Bill Text: CA AB112 | 2019-2020 | Regular Session | Amended


Bill Title: State government.

Spectrum: Partisan Bill (? 1-0)

Status: (Engrossed) 2019-09-13 - Re-referred to Com. on B. & F.R. [AB112 Detail]

Download: California-2019-AB112-Amended.html

Amended  IN  Senate  September 09, 2019
Amended  IN  Senate  September 06, 2019

CALIFORNIA LEGISLATURE— 2019–2020 REGULAR SESSION

Assembly Bill
No. 112


Introduced by Committee on Budget (Assembly Members Ting (Chair), Arambula, Bloom, Chiu, Cooper, Frazier, Cristina Garcia, Jones-Sawyer, Limón, McCarty, Medina, Mullin, Muratsuchi, Nazarian, O’Donnell, Ramos, Reyes, Luz Rivas, Blanca Rubio, Mark Stone, Weber, Wicks, and Wood)

December 03, 2018


An act to amend Section 23320 of the Business and Professions Code, to amend Sections 12815, 16418.8, 19822.3, 20397, and 100002 of, and to repeal Section 100006 of, the Government Code, to amend Section 11495 of the Health and Safety Code, to amend Section 1019.2 of, and to add Section 1019.3 1019.4 to, the Labor Code, to amend Sections 6126, 6126.2, 6126.3, 6126.5, and 6133 of the Penal Code, and to amend Sections 27150.2, 27151, and 40610 of the Vehicle Code, relating to state government, and making an appropriation therefor, to take effect immediately, bill related to the budget.


LEGISLATIVE COUNSEL'S DIGEST


AB 112, as amended, Committee on Budget. State government.
(1) The Alcoholic Beverage Control Act, administered by the Department of Alcoholic Beverage Control, regulates the granting of licenses for the manufacture, distribution, and sale of alcoholic beverages within the state. The act provides for the issuance of licenses for which various fees, including annual fees, are charged depending upon the type of license issued.
This bill would make a correction in the provisions that specify annual licensing fees.
(2) Existing law creates the Office of Digital Innovation, which is headed by its director, with the mission of delivering better government services to the people of California through technology and design, as specified. Existing law creates the Digital Innovation Services Revolving Fund, which receives all revenues from the sale of services by the office and all other moneys properly credited to the office, for the support of the office’s activities. Existing law requires the office to dispose of all records, data, and other documentation in accordance with applicable state law upon completion of each engagement. Existing law requires the director, beginning on or before February 1, 2021, to submit an annual report to the Chairperson of the Joint Legislative Budget Committee or that person’s designee that includes a listing and descriptions of all expenditures made from the fund as well as all revenues received by the fund.
This bill would delete the requirement that the Office of Digital Innovation dispose of all records, data, and other documentation upon completion of an engagement. The bill would require that the above-described report also include a summary of the activities of the office. The bill also would make technical, nonsubstantive changes to these provisions.
(3) Existing provisions of the California Constitution, approved by the electors on November, 4, 2014, establish the Budget Stabilization Account in the General Fund and require the Controller, on or before October 1 of the 2015–16 fiscal year and each fiscal year thereafter, to transfer from the General Fund to the Budget Stabilization Account amounts that include a sum equal to 1.5% of the estimated amount of General Fund revenues for that fiscal year. These existing provisions prohibit for each fiscal year transfers to the account that would cause the balance in the account to exceed 10% of the amount of General Fund proceeds of taxes for the fiscal year, as estimated by the Department of Finance. These existing provisions authorize, for any fiscal year, General Fund proceeds of taxes that, but for the above prohibition, would have been transferred to the account, to be expended only for infrastructure, as prescribed. Existing law establishes the Budget Deficit Savings Account in the State Treasury and requires deposits to the Budget Stabilization Account for the 2018–19 fiscal year, above the amounts required by existing provisions of the California Constitution, as defined and appropriated in the 2018 Budget Act, to be transferred from the General Fund to the Budget Deficit Savings Account. Existing law requires the Controller to transfer certain moneys from the Budget Deficit Savings Account to the Budget Stabilization Account, based on an updated projection as calculated by the department, upon order of that department no earlier than May 31, 2019. Existing law requires the Controller, upon order of the department, to transfer 50% of the remaining amounts deposited in the Budget Deficit Savings Account that are not transferred to the Budget Stabilization Account to the Safety Net Reserve Fund in the State Treasury.
This bill would specify that the purpose of the Budget Deficit Savings Account is to serve as a supplementary savings account to mitigate the effects of actual or future projected budget deficits in the General Fund or other state funds. The bill would also authorize the Legislature, in any fiscal year, to transfer funds into the Budget Deficit Savings Account or authorize the transfer of some or all of the balance of the Budget Deficit Savings Account to the General Fund or any other state fund.
(4) Under existing law and bargaining agreements, the state reimburses employees for all necessary and actual expenses incurred during travel on official state business. Existing law requires state agencies to implement and use the California Automated Travel Expense Reimbursement System (CalATERS) established by the Controller to process travel claims, unless an exemption request is approved. Existing law requires payment for the services of the Controller in implementing these provisions to be made by direct transfer, subject to specified limitations.
This bill would repeal the provisions requiring payment for the services of the Controller to state agencies in implementing CalATERS to be made by direct transfer.
(5) The Public Employees’ Retirement Law creates the Public Employees’ Retirement System (PERS) for the purpose of providing pension benefits to state employees and employees of contracting agencies and prescribes the rights and duties of members of the system and their beneficiaries. PERS provides a defined benefit to members of the system, based on final compensation, credited service, and age at retirement, subject to certain variations. Existing law prescribes the officers and employees of the Assembly and the Senate, including a sergeant at arms for each house. Existing law classifies the sergeants at arms of the houses as peace officers for purposes of making arrests and enforcing the law. Existing law creates different membership categories in PERS for the purpose of prescribing benefits and contributions, including the classification of “state peace officer/firefighter member.”
Existing law generally includes the sergeants at arms of the Assembly and the Senate within the state peace officer/firefighter member classification, but excepts the Chief Sergeant-at-Arms of the Senate from this classification. Existing law creates the Public Employees’ Retirement Fund as a trust fund to be expended only for purposes related to the system and its administration, as specified, and provides that the fund is continuously appropriated to these ends.
This bill would delete the exception for the Chief Sergeant-at-Arms of the Senate, thereby including the Chief Sergeant-at-Arms of the Senate within the state peace officer/firefighter member classification. By increasing moneys deposited in a continuously appropriated fund, the bill would make an appropriation.
(6) Existing law, the California Secure Choice Retirement Savings Trust Act, establishes the CalSavers Retirement Savings Program to be administered by the California Secure Choice Retirement Savings Investment Board. Existing law requires eligible employers to offer a payroll deposit retirement savings arrangement so that eligible employees may contribute a portion of their salary or wages to a retirement savings program account in the program, as specified. Existing law requires a specified percentage of the annual salary or wages of an eligible employee participating in the program to be deposited in the California Secure Choice Retirement Savings Trust, which is segregated into a program fund and an administrative fund, both of which are continuously appropriated to the board for purposes of the act. Existing law authorizes the board to establish a Gain and Loss Reserve Account within the program fund to allocate interest at the stated interest rate for program years in which the board determines that the stated interest rate cannot be met from investment earnings.
This bill would eliminate the authorization for the board to establish a Gain and Loss Reserve Account within the program fund and would make additional conforming changes.
(7) Existing law subjects certain property to forfeiture, including controlled substances and equipment used to process controlled substances. Existing law requires the Attorney General to publish a report on the number of forfeiture actions, the value of the assets forfeited, and the recipients of the forfeited assets. Existing law requires the Attorney General’s report to cover the calendar year and to be made no later than March 1 of each year.
This bill would instead require the report to be made no later than July 1 of each year.
(8) Existing law imposes various requirements on public and private employers with regard to federal immigration agency worksite enforcement actions. Existing law, except as required by federal law, prohibits an employer from reverifying the employment eligibility of a current employee at a time or in a manner not required by specified federal law. Existing law prescribes a penalty of up to $10,000 for a violation of this prohibition to be recoverable by the Labor Commissioner.
This bill would require the above reverification prohibition to be interpreted and applied consistent with federal law and regulations, and would, among other things, specify that the prohibition does not prohibit an employer from taking any lawful action to review the employment authorization of an employee upon knowing that the employee is, or has become, unauthorized to be employed in the United States.
(9) Existing law establishes the Office of the Inspector General that is responsible, among other things, for contemporaneous oversight of internal affairs investigations and the disciplinary process of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation. Existing law prohibits the Inspector General from hiring a person known to be directly or indirectly involved in an open internal affairs investigation.
This bill would modify the prohibition on hiring to instead prohibit the Inspector General from hiring a person considered a suspect or subject in an investigation. The bill would authorize the Inspector General, among other things, to initiate an audit or review of the department’s internal affairs investigations and disciplinary process. The bill would require the Inspector General to provide contemporaneous oversight of grievances that fall within the department’s process for reviewing and investigating inmate allegations of staff misconduct and other specialty grievances, examining compliance with regulations, department policy, and best practices. The bill would subject the Inspector General to specified standards of conduct during a confidential interview of an employee of the department. The bill would require the Inspector General to issue specified reports on the oversight, audits, and reviews, as specified.
The bill would appropriate $3,499,000 from the General Fund to the Office of the Inspector General to conduct independent audits of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation and to provide oversight of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation’s process for reviewing and investigating inmate allegations of staff misconduct and other specialty grievances.
(10) Existing law requires every motor vehicle subject to registration to be equipped with an adequate muffler in constant operation and properly maintained to prevent any excessive or unusual noise and prohibits a muffler or exhaust system from being equipped with a cutout, bypass, or similar device. Existing law further prohibits the modification of an exhaust system of a motor vehicle in a manner that will amplify or increase the noise emitted by the motor of the vehicle so that the vehicle exceeds existing noise limits when tested in accordance with specified standards. Under existing law, if, after an arrest, accident investigation, or other law enforcement action, it appears that a violation has occurred involving, among other things, vehicle equipment, the arresting officer is required to permit the arrested person to execute a notice containing a promise to correct the violation and to deliver proof of correction to the issuing agency, unless a disqualifying condition exists. Under existing law, a violation of the noise requirements related to mufflers and exhaust systems is a disqualifying condition.
This bill would delete a violation of the noise requirements related to mufflers and exhaust systems from the list of disqualifying conditions, thereby making a person who is arrested for one of these offenses eligible to execute the notice described above, except if the violation consists of modifying the exhaust system of a motorcycle in a manner that will cause it to exceed noise limits. The bill would update the noise level testing standards described above to reflect a more recent standard.
(11) This bill would declare that it is to take effect immediately as a bill providing for appropriations related to the Budget Bill.
Vote: MAJORITY   Appropriation: YES   Fiscal Committee: YES   Local Program: NO  

