Bill Text: IL HB0001 | 2013-2014 | 98th General Assembly | Chaptered

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Bill Title: Creates the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act. Contains only a short title provision.

Spectrum: Partisan Bill (Democrat 17-0)

Status: (Passed) 2013-08-01 - Public Act . . . . . . . . . 98-0122 [HB0001 Detail]

Download: Illinois-2013-HB0001-Chaptered.html

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Public Act 098-0122
HB0001 Enrolled LRB098 02716 MLW 32724 b
AN ACT concerning alternative treatment for serious
diseases causing chronic pain and debilitating conditions.
Be it enacted by the People of the State of Illinois,
represented in the General Assembly:
Section 1. Short title. This Act may be cited as the
Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act.
Section 5. Findings.
(a) The recorded use of cannabis as a medicine goes back
nearly 5,000 years. Modern medical research has confirmed the
beneficial uses of cannabis in treating or alleviating the
pain, nausea, and other symptoms associated with a variety of
debilitating medical conditions, including cancer, multiple
sclerosis, and HIV/AIDS, as found by the National Academy of
Sciences' Institute of Medicine in March 1999.
(b) Studies published since the 1999 Institute of Medicine
report continue to show the therapeutic value of cannabis in
treating a wide array of debilitating medical conditions. These
include relief of the neuropathic pain caused by multiple
sclerosis, HIV/AIDS, and other illnesses that often fail to
respond to conventional treatments and relief of nausea,
vomiting, and other side effects of drugs used to treat
HIV/AIDS and hepatitis C, increasing the chances of patients
continuing on life-saving treatment regimens.

(c) Cannabis has many currently accepted medical uses in
the United States, having been recommended by thousands of
licensed physicians to at least 600,000 patients in states with
medical cannabis laws. The medical utility of cannabis is
recognized by a wide range of medical and public health
organizations, including the American Academy of HIV Medicine,
the American College of Physicians, the American Nurses
Association, the American Public Health Association, the
Leukemia & Lymphoma Society, and many others.
(d) Data from the Federal Bureau of Investigation's Uniform
Crime Reports and the Compendium of Federal Justice Statistics
show that approximately 99 out of every 100 cannabis arrests in
the U.S. are made under state law, rather than under federal
law. Consequently, changing State law will have the practical
effect of protecting from arrest the vast majority of seriously
ill patients who have a medical need to use cannabis.
(e) Alaska, Arizona, California, Colorado, Connecticut,
Delaware, Hawaii, Maine, Massachusetts, Michigan, Montana,
Nevada, New Jersey, New Mexico, Oregon, Rhode Island, Vermont,
Washington, and Washington, D.C. have removed state-level
criminal penalties from the medical use and cultivation of
cannabis. Illinois joins in this effort for the health and
welfare of its citizens.
(f) States are not required to enforce federal law or
prosecute people for engaging in activities prohibited by
federal law. Therefore, compliance with this Act does not put

the State of Illinois in violation of federal law.
(g) State law should make a distinction between the medical
and non-medical uses of cannabis. Hence, the purpose of this
Act is to protect patients with debilitating medical
conditions, as well as their physicians and providers, from
arrest and prosecution, criminal and other penalties, and
property forfeiture if the patients engage in the medical use
of cannabis.
Section 10. Definitions. The following terms, as used in
this Act, shall have the meanings set forth in this Section:
(a) "Adequate supply" means:
(1) 2.5 ounces of usable cannabis during a period of 14
days and that is derived solely from an intrastate source.
(2) Subject to the rules of the Department of Public
Health, a patient may apply for a waiver where a physician
provides a substantial medical basis in a signed, written
statement asserting that, based on the patient's medical
history, in the physician's professional judgment, 2.5
ounces is an insufficient adequate supply for a 14-day
period to properly alleviate the patient's debilitating
medical condition or symptoms associated with the
debilitating medical condition.
(3) This subsection may not be construed to authorize
the possession of more than 2.5 ounces at any time without
authority from the Department of Public Health.

(4) The pre-mixed weight of medical cannabis used in
making a cannabis infused product shall apply toward the
limit on the total amount of medical cannabis a registered
qualifying patient may possess at any one time.
(b) "Cannabis" has the meaning given that term in Section 3
of the Cannabis Control Act.
(c) "Cannabis plant monitoring system" means a system that
includes, but is not limited to, testing and data collection
established and maintained by the registered cultivation
center and available to the Department for the purposes of
documenting each cannabis plant and for monitoring plant
development throughout the life cycle of a cannabis plant
cultivated for the intended use by a qualifying patient from
seed planting to final packaging.
(d) "Cardholder" means a qualifying patient or a designated
caregiver who has been issued and possesses a valid registry
identification card by the Department of Public Health.
(e) "Cultivation center" means a facility operated by an
organization or business that is registered by the Department
of Agriculture to perform necessary activities to provide only
registered medical cannabis dispensing organizations with
usable medical cannabis.
(f) "Cultivation center agent" means a principal officer,
board member, employee, or agent of a registered cultivation
center who is 21 years of age or older and has not been
convicted of an excluded offense.

(g) "Cultivation center agent identification card" means a
document issued by the Department of Agriculture that
identifies a person as a cultivation center agent.
(h) "Debilitating medical condition" means one or more of
the following:
(1) cancer, glaucoma, positive status for human
immunodeficiency virus, acquired immune deficiency
syndrome, hepatitis C, amyotrophic lateral sclerosis,
Crohn's disease, agitation of Alzheimer's disease,
cachexia/wasting syndrome, muscular dystrophy, severe
fibromyalgia, spinal cord disease, including but not
limited to arachnoiditis, Tarlov cysts, hydromyelia,
syringomyelia, Rheumatoid arthritis, fibrous dysplasia,
spinal cord injury, traumatic brain injury and
post-concussion syndrome, Multiple Sclerosis,
Arnold-Chiari malformation and Syringomyelia,
Spinocerebellar Ataxia (SCA), Parkinson's, Tourette's,
Myoclonus, Dystonia, Reflex Sympathetic Dystrophy, RSD
(Complex Regional Pain Syndromes Type I), Causalgia, CRPS
(Complex Regional Pain Syndromes Type II),
Neurofibromatosis, Chronic Inflammatory Demyelinating
Polyneuropathy, Sjogren's syndrome, Lupus, Interstitial
Cystitis, Myasthenia Gravis, Hydrocephalus, nail-patella
syndrome, residual limb pain, or the treatment of these
conditions; or
(2) any other debilitating medical condition or its

treatment that is added by the Department of Public Health
by rule as provided in Section 45.
(i) "Designated caregiver" means a person who: (1) is at
least 21 years of age; (2) has agreed to assist with a
patient's medical use of cannabis; (3) has not been convicted
of an excluded offense; and (4) assists no more than one
registered qualifying patient with his or her medical use of
cannabis.
(j) "Dispensing organization agent identification card"
means a document issued by the Department of Financial and
Professional Regulation that identifies a person as a medical
cannabis dispensing organization agent.
(k) "Enclosed, locked facility" means a room, greenhouse,
building, or other enclosed area equipped with locks or other
security devices that permit access only by a cultivation
center's agents or a dispensing organization's agent working
for the registered cultivation center or the registered
dispensing organization to cultivate, store, and distribute
cannabis for registered qualifying patients.
(l) "Excluded offense" means:
(1) a violent crime defined in Section 3 of the Rights
of Crime Victims and Witnesses Act or a substantially
similar offense that was classified as a felony in the
jurisdiction where the person was convicted; or
(2) a violation of a state or federal controlled
substance law that was classified as a felony in the

jurisdiction where the person was convicted, except that
the registering Department may waive this restriction if
the person demonstrates to the registering Department's
satisfaction that his or her conviction was for the
possession, cultivation, transfer, or delivery of a
reasonable amount of cannabis intended for medical use.
This exception does not apply if the conviction was under
state law and involved a violation of an existing medical
cannabis law.
(m) "Medical cannabis cultivation center registration"
means a registration issued by the Department of Agriculture.
(n) "Medical cannabis container" means a sealed,
traceable, food compliant, tamper resistant, tamper evident
container, or package used for the purpose of containment of
medical cannabis from a cultivation center to a dispensing
organization.
(o) "Medical cannabis dispensing organization", or
"dispensing organization", or "dispensary organization" means
a facility operated by an organization or business that is
registered by the Department of Financial and Professional
Regulation to acquire medical cannabis from a registered
cultivation center for the purpose of dispensing cannabis,
paraphernalia, or related supplies and educational materials
to registered qualifying patients.
(p) "Medical cannabis dispensing organization agent" or
"dispensing organization agent" means a principal officer,

board member, employee, or agent of a registered medical
cannabis dispensing organization who is 21 years of age or
older and has not been convicted of an excluded offense.
(q) "Medical cannabis infused product" means food, oils,
ointments, or other products containing usable cannabis that
are not smoked.
(r) "Medical use" means the acquisition; administration;
delivery; possession; transfer; transportation; or use of
cannabis to treat or alleviate a registered qualifying
patient's debilitating medical condition or symptoms
associated with the patient's debilitating medical condition.
(s) "Physician" means a doctor of medicine or doctor of
osteopathy licensed under the Medical Practice Act of 1987 to
practice medicine and who has a controlled substances license
under Article III of the Illinois Controlled Substances Act. It
does not include a licensed practitioner under any other Act
including but not limited to the Illinois Dental Practice Act.
(t) "Qualifying patient" means a person who has been
diagnosed by a physician as having a debilitating medical
condition.
(u) "Registered" means licensed, permitted, or otherwise
certified by the Department of Agriculture, Department of
Public Health, or Department of Financial and Professional
Regulation.
(v) "Registry identification card" means a document issued
by the Department of Public Health that identifies a person as

a registered qualifying patient or registered designated
caregiver.
(w) "Usable cannabis" means the seeds, leaves, buds, and
flowers of the cannabis plant and any mixture or preparation
thereof, but does not include the stalks, and roots of the
plant. It does not include the weight of any non-cannabis
ingredients combined with cannabis, such as ingredients added
to prepare a topical administration, food, or drink.
(x) "Verification system" means a Web-based system
established and maintained by the Department of Public Health
that is available to the Department of Agriculture, the
Department of Financial and Professional Regulation, law
enforcement personnel, and registered medical cannabis
dispensing organization agents on a 24-hour basis for the
verification of registry identification cards, the tracking of
delivery of medical cannabis to medical cannabis dispensing
organizations, and the tracking of the date of sale, amount,
and price of medical cannabis purchased by a registered
qualifying patient.
(y) "Written certification" means a document dated and
signed by a physician, stating (1) that in the physician's
professional opinion the patient is likely to receive
therapeutic or palliative benefit from the medical use of
cannabis to treat or alleviate the patient's debilitating
medical condition or symptoms associated with the debilitating
medical condition; (2) that the qualifying patient has a

debilitating medical condition and specifying the debilitating
medical condition the qualifying patient has; and (3) that the
patient is under the physician's care for the debilitating
medical condition. A written certification shall be made only
in the course of a bona fide physician-patient relationship,
after the physician has completed an assessment of the
qualifying patient's medical history, reviewed relevant
records related to the patient's debilitating condition, and
conducted a physical examination.
A veteran who has received treatment at a VA hospital shall
be deemed to have a bona fide physician-patient relationship
with a VA physician if the patient has been seen for his or her
debilitating medical condition at the VA Hospital in accordance
with VA Hospital protocols.
A bona fide physician-patient relationship under this
subsection is a privileged communication within the meaning of
Section 8-802 of the Code of Civil Procedure.
Section 15. Authority.
(a) It is the duty of the Department of Public Health to
enforce the following provisions of this Act unless otherwise
provided for by this Act:
(1) establish and maintain a confidential registry of
qualifying patients authorized to engage in the medical use
of cannabis and their caregivers;
(2) distribute educational materials about the health

risks associated with the abuse of cannabis and
prescription medications;
(3) adopt rules to administer the patient and caregiver
registration program; and
(4) adopt rules establishing food handling
requirements for cannabis-infused products that are
prepared for human consumption.
(b) It is the duty of the Department of Agriculture to
enforce the provisions of this Act relating to the registration
and oversight of cultivation centers unless otherwise provided
for in this Act.
(c) It is the duty of the Department of Financial and
Professional Regulation to enforce the provisions of this Act
relating to the registration and oversight of dispensing
organizations unless otherwise provided for in this Act.
(d) The Department of Public Health, the Department of
Agriculture, or the Department of Financial and Professional
Regulation shall enter into intergovernmental agreements, as
necessary, to carry out the provisions of this Act including,
but not limited to, the provisions relating to the registration
and oversight of cultivation centers, dispensing
organizations, and qualifying patients and caregivers.
(e) The Department of Public Health, Department of
Agriculture, or the Department of Financial and Professional
Regulation may suspend or revoke a registration for violations
of this Act and any rules adopted in accordance thereto. The

suspension or revocation of a registration is a final Agency
action, subject to judicial review. Jurisdiction and venue for
judicial review are vested in the Circuit Court.
Section 20. Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Fund.
(a) There is created the Compassionate Use of Medical
Cannabis Fund in the State Treasury to be used exclusively for
the direct and indirect costs associated with the
implementation, administration, and enforcement of this Act.
Funds in excess of the direct and indirect costs associated
with the implementation, administration, and enforcement of
this Act shall be used to fund crime prevention programs.
(b) All monies collected under this Act shall be deposited
in the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Fund in the State
treasury. All earnings received from investment of monies in
the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Fund shall be
deposited in the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Fund.
(c) Notwithstanding any other law to the contrary, the
Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Fund is not subject to
sweeps, administrative charge-backs, or any other fiscal or
budgetary maneuver that would in any way transfer any amounts
from the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Fund into any
other fund of the State.
Section 25. Immunities and presumptions related to the
medical use of cannabis.

(a) A registered qualifying patient is not subject to
arrest, prosecution, or denial of any right or privilege,
including but not limited to civil penalty or disciplinary
action by an occupational or professional licensing board, for
the medical use of cannabis in accordance with this Act, if the
registered qualifying patient possesses an amount of cannabis
that does not exceed an adequate supply as defined in
subsection (a) of Section 10 of this Act of usable cannabis
and, where the registered qualifying patient is a licensed
professional, the use of cannabis does not impair that licensed
professional when he or she is engaged in the practice of the
profession for which he or she is licensed.
(b) A registered designated caregiver is not subject to
arrest, prosecution, or denial of any right or privilege,
including but not limited to civil penalty or disciplinary
action by an occupational or professional licensing board, for
acting in accordance with this Act to assist a registered
qualifying patient to whom he or she is connected through the
Department's registration process with the medical use of
cannabis if the designated caregiver possesses an amount of
cannabis that does not exceed an adequate supply as defined in
subsection (a) of Section 10 of this Act of usable cannabis.
The total amount possessed between the qualifying patient and
caregiver shall not exceed the patient's adequate supply as
defined in subsection (a) of Section 10 of this Act.
(c) A registered qualifying patient or registered

designated caregiver is not subject to arrest, prosecution, or
denial of any right or privilege, including but not limited to
civil penalty or disciplinary action by an occupational or
professional licensing board for possession of cannabis that is
incidental to medical use, but is not usable cannabis as
defined in this Act.
(d)(1) There is a rebuttable presumption that a registered
qualifying patient is engaged in, or a designated caregiver is
assisting with, the medical use of cannabis in accordance with
this Act if the qualifying patient or designated caregiver:
(A) is in possession of a valid registry identification
card; and
(B) is in possession of an amount of cannabis that does
not exceed the amount allowed under subsection (a) of
Section 10.
(2) The presumption may be rebutted by evidence that
conduct related to cannabis was not for the purpose of treating
or alleviating the qualifying patient's debilitating medical
condition or symptoms associated with the debilitating medical
condition in compliance with this Act.
(e) A physician is not subject to arrest, prosecution, or
penalty in any manner, or denied any right or privilege,
including but not limited to civil penalty or disciplinary
action by the Medical Disciplinary Board or by any other
occupational or professional licensing board, solely for
providing written certifications or for otherwise stating

that, in the physician's professional opinion, a patient is
likely to receive therapeutic or palliative benefit from the
medical use of cannabis to treat or alleviate the patient's
debilitating medical condition or symptoms associated with the
debilitating medical condition, provided that nothing shall
prevent a professional licensing or disciplinary board from
sanctioning a physician for: (1) issuing a written
certification to a patient who is not under the physician's
care for a debilitating medical condition; or (2) failing to
properly evaluate a patient's medical condition or otherwise
violating the standard of care for evaluating medical
conditions.
(f) No person may be subject to arrest, prosecution, or
denial of any right or privilege, including but not limited to
civil penalty or disciplinary action by an occupational or
professional licensing board, solely for: (1) selling cannabis
paraphernalia to a cardholder upon presentation of an unexpired
registry identification card in the recipient's name, if
employed and registered as a dispensing agent by a registered
dispensing organization; (2) being in the presence or vicinity
of the medical use of cannabis as allowed under this Act; or
(3) assisting a registered qualifying patient with the act of
administering cannabis.
(g) A registered cultivation center is not subject to
prosecution; search or inspection, except by the Department of
Agriculture, Department of Public Health, or State or local law

enforcement under Section 130; seizure; or penalty in any
manner, or be denied any right or privilege, including but not
limited to civil penalty or disciplinary action by a business
licensing board or entity, for acting under this Act and
Department of Agriculture rules to: acquire, possess,
cultivate, manufacture, deliver, transfer, transport, supply,
or sell cannabis to registered dispensing organizations.
(h) A registered cultivation center agent is not subject to
prosecution, search, or penalty in any manner, or be denied any
right or privilege, including but not limited to civil penalty
or disciplinary action by a business licensing board or entity,
for working or volunteering for a registered cannabis
cultivation center under this Act and Department of Agriculture
rules, including to perform the actions listed under subsection
(g).
(i) A registered dispensing organization is not subject to
prosecution; search or inspection, except by the Department of
Financial and Professional Regulation or State or local law
enforcement pursuant to Section 130; seizure; or penalty in any
manner, or be denied any right or privilege, including but not
limited to civil penalty or disciplinary action by a business
licensing board or entity, for acting under this Act and
Department of Financial and Professional Regulation rules to:
acquire, possess, or dispense cannabis, or related supplies,
and educational materials to registered qualifying patients or
registered designated caregivers on behalf of registered

qualifying patients.
(j) A registered dispensing organization agent is not
subject to prosecution, search, or penalty in any manner, or be
denied any right or privilege, including but not limited to
civil penalty or disciplinary action by a business licensing
board or entity, for working or volunteering for a dispensing
organization under this Act and Department of Financial and
Professional Regulation rules, including to perform the
actions listed under subsection (i).
(k) Any cannabis, cannabis paraphernalia, illegal
property, or interest in legal property that is possessed,
owned, or used in connection with the medical use of cannabis
as allowed under this Act, or acts incidental to that use, may
not be seized or forfeited. This Act does not prevent the
seizure or forfeiture of cannabis exceeding the amounts allowed
under this Act, nor shall it prevent seizure or forfeiture if
the basis for the action is unrelated to the cannabis that is
possessed, manufactured, transferred, or used under this Act.
(l) Mere possession of, or application for, a registry
identification card or registration certificate does not
constitute probable cause or reasonable suspicion, nor shall it
be used as the sole basis to support the search of the person,
property, or home of the person possessing or applying for the
registry identification card. The possession of, or
application for, a registry identification card does not
preclude the existence of probable cause if probable cause

exists on other grounds.
(m) Nothing in this Act shall preclude local or State law
enforcement agencies from searching a registered cultivation
center where there is probable cause to believe that the
criminal laws of this State have been violated and the search
is conducted in conformity with the Illinois Constitution, the
Constitution of the United States, and all State statutes.
(n) Nothing in this Act shall preclude local or state law
enforcement agencies from searching a registered dispensing
organization where there is probable cause to believe that the
criminal laws of this State have been violated and the search
is conducted in conformity with the Illinois Constitution, the
Constitution of the United States, and all State statutes.
(o) No individual employed by the State of Illinois shall
be subject to criminal or civil penalties for taking any action
in accordance with the provisions of this Act, when the actions
are within the scope of his or her employment. Representation
and indemnification of State employees shall be provided to
State employees as set forth in Section 2 of the State Employee
Indemnification Act.
Section 30. Limitations and penalties.
(a) This Act does not permit any person to engage in, and
does not prevent the imposition of any civil, criminal, or
other penalties for engaging in, the following conduct:
(1) Undertaking any task under the influence of

cannabis, when doing so would constitute negligence,
professional malpractice, or professional misconduct;
(2) Possessing cannabis:
(A) in a school bus;
(B) on the grounds of any preschool or primary or
secondary school;
(C) in any correctional facility;
(D) in a vehicle under Section 11-502.1 of the
Illinois Vehicle Code;
(E) in a vehicle not open to the public unless the
medical cannabis is in a reasonably secured, sealed,
tamper-evident container and reasonably inaccessible
while the vehicle is moving; or
(F) in a private residence that is used at any time
to provide licensed child care or other similar social
service care on the premises;
(3) Using cannabis:
(A) in a school bus;
(B) on the grounds of any preschool or primary or
secondary school;
(C) in any correctional facility;
(D) in any motor vehicle;
(E) in a private residence that is used at any time
to provide licensed child care or other similar social
service care on the premises;
(F) in any public place. "Public place" as used in

this subsection means any place where an individual
could reasonably be expected to be observed by others.
A "public place" includes all parts of buildings owned
in whole or in part, or leased, by the State or a local
unit of government. A "public place" does not include a
private residence unless the private residence is used
to provide licensed child care, foster care, or other
similar social service care on the premises. For
purposes of this subsection, a "public place" does not
include a health care facility. For purposes of this
Section, a "health care facility" includes, but is not
limited to, hospitals, nursing homes, hospice care
centers, and long-term care facilities;
(G) knowingly in close physical proximity to
anyone under the age of 18 years of age;
(4) Smoking medical cannabis in any public place where
an individual could reasonably be expected to be observed
by others, in a health care facility, or any other place
where smoking is prohibited under the Smoke Free Illinois
Act;
(5) Operating, navigating, or being in actual physical
control of any motor vehicle, aircraft, or motorboat while
using or under the influence of cannabis in violation of
Sections 11-501 and 11-502.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code;
(6) Using or possessing cannabis if that person does
not have a debilitating medical condition and is not a

registered qualifying patient or caregiver;
(7) Allowing any person who is not allowed to use
cannabis under this Act to use cannabis that a cardholder
is allowed to possess under this Act;
(8) Transferring cannabis to any person contrary to the
provisions of this Act;
(9) The use of medical cannabis by an active duty law
enforcement officer, correctional officer, correctional
probation officer, or firefighter; or
(10) The use of medical cannabis by a person who has a
school bus permit or a Commercial Driver's License.
(b) Nothing in this Act shall be construed to prevent the
arrest or prosecution of a registered qualifying patient for
reckless driving or driving under the influence of cannabis
where probable cause exists.
(c) Notwithstanding any other criminal penalties related
to the unlawful possession of cannabis, knowingly making a
misrepresentation to a law enforcement official of any fact or
circumstance relating to the medical use of cannabis to avoid
arrest or prosecution is a petty offense punishable by a fine
of up to $1,000, which shall be in addition to any other
penalties that may apply for making a false statement or for
the use of cannabis other than use undertaken under this Act.
(d) Notwithstanding any other criminal penalties related
to the unlawful possession of cannabis, any person who makes a
misrepresentation of a medical condition to a physician or

fraudulently provides material misinformation to a physician
in order to obtain a written certification is guilty of a petty
offense punishable by a fine of up to $1,000.
(e) Any cardholder or registered caregiver who sells
cannabis shall have his or her registry identification card
revoked and is subject to other penalties for the unauthorized
sale of cannabis.
(f) Any registered qualifying patient who commits a
violation of Section 11-502.1 of the Illinois Vehicle Code or
refuses a properly requested test related to operating a motor
vehicle while under the influence of cannabis shall have his or
her registry identification card revoked.
(g) No registered qualifying patient or designated
caregiver shall knowingly obtain, seek to obtain, or possess,
individually or collectively, an amount of usable cannabis from
a registered medical cannabis dispensing organization that
would cause him or her to exceed the authorized adequate supply
under subsection (a) of Section 10.
(h) Nothing in this Act shall prevent a private business
from restricting or prohibiting the medical use of cannabis on
its property.
(i) Nothing in this Act shall prevent a university,
college, or other institution of post-secondary education from
restricting or prohibiting the use of medical cannabis on its
property.

