each module |
conforming to the Required Core Curriculum established and |
adopted by the AQB,
that he or she
has successfully |
completed the prerequisite
classroom hours of instruction |
in appraising as established by the AQB and by
rule ; |
evidence shall be in a Modular Course format with each |
module conforming to the Required Core Curriculum |
established and adopted by the AQB ; and
|
(6) prior to taking the examination, provide evidence
|
to the Department, or through a multi-state licensing |
system as designated by the Secretary, of successful |
completion of
that he or she has successfully completed |
the prerequisite
experience and educational requirements |
in appraising as established by AQB and by rule.
|
(b) Applicants must provide evidence to the Department, or |
through a multi-state licensing system as designated by the |
|
Secretary, of holding a Bachelor's degree or higher from an |
accredited college or university. |
(Source: P.A. 100-604, eff. 7-13-18.)
|
(225 ILCS 458/5-15)
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(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
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Sec. 5-15. Application for State certified residential |
real estate
appraiser. Every person who
desires to obtain a |
State certified residential real estate appraiser license
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shall:
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(1) apply to the Department
on forms provided by the |
Department, or through a multi-state licensing system as |
designated by the Secretary,
accompanied by the required |
fee;
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(2) be at least 18 years of age;
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(3) (blank);
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(4) personally take and pass an examination authorized |
by the Department
and endorsed
by
the AQB;
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(5) prior to taking the examination, provide evidence
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to the Department, or through a multi-state licensing |
system as designated by the Secretary, of successful |
completion of in Modular Course format, with each module |
conforming to the Required Core Curriculum established and |
adopted by the AQB,
that he or she has successfully |
completed the prerequisite
classroom hours of instruction |
in appraising as established by the AQB and by
rule ; |
|
evidence shall be in a Modular Course format with each |
module conforming to the Required Core Curriculum |
established and adopted by the AQB ; and
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(6) prior to taking the examination, provide evidence
|
to the Department, or through a multi-state licensing |
system as designated by the Secretary, of successful |
completion of
that he or she has successfully completed |
the prerequisite
experience and educational requirements |
as established by AQB and by rule.
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(Source: P.A. 100-201, eff. 8-18-17; 100-604, eff. 7-13-18.)
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(225 ILCS 458/5-20)
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(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
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Sec. 5-20. Application for associate real estate trainee
|
appraiser. Every person who desires to obtain an associate |
real estate trainee appraiser
license shall:
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(1) apply to the Department
on forms provided by the |
Department, or through a multi-state licensing system as |
designated by the Secretary,
accompanied by the required
|
fee;
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(2) be at least 18 years of age;
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(3) provide evidence of having attained a high school |
diploma or completed
an
equivalent course of
study as |
determined by an examination conducted
or accepted
by the |
Illinois State Board of
Education;
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(4) (blank); and
|
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(5) provide evidence
to the Department, or through a |
multi-state licensing system as designated by the |
Secretary, of successful completion of
that he or she has |
successfully
completed
the prerequisite qualifying and any |
conditional education requirements as established by
rule.
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(Source: P.A. 100-604, eff. 7-13-18; 100-832, eff. 1-1-19; |
101-81, eff. 7-12-19.)
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(225 ILCS 458/5-20.5)
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(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022) |
Sec. 5-20.5. Duration of application. Applicants have 3 |
years from the date of application to complete the application |
process. If the process has not been completed within 3 years, |
the application shall expire be denied , the fee shall be |
forfeited, and the applicant must reapply and meet the |
requirements in effect at the time of reapplication.
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(Source: P.A. 96-844, eff. 12-23-09 .)