The people of the State of California do enact as follows:


SECTION 1.

 The Legislature finds and declares the following:
(a) Immigrants are valuable and essential members of the California community. Almost one in three Californians is foreign-born and one in two children in California has at least one immigrant parent.
(b) California has the fifth largest economy in the world. California’s diverse workforce is critical to California’s vibrant economy.
(c) California has a strong interest in ensuring that employers do not discriminate against their employees on the basis of their race, ethnicity, national origin, or citizenship status. Guarding against discrimination or perceived discrimination in the workplace is in the best interest of the health of employees throughout the state and is consistent with state and federal law.
(d) Limiting unnecessary reverification reduces the likelihood that reverification will be misused to intimidate, retaliate, or discriminate against employees who are lawfully authorized to be employed in the United States. Limiting unnecessary reverification also fosters trust between employers and their employees, and furthers California’s interest in promoting a diverse workforce.
(e) Employers have obligations under federal law to not employ unauthorized workers, with which California law does not interfere. Federal law, however “does not intend to impose a continuing verification obligation on employers” (see House Report No. 99-682(I), at p. 57).
(f) Sections 10 and 11 of this act are intended to clarify that Section 1019.2 of the Labor Code is not in any way intended to interfere with any employer’s obligations under federal law. Section 1019.2 of the Labor Code is also not intended to prohibit employer actions that may be authorized under federal law.

SEC. 2.

 Section 23320 of the Business and Professions Code is amended to read:

23320.
 (a) An applicant for a new permanent license, which shall not include duplicate licenses, shall accompany the application with the application fee as specified in this division:
(1) The license application fee for a new permanent license shall be nine hundred five dollars ($905), except as otherwise specified.
(2) Applicants for a new permanent license of the following types shall accompany the application with a fee of fifteen thousand eight hundred thirty-five dollars ($15,835):
(A) Off-sale general (Type 21).
(B) On-sale general - eating place (Type 47), on-sale general public premises (Type 48), special on-sale general (Type 57), special on-sale general for-profit theater (Type 71 and Type 72), brewpub-restaurant (Type 75), caterer’s (Type 83), neighborhood restricted special on-sale (Type 87), and special on-sale general license for historic cemetery (Type 88).
(3) Applicants for a new permanent license of the following types shall accompany the application with a fee as indicated:
(A) Twelve thousand dollars ($12,000) for a wine, food and art cultural museum (Type 78).
(B) Six thousand dollars ($6,000) for an on-sale general - eating place on public property (Type 47) and for an on-sale general restrictive service (Type 70).
(C) Two thousand dollars ($2,000) for an on-sale general dockside (Type 62).
(D) One thousand dollars ($1,000) for a special on-sale general theater (Type 64).
(E) One hundred dollars ($100) for an out-of-state beer manufacturer certificate (Type 26), for a distilled spirits shipper certificate (Type 28), and for a direct shipper permit (Type 82).
(F) One hundred dollars ($100) for a still (Type 6).
(b) The following are the types of licenses and the annual fees to be charged therefor:
(1) (A) For a Type 01 - Beer manufacturer that produces more than 60,000 barrels per year: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one thousand five hundred thirty-one dollars ($1,531) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand eight hundred ninety dollars ($1,890).
(B) For a Duplicate Type 01: the fee through September 30, 2019, is ninety-eight dollars ($98) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).
(2) (A) For a Type 02 - Winegrower (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 5,000 gallons or less: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-one dollars ($71) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).
(B) For a Type 02 - Winegrower (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 5,000 - 20,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred thirty-two dollars ($132) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).
(C) For a Type 02 - Winegrower (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 20,000 - 100,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred thirty-nine dollars ($239) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred twenty-five dollars ($325).
(D) For a Type 02 - Winegrower (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 100,000 - 200,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred fourteen dollars ($314) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).
(E) For a Type 02 - Winegrower (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 200,000 - 1,000,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred sixty-six dollars ($466) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).
(F) For a Type 02 - Winegrower (to be computed only on the gallons produced); for each additional 1,000,000 gallons over 1,000,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred thirteen dollars ($313) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).
(G) For a Duplicate Type 02: the fee through September 30, 2019, is ninety-eight dollars ($98) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).
(3) (A) For a Type 03 - Brandy manufacturer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred eleven dollars ($311) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).
(B) For a Duplicate Type 03: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred eighty-four dollars ($284) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).
(4) For a Type 04 - Distilled spirits manufacturer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).
(5) For a Type 05 - Distilled spirits manufacturer’s agent: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).
(6) For a Type 06 - Still: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).
(7) For a Type 07 - Rectifier: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).
(8) For a Type 08 - Wine rectifier: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).
(9) For a Type 09 - Beer and wine importer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).
(10) For a Type 10 - Beer and wine importer’s general license: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred forty dollars ($340) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).
(11) For a Type 11 - Brandy importer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).
(12) For a Type 12 - Distilled spirits importer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).
(13) For a Type 13 - Distilled spirits importer’s general license: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).
(14) (A) For a Type 14 - Public warehouse: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).
(B) For a Duplicate Type 14: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one dollar ($1) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is twenty-five dollars ($25).
(15) For a Type 15 - Customs broker: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).
(16) For a Type 16 - Wine broker: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred three dollars ($103) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).
(17) For a Type 17 - Beer and wine wholesaler: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred forty dollars ($340) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).
(18) For a Type 18 - Distilled spirits wholesaler: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).
(19) For a Type 19 - Industrial alcohol dealer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred three dollars ($103) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).
(20) For a Type 20 - Off-sale beer and wine: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred seventy-eight dollars ($278) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).
(21) For a Type 21 - Off-sale general: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred seventeen dollars ($617) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).
(22) (A) For a Type 22 - Wine blender (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 5,000 gallons or less: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-one dollars ($71) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).
(B) For a Type 22 - Wine blender (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 5,000 - 20,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred thirty-two dollars ($132) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).
(C) For a Type 22 - Wine blender (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 20,000 gallons - 100,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred thirty-nine dollars ($239) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred twenty-five dollars ($325).
(D) For a Type 22 - Wine blender (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 100,000 - 200,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred fourteen dollars ($314) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).
(E) For a Type 22 - Wine blender (to be computed only on the gallons produced); 200,000 - 1,000,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred sixty-six dollars ($466) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).
(F) For a Type 22 - Wine blender (to be computed only on the gallons produced); for each additional 1,000,000 gallons over 1,000,000 gallons: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred thirteen dollars ($313) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).
(23) (A) For a Type 23 - Small beer manufacturer that produces 60,000 barrels or less a year: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred eighty-four dollars ($184) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).
(B) For a Duplicate Type 23: the fee through September 30, 2019, is ninety-eight dollars ($98) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifteen dollars ($215).
(24) For a Type 24 - Distilled spirits rectifier’s general license: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).
(25) For a Type 25 - California brandy wholesaler: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).
(26) For a Type 26 - Out-of-state beer manufacturer certificate: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-nine dollars ($79) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).
(27) For a Type 27 - California winegrower’s agent: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred ninety-five dollars ($595).
(28) For a Type 28 - Out-of-state distilled spirits shipper certificate: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-nine dollars ($79) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).
(29) For a Type 29 - Winegrape grower storage: the fee through September 30, 2019, is ninety dollars ($90) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).
(30) For a Type 40 - On-sale beer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred eighty-four dollars ($284) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).
(31) For a Type 41 - On-sale beer and wine eating place: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred eighty-four dollars ($384) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).
(32) For a Type 42 - On-sale beer and wine pub premises: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred eighty-four dollars ($284) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).
(33) For a Type 43 - On-sale beer and wine train: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred fourteen dollars ($114) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).
(34) For a Type 44 - On-sale beer and wine fishing party boat: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred fourteen dollars ($114) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).
(35) For a Type 45 - On-sale beer and wine boat: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred fourteen dollars ($114) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).
(36) For a Type 46 - On-sale beer and wine airplane: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred fourteen dollars ($114) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).
(37) (A) For a Type 47 - On-sale general eating place in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).
(B) For a Type 47 - On-sale general eating place in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).
(C) For a Type 47 - On-sale general eating place in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).
(D) For a Duplicate Type 47 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).
(E) For a Duplicate Type 47 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).
(F) For a Duplicate Type 47 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).
(38) (A) For a Type 48 - On-sale general public premises in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).
(B) For a Type 48 - On-sale general public premises in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).
(C) For a Type 48 - On-sale general public premises in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).
(D) For a Duplicate Type 48 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).
(E) For a Duplicate Type 48 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).
(F) For a Duplicate Type 48 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).
(39) (A) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in cities of 40,000 population or over per 3 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred forty-seven dollars ($247) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred twenty-five dollars ($325).
(B) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in cities of 40,000 population or over per 6 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred ninety-four dollars ($494) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is six hundred fifty dollars ($650).
(C) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in cities of 40,000 population or over per 9 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred forty-one dollars ($741) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).
(D) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population per 3 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred seventy-six dollars ($176) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifteen dollars ($215).
(E) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population per 6 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred fifty dollars ($350) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).
(F) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population per 9 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred twenty-six dollars ($526) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is six hundred fifty dollars ($650).
(G) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in all other localities per 3 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred fifty-three dollars ($153) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).
(H) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in all other localities per 6 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred six dollars ($306) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).
(I) For a Type 49 - On-sale general - seasonal business in all other localities per 9 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred fifty-eight dollars ($458) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).
(J) For a Duplicate Type 49 in cities of 40,000 population or over per 3 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred seventy-six dollars ($176) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifteen dollars ($215).
(K) For a Duplicate Type 49 in cities of 40,000 population or over per 6 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred fifty dollars ($350) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).
(L) For a Duplicate Type 49 in cities of 40,000 population or over per 9 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred twenty-six dollars ($526) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is six hundred fifty dollars ($650).
(M) For a Duplicate Type 49 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population or over per 3 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred three dollars ($103) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred twenty-five dollars ($125).
(N) For a Duplicate Type 49 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 per 6 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred seven dollars ($207) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifty dollars ($250).
(O) For a Duplicate Type 49 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population or over per 9 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred eleven dollars ($311) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred seventy-five dollars ($375).
(P) For a Duplicate Type 49 in all other localities per 3 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is eighty-one dollars ($81) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).
(Q) For a Duplicate Type 49 in all other localities per 6 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred sixty-six dollars ($166) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifteen dollars ($215).
(R) For a Duplicate Type 49 in all other localities per 9 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred forty-seven dollars ($247) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred twenty-five dollars ($325).
(40) (A) For a Type 50 - On-sale general license for bona fide clubs in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred sixty dollars ($560) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is six hundred fifty dollars ($650).
(B) For a Type 50 - On-sale general license for bona fide clubs in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred twenty dollars ($420) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).
(C) For a Type 50 - On-sale general license for bona fide clubs in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred seventy-three dollars ($373) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).
(41) (A) For a Type 51 - Club license (issued under Article 4 of this chapter) in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred sixty dollars ($560) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is six hundred fifty dollars ($650).
(B) For a Type 51 - Club license (issued under Article 4 of this chapter) in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred twenty dollars ($420) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).