Section 35. Physician requirements.
(a) A physician who certifies a debilitating medical
condition for a qualifying patient shall comply with all of the
following requirements:
(1) The Physician shall be currently licensed under the
Medical Practice Act of 1987 to practice medicine in all
its branches and in good standing, and must hold a
controlled substances license under Article III of the
Illinois Controlled Substances Act.
(2) A physician making a medical cannabis
recommendation shall comply with generally accepted
standards of medical practice, the provisions of the
Medical Practice Act of 1987 and all applicable rules.
(3) The physical examination required by this Act may
not be performed by remote means, including telemedicine.
(4) The physician shall maintain a record-keeping
system for all patients for whom the physician has
recommended the medical use of cannabis. These records
shall be accessible to and subject to review by the
Department of Public Health and the Department of Financial
and Professional Regulation upon request.
(b) A physician may not:
(1) accept, solicit, or offer any form of remuneration
from or to a qualifying patient, primary caregiver,
cultivation center, or dispensing organization, including
each principal officer, board member, agent, and employee

other than accepting payment from a patient for the fee
associated with the examination required prior to
certifying a qualifying patient;
(2) offer a discount of any other item of value to a
qualifying patient who uses or agrees to use a particular
primary caregiver or dispensing organization to obtain
medical cannabis;
(3) conduct a personal physical examination of a
patient for purposes of diagnosing a debilitating medical
condition at a location where medical cannabis is sold or
distributed or at the address of a principal officer,
agent, or employee or a medical cannabis organization;
(4) hold a direct or indirect economic interest in a
cultivation center or dispensing organization if he or she
recommends the use of medical cannabis to qualified
patients or is in a partnership or other fee or
profit-sharing relationship with a physician who
recommends medical cannabis;
(5) serve on the board of directors or as an employee
of a cultivation center or dispensing organization;
(6) refer patients to a cultivation center, a
dispensing organization, or a registered designated
caregiver; or
(7) advertise in a cultivation center or a dispensing
organization.
(c) The Department of Public Health may with reasonable

cause refer a physician, who has certified a debilitating
medical condition of a patient, to the Illinois Department of
Financial and Professional Regulation for potential violations
of this Section.
(d) Any violation of this Section or any other provision of
this Act or rules adopted under this Act is a violation of the
Medical Practice Act of 1987.
Section 40. Discrimination prohibited.
(a)(1) No school, employer, or landlord may refuse to
enroll or lease to, or otherwise penalize, a person solely for
his or her status as a registered qualifying patient or a
registered designated caregiver, unless failing to do so would
put the school, employer, or landlord in violation of federal
law or unless failing to do so would cause it to lose a
monetary or licensing-related benefit under federal law or
rules. This does not prevent a landlord from prohibiting the
smoking of cannabis on the premises.
(2) For the purposes of medical care, including organ
transplants, a registered qualifying patient's authorized use
of cannabis in accordance with this Act is considered the
equivalent of the authorized use of any other medication used
at the direction of a physician, and may not constitute the use
of an illicit substance or otherwise disqualify a qualifying
patient from needed medical care.
(b) A person otherwise entitled to custody of or visitation

or parenting time with a minor may not be denied that right,
and there is no presumption of neglect or child endangerment,
for conduct allowed under this Act, unless the person's actions
in relation to cannabis were such that they created an
unreasonable danger to the safety of the minor as established
by clear and convincing evidence.
(c) No school, landlord, or employer may be penalized or
denied any benefit under State law for enrolling, leasing to,
or employing a cardholder.
(d) Nothing in this Act may be construed to require a
government medical assistance program or private health
insurer to reimburse a person for costs associated with the
medical use of cannabis.
(e) Nothing in this Act may be construed to require any
person or establishment in lawful possession of property to
allow a guest, client, customer, or visitor who is a registered
qualifying patient to use cannabis on or in that property.
Section 45. Addition of debilitating medical conditions.
Any citizen may petition the Department of Public Health to add
debilitating conditions or treatments to the list of
debilitating medical conditions listed in subsection (h) of
Section 10. The Department of Public Health shall consider
petitions in the manner required by Department rule, including
public notice and hearing. The Department shall approve or deny
a petition within 180 days of its submission, and, upon

approval, shall proceed to add that condition by rule in
accordance with the Administrative Procedure Act. The approval
or denial of any petition is a final decision of the
Department, subject to judicial review. Jurisdiction and venue
are vested in the Circuit Court.
Section 50. Employment; employer liability.
(a) Nothing in this Act shall prohibit an employer from
adopting reasonable regulations concerning the consumption,
storage, or timekeeping requirements for qualifying patients
related to the use of medical cannabis.
(b) Nothing in this Act shall prohibit an employer from
enforcing a policy concerning drug testing, zero-tolerance, or
a drug free workplace provided the policy is applied in a
nondiscriminatory manner.
(c) Nothing in this Act shall limit an employer from
disciplining a registered qualifying patient for violating a
workplace drug policy.
(d) Nothing in this Act shall limit an employer's ability
to discipline an employee for failing a drug test if failing to
do so would put the employer in violation of federal law or
cause it to lose a federal contract or funding.
(e) Nothing in this Act shall be construed to create a
defense for a third party who fails a drug test.
(f) An employer may consider a registered qualifying
patient to be impaired when he or she manifests specific,

articulable symptoms while working that decrease or lessen his
or her performance of the duties or tasks of the employee's job
position, including symptoms of the employee's speech,
physical dexterity, agility, coordination, demeanor,
irrational or unusual behavior, negligence or carelessness in
operating equipment or machinery, disregard for the safety of
the employee or others, or involvement in an accident that
results in serious damage to equipment or property, disruption
of a production or manufacturing process, or carelessness that
results in any injury to the employee or others. If an employer
elects to discipline a qualifying patient under this
subsection, it must afford the employee a reasonable
opportunity to contest the basis of the determination.
(g) Nothing in this Act shall be construed to create or
imply a cause of action for any person against an employer for:
(1) actions based on the employer's good faith belief that a
registered qualifying patient used or possessed cannabis while
on the employer's premises or during the hours of employment;
(2) actions based on the employer's good faith belief that a
registered qualifying patient was impaired while working on the
employer's premises during the hours of employment; (3) injury
or loss to a third party if the employer neither knew nor had
reason to know that the employee was impaired.
(h) Nothing in this Act shall be construed to interfere
with any federal restrictions on employment including but not
limited to the United States Department of Transportation

regulation 49 CFR 40.151(e).
Section 55. Registration of qualifying patients and
designated caregivers.
(a) The Department of Public Health shall issue registry
identification cards to qualifying patients and designated
caregivers who submit a completed application, and at minimum,
the following, in accordance with Department of Public Health
rules:
(1) A written certification, on a form developed by the
Department of Public Health and issued by a physician,
within 90 days immediately preceding the date of an
application;
(2) upon the execution of applicable privacy waivers,
the patient's medical documentation related to his or her
debilitating condition and any other information that may
be reasonably required by the Department of Public Health
to confirm that the physician and patient have a bona fide
physician-patient relationship, that the qualifying
patient is in the physician's care for his or her
debilitating medical condition, and to substantiate the
patient's diagnosis;
(3) the application or renewal fee as set by rule;
(4) the name, address, date of birth, and social
security number of the qualifying patient, except that if
the applicant is homeless no address is required;

(5) the name, address, and telephone number of the
qualifying patient's physician;
(6) the name, address, and date of birth of the
designated caregiver, if any, chosen by the qualifying
patient;
(7) the name of the registered medical cannabis
dispensing organization the qualifying patient designates;
(8) signed statements from the patient and designated
caregiver asserting that they will not divert medical
cannabis; and
(9) completed background checks for the patient and
designated caregiver.
Section 60. Issuance of registry identification cards.
(a) Except as provided in subsection (b), the Department of
Public Health shall:
(1) verify the information contained in an application
or renewal for a registry identification card submitted
under this Act, and approve or deny an application or
renewal, within 30 days of receiving a completed
application or renewal application and all supporting
documentation specified in Section 55;
(2) issue registry identification cards to a
qualifying patient and his or her designated caregiver, if
any, within 15 business days of approving the application
or renewal;

(3) enter the registry identification number of the
registered dispensing organization the patient designates
into the verification system; and
(4) allow for an electronic application process, and
provide a confirmation by electronic or other methods that
an application has been submitted.
(b) The Department of Public Health may not issue a
registry identification card to a qualifying patient who is
under 18 years of age.
(c) A veteran who has received treatment at a VA hospital
is deemed to have a bona fide physician-patient relationship
with a VA physician if the patient has been seen for his or her
debilitating medical condition at the VA Hospital in accordance
with VA Hospital protocols. All reasonable inferences
regarding the existence of a bona fide physician-patient
relationship shall be drawn in favor of an applicant who is a
veteran and has undergone treatment at a VA hospital.
(d) Upon the approval of the registration and issuance of a
registry card under this Section, the Department of Public
Health shall forward the designated caregiver or registered
qualified patient's driver's registration number to the
Secretary of State and certify that the individual is permitted
to engage in the medical use of cannabis. For the purposes of
law enforcement, the Secretary of State shall make a notation
on the person's driving record stating the person is a
registered qualifying patient who is entitled to the lawful

medical use of cannabis. If the person no longer holds a valid
registry card, the Department shall notify the Secretary of
State and the Secretary of State shall remove the notation from
the person's driving record. The Department and the Secretary
of State may establish a system by which the information may be
shared electronically.
Section 65. Denial of registry identification cards.
(a) The Department of Public Health may deny an application
or renewal of a qualifying patient's registry identification
card only if the applicant:
(1) did not provide the required information and
materials;
(2) previously had a registry identification card
revoked;
(3) did not meet the requirements of this Act; or
(4) provided false or falsified information.
(b) No person who has been convicted of a felony under the
Illinois Controlled Substances Act, Cannabis Control Act, or
Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, or
similar provision in a local ordinance or other jurisdiction is
eligible to receive a registry identification card.
(c) The Department of Public Health may deny an application
or renewal for a designated caregiver chosen by a qualifying
patient whose registry identification card was granted only if:
(1) the designated caregiver does not meet the

requirements of subsection (i) of Section 10;
(2) the applicant did not provide the information
required;
(3) the prospective patient's application was denied;
(4) the designated caregiver previously had a registry
identification card revoked; or
(5) the applicant or the designated caregiver provided
false or falsified information.
(d) The Department of Public Health through the Illinois
State Police shall conduct a background check of the
prospective qualifying patient and designated caregiver in
order to carry out this provision. The Department of State
Police shall be reimbursed for the cost of the background check
by the Department of Public Health. Each person applying as a
qualifying patient or a designated caregiver shall submit a
full set of fingerprints to the Department of Public Health for
the purpose of obtaining a state and federal criminal records
check. The Department of Public Health may exchange this data
with the Department of State Police or the Federal Bureau of
Investigation without disclosing that the records check is
related to this Act. The Department of Public Health shall
destroy each set of fingerprints after the criminal records
check is completed. The Department of Public Health may waive
the submission of a qualifying patient's complete fingerprints
based on (1) the severity of the patient's illness and (2) the
inability of the qualifying patient to obtain those

fingerprints, provided that a complete criminal background
check is conducted by the Department of State Police prior to
the issuance of a registry identification card.
(e) The Department of Public Health shall notify the
qualifying patient who has designated someone to serve as his
or her designated caregiver if a registry identification card
will not be issued to the designated caregiver.
(f) Denial of an application or renewal is considered a
final Department action, subject to judicial review.
Jurisdiction and venue for judicial review are vested in the
Circuit Court.
Section 70. Registry identification cards.
(a) A registered qualifying patient or designated
caregiver must keep their registry identification card in his
or her possession at all times when engaging in the medical use
of cannabis.
(b) Registry identification cards shall contain the
following:
(1) the name of the cardholder;
(2) a designation of whether the cardholder is a
designated caregiver or qualifying patient;
(3) the date of issuance and expiration date of the
registry identification card;
(4) a random alphanumeric identification number that
is unique to the cardholder;

(5) if the cardholder is a designated caregiver, the
random alphanumeric identification number of the
registered qualifying patient the designated caregiver is
receiving the registry identification card to assist; and
(6) a photograph of the cardholder, if required by
Department of Public Health rules.
(c) To maintain a valid registration identification card, a
registered qualifying patient and caregiver must annually
resubmit, at least 45 days prior to the expiration date stated
on the registry identification card, a completed renewal
application, renewal fee, and accompanying documentation as
described in Department of Public Health rules. The Department
of Public Health shall send a notification to a registered
qualifying patient or registered designated caregiver 90 days
prior to the expiration of the registered qualifying patient's
or registered designated caregiver's identification card. If
the Department of Public Health fails to grant or deny a
renewal application received in accordance with this Section,
then the renewal is deemed granted and the registered
qualifying patient or registered designated caregiver may
continue to use the expired identification card until the
Department of Public Health denies the renewal or issues a new
identification card.
(d) Except as otherwise provided in this Section, the
expiration date is one year after the date of issuance.
(e) The Department of Public Health may electronically

store in the card any or all of the information listed in
subsection (b), along with the address and date of birth of the
cardholder and the qualifying patient's designated dispensary
organization, to allow it to be read by law enforcement agents.
Section 75. Notifications to Department of Public Health
and responses; civil penalty.
(a) The following notifications and Department of Public
Health responses are required:
(1) A registered qualifying patient shall notify the
Department of Public Health of any change in his or her
name or address, or if the registered qualifying patient
ceases to have his or her debilitating medical condition,
within 10 days of the change.
(2) A registered designated caregiver shall notify the
Department of Public Health of any change in his or her
name or address, or if the designated caregiver becomes
aware the registered qualifying patient passed away,
within 10 days of the change.
(3) Before a registered qualifying patient changes his
or her designated caregiver, the qualifying patient must
notify the Department of Public Health.
(4) If a cardholder loses his or her registry
identification card, he or she shall notify the Department
within 10 days of becoming aware the card has been lost.
(b) When a cardholder notifies the Department of Public

Health of items listed in subsection (a), but remains eligible
under this Act, the Department of Public Health shall issue the
cardholder a new registry identification card with a new random
alphanumeric identification number within 15 business days of
receiving the updated information and a fee as specified in
Department of Public Health rules. If the person notifying the
Department of Public Health is a registered qualifying patient,
the Department shall also issue his or her registered
designated caregiver, if any, a new registry identification
card within 15 business days of receiving the updated
information.
(c) If a registered qualifying patient ceases to be a
registered qualifying patient or changes his or her registered
designated caregiver, the Department of Public Health shall
promptly notify the designated caregiver. The registered
designated caregiver's protections under this Act as to that
qualifying patient shall expire 15 days after notification by
the Department.
(d) A cardholder who fails to make a notification to the
Department of Public Health that is required by this Section is
subject to a civil infraction, punishable by a penalty of no
more than $150.
(e) A registered qualifying patient shall notify the
Department of Public Health of any change to his or her
designated registered dispensing organization. Registered
dispensing organizations must comply with all requirements of

this Act.
(f) If the registered qualifying patient's certifying
physician notifies the Department in writing that either the
registered qualifying patient has ceased to suffer from a
debilitating medical condition or that the physician no longer
believes the patient would receive therapeutic or palliative
benefit from the medical use of cannabis, the card shall become
null and void. However, the registered qualifying patient shall
have 15 days to destroy his or her remaining medical cannabis
and related paraphernalia.
Section 80. Preparation of cannabis infused products.
(a) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, neither the
Department of Public Health nor the Department of Agriculture
nor the health department of a unit of local government may
regulate the service of food by a registered cultivation center
or registered dispensing organization provided that all of the
following conditions are met:
(1) No cannabis infused products requiring
refrigeration or hot-holding shall be manufactured at a
cultivation center for sale or distribution at a dispensing
organization due to the potential for food-borne illness.
(2) Baked products infused with medical cannabis (such
as brownies, bars, cookies, cakes), tinctures, and other
non-refrigerated items are acceptable for sale at
dispensing organizations. The products are allowable for

sale only at registered dispensing organizations.
(3) All items shall be individually wrapped at the
original point of preparation. The packaging of the medical
cannabis infused product shall conform to the labeling
requirements of the Illinois Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act
and shall include the following information on each product
offered for sale or distribution:
(A) the name and address of the registered
cultivation center where the item was manufactured;
(B) the common or usual name of the item;
(C) all ingredients of the item, including any
colors, artificial flavors, and preservatives, listed
in descending order by predominance of weight shown
with common or usual names;
(D) the following phrase: "This product was
produced in a medical cannabis cultivation center not
subject to public health inspection that may also
process common food allergens.";
(E) allergen labeling as specified in the Federal
Food, Drug and Cosmetics Act, Federal Fair Packaging
and Labeling Act, and the Illinois Food, Drug and
Cosmetic Act;
(F) the pre-mixed total weight (in ounces or grams)
of usable cannabis in the package;
(G) a warning that the item is a medical cannabis
infused product and not a food must be distinctly and

clearly legible on the front of the package;
(H) a clearly legible warning emphasizing that the
product contains medical cannabis and is intended for
consumption by registered qualifying patients only;
and
(I) date of manufacture and "use by date".
(4) Any dispensing organization that sells edible
cannabis infused products must display a placard that
states the following: "Edible cannabis infused products
were produced in a kitchen not subject to public health
inspections that may also process common food allergens."
The placard shall be no smaller than 24" tall by 36" wide,
with typed letters no smaller than 2". The placard shall be
clearly visible and readable by customers and shall be
written in English.
(5) Cannabis infused products for sale or distribution
at a dispensing organization must be prepared by an
approved staff member of a registered cultivation center.
(6) A cultivation center that prepares cannabis
infused products for sale or distribution at a dispensing
organization shall be under the operational supervision of
a Department of Public Health certified food service
sanitation manager.
(b) The Department of Public Health shall adopt rules for
the manufacture of medical cannabis-infused products and shall
enforce these provisions, and for that purpose it may at all

times enter every building, room, basement, enclosure, or
premises occupied or used or suspected of being occupied or
used for the production, preparation, manufacture for sale,
storage, sale, distribution or transportation of medical
cannabis edible products, to inspect the premises and all
utensils, fixtures, furniture, and machinery used for the
preparation of these products.
(c) If a local health organization has a reasonable belief
that a cultivation center's cannabis-infused product poses a
public health hazard, it may refer the cultivation center to
the Department of Public Health. If the Department of Public
Health finds that a cannabis-infused product poses a health
hazard, it may without administrative procedure to bond, bring
an action for immediate injunctive relief to require that
action be taken as the court may deem necessary to meet the
hazard of the cultivation center.
Section 85. Issuance and denial of medical cannabis
cultivation permit.
(a) The Department of Agriculture may register up to 22
cultivation center registrations for operation. The Department
of Agriculture may not issue more than one registration per
each Illinois State Police District boundary as specified on
the date of January 1, 2013. The Department of Agriculture may
not issue less than the 22 registrations if there are qualified
applicants who have applied with the Department.

(b) The registrations shall be issued and renewed annually
as determined by administrative rule.
(c) The Department of Agriculture shall determine a
registration fee by rule.
(d) A cultivation center may only operate if it has been
issued a valid registration from the Department of Agriculture.
When applying for a cultivation center registration, the
applicant shall submit the following in accordance with
Department of Agriculture rules:
(1) the proposed legal name of the cultivation center;
(2) the proposed physical address of the cultivation
center and description of the enclosed, locked facility as
it applies to cultivation centers where medical cannabis
will be grown, harvested, manufactured, packaged, or
otherwise prepared for distribution to a dispensing
organization;
(3) the name, address, and date of birth of each
principal officer and board member of the cultivation
center, provided that all those individuals shall be at
least 21 years of age;
(4) any instance in which a business that any of the
prospective board members of the cultivation center had
managed or served on the board of the business and was
convicted, fined, censured, or had a registration or
license suspended or revoked in any administrative or
judicial proceeding;

(5) cultivation, inventory, and packaging plans;
(6) proposed operating by-laws that include procedures
for the oversight of the cultivation center, development
and implementation of a plant monitoring system, medical
cannabis container tracking system, accurate record
keeping, staffing plan, and security plan reviewed by the
State Police that are in accordance with the rules issued
by the Department of Agriculture under this Act. A physical
inventory shall be performed of all plants and medical
cannabis containers on a weekly basis;
(7) experience with agricultural cultivation
techniques and industry standards;
(8) any academic degrees, certifications, or relevant
experience with related businesses;
(9) the identity of every person, association, trust,
or corporation having any direct or indirect pecuniary
interest in the cultivation center operation with respect
to which the registration is sought. If the disclosed
entity is a trust, the application shall disclose the names
and addresses of the beneficiaries; if a corporation, the
names and addresses of all stockholders and directors; if a
partnership, the names and addresses of all partners, both
general and limited;
(10) verification from the State Police that all
background checks of the principal officer, board members,
and registered agents have been conducted and those

individuals have not been convicted of an excluded offense;
(11) provide a copy of the current local zoning
ordinance to the Department of Agriculture and verify that
proposed cultivation center is in compliance with the local
zoning rules issued in accordance with Section 140;
(12) an application fee set by the Department of
Agriculture by rule; and
(13) any other information required by Department of
Agriculture rules, including, but not limited to a
cultivation center applicant's experience with the
cultivation of agricultural or horticultural products,
operating an agriculturally related business, or operating
a horticultural business.
(e) An application for a cultivation center permit must be
denied if any of the following conditions are met:
(1) the applicant failed to submit the materials
required by this Section, including if the applicant's
plans do not satisfy the security, oversight, inventory, or
recordkeeping rules issued by the Department of
Agriculture;
(2) the applicant would not be in compliance with local
zoning rules issued in accordance with Section 140;
(3) one or more of the prospective principal officers
or board members has been convicted of an excluded offense;
(4) one or more of the prospective principal officers
or board members has served as a principal officer or board

member for a registered dispensing organization or
cultivation center that has had its registration revoked;
(5) one or more of the principal officers or board
members is under 21 years of age;
(6) a principal officer or board member of the
cultivation center has been convicted of a felony under the
laws of this State, any other state, or the United States;
(7) a principal officer or board member of the
cultivation center has been convicted of any violation of
Article 28 of the Criminal Code of 2012, or substantially
similar laws of any other jurisdiction; or
(8) the person has submitted an application for a
certificate under this Act which contains false
information.
Section 90. Renewal of cultivation center registrations.
(a) Registrations shall be renewed annually. The
registered cultivation center shall receive written notice 90
days prior to the expiration of its current registration that
the registration will expire. The Department of Agriculture
shall grant a renewal application within 45 days of its
submission if the following conditions are satisfied:
(1) the registered cultivation center submits a
renewal application and the required renewal fee
established by the Department of Agriculture by rule; and
(2) the Department of Agriculture has not suspended the

registration of the cultivation center or suspended or
revoked the registration for violation of this Act or rules
adopted under this Act.
Section 95. Background checks.
(a) The Department of Agriculture through the Department of
State Police shall conduct a background check of the
prospective cultivation center agents. The Department of State
Police shall be reimbursed for the cost of the background check
by the Department of Agriculture. In order to carry out this
provision, each person applying as a cultivation center agent
shall submit a full set of fingerprints to the Department of
Agriculture for the purpose of obtaining a state and federal
criminal records check. The Department of Agriculture may
exchange this data with the Department of State Police and the
Federal Bureau of Investigation without disclosing that the
records check is related to this Act. The Department of
Agriculture shall destroy each set of fingerprints after the
criminal records check is complete.
(b) When applying for the initial permit, the background
checks for the principal officer, board members, and registered
agents shall be completed prior to submitting the application
to the Department of Agriculture.
Section 100. Cultivation center agent identification card.
(a) The Department of Agriculture shall:

(1) verify the information contained in an application
or renewal for a cultivation center identification card
submitted under this Act, and approve or deny an
application or renewal, within 30 days of receiving a
completed application or renewal application and all
supporting documentation required by rule;
(2) issue a cultivation center agent identification
card to a qualifying agent within 15 business days of
approving the application or renewal;
(3) enter the registry identification number of the
cultivation center where the agent works; and
(4) allow for an electronic application process, and
provide a confirmation by electronic or other methods that
an application has been submitted.
(b) A cultivation center agent must keep his or her
identification card visible at all times when on the property
of a cultivation center and during the transportation of
medical cannabis to a registered dispensary organization.
(c) The cultivation center agent identification cards
shall contain the following:
(1) the name of the cardholder;
(2) the date of issuance and expiration date of
cultivation center agent identification cards;
(3) a random 10 digit alphanumeric identification
number containing at least 4 numbers and at least 4
letters; that is unique to the holder; and

(4) a photograph of the cardholder.
(d) The cultivation center agent identification cards
shall be immediately returned to the cultivation center upon
termination of employment.
(e) Any card lost by a cultivation center agent shall be
reported to the State Police and the Department of Agriculture
immediately upon discovery of the loss.
(f) An applicant shall be denied a cultivation center agent
identification card if he or she has been convicted of an
excluded offense.
Section 105. Requirements; prohibitions; penalties for
cultivation centers.
(a) The operating documents of a registered cultivation
center shall include procedures for the oversight of the
cultivation center, a cannabis plant monitoring system
including a physical inventory recorded weekly, a cannabis
container system including a physical inventory recorded
weekly, accurate record keeping, and a staffing plan.
(b) A registered cultivation center shall implement a
security plan reviewed by the State Police and including but
not limited to: facility access controls, perimeter intrusion
detection systems, personnel identification systems, 24-hour
surveillance system to monitor the interior and exterior of the
registered cultivation center facility and accessible to
authorized law enforcement and the Department of Financial and

Professional Regulation in real-time.
(c) A registered cultivation center may not be located
within 2,500 feet of the property line of a pre-existing public
or private preschool or elementary or secondary school or day
care center, day care home, group day care home, part day child
care facility, or an area zoned for residential use.
(d) All cultivation of cannabis for distribution to a
registered dispensing organization must take place in an
enclosed, locked facility as it applies to cultivation centers
at the physical address provided to the Department of
Agriculture during the registration process. The cultivation
center location shall only be accessed by the cultivation
center agents working for the registered cultivation center,
Department of Agriculture staff performing inspections,
Department of Public Health staff performing inspections, law
enforcement or other emergency personnel, and contractors
working on jobs unrelated to medical cannabis, such as
installing or maintaining security devices or performing
electrical wiring.
(e) A cultivation center may not sell or distribute any
cannabis to any individual or entity other than a dispensary
organization registered under this Act.
(f) All harvested cannabis intended for distribution to a
dispensing organization must be packaged in a labeled medical
cannabis container and entered into a data collection system.
(g) No person who has been convicted of an excluded offense

may be a cultivation center agent.
(h) Registered cultivation centers are subject to random
inspection by the State Police.
(i) Registered cultivation centers are subject to random
inspections by the Department of Agriculture and the Department
of Public Health.
(j) A cultivation center agent shall notify local law
enforcement, the State Police, and the Department of
Agriculture within 24 hours of the discovery of any loss or
theft. Notification shall be made by phone or in-person, or by
written or electronic communication.
(k) A cultivation center shall comply with all State and
federal rules and regulations regarding the use of pesticides.
Section 110. Suspension revocation of a registration.
(a) The Department of Agriculture may suspend or revoke a
registration for violations of this Act and rules issued in
accordance with this Section.
(b) The suspension or revocation of a certificate is a
final Department of Agriculture action, subject to judicial
review. Jurisdiction and venue for judicial review are vested
in the Circuit Court.
Section 115. Registration of dispensing organizations.
(a) The Department of Financial and Professional
Regulation may issue up to 60 dispensing organization

registrations for operation. The Department of Financial and
Professional Regulation may not issue less than the 60
registrations if there are qualified applicants who have
applied with the Department of Financial and Professional
Regulation. The organizations shall be geographically
dispersed throughout the State to allow all registered
qualifying patients reasonable proximity and access to a
dispensing organization.
(b) A dispensing organization may only operate if it has
been issued a registration from the Department of Financial and
Professional Regulation. The Department of Financial and
Professional Regulation shall adopt rules establishing the
procedures for applicants for dispensing organizations.
(c) When applying for a dispensing organization
registration, the applicant shall submit, at a minimum, the
following in accordance with Department of Financial and
Professional Regulation rules:
(1) a non-refundable application fee established by
rule;
(2) the proposed legal name of the dispensing
organization;
(3) the proposed physical address of the dispensing
organization;
(4) the name, address, and date of birth of each
principal officer and board member of the dispensing
organization, provided that all those individuals shall be

at least 21 years of age;
(5) information, in writing, regarding any instances
in which a business or not-for-profit that any of the
prospective board members managed or served on the board
was convicted, fined, censured, or had a registration
suspended or revoked in any administrative or judicial
proceeding;
(6) proposed operating by-laws that include procedures
for the oversight of the medical cannabis dispensing
organization and procedures to ensure accurate record
keeping and security measures that are in accordance with
the rules applied by the Department of Financial and
Professional Regulation under this Act. The by-laws shall
include a description of the enclosed, locked facility
where medical cannabis will be stored by the dispensing
organization; and
(7) signed statements from each dispensing
organization agent stating that they will not divert
medical cannabis.
(d) The Department of Financial and Professional
Regulation shall conduct a background check of the prospective
dispensing organization agents in order to carry out this
provision. The Department of State Police shall be reimbursed
for the cost of the background check by the Department of
Financial and Professional Regulation. Each person applying as
a dispensing organization agent shall submit a full set of

fingerprints to the Department of Financial and Professional
Regulation for the purpose of obtaining a state and federal
criminal records check. The Department of Financial and
Professional Regulation may exchange this data with the
Department of State Police and the Federal Bureau of
Investigation without disclosing that the records check is
related to this Act. The Department of Financial and
Professional Regulation shall destroy each set of fingerprints
after the criminal records check is completed.
(e) A dispensing organization must pay a registration fee
set by the Department of Financial and Professional Regulation.
(f) An application for a medical cannabis dispensing
organization registration must be denied if any of the
following conditions are met:
(1) the applicant failed to submit the materials
required by this Section, including if the applicant's
plans do not satisfy the security, oversight, or
recordkeeping rules issued by the Department of Financial
and Professional Regulation;
(2) the applicant would not be in compliance with local
zoning rules issued in accordance with Section 140;
(3) the applicant does not meet the requirements of
Section 130;
(4) one or more of the prospective principal officers
or board members has been convicted of an excluded offense;
(5) one or more of the prospective principal officers

or board members has served as a principal officer or board
member for a registered medical cannabis dispensing
organization that has had its registration revoked;
(6) one or more of the principal officers or board
members is under 21 years of age; and
(7) one or more of the principal officers or board
members is a registered qualified patient or a registered
caregiver.
Section 120. Dispensing organization agent identification
card.
(a) The Department of Financial and Professional
Regulation shall:
(1) verify the information contained in an application
or renewal for a dispensing organization agent
identification card submitted under this Act, and approve
or deny an application or renewal, within 30 days of
receiving a completed application or renewal application
and all supporting documentation required by rule;
(2) issue a dispensing organization agent
identification card to a qualifying agent within 15
business days of approving the application or renewal;
(3) enter the registry identification number of the
dispensing organization where the agent works; and
(4) allow for an electronic application process, and
provide a confirmation by electronic or other methods that

an application has been submitted.
(b) A dispensing agent must keep his or her identification
card visible at all times when on the property of a dispensing
organization.
(c) The dispensing organization agent identification cards
shall contain the following:
(1) the name of the cardholder;
(2) the date of issuance and expiration date of the
dispensing organization agent identification cards;
(3) a random 10 digit alphanumeric identification
number containing at least 4 numbers and at least 4
letters; that is unique to the holder; and
(4) a photograph of the cardholder.
(d) The dispensing organization agent identification cards
shall be immediately returned to the cultivation center upon
termination of employment.
(e) Any card lost by a dispensing organization agent shall
be reported to the Illinois State Police and the Department of
Agriculture immediately upon discovery of the loss.
(f) An applicant shall be denied a dispensing organization
agent identification card if he or she has been convicted of an
excluded offense.
Section 125. Medical cannabis dispensing organization
certification renewal.
(a) The registered dispensing organization shall receive

written notice 90 days prior to the expiration of its current
registration that the registration will expire. The Department
of Financial and Professional Regulation shall grant a renewal
application within 45 days of its submission if the following
conditions are satisfied:
(1) the registered dispensing organization submits a
renewal application and the required renewal fee
established by the Department of Financial and
Professional Regulation rules; and
(2) the Department of Financial and Professional
Regulation has not suspended the registered dispensing
organization or suspended or revoked the registration for
violation of this Act or rules adopted under this Act.
(b) If a dispensing organization fails to renew its
registration prior to expiration, the dispensing organization
shall cease operations until registration is renewed.
(c) If a dispensing organization agent fails to renew his
or her registration prior to its expiration, he or she shall
cease to work or volunteer at a dispensing organization until
his or her registration is renewed.
(d) Any dispensing organization that continues to operate
or dispensing agent that continues to work or volunteer at a
dispensing organization that fails to renew its registration
shall be subject to penalty as provided in Section 130.
Section 130. Requirements; prohibitions; penalties;