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(225 ILCS 458/5-22) |
(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022) |
Sec. 5-22. Criminal history records check. |
(a) An application Each applicant for licensure by |
examination or restoration shall include the applicant's have |
his or her fingerprints submitted to the Department of State |
Police in an electronic format that complies with the form and |
manner for requesting and furnishing criminal history record |
|
information as prescribed by the Department of State Police. |
These fingerprints shall be checked against the Department of |
State Police and Federal Bureau of Investigation criminal |
history record databases now and hereafter filed. The |
Department of State Police shall charge applicants a fee for |
conducting the criminal history records check, which shall be |
deposited into the State Police Services Fund and shall not |
exceed the actual cost of the records check. The Department of |
State Police shall
furnish, pursuant to positive |
identification, records of Illinois convictions to the |
Department. The Department may require applicants to pay a |
separate fingerprinting fee, either to the Department or to a |
vendor. The Department may adopt any rules necessary to |
implement this Section.
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(b) The Secretary may designate a multi-state licensing |
system to perform the functions described in subsection (a). |
The Department may require applicants to pay a separate |
fingerprinting fee, either to the Department or to the |
multi-state licensing system. The Department may adopt any |
rules necessary to implement this subsection. |
(c) The Department shall not consider the following |
criminal history records in connection with an application for |
licensure: |
(1) juvenile adjudications of delinquent minors as |
defined in Section 5-105 of the Juvenile Court Act of 1987 |
subject to the restrictions set forth in Section 5-130 of |
|
that Act; |
(2) law enforcement records, court records, and |
conviction records of an individual who was 17 years old |
at the time of the offense and before January 1, 2014, |
unless the nature of the offense required the individual |
to be tried as an adult; |
(3) records of arrest not followed by a charge or |
conviction; |
(4) records of arrest in which the charges were |
dismissed unless related to the practice of the |
profession; however, applicants shall not be asked to |
report any arrests, and an arrest not followed by a |
conviction shall not be the basis of a denial and may be |
used only to assess an applicant's rehabilitation; |
(5) convictions overturned by a higher court; or |
(6) convictions or arrests that have been sealed or |
expunged. |
(d) If an applicant makes a false statement of material |
fact on the application, the false statement may in itself be |
sufficient grounds to revoke or refuse to issue a license. |
(e) An applicant or licensee shall report to the |
Department, in a manner prescribed by the Department, upon |
application and within 30 days after the occurrence, if during |
the term of licensure, (i) any conviction of or plea of guilty |
or nolo contendere to forgery, embezzlement, obtaining money |
under false pretenses, larceny, extortion, conspiracy to |
|
defraud, or any similar offense or offenses or any conviction |
of a felony involving moral turpitude, (ii) the entry of an |
administrative sanction by a government agency in this State |
or any other jurisdiction that has as an essential element |
dishonesty or fraud or involves larceny, embezzlement, or |
obtaining money, property, or credit by false pretenses, or |
(iii) a crime that subjects the licensee to compliance with |
the requirements of the Sex Offender Registration Act. |
(Source: P.A. 100-604, eff. 7-13-18.)
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(225 ILCS 458/5-25)
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(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
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Sec. 5-25. Renewal of license.
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(a) The expiration date and renewal period
for a State |
certified general
real estate appraiser license
or a State |
certified residential
real estate appraiser license issued |
under
this Act shall be set by rule.
Except as otherwise |
provided in subsections (b) and (f) of this Section, the
|
holder of a license may renew
the license within 90 days |
preceding the expiration date by:
|
(1) completing and submitting to the Department, or |
through a multi-state licensing system as designated by |
the Secretary,
a renewal application form as
provided by
|
the Department;
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(2) paying the required fees; and
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(3) providing evidence to the Department, or through a |
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multi-state licensing system as designated by the |
Secretary, of successful completion of the continuing
|
education requirements through courses approved by the |
Department
from
education providers licensed by the |
Department, as established by the AQB
and by rule.
|
(b) A State certified general real estate appraiser
or |
State certified
residential real estate
appraiser whose |
license under this Act has expired may renew
the license for a |
period of
2 years following the expiration date by complying |
with the requirements of
paragraphs (1), (2),
and (3) of |
subsection (a)
of this Section and paying any late penalties |
established by rule.