(C) For a Type 51 - Club license (issued under Article 4 of this chapter) in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred seventy-three dollars ($373) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).
(42) (A) For a Type 52 - Veterans’ club license (issued under Article 5 of this chapter) in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred sixty dollars ($560) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is six hundred fifty dollars ($650).
(B) For a Type 52 - Veterans’ club license (issued under Article 5 of this chapter) in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred twenty dollars ($420) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).
(C) For a Type 52 - Veterans’ club license (issued under Article 5 of this chapter) in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred seventy-three dollars ($373) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).
(43) (A) For a Type 53 - On-sale general train: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred seventeen dollars ($217) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred twenty-five dollars ($325).
(B) For a Duplicate Type 53: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).
(44) For a Type 54 - On-sale general boat: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred sixty-three dollars ($563) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is six hundred fifty dollars ($650).
(45) (A) For a Type 55 - On-sale general license for airplanes: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred sixty-three dollars ($563) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is six hundred fifty dollars ($650).
(B) For a Duplicate Type 55 for air common carriers: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).
(46) (A) For a Type 56 - On-sale general license for vessels of more than 1,000 tons burden: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred seventeen dollars ($217) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred twenty-five dollars ($325).
(B) For a Duplicate Type 56: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).
(47) (A) For a Type 57 - Special on-sale general in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).
(B) For a Type 57 - Special on-sale general in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).
(C) For a Type 57 - Special on-sale general in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).
(D) For a Duplicate Type 57 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).
(E) For a Duplicate Type 57 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).
(F) For a Duplicate Type 57 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).
(48) (A) For a Type 58 - Caterer’s permit; on-sale general or on-sale beer and wine: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred forty-six dollars ($146) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifteen dollars ($215).
(B) For a Type 58 - Caterer’s permit; club in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).
(C) For a Type 58 - Caterer’s permit; club in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).
(D) For a Type 58 - Caterer’s permit; club in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).
(49) (A) For a Type 59 - On-sale beer and wine seasonal; operating period 3-9 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred thirty-nine dollars ($239) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifty dollars ($250).
(B) For a Type 59 - On-sale beer and wine seasonal; operating period 3-6 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred sixty-two dollars ($162) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred seventy-five dollars ($175).
(50) (A) For a Type 60 - On-sale beer seasonal; operating period 3-9 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred thirty-nine dollars ($239) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifty dollars ($250).
(B) For a Type 60 - On-sale beer seasonal; operating period 3-6 months: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred sixty-two dollars ($162) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred seventy-five dollars ($175).
(51) For a Type 61 - On-sale beer public premises: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred eighty-four dollars ($284) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).
(52) For a Type 62 - On-sale general license dockside: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred nine dollars ($609) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).
(53) For a Type 63 - On-sale special beer and wine hospital: the fee through September 30, 2019, is ninety-six dollars ($96) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).
(54) (A) For a Type 64 - Special on-sale general theater in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred sixty dollars ($560) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).
(B) For a Type 64 - Special on-sale general theater in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred twenty dollars ($420) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).
(C) For a Type 64 - Special on-sale general theater in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred seventy-three dollars ($373) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).
(55) For a Type 65 - Special on-sale beer and wine symphony: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred eighty-four dollars ($284) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).
(56) For a Type 66 - Controlled access cabinet: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred seventeen dollars ($617) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).
(57) For a Type 67 - Bed and breakfast inn; per room: the fee through September 30, 2019, is eight dollars ($8) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is ten dollars ($10).
(58) (A) For a Type 68 - Portable bar in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).
(B) For a Type 68 - Portable bar in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).
(C) For a Type 68 - Portable bar in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).
(59) For a Type 69 - Special on-sale beer and wine theater: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred eighty-four dollars ($284) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).
(60) (A) For a Type 70 - On-sale general restrictive service in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).
(B) For a Type 70 - On-sale general restrictive service in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).
(C) For a Type 70 - On-sale general restrictive service in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).
(61) (A) For a Type 71 - Special on-sale general for-profit theater in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).
(B) For a Type 71 - Special on-sale general for-profit theater in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).
(C) For a Type 71 - Special on-sale general for-profit theater in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).
(D) For a Duplicate Type 71 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).
(E) For a Duplicate Type 71 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).
(F) For a Duplicate Type 71 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).
(62) (A) For a Type 72 - Special on-sale general for-profit theater, Napa County in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).
(B) For a Type 72 - Special on-sale general for-profit theater, Napa County in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).
(C) For a Type 72 - Special on-sale general for-profit theater, Napa County in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).
(D) For a Duplicate Type 72 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).
(E) For a Duplicate Type 72 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).
(F) For a Duplicate Type 72 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).
(63) For a Type 73 - Special nonprofit sales: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred fourteen dollars ($114) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred sixty dollars ($160).
(64) For a Type 74 - Craft distilled spirits manufacturer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is five hundred ten dollars ($510) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).
(65) (A) For a Type 75 - Brewpub-restaurant in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).
(B) For a Type 75 - Brewpub-restaurant in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).
(C) For a Type 75 - Brewpub-restaurant in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).
(D) For a Duplicate Type 75 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).
(E) For a Duplicate Type 75 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).
(F) For a Duplicate Type 75 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).
(66) (A) For a Type 76 - On-sale general maritime museum: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred seventeen dollars ($217) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred twenty-five dollars ($325).
(B) For a Duplicate Type 76: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventy-seven dollars ($77) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).
(67) For a Type 77 - Event permit: the fee through September 30, 2019, is one hundred forty-six dollars ($146) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is two hundred fifteen dollars ($215).
(68) (A) For a Type 78 - On-sale general wine, food and art cultural museum in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).
(B) For a Type 78 - On-sale general wine, food and art cultural museum in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).
(C) For a Type 78 - On-sale general wine, food and art cultural museum in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).
(D) For a Duplicate Type 78 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).
(E) For a Duplicate Type 78 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).
(F) For a Duplicate Type 78 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).
(69) For a Type 79 - Certified farmers’ market: the fee through September 30, 2019, is fifty-eight dollars ($58) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).
(70) For a Type 80 - Special on-sale general; per room: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seventeen dollars ($17) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is twenty dollars ($20).
(71) For a Type 81 - Wine sales event permit: the fee through September 30, 2019, is fifty dollars ($50) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).
(72) For a Type 82 - Direct shipper permit: the fee through September 30, 2019, is ten dollars ($10) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is twenty-five dollars ($25).
(73) (A) For a Type 83 - On-sale general caterer’s permit in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).
(B) For a Type 83 - On-sale general caterer’s permit in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).
(C) For a Type 83 - On-sale general caterer’s permit in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).
(74) For a Type 84 - Certified farmers’ market beer: the fee through September 30, 2019, is fifty-eight dollars ($58) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one hundred ten dollars ($110).
(75) For a Type 85 - Limited off-sale wine license: the fee through September 30, 2019, is two hundred seventy-eight dollars ($278) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).
(76) For a Type 86 - Instructional tasting license: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred dollars ($300) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is three hundred eighty dollars ($380).
(77) (A) For a Type 87 - Neighborhood restricted special on-sale in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).
(B) For a Type 87 - Neighborhood restricted special on-sale in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).
(C) For a Type 87 - Neighborhood restricted special on-sale in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).
(D) For a Duplicate Type 87 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).
(E) For a Duplicate Type 87 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).
(F) For a Duplicate Type 87 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).
(78) (A) For a Type 88 - Special on-sale general license for historic cemetery in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is nine hundred seventy-one dollars ($971) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is one thousand one hundred ninety dollars ($1,190).
(B) For a Type 88 - Special on-sale general license for historic cemetery in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is seven hundred eleven dollars ($711) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is nine hundred seventy dollars ($970).
(C) For a Type 88 - Special on-sale general license for historic cemetery in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred thirty-two dollars ($632) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).
(D) For a Duplicate Type 88 in cities of 40,000 population or over: the fee through September 30, 2019, is six hundred ninety-nine dollars ($699) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is seven hundred fifty-five dollars ($755).
(E) For a Duplicate Type 88 in cities of less than 40,000, but more than 20,000 population: the fee through September 30, 2019, is four hundred thirteen dollars ($413) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is five hundred forty dollars ($540).
(F) For a Duplicate Type 88 in all other localities: the fee through September 30, 2019, is three hundred twenty-six dollars ($326) and the fee on and after October 1, 2019, is four hundred thirty dollars ($430).
(c) (1) In addition to the application fee for a new permanent license as specified in subdivision (a), an annual renewal fee, as set forth in subdivision (b), shall accompany the application. The application fee shall be nonrefundable up to the amount of the application fee in paragraph (1) of subdivision (a), as adjusted by subdivisions (d) and (e). The annual fee provided at the time of application shall allow the license to be active for one year from the date of issuance and shall be refundable only in the event that the license application is withdrawn or denied.
(2) If an application includes multiple new permanent licenses to be issued at the same premises, the application fee shall be required for only one of the applied-for licenses and an application fee shall not be charged for the remainder of the licenses. In situations involving different license types, the application fee to be paid shall be the highest such fee as specified in subdivision (a). Notwithstanding this provision, the annual renewal fee required pursuant to this subdivision shall be payable for each license.
(d) Beginning January 1, 2021, and each January 1 thereafter, the department may adjust each of the fees specified in this section by increasing each fee by an amount not to exceed the percentage that the California Consumer Price Index (California Department of Industrial Relations, Division of Labor Statistics and Research, All Items, Base Period 1982-84=100) for the preceding August 2019, and each August annually thereafter, has increased under the same index over the month of August 2018, which shall be the base period. The department shall not adjust fees pursuant to this section if the balance of the Alcohol Beverage Control Fund at the end of the prior fiscal year is greater than one-fourth of the department’s appropriation from the Alcohol Beverage Control Fund for the current fiscal year. No fee shall be decreased pursuant to this adjustment below the fee currently in effect on each December 31. If the accumulation of percentage increases is greater than 8 percent, the department shall not adjust fees without the Legislature’s approval through the budget process. In the event that this index is discontinued, the department shall consult with the Department of Finance to convert the increase calculations to an index then available. When approved by the Department of Finance, the new index shall replace the discontinued index.
(e) When fees are adjusted pursuant to subdivision (d), the department shall calculate the percentage increase as specified in that subdivision and shall apply this increase to each fee. The increase to each fee shall be rounded to the nearest whole five dollars ($5). The adjusted fee list, to be effective on January 1 of the upcoming year, shall be published by the department on its internet website and transmitted in writing to the Chairperson of the Joint Legislative Budget Committee no later than January 10 of the year before it becomes effective. This adjustment of fees and publication of the adjusted fee list is not subject to the requirements of Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1 of Division 3 of Title 2 of the Government Code.