dispensing organizations.
(a) The Department of Financial and Professional
Regulation shall implement the provisions of this Section by
rule.
(b) A dispensing organization shall maintain operating
documents which shall include procedures for the oversight of
the registered dispensing organization and procedures to
ensure accurate recordkeeping.
(c) A dispensing organization shall implement appropriate
security measures, as provided by rule, to deter and prevent
the theft of cannabis and unauthorized entrance into areas
containing cannabis.
(d) A dispensing organization may not be located within
1,000 feet of the property line of a pre-existing public or
private preschool or elementary or secondary school or day care
center, day care home, group day care home, or part day child
care facility. A registered dispensing organization may not be
located in a house, apartment, condominium, or an area zoned
for residential use.
(e) A dispensing organization is prohibited from acquiring
cannabis from anyone other than a registered cultivation
center. A dispensing organization is prohibited from obtaining
cannabis from outside the State of Illinois.
(f) A registered dispensing organization is prohibited
from dispensing cannabis for any purpose except to assist
registered qualifying patients with the medical use of cannabis

directly or through the qualifying patients' designated
caregivers.
(g) The area in a dispensing organization where medical
cannabis is stored can only be accessed by dispensing
organization agents working for the dispensing organization,
Department of Financial and Professional Regulation staff
performing inspections, law enforcement or other emergency
personnel, and contractors working on jobs unrelated to medical
cannabis, such as installing or maintaining security devices or
performing electrical wiring.
(h) A dispensing organization may not dispense more than
2.5 ounces of cannabis to a registered qualifying patient,
directly or via a designated caregiver, in any 14-day period
unless the qualifying patient has a Department of Public
Health-approved quantity waiver.
(i) Before medical cannabis may be dispensed to a
designated caregiver or a registered qualifying patient, a
dispensing organization agent must determine that the
individual is a current cardholder in the verification system
and must verify each of the following:
(1) that the registry identification card presented to
the registered dispensing organization is valid;
(2) that the person presenting the card is the person
identified on the registry identification card presented
to the dispensing organization agent;
(3) that the dispensing organization is the designated

dispensing organization for the registered qualifying
patient who is obtaining the cannabis directly or via his
or her designated caregiver; and
(4) that the registered qualifying patient has not
exceeded his or her adequate supply.
(j) Dispensing organizations shall ensure compliance with
this limitation by maintaining internal, confidential records
that include records specifying how much medical cannabis is
dispensed to the registered qualifying patient and whether it
was dispensed directly to the registered qualifying patient or
to the designated caregiver. Each entry must include the date
and time the cannabis was dispensed. Additional recordkeeping
requirements may be set by rule.
(k) The physician-patient privilege as set forth by Section
8-802 of the Code of Civil Procedure shall apply between a
qualifying patient and a registered dispensing organization
and its agents with respect to communications and records
concerning qualifying patients' debilitating conditions.
(l) A dispensing organization may not permit any person to
consume cannabis on the property of a medical cannabis
organization.
(m) A dispensing organization may not share office space
with or refer patients to a physician.
(n) Notwithstanding any other criminal penalties related
to the unlawful possession of cannabis, the Department of
Financial and Professional Regulation may revoke, suspend,

place on probation, reprimand, refuse to issue or renew, or
take any other disciplinary or non-disciplinary action as the
Department of Financial and Professional Regulation may deem
proper with regard to the registration of any person issued
under this Act to operate a dispensing organization or act as a
dispensing organization agent, including imposing fines not to
exceed $10,000 for each violation, for any violations of this
Act and rules adopted in accordance with this Act. The
procedures for disciplining a registered dispensing
organization shall be determined by rule. All final
administrative decisions of the Department of Financial and
Professional Regulation are subject to judicial review under
the Administrative Review Law and its rules. The term
"administrative decision" is defined as in Section 3-101 of the
Code of Civil Procedure.
(o) Dispensing organizations are subject to random
inspection and cannabis testing by the Department of Financial
and Professional Regulation and State Police as provided by
rule.
Section 135. Change in designated dispensing organization.
Nothing contained in this Act shall be construed to prohibit a
dispensing organization registered in this State from filling
or refilling a valid written certification for medical cannabis
that is on file with the Department of Public Health and the
designation has been transferred from one dispensing

organization to another under this Act upon the following
conditions and exceptions:
(1) Prior to dispensing medical cannabis under any written
certification and the requirements of this Act, the dispensing
organization agent shall:
(A) advise the patient that the designated dispensing
organization on file with the Department of Public Health
must be changed before he or she will be able to dispense
any quantity of medical cannabis;
(B) determine that the patient is registered and in
compliance with the Department of Public Health under the
requirements of this Act;
(C) notify the dispensing organization designated by
the registered qualifying patient that the registered
qualifying patient is changing his or her designation and
the patient may no longer purchase medical cannabis at the
original dispensing organization; and
(D) notify the Department of Public Health of a
patient's change in designation and receive confirmation
from the Department of Public Health that it has updated
the registered qualifying patient database.
(2) The Department of Public Health's electronically
accessible database created under this Act shall maintain a
registered qualified patient's designated dispensary
information. The Department of Public Health may formulate
rules, not inconsistent with law, as may be necessary to carry

out the purposes of and to enforce the provisions of this
Section.
(3) Medical cannabis shall in no event be dispensed more
frequently or in larger amounts than permitted under this Act.
Section 140. Local ordinances. A unit of local government
may enact reasonable zoning ordinances or resolutions, not in
conflict with this Act or with Department of Agriculture or
Department of Public Health rules, regulating registered
medical cannabis cultivation center or medical cannabis
dispensing organizations. No unit of local government,
including a home rule unit, or school district may regulate
registered medical cannabis organizations other than as
provided in this Act and may not unreasonably prohibit the
cultivation, dispensing, and use of medical cannabis
authorized by this Act. This Section is a denial and limitation
under subsection (i) of Section 6 of Article VII of the
Illinois Constitution on the concurrent exercise by home rule
units of powers and functions exercised by the State.
Section 145. Confidentiality.
(a) The following information received and records kept by
the Department of Public Health, Department of Financial and
Professional Regulation, Department of Agriculture, or
Department of State Police under their rules for purposes of
administering this Act are subject to all applicable federal

privacy laws, confidential, and exempt from the Freedom of
Information Act, and not subject to disclosure to any
individual or public or private entity, except as necessary for
authorized employees of those authorized agencies to perform
official duties under this Act, except that the information
received and records kept by Department of Public Health,
Department of Agriculture, Department of Financial and
Professional Regulation, and Department of State Police may
disclose this information and records to each other upon
request:
(1) Applications and renewals, their contents, and
supporting information submitted by qualifying patients
and designated caregivers, including information regarding
their designated caregivers and physicians.
(2) Applications and renewals, their contents, and
supporting information submitted by or on behalf of
cultivation centers and dispensing organizations in
compliance with this Act, including their physical
addresses.
(3) The individual names and other information
identifying persons to whom the Department of Public Health
has issued registry identification cards.
(4) Any dispensing information required to be kept
under Section 135, Section 150, or Department of Public
Health, Department of Agriculture, or Department of
Financial and Professional Regulation rules shall identify

cardholders and registered cultivation centers by their
registry identification numbers and medical cannabis
dispensing organizations by their registration number and
not contain names or other personally identifying
information.
(5) All medical records provided to the Department of
Public Health in connection with an application for a
registry card.
(b) Nothing in this Section precludes the following:
(1) Department of Agriculture, Department of Financial
and Professional Regulation, or Public Health employees
may notify law enforcement about falsified or fraudulent
information submitted to the Departments if the employee
who suspects that falsified or fraudulent information has
been submitted conferred with his or her supervisor and
both agree that circumstances exist that warrant
reporting.
(2) If the employee conferred with his or her
supervisor and both agree that circumstances exist that
warrant reporting, Department of Public Health employees
may notify the Department of Financial and Professional
Regulation if there is reasonable cause to believe a
physician:
(A) issued a written certification without a bona
fide physician-patient relationship under this Act;
(B) issued a written certification to a person who

was not under the physician's care for the debilitating
medical condition; or
(C) failed to abide by the acceptable and
prevailing standard of care when evaluating a
patient's medical condition.
(3) The Department of Public Health, Department of
Agriculture, and Department of Financial and Professional
Regulation may notify State or local law enforcement about
apparent criminal violations of this Act if the employee
who suspects the offense has conferred with his or her
supervisor and both agree that circumstances exist that
warrant reporting.
(4) Medical cannabis cultivation center agents and
medical cannabis dispensing organizations may notify the
Department of Public Health, Department of Financial and
Professional Regulation, or Department of Agriculture of a
suspected violation or attempted violation of this Act or
the rules issued under it.
(5) Each Department may verify registry identification
cards under Section 150.
(6) The submission of the report to the General
Assembly under Section 160.
(c) It is a Class B misdemeanor with a $1,000 fine for any
person, including an employee or official of the Department of
Public Health, Department of Financial and Professional
Regulation, or Department of Agriculture or another State

agency or local government, to breach the confidentiality of
information obtained under this Act.
Section 150. Registry identification and registration
certificate verification.
(a) The Department of Public Health shall maintain a
confidential list of the persons to whom the Department of
Public Health has issued registry identification cards and
their addresses, phone numbers, and registry identification
numbers. This confidential list may not be combined or linked
in any manner with any other list or database except as
provided in this Section.
(b) Within 180 days of the effective date of this Act, the
Department of Public Health, Department of Financial and
Professional Regulation, and Department of Agriculture shall
together establish a computerized database or verification
system. The database or verification system must allow law
enforcement personnel and medical cannabis dispensary
organization agents to determine whether or not the
identification number corresponds with a current, valid
registry identification card. The system shall only disclose
whether the identification card is valid, whether the
cardholder is a registered qualifying patient or a registered
designated caregiver, the registry identification number of
the registered medical cannabis dispensing organization
designated to serve the registered qualifying patient who holds

the card, and the registry identification number of the patient
who is assisted by a registered designated caregiver who holds
the card. Notwithstanding any other requirements established
by this subsection, the Department of Public Health shall issue
registry cards to qualifying patients, the Department of
Financial and Professional Regulation may issue registration
to medical cannabis dispensing organizations for the period
during which the database is being established, and the
Department of Agriculture may issue registration to medical
cannabis cultivation organizations for the period during which
the database is being established.
Section 155. Review of administrative decisions. All final
administrative decisions of the Departments of Public Health,
Department of Agriculture, and Department of Financial and
Professional Regulation are subject to direct judicial review
under the provisions of the Administrative Review Law and the
rules adopted under that Law. The term "administrative
decision" is defined as in Section 3-101 of the Code of Civil
Procedure.
Section 160. Annual reports.
(a) The Department of Public Health shall submit to the
General Assembly a report, by September 30 of each year, that
does not disclose any identifying information about registered
qualifying patients, registered caregivers, or physicians, but

does contain, at a minimum, all of the following information
based on the fiscal year for reporting purposes:
(1) the number of applications and renewals filed for
registry identification cards or registrations;
(2) the number of qualifying patients and designated
caregivers served by each dispensary during the report
year;
(3) the nature of the debilitating medical conditions
of the qualifying patients;
(4) the number of registry identification cards or
registrations revoked for misconduct;
(5) the number of physicians providing written
certifications for qualifying patients; and
(6) the number of registered medical cannabis
cultivation centers or registered dispensing
organizations.
Section 165. Administrative rulemaking.
(a) Not later than 120 days after the effective date of
this Act, the Department of Public Health, Department of
Agriculture, and the Department of Financial and Professional
Regulation shall develop rules in accordance to their
responsibilities under this Act and file those rules with the
Joint Committee on Administrative Rules.
(b) The Department of Public Health rules shall address,
but not be limited to, the following:

(1) fees for applications for registration as a
qualified patient or caregiver;
(2) establishing the form and content of registration
and renewal applications submitted under this Act,
including a standard form for written certifications;
(3) governing the manner in which it shall consider
applications for and renewals of registry identification
cards;
(4) the manufacture of medical cannabis-infused
products;
(5) fees for the application and renewal of registry
identification cards. Fee revenue may be offset or
supplemented by private donations;
(6) any other matters as are necessary for the fair,
impartial, stringent, and comprehensive administration of
this Act; and
(7) reasonable rules concerning the medical use of
cannabis at a nursing care institution, hospice, assisted
living center, assisted living facility, assisted living
home, residential care institution, or adult day health
care facility.
(c) The Department of Agriculture rules shall address, but
not be limited to the following related to registered
cultivation centers, with the goal of protecting against
diversion and theft, without imposing an undue burden on the
registered cultivation centers:

(1) oversight requirements for registered cultivation
centers;
(2) recordkeeping requirements for registered
cultivation centers;
(3) security requirements for registered cultivation
centers, which shall include that each registered
cultivation center location must be protected by a fully
operational security alarm system;
(4) rules and standards for what constitutes an
enclosed, locked facility under this Act;
(5) procedures for suspending or revoking the
registration certificates or registry identification cards
of registered cultivation centers and their agents that
commit violations of the provisions of this Act or the
rules adopted under this Section;
(6) rules concerning the intrastate transportation of
medical cannabis from a cultivation center to a dispensing
organization;
(7) standards concerning the testing, quality, and
cultivation of medical cannabis;
(8) any other matters as are necessary for the fair,
impartial, stringent, and comprehensive administration of
this Act;
(9) application and renewal fees for cultivation
center agents; and
(10) application, renewal, and registration fees for

cultivation centers.
(d) The Department of Financial and Professional
Regulation rules shall address, but not be limited to the
following matters related to registered dispensing
organizations, with the goal of protecting against diversion
and theft, without imposing an undue burden on the registered
dispensing organizations or compromising the confidentiality
of cardholders:
(1) application and renewal and registration fees for
dispensing organizations and dispensing organizations
agents;
(2) medical cannabis dispensing agent-in-charge
oversight requirements for dispensing organizations;
(3) recordkeeping requirements for dispensing
organizations;
(4) security requirements for medical cannabis
dispensing organizations, which shall include that each
registered dispensing organization location must be
protected by a fully operational security alarm system;
(5) procedures for suspending or suspending the
registrations of dispensing organizations and dispensing
organization agents that commit violations of the
provisions of this Act or the rules adopted under this Act;
(6) application and renewal fees for dispensing
organizations; and
(7) application and renewal fees for dispensing

organization agents.
(e) The Department of Public Health may establish a sliding
scale of patient application and renewal fees based upon a
qualifying patient's household income. The Department of
Public health may accept donations from private sources to
reduce application and renewal fees, and registry
identification card fees shall include an additional fee set by
rule which shall be used to develop and disseminate educational
information about the health risks associated with the abuse of
cannabis and prescription medications.
(f) During the rule-making process, each Department shall
make a good faith effort to consult with stakeholders
identified in the rule-making analysis as being impacted by the
rules, including patients or a representative of an
organization advocating on behalf of patients.
(g) The Department of Public Health shall develop and
disseminate educational information about the health risks
associated with the abuse of cannabis and prescription
medications.
Section 170. Enforcement of this Act.
(a) If a Department fails to adopt rules to implement this
Act within the times provided for in this Act, any citizen may
commence a mandamus action in the Circuit Court to compel the
Departments to perform the actions mandated under the
provisions of this Act.

(b) If the Department of Public Health, Department of
Agriculture, or Department of Financial and Professional
Regulation fails to issue a valid identification card in
response to a valid application or renewal submitted under this
Act or fails to issue a verbal or written notice of denial of
the application within 30 days of its submission, the
identification card is deemed granted, and a copy of the
registry identification application, including a valid written
certification in the case of patients, or renewal shall be
deemed a valid registry identification card.
(c) Authorized employees of State or local law enforcement
agencies shall immediately notify the Department of Public
Health when any person in possession of a registry
identification card has been determined by a court of law to
have willfully violated the provisions of this Act or has pled
guilty to the offense.
Section 175. Administrative hearings. All administrative
hearings under this Act shall be conducted in accordance with
the Department of Public Health's rules governing
administrative hearings.
Section 180. Destruction of medical cannabis.
(a) All cannabis byproduct, scrap, and harvested cannabis
not intended for distribution to a medical cannabis
organization must be destroyed and disposed of pursuant to

State law. Documentation of destruction and disposal shall be
retained at the cultivation center for a period of not less
than 5 years.
(b) A cultivation center shall prior to the destruction,
notify the Department of Agriculture and the State Police.
(c) The cultivation center shall keep record of the date of
destruction and how much was destroyed.
(d) A dispensary organization shall destroy all cannabis,
including cannabis-infused products, that are not sold to
registered qualifying patients. Documentation of destruction
and disposal shall be retained at the dispensary organization
for a period of not less than 5 years.
(e) A dispensary organization shall prior to the
destruction, notify the Department of Financial and
Professional Regulation and the State Police.
Section 185. Suspension revocation of a registration.
(a) The Department of Agriculture and the Department of
Public Health may suspend or revoke a registration for
violations of this Act and rules issued in accordance with this
Section.
(b) The suspension or revocation of a registration is a
final Department action, subject to judicial review.
Jurisdiction and venue for judicial review are vested in the
Circuit Court.

Section 190. Medical Cannabis Cultivation Privilege Tax
Law. Sections 190 through 215 may be cited as the Medical
Cannabis Cultivation Privilege Tax Law.
Section 195. Definitions. For the purposes of this Law:
"Cultivation center" has the meaning ascribed to that term
in the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act.
"Department" means the Department of Revenue.
"Dispensing organization" has the meaning ascribed to that
term in the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program
Act.
"Person" means an individual, partnership, corporation, or
public or private organization.
"Qualifying patient" means a qualifying patient registered
under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program
Act.
Section 200. Tax imposed.
(a) Beginning on the effective date of this Act, a tax is
imposed upon the privilege of cultivating medical cannabis at a
rate of 7% of the sales price per ounce. The proceeds from this
tax shall be deposited into the Compassionate Use of Medical
Cannabis Fund created under the Compassionate Use of Medical
Cannabis Pilot Program Act. This tax shall be paid by a
cultivation center and is not the responsibility of a
dispensing organization or a qualifying patient.

(b) The tax imposed under this Act shall be in addition to
all other occupation or privilege taxes imposed by the State of
Illinois or by any municipal corporation or political
subdivision thereof.
Section 205. Department enforcement.
(a) Every person subject to the tax under this Law shall
apply to the Department (upon a form prescribed and furnished
by the Department) for a certificate of registration under this
Law. Application for a certificate of registration shall be
made to the Department upon forms furnished by the Department.
The certificate of registration which is issued by the
Department to a retailer under the Retailers' Occupation Tax
Act shall permit the taxpayer to engage in a business which is
taxable under this Law without registering separately with the
Department.
(b) The Department shall have full power to administer and
enforce this Law, to collect all taxes and penalties due
hereunder, to dispose of taxes and penalties so collected in
the manner hereinafter provided, and to determine all rights to
credit memoranda, arising on account of the erroneous payment
of tax or penalty hereunder. In the administration of, and
compliance with, this Law, the Department and persons who are
subject to this Law shall have the same rights, remedies,
privileges, immunities, powers and duties, and be subject to
the same conditions, restrictions, limitations, penalties and

definitions of terms, and employ the same modes of procedure,
as are prescribed in Sections 1, 1a, 2 through 2-65 (in respect
to all provisions therein other than the State rate of tax),
2a, 2b, 2c, 3 (except provisions relating to transaction
returns and quarter monthly payments, and except for provisions
that are inconsistent with this Law), 4, 5, 5a, 5b, 5c, 5d, 5e,
5f, 5g, 5i, 5j, 6, 6a, 6b, 6c, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11, 11a, 12 and 13
of the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act and Section 3-7 of the
Uniform Penalty and Interest Act as fully as if those
provisions were set forth herein.
Section 210. Returns. On or before the twentieth day of
each calendar month, every person subject to the tax imposed
under this Law during the preceding calendar month shall file a
return with the Department, stating:
(1) The name of the taxpayer;
(2) The number of ounces of medical cannabis sold to a
dispensary organization or a registered qualifying patient
during the preceding calendar month;
(3) The amount of tax due;
(4) The signature of the taxpayer; and
(5) Such other reasonable information as the
Department may require.
If a taxpayer fails to sign a return within 30 days after
the proper notice and demand for signature by the Department,
the return shall be considered valid and any amount shown to be

due on the return shall be deemed assessed.
The taxpayer shall remit the amount of the tax due to the
Department at the time the taxpayer files his or her return.
Section 215. Rules. The Department may adopt rules related
to the enforcement of this Law.
Section 220. Repeal of Act. This Act is repealed 4 years
after the effective date of this Act.
Section 900. The Election Code is amended by adding Section
9-45 as follows:
(10 ILCS 5/9-45 new)
Sec. 9-45. Medical cannabis organization; contributions.
It is unlawful for any medical cannabis cultivation center or
medical cannabis dispensary organization or any political
action committee created by any medical cannabis cultivation
center or dispensary organization to make a campaign
contribution to any political committee established to promote
the candidacy of a candidate or public official. It is unlawful
for any candidate, political committee, or other person to
knowingly accept or receive any contribution prohibited by this
Section. It is unlawful for any officer or agent of a medical
cannabis cultivation center or dispensary organization to
consent to any contribution or expenditure by the medical

cannabis organization that is prohibited by this Section. As
used in this Section, "medical cannabis cultivation center" and
"dispensary organization" have the meaning ascribed to those
terms in Section 10 of the Compassionate Use of Medical
Cannabis Pilot Program Act.
Section 905. The State Finance Act is amended by adding
Section 5.826 as follows:
(30 ILCS 105/5.826 new)
Sec. 5.826. The Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Fund.
Section 910. The Illinois Income Tax Act is amended by
changing Section 201 as follows:
(35 ILCS 5/201) (from Ch. 120, par. 2-201)
Sec. 201. Tax Imposed.
(a) In general. A tax measured by net income is hereby
imposed on every individual, corporation, trust and estate for
each taxable year ending after July 31, 1969 on the privilege
of earning or receiving income in or as a resident of this
State. Such tax shall be in addition to all other occupation or
privilege taxes imposed by this State or by any municipal
corporation or political subdivision thereof.
(b) Rates. The tax imposed by subsection (a) of this
Section shall be determined as follows, except as adjusted by

subsection (d-1):
(1) In the case of an individual, trust or estate, for
taxable years ending prior to July 1, 1989, an amount equal
to 2 1/2% of the taxpayer's net income for the taxable
year.
(2) In the case of an individual, trust or estate, for
taxable years beginning prior to July 1, 1989 and ending
after June 30, 1989, an amount equal to the sum of (i) 2
1/2% of the taxpayer's net income for the period prior to
July 1, 1989, as calculated under Section 202.3, and (ii)
3% of the taxpayer's net income for the period after June
30, 1989, as calculated under Section 202.3.
(3) In the case of an individual, trust or estate, for
taxable years beginning after June 30, 1989, and ending
prior to January 1, 2011, an amount equal to 3% of the
taxpayer's net income for the taxable year.
(4) In the case of an individual, trust, or estate, for
taxable years beginning prior to January 1, 2011, and
ending after December 31, 2010, an amount equal to the sum
of (i) 3% of the taxpayer's net income for the period prior
to January 1, 2011, as calculated under Section 202.5, and
(ii) 5% of the taxpayer's net income for the period after
December 31, 2010, as calculated under Section 202.5.
(5) In the case of an individual, trust, or estate, for
taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2011, and
ending prior to January 1, 2015, an amount equal to 5% of

the taxpayer's net income for the taxable year.
(5.1) In the case of an individual, trust, or estate,
for taxable years beginning prior to January 1, 2015, and
ending after December 31, 2014, an amount equal to the sum
of (i) 5% of the taxpayer's net income for the period prior
to January 1, 2015, as calculated under Section 202.5, and
(ii) 3.75% of the taxpayer's net income for the period
after December 31, 2014, as calculated under Section 202.5.
(5.2) In the case of an individual, trust, or estate,
for taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2015,
and ending prior to January 1, 2025, an amount equal to
3.75% of the taxpayer's net income for the taxable year.
(5.3) In the case of an individual, trust, or estate,
for taxable years beginning prior to January 1, 2025, and
ending after December 31, 2024, an amount equal to the sum
of (i) 3.75% of the taxpayer's net income for the period
prior to January 1, 2025, as calculated under Section
202.5, and (ii) 3.25% of the taxpayer's net income for the
period after December 31, 2024, as calculated under Section
202.5.
(5.4) In the case of an individual, trust, or estate,
for taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2025, an
amount equal to 3.25% of the taxpayer's net income for the
taxable year.
(6) In the case of a corporation, for taxable years
ending prior to July 1, 1989, an amount equal to 4% of the

taxpayer's net income for the taxable year.
(7) In the case of a corporation, for taxable years
beginning prior to July 1, 1989 and ending after June 30,
1989, an amount equal to the sum of (i) 4% of the
taxpayer's net income for the period prior to July 1, 1989,
as calculated under Section 202.3, and (ii) 4.8% of the
taxpayer's net income for the period after June 30, 1989,
as calculated under Section 202.3.
(8) In the case of a corporation, for taxable years
beginning after June 30, 1989, and ending prior to January
1, 2011, an amount equal to 4.8% of the taxpayer's net
income for the taxable year.
(9) In the case of a corporation, for taxable years
beginning prior to January 1, 2011, and ending after
December 31, 2010, an amount equal to the sum of (i) 4.8%
of the taxpayer's net income for the period prior to
January 1, 2011, as calculated under Section 202.5, and
(ii) 7% of the taxpayer's net income for the period after
December 31, 2010, as calculated under Section 202.5.
(10) In the case of a corporation, for taxable years
beginning on or after January 1, 2011, and ending prior to
January 1, 2015, an amount equal to 7% of the taxpayer's
net income for the taxable year.
(11) In the case of a corporation, for taxable years
beginning prior to January 1, 2015, and ending after
December 31, 2014, an amount equal to the sum of (i) 7% of

the taxpayer's net income for the period prior to January
1, 2015, as calculated under Section 202.5, and (ii) 5.25%
of the taxpayer's net income for the period after December
31, 2014, as calculated under Section 202.5.
(12) In the case of a corporation, for taxable years
beginning on or after January 1, 2015, and ending prior to
January 1, 2025, an amount equal to 5.25% of the taxpayer's
net income for the taxable year.
(13) In the case of a corporation, for taxable years
beginning prior to January 1, 2025, and ending after
December 31, 2024, an amount equal to the sum of (i) 5.25%
of the taxpayer's net income for the period prior to
January 1, 2025, as calculated under Section 202.5, and
(ii) 4.8% of the taxpayer's net income for the period after
December 31, 2024, as calculated under Section 202.5.
(14) In the case of a corporation, for taxable years
beginning on or after January 1, 2025, an amount equal to
4.8% of the taxpayer's net income for the taxable year.
The rates under this subsection (b) are subject to the
provisions of Section 201.5.
(c) Personal Property Tax Replacement Income Tax.
Beginning on July 1, 1979 and thereafter, in addition to such
income tax, there is also hereby imposed the Personal Property
Tax Replacement Income Tax measured by net income on every
corporation (including Subchapter S corporations), partnership
and trust, for each taxable year ending after June 30, 1979.