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(c) (Blank).
|
(d) The expiration date and renewal period for an |
associate real estate
trainee appraiser license issued under |
this
Act shall be set by rule. Except as otherwise provided in |
subsections (e) and
(f) of this Section, the holder
of an |
associate real estate trainee appraiser license may renew the |
license within 90
days preceding the expiration date by:
|
(1) completing and submitting to the Department, or |
through a multi-state licensing system as designated by |
the Secretary,
a renewal application form as
provided by |
the Department;
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(2) paying the required fees; and
|
(3) providing evidence to the Department, or through a |
multi-state licensing system as designated by the |
|
Secretary, of successful completion of the continuing
|
education requirements through
courses approved by the |
Department
from education providers approved
by the |
Department, as established by rule.
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(e) Any associate real estate trainee appraiser trainee |
whose license under this Act has
expired may
renew the license |
for a period of 2 years following the expiration date
by |
complying with the requirements of paragraphs
(1), (2), and |
(3) of subsection (d) of this Section and paying any late
|
penalties
as established by rule.
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(f) Notwithstanding subsections (c) and (e), an
appraiser |
whose license
under this Act has expired may renew or convert |
the license without
paying any lapsed renewal
fees or late |
penalties if the license expired while the appraiser was:
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(1) on active duty with the United States Armed |
Services;
|
(2) serving as the Coordinator
of Real Estate |
Appraisal or an employee of
the Department
who was |
required to surrender the his or her license during the |
term of
employment.
|
Application for renewal must be made within 2 years |
following
the termination of the military service or related |
education, training, or
employment and shall include an |
affidavit from the licensee of engagement . The
licensee shall |
furnish the Department
with an affidavit that he or she was so |
engaged.
|
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(g) The Department
shall provide reasonable care and due |
diligence to ensure that each
licensee under this Act
is |
provided with a renewal application at least 90 days prior to |
the expiration
date, but
each licensee is responsible to
|
timely renewal or conversion of the renew or convert his or her |
license prior to its expiration date is the responsibility of |
the licensee . |
(h) The Department shall not renew a license if the |
licensee has an unpaid fine from a disciplinary matter or an |
unpaid fee from a non-disciplinary action imposed by the |
Department until the fine or fee is paid to the Department or |
the licensee has entered into a payment plan and is current on |
the required payments. |
(i) The Department shall not issue a license if the |
applicant has an unpaid fine imposed by the Department for |
unlicensed practice until the fine is paid to the Department |
or the applicant has entered into a payment plan and is current |
on the required payments.
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(Source: P.A. 100-604, eff. 7-13-18; 100-832, eff. 1-1-19; |
101-81, eff. 7-12-19.)
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(225 ILCS 458/5-26 new) |
Sec. 5-26. Inactive licenses. Any licensee who notifies |
the Department, in writing on forms prescribed by the |
Department, may elect to place the license on an inactive |
status and shall, subject to the rules of the Department, be |
|
excused from payment of renewal fees until notification in |
writing to the Department of the desire to resume active |
status. Any licensee requesting reinstatement from inactive |
status shall pay the current renewal fee, provide proof of |
meeting the continuing education requirements for the period |
of time the license is inactive (not to exceed 2 renewal |
periods), and follow the requirements for reinstatement as |
provided by rule. Any licensee whose license is in an inactive |
status shall not practice in the State of Illinois. The |
Department will update the licensee's record in the National |
Registry to show that the license is inactive.