SEC. 3.

 Section 12815 of the Government Code is amended to read:

12815.
 (a) The Office of Digital Innovation is hereby established on July 1, 2019, within the Government Operations Agency.
(b) There shall be a Director of the Office of Digital Innovation.
The director shall be appointed by, and serve at the pleasure of, the Governor. The director shall report to the Secretary of Government Operations. The director shall be responsible for managing the affairs of the office and shall perform all duties, exercise all powers and jurisdiction, and assume and discharge all responsibilities necessary to carry out the purposes of this section. The Governor may appoint people to the office who are exempt from civil service. The total number of exempt positions in the office shall not exceed 20.
(c) For the purposes of this section:
(1) “Director” means the Director of the Office of Digital Innovation.
(2) “Fund” means the Digital Innovation Services Revolving Fund.
(3) “Office” means the Office of Digital Innovation.
(4) “Service delivery” means the provision of a service or services, product or products, by a state entity or state entities to persons, other state entities, constitutional state entities, independent state entities, local government entities, federal entities, private entities, or nonprofit entities.
(5) “State entity” means an entity within the executive branch that is under the direct authority of the Governor, including, but not limited to, all departments, boards, bureaus, commissions, councils, and agencies.
(d) The office’s mission shall be to deliver better government services to the people of California through technology and design. The office will fulfill this mission by:
(1) Collaborating with state entities to transform government services. The office will focus on measurably improving services using a deliberate, user-focused approach.
(2) Investing in state capabilities to put users first, build iteratively, and let data drive decisions.
(3) Rethinking and improving how the state buys digital services.
(4) Expanding the use of common platforms, services, and tools.
(e) The director shall hire staff to assist in the fulfillment of the duties and responsibilities of the office.
(f) The director shall establish a program to improve the state’s service delivery functions, guided by service delivery best practices.
(1) The director is hereby authorized to engage with state entities for the purpose of improving the service delivery functions of those state entities.
(2) Engagements shall be formalized in writing and shall identify, at minimum, the roles and responsibilities of both the office and the state entity being engaged by the office.
(g) The director may create, update, or publish, in consultation with the appropriate control agency, policies, standards, and procedures for state entities in the State Administrative Manual or Statewide Information Management Manual regarding:
(1) Service delivery design, implementation, maintenance, and operations.
(2) Service delivery assessments.
(3) Service delivery improvement and problem mitigation.
(h) The director shall train state supervisors, managers, executives, and other staff in leadership positions regarding service delivery best practices. The director is authorized to require state entity staff to attend training deemed necessary by the director. The director may consult or contract with the Department of Human Resources or the Department of Technology for assistance or delivery of training as needed to fulfill the purposes of this section.
(i) Any funds appropriated to the office for the purpose of funding various statewide innovation activities are to be administered by the director for the implementation, support, or assessment of state entities’ existing or proposed service delivery functions.
(j) While engaged with a state entity, office staff shall, in the performance of their duties related to the improvement of service delivery functions, have access to, and the authority to examine or reproduce, any and all records, data, information technology systems or other functionality, or any other document or component related to the service delivery function being improved by the office.
(1) The office shall maintain the confidentiality of, and protect from unauthorized access or disclosure, all records, data, information technology systems or other functionality, or any other document or component received from, or otherwise accessed from, any state entity engaged with the office in accordance with state law, including, but not limited to, the Information Practices Act of 1977.
(2) The director, any employee or former employee of the office, any person or business entity that is contracting with or has contracted with the office and the employees and former employees of that person or business entity shall not divulge or make known to any person not employed by the office in any manner not expressly permitted by law any particulars of any record, data, information technology systems or other functionality, or any other document or component, the disclosure of which is restricted by law from release to the public. This subdivision shall also apply to the officers and employees of, and any person or business entity that is contracting with, or has contracted with, any state or local governmental agency or publicly created entity, that has assisted the office in the course of any engagement.
(3) Any officer, employee, or person who discloses the particulars of any record, data, information technology systems or other functionality, or any other document or component in violation of this section shall be subject to a civil penalty not to exceed five thousand dollars ($5,000), including the release of any information received pursuant to Section 10850 of the Welfare and Institutions Code, or that is otherwise prohibited by law to be disclosed.
(4) Upon the completion of each engagement, the office shall dispose of all records, data, and other documentation received, copied, or otherwise in the possession of the office as a result of the engagement that contains personally identifiable information in accordance with state law.
(k) The adoption, amendment, or repeal of the policies, procedures, guidelines, or other directives consistent with this chapter are exempted from the rulemaking provisions of the Administrative Procedure Act (Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 11340) of Part 1).
(l) (1) Effective July 1, 2020, the Digital Innovation Services Revolving Fund is hereby created within the State Treasury. The fund shall be administered by the director to receive all revenues from the sale of services rendered by the office and all other moneys properly credited to the office from any other source. Notwithstanding Section 13340, until July 1, 2024, moneys in the fund are continuously appropriated to the office without regard to fiscal year to pay all costs arising from this section and rendering of services to state entities, including, but not limited to, employment and compensation of necessary personnel and expenses, such as operating and other expenses of the office, and costs associated with approved information technology projects, and to establish reserves. On and after July 1, 2024, moneys in the fund shall be available upon appropriation of the Legislature. At the discretion of the director, segregated, dedicated accounts within the fund may be established.
(2) On or before February 1, 2021, and each February 1 thereafter, the director shall submit a report to the Chairperson of the Joint Legislative Budget Committee, or the chairperson’s designee, that includes a summary of the activities of the office and a listing and descriptions of all expenditures made from the fund, as well as all revenues received by the fund, for the prior fiscal year.
(3) The fund shall consist of all of the following:
(A) Moneys appropriated and made available by the Legislature for the purposes of this section.
(B) Donations, endowments, or grants of funds from private or public sources for any purposes of this section. The office and the Controller may establish separate accounts in the fund for the purpose of separating deposits according to their origin or intended purpose.
(C) Any other moneys that may be made available to the office from any other source, including the return from investments of moneys by the Treasurer.
(m) The office may collect payments from state entities for providing services to client entities. The office may require monthly payments by client entities for the services provided. Pursuant to Section 11255, the Controller shall transfer any amounts so authorized by the office, consistent with the annual budget of each department, to the fund. The office shall notify each affected state entity upon requesting the Controller to make the transfer.
(n) Notwithstanding any other law, the Controller may use the moneys in the fund for cashflow loans to the General Fund, as provided in Sections 16310 and 16381.

SEC. 4.

 Section 16418.8 of the Government Code is amended to read:

16418.8.
 (a) The Budget Deficit Savings Account is hereby established in the State Treasury to serve as a supplementary savings account to mitigate the effects of actual or future projected budget deficits in the General Fund or other state funds.
(b) (1) Deposits to the Budget Stabilization Account for the 2018–19 fiscal year, above the amounts required by Section 20 of Article XVI of the California Constitution, as defined and appropriated in the 2018 Budget Act, shall be transferred from the General Fund to the Budget Deficit Savings Account. Based on the updated projection as calculated by the Department of Finance during the 2019–20 May Revision, upon order of the Director of Finance, no earlier than May 31, 2019, the Controller shall transfer the updated amount from the Budget Deficit Savings Account to the Budget Stabilization Account.
(2) Upon order of the Director of Finance, the Controller shall transfer 50 percent of the remaining amounts deposited in the Budget Deficit Savings Account that are not transferred to the Budget Stabilization Account pursuant to subdivision (b) to the Safety Net Reserve Fund, created by Section 11011 of the Welfare and Institutions Code. The remaining 50 percent of the balance shall remain in the Budget Deficit Savings Account.
(3) In any fiscal year, the Legislature may transfer funds into the Budget Deficit Savings Account or authorize the transfer of some or all of the balance of the Budget Deficit Savings Account to the General Fund or any other state fund.
(c) Notwithstanding any other law, the Controller may use the funds in the Budget Deficit Savings Account for cashflow loans to the General Fund as provided in Sections 16310 and 16381.

SEC. 5.

 Section 19822.3 of the Government Code is amended to read:

19822.3.
 All state agencies shall implement and use the California Automated Travel Expense Reimbursement System (CalATERS) to automate processing of employee travel claims by July 1, 2009, unless the Controller recommends, and the Department of Finance approves, an exemption request. To request an exemption, a department or agency shall submit documentation to the Controller no later than July 1, 2007, to substantiate that the implementation of CalATERS is not feasible or cost-effective for that department or agency. The Department of Finance and the Controller shall jointly report to the Joint Legislative Budget Committee, not later than February 1, 2008, on the exemptions that have been approved and the bases for the exemptions.