Such taxes are imposed on the privilege of earning or receiving
income in or as a resident of this State. The Personal Property
Tax Replacement Income Tax shall be in addition to the income
tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of this Section and in
addition to all other occupation or privilege taxes imposed by
this State or by any municipal corporation or political
subdivision thereof.
(d) Additional Personal Property Tax Replacement Income
Tax Rates. The personal property tax replacement income tax
imposed by this subsection and subsection (c) of this Section
in the case of a corporation, other than a Subchapter S
corporation and except as adjusted by subsection (d-1), shall
be an additional amount equal to 2.85% of such taxpayer's net
income for the taxable year, except that beginning on January
1, 1981, and thereafter, the rate of 2.85% specified in this
subsection shall be reduced to 2.5%, and in the case of a
partnership, trust or a Subchapter S corporation shall be an
additional amount equal to 1.5% of such taxpayer's net income
for the taxable year.
(d-1) Rate reduction for certain foreign insurers. In the
case of a foreign insurer, as defined by Section 35A-5 of the
Illinois Insurance Code, whose state or country of domicile
imposes on insurers domiciled in Illinois a retaliatory tax
(excluding any insurer whose premiums from reinsurance assumed
are 50% or more of its total insurance premiums as determined
under paragraph (2) of subsection (b) of Section 304, except

that for purposes of this determination premiums from
reinsurance do not include premiums from inter-affiliate
reinsurance arrangements), beginning with taxable years ending
on or after December 31, 1999, the sum of the rates of tax
imposed by subsections (b) and (d) shall be reduced (but not
increased) to the rate at which the total amount of tax imposed
under this Act, net of all credits allowed under this Act,
shall equal (i) the total amount of tax that would be imposed
on the foreign insurer's net income allocable to Illinois for
the taxable year by such foreign insurer's state or country of
domicile if that net income were subject to all income taxes
and taxes measured by net income imposed by such foreign
insurer's state or country of domicile, net of all credits
allowed or (ii) a rate of zero if no such tax is imposed on such
income by the foreign insurer's state of domicile. For the
purposes of this subsection (d-1), an inter-affiliate includes
a mutual insurer under common management.
(1) For the purposes of subsection (d-1), in no event
shall the sum of the rates of tax imposed by subsections
(b) and (d) be reduced below the rate at which the sum of:
(A) the total amount of tax imposed on such foreign
insurer under this Act for a taxable year, net of all
credits allowed under this Act, plus
(B) the privilege tax imposed by Section 409 of the
Illinois Insurance Code, the fire insurance company
tax imposed by Section 12 of the Fire Investigation

Act, and the fire department taxes imposed under
Section 11-10-1 of the Illinois Municipal Code,
equals 1.25% for taxable years ending prior to December 31,
2003, or 1.75% for taxable years ending on or after
December 31, 2003, of the net taxable premiums written for
the taxable year, as described by subsection (1) of Section
409 of the Illinois Insurance Code. This paragraph will in
no event increase the rates imposed under subsections (b)
and (d).
(2) Any reduction in the rates of tax imposed by this
subsection shall be applied first against the rates imposed
by subsection (b) and only after the tax imposed by
subsection (a) net of all credits allowed under this
Section other than the credit allowed under subsection (i)
has been reduced to zero, against the rates imposed by
subsection (d).
This subsection (d-1) is exempt from the provisions of
Section 250.
(e) Investment credit. A taxpayer shall be allowed a credit
against the Personal Property Tax Replacement Income Tax for
investment in qualified property.
(1) A taxpayer shall be allowed a credit equal to .5%
of the basis of qualified property placed in service during
the taxable year, provided such property is placed in
service on or after July 1, 1984. There shall be allowed an
additional credit equal to .5% of the basis of qualified

property placed in service during the taxable year,
provided such property is placed in service on or after
July 1, 1986, and the taxpayer's base employment within
Illinois has increased by 1% or more over the preceding
year as determined by the taxpayer's employment records
filed with the Illinois Department of Employment Security.
Taxpayers who are new to Illinois shall be deemed to have
met the 1% growth in base employment for the first year in
which they file employment records with the Illinois
Department of Employment Security. The provisions added to
this Section by Public Act 85-1200 (and restored by Public
Act 87-895) shall be construed as declaratory of existing
law and not as a new enactment. If, in any year, the
increase in base employment within Illinois over the
preceding year is less than 1%, the additional credit shall
be limited to that percentage times a fraction, the
numerator of which is .5% and the denominator of which is
1%, but shall not exceed .5%. The investment credit shall
not be allowed to the extent that it would reduce a
taxpayer's liability in any tax year below zero, nor may
any credit for qualified property be allowed for any year
other than the year in which the property was placed in
service in Illinois. For tax years ending on or after
December 31, 1987, and on or before December 31, 1988, the
credit shall be allowed for the tax year in which the
property is placed in service, or, if the amount of the

credit exceeds the tax liability for that year, whether it
exceeds the original liability or the liability as later
amended, such excess may be carried forward and applied to
the tax liability of the 5 taxable years following the
excess credit years if the taxpayer (i) makes investments
which cause the creation of a minimum of 2,000 full-time
equivalent jobs in Illinois, (ii) is located in an
enterprise zone established pursuant to the Illinois
Enterprise Zone Act and (iii) is certified by the
Department of Commerce and Community Affairs (now
Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity) as
complying with the requirements specified in clause (i) and
(ii) by July 1, 1986. The Department of Commerce and
Community Affairs (now Department of Commerce and Economic
Opportunity) shall notify the Department of Revenue of all
such certifications immediately. For tax years ending
after December 31, 1988, the credit shall be allowed for
the tax year in which the property is placed in service,
or, if the amount of the credit exceeds the tax liability
for that year, whether it exceeds the original liability or
the liability as later amended, such excess may be carried
forward and applied to the tax liability of the 5 taxable
years following the excess credit years. The credit shall
be applied to the earliest year for which there is a
liability. If there is credit from more than one tax year
that is available to offset a liability, earlier credit

shall be applied first.
(2) The term "qualified property" means property
which:
(A) is tangible, whether new or used, including
buildings and structural components of buildings and
signs that are real property, but not including land or
improvements to real property that are not a structural
component of a building such as landscaping, sewer
lines, local access roads, fencing, parking lots, and
other appurtenances;
(B) is depreciable pursuant to Section 167 of the
Internal Revenue Code, except that "3-year property"
as defined in Section 168(c)(2)(A) of that Code is not
eligible for the credit provided by this subsection
(e);
(C) is acquired by purchase as defined in Section
179(d) of the Internal Revenue Code;
(D) is used in Illinois by a taxpayer who is
primarily engaged in manufacturing, or in mining coal
or fluorite, or in retailing, or was placed in service
on or after July 1, 2006 in a River Edge Redevelopment
Zone established pursuant to the River Edge
Redevelopment Zone Act; and
(E) has not previously been used in Illinois in
such a manner and by such a person as would qualify for
the credit provided by this subsection (e) or

subsection (f).
(3) For purposes of this subsection (e),
"manufacturing" means the material staging and production
of tangible personal property by procedures commonly
regarded as manufacturing, processing, fabrication, or
assembling which changes some existing material into new
shapes, new qualities, or new combinations. For purposes of
this subsection (e) the term "mining" shall have the same
meaning as the term "mining" in Section 613(c) of the
Internal Revenue Code. For purposes of this subsection (e),
the term "retailing" means the sale of tangible personal
property for use or consumption and not for resale, or
services rendered in conjunction with the sale of tangible
personal property for use or consumption and not for
resale. For purposes of this subsection (e), "tangible
personal property" has the same meaning as when that term
is used in the Retailers' Occupation Tax Act, and, for
taxable years ending after December 31, 2008, does not
include the generation, transmission, or distribution of
electricity.
(4) The basis of qualified property shall be the basis
used to compute the depreciation deduction for federal
income tax purposes.
(5) If the basis of the property for federal income tax
depreciation purposes is increased after it has been placed
in service in Illinois by the taxpayer, the amount of such

increase shall be deemed property placed in service on the
date of such increase in basis.
(6) The term "placed in service" shall have the same
meaning as under Section 46 of the Internal Revenue Code.
(7) If during any taxable year, any property ceases to
be qualified property in the hands of the taxpayer within
48 months after being placed in service, or the situs of
any qualified property is moved outside Illinois within 48
months after being placed in service, the Personal Property
Tax Replacement Income Tax for such taxable year shall be
increased. Such increase shall be determined by (i)
recomputing the investment credit which would have been
allowed for the year in which credit for such property was
originally allowed by eliminating such property from such
computation and, (ii) subtracting such recomputed credit
from the amount of credit previously allowed. For the
purposes of this paragraph (7), a reduction of the basis of
qualified property resulting from a redetermination of the
purchase price shall be deemed a disposition of qualified
property to the extent of such reduction.
(8) Unless the investment credit is extended by law,
the basis of qualified property shall not include costs
incurred after December 31, 2018, except for costs incurred
pursuant to a binding contract entered into on or before
December 31, 2018.
(9) Each taxable year ending before December 31, 2000,

a partnership may elect to pass through to its partners the
credits to which the partnership is entitled under this
subsection (e) for the taxable year. A partner may use the
credit allocated to him or her under this paragraph only
against the tax imposed in subsections (c) and (d) of this
Section. If the partnership makes that election, those
credits shall be allocated among the partners in the
partnership in accordance with the rules set forth in
Section 704(b) of the Internal Revenue Code, and the rules
promulgated under that Section, and the allocated amount of
the credits shall be allowed to the partners for that
taxable year. The partnership shall make this election on
its Personal Property Tax Replacement Income Tax return for
that taxable year. The election to pass through the credits
shall be irrevocable.
For taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2000,
a partner that qualifies its partnership for a subtraction
under subparagraph (I) of paragraph (2) of subsection (d)
of Section 203 or a shareholder that qualifies a Subchapter
S corporation for a subtraction under subparagraph (S) of
paragraph (2) of subsection (b) of Section 203 shall be
allowed a credit under this subsection (e) equal to its
share of the credit earned under this subsection (e) during
the taxable year by the partnership or Subchapter S
corporation, determined in accordance with the
determination of income and distributive share of income

under Sections 702 and 704 and Subchapter S of the Internal
Revenue Code. This paragraph is exempt from the provisions
of Section 250.
(f) Investment credit; Enterprise Zone; River Edge
Redevelopment Zone.
(1) A taxpayer shall be allowed a credit against the
tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of this Section for
investment in qualified property which is placed in service
in an Enterprise Zone created pursuant to the Illinois
Enterprise Zone Act or, for property placed in service on
or after July 1, 2006, a River Edge Redevelopment Zone
established pursuant to the River Edge Redevelopment Zone
Act. For partners, shareholders of Subchapter S
corporations, and owners of limited liability companies,
if the liability company is treated as a partnership for
purposes of federal and State income taxation, there shall
be allowed a credit under this subsection (f) to be
determined in accordance with the determination of income
and distributive share of income under Sections 702 and 704
and Subchapter S of the Internal Revenue Code. The credit
shall be .5% of the basis for such property. The credit
shall be available only in the taxable year in which the
property is placed in service in the Enterprise Zone or
River Edge Redevelopment Zone and shall not be allowed to
the extent that it would reduce a taxpayer's liability for
the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of this Section

to below zero. For tax years ending on or after December
31, 1985, the credit shall be allowed for the tax year in
which the property is placed in service, or, if the amount
of the credit exceeds the tax liability for that year,
whether it exceeds the original liability or the liability
as later amended, such excess may be carried forward and
applied to the tax liability of the 5 taxable years
following the excess credit year. The credit shall be
applied to the earliest year for which there is a
liability. If there is credit from more than one tax year
that is available to offset a liability, the credit
accruing first in time shall be applied first.
(2) The term qualified property means property which:
(A) is tangible, whether new or used, including
buildings and structural components of buildings;
(B) is depreciable pursuant to Section 167 of the
Internal Revenue Code, except that "3-year property"
as defined in Section 168(c)(2)(A) of that Code is not
eligible for the credit provided by this subsection
(f);
(C) is acquired by purchase as defined in Section
179(d) of the Internal Revenue Code;
(D) is used in the Enterprise Zone or River Edge
Redevelopment Zone by the taxpayer; and
(E) has not been previously used in Illinois in
such a manner and by such a person as would qualify for

the credit provided by this subsection (f) or
subsection (e).
(3) The basis of qualified property shall be the basis
used to compute the depreciation deduction for federal
income tax purposes.
(4) If the basis of the property for federal income tax
depreciation purposes is increased after it has been placed
in service in the Enterprise Zone or River Edge
Redevelopment Zone by the taxpayer, the amount of such
increase shall be deemed property placed in service on the
date of such increase in basis.
(5) The term "placed in service" shall have the same
meaning as under Section 46 of the Internal Revenue Code.
(6) If during any taxable year, any property ceases to
be qualified property in the hands of the taxpayer within
48 months after being placed in service, or the situs of
any qualified property is moved outside the Enterprise Zone
or River Edge Redevelopment Zone within 48 months after
being placed in service, the tax imposed under subsections
(a) and (b) of this Section for such taxable year shall be
increased. Such increase shall be determined by (i)
recomputing the investment credit which would have been
allowed for the year in which credit for such property was
originally allowed by eliminating such property from such
computation, and (ii) subtracting such recomputed credit
from the amount of credit previously allowed. For the

purposes of this paragraph (6), a reduction of the basis of
qualified property resulting from a redetermination of the
purchase price shall be deemed a disposition of qualified
property to the extent of such reduction.
(7) There shall be allowed an additional credit equal
to 0.5% of the basis of qualified property placed in
service during the taxable year in a River Edge
Redevelopment Zone, provided such property is placed in
service on or after July 1, 2006, and the taxpayer's base
employment within Illinois has increased by 1% or more over
the preceding year as determined by the taxpayer's
employment records filed with the Illinois Department of
Employment Security. Taxpayers who are new to Illinois
shall be deemed to have met the 1% growth in base
employment for the first year in which they file employment
records with the Illinois Department of Employment
Security. If, in any year, the increase in base employment
within Illinois over the preceding year is less than 1%,
the additional credit shall be limited to that percentage
times a fraction, the numerator of which is 0.5% and the
denominator of which is 1%, but shall not exceed 0.5%.
(g) Jobs Tax Credit; River Edge Redevelopment Zone and
Foreign Trade Zone or Sub-Zone.
(1) A taxpayer conducting a trade or business, for
taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2006, in a
River Edge Redevelopment Zone or conducting a trade or

business in a federally designated Foreign Trade Zone or
Sub-Zone shall be allowed a credit against the tax imposed
by subsections (a) and (b) of this Section in the amount of
$500 per eligible employee hired to work in the zone during
the taxable year.
(2) To qualify for the credit:
(A) the taxpayer must hire 5 or more eligible
employees to work in a River Edge Redevelopment Zone or
federally designated Foreign Trade Zone or Sub-Zone
during the taxable year;
(B) the taxpayer's total employment within the
River Edge Redevelopment Zone or federally designated
Foreign Trade Zone or Sub-Zone must increase by 5 or
more full-time employees beyond the total employed in
that zone at the end of the previous tax year for which
a jobs tax credit under this Section was taken, or
beyond the total employed by the taxpayer as of
December 31, 1985, whichever is later; and
(C) the eligible employees must be employed 180
consecutive days in order to be deemed hired for
purposes of this subsection.
(3) An "eligible employee" means an employee who is:
(A) Certified by the Department of Commerce and
Economic Opportunity as "eligible for services"
pursuant to regulations promulgated in accordance with
Title II of the Job Training Partnership Act, Training

Services for the Disadvantaged or Title III of the Job
Training Partnership Act, Employment and Training
Assistance for Dislocated Workers Program.
(B) Hired after the River Edge Redevelopment Zone
or federally designated Foreign Trade Zone or Sub-Zone
was designated or the trade or business was located in
that zone, whichever is later.
(C) Employed in the River Edge Redevelopment Zone
or Foreign Trade Zone or Sub-Zone. An employee is
employed in a federally designated Foreign Trade Zone
or Sub-Zone if his services are rendered there or it is
the base of operations for the services performed.
(D) A full-time employee working 30 or more hours
per week.
(4) For tax years ending on or after December 31, 1985
and prior to December 31, 1988, the credit shall be allowed
for the tax year in which the eligible employees are hired.
For tax years ending on or after December 31, 1988, the
credit shall be allowed for the tax year immediately
following the tax year in which the eligible employees are
hired. If the amount of the credit exceeds the tax
liability for that year, whether it exceeds the original
liability or the liability as later amended, such excess
may be carried forward and applied to the tax liability of
the 5 taxable years following the excess credit year. The
credit shall be applied to the earliest year for which

there is a liability. If there is credit from more than one
tax year that is available to offset a liability, earlier
credit shall be applied first.
(5) The Department of Revenue shall promulgate such
rules and regulations as may be deemed necessary to carry
out the purposes of this subsection (g).
(6) The credit shall be available for eligible
employees hired on or after January 1, 1986.
(h) Investment credit; High Impact Business.
(1) Subject to subsections (b) and (b-5) of Section 5.5
of the Illinois Enterprise Zone Act, a taxpayer shall be
allowed a credit against the tax imposed by subsections (a)
and (b) of this Section for investment in qualified
property which is placed in service by a Department of
Commerce and Economic Opportunity designated High Impact
Business. The credit shall be .5% of the basis for such
property. The credit shall not be available (i) until the
minimum investments in qualified property set forth in
subdivision (a)(3)(A) of Section 5.5 of the Illinois
Enterprise Zone Act have been satisfied or (ii) until the
time authorized in subsection (b-5) of the Illinois
Enterprise Zone Act for entities designated as High Impact
Businesses under subdivisions (a)(3)(B), (a)(3)(C), and
(a)(3)(D) of Section 5.5 of the Illinois Enterprise Zone
Act, and shall not be allowed to the extent that it would
reduce a taxpayer's liability for the tax imposed by

subsections (a) and (b) of this Section to below zero. The
credit applicable to such investments shall be taken in the
taxable year in which such investments have been completed.
The credit for additional investments beyond the minimum
investment by a designated high impact business authorized
under subdivision (a)(3)(A) of Section 5.5 of the Illinois
Enterprise Zone Act shall be available only in the taxable
year in which the property is placed in service and shall
not be allowed to the extent that it would reduce a
taxpayer's liability for the tax imposed by subsections (a)
and (b) of this Section to below zero. For tax years ending
on or after December 31, 1987, the credit shall be allowed
for the tax year in which the property is placed in
service, or, if the amount of the credit exceeds the tax
liability for that year, whether it exceeds the original
liability or the liability as later amended, such excess
may be carried forward and applied to the tax liability of
the 5 taxable years following the excess credit year. The
credit shall be applied to the earliest year for which
there is a liability. If there is credit from more than one
tax year that is available to offset a liability, the
credit accruing first in time shall be applied first.
Changes made in this subdivision (h)(1) by Public Act
88-670 restore changes made by Public Act 85-1182 and
reflect existing law.
(2) The term qualified property means property which:

(A) is tangible, whether new or used, including
buildings and structural components of buildings;
(B) is depreciable pursuant to Section 167 of the
Internal Revenue Code, except that "3-year property"
as defined in Section 168(c)(2)(A) of that Code is not
eligible for the credit provided by this subsection
(h);
(C) is acquired by purchase as defined in Section
179(d) of the Internal Revenue Code; and
(D) is not eligible for the Enterprise Zone
Investment Credit provided by subsection (f) of this
Section.
(3) The basis of qualified property shall be the basis
used to compute the depreciation deduction for federal
income tax purposes.
(4) If the basis of the property for federal income tax
depreciation purposes is increased after it has been placed
in service in a federally designated Foreign Trade Zone or
Sub-Zone located in Illinois by the taxpayer, the amount of
such increase shall be deemed property placed in service on
the date of such increase in basis.
(5) The term "placed in service" shall have the same
meaning as under Section 46 of the Internal Revenue Code.
(6) If during any taxable year ending on or before
December 31, 1996, any property ceases to be qualified
property in the hands of the taxpayer within 48 months

after being placed in service, or the situs of any
qualified property is moved outside Illinois within 48
months after being placed in service, the tax imposed under
subsections (a) and (b) of this Section for such taxable
year shall be increased. Such increase shall be determined
by (i) recomputing the investment credit which would have
been allowed for the year in which credit for such property
was originally allowed by eliminating such property from
such computation, and (ii) subtracting such recomputed
credit from the amount of credit previously allowed. For
the purposes of this paragraph (6), a reduction of the
basis of qualified property resulting from a
redetermination of the purchase price shall be deemed a
disposition of qualified property to the extent of such
reduction.
(7) Beginning with tax years ending after December 31,
1996, if a taxpayer qualifies for the credit under this
subsection (h) and thereby is granted a tax abatement and
the taxpayer relocates its entire facility in violation of
the explicit terms and length of the contract under Section
18-183 of the Property Tax Code, the tax imposed under
subsections (a) and (b) of this Section shall be increased
for the taxable year in which the taxpayer relocated its
facility by an amount equal to the amount of credit
received by the taxpayer under this subsection (h).
(i) Credit for Personal Property Tax Replacement Income

Tax. For tax years ending prior to December 31, 2003, a credit
shall be allowed against the tax imposed by subsections (a) and
(b) of this Section for the tax imposed by subsections (c) and
(d) of this Section. This credit shall be computed by
multiplying the tax imposed by subsections (c) and (d) of this
Section by a fraction, the numerator of which is base income
allocable to Illinois and the denominator of which is Illinois
base income, and further multiplying the product by the tax
rate imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of this Section.
Any credit earned on or after December 31, 1986 under this
subsection which is unused in the year the credit is computed
because it exceeds the tax liability imposed by subsections (a)
and (b) for that year (whether it exceeds the original
liability or the liability as later amended) may be carried
forward and applied to the tax liability imposed by subsections
(a) and (b) of the 5 taxable years following the excess credit
year, provided that no credit may be carried forward to any
year ending on or after December 31, 2003. This credit shall be
applied first to the earliest year for which there is a
liability. If there is a credit under this subsection from more
than one tax year that is available to offset a liability the
earliest credit arising under this subsection shall be applied
first.
If, during any taxable year ending on or after December 31,
1986, the tax imposed by subsections (c) and (d) of this
Section for which a taxpayer has claimed a credit under this

subsection (i) is reduced, the amount of credit for such tax
shall also be reduced. Such reduction shall be determined by
recomputing the credit to take into account the reduced tax
imposed by subsections (c) and (d). If any portion of the
reduced amount of credit has been carried to a different
taxable year, an amended return shall be filed for such taxable
year to reduce the amount of credit claimed.
(j) Training expense credit. Beginning with tax years
ending on or after December 31, 1986 and prior to December 31,
2003, a taxpayer shall be allowed a credit against the tax
imposed by subsections (a) and (b) under this Section for all
amounts paid or accrued, on behalf of all persons employed by
the taxpayer in Illinois or Illinois residents employed outside
of Illinois by a taxpayer, for educational or vocational
training in semi-technical or technical fields or semi-skilled
or skilled fields, which were deducted from gross income in the
computation of taxable income. The credit against the tax
imposed by subsections (a) and (b) shall be 1.6% of such
training expenses. For partners, shareholders of subchapter S
corporations, and owners of limited liability companies, if the
liability company is treated as a partnership for purposes of
federal and State income taxation, there shall be allowed a
credit under this subsection (j) to be determined in accordance
with the determination of income and distributive share of
income under Sections 702 and 704 and subchapter S of the
Internal Revenue Code.

Any credit allowed under this subsection which is unused in
the year the credit is earned may be carried forward to each of
the 5 taxable years following the year for which the credit is
first computed until it is used. This credit shall be applied
first to the earliest year for which there is a liability. If
there is a credit under this subsection from more than one tax
year that is available to offset a liability the earliest
credit arising under this subsection shall be applied first. No
carryforward credit may be claimed in any tax year ending on or
after December 31, 2003.
(k) Research and development credit. For tax years ending
after July 1, 1990 and prior to December 31, 2003, and
beginning again for tax years ending on or after December 31,
2004, and ending prior to January 1, 2016, a taxpayer shall be
allowed a credit against the tax imposed by subsections (a) and
(b) of this Section for increasing research activities in this
State. The credit allowed against the tax imposed by
subsections (a) and (b) shall be equal to 6 1/2% of the
qualifying expenditures for increasing research activities in
this State. For partners, shareholders of subchapter S
corporations, and owners of limited liability companies, if the
liability company is treated as a partnership for purposes of
federal and State income taxation, there shall be allowed a
credit under this subsection to be determined in accordance
with the determination of income and distributive share of
income under Sections 702 and 704 and subchapter S of the

Internal Revenue Code.
For purposes of this subsection, "qualifying expenditures"
means the qualifying expenditures as defined for the federal
credit for increasing research activities which would be
allowable under Section 41 of the Internal Revenue Code and
which are conducted in this State, "qualifying expenditures for
increasing research activities in this State" means the excess
of qualifying expenditures for the taxable year in which
incurred over qualifying expenditures for the base period,
"qualifying expenditures for the base period" means the average
of the qualifying expenditures for each year in the base
period, and "base period" means the 3 taxable years immediately
preceding the taxable year for which the determination is being
made.
Any credit in excess of the tax liability for the taxable
year may be carried forward. A taxpayer may elect to have the
unused credit shown on its final completed return carried over
as a credit against the tax liability for the following 5
taxable years or until it has been fully used, whichever occurs
first; provided that no credit earned in a tax year ending
prior to December 31, 2003 may be carried forward to any year
ending on or after December 31, 2003.
If an unused credit is carried forward to a given year from
2 or more earlier years, that credit arising in the earliest
year will be applied first against the tax liability for the
given year. If a tax liability for the given year still

remains, the credit from the next earliest year will then be
applied, and so on, until all credits have been used or no tax
liability for the given year remains. Any remaining unused
credit or credits then will be carried forward to the next
following year in which a tax liability is incurred, except
that no credit can be carried forward to a year which is more
than 5 years after the year in which the expense for which the
credit is given was incurred.
No inference shall be drawn from this amendatory Act of the
91st General Assembly in construing this Section for taxable
years beginning before January 1, 1999.
(l) Environmental Remediation Tax Credit.
(i) For tax years ending after December 31, 1997 and on
or before December 31, 2001, a taxpayer shall be allowed a
credit against the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b)
of this Section for certain amounts paid for unreimbursed
eligible remediation costs, as specified in this
subsection. For purposes of this Section, "unreimbursed
eligible remediation costs" means costs approved by the
Illinois Environmental Protection Agency ("Agency") under
Section 58.14 of the Environmental Protection Act that were
paid in performing environmental remediation at a site for
which a No Further Remediation Letter was issued by the
Agency and recorded under Section 58.10 of the
Environmental Protection Act. The credit must be claimed
for the taxable year in which Agency approval of the

eligible remediation costs is granted. The credit is not
available to any taxpayer if the taxpayer or any related
party caused or contributed to, in any material respect, a
release of regulated substances on, in, or under the site
that was identified and addressed by the remedial action
pursuant to the Site Remediation Program of the
Environmental Protection Act. After the Pollution Control
Board rules are adopted pursuant to the Illinois
Administrative Procedure Act for the administration and
enforcement of Section 58.9 of the Environmental
Protection Act, determinations as to credit availability
for purposes of this Section shall be made consistent with
those rules. For purposes of this Section, "taxpayer"
includes a person whose tax attributes the taxpayer has
succeeded to under Section 381 of the Internal Revenue Code
and "related party" includes the persons disallowed a
deduction for losses by paragraphs (b), (c), and (f)(1) of
Section 267 of the Internal Revenue Code by virtue of being
a related taxpayer, as well as any of its partners. The
credit allowed against the tax imposed by subsections (a)
and (b) shall be equal to 25% of the unreimbursed eligible
remediation costs in excess of $100,000 per site, except
that the $100,000 threshold shall not apply to any site
contained in an enterprise zone as determined by the
Department of Commerce and Community Affairs (now
Department of Commerce and Economic Opportunity). The

total credit allowed shall not exceed $40,000 per year with
a maximum total of $150,000 per site. For partners and
shareholders of subchapter S corporations, there shall be
allowed a credit under this subsection to be determined in
accordance with the determination of income and
distributive share of income under Sections 702 and 704 and
subchapter S of the Internal Revenue Code.
(ii) A credit allowed under this subsection that is
unused in the year the credit is earned may be carried
forward to each of the 5 taxable years following the year
for which the credit is first earned until it is used. The
term "unused credit" does not include any amounts of
unreimbursed eligible remediation costs in excess of the
maximum credit per site authorized under paragraph (i).
This credit shall be applied first to the earliest year for
which there is a liability. If there is a credit under this
subsection from more than one tax year that is available to
offset a liability, the earliest credit arising under this
subsection shall be applied first. A credit allowed under
this subsection may be sold to a buyer as part of a sale of
all or part of the remediation site for which the credit
was granted. The purchaser of a remediation site and the
tax credit shall succeed to the unused credit and remaining
carry-forward period of the seller. To perfect the
transfer, the assignor shall record the transfer in the
chain of title for the site and provide written notice to

the Director of the Illinois Department of Revenue of the
assignor's intent to sell the remediation site and the
amount of the tax credit to be transferred as a portion of
the sale. In no event may a credit be transferred to any
taxpayer if the taxpayer or a related party would not be
eligible under the provisions of subsection (i).
(iii) For purposes of this Section, the term "site"
shall have the same meaning as under Section 58.2 of the
Environmental Protection Act.
(m) Education expense credit. Beginning with tax years
ending after December 31, 1999, a taxpayer who is the custodian
of one or more qualifying pupils shall be allowed a credit
against the tax imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of this
Section for qualified education expenses incurred on behalf of
the qualifying pupils. The credit shall be equal to 25% of
qualified education expenses, but in no event may the total
credit under this subsection claimed by a family that is the
custodian of qualifying pupils exceed $500. In no event shall a
credit under this subsection reduce the taxpayer's liability
under this Act to less than zero. This subsection is exempt
from the provisions of Section 250 of this Act.
For purposes of this subsection:
"Qualifying pupils" means individuals who (i) are
residents of the State of Illinois, (ii) are under the age of
21 at the close of the school year for which a credit is
sought, and (iii) during the school year for which a credit is

sought were full-time pupils enrolled in a kindergarten through
twelfth grade education program at any school, as defined in
this subsection.
"Qualified education expense" means the amount incurred on
behalf of a qualifying pupil in excess of $250 for tuition,
book fees, and lab fees at the school in which the pupil is
enrolled during the regular school year.
"School" means any public or nonpublic elementary or
secondary school in Illinois that is in compliance with Title
VI of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 and attendance at which
satisfies the requirements of Section 26-1 of the School Code,
except that nothing shall be construed to require a child to
attend any particular public or nonpublic school to qualify for
the credit under this Section.
"Custodian" means, with respect to qualifying pupils, an
Illinois resident who is a parent, the parents, a legal
guardian, or the legal guardians of the qualifying pupils.
(n) River Edge Redevelopment Zone site remediation tax
credit.
(i) For tax years ending on or after December 31, 2006,
a taxpayer shall be allowed a credit against the tax
imposed by subsections (a) and (b) of this Section for
certain amounts paid for unreimbursed eligible remediation
costs, as specified in this subsection. For purposes of
this Section, "unreimbursed eligible remediation costs"
means costs approved by the Illinois Environmental