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(225 ILCS 458/5-30)
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(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
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Sec. 5-30. Endorsement. The Department may issue an |
appraiser license, without the required examination, to an |
applicant licensed by another state, territory, possession of |
the United States, or the District of
Columbia, if (i) the |
licensing
requirements of that licensing authority are, on the |
date of licensure, substantially equal to the requirements set |
forth under this Act or to a person who, at the time of the his |
or her application, possessed individual qualifications that |
were substantially equivalent to the requirements of this Act |
or (ii) the applicant provides the Department
with evidence of |
good standing from
the Appraisal Subcommittee National |
Registry
report and a criminal history records check in |
|
accordance with Section 5-22. An applicant under this Section |
shall pay all of the required fees.
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(Source: P.A. 98-1109, eff. 1-1-15 .)
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(225 ILCS 458/5-35)
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(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
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Sec. 5-35. Qualifying education requirements. (a) The |
prerequisite
classroom hours necessary for a person to be
|
approved to sit for the examination for licensure as a
State
|
certified general real
estate
appraiser
or
a State certified |
residential
real estate appraiser
shall be in accordance with |
AQB criteria and established
by rule.
|
(b) The prerequisite classroom hours necessary for a |
person
to sit for the examination for licensure as an |
associate real
estate trainee appraiser shall be established |
by rule.
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(Source: P.A. 98-1109, eff. 1-1-15 .)
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(225 ILCS 458/10-5)
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(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
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Sec. 10-5. Scope of practice.
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(a) This Act does not limit a
State
certified general real |
estate appraiser's appraiser
in his or
her scope of practice |
in
a federally related transaction. A State certified general |
real estate appraiser
may independently provide
appraisal
|
services, review, or consult related consulting
relating to |
|
any type of property for which there is related he or she has |
experience or
competency by the appraiser is
competent . All |
such appraisal
practice must be made in accordance with the |
provisions of USPAP, criteria
established by the AQB, and |
rules adopted pursuant to this Act.
|
(b) A State certified residential real estate appraiser is |
limited in his or
her scope of practice
to
the provisions of |
USPAP, criteria established by the AQB, and the
rules adopted |
pursuant to this Act.
|
(c) A State certified residential real estate appraiser |
must have a State certified general real estate appraiser who |
holds a valid license under this Act co-sign all appraisal |
reports on properties other than one to 4 units of residential |
real property without regard to transaction value or |
complexity.
|
(d) An associate real estate trainee appraiser is limited |
in his or her scope of
practice in all transactions in |
accordance with the provisions of
USPAP, this
Act, and the |
rules adopted pursuant to this Act. In addition,
an associate |
real estate trainee appraiser shall be required to have
a |
State certified
general real estate
appraiser or State |
certified residential real estate appraiser who holds a
valid |
license under this Act
to co-sign all appraisal reports. A |
supervising appraiser may not supervise more than 3 associate |
real estate trainee appraisers at one time. Associate real |
estate trainee appraisers shall not be limited in the number |
|
of concurrent supervising appraisers. A chronological |
appraisal log on an approved log form shall be maintained by |
the associate real estate trainee appraiser and shall be made |
available to the Department upon request.
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(Source: P.A. 97-602, eff. 8-26-11; 98-1109, eff. 1-1-15 .)
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(225 ILCS 458/10-10)
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(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
|
Sec. 10-10. Standards of practice. All persons licensed |
under this Act
must comply with standards
of professional |
appraisal practice adopted by the Department. The Department
|
must adopt, as part
of
its rules, the Uniform
Standards of |
Professional Appraisal Practice (USPAP) as published from time |
to time by
the Appraisal Standards
Board of the Appraisal |
Foundation. The Department
shall consider federal laws and
|
regulations regarding the
licensure of real estate appraisers |
prior to adopting its rules for the
administration of this |
Act. When an appraisal obtained through an appraisal |
management company is used for loan purposes, the borrower or |
loan applicant shall be provided with a written disclosure of |
the total compensation to the appraiser or appraisal firm |
within the body certification of the appraisal report and it |
shall not be redacted or otherwise obscured.
|
(Source: P.A. 96-844, eff. 12-23-09; 97-602, eff. 8-26-11.)