SEC. 6.

 Section 20397 of the Government Code is amended to read:

20397.
 “State peace officer/firefighter member” also includes:
(a) The Sergeants-at-Arms of each house of the Legislature who have been designated as peace officers in subdivision (a) of Section 830.36 of the Penal Code.
(b) Bailiffs and security coordinators of the judicial branch who have been designated as peace officers in subdivision (b) of Section 830.36 of the Penal Code.
A member who is reclassified from state miscellaneous to state peace officer/firefighter pursuant to this section may make an irrevocable election in writing to remain subject to the miscellaneous service retirement benefit and the normal rate of contribution by filing a notice of the election with the board within 90 days of notification by the board. A member who so elects shall be subject to the reduced benefit factors specified in Section 21353 or 21354.1, as applicable, only for service included in the federal system.

SEC. 7.

 Section 100002 of the Government Code is amended to read:

100002.
 (a) (1) There is hereby created within state government the California Secure Choice Retirement Savings Investment Board, which shall consist of nine members, with the Treasurer serving as chair, as follows:
(A) The Treasurer.
(B) The Director of Finance, or the director’s designee.
(C) The Controller.
(D) An individual with retirement savings and investment expertise appointed by the Senate Committee on Rules.
(E) An employee representative appointed by the Speaker of the Assembly.
(F) A small business representative appointed by the Governor.
(G) A public member appointed by the Governor.
(H) Two additional members appointed by the Governor.
(2) Members of the board appointed by the Governor, the Senate Committee on Rules, and the Speaker of the Assembly shall serve at the pleasure of the appointing authority.
(b) All members of the board shall serve without compensation. Members of the board shall be reimbursed for necessary travel expenses incurred in connection with their board duties.
(c) A board member, program administrator, and other staff of the board shall not do any of the following:
(1) Directly or indirectly have any interest in the making of any investment made for the program, or in the gains or profits accruing from any investment made for the program.
(2) Borrow any funds or deposits of the trust, or use those funds or deposits in any manner, for themselves or as an agent or partner of others.
(3) Become an endorser, surety, or obligor on investments by the board.
(d) The board and the program administrator and staff, including contracted administrators and consultants, shall discharge their duties as fiduciaries with respect to the trust solely in the interest of the program participants as follows:
(1) For the exclusive purposes of providing benefits to program participants and defraying reasonable expenses of administering the program.
(2) By investing with the care, skill, prudence, and diligence under the circumstances then prevailing that a prudent person acting in a like capacity and familiar with those matters would use in the conduct of an enterprise of a like character and with like aims.
(e) The board, subject to its authority and fiduciary duty, shall design and implement the CalSavers Retirement Savings Program.
(1) (A) For up to three years following the initial implementation of the program, the board shall establish managed accounts invested in United States Treasuries, myRAs, or similar investments.
(B) The board shall have the authority to provide for investment in myRAs, provided that, in accordance with the myRA provisions, myRA contributions and investment returns shall only be used for myRA investments and to make distributions to, or for the benefit of, participants and shall not be used to pay any costs of administration.
(2) During period described in paragraph (1), the board shall develop and implement an investment policy that defines the program’s investment objectives and shall establish policies and procedures enabling investment objectives to be met in a prudent manner. The board shall seek to minimize participant fees and strive to implement program features that provide maximum possible income replacement balanced with appropriate risk in an IRA-based environment. The policy shall describe the investment options available to holders of individual savings accounts established as part of the program. Investment options may encompass a range of risk and return opportunities and allow for a rate of return commensurate with an appropriate level of risk to meet the investment objectives stated in the policy.
(3) After the period described in paragraph (1) has expired, the board shall annually prepare and adopt a written statement of investment policy that includes a risk management and oversight program. The board shall consider the statement of investment policy and any changes in the investment policy at a public hearing.
(4) The risk management and oversight program shall include an effective risk management system to monitor the risk levels of the CalSavers Retirement Savings Program investment portfolio and ensure that the risks taken are prudent and properly managed. The program shall be managed to provide an integrated process for overall risk management on both a consolidated and disaggregated basis, and to monitor investment returns as well as risk to determine if the risks taken are adequately compensated compared to applicable performance benchmarks and standards.
(f) The board shall approve an investment management entity or entities, the costs of which shall be paid out of funds held in the trust and shall not be attributed to the administrative costs of the board in operating the trust. Not later than 30 days after the close of each month, the board shall place on file for public inspection during business hours a report with respect to investments made pursuant to this section and a report of deposits in financial institutions.

SEC. 8.

 Section 100006 of the Government Code is repealed.

SEC. 9.

 Section 11495 of the Health and Safety Code is amended to read:

11495.
 (a) The funds received by the law enforcement agencies under Section 11489 shall be deposited into an account maintained by the Controller, county auditor, or city treasurer. These funds shall be distributed to the law enforcement agencies at their request. The Controller, auditor, or treasurer shall maintain a record of these disbursements which records shall be open to public inspection, subject to the privileges contained in Sections 1040, 1041, and 1042 of the Evidence Code.
(b) Upon request of the governing body of the jurisdiction in which the distributions are made, the Controller, auditor, or treasurer shall conduct an audit of these funds and their use. In the case of the state, the governing body shall be the Legislature.
(c) Each year, the Attorney General shall publish a report that sets forth the following information for the state, each county, each city, and each city and county:
(1) The number of forfeiture actions initiated and administered by state or local agencies under California law, the number of cases adopted by the federal government, and the number of cases initiated by a joint federal-state action that were prosecuted under federal law.
(2) The number of cases and the administrative number or court docket number of each case for which forfeiture was ordered or declared.
(3) The number of suspects charged with a controlled substance violation.
(4) The number of alleged criminal offenses that were under federal or state law.
(5) The disposition of cases, including no charge, dropped charges, acquittal, plea agreement, jury conviction, or other.
(6) The value of the assets forfeited.
(7) The recipients of the forfeited assets, the amounts received, and the date of the disbursement.
(d) The Attorney General shall develop administrative guidelines for the collection and publication of the information required in subdivision (c).
(e) The Attorney General’s report shall cover the calendar year and shall be made no later than July 1 of each year.

SEC. 10.

 Section 1019.2 of the Labor Code is amended to read:

1019.2.
 (a) Except as otherwise required by federal law, a public or private employer, or a person acting on behalf of a public or private employer, shall not reverify the employment eligibility of a current employee at a time or in a manner not required by Section 1324a(b) of Title 8 of the United States Code.
(b) (1) Except as provided in paragraph (2), an employer who violates subdivision (a) shall be subject to a civil penalty of up to ten thousand dollars ($10,000). The penalty shall be recoverable by the Labor Commissioner.
(2) The actions of an employer that violate subdivision (a) and result in a civil penalty under paragraph (1) shall not also form the basis for liability or penalty under Section 1019.1.
(c) Subdivision (a) shall be interpreted and applied consistent with federal law and regulations. This section does not prohibit an employer from doing any of the following:
(1) Reverifying an employees’ employment authorization in a time and manner consistent with Section 274a.2(b)(1)(vii) of Title 8 of the Code of Federal Regulations.
(2) Taking any lawful action to review the employment authorization of an employee upon knowing that the employee is, or has become, unauthorized to be employed in the United States, consistent with Section 1324a(a)(2) of Title 8 of the United States Code, including in response to specific and detailed information from any agency within the United States Department of Homeland Security indicating that an employee is not authorized to be employed in the United States.
(3) Reminding an employee, at least 90 days before the date reverification is required, that the employee will be required to present a document identified in List A or a combination of one document from List B and one document from List C, as required by the I-9 Employment Eligibility Verification Form, showing continued employment authorization on the date that their current employment authorization will expire or on the date that their current documentation will expire, whichever date is sooner.
(4) Taking any lawful action to correct errors or omissions in a missing or incomplete I-9 Employment Eligibility Verification Form.
(d) In accordance with state and federal law, nothing in this chapter shall be interpreted, construed, or applied to restrict or limit an employer’s compliance with a memorandum of understanding governing the use of the federal E-Verify system.
(e) For purposes of this section, the term “knowing” is defined as set forth in Section 274a.1(l) of Title 8 of the Code of Federal Regulations and as interpreted by applicable federal rules, regulations, and controlling federal case law. The term “knowing” includes not only actual knowledge, but also knowledge that may fairly be inferred through notice of certain facts and circumstances that would lead a person, through the exercise of reasonable care, to know about a certain condition. Constructive knowledge may be found under the circumstances described in Section 274a.1(l)(2) of Title 8 of the Code of Federal Regulations and may not be inferred from an employee’s foreign appearance or accent.

SEC. 11.Section 1019.3 is added to the Labor Code, to read:
1019.3.

SEC. 11.

 Section 1019.4 is added to the Labor Code, to read:

1019.4.
 For purposes of this chapter, the terms “reverify” or “reverifying” mean the actions described in Section 274a.2(b)(1)(vii) of Title 8 of the Code of Federal Regulations. These terms shall be interpreted consistently with any applicable federal rules, regulations, and controlling federal case law.

SEC. 12.

 Section 6126 of the Penal Code is amended to read:

6126.
 (a) The Inspector General shall be responsible for contemporaneous oversight of internal affairs investigations and the disciplinary process of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation, pursuant to Section 6133 under policies to be developed by the Inspector General.
(b) When requested by the Governor, the Senate Committee on Rules, or the Speaker of the Assembly, the Inspector General shall initiate an audit or review of policies, practices, and procedures of the department. The Inspector General may, under policies developed by the Inspector General, initiate an audit or review on the Inspector General’s own accord. Following a completed audit or review, the Inspector General may perform a followup audit or review to determine what measures the department implemented to address the Inspector General’s findings and to assess the effectiveness of those measures.
(c) (1) Upon completion of an audit or review pursuant to subdivision (b), the Inspector General shall prepare a complete written report, which may be held as confidential and disclosed in confidence, along with all underlying materials the Inspector General deems appropriate, to the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation and to the requesting entity in subdivision (b), where applicable.
(2) The Inspector General shall also prepare a public report. When necessary, the public report shall differ from the complete written report in the respect that the Inspector General shall have the discretion to redact or otherwise protect the names of individuals, specific locations, or other facts that, if not redacted, might hinder prosecution related to the review, compromise the safety and security of staff, inmates, or members of the public, or where disclosure of the information is otherwise prohibited by law, and to decline to produce any of the underlying materials. Copies of public reports shall be posted on the Office of the Inspector General’s internet website.
(d) The Inspector General shall, during the course of an audit or review, identify areas of full and partial compliance, or noncompliance, with departmental policies and procedures, specify deficiencies in the completion and documentation of processes, and recommend corrective actions, including, but not limited to, additional training, additional policies, or changes in policy, as well as any other findings or recommendations that the Inspector General deems appropriate.
(e) The Inspector General, pursuant to Section 6126.6, shall review the Governor’s candidates for appointment to serve as warden for the state’s adult correctional institutions and as superintendents for the state’s juvenile facilities.
(f) The Inspector General shall conduct an objective, clinically appropriate, and metric-oriented medical inspection program to periodically review delivery of medical care at each state prison.
(g) The Inspector General shall conduct an objective, metric-oriented oversight and inspection program to periodically review delivery of the reforms identified in the document released by the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation in April 2012, entitled The Future of California Corrections: A Blueprint to Save Billions of Dollars, End Federal Court Oversight, and Improve the Prison System (the blueprint), including, but not limited to, the following specific goals and reforms described by the blueprint:
(1) Whether the department has increased the percentage of inmates served in rehabilitative programs to 70 percent of the department’s target population prior to their release.
(2) The establishment of an adherence to the standardized staffing model at each institution.
(3) The establishment of an adherence to the new inmate classification score system.
(4) The establishment of and adherence to the new prison gang management system, including changes to the department’s current policies for identifying prison-based gang members and associates and the use and conditions associated with the department’s security housing units.
(5) The implementation of and adherence to the Comprehensive Housing Plan described in the blueprint.
(h) The Inspector General shall, in consultation with the Department of Finance, develop a methodology for producing a workload budget to be used for annually adjusting the budget of the Office of the Inspector General, beginning with the budget for the 2005–06 fiscal year.
(i) The Inspector General shall provide contemporaneous oversight of grievances that fall within the department’s process for reviewing and investigating inmate allegations of staff misconduct and other specialty grievances, examining compliance with regulations, department policy, and best practices. This contemporaneous oversight shall be completed within the Inspector General’s budget excluding resources that, beginning in the Budget Act of 2019, were provided to restore the Inspector General’s ability to initiate an audit or review pursuant to subdivision (a). The contemporaneous oversight shall be completed in a way that does not unnecessarily slow the department’s review and investigation of inmate allegations of staff misconduct and other specialty grievances. The Inspector General shall issue reports annually, beginning in 2021.
(j) The Inspector General shall monitor the department’s process for reviewing uses of force and shall issue reports annually.

SEC. 13.

 Section 6126.2 of the Penal Code is amended to read:

6126.2.
 The Inspector General shall not hire any person known to be considered a suspect or subject in an investigation being conducted by any federal, state, or local agency.

SEC. 14.

 Section 6126.3 of the Penal Code is amended to read:

6126.3.
 (a) The Inspector General shall not destroy any papers or memoranda used to support a completed review within three years after a report is released.
(b) Except as provided in subdivision (c), all books, papers, records, and correspondence of the office pertaining to its work are public records subject to Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 6250) of Division 7 of Title 1 of the Government Code and shall be filed at any of the regularly maintained offices of the Inspector General.
(c) The following books, papers, records, and correspondence of the Office of the Inspector General pertaining to its work are not public records subject to Chapter 3.5 (commencing with Section 6250) of Division 7 of Title 1 of the Government Code, nor shall they be subject to discovery pursuant to any provision of Title 3 (commencing with Section 1985) of Part 4 of the Code of Civil Procedure or Chapter 7 (commencing with Section 19570) of Part 2 of Division 5 of Title 2 of the Government Code in any manner:
(1) All reports, papers, correspondence, memoranda, electronic communications, or other documents that are otherwise exempt from disclosure pursuant to the provisions of subdivision (d) of Section 6126.5, Section 6126.6, subdivision (c) of Section 6128, subdivision (c) of Section 6126, or all other applicable laws regarding confidentiality, including, but not limited to, the California Public Records Act, the Public Safety Officers’ Procedural Bill of Rights, the Information Practices Act of 1977, the Confidentiality of Medical Information Act of 1977, and the provisions of Section 832.7, relating to the disposition notification for complaints against peace officers.
(2) Any papers, correspondence, memoranda, electronic communications, or other documents pertaining to any audit or review that has not been completed.
(3) Any papers, correspondence, memoranda, electronic communications, or other documents pertaining to internal discussions between the Inspector General and the Inspector General’s staff, or between staff members of the Inspector General, or any personal notes of the Inspector General or the Inspector General’s staff.
(4) All identifying information, and any personal papers or correspondence from any person requesting assistance from the Inspector General, except in those cases where the Inspector General determines that disclosure of the information is necessary in the interests of justice.
(5) Any papers, correspondence, memoranda, electronic communications, or other documents pertaining to contemporaneous public oversight pursuant to Section 6133 or subdivision (i) or (j) of Section 6126.

SEC. 15.

 Section 6126.5 of the Penal Code is amended to read:

6126.5.
 (a) Notwithstanding any other law, the Inspector General during regular business hours or at any other time determined necessary by the Inspector General, shall have access to and authority to examine and reproduce any and all books, accounts, reports, vouchers, correspondence files, documents, and other records, and to examine the bank accounts, money, or other property of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation in connection with duties authorized by this chapter. Any officer or employee of any agency or entity having these records or property in their possession or under their control shall permit access to, and examination and reproduction thereof consistent with the provisions of this section, upon the request of the Inspector General or the Inspector General’s authorized representative.
(b) In connection with duties authorized by this chapter, the Inspector General or the Inspector General’s authorized representative shall have access to the records and property of any public or private entity or person subject to review or regulation by the public agency or public entity to the same extent that employees or officers of that agency or public entity have access. No provision of law, memorandum of understanding, or any other agreement entered into between the employing entity and the employee or the employee’s representative providing for the confidentiality or privilege of any records or property shall prevent disclosure pursuant to subdivision (a). Access, examination, and reproduction consistent with the provisions of this section shall not result in the waiver of any confidentiality or privilege regarding any records or property.
(c) Any officer or person who fails or refuses to permit access, examination, or reproduction, as required by this section, is guilty of a misdemeanor.
(d) The Inspector General may require any employee of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation to be interviewed on a confidential basis. Any employee requested to be interviewed shall comply and shall have time afforded by the appointing authority for the purpose of an interview with the Inspector General or the Inspector General’s designee. The Inspector General shall have the discretion to redact the name or other identifying information of any person interviewed from any public report issued by the Inspector General, where required by law or where the failure to redact the information may hinder prosecution or an action in a criminal, civil, or administrative proceeding, or where the Inspector General determines that disclosure of the information is not in the interests of justice. It is not the purpose of these communications to address disciplinary action or grievance procedures that may routinely occur. When conducting an investigation into allegations that an employee of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation engaged in misconduct, the Inspector General shall comply with Sections 3303, 3307, 3307.5, 3308, 3309, and subdivisions (a) to (d), inclusive, of Section 3309.5 of the Government Code, except that the Inspector General shall not be subject to the provisions of any memorandum of understanding or other agreement entered into between the employing entity and the employee or the employee’s representative that is in conflict with, or adds to the requirements of, Sections 3303, 3307, 3307.5, 3308, 3309, and subdivisions (a) to (d), inclusive, of Section 3309.5 of the Government Code.

SEC. 16.

 Section 6133 of the Penal Code is amended to read:

6133.
 (a) The Office of the Inspector General shall be responsible for contemporaneous public oversight of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation investigations and staff grievance inquiries conducted by the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation’s Office of Internal Affairs. To facilitate oversight of the department’s internal affairs investigations, the Office of the Inspector General shall have staff physically colocated with the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation’s Office of Internal Affairs, within a reasonable timeframe and without any undue delays. The Office of the Inspector General shall also be responsible for advising the public regarding the adequacy of each investigation, and whether discipline of the subject of the investigation is warranted. The Office of the Inspector General shall have discretion to provide public oversight of other Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation personnel investigations as needed.
(b) (1) The Office of the Inspector General shall issue regular reports, no less than annually, to the Governor and the Legislature summarizing its recommendations concerning its oversight of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation allegations of internal misconduct and use of force. The Office of the Inspector General shall also issue regular reports, no less than semiannually, summarizing its oversight of Office of Internal Affairs investigations pursuant to subdivision (a). The reports shall include, but not be limited to, all of the following:
(A) Data on the number, type, and disposition of complaints made against correctional officers and staff.
(B) A synopsis of each matter reviewed by the Office of the Inspector General.
(C) An assessment of the quality of the investigation, the appropriateness of any disciplinary charges, the Office of the Inspector General’s recommendations regarding the disposition in the case and when founded, the level of discipline afforded, and the degree to which the agency’s authorities agreed with the Office of the Inspector General recommendations regarding disposition and level of discipline.
(D) The report of any settlement and whether the Office of the Inspector General concurred with the settlement.
(E) The extent to which any discipline was modified after imposition.
(2) The reports shall be in a form that does not identify the agency employees involved in the alleged misconduct.
(3) The reports shall be posted on the Inspector General’s internet website and otherwise made available to the public upon their release to the Governor and the Legislature.

SEC. 17.

 Section 27150.2 of the Vehicle Code is amended to read:

27150.2.
 (a) Stations providing referee functions pursuant to Section 44036 of the Health and Safety Code shall provide for the testing of vehicular exhaust systems and the issuance of certificates of compliance only for those vehicles that have received a citation for a violation of Section 27150 or 27151.
(b) A certificate of compliance for a vehicular exhaust system shall be issued pursuant to subdivision (a) if the vehicle complies with Sections 27150 and 27151. Exhaust systems installed on motor vehicles, other than motorcycles, with a manufacturer’s gross vehicle weight rating of less than 6,000 pounds comply with Sections 27150 and 27151 if they emit no more than 95 dbA when tested in accordance with Society of Automotive Engineers Standard J1492 Oct 2008.
(c) An exhaust system certificate of compliance issued pursuant to subdivision (a) shall identify, to the extent possible, the make, model, year, license number, and vehicle identification number of the vehicle tested, and the make and model of the exhaust system installed on the vehicle.
(d) The station shall charge a fee for the exhaust system certificate of compliance issued pursuant to subdivision (a). The fee charged shall be calculated to recover the costs incurred by the Department of Consumer Affairs to implement this section. The fees charged by the station shall be deposited in the Vehicle Inspection and Repair Fund established by Section 44062 of the Health and Safety Code.
(e) Vehicular exhaust systems are exempt from the requirements of Sections 27150 and 27151 if compliance with those sections, or the regulations adopted pursuant thereto, would cause an unreasonable hardship without resulting in a sufficient corresponding benefit with respect to noise level control.

SEC. 18.

 Section 27151 of the Vehicle Code is amended to read:

27151.
 (a) A person shall not modify the exhaust system of a motor vehicle in a manner which will amplify or increase the noise emitted by the motor of the vehicle so that the vehicle is not in compliance with the provisions of Section 27150 or exceeds the noise limits established for the type of vehicle in Article 2.5 (commencing with Section 27200). A person shall not operate a motor vehicle with an exhaust system so modified.
(b) For the purposes of exhaust systems installed on motor vehicles with a manufacturer’s gross vehicle weight rating of less than 6,000 pounds, other than motorcycles, a sound level of 95 dbA or less, when tested in accordance with Society of Automotive Engineers Standard J1492 Oct 2008, complies with this section. Motor vehicle exhaust systems or parts thereof include, but are not limited to, nonoriginal exhaust equipment.

SEC. 19.

 Section 40610 of the Vehicle Code is amended to read:

40610.
 (a) (1) Except as provided in paragraph (2), if, after an arrest, accident investigation, or other law enforcement action, it appears that a violation has occurred involving a registration, license, all-terrain vehicle safety certificate, or mechanical requirement of this code, and none of the disqualifying conditions set forth in subdivision (b) exist and the investigating officer decides to take enforcement action, the officer shall prepare, in triplicate, and the violator shall sign, a written notice containing the violator’s promise to correct the alleged violation and to deliver proof of correction of the violation to the issuing agency.
(2) If a person is arrested for a violation of Section 4454, and none of the disqualifying conditions set forth in subdivision (b) exist, the arresting officer shall prepare, in triplicate, and the violator shall sign, a written notice containing the violator’s promise to correct the alleged violation and to deliver proof of correction of the violation to the issuing agency. In lieu of issuing a notice to correct violation pursuant to this section, the officer may issue a notice to appear, as specified in Section 40522.
(b) Pursuant to subdivision (a), a notice to correct violation shall be issued as provided in this section or a notice to appear shall be issued as provided in Section 40522, unless the officer finds any of the following:
(1) Evidence of fraud or persistent neglect.
(2) The violation presents an immediate safety hazard.
(3) The violator does not agree to, or cannot, promptly correct the violation.
(4) The violation cited is of subdivision (a) of Section 27151 for a motorcycle.
(c) If any of the conditions set forth in subdivision (b) exist, the procedures specified in this section or Section 40522 are inapplicable, and the officer may take other appropriate enforcement action.
(d) Except as otherwise provided in subdivision (a), the notice to correct violation shall be on a form approved by the Judicial Council and, in addition to the owner’s or operator’s address and identifying information, shall contain an estimate of the reasonable time required for correction and proof of correction of the particular defect, not to exceed 30 days, or 90 days for the all-terrain vehicle safety certificate.

SEC. 20.

 The sum of three million four hundred ninety-nine thousand dollars ($3,499,000) is hereby appropriated from the General Fund to the Office of the Inspector General for expenditure in the 2019–20 fiscal year in augmentation of Item 0552-001-0001 of Section 2 of the Budget Act of 2019 to fund independent audits of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation and oversight of the Department of Corrections and Rehabilitation’s process for reviewing and investigating inmate allegations of staff misconduct and other specialty grievances.

SEC. 21.

 This act is a bill providing for appropriations related to the Budget Bill within the meaning of subdivision (e) of Section 12 of Article IV of the California Constitution, has been identified as related to the budget in the Budget Bill, and shall take effect immediately.