Protection Agency ("Agency") under Section 58.14a of the
Environmental Protection Act that were paid in performing
environmental remediation at a site within a River Edge
Redevelopment Zone for which a No Further Remediation
Letter was issued by the Agency and recorded under Section
58.10 of the Environmental Protection Act. The credit must
be claimed for the taxable year in which Agency approval of
the eligible remediation costs is granted. The credit is
not available to any taxpayer if the taxpayer or any
related party caused or contributed to, in any material
respect, a release of regulated substances on, in, or under
the site that was identified and addressed by the remedial
action pursuant to the Site Remediation Program of the
Environmental Protection Act. Determinations as to credit
availability for purposes of this Section shall be made
consistent with rules adopted by the Pollution Control
Board pursuant to the Illinois Administrative Procedure
Act for the administration and enforcement of Section 58.9
of the Environmental Protection Act. For purposes of this
Section, "taxpayer" includes a person whose tax attributes
the taxpayer has succeeded to under Section 381 of the
Internal Revenue Code and "related party" includes the
persons disallowed a deduction for losses by paragraphs
(b), (c), and (f)(1) of Section 267 of the Internal Revenue
Code by virtue of being a related taxpayer, as well as any
of its partners. The credit allowed against the tax imposed

by subsections (a) and (b) shall be equal to 25% of the
unreimbursed eligible remediation costs in excess of
$100,000 per site.
(ii) A credit allowed under this subsection that is
unused in the year the credit is earned may be carried
forward to each of the 5 taxable years following the year
for which the credit is first earned until it is used. This
credit shall be applied first to the earliest year for
which there is a liability. If there is a credit under this
subsection from more than one tax year that is available to
offset a liability, the earliest credit arising under this
subsection shall be applied first. A credit allowed under
this subsection may be sold to a buyer as part of a sale of
all or part of the remediation site for which the credit
was granted. The purchaser of a remediation site and the
tax credit shall succeed to the unused credit and remaining
carry-forward period of the seller. To perfect the
transfer, the assignor shall record the transfer in the
chain of title for the site and provide written notice to
the Director of the Illinois Department of Revenue of the
assignor's intent to sell the remediation site and the
amount of the tax credit to be transferred as a portion of
the sale. In no event may a credit be transferred to any
taxpayer if the taxpayer or a related party would not be
eligible under the provisions of subsection (i).
(iii) For purposes of this Section, the term "site"

shall have the same meaning as under Section 58.2 of the
Environmental Protection Act.
(o) For each of taxable years during the Compassionate Use
of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program, a surcharge is imposed on
all taxpayers on income arising from the sale or exchange of
capital assets, depreciable business property, real property
used in the trade or business, and Section 197 intangibles of
an organization registrant under the Compassionate Use of
Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act. The amount of the surcharge
is equal to the amount of federal income tax liability for the
taxable year attributable to those sales and exchanges. The
surcharge imposed does not apply if:
(1) the medical cannabis cultivation center
registration, medical cannabis dispensary registration, or
the property of a registration is transferred as a result
of any of the following:
(A) bankruptcy, a receivership, or a debt
adjustment initiated by or against the initial
registration or the substantial owners of the initial
registration;
(B) cancellation, revocation, or termination of
any registration by the Illinois Department of Public
Health;
(C) a determination by the Illinois Department of
Public Health that transfer of the registration is in
the best interests of Illinois qualifying patients as

defined by the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis
Pilot Program Act;
(D) the death of an owner of the equity interest in
a registrant;
(E) the acquisition of a controlling interest in
the stock or substantially all of the assets of a
publicly traded company;
(F) a transfer by a parent company to a wholly
owned subsidiary; or
(G) the transfer or sale to or by one person to
another person where both persons were initial owners
of the registration when the registration was issued;
or
(2) the cannabis cultivation center registration,
medical cannabis dispensary registration, or the
controlling interest in a registrant's property is
transferred in a transaction to lineal descendants in which
no gain or loss is recognized or as a result of a
transaction in accordance with Section 351 of the Internal
Revenue Code in which no gain or loss is recognized.
(Source: P.A. 96-115, eff. 7-31-09; 96-116, eff. 7-31-09;
96-937, eff. 6-23-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 96-1496, eff.
1-13-11; 97-2, eff. 5-6-11; 97-636, eff. 6-1-12; 97-905, eff.
8-7-12.)
Section 915. The Use Tax Act is amended by changing Section

3-10 as follows:
(35 ILCS 105/3-10)
Sec. 3-10. Rate of tax. Unless otherwise provided in this
Section, the tax imposed by this Act is at the rate of 6.25% of
either the selling price or the fair market value, if any, of
the tangible personal property. In all cases where property
functionally used or consumed is the same as the property that
was purchased at retail, then the tax is imposed on the selling
price of the property. In all cases where property functionally
used or consumed is a by-product or waste product that has been
refined, manufactured, or produced from property purchased at
retail, then the tax is imposed on the lower of the fair market
value, if any, of the specific property so used in this State
or on the selling price of the property purchased at retail.
For purposes of this Section "fair market value" means the
price at which property would change hands between a willing
buyer and a willing seller, neither being under any compulsion
to buy or sell and both having reasonable knowledge of the
relevant facts. The fair market value shall be established by
Illinois sales by the taxpayer of the same property as that
functionally used or consumed, or if there are no such sales by
the taxpayer, then comparable sales or purchases of property of
like kind and character in Illinois.
Beginning on July 1, 2000 and through December 31, 2000,
with respect to motor fuel, as defined in Section 1.1 of the

Motor Fuel Tax Law, and gasohol, as defined in Section 3-40 of
the Use Tax Act, the tax is imposed at the rate of 1.25%.
Beginning on August 6, 2010 through August 15, 2010, with
respect to sales tax holiday items as defined in Section 3-6 of
this Act, the tax is imposed at the rate of 1.25%.
With respect to gasohol, the tax imposed by this Act
applies to (i) 70% of the proceeds of sales made on or after
January 1, 1990, and before July 1, 2003, (ii) 80% of the
proceeds of sales made on or after July 1, 2003 and on or
before December 31, 2018, and (iii) 100% of the proceeds of
sales made thereafter. If, at any time, however, the tax under
this Act on sales of gasohol is imposed at the rate of 1.25%,
then the tax imposed by this Act applies to 100% of the
proceeds of sales of gasohol made during that time.
With respect to majority blended ethanol fuel, the tax
imposed by this Act does not apply to the proceeds of sales
made on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31,
2018 but applies to 100% of the proceeds of sales made
thereafter.
With respect to biodiesel blends with no less than 1% and
no more than 10% biodiesel, the tax imposed by this Act applies
to (i) 80% of the proceeds of sales made on or after July 1,
2003 and on or before December 31, 2018 and (ii) 100% of the
proceeds of sales made thereafter. If, at any time, however,
the tax under this Act on sales of biodiesel blends with no
less than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel is imposed at the

rate of 1.25%, then the tax imposed by this Act applies to 100%
of the proceeds of sales of biodiesel blends with no less than
1% and no more than 10% biodiesel made during that time.
With respect to 100% biodiesel and biodiesel blends with
more than 10% but no more than 99% biodiesel, the tax imposed
by this Act does not apply to the proceeds of sales made on or
after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2018 but
applies to 100% of the proceeds of sales made thereafter.
With respect to food for human consumption that is to be
consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than
alcoholic beverages, soft drinks, and food that has been
prepared for immediate consumption) and prescription and
nonprescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances,
modifications to a motor vehicle for the purpose of rendering
it usable by a disabled person, and insulin, urine testing
materials, syringes, and needles used by diabetics, for human
use, the tax is imposed at the rate of 1%. For the purposes of
this Section, until September 1, 2009: the term "soft drinks"
means any complete, finished, ready-to-use, non-alcoholic
drink, whether carbonated or not, including but not limited to
soda water, cola, fruit juice, vegetable juice, carbonated
water, and all other preparations commonly known as soft drinks
of whatever kind or description that are contained in any
closed or sealed bottle, can, carton, or container, regardless
of size; but "soft drinks" does not include coffee, tea,
non-carbonated water, infant formula, milk or milk products as

defined in the Grade A Pasteurized Milk and Milk Products Act,
or drinks containing 50% or more natural fruit or vegetable
juice.
Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act,
beginning September 1, 2009, "soft drinks" means non-alcoholic
beverages that contain natural or artificial sweeteners. "Soft
drinks" do not include beverages that contain milk or milk
products, soy, rice or similar milk substitutes, or greater
than 50% of vegetable or fruit juice by volume.
Until August 1, 2009, and notwithstanding any other
provisions of this Act, "food for human consumption that is to
be consumed off the premises where it is sold" includes all
food sold through a vending machine, except soft drinks and
food products that are dispensed hot from a vending machine,
regardless of the location of the vending machine. Beginning
August 1, 2009, and notwithstanding any other provisions of
this Act, "food for human consumption that is to be consumed
off the premises where it is sold" includes all food sold
through a vending machine, except soft drinks, candy, and food
products that are dispensed hot from a vending machine,
regardless of the location of the vending machine.
Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act,
beginning September 1, 2009, "food for human consumption that
is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold" does not
include candy. For purposes of this Section, "candy" means a
preparation of sugar, honey, or other natural or artificial

sweeteners in combination with chocolate, fruits, nuts or other
ingredients or flavorings in the form of bars, drops, or
pieces. "Candy" does not include any preparation that contains
flour or requires refrigeration.
Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act,
beginning September 1, 2009, "nonprescription medicines and
drugs" does not include grooming and hygiene products. For
purposes of this Section, "grooming and hygiene products"
includes, but is not limited to, soaps and cleaning solutions,
shampoo, toothpaste, mouthwash, antiperspirants, and sun tan
lotions and screens, unless those products are available by
prescription only, regardless of whether the products meet the
definition of "over-the-counter-drugs". For the purposes of
this paragraph, "over-the-counter-drug" means a drug for human
use that contains a label that identifies the product as a drug
as required by 21 C.F.R. § 201.66. The "over-the-counter-drug"
label includes:
(A) A "Drug Facts" panel; or
(B) A statement of the "active ingredient(s)" with a
list of those ingredients contained in the compound,
substance or preparation.
Beginning on the effective date of this amendatory Act of
the 98th General Assembly, "prescription and nonprescription
medicines and drugs" includes medical cannabis purchased from a
registered dispensing organization under the Compassionate Use
of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act.

If the property that is purchased at retail from a retailer
is acquired outside Illinois and used outside Illinois before
being brought to Illinois for use here and is taxable under
this Act, the "selling price" on which the tax is computed
shall be reduced by an amount that represents a reasonable
allowance for depreciation for the period of prior out-of-state
use.
(Source: P.A. 96-34, eff. 7-13-09; 96-37, eff. 7-13-09; 96-38,
eff. 7-13-09; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 96-1012, eff. 7-7-10;
97-636, eff. 6-1-12.)
Section 920. The Service Use Tax Act is amended by changing
Section 3-10 as follows:
(35 ILCS 110/3-10) (from Ch. 120, par. 439.33-10)
Sec. 3-10. Rate of tax. Unless otherwise provided in this
Section, the tax imposed by this Act is at the rate of 6.25% of
the selling price of tangible personal property transferred as
an incident to the sale of service, but, for the purpose of
computing this tax, in no event shall the selling price be less
than the cost price of the property to the serviceman.
Beginning on July 1, 2000 and through December 31, 2000,
with respect to motor fuel, as defined in Section 1.1 of the
Motor Fuel Tax Law, and gasohol, as defined in Section 3-40 of
the Use Tax Act, the tax is imposed at the rate of 1.25%.
With respect to gasohol, as defined in the Use Tax Act, the

tax imposed by this Act applies to (i) 70% of the selling price
of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service
on or after January 1, 1990, and before July 1, 2003, (ii) 80%
of the selling price of property transferred as an incident to
the sale of service on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before
December 31, 2018, and (iii) 100% of the selling price
thereafter. If, at any time, however, the tax under this Act on
sales of gasohol, as defined in the Use Tax Act, is imposed at
the rate of 1.25%, then the tax imposed by this Act applies to
100% of the proceeds of sales of gasohol made during that time.
With respect to majority blended ethanol fuel, as defined
in the Use Tax Act, the tax imposed by this Act does not apply
to the selling price of property transferred as an incident to
the sale of service on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before
December 31, 2018 but applies to 100% of the selling price
thereafter.
With respect to biodiesel blends, as defined in the Use Tax
Act, with no less than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel, the
tax imposed by this Act applies to (i) 80% of the selling price
of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service
on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2018 and
(ii) 100% of the proceeds of the selling price thereafter. If,
at any time, however, the tax under this Act on sales of
biodiesel blends, as defined in the Use Tax Act, with no less
than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel is imposed at the rate
of 1.25%, then the tax imposed by this Act applies to 100% of

the proceeds of sales of biodiesel blends with no less than 1%
and no more than 10% biodiesel made during that time.
With respect to 100% biodiesel, as defined in the Use Tax
Act, and biodiesel blends, as defined in the Use Tax Act, with
more than 10% but no more than 99% biodiesel, the tax imposed
by this Act does not apply to the proceeds of the selling price
of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service
on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2018 but
applies to 100% of the selling price thereafter.
At the election of any registered serviceman made for each
fiscal year, sales of service in which the aggregate annual
cost price of tangible personal property transferred as an
incident to the sales of service is less than 35%, or 75% in
the case of servicemen transferring prescription drugs or
servicemen engaged in graphic arts production, of the aggregate
annual total gross receipts from all sales of service, the tax
imposed by this Act shall be based on the serviceman's cost
price of the tangible personal property transferred as an
incident to the sale of those services.
The tax shall be imposed at the rate of 1% on food prepared
for immediate consumption and transferred incident to a sale of
service subject to this Act or the Service Occupation Tax Act
by an entity licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act, the
Nursing Home Care Act, the ID/DD Community Care Act, the
Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act, or the Child Care
Act of 1969. The tax shall also be imposed at the rate of 1% on

food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the
premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft
drinks, and food that has been prepared for immediate
consumption and is not otherwise included in this paragraph)
and prescription and nonprescription medicines, drugs, medical
appliances, modifications to a motor vehicle for the purpose of
rendering it usable by a disabled person, and insulin, urine
testing materials, syringes, and needles used by diabetics, for
human use. For the purposes of this Section, until September 1,
2009: the term "soft drinks" means any complete, finished,
ready-to-use, non-alcoholic drink, whether carbonated or not,
including but not limited to soda water, cola, fruit juice,
vegetable juice, carbonated water, and all other preparations
commonly known as soft drinks of whatever kind or description
that are contained in any closed or sealed bottle, can, carton,
or container, regardless of size; but "soft drinks" does not
include coffee, tea, non-carbonated water, infant formula,
milk or milk products as defined in the Grade A Pasteurized
Milk and Milk Products Act, or drinks containing 50% or more
natural fruit or vegetable juice.
Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act,
beginning September 1, 2009, "soft drinks" means non-alcoholic
beverages that contain natural or artificial sweeteners. "Soft
drinks" do not include beverages that contain milk or milk
products, soy, rice or similar milk substitutes, or greater
than 50% of vegetable or fruit juice by volume.

Until August 1, 2009, and notwithstanding any other
provisions of this Act, "food for human consumption that is to
be consumed off the premises where it is sold" includes all
food sold through a vending machine, except soft drinks and
food products that are dispensed hot from a vending machine,
regardless of the location of the vending machine. Beginning
August 1, 2009, and notwithstanding any other provisions of
this Act, "food for human consumption that is to be consumed
off the premises where it is sold" includes all food sold
through a vending machine, except soft drinks, candy, and food
products that are dispensed hot from a vending machine,
regardless of the location of the vending machine.
Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act,
beginning September 1, 2009, "food for human consumption that
is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold" does not
include candy. For purposes of this Section, "candy" means a
preparation of sugar, honey, or other natural or artificial
sweeteners in combination with chocolate, fruits, nuts or other
ingredients or flavorings in the form of bars, drops, or
pieces. "Candy" does not include any preparation that contains
flour or requires refrigeration.
Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act,
beginning September 1, 2009, "nonprescription medicines and
drugs" does not include grooming and hygiene products. For
purposes of this Section, "grooming and hygiene products"
includes, but is not limited to, soaps and cleaning solutions,

shampoo, toothpaste, mouthwash, antiperspirants, and sun tan
lotions and screens, unless those products are available by
prescription only, regardless of whether the products meet the
definition of "over-the-counter-drugs". For the purposes of
this paragraph, "over-the-counter-drug" means a drug for human
use that contains a label that identifies the product as a drug
as required by 21 C.F.R. § 201.66. The "over-the-counter-drug"
label includes:
(A) A "Drug Facts" panel; or
(B) A statement of the "active ingredient(s)" with a
list of those ingredients contained in the compound,
substance or preparation.
Beginning on the effective date of this amendatory Act of
the 98th General Assembly, "prescription and nonprescription
medicines and drugs" includes medical cannabis purchased from a
registered dispensing organization under the Compassionate Use
of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act.
If the property that is acquired from a serviceman is
acquired outside Illinois and used outside Illinois before
being brought to Illinois for use here and is taxable under
this Act, the "selling price" on which the tax is computed
shall be reduced by an amount that represents a reasonable
allowance for depreciation for the period of prior out-of-state
use.
(Source: P.A. 96-34, eff. 7-13-09; 96-37, eff. 7-13-09; 96-38,
eff. 7-13-09; 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 97-38,

eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-636, eff. 6-1-12.)
Section 925. The Service Occupation Tax Act is amended by
changing Section 3-10 as follows:
(35 ILCS 115/3-10) (from Ch. 120, par. 439.103-10)
Sec. 3-10. Rate of tax. Unless otherwise provided in this
Section, the tax imposed by this Act is at the rate of 6.25% of
the "selling price", as defined in Section 2 of the Service Use
Tax Act, of the tangible personal property. For the purpose of
computing this tax, in no event shall the "selling price" be
less than the cost price to the serviceman of the tangible
personal property transferred. The selling price of each item
of tangible personal property transferred as an incident of a
sale of service may be shown as a distinct and separate item on
the serviceman's billing to the service customer. If the
selling price is not so shown, the selling price of the
tangible personal property is deemed to be 50% of the
serviceman's entire billing to the service customer. When,
however, a serviceman contracts to design, develop, and produce
special order machinery or equipment, the tax imposed by this
Act shall be based on the serviceman's cost price of the
tangible personal property transferred incident to the
completion of the contract.
Beginning on July 1, 2000 and through December 31, 2000,
with respect to motor fuel, as defined in Section 1.1 of the

Motor Fuel Tax Law, and gasohol, as defined in Section 3-40 of
the Use Tax Act, the tax is imposed at the rate of 1.25%.
With respect to gasohol, as defined in the Use Tax Act, the
tax imposed by this Act shall apply to (i) 70% of the cost
price of property transferred as an incident to the sale of
service on or after January 1, 1990, and before July 1, 2003,
(ii) 80% of the selling price of property transferred as an
incident to the sale of service on or after July 1, 2003 and on
or before December 31, 2018, and (iii) 100% of the cost price
thereafter. If, at any time, however, the tax under this Act on
sales of gasohol, as defined in the Use Tax Act, is imposed at
the rate of 1.25%, then the tax imposed by this Act applies to
100% of the proceeds of sales of gasohol made during that time.
With respect to majority blended ethanol fuel, as defined
in the Use Tax Act, the tax imposed by this Act does not apply
to the selling price of property transferred as an incident to
the sale of service on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before
December 31, 2018 but applies to 100% of the selling price
thereafter.
With respect to biodiesel blends, as defined in the Use Tax
Act, with no less than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel, the
tax imposed by this Act applies to (i) 80% of the selling price
of property transferred as an incident to the sale of service
on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2018 and
(ii) 100% of the proceeds of the selling price thereafter. If,
at any time, however, the tax under this Act on sales of

biodiesel blends, as defined in the Use Tax Act, with no less
than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel is imposed at the rate
of 1.25%, then the tax imposed by this Act applies to 100% of
the proceeds of sales of biodiesel blends with no less than 1%
and no more than 10% biodiesel made during that time.
With respect to 100% biodiesel, as defined in the Use Tax
Act, and biodiesel blends, as defined in the Use Tax Act, with
more than 10% but no more than 99% biodiesel material, the tax
imposed by this Act does not apply to the proceeds of the
selling price of property transferred as an incident to the
sale of service on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before
December 31, 2018 but applies to 100% of the selling price
thereafter.
At the election of any registered serviceman made for each
fiscal year, sales of service in which the aggregate annual
cost price of tangible personal property transferred as an
incident to the sales of service is less than 35%, or 75% in
the case of servicemen transferring prescription drugs or
servicemen engaged in graphic arts production, of the aggregate
annual total gross receipts from all sales of service, the tax
imposed by this Act shall be based on the serviceman's cost
price of the tangible personal property transferred incident to
the sale of those services.
The tax shall be imposed at the rate of 1% on food prepared
for immediate consumption and transferred incident to a sale of
service subject to this Act or the Service Occupation Tax Act

by an entity licensed under the Hospital Licensing Act, the
Nursing Home Care Act, the ID/DD Community Care Act, the
Specialized Mental Health Rehabilitation Act, or the Child Care
Act of 1969. The tax shall also be imposed at the rate of 1% on
food for human consumption that is to be consumed off the
premises where it is sold (other than alcoholic beverages, soft
drinks, and food that has been prepared for immediate
consumption and is not otherwise included in this paragraph)
and prescription and nonprescription medicines, drugs, medical
appliances, modifications to a motor vehicle for the purpose of
rendering it usable by a disabled person, and insulin, urine
testing materials, syringes, and needles used by diabetics, for
human use. For the purposes of this Section, until September 1,
2009: the term "soft drinks" means any complete, finished,
ready-to-use, non-alcoholic drink, whether carbonated or not,
including but not limited to soda water, cola, fruit juice,
vegetable juice, carbonated water, and all other preparations
commonly known as soft drinks of whatever kind or description
that are contained in any closed or sealed can, carton, or
container, regardless of size; but "soft drinks" does not
include coffee, tea, non-carbonated water, infant formula,
milk or milk products as defined in the Grade A Pasteurized
Milk and Milk Products Act, or drinks containing 50% or more
natural fruit or vegetable juice.
Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act,
beginning September 1, 2009, "soft drinks" means non-alcoholic

beverages that contain natural or artificial sweeteners. "Soft
drinks" do not include beverages that contain milk or milk
products, soy, rice or similar milk substitutes, or greater
than 50% of vegetable or fruit juice by volume.
Until August 1, 2009, and notwithstanding any other
provisions of this Act, "food for human consumption that is to
be consumed off the premises where it is sold" includes all
food sold through a vending machine, except soft drinks and
food products that are dispensed hot from a vending machine,
regardless of the location of the vending machine. Beginning
August 1, 2009, and notwithstanding any other provisions of
this Act, "food for human consumption that is to be consumed
off the premises where it is sold" includes all food sold
through a vending machine, except soft drinks, candy, and food
products that are dispensed hot from a vending machine,
regardless of the location of the vending machine.
Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act,
beginning September 1, 2009, "food for human consumption that
is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold" does not
include candy. For purposes of this Section, "candy" means a
preparation of sugar, honey, or other natural or artificial
sweeteners in combination with chocolate, fruits, nuts or other
ingredients or flavorings in the form of bars, drops, or
pieces. "Candy" does not include any preparation that contains
flour or requires refrigeration.
Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act,

beginning September 1, 2009, "nonprescription medicines and
drugs" does not include grooming and hygiene products. For
purposes of this Section, "grooming and hygiene products"
includes, but is not limited to, soaps and cleaning solutions,
shampoo, toothpaste, mouthwash, antiperspirants, and sun tan
lotions and screens, unless those products are available by
prescription only, regardless of whether the products meet the
definition of "over-the-counter-drugs". For the purposes of
this paragraph, "over-the-counter-drug" means a drug for human
use that contains a label that identifies the product as a drug
as required by 21 C.F.R. § 201.66. The "over-the-counter-drug"
label includes:
(A) A "Drug Facts" panel; or
(B) A statement of the "active ingredient(s)" with a
list of those ingredients contained in the compound,
substance or preparation.
Beginning on the effective date of this amendatory Act of
the 98th General Assembly, "prescription and nonprescription
medicines and drugs" includes medical cannabis purchased from a
registered dispensing organization under the Compassionate Use
of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act.
(Source: P.A. 96-34, eff. 7-13-09; 96-37, eff. 7-13-09; 96-38,
eff. 7-13-09; 96-339, eff. 7-1-10; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 97-38,
eff. 6-28-11; 97-227, eff. 1-1-12; 97-636, eff. 6-1-12.)
Section 930. The Retailers' Occupation Tax Act is amended

by changing Section 2-10 as follows:
(35 ILCS 120/2-10)
Sec. 2-10. Rate of tax. Unless otherwise provided in this
Section, the tax imposed by this Act is at the rate of 6.25% of
gross receipts from sales of tangible personal property made in
the course of business.
Beginning on July 1, 2000 and through December 31, 2000,
with respect to motor fuel, as defined in Section 1.1 of the
Motor Fuel Tax Law, and gasohol, as defined in Section 3-40 of
the Use Tax Act, the tax is imposed at the rate of 1.25%.
Beginning on August 6, 2010 through August 15, 2010, with
respect to sales tax holiday items as defined in Section 2-8 of
this Act, the tax is imposed at the rate of 1.25%.
Within 14 days after the effective date of this amendatory
Act of the 91st General Assembly, each retailer of motor fuel
and gasohol shall cause the following notice to be posted in a
prominently visible place on each retail dispensing device that
is used to dispense motor fuel or gasohol in the State of
Illinois: "As of July 1, 2000, the State of Illinois has
eliminated the State's share of sales tax on motor fuel and
gasohol through December 31, 2000. The price on this pump
should reflect the elimination of the tax." The notice shall be
printed in bold print on a sign that is no smaller than 4
inches by 8 inches. The sign shall be clearly visible to
customers. Any retailer who fails to post or maintain a

required sign through December 31, 2000 is guilty of a petty
offense for which the fine shall be $500 per day per each
retail premises where a violation occurs.
With respect to gasohol, as defined in the Use Tax Act, the
tax imposed by this Act applies to (i) 70% of the proceeds of
sales made on or after January 1, 1990, and before July 1,
2003, (ii) 80% of the proceeds of sales made on or after July
1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2018, and (iii) 100% of
the proceeds of sales made thereafter. If, at any time,
however, the tax under this Act on sales of gasohol, as defined
in the Use Tax Act, is imposed at the rate of 1.25%, then the
tax imposed by this Act applies to 100% of the proceeds of
sales of gasohol made during that time.
With respect to majority blended ethanol fuel, as defined
in the Use Tax Act, the tax imposed by this Act does not apply
to the proceeds of sales made on or after July 1, 2003 and on or
before December 31, 2018 but applies to 100% of the proceeds of
sales made thereafter.
With respect to biodiesel blends, as defined in the Use Tax
Act, with no less than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel, the
tax imposed by this Act applies to (i) 80% of the proceeds of
sales made on or after July 1, 2003 and on or before December
31, 2018 and (ii) 100% of the proceeds of sales made
thereafter. If, at any time, however, the tax under this Act on
sales of biodiesel blends, as defined in the Use Tax Act, with
no less than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel is imposed at