|
(225 ILCS 458/15-5)
|
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(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
|
Sec. 15-5. Unlicensed practice; civil penalty; injunctive |
relief; unlawful influence.
|
(a) A person who violates Section 5-5 of this Act
shall, in |
addition to any other penalty provided by law, pay a civil |
penalty
to the Department
in an amount not
to exceed $25,000
|
for each violation as determined by the Secretary. The
civil |
penalty shall
be assessed by the Secretary
after a hearing in |
accordance with the provisions of this Act regarding the |
provision of a hearing for the discipline of a license.
|
(b) The Department
has the authority to investigate any |
activity that may violate
this Act.
|
(c) A civil penalty imposed pursuant to subsection (a) |
shall be paid within
60 days after the effective date
of the |
order imposing the
civil penalty. The order shall constitute a |
judgment and may be filed and executed in the same manner as |
any judgment from any court of record.
Any civil penalty |
collected under this Act shall be made payable to the |
Department of Financial and Professional Regulation
and
|
deposited into the Appraisal Administration Fund. In addition |
to or in lieu of
the imposition of a civil
penalty, the |
Department
may report a violation of this Act or the failure or |
refusal to
comply with an order of the Department
to the |
Attorney General or to the appropriate State's Attorney.
|
(d) Practicing as an appraiser without holding an active a |
valid license as required
under this Act
is declared
to be |
|
adverse to the public welfare, to constitute a public |
nuisance, and to
cause irreparable harm to the
public welfare. |
The Secretary, the Attorney General, or the State's
Attorney
|
of any county in the State
may maintain an action for |
injunctive relief in any circuit court to enjoin any
person |
from
engaging in such practice.
|
Upon the filing of a verified petition in a circuit court, |
the court, if
satisfied by affidavit or otherwise that
a |
person has been engaged in the practice of real estate |
appraisal without an active a
valid license,
may enter a |
temporary restraining order without notice or bond
enjoining |
the defendant
from further practice. The showing of |
non-licensure, by affidavit or
otherwise, is sufficient
for |
the issuance of a temporary injunction.
If it is established |
that the defendant has been or is engaged
in unlawful |
practice, the court
may enter an order or judgment perpetually |
enjoining the defendant from further
unlawful practice. In all
|
proceedings under this Section, the court, in its discretion, |
may apportion the
costs among the parties interested
in the |
action, including the cost of filing the complaint, service of |
process,
witness fees and expenses, court
reporter charges, |
and reasonable attorneys' fees.
These injunction proceedings |
shall be in addition to, and not in lieu of, all
penalties and |
other remedies
provided in this Act.
|
(e) No person shall influence or attempt to influence |
through coercion, extortion, or bribery the independent |
|
judgment of an appraiser licensed or certified under this Act |
in the development, reporting, result, or review of a real |
estate appraisal. A person who violates this subsection (e) is |
guilty of a Class A misdemeanor for the first offense and a |
Class 4 felony for any subsequent offense.
|
(Source: P.A. 96-844, eff. 12-23-09 .)
|
(225 ILCS 458/15-10)
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(Section scheduled to be repealed on January 1, 2022)
|
Sec. 15-10. Grounds for disciplinary action.
|
(a) The Department
may suspend, revoke,
refuse to issue,
|
renew, or restore a license and may reprimand place on |
probation or administrative
supervision,
or take any |
disciplinary or non-disciplinary action, including
imposing
|
conditions limiting the scope, nature, or extent of the real |
estate appraisal
practice of a
licensee or reducing the |
appraisal rank of a licensee,
and may impose an administrative |
fine
not to exceed $25,000 for each violation upon a licensee
|
for any one or combination of the following:
|
(1) Procuring or attempting to procure a license by |
knowingly making a
false statement,
submitting false |
information, engaging in any form of fraud or
|
misrepresentation,
or refusing
to provide complete |
information in response to a question in an application |
for
licensure.
|
(2) Fail |