the rate of 1.25%, then the tax imposed by this Act applies to
100% of the proceeds of sales of biodiesel blends with no less
than 1% and no more than 10% biodiesel made during that time.
With respect to 100% biodiesel, as defined in the Use Tax
Act, and biodiesel blends, as defined in the Use Tax Act, with
more than 10% but no more than 99% biodiesel, the tax imposed
by this Act does not apply to the proceeds of sales made on or
after July 1, 2003 and on or before December 31, 2018 but
applies to 100% of the proceeds of sales made thereafter.
With respect to food for human consumption that is to be
consumed off the premises where it is sold (other than
alcoholic beverages, soft drinks, and food that has been
prepared for immediate consumption) and prescription and
nonprescription medicines, drugs, medical appliances,
modifications to a motor vehicle for the purpose of rendering
it usable by a disabled person, and insulin, urine testing
materials, syringes, and needles used by diabetics, for human
use, the tax is imposed at the rate of 1%. For the purposes of
this Section, until September 1, 2009: the term "soft drinks"
means any complete, finished, ready-to-use, non-alcoholic
drink, whether carbonated or not, including but not limited to
soda water, cola, fruit juice, vegetable juice, carbonated
water, and all other preparations commonly known as soft drinks
of whatever kind or description that are contained in any
closed or sealed bottle, can, carton, or container, regardless
of size; but "soft drinks" does not include coffee, tea,

non-carbonated water, infant formula, milk or milk products as
defined in the Grade A Pasteurized Milk and Milk Products Act,
or drinks containing 50% or more natural fruit or vegetable
juice.
Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act,
beginning September 1, 2009, "soft drinks" means non-alcoholic
beverages that contain natural or artificial sweeteners. "Soft
drinks" do not include beverages that contain milk or milk
products, soy, rice or similar milk substitutes, or greater
than 50% of vegetable or fruit juice by volume.
Until August 1, 2009, and notwithstanding any other
provisions of this Act, "food for human consumption that is to
be consumed off the premises where it is sold" includes all
food sold through a vending machine, except soft drinks and
food products that are dispensed hot from a vending machine,
regardless of the location of the vending machine. Beginning
August 1, 2009, and notwithstanding any other provisions of
this Act, "food for human consumption that is to be consumed
off the premises where it is sold" includes all food sold
through a vending machine, except soft drinks, candy, and food
products that are dispensed hot from a vending machine,
regardless of the location of the vending machine.
Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act,
beginning September 1, 2009, "food for human consumption that
is to be consumed off the premises where it is sold" does not
include candy. For purposes of this Section, "candy" means a

preparation of sugar, honey, or other natural or artificial
sweeteners in combination with chocolate, fruits, nuts or other
ingredients or flavorings in the form of bars, drops, or
pieces. "Candy" does not include any preparation that contains
flour or requires refrigeration.
Notwithstanding any other provisions of this Act,
beginning September 1, 2009, "nonprescription medicines and
drugs" does not include grooming and hygiene products. For
purposes of this Section, "grooming and hygiene products"
includes, but is not limited to, soaps and cleaning solutions,
shampoo, toothpaste, mouthwash, antiperspirants, and sun tan
lotions and screens, unless those products are available by
prescription only, regardless of whether the products meet the
definition of "over-the-counter-drugs". For the purposes of
this paragraph, "over-the-counter-drug" means a drug for human
use that contains a label that identifies the product as a drug
as required by 21 C.F.R. § 201.66. The "over-the-counter-drug"
label includes:
(A) A "Drug Facts" panel; or
(B) A statement of the "active ingredient(s)" with a
list of those ingredients contained in the compound,
substance or preparation.
Beginning on the effective date of this amendatory Act of
the 98th General Assembly, "prescription and nonprescription
medicines and drugs" includes medical cannabis purchased from a
registered dispensing organization under the Compassionate Use

of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act.
(Source: P.A. 96-34, eff. 7-13-09; 96-37, eff. 7-13-09; 96-38,
eff. 7-13-09; 96-1000, eff. 7-2-10; 96-1012, eff. 7-7-10;
97-636, eff. 6-1-12.)
Section 935. The Illinois Vehicle Code is amended by
changing Sections 2-118.1, 6-206, 6-206.1, 6-208.1, 6-514,
11-501, 11-501.1, and 11-501.2 and by adding Section 11-502.1
as follows:
(625 ILCS 5/2-118.1) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 2-118.1)
Sec. 2-118.1. Opportunity for hearing; statutory summary
alcohol or other drug related suspension or revocation pursuant
to Section 11-501.1.
(a) A statutory summary suspension or revocation of driving
privileges under Section 11-501.1 shall not become effective
until the person is notified in writing of the impending
suspension or revocation and informed that he may request a
hearing in the circuit court of venue under paragraph (b) of
this Section and the statutory summary suspension or revocation
shall become effective as provided in Section 11-501.1.
(b) Within 90 days after the notice of statutory summary
suspension or revocation served under Section 11-501.1, the
person may make a written request for a judicial hearing in the
circuit court of venue. The request to the circuit court shall
state the grounds upon which the person seeks to have the

statutory summary suspension or revocation rescinded. Within
30 days after receipt of the written request or the first
appearance date on the Uniform Traffic Ticket issued pursuant
to a violation of Section 11-501, or a similar provision of a
local ordinance, the hearing shall be conducted by the circuit
court having jurisdiction. This judicial hearing, request, or
process shall not stay or delay the statutory summary
suspension or revocation. The hearings shall proceed in the
court in the same manner as in other civil proceedings.
The hearing may be conducted upon a review of the law
enforcement officer's own official reports; provided however,
that the person may subpoena the officer. Failure of the
officer to answer the subpoena shall be considered grounds for
a continuance if in the court's discretion the continuance is
appropriate.
The scope of the hearing shall be limited to the issues of:
1. Whether the person was placed under arrest for an
offense as defined in Section 11-501, or a similar
provision of a local ordinance, as evidenced by the
issuance of a Uniform Traffic Ticket, or issued a Uniform
Traffic Ticket out of state as provided in subsection (a)
or (a-5) of Section 11-501.1; and
2. Whether the officer had reasonable grounds to
believe that the person was driving or in actual physical
control of a motor vehicle upon a highway while under the
influence of alcohol, other drug, or combination of both;

and
3. Whether the person, after being advised by the
officer that the privilege to operate a motor vehicle would
be suspended or revoked if the person refused to submit to
and complete the test or tests, did refuse to submit to or
complete the test or tests authorized under Section
11-501.1 to determine the person's alcohol or drug
concentration; or
4. Whether the person, after being advised by the
officer that the privilege to operate a motor vehicle would
be suspended if the person submits to a chemical test, or
tests, and the test discloses an alcohol concentration of
0.08 or more, or any amount of a drug, substance, or
compound in the person's blood or urine resulting from the
unlawful use or consumption of cannabis listed in the
Cannabis Control Act, a controlled substance listed in the
Illinois Controlled Substances Act, an intoxicating
compound as listed in the Use of Intoxicating Compounds
Act, or methamphetamine as listed in the Methamphetamine
Control and Community Protection Act, and the person did
submit to and complete the test or tests that determined an
alcohol concentration of 0.08 or more.
4.2. If the person is a qualifying patient licensed
under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot
Program Act who is in possession of a valid registry card
issued under that Act, after being advised by the officer

that the privilege to operate a motor vehicle would be
suspended or revoked if the person refused to submit to and
complete the test or tests, did refuse to submit to or
complete the test or tests authorized under Section
11-501.1.
4.5. If the person is a qualifying patient licensed
under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot
Program Act who is in possession of a valid registry card
issued under that Act, whether that person, after being
advised by the officer that the privilege to operate a
motor vehicle would be suspended if the person submits to a
standardized field sobriety test, or tests, and the test
indicates impairment resulting from the consumption of
cannabis, did submit to and complete the test or tests that
indicated impairment.
5. If the person's driving privileges were revoked,
whether the person was involved in a motor vehicle accident
that caused Type A injury or death to another.
Upon the conclusion of the judicial hearing, the circuit
court shall sustain or rescind the statutory summary suspension
or revocation and immediately notify the Secretary of State.
Reports received by the Secretary of State under this Section
shall be privileged information and for use only by the courts,
police officers, and Secretary of State.
(Source: P.A. 95-355, eff. 1-1-08; 96-1344, eff. 7-1-11.)

(625 ILCS 5/6-206)
Sec. 6-206. Discretionary authority to suspend or revoke
license or permit; Right to a hearing.
(a) The Secretary of State is authorized to suspend or
revoke the driving privileges of any person without preliminary
hearing upon a showing of the person's records or other
sufficient evidence that the person:
1. Has committed an offense for which mandatory
revocation of a driver's license or permit is required upon
conviction;
2. Has been convicted of not less than 3 offenses
against traffic regulations governing the movement of
vehicles committed within any 12 month period. No
revocation or suspension shall be entered more than 6
months after the date of last conviction;
3. Has been repeatedly involved as a driver in motor
vehicle collisions or has been repeatedly convicted of
offenses against laws and ordinances regulating the
movement of traffic, to a degree that indicates lack of
ability to exercise ordinary and reasonable care in the
safe operation of a motor vehicle or disrespect for the
traffic laws and the safety of other persons upon the
highway;
4. Has by the unlawful operation of a motor vehicle
caused or contributed to an accident resulting in injury
requiring immediate professional treatment in a medical

facility or doctor's office to any person, except that any
suspension or revocation imposed by the Secretary of State
under the provisions of this subsection shall start no
later than 6 months after being convicted of violating a
law or ordinance regulating the movement of traffic, which
violation is related to the accident, or shall start not
more than one year after the date of the accident,
whichever date occurs later;
5. Has permitted an unlawful or fraudulent use of a
driver's license, identification card, or permit;
6. Has been lawfully convicted of an offense or
offenses in another state, including the authorization
contained in Section 6-203.1, which if committed within
this State would be grounds for suspension or revocation;
7. Has refused or failed to submit to an examination
provided for by Section 6-207 or has failed to pass the
examination;
8. Is ineligible for a driver's license or permit under
the provisions of Section 6-103;
9. Has made a false statement or knowingly concealed a
material fact or has used false information or
identification in any application for a license,
identification card, or permit;
10. Has possessed, displayed, or attempted to
fraudulently use any license, identification card, or
permit not issued to the person;

11. Has operated a motor vehicle upon a highway of this
State when the person's driving privilege or privilege to
obtain a driver's license or permit was revoked or
suspended unless the operation was authorized by a
monitoring device driving permit, judicial driving permit
issued prior to January 1, 2009, probationary license to
drive, or a restricted driving permit issued under this
Code;
12. Has submitted to any portion of the application
process for another person or has obtained the services of
another person to submit to any portion of the application
process for the purpose of obtaining a license,
identification card, or permit for some other person;
13. Has operated a motor vehicle upon a highway of this
State when the person's driver's license or permit was
invalid under the provisions of Sections 6-107.1 and 6-110;
14. Has committed a violation of Section 6-301,
6-301.1, or 6-301.2 of this Act, or Section 14, 14A, or 14B
of the Illinois Identification Card Act;
15. Has been convicted of violating Section 21-2 of the
Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 relating
to criminal trespass to vehicles in which case, the
suspension shall be for one year;
16. Has been convicted of violating Section 11-204 of
this Code relating to fleeing from a peace officer;
17. Has refused to submit to a test, or tests, as

required under Section 11-501.1 of this Code and the person
has not sought a hearing as provided for in Section
11-501.1;
18. Has, since issuance of a driver's license or
permit, been adjudged to be afflicted with or suffering
from any mental disability or disease;
19. Has committed a violation of paragraph (a) or (b)
of Section 6-101 relating to driving without a driver's
license;
20. Has been convicted of violating Section 6-104
relating to classification of driver's license;
21. Has been convicted of violating Section 11-402 of
this Code relating to leaving the scene of an accident
resulting in damage to a vehicle in excess of $1,000, in
which case the suspension shall be for one year;
22. Has used a motor vehicle in violating paragraph
(3), (4), (7), or (9) of subsection (a) of Section 24-1 of
the Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012
relating to unlawful use of weapons, in which case the
suspension shall be for one year;
23. Has, as a driver, been convicted of committing a
violation of paragraph (a) of Section 11-502 of this Code
for a second or subsequent time within one year of a
similar violation;
24. Has been convicted by a court-martial or punished
by non-judicial punishment by military authorities of the

United States at a military installation in Illinois of or
for a traffic related offense that is the same as or
similar to an offense specified under Section 6-205 or
6-206 of this Code;
25. Has permitted any form of identification to be used
by another in the application process in order to obtain or
attempt to obtain a license, identification card, or
permit;
26. Has altered or attempted to alter a license or has
possessed an altered license, identification card, or
permit;
27. Has violated Section 6-16 of the Liquor Control Act
of 1934;
28. Has been convicted for a first time of the illegal
possession, while operating or in actual physical control,
as a driver, of a motor vehicle, of any controlled
substance prohibited under the Illinois Controlled
Substances Act, any cannabis prohibited under the Cannabis
Control Act, or any methamphetamine prohibited under the
Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, in
which case the person's driving privileges shall be
suspended for one year. Any defendant found guilty of this
offense while operating a motor vehicle, shall have an
entry made in the court record by the presiding judge that
this offense did occur while the defendant was operating a
motor vehicle and order the clerk of the court to report

the violation to the Secretary of State;
29. Has been convicted of the following offenses that
were committed while the person was operating or in actual
physical control, as a driver, of a motor vehicle: criminal
sexual assault, predatory criminal sexual assault of a
child, aggravated criminal sexual assault, criminal sexual
abuse, aggravated criminal sexual abuse, juvenile pimping,
soliciting for a juvenile prostitute, promoting juvenile
prostitution as described in subdivision (a)(1), (a)(2),
or (a)(3) of Section 11-14.4 of the Criminal Code of 1961
or the Criminal Code of 2012, and the manufacture, sale or
delivery of controlled substances or instruments used for
illegal drug use or abuse in which case the driver's
driving privileges shall be suspended for one year;
30. Has been convicted a second or subsequent time for
any combination of the offenses named in paragraph 29 of
this subsection, in which case the person's driving
privileges shall be suspended for 5 years;
31. Has refused to submit to a test as required by
Section 11-501.6 or has submitted to a test resulting in an
alcohol concentration of 0.08 or more or any amount of a
drug, substance, or compound resulting from the unlawful
use or consumption of cannabis as listed in the Cannabis
Control Act, a controlled substance as listed in the
Illinois Controlled Substances Act, an intoxicating
compound as listed in the Use of Intoxicating Compounds

Act, or methamphetamine as listed in the Methamphetamine
Control and Community Protection Act, in which case the
penalty shall be as prescribed in Section 6-208.1;
32. Has been convicted of Section 24-1.2 of the
Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012 relating
to the aggravated discharge of a firearm if the offender
was located in a motor vehicle at the time the firearm was
discharged, in which case the suspension shall be for 3
years;
33. Has as a driver, who was less than 21 years of age
on the date of the offense, been convicted a first time of
a violation of paragraph (a) of Section 11-502 of this Code
or a similar provision of a local ordinance;
34. Has committed a violation of Section 11-1301.5 of
this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance;
35. Has committed a violation of Section 11-1301.6 of
this Code or a similar provision of a local ordinance;
36. Is under the age of 21 years at the time of arrest
and has been convicted of not less than 2 offenses against
traffic regulations governing the movement of vehicles
committed within any 24 month period. No revocation or
suspension shall be entered more than 6 months after the
date of last conviction;
37. Has committed a violation of subsection (c) of
Section 11-907 of this Code that resulted in damage to the
property of another or the death or injury of another;

38. Has been convicted of a violation of Section 6-20
of the Liquor Control Act of 1934 or a similar provision of
a local ordinance;
39. Has committed a second or subsequent violation of
Section 11-1201 of this Code;
40. Has committed a violation of subsection (a-1) of
Section 11-908 of this Code;
41. Has committed a second or subsequent violation of
Section 11-605.1 of this Code, a similar provision of a
local ordinance, or a similar violation in any other state
within 2 years of the date of the previous violation, in
which case the suspension shall be for 90 days;
42. Has committed a violation of subsection (a-1) of
Section 11-1301.3 of this Code or a similar provision of a
local ordinance;
43. Has received a disposition of court supervision for
a violation of subsection (a), (d), or (e) of Section 6-20
of the Liquor Control Act of 1934 or a similar provision of
a local ordinance, in which case the suspension shall be
for a period of 3 months;
44. Is under the age of 21 years at the time of arrest
and has been convicted of an offense against traffic
regulations governing the movement of vehicles after
having previously had his or her driving privileges
suspended or revoked pursuant to subparagraph 36 of this
Section;

45. Has, in connection with or during the course of a
formal hearing conducted under Section 2-118 of this Code:
(i) committed perjury; (ii) submitted fraudulent or
falsified documents; (iii) submitted documents that have
been materially altered; or (iv) submitted, as his or her
own, documents that were in fact prepared or composed for
another person; or
46. Has committed a violation of subsection (j) of
Section 3-413 of this Code; or .
47. Has committed a violation of Section 11-502.1 of
this Code.
For purposes of paragraphs 5, 9, 10, 12, 14, 19, 25, 26,
and 27 of this subsection, license means any driver's license,
any traffic ticket issued when the person's driver's license is
deposited in lieu of bail, a suspension notice issued by the
Secretary of State, a duplicate or corrected driver's license,
a probationary driver's license or a temporary driver's
license.
(b) If any conviction forming the basis of a suspension or
revocation authorized under this Section is appealed, the
Secretary of State may rescind or withhold the entry of the
order of suspension or revocation, as the case may be, provided
that a certified copy of a stay order of a court is filed with
the Secretary of State. If the conviction is affirmed on
appeal, the date of the conviction shall relate back to the
time the original judgment of conviction was entered and the 6

month limitation prescribed shall not apply.
(c) 1. Upon suspending or revoking the driver's license or
permit of any person as authorized in this Section, the
Secretary of State shall immediately notify the person in
writing of the revocation or suspension. The notice to be
deposited in the United States mail, postage prepaid, to the
last known address of the person.
2. If the Secretary of State suspends the driver's
license of a person under subsection 2 of paragraph (a) of
this Section, a person's privilege to operate a vehicle as
an occupation shall not be suspended, provided an affidavit
is properly completed, the appropriate fee received, and a
permit issued prior to the effective date of the
suspension, unless 5 offenses were committed, at least 2 of
which occurred while operating a commercial vehicle in
connection with the driver's regular occupation. All other
driving privileges shall be suspended by the Secretary of
State. Any driver prior to operating a vehicle for
occupational purposes only must submit the affidavit on
forms to be provided by the Secretary of State setting
forth the facts of the person's occupation. The affidavit
shall also state the number of offenses committed while
operating a vehicle in connection with the driver's regular
occupation. The affidavit shall be accompanied by the
driver's license. Upon receipt of a properly completed
affidavit, the Secretary of State shall issue the driver a

permit to operate a vehicle in connection with the driver's
regular occupation only. Unless the permit is issued by the
Secretary of State prior to the date of suspension, the
privilege to drive any motor vehicle shall be suspended as
set forth in the notice that was mailed under this Section.
If an affidavit is received subsequent to the effective
date of this suspension, a permit may be issued for the
remainder of the suspension period.
The provisions of this subparagraph shall not apply to
any driver required to possess a CDL for the purpose of
operating a commercial motor vehicle.
Any person who falsely states any fact in the affidavit
required herein shall be guilty of perjury under Section
6-302 and upon conviction thereof shall have all driving
privileges revoked without further rights.
3. At the conclusion of a hearing under Section 2-118
of this Code, the Secretary of State shall either rescind
or continue an order of revocation or shall substitute an
order of suspension; or, good cause appearing therefor,
rescind, continue, change, or extend the order of
suspension. If the Secretary of State does not rescind the
order, the Secretary may upon application, to relieve undue
hardship (as defined by the rules of the Secretary of
State), issue a restricted driving permit granting the
privilege of driving a motor vehicle between the
petitioner's residence and petitioner's place of

employment or within the scope of the petitioner's
employment related duties, or to allow the petitioner to
transport himself or herself, or a family member of the
petitioner's household to a medical facility, to receive
necessary medical care, to allow the petitioner to
transport himself or herself to and from alcohol or drug
remedial or rehabilitative activity recommended by a
licensed service provider, or to allow the petitioner to
transport himself or herself or a family member of the
petitioner's household to classes, as a student, at an
accredited educational institution, or to allow the
petitioner to transport children, elderly persons, or
disabled persons who do not hold driving privileges and are
living in the petitioner's household to and from daycare.
The petitioner must demonstrate that no alternative means
of transportation is reasonably available and that the
petitioner will not endanger the public safety or welfare.
Those multiple offenders identified in subdivision (b)4 of
Section 6-208 of this Code, however, shall not be eligible
for the issuance of a restricted driving permit.
(A) If a person's license or permit is revoked or
suspended due to 2 or more convictions of violating
Section 11-501 of this Code or a similar provision of a
local ordinance or a similar out-of-state offense, or
Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the
Criminal Code of 2012, where the use of alcohol or

other drugs is recited as an element of the offense, or
a similar out-of-state offense, or a combination of
these offenses, arising out of separate occurrences,
that person, if issued a restricted driving permit, may
not operate a vehicle unless it has been equipped with
an ignition interlock device as defined in Section
1-129.1.
(B) If a person's license or permit is revoked or
suspended 2 or more times within a 10 year period due
to any combination of:
(i) a single conviction of violating Section
11-501 of this Code or a similar provision of a
local ordinance or a similar out-of-state offense
or Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the
Criminal Code of 2012, where the use of alcohol or
other drugs is recited as an element of the
offense, or a similar out-of-state offense; or
(ii) a statutory summary suspension or
revocation under Section 11-501.1; or
(iii) a suspension under Section 6-203.1;
arising out of separate occurrences; that person, if
issued a restricted driving permit, may not operate a
vehicle unless it has been equipped with an ignition
interlock device as defined in Section 1-129.1.
(C) The person issued a permit conditioned upon the
use of an ignition interlock device must pay to the

Secretary of State DUI Administration Fund an amount
not to exceed $30 per month. The Secretary shall
establish by rule the amount and the procedures, terms,
and conditions relating to these fees.
(D) If the restricted driving permit is issued for
employment purposes, then the prohibition against
operating a motor vehicle that is not equipped with an
ignition interlock device does not apply to the
operation of an occupational vehicle owned or leased by
that person's employer when used solely for employment
purposes.
(E) In each case the Secretary may issue a
restricted driving permit for a period deemed
appropriate, except that all permits shall expire
within one year from the date of issuance. The
Secretary may not, however, issue a restricted driving
permit to any person whose current revocation is the
result of a second or subsequent conviction for a
violation of Section 11-501 of this Code or a similar
provision of a local ordinance or any similar
out-of-state offense, or Section 9-3 of the Criminal
Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012, where the
use of alcohol or other drugs is recited as an element
of the offense, or any similar out-of-state offense, or
any combination of those offenses, until the
expiration of at least one year from the date of the

revocation. A restricted driving permit issued under
this Section shall be subject to cancellation,
revocation, and suspension by the Secretary of State in
like manner and for like cause as a driver's license
issued under this Code may be cancelled, revoked, or
suspended; except that a conviction upon one or more
offenses against laws or ordinances regulating the
movement of traffic shall be deemed sufficient cause
for the revocation, suspension, or cancellation of a
restricted driving permit. The Secretary of State may,
as a condition to the issuance of a restricted driving
permit, require the applicant to participate in a
designated driver remedial or rehabilitative program.
The Secretary of State is authorized to cancel a
restricted driving permit if the permit holder does not
successfully complete the program.
(c-3) In the case of a suspension under paragraph 43 of
subsection (a), reports received by the Secretary of State
under this Section shall, except during the actual time the
suspension is in effect, be privileged information and for use
only by the courts, police officers, prosecuting authorities,
the driver licensing administrator of any other state, the
Secretary of State, or the parent or legal guardian of a driver
under the age of 18. However, beginning January 1, 2008, if the
person is a CDL holder, the suspension shall also be made
available to the driver licensing administrator of any other

state, the U.S. Department of Transportation, and the affected
driver or motor carrier or prospective motor carrier upon
request.
(c-4) In the case of a suspension under paragraph 43 of
subsection (a), the Secretary of State shall notify the person
by mail that his or her driving privileges and driver's license
will be suspended one month after the date of the mailing of
the notice.
(c-5) The Secretary of State may, as a condition of the
reissuance of a driver's license or permit to an applicant
whose driver's license or permit has been suspended before he
or she reached the age of 21 years pursuant to any of the
provisions of this Section, require the applicant to
participate in a driver remedial education course and be
retested under Section 6-109 of this Code.
(d) This Section is subject to the provisions of the
Drivers License Compact.
(e) The Secretary of State shall not issue a restricted
driving permit to a person under the age of 16 years whose
driving privileges have been suspended or revoked under any
provisions of this Code.
(f) In accordance with 49 C.F.R. 384, the Secretary of
State may not issue a restricted driving permit for the
operation of a commercial motor vehicle to a person holding a
CDL whose driving privileges have been suspended, revoked,
cancelled, or disqualified under any provisions of this Code.

(Source: P.A. 96-328, eff. 8-11-09; 96-607, eff. 8-24-09;
96-1180, eff. 1-1-11; 96-1305, eff. 1-1-11; 96-1344, eff.
7-1-11; 96-1551, eff. 7-1-11; 97-229, eff. 7-28-11; 97-333,
eff. 8-12-11; 97-743, eff. 1-1-13; 97-838, eff. 1-1-13; 97-844,
eff. 1-1-13; 97-1109, eff. 1-1-13; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13.)
(625 ILCS 5/6-206.1) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 6-206.1)
Sec. 6-206.1. Monitoring Device Driving Permit.
Declaration of Policy. It is hereby declared a policy of the
State of Illinois that the driver who is impaired by alcohol,
other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or compounds is a
threat to the public safety and welfare. Therefore, to provide
a deterrent to such practice, a statutory summary driver's
license suspension is appropriate. It is also recognized that
driving is a privilege and therefore, that the granting of
driving privileges, in a manner consistent with public safety,
is warranted during the period of suspension in the form of a
monitoring device driving permit. A person who drives and fails
to comply with the requirements of the monitoring device
driving permit commits a violation of Section 6-303 of this
Code.
The following procedures shall apply whenever a first
offender, as defined in Section 11-500 of this Code, is
arrested for any offense as defined in Section 11-501 or a
similar provision of a local ordinance and is subject to the
provisions of Section 11-501.1:

(a) Upon mailing of the notice of suspension of driving
privileges as provided in subsection (h) of Section 11-501.1 of
this Code, the Secretary shall also send written notice
informing the person that he or she will be issued a monitoring
device driving permit (MDDP). The notice shall include, at
minimum, information summarizing the procedure to be followed
for issuance of the MDDP, installation of the breath alcohol
ignition installation device (BAIID), as provided in this
Section, exemption from BAIID installation requirements, and
procedures to be followed by those seeking indigent status, as
provided in this Section. The notice shall also include
information summarizing the procedure to be followed if the
person wishes to decline issuance of the MDDP. A copy of the
notice shall also be sent to the court of venue together with
the notice of suspension of driving privileges, as provided in
subsection (h) of Section 11-501. However, a MDDP shall not be
issued if the Secretary finds that:
(1) The offender's driver's license is otherwise
invalid;
(2) Death or great bodily harm resulted from the arrest
for Section 11-501;
(3) The offender has been previously convicted of
reckless homicide or aggravated driving under the
influence involving death; or
(4) The offender is less than 18 years of age; or
(5) The offender is a qualifying patient licensed under

the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act
who is in possession of a valid registry card issued under
that Act and refused to submit to standardized field
sobriety tests as required by subsection (a-5) of Section
11-501.1 or did submit to testing and failed the test or
tests.
Any offender participating in the MDDP program must pay the
Secretary a MDDP Administration Fee in an amount not to exceed
$30 per month, to be deposited into the Monitoring Device
Driving Permit Administration Fee Fund. The Secretary shall
establish by rule the amount and the procedures, terms, and
conditions relating to these fees. The offender must have an
ignition interlock device installed within 14 days of the date
the Secretary issues the MDDP. The ignition interlock device
provider must notify the Secretary, in a manner and form
prescribed by the Secretary, of the installation. If the
Secretary does not receive notice of installation, the
Secretary shall cancel the MDDP.
A MDDP shall not become effective prior to the 31st day of
the original statutory summary suspension.
Upon receipt of the notice, as provided in paragraph (a) of
this Section, the person may file a petition to decline
issuance of the MDDP with the court of venue. The court shall
admonish the offender of all consequences of declining issuance
of the MDDP including, but not limited to, the enhanced
penalties for driving while suspended. After being so

admonished, the offender shall be permitted, in writing, to
execute a notice declining issuance of the MDDP. This notice
shall be filed with the court and forwarded by the clerk of the
court to the Secretary. The offender may, at any time
thereafter, apply to the Secretary for issuance of a MDDP.
(a-1) A person issued a MDDP may drive for any purpose and
at any time, subject to the rules adopted by the Secretary
under subsection (g). The person must, at his or her own
expense, drive only vehicles equipped with an ignition
interlock device as defined in Section 1-129.1, but in no event
shall such person drive a commercial motor vehicle.
(a-2) Persons who are issued a MDDP and must drive
employer-owned vehicles in the course of their employment
duties may seek permission to drive an employer-owned vehicle
that does not have an ignition interlock device. The employer
shall provide to the Secretary a form, as prescribed by the
Secretary, completed by the employer verifying that the
employee must drive an employer-owned vehicle in the course of
employment. If approved by the Secretary, the form must be in
the driver's possession while operating an employer-owner
vehicle not equipped with an ignition interlock device. No
person may use this exemption to drive a school bus, school
vehicle, or a vehicle designed to transport more than 15
passengers. No person may use this exemption to drive an
employer-owned motor vehicle that is owned by an entity that is
wholly or partially owned by the person holding the MDDP, or by

a family member of the person holding the MDDP. No person may
use this exemption to drive an employer-owned vehicle that is
made available to the employee for personal use. No person may
drive the exempted vehicle more than 12 hours per day, 6 days
per week.
(a-3) Persons who are issued a MDDP and who must drive a
farm tractor to and from a farm, within 50 air miles from the
originating farm are exempt from installation of a BAIID on the
farm tractor, so long as the farm tractor is being used for the
exclusive purpose of conducting farm operations.
(b) (Blank).
(c) (Blank).
(c-1) If the holder of the MDDP is convicted of or receives
court supervision for a violation of Section 6-206.2, 6-303,
11-204, 11-204.1, 11-401, 11-501, 11-503, 11-506 or a similar
provision of a local ordinance or a similar out-of-state
offense or is convicted of or receives court supervision for
any offense for which alcohol or drugs is an element of the
offense and in which a motor vehicle was involved (for an
arrest other than the one for which the MDDP is issued), or
de-installs the BAIID without prior authorization from the
Secretary, the MDDP shall be cancelled.
(c-5) If the Secretary determines that the person seeking
the MDDP is indigent, the Secretary shall provide the person
with a written document as evidence of that determination, and
the person shall provide that written document to an ignition

interlock device provider. The provider shall install an
ignition interlock device on that person's vehicle without
charge to the person, and seek reimbursement from the Indigent
BAIID Fund. If the Secretary has deemed an offender indigent,
the BAIID provider shall also provide the normal monthly
monitoring services and the de-installation without charge to
the offender and seek reimbursement from the Indigent BAIID
Fund. Any other monetary charges, such as a lockout fee or
reset fee, shall be the responsibility of the MDDP holder. A
BAIID provider may not seek a security deposit from the
Indigent BAIID Fund.
(d) MDDP information shall be available only to the courts,
police officers, and the Secretary, except during the actual
period the MDDP is valid, during which time it shall be a
public record.
(e) (Blank).
(f) (Blank).
(g) The Secretary shall adopt rules for implementing this
Section. The rules adopted shall address issues including, but
not limited to: compliance with the requirements of the MDDP;
methods for determining compliance with those requirements;
the consequences of noncompliance with those requirements;
what constitutes a violation of the MDDP; methods for
determining indigency; and the duties of a person or entity
that supplies the ignition interlock device.
(h) The rules adopted under subsection (g) shall provide,

at a minimum, that the person is not in compliance with the
requirements of the MDDP if he or she:
(1) tampers or attempts to tamper with or circumvent
the proper operation of the ignition interlock device;
(2) provides valid breath samples that register blood
alcohol levels in excess of the number of times allowed
under the rules;
(3) fails to provide evidence sufficient to satisfy the
Secretary that the ignition interlock device has been
installed in the designated vehicle or vehicles; or
(4) fails to follow any other applicable rules adopted
by the Secretary.
(i) Any person or entity that supplies an ignition
interlock device as provided under this Section shall, in
addition to supplying only those devices which fully comply
with all the rules adopted under subsection (g), provide the
Secretary, within 7 days of inspection, all monitoring reports
of each person who has had an ignition interlock device
installed. These reports shall be furnished in a manner or form
as prescribed by the Secretary.
(j) Upon making a determination that a violation of the
requirements of the MDDP has occurred, the Secretary shall
extend the summary suspension period for an additional 3 months
beyond the originally imposed summary suspension period,
during which time the person shall only be allowed to drive
vehicles equipped with an ignition interlock device; provided

further there are no limitations on the total number of times
the summary suspension may be extended. The Secretary may,
however, limit the number of extensions imposed for violations
occurring during any one monitoring period, as set forth by
rule. Any person whose summary suspension is extended pursuant
to this Section shall have the right to contest the extension
through a hearing with the Secretary, pursuant to Section 2-118
of this Code. If the summary suspension has already terminated
prior to the Secretary receiving the monitoring report that
shows a violation, the Secretary shall be authorized to suspend
the person's driving privileges for 3 months, provided that the
Secretary may, by rule, limit the number of suspensions to be
entered pursuant to this paragraph for violations occurring
during any one monitoring period. Any person whose license is
suspended pursuant to this paragraph, after the summary
suspension had already terminated, shall have the right to
contest the suspension through a hearing with the Secretary,
pursuant to Section 2-118 of this Code. The only permit the
person shall be eligible for during this new suspension period
is a MDDP.
(k) A person who has had his or her summary suspension
extended for the third time, or has any combination of 3
extensions and new suspensions, entered as a result of a
violation that occurred while holding the MDDP, so long as the
extensions and new suspensions relate to the same summary
suspension, shall have his or her vehicle impounded for a

period of 30 days, at the person's own expense. A person who
has his or her summary suspension extended for the fourth time,
or has any combination of 4 extensions and new suspensions,
entered as a result of a violation that occurred while holding
the MDDP, so long as the extensions and new suspensions relate
to the same summary suspension, shall have his or her vehicle
subject to seizure and forfeiture. The Secretary shall notify
the prosecuting authority of any third or fourth extensions or
new suspension entered as a result of a violation that occurred
while the person held a MDDP. Upon receipt of the notification,
the prosecuting authority shall impound or forfeit the vehicle.
The impoundment or forfeiture of a vehicle shall be conducted
pursuant to the procedure specified in Article 36 of the
Criminal Code of 2012.
(l) A person whose driving privileges have been suspended
under Section 11-501.1 of this Code and who had a MDDP that was
cancelled, or would have been cancelled had notification of a
violation been received prior to expiration of the MDDP,
pursuant to subsection (c-1) of this Section, shall not be
eligible for reinstatement when the summary suspension is
scheduled to terminate. Instead, the person's driving
privileges shall be suspended for a period of not less than
twice the original summary suspension period, or for the length
of any extensions entered under subsection (j), whichever is
longer. During the period of suspension, the person shall be
eligible only to apply for a restricted driving permit. If a

restricted driving permit is granted, the offender may only
operate vehicles equipped with a BAIID in accordance with this
Section.
(m) Any person or entity that supplies an ignition
interlock device under this Section shall, for each ignition
interlock device installed, pay 5% of the total gross revenue
received for the device, including monthly monitoring fees,
into the Indigent BAIID Fund. This 5% shall be clearly
indicated as a separate surcharge on each invoice that is
issued. The Secretary shall conduct an annual review of the
fund to determine whether the surcharge is sufficient to
provide for indigent users. The Secretary may increase or
decrease this surcharge requirement as needed.
(n) Any person or entity that supplies an ignition
interlock device under this Section that is requested to
provide an ignition interlock device to a person who presents
written documentation of indigency from the Secretary, as
provided in subsection (c-5) of this Section, shall install the
device on the person's vehicle without charge to the person and
shall seek reimbursement from the Indigent BAIID Fund.
(o) The Indigent BAIID Fund is created as a special fund in
the State treasury. The Secretary shall, subject to
appropriation by the General Assembly, use all money in the
Indigent BAIID Fund to reimburse ignition interlock device
providers who have installed devices in vehicles of indigent
persons. The Secretary shall make payments to such providers

every 3 months. If the amount of money in the fund at the time
payments are made is not sufficient to pay all requests for
reimbursement submitted during that 3 month period, the
Secretary shall make payments on a pro-rata basis, and those
payments shall be considered payment in full for the requests
submitted.
(p) The Monitoring Device Driving Permit Administration
Fee Fund is created as a special fund in the State treasury.
The Secretary shall, subject to appropriation by the General
Assembly, use the money paid into this fund to offset its
administrative costs for administering MDDPs.
(q) The Secretary is authorized to prescribe such forms as
it deems necessary to carry out the provisions of this Section.
(Source: P.A. 96-184, eff. 8-10-09; 96-1526, eff. 2-14-11;
97-229; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13.)
(625 ILCS 5/6-208.1) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 6-208.1)
(Text of Section from P.A. 96-1526)
Sec. 6-208.1. Period of statutory summary alcohol, other
drug, or intoxicating compound related suspension.
(a) Unless the statutory summary suspension has been
rescinded, any person whose privilege to drive a motor vehicle
on the public highways has been summarily suspended, pursuant
to Section 11-501.1, shall not be eligible for restoration of
the privilege until the expiration of:
1. Twelve months from the effective date of the

statutory summary suspension for a refusal or failure to
complete a test or tests authorized under to determine the
alcohol, drug, or intoxicating compound concentration,
pursuant to Section 11-501.1; or
2. Six months from the effective date of the statutory
summary suspension imposed following the person's
submission to a chemical test which disclosed an alcohol
concentration of 0.08 or more, or any amount of a drug,
substance, or intoxicating compound in such person's
breath, blood, or urine resulting from the unlawful use or
consumption of cannabis listed in the Cannabis Control Act,
a controlled substance listed in the Illinois Controlled
Substances Act, an intoxicating compound listed in the Use
of Intoxicating Compounds Act, or methamphetamine as
listed in the Methamphetamine Control and Community
Protection Act, pursuant to Section 11-501.1; or
3. Three years from the effective date of the statutory
summary suspension for any person other than a first
offender who refuses or fails to complete a test or tests
to determine the alcohol, drug, or intoxicating compound
concentration pursuant to Section 11-501.1; or
4. One year from the effective date of the summary
suspension imposed for any person other than a first
offender following submission to a chemical test which
disclosed an alcohol concentration of 0.08 or more pursuant
to Section 11-501.1 or any amount of a drug, substance or

compound in such person's blood or urine resulting from the
unlawful use or consumption of cannabis listed in the
Cannabis Control Act, a controlled substance listed in the
Illinois Controlled Substances Act, an intoxicating
compound listed in the Use of Intoxicating Compounds Act,
or methamphetamine as listed in the Methamphetamine
Control and Community Protection Act; or .
5. Six months from the effective date of the statutory
summary suspension imposed for any person following
submission to a standardized field sobriety test that
disclosed impairment if the person is a qualifying patient
licensed under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis
Pilot Program Act who is in possession of a valid registry
card issued under that Act and submitted to testing under
subsection (a-5) of Section 11-501.1.
(b) Following a statutory summary suspension of the
privilege to drive a motor vehicle under Section 11-501.1,
driving privileges shall be restored unless the person is
otherwise suspended, revoked, or cancelled by this Code. If the
court has reason to believe that the person's driving privilege
should not be restored, the court shall notify the Secretary of
State prior to the expiration of the statutory summary
suspension so appropriate action may be taken pursuant to this
Code.
(c) Driving privileges may not be restored until all
applicable reinstatement fees, as provided by this Code, have

been paid to the Secretary of State and the appropriate entry
made to the driver's record.
(d) Where a driving privilege has been summarily suspended
under Section 11-501.1 and the person is subsequently convicted
of violating Section 11-501, or a similar provision of a local
ordinance, for the same incident, any period served on
statutory summary suspension shall be credited toward the
minimum period of revocation of driving privileges imposed
pursuant to Section 6-205.
(e) (Blank).
(f) (Blank).
(g) Following a statutory summary suspension of driving
privileges pursuant to Section 11-501.1 where the person was
not a first offender, as defined in Section 11-500, the
Secretary of State may not issue a restricted driving permit.
(h) (Blank).
(Source: P.A. 95-355, eff. 1-1-08; 95-400, eff. 1-1-09; 95-876,
eff. 8-21-08; 96-1526, eff. 2-14-11.)
(Text of Section from P.A. 96-1344 and 97-229)
Sec. 6-208.1. Period of statutory summary alcohol, other
drug, or intoxicating compound related suspension or
revocation.
(a) Unless the statutory summary suspension has been
rescinded, any person whose privilege to drive a motor vehicle
on the public highways has been summarily suspended, pursuant

to Section 11-501.1, shall not be eligible for restoration of
the privilege until the expiration of:
1. Twelve months from the effective date of the
statutory summary suspension for a refusal or failure to
complete a test or tests authorized under to determine the
alcohol, drug, or intoxicating compound concentration,
pursuant to Section 11-501.1, if the person was not
involved in a motor vehicle crash that caused personal
injury or death to another; or
2. Six months from the effective date of the statutory
summary suspension imposed following the person's
submission to a chemical test which disclosed an alcohol
concentration of 0.08 or more, or any amount of a drug,
substance, or intoxicating compound in such person's
breath, blood, or urine resulting from the unlawful use or
consumption of cannabis listed in the Cannabis Control Act,
a controlled substance listed in the Illinois Controlled
Substances Act, an intoxicating compound listed in the Use
of Intoxicating Compounds Act, or methamphetamine as
listed in the Methamphetamine Control and Community
Protection Act, pursuant to Section 11-501.1; or
3. Three years from the effective date of the statutory
summary suspension for any person other than a first
offender who refuses or fails to complete a test or tests
to determine the alcohol, drug, or intoxicating compound
concentration pursuant to Section 11-501.1; or

4. One year from the effective date of the summary
suspension imposed for any person other than a first
offender following submission to a chemical test which
disclosed an alcohol concentration of 0.08 or more pursuant
to Section 11-501.1 or any amount of a drug, substance or
compound in such person's blood or urine resulting from the
unlawful use or consumption of cannabis listed in the
Cannabis Control Act, a controlled substance listed in the
Illinois Controlled Substances Act, an intoxicating
compound listed in the Use of Intoxicating Compounds Act,
or methamphetamine as listed in the Methamphetamine
Control and Community Protection Act; or .
5. Six months from the effective date of the statutory
summary suspension imposed for any person following
submission to a standardized field sobriety test that
disclosed impairment if the person is a qualifying patient
licensed under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis
Pilot Program Act who is in possession of a valid registry
card issued under that Act and submitted to testing under
subsection (a-5) of Section 11-501.1.
(a-1) Unless the statutory summary revocation has been
rescinded, any person whose privilege to drive has been
summarily revoked pursuant to Section 11-501.1 may not make
application for a license or permit until the expiration of one
year from the effective date of the summary revocation.
(b) Following a statutory summary suspension of the

privilege to drive a motor vehicle under Section 11-501.1,
driving privileges shall be restored unless the person is
otherwise suspended, revoked, or cancelled by this Code. If the
court has reason to believe that the person's driving privilege
should not be restored, the court shall notify the Secretary of
State prior to the expiration of the statutory summary
suspension so appropriate action may be taken pursuant to this
Code.
(c) Driving privileges may not be restored until all
applicable reinstatement fees, as provided by this Code, have
been paid to the Secretary of State and the appropriate entry
made to the driver's record.
(d) Where a driving privilege has been summarily suspended
or revoked under Section 11-501.1 and the person is
subsequently convicted of violating Section 11-501, or a
similar provision of a local ordinance, for the same incident,
any period served on statutory summary suspension or revocation
shall be credited toward the minimum period of revocation of
driving privileges imposed pursuant to Section 6-205.
(e) Following a statutory summary suspension of driving
privileges pursuant to Section 11-501.1, for a first offender,
the circuit court shall, unless the offender has opted in
writing not to have a monitoring device driving permit issued,
order the Secretary of State to issue a monitoring device
driving permit as provided in Section 6-206.1. A monitoring
device driving permit shall not be effective prior to the 31st

day of the statutory summary suspension. A first offender who
refused chemical testing and whose driving privileges were
summarily revoked pursuant to Section 11-501.1 shall not be
eligible for a monitoring device driving permit, but may make
application for reinstatement or for a restricted driving
permit after a period of one year has elapsed from the
effective date of the revocation.
(f) (Blank).
(g) Following a statutory summary suspension of driving
privileges pursuant to Section 11-501.1 where the person was
not a first offender, as defined in Section 11-500, the
Secretary of State may not issue a restricted driving permit.
(h) (Blank).
(Source: P.A. 96-1344, eff. 7-1-11; 97-229, eff. 7-28-11.)
(625 ILCS 5/6-514) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 6-514)
Sec. 6-514. Commercial Driver's License (CDL) -
Disqualifications.
(a) A person shall be disqualified from driving a
commercial motor vehicle for a period of not less than 12
months for the first violation of:
(1) Refusing to submit to or failure to complete a test
or tests authorized under Section 11-501.1 to determine the
driver's blood concentration of alcohol, other drug, or
both, while driving a commercial motor vehicle or, if the
driver is a CDL holder, while driving a non-CMV; or

(2) Operating a commercial motor vehicle while the
alcohol concentration of the person's blood, breath or
urine is at least 0.04, or any amount of a drug, substance,
or compound in the person's blood or urine resulting from
the unlawful use or consumption of cannabis listed in the
Cannabis Control Act, a controlled substance listed in the
Illinois Controlled Substances Act, or methamphetamine as
listed in the Methamphetamine Control and Community
Protection Act as indicated by a police officer's sworn
report or other verified evidence; or operating a
non-commercial motor vehicle while the alcohol
concentration of the person's blood, breath, or urine was
above the legal limit defined in Section 11-501.1 or
11-501.8 or any amount of a drug, substance, or compound in
the person's blood or urine resulting from the unlawful use
or consumption of cannabis listed in the Cannabis Control
Act, a controlled substance listed in the Illinois
Controlled Substances Act, or methamphetamine as listed in
the Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act
as indicated by a police officer's sworn report or other
verified evidence while holding a commercial driver's
license; or
(3) Conviction for a first violation of:
(i) Driving a commercial motor vehicle or, if the
driver is a CDL holder, driving a non-CMV while under
the influence of alcohol, or any other drug, or

combination of drugs to a degree which renders such
person incapable of safely driving; or
(ii) Knowingly leaving the scene of an accident
while operating a commercial motor vehicle or, if the
driver is a CDL holder, while driving a non-CMV; or
(iii) Driving a commercial motor vehicle or, if the
driver is a CDL holder, driving a non-CMV while
committing any felony; or
(iv) Driving a commercial motor vehicle while the
person's driving privileges or driver's license or
permit is revoked, suspended, or cancelled or the
driver is disqualified from operating a commercial
motor vehicle; or
(v) Causing a fatality through the negligent
operation of a commercial motor vehicle, including but
not limited to the crimes of motor vehicle
manslaughter, homicide by a motor vehicle, and
negligent homicide.
As used in this subdivision (a)(3)(v), "motor
vehicle manslaughter" means the offense of involuntary
manslaughter if committed by means of a vehicle;
"homicide by a motor vehicle" means the offense of
first degree murder or second degree murder, if either
offense is committed by means of a vehicle; and
"negligent homicide" means reckless homicide under
Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the

Criminal Code of 2012 and aggravated driving under the
influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs,
intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination
thereof under subdivision (d)(1)(F) of Section 11-501
of this Code.
If any of the above violations or refusals occurred
while transporting hazardous material(s) required to be
placarded, the person shall be disqualified for a period of
not less than 3 years; or .
(4) If the person is a qualifying patient licensed
under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot
Program Act who is in possession of a valid registry card
issued under that Act, operating a commercial motor vehicle
under impairment resulting from the consumption of
cannabis, as determined by failure of standardized field
sobriety tests administered by a law enforcement officer as
directed by subsection (a-5) of Section 11-501.2.
(b) A person is disqualified for life for a second
conviction of any of the offenses specified in paragraph (a),
or any combination of those offenses, arising from 2 or more
separate incidents.
(c) A person is disqualified from driving a commercial
motor vehicle for life if the person either (i) uses a
commercial motor vehicle in the commission of any felony
involving the manufacture, distribution, or dispensing of a
controlled substance, or possession with intent to

manufacture, distribute or dispense a controlled substance or
(ii) if the person is a CDL holder, uses a non-CMV in the
commission of a felony involving any of those activities.
(d) The Secretary of State may, when the United States
Secretary of Transportation so authorizes, issue regulations
in which a disqualification for life under paragraph (b) may be
reduced to a period of not less than 10 years. If a reinstated
driver is subsequently convicted of another disqualifying
offense, as specified in subsection (a) of this Section, he or
she shall be permanently disqualified for life and shall be
ineligible to again apply for a reduction of the lifetime
disqualification.
(e) A person is disqualified from driving a commercial
motor vehicle for a period of not less than 2 months if
convicted of 2 serious traffic violations, committed in a
commercial motor vehicle, non-CMV while holding a CDL, or any
combination thereof, arising from separate incidents,
occurring within a 3 year period, provided the serious traffic
violation committed in a non-CMV would result in the suspension
or revocation of the CDL holder's non-CMV privileges. However,
a person will be disqualified from driving a commercial motor
vehicle for a period of not less than 4 months if convicted of
3 serious traffic violations, committed in a commercial motor
vehicle, non-CMV while holding a CDL, or any combination
thereof, arising from separate incidents, occurring within a 3
year period, provided the serious traffic violation committed

in a non-CMV would result in the suspension or revocation of
the CDL holder's non-CMV privileges. If all the convictions
occurred in a non-CMV, the disqualification shall be entered
only if the convictions would result in the suspension or
revocation of the CDL holder's non-CMV privileges.
(e-1) (Blank).
(f) Notwithstanding any other provision of this Code, any
driver disqualified from operating a commercial motor vehicle,
pursuant to this UCDLA, shall not be eligible for restoration
of commercial driving privileges during any such period of
disqualification.
(g) After suspending, revoking, or cancelling a commercial
driver's license, the Secretary of State must update the
driver's records to reflect such action within 10 days. After
suspending or revoking the driving privilege of any person who
has been issued a CDL or commercial driver instruction permit
from another jurisdiction, the Secretary shall originate
notification to such issuing jurisdiction within 10 days.
(h) The "disqualifications" referred to in this Section
shall not be imposed upon any commercial motor vehicle driver,
by the Secretary of State, unless the prohibited action(s)
occurred after March 31, 1992.
(i) A person is disqualified from driving a commercial
motor vehicle in accordance with the following:
(1) For 6 months upon a first conviction of paragraph
(2) of subsection (b) or subsection (b-3) of Section 6-507

of this Code.
(2) For 2 years upon a second conviction of paragraph
(2) of subsection (b) or subsection (b-3) or any
combination of paragraphs (2) or (3) of subsection (b) or
subsections (b-3) or (b-5) of Section 6-507 of this Code
within a 10-year period if the second conviction is a
violation of paragraph (2) of subsection (b) or subsection
(b-3).
(3) For 3 years upon a third or subsequent conviction
of paragraph (2) of subsection (b) or subsection (b-3) or
any combination of paragraphs (2) or (3) of subsection (b)
or subsections (b-3) or (b-5) of Section 6-507 of this Code
within a 10-year period if the third or subsequent
conviction is a violation of paragraph (2) of subsection
(b) or subsection (b-3).
(4) For one year upon a first conviction of paragraph
(3) of subsection (b) or subsection (b-5) of Section 6-507
of this Code.
(5) For 3 years upon a second conviction of paragraph
(3) of subsection (b) or subsection (b-5) or any
combination of paragraphs (2) or (3) of subsection (b) or
subsections (b-3) or (b-5) of Section 6-507 of this Code
within a 10-year period if the second conviction is a
violation of paragraph (3) of subsection (b) or (b-5).
(6) For 5 years upon a third or subsequent conviction
of paragraph (3) of subsection (b) or subsection (b-5) or

any combination of paragraphs (2) or (3) of subsection (b)
or subsections (b-3) or (b-5) of Section 6-507 of this Code
within a 10-year period if the third or subsequent
conviction is a violation of paragraph (3) of subsection
(b) or (b-5).
(j) Disqualification for railroad-highway grade crossing
violation.
(1) General rule. A driver who is convicted of a
violation of a federal, State, or local law or regulation
pertaining to one of the following 6 offenses at a
railroad-highway grade crossing must be disqualified from
operating a commercial motor vehicle for the period of time
specified in paragraph (2) of this subsection (j) if the
offense was committed while operating a commercial motor
vehicle:
(i) For drivers who are not required to always
stop, failing to slow down and check that the tracks
are clear of an approaching train or railroad track
equipment, as described in subsection (a-5) of Section
11-1201 of this Code;
(ii) For drivers who are not required to always
stop, failing to stop before reaching the crossing, if
the tracks are not clear, as described in subsection
(a) of Section 11-1201 of this Code;
(iii) For drivers who are always required to stop,
failing to stop before driving onto the crossing, as

described in Section 11-1202 of this Code;
(iv) For all drivers, failing to have sufficient
space to drive completely through the crossing without
stopping, as described in subsection (b) of Section
11-1425 of this Code;
(v) For all drivers, failing to obey a traffic
control device or the directions of an enforcement
official at the crossing, as described in subdivision
(a)2 of Section 11-1201 of this Code;
(vi) For all drivers, failing to negotiate a
crossing because of insufficient undercarriage
clearance, as described in subsection (d-1) of Section
11-1201 of this Code.
(2) Duration of disqualification for railroad-highway
grade crossing violation.
(i) First violation. A driver must be disqualified
from operating a commercial motor vehicle for not less
than 60 days if the driver is convicted of a violation
described in paragraph (1) of this subsection (j) and,
in the three-year period preceding the conviction, the
driver had no convictions for a violation described in
paragraph (1) of this subsection (j).
(ii) Second violation. A driver must be
disqualified from operating a commercial motor vehicle
for not less than 120 days if the driver is convicted
of a violation described in paragraph (1) of this

subsection (j) and, in the three-year period preceding
the conviction, the driver had one other conviction for
a violation described in paragraph (1) of this
subsection (j) that was committed in a separate
incident.
(iii) Third or subsequent violation. A driver must
be disqualified from operating a commercial motor
vehicle for not less than one year if the driver is
convicted of a violation described in paragraph (1) of
this subsection (j) and, in the three-year period
preceding the conviction, the driver had 2 or more
other convictions for violations described in
paragraph (1) of this subsection (j) that were
committed in separate incidents.
(k) Upon notification of a disqualification of a driver's
commercial motor vehicle privileges imposed by the U.S.
Department of Transportation, Federal Motor Carrier Safety
Administration, in accordance with 49 C.F.R. 383.52, the
Secretary of State shall immediately record to the driving
record the notice of disqualification and confirm to the driver
the action that has been taken.
(Source: P.A. 96-544, eff. 1-1-10; 96-1080, eff. 7-16-10;
96-1244, eff. 1-1-11; 97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 97-1150, eff.
1-25-13.)
(625 ILCS 5/11-501) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 11-501)

Sec. 11-501. Driving while under the influence of alcohol,
other drug or drugs, intoxicating compound or compounds or any
combination thereof.
(a) A person shall not drive or be in actual physical
control of any vehicle within this State while:
(1) the alcohol concentration in the person's blood or
breath is 0.08 or more based on the definition of blood and
breath units in Section 11-501.2;
(2) under the influence of alcohol;
(3) under the influence of any intoxicating compound or
combination of intoxicating compounds to a degree that
renders the person incapable of driving safely;
(4) under the influence of any other drug or
combination of drugs to a degree that renders the person
incapable of safely driving;
(5) under the combined influence of alcohol, other drug
or drugs, or intoxicating compound or compounds to a degree
that renders the person incapable of safely driving; or
(6) there is any amount of a drug, substance, or
compound in the person's breath, blood, or urine resulting
from the unlawful use or consumption of cannabis listed in
the Cannabis Control Act, a controlled substance listed in
the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, an intoxicating
compound listed in the Use of Intoxicating Compounds Act,
or methamphetamine as listed in the Methamphetamine
Control and Community Protection Act. Subject to all other

requirements and provisions under this Section, this
paragraph (6) does not apply to the lawful consumption of
cannabis by a qualifying patient licensed under the
Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act who
is in possession of a valid registry card issued under that
Act, unless that person is impaired by the use of cannabis.
(b) The fact that any person charged with violating this
Section is or has been legally entitled to use alcohol,
cannabis under the Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot
Program Act, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or
compounds, or any combination thereof, shall not constitute a
defense against any charge of violating this Section.
(c) Penalties.
(1) Except as otherwise provided in this Section, any
person convicted of violating subsection (a) of this
Section is guilty of a Class A misdemeanor.
(2) A person who violates subsection (a) or a similar
provision a second time shall be sentenced to a mandatory
minimum term of either 5 days of imprisonment or 240 hours
of community service in addition to any other criminal or
administrative sanction.
(3) A person who violates subsection (a) is subject to
6 months of imprisonment, an additional mandatory minimum
fine of $1,000, and 25 days of community service in a
program benefiting children if the person was transporting
a person under the age of 16 at the time of the violation.

(4) A person who violates subsection (a) a first time,
if the alcohol concentration in his or her blood, breath,
or urine was 0.16 or more based on the definition of blood,
breath, or urine units in Section 11-501.2, shall be
subject, in addition to any other penalty that may be
imposed, to a mandatory minimum of 100 hours of community
service and a mandatory minimum fine of $500.
(5) A person who violates subsection (a) a second time,
if at the time of the second violation the alcohol
concentration in his or her blood, breath, or urine was
0.16 or more based on the definition of blood, breath, or
urine units in Section 11-501.2, shall be subject, in
addition to any other penalty that may be imposed, to a
mandatory minimum of 2 days of imprisonment and a mandatory
minimum fine of $1,250.
(d) Aggravated driving under the influence of alcohol,
other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or compounds, or
any combination thereof.
(1) Every person convicted of committing a violation of
this Section shall be guilty of aggravated driving under
the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, or
intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination
thereof if:
(A) the person committed a violation of subsection
(a) or a similar provision for the third or subsequent
time;

(B) the person committed a violation of subsection
(a) while driving a school bus with persons 18 years of
age or younger on board;
(C) the person in committing a violation of
subsection (a) was involved in a motor vehicle accident
that resulted in great bodily harm or permanent
disability or disfigurement to another, when the
violation was a proximate cause of the injuries;
(D) the person committed a violation of subsection
(a) and has been previously convicted of violating
Section 9-3 of the Criminal Code of 1961 or the
Criminal Code of 2012 or a similar provision of a law
of another state relating to reckless homicide in which
the person was determined to have been under the
influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs, or
intoxicating compound or compounds as an element of the
offense or the person has previously been convicted
under subparagraph (C) or subparagraph (F) of this
paragraph (1);
(E) the person, in committing a violation of
subsection (a) while driving at any speed in a school
speed zone at a time when a speed limit of 20 miles per
hour was in effect under subsection (a) of Section
11-605 of this Code, was involved in a motor vehicle
accident that resulted in bodily harm, other than great
bodily harm or permanent disability or disfigurement,

to another person, when the violation of subsection (a)
was a proximate cause of the bodily harm;
(F) the person, in committing a violation of
subsection (a), was involved in a motor vehicle,
snowmobile, all-terrain vehicle, or watercraft
accident that resulted in the death of another person,
when the violation of subsection (a) was a proximate
cause of the death;
(G) the person committed a violation of subsection
(a) during a period in which the defendant's driving
privileges are revoked or suspended, where the
revocation or suspension was for a violation of
subsection (a) or a similar provision, Section
11-501.1, paragraph (b) of Section 11-401, or for
reckless homicide as defined in Section 9-3 of the
Criminal Code of 1961 or the Criminal Code of 2012;
(H) the person committed the violation while he or
she did not possess a driver's license or permit or a
restricted driving permit or a judicial driving permit
or a monitoring device driving permit;
(I) the person committed the violation while he or
she knew or should have known that the vehicle he or
she was driving was not covered by a liability
insurance policy;
(J) the person in committing a violation of
subsection (a) was involved in a motor vehicle accident

that resulted in bodily harm, but not great bodily
harm, to the child under the age of 16 being
transported by the person, if the violation was the
proximate cause of the injury; or
(K) the person in committing a second violation of
subsection (a) or a similar provision was transporting
a person under the age of 16.
(2)(A) Except as provided otherwise, a person
convicted of aggravated driving under the influence of
alcohol, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or
compounds, or any combination thereof is guilty of a Class
4 felony.
(B) A third violation of this Section or a similar
provision is a Class 2 felony. If at the time of the third
violation the alcohol concentration in his or her blood,
breath, or urine was 0.16 or more based on the definition
of blood, breath, or urine units in Section 11-501.2, a
mandatory minimum of 90 days of imprisonment and a
mandatory minimum fine of $2,500 shall be imposed in
addition to any other criminal or administrative sanction.
If at the time of the third violation, the defendant was
transporting a person under the age of 16, a mandatory fine
of $25,000 and 25 days of community service in a program
benefiting children shall be imposed in addition to any
other criminal or administrative sanction.
(C) A fourth violation of this Section or a similar

provision is a Class 2 felony, for which a sentence of
probation or conditional discharge may not be imposed. If
at the time of the violation, the alcohol concentration in
the defendant's blood, breath, or urine was 0.16 or more
based on the definition of blood, breath, or urine units in
Section 11-501.2, a mandatory minimum fine of $5,000 shall
be imposed in addition to any other criminal or
administrative sanction. If at the time of the fourth
violation, the defendant was transporting a person under
the age of 16 a mandatory fine of $25,000 and 25 days of
community service in a program benefiting children shall be
imposed in addition to any other criminal or administrative
sanction.
(D) A fifth violation of this Section or a similar
provision is a Class 1 felony, for which a sentence of
probation or conditional discharge may not be imposed. If
at the time of the violation, the alcohol concentration in
the defendant's blood, breath, or urine was 0.16 or more
based on the definition of blood, breath, or urine units in
Section 11-501.2, a mandatory minimum fine of $5,000 shall
be imposed in addition to any other criminal or
administrative sanction. If at the time of the fifth
violation, the defendant was transporting a person under
the age of 16, a mandatory fine of $25,000, and 25 days of
community service in a program benefiting children shall be
imposed in addition to any other criminal or administrative

sanction.
(E) A sixth or subsequent violation of this Section or
similar provision is a Class X felony. If at the time of
the violation, the alcohol concentration in the
defendant's blood, breath, or urine was 0.16 or more based
on the definition of blood, breath, or urine units in
Section 11-501.2, a mandatory minimum fine of $5,000 shall
be imposed in addition to any other criminal or
administrative sanction. If at the time of the violation,
the defendant was transporting a person under the age of
16, a mandatory fine of $25,000 and 25 days of community
service in a program benefiting children shall be imposed
in addition to any other criminal or administrative
sanction.
(F) For a violation of subparagraph (C) of paragraph
(1) of this subsection (d), the defendant, if sentenced to
a term of imprisonment, shall be sentenced to not less than
one year nor more than 12 years.
(G) A violation of subparagraph (F) of paragraph (1) of
this subsection (d) is a Class 2 felony, for which the
defendant, unless the court determines that extraordinary
circumstances exist and require probation, shall be
sentenced to: (i) a term of imprisonment of not less than 3
years and not more than 14 years if the violation resulted
in the death of one person; or (ii) a term of imprisonment
of not less than 6 years and not more than 28 years if the

violation resulted in the deaths of 2 or more persons.
(H) For a violation of subparagraph (J) of paragraph
(1) of this subsection (d), a mandatory fine of $2,500, and
25 days of community service in a program benefiting
children shall be imposed in addition to any other criminal
or administrative sanction.
(I) A violation of subparagraph (K) of paragraph (1) of
this subsection (d), is a Class 2 felony and a mandatory
fine of $2,500, and 25 days of community service in a
program benefiting children shall be imposed in addition to
any other criminal or administrative sanction. If the child
being transported suffered bodily harm, but not great
bodily harm, in a motor vehicle accident, and the violation
was the proximate cause of that injury, a mandatory fine of
$5,000 and 25 days of community service in a program
benefiting children shall be imposed in addition to any
other criminal or administrative sanction.
(J) A violation of subparagraph (D) of paragraph (1) of
this subsection (d) is a Class 3 felony, for which a
sentence of probation or conditional discharge may not be
imposed.
(3) Any person sentenced under this subsection (d) who
receives a term of probation or conditional discharge must
serve a minimum term of either 480 hours of community
service or 10 days of imprisonment as a condition of the
probation or conditional discharge in addition to any other

criminal or administrative sanction.
(e) Any reference to a prior violation of subsection (a) or
a similar provision includes any violation of a provision of a
local ordinance or a provision of a law of another state or an
offense committed on a military installation that is similar to
a violation of subsection (a) of this Section.
(f) The imposition of a mandatory term of imprisonment or
assignment of community service for a violation of this Section
shall not be suspended or reduced by the court.
(g) Any penalty imposed for driving with a license that has
been revoked for a previous violation of subsection (a) of this
Section shall be in addition to the penalty imposed for any
subsequent violation of subsection (a).
(h) For any prosecution under this Section, a certified
copy of the driving abstract of the defendant shall be admitted
as proof of any prior conviction.
(Source: P.A. 96-289, eff. 8-11-09; 97-1150, eff. 1-25-13.)
(625 ILCS 5/11-501.1)
Sec. 11-501.1. Suspension of drivers license; statutory
summary alcohol, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound
or compounds related suspension or revocation; implied
consent.
(a) Any person who drives or is in actual physical control
of a motor vehicle upon the public highways of this State shall
be deemed to have given consent, subject to the provisions of

Section 11-501.2, to a chemical test or tests of blood, breath,
or urine for the purpose of determining the content of alcohol,
other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or compounds or
any combination thereof in the person's blood if arrested, as
evidenced by the issuance of a Uniform Traffic Ticket, for any
offense as defined in Section 11-501 or a similar provision of
a local ordinance, or if arrested for violating Section 11-401.
If a law enforcement officer has probable cause to believe the
person was under the influence of alcohol, other drug or drugs,
intoxicating compound or compounds, or any combination
thereof, the law enforcement officer shall request a chemical
test or tests which shall be administered at the direction of
the arresting officer. The law enforcement agency employing the
officer shall designate which of the aforesaid tests shall be
administered. A urine test may be administered even after a
blood or breath test or both has been administered. For
purposes of this Section, an Illinois law enforcement officer
of this State who is investigating the person for any offense
defined in Section 11-501 may travel into an adjoining state,
where the person has been transported for medical care, to
complete an investigation and to request that the person submit
to the test or tests set forth in this Section. The
requirements of this Section that the person be arrested are
inapplicable, but the officer shall issue the person a Uniform
Traffic Ticket for an offense as defined in Section 11-501 or a
similar provision of a local ordinance prior to requesting that

the person submit to the test or tests. The issuance of the
Uniform Traffic Ticket shall not constitute an arrest, but
shall be for the purpose of notifying the person that he or she
is subject to the provisions of this Section and of the
officer's belief of the existence of probable cause to arrest.
Upon returning to this State, the officer shall file the
Uniform Traffic Ticket with the Circuit Clerk of the county
where the offense was committed, and shall seek the issuance of
an arrest warrant or a summons for the person.
(a-5) In addition to the requirements and provisions of
subsection (a), any person issued a registry card under the
Compassionate Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act who
drives or is in actual physical control of a motor vehicle upon
the public highways of this State shall be deemed to have given
consent, subject to the provisions of Section 11-501.2, to
standardized field sobriety tests approved by the National
Highway Traffic Safety Administration if arrested, as
evidenced by the issuance of a Uniform Traffic Ticket, for any
offense as defined in Section 11-501 or a similar provision of
a local ordinance, or if arrested for violating Section 11-401.
The person's status as a registry card holder alone is not a
sufficient basis for conducting these tests. The officer must
have an independent, cannabis-related factual basis giving
reasonable suspicion that the person is driving under the
influence of cannabis for conducting standardized field
sobriety tests. This independent basis of suspicion shall be

listed on the standardized field sobriety test results and any
influence reports made by the arresting officer.
(b) Any person who is dead, unconscious, or who is
otherwise in a condition rendering the person incapable of
refusal, shall be deemed not to have withdrawn the consent
provided by paragraph (a) of this Section and the test or tests
may be administered, subject to the provisions of Section
11-501.2.
(c) A person requested to submit to a test as provided
above shall be warned by the law enforcement officer requesting
the test that a refusal to submit to the test will result in
the statutory summary suspension of the person's privilege to
operate a motor vehicle, as provided in Section 6-208.1 of this
Code, and will also result in the disqualification of the
person's privilege to operate a commercial motor vehicle, as
provided in Section 6-514 of this Code, if the person is a CDL
holder. The person shall also be warned that a refusal to
submit to the test, when the person was involved in a motor
vehicle accident that caused personal injury or death to
another, will result in the statutory summary revocation of the
person's privilege to operate a motor vehicle, as provided in
Section 6-208.1, and will also result in the disqualification
of the person's privilege to operate a commercial motor
vehicle, as provided in Section 6-514 of this Code, if the
person is a CDL holder. The person shall also be warned by the
law enforcement officer that if the person submits to the test

or tests provided in paragraph (a) of this Section and the
alcohol concentration in the person's blood or breath is 0.08
or greater, or any amount of a drug, substance, or compound
resulting from the unlawful use or consumption of cannabis as
covered by the Cannabis Control Act, a controlled substance
listed in the Illinois Controlled Substances Act, an
intoxicating compound listed in the Use of Intoxicating
Compounds Act, or methamphetamine as listed in the
Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act is
detected in the person's blood or urine, or if the person fails
the standardized field sobriety tests as required by paragraph
(a-5), a statutory summary suspension of the person's privilege
to operate a motor vehicle, as provided in Sections 6-208.1 and
11-501.1 of this Code, and a disqualification of the person's
privilege to operate a commercial motor vehicle, as provided in
Section 6-514 of this Code, if the person is a CDL holder, will
be imposed.
A person who is under the age of 21 at the time the person
is requested to submit to a test as provided above shall, in
addition to the warnings provided for in this Section, be
further warned by the law enforcement officer requesting the
test that if the person submits to the test or tests provided
in paragraph (a) or (a-5) of this Section and the alcohol
concentration in the person's blood or breath is greater than
0.00 and less than 0.08, a suspension of the person's privilege
to operate a motor vehicle, as provided under Sections 6-208.2

and 11-501.8 of this Code, will be imposed. The results of this
test shall be admissible in a civil or criminal action or
proceeding arising from an arrest for an offense as defined in
Section 11-501 of this Code or a similar provision of a local
ordinance or pursuant to Section 11-501.4 in prosecutions for
reckless homicide brought under the Criminal Code of 1961 or
the Criminal Code of 2012. These test results, however, shall
be admissible only in actions or proceedings directly related
to the incident upon which the test request was made.
(d) If the person refuses testing or submits to a test that
discloses an alcohol concentration of 0.08 or more, or any
amount of a drug, substance, or intoxicating compound in the
person's breath, blood, or urine resulting from the unlawful
use or consumption of cannabis listed in the Cannabis Control
Act, a controlled substance listed in the Illinois Controlled
Substances Act, an intoxicating compound listed in the Use of
Intoxicating Compounds Act, or methamphetamine as listed in the
Methamphetamine Control and Community Protection Act, the law
enforcement officer shall immediately submit a sworn report to
the circuit court of venue and the Secretary of State,
certifying that the test or tests was or were requested under
paragraph (a) or (a-5) and the person refused to submit to a
test, or tests, or submitted to testing that disclosed an
alcohol concentration of 0.08 or more. A sworn report
indicating refusal or failure of testing under paragraph (a-5)
of this Section shall include the factual basis of the

arresting officer's reasonable suspicion that the person was
under the influence of cannabis. The person's possession of a
valid registry card under the Compassionate Use of Medical
Cannabis Pilot Program Act alone is not sufficient basis for
reasonable suspicion.
(e) Upon receipt of the sworn report of a law enforcement
officer submitted under paragraph (d), the Secretary of State
shall enter the statutory summary suspension or revocation and
disqualification for the periods specified in Sections 6-208.1
and 6-514, respectively, and effective as provided in paragraph
(g).
If the person is a first offender as defined in Section
11-500 of this Code, and is not convicted of a violation of
Section 11-501 of this Code or a similar provision of a local
ordinance, then reports received by the Secretary of State
under this Section shall, except during the actual time the
Statutory Summary Suspension is in effect, be privileged
information and for use only by the courts, police officers,
prosecuting authorities or the Secretary of State, unless the
person is a CDL holder, is operating a commercial motor vehicle
or vehicle required to be placarded for hazardous materials, in
which case the suspension shall not be privileged. Reports
received by the Secretary of State under this Section shall
also be made available to the parent or guardian of a person
under the age of 18 years that holds an instruction permit or a
graduated driver's license, regardless of whether the

statutory summary suspension is in effect. A statutory summary
revocation shall not be privileged information.
(f) The law enforcement officer submitting the sworn report
under paragraph (d) shall serve immediate notice of the
statutory summary suspension or revocation on the person and
the suspension or revocation and disqualification shall be
effective as provided in paragraph (g).
(1) In cases where the blood alcohol concentration of
0.08 or greater or any amount of a drug, substance, or
compound resulting from the unlawful use or consumption of
cannabis as covered by the Cannabis Control Act, a
controlled substance listed in the Illinois Controlled
Substances Act, an intoxicating compound listed in the Use
of Intoxicating Compounds Act, or methamphetamine as
listed in the Methamphetamine Control and Community
Protection Act is established by a subsequent analysis of
blood or urine collected at the time of arrest, the
arresting officer or arresting agency shall give notice as
provided in this Section or by deposit in the United States
mail of the notice in an envelope with postage prepaid and
addressed to the person at his address as shown on the
Uniform Traffic Ticket and the statutory summary
suspension and disqualification shall begin as provided in
paragraph (g). The officer shall confiscate any Illinois
driver's license or permit on the person at the time of
arrest. If the person has a valid driver's license or

permit, the officer shall issue the person a receipt, in a
form prescribed by the Secretary of State, that will allow
that person to drive during the periods provided for in
paragraph (g). The officer shall immediately forward the
driver's license or permit to the circuit court of venue
along with the sworn report provided for in paragraph (d).
(2) In cases indicating refusal or failure of testing
under paragraph (a-5) of this Section the arresting officer
or arresting agency shall give notice as provided in this
Section or by deposit in the United States mail of the
notice in an envelope with postage prepaid and addressed to
the person at his or her address as shown on the Uniform
Traffic Ticket and the statutory summary suspension and
disqualification shall begin as provided in paragraph (g).
This notice shall include the factual basis of the
arresting officer's reasonable suspicion that the person
was under the influence of cannabis. The person's
possession of a valid registry card under the Compassionate
Use of Medical Cannabis Pilot Program Act alone is not
sufficient basis for reasonable suspicion.
(g) The statutory summary suspension or revocation and
disqualification referred to in this Section shall take effect
on the 46th day following the date the notice of the statutory
summary suspension or revocation was given to the person.
(h) The following procedure shall apply whenever a person
is arrested for any offense as defined in Section 11-501 or a

similar provision of a local ordinance:
Upon receipt of the sworn report from the law enforcement
officer, the Secretary of State shall confirm the statutory
summary suspension or revocation by mailing a notice of the
effective date of the suspension or revocation to the person
and the court of venue. The Secretary of State shall also mail
notice of the effective date of the disqualification to the
person. However, should the sworn report be defective by not
containing sufficient information or be completed in error, the
confirmation of the statutory summary suspension or revocation
shall not be mailed to the person or entered to the record;
instead, the sworn report shall be forwarded to the court of
venue with a copy returned to the issuing agency identifying
any defect.
(i) As used in this Section, "personal injury" includes any
Type A injury as indicated on the traffic accident report
completed by a law enforcement officer that requires immediate
professional attention in either a doctor's office or a medical
facility. A Type A injury includes severely bleeding wounds,
distorted extremities, and injuries that require the injured
party to be carried from the scene.
(Source: P.A. 96-1080, eff. 7-16-10; 96-1344, eff. 7-1-11;
97-333, eff. 8-12-11; 97-471, eff. 8-22-11; 97-1150, eff.
1-25-13.)
(625 ILCS 5/11-501.2) (from Ch. 95 1/2, par. 11-501.2)

Sec. 11-501.2. Chemical and other tests.
(a) Upon the trial of any civil or criminal action or
proceeding arising out of an arrest for an offense as defined
in Section 11-501 or a similar local ordinance or proceedings
pursuant to Section 2-118.1, evidence of the concentration of
alcohol, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or
compounds, or any combination thereof in a person's blood or
breath at the time alleged, as determined by analysis of the
person's blood, urine, breath or other bodily substance, shall
be admissible. Where such test is made the following provisions
shall apply:
1. Chemical analyses of the person's blood, urine,
breath or other bodily substance to be considered valid
under the provisions of this Section shall have been
performed according to standards promulgated by the
Department of State Police by a licensed physician,
registered nurse, trained phlebotomist, certified
paramedic, or other individual possessing a valid permit
issued by that Department for this purpose. The Director of
State Police is authorized to approve satisfactory
techniques or methods, to ascertain the qualifications and
competence of individuals to conduct such analyses, to
issue permits which shall be subject to termination or
revocation at the discretion of that Department and to
certify the accuracy of breath testing equipment. The
Department of State Police shall prescribe regulations as

necessary to implement this Section.
2. When a person in this State shall submit to a blood
test at the request of a law enforcement officer under the
provisions of Section 11-501.1, only a physician
authorized to practice medicine, a licensed physician
assistant, a licensed advanced practice nurse, a
registered nurse, trained phlebotomist, or certified
paramedic, or other qualified person approved by the
Department of State Police may withdraw blood for the
purpose of determining the alcohol, drug, or alcohol and
drug content therein. This limitation shall not apply to
the taking of breath or urine specimens.
When a blood test of a person who has been taken to an
adjoining state for medical treatment is requested by an
Illinois law enforcement officer, the blood may be
withdrawn only by a physician authorized to practice
medicine in the adjoining state, a licensed physician
assistant, a licensed advanced practice nurse, a
registered nurse, a trained phlebotomist acting under the
direction of the physician, or certified paramedic. The law
enforcement officer requesting the test shall take custody
of the blood sample, and the blood sample shall be analyzed
by a laboratory certified by the Department of State Police
for that purpose.
3. The person tested may have a physician, or a
qualified technician, chemist, registered nurse, or other

qualified person of their own choosing administer a
chemical test or tests in addition to any administered at
the direction of a law enforcement officer. The failure or
inability to obtain an additional test by a person shall
not preclude the admission of evidence relating to the test
or tests taken at the direction of a law enforcement
officer.
4. Upon the request of the person who shall submit to a
chemical test or tests at the request of a law enforcement
officer, full information concerning the test or tests
shall be made available to the person or such person's
attorney.
5. Alcohol concentration shall mean either grams of
alcohol per 100 milliliters of blood or grams of alcohol
per 210 liters of breath.
(a-5) Law enforcement officials may use standardized field
sobriety tests approved by the National Highway Traffic Safety
Administration when conducting investigations of a violation
of Section 11-501 or similar local ordinance by drivers
suspected of driving under the influence of cannabis. The
General Assembly finds that standardized field sobriety tests
approved by the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration
are divided attention tasks that are intended to determine if a
person is under the influence of cannabis. The purpose of these
tests is to determine the effect of the use of cannabis on a
person's capacity to think and act with ordinary care and

therefore operate a motor vehicle safely. Therefore, the
results of these standardized field sobriety tests,
appropriately administered, shall be admissible in the trial of
any civil or criminal action or proceeding arising out of an
arrest for a cannabis-related offense as defined in Section
11-501 or a similar local ordinance or proceedings under
Section 2-118.1. Where a test is made the following provisions
shall apply:
1. The person tested may have a physician, or a
qualified technician, chemist, registered nurse, or other
qualified person of their own choosing administer a
chemical test or tests in addition to the standardized
field sobriety test or tests administered at the direction
of a law enforcement officer. The failure or inability to
obtain an additional test by a person does not preclude the
admission of evidence relating to the test or tests taken
at the direction of a law enforcement officer.
2. Upon the request of the person who shall submit to a
standardized field sobriety test or tests at the request of
a law enforcement officer, full information concerning the
test or tests shall be made available to the person or the
person's attorney.
3. At the trial of any civil or criminal action or
proceeding arising out of an arrest for an offense as
defined in Section 11-501 or a similar local ordinance or
proceedings under Section 2-118.1 in which the results of

these standardized field sobriety tests are admitted, the
cardholder may present and the trier of fact may consider
evidence that the card holder lacked the physical capacity
to perform the standardized field sobriety tests.
(b) Upon the trial of any civil or criminal action or
proceeding arising out of acts alleged to have been committed
by any person while driving or in actual physical control of a
vehicle while under the influence of alcohol, the concentration
of alcohol in the person's blood or breath at the time alleged
as shown by analysis of the person's blood, urine, breath, or
other bodily substance shall give rise to the following
presumptions:
1. If there was at that time an alcohol concentration
of 0.05 or less, it shall be presumed that the person was
not under the influence of alcohol.
2. If there was at that time an alcohol concentration
in excess of 0.05 but less than 0.08, such facts shall not
give rise to any presumption that the person was or was not
under the influence of alcohol, but such fact may be
considered with other competent evidence in determining
whether the person was under the influence of alcohol.
3. If there was at that time an alcohol concentration
of 0.08 or more, it shall be presumed that the person was
under the influence of alcohol.
4. The foregoing provisions of this Section shall not
be construed as limiting the introduction of any other

relevant evidence bearing upon the question whether the
person was under the influence of alcohol.
(c) 1. If a person under arrest refuses to submit to a
chemical test under the provisions of Section 11-501.1,
evidence of refusal shall be admissible in any civil or
criminal action or proceeding arising out of acts alleged to
have been committed while the person under the influence of
alcohol, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or
compounds, or any combination thereof was driving or in actual
physical control of a motor vehicle.
2. Notwithstanding any ability to refuse under this Code to
submit to these tests or any ability to revoke the implied
consent to these tests, if a law enforcement officer has
probable cause to believe that a motor vehicle driven by or in
actual physical control of a person under the influence of
alcohol, other drug or drugs, or intoxicating compound or
compounds, or any combination thereof has caused the death or
personal injury to another, the law enforcement officer shall
request, and that person shall submit, upon the request of a
law enforcement officer, to a chemical test or tests of his or
her blood, breath or urine for the purpose of determining the
alcohol content thereof or the presence of any other drug or
combination of both.
This provision does not affect the applicability of or
imposition of driver's license sanctions under Section
11-501.1 of this Code.

3. For purposes of this Section, a personal injury includes
any Type A injury as indicated on the traffic accident report
completed by a law enforcement officer that requires immediate
professional attention in either a doctor's office or a medical
facility. A Type A injury includes severe bleeding wounds,
distorted extremities, and injuries that require the injured
party to be carried from the scene.
(Source: P.A. 96-289, eff. 8-11-09; 97-450, eff. 8-19-11;
97-471, eff. 8-22-11; 97-813, eff. 7-13-12.)
(625 ILCS 5/11-502.1 new)
Sec. 11-502.1. Possession of medical cannabis in a motor
vehicle.
(a) No driver, who is a medical cannabis cardholder, may
use medical cannabis within the passenger area of any motor
vehicle upon a highway in this State.
(b) No driver, who is a medical cannabis cardholder, a
medical cannabis designated caregiver, medical cannabis
cultivation center agent, or dispensing organization agent may
possess medical cannabis within any area of any motor vehicle
upon a highway in this State except in a sealed, tamper-evident
medical cannabis container.
(c) No passenger, who is a medical cannabis card holder, a
medical cannabis designated caregiver, or medical cannabis
dispensing organization agent may possess medical cannabis
within any passenger area of any motor vehicle upon a highway

in this State except in a sealed, tamper-evident medical
cannabis container.
(d) Any person who violates subsections (a) through (c) of
this Section:
(1) commits a Class A misdemeanor;
(2) shall be subject to revocation of his or her
medical cannabis card for a period of 2 years from the end
of the sentence imposed;
(4) shall be subject to revocation of his or her status
as a medical cannabis caregiver, medical cannabis
cultivation center agent, or medical cannabis dispensing
organization agent for a period of 2 years from the end of
the sentence imposed.
Section 997. Severability. The provisions of this Act are
severable under Section 1.31 of the Statute on Statutes.
Section 999. Effective date. This Act takes effect on
January 1, 2